a

* q,q$4tdq ddabdod pdl/i aeirdddlta e.tq ddobd{odd)

{,J*Egi a{Frrt d^rB

2021
JJJ.oJ
w.g wt!9
7253657

id:o1r
A : LYz iioulil$c
:iDdxod
ado$ ioded
dgd
i 471
-r
dOdo erodzl$c : 1OO

inddd*o
1.

2.
3

4 droeodrd !oa5,
5. dddde_ Ldnhd)d E 5.ide, dol) zPddo_o3)e Ddt doecdd iorj" oi)a$ ajilooiued:.
i

q,d" dgdo$C_ rJed aijio

DdcJrclEdd).
6. dl drudgrdoiD 100 drdrldib r-SitJace69d. d, coinc-r qJ.tol" 4 so3>oridio z.*looAd>dd. 0e{ erudd .6E9ojre_ /D69: il>daleii&fod
wddd:tl eoJ.:o E$raii./o9. ?.od) aieg o e- ucdSoog 6e$s ruciJld slg dr(gicbod) aec) qrr"J,$dd cldrri edl, ddca&::Dd rroddiio ibd)d)
:

dDe. sde s-dJo 4,.9 drd*rl i)rd deie.: 'z"od> qugdd$

J{26d
drr3.' soi: dnduedr. t-od> de$ todScgida:J,1 sDddti9& ndiiroecr (&6d:)
n, & -e_ s eiJ g dfi eJa'I) e:,cdrdo& d u drare,)rDd.i.
7. i/l*d$ iiid :d: uo/lqaxdsldddero_ad.)d-. 5.1*d AnaiciJolird c1l{-e d.-,5d+qraEecgdd")iJ-riid.Jofuec-:^:s;-{edrirrif O-:
sc(,Jr<ob E5.rl$dj Jd Sne&saoc$, E5*oi& strJ i-t;ibCgdd).
9do
8. ie-?eruUdile"riD* &d)ri i*higalrd:3 t,grr3 i-.")c.(Jd. erudU towol: areei iieds d{I(9dilE clee yJo$o$ zDerEac})ot

9.
J-Jrr-
ilWA
+{r-i-?-
doeaiOJ. J
lU
,iio$
a
10. sd.Q-iiJ persorra.lized i-.o0.:jd. sDgd 6D$ioi)e e].JJU,l.C aogad L.no.sd. sagd 60$o$d)
e,lo6)iod)
11. e$rQ-oj)) L.nc.sd. eroJd -;ciobe_clii&i&;rd i't-O_rL ilrdJdJjl: gn-9_erogdsdrQro$a.oo.Uo{. eeJd6}9o$iisto*doer)
.Odsdicrrrb€dr.
12. t .oo.ed. uDJd 6rtlobo_ soJtr:,dE sql.Qroi$ doeodrd ioaj,ol:d: idlr:rd;d iddO_ eldd>
rr?,i.Q-ojJJ Non-personalize<l
ioro*iljdduqdd: ,:fg.ned r3rdd3_d)- SJ$"3ridg,J 5r..5 iri-La nioi:.icdeJJ& ddsrcb-;h udcJ:5td: $g) Lil&dG:J- r,$r;e-
iL drde.iril. J,ide_ eogd (,ClrQ-o$ L".no.(,d. r,ro$d a#o$dr e,xododod, doiirdJc.Drbddr.
13. r-iDJe/ doeel (araoo.g 6!C)ciO_ sql.Q.c1r: gi,-e xL -"cdJril.
14. :jqi,Q-oil) :oeoood c1D{-e rroCifriii,:* erDe:.c+:J-O_ ooJd L.no.(,d. e,ru{d oldo$d: u:JoCJdo& d0iltdns".rb{)&.
15. ;bei,ojJ t$JdlciJd& ilo?jiDi 9cgdr do!^i u;c-rird idmJe L..)c.ijd. en"'Ud -Jgci:e- fD6J) drilddd: &e;dued.:.
"-;6-e DaS:"unid9_o$e dJ*gdgd6E!.
trcii€iddJ z-cd) DdreJ$d u..cc.r:cf . errJgd aJs3Gtdr J$ dritddc:j$tlood: ddJ ilridrdofodddrln
16. :jr,.iQicix or.:i-ri dLg !,.n..:id. grdd o;*ci: -,9 fcandiclatc copy) c])ir* rrogd) sobsiilcird.] -,d8nrdddri ?lrae--rdilJh
:jcdl:)t!i,oe,a]e$. :ioiroerid oU?dde icdd-dC_Ei?;UJdDrer /rou3,:rd% diae i:de drgoi)di eFr6dJd&Jgd.d).
17. ?3$ uddoolr 6Ed/'V& 4dn.gricj) dro-obo_JeUiejDlr-. dr3dS,doj) ?ii"€- orid qDri-e_obro &rd oiDdde t-re,9o1) d:dtUiJ: dJidS{de-
18. 3qs1)gdrl9d aQierErbEi dod:
(J*,,Q.o$od Jqrc&$ drEdof,.3 ero{ud" dodJib aQrerarbdd.
0 d,A -ap^n s!9d6E0n -Derj ucio.ieJir* Dedglhd. d,p, qi*fi sql,QrolD g{trglgdOeGde* u {,u*rl Dda.arerid <sodiidO_
% O. 2 5 ) dCD (j oddg-s* cJc d6 aoid9_ d+olr sE rD { --).
(

f,, e{.QrciD z.cdr {,uri ?.od86cd dr$B urDgddgir* &e&d91 edde_ t-cd: segd{ ,ocinhddJ.. i6 sd.$ Jqerugd Dod)
dU drdxcrDfD*d). e e,ld ;be e .9gtrdoiioi: e s -, J*fi -o 6d&,f QrerlDd)dr.
/,ir(,qlQioi! oLn{cie drdri eojoire riDe ?:iie- ucdd eruJddir:*ledod€_u dru*ri oj.n{de doddFbaQicDrbd)ae;
ofr{de ocgo1) d.orl,re, dpeif d9:, xDufr -?a$rtg:, aarefdlre3etJcf dvdq o$eo .add nejEo,rid wdddmrlgd:
d-oe6 erddrodgo d6+d$ ndeQiennd.
Note: Dnglish uersictrt of the i$tructions is prirted on the back. couer of this booklet.

1471-A
1 ?",odJ FJ6J dd4Gob d-l.:od 3 dcod;d-: Oeod d&dd d..:ee.l
Oo3do.ldod,: d0.l,dof
dv a-ortn 1O' -uaoJcrd Edearldc E*J
dd* 0d>hdo€,. 0d-rho-orl o-od-ld8er.:_ Eoeofurbqd. d,
rlnedOd;d Eoz^l
";qhdoQ d Z ddnddrlg0_ o1:ad ?.PgE
&oor;t>drl9c n0ol>nd?

(1) s' I. $idr?

II. d!,eqjdd
(2) 10"

IIL ?^,tl"r elodOd {3AetO

(3) 1s"
(1) I drd.l II

(4) 20' (2) |

(3) II drdr III

2. qlntuobd{n$re&iJd elad dEob
Sd-lro-oded{sl, dearldO_ (4) I, II drd.? III
dqd d rl g d,i & B A uD.rdodJv O d)

4 ilaobrd d..leeln, dcc0d Pd

(1) aocoddeo deJrldc

(1) dBd-> aood{edrrtd deroJr

(2) mnl6 selo6 deGoiredn:6 aiet'
(2 ) dr.i:. uaodfedrrld dooL>

(3) tr{oaotteJe{
(3) d{5dc€o! dooJc

(4) dordd alef, (4) o-oer,0d {Crtdc

l47L-A (21
1 Imagine you are standing in
front of a plane mirror and
take a turn by 10". How
much ',1'ould the image
appear to turn?
3. Rainbow is produced when
sunlight falls on tiny water
droplets. Which of the
following physical pheno-
menon/phenomena is/are
correct?

(1) s' I. Diffusion

II. Refraction
(2) 10"
II I. Total internal reflection
(1) I and II
(3) 1s'
(2) I only
(4) 20' (3) II and III

(4) I, II and III

2 Most of the energetic charged
particles reaching the earth
are captured by 'Sunspots'on the surface of
4
the Sun are
(1) E.rrth's atmosphere
(1) regions of low magnetic
fields
(2) Van Allen radiation belt
(2) regions of high
magnetic fields
(3) Asteroid belt
(3) regions of black holes

(4) Kuiper belt (4) imaginary spots

1471-A (3) lP. T. o.

5 alodr{,deorldc inobr{,dea3ood 8. dmdJ od.:
{peei.,eatr
dr.t-t rod:ad, ao h roeafr rier: rod ea
""l.lddr*t
droe.ld* ;aenh ieOtud.
u{ rld e.ln_odo ersl tutj* dned d
(1) iu-oded-,aoh ddo n-odrd a3odrd
dddc dndo nadrd zJn.bolr (1) uu€ddd; ue{fdc dt.tl.,
d;eel Eedc{d.r {,uad aledo{d.
(2) ,r,-oded*aan ddd rodrd (2) aen_ ae[d9Ja doDdnetu{d.
?.rafuob ddQc dndo n-adrd
i;ao1>Fd d;ed Eedc$d.: (3) eruddddc z^re;lrldc dA*r
dru-od EedoQd.
(3) ,r,-oded-aoh a3du nodrd uloQ,,d
dddc dndo nadrd inolcrd (4\ eru€ddd-r Dertr9q adn
doee.l Desrc{d-: t.lderortJdBo".r

(a) doeod o$a{ci.n eler_

9. elSe dub.rderluoh aJdolr.>d di,

6. do4 d;oaorldob,>
G (1) Ead.)
(1) -+rd qorroe.ld drud^rd
(2) $Dd)
(21 dd;e1o" drud^ra6
(3) dohdrom-r
(3) dd z^lodeo6
(4) 0ee.rhO
(4) d;edr, z,eaoad door,.:rldo

1O. dRdc rlogdu-oufl d, dSRd o1:od

7 oaoard fu erlddOprd uo;-oobOd nnrddqodnenrbqd?
dn?
(1) neaar:
(1) d{prd
(21 d3
(2) alodneoud erd->

(3) oor{OeoG (3) rlneQ

(4) r)oajtud sd)_ (4\ e$.

l47t-A (41
5 Lunar eclipses are seen 8 Three lamps are connected
more often than solar in series to a voltage source.
eclipses because of If one of the lamps burns out

(1) the shadow of the (1) the other two lamps will
relatively small moon glow brighter
on the larger earth
(2) the other two lamps will
(2) the shadow of the burn out
relatively small earth on
the larger sun (3) the other two lamps will
glow with less
(3) the shadow of the brightness
relatively small moon (4) the other two lamps will
on larger sun remain unaffected
(4) None of the above

9. The fastest growing plant is

6. Dry ice is
(1) bamboo
(1) solid CO,
(2) mango
(2) solid SO,
(3) coconut
(3) solid benzeoe
(4) eucalyptus
14) ice whose surface is
dried
1O. Which of the following
7. Mothballs contain plants is used for green
manuring?
(1) camphor (1) Sunhemp
(2) benzoic acid (2) Cotton
(3) naphthalene (3) Wheat
(4) cinnamic acid (4) Rice
t47L-A (s) lP.T.O.
11. d, ddndOrld0_ drodrBftd rood 14. dtiI ;rrQ IId{dO d.noDi aorto
o$addJ? d, d9rl &edod nodeddd.l
erudolnehidraod-r nOo$Dd
(1) drd-r€v eruddddo
j6td sob dnB:
(2) zJdc,9,
du3
CJ
-I dh3 -tI
(3) uemrl{
fal $dJdF0ob [/ aaSrdio6
(4) Ltodrore.loe der&dd trdogJe.,

12. dt dqnddrldd_ dcrodoo0 ddd

/b/ uiredd @l etroott'-
ol:adil? deD&dd Etrrolf rdogreJ

(1) ezr",& fld /c/ ,l,eta /iil/ a:uoscu

deD&dd roo9.>eJ
(2) ererd d-:d

(3) dJd,l /d/ aarBnobo fiui raod;r6 d;e

deD&gd dd,;rd naoJ._r

(4) abod,
Codes '.

13.2O2O1O* 'dE* dz* aodo (a) (b) (c) (d)

q/edaddndJd dN-oFtJd dE, dgddl
(1) (t) (ii) (iii) (iu)
(1) d*nndr
-dO_ddieDor:dJ.
(21 (iu) (iiE 0) fii)
(2) doe,

(3) doD altg

(3) (iiil 0u) (il fii)

(4) aroBegd (4) (iu) (iii) (it) (i)

l47t-A (6)
11. Which of the iollowing is a 14. Match lisl-I with List-II and
modified stem? select the correct answer
using the codes given below
(1) Onion the lists :

(2) Garlic List-I List-II

(3) Potato
lal Mercury (lj Parkinson
(4) Tomato contamination dis e ase

/bi Arsenic (ii)Itai-itai

12. Which of the following is a contamination disease
parasitic plant?

(1) Drosera (c)Lead (iii)Minamata

contamination disease
(2) Banyan
(3) Tulsi /d/ Cadmium (iu)Cancer
contamination and skin
(a) Methi lesions

Codes:
13. In the year 2O2O, Karnataka
Bird Festival popularly (a) (b) (c) (d)
known as 'Hakki Habba'
was held at
(1) (il (it) (iii) (iu)
(1) Mysuru
(2) (iu) (iii) (il ftil
(2) Hampi
(3) Nandi Hil1s
(31 (iii) (iu) (il 6il
(4) Bandipura $) (iu) (iii) (ii) (il
1471-A (71 lP.r.o.
15. dN-oFo.Jd uotid ifdFdd oLoeadob-> 18. ndD$€d dn& ddDdedd uuqed
oora;, Oedc dod*dd
(ai oadcncr6 /i/ derd d*rld
rh€nc$ddoo8rl a.rd$eGd nodpid
-Ood
doeend de.r_ob ddrldd-r, d.:oEncd
rf:Oobdqdnobd. (b,/ rgddnes.:6 fiil &dodd d.]sd
dDOdddaddrldod
(1) durgd ;nrO (.12"s) d,radd
draerld ;l.ld?
(2) oaard8 aor0 doddd d*d

(3) dr-urand3 aaro (c/ coboan (ill/ t d,neo6 dddd

dgd
(4 ) doeddoorle.: -de.t;Ptg ;ro, O
(d/ ano' (iu) 9ea qllaturlsr
dgd
16. Aadddq deuood{.1du eJeld.iN€ iozJ6
eldeard dod.:ud-:{ d. dredd olad dneBrl9c dOobfl
d.nobdoJ:nrbQdz
(1) d.-tQrdrded
-d{ (1) /a/ d:Q fbl drDs/
(2) uuQd {,ded (21 /a/ *rQ /c/ d:ad,
(3) uoQ, {,ded (3) fbl drQ (c/ dn-d,

(4) doDFt"Jd (4) (o), (b), @)atQ@)

17. dodd s5add d{ tud-'drrl9d.l 19. Aaddd0_deoQ, d-:aOd, Oo$odroa

eldoJce:atuqd. d.:od€ (CPCB)01: erdr,u-ad, dndo
drldd$q+doad zrd d -9 8Ad doa-D6
-(1) n;:5o*e.';C dedd drdobod erudjolntu{d.
(2) aonoerd erodAod (1) 1.s d.d.
-dd*
(3) dntuorJ dond ddddpb (2) 2.s E.d.
d.:eei d:addd z^ieBdor:od
(3) 0.s d.d.
(4) aa$f,rrd ?-q1r:d.ldos)od (41 r.2 E.d.

l47L-A (B)
15. Karnataka State Government 18. Name of the Objectlve
Project is aimed at filling the conventlon of the
lakes of drought-hit district conventlon
of Kolar w'ith treated waste- lai Ramsar (l/ Conservation
water from of migratory
(1) Hebbal valley birds
[b/ Stockholm (ii) Protection of
(2) Arkavathi valley human
hea-tth and
(3) Vrishabhavathi valley environment
from
(4) Koramangala- Persistent
Challaghatta valley Organic
Pollutants
(PoPs)
16. In India moist Alpine scrub (c) Yienna (iill Protection of
forest is found in ozone layer
(1) Madhya Pradesh (d) Bonn (iu/ Conservation
of wetlands
(2) Uttar Pradesh Which of the above pairs
are correctly matched?
(3) Andhra Pradesh
(tl @) and (b) onty
(4) Karnataka (2) (a) and (c) only
(31 @ and /c/ only
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
17. The ecological footprint is a
measure of 19. In India, as per tl:e Central
(1) non-sustainable lifestyle
Pollution Control Board
(CPCB), solid waste generated
(2) carbon content per capita per day in large
cities is
(3) human demand on the (1) 1.5 kg
earth's ecosystem (2) 2.s kg
(s) 0.s kg
(4) carrying capacity
(4) t.2 kg
t47L-A (e) lP.T.O.
20. Sdnd NaoJr t obddgq n0 22. Add adatu drded Bdddq aod.>
eru{ddd1uo3;o at>B : uz30ioarbQdf

deff (A) dod.2 rodee (Rl (1) 5deanoc

(2) 2de dgao
de0d (A) : dgJdJ +ui d/dedd) erge
ddtr ra.0d drz.led Q eabo.gdobdi (3) 22de a{,ef
dnoDd.
(41 22de draa:6r
rodea (Rlr ra.&d drz'ledrld
SgddoJal dSFJ +td drdedd* 23. duoFtJd uoac, d.)add, 0oLlodreo
dnd, Se$cdrtnoBd.
;t-rod€ a-o.ddobad ddr
(1) (A) d.:q (R) addn n0 drdg (1) 1e86
(A) dcDcofl (R) OeBd sddd
-
n0o1;and. (21 1e81

(2) (A) drd; (R) ;ddra d0 sdd

(3) Le74
(A) doOoah (R) &eBd sddd (4) te72
i0o1>hel,

(3) (A) n0, udd (R) d{5 24. erarlSd sadd>d idndeddo
doaloS3dod olDno6;di:roJ.>
(4) (A) dd5 udd (R) no
{Bs?FdJad obDdtu?

(1) obd,t3d ded{dredt'ddr

21. d9nddrle0-o1:Dd dedfis 2O2ld dd.I dd
qI
erd d6d .d:et:3 zieoatr
Sdd doid Addd,1 uo3nedeQ ?
(2) olDd.,urd ded{ dddedo6
ddo, dd erd d.?r.,.d:ecr6 a3eoef
(1 ) aleo-o ol

l2l aaExnd
(3 ) olDd.)t3d de'-ur{dredt'du6r
io[lcf ud -d_rd;et^16 deoae

(3) obdrtJd {et:i (4) obd.)t3d dedoi Sdde-oo6

(4) qradd
dotid unf d_rd;etf zseo#

l47t-A (10)
2O. Read the two statements 22.WorLd Wetlands Day is
Assertion (A) and Reason (R). celebrated on _ of each
Choose the correct answer year.
from the four choices given
below: (1) 5th June
(21 2nd Februaqr
Assertion (A) : Westem Ghats
a-re the region showing (3) 22nd April
richness of endemic species. $) 22nd March
Reason (R) : The distribution
of endemic species is 23. The Karnataka State
confined only to Western Pollution Control Board
Ghats. (KSPCB) was established in
the year
(1) Both (A) and (R) are (1) 1e86
correct and (R) explains (A)
(2) 1e81
(2) Both (A) and (R) are (s) re74
correct but (R) does not
explain (A) (4) 1e72
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is
false
24. What is the full form of
UNFCC with respect to
(4) (A) is false but global warming convention?
(R) 1S
true (1) United Nations
Framework Convention
21. Which of the following on Climate Change
countries hosted the World
Environment Day during (2) United Nations
the year 2O2l? Federation Convention
on Climate Change
(1) China (3) United Nations
(2) Pakistan Framework Center on
Climate Change
(3) United States (4) United Nations
Federation Center on
(4) India Climate Change
l47L-A (11) lP.r.o
25. ds,nddrldatldDdrlr, : 27. Eer6 artro{pe erodoe$dd tuD
ad)?
(A) uroro6 oloead (1) oorooJc0d aldid z.rs' dpid

(B) d.Pn;r, dnead (2) oasaob&d a$:, zid df,d

(3) eld dgd

(C) d-retroae# olnead
(41 e$obd oeDd arddo$od aJC

dJe0ddddq @Jd do{Prtlon€ d*d

d.rood olDd)d) e-erderddd{
u9ilnoBdt
28. du} I dr" dq Ildoobrl dooDi
(1) (A) drQ (B) iladl drdg ddrl dntfld:d iodedrlddl
erudo.1nehto dOorJad uuQddd.l
(2) (B) d,rQ (C) dras/ uob* d:aB :

o-t{ I rodoaod:dd dq II sDol-DjC)

(3) (C) dcadJ d€rldr

(a/ dneer{ ro6 /i,/ ra*tferarod

(4) (A), (B) doq (c)
dJ&o!N"
(b) dir /ii) tlo"en.oe
\ t ,l,ad o
26. eQedrl tuqoJrd- dodrz.rd;d
&etJfFDn6F doqrodd o1Jad Sed,
(c) 6cdd.rd /iii,) aodo' ecenrod

dnobrl ioz.loOird? /d/ a!,o'AF' /iul daoerorocn

Codes ;
(1) sdd ilodrod
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(2) mollltuso $ob (rt 0) (iii) (iu) (iil

(3) er0drQ d.nod;.!d":d dedrl9

(2\ (ii) (iii) (i) (iu)

tgQrdd (s) (iu) (iii) (t) (iil

(4) (iii) (iu) (ii) 0
(4) udoerl, drdor
l47r-A ( t2l
25. Consider the following: 27. What was the aim of Beej
Bachao Andolan?
(A) Project ASMAN (1) Crop protection without
chemical use
(B) Project MAUSAM (2) Crop protection with
chemical use
(C) Project MEGHRAJ (3) Crop protection from
in se cts
Which of the above include(s) (4) Crop protection by over-
E-governance through cloud
usage of water
computing?

(1) only (A) and (B) 28. Match List-I with List-II
and select the correct
(2) only (B) and (C) answer using the codes
given below the lists :

(3) only (C) List-I List-II

(Breeds of Cattle) (Homeland)
(4) (A), (B) and (C) (a,/ Holstein (l/ Scotland
Friesian
(b) Jersey liil Switzerland
(c) Ayrshire (iii)Channel
26. Petersberg Dialogue which Island
was seen in news recently, (d) Brown /iuj Netherlands
is associated with which ' Swiss
field?
Codes :

(1) World trade (o) (b) (c) (d)

(2) Climate action (Ll (i) (iii) (iu) (iil

(3) Economy of developing (2) (ii) (ii, (il 0u)

ountrie
c s
(3) (iu) (iii) (il ftil
(4) Health emergency (41 (iiE ftu) (ii) (il
l47L-A (13 ) lP.r.o.
29. Strdd
?trq
drdo dod,arod eerodolr: 31. d, ddndddeqo1.:Ddtu dOol>n
o1Jad n o-+tldolooa VAIBHAV
r1 dnoDdobtuQd?
d, o rlB A1 ol:dl uolnedd,:$d: ?
eraorJJ rfJ$ JaoJ$rfJ€e
d-i ded (gJilrdF) doded

(1) enge faleru-%doobd (i) Aw

dodrod.:

B/ uu-.6*enrc d":Q [i/ Bsh

(2) 8uc'6EL sud eruqdoobd

1"7 J*.,e.c.^.q fiii) Bwk

(3) Edafeaef al/aeoobe,
9ed dodoqtn&-r

(4) z:adr /d/ al-"a asOnoer (iu) Cwe

dnoDrl udrr
eru{Be*doo!
(1) (b)drdt (d)

3O. ?.laddd0_ mr0 +ao€ DrO (2) (b)*ce2 @)

uaobrd, ;bdd1 eJolaedl,dJd)d)
(3) (a)scQ (c)
dr ddrddobdr.(;$ &Bobeu
(41 @)*:Q @)

(1) dOdddoddS
32. dBdJ drq z3oEor:od
eldearddro
n UJ* e, drdedd0_ dddmob
(2) ded d,sddd dJadJAddd

(1) lee"odddrdraolr
(3) {eaoOdrtood tcdd -oddrnE (2) rood, drdoolr
(3) uoe'Ja;, drdaaoL>

(4) dd&qln$d dB (4) ;beod ol:adldn eler_

l47t-A (14)
I

29. Department of Science and 31. Which of the following are

Technologr is to organize correctly matched?
VAIBHAV Summit along
with which organization?
Climatic Region Climatic
(Trewartha) Code
(1) rsRo
(a)Tropical rainforest (i) Aw

(2) DRDO [b/ Tropical and /iil Bsh

subtropical steppe

(3) BHEL /ci Temperate boreal (iii) Bwk

cold desert

(4) BARC /d/ Humid subtropical (iu) Cwe

with dry winter

(r) (b) and (d)

3O. Rallyfor Valley Programme
in India waS organized to (2) (b) and (c)
highlight the problem of
(sl @) and (c)
(1) environmental (4) (a) and (d)
degradation

(2) biodiversity 32. 'Slash and Burn'agriculture

is a/an
(1) shifting agriculture
(3) resettlement of displaced
people (2) intensive agriculture
(3) commercial agriculture
(4) loss of agricultural land (4) None of the above

l47L-a (ls) lP. T. O.

33. d{ead erbOd erucooddob 36. doSO-od daJoa nqJobd{ olrd
dor.Sdob0 o1>d oo ar, dnderde {,agddolc t drtueadon
m.dd0_dz ddierdogJ$?

(1) eJ9endd (1) Eraierolnerl

(2) traoror (2) oarEdtf erolnerl
(3) doartid (3) d.Potfz;artld oloead
(4) d.rQr{,ded (4) oaerrtneoaenaroD olnead

34, dl dsnddrlg0- dd..de sd 37. dnq dnder uaOrl'elOdob"uddd'

drdoeurdl ( erud..d rroro!ae.:o!)
aoar ddddq aldtodd& ol:adr?
dno8d;d ooa,

(1) :,Eodi
(1) aO'. darD_d.0q

(2) Eaad (2) aQo6r. duqr. $ed.d

(3) &d.ne3e.t drded (3) o$r. aef. rlnerg$l

(4) $dod (4) ue.tl!.fruotldio6

35. 21dob 8d..>odBobqo1: dd-lo 38. d, ddnd{dqq oladdJ qroddd

oorde8d ?+Todrld d{d ne0de-t"Q drood dera-o drlEuofldz
ADd.ol:.;
(1) d.reid d-rod€
(1) r"0o1>
(2) deod, ;baOdd &obodreo
(2) ao8.eD
d:od€
(3) 3oQ
(3) OeE erolnerl

(4) era-oJbeFc
(a) ded SOrlrld deod, d-:od€

l47L-A (16)
33. Which of the following 36. The Constituent Assembly
States is the leading was set up according to the
producer of iron ore? proposals of
(1) Chhattisgarh (1) the Cripps Mission
(2) Jharkhand (2) the Cabinet Mission
(3) Karnataka (3) the Mountbatten Plan
(4) Madhya Pradesh (a) the Rajagopalachari Plan

34. Which of the following 37. The word 'Development

States does not have a High Administration' was coined
Court of its own? by

(1) Sikkim (1) F. W. Riggs

(2) Bihar (2) Edward W. Weidner

(3) Himachal Pradesh (3) U. L. Goswami
(4) Manipur (4) Albert Waterston

35. Which of the following 38. Which of the following ls

languages was added to the the major staff agency in
list of regional languages by India?
the 21st Amendment?
(1) Railway Board
(1) oriya
(2) Central Pollution
(2) Kashmiri Control Board

(3) Sindhi (3) NITI Aayog

(4) Assamese (4) Central Board of Direct

Taxes
l47r-A (t7l lP. T. O.
39. qndd io$eadd dr dend olnd 42. iosodo d$J$ob d, dgnd
e0o1D qrdddd ooroddl oadrl o1>{ddo doz.loQed?
tuO;fDd.ldd6o doarcQid?
(1 ) ?,lrqarDd Oolrodreo
(1) 100 de $8
(2) utroadma i:qodd
(2) 200 de $Q
(3) deod, d.rQ uae;, iouodrldc
(3) 300 de eO
(4) da &eOd dotSd
(4) 330 de sQ
43. q,rgd r-oErd (SAARC) dddd
40. ?7odd do0qodd addof.: oo{rld noal, adg?
gd)6dBoU) ud€codnd
ra.ddfl sdo-od (1) s
ilo;olDoo$fie
dJDAd,nuld? (21 6
(1) 40 de Ed>odB (3) L2

12) 44 de 3d..>odB (4) 8

(3) 42 de 3d)odB
44.'tudd6 dd>rolnefl ' u-ooturd_rd;d
(41 48 de 3d:odB
eruded
o

(1) oarlOd dedoLr ,u-adrdrr

41. qndd do&qtodd erdrt3*ed 215
uuz.f o-oro$aoo$Ed doaloBtudod
d,
%d o-o{eob u-oo$rd, dr
add;.. erudaloQ-^Dqd? (2) rod.nd, e6dd rod)ddF ddadll)
uo{eob EoobFd/d)
(1) o-oro1>orl &odd
(3) d.,gd xod;frr ddDdcir
(2) eiQereD uodoltaoob
uo$eoJc roolFd/dr
(3) ddc*rld dpid
(4) o-o$-:rdd rad;flrr ddA;rb
(4) Otf dndBnJd sQu-od uoi}eob uoolrr-drdr

l47L-A (18)
39. Which of the following 42. Santhanam Committee
Articles of the Indian pertains to
Constitution describes the
suability of the State in (1) anti-corruption
India? (2) election reforms
(1) Article- 100 (3) Centre-State relations
(2) Article-2O0 (41 river water distribution
(3) Article-30O
(4) Article-330 43. How many countries are
there in SAARC?

4O. Which Constitutional (1) s

Amendment provides the (2) 6
provision to the establish-
ment of Administrative (3) t2
Tribunals?
(4) 8
(1) 4oth Amendment
(2) 44th Amendment 44. The purpose of 'Mission
Karmayogi' is
(3) a2nd Amendment
(1) National Programme for
(4) 48th Amendment Civil Services Capacity
Building
41. Article 215 of the Constitution (2) National Programme for
provides _ to the High Common People's
Court. Capacity Building

(1) contempt of court (3) National Programme for

Peasant's Capacity
(2) court of record Building

(3) protection of rights (4) National Programme for

Labour's Capacity
(4) power to issue writs Building
l47L-A (le) lP. T. o.
45. eqearrl deddadod arod.9 48. fleJr:ad rloS Dddd& olJadr?
&ddoad&. ed& irqeo d6et3Fd
d, dqnd ob)d Oqocdrldrl ( 1) dd.rodd
ridFoDduondpJ?

(1) d]Jao?.jJa3 ddJrridJ Adod,

(2) udur ql]aetJ

dond
(3 ) ?.id?.!aC
(2) no$@dd d)rro tuodzJd
o$dl SdrodE dDd€rrrid) (4) -ad",3

(3) dca&3 ddco

(4) no;d? d,e4drd)d) 49. dd4dd doz.Jdo , dd3oir d3.)F

46. erudd dedd no&d"d Ddddrl (1) deooat;

sdJd)dJ
(2) ;ddde $drd.raAdd
( 1) odeo,,drido_ dcdo erud&dd
ridO_ (3) drrlFl,od
12) zJD.d rorlerd dJdJ nJod.rlgo
(4) edolaBgd
(31 nJad.rldo d')dJ n .3rido

(4) dJeod Do-dB

50. 8/e d.)*dedaooldr ud6&eg arl
dartod rrod oJJ)ddr?
47. d.Po$Fd EaodOS uddd ztrad
olad)tu? (1 ) eroozrdd de.rd,s r?

(1) -9d.)d
(2) t dJJq d$od
(2) non{d

(3) rrdFd,rariB (3) dradern dod

(4) 5)droe.l (4) OeOFDd

l47L-A (20 )
45. Recently Keshavananda 48. Who wrote .lfifisara?
Bharati passed away. He was
the petitioner of which of the (1) Kamandaka
following landmark decisions
of the Supreme Court? (2) Raja Bhoj
(1) Fundamental Rights are
absolute (3) Bhavabhuti

(21 Basic structure cannot (4) Vakpati

be amendable
(3) Right to Information
49. The author of Panchatantra
(4) Parliament is supreme in Kannada is
(1) Ranaraga
46. Post-Vedic literary works are
(tl (2) Vikramaditya-II
Arangakas and
Upanishads
(3) Durgasimha
(2) Brahmanas and Sutras
(4) Vinayaditya
(3) Sutras and Smritis
(4) All of the above
50 The book written by Sri
47. What was the language of
Krishnadevaraya about
administration in Mauryan 'Rajaneethi Grantha' is
period?
(l) Jambauana Kalgana
(1) Prakrit
(21 Amuktha Moulya
(2) Sanskrit
(31 Madalasa Charita
(3) Ardhamagadhi
(4) Kharosthi (41 Nitisara

l47t-A (2r I lP. T. O.

51. EeSruauooj;ea deuoen! aO$r 54. addde dd.,N6 ddd ddd ddr

(1) dde0ed.: (1) tt92

(21 1le1
(2) de.tuad,:
(3) 11e3
(3) inedooaddd
(41 77e4
(4) aradrler_

55. dd AodJf doe dddod obd

52. EaraQdd rtnedriod.r.Uld d.ra+s" dndo! ur-ouddo 41et3
Odnrddd: o!ad.>? 0eBd.dof

(1) dndd-:no€ floeO

(1) d,Jd,raobnd,6

(2) (r*oc
(2) olrod:d erOf
(3) aaaofled
(3) ez.r9&o sBe, Er
(4) aa a;a'ao6
(4) d.nddrod egDet' ao

56. dJ.)d/ad) delne al9cd€ol:

53. 'dJ.,d.ndJ tu$e.:6 i&ra6'd Oedo$dc iodaJrdO d*tud, uoard
dOdo$Rddd) 6aodcnhdod dJ

(1) ir. don'ozoeur

(1) Bo€ A)eroF q5-ooo$e,

(2) aooduode eld#

(2) uS.sdoduo#
(3) eru-arts6 uod:;raeJ $;
(3) d. deaaQ erobdc,6 dndOoj.:ad

(4) dd. ao. Addeddrdobd (4) dd uO,,olrd zDdddF

l47L-A (221
51. Where is the Kirthinarayana 54. The Second Battle of Tarain
temple situated? was held in the year

. (1) Halebid (1) 1te2

(2) Talakad (21 1le1

(3) Somanathapura (3) 11e3

(4) Javagal (4) tre4

55. Sir Thomas Roe visited the

52. Who was the founder of Gol court of which Mughal
Gumbaz in Bijapur? ruler?
(1) Muhammad Ghori (1) Humayun
(2) Yusuf Arif (2) Akbar
(3) Ibrahim Adil Shah (3) Jahangir
(4) Mohammed Adil Shah (a) Shah Jahan

53.'Mysore Civil Service'

56. Diwan of the State of Mysore
examination was introduced
during Mysore Chalo
Movement was
by
(1) Sir Mirza Ismail
(1) C. Rangacharlu
(2) Kantharaj Urs
(21 T.Ananda Rao
(3) Arcot Ramaswamy
(3) K. Seshadri Iyer Mudaliar

(4) Sir M. Vishweshwaraiah (a) Sir Albion Banerjee

l47L-A (231 lP.T.O.
57. €t dqnd ddoar odndd;", 6O. aaa0d0_ z.rodEeol: i dod.
ua erod)d, dJ d O_ ard o9-:0 : Oen5eld,1 19 2 4d O_ a-ou&i dJd)
I. d:oLndddcr (1) a9ddoad ood
II. ?,Jhedd
(2) oa#Eaao alned
III. u-odcidd:r
a
(3) ncpad zJod, dnelf
IV. aao3dd;r
(4) daJqd.:,. zrorddr
ddrl d.nt3drd
sJr
iodedrl90 dOolDd
erudddd-: tr0i,0:

(1) I, II, III, IV 61. o$ad uotrdd 'q-r9a{ na-lefl' 15

urld, 2O2 l dodl aoOrt uoDd-r?
(2) I, III, II, IV
(3) I, II, IV, III (1) dd-dFtrd

(4) I, IV, III, II (2) dedd

58.'rlaaJeoLload' E&dd.1 doobdo
erdi
(3) dtudco-od.>

(1) t"odde dedoaoJc (a) dooooa{

(2) ddd

(3) addde deduool> 62. d.nesd-19d doehrlerrl ia-ao1"l

dJDdeD qrodSeo$ drod 'dnd
(4) Sredo{deduoql: 0oLlo3rd drdrEeolr tJ-g0'ob
dddedr?
59. dJ.,dnd @60 dqeed o-oaroEd
do-9d3ob{ u&dod, uod *dr (1) MEDBOT
(1) 1913
(2) RATLMED
(2) te23
(3) ROBMED
(3) tere
(a) dredd ol:addra so_
l4l 1eoe
l47t-A (241
57. Arrange the following 60. Indian Independent League
Kadamba Kings in in Japan was founded in
chronological order : 1924 by
I. Mayurasharma (1) Chittaranjan Das
II. Bhageeratha (2) Rash Behari Bose
III. Kakusthavarma (3) Subhas Chandra Bose
IV. Santivarma
(4) W. C. Banerjee
Choose the answer from the
following code :

(1) I, II, III, IV 61. Which State's 'e-crop

survey' came into existence
(2) I, III, II, IV on August 15,2O2l?
(3) I, II, ry, III
(1) Karnataka
(4) I, IV, III, II
(2) Kerala
58. Which ruler assumed the
title 'Gajabetekara'? (3) Tamil Nadu
(1) Devaraya-I (4) Maharashtra
(2) Hakka
(3) Devaraya-II 62. What is the name of the
(a) Sri Krishnadevaraya remote controlled medical
trolley introduced by the
59. The Mysore State Iron Indian Railways to help
Works came into being at Covid-19 patients?
Bhadravathi in
(1) MEDBOT
(1) 1e13
(2) RATLMED
(2\ te23
(3) teTe (3) ROBMED
(41 1eoe (4) None of the above

l47t-A (2s ) lP. r. o.

63. 'Dddiodned ddb 2021' dro-od 66. ue.td-r{ uddU}d dided.:z
rrlQd eldrod iod.nedd oa{
oladdJ? (1) draodrn-ooQ erddtlg

(1) ec#enrod (2) eno6 Dddrood saLerddtr"r

(2) z;drr& (3) a;uoddene.f ddd) oddtJ*

(3) oadr (4) dcdo$ erddtLl

(4) aadd
67. deo{, udttr 2O2O-21dO_ deoQ,
do-orddo elSdndo ercroobd d,-loe.r
64. ol:Dd or{d) dcndo dJd.9 obaddJ?
ee.Sobd,{ dd", dctS-)oa.l
olnea d o$O_ ac-dD 11 d oDd r (1) iddc Jodo deuo dOrl

(1) zsed (2) dodO d0t1

(2) cijdO/UdN
(3) eroaoJ.> dorl
(3) aron-o;Ced
(4) ilal
aao Edd d.odnaDdrldc
(4) aadd

68. ddnd ol>d doi, dgnd d-ld.?

65. doDFtJddO_ad* o-o{eoL: uuoa,d d.:e0d noigl Ood eh ded

ded? nOJiJqd?

(1) 20 (1) mordJ do?-roosJg

(21 ls (2) den_dOdd

(3) 10 (3) doaoos-:3 dtu3

(4) s (4) doeOd .re;ro_ ioi;lsrc

1471-A (261
63. Which country is recognized 66. What is the another name
as world's happiest country of Almatti Dam?
as per 'World Happiness
Report 2O2L'? (1) Mahatma Gandhi Dam
(1) Iceland (2) Lal Bahadur Shastri
Dam
(2) Germany
(3) Jawaharlal Nehru Dam
(3) Norway
(4) Kuvempu Dam
(4) Finland
67. What is the biggest source
64. Which country announced of income for the Central
three-children policy to Government in the Union
their family planning? Budget 2O2O-2L?

(1) China (1) Goods and Services Tax

(2) Pakistan (2) Corporation Tax

(3) Bangladesh (3) Income Tax

(4) India (4) Borrowing and other

liabilities

65. How many National parks

68. Which one of the following
are there in Karnataka?
has both the upward and
downward linkage?
(1) 20
(1) Gram Panchayat
(2) ls
(2) Zila Parishad
(3) 10
(3) Panchayat Samiti
(4) s (4) All of the above

l47t-A (27l, lP.T.O.

69. dr ddnd obad de€drldc 71. d:aatrr 3l,2O2ldoS, qrodddo-d
n0ol.>DnsJ u-orodrl9 ?"O.re sd)sa")dd t &rl9
(NPA) dJaod .>-.;$J?

(1) IMF dJd) IBRD AddN

aa&orlo6dO- drilod
do3eOobdqdnoDd.
(1) 12.50 erd-doet3 dn.

(2) IMF dJQ IBRD addn (2) 10.46 e-td doetS d.n.
oJDd.tuid dedoi
urlrdrdedo6d dr.jd
nodrlsrohd. (3) 8.34 erd d.net3 dn.
a

(3) IBRD t disdd zrorod;odn

ddobsgd. Al 6.54 e.td dnetS d.n.

(4) ooddoa{eob deou-od.>

e0ob0- Lrodgd dod aoer:

lo oh. 72. oj.mdoe&obNc t"do*[:d dogd
o$ad dod4od; rtro&d dedrl9c
rod-:a d, d d 0^oL: d1 eld d Bidod, eu
d.r:od a:oDdt
7O. de8eob dd&^ob d:alg'l aodd
de8eoJc ddqo! d,Jaodd)
(1) t"dd
(1) dua;*.:Qd

(2) do0_oa{rl9c
(2) da$o$Drbqd

(3) dndeu dLild dodd (3) aa#r

dBdJobodJqd

(4) dnder e€d dodd dua;.b{d (4) a&o!o6

l47r-A (281
69. Which of the following 71. As on 31st March, 2021
statements is not correct? what was the worth of total
Non-Performing Assets
(NPAs) of the banks in
(1) Both the IMF and IBRD India?
have headquarters in
Washington
(1) { 12.50 lakh crore
(2) Both IMF and IBRD
are the constituent
(21 < 10.46 lakh
organizations of United crore
Nations Organization
(3) { 8.34 lakh crore
(3) IBRD is also called
World Bank
(4) { 6.54 lakh crore
(4) India's vote share in the
International Monetar5r
Fund is 1O%o
72. Nter European Union,
which another group of
countries has come forward
70. Appreciation of domestic for adapting common
currency means value of currency?
domestic currency

(1) lncrease s (1) OPEC

(2) decreases (2) Gulf Countries

(3) first increases then

decreases (3) SAARC

(4) first decreases then

increase s (4) Asian
l47t-A (2e l lP.T.O.
73. zJeBE deaj olroaoriero 76. 4ooh od.1 obod, aaddrld d;eeJ,
25% od.l Etgdd dreel, l5oh
(1) drq eldl dzro,"r-ad:!, rl9 d;ed dJd.? 5%

(21 erOob&>d
erdl &ed/aeddd€lrld d-ree.l
ddogJird dodd drae&u-o al€
(3) *:eeur$aofledeodc erudBdcd dea dro. 1,305. eldC
D€o$d6dea
(4) dddre€trod:
(1) dn.9,500
74. eadddO- dnder: olroa-orl
dnoooto.b eloadreddeo (2) dra.8,300
dJaderdo$dJ?
(3) dn.8,7OO
(1) re4s
(2\ te46 (4) d/a. 9,2OO

(3) re4a
(4) te47 77. u-adolad noairold1 tud-:8tuO :

75, 40 d)drnqbOdld ddrlSobO., 30 Is-T_+ 3 8

d.>d:nobd nuonO a{d 160 cm lzgl s 35 11

drQ uu€d dod>hoJ">d ioodD teT4

? _tJ
ad-d 150 cm. t"tli ddrlgo$
noadO aQd
(1) s6
(1) 168 cm
(2) 46
(21 159 cm

(3) 78 cm (3) 43
(4) 143 cm
(41 4e
l47L-A (s0)
73. The demand curve is always 76. After spending 40% on
machinery, 25o/o on building,
(1) level 157o on raw material and
5o/o on furniture, Monika
(2) irregular had a balance of <1,305.
The money initially with her
was
(3) upward sloping

(4) downward sloping (1) ?9,500

74. When did the first
(2) *8,300
demonetization occur in
India?
(3) t8,700
(1) te4s
(2) 1e46 (4) z9,2OO

(3) te48
(4) te47 77. Find the missing number.

75. The average height of 30 5 4 J 8

girls out of a class of 40 is 29 9 35 11
160 cm and that of the 9 4
remaining girls is 156 cm. ? 13
The average height of girls
of the whole class is
(1) s6
(1) 168 cm
(2) 46
(21 159 cm

(3) 78 cm (3) 43

(41 143 cm (4) 4e

t47L-A (31 ) lP.T.O.
78. addddd- obDddJ dzf;- Ssoo 81. 1-100d' sdd oedt eloErldd.l
sduo 34oo aldoorl, ioaJ, O (u.J
")-.;$a ?JJO

a.lddoerortcdd?
(1) g+oo
(1) 11
(2) Ssoo
l2l 20
(3) addn (1) dJ3.l (2) (3) 18
(4) dreod ola{do oer- (41 2r

82. t"od: dctooald{ dodoll

79. dJdJad);tod drlE d)/adJ erd {,0olngOnod Eedd 7+ 4,arlddrn
ioaJrrld tuqO 2531 uhd-r-d-d. d.r,ad> &e8DilsBd. aanodd e,
?.ro0
rarradO nDolDd s ;tmd": ajd dJtl)oa)d z"tJA ndn6d noaJroDdl
noaSrrlddldotuS.Bo$O dodr&6ob0.
(t) 27, 28, 3L (1) 12

(2\ 26, 28, 29 (2) 10

(3) 3
(3) 25, 27, 29
(4) 7
(4\ 27, 29, 3l
83. r^,gdJd:rlil gd4dgo$od aoeJfl

80. ddnd o1>d doalroJco alaO OtJ 3 km/hr derld{ aJOi dodd
ararldd.l d">oaDgd? arerosrod d€ed2 km/hr derldO-
a$.loEd. t"trgdolon sddr
22 t44 68 dild:Eod aerdl 5 rlotl edd
13 54 ? saerobod d9rrl edrd dJadd&4
7 45 32 dod:3'Ao$0

(1) 40 (1) s km
(21 4 (21 10 km
(3) 6 (3) 6 km
(41 32
(a) 30 km
t47t-a (321
78. Which is greater of the two 81. If you write down all the
5300 o, 34002 numbers from 1 to 100,
then how many times do
(1; 3+oo you write 3?

(2) ssoo (1) 11

(3) Both (1) and (2)

12) 20
(3) 18
(4) None of the above (4) 2t

79.The sum of the squares 82.In a family the father took

of three consecutive odd tA of the cake and he had 3
numbers is 2531. Find the times as much as each of
correct three numbers. the other members had.
Find the total number of
(r) 27, 28, 3t family members.
(21 26, 28, 29 (1) L2
(21 10
(3) 25, 27, 29
(3) 3
(41 27, 29, 3t (4) 7

80. Which of the following 83. A boy goes to school at a

numbers will occupy the speed of 3 km/hr and
blank space? returns to the village at a
speed of 2 km/hr. If he
22 t44 68 takes 5 hours in all, then
13 54 ? the distance between the
school and the village is
7 45 32
(1) 5 km
(1) 40
(2) 1o km
(2) 4
(3) 6 (3) 6 km
(4) 32 (a) 30 km

l47t-A (33 ) lP.T.O.

84. 503535 d doaJroJ.:O_d 3d ra.d 47. d1 Eqnd{,lrl9O- o1;ad dOrlo$d{
aJerob d.,aqd) d oaraobSob i o rj, &-ro{ d ?

(1) 6 (1) draoatid dOrlrldc

(2) 60 (2) ud;dr d{; n:odrl9c

(3) 3030 (3) douool:
CJja

(4) 33oo (4) d.€eox dod (erod/)obd_d

d;romtsnadd iagd d.:e0d
85. Ad uooot.:{ B hod 50% dBd.> d0rl
qdod, Bd scroobd A hod deEa-o
adg drqfdt
88. d, ddnddddq ?^,od) r9$)e€?
(1) s0% o0d, bo o1n eo;d oJc u-o oJc rd, d:d e.r_

(2) 7 5o/o (1) 0Suddrafeao

(3) lOOyo
(2) dudd,
(4) 125yo
(3) ecuo6&8r

86. Etqdned doaJro$d.1 dod":&6 (4) ,l,uo6d,

qi;O :

a
J z 5 89. uordetd fiaJ$Jeea aoroEd z^,ttg
4 5 9 zloduoddo_ agolaead eoroEd
5 6 1 q,Edd drdJDsa adJ"r?
72 73 ?
(1) deEc-o 55
(rl 74
(2) deEm 45
(2) 63
(3) 60 (3) dedea 35

(4) 6s (4) dedea 20

l47t-A (34 )
84. The sum of the place values 87. Which tax is collected by
of 3 in the number 503535 Panchayat?
is
(1) 6 (1) Sales tax
(2) 60 (2) Custom duty
(3) 3030
(3) Land revenue
(4) 3300
(a) Tax on local fairs
85. If A's income is 50% less
than that of B, then B's 88. Which scheme is not related
income is what percent to rural development?
more than that of A?
(1) s0% (1) TRYSEM
(2\ 7s% (2) JRY
(3) 100%
(3) rRDP
(41 L25o/o

(4) cRY
86. Find the missing number.
\, 2 5 89. What is the share of
4 5 9 sponsor bank in the capital
5 6 1
of regional rural bank?
72 73 ?
(1) ss%
(t) 74
(2) 45o/o
(2) 63
(3) 60 (3) 3 s%

(4) 6s (4) 20%

l47L-A (3s ) lP.T.O.
90. obad udtrdd) dnd0rl 'nDJAJe€o 93. tpaddd0_ d.nde.r troOrl croaraudd
uudn, erl qiddn' uoolrrdrd;dd1 obad der_ob dotrooJcd uoe#
eoOri do8d-rz dddiategdBi,dooGQZ

(1) tua;crod (1) erudoXd;d

(2) dedd (21 doorld$d

(3) dra-auo{ (3) oDrBc,6

(4) uofrrdrded (4) Aroded

91. olDd dtuEolD'dandr' ;r-o"Sier->

a
94. qrddSeob idu-od tJdcd€ob
Suodn: d,raBdJ? er3.:.dd
od ioiolafld
o

(i ) Sdoad-to6 ntu8 (1) ao6itua6cec (NCCFI)

(2) de.r_oL:, ne-:8 (2\ ocndadir?" (IFFCO)

(3) dodaoen d$o3 (3) oc:,;o (ICM)

(4) dorluoao6 nSrS (4) ao6ioboec (NCUI)

92. ndaoO nodd rldrl deiob 95. do-oruddo den dDdd

' er:,dd
joJ t
d eo hdaa9 d O_ oa, d o{;roh d;o o d: arod ddr
(1) doort^ld oaardO_o3;e dndeD (1) aelef 1987
(2) padddO_obe dnder: (2) anoc 1987
(3) $@d $odd-d_obe dndeu (3) afl,ef 1993
(a) arrl.ldo_obe doder: (4) tanoc 1993

l47t-A (36 )
9O. The Rural Employment 93. Which district of Rajasthan
Guarantee Scheme was first adopted Panchayati Raj
implemented in which State? system for the first time in
India?
(1) Gujarat
(1) Udaipur
(2) Kerala
(2) Dungarpur
(3) Maharashtra
(3) Nagaur
(4) Andhra Pradesh
(4) Bikaner
91. Which Committee recomm-
ended the establishment of
NABARD? 94. The apex organization of
the Indian Co-operative
(1) Shivaraman Committee Movement is

(2) Chelliah Committee (1) NCCFr

(3) Dantwala Committee (2) rFFCO

(4) Rangarajan Committee (3) rcM

(4) NCUr
92. Co-operative society, started
in Gadag district,
Kanaginahal was the first in
95. In Karnataka, Zilla Parishad
(1) Karnataka State came into existence on
(1) April, 1987
(2) India
(2) Jlune, 1987
(3) Asian Continent
(3) April, 1993
(4) the World (4) June, 1993
147L-a (37 ) lP.T.O.
96. dDdrlddr"c ilodrlCdq drd,i 98. eedFc,6 o.oo$F6 gdd dodrrl
dloddcid{ SQier:, norJ, &ier: drQ d, :,AaolDrl eu tld d: OeBdJd
doaSd droder.l do?roo$3rl€rl
a-gQuaO OeBd io$qrodd dodo; (1) drdd.raebd 0drdr, erld
(1) dod.r:243 H dDo-odaahd.
(2) de.tdo 243 I (2) arJdrdJDd 0d>do.rerl
(3) deld.::243 J dDd0-;od1oafld.
(4) dod.! 243 G
97. UDdd iaordd udn04lrd Arodef (3) ra/$rer? ?"rdrld uQd d.JDdd
olneadoJ.: qrodaah dre 2020 dO- ioddn e-tddc". d dd d, deddQ
aoOrl dod {Fod d.ro3, d-ld^, erudoLoeDn:dtdc.
dodd olneagdob (.b.ao.ao.
a#.dr.) tuO (a) d-re0d o!Dd)d/D ero_
(ll 2024-25 de udQob0-
99. 7992d io$cod uaob^ - ;en_
SJeOd eruuo"ddobdl 19
sJOobN6 tjN6 dabzr
ooarrl9 dJodJ dodd doroo1cd
dJDd,r$dr d,rd.l icrodO
qotf dodurl9 ddogrl eldaod
aa&rd arqdrddob dd dedd d.nBdrodeu zJeu-od erdioaJ,
1 0. 5 dd* dab.d:ado{oohd. d &{E*od erQddofl d?.J edc
(21 2024-25 de erdQol-rO_
(1) 20 erpirldc
A)e0d vucorddobdl 20
SJOobNc tj6r6 drJ% (2) 30 erpirlsc
d,rDdJddr dJQ icrodO
;s-o&Ed arddeddob dd dedd (3) 25 erpirldc
8 dd* dabzrdJDd,-lgoahd. (a) doeOd oba{1dn ere.r_
(3) 2024-25 de odQol-:{
Are&d vuuo.ddobdl 22 1OO. oo$eolo dcLl-:oal &d u-oolr:d
fuOoJcNc tj6r6 dafr,j olneasdo.1:t ddhd olneado$O d
dJadJddr ildg iuaiD
ro&Fd ardddrlob dd deEd (1) zi;Jadd dnedn'ao6 olnerd
9dd* dab.ilad"rd1oahd. (2) uudo, erl arod0 olraeegd
(4) 2024-25 de erdQol":O_
tue0d eruco.rddobdl L7 (3) rrDr$Jeea qia d&3 uudnrerl
fuOobo6 t^jo6 dafr. arodD oinea;d
drDdrddr drdg iooiO
uo&rd dgdrddob dd dedd (a) uo{eoJc rododd da-aoLrd
11 dd* dt3-:"ratndc{oahd. oLoead

l47L-A (38 )
96. Taxes, tariffs and fines are 98. Arthur Lewis is popular for
Ievied, collected and his contribution towards
distributed by the
(1) developing solution for
Panchayat authority under
the of the Indian disguised unemployment
Constitution. (2) developing wavs to solve
(1) Article 243H seasonal unemployment
(21 Artrcle 2431
(3) Article 243 J (3) utilization of surplus
manpower from rural to
(4) Article 243 G urban area
97. Pradhan Mantri Matsya (4) None of the above
Sampada Yojana (PMMSY),
a flagship scheme, was 99. The Constitution Act, 1992
launched in May 2O2O as a makes provisions for a
part of Atma Nirbhar Bharat 3-tier system of Panchayati
Package by the Government Raj for a1l the States having
of India, aims at population of above
(1) enhancing fish produc- (1) 20 lakhs
tion to 19 million tones
by 2024-25 at an (2) 30 iakhs
average annual growth
rate of about 10.5 percent (3) 25 lakhs
(2) enhancing fish produc- (4) None of the above
tion to 20 million tones
by 2024-25 at an lOO.The National Family
average annual growth Benefit Scheme 15a
rate of about 8 percent scheme under
(3) enhancing fish produc-
tion to 22 million tones (1) Jawahar Rozgar Yojana
by 2024-25 at an (2) Employment Assurance
average annual growth . Scheme
rate of about 9 percent
(4) enhancing fish produc- (3) The Rural Landless
tion to 17 millon tones Employment Guarantee
by 2024-25 at an Programme
average annual growth (4) National Social
rate of about 11 percent Assistance Programme
l47t-A (3e) lP.r.o.
 DO NOT OPEN THIS QUES?rOJV BOOKLET UNTrL YOU ARE AS,KED TO DO SO

Question Paper Version Code

2021
QUESTION BOOKLET

A
Time Allowed : L'/, Hours
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (PAPER_I}
SUBJEGT GODE | 471
Maximum Marks : 1OO
Z
INSTRUCTIONS
1. Immediately after the commencement of the Examination, you should check that the Question Booklet does NOT have
Booklet' of the
any unprinted or torn or missing pages or questions etc. If so, get it replaced by a complete 'Question
same Question Paper Version Code as printed in your OMR Answer Sheet. lf candidate uses faulty
question paper
without checking all the pages of the question paper, then the candidate shall be held responsible.
2. Read the instructions on the OMR An swer Sheet ancl Admission Ticket
3. The candldates shall ensure that the Question Paper Version Code of the Question Booklet given is same as the Question
Paper Version Code prlnted on OMR Answer Sheet' If any discrepancy found it should be reported
to the lnvigilator and get
thc sane QuGstlon Paper Ver.lon Code as Prlnted on the OMR Anser Sheet.
4. All questions carry equal marks Register Number
5. You have to enter your Register Number in the Question Booklet
in the box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the
Question Booklet.
6. This Question Booklet contains 100 questions. Each question comprises four lesponses (ansrvers). You will select the
response which you want to mark on the OMR Answer Shee t. In case you feel that there is more than one correct
response, mark the response which you consider as the most appropriate. In any case, choose 'ONLY ONE RESPONSE
i

for each question. If the candidate encodes more thall one an swer, then that answer shall be considered as IilVALID
7. Questions are printed both in Kannada and English' lf there is any confusion
in the translation of Kannada questions, candidate
shall refer the questions in Irnglish and rtnclerstand the (luestlons.
g, All the responses should be ma|ked ONLY on the separate OMR Answer Sheet provided and ONLY in Black or Blttt'
J 9.
Ball Point Pen.
that the Question Paper Version Code printed in the Personalized OMR Answer sheet matches
1.he candidates shall ensure
with the euestion paper Version Code printed on the nominal roll. In case of any discrepancy, the candidates shall give
declaratlon regardinjthe actual Question Paper version Code used.by the candidate. Ifthe candidate fails to
give such
UJ
a declaraHon, then the verslon code printed on the OMR Answer Sheet shall be considered for evaluation'
1O. ln case if candidate uses the personalized OMR Answer Sheet belonging to another candidate. then the OMR Answer
Sheet shall be considered as invalid.
11. The candidate shall affix l-ris/her Sig,nature in the OI\'IR Answer Sheet in the space provided without lail lf the
Candidate fails to do so, then sucl-r ()MlR Answer Sher:t shall be considered as INVALID.
12. In case if canclidate uses the Non-personalized OMR Answer Shect, then the candidate shall write the Register Number
in the space provided and also encode the relevant circles. Also the canclidate shall write the version code and subje< t
code compulsorily and affix his/her signittlrre in the space providecl. lf the candiclate fails to clo so, then such OMR
Answer Sheet shall be considered as INVALID.
13. Candidate shall sign in the Nominal Roll (Attendance sheet) without fail.
14. lf the candidate violates any of the above instructions, then the OMR Answer Sheet shall l>e considered as invalid.
15. Immediately after the final bell indicating tl-re conclusion of the examinatiou, stop any lurther markings in the OMR
Answer Sheet. The candidates shall nor leave the examination hall till the OMR Answer Sheets are collected and
accounted for bY the lnvigilator.
16. The Canditlates shall retain Carbonless copy of the olvlll Answer Shcet (candiclate copy) till the announcement of final
list and in case if the Commission directs the canclidate ro producc the candidate copy, then the candidate shall procluce
the same without fail.
L7. Sheets for rough work are appenclecl ar the end of the Question Boolilet at the end. You should not make any markil]g
on any other part of the Question Booklet.
18. Penalty for WRONG Answer :
THERE WILL BE PENAL'ry FOR WRONG ANSWEIT MI\RI{ED BY TTIE CANDIDATE.
(l/ There are four alternatives for the answer to cvely question. For each question for which wrong answer has been
given by the candidate, one-fourth (O.25) of the marks assigned to that question will be deductecl as penalty.
1ir.f tf a candidate gives more than olte answer, it will be treated as a wrong
answer even i[ one of the givel-r answers
happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii)lf a question is teft blank i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, thet'e will be no penalty for that questioll.
Possession of Mobile Phones, Smart watches, Calculators and other Electronic/Communication
gadgets of any kind are strictly prohibited inside the Examination Venue.
id;.th : tua?3drl9 d vd.eo::-: e Eqeifcb dr:cqaddd d)Ero.{d

l47t-A (44 I UU21(E)-51234x4