TH

4 CLASS

OPERATING
ENGINEER

4B-4000

PRIME MOVERS
&
ENGINES
Handbook of Formulae and Physical Constants,
Steam Tables, Refrigeration Tables,
Provincial Operating ( Stationary, Power ) Engineer Act,
Provincial Boiler Act,
B-51 Boiler, Pressure Vessel & Pressure Piping Code,
B-52 Mechanical Refrigeration Code,
Extract from ASME Code Section 1 ( Rules for Construction of Power Boilers,
Calculator & a Protractor Set can be used for all tests

Before doing this test, open your 4th Class CD - Click CD-ROM2 – Movies – BA-BB-BC
OPEN 3RD Class CD open LEARNING ACTIVIES – SECTION -4
 2

HEAT ENGINES, PRIME MOVERS,

&
THE SIMPLE STEAM ENGINE
The steam is admitted above the piston to give a downward thrust and then below the piston to give an
upward thrust. In each case the steam supply is cut off when the piston has made only part of its stroke,
this may be 1/4 to 1/3 depending upon the engine load.
The steam is admitted above the piston to give a downward thrust and then below the piston to give an
upward thrust.
The valve has a reciprocating motion timed to match the motion of the piston and imparted by the
valve gear. The valve gear consists of the eccentric, the eccentric rod, and the valve rod.
The crosshead takes the angular push or pull of the connecting rod against the piston rod during the
greater part of the revolution when these rods are not "in line"; the valve rod guide fulfills the same
function in the case of the valve spindle and eccentric rod.
The following diagram shows the major components of a piston steam engine. This sort of engine
would be typical in a steam locomotive.

The engine shown is a double-acting steam engine because the valve allows high-pressure steam to act
alternately on both faces of the piston.
Charlie Dockstader has produced two Corliss releasing gear simulation programs, the American
Reynolds Corliss gear and English Inglis and Spencer releasing gear as used by Hick Hargreaves of
Bolton. When using the links above to the website use the letter G to start the engine and the letter A to
show steam flows.
 3

1. A steam engine will have the steam supply to the cylinder shut off once the piston has
traveled:

A. 25 to 35% of its stroke

B. 75 to 90% of its stroke
C. 15 to 20% of its stroke
D. 55 to 65% of its stroke
E. 90 to 95% of its stroke

2. When deciding on the energy design of a power plant, which of these would NOT be of
particular concern?

A. Type of fuel to be burned

B. Equipment costs
C. Who are the customers
D. System efficiency
E. The environment

3. A steam engine piston:

A. Moves faster at the end of its stroke

B. Can never have steam applied to either side
C. Is lubricated from the crankcase oil by splash method
D. Moves faster at the beginning of its stroke
E. Never requires lubrication

4. The crosshead of a steam engine:

A. Imparts angular motion to the piston rod

B. Is where linear motion becomes angular motion
C. Imparts linear motion to the piston rod
D. Does not require any lubrication
E. Never requires any special bearing material

5. One of the first ways to detect a fault in a reciprocating engine is:

A. By sound
B. Temperature indication
C. Performance efficiency
D. By oil consumption
E. By smell

6. Whenever feasibly possible, when checking bearings on running pieces of equipment it is wise
to:

A. Check the oil quality leaving each

B. Check the oil quantity leaving each
C. Get accustomed to normal running temperature and vibration by feel
D. Smell the normal odours of the running bearing
E. Observe the temperature on a thermometer
 4

7. When would a steam engine be required?

A. When slow rotational speed without the use of reduction gearing is required
B. When reversal of rotational direction, without the use of gearing, is required
C. For driving reciprocation pumps
D. All of the above

8. In a steam engine, depending on its load, approximately when is the inlet steam valve closed?

A. After ¼ to 1/3 of its stroke

B. After 1/3 to ½ of its stroke
C. After ½ to ¾ of its stroke
D. After 1/3 to ¾ of its stroke

9. The principle of cutting off the steam supply and allowing that in the cylinder to expand is
called:

A. Restrictive
B. Volumetric
C. Overload
D. Expansive

STEAM TURBINES-1
10. When the steam pressure drop occurs in only the stationary members or components of a
turbine, the turbine is known as:

A. A single stage unit

B. An impulse unit
C. A reaction unit
D. A Parsons unit
E. A cross compound reaction unit

11. A steam turbine’s exhaust can often supply a process with steam because:

A. Processes always require a lower steam pressure

B. Processes never require the high steam temperatures that turbines do
C. Turbine exhaust steam is always dry and saturated
D. It is free of oil
E. The steam will be at a temperature above the initial temperature

12. On impulse turbines the steam pressure going against the blades does:

A. Not drop when passing through the moving blades

B. Drop when passing through the moving blades
C. Not drop when passing through the stationary blades
D. Drop when passing through the stationary blades
 5

13. On reaction turbines the pressure leaving the blades does:

A. Drop which causes the steam to slow down

B. Drop which causes the steam to speed up
C. Increase which causes the steam to slow down
D. Increase which causes the steam to speed up

14. What provides a vacuum in a condenser?

A. Turbine steam pressure

B. A good labyrinth seal
C. Cooling water
D. A good carbon seal

15. A steam turbine should trip or shut down when normal operating speed is exceeded by:

A. 250 Rpm
B. 3 to 5%
C. 50 Rpm
D. 10 to 15%
E. 25 Rpm

16 . Turbines often have segmental carbon ring sealing glands which are held in place by:

A. Labyrinths
B. Shrouding
C. Drive screws
D. Garter springs
E. Thrust runners

17. Shaft sealing carbon glands are:

A. Lubricated by the main oil pump

B. Limited to a temperature of 250 degrees C
C. Replaced monthly due to erosion
D. Self-lubricating
E. Metal sprayed components

18. Turbine thrust bearings are fixed to the casing and prevent axial movement of the spindle by
contacting a component on the shaft known as a:

A. Shaft sleeve
B. Labyrinth
C. Collar
D. Shroud
E. Diaphragm
 6

19. The great majority of steam turbine governing systems utilize the:

A. Hydraulic system principle

B. Pneumatic system principle
C. Mechanical centrifugal principle
D. Lever principle
E. Bimetal expansion principle

20. A typical overspeed trip setting for a small mechanical drive steam turbine would be:

A. 40% above normal speed

B. 25% above normal speed
C. 35% above normal speed
D. 15% above normal speed
E. 2.8% above normal speed

21. The device which gives a variable speed control is a...

A. Steam nozzle
B. Steam valve
C. Overspeed trip valve
D. Governor

22. Shafts in high output steam turbines are sealed by using:

A. Carbon glands
B. Thrust bearings
C. Nozzles
D. Labyrinth glands

23. Condensing turbines:

A. Cannot have counterflow stages

B. Are very small units
C. Will use the condensate for heating
D. Will have a vacuum in the last row of rotating blades
E. Are always impulse turbines

24. A large reaction turbine will have:

A. Steam pressure dropping through moving and stationary sections

B. Never more than 5 stages
C. Blades which are basically symmetrical in cross-section
D. Steam pressure dropping in only the moving sections
E. No thrust bearings
 7

25. When starting a steam turbine it is customary practice to:

A. Stop the auxiliary oil pump as soon as steam begins to turn the unit
B. Test the overspeed trip as soon as running speed is attained
C. Place the speed control system in service once the unit is rolling
D. Turn on all cooling water systems first
E. Analyze the oil for water prior to rolling

26. Which turbine uses a condenser?

A. A turbine exhausting to atmosphere

B. A non-condensing extraction turbine
C. A bleeder turbine exhausting at atmospheric pressure
D. A turbine exhausting to a vacuum
E. Back pressure turbine

27. Turbine speed can be "fine tuned" with a device which will be limited to about 10% over the
rated speed. This device is the:

A. Overspeed trip
B. Hand speed control
C. Sentinel valve
D. Overspeed governor
E. Governor valve

28. The exhaust steam from a steam turbine is more acceptable for process than the exhaust from a
steam engine because:

A. It contains more condensate

B. It is free of moisture
C. It is free of oil
D. It is easily controlled
E. It is much hotter

COOLING TOWERS
29. The average amount of water volume which evaporates from a cooling tower is:

A. 2%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 5%
E. 3.5%
 8

30 . Excessive wind velocity in a natural draft cooling tower may cause:

A. Louvers to become broken

B. High water drift or losses
C. Rotation reversal of the fan
D. Over-cooling of the water
E. Under-cooling of the water

31. Compared to a crossflow tower, a counterflow tower:

A. Is not as tall
B. Has much less capacity
C. Requires less floor space
D. Requires more fan power
E. Has a higher pressure drop

32. A cooling tower which requires neither fan nor fill is the:

A. Natural draft unit

B. Counterflow induced unit
C. Venturi unit
D. Crossflow unit
E. Forced draft unit

33. A valve which prevents water flow over the fill of a tower during cold weather should not be
closed until the water temperature in the basin reaches:

A. -0.5 degrees C
B. +0.5 degrees C
C. + 5 degrees C
D. +20 degrees C
E. +27 degrees C

34. To prevent cooling tower basin water from freezing during cold weather many units are
equipped with:

A. Ethylene glycol antifreeze systems

B. Electric basin heaters
C. Propane burners
D. Ice defrosters
E. Warming tapes

35. You are replacing the cooling tower fan motor bearings because:

A. The motor was running single phase

B. Windings in the motor were faulty
C. A noise which sounded like a bad bearing was heard
D. The rotor was rubbing the stator
E. The gear reducer pinion shaft was misaligned
 9

36. Scaling is not as severe in cooling towers as it is in boilers because:

A. Tower water does not evaporate

B. There aren’t as many dissolved solids in tower water
C. Pressure is not as high
D. Temperatures are not as high
E. Water is constantly being aerated

37. Natural draft cooling towers operate most effectively in large open spaces and:

A. Must not be in direct sunlight

B. Require a windbreak
C. Where a large body of water is nearby
D. Where relative humidity is high
E. Where wind is relatively constant

38. Water contained in the air stream at the discharge of a cooling tower is removed:

A. With drift eliminators

B. By a series of baffles
C. By refrigeration means
D. By a series of chevron dryers
E. With centrifugal separators

GAS TURBINES-1
39. The temperature to which the air can be raised at the turbine inlet is:

A. An indication of a unit’s power

B. Directly related to the unit’s size
C. A function of the air compressor input
D. An indication of the unit’s efficiency
E. Important for proper compressor performance

40. The output power of a gas turbine is directly related to the:

A. Mass of gas passing through the turbine per second

B. Temperature at the turbine inlet
C. Mass of the unit
D. Slippage between the turbine and compressor
E. Turbine exhaust temperature

41. Many typical steam plant auxiliaries are eliminated with a gas turbine due to its:

A. Small size
B. High speed
C. High power to weight ratio
D. Simplicity
E. Low oil consumption
 10

42 . Gas turbines are ideal when considering:

A. Long warm-up periods

B. Emergency power generation
C. Automotive power
D. Cooling water pump operation
E. Good thermal efficiency

43. Gas turbines are very popular where:

A. Noise does not present a problem

B. Water is scarce
C. Industrial sites are small and in congested areas
D. Thermal pollution is of major concern
E. Natural gas is plentiful

44 . The air enters a gas turbine regenerator from:

A. Before the compressor

B. After the combustion chamber
C. Between the turbine and combustion chamber
D. Between the turbine and atmosphere
E. Downstream of the compressor

45. A gas turbine performs most effectively if:

A. Lube oil is of the proper viscosity

B. Cooling water temperature is kept low
C. Ambient air temperature is high
D. Ambient air temperature is low
E. Loaded immediately after starting

46. A combined steam and gas turbine arrangement can be termed:

A. An ideal system
B. A co-generation system
C. A once through system
D. Ideal relative to system efficiency
E. A high capacity system

47. What is the advantage of a closed circuit gas turbine over and open circuit system?

A. High thermal efficiency

B. More efficient
C. Low noise level
D. No cooling water
 11

48. How do you start up a gas turbine?

A. It needs a starting motor on the compressor to bring the compressor up to 20 to 30% of

operating speed before it has enough pressure to ignite the gas
B. It needs a starting motor on the compressor to bring the compressor up to 50 to 60% of
operating speed before it has enough pressure to ignite the gas
C. It needs a starting motor on the compressor to bring the compressor up to 40 to 50% of
operating speed before it has enough pressure to ignite the gas
D. It needs a starting motor on the compressor to bring the compressor up to 10 to 20% of
operating speed before it has enough pressure to ignite the gas

49. In a simple, open cycle , single shaft gas turbine.

A. The air drawn in from atmosphere is returned to atmosphere after use

B. One shaft drives both the turbine and compressor.
C. It does not have a heat exchanger or regenerator
D. All of the above

50. A major advantage of a closed cycle gas turbine.

A. More efficient
B. Because there is not any loss of heated medium
C. Other gases besides air can be used
D. All of the above

51. In most simple open cycle single shaft gas turbines how much power is used to run the
compressor.

A. 33%
B. 50%
C. 66%
D. 75%

52. Where is the regenerator located on a gas turbine?

A. Before the compressor

B. After the combustion chamber
C. Before the turbine
D. After the compressor and before the combustion chamber

53. What kind of plant uses the exhaust gases from a turbine to produce steam in a boiler?

A. Co-generation
B. Pulp
C. Waste heat boiler
D. Nuclear plant
 12

54. The compression & combustion cycle of a gas turbine is:

A. Compressing and the discharging the air into the combustion chamber
B. Drawing the air into the compressor
C. Fuel is added and burned, heating the air further
D. All of the above

55. What is the principle of a dual shaft gas turbine?

A. Both shafts run to compressor

B. One shaft drives the compressor and one drives the turbine
C. One shaft drives the compressor and one drives the load
D. One turbine operates both shafts

56. A gas turbine combustion chamber requires?

A. A combustor
B. Steam chest
C. Condenser
D. Steam valve

57. What are the main characteristics of a gas turbine?

A. Low maintenance & operating costs, minimum cooling water & rapid start-up and loading
B. High power to weight ratio & low installation cost
C. Gas turbine drawbacks are low thermal efficiency & very noisy
D. All of the above

58. Early gas turbines were handicapped by:

A. Their inadequate power capability

B. Their high operating speeds
C. Metals not standing the high temperatures involved
D. The inability to get enough air into the combustion chamber
E. Metal not being able to withstand high speed centrifugal forces

59. The low installation cost of a gas turbine is:

A. Because less auxiliary equipment is needed

B. Because no electrical wiring is required
C. Because no fuel pump is required
D. Due to short fuel lines
E. Due to cheap materials in the blades

60. A simple gas turbine is one without reheaters or:

A. Regenerators
B. Combustors
C. Compressors
D. Shafts
E. Starting motors
 13

61. A gas turbine compressor is usually:

A. Driven by a motor
B. Downstream of the combustor
C. Dynamic axial design
D. Downstream of the turbine
E. Centrifugal type

62. A two shaft gas turbine:

A. Does not require a starting motor

B. Is always a closed cycle type
C. Is always an open cycle type
D. Has the first turbine drive the prop on a turbo-prop engine
E. Has the load turbine downstream from the compressor turbine

63. The air side of a gas turbine regenerator is located:

A. Downstream of the compressor

B. Between the turbine and atmosphere
C. Between the turbine and combustion chamber
D. After the combustion chamber
E. Before the compressor

INTERNAL COMBUSTION ENGINES-1

64. In a compression ignition engine the fuel is ignited by:

A. An electric spark
B. The compressed air temperature
C. The atomized fuel
D. A cross-combustor
E. Compressed air pressure

65. Diesel engine governing is accomplished by:

A. Varying the fuel quality

B. Carburetion
C. Varying the fuel quantity
D. Fuel atomizing air quantity
E. Fuel atomizing air pressure

66. Four-stroke cycle engine valves are:

A. Operated by cams
B. Of the pressure differential variety
C. A number of ports in the cylinder walls
D. Often termed reed or channel valves
E. Always open as the piston travels upwards
 14

67. An engine which develops one power stroke with every other turn of the crankshaft is the:
A. Two stroke diesel engine
B. Type which requires pre-mixing lube oil and fuel
C. Four stroke natural gas engine
D. V type engine
E. External combustion unit

68. An example of an engine which gives high torque at low speeds would be that of a:

A. Chain saw
B. Two cycle snowmobile
C. Four stroke motorcross motorcycle
D. Two cycle lawnmower
E. Two cycle transit bus

69. A two cycle engine:

A. Must always have lube oil premixed with the fuel

B. Can never have a crankcase lubrication system
C. Can never be operated in an inverted position
D. “pops” twice as often as an equivalent cylinder four stroke engine
E. Gives one power stroke every other crankshaft revolution

70. A major difficulty encountered with a two-stroke cycle engine is:

A. The high torque at low speeds

B. Maintenance of many moving parts
C. The difficulty in cold weather starting
D. The high speeds compared to an equivalent four stroke engine
E. Exhausting the spent gasses from the cylinder

71. Using a compressed air starting motor is a popular method of starting a:

A. Large stationary diesel engine

B. Small two stroke engine
C. Jet engine
D. High performance engine
E. Natural gas engine

72 . Reduction in sealing qualities between the piston rings and cylinder wall by the lube oil may
be the result of:

A. Low cooling water temperature

B. High lube oil viscosity
C. High cooling water temperature
D. High carbon residue of the lube oil
E. Wrong fuel being used
 15

73. At what pressure is the fuel injected into the cylinder of a diesel engines?

A. Between 1500 kPa to 3000 kPa

B. Between 2800 kPa to 4200 kPa
C. Between 1000 kPa to 2000 kPa
D. Between 2000 kPa to 2800 kPa

74. Why is the fuel injected at such a high pressure in a compression ignition engine?

A. To raise the pressure in the cylinder

B. To assist ignition
C. To remove the exhaust gases
D. To overcome the pressure in the cylinder

75. What is the temperature in the cylinder in a four stroke cycle compression ignition engine prior
to ignition?

A. Between 540°C to 650°C

B. Between 450°C to 540°C
C. Between 350°C to 450°C
D. Between 660°C to 950°C

76. Why is the fuel injected at such a high pressure into the cylinder in a four stroke cycle
compression ignition engine prior to ignition??

A. To assist ignition
B. To overcome high pressure of compression in the cylinder
C. To remove exhaust gases
D. To remove excess air in the cylinder

77. In a two stroke spark ignition cycle what other function is taking place while compression and
ignition are happening in the cylinder?

A. The exhaust port is opened

B. All ports are closed
C. Scavenging of exhaust gasses in the crankcase
D. Inlet port is open and a mixture or air/gas is drawn into the crankcase

78. Name the strokes in a four stroke engine in order of operation

A. Exhaust, & suction, & compression & power (ignition)

B. Power (ignition), exhaust, & suction, & compression
C. Compression, power (ignition), exhaust, & suction,
D. Suction, compression, power (ignition) & exhaust

79. In a four stroke compression ignition cycle what valves are open or closed during the
compression stroke.

A. Inlet valve open

B. Both valves closed
C. Exhaust valve open
D. Both valves open
 16

80. In a four stroke compression ignition cycle what valves are open or closed during the suction
stroke?

A. Inlet valve open

B. Both valves closed
C. Exhaust valve open
D. Both valves open

81. In a four stroke compression ignition cycle what valves are open or closed during the power
stroke?

A. Inlet valve open

B. Both valves closed
C. Exhaust valve open
D. Both valves open

82. In a four stroke compression ignition cycle what valves are open or closed during the exhaust
stroke?

A. Inlet valve open

B. Both valves closed
C. Exhaust valve open
D. Both valves open

83. In a four stroke cycle gasoline engine operating principle what valves are open or closed
during the compression stroke.

A. Intake valve open

B. Both valves closed
C. Exhaust valve open
D. Both valves open

84. In a four stroke cycle gasoline engine operating principle what valves are open or closed
during the suction stroke?

A. Intake valve open

B. Both valves closed
C. Exhaust valve open
D. Both valves open

85. In a four stroke cycle gasoline engine operating principle what valves are open or closed
during the power stroke?

A. Intake valve open and the exhaust valve opens near the end of the stroke
B. Both valves closed and the exhaust valve opens near the end of the stroke
C. Exhaust valve open and the intake valve opens near the end of the stroke
D. Both valves open and the exhaust valve closes near the end of the stroke
 17

86. In a four stroke cycle gasoline engine operating principle what valves are open or closed
during the exhaust stroke?

A. Intake valve open

B. Both valves closed
C. Exhaust valve open
D. Both valves open

87. In a spark ignition engine what is the purpose of the carburetor?

A. Vapourize the fuel and mix with air

B. Compress the air
C. Liquefy the gasoline
D. Create a higher pressure to push the fuel into the cylinder

88. How are most larger diesel engines started?

A. Hand cranked
B. Electric starter
C. Gas starter
D. With a compressed air driven motor, or a distribution device which directs air to the main
power cylinders of the engine.

89. Dirty , smoky exhaust and excessively high exhaust gas temperatures are a result of…

A. Improper fuel injection, unsuitable fuel

B. Insufficient combustion air
C. Overloading or overcooling
D. All of the above

90. What fuel does a dual fuel engine burn?

A. Methane, swamp gas or other byproduct as its firing fuel and diesel as its primary fuel.
B. Methane, swamp gas or other byproduct as its primary fuel and diesel to fire.
C. Gasoline and diesel fuel
D. Gasoline and bunker ‘C’

91. What is the ratio between the gas and diesel fuel in a dual fuel engine?

A. 50/50
B. 90/10 or as little as 95/5
C. 75/25
D. 85/15

92. What type of cooling system is used with internal combustion engines:

A. Closed cooling systems

B. Open cooling systems
C. Closed cooling systems with shell & tube heat exchanger
D. All of the above
 18

93. How are some smaller diesel engines started?

1- Hand cranked
2- Electric starter motor
3- Gas starter motor
4- Compressed air motor

A. 1&2
B. 1&3
C. 1&4
D. 2&4

94. On a solid injection system on a small engine each ram of the fuel pump supplies:

A. One cylinder of the four-cylinder engine

B. Two cylinders of the four-cylinder engine
C. Three cylinders of the four-cylinder engine
D. Four cylinders of the four-cylinder engine

95. Four cycle engine lubrication is usually:

A. By grease fitting
B. By the dip tube method
C. By the scoop method
D. By gravity oilers
E. Forced by pump

96. Compression ignition engines:

A. Require a spark timing device

B. Will compress air only on the power stroke
C. Need a carburetor to mix the fuel with the air
D. Will compress air only on the compression stroke
E. Need suction end discharge valves

97. Diesel engines require:

A. An ignition distributor
B. A fuel injector
C. A magneto
D. A carburetor
E. A spark plug in each cylinder
 19

Prime Movers
4B-4000

1. 21 41 61 81

2. 22 42 62 82

3. 23 43 63 83

4. 24 44 64 84

5. 25 45 65 85

6. 26 46 66 86

7. 27 47 67 87

8. 28 48 68 88

9. 29 49 69 89

10 30 50 70 90

11 31 51 71 91

12 32 52 72 92

13 33 53 73 93

14 34 54 74 94

15 35 55 75 95

16 36 56 76 96

17 37 57 77 97

18 38 58 78

19 39 59 79

20 40 60 80

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