NEET 2016-II

NEET 2016-II

Test Instructions

1. Total duration of this test is 180 minutes.

2. This test has 4 subjects consisting of
180 questions in total.
3. There are 4 total sections in the test.
4. Sections Info :
Physics
a. Section A has 45 questions, compulsory questions 45. 4 marks will be given for correct attempt and incorrect
attempt -1 .
Chemistry
a. Section A has 45 questions, compulsory questions 45. 4 marks will be given for correct attempt and incorrect
attempt -1 .
Botany
a. Section A has 42 questions, compulsory questions 42. 4 marks will be given for correct attempt and incorrect
attempt -1 .
Zoology
a. Section A has 48 questions, compulsory questions 48. 4 marks will be given for correct attempt and incorrect
attempt -1 .
5. Total marks for this test is 720 marks.
6. No marks will be deducted for unattempted questions.
7. This test can be submitted only once.
8. Once the test has been submitted, you cannot edit the responses.
9. Results will be anounced post test submission.
10. The test will be auto-submitted once the timer ends.

Page 1 of 32
NEET 2016-II

Physics 2. −0.5 m/s and 0.3 m/s

3. 0.5 m/s and − 0.3 m/s

Section A
4. −0.3 m/s and 0.5 m/s
1. Planck's constant h speed of light in
vacuum c and Newton's gravitational 4. A bullet of mass 10g moving
constant G are three fundamental horizontally with a velocity of
constants. Which of the following 400 ms strikes a wood block of
−1

combinations of these has the mass 2 kg which is suspended by

dimension of length? light inextensible string of length
√ hG
5m . As a result, the centre of gravity
1. c
3/2
of the block found to rise a vertical
2. √ hG distance of 10 cm. The speed of the
5/2
c
bullet after it emerges out
3. √ hc horizontally from the block will be
G

1. 100 ms −1

4. √ h
Gc
3/2

2. 80 ms −1

2. A particle moves from a point

3. 120 ms −1

(−2î + 5ĵ) to (4ĵ + 3k̂) when a

4. 160 ms −1

force of ˆ ˆ
(4i + 3j) N is applied.
5. Two rotating bodies A and B of
How much work has been done by
masses m, 2m with moments of
the force?
inertia l andI ( I > I ) have
A B B A

1. 8 J equal kinetic energy of rotation. If

LA and L be their angular
B

2. 5 J
momenta respectively, then
3. 11 J 1. L =
LB
A 2

4. 2 J 2. L = 2L B
A

3. Two identical balls “A” and “B” 3. L B > LA

having velocities of 0. 5 ms and −1

4. L > LB
−0. 3 ms
−1
respectively collide A

elastically in one dimension. The 6. Three liquids of densities

velocities of B and A after the ρ , ρ and ρ (with ρ , ρ
1 2 3 1 2 > ρ3 ),
collision respectively will be: having the same value of surface
tension T, rise to the same height in
1. 0.3 m/s and 0.5 m/s

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three identical capillaries. The angles Newton's law of cooling is

of contactθ , θ and θ obey
1 2 3 applicable. The temperature of the
body at the end of next 10 minutes
1. π
> θ1 > θ2 > θ3 ≥ 0
2
will be
2. 0 ≤ θ < θ2 < θ3 <
π
1
2
1. 7
4
T

3. π
< θ1 < θ2 < θ3 < π
2
2. 3

2
T

4. π > θ > θ2 > θ3 >

π

3.
1 2 4
T
3

7. A given sample of an ideal gas

occupies a volume V at a pressure P
and absolute temperature T. The
mass of each molecule of the gas is
m. Which of the following gives the
4. T
10. One mole of an ideal monoatomic
gas undergoes a process described by
the equation pv = constant
3

density of the gas? constant. The heat capacity of the

gas during this process is
1. P /(k T )

1. 3
R
2. P m /(k T )
2

2. 5
R
3. P /(k T V ) 2

4. mkT 3. 2R

8. Two identical bodies are made of a 4. R

material for which the heat capacity 11. The potential difference (V − V )
A B

increases with temperature. One of between the points A and B in the

these is at 100 C while the other one
0

given figure is
is at 0 C . If the two bodies are
0

brought into contact, then, assuming

no heat loss, the final common
temperature is

1. 50°C 1. −3V

2. more than 50°C 2. +3V

less than 50°C 3. +6V
3. but greater than 0°C

4. +9V
4. 0°C
12. An electron is moving in a circular
9. A body cools from a temperature 3T
path under the influence of a
to 2T in 10 minutes. The room
transverse magnetic field of
temperature is T. Assume that
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3. 57 × 10 T. If the value of e/m

−2
15. The given circuit has two ideal
is 1. 76 × 10 C kg , the
11 −1
diodes connected as shown in the
frequency of revolution of the figure. The current flowing through
electron is the resistance R will be
1

1. 1 GHz

2. 100 MHz

3. 62.8 MHz

4. 6.28 MHz
1. 2.5 A
13. A bar magnet is hung by a thin
cotton thread in a uniform horizontal 2. 10.0 A
magnetic field and is in equilibrium
3. 1.43 A
state. The energy required to rotate it
by 60 is W. Now the torque
0
4. 3.13 A
required to keep the magnet in this
new position is 16. What is the output Y in the
following circuit, when all the three
1. W

√3 inputs A, B, C are first 0 and then 1 ?

2. √3W

3. √ 3W

4. 2W

√3
1. 0,0
14. An air bubble in a glass slab with 2. 0,1
refractive index 1.5 (near normal
incidence) is 5 cm deep when 3. 1,0
viewed from one surface and 3 cm
4. 1,1
deep when viewed from the opposite
face. The thickness (in cm ) of the 17. A 100Ω resistance and a capacitor
slab is of 100Ω reactance are connected in
series across a 220 V source. When
1. 8
the capacitor is 50 % charged, the
2. 10 peak value of the displacement
current is
3. 12
1. 2.2 A
4. 16

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2. 11 A A rigid ball of mass m strikes a rigid

wall at 60 and gets reflected
0

3. 4.4 A
without loss of speed as shown in the
4. 11√2 A figure. The value of impulse
imparted by the wall on the ball will
18. Two cars P and Q start from a point
be
at the same time in a straight line and
their positions are represented by
x (t) = (at + bt )and
2
P

x Q (t) = (f t − t ) . At what time

2

do the cars have the same velocity?

a−f
1. 1+b

2. a+f

2(b−1)

3. a+f

2(1+b)
1. mv
4. f −a

2(1+b)
2. 2mv
19. In the given figure, a = 15 ms −2

3. mv
2
represents the total acceleration of a
particle moving in the clockwise 4. mv

direction in a circle of radius R = 2.5

21. A light rod of length l has two
m at a given instant of time. The
masses m and m attached to its
speed of the particle is 1 2

two ends. The moment of inertia of

the system about an axis
perpendicular to the rod and passing
through the centre of mass is

1. m1 m2

m 1 +m 2
l
2

2
2. m 1 +m 2

m1 m2

3. (m 1 + m 2 )l
2

1. 4. 5 m s −1

4. √m 1 m2 l
2

2. 5 m s −1

22. A solid sphere of mass m and radius

3. 5. 7 m s −1
R is rotating about its diameter. A
4. 6. 2 m s −1 solid cylinder of the same mass and
same radius is also rotating about its
20.
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geometrical axis with an angular 24. A satellite of mass m is orbiting the

speed twice that of the sphere. The
ratio of their kinetic energies of
rotation (E sphere /E cylinder) will be
1. 2:3
2. 1:5
earth (of radius R ) at a height h
from its surface. The total energy of
the satellite in terms of g0, the value
of acceleration due to gravity at the
earth's surface, is
2

1. mg 0 R

2(R+h)

3. 1:4 2

2. − mg 0 R

2(R+h)

4. 3:1
2

3.
2mg 0 R

R+h
23. Starting from the centre of the earth
2

4. −
2mg 0 R
having radius R, the variation of g R+h

(acceleration due to gravity) is

25. A rectangular film of liquid is
shown by
extended from (4 cm × 2 cm) to
(5 cm × 4 cm). If the work done is

1. 3 × 10 the value of the surface

−4
J

tension of the liquid is

1. 0. 250 N m −1

2. 0. 125 N m −1

3. 0. 2 N m −1

2.
4. 8 N m −1

26. The temperature inside a refrigerator

is t 2
0
C and the room temperature is
0
t1 C . The amount of heat delivered
to the room for each joule of
3. electrical energy consumed ideally
will be

1. t1

t 1 −t 2

2. t 1 +273

t 1 −t 2

4. 3. t 2 +273

t 1 −t 2

4. t 1 +t 2

t 1 +273

27.

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A body of mass m is attached to the 4. 2

lower end of a spring whose upper
30. An electric dipole is placed at an
end is fixed. The spring has
angle of 30 with an electric field
0

negligible mass. When the mass m

intensity 2 × 10 N C . It 5 −1

is slightly pulled down and released,

experiences a torque equal to 4 N m.
it oscillates with a time period of 3s.
The charge on the dipole, if the
When the mass m is increased by
dipole length is 2cm
1 kg, the time period of oscillations

becomes 5 s. The value of m in kg 1. 8 mC

is
2. 2 mC
1. 3
4

3. 5 mC
2. 4

4. 7μC
3. 16

9
31. A parallel-plate capacitor of area A,
4. 9

16 plate separation d and capacitance C

is filled with four dielectric materials
28. The second overtone of an open
having dielectric constants
organ pipe has the same frequency as
K 1 , K 2 , K 3 and K 4 as shown in the
the first overtone of a closed pipe L
figure.
metre long. The length of the open
pipe will be

1. L

2. 2L

3. L

4. 4L If a single dielectric material is to be

used to have the same capacitance C
29. Three sound waves of equal in this capacitor, then its dielectric
amplitudes have frequencies (n-1), n, constant k is given by
(n+1) . They superimpose to give
1. k = k + k 2 + k 3 + 3k 4
beats. The number of beats produced 1

per second will be 2. k = 2

3
(k 1 + k 2 + k 3 ) + 2k 4

1. 1 3. 2
=
3
+
1

k k 1 +k 2 +k 3 k4

2. 4 4. 1
=
1
+
1
+
1
+
3

k k1 k2 k3 2k 4

3. 3 32.

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A filament bulb 500W , 100V is to zero in loop 1

be used in a 230V main supply. 1. and zero in loop 2

When a resistance R is connected in →

dB 2
→
dB
− πr in loop 1 and − π
series, it works perfectly and the dt dt

2. r 2
in loop 2
bulb consumes 500W . The value of
→

R is −
dB
πR
2
in loop 1
dt
3. and zero in loop 2

1. 230 Ω
→
dB 2
− πr in loop 1
2. 46 Ω dt
4. and zero in loop 2

3. 26 Ω
35. Which of the following
4. 13 Ω combinations should be selected for
33. A long wire carrying a steady current better tuning of an L-C-R circuit
is bent into a circular loop of one used for communication?
turn. The magnetic field at the centre R = 20Ω, L = 1. 5H, C = 35μ

of the loop is B. It is then bent into a 1. F

circular coil of n turns. The magnetic R = 25Ω, L = 2. 5H, C = 45μ
2. F
field at the centre of this coil of n
turns will be R = 15Ω, L = 3. 5H, C = 30μ
3. F
1. nB R = 25Ω, L = 1. 5H, C = 45μ
4. F
2. n 2
B
36. The potential differences across the
3. 2nB resistance, capacitance and
inductance are80 V , 40 V and
4. 2n 2
B
100 V respectively in an L-C-R
34. A uniform magnetic field is series circuit. The power factor of
restricted within a region of radius this circuit is
“r”. The magnetic field changes with
→ 1. 0.4
time at a rate . Loop 1 of radius R
dB
dt

> r encloses the region r and loop 2 2. 0.5

of radius R is outside the region of
3. 0.8
magnetic field as shown in the
figure. Then the e.m.f. generated is 4. 1.0

37. Two identical glass (μ = ) g

3

equiconvex lenses of focal length f

each are kept in contact. The space
between the two lenses is filled with

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water (μ = ). The focal length

w
4
3
40. The interference pattern is obtained
of the combination is with two coherent light sources of
f
intensity ratio n. In the interference
1.
pattern, the ratio will be
I max −I min
3
I max +I min

2. f
1.
√n

n+1
4f
3. 3
2.
2√n

n+1
3f
4. 4

3. √n
2
(n+1)
38. A person can see clearly objects only
when they lie between 50 cm and 4.
2√n
2
(n+1)

400 cm from his eyes. In order to

increase the maximum distance of 41. Photons with energy 5 eV are
distinct vision to infinity, the type incident on a cathode C in a
and power of the correcting lens, the photoelectric cell. The maximum
person has to use, will be energy of emitted photoelectrons is 2
eV. When photons of energy 6 eV
1. convex, + 2. 25 diopter
are incident on C, no photoelectrons
2. concave, − 0. 25 diopter
will reach the anode A, if the
stopping potential of A relative to C
3. concave, − 0. 2 diopter
is
4. convex, + 0. 15 diopter
1. +3 V
39. A linear aperture whose width is
2. +4 V
0. 02 cm is placed immediately in
front of a lens of focal length 60 cm. 3. -1 V
The aperture is illuminated normally
by a parallel beam of wavelength 4. -3 V
cm. The distance of the
−5
5 × 10
42. Electrons of mass m with de-
first dark band of the diffraction
Broglie wavelength λ fall on the
pattern from the centre of the screen
target in an X -ray tube. The cutoff
is
wavelength (λ 0) of the emitted X -
1. 0.10 cm ray is
2

2. 0.25 cm 1. λ 0 =
2mcλ

3. 0.20 cm 2. λ 0 =
2h

mc

2 2 3

4. 0.15 cm 3. λ 0 =
2m c λ

h
2

4. λ 0 = λ

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43. If an electron in a hydrogen atom Chemistry

jumps from the 3 orbit to the 2
rd rd

orbit, it emits a photon of Section A

wavelength λ. When it jumps from 46. The percentage of pyridine
the 4 orbit to the 3 orbit, the
rd rd
(C 5 H 5 N) that forms pyridinium ion
corresponding wavelength of the (C 5 H 5 N H) in a 0. 10M aqueous
+

photon will be pyridine solution (K for b

C 5 H 5 N = 1. 7 × 10
−9
) is
1. 16

25
λ

1. 0.0060 %
2. 9

16
λ

2. 0.013 %
3. 20

7
λ

3. 0.77 %
4. 20

13
λ

4. 1.6 %
44. The half-life of a radioactive
substance is 30 minutes. The time (in 47. The solubility of AgCl (s)
with
minutes) taken between 40% decay solubility product 1. 6 × 10 −10
in
and 85% decay of the same 0. 1M of NaCl solution would be
radioactive substance is
1. 1. 26 × 10 −5
M

1. 15
2. 1. 6 × 10 −9
M

2. 30 3. 1. 6 × 10 −11
M

3. 45 4. Zero

4. 60 48. Jahn-Teller effect is not observed in

high spin complexes of
45. For CE transistor amplifier, the
audio signal voltage across the 1. d 7

collector resistance of 2 kΩ is 4V. If

2. d 8

the current amplification factor of

the transistor is 100 and the base 3. d 4

resistance is1 KΩ , then the input 4. d 9

signal voltage is
49. A given nitrogen containing aromatic
1. 10 mV compound A reacts with Sn / HCl,
followed byH N O to give an
2
2. 20 mV
unstable compound 'B'. ' B ', on
3. 30 mV treatment with phenol, forms a
4. 15 mV beautiful coloured compound 'C

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with the molecular formula 51. The central dogma of molecular

C 12 H 10 N 2 O . The structure of genetics states that the genetic
compound ' A is information flows from

1. Amino acids → Proteins →

1. DNA

DNA → Carbohydrates →
2. Proteins

3. DNA → RNA → Proteins

2. DNA → RNA →
4. Carbohydrates

52. Which one of the following

structures represents nylon 6,6
polymer?
3.
1.

4.

2.

50. The correct corresponding order of

names of four aldoses with
3.
configuration given below

4.
respectively,is

L -erythrose, L -threose, L
1. -erythrose, D -threose

D -threose, D -erythrose, L 53. The hybridizations of atomic orbitals

2. -threose, L -erythrose
of nitrogen in N O ,N O and NH
+
2
−
3
+
4

L -erythrose, L -threose, D respectively are

3. -erythrose, D -threose

D -erythrose, D -threose, L 1. sp, sp 3

and sp
2

4. -erythrose, L -threose.

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2. sp 2
, sp
3
and sp
57. Which of the following compounds
3. sp, sp 2
and sp
3
shall not produce propene by
reaction with HBr followed by
4. sp 2
, sp and sp
3

elimination or direct only

54. In the context of beryllium, which elimination reaction?
one of the following statements is
1.
incorrect?

1. It is rendered passive by nitric

acid.

2. It forms Be C
2
2.
3. Its salts rarely hydrolyse

4. Its hydride is electron-deficient

and polymeric. 3.

55. AlF 3 is soluble in HF only in

presence of KF. It is due to the
formation of 4.

1. K 3 [AlF 3 H3 ]

2. K 3 [AlF 6 ]

58. The compound that will react most

3. Al F 3
readily with gaseous bromine has the
4. K[AlF 3] formula

56. Which among the given molecules 1. C 3 H6

can exhibit tautomerism?

2. C 2 H2

3. C 4 H 10

4. C 2 H4

59. In the given reaction,

1. III only

2. Both I and III

3. Both I and II

4. Both II and III the product P is

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1.

3.
2.

3. 4.

61. Which one of the following is

4.
incorrect for ideal solution?

1. ΔH mix = 0

2. ΔU mix = 0

ΔP = P obs −
3. P calculated by Raoult's law = 0

60. In which of the following molecules, 4. ΔG mix = 0

all atoms are coplanar?

62. The number of electrons delivered at
1. the cathode during electrolysis by a
current of 1 ampere in 60 seconds is
?

(charge on electron =
1. 60 × 10
−19
C )

1. 6 × 10 23

2. 6 × 10 20

3. 3. 75 × 10 20

2.
4. 7. 48 × 10 23

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63. Zinc can be coated on iron to

produce galvanized iron but the
reverse is not possible. It is because
2.
1. zinc is lighter than iron

2. zinc has lower melting point than

iron

3. zinc has lower negative electrode

potential than iron 3.

4. zinc has higher negative

electrode potential than iron

64. If the E cell ° for a given reaction has

a negative value, which of the
following gives the correct
4.
relationships for the values of
ΔG° and K eq ?

1. ΔG°> 0; K eq < 1

66. The correct order of strengths of the

2. ΔG°> 0; K eq > 1
carboxylic acids
3. ΔG°< 0; K eq > 1

4. ΔG°< 0; K eq < 1

65. The correct structure of the product

‘A’ formed in the reaction is is

1. I > II > III

2. II > III > I

3. III > II > I

4. II > I > III

1. 67. Among the following, which one is a
wrong statement?

1. PH 5 and BiCl 5 do not exist.

π − dπ bonds are present in

p
2. SO 2

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SeF 4 and CH 4
2. gives up a proton
3. have same shape.

3. accepts OH from water

−

4. I +
3
has bent geometry.
releasing proton
68. Which one of the following
combines with proton f rom w
compounds shows the presence of 4. ater molecule.
intramolecular hydrogen bond?
72. The decomposition of phosphine
1. H 2 O2
PH 3 on tungsten at low pressure is a
first-order reaction. It is because the
2. HCN
1. rate is proportional to the surface
3. Cellulose
coverage
4. Concentrated acetic acid
2. rate is inversely proportional to
69. For a sample of perfect gas when its the surface coverage
pressure is changed isothermally
3. rate is independent of the surface
from p i to p f , the entropy change is
coverage
given by
4. rate of decomposition is very
1. ΔS = nRln( pf
)
pi
slow.

2. ΔS = nRln( pi

pf
)
73. Hot concentrated sulphuric acid is a
moderately strong oxidizing agent.
3. ΔS = nRTln( pf

pi
)
Which of the following reactions
does not show oxidizing behaviour?
4. ΔS = RTln( pi

pf
)

Cu + 2H 2 SO 4 → CuSO 4 +
1. SO 2 + 2H 2 O
70. The suspension of slaked lime in
water is known as S + 2H 2 SO 4 → 3 SO 2 + 2H 2
2. O
1. lime water C + 2H 2 SO 4 → CO 2 + 2 SO 2
3. + 2H 2 O

2. quick lime CaF 2 + H 2 SO 4 → CaSO 4 + 2

4. HF

3. milk of lime
74. Which of the following can be used
4. aqueous solution of slaked lime as the halide component for Friedel-
Crafts reaction?
71. Boric acid is an acid because its
molecule 1. Chlorobenzene

1. contains replaceable H
+
ion 2. Bromobenzene

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3. Chloroethene 4. III > I > II

4. Isopropyl chloride 78. Which of the following fluoro

compounds is most likely to behave
75. In calcium fluoride, having the
as a Lewis base?
fluorite structure, the coordination
numbers for calcium ion Ca 2+
and 1. BF 3

fluoride ion F
−
are
2. PF 3

1. 4 and 2 3. CF 4

2. 6 and 6 4. SiF 4

3. 8 and 4 79. In pyrrole

4. 4 and 8

76. The van't Hoff factor (i) for a dilute

aqueous solution of the strong
electrolyte barium hydroxide is
the electron density is maximum on
1. 0
1. 2 and 3
2. 1
2. 3 and 4
3. 2
3. 2 and 4
4. 3
4. 2 and 5
77. The coagulation values in millimoles
80. During the electrolysis of molten
per litre of the electrolytes used for
sodium chloride, the time required to
the coagulation of As 2 S3 are given
produce 0.10 mol of chlorine gas
below:
using a current of 3 Amperes.
I. (NaCl) = 52

1. 55 minutes
II. (BaCl 2 ) = 0. 69 ,

III. (MgSO ) = 0. 22
2. 110 minutes
4

The correct order of their 3. 220 minutes

coagulating power is 4. 330 minutes
1. I > II > III 81. The correct increasing order of trans-
2. II > I > III effect of the following species is

3. III > II > I

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1. NH 3 > CN
−
> Br
−
> C6 H
−

5
2. 60,40

2. CN −
> C6 H
−
5
> Br
−
> NH 3 3. 20,30

3. Br −
> CN
−
> NH 3 > C 6 H
−
5 4. 30,20

4. CN −
> Br
−
> C6 H
−
5
> NH 3
84. Which of the following pairs of d -
82. Which one of the following nitro orbitals will have electron density
compounds does not react with along the axes?
nitrous acid?
1. d z
2 , d xz

1.
2. d xz , d yz

3. d z
2 , d x 2 −y 2

4. d xy , d x 2 −y 2

2. 85. How many electrons can fit in the

orbital for which n=3 and I=1

1. 2

2. 6
3.
3. 10

4. 14

86. Which of the following pairs of ions

are isoelectronic and isostructural?
4.
1. CO 2−
3
, NO
−
3

2. ClO −

3
, CO
2−

3. NO −
3
, SO
2−
3

83. Suppose the elements xand y 4. ClO −

3
, SO
2−
3

combine to form two compounds 87. The correct geometry and

xy
2
and x 3 y2 . When 0.1 mole of xy 2 hybridization for XeF are 4

weighs 10 g and 0.05 mole of x 3 y2

weighs 9 g, the atomic weights of X 1. octahedral, sp d

3 2

and Y are 2. trigonal bipyramidal, sp d

3

1. 40,30
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3. planar triangle, sp d
3 3

Botany
4. square planar, sp d
3 2

Section A
88. The molar conductivity of a
91. A few drops of sap were collected by
0. 5 mol / dm solution AgNO
3
3
cutting across a plant stem by a
with electrolytic conductivity of
suitable method. The sap was tested
5. 76 × 10
−3
S cm
−1
at 298 K is
chemically. Which one of the
1. 2. 88 S 2
cm / mol following test results indicates that it
is phloem sap?
2. 11. 52 S cm / mol
2

1. Acidic
3. 0. 086 S cm / mol
2

2. Alkaline
4. 28. 8 S 2
cm / mol

3. Low refractive index

89. Which one of the following
statements related to lanthanons is 4. Absence of sugar
incorrect?
92. Oxidative phosphorylation is
Europium shows + 2
1. oxidation state.
1. formation of ATP by transfer of
The basicity decreases as
phosphate group from a substrate
the ionic radius decreases
2. f rom Pr to Lu. to ATP
All the lanthanons are
much more reactive than 2. oxidation of phosphate group in
3. aluminium.
ATP
Ce(+4) solutions are widely
used as oxidizing agent in
4. volumetric analysis.
3. addition of phosphate group in
ATP
90. Consider the reaction,
4. formation of ATP by energy
CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 Br + NaCN →
CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 CN + NaBr
released from electrons removed
during substrate oxidation
This reaction will be the fastest in
93. Radial symmetry is found in the
1. ethanol water.
flowers of
2. methanol 1. Brassica
3. N , N -dimethylformamide
′

2. Trifolium
(DMF)
3. Pisum
4. water
4. Cassia

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94. Free central placentation is found in 3. Agar-agar is obtained from

Gelidium and Gracilaria.
1. Dianthus
4. Laminaria and Sargassum are
2. Argemone used as food.
3. Brassica 98. Which is essential for the growth of
4. Citrus root tip?

95. Which of the biomolecules is 1. Zn

common to respiratory mediated 2. Fe
breakdown of fats, carbohydrates
and proteins? 3. Ca

1. Glucose 6 phosphate 4. Mn

2. Fructose 1,6 bisphosphate 99. The mechanism that causes a gene to

move from one linkage group to
3. Pyruvic acid another is called
4. Acetyl CoA 1. inversion
96. When cell has stalled DNA 2. duplication
replication fork, which checkpoint
should be predominantly activated? 3. translocation

1. G 1 /S 4. crossing-over

2. G 2 /M 100.Phytochrome is a

3. M 1. flavoprotein

4. Both G 2 /M and M 2. glycoprotein

97. Which one of the following 3. lipoprotein

statements is wrong?
1. Algae increase the level of
dissolved oxygen in the
immediate environment.
2. Algin is obtained from red algae,
and carrageenan from brown
algae.
4. chromoprotein
101.How many plants among Indigofera,
Sesbania, Salvia, Allium, Aloe,
mustard, groundnut, radish, gram
and turnip have stamens with
different lengths in their flowers?
1. Three

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2. Four 1. iii i ii iv
2. iii i iv ii
3. Five 3. i iv ii iii
4. iii iv i ii
4. Six
1. 1
102.Which of the following restriction
enzymes produces blunt ends? 2. 2

1. SalI 3. 3

2. EcoRV 4. 4

3. XhoI 105.Match column-I with column-II for

housefly classification and select the
4. HindIII
correct option.
103.You are given a tissue with its Column-
Column-II
potential for differentiation in an I
artificial culture. Which of the (A) Family (I) Diptera
following pairs of hormones would (B) Order (II) Arthropoda
you add to the medium to secure (C) Class (III) Muscidae
(D) Phylum (IV) Insecta
shoots as well as roots?
A B C D
1. IAA and gibberellin
1. III I IV II
2. III II IV I
2. Auxin and cytokinin
3. IV III II I
3. Auxin and abscisic acid 4. IV II I III

4. Gibberellin and abscisic acid 1. 1

104.Match column I with column II and 2. 2

select the correct option using the
3. 3
codes given below.
4. 4

Column-I Column-II 106.Match column I with column II and

A. Citric Acid (i) Trichoderma select the correct option using the
Cyclosporin codes given below.
B. (ii) Clostridium
A
C. Statins (iii) Aspergillus Column-I Column-II
Butyric Pistils fused
D. (iv) Monascus A. (i) Gametogenesis
acid together
Formation of
A B C D B. (ii) Pistillate
gametes
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Hyphae of 1. 1
C. higher (iii) Syncarpous
Ascomycetes 2. 2
Unisexual
D. female (iv) Dikaryotic 3. 3
flower
4. 4
A B C D
1. iv iii i ii 108.During cell growth, DNA synthesis
2. ii i iv iii takes place
3. i ii iv iii
4. iii i iv ii 1. S-phase

1. 1 2. G1 phase

2. 2 3. G2 phase

3. 3 4. M phase

4. 4 109.A true breeding plant is

107.Match the stages of meiosis in 1. one that is able to breed on its

column I to their characteristic own
features in column II and select the
2. produced due to cross-pollination
correct option using the codes given
among unrelated plants
below.
3. near homozygous and produces
offspring of its own kind
Column-I Column-II
Pairing of
4. always homozygous recessive in
A. Pachytene (i) homologous
chromosomes its genetic constitution
Metaphase Terminalisation
B. (ii) 110.Taylor conducted the experiments to
I of chiasmata
Crossing-over prove semi-conservative mode of
C. Diakinesis (iii)
takes place chromosome replication on
Chromosomes
D. Zygotene (iv) align at 1. Vinca rosea
equatorial plate
2. Vicia faba
A B C D
1. iii iv ii i 3. Drosophila melanogaster
2. i iv ii iii
3. ii iv iii i 4. E. coli.
4. iv iii ii i
111.

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A molecule that can act as a genetic 1. epidermis and stele

material must fulfill the traits given
2. pericycle and endodermis
below, except
3. endodermis and pith
1. it should be able to express itself
in the form of 'Mendelian 4. endodermis and vascular bundle.
characters'
115.Which one of the following
2. it should be able to generate its statements is not correct?
replica.
1. Offspring produced by the
3. it should be structurally and asexual reproduction are called
chemically unstable. clone.

4. it should provide the scope for 2. Microscopic, motile, asexual

slow changes that are required reproductive structures are called
for evolution. zoospores.

112.Select the wrong statement. 3. In potato, banana and ginger, the

plantlets arise from, the
1. Bacterial cell wall is made up of
internodes present in the
peptidoglycan.
modified stem.
2. Pili and fimbriae are mainly
4. Water hyacinth, growing in the
involved in motility of bacterial
standing water, drains oxygen
cells.
from water that leads to the death
3. Cyanobacteria lack flagellated of fishes.
cells.
116.The equivalent of a structural gene is
4. Mycoplasma is a wall-less
1. muton
microorganism.
2. cistron
113.Methanogens belong to
3. operon
1. Eubacteria
4. recon
2. Archaebacteria
117.Study the four statements (A-D)
3. Dinoflagellates
given below and select the two
4. Slime moulds. correct ones out of them.
A. Definition of biological species
114.Cortex is the region found between
was given by Ernst Mayr.

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B. Photoperiod does not affect 2. 'Diatomaceous earth' is formed

reproduction in plants. by the cell walls of diatoms.
C. Binomial nomenclature system
3. Diatoms are chief producers in
was given by R.H. Whittaker.
the oceans.
D. In unicellular organisms,
reproduction is synonymous with 4. Diatoms are microscopic and
growth. float passively in water.
The two correct statements are
121.A cell organelle containing
1. B and C hydrolytic enzymes is

2. C and D 1. lysosome

3. A and D 2. microsome

4. A and B 3. ribosome

118.Select the mismatch. 4. mesosome.

1. Gas vacuoles - Green bacteria 122.The term 'polyadelphous' is related

to
2. Large central vacuoles - Animal
cells 1. gynoecium

3. Protists - Eukaryotes 2. androecium

4. Methanogens - Prokaryotes 3. corolla

119.DNA-dependent RNA polymerase 4. calyx.

catalyses transcription on one strand
of the DNA which is called the 123.Which one of the following
generates new genetic combinations
1. template strand leading to variation?

2. coding strand 1. Vegetative reproduction

3. alpha strand 2. Parthenogenesis

4. antistrand 3. Sexual reproduction

120.Select the wrong statement. 4. Nucellar polyembryony

1. The walls of diatoms are easily 124.In majority of angiosperms

destructible.
1. egg has a filiform apparatus

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2. there are numerous antipodal 1. They are eukaryotic

cells
3. reduction division occurs in the
megaspore mother cells
4. a small central cell is present in
that embryo sac
125.The ovule of an angiosperm is
technically equivalent to
1. megasporangium
2. All fungi possess a purely
cellulosic cell wall.
3. They are heterotrophic.
4. They are both unicellular and
multicellular.
129.Conifers are adapted to tolerate
extreme environmental conditions
because of

2. megasporophyll 1. broad, hard leaves

3. megaspore mother cell 2. superficial stomata

4. megaspore. 3. thick cuticle

126.Pollination in water hyacinth and 4. presence of vessels.

water lily is brought about by the
agency of 130.The label of a herbarium sheet does
not carry information on
1. water
1. date of collection
2. insects or wind
2. name of collector
3. birds
3. local names
4. bats
4. height of the plant.
127.Which of the following rRNAs acts
as structural RNA as well as 131.The balloon-shaped structures called
ribozyme in bacteria? tyloses

1. 5S rRNA 1. originate in the lumen of vessels

2. 18S rRNA 2. characterise the sapwood

3. 23S rRNA 3. are extensions of xylem

parenchyma cells into vessels
4. 5.8S rRNA
4. are linked to the ascent of sap
128.Which one of the following is wrong through xylem vessels.
for fungi?

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132.The process which makes major Match column I with column II and
difference between C3 and C4 plants select the correct option using the
is codes given below.

1. glycolysis
Column-
2. Calvin cycle Column-I
II
Embryo
3. photorespiration A. Mons pubis (i)
formation
B Antrum (ii) Sperm
4. respiration
Female
C. Trophectoderm (iii) external
Zoology genitalia
Graafian
D. Nebenkern (iv)
follicle
Section A
133.Which of the following is correctly
matched?
A B C D
1. Aerenchyma - Opuntia 1 iii iv ii i
2 iii iv i ii
2. Age pyramid - Biome 3 iii i iv ii
4 i iv iii ii
3. Parthenium hysterophorus -
Threat to biodiversity 1. 1

4. Stratification - Population 2. 2

134.Choose the correct statement. 3. 3

1. Nociceptors respond to changes 4. 4

in pressure
136.If'+' sign is assigned to beneficial
2. Meissner's corpuscles are interaction, '- ' sign to detrimental
thermoreceptors. and 'O' sign to neutral interaction,
then the population interaction
3. Photoreceptors in the human eye
represented by'+''-' refers to
are depolarised during darkness
and become hyperpolarised in 1. mutualism
response to the light stimulus.
2. amensalism
4. Receptors do not produce graded
3. commensalism
potentials
4. parasitism
135.

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137.Which of the following depicts the 1. involuntary, fusiform, non-

correct pathway of transport of striated
sperms?
2. voluntary, multinucleate,
1. Rete testis ➔ Efferent ductules ➔ cylindrical
Epididymis ➔ Vas deferens
3. involuntary, cylindrical, striated
2. Rete testis ➔ Epididymis ➔
4. voluntary, spindle-shaped,
Efferent ductules ➔ Vas deferens
uninucleate
3. Rete testis ➔ Vas deferens ➔
141.The partial pressure of oxygen in the
Efferent ductules ➔ Epididymis
alveoli of the lungs is
4. Efferent ductules ➔ Rete testis ➔
1. equal to that in the blood
Vas deferens ➔ Epididymis
2. more than that in the blood
138.Serum differs from blood in
3. less than that in the blood
1. lacking globulins
4. less than that of carbon dioxide
2. lacking albumins
142.Which of the following is hormone-
3. lacking clotting factors
releasing IUD?
4. lacking antibodies
1. LNG 20
139.Lungs do not collapse between
2. Multiload 375
breaths and some air always remains
in the lungs which can never be 3. Lippes loop
expelled because
4. Cu 7
1. there is a negative pressure in the
lungs 143.Which of the following is incorrect
regarding vasectomy?
2. there is a negative intrapleural
pressure pulling at the lung walls 1. No sperm occurs in seminal fluid

3. there is a positive intrapleural 2. No sperm occurs in epididymis

pressure
3. Vasa deferentia is cut and tied
4. pressure in the lungs is higher
4. Irreversible sterility
than the atmospheric pressure
144.Biochemical Oxygen Demand
140.Smooth muscles are
(BOD) may not be a good index for

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pollution for water bodies receiving 3. 0.75

effluents from
4. 1
1. domestic sewage
148.Several hormones like hCG, hPL,
2. dairy industry estrogen, progesterone are produced
by
3. petroleum industry
1. ovary
4. sugar industry
2. placenta
145.A lake which is rich in organic waste
may result in 3. fallopian tube

1. increased population of aquatic 4. pituitary

organisms due to minerals
149.Which of the following National
2. drying of the lake due to algal Parks is home to the famous musk
bloom deer or hangul?

3. increased population of fish due 1. Keibul Lamjao National Park,

to lots of nutrients Manipur

4. mortality of fish due to lack of 2. Bandhavgarh National Park,

oxygen Madhya Pradesh

146.The highest DDT concentration in 3. Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary,

aquatic food chain shall occur in Arunachal Pradesh

1. phytoplankton 4. Dachigam National Park, Jammu

and Kashmir
2. seagull
150.Embryo with more than 16
3. crab
blastomeres, formed due to in vitro
4. eel fertilisation is transferred into

147.If a colour-blind man marries a 1. uterus

woman who is homozygous for
2. fallopian tube
normal colour vision, the probability
of their son being colour-blind is 3. fimbriae

1. 0 4. cervix

2. 0.5 151.The principle of competitive

exclusion was stated by
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4. hypersecretion of adrenal gland

1. C. Darwin
155.The posterior pituitary gland is not a
2. G.F. Gause
' true' endocrine gland because
3. Mac Arthur
1. it is provided with a duct
4. Verhulst and Pearl.
2. it only stores and releases
152.Which of the following is the correct hormones
sequence of events in the origin of
3. it is under the regulation of
life?
hypothalamus
I. Formation of protobionts
II. Synthesis of organic monomers 4. it secretes enzymes
III. Synthesis of organic polymers
IV. Formation of DNA-based genetic 156.Name the blood cells, whose
systems reduction in number can cause
clotting disorder, leading to
1. I, II, III, IV excessive loss of blood from the
body.
2. I, III, II, IV
1. Erythrocytes
3. II, III, I, IV
2. Leucocytes
4. II, III, IV, I
3. Neutrophils
153.Name the ion responsible for
unmasking of active sites for myosin 4. Thrombocytes
for cross-bridge activity during
muscle contraction. 157.Which of the following sets of
diseases is caused by bacteria?
1. Calcium
1. Cholera and tetanus
2. Magnesium
2. Typhoid and smallpox
3. Sodium
3. Tetanus and mumps
4. Potassium
4. Herpes and influenza
154.Graves' disease is caused due to
158.Red list contains data or information
1. hyposecretion of thyroid gland on

2. hypersecretion of thyroid gland 1. all economically important plants

3. hyposecretion of adrenal gland

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2. plants whose products are in
international trade
3. threatened species
4. marine vertebrates only
159.The part of nephron involved in
active reabsorption of sodium is
1. distal convoluted tubule
2. proximal convoluted tubule
3. Bowman's capsule
4. descending limb of Henle's loop.
160.The primary producers of the deep-
sea hydrothermal vent ecosystem are
1. green algae
2. chemosynthetic bacteria
3. blue-green algae
4. coral reefs
161.Which of the following is correct for
r-selected species?
1. Large number of progeny with
small size
2. Large number of progeny with
large size
3. Small number of progeny with
small size
4. Small number of progenywith
large size
162.Name a peptide hormone which acts
mainly on hepatocytes, adipocytes
and enhances cellular glucose uptake
and utilisation.
1. Insulin
2. Glucagon
3. Secretin
4. Gastrin
163.Genetic drift operates in
1. small isolated population
2. large isolated population
3. non-reproductive population
4. slow reproductive population
164.In Hardy-Weinberg equation, the
frequency of heterozygous
individual is represented by
1. p2
2. 2pq
3. pq
4. q2
165.Choose the correct statement.
1. All mammals are viviparous.
2. All cyclostomes do not possess
jaws and paired fins.
3. All reptiles have a three-
chambered heart.
4. All pisces have gills covered by
an operculum.
166.
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In male cockroaches, sperm is stored Interspecific hybridisation is the

in which part of the reproductive mating of
system?
1. animals within same breed
1. Seminal vesicles without having common
ancestors
2. Mushroom glands
2. two different related species
3. Testis
3. superior males and females of
4. Vas deferens
different breeds
167.Which hormones do stimulate the
4. more closely related individuals
production of pancreatic juice and
within same breed for 4-6
bicarbonate?
generations
1. Angiotensin and epinephrine
170.Which kind of therapy was given in
2. Gastrin and insulin 1990 to a four-year-old girl with
adenosine deaminase (ADA)
3. Cholecystokinin and secretin deficiency?

4. Insulin and glucagon 1. Gene therapy

168.Which of the following is correct 2. Chemotherapy

regarding AIDS causative agent
HIV? 3. Immunotherapy

1. HIV is enveloped virus 4. Radiation therapy

containing one molecule of
171.How many hotspots of biodiversity
single-stranded RNA and one
in the world have been identified till
molecule of reverse transcriptase.
date by Norman Myers?
2. HIV is enveloped virus that
1. 17
contains two identical molecules
of single-stranded RNA and two 2. 25
molecules of reverse
3. 34
transcriptase.
4. 43
3. HIV is unenveloped retrovirus.
172.Osteoporosis, an age-related disease
4. HIV does not escape but attacks
of skeletal system, may occur due to
the acquired immune response.

169.
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1. immune disorder affecting Which of the following describes the

neuromuscular junction leading given graph correctly?
to fatigue

2. high concentration of Ca++

and Na+

3. decreased level of estrogen

4. accumulation of uric acid leading

to inflammation of joints
1. Endothermic reaction with
173.The chronological order of human energy A in presence of enzyme
evolution from early to the recent is and B in absence of enzyme

1. Australopithecus → 2. Exothermic reaction with energy

Ramapithecus →Homo habilis A in presence of enzyme and B in
→Homo erectus
absence of enzyme.

2. Ramapithecus → 3. Endothermic reaction with

Australopithecus →Homo energy A in absence of enzyme
habilis →Homo erectus and B in presence of enzyme.

3. Ramapithecus →Homo habilis 4. Exothermic reaction with energy

→Australopithecus →Homo
A in absence of enzyme and B in
erectus presence of enzyme.

4. Australopithecus →Homo 176.Which of the following is the least

habilis →Ramapithecus →Homo likely to be involved in stabilising
erectus the three-dimensional folding of
most proteins?
174.Among the following edible fishes,
which one is a marine fish having 1. Hydrogen bonds
rich source of omega-3 fatty acids?
2. Electrostatic interaction
1. Mystus
3. Hydrophobic interaction
2. Mangur
4. Ester bonds
3. Mrigala
177.A non-proteinaceous enzyme is
4. Mackerel
1. lysozyme
175.
2. ribozyme
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3. ligase
1. Separation
4. deoxyribonuclease.
2. Purification

178.Stirred-tank bioreactors have been 3. Preservation

designed for
4. Expression
1. purification of product
180.A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by
2. addition of preservatives to the the same restriction endonuclease
product can be joined to form a recombinant
plasmid using
3. availability of oxygen throughout
the process 1. EcoRI

4. ensuring anaerobic conditions in 2. Taq polymerase

the culture vessel
3. polymerase III
179.Which of the following is not a
component of downstream 4. ligase

processing?

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