101th Odontoma

c. It is female prediction
d. There is no jaw prediction
e. Classic radiographic appearance of a "soap bubbles" or honeycomb" pattern.

51. Regard ameloblastic fibroma all the following are true except:
a. It occur more commonly than ameloblastom in children
b. It composed of both epithelial and mesenchymal tissue.
c. It involve the mandible more than the maxilla.
d. Radigraphically present with unilocular or mulilocular with evidence of root
resorption.
e. Enculation and curettage is adequate treatment.

52. Regard odontoma all the following are true except:

a. Most common odontogenic neoplasm in children
b. Typically found incidentally in radiographic surveillance.
c. It is mixed in origin.
d. It is usually cause bone expansion
e. Enculation is treatment of choice.

53. Central gaint cell granuloma (CGCG)

a. On radiographic examination the lesion is usually multiloculated
b. Occur almost exclusively in the jaw.
c. Predominantly affect the children and young adults.
d. Female more often than male patients.
e. All of the above.

54. In Brown tumor all are true except:

a. May present clinical manifestation of secondary or hereditary, hyperthyroidism.
b. Bone demineralization and fibrous replacement are found in long bone.
c. In the jaws these appears as multiple radiolucent lesions.
d. Histologically are identical to CGCG lesions.
e. Enculation is the treatment of choice

55. Regarding Burkitt's Lymphoma all the followings are true except:
a. Is an undifferentiated (Non-Hodgkin's) Lymphoma.
b. The endemic form is associated with Epstein Bar Virus.
c. The endemic form involve the jaws more frequently
d. The mandible affected twice as often as the maxilla
e. On radiographic examination anon specific radiolucency seen.
 d. The lesion is found most often in the mandible.
e. is usually a asymptomatic

82. Most suggested etiology of necrotizing sialometaplasia is:

a. trauma
b. infection
c. ischaemia
d. neoplastic changes
e. iatrogenic

83. The major concentrations of proprioceptive receptors providing information about

position of the TMJ are located in
a. the capsule and ligaments of the TMJ and the medial pterygoid muscle.
b. the capsule and ligaments of the TMJ and the lateral pterygoid muscle.
c. the articular disc of the TMJ and the medial pterygoid muscle.
d. the articular disc of the TMJ and the lateral pterygoid muscle.
e. the articular disc of the TMJ and the masseter muscle.

84. Treatment of state T3N1 of carcinoma maxilla is?

a. radiation therapy only
b. chemotherapy only
c. surgery and radiation
d. chemotherapy and radiation
e. surgery only

85. A patient with cheek cancer has a tumor of 2.5 cm located close to and involving the
lower alveolus. A single mobile homolateral lymphnode measuring 6 cm is palpable
the TNM staging is?
a. T4 N1 M0.
b. T3 N1 M0.
c. T3 N2 M0.
d. T4 N2 M0.
e. T2 N1 M0.
86. General indications of arthroscopic intervention of TMJ include all of the followings
except
a. Articular disorder
b. Mandibular dislocation
c. Advanced fibrous ankylosis
d. Preauricular atypical facial pain
e. Arthralgia

87. Regarding Ameloblastomas all are true except:

a. Benign locally invasive odontogenic tumors
b. Of epithelial origin
c. Often present as painless, slow growing tumors
d. Differentiated between solid and cystic types can made only histological sample
71. Which of the following statements about calvarial bone grafting is TRUE?
A. The calvarial bone graft has a higher incidence of resorption that iliac crest
B. The dural layer does not adhere closely to the under surface of the inner calvarial
portion of the skull.
C. The place for harvesting the graft is below the temporal line.
D. Midline calvarial bone grafts are prone to few complications; however the
surgical technique is more demanding.
E. Harvesting the graft above the temporal line will avoid complications because the
calvarium is thicker above the temporal line.

72. Which of the following antibiotics is contraindicated with the use of Botox?
A. Penicillin
B. Cephalosporin
C. Tetracycline
D. Aminoglycoside
E. Clindamycin

73. Which of the following would benefit the LEAST by using Botulinum Exotoxin A
(Botox) injections?
A. Glabellar lines
B. Horizontal forehead lines
C. Lateral orbital lines “crow’s feet”
D. Nasal flare
E. Nasolabial folds

74. Which of the following regarding the diagnosis of flap venous congestion is
FALSE?
A. The flap is warm.
B. The flap has an edematous appearance.
C. The flap has a purplish blue color.
D. The flap’s color blanches with pressure but does not refill.
E. A pinprick demonstrates dark venous blood.

75. Which of the following anatomic sites will heal by Second-Intention with the worst
cosmetic result?
A. Temple
B. Concave surface of the eye
C. Antihelix
 A. Primary closure with skin grafting
B. Transposition flap
C. Rotational myocutaneous flap from the lateral canthal area, Tenzel Flap
D. Two-stage reconstruction, Hughes tarso-conjuntival flap
E. Two-stage reconstruction, the Cutler Beard technique

67. If a skin graft is wrapped in saline soaked gauze and placed in a sterile jar in a
refrigerator at 4° C, what is the maximum time that it can be stored before grafting?
A. 72 hours
B. 1 week
C. 2 weeks
D. 3 weeks
E. 4 weeks

68. Which of the following reconstructive surgical techniques is the BEST for closure of
defects encompassing 40% of the lower lip but not involving the oral commisure?

A. The Abbé technique

B. The Estlander technique
C. The Karapandzic technique
D. The Cutler Beard technique
E. Primary closure

69. Which of the following statements about the paramedian forehead flap is FALSE?

A. It is a axial flap.
B. It is mostly supplied by the infratrochlear vessels.
C. It is useful for reconstruction of any or all nasal subunits.
D. It is a delayed flap requiring a minimum of two stages.
E. The single-vessel paramedian forehead flap has a pedicle of approximately 1.5 cm
wide at its origin.

70. Which calvarium bone is the thickest?

A. Parietal
B. Temporal
C. Frontal
D. Occipital
E. There is no significant difference in thickness
 D. Rhomboid flap
E. Nasolabial flap

62. Which of the following statements is TRUE about Millard technique for unilateral
cleft lip repair?

A.Minimal tissue is discarded.

B. The suture line is not well camouflaged.
C. The alar base and nasal floor are difficult to reconstruct due to poor access to the
nose.
D. The procedure will not allow alterations or adjustments during the operation.
E. Contraction of the vertical scar and/or notching of the vermilion is seldom
encountered.

63. Which of the following subtypes of basal cell carcinoma (BCC) is the MOST
common?
A. Nodular BCC
B. Superficial BCC
C. Morpheaform BCC
D. Infiltrative BCC
E. Basosquamous carcinoma

64. Which of the following areas is the IDEAL skin/donor site in the repair of a defect of
the skin at the tip of the nose?
A. Preauricular
B. Postauricular
C. Forehead
D. Supraclavicular
E. Infraclavicular

65. Which of the following anesthetic agents has the longest duration of action?
A. Lidocaine (plain)
B. Lidocaine (with epinephrine)
C. Tetracaine
D. Bupivacaine
E. Cocaine

66. Which of the following techniques is the IDEAL for the reconstruction of an upper
or lower eyelid defect of up to 50%?
56. Branchial fistulae and sinuses all the followings are true except:
a. Branchial fistulae are congenital defects consisting of a skinlined tract.
b. Opening internally as a slit on the anterior aspect of the tonsillar fossa i f it is of
second arch origin.
c. The external opening is at the anterior border of t h e sternocleidomastoid muscle.
d. They arise as a failure of completion o f development o f the branchial apparatus
including the first, second, third and fourth arches.
e. Clinically, first branchial cleft fistulae are the most common.

57. Keratoacanthoma:
a. This benign tumour of epidermis is seen on the lips.
b. It is characterized by slow growth
c. Aetiology is Epstein Bar Virus.
d. The mature lesion, a nodule with a central crater, mimics squamous carcinoma
clinically and histologically.
e. Aggressive excision, often necessary for to prevent recurrence.
58. Fibromatosis:
a. Presentation is usually in the first decade with a painless slowly growing mass.
b. The cheeks, tongue and submandibular region are favoured oral sites.
c. Lesions may cause erosion of bone.
d. Histologically,differentiation from a low-grade fibrosarcoma may be difficult.
e. All of the above

59. Cystic Hygroma:

a. Presents at birth with a large, fluctuant swelling often ramifying into the base of
tongue and floor of mouth.
b. The cystic fluid is straw-coloured with high protein content.
c. Early ntervention when the lesion is smaller offers the best chance o f cure.
d. The extensive cystic dilatation of the vessels accounts for the progressive growth.
e. Lack of a discrete margin and growth along tissue planes and neurovascular
bundles hamper removal.

60. The nasolabial angle in the male is characterized by which of the following?
A. It is 80 degrees.
B. It is 105 degrees.
C. It is more acute than the female.
D. It is more obtuse than the female.
E. There is no difference between males and females.

61. Which is the following surgical technique is best for reconstruction of a full-
thickness defect involving 40% of the upper lip reaching the oral commisure?
A. Abbé flap
B. Estlander flap
C. Primary closure
 41- Enlargement of lymph nodes in draining area of primary neoplasm occurs due to:

A. Necrotic products being processed in the lymph nodes.

B. Immunogenic reaction to tumors cells.

C. Cancerous involvement.

D. All of the above.

42- The high recurrence rate of keratocysts is incriminated to

A. Its fragile thin lining .

B. Presence of daughter cysts in the cystic lining .

C. Presence of daughter cysts in the capsule of the cyst.

D. All of the above.

43- The early manifestation of sialadenitis on a sialogram is:

A. Terminal acini are dilated.

B. The acinar system is dilated.

C. The ductal system is dilated.

D. Constriction of ductal and acinar system.

44- Principles of flap design .

A. Allows surgical access to the original position .

B. Carries its own blood supply .

C. is out lined by a surgical incision .

D. Can be replaced in the original position .

E. All of the above.

45- Pharyngiomaxillary space infections may result from which of the following:

A. Spread from the retropharyngeal space.

B . Tonsilitis and salivary gland infection..

C. Middle ear infection.

 C. Confirmed cervical nodal metastasis.

D. Perineural invasion.

E. Well –differentiated histology.

33- In tongue cancer ,the site least affected is:

A. Lateral margin.

B. Ventral surface.

C. Dorsal surface.

D. Tip.

E. Posterior portion.

34- The requirement for postoperative radiotherapy when treating alveolar carcinoma is
based on all of the following except.

A. Bony invasion.

B. Dental involvement.

C. Nodal metastasis.

D. Perineural invasion.

35- Craniofacial dysostosis with syndactyly is also known as :

A. Crouzon s syndromes.

B. A pert s syndromes.

C.Treacher Collin s syndromes.

D. Eraneschetti syndromes.

36- Triangular frontal defect, parrot’s beak nose, hypertelorism and prognathic mandible are
features of:

A. mandibulofacial dysostosis.

B. Craniofacial dysostosis.

C. Pierre Robin syndrome.

D. Cleidocranial dysostosis.
 C. Lung.

D. Prostate.

E. Ovary.

29- The odontogenic myxoma .

A. Histologically resembles the dental pulp.

B. Has a radiographic and clinical presentation compatible with that of an

ameloblastoma.

C. Is predisposed in malignant degeneration.

D. A and B.

E. A ,B and C.

30- The most common salivary gland neoplasm in children is:

A. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma.

B. Lymphangioma.

C. Hemangioma.

D. Warthin s tumor.

E. Adenocarcinoma.

31- The malignant salivary gland neoplasm that shows the greatest propensity for perineural
invasion is.

A. Adenocarcinoma.

B. Adenoid cystic carcinoma.

C. Acinous cell carcinoma.

D. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma.

E. Carcinoma ex-pleomorphic adenoma.

32- All of the following are indicators of a poor prognosis except.

A. Mandibular involvement.

B. Recurrent tumors.
 b- Gamma radiation
c- Uv radiation
d- Autoclaving
e- Hot air oven
17- If patient comes with history of cardiac problem taking aspirin what will be the possible
complication if you do extraction
a- Increases bleeding time
b- Increases prothrombin time
c- Increases clotting time
d- Increases partial thrombin time
e- Decreases bleeding time
18- While removing an impacted wisdom tooth , if we have to do the apicectomy of second
molar also which type of incision should be given
a- Semilunar
b- Ward’s
c- Extended Ward’s
d- Envelope
e- Sub marginal
19- Lip switch procedure is also called
a- Simple alveoloplasty
b- Sub mucosal vestibuloplasty
c- Labial frenectomy
d- Tran positional flap vestibuloplasty
e- Maxillary augmentation procedure
20- If patient is taking heparin and we have to do surgery immediately , the effects of heparin
can be reversed by
a- Vitamin K
b- Protamine sulfate
c- Fresh frozen plasma
d- Hydrocortisone
e- 5 % dextrose
21- The transfer coping in an implant is used
a- To position an analog in the impression
b- To transfer the position of the implant in the mouth to the cast
c- To gain exact implant positioning
d- All of the above
22- According to Sawhney’s classification of TMJ ankylosis type II cases present
a- A bridge of bone between the ramus and the zygomatic arch
b- A joint entirely replaced by a mass of bone
c- Flattening of the condyles with no joint space seen on the radiograph
 b- Severe combined immunodeficiency
c- Secondary immunodeficiency
d- None of the above
9- Which of the following is not an oral manifestation in dialysis patients
a- Tooth erosion
b- Bleeding from gingiva
c- Enamel hypoplasia
d- Hematoma formation
10- An aberrant salivary gland is found
a- Posterior to the first molar near the body of the mandible
b- Posterior to the first molar in the maxilla
c- Anterior to the first molar in the maxilla
d- None of the above
11- The diagnosis of periapical granuloma can be made by
a- Radiographic picture
b- Correlation of radiograph and clinical picture
c- Size of the lesion
d- None of the above
12- The cyst which is most appropriate to resolve by endodontic therapy without surgery is
a- Apical cyst
b- Inflammatory radicular cyst
c- Periapical cyst
d- Bay cyst
13- The theories given for the pathogenesis of focal osteoporotic marrow defect are
a- Aberrant bone regeneration after extraction
b- Persistent fetal marrow
c- Both
d- None
14- A baby in his infancy has fever of unexplained origin , is likely to have
a- Peutz Jegher’s syndrome
b- Hereditary ectodermal dysplasia
c- Fibrous dysplasia
d- Focal dermal hypoplasia
15- Presence of calcifications under the skin are known as
a- Dystrophic
b- Metastatic
c- Calcinosis
d- Skinosis
16- Which of the following method of sterilization is ineffective
a- Ethylene oxide gas
1- When attempting to ligate the lingual artery low in the submandibular triangle , which of
the following nerve is most susceptible to damage
a- Facial
b- Lingual
c- Accessory
d- Hypoglossal
2- A patient develops facial edema one day after removal of a tooth , instructions to the
patient should be to use
a- Warm, wet applications outside and inside the mouth
b- Cold applications outside and inside the mouth
c- Intraoral cold applications only
d- Intraoral hot applications only
3- Local anesthetic agents act by
a- Increasing the rate of depolarization
b- Shortening the rate of repolarization
c- Decreasing the threshold potential
d- Increasing the threshold potential
4- Bi – beveled chisels are used primarily to
a- Remove bone
b- Split teeth
c- Make purchase points
d- All of the above
5- The primary intent of an extra oral surgical dressing is to
a- Support the incision
b- Protect the surgical site from trauma
c- Absorb drainage
d- Keep the surgical field from infection
6- Which of the following is the pathognomonic oral manifestation of diabetes?
a- Oral candidiasis
b- Burning tongue
c- Gingival disease
d- Median rhomboid glossitis
7- The most frequent site of brain involvement in cerebral abscess due to odontogenic
infection is
a- Frontal lobe
b- Parietal lobe
c- Temporal lobe
d- Occipital lobe
8- Congenital defects of the mouth and jaws are seen in
a- X – linked agammaglobulinemia
 d- Bony fusion of the outer edge of the articular surface of the joint
23- To drain pus from an abscess of the pterygomandibular space from an intra-oral approach
, the muscle most likely to be incised is the
a- Buccinator
b- Temporal
c- Medial pterygoid
d- Lateral pterygoid
24- The tumors which are poorly differentiated are
a- Radiosensitive
b- Radio resistant
c- Radio tropic
d- Radio refractive
25- The management of ossifying fibroma consists of
a- En – block resection
b- Curettage / enucleation
c- Segmental resection
d- Cryosurgery

26- Which of the following factors is the most important predictor of tumor recurrence in the
neck following radical neck dissection?
a. The location of the primary tumor.
b. The number of histologically positive nodes.
c. The presence of multiple histologically positive nodes.
d. The presence of positive nodes at multiple levels in the neck.
e. The presence of extra capsular extension of tumor.
27- Branchial cyst commonly arises from treatment of :

A. First branchial cleft.

B. Second branchial cleft.

C. Third branchial cleft.

D. Second branchial arch.

E. Third branchial arch.

28- The most common source of malignant tumor metastasis to the parotid gland and parotid
lymph nodes is :

A. Stomach.

B. Colon.
37- Once the stone in submandibular salivary gland duct has been identified the incision
should be placed

A. Longitudinally and duct sutured .

B. Transversely and duct sutured .

C. Longitudinally and surgical wound closed without suturing the duct.

D. Transversely and surgical wound closed without suturing the duct.

38- A 14 year old female patient presented with swelling on right side of face in maxillo-
zygomatic area ,the swelling has been slowly progressive in nature, radiograph shows
diffuse radioopaque mass involving maxillary sinus and zygoma with a typical ground
glass appearance this is a characteristic picture of

A. Osteoma.

B. Ossifying fibroma.

C. Fibrous dysplasia.

D. Osteo sarcoma.

39- A 8 year old boy presented with bilateral swelling of mandible which was asymptomatic
and slowly progressive in nature, radiologic picture had extensive bilateral multilocular
radiolucencies in posterior mandibular angle and body , this is a characteristic picture of

A. Hand- Schuller- Christian disease .

B. Letterer- Siwe disease.

C. Cherubism.

D. Eosinophillic granuloma.

40- Which of the following craniofacial synostosis syndromes is characterized by the following
anatomical features: craniosynostosis , Brachycephaly , shallow orbits with eyes proptosis,
maxillary hypoplasia and absence of syndactyly.

A. A pert s syndromes.

B. Crouzon s syndromes.

C. Gardener s syndromes.

D .Carpenters syndromes.
 D . A and B.

E. All of the above.

46- In Ludwig s angina the classical sign is :

A. Tongue is raised and falls back causing respiratory embarrassment.

B. That sub mandibular sublingual and sub mental spaces are involved though
tongue may not be raised.
C .That sub mandibular, sublingual and sub mental spaces are involved bilaterally.

D. Board like brawny indurations of mandible with tongue falling back and causing
respiratory embarrassment.

47- The treatment of localized osteitis is:

A. Debridement , curettage and sedative packing.

B. Curettage, irrigation and sedative packing.

C. irrigation and sedative packing.

D. None of the above.

48- While removing a submandibular gland one encounters

A. Facial artery ,facial vein ,cervical branch of facial nerve and lingual nerve.

B. Facial artery ,facial vein ,cervical branch of facial nerve only.

C. Facial artery ,facial vein, hypoglossal nerve only.

D. Facial artery ,facial vein, marginal mandibular branch of facial nerve only.

49- The swelling of bone usually seen with a cyst is due to

A. Ballooning of cortical plates.

B. New subperiosteal deposition .

C. Soft tissues reactive swelling .

D. Cortical plates being reabsorbed and cystic lining causes the swelling .

50. About odontogenic myxoma all the following are true except:
a. Rare mesenchymal origin tumor
b. More commonly in children
 D. Forehead
E. Chin

76. In which of the following medical conditions is the use of synthetic tissue adhesives
for wound closure indicated?
A. Patients with insulin-dependent diabetes
B. Patients with collagen vascular disease
C. Patients with tendency to form hypertrophic scars or keloids
D. Patients with a known history of an allergic response to formaldehyde
E. Wound depth beyond the depth of the dermis with tendency toward skin-edge
inversion

77. In parotid surgeries the most reliable way of identifying the facial nerve is
a. By using the tragal pointer
b. By removing the styloid process
c. By tracing it from the mastoid cavity
d. Searching at the tympanomastoid sulcus
e. By tracing TMJ.

78. Superfical parotidectomy is contraindicated in patients with sialectasis because

a. There is a high risk of fistula formation
b. There is high risk of infection
c. There is risk of facial palsy
d. There is high risk of dry mouth
e. There is high risk of recurrence

79. Parotid calculi are diagnosed by

a. Plain radiograph of parotid gland
b. CT scan
c. Plain radiograph occlusal view
d. X ray skull lateral view
e. TMJ view

80. In calcifying odontogenic cyst all are true except:

a. Has many features of an odontogenic cyst and tumor
b. It originates from developmental odontogenic epithelial tissue.
c. The lesion usually occurs as a rapidly enlarging
d. Frequently painless and non-tender swelling of the jaw.
e. Often associated with an unerupted tooth.

81. In Aneurysmal Bone Cyst all are true except

a. is a benign intra-osseous lesion characterized by blood filled spaces of varying
size.
b. The cyst occurs almost exclusively in children and young adults.
c. In mature stage the cyst appears unilocular
 e. Intraoral cystic Ameloblastomas have higher tendency to recur than solide
Ameloblastomas

88. In timing of alveolar bone grafting all are true except:

a. < 2 years of age: primary grafting
b. 2-5 years early secondary grafting
c. 6-12 years mixed dentition secondary grafting
d. Most literatures support early grafting
e. The effect of grafting after 6 years will result in minimal to no alteration of facial
growth.

89. Structurally BMPs are related member of,

a. TGF-β subfamily
b. Immunoglobulin subfamily
c. Toll-like receptor subfamily
d. TNF- receptor subfamily
e. Platelet derived growth factor (PDGF) subfamily

90. Bisphosphinates have all the feature except

a. Interfere with osteoblast metabolism
b. Posses anticollagenase properties
c. Increase bone density
d. Promote bone calcification
e. Prevent the loss of bone mass

91. Multiple cystic lesions inside both the parotid glands in a patient should alert the
clinician for a possible diagnosis of
a. HIV infection
b. Measles infection
c. Mumps
d. Pleomorphic adenoma
e. Malignancy

92. Strawberry hemangioma is

a. Capillary Hemangioma
b. Cavernous Hemangioma
c. Arterial Hemangioma
d. Plexiform Hemangioma
e. Port wine Hemangioma

93. Distraction osteogenesis all are true except:

a. This regenerative potential to induce the regeneration and remodeling of bone,
cartilage, nerve, muscle, blood vessels, and skin.
b. Defined as the creation of neoformed bone and adjacent soft tissue after the
gradual and controlled displacement of a bone fragment obtained by surgical
osteotomy.
 c. Experimental studies demonstrate regeneration of the mandibular canal containing
both neural and vascular elements.
d. Mandibular lengthenin g by gradual distraction was reported in 1973 by Synder et
al.
e. In younger children, the latency period usually 7 to 10 days.

94. A 48-year-old female undergoes a superficial parotidectomy for a pleomorphic

adenoma. There are no intraoperative complications, and the case proceeds
smoothly. In the postanesthesia care unit, the patient is noted to have symmetrical
facial expression without deficits. However, over the course of the next 24 hours, she
is noted to have progressive asymmetry in her smile but no other weaknesses.
a. That your suspicion for facial nerve injury is high and immediate return to the
operating room for reexploration and confirmation of nerve continuity is
imperative
b. That a branch of the buccal nerve has most likely been transected intraoperatively,
but the risk of reexploration does not warrant the possibility of repair
c. That she is likely experiencing a transient facial nerve palsy and is expected to
regain normal function within a period of 1 to 6 months
d. That she is likely experiencing a transient facial nerve palsy and effective
treatments include a short course of prednisone or botulinum injection to prevent
further deficits
e. None of the above

95. A 77-year-old female is evaluated for a mass palpated near the angle of the
mandible. She has an otherwise unremarkable history and physical examination.
Ultrasonography demonstrates a 1 cm mass in the tail of the parotid gland. Fine-
needle aspiration of the mass is consistent with pleomorphic adenoma. She is
consented for a superficial parotidectomy. Intraoperatively, the mass is closely
associated with the lower division branches of the facial nerve
a. Facial nerve resection with reconstruction is warranted to achieve a 1 cm tumor-
free margin to improve recurrence-free survival .
b. A complete superficial parotidectomy with facial nerve dissection to remove the
tumor is superior to a subtotal superficial parotidectomy in terms of recurrence-
free survival and facial nerve preservation.
c. Preoperative facial nerve deficit is an indication for facial nerve sacrifice during
parotidectomy
d. Enucleation of a benign tumor is an acceptable alternative to extracapsular
dissection to preserve the facial nerve
e. None of the above

96. Painless ulcer of the tongue is due to?

a. dyspepsia
b. syphilis
 c. tuberculosis
d. squamous cell carcinoma
e. aphthous

97. Immediate occlusal loading of dental implant refers to

a. full functional occlusal loading of an implant within 2 weeks of placement.
b. full functional occlusal loading of an implant within 4 days of placement.
c. functional loading between 2 weeks and 3 months of implant placement.
d. implant prostheses placed within 2 weeks of implant placement with no direct
functional occlusal loading.
e. full functional occlusal loading of an implant at the same day of operation.

98. Most important prognostic factor for Malignant melanoma

a. Depth of invasion
b. White / black race
c. Lymphatic spread
d. Blood spread
e. None of these

99. Regard Mucormycosis all are true except

a. usually begins in the sinus
b. causes central retinal artery occlusion
c. commonly causes tissue necrosis
d. is a complication in patients with poorly controlled
diabetes mellitus.
e. is associated with injury involving vegetation
100. A middle-aged patient complains of periodic burning of her buccal mucosa. Oral
examination shows slightly raised, linear, grayish-white plaque on buccal mucosa.
Biopsy of the lesion shows acanthosis, surface keratosis with vacuolation of cells of
basal cell layer with cellular inflammatory infiltrate localized to subepithelial
connective tissue. Most likely diagnosis is:
a. Lichen planus
b. Leokoedema
c. Luekoplakia
d. Pemphigoid
e. Verucus carcinoma