5.1 Which is the most important facial feature in “potter’s syndrome “ ?

(a) Blunted nose

(b) Prominent fold of skin over each eye

(c) Low set ears

(d) Depression between lower lip and chin

5.2 Potter’s syndrome comprises of the following EXCEPT :

(a) Characteristic potter’s facies

(b) Pulmonary hypoplasia

(c) Adenoma sebaceum

(d) Amnion nodosum

(e) Renal anomalies

5.3 Following investigations help in the diagnosis of bilateral renal agenesis EXCEPT :

(a) Excretary urography

(b) Ultrasonography

(c) Renal scan

(d) Umblical artery catheterization and aortogram

(e) Retrograde pyelography

5.4 In which system the most commonly associated anomalies accur in unilateral renal agenesis :

(a) Genital

(b) CVS

(c) Musculoskeletal

(d) Respiratory
5.5 The following syndromes are associated with unilateral agenesisi EXCEPT :

(a) Tuener’s syndrome

(b) Polland’s syndrome

(c) VATER syndrome

(d) Potter’s syndrome

5.6 All of the following are true about supernumerary kidney EXCEPT :

(a) Its true accessory organ

(b) It has a separate blood supply

(c) It has a separate collecting system

(d) It is surrounded by the same capsule along with the normal kidney

(e) It is quite often hydronephrotc

5.7 The following are features of cephalad renal ectopia EXCEPT :

(a) Associated un cases with omphalad renal ectopia

(b) They are present above the diaphragm

(c) They are present at the level of 10 th thoracic vertebra

(d) The origin of the renal aftery is mor ecephalad than normal

5.8 Which is the most common site of a thoracic kidney ?

(a) Posterior mediastinum

(b) Middle mediastinum mediastinum

(c) Anterior mediastinum

(d) Superior mediastinum

5.9 The vascular pedicle and ureter of the intrathoracic kidney enters the thorax through :

(a) Foreman of Morgagni

(b) Oesophageal hiatus

(c) Foramen of Bochdalek

(d) Aorta hiatus

(e) Hiatus for the venacava

5.10 The following facts points to an ectopic kidney EXCEPT :

(a) Short ureter

(b) Level of the kidney below L2-L3

(c) Ectopic renal arteries

(d) Malrotation tends to point to a ptotic kidney rather than ectopic kidney

5.11 Which is the most clearly seen part in a pelvic kidney on IVP ?

(a) Ureter

(b) Pelvis

(c) Calyces

(d) Nephrogram

5.12 How many percent of the crossed ectopic kidneys are fused to their ipsilateral mate ?

(a) 60 percent

(b) 70 percent

(c) 80 percent
(d) 90 percent

5.13 The following facts about crossed renal ectopia are true EXCEPT :

(a) 90% of crossed ectopic kidneys are fused to the ipsilateral kidney of that side

(b) Unilaterally fused kidney with inferior ectopic is the least common

(c) Male : female : 2:1

(d) Left to right ectopia is 3 times more common than right to left

5.14 Which is the most common crossed renal ectopia ?

(a) Sigmoid kidney

(b) Crossed renal ectopia with superior fusion

(c) Crossed renal ectopia with inferior fusion

(d) Dishaped kidney

(e) Crossed ectopia without fusion

5.15 Which is the rarest from of crossed ectopic kidneys ?

(a) Crossed renal ectopia with fusion

(b) Crossed renal ectopia without fusion

(c) Bilateral crossed renal ectopia

(d) Solitary crossed renal ectopia

5.16 In the embryo, before renal ascent , the renal pelvis faces :

(a) Posteriorly

(b) Medially

(c) Laterally
(d) Anteriorly

5.17 The following facts are true about horse shoe kidney EXCEPT :

(a) In 60% patient the kidneys join at the lower pole

(b) The kineys tend to be lower than normal

(c) The pelves and ureters are anteriorly placed

(d) The ureter has a high pelvic insertion

(e) Abnormally accurs after 4-6 weeks of gestation prior to ratation

5.18 Which is the most frequently affected calyx in calyceal diverticulum ?

(a) Upper

(b) Middle

(c) Lower

(d) Equal in all sites

5.19 The following facts about calyceal diverticulum are true EXCEPT :

(a) Lined by transsitional epithelium

(b) Connected to a major calyx by a narrow channel

(c) Can be congenical or acquired

(d) Cystic cavity lying in renal substance

5.20 A cystic dilation of a mojor calyx lined by transtional epithelium and connected to the renal

pelvis is called :

(a) Calyceal cyst

(b) Calyceal diverticulum

(c) Hydrocalycosis

(d) Megacalycosis

(e) Infundibulopelvic dysgenesis

5.21 A non obstruction enlargement of the calyces due to a malformation of the renal papillac with a

nondilated renal pelvis and normal pelvi ureteric junction is called :

(a) Calyceal cyst

(b) Calyceal diverticulum

(c) Hydrocalicosis

(d) Megacalicosis

(e) Infundibulopelvic dysgenesis

5.22 Which of the following statement is FALSE regarding simple renal cyst ?

(a) The frequency increases with age

(b) They may present at any time soon from birth to old age

(c) They are usually solitary but can be multiple or bilateral

(d) They are lined by single layer of transitional epithelium

5.23 Which of the following is an indication for renal cyst ispiration ?

(a) Suspected infection

(b) Presence of low level echoes on sonography

(c) Borderline lesion in a poor surgical candidate

(d) All of the above

5.24 Which of the following statement is FALSE regarding acquired renal cystic disease (ARCD) ?

(a) It is confined to the patient recieving haemodialysis

(b) Higher incidence in male patients

(c) Incidence increase with the durtion of renal failure

(d) Higher incident of benign and malignant renal amours

5.25 Which of the following factors help in differentiating acquired renal cystic disease (ARCD) from

autocomal dominent (adult) polycystic kidney disease (APCD) ?

(a) Size of the cyst

(b) Size of the kidneys

(c) Present of infected cyst

(d) Present of tumour

5.26 Acquired renal cyst can arise from any part of the nemron but they have a predilection for :

(a) Glomerulus

(b) Proximal convoluted tubules

(c) Distal convulated tubules

(d) Loop of Henle and collecting tubules

5.27 Renal sinus cyst can arise from the following EXCEPT :

(a) Arteries

(b) Lymphatics

(c) Renal parenchyma

(d) Fat
5.28 Which of the following is FALSE regarding renal sinus cyst ?

(a) Predominantly derives from the lymphatics

(b) Usually single cyst

(c) Usually bilateral

(d) Majority appear after the 5th decade

5.29 Uremic medullary cystic disease complex includes all of the following EXCEPT :

(a) Familial nephronpthisis

(b) Medullary cystic disease

(c) Medullary sponge kidney

(d) Renal-retinal dysplasia

5.30 The following are false about infantile polycystic kidney disease EXCEPT :

(a) Autosomal recessive

(b) Not associated with intrahepatic biliary alterations

(c) Homogenous

(d) Older children with IPCD have more severe renal involvement

5.31 Infantile polycystic disease is characterised by the following EXCEPT :

(a) The histologic apearance in the members of one family is remakably consistent

(b) Characteristic lesion is medullary ductal ectasia

(c) Kidneys are mostly not enlarged

(d) Cortico-medullary relation is preserved

5.32 The effects of APCD on renal function can be varying and is characterised by the following EXCEPT :

(a) Reduced renal plasma flow

(b) Reduced GFR

(c) Normal concentration ability

(d) Defective acidification

5.33 Older children, presenting after first year of life with infantile polycystic kidney disease usually are
characterised by the following EXCEPT :

(a) Milder from of renal impairement

(b) Coexistence of portal hypertension and systemic hypertension

(c) Not associated with congenital hepatic fibrosis

(d) Kidney are usually palpable

5.34 Which is the most common cause of bilateral renal enlargement in new borns ?

(a) Multicystic dysplasia

(b) Infantile polycystic disease of infancy

(c) Meckel’s syndrome

(d) Bilateral hydronephrosis due to lower tract obstruction

5.35 Amongst the following grave complications of infantile polycystic kidney disease the LEAST
common is :

(a) Bleeding oesophageal varices

(b) Rupture of berry aneurysm

(c) Systemic hypertension

(d) Renal failure

(e) Pulmonary hypoplasia

5.36 Which of the following statement is FALSE for autosomal dominant (Adult) polycystic kidney
disease ?

(a) It account for 9-10 percent of cases recieving chronic haemodialysis

(b) The gene has been localized to the short arm of chromosome 16

(c) This condition is never recogized in newborns

(d) The renal failure is seldom seen before the age of 40 years

5.37 The following hypothesis have been put forward for adult polycystic kidney disease EXCEPT :

(a) Obstruction of tubules by casts

(b) Backpressure due to lower tract obstruction

(c) Altered growth of the tubular wall due to exposure to diphenylamine

(d) Altered compliance of tubular wall

5.38 Which of the following is TRUE about adult polycystic kidney disease ?

(a) Autosomal recessive

(b) It is related to infantile polycystic kidney disease

(c) The cystic nephron is APCD is capable of functioning and often communicates with the urinary
system

(d) APCD can not be a cause for death

5.39 The progressive renal failure in APCD is mainly because of :

(a) Compression of renal parenchyma by enlarging cysts and hypertension

(b) Diminished concentrating ability

(c) Diminished GFR

(d) Prerenal hypovolaemia

5.40 Which is the most likely complication that can occur in a patient of APCD who dies suddenly ?

(a) Rupture berry aneurysm

(b) Gram negative sepsis

(c) Gross haematuria

(d) Anuria

5.41 Which of the following statement is FALSE regarding autosomal dominent (Adult) polycystic kidney
disease ?

(a) Approximately 10 to 40 percent of patients have berry’s aneurysm

(b) Approximately 9 percent of patients with berry aneurysm die because of subarachnoid
haemorrhage

(c) All intracranial haemorrhages in patients with APCD are subarachnoid bleeding secondary to
berry’s aneurysm

(d) Earlier detection and treatment of the hypertension can epect fewer death from intracranial
haemorrhages

5.42 What is the percentage of accompanying cerebral aneurysm in a patient of adult polycystic kidney
disease ?
(a) 10%

(b) 45%

(c) 60%

(d) 70%

5.43 Which of the following statements about APCD is TRUE ?

(a) Reptrograde ureteric studies should be done to percutaneous renal bipsy should be done for
tissue diagnosis

(b) Percutaneous renal biopsy should be done for tissue diagnosis

(c) APCD is always bilateral

(d) If untreated. Renal mortality is 25%

5.44 In what percentage of patients does hypertension occur in APCD :

(a) 10%

(b) 20-30%

(c) 50-70%

(d) 100%

5.45 What is the actiopathogenesis of hypertension in APCD ?

(a) Fluid overload

(b) Renin hypertension

(c) Essential hypertension

(d) Atherosclerosis
5.46 Which statement is FALSE concerning the prognosis in APCD ?

(a) Renal failure is relentless and mortality 100%

(b) Average age at death is 50 years

(c) Onset before 50 yrs is associated with poor survival

(d) Once uremia develops. The prognosis is poor

5.47 In atleast how many percent of cases of adult polycystic kidney disease, diagnosis can be made by
ultrasound examination before the age of 25 years :

(a) 65 percent

(b) 75 percent

(c) 85 percent

(d) 95 percent

5.48 In how many percent of cases of adult polycystic kidney disease, diagnostic accuracy can be
reached by combined genetic studies and ultrasound examination before the age of 25 years :

(a) 70 percent

(b) 80 percent

(c) 90 percent

(d) 100 percent

5.49 In which chromosome, abnormality is localized in antosomal dominant (adult) polycystic kidney
disease :

(a) 12
(b) 14

(c) 16

(d) 18

5.50 How many percent of the children of the adult polycystic kidney disease will be affected by the
same disease ?

(a) 2 percent

(b) 5 percent

(c) 7 percent

(d) 12 percent

5.51 The following are indication of surgery in adult polycystic kidney disease EXCEPT :

(a) Hypertension

(b) Intactable pain

(c) Intactable infection

(d) Acute renal failure

5.52 Medulary sponge kidney is a congenital malformation of :

(a) Renal cortex

(b) Renal medulla

(c) Collecting system

(d) All of the above

5.53 The case in medullary sponge kidney represents dilater :

(a) Gameruli

(b) Poximal convoluted tubules

(c) Distal convoluted tubules

(d) Collecting tubules

5.54 The radiographic diagnosis cf MSK can be based on the folowing criteria EXCEPT :

(a) Usually in the pelvis

(b) Cystic tubules at apices of the pyramids have contrast medium

(c) Leiocalcyceal Filling occurs

(d) Contrast Medium persists in pyramidal tubules calyes have emptied

5.55 Which is the commonest complication arising in medullary sponge kidney ?

(a) Infection

(b) Nephrolithiasis

(c) Haematuria

(d) Hypertension

5.56 What is the meaning of renal dysplasia ?

(a) Reduction in renal mass

(b) Failure of renal mass to develop

(c) Arrest of development with failure of cytidufferenciation

(d) Retention of fetal renal structures

5.57 Segmental renal dysplasia usually involving the upper pole is frequently found in association with :

(a) Ipsilateral ureteric obstruction

(b) Ectopic ureterocele

(c) Vesial outlet obstruction

(d) Urethral obstruction

(e) None of the above

5.58 ‘Mechkel;s syndrome’ consists of the following EXCEPT :

(a) Congenital heart disease

(b) Renal cystic dysplasia

(c) Posterior encephalocele

(d) Polydactyly

(e) Microcephaly

5.59 Which is the most common cystic disease in childhood ?

(a) Infantile polycystic kidney disease of infancy

(b) Infantile polycystic kindney disease of childhod

(c) Medullary sponge kidney

(d) Multicystic dysplastic kidney

5.60 When a kidney has multicystic dysplasia, the acidence of abnormality in the contralateral kidney

is approximately ?
(a) 0%

(b) 5%

(c) 15%

(d) 30%

5.61 The following ultrasound features are diagnostic of multicystic kidney EXCEPT :

(a) Visible interfaces between cysts

(b) Nonmedial location of large cysts

(c) Absence of identifiable renal sinus

(d) Conncection usually an be demostrated between the peripheral cyst and a central medial cyst

5.62 What does it suggests if a patient suffering from a plastic dysplasia of kidney develops urinary tract
infection ?

(a) The ureter of the aplastic kidney has started refluxing

(b) The contralateral kidney has developed infection

(c) The aplastic kidney is having obstruction in its outflow tract

(d) None of the above

5.63 The “beckwith wiedeman syndrome” comprises all of the following EXCEPT :

(a) Congenital dislocation of hip

(b) Omphalocele
(c) Macroglossia

(d) Hypoplastic visceromegaly

(e) Endorine abnormalities

5.64 “Vin huppel-lindan disease” consists of all of the following EXCEPT :

(a) Renal cysts and adnenocarcinoma

(b) Cerebellar and retinal haemangioblastomas

(c) Not hereditary

(d) Pancreatic cysts

(e) Polycythemia

5.65 Which is the most common malformation seen in von hippel lindau disease ?

(a) Renal cyst

(b) Renal cell carinoma

(c) Pheochromocytoma

(d) Retinal ahgioma

5.66 In how many percent of cases renal cysts are seen in von-hippel lindau disease :

(a) 56 percent

(b) 66 percent

(c) 76 percent

(d) 85 percent

5.67 Which is the most common type of renal cell carcinoma seen in von-hippel lindau disease ?

(a) Granular cell

(b) Clear cell

(c) Spindle cell

(d) Sarcomatous

5.68 Uremic medullary cystic disease complex includes the following EXCEPT :

(a) Familial juvenile nephronophthisis

(b) Tuberous sclerosis complex

(c) Medullary cystic disease

(d) Renal retinal dysplasia

5.69 Which of the following can demonstrate tubular blush in a medullary sponge kidney ?

(a) Intravenous urography

(b) Retrograde pyelography

(c) Renal arteriography

(d) All of the above

5.70 Which is the most common type renal artery aneurysm ?

(a) Saccular

(b) Fusiform

(c) Dissecting

(d) Arteriovenous

5.71 Which is the more common site of arteriovenous malformation in the kidney ?

(a) Upper pole

(b) Midp portion

(c) Lower pole

(d) Equal in all sites

5.72 Which of the following statement is WRONG about ask-up mark kidney ?

(a) Most patients are 10 years or older at diagnosis

(b) Severe hypetension is a porminent symptom

(c) These kidneys are normal is size

(d) In unilateral disease, partial or total nephrectomy may control hypertension

5.73 The following statemets about childhood type polycystic kidney disease are true EXCEPT :

(a) It is more likely to present in the adolescent as portal hypertension than a renal disease

(b) There is decrease function on intravenous urography

(c) The ureters, bladder and urethra have a characteristic pathologic appearance

(d) Potter’s facles may be present

(e) Gross or microscopic haematuria may be present

5.74 Which of the following are TRUE about extrophy of the bladder ?

(a) Inquinal and umblical hernias and rectal prolapse are frequently associated

(b) Upper tract infection with renal damage almost always occurs

(c) Late complication include malignancy of the bladder

(d) With vigorous multi-disciplinary surgical therapy salisfactory results can usually be obtained

(e) All of the above

5.75 A man of forty has polycystic kidneys, a blood pressure of 180/120, blood urea of 258 mgm%
 and creatinine clearance of 5ml/minute. Which of the following is NOT true :

(a) He is more likely to suffer a subarachnoid haemorrhage than a patient with essential
hypertension of the same severity

(b) His sons may suffer from polycystic disease but his daughters will escape

(c) He should be given a low protien. High caloric low salt diet

(d) If he has osteoramalicia of the spine with hypocalcemia he should be treated with vitamin D

5.76 Approximately how many percent of normal renal pelvis are bifid :

(a) 5 percent

(b) 10 percent

(c) 15 percent

(d) 20 percent

5.77 Which is the mpst common cause of dilatation of the collecting system in the fetal kidney ?

(a) Multicystic dysplastic kidney

(b) Ureteropelvic junction obstruction

(c) Primary obstructive megaureter

(d) Posterior urethral valves

5.78 Ureteropelvic junction obstruction accounts for how many percent of cases of dilatations of the
collecting system in fetal kidney :

(a) 60%

(b) 70%

(c) 80%

(d) 90%
5.79 Which is the most common congenital anomaly in the contralateral kidney in a case of

ureteropelvic junction obstruction ?

(a) Ureteropelvic junction obstruction

(b) Renal dysplasia multicystic kidney disease

(c) Unilateral renal agenesis

5.80 Which is the ideal time to confirm the diagnosis of hydronephrosis suspected in prenatal

examination ?

(a) Immediately after birth

(b) Postnatal day 1-5

(c) After 1st wek of life

(d) Ater 1st month of life

5.81 Which is the best method of differentiating pelviureteric junction obstruction from dilated
nonobstructed pelvis ?

(a) Symptomatology

(b) Intravenous urogram

(c) Diuresis urogram

(d) Renogram
(e) Diuresis renogram

5.82 Diuresis renogram is used to access :

(a) Static renal imaging

(b) Renal function

(c) Renal pelvic urodynamics

(d) Renal function and urodynamics

5.83 Which of the following is essential for proper evaluation of PUJ obstruction by renogram ?

(a) Presence of both kidneys

(b) Presence of good renal function of that kidney

(c) Presence of non-dilated system

(d) Absence of urinary infection

5.84 Which is the best course of management for a patient complaining of loin pain and dilated non
obstructured renal pelvis ?

(a) Nothing has to be done

(b) Repeated follow up intravenous urogram

(c) Repeated diuresis renogram asses ment at regular intervals

(d) Pyeloplasty

5.85 The following statemets are true in whitaker test for pressure flow studies of the renal pelvis and
ureter EXCEPT :

(a) Vesion-ureteric reflux has to be ruled out before the procedure

(b) Both renal and urinary bladder pressures are monitored

(c) Infusant fluid is diluted contrast

(d) Diuretic stress is achieved by inj. Lasix during the procedure

5.86 The following are contraindications for whitaker test EXCEPT :

(a) Ptotic kidney

(b) Bleeding diathesis

(c) Acute urianary infection

(d) High grade or complete obstruction

(e) VUR wihout ipsilateral trapping

5.87 Intra-rensi reflux is produced when the pelvic pressure exceed :

(a) 5 cm H2 O

(b) 10 cm H2 O

(c) 20 cm H2 O

(d) 35 cm H2 O

5.88 Following are the critaria for operative correction of hydronephrosis EXCEPT :

(a) Savere degree of pyelocaliectasis in IVP

(b) Increase of 22% in size of pelvis on planimetry in diuresis urogram

(c) Pelvic pressure 10-12 cm H2 O on whitaker test

(d) Obstructive pattern on renogram after I/V lastix

5.89 In which of the following pathological change is last to undergo following complete ureteral
obstruction :

(a) Proximal convoluted tubules

(b) Glomeruli
(c) Distal convoluted tubules

(d) Collecting ducts

5.90 Which is the commonest safety valve mechanism in complete ureteral obstruction ?

(a) Pyelosinus backflow

(b) Pyelotubular backflow

(c) Pyelolymphatic backflow

(d) Pyelovenouse backflow

5.91 Which of the following mechanism is not physiologic ?

(a) Pyelotubular backflow

(b) Pyelocanalicular backflow

(c) Pyelosinus backflow

(d) Pyelovenous backflow

(e) Pyelolymphatic backflow

5. 92 Which is the commonest site where ectopic ureter opens in males ?

(a) Prosatic urethra

(b) Seminal vesicle

(c) Vasa

(d) Ejaculatory duct

5.93 The ectopic ureter in males is commonly associated with renal disgenesis when it opens in to the
following structures EXCEPT :

(a) Prostatuc urethra

(b) Seminal vesicles

(c) Vasa

(d) Ejaculatory duet

5.94 Which of the following is FALSE about double ureter ?

(a) The lower pole ureter has the ectopic ureteral opening

(b) The lower pole ureter more commonly refluxing the upper

(c) The lower pole ureter opens higher and lateral to the upper

(d) Parenchymal thining of lower pole segment is more consistent with hypoplasia than with
scarring

(e) One third of renal parenchyma is drained by upper collecting system

5.95 Weigeri Meyer is associated with :

(a) Ectopic ureter

(b) Calyceal diverticulum

(c) Complete ureteral duplication

(d) Dysplastic ureter

5.96 The following fact about ectopic ureters are true EXCEPT :

(a) In the males the ectopic ureter drains into mesonephric duet derived structures

(b) In the female the ectopic ureter draines into paramesonephric duet derived structures

(c) The males are incontinent

(d) The females are incontinent

5.97 In partial duplication of ureter, the following are true EXCEPT :

(a) Ureteric yo-yo can occur

(b) Vesico-ureteric reflux never occurs

(c) Urinary stasis is more marked if the Y junction is more distal

(d) Retrograde waves of urine preferentially pass into the slightly dilated limbs rahter than down
the common stem

5.98 Following are the fact about vesicoureteral junction EXCEPT :

(a) Distal ureter is covered by the superficial and deep waldeyer’s periureteral shealth

(b) Waldeyer’s shealth is coritinous with deep trigone and ureter is continous with superficial
trigone

(c) The more medial the ureteric orifice, the more likely V-U reflux will occur

(d) Length of normal submucosal tunnul is 5 times diameter of ureteric orifice

5.99 Which is the most common manifestation of a congenital abnormalities of the uretero vesical
junction ?

(a) Obstruction

(b) Vesico ureteral reflux

(c) Ectopic opening

(d) Aperistaltic distal ureteral segemnt

9.100 Approximately, how many percent of siblings of children with known reflux are found to have
vesico-ureteric reflux :

(a) 10 percent

(b) 20 percent

(c) 30 percent

(d) 40 percent
5.101 According to lyon’s classification, which of the following will be associated with greater degree of
reflux :

(a) Volcano shaped orifice

(b) Stadium orifice

(c) Horse-shoe orifice

(d) Golf-hole orifice

5.102 Which of the following is most important in deciding whether reflux shall be cured by operative or
conservative management ?

(a) Lyon’s classification of ureteric openings

(b) Degree of hydronephrosis on cystogram

(c) Estimated lenght of intravesical ureter

(d) Age of the patient

(e) Presence of other factors that may contribute to reflux

5.103 Following are the indications for early surgery in vesicoureteral reflux EXCEPT :

(a) Gold-hole/horse shoe orifice

(b) Pyelonephritic scarring

(c) Grade 2B or less reflux

(d) Recurrences of infection after chemotherapy

(e) Short (2-5 mm) intravesical ureter

5.104 The following are helpful in the diagnosis of vesico ureteric reflux EXCEPT :

(a) Retrograde pyelogram

(b) Micturating cystourethrogram

(c) Intravenous urogram

(d) Radionuclide cystogram

(e) Cystopanendoscopy

5.105 How many weeks of infection free interval is recommended before the cystogram to detect
vesico-ureteral reflux ?

(a) 1-2 weeks

(b) 2-4 weeks

(c) 4-6 weeks

(d) 6-8 weeks

5.106 Approximately. What is the length of sub mucosal course of ureter at birth :

(a) 5 mm

(b) 10 mm

(c) 13 mm

(d) 15 mm
5.107 Approximately, what is the length of sub mucosal course of the ureter by the age of 10 years :

(a) 5 mm

(b) 10 mm

(c) 13 mm

(d) 15 mm

5.108 Approximately, what is the length of sub mucosal course of ureter in adults :

(a) 5 mm

(b) 10 mm

(c) 13 mm

(d) 15 mm

5.109 Which of the following statements about the length of submucosal ureter is FALSE ?

(a) At birth 5 mm

(b) At 10 yrs. 10 mm

(c) At adulthood 13 mm

(d) At 50 yrs 17 mm

5.110 Approximately, in how many percent of cases, primary reflux will cause spontaneously, if the
submucosal tunnel is more than 5 mm at the time of diagnosis :

(a) 30-40 percent

(b) 40-50 percent

(c) 50-60 percent

(d) 60-70 percent

5.111 The following factors suggest that reflux shall cease with growth and will not impede renal
development or function EXCEPT :

(a) Relatively young child

(b) Golf hole ureter

(c) Intravesical length of ureter 5 cms

(d) Grade 2B reflux or less

5.112 On cystography if reflux is demonstrated which cause pelvocalyccal filling with mild calyccal
blunting then it is graded as :

(a) Grade 2 A

(b) Grade 2 B

(c) Grade 3

(d) Grade 4

5.113 Which of the following change occurs in the intravesical ureter when a blous of urine pass down
ureter ?

(a) Decrease in length of intramural segment

(b) Decrease in length of submucosal segment

(c) Decrease in total intravesical length of ureter

(d) Shortening and widening of the intravesical ureter

5.114 The follow up of a patient of V-U reflux who has been put on medical management, should
comprise of all of the following tests at regular intervals EXCEPT :

(a) Urine culture

(b) Intravenous urogram

(c) Cystogram
(d) Cystopanendoscopy

5.115 The following are the basic requirements of a seccessful ureteroneocystostomy EXCEPT :

(a) Thension free anastomosis between the ureter and bladder

(b) Submucosal tunnel length 5 times the diameter of the ureter

(c) Firm support of underlying bladder musculature to the ureter

(d) Implantation of the ureter in the floor of the bladder

(e) All of the above

5.116 The surgical procedurs of cross-trigonal reimplantation for correction of V-U reflux goes by the
name of :

(a) Cohen

(b) Glenn-anderson

(c) Lich

(d) Poltano –lead better

5.117 In case of unilateral V-U reflux if the contralateral nonrefluxing ureteric orifice is golf-hole and has
a short submucosal tunnel, prophylastic reimplantation of this is indicated when the refluxing ureter is
reimplanted. This statement is :

(a) True

(b) False
5.118 What is the incidence of promary congenital vesico-ureteral reflux in the asymptomatic paediatric
population ?

(a) 0.4-1.8 percent

(b) 1.8-3.2 percent

(c) 3.2-4.6 percent

(d) 4.6-5.8 percent

5.119 How many percent of kidneys with grade 1 vesico-ureteral reflux will have renal scarring ?

(a) 5-20 percent

(b) 20-35 percent

(c) 35-50 percent

(d) 50-65 percent

5.120 How many percent of kidneys with grade 5 vesico ureteral reflux will have renal scarring ?

(a) 20 percent

(b) 30 percent

(c) 40 percent

(d) 50 percent

5.121 The following are the advantages of radionuclide cystography in detection of vesico-ureteral reflux
EXCEPT :

(a) It allows continous monitoring of the patient with minimal radiation exposure

(b) Abnormalities of the urethra, bladder or reflux in to the distal ureter only can be appreciated

(c) Useful in follow up of patients after antireflux surgery

(d) It allows calculation of bladder volume at which reflux begins

5.122 In how many percent of cases of vesico-ureteral reflux in neonates and infants, intra renal reflux
can be observed :

(a) 5-15 percent

(b) 15-30 percent

(c) 30-45 percent

(d) 45-60 percent

5.123 The following statements are correct about primary obstructure megaureter EXCEPT :

(a) In obstructive aperistaltic segment there is deragement of the nervous plexuses on

histopatplogy

(b) Regarade ureteric catheterization is unhindered

(c) Usually the calyces are normally cupped

(d) Make females 4.1

5.124 Primary restructed megaureter can occur in the following conditions EXCEPT :

(a) Adynamic segment

(b) Ureteral stenosis

(c) Neurophatic bladder

(d) Intrasic obstruction

5.125 The non-obstructed nonrefluxing megaureter can be seen in the following conditions EXCEPT :

(a) Primary non-refluxing non-obstructed megaureter

(b) Polyuria

(c) Infection
(d) Neuropathic bladder

5.126 The following characterise the non-refluxing nonobstructed megaureter EXCEPT :

(a) Is a developmental variant

(b) Increased intraluminal pressures

(c) No muscular hypertrophy/hyperplasla

(d) Pyelocalyceal system normal

5.127 Which is the commonest site of congenital ureteral stenosis ?

(a) Ureteropelvic juntion

(b) Midureter at the peivic brim

(c) Ureter crossed by vas deferens

(d) Just above ureterovesical juntion

5.128 Which of the following statement is FALSE regarding ureteral valves ?

(a) They are uncommon cause of ureteral obstruction

(b) They consists of traseverse folds of redundant mucosa which containes smooth muscles

(c) The ureter is dilated below the ureteral valves

(d) They are distributed throughtout the length of the ureter

5.129 Which is the most common from of ureteral triplication ?

(a) Complete triplication

(b) Incomplete triplication

(c) Trifid ureter

(d) Two ureters from the kidney. One becoming an inverse Y bifurcation, resulting in three draining
orifices below

5.130 Chawalla’s membrane is characterised by all of the following EXCEPT :

(a) Two layered occluding membrane

(b) Normally present between ureter and urogenital sinus

(c) Present in the 15 mm, embryo

(d) Disappears by the 20 mm stage

(e) Persistence can be the cause of ureteral obstruction

5.131 Which of the following ureteroccle can usually be most ectopoic in position ?

(a) Stenotic ureterocele

(b) Sphinteric ureterocele

(c) Sphincterostenotic ureterocele

(d) Caecoureterocele

5.132 In which of the following ureterocele, can the ureteric orifice be normal or even larger in size :

(a) Stenotic

(b) Sphinteric

(c) Sphinterostenotic

(d) Simple

5.133 Which of the following statement about preureteral venacava is FALSE ?

(a) Almost invariably the right ureter is involved

(b) It is a congenital variation in ureteral develoment

(c) On RGP. It gives a fish-hook appearance

(d) Retrocaval ureteral segment lies at the level of L or L

5.134 All of the following can be used as investigation in the preoprative assessment of megaureter
EXCEPT :

(a) Pyeloureteral dynamics

(b) Intravenous urogram

(c) Voiding cystourehrogram

(d) Cystoscopy

(e) Non of the above

5.135 Which of the following statement is FALSE about double collecting system ?

(a) Upper pole ureter is more commonly associated with ureterocele

(b) Lower pole ureter is more commonly associated with V-U reflux

(c) Megaureter involves the upper pole ureter more often

(d) The lower pole ureteric orifice is ectopic

5.136 Which of the following fact about prune-Belly syndrome is FALSE ?

(a) It effects female children mostly

(b) Deficient lower abdominal musculature

(c) Cryptorchidism

(d) Congental talipes equinovarus

5.137 How many percent of ectopic ureters associated with a duplicated sytem ?
(a) 60 percent

(b) 70 percent

(c) 80 percent

(d) 90 percent

5.138 All of the following are true about ectopic ureter EXCEPT :

(a) Causes incontinence in girls with an otherwise normal voiding pattern

(b) Usually associated with a duplex system in which case the ureter to the lower pole is ectopic

(c) Commonly leads to hydronephrosis of concerned renal segment in males

(d) The boys are usually not incontinent

5.139 All of the following are urographic features of ectopic ureter EXCEPT :

(a) Dipoping flower appearence

(b) Distance of upper calyx from upper pole of the kidney is greater than the distance of lower calyx
from the lower pole

(c) Non-visualisation of the lower pole in a duplex system

(d) Non-visualisation of a diminutive dysplastic kidney in case of a single renal unit

5.140 The following are true about ectopic ureter EXCEPT :

(a) More common in boys

(b) In girls there is usually duplex system and in boys it is usually a single system

(c) It is more likely to be associated with a dysplastic kidney

(d) In boys usual treatment is nephrectomy or nephroureterectomy

5.141 Which of the following statement is false regarding ureterocele ?

(a) It is three to four times more common in girls

(b) It is more common on the right side

(c) Between 1- and 15 percent are bilateral

(d) Familial occurence is known

5.142 All of the following statements about ureterocele are true EXCEPT :

(a) Upper tract changes are more severe in ectopic ureterocele than in a simple ureterocele

(b) V-U reflux is more common in a simple ureterocele than in ectopic one

(c) IVP demonstrates the characteristic cobra head deformity

(d) Trans-urehral deroofing of ureterocele usually results in postoperative V-U reflux

5.143 All of the following are true in the differences between simple and ectopic ureterocele EXCEPT :

(a) Ectopic ureteroceles are more common in girls

(b) The renal unit associated with and ectopic ureterocele is more commonly dysplastic

(c) On IVP, the filling defect in the bladder is central in ectopic ureteocele and peripheral in simple
ureterocele

(d) V-U reflux is commonest in caecoureterocele

5.144 At the end of which week of embryonic development is the cloaca by the urorectal septum in to a
dorsal anorectal canal and primitive urogenital sinus :

(a) 4th week

(b) 5th week

(c) 6th week

(d) 7th week

5.145 At what stage of embryonic development does the mesonephric duct, which empties first in to the
cloaca and subsenquently in to the envolving urogenital sinus, produce the ureteric bud :

(a) 4th week

(b) 5th week

(c) 6th week

(d) 7th week

5.146 The bladder is derived from the endoderm and the ureter and trigone are derived from :

(a) Endoderm

(b) Mesoderm

(c) Ectoderm

(d) Coelomic cavity

5.147 Double voiding is one of the conservative methods used in the management of :

(a) Hyperreflexic bladder

(b) Vesico-ureteric reflux

(c) Urethrotrigonal syndrome

(d) Stress incontinence

5.148 The cremaster muscle is derived from :

(a) External oblique muscle

(b) Internal oblique muscle

(c) Tranversalis
(d) Fascia transversalis

5.149 Until after which month of gestation, in the human embryo, the testis donot move from the
abdominal cavity through the inguinal canal and in the scrotum :

(a) 5th month

(b) 6th month

(c) 7th month

(d) 8th month

5.150 Dihydroestosterone is essential for the virilization of the following EXCEPT :

(a) Urogenital sinus

(b) Urogenital swellings

(c) Genital tubercle

(d) Wolffian duct

5.151 Testoterone is responsible for the virilization of which of the following :

(a) Wolffian duct

(b) Urogenital sinus

(c) Urogenital swellings

(d) Genital tubercle

5.152 What is least distance between the pubic tubercle and the centre of the testis, in a 2500 gm baby,
in order for the testis to be termed fully descended :

(a) 1.0 cm

(b) 2.0 cm
(c) 3.0 cm

(d) 4.0 cm

5.153 All of the following statements about a high scrotal testis are true EXCEPT :

(a) It is the commonest site amongst the undescended testis

(b) It can not be drawn in to the lower part of hte scrotum

(c) It is usually well formed, mature testis

(d) It can retract in to the superficial inquinal pouch

5.154 How much is the temprature elevation in intraabdominal testis in comparision to scrotal location ?

(a) 0.5-1.0oC

(b) 1.0-1.5oC

(c) 1.5-2.0oC

(d) 2.0-2.5oC

5.155 During testicular descent, the epididymis preceds the testis in its journey to the scrotum : this
statement is

(a) True

(b) False

5.156 What is the incidence of undescended testis in full gsm (birth weight greater than 2500 gms)
infants camined at birth ?

(a) 1.4 percent

(b) 2.4 percent

(c) 3.4 percent

(d) 4.4 percent

5.157 What is the incidence of bilateral cryptorchidism in infants weighing less than 900 gsm ?

(a) 70 percent

(b) 80 percent

(c) 90 percent

(d) 100 percent

5.158 Approximately, in how many percent of full term cystorchid testis, spontaneously descent will
occur by 1 year of age :

(a) 65 percent

(b) 75 percent

(c) 85 percent

(d) 95 percent

5.159 Approximately, in how many percent of premature crytochid testis, spontaneously descent

will occur by 1 year of age :

(a) 65 percent

(b) 75 percent

(c) 85 percent

(d) 95 percent

5.170 Which of the following are conflicting changes in the undescended testis ?

(a) Small seminiferous tubules

(b) Fewer spermatogonia

(c) More peritubular tissue

(d) Changes in the leydig cells

5.171 Which of the following are conflicting changes on electron microscopy in the undescended

testis ?

(a) Degeneration of mitochondria

(b) Increase in collagen fibres in the spermatogonia and sertoli cells

(c) Loss of ribosomes in both the cytoplasm and smooth endoplasmic reticulum

(d) Changes in the leydig cells

5.172 Approximately how many percent of testicular tumours rise from indescended testis :

(a) 6 percent

(b) 8 percent

(c) 10 percent

(d) 12 percent

5.173 What is the treatment of choice, if a testis is undescended but palpable in a patient who is old
than 32 years ?

(a) Observation

(b) Orchiopexy

(c) Orchidectomy

(d) Abdominal exploration

5.174 What are the chances of the other testis becoming malignant, if both the testes are
intraabdominal and one tesis become malignant ?
(a) 10 percent

(b) 20 percent

(c) 30 percent

(d) 40 percent

5.175 Tubular fertility index (TFI) signifies :

(a) Percentage of mature spermatogonia

(b) Percentage of tubules containing indentifiable spermatogonia

(c) Percentage of mobile sperms

(d) Percentage of tubules which contain glycogen and lipid

5.176 All of the following statements are true about undescended testis EXCEPT :

(a) undescended testis are 48 times more likely to undergo malignant changes than a fully
descended testis

(b) successful orchiopexy removes the risk of malignant transformation

(c) there is a primary cellular abnormality germinal and nutritive series

(d) hereditary cryptorchidism is transmitted by an autosomal dominent gene with ari incomplete
penetration

5.177 Torsion of the testis occurs inside the :

(a) tunica albuginea (Parietal layer)

(b) tunica vaginalis

(c) creamaster muscle and fascia

(d) scrotum

5.178 All of the following predispose to testicular torsion EXCEPT :

(a) capacious tunica vaginalis

(b) malrotated testis

(c) long and narrow mesentry of the testis

(d) increased fluid inside the tunica

5.179 The following statements about testicular torison are true EXCEPT :

(a) usually occurs when the testis becomes larger and heavier at puberty

(b) must be differentiated from epididymo-orohitis

(c) watchful waiting is the preferred treatment

(d) in the neonates, the clinical picture usually is of a hard, enlarged, apparently non-tender mass

5.180 What is the incidence of phimosis by 17 years of age ?

(a) less than 1 percent

(b) 1-2 percent

(c) 2-3 percent

(d) 3-4 percent

5.181 In general, atleast what should be the length of penis of a fullterm newborn :

(a) 1.5 cm

(b) 2.5 cm

(c) 3.5 cm

(d) 4.5 cm

5.182 Following are the features in a case of penile agenesis EXCEPT :

(a) The karyotype 46 XY

(b) There is a well developed scrotum with descended testis

(c) There is absent penile shaft

(d) The anus is generally displace posteriorly

5.183 Which is the most common site of ectopic scrotum ?

(a) Supra inquinal

(b) Infra inquinal

(c) Perineum

(d) Equal in all sites

5.184 Is the exstrophy complex congenital anomalies are less commonly found in :

(a) Kidneys

(b) Bladder

(c) Pubic bone

(d) Genitaha

5.185 All of the following congenital anomalies can be present in a of classic exstrophy of
the bladder EXCEPT :

(a) Epipadiac

(b) Bilateral ins ia

(c) Vesico-ure

(d) Widening pubis

(e) Deficlent minal wall with everted bladder

5.186 In extrophy in coming rotational and lateral deformities of a girdle can be present EXCEPT :

(a) Outward of mnominate bones

(b) Outward of pubic bones

(c) Lateral in tion of innominate bones

(d) Fusion and of sacro llac joints

5.187 All of the following are associated with exatrophy of the bladder EXCEPT :

(a) Incontine

(b) Hydroneph

(c) Bladder ma

(d) Wadding

(e) Autosoma inheritence

5.188 In a patient presenting ith two hemibladders separated by an area of intestine, accompanied
variably by episadius, diphallus widening of symphysis pubis and a double inferior vena cava, your first
diagnosis would be :

(a) Classical extrophy

(b) Cloacal extrophy

(c) Pseudoxstrophy

(d) Duplicate extrophy

5.189 Which of the following clinical finding clinches the diagnosis of superior vesical fissure as opposed
to a patent urachus ?

(a) Musculo-skeletal defects

(b) Well formed upper urinary tracts

(c) Urinary continence

(d) Minimal bladder eventration present only below the umblicus

5.190 A patient presented with a characteristic widened symphysis pubis, a stubby upward pointing
penis, a patch of extrophic bladder mucosa lying immediately below the umblicus and normal urinary
bladder, trigone and urethra is most probaly a patient of :

(a) Exstrophy of the bladder

(b) Cloacal extrohpy

(c) Pseudoexstrophy

(d) Superior vesical fissure

(e) Duplicate exstrophy

5.191 Which is the rarest variety of epispadius ?

(a) Gladular

(b) Panile

(c) Penopubic

5.192 Incontinence is the characteristic feature of which type of epispadius :

(a) Glandular

(b) Periile

(c) Penopubic

(d) None of the above

5.193 All of the following surgical procedures are recquired during the repair of a penile epispadius
EXCEPT :

(a) Release of urehra from corpora cavernosa

(b) Penile lengthening

(c) Correction of incontinence

(d) Formation of peno-glandular

5.194 surgery to cure incontinence by incising the bladder neck and proximal urethra anteriorly,
excisting a wedge of tissue from each side to narrow the bladder outlet and suturing to convert the
originally funnelled bladder in to a tubular shape is called :

(a) Young-dess operation

(b) Tanagho-smith operation

(c) Leadbetter operation

(d) Marshall-marchetti-krantz operation

5.195 The achievement of continence following surgery for epispadiac incontinece may be considerably
delayed. All of the following theories have been proposed for this EXCEPT :

(a) Gradual development of vesico-urethral muscle

(b) Ijury to the nerves supplying the bladder neck at the time of surgery

(c) Social maturity at puberty

(d) Development of prostate at puberty

5.196 Which is the commonest in the spectrum of extrophic lesion ?

(a) Superior vesical fissure

(b) Cloacal extrophy

(c) Classical extrophy

5.197 The operation to cure incontinence by lengthening of the posterior urethra by a pedicled flap

of the anterior bladder wall which is formed in to a tubular neourethra and interpose between the
bladder and the natural urethra is named :

(a) Young-dees operation

(b) Tanagho-smith operation

(c) Leadbetter operation

(d) Marshall-marchetti-krantz operation

5.198 Before contemplating sugical closure, an extrophic bladder should have all of the following

characteristic EXCEPT :

(a) Functioning integrity

(b) Elaticity and pliability

(c) An estimated capacity of at least 50 ml at birth

(d) Healthy mucosal surface

5.199 Which is the optimum age for a child for surgical closure of the extrophy bladder ?

(a) Within 48 hours

(b) Within a month

(c) Before one year of age

(d) At he time of puberty

5.200 In approximately, how many percentage of patients having bilateral vesico ureteric reflux
following surgical closure of the exstrophic bladder :

(a) 25%

(b) 50%

(c) 75%

(d) 100%

5.201 Which is the most common type of malignancy occur in exstrophy bladder ?

(a) Adenocarcinoma
(b) Squamous cell carcinoma

(c) Rhabdomyosarcoma

(d) Transitional cell carcinoma

5.202 Which are the two most common cause megaureter ?

(a) Prune belly syndrome and neurogenic bladder

(b) Obstruction at the uretero-vesical junction and vesico ureteric reflux

(c) Diabetes insipidus and latrogenic cause

(d) Posteropr irethral valves and anomalies of urehra

5.203 Accentuation of which of the following normally existing structure is characteristic of obstructive
urethral valves :

(a) Verumontanum

(b) Crista urehralis

(c) Plicae colliculi

(d) External urehral sphineter

5.204 Which is the commonest type of posterior urethral valves according to young’s cassification ?

(a) Type I

(b) Type II

(c) Type III

(d) Type IV

5.205 Valves which consist of oblique posterior mucosal fold extending from the lower end of
verumontanum distally up to the urogenital diaphragm are classified as :

(a) Type I
(b) Type II

(c) Type III

(d) Type IV

5.206 To which segment of the circumference of the urethral wall are the young type I valves distally
attached :

(a) Posterior

(b) Anterior

(c) Lateral

(d) Anywhere

5.207 Which of the following theory has been suggested regarding the embryogenesis of the posterior
urehral valves ?

(a) Enlargement of normal urethral folds

(b) Persistence of urogenital membrane

(c) Urethral groove

(d) All of the above

5.208 Which is the investigation of choice in posterior urethral valves ?

(a) Micturating cystourethrogram

(b) Retrograde urethrogram

(c) Cystopanendoscopy

(d) Ultrasound scanning

5.209 Which is the following statement is INCORRECT regarding posterior urethral valves ?

(a) The older the patient worse is the prognosis

(b) Young type i valves are the commonest

(c) Cut vesicostomy is a better temporary diversion than suprapubic cystostomy

(d) Transurethral resection of valves should be done primarily in a patient of PUV with minimally
damaged upper tracts

5.210 Which of the following statement is FALSE regarding classical type 1 posterior urethral valves ?

(a) This is an obstructing membrance which radiates in a distal direction from the verumontanum
posteriorly towards the membranous urethra anteriorly

(b) Children with classic type 1 valve have plicae colliculli

(c) They make up more than 95 percent of all types of valves

(d) The clinical presentation is in a variety of ways depending primarily on the degree of obstruction

5.211 What is the usual cause of death in neonates who die as a result of posterior urethral valves ?

(a) Respiratory failure

(b) Renal failure

(c) Infections

(d) Dehydration and electrolyte imbalance

5.212 Which is the single most significant abnormality that will determine ultimate renal function in
cases of posterior urethral valves ?

(a) Renal parenchymal dysplasia

(b) Hydronephrotic changes

(c) Infection

(d) Progresive glomerulosclerosis for hyperfiltration

5.213 Which anatomic condition in association with posterior urethral valves appears to be associated
with generally improved renal funtion ?
(a) Massive vesko ureteral reflux

(b) Large bladder diverticula

(c) Urinary ascites

(d) All of the above

5.214 Which of the following characteristic finding detected by ultrasound is FALSE in a fetus with
posterior valves ?

(a) Bilateral hydronephrosis

(b) Distended nonthickened bladder

(c) Dilated posterior urethra

(d) Varying degrees of amniotic fluid abnormality

5.215 Following fetal urinary estimation are good prognostic predictor for post natal renal funtion in a
fetus with posterior urethral valves EXCEPT :

(a) Sodium (mEg.L) > 100

(b) Chlorid (mEg/L) < 90

(c) Osmolarity (mOsm) < 210

(d) Urinary output (ml/Hour) > 2

5.216 Whic is the treatment of choice in a patient of PUV with moderate bilateral
hydroureteronephrosis, blood urea 80%, serum creatinine 2.8 mg% with sterile urine ?

(a) Transurethral resection of valves (TURV)

(b) TURV with close follow up to observe response of upper urinary tract which will decide further
management

(c) Bilateral nephrostomy followed by TURV three weeks later

(d) Bilateral pyelostomy followed by TURV one year later

5.217 Lyon’s ring is synonym for :

(a) Young type III valves

(b) Congenital urethral stricture

(c) Distal urethral stenosis

(d) Anterior urethral valves

5.218 The saccular anterior urethral diverticulum is most commonly located at :

(a) Distal bulbar urethra

(b) Peno-scrotal junction

(c) Penile urethra

(d) Navicular fossa

5.219 Which is the most common cause of congenital anterior urethral obstruction ?

(a) Anterior urethral valves

(b) Valvular obstruction of the fossa navicularis

(c) Cystic dilatation of the ducts of cowper’s glands

(d) Megalourethra

5.220 Which is the commonest type of hypospadius ?

(a) Glanular

(b) Subcoronal
(c) Anterior penile

(d) Midshaft

5.221 Approximately what is the estimated in cidence of hypospadius :

(a) 1 in 100

(b) 1 in 200

(c) 1 in 300

(d) 1 in 400

5.222 What is the incidence of hypospadius in fathers of hypospadiac children ?

(a) 2 percent

(b) 4 percent

(c) 6 percent

(d) 8 percent

5.223 What is the incidence of hypospadius in siblings ?

(a) 12 percent

(b) 14 percent

(c) 16 percent

(d) 18 percent

5.224 Which are the commonamolics associated with hypospadius ?

(a) Undescended testis

(b) Inquinal hernia

(c) Upper urinary tract anomalies

(d) Myeomeningocele

(e) Imperforate anus

5.225 Which is the technique of choice for repair of anterior hypospadius with glanular meatus with
good mobolity of the urethra and without chordee ?

(a) Meatal advancement and glanuloplasty (MAGPI)

(b) Para-meatal based flap (mathieu procedure)

(c) Onlay island flap urethral extension

(d) Mustarde procedure

5.226 Which is the technique of choice for repair of anterior hypospadius with sub-coronal meatus
without mobolity of the urethra and chordee ?

(a) Meatal advancement and glanuloplasty (MAGPI)

(b) Parameatal based flap (Mathleu procedure)

(c) Onlay island flap urethral extension

(d) Mustarde procedure

5.227 Which is the technique of choice for repair of antering hypospadius when the meatus us too
proximal, the ventral skin is too thin for a flap and there is no chordee ?

(a) Meatal advancement and glanuloplasty (MAGPI)

(b) Arameatal based flap (Mathleu procedure)

(c) Onlay island flap urethral extension

(d) Musterde procedure

5.228 Following are the feathures of Klinefelter syndrome EXCEPT :

(a) Small firm testis

(b) Azoospermia

(c) Gynaecomastia

(d) Low levels of urinary gonadotrophins

5.229 Which are the common karytotype pattern seen in Klinefelter syndrome ?

(a) 46 XY

(b) 47 XXY

(c) 46 XY/ 57 XXY

(d) 46 XXX

5.230 Which is the fundamental chromosomal defect in Klinefelter syndrome ?

(a) Absence of chromosome

(b) Presence of an extra X chromosome in males

(c) Presence of an extra X and Y chromosome in males

(d) None of the above

5.231 Which of the following is wrong about Klinefelter syndrome ?

(a) Raised FSH level

(b) Raised LH level

(c) Raised testosterone level

(d) Raised estradiol level

5.232 Following are the histological findings in the testis in a acse of Klinefelter syndrome EXCEPT :

(a) Hyalinization of the tubules

(b) Absence of spermatogenesis

(c) Increae in leying cells

(d) Increase in sertoli

5.233 What is the diagnosis in a acse in which bilateral streak gonads are associated with normal 46XX or
46 XY karyotype, normal stature and primary amenorrea ?

(a) Mixed gonadal dysgenesis

(b) Pure gonadal dyspgenesis

(c) True hermaphroditism

(d) Noonan syndrome

5.234 What is the diagnosis in a case in which there i a testis on one side and a streak gonad on the
other ?

(a) Mixed gonadal dysgenesis

(b) Pure gonadal dysgenesis

(c) True hermaphroditism

(d) Female pseudohernaphroditism

5.235 The following are eponysm for absent testis syndrome EXCEPT :

(a) Anorchia

(b) Gonadal agenesis

(c) Pure gonadal dysgenesis

(d) Testicular regression

(e) Agonadism

5.236 Which is the most common cause of congenital adrenal hyperplasia ?

(a) 21 hydroxylase deficiency

(b) 11 Betahydroxylase deficiency

(c) 17 alpha hydroxylase deficiency

(d) 20-22 desmolase deficiaency

5.237 Which of the following statement is FALSE regarding Rokitansky kester-hanser syndrome ?

(a) There is congenital absence of vagina

(b) Someform of abnormal or absent uterus

(c) The breasts, axillary and pubic hair habitus are famine in character

(d) Renal skeletal and other congenital anomalies are rare

5.238 The following hormonal deficiency can result in to congenital adrenal hyperplasia and male
pseudo-hermaphroditism EXCEPT :

(a) 20-22 desmolase

(b) 3 betahydroxysteroid dehydrogenase

(c) 17 alpha hydroxylase

(d) 17 beta hydroxysteroid

5.239 Which hormones deficiency can result in male pseudohermaphroditism only ?

(a) 17 betahydroxysteroid

(b) 17-20 desmolase

(c) 20-22 desmolase

(d) 3 beta hydroxysteroid

5.240 Which is the most common form of male pseudohemafroditism ?

(a) 5 alpha reductase deticiency

(b) Complete testicular feminization

(c) Reifenstein syndrome

(d) Infertile male sydrome

5.241 In how many percent of the nuclie of normal females, the barr body is found :

(a) Less than 5 percent

(b) 5-10 percent

(c) 10-15 percent

(d) 20 percent and above

5.242 In how many percent of the nuclie of normal males, the barr body is found ?

(a) Less than 2 percent

(b) 2-5 percent

(c) 5-10 percent

(d) 10-15 percent