Ju Pmscs & Pmit Suggestion

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1. MCQ
2. SHORT QUESTION
3. IMPORTANT THEORY
4. PREVIOUS QUESTION
PMSCSAdmission Test
Duration: 1.00 hour
Mark Distribution:
MCQ 30 + Short questions 20
Total 50 Marks
PMIT Admission Test

Duration: 1.00 hour
Mark Distribution:
MCQ 60(Including math(25)+English(10)) = Total 60
Marks
Math (LCM*** and HCF*** ,fraction ,decimal, Ages*** ,average**
,ratio-proportion*** , percentage***, Time distance speed ,**Profit
& loss, ***pattern , *****probability, triangle area, polygon,
equation, statistics )
English (**synonyms, **antonyms, ***Right form of verb ,

***completing sentence, **Spelling Correction, ** part of speech
basic grammar )
(N.B. -->math and english only for PMIT.... not for PMSCS)
Five Major Units of Computers
The five units of a computer perform this same action and behavior of humans. These units are called the five major
units of a computer
1) Input unit
This is a unit that reads data to be processed by computer.
2) Output unit
This is a unit that writes the processing results in a form that can be understood by
humans.
3) Storage unit
This is a unit that records data. There are main memory and auxiliary storage.
4) Arithmetic and logical unit

This is a unit that performs arithmetic operations on data that is stored in the
storage unit or makes a decision as per the instructions of the control unit.
5) Control unit
This is a unit that interprets a command and gives instructions to the remaining
four units.
the control unit and the arithmetic and logical unit are collectively referred to as the CPU (Central Processing Unit)
or the processor.
Storage unit
Main memory
This unit can directly exchange data with the control unit and the arithmetic and
logical unit, and it has a volatility characteristic (contents are lost if power supply is
turned off).
Auxiliary storage
This unit stores data that cannot be accommodated in main memory, and it has a
non-volatility characteristic (contents are not lost even if power supply is turned off).
RAM is IC memory where reading and writing of data can be done freely. It is not suitable for storing
data for a long time because it has a property (volatility) where data is cleared when the power is off.
• SRAM (Static RAM)

While its operating speed is high, it is expensive and it also has high power
consumption. As for its memory mechanism, it uses a flip-flop circuit that continues to retain the preceding status, and
electrical charge that records information can be retained as long as power is supplied. However, its di sadvantages are a
low degree of integration because of complex configuration of the circuit, and storage capacity that is
smaller compared with DRAM. It is mainly used in registers or other memory devices.
• DRAM (Dynamic RAM)

While its operating speed is somewhat slow, it uses a simple circuit where
electrical charge is retained by condenser or capacitor. Therefore, the degree of integration is high, and large capacity
memory can be easily created at low cost. However, electrical charge that records information is lost over time, and
therefore it is necessary to rewrite (refresh) the information. Examples include SDRAM (Synchronous DRAM) or DDR
SDRAM (Double Data Rate SDRAM) used in main memory, and RDRAM (Rambus DRAM) that uses Rambus
technology in the external bus interface.
ROM is IC memory that can be used only for reading data. It has a property (non-volatility)
where data is not lost even when the power is off.
• Mask ROM
This is a type of ROM where users cannot write data. This memory is used to store
programs or data in factories, and the information is used only for the purpose of reference.
• User programmable ROM

This is a type of ROM where users can write data. On the bases of the writing
methods and restrictions on the number of rewritable times, this is classified as follows:
• PROM (Programmable ROM): This is a type of ROM where user can write information
Only once.
• UV-EPROM (Ultraviolet-Erasable PROM): This is a type of ROM where data can be

Rewritten after information is erased by
Irradiating ultraviolet rays.
• EEPROM (Electrically EPROM):This is a type of ROM where data can be rewritten after
All or a part of information is electrically erased. It has
Limited life because of deterioration, and the number
Of rewritable times is restricted to a few tens of
Thousands of times to a few million times.
• Flash memory: This is semiconductor memory where data can be rewritten after data is erased in units of blocks
through electrical operations. Flash memory is a type of EEPROM. Therefore, the number of rewritable timesis limited
However, it is used for various applications as a portable and convenient storage medium.
NUMBER SYSTEM
Number systems are the technique to represent numbers in the computer system architecture,
every value that you are saving or getting into/from computer memory has a defined number
system.
Computer architecture supports following number systems.
• Binary number system

• Octal number system
• Decimal number system
• Hexadecimal (hex) number system
BINARY NUMBER SYSTEM
A Binary number system has only two digits that are 0 and 1. Every number (value) represents
with 0 and 1 in this number system. The base of binary number system is 2, because it has only
two digits.
OCTAL NUMBER SYSTEM
Octal number system has only eight (8) digits from 0 to 7. Every number (value) represents with
0,1,2,3,4,5,6 and 7 in this number system. The base of octal number system is 8, because it has
only 8 digits.
DECIMAL NUMBER SYSTEM
Decimal number system has only ten (10) digits from 0 to 9. Every number (value) represents
with 0,1,2,3,4,5,6, 7,8 and 9 in this number system. The base of decimal number system is 10,
because it has only 10 digits.
HEXADECIMAL NUMBER SYSTEM
A Hexadecimal number system has sixteen (16) alphanumeric values from 0 to 9 and A to F.
Every number (value) represents with 0,1,2,3,4,5,6, 7,8,9,A,B,C,D,E and F in this number
system. The base of hexadecimal number system is 16, because it has 16 alphanumeric values.
Here A is 10, B is 11, C is 12, D is 14, E is 15 and F is 16.
Number system Base(Radix) Used digits Example

Binary 2 0,1 (11110000)2
Octal 8 0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7 (360)8
Decimal 10 0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9 (240)10
0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,
Hexadecimal 16 (F0)16
A,B,C,D,E,F
CONVERSIONS
DECIMAL TO OTHER
1. DECIMAL TO BINARY
Decimal Number System to Other Base
To convert Number system from Decimal Number System to Any Other Base is quite easy;
you have to follow just two steps:
A) Divide the Number (Decimal Number) by the base of target base system (in which you want
to convert the number: Binary (2), octal (8) and Hexadecimal (16)).
B) Write the remainder from step 1 as a Least Signification Bit (LSB) to Step last as a Most
Significant Bit (MSB).
Decimal to Binary Conversion Result

Decimal Number is : (12345)10
Binary Number is
(11000000111001)2
2. DECIMAL TO OCTAL
Decimal to Octal Conversion Result

Octal Number is
(30071)8
3. DECIMAL TO HEXADECIMAL
Decimal to Hexadecimal Conversion Result
Example 1
Hexadecimal Number is
(3039)16
Example 2
Decimal Number is : (725)10 Hexadecimal Number is
(2D5)16
Convert
10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15
to its equivalent...
A, B, C, D, E, F
BINARY TO OTHER
A) Multiply the digit with 2(with place value exponent). Eventually add all the multiplication
becomes the Decimal number.
1. BINARY TO DECIMAL
2. BINARY TO OCTAL
An easy way to convert from binary to octal is to group binary digits into sets of three, starting
with the least significant (rightmost) digits.
Binary: 11100101 = 11 100 101

011 100 101 Pad the most significant digits with zeros if
necessary to complete a group of three.
Then, look up each group in a table:

Binary: 000 001 010 011 100 101 110 111
Octal: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Binary = 011 100 101

Octal = 3 4 5 = 345 oct
3. BINARY TO HEXADECIMAL
An equally easy way to convert from binary to hexadecimal is to group binary digits into sets of
four, starting with the least significant (rightmost) digits.
Binary: 11100101 = 1110 0101
Then, look up each group in a table:

Binary: 0000 0001 0010 0011 0100 0101 0110 0111
Hexadecimal: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Binary: 1000 1001 1010 1011 1100 1101 1110 1111
Hexadecimal: 8 9 A B C D E F
Binary = 1110 0101

Hexadecimal = E 5 = E5 hex
OCTAL TO OTHER
1. OCTAL TO BINARY
Converting from octal to binary is as easy as converting from binary to octal. Simply look up
each octal digit to obtain the equivalent group of three binary digits.
Octal: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Binary: 000 001 010 011 100 101 110 111
Octal = 3 4 5
Binary = 011 100 101 = 011100101 binary
2. OCTAL TO HEXADECIMAL
When converting from octal to hexadecimal, it is often easier to first convert the octal number
into binary and then from binary into hexadecimal. For example, to convert 345 octal into hex:
(from the previous example)

Octal = 3 4 5
Binary = 011 100 101 = 011100101 binary

Drop any leading zeros or pad with leading zeros to get groups of four binary digits (bits):
Binary 011100101 = 1110 0101
Then, look up the groups in a table to convert to hexadecimal digits.
Binary: 0000 0001 0010 0011 0100 0101 0110 0111
Hexadecimal: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Binary: 1000 1001 1010 1011 1100 1101 1110 1111
Binary = 1110 0101
Hexadecimal = E 5 = E5 hex
Therefore, through a two-step conversion process, octal 345 equals binary 011100101 equals
hexadecimal E5.
3. OCTAL TO DECIMAL
The conversion can also be performed in the conventional mathematical way, by showing each
digit place as an increasing power of 8.
345 octal = (3 * 82) + (4 * 81) + (5 * 80) = (3 * 64) + (4 * 8) + (5 * 1) = 229 decimal
OR
Converting octal to decimal can be done with repeated division.
1. Start the decimal result at 0.

2. Remove the most significant octal digit (leftmost) and add it to the result.
3. If all octal digits have been removed, you’re done. Stop.
4. Otherwise, multiply the result by 8.
5. Go to step 2.
Octal Digits Operation Decimal Result Operation Decimal Result

345 +3 3 ×8 24
45 +4 28 ×8 224
5 +5 229 done.
 (345)8 =(229)10
HEXADECIMAL TO OTHER
1. HEXADECIMAL TO BINARY
Converting from hexadecimal to binary is as easy as converting from binary to hexadecimal.

Simply look up each hexadecimal digit to obtain the equivalent group of four binary digits.
Hexadecimal: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Binary: 0000 0001 0010 0011 0100 0101 0110 0111
Binary: 1000 1001 1010 1011 1100 1101 1110 1111
Hexadecimal = A 2 D E
Binary = 1010 0010 1101 1110 = 1010001011011110 binary
2. HEXADECIMAL TO OCTAL
1's complement
The 1's complement of a number is found by changing all 1's to 0's and all 0's to 1's. This is
called as taking complement or 1's complement. Example of 1's Complement is as follows.
Binary Addition
It is a key for binary subtraction, multiplication, division. There are four rules of binary addition.
In fourth case, a binary addition is creating a sum of (1 + 1 = 10) i.e. 0 is written in the given
column and a carry of 1 over to the next column.
Example − Addition
2's complement
The 2's complement of binary number is obtained by adding 1 to the Least Significant Bit (LSB)
of 1's complement of the number.
2's complement = 1's complement + 1
Example of 2's Complement is as follows.

Rules of Binary Addition
• 0 + 0 = 0
• 0 + 1 = 1
• 1 + 0 = 1
• 1 + 1 = 0, and carry 1 to the next more significant bit
For example,
00011010 + 00001100 = 00100110 1 1 Carries

0 0 0 1 1 0 1 0 = 26(base 10)
+ 0 0 0 0 1 1 0 0 = 12(base 10)
0 0 1 0 0 1 1 0 = 38(base 10)
00010011 + 00111110 = 01010001 1 1 1 1 1 carries

0 0 0 1 0 0 1 1 = 19(base 10)
+ 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 0 = 62(base 10)
0 1 0 1 0 0 0 1 = 81(base 10)
Rules of Binary Multiplication

• 0 x 0 = 0
• 0 x 1 = 0
• 1 x 0 = 0
• 1 x 1 = 1, and no carry or borrow bits
For example,
00101001 × 00000110 = 11110110 0 0 1 0 1 0 0 1 = 41(base 10)

× 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 0 = 6(base 10)
0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 0 1 0 1 0 0 1
0 0 1 0 1 0 0 1
0 0 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 0 = 246(base 10)
Binary Division
Binary division is the repeated process of subtraction, just as in decimal division.
For example,
00101010 ÷ 00000110 = 1 1 1 = 7(base 10)

00000111
1 1 0 ) 0 0 1 10 1 0 1 0 = 42(base 10)
- 1 1 0 = 6(base 10)
1 borrows
1 0 10 1
- 1 1 0
1 1 0
- 1 1 0
10000111 ÷ 00000101 = 1 1 0 1 1 = 27(base 10)

00011011
10 135(base
1 0 1 ) 1 0 0 0 1 1 1 =
10)
- 1 0 1 = 5(base 10)
1
1 1 0
- 1 0 1
1 1
- 0
1 1 1
- 1 0 1
1 0 1
- 1 0 1
Example − Division
ALU (Arithmetic and Logical Unit) is a unit that performs arithmetic operations and logical
operations. This unit is composed of various circuits.
Logic circuit is a circuit that performs logical operations for logical processing of
instructions by computers. Logical operations refer to arithmetic operations that have only
two truth values of True (1) and False (0).
logical operations:
1) Logical product operation (AND)

The output becomes True (1) when both input values are True (1), or else the output
is False (0) (when either one is False (0)).
2) Logical sum operation (OR)

The output becomes False (0) when both input values are False (0), or else the
output is True (1) (when either one is True (1)).
3) Negation operation (NOT)

The output becomes False (0) when the input value is True (1), and the output is
True (1) when the input value is False (0).
4) Exclusive logical sum (Exclusive OR) operation (XOR or EOR)

The output becomes False (0) when both input values are the same, and the output is
True (1) when both input values are different
Truth table where summarizes the relations between input and output of the respective logical
operation.
AND circuit
OR circuit
NOT circuit
NAND circuit
NOR circuit
XOR circuit
logical laws
Algorithm Analysis and Design
Computer Program
A computer program is a list of instructions that we write using a programming language

the computer understands.
Algorithm:
Algorithm are the systematic ordered logical approach which is a well-defined,

step-by-step procedure that allows a computer to solve a problem. Algorithms are
the ideas behind computer programs. It is the thing that stays the same whether
the program is in Pascal running on a Windows or is in JAVA running on a
Macintosh!
There are various ways of writing an algorithm. Going to explain 3 ways of writing an algorithm.
In English
As a pseudocode
As a Flowchart
English
It is a form of English often used in functional or system specifications and it looks a bit
like programming statements but does not have a compiler readable syntax.
Pseudocode
The pseudocode has an advantage of being easily converted into any programming
language. This way of writing algorithm is most acceptable and most widely used. In
order to write a pseudocode, one must be familiar with the conventions of writing it.
1. Single line comments start with //

2. Multi-line comments occur between /* and */
3. Blocks are represented using brackets. Blocks can be used to represent
compound statements or the procedures.
{
statements
}
4. Statements are delimited by semicolon.

5. Assignment statements indicates that the result of evaluation of the
expression will be stored in the variable.
< variable > = < expression >

6. The boolean expression 'x > y' returns true if x is greater than y, else
returns false.
7. The boolean expression 'x < y' returns true if x is less than y, else
returns false.
8. The boolean expression 'x <= y' returns true if x is less than or equal
to y, else returns false.
9. The boolean expression 'x >= y' returns true if x is greater than or
equal to y, else returns false.
10. The boolean expression 'x != y' returns true if x is not equal to y, else
returns false.
11. The boolean expression 'x == y' returns true if x is equal to y, else
returns false.
12. The boolean expression 'x AND y' returns true if both conditions are
true, else returns false.
13. The boolean expression 'x OR y' returns true if any of the conditions
is true, else returns false.
14. The boolean expression 'NOT y' returns true if the result of x
evaluates to false, else returns false.
15. if< condition >then< statement >
16. This condition is an enhancement of the above 'if' statement. It can
also handle the case where the condition isn't satisfied.
if< condition >then< statement1 >else< statement2 >
17. switch case (C or C++)
case {
:< condition 1 >: < statement 1 >
.....
.....
.....
:< condition n >: < statement n >
:default: < statement n+1 >
}
18. while loop
while< condition >do {

statements
}
19. do-while loop
repeat
statements
until< condition >
20. for loop
for variable = value1 to value2 {

statements
}
21. input instruction
Read
22. Output instruction
Print
23. The name of the algorithm is < name > and the arguments are
stored in the < parameter list >
Algorithm< name > (< parameter list >)

Number 6 to Number 11 use relational operator, Number 12 to
14 uses logical operator, and Number 15 uses conditional
operator.
Flowchart
Flowcharts pictorially depict a process. They are easy to understand

and are commonly used in the case of simple problems.
.
English language Pseudo code Flowchart
1. Start from the procedure linear_search

leftmost element of arr[] (list, value)
and for each item in the
one by one compare x with list
each element of arr[]. if match item ==
2. If x matches with an value
element, return the return the
index. item's location
3. If x doesn’t match end if
with any of elements,
return -1. end for
. end procedure
linear search linear search
Analysis of Algorithms
Analysis of Algorithms is the process of finding the computational complexity of algorithms .
Time complexity :To have an estimate about how much time an algorithm may take to finish,
or in other words, to analyze its running time .
Running time analysis:

Also referred to as time-complexity analysis .To determine how running time increases as the
size of the problem increases.
Measure Actual Running Time:

We can measure the actual running time of a program Using stopwatch or insert timing code
into program.
However, actual running time is not meaningful when comparing two algorithms
– Coded in different languages
– Using different data sets
– Running on different computers
–
Space complexity :Sometimes, instead of running time, we are interested in how much
memory/space the algorithm may consume while it runs.
Counting Operations
Count operations instead of time

➢ The number of operations and count them.
➢ Large input, more operations
➢ Small input, less operations
Example: Counting Operations
◼ How many operations are required?

for (int i = 1; i <= n; i++) {
perform 100 operations; // A
for (int j = 1; j <= n; j++) {
perform 2 operations; // B
}
}
◼ Knowing the number of operations required by the algorithm, we can state that
◼ Algorithm X takes 2n2 + 100n operations to solve problem of size n
◼ If the time t needed for one operation is known, then we can state
◼ Algorithm X takes (2n2 + 100n)t time units
◼ However, time t is directly dependent on the factors mentioned earlier

◼ e.g. different languages, compilers and computers
◼ Instead of tying the analysis to actual time t, we can state
Algorithm X takes time that is proportional to 2n2 + 100n for solving problem of size n
Approximation of Analysis Results

◼ Suppose the time complexity of
◼ Algorithm A is 3n2 + 2n + log n + 1/(4n)
◼ Algorithm B is 0.39n3 + n
◼ Intuitively, we know Algorithm A will outperform B
◼ When solving larger problem, i.e. larger n
◼ The dominating term 3n2 and 0.39n3 can tell us approximately how the
algorithms perform
◼ The terms n2 and n3 are even simpler and preferred
◼ These terms can be obtained through asymptotic analysis
Asymptotic Analysis:
Asymptotic analysis is an analysis of algorithms that focuses on Analyzing problems of

large input size, Consider only the leading term of the formula, Ignore the coefficient of
the leading term.
Growth Rate of Running Time:

Changing the hardware/ software environment
– Affects T(n) by a constant factor, but
– Does not alter the growth rate of T(n)
Why Choose Leading Term?

Why ignore the coefficient of the leading term
Ideal Solution to Express running time
• Express runtime as a function of the input size n (i.e., f(n)) in order to understand
how f(n) grows with n
• and count only the most significant term of f(n) and ignore everything else
(because those won’t affect running time much for very large values of n).
• Thus the running times (also called time complexity) of the programs of the
previous slide becomes:
• f(N)= c1N ≈ N*(some constant)
• g(N) = (c1+c2+c3)N+(c1+c2) ≈ N*(some constant)
• Thus both these functions grows linearly with N and as such both have the same
running time (specifically, linear running time). We say that both of them are O(N)
functions, which means that, the running time of each of these algorithms is a
constant multiple of N (we ignore the value of the constant).
• We compare running times of different functions in an asymptotic manner (i.e.,
we check if f(n) > g(n) for very large values of n). That’s why, the task of
computing time complexity (of an algorithm) is also called asymptotic analysis.
Asymptotic Notations
• O notation: asymptotic “upper bound”:

•  notation: asymptotic “lower bound”:
•  notation: asymptotic “tight bound”:
Big O
• Informally, O (g(n)) is the set of all functions with a smaller or same order of
growth as g(n), within a constant multiple
• If we say f(n) is in O(g(n)), it means that g(n) is an asymptotic upper bound of f(n)
– Intuitively, it is like f(n) ≤ g(n)
What is O(n2)?
The set of all functions that grow slower than or in the same order as n2..
Divide and Conquer
Recursive in structure
Divide the problem into independent sub-problems that are similar to the original but
smaller in size
Conquer the sub-problems by solving them recursively. If they are small enough, just
solve them in a straightforward manner.
This can be done by reducing the problem until it reaches the base case, which is the
solution.
Combine the solutions of the sub-problems to create a solution to the original problem
Example:
Merge Sort
Sorting Problem: Sort a sequence of n elements into non-decreasing order.
Divide: Divide the n-element sequence to be sorted into two subsequences of n/2
elements each
Conquer: Sort the two subsequences recursively using merge sort.
Combine: Merge the two sorted subsequences to produce the sorted answer.
Quicksort
Heaps A complete binary tree
Min-heap
Each of the elements contains a value that is less than or equal to the value of each of its children
Max-heap
Each of the elements contains a value that is greater than or equal to the value of each of its children
Bubble sort is a sorting algorithm that compares adjacent elements. If the magnitude relation
is reverse, it exchanges the elements to correct the relation. This operation is performed in
sequence from the first element. The name “bubble sort” was chosen because the action of
gradually moving the maximum value (or the minimum value) in the rear direction resembles
the movement of bubbles that are generated in water.

Algorithm Time Complexity Space Complexity
Best Average Worst Worst
Selection Sort Ω(n^2) θ(n^2) O(n^2) O(1)
Bubble Sort Ω(n) θ(n^2) O(n^2) O(1)
Insertion Sort Ω(n) θ(n^2) O(n^2) O(1)
Heap Sort Ω(n log(n)) θ(n log(n)) O(n log(n)) O(1)
Quick Sort Ω(n log(n)) θ(n log(n)) O(n^2) O(n)
Merge Sort Ω(n log(n)) θ(n log(n)) O(n log(n)) O(n)
Bucket Sort Ω(n +k) θ(n +k) O(n^2) O(n)
Radix Sort Ω(nk) θ(nk) O(nk) O(n + k)
Count Sort Ω(n +k) θ(n +k) O(n +k) O(k)
Shell Sort Ω(n log(n)) θ(n log(n)) O(n^2) O(1)
Tim Sort Ω(n) θ(n log(n)) O(n log (n)) O(n)
Tree Sort Ω(n log(n)) θ(n log(n)) O(n^2) O(n)

Algorithm Time Complexity Space Complexity
Best Average Worst Worst
Cube Sort Ω(n) θ(n log(n)) O(n log(n)) O(n)

• Networking Basics - Networking Basics
1. How long is an IPv6 address?
32 bits
A.
128 bytes
B.
64 bits
C.
128 bits
D.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
An IPv6 address is 128 bits long.
2. What flavor of Network Address Translation can be used to have one IP address allow many
users to connect to the global Internet?
A. NAT
B. Static
C. Dynamic
D. PAT
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Port Address Translation (PAT) allows a one-to-many approach to network address translation.
3. What are the two main types of access control lists

(ACLs)? Standard
IEEE
Extended
Specialized
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 4
2
C. 3 and 4
D. 1 and 2
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Standard and extended access control lists (ACLs) are used to configure security on a router.
4. What command is used to create a backup configuration?

A. copy running backup
B. copy running-config startup-config
C. config mem
D. wr mem
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The command to back up the configuration on a router is copy running-config startup-
config.
5. You have 10 users plugged into a hub running 10Mbps half-duplex. There is a server
connected to the switch running 10Mbps half-duplex as well. How much bandwidth does each
host have to the server?
A. 100 kbps
B. 1 Mbps
C. 2 Mbps
D. 10 Mbps
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Each device has 10 Mbps to the server.
6. Which WLAN IEEE specification allows up to 54Mbps at 2.4GHz?

A. A
B. B
C. G
D. N
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
IEEE 802.11B is 2.4GHz, but with a maximum of only 11Mbps. IEEE 802.11G is in the
2.4GHz range, with a top speed of 54Mbps.
3
7. Which of the following is the valid host range for the subnet on which the IP
address 192.168.168.188 255.255.255.192 resides?
A. 192.168.168.129-190
B. 192.168.168.129-191
C. 192.168.168.128-190
D. 192.168.168.128-192
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
256 - 192 = 64. 64 + 64 = 128. 128 + 64 = 192. The subnet is 128, the broadcast address is
191, and the valid host range is the numbers in between, or 129-190.
8. To back up an IOS, what command will you use?

A. backup IOS disk
B. copy ios tftp
C. copy tftp flash
D. copy flash tftp

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
The command copy flash tftp will prompt you to back up an existing IOS in flash to a
TFTP host.
9. What protocol does PPP use to identify the Network layer protocol?
A. NCP
B. ISDN
C. HDLC
D. LCP
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Network Control Protocol is used to help identify the Network layer protocol used in the packet.
10. Which of the following commands will allow you to set your Telnet password on a Cisco router?
A. line telnet 0 4
B. line aux 0 4
C. line vty 0 4
D. line con 0
Answer: Option C
4
Explanation:
The command line vty 0 4 places you in a prompt that will allow you to set or change
your Telnet password.
11. Which protocol does DHCP use at the Transport layer?

A. IP
B. TCP
C. UDP
D. ARP
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
User Datagram Protocol is a connection network service at the Transport layer, and DHCP
uses this connectionless service.
12. Which command is used to determine if an IP access list is enabled on a particular interface?
A. show access-lists
B. show interface
C. show ip interface
D. show interface access-lists

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The show ip interface command will show you if any outbound or inbound interfaces
have an access list set.
13. Where is a hub specified in the OSI model?

A. Session layer
B. Physical layer
C. Data Link layer
D. Application layer
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Hubs regenerate electrical signals, which are specified at the Physical layer.
14. What does the passive command provide to dynamic routing protocols?
A. Stops an interface from sending or receiving periodic dynamic updates.
B. Stops an interface from sending periodic dynamic updates but not from receiving updates.
5
C. Stops the router from receiving any dynamic updates.
D. Stops the router from sending any dynamic updates.

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The passive command, short for passive-interface, stops regular updates from being sent
out an interface. However, the interface can still receive updates.
15. Which protocol is used to send a destination network unknown message back to
originating hosts?
A. TCP
B. ARP
C. ICMP
D. BootP
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
ICMP is the protocol at the Network layer that is used to send messages back to an
originating router.
16. How often are BPDUs sent from a layer 2 device?

A. Never
B. Every 2 seconds
C. Every 10 minutes
D. Every 30 seconds
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Every 2 seconds, BPDUs are sent out from all active bridge ports by default.
17. How many broadcast domains are created when you segment a network with a 12-port switch?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 12
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
By default, switches break up collision domains but are one large broadcast domain.
6
18. What does the command routerA(config)#line cons 0 allow you to perform next?
A. Set the Telnet password.
B. Shut down the router.
C. Set your console password.
D. Disable console connections.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The command line console 0 places you at a prompt where you can then set your
console user-mode password.
19.Which router command allows you to view the entire contents of all access lists?
A. show all access-lists
B. show access-lists
C. show ip interface
D. show interface
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
To see the contents of all access lists, use the show access-lists command.
20.
Which class of IP address has the most host addresses available by default?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. A and B
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Class A addressing provides 24 bits for host addressing.
21. In a network with dozens of switches, how many root bridges would you have?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 12
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
You should have only one root bridge per network.
7
22. What PPP protocol provides dynamic addressing, authentication, and multilink?
A. NCP
B. HDLC
C. LCP
D. X.25
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Link Control Protocol in the PPP stack provides dynamic addressing, authentication,
and multilink.
23. What is a stub network?

A. A network with more than one exit point.
B. A network with more than one exit and entry point.
C. A network with only one entry and no exit point.
D. A network that has only one entry and exit point.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Stub networks have only one connection to an internetwork. Only default routes can be set on
a stub network or network loops may occur.
24. If your router is facilitating a CSU/DSU, which of the following commands do you need to use
to provide the router with a 64000bps serial link?
A. RouterA(config)#bandwidth 64
B. RouterA(config-if)#bandwidth 64000
C. RouterA(config-if)#clock rate 64
D. RouterA(config-if)#clock rate 64000

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
The clock rate command is two words, and the speed of the line is in bps.
25. Which one of the following is true regarding VLANs?
A. Two VLANs are configured by default on all Cisco switches.
8
B. VLANs only work if you have a complete Cisco switched internetwork. No off-brand
switches are allowed.
C. You should not have more than 10 switches in the same VTP domain.
D. VTP is used to send VLAN information to switches in a configured VTP domain.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Switches do not propagate VLAN information by default; you must configure the VTP domain.
VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) is used to propagate VLAN information across a trunk link.
26. What does a VLAN do?

A. Acts as the fastest port to all servers.
B. Provides multiple collision domains on one switch port.
C. Breaks up broadcast domains in a layer 2 switch internetwork.
D. Provides multiple broadcast domains within a single collision domain.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
VLANs break up broadcast domains at layer 2
27.What is the main reason the OSI model was created?

A. To create a layered model larger than the DoD model.
B. So application developers can change only one layer's protocols at a time.
C. So different networks could communicate.
D. So Cisco could use the model.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The primary reason the OSI model was created was so that different networks could
inter-operate.
9
28. How many collision domains are created when you segment a network with a 12-port switch?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 12
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Layer 2 switching creates individual collision domains.
29. What command will display the line, protocol, DLCI, and LMI information of an interface?
A. sh pvc
B. show interface
C. show frame-relay pvc
D. show run
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The show interface command shows the line, protocol, DLCI, and LMI information of
an interface.
30. Which protocol does Ping use?

A. TCP
B. ARP
C. ICMP
D. BootP
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Answer: Option C
Explanation:
ICMP is the protocol at the Network layer that is used to send echo requests and replies.
31. Which command is used to upgrade an IOS on a Cisco router?

A. copy tftp run
B. copy tftp start
C. config net
D. copy tftp flash
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
The copy tftp flash command places a new file in flash memory, which is the
default location for the Cisco IOS in Cisco routers.
32. If you wanted to delete the configuration stored in NVRAM, what would you type?
A. erase startup
B. erase nvram
C. delete nvram
D. erase running
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
The command erase startup-config deletes the configuration stored in NVRAM.
33. What protocols are used to configure trunking on a

switch? VLAN Trunking Protocol
VLAN
802.1Q
ISL
11
A. 1 and 2
B. 3 and 4
C. 1 only
D. 2 only
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
VTP is not right because it has nothing to do with trunking except that it sends VLAN
information across a trunk link. 802.1Q and ISL are used to configure trunking on a port.
OSI reference model (Open Systems Interconnection)
The Open Systems Interconnection model (OSI model) is a conceptual

model that characterizes and standardizes the communication functions of a
telecommunication or computing system without regard to their underlying
internal structure and technology. Its goal is the interoperability of diverse
communication systems with standard protocols. The model partitions a
communication system into abstraction layers. The original version of the
model defined seven layers.
12
1.Physical Layer
The physical layer defines the electrical and physical specifications of the
data connection. It defines the relationship between a device and a physical
transmission medium (for example, an electrical cable, an optical fiber cable,
or a radio frequency link). This includes the layout of pins, voltages, line
impedance, cable specifications.
2: Data Link Layer

The data link layer provides node-to-node data transfer—a link between two
directly connected nodes. It detects and possibly corrects errors that may
occur in the physical layer. It defines the protocol to establish and terminate
a connection between two physically connected devices. It also defines the
protocol for flow control between them.
IEEE 802 divides the data link layer into two sublayers:
Medium access control (MAC) layer – responsible for controlling how devices
in a network gain access to a medium and permission to transmit data.
Logical link control (LLC) layer – responsible for identifying and
encapsulating network layer protocols, and controls error checking and
frame synchronization.
3: Network Layer
The network layer provides the functional and procedural means of
transferring variable length data sequences (called datagrams) from one
node to another connected in "different networks". A network is a medium to
13
which many nodes can be connected, on which every node has an address
and which permits nodes connected to it to transfer messages to other
nodes connected to it by merely providing the content of a message and the
address of the destination node and letting the network find the way to
deliver the message to the destination node, possibly routing it through
intermediate nodes.
4: Transport Layer
The transport layer provides the functional and procedural means of
transferring variable-length data sequences from a source to a destination
host via one or more networks, while maintaining the quality of service
functions.
An example of a transport-layer protocol in the standard Internet stack is
Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), usually built on top of the Internet
Protocol (IP).
The transport layer controls the reliability of a given link through flow
control, segmentation/desegmentation, and error control. Some protocols
are state- and connection-oriented.
5: Session Layer
The session layer controls the dialogues (connections) between computers.
It establishes, manages and terminates the connections between the local
and remote application. It provides for full-duplex, half-duplex,
or simplex operation, and establishes check pointing, adjournment,
termination, and restart procedures. The OSI model made this layer
responsible for graceful close of sessions, which is a property of the
Transmission Control Protocol, and also for session check pointing and
recovery, which is not usually used in the Internet Protocol Suite. The
session layer is commonly implemented explicitly in application
environments that use remote procedure calls.
Layer 6: Presentation Layer

The presentation layer establishes context between application-layer
entities, in which the application-layer entities may use different syntax and
semantics if the presentation service provides a mapping between them. If a
mapping is available, presentation service data units are encapsulated into
session protocol data units and passed down the protocol stack.
14
7: Application Layer
The application layer is the OSI layer closest to the end user, which means
both the OSI application layer and the user interact directly with the
software application. This layer interacts with software applications that
implement a communicating component. Such application programs fall
outside the scope of the OSI model. Application-layer functions typically
include identifying communication partners, determining resource
availability, and synchronizing communication.
our Layers of TCP/IP model, Comparison and Difference between TCP/IP and
OSI models
Difference between TCP/IP and OSI Model:

OSI network model, TCP/IP also has a network model. TCP/IP was on the
path of development when the OSI standard was published and there was
interaction between the designers of OSI and TCP/IP standards. The TCP/IP
model is not same as OSI model. OSI is a seven-layered standard, but
TCP/IP is a four layered standard. The OSI modelhas been very influential in
the growth and development of TCP/IP standard, and that is why much OSI
15
terminology is applied to TCP/IP. The following figure compares the TCP/IP
and OSI network models.
Layer 4. Application Layer
Application layer is the top most layer of four layer TCP/IP model.
Application layer is present on the top of the Transport layer. Application
layer defines TCP/IP application protocols and how host programs interface
with Transport layer services to use the network.
Application layer includes all the higher-level protocols like DNS (Domain
Naming System), HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol), Telnet, SSH, FTP (File
Transfer Protocol), TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol), SNMP (Simple
Network Management Protocol), SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) ,
DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol), X Windows, RDP (Remote
Desktop Protocol) etc.
Layer 3. Transport Layer
Transport Layer is the third layer of the four layer TCP/IP model. The
position of the Transport layer is between Application layer and Internet
layer. The purpose of Transport layer is to permit devices on the source and
destination hosts to carry on a conversation. Transport layer defines the
level of service and status of the connection used when transporting data.
The main protocols included at Transport layer are TCP (Transmission

Control Protocol) and UDP (User Datagram Protocol).
Layer 2. Internet Layer
Internet Layer is the second layer of the four layer TCP/IP model. The
position of Internet layer is between Network Access Layer and Transport
layer. Internet layer pack data into data packets known as IP datagrams,
which contain source and destination address (logical address or IP address)
information that is used to forward the datagrams between hosts and across
networks. The Internet layer is also responsible for routing of IP datagrams.
Packet switching network depends upon a connectionless internetwork layer.

This layer is known as Internet layer. Its job is to allow hosts to insert
packets into any network and have them to deliver independently to the
destination. At the destination side data packets may appear in a different
order than they were sent. It is the job of the higher layers to rearrange
16
them in order to deliver them to proper network applications operating at
the Application layer.
The main protocols included at Internet layer are IP (Internet Protocol),

ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol), ARP (Address Resolution
Protocol), RARP (Reverse Address Resolution Protocol) and IGMP (Internet
Group Management Protocol).
Layer 1. Network Access Layer
Network Access Layer is the first layer of the four layer TCP/IP model.
Network Access Layer defines details of how data is physically sent through
the network, including how bits are electrically or optically signaled by
hardware devices that interface directly with a network medium, such as
coaxial cable, optical fiber, or twisted pair copper wire.
The protocols included in Network Access Layer are Ethernet, Token Ring,
FDDI, X.25, Frame Relay etc.
The most popular LAN architecture among those listed above is Ethernet.
Ethernet uses an Access Method called CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple
Access/Collision Detection) to access the media, when Ethernet operates in a
shared media. An Access Method determines how a host will place data on
the medium.
IN CSMA/CD Access Method, every host has equal access to the medium and
can place data on the wire when the wire is free from network traffic. When
a host wants to place data on the wire, it will check the wire to find whether
another host is already using the medium.
List of computing and IT abbreviations
100B-T—100BASE-T
100B-TX—100BASE-TX
100BVG—100BASE-VG
286—Intel 80286 processor
2B1Q—2 Binary 1 Quaternary
2FA—Two-factor authentication
2GL—Second-Generation Programming Language
2NF—Second Normal Form
3GL—Third-Generation Programming Language
BCD—Binary Coded Decimal
17
BCNF—Boyce–Codd normal form
CDE—Common Desktop Environment
CDFS—Compact Disk File System
CDMA—Code Division Multiple Access
CDN—Content Delivery Network
CDP—Cisco Discovery Protocol
CDP—Continuous Data Protection
CD-R—CD-Recordable
CD-ROM—CD Read-Only Memory
CMO—Current Mode of Operation
CSP—Cloud Service Provider
DFS—Distributed File System
DGD—Dworkin's Game Driver
DHCP—Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
DHTML—Dynamic Hypertext Markup Language
DIF—Data Integrity Field
FIFO—First In First Out
ICMP—Internet Control Message Protocol
IPv4—Internet Protocol version 4
IPv6—Internet Protocol version 6
PaaS—Platform as a Service
PAN—Personal Area Network
PaaS—Platform as a Service
PAN—Personal Area Network
WiMAX—Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access
WiMAX—Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access
Short Question about networking:
What are the difference between hub and switch?

Hub is a layer 1 device. It will out the signal from all of its port except the
one from where its insert. It is unable to detect the collision. It works on
single collision and single broadcast domain. Switch is layer 2 device. It
maintains a CAM table that store the MAC address of devices attached on its
port. CAM table is used to make the forwarding decision. It works on per
port collision and single broadcast domain.
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What is layer?
Layer is a completely logical partition of PDU (protocol data unit) process.
That define how the information is travel form one computer to other over
the network.
What is TCP/IP?
It is combination of two protocols TCP and IP. It is used for reliable data
transfer.
What is operating system?
An operating system (sometimes abbreviated as "OS") is the program
that, after being initially loaded into the computer by a boot program,
manages all the other programs in a computer. It provides a platform to
application software.
What is package software?
The collection of mostly used software released in package Form Company.
For Example Ms-Office that contain word, power point, Excel, etc.
What is ring topology?

In a ring topology, device one connects to device two, device two connects
to device three, and so on to the last device, which connects back to device
one.
Which cable is used in LAN?
Generally coaxial and TP media is used in LAN networking.
What are Difference between STP and UTP?
STP cable is mostly used by IBM; it has an extra cover over each pair.
UTP cable is used in star topology. It has a single cover over all pair.
What is IEEE?
The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers or IEEE (read eye-
triple-e) is an international non-profit, professional organization for the
advancement of technology related to electricity. It has the most members
of any technical professional organization in the world, with more than
365,000 members in around 150 countries.
19
What is 802.3?
IEEE 802.3 is a collection of IEEE standards defining the physical layer and
the media access control (MAC) of the data link layer of wired Ethernet.
Physical connections are made between nodes and infrastructure devices
hubs, switches and routers by various types of copper or fiber cable.
Full form of ping.
PING stand for Packet Internet Grouper
What are the minimum requirements for xp installation?
64MB RAM
1.5GB free HDD space
233MHz minimum processor.
What are 10Base2, 10Base5 and 10BaseT Ethernet LANs?
10Base2— An Ethernet term meaning a maximum transfer rate of 10
Megabits per second that uses baseband signaling, with a contiguous cable
segment length of 100 meters and a maximum of 2 segments. 10Base5—
An Ethernet term meaning a maximum transfer rate of 10 Megabits per
second that uses baseband signaling, with 5 continuous
segments not exceeding 100 meters per segment. 10BaseT—An Ethernet
term meaning a maximum transfer rate of 10 Megabits per second that uses
baseband signaling and twisted pair cabling.
What is the difference between an unspecified passive open and a

fully specified passive open?
An unspecified passive open has the server waiting for a connection

request from a client.
A fully specified passive open has the server waiting for a connection
from a specific client.
What is External Data Representation?

External Data Representation is a method of encoding data within an RPC
message, used to ensure that the data is not system-dependent.
Types of Networks: LAN, WAN, WLAN, MAN, SAN, PAN, EPN & VPN
20
There are several different types of computer networks. Computer
networks can be characterized by their size as well as their purpose.
The size of a network can be expressed by the geographic area they occupy
and the number of computers that are part of the network. Networks can
cover anything from a handful of devices within a single room to millions of
devices spread across the entire globe.
Some of the different networks based on size are:
• Personal area network, or PAN

• Local area network, or LAN
• Metropolitan area network, or MAN
• Wide area network, or WAN
In terms of purpose, many networks can be considered general purpose,

which means they are used for everything from sending files to a printer
to accessing the Internet. Some types of networks, however, serve a very
particular purpose. Some of the different networks based on their main
purpose are:
• Storage area network, or SAN

• Enterprise private network, or EPN
• Virtual private network, or VPN
Let's look at each of these in a bit more detail.
Personal Area Network

A personal area network, or PAN, is a computer network organized
around an individual person within a single building. This could be inside a
small office or residence. A typical PAN would include one or more
computers, telephones, peripheral devices, video game consoles and other
personal entertainment devices.
If multiple individuals use the same network within a residence, the
network is sometimes referred to as a home area network, or HAN. In a
very typical setup, a residence will have a single wired Internet connection
connected to a modem. This modem then provides both wired and wireless
connections for multiple devices. The network is typically managed from a
single computer but can be accessed from any device.
This type of network provides great flexibility. For example, it allows you to:
• Send a document to the printer in the office upstairs while you

are sitting on the couch with your laptop.
21
• Upload a photo from your cell phone to your desktop computer.
• Watch movies from an online streaming service to your TV.
If this sounds familiar to you, you likely have a PAN in your house
without having called it by its name.
Local Area Network

A local area network, or LAN, consists of a computer network at a single
site, typically an individual office building. A LAN is very useful for sharing
resources, such as data storage and printers. LANs can be built with
relatively inexpensive hardware, such as hubs, network adapters and
Ethernet cables.
The smallest LAN may only use two computers, while larger LANs can
accommodate thousands of computers. A LAN typically relies mostly on
wired connections for increased speed and security, but wireless connections
can also be part of a LAN. High speed and relatively low cost are the
defining characteristics of LANs.
LANs are typically used for single sites where people need to share
resources among themselves but not with the rest of the outside world.
Think of an office building where everybody should be able to access files on
a central server or be able to print a document to one or more central
printers. Those tasks should be easy for everybody working in the same
office, but you would not want somebody just walking outside to be able to
send a document to the printer from their cell phone! If a local area
network, or LAN, is entirely wireless, it is referred to as a wireless local area
network, or WLAN.
Metropolitan Area Network

A metropolitan area network, or MAN, consists of a computer network
across an entire city, college campus or small region. A MAN is larger than
a LAN, which is typically limited to a single building or site. Depending on
the configuration, this type of network can cover an area from several miles
to tens of miles. A MAN is often used to connect several LANs together to
form a bigger network. When this type of network is specifically designed
for a college campus, it is sometimes referred to as a campus area network,
or CAN.
22
Wide Area Network
A wide area network, or WAN, occupies a very large area, such as an
entire country or the entire world. A WAN can contain multiple smaller
networks, such as LANs or MANs. The Internet is the best-known example of
a public WAN.
Private Networks
One of the benefits of networks like PAN and LAN is that they can be kept
entirely private by restricting some communications to the connections
within the network. This means that those communications never go over
the Internet.
For example, using a LAN, an employee is able to establish a fast and secure
connection to a company database without encryption since none of the
communications between the employee's computer and the database on the
server leave the LAN. But, what happens if the same employee wants to use
the database from a remote location? What you need is a private network.
One approach to a private network is to build an enterprise private
network, or EPN. An EPN is a computer network that is entirely controlled
by one organization, and it is used to connect multiple locations.
Historically, telecommunications companies, like AT&T, operated their own
network, separate from the public Internet. EPNs are still fairly common in
certain sectors where security is of the highest concern. For example, a
number of health facilities may establish their own network between
multiple sites to have full control over the confidentiality of patient records.
Full form of .co.in, .com

• COM - ".com" stands for "commercial".
• NET - ".net" stands for "network"
• ORG - ".org" stands for "organization"
• INFO - ". info" stands for "information"
• BIZ - ".biz" stands for "business".
• IN - 'IN' stands for India. The 'IN' is a 2 -letter country code for India.
Subnetting
Variable Length Subnet Mask (VLSM)
Supernetting
23
Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR)
Subnetting
24
1. Your router has the following IP address on Ethernet0: 172.16.2.1/23. Which of the following can be
valid host IDs on the LAN interface attached to the router?
172.16.1.100
172.16.1.198
172.16.2.255
172.16.3.0
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. None of the above
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The router's IP address on the E0 interface is 172.16.2.1/23, which is 255.255.254.0. This makes the third
octet a block size of 2. The router's interface is in the 2.0 subnet, and the broadcast address is 3.255
because the next subnet is 4.0. The valid host range is 2.1 through 3.254. The router is using the first valid
host address in the range.
2.Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23?
The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.

The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.
The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0.
The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 4
D. 2, 3 and 4
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The mask 255.255.254.0 (/23) used with a Class A address means that there are 15 subnet bits and 9 host
bits. The block size in the third octet is 2 (256 - 254). So this makes the subnets in the interesting octet 0, 2,
4, 6, etc., all the way to 254. The host 10.16.3.65 is in the 2.0 subnet. The next subnet is 4.0, so the
broadcast address for the 2.0 subnet is 3.255. The valid host addresses are 2.1 through 3.254.
25
3. A network administrator is connecting hosts A and B directly through their Ethernet interfaces, as shown in
the illustration. Ping attempts between the hosts are unsuccessful. What can be done to provide connectivity
between the hosts?
A crossover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable.

A rollover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable.
The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.192.
A default gateway needs to be set on each host.
The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.0.
A
1 only
.
B
2 only
.
C
3 and 4 only
.
D
1 and 5 only
.
2 and 5 only
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
First, if you have two hosts directly connected, as shown in the graphic, then you need a crossover
cable. A straight-through cable won't work. Second, the hosts have different masks, which puts them
in different subnets. The easy solution is just to set both masks to 255.255.255.0 (/24).
4. What is the maximum number of IP addresses that can be assigned to hosts on a local subnet
that uses the 255.255.255.224 subnet mask?
E A. 14
.
B. 15
C. 16
D. 30
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
A /27 (255.255.255.224) is 3 bits on and 5 bits off. This provides 8 subnets, each with 30 hosts.
Does it matter if this mask is used with a Class A, B, or C network address? Not at all. The number
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of host bits would never change.
5. You need to subnet a network that has 5 subnets, each with at least 16 hosts. Which classful
subnet mask would you use?
A. 255.255.255.192
B. 255.255.255.224
C. 255.255.255.240
D. 255.255.255.248
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
You need 5 subnets, each with at least 16 hosts. The mask 255.255.255.240 provides 16 subnets
with 14 hosts-this will not work. The mask 255.255.255.224 provides 8 subnets, each with 30
hosts. This is the best answer.
6. You have a network that needs 29 subnets while maximizing the number of host addresses
available on each subnet. How many bits must you borrow from the host field to provide the
correct subnet mask?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
A 240 mask is 4 subnet bits and provides 16 subnets, each with 14 hosts. We need more subnets,
so let's add subnet bits. One more subnet bit would be a 248 mask. This provides 5 subnet bits
(32 subnets) with 3 host bits (6 hosts per subnet). This is the best answer.
7. If an Ethernet port on a router were assigned an IP address of 172.16.112.1/25, what would

be the valid subnet address of this host?
A. 172.16.112.0
B. 172.16.0.0
C. 172.16.96.0
D. 172.16.255.0
Answer: Option A
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Explanation:
A /25 mask is 255.255.255.128. Used with a Class B network, the third and fourth octets are used for
subnetting with a total of 9 subnet bits, 8 bits in the third octet and 1 bit in the fourth octet. Since there
is only 1 bit in the fourth octet, the bit is either off or on-which is a value of 0 or
128. The host in the question is in the 0 subnet, which has a broadcast address of 127 since
128 is the next subnet.
8. You have an interface on a router with the IP address of 192.168.192.10/29. Including the router
interface, how many hosts can have IP addresses on the LAN attached to the router interface?
A. 6
B. 8
C. 30
D. 32
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
A /29 (255.255.255.248), regardless of the class of address, has only 3 host bits. Six hosts
is the maximum number of hosts on this LAN, including the router interface.
9. What is the subnetwork number of a host with an IP address of 172.16.66.0/21?

A. 172.16.36.0
B. 172.16.48.0
C. 172.16.64.0
D. 172.16.0.0
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
A /21 is 255.255.248.0, which means we have a block size of 8 in the third octet, so we just
count by 8 until we reach 66. The subnet in this question is 64.0. The next subnet is 72.0, so
the broadcast address of the 64 subnet is 71.255.
10. The network address of 172.16.0.0/19 provides how many subnets and hosts?
A. 7 subnets, 30 hosts each
B. 8 subnets, 8,190 hosts each
C. 8 subnets, 2,046 hosts each
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D. 7 subnets, 2,046 hosts each
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
A CIDR address of /19 is 255.255.224.0. This is a Class B address, so that is only 3 subnet
bits, but it provides 13 host bits, or 8 subnets, each with 8,190 hosts.
11. You need to configure a server that is on the subnet 192.168.19.24/29. The router has the
first available host address. Which of the following should you assign to the server?
A. 192.168.19.0 255.255.255.0
B. 192.168.19.33 255.255.255.240
C. 192.168.19.26 255.255.255.248
D. 192.168.19.31 255.255.255.248
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
A /29 is 255.255.255.248, which is a block size of 8 in the fourth octet. The subnets are 0, 8,
16, 24, 32, 40, etc. 192.168.19.24 is the 24 subnet, and since 32 is the next subnet, the
broadcast address for the 24 subnet is 31. 192.168.19.26 is the only correct answer.
12. You have an interface on a router with the IP address of 192.168.192.10/29. What is
the broadcast address the hosts will use on this LAN?
A. 192.168.192.15
B. 192.168.192.31
C. 192.168.192.63
D. 192.168.192.127
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
A /29 (255.255.255.248) has a block size of 8 in the fourth octet. This means the subnets are
0, 8, 16, 24, etc. 10 is in the 8 subnet. The next subnet is 16, so 15 is the broadcast address.
13. You have a network with a subnet of 172.16.17.0/22. Which is the valid host address?
A. 172.16.17.1 255.255.255.252
B. 172.16.0.1 255.255.240.0
C. 172.16.20.1 255.255.254.0
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D. 172.16.18.255 255.255.252.0
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
A Class B network ID with a /22 mask is 255.255.252.0, with a block size of 4 in the third octet. The
network address in the question is in subnet 172.16.16.0 with a broadcast address of
172.16.19.255. Only option E even has the correct subnet mask listed, and 172.16.18.255 is
a valid host.
14. On a VLSM network, which mask should you use on point-to-point WAN links in order to
reduce the waste of IP addresses?
A. /27
B. /28
C. /29
D. /30
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
A point-to-point link uses only two hosts. A /30, or 255.255.255.252, mask provides two
hosts per subnet.
15. To test the IP stack on your local host, which IP address would you ping?
A. 127.0.0.0
B. 1.0.0.127
C. 127.0.0.1
D. 127.0.0.255
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
To test the local stack on your host, ping the loopback interface of 127.0.0.1.
16. If a host on a network has the address 172.16.45.14/30, what is the subnetwork this
host belongs to?
A. 172.16.45.0
B. 172.16.45.4
C. 172.16.45.8
30
D. 172.16.45.12
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
A /30, regardless of the class of address, has a 252 in the fourth octet. This means we have a block
size of 4 and our subnets are 0, 4, 8, 12, 16, etc. Address 14 is obviously in the 12 subnet.
17. Using the following illustration, what would be the IP address of E0 if you were using the eighth
subnet? The network ID is 192.168.10.0/28 and you need to use the last available IP address
in the range. The zero subnet should not be considered valid for this question.
A. 192.168.10.142
B. 192.168.10.66
C. 192.168.100.254
D. 192.168.10.143
E. 192.168.10.126
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
A /28 is a 255.255.255.240 mask. Let's count to the ninth subnet (we need to find the
broadcast address of the eighth subnet, so we need to count to the ninth subnet). Starting at
16 (remember, the question stated that we will not use subnet zero, so we start at 16, not 0),
16, 32, 48, 64, 80, 96, 112, 128, 144. The eighth subnet is 128 and the next subnet is 144, so
our broadcast address of the 128 subnet is 143. This makes the host range 129-142. 142 is the
last valid host.
Which configuration command must be in effect to allow the use of 8 subnets if the Class C
subnet mask is 255.255.255.224?
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A. Router(config)#ip classless
B. Router(config)#no ip classful
C. Router(config)#ip unnumbered
D. Router(config)#ip subnet-zero
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
A Class C subnet mask of 255.255.255.224 is 3 bits on and 5 bits off (11100000) and provides 8
subnets, each with 30 hosts. However, if the command ip subnet-zero is not used, then only
6 subnets would be available for use.
19. Using the illustration from the previous question, what would be the IP address of S0 if you were
using the first subnet? The network ID is 192.168.10.0/28 and you need to use the last available IP
address in the range. Again, the zero subnet should not be considered valid for this question.
A. 192.168.10.24
B. 192.168.10.62
C. 192.168.10.30
D. 192.168.10.127
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
A /28 is a 255.255.255.240 mask. The first subnet is 16 (remember that the question stated
not to use subnet zero) and the next subnet is 32, so our broadcast address is 31. This makes
our host range 17-30. 30 is the last valid host.
20. What is the subnetwork address for a host with the IP address 200.10.5.68/28?
A. 200.10.5.56
B. 200.10.5.32
C. 200.10.5.64
D. 200.10.5.0
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
This is a pretty simple question. A /28 is 255.255.255.240, which means that our block size is
16 in the fourth octet. 0, 16, 32, 48, 64, 80, etc. The host is in the 64 subnet.
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Classless Inter-Domain Routing
CIDR (Classless Inter-Domain Routing, sometimes called supernetting) is a
way to allow more flexible allocation of Internet Protocol (IP) addresses
than was possible with the original system of IP address classes. As a
result, the number of available Internet addresses was greatly increased,
which along with widespread use of network address translation (NAT), has
significantly extended the useful life of IPv4.
1.What do you mean by data communication?
Ans: It is the exchange of data between two devices via some form of
transmission medium such as wire cable. The communicating system must be part
of a communication system made up of a combination of hardware and
software.The effectiveness of a data communication system depends on three
fundamental characteristics: delivery, accuracy and timeliness.
2.What is simplex?
Ans: It is the mode of communication between two devices in which flow of data is
unidirectional. i.e. one can transmit and other can receive. E.g. keyboard and monitor.
3.What is half-duplex?
33
bidirectional but not at the same time. ie each station can transmit and receive but not
at the same time. E.g walkie-talkies are half-duplex system.
4.What is full duplex?
bidirectional and it occurs simultaneously. Here signals going in either direction
share the capacity of the link. E.g. telephone
5.What is a network?
Ans: It is a set of devices connected by communication links. A node can be a

computer or any other device capable of sending and/or receiving data generated
by other nodes on the network.
6.What is distributed processing?
Ans: It is a strategy in which services provided by the network reside at multiple sites.
7.What is point to point connection?
Ans:It provides a dedicated link between two devices. The entire capacity of the link
is reserved for transmission between the two devices e.g. when we change the TV
channels by remote control we establish a point to point connection between remote
control and TV control system.
8.What is multipoint connection?
Ans: In multipoint connection more than two specific devices share a single link.
Here the capacity of the channel is shared either separately or temporally.
9.What is a topology?
34
Ans: Topology of a network is defined as the geometric representation of the
relationship of all the links and linking devices (node) to one another.Four basic
topologies are star, bus, ring and mesh. Star – Here each device has a dedicated point
to point link only to a central controller called hub.
Bus -It is multipoint. One long cable acts as a backbone to link all the devices in
the network.
Ring -Here each device has a dedicated point to point connection only with the two
devices on either side of it. Mesh -Here every device has a dedicated point to point
link to every other device.
101.Define internet?
Ans: It is a network of networks.
12.What is a protocol?
Ans: It is a set of rules that governs data communication. A protocol defines what
is communicated, how it is communicated, and when it is communicated. The key
elements of protocol are syntax, semantics and timing.
13.Describe the functions of five layers?
Ans: Physical- It transmits raw bits over a medium. It provides mechanical

and electrical specification.
Data link- It organizes bits into frames. It provides hop to hop delivery.
Network-It moves the packets from source to destination.It provide internetworking.
Transport-It provides reliable process to process message delivery and error recovery.
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Application-It allows ti access to network resources.
14. What is multiplexing?
Ans: Multiplexing is the process of dividing a link, the phycal medium, into logical
channels for better efficiency. Here medium is not changed but it has several
channels instead of one.
15.What is switching?
Ans: Switching in data communication is of three types Circuit switching

Packet switching Message switching
16.How data is transmitted over a medium?
Ans: Data is transmitted in the form of electromagnetic signals.
17. Compare analog and digital signals?
Ans: Analog signals can have an infinite number of values in a range but digital
signal can have only a limited number of values.
18.Define bandwidth?
Ans: The range of frequencies that a medium can pass is called bandwidth. It is
the difference between the highest and lowest frequencies that the medium can
satisfactorily pass.
19.What are the factors on which data rate depends?
Ans: Data rate ie.how fast we can send data depends upon i) Bandwidth available ii)
The levels of signals we can use iii) The quality of the channel (level of noise)
36
20.Define bit rate and bit interval?
Ans: Digital signals are aperiodic.so instead of using period and frequency we use
bit interval and bit rate respectively.Bit interval is the time required to send one
single bit.Bit rate is the number of bit intervals per second.
21.What is Nyquist bit rate formula?
Ans: For a noiseless channel, the Nyquist bit rate formula defines the
theoretical maximum bit rate
Bitrate=2* Bandwidth*log2L
Where Bandwidth is the bandwidth of the channel L is the number of signal level
used to represent the data Bitrate is the bit rate in bits per second.
22.What is sampling?
Ans: It is the process of obtaining amplitude of a signal at regular intervals.
23.Define pulse amplitude modulation?
Ans: It is an analog to digital conversion method which takes analog signals,

samples it and generates a series of pulse based on the results of the sampling. It is
not used in data communication because the series of pulses generated still of any
amplitude. To modify it we use pulse code modulation.
24.Define pulse code modulation?
Ans: Pulse code Modulation modifies pulses created by PAM to create a completely digital
signal. For this PCM first quantizes the PAM pulse. Quantization is the method of
assigning integral values in a specific tange to sampled instances.PCM is made up of
37
four separate processes: PAM, quantization, binary encoding and line encoding.
25.What is Nyquist Theorem?
Ans: According to this theorem, the sampling rate must be at least 2 times the
highest frequency of the original signal.
26.What are the modes of data transmission?
Ans: Data transmission can be serial or parallel in mode In parallel transmission,

a group of bits is sent simultaneously, with each bit on a separate line.In serial
transmission there is only one line and the bits are sent sequentially.
27.What is Asynchronous mode of data transmission?
Ans: It is a serial mode of transmission. In this mode of transmission, each byte is

framed with a start bit and a stop bit. There may be a variable length gap between
each byte.
28.What is Synchronous mode of data transmission?
Ans: It is a serial mode of transmission.In this mode of transmission, bits are sent in
a continuous stream without start and stop bit and without gaps between bytes.
Regrouping the bits into meaningful bytes is the responsibility of the receiver.
29.What are the different types of multiplexing?
Ans: Multiplexing is of three types. Frequency division multiplexing and wave

division multiplexing is for analog signals and time division multiplexing is for
digital signals.
30.What is FDM?
38
Ans: In frequency division multiplexing each signal modulates a different carrier
frequency. The modulated carrier combines to form a new signal that is then sent
across the link. Here multiplexers modulate and combine the signal while
demultiplexers decompose and demodulate. Guard bands keep the modulating
signal from overlapping and interfering with one another.
31.What is TDM ?
Ans: In TDM digital signals from n devices are interleaved with one another, forming
a frame of data. Framing bits allow the TDM multiplexer to synchronize properly.
32.What are the different transmission media?
Ans: The transmission media is broadly categorized into two types

i)Guided media(wired) i)Unguided media(wireless)
33.What are the different Guided Media?
Ans: The media which provides a conduct from one device to another is called a
guided media. These include twisted pair cable, coaxial cable, and fiber-optic cable.
34.Describe about the different Guided Medias.
Ans: Twisted pair cable consists of two insulated cupper wires twisted together. It is used
in telephone line for voice and data communications. Coaxial cable has the following
layers: a metallic rod-shaped inner conductor, an insulator covering the rod, a metallic
outer conductor (shield), an insulator covering the shield, and a plastic cover.Coaxial cable
can carry signals of higher frequency ranges than twisted-pair cable. Coaxial cable is used
in cable TV networks and Ethernet LANs.Fiber-optic cables are composed of a glass or
plastic inner core surrounded by cladding, all encased in an outer jacket.Fiber-optic cables
carry data signals in the form of light. The signal is propagated along the inner core by
reflection. Its features are noise resistance, low
39
attenuation, and high bandwidth capabilities. It is used in backbone networks, cable
TV nerworks, and fast Ethernet networks.
35.What do you mean by wireless communication?
Ans: Unguided media transport electromagnetic waves without using a physical

conductor. This type of communication is referred as wireless communication.
Here signals are broadcaster through air and thus available to anyone who has a
device to receive.
36.What do you mean by switching?
Ans: It is a method in which communication devices are connected to one another

efficiently. A switch is intermediary hardware or software that links devices
together temporarily.
37.What are the types of errors?
Ans: Errors can be categorized as a single-bit error or burst error. A single bit error
has one bit error per data unit. A burst error has two or more bits errors per data unit.
38.What do you mean by redundancy?
Ans: Redundancy is the concept of sending extra bits for use in error detection.
Three common redundancy methods are parity check, cyclic redundancy check
(CRC), and checksum.
39.Define parity check.
Ans: In parity check, a parity bit is added to every data unit so that the total number of 1s
is even (or odd for odd parity).Simple parity check can detect all single bit errors. It can
detect burst errors only if the total number of errors in each data unit is odd.In two
40
dimensional parity checks, a block of bits is divided into rows and a redundant row
of bits is added to the whole block.
40. Define cyclic redundancy check (CRC).
Ans: C RC appends a sequence of redundant bits derived from binary division to

the data unit. The divisor in the CRC generator is often represented as an algebraic
polynomial.
41. What is hamming code?
Ans: The hamming code is an error correction method using redundant bits. The
number of bits is a function of the length of the data bits. In hamming code for a data
unit of m bits, we use the formula 2r >= m+r+1 to determine the number of redundant
bits needed. By rearranging the order of bit transmission of the data units, the
hamming code can correct burst errors.
42.What do you mean by flow control?
Ans: It is the regulation of sender’s data rate so that the receiver buffer doesn’t
become overwhelmed.i.e. flow control refers to a set of procedures used to restrict the
amount of data that the sender can send before waiting for acknowledgement.
43.What is HDLC?
Ans: It is a bit oriented data link protocol designed to support both half duplex and
full duplex communication over point to point and multi point links.HDLC is
characterized by their station type,configuration and their response modes.
44.What do you mean by Authentication protocol?
Ans: Authentication means validating the identity of a user who needs to access a set
41
of resources. It is of two types i)Password Authentication Protocol(PAP) ii)Challenge
Handshake Authentication Protocol(CHAP) PAP is a two step process. The user
sends a authentication identification and a password. The system determines the
validity of the Information sent.CHAP is a three step process. The system sends a
value to the user. The user manipulates the value and sends the result. The system
Verifies the result.
45.What do you mean by network control protocol?
Ans: Network control protocol is a set of protocols to allow the encapsulation of

data coming from network layer protocol that requires the services of PPP.
46. What do you mean by CSMA?
Ans: To reduce the possibility of collision CSMA method was developed. In CSMA
each station first listen to the medium (Or check the state of the medium) before
sending. It can’t eliminate collision.
47.What do you mean by Bluetooth?
Ans: It is a wireless LAN technology designed to connect devices of different

functions such as telephones, notebooks, computers, cameras, printers and so on.
Bluetooth LAN Is an adhoc network that is the network is formed spontaneously? It is
the implementation of protocol defined by the IEEE 802.15 standard.
48.What is IP address?
Ans: The internet address (IP address) is 32bits that uniquely and universally defines
a host or router on the internet. The portion of the IP address that identifies the
network is called netid. The portion of the IP address that identifies the host or router
on the network is called hostid.
42
49.What do you mean by subnetting?
Ans: Subnetting divides one large network into several smaller ones. It adds
an intermediate level of hierarchy in IP addressing.
50.What are the advantages of fiber optics cable ?
Ans: The advantages of fiber optics cable over twisted pair cable are Noise
resistance-As they use light so external noise is not a factor. Less signal attenuation-
fiber optics transmission distance is significantly greater than that of other guided
media.Higher bandwidth-It can support higher bandwidth.
51.What is Firewalls?
Ans: It is an electronic downbridge which is used to enhance the security of a

network. It’s configuration has two components. i)Two routers ii)Application gateway
the packets traveling through the LAN are inspected here and packets meeting certain
criteria are forwarded and others are dropped.
52.What is Repeaters ?
Ans: A receiver receives a signal before it becomes too weak or

corrupted,regenerates the original bit pattern,and puts the refreshed copy back onto
the link.It operates on phycal layer of OSI model.
53.Define IP ?
Ans: Internetwork protocol (IP) is the transmission mechanism used by TCP/IP

protocol.It is an unreliable and connectionless datagram protocol.It provides no
error checking and tracking.
54.What do you mean by client server model ?
43
Ans: In client server model ,the client runs a program to request a service and the
server runs a program to provide the service.These two programs communicate
with each other. One server program can provide services to many client programs.
55.What are the information that a computer attached to a TCP/IP internet

must possesses ?
Ans: Each computer attached to TCP/IP must possesses the following information
• Its IP addesss • Its subnet mask • The IP addesss of the router. • The Ip address of
the name server.
56.What is domain name system(DNS)?
Ans: Domain Name System (DNS )is a client server application that identifies
each host on the internet with a unique user friendly name.
57.What is TELNET ?
Ans: TELNET is a client –server application that allows a user to log on to a

remote machine,giving the user access to the remote system. TELNET is an
abbreviation of terminal Network.
58.What do you mean by local login and remote login ?
Ans: When a user logs into a local time-sharing system ,it is called local login. When
a user wants to access an application program or utility located on a remote machine,he
or she performs remote login.
59.What is Network Virtual Terminal ?
Ans: A universal interface provided by TELNET is called Network Virtual
44
Terminal(NVT) character set.Via this interface TELNET translates characters (data
or command) that come from local terminal into NVT form and delivers them to the
network.
60.What do you mean by Simple Mail Transfer Protocol ?
Ans: The TCP/IP protocol that supports electronic mail on the internet is called
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol.SMTP provides for mail exchange between users on the
same or different computer and supports Sending a single message to one or more
recipient Sending message that include text, voice,video,or graphics.Sending message
to users on network outside the internet.
61.What is Hypertext Transfer Protocol(HTTP) ?
Ans: It is the main protocol used to access data on the World Wide Web .the
protocol transfers data in the form of plain text,hypertext,audio,video,and so on. It is
so called because its efficiency allows its use in a hypertext environment where there
are rapid jumps from one document to another. 100.What is URL ? Ans: It is a
standard for specifying any kind of information on the World Wide Web.
62. What is World Wide Web ?
Ans: World Wide Web is a repository of information spread all over the world and
linked together.It is a unique combination of flexibility,portability,and user-friendly
features .The World Wide Web today is a distributed client-server service,in which
a client using a browser can access a service using a server.The service provided is
distributed over many locations called web sites.
63.What is HTML ?
Ans: Hypertext Markup Language (HTML) is a language for creating static

web pages.
45
64.Difference between Internet, Intranet and Extranet ?
Internet is a network which is for public, world where intranet and extranet is a network
for private use,
internet is a network where anybody can access, from around the world, but in intranet
and extranet we add some privacy so only allowed people can access.
65. what is the difference between wimax and wifi?
They are completely different standards. you may have seen 802.11 somewhere. this is the
standard for Wifi, while Wimax is 802.16. Wifi is more of a local wireless network technology,
where the longest ranges are around 300 ft. with the newest iteration(802.11n) you can get
speeds of up to 300Mbps. To contrast, Wimax has a much larger range(tests have gone over
30 miles), but also has a much lower max speed, which is currently theoretically up to 40
Mbps, however most real world tests only get around 10Mbps. since they are different
standards, their signals are not compatible.
46
Database Management System:
1. A report generator is used to
A. update files
B. print files on paper
C. data entry
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question.
2. Which of the following is not a logical data-base structure?

A. Tree
B. Relational
C. Network
D. Chain
E. All of the above
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question
3. Which of the following is a database administrator's function?
47
A. database design
B. backing up the database
C. performance monitoring
D. user coordination
E. All of the above
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
4. Primitive operations common to all record management systems include

A. Print
B. Sort
C. Look-up
D. All of the above
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
5. Each of data files has a _____ that describe the way the data is stored in the file.
A. File structure
B. Records
C. Fields
D. Database
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
48
6. After you _____ a record, many data management the environments require you to issue
a command to save the changes you made.
A. Delete
B. Update
C. Sort key
D. Index
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
7. What is the language used by most of the DBMSs for helping their users to access data?
A. High level language
B. Query language
C. SQL
D. 4GL
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
8. Data item characteristics that are important in data management include

A. punctuation
B. language
C. spelling
D. width
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
49
9. In SQL, which command is used to make permanent changes made by statements issue
since the beginning of a transaction?
A. ZIP
B. PACK
C. COMMIT
D. SAVE
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
10. Periodically adding, changing and deleting file records is called file
A. Updating
B. upgrading
C. restructuring
D. renewing
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
11. Sort/report generators

A. are faster than index/report generators
B. require more disk space than index/report generators
C. do not need to sort before generating a report
D. both (a) and (b)
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Answer: Option B
Explanation:
12. The data dictionary tells the DBMS

A. what files are in the database
B. what attribute are possessed by the data
C. what these files contain
D. All of the above
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
13. In SQL, which command(s) is(are) used to enable/disable a database trigger?

A. MODIFY USER
B. CHANGE USER
C. ALTER TRIGGER
D. All of the above
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
14. If the record management system allows you to edit values before they are recorded on
disk, you can
A. correct spelling changes before they are recorded
B. change the name of a field
C. change the width of a field
D. All of the above
51
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
15. The relational model uses some unfamiliar terminology. A tuple is equivalent to a:
A. record
B. field
C. file
D. data base
E. data item
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
16. The files stored on a secondary stage device are composed of a hierarchy of data. What does
a record in a file contain?
A. Bits
B. Characters
C. Data field
D. Schema
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
17. Which command is used to remove an index from the database in SQL?
A. DELETE INDEX
B. DROP INDEX
C. REMOVE INDEX
52
D. ROLL BACK INDEX
Answer: Option B
Explanation:No answer description available for this question.
18. An-owner-member set in the CODASYL specifications may have
A. only one owner but many owner occurrences
B. only one member but many member occurrence
C. more than one member but only one occurrence per member
D. All of the above
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
19. What is the name given to the database management system which is able to handle full
text data, image data, audio and video?
A. Full media
B. Graphics media
C. Multimedia
D. Hypertext
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
20. A top-to-bottom relationship among the items in a database is established by a

A. Hierarchical schema
B. Network schema
C. Relational schema
53
D. All of the above
Answer: Option A
21. A database management system
A. allows simultaneous access to multiple files
B. can do more than a record management system
C. is a collection of programs for managing data in a single file
D. both (a) and (b)
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
22. Which of the following hardware components is the most important to the operation of
a database management system?
A. high-resolution video display
B. printer
C. high speed, large-capacity disk
D. plotter
E. mouse
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
23. The PROJECT command will create new table that has
A. more fields than the original table
B. more rows than the original table
C. both (a) and (b)
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D. all the fields of master table
Answer: Option E
24. To have a file hold a list, it is necessary to
A. identify the records in the list
B. identify the name, width and type of the fields of each record.
C. decide which fields will be used as sort or index keys
D. All of the above
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
25. Sophisticated report generators can

A. print row-oriented reports
B. perform arithmetic operations
C. selectively retrieve and print portions of a list
D. All of the above
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
26. In a _____ a parent record type can be linked to one or more "child" record types, but a
child record type can have only one parent.
A. Network database
B. Relational database
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C. Distributed database
D. Hierarchical database
Answer: Option D
27. Which two files are used during operation of the DBMS?
A. query language and utilities
B. data manipulation language and query language
C. data dictionary and transaction log
D. data dictionary and query language
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
28. When using a database management system, the first thing that you must do is to
A. create a database file
B. activate file editor
C. load the software into your microÂ¬computer
D. keep a floppy disk in readiness
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
29. A network schema
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A. restricts the structure to a one-to-many relationship
B. permits many-to-many relationÂ¬ships
C. stores data in tables
D. All of the above
30. Which of the following is not a relational database?

A. dBASE IV
B. 4th Dimension
C. FoxPro
D. Reflex
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
31. Which command is used to remove a table from the database in SQL?
A. DELETE TABLE
B. DROP TABLE
C. ERASE TABLE
D. UNATTACH TABLE
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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32. A large computer information system maintains many different computer

files. Which amongst them is called a perpetual file?
A. Specialized file
B. Log file
C. Master file
D. Update file
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
33. A file produced by a spreadsheet

A. is generally stored on disk in an ASCII text format
B. can be used as it by the DBMS
C. can be used for graphic
D. All of the above
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
34. A form defines

A. where data is placed on the screen
B. the width of each field
C. both (a) and (b)
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D. All of the above
Answer: Option C
35. Which of the following is true of a network structure?

A. It is a physical representation of the data
B. It allows a many-to-many relationship
C. It is conceptually simple
D. It will be the dominant data base of the future
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
36. In SQL, GRANT command is used to

A. allow user to access databases
B. allow user to create databases
C. grant system privileges, roles, and object privileges to uses and roles
D. choose auditing for specific SQL commands
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
37. The highest level in the hierarchy of data organization is called

A. data bank
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B. database
C. data file
D. data record
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
38. The logical data structure with a one-to-many relationship is a :

A. network
B. tree
C. chain
D. relational
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
39. Updating a database means

A. revising the file structure
B. reorganizing the database
C. modifying or adding record occurrences
D. All of the above
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
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40. In SQL, which command(s) is(are) used to enable/disable all triggers on a table?
A. ALTER TRIGGERS
B. ALTER TABLE
C. MODIFY TRIGGERS IN TABLE
D. All of the above
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
41. When you have finished entering information into a form

A. the template is written to the data file
B. the contents of the form are written to the data file
C. the contents of the form can be printed
D. All of the above
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
42. The main idea behind computer files is that it is convenient to

A. arrange them
B. store information together
C. create them
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D. access them
Answer: Option B
43. A list consists of last names, first names, addresses, and pin codes if all people in the list
have the same last and the same pin code, a useful key would be
A. the pin code
B. the last name
C. a compound key consisting of the first name and the last name
D. All of the above
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
44. In SQL, which command is used to add new rows to a table?

A. ALTER TABLE
B. ADD ROW
C. INSERT
D. APPEND
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
45. A number of related records that are treated as a unit is called
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A. file
B. field
C. data
D. batch
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
46.If you want to group the records in the abc database, you could use the Jobcode as the _____.
A. Delete
B. Update
C. Sort Key
D. Index
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
47. The Management Information system (MIS) structure with one main computer system is called a
A. hierarchical MIS structure
B. distributed MIS structure
C. centralized MIS structure
D. decentralized MIS structure
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Answer: Option C
Explanation:
48. If a calculation is embedded in a form

A. the result of the calculations are stored with the form
B. the calculations are stored with the form
C. the result of the calculations are printed in report
D. All of the above
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
49.Data security threats include

A. hardware failure
B. privacy invasion
C. fraudulent manipulation of data
D. All of the above
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
50.An operation that will increase the length of a list is

A. Insert
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B. Look-up
C. Modify
D. All of the above
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
51.In SQL, which command is used to add a column/integrity constraint to a table

A. ADD COLUMN
B. INSERT COLUMN
C. MODIFY TABLE
D. ALTER TABLE
Answer: Option D
52.In SQL, which command(s) is(are) used to enable/disable a database trigger?

A. ALTER TRIGGER
B. ALTER DATABASE
C. ALTER TABLE
D. MODIFY TRIGGER
E. All of the above
Answer: Option A
53. In a relational schema, each tuple is divided into fields called

A. Relations
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B. Domains
C. Queries
D. All of the above
Answer: Option B
54. In SQL, which command is used to changes data in a table?

A. UPDATE
B. INSERT
C. BROWSE
D. APPEND
Answer: Option A
55.What name is given to the collection of facts, items of information or data which are related
in some way?
A. Database
B. Directory information
C. Information tree
D. Information provider
Answer: Option A
56.In a large DBMS

A. each user can "see" only a small part of the entire database
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B. each user can access every subÂ¬schema
C. each subschema contains every field in the logical schema
D. All of the above
Answer: Option A
57.Which of the following command(s) is(are) used to recompile a stored procedure in SQL?
A. COMPILE PROCEDURE
B. ALTER PROCEDURE
C. MODIFY PROCEDURE id) All of the above
D. None of the above
Answer: Option B
58.Internal auditors should review data system design before they are
A. developed
B. implemented
C. modified
D. All of the above
Answer: Option D
59. A _____ means that one record in a particular record type may be related to more than
one record of another record type.
A. One-to-one relationship
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B. One-to-many relationship
C. Many-to-one relationship
D. Many-to many relationship
60.Which command(s) is(are) used to redefine a column of the table in SQL ?

A. ALTER TABLE
B. DEFINE TABLE
C. MODIFY TABLE
D. All of the above
Answer: Option A
61.Which command(s) is(are) used to enable/disable/drop an integrity constraint in SQL?

A. DEFINE TABLE
B. MODIFY TABLE
C. ALTER TABLE
D. All of the above
Answer: Option C
62.In SQL, the ALTER TABLESPACE command is used
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A. to add/rename data files
B. to change storage characteristics
C. to take a tablespace online/offline
D. to begin/end a backup
E. All of the above
Answer: Option E
63.The language used in application programs to request data from the DBMS is referred to as the
A. DML
B. DDL
C. query language
D. All of the above
Answer: Option A
64.A database management system might consist of application programs and a software
package called
A. FORTRAN
B. AUTOFLOW
C. BPL
D. TOTAL
Answer: Option C
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65.An audit trail
A. is used to make back-up copies
B. is the recorded history of operations performed on a file
C. can be used to restore lost information
D. All of the above
Answer: Option B
66.A race condition occurs when

A. Two concurrent activities interact to cause a processing error
B. two users of the DBMS are interacting with different files at the same time
C. both (a) and (b)
D. All of the above
Answer: Option A
67.An indexing operation

A. sorts a file using a single key
B. sorts file using two keys
C. establishes an index for a file
D. both (b) and (c)
Answer: Option C
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68.The on-line, softcopy display a customer's charge account to respond to an inquiry is
an examples of a
A. forecasting report
B. exception report
C. regularly scheduled report
D. on demand report
Answer: Option D
69.In SQL, which command(s) is(are) used to create a synonym for a schema object?
A. CREATE SCHEMA
B. CREATE SYNONYM
C. CREATE SAME
D. All of the above
Answer: Option B
70.If you want your database to include methods, you should use a _____ database.
A. Network
B. Distributed
C. Hierarchical
D. Object-Oriented
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71.In SQL, which of the following is not a data Manipulation Language Commands?
A. DELETE
B. SELECT
C. UPDATE
D. CREATE
72. Which of the following is not characteristic of a relational database model?

A. tables
B. treelike structure
C. complex logical relationships
D. records
Answer: Option B
73.A computer file contains several records. What does each record contain?
A. Bytes
B. Words
C. Fields
D. Database
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Answer: Option C
74.In SQL, the CREATE VIEW command is used

A. to recompile view
B. to define a view of one or more tables or views
C. to recompile a table
D. to create a trigger
Answer: Option B
75.A ____ Contains the smallest unit of meaningful data, so you might call it the
basic building block for a data file.
A. File structure
B. Records
C. Fields
D. Database
Answer: Option C
76.In the DBM approach, application programs perform the

A. storage function
B. processing functions
C. access control
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D. All of the above
Answer: Option B
77. I n SQL, which command is used to create a database user?

A. ADD USER TO DATABASE
B. MK USER
C. CREATE USER
D. All of the above
Answer: Option C
78.When performing a look-up operation using a form

A. you enter the search value into the form
B. you look at each form sequentially until you see the one you want
C. you type the key in an entry line, and the correct form is displayed
D. All of the above
Answer: Option A
79.A _____ means that one record in a particular record type is related to only one record of another
record type.
A. One-to-one relationship
B. One-to-many relationship
C. Many-to-one relationship
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D. Many-to-many relationship
Answer: Option A
80.A _____ database does not use pointers or physical links, but instead finds related records by
examining the contents of fields.
A. Network
B. Hierarchical
C. Relational
D. Object-Oriented
Answer: Option C
81.In SQL, which command(s) is(are) used to redefine an index's future storage allocation
A. ALTER INDEX
B. REDEFINE INDEX
C. MODIFY INDEX
D. DO INDEX
Answer: Option A
82.Which of the following is a serious problem of file management systems?

A. difficult to update
B. lack of data independence
C. data redundancy
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D. program dependence
E. All of the above
Answer: Option E
83.With respect to data input, the most accurate description of batch control is
A. dividing documents to be entered into batches
B. controlling the input of each input clerk
C. comparing to a pre-calculated figure the total of a data item summed across a batch records put
into the system
D. All of the above
Answer: Option C
84.The model for a _____ resembles the hierarchical model in many respects.
A. Network database
B. Relational database
C. Distributed database
D. Hierarchical database
Answer: Option A
85.A set of programs that handle a firm's data base responsibilities is called a
A. Data Base Management System (DBMS)
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B. Data Base Processing System (DBPS)
C. Data Management System (DMS)
D. All of the above
Answer: Option D
86.In any hierarchy of data organization, the smallest entity to be processed as a single unit is called
A. data field
B. data record
C. data file
D. Database
87.Long-range planning report produced in an MIS are primarily designed for

A. top management
B. middle management
C. lower management
D. All of the above
Answer: Option A
88.The model for a record management system might be
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A. handwritten list
B. a Rolodex card file
C. a business form
D. All of the above
Answer: Option D
89.The designer of a form includes

A. filed designators
B. Prompts
C. Data
D. both (a) and (b)
Answer: Option D
90.Which of the following contains a complete record of all activity that affected the contents of
a database during a certain period of time?
A. report writer
B. query language
C. data manipulation language
D. transaction log
Answer: Option D
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91.Two files may be joined into a third file if
A. they have a row in common
B. they have a field in common
C. they have no records with the same value in the common field
D. both (b) and (c)
Answer: Option B
92.Characteristic(s) of a distributed MIS structure is

A. interactive sharing of the workload
B. a multiprocessing environment
C. computers supporting local DP operations
D. All of the above
Answer: Option D
93.The data-base environment has all of the following components except:

A. Users
B. separate files
C. data base
D. data-base administrator
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Answer: Option B
94.The way a particular application views the data from the data base that the application uses is a :
A. Module
B. relational model
C. Schema
D. subschema
95.A compound key

A. is made up a several pieces of information
B. uniquely identifies an item in a list
C. both (a) and (b)
D. is a combination of each unique key
96.The distinguishable parts of a record are called

A. Files
B. Data
C. Fields
D. Database
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Answer: Option C
97.Large collections of files are called

A. Fields
B. Records
C. databases
D. file system
Answer: Option C
98.The index consists of

A. a list of keys
B. pointers to the master list
C. both (a) and (b)
D. All of the above
99.In SQL, which command is used to select data in rows and column from one or more tables?
A. CHOOSE
B. SELECT
C. LIST
D. BROWSE
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Answer: Option B
100.A scheme describes

A. data elements
B. records and files
C. record relationships
D. All of the above
Answer: Option D
Theory part:
1.What is database?
A database is a logically coherent collection of data with some inherent meaning, representing some
aspect of real world and which is designed, built and populated with data for a specific purpose.
2.What is DBMS?
It is a collection of programs that enables user to create and maintain a database. In other words it
is general-purpose software that provides the users with the processes of defining, constructing
and manipulating the database for various applications.
3.What is a Database system?
The database and DBMS software together is called as Database system.
4.What are the advantages of DBMS?
Redundancy is controlled.
Unauthorised access is restricted.
Providing multiple user interfaces.
Enforcing integrity constraints.
Providing backup and recovery.
5.What are the disadvantage in File Processing System?
Data redundancy and inconsistency.
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Difficult in accessing data.
Data isolation.
Data integrity.
Concurrent access is not possible.
Security Problems.
6.Describe the three levels of data abstraction?
The are three levels of abstraction:

Physical level: The lowest level of abstraction describes how data are stored.
Logical level: The next higher level of abstraction, describes what data are stored in database
and what relationship among those data.
View level: The highest level of abstraction describes only part of entire database.
7.Define the "integrity rules"?
There are two Integrity rules.

Entity Integrity: States that "Primary key cannot have NULL value"
Referential Integrity: States that "Foreign Key can be either a NULL value or should be
Primary Key value of other relation.
8.What is extension and intension?
Extension: It is the number of tuples present in a table at any instance. This is time dependent.
Intension: It is a constant value that gives the name, structure of table and the constraints laid on it.
9.What is System R? What are its two major subsystems?
System R was designed and developed over a period of 1974-79 at IBM San Jose Research
Center. It is a prototype and its purpose was to demonstrate that it is possible to build a
Relational System that can be used in a real life environment to solve real life problems, with
performance at least comparable to that of existing system.
Its two subsystems are
Research Storage
System Relational Data System.
10.How is the data structure of System R different from the relational structure?
Unlike Relational systems in System R

Domains are not supported
Enforcement of candidate key uniqueness is optional
Enforcement of entity integrity is optional
Referential integrity is not enforced
11.What is Data Independence?
Data independence means that "the application is independent of the storage structure and
access strategy of data". In other words, The ability to modify the schema definition in one level
should not affect the schema definition in the next higher level.
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Two types of Data Independence:
Physical Data Independence: Modification in physical level should not affect the logical level.
Logical Data Independence: Modification in logical level should affect the view level.
NOTE: Logical Data Independence is more difficult to achieve
12.What is a view? How it is related to data independence?
A view may be thought of as a virtual table, that is, a table that does not really exist in its own right
but is instead derived from one or more underlying base table. In other words, there is no stored
file that direct represents the view instead a definition of view is stored in data dictionary.
Growth and restructuring of base tables is not reflected in views. Thus the view can insulate
users from the effects of restructuring and growth in the database. Hence accounts for logical
data independence.
13.What is Data Model?
A collection of conceptual tools for describing data, data relationships data semantics
and constraints.
14.What is E-R model?
This data model is based on real world that consists of basic objects called entities and of
relationship among these objects. Entities are described in a database by a set of attributes.
15.What is Object Oriented model?
This model is based on collection of objects. An object contains values stored in instance variables
with in the object. An object also contains bodies of code that operate on the object. These bodies
of code are called methods. Objects that contain same types of values and the same methods are
grouped together into classes.
16.What is an Entity?
It is a 'thing' in the real world with an independent existence.
17.What is an Entity type?
It is a collection (set) of entities that have same attributes.
18.What is an Entity set?
It is a collection of all entities of particular entity type in the database.
19.What is Weak Entity set?
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An entity set may not have sufficient attributes to form a primary key, and its primary key
compromises of its partial key and primary key of its parent entity, then it is said to be Weak Entity
set.
20.What is an attribute?
It is a particular property, which describes the entity.
21.What is a Relation Schema and a Relation?
A relation Schema denoted by R(A1, A2, ..., An) is made up of the relation name R and the list
of attributes Ai that it contains. A relation is defined as a set of tuples. Let r be the relation which
contains set tuples (t1, t2, t3, ..., tn). Each tuple is an ordered list of n-values t=(v1,v2, ..., vn).
22.What is degree of a Relation?
It is the number of attribute of its relation schema.
23.What is Relationship?
It is an association among two or more entities.
24.What is Relationship set?
The collection (or set) of similar relationships.
25.What is Relationship type?
Relationship type defines a set of associations or a relationship set among a given set of
entity types.
26.What is degree of Relationship type?
It is the number of entity type participating.
27.What is DDL (Data Definition Language)?
A data base schema is specifies by a set of definitions expressed by a special language called DDL.
28.What is VDL (View Definition Language)?
It specifies user views and their mappings to the conceptual schema.
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29.What is SDL (Storage Definition Language)?
This language is to specify the internal schema. This language may specify the mapping
between two schemas.
30.What is Data Storage - Definition Language?
The storage structures and access methods used by database system are specified by a set
of definition in a special type of DDL called data storage-definition language.
31.What is DML (Data Manipulation Language)?
This language that enable user to access or manipulate data as organised by appropriate
data model.
Procedural DML or Low level: DML requires a user to specify what data are needed and how
to get those data.
Non-Procedural DML or High level: DML requires a user to specify what data are needed
without specifying how to get those data.
32.What is DML Compiler?
It translates DML statements in a query language into low-level instruction that the query
evaluation engine can understand.
33.What is Query evaluation engine?
It executes low-level instruction generated by compiler.
34.What is DDL Interpreter?
It interprets DDL statements and record them in tables containing metadata.
35.What is Set-at-a-time or Set-oriented?
The High level or Non-procedural DML can specify and retrieve many records in a single
DML statement. This retrieve of a record is said to be Set-at-a-time or Set-oriented.
36.What is Relational Algebra?
It is procedural query language. It consists of a set of operations that take one or two relations
as input and produce a new relation.
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37. What is normalization?
It is a process of analysing the given relation schemas based on their Functional
Dependencies (FDs) and primary key to achieve the properties
(1).Minimizing redundancy, (2). Minimizing insertion, deletion and update anomalies.
38. What is Functional Dependency?

A Functional dependency is denoted by X Y between two sets of attributes X and Y that are
subsets of R specifies a constraint on the possible tuple that can form a relation state r of R. The
constraint is for any two tuples t1 and t2 in r if t1[X] = t2[X] then they have t1[Y] = t2[Y]. This means
the value of X component of a tuple uniquely determines the value of component Y.
39. What is 1 NF (Normal Form)?

The domain of attribute must include only atomic (simple, indivisible) values.
40. What is Fully Functional dependency?

It is based on concept of full functional dependency. A functional dependency X Y is full
functional dependency if removal of any attribute A from X means that the dependency does not
hold any more.
41 What is 2NF?
A relation schema R is in 2NF if it is in 1NF and every non-prime attribute A in R is fully functionally
dependent on primary key.
42. What is 3NF?

A relation schema R is in 3NF if it is in 2NF and for every FD X A either of the following is
true X is a Super-key of R.
A is a prime attribute of R.
In other words, if every non prime attribute is non-transitively dependent on primary key.
43.What is BCNF (Boyce-Codd Normal Form)?

A relation schema R is in BCNF if it is in 3NF and satisfies an additional constraint that for every
FD X A, X must be a candidate key.
44.What is 4NF?
A relation schema R is said to be in 4NF if for every Multivalued dependency X Y that holds over
R, one of following is true.
1.) X is subset or equal to (or) XY = R.
2.) X is a super key.
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45.What is a query?
A query with respect to DBMS relates to user commands that are used to interact with a data base.
The query language can be classified into data definition language and data manipulation language.
46.What are the unary operations in Relational Algebra?
PROJECTION and SELECTION.
47.Are the resulting relations of PRODUCT and JOIN operation the same?
No.
PRODUCT: Concatenation of every row in one relation with every row in another.
JOIN: Concatenation of rows from one relation and related rows from another.
48.What is database Trigger?
A database trigger is a PL/SQL block that can defined to automatically execute for insert,
update, and delete statements against a table. The trigger can e defined to execute once for the
entire statement or once for every row that is inserted, updated, or deleted. For any one table,
there are twelve events for which you can define database triggers. A database trigger can call
database procedures that are also written in PL/SQL.
49.What is Buffer Manager?
It is a program module, which is responsible for fetching data from disk storage into main
memory and deciding what data to be cache in memory.
50.What is Transaction Manager?
It is a program module, which ensures that database, remains in a consistent state despite
system failures and concurrent transaction execution proceeds without conflicting.
51.What is File Manager?
It is a program module, which manages the allocation of space on disk storage and data
structure used to represent information stored on a disk.
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Data Structure
1 - In a min-heap:
A - parent nodes have values greater than or equal to their childs
B - parent nodes have values less than or equal to their childs
C - both statements are true
D - both statements are wrong
Answer : A
Explanation
In a min heap, parents always have lesser or equal values than that of their
childs.
2 - What data structure can be used to check if a syntax has balanced

paranthesis ?
A - queue
B - tree
C - list
D - stack
Answer : D
Explanation
Stack uses LIFO method which is good for checking matching paranthesis.
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3 - Minimum number of queues required for priority queue implementation?
A-5
B-4
C-3
D-2
Answer : D
Explanation
Minimum number of queues required for priority queue implementation is two.
One for storing actual data and one for storing priorities.
4 - The minimum number of edges required to create a cyclid graph of n

vertices is
A-n
B-n-1
C-n+1
D - 2n
Answer : A
Explanation
To make a graph cyclic, the number of edges should be at least equal to
vertices in the graph.
5 - An algorithm is
A - a piece of code to be executed.
B - a loosely written code to make final code.
C - a step by step procedure to solve problem.
D - all of the above.
Answer : C
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Explanation:An algorithm is a step by step procedure to solve
a computer problem.
6 - Which of the below mentioned sorting algorithms are not stable?
A - Selection Sort
B - Bubble Sort
C - Merge Sort
D - Insertion Sort
Answer : A
Explanation
Except selection sort, all other soring algorithms are stable.
7 - A queue data-structure can be used for −
A - expression parsing
B - recursion
C - resource allocation
D - all of the above
Answer : C
Explanation
Queues can be used for limited resource allocation. For other operations,
stacks are used.
8 - Tower of hanoi is a classic example of
A - divide and conquer
B - recursive approach
C - B but not A
D - Both A & B
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Answer : D
Explanation
The recursive approach of tower of hanoi uses divide and conquer method.
9 - From a complete graph, by removing maximum _______________ edges,

we can construct a spanning tree.
A - e-n+1
B - n-e+1
C - n+e-1
D - e-n-1
Answer : A
Explanation
We can remove maximum e-n+1 edges to get a spanning tree from complete
graph. Any more deletion of edges will lead the graph to be disconnected.
10 - A stable sorting alrithm −
A - does not crash.
B - does not run out of memory.
C - does not change the sequence of appearance of elements.
D - does not exists.
Answer : C
Explanation
A stable sorting algorithm like bubble sort, does not change the sequence of
appearance of similar element in the sorted list.
11 - What is the worst case run-time complexity of binary search algorithm?
A - Ο(n2)
92
B - Ο(nlog n)
C - Ο(n3)
D - Ο(n)
Answer : D
Explanation
In the worst case, binary search will be left or right intended, making it
compare all the n values.
12 - Maximum number of nodes in a binary tree with height k, where root is

height 0, is
A - 2k − 1
B - 2k+1 − 1
C - 2k-1 + 1
D - 2k − 1
Answer : B
Explanation
If the root node is at height 0, then a binary tree can have at max 2k+1 − 1
nodes.
For example: a binary tree of height 1, can have maximum 21+1 − 1 = 3

nodes.
13 - A linked-list is a dynamic structure
A - true
B - false
Answer : A
Explanation
A linked-list is dynamic structure, it can shrink and expand as required by the
program.
14 - Maximum degree of any vertex in a simple graph of vertices n is
93
A - 2n - 1
B-n
C-n+1
D-n-1
Answer : D
Explanation
In a simple graph, a vertex can have edge to maximum n - 1 vertices.
15 - Which of the following is example of in-place algorithm?
A - Bubble Sort
B - Merge Sort
C - Insertion Sort
D - All of the above
Answer : B
Explanation
Only Merge sort requires extra space.
16 - The number of binary trees with 3 nodes which when traversed in post
order gives the sequence A,B,C is ?
A-3
B-4
C-5
D-6
Answer : C
Explanation
Five binary trees (of 3 nodes) are possible.
17 - The Θ notation in asymptotic evaluation represents −
94
A - Base case
B - Average case
C - Worst case
D - NULL case
Answer : A
Explanation
Θ represents average case. Ο represents worst case and Ω represents base
case.
28 - Program with highest run-time complexity is
A - Tower of Hanoi
B - Fibonacci Series
C - Prime Number Series
D - None of the above
Answer : A
Explanation
Tower of hanoi has the highest run time complexity
19 - Binary search tree is an example of complete binary tree with special

attributes.
A - BST does not care about complete binary tree properties.
B - BST takes care of complete binary tree properties.
C - It depends upon the input.
D - None of the above.
Answer : A
Explanation
BST does not care about complete binary tree properties.
95
20 - Which of the following algorithm does not divide the list −
A - linear search
B - binary search
C - merge sort
D - quick sort
Answer : A
Explanation
Linear search, seaches the desired element in the target list in a sequential
manner, without breaking it in any way.
Theory part:
1.What is the difference between a stack and a Queue?
Stack is a collection of objects that works in LIFO (Last in First out)

mechanism while Queue is FIFO (First in First out). This means that the object
that is inserted first is removed last in a stack while an object that is inserted
first is removed first in a queue.
2. What is data-structure?
Data structure is a way of defining, storing & retriving of data in a structural &
systemetic way. A data structure may contain different type of data items.
3.What is a linked-list?
A linked-list is a list of data-items connected with links i.e. pointers or
references. Most modern high-level programming language does not provide
the feature of directly accessing memory location, therefore, linked-list are
not supported in them or available in form of inbuilt functions.
96
4.What is stack?
In data-structure, stack is an Abstract Data Type (ADT) used to store and
retrieve values in Last In First Out method.
5. Why do we use stacks?
Stacks follows LIFO method and addition and retrieval of a data item takes
only Ο(n) time. Stacks are used where we need to access data in the reverse
order or their arrival. Stacks are used commonly in recursive function calls,
expression parsing, depth first traversal of graphs etc.
6.What is a queue in data-structure?

Queue is an abstract data structure, somewhat similar to stack. In contrast to
stack, queue is opened at both end. One end is always used to insert data
(enqueue) and the other is used to remove data (dequeue). Queue follows
First-In-First-Out methodology, i.e., the data item stored first will be accessed
first.
7. Why do we use queues?
As queues follows FIFO method, they are used when we need to work on
data-items in exact sequence of their arrival. Every operating system
maintains queues of various processes. Priority queues and breadth first
traversal of graphs are some examples of queues.
8.What is linear searching?

Linear search tries to find an item in a sequentially arranged data type. These
sequentially arranged data items known as array or list, are accessible in incrementing
memory location. Linear search compares expected data item with each of data items
in list or array. The average case time complexity of linear search is Ο(n) and worst
case complexity is Ο(n2). Data in target arrays/lists need not to be sorted.
97
9.What is binary search?
A binary search works only on sorted lists or arrays. This search selects the middle
which splits the entire list into two parts. First the middle is compared.
This search first compares the target value to the mid of the list. If it is not found, then
it takes decision on whether.
10.What is bubble sort and how bubble sort works?

Bubble sort is comparison based algorithm in which each pair of adjacent
elements is compared and elements are swapped if they are not in order.
Because the time complexity is Ο(n2), it is not suitable for large set of data.
11.What is a binary tree?

A binary tree has a special condition that each node can have two children at
maximum.
12.What is a binary search tree?

A binary search tree is a binary tree with a special provision where a node's
left child must have value less than its parent's value and node's right child
must have value greater than it's parent value.
13.What is tree traversal?
See the below image of a binary search tree, and traverse it using all available methods −
98
14.What is a minimum spanning tree (MST) ?
In a weighted graph, a minimum spanning tree is a spanning tree that has minimum weight that
all other spanning trees of the same graph.
15.What is a heap in data structure?

Heap is a special balanced binary tree data structure where root-node key is compared with its
children and arranged accordingly. A min-heap, a parent node has key value less than its childs
and a max-heap parent node has value greater than its childs.
16.What is a recursive function?

A recursive function is one which calls itself, directly or calls a function that in turn
calls it. Every recursive function follows the recursive properties − base
criteria where functions stops calling itself and progressive approach where the
functions tries to meet the base criteria in each iteration.
17.What is fibonacci series?

Fibonacci Series generates subsequent number by adding two previous numbers. For example
− 0 1 1 2 3 5 8 13.
18.What is hashing?
Hashing is a technique to convert a range of key values into a range of indexes of an array. By
using hash tables, we can create an associative data storage where data index can be find by
providing its key values.
19.What is interpolation search technique?

Interpolation search is an improved variant of binary search. This search algorithm works on
the probing position of required value.
20.What is the prefix and post fix notation of (a + b) * (c + d) ?
Prefix Notation − * + a b + c d
Postfix Notation − a b + c d + *
What are the flags in 8086?

In 8086 Carry flag, Parity flag, Auxiliary carry flag, Zero flag, Overflow flag, Trace flag, Interrupt flag, Direction
flag, and Sign flag.
What is SIM and RIM instructions?
SIM is Set Interrupt Mask. Used to mask the hardware interrupts.
RIM is Read Interrupt Mask. Used to check whether the interrupt is Masked or not.
What is the difference between 8086 and 8088?
The BIU in 8088 is 8-bit data bus & 16- bit in 8086.Instruction queue is 4 byte long in 8088and 6 byte in 8086.
Give example for Non-Maskable interrupts?
Trap is known as Non-Maskable interrupts, which is used in emergency condition.
Give examples for Micro controller?
Z80, Intel MSC51 &96, Motorola are the best examples of Microcontroller.
What is clock frequency for 8085?
3 MHz is the maximum clock frequency for 8085.
Give an example of one address microprocessor?
8085 is a one address microprocessor.
Give examples for 8 / 16 / 32 bit Microprocessor?
8-bit Processor - 8085 / Z80 / 6800; 16-bit Processor - 8086 / 68000 / Z8000; 32-bit Processor - 80386 / 80486
What is meant by a bus?
A bus is a group of conducting lines that carriers data, address, & control signals.
What are the various registers in 8085?
Accumulator register, Temporary register, Instruction register, Stack Pointer, Program Counter are the various
registers in 8085
Why crystal is a preferred clock source?
Because of high stability, large Q (Quality Factor) & the frequency that doesn’t drift with aging. Crystal is used as a
clock source most of the times.
In 8085 which is called as High order / Low order Register?
Flag is called as Low order register & Accumulator is called as High order Register.
Name 5 different addressing modes?
Immediate, Direct, Register, Register indirect, Implied addressing modes
In what way interrupts are classified in 8085?
In 8085 the interrupts are classified as Hardware and Software interrupts.
What is the difference between primary & secondary storage device?
In primary storage device the storage capacity is limited. It has a volatile memory. In secondary storage device the
storage capacity is larger. It is a nonvolatile memory. Primary devices are: RAM / ROM. Secondary devices are:
Floppy disc / Hard disk.
Which Stack is used in 8085?
LIFO (Last In First Out) stack is used in 8085.In this type of Stack the last stored information can be retrieved first.
What is Program counter?
Program counter holds the address of either the first byte of the next instruction to be fetched for execution or the
address of the next byte of a multi byte instruction, which has not been completely fetched. In both the cases it gets
incremented automatically one by one as the instruction bytes get fetched. Also Program register keeps the address
of the next instruction.
What is the RST for the TRAP?
RST 4.5 is called as TRAP.
What are level-triggering interrupt?
RST 6.5 & RST 5.5 are level-triggering interrupts.
Which interrupt is not level-sensitive in 8085?
RST 7.5 is a raising edge-triggering interrupt.
What are Software interrupts?
RST0, RST1, RST2, RST3, RST4, RST5, RST6, RST7.
What are the various flags used in 8085?
Sign flag, Zero flag, Auxiliary flag, Parity flag, Carry flag.
In 8085 name the 16 bit registers?
Stack pointer and Program counter all have 16 bits.What is Stack Pointer?
Stack pointer is a special purpose 16-bit register in the Microprocessor, which holds the address of the top of the
stack.
What happens when HLT instruction is executed in processor?
The Micro Processor enters into Halt-State and the buses are tri-stated.
What does Quality factor mean?
The Quality factor is also defined, as Q. So it is a number, which reflects the lossness of a circuit. Higher the Q, the
lower are the losses.
How many interrupts are there in 8085?
There are 12 interrupts in 8085.
What is Tri-state logic?
Three Logic Levels are used and they are High, Low, High impedance state. The high and low are normal logic levels &
high impedance state is electrical open circuit conditions. Tri-state logic has a third line called enable line.
Which interrupt has the highest priority?
TRAP has the highest priority
What are Hardware interrupts?
TRAP, RST7.5, RST6.5, RST5.5, INTR
Can an RC circuit be used as clock source for 8085?
Yes, it can be used, if an accurate clock frequency is not required. Also, the component cost is low compared to LC
or Crystal
What is the difference between microprocessor and microcontroller?

The major difference is microprocessor doesn’t have inbuilt memory but micro-controller has inbuilt memory .In
Microprocessor more op-codes, few bit handling instructions. But in Microcontroller: fewer op-codes, more bit
handling Instructions. Micro-controller can be defined as a device that includes micro processor, memory, & input
/ output signal lines on a single chip.
Give examples for 8 / 16 / 32 bit Microprocessor?

8-bit Processor - 8085 / Z80 / 6800;
16-bit Processor - 8086 / 68000 / Z8000;
32-bit Processor - 80386 / 80486.
Why 8085 processor is called an 8 bit processor?

Because 8085 processor has 8 bit ALU (Arithmetic Logic Review).
Expand HCMOS?
High-density n- type Complimentary Metal Oxide Silicon field effect transistor.
What does microprocessor speed depend on?

The processing speed depends on DATA BUS WIDTH.
What is the Maximum clock frequency in 8086?

5 Mhz is the Maximum clock frequency in 8086
Is the address bus unidirectional? Is the data bus is Bi-directional?

The address bus is unidirectional because the address information is always given by the Micro Processor to address
a memory location of an input / output devices.
The data bus is Bi-directional because the same bus is used for transfer of data between Micro Processor
and memory or input / output devices in both the direction.
What is the disadvantage of microprocessor?

It has limitations on the size of data. Most Microprocessor does not support floating-point operations.
What is the difference between primary & secondary storage device?
In primary storage device the storage capacity is limited. It has a volatile memory. In secondary storage device the
storage capacity is larger. It is a nonvolatile memory. Primary devices are: RAM / ROM. Secondary devices are:
Floppy disc / Hard disk.
Difference between SRAM and DRAM?

Static RAM: No refreshing, 6 to 8 MOS transistors are required to form one memory cell, Information stored as
voltage level in a flip flop.
Dynamic RAM: Refreshed periodically, 3 to 4 transistors are required to form one memory cell, Information
is stored as a charge in the gate to substrate capacitance.
What is an interrupt?
Interrupt is a signal send by external device to the processor so as to request the processor to perform a
particular work.
What are the different types of interrupts?

Maskable and Non-maskable interrupts.
What is cache memory?

Cache memory is a small high-speed memory. It is used for temporary storage of data & information between the
main memory and the CPU (center processing unit). The cache memory is only in RAM.
Expand DMA?
Direct Memory Access
Differentiate between RAM and ROM?

RAM: Random Access Memory. Read / Write memory, High Speed, Volatile Memory. ROM: Read only memory,
Low Speed, Non Volatile Memory
What is NV-RAM?
Nonvolatile Read Access Memory, also called Flash memory.
What is a flag?
Flag is a flip-flop used to store the information about the status of a processor and the status of the
instruction executed most recently
What are the flags in 8086?

In 8086 Carry flag, Parity flag, Auxiliary carry flag, Zero flag, Overflow flag, Trace flag, Interrupt flag, Direction
flag, and Sign flag.
What is meant by Maskable interrupt?

An interrupt that can be turned off by the programmer is known as Maskable interrupt.
What is Non-Maskable interrupt?

An interrupt which can be never be turned off (ie.disabled) is known as Non-Maskable interrupt.
Which interrupts are generally used for critical events? Non-Maskable interrupts are used in critical
events. Such as Power failure, Emergency, Shut off etc.
Give examples for Maskable interrupts?

RST 7.5, RST6.5, RST5.5 are Maskable interrupts
Give example for Non-Maskable interrupts?

Trap is known as Non-Maskable interrupts, which is used in emergency condition.
What are the various segment registers in 8086?

Code, Data, Stack, Extra Segment registers in 8086.
Which Stack is used in 8086?

FIFO (First In First Out) stack is used in 8086.In this type of Stack the first stored information is retrieved first.
What is SIM and RIM instructions?

SIM is Set Interrupt Mask. Used to mask the hardware interrupts.
RIM is Read Interrupt Mask. Used to check whether the interrupt is Masked or not.
What is Tri-state logic?

Three Logic Levels are used and they are High, Low, High impedance state. The high and low are normal logic levels &
high impedance state is electrical open circuit conditions. Tri-state logic has a third line called enable line.

8085 is a one address microprocessor.

In 8085 the interrupts are classified as Hardware and Software interrupts.
What are Hardware interrupts?

TRAP, RST7.5, RST6.5, RST5.5, INTR.
What are Software interrupts?

RST0, RST1, RST2, RST3, RST4, RST5, RST6, RST7.
Which interrupt has the highest priority?

TRAP has the highest priority.

Immediate, Direct, Register, Register indirect, Implied addressing modes.
How many interrupts are there in 8085?

There are 12 interrupts in 8085.
What is the RST

for the TRAP?
RST 4.5 is called as TRAP.
In 8085 which is called as High order / Low order Register?

Flag is called as Low order register & Accumulator is called as High order Register.
1. What are the various registers in 8085?

Accumulator register, Temporary register, Instruction register, Stack Pointer, Program Counter are
the various registers in 8085 .
2. In 8085 name the 16 bit registers?

- Stack pointer and Program counter all have 16 bits.
3. What are the various flags used in 8085?

- Sign flag, Zero flag, Auxillary flag, Parity flag, Carry flag.
4. What is Stack Pointer?

Stack pointer is a special purpose 16-bit register in the Microprocessor, which holds the address of the
top of the stack.
5. What is Program counter?

Program counter holds the address of either the first byte of the next instruction to be fetched for
execution or the address of the next byte of a multi byte instruction, which has not been completely fetched.
In both the cases it gets incremented automatically one by one as the instruction bytes get fetched. Also
Program register keeps the address of the next instruction.
6. Which Stack is used in 8085?

- LIFO (Last In First Out) stack is used in 8085.In this type of Stack the last stored information can be
retrieved first.
7. What happens when HLT instruction is executed in processor?

- The Micro Processor enters into Halt-State and the buses are tri-stated.
8. What is meant by a bus?

- A bus is a group of conducting lines that carriers data, address, & control signals.
9. What is Tri-state logic?

Three Logic Levels are used and they are High, Low, High impedance state. The high and low are
normal logic levels & high impedance state is electrical open circuit conditions. Tri-state logic has a third
line called enable line.

- 8085 is a one address microprocessor.

- In 8085 the interrupts are classified as Hardware and Software interrupts.
12. What are Hardware interrupts?

- TRAP, RST7.5, RST6.5, RST5.5, INTR.
13. What are Software interrupts?

- RST0, RST1, RST2, RST3, RST4, RST5, RST6, RST7.
Which interrupt has the highest

priority? - TRAP has the highest priority.

- Immediate, Direct, Register, Register indirect, Implied addressing modes.
Most Important mcq:
If there are multiple recycle bin for a hard disk

a. you can set different size for each recycle bin
b. you can choose which recycle bin to use to store your deleted
files c. You can make any one of them default recycle bin
d. None of above
Identify false statement
a. You can find deleted files in recycle bin
b. You can restore any files in recycle bin if you ever need
c. You can increase free space of disk by sending files in recycle bin
d. You can right click and choose Empty Recycle Bin to clean it at once
If the displayed system time and date is wrong, you can reset it using
a. Write
b. Calendar
c. Write file
d. Control panel
You should save your computer from?
Viruses
Time bombs
Worms
All of the above
World Wide Web is being standard by
a. Worldwide corporation
b. W3C
c. World Wide Consortium d.
World Wide Web Standard
6. A co-processor
a. Is relatively easy to support in software
b. Causes all processor to function equally
c. Works with any application
d. Is quite common in modern computer
A Microsoft Windows is ..... a(n)
a. Operating system
b. Graphic program
c. Word Processing
d. Database program
Which of the following is program group?
a. Accessories
b. Paint
c. Word
d. All of above
Which is not application software?
a. Windows NT
b. Page Maker
c. WinWord XP
d. Photoshop
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The ..... program compresses large files into a smaller file
a. WinZip
b. WinShrink
c. WinStyle
d. None of above
Which of the following is an example of a real time operating
system? a. Lynx
b. MS DOS
c. Windows XP d.
Process Control
Which of the following operating system does not implement the multitasking
truly? a. Windows 98
b. Windows NT
c. Windows XP
d. MS DOS
Which of the following windows version support 64 bit processor?
a. Windows 98
b. Windows 2000
c. Windows XP
d. Windows 95
Which of the following Operating System does not implement multitasking truly?
a. Windows 98
b. Windows NT
c. Windows XP
d. MS DOS
What program runs first after computer is booted and loading GUI?
a. Desktop Manager
b. File Manager
c. Windows Explorer
d. Authentication
Which of the following operating system do you choose to implement a client server network?
a. MS DOS
b. Windows
c. Windows 98 d.
Windows 2000
Which of the following Operating systems is better for implementing a Client-Server
network a. MS DOS
b. Windows 95
c. Windows 98
d. Windows 2000
My Computer was introduced from
a. Windows 3.1
b. Windows 3.11
c. Windows 95 d.
Windows 98
Which of the following Windows do not have Start
button a. Windows Vista
b. Windows 7 c.
Windows 8 d.
None of above
Which is the latest version of MS Windows?
a. Windows 2007
b. Windows 8.1
c. Windows 2008
d. Windows 7
Which operating system doesn't support networking between
computers? a. Windows 3.1
b. Windows 95 c.
Windows 2000 d.
Windows NT
Which Operating System doesn't support networking between computers?
a. Windows 3.1
b. Windows 95 c.
Windows 2000 d.
Windows NT
Which of the following does not support more than one program at a
time? a. DOS
b. Linux
c. Windows
d. Unix
Which of the following is not an operating system?
DOS
Linux
Windows
Oracle
Linux is a(n) ... operating system
a. Open source
b. Microsoft
c. Windows
d. Mac
MCQ Sets (mcqsets.com) offers collection of multiple choice questions, online quizzes, downloads and subjective
Q/As.
Which operating system can you give smallest file name?
Ps/2
Dos
Windows
Windows NT
Which one is not operating system?
a. P11
b. OS/2
c. Windows
d. Unix
Which of the following is not a multitasking operating system?
a. Windows
b. Linux
c. Win NT
d. DOS
29. You should choose Sleep option when
a. The computer is tired after working for the whole day
b. You are leaving for a very short time and want to resume you work
shortly c. When computer gets hanged frequently. Let it sleep for some time
d. You finish working and going to bed
The .... displays the name of every computer user on the
computer a. Wish list screen
b. Command screen
c. Welcome screen
d. None of the above
The category of software most appropriate for controlling the design and layout of complex document like
newsletters and brochure is:
a. Word processing
b. Computer aided design
c. Web page authoring d.
Desktop publishing
Which one is not a system tool?
Backup
Disk defragment
Virus scanning
All of the above
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The memory which allocates space for DOS and application is
called a. Expanded memory
b. Cache memory
c. Virtual memory
d. Conventional memory
The operating system creates ... from the physical computer
a. Virtual space
b. Virtual computer
c. Virtual device
d. None
The operating system creates _____ from the physical computer
a. Virtual space
b. Virtual computers
c. Virtual device
d. None
Which menu bar selection would you access to open file?
Option
Help
View
None of above
Which mode loads minimal set of drivers when starting
Windows? a. Safe Mode
b. Normal Mode
c. VGA Mode
d. Network Support Mode
Which of the following are loaded in safe mode?
a. Keyboard driver
b. Mouse driver
c. VGA drive
d. All of above
A .... is a named location on a disk where files are
stored a. Folder
Pod
Version
None of the above
Which command is used to see the version of operating
system? a. Vol
b. Version
c. Ver
Which type of command requires additional files to perform specific operations?
a. Internal commands
b. External commands
c. Valuable commands
d. Primary commands
Which of the following is system software?
a. Operating system
Compiler
Utilities
All of the above
A user-interface that is easy to use is considered to
be a. User-happy
b. User-simple
c. User-friendly
A ....is a flash memory storage device that plugins into a USB
port a. USB snap drive
b. USB flash drive
c. USB memory maker drive
d. None of above
The ....is the drive containing the files to be copied
a. Source drive
b. Destination drive
c. USB drive
The number of character contained in primary name (DOS)?
a. Up to 8 characters
b. 3 characters
c. Up to 10 characters
Which one of the following is not a multitasking operating system?
a. DOS
b. Windows
c. Unix
d. Linux
The most recent version of MAC OS is based on the ... operating
system a. Windows
b. Linux
c. Unix d.
CMOS
The ... operating system was initially created in the early 1970s at AT and T's Bell
Labs a. Linux
b. DOS
c. Unix
d. GNU
Which command is used to undelete a bunch of files with extension .doc that you have just deleted?
Undelete
Undelete/all
Undelete *.doc
All of above
Which command is used to display the contents of the text file of
DOS? a. Copy con
b. Copy
c. Type
d. Dir
SI. MCQ Sets
contains a. Downloads
b. MCQ Collections
c. Online Quizzes
In Windows, start button is used to
a. Run applications
b. Device setting
c. Turn off the system
d. All of above
Which of the following is an essential file of a MS-DOS boot disk?
a. COMMAND.COM
b. START.COM
c. TREE.COM
d. VER.COM
Which one is true for unconditional disk formatting?
a. Destroys every byte of data on a disk by overwriting it with with blank spaces
b. Do not check/scan surface after format c. Transfer system files after format
d. All of above
Once text has been cut to the clipboard, you can .....that text into another
document a. Paste
b. Copy
c. Transfer
What is the function of radio button?
a. To select multiple option
b. To select single option
c. To select all option
d. All of above
The Banker's algorithm is used
a. to rectify deadlock
b. to detect deadlock c.
to prevent deadlock d.
to slove deadlock
The primary purpose of an operating system is:
a. To make the most efficient use of the computer
hardware b. To allow people to use the computer,
c. To keep systems programmers employed
d. To make computers easier to use
The primary purpose of an operating system is a ...
a. To make the most efficient use of computer
hardware b. To allow people to use the computer
c. To keep system programmer employed
d. To make computer easier to use
You can use print manage window
a. To check status of files in the print queue
b. To cancel the print job
c. To interrupt printing
d. All of the above
11 – d 12 – d 13 – a 14 – d 15 – d 16 – d 17 – d 18 – c 19 – c 20 – b
21 – a 22 – a 23 – a 24 – d 25 – a 26 – b 27 – a 28 – d 29 – b 30 – c
31 – a 32 – c 33 – d 34 – b 35 – b 36 – d 37 – a 38 – d 39 – a 40 – c
41 – b 42 – d 43 – c 44 – b 45 – a 46 – a 47 – a 48 – c 49 – c 50 - c
51 – c 52 – d 53 – a 54 – a 55 – a 56 – b 57 – c 58 – a 59 – a 60 – d
The entire hostname has a maximum

of a) 255 characters
b) 127 characters
c) 63 characters
d) 31 characters
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
A DNS client is
called a) DNS updater
b) DNS resolver
c) DNS handler
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
Servers handle requests for other domains
a) directly
b) by contacting remote DNS
server c) it is not possible
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
DNS database contains
a) name server records
b) hostname-to-address
records c) hostname aliases
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
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If a server has no clue about where to find the address for a hostname
then a) server asks to the root server
b) server asks to its adjcent
server c) request is not processed
View Answer Answer:a
Explanation:None.
Which one of the following allows client to update their DNS entry as their IP address
change? a) dynamic DNS
b) mail transfer agent
c) authoritative name
server d) none of the
mentioned View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
Wildcard domain names start with label
a) @
b) *
c) &
d) #
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
The right to use a domain name is delegated by domain name registers which are accredited by
a) internet architecture board
b) internet society
c) internet research task force
d) internet corporation for assigned names and
numbers View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
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The domain name system is maintained

by a) distributed database system
b) a single server
c) a single computer
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
10. Which one of the following is not true?
multiple hostnames may correspond to a single IP address
a single hostname may correspond to many IP addresses
a single hostname may correspond to a single IP address
none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
A piece of icon or image on a web page associated with another webpage is called
a) url
b) hyperlink
c) plugin
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
2. Dynamic web page
is same every time whenever it displays
generates on demand by a program or a request from browser
both (a) and (b)
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
3. What is a web browser?
a program that can display a web page
a program used to view html documents
it enables user to access the resources of internet
all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
4. Common gateway interface is used to
generate executable files from web content by web server
generate web pages
stream videos
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
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5. URL stands for

unique reference label
uniform reference label
uniform resource locator
unique resource
locator View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
6. A web cookie is a small piece of data
sent from a website and stored in user’s web browser while a user is browsing a website
sent from user and stored in the server while a user is browsing a website
sent from root server to all servers
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
Which one of the following is not used to generate dynamic web
pages? a) PHP
b) ASP.NET
c) JSP
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
An alternative of javascript on windows platform
is a) VBScript
b) ASP.NET
c) JSP
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
Computer Networks Questions & Answers – HTTP & FTP
Multiple object can be sent over a TCP connection between client and server
in a) persistent HTTP
b) nonpersistent HTTP
c) both (a) and (b)
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
HTTP is ________ protocol.
a) application layer
b) transport layer
c) network layer
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
In the network HTTP resources are located
by a) uniform resource identifier
unique resource locator
unique resource identifier
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
HTTP client requests by establishing a __________ connection to a particular port on the server.
a) user datagram protocol
b) transmission control protocol
c) broader gateway protocol
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
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5. In HTTP pipelining
multiple HTTP requests are sent on a single TCP connection without waiting for the corresponding responses
multiple HTTP requests can not be sent on a single TCP connection
multiple HTTP requests are sent in a queue on a single TCP connection
FTP server listens for connection on port

number a) 20
b) 21
c) 22
d) 23
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
In FTP protocol, client contacts server using ____ as the transport
protocol. a) transmission control protocol
b) user datagram protocol
c) datagram congestion control protocol
d) stream control transmission protocol
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
In which mode FTP, the client initiates both the control and data
connections. a) active mode
b) passive mode c)
both (a) and (b)
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
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The file transfer protocol is built
on a) data centric architecture
b) service oriented architecture
c) client server architecture d)
none of the mentioned View
Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
In file transfer protocol, data transfer can be done in
a) stream mode
b) block mode
c) compressed mode d)
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Ethernet
Ethernet frame consists

of a) MAC address
b) IP address
c) both (a) and (b)
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
What is stat frame delimeter (SFD) in ethernet frame?
a) 10101010
b) 10101011
c) 00000000
d) 11111111
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
MAC address is of
1) 24 bits b)
36 bits c) 42
bits d) 48 bits
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
4. What is autonegotiation?
a procedure by which two connected devices choose common transmission parameters
a security algorithm
a routing algorithm
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
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Ethernet in metropolitan area network (MAN) can be used

as a) pure ethernet
b) ethernet over SDH
c) ethernet over MPLS
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
A point-to-point protocol over ethernet is a network protocol
for a) encapsulating PPP frames inside ethernet frames
b) encapsulating ehternet framse inside PPP
frames c) for security of ethernet frames
d) for security of PPP
frames View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
High speed ethernet works
on a) coaxial cable
b) twisted pair cable
c) optical fiber
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
The maximum size of payload field in ethernet frame is
a) 1000 bytes
b) 1200 bytes
c) 1300 bytes
d) 1500 bytes
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
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What is interframe gap? a)

idle time between frames b)
idle time between frame bits c)
idle time between packets d)
none of the mentioned View
Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
An ethernet frame that is less than the IEEE 802.3 minimum length of 64 octets is
called a) short frame
b) run frame
c) mini frame
d) man frame
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Wireless LAN
1. What is the access point (AP) in wireless LAN?

device that allows wireless devices to connect to a wired network
wireless devices itself
both (a) and (b)
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
In wireless ad-hoc network
a) access point is not required
b) access point is must
c) nodes are not required
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
Which multiple access technique is used by IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless
LAN? a) CDMA
b) CSMA/CA
c) ALOHA
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
4. In wireless distribution system
multiple access point are inter-connected with each other
there is no access point
only one access point exists
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
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A wireless network interface controller can work in

a) infrastructure mode
b) ad-hoc mode c)
both (a) and (b)
View Answer Answer:c
Explanation:In infrastructure mode WNIC needs access point but in ad-hoc mode access point is not required.
In wireless network an extended service set is a set of
a) connected basic service sets
all stations
all access points
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
Mostly ________ is used in wireless
LAN. a) time division multiplexing
b) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
c) space division multiplexing
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
Which one of the following event is not possible in wireless
LAN. a) collision detection
b) Acknowledgement of data frames
c) multi-mode data transmission
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
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What is Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) ?

a) security algorithm for ethernet
b) security algorithm for wireless networks
c) security algorithm for usb
communication d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
What is WPA?
wi-fi protected access
wired protected access
wired process access
wi-fi process access
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
Computer Networks Questions & Answers – WiMAX
1. WiMAX stands for

wireless maximum communication
worldwide interoperability for microwave access
worldwide international standard for microwave access
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
2. WiMAX provides
simplex communication
half duplex communication
full duplex communication
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
3. WiMAX uses the
orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
time division multiplexing
space division multiplexing
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
Which one of the following modulation scheme is supported by WiMAX?
a) binary phase shift keying modulation
b) quadrature phase shift keying modulation
c) quadrature amplitude modulation
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
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WiMAX MAC layer provides an interface

between a) higher transport layers and physical layer
b) application layer and network layer
c) data link layer and network layer
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
For encryption, WiMAX supports
advanced encryption standard
triple data encryption standard
both (a) and (b)
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
WiMAX provides
a) VoIP services
b) IPTV services
c) both (a) and (b)
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
Devices that provide the connectivity to a WiMAX network are known as
a) subscriber stations
b) base stations
c) gateway
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
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WiMAX is mostly used

for a) local area network
b) metropolitan area network
c) personal area network
View Answer Answer:b
Explanation:None.
Which one of the following frequency is not used in WiMAX for

communication? a) 2.3 GHz
b) 2.4 GHz c)
2.5 GHz d)
3.5 GHz
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Bluetooth
This section of our 1000+ Computer Networks MCQs focuses on Bluetooth.

An interconnected collection of piconet is
called a) scatternet
b) micronet
c) mininet
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:Piconet is the basic unit of bluetooth system having a master node and upto seven active slave nodes.
In a piconet, there can be up to _____ parked nodes in the net.
a) 63
b) 127 c) 255
d) 511 View
Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
Bluetooth is the wireless technology for
a) local area network
personal area network
both (a) and (b)
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
4. Bluetooth uses
frequency hoping spread spectrum
orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
time division multiplexing
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
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Unauthorised access of information from a wireless device through a bluetooth connection is called
a) bluemaking
b) bluesnarfing
c) bluestring
View Answer Answer:b
Explanation:None.
What is A2DP (advanced audio distribution profile)?

a bluetooth profile for streaming audio
a bluetooth profile for streaming video
a bluetooth profile for security
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
In the piconet of bluetooth one master device
a) can not be slave
b) can be slave in another piconet
c) can be slave in the same
piconet d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
Bluetooth transceiver devices operate in ______
band. a) 2.4 GHz ISM
b) 2.5 GHz ISM
c) 2.6 GHz ISM
d) 2.7 GHz ISM
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
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9. The bluetooth supports
point-to-point connections
point-to-multipoint connection
both (a) and (b)
A scatternet can have

maximum a) 10 piconets
b) 20 piconets
c) 30 piconets
d) 40 piconets
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
Computer Networks Questions & Answers – ATM & Frame Relay
Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Access Networks
This section of our 1000+ Computer Networks MCQs focuses on Internet.

What is internet?
a) a single network
b) a vast collection of different networks
c) interconnection of local area networks
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
To join the internet, the computer has to be connected to
a a) internet architecture board
b) internet society
c) internet service provider
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
Internet access by transmitting digital data over the wires of a local telephone network is provided
by a) leased line
b) digital subscriber
line c) digital signal line
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
ISP exchanges internet traffic between their networks
by a) internet exchange point
b) subscriber end point
ISP end point
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
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Which one of the following protocol is not used in

internet? a) HTTP
b) DHCP
c) DNS
View Answer Answer:d
Explanation:None.
IPv6 addressed have a size of

32 bits
64 bits
128 bits
265 bits
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
Internet works on
a) packet switching
b) circuit switching
c) both (a) and (b)
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
Which one of the following is not an application layer protocol used in internet?
a) remote procedure call
b) internet relay chat
c) resource reservation protocol
d) none of the mentioned View
Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
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Which protocol assigns IP address to the client connected in the

internet? a) DHCP
b) IP c)
RPC
Explanation:None.
Which one of the following is not used in media access control?

ethernet
digital subscriber line
fiber distributed data interface
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
Explanation:None.
Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Cryptography
This section of our 1000+ Computer Networks MCQs focuses on Cryptography.

1. In cryptography, what is cipher?
algorithm for performing encryption and decryption
encrypted message
both (a) and (b)
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
In asymmetric key cryptography, the private key is kept by
a) sender
b) receiver
c) sender and receiver
d) all the connected devices to the network
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
Which one of the following algorithm is not used in asymmetric-key
cryptography? a) RSA algorithm
b) diffie-hellman algorithm
c) electronic code book algorithm
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
In cryptography, the order of the letters in a message is rearranged by
a) transpositional ciphers
b) substitution ciphers
c) both (a) and (b)
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
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What is data encryption standard (DES)?

a) block cipher
b) stream cipher
bit cipher
Explanation:None.
6. Cryptanalysis is used
to find some insecurity in a cryptographic scheme
to increase the speed
to encrypt the data
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
Which one of the following is a cryptographic protocol used to secure HTTP connection?
a) stream control transmission protocol (SCTP)
b) transport layer security (TSL)
c) explicit congestion notification
(ECN) d) resource reservation protocol
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
Voice privacy in GSM cellular telephone protocol is provided
by a) A5/2 cipher
b) b5/4 cipher
c) b5/6 cipher
d) b5/8 cipher
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None
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9. ElGamal encryption system is

symmetric key encryption algorithm
asymmetric key encryption algorithm
not an encryption algorithm
Cryptographic hash function takes an arbitrary block of data and

returns a) fixed size bit string
b) variable size bit
string c) both (a) and (b)
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Security In The Internet
This set of Computer Networks Questions & Answers focuses on “Network Attacks”.
The attackers a network of compromised devices known
as a) Internet
b) Botnet c)
Telnet d) D-
net View
Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
Which of the following is a form of DoS attack ?
a) Vulnerability attack
b) Bandwidth flooding
c) Connection flooding
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
The DoS attack is which the attacker establishes a large number of half-open or fully open TCP connections at the
target host
a) Vulnerability attack
b) Bandwidth flooding
c) Connection flooding
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
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4)The DoS attack is which the attacker sends deluge of packets to the targeted host
Vulnerability attack
Bandwidth flooding
Connection flooding
All of the
mentioned View
Answer Answer: b
Explanation: None.
5) Packet sniffers involve
Active receiver
Passive receiver
Both of the mentioned
None of the
Answer: b
Explanation: They donot inject packets into the channel.
Sniffers can be deployed
in a) Wired environment
b) WiFi
c) Ethernet LAN
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
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Firewalls are often configured to

block a) UDP traffic
b) TCP traffic
c) Both of the mentioned
d) None of the
Answer: a Explanation:
None.
Computer Networks Questions & Answers – DHCP
This section of our 1000+ Computer Networks MCQs focuses on DHCP Protocol.
DHCP (dynamic host configuration protocol) provides _____ to the
client. a) IP address
b) MAC address
c) url
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
DHCP is used for
a) IPv6
b) IPv4
c) both (a) and (b)
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
3. The DHCP server
maintains a database of available IP addresses
maintains the information about client configuration parameters
grants a IP address when receives a request from a client
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
IP assigned for a client by DHCP server
is a) for a limited period
b) for unlimited period
c) not time dependent d)
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
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DHCP uses UDP port ____ for sending data to the server.
a) 66
b) 67
c) 68
d) 69
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
The DHCP server can provide the _______ of the IP addresses.
a) dynamic allocation
b) automatic allocation
c) static allocation
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
DHCP client and servers on the same subnet communicate
via a) UDP broadcast
b) UDP unicast c)
TCP broadcast d)
TCP unicast
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
After obtaining the IP address, to prevent the IP conflict the client may
use a) internet relay chat
b) broader gateway protocol
c) address resolution
protocol d) none of the
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
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9. What is DHCP snooping?

techniques applied to ensure the security of an existing DHCP infrastructure
encryption of the DHCP server requests
algorithm for DHCP
If DHCP snooping is configured on a LAN switch, then clients having specific ______ can access the
network. a) MAC address
b) IP address
c) both (a) and (b)
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
Computer Networks Questions & Answers – SSH
This section of our 1000+ Computer Networks MCQs focuses on SSH Protocol.
Secure shell (SSH) network protocol is used
for a) secure data communication
b) remote command-line
login c) remote command
execution d) all of the
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
2. SSH can be used in only
unix-like operating systems
windows
both (a) and (b)
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
SSH uses _______ to authenticate the remote computer.
a) public-key cryptography
b) private-key cryptography
c) both (a) and (b)
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
Which standard TCP port is assigned for contacting SSH
servers? a) port 21
b) port 22 c)
port 23 d)
port 24 View
Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
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Which one of the following protocol can be used for login to a shell on a remote host except
SSH? a) telnet
b) rlogin
c) both (a) and (b)
View Answer Answer:c
Explanation:SSH is more secured then telnet and rlogin.

Which one of the following is a file transfer protocol using SSH?
SCP
SFTP
rsync
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
SSH-2 does not
contain a) transport layer
b) user authentication
layer c) physical layer
d) connection layer
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
Which one of the following feature was present in SSH protocol, version 1?
a) password changing
b) periodic replacement of session keys
c) support for public-key certificates d)
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
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SCP protocol is evolved from _____ over

SSH. a) RCP protocol
b) DHCP protocol
c) MGCP protocol
Explanation:None.
Which one of the following authentication method is used by

SSH? a) public-key
b) host based
c) password
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
Computer Networks Questions & Answers – SMTP
Computer Networks Questions & Answers – SMTP
This set of Computer Networks Questions & Answers focuses on “SMTP”.

When the mail server sends mail to other mail servers it becomes _____ ?
a) SMTP server
b) SMTP client
c) Peer
d) None of the
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
If you have to send multimedia data over SMTP it has to be encoded into
a) Binary
b) Signal
c) ASCII
d) None of the
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
3) Expansion of SMTP is
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
Simple Message Transfer Protocol
Simple Mail Transmission Protocol
Simple Message Transmission
Protocol View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
In SMTP, the command to write recievers mail adress is written with this
command a) SEND TO
b) RCPT TO
c) MAIL TO
d) None of the
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
The underlying Transport layer protocol used by SMTP
is a) TCP
b) UDP
c) Either a or b
d) None of the
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
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Choose the statement which is wrong incase of

SMTP a) It requires message to be in 7bit ASCII format
b) It is a pull protocol
c) It transfers files from one mail server to another mail server
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The sending mail server pushes the mail to receiving mail server hence it is push protocol.
Internet mail places each object in
Separate messages for each object
One message
Varies with number of objects
None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
Typically the TCP port used by SMTP is
a) 25
b) 35
c) 50
d) 15
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
9) A session may include
Zero or more SMTP transactions
Exactly one SMTP transactions
Always more than one SMTP transactions
Number of SMTP transactions cant be
determined View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
Example of user agents for e-
mail a) Microsoft Outlook
b) Apple
Mail c)
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
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When the sender and the receiver of an email are on different systems, we need only ______
. a) One MTA
b) Two UAs
c) Two UAs and one pair of MTAs
d) Two UAs and two pairs of
MTAs View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
User agent does not support this
Composing messages
Reading messages
Replying messages
All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
Computer Networks Questions & Answers – RPC
Computer Networks Questions & Answers – IPv4

This set of Computer Networks Questions & Answers focuses on “IPv4”.
Which of the following is not applicable for IP?
a) Error reporting
b) Handle addressing
conventions c) Datagram format
d) Packet handling
conventions View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Error reporting is handled by ICMP.
Which of the following field in IPv4 datagram is not related to fragmentation?
a) Flags
b) Offset
c) TOS
d) Identifier
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: TOS-type of service identifies the type of packets.
The TTL field has value 10. How many routers (max) can process this
datagram? a) 11
b) 5
c) 10
d) 1
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: TTL field is decremented by one each time the datagram is processed by a router.
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If the value in protocol field is 17, the transport layer protocol used is
____. a) TCP
b) UDP
c) Either of the
mentioned d) None of the
Answer: b
Explanation: For TCP it is 6.
The data field can carry which of the following?
TCP segemnt
UDP segment
ICMP messages
None of the
Answer: c
Explanation: Data field usually has tranaport layer segment, but it can also carry ICMP messages.
What should be the flag value to indicate the last
fragment? a) 0
b) 1
c) TTl value
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: flag=0 indicates that it is the last fragment.
Which of these is not applicable for IP
protocol? a) is connectionless
b) offer reliable service
c) offer unreliable service
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Ip offers unreliable service.
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Fragmentation has following demerits

a) complicates routers
b) open to DOS attack
c) overlapping of fragments.
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Fragmentation makes the implementation complex and also can create DOS attack.
Which field helps to check rearrangement of the fragments?
offset
flag
TTL
identifer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: offset field specifies where the fragment fits in the original datagram.
Computer Networks Questions & Answers – IPv6
This set of Computer Networks Questions & Answers focuses on “IPv6”.

The size of IP address in IPv6 is
a) 4bytes
b) 128bits c)
8bytes d)
100bits View
Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An IPv6 address is 128 bits long.
The header length of an IPv6 datagram is
_____. a) 10bytes
b) 25bytes c)
30bytes d)
40bytes View
Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: IPv6 datagram has fixed header length of 40bytes, which results is faster processing of the
datagram.
In the IPv6 header,the traffic class field is similar to which field in the IPv4
header? a) Fragmentation field
b) Fast-switching
c) ToS field
d) Option field
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: This field enables to have different types of IP datagram.
IPv6 doesnot use ______ type of address
a) Broadcast
b) Multicast
c) Anycast
d) None of the
Answer: a
Explanation: Broadcast has been eliminated in IPv6.
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These are the features present in IPv4 but not in

IPv6. a) Fragmentation
b) Header checksum
c) Options
View Answer Answer:
d
Explanation: All the features are only present in IPv4 and not IPv6.
The ____ field determines the lifetime of IPv6 datagram
Hop limit
TTL
Next header
None of the
Answer: a
Explanation: The Hop limit value is decremented by one by a router when the datagram is forwaded by
the router. When the value becomes zero the datagram is discarded.
7. Dual-stack approach refers to
Implementing Ipv4 with 2 stacks
Implementing Ipv6 with 2 stacks
Node has both IPv4 and IPv6 support
None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: dual-stack is one of the approach used to support IPv6 in already existing systems.
Suppose two IPv6 nodes want to interoperate using IPv6 datagrams but are connected to each other by
intervening IPv4 routers. The best solution here is
a) use dual-stack approach
b) Tunneling
c) No solution
d) Replace the system
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The IPv4 routers can form a tuunel.
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Teredo is an automatic tunneling technique. In each client the obfuscated IPv4 address is represented by
bits a) 96 to 127
b) 0 to 63 c)
80 to 95 d) 64
to 79 View
Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Bits 96 to 127 in the datagram represents obfuscated 1Pv4 address.
The _____ states that a foreign key must either match a primary key value in another relation or it
must be null.
(a) entity integrity rule
(b) referential integrity constraint
(c) action assertion
(d) composite attribute
(e) None of these
An applet __________
is an interpreted program that runs on the client
tracks the number of visitors to a Website
is a compiled program that usually runs on the client
collects data from visitors to a Website
None of these
A _____ sometimes called a boot sector virus, executes when a computer boots up because it resides in
the boot sector of a floppy disk or the master boot record of a hard disk.
(a) system virus
(b) Trojan horse virus
(c) file virus
(d) macro virus
(e) None of these
Which error detection method uses one's complement arithmetic?
(a) Simply parity check
(b) Checksum
(c) Two-dimensional parity check
(d) CRC
(e) None of these
A result of a computer virus can not lead to ___.
Disk Crash
Mother Board Crash
Corruption of program
Deletion of files
None of these
The network interface card of LAN is related to following layer of OSI Model-
(a) Transport
(b) Network
(c) Data Link
(d) Physical
(e) All of these
Which of the following does not describe a data warehouse?
Subject-oriented
Integrated
Time-variant
Updateable
None of these
8. Which of the following is true ?
Logical design is software-dependent
In a distributed database, database is stored in one physical location
Conceptual design translates the logical design into internal model
Logical design is software independent
None of these
9. A range check _____
ensures that only the correct data type is entered into a field
verifies that all required data is present
determines whether a number is within a specified limit
tests if the data in two or more associated fields is logical
None of these
The total set of interlinked hypertext documents worldwide is-
(a) HTTP
Browser
WWW
B2B
None of these
With the object-oriented (OO) approach, an object encapsulates, or_____.a programmer.
(a) carries out, the details of an object for
(b) hides, the details of an object from
(c) reveals, the details of an object to
(d) extends, the details of an object beyond
(e) None of these
Every computer connected to an intranet or extranet must have a distinct_____
firewall
proxy server
IP address
domain name
None of these
A table of bits in which each row represents the distinct values of a key?
(a) Join index
(b) Bitmap index
(c) B + Tree
(d) Hierarchical index
(e) None of these
The degree of detail that should be incorporated into a database depends on what?
(a) Data integrity
(b) The type of database
(c) The user's perspective
(d) The business practices and policies
(e) None of these
The ___.converts digital signals to analog signals for the purpose of transmitting data over telephone
lines.
(a) Modem
(b) Router
(c) Gateway
(d) Bridge
(e) All of these
Before a package can be used in a java program it must be___.
executed
referenced
imported
declared
None of these
Choose the correct way to indicate that a line in a C++ program is a comment line, that is, a line the
will not be executed as an instruction___.
(a) begin the line with a # sign
(b) begin the line with double slashes (/ /)
(c) begin and end the line with double hyphens (-_-)
(d) indent the line
(e) None of these
Programming language built into user programs such as Word and Excel are known as____
4GLs
macro languages
object-oriented languages
visual programming languages
None of these
Firewalls are used to protect against___.
(a) Unauthorized Attacks
(b) Virus Attacks
(c) Data Driven Attacks
(d) Fire Attacks
(e) All of these
This is a standard way for a Web server to pass a Web user's request to an application program
and to receive data back to forward to the user-
(a) Interrupt request
(b) Forward DNS lookup
(c) Data-Link layer
(d) File Transfer Protocol
(e) Common gateway interface
Three SQL, DDL, CREATE commands are__.
Schema, Base and Table
Base, Table and Schema
Key, Base and Table
Schema, Table and View
None of these
Data are ________ in client/server computing.
(a) never sent to the client machine
(b) sent in very large sections to save processing time
sent only upon the client's request
sent in complete copies for the client to filter and sort
sent from the client to the server for processing
Which of the following will not eliminates the ambiguities of a null value?
(a) Define the attribute as required
(b) Define subtypes
(c) Define each attribute as having an initial value that is recognized as blank
(d) Define supertypes
(e) None of these
The____directory is mandatory for every disk.
Root
Base
Sub
Case
None of these
This is a group of servers that share work and may be able to back each other up if one server fails.
(a) Channel bank
(b) Cluster
(c) Tiger team
(d) Serverless backup
(e) Logical unit
Answers -
1-a 14-b
2-c 15-a
3-e 16-c
4-b 17-b
5-b 18-c
6-e 19-a
7-d 20-e
8-a 21-d
9-c 22-c
10-c 23-d
11-b 24-a
12-c 25-b
13-a
Previous Question of Jahangirnagar University:
Department of Computer Science and Engineering

Jahangirnagar University
PMSCS Program
Admission Test Summer-2017
JU PMSCS 21.4.2017 3PM
MCQ-30(30*1) And written-20 (10*2)

Total 50 Mark Time 1Hr.
Written part:
Q-1.What is Unicode?
Ans: Unicode is an entirely new idea in setting up binary codes for text or script characters. Officially
called the Unicode Worldwide Character Standard, it is a system for "the interchange, processing, and
display of the written texts of the diverse languages of the modern world." It also supports many classical
and historical texts in a number of languages.
Currently, the Unicode standard contains 34,168 distinct coded characters derived from 24 supported
language scripts. These characters cover the principal written languages of the world.
Q-2.What’s wirless sensor network?

A wireless sensor network (WSN) is a wireless network consisting of spatially distributed autonomous
devices using sensors to monitor physical or environmental conditions. A WSN system incorporates a
gateway that provides wireless connectivity back to the wired world and distributed nodes
Q-3.IOT?
The Internet of things (IoT) is the inter-networking of physical devices, vehicles (also referred to as
"connected devices" and "smart devices"), buildings, and other items embedded with electronics, software,
sensors, actuators, and network connectivity which enable these objects to collect and exchange data.
Q-4.Data abstraction level?

Physical level: This is the lowest level of data abstraction. It describes how data is actually stored in
database. You can get the complex data structure details at this level. Logical level: This is the middle
level of 3-level data abstraction architecture.
Q-5.Summer season in BD describe 2 sentence?
Summer:
The first season in Bengali calendar is the summer. Baishakh and Jaistha consists summer.
Q-6.Standard deviation 1….10?
Let’s compute the standard deviation for the set of numbers from 1 to 10. That is, consider the following
set of values: {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}.
This set has a mean of 5.5, which we can determine either with the formula for arithmetic mean or the
balance concept, discussed above.
The deviations from the mean of each number and those deviations squared are:
Deviations and Squared Deviations

Value Deviation Squared Deviation
1 -4.5 20.25
2 -3.5 12.25
3 -2.5 6.25
4 -1.5 2.25
5 -0.5 0.25
6 0.5 0.25
7 1.5 2.25
8 2.5 6.25
9 3.5 12.25
10 4.5 20.25
Sum of Squares 82.50
After the squaring operation, we arrive at a figure for the sum of the squared deviations, which we can
divide by N to get the variance. Since N is 10, the variance is
In other words, 8.25 is the average of the squared deviations.
Finally, to get the standard deviation, we take the square root of the variance.
so the standard deviation is roughly 2.87. On the GMAT, we would not be expected to make that last
calculation on our noteboards; we might be asked to estimate it by noting that that the square root of 8.25
is a little less than the square root of 9, which is 3.
Q-7.C programm swap .

Q-8.One math

PMSCS Program
Admission Test Spring-2017
Written Part:
1.prove the equation using truth table A+A'B=A+B
L.H.S=A+A’B
=A+AB+A’B
=A+B(A+A’)
=A+B=R.H.S
A B A+B A’B A+A’B

0 0 0 0 0
0 1 1 1 1
1 0 1 0 1
1 1 1 0 1
2.convert (1372)8 to hexadecimal
The given number is 13728
3. 011 111 010 000

4. 0= 2
E. 11=F
1010=A
=2FA
3. what is the property of ACID?

Atomicity Consistency Isolation and Durability
4.What is MANNET
A mobile ad hoc network (MANET) is a continuously self-configuring, infrastructure-less network of mobile

devices connected wirelessly. Each device in a MANET is free to move independently in any direction, and will
therefore change its links to other devices frequently.
5.Write down the name of TCP/IP layer
5. Application Layer
6. Transport Layer
7. Internet Layer
8. Network Access Layer

6.Write down series of sin(x)
sin(x)=x−x3/3!+x5/5!−x7/7!.
7.what do u expect after complete PMSCS program.
TRY yrself
8.1213=6
1415=10
7314=32
6513=24
9.write difference between database scema and instanace
PMSCS Program
Admission Test Fall-2016
1. A card is drawn form a pack of 52 cards .The probability of getting a queen of club or a king of heart is:
a. 1/26 b. 1/52 c. 2/13 d. 1/13

6. Flash memory was developed taking the concept of :
a. EPROM b. EEPROM c. DRAM d. SRAM
7. DRAM refers to
a. Dynamic Random Access Memory b. Direct Random Access Memory
c. None d. Duel Random Access Memory
4. What type of device a Mouse is :
a. Output device b. Input device c. Posting device d. None
7. In C if a function does not explicity specify a return type.it is assumed to return an …….. by default.
a. char b. float c. Void d. integer
8. Datagram is related with ……………… service and virtual circuit is related to………………..service.
a. both are connectionless b. Connectionless and connection oriented.
c. connection oreiented and connectionless d. None
8. In C programming what will be a value of x?
Printf(“x=%d/n”,(number<0)?-
1;(number===0?)0;1); a. 1 b. -1 c. 0 d. None
8. Concurrent access to share data may result in data:
a. recovery b. inconsistency c. repositiory d. consistency
9. A constructor is called whwnever:
a. an object is used b. an object is declared c. a class is declared d. a class is used
10. The term MIPS refer to……….

a. millions input processor ses b. mega byte of instructions per second
c. multiple instruction per second d. millions of instructions per second
9. If the probability of sending successful data packetis 80% ,what will be the probability of succesfull delivery if
a packet is sent twice?
a. 64% b. 96% c. 100% d. 80%
10. Determine the derivative :d/de xex

a. exe2 b. ex c. x+ ex d. xex
13. An RGB image has 16 pixels. The storage requirement for the image will be
a. 16*24 bits b. 16*1 bits c. 16*8 bits d. None
10. if x=loge64 exits .what will be the value of base, y when the value of x is 6.
2 b. 8 c. 10 d. c
11. The product of two numbers is 120 and the sum of their squares is 289. The sums of the number is:
27 b. 150 c. 23 d. 20
12. The automatic execution of some SQL statements can be started automatically due to any change to a database
relation can be caused by
a. View b. None c. Assertion d. Trigger
13. Computers ability to use disk storage as memory is called

a. Cashe memory b. Associative memory c. Virtual memory d. CMOS memory
11. A girl introduced a boy as the son of the daughter the father of her uncle.the boy is girls….
a. Brother b. Uncle c. Son d. Nephew
12. 1 nibble = ……….. bits.

a. 2 b. 1 c. 4 d. 6
20. Logical design of database is called..

a. Database schema b. All of them c. Database Instance d. Database snapshot
12. The main purpose of a primary key in a database table is
A.updating b. deleting c. modifying d. searching
13. An information desk is intended …… operate …… 60 hours per week.
A.for,for b. to,for c. none d. with,for
13. Which of the following a valid declaration of an object of class Box in
Java? a. Box obj=new Box(); b. Box obj =new Box();
c. obj=new Box(); d. new=Box obj();
24. The time factor when determining the efficiency of algorithm is measured by
a. counting the kilobytes of algorithm b. counting microseconds
c. counting the number of key operations d. counting the number of statements
25. What will be the equation of the line that passe through the point (1, 2) and is parallel to 2x+3y=4?
a. 2x+3y=8 b. 3x+2y=4 c. 3x+2y=4 d. 2x+3y=0
14. Which provides the fastest access to large video files?
a. SCSI hard drives b. IDE hard drives c. EIDE hard drives d. Optical drives
15. Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves………….. transmission.
a. half duplex b. full duplex c. simplex d. automatic
15. Creating a new class using one or more existing classes is known as……..
a. inheritance b. overloading c. Encapsulation d. Polymorphism
E. Frames from one LAN can be transmitted to another LAN via the
device. a. modem b. repeater c. bridge d. router
F. Which number should be come next in this series: 10, 17, 26, 37, 7
a. 56 b. 46 c. 50 d. 52
Mcq part answer sheet:

1.a 11. 21.d
2.b 12.c 22.b
3.a 13. 23.b
4.b 14. 24.c
5.d 15.c 25.a
6.b 16.d 26.a
7. 17.b 27.c
8.b 18.a 28.a
9.b 19.c 29.c
10.d 20.a 30.c
Written part answer:
31. The Difference Between Passive & Active Attacks on a Computer?
Passive Attacks
A passive attack involves someone listening in on telecommunications exchanges or passively recording computer
activity. An example of the former is an attacker sniffing network traffic using a protocol analyzer or some other
packet capturing software. The attacker finds a way to plug into the network and begins capturing traffic for later
analysis. Other attackers rely on keyloggers, usually as a Trojan horse in a "free download," to record keystrokes
such as user IDs and passwords. The goal, regardless of the method, is just to listen and record the data passing
through. The passive attack itself is not harmful, per se, but the information gathered during the session could be
extremely damaging.
Active Attack
Active attacks on computers involve using information gathered during a passive attack, such as user IDs and
passwords, or an outright attack using technological “blunt instruments.” Such instruments include password
crackers, denial-of-service attacks, email phishing attacks, worms and other malware attacks. In an active attack, the
attacker is out to bring a website down, steal information or even destroy computing equipment. As network
administrators install defenses against existing attack tools, hackers develop more sophisticated tools and the game
of technology leapfrog continues.
32. A class contain 10 student with 6 men 4 women.
Find the number of way to select a 4 member comitee with 2 men and 2 women.
Ans: 2 men can be chosen from the 6 men in c(6,2) ways.and the 2 women can be chosen from the 4 women c(4,2)
ways.Thus by the product rule:
N=(6/2)(4/2)
=(6.5/2.1).(4.3/2.1)
=15(6)
=90
33.find the area of a circle
34.express the following data in normalized form -5,5,15,-1,20
35.Definition - What does Referential Integrity (RI) mean?
Referential integrity is a relational database concept, which states that table relationships must always be consistent.
In other words, any foreign key field must agree with the primary key that is referenced by the foreign key. Thus,
any primary key field changes must be applied to all foreign keys, or not at all. The same restriction also applies to
foreign keys in that any updates (but not necessarily deletions) must be propagated to the primary parent key.
36.let a and b the positive integers and suppose Q is defined recursively as flows Q(a,b)=0 if (a<b),Q(a,b)=Q(a-
b,b)+1 if b<=a
Find Q(12,5)
37.find the number n of distinct permutations that can be formed all the letter of this word.UNUSUAL
N=7!/3!
=840 There are 7 letter of which 3 are U and no other letter is repeated.
38.Difference between Call by Value and Call by Reference?
Difference between call by value and call by reference

call by value call by reference
In call by value, a copy of actual arguments is passed to In call by reference, the location (address) of actual formal
arguments of the called function and any change arguments is passed to formal arguments of the called made to the
formal arguments in the called function have function. This means by accessing the addresses of actual no effect on
the values of actual arguments in the calling arguments we can alter them within from the called
function. function.
In call by reference, alteration to actual arguments is
In call by value, actual arguments will remain safe, they possible within from called function; therefore the code
cannot be modified accidentally. must handle arguments carefully else you get unexpected
results.
39. write eqivalent code of the following Statement in while loop statement?
a=1;
while (a<=100) {
printf ("%d\n", a * a);
a++;
40. write a general experssion for the following series 151,152,153,161,162,163,171…..
Ans: 172,173

PMSCS Program
16. Which of the following is not a valid variable name?

A. int 31
B. float _rate
E. double num ber
F. int variable_count
18. Which is the best way of protecting data from loss?
A. Make regular backup of the data
B. Delete all files
C. Lock your computer
D. Change your password
19. A= {2, 3, 4}, what is the cardinality of set A?
A. 24
B. 3
C. 2
D. 9
20. Which of the following TCP/IP protocol is used for transferring email from one machine to another?
A. FTP
B. SNMP
C. SMTP
D. RTP
21. Which one makes data access from database faster?
A. Traversing
B. Searching
C. Indexing
D. Partitioning
6.
19. The datalink layer takes the packet from----------------------- and encapsulates them into frame transmission.
A. Network layer
B. Physical layer
C. Transport layer
D. Application layer
20. A constructor is classed whenever
A. An object is declared
B. An object is used
C. A class is declared
D. A class is used
21. Memory sizes are now computed in Mega, Giga, Tera, ----------------?
E. Develop an integrative sentence from the following word “Like subjects what do you”
Ans: What subjects do you like?
F. If xy = 2 and xy2 = 8, what is the value of x?

¾
½
1
4
G. Which distribution following the matrix?
E. 2 1
F. 4 2
22. 2 1
23. Laplacian
24. Isotropic
E. Position
25. This is an IP address 168.212.226.204 which class this address belong to?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
26. Creating a new class using one or more existing classes is known as-----------------?
A. Polymorphism
B. Encapsulation
C. Overloading
D. Inheritance
27. A switch is most often used to connect
A. Individual Computer
B. Different LANs
C. Cable segments of a LAN
28. If n and k are positive integers and 8n=2k , What is the value of n/k?
A. ¼
B. ½
C. 1/3
D. 4
29. The scream of a hierarchical database represented using a ------------ diagram.
Ans: tree-structure
30. A trigger is ……………….
A. A special type of table
B. A special type of store procedure, executed when certain events occurs
C. A special type of view
31. Synonym of PROBITY
A. Probability
B. Honesty
C. Peaceful
D. Carelessness
20. Determine the maximum value the slope of the curve y = sin(x)
y = sin(x)
26. The decimal number -34 is expressed in 2’s complement form as:
A 10000110
B 11011001
C 11011110
11011100
27. What will be the next two numbers of the series?
2 5 6 11 9 17 12 23,--,--
Ans : 15, 29
28. What is big O?
Ans: Big O notation is used in Computer Science to describe the performance or complexity of an
algorithm. Big O specifically describes the worst-case scenario, and can be used to describe the execution
time required or the space used (e.g. in memory or on disk) by an algorithm.
E. If a sweater sells for $48 after a 25% markdown, what was its original price?
Ans:
(100-25) = 75% = 75/100 = 0.75
0.75*x = 48
So, x = $64 dollars was the original price of the sweater.
F. Which of the following memory needs refreshing?
SRAM
DRAM
ROM
All of the avobe
G. The amount of time a program takes from when a request was submitted untill the first result is processed.
Waiting time
Response time
Turnaround time
Throughround time
H. What is the following is the subset of {b c d}?
{}
{n}
{1, 2, 3}
{a, b, c}
I. Digital modulation on bit string is sender--------------- layer of OSI
Ans: Physical
29. What percent of 50 is 0.15?

A. 0.3
B. 1.5
C. 0.075
D. None of the avobe
30. The QL WHERE clause:
A. Limits the column data that are returned.
B. Limits the row data are returned.
C. Both A and B are correct.
D. Neither A nor B are correct
Written Part
31. Distinguish between database schema and instance.
Database schema: The term "schema" refers to the organization of data as a blueprint of how the database
is constructed (divided into database tables in the case of relational databases). The formal definition of a
database schema is a set of formulas (sentences) called integrity constraints imposed on a database.
Database Instance: Introduction to the Oracle Database Instance. A database instance is a set of memory
structures that manage database files. A database is a set of physical files on disk created by the CREATE
DATABASE statement. The instance manages its associated data and serves the users of the database.
32. What is the main problem with MAC address based communication over the Internet instead of IP address?
Ans: There are [Media Access Control] MAC addresses available. The only organizational structure of
them is by manufacturer grouping, which is completely useless for routing purposes. Thus, you’d have to be
able to carry around all of the MAC addresses currently on the Internet at any one time. And maintain it.
Broadcast mechanisms are useless at that scale, so now your routing protocols have to carry trillions of
addresses, all of which are under continual flux.
IP addresses are assigned topologically (or should be, if politics didn’t get in the way… grrr…). By
assigning a host an address based on its topological attachment, we can only carry around an abstraction of
the topology in routing protocols.
33. What is SQL? Classify SQL statement in three categories.

SQL: SQL stands for Structured Query Language. SQL is used to communicate with a database.
According to ANSI (American National Standards Institute), it is the standard language for relational
database management systems.
Classify SQL statement in three categories:
Data Definition Language (DDL) statements are used to define the database structure or schema. Some
examples:
30. CREATE - to create objects in the

database o ALTER - alters the structure of the
database o DROP - delete objects from the
database
Data Manipulation Language (DML) statements are used for managing data within schema objects. Some
examples:
31. SELECT - retrieve data from the a

database o INSERT - insert data into a table
o UPDATE - updates existing data within a table
o DELETE - deletes all records from a table, the space for the records remain
Data Control Language (DCL) statements. Some examples:
32. GRANT - gives user's access privileges to database

33. REVOKE - withdraw access privileges given with the GRANT command
34. What is the minimum number of students in a class to be sure that three of them are born in the same month?
Ans: The solution uses a concept known as the Pigeonhole principle. The idea is that if you n items and m
possible containers. If n > m, then at least one container must have two items in it.
So for your question... there are twelve months, so in order to guarantee you have three students in a
"month" container. You need something greater than twelve - the minimum of that would be thirteen.
35. What is WiMAX? Write down the name of OSI model.
WiMAX: WiMAX is a wireless technology put forth by the WiMAX Forum that is one of the technologies
that is being used for 4G networks. It can be used in both point to point and the typical WAN type
configurations that are also used by 2G and 3G mobile network carriers. Its formal name is IEEE standard
802.16
Name of OSI model:
Physical Layer
Datalink Layer
Network Layer
Transport Layer
Session Layer
Presentation Layer
Application Layer
Define the Bandwidth and Latency.
Bandwidth: Bandwidth is also defined as the amount of data that can be transmitted in a fixed amount of
time. For digital devices, the bandwidth is usually expressed in bits per second(bps) or bytes per second.
For analog devices, the bandwidth is expressed in cycles per second, or Hertz (Hz).
Latency: Network latency is an expression of how much time it takes for a packet of data to get from one
designated point to another. In some environments (for example, AT&T), latency is measured by sending a
packet that is returned to the sender; the round-trip time is considered the latency.
Describe your expectation about PMSCS program of the CSE department in five
sentence. Ans: Try yourself
38. What is the output if you will compile and execute the following C code?
a. void main(){
int i=4,x;
x=++i + ++i + ++i;
printf("%d",x);
}
Output: 21
b. void main()
{
int a=10;
printf("%d %d %d",a,++a,a++);
}
Output: 12 12 10
39. What is the difference between WHILE and DO WHILE statements?

Ans: while won't execute even once if the condition returns a false; do-while will run at least once before
the condition switches. There are many differences between while loop and do-while loop. The difference
is that the do while loop executes at least once because it checks for the loop condition while exiting.
40. Suppose a=2, b=8. Find there arithmetic mean and geometric mean.
AM = (a+b)/2 = (2+8)/2 = 5
GM = √(ab) = √(2*8) = 4
Answers:
1.c 2.a 3.b 4.c 5.c 6 7.a 8.a 9.Pita 10. 11.b 12.c 13.b 14.d 15.a
16.c 17 18.b 19.b 20 21.c 22 23 24 25.a 26.b 27.a 28 29.c 30.b
DEPARTMENT OF COMPUTER SCIENCE & ENGINEERING

EMCS Program
Admission Test Spring 2015
Signature of the
Invigilator
-------------------
-
Time : 1 Hour
Marks: 50
Applicant’s Name: ………………………………………………….. Roll:

…………………………
GROUP- A: Put a tick mark ( ) on the correct answer for multiple choice questions (MCQ)
and Fill in the
gaps where applicable. Each question carries 1 (one) point.
This is an IP address 168.212.226.204. On which class
this address belongs to?
(a) Class A (b) Class B (c) Class C (d) Class D
A={4,2,3}. What is the cardinality of set A?
(a) 24 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 9
Which one of the following is more near is meaning to the word
“outskirt”?
(a) Dress (b) Boundary (c) Sky (d) None of the above
Who preside the interface between a process and the OS?
Kernel (b) System Calls (c) API (d) Processor
5. In TCP/IP network, the port address is
16-bit (b) 32-bit (c) 64-bit (d) 128-bit
A perfectionist is someone who feels _______ when he makes
even the most minuscule of errors.
(a) hostility (b) indifference (c) vexation (d) condemnation
What is the average of the five angles?
2. 45
3. 72
4. 60
5. 48
E. The perpendicular of the line 2x+3y=4 is
(a) 3x-2y=4 (b) 3x+2y=4 (c) 2x-3y=4 (d) 2x-3y=0
4. In case of fiber-optic cables, which transmission mode is used
for transmission data over long distance?
(a) Infrared (b) Radio (c) Single mode (d) Multimode
5. If you want your conditional to depend on two conditions both
being true, what is the proper notation to put between the two
Boolean statements?
(a) || (b) & (c) | (d) &&
6. The complexity of linear search algorithm is
4 O(n) (b) O(logn) (c) O(n2) (d) O(nlogn)
5. Which of the following data structure is not linear data structure?
(a) Arrays (b) Linked lists
(b) Both of the above (d) None of the above
6. The function of LLC sub-layer of data link layer are:
6. Framing and channel allocation
7. Channel allocation and error control
8. Error control and security
9. Framing and error control
7. What is the type of the image?
013
184 246 12
12 75 90
I
8. RGB (b) Gray Scale (c) Binary (d) NTSC
15. POST means
2 Post Operating System Test (b) Power On Self Test
2 Power On Self Timing (d) None
16. The intersection ( ) operation on two relations/tables returns
9. All records of both tables
10.Only common records
11.Records from the left table/relation only
(d) None
E. IPV6 increases the size of the IP address from
(a) 64 to 132 bits (b) 32 to 128 bits
(c) 64 to 128 bits (d) None
F. We should keep pace _________ time and technology.
(a) in (b) out (c) with (d) none
G. The ___Cache___________ memory is placed between RAM and CPU.
H. Write the equation of a circle with radius r and center is at (0,0).
X2+y2=r2
I. Volatile is most nearly opposite in meaning to
What percent of 50 is 0.15?

0.3 (b) 1.5 (c) 0.03 (d) None of these
Which of the following memories needs refresh?
(a) SRAM (b) DRAM (c) ROM (d) All of
above Set: ADA
a0
3a0
3a0
3a0
2a0
Page 2 of 2
VLANs can __________.
reduce network traffics
provide an extra measure of security
either (a) or (b)
both (a) and (b)
The primary purpose of an operation system is:
(a) To make computers easier to use
(b) To make the most efficient use if the computer hardware
(c) To keep systems programmers employed
(d) To allow people to use the computer
Which of the following is not usually part of the responsibilities
of a database administrator?
(a) Approving structural changes to the database
(b) Designing data entry screens
(c) Ensuring that an adequate back-up regime is in place
(d) Issuing accounts to users
Which of the following is generally a benefit of normalization?
(a) Performance is improved
(b) Insertion anomalies are avoided
(c) Selection anomalies are avoided
(d) Number of tables is reduced
Frames from one LAN can be transmitted to another LAN via the
device –
(a) Router (b) Repeater (c) Modem (d) Bridge
Which of the following is not based on all the observation?
(a) Mode (b) Arithmetic Mean
(c) Geometric Mean (d) Harmonic Mean
Which of the numbers does not belong in the following series?
2-3-6-7-8-14-15-30
(a) 3 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 15
GROUP-B: Answer the following questions shortly.

Each question carries 2 (two) points.
What will be the output if you will compile and execute to the
following C code:
#include<stdio.h>
#define x 5+2
void main()
{
int i; i=x*x*x;
printf(“%d”,
i);
}
Write down the main phases of SDLC.
Planning
Systems Analysis and Requirements

Systems Design
Development
Integration and Testing
Implementation
Operations and Maintenance
What are the major components of a web search engine?

The three most important components of search engine optimization are:
1. Text component: Text and META-data

2. Link component: Links and navigation
3. Popularity component: Link Popularity and Click-Through Popularity
Write in brief 2-tier and 3-tier software system.

2-Tier Architecture. A web browser makes a request from a web server, which then processes the request and returns the
desired response, in this case, web pages. This approach improves scalability and divides the user interface from the data
layers. However, it does not divide application layers so they can be utilized separately. This makes them difficult to
update and not specialized. The entire application must be updated because layers aren’t separated.
3-Tier Architecture is most commonly used to build web applications. In this model, the browser acts like a client,
middleware or an application server contains the business logic, and database servers handle data functions. This
approach separates business logic from display and data.So the 3 layers commonly known as:Presentation
Layer(PL/UI),Business Logic Layer(BLL) & Data Access Layer(DAL).
35. Evaluate 0 2ln(e x )dx
How many users are possible from the subnet mask of
255.255.255.224 of class C IP.
Write down the SQL DDL definition to create a bank account

relation with a primary key declaration.
create table account
(account_number char(10),
branch_name char(15),
balance integer,
primary key (account_number),
foreign key (branch_name) references branch )
List the Four important layers of the OSI model in order.
Physical (Layer 1)
Data Link (Layer 2)
Network (Layer 3)
Transport (Layer 4)
Two sides of a triangular field are of the same length 13ft. Third
side is 10’ in length. Find the area of the field in square feet?
A=65 squre feet
If the letter in the word ‘TRIANGLE’ are rearranged at random,
find the probability that the first letter is an A.
Solution:
= 1 · 7 · 6 · 5 · 4 ·3 · 2 ·1 = 1
8·7·6·5·4·3·2·1 8

PMSCS Program
Admission Test Summer-2014
Multiple Choice Questions(MCQ) are evaluated by?
A.OCR
B. OMR
2. MICR
3. PLOTTER
Which part of the computer performs logical operations?
A. ROM
B. Control Unit
C. ALU
D. RAM
Which of the following methods is involved in data transmission between keyboards and CPU?
Simplex
Duplex
Half Duplex
B. None of them
Database is a---?
Collection of files
B. Collection of data
C. Collection of interrelated data
D. all of them
An entity is a/an--
A.Collection of items in an application
a. Inanimate object in an application
a. District real world item in an application
a. Data structure
A distribute database has which of the following advantage over a centralized database?
1. Software cost
2. Software complexity
3. Slow response
4. Modular growth
Which of the following describes E-commerce?
1. Buying products from each other
2. Buying services from each other
A. Selling services from each other
B. All of above
Rearrange the following letters to make a word and choose the category in which it fits MENMYSINGH.
A.City
B. fruit
C. Bird
D. vegetable
9. The speed of supercomputers genereally measured in….
Ans: GHZ
10. C Language is originally developed by?
a. Babbage b. Denis Ritche
c. Neumann d. Ada
11. Expand the term http..

Ans: Hypertext Transfer Protocol.
What wil be the next two numbers in the following series.

4,10,5,12,5,14, ……,……..(7,16)
If a<b then Q(a,b)=0 otherwise Q(a,b)=Q(a-b,b)+1 Find Q(12,5).

Ans:
HTML is simple and easy. Why is it not used more often in programming?
1. Its monelary expense outweighs its benefits.
2. It cannot handle the high volume and complexity of business transactions
3. Inherent deficiencless in the language cause
4. all of the above
XML makes it easier for.
A.Human to read web sites
B. Machine to read web sites
C. Both of the above
D. Neither of the above
Which One of the following are methods or means of safeguarding computer systems?
a. Physical traits of users b. Worms

c. password d. a and c
17. Which one is more faster on the basis of data access retrival time?
a. Flash memory b. Cache memory
c. blue ray device d. hard disk
18. What type of network topology is usually used?

a. Bus topology b. Star topology
c. ring topology d. hard disk
What output will you get from the following program?

Void main()
{
float t;
t=4/5+9%4;
print(%21,1)
}
a. 1.80 b. 1.00 c. 0.00 d. 3.05
20. Semantric error occurs due to--?

a. Incorrect syntax b. incorrect logic
c. wrong input d. none of them
Which of the following is used to answer a question about a database?

a. query b. table c. report d. form
The functions of a DNS server to convert ------ name to ---- --address?
a. Web address and DNS b. Email address and DNS
c. MAC address and IP d. DNS and IP
23. Active HUB is under -----layer but passive HUB is under -----layer OSI model?
Data link and network b. Physical and data link
c. physical and zero d. network and transport
Which one of the following is not a keyboard in C?

a. White b. name c. default d. sizeof
Metadata means?
a. Data that describes other data b. unused data
c. data used as metaphor d. frequently accessed data
A={2,3,4} What is the cardinally of set A?

a. 2 b. 3 c. 8 d. 24
Who introduced the stored program concept?

a. Dr.John Von Nermann b. Charles babbage
c. Blaise pascal d. Herman Hotlenth
Which of the following cables is widely used in LAN?

a. Twisted pair b. Co-axial
c. Fiber optic d. None
29. which of the following does the interface between a process and the operating system?
a. Procedure call b. system call
c. function optic d. None
Which of the following is not an application software?
a. Oracle b. BIOS c. Adobe d. Excel
GROUP B:
31.Short Note:Interpreter
In computer science, an interpreter is a computer program that directly executes, i.e. performs, instructions
written in a programming or scripting language, without previously compiling them into a machine
language program.
Compiler:
A compiler is a special program that processes statements written in a particular programming language
and turns them into machine language or "code" that a computer's processor uses. Typically, a
programmer writes language statements in a language such as Pascal or C one line at a time using an
editor. The file that is created contains what are called the source statements. The programmer then runs
the appropriate language compiler, specifying the name of the file that contains the source statements.
32.what are the function of operating system?
An operating system has three main functions: (1) manage the computer's resources, such as the central
processing unit, memory, disk drives, and printers, (2) establish a user interface, and (3) execute and
provide services for applications software.
33.Write down the basic structure of SQL.
Basic structure of an SQL expression consists of select, from and where clauses.
• select clause lists attributes to be copied - corresponds to relational algebra project.

• from clause corresponds to Cartesian product - lists relations to be used.
• where clause corresponds to selection predicate in relational algebra.
34.Find the number m of the comitees of 5 with a given chairperson can be selected from 12 people
35.prove the equation A+A'B=A+B

L.H.S=A+A’B
=A+AB+A’B [A=A+AB]
=A+B(A+A’) [A=A+A’]
=A+B=R.H.S proved
36.rewrite the following C program Using do-while loop.
#include<stdio.h>
Main(){
Int count;
Count=0;
While(count<100){
Count++;
Printf(“hello world?\n”)
}
}
Ans:Using do-while:
#include<stdio.h>
Main(){
Int count=0;
Do{
Printf(“hello world?\n”)
Count++;
}
While(count<100)
}
37.what you will see if you run the following codes.
#include<stdio.h>
Main(){
Int first =15,second=10,sum;
Printf(“enter two integer:”);
Scanf(“%d %d,&first,&second”);
Printf(“The two number are : “%d %d\n”,first,second);

Sum=first+second;
Printf(“Their sum is: %d\n”,sum);
}
Output:25
38.Evaluate sinxcos2xdx
39.if y=ex logx find dy/dx at x=1
40.Draw a flowchart to find out the smallest number from three integers
1.d 6. 11. 16.b 21. Polish 26 31. 36.118&38 41. 46. A media
c notation, also . access control
known as address (MAC
prefix address) of a
notation, is a computer is a
symbolic unique
logic invented identifier
by Polish assigned to
mathematicia network
n Jan interfaces for
Lukasiewicz communication
in the 1920's. s at the data link
When using layer of a
Polish network
notation, the segment. MAC
instruction addresses are
(operation) used as a
precedes the network
data address for
(operands). In most IEEE 802
Polish network
notation, the technologies,
order (and including
only the Ethernet and
order) of Wi-Fi.
operations
and operands
determines
the result,
making
parentheses
unnecessary.
2.b 7.5 12. 17.c 22. 27 32.4 37.b 42. 47.b
c . 9
3.c 8.2 13. 18. 23. 28 33. 38. 43. 48.b
0 c .
4.a 9.c 14. 19. 24. 29 34.c 39. Light 44. 49. small
Founders: . Fidelity or Li-Fi electric
Mark is a Visible Light magnetic
Zuckerberg Communication
, Dustin s (VLC) system
Moskovitz, running wireless
communications
Andrew
travelling at very
McCollum, high speeds. Li-
Eduardo Fi uses common
Saverin , household LED
Chris (light emitting
Hughes diodes)
lightbulbs to
enable data
transfer,
boasting speeds
of up to 224
gigabits per
second
5. 10.a 15. 20. 25. 30 35.a 40. 45. 50.b
megabits c . d
per
second,
or Mbps
Compute
r -
Memory
Units
PMSCS Program
Physical transmission medium lies in which layer of OSI reference model?
A.Physical
B. Network
2. session
3. None
Which technic is Preferable for huge data transfer between I/O and memory?
A. Memory Mapped I/O
B. Islolated I/O
C. Interrupt I/O
D.DMA
Arirthmatic and geometric mean of X and Y will be the same if
X=Y
X=√Y
Y=√X
B. X =Y/2
If the eccentricity of a circle eclipse and parabola are e1,e2,e3 then which one is true?
e1<e2< e3
B. e1> e2> e3
C. e2>e3>e1
D.e1>e3>e2
Determine the missing terms of the triangular matrix.

127 9 18 6
5 -2 -9 12
7 -21
?28
?-28
6. Mr. karim earns X taka in 3 months and expends the same amount in 4 months .How much he saves in a year?
a. He has no savings
b. 3x taka
c. x taka
d. 4x taka
7. Fill in the blank:
Take ---off------ What I say.
a. off
b. up
c. on
d. Down
8. Differentiation of log (ex ) ……..

Ans: e^x
9. Elaboration of POST is……..
Ans: Power-On Self-Test
10. What will be mass of an object traveling with the speed of light?
Ans: To be massless is to travel at the speed of light; to travel slower than the speed of light is to have mass.
11. Expand the term http..
Ans: Hypertext Transfer Protocol.
12. An optical drive uses the ……. To read data.

a. Megnatize particle b. Electric particle
c. Reflected light d. Refracted light
If a<b then Q(a,b)=0 otherwise Q(a,b)=Q(a-b,b)+1 Find Q(12,5).

Ans:
Find the next two element of the following series: 0,1,2,3,5………
Ans: 8
15. Write the full form of WIMAX.
Ans: Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access.
In the fig shown, if CP=BP and x= 120° then y=?

a. 30° b. 45° c. 60° d. 90°
3 x +3x +3x =?
a. 9x b. 3x +1 c. 93x d. 33x
If p and q are prime numbers, how many divisors does the product p3 q6 have?
a. 9 b. 28 c. 18 d. 12
What social networking website started out as a band promotion service?
a. facebook b. MySpace C. Linkedin d. Twitter
20. which of the following terms does not describe a type of flash drive ?
a. hard drive b. pen drive c. jump drive d. thumb drive
What type of RAM is must often used for syetem memory?

a. SRAM b. PRAM c. SDRAM d. VRAM
Where the mass of an object is zero?
Ans: An object with zero mass must move at the speed of light or it wouldn't exist at all.
23. Why a bullet is stopped after traversing a distance?
Ans: The Stopping Power of Hot Nuclear Matter

24. Who is titled as “IRON LADY” of Britain?
Ans: Margaret Thatcher
25. How the measurement of a monitor/TV is performed?
Ans: Measure a TV diagonally, from corner to corner, to get a measurement that manufacturers use. You might
think that a 32 inch (81 cm) TV is 32 inches wide, from bottom left to bottom right. Not so. A 32 inch TV is 32
inches (81 cm) from bottom left to top right, or bottom right to top left.
Which one is a volatile memory?
a. RAM b. ROM c. Hard Disk d. CD
Which one of the following words in synonym of ‘’inhibit”

a. Protect b. Hinder c. Improvise d. Concur
If the side of a square is incrased by a 20% then area incrased by……
a. 40% b. 44% c. 80% d. None
If the perimeter of the outer circle is 2ΠR and inner circle is 2ΠR where R>r. Consider the center of two circles
is at the same point .What is the area of the intermediate region?
a. Π(R2 - r2) b. c. 2Πr(R+r) d. Π(R2 + r2)
2Πr(2R+r)
30. What is IT?

a. store, retrieve, represent and manipulate data b. store, retrieve and manipulate data
c. store, retrieve, transmit and manipulate data d. None
Which of the following is not an application software?
a. Oracle b. BIOS c. Adobe d. Excel
IPv4 address is represented in dotted decimal notion using…..
a. 132 bit b. 64 bit c. 32 bit d. None
Taking each of the digit 4,3,0,1 only once, how many numbers of four digit can be formed?
a. 18 b. 12 c. 48 d. 24
The average of a, b and c is 6; a-b=4 and ab=21. What is value of c?
a. 2 b. 7 c. 8 d. None
Hub falls in…physical layer and bridge falls in…Data link……layer.

MPEG is compressed form of……..file.
a. Audio b. Video c. Text file d. A and B 37. Fill
up the “?” cell.
Ans: 41,66,109
38. Flops used to measure……….?

a. storage capacity b. processor speed c. data transfer rate d. bandwidth 39. The
arithmetic mean of 3 ,6, 10, m and n is 9 then what is average of m+4 and n-2?
a. 9 b. 13 c. 14 d. 18
40. He is blind …………the system fault.
a. of b. to c. in d. from
MCQ Part Answer:

1.a 21.a 31.b
2.a 12.c *** 32.c
3.a *** *** 33.**
4.a 34.**
5.28,- **** 35.**
28
6.c 16.c 26.a 36.b
7.** 17.d 27.**
18.** 28.** 38.a
19.a 29.** 39.**
20.a 30.** 40.a
Written part answer:

Each pixel of grayscale image is represented by………bits and that of RGB case is …..bits.
Ans: 8,8

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PMIT Admission Test

English (**synonyms, **antonyms, ***Right form of verb ,

4) Arithmetic and logical unit

• SRAM (Static RAM)

• DRAM (Dynamic RAM)

• User programmable ROM

• UV-EPROM (Ultraviolet-Erasable PROM): This is a type of ROM where data can be

Computer architecture supports following number systems.

• Binary number system

BINARY NUMBER SYSTEM

OCTAL NUMBER SYSTEM

DECIMAL NUMBER SYSTEM

HEXADECIMAL NUMBER SYSTEM

Number system Base(Radix) Used digits Example

Decimal Number System to Other Base

Decimal to Binary Conversion Result

Decimal to Octal Conversion Result

Binary: 11100101 = 11 100 101

Then, look up each group in a table:

Binary = 011 100 101

Binary: 11100101 = 1110 0101

Then, look up each group in a table:

Binary = 1110 0101

(from the previous example)

Binary = 011 100 101 = 011100101 binary

Then, look up the groups in a table to convert to hexadecimal digits.

Binary: 0000 0001 0010 0011 0100 0101 0110 0111

Binary: 1000 1001 1010 1011 1100 1101 1110 1111

Binary = 1110 0101

345 octal = (3 * 82) + (4 * 81) + (5 * 80) = (3 * 64) + (4 * 8) + (5 * 1) = 229 decimal

Converting octal to decimal can be done with repeated division.

1. Start the decimal result at 0.

Octal Digits Operation Decimal Result Operation Decimal Result

Converting from hexadecimal to binary is as easy as converting from binary to hexadecimal.

2's complement = 1's complement + 1

Example of 2's Complement is as follows.

00011010 + 00001100 = 00100110 1 1 Carries

00010011 + 00111110 = 01010001 1 1 1 1 1 carries

Rules of Binary Multiplication

00101001 × 00000110 = 11110110 0 0 1 0 1 0 0 1 = 41(base 10)

Binary division is the repeated process of subtraction, just as in decimal division.

00101010 ÷ 00000110 = 1 1 1 = 7(base 10)

10000111 ÷ 00000101 = 1 1 0 1 1 = 27(base 10)

1) Logical product operation (AND)

2) Logical sum operation (OR)

3) Negation operation (NOT)

4) Exclusive logical sum (Exclusive OR) operation (XOR or EOR)

A computer program is a list of instructions that we write using a programming language

Algorithm are the systematic ordered logical approach which is a well-defined,

1. Single line comments start with //

4. Statements are delimited by semicolon.

< variable > = < expression >

if< condition >then< statement1 >else< statement2 >

17. switch case (C or C++)

18. while loop

while< condition >do {

19. do-while loop

20. for loop

for variable = value1 to value2 {

21. input instruction

22. Output instruction

Algorithm< name > (< parameter list >)

Flowcharts pictorially depict a process. They are easy to understand

Ju Pmscs & Pmit Suggestion

Ju Pmscs & Pmit Suggestion

English (synonyms, antonyms, ***Right form of verb ,