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4. Mengoperasikan mesin induk dan mesin bantu dan sistem and pulse. What is the main difference between these two types of
kontrol yang terkait (Operate main andauxiliary
system?
machineryand associatedcontrol systems)
1. A lubricating oil having a high viscosity index number would a. A constant pressure system has a smaller volume exhaust
normally be used in which of the following situations? gas receiver.
a. When the machinery operates over a wide temperature b. A constant pressure system has the exhaust pipes from
range. small groups of cylinders brought together and led directly
b. When the machinery operates over a wide temperature to a turbocharger.
range. c. A constant pressure system has a larger volume exhaust gas
c. When the machinery operates at a very high temperature. receiver.
d. When the machinery operates at a high load. d. A constant pressure system has a pressure controller fitted
2. The Base Number of a lubricating oil is an indication of which of the to the exhaust gas receiver to maintain the exhaust pressure.
following?
a. The Flash Point of the oil.
b. Amount of contaminants in the lubricating oil.
c. The viscosity of the oil.
d. The alkalinity of the oil.

5. What is meant by the term "two stage air compressor" ?

3. The diagram shows a the symbol for a component from a hydraulic a. A compressor in which the compressed air from the first
circuit. What component does it represent? stage is further compressed in the second stage before being
delivered to the air receiver.
a. A throttle valve. b. A compressor in which the air is delivered to two separate
b. A directional control valve. air receivers each at different pressures.
c. A pressure relief valve. c. A two cylinder compressor in which half of the air is
d. A check valve. compressed in one cylinder and half in the other.
4. There are two basic types of turbocharging systems used for d. A set of two compressors. The first compressor delivers low
supplying combustion air to marine diesel engines: constant pressure pressure air to an air receiver. The second further

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compresses the air for delivery to the working range. 9. When referring to onboard oil treatments using a centrifuge, what is
6. What is the main effect on lubricating oil of operating for long meant by the term purification?
periods at excessively high temperature? a. Separation of two insoluble liquids with different densities,
a. It will cause the oil to oxidise, reducing the viscosity. and the removal of solids in the same process.
b. It will cause the oil to oxidise, increasing the viscosity. b. Separation of solid contaminants from a liquid during the
c. It will cause the oil to evaporate, increasing consumption. process.
d. It will change the flashpoint of the oil. c. Separation of one insoluble liquid from another.
7. What is the main reson for keeping engine lubricating oil viscosity d. It is a general term applied to a process for cleaning oil
within recommended limits? using a centrifuge.
a. To ensure the strength of the oil film is sufficient to keep 10. Which factor influences the pumping capacity (flow) of a centrifugal
lubricated surfaces apart. pump the most?
b. To reduce system pressure losses. a. Liquid temperature
c. To neutralise any acids that may form. b. Suction pressure
d. It is not important c. Total pressure head
8. What would be the typical flash point of the lubricating oil in the d. Liquid density
main lubricating system of a diesel engine? 11. Which of the following changes would occur when the temperature
a. 140-180 deg C of lubricating oil is reduced?
b. Below 140 deg C a. Flash point would increase.
c. Above 240 deg C b. Viscosity would increase.
d. 200-240 deg C c. Concentration of contaminants would increase.
d. Pour point would reduce.
12. Which of the following fluids usually has the lowest density at
normal ambient temperatures?
a. Heavy fuel oil.
b. Sea water.

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c. Lubricating oil. a. To prevent scale formation in the system.

d. Marine diesel oil. b. To prevent fouling of the system.
13. Which of the following is not a principle of heat transfer utilised in c. To prevent marine growth in the system.
an oil fired steam boiler? d. To prevent corrosion of the metals used in the system.
a. Forced convection. 1. Failed O-rings on a 2 stage air compressor cylinder liner have
b. Natural convection. resulted in a water leak. Where is the leaking water most likely to go
c. Conduction. when the compressor is operating?
d. Radiation. a. Into the LP cylinder.
b. Into the crankcase and mix with the lube oil.
c. Into the HP cylinder.
14. Which of the given options characterizes a 2-stroke diesel engine ? d. Into the intercooler.
a. A 2 stroke engine always has 2 or more turbochargers. 2. For which duties are gear and screw pumps normally employed?
b. A 2 stroke engine completes a full cycle every revolution. a. Jacket cooling water circulation for diesel engines.
c. A 2 stroke engine has an air inlet valve in the cylinder b. Bilge pumping.
cover. c. Fuel and lubricating oil services.
d. The piston always has a short skirt. d. Main sea water circulation systems.
15. Which term is used to refer to the quantity of heat required to raise 3. From the options given, select the conditions that you would expect
the temperature of one kilogram of any particular substance by one to give best separation results from a centrifuge operating as a
degree Celsius? purifier.
a. Specific heat or specific heat capacity. a. High flow rate and low temperature.
b. Latent heat b. High temperature and low flow rate.
c. Coefficient of thermal expansion. c. High flow rate and high temperature.
d. Adiabatic heat d. Low flow rate and low temperature.
16. Why are zinc anodes sometimes fitted to heat exchangers in seawater 4. How is the condenser cooling water flow regulating valve
cooling systems? automatically controlled in a vapour compression refrigeration
system?

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a. By the compressor discharge pressure. alkalinity is 50 ppm CaCO3. What action should be taken?
b. By the temperature in the refrigerated room. a. Increase the dosage of boiler water treatment.
c. By the quantity of refrigerant in the system. b. Blow down the boiler and reduce dosage of boiler water
d. By the temperature of the refrigerant after the evaporator. treatment.
5. How is the condenser in a fresh water evaporator normally cooled? c. No action is necessary because this is a normal reading..
a. With distillate d. Reduce dosage of boiler water treatment.
b. With air 9. In a purifier assuming the separating temperature is correct, what is
c. With brine the probable cause of the processed oil containing water?
d. With seawater a. The gravity disc is too large
b. The throughput is too low
c. The back pressure at the clean oil outlet is too high
d. The gravity disc is too small and/or the flow rate is too high

6. How often should an oxygen analyser instrument for the inert gas 10. The amp-load for an electric motor driving a centrifugal pump has

system be calibrated? gradually reduced over a period of service. The pump is still

a. Every time the plant is shut-down supplying water but at a reduced pressure and flow. Which of the

b. Prior to every plant start-up following a shut down of 8 alternatives given is the probable reason for this?

hours or more. a. The pump impeller and wear rings have worn.

c. At regular intervals b. The pump is running at a lower speed due to a short circuit

d. On Chief Officers order in the electric motor.

7. In a low pressure auxiliary boiler, what would be considered to be c. The pump has suction from a number of sources at the same

the maximum allowable chloride level of the boiler water? time.

a. 300 PPM. d. The suction strainer element has been removed so the pump

b. 600 PPM. is more efficient.

c. 1000 PPM. 11. What action should be taken if a purifier starts to vibrate heavily

d. 50 PPM. during normal operations?

8. In a low pressure, auxiliary boiler, water tests show that the p-

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a. Stop the purifier and then restart it from a centrifugal pump?

b. Stop the purifier immediately. Check the machine for a. By throttling of the pump suction valve.
fouling or mechanical damage. Donot restart until cause is b. By throttling of the pump discharge valve.
identified and fault rectified. c. By adjusting the pump relief valve.
c. Change the flow rate. d. By opening the pump recirculation line.
d. Leave the purifier running and check it again after its next 16. What is the expected state of the refrigerant immediately before the
scheduled sludge cycle. expansion valve in a vapour - compression refrigeration system?
12. What action should be taken if the heat transfer capacity of a heat a. Liquid at high pressure.
exchanger operating as a lubricating oil cooler is reducing? b. Vapour at high pressure.
a. Increase the cooling water pressure. c. Liquid at low pressure.
b. Decrease the lubricating oil flowrate. d. Vapour at low pressure.
c. The heat transfer surfaces should be cleaned. 17. What is the main advantage of having a central cooling system fitted
d. Increase the lubricating oil flowrate. on board ship?
13. What cooling medium is normally used to cool the condenser of a a. It should require less maintenance than a conventional
fresh water generator? system using only sea water.
a. Distillate (Freshwater) b. It is a simple system with minimum control requirements.
b. Air c. Only one heat exchanger is needed for all cooling duties.
c. Brine d. It does not require any seawater.
d. Seawater 18. What is the most likely cause of an increase in the chloride content
14. What effect does an increased oil feed flow rate have on the of the fresh water in a central cooling system?
performance of a centrifuge operating as a purifier? a. Leakage of sea water from the central coolers.
a. Separating efficiency is increased, more water is removed. b. Insufficient cooling water treatment.
b. Separating efficiency is reduced. c. Exhaust gas leakage into the freshwater at the
c. Separating efficiency is unchanged. turbochargers.
d. Separating efficiency is increased, more solids are removed. d. Leakage from an oil cooler into the fresh water system.
15. What is the correct method to be used to obtain a reduced output 19. What is the most likely cause of the clean oil outlet pressure being

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higher than normal when operating a centrifuge as a fuel oil b. The same as the atmospheric pressure.
separator? c. The same as the suction pressure.
a. High fuel oil temperature. d. The same as the lubricating oil pressure.
b. Broken water seal. 23. What refrigerant temperature would you expect to find at the
c. Drive clutch slipping. compressor discharge of an air conditioning system?
d. Valve in the outlet line incorrectly positioned. a. +5°C
20. What is the most likely reason for vibration and noise at the suction b. -10 ° C
side of a centrifugal pump when it is running? c. + 85 ° C
a. Collapsing vapour bubbles due to cavitation. d. + 40 ° C
b. Water hammer in the pump casing. 24. What will happen with the oil water interface in the purifier bowl if
c. Fluid friction in the suction line. the dirty oil throughput rate is too great?
d. Pump suction valve fully open. a. The bowl will be forced open and the interface will be lost.
b. The interface will move inwards allowing water to
discharge through the oil outlet.
21. What is the purpose of an expansion valve in a refrigeration system c. The interface will move outwards allowing oil to discharge
circuit? from the water outlet.
a. To control the suction pressure at the compressor. d. The throughput rate has no effect on the interface.
b. To control the flow rate of liquid refrigerant to the 25. What would be a typical oil feed temperature for purifying heavy
evaporator. fuel oil in a centrifuge in order to ensure good separation?
c. To control the cargo hold temperature. a. 85 - 88 Celsius
d. To control the cooling water temperature through the b. 75 - 78 Celsius.
condenser. c. 95 - 98 Celsius.
22. What pressure is present in the crankcase of a vapour compression d. 105 - 108 Celsius.
refrigeration compressor? 26. What would be a typical separating temperature range for purifying
a. The same as the discharge pressure. mineral oil based lubricating oil in a centrifuge?

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a. 45 - 65 C. b. Reduced delivery pressure

b. 65 -85 C. c. Increased icing up of the compressor suction line.
c. 85 - 105 C. d. reduced suction pressure
d. < 45 C. 31. When operating two centrifuges in series, in a purifier and clarifier
27. What would be a typical setting for the low lubricating pressure trip arrangement, what is the purpose of the clarifier?
for a refrigeration compressor? a. To stabilise the feed temperature.
a. - 0.5 bar b. To increase the overall throughput rate.
b. + 5.0 bar c. To improve the efficiency of water removal.
c. + 10 bar d. To improve the efficiency of solids removal.
d. + 1.0 bar 32. Which of the following conditions could be the cause of an air
28. What would be considered as an acceptable range for the p-alkalinity conditioning system evaporator icing up?
in a low pressure auxiliary boiler? a. Too high discharge pressure.
a. 0 - 100 ppm CaCO3. b. Low sea water temperature.
b. 300 - 600 ppm CaCO3. c. Too low suction pressure.
c. 100 - 300 ppm CaCO3. d. High sea water temperature..
d. 600 - 1000 ppm CaCO3. 33. Which of the following statements is correct in relation to two stage
29. What would be the consequence of operating a centrifugal pump air compressors?
with the discharge valve closed for an extended period of time? a. The largest diameter piston is the second stage piston.
a. The pump will eventually overheat. b. The smallest diameter piston is the second stage piston.
b. The pump relief valve will open and discharge to the bilge. c. A greater mass of air is delivered by the first stage than the
c. The electric motor will eventually overheat. second stage.
d. The electrical motor overload will eventually trip. d. The pistons for both stages are the same diameter so that air
30. What would be the main effect on a refrigeration system of delivery from each stage is equal.
insufficient cooling water flow through the condenser? 34. Which parameters are required in order to evaluate the condition of a
a. Increased delivery pressure heat exchanger during operation?

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a. Inlet and outlet temperatures for either fluid. c. To increase the heat transfer capacity of the system.
b. Pressure drop for cooling water. d. To reduce sediment build up in the system.
c. Outlet temperatures for both fluids 38. Why is it preferable to have the sea water pressure lower than the
d. Inlet and outlet temperatures and pressure drops for both fresh water pressure in a sea water cooled heat exchanger for a
fluids. central cooling system?
35. Why are Chromate Based Cooling Water Treatments not allowed a. To reduce any scale deposits on seawater side
when the cooling system is connected to a fresh water generator? b. Prevent seawater contaminaton of the central cooling
a. Chromates react with the materials used in fresh water system in the event of seal failure.
generators. c. To reduce erosion of the seawater side of the heat
b. Chromates increases the chloride level in the fresh water exchanger.
generator. d. To minimise the load on the seawater pump motor.
c. Chromate based cooling water treatments are not allowed to 39. With reference to using centrifuges for cleaning fuel and lubricating
be used in any cooling water system. oil what is the difference between a purifier and a clarifier.
d. Chromates are poisonous. a. There is no difference, both use centrifugal force
36. Why are crankcase heaters fitted to some refrigeration system b. Purifiers are used when only solids are present in the oil.
compressors? c. In a clarifier only solids are removed from the oil, whereas
a. To prevent refrigerant condensing in the crankcase when in a purifier both solids and water are removed from the oil
the compressor is stopped. d. Clarifiers are used when water is present in the oil.
b. To control the viscosity of the lubricating oil.. 1. A ship has a medium speed engine and a controllable pitch propeller
c. To boil off any water from condensation in the crankcase. propulsion system. What would the propeller pitch normally have to
d. To prevent ice from forming on the compressor casing. be at to allow starting of the engine?
37. Why are hypochlorite based treatments used on some sea water a. Zero
cooling systems? b. 25 % ahead
a. To prevent biological growth in the system. c. 10 % ahead
b. To prevent corrosion of the system d. 25 % astern
2. After water-washing the turbocharger exhaust side it starts to vibrate

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even though it was operating normally prior to the washing a. By controlling the bypass of flow for the central coolers.
procedure. What is the most likely cause of this problem? b. By mixing with water from the low temperature circuit.
a. Water drain for washing system is blocked allowing water c. By increasing the flow rate through the main engine cooling
to build up in the turbine casing. circuit
b. The rotor blades are damaged or the blades are not properly d. By controlling the flow through the fresh water evaporator
cleaned heating circuit.
c. The foundation bolts for the turbocharger are loose. 6. In a diesel engine lubrication system the circulating pump normally
d. The turbocharger bearings are worn out. takes suction from the oil sump tank. Where would the oil normally
3. Choose the option which most accurately completes the following pass to directly after the pump?
statement. The expansion tank in a closed cooling water system is a. Lube oil cooler.
designed to maintain a positive head on the system and also to…… b. Main thrust bearing.
a. Allow for changes in water volume due to temperature c. The engine bearings.
variation (expansion) d. The lub oil purifier.
b. Reduce the water temperature 7. The exhaust gas temperatures of all cylinders of a diesel engine are
c. Reduce the water turbulence seen to be high. Select, from the options given, the most likely cause
d. Provide an air cushion of this.
4. How is the effective delivery stroke of a helix type fuel pump for a a. Poor fuel oil quality.
diesel engine controlled to increase or decrease the quantity of fuel b. High wear rate in one of the fuel injection pumps.
delivered? c. One of the fuel cams is worn.
a. The fuel rail pressure relief valve setting. d. Insufficient cooling of the main bearings.
b. The fuel injector setting. 8. The level in a diesel engine lubricating oil sump has increased
c. The fuel booster pump delivery pressure. noticably during operation without any new oil being added. What
d. Rotation of the plunger by the fuel rack from the governor action would you take?
signal. a. Continue normal operation.
5. How is the temperature of the high temperature circuit of a central b. Drain some oil from the engine to reduce the level.
cooling system normally controlled?

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c. Stop the engine and check for a fuel or water leak. a slightly "milky" colour?
d. Reduce the engine load and check for a fuel or water leak. a. Fuel contamination of the system.
9. The lubricating oil in the bearing housing at the turbine end of a b. High temperature of the oil.
turbocharger gets very dirty after only a few hours in service. What c. Water contamination of the system.
is the most likely reason for this happening? d. Oxidation of the oil.
a. The wrong type of lubricating oil has been used. 13. What is likely to be the cause of black smoke from a diesel engine
b. The lubricating oil filling connection screw cap is missing. exhaust seen at the funnel?
c. The turbine end bearing is badly worn. a. Incomplete combustion of the fuel.
d. Damaged rotor shaft sealing bushes allowing exhaust gas to b. Too much combustion air.
leak into the bearing housing.v c. Water in the fuel.
10. The main engine turbocharger speed has increased during the night d. Engine is burning some lubricating oil.
while operating in UMS mode. From the options given, what is the 14. What is the purpose of an oil mist detector, OMD, as fitted to a
most likely cause of this? diesel engine?
a. The engine is operating on a different grade of fuel. a. To check the efficiency of the crankcase extractor fan.
b. The engine load has reduced due to external factors such as b. To detect and give an alarm and slowdown of any
current and wind. potentially explosive atmosphere in the crankcase.
c. The engine load has increased due to external factors such c. To detect scavenge air leakages from the piston rod stuffing
as current and wind. box.
d. The governor signal has been overridden by the bridge. d. To detect and give an alarm and slowdown in the event of a
11. What could be the most likely reason for an increase in the viscosity crankcase explosion.
of a diesel engine lubricating oil during operation?
a. Worn bearing shells.
b. Water-leakage into the lub oil system. 15. What is the purpose of diesel engine cylinder head safety valve?
c. Fuel oil leakage into the lub oil system. a. To allow adjustment of the cylinder pressure to a safe
d. Increased lub oil temperature. working pressure.
12. What could cause diesel engine lubricating oil to appear cloudy with b. To shut down the engine in the event of an unsafe operating

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condition. be made?
c. To shut off the fuel to a the cylinder in the event of a high a. Only on the fuel injection valve test rig.
pressure fuel pipe leak. b. During engine operation when cylinder exhaust
d. To indicate and relieve excessive high pressure in the temperatures need to be balanced.
cylinder to protect the engine frombeing damaged. c. During engine operation when cylinder maximum pressures
16. What is the recommended range for the pH-value for the water in a need to be balanced.
diesel engine cooling system engine cooling water be maintained? d. During engine operation when fuel timing to individual
a. Between 7 and 10. cylinders needs to be adjusted.
b. Between 5 and 7.
c. Above 10
d. Below 5. 20. Which of the following options would be the cause of a low exhaust
17. What would be the most probable cause of light, smoky exhaust temperature in one cylinder of a diesel engine?
from a diesel engine? a. Faulty fuel injection valve.
a. Fouling of the charge air cooler. b. Faulty turbocharger.
b. Air in the fuel oil system. c. Poor quality fuel.
c. The engine is overloaded. d. Charge air cooler fouled on air side.
d. Water carry over from charge air cooler to engine cylinders. 21. Which of the given options characterizes a 2-stroke diesel engine ?
18. What would be the most probable cause of the exhaust gas a. A 2 stroke engine always has 2 or more turbochargers.
temperature from one cylinder of a diesel engine being lower than b. A 2 stroke engine completes a full cycle every revolution.
normal? c. A 2 stroke engine has an air inlet valve in the cylinder
a. The opening pressure for the injection valve for the cylinder cover.
is set too high. d. The piston always has a short skirt.
b. There is air in the fuel oil system. 22. Which would be the most suitable point in the system to obtain a
c. The intake filter for turbo charger is partly fouled. representative of diesel engine lubricating oil for analysis?
d. The camshaft chain is too slack. a. From the lubricating oil filter drain.
19. When should adjustments to the fuel injection valve spring tension

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b. From the lubricating oil cooler drain. oil cooler is approximately 80 to 90 C.

c. From the lubricating oil purifier outlet. d. The normal temperature of heavy fuel oil after the fuel oil
d. From the lubricating system pipeline on the discharge side heater is approximately 80 to 90 C.
of the circulating pump. 26. With reference to non-VIT diesel engine high pressure fuel pumps
23. Why are duplex filters usually employed in the lubricating oil system that have helix control, how is the timing of fuel injection normally
of an auxiliary diesel engine? adjusted?
a. Changing of the filter element can be carried out without a. By raising or lowering the pump plunger relative to the
interrupting engine operation. pump barrel.
b. It gives better filtration of the oil. b. By rotating the pump plunger relative to the pump barrel.
c. The pressure drop is half that of a single filter unit. c. By changing the governor output signal.
d. Filter blockage will not occur. d. By changing the opening pressure setting for the fuel
24. Why is it necessary to have routine testing of diesel engine cooling injection valves.
water systems? 1. A rating on boiler watch notices water coming from the safety valve
a. To detect water leakage from the system. chest drain while the boiler is in operation. What action should be
b. It is not really necessary to test diesel engine cooling water taken by the rating?
systems. a. Put a bucket under the drain to prevent the deck becoming
c. To check for oil contamination of the system. wet and slippery.
d. To ensure that the recommended levels of treatment b. Contact the engineer officer of the watch and inform him
chemicals are maintained at all times. immediately.
25. With reference to diesel engine ancillary system operation, which c. Operate the safety valve using the release gear to try and get
one of the given statements is true? it to reseat tightly.
a. The normal jacket water temperature before the jacket water d. Hit the safety valve with a hammer to try and get it to reseat
cooler is approximately 80 to 90 C. tightly.
b. The normal scavenge air temperature after the charge air 2. As part of the routine duties a rating on boiler watch is requested to
cooler is approximately 80 to 90 C. assist with the daily chemical treatment for the boiler and feed water
c. The normal temperature of the lubricating oil before the lub systems. Where will the rating find the information relating to the

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hazards associated with the chemicals involved in this task? glasses to make sure they are reading correctly?
a. The Code of Safe Working Practices for Merchant Seamen. a. At least once a month
b. The engine room log book. b. At least once an hour
c. The material safety data sheets supplied with the chemicals. c. At least once a day
d. The Chief Engineer's standing orders. d. At least once a week
3. In the event of the water level disappearing out of the boiler water 6. Steam escaping from the area of the bottom water header handhole
level gauge glass; what should be the first action to be taken? doors of a high pressure boiler generating superheated steam is
a. Secure all of the burners observed by the engine rating on watch. What action should be
b. Call the chief engineer taken?
c. Close the feed-water stop valve a. Immediately inform the Officer of the Watch.
d. Close the main steam stop valve b. Use the hand to have a feel around the area to try and locate
4. One of the two water level gauge glasses on the high pressure boiler the exact position of the leak.
steam drum has started leaking quite heavily. What action, from the c. Check the area where it is thought the leak may be using a
options given, should the boiler watch rating take? cloth on the end of a broom handle.
a. Place a bucket underneath the leak to catch the water to d. Pass the information that there is a leak to the relief at the
prevent the area becoming slippery. end of the watch.
b. Try and stop the leak by tightening up the clamping bolts as 7. To minimise the risk of damage what type of tools should be used to
much as possible. clean boiler burner tips?
c. Inform the Officer of the watch immediately so that a. Brass tools
arrangements can be made to replace the leaking glass. b. Steel tools
d. Shut the steam and water connections to the gauge glass to c. Wooden tools
minimise the loss of water and just use the other glass to d. Any kind of tools that are available
check the water level. 8. What action should be taken before carrying out a bottom blowdown
5. Simple gauge glasses for indicating the boiler water level, such as on a steam boiler?
the one shown here, are often fitted to low pressure boilers. What a. Drop the water level a few centimeters below normal
would be a reasonable schedule for blowing through the gauge working level.

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b. Shut off the burner. c. To check the operation of the water gauge glasses.
c. Raise the water level a few centimeters above normal d. To allow boiler water samples to be collected for testing.
working level. 13. What is the most likely cause of black smoke at the boiler exhaust
d. Switch on the auxiliary feed pump. during normal operation of a steam boiler?
9. What is the first action that should be taken by the rating on boiler a. Too much combustion air.
watch in the event of a flame failure on the boiler? b. Water in the fuel.
a. Call the engineer on watch c. Fuel oil temperature too high.
b. Call the chief engineer d. Insufficient combustion air.
c. Notify the bridge 14. What is the most likely cause of the boiler exhaust gas being white in
d. Stop the feed water pump colour leaving the funnel?
10. What is the first thing that should be checked when taking over a a. Too much combustion air.
boiler watch? b. Insufficient combustion air.
a. The boiler room bilge level c. A faulty or dirty burner tip
b. The oil pressure to the burner d. Low water level in the boiler.
c. The boiler exhaust gas colour
d. The boiler water level
11. What is the main purpose of an observation tank in a boiler feed 15. What is the term used to refer to the valve that prevents backflow of
system? water from the boiler to the feed water system?
a. To check condensate returns for oil. a. Feed-stop valve
b. To allow dosage of boiler water treatment chemicals. b. Feed-check valve
c. To allow the boiler water level to be monitored. c. Bottom-blow valve
d. To provide a convenient point for boiler water test samples. d. Safety valve
12. What is the main purpose of bottom-blowing a boiler? 16. When cleaning boiler burner nozzles that have just been in service
a. To remove any accumulated sludge from the water drum. the watch rating notices that the nozzle holes are partially blocked.
b. To control the water level of the boiler during normal Which one is the preferred method to use in order to avoid damaging
operation.

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the nozzle holes? d. Opening air registers too quickly

a. Use a standard drill bit in a hand drill to clear the blockage. 20. Which of the given options best completes the following statement?
b. Poke the holes clear with a welding rod which has been You should never attempt to light a boiler until ______
ground down to size. a. the air register is fully open.
c. Use cleaning wires starting with a small gauge and b. the feed water pump is running.
gradually work up to the full size of the nozzle hole. c. the furnace purge sequence is completed.
d. Knock the nozzle repeatedly on the work bench to try and
dislodge the blockage. d. the gauge glass shows the water at normal working level.
17. When the boiler safety valves operate due to the boiler pressure 21. While on boiler watch in the engine room a rating is requested to
being too high the excess steam is discharged to _______ assist with taking on stores. The task will take about half an hour.
a. the atmosphere via the atmospheric line What should the rating do?
b. the main condenser a. Raise the boiler water level above normal to make sure
c. the auxiliary condenser there is sufficient water while he is busy with the stores.
d. the engineroom bilges b. Go and help with the stores but go back and check the
18. Where would you normally expect to find the air vent cock on a boiler every 10 minutes.
steam boiler? c. Contact the engine officer on watch for permission to assist
a. At the superheater outlet and to arrange a relief for the duration of the store taking.
b. At the feed water inlet pipe connection. d. Just ignore the request to assist with the stores.
c. On the highest point of the steam range. 22. While on boiler watch on an automatically controlled steam boiler
d. At the highest point of the steam drum. the rating notices that the burner has failed to light following a drop
19. Which of the following could cause a blowback from a steam boiler in steam pressure. What action should be taken?
oil fired furnace? a. Try and light the boiler burner manually.
a. Having the fuel oil pressure too high b. Call the duty engineer immediately using the engineers call
b. Having the fuel oil temperature too high alarm.
c. Trying to ignite burner from hot brickwork c. Shut the steam stop valve to stop the steam pressure falling

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further. c. Directional control valve.

d. Stop the feed water pump immediately in case the boiler d. Double check valve.
overfills. 1. A piston ring set for a trunk piston engine often includes a slotted
23. Why is it important that the combustion chamber of a boiler is ring tensioned by an internal spring. What is the purpose of this type
properly ventilated prior to ignition? of piston ring?
a. To ensure that there is sufficient air for proper combustion. a. It is the lowest compression ring.
b. To avoid an explosion in case any oil vapours are present b. It is a ring to seal the crankcase from the combustion
from oil leakage into the furnace. chamber.
c. To cool the surfaces of the boiler furnace in case they give c. It is the firing ring.
premature ignition of the burner. d. It is an oil control ring.
d. To remove any deposits from the furnace wall. 2. During the cycle of a four stroke diesel engine there is a load
reversal on the bottom end bearing when the load transfers from the
upper part of the bearing to the lower part. What is the main cause of
24. Why should boiler sootblowers normally only be operated in the this load reversal on a modern, turbocharged, medium speed diesel
correct sequence? engine?
a. To minimise loss of steam pressure. a. The suction effect on the piston during the air intake
b. To ensure soot is cleared progressively from the bottom (induction) stroke.
tubes to the top and toward the boiler uptakes. b. The inertial forces generated during the upward strokes of
c. So that the operator does not forget which sootblowers have the piston (compression and exhaust strokes).
been used. c. The light alloy materials used for the piston skirt.
d. To avoid excess stress in the boiler. d. The lack of gas load to oppose the inertial forces generated
1. In a circuit diagram of a simple hydraulic circuit, which of the during the exhaust stroke.
alternatives does the following symbol indicate? 3. During the normal operating cycle of a diesel engine there are side
a. Throttle valve. thrusts generated by the piston as it moves up and down the cylinder
b. Pressure relief valve. due to the changing angle of the connecting rod. How are these side

16

thrusts accommodated in a trunk piston engine?
a. The side thrust is transmitted to the cylinder liner and the
engine frame by the piston skirt in way of the gudgeon pin.
b. The side thrust is transmitted to the cylinder liner and the
engine frame by the piston rings.
c. The side thrust is transmitted to the cylinder liner and the
engine frame by the piston crown.
d. The side thrust is transmitted to the engine frame by the
crosshead bearing.
4. Many modern medium and high speed diesel engines operate at very
6.
high power ratings resulting in relatively high bearing loads. In order
to accommodate these loads the bearings are required to have a high
load carrying capacity. What kind of bearings are normally used for
main and bottom end purposes to achieve this?
a. Thick white metal types with the white metal cast into the
keeps to give extra fatigue strength.
b. Thin steel shells lined with aluminium tin alloys.
c. Thin steel shells with a thin white metal lining.
d. Thin steel shells with a copper lead lining and a running in
7.
overlay.
5. Some main propulsion medium speed engine installations operate
with a hydraulic oil type fluid coupling between the engine and the
DPKP
reduction gearbox instead of a mechanical clutch. With this type of
installation a separate flexible coupling is not normally fitted. Why is
a separate flexible coupling usually omitted from this type of
installation?
a. There is insufficient room to fit a flexible coupling between
the engine and gearbox when a fluid coupling is fitted.
b. There is natural slippage between the drive and driven parts
of the fluid coupling and a flexible coupling would prevent
this slippage.
c. The hydraulic fluid in the coupling isolates the gearbox
from the engine vibrations.
d. There are no engine torque variations in the drive when a
fluid coupling is used so a flexible coupling is not required.
The majority of medium speed main propulsion installations
incorporate a reduction gearbox between the engine and the propeller
shaft. Why is this arrangement usually required?
a. So that the engine can be more easily reversed.
b. So that the engine can be coupled to a controllable pitch
propeller.
c. So that the engine can also drive a shaft alternator.
d. So that the propeller operates in a relatively efficient speed
range.
The peak pressure (maximum cylinder pressure) is often taken as an
indicator of medium speed engine performance along with other
parameters. What would be a typical peak pressure for a modern,
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highly rated, medium speed diesel engine?

a. 140 to 180 bar
b. 80 to 100 bar
c. 14 to 18 bar
d. 10 to 12 bar
10. When operating a propulsion installation consisting of medium speed
8. The Total Base Number (TBN) is important as a measure of
diesel engines driving a controllable pitch propeller it is possible to
neutralizing ability of a diesel engine lubricating oil against strong
operate the combination of engine speed and propeller pitch in a
acids formed during combustion. What action should be taken if the
number of different ways. What would be the main reason for
results from an oil analysis show that the TBN of the lubricating oil
operating with constant speed and variable pitch?
has reduced slightly?
a. To obtain maximum propeller efficiency over the load
a. Freshen up the system by draining of some of the oil and
range of the engine.
adding a quantity of fresh oil.
b. To allow the engine to be operated with a load sensing
b. Purify the system oil in a centrifuge.
governor instead of a speed sensing governor.
c. Take another lub oil sample and send it for analysis.
c. To allow constant speed operation of a shaft generator
d. Pump the oil to a renovating tank and allow any
while the engine load changes with pitch variation.
contaminants to settle out and refill the system with new oil.
d. To allow rapid load change and thrust reversal when
9. What is the reason for fitting 'Rotocaps' to the cylinder head valves
manoeuvring.
of some 4-stroke diesel engines?
11. Which of the given statements is true in relation to the features and
a. To rotate the inlet valves during operation to improve air
operation of a 4 stroke diesel engine ?
turbulence in the cylinder.
a. The camshaft rotates with half the RPM of the crankshaft in
b. To help clear the cylinder of exhaust gas by spinning the
a 4 stroke engine.
exhaust valves during opening.
b. A 4 stroke engine has an ignition towards the end of every
c. To extend the service life of the valves by giving even heat
upward stroke of the piston.
and wear distribution.
c. A 4 stroke engine always has scavenge ports near the
d. To prevent seizure of the cylinder head valves by keeping
the valve spindles clean.

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bottom of the cylinder liner. likely to be seriously damaged?

d. 4 stroke engines are not required to have crankcase relief a. Piston rod and stuffing box.
valves fitted. b. Exhaust valve.
12. Which symptoms would indicate piston blow-by when operating a 4 c. Piston crown.
stroke trunk piston type engine ? d. Crosshead bearing.
a. Increased pressure in the air inlet manifold. 3. Large slow speed diesel engines are usually of the crosshead type
b. Increased temperature in the inlet a ir manifold on the and have various arrangements to deliver lubricating oil directly to
engine. the crosshead bearings and guides to ensure adequate lubrication.
c. Smoke and sparks from the scavenge manifold drains. Why are the crosshead bearings considered differently to the other
d. Increased pressure in the crankcase and smoke at the bearing in this type of engine in respect of lubrication requirements?
crankcase vent.. a. The lubricating oil has further to travel to the crosshead
1. A slow speed diesel engine is fitted with a slow turning facility. How bearing and so a separate arrangement is necessary
would the slow turning normally be set to operate? b. The running surfaces oscillate relative to each other during
a. It should automatically operate before the normal start operation rather than rotate and therefore full film
sequence following an engine stopped period of more than hydrodynamic lubrication is not possible.
20 to 30 minutes when manoeuvring. c. The crosshead bearing is more heavily loaded than other
b. It should automatically operate before every normal start bearings in the engine so requires more oil to keep it cool.
sequence. d. The crosshead bearing is closer to the engine cylinder and
c. It should automatically operate every 20 minutes when the therefore runs hotter.
engine is stopped during manoeuvring. 4. Many large 2 stroke marine diesel engines are equipped with an
d. It should be manually operated before the normal start auxiliary scavenge air blower. What is the purpose of this
sequence following an engine stopped period of more than equipment?
10 minutes. a. To assist the main turbochargers in supplying combustion
2. It should be manually operated before the normal start sequence air when on full load.
following an engine stopped period of more than 10 minutes. b. To allow full load running when the main turbocharger is
In the event of a severe scavenge fire, which of the following is most defective..

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c. To help cool the engine after it has been stopped. speed range.
d. To provide combustion air at start up, during manouevring b. The exhaust pipes from groups of three cylinders are joined
and low load running when the turbocharger delivery is together before entry into the turbocharger so that the
insufficient. exhaust pulses from each cylinder cancel each other giving
5. Many large slow speed diesel engines operating on heavy fuel oil a constant inlet pressure.
have a fuel injection system which features Variable Injection c. Pressure variations at the turbocharger inlet are damped out
Timing. How does this affect engine operation? due to the large volume of the exhaust receiver and the
a. VIT improves engine operation by automatically controlling short lengths of pipe from individual cylinders.
the start of fuel injection when it detects a poor quality fuel. d. The exhaust gas pressure is maintained constant by using a
b. VIT increases engine efficiency by automatically bypass waste gate to dump excess pressure at high engine
maintaining the maximum cylinder pressure over the entire loads.
load range. 7. Modern large slow speed diesel engines operate with very efficient
c. VIT increases engine efficiency by automatically turbochargers. This has resulted in much later opening of the exhaust
maintaining the maximum cylinder pressure over part of the valve as less energy is needed to drive the turbocharger giving
load range. exhaust timing which is almost symmetrical about bottom dead
d. VIT allows the ship's engineers to alter the injection timing centre. How has this affected the reversing operation of the engines?
for each load setting with a simple single adjustment of the a. Only the fuel and starting air timing needs to be changed to
fuel rack. reverse the engine.
6. Many modern large slow speed diesel engines used for main b. It has no effect and the reversing requirements of the engine
propulsion operate with a so called constant pressure turbocharging are still the same.
system. What is meant by constant pressure when used to describe c. The engine can be reversed by simply repositioning the
such a turbocharging system? main camshaft.
a. Pressure variations in the scavenge air supply are avoided d. Only the air start distributor has to be repositioned prior to
by supplementing the air supply with air from the auxiliary reversing the engine.
blowers so keeping a constant pressure across the load and 8. Modern slow speed, two stroke diesel engines often have locating
pins or pegs to keep the piston rings in a fixed position. Why is this

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arrangement used?
a. The piston rings are more difficult to lubricate because of
the slow operating speeds and will wear more quickly if
they are allowed to rotate.
b. It avoids the risk of the ends of the piston rings being forced
out by the gas pressure and catching on the scavenge ports.
c. The piston ring gaps can be kept in line to control the gas
pressure on each of the rings.
d. It ensures the rings cannot be mixed up and that they are
fitted in the correct order on the piston.
9. The majority of large slow speed diesel engines used for main
propulsion purposes are direct drive to a fixed pitch propeller? What
is the main reason for this arrangement?
a. Controllable pitch propellers cannot be used with large slow
speed diesel engines which can be reversed.
b. The amount of power that needs to be transmitted would
overload a gearbox.
c. A fixed pitch propeller can operate with reasonable
efficiency at the same sort of speed as the engine.
d. There is usually only one engine sin this arrangement and
so clutches are not required.
10. What is one of the main features of the cylinder lubricating oil used
in large 2 stroke marine diesel engines which normally operate on
heavy fuel oil?
a. It is strongly alkaline.
b. It is strongly acidic.
c. It is neutral with a pH value of 7.
d. It is a pure mineral oil without any special additives.
11. What is the main reason for sometimes having a separate forced
lubrication system for the camshaft on large cross head engines?
a. To prevent any fuel leakage from the high pressure fuel
pumps contaminating the oil in the main lubrication system.
b. Because the camshaft system uses a different grade oil from
that used in the main lubrication system.
c. To prevent the camshaft system being contaminated with
any water leaking into the main lubrication system from
faulty cylinder liner seals.
d. Because the camshaft lubrication system has a lower
pressure than the main lubrication system.
12. Why is it important to check the timing of diesel engine cylinder oil
lubricators?
a. To ensure cylinder lubricating oil enters the cylinders when
the piston is in the required position.
b. To ensure the correct amount of cylinder lubricating oil is
fed into the cylinders.
c. To avoid excess pressure in the cylinder lubrication system.
d. To ensure the piston is not covering the lubrication points
and blocking the flow of cylinder lubricating oil into the

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cylinder. damage when run dry during operation.

1. Boiler water tests on a low pressure steam boiler show the chloride b. A firetube boiler has a much better capability to work at
content to be 50 ppm. What action should be taken if any? higher steam pressure.
a. Increase the dosage of treatment chemicals. c. A watertube boiler can tolerate a short period of time
b. Blow down the boiler and reduce the dosage of treatment without any water when the burner is operating.
chemicals. d. A firetube boiler does not require a non-return valve in the
c. Shut down the boiler and drain the water out before filling feedwater line.
with fresh feed water. 4. How often should boiler water tests be carried out on a steam boiler?
d. No action is necessary. a. Every day.
2. Feed check valves for the main and auxiliary boilers are normally of b. Every week.
the double shut off type with one screw lift valve and one screw c. Every hour.
down non-return valve. What is the main function of the non-return d. Every hour.
valve?
a. To allow overhaul of the screw lift valve when the non-
return valve is shut and the boiler is steaming. 5. Tests on the water in a low pressure boiler show the chloride level is
b. To prevent back pressure on the boiler feed pump.. 500 ppm. What action should be taken?
c. To allow fine tuning of feed water flow to the boiler. a. Increase dosage of treatment chemicals.
d. To prevent the steam and water in the boiler from b. Increase feed water temperature.
discharging out through the feed line if the feed line c. Blow down boiler and check the condenser for leakage.
fractures or a joint in the line blows. d. Decrease dosage of treatment chemicals.
3. From the statements given in the answer options, choose the one 6. Under what load condition would sootblowing of the boiler tubes be
which is most accurate in relation to the operation of water-tube most beneficial?
boiler and fire-tube boilers. a. When the boiler burner is off.
a. Water-tube boilers are more efficient and generally contain b. When the boiler is firing on low rate.
less water than fire tube boilers. They are prone to major c. When the boiler is firing on high rate.

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d. When the boiler is firing on medium rate.

7. What action is required if boiler water tests confirm a pH value of
10. What is the correct range for the pH-value for the water in an oil
less than 9?
fired steam boiler?
a. Blowdown the boiler and refill with good feedwater.
a. 9 - 11.
b. No action is required.
b. 4.5 - 7.
c. Increase the dosage of alkalinity treatment chemicals until
c. Below 4.5
the pH value is back within normal range.
d. 7–9
d. Reduce the dosage of alkalinity treatment chemicals until
11. What is the main problem associated with oil in a steam boiler water
the pH is back within normal range.
system?
8. What action should be taken if the boiler water tests show that the
a. It causes corrosion of steel in the boiler.
pH-value in the boiler water is slightly over 11.5?
b. It increases scale deposits in the boiler.
a. Blowdown the boiler and decrease the dosage of boiler
c. It forms an insulating film on heat transfer surfaces with the
water treatment chemicals.
risk of overheating.
b. No action is required this is the normal level.
d. It causes the gauge glasses to become dirty preventing the
c. Blowdown the boiler and Increase the dosage of boiler
operator from seeing the water level.
water treatment chemicals.
12. What is the main purpose of having a deaerator in a boiler feed water
d. Raise the boiler water level above normal to dilute the
system?
contents.
a. To remove oxygen and other dissolved gases from the feed
9. What is an effective means of measuring the total dissolved solids in
water.
boiler water?
b. To provide a dosage point for feed water treatment.
a. Alkalinity test.
c. To reduce the total dissolved solids in the feed water.
b. Conductivity test.
d. To act as the primary feed heater.
c. Chloride test.
13. What is the main purpose of the superheater vent valve on a high
d. pH test
pressure steam boiler?

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a. To remove air from the superheater. plant?

b. To remove water from the superheater. a. To heat the feed-water
c. To control the superheater pressure during operation. b. To desuperheat the steam
d. To ensure a flow of steam through the superheater when c. To heat the fuel oil
raising steam pressure or when the boiler is not on-line. d. To heat the combustion air.
14. What is the potential effect on a steam boiler of having calcium 17. What is the purpose of refractory linings in an oil fired steam boiler
based compounds present in boiler water and proper water treatment furnace?
is not carried out? a. To prevent excessive furnace heat losses and protect tubes
a. It will cause corrosion and scale de posits in the boiler. and other fittings from overheating.
b. It will form passive layers on the metal surfaces in the b. To give added strength to the furnace.
boiler. c. To support the steam drum.
c. It will reduce the TDS in the boiler. d. To ignite the burner during automatic operation.
d. No negative effects are likely. 18. What is the purpose of the flame scanner or 'magic eye' fitted to the
burner unit of oil or gas fired steam boilers?
a. To check the colour of the flame.
b. To control the combustion air supply to the boiler.
c. To check the colour of the exhaust gas from the furnace.
15. What is the purpose of a scum valve often fitted to a steam boiler?
d. To check that the flame is present during start up or normal
a. To allow removal impurities from the boiler feed-water
operation of the burner; if not then fuel is shut off
b. To allow removal of sludge and mud which may collect in
automatically.
the bottom of the boiler water drum.
c. To allow removal of any oil or impurities which collect on
the surface of the water in the boiler steam drum.
d. To allow removal of oil from the surface of the feed water
tank.
16. What is the purpose of an economiser as often fitted in a steam boiler

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19. What temperature should a water sample be at before carrying out

boiler water tests?
a. As hot as possible.
b. It makes no difference.
c. At room temperature.
d. At less than room temperature.
20. What would be the effect of a faulty steam trap on a fuel oil heater
causing condensate to build up in the heat exchanger?
a. An increase in fuel oil temperature.
b. Excess pressure on the shell of the heat exchanger.
c. Reduced heating capacity of the heater.
d. Low water level in the boiler.
21. Where should a sample for boiler water test purposes be taken from?
a. From the boiler water space.
b. From the boiler steam space.
c. From the boiler feed system.
d. From the blowdown line.

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