1.

The avascular structure of eye is

a. Choriod

b. Lens

c. Conjunctiva

d. Ciliary body

2. The avascular structure of eye is

a. Choriod

b. Ciliary body

c. Conjunctiva

d. Vitreus

3. Aqueous humor is secreted by

a. Angle of anterior chamber

b. Choriod

c. Ciliary body

d. Iris

4. Optic disc is also known as

a. Macula lutea

b. Blind spot

c. Fovea

d. Rods and cones

5. The sensory nerve supply of the eye is by the

a. Optic nerve

b. Third cranial nerve

c. Fifth cranial nerve

d. Seventh cranial nerve

6. The junction of cornea and sclera is known as

a. Angle of anterior chamber

b. Ciliary body

c. Pupil

d. Limbus

7. Tarsal plate is situated in

a. Eyebrow

b. Eyelid

c. Lacrimal apparatus

d. Conjunctiva

8. Optic nerve head swelling is associated with all, ECXEPT:

a. Neuritis

b. Anterior ischemic neuropathy

c. Glaucoma

d. Intracranial hypertension

9. Lamina cribrosa is present in

a. Choroid
b. Ciliary body

c. Sclera

d. Retina

10. Suspensory ligament extends between lens and

a. Iris

b. Ciliary body

c. Choroid

d. Limbus

11. Oculomotor nerve palsy features include all, EXCEPT

a. Facial weakness

b. Divergent squint

c. Dilated fixed pupil

d. Absent accommodation

12. The normal trichromatic colors vision consist of following colors

a. Red, blue, yellow

b. Red, blue, green

c. Red, blue, white

d. Red, green, yellow

13. Lesion of the optic tract causes

a. Homonymous hemianopia

b. Bitemportal hemianopia
c. Binasal hemianopia

d. Ipsilateral blindness

14. Scotopic vision is due to

a. Cones

b. Rods

c. Both

d. None

15. Photopic vision is due to

a. Cones

b. Rods

c. Both

d. None

16. Visual acuity is a record of

a. Light sense

b. Form sense

c. Contrast sense

d. Colour sense

17. Visual centre is situated in

a. Parietal lobe

b. Frontal lobe

c. Midbrain
d. Occipital lobe

18. Optic nerve extends up to

a. Optic chiasm

b. Optic tracts

c. Lateral geniculate body

d. Optic radiations

19. Visible spectrum extends from

a. 100-300 nm

b. 300-650 nm

c. 400-700 nm

d. 720-920 nm

20. Vortex vein drain

a. Iris and ciliary body

b. Sclera

c. Choroid

d. Retinal

21. Highest visual resolution is seen in

a. Macula lutea

b. Fovea centralis

c. Optic disc

d. Oraserrata
22. Bitemporal hemianopia is seem with

a. Pituitary tumors

b. Temporal SOL

c. Frontal SOL

d. Retinoblastoma

23. Corneal thickness is measured by

a. ophthalmoscopy

b. perimetry

c. Pachymeter

d. gonioscopy

24. Keratometry is used in the measurement of

a. Lenth of eyeball

b. Curvature of cornea

c. Diemeter of cornea

d. Thickness of cornea

25. Corneal sensations are reduced

a. Hypopyonulceral

b. Phylctenular keratitis

c. Herpes simplex

d. Arcussenilis

26. Corneal staining is done by following vital stains

a. Iodine

b. Fluorescein

c. Carbolic acid

d. Silver nitrate

27. All of the following result in loss of corneal sensation EXCEPT

a. Acute congestive glaucoma

b. Absolute glaucoma

c. Dendritic ulcer

d. Senile mature cataract

28. The normal depth of anterior chamber is

a. 1 mm

b. 2 mm

c. 3 mm

d. 4 mm

29. Anterior chamber is shallow in

a. Buphthalmos

b. Open angle glaucoma

c. Closed angle glaucoma

d. Aphakia

30. Dilated pupil is seen in all of the following EXCEPT

a. Horner’s syndrome
b. Optic atrophy

c. Acute glaucoma

d. 3rd nerve paralysis

31. Constricted pupil is seen in all of the following EXCEPT

a. Horner’s syndrome

b. Iridocyclitis

c. Due to effect of strong light

d. Acute glaucoma

32. Tremulousness of iris is seen in

a. Chronic iridocyclitis

b. Closed angle glaucoma

c. Aphakia

d. None of the above

33. Pupil is pinpoint in

a. Optic atrophy

b. Absolute glaucoma

c. Atropine

d. Iritis

34. White papillary reflex is seen in

a. Retinoblastoma

b. Congenital cataract
c. Complete retinal detachment

d. All of the above

35.The normal intraocular pressure is

a. 10-15 mm Hg

b. 11-21 mm Hg

c. 25-30 mm Hg

d. Less than 10 mm Hg

36. Near vision is recorded at a distance of

a. 10 cm

b. 25 cm

c. 35 cm

d. 50 cm

37. Distant vision is recorded at a distance of

a. 1 m

b. 2 m

c. 3 m

d. 6 m

38. Peripheral field of vision is tested by

a. Bjerrum´s screen

b. Snellen´s chart

c. Lister´s perimeter
d. Indirect ophthalmoscopy

39. Angle of anterior chamber is studied with

a. Indirect ophthalmoscopy

b. Gonioscopy

c. Retinoscopy

d. Amblyoscope

40. Blurring of vision for near work occurs in

a. Myopia

b. Presbyopia

c. Both of the above

d. None of above

41. Cylindrical lenses are prescribed in

a. Presbyopia

b. Astigmatism

c. Myopia

d. Squit

42. A newborn is invariably

a. Hypermetropic

b. Myopic

c. Astigmatic

d. Aphakic
43. Astigmatism is a type of

a. Axial ametropia

b. Index ametropia

c. Curvature ametropia

d. Spherical aberration

44. All is true about pupils, EXCEPT

a. The term miosis means a constricted pupil.

b. Anisocoria means that the pupils differ in size.

c. Damage to oculomotorparasympathetic fibres causes miosis.

d. A relative afferent pupillary defect indicates optic nerve disease.

45. Optical condition of the eye in which the refraction of the two eyes differs is

a. Mixed astigmatism

b. Irregular astigmatism

c. Anisometropia

d. Compound astigmatism

46. Incident parallel rays come to focus posterior to the light sensitive layer of retina in

a. Aphakia

b. Hypermetropia

c. Both of the above

d. None of the above

47. The complications of myopia include all EXCEPT

a. Vitreous degeneration

b. Retinal detachment

c. Cataract

d. Closed angle glaucoma

48. Indistinct distant vision is seen in

a. Presbyopia

b. Myopia

c. Hypermetropia

d. None of the above

49. The type of lens used for correction of regular astigmatism includes

a. Biconvex lens

b. Biconcave lens

c. Cylindrical lens

d. None of the above

50. All is true about Cataract, EXCEPT:

a. A sudden loss of vision.

b. A gradual loss of vision.

c. Glare.

d. A change in refractive error.

51. Contact lenses may be useful in treatment of all EXCEPT

a. Keratoconus

b. Refractive anisometropia

c. Myopia

d. Senile mature cataract

52. Posterior synechiae is:

a. adhesion between the iris and the lens.

b. adhesion between the iris and the cornea.

c. both

d. none

53. Biconvex lens is used in all EXCEPT

a. Aphakia

b. Presbyopia

c. Astigmatism

d. Hypermetropia

54. Anterior synechiae is:

a. adhesion between the iris and the lens.

b. adhesion between the iris and the cornea.

c. both

d. none

55. Which of the following statement is false?

a. Aqueous is produced by the ciliary processes. The fluid circulates throughthe pupil and is drained by
the trabecular meshwork.
b. Glaucoma is always associated with a raised pressure.

c. The major classification of glaucoma depends on the anatomy of the iridocorneal angle.

d. One mechanism of angle closure glaucoma is an increased resistance to aqueous flow through the
pupil. This causes the iris to bow forwards and block the drainage angle.

56. All is true about Macular edema, EXCEPT:

a. Relates to the accumulation of fluid within the macula.

b. Causes blurring of vision.

c. May be seen following intraocular surgery.

d. Is usually associated with the growth of abnormal vessels in the retina.

57. Frequent change of presbyopic glasses is an early symptom of

a. Closed angle glaucoma

b. Open angle glaucoma

c. Senile cataract

d. After cataract

58. Herpes simplex virus can be associated with

a. conjunctivitis

b. keratitis

c. uveitis

d. Retinitis

e. All of the above

59. AnRelative afferent pupillary defect (Marcus Gunn pupil)of a lesion in the:

a. optic nerve
b. optic tract

c. macula

d. lens

60. Natural protective mechanisms of conjunctiva include

a. Low temperature

b. Flushing due to tears

c. Blinking of eyelids

d. All of the above

61. Follicles are not seen in which of the following

a. Spring catarrh

b. Trachoma

c. Adenovirus conjunctivitis

d. Herpetic conjunctivitis

62. Multiple sclerosis is commonly associated with

a. conjunctivitis

b. scleritis

c. optic neuritis

d. uveitis

e. keratitis
63. Eyes should not be bandaged in

a. Corneal ulcer

b. Purulent conjunctivitis

c. Glaucoma

d. Retinal detachment

64. Cobblestone appearance of the conjunctiva is seen in

a. Spring catarrh

b. Angular conjunctivitis

c. Eczematous conjunctivitis

d. Trachoma

65. The pathognomonic features of trachoma are all EXCEPT

a. Follicles

b. Papillae

c. Herbert´s pits

d. Pannus

66. As a complication of acute mucopurulent conjunctivitis, the corneal ulcers that develop as

a. Marginal

b. Central

c. Anywhere on cornea

d. No where

67. True membranous conjunctivitis is caused by

a. Trachoma

b. Morax-Axenfeld bacillus

c. Virus

d. Diphtheria

68. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis is due to

a. Pneumococcus

b. Pseudomonas pyocyanea

c. Allergy to endogenous protein

d. Allergy to exogenous protein

69. haemophthalmus is:

a. blood in the anterior chamber

b. blood in the vitreal body

c. sterile pus in the anterior chamber

d. None of the above

70. Pinguecula is due to the infiltration of

a. Hyaline

b. Lipid

c. Calcium

d. Fatty acids

71. Bitot´s spots are associated with

a. Vitamin A deficiency
b. Vitamin D deficiency

c. Vitamin E deficiency

d. All of the above

72. The association of kerato conjunctivitissicca with rheumatoid arthritis is

a. Reiter´s syndrome

b. Sjögren´s syndrome

c. Stevens-Johnson syndrome

d. Mikulicz´s syndrome

73. Bilateral fat-like nodular area on nasal side of conjunctiva is described as

a. Pinguecula

b. Pterygium

c. Phlycten

d. Pemphigoid

74. Dryness of eye is seen in all EXCEPT

a. Vitamin A deficiency

b. Trachoma stage IV

c. Keratoconjunctivitissicca

d. Horner´s syndrome

75. A blood in the vitreal body is:

a. haemophthalmus

b. Hyphema
c. Hypopyon

d. anterior synechiae

76. Deficiency of vitamin A can cause all EXCEPT

a. Xerosis

b. Keratomalacia

c. Night blindness

d. Dermoid

77.A blood in the anterior chamber is:

a. haemophthalmus

b. Hyphema

c. Hypopyon

d. anterior synechiae

78. All is true about Sjögren´s syndrome EXCEPT

a. Occurs in males

b. Polyarthritis

c. Dryness of eyes

d. Dryness of mouth

79. Most common cause of blindness is

a. Cataract

b. Glaucoma

c. Trachoma
d. Vitamin A deficiency

80. Organism causing ophthalmianeonatorum is

a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

b. Staphylococci

c. Streptococci

d. Neisseria meningitides

81. Which of the following is not a source of nutrients to cornea

a. Air

b. Aqueous humor

c. Perilimbal capillaries

d. Vitreous

82. Treatment of impending perforation of corneal ulcer includes all EXCEPT

a. Therapeutic Contact lens

b.Phacoemulsification

c. Therapeutic corneal graft

d. Cautery of cornea

83. Hyphema is:

a. blood in the anterior chamber

b. blood in the vitreal body

c. sterile pus in the anterior chamber

d. None of the above

84. Central corneal ulceration may be associated with

a. Herpes virus

b. Bacteria

c. Fungus

d. All of the above

85. Hypopyon corneal ulcers results in following complications EXCEPT

a. Perforation

b. Panophthalmitis

c. Secondary glaucoma

d. Corneal anesthesia

86. The most common organism responsible for hypopyon corneal ulcer is all, EXCEPT:

a. Staphylococcus

b. Pneumococcus

c. Pseudomonas

d. Candida albicans

87. Symptoms of corneal ulcer are following, EXCEPT

a. Mucous discharge

b. Pain in the eye

c. Redness of the eye

d. Watering
88. Steroids are contraindicated in

a. Iritis

b. Corneal ulcer

c. Optic neuritis

d. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis

89. The dendritic corneal ulcer is typical of

a. Varicella zoster

b. Herpes simplex

c. Pseudomonas

d. Aspergillus

90. A sterile pus in the anterior chamber is:

a. haemophthalmus

b. Hyphema

c. Hypopyon

d. anterior synechiae

91. Hutchinson´s triad comprise all EXCEPT

a. Flat nose bridge

b. Interstitial keratitis

c. Hutchinson´s teeth

d. vestibular deafness

92. Cornea is thinned in

a. Keratoconus

b. Myopia

c. Astigmatism

d. All of the above

93. The deposits seen in arcussenilis is

a. Lipid

b. Calcium

c. Hyaline

d. None of the above

94. Hypopyon is:

a. blood in the anterior chamber

b. blood in the vitreal body

c. sterile pus in the anterior chamber

d. None of the above

95. Common cause of non-healing corneal ulcer

a. Chronic dacryocystitis

b. Raised intraocular pressure

c. Diabetes mellitus

d. All of the above

96. The earliest symptom to occur in corneal ulcer is

a. Pain
b. Photophobia

c. Loss of sensation

d. Diminished vision

97. Rupture of Descement´s membrane is seen in

a. Keratoconus

b. Rubella

c. Glaucoma

d. Retinoblastoma

98. In which of the following there is intense itching

a. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis

b. Episcleritis

c. Scleritis

d. Spring catarrh

99. Symptom differentiating scleritis from episcleritis is presence of

a. Cornea and uveal involvement

b. Ulceration

c. Secondary glaucoma

d. All of the above

100. The classical features of episcleritis include all EXCEPT

a. Circumscribed nodule, 2-3mm from limbus

b. Conjunctiva moves freely over it

c. Hard, movable and tender

d. Cornea and uveal tract involvement

101. Scleritis are common in all, EXCEPT:

a. Woman

b. Allergic reaction to exogenous toxin

c. Associated with connective tissue disease

d. Cornea and uveal involvement

102. Common caused of staphyloma include

a. Increased IOP

b. Scleritis

c. Injury

d. All of the above

103. Anterior staphyloma occurs due to

a. Perforating corneal ulcer

b. Penetrating corneal injury

c. Secondary glaucoma

d. All of the above

104. Scleritis is often associated with

a. Polyarteritisnodosa

b. SLE

c. Dermatomyositis
d. All of the above

105. Treatment of episcleritis includes EXCEPT

a. Corticosteroids

b. Anti-inflammatory

c. Analgesics

d. Atropine

106. Features of scletitis include

a. Pain

b. Thining of sclera

c. Associated with connective tissue disease

d. All of the above

107. Congenital cataract is associated with all EXCEPT

a. Toxoplasmosis

b. cytomegalo-inclusion disease

c. Rubeola

d. Sickle cell anemia

108. Diminished vision in daylight is seen in

a. Central cataract

b. Peripheral cataract

c. Zonular cataract

d. None of the above

109. Cataracts are found in association with

a. Parathyroid deficiency

b. Myotonic dystrophy

c. Dinitrophenol toxicity

d. All of the above

110. White pupillary reflex is seen in:

a. Coat’s disease

b. Retinoblastoma

c. Congenital Cataract

d. All of the above

111. The etiology of complicated cataract includes all EXCEPT

a. Keratokonjunctivitis

b. Iridocyclitis

c. Retinitis pigmentosa

d. Retinal detachment

112. Displaced lens is seen in all, EXCEPT

a. Marfan s syndrome

b. Ocular trauma

c. Haemophilia

d. Homocystinuria
113. The most common complication in pseudo exfoliation of the lens capsule is

a. Keratitis

b. Conjunctivitis

c. Glaucoma

d. Optic neuritis

114. Attack of acute angle closure glaucoma can occur in

a. cortical cataract

b. Intumescent cataract

c. Hypermaturecataract

d. Mature stage

115. Secondary cataract is

a. Posterior capsule opacification

b. Cataract after uveitis

c. Cataract after trauma

d. Cataract after intraocular tumor

116. Lens derives its nourishment from

a. Air

b. Aqueous humour

c. Vitreous

d. Perilimbal capillaries

117. Bitemporal hemianopia can be localized to:

a. optic chiasm

b. optic nerve

c. occipital cortex

d. Parietal lobe

e. temporal lobe

118. Hyphaema may be caused by each of the following EXCEPT:

a. Trauma

b. vitreous hemorrhage

c. iris new vessel

d. optic neuritis

e. cataract surgery

119. Which of the following is not a sourceof nutrient to cornea

a. Air

b. Aqueous humour

c. Perilimbal capillaries

d. Vitreous humour

120. The cause of vitreous degeneration include

a. Myopia

b. Uveitis

c. Amyloidosis

d. All of the above

121. The complications of vitreous bands and membranes are

a. Retinal edema

b. Retinal hole formation

c. Retinal detachment

d. All of the above

122. Vitreous abscess is commonly due to all EXCEPT

a. Penetrating injures

b. Postoperative infection

c. Hordeolum

d. Septicaemia

123. Common cause of vitreous haemorrhage include all EXCEPT

a. Trauma

b. Eale`s disease

c. Diabetic retinopathy

d. Choroiditis

124. Optic neuritis can be associated with:

a. Pain with eye movement

b. Vision loss

c. color vision compromise

d. macular edema

e. All of the above

125. The vitreous contains

a. Hyaluxonic acid

b. Plasma protein and collagen

c. A dilute solution of salts

d. All of the above

126. Papilloedema can be associated with:

a. swelling of the optic nerve head

b. venous dilation

c. absent spontaneous venous pulsation

d. retinal exudates

e. all of the above

127. Glaucoma may be secondary to all the following EXCEPT

a. Iritis

b. Dislocation of lens

c. Hyphaema

d. Occlusion of short ciliary artery

128. Regarding buphthalmos, which is correct

a. Intraocular Pressure is raised and the eyeball is enlarged

b. Usually associated with the enlarged cornea

c. The disease manifests prior to age of 3 years

d. All of the above

129. Coloured halo around light is seen in

a. Early stages of closed angle glaucoma

b. Early stages of cataract

c. Acute mucopurulent conjunctivitis

d. All of the above

130. Primary acute closured angleglaucoma manifests as

a. Hyphaema

b. Miotic pupil

c. Low vision with pain in eye

d. Hypopion

131. The drug which is NOT used as antiglaucoma drug

a. Carboanhydrate inhibitors

b. Corticosteroids

c. Beta adrenergic blocker

d. Prostaglandin analogs

132. Shallow anterior chamber is seen in

a. Hypermetropia

b. Microphthalmos

c. Closed angle glaucoma

d. All of the above

133. Hypermetropia is mostly seen in:

a. Neovascular glaucoma

b. Open angle glaucoma

c. Closed angle glaucoma

d. Retinal detachment

134. All of the following field defects are characteristic of glaucoma EXCEPT

a.Quadrant scotoma

b. Ring scotoma

c. Central scotoma

d. Arcuatescotoma

135. Coloured halos are not seen in

a. Accommodation

b. Narrow angle glaucoma

c. Steroid induced glaucoma

d. Phakogenic glaucoma

136. Stony hard eye is seen in

a. Infantile glaucoma

b. Chronic open angle glaucoma

c. Absolute glaucoma

d. None of the above

137. Cupping of the disc is not a feature of

a. Megalocornea
b. Chronic open angle glaucoma

c. Chronic angle-closure glaucoma

d. Buphthalmos

138. Most common presenting feature of a patient with primary open angle glaucoma is

a. Eyeache

b.Chronic deterioration of vision

c. Coloured halos

d. Headache

139. Drugs used in primary open angle glaucoma include

a. Beta-blockers

b. Atropine

c. Steroids

d. None of the above

140. Clinical features of absolute glaucoma include all EXCEPT

a. Completely blind eye

b. Pain

c. Preserved visual field

d. Shallow anterior chamber

141. Peripheral anterior synechia occurs in

a. Open angle glaucoma

b. Closed angle glaucoma

c. Neovascular glaucoma

d. None of the above

142. Presentation of a central retinal vein occlusion is characterized by:

a. sudden onset loss of vision with masses of dot hemorrhages in the fundus

b. gradual loss of vision with masses of dot hemorrhages in the fundus

c. sudden onset loss of vision with masses of flame hemorrhages in the fundus

d. gradual loss of vision with masses of flame hemorrhages in the fundus e.

d. Non of the above

143. Eyes prone to angle closure have all the following characteristics EXCEPT

a. Hypermetropic

b. Shallow anterior chamber

c. Large lens

d. Wide angle

144. Iridocorneal angle examination is

a. Goniotomy

b. Gonioskopy

c. Goniovision

d. Goniolysis

145. Ocular hypertension is associated with

a. Higher intraocular pressure

b. Visual field defects

c. Optic nerve head cupping

d. All of the above

146. Treatment of choice in primary open angle glaucoma is

a. Cyclodialisis

b. Iridectomy

c. Cyclodiathermy

d. Medical

147. Amsler grid is used for examination of:

a. Peripheral visual field

b. Exophthalmos

c. Macula

d. Cornea

148. Retinal detachment is associated with

a. Malignant melanoma

b. High myopia

c. Diabetic retinopathy

d. All of the above

149. Retinoblastoma is

a. Most common in adults

b. Always bilateral

c. Congenital malignant tumor arising from the neurosensory retina

d. Treated by evisceration

150. Diabetic retinopathy is characterized by

a. Superficial hemorrhage

b. Perivasculitis

c. Microaneurysms

d. A-V crossing changes

151. Retinal detachment

a. Is not accompanied by visual acuity decrease

b. Is a disease when neuroepithelium is detached from retinal pigment

c. Caused by tumor is called rhegmatogenous

d. Is caused by macular hole

152. Flame-shaped hemorrhages are seen commonly in the retinopathy of

a. Diabetes

b. Hypertension

c. Retinitis pigmentosa

d. All of the above

153. Rhegmatogenous retinal detachment is due to

a. Tumour

b. Retinal break

c. Vitreous traction

d. Proliferative retinopathy
154. The most common intraocular tumor in children is

a. Malignant melanoma

b. Retinoblastoma

c. Diktyoma

d. Medulloepithelioma

155. Causes of secondary detachment are all EXCEPT

a. Intraocular tumour

b. Macular hole

c. Exudative choroiditis

d. Haemorrhage between retina and choroidea

156. Wet form of Age Related Macular Degeneration is accompanied by symptoms

a. Tunnel vision

b. Curved vision

c. Photophobia

d. Metamorphopsia

157. The central retinal vein occlusion commonly occurs in person with

a. Arteriosclerosis

b. Atherosclerosis

c. Hyper viscosity of blood

d. All of the above

158. Risk factor of rhegmatogenous retinal detachment is

a. Myopia

b. Pigment cells hyperplasia

c. Synchisisscintillans

d. Microaneurysm

159. The cardinal feature of stage 4 hypertensive retinopathy is

a. Arteriovenous crossing changes

b. Flame-shaped haemorrhage

c. Papilloedema

d. Soft exudates

160. Typical signs of retinal detachment are

a. Macropsy

b. Sudden painless loss of vision

c. “Floaters and flyes”

d. Scotoma and flashes

161. The optic nerve extends up to

a. Optic chiasma

b. Optic tract

c. Lateral geniculate body

d. Optic radiation

162. Sudden loss of vision occurs in the following EXCEPT

a. retinal detachment

b. Papilloedema

c. Central retinal artery block

d. Central retinal vein occlusion

163. Consecutive optic nerve atrophy is secondary to

a. Papilloedema

b. Papillitis

c. Diseases of retina and choroid

d. Cataract

164. Blind spot

a. Is a corresponding site of optic disc in visual field

b. Is called Bierrum`sscotoma

c. Is a corresponding site of macula in visual field

d. Is typical for glaucoma disease

165. Vessel emerging from optic disc is

a. Central retinal artery

b. Central retinal vein

c. Both

d. None

166. Select a false statement about optic nerve

a. Optic nerve is a protrusion of white cerebral matter

b. Its orbital part has shape of „S“

c. Is covered by myelin

d. Has ability of regeneration

167. Intracranial hypertension can be accompanied by

a. Yellowish waxy optic disc

b. Descendent atrophy of optic disc

c. Optic disc edema

d. Non of the above

168. Excavation of the optic disc is typical for

a. Glaucomatous optic nerve atrophy

b. Postneuritic atrophy

c. Mechanical injury of optic nerve

d. Toxic damage of optic nerve

169. Blurring of the disc margin is seen typically in

a. Pseudoneuritis

b. Papillitis

c. Malignant hypertension

d. All of the above

170. The normal cup:disc ratio is

a. 4:10

b. 6:10
c. 8:10

d. 10:10

171. Yellowisch waxy disc is seen typically in

a. Retinal detachment

b. Retinitis pigmentosa

c. Primary optic atrophy

d. Postneuritis optic atrophy

172. Optic nerve is

a. 1st head nerve

b.2nd head nerve

c. 3rd head nerve

d. 4th head nerve

173. Select a false statement about optic nerve

a. Has 4 parts

b. In chiasma both optic nerves connect and part of the fibres crosses

c. Is 1st head nerve

d. Is covered by dura mater, pia mater, arachnoidea

174. Optic nerve is covered by

a. Dura mater

b. Pia mater

c. Arachnoidea
d. All of the above

175. Select possible cause of papilloedema

a. Intracranial tumor

b. Grade 4 hypertensive retinopathy

c. Subdural hematoma

d. All of the above

176. All is true about papilloedema EXCEPT

a. Vascular engorgement

b. Disc edema

c. Transient blurring of vision

d. Sudden complete loss of vision

177. The most serious danger to vision is

a. A blow to the eyeball

b. Fracture through optic foramen

c. Monocular proptosis

d. Horner s syndrome

178. Most important complication of traumatic hyphaema is

a. Iridocyclitis

b. Iridodialysis

c. Blod staining of cornea

d. Glaucoma
179. Bleeding into anterior chamber of the eye is called

a. Hyphema

b. Hemophthalmus

c. Hematocornea

d. None

180. Bleeding into vitrealbody is called

a. Hyphema

b. Hemophthalmus

c. Hematocornea

d. None

181. Complication of penetrating eye injury with later onset is

a. Subluxation of lens

b. Ocular haemorrhage

c. Sympathetic ophthalmitis

d. Iridocyclitis

182. Closed globe injury

a. Laceration of the eye globe

b. Perforation of the eye globe

c. Contusion of the eye globe

d. Penetration of the eye globe

183. Visualization of corneal erosion can be provided by

a. Atropine

b. Eyelid eversion

c. Fluorescein

d. None of the above

184. A 16-year-old male comes with injury to the eye by a tenisball , the following can be seen EXCEPT

a. Hypopyon

b. Hyphaema

c. Subluxation of lens

d. Subconjunctivalhaemorrhage

185. First aid in chemical injury of the eye

a. Immediate application of antidotum

b. Immediate lavage of conjunctival sac under running water

c. Application of antibiotics

d. All of the above

186. Infrared radiation

a. Effects mainly lens

b. Can cause complicated cataract

c. Can cause posterior lens opacification

d. All of the above

187. Contusion of the eye globe can be accompanied by

a. Haemophthalmus

b. Hyphema

c. Luxation of the lens

d. All of the above

188. All of the four rectus muscles originate from

a. Common annular tendon around optic foramen

b. Floor of orbit

c. Roof of orbit

d. Equator of eyeball

189. The 3rd cranial nerve supplies all muscles EXCEPT

a. Medial rectus

b. Inferior rectus

c. Lateral rectus

d. Superior rectus

190. The oculomotor nerve supplies all muscles EXCEPT

a. Medial rectus

b. inferior oblique muscles

c. Superior rectus

d. Lateral rectus

191. Binocular single vision requires all factors for its development EXCEPT

a. Clear vision in both eyes

b. Ability of the brain to cause fusion of two images

c. Accurate conjugate movements of the eyeball

d. Defective efferent pathway

192. Total ophthalmoplegia is condition in which there is paralysis of

a. All the extra ocular muscles

b. All the extra ocular and intraocular muscles

c. The optic nerve and extrinsic muscle of the eyeball

d. None of the above

193. Ptosis is typically caused in the paralysis of

a. 3rd nerve

b. 4th nerve

c. 6th nerve

d. 7th nerve

194. Different grades of binocular vision include all EXCEPT

a. Stereopsis

b. Simultaneous macular perception

c. Divergence

d. Fusionof two images in the brain

195. Chalazion is a chronic inflammatory granuloma of

a. Meibomian gland

b. Zeis gland
c. Moll´s sweat gland

d. Wolfring gland

196. A semilunar fold of skin, situated above and sometimes covering the inner canthus is known as

a. Coloboma of lid

b. Epicanthus

c. Pterygium

d. Ectropion

197. Lagophthalmos is the condition of

a. Incomplete closure of the eyelid

b. a semilunar fold of skin

c. Lid margin rolls outwards

d. None of the above

198. Regarding lagophthalmos which is correct

a. Incomplete closure of palpebral aperture

b. Seen in extensively ill or morbid patients

c. Cornea is exposed and keratitis sets in

d. All of the above

199. Paralytic ptosis is due to

a. 3rd nerve palsy

b. 4th nerve palsy

c. 6th nerve palsy

d. 7th nerve palsy

200. Blepharitis is an inflammation of

a. Lid

b. Eyelashes

c. Lid margin

d. Moll´s gland

201. The most common complication of lagophthalmos is

a. Suppurative conjunctivitis

b. Exposure keratitis

c. Entropion

d. Trichiasis

202. The term “madarosis” means

a. Absence of eyelashes

b. Extra row of eyelashes

c. Misdirected eyelashes

d. None of the above

203. The common causes of cicatricialentropion include

a. Trachoma stage IV

b. Ulcerative blepharitis

c. Burns

d. All of the above

204. Levatorpalpebrae superiors muscle is supplied by

a. 3rd nerve

b. 4th nerve

c. 5th nerve

d. 7th nerve

205. The compensatory changes in severe bilateral ptosis include

a. Elevation of the eyebrow

b. Wrinkled skin of the forehead

c. Head is tilted backwards

d. All of the above

206. Most common type of lid carcinoma is

a. Adenocarcinoma

b. Melanoma

c. Basal cell carcinoma

d. Squamous cell carcinoma

207. Epiphora occurs in

a. Iritis

b. Trachoma

c. Chronic dacryocystitis

d. Acute congestive glaucoma

208. The acessory lacrimalglands are

a. Glands of Krause

b. Glands of Wolfring

c. Both

d. None

209. The tear film has

a. Mucous layer

b. Aqueous layer

c. Lipid layer

d. All of the above

210. The nasolacrimal duct opens in the nose at

a. Superior meatus

b. Middle meatus

c. Inferior meatus

d. Nasal septum

211. Exophthalmometry is used

a. To measure intraocular pressure

b. To measure the forward protrusion of the eye

c. To measure the visual acuity

d. To measure the corneal thickness

212. The term enophthalmos means

a. Absence of eyeball

b. Forward displacement of eyeball

c. Inward displacement of eyeball

d. Atrophic bulbi

213. The most dangerous complication of orbital cellulitis is

a. Abscess formation

b. Proptosis

c. Diplopia

d. Cerebral involvement

214. Swelling behind the ear is diagnostic of

a. Cavernous sinus thrombosis

b. Orbital cellulitis

c. Unilateral proptosis

d. Bilateral proptosis

215. Pulsating proptosis is seen in

a. Orbital varicose vein

b. Arteriovenous aneurysm

c. Cavernous sinus thrombosis

d. Thyrotoxicosis

216. The important investigations of proptosis include all EXCEPT

a. CT scan
b. Exophthalmometer

c. Magnetic resonance imaging

d. Gonioscopy

217. Which of the following bones is not part of the orbital floor?

a. Maxilla

b. Palatine

c. Zygomatic

d. Greater wing of sphenoid

218. Which of the following causes of conjunctivitis is the most contagious and requires good hygiene to
prevent spread.

a. Adenoviral conjunctivitis

b. Chlamydial conjunctivitis

c. Gonococcal conjunctivitis

d. Season conjunctivitis

219. Which of the following causes of visual loss is most likely to present with pain?

a. Keratitis

b. Primary open-angle glaucoma

c. Diabetic retinopathy

d. Retinal detachment

220. Astigmatism is a refractive error which causes reduced visual acuity due to:

a. Improper curvature of the cornea

b. The distance between the cornea and the back of the eye is too long
c. The distance between the cornea and the back of the eye is too short

d. The lens is unable to accommodate properly

221. Which of the following presentations is most likely due to a bacterial conjunctivitis?

a. Positive preauricular node, rapid onset and mucopurulent discharge

b. Positive preauricular node, slow onset, watery discharge and sore throat

c. Negative preauricular node, stingy discharge, itchiness

d. Positive preauricular node, water discharge, urethral discharge

222. A rhythmic back and forth movement of the eyes:

a. Diplopia

b. Nystagmus

c. Myopia

d. Hypopion

223. A condition in which the eyes are not properly aligned with each other:

a. Strabismus

b. Diplopia

c. Amblyopia

d. Myopia

224. This is a procedure to look for abnormalities of cornea, anterior chamber, iris or lens:

a. Slit lamp exam

b. Gonioscopy

c. Fundoscopy
d. Tonometry

225. A “Stay” is also colled

a. Aphakia

b. Cataract

c. Glaucoma

d. Hordeolum

226. This diagnosis occurs due to aging. It involves loss of flexibility of the lens with loss of
accommodation:

a. Glaucoma

b. Cataract

c. Photophobia

d. Presbyopia

227. A bony socket in the cranium that surrounds all but not the anterior part of the eye:

a. Lens

b. Cornea

c. Fundus

d. Orbit

228. Farsightedness is known as:

a. Hyperopia

b. Presbyopia

c. Astigmatism

d. Myopia
229. Nearsightedness is known as:

a. Hyperopia

b. Presbyopia

c. Astigmatism

d. Myopia

230. A procedure to detect increased intraocular pressure and glaucoma:

a. Slit lamp exam

b. phorometry

c. Fundoscopy

d. Tonometry

231. “Double vision” is also called:

a. Myopia

b. Amblyopia

c. Hyperopia

d. Diplopia

232. A “lazy eye” is also termed:

a. Myopia

b. Amblyopia

c. Astigmatism

d. Diplopia
233. The abbreviation for the right eye is:

a. OD

b. OS

c. OU

d. OE

234. The abbreviation for the left eye is:

a. OD

b. OS

c. OU

d. OE

235. The “white” of the eye is the:

a. Sclera

b. Ciliary body

c. Iris

d. Cornea

236. Abnormal dryness of the eye:

a. Hordeolum

b. Xerophthalmia

c. Ectropion

d. Chalazion

237. The ophthalmic artery is the first branch of the:

a. internal carotid artery

b. external carotid artery

c. middle cerebral artery

d. basilar artery

238. The orbital veins drain into the:

a. sphenoparietalsinuse

b. cavernous sinus

c. superior petrosal sinus

d. inferior petrosal sinus

239. Central retinal artery supplies blood to:

a. the anterior segment of the eye

b. the choroid and the optic nerve head

c. the inner two-thirds of the retina

d. the orbit

240. Parasympathetic innervation (via the short ciliarynerves ) controls all EXCEPT:

a. accommodation (focusing)

b. pupillary constriction

c. lacrimal gland stimulation

d. sweating (hidrosis)

241. Sympathetic innervation control all EXCEPT:

a. pupillary dilation

b. vasoconstriction

c. smooth-muscle functions of the eyelids and orbit

d. sweating (hidrosis)

e. lacrimal gland stimulation

242. Orbital fissures are all EXCEPT:

a. superior orbital fissure

b. Inferior orbital fissure

c. Schlemm’s canal

d. Optic canal

243. Orbital Sinuses are all EXCEPT:

a. The frontal sinus

b. The ethmoid sinus

c. The cavernous sinus

d. The sphenoid sinus

5. The maxillary sinus

244. The eyelid skin sensory innervations is provided by

a. CN III

b. CN IV

c. CN V

d. CN VII
245. M. Orbicularis oculi is the main muscle that:

a. close eyelid and is innervated be CN VII

b. open eyelid and is innervated be CN VII

c. close eyelid and is innervated be CN III

d. open eyelid and is innervated be CN III

246. The eyelid retractors:

a. closes eyelid and is innervated be CN VII

b. opens eyelid and is innervated be CN VII

c. closes eyelid and is innervated be CN III

d. opens eyelid and is innervated be CN III

247. The eyelid Tarsus contain:

a. Meibomian glands

b. Goblet cells

c. The accessory lacrimal glands

d. Krause’s glands

248. Meibomian glands function:

a. secretion lipid and retards tear evaporation

b. secretion mucin

c. reflex tear production

d. basal lacrimation

249. Which conjunctivitis is least likely to occur bilaterally?

a. allergic

b. viral

c. bacterial

d. vernal

250. A 7-year-old boy presents with a grossly swollen eyelid. His mother can’t think of anything that set
this off. What finding is most characteristic of orbital cellulitis?

a. chemosis

b. warmth and erythema of the eyelid

c. physically taut-feeling eyelid

d. proptosis

251. Aqueous fluid is produced in which chamber?

a. anterior chamber

b. vitreous chamber

c. posterior chamber

d. trabecular chamber

252. When a patient focuses on near objects, the lens zonules:

a. rotate

b. contract

c. relax

d. twist

253. In the absence of lens accommodation, a myopic eye focuses images:

a. in front of the lens

b. In front of the retina

c. behind the retina

d. Behind the cornea

254. What is the condition when light rays focus in front of the retina instead of on?

a. Presbyopia

b. Myopia

c. Hyperopia

d. Diplopia

255. What condition occurs when light passing through the cornea is not properly focused on the retina
and distance and close vision may appear blurry?

a. Diplopia

b. Nystagmus

c. Astigmatism

d. Entropion

256. A 41 y/o males comes into your office complaining that he can't see as well as he used to when
reading a book but his vision is fine for distance. What is the most likely Dx?

a. Presbyopia

b. Hyperopia

c. Nystagmus

d. Stabismus

257. What is the condition called when the distance between the cornea and the retina may be too
short?

a. Diplopia
b. Myopia

c. Astigmatism

d. Hyperopia

258. What is the condition called when the distance between the cornea and the retina may be too
long?

a. Diplopia

b. Myopia

c. Astigmatism

d. Hyperopia

259. What typically results from acquired ocular misalignment?

a. Strabismus

b. Diplopia

c. Pinguecula

d. Ptyerigium

260. What is jiggling of the eyes called?

a. Nystagmus

b. Strabismus

c. Ectropion

d. Entropion

261. A patient presents to your office with a painless, slowly enlarging bump on the eyelid. What is the
most likely Dx?

a. Ptyerigium
b. Pinguecula

c. Chalazion

d. Hordelum

262. A patient recently diagnosed with a herpes virus presented to the ophthalmologist with diplopia
and painful swelling of the lateral third of the upper eye lid. What is most likely the Dx?

a. Conjunctivitis

b. Herpes in the eye

c. Dacryoadenitis

d. Hyphema

263. Dry (atrophic) age related macular degeneration:

a. is characterized by new vessel formation at the macula

b. is characterized by hemorrhages at the early stages

c. is slowly progressive leading to loss of central vision

d. is rapidly progressive leading to loss of central and peripheral vision

264. All of the following can be seen with ocular adenoviral infection except:

a. Preauricular lymphadenopathy

b. Large central geographic corneal erosions

c. Multifocal subepithelial infiltrates

d. Eye redness

265. The aqueous layer of the tear film is produced by which of the following?

a. Glands of Krause

b. Meibomian glands
c. Goblet cells

d. Langerhans cells

266. The Mucus layer of the tear film is produced by which of the following?

a. Glands of Krause

b. Meiomian glands

c. Goblet cells

d. Langerhans cells

267. The Lipid or oily layer of the tear film is produced by which of the following?

a. Glands of Krause

b. Meiomian glands

c. Goblet cells

d. Langerhans cells

268. Congenital dacryocystitis

a. Presents with a mass above the medical canthal ligament

b. Usually responds to systemic antibiotics alone

c. Can be associated with an intranasal mucocele

d. Usually indicates stenosis of the bony nasolacrimal canal

269. Ptosis is

a. A lowering of the upper eyelid

b. A dilation of the pupil

c. A constriction of the pupil

d. A tumor of the eyelids

270. Which is NOT a feature of Horner’s syndrome

a. Enophthalmos

b. Miosis

c. Ptosis

d. Exophthalmos

271. Keratoconus:

a. is a non-deep ulcerative keratitis;

b. is characterized by central corneal ectasia;

c. typically occurs in patients with age> 60 years;

d. never determines impairment in visual acuity.

272. Which of the following statements about keratoconus is false?

a. characterized by central corneal thickening;

b. has a progressive evolution;

c. results in myopic astigmatism;

d. may require corneal transplantation.

273. Red eye in widespread conjunctival hyperemia that is a little sore, with normal visual acuity, normal
cornea and pupil argues for:

a. corneal abrasion;

b. acute iritis;

c. acute glaucoma;

d. acute conjunctivitis.
274. Dacryocystitis is acute infection against the:

a. lacrimal gland;

b. lacrimal sac;

c. lacrimalpuncta;

d.meibomian gland.

275. Dacryoadenitis is acute infection against the:

a. lacrimal gland;

b. lacrimal sac;

c. lacrimal puncta;

d.meibomian gland;

276. Exophthalmos may be due to the following conditions, except:

a. glioma of the optic nerve;

b. open-angle glaucoma;

c. acute sinusitis;

d. hyperthyroidism.

277. Which of the following are characteristics of an epidemic keratoconjunctivitis?

a. highly contagious, viral etiology and retrobulbar pain;

b. retrobulbar pain and decreased visual acuity;

c. high contagiousness and retrobulbar pain;

d. viral etiology, lymphadenopathy (preauricular), highly contagious

278. Typical symptoms of orbital cellulitis include:

a. fever, headache, proptosis, decreased ocular motility;

b. entropion, enoftalmo, proptosis;

c. fever, headache, enoftalmo unilateral;

d. fever, headache, ectropion.

279. The fluorescein angiography is especially useful in the course of which of the following groups of
diseases:

a. cataract and other diseases characterized by opacity of the media;

b. the eyelid malignancies;

c. keratoconjunctivitis;

d.chorioretinal vascular diseases.

280. The biomicroscopy (slit-lamp examination) is used:

a. to evaluate the power accommodative;

b. to evaluate the visual field;

c. to examine the anterior segment;

d. to evaluate the adaptation to light.

281. What is the Ishihara test used for:

a. to evaluate the sensitivity of color;

b. ) to define more precisely 1cm of vision;

c. to evaluate one 'visual acuity in the illiterate;

d. ) to define the field of view in the visually impaired;

e.to evaluate the sensitivity to contrast

282. Among the secondary lesions to Entropion, the most frequent is

a. keratitis in bandelletta

b. dacryocystitis

c. the corneal abrasion

d. the dacryoadenitis

283. Which of the following symptoms is absent in the course of bacterial conjunctivitis:

a. secretion;

b. ocular hyperemia;

c. sense of foreign body;

d. reduction in visual acuity;

e. tearing.

284. Ahordeolum is:

a. a chronic inflammatory process of the accessory lacrimal glands

b. an acute inflammatory process of Meibomian glands;

c. a malignant neoplasm of the palpebrae;

d. an acute inflammatory process of the eyelashes follicle.

285. In which place does the focus of an object at infinity fall in a myopic patient?

a. along the vertical axis behind the retina and horizontally on it;

b. in front of the retina

c. on the retina;

d. behind the retina;

e. long vertical and horizontally axis on the retina behind it

286. Dacryoadenitis means:

a. an inflammatory process of the lacrimal gland

b. an inflammation of the glands of Zeiss;

c. an inflammation of the lacrimal sac;

d. an inflammation of the puncta of lacrimal glands

287. Which is the origin of the central retinal artery ?

a. posterior ciliary artery

b. muscular artery

c. external carotid artery

d. ophthalmic artery

288. It intends chemosis?

a. edema of the conjunctiva and / or eyelids

b. edema of the cornea

c. edema of the retina

d.subconjunctivalhaemorrhage

e. edema of the choroid

289. What is the purpose of performing the Schirmer test?

a. to evaluate the aqueous outflow

b. to evaluate the quantity of lacrimal secretion

c. to evaluate the mode of lacrimal outflow

d. to evaluate the quality of lacrimal secretion

e. to evaluate the production and reabsorption of aqueous humor

290. Shirmer test evaluates:

a. photomotor reflex consensual

b. adaption to light

c. direct photomotor reflex

d. quantity of lacrimal secretion

e. Visual acuity

291. Perimetry is used to determine:

a. corneal limbus

b. circumference of the eyeball

c. eyestrain

d. corneal curvature

e. visual field

292. The tonometer serves to:

a. Measure the vascular tone of the retina

b. Measure the corneal curvature

c. Evaluate the visual aquity

d. Evaluate the opacity

e. Measure the intraocular pressure

293. The causative agent of epidemic keratoconjunctivitis is

a. an adenovirus
b. gonococcus

c. chlamydia trachomatis

d. staphylococcus aureus

e. chlamydia oculogenitalis

294. Frequently epidemic conjunctivitis is complicated by the appearance of

a. corneal infiltrates

b. dendritic corneal ulcers

c. bandkeratopathy

d. mapped corneal ulcers

e. marginal ulcers

295. the nasolacrimal duct ends in

a. superior conjunctival fornix

b. lacrimal punctum

c. inferior nasal meatus

d. superior nasal meatus

e. medial nasal meatus

296. A chalazion is:

a. a sebaceous cyst

b. an acute inflammatory process of the lacrimal gland

c. granulomatous inflammation of the Meibomian glands

d. granulomatous inflammation of the glands of Zeiss

e. an acute inflammatory process of the Meibomian glands

297. The eye structures that surround the anterior chamber are

a. cornea , iris , lens

b. cornea, sclera, iris

c.iris, lens, vitreous

d.cornea, sclera, lens

e. sclera, iris, lens

298. The eye structures that surround the posterior chamber are

a. cornea , iris , lens

b. cornea, sclera, iris

c.iris, lens, vitreous

d.cornea, sclera, lens

e. sclera, iris, lens

299. Which of the following is not a cause of ptosis

a. paralysis of the cervical sympathetic trunk

b. aplasia of the levator muscle of the upper eyelid

c. paralysis of cranial nerve 7

d. myasthenia gravis

e. paralysis of cranial nerve 3

300. In conjunctival and corneal burns from acids, the immediate therapy is the lavage of the eye with:

a. Water and saline solution

b. Glycosilated solution
c. Antibiotic solution

d. None of the answers are correct

e. All the answers are correct

301. Neuroparalytic keratitis is due to:

a. Lesion of CN V

b. Lesion of CN III

c. Eyelid ptosis

d. Lesion of CN VII

e. Paralysis of CN VI

302. Unilateral exophthalmos is due to all the following causes except:

a. Orbital varices

b. Orbital roof defects

c.Orbital cellulitis

d. Endocrinopathies

e. Optic nerve gliomas

303. Which of the following sentences regarding herpetic keratitis is false:

a. It is most often bilateral

b. It presents tendency to relapse

c. The corneal ulcer has a dendritic appearance

d. There is corneal hypoesthesia

304. Exclude among the following the ocular manifestation of carotid-cavernous fistula
a. Enophthalmos

b. Exophthalmos

c. Disturbances of ocular mobility

d. Venous conjunctival congestion

e. Secondary glaucoma

305. Characteristics of herpetic keratitis are:

a. Limbal location

b. Bilateral, ulcerative nature

c. Monolateral, stromal location

d. Monolateral, ulcerative mature

e. Bilateral, stromal location

306. The pinguecula is:

a. corneal degeneration

b. fatty degeneration of the eyelid

c. A retinal neoformation

d. A small conjunctivalneoformation

e. A conjunctival hemorrhage

307. Amblyopia is:

a. Absence of stereopsis

b. Refractive error different in the two eyes

c. Bulbar algia

d. Different visual acuity in the two eyes (despite correction)

e. Strabismus

308. The consequence of appearance of headache, lachrymation, and ocular reddening can be which of
the following refraction defects:

a. Simple miopia

b. Hypermetropia

c. Elevated miopia complicated by macular degeneration

d. None of the answers is correct

e. Elevated miopia complicated by peripheral retinal degeneration

309. The cornea Innervates via:

a. CN III

b. CN V

c. CN VI

d. CN VII

310. Which of the following sentences regarding iris is false:

a. the annular skirt of tissues that functions as an aperture to control the amount of light entering the
eye

b. the central opening in the iris is the pupil

c. 2 muscles within iris that control the size of the pupil

d. 4 muscles within iris that control the size of the pupil

e. The iris divides the anterior segment of the eye into two chambers

311. All is true about the ciliary body EXCEPT:

a. the ciliary muscle controls accommodation of the lens

b. the ciliary body produces the aqueous humor

c. The ciliarybody divides the anterior segment of the eye into two chambers

d. The lens zonular fibers suspend lens from ciliary body

312. All is true about the accommodation process EXCEPT:

a. The crystalline lens zonular fibers suspend lens from ciliary body and enable ciliary muscle to focus
the lens by changing its shape

b. When the ciliary muscle is relaxed, the zonules are stretched tight and the lens is pulled into a flatter,
thinner configuration to provide good distance vision

c. When the ciliary muscle is contract, the zonules are relaxed and the lens is pulled into a flatter,
thinner configuration to provide good distance vision

d. When we need to see up close, the ciliary muscle contracts, causing the zonules to loosen and the
lens to assume a more spherical shape

313. The refractive state of the eye when the parallel rays of light from a distant object are brought to a
focus on retina with the eye at rest (not accommodating) is:

a. Emmetropia

b. Ametropia

c. Presbyopia

d. Strabismus

314. The refractive state of the eye when the parallel rays of light are not brought to a focus on the
retina with the eye at rest:

a. Emmetropia

b. Ametropia

c. Presbyopia

d. Strabismus
315. Ametropia may be divided into EXCEPT:

a. Myopia

b. Hypermetropia

c. Strabismus

d. Astigmatism

316. Protrusion of the eye is:

a. Exophthalmos

b. Enophthalmos

c. Strabismus

d. Ptosis

317. Backward displacement of the globe is:

a. Exophthalmos

b. Enophthalmos

c. Strabismus

d. Ptosis

318. Orbital cellulitis presents with all EXCEPT:

a. a painful, proptosed eye;

b. periorbital inflammation and swelling;

c. reduced eye movements;

d. possible visual loss;

e. backward displacement of the globe;

f. systemic illness and pyrexia.

319. The Orbit function are all EXCEPT:

a. Protection to the globe

b. Stabilize ocular movements

c. Control the amount of light entering the eye

d. With 3 foramina transmission the nerves and vessels

320. The eyelids function are all EXCEPT:

a. physical protection to the eyes;

b. ensuring a normal tear film;

c. tear drainage;

d. Stabilize ocular movements.

321. Abnormally low position of the upper eyelid is:

a. Entropion

b. Ectropion

c. Proptosis

d. Ptosis

322. Inturning of the lid margin and lashes towards the globe is:

a. Entropion

b. Ectropion

c. Proptosis

d. Ptosis
323. Eversion of the lid away from the globe is:

a. Entropion

b. Ectropion

c. Proptosis

d. Ptosis

324. Very common, chronic inflammation of the lid margins is:

a. Entropion

b. Ectropion

c. Blepharitis

d. Ptosis

325. The common, painless condition in which an obstructed meibomian gland:

a. Hordeolum

b. Chalazion

c. Blepharitis

d. Proptosis

326. The exquisitely painful abscess of an eyelash follicle is:

a. Hordeolum

b. Chalazion

c. Blepharitis

d. Proptosis

327. The lipid - containing bilateral lesions of the lid skin which may be associated with
hypercholesterolaemia:
a. hordeolum

b. Proptosis

c. Blepharitis

d. Xanthelasmas

328. The condition in which aberrant eyelashes are directed backwards towards the globe:

a. Hordeolum

b. Chalazion

c. Trichiasis

d. Blepharitis

329. The lacrimal gland inflammatory disease is:

a. Hordeolum

b. Dacryoadenitis

c. Trichiasis

d. Dacryocystitis

330. The lacrimal sac inflammatory disease with tear drainage abnormalities is:

a. Hordeolum

b. Dacryoadenitis

c. Trichiasis

d. Dacryocystitis

331. Sudden painless loss of vision is in all cases EXCEPT

a. Central retinal artery occlusion

b. Acute angle-closed glaucoma

c. Retinal detachment involving macular area

d. Ischemic central retinal vein occlusion

332. Sudden painful loss of vision is in all cases EXCEPT

a. Central retinal artery occlusion

b. Acute angle-closed glaucoma

c. Acuteiridocyclitis

d. Chemical injuries to the eyeball

333. Gradual painless defective visionis in all cases EXCEPT

a. Central retinal artery occlusion

b. Progressivepterygium involving pupillary area

c. Senile cataract

d. Age-related macular degeneration

334. A 65 y/o female has just experienced a rapid onset of severe pain with profound visual loss. While
talking to the woman you find out that she sees "halos around lights". Upon examination see document:
red eye, cloudy cornea, dilated pupil, and the eye is hard to palpate. What is the most likely Dx?

a. Acute open-angle glaucoma

b. Retinal detachment

c. Acute uveitis

d. Acute angle closure glaucoma

335. How will a patient most likely describe retinal detachment?

a. Tunnel vision
b. Halos around lights

c. Curtain coming down over the eyes

d. Double vision

336. Ophthalmoscopic exam revealed: pallid swelling of retina and a cherry -red spot at the fovea.
What is the most likely Dx?

a. Cataract

b. Open-angle glaucoma

c. Macular degeneration

d. Central retinal artery occlusion

337. Glaucoma is an acquired optic nerve atrophy often associated with increased intraocular pressure.
What type is a dysfunction of the aqueous humor drainage system with no visible pathology to the
anterior chamber angle

a. Open-angle glaucoma

b. Angle-closure glaucoma

c. normotension glaucoma

338. What occurs when abnormal blood vessels grow under the retina affecting your central vision?

a. Diabetic retinopathy

b. High blood pressure

c. Macular hole

d. Presbyopia

339. A Diabetes Mellitus patient will most likely have what disease/condition?

a. Red eyes due to high blood sugar levels

b. Damage to fragile blood vessels inside the retina

C. Cataracts

d. Optic neuritis

340. In Marfan syndromes, the most characteristic ocular symptom is:

a. megalocornea

b. ectopialentis

c. astigmatism

d. microphthalmos

e. keratoconus

341. Red eye for conjunctival reactions and diffuse pericornealhyperemiawith violent pains, dilated pupil
and corneal clouding argues for:

a. acute iritis;

b. corneal ulcer;

c. acute glaucoma;

d. acute conjunctivitis;

e. papillitis

342. Iridocyclitis in chronic juvenile rheumatoid arteritis can lead to:

a. decrease of vision;

b. complicated cataracts;

c. secondary glaucoma;

d. none of the above answers are correct;

e. all of the above answers are correct.

343. The red eye withpericornealhyperemia with more or less intense pain, normal cornea and
constricted pupil argues for:

a. corneal abrasion;

b. dacryocystitis;

c. acute conjunctivitis;

d. acute iritis;

e. cataract intumescent

344. The acute symptoms of iridocyclitis (anterior uveitis or iritis) present all of the following except:

a. pupillary miosis;

b. enophthalmos;

c. pain;

d. pericorneal hyperemia

e. visual loss;

345. An ocular symptom that can lead to suspicion of a peripheral paralysis of cranial nerve VII is:

a. ptosis

b. enophthalmos

c. diplopia

d. lagophthalmos

e. entropion

346. One ocular symptom that can lead to the suspicion of a paralysis of the third cranial nerve is:

a. amblyopia;

b. lagophthalmos;

c. exophthalmos;
d. ptosis;

e. homonymous quadrantanopia

347. One symptom that provides evidence for the paralysis of the sixth cranial nerve is:

a. ptosis:

b. dilated pupils;

c. lacrimation disorder;

d. Lateral Rectus muscle dysfunction/ deviated eye inside;

e. lagophthalmos;

348. Which of the following symptoms appears in rhegmatogenous retinal detachment:

a. ocular pain;

b. floaters;

c. photophobia;

d.eye redness.

349. Neovascular glaucoma is secondary to:

a. keratoconus;

b. atrophic (dry) macular degeneration;

c. keratopathy;

d. ischemic retinal vascular disease.

350. What are the possible side effects of local steroid therapy?

a. cataracts, redness and pain;

b. ocular hypertension, cataracts and blepharospasm;

c. ocular hypertension, cataracts and dacryocystitis;

d. ocular hypertension and cataracts

351. The metamorphopsia is:

a. the photophobia that accompanies the presence of a keratitis;

b. color vision different from reality;

c. characterized by an anomalous vision of moving objects;

d. the deformed vision of the images.

352. Which of the following eye conditions can be most often the cause of macular edema:

a. amblyopia

b. myopia;

c. diabetic retinopathy;

d. the bacterial conjunctivitis;

e. glaucoma.

353. retinal detachment is

a. the separation of the inner limiting of other retinal layers

b. the separation of the retina from the Bruch’s membrane

c. the separation of the pars plana from the ciliary body

d. the separation of the neurosensory retina from the pigment epithelium

e. the separation of the choricocapillaris from the choroid.

354. which of the following signs is absent in the course of acute iridocyclitis

a. pericorneal injections
b. mydriasis

c. endothelial precipitates

d. miosis

355. anarteriovenous intersection (Salus’ sign) is

a. the point where an artery compresses the retinal vein below

b. the point at which an artery bifurcates parallel to the vein

c. the point at which a retinal vein compresses an artery below

d. the point at which artery and vein run close to each other

356. The most common ocular sign seen in a patient affected by homocystinuria is:

a. Elevated miopia

b. Strabismus

c. Ectopia of the lens

d. Keratitis

357. Proliferative Diabetic retinopathy is characterized by the following manifestations, except:

a. Elevated miopia

b. Neovasclular glaucoma

c. Vitreoretinic neovascularization

d. Secondary retinal detachment

e. Rubeosisiridis

358. Leukocoria is due to all of the following except

a. Herpetic keratitis
b. Congenital cataracts

c. Premature retinopathy

d. Retinoblastoma

359. Non-proliferative Diabetic retinopathy is characterized by all the following symptoms except:

a. Micro-aneurysms

b. Cottony nodules

c. Retinal hemorrhages

d. Hard exudates

e. Retinal detachment

360. Among the following signs which one gives suspicion of glaucoma

a. Papilledema

b. Hemianopia

c. Ocular hypertension

d. Pupil miosis

e. None of the answers are correct

361. Open angle glaucoma is characterized by:

a. Ocular hypertension, alterations of the pupil, perimetric defects

b. Papillary excavation ,Ocular hypertension, alterations of central vision

c. Pupil mydriasis, perimetric defects, papillary excavation

d. Ocular hypertension, perimetric defects, papillary excavation

e. Hypertensive crisis, amaurosis, papilledema

362. Typical symptoms of non complicated cataract are:

a. Index myopia, reduced visual acuity, epiphora

b. Reduced visual acuity, pain

c. Index myopia, reduced visual acuity

d. Reduced visual acuity, index myopia, pain

e. Reduced visual acuity, photophobia

363. A patient affected by primary open angle glaucoma often complains of:

a. Sudden ciliary pain

b. Sudden reduction of vision

c. No symptoms

d. Pain in the bulb evoked by movements of the bulb

364. Which of the following predispose to the insurgence of occlusion of venous retinal vessels

a. Glaucoma

b. Arterial hypertension

c. Arteriovenous crossings

d. Dyslipidemia

e. All the answers are correct

365. A clouding of the lens:

a. amblyopia

b. cataract

c. presbyopia

d.leukocoria
366. Night blindness:

a. mydriasis

b. nyctalopia

c. scotoma

d. hemianopsia

367. What part of the eye can be affected by diabetes?

a. the retina

b. the sclera

c. the pupil

d. the cyliary body

368. The little enlargements of the retinal blood vessels is:

a. retinal hemorrhages

b. microaneurisms

c. neovascularization

d. hard exudates

369. Homonymous hemianopia is the result of a lesion in:

a. Optic chiasma

b. Retina

c. optic tract

d. Optic nerve
370. Optic nerve axon emerges from:

a. Ganglion cells

b. Rods and cones

c. Amacrine cells

d. Inner nuclear layer

371. Papilloedema has all the following characteristics except:

a. Marked loss of vision

b. Blurring of disc margins

c. Hyperemia of disc

d. Field defect

372. Which is not found in papilloedema?

a. Blurred vision

b. Blurred margins of disc

c. Cupping of disc

d. Retinal edema

373. Night blindness is caused by:

a. Central retinal vein occlusion

b. Dystrophies of retinal rods

c. Dystrophies of the retinal cones

d. Retinal detachment

374. In Central retinal artery occlusion, a cherry red spot is due to:
a. Hemorrhage at macula

b. Increased choroidal perfusion

c. Increase in retinal perfusion at macula

d. The contrast between pale retina and reddish choroids

375. In retinal detachment, fluid accumulates between:

a. Outer plexiform layer and inner nuclear layer.

b. Neurosensory retina and layer of retinal pigment epithelium

c. Nerve fiber layer and rest of retina.

d. Retinal pigment epithelium and Bruch’s membrane.

376. A one-month old baby is brought with complaints of photophobia and watering. Clinical
examination shows normal tear passages and clear but large cornea. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. Congenital dacryocystitis

b. Interstitial keratitis

c. Keratoconus

d. Buphthalmos

377. Neovascular glaucoma follows:

a. Thrombosis of central retinal vein

b. Acute congestive glaucoma

c. Staphylococcal infection

d. Hypertension

378. All the following associated open angle glaucoma include all the following except:

a. Loss of peripheral fields

b. Enlarged blind spot

c. Tubular vision

d. Loss of central fields

379. All of the following are part of uvea except:

a. Pars plicata

b. Pars plana

c. Choroid

d. Schwalbe’s line

380. Ptosis and mydriasis are seen in:

a. Facial palsy

b. Peripheral neuritis

c. Oculomotor palsy

d. Sympathetic palsy

381. Ciliary injection (pericorneal redness) is not seen in:

a. Herpetic keratitis

b. Bacterial ulcer

c. Chronic iridocyclitis

d. Catarrhal conjunctivitis

e. Acute iridocyclitis

382. The sure diagnostic sign of corneal ulcer is

a. Ciliary injection
b. Blepharospasm

c. Miosis

d. Positive fluorescein test.

383. Fifth nerve palsy could cause:

a. Ptosis

b. Proptosis

c. Neuropathic keratopathy

d. Lagophthalmos

384. A painful, tender, non itchy localized redness of the conjunctiva can be due to:

a. Bulbar spring catarrh.

b. Episcleritis.

c. Vascular pterygium.

d. Pinguecula.

385. A recurrent bilateral conjunctivitis occurring with the onset of hot weather in young boys with
symptoms of burning, itching, and lacrimation with large flat topped cobble stone papillae raised areas
in the palpebral conjunctiva is:

A. Trachoma

B. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis

C. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis

D. Spring catarrh.

386. All the following are extraocular muscle of eye except:

a. Superior rectus
b. Ciliary muscle

c. Inferior oblique

d. Superior oblique

387. Parasympathetic fibers destined for the pupil reside in the?

A. medulla

B. medial portion of CN III

C. posterior communicating artery

D. pons

388. Which of the following nerves does not enter the orbit through the superior orbital fissure?

A. CN II

B. CN III

C. CN IV

D. CN VI

389. In which of the following conditions bilateral inferior subluxation of lense is seen ?

A. Ocular trauma

B. Marfan’s syndrome

C. Homocystinuria

D. Hyperlysinemia

390. Most common cause of vitreous hemorrhage in adults is?

A. Trauma

B. Hypertension
C. Diabetes

D. Pathological myopia

391. Which is NOT a feature of 3rd Nerve palsy ?

A. Ptosis

B. Diplopia

C. Miosis

D. Outwards Deviation of eye

392. The most commonly serious complication of mucopurulent conjunctivitis is

a. madarosis

b. conjunctival scarring

c. dry eye

d. corneal ulcer

393. Third cranial nerve innervates all of the following except

a. Superior oblique muscle

b. Levatorpalpebrae muscle

c. Inferior oblique muscle

d. Medial rectus muscle

394. All of the following types of entropion are known except

a. Spastic entropion

b. Senile entropion

c. Paralytic entropion
d. Cicatricialentropion

395. A male patient was complaining of continuous redness of both eyes, foreign body sensation, and
frequent loss of lashes. On examination, the lid margins were hyperaemic, and the lashes were matted
with yellow crusts, which left painful ulcers on trying to move. The most reliable diagnosis is

A. Scaly blepharitis

B. Cicartricialentopion

C. Spastic entopion

D. Ulcerative blepharitis

396. All is true of the trigeminal nerve causes EXCEPT:

a. decreased blinking

b. decreased corneal sensation

c. mydriasis

d. decreased reflex tear production

397. The following are true about m. orbicularis oculi EXCEPT:

a. paralysis causes entropion

b. close the eye

c. it is innervated by the facial nerve

d. paralysis causes upper lid retraction

398. The following are true about the lens EXEPT:

a. the lens is supplied by the ophthalmic nerve

b. the anterior surface has a greater radius of curvature than the posterior surface

c. during accommodation the lens moves towards the cornea

d. is avascular structure

399. The following are associated with cataract formation:

a. dehydration

b. smoking

c. alcohol

d. poor nutrition

e. ultraviolet light

f. all is true

g. none is true

400. Retinitis Pigmentosacan be:

a. an inherited condition with a “bone spiculed” fundus appearance causing loss of central vision

b. a sporadic condition with a “salt and pepper” fundus appearance causing loss of peripheral vision

c. an inherited condition with a “bone spiculed” fundus appearance causing loss of peripheral vision

d. a sporadic condition with a "bone spiculed fundus" appearance causing loss of peripheral vision

e. an inherited condition with a “salt and pepper” fundus appearance causing loss of central vision