MATHEMATICS

1. When x100 is divided by x2 – 3x + 2, the remainder is

(A) (2100 – 1) x – 2 (299 – 1) (B) (2100 + 1) x + 2 (299 + 1)
(C) (2100 – 1) x + 2 (299 – 1) (D) (2100 + 1) x – 2 (299 + 1)

1. (A) x100 = (x – 1) (x – 2) g(x) + (ax + b). By x = 1, a + b = 1; by x = 2, 2a + b = 2100.

 a = 2100 – 1, b = 2 – 2100 and R(x) = ax + b = (2100 – 1) x – 2 (299 – 1).

2. The geometric mean & harmonic mean of a & b are 234 and 216. Then | a – b | =
(A) 125 (B) 155 (C) 195 (D) 240

2. (C) A = G2 / H = 253.5, | a – b | = ((2A + 2G) (2A – 2G)) = (975 · 39) = 39 · 5 = 195.

B is a variable point on the circle x2 + y2 – 10x – 14y – 51 = 0 while P is the point

PRERNA CLASSES

3.
(– 7, 2). The geometric mean of the maximum distance BP and the minimum distance
BP is
(A) 211 (B) 55 (C) 13 (D) 16

3. (A) C (5, 7), r = (52 + 72 + 51) = 55. As PC = d = (122 + 52) = 13 > r,

PBMax = d + r, PBmin = d – r, G = (d2 – r2) = 211.

4. Each of the circles x2 + y2 + 4y – 1 = 0, x2 + y2 + 6x + y + 8 = 0, x2 + y2 – 4x – 4y – 37 = 0 touches

the other two. The point of concurrence of the tangents at these points is
(A) (– 2, – 1) (B) (– 4, – 1) (C) (– 1, – 4) (D) (– 3, – 3)

4. (D) Tangents S1 – S2 & S1 – S3 i.e. 3y – 6x – 9 = 0 & 8y + 4x + 36 = 0 intersect at (– 3, – 3).

5. L is tangent to x2 + y2 = 5 at (1, – 2). Point on L closest to x2 + y2 – 8x + 6y + 20 = 0 is

(A) (3, – 1) (B) (– 3, – 4) (C) (– 1, – 3) (D) (7, 1)

5. (A) Tangent x – 2y = 5. Normal 2x + y = 2 (4) – 3 = 5 intersect at (3, – 1).

6. The circle having lines x2 + 2xy + 3x + 6y = 0 as its normals and size just sufficient to
contain the circle x (x – 4) + y (y – 3) = 0 is x2 + y2 + ax + by + c = 0 where (a + 2b – c) =
(A) 31 (B) 45 (C) 36 (D) 0

6. (B) Normals are (x + 3) (x + 2y) = 0 giving centre as intersection point C (– 3, 1.5).

As second circle has centre D (2, 1.5), radius r = 2.5, R = r + CD = 7.5.
Circle : x2 + y2 + 6x – 3y – 45 = 0 giving (a + 2b – c) = 45.

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 7. At point P on y2 = 4ax, the sub-tangent and sub-normal are equal. P’s abscissa is
(A) a (B) 2a (C) 3a (D) 4a

7. (A) ST = 2xP, SN = 2a. As ST = SN, xP = a.

8. For all , y = (x – b) cos  – cos 3 is a normal to y2 = 4ax if (a + 2b) =

(A) 32 (B) 26 (C) 19 (D) 15

8. (B) y + tx = 2at + at3 & y – x cos  = – (b – 3) cos  – 4 cos3  are identical

for t = – cos , a = 4, b = 11.  a + 2b = 26.

9. If PSQ is a focal chord of y2 = 48x with S as focus and SP = 36, then SQ =

(A) 18 (B) 24 (C) 30 (D) 42

9. (A) HM (SP, SQ) = 2a = 24.  SQ = (12–1 – 36–1)–1 = 18.

PRERNA CLASSES

10. If 4x2 + py2 = 45 and x2 – 4y2 = 5 cut orthogonally, then p =

(A) 25 (B) 16 (C) 12 (D) 9

10. (D) Foci coincide i.e. aH2 + bH2 = aE2 – bE2. As 5 + (5 / 4) = (45 / 4) – (45 / p), p = 9.

11. The centre of a rectangular hyperbola lies on x = y + 1. If 3x = 4y + 6 is one of its

asymptotes, then the other asymptote passes through
(A) (1, 7) (B) (– 8, 5) (C) (7, – 3) (D) (– 5, – 1)

11. (B) Solving lines, centre (– 2, – 3). Perpendicular asymptote is 4 (x + 2) + 3 (y + 3) = 0

i.e. 4x + 3y + 17 = 0. Of given points, only (– 8, 5) lies on it.

12. To the ellipse with 4e2 = 3, centre at the origin, major axis of length 8 along the x-axis,
the tangent is drawn at parameter . A possible value of  for this tangent to be a normal
to the curve x2 + y2 – 8x – 4y = 0 is
(A) –  / 4 (B)  / 4 (C)  / 2 (D) 3 / 2

12. (C) a = 4, e = (3 / 2) gives b = 2. Tangent ¼ x cos  + ½ y sin  = 1

passes through (4, 2) for cos  + sin  = 1 for which one solution is ( / 2).

13. For points P (0, 2), Q (4, 5), R (x, 0); the maximum value of | PR – QR | (as R is varied)
is
(A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) 3

13. (B) When P, Q, R are collinear; maximum | PR – QR | = PQ = 5.

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 14. If (2 sin x) : (1 + cos x + sin x) = y : 1, then (1 – cos x + sin x) : (1 + sin x) =
(A) 1 : y (B) y : 1 (C) (1 – y) : 1 (D) (1 + y) : y

14. (B) With 2t = x, y = 2 sin t cos t / (cos2 t + sin t cos t) = 2 sin t / (cos t + sin t).
z = 2 (sin2 t + sin t cos t) / (sin t + cos t)2 = 2 sin t / (cos t + sin t) = y.

15. If 0 < x, y < , the number of solutions of 4 sin x sin y = 3 and 4 cos x cos y = 1 is
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 

15. (C) cos (x – y) = 1 and cos (x + y) = – 1 / 2. Thus x – y = 0 and x + y = (2 / 3)

or (4 / 3). Thus x = y = ( / 3) or (2 / 3) i.e. 2 solutions.

16. If sin–1 (1 – x) – 2 sin–1 x =  / 2, then the number of solutions for x are

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
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16. (B) 1 – x  1 gives x  0. But then LHS   / 2. Thus x = 0 only i.e. 1 solution.

17. If sin (cosec–1 5 + sec–1 x) = 1, then x =

(A) 1 (B) 5 / 4 (C) 5 (D) 5 / 2

17. (C) sin–1 (1 / 5) + cos–1 (1 / x) = sin–1 1 =  / 2.  x = 5.

18. Solution of 2 tan–1 (cos x) = tan–1 (2 cosec x) is given by x =

(A) n – ( / 4) (B) n + ( / 4) (C) n + ( / 6) (D) n – ( / 6)

18. (B) 2 cos x / (1 – cos2 x) = 2 cosec x or tan x = 1.

As cos x = sin x = ± 2–½ both satisfy, x = n + ( / 4).

19. cos–1 (5 / 13) + cos–1 (8 / 17) = n + (– 1)n tan–1 k. Then the integral part of (k – n)–1 is
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 1

19. (A) tan–1 (12 / 5) + tan–1 (15 / 8) =  – tan–1 (171 / 140). As n = 1, expr. = [140 / 31] = 4.

20. (6 tan–1 1 + 3 tan–1 2 + 2 tan–1 3) – 6 (cot–1 1 + 2 cot–1 2 + 3 cot–1 3) =

(A) 6 (tan–1 3 – ¼ ) (B) 5 (tan–1 3 – ¼ )
(C) 5 (tan–1 3 – ¾ ) (D) 6 (tan–1 3 – ¾ )

20. (C) x = 15 tan–1 2 + 20 tan–1 3 – 15 = 15 ( – ¼ ) + 5 tan–1 3 – 15

= 5 (tan–1 3 – ¾ ).

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 21. Real valued function g(x) satisfies (1 – eg(x)) / (1 + eg(x)) = x. For suitable values a, b &
c in the domain of g(x), let g(a) + g(b) = g(c). Then c =
(A) (ab – 1) / (a + b) (B) (a + b) / (ab – 1)
(C) (a + b) / (1 – ab) (D) (a + b) / (1 + ab)

21. (D) g(x) = ln ((1 – x) / (1 + x)).  (1 – c) / (1 + c) = (1 – a – b + ab) / (1 + a + b + ab)

giving c = (a + b) / (1 + ab) for a, b, c  (– 1, 1).

22. Function f : R  R satisfies f (x) f (y) – f (xy) = x + y for all x, y  R and f (1) > 0.
(A) 2 f (22) = 45 (B) f (22) = 12 (C) 2 f (22) = 21 (D) f (22) = 23

22. (D) As f (1) f (1) – f (1) = 2, f (1) = 2 or – 1.  f (1) = 2. As f (x) f (1) – f (x) = x + 1,
f (x) = x + 1.  f (22) = 23.
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23. The number of integers not in the domain of definition of f (x) = 1 / (x2 – 4x + 3) is
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3

23. (D) x2 – 4x + 30 for integer x = 1, 2, 3 i.e. 3 integers.

24. Function f : R  R is f (x) = x3 + x2 + 2. Then f is

(A) injective but not surjective (B) surjective but not injective
(C) neither injective nor surjective (D) both injective and surjective

24. (B) Surjective as range is R. Not injective as f (0) = f (– 1).

25. Let f : R  R, g : R  R be two functions given by f (x) = 2x – 3, g(x) = x3 + 5.

Then (fog)–1 (x) =
(A) ((x – 7) / 2)1 / 3 (B) ((2x – 3)3 + 5
(C) ((x – 5)1 / 3 + 3) / 2 (D) 2x3 + 7

25. (A) y = f (g(x)) = f (x3 + 5) = 2x3 + 7. For x = 2y3 + 7, (fog)–1 (x) = y = ((x – 7) / 2)1 / 3.

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 PHYSICS
26. A solid, cylindrical tube of radius r, density , Young’s modulus Y is bent to form a ring
of radius R (>> r). When ring is rotated about its own axis with angular velocity , the
small increase in its radius is (n a 2 rb Rc / Y) for integers n, a, b, c. Then
(n + 2a + 3b + 4c) =
(A) 13 (B) 11 (C) 10 (D) 14

26. (A) (A R d) 2R = 2T sin (d / 2)  T d or T = A2R2. As R / R = T / AY,

R = 2R3 / Y.  n = 1, a = b = 0, c = 3, expr. = 13.

27. A wire of length 2.0 m, cross-sectional area 1 mm2, Young’s modulus 2  1011 Nm–2 is
held between two rigid supports with negligible tension. If the midpoint is pulled 5 mm
perpendicular to the wire, the change in the tension is
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(A) 25 N (B) 10 N (C) 1.0 N (D) 2.5 N

27. (D) L = (1 + 0.0052)½ – 1  ½ (0.005)2 = 1.25  10–5.  T = YAL / L = 2.5 N.

28. The density of a solid at normal pressure is o. When the solid is subjected to an excess
pressure P, the density changes to . If the bulk modulus of the solid is K, then ( / o) =
(A) 1 + (P / K) (B) 1 + (K / P) (C) 1 + (3P / K) (D) 1 + (K / 3P)

28. (A) As V = m, (d / ) = – dV / V. As K = – P / (dV / V), d /  = (P / K).

  / o = 1 + (P / K).

29. A particle thrown vertically up from the ground at time t = 0 reaches its highest point in
time T. The fraction of the maximum height that it covers in the time t = 0 to t = (T / 2) is
the function f (T). This function f (T) is
(A) an increasing function (B) a constant function with value (1 / 2)
(C) a decreasing function (D) a constant function with value (3 / 4)

29. (D) u = gT, f (T) = (u (T / 2) – ½ g (T / 2)2) : (½ gT2) = 3 / 4.

30. A projectile thrown from the ground has maximum height H and time of flight T. For
every h, 0 < h < H, there are two values of time (from the instant of projection) when the
projectile is at height h. Let the sum of these two times be f (h). This function f (h) is
(A) an increasing function (B) a constant function with value T
(C) a decreasing function (D) a constant function with value (4T / 3)

30. (B) As h = uvt – ½ gt2, t1 + t2 = 2uv / g = T.

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 31. A tennis ball is falling down a flight of stairs, in such a way that after bouncing through
each stair it reaches to a maximum height equals to half the heights of the stair. Each stair
has the same height and width. The coefficient of restitution is
(A)  / (B) 1 / 2 (C) 1 / (D) 1 /

31. (D) hafter : hbefore = 0.5h : 1.5h = 1 : 3. e = (2ghafter) : (2ghbefore) = 1 /.

32. Ball A of mass 3m and ball B of mass m are at rest on a smooth horizontal surface along
the same normal to a smooth vertical wall, with A closer to the wall compared to B. Ball
B is given a velocity directly towards A. The two balls collide with coefficient of restitution
e, then ball A collides with the wall with coefficient of restitution 0.5. If now both balls
move with the same velocity, e =
(A) 2 / 5 (B) 2 / 3 (C) 3 / 5 (D) 1 / 3
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32. (C) vA = vB / 0.5 = 2vB. As 3mvA – mvB = mu, u = 5vB. e = (vA + vB) / u = 3 / 5.

33. A wood block of mass m is on the smooth horizontal surface. A bullet of mass nm,
moving horizontally with velocity u strikes the block on one side and emerges from its
opposite side with speed ku. At this moment, the velocity of the bullet relative to the
block is
(A) (nk + k + n) u (B) (nk + k – n) u (C) (nk – k + n) u (D) (nk – k – n) u

33. (B) As nmu = nm ku + mv, v = (1 – k) nu.  vrel = ku – v = (nk + k – n) u.

34. Two particles, with initial position vectors r1 = (13i + 15j) m and r2 = (5i + 7j) m move
with constant velocities v1 = (4i – 7j) ms–1 and v2 = (ui – 3j) ms–1. If the particles
collide at after a time of n seconds, then (2n + u) =
(A) 0 (B) 4 (C) 9 (D) 12

34. (D) 13 + 4n = 5 + un and 15 – 7n = 7 – 3n.  n = 2, u = 8.

35. In the setup, the incline makes 30º with the horizontal. If M = m and there is no friction
anywhere, the acceleration of m is

m
M

(A) 2g / 5 (B) g / 2 (C) g / 4 (D) g / 3

35. (A) N = m (g – a) and (N + Mg) sin  = Ma cosec .

 a = (M + m) g / (m + M cosec2 ) = 2g / 5.

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 36. The incline makes  = sin–1 0.6 with the horizontal and the friction coefficient is µ for
both contacts. If m = M, the least value of µ for the system to be at rest is

m
M

(A) 2 / 5 (B) 1 / 2 (C) 1 / 4 (D) 1 / 3

36. (D) T = µmg = (sin  – µ cos ) Mg when system just on verge of moving down.
 µ = M sin  / (m + M cos ) = 1 / 3.

37. A stone is whirled in a circular path in the vertical plane while tied to an end of a light
inextensible string of length L. If the maximum tension in the string is 4 times the minimum
tension, then the speed of the stone when the string is horizontal is
PRERNA CLASSES

(A) (5 gL) (B) (4.5 gL) (C) (3.5 gL) (D) (3 gL)

37. (A) vT2 = v2 – 2gL, vB2 = v2 + 2gL, TMax = (mvB2 / L) + mg = (mv2 / L) + 3mg,
TMin = (mvT2 / L) – mg = (mv2 / L) – 3mg. As TMax = 4 TMin, v = (5gL).

38. To overcome the effect of weightlessness in an artificial satellite, the satellite can be
(A) rotated around its axis with astronaut compartment at satellite centre
(B) rotated around its axis with astronaut compartment at satellite periphery
(C) linearly accelerated with astronaut compartment at satellite centre
(D) linearly accelerated with astronaut compartment at satellite end

38. (B) Linear acceleration will make satellite move out of its circular trajectory.
Rotation causes centrifugal force i.e. artificial weight when at satellite periphery.

39. The acceleration due to gravity at the bottom of a deep mine is 9.78 ms–2 while its value
at the surface is 9.80 ms–2. Assume the density of the earth is uniform throughout and
the radius of the earth is 6400 km. The depth of the mine is nearly
(A) 13 km (B) 6.5 km (C) 20 km (D) 32 km

39. (A) As g–d = go (1 – (d / R)),d  R g / g = 6400 · 0.02 / 9.80  640 / 49  13 km.

40. Point masses m and M, at rest at infinite distance apart, start interacting gravitationally.
Their velocity of approach when they are separated by a s distance is (Gµ / s) where µ =
(A) (M + m) / 2 (B) Mm / (M + m) (C) 2 (M + m) (D) 4Mm / (M + m)

40. (C) v = v1 + v2, mv1 = Mv2 and 2GMm / s = mv12 + Mv22 = Mmv2 / (M + m).
 v = (2G (M + m) / s) or µ = 2 (M + m).

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 41. A spaceship of mass m is in circular orbit of radius 2Re around the earth having mass
M and radius Re. The energy required to transfer the spaceship to a circular orbit of
radius 3Re is
(A) GMm / 36Re (B) 5GMm / 36Re (C) GMm / 6Re (D) GMm / 12Re

41. (D) E = E3R – E2R = (– GMm / 6Re) – (– GMm / 4Re) = GMm / 12Re.

42. A satellite in a circular orbit gradually loses energy due to friction with cosmic dust.
Assume that its orbital remains approximately circular.
(A) it spirals inwards gaining speed (B) it spirals inwards losing speed
(C) it spirals outwards gaining speed (D) it spirals outwards losing speed

42. (A) E = – GMm / 2r, v = (GM / r). As E decreases, r reduces, v increases.

PRERNA CLASSES

43. A rocky spherical asteroid has density . The escape velocity for a golf ball of mass m
from this asteroid surface is v. The radius of the asteroid is
(A) (4G / 3v2) (B) (4G / 3v2)1 / 3 (C) 3v / 4G (D) v (3 / 8G)

43. (D) v = 2GM / R) = (8GR2 / 3)  R = v (3 / 8G).

44. A uniform rod a mass m, length s can rotate freely in the vertical plane about a pivot at
one of its ends. The rod is released from rest from the horizontal position. When the rod
becomes vertical, the force exerted by the pivot on the rod is
(A) 1.5 mg (B) 2.5 mg (C) 3 mg (D) 4 mg

44. (B) mgs / 2 = ½ (ms2 / 3) 2 and F = mg + m2 (s / 2) = 2.5 mg.

45. A uniform smooth tube of certain mass contains two identical balls initially at the centre.
The ball radius is just less than the tube radius. The system is given an initial angular
velocity and then left free. As the balls move outward,

(A) tube rotation slows and kinetic energy of system reduces

(B) tube rotation slows and kinetic energy of system remains same
(C) tube rotation speeds up and kinetic energy of system reduces
(D) tube rotation speeds up and kinetic energy of system remains same

45. (B) As moment of inertia increases,  reduces i.e. tube rotation slows.
There being no dissipative force, kinetic energy of system is unchanged.

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 46. A uniform hollow sphere, at rest on a rough horizontal plane, is given a horizontal
impulse at its centre. By the time, it starts pure rolling, the fractional loss in kinetic
energy is
(A) 3 / 5 (B) 2 / 5 (C) 1 / 3 (D) 2 / 3

46. (B) mur = (5 / 3) mr2 (v / r) or v = 3u / 5. KEf = ½ (5 / 3) mr2 (v / r)2 = (3 / 5) (½ mu2).

As KEf = (3 / 5) KEi, KE / KEi = 2 / 5.

47. A disc is rotating with constant angular velocity  in the anticlockwise sense about its
axis. It is simultaneously moving with a velocity v in +x-direction. At a time when the
centre of the disc C is at (a, 0), the instantaneous axis is located at

y C v
x
PRERNA CLASSES

(A) (a, 0) (B) (a, v / ) (C) (a, – v / ) (D) (a – (v / ), 0)

47. (B) v – y = 0 gives y = v / .  Instantaneous axis through (a, v / ).

48. Three identical rods AB, BC, CD, rigidly fixed, form the three sides of the square
ABCD. When suspended from the point A, the angle made by AB with the vertical at
equilibrium is
(A) 30º (B) sin–1 0.6 (C) 45º (D) sin–1 0.8

48. (B) With AD & AB as axes, centres of mass are AB (0, ½ s), BC (½ s, s), CD (s, ½ s),
system (½ s, 2s / 3).  = tan–1 (xsys / ysys) = tan–1 (3 / 4) = sin–1 0.6.

49. A uniform solid cylinder and a block are independently released to move down an
inclined plane of inclination  with the horizontal and coefficient of friction µ. If the
block’s acceleration is three-fourth of the cylinder’s acceleration, then
(A) 2µ tan  = 1 (B) 3µ tan  = 1 (C) 2µ = tan  (D) 3µ = tan 

49. (C) aC = (g sin ) / (1 + k) = (2 / 3) g sin , aB = (sin  – µ cos ) g.

As aB = 3aC / 4 = ½ g sin , 2µ = tan .

50. A uniform rectangular sheet, in the xy-plane has its vertices at (± 3s, ± 2s) and centre at
the origin. Its moment of inertia is the least about an axis in the xy-plane with equation
(A) 2x = 3y (B) x = 3s (C) y = 0 (D) x = 0

50. (C) Axis should pass through centre and mass distribution should be nearest. Thus y = 0.

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 CHEMISTRY
51. How many chiral centers are in the following compound ?

(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7

51. (C) * O

* * *
*
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52. Among the following, the optically inactive compound is :

N P
(A) (B) H3C
CH3CH2
H3C

H3C C H
(C) (D)
COOH
HO

N
52. (A) Et
Optically inactive due to amine inversion and resonance.
Me

replace Ha with D and

C2H5 Hb with H
(X)
Ha Hb replace Hb with D and
53. H Br Ha with H
(Y)
C2H5
Relation between (X) and (Y) is :
(A) Enantiomers (B) Diastereomers
(C) E and Z isomer (D) Constitutional isomer

Me Me

53. (B) D H H D (x) and (y) are diastereoisomer.

H Br H Br
Me Me
(x) (y)

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 54. Which of the following molecules is (are) chiral ?

CH3H
Cl H
C
H Br
CH(CH3)2
(I) (II) (III)

H H3C H H3C H
O

H O O O
(IV) (V) (VI)

(A) I and II (B) III and IV (C) II, IV and VI (D) I, II, III and VI

54. (D) Compounds do not have plane and centre of symmetry are known as optically active
compounds.
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55. The structure of (S) –2– Chlorobutane is best represented by :

Cl H CH3
Cl
C H C Cl Cl H
(A) CH3CHCH2CH3 (B) (C) (D)
H3C CH2CH3 H3C CH2CH3 CH2CH3

55. (C)

56. Among the following , the Newmann projections of meso - 2,3-butanediol are :

Me Me
H OH H OH

(P) (Q)

HO H H OH
Me Me

Me
Me H
Me
HO Me

(R) (S)
H OH
HO H
OH
H
(A) P, Q (B) P, R (C) R, S (D) Q, S

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 Me Me
Me
Me CH3 Me
H
56. (B) H OH 60º 60º
H OH rotation
Me H OH OH
H H
Fischer OH
New mann's OH
of meso of meso

Me
Me
H HO H
60º

HO H OH
OH
H Me Me
Partial eclipsecl Anti
PRERNA CLASSES

57. The binaphthol (Bnp) is

OH
OH

(A) An optically active compound having chiral centre

(B) An optically inactive compound
(C) A meso compound
(D) An optically active compound without having chiral center

OH Bnp,
57. (D) OH

Compound give atropi isomerism and is optically active due to absence of plane and
centre of symmetry.

58. Among the following, the most stable isomer is :

OMe
OH OMe OH
(A) OCH3 (B) (C) OH (D)
HO OMe

58. (A) ee isomer is most stable.

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 59. Which one is the least acidic among the following ?
OH
O2N NO2 O O O
(A) (B) H3C (C) H (D) H5C6
OH OH OH
NO2

59. (B)
60. Correct acidic strength order is

COOH
COOH COOH
COOH
H3C CH3
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
NO2 H3 C CH3
NO2 SO3H
NO2
PRERNA CLASSES

(A) IV > I > II > III (B) II > IV > III > I (C) I > IV > II > III (D) IV > II > I > III
60. (D)


CH2
61. In the carbocation rearranges to gain stability, it will rearrange to
H 2C


CH3  CH2
(A) H2C  (B) (C) CH2 (D) H 3C

61. (C)
62. Which of the following has longest C –O bond :

O O O O
(A) (B) (C) (D)

CH2

62. (B)
63. For the following compounds, arrange the labelled proton in increasing order of their ease of
deprotonation.

H2

O SO3H3
H1
CH2

(A) (2 < 3 < 1) (B) (1 < 2 < 3) (C) (3 < 2 < 1) (D) (1 < 3 < 2)

63. (B)

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 64. A buffer solution is made up on acetic acid [pKa = 5] having conc. = 1.5 M and sodium acetate
having conc. = 0.15 M. What is the number of OH– ions present in 1 litre solution ?
(A) 10–10 NA (B) 10–7 NA (C) 10–8 NA (D) 10–5 NA
64. (A) Henderson equation is
[salt]
pH = pKa + log =4
[acid]
 pOH = 10, [OH–] = 10–10
Number of OH– ions = 10–10 NA ;
where NA = Avogadro’s number
65. The pH of a solution containing 0.4 M HCO3– and 0.2 M CO32– is :
[Ka (H2CO3) = 4 × 10–7; Ka (HCO3–) = 4 × 10–11]
1 2
(A) 10.5 (B) 10.1 (C) 5.8 (D) 9.7

65. (B) pH = pKa + log

CO 
2
3  0.2 
= (11 – log 4) + log   = 10.1
2 HCO  
3  0.4 
PRERNA CLASSES

66. pH of 0.01 M HS– will be :

pK a logC pK a logC
(A) pH  7   (B) pH  7  
2 2 2 2
pK 1  pK 2  pK a  pK b 
(C) pH  7  (D) pH  7   
2  2 

66. (A) HS– + H2O H2S + OH–

Kw C Kw Kw .K a
 [OH  ]   [H  ]  
Ka K w .C C
Ka
or pH = 1/2[pKw + pKa + log C]

67. In a gas phase reaction 2A + B 3C + 2D, it was found that when 1.0 mol of A, 2.0 mol of B,
and 1.0 mol of D were mixed in one litre flask and came to equilibrium, the resulting mixture
contained 0.9 mole of C. Calculate equilibrium constant KC.
(A) 2.86 (B) 1.86 (C) 4.86 (D) 6.86

67. (D) 2A + B 3C + 2D
0.4 1.7 0.9 1.6
(0.9)3  (1.6)2
KC   6.86
(0.4)2  1.7

68. In which of the following equilibria, does it happen that change of total pressure of the system at
constant temperature has no effect on product formation ?
(i) 2SO3(g) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) (ii) 2HI(g) H2(g) + I2(g)
(iii) 2NO2(g) N2O4(g) (iv) CO(g) + H2O(g) CO2(g) + H2(g)
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii) and (iv) (C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (i) and (iv)
68. (B) n = 0, hence pressure remains constant
 Kp = KC

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 69. Acetic acid undergoes dimerisation in benzene solution. When the solution is diluted to twice
the original volume, the position of equilibrium in the reaction 2CH3COOH (CH3COOH)2 is
shifted
(A) To the right (B) To the left
(C) Neither to left not to right (D) None of these

C 6H 6
69. (B) 2CH3COOH   (CH3COOH)2

70. The solubility of anhydrous AlCl3 and hydrous AlCl3 in diethyl ether are S1 and S2 respectively.
Then
(A) S1 = S2 (B) S1 > S2 (C) S1 < S2 (D) None of these

70. (B) Hydrous AlCl3remains in ionic form and is less soluble in organic solvents while AlCl3 is
covalent.

71. There is no S – S bond in

(A) S2O42– (B) S2O52– (C) S2O32– (D) S2O72–
PRERNA CLASSES

71. (D)

72. Iodine dissolves in a variety of solvents forming solutions that are purple coloured, brown or of
any shades in between. This is due to
(A) Hydrolysis of iodine
(B) Formation of crystalline adducts
(C) Charge transfer between I – I – and solvents
(D) Charge transfer between I – I+ and solvents

72. (C)

73. The set representing the correct order of first ionisation potential is :
(A) K > Na > Li (B) Be > Mg > Ca (C) B > C > N (D) Ge > Si > C

73. (B)

74. Identify the correct order of solubility in aqueous medium :

(A) Cus > ZnS > Na2S (B) ZnS > Na2S > CuS
(C) Na2S > Cus >ZnS (D) Na2S >ZnS > CuS

74. (D)

75. Which of the following gases will have the same rate of effusion under identical condition ?
(i) CO (ii) CO2 (iii) N2O (iv) C2H4 (v) C3H8
(A) CO, CO2, C2H4 (B) CO2, C2H4, N2O
(C) C3H8, N2O, CO2 (D) CO, N2O, C2H4, C3H8

75. (C) Rate of effusion is directly proportional to the molecular weight of gas. Hence C3H8, N2O,
CO2 have same molecular weight, so they will effuse at the same rate.

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