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3.1 What frequency of the sound is referred as ultrasound ?

(a) Less than 5 kHz

(b) 5-10 kHz

(c) 10-15 kHz

(d) More than 20 kHz

3.2 What is the average speed of sound when it passes through tissues ?

(a) 1540 meters/seconds

(b) 1640 meters/seconds

(c) 1740 meters/seconds

(d) 1840 meters/seconds

3.3 After 20 weeks of gestation, in how many percent of cases, ultrasound examination is accurate in
determining the gender of the fetus :

(a) 60 percent

(b) 70 percent

(c) 80 percent

(d) 90 percent

3.4 At 15 week of gestation, in how many percent of cases. Ultrasound examination is accurate in
determining the gender of the fetus :

(a) 60 percent

(b) 70 percent

(c) 80 percent

(d) 90 percent
3.5 Which zone of the prostate is less distinct sonographically ?

(a) Transitione zone

(b) Central zone

(c) Peripheral zone

(d) Anterior fibromuscular stroma

3.6 In which zone of the prostate, sonographically “beak sign” is present :

(a) Transition zone

(b) Central zone

(c) Peripheral zone

(d) Anterior fibromuscular stroma

3.7 A hypoechoic lesion of which size is less likely to be prostatic cancer :

(a) Smaller than 4-5 mm

(b) 5-10 mm

(c) 10-15 mm

(d) 15-20 mm

3.8 On which of the following, the positive predictive value (PPV) for cancer of a hypoechoic lesion in the
peripheral zone depends upon :

(a) Size of the lesion on ultrasound

(b) Result of digital rectal examnation

(c) Serum levels of PSA

(d) All of the above


3.9 Which transabdominal probe can produce acceptable sonogram of the kidney ?

(a) 3.5 Mhz

(b) 5.0 Mhz

(c) 7.0 Mhz

(d) A and B

3.10 Which transrectal probe is recomended for sonography of the prostate ?

(a) 3.5 Mhz

(b) 5.0 Mhz

(c) 7.5 Mhz

(d) Any of the above

Match echogenic pattern of the kidney

3.11 Outer cortex (a) Hyperechoic

3.12 Renal pyramid (b) Homogenous

3.13 Pelvicalyceal sinus fat (c) Hypoechoic

3.14 Which is the most frequently encountered artifact simulating carcinoma prostate on transrectal
ultrasound ?

(a) Hematoma

(b) Abscess

(c) Granulomas
(d) Calculus

3.15 Which probe can be used for ultrasound of the scrotum ?

(a) 5 Mhz

(b) 7.5 Mhz

(c) 10 Mhz

(d) All of the above

3.16 What is the echogenic pattern in majority of the testicular tumours ?

(a) Isoechoic

(b) Hypoechoic

(c) Hyperechoic

(d) A and C

3.17 Which approach can image the bladder by ultrasonography ?

(a) Suprapubic

(b) Transurethral

(c) Transrectal

(d) A and B

3.18 For evaluation of stricuture urethra, ultasonography has following advantages over radiography
EXCEPT :

(a) Indentify lumen of the urethra and stricture

(b) Provide three dimentional imaging

(c) Measure the rigid fibrotic periurethral scar


(d) No irradiation to testicles

3.19 What is the average adult dose of iodine per pound body weight for excretary urography :

(a) 150 mgs

(b) 200 mgs

(c) 250 mgs

(d) 300 mgs

3.20 Following are haemodynamic changes following contrast injection EXCEPT :

(a) Trasnlent hypotension

(b) Peripheral vasodilation

(c) Increased pulmonary artery pressure

(d) Bradycardia

3.21 Approximately, what is the plasma half life of contrast agents, following bolus injection :

(a) 10 mnts

(b) 20 mnts

(c) 30 mnts

(d) 40 mnts

3.22 During intravenous urography, renal tomography significantly increased the recognition of the
following EXCEPT :

(a) Renal masses

(b) Fine renal clacifications


(c) Pelvicalyceal system

(d) Paranephric structures

3.23 During intravenous urography, erect film provide optimal view for the demonstration of the
following EXCEPT :

(a) Renal ptosis

(b) Bladder tumours

(c) Bladder hernias

(d) Cystocele

3.24 Which is the most accurate method for bladder volume measurement ?

(a) Clinical assesment by palpation and percussion

(b) Urethral catheterization

(c) Post void film of excretary urography

(d) Bladder ultrasonography

3.25 Nephrogram is the uroradiographic image of :

(a) Renal capsule

(b) Renal parenchyma

(c) Minor calyces

(d) Major calyces and pelvis

3.26 Which is the basic mechanism to produce a nephrogram ?

(a) Appearance of constrast in the renal vessels and glomeruli


(b) Filtration at the glomeruli

(c) Concentration in the proximal convoluted tubule due to tubular absorption of water

(d) Concentration in the collecting ducts

3.27 Which of the following statement about nephrogram is FALSE ?

(a) Absolute density of nephprogram corelates well with the clinical measure of renal function

(b) Intensity of nephrogram is propotional to the adminitered dose of contrast

(c) Intensity of nephrogram is unaffected by the state of hydration of the patient

(d) Density of nephrogram is due the contrast in intratubular space

3.28 How much time is required for a normal cortical nephrogram to appear after bolus injection of
contrast agent ?

(a) Within 20 seconds

(b) 20-30 seconds

(c) 30-40 seconds

(d) 40-50 seconds

3.29 Which of the following is diagnostic of “Rim sign” in a nephrogram ?

(a) Pyelonephritis

(b) Severe hydronephrosis

(c) Hypernephroma

(d) Polycystic kidney

3.30 A dense persistent nephrogram may be seen in all of the following EXCEPT :

(a) Acute ureteral obstrution


(b) Severe hydronephrosis

(c) Systemic hypertension

(d) Renal vein thrombosis

3.31 How much time is recquired for the constrast material to visible in the calyces after injection ?

(a) 2 mnts

(b) 3 mnts

(c) 4 mnts

(d) 5 mnts

3.32 How many times the contrast material is concentrated during its transit from the nephron to
produce a relatively dense pylogram ?

(a) 20 times

(b) 30 times

(c) 40 times

(d) 50 times

3.33 Which term is appropriete for a kidney that fails to excrete radiographically detectable amounts of
contrast agent in to its collecting system ?

(a) Nonvisualizing

(b) Nonfuntioning

(c) Nonexcreting

(d) Nonexcisting

3.34 “Goblet sign” is diagnostic of :


(a) Unc acid stone

(b) Trasitional cell tumour on a stalk

(c) Fungal ball

(d) Blood clot

3.35 The following patients are prone to intratubular block and renal shutdown when dehydrated during
urography EXCEPT :

(a) Multiple myeloma

(b) Hyperuricemia

(c) Patients recieving poorly soluble sulfa drugs

(d) Patients having single kidney

3.36 Which is the main indication of voiding cystourethrogram in children ?

(a) Pain on micturition

(b) Thin stream

(c) Dribbling

(d) Urinary tract infection

3.37 Which is the most common type of seminal vesicle invasion ?

(a) Extension along with the ejaculatory ducts

(b) Penetration through the capsul

(c) Micrometastasis without direct connection

(d) Lymphatic invasion

3.38 What are the indications of seminal vesiculography ?


(a) Male infertility

(b) Suspicion of a congenital anomaly

(c) Constat genital infection

(d) Palpaple abnormality of seminal vesicles

(e) All of the above

3.39 Which is the investigation of choice for the estimation of seminal vesicle volume ?

(a) Seminal vesiculography

(b) Transrectal ultrasonography

(c) Intravenous urography

(d) Micturating cystourethrography

3.40 What is the echogenicity of the kidney in comparision to the liver after neonatal period?

(a) Same

(b) More

(c) Less

(d) Any of the above

3.41 The following are the sonographic criteria for a simple renal cyst EXCEPT :

(a) Absence of internal echoes

(b) Smooth and well defined walls

(c) Poor sound transmission

(d) Round or oval shape

(e) Acoustic shadow arising from the edges of the cyst


3.42 Bilateral increase in the echodensity of the cortex with preservation of corticomedullary definition
occurs in the following conditions EXCEPT :

(a) Medical renal disease

(b) Autosomal recessive (Infantile) polycystic kidney disease

(c) Infiltrative disease-Amyloaidosis and leukemia

(d) Disease cause cortical nephrocalcinosis

3.43 Which of the following condition ultimately lead to increased echos in both cortex and medulla ?

(a) Chornic Glomerulonephritis

(b) Alport’s disease

(c) Renal corical necrosis

(d) Oxalosis

3.44 Unilateral global increase in cortical echogenicity with loss of corticomedulary definition in a
patient with acute symptoms leads to the differential diagnosis of the following EXCEPT :

(a) Acute renal vein thrombosis

(b) Acute pyelonephritis

(c) Acute glomerulonephritis

(d) Renal infraction

3.45 Unilateral global increase in cortical echogenicity with loss of corticomedulary definition in a
patient without acute symptoms leads to a differential diagnosis of the following EXCEPT :

(a) Infiltrative tumours

(b) Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis

(c) Malacoplakia

(d) Chronic glomerulonephritis

3.46 Which is the route of excretion of modern contrast agent like diatrozoate ?
(a) Glomerular filtration

(b) Tubular secretion

(c) Both of them

(d) None of them

3.47 Which is the most important nucleus in MRI ?

(a) Phosphorus

(b) Hydrogen

(c) Sodium

(d) Calcium

3.48 Which solid organ in the abdomen has the highest signal density ?

(a) Liver

(b) Spicen

(c) Pancreas

(d) Kidney

3.49 CT scan is useful in the diagnosis of the following EXCEPT :

(a) Acute focal bacterial nephritis

(b) Pyonephrosis 🡪USG

(c) Renal abscesses

(d) Perirenal abscesses

3.50 The following are the CT criteria for a simple renal cyst EXCEPT :
(a) Sharp, thin, distinct, smooth walls and margins

(b) Spherical or ovoid shape

(c) Hornogenous content

(d) The density range from 30-40 Hounsfield

(e) No enhancement after the intravenous injection of contrast medium

3.51 Which of the following on CT or Ultrasound suspects the diagnonsis complicated renal cyst?

(a) Thick wall

(b) Calcification

(c) Septation

(d) Non homogenous or hyperdense fluid or fluid with internal echoes

(e) All of the above

3.52 What is the average radiodensity of TCC of upper urinary tracts on CT scan ?

(a) 36 Hounsfield units

(b) 41 Hounsfield units

(c) 46 Hounsfield units

(d) 51 Hounsfield units

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