PHYSICS

Units and Measurements Sankalp Bharat

1. The errors in the measurement which arise (c) [M 2 ] [L−2 ][T −1 ]

due to unpredictable fluctuations in (d) [M 2 ] [L−1 ][T 0 ]
temperature and voltage supply are: (2023)
(a) Random errors 7. A screw gauge gives the following readings
(b) Instrumental errors when used to measure the diameter of a
(c) Personal errors wire (2021)
(d) Least count errors Main scale reading : 0 mm
Circular scale reading : 52 divisions
2. A metal wire has mass (0.4 ± 0.002) g, Given that 1 mm on main scale corresponds
radius (0.3 ± 0.001) mm and length (5 ± to 100 divisions on the circular scale. The
0.02) cm. The maximum possible diameter of the wire from the above data is:
percentage error in the measurement of (a) 0.026 cm
density will nearly be : (2023) (b) 0.26 cm
(a) 1.4% (c) 0.052 cm
(b) 1.2% (d) 0.52 cm
(c) 1.3%

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
(d) 1.6% 8. If force [F], acceleration [A] and time [T] are
chosen as the fundamental physical
3. The area of a rectangular field (in 𝑚2 ) of quantities. Find the dimensions of energy.
length 55.3 𝑚 and breadth 25 𝑚 in after (2021)
rounding off the value for correct significant (a) [F][A][T 2]

digit is: (2022) (b) [F][A][T −1 ]

(a) 1.38 × 101
(c) [F][A−1 ][T ]
(b) 1382 (d) [F][A][T ]
(c) 1382.5
(d) 14 × 102 9. A screw gauge has least count of 0.01 mm
and there are 50 divisions in its circular
4. The dimensions [𝑀𝐿𝑇 −2 𝐴−2 ] belong to the: scale. The pitch of the screw gauge is:
(2022) (2020)
(a) magnetic flux (a) 0.25 mm
(b) sell inductance (b) 0.5 mm
(c) magnetic permeability (c) 1.0 mm
(d) electric permittivity (d) 0.01 mm

5. Plane angle and solid angle have (2022) 10. Taking into account of the significant
(a) Units but no dimensions figures, what is the value of 9.99 m – 0.0099
(b) Dimensions but no units m? (2020)
(c) No units and no dimensions (a) 9.98 m
(d) Both units and dimensions (b) 9.980 m
(c) 9.9 m
6. If E and G respectively denote energy and (d) 9.9801 m
gravitational constant, then E/G has the
dimensions of (2021) 11. Dimensions of stress are : (2020)
(a) [M][L ][T ]
−1 −1
(a) [ML2 T −2 ]
(b) [M][L0 ][T 0 ] (b) [ML0 T −2 ]
1
 (c) [ML−1 T −2 ] (2017)
(d) [MLT −2 ] e2
1/2
(a) c 2 [G 4πε ]
0
1/2
12. The intervals measured by a clock given the (b)
1
[
e2
]
2
c G4πε0
following readings:
1 e2
1.25 s, 1.24 s, 1.27 s, 1.21 s and 1.28 s. (c) c 2 G G4πε0
What is the percentage relative error is the 1 e2
1/2
observations? (2020 Covid Re-NEET) (d) c2
[G 4πε0
]
(a) 4%
(b) 16% 17. A student performs an experiment of
(c) 1.6% measuring the thickness of a slab with a
(d) 2% vernier caliper whose 50 divisions of the
main scale. He noted that zero of the vernier
13. The angle of 1’ (minute of arc) in radian is scale is between 7.00 cm and 7.05 cm mark
nearly equal to (2020 Covid Re-NEET) of the main scale and 23rd division of the
(a) 4.85 × 10 rad
−4
vernier scale exactly coincides with the
(b) 4.80 × 10−6 rad main scale. The measured value of the
(c) 1.75 × 10−2 rad thickness of the given slab using the caliper
(d) 2.91 × 10−4 rad will be: (2017)
(a) 7.73 cm
14. In an experiment, the percentage of error (b) 7.23 cm

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
occurred in the measurement of physical (c) 7.023 cm
quantities A, B, C and D are 1%, 2%, 3% (d) 7.073 cm
and 4% respectively. Then the maximum
percentage of error in the measurement of 18. Planck’s constant (h), speed of light in
X, (2019) vacuum (c) and Newton’s gravitational
1
A2 B 2 constant (G) are three fundamental
Where X = 1 will be constants. Which of the following
C3 D3
3 combinations of these has the dimension of
(a) (10) %
length? (2016 - II)
(b) 16 %
hc
(c) −10 % (a) √ G
(d) 10 %
Gc
(b) √h3/2
15. A student measured the diameter of a small hG
steel ball using a screw gauge of least count (c) √c3/2
0.001 cm. The main scale reading is 5 mm hG
and zero of circular scale division coincides (d) √c5/2
with 25 divisions above the reference level.
If screw gauge has a zero error of –0.004 cm, 19. If energy (E), velocity (V) and time (T) are
the correct diameter of the ball is (2018) chosen as the fundamental quantities, the
(a) 0.053 cm dimensional formula of surface tension will
(b) 0.525 cm be: (2015)
(c) 0.521 cm (a) [EV T ]
−1 −2

(d) 0.529 cm (b) [EV −2 T−2 ]

(c) [E −2 V−1 T −3 ]
16. A physical quantity of the dimensions of (d) [EV −2 T−1 ]
length that can be formed out of c, G and
e2
is [c is velocity of light, G is universal 20. If dimension of critical velocity of liquid
4πε0
flowing through a tube are expressed as νc
constant of gravitation and e is charge]:
2
 ∝[ηxρyrz ] where η, ρ and r are the (d) [F V −1 T]
coefficient of viscosity of liquid, density of
liquid and radius of the tube respectively, 22. In an experiment four quantities a, b, c and
then the values of x, y and z are given by: d are measured with percentage error 1%,
(2015 - Re) 2%, 3% and 4% respectively. Quantity P is
(a) 1,1,1 calculated as follows P =
a3 b2
.% error in P is:
cd
(b) 1, –1, –1
(2013)
(c) –1, –1, 1
(a) 4%
(d) –1, –1, –1
(b) 14%
(c) 10%
21. If Force (F), Velocity (V) and Time (T) are
(d) 7%
taken as fundamental units, then the
dimensions of mass are: (2014)
(a) [F V T ]
−1

(b) [F V T −2 ]
(c) [F V −1 T −1 ]

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ

3
 Answer Key

S1. Ans. (a)

S12. Ans. (c)
S2. Ans. (d)
S13. Ans. (d)
S3. Ans. (d)
S14. Ans. (b)
S4. Ans. (c)
S15. Ans. (d)
S5. Ans. (a)
S16. Ans. (d)
S6. Ans. (d)
S17. Ans. (c)
S7. Ans. (c)
S18. Ans. (c)
S8. Ans. (a)
S19. Ans. (b)
S9. Ans. (b)
S20. Ans. (b)
S10. Ans. (a)
S21. Ans. (d)
S11. Ans. (c)

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
S22. Ans. (b)

4
 Soluiton

S1. Ans. (a) So,

E [E]
= [G] =
ML2 T−2
= [M 2 L−1 T 0 ]
As the factors controlling temperature and G M−1 L3 T−2
voltage supply are beyond prediction and
control so the error occurred due to S7. Ans. (c)
Pitch
unpredictable fluctuations of temperature Hint: L.C. = CSD
and voltage would be random errors. 1mm
= 100 = 0.01 m = 0.001 cm
S2. Ans. (d) Radius = M.S. + n(L.C.)
𝑚 = 𝜌𝜋𝑟 2 𝑙 = 0 + 52 (0.001)
𝑚 = 0.052 cm
𝜌= 2
𝜋𝑟 𝑙
Δ𝜌 Δ𝑚 2Δ𝑟 Δ𝑙 S8. Ans. (a)
= + + Hint: E ∝ F a Ab T c
𝜌 𝑚 𝑟 𝑙
Δ𝜌 0.002 2 × 0.001 [M1 L2 T−2 ] ∝ [M1 L−2 ]a [LT −2 ]b [T c ]
× 100 = × 100 + × 100 a=1
𝜌 0.4 0.3
0.02 a+b=2⇒b=1
+ × 100 −2a − 2b + c = −2
5
0.2 0.2 2 ⇒c=2
= + + a=1b=1c=2
0.4 0.3 5
= 0.5 + 0.67 + 0.4 E ∝ [F] [A] [T +2 ]
= 1.57

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
= 1.6% S9. Ans. (b)
Hint: Least count
S3. Ans. (d) =
Pitch
Number of divisions on circular scale
Given, that, length (𝑙) = 55.3 𝑚 Pitch
Breadth (𝑏) = 25 𝑚 ⇒ 0.01 mm = 50
The area of rectangular field is, 𝐴 = ⇒ pitch = 0.5 mm
𝑙 × 𝑏 = 55.3 × 25
= 1382.5 𝑚2 = 1.3825 × 103 𝑚2 = 1.4 × 103 = S10. Ans. (a)
14 × 102 . Hint:
In subtraction the number of decimal
S4. Ans. (d) places in the result should be equal to
Dimensions of magnetic flux the number of decimal places of that
= [𝑀𝐿2 𝑇 −2 𝐴−1 ] term in the operation which contain
Dimensions of self-inductance lesser number of decimal places.
= [𝑀𝐿2 𝑇 −2 𝐴−2 ]
Dimensions of magnetic permeability S11. Ans. (c)
= [𝑀𝐿𝑇 −2 𝐴−2 ] Hint:
Force
Dimensions of electrical permittivity Stress = Area
= [𝑀−1 𝐿−3 𝑇 4 𝐴2 ] M1 L1 T−2
=
L2
So, the correct option is (c)
Stress = M1 L−1 T −2
S5. Ans. (a) S12. Ans. (c)
Plane angle and solid angle have Hint: Mean of given observations
supplementary units. Radian (𝑟𝑎𝑑) is the 1.25 + 1.24 + 1.27 + 1.21 + 1.28
unit ot plane angle and steradian (𝑠𝑟) is = = 1.25 sec
5
the unit of solid angle Plane angle and Mean of errors
solid angle are dimensionless quantities. 0+0.01+0.02+0.04+0.03
=
5
0.1
S6. Ans. (d) = 5
Hint: E = Energy = [ML2 T −2 ] % error =
0.1×100
= 1.6%
G = Gravitational constant 5×1.25
= [M −1 L3 T −2 ]
S13. Ans. (d)
5
 1 0 1 π Hint: ℓ ∝ hx G y c z
Hint: 1 minute of arc= 1′ = (60) = 60 × 180
M 0 L1 T 0 = (ML2 T −1 )x (M −1 L3 T −2 )y (LT −1 )z
radian M x−y L2x+3y+z T −x−2y−z
= 2.91 × 10−4 radian. Equating:
x−y=0
S14. Ans. (b) 2x + 3y + z = 1 }
1
A2 B 2 −x − 2y − z = 0
Hint: X = 1 3 1 1 3
C3
D
⇒ x = ;y = ;z = −
ΔX 2 2 2
% error, X × 100 hG
ΔA 1 ΔB 1 ΔC ⇒ℓ∝√ 3
= 2 A × 100 + 2 B × 100 + 3 C
× 100 + c2
ΔD
3 D × 100 S19. Ans. (b)
= 2% + 1% + 1% + 12% Hint: S.T [E]a [V]b [T]c
= 16% ∝ [ML−2 T −2 ]a [LT −1 ]b [T]c
MT −2 ∝ M a L2a+b T −2a+b+c
S15. Ans. (d) On comparing both sides.
Hint: Reading = MSR + (n × LC) + zero 2a + b = 0 , –2a – b + c = –2
error a = 1, b = –2, c = –2
= 0.5 + (25 × 0.001) + 0.004 we get
= 0.529 cm ST = EV −2 T −2

S16. Ans. (d) S20. Ans. (b)

e2
c Hint: vc ∝ [ηx ρy r z ]
Hint: [c]a [G]b [4πε ] [L1 T −1 ] ∝ [M1 L−1 T −1 ]x [M1 L−3 ]y [L1 ]z

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
0
= [LT −1 ]a [M−1 L3 T−2 ]b [ML3 T −2 ]c [L1 T −1 ] ∝ [M x+y ][L−x−3y+z ][T −x ]
= La+3b+3c T −a−2b−2c M −b+c Taking comparison on both size
a + 3b + 3c = 1; −a − 2b − 2c x + y = 0, –x – 3y + z = 1, –x = –1
= 0; −b + c = 0 x = 1, y = –1, z = –1
1 1
b=2 c=2
S21. Ans. (d)
a = −2 Force Force
1 Hint: [Mass] = [Accleration] = [Velocity/time]
1 e2 2
[ ]
L = c −2 G 2 4πε0 = [FV −1 T]
1
1 e2 2
L = c2 [G [4πε ] ]
0
S22. Ans. (b)
a3 b2 ΔP
Hint: P = ⇒ P
S17. Ans. (c) cd
Δa Δb Δc Δd
Hint: Least count = 1MSD – 1VSD = ± (3 a + 2 b + c + d)
49
= 5 × 10−2 − 50 × 5 × 10−2 = ±(3 × 1 + 2 × 2 + 3 + 4) ⇒ ±14%
Thickness = 7 + 23 × 10−3 = 7.023 cm

S18. Ans. (c)

6
 PHYSICS
Motion in a straight line Sankalp Bharat

1. A vehicle travels half the distance with (b) 1 ∶ 4 ∶ 9 ∶ 16

speed v and the remaining distance with (c) 1 ∶ 3 ∶ 5 ∶ 7
speed 2v. Its average speed is: (2023) (d) 1 ∶ 1 ∶ 1 ∶ 1
3𝑣
(a)
4
𝑣 5. A toy car with charge q moves on a
(b) 3 frictionless horizontal plane surface
2𝑣
(c) 3 under the influence of a uniform electric
(d)
4𝑣
field 𝐸⃗  . Due to the force 𝑞𝐸⃗  , its
3
velocity increases from 0 to 6 m/s in one
2. A horizontal bridge is built across a river. second duration. At that instant the
A student standing on the bridge throws direction of the field is reversed. The car
a small ball vertically upwards with a continues to move for two more seconds
velocity 4 𝑚𝑠 −1 . The ball strikes the water under the influence of this field. The
surface after 4 𝑠. The height of bridge average velocity and the average speed of
above water surface is (Take 𝑔 = the toy car between 0 to 3 second are

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
respectively (2018)
10 𝑚𝑠 −2 ): (2023)
(a) 1 m/s, 3.5 m/s
(a) 68 m
(b) 1 m/s, 3 m/s
(b) 56 m
(c) 2 m/s, 4 m/s
(c) 60 m
(d) 1·5 m/s, 3 m/s
(d) 64 m

6. Preeti reached the metro station and

3. The displacement-time graphs of two
found that the escalator was not working.
moving particles make angles of 30° and
She walked up the stationary escalator in
45° with the 𝑥-axis as shown in the figure.
time 𝑡1 . On other days, if she remains
The ratio of their respective velocity is
stationary on the moving escalator, then
(2022)
the escalator takes her up in time 𝑡2 . The
time taken by her to walk up on the
moving escalator will be: (2017-Delhi)
𝑡1 𝑡2
(a) 𝑡2 −𝑡1
𝑡1 𝑡2
(b) 𝑡2 + 𝑡1
(c) 𝑡2 − 𝑡1
𝑡1+ 𝑡2
(d) 2

(a) √3 ∶ 1 7. The ‘x’ and ‘y’ coordinates of the particle

(b) 1∶1 at any time are ′𝑥 ′ = 5𝑡 − 2𝑡 2 and ‘y’ = 10t,
(c) 1∶2 respectively, where ‘x’ and ‘y’ are in
(d) 1 ∶ √3 meters and ‘t’ in seconds. The
acceleration of the particle at t = 2 s is:
4. The ratio of the distance travelled by a (2017-Delhi)
freely falling body in the 1st, 2nd, 3rd and (a) 5 𝑚/𝑠 2
4th second (2022) (b) −4 𝑚/𝑠 2
(a) 1 ∶ 2 ∶ 3 ∶ 4 (c) −8 𝑚/𝑠 2
7
 (d) 0
10. A particle of unit mass undergoes one
8. Two cars P and Q start from a point at the dimensional motion such that its velocity
same time in a straight line and their varies according to 𝑣(𝑥) = 𝛽𝑥 −2𝑛 where 𝛽
positions are represented by 𝑋𝑃 (𝑡) = 𝑎𝑡 + and n are constants and 𝑥 is the position
𝑏𝑡 2 and 𝑋𝑄 (𝑡) = 𝑓𝑡 − 𝑡 2 . At what time do of the particle. The acceleration of the
the cars have the same velocity? particle as a function of 𝑥, is given by:
(2016-II) (2013)
(a)
𝑎+𝑓 (a) −2𝑛𝛽 2 𝑥 −4𝑛−1
2(1+𝑏)
𝑓− 𝑎 (b) −2𝛽2 𝑥 −2𝑛+1
(b) 2(1+𝑏) (c) −2𝑛𝛽 2 𝑒 −4𝑛+1
(c)
𝑎−𝑓
(d) −2𝑛𝛽 2 𝑥 −2𝑛−1
1+𝑏
𝑎+𝑓
(d) 11. A Stone falls freely gravity. It covers
2(𝑏−1)
distances ℎ1 , ℎ2 and ℎ3 in the first 5
9. If the velocity of a particle is v = At + Bt2 , seconds, the next 5 seconds and the next
where A and B are constants, then the 5 seconds respectively. The relation
distance travelled by it between 1 s and 2 between ℎ1 , ℎ2 and ℎ3 is: (2013)
s is: (2016-I) (a) ℎ1 = ℎ2 = ℎ3
3
(a) 𝐴 + 4𝐵 (b) ℎ1 = 2ℎ2 = 3ℎ3
2
ℎ2 ℎ3
(b) 3𝐴 + 7𝐵 (c) ℎ1 = 3
= 5

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
3 7
(c) 𝐴+ 𝐵 (d) ℎ2 = 3ℎ1 and ℎ3 = 3ℎ2
2 3
𝐴 𝐵
(d) 2
+3

8
 Answer Key
S1. Ans. (d) S6. Ans. (b)

S2. Ans. (d) S7. Ans. (b)

S3. Ans. (d) S8. Ans. (b)

S4. Ans. (c) S9. Ans. (c)

S5. Ans. (b) S10. Ans. (a)

S11. Ans. (c)

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ

9
 Solutions
S1. Ans. (d) ∴ Average speed = 3 m/s
4𝑣 2 𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑑𝑖𝑝𝑙𝑎𝑐𝑒𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡
Average speed = ( ) Average velocity = 𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒
3𝑣
4𝑣 𝑋 3
= = = = 1 𝑚/𝑠
3 3 3

S2. Ans. (d) S6. Ans. (b)

Let height of bridge = ℎ Hint: 𝑉1 = Preeti’s velocity
Displacement of ball, 𝑆 = – ℎ 𝑉2 = Escalator’s velocity
1 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 ℓ
𝑆 = 𝑢𝑡 + 𝑎𝑡 2 𝑡= ⇒𝑡=
2 𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 𝑉1 + 𝑉2
1 ℓ 𝑡1 𝑡2
−ℎ = 4 × 4 + (−10)(4)2 = ℓ ℓ = 𝑡 +𝑡
2 + 2
𝑡1 𝑡2
⇒ ℎ = 64 𝑚
S7. Ans. (b)
S3. Ans. (d) Hint: 𝑥 = 5𝑡 − 2𝑡 2 y = 10t
The slope of displacement time graph 𝑑𝑥 𝑑𝑦
𝑣 = 𝑑𝑡 = 5 − 4𝑡 𝑣 = 𝑑𝑡 = 10
gives velocity so, 𝑑𝑣
𝑣1 = tan 30° 𝑎𝑥 = 𝑑𝑡 = −4𝑚/𝑠 2 𝑎𝑦 = 0
𝑣2 = tan 45° 𝑎 = −4 𝑚/𝑠 2
𝑣1 tan 30° 1
So, 𝑣2
= tan 45° = = 1 ∶ √3
√3×1
S8. Ans. (b)
Hint: 𝑋𝑝 (𝑡) = 𝑎𝑡 + 𝑏𝑡 2 𝑋𝑄 (𝑡) = 𝑓𝑡 −
S4. Ans. (c)
𝑡2

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
Distance travelled by a body during free
fall is given by 𝑉𝑃 = 𝑎 + 2𝑏𝑡 𝑉𝑄 = 𝑓 − 2𝑡
1 As 𝑉𝑃 = 𝑉𝑄
𝑠 = 𝑢𝑡 + 2 𝑎𝑡 2
a + 2bt = f -2t
Here, 𝑢 = 0 and 𝑎 = 𝑔 𝑓−𝑎
⇒ 𝑡 = 2(1+𝑏)
∴ 𝑆 ∝ 𝑡2
Here for 1st second,
S9. Ans. (c)
𝑆1 = 𝐾𝑡 2 = 𝐾
Hint: 𝑣 = 𝐴𝑡 + 𝐵𝑡 2
For 2nd second, 𝑑𝑥
𝑆2 = 𝐾(2)2 = 4𝐾 𝑑𝑡
= 𝐴𝑡 + 𝐵𝑡 2
𝑥 2
For 3rd second ∫0 𝑑𝑥 = ∫1 (𝐴𝑡 + 𝐵𝑡)2 𝑑𝑡
𝑆3 = 𝐾(3)2 = 9𝐾 𝐴 𝐵
𝑥 = 2 (22 − 12 ) + 3 (23 − 13 ) =
3𝐴
+
7𝐵
2 3
For 4th second,
𝑆4 = 𝐾(4)2 = 16𝐾
Distance covered in 2 seconds, 4𝐾 − S10. Ans. (a)
𝐾 = 3𝐾 Hint: 𝑣 = 𝛽𝑥 −2𝑛
Distance covered in 3rd seconds, 9𝐾 − 𝑑𝑣
So, 𝑑𝑥 = −2𝑛𝛽𝑥 −2𝑛−1
4𝐾 = 5𝐾 𝑑𝑣
Distance covered in 4th seconds, 16𝐾 − Now 𝑎 = 𝑣 𝑑𝑥 = (𝛽𝑥 −2𝑛 )(−2𝑛𝛽𝑥 −2𝑛−1 )
9𝐾 = 7𝐾 ⇒ 𝑎 = −2𝑛𝛽 2 𝑥 −4𝑛−1
∴ Ratio of distances travelled by the
freely falling body will be 1 ∶ 3 ∶ 5 ∶ 7.
S11. Ans. (c)
1
S5. Ans. (b) Hint: 𝐴𝐵 = ℎ1 = 2 𝑔(5)2 ⇒ ℎ1 = 125 𝑚 (∵
Hint: Between t = 0 to t = 1 s 𝜇 = 0)
v = u + at ⇒ 6 = 0 + a ×1 1
ℎ2 = 𝐵𝐶 = 𝑔(102 − 52 ) ⇒ ℎ2 = 375 𝑚
2
a = 6 𝑚/𝑠 2 1
𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 ℎ3 = 𝐶𝐷 = 𝑔[152 − 102 ]
Average speed = 𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 2
3𝑋 ℎ3 = 625𝑚
= 3
= 𝑋 𝑚/𝑠 ℎ1 : ℎ2 : ℎ3
1 125: 375: 625 = 1: 3: 5
Where X = 0 + × 6 × (1)2 = 3𝑚
2

10
 PHYSICS
Motion in a plane Sankalp Bharat

1. A football player is moving southward and 5. A car starts from rest and accelerates at
suddenly turns eastward with the same 5 m/s2 . At t = 4 s, a ball is dropped out of a
speed to avoid an opponent. The force that window by a person sitting in the car. What
acts on the player while turning is: (2023) is the velocity and acceleration of the ball at
(a) along south-west t = 6s? (2021)
(b) along eastward (a) 20 m/s, 0
(c) along northward (b) 20√2 m/s, 0
(d) along north-east (c) 20√2 m/s, 10 m/s 2
(d) 20 m/s, 5 m/s2
2. A bullet is fired from a gun at the speed of
280 m/s in the direction 30° above the 6. A ball is thrown vertically downward with a
horizontal. The maximum height attained velocity of 20 m/s from the top of a tower.
by the bullet is (2023) It hits the ground after some time with a
(g = 9.8 ms , sin 30° = 0.5)
–2
velocity of 80m/s. The height of the tower is
(a) 3000 m : (g = 10 m/s 2 ) (2020)
(b) 2800 m (a) 340 m
(c) 2000 m

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
(b) 320 m
(d) 1000 m (c) 300 m
(d) 360 m
3. A ball is projected with a velocity, 10 𝑚𝑠 −1 ,
at an angle of 60° with the vertical direction,
7. A person sitting in the ground floor of a
Its speed at the highest point of its
building notices through the window, of
trajectory will be: (2022)
height 1.5 m, a ball dropped from the roof
(a) 5√3 𝑚𝑠 −1
of the building crosses the window in 0.1 s.
(b) 5 𝑚𝑠 −1
What is the velocity of the ball when it is at
(c) 10 𝑚𝑠 −1
the topmost point of the window? (g = 10
(d) Zero
m/s 2 ) (2020 Covid Re-NEET)
(a) 14.5 m/s
4. A particle moving in a circle of radius R with (b) 4.5 m/s
a uniform speed takes a time T to complete (c) 20 m/s
one revolution. If this particle were (d) 15.5 m/s
projected with the same speed at an angle θ
to the horizontal, the maximum height
attained by it equals 4R. The angle of 8. The speed of a swimmer in still water is 20
projection, q is then given by: (2021) m/s. The speed of river water is 10 m/s and
1 is flowing due east. If he is standing on the
π2 R 2
(a) θ = cos−1 ( gT2 ) south bank and wishes to cross the river
1 along the shortest path, the angle at which
π2 R 2
(b) θ = sin−1 ( gT2 ) he should make his strokes w.r.t. north is
1 given by : (2019)
2gT2 2
(c) θ = sin−1 ( π2 R ) (a) 30⁰ west
1 (b) 0⁰
gT2 2
(d) θ = cos−1 (π2 R) (c) 60⁰ west
(d) 45⁰ west

11
9. Two particles A and B are moving in
uniform circular motion in concentric
circles of radii rA and rB with speed vA and
vB respectively. Their time period of rotation
is the same. The ratio of angular speed of A
to that of B will be : (2019)
(a) rA : rB
(b) vA : vB
(c) rB : rA
(d) 1 : 1
10. When an object is shot from the bottom of a
long smooth inclined plane kept at an angle
60° with horizontal, it can travel a distance
x1 along the plane. But when the inclination
is decreased to 30° and the same object is
shot with the same velocity, it can travel x2
distance. Then x1 : x2 will be: (2019)
(a) 1: √2
(b) √2 ∶ 1
(c) 1: √3
(d) 180⁰
14. A particle moves so that its position vector
is given by r = cos ωx̂ + sin ωtŷ where ω is a
constant Which of the following is true?
(2016 - I)
(a) Velocity and acceleration both are
perpendicular to r
(b) Velocity and acceleration both are
parallel to r
(c) Velocity is perpendicular to r and
acceleration is directed towards the
origin
(d) Velocity is perpendicular r to and
acceleration directed away from the
origin
15. A uniform circular disc of radius 50 cm at
rest is free to turn about an axis which is
perpendicular to its plane and passes
through its center. It is subjected to a

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
torque which produces a constant angular
(d) 1: 2√3
acceleration of 2.0 rad s −2. Its net
acceleration in ms–2 at the end of 2.0 s is
11. The angle between ⃗A − ⃗B and ⃗A × ⃗B is approximately (2016 - I)
⃗ ≠ ⃗B): (a) 8.0
(A (2017-Gujarat)
(b) 7.0
(a) 0° (c) 6.0
(b) 90° (d) 3.0
(c) 120°
(d) 45°
16. A ship A is moving Westwards with a speed
of 10 km/h and a ship B 100 km South of
12. A ball of mass 1 kg is thrown vertically
A, is moving Northwards with a speed of 10
upwards and returns to the ground after 3
km/h. The time after which the distance
seconds. Another ball, thrown at 60° with
between them becomes shortest, is:
vertical also stays in air for the same time
(2015)
before it touches the ground. The ratio of
(a) 5 h
the two heights are: (2017-Gujarat)
(b) 5√2 h
(a) 1 : 3
(b) 1 : 2 (c) 10√2 h
(c) 1 : 1 (d) 0 h
(d) 2 : 1
17. The position vector of a particle R  as a
13. If the magnitude of sum of two vectors is function of time is given by:
equal to the magnitude of difference of the ⃗R = 4 sin(2πt)î + 4 cos(2πt)ĵ
two vectors, the angle between these vectors Where R is in metres, t is in seconds and
is: (2016 - I) î and ĵ denote unit vectors along x and y-
(a) 1⁰ direction, respectively. Which one of the
(b) 90⁰ following statements is wrong for the
(c) 45⁰ motion of particle? (2015)
12
 (a) Path of the particle is a circle of radius from another planet with a velocity of 3 ms −1
4 metre at the same angle follows a trajectory which
(b) Acceleration vectors is along −R ⃗ is identical with the trajectory of the
v2 projectile fired from the earth. The value of
(c) Magnitude of acceleration vector is R
where v is the velocity of particle the acceleration due to gravity on the planet
(d) Magnitude of the velocity of particle is 8 is (in ms −2) is: (given g = 9.8 ms −2) (2014)
(a) 3.5
metre/second (b) 5.9
(c) 16.3
(d) 110.8
18. A particle is moving such that its position
coordinates (x, y) are:
20. The velocity of a projectile at the initial point
(2 m, 3 m) at time t = 0,
A (2î + 3ĵ) m/s. Its velocity (in m/s) at point
(6 m, 7 m) at time t = 2 s and
B is: (2013)
(13 m, 14 m) at time t = 5 s
Average velocity vector (V⃗ av )  from t = 0 to
t = 5 s is: (2014)
1
(a) 5
(13î + 14ĵ)
7
(b) 3
(î + ĵ)
(c) 2(î + ĵ)
11
(d) (î + ĵ) (a) 2î + 3ĵ
5

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
(b) −2î − 3ĵ
(c) −2î + 3ĵ
19. A projectile is fired from the surface of the (d) 2î − 3ĵ
earth with a velocity of 5 ms −1 and angle θ
with the horizontal. Another projectile fired

13
 Answer Key
S1. Ans. (d)
S12. Ans. (c)
S2. Ans. (d)
S13. Ans. (b)
S3. Ans. (a)
S14. Ans. (c)
S4. Ans. (c)
S15. Ans. (a)
S5. Ans. (c)
S16. Ans. (a)
S6. Ans. (c)
S17. Ans. (d)
S7. Ans. (a)
S18. Ans. (d)
S8. Ans. (a)
S19. Ans. (a)
S9. Ans. (d)
S20. Ans. (d)
S10. Ans. (c)

S11. Ans. (b)

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ

14
 Solutions
S1. Ans. (d) Hint: u = 0
Initial velocity = −𝑣𝑗̂
Final velocity = 𝑣𝑖̂ a = 5 m/s2
t = 4 sec
V = u + at
V = 0 +5 ×4
V = 20 m/s

Change in velocity = 𝑣𝑖̂ − (−𝑣𝑗̂)

= 𝑣(𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂)
Momentum gain is along 𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂
⇒ Force experienced is along 𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂
⇒ Force experienced is in North-East Vx = 20 m/sec
direction.
Vy = u + at [∵ t = 6 – 4 = 2 sec]
S2. Ans. (d) = 10 × 2 m/s
𝑢2 sin2 𝜃 280 × 280 1
ℎ𝑚𝑎𝑥 = = × Vy = 20 m/sec
2𝑔 2 × 9.8 4
= 1000 𝑚 V = 20√2

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
S3. Ans. (a) and a = 10 m/sec 2
At highest point only horizontal
component of velocity remains S6. Ans. (c)
⇒ 𝑢𝑥 = 𝑢 cos 𝜃

𝑢𝑥 = 𝑢 cos 𝜃 = 10 cos 30° v 2 = u2 + 2gh

= 5√3 𝑚𝑠 −1
802 + 202 + 2 × 10h
S4. Ans. (c) h = 300 m
2πR
Hint: T = V
2πR S7. Ans. (a)
u= T Hint: From equation of motion
u2 sin2 θ 1
H= 2g S = ut + at 2
2
4π2 R2 sin2 θ Here S = 1.5 m t = 0.1 s
4R = T2 2g
1
8RT2 g 1.5 = u(0.1) + 2 (10)(0.1)(0.1)
2
sin θ = 4π2 R2
⇒ u = 14.5 m/s
2T2 g
sin θ = √ 2
π R
1
S8. Ans. (a)
2T2 g 2 VSG = 20 m/s
θ= sin−1 ( π2 R )
VRG = 10 m/s
S5. Ans. (c) For shortest path
15
 ⃗ SG + V
⃗ RG = V
⃗ SR u2
V (Stopping distance) x2 = 2g sin 30°
x sin 30° 1×2
⇒ x1 = sin 60° = 2× = 1: √3
2 √3

S11. Ans. (b)

⃗A − ⃗B will give us a new vector whose
direction will be in the plane of A and B.
⃗A × ⃗B will give us a new vector whose
direction will be perpendicular to A and
From vector triangle:- B.
⃗V
⃗
sinθ = |⃗⃗ RG | Then the angle between ⃗A − ⃗B and ⃗A × ⃗B
VSG
will be 90⁰
10
Sinθ =
20
1 S12. Ans. (c)
Sin θ = 2 = θ = 30° west
Hint: T1 = T2
Vy = same for both cases
S9. Ans. (d)
V2y
Hint: H= 2g

H1 = H2 since all are same for both cases

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ S13. Ans. (b)

⃗ + ⃗B| = |A
Hint: |A ⃗ − ⃗B|
⃗ +B
A ⃗ + 2AB cos θ = A2 + B 2 − 2AB cos θ
4AB cos θ = 0

TA = TB = T cos θ = 0
2π θ = 90°
ωA = T
A
2π
ωB = S14. Ans. (c)
TB
ωA T T Hint:
ωB
= TB = T = 1
A r = cos ωtx̂ + sin ωtŷ
v̂ = −ωsinωtx̂ + ωcosωtŷ
S10. Ans. (c)
a⃗ = −ω2 cos ωtx̂ + ω2 (− sin ωt)ŷ
= −ω2 r
⃗ = 0 hence r ⊥ v
r. v ⃗

S15. Ans. (a)

Hint: Particle at periphery will have both
radial and tangential acceleration
at = Rα = 0.5 × 2 = 1 ms−2
ω = ω0 + αt
ω = 0 + 2 × 2 = 4 rad/sec
u2
(Stopping distance) x1 = 2g sin 60° ac = ω2 R = (4)2 × 0.5 = 16 × 0.5 = 8 ms −2

16
 atotal = √a2t + a2c = √12 + 82 ≈ 8 ms−2 S18. Ans. (d)
Δr⃗ (13−2)î+(14−3)ĵ 11
Hint: = v
⃗ av = Δt = 5−0
= 5
(î + ĵ)
S16. Ans. (a)
S19. Ans. (a)
u2 sin2 θ
Hint: As Range = g
so, g ∝ u2

3 2
Therefore g planet = ( ) (9.8 ms −2 )
5

= 3.5 ms−2

⃗ BA | = √102 + 102 = 10√2 kmph

|v S20. Ans. (d)
Distance OB = 100 cos 45° = 50√2 km Hint: In a projectile vertical component of
Time taken to reach the shortest distance velocity keeps on changing with time.
between While horizontal velocity component
remains constant
50√2 50√2
A& B = ⃗ BA
= =5h
v 10√2

S17. Ans. (d)

⃗R = 4 sin(2πt)î + 4 cos(2πt)ĵ

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
⃗⃗
dR
⃗ =
v dt
= 8π cos 2πtî − 8π sin 2πtĵ

⃗ | = √[8π cos(2πt)2 ] + [−8π sin(2πt)2 ]

|v
= √64π2 ∴ Velocity is 2î − 3ĵ
= 8π m/s
∴ statement in option (d) is wrong

17
 Chapter 4
Sankalp Bharat
Laws of Motion

1. Calculate the maximum acceleration of a (b) g/5

moving car so that a body lying on the floor (c) g/10
of the car remains stationary. The (d) g
coefficient of static friction between the
body and the floor is 0.15 (g = 10 ms–2).
5. Calculate the acceleration of the block and
(a) 50 ms–2
trolly system shown in the figure. The
(b) 1.2 ms–2
coefficient of kinetic friction between the
(c) 150 ms–2
(d) 1.5 ms–2 trolly and the surface is 0.05. (g = 10 m/s2 ,
mass of the string is negligible and no other
friction exists). (2020 Covid Re-NEET)
2. A shell of mass 𝑚 is at rest initially. It
explodes into three fragments having mass
in the ratio 2 ∶ 2 ∶ 1. If the fragments having
equal mass fly off along mutually
perpendicular directions with speed 𝑣, the
speed of the third (lighter) fragment is
(a) 1.50 m/s2

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
(2022)
(a) 𝑣 (b) 1.66 m/s2
(c) 1.00 m/s2
(b) √2𝑣
(d) 1.25 m/s2
(c) 2√2𝑣
(d) 3√2𝑣
6. ̅ is acted by
A particle moving with velocity V
3. A small block slides down on a smooth three forces shown by the vector triangle
inclined plane, starting from rest at time t = PQR. The velocity of the particle will:
0. Let Sn be the distance travelled by the (2019)
block in the interval t = n – 1 to t = n. The,
Sn
the ratio Sn+1
is: (2021)
2n−1
(a) 2n+1
2n+1
(b) 2n−1
2n
(c) 2n−1 (a) Increase
2n+1
(d) (b) Decrease
2n
(c) Remain constant
(d) Change according to the smallest force
4. Two bodies of mass 4 kg and 6 kg are tied
to the ends of a massless string. The string
passes over a pulley which is frictionless 7. A block of mass 10 kg is in contact against
(see figure). The acceleration of the system the inner wall of a hollow cylindrical drum
in terms of acceleration due to gravity (g) is of radius 1 m. The coefficient of friction
(2020) between the block and the inner wall of the
cylinder is 0.1. The minimum angular
velocity needed for the cylinder to keep the
block stationary when the cylinder is
vertical and rotating about its axis, will be:
(a) g/2 (g = 10 m/s2 ) (2019)
19
 (a) √10 rad/s acceleration of A and B immediately after
10
(b) 2π rad/s the string is cut, are respectively:
(2017-Delhi)
(c) 10 rad/s
(d) 10 π rad/s

8. Which one of the following statements is

incorrect? (2018)
g
(a) Frictionless force opposes the relative (a) g,
3
motion. (b) g, g
g g
(b) Limiting value of static friction is (c) 3 , 3
directly proportional to normal reaction. g
(d) ,g
(c) Rolling friction is smaller than sliding 3
friction
(d) Coefficient of sliding friction has
12. One end of string of length l is connected to
dimensions of length. a particle of mass ‘m’ and the other end is
connected to a small peg on a smooth
horizontal table. If the particle moves in
9. A moving block having mass m, collides
circle with speed ‘v’, the net force on the
with another stationary block having mass
particle (directed towards center) will be:
4m. The lighter block comes to rest after
(T Represents the tension in the string))
collision. When the initial velocity of the
(2017-Delhi)

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
lighter block is v, then the value of mv2
coefficient of restitution(e) will be (2018) (a) T +
l
(a) 0.8 mv2
(b) T − l
(b) 0.25
(c) zero
(c) 0.5
(d) T
(d) 0.4

13. A girl jumps down from a moving bus, along

10. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth
the direction of motion of the bus, tilting
inclined wedge ABC of inclination θ as
slightly forward. She falls on
shown in the figure. The wedge is given an
(A) a sheet of ice (B) a patch of glue.
acceleration ‘a’ towards the right. The
(2017-Gujarat)
relation between a and θ for the block to
(a) In case (A) she falls backward and in
remain stationary on the wedge is: (2018) case (B) she falls forward
(b) In both cases (A) and (B) she falls
forward
(c) In both cases (A) and (B) she falls
backward
(a) a = g cosθ
g (d) In case (A) she falls forward and in case
(b) a = sin θ (B) she falls backward
g
(c) a = cosec θ
(d) a = g tan θ 14. A cyclist on a level road takes a sharp
circular turn of radius 3 m (g = 10 ms−2). If
the coefficient of static friction between the
11. Two blocks A and B of masses 3 m and m
cycle tyres and the road is 0.2, at which of
respectively are connected by a massless
the following speeds will the cyclist not skid
and inextensible string. The whole system
while taking the turn? (2017-Gujarat)
is suspended by a massless spring as
(a) 14.4 km h−1
shown in figure. The magnitudes of
(b) 8.8 km h−1

20
 (c) 9 km h−1 stone is n times that of the value of heavier
(d) 10.8 km h−1 stone when they experience same
centripetal forces. The value of n is:
(2015 Re)
15. A car is negotiating a curved road of radius
(a) 1
R. The road is banked at an angle θ. The (b) 2
coefficient of friction between the tyres of (c) 3
the car and the road is µs . The maximum (d) 4
safe velocity on this road is: (2016 - I)
μ +tan θ 19. A plank with a box on it at one end is
(a) √gR2 1−μ
s
s tan θ gradually raised about the other end. As the
(b) √gR 1−μ
s μ +tan θ angle of inclination with the horizontal
s tan θ
reaches 30°, the box starts to slip and slides
gμ + tan θ
(c) √ s 4.0 m down the plank in 4.0 s. The
R 1−μ s tan θ
coefficients of static and kinetic friction
g μs + tan θ
(d) √R2 between the box and the plank will be,
1−μs tan θ
respectively: (2015 Re)

16. Three blocks A, B and C of masses 4 kg, 2

kg and 1 kg respectively, are in contact on
a friction less surface, as shown. If a force
of 14 N is applied on the 4 kg block, then

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
(a) 0.4 and 0.3
the contact force between A and B is:
(b) 0.6 and 0.6
(2015) (c) 0.6 and 0.5
(d) 0.5 and 0.6

(a) 6N 20. A nucleus of uranium decays at rest into

(b) 8N nuclei of thorium and helium. Then:
(c) 18 N (2015 Re)
(d) 2N (a) The helium nucleus has less kinetic
energy than the thorium nucleus.
(b) The helium has more kinetic energy
17. A block A of mass m1 rests on a horizontal
than the thorium nucleus.
table. A light string connected to it passes
(c) The helium nucleus has less
over a frictionless pulley at the edge of table momentum than the thorium nucleus.
and from its other end another block B of (d) The helium nucleus has more
mass m2 is suspended. The coefficient of momentum than the thorium nucleus.
kinetic friction between the block and table
is µk . When the block A is sliding on the 21. A balloon with mass m is descending down
table, the tension in the string is: (2015) with an acceleration a (where a < g). How
(m2 −μk m1 )g
(a) much mass should be removed from it so
(m1 +m2 )
m1 m2 (1+μ)g that it starts moving up with an
(b) (m1 +m2 ) acceleration a? (2014)
m1 m2 (1−μk )g 2ma
(c) (m1 +m2 )
(a) g+a
(m2 +μk m1 )g 2ma
(d) (m1 +m2 )
(b) g−a
ma
(c) g+a
18. Two stones of masses m and 2 m are ma
(d)
whirled in horizontal circles, the heavier g−a
one in a radius r/2 and the lighter one in
radius r. The tangential speed of lighter
21
22. The force F acting on a particle of mass m
is indicated by the force-time graph shown.
The change in momentum of the particle
over the time interval from zero to 8 s is:
(2014)
24. Three blocks with masses m, 2m and 3m
are connected by strings, as shown in the
figure. After an upward force F is applied on
block m, the masses move upward at
constant speed v. What is the net force on
the block of mass 2m? (g is the acceleration
due to gravity) (2013)

(a) 24 Ns
(b) 20 Ns
(c) 12 Ns
(d) 6 Ns

23. A system consists of three masses m1 , m2

and m3 is connected by a string passing (a) 6 mg
over a pulley P. The mass m1 hangs freely (b) Zero
and m2 and m3 are on a rough horizontal (c) 2 mg
table (the coefficient of friction = μ). The (d) 3 mg
pulley is frictionless and of negligible mass.
The downward acceleration of mass m1 is: 25. The upper half of an inclined plane of
(Assume m1 = m2 = m3 = m) (2014) inclination θ is perfectly smooth while lower

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
half is rough. A block starting from rest at
the top of the plane will again come to rest
at the bottom, if the coefficient of friction
between the block and lower half of the
g(1−gμ) plane is given by (2013)
(a)
9 (a) μ = 2 tan θ
2gμ
(b) g (b) μ = tan θ
1
(c)
g(1−2μ) (c) μ = tan θ
3 2
g(1−2μ)
(d) 2 (d) μ = tan θ

22
 Answer Key
S1. Ans. (d)
S14. Ans. (b)
S2. Ans. (c)
S15. Ans. (b)
S3. Ans. (a)
S16. Ans. (a)
S4. Ans. (b)
S17. Ans. (b)
S5. Ans. (d)
S18. Ans. (c)
S6. Ans. (c)
S19. Ans. (c)
S7. Ans. (c)
S20. Ans. (b)
S8. Ans. (d)
S21. Ans. (a)
S9. Ans. (b)
S22. Ans. (c)
S10. Ans. (d)
S23. Ans. (c)
S11. Ans. (d)
S24. Ans. (b)
S12. Ans. (d)

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
S25. Ans. (a)
S13. Ans. (b)

23
 Solutions
S1. Ans. (d) S6. Ans. (c)
Hint:

𝑁 = 𝑚𝑔
and 𝑓 = 𝑚𝑎
𝑓 ≤ 𝜇𝑁
⇒ 𝑎 ≤ 𝜇𝑔
All these forces are forming closed loop in
⇒ 𝑎 ≤ 1.5 𝑚𝑠 −2
same order. So, net force is zero
or 𝑎𝑚𝑎𝑥 = 1.5 𝑚𝑠 −2
Force = ma
S2. Ans. (c)
Given, mass of the shell = 𝑚 ⃗
𝑑𝑣
⇒ 𝑚 𝑑𝑡 = 0 ⇒ 𝑣 constant
Ratio of masses of the fragments is 2 ∶ 2 ∶
1 S7. Ans. (c)
Therefore, masses of three fragments are
𝑚 𝑚 𝑚 Hint:
𝑚1 = 2 , 𝑚2 = 2 and 𝑚3 = 4
Now fragments with equal masses i.e. 𝑚1

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
and 𝑚2 fly off perpendicularly with speeds
𝑣1 = 𝑣2 = 𝑣. Let the velocity of third
fragment be 𝑣′.
Applying law of conservation of
momentum,
𝑚1 𝑣1 𝑖̂ + 𝑚2 𝑣2 𝑗̂ + 𝑚3 𝑣 = 0
𝑚𝑣 𝑚𝑣 𝑚𝑣 ′
𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂ + 𝑣 = 0 ⇒ 𝑣 ′ = 2𝑣(−𝑖̂ − 𝑗̂)
2 2 2
|𝑣 | = 2𝑣√(−1)2 + (−1)2 = 2√2𝑣

S3. Ans. (a)

𝑆𝑛
𝑎
(2𝑛−1) 2𝑛−1 2𝑛−1
For equilibrium of the block limiting
Hint: 𝑆𝑛+1
=𝑎 2
= 2𝑛+2−1 = 2𝑛+1 friction
(2(𝑛+1)−1)
2

S4. Ans. (b) 𝑓𝐿 ≥ 𝑚𝑔

(𝑚2 −𝑚1 )𝑔 (6−4)𝑔 2𝑔 𝑔
Hint: 𝑎 = 𝑚1 +𝑚2
𝑎= 6+4
= 10
=5 ⇒ 𝜇𝑁 ≥ 𝑚𝑔

⇒ 𝜇𝑚𝑟𝜔2 ≥ 𝑚𝑔
S5. Ans. (d)
Hint: 𝑔
𝜔 ≥ √𝑟𝜇

Therefore,

𝑔
𝜔𝑚𝑖𝑛 = √𝑟𝜇

10
𝜔𝑚𝑖𝑛 = √0.1×1 = 𝑟𝑎𝑑/𝑠

24
S8. Ans. (d) =
√6×18 𝑘𝑚
= 8.8 𝑘𝑚 ℎ−1
5 ℎ
Hint: Coefficient of sliding friction is
dimensionless

S9. Ans. (b) S15. Ans. (b)

𝑣 𝑣2 𝜇 +𝑡𝑎𝑛𝜃
Hint: 𝑚𝑣 = 4𝑚𝑣 ′ ⇒ 𝑣 ′ = 4 Hint: We know that 𝑠
= (1−𝜇 )
𝑔𝑅 𝑠 𝑡𝑎𝑛𝜃
𝑣
𝑣′ 1
S10. 𝑒 = 4
= 4
𝑣
= 4 = 0.25 𝑣 = √𝑣𝑅 (
𝜇𝑠 +𝑡𝑎𝑛𝜃
)
1−𝜇𝑠 𝑡𝑎𝑛𝜃
S8. Ans. (d)
S16. Ans. (a)
Hint: From wedge reference frame 𝐹
Hint: Acceleration of system = 𝑀 𝑛𝑒𝑡
𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙
For block to be at rest
14
= 4+2+1 = 2 𝑚𝑠 −2
ma 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 = 𝑚𝑔 sin 𝜃

𝑎 = 𝑔 tan 𝜃

S11. Ans. (d)

𝑁1 = Normal force between A and B

14 - 𝑁1 = 𝑚𝐴 𝑎

14 - 𝑁1 = 4 × 2

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
14 - 𝑁1 = 8 ⇒ 𝑁1 = 6 𝑁

When the string is cut T = 0

S17. Ans. (b)
for block A

3 m a = 4 mg – 3 mg
𝑔
𝑎= 3
for block B

mg = ma ⇒ a = g

S12. Ans. (d)

Hint: In uniform circular motion, tension
For the motion of both blocks
provides the necessary centripetal force
required to keep particle in motion. 𝑚2 𝑔 − 𝑇 = 𝑚2 𝑎

S13. Ans. (b) 𝑇 − 𝜇𝑘 𝑚1 𝑔 = 𝑚1 𝑎 ⇒ 𝑎 =

(𝑚2 −𝜇𝑘 𝑚1 )𝑔
𝑚1 +𝑚2
Hint:
For the block of mass ′𝑚2 ′
𝑚2 −𝜇𝑘 𝑚1
𝑚2 𝑔 − 𝑇 = 𝑚2 [ 𝑚1 +𝑚2
]𝑔

𝑚2 −𝜇𝑘 𝑚1 𝑚2 +𝜇𝑘 𝑚1
𝑇 = 𝑚2 𝑔 − [ ] 𝑚2 𝑔 = 𝑚2 𝑔 [ ]
𝑚1 +𝑚2 𝑚1 +𝑚2

𝑚1 𝑚2 (1+𝜇𝑘 )𝑔
S14. Ans. (b) ⇒𝑇= 𝑚1 +𝑚2

Hint: 𝑉𝑚𝑎𝑥 = √𝜇𝑟𝑔 S18. Ans. (c)

= √0.2 × 3 × 10 Hint: (𝐹𝐶 )ℎ𝑒𝑎𝑣𝑖𝑒𝑟 = (𝐹𝐶 )𝑙𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡𝑒𝑟

2𝑚𝑉 2 𝑚 (𝑛𝑉)2
= √6 𝑚𝑠 −1 ⇒ = ⇒ 𝑛2 = 4 ⇒ 𝑛 = 2
(𝑟/2) 𝑟

25
S19. Ans. (c) =
𝑚1 𝑔−𝜇(𝑚2 +𝑚3 )𝑔
=
𝑔(1−2𝜇)
[∵ 𝑚1 = 𝑚2 = 𝑚3 ]
𝑚1 +𝑚2 +𝑚3 3
Hint: Coefficient of static friction
1
S24. Ans. (b)
𝜇𝑠 = tan 30° = = 0.6
√3 Hint: As block of mass 2m moves with
constant velocity so net force on it is zero.
𝑎 = 𝑔𝑠𝑖𝑛 30° − 𝜇𝑘 𝑔 cos 30°
1 S25. Ans. (a)
𝑆 = 𝑢𝑡 + 2 𝑎𝑡 2 [∵ 𝑢 = 0]
Hint:
1 𝑔 𝜇𝑘 𝑔√3
⇒ 4 = 2 [2 − 2
]× 16 ⇒ 𝜇𝑘 = 0.5

S20. Ans. (b)

Hint: According to conservation of linear
momentum

𝑝𝑓 = 𝑝𝑖 = 0

⇒ 𝑝𝐻𝑒 − 𝑝𝑇𝑛 = 0 ⇒ 𝑝𝐻𝑒 = 𝑝𝑇𝑛

1 Let m be mass of the block and L be
but 𝐾 ∝ 𝑚 and 𝑚𝐻𝑒 < 𝑚 𝑇ℎ ⇒ 𝑆𝑜 𝐾𝐻𝑒 > 𝐾𝑇𝑛
length of the inclined plane.
S21. Ans. (a) For upper half smooth plane
Hint:
Acceleration of the block, a = gsin θ

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ Here, u = 0 (⸪ block starts from rest)

Using, 𝑣 2 – 𝑢2 = 2as, we have

For downward motion
𝑚𝑔 − 𝐹𝑎 = 𝑚𝑎 ⇒ 𝐹𝑎 = 𝑚𝑔 − 𝑚𝑎
If some mass Δ m is removed, then it
starts accelerating upwards
𝐹𝑎 − (𝑚 − Δ𝑚)𝑔 = (𝑚 − Δ𝑚)𝑎
𝐿
𝑣 2 − 0 = 2 × 𝑔 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 ×
2
𝑣 = √𝑔𝐿𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 ………………..(1)
For lower half rough plane Acceleration of
the block, a’ = gsin θ – μgcos θ where μ is
the coefficient of friction between the
block and lower half of the plane

mg – mg – mg + gΔm = ma – a Δ m Here, 𝑢 = 𝑣 = √𝑔𝐿 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃

gΔm - ma = ma – aΔm ⇒ Δm [g + a] = 2 v = 0 (∵ 𝑏𝑙𝑜𝑐𝑘 𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑒𝑠 𝑡𝑜 𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑡)

ma 𝐿
a = a’ = gsin θ – μgcos θ, 𝑠 = 2
2𝑚𝑎
Δm = 𝑔+𝑎
Again, using 𝑣 2 – 𝑢2 = 2as, we have
S22. Ans. (c) 2 𝐿
Hint: Change in momentum, 0 − (√𝑔𝐿 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃) = 2 × (𝑔 sin 𝜃 − 𝜇𝑔 cos 𝜃) ×
2
∫ Δ𝑝 = ∫ Fdt = Area of F – t grah –gLsin θ = (gsin θ – μg cos θ)L
1
= × 2 × 6 − 3 × 2 + 4 × 3 = 12 Ns –sin θ = sin θ – μcos θ
2
μ cos θ = 2sin θ ⇒ μ = 2tan θ
S23. Ans. (c)
Hint: Acceleration =
Net force in the direction of motion
Total mass of system

26
 Chapter 5
Sankalp Bharat
Work, Energy, Power and Collisions

1. The potential energy of a long spring when 5. A point mass ‘m’ is moved in a vertical circle
stretched by 2 cm is U. If the spring is of radius ‘r’ with the help of a string. The
stretched by 8 cm, potential energy stored velocity of the mass is √7gr at the lowest
in it will be: (2023) point. The tension in the string at the lowest
(a) 16U point is (2020 Covid Re-NEET)
(b) 2U (a) 7 mg
(c) 4U (b) 8 mg
(d) 8U (c) 1 mg
(d) 6 mg
2. A bullet from a gun is fired on a rectangular
wooden block with velocity u. When bullet
6. Body A of mass 4m moving with speed u
travels 24 cm through the block along its
collides with another body B of mass 2m, at
length horizontally, velocity of bullet
𝑢 rest. The collision is head on and elastic in
become 3 . Then it further penetrates into
nature. After the collision the fraction of
the block in the same direction before energy lost by the colliding body A is :
coming to rest exactly at the other end of (2019)

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
the block. The total length of the block is: (a)
1
(2023) 9
8
(a) 30 cm (b) 9
4
(b) 27 cm (c) 9
(c) 24 cm 5
(d)
(d) 28 cm 9

3. An electric lift with a maximum load of 2000 7. A mass m is attached to a thin wire and
𝑘𝑔 (lift + passengers) is moving up with a whirled in a vertical circle. The wire is most
constant speed of 1.5 𝑚𝑠 −1 . The frictional likely to break when: (2019)
force opposing the motion is 3000 𝑁. The (a) The mass is at the highest point
minimum power delivered by the motor to (b) The wire is horizontal
the lift in watts is: (𝑔 = 10 𝑚𝑠 −2 ) (2022)
(a) 20000 (c) The mass is at the lowest point
(b) 34500 (d) Inclined at an angle of 60° from vertical
(c) 23500
(d) 23000
8. A force F = 20 + 10y acts on a particle in y
direction where F is in newton and y in
4. Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate
metre. Work done by this force to move the
of 15 kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses
particle from y = 0 to y = 1 m is (2019)
due to frictional force are 10% of the input
(a) 30 J
energy. How much power is generated by (b) 5 J
the turbine? (g = 10 m/s2 ) (2021) (c) 25 J
(a) 8.1 kW (d) 20 J
(b) 12.3 kW
(c) 7.0 kW
(d) 10.2 kW 9. A body initially at rest and sliding along a
frictionless track from a height h (as shown

27
 in the figure) just completes a vertical circle Which one of the graph correctly shows the
of diameter AB = D. The height h is equal to: variation of displacement (s) with time (t)?
(2017 - Gujrat)
(a)

(2018)
7
(a) 5
D
(b) D
3
(c) 2
D
5
(d) D (b)
4

10. A spring of force constant k is cut into

lengths of ratio 1 : 2 : 3. They are connected
in series and the new force constant is Kʹ.
Then they are connected in parallel and
(c)
force constant is Kʹʹ. Then Kʹ : Kʹʹ is:
(2017 - Delhi)
(a) 1 : 9
(b) 1 : 11
(c) 1 : 14

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
(d) 1 : 6
(d)

11. Consider a drop of rain water having mass

1 g falling from a height of 1 km. It hits the
ground with a speed of 50 m/s. Take ‘g’
constant with a value 10 m/s2 . The work
done by the (i) gravitational force and the (ii)
resistive force of air is: (2017 - Delhi)
(a) (i) 1.25 J (ii) –8.25 J 14. A particle moves from a point (−2î + 5ĵ) to
(b) (i) 100 J (ii) 8.75 J (4î + 3k̂) when a force of (4î + 3ĵ) N is
(c) (i) 10 J (ii) –8.75 J applied.
How much work has been done by the
(d) (i) –10 J (ii) –8.25 J
force? (2016 – II)
(a) 5 J
12. A body initially at rest, breaks up into two (b) 2 J
pieces of masses 2 M and 3 M respectively, (c) 8 J
together having a total kinetic energy E. The (d) 11 J
piece of mass 2 M, after breaking up, has a
kinetic energy. (2017 - Gujrat) 15. Two identical balls A and B having velocities
2E of 0.5 m/s and –0.3 m/s respectively collide
(a) 5 elastically in one dimension. The velocities
E
(b) 2 of B and A after the collision respectively
(c)
E will be: (2016 – II)
5
3E (a) –0.3 m/s and 0.5 m/s
(d) (b) 0.3 m/s and 0.5 m/s
5

13. A body starts moving unidirectionally under (c) –0.5 m/s and 0.3 m/s
the influence of a source of constant power. (d) 0.5 m/s and –0.3 m/s

28
16. A bullet of mass 10 g moving horizontally
with a velocity of 400 ms−1 strikes a wooden
block of mass 2 kg which is suspended by a
light inextensible string of length 5 m. As a
result, the center of gravity of the block is
acceleration if the kinetic energy of the
particle becomes equal to 8 × 10−4 J by the
end of the second revolution after the
beginning of the motion? (2016 - I)
(a) 0.1 m/s 2

found to rise a vertical distance of 10 cm. (b) 0.15 m/s 2

The speed of the bullet after it emerges out (c) 0.18 m/s 2
horizontally from the block will be: (d) 0.2 m/s2
(2016 – II)
(a) 120 ms−1
21. A particle of mass m is driven by a machine
(b) 160 ms−1
that delivers a constant power k watts. If
(c) 100 ms−1
the particle starts from rest the force on the
(d) 80 ms −1
particle at time t is: (2015)
−1

17. A body of mass 1 kg begins to move under (a) √mkt 2

−1
the action of a time dependent force F = (b) √2mkt 2
(2tî + 3t 2 ĵ) N, where î and ĵ are unit vectors −1
1
along x and y axis. What power will be (c) 2
√mkt 2
developed by the force at the time t? mk −1
(d) √ 2 t 2
(2016 - I)
(a) (2t + 3t )W
2 2

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
(b) (2t 2 + 4t 4 )W
22. . Two similar springs P and Q have spring
(c) (2t 3 + 4t 4 )W
constants K P and K Q such that K P > K Q .
(d) (2t 3 + 3t 5 )W
They stretched first by the same amount
(case a), then by the same force (case b). The
18. A piece of ice falls from a height h so that it
work done by the springs WP and WQ are
melts completely. Only one-quarter of the
related as in case (a) and case (b),
heat produced is absorbed by the ice and all
respectively: (2015)
energy of ice gets converted into heat during
(a) WP = WQ ; WP = WQ
its fall. The value of h is [Latent heat of ice
(b) WP > WQ ; WQ > WP
is 3.4 × 105 J/kg and g = 10 N/kg]:
(c) WP < WQ ; WQ < WP
(2016 - I)
(d) WP = WQ ; WP > WQ
(a) 34 km
(b) 544 km
(c) 136 km
23. A block of mass 10 kg moving in x direction
(d) 68 km
with a constant speed of 10 ms −1, is
subjected to a retarding force F = –0.1x J/m
19. What is the minimum velocity with which a during its travel from x = 20 m to 30 m. Its
body of mass m must enter a vertical loop final K.E. will be: (2015)
of radius R so that it can complete the loop? (a) 450 J
(2016 - I) (b) 275 J
(a) √gR (c) 250 J
(b) √2gR (d) 475 J
(c) √3gR
(d) √5gR 24. Two particles of masses m1 , m2 move with
initial velocities u1 and u2 . On collision, one
of the particles get excited to higher level,
20. . A particle of mass 10 g moves along a circle after absorbing energy ε. If final velocities of
of radius 6.4 cm with a constant tangential particles be v1 and v2 , then we must have:
acceleration. What is the magnitude of this (2015)
29
 1 1 1 1 r⃗1 −r⃗2 ⃗ −v
v ⃗1
(a) m u2 + 2 m2 u22 = 2 m1 v12 + 2 m1 v22 − ε
2 1 1
(b) = |v⃗2
|r⃗1 −r⃗2 | 2 ⃗ 1|
−v
1 1 1 1
(b) 2 m1 u12 + 2 m2 u22 − ε = 2 m1 v12 + 2 m1 v22 (c) r1 . v
⃗ 1 = r2 . v
⃗2
1 1 1 1
(c) 2 m12 u12 + 2 m22 u22 + ε = 2 m12 v12 + 2 m22 v22 (d) r1 . v
⃗ 1 = r2 . v
⃗2
1 1
(d) m12 u1 + m22 u2 − ε = m12 v12 + m22 v22
2 2 ⃗A = cosωtî + sin ωtĵ ⃗B =
29. If vectors and
ωt ωt
cos 2
î + sin 2
ĵ are functions of time, then
25. The heart of a man pumps 5 litres of blood the value of t at which they are orthogonal
through the arteries per minute at a to each other are: (2015 Re)
pressure of 150 mm of mercury. If the (a) t = 0
density of mercury be 13.6 × 103 kg/m3 and (b) t =
π
4ω
g = 10m/s2 , then the power of heart in watt π
(c) t =
is: (2015 Re) 2ω
π
(a) 1.50 (d) t =
ω
(b) 1.70
(c) 2.35 30. A body of mass (4m) is lying in x-y plane at
(d) 3.0
rest. It suddenly explodes into three pieces.
Two pieces, each of mass (m) move
26. On a frictionless surface, a block of mass M perpendicular to each other with equal
moving at speed v collides elastically with speeds (v). The total kinetic energy
another block of same mass M which is generated due to explosion is (2014)

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
initially at rest. After collision the first block (a) mv 2
moves at an angle θ to its initial direction (b)
3
mv 2
2
and has a speed v/3. The second block’s
(c) 2 mv 2
speed after the collision is: (2015 Re)
(d) 4 mv 2
√3
(a) v
2
2√2
(b) v 31. A uniform force of (3î + ĵ) newton acts on a
2
3 particle of mass 2 kg. Hence the particle is
(c) v
4
3
displaced from position (2î + ĵ) metre to
(d) v position (4î + 3ĵ − k̂ ) metre. The work done
√2
by the force on the particle is: (2013)
27. A ball is thrown vertically downwards from (a) 15 J
a height of 20 m with an initial velocity u0 It (b) 9 J
collides with the ground, loses 50 percent of (c) 6 J
its energy in collision and rebounds to the (d) 13 J
same height. The initial velocity u0 is: (Take
g = 10 ms −2) (2015 Re) 32. The upper half of an inclined plane of
(a) 10 m/s inclination θ is perfectly smooth while lower
(b) 14 m/s half is rough. A block starting from rest at
(c) 20 m/s the top of the plane will again come to rest
(d) 28 m/s at the bottom, if the coefficient of friction
between the block and lower half of the
28. Two particles A and B, move with constant plane is given by: (2013)
motion in one dimensional with velocities v ⃗1 (a) μ = tan θ
1
and v⃗ 2 . At the initial moment their position (b) μ = tan θ
vectors are r1 and r2 respectively. The (c) μ = tan θ
2

condition for particle A and B for their

(d) μ = 2 tan θ
collision is: (2015 Re)
(a) r1 − r2 = v ⃗1 −v
⃗2

30
33. Small object of uniform density rolls up a (a) Disc
curved surface with an initial velocity v. It (b) Ring
3v2 (c) Solid sphere
reaches up to a maximum height of with
4g (d) Hollow sphere
respect to the initial position. The object is
(2013)

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ

31
 Answer Key
S1. Ans. (a)
S18. Ans. (c)
S2. Ans. (b)

S3. Ans. (b) S19. Ans. (d)

S4. Ans. (a) S20. Ans. (a)

S5. Ans. (b) S21. Ans. (d)

S6. Ans. (b) S22. Ans. (b)

S7. Ans. (c) S23. Ans. (d)

S8. Ans. (c) S24. Ans. (b)

S9. Ans. (d) S25. Ans. (b)

S26. Ans. (b)

S10. Ans. (b)

S27. Ans. (c)

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
S11. Ans. (c)

S28. Ans. (b)

S12. Ans. (d)

S29. Ans. (d)

S13. Ans. (d)

S30. Ans. (b)

S14. Ans. (a)

S31. Ans. (b)

S15. Ans. (d)

S32. Ans. (d)

S16. Ans. (a)

S33. Ans. (a)

S17. Ans. (d)

32
 Solutions
S1. Ans. (a) Hint: From law of conservation of momentum
Potential energy stored in the spring
1 we have
= 𝑘𝑥 2
2 m1 u1 = m1 v1 + m2 v2
1
Now 2 𝑘(2)2 = 𝑈 m2 u2 = m1 u1 + m1 v1 …………………(1)
1
& 2 𝑘(8)2 = 𝑈′ (say) From the law of conservation of K.E. we have
64
⇒ 𝑈′ = 𝑈 = 16 𝑈 1
m u2
1 1
= 2 m1 v12 + 2 m2 v22 ……………(2)
4 2 1 1

Rewriting (1) as
S2. Ans. (b)
1 𝑢 2 1 m2 v2 = m1 (u1 − v1 ) ……………..(3)
𝑚 ( ) − 𝑚𝑢2 = −𝐹𝑅 × 24
2 3 2 Rewriting (2) as
1 2
0 − 𝑚𝑢 = −𝐹𝑅 × 𝑑 m2 v22 = m1 (u12 − v12 ) ……………..(3)
2
1 2 Dividing (4) with (3)
2 𝑚𝑢 =
𝑑
1 2 8 24 v2 = u1 + v1 ………………………..(5)
2 𝑚𝑢 × 9
9 eliminating v2 from (1) and (5) we get
𝑑 = 24 × = 27 𝑐𝑚
8 m1 u1 −m1 v1
= u1 + v1
m2
S3. Ans. (b) m −m
Constant velocity ⇒ 𝑎 = 0 (m1 +m2 ) u1 = v1 ………………………(6)

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
1 2
⇒𝑇 =𝑊+𝑓
Fraction of KE of m1 carried by m2 is
= 20000 + 3000
m −m 2 4m1 m2
= 23000 𝑁 1 − [m1 +m2 ] = (m 2
1 2 1 +m2 )

This is also equal to the fractional transfer of KE of

colliding body. Fractional transfer of KE of
colliding body
ΔKE 4 (m1 m2 )2
KE
= (m1 +m2 )
⇒ Power = 𝑇𝑣
4(4m)2m
= 23000 × 1.5 = (4m+2m)2
= 34500 watts
32m2 8
= =
36m2 9
S4. Ans. (a)
This fractional transfer is equal to the fraction of
Hint: E = mgh
energy lost by A
mgh
Pinput = t
15×10×60 S7. Ans. (c)
= 1
= 9000 = 9kw
Hint: Now, at point P from figure
10% loss = 0.9 × 103
Pinput = 9 × 103 − 0.9 × 103 = 8.1 kw

S5. Ans. (b)

Hint: According to the given question
2
(√7gr)
T − mg = m
r
mv2
⇒ T = 8 mg T − mg cosθ = r
mv2
S6. Ans. (b) ∴ T = mg cosθ + r

33
 r−h
From figure, cosθ = r
S11. Ans. (c)
So T will be maximum when cos q will be 1
Hint: Apply work energy theorem
r−h
∴ r
=1 Wall force = K f − K i
⇒h=0 W(conservative) + W(non conservative) = K f − K i
The tension is maximum when the mass is at the
lowest position of the verticle circle, so the chance
of breaking is maximum.

S8. Ans. (c) Wg = mgh

Hint: Work done by variable force is = 10−3 × 10 × 103
y
W = ∫y f Fdy = 10 J
i
1
Here, yi = 0, yf = 1 m (U1 − U2 ) + Wfr = mv 2 − 0 [K i = 0, u = 0]
2
1 1
∴ W = ∫0 (20 + 10y)dy = [20 + 5y 2 ]10 = 25 J mgh + Wfr = 2 mv 2 [U2 = 0]
1
10−30 × 10 × 1000 + Wfr = 2 × 10−3 × (50)2
S9. Ans. (d)
Hint: To complete verticle circle minimum 10 + Wfr = 1.25
velocity required at lowest point of circle is √5gr ↓

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
so by Work done by gravitational force
1 D Wfr = −8.25 J
mgh = 2 mv 2 r= 2
1 D
mgh = 2 m × 5g 2 S12. Ans. (d)
h=
5D
Hint:
4

S10. Ans. (b)

1 Fext = 0
Hint: Spring constant K ∝
ℓ
⃗ = constant
P
Where ℓ = natural length of spring
P2 1
c K. E. = ⇒ K. E. ∝
K= ℓ
c = constant 2m m
3E
It is cut into lengths of ratio 1 : 2 : 3 then ratio of ∴ K. E2M = 5
spring constant,
c
∶
c
∶
c
⇒1∶
1 1
∶
1 S13. Ans. (d)
1 2 3 2 3 1
K.E mv2
K1 : K 2 : K 3 ⇒ 6 ∶ 3 ∶ 2 Hint: Power = t
=2 t
Now, v = √t
parallel combination ds 1
= t2
dt
K = 6K + 3K +2K ⇒ K = 11 K 1
1 1 1 1 ds = t 2 dt
K′
= 6K
+ 2K
+ 3K
3
3
1 1 (3+2) 1 1 2t2
= + =⇒ = s= 3
⇒ s ∝ t2
K′ 6K 6K K′ K

K =K′ Slope of x -t graph is +ve.

K′ K K′ 1
= 11K ⇒ K" = 11
K" S14. Ans. (a)
34
 Hint: s = rf − ri = 2î − ĵ + 3k̂ mgh
= mL
4
⃗ . s = (4î + 3ĵ ). [2î − j + 3k̂]
W=F 4L 4×3.4×105
h= = = 136 km
g 10
= 8 − 3 = 5J

S19. Ans. (d)

S15. Ans. (d)
Hint: Minimum velocity required at different
Hint: Since both bodies are identical and collision
points to complete full vertical circle
is elastic. Therefore velocities will be interchanged
after collision.
vA = −0.3 m/s and vB = 0.5 m/s

S16. Ans. (a)

Hint: AB = 5 m
S20. Ans. (a)
1 1 10
Hint: 2 mv 2 = E → 2 (1000) v 2 = 8 × 10−4
16
v 2 = (8 × 10−4 )200 = 100 ms−1
4
v= ms −1
10
Apply conservation of linear momentum Now applying v 2 − u2 = 2as

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
mu + 0 = mv + Mv 4 2
(10) = 2a(4πR); [s = 4πR = 2 (2πR)]
10 10
100
× 400 + 0 = 100 v + 2V 16 6.4
100
= 2a (4π 100)
0.01v + 2V = 4 … … … . (1)
16 7×100
PE = KE a= ×[ ] = 0.1 m/s2
100 8×22×6.4
1
MgH = × MV 2
2
S21. Ans. (d)
10 1 2
2 × 10 × 100
= ×2×v
2 Hint: P = Fv = mav
2 dv
⇒V =2 ⇒k=m
dt
v = √2 ms−1 By integrating the equation
Substituting the value of V in Eq. (1), we get k
⇒ ∫ vdv = ∫ dt
v m
+ 2√2 = ⇒ v = (4 − 2√2)100
100
v2 k 2kt
≃ 120 ms−1 ⇒ 2
= mt ⇒ v = √ m

dv 2k 1 −1
S17. Ans. (d) a= =√ ( t2)
dt m 2

⃗ = 2tî + 3t 2 ĵ
Hint: F 1 2k mk mk −1
F = ma = m(2) √ m ⇒ F = √ 2t = √ 2
t2
̅
dv
m dt = 2tî + 3t 2 ĵ
̅
v t
∫0 dv̅ = ∫0 (2tî + 3t 2 ĵ)dt = t 2 î + t 3 ĵ S22. Ans. (b)
Power = F̅. V
̅ = (2t 3 + 3t 5 )W Hint: Given K P > K Q
Case (a) : x1 = x2 = x
S18. Ans. (c) WP
1
KP x2 K
= 12 = K P ⇒ WP > WQ
Hint: The potential energy gets converted into WQ
2
KQ x2 Q

heat and only one quarter of it is absorbed by ice. Case (b): F1 = F2 = F

35
 For constant force S27. Ans. (c)
F2 1 Hint: Let ball rebounds with speed V so
W = 2K ⇒ W ∝ K
WP K v = √2gh = √2 × 10 × 20 = 20 m/s
So, WQ
= KQ ⇒ WQ > WP
P Energy just after rebound
1
E = 2 × m × v 2 = 200 m
S23. Ans. (d)
F = -0.1 x J/m 50% energy loses in collision means just before
collision energy is 400 J By using energy
According to Work Energy theorem Work done by
conservation
all force = K f − K i
1
∫ F. dx = K f − K i 2
mv02 + mgh = 400 J
30 1 1
∫20 −0.1x dx = K f − 2 × mu2 ⇒ 2 mv02 + m × 10 × 20 = 400 m

x2
30
1 ⇒ v0 = 20 ms−1
(−)0.1 [ ] = K f − × 10 × 102
2 20 2
1
[x 2 ]20
30 = K f − 500 S28. Ans. (b)
10×2
Hint: For two particles to collide, the
Limit inverse to make –ve to positive
direction of the relative velocity of one with
1
20
× [400 − 900] = K f − 500 respect to other should be directed
500 towards the relative position of the other
− = K f − 500

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
20 particle
K f = 500 − 25 = 475J r⃗1 −r⃗2
i.e. |r⃗1 −r⃗2 |
→ direction of relative position of
S24. Ans. (b) 1
Hint: Energy will always be conserved so w.r.t 2. And
⃗v1 −v⃗2
→direction velocity of 2
|v ⃗ 2|
⃗ 1 −v
K. E.initial = K. E.final + Excitation energy w.r.t. 1
1 1 1 1
m u2
2 1 1
+ m u2
2 2 2
= m v2
2 1 1
+ m v2
2 2 2
+ε So for collision of A and B
r⃗1 −r⃗2 ⃗ −v
v ⃗
|r⃗1 −r⃗2 |
= |v⃗1 −v⃗2 |
S25. Ans. (b) 1 2

Hint: Pressure = 150 mm Hg

S29. Ans. (d)
dV 5×10−3 3
Pumping rate = dt
= 60
m /s Hint: ⃗A. ⃗B = 0
dV dV ωt ωt
Power of heart = P. dt = ρgh × dt
cosωtcos + sin ωt sin =0
2 2
5×10−3 ωt ωt
= (13.6 × 103 kg /m3 ) (10) × (0.15) × cos (ωt −
2
) = 0 ⇒ cos
2
=0
60
13.6×5×0.15 ωt π π
= 6
= = 1.72 watt ⇒
2
=
2
⇒t=
ω

S26. Ans. (b)

S30. Ans. (b)
Hint: In elastic collision energy of system
Hint:
remains same
(K. E)before collision = (K. E)after collision
Let speed of second body after collision is
V
1 1 v 2 1 2√2
2
mv 2 + 0 = 2 m (3) + 2 m(v ′ )2 ⇒ v ′ = 3
v

36
 Let = (3î + ĵ). (2î + 3ĵ − 2k̂) ⇒ 3(2) + 1(3) +
⃗ , be velocity of third piece of mass 2m.
v 0(−2) = 9J
Initial momentum, p
⃗ 1 = 0 (As the body is
rest) S32. Ans. (d)
Final momentum, p ⃗’
⃗ 1 = mvî + mvĵ + 2mv Hint:

According to law of conservation of

momentum
⃗i=p
p ⃗f
= mvî + mvĵ + 2mv
⃗
v v
⃗v ′ = − 2 î − 2 ĵ From Work Energy theorem (W = ΔK.E)
(mg sin θ) (2s) – (μmg cos θ) (s) = 0 – 0 ⇒
The magnitude of ⃗v ′ is μ = 2tan θ
v 2 v 2 v
v ′ = √(− 2) + (− 2) =
√2 S33. Ans. (a)
Total kinetic energy generated due to Hint: From conservation of mechanical
explosion energy
1 1 1 K2
= mv 2 + mv 2 + (2m)v 2 1
= 2 mv 2 (1 + R2 ) = mgh
2 2 2
1 1 1 v 2 K2 3v2
= mv 2 + mv 2 + (2m) ( ) 1
⇒ mv 2 (1 + ) = mg ( )
2 2 2 √2

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
2 R2 4g
mv2 3 K2
= mv 2 + 2
= 2 mv 2 = R2 = 2
1

∴ The object is a Disc

S31. Ans. (b)
Hint: W = ⃗F. ⃗S = (3î + ĵ). [(4 − 2)î + (3 − 0)ĵ +
(−1 − 1)k]

37
 Chapter 6
Sankalp Bharat
System of Particles and Rotational Motion

1. The angular acceleration of a body, moving (b) 4 ∶ 1

along the circumference of a circle, is: (c) 1 ∶ √2
(2023) (d) 2 ∶ 1
(a) along the axis of rotation
(b) along the radius, away from centre
6. A uniform rod of length 200 cm and mass
(c) along the radius towards the centre
500 g is balanced on a wedge placed at 40
(d) along the tangent to its position
cm mark. A mass of 2 kg is suspended from
the rod at 20 cm and another unknown
2. The ratio of radius of gyration of a solid mass ‘m’ is suspended from the rod at 160
sphere of mass M and radius R about its cm mark as shown in the figure. Find the
own axis to the radius of gyration of the thin value of ‘m’ such that the rod is in
hollow sphere of same mass and radius equilibrium. (g = 10 m/s 2) (2021)
about its axis is: (2023)
(a) 5 : 2
(b) 3 : 5
(c) 5 : 3 1
(a) kg
(d) 2 : 5

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
3
1
(b) kg
6
1
3. Two objects of mass 10 𝑘𝑔 and 20 𝑘𝑔 (c) 12
kg
1
respectively are connected to the two ends (d) kg
2
of a rigid rod of length 10 𝑚 with negligible
mass. The distance of the center of mass of
the system from the 10 𝑘𝑔 mass is: (2022) 7. Find the torque about the origin when a
20 force of 3ĵ N acts on a particle whose
(a) 𝑚
3 position vector is 2k̂ m (2020)
(b) 10 𝑚
(a) 6ĵ N m
(c) 5 𝑚
10
(b) −6ĵ N m
(d) 3
𝑚 (c) 6k̂ N m
(d) 6î N m

4. The angular speed on a fly wheel moving

with uniform angular acceleration changes 8. Two particles of mass 5 kg and 10 kg
from 1200 𝑟𝑝𝑚 to 3120 𝑟𝑝𝑚 in 16 seconds. respectively are attached to the two ends of
The angular acceleration in 𝑟𝑎𝑑/𝑠 2 is: a rigid rod of length 1 m with negligible
(2022) mass. The centre of mass of the system from
(a) 4𝜋 the 5 kg particle is nearly at a distance of :
(b) 2𝜋 (2020)
(c) 6𝜋 (a) 50 cm
(d) 8𝜋 (b) 67 cm
(c) 80 cm
5. The ratio of the radius of gyration of a thin (d) 33 cm
uniform disc about an axis passing through
its centre and normal to its plane to the 9. The angular speed of the wheel of a vehicle
radius of gyration of the disc about its is increased from 360 rpm to 1200 rpm in
diameter is: (2022) 14 second. Its angular acceleration is
(a) √2 ∶ 1
38
 (2020 Covid Re-NEET) simultaneously. The ratio K t : (K t + K r ) for
(a) 2π rad/s 2 the sphere is: (2018)
(b) 120 π rad/s 2 (a) 10 : 7
(c) 1 π rad/s 2 (b) 5 : 7
(d) 2π rad/s 2 (c) 7 : 10
(d) 2 : 5

10. Three identical spheres, each of mass M,

are placed at the corners of a right angle 14. A solid sphere is rotating freely about its
triangle with mutually perpendicular sides symmetry axis in free space. The radius of
equal to 2 m (see figure). Taking the point of the sphere is increased keeping its mass
intersection of the two mutually same. Which of the following physical
perpendicular sides as the origin, find the quantities would remain constant for the
position vector of centre of mass. sphere? (2018)
(2020 Covid Re-NEET) (a) Rotational kinetic energy
(b) Moment of inertia
(c) Angular velocity
(d) Angular momentum

15. Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin

(a) (î + ĵ) circular disk) and C : (a circular ring), each
2 have the same mass M and radius R. They

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
(b) (î + ĵ)
3
4 all spin with the same angular speed ω
(c) (î + ĵ)
3 about their own symmetry axes. The
(d) 2(î + ĵ) amounts of work (W) required to bring them
to rest, would satisfy the relation (2018)
11. A disc of radius 2 m and mass 100 kg rolls (a) WB > WA > WC
(b) WA > WB > WC
on a horizontal floor. Its centre of mass has
(c) WC > WB > WA
speed of 20 cm/s. How much work is
(d) WA > WC > WB
needed to stop it? (2019)
(a) 3 J
(b) 30 kJ 16. The moment of the force, F ⃗ = 4î + 5ĵ − 6k̂ at
(c) 2 J (2, 0, −3), about the point (2, –2, –2) is given
(d) 1 J
by (2018)
(a) −7î − 8ĵ − 4k ̂
12. A solid cylinder of mass 2 kg and radius 4 (b) −4î − ĵ − 8k̂
cm is rotating about its axis at the rate of 3 (c) −8î − 4ĵ − 7k̂
rpm. The torque required to stop after 2π (d) −7î − 4ĵ − 8k̂
revolutions is (2019)
(a) 2 × 10 N m
−6
17. Which of the following statements are
(b) 2 × 10−3 N m
correct?
(c) 12 × 10−4 N m
(d) 2 × 10−6 N m (a) Centre of mass of a body always
coincides with the centre of gravity of
the body
13. . A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In (b) Centre of gravity of a body is the point
rolling motion a body possesses at which the total gravitational torque
translational kinetic energy (K t ) as well as on the body is zero
rotational kinetic energy (K r ) (c) A couple on a body produce both
translational and rotational motion in a
body.
39
 (d) Mechanical advantage greater than one rolling down an inclined plane of height 7 m
means that small effort can be used to is: (2017-Gujrat)
lift a large load (a) 42 J
(2017-Delhi) (b) 60 J
(a) (a) and (b) (c) 36 J
(b) (b) and (c) (d) 70 J
(c) (c) and (d)
(d) (b) and (d)
22. A light rod of length l has two masses
18. A rope is wound around a hollow cylinder of m1 and m2 attached to its two ends. The
mass 3 kg and radius 40 cm. What is the moment of inertia of the system about an
angular acceleration of the cylinder if the axis perpendicular to the rod and passing
rope is pulled with a force of 30 N? through the centre of mass is: (2016 - II)
(2017-Delhi) (a) (m1 + m2 )ℓ2
(a) 0.25 rad/s 2 (b) √m1 m2 ℓ2
m m
(b) 25 rad/s 2 (c) m 1 m2 ℓ2
1+ 2
(c) 5 m/s2 m1 + m2 2
(d) ℓ
(d) 25 m/s2 m1 m2

19. Two discs of same moment of inertia 23. A solid sphere of mass m and radius R is
rotating about their regular axis passing rotating about its diameter. A solid cylinder
of the same mass and same radius is also

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
through centre and perpendicular to the
plane of disc with angular velocities ω1 and rotating about its geometrical axis with an
ω2 . They are brought into contact face to angular speed twice that of the sphere. The
face coinciding the axis of rotation. The ratio of their kinetic energies of rotation
expression for loss of energy during this Esphere /Ecylinder will be: (2016 - II)
process is: (2017-Delhi) (a) 1 : 4
1 (b) 3 : 1
(a) I(ω1 − ω2 )2
4 (c) 2 : 3
(b) I(ω1 − ω2 )2 (d) 1 : 5
1
(c) I(ω1 − ω2 )2
8
1
(d) I(ω1 − ω2 )2
2 24. Two rotating bodies A and B of masses m
and 2m with moments of inertia IA and IB
20. A thin uniform rod of mass ‘M’ and length (IB > IA ) have equal kinetic energy of
‘L’ is rotating about a perpendicular axis rotation. If LA and LB be their angular
passing through its centre with a constant momenta respectively, then: (2016 - II)
angular velocity ‘ω’. Two objects each of (a) LB > LA
M (b) LA > LB
mass are attached gently to the two ends LB
3 (c) LA =
of the rod. The rod will now rotate with an 2
(d) LA = 2LB
angular velocity of: (2017-Gujrat)
1
(a) 3
ω
(b)
1
ω 25. A rigid ball of mass m strikes a rigid wall at
7
1 60° and gets reflected without loss of speed
(c) 6
ω as shown in the figure below. The value of
1
(d) ω impulse imparted by the wall on the ball will
2
be: (2016 - II)

21. The rotational kinetic energy of a solid

sphere of mass 3 kg and radius 0.2 m

40
 (a) 3mr 2
16
(b) 5
mr 2
mV
(a) 2 (c) 4mr 2
mV 11
(b) (d) mr 2
23 5
(c) mV
(d) 2mV
29. Two spherical bodies of mass M and 5M and
radii R and 2R are released in free space
26. In the given figure, a = 15 m/s2 represents with initial separation between their centers
the total acceleration of a particle moving in equal to 12R. If they attract each other due
the clockwise direction in a circle of radius to gravitational force only, then the distance
R = 2.5 m at a given instant of time. The covered by the smaller body before collision
speed of the particle is: (2016 - II) is: (2015)
(a) 4.5R
(b) 7.5R
(c) 1.5R

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
(d) 2.5R

(a) 5.7 m/s 30. A rod of weight W is supported by two

(b) 6.2 m/s parallel knife edges A and B and is in
(c) 4.5 m/s equilibrium in a horizontal position. The
(d) 5.0 m/s knives are at a distance d from each other.
The center of mass of the rod is at distance
x from A. The normal reaction on A is:
27. . From a disc of radius R and mass M, a (2015)
circular hole of diameter R, whose rim Wd
(a)
passes through the centre is cut. What is x
W(d−x)
the moment of inertia of the remaining part (b)
x
of the disc about a perpendicular axis, (c)
W(d−x)
passing through the centre? (2016 - I) Wx
d

(a) 15MR /32

2 (d) d
(b) 13MR2 /32
(c) 11MR2 /32
(d) 9MR2 /32 31. A mass m moves in a circle on a smooth
horizontal plane with velocity v0 at a radius
R 0 . The mass is attached to a string which
28. Three identical spherical shells, each of passes through a smooth hole in the plane
mass m and radius r are placed as shown as shown
in figure. Consider an axis XXʹ which is
touching to two shells and passing through
diameter to third shell. Moment of inertia of
the system consisting of these three
spherical shells about XXʹ axis is: (2015) The tension in the string is increased
gradually and (2015)

41
 R0
Finally m moves in a circle of radius 2
.
35. The ratio of the accelerations for a solid
The final value of the kinetic energy is:
1 sphere (mass m and radius R) rolling down
(a) mv02
4 an incline of angle ‘θ’ without slipping and
(b) 2mv02 slipping down the incline without rolling is:
1
(c) 2
mv02 (2014)
(d) mv02 (a) 5 : 7
(b) 2 : 3
(c) 2 : 5
32. A force ⃗F = αî + 3ĵ + 9k̂ is acting at a point (d) 7 : 5
r = 2î − 6ĵ − 12k̂. The value of α for which
angular momentum about origin is
36. A solid cylinder of mass 50 kg and radius
conserved is: (2015 Re)
0.5 m is free to rotate about the horizontal
(a) 1
(b) -1 axis. A massless string is wound round the
(c) 2 cylinder with one end attached to it and
(d) Zero other hanging freely. Tension in the string
required to produce an angular acceleration
of 2 revolutions s-2 is: (2014)
33. Point masses m1 and m2 are placed at the (a) 25 N
opposite ends of a rigid rod of length L, and (b) 50 N
negligible mass. The rod is to be set rotating (c) 78.5 N

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
about an axis perpendicular to it. The (d) 157 N
position of point P on this rod through
which the axis should pass so that the work
37. A body of mass (4m) is lying in x-y plane at
required to set the rod rotating with angular
rest. It suddenly explodes into three pieces.
velocity ω0 is minimum, is given by
Two pieces each of mass (m) move
perpendicular to each other with equal
speeds (v). The total kinetic energy
generated due to explosion is: (2014)
(a) mv 2
3
(2015 Re) (b) 2
mv 2
m2 L
(a) x = m (c) 2 mv 2
1 +m2
m1 L (d) 4 mv 2
(b) x = m1 +m2
m1
(c) x = L
m2
m2
38. An explosion breaks a rock into three parts
(d) x = m1
L in a horizontal plane. Two of them go off at
right angles to each other. The first part of
mass 1 kg moves with a speed of 12 ms−1
34. An automobile moves on a road with a and the second part of mass 2 kg moves
speed of 54 km/h. The radius of its wheels with 8 ms−1 speed. If the third part flies off
is 0.45 m and the moment of inertia of the with 4 ms−1 speed, then its mass is: (2013)
wheel about its axis of rotation is 3 kgm2. If
(a) 17 kg
the vehicle is brought to rest in 15 s, the (b) 3 kg
magnitude of average torque transmitted by (c) 5 kg
its brakes to wheel is: (2015 Re) (d) 7 kg
(a) 2.86 kg m /s
2 2

(b) 6.66 kg m2/s2

(c) 8.58 kg m2/s2
(d) 10.86 kg m2/s2

42
39. A rod PQ of mass M and length L is hinged
at end P. The rod is kept horizontal by a
massless string tied to point Q as shown in
figure. When string is cut, the initial
angular acceleration of the rod is: (2013)

2g
(a) 3L
3g
(b) 2L
g
(c) L
2g
(d) L

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ

43
 Answer Key
S1. Ans. (a)
S22. Ans. (c)
S2. Ans. (None)

S3. Ans. (a) S23. Ans. (d)

S4. Ans. (a) S24. Ans. (a)

S5. Ans. (a)
S25. Ans. (c)
S6. Ans. (c)
S26. Ans. (a)
S7. Ans. (b)
S27. Ans. (b)
S8. Ans. (b)
S28. Ans. (c)
S9. Ans. (d)
S29. Ans. (b)
S10. Ans. (b)
S30. Ans. (c)
S11. Ans. (a)

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
S31. Ans. (b)
S12. Ans. (a)
S32. Ans. (b)
S13. Ans. (b)
S33. Ans. (a)
S14. Ans. (d)
S34. Ans. (b)
S15. Ans. (c)
S35. Ans. (a)
S16. Ans. (d)
S36. Ans. (d)
S17. Ans. (d)
S37. Ans. (b)
S18. Ans. (b)
S38. Ans. (c)
S19. Ans. (a)
S39. Ans. (b)
S20. Ans. (a)

S21. Ans. (b)

44
 Solutions
S1. The angular acceleration direction is given 2g × 20 = 0.5g × 60 + mg × 120
along angular velocity or opposite to
0.5 1
angular velocity depending upon whether m= 6
kg = 12 kg
angular velocity magnitude is increasing
or decreasing and this direction remains
along the axis of circular motion. S7. Ans. (b)
Hint: ⃗F = 3ĵN, r = 2k̂
S2. (None)
Radius of gyration of a solid surface, τ⃗ = r × ⃗F = 2k̂ × 3ĵ = 6(k̂ × ĵ)
2 = 6(−î)
𝐾𝑆 = √ 𝑅
5 τ⃗ = −6îNm
Radius of gyration of a hollow surface,
2 S8. Ans. (b)
𝐾𝐻 = √ 𝑅 Hint: For two bodies system
3
m1 x2 +m2 x2
𝐾𝑆 3 √3 xcm = m1 +m2
⇒ =√ =
𝐾𝐻 5 √5 =
5×0+100×10
=
200
= 66.66 cm
5+10 3

S3. Ans. (a)

20 × 10 20 S9. Ans. (d)
𝑋𝐶𝑀 = = 𝑚

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
20 + 10 3 360
Hint: ω0 = rps = 12π rads −1
60
1200
ω0 = 60
rps = 4π rads −1
ω = ω0 + αt
S4. Ans. (a) ⇒α=
ω−ω0
=
28π
= 2π rad s −2
t 14
𝜔 = 𝜔0 + 𝛼𝑡
𝜔 − 𝜔0
𝛼=
𝑡 S10. Ans. (b)
(3120 − 1200)
= 𝑟𝑝𝑚 Hint:
16 𝑠
1920 2𝜋
= × 𝑟𝑎𝑑/𝑠 2
16 60
= 4𝜋 𝑟𝑎𝑑/𝑠 2

S5. Ans. (a)

M×0+M×2+M×0 2
𝐼 X cm = 3M
=5
𝑘=√
𝑚 M×0+M×2+M×0 2
Ycm = 3M
=3
𝑘1 𝐼1 𝑚𝑅 2 /2 2 2 2
⇒ =√ =√ = √2 ∶ 1 Position vector = 3 î + 3 ĵ = 3 (î + ĵ)
𝑘2 𝐼2 𝑚𝑅 2 /4

S11. Ans. (a)

Hint: Work needed = change in kinetic
energy Final KE = 0
1 1 3
Initial KE = mv 2 + lω2 = mv 2
2 2 4
1
∵I= mr 2
( 2
S6. Ans. (c) v)
and ω =
Hint: By balancing torque r

45
 3
= 4 × 100 × (20 × 10−2 )2 = 3J Load > Effort

|ΔKE| = 3J
S18. Ans. (b)
Hint: Hollow cylinder is equivalent to ring
S12. Ans. (a)
Hint: θ = 2π revolution Iring = MR2

= 2π × 2π = 4π2 rad τ = Iα ……………………..(1)

3 3 τ = FR …………………….(2)
ωi = 2πf = 2π × 60 rad/s (∵ f = 60 s −1 )
Iα = FR
ωf = 0
mR2 α = FR ⇒ MRα = F
Work energy theorem. F 30
1 α = MR ⇒ 3×40×10−2 ⇒ α = 25 rad/s2
W= 2
l(ω2f − ω2i )
1 1
⇒ −τθ = × mt 2 (02 − ω2i ) S19. Ans. (a)
2 2
1 1 2 2π 2
× ×2(4×10−2 ) (−3× )
Hint: External torque = zero By
2 2 60
⇒ −τ = 4π2
conservation of angular momentum
⇒ τ = 2 × 10−6 Nm I1 ω1 + I2 ω2 = (I1 + I2 )ω
I1 = I2 = I
S13. Ans. (b) ω=
ω1 + ω2
1 2
mv2

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
Kf
Hint: =1 2
1
1
KE1 = Iω12 + Iω22
1
KT +KR mv2 + Iω2 2 2
2 2
1 1
2
mv2 5 KE2 = (2I)ω2
⇒1 1 2 v2
=7 2
mv2 + × mR2 ( 2)
2 2 5 R ω1 +ω2 2
KE2 = I [ 2
]
1
S14. Ans. (d) ΔKE = I[ω1 − ω2 ]2
2
Hint: As τext = 0 Angular momentum will
remain conserved S20. Ans. (a)
Hint: External torque is zero Angular
S15. Ans. (c) momentum conserved
Hint: From work energy theorem, to stop
I1 ω1 = I2 ω2
the system
ML2 ML2 M L 2 M L 2
1 ω =[ + [ ] + [ ] ] ω2
Wext = 2
Iω2 ⇒ Wext ∝ I 12 12 3 2 3 2
ω
IC > IB > IA ⇒ WC > WB > WA ω2 = 3

S16. Ans. (d) S21. Ans. (b)

Hint: τ⃗ = r × ⃗F 1 7
Hint: mgh = 2 [5 mR2 ] ω2 ……..(1)
τ⃗ = (0î + 2ĵ − k̂) × (4î + 5ĵ − 6k̂) 1 2
KErot = [ mR2 ] ω2 ……………(2)
2 5
τ⃗ = −7î − 4ĵ − 8k̂
by Eqs. (1) and (2)
2
S17. Ans. (d) KErot = 7 mgh
Hint: Centre of mass may lie on centre of 2
= 7 × 3 × 10 × 7 = 60 J
gravity net torque of gravitational pull is
zero about centre of mass.
Load S22. Ans. (c)
Mechanical advantage = Effort > 1
46
 Hint: IRemaing disc = Idisc − IRemoved
MR2 3 13
= 2
− 32 MR2 = 32 MR2

S28. Ans. (c)

m2 ℓ ml ℓ
r1 = ,r = Hint:
m1 +m2 m1 +m2
m1 m2 2
Icm = m1 r12 + m2 r22 = ℓ
m1 +m2

S23. Ans. (d)

1
Hint: K. Erotation = 2 Iω2
1 1 2 Ix ′x = I1 + I2 + I3
Esphere = I ω2
2 s
= ×
2 5
Mr 2 ×ω 2
2 2 2
mr 2 + (3 mr 2 + mr 2 ) + (3 mr 2 + mr 2 )
1 1 MR2 3
Ecylinder = I (2ω)2
2 c
= 2
× 2 × 4ω 2
(Using parallel axis theorem)
Esphere 1
Ecylinder
= 5
′
⇒ Ixx = 2m2 + 2mt 2 = 4mr 2

S24. Ans. (a) S29. Ans. (b)

L2A L2B Hint:
Hint: K A = K B ⇒ =
2IA 2IB

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
As IB > IA So, L2A < L2B ⇒ LA < LB ⇒ LB > LA

Initial distance between their centers =

S25. Ans. (c) 12R
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ | = |mΔV
Hint: Impulse = |ΔP ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ |

= m(2V cos 60°) = mV

S26. Ans. (a) At time of collision the distance between

v2
Hint: Centripetal acceleration = = their centers = 3R
R
a cos 30° So total distance travelled by both = 12R –
3R = 9R Since the bodies move under
√3
⇒ v = √aR cos 30° = √15 × 2.5 × 2
= 5.7 m/s mutual forces, center of
mass will remain stationary so
S27. Ans. (b) m1 x1 = m2 x2 ⇒ mx = 5m(9R − x)
Hint: x = 45R − 5x ⇒ 6x = 45R
45
x= 6
R = 7.5R

S30. Ans. (c)

Hint: By torque balancing about B
MR2 NA (d) = W(d − x)
Itotal disc = 2 W(d−x)
M ⇒ NA =
MRemoved = 4
(Mass ∝ area) d

IRemoved (about same Perpendicular axis)

R 2
M (2) M R 2 3MR2
= 4 2
+ ( )
4 2
= 31
47
S31. Ans. (b) a2 = g sin θ
Hint: Angular momentum remains Required ratio = a1 =
a 1
=
1 5
=7
K2 2
constant because of the torque of tension 2 1+ 2
R
1+
5

is zero
⇒ Li = Lf S36. Ans. (d)
⇒ mv0 R = mv 2
R Hint:

⇒ v = 2v0
1
KEf = 2 m(2v0 )2 = 2mv02

S32. Ans. (b) Here, mass of the cylinder, M = 50 kg

Hint: For conservation of angular Radius of the cylinder, R = 0.5 m
momentum about origin Angular acceleration, α = 2 rev s −2
∑ τ⃗net = 0 ⇒ r × ⃗F = 0 ⇒ α = −1 = 2 × 2π rad s −2 = 4π rad s −2
Torque τ = TR
S33. Ans. (a)
Moment of inertia of the solid cylinder
Hint: about its axis,
1
I = 2 MR2

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
∴ Angular acceleration of the cylinder
τ TR
α= =1
I MR2
2
The position of point P on rod through MRα 50×0.5×4π
which the axis should pass so that the T= 2
= 2
= 157 N
work required to set the rod rotating with
minimum angular velocity ω0 is their S37. Ans. (b)
center of mass so m1 x = m2 (L − x) Hint:
m2 L
⇒x= m1 +m2

S34. Ans. (b)

Hint: Velocity of the automobile
5
v = 54 × 18 = 15 ms−1 By conservation of linear momentum
v
v 15 100 2m1 = √2 mv ⇒ v1 =
ω0 = R = 0.45 = 3
rad/s √2
1 1
So angular acceleration Total K.E generated = mv 2 + mv 2 +
2 2
1
α=
Δω
=
ωf −ω0
=−
100
rad/s 2 (2m)v 2
4
t t 45
mv2 3
τ = Iα = 3 ×
100
= 6.66 kgm2 /s 2 = mv 2 + 2
= 2 mv 2
45

S35. Ans. (a) S38. Ans. (c)

Hint: For rolling motion without slipping Hint:
on inclined plane
g sin θ
a1 = K2
1+ 2
R

And for slipping motion on inclined plane

48
 L ML3 3g
τ = Iα ⇒ mg (2) = (3
)α ⇒ α = 2L

From conservation of momentum

m(4) = √(1 × 12)2 + (2 × 8)2 ⇒ m = 5 kg

S39. Ans. (b)

Hint:

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ

49
 Chapter 7
Sankalp Bharat
Gravitation

1. Two bodies of mass m and 9m are placed at (b) a) – ii); b) – iv); c) –iii); d) – i)
a distance R. The gravitational potential on (c) a) – iv); b) – ii); c) –i); d) – iii)
the line joining the bodies where the (d) a) – ii); b) – i); c) –iv); d) – iii)
gravitational field equals zero, will be (G =
gravitational constant): (2023) 5. A particle is released from height S from the
20𝐺𝑀
(a) − surface of the Earth. At a certain height its
𝑅
(b)
8𝐺𝑚
− 𝑅 kinetic energy is three times its potential
12𝐺𝑚 energy. The height from the surface of earth
(c) − 𝑅 and the speed of the particle at that instant
16𝐺𝑚
(d) − 𝑅 are respectively: (2021)
𝑆 √3𝑔𝑆
(a) ,
4 2
2. A satellite is orbiting just above the surface 𝑆 √3𝑔𝑆
(b) ,
of the earth with period T. If d is the density 2 2
𝑆 3𝑔𝑆
of the earth and G is the universal constant (c) ,√ 2
3𝜋 4
of gravitation, the quantity represents: 𝑆 3𝑔𝑆
𝐺𝑑 (d) ,
4 2

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
(2023)
(a) √𝑇
(b) 𝑇 6. The escape velocity from the Earth’s surface
(c) 𝑇2 is v. The escape velocity from the surface of
(d) 𝑇3 another planet having a radius, four times
that of Earth and same mass density is:
3. A body of mass 60 𝑔 experiences a (2021)
gravitational force of 3.0 𝑁, when placed at a (a) 2v
particular point. The magnitude of the (b) 3v
gravitational field intensity at that point is: (c) 4v
(d) v
(2022)
(a) 50 𝑁/𝑘𝑔
(b) 20 𝑁/𝑘𝑔 7. A particle of mass ‘m’ is projected with a
(c) 180 𝑁/𝑘𝑔 velocity 𝑣 = 𝑘𝑉𝑒(𝑘 < 1). from the surface of
(d) 0.05 𝑁/𝑘𝑔 the earth. The maximum height above the
surface reached by the particle is: (2021)
4. Match List-I with List-II: 𝑘 2
(a) 𝑅 ( )
1+𝑘
List I List II 𝑅2 𝑘
(b)
a) Gravitational constant i) [𝐿2 𝑇 −2 ] 1+𝑘
𝑅𝑘 2
(𝐺) (c) 1+𝑘
b) Gravitational potential ii) 𝑘 2
(d) 𝑅 (1−𝑘)
energy [𝑀−1 𝐿3 𝑇 −2 ]
c) Gravitational potential iii) [𝐿𝑇 −2 ]
d) Gravitational intensity iv) [𝑀𝐿2 𝑇 −2 ] 8. A body weighs 72 N on the surface of the
earth. What is the gravitation force on it, at
Choose the correct answer from the options a height equal to half the radius of the earth
given below: (2022) (2020)
(a) a) – ii); b) – iv); c) –i); d) – iii) (a) 32 N
50
 (b) 30 N (a) Time period of a simple pendulum on the
(c) 24 N Earth would decrease
(d) 48 N (b) Walking on the ground would become
more difficult
(c) Raindrops will fall faster.
9. What is the depth at which the value of (d) ‘g’ on the Earth will not change
acceleration due to gravity becomes 1/n
times the value that at the surface of earth? 14. The acceleration due to gravity at a height 1
(radius of earth = R)(2020 Covid Re-NEET) km above the earth is the same as at a
(a) R(n –1)/n depth d below the surface of earth. Then:
(b) Rn/(n –1) (2017-Delhi)
(c) R/n (a) 𝑑 = 1 𝑘𝑚
(d) 𝑅/𝑛2 3
(b) 𝑑 = 2 𝑘𝑚
(c) 𝑑 = 2 𝑘𝑚
1
10. A body weighs 200 N on the surface of the (d) 𝑑 = 𝑘𝑚
2
earth. How much will it weigh half way
15. Two astronauts are floating in gravitational
down to the centre of the earth? (2019)
free space after having lost contact with
(a) 150 N
their spaceship. The two will: (2017-Delhi)
(b) 200 N
(c) 250 N (a) Move towards each other
(d) 100 N (b) Move away from each other
(c) Will become stationary

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
(d) Keep floating at the same distance
11. The work done to raise a mass m from the between them
surface of the earth to a height h, which is
equal to the radius of the earth, is: (2019)
16. Imagine earth to be a solid sphere of mass
(a) mgR
M and radius R. If the value of acceleration
(b) 2mgR
1 due to gravity at a depth ‘d’ below earth’s
(c) 𝑚𝑔𝑅
2 surface is same as its value at a height ‘h’
3
(d) 2
𝑚𝑔𝑅 𝑔
above its surface and equal to (where g is
4
the value of acceleration due to gravity on
ℎ
12. The kinetic energies of a planet in an the surface of earth), the ratio of will be:
𝑑
elliptical orbit about the Sun, at positions (2017-Gujarat)
A, B and C are 𝐾𝐴 , 𝐾𝐵 and 𝐾𝐶 , respectively. (a) 1
AC is the major axis and SB is (b)
4
3
perpendicular to AC at the position of the 3
(c)
Sun S as shown in the figure. Then (2018) 2
2
(d) 3

(a) 𝐾𝐵 < 𝐾𝐴 < 𝐾𝐶 17. A satellite of mass m is in circular orbit of

(b) 𝐾𝐴 > 𝐾𝐵 > 𝐾𝐶 radius 3RE about earth (mass of earth 𝑀𝐸 ,
(c) 𝐾𝐴 < 𝐾𝐵 < 𝐾𝐶 radius of earth 𝑅𝐸 ). How much additional
(d) 𝐾𝐵 > 𝐾𝐴 > 𝐾𝐶 energy is required to transfer the satellite to
an orbit of radius 9𝑅𝐸 ? (2017-Gujarat)
𝐺𝑀𝐸 𝑚
13. If the mass of the Sun were ten times (a) 3𝑅𝐸
smaller and the universal gravitational 𝐺𝑀𝐸 𝑚
(b)
constant were ten times larger in 18𝑅𝐸
𝐺𝑀𝐸 𝑚
magnitude, which of the following is not (c) 2𝑅𝐸
correct ? (2018)
51
 (d)
𝐺𝑀𝐸 𝑚 21. At what height from the surface of earth the
9𝑅𝐸
gravitation potential and the value of g are
−5.4 × 10−7 𝐽 𝑘𝑔−2 and 6.0 𝑚𝑠 −2 respectively.
18. A satellite of mass m is orbiting the earth (of Take the radius of earth as 6400 km:
radius R) at a height h from its surface. The (2016 - I)
total energy of the satellite in terms of 𝑔0 , (a) 2600 km
the value of acceleration due to gravity at (b) 1600 km
the earth’s surface, is: (2016 - II) (c) 1400 km
(a)
2𝑚𝑔0 𝑅2 (d) 2000 km
𝑅+ℎ
2𝑚𝑔0 𝑅2
(b) −
𝑅+ℎ 22. Kepler’s third law states that square of
𝑚𝑔0 𝑅2
(c) period of revolution (T) of a planet around
𝑅(𝑅+ℎ)
𝑚𝑔0 𝑅2 the sun, is proportional to third power of
(d)
2(𝑅+ℎ) average distance r between sun and planet,
i.e., 𝑇 2 = 𝐾𝑟 3 here K is constant. If the
19. Starting from the center of the earth having masses of sun and planet are M and m
radius R, the variation of g (acceleration due respectively then as per Newton’s law of
to gravity) is shown by (2016 - II) gravitation force of attraction between them
(a) is 𝐹 =
𝐺𝑀𝑚
here G is gravitational constant.
𝑟2
The relation between G and K is described
as: (2015)

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
(a) 𝐺𝑀𝐾 = 4𝜋 2

(b) 𝐾 = 𝐺
1
(b) (c) 𝐾 = 𝐺
(d) 𝐺𝑀 = 4𝜋 2

23. A remote-sensing satellite of earth revolves

(c) in a circular orbit at a height of 0.25 × 106 m
above the surface of earth. If earth’s radius
is 6.38 × 106 𝑚 and 𝑔 = 9.8 𝑚/𝑠 2 , then the
orbital speed of the satellite is: (2015 Re)
(a) 6.67 km/s
(b) 7.76 km/s
(d) (c) 8.56 km/s
(d) 9.13 km/s

24. A satellite S is moving in an elliptical orbit

around the earth. The mass of the satellite
20. The ratio of escape velocity at earth (𝑣𝑒 ) to is very small compared to the mass of the
the escape velocity at a planet (𝑣𝑝 ) whose earth. Then: (2015 Re)
radius and mean density are twice as that (a) The acceleration of S is always directed
of earth is: (2016 - I) towards the center of the earth
(a) 1 : 2 (b) The angular momentum of S about the
(b) 1 ∶ 2 √2 center of the earth changes in direction,
(c) 1 : 4 but its magnitude remains constant.
(d) 1: 2 (c) The total mechanical energy of S varies
periodically with time.
(d) The linear momentum of S remains
constant in magnitude
52
 escape from it. To what approximate radius
25. Dependence of intensity of gravitational would earth (mass = 5.98 × 1024 𝑘𝑔) have to
field (E) of earth with distance (r) from be compressed to be a black hole? (2014)
center of earth is correctly represented by: (a) 10−2 𝑚
(2014) (b) 10−6 𝑚
(a) (c) 10 𝑚
(d) 100 𝑚

27. Infinite number of bodies, each of mass 2 kg

are situated on x-axis at distance 1 m, 2 m,
(b) 4 m, 8 m, ..... respectively, from the origin.
The resulting gravitational potential due to
this system at the origin will be: (2013)
(a) −4𝐺
(c) (b) −𝐺
8
(c) − 3 𝐺
4
(d) − 3 𝐺

28. A body of mass ‘m’ taken from the earth’s

surface to the height equal to twice the

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
(d) radius (R) of the earth. The change in
potential energy of body will be: (2013)
(a) 1/3 mgR
(b) 2 mgR
(c) 2/3 mgR
(d) 3 mgR

26. A black hole is an object whose gravitational

field is so strong that even light cannot

53
 Answer Key
S1. Ans. (d)
S16. Ans. (b)
S2. Ans. (c)
S17. Ans. (d)
S3. Ans. (a)
S18. Ans. (d)
S4. Ans. (a)

S5. Ans. (a) S19. Ans. (d)

S6. Ans. (c) S20. Ans. (b)

S21. Ans. (a)

S7. Ans. (d)
S22. Ans. (a)
S8. Ans. (a)
S23. Ans. (b)
S9. Ans. (a)
S24. Ans. (a)
S10. Ans. (d)
S25. Ans. (a)
S11. Ans. (c)

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
S26. Ans. (a)
S12. Ans. (b)

S13. Ans. (d) S27. Ans. (a)

S14. Ans. (c) S28. Ans. (c)

S15. Ans. (a)

54
 Solutions
S1. Ans. (d) 3gs √3gs
V=√ 4
= 4

S6. Ans. (c)

2GM 2G 4
Let the gravitational field is zero at a distance Hint: Ve = √ = √ R × 3 πR3ρ
R
𝑥 from the mass 𝑚.
𝐺𝑚 𝐺9𝑚 8πGρ
2
= =√ R
𝑥 (𝑅 − 𝑥)2 3
𝑅
⇒ 𝑅 − 𝑥 = 3𝑥 or 𝑥 = 4 ⇒ Ve ∞R
𝑅
Gravitational potential at 4R
4
𝐺𝑚 𝐺9𝑚 ⇒ Ve /υ = R
⇒ Ve = 4v
=− −
𝑅 3𝑅
4 4
4𝐺𝑚 12𝐺𝑚 S7. Ans. (d)
=− − GMn 1 GMm
𝑅 𝑅 Hint: +2 mk 2 Ve2 =
16𝐺𝑚 R r
=− GMn 1 2GMm GMn
𝑅 − R
+ 2 mk 2 R = r
S2. Ans. (c) − +
1 k2
=−
1
Time period of satellite R R r
1 1 k2

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
𝑅3 = −
r R R
𝑇 = 2𝜋√
𝐺𝑀 1 1−k2
r
= R
𝑅3 R
= 2𝜋√ r = 1−k2
4
𝐺𝑑 3 𝜋𝑅 3

3𝜋 S8. Ans. (a)

⇒𝑇=√ Hint: ws = mg s = 72 N
𝐺𝑑
72
mgs 72N 9
S3. Ans. (a) wh = mg h = h 2
= R 2
=
(1+ ) 4
𝐹 R (1+ 2 )
2
𝐼𝑔 =
𝑚
3 Wh = 32 N
= = 50 𝑁/𝑘𝑔
60 × 10−3
S9. Ans. (a)
S4. Ans. (a)
Gravitational constant = [𝑀−1 𝐿3 𝑇 −2 ] Hint: Inside the earth at depth d from the
Gravitational potential energy = [𝑀𝐿2 𝑇 −2 ] surface
Gravitational potential = [𝐿2 𝑇 −2 ] d g d
g eff = g (1 − R) ⇒ n = g (1 − R)
Gravitational intensity = [𝐿𝑇 −2 ]
(n−1)R
⇒d=
S5. Ans. (a) n

Hint: PE + KE = mgs
S10. Ans. (d)
At given point
Hint:
KE = 3PE
So, 4PE = mgs
H = s/4
3mgs 1
KE = KE = 4
= 2 mV 2

55
 S14. Ans. (c)
Hint: Acceleration due to gravity at height
1 km above earth surface
2R
ah = g [1 − ]
R
2×1
= g [1 − ]
Acceleration due to gravity at a depth d R

from surface of earth = g [1 − R]

2

d
g ′ = g (1 − R) ………………..(1) Acceleration due to gravity at depth ‘d’
Here g = acceleration due to gravity at below earth surface
earth’s surface Multiplying by mass ‘m’ on ad = g [1 − R]
d

both sides of a.
ah = ad
d R
mg ′ = mg (1 − ) ; (∵ d = ) 2 d
R 2
g [1 − R] = g [1 − R]
R 200
= 200 (1 − 2R) = = 100 N
2 d = 2 km

S11. Ans. (c) S15. Ans. (a)

Hint: Hint: Since two astronauts are floating in

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
gravitational free space, the only force
acting on the two astronauts is the
gravitational pull of their masses
Gm1 m2
Initial potential energy F= r2

Ui =
−GMn which is attractive in nature. Hence they
R move towards each other.
Final potential energy at height h = R
−GMn
Uf = S16. Ans. (b)
(R+R)
d
As work done = Change in PE Hint: g d = g [1 − R]
g
∴ W = Uf − Ui gd = 4
GMm gR2 m mgR
= = = (∵ GM = gR2 ) g
= g [1 − R]
d
2R 2R 2 4
d 3
=4 ………(1)
S12. Ans. (b) R
2
Hint: As angular momentum is conserved g h = g [R+h]
R

mvr = constant so vA > vB > vC

g
gh = 4
hence
g R 2
KA > KB > KC = g [R+h]
4
h
S13. Ans. (d) R
= 1 ……………..(2)
Hint: If universal constant becomes 10 From Eqs. (1) and (2), we get
times, then on earth surface
d 3 h 4
GM ′ h
=4 d
=3
g= R2
G = 10 G
10GM
g ′ = 10 R2
g ′ = 10g S17. Ans. (d)
So g on earth surface will change Hint: Satellite in a orbit of radius R
56
 GMc m
TE = − 2RE
8
Vp = √3 πG2d(2R)2 ∵ dp = 2d, R p = 2R
When satellite in a orbit of radii 3R E Ve 1 1
= ⇒
GM m Vp √8 2√2
TE1 = − 2(3Rc )
E

When satellite in a orbit of radii 9R E S21. Ans. (a)

−GMc m Hint:
TE2 =
2(9RE )

ΔTE = TE2 − TE1

GMc m GMc m
=− 18RE
− [− 6RE
]
GMc m 1 1
= [6 − 18]
RE
Gravitational Potential
GMc m
= −GM
9RE = = −5.4 × 107 J Kg −2 ……………(1)
R+h
GM
g = (R+h)2 = 6 m/s 2………………………(2)
S18. Ans. (d)
Hint: 5.4×107
(1)/(2) = (R + h) = 6
= 0.9 × 107 m
= 9000 km
H = 9000 km – 6400 km = 2600 km

PE = −
GMm
R+h
ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ S22. Ans. (a)
Hint: Tp2 = Kr 3

2πr
Given …………(1)

GM
2 Tplanet = [∵ Vp = √ ]
1 GM Vp r
KE = 2 m [√R+h]
1
2πr.r2
GMm =
KE = 2(R+h) √GM
3
2πr2
TE =
−GMm
+
GMn Tp = …………………………………(2)
R+h 2[R+h] √GM

−GMn R2 GM Squaring Eq. (2), we have

= 2(R+h)R2 [∵ g = R2
]
4π2 r3
TP2 =
−g0mR2 GM
= 2[R+h] 4π2 r3 4π2
Kr 3 = GM
⇒ K= GM

S19. Ans. (d)

GMe S23. Ans. (b)
Hint: g = ( R3e
)r for 0 < r ≤ R e ⇒ g ∝ r
Hint: For the satellite revolving around
g=
GMe
for r > R e ⇒ g ∝
1 earth
r2 r2
GMe GMe gR
v0 = √(R √R h =√ h
S20. Ans. (b) e +h) e (+R ) 1+
e Re

Hint: g [in terms of mean density]

Substituting the values
4πGdR
= ⇒ Ve = √2gR
3 v0 = √60 × 606 m/s
4
Ve = √2 × 3 πGdR. R v0 = 7.76 × 103 m/s = 7.76 km/s

8
Ve = √3 πGdR2 S24. Ans. (a)
Hint:
57
 Acceleration due to earth to the satellite is S26. Ans. (a)
centripetal, hence directed towards 2GM
centre. Angular momentum conservation Hint: Escape velocity (νe ) = √ =c=
R
holds good for comparable masses but speed of light
Mearth ≫ Msatelite 2GM 2×6.6×10−11 ×5.98×1024
⇒R= c2
= (3×108 )2
m

S25. Ans. (a) = 10−2 m

Hint: Gravitational field intensity
−GM S27. Ans. (a)
⃗E =
R2 1 1 1 1
Hint: V = −G(2) [1 + 2 + 4 + 8 + ⋯ . . ]
−GMr
For a point inside the earth E = R3 Because it forms geometric progression
−GM
For a point inside the earth E = rn −1 1
R2 SGP = r−1
; r=2
Where –ve sign indicates the attractive 1 n
( ) −1 −1
gravitational field 2
−1⁄ = −1⁄ = 2
2 2

∴ V = −2G × SGP
= −2G × 2 = −4G

S28. Ans. (c)

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
GMm GMm
Accurate graph to show variation of E Hint: Change in P.E. = − − (− )
3R R
with r =
2 GMm
=
2
mgR
3 R 3

58
 Chapter 8
Sankalp Bharat
Mechanical Properties of Solids

1. Let a wire be suspended from the ceiling the wire changes to 𝐿1 when mass M is
(rigid support) and stretched by a weight W suspended from its free end. The expression
attached at its free end. The longitudinal for Young’s modulus is : (2020)
stress at any point of cross-sectional area A (a)
𝑀𝑔(𝐿1 −𝐿)
𝐴𝐿
of the wire is: (2023) 𝑀𝑔𝐿
(b)
(a) Zero 𝐴𝐿1
2𝑊 𝑀𝑔𝐿
(b) (c) 𝐴(𝐿1 −𝐿)
𝐴
𝑊 𝑀𝑔𝐿1
(c) 𝐴
(d) 𝐴𝐿
𝑊
(d)
2𝐴

5. When a block of mass M is suspended by a

2. Given below are two statements. One is long wire of length L, the length of the wire
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is becomes (L + l). The elastic potential energy
labelled as Reason (R). stored in the extended wire is (2019)
Assertion (A): The stretching of a spring is (a) Mgl
determined by the shear modulus of the (b) 𝑀𝑔𝐿

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
1
material of the spring. (c) 2 𝑀𝑔𝑙
Reason (R): A coil spring of copper has (d)
1
𝑀𝑔𝐿
more tensile strength than a steel spring of 2

same dimensions.
In the light of the above statements, choose 6. Two wires are made of the same material
the most appropriate answer from the and have the same volume. The first wire
options given below. (2022) has cross-sectional area A and the second
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not wire has cross-sectional area 3 A. If the
the correct explanation of (A) length of the first wire is increased by Δ𝑙 on
(b) (A) is true but (R) is false applying a force F, how much force is
(c) (A) is false but (R) is true
needed to stretch the second wire by the
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
same amount? (2018)
correct explanation of (A). (a) 4 F
(b) 6 F
3. The velocity of a small ball of mass M and (c) 9 F
density d, when dropped in a container (d) F
filled with glycerine becomes constant after
𝑑
some time. If the density of glycerine is 2
7. The bulk modulus of a spherical objects is
then the viscous force acting on the ball will ‘B’. If it is subjected to uniform pressure ‘P’,
be: (2021) the fractional decrease in radius is:
(a) Mg (2017-Delhi)
3 𝐵
(b) 𝑀𝑔 (a) 3𝑃
2
3𝑃
(c) 2𝑀𝑔 (b)
𝑀𝑔 𝐵
(d) 2 (c)
𝑃
3𝐵
𝑃
(d) 𝐵
4. A wire of length L area of cross section A is
hanging from a fixed support. The length of
59
8. The density of a metal at normal pressure is (b) Δℓ versus ℓ2
ρ. Its density when it is subjected to an (c) Δℓ versus 1/ℓ2
excess pressure p is ρʹ. If B is Bulk modulus (d) Δℓ versus ℓ3
𝜌′
of the metal, the ratio of 𝜌
is:
(2017-Gujarat) 11. The following four wires are made of the
𝐵
(a) 1 + same material. Which of these will have the
𝑝
1 largest extension when the same tension is
(b)
1+
𝑃
𝐵
applied? (2013)
(c) 1 + 𝐵
𝑃 (a) Length = 300 cm, diameter = 3 mm
1 (b) Length = 50 cm, diameter = 0.5 mm
(d) 𝑃 (c) Length = 100 cm, diameter = 1 mm
1+
𝐵
(d) Length = 200 cm, diameter = 2 mm

9. The approximate depth of an ocean is 2700

m. The compressibility of water is 45.4
× 1011 𝑃𝑎−1 and density of water is 103 𝑘𝑔/𝑚3 .
What fractional compression of water will
be obtained at the bottom of the ocean?
(2015)
(a) 1.0 × 10−2
(b) 1.2 × 10−2

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
(c) 1.4 × 10−2
(d) 0.8 × 10−2

10. Copper of fixed volume V is drawn into wire

of length ℓ. When this wire is subjected to a
constant force F, the extension produced in
the wire is Δℓ. Which of the following graphs
is a straight line? (2014)
(a) Δℓ versus 1/ℓ

60
 Answer Key
S1. Ans. (c)
S7. Ans. (c)
S2. Ans. (b)
S8. Ans. (b)
S3. Ans. (d)
S9. Ans. (b)
S4. Ans. (c)
S10. Ans. (b)
S5. Ans. (c)
S11. Ans. (b)
S6. Ans. (c)

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ

61
 Solutions
S1. Ans. (c) F1
= 9 ⇒ F ′ = 9F
𝐹 𝑇 𝑊 F
Stress = 𝐴 = 𝐴 = 𝐴

S2. Ans. (b)

In stretching of a spring shape charges S7. Ans. (c)
therefore shear modulus is used. Hint: B =
P
Δv ……….(i)
𝑌copper < 𝑌steel −
v

where B = bulk modulus

S3. Ans. (d)
Hint: w = Mg = vdg Volume of spherical body V = 3 πR3
4

d Mg
FB = M ′ g = v g = fractional change in volume
2 2

ΔV 3ΔR
Fv + FB = Fg , Fv = Fg − FB =
V R
Mg Mg
Fv = Mg − = ΔV
2 2 Substituting the value of V

P
B= 3ΔR
−
S4. Ans. (c) R

Mg ΔR P
Hint: Stress = R
= (−) 3B
A

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
Strain =
ΔL
=
L1 −L where (-ve) sign is decrease in radius.
L L

Stress MgL
young's modulus = =
Strain A(L1 −L)
S8. Ans. (b)
Δp
Hint: Bulk modulus (B) = ΔV
−
V
S5. Ans. (c)
1 −Δp p ρ p
Hint: U = 2 × stress × strain × volm = V2 ⇒B= ρ ⇒ 1 − ρ′ = B
−1 1−
V1 ρ′

1 F Δl p ρ
= × × × AL 1 − B = ρ′
2 A L

ρ′ 1
ρ
= p
1−
B

S9. Ans. (b)

Hint: As we know
P
1 1 B= ΔV
= × Mg × Δl =
2 2
Mgl V

ΔV P
So, V
=B

S6. Ans. (c) 1

Now P = ρgh and compressibility ‘K’ B
Hint: From Hooke’s Laws
ΔV
YAΔℓ So = ρgh(K)
F= ℓ
V

YA2 Δℓ YA2 Δℓ
= 103 × 9.8 × 2700 × 45.4 × 10−11
or F = (Aℓ)
= V
= 1.201 × 10−2
F ∝ A2 ⇒ F ∝ (3A)2
62
S10. Ans. (b) S11. Ans. (b)
F F
Fℓ Fℓ Fℓ
Hint: Y = A
Δℓ ⇒ Δℓ = AY Hint: Y = A
Δℓ/ℓ
⇒ Δℓ = YA = Yπr2 ⇒ Δℓ ∝
ℓ

V Therefore maximum for ℓ = 50 cm &

But V = Aℓ So A = ℓ diameter = 0.5 mm
Fℓ2
Therefore Δℓ = ∝ ℓ2
ΔY

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ

63
 Chapter 10
Sankalp Bharat
Thermal Properties of Matter

1. The energy that will be ideally radiated by a 6. The unit of thermal conductivity is : (2019)
100 kW transmitter in 1 hour is: (2022) (a) 𝐽 𝑚 𝐾 −1
(a) 36 × 104 𝐽 (b) 𝐽 𝑚−1 𝐾 −1
(b) 36 × 105 𝐽 (c) 𝑊 𝑚 𝐾 −1
(c) 1 × 105 𝐽 (d) 𝑊 𝑚−1 𝐾 −1
(d) 36 × 107 𝐽 7. The power radiated by a black body is P and
2. A cup of coffee cools from 90°C to 80°C in t it radiates maximum energy at wavelength,
minutes, when the room temperature is 𝜆0 . If the temperature of the black body is
20°C. The time taken by a similar cup of now changed so that it radiates maximum
coffee to cool from 80° C to 60°C at a room energy at wavelength
3
𝜆 , the power
4 0
temperature same at 20°C is: (2021) radiated by it becomes nP. The value of n is:
13
(a) 5
𝑡 (2018)
(b)
10
𝑡 (a) 256/81
13
5 (b) 4/3
(c) 13
𝑡 (c) 3/4
13
(d) 𝑡 (d) 81/256
10

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
3. The quantities of heat required to raise the 8. Two rods A and B of different material are
temperature of two solid copper sphere of welded together as shown in figure. Their
radii r1 and r2 (r1 = 1.5 r2 ) through 1 K are in thermal conductivities are 𝐾1 and 𝐾2 . The
the ratio : (2020) thermal conductivity of the composite rod
(a) 9/4 will be: (2017-Delhi)
(b) 3/2
(c) 5/3
(d) 27/8
4. Two cylinders A and B of equal capacity are
connected to each other via a stop cock. A
contains an ideal gas at standard
temperature and pressure. B is completely
evacuated. The entire system is thermally
3(𝐾1 +𝐾2 )
insulated. The stop cock is suddenly (a) 2
opened. The process is : (2020) (b) 𝐾1 + 𝐾2
(a) Adiabatic (c) 2(𝐾1 + 𝐾2 )
(b) Isochoric (d)
𝐾1 +𝐾2
(c) Isobaric 2

(d) Isothermal 9. A spherical black body with a radius of 12

cm radiates 450 watt power at 500 K. If the
5. A copper rod of 88 cm and an aluminium
radius were halved and the temperature
rod of unknown length have their increase
doubled, the power radiated in watt would
in length independent of increase in
be: (2017-Delhi)
temperature. The length of aluminium rod
(a) 450
is : (2019)
(b) 1000
(𝛼𝐶𝑢 = 1.7 × 10 𝐾 and 𝛼𝐴𝑙 = 2.2 × 10−5 𝐾 −1)
−5 −1
(c) 1800
(a) 6.8 cm
(d) 225
(b) 113.9 cm
(c) 88 cm 10. In a certain planetary system, it is observed
(d) 68 cm that one of the celestial bodies having a
surface temperature of 200 K, emits
71
 radiation of maximum intensity near the (b) 𝛼1 𝑙22 = 𝛼2 𝑙12
wavelength 12μm. The surface temperature (c) 𝛼12 𝑙2 = 𝛼22 𝑙1
of a nearby star which emits light of (d) 𝛼1 𝑙1 = 𝛼2 𝑙2
maximum intensity at a wavelength 𝜆 =
14. A black body is at a temperature of 5760 K.
4800 Å, is: (2017-Gujarat) The energy of radiation emitted by the body
(a) 7500 K at wavelength 250 nm is U1 , at wavelength
(b) 5000 K
500 nm is U2 and that at 1000 nm is U3 .
(c) 2500 K
Wien’s constant, b = 2.88 × 106 nmK. Which
(d) 10000 K
of the following is correct? (2016-I)
11. A wall consists of alternating blocks of (a) U1 = 0
length ‘d’ and coefficient of thermal (b) U3 = 0
conductivity K1 and K 2 respectively as (c) U1 > U2
shown in figure. The cross sectional area of (d) U2 > U1
the blocks are the same. The equivalent
15. The two ends of a metal rod are maintained
coefficient of thermal conductivity of the
at temperatures 100°C and 110°C. The rate
wall between left and right is:
of heat flow in the rod is found to be 4.0 J/s.
(2017-Gujarat)
If the ends are maintained at temperatures
200°C and 210°C, the rate of heat flow will
be: (2015)
(a) 16.8 J/s
(b) 8.0 J/s
(c) 4.0 J/s

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
(d) 44.0 J/s
16. The value of coefficient of volume expansion
of glycerin is 5 × 10−4 /K. The fractional
change in the density of glycerin for a rise
of 40°C in its temperature, is: (2015 Re)
𝐾1 +𝐾2 (a) 0.010
(a)
2
2𝐾1 𝐾2
(b) 0.015
(b) 𝐾1 +𝐾2 (c) 0.020
(c)
𝐾1 +𝐾2 (d) 0.025
3
(d)
3𝐾1 𝐾2 17. Certain quantity of water cools from 70°C to
𝐾1 +𝐾2 60°C in the first 5 minutes and to 54°C in
12. Two identical bodies are made of a material the next 5 minutes. The temperature of the
for which the heat capacity increases with surroundings is: (2014)
temperature. One of these is at 100°C, while (a) 45°C
the other one is at 0°C. If the two bodies are (b) 20°C
brought into contact, then, assuming no (c) 42°C
heat loss, the final common temperature is: (d) 10°C
(2016-II) 18. Steam at 100°C is passed into 20 g of water
(a) Less than 50°C but greater than 0°C at 10°C. When water acquires a
(b) 0°C temperature of 80°C, the mass of water
(c) 50°C present will be: (2014)
(d) More than 50°C [Take specific heat of water = 1𝑐𝑎𝑙 /𝑔/°𝐶 and
13. Coefficient of linear expansion of brass and latent heat of steam = 540𝑐𝑎𝑙 𝑔–1 ]:
steel rods are 𝛼1 and 𝛼2 . Lengths of brass (a) 24 g
and steel rods are 𝑙1 and 𝑙2 respectively. If (b) 31.5 g
(𝑙2 − 𝑙1 ) is maintained same at all (c) 42.5 g
temperatures, which one of the following (d) 22.5 g
relations holds good? (2016-I) 19. A piece of iron is heated in a flame. It first
(a) 𝛼1 𝑙1 = 𝛼2 𝑙1 becomes dull red then becomes reddish
72
yellow and finally turns to white hot. The
correct explanation for the above
observation is possible by using: (2013)
(a) Newton’s Law of cooling
(b) Stefan’s Law
(c) Wien’s displacement Law
(d) Kirchoff’s Law

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ

73
 Answer Key
S1. Ans. (d) S12. Ans. (d)

S2. Ans. (a) S13. Ans. (d)

S3. Ans. (d) S14. Ans. (d)

S4. Ans. (a) S15. Ans. (c)

S5. Ans. (d) S16. Ans. (c)

S6. Ans. (d) S17. Ans. (a)

S7. Ans. (a) S18. Ans. (d)

S8. Ans. (d) S19. Ans. (c)

S9. Ans. (c)

S10. Ans. (b)

S11. Ans. (a)

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ

74
 Solutions
S1. Ans.(d) 𝑃2 =
256𝐶 4
= 𝑛𝑃1
81𝜆40
3
𝐸 = 𝑃 × 𝑡 = 100 × 10 × 3600
256
Comparing 𝑛 =
36 × 107 𝐽 81

S2. Ans.(a) S8. Ans.(d)

𝑘𝐴
𝑑𝑇
= 𝐾(𝑇𝑎v − 𝑇0 ) Thermal resistance (𝑅) = 𝑙
𝑑𝑡
𝑅 𝑅
10
= 𝐾(85 − 20) 𝑅𝑒𝑞 = 𝑅 1+𝑅2
𝑡 1 2

20 𝑙 𝑙 𝑙
= 𝐾(70 − 20) 2𝑘𝑒𝑞 𝐴
=𝑘 +𝑘
𝑡 1𝐴 2𝐴
𝑡′ 65 𝑙
2𝑡
= 50 Thermal resistance (𝑅) =
𝑘𝐴
13
𝑡′ = 𝑡 Rods are in parallel combination
5
𝑅 𝑅
S3. Ans.(d) 𝑅𝑒𝑞 = 𝑅 1+𝑅2
1 2

∆𝑄 = 𝑀𝑠 ∆𝑇 𝑙
.
𝑙 1 𝑙
𝑙 𝐾1 𝐴 𝐾2 𝐴 𝐾1 𝐾2 𝐴
= =
S is same for same material 𝐾𝑒𝑞 (2𝐴) 𝑙
+
𝑙 1
+
𝐾1 𝐾2
1
𝐾1 𝐴 𝐾2 𝐴
4
Since, ∆𝑄 ∝ 𝑀 and 𝑀 = 3 𝜋𝑟 3 𝑝 1
.
𝑙
𝑙 𝑙
𝐾1 𝐾2 𝐴
= 𝐾1 +𝐾2 = (𝐾 +𝐾 ) 𝐴
∆𝑄 ∝ 𝑟 3 𝐾1 𝐾2
1 2

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
∆𝑄1 𝑟 3 1.5 3 27 𝐾1 +𝐾2
= (𝑟1 ) = ( 1 ) = ⇒ 𝐾𝑒 =
∆𝑄2 8 2
2

S4. Ans.(a) S9. Ans.(c)

Entire system is thermally insulated. So, Power radiated = 𝜎𝐴𝜀0 𝑇 4

no heat exchange will take place. Hence 𝑃 ∝ 𝑟2𝑇4
process will be adiabatic. 𝑃1 𝑟2 𝑇 4
= 𝑟12 [𝑇1 ]
S5. Ans.(d) 𝑃2 2 2
2
𝛼𝐶𝑢 𝐿𝐶𝑢 = 𝛼𝐴𝑙 𝐿𝐴𝑙 450 (12×10−2 ) 500 4
𝑃2
= 12 × [1000]
( ×10−2 )
2
1.7 × 10−5 × 88 𝑐𝑚 = 2.2 × 10−5 × 𝐿𝐴𝑙
1.7×88 𝑃2 = 1800 𝑊
𝐿𝐴𝑙 = = 68 𝑐𝑚
2.2 S10. Ans.(b)
S6. Ans.(d) Wien’s displacement law
𝑑𝐻 𝐾𝐴
𝑑𝑡
= 𝑙
∆𝑇 (K = coefficient of thermal 𝜆. 𝑇 = 𝑏 ⇒ 𝜆1 𝑇1 = 𝜆2 𝑇2
conductivity) 12 × 10−6 × 200 = 4800 × 10−10 × 𝑇2
𝑙𝑑𝐻 𝑚×𝐽
∴𝐾= in unit = 𝑇2 = 5000 𝐾
𝐴 𝑑𝑡 ∆𝑇 𝑚2 ×𝑡×𝐾

∵𝑡=𝑊
𝐽 S11. Ans.(a)
Parallel combination of blocks
Unit of 𝐾 = 𝑊𝑚−1 𝐾 −1
𝐶𝑒𝑞 = 𝐶1 + 𝐶2 + 𝐶1 + 𝐶2 + 𝐶1 + 𝐶2 = 3𝐶1 +
S7. Ans.(a)
3𝐶2
As 𝜆𝑇 = const. (wien’s law) 𝐾𝜀0 6𝐴 3𝐾1 𝐴𝜀0 3𝐴𝜀0 𝐾2
𝐶 4𝐶 𝑑
= 𝑑
+ 𝑑
𝑇1 = ,𝑇
𝜆0 2
= 3𝜆0
(C is constant)
6𝐾 = 3𝐾1 + 3𝐾2
Power radiated (P) ∝ 𝑇 4
1
𝐾 = 2 [𝐾1 + 𝐾2 ]
𝐶4
𝑃1 = 𝜆40 S12. Ans.(d)

75
 Let θ be the final common temperature. S16. Ans.(c)
Further, let sc and sh be the average heat 𝑉 = 𝑉0 (1 + 𝛾∆𝑇) (volumetric expansion)
capacities of the cold and hot (initially) 𝑀 𝑀
bodies respectively (where sc < sh given). = (1 + 𝛾∆𝑇)
𝑑 𝑑0

From, principle of calorimetry, Heat lost 𝑑 = 𝑑0 (1 − 𝛾∆𝑇) ⇒ 𝑑 = 𝑑0 − 𝑑0 𝛾∆𝑇

= Heat gained 𝑑0 −𝑑
𝑑0 𝛾∆𝑇 = 𝑑0 − 𝑑 ⇒ 𝑑0
= 𝛾∆𝑇
𝑠ℎ (100 − 𝜃) = 𝑠𝑐 𝜃
𝑠ℎ 100℃ Fractional change
∴ 𝜃 = (𝑠 × 100℃ = 𝑠
ℎ +𝑠𝑐 ) (1+ 𝑐 ) ∆𝑑
𝑠ℎ = 𝑑0
= 5 × 10−4 × 40 = 0.020
𝑠𝑐 𝑠𝑐
∵ <1 ∴1+ <2 S17. Ans.(a)
𝑠ℎ 𝑠ℎ

∴𝜃>
100℃
or 𝜃 > 50℃ or According to Newton’s law of cooling
2
𝜃1 −𝜃2 𝜃1 +𝜃2
Body at 100°C has more heat capacity = 𝑘[ − 𝜃0 ]
𝑡 2
then body at 0°C so final temperature 70−60 70+60
⇒ = 𝑘[ − 𝜃0 ]
must be greater than 50°C. 5 2

S13. Ans.(d) 2 = 𝑘[65 − 𝜃0 ] ...(i)

60−54 60+54
∆𝑙1 = ∆𝑙2 and 5
= 𝑘[ 2
− 𝜃0 ]
𝑙1 𝛼1 ∆1 𝑇 = 𝑙2 𝛼2 ∆𝑇 ⇒ 𝑙1 𝛼1 = 𝑙2 𝛼2 6
⇒ 5 = 𝑘[57 − 𝜃0 ] …(ii)
S14. Ans.(d)

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
By dividing Eqs. (i) by (ii) we have
Maximum amount of emitted radiation 10 65−𝜃
𝑏 = 57−𝜃0 ⇒ 𝜃0 = 45℃
corresponding to 𝜆𝑚 = 6 0
𝑇
2.88×106 𝑛𝑚𝑘 S18. Ans.(d)
𝜆𝑚 = = 500 𝑛𝑚
5760𝑘 Heat lost = Heat gained
∴ U is maximum at 500 nm.
𝑚𝐿v + 𝑚𝑠𝑤 ∆𝜃1 = 𝑚𝑊 𝑠𝑊 ∆𝜃2
Hence, 𝑈2 > 𝑈1
⇒ 𝑚 × 540 + 𝑚 × 1 × (100 − 80)
S15. Ans.(c)
= 20 × 1 × (80 − 10)
∆𝑄 𝐾𝐴∆𝑇
∆𝑡
= 𝑙 ⇒ 𝑚 = 2.5 g
4 𝑗/𝑠 =
𝐾𝑎[110−100]
∆𝑇 = 110 − 100 = 10℃ Total mass of water = (20 + 2.5)𝑔 = 22.5𝑔
𝑙
S19. Ans.(c)
Similarly, for
We can explain this observation by using
∆𝑇 = 210 − 200 = 10℃
wien’s displacement law, 𝜆𝑚 𝑇 = 𝑏 Where
∆𝑄 𝑘𝐴[210−200] ∆𝑄
∆𝑡
=
𝑙
⇒
∆𝑡
= 4 𝐽/𝑠 b is Wien’s displacement constant.

76
 Chapter 5
Sankalp Bharat
Thermodynamics

1. Consider the following reaction: 6. Which of the following p-V curve represents
2H2(g) + O2(g) ⟶ 2H2O(g) ∆rH° = −483.64 kJ maximum work done? (2022)
What is the enthalpy change for
decomposition of one mole of water?
(Choose the right option). (2023)
(a) 120.9 kJ
(b) 241.82 kJ
(c) 18 kJ
(d) 100 kJ (a)

2. The equilibrium concentrations of the

species in the reaction A + B ⇌ C + D are 2,
3, 10 and 6 mol L-1, respectively at 300 K.
∆G° for the reaction is: (R = 2 cal/mol K)
(2023)
(a) −137.26 cal (b)
(b) −1381.80 cal

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
(c) −13.73 cal
(d) 1372.60 cal
3. Which amongst the following options is the
correct relation between change in enthalpy
and change in internal energy? (2023)
(c)
(a) ∆H = ∆U + ∆ngRT
(b) ∆H – ∆U = −∆nRT
(c) ∆H + ∆U = ∆nR
(d) ∆H = ∆U – ∆ngRT
4. One mole of an ideal gas at 300 K is
expanded isothermally from 1 L to 10 L
volume. ∆U for this process is: (2022) (d)
(Use R = 8.314 J k-1 mol-1) 7. Which one among the following is the
(a) 0 J correct option for right relationship between
(b) 1260 J CP and CV for one mole of ideal gas? (2021)
(c) 2520 J (a) CP – CV = R
(d) 5040 J (b) CP = RCV
5. A vessel contains 3.2 g of dioxygen gas at (c) CV = RCP
STP (273.15 K and 1 atm pressure). The gas (d) CP + CV = R
is now transferred to another vessel at 8. For irreversible expansion of an ideal gas
constant temperature, where pressure under isothermal condition, the correct
becomes one third of the original pressure. option is: (2021)
The volume of new vessel in L is: (2022) (a) ∆𝑈 ≠ 0, ∆𝑆𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 ≠ 0
(Given: molar volume at STP is 22.4 L) (b) ∆𝑈 = 0, ∆𝑆𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 ≠ 0
(a) 67.2 (c) ∆𝑈 ≠ 0, ∆𝑆𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 = 0
(b) 6.72 (d) ∆𝑈 = 0, ∆𝑆𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 = 0
(c) 2.24
9. For the reaction, 2𝐶𝑙(𝑔) → 𝐶𝑙2 (𝑔), the correct
(d) 22.4
option is: (2020)

236
 (a) ∆𝑟 𝐻 > 0 𝑎𝑛𝑑 ∆𝑟 𝑆 < 0 The bond dissociation energy of X2 will be
(b) ∆𝑟 𝐻 < 0 𝑎𝑛𝑑 ∆𝑟 𝑆 < 0 (2018)
(c) ∆𝑟 𝐻 < 0 𝑎𝑛𝑑 ∆𝑟 𝑆 < 0 (a) 200 kJ mol –1

(d) ∆𝑟 𝐻 > 0 𝑎𝑛𝑑 ∆𝑟 𝑆 > 0 (b) 100 kJ mol–1

(c) 400 kJ mol–1
10. The correct option for free expansion of an
(d) 800 kJ mol–1
ideal gas under adiabatic condition is:
(2020) 16. A gas is allowed to expand in a well
(a) 𝑞 = 0, ∆𝑇 < 0 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑤 > 0 insulated container against a constant
(b) 𝑞 < 0, ∆𝑇 = 0 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑤 = 0 external pressure of 2.5 atm from an initial
(c) 𝑞 > 0, ∆𝑇 > 0 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑤 > 0 volume of 2.50 L to a final volume of 4.50 L.
(d) 𝑞 = 0, ∆𝑇 = 0 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑤 = 0 The change in internal energy ∆U of the gas
in joules will be: (2017-Delhi)
11. If for a certain reaction ∆𝑟 𝐻 is 30 kJ mol–1 at
(a) +505 J
450 K, the value of ∆𝑟 𝑆 (in JK–1 mol–1) for
(b) 1136.25 J
which the same reaction will be
(c) –500 J
spontaneous at the same temperature is
(d) –505 J
(2020 Covid Re-NEET)
(a) –33 17. For a given reaction, ∆H = 35.5 KJ mol−1 and
(b) 33 ∆S = 83.6 JK −1 mol−1 . The reaction is
(c) –70 spontaneous at: (Assume that ∆H and ∆S do
(d) 70 not vary with temperature) (2017-Delhi)
(a) T > 298 K
12. At standard conditions, if the change in the
enthalpy for the following reaction is –109 (b) T < 425 K

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
kJ mol–1 (c) T > 425 K
𝐻2(𝑔) + 𝐵𝑟2(𝑔) → 2𝐻𝐵𝑟(𝑔) (d) All temperatures
Given that bond energy of H2 and Br2 is 435 18. Of the following, the largest value of entropy
kJ mol–1 and 192 kJ mol–1, respectively, at 25°C and 1 atm is that of :
what is the bond energy (in kJ mol–1) of (2017-Gujarat)
HBr? (2020 Covid Re-NEET) (a) CH4
(a) 736 (b) H2
(b) 518 (c) C2H6
(c) 259 (d) C2H2
(d) 368 19. Under isothermal and reversible conditions,
13. Under isothermal condition, a gas at 300 K the term “free energy” in thermodynamics
expands from 0.1 L to 0.25 L against a signifies : (2017-Gujarat)
constant external pressure of 2 bar. The (a) Expansion work done on the system
work done by the gas is (Give that 1 L bar = (b) Non-expansion work done by the system
100 J) (2019) (c) Expansion work done by the system
(a) –30 J (d) Non expansion work done on the system
(b) 5 kJ 20. For a sample of perfect gas when its
(c) 25 J pressure is changed isothermally from Pi to
(d) 30 J Pf, the entropy change is given by:
14. In which case change in entropy is (2016-II)
𝑃
negative? (2019) (a) ∆𝑆 = 𝑛𝑅𝑇 𝑙𝑛 ( 𝑃𝑓 )
(a) Evaporation of water 𝑃
𝑖

(b) Expansion of a gas at constant (b) ∆𝑆 = 𝑛𝑅𝑇 𝑙𝑛 (𝑃 𝑖 )

𝑓
temperature 𝑃𝑓
(c) ∆𝑆 = 𝑛𝑅 𝑙𝑛 ( 𝑃 )
(c) Sublimation of solid to gas 𝑖

(d) 2H(g) → H2 (g) (d) ∆𝑆 = 𝑛𝑅

𝑃
𝑙𝑛 (𝑃 𝑖 )
𝑓
15. The bond dissociation energies of X2, Y2 and
XY are in the ratio of 1 : 0.5 : 1. ∆H for the
formation of XY is –200 kJ mol–1.
237
21. The correct thermodynamic conditions for
the spontaneous reaction at all
temperatures is: (2016-II)
(a) H < 0 and S < 0
(b) H < 0 and S = 0
(c) H > 0 and S < 0
(d) H < 0 and S > 0
22. Consider the following liquid-vapour
equilibrium.
Liquid ⇌ Vapour . Which of the following
relations is correct? (2016-I)
𝑑𝑙𝑛𝑃 −∆𝐻𝑣
(a) 𝑑𝑇 2
= 𝑇2
𝑑𝑙𝑛𝑃 −∆𝐻𝑣
(b) 𝑑𝑇
= 𝑅𝑇 2
𝑑𝑙𝑛𝐺 ∆𝐻𝑣
(c) =
𝑑𝑇 2 𝑅𝑇 2
𝑑𝑙𝑛𝑃 −∆𝐻𝑣
(d) =
𝑑𝑇 𝑅𝑇

23. The heat of combustion of carbon to CO2 is

–393.5 kJ/mol. The heat released upon
formation of 35.2 g of CO2 from carbon and
oxygen gas is: (2015)
(a) +315 kJ

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
(b) –630 kJ
(c) –3.15 kJ
(d) –315 kJ
24. For the reaction, 𝑋2 𝑂4 (𝑙) → 2𝑋𝑂2 (𝑔), ∆𝑈 =
2.1 𝑘𝑐𝑎𝑙, ∆𝑆 = 20 𝑐𝑎𝑙 𝐾 −1 at 300 K. Hence, ∆𝐺
is : (2014)
(a) –2.7 kcal
(b) 9.3 kcal
(c) –9.3 kcal
(d) 2.7 kcal

238
 Answer Key

S1. Ans. (b)

S2. Ans. (b)

S3. Ans. (a)

S4. Ans. (a)

S5. Ans. (b)

S6. Ans. (b)

S7. Ans. (a)

S8. Ans. (b)

S9. Ans. (c)

S10. Ans. (d)

S11. Ans. (d)

S12. Ans. (d)

S13. Ans. (a)

S14. Ans. (d)

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
S15. Ans. (d)

S16. Ans. (d)

S17. Ans. (c)

S18. Ans. (c)

S19. Ans. (b)

S20. Ans. (d)

S21. Ans. (d)

S22. Ans. (b)

S23. Ans. (a)

S24. Ans. (a)

239
 Solutions
S1. Ans.(b) S6. Ans.(b)
Decomposition for 1 mole of water Work done under any thermodynamic
1 483.64 process can be determined by area under
H2O(g) ⟶ H2(g) + 2O2(g); ∆H = + 2
the 'p-V' graph. As it can be observed
∆H = +241.82 kJ maximum area is covered in option '2'.
S2. Ans.(b)
A+B⇌C+D

[A] = 2 mol L-1

[B] = 3 mol L-1

1.
[C] = 10 mol L-1

[D] = 6 mol L-1

∆G° = −2.303 RT log Keq

[C][D]
= −2.303 RT log [A][B]
2.
10×6
= −2.303 × 2 × 300 × log

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
2×3

= −2.303 × 2 × 300 × log 10

= −1381.8 cal

S3. Ans.(a)
∆H = ∆U + ∆ngRT 3.

S4. Ans.(a)
∆U = nCv∆T

For isothermal condition; ∆T = 0

∴ ∆U = 0 4.

S5. Ans.(b)
At constant temperature and amount S7. Ans.(a)
For one mole of an ideal gas CP − CV = R
P1V1 = P2V2
S8. Ans.(b)
P1 P1
P1V1 = 3
V2 [∴ P2 = 3
] For Irreversible expansion of an ideal
gas under Isothermal condition
V2 = 3V1
∆𝑈 = 0
mole of O2(g) = 3.2/32 = 0.1 mole
∆𝑆𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 ≠ 0
Volume of O2(g) = (0.1 × 22.4)L = 2.24 L S9. Ans.(c)
At STP (V1) Given reaction, 2𝐶𝑙(𝑔) → 𝐶𝑙2 (𝑔)
The reaction is exothermic since a bond
V2 = 3V1 = 3 × 2.24 = 6.72 L
is being formed in the given reaction,
i.e., ∆𝐻 is also –ve. So ∆𝑟 𝐻 < 0 and

240
 Entropy is decreasing (–ve) in the S14. Ans.(d)
reaction as no. of molecules are (i) For evaporation of water S > 0;
decreasing which reduces the
S = +ve
randomness of the system.
(ii) In expansion of gas at constant T
Thus, ∆𝑟 𝑆 < 0 S > 0 ; S = +ve
So, (c) option is correct. (iii) S→g
S = +ve
S10. Ans.(d)
(iv) 2Hg → H2 (g), ∆S < 0 (∵ ng < 0)
Free expansion, since 𝑃𝑒𝑥𝑡 = 0 No. of particle decreases from reactant
𝑤 = −𝑃𝑒𝑥 ∆𝑉 = 0 ; So, work done = 0 to product side.
For adiabatic condition, q = 0 S15. Ans.(d)

From first law of thermodynamics The reaction for ∆𝑓 𝐻°(𝑋𝑌)

1 1
∆𝐸 = 𝑞 + 𝑤 𝑋 (𝑔) + 2 𝑌2 (𝑔)
2 2
→ 𝑋𝑌(𝑔)
∴ ∆𝐸 = 0 Bond energies of X2, Y2 and XY are x, 2,
𝑥

Internal energy of an ideal gas is a x respectively

function of temperature 𝑥 𝑥 𝑥
∴ ∆𝐻 = (2 + 4) − 2 = −200
∴ If internal energy remains constant
∴ ∆𝑇 = 0 On solving, we get
𝑥
Thus (d) option is correct. ⇒ 4
= −200

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
S11. Ans.(d) ⇒ x = 800 kJ/mole
For spontaneous reaction, ∆𝑟 𝐺 must be S16. Ans.(d)
less than zero U = q + W
So, ∆𝑟 𝐺 = ∆𝑟 𝐻 − 𝑇∆𝑟 𝑆 < 0 For adiabatic process, q = 0
∆𝑟 𝐻
or, ∆𝑟 𝑆 > 𝑇 ∴ U = W = –P. V

>
30,000
= 66.67 𝐽𝐾 −1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 = –2.5 atm × (4.50 – 2.50) L
450
= –2.5 × 2 L-atm ⇒ –5 × 101.3 J
For reaction to be spontaneous the
value of ∆𝑟 𝑆 must be greater than 66.67 = –506.5 J ⇒ –505 J
J that is 70 JK–1 mol–1
S12. Ans.(d) S17. Ans.(c)
𝐻2 (𝑔) + 𝐵𝑟2 (𝑔) → 2𝐻𝐵𝑟(𝑔) ; G = H – TS
−1
∆𝐻 = −109𝑘𝐽 𝑚𝑜𝑙 For spontaneous reaction, G must be
∆𝐻= sum of bond energy of reactants – negative. For negative value of G, H
sum of bond energy of products should be less than TS. It is possible
(𝐵𝐸𝐻−𝐻 ) + (𝐵𝐸𝐵𝑟−𝐵𝑟 ) − 2(𝐵𝐸𝐻−𝐵𝑟 ) when T > 425 K.

−109 = (435) + (192) − 2(𝐵𝐸𝐻−𝐵𝑟 ) H = 35.5 KJ/mol = 35500 J/mol

𝐵𝐸𝐻−𝐵𝑟 = 368 𝑘𝐽 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 TS = (425) (83.6) = 35530
S13. Ans.(a) TS > H
𝑊𝑖𝑟𝑟 = −𝑃𝑒𝑥𝑡 ∆𝑉 = −2 𝑏𝑎𝑟 × (0.25 − 0.1)𝐿 Hence, the reaction is spontaneous.
= –0.30 L-bar = –0.30 × 100 J S18. Ans.(c)
⇒ –30 J The molecule having more number of
bonds have largest value of entropy.
∴ C2H6 have large value of entropy.

241
S19. Ans.(b)
Under isothermal reversible conditions,
the term “free-energy” in
thermodynamics signifies that “No
expansion work done by the system”.
−∆𝐺𝑠𝑦𝑠𝑡𝑒𝑚 = 𝑊𝑛𝑜𝑛−𝑒𝑥𝑝𝑎𝑛𝑠𝑖𝑜𝑛
S20. Ans.(d)
For isothermal process
𝑃
∆𝑆 = 𝑛𝑅𝑙𝑛 𝑃 𝑖
𝑓

S21. Ans.(d)
For any spontaneous process, G = (–ve)
and S = (+ve) that is increase in
entropy.
So, at H < 0 and S > 0 at all
temperatures according the reaction will
be spontaneous.
S22. Ans.(b)
𝑑𝑙𝑛𝑃 −∆𝐻𝑣
= (this is Clausis Clapeyron

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
𝑑𝑇 𝑅𝑇 2
equation).
S23. Ans.(a)
𝐶(𝑠) + 𝑂2 → 𝐶𝑂2 (𝑔) ∆𝐻 = −393.5 𝐾𝐽/𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒
∆𝐻𝑟 = ∆𝐻𝑓𝐶𝑂2
So heat of formation of CO2
= 393.5 kJ/mole
or we can say
Heat released on formation of 44 gm
CO2 = 393.5 kJ
Heat released on formation of 35.2 gm
393.5
of 𝐶𝑂2 = 44
× 35.2 = 314.8
⇒ ≃315 kJ
S24. Ans.(a)
According + 2 × 2 × 300 = 3300
G = H – TS = 3300 – 300 × 20
= –2700 cal = –2.7 kcal

242
 Chapter 12
Sankalp Bharat
Kinetic Theory

1. The volume occupied by the molecules 5. The mean free path for a gas, with
contained in 4.5 kg water at STP, if the molecular diameter and number density n
intermolecular forces vanish away is: can be expressed as : (2020)
(2022) (a)
1
√2𝑛𝜋𝑑 2
(a) 5.6 × 103 𝑚3 1
(b) 5.6 × 10−3 𝑚3 (b)
√2𝑛2 𝜋𝑑 2
1
(c) 5.6 𝑚3 (c)
√2𝑛2 𝜋2 𝑑 2
(d) 5.6 × 106 𝑚3 1
(d)
√2𝑛𝜋𝑑
2. The temperature of a gas is –50 °C. To what
temperature the gas should be heated so 6. A cylinder contains hydrogen gas at
that the rms speed is increased by 3 times? pressure of 249 kPa and temperature 27℃.
(2023) Its density is: (R = 8.3 J mol−1 K −1 ) (2020)
(a) 223 𝐾 (a) 0.2𝑘𝑔/𝑚 3

(b) 669℃ (b) 0.1𝑘𝑔/𝑚3

(c) 3295℃ (c) 0.02𝑘𝑔/𝑚3
(d) 3097 𝐾 (d) 0.5𝑘𝑔/𝑚3
7. The mean free path 𝑙 for a gas molecule

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
3. Match Column-I and Column-II and choose
the correct match from the given choices. depends upon diameter d of the molecule as
(2021) (2020 Covid Re-NEET)
Column-I Column-II (a) 𝑙 ∝ 𝑑
(b) 𝑙 ∝ 𝑑2
(a) Root mean square speed (P) 1
nmv 2 (c) 𝑙 ∝
1
of gas molecules 3 𝑑
1
(b) Pressure exerted by (Q) √3RT (d) 𝑙 ∝
𝑑2
ideal gas M
8. An ideal gas equation can be written as 𝑃 =
(c) Average kinetic energy (R) 5
RT 𝜌𝑅𝑇
2 where 𝜌 and 𝑀0 are respectively,
of a molecules 𝑀0

(d) Total internal energy of (S)

3
k T (2020 Covid Re-NEET)
2 B
1 mole of a diatomic gas (a) Number density, molar mass
(a) (A) - (Q), (B) - (R), (C) - (S), (D) - (P) (b) Mass density, molar mass
(c) Number density, mass of the gas
(b) (A) - (Q), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (R) (d) Mass density, mass of the gas
(c) (A) - (R), (B) - (Q), (C) - (P), (D) - (S) 9. Increase in temperature of a gas filled in a
(d) (A) - (R), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (Q) container would lead to: (2019)
(a) Increase in its mass
4. The average thermal energy for a mono-
(b) Increase in its kinetic energy
atomic gas is: (𝑘𝐵 ) is Boltzmann constant
(c) Decrease in its pressure
and T, absolute temperature) (2020)
3
(d) Decrease in intermolecular distance
(a) 𝑘 𝑇
2 𝐵
5
10. At what temperature will the rms speed of
(b) 𝑘 𝑇
2 𝐵 oxygen molecules become just sufficient for
(c)
7
𝑘 𝑇 escaping from the Earth’s atmosphere?
2 𝐵
1 (Given: Mass of oxygen molecule (𝑚) =
(d) 𝑘 𝑇
2 𝐵 2.76 × 10−26 𝑘𝑔, Boltzmann’s constant 𝑘𝐵 =
1.38 × 10−23 𝐽𝐾 −1 ) (2018)
(a) 5.016 × 104 𝐾
85
 (b) 8.360 × 104 𝐾 (d) TP > TQ > TR
(c) 2.508 × 104 𝐾 C
(d) 1.254 × 104 𝐾 16. The ratio of the specific heats Cp = 𝛾 in terms
v

11. A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of 𝑂2 and of degrees of freedom (n) is given by:(2015)
𝑛
4 moles of Ar at temperature T. Neglecting (a) (1 + )
3
all vibrational modes, the total internal (b) (1 +
2
)
energy of the system is: (2017) 𝑛
𝑛
(a) 15 RT (c) (1 + 2
)
(b) 9 RT (d) (1 +
1
)
(c) 11 RT 𝑛

(d) 4 RT 17. 4.0 g of a gas occupies 22.4 litres at NTP.

12. When the temperature of a gas is raised
from 30°C to 90°C, the percentage increase
in the r.m.s. velocity of the molecules will
be: (2017-Gujrat)
(a) 60%
(b) 60%
(c) 15%
(d) 30%
13. A given sample of an ideal gas occupies a
volume V at a pressure P and absolute
temperature T. The mass of each molecule
The specific heat capacity of the gas at
constant volume is 5.0𝐽𝐾 −1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 . If the
speed of sound in this gas at NTP is
952 𝑚𝑠 −1 , then the heat capacity at constant
pressure is (2015 Re)
(Take gas constant R = 8.3J/mol K):
(a) 8.5 J/K mol
(b) 8.0 J/K mol
(c) 7.5 J/K mol
(d) 7.0 J/K mol
18. Two vessels separately contain two ideal

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
of the gas is m. Which of the following gives gases A and B at the same temperature, the
the density of the gas? (2016-II) pressure of A being twice that of B. Under
(a) P/(kTV) such conditions, the density of A is found to
(b) mkT be 1.5 times the density of B. The ratio of
(c) P/(kT) molecular weight of A and B is:
(d) Pm/(kT) (2015 Re)
(a) 1/2
14. One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas (b) 2/3
undergoes a process described by the (c) 3/4
equation PV 3 = constant. The heat capacity (d) 2
of the gas during this process is: (2016-II)
(a) 2R 19. The mean free path of molecules of a gas,
(b) R (radius r) is inversely proportional to:
3 (2014)
(c) R
2 (a) r 3
5
(d) 3
R (b) r 2
(c) r
15. On observing light from three different stars
(d) √r
P, Q and R, it was found that intensity of
violet color is maximum in the spectrum of 20. The amount of heat energy required to raise
P, the intensity of green color is maximum the temperature of 1 g of Helium at NTP,
in the spectrum of R and the intensity of red from T1 K to T2 K is: (2013)
color is maximum in the spectrum of Q. If (a)
3 T
N k ( 2)
4 A B T1
TP , TQ and TR are the respective absolute 3
temperatures of P, Q and R then it can be (b) N k (T − T1 )
8 A B 2
3
concluded from the above observations (c) N k (T − T1 )
2 A B 2
that: (2015) 3
(d) N k (T − T1 )
4 A B 2
(a) TP > TR > TQ
(b) TP < TR < TQ
(c) TP < TQ < TR
86
 Answer Key
S1. Ans. (c) S12. Ans. (b)

S2. Ans. (c) S13. Ans. (d)

S3. Ans. (b) S14. Ans. (b)

S4. Ans. (a) S15. Ans. (a)

S5. Ans. (a) S16. Ans. (b)

S6. Ans. (a) S17. Ans. (b)

S7. Ans. (d) S18. Ans. (c)

S8. Ans. (b) S19. Ans. (b)

S9. Ans. (b) S20. Ans. (b)

S10. Ans. (b)

S11. Ans. (c)

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ

87
 Solutions
S1. Ans.(c) M0 = molar mass
V = (no. Of moles) (22.4 litre) S9. Ans.(b)
mass
= molar mass (22.4 × 10−3 𝑚3 ) Increase in temperature would lead to
the increase in kinetic energy of gas
4.5×103
= 18
× 22.4 × 10−3 𝑚3 (assuming far as to be ideal) as increase
in temperature increases the speed in
= 5.6 𝑚3
which the gas molecule move. Mass will
S2. Ans.(c) remains constant. Pressure will increase
Ti = 50℃ and intermolecular space will also
= 223 K increases.
v𝑟𝑚𝑠 ∝ 𝑇 S10. Ans.(b)
As v𝑟𝑚𝑠 increased by 3 times 𝑉𝑟𝑚𝑠 = √
3𝐾𝑇
𝑚
So (v𝑟𝑚𝑠 )𝑓 = 4(v𝑟𝑚𝑠 )𝑖𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑖𝑎𝑙
𝑉𝑟𝑚𝑠 should be equal to escape speed
𝑇𝑓 = 16𝑇𝑖
3𝐾𝑇
= 16 × 223 11.2 × 103 = √ 𝑚

= 3568 𝐾 𝑇 = 8.36 × 104 𝐾

S3. Ans.(b) S11. Ans.(c)

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
S4. Ans.(a) 𝑓
𝑈 = 𝑛𝑅𝑇
3 2
Average thermal energy = 2 K B T where 3
𝑈𝑇 = 𝑈𝑂2 + 𝑈𝐴𝑟
is translational degree of freedom 𝑝 = 3
5 3
(translational degree of freedom) 𝑈𝑇 = × 2𝑅𝑇 + × 4𝑅𝑇
2 2
S5. Ans.(a) 𝑈𝑇 = 11𝑅𝑇
1
According to the formula 𝜆 = S12. Ans.(b)
√2𝑛𝜋𝑑 2
𝑇1 = 273 + 30 = 303𝐾
S6. Ans.(a)
𝑇2 = 273 + 90 = 363𝐾
As we know that
PM = ρRT 𝑉𝑟𝑚𝑠 ∝ √𝑇

Here, 𝜌 = 249 × 103 N/m2 𝑉1 𝑇

= √𝑇1 = √363
303
𝑉2 2
M = 2 × 10−3 kg; T = 300 K
𝑉2
(249×103 )(2×10−3 ) 0.2kg 𝑉1
= 1.1
∴𝜌 8.3×300
= m3 𝑉2
− 1 = 1.1 − 1
S7. Ans.(d) 𝑉1

Mean free path (𝑙) =

1 1
∝ 𝑑2 [∵ Subtract 1 from both sides]
√ 2𝜋𝑑 2𝑛
∆𝑉
× 100
S8. Ans.(b) 𝑉
∆𝑉
From the gas equation pv = nRT Percent increase 𝑉
= 10%
1 m m RT
⇒ p = v M RT = ( v ) (M ) S13. Ans.(d)
0 0
𝑃 𝑅𝑇
⇒p=
ρRT
𝜌
= 𝑀 (Ideal gas equation)
𝑤
M0
m 𝑃𝑀𝑤 𝑃×(𝑚𝑁𝐴 ) 𝑃𝑚
ρ= = mass density ⇒𝜌= 𝑅𝑇
= 𝑘𝑁𝐴 𝑇
= 𝑘𝑇
v

88
S14. Ans.(b) γRT Mv2
vsound = √ M
⇒γ= RT
= 1.6
𝑃𝑉 𝑥 = constant (Polytropic process)
Heat capacity in polytropic process is So, 𝐶𝑝 = 𝛾Cv ⇒ 1.6 × 5

given by [C = Cv + 1−x]
R = 8 JK −1 mol−1
S18. Ans.(c)
Given that
𝜌𝑅𝑇 𝜌𝑅𝑇
𝑃𝑉 3 = constant ⇒ 𝑥 = 3 …(1) 𝑃= 𝑀
⇒𝑀= 𝑃

Gas is monoatomic therefore So,

𝑀𝐴 𝜌 𝑇 𝑃 1 𝑀
= 𝜌𝐴 𝑇𝐴 𝑃𝐵 = (1.5)(1) (2) ⇒ 𝑀𝐴 = 4
3
𝑀𝐵 𝐵 𝐵 𝐴 𝐵
3
Cv = 2 R …(2) S19. Ans.(b)
3 R 3 R
by formula C = 2
R + 1−3
= 2
R − =R
2 Mean free path 𝜆𝑚 =
1
√2𝜋𝑑 2 𝑛
S15. Ans.(a)
Where 𝑑 = diameter of molecule ⇒ 𝜆𝑚 ∝
From Wein’s displacement law 1
𝑟2
1
𝜆𝑚 ∝ S20. Ans.(b)
𝑇

Now form sequence ‘VIBGYOR’ Number of moles in 1g He = ¼

(λm )P < (λm )R < (λm )Q Volume of the gas remains constant so
So TP > TR > TQ we choose

S16. Ans.(b) ∆Q = nCv ∆T

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
2 Amount of heat energy required to raise
𝛾 =1+𝑓
its temperature from T1 K to T2 K
Here degree of freedom → n = nCv ∆T
2 1 3 3
∴𝛾=1 + = ( ) ( 𝑅) (𝑇2 − 𝑇1 ) = 𝑘𝐵 𝑁𝐴 (𝑇2 − 𝑇1 )
𝑛 4 2 8
S17. Ans.(b)
Molecular mass M = 4.0 g

89
 Chapter 13
Sankalp Bharat
Oscillations

1. The x–t graph of a particle performing (c) Zero

simple harmonic motion is shown in the (d) 𝜋 rad
figure. The acceleration of the particle at t = 6. Identify the function which represents a
2 s is: periodic motion. (2020 Covid Re-NEET)
(a) log 𝑒 (𝜔𝑡)
(b) sin 𝜔𝑡 + cos 𝜔𝑡
(c) 𝑒 −𝜔𝑡
(d) 𝑒 𝜔𝑡
(2023) 7. The displacement of a particle executing
𝜋2 simple harmonic motion is given by 𝑦 = 𝐴0 +
(a) − 16 𝑚𝑠 −2
𝐴 sin 𝜔𝑡 + 𝐵 cos 𝜔𝑡. Then the amplitude of its
𝜋2
(b) 8
𝑚𝑠 −2 oscillation is given by: (2019)
(c)
𝜋2
− 8 𝑚𝑠 −2 (a) 𝐴0 + √𝐴 + 𝐵
2 2

𝜋2
(b) √𝐴2 + 𝐵2
(d) 16
𝑚𝑠 −2 (c) √𝐴20 + (𝐴 + 𝐵)2
2. Two pendulums of length 121 cm and 100 (d) 𝐴 + 𝐵

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
cm start vibrating in phase. At some 8. Average velocity of a particle executing SHM
instant, the two are at their mean position in one complete vibration is: (2019)
in the same phase. The minimum number 𝐴𝜔
(a)
of vibrations of the shorter pendulum after 2

which the two are again in phase at the (b) 𝐴𝜔

𝐴𝜔2
mean position is. (2022) (c) 2
(a) 9 (d) Zero
(b) 10
9. The radius of circle, the period of revolution,
(c) 8
initial position and sense of revolution are
(d) 11
indicated in the
3. A body is executing simple harmonic motion
with frequency ‘n’, the frequency of its
potential energy is: (2021)
(a) 2n
(b) 3n
(c) 4n
(d) n
4. A spring is stretched by 5 cm by a force 10
y-projection of the radius vector of rotating
N. The time period of the oscillations when
particle P is: (2019)
a mass of 2 kg is suspended by it is: (2021)
(a) 𝑦(𝑡) = −3 cos 2𝜋𝑡, where y in 𝑚
(a) 6.28 s 𝜋𝑡
(b) 3.14 s (b) 𝑦(𝑡) = 4 sin ( 2 ), where y in 𝑚
3𝜋𝑡
(c) 0.628 s (c) 𝑦(𝑡) = 3 cos ( ), where y in 𝑚
2
(d) 0.0628 s 𝜋𝑡
(d) 𝑦(𝑡) = 3 cos ( 2 ), where y in 𝑚
5. The phase difference between displacement
and acceleration of a particle in a simple 10. A pendulum is hung from the roof of a
harmonic motion is: (2020) sufficiently high building and is moving
(a)
3𝜋
rad freely to and fro like a simple harmonic
2
𝜋 oscillator. The acceleration of the bob of the
(b) 2
rad
90
 pendulum is 20 𝑚/𝑠 2 at a distance of 5 m 15. A particle is executing a simple harmonic
from the mean position. The time period of motion. Its maximum acceleration is α and
oscillation is: (2018) maximum velocity is β Then, its time period
(a) 2s of vibration will be: (2015 Re)
(b) 𝜋s (a)
2𝜋𝛽
𝛼
(c) 2𝜋s 𝛽2
(d) 1s (b) 𝛼2
𝛼
11. A particle executes linear simple harmonic (c)
𝛽
motion with an amplitude of 3 cm. When (d)
𝛽2
the particle is at 2 cm from the mean 𝛼

position, the magnitude of its velocity is 16. The oscillation of a body on a smooth
equal to that of its acceleration. Then its horizontal surface is represented by the
time period in seconds is: (2017-Delhi) equation, X = A cos(ωt) where, X =
(a)
√5 displacement at time 𝑡 𝜔 = frequency of
2𝜋 oscillation.
(b)
4𝜋 Which one of the following graphs shows
√5
correctly the variation a with 𝑡? (2014)
2𝜋
(c) (a)
√3

√5
(d) 𝜋

12. When two displacements represented by

(b)
𝑦1 = a sin(𝜔𝑡) and 𝑦2 = 𝑏 cos(𝜔𝑡) are

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
superimposed, the motion is: (2015)
𝑎
(a) Simple harmonic with amplitude
𝑏
(b) Simple harmonic with amplitude (c)
√𝑎2 + 𝑏 2
(𝑎+𝑏)
(c) Simple harmonic with amplitude 2
(d) Not a simple harmonic (d)

13. A particle is executing S.H.M. along a

straight line. Its velocities at distances 𝑥1
and 𝑥2 from the mean position are 𝑉1 and 𝑉2 Here a = acceleration at time 𝑡
respectively. Its time period is: (2015)
x2 −x2
T = time period
(a) 2π√V22−V12
1 2

V2 −v2
(b) 2π√ x21+x22
1 2

V2 −V2
(c) √ x12 −x22
1 2

x2 +x2
(d) 2π√ 21 22
V1 −V2

14. A string is stretched between fixed points

separated by 75.0 cm. It is observed to have
resonant frequencies of 420 Hz and 315 Hz.
There are no other resonant frequencies
between these two. The lowest resonant
frequencies for this string is: (2015 Re)
(a) 105 Hz
(b) 155 Hz
(c) 205 Hz
(d) 10.5 Hz

91
 Answer Key
S1. Ans. (a) S10. Ans. (b)

S2. Ans. (d) S11. Ans. (b)

S3. Ans. (a) S12. Ans. (b)

S4. Ans. (c) S13. Ans. (a)

S5. Ans. (d) S14. Ans. (a)

S6. Ans. (b) S15. Ans. (a)

S7. Ans. (b) S16. Ans. (c)

S8. Ans. (d)

S9. Ans. (d)

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ

92
 Solutions
S1. Ans.(d) 𝑚 𝜋
𝑇 = 2𝜋√ = sec
𝑘 5
From x – t graph
A=1T=8 𝑇 = 0.628 sec
2𝜋 S5. Ans.(d)
⇒𝜔= 𝑇
𝜋
Displacement (𝜋) equation is
⇒𝜔= 4 𝑥 = 𝐴 sin(𝜔𝑡 + 𝜙) …(i)
At 𝑡 = 2, 𝑥 = 1 𝑑𝑥
𝑑𝑡
= 𝐴𝜔 cos(𝜔𝑡 + 𝜙)
2
𝑎 = −𝜔 𝑥
𝑑2 𝑥
−𝜋2 𝑎= 𝑑𝑡 2
= −𝜔2 𝐴 sin(𝜔𝑡 + 𝜙)
⇒𝑎= 16
×1
𝑎 = 𝜔2 𝐴 sin(𝜔𝑡 + 𝜙 + 𝜋) …(ii)
−𝜋2
⇒𝑎= 16
𝑚/𝑠 2 From equation (i) and (ii) phase difference
S2. Ans.(d) between displacement and acceleration
is 𝜋
𝑛(𝑇)𝑙 = (𝑛 + 1)𝑇𝑠
S6. Ans.(b)
1.21 1
(𝑛)2𝜋√ = (𝑛 + 1)2𝜋√𝑔
𝑔 sin ωt and cos ωt both are periodic
(𝑛)(1.1) = (𝑛 + 1) function and their period is also same so
its resultant is also periodic.
0.1(𝑛) = 1

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
S7. Ans.(b)
𝑛 = 10
No. of oscillation of smaller one
=n+1
= 10 + 1
= 11
S3. Ans.(a)
𝑦 = 𝐴0 + 𝐴 sin 𝜔𝑡 + 𝐵 cos 𝜔𝑡
Equation of displacement of particle
executing SHM is given by This S.H.M can be reduced to
𝑥 = 𝐴 sin (𝜔𝑡 + 𝜙) …..(i) 𝑦 ′ = 𝑦 − 𝐴0 = 𝐴 sin 𝜔𝑡 + 𝐵 cos 𝜔𝑡
Potential energy of a particle executing Hence, resultant amplitude
SHM is given by 𝑅 = √𝐴2 + 𝐵2 + 2𝐴𝐵 cos 90°
1 1
𝑈 = 2 𝑘𝑥 2 = 2 𝑘𝐴2 sin2(𝜔𝑡 + 𝜙) = √𝐴2 + 𝐵2
1 1
𝑈 = 𝑘𝐴2 − 𝑘𝐴2 cos (2𝜔 + 2𝜙) …..(ii) S8. Ans.(d)
4 4
In one complete vibration the
From (i) and (ii), it is clear that the time
displacement of the particle is zero. So,
period of 𝑥 = 𝐴 sin (𝜔𝑡 + 𝜙) is
average velocity in one complete
2𝜋 𝜔
𝑇1 = 𝜔
⇒ frequency, 𝑛 = 2𝜋 vibration =
Displacement
=
yf −yi
=0
Time interval T
While time period of 𝑥 = 𝐴 sin (𝜔𝑡 + 𝜙)
2 2 2

is
S9. Ans.(d)
2𝜋 𝜋 𝜔
𝑇2 = 2𝜔 = 𝜔 ⇒ frequency, 𝑛 = 𝜋 At 𝑡 = 0, 𝑦 displacement is maximum, so
∴ n’ = 2n equation will be cosine function
S4. Ans.(c)
10
𝐾 = 5×10−2 200𝑁/𝑀
93
 𝐴 = √𝑎2 + 𝑏 2
S13. Ans.(a)
For particle undergoing S.H.M.
T = 4s
2𝜋 2𝜋 𝜋 𝑉 = 𝜔√𝐴2 − 𝑥 2
𝜔= 𝑇
= 4
= 2 rad/s
So, 𝑉1 = 𝜔√𝐴2 − 𝑥12 & 𝑉2 = 𝜔√𝐴2 − 𝑥22
𝑦 = 𝑎 cos 𝜔𝑡
𝜋 Solving these two equation, we get
𝑦 = 3 cos 2 𝑡
𝑉 2 −𝑉 2 2𝜋 𝑥 2 −𝑥 2
S10. Ans.(b) 𝜔 = √ 𝑥12 −𝑥22 = 𝑇
⇒ 𝑇 = 2𝜋√𝑉22 −𝑉12
2 1 1 2
2 2
𝑎 = 𝜔 𝑥 ⇒ 20 = 𝜔 5 S14. Ans.(a)
𝜔=2 Two consecutive resonant frequencies for
2𝜋 a string fixed at both ends will be
𝑇= 𝜔
= 𝜋 sec
𝑛𝑣 (𝑛+1)v (𝑛+1)v 𝑛v
S11. Ans.(b) 2𝑙
and 2𝑙 ⇒ 2𝑙
− 2𝑙
= 420 − 315
v
Acceleration = 𝜔2 𝑥, velocity = 𝜔√𝐴2 − 𝑥 2 = 105 Hz

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
2𝑙
A = 3 cm S15. Ans.(a)
x = 2 cm For S.H.M.
a=v Maximum acceleration = 𝜔2 𝐴 = 𝛼
𝜔2 𝑥 = 𝜔√𝐴2 − 𝑥 2 ⇒ 𝜔𝑥 = √𝐴2 − 𝑥 2 Maximum velocity = 𝜔𝐴 = 𝛽
𝛼 𝐴𝜔2 2𝜋
2𝜔 = √32 − 22 ⇒ 2𝜔 = √5 = =𝜔=
𝛽 𝜔𝐴 𝑇
√5 2𝜋 √5
𝜔= 2
⇒ 𝑇
= 2 ⇒𝑇=
2𝜋𝛽
𝛼
4𝜋
𝑇= S16. Ans.(c)
√5

S12. Ans.(b) Displacement, 𝑥 = 𝐴 cos(𝜔𝑡)

𝑦1 = 𝑎 sin 𝜔𝑡 At t = 0

𝑦2 = 𝑏 cos 𝜔𝑡 = 𝑏 sin (𝜔𝑡 + 2 )

𝜋 x = 𝐴 cos(𝜔 × 0)
x=A
Since the frequencies for both S.H.M. are
same, resultant motion will be S.H.M.
Now
Amplitude 𝐴 = √𝐴12 + 𝐴22 + 2𝐴1 𝐴2 cos 𝜙
𝜋
Here 𝐴1 = 𝑎, 𝐴2 𝑏, 𝜙 = 2
𝑑𝑥
So 𝐴 = √𝑎2 + 𝑏 2 𝑉= = −𝐴𝜔 sin 𝜔𝑡 on comparing this
𝑑𝑡
OR with 𝑉 = 𝑉0 sin 𝜔𝑡 [∵ sin function starts
𝑦2 𝑏 cos 𝜔𝑡 from origin]
𝑉0 = −𝐴𝜔

94
 𝑑𝑉
𝑎= 𝑑𝑡
= −𝐴𝜔2 cos 𝜔𝑡

[∵ cos function do not starts from origin]

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ

95
 Chapter 14
Sankalp Bharat
Waves

1. The ratio of frequencies of fundamental 6. A tuning fork is used to produce resonance

harmonic produced by an open pipe to that in a glass tube. The length of the air column
of a closed pipe having the same length is in this tube can be adjusted by a variable
(2023) piston. At room temperature of 27°C two
(a) 3 : 1 successive resonances are produced at 20
(b) 1 : 2 cm and 73 cm of column length. If the
(c) 2 : 1 frequency of the tuning fork is 320 Hz, the
(d) 1 : 3 velocity of sound in air at 27°C is:
2. If the initial tension on a stretched string is (a) 350 m/s
doubled, then the ratio of the initial and (b) 339 m/s
final speeds of a transverse wave along the (c) 330 m/s
string is: (2022) (d) 350 m/s
(a) Options not available 7. The two nearest harmonics of a tube closed
(b)
1 at one end and open at other end are 220
√2
Hz. What is the fundamental frequency of
(c) Options not available
the system? (2017-Delhi)
(d) Options not available
(a) 20 Hz

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
3. In a guitar, two strings A and B made of (b) 30 Hz
same material are slightly out of tune and (c) 40 Hz
produce beats of frequency 6 Hz. When (d) 10 Hz
tension in B is slightly decreased, the beat
8. Two cars moving in opposite directions
frequency increases to 7 Hz. If the frequency
approach each other with speed of 22 m/s
of A is 530 Hz, the original frequency of B
and 16.5 m/s respectively. The driver of the
will be : (2020)
first car blows a horn having a frequency
(a) 524 Hz
400 Hz. The frequency heard by the driver
(b) 536 Hz
of the second car is [velocity of sound 340
(c) 537 Hz
m/s]: (2017-Delhi)
(d) 523 Hz
(a) 361 Hz
4. The length of the string of a musical (b) 411 Hz
instrument is 90 cm and has a fundamental (c) 448 Hz
frequency of 120 Hz. Where should it be (d) 350 Hz
pressed to produce fundamental frequency
9. Due to Doppler effect, the shift in
of 180 Hz? (2020 Covid Re-NEET)
(a) 60 cm wavelength observed is 0.1Å, for a star
(b) 45 cm producing a wavelength 6000Å. The velocity
(c) 80 cm of recession of the star will be:
(d) 75 cm (2017-Gujrat)
(a) 20 kms −1
5. The fundamental frequency in an open (b) 2.5 kms −1
organ pipe is equal to the third harmonic of (c) 10 kms −1
a closed organ pipe. If the length of the (d) 5 kms −1
closed organ pipe is 20 cm, the length of the
open organ pipe is: (2018) 10. A metal rod of 1 m length, is dropped exact
(a) 12.5 cm vertically on to a hard metal floor. Plate
(b) 8 cm capacitor is to be designed, it is determined
(c) 13.2 cm that the impact produces a longitudinal
(d) 16 cm wave of 1.2 kHz frequency. The speed of
sound in the metal rod is: (2017-Gujrat)

96
 (a) 600 m/s (a) 66.7 cm
(b) 2400 m/s (b) 100 cm
(c) 1800 m/s (c) 150 cm
(d) 1200 m/s (d) 200 cm
11. Two open organ pipes of fundamental 16. A uniform rope of length L and mass 𝑚1
frequencies 𝑛1 and 𝑛2 are joined in series. hangs vertically from a rigid support. A
The fundamental frequency of the new pipe block of mass 𝑚2 is attached to the free end
so obtained will be: (2017-Gujrat) of the rope. A transverse pulse of
(a) (𝑛1 + 𝑛2 ) wavelength 𝜆1 is produced at the lower end
𝑛1 +𝑛2 of the rope. The wavelength of the pulse
(b) 2 when it reaches the top of the rope is 𝜆2 . The
(c) √𝑛12 + 𝑛22 ratio 𝜆2 /𝜆1 is: (2016-I)
𝑚
𝑛1 𝑛2 (a) √𝑚1
(d) 2
𝑛1 +𝑛2
𝑚1 +𝑚2
12. Three sound waves of equal amplitudes (b) √
𝑚2
have frequencies (𝑛 − 1), 𝑛, (𝑛 + 1). They
𝑚
superimpose to give beats. The number of (c) √𝑚2
2
beats produced per second will be:
𝑚1 +𝑚2
(2016-II) (d) √ 𝑚1
(a) 3
(b) 2 17. A siren emitting a sound of frequency 800
(c) 1 Hz moves away from an observer towards a

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
(d) 4 cliff at a speed of 15𝑚𝑠 −1 . Then, the
frequency of sound that the observer hears
13. The second overtone of an open organ pipe
in the echo reflected from the cliff is:
has the same frequency as the first overtone
(Take velocity of sound in air = 330 𝑚𝑠 –1 )
of a closed pipe L meter long. The length of
(2016-I)
the open pipe will be: (2016-II)
L
(a) 765 Hz
(a) (b) 800 Hz
2
(b) 4L (c) 838 Hz
(c) L (d) 885 Hz
(d) 2L 18. The fundamental frequency of a closed
14. A body of mass m is attached to the lower organ pipe of length 20 cm is equal to the
end of a spring whose upper end is fixed. second overtone of an organ pipe open at
The spring has negligible mass. When the both the ends. The length of organ pipe
mass m is slightly pulled down and open at both the ends is: (2015)
released, it oscillates with a time period of 3 (a) 100 cm
s. When the mass m is increased by 1 kg, (b) 120 cm
the time period of oscillations becomes 5 s. (c) 140 cm
The value of m in kg is: (2016-II) (d) 80 cm
16
(a) 19. A source of sound S emitting waves of
9
(b)
9 frequency 100 Hz and an observer O are
16
3 located at some distance from each other.
(c) 4 The source is moving with a speed of 19.4
4
(d) 𝑚𝑠 –1 at an angle of 60° with the source
3
observer line as shown in the figure. The
15. An air column, closed at one end and open observer is at rest. The apparent frequency
at the other, resonates with a tuning fork observed by the observer (velocity of sound
when the smallest length of the column is in air 330 𝑚𝑠 –1 ) is: (2015 Re)
50 cm. The next larger length of the column
resonating with the same tuning fork is:
(2016-I)

97
 (a) 1332 Hz
(b) 1372 Hz
(c) 1412 Hz
(d) 1454 Hz
23. If we study the vibration of a pipe open at
both ends, then the following statement is
(a) 106 Hz not true: (2013)
(b) 97 Hz (a) Pressure change will be maximum at
(c) 103 Hz both ends
(d) 100 Hz (b) Open end will be anti-node
(c) Odd harmonics of the fundamental
20. The number of possible natural oscillations frequency will be generated
of air column in a pipe closed at one end of (d) All harmonics of the fundamental
length 85 cm whose frequencies lie below
frequency will be generated
1250 Hz are (velocity of sound = 340 𝑚𝑠 –1 ):
(2014) 24. A source of unknown frequency gives 4
(a) 4 beats/s, when sounded with a source of
(b) 5 known frequency 250 Hz. The second
(c) 7 harmonic of the source of unknown
(d) 6 frequency gives five beats per second, when
sounded with a source of frequency 513 Hz.
21. If 𝑛1 , 𝑛2 and 𝑛3 are the fundamental
The unknown frequency is: (2013)
frequencies of three segments into which a
(a) 260 Hz

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
string is divided, then the original
fundamental frequency n of the string is (b) 254 Hz
given by: (2014) (c) 246 Hz
1 1 1 1 (d) 240 Hz
(a) 𝑛
=𝑛 +𝑛 +𝑛
1
1
1
2
1
3
1 25. A wave travelling in the +ve x-direction
(b) = 𝑛 + 𝑛 + 𝑛 having displacement along y-direction as
√𝑛 √ 1 √ 2 √ 3

(c) √𝑛 = √𝑛1 + √𝑛2 + √𝑛3 1m, wavelength 2𝜋 m and frequency of 1/𝜋

(d) 𝑛 = 𝑛1 + 𝑛2 + 𝑛3 Hz is represented by:
(a) 𝑦 = sin(2𝜋𝑥 + 2𝜋)
22. A speeding motorcyclist sees traffic jam (b) 𝑦 = sin(𝑥 − 2𝑡)
ahead him. He slows down to 36 km hour– (c) 𝑦 = sin(2𝜋𝑥 − 2𝜋𝑡)
1. He finds that traffic has eased and a car (d) 𝑦 = sin(10𝜋𝑥 − 20𝜋)
moving ahead of him at 18 km hour –1 is
honking at a frequency of 1392 Hz. If the
speed of sound is 343 𝑚𝑠 −1 , the frequency
of the honk as heard by him will be (2014)

98
 Answer Key
S1. Ans. (c) S14. Ans. (b)

S2. Ans. (b) S15. Ans. (c)

S3. Ans. (a) S16. Ans. (b)

S4. Ans. (a) S17. Ans. (c)

S5. Ans. (c) S18. Ans. (b)

S6. Ans. (b) S19. Ans. (c)

S7. Ans. (a) S20. Ans. (d)

S8. Ans. (c) S21. Ans. (a)

S9. Ans. (d) S22. Ans. (c)

S10. Ans. (b) S23. Ans. (a)

S11. Ans. (d) S24. Ans. (b)

S12. Ans. (b) S25. Ans. (b)

S13. Ans. (d)

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ

99
 Solutions
S1. Ans.(c) S7. Ans.(a)
Fundamental harmonic frequency open In a closed organ pipe
v
pipe = 4𝐿 = v2 (say) Fundamental frequency 𝑓0 = 4𝑙 only odd
𝜈

v
v harmonics produce so difference
⇒ v1 = 2L
v 2: 1
2 4L between any two successive harmonics
S2. Ans.(b) 260 − 220 =
2𝜈
4𝑙
v ∝ √Tension 2𝜈
40 =
4𝑙
vi 𝑇
vf
= √𝑇 𝑖 40 = 2𝑓0 ⇒ 𝑓0 = 20 𝐻𝑧
𝑓

vi 𝑇
S8. Ans.(c)
vf
= √2𝑇

vi 1 1
=√ =
vf 2 √2

S3. Ans.(a) v0 = 22𝑚/𝑠 v0 = 16.5 𝑚/𝑠

v+v
1 𝑇 𝑓1 = 𝑓0 [v−v0 ]
𝜐= √ 𝑠
2𝑙 𝜇
340+16.5
𝑓1 = 400 [ 340−22 ]
|𝜂𝐴 − 𝜂𝐵 | = 6𝐻𝑧

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
44
𝑓1 = 8.4 𝐻𝑧
S9. Ans.(d)
Shifting in wavelength ∆𝜆 = 0.1Å
|𝜂𝐴 − 𝜂𝐵1 | = 7𝐻𝑧
𝜆 = 6000 Å
S4. Ans.(a)
𝑉 ∆𝜆
𝐶
= 𝜆
∆𝜆 𝐶
𝑉=
𝜆
𝜈 𝜈 0.1×10−10 ×3×108
𝑓 = 120𝐻𝑧 = 2𝑙 ⇒ 120 = 2(0.9) = 6000×10−10

= 0.5 × 104 𝑚𝑠 −1 = 5𝑘𝑚𝑠 −1

S10. Ans.(b)
𝑉
𝑓 = 180𝐻𝑧 = 2𝑙
𝜈 𝑓 = 2𝑙
120×0.9 𝑉
⇒ 180 = ⇒ 𝑙 = 60𝑐𝑚 1.2 × 103 𝐻𝑧 = 2×1
𝑙
S5. Ans.(c) 𝑉 = 2.4 × 103 𝑚/𝑠
𝜈
Open O.P. = 𝑓0 = S11. Ans.(d)
2𝑙1
3𝜈
Closed O.P. = 𝑓3 =
4𝑙2
𝜈 𝜈 1 3
2𝑙1
= 3 4𝑙 ⇒ 𝑙 = 2×20 (∵ 𝑙2 = 20) 𝜈 𝜈
2 1
𝑛 = 2𝑙 ⇒ 𝑙 = 2𝑛
40
𝑙1 = 3
= 13.33 𝑐𝑚
S6. Ans.(b)
𝜆
2
= 73 − 20 = 53𝑐𝑚 𝑙1 = 2𝑛
𝜈 𝜈
𝑙2 = 2𝑛
1 2
𝑉 = 𝑓𝜆 = 320 × (53 × 2 × 10−2 ) = 339.2
𝑙 = 𝑙1 + 𝑙2
100
 𝜈 𝜈 𝜈
= + We know velocity ∝ √𝑇
2𝑛 2𝑛1 2𝑛2

𝑛=
𝑛1 𝑛2 Also 𝜆 ∝ √𝑇
𝑛1 +𝑛2
𝜆1 √𝑇1 𝑚2
S12. Ans.(b) 𝜆2
= = √𝑚
√𝑇2 1 +𝑚2

𝜆2 𝑚1 +𝑚2
𝜆1
=√ 𝑚2

S17. Ans.(c)
𝑓ν
𝑓 ′ = v−v 0
source

Beats: Max difference between two wave 800×330

= = 838 𝐻𝑧
frequency. Therefore (n + 1) – (n – 1) = 2 330−15

S18. Ans.(b)
S13. Ans.(d)
Fundamental frequency of closed organ
For second overtone (3rd harmonic) in
pipe
open organ pipe,
𝜈
3𝜆 2𝑙0 𝑎 = 4𝑙
= 𝑙0 ⇒ 𝜆 = For first overtone (3rd 𝑐
2 3
harmonic) in closed organ pipe, 2nd overtone frequency of open organ
3𝜈
3𝜆 4𝑙𝑐 4𝐿 pipe = 2𝑙 Now,
2
= 𝑙𝑐 ⇒ 𝜆 = 3
= 3
0
v 3v
So,
2𝑙0
=
4𝐿
⇒ 𝑙0 = 2𝐿 4𝑙𝑐
= 2𝑙0
⇒ 𝑙0 = 6𝑙𝑐 = 6(20 𝑐𝑚) = 120 𝑐𝑚

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
3 3

S14. Ans.(b) S19. Ans.(c)

v
𝑚 𝑓0 = 𝑓𝑠 [v−v ]
𝑇= 2𝜋√ s cos 60°
𝑘
v = 330 ms−1
𝑚
3= 2𝜋√ …(1)
𝑘

𝑚
5 = 2𝜋√ …(2)
𝑘

(1)2 9 𝑚 9
(2)2
⇒ = ⇒𝑚=
25 𝑚+1 16

S15. Ans.(c)
First minimum resonating length for v 330
𝑓0 = 𝑓𝑠 (v−v ) = 100 ( 19.4 ) ≈ 103𝐻𝑧
closed organ pipe. s 330−
2

𝜆
= = 50 𝑐𝑚 S20. Ans.(d)
4
v
Length of the air column Frequency COP, 𝑓𝑛 = (2𝑛 + 1)
41

=
3𝜆
= 150 𝑐𝑚 For n = 0, 𝑓0 = 100 Hz
4
n = 1, 𝑓1 = 300 Hz
S16. Ans.(b)
n = 2, 𝑓2 = 500 Hz
n = 3, 𝑓3 = 700 Hz
n = 4, 𝑓4 = 900 Hz
n = 5, 𝑓5 = 1100 Hz
Which are less than1250 Hz.
S21. Ans.(a)
𝑇1 = 𝑚2 𝑔
Total length of string 𝑙 = 𝑙1 + 𝑙2 + 𝑙3
𝑇2 = (𝑚1 + 𝑚2 )𝑔

101
 1 1392×353
But frequency ∝ length = = 1412 𝐻𝑧
348

Therefore,
1
=
1
+
1
+
1 S23. Ans.(a)
𝑛 𝑛1 𝑛2 𝑛3
Pressure change will be minimum at
S22. Ans.(c)
both open ends
S24. Ans.(b)
Frequency of unknown source = 246 Hz
or 254 Hz Second harmonic of this
source = 429 Hz or 508 Hz Which gives
Here, speed of motorcyclist, 5 beats per second, when sounded with
5 a source of frequency 513 Hz. Therefore
vm = 36 km hour −1 = 36 × 18 ms−1 =
unknown frequency = 254 Hz.
10ms−1
S25. Ans.(b)
Speed for car,
2𝜋 2𝜋 1
−1 5 𝑘= = 2𝜋 = 1 and 𝜔 = 2𝜋𝑓 = (2𝜋) (𝜋) = 2
vc = 18 km hour = 18 × 18
ms −1 = 5ms −1 𝜆

So equation of wave
Frequency of source, 𝜐0 = 1392 𝐻𝑧
𝑦 = sin(𝑘𝑥 − 𝜔𝑡) = sin(𝑥 − 2𝑡)
Speed of sound, v = 343 ms−1
The frequency of the honk heard by the
motorcyclist is

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
v+v 343+10
𝜐 ′ = 𝜐0 ( v+vm ) = 1392 ( 343+5 )
𝑐

102
 Chapter 15
Electric Charges and Fields Sankalp Bharat

1. An electric dipole is placed at an angle of (b) Towards the left as its potential energy
30° with an electric field of intensity will decrease.
2 × 105 𝑁𝐶 –1 . It experiences a torque equal to (c) Towards the right as its potential
4 Nm. Calculate the magnitude of charge on energy will increase.
the dipole, if the dipole length is 2 cm. (d) Towards the left as its potential energy
(2023) will increase.
(a) 2 mC
(b) 8 mC 5. The electric field at a point on the equatorial
(c) 6 mC plane at a distance r from the centre of a
(d) 4 mC dipole having dipole moment 𝑃⃗ is given by,
(r >> separation of two charges forming the
2. If ∮ 𝐸⃗ ⋅ ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑑𝑆 = 0 over a surface, then: (2023) dipole, ∈0 − permittivity of free space)
(a) The electric field inside the surface is (2020 Covid Re-NEET)
necessarily uniform. 2𝑃⃗
(b) The number of flux lines entering the (a) 𝐸⃗ = 4𝜋∈ 𝑟3
0
surface must be equal to the number of 𝑃 ⃗
(b) 𝐸⃗ = − 4𝜋∈
flux lines leaving it. 0𝑟
𝑃 ⃗
(c) The magnitude of electric field on the (c) 𝐸⃗ = − 4𝜋∈ 𝑟3

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
surface is constant. 𝑃⃗
0

(d) All the charges must necessarily be (d) 𝐸⃗ = 4𝜋∈ 𝑟3

0
inside the surface.
6. A spherical conductor of radius 10 cm has
3. Two point charges –q and +q are placed at a
a charge of 3.2 × 10−7 𝐶 distributed
distance of L, as shown in the figure.
uniformly. What is the magnitude of electric
(2022)
field at a point 15 cm from the centre of the
sphere? (2020)
1
(4𝜋∈ = 9 × 109 𝑁 𝑚2 /𝐶 2 )
0
The magnitude of electric field intensity at a (a) 1.28 × 105 𝑁/𝐶
distance R(R >> L) varies as: (b) 1.28 × 106 𝑁/𝐶
1
(a) (c) 1.28 × 107 𝑁/𝐶
𝑅3
(b)
1 (d) 1.28 × 104 𝑁/𝐶
𝑅4
(c)
1 7. A hollow metal sphere of radius R is
𝑅6
1 uniformly charged. The electric field due to
(d) the sphere at a distance r from the centre
𝑅2

4. A dipole is placed in an electric field as (2019)

shown. In which direction will it move? (a) Increases as r increases for r < R and for
(2021) r>R
(b) Zero as r increases for r < R, decreases
as r increases for r > R
(c) Zero as r increases for r < R, increases
as r increases for r > R
(d) Decreases as r increases for r < R and
for r > R
8. Two parallel infinite line charges with linear
charge densities +𝜆𝐶/𝑚 and – 𝜆𝐶/𝑚 are
(a) Towards the right as its potential placed at a distance of 2R in free space.
energy will decrease.
103
 What is the electric field mid-way between function of the distance 𝑥 between the
the two line charges? (2019) spheres, as: (2016-I)
(a) Zero (a) 𝑉 ∝ 𝑥 2
1

2𝜆
(b) 𝑁/𝐶 (b) 𝑉 ∝ 𝑥
𝜋𝜀0 𝑅
1
𝜆
(c) 𝑁/𝐶 (c) 𝑉 ∝ 𝑥 −2
𝜋𝜀0 𝑅
𝜆 (d) 𝑉 ∝ 𝑥 −1
(d) 𝑁/𝐶
2𝜋𝜀0 𝑅
12. The electric field in a certain region is acting
9. Two point charges A and B, having charges radially outward and is given by E = Ar. A
+Q and –Q respectively, are placed at charge contained in a sphere of radius ‘a’
certain distance apart and force acting centered at the origin of the field, will be
between them is F. If 25% charge of A is given by: (2015)
transferred to B, then force between the (a) 𝐴𝜀0 𝑎 2

charges becomes: (2019) (b) 4𝜋𝜀0 𝐴𝑎3

(a) F (c) 𝜀0 𝐴𝑎3
9𝐹
(b) (d) 4𝜋𝜀0 𝐴𝑎2
16
16𝐹
(c) 13. Two pith balls carrying equal charges are
9
4𝐹 suspended from a common point by strings
(d)
3 of equal length, the equilibrium separation
10. Suppose the charge of a proton and an between them is r. Now the strings are
electron differ slightly. One of them is –e, rigidly clamped at half the height. The
the other is (e + Δe) If the net of electrostatic equilibrium separation between the balls

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
force and gravitational force between two now become: (2013)
hydrogen atoms placed at a distance d
(much greater than atomic size) apart is
zero, then Δe is of the order of [Given mass
of hydrogen 𝑚ℎ = 1.67 × 10–27 𝑘𝑔]
(2017-Delhi)
(a) 10–23 𝐶
2𝑟
(b) 10–37 𝐶 (a) ( )
3
(c) 10–47 𝐶 1 2
(d) 10–20 𝐶 (b) ( 2)
√
𝑟
11. Two identical charged spheres suspended (c) ( 3 )
√2
from a common point by two massless 2𝑟
(d) ( 3)
strings of lengths l, are initially at a distance √
d (d << l) apart because of their mutual
repulsion. The charges begin to leak from
both the spheres at a constant rate. As a
result, the spheres approach each other
with a velocity V. Then V varies as a

104
 Answer Key
S1. Ans. (a)

S2. Ans. (b)

S3. Ans. (a)

S4. Ans. (a)

S5. Ans. (d)

S6. Ans. (a)

S7. Ans. (b)

S8. Ans. (c)

S9. Ans. (b)

S10. Ans. (b)

S11. Ans. (c)

S12. Ans. (b)

S13. Ans. (c)

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ

105
 Solutions
S1. Ans.(a) 𝐸=
𝐾𝑄
=
9×109 ×3.2×10−7
𝑟2 (15×10−2 )

𝐸 = 1.28 × 105 𝑁/𝐶

S7. Ans.(b)

𝜏 = 𝑃⃗ × 𝐸⃗
|𝜏| = 𝑃𝐸 sin 𝜃 ⇒ 4 = 𝑞 × 2𝑎 × 𝐸 sin 30°
4
𝑞= 1
(2×10−2 )×2×105 ×( )
2
Charge Q will be distributed over the
= 2 × 10−3 𝐶 surface of hollow metal sphere.
= 2 𝑚𝐶 (i) For r < R (inside)
S2. Ans.(b) 𝑞
By Gauss law, ∮ 𝐸⃗𝑖𝑛 . ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑑𝑠 = 𝜀𝑒𝑛 = 0
0
∮ 𝐸⃗ ⋅ ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑑𝑆 = 0 ⇒ 𝜙𝑛𝑒𝑡 = 𝜙𝑖𝑛 − 𝜙𝑜𝑢𝑡 = 0
⇒ 𝐸𝑖𝑛 = 0 (∵ 𝑞𝑒𝑛 = 0)
⇒ 𝜙𝑖𝑛 = 𝜙𝑜𝑢𝑡
(ii) For r > R (Outside)
S3. Ans.(a)
It is electric dipole at large distance
electric field intensity
𝐾𝑃
𝐸 + 𝑅3 √1 + 3 cos2 𝜃

∴ 𝐸 ∝ 𝑅3
1
ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ ⃗⃗⃗⃗ =
∮ 𝐸⃗0 . 𝑑𝑆
𝑞𝑒𝑛
𝜀0
S4. Ans.(a)
Here, 𝑞𝑒𝑛 = 𝑄
|𝐸⃗1 | > 𝐸⃗2 | 𝑄 1
∴ 𝐸0 4𝜋𝑟 2 = 𝜀 ∴ 𝐸0 ∝ 𝑟2
As field lines are closer at charge +q. So, 0

net force on the dipole acts towards right S8. Ans.(c)

side. A system always moves to decrease
it’s potential energy,

S5. Ans.(c) Electric field due to line charge (1).

𝜆
𝐾𝑃 ⃗ 𝐸⃗1 = 2𝜋𝜀 𝑖̂ 𝑁/𝐶
𝐸⃗ = − 𝑟3 0𝑅

Electric field due to line charge (2).

𝜆
𝐸⃗2 = 2𝜋𝜀 𝑖̂ 𝑁/𝐶
0𝑅

𝐸⃗𝑛𝑒𝑡 = 𝐸⃗1 + 𝐸⃗2

𝑃⃗
𝐸⃗ = − 4𝜋𝜀 𝑟3 𝜆 𝜆
0 = 2𝜋𝜀 𝑖̂ + 2𝜋𝜀 𝑖̂
0𝑅 0𝑅
S6. Ans.(a)
106
 =
𝜆
𝑖̂ 𝑁/𝐶 Differentiating Eq. (1) with respect to
2𝜋𝜀0 𝑅
time
S9. Ans.(b) 𝑑𝑞 𝑑𝑥
2𝑞 𝑑𝑡 ∝ 3𝑥 2 𝑑𝑡
3
3
dq 2 q ∝ x 2 from Eq. (2)
2x 2 ∝ 3x V ( dq )
𝑘𝑄 2 dt
𝐹= dt
= constant
𝑟2
3
If 25% of charge of A transferred to B 𝑥2 ∝ 𝑥2𝑉
then 1

𝑄 3𝑄 𝑄 −3𝑄 𝑉 ∝ 𝑥 −2
𝑞𝐴 = 𝑄 − 4 = and 𝑞𝐵 = −𝑄 + 4 =
4 4 S12. Ans.(b)
Flux linked with sphere = ∮ 𝐸⃗ . 𝑑𝑠
Since electric field radial. It is always
𝑘𝑞𝐴 𝑞𝐵
𝐹1 = perpendicular to the surface.
𝑟2

𝑘(
3𝑄 2
) So 𝜙 = 𝐴𝑟. (4𝜋𝑎2 )
4
𝐹1 = 𝑟 2
𝜙 = 𝐴(𝑎)(4𝜋𝑎2 )
9 𝑘𝑄
𝐹1 = 16 𝑟2 𝜙 = 𝐴4𝜋𝑎3

𝐹1 = 16
9𝐹 Now according to Gauss law
𝑞𝑚
S10. Ans.(b) 𝜙= ⇒ 𝑞𝑖𝑛 = 𝜙. 𝜀0

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
𝜀0

𝐺𝑚×𝑚
=
𝑘(∆𝑒)2 𝑞𝑖𝑛 = 4𝜋𝜀0 𝐴𝑎3
𝑟2 𝑟2
𝐺
S13. Ans.(c)
∆𝑒 = 𝑚√𝑘

6.67×10−11
= 1.67 × 10−27 √
9×109

= 1.437 × 10−37 𝐶
S11. Ans.(c)

𝐹
tan 𝜃 = 𝑚𝑔
𝑟/2 𝑘𝑞2
⇒ = 𝑟2 𝑚𝑔 ⇒ 𝑦 ∝ 𝑟 3
𝑦
3
𝑟′ 𝑦/2 1 1/3
Fv = Fvertical = mg Therefore ( ) = ⇒ 𝑟′ = 𝑟 ( )
𝑟 𝑦 2
Fe = Felectric
Fe F
e kq2 x
= mg = x2 mg = 2l = tan θ
Fv

⇒ 𝑞2 ∝ 𝑥 3 …(1)
⇒ 𝑞 ∝ 𝑥 3/2 …(2)

107
 Chapter 16
Sankalp Bharat
Electric Potential and Capacitance

1. The equivalent capacitance of the system uncharged capacitor of capacitance C = 900

shown in the following circuit is: (2023) pF as shown in figure (b). The electrostatic
energy stored by the system (b) is (2022)

(a) 9 𝜇𝐹
(b) 2 𝜇𝐹
(c) 3 𝜇𝐹
(d) 6 𝜇𝐹 (a) 3.25 × 10−6 𝐽
2. An electric dipole is placed as shown in the (b) 2.25 × 10−6 𝐽
figure. (2023) (c) 1.5 × 10−6 𝐽
(d) 4.5 × 10−6 𝐽
6. Two charged spherical conductors of radius

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
𝑅1 and 𝑅2 are connected by a wire. Then the
ratio of surface charge densities of the
The electric potential (in 102 V) at point P spheres (𝜎1 /𝜎2 ) is: (2021)
𝑅2
due to the dipole is (a) 𝑅1
1
(∈0 = permittivity of free space and = 𝐾:) 𝑅
4𝜋 (b) √( 1 )
8 𝑅 2
(a) (3) 𝑞𝐾 𝑅12
3 (c)
(b) (8) 𝑞𝐾 𝑅22
𝑅1
5 (d)
(c) (8) 𝑞𝐾 𝑅2

(d)
8
( ) 𝑞𝐾 7. The equivalent capacitance of the
5 combination shown in the figure is:
3. Two hollow conducting spheres of radii 𝑅1 (2021)
and 𝑅2 (𝑅1 ≫ 𝑅2 ) have equal charges. The
potential would be: (2022)
(a) More on smaller sphere
(b) Equal on both the spheres
(c) Dependent on the material property of
the sphere
(a) 2C
(d) More on bigger sphere
(b) C/2
4. The angle between the electric lines of force (c) 3C/2
and the equipotential surface is: (2022) (d) 3C
(a) 45°
8. A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform
(b) 90°
electric field ′𝐸⃗ ′ in the space between the
(c) 180°
plates. If the distance between the plates is
(d) 0°
‘d’ and the area of each plate is ‘A’, the
5. A capacitor of capacitance C = 900 pF is energy stored in the capacitor is: (2021)
charged fully by 100 V battery B as shown (a) 𝜀0 𝐸𝐴𝑑
in figure (a). Then it is disconnected from (b)
1
𝜀 𝐸 2 𝐴𝑑
the battery and connected to another 2 0

108
 𝐸 2 𝐴𝑑
(c)
𝜀0
1
(d) 𝜀 𝐸2
2 0

9. Twenty seven drops of same size are

charged at 220 V each. They combine to
form a bigger drop. Calculate the potential
of the bigger drop. (2021) (a) 8 : 5
(a) 1320 V (b) 6 : 5
(b) 1520 V (c) 4 : 1
(c) 1980 V (d) 2 : 1
(d) 660 V 12. In a certain region of space with volume 0.2
10. The variation of electrostatic potential with 𝑚3 , the electric potential is found to be 5V
radial distance r from the centre of a throughout. The magnitude of electric field
positively charged metallic thin shell of in this region is: (2020)
radius R is given by the graph. (a) 0.5 N/C
(2020 Covid Re-NEET) (b) 1 N/C
(c) 5 N/C
(d) Zero
(a) 13. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor
with air as medium is 6mF. With the
introduction of a dielectric medium, the
capacitance becomes 30 mF. The

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
(b)
(c)
(d)
11. A parallel plate capacitor having cross-
sectional area A and separation d has air in
between the plates. Now an insulating slab
of same area but thickness d/2 is inserted
between the plates as shown in figure
having dielectric constant K (= 4). The ratio
of new capacitance to its original
capacitance will be,
(2020 Covid Re-NEET)
109
permittivity of the medium is : (2020)
(𝜀0 = 8.85 × 10−12 𝐶 2 𝑁 −1 𝑚−2)
(a) 1.77 × 10−12 𝐶 2 𝑁 −1 𝑚−2
(b) 0.44 × 10−10 𝐶 2 𝑁 −1 𝑚−2
(c) 5.00𝐶 2 𝑁 −1 𝑚−2
(d) 0.44 × 10−13 𝐶 2 𝑁 −1 𝑚−2
14. A short electric dipole has a dipole moment
of 16 × 10−9 𝐶 𝑚. The electric potential due to
the dipole at a point at a distance of 0.6 m
from the centre of the dipole, situated on a
line making an angle of 60° with the dipole
axis is: (2020)
1
(4𝜋∈ = 9 × 109 𝑁 𝑚2 /𝐶 2 )
0
(a) 200 V
(b) 400 V
(c) Zero
(d) 50 V
15. The electrostatic force between the metal
plates of an isolated parallel plate capacitor
C having a charge Q and area A, is
(2018)
(a) Proportional to the square root of the
distance between the plates.
(b) Linearly proportional to the distance
between the plates.
(c) Independent of the distance between the
plates.
(d) Inversely proportional to the distance
between the plates.
16. A capacitor is charged by a battery. The 20. A parallel-plate capacitor of area A, plate
battery is removed and another identical separation d and capacitance C is filled with
uncharged capacitor is connected in four dielectric materials having dielectric
parallel. The total electrostatic energy of constants 𝑘1 , 𝑘2 , 𝑘3 and 𝑘4 as shown in the
resulting system: figure below. If a single dielectric material is
(a) Decreases by a factor of 2 to be used to have the same capacitance C
(b) Remains the same in this capacitor, then its dielectric constant
(c) Increases by a factor of 2 k is given by: (2016-II)
(d) Increases by a factor of 4
17. The diagrams below show regions of
equipotentials (2017-Delhi)

2 3 1
(a) =𝑘 +𝑘
𝑘 1 +𝑘2 +𝑘 3 4
A positive charge is moved from A to B in 1 1 1 1 3
(b) = + + +
each diagram. 𝑘 𝑘1 𝑘2 𝑘3 2𝑘4
(a) In all the four cases the work done is the (c) 𝑘 = 𝑘1 + 𝑘2 + 𝑘3 + 3𝑘4
2
same. (d) 𝑘 = (𝑘1 + 𝑘2 + 𝑘3 ) + 2𝑘4
3
(b) Minimum work is required to move q in
21. A capacitor of 2 μF is charged as shown in

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
figure (a)
(c) Maximum work is required to move q in the diagram. When the switch S is turned to
figure (b) position 2, the percentage of its stored
(d) Maximum work is required to move q in energy dissipated is: (2016-I)

figure (c)
18. A molecule of a substance has permanent
dipole moment P. A mole of this substance
is polarised by applying a strong
electrostatic field E. The direction of the
(a) 0%
field is suddenly changed by an angle of 60°.
(b) 20%
If N is the Avogadro’s number the amount
(c) 75%
of work done by the field is:
(d) 80%
(2017-Gujrat)
(a) 2NPE 22. A parallel plate air capacitor of capacitance
(b)
1
NPE C is connected to a cell of emf V and then
2
disconnected from it. A dielectric slab of
(c) NPE
3 dielectric constant K, which can just fill the
(d) NPE air gap of the capacitor, is now inserted in
2

19. A parallel-plate capacitor is to be designed, it. Which of the following is incorrect?

using a dielectric of dielectric constant 3, so (2015)
as to have a dielectric strength of 109 𝑉𝑚–1. (a) The energy stored in the capacitor
If the voltage rating of the capacitor is 12 decreases K times
kV, the minimum area of each plate (b) The change in energy stored is
1 1
required to have a capacitance of 80 pF is: 2
𝐶𝑉 2 (𝐾 − 1)
(2017-Gujarat) (c) The charge on the capacitor is not
(a) 3.6 × 10−5 𝑚2 conserved
(b) 21.7 × 10−6 𝑚2 (d) The potential difference between the
(c) 25.0 × 10−5 𝑚2
plates decreases K times
(d) 12.5 × 10−5 𝑚2

110
23. If potential (in volts) in a region is expressed
as 𝑉(𝑥, 𝑦, 𝑧) = 6𝑥𝑦 − 𝑦 + 2𝑦𝑧, the electric field
(in N/C) at point (1, 1, 0) is: (2015 Re)
(a) −(6𝑖̂ + 9𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂ )
(b) −(3𝑖̂ + 5𝑗̂ + 3𝑘̂ )
(c) −(6𝑖̂ + 5𝑗̂ + 2𝑘̂ )
(d) −(2𝑖̂ + 3𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂ )
24. A parallel plate air capacitor has capacity ‘C’
distance of separation between plates is ‘d’
and potential difference ‘V’ is applied (a)
between the plates force of attraction
between the plates of the parallel plate air
capacitor is: (2015 Pre)
𝑉 2𝑉 2
(a)
2𝑑 2
𝐶 2𝑉 2
(b) (b)
2𝑑
𝐶𝑉 2
(c)
2𝑑
𝐶𝑉 2
(d)
𝑑

25. In a region, the potential is represented by

V(x, y, z) = 6x – 8xy – 8y + 6yz, where V is in
volts and x, y, z are in meters. The electric (c)

situated at point (1, 1, 1) is:

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
force experienced by a charge of 2 coulomb

(2014)
(a) 6√5𝑁
(b) 30 𝑁
(c) 24 𝑁 (d)
(d) 4√35𝑁
26. A conducting sphere of radius R is given a
charge Q. The electric potential and the 28. A, B and C are three points in a uniform
electric field at the center of the sphere electric field. The electric potential is:
respectively are: (2014) (2013)
Q
(a) Zero and
4πε0 R2
Q
(b) and Zero
4πε0 R2
Q Q
(c) and
4πε0 R2 4πε0 R2
(d) Both are zero (a) Same at all the three points A, B and C
(b) Maximum at A
27. Two thin dielectric slabs of dielectric
(c) Maximum at B
constants 𝐾1 and 𝐾2 (𝐾1 < 𝐾2 ) are inserted
(d) Maximum at C
between plates of a parallel plate capacitor,
as shown in the figure. The variation of
electric field E between the plates with
distance d as measured from plate P is
correctly shown by: (2014)

111
 Answer Key
S1. Ans. (b) S16. Ans. (a)

S2. Ans. (c) S17. Ans. (a)

S3. Ans. (a) S18. Ans. (b)

S4. Ans. (b) S19. Ans. (a)

S5. Ans. (b) S20. Ans. (a)

S6. Ans. (a) S21. Ans. (d)

S7. Ans. (a) S22. Ans. (c)

S8. Ans. (b) S23. Ans. (c)

S9. Ans. (c) S24. Ans. (c)

S10. Ans. (a) S25. Ans. (d)

S11. Ans. (d) S26. Ans. (b)

S12. Ans. (b) S27. Ans. (c)

S13. Ans. (a) S28. Ans. (c)

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
S14. Ans. (c)

S15. Ans. (c)

112
 Solutions
S1. Ans.(b) S6. Ans.(a)
3𝜇𝐹 and 3𝜇𝐹 in parallel
⇒ 𝐶𝑒𝑞v = 3 + 3 = 6𝜇𝐹

1
𝑄1 = 2 𝜀0 𝐸 2 𝐴𝑑
∑𝑄
𝐶′𝑒𝑞v =
3×6
= 2𝜇𝐹 𝑄2 = 𝑅 × 𝑅1
9 1 +𝑅2

∑𝑄
S2. Ans.(c) 𝜎1 = × 𝑅2
𝑅1 +𝑅2
𝑉𝑃 = 𝑉𝑞 + 𝑉−𝑞 𝑄1 ∑𝑄 𝑅1 1
𝜎2 = = × ∝
𝐾𝑞 𝐾(−𝑞) 4𝜋𝑅12 𝑅1 +𝑅2 4𝜋𝑅12 𝑅1
= (5−3 + 5+3 ) × 102
𝜎1 𝑅
𝜎2
= 𝑅2
𝐾𝑞 𝐾𝑞 1
= (2 − 8) × 102
S7. Ans.(a)
3𝐾𝑞 2
=( ) × 10
8

S3. Ans.(a)
1
𝑉 = 4𝜋∈ = constant
0

𝑄 = Same (Given)

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
1
∴𝑉∝
𝑅

∴ Potential is more on smaller sphere.

CAB = 2C
S4. Ans.(b)
S8. Ans.(b)
Electric field is always perpendicular to
Energy = Energy density × volume
EPS.
1
𝜀 𝐸 2 𝐴𝑑
S5. Ans.(b) 2 0

S9. Ans.(c)
The radius of the bigger drop will be
4 4
𝜋𝑅 3 = 27 × 3 𝜋𝑟 3
3

R = 3r the potential of the small drop

𝐾𝑄
= =v
𝑟

Common potential The potential of the big drop

𝑉𝐶 =
𝐶1 𝑉1 +𝐶2 𝑉2 𝑄 = 𝑛𝑔 = 27𝑞
𝐶1 +𝐶2
𝐾𝑄 𝐾×27𝑞
𝐶×100+𝐶×0 𝑉′ = = = 9v
𝑅 3𝑟
=
𝐶+𝐶
9 × 220 = 1980 𝑉
= 50 Volt
S10. Ans.(a)
Electrostatic energy stored
𝐾𝑄 𝐾𝑄
1 𝑉𝑖𝑛 = 𝑉𝑠 = and 𝑉𝑜𝑢𝑡 = (𝑟 > 𝑅)
=2× 𝐶𝑉 2 = 𝐶𝑉 2 𝑅 𝑟
2
S11. Ans.(a)
= 900 × 10−12 × 50 × 50 𝜀0 𝐴 𝜀0 𝐴 8 𝜀0 𝐴
𝐶𝐾 = = =5
= 225 × 10−8 𝐽 𝑑−𝑡+
𝑡
𝐾
𝑑− +
𝑑 𝑑
2 8
𝑑

= 2.25 × 10−6 𝐽 𝐶𝑎 =
𝜀0 𝐴
𝑑

113
 8
∴ 𝐶𝑘 = 5 𝐶𝑎 ⇒ 𝐶𝑘 = 5
𝐶 8 For all cases potential difference remains
𝑎
same hence work done is same for all
S12. Ans.(d) cases.
Since, electric potential is found to be S18. Ans.(b)
constant throughout, hence electric
−𝑑v Work done by the field for a dipole
field, 𝐸 = = 0.
𝑑𝑟 𝑊 = 𝑃𝐸[cos 𝜃1 − cos 𝜃2 ]
S13. Ans.(b) 𝜃1 = 0 𝜃2 = 60
𝐶𝑚 = 𝜀𝑟 𝐶0 𝑊 = 𝑃𝐸[cos 0 − cos 60]
30
𝜀𝑟 = =5 𝑊=
𝑃𝐸
6
2
𝜀 = 𝜀0 , 𝜀𝑟 = 8.85 × 10−12 × 5 For “N” molecule
−10
𝜀 = 0.44 × 10 𝑁𝑃𝐸
𝑊=
2
S14. Ans.(a)
S19. Ans.(a)
The electric potential due to the dipole
𝑘𝐴𝜀0
at a point at a distance of 0.6 m from 𝐶=
𝑑
the centre of the dipole is 𝑉
𝐸=𝑑
𝐾𝑝 cos 𝜃
𝑉= 𝑟2 𝑘𝐴𝜀𝑜 𝐸
𝐶= 𝑉
9×109 ×16×10−9 ×cos 60
𝑉= 𝐶𝑉 80×10−12 ×12×103
0.36
𝐴 = 𝑘𝜀 = 3×8.85×10−12 ×109

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
0𝐸
𝑉 = 200 𝑉
𝐴 = 3.6 × 10−5
S15. Ans.(c)
𝑄2
S20. Ans.(a)
Force = 2𝑘1 𝜀0 𝐴 2𝑘2 𝜀0 𝐴
2𝐴𝜀0
𝐶1 = 3𝑑
𝐶2 = 3𝑑
Force is independent of separation d.
2𝑘3 𝜀0 𝐴 𝑘4 2𝜀0 𝐴
𝐶3 = 𝐶4 =
S16. Ans.(a) 3𝑑 𝑑
1 1 1
Energy stored in capacitor by charging 𝐶
=𝐶 +𝐶
1 +𝐶2 +𝐶3 4
1
𝑈1 = 𝐶𝑉 2 Solving, we get
2
𝑘𝜀0 𝐴
𝐶=
𝑑
𝑑 𝑑 3 1
∴ 𝑘𝜀 = 2𝜀 [𝑘 +𝑘 ]
0𝐴 0𝐴 1 +𝑘2 +𝑘3 4

2 3 1
When it is connected parallel to ⇒
𝐾
= [𝑘 +𝑘 +𝑘 +
𝑘4
]
1 2 3
uncharged capacitor
S21. Ans.(d)
𝑉
𝑉1 = 2
[potential equal] Initial energy stored in capacitor 2 𝜇𝐹
𝐶𝑒𝑓𝑓 = 𝐶 + 𝐶 = 2𝐶 1
𝑈𝑖 = 2 2(𝑉)2 = 𝑉 2
1
= 2 × 2 × 10−6 × 𝑉 2

= 𝑉 2 × 10−6
Final voltage after switch 2 in ON
𝐶 𝑉 2𝑉
𝑉𝑓 = 𝐶 1+𝐶1 = = 0.2𝑉
1 2 10
1 𝑉 2 𝑈
𝑈2 = ×
2
(2𝐶) ( )
2
=
2
Final energy in both capacitors
1 1 2𝑉 2
S17. Ans.(a) 𝑈𝑓 = 2 (𝐶1 + 𝐶2 )𝑉𝑓2 = 2 × 10 × 10−6 × ( 10 )
𝑊 = 𝑞∆𝑉
114
 = 0.2𝑉 2 ∵ 𝑄 = 𝐶𝑉 and 𝐶 =
𝜀0 𝐴
⇒ 𝜀0 𝐴 = 𝐶𝑑
𝑑
So energy dissipated 𝐶 2𝑉2 𝐶𝑉 2
So 𝐹 = =
𝑉 2 −0.2𝑉 2 2𝐶𝑑 2𝑑
= × 100 = 80%
𝑉2 S25. Ans.(d)
S22. Ans.(c) 𝜕𝑉 𝜕𝑉 𝜕𝑉
𝐸⃗ = − 𝜕𝑥 𝑖̂ − 𝜕𝑦 𝑗̂ − 𝜕𝑧 𝑘̂
Once the capacitor is charged, its
charge will be constant Q = CV = −[(6 − 8𝑦)𝑖̂ + (−8𝑥 − 8 + 6𝑧)𝑗̂ + (6𝑦)𝑘̂ ]
When dielectric slab is inserted At (1,1,1), 𝐸⃗ = 2𝑖̂ + 10𝑗̂ − 6𝑘̂
CNew = KC ⇒ (𝐸⃗ ) = √22 + 102 + 62 = √140 = 2√35
Q2 1
E = 2C ⇒ ENew = K Einitial Force = 𝑞𝐸 = 2 × 2√35 = 4√35𝑁

V=
Q
so 𝑉𝑁𝑒𝑤 = 𝐾 𝑉
1 S26. Ans.(b)
C
𝑄
S23. Ans.(c) At center, E = 0 and 𝑉 =
4𝜋𝜀0 𝑅
𝜕𝑉 𝜕𝑉 𝜕𝑉
𝐸⃗ = − 𝜕𝑥 𝑖̂ − 𝜕𝑦 𝑗̂ − 𝜕𝑧 𝑘̂ S27. Ans.(c)
As 𝐾1 < 𝐾2 so 𝐸1 > 𝐸2
At point (1,1,0)
S28. Ans.(c)
𝐸⃗ = −6𝑖̂ − 5𝑗̂ − 2𝑘̂ = −(6𝑖̂ + 5𝑗̂ + 2𝑘̂ )
Electric potential decreases in the
S24. Ans.(c) direction of electric field. Therefore,
𝑄2 potential is maximum at B.

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
𝐹 = 2𝜀
0𝐴

115
 Chapter 17
Sankalp Bharat
Current Electricity

1. The magnitude and direction of the current (a) Yellow

in the following circuit is (2023) (b) Red
(c) Green
(d) Orange
6. A wheatstone bridge is used to determine
the value of unknown resistance X by
adjusting the variable resistance Y as
shown in the figure. For the most precise
(a) 1.5 A from B A through E
measurement of X, the resistances P and Q.
(b) 0.2 A from B to A through E
(2022)
(c) 0.5 A from A to B through E
(d) 5/9 A from A to B through E
2. The resistance of platinum wire at 0oC is 2Ω
and 6.8Ω at 80oC. The temperature
coefficient of resistance of the wire is:
(2023)
(a) 3 × 10−1 ℃−1

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
(b) 3 × 10−4 ℃−1
(c) 3 × 10−3 ℃−1 (a) Should be approximately equal and are
small
(d) 3 × 10−2 ℃−1
(b) Should be very large and unequal
3. 10 resistors, each of resistance R are (c) Do not play any significant role
connected in series to a battery of emf E and (d) Should be approximately equal to 2x
negligible internal resistance. Then those
are connected in parallel to the same 7. A copper wire of length 10 m and radius
battery, the current is increased n times. (10−2 /𝜋)m has electrical resistance of 10 Ω.
The value of n is: (2023) The current density in the wire for an
(a) 1000 electric field strength of 10(V/m) is: (2022)
(b) 10 (a) 106 𝐴/𝑚2
(c) 100 (b) 10−5 𝐴/𝑚2
(d) 1 (c) 105 𝐴/𝑚2
(d) 104 𝐴/𝑚2
4. If the galvanometer G does not show any
deflection in the circuit shown, the value of 8. Two resistors of resistance, 100 Ω and 200
R is given by: (2023) Ω are connected in parallel in an electrical
circuit. The ratio of the thermal energy
developed in 100 Ω to that in 200 Ω in a
given time is (2022)
(a) 2 : 1
(b) 1 : 4
(c) 4 : 1
(d) 1 : 2
(a) 400 Ω 9. As the temperature increase, the electrical
(b) 200 Ω resistance: (2022)
(c) 50 Ω (a) Decreases for both conductors and
(d) 100 Ω semiconductors
5. Resistance of a carbon resistor determined (b) Increases for conductors but decreases
from colour codes is (22000 ± 5%) Ω. The for semiconductors
colour of third band must be: (2023)
116
 (c) Decreases for conductors but increase
for semiconductors
(d) Increases for both conductors and
semiconductors
10. In a potentiometer circuit a cell of EMF 1.5 𝑟2
V gives balance point at 36 cm length of (a)
𝑟2 +𝑟3
wire. If another cell of EMF 2.5 V replaces (b)
𝑟1
𝑟1 +𝑟2
the first cell, then at what length of the wire, 𝑟2
the balance point occurs? (2021) (c)
𝑟1 +𝑟3
𝑟1
(a) 21.6 cm (d) 𝑟2 +𝑟3
(b) 64 cm
(c) 62 cm 14. The color code of a resistance is given below:
(d) 60 cm (2020)
11. The effective resistance of a parallel
connection that consists of four wires of
equal length, equal area of cross-section
and same material is 0.25 Ω. What will be
the effective resistance if they are connected The values of resistance and tolerance,
in series? (2021) respectively, are:
(a) 0.5 Ω (a) 47 𝑘Ω, 10%
(b) 1 Ω (b) 4.7 𝑘Ω, 5%
(c) 4 Ω (c) 470 Ω, 5%

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
(d) 0.25 Ω (d) 470 𝑘Ω, 5%

12. Column-I gives certain physical terms 15. A resistance wire connected in the left gap
associated with flow of current through a of a metre bridge balances a 10W resistance
metallic conductor. Column-II gives some in the right gap at a point which divides the
mathematical relations involving electrical bridge wire in the ratio 3 : 2. If the length of
quantities. Match Column- I and Column-II the resistance wire is 1.5 m, then the length
with appropriate relations. (2021) of 1W of the resistance wire is : (2020)
Column-I Column-II (a) 1.0 × 10−1 𝑚
(b) 1.5 × 10−1 𝑚
m
(A) Drift Velocity (P) (c) 1.5 × 10−2 𝑚
ne2 p
(d) 1.0 × 10−2 𝑚
(B) Electrical Resistivity (Q) nevd
16. A 40 mF capacitor is connected to a 200V,
(C) Relaxation Period (R) eE
τ
m 50H ac supply. The rms value of the current
in the circuit is, nearly: (2020)
(D) Current Density (S) E
J (a) 2.05 A
(b) 2.5 A
(c) 25.1 A
(a) (A) - (R), (B) - (S), (C) - (Q), (D) - (P)
(d) 1.7 A
(b) (A) - (R), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (Q)
(c) (A) - (R), (B) - (Q), (C) - (S), (D) - (P) 17. Which of the following graph represents the
(d) (A) - (R), (B) - (S), (C) - (P), (D) - (Q) variation of resistivity (p) with temperature
(T) for copper (2020)
13. Three resistors having resistances 𝑟1 , 𝑟2 and
𝑟3 are connected as shown in the given
𝑖3
circuit. The ratio of currents in terms of (a)
𝑖1
resistances used in the circuit is: (2021)

117
 21. Two solid conductors are made up of same
material have same length and same
(b) resistance. One of them has a circular cross
section of area 𝐴1 and the other one has a
square cross section of area 𝐴2 . The ratio
𝐴1 /𝐴2 is (2020 Covid Re-NEET)
(a) 1
(c) (b) 0.8
(c) 2
(d) 1.5
22. For the circuit given below, the Kirchoff’s
loop rule fort he loop BCDEB is given by the
(d) equation (2020 Covid Re-NEET)

18. The acceleration of an electron due to the

mutual attraction between the electron and
a proton when they are 1.6 Å apart is.
(𝑚𝑒 ≃ 9 × 10−31 𝑘𝑔, 𝑒 = 1.6 × 10−19 𝐶)
(2020 Covid Re-NEET)
1 (a) 𝑖2 𝑅2 + 𝐸2 − 𝐸3 − 𝑖3 𝑅1 = 0
(Take = 9 × 109 𝑁𝑚2 𝐶 −2) (b) 𝑖2 𝑅2 + 𝐸3 + 𝐸3 − 𝑖3 𝑅1 = 0
4𝜋∈0
(a) 10 𝑚/𝑠 2
23 (c) −𝑖2 𝑅2 + 𝐸2 + 𝐸3 − 𝑖3 𝑅1 = 0

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
(b) 1022 𝑚/𝑠 2 (d) −𝑖2 𝑅2 + 𝐸2 − 𝐸3 − 𝑖3 𝑅1 = 0
(c) 1025 𝑚/𝑠 2 23. Six similar bulbs are connected as shown in
(d) 1024 𝑚/𝑠 2 the figure with a DC source of emf E and
19. The equivalent resistance between A and B zero internal resistance. The ratio of power
for the mesh shown in the figure is consumption by the bulbs when (i) all are
(2020 Covid Re-NEET) glowing and (ii) in the situation when two
from section A and one from section B are
glowing, will be: (2019)

(a) 16 Ω
(b) 30 Ω
(c) 4.8 Ω
(d) 7.2 Ω
20. For the circuit shown in the figure, the
current I will be (2020 Covid Re-NEET)

(a) 4 : 9
(b) 9 : 4
(c) 1 : 2
(d) 2 : 1
24. Which of the following acts as a circuit
(a) 1A protection device? (2019)
(b) 1.5 A (a) Conductor
(c) 0.5 A (b) Inductor
(d) 0.75 A (c) Switch
(d) Fuse

118
25. In the circuits shown below, the readings of
the voltmeters and the ammeters will be
(2019) (b)

(c)

(d)

29. The resistance of a wire is ‘R’ ohm. If it is

(a) 𝑉2 > 𝑉1 and 𝑖1 = 𝑖2
melted and stretched ‘n’ times its original
(b) 𝑉1 = 𝑉2 and 𝑖1 > 𝑖2
length, its new resistance will be:
(c) 𝑉1 = 𝑉2 and 𝑖1 = 𝑖2
(2017-Delhi)
(d) 𝑉2 > 𝑉1 and 𝑖1 > 𝑖2
(a) 𝑅/𝑛
26. A carbon resistor of (47 ± 4.7) kΩ is to be (b) 𝑛2 𝑅
marked with rings of different colours for its (c) 𝑅/𝑛2
identification. The colour code sequence will (d) 𝑛𝑅

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
be (2018)
30. A potentiometer is an accurate and versatile
(a) Yellow – Green – Violet – Gold
device to make electrical measurements of
(b) Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver E.M.F. because the method involves:
(c) Violet – Yellow – Orange – Silver (2017-Delhi)
(a) Potential gradients
(d) Green – Orange – Violet – Gold (b) A condition of no current flow through
27. A set of ‘n’ equal reistors, of value ‘R’ each, the galvanometer
are connected in series to a battery of emf (c) A combination of cells, galvanometer
‘E’ and internal resistance ‘R’. The current and resistances
drawn is I. Now, the ‘n’ resistors are (d) Cells
connected in parallel to the same battery. 31. In the electrical circuit shown in the figure,
Then the current drawn from battery the current i through the side AB is:
becomes 10 I. The value of ‘n’ is (2018) (2017-Gujrat)
(a) 20
(b) 11
(c) 10
(d) 9
28. A battery consists of a variable number ‘n’
of identical cells (having internal resistance
6
‘r’ each) which are connected in series. The (a) 𝐴
25
terminals of the battery are short-circuited (b)
10
𝐴
and the current I is measured. Which of the 33
1
graphs shows the correct relationship (c) 𝐴
5
between I and n? (2018) (d)
10
𝐴
63

32. A cell of emf ‘E’ and internal resistance ‘r’ is

(a) connected to a variable external resistor ‘R’.
The graph which gives the terminal voltage
of cell ‘V’ with respect to R is:
(2017-Gujrat)
119
 (c) 3 : 4
(d) 3 : 2
(a) 36. The charge flowing through a resistance R
varies with time t as Q = at – bt 2 , where a
and b are positive constants. The total heat
produced in R is: (2016-I)
𝑎3 𝑅
(a)
6𝑏
(b) 𝑎3 𝑅
(b) 3𝑏
𝑎3 𝑅
(c)
2𝑏
𝑎3 𝑅
(d) 𝑏

(c) 37. A, B and C are voltmeters of resistance R,

1.5R and 3R respectively as shown in the
figure. When some potential difference is
applied between X and Y, the voltmeter
readings are 𝑉𝐴 , 𝑉𝐵 and 𝑉𝐶 respectively, then:
(2015)
(d)

33. A filament bulb (500 W, 100 V) is to be used

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
in a 230 V main supply. When a resistance
R is connected in series, it works perfectly
and the bulb consumes 500 W. The value of
(a)
(b)
(c)
𝑉𝐴
𝑉𝐴
𝑉𝐴
≠ 𝑉𝐵
= 𝑉𝐵
≠ 𝑉𝐵
≠ 𝑉𝐶
≠ 𝑉𝐶
≠ 𝑉𝐶
R is: (2016-II) (d) 𝑉𝐴 = 𝑉𝐵 = 𝑉𝐶
(a) 26 Ω 38. A potentiometer wire has length 4 m and
(b) 13 Ω resistance 8 Ω. The resistance that must be
(c) 230 Ω connected in series with the wire and an
(d) 46 Ω accumulator of e.m.f. 2 V, so as to get a
(d) 4 potential gradient 1 mV per cm on the wire
is: (2015)
34. The potential difference (𝑉𝐴 − 𝑉𝐵 ) between
(a) 40 Ω
the points A and B in the given figure is:
(b) 44 Ω
(2016-II)
(c) 48 Ω
(d) 32 Ω
39. Across a metallic conductor of non-uniform
(a) +6 V cross section a constant potential difference
(b) +9 V is applied. The quantity which remains
(c) –3 V constant along the conductor is: (2015)
(d) +3 V (a) Current
(b) Drift velocity
35. A potentiometer wire is 100 cm long and a
(c) Electric field
constant potential difference is maintained
(d) Current density
across it. Two cells are connected in series
first to support one another and then in 40. A circuit contains an ammeter, a battery of
opposite direction. The balance points are 30 V and a resistance 40.8 ohm all
obtained at 50 cm and 10 cm from the connected in series. If the ammeter has a
positive end of the wire in the two cases. The coil of resistance 480 ohm and a shunt of
ratio of emf’s is: (2016-I) 20 ohm, the reading in the ammeter will be:
(a) 5 : 1 (2015 Re)
(b) 5 : 4 (a) 1 A
120
 (b) 0.5 A
(c) 0.25 A
(d) 2 A
41. Two metal wires of identical dimensions are
connected in series. If 𝜎1 and 𝜎2 are the
conductivities of the metal wires
respectively, the effective conductivity of the
combination is: (2015 Re)
𝜎1 𝜎2 (a) 10 Ω
(a)
𝜎1 +𝜎2 (b) 15 Ω
2𝜎1 𝜎2
(b) (c) 20 Ω
𝜎1 +𝜎2
𝜎1 +𝜎2 (d) 25 Ω
(c) 2𝜎1 𝜎2
𝜎1 +𝜎2 45. Two cities are 150 km apart. Electric power
(d) is sent from one city to another city through
𝜎1 𝜎2
copper wires. The fall of potential per km is
42. A potentiometer wire of length L and a
8 volt and the average resistance per km is
resistance r are connected in series with a
0.5 Ω. The power loss in the wire is: (2014)
battery of e.m.f. 𝐸0 and a resistance 𝑟1 . An
(a) 19.2 W
unknown e.m.f. E is balanced at a length l
(b) 19.2 kW
of the potentiometer wire. The e.m.f. E will
(c) 19.2 J
be given by: (2015 Re)
𝐿𝐸0 𝑟 (d) 12.2 kW
(a) (𝑟+𝑟1 )
𝐿𝐸0 𝑟 (d) 4

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
(b)
𝑙𝑟2 46. In an ammeter 0.2% of main current passes
𝐸0 𝑟 𝑙
(c) .
(𝑟+𝑟1 ) 𝐿 through the galvanometer. If resistance of
𝐸0 𝑙 galvanometer is G, the resistance of
(d)
𝐿 ammeter will be: (2014)
1
43. A potentiometer circuit has been set up for (a) 𝐺
499
finding the internal resistance of a given 499
(b) 𝐺
cell. The main battery, used across the 500
1
potentiometer wire, has an emf of 2.0 V and (c) 𝐺
500
a negligible internal resistance. The 500
(d) 𝐺
potentiometer wire itself is 4 m long. When 499

the resistance, R, connected across the 47. The resistances of the four arms P, Q, R and
given cell, has values of S in a Wheatstone’s bridge are 10ohm,
(i) Infinity (ii) 9.5 Ω 30ohm, 30 ohm and 90ohm, respectively.
The ‘balancing lengths’, on the The e.m.f. and internal resistance of the cell
potentiometer wire are found to be 3 m and are 7volt and 5ohm respectively. If the
2.85 m, respectively. The value of internal galvanometer resistance is 50ohm, the
resistance of the cell is: (2014) current drawn from the cell will be: (2013)
(a) 0.25 Ω (a) 2.0 A
(b) 0.95 Ω (b) 1.0 A
(c) 0.5 Ω (c) 0.2 A
(d) 0.75 Ω (d) 0.1 A
44. The resistances in the two arms of the meter 48. The internal resistance of a 2.1 V cell which
bridge are 5 Ω and R Ω, respectively. When gives a current of 0.2 A through a resistance
the resistance R is shunted with an equal of 10 Ω is (2013)
resistance, the new balance point is at 1.6 (a) 1.0 Ω
𝑙1 . The resistance R is: (2014) (b) 0.2 Ω
(c) 0.5 Ω
(d) 0.8 Ω

121
49. A wire of resistance 4 Ω is stretched to twice
its original length. The resistance of
stretched wire would be: (2013)
(a) 16 Ω
(b) 2 Ω
(c) 4 Ω
(d) 8 Ω

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ

122
 Answer Key
S1. Ans. (c) S26. Ans. (b)

S2. Ans. (d) S27. Ans. (c)

S3. Ans. (c) S28. Ans. (c)

S4. Ans. (d) S29. Ans. (b)

S5. Ans. (d) S30. Ans. (b)

S6. Ans. (a) S31. Ans. (a)

S7. Ans. (c) S32. Ans. (b)

S8. Ans. (a) S33. Ans. (a)

S9. Ans. (b) S34. Ans. (b)

S10. Ans. (d) S35. Ans. (d)

S11. Ans. (c) S36. Ans. (a)

S12. Ans. (d) S37. Ans. (d)

S13. Ans. (a) S38. Ans. (d)

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
S14. Ans. (c) S39. Ans. (a)

S15. Ans. (a) S40. Ans. (b)

S16. Ans. (b) S41. Ans. (b)

S17. Ans. (b) S42. Ans. (c)

S18. Ans. (b) S43. Ans. (c)

S19. Ans. (a) S44. Ans. (b)

S20. Ans. (a) S45. Ans. (b)

S21. Ans. (a) S46. Ans. (c)

S22. Ans. (a) S47. Ans. (c)

S23. Ans. (b) S48. Ans. (c)

S24. Ans. (d) S49. Ans. (a)

S25. Ans. (c)

123
 Solutions
S1. Ans.(c) Resistance of P & Q should be approx.
The circuit can be redrawn as an equal as it decreases error in
equivalent circuit given below experiment.
S7. Ans.(c)
10−2
Radius of wire =
√𝜋

Cross sectional area 𝐴 = 𝜋𝑟 2 = 10−4 𝑚2

5 𝑖 𝑉 1 𝐸𝑙 𝜌𝑙
⇒𝑖= = 0.5 𝐴 𝑗 = 𝐴 = (𝑅) ⋅ 𝐴 = 𝑅𝐴 𝑅= 𝐴
10
10×10
S2. Ans.(d) 𝑗 = 10×10−4 = 105 𝐴/𝑚2
𝑅 = 𝑅0 (1 + 𝛼∆𝑇) or
⇒ 6.8 = 2[1 + 𝛼 × (80 − 0)] 𝐸 𝐸𝑙 10×10×𝜋
𝐽 = 𝜎𝐸 ⇒ = =
3.4−1 𝜌 𝑅𝐴 10×10−4 ×𝜋
⇒𝛼= 80 ⇒ 105 𝐴/𝑚2
0.03
S8. Ans.(a)
= 3 × 10−2 ℃−1
S3. Ans.(c)
𝐸
𝑖𝑠𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑒𝑠 =

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
𝑅𝑠𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑒𝑠
𝐸
⇒ 𝑖𝑠𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑒𝑠 = 10𝑅
As both resistors are in parallel
𝐸
𝑖𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑎𝑙𝑙𝑒𝑙 = combination so potential drop (V) across
𝑅𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑎𝑙𝑙𝑒𝑙
both are same.
𝐸
= 𝑅 𝑉2 1
10 𝑃= ⇒𝑃∝𝑅
𝑅
𝑖𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑎𝑙𝑙𝑒𝑙 = 𝑛 × 𝑖𝑠𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑒𝑠 𝑃1 𝑅 200 2
𝑃2
= 𝑅2 = 100 = 1
10𝐸 𝑛𝐸 1
⇒ =
𝑅 10𝑅 =2:1
⇒ 𝑛 = 100 S9. Ans.(b)
S4. Ans.(d) For conductors 𝛼 is (+)ve
No current through ‘G’ S10. Ans.(d)
So potential difference across R is 2V 𝜙 = constant
8
𝑖= 𝐸𝑢𝑛𝑘𝑛𝑜𝑤𝑛=𝜙 𝑙𝑏 ⇒ 𝐸𝑢𝑛𝑘𝑛𝑜𝑤𝑛 ∝ 𝑙𝑏
400
2 𝐸1 𝐼 1.5 36
𝑅 = (8 × 400) = 100 Ω = 𝐼1 ⇒ 2.5 =
𝐸2 1 𝑥

S5. Ans.(d) 𝑥=
36×5
= 60 𝑐𝑚
3
𝑅 = 22 × 103 ± 5%
S11. Ans.(c)
First band = Red 𝑅
𝑅𝑒𝑞 = = 0.25
2nd band = Red 4

Series: 𝑅𝑒𝑞 = 4𝑅 = 4Ω
3rd band = Orange (Multiplier)
4th band = Gold (Tolerance) S12. Ans.(c)
𝐼 𝑛𝑒 2 𝜏 𝐸
S6. Ans.(a) 𝐽 = 𝐴 = 𝑛𝑒𝜈𝑑 =
𝑚
𝐸 = 𝜎𝐸 = 𝜌
𝑒𝐸 𝑚 𝐸
𝑉𝑑 = 𝐼; 𝜌 = 𝑛𝑒 2 𝜏 or 𝜌 = 𝐽 , 𝑗 = 𝑛𝑒𝜈𝑑
𝑚

124
 𝐴→𝑅 𝐵→𝑆 𝐷→𝑄 S19. Ans.(a)
𝑚 12×6
𝜏= 𝑅𝑒𝑞 = (4 + 8 + )Ω
𝑛𝑒 2 𝜌 12+6

𝐶→𝑃 = (12 + 4)Ω = 16Ω

𝐼 𝑛𝑒 2 𝜏 𝐸
𝐽 = 𝐴 = 𝑛𝑒𝜈𝑑 = 𝑚
𝐸 = 𝜎𝐸 = 𝜌
𝑒𝐸 𝑚 𝐸
𝑉𝑑 = 𝐼; 𝜌 = 𝑛𝑒 2 𝜏 𝑜𝑟 𝜌 = 𝐽 , 𝐽 = 𝑛𝑒𝜈𝑑 S20. Ans.(a)
𝑚
𝐸1 +𝐸2 2+4 6
𝐴→𝑅 𝐵→𝑆 𝐷→𝑄 𝐼=𝑅 = 4+1+1 = 6 = 1 ampere
1 +𝑅2 +𝑅3
𝑚
𝜏 = 𝑛𝑒 2 𝜌 S21. Ans.(a)
𝐶→𝑃 𝜌𝑙
Resistance (𝑅) =
𝐴
S13. Ans.(a) 1
𝑅∝𝐴
𝐼3 𝐼1 𝑟2
=
𝐼3 𝑟2 +𝑟3 ∴ 𝑅1 𝐴1 = 𝑅2 𝐴2
𝐼3 𝐼1 𝑟2 𝑟2
= (𝑟2 +𝑟3 )𝐼1
= 𝐴
∴ 𝐴1 = 𝑅2 = 1
𝑅
(∵ 𝑅2 = 𝑅1 )
𝐼1 𝑟2 +𝑟3
2 1
S14. Ans.(c) S22. Ans.(a)
From colour coding
By kirchhoff’s voltage law
Yellow 4
−𝐼2 𝑅2 − 𝐸2 + 𝐸3 + 𝐼3 𝑅1 = 0
Violet 7

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
⇒ 𝐼2 𝑅2 + 𝐸2 − 𝐸3 − 𝐼3 𝑅1 = 0
Brown 1
Gold 5% S23. Ans.(b)
R = 47 × 101 ± 5% Case I: All bulbs are
glowing
R = 470 Ω, 5%
𝑅 𝑅 2𝑅
S15. Ans.(a) 𝑅𝑒𝑞 = + =
3 3 3

Case II: Two form section

A and one from section B
are glowing.

𝑅 𝑙 𝑅 3
= 𝑙1 = 10 = 2 ; 𝑅 = 15Ω
10 2

Length of 1 Ω resistance wire

1.5
= = 0.1 = 1 × 10−1 𝑚. 𝑅𝑒𝑞 = 2 + 𝑅 =
𝑅 3𝑅
15 2
S16. Ans.(b) Here 𝑃 ∝ 𝑅
1

𝑉 𝑉 𝑒𝑞
𝐼= = = 𝑉𝐶𝑀 3𝑅
𝑋𝐶 1/𝐶𝑊
𝑃 9
∴ 𝑃1 = 2
2𝑅 =4
= 200 × 40 × 10 − 6 × 2𝜋 × 50 = 2.5 𝐴 𝑓
3

S17. Ans.(b) S24. Ans.(d)

In case of copper, resistivity is nearly Fuse is a protection device fuse wire has
proportional to temperature although a less melting point so when excess
non linear region always exists at very current flows, due to heat produced in it,
low temperature. it melts.
S18. Ans.(b) S25. Ans.(c)
2
𝑘𝑒 2 (1.6×10−19 )
𝑎 = 𝑚𝑟2 = 9 × 109 (9×10−31 )(1.6×10−10 )

125
 In case of ideal voltmeter, resistance is 10
𝐼 = 25 = 5
2

infinite and for the ideal ammeter,

2 30 6
resistance is zero. 𝑖𝐴𝐵 = × = 𝐴
5 20+30 25
10𝑉 𝑉
𝑉1 = 𝑖1 × 10 = 10 Ω × 10Ω = 10 volt ∴ 𝑖1 = 𝑅 S32. Ans.(b)
𝐸 𝐸
𝑉2 = 𝑖2 × 10 =
10
× 10 = 10 volt 𝐸′ = [𝑅+𝑟] 𝑅 = 𝑟
10 [1+ ]
𝑅

𝑉1 = 𝑉2 𝑅→0⇒𝑉→0
10𝑉
𝑖1 = 𝑖2 = = 1𝐴 𝑅→∞⇒𝑉→𝐸
10Ω

S26. Ans.(b) S33. Ans.(a)

R = (47 ± 4.7) kΩ
= (47000 ± 4700) Ω
= (47 × 103 ± 10%) Ω
∴ Yellow-violet-orange-silver
S27. Ans.(c) In series combination, current is same
𝐸 𝐸 500
𝐼= 𝑛𝑅+𝑅
= (𝑛+1)𝑅
…(1) ⇒ 𝐼𝑏 = 100 ⇒ 5 𝐴
𝐸 𝑛𝐸 𝐼𝑅 = 𝐼𝑏 = 5𝐴
10𝐼 = 𝑅 = (𝑛+1)𝑅 …(2)
+𝑅
𝑛 𝑉 130
𝑅= =
For Eqs. (1) and (2) 𝐼 5

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
𝑛 = 10 𝑅 = 26 Ω

S28. Ans.(c) S34. Ans.(b)

𝑛𝐸 𝐸
𝐼= = Current I is independent of
𝑛𝑟 𝑟
number of cells ‘n’
S29. Ans.(b) 𝑉𝐵 = 𝑉𝐴 − (2 × 2) − 3 − (2 × 1)

Volume = constant ⇒ 𝑉𝐴 − 𝑉𝐵 = 9 𝑉

𝐴1 𝐿1 = 𝐴2 𝐿2 S35. Ans.(d)
𝐸1 +𝐸2 50
𝜋𝑟12 × 𝑙0 = 𝜋𝑟22 (𝑛𝑙0 ) 𝐸1 −𝐸2
= 10

𝑟12 = 𝑛𝑟22 2𝐸1

=
50+10
=
𝐸1
=
3
2𝐸2 50−10 𝐸2 2
𝑙0 𝑛𝑙0
𝑅=𝜌 𝑅" = 𝜌
𝜋𝑟12 𝜋𝑟22 S36. Ans.(a)
↓ 𝑄 = 𝑎𝑡 − 𝑏𝑡 2
𝑛𝜌𝑙0 𝑎
𝑙 𝑅" 𝜋𝑟2 2 𝑖 = 𝑎 − 2𝑏𝑡 {for 𝑖 = 0 𝑡 = 2𝑏}
𝑅= 𝜌 02 ⇒ = 2
𝜌𝑙0 ⇒𝑛
𝜋𝑛𝑟2 𝑅
𝑛𝜋𝑟22 From Joules law of heating
2
𝑅" = 𝑛 𝑅 𝑎/2𝑏
𝑑𝐻 = 𝑖 2 𝑅𝑑𝑡 𝐻 = ∫0 (𝑎 − 2𝑏𝑡)2 𝑅𝑑𝑡
S30. Ans.(b) 𝑎/2𝑏
(𝑎−2𝑏𝑡)3 𝑅 𝑎3 𝑅
In zero deflection condition, 𝐻=[ ] =
−(2𝑏) 0 6𝑏
potentiometer draws no current.
S37. Ans.(d)
S31. Ans.(a)
Effective resistance of B & C
(1.5𝑅)(3𝑅)
= =𝑅
1.5𝑅+3𝑅

In series sequence 𝑉 ∝ 𝑅

126
 So voltage across ‘A’ = voltage across B Internal resistance, 𝑟 (
𝐸−𝑉
)𝑅
𝑙 −𝑙
= ( 1𝑙 2 ) 𝑅
𝑉
& C Now B & C are parallel so 𝑉𝐵 = 𝑉𝐶 2

3−2.85
⇒ 𝑉𝐴 = 𝑉𝐵 = 𝑉𝐶 = ( ) (9.5)Ω = 0.5Ω
2.85

S38. Ans.(d) S44. Ans.(b)

1𝑚𝑉 𝑉 5 𝑙 5 1.6𝑙
Potential gradient = = 10−3 = 1
= 100−𝑙 and = 100−1.6𝑙
𝑐𝑚 𝑐𝑚 𝑅 1 𝑅/2 1
𝑉
10−1 𝑚 ⇒ 𝑅 = 15Ω
Let the resistance to be connected is R S45. Ans.(b)
2
then 𝐼 = Resistance = ( 𝑘𝑚 ) (150𝑘𝑚) = 75Ω
0.5Ω
8+𝑅

Potential drop across the potentiometer 8𝑉

8×2 16 Total voltage drop = (𝑘𝑚) (150𝑘𝑚) =
wire = =
8+𝑅 8+𝑅 1200𝑉
16 1
Potential gradient = (8+𝑅) × 4 𝑉/𝑚 (∆𝑉)2 (1200)2
Power loss = = 𝑊
𝑅 75
4
= = 0.1 ⇒ 𝑅 = 32Ω = 19200 𝑊
8+𝑅

S39. Ans.(a) 19.2 𝑘𝑊

Metallic conductor can be considered as S46. Ans.(c)
the combination of various conductors
connected in series combination. And in
series combination the current always

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
remains constant.

2𝐼 998𝐼
(1000) 𝐺 = (1000) 𝑆
𝐺
S40. Ans.(b) ⇒ 𝑆 = 499
Total resistance of Ammeter
𝐺
𝑆𝐺 ( )𝐺 𝐺
499
𝑅 = 𝑆+𝐺 = 𝐺 = 500
( )+𝐺
499

480×20
𝑅𝑒𝑓𝑓 = 40.8 + 480+20 = 40.8 + 19.2 = 60Ω S47. Ans.(c)
𝑉
𝐼 = 𝑅𝑒𝑓𝑓 = 0.5 𝐴
𝑒𝑓𝑓

S41. Ans.(b)

𝑅𝑒𝑞 = 𝑅1 + 𝑅2
Total resistance of Wheatstone bridge
2𝑙 𝑙 𝑙 2𝜎1 𝜎2
⇒𝜎 =𝜎 +𝜎 ⇒ 𝜎𝑒𝑞 = 𝜎 (40)(120)
𝑒𝑞 1 𝐴 2 𝐴 1 +𝜎2 = = 30Ω
40+120
S42. Ans.(c)
Current through cell
𝑖𝑟 𝐸0 𝑟
Potential gradient 𝑥 = = (𝑟1 +𝑟) 𝐿
7𝑉
= (5+30)Ω = 5 𝐴 = 0.2 𝐴
1
𝐿
0 𝐸 𝑟
∴ 𝑒. 𝑚. 𝑓. 𝐸 = 𝑥𝑙 = (𝑟 +𝑟)𝐿 S48. Ans.(c)
1

S43. Ans.(c)

127
 𝐿
𝑅1 = 𝜌
𝜋(2𝑅 2 )

We get
𝑅2 = 4𝑅1
𝑅2 = 4(4Ω) 𝑅1 = 4Ω (given)
𝐸 2.1 𝑅2 = 16 Ω
𝐼 = 𝑟+𝑅 ⇒ 0.2 = 𝑟+10 ⇒ 𝑟 = 0.5Ω
S49. Ans.(a)
Volume is constant
𝑉1 = 𝑉2
𝜋𝑟 2 𝐿 = 𝜋𝑅2 2𝐿
𝑟 2 = 2𝑅2
𝐿 2𝐿
𝑅1 = 𝜌 , 𝑅2 = 𝜌
𝜋𝑟 2 𝜋𝑅 2

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ

128
 Chapter 18
Moving Charges and Magnetism Sankalp Bharat

1. A very long conducting wire is bent in a (d) Both statement I and Statement II are
semi-circular shape from A to B as shown correct
in figure. The magnetic field at point P for 4. From Ampere's circuital law for a long
steady current configuration is given by: straight wire of circular cross-section
(2023) carrying a steady current. the variation of
magnetic field in the inside and outside
region of the wire is: (2022)
(a) A linearly increasing function of
distance upto the boundary of the wire
and then linearly decreasing for the
outside region.
𝜇0 𝑖 2 (b) A linearly increasing function of
(a) [1 − 𝜋]
4𝑅 distance r upto the boundary of the wire
𝜇0 𝑖 and then decreasing one with 1/r
(b) pointed into the page
4𝑅 dependence for the outside region.
(c)
𝜇0 𝑖
pointed away from the page (c) A linearly decreasing function of
4𝑅
distance upto the boundary of the wire
𝜇0 𝑖 2

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
(d) [1 − 𝜋]
4𝑅
2. A wire carrying a current I along the positive
x-axis has length L. It is kept in a magnetic
⃗ = (2𝑖̂ + 3𝑗̂ − 4𝑘̂ )𝑇. The magnitude of
field 𝐵
the magnetic force acting on the wire is:
(2023)
(a) √3 IL
(b) IL
(c) √3 IL
(d) 5 IL
3. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Blot-Savart's Law gives us the
expression for the magnetic field strength of
an infinitesimal current element(Idl) of a
current carrying conductor only.
Statement II: Biot-Smarts law is analogous
to Coulomb's inverse square law of change
q, with the former being related to the field
produced by a scalar source. Idl while the
latter being produced by a vector source, q.
In light of above statement choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given
below: (2022)
(a) Both statement I and Statement II are
incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct and Statement II
is incorrect
(c) Statement I is incorrect and Statement
II is correct
and then a linearly increasing one for
the outside region.
(d) Uniform and remains constant for both
the regions.
5. A long solenoid of radius 1 mm has 100
toms per mm. If 1A current flows in the
solenoid, the magnetic field strength at the
centre of the solenoid is (2022)
(a) 12.56 × 10−2 𝑇
(b) 12.56 × 10−4 𝑇
(c) 6.28 × 10−4 𝑇
(d) 6.28 × 10−2 𝑇
6. Polar molecules are the molecules: (2021)
(a) Acquire a dipole moment only in the
presence of electric field due to
displacement of charges.
(b) Acquire a dipole moment only when
magnetic field is absent.
(c) Having a permanent electric dipole
moment.
(d) Having zero dipole moment.
7. An infinitely long straight conductor carries
a current of 5 A as shown. An electron is
moving with a speed of 105 m/s parallel to
the conductor. The perpendicular distance
betwen the electron and the conductor is 20
cm at an instant. Calculate the magnitude
of the force experienced by the electron at
that instant. (2021)

129
 magnetic field at the centre of the solenoid
is: (𝜇 = 4𝜋 × 10−7 𝑇𝑚𝐴−1 )
(2020)
(a) 3.14 × 10 𝑇
−4

(b) 6.28 × 10−5 𝑇

(c) 3.14 × 10−5 𝑇
(a) 8𝜋 × 10−20 𝑁 (d) 6.28 × 10−4 𝑇
(b) 4𝜋 × 10−20 𝑁 11. A cylindrical conductor of radius R is
(c) 8 × 10−20 𝑁 carrying a constant current. The plot of the
(d) 4 × 10−20 𝑁 magnitude of the magnetic field B with the
8. A thick current carrying cable of radius ‘R’ distance d from the centre of the conductor,
carries current ‘I’ uniformly distributed is correctly represented by the figure:
across its cross-section. The variation of (2019)
magnetic field B(r) due to the cable with the
distance ‘r’ from the axis of the cable is
represented by: (2021) (a)

(a)

(b)

(b) ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
(c)

(c)

(d)

(d)
12. Ionized hydrogen atoms and 𝛼-particles
with same momenta enters perpendicular
9. In the product (2021) to a constant magnetic field, B. The ratio of
⃗)
𝐹 = 𝑞(𝑣 × 𝐵 their radii of their paths rH : rα will be:
= 𝑞𝑣 × (𝐵𝑖 + 𝐵𝑗 + 𝐵0 𝑘⃗) (2019)
(a) 2 : 1
For q = 1 and 𝑣 = 2𝑖̂ + 4𝑗̂ + 6𝑘̂ and
(b) 1 : 2
𝐹 = −4𝑖̂ + 20𝑗̂ + 12𝑘̂
(c) 4 : 1
⃗?
What will be the complete expression for 𝐵 (d) 1 : 4
(a) −6𝑖̂ + 6𝑗̂ + 8𝑘̂
13. Current sensitivity of a moving coil
(b) 8𝑖̂ + 8𝑗̂ − 6𝑘̂
galvanometer is 5 div/mA and its voltage
(c) 6𝑖̂ + 6𝑗̂ − 8𝑘̂
sensitivity (angular deflection per unit
(d) −8𝑖̂ − 8𝑗̂ − 6𝑘̂ voltage applied) is 20 div/V. The resistance
10. A long solenoid of 50 cm length having 100 of the galvanometer is : (2018)
turns carries a current of 2.5 A. The (a) 250 Ω
(b) 25 Ω
130
 (c) 40 Ω field and is in equilibrium state. The energy
(d) 500 Ω required to rotate it by 60° is W. Now the
torque required to keep the magnet in this
14. An electron falls from rest through a vertical
new position is: (2016-II)
distance h in a uniform and vertically
√3𝑊
upward directed electric field E. The (a)
2
direction of electric field is now reversed, (b)
2𝑊
keeping its magnitude the same. A proton is √3
𝑊
allowed to fall from rest in it through the (c)
√3
same vertical distance h. The time of fall of (d) √3𝑊
the electron, in comparison to the time of
fall of the proton is (2018) 19. A long wire carrying a steady current is bent
(a) 10 times greater into a circular loop of one turn. The
(b) 5 times greater magnetic field at the center of the loop is B.
(c) Smaller It is then bent into a circular coil of n turns.
(d) Equal The magnetic field at the center of this coil
of n turns will be: (2016-II)
15. An arrangement of three parallel straight (a) 2nB
wires placed perpendicular to plane of (b) 2n2 B
paper carrying same current ‘I’ along the (c) nB
same direction is shown in figure. (d) n2 B
Magnitude of force per unit length on the
middle wire ‘B’ is given by: (2017-Delhi) 20. A long straight wire of radius a carries a
steady current I. The current is uniformly
distributed over its cross-section. The ratio

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ of the magnetic fields B and Bʹ at radial

distances a/2 and 2a respectively, from the
axis of the wire is: (2016-I)
(a) 1/4
2𝜇0 𝑖 2 (b) 1/2
(a)
𝜋𝑑
(c) 1
√2𝜇0 𝑖 2
(b) (d) 4
𝜋𝑑
𝜇𝑖 2
(c) 21. A square loop ABCD carrying a current i, is
√2𝜋𝑑
𝜇0 𝑖 2 placed near and coplanar with a long
(d)
2𝜋𝑑 straight conductor XY carrying a current I,
16. Inside a parallel plate capacitor the electric the net force on the loop will be: (2016-I)
field E varies with time as 𝑡 2 . The variation
of induced magnetic field with time is given
by: (2017-Gujrat)
(a) 𝑡 2

(b) No variation
(c) 𝑡 3
(d) 𝑡
2𝜇0 𝐼𝑖
17. An electron is moving in a circular path (a)
3𝜋
𝜇0 𝐼𝑖
under the influence of a transverse (b)
2𝜋
magnetic field of 3.57 × 10−2 𝑇. If the value of 2𝜇0 𝐼𝑖𝐿
(c)
e/m is 1.76 × 1011 𝐶/𝑘𝑔, the frequency of 3𝜋
𝜇0 𝐼𝑖𝐿
revolution of the electron is: (2016-II) (d)
2𝜋
(a) 62.8 MHz
(b) 6.28 MHz 22. A wire carrying current I has the shape as
(c) 1 GHz shown in adjoining figure. Linear parts of
(d) 100 MHz the wire are very long and parallel to X-axis
while semicircular portion of radius R is
18. A bar magnet is hung by a thin cotton
thread in a uniform horizontal magnetic
131
 lying in Y-Z plane. Magnetic field at point O 26. Two identical long conducting wires AOB
is: (2015) and COD are placed at right angle to each
other, with one above other such that O is
their common point for the two. The wires
carry I1 and I2 currents, respectively. Point
P is lying at distance d from O along a
direction perpendicular to the plane
containing the wires. The magnetic field at
⃗ = − 𝜇0 𝐼 (𝜋𝑖̂ − 2𝑘̂ ) the point P will be: (2014)
(a) 𝐵 𝜇0 𝐼1
4𝜋 𝑅
(a) ( )
⃗ = − 𝜇0 𝐼 (𝜋𝑖̂ + 2𝑘̂ )
(b) 𝐵 2𝜋𝑑 𝐼2
4𝜋 𝑅 𝜇0
(b) (𝐼 + 𝐼2 )
⃗ = 𝜇0 𝐼 (𝜋𝑖̂ − 2𝑘̂ )
(c) 𝐵 2𝜋𝑑 1
𝜇0
4𝜋 𝑅
(c) (𝐼 2 + 𝐼22 )
⃗ = 𝜇0 𝐼 (𝜋𝑖̂ + 2𝑘̂ ) 2𝜋𝑑 1
(d) 𝐵 𝜇0
4𝜋 𝑅 (d) (𝐼 2 + 𝐼22 )1/2
2𝜋𝑑 1
23. An electron moving in a circular orbit of
27. When a proton is released from rest in a
radius r makes n rotations per second. The
room, it starts with an initial acceleration 𝑎0
magnetic field produced at the center has
towards west. When it is projected towards
magnitude: (2015)
(a) Zero north with a speed v0 it moves with an
𝜇0 𝑛2 𝑒 initial acceleration 3𝑎0 toward west. The
(b) electric and magnetic fields in the room are:
𝑟
𝜇0 𝑛𝑒
(c) (2013)
2𝑟
𝑚𝑎0 3𝑚𝑎
(d)
𝜇0 𝑛𝑒 (a) 𝑒𝑎𝑠𝑡, 𝑒v 0 𝑑𝑜𝑤𝑛

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
2𝜋𝑟 𝑒 0
𝑚𝑎0 2𝑚𝑎0
24. A proton and an alpha particle both enter a (b) 𝑒
𝑤𝑒𝑠𝑡, 𝑒v 𝑢𝑝
0
region of uniform magnetic field, B, moving (c)
𝑚𝑎0 2𝑚𝑎0
𝑤𝑒𝑠𝑡, 𝑒v 𝑑𝑜𝑤𝑛
𝑒
at right angles to the field B. If the radius of 𝑚𝑎0 3𝑚𝑎0
0

circular orbits for both the particles is equal (d) 𝑒𝑎𝑠𝑡, 𝑢𝑝

𝑒 𝑒v0
and the kinetic energy acquired by proton is
28. A current loop in a magnetic field: (2013)
1 MeV, the energy acquired by the alpha
(a) Can be in equilibrium in two
particle will be: (2015 Pre)
orientations, one stable while the other
(a) 1 MeV
is unstable
(b) 4 MeV
(b) Experiences a torque whether the field
(c) 0.5 MeV
is uniform or non uniform in all
(d) 1.5 MeV
orientations
25. A rectangular coil of length 0.12 m and (c) Can be in equilibrium in one orientation
width 0.1 m having 50 turns of wire is (d) Can be in equilibrium in two
suspended vertically in a uniform magnetic
orientations, both the equilibrium
field of strength 0.2 Weber/m2 . The coil
carries a current of 2 A. If the plane of the states are unstable
coil is inclined at an angle of 30° with the
direction of the field, the torque required to
keep the coil in stable equilibrium will be:
(2015 Pre)
(a) 0.12 Nm
(b) 0.15 Nm
(c) 0.20 Nm
(d) 0.24 Nm

132
 Answer Key
S1. Ans. (d) S16. Ans. (d)

S2. Ans. (d) S17. Ans. (c)

S3. Ans. (b) S18. Ans. (d)

S4. Ans. (b) S19. Ans. (d)

S5. Ans. (a) S20. Ans. (c)

S6. Ans. (c) S21. Ans. (a)

S7. Ans. (c) S22. Ans. (b)

S8. Ans. (b) S23. Ans. (c)

S9. Ans. (a) S24. Ans. (a)

S10. Ans. (d) S25. Ans. (c)

S11. Ans. (c) S26. Ans. (d)

S12. Ans. (a) S27. Ans. (c)

S13. Ans. (a) S28. Ans. (a)

S14. Ans. (c)

S15. Ans. (c)

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ

133
 Solutions
S1. Ans.(d) 𝐹 = 8 × 10−20 𝑁
⃗𝑃 =𝐵
𝐵 ⃗ 𝑢𝑝𝑝𝑒𝑟 𝑤𝑖𝑟𝑒 ⊕ +𝐵
⃗ 𝑠𝑒𝑚𝑖−𝑐𝑖𝑟𝑐𝑙𝑒 ⊖ S8. Ans.(b)
⃗ 𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟−𝑤𝑖𝑟𝑒 ⊗ 𝜇𝐼𝑟
+𝐵 𝐵𝑖𝑛 = 2𝜋𝑅2
0 𝜇 𝑖 𝜇0 𝑖 𝜇 𝑖
0
𝐵𝑃 = − 4𝜋𝑅 + 4𝑅
− 4𝜋𝑅 0
𝐵0 = 2𝜋𝑅
𝜇 𝐼

𝜇0 𝑖 2
= (1 − 𝜋) point away from the page
4𝑅

S2. Ans.(d)
|𝐹 | = |𝐼(𝐿⃗ × 𝐵
⃗ )|

= |𝐼[𝐿𝑖̂ × (2𝑖̂ + 3𝑗̂ − 4𝑘̂ )]|

= 5 𝐼𝐿 S9. Ans.(a)

S3. Ans.(b) ⃗ ×𝐵
𝐹 = 𝑞(𝑉 ⃗)

⃗ = 𝜇(𝐼𝑑𝑙×𝑟 ) ⃗ ×𝐵
𝐹 = (𝑉 ⃗)
𝑑𝐵
4𝜋𝑟 3

As per Biot Savart law, the expression for 𝐹 = (2𝑖̂ + 4𝑗̂ + 6𝑘̂ ) × (𝐵𝑖̂ + 𝐵𝑗̂ + 𝐵𝑘̂ )
magnetic field depends on current 𝑖̂ 𝑗̂ 𝑘̂
carrying element 𝐼𝑑𝑙 , which is a vector 𝐹 = |2 4 6|
quantity, therefore, statement-I is correct 𝐵 𝐵 𝐵0

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
and statement-II is wrong. 𝐹 = (4𝐵0 − 6𝐵)𝑖̂ − (2𝐵0 − 6𝐵)𝑗̂ + (2𝐵 − 4𝐵)𝑘̂
S4. Ans.(b) 4𝑖̂ − 20𝑗̂ + 12𝑘̂
= (4𝐵0 − 6𝐵)𝑗̂ − (2𝐵0 − 6𝐵)𝑗̂ + (−2𝐵)𝑘̂
S10. Ans.(d)
𝑁
𝐵 = 𝜇0 𝑙 𝐼
100
= 4𝜋 × 10−7 × × 2.5
0.5

S5. Ans.(a) = 6.28 × 10−4 𝑇

𝑁 S11. Ans.(c)
𝐵 = 𝜇0 𝑛𝑖 = 𝜇0 𝑖
𝑙
Inside (d<R)
100
∴ 𝐵 = 4𝜋 × 10−7 × × 1 = 12.56 × 10−2 𝑇 Magnetic field inside conductor
10−3
𝜇0 𝑖
S6. Ans.(c) 𝐵=
2𝜋 𝑅2
𝑑

Polar molecules have centres of positive Or 𝐵 = 𝐾𝑑 …(1)

and negative charges separated by some Straight line passing
distance, so they have permanent dipole through origin
moment. At surface (d = R)
𝜇0 𝑖
S7. Ans.(c) 𝐵=
2𝜋 𝑅
…(2)

0𝜇 𝐼 Maximum at surface
𝐵 = 2𝜋𝑅
Outside (d > R)
𝐹 = 𝐵𝑉𝑞 sin 𝜃 𝜇0 𝑖
𝐵=
2𝜋 𝑑
𝜃 = 90° 1
Or 𝐵 ∝
𝑑
𝐹 = 𝐵𝑉𝑞
(Hyperbolic)
𝜇 𝐼 2×10−7 ×5
0
𝐹 = 2𝜋𝑅 ×𝑉×𝑒= × 105 × 1.6 × S12. Ans.(a)
20×10−2
10−19
134
 𝑚v 𝑝 𝑝
𝑟𝐻 = = ⇒ 𝑟𝛼 = We know that
𝑒𝐵 𝑒𝐵 2𝑒𝐵
𝑟𝐻 𝑝/𝑒𝐵 𝑟𝐻 2 𝜏 = 𝑀 × 𝐵 ⇒ 𝜏 = 𝑀𝐵 sin 𝜃
= ⇒ =
𝑟𝛼 𝑝/2𝑒𝐵 𝑟𝛼 1
𝜏 = 𝑀𝐵 sin 60° …(1)
S13. Ans.(a)
𝑊 = 𝑀𝐵(1 − cos 60°) …(2)
1
Voltage per division = 𝑉 From Eqs. (1) and (2)
20
1
Current per division = 𝐴 𝜏
√3
2
5000 = ⇒ 𝜏 = 𝑊√3
1
𝑊
𝑉 1/20 2
𝑅= = = 250 Ω
𝐼 1/5000 S19. Ans.(d)
S14. Ans.(c) We know that at the center of the circular
For electron loop 𝐵 =
𝜇0 𝐼
2𝑅
𝐸
𝑎𝑒 = +𝑔 𝑅
𝑚𝑒 Since 𝑙 = 2𝜋𝑅 = 𝑛(2𝜋𝑟) ⇒ 𝑟 = 𝑛
For proton 𝜇0 𝑖
For one turn 𝐵 = and
2𝑅
𝑒𝐸 2ℎ
𝑎𝑝 = + 𝑔 ⇒∵ 𝑡 = √ 𝜇0 𝑛𝑖
𝑚𝑝 𝑎 For n turn 𝐵′ =
2𝑟
Because 𝑎𝑒 > 𝑎𝑝 𝜇0 𝑛2 𝑖
⇒ 𝐵′ = = 𝑛2 𝐵
2𝑅
So 𝑡𝑒 < 𝑡𝑝
S20. Ans.(c)
S15. Ans.(c) 𝐼
Current density 𝐽 = 𝜋𝑎2

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
Force per unit length
𝜇0 𝐼1 𝐼2 From Ampere’s circuital
𝐹= 2𝜋𝑑
⇒ 𝐼1 = 𝐼2 = 𝑖
𝜇0 𝑖 2
𝐹1 = 𝐹2 = 𝐹 =
2𝜋𝑑

𝐹 ⊥ 𝐹2 , 𝜃 = 90°
𝐹𝑛𝑒𝑡 = √2𝐹
√2𝜇0 𝑖 2 𝜇0 𝑖 2
= =
2𝜋𝑑 √2𝜋𝑑

S16. Ans.(d)
∮ 𝐵. 𝑑𝑙 = 𝜇𝐼𝑒𝑛𝑐𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑑
Apply ampere’ circuit law
For r < a
∮ 𝐵. 𝑑𝑙 = 𝜇0 𝐼𝑑 𝐵 × 2𝜋𝑟 = 𝜇0 𝐽𝜋𝑟 2
𝑑𝐸 𝑎 𝜇0 𝐼
𝐵 × 2𝜋𝑟 = 𝜇0 𝐴𝜀0 𝑑𝑡 at 𝑟 = 2 , 𝐵1 = 4𝜋𝑎

𝐵 × 2𝜋𝑟 = 𝜇0 𝜋𝑟 2 𝜀0 2𝑡 For r > a

𝜇0 𝑖
𝐵∝𝑡 𝐵 × 2𝜋𝑟 = 𝜇0 𝐼 ⇒ 𝐵 =
2𝜋𝑟
𝐴 = 𝜋𝑟2 as B is restricted within radius r. At 𝑟 = 2𝑎
S17. Ans.(c) 𝜇 𝑖 𝐵1
0
𝐵2 = 4𝜋𝑎 ⇒ so, =1
𝐵2
We know that
𝑞𝐵 S21. Ans.(a)
𝑓 = 2𝜋𝑚
𝑒𝐵
𝑓 = 2𝜋𝑚
1.76×1011 ×3.57×10−2
𝑓= 2×3.14
𝐻𝑧
𝑓 = 10° Hz or 1 GHz
S18. Ans.(d)

135
 𝜇0 𝐼𝑖𝐿 𝑞𝛼 = 𝑒
𝐹𝐴𝐵 = 𝐿 towards XY
2𝜋[ ]
2
𝑚v √2𝑚𝐾
𝜇0 𝐼𝑖𝐿 𝑅= =
𝑞𝐵 𝑞𝐵
𝐹𝐶𝐷 = 3𝐿 away from XY
2𝜋[ ]
2 ∵ 𝑅𝛼 = 𝑅𝑝
𝐹𝑛𝑒𝑡 = 𝐹𝐴𝐵 − 𝐹𝐶𝐷 2𝑚𝛼 𝑘𝛼 2𝑚𝑝 𝐾𝑝
∴ 2 𝐵2
𝑞𝛼
= 2 𝐵2
𝑞𝑝
(𝑚𝛼 = 4𝑚, 𝑞𝛼 = 2𝑒, 𝑞𝑞 = 𝑒)
2 𝜇0 𝐼𝑖
=
3 𝜋
4𝑚𝑝 𝑘𝛼 𝑚𝑝 (1𝑀𝑒𝑉)
S22. Ans.(b) ⇒ =
4𝑒 2 𝑒2

‘B’ due to segment ‘1’ ⇒ 𝐾𝛼 = 1 𝑀𝑒 𝑉

0
𝐵 = 4𝜋𝑅
𝜇 𝐼
[sin 90° + sin 𝜃](−𝑘̂) S25. Ans.(c)

⃗⃗ × 𝐵
𝜏=𝑀 ⃗
Due to wire |𝜏| = 𝑀𝐵 sin 𝜃 = 𝑁𝐼𝐴𝐵 sin 𝜃 = 0.20 𝑁𝑚
𝜇0 𝐼
⃗ =
𝐵 [sin 𝜃1 + sin 𝜃2 ] S26. Ans.(d)
4𝜋𝑑

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
𝐵1 = 𝐵3 ⇒ 𝜃1 = 90° 𝜃2 = 0° Net magnetic field, 𝐵 = √𝐵12 + 𝐵22
𝜇0 𝐼 2 2
|𝐵1 | = |𝐵3 | = [sin 90° + sin 0°] 𝜇 𝐼 𝜇 𝐼
4𝜋𝑅 = √( 2𝜋𝑑
0 1 0 2
) + ( 2𝜋𝑑 )
𝜇0 𝐼 −𝜇0 𝐼
𝐵1 = 4𝜋𝑅 (−𝑘̂ ) = 4𝜋𝑅 (𝑘̂ ) 𝜇
0
= 2𝜋𝑑 √𝐼12 + 𝐼22
1 𝜇0 𝐼
𝐵2 = (−𝑖̂) S27. Ans.(c)
2 2𝑅
𝜇 𝐼
𝐵2 = − 0 (𝑖̂) Acceleration of charged particle 𝑎 =
4𝑅 𝑞
(𝐸⃗ + v ⃗)
⃗ ×𝐵
⃗ =𝐵
𝐵 ⃗1+𝐵
⃗2+𝐵
⃗3 𝑚
𝑞
−𝜇0 𝐼 Released from rest ⇒ 𝑎 = 𝑚 𝐸⃗ = 𝑎0 (west)
= [𝜋𝑖̂ + 2𝑘̂ ]
4𝜋𝑅
𝑚𝑎0
S23. Ans.(c) ⇒ 𝐸⃗ = (west)
𝑒
Magnetic field due to a circular loop When it is projected towards north,
𝜇0 𝑁𝐼
𝐵= where 𝑁 → no. of loops acceleration due to magnetic force = 2𝑎0
2𝑟
𝑞 𝑒 2𝑚𝑎0
𝐼= = 1/𝑛 = 𝑛𝑒 Therefore magnetic field = (down)
𝑇 𝑒v0

𝐵=
𝜇0 𝑛𝑒
(∵ 𝑁 = 1 as 𝑒 − makes only one S28. Ans.(a)
2𝑟
loop) A current loop in a magnetic field can be
in equilibrium in two orientations, one
S24. Ans.(a)
stable while the other is unstable
𝑚𝛼 = 4𝑚𝑝
𝑞𝛼 = 2𝑒

136
 Chapter 20
Sankalp Bharat
Electromagnetic Induction

1. The magnetic energy stored in an inductor (d) 33 V

of inductance 4 μH carrying a current of 2 6. A wheel with 20 metallic spokes each 1 m
A is: (2023) long is rotated with a speed of 120 rpm in a
(a) 8 μJ plane perpendicular to a magnetic field of
(b) 4 μJ 0.4 G. The induced emf between the axle
(c) 4 mJ
and rim of the wheel will be. (1 G = 10–4 T)
(d) 8 mJ
(2020 Covid Re-NEET)
2. A big circular coil of 1000 turns and average (a) 2.51 × 10−5 𝑉
radius 10 m is rotating about its horizontal (b) 4.0 × 10−5 𝑉
diameter at 2 rad 𝑠 −1 . If the vertical (c) 2.51 𝑉
component of earth’s magnetic field at that (d) 2.51 × 10−4 𝑉
place is 2 × 10−5 T and electrical resistance
7. A 800 turn coil of effective area 0.05 m2 is
of the coil is 12.56 Ω, then the maximum
kept perpendicular to a magnetic field of
induced current in the coil will be: (2022)
5 × 10–5 𝑇. When the plane of the coil is
(a) 1.5 A
rotated by 90° around any of its coplanar
(b) 1 A
axis in 0.1 s, the emf induced in the coil will
(c) 2 A
be: (2019)

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
(d) 0.25 A
(a) 2 V
3. A square loop of side 1 m and resistance 1 (b) 0.2 V
Ω is placed in a magnetic field of 0.5 T. If (c) 2 × 10−3 𝑉
the plane of loop is perpendicular to the (d) 0.02 V
direction of magnetic field, the magnetic
8. In which of the following devices, the eddy
flux through the loop is: (2022)
current effect is not used? (2019)
(a) 0.5 weber
(a) Induction furnace
(b) 1 weber
(b) Magnetic braking in train
(c) Zero weber
(c) Electromagnet
(d) 2 weber
(d) Electric heater
4. Two conducting circular loops of radii 𝑅1
9. The magnetic potential energy stored in a
and 𝑅2 are placed in the same plane with
certain inductor is 25 mJ, when the current
their centres coinciding. If 𝑅1 >> 𝑅2 , the
in the inductor is 60 mA. This inductor is of
mutual inductance M between them will be
inductance : (2018)
directly proportional to: (2021)
𝑅2 (a) 1.389 H
(a) (b) 138.88 H
𝑅1

(b)
𝑅12 (c) 0.138 H
𝑅1 (d) 13.89 H
𝑅2
(c)
𝑅1 10. A long solenoid of diameter 0.1 m has
𝑅1
(d) 2 × 104 turns per metre. At the centre of
𝑅2
solenoid, a coil of 100 turns and radius 0.01
5. The magnetic flux linked with a coil (in Wb) m is placed with its axis coinciding with the
is given by the equation 𝜙 = 5𝑡 2 + 3𝑡 + 16 solenoid axis. The current in the solenoid
The magnitude of induced emf in the coil at reduces at a constant rate to 0 A from 4 A
the fourth second will be in 0.05 s. If the resistance of the coil is
(2020 Covid Re-NEET) 10𝜋 2 Ω, the total charge flowing through the
(a) 43 V coil during this time is: (2017-Delhi)
(b) 108 V (a) 16 μC
(c) 10 V (b) 32 μC
142
 (c) 16π μC
(d) 32𝜋 μC
11. Figure shows a circuit that contains three
identical resistors with resistance R = 9.0 Ω
each, two identical inductors with ⃗
𝑑𝐵
(a) − 𝑑𝑡 𝜋𝑅 2 in loop 1 and zero in loop 2
inductance L = 2.0 mH each, and an ideal ⃗
𝑑𝐵
battery with emf 𝜀 = 18 V. The current ‘i’ (b) − 𝑑𝑡 𝜋𝑟 2 in loop 1 and zero in loop 2
through the battery just after the switch (c) Zero in loop 1 and zero in loop 2
closed is: (2017-Delhi) ⃗
𝑑𝐵 ⃗
𝑑𝐵
(d) − 𝜋𝑟 2 in loop 1 and − 𝜋𝑟 2 in loop 2
𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡

15. A long solenoid has 1000 turns. When a

current of 4 A flows through it, the magnetic
flux linked with each turn of the solenoid is
4 × 10–3 Wb. The self inductance of the
solenoid is: (2016-I)
(a) 4 H
(a) 0.2 A (b) 3 H
(b) 2A (c) 2 H
(c) 4A (d) 1 H
(d) 2 mA
16. A conducting squareframe of side a and a
12. A circular coil of radius 10 cm, 500 turns long straight wire carrying current I are
and resistance 2 Ω is placed with its plane, located in the same plane as shown in the

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
perpendicular to the horizontal component figure. The frame moves to the right with a
of the earth’s magnetic field. It is rotated constant velocity V. The emf induced in the
about its vertical diameter through 180° in frame will be proportional to: (2015)
0.25 s. The induced e.m.f. in the coil is
(Take 𝐻𝐸 = 3.0 × 10−5 𝑇): (2017-Gujrat)
(a) 6.6 × 10−4 𝑉
(b) 1.4 × 10−2 𝑉
(c) 2.6 × 10−2 𝑉
(d) 3.8 × 10−3 𝑉 1
(a) (2𝑥−𝑎)2
13. A bulb connected in series with an air-cored 1
solenoid is lit by an a.c. source. If a soft iron (b) (2𝑥−𝑎)(2𝑥+𝑎)
core is introduced in the solenoid. (c)
1
(2𝑥+2𝑎)(2𝑥+𝑎)
(2017-Gujrat) 1
(d)
𝑥2

17. An electron moves on a straight line path XY

as shown. The abcd is a coil adjacent to the
path of electron. What will be the direction
of current, if any, induced in the coil?
(a) The bulb stops glowing (2015 Pre)
(b) The bulk will glow brighter
(c) There is no change in glow of bulb
(d) The bulb will become dimmer
14. A uniform magnetic field is restricted within
a region or radius r. The magnetic field
⃗
𝑑𝐵 (a) No current induced
changes with time at a rate . Loop 1 of
𝑑𝑡 (b) abcd
radius R is outside the region of magnetic (c) adcd
field as shown in the figure below. Then the (d) The current will reverse its direction as
emf generates is: (2016-II)
the electron goes past the coil

143
18. A thin semicircular conducting ring (PQR) of (a) Zero
radius r is falling with its plane vertical in a (b) 𝐵𝜈𝜋𝑟 2 /2 and P is at higher potential
horizontal magnetic field B, as shown in (c) 𝜋𝑟𝐵𝜈 and R is at higher potential
figure. The potential difference developed (d) 2𝑟𝐵𝜈 and R is at higher potential
across the ring when its speed is v, is:
19. A wire loop is rotated in a magnetic field.
(2014)
The frequency of change of direction of the
induced e.m.f. is: (2013)
(a) Six times per revolution
(b) Once per revolution
(c) Twice per revolution
(d) Four times per revolution

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ

144
 Answer Key
S1. Ans. (a) S12. Ans. (d)

S2. Ans. (b) S13. Ans. (d)

S3. Ans. (a) S14. Ans. (b)

S4. Ans. (c) S15. Ans. (d)

S5. Ans. (a) S16. Ans. (b)

S6. Ans. (d) S17. Ans. (d)

S7. Ans. (d) S18. Ans. (d)

S8. Ans. (d) S19. Ans. (c)

S9. Ans. (d)

S10. Ans. (b)

S11. Ans. (c)

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ

145
 Solutions
S1. Ans.(a) S7. Ans.(d)
Magnetic energy stored in an inductor Number of turns in coil N = 800
1
= 2 𝐿𝐼 2 Area of coil A = 0.05 𝑚2
1 Magnetic field B = 5 × 10–5 T
= 2 × 4 × 10−6 × (2)2
Time taken to rotate Δt = 0.1 s
= 8𝜇𝐽
Initial angle 𝜃1 = 0°
S2. Ans.(b)
Final angle 𝜃2 = 90°
𝐸𝑚𝑎𝑥 𝑁𝐵𝐴𝜔
𝑖𝑚𝑎𝑥 = =
𝑅 𝑅 Change in magnetic flux Δϕ
1000×2×10−5 ×𝜋(102 )×2
𝑖𝑚𝑎𝑥 = = N(BA cos90° – BA cos0°)
12.56
= – NBA
𝑖𝑚𝑎𝑥 = 1𝐴
S3. Ans.(a) = – 800 × 5 × 10–5 × 0.05

𝐵 = 0.5𝑇 = – 2 × 10–3 weber

∆𝜙 (−)2×10−3 𝑊𝑏
𝑒=− = = 0.02 𝑉
∆𝑡 0.1𝑠

S8. Ans.(d)
Electric heater does not involve Eddy
currents. It uses Joule’s heating effect.

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
Angle between 𝐵̅&𝐴̅ is zero
S9. Ans.(d)
𝜙 = 𝐵. 𝐴. cos 0 1
𝑈 = 2 𝐿𝐼 2
= 0.5 × (1) × 1
2𝑈 2×25×10−3
= 0.5 Wb 𝐿= = = 13.89 H
𝐼2 (60×10−3 )
S4. Ans.(c) S10. Ans.(b)
𝑁2 𝜙2
𝑀= 𝑁 = 100
𝐼2
𝑁2 𝐵1 𝐴2 𝑛 = 2 × 104
𝑀=
𝐼1
𝑟 = 10−2
𝑀 ∝ 𝐵1 𝐴2
𝑅 = 10𝜋 2
𝜇0 𝐼1
𝑀∝ × 𝜋𝑅22 𝑖=4
2𝜋𝑅1

𝑅2 ∆𝜙 1
𝑀 ∝ 𝑅2 𝑞 = [( ) ⋅ ] ∆𝑡
∆𝑡 𝑅
1

S5. Ans.(a) ∆𝜙 = 𝑁𝐵𝐴

Magnitude of induced emf |𝜀| = |

𝑑𝜙 𝐵 = 𝜇0 𝑛𝑖
𝑑𝑡
|
𝐴 = 𝜋𝑟 2
= 10𝑡 + 3
∆𝜙 𝑛𝜇0 𝑛𝑖𝜋𝑟 2
𝑑𝜙 𝑞= =
( 𝑑𝑡 ) = 40 + 3 = 43 𝑅 𝑅
𝑡=4
𝑞 = [4𝜋 × 10−7 × 2 × 102 𝜋 × (10−2 )2 ×
S6. Ans.(d) 1
4] 10𝜋𝑟2
1
𝜀= 𝐵𝜔𝑟 2
2 𝑞 = 32 𝜇𝐶
1 −4 ) 120
𝜀 = × (0.4 × 10 × (2𝜋 [ 60 ]) (1)2
2

𝜀 = 0.8𝜋 × 10−4
𝜀 = 2.512 × 10−4 volt

146
S11. Ans.(None) S14. Ans.(b)
For Loop 1
−𝑑𝜙 𝑑𝐵 𝑑𝐵
𝜀𝑖𝑛𝑑 = = −𝐴 ( ) cos 0° = −𝜋𝑟 2 ( )
𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡

𝐴 = 𝜋𝑟 2 as B is restricted within radius

r. For loop 2, 𝜀𝑖𝑛𝑑 = 0 as no flux linkage
S15. Ans.(d)
At t = 0 just after the switch closed. Number of turn = 1000
Inductor opposes flow of current hence
Net magnetic flux = 𝑁𝜙 = 4 × 10−3 × 103
branch containing inductor do not allow
current pass through it. = 4 𝑊𝑏
While capacitor allow flow of current pass 𝜙 = 𝐿𝐼
through 4 = 𝐿×4
Note: ∴ If capacitor is S16. Ans.(b)
not considered
Emf Induced in side (1)
current (𝐼1 ) through
= 0 then 𝐼 =
18
= 2𝐴 𝜀1 = 𝐵1 𝑉𝑙
9
Emf Induced in side (2)
If capacitor is considered then,
𝑅 9 𝜀2 = 𝐵2 𝑉𝑙
𝑅𝑒𝑞 = = 2Ω
2
Emf in the frame = 𝐵1 𝑉𝑙 − 𝐵2 𝑉𝑙

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
𝜀 = 18 𝑉
𝜀 = 𝑉𝑙[𝐵1 − 𝐵2 ]
𝜀 18
𝐼=𝑅= × 2 1
9 ⇒ 𝜀 ∝ 𝐵1 − 𝐵2 Since 𝐵 ∝
𝑟
𝐼 = 4𝐴
1 1
So, 𝜀 ∝ [ − ]
None of the given options are correct. 𝑥−
𝑎
2
𝑥+
𝑎
2

S12. Ans.(d) 1
⇒ 𝜀 ∝ [(2𝑥−𝑎) − (2𝑥+𝑎)]
1

𝑑𝜙
Emf induced 𝜀 =
𝑑𝑡 S17. Ans.(d)
𝑑
= [𝐵𝐴 cos 𝜃] ∴ 𝜙 = 𝐵𝐴 cos 𝜃 First current develops in direction of
𝑑𝑡
𝑁𝐵𝐴[cos 𝜃2 −cos 𝜃1 ]
abcd but when electron moves away,
𝜀[for ‘N’ turns] = then magnetic field inside loop decreases
∆𝑡

𝜃1 = 180 𝜃2 = 0 and current will change its direction.

3×10−5 S18. Ans.(d)
𝜀 = 500 × × 𝜋 × (10 × 10−2 )2 × [1 −
0.25
(−1)]
𝜀 = 3.8 × 10−3 𝑉
S13. Ans.(d)
Inductance of a solenoid
𝜇0 𝑁2 𝐴
Induced emf = 𝐵𝜈(2𝑟) = 2𝑟𝐵𝜈
𝐿=
𝑙 S19. Ans.(c)
𝐿 ∝ 𝜇0
When soft iron core is inserted 𝜇0
increases in turn ‘L’ also increases, hence
current decreases in the circuit, results
in dimming of bulb.

147
 Chapter 21
Sankalp Bharat
Alternating Current

1. In a series LCR circuit, the inductance L is (a)

50
Hz
𝜋
10 mH, capacitance C is 1μF and resistance
(b) Option not available
R is 100Ω. The frequency at which
(c) Option not available
resonance (2023)
(d) Option not available
(a) 1.59 kHz
(b) 15.9 rad/s 6. A capacitor of capacitance ‘C’, is connected
(c) 15.9 kHz across an ac source of voltage V, given by
(d) 1.59 rad/s 𝑉 = 𝑉0 sin 𝜔𝑡. The displacement current
between the plates of the capacitor, would
2. A 12 V, 60 W lamp is connected to the
then be given by: (2021)
secondary of a step down transformer, 𝑉
whose primary is connected to ac mains of (a) 𝐼𝑑 = 𝜔𝐶0 cos 𝜔𝑡
𝑉
220 V. Assuming the transformer to be (b) 𝐼𝑑 = 𝜔𝐶0 sin 𝜔𝑡
ideal, what is the current in the primary (c) 𝐼𝑑 = 𝑉0 𝜔𝐶 sin 𝜔𝑡
winding? (2023) (d) 𝐼𝑑 = 𝑉0 𝜔𝐶 cos 𝜔𝑡
(a) 0.37 A
(b) 0.27 A 7. An inductor of inductance L, a capacitor of
(c) 2.7 A capacitance C and a resistor of resistance

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
(d) 3.7 A ‘R’ are connected in series to an ac source
of potential difference ‘V’ volts as shown in
3. The net impedance of circuit (as shown in figure. Potential difference across L, C and
figure) will be: (2023) R is 40V, 10V and 40V, respectively. The
amplitude of current flowing through LCR
series circuit is 10 2A. The impedance of the
circuit is: (2021)

(a) 5√2Ω
(a) 25 W (b) 4Ω
(b) 10√2 Ω (c) 5Ω
(c) 15 W (d) 4√2Ω
(d) 5√5 Ω 8. A step down transformer connected to an ac
4. The peak voltage of the ac source is equal mains supply of 220 V is made to operate at
to: (2022) 11 V, 44 W lamp. Ignoring power losses in
(a) The rms value of the ac source the transformer, what is the current in the
(b) √2 times the rms value of the ac source primary circuit? (2021)
(a) 0.4 A
(c) 1/√2 time the rms value of the ac source
(b) 2 A
(d) The value of voltage supplied to the
(c) 4 A
circuit.
(d) 0.2 A
5. A series LCR circuit with inductance 10 H,
capacitance 10 𝜇𝐹, resistance 50 Ω is 9. A series LCR circuit containing 5.0 H
connected to an ac source of voltage, V = inductor, 80 mF capacitor and 40 Ω resistor
200 sin (100 t) volt. If the resonant is connected to 230 V variable frequency ac
frequency of the LCR circuit is v0 and the source. The angular frequencies of the
frequency of the ac source is v, then source at which power transferred to the
(2022)
148
 circuit is half the power at the resonant
angular frequency are likely to be: (2021)
(a) 50 rad/s and 25 rad/s
(b) 46 rad/s and 54 rad/s
(c) 42 rad/s and 58 rad/s
(d) 25 rad/s and 75 rad/s
10. A series LCR circuit is connected an ac
voltage source. When L is removed from the
circuit, the phase difference between
𝜋
current and voltage is . If instead C is
3
removed from the circuit, the phase
𝜋 circuit used for communication?
difference is again 3 between current and
voltage. The power factor of the circuit is:
(2020)
(a) 0.5
(b) 1.0
(c) –1.0
(d) Zero
11. A light bulb and an inductor coil are
connected to an ac source through a key as
shown in the figure below. The key is closed
and after sometime an iron rod is inserted
14. The potential differences across the
resistance, capacitance and inductance are
80 V, 40 V and 100 V respectively in an LCR
circuit. The power factor of this circuit is:
(2016-II)
(a) 0.8
(b) 1.0
(c) 0.4
(d) 0.5
15. Which of the following combinations should
be selected for better tuning of an L-C-R
(2016-II)
(a) R = 15 Ω, L = 3.5 H, C = 30 μF
(b) R = 25 Ω, L = 1.5 H, C = 45 μF
(c) R = 20 Ω, L = 1.5 H, C = 35 μF
(d) R = 25 Ω, L = 2.5 H, C = 45 μF
16. A small signal voltage 𝑉(𝑡) = 𝑉0 sin 𝜔𝑡 is
applied across an ideal capacitor C:
(2016-I)
(a) Current I(t) lags voltage V(t) by 90°
(b) Over a full cycle the capacitor C does not

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
consume any energy from the voltage
into the interior of the inductor. The glow of source
the light bulb (2020 Covid Re-NEET) (c) Current I(t) is in phase with voltage V(t)
(d) Current I(t) leads voltage V(t) by 180°
17. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 50 μF and
a resistor 40 Ω are connected in series
across a source of emf V = 10 sin 340t. The
power loss in A.C. circuit is: (2016-I)
(a) Remains unchanged
(a) 0.51 W
(b) Will fluctuate
(b) 0.67 W
(c) Increase
(c) 0.76 W
(d) Decrease
(d) 0.89 W
12. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 μF and
18. A resistance R draws power P when
a resistor 50Ω are connected in series
connected to an AC source. If an inductance
across a source of emf, V = 10 sin 314 t. The
is now placed in series with the resistance,
power loss in the circuit is (2018)
such that the impedance of the circuit
(a) 2.74 W
becomes Z, the power drawn will be:
(b) 0.43 W
(2015)
(c) 0.79 W
𝑅
(d) 1.13 W (a) 𝑃√𝑍
13. A 100 Ω resistance and a capacitor of 100 Ω 𝑅
(b) 𝑃 (𝑍 )
reactance are connected in series across a
(c) 𝑃
220 V source. When the capacitor is 50%
𝑅 2
charged, the peak value of the displacement (d) 𝑃 (𝑍 )
current is: (2016-II)
(a) 4.4 A 19. A transformer having efficiency of 90% is
working on 200 V and 3 kW power supply.
(b) 11√2 𝐴
If the current in the secondary coil is 6 A,
(c) 2.2 A
the voltage across the secondary coil and
(d) 11 A

149
 the current in the primary coil respectively (2013)
are: (2014) (a) An iron rod is inserted in the coil
(a) 300 V, 15 A (b) Frequency of the AC source is decreased
(b) 450 V, 15 A (c) Number of turns in the coil is reduced
(c) 450 V, 13.5 A (d) A capacitance of reactance X C = X L is
(d) 600 V, 15 A included in the same circuit
20. A coil of self-inductance L is connected in
series with a bulb B and an AC source.
Brightness of the bulb decreases when:

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ

150
 Answer Key
S1. Ans. (a) S12. Ans. (c)

S2. Ans. (b) S13. Ans. (c)

S3. Ans. (d) S14. Ans. (a)

S4. Ans. (b) S15. Ans. (a)

S5. Ans. (a) S16. Ans. (b)

S6. Ans. (d) S17. Ans. (a)

S7. Ans. (c) S18. Ans. (d)

S8. Ans. (d) S19. Ans. (b)

S9. Ans. (b) S20. Ans. (a)

S10. Ans. (b)

S11. Ans. (d)

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ

151
 Solutions
S1. Ans.(a) 𝑑𝑞
=
𝐶𝑑v
𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡
For resonance frequency
𝐼1 = 𝐶(𝑉0 𝜔 cos 𝜔𝑡)
1
𝜔 = 𝜔𝐶 = 𝑉0 𝜔𝐶 cos 𝜔𝑡
⇒𝜔=
1
=
1
S7. Ans.(c)
√𝐿𝐶 √10×10−3 ×1×10−6
1 𝐼0 = 10√2𝐴
= = 104 rad/sec
√10−8 1
𝐼𝑁𝑠 = = 10𝐴
𝜔 104 √2
𝑓= (2𝜋) = 2𝜋
= 1.59 𝑘𝐻𝑧
𝑉𝑁𝑠 = √𝑉𝐴1 + (𝑉𝐿 − 𝑉𝐶)2
S2. Ans.(b)
= √(40)1 + (40 − 10)1
For transformer
𝑖 𝑉 𝑁𝑠 = 50𝑉
( 𝑝) = ( 𝑠 ) = ( ) 𝑉𝐴𝑁𝑆 50𝑉
𝑖𝑠 𝑉𝑃 𝑁𝑃
𝑍= = 10𝑉 = 5Ω
𝐼𝐴𝑁
For bulb, 𝑉𝑆 = 12 𝑉
60
S8. Ans.(d)
𝑖𝑠 = (12) = 5𝐴
𝜂 = 100%
𝑖𝑝 12
⇒ = (220) 𝑃𝑘 = 𝑃𝑘𝑦
5
60
𝑖𝑝 = 220 = (11) = 0.27𝐴
3 𝑉𝑦 𝐼𝑦 = 𝑉𝑐 𝐼𝑐

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
220 × 𝐼𝑦 = 44
S3. Ans.(d)
44 1
𝜔 = 2𝜋𝑓 ⇒ 𝜔 = 100𝜋 𝐼𝑦 = 220 = 5 𝐴 = 0.2𝐴

𝑍 = √𝑅 2 + (𝑋𝐿 − 𝑋𝐶 )2 S9. Ans.(b)

𝜔 𝜔𝐿 𝑅 50
1 𝑄= = ⇒ ∆𝜔 = = = 8 rad/sec
= √102 + (𝜔𝐿 − ) ∆𝜔 𝑅 𝐿 4
𝜔𝐶
1 1
𝜔0 = = = 50 rad/sec
√𝐿𝐶 √5×80×10−6
50 1
= √100 + (100𝜋 × × 10−3 ) − ∆𝜔
𝜋 100𝜋×
103
×10−6 𝜔𝑟𝑎𝑛 = 𝜔0 − = 46 rad/sec.
𝜋 2
∆𝜔
= √100 + (5 − 10)2 𝜔𝑟𝑎𝑛 = 𝜔0 − = 54 rad/sec
2

= √100 + 25 S10. Ans.(b)

𝑋𝐶
𝑍 = 5√5Ω When L removed tan 𝜙 = 𝑅

S4. Ans.(b) When L removed tan 𝜙 =

𝑋𝐿
𝑅
Peak voltage is √2 times rms voltages in 𝑋𝐶 𝑋𝐿
= ⇒ Resonance
ac. 𝑅 𝑅
𝑅 𝑅
S5. Ans.(a) cos 𝜙 = 𝑍 = 𝑍 = 1
𝜔 = 100 S11. Ans.(d)
𝜔 100 50
𝑣 = 2𝜋 = = Hz Impedance (z) = √𝑅 2 + 𝑋𝐿2
2𝜋 𝜋
1
1 1 1 Intensity (𝐼) ∝ 𝑧 ∝ glow of bulb thus
v0 = 2𝜋 = 2𝜋 √10×10×10−6
√ 𝐿𝐶
X L ↑, z ↑, I ↓, glow of bulb decreases
50
Hz
𝜋 S12. Ans.(c)
S6. Ans.(d) 𝑍 = √𝑅 2 + (𝑋𝐿 − 𝑋𝐶 )2
𝑞 = 𝐶𝑉
𝑅 = 50Ω

152
 𝑋𝐿 = 𝜔𝐿 = 314 × 20 × 10−3 = 6.28Ω So best answer will be (a)
𝑋𝐶 =
1
=
1
= 31.84 Ω S18. Ans.(d)
𝜔𝐶 314×100×10−6

𝑍 = √(50)2 + (25.56)2 = 56.15 Ω

10 2
𝑉𝑟2 ( ) ×50
2 √2
𝑃 = 𝑉𝑟 𝐼𝑟 cos 𝜙 = ×𝑅 = = 0.79 𝑊
𝑍2 (56.15)2

S13. Ans.(c)
𝜀0 220√2
(𝑖𝑑 )𝑚𝑎𝑥 = (𝑖𝑐 )𝑚𝑎𝑥 = 𝑖 = = =
𝑍 √1002 +1002
AC source Impendance = Z
2.2 𝐴
𝑃=
𝑉2 𝑃′ = 𝑉. 𝐼. cos 𝜙
As we are asked amplitude of 𝑅
𝑉
displacement current. So, need not worry ⇒ 𝑉 2 = 𝑃𝑅 𝑃′ = 𝑉. [ ] . cos 𝜙
𝑍
about charge on capacitor. (from phasor diagram) ′ 𝑉2 𝑅
𝑃 = .
𝑍 𝑍
S14. Ans.(a) ′
𝑃 =
(𝑃𝑅)𝑅
𝑍2
𝑋𝐿 −𝑋𝐶
tan 𝜙 = 𝑅 2
𝑅 𝑃′ = ( ) 𝑃
𝑍
𝑉𝐿 −𝑉𝐶 100−40
tan 𝜙 = = or 𝜙 = 37° S19. Ans.(b)
𝑉𝑅 80
4 𝑉 𝐼 𝑉 (6)
Power factor cos 𝜙 = cos 37° = or 0.8 𝜂 = 𝑉 𝑆 𝐼𝑆 ⇒ 0.9 = 3×10
𝑆
3 ⇒ 𝑉𝑆 = 450 𝑉
5 𝑃 𝑃

S15. Ans.(a) 3000

As 𝑉𝑃 𝐼𝑃 = 3000 so, 𝐼𝑃 = 𝐴 = 15𝐴

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
𝑋𝐶 1 200
𝑄= =
𝑅 𝜔0 𝐶𝑅 S20. Ans.(a)
1 1 𝐿
= × √𝐿𝐶 = √
𝑅𝐶 𝑅 𝐶

For better tuning, Q-factor must be high.

𝜔0 𝐿 1 𝐿 1 𝐿
∴𝑄= = ( ) = 𝑅 √𝐶
𝑅 √𝐿𝐶 𝑅

R and C should be small and L should be Brightness of the bulb

high. • Decreases when an iron rod is inserted
S16. Ans.(b) in the coil as impedance of circuit
increases.
Power = 𝑉𝑟𝑚𝑠 × 𝐼𝑟𝑚𝑠 × cos 𝜙
• Increases when frequency of the AC
As cos 𝜙 = 0°, Since, 𝜙 = 90°
source is decreased as impedance of
Hence power consumed in one complete circuit decreases.
cycle is zero. • Increases when number of turns in the
S17. Ans.(a) coil is reduced as impedance of circuit
1 1 decreases.
𝑋𝐶 = 𝜔𝐶 = 340×50×10−6 = 58.8
• Increases when a capacitance of
𝑋𝐿 = 𝜔𝐿 = 340 × 20 × 10−3 = 6.8Ω reactance X C = X L is included in the
circuit as impedance of circuit
𝑍 = √𝑅1 + (𝑋1 − 𝑋1 )1 = √401 + (58.8 − 6.8)1
decreases.
= √4304Ω
2 𝑉𝑟𝑚𝑠 2
𝑃 = 𝑖𝑟𝑚𝑠 𝑅={ } 𝑅
𝑍
10 2
√2 50×40
={ } × 40 = = 0.47 W
√ 4304 4304

153
 Chapter 22
Sankalp Bharat
Electromagnetic Waves

1. An ac source is connected to a capacitor C. following combination gives the correct

Due to decrease in its operating frequency: possible directions for electric field (E) and
(2023) magnetic field (B) respectively? (2021)
(a) Capacitive reactance remains constant (a) −𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂ , −𝑗̂ − 𝑘̂
(b) Capacitive reactance decreases. (b) 𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂ , −𝑗̂ − 𝑘̂
(c) Displacement current increases. (c) −𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂ , −𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂
(d) Displacement current decreases. (d) 𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂ , 𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂
2. In a plane electromagnetic wave travelling 6. The ratio of contributions made by the
in free space, the electric field component electric field and magnetic field components
oscillates sinusoidally at a frequency of to the intensity of an electromagnetic wave
2.0 × 1010 Hz and amplitude 48 𝑉𝑚–1. Then is : (c = speed of electromagnetic waves)
the amplitude of oscillating magnetic field (2020)
is: (2023) (a) 1 : 1
(Spped of light in free space = 3 × 108 𝑚𝑠 −1) (b) 1 : c
(a) 1.6 × 10−6 𝑇 (c) 1 : c 2
(b) 1.6 × 10−9 𝑇 (d) c : 1
(c) 1.6 × 10−8 𝑇

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
7. The magnetic field in a place
(d) 1.6 × 10−7 𝑇
electromagnetic wave is given by,
3. Match Lis –I with List –II 𝐵𝑦 = 2 × 10−7 sin(𝜋 × 103 𝑥 + 3𝜋 × 1011 𝑡) 𝑇
List-I List-II
Calculate the wavelength.
(Electromagnetic (Wavelength)
(2020 Covid Re-NEET)
wave)
AM radio waves (i) 10−10 m (a) 2 × 10−3 𝑚
(A)
(b) 2 × 103 𝑚
(B) Microwaves (ii) 102 m
(c) 𝜋 × 10−3 𝑚
(C) Infrared radiations (iii) 10−2 m (d) 𝜋 × 103 𝑚
(D) X-rays (iv) 10−4 m
8. The E.M. wave with shortest wavelength
Choose the correct answer from the options among the following is,
given below: (2022) (2020 Covid Re-NEET)
(a) (A) – (iii), (B) – (ii), (C) – (i), (D) – (iv) (a) X-rays
(b) (A) – (iii), (B) – (iv), (C) – (ii), (D) – (i) (b) Gamma-rays
(c) (A) – (ii), (B) – (iii), (C) – (iv), (D) – (i) (c) Microwaves
(d) (A) – (iv), (B) – (iii), (C) – (ii), (D) – (i) (d) Ultraviolet rays
4. When light propagates through a material 9. Which colour of the light has the longest
medium of relative permittivity ∈, and wavelength?
relative permeability 𝜇𝑟 , the velocity of light, (a) Red
v is given by : (c-velocity of light in vaccum) (b) Blue
(2022) (c) Green
𝜇 (d) Violet
(a) v = √∈𝑟
𝑟
10. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 20
∈𝑟
(b) v = √𝜇 μF is being charged by a voltage source
𝑐
𝑟
whose potential is changing at the rate of 3
(c) v = V/s. The conduction current through the
√∈𝑟 𝜇𝑟
(d) v = 𝑐 connecting wires, and the displacement
current through the plates of the capacitor,
5. For a plane electromagnetic wave
would be, respectively. (2019)
propagating in x-direction, which one of the
(a) Zero, 60 μA
154
 (b) 60 μA, 60 μA (d) E/C
(c) 60 μA, zero 15. The energy of the E.M. waves is of the order
(d) Zero, zero
of 15 keV. To which part of the spectrum
11. An em wave is propagating in a medium does it belong? (2015 Pre)
with a velocity v ⃗ = v𝑖̂. The instantaneous (a) Gamma-rays
oscillating electric field of this em wave is (b) X-rays
along +y axis. Then the direction of (c) Infra-red rays
oscillating magnetic field of the em wave will (d) Ultraviolet rays
be along. (2018)
16. Light with an energy flux of 25 × 104 W/m2
(a) –y direction
falls on a perfectly reflecting surface at
(b) +z direction
normal incidence. If the surface area is 15
(c) –z direction
cm2, the average force exerted on the
(d) –x direction
surface is: (2014)
12. In an electromagnetic wave in free space the (a) 1.25 × 10−6 N
root mean square value of the electric field (b) 2.50 × 10−6 N
is Erms = 6 V/m. The peak value of the (c) 1.20 × 10−6 N
magnetic field is: (2017-Delhi) (d) 3.0 × 10−6 N
(a) 2.83 × 10−8 𝑇
17. The condition under which a microwave
(b) 0.70 × 10−8 𝑇
oven heats up a food item containing water
(c) 4.23 × 10−8 𝑇
molecules most efficiently is: (2013)
(d) 1.41 × 10−8 𝑇
(a) Infra-red waves produce heating in a
13. Out of the following options which one can microwave oven

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
be used to produce a propagating (b) The frequency of the microwaves must
electromagnetic wave? (2016-I) match the resonant frequency of the
(a) A charge moving at constant velocity water molecules
(b) A stationary charge (c) The frequency of the microwaves has no
(c) A charge less particle relation with natural frequency of water
(d) An accelerating charge molecules
14. Radiation of energy ‘E’ falls normally on a (d) Microwaves are heat waves, so always
perfectly reflecting surface. The momentum produce heating
transferred to the surface is (C = velocity of
light): (2015)
(a) 2E/C
(b) 2E/C 2
(c) E/C 2

155
 Answer Key
S1. Ans. (d) S11. Ans. (b)

S2. Ans. (d) S12. Ans. (a)

S3. Ans. (c) S13. Ans. (d)

S4. Ans. (c) S14. Ans. (a)

S5. Ans. (a) S15. Ans. (b)

S6. Ans. (a) S16. Ans. (b)

S7. Ans. (a) S17. Ans. (b)

S8. Ans. (b)

S9. Ans. (a)

S10. Ans. (b)

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ

156
 Solutions
S1. Ans.(d) S9. Ans.(a)
1
Capacitive reactance = 𝜔𝐶 = 𝑋𝑐 (say) Red has the longest wavelength while
violet has smallest wavelength among
On decreasing the operating frequency the given options.
𝜔 reduces As 𝑋𝑐 is inversely proportional
S10. Ans.(b)
to 𝜔 the value of 𝑋𝑐 increase
Given capacitance of capacitor C = 20
∴ 𝐼𝐶 = 𝐼𝐷
μF
𝑉
= 𝑋0
𝑐 = 20 × 10−6 𝐹
As 𝑋𝑐 increases, therefore displacement 𝑑𝑉
Rate of change of potential ( 𝑑𝑡 ) = 3𝑉/𝑠
current Id decreases.
𝑑𝑞 𝑑𝑉
S2. Ans.(d) = 𝐶 𝑑𝑡
𝑑𝑡
𝐸 48
𝐵 = 𝐶 = 3×108 = 16 × 10−8 𝑖𝑐 = 20 × 10−6 × 3 = 60 × 10−6 𝐴 = 60𝜇𝐴
Also 𝑖𝑑 = 𝑖𝑐 = 60𝜇𝐴
= 1.6 × 10−7 𝑇
S11. Ans.(b)
S3. Ans.(c)
(A) Radio wave (ii) ≈ 102 𝑚 (ii) ⃗ ) is decided by 𝐸⃗ × 𝐵
Direction (v ⃗

(B) Microwave ≈ (iii) 10−2 𝑚 (iii) ⃗ = 𝐸⃗ × 𝐵

𝑉 ⃗

(C) Infrared radiations ≈ (iv) 10−4 𝑚 (iv) 𝑖̂ = 𝑗̂ × 𝐵̂

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
(D) X-ray (i) ≈ Å = 10−10 𝑚 (i)
(A) – (ii), (B) – (iii), (C) – (iv), (D) – (i) S12.
𝐵̂ = 𝑘̂ = +𝑧 direction
Ans.(a)
𝐸0
S4. Ans.(c) 𝐸𝑟𝑚𝑠 =
√2
𝑛 = √∈𝑟 𝜇𝑟
𝐸0 = √2𝐸𝑟𝑚𝑠
𝑐 𝑐
𝑛= ⇒v=
v 𝑛 𝐸0 = √2 × 6𝑉/𝑚
𝑐 𝐸0
v= ( ) =𝐶
√∈𝑟 𝜇𝑟 𝐵0
S5. Ans.(a) 𝐸0 6√2𝑉/𝑚
𝐵0 = = 3×108 𝑚/𝑠
𝐶
𝑐 = 𝐸⃗ × 𝐵
⃗
𝐵0 = 2.824 × 10−8 𝑇
(−𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂ ) × (−𝑗̂ − 𝑘̂ )
S13. Ans.(d)
= 𝑖̂ + 𝑖̂
To generate electromagnetic waves we
= 2𝑖̂ need accelerating charge particle
S6. Ans.(a) S14. Ans.(a)
In EMW, electric field and magnetic field 𝐸
Momentum of light 𝑝 = 𝐶
have same energy density and same
intensities.
S7. Ans.(a)
2𝜋 2𝜋
Wavelength (𝜆) = = 𝜋×103
𝑘

⇒ 𝜆 = 2 × 10−3 𝑚
S8. Ans.(b) So, momentum transferred to the
Gamma rays has the shortest wavelength surface
2𝐸
among the given options of E.M waves = 𝑝𝑓 − 𝑝𝑖 =
𝐶

157
S15. Ans.(b) Average force 𝐹𝑎v =
∆𝑝
=
2𝜙𝐴
∆𝑡 𝑐
Wavelength of the way 2×25×104 ×15×10−4
=
ℎ𝑐 3×108
𝜆=
𝐸
= 2.50 × 10−6 N
= 0.826Å
S17. Ans.(b)
𝛾 X-ray UV
The frequency of microwave must match
10−2 Å 1Å 3 × 10−7 𝑚 the resonant frequency of the water
Since 10−3 𝑛𝑚 ≤ 𝜆 ≤ 1 𝑚𝑚 molecules in the food.
So, it is X-ray
S16. Ans.(b)

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ

158
 Chapter 23
Sankalp Bharat
Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

1. Light travels a distance x in time t1 in air material of the lens is 1.5, the power of the
and 10x in time t2 in another denser lens is : (2022)
medium. What is the critical angle for this (a) +20D
(2023) (b) +5D
(a) sin−1 (
10𝑡1
) (c) infinity
𝑡2
𝑡
(d) +2D
(b) sin−1 (𝑡2 )
1 6. Two transparent media A and B are
10𝑡
(c) sin−1 ( 2 ) separated by a plane boundary. The speed
𝑡1
𝑡 of light in those media are 1.5 × 108 𝑚/𝑠 and
(d) sin−1 (10𝑡1 )
2 2.0 × 108 𝑚/𝑠, respectively. The critical angle
2. In the figure shown here, what is the for a ray of light for these two media is:
equivalent focal length of the combination (2022)
of lenses (Assume that all layers are thin)? (a) sin−1 (0.750)

(2023) (b) tan−1 (0.500)

(c) tan−1 (0.750)
(d) sin−1(0.500)
7. A lens of large focal length and large

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ aperture is best suited as an objective of an

astronomical telescope since: (2021)
(a) A large aperture contributes to the
quality and visibility of the images.
(b) A large area of the objective ensures
(a) –50 cm better light gathering power.
(b) 40 cm (c) A large aperture provides a better
(c) –40 cm resolution.
(d) –100 cm (d) All of the above.
3. Two thin lenses are of same focal lengths (f), 8. The number of photons per second on an
but one is convex and the other one is average emitted by the source of
concave. When they are placed in contact monochromatic light of wavelength 600 nm,
with each other, the equivalent focal length when it delivers the power of 3.3 × 10–3 watt
of the combination will be: (2023) will be: (ℎ = 6.6 × 10–34 𝐽𝑠) (2021)
(a) Infinite (a) 1017
(b) Zero (b) 1016
(c)
𝑓 (c) 1015
4
𝑓 (d) 1018
(d)
2
9. A convex lens ‘A’ of focal length 20 cm and
4. A light ray falls on a glass surface of a concave lens ‘B’ of focal length 5 cm are
refractive index √3, at an angle 60°. The kept along the same axis with a distance ‘d’
angle between the refracted and reflected between them. If a parallel beam of light
rays would be: (2022) falling on ‘A’ leaves ‘B’ as a parallel beam,
(a) 60° then the distance ‘d’ in cm will be: (2021)
(b) 90° (a) 15
(c) 120° (b) 50
(d) 30° (c) 30
(d) 25
5. A biconvex lens has radii of curvature, 20
cm each. If the refractive index of the
159
10. Find the value of the angle of emergence 14. A ray is incident at an angle of incidence i
from the prism. Refractive index of the glass on one surface of a small angle prism (with
is √3. (2021) angle of prism A) and emerges normally
from the opposite surface. If the refractive
index of the material of the prism is μ, then
the angle of incidence is nearly equal to :
(2020)
2𝐴
(a) 𝜇
(b) 𝜇𝐴
(a) 30° 2𝐴
(b) 45° (c) 2
𝐴
(c) 90° (d)
2𝜇
(d) 60°
15. Three stars A, B, C have surface
11. A point object is placed at a distance of 60
temperatures TA , TB , TC respectively. Star A
cm from a convex lens of focal length 30 cm.
appears bluish, star B appears reddish and
If a plane mirror were put perpendicular to
star C yellowish. Hence,
the principal axis of the lens and at a
(2020 Covid Re-NEET)
distance of 40 cm from it, the final image
(a) TB > TC > TA
would be formed at a distance of: (2021)
(b) TC > TB > TA
(c) TA > TC > TB
(d) TA > TB > TC
16. An object is placed on the principal axis of

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
a concave mirror at a distance of 1.5 f (f is
the focal length). The image will be at,
(a) 30 cm from the lens, it would be a real (2020 Covid Re-NEET)
image. (a) 1.5 f
(b) 30 cm from the plane mirror, it would be (b) –1.5f
a virtual image. (c) 3f
(c) 20 cm from the plane mirror, it would be (d) –3f
a virtual image 17. If the critical angle for total internal
(d) 20 cm from the lens, it would be a real reflection from a medium to vacuum is 45°,
image. then velocity of light in the medium is,
(2020 Covid Re-NEET)
12. Assume that light of wavelength 600 nm is 1
coming from a star. The limit of resolution (a) × 108 𝑚/𝑠
√2
of telescope whose objective has a diameter (b) √2 × 108 𝑚/𝑠
of 2 m is : (2020) (c) 3 × 108 𝑚/𝑠
(a) 1.83 × 10−7 rad (d) 1.5 × 108 𝑚/𝑠
(b) 7.32 × 10−7 rad
18. A plano-convex lens of unknown material
(c) 6.00 × 10−7 rad
and unknown focal length is given. With the
(d) 3.66 × 10−7 rad
help of a spherometer we can measure the,
13. Light with an average flux of 20 𝑊/𝑐𝑚2 falls (2020 Covid Re-NEET)
on nonreflecting surface at normal (a) Radius of curvature of the curved
incidence having surface area 20 𝑐𝑚2 . The surface
energy received by the surface during time (b) Aperture of the lens
span of 1 minute is: (2020) (c) Refractive index of the material
(a) 12 × 103 𝐽 (d) Focal length of the lens
(b) 24 × 103 𝐽
19. The power of a biconvex lens is 10 dioptre
(c) 48 × 103 𝐽 and the radius of curvature of each surface
(d) 10 × 103 𝐽 is 10 cm. Then the refractive index of the
material of the lens is,

160
 (2020 Covid Re-NEET) 24. An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm
(a) 9/8 from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm.
(b) 5/3 If the object is displaced through a distance
(c) 3/2 of 20 cm towards the mirror, the
(d) 4/3 displacement of the image will be: (2018)
20. Pick the wrong answer in the context with (a) 30 cm towards the mirror
rainbow. (2019) (b) 36 cm away from the mirror
(a) When the light rays undergo two (c) 30 cm away the mirror
internal reflections in a water drop, a (d) 36 cm towards the mirror
secondary rainbow is formed 25. A beam of light from a source L is incident
(b) The order of colours is reversed in the normally on a plane mirror fixed at a certain
secondary rainbow distance x from the source. The beam is
(c) An observer can see a rainbow when his reflected back as a spot on a scale placed
front is towards the sun just above the source L. When the mirror is
(d) Rainbow is a combined effect of rotated through a small angle θ, the spot of
dispersion refraction and reflection of the light is found to move through a
sunlight distance y on the scale. The angle θ is given
21. Two similar thin equi-convex lenses, of focal by: (2017-Delhi)
𝑦
length f each, are kept coaxially in contact (a) 𝑥
with each other such that the focal length 𝑥
(b)
of the combination is F1 . When the space 2𝑦
𝑥
between the two lenses is filled with (c)
𝑦
glycerine (which has the same refractive

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
𝑦
(d)
index (μ = 1.5) as that of glass) then the 2𝑥

equivalent focal length is F2 . The ratio 𝐹1 : 𝐹2 26. A thin prism having refracting angle 10° is
will be: (2019) made of glass of refractive index 1.42. This
(a) 2 : 1 prism is combined with another thin prism
(b) 1 : 2 of glass of refractive index 1.7. This
(c) 2 : 3 combination produces dispersion without
(d) 3 : 4 deviation. The refracting angle of second
prism should be: (2017-Delhi)
22. In total internal reflection when the angle of
(a) 6°
incidence is equal to the critical angle for
(b) 8°
the pair of media in contact, what will be
(c) 10°
angle of refraction? (2019)
(d) 4°
(a) 180°
(b) 0° 27. If the angle of a prism is 60° and angle of
(c) Equal to angle incidence minimum deviation is 40°, then the angle of
(d) 90° refraction will be: (2017-Gujrat)
(a) 4°
23. The refractive index of the material of a
(b) 30°
prism is √2 and the angle of the prism is
(c) 20°
30º. One of the two refracting surfaces of
(d) 3°
the prism is made a mirror inwards, by
silver coating. A beam of monochromatic 28. A person has near point at 60 cm. The focal
light entering the prism from the other face length of spectacles lenses to read at 22 cm
will retrace its path (after reflection from the having glasses separated 2 cm from the eyes
silvered surface) if its angle of incidence on is: (2017-Gujrat)
the prism is: (2018) (a) 40 cm
(a) 30° (b) 10 cm
(b) 45° (c) 20 cm
(c) 60° (d) 30 cm
(d) Zero 29. A light beam is incident on a denser
medium whose refractive index is 1.414 at
161
 an angle of incidence 45°. Find the ratio of
width of refracted beam in a medium to the
width of the incident beam in air.
(2017-Gujrat)
(a) √3: √2
(b) 1: √2
(c) √2: 1
(d) √2: √3
30. A person can see clearly objects only when
they lie between 50 cm and 400 cm from his
eyes. In order to increase the maximum
distance of distinct vision to infinity, the
type and power of the correcting lens, the
person has to use, will be: (2016-II)
(a) Concave, –0.2 diopter
(b) Convex, +0.15 diopter
(c) Convex, +2.25 diopter
(d) Concave, –0.25 diopter
(d) 4
31. An air bubble in a glass slab with refractive
index 1.5 (near normal incidence) is 5 cm
(b) A → 1 and 3; B → 1 and 4; C → 1 and 2;
D → 3 and 4
(c) A → 1 and 4; B → 2 and 3; C → 2 and 4;
D → 2 and 3
(d) A → 3 and 4; B → 2 and 4; C → 2 and 3;
D → 1 and 4
34. An astronomical telescope has objective and
eyepiece of focal length 40 cm and 4 cm
respectively. To view an object 200 cm away
from the objective, the lenses must be
separated by a distance: (2016-I)
(a) 37.3 cm
(b) 46.0 cm
(c) 50.0 cm
(d) 54.0 cm
35. The angle of incidence for a ray of light at a
refracting surface of a prism is 45°. The
angle of prism is 60°. If the ray suffers
minimum deviation through the prism, the
angle of minimum deviation and refractive
index of the material of the prism
respectively, are: (2016-I)

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
deep when viewed from one surface and 3 1
cm deep when viewed from the opposite (a) 45°;
√2
surface. The thickness (in cm) of the slab is: (b) 30°; √2
(2016-II) (c) 45°; √2
(a) 12 1
(d) 30°; 2
(b) 16 √
(c) 8 36. Two identical thin plano-convex glass
(d) 10 lenses (refractive index 1.5) each having
32. Two identical glass (μg = 3/2) equiconvex radius of curvature of 20 cm are placed with
lenses of focal length f each are kept in their convex surfaces in contact at the
contact. The space between the two lenses center. The intervening space is filled with
is filled with water (μw = 4/3). The focal oil of refractive index 1.7. The focal length
length of the combination is: (2016-II) of the combination is: (2015)
(a) 4f/3 (a) –25 cm
(b) 3f/4 (b) –50 cm
(c) f/3 (c) 50 cm
(d) f (d) –20 cm

33. Match the corresponding entries of column- 37. The refracting angle of a prism is A, and
1 with column-2. [where m is the refractive index of the material of the prism
magnification produced by the mirror] is cot(A/2). The angle of minimum deviation
(2016-I) is: (2015)
Column-1 Column-2 (a) 180° − 2𝐴
(b) 90° − 𝐴
(A) 𝑚 = −2 (1) Convex mirror
(c) 180° + 2𝐴
(B) 𝑚=−
1
(2) Concave mirror
2 (d) 180° − 3𝐴
(C) 𝑚 = +2 (3) Real image
38. A beam of light consisting of red, green and
(D) 𝑚 = √2/√3 (4) Virtual image blue colors is incident on a right angled
prism. The refractive index of the material
(a) A → 2 and 3; B → 2 and 3; C → 2 and 4; of the prism for the above red, green and
D → 1 and 4
162
 blue wavelengths are 1.39, 1.44 and 1.47,
respectively
The prism will : (2015-Pre)
(a) Separate the red color part from the
green and blue colors
(b) Separate the blue color part from the
red and green colors
(c) Separate all the three colors from one
another
(d) Not separate the three colors at all
39. In an astronomical telescope in normal
adjustment a straight black line of length L
is drawn on inside part of objective lens. The
eye-piece forms a real image of this line. The
length of this image is I. The magnification
of the telescope is: (2015-Pre)
𝐿 43. A plano-convex lens fits exactly into a
41. If the focal length of objective lens is
increased then magnifying power of:
(2014)
(a) Microscope will increase but that of
telescope decrease
(b) Microscope and telescope both will
increase
(c) Microscope and telescope both will
decrease
(d) Microscope will decrease but that of
telescope will increase
42. For a normal eye, the cornea of eye provides
a converging power of 40 D and the least
converging power of the eye lens behind the
cornea is 20 D. Using this information, the
distance between the retina and the cornea
of eye lens can be estimated to be: (2013)
(a) 1.5 cm
(b) 5 cm
(c) 2.5 cm
(d) 1.67 cm

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
(a)
𝐼
𝐿 planoconcave lens. Their plane surfaces are
(b) +1 parallel to each other. If lenses are made of
𝐼
𝐿
(c) −1 different materials of refractive indices μ1
𝐼
𝐿+1 and μ2 and R is the radius of curvature of
(d)
𝐼−1 the curved surface of the lenses, then the
40. The angle of a prism is A. One of its focal length of the combination is: (2013)
2𝑅
refracting surfaces is silvered. Light rays (a) (𝜇2 −𝜇1 )
falling at an angle of incidence 2A on the 𝑅
(b)
first surface returns back through the same 2(𝜇1 +𝜇2 )
𝑅
path after suffering reflection at the silvered (c)
2(𝜇1 −𝜇2 )
surface. The refractive index μ, of the prism 𝑅
is: (2014) (d) (𝜇1 −𝜇2 )
(a) 2 sin A
(b) 2 cos A
(c) ½ cos A
(d) tan A

163
 Answer Key
S1. Ans. (a) S24. Ans. (b)

S2. Ans. (d) S25. Ans. (d)

S3. Ans. (d) S26. Ans. (a)

S4. Ans. (b) S27. Ans. (b)

S5. Ans. (b) S28. Ans. (d)

S6. Ans. (a) S29. Ans. (a)

S7. Ans. (a) S30. Ans. (d)

S8. Ans. (b) S31. Ans. (a)

S9. Ans. (a) S32. Ans. (b)

S10. Ans. (d) S33. Ans. (a)

S11. Ans. (c) S34. Ans. (d)

S12. Ans. (d) S35. Ans. (b)

S13. Ans. (b) S36. Ans. (b)

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
S14. Ans. (b) S37. Ans. (a)

S15. Ans. (c) S38. Ans. (a)

S16. Ans. (d) S39. Ans. (a)

S17. Ans. (a) S40. Ans. (b)

S18. Ans. (a) S41. Ans. (d)

S19. Ans. (c) S42. Ans. (d)

S20. Ans. (c) S43. Ans. (d)

S21. Ans. (b)

S22. Ans. (d)

S23. Ans. (b)

164
 Solutions
S1. Ans.(a) By Snell’s law
Speed of light in air is 1 sin 60° = √3 sin 𝑟
𝑥
𝐶= √3
= √3 sin 𝑟
𝑡1
2
Speed of light in another denser 1
sin 𝑟 = 2
medium.
10𝑥 𝑟 = 30°
𝐶2 =
𝑡2
Method (ii)
𝐶 𝑥 𝑡2
⇒𝜇= 𝐶2
= 𝑡1
× 10𝑥 Because angle of incidence is Brewster’s
𝑡 angle so that angle between reflected
⇒ 𝜇 = 10𝑡2
1 and refracted ray is 90° tan 𝑖𝑝 = 𝜇 = √3
For total internal reflection 𝑖𝑝 = 60°
1
sin 𝐶 = S5. Ans.(b)
𝜇
10𝑡1 𝑅1 = 𝑅2 = 20𝑐𝑚 = 0.2 𝑚
⇒ sin 𝐶 =
𝑡2
3
10𝑡 𝜇=2
𝐶= sin−1 ( 𝑡 1 )
2 1 1 1
𝑃 = 𝑓 = (𝜇 − 1) (𝑅 − 𝑅 )
S2. Ans.(d) 𝑖 2

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
1 1 1 3
= (1.6 − 1) ( − ) =−
𝑓1 ∞ 20 100
1 1 1
𝑓2
= (1.5 − 1) (20 − −120)
1
= 20
3 1 1
1 1 3 𝑃 = (2 − 1) (0.2 + 0.2)
𝑓3
= 𝑓 = − 100
1
1 2 10
1 1 1 1 𝑃 = 2 (0.2) = = +5𝐷
𝑓𝑛𝑒𝑡
=𝑓 +𝑓 +𝑓 2
1 2 3
3 1 S6. Ans.(a)
= − 50 + 20 𝐶 1
𝜇=𝑢⇒𝑢∝𝜇
⇒ 𝑓𝑛𝑒 = −100 cm
Critical angle
S3. Ans.(d)
𝜇 𝜇 1.5 3
𝐹𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑣𝑒𝑥 = 𝑓 sin 𝑖𝑐 = 𝜇𝑅 = 𝜇𝐷 = =4
𝐷 𝑅 2

𝐹𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑐𝑎𝑣𝑒 = −𝑓 𝑖𝑐 = sin−1 (4)

3

1 1 1
=𝐹 +𝐹 𝜇 𝜇
𝑓𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑏 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑣𝑒𝑥 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑐𝑎𝑣𝑒 sin 𝑖𝑐 = 𝜇𝑅 = 𝜇𝐷
𝐷 𝑅
1 1
= 𝑓−𝑓 3
𝑖𝑐 = sin−1 (4)
⇒ 𝑓𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑏 = ∞
S7. Ans.(d)
S4. Ans.(b) 𝑓
𝑀𝑃 = 𝑓0
𝑒
𝐴
𝑅. 𝑃. = 1.22𝜆

Large aperture a of the objective lens

provides better resolution
∴ good quality of image is formed and
also it gathers more light.
Method (i)
165
S8. Ans.(b) 𝜆 = 600 × 10−9 𝑚 𝑑 = 2𝑚
𝑛ℎ𝑐 𝑝𝜆 1.22×600×10−9
𝑝=
𝜆
⇒ 𝑛 = ℎ𝑐 ∴ 𝜃𝑅 = = 3.66 × 10−7 rad
2
3.3×10−3 ×660×10−9 S13. Ans.(b)
𝑛= 6.6×10−34 ×3×108
= 1016
𝐸
S9. Ans.(a) I Intensity (𝐼) = 𝐴𝑡
20
𝑑 = 𝑓1 = 𝑓2 ∴ Energy (𝐸) = 𝐼𝐴𝑡 = 10−4 × 20 × 10−4 × 60
= 20 − 5
= 24 × 103 𝐽
= 15 𝑐𝑚 S14. Ans.(b)
S10. Ans.(d)
𝑟2 = 𝑂, 𝑟1 = 𝐴
𝑟1 + 𝑟2 = 𝐴 = 30° Apply snell’s law
𝑟2 = 30°(𝑟1 = 0)°
sin 𝑖 = 𝜇 sin 𝑟1
From Snell’s law
For small angle (𝑟1 = 𝐴)
√3 sin 𝑟2 = 1 × 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑒 𝑖 = 𝜇𝐴
S11. Ans.(c) S15. Ans.(c)
First for image formation from lens Wavelength ∝ 1/Temperature of the
𝑢 = −60 𝑐𝑚 stars Since, 𝜆𝐴 < 𝜆𝐶 < 𝜆𝐵 (A → Blue, B →
𝑓 = +30 𝑐𝑚 Red, C → Yellow)

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
𝑢𝑓 −60×30 ∴ 𝑇𝐴 > 𝑇𝐶 > 𝑇𝐵
⇒𝜈= = = 60 𝑐𝑚
𝑢+𝑓 −60+30
S15. Ans.(d)
This real image formed by lens acts as
virtual object 𝑢 = −1.5𝑓
From mirror formula
I2 1 1 1
+v+𝑓
O1 I1 𝑢
1 1 1
+ v = −𝑓
−1.5𝑓
60 𝑐𝑚 40 𝑐𝑚 20 𝑐𝑚 1 1 1
⇒ v = − 𝑓 + 1.5𝑓
Real image from plane mirror is formed 1 1.5+1 −0.5
20cm in front of mirror, hence at 20cm ⇒v=− =
1.5𝑓 1.5𝑓
distance from lens, Now for second ⇒ v = −3f
refraction from lens,
S17. Ans.(a)
𝑢 = −20 𝑐𝑚 1
sin 𝜃 = 𝜇
𝑓 = +30 𝑐𝑚
1 1 1
𝑢𝑓 −20×30 𝜇= = = = √2
𝜈 = 𝑢+𝑓 = −20+30 = 60 𝑐𝑚 sin 𝜃 sin 45° (
1
)
√2

So, final virtual image is 60 cm from 𝜇=v⇒v=μ=

𝑐 c 3×108
𝑚/𝑠𝑒𝑐
lens, or 20 cm behind mirror √2

S18. Ans.(a)
Spherometer is a device used to measure
the radius of curvature of the curved
surface.
S19. Ans.(c)
100 100
S12. Ans.(d) Power (𝑃) = ⇒ 𝑓 = 100 = 10 𝑐𝑚
𝑓
𝜆
Limit of resolution (𝜃𝑅 ) = 1.22 𝑑
166
 𝑅
𝑓 = 2(𝜇−1) ⇒ 10 = 2(𝜇−1)
10 Applying Snell’s law

1 3 1 × sin 𝑖 = √2 sin 30°

⇒ (𝜇 − 1) = ⇒ 𝜇 =
2 2 1
⇒ sin 𝑖 = ⇒ 𝑖 = 45°
S20. Ans.(c) √2

Rainbow can’t be observed when S24. Ans.(b)

1 1 1
observer faces towards sun as it forms in Applying v + 𝑢 = 𝑓
the direction opposite of sun.
1 1 1
𝑢 = −40 ⇒ v − 40 = −15
S21. Ans.(b)
⇒ v = −20 cm …(i)
Now 𝑢 = −20
1 1 1
⇒ v − 20 = − 5 ⇒ v = −60 …(ii)
From Eq. (i) and (ii)
Image moves 36 cm away from mirror
S25. Ans.(d)
𝑦
tan 2𝜃 = 𝑥
Equivalent focal length in air
1 1 1 2 𝑦
𝐹1
= 𝑓+𝑓 = 𝑓 2𝜃 =
𝑥
𝑦
𝜃 = 2𝑥

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ S26. Ans.(a)

For dispersion without deviation
𝛿1 − 𝛿2 = 0
𝛿1 = 𝛿2
𝐴1 [𝜇1 − 1] = 𝐴2 [𝜇2 − 1]
When glycerin is filled inside, glycerin 10[1.42 − 1] = 𝐴2 [1.7 − 1]
lens behaves like a diverging lens of focal
10 × 0.42 = 𝐴2 × 0.7
length (–f)
1 1 1 1 1 𝐴2 = 6°
= 𝑓+𝑓−𝑓 = 𝑓
𝐹2 S27. Ans.(b)
𝐹1 1
= At minimum deviation
𝐹2 2

S22. Ans.(d) 𝑟1 = 𝑟2 = 𝑟
𝑟1 + 𝑟2 = 𝐴
𝑟+𝑟 =𝐴
2𝑟 = 𝐴
𝐴 60
𝑟= = = 30°
2 2

S28. Ans.(d)
v = −60 𝑐𝑚, 𝑓 = 𝑥
At 𝑖 = 𝑖𝑐 , refracted ray grazes with the
𝑢 = −20 𝑐𝑚 [∵ 22 − 2]
surface So angle of refraction is 90°
1 1 1
= v−𝑢
S23. Ans.(b) 𝑓
1 1
𝑟2 = 0 (for retracing) = −160 − −20
𝐴 = 𝑟1 + 𝑟2 ⇒ 𝑟1 = 30°
167
 1 1 1 −𝑅 −3 −3
= 20 − 60 𝑓2 = 4 = 𝑅 = 𝑓
𝑓 2( −1) 2 2
3
60
𝑓= = 30 𝑐𝑚 1 1 1
= 𝑓 + 𝑓 + 𝑓 = 𝑓 + (− 3𝑓) + 𝑓
1 1 2 1
2
𝑓𝑒𝑞 1 2 3
S29. Ans.(a) 1 4 3𝑓
⇒ = ⇒ 𝑓𝑒𝑞 =
𝜇1 sin 𝜃1 = 𝜇2 sin 𝜃2 𝑓𝑒𝑞 3𝑓 4

1 × sin 45 = √2 sin 𝜃2 S33. Ans.(a)

𝜃2 = 30 A → 2 and 3; B → 2 and 3; C → 2 and 4;
D → 1 and 4.
𝑊𝑚𝑒𝑑
=
cos 𝜃2
=
cos 30 S34. Ans.(d)
𝑊𝑎𝑖𝑟 cos 𝜃1 cos 45

3 √3
=√ =
2 √2

S30. Ans.(d)
Lens formula and sign convention
1 1 1
= 𝑓 = v − 𝑢 As we want to correct myopia.
So, far point must go to infinity. Using lens formula for objective lens
1 1 1
v = −4𝑚 𝑢 = −∞, 𝑃 = ? −𝑢 =𝑓
v0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
𝑃 = 𝑓 = v − u = −4 − ∞ 1 1 1
= +

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
v0 𝑢0 𝑓0
1 25
𝑃= −4 × 25 = −0.25 dioptre 1 1 1
= 40 − 200
𝑉0
(−) Implies concave mirror 5−1
500
⇒ 𝑉0 = 50 𝑐𝑚

S31. Ans.(a) Tube length 𝑙 = |𝑉0 | + 𝑓𝑒

= 50 + 4 = 54 cm
S35. Ans.(b)

𝑥
= 5 𝑐𝑚 …(i)
𝜇
𝑙−𝑥
= 3 𝑐𝑚 …(ii)
𝜇

From Eqs. (i) and (ii) 𝛿𝑖𝑛 = 2𝑖 − 𝐴

𝑙 = (5 + 3)𝜇 = 12 𝑐𝑚
= 2(45°) − 60° = 30°
S32. Ans.(b) 𝐴+𝛿𝑖𝑛 1
sin[ ] sin 45 √2
2
𝜇= 𝐴 = sin 30 = 1 = √2
sin 2
2

S36. Ans.(b)

𝑅
𝑓1 = 𝑓3 = 3 = 𝑅 = 𝑓 (given)
2( −1)
2

From Lens Maker’s formula

168
 1 1 1 𝐿
= (𝜇 − 1) ( − ) Therefore 𝑀 =
𝑓 𝑅1 𝑅0 𝐼

𝑅1 = 20 S40. Ans.(b)
𝑅0 = ∞
1 1 1
We have = (1.5 − 1) (20) = 40
𝑓1
1 1 1
𝑓2
= (1.5 − 1) (20) = 40
1 2 7
& = (1.7 − 1) (−20) = − 100 𝑖 = 2𝐴
𝑓3

Now
1 1
=𝑓 +𝑓 +𝑓
1 1 𝜇1 = 1 [∴ Assumed the outer medium is =
𝑓 1 2 3 air 𝜇1 = 𝜇 ∴ Refractive index of prism]
1 1 1 7
⇒ 𝑓 = 40 + 40 − 100 𝑟 = refractive angle
⇒ 𝑓 = −50 𝑐𝑚 Apply Snell’s law, PQ
S37. Ans.(a) 𝜇1 sin 𝑖 = 𝜇2 sin 𝑟
𝛿 +𝐴
sin( 𝑚 ) 1 × sin 2𝐴 = 𝜇 sin 𝐴 [sin 2𝐴 = 2 sin 𝐴 cos 𝐴]
2
𝜇= 𝐴
sin( )
2 𝜇 = 2 cos 𝐴

∵ 𝜇 = cot ( 2 )
𝐴 S41. Ans.(d)

𝛿 +𝐴
Magnifying power of Microscope
𝐴 sin( 𝑚 )
2
cot ( 2 ) = 𝐿𝐷 1

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
𝐴
sin( ) =𝑓𝑓 ∝𝑓
2 0 𝑒 0
𝐴 𝛿 +𝐴 𝑓0
cot ( 2 ) = sin ( 𝑚2 ) Magnifying power of Telescope = →∝ 𝑓0
𝑓𝑒
𝐴 𝛿𝑚 +𝐴
sin [90 − 2 ] = sin [ ] S42. Ans.(d)
2
𝐴 𝛿𝑚 +𝐴 For a normal eye, rays coming from
⇒ 90° − 2 =
2 infinity should go the retina without
⇒ 𝛿𝑚 = 180° − 2𝐴 effort when we look at infinity, lens offers
S38. Ans.(a) minimum power and hence combination
1 1
gives 40 D + 20 D = 60 D.
𝜇 = sin 𝑖 = sin 45° = √2 = 1.414
𝑐 Distance between the retina and the
∵ (𝜇𝑟𝑒𝑑 = 1.39) < 𝜇, 𝜇v > 𝜇; 𝜇𝑔 > 𝜇 cornea eye must be equal to focal length.
1
Only red colour will not suffer total 𝑓 = 60 𝑚 = 1.67 𝑐𝑚
internal reflection S43. Ans.(d)
S39. Ans.(a)

Magnification of telescope, Equivalent focal length is given by

𝑓 1 1 1
𝑀 = 𝑓0 =𝑓 +𝑓
𝑓𝑒𝑞 1 2
𝑒
𝑓0 𝐼 1 1 1 1 1
Here, = −𝐿 𝑓𝑒𝑞
= (𝜇 − 1) (∞ − −𝑅) + (𝜇0 − 1) (−𝑅 − ∞)
𝑓𝑒 +𝑢
𝑓 𝐼 𝑅
⇒ 𝑓 −(𝑓𝑒 +𝑓 ) = − 𝐿 ⇒ 𝑓𝑒𝑞 = 𝜇
𝑒 0 𝑒 1 −𝜇2
𝑓 𝐼
⇒ 𝑓𝑒 = 𝐿
0

169
 Chapter 24
Wave Optics
1. For Young’s double slit experiment, two
statements are given below:
Statement I: If screen is moved away from
the plane of slits, angular separation of the
fringes remains constant.
Statement II: If the monochromatic source
is replaced by another monochromatic
source of larger wavelength, the angular
separation of fringes decreases. In the light
of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below:
(2023)
(a) Statement I is false but Statement II is
true
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II is
true
(c) Both Statement I and Statement II are
ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
true
(d) Statement I is true but Statement II are
false
2. In a Young’s double slit experiment, a
student observes 8 fringes in a certain
segment of screen when a monochromatic
light of 600 nm wavelength is used. If the
wavelength of light is changed to 400 nm,
then the number of fringes he would
observe in the same region of the screen is:
(2022)
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 12
(d) 6
3. The Brewsters angle Ib for an interface
should be: (2020)
(a) 30° < 𝐼𝑏 < 45°
(b) 45° < 𝐼𝑏 < 90°
(c) 𝐼𝑏 = 90°
(d) 0° < 𝐼𝑏 < 30°
4. In Young’s double slit experiment, if the
separation between coherent sources is
halved and the distance of the screen from
the coherent sources is doubled, then the
fringe width becomes : (2020)
(a) Half
(b) Four times
(c) One-fourth
170
Sankalp Bharat
(d) Double
5. Two coherent sources of light interfere and
produce fringe pattern on a screen. For
central maximum, the phase difference
between the two waves will be.
(2020 Covid Re-NEET)
(a) 𝜋
3𝜋
(b)
2
𝜋
(c) 2
(d) Zero
6. In a double slit experiment, when light of
wavelength 400 nm was used, the angular
width of the first minima formed on a screen
placed 1 m away, was found to be 0.2°.
What will be the angular width of the first
minima, if the entire experimental
apparatus is immersed in water?
(𝜇𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑟 = 4/3) (2019)
(a) 0.266°
(b) 0.15°
(c) 0.05°
(d) 0.1°
7. Unpolarised light is incident from air on a
plane surface of a material of refractive
index ‘μ’. At a particular angle of incidence
‘i’, it is found that the reflected and refracted
rays are perpendicular to each other. Which
of the following options is correct for this
situation? (2018)
1
(a) 𝑖 = sin−1 (𝜇)
(b) Reflected light is polarised with its
electric vector perpendicular to the
plane of incidence
(c) Reflected light is polarised with its
electric vector parallel to the plane
incidence
1
(d) 𝑖 = tan−1 (𝜇)
8. In Young’s double slit experiment the
separation d between the slits is 2 mm, the
wavelength λ of the light used is 5896 Å and
distance D between the screen and slits is
100 cm. It is found that the angular width
of the fringes is 0.20°. To increase the fringe
angular width to 0.21° (with same λ and D)
 the separation between the slits needs to be (c)
1+𝛼
2√𝛼
changed to (2018) 1−𝛼
(a) 2.1 mm (d)
1+𝛼
(b) 1.9 mm 14. A parallel beam of light of wavelength λ is
(c) 1.8 mm incident normally on a single slit of width d.
(d) 1.7 mm Diffraction bands are obtained on a screen
9. An astronomical refracting telescope will placed at a distance D from the slit. The
have large angular magnification and high second dark band from the central bright
angular resolution, when it has an objective band will be at a distance given by:
lens of (2018) (2017-Gujrat)
2𝜆𝐷
(a) Large focal length and large diameter (a) 𝑑
(b) Large focal length and small diameter (b) 𝜆𝑑𝐷
(c) Small focal length and large diameter 𝜆𝐷
(d) Small focal length and small diameter (c) 2𝑑
2𝜆𝐷
10. The ratio of resolving powers of an optical (d) 𝐷
microscope for two wavelengths 𝜆1 = 4000 Å 15. A linear aperture whose width is 0.02 cm is
and 𝜆2 = 6000 Å is (2017-Delhi) placed immediately in front of a lens of focal
(a) 9 : 4 length 60 cm. The aperture is illuminated
(b) 3 : 2 normally by a parallel beam of wavelength
(c) 16 : 81 5 × 10–5 𝑐𝑚. The distance of the first dark
(d) 8 : 27 band of the diffraction pattern from the
11. Young’s double slit experiment is first center of the screen is: (2016-II)

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
performed in air and then in a medium (a) 0.20 cm
other than air. It is found that 8th bright (b) 0.15 cm
fringe in the medium lies where 5th dark (c) 0.10 cm
fringe lies in air. The refractive index of the (d) 0.25 cm
medium is nearly: (2017-Delhi) 16. The interference pattern is obtained with
(a) 1.59 two coherent light sources of intensity ratio
(b) 1.69 n. In the interference pattern, the ratio
(c) 1.78 𝐼𝑚𝑎𝑥 −𝐼𝑚𝑖𝑛
will be: (2016-II)
(d) 1.25 𝐼𝑚𝑎𝑥 +𝐼𝑚𝑖𝑛
√𝑛
12. Two Polaroids P1 and P2 are placed with their (a) (𝑛+1)2
axis perpendicular to each other. 2√𝑛
(b) (𝑛+1)2
Unpolarised light I0 is incident on P1 . A third
√𝑛
polaroid P3 is kept in between P1 and P2 such (c)
𝑛+1
that its axis makes an angle 45° with that of 2√𝑛
(d) 𝑛+1
P1 . The intensity of transmitted light
through P2 is: (2017-Delhi) 17. The intensity at the maximum in a Young’s
I0
(a) double slit experiment is I0 . Distance
4
I0 between two slits is d = 5λ, where λ is the
(b)
8 wavelength of light used in the experiment.
I0
(c) What will be the intensity in front of one of
16
(d)
I0 the slits on the screen placed at a distance
2 D = 10d? (2016-I)
13. Two coherent sources of intensity ratio 𝛼 (a) I0
𝐼 −𝐼 I0
interfere. The value of 𝐼𝑚𝑎𝑥 +𝐼𝑚𝑖𝑛 is: (b)
𝑚𝑎𝑥 𝑚𝑖𝑛 4
3
(2017-Gujrat) (c) I
4 0
𝛼 I0
(a) 2√1+𝛼 (d)
2

(b)
2√𝛼 18. In a diffraction pattern due to a single slit of
1+𝛼
width a, the first minima is observed at an
171
 angle 30° when light of wavelength 5000 Å (d) 𝜋
is incident on the slit. The first secondary 23. In the Young’s double-slit experiment, the
maximum is observed at an angle of:
intensity of light at a point on the screen
(2016-I)
where the path difference is λ is K, (λ being
1
(a) sin−1 (4) the wavelength of light used). The intensity
(b) sin−1 (3)
2 at a point where the path difference is
1
λ/4,will be: (2014)
(c) sin−1 (2) (a) K
(d) sin−1 (4)
3 (b) 4K
(c) K/2
19. For a parallel beam of monochromatic light (d) Zero
of wavelength ‘λ’, diffraction is produced by
24. A beam of light of λ = 600 nm from a distant
a single slit whose width ‘a’ is of the order of
source falls on a single slit 1 mm wide and
the wavelength of the light. If ‘D’ is the
the resulting diffraction pattern is observed
distance of the screen from the slit, the
on a screen 2 m away. The distance between
width of the central maxima will be: (2015)
𝐷𝜆
first dark fringes on either side of the
(a) central bright fringe is: (2014)
𝑎
(b)
𝐷𝑎 (a) 1.2 cm
𝜆
12𝐷 (b) 1.2 mm
(c) (c) 2.4 cm
𝑎
2𝐷𝜆
(d) (d) 2.4 mm
𝑎
25. A parallel beam of fast moving electrons is

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
20. In a double slit experiment, the two slits are
1 mm apart and the screen is placed 1 m incident normally on a narrow slit. A
away. A monochromatic light of wavelength fluorescent screen is placed at a large
500 nm is used. What will be the width of distance from the slit. If the speed of the
each slit for obtaining ten maxima of double electrons is increased, which of the
slit within the central maxima of single slit following statements is correct? (2013)
pattern? (2015) (a) The angular width of the central
(a) 0.1 mm maximum will be unaffected
(b) 0.5 mm (b) Diffraction pattern is not observed on
(c) 0.02 mm the screen in the case of electrons 2
(d) 0.2 mm (c) The angular width of the central
maximum of the diffraction pattern will
21. Two slits in Young’s experiment have widths increase
in the ratio 1 : 25. The ratio of intensity at (d) The angular width of the central
the maxima and minima in the interference maximum will decrease
𝐼𝑚𝑎𝑥
pattern, is: (2015 Re) 26. In Young’s double slit experiment, the slits
𝐼𝑚𝑖𝑛
(a) 4/9 are 2 mm apart and are illuminated by
(b) 9/4 photons of two wavelengths 𝜆1 = 12000 Å
(c) 12/149 and 𝜆2 = 10000 Å. At what minimum
(d) 49/121 distance from the common central bright
fringe on the screen 2 m from the slit will a
22. At the first minimum adjacent to the central
bright fringe from one interference pattern
maximum of a single-slit diffraction pattern
coincide with a bright fringe from the other?
the phase difference between the Huygens’s
(2013)
wavelength from the edge of the slit and the
(a) 4 mm
wavelet from the mid point of the slit is:
(b) 3 m
(2015 Re)
(c) 8 mm
(a) 𝜋/8
(d) 6 mm
(b) 𝜋/4
(c) 𝜋/2

172
 Answer Key
S1. Ans. (d) S15. Ans. (b)

S2. Ans. (c) S16. Ans. (d)

S3. Ans. (b) S17. Ans. (d)

S4. Ans. (b) S18. Ans. (d)

S5. Ans. (d) S19. Ans. (d)

S6. Ans. (b) S20. Ans. (d)

S7. Ans. (b) S21. Ans. (b)

S8. Ans. (b) S22. Ans. (d)

S9. Ans. (a) S23. Ans. (c)

S10. Ans. (b) S24. Ans. (d)

S11. Ans. (c) S25. Ans. (d)

S12. Ans. (b) S26. Ans. (d)

S13. Ans. (b)

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
S14. Ans. (a)

173
 Solutions
S1. Ans.(d) S10. Ans.(b)
𝜆 2𝜇 sin 𝜃
∆𝜃 = 𝑑 R.P. (microscope) =
𝜆

∆𝜃 is proportional to 𝜆 but independent R.P. (microscope) =∝ 𝜆

1

of D.
𝜆1 = 4000 Å, 𝜆2 = 6000 Å
S2. Ans.(c)
𝑅𝑃1 6000 Å 3
𝐷 = 4000 Å = 2
𝑦 = (𝑛𝜆) (𝑑 ) 𝑅𝑃2

S11. Ans.(c)
𝑛1 𝜆1 = 𝑛2 𝜆2
(8)(600 𝑛𝑚) = 𝑛2 (400) 𝑦8 = 𝑦5
𝑛𝜆1 𝐷 (2𝑛−1) 𝜆𝐷
𝑛2 = 12 =
𝑑 2 𝑑
S3. Ans.(b) 8𝐷
𝜆 =
(2×5−1) 𝜆𝐷
𝜇2 𝜇2 𝑑 1 2 𝑑
tan 𝐼𝑏 = = 9
𝜇1 1 8𝜆1 = 𝜆
2
𝜇2 > 1 9
𝜆1 = 16 𝜆
∴ tan 𝐼𝑏 > 1
𝜆 9 𝜆𝑎𝑖𝑟
∴ 90° > 𝐼𝑏 > 45° = 16 𝜆 [𝜆1 = ]
𝜇 𝜇
S4. Ans.(b) 𝜇=
16

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
9
In young double slit experiment
𝜇 = 1.78
𝜆𝐷
Fringe with 𝛽 = S12. Ans.(b)
𝑑
𝑑
Now, 𝑑 = ′
and 𝐷 = 2𝐷 ′ 𝐼 = 𝐼0 cos 2(φ) ⇒ φ = 45°
2
𝐼0
So, 𝛽 ′ =
𝜆(2𝐷)
=
4𝜆𝐷 𝐼= then
2
𝑑/2 𝑑
𝐼2 = 𝐼1 cos 2(φ)
𝛽 ′ = 4𝛽
𝐼0 𝐼0
S5. Ans.(d) 𝐼2 = cos 2 45 ⇒ 𝐼2 =
2 4

Phase difference between the two waves 𝐼3 = 𝐼2 cos2 45

will be zero for central maximum. 𝐼0
𝐼3 =
8
S6. Ans.(b)
S13. Ans.(b)
𝛽
Angular fringe width in air 𝜃0 = 𝐼1
𝐷 Given =𝛼
𝐼2
Angular fringe width in water
2
𝛽 𝜃0 0.2° 𝐼𝑚𝑎𝑥 = (√𝐼1 + √𝐼2 ) = 𝐼1 + 𝐼2 + 2√𝐼1 𝐼2
𝜃𝑤 = 𝜇𝐷 = = (4/3) = 0.15°
𝜇 2
𝐼𝑚𝑖𝑛 = (√𝐼1 + √𝐼2 ) = 𝐼1 + 𝐼2 − 2√𝐼1 𝐼2
S7. Ans.(b)
By Brewster law 𝐼𝑚𝑎𝑥 + 𝐼𝑚𝑖𝑛 = 2[𝐼1 + 𝐼2 ] ⇒ 2[𝛼𝐼2 + 𝐼2 ] =
2𝐼2 [1 + 𝛼]
S8. Ans.(b)
𝜆 𝐼𝑚𝑎𝑥 − 𝐼𝑚𝑖𝑛 = 4√𝐼1 𝐼2 = 4√𝛼𝐼2 𝐼2 = 4𝐼2 √𝛼
Angular fringe width = 𝑑
𝐼𝑚𝑎𝑥 −𝐼𝑚𝑖𝑛 4𝐼2 √𝛼 2√𝛼
𝜆 𝜆
= 2𝐼 = 1+𝛼
𝐼𝑚𝑎𝑥 +𝐼𝑚𝑖𝑛 2 [1+𝛼]
⇒ 0.21 = ⇒ 0.20 =
𝑑 2
S14. Ans.(a)
0.21 2
∴ 0.20 = 𝑑 ⇒ 𝑑 = 1.90 𝑚𝑚
For dark interference
S9. Ans.(a) Path difference = 𝑑 sin 𝜃 = 𝑛𝜆 sin 𝜃 =
𝑓0 ↑ 𝑑↑ 𝛾
↑𝑚= ↑ 𝑅. 𝑃 = tan 𝜃 = 𝐷 𝑑 sin 𝜃 = 𝑛𝜆
𝑓𝑒 1.22𝜆
174
 𝑑𝑦
= 𝑛𝜆 S19. Ans.(d)
𝐷
Linear width of central maxima
For second 𝑛 = 2
𝜆
𝑛𝜆𝐷 = 𝐷(2) = 2𝐷𝜃 = 2𝐷 𝑎
𝑦=
𝑑
2𝜆𝐷
𝑦=
𝑑
𝜆𝑓
𝛽=
𝑎

S15. Ans.(b)
𝑓 = 𝐷 = 60 𝑐𝑚
For first minima,
𝜆𝐷 5×10−5 ×60 5×10−3 ×60
S20. Ans.(d)
𝑦= = = = 0.15 cm
𝑎 2×10−2 2 Angular fringe width of interference in
S16. Ans.(d) 𝛽
𝜆𝐷
𝜆
double slit experiment = 𝐷 = 𝑑
𝑑
=𝑑
𝐼1 𝑛
Let 𝐼2
= 1
Angular width of central maxima in
2 2 2𝜆
𝐼𝑚𝑎𝑥 −𝐼𝑚𝑖𝑛
=
(√𝐼1 +√𝐼2 ) −(√𝐼1 −√𝐼2 )
=
4√𝐼1 𝐼2 diffraction experiment =
𝐼𝑚𝑎𝑥 +𝐼𝑚𝑖𝑛 2
2(𝐼1 +𝐼2 ) 𝑑′
(√𝐼1 +√𝐼2 ) +(√𝐼1 −√𝐼2 )
According to the question
Dividing numerator and denominator by
10𝜆 2𝜆
𝐼2 , 𝑑
=
𝑑′

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
Required ratio will be =
2√𝐼1 /𝐼2
= 𝑛+1
2√𝑛 ⇒ 𝑑′ = 0.2𝑑 = 0.2 𝑚𝑚
𝐼
( 1 +1)
𝐼2
S21. Ans.(b)
S17. Ans.(d) 𝐼1 𝑊 1 𝐼 25
𝐼2
= 𝑊1 = 25 ⇒ 𝐼2 = 1
2 1
2
𝐼
𝐼𝑚𝑎𝑥 (√𝐼2 +√𝐼2 )
2 √𝐼2 +1
1
= 2 =( )
𝐼𝑚𝑎𝑥 (√𝐼2 −√𝐼1 ) 𝐼
√𝐼2 −1
1

5+1 2 6 2 9
= (5−1) = (4) =4

S22. Ans.(d)
Path difference = 𝑆2 𝑃 − 𝑆1 𝑃
√𝐷 2 + 𝑑2 − 𝐷
1 𝑑2
𝐷 {1 + 2 𝐷2 } − 𝐷
1 𝑑2 𝑑2
𝐷 {1 + 2 𝐷2 − 1} = 2𝐷
𝑑2 𝑑 5𝜆 𝜆
∆𝑥 = 2×10𝑑 = 20 = 20 = 4
For first minima at P, a sin θ = λ
2𝜋 𝜆 𝜋
∆𝜙 = = ∆𝑥1
𝜆 4 2
So, phase difference ∆𝜙1 = × 2𝜋
𝜆
So intensity at desired point is 𝑎
( ) sin 𝜃
𝜙 𝜋 𝐼0 2
𝐼= 𝐼0 cos 2 2 = 𝐼0 cos 2 4 = = × 2𝜋
2 𝜆
𝜆
S18. Ans.(d) ∆𝜙1 = 2𝜆 × 2𝜋 = 𝜋 radian
𝜆 1
For first minima sin 30° = 𝑎 = 2 S23. Ans.(c)

First secondary maxima will be at For path difference λ, phase difference

3𝜆 3 1 3
sin 𝜃 = 2𝑎 = 2 (2) ⇒ 𝜃 = sin−1 (4)
175
 = 2𝜋 rad As 𝐾 = 4𝐼0 so intensity at given S26. Ans.(d)
𝜆
point where path difference is , Let 𝑛1 bright fringe of 𝜆1 coincides with
4
𝜙 𝑛2 bright fringe of 𝜆2 . Then
𝐾 ′ 4𝐼0 cos2 ( 2 )
𝑛 1 𝜆1 𝐷 𝑛 2 𝜆2 𝐷
=
𝜋 𝐾 𝑑 𝑑
𝐾 ′ = 4𝐼0 cos2 ( ) = 2𝐼0 =
4 2 Or 𝑛1 𝜆1 = 𝑛2 𝜆2
S24. Ans.(d) 𝑛1 𝜆 10000 5
= 𝜆2 = 12000 = 6
𝑛2
Width of central bright fringe 1

2𝜆𝐷 2×600×10−9 ×2 Let x be given distance.

= = 𝑚
𝑑 1×10−3 𝑛 1 𝜆1 𝐷
∴𝑥=
−3 𝑑
= 2.4 × 10 𝑚
Here, 𝑛1 = 5, D = 2m,
= 2.4 𝑚𝑚
𝑑 = 2 𝑚𝑚 = 2 × 10−3 𝑚
S25. Ans.(d)
When speed of electrons is increased the 𝜆1 = 12000 Å = 12000 × 10−10 𝑚 = 12 ×
wavelength of electrons will decreases. 10−7 𝑚
Therefore, the angular width of the 5×12×10−7 𝑚×2 𝑚
𝑥= = 6 × 10−3 𝑚 = 6 𝑚𝑚
2×10−3 𝑚
central maximum of diffraction pattern
will decrease.

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ

176
 Chapter 25
Sankalp Bharat
Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

1. The minimum wavelength of X-rays

produced by an electron accelerated
through a potential difference of V volts is (c)
proportional to: (2023)
(a) 𝑉 2

(b) √𝑉
1
(c) 𝑉 (d)
1
(d)
√𝑉

2. The work functions of Caesium (Cs),

5. An electromagnetic wave of wavelength ‘𝜆’ is
Potassium (K) and Sodium (Na) are 2.14 eV,
incident on a photosensitive surface of
2.30 eV and 2.75 eV respectively. If incident
negligible work function. If ‘m’ mass is of
electromagnetic radiation has an incident
photoelectron emitted from the surface has
energy of 2.20 eV, which of these
de-Broglie wavelength 𝜆𝑑 , then: (2021)
photosensitive surfaces may emit 2𝑚𝑐
photoelectrons? (2023) (a) 𝜆𝑑 = ( ) 𝜆2

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
ℎ
2𝑚𝑐
(a) Na only (b) 𝜆 = ( ) 𝜆2𝑑
ℎ
(b) Cs only 2ℎ
(c) Both Na and K (c) 𝜆 = (𝑚𝑐) 𝜆2𝑑
2𝑚
(d) K only (d) 𝜆 = ( ) 𝜆2𝑑
ℎ𝑐
3. When two monochromatic light of 6. Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold
𝜐
frequency, 𝜐 and 2 are incident on a frequency is incident on a photosensitive
photoelectric metal, their stopping potential material. What will be the photoelectric
𝑉𝑠
becomes and 𝑉𝑠 respectively. The current if the frequency is halved and
2
threshold frequency for this metal is intensity is doubled? (2020)
(2022) (a) Four times
(a) 2𝜐 (b) One-fourth
(b) 3𝜐 (c) Zero
2 (d) Doubled
(c) 𝜐
3
3 7. An electron is accelerated from rest through
(d) 𝜐
2 a potential difference of V volt. If the de
4. The graph which shows the variation of the Broglie wavelength of the electron is
de Brogli wavelength (𝜆) of a particle and its 1.227 × 10–2 nm, the potential difference is :
associated momentum (p) is : (2022) (2020)
(a) 102 𝑉
(b) 103 𝑉
(c) 103 𝑉
(a) (d) 10𝑉
8. The energy required to break one bond in
DNA is 10–20 𝐽. This value in eV is nearly.
(2020)
(a) 0.6
(b)
(b) 0.06
(c) 0.006
(d) 6
177
9. The de Broglie wavelength of an electron (b)
2ℎ
√3𝑚𝑘𝑇
moving with kinetic energy of 144 eV is 2ℎ
nearly, (2020 Covid Re-NEET) (c)
√𝑚𝑘𝑇
ℎ
(a) 102 × 10 𝑛𝑚
−4
(d)
√𝑚𝑘𝑇
(b) 102 × 10−5 𝑛𝑚
(c) 102 × 10−2 𝑛𝑚 15. The photoelectric threshold wavelength of
(d) 102 × 10−3 𝑛𝑚 silver is 3250 × 10–10 𝑚. The velocity of the
electron ejected from a silver surface by
10. The wave nature of electrons was ultraviolet light of wavelength 2536 × 10–10 𝑚
experimentally verified by. is: (2017)
(2020 Covid Re-NEET)
(Given ℎ = 4.14 × 10−15 𝑒𝑉 and 𝑐 = 3 ×
(a) Hertz
108 𝑚𝑠 −1 )
(b) Einstein
(a) ≈ 0.6 × 108 𝑚𝑠 −1
(c) Davisson and Germer
(b) ≈ 61 × 103 𝑚𝑠 −1
(d) de Broglie
(c) ≈ 0.3 × 106 𝑚𝑠 −1
11. An electron is accelerated through a (d) ≈ 6 × 106 𝑚𝑠 −1
potential difference of 10,000 V. Its de
16. In an experiment of photoelectric effect the
Broglie wavelength is, (nearly) :
stopping potential was measured to be V1
(𝑚𝑒 = 9 × 10−31 𝑘𝑔) (2019)
and V2 with incident light of wavelength 𝜆
(a) 12.2 × 10−13 𝑚
and λ/2, respectively. The relation between
(b) 12.2 × 10−12 𝑚
V1 and V2 is: (2017)
(c) 12.2 × 10−14 𝑚
(a) V2 > 2V1
(d) 12.2 𝑛𝑚
(b) V2 < V1

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
12. An electron of mass m with an initial (c) V1 < V2 < 2V1
velocity 𝑉 ⃗ = 𝑉0 𝑖̂(𝑉0 > 0) enters an electric (d) V2 = 2V1
⃗
field 𝐸 = −𝐸0 𝑖̂ (𝐸0 = constant > 0) at 𝑡 = 0. If 17. If the mass of neutron is 1.7 × 10–27 kg, then
𝜆0 is its de-Broglie wavelength initially, then the de-Broglie wavelength of neutron of
its de-Broglie wavelength at time 𝑡 is energy 3 eV is: (2017)
(2018) (ℎ = 6.6 × 10 −34
𝐽𝑠)
(a) 𝜆0 𝑡 (a) 1.4 × 10−11 𝑚
𝑒𝐸
(b) 𝜆0 (1 + 𝑚𝑉𝑓0 𝑡) (b) 1.6 × 10−10 𝑚
0
𝜆0 (c) 1.65 × 10−11 𝑚
(c)
(1+
𝑒𝐸0
𝑚𝑉0
𝑡) (d) 4
(d) 𝜆0 18. When a metallic surface is illuminated with
13. When the light of frequency 2𝜈0 (where 𝜈0 is radiation of wavelength λ, the stopping
threshold frequency), is incident on a metal potential is V. If the same surface is
plate, the maximum velocity of electrons illuminated with radiation of wavelength 2λ,
emitted is 𝜈1 . When the frequency of the the stopping potential is V/4. The threshold
incident radiation is increased to 5𝜈0 , the wavelength for the metallic surface is:
maximum velocity of electrons emitted from (2016-I)
the same plate is 𝜈2 . The ratio of 𝜈1 to 𝜈2 is: (a) 4𝜆
(2018) (b) 5𝜆
5
(a) 4 : 1 (c) 𝜆
2
(b) 1 : 4 (d) 3𝜆
(c) 1 : 2
19. When an 𝛼 particle of mass m moving with
(d) 2 : 1
velocity v bombards on a heavy nucleus of
14. The de-Broglie wavelength of a neutron in charge ‘Ze’, its distance of closest approach
thermal equilibrium with heavy water at a from the nucleus depends on mass:
temperature T (Kelvin) and mass m, is: (2016-I)
(2017) (a) 1/𝑚
ℎ
(a) (b) 1/√𝑚
√3𝑚𝑘𝑇

178
 (c) 1/𝑚2
(d) 𝑚
20. An electron of mass m and a photon have (c)
same energy E. The ratio of de Broglie
wavelengths associated with them is (c
being velocity of light)
1
1 𝐸 2
(a) ( )
𝑐 2𝑚
1
𝐸 2 (d)
(b) (2𝑚)
1
(c) 𝑐(2𝑚𝐸)2
1
1 2𝑚 2
(d) ( ) 24. A photoelectric surface is illuminated
𝑐 𝐸
successively by monochromatic light of
21. Photons with energy 5 eV are incident on a wavelength 𝜆 and 𝜆/2. If the maximum
cathode C in a photoelectric cell. The kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons
maximum energy of emitted photoelectrons in the second case is 3 times that in the first
is 2 eV. When photons of energy 6 eV are case, the work function of the surface of the
incident on C, no photoelectrons will reach material is: (2015 Re)
the anode A, if the stopping potential of A (h = Plank’s constant, c = speed of light)
relative to C is: (2016-II) (a) ℎ𝑐/3𝜆
(a) –1 V (b) ℎ𝑐/2𝜆
(b) –3 V (c) ℎ𝑐/𝜆

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
(c) +3 V (d) 2ℎ𝑐/𝜆
(d) +4 V
25. Light of wavelength 500 nm is incident on a
22. A certain metallic surface is illuminated metal with work function 2.28 eV. The de
with monochromatic light of wavelength 𝜆. Broglie wavelength of the emitted electron
The stopping potential for photo-electric is: (2015 Re)
current for this light is 3𝑉0. If the same (a) ≤ 2.8 × 10−12 𝑚
surface is illuminated with light of
(b) < 2.8 × 10−10 𝑚
wavelength 2𝜆, the stopping potential is 𝑉0 .
(c) < 2.8 × 10−9 𝑚
The threshold wavelength for this surface
(d) ≥ 2.8 × 10−9 𝑚
for photoelectric effect is: (2015)
(a) 4𝜆 26. If the kinetic energy of the particle is
(b) 𝜆/4 increased to 16 times its previous value, the
(c) 𝜆/6 percentage change in the de Broglie
(d) 6𝜆 wavelength of the particle is (2014)
(a) 25
23. Which of the following figures represent the
(b) 75
variation of particle momentum and the
(c) 60
associated de Broglie wavelength? (2015)
(d) 50
27. When the energy of the incident radiation is
increased by 20%, the kinetic energy of the
(a) photoelectrons emitted from a metal surface
increased from 0.5 eV to 0.8 eV. The work
function of the metal is: (2014)
(a) 0.65 eV
(b) 1.0 eV
(c) 1.3 eV
(b) (d) 1.5 eV
28. For photoelectric emission from certain
metal the cutoff frequency is ν. If radiation
of frequency 2ν impinges on the metal plate,
179
the maximum possible velocity of the 29. The wavelength 𝜆𝑒 of an electron and 𝜆𝑝 of a
emitted electron will be: (m is the electron photon of same energy E are related by:
mass) (2013) (2013)
1
ℎv
(a) 2√ 𝑚 (a) 𝜆𝑝 ∝
√𝜆𝑒

ℎv
(b) 𝜆𝑝 ∝ 𝜆2𝑒
(b) √(2𝑚) (c) 𝜆𝑝 ∝ 𝜆𝑒
ℎv (d) 𝜆𝑝 ∝ √𝜆𝑒
(c) √ 𝑚
2ℎv
(d) √ 𝑚

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ

180
 Answer Key
S1. Ans. (c) S16. Ans. (a)

S2. Ans. (b) S17. Ans. (c)

S3. Ans. (d) S18. Ans. (d)

S4. Ans. (c) S19. Ans. (a)

S5. Ans. (b) S20. Ans. (a)

S6. Ans. (c) S21. Ans. (b)

S7. Ans. (c) S22. Ans. (a)

S8. Ans. (b) S23. Ans. (a)

S9. Ans. (d) S24. Ans. (b)

S10. Ans. (c) S25. Ans. (d)

S11. Ans. (b) S26. Ans. (b)

S12. Ans. (c) S27. Ans. (b)

S13. Ans. (c) S28. Ans. (d)

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
S14. Ans. (a) S29. Ans. (b)

S15. Ans. (d)

181
 Solutions
S1. Ans.(c) 3
v = 2 v0 frequency is halved
eV = Energy of electron v 3
∴ v ′ = 2 = 4 v0
for minimum wavelength, maximum
loss of energy Hence v ′ < v0
ℎ𝑐 v0 is threshold frequency
𝑒𝑉 = ( 𝜆 )
So, no photelectric emission will take
1
𝜆∝ (𝑉) place Hence photelectric current = zero
S2. Ans.(b) S7. Ans.(c)
Incident energy = 2.20 eV De-broglie wavelength of the electron
12.27
If 𝜙 < 2.20 eV electron will emit. 𝜆= Å where, v is potential difference
√v
𝜙 > 2.20 eV no electron emission 12.27×10−10
√v = = 102
1.227×10−11
Only caesium will emit electron
S8. Ans.(b)
S3. Ans.(d)
As we know one electron volt 1eV is
Let the threshold frequency is 𝜐0 .
1.6 × 10–19 𝐽
By using the equation of photo electric
10−20
effect, 𝐸 = ℎ𝜐0 + 𝑒𝑉0 1020 𝐽 = 1.6×10−19 𝑒𝑉 = 0.06 𝑒𝑉
𝑒𝑉𝑠
S9. Ans.(d)

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
Case I : h 𝜐 = ℎ𝜐0 +
2
12.27 12.27
Case II:
ℎ𝜐
= ℎ𝜐0 + 𝑒𝑉𝑠 𝜆= Å = 144 Å = 1.02 × 10−10 𝑚 =
√v √
2
−3
ℎ𝜐 −𝑒𝑉𝑠
102 × 10 𝑛𝑚
=
2 2 S10. Ans.(c)
−ℎ𝜐 = 𝑒𝑉𝑠 (put in (i)) Wave nature of electrons was
ℎ𝜐 3
ℎ𝜐 = ℎ𝜐0 − , so, 𝜐0 = 𝜐 experimentally verified by Davisson and
2 2
Germer.
S4. Ans.(c)
S11. Ans.(b)
ℎ
𝜆=𝑝
For an electron accelerated through a
Graph will be hyperbolic potential V DeBroglie wavelength
12.27 12.27×10−10
(𝜆) = Å =
√𝑉 √10000

= 12.27 × 10−12 𝑚
S12. Ans.(c)
→ v0 𝑖̂
←
−𝐸0 𝑖̂
S5. Ans.(b) 𝑒𝐸0
ℎ𝑐
⇒ v = v0 + 𝑡
𝑚
= 𝐾𝑚𝑎𝑥 + 𝜙 [give 𝜙 is negligible]
𝜆 ℎ ℎ 𝜆0
ℎ𝑐
⇒𝜆= 𝑒𝐸0 = (𝑚v = 𝑒𝐸0
0 +𝑒𝐸0 𝑡)
So, = 𝐾𝑚𝑎𝑥 𝑚(v0 +
𝑚
𝑡) (1+
𝑚v0
𝑡)
𝜆
ℎ ℎ2 S13. Ans.(c)
𝜆𝑑 = 2𝑚𝑘 ⇒ 𝐾𝑚𝑎𝑥 = 2𝑚𝜆2
𝑚𝑎𝑥 𝑑
From Einstein equation
ℎ𝑐 ℎ2 2𝑚𝑐
(𝜆) = ⇒𝜆= ( ℎ ) 𝜆2𝑑 2ℎv0 = ℎv0 + 2 𝑚v12
1
2𝑚𝜆2𝑑

S6. Ans.(c) 2ℎv0 = 𝑚v12 …(1)

If frequency is increased to 6 v0 then
182
 5ℎv0 = hv0 + 2 𝑚v22
1 S18. Ans.(d)
ℎ𝑐 ℎ𝑐
1 𝑒𝑉 = −𝜆 …(1)
4ℎv0 = 𝑚v22 ⇒ 8ℎv0 = 𝑚v22 …(2) 𝜆 0
2
𝑒𝑉 ℎ𝑐 ℎ𝑐
From Eqs. (1) and (2) = − …(2)
4 2𝜆 𝜆0
2ℎv0 𝑚v2 v 1
= 𝑚v12 ⇒ v1 = 2 From equation (1) and (2) on solving
8ℎv0 2 2
𝜆0 = 3𝜆
S14. Ans.(a)
S19. Ans.(a)
At equilibrium thermal energy possessed
by neutron When an α particle of mass m moving
3 with velocity v bombards on a heavy
𝑘𝑇
2 nucleus of charge ‘Ze’, its distance of
𝜆=𝑝=
ℎ ℎ
⇒
ℎ closest approach from the nucleus
√2𝑚𝐸 3 1
√2𝑚 𝑘𝑇
2 depends on mass .
𝑚
ℎ
𝜆= S20. Ans.(a)
√3𝑚𝑘𝑇
ℎ
S15. Ans.(d) De-Broglie wavelength = 𝑚v
ℎ𝑐 ℎ𝑐 1
= 𝜆 + 2 𝑚v 2 𝑚 = Mass of particle
𝜆 0
v = Velocity of particle
2ℎ𝑐 1 1
v=√ [ − ] if 𝜆(Å) (given)
𝑚 𝜆 𝜆0 ℎ = Planks constant

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
ℎ𝑐 12400 𝑒𝑉 1
𝐸= = Å 𝐸 = 2 𝑚v 2 ; (Mass of electron = m)
𝜆 𝜆(Å)

2×12400×1.6×10−19 714 2𝐸
v=√ [2536×3250] √ =v
9.1×10−31 𝑚
ℎ ℎ
v = 6 × 105 𝑚/𝑠 or 0.6 × 106 𝑚/𝑠 𝜆𝐸 = =
2𝐸 √2𝑚𝐸
𝑚√
S16. Ans.(a) 𝑚

𝐸
Work function is same as the Now for photon 𝐸 = 𝑃𝑐 → 𝑝 =
𝑐
experimental conditions similar apply ℎ ℎ ℎ𝑐
𝜆𝑝 = = =
photoelectric equation 𝑚v 𝑃 𝐸

𝜆𝑖𝑛𝑐𝑖𝑑𝑒𝑛𝑡 = 𝜆 𝜆𝐸 ℎ 𝐸 1 𝐸
= = √
𝜆𝑃 √2𝑚𝐸 ℎ𝑐 𝑐 2𝑚
ℎ𝑐
= 𝜙 + 𝑒𝑉1 ….(1)
𝜆 S21. Ans.(b)
𝜆 1
𝜆𝑖𝑛𝑐𝑖𝑑𝑒𝑛𝑡 = 2
𝑒𝑉3 = 2 𝑚v𝑚𝑎𝑥 = ℎv − ϕ0
2
ℎ𝑐
𝜆/2
= 𝜙 + 𝑒𝑉2 In second case
ℎ𝑐 𝑒𝑉𝑠 = 6 − 3 = 3𝑒𝑉 ⇒ 𝑉𝑠 = 3𝑉
2 = 𝜙 + 𝑒𝑉2 …(2)
𝜆
∴ 𝑉𝐴𝐶 = −3𝑉
Eq. (2) ÷ Eq. (1)
S22. Ans.(a)
2 𝜙+𝑒𝑉2
= Using photoelectric effect equation
1 𝜙+𝑒𝑉1

2𝜙 + 2𝑒𝑉1 = 𝜙 + 𝑒𝑉2 ℎ𝑓 = 𝑊0 + 𝑒(3𝑉0 )

𝜙 = 𝑒𝑉2 − 2𝑒𝑉1 ℎ𝑐
= 𝑊0 + 3𝑒𝑉0 …(1)
𝜆
𝜙
𝑉2 = + 2𝑉1 Similarly, 𝜆𝑖𝑛𝑐𝑖 = 2𝜆 𝑉𝑠 = 𝑉0
𝑒

𝑉2 > 2𝑉1 ℎ𝑐
= 𝑊0 + 𝑒𝑉0 …(2)
2𝜆
S17. Ans.(c)
Eq. (1) – Eq. (2) × 3
0.286 0.286
𝜆= Å= Å = 1.65 × 10−11 𝑚
√𝐸(𝑖𝑛 𝑒𝑉) √3
183
 ℎ𝑐 ℎ𝑐 2 ℎ𝑐 ℎ
− 2𝜆 = −2𝑊0 + 0 ⇒ 2𝜆 = For electron 𝜆𝑚𝑖𝑛 = ⇒ 𝜆𝑚𝑖𝑛 ≈ 28 Å
𝜆0 √2𝑚𝐸

𝜆0 = 4𝜆 So 𝜆 ≥ 2.8 × 10−9 𝑚
S23. Ans.(a) S26. Ans.(b)
ℎ 1 ℎ
𝑃 = 𝜆 ⇒ 𝑃 ∝ 𝜆 (Rectangular hyperbola) 𝜆=
√2𝑚𝐾

S24. Ans.(b) 𝜆1 𝐾 16𝐾 4

= √𝐾2 = √ =1
ℎ𝑐 𝜆2 1 𝐾
𝐾𝐸1 = −𝜙
𝜆 4−1
ℎ𝑐 2ℎ𝑐 Percentage change = × 100 = 75%
4
𝐾𝐸2 = −𝜙 = −𝜙
𝜆/2 𝜆
S27. Ans.(b)
𝐾𝐸2 = 3𝐾𝐸1
By using ℎv = 𝜙0 + 𝐾𝑚𝑎𝑥
2ℎ𝑐 ℎ𝑐
⇒ −𝜙 = 3(𝜆 − 𝜙) We have
𝜆
ℎ𝑐 ℎv = 𝜙0 + 0.5
⇒ 2𝜙 =
𝜆
ℎ𝑐 And 1.2ℎv = 𝜙0 + 0.8
⇒ 𝜙 = 2𝜆
Therefore 𝜙0 = 1.0 𝑒𝑉
S25. Ans.(d)
S28. Ans.(d)
12400
Energy of photon (𝐸) = = 2.48 𝑒𝑉
5000 2 1 2ℎv
ℎ(2v) = ℎv + 2 𝑚v𝑚𝑎𝑥 ⇒ v𝑚𝑎𝑥 = √ 𝑚
Work function (𝜙0 ) = 2.28 𝑒𝑉
S29. Ans.(b)

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
According to Einstein equation
ℎ ℎ𝑐 ℎ ℎ
𝐸 = 𝜙0 + (𝐾. 𝐸. )𝑚𝑎𝑥 𝜆𝑝 = 𝑝 = and 𝜆𝑒 = 𝑝 =
𝐸 √2𝑚𝐸
⇒ 2.48 = 2.28 + (𝐾. 𝐸. )𝑚𝑎𝑥 ⇒ 𝜆𝑝 ∝ 𝜆2𝑒

184
 Chapter 26
Sankalp Bharat
Atoms

1. In hydrogen spectrum, the shortest 6. A radioactive nucleus 𝐴𝐼𝑋 undergoes

wavelength in the Balmer series is 𝜆. The spontaneous decay in the sequence 𝐴𝐼𝑋 →
shortest wavelength in the Bracket series is: 𝐼−1𝐵 → 𝐼−1𝐶 → 𝐼−1𝐷 where Z is the atomic
(2023) number of element X. The possible decay
(a) 16𝜆 particles in the sequence are: (2021)
(b) 2𝜆 (a) 𝛼, 𝛽 , 𝛽
+ −

(c) 4𝜆 (b) 𝛽 + , 𝛼, 𝛽 −
(d) 9𝜆 (c) 𝛽 − , 𝛼, 𝛽 +
2. The radius of inner most orbit of hydrogen (d) 𝛼, 𝛽 − , 𝛽 +
atom is 5.3 × 10−11 𝑚. What is the radius of 7. The total energy of an electron in the nth
third allowed orbit of hydrogen atom? stationary orbit of the hydrogen atom can
(2023) be obtained by. (Covid Re-NEET 2020)
(a) 4.77 Å (a) 𝐸𝑛 = −
13.6
𝑒𝑉
𝑛2
(b) 0.53 Å 1.36
(b) 𝐸𝑛 = − 𝑛2 𝑒𝑉
(c) 1.06 Å
(d) 1.59 Å (c) 𝐸𝑛 = −13.6 × 𝑛2 𝑒𝑉
13.6
(d) 𝐸𝑛 = 𝑛2 𝑒𝑉

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
3. Let 𝑇1 and 𝑇2 be the energy of an electron in
the first and second excited states of 8. For which one of the following, Bohar model
hydrogen atom, respectively. According to is not valid? (2020)
the Bohr’s model of an atom, the ratio 𝑇1 : 𝑇2 (a) Singly ionised helium atom (He+ )
is: (2022) (b) Deuteron atom
(a) 4 : 1 (c) Singly ionised neon atom (Ne+)
(b) 4 : 9 (d) hydrogen atom
(c) 9 : 4
9. The total energy of an electron in n atom in
(d) 1 : 4
an orbit is –3.4 eV. Its kinetic and potential
4. A nucleus with mass number 240 breaks energies are, respectively: (2019)
into two fragments each of mass number (a) –3.4 eV, –3.4 eV
120, the binding energy per nucleon of (b) –3.4 eV, –6.8 eV
unfragmented nuclei is 7.6 MeV while that (c) 3.4 eV, –6.8 eV
of fragments is 8.5 MeV. The total gain in (d) 3.4 eV, 3.4 eV
the Binding Energy in the process is:
10. The ratio of kinetic energy to the total
(2021)
energy of an electron in a Bohr orbit of the
(a) 9.4 MeV
hydrogen atom, is (2018)
(b) 804 MeV
(a) 2 : –1
(c) 216 MeV
(b) 1 : –1
(d) 0.9 MeV
(c) 1 : 1
5. The half-life of a radioactive nuclide is 100 (d) 1 : –2
hours. The fraction of original activity that
11. The ratio of wavelengths of the last line of
will remain after 150 hours would be:
Balmer series and the last line of Lyman
(2021)
1
series is: (2017-Delhi)
(a) (a) 1
2√2
(b) 2/3 (b) 4
2
(c) 3 2 (c) 0.5
√
(d) 2
(d) 1/2

185
12. If the longest wavelength in the ultraviolet (c) 0.25 × 107 𝑚−1
region of hydrogen spectrum is λ0 then the (d) 2.5 × 107 𝑚−1
shortest wavelength in its infrared region is:
16. Consider 3rd orbit of He+ (Helium) using
(2017-Gujrat)
46
non relativistic approach the speed of
(a) 7 0
𝜆 electron in this orbit will be (given 𝐾 =
20
(b) 𝜆 9 × 109 constant 𝑍 = 2 and h (Planck’s
3 0
36 constant) = 6.6 × 10–34 𝐽𝑠): (2015)
(c) 𝜆
5 0 (a) 1.46 × 106 𝑚/𝑠
27
(d) 4 0
𝜆 (b) 0.73 × 106 𝑚/𝑠
(c) 3.0 × 108 𝑚/𝑠
13. If an electron in a hydrogen atom jumps
(d) 2.92 × 106 𝑚/𝑠
from the 3rd orbit to the 2nd orbit, it emits
a photon of wavelength λ. When it jumps 17. In the spectrum of hydrogen, the ratio of the
from the 4th orbit to the 3rd orbit, the longest wavelength in the Lyman series to
corresponding wavelength of the photon will the longest wavelength in the Balmer series
be: (2016-II) is: (2015 Pre)
(a)
20
𝜆 (a) 5/27
7
20 (b) 4/9
(b) 13
𝜆 (c) 9/4
16
(c) 𝜆 (d) 27/5
25
9
(d) 𝜆 18. Hydrogen atom in ground state is excited by
16
a monochromatic radiation of λ = 975 Å.
14. Electrons of mass m with de Broglie Number of spectral lines in the resulting

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
wavelength λ fall on the target in an X-ray spectrum emitted will be: (2014)
tube. The cutoff wavelength (𝜆0 ) of the (a) 3
emitted X-ray is: (2016-II) (b) 2
2𝑚2 𝑐 2 𝜆2
(a) 𝜆0 = (c) 6
ℎ2
(b) 𝜆0 = 𝜆 (d) 10
2𝑚𝑐𝜆2 19. Ratio of longest wavelengths corresponding
(c) 𝜆0 = ℎ
2ℎ to Lyman and Balmer series in hydrogen
(d) 𝜆0 = spectrum is: (2013)
𝑚𝑐

15. Given the value of Rydberg constant is 107 (a) 9/31

m–1, the wave number of the last line of the (b) 5/27
Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum will be: (c) 3/23
(2016-I) (d) 7/29
(a) 0.025 × 104 𝑚−1
(b) 0.5 × 107 𝑚−1

186
 Answer Key
S1. Ans. (c) S12. Ans. (d)

S2. Ans. (a) S13. Ans. (a)

S3. Ans. (c) S14. Ans. (c)

S4. Ans. (c) S15. Ans. (c)

S5. Ans. (a) S16. Ans. (a)

S6. Ans. (b) S17. Ans. (a)

S7. Ans. (b) S18. Ans. (c)

S8. Ans. (c) S19. Ans. (b)

S9. Ans. (c)

S10. Ans. (b)

S11. Ans. (b)

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ

187
 Solutions
S1. Ans.(c) S7. Ans.(b)
1
∵ 𝜆 = 𝑅 (𝑛2 − 𝑛2 )
1 1 For hydrogen atom total energy of an
2 1
electron in the n𝑡ℎ stationary orbit is
1 1
⇒ 𝜆 = 𝑅 (22 ) −13.6
𝐸= 𝑒𝑉
𝑛2
4
⇒𝜆=𝑅 S8. Ans.(c)
1
= 𝑅 (42 )
1 Bohr model is not valid for singly ionised
𝜆′
neon atom (net) since singly ionised neon
16
⇒ 𝜆′ = atom has more than one electron in orbit.
𝑅

⇒ 𝜆′ = 4𝜆 S9. Ans.(c)
S2. Ans.(a) In Bohr’s model of H atom
|𝑈|
𝑟𝑛 = 𝑎0 𝑛2 ∴ 𝐾. 𝐸. = |𝑇𝐸| =
2
𝑟1 = 𝑎0 = 5.3 × 10−11 𝑚 𝑇. 𝐸. = 𝐾. 𝐸. +𝑈
𝑟3 = 𝑎0 (3)2 ∴ 𝐾. 𝐸. = 3.4 𝑒𝑉
−11
= 5.3 × 10 ×9 𝑈 = −6.8 𝑒𝑉
= 4.77 Å S10. Ans.(b)
S3. Ans.(c) In Hydrogen atom from Bohr’s postulates

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
First excited state ⇒ 𝑛 = 2 𝐾.𝐸
T.E. = −𝐾𝐸 ⇒ 𝑇.𝐸
= 1: −1
𝑧2 13.6
𝑇1 = −13.6 𝑛2 = − 5 𝑒𝑉 S11. Ans.(b)
Second excited state ⇒ 𝑛 = 3 Last line of Balmer
𝑧2 13.6 𝑛1 = 2 𝑛2 = ∞
𝑇2 = −13.6 𝑛2 = 𝑒𝑉
9
1 1 1
1 1 = 𝑅𝑧 2 [22 − ∞]
𝑇1 : 𝑇2 = : = 9: 4 𝜆𝐵
4 9
1 𝑅𝑧 2
S4. Ans.(c) =
∞𝐵 4
𝑋 240 → 𝑌120 → 𝑍120 Last line of Lyman
Given binding energy per nucleon of X, Y 𝑛1 = 1 𝑛2 = ∞
& Z are 7, 6 MeV, 8, 5 MeV & 8, 5 MeV
1 1 1
respectively, Gain in binding energy is: = 𝑅𝑧 2 [ 2 − ]
𝜆𝐿 1 ∞
Q = Binding Energy of products - Binding 1
= 𝑅𝑧 2
𝜆𝐿
energy of reactants
𝜆𝐵
= (120 × 8.5 × 2) − (240 × 7.6) 𝑀𝑒𝑉 =4
𝜆𝐿
= 216 𝑀𝑒𝑉 S12. Ans.(d)
S5. Ans.(a) In UV in Lyman series
K.E. = 𝑉0 𝑒 and 𝑉0 𝑒 = ℎ[𝜐 − 𝜐0 ] 𝑛𝑓 = 1 𝑛𝑖 = 2
S6. Ans.(b) 1 1 1 3𝑅
= 𝑅 [ 1 − 22 ] =
𝜆0 4
𝛽 + decrease atomic number by 1
4
𝛼 + decreases atomic number by 2 𝜆0 = 3𝑅

𝛽 + increases atomic number by 1 Shortest wavelength in infrared in

Paschen
𝑛𝑓 = 3 𝑛𝑖 = ∞

188
 1 1 1
= 𝑅 [ 3 2 − ∞] ⇒ 𝜆 =
1 𝑅
⇒𝜆=𝑅
9 S17. Ans.(a)
𝜆 9
𝜆 9/𝑅 27 27 For Lyman series
= = ⇒𝜆= 𝜆
𝜆0 4/3𝑅 4 4 0 1 1 1
(𝜆 ) = 𝑅(1)2 [(1)2 − (2)2 ]
S13. Ans.(a) 𝑚𝑎𝑥 𝐿
4
1 1 1 (𝜆𝑚𝑎𝑥 )𝐿 =
= v = 𝑅𝑍 2 [ − ] 3𝑅
𝜆 𝑛22 𝑛12
For Balmer series
Transition: 3 → 2 ⇒ Wavelength 𝜆
1 1 1
Transition: 4 → 3 ⇒ Wavelength 𝜆′ =? ( ) = 𝑅(1)2 [(2)2 − (3)2 ]
𝜆𝑚𝑎𝑥 𝐿
1 1 1 36
=𝑅𝑍 2 ( 2 − 2)
𝜆 2 3
⇒
𝜆′
=
20
⇒ 𝜆′
20𝜆 (𝜆𝑚𝑎𝑥 )𝐵 =
1 1 1 5𝑅
=𝑅𝑍2 ( 2 − 2 ) 𝜆 7 7
𝜆′ 3 4
(𝜆𝑚𝑎𝑥 )𝐿 4 5𝑅 5
= 3𝑅 × 36 = 27
S14. Ans.(c) (𝜆𝑚𝑎𝑥 )𝐵

𝜆=𝑝⇒𝑝=𝜆
ℎ ℎ S18. Ans.(c)
Energy incident
𝑝2 ℎ2
K.E. of electrons = 𝐸 = 2𝑚 = 2𝑚𝜆2 ℎ𝑐 6.63×10−34 ×3×108
= 𝜆
= 975×10−10 ×1.6×10−19 𝑒𝑉
ℎ𝑐 2𝑚𝑐𝜆2
Also in X-ray 𝜆0 = ⇒ 𝜆0 =
𝐸 ℎ = 12.75 𝑒𝑉
S15. Ans.(c) The hydrogen atom will be excited to 𝑛 =
1
=
1 1
𝑅𝑍 2 {𝑛2 − 𝑛2 } = 107 ×
1
12 {22 −
1
} = 4
𝜆 2 1 ∞2
4(4−1)
Number of spectral lines = =6

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
7 −1
0.25 × 10 𝑚 2

S16. Ans.(a) S19. Ans.(b)

𝑍 1 1 5
For H-like atoms v = 𝑛 × 2.188 × 106 m/s 𝜆𝐿𝑦𝑚𝑎𝑛 ( 2− 2)
2 3 36 5
(𝜆 ) = 1 1 = 3 = 27
𝐵𝑎𝑙𝑚𝑒𝑟 𝑚𝑎𝑥 ( 2− 2)
Here Z = 2, n = 3 1 2 4

v = 1.46 × 106 m/s

189
 Chapter 27
Sankalp Bharat
Nuclei

1. The half life of a radioactive substance is 20 6. The energy equivalent of 0.5 g of a

minutes. In how much time, the activity of substance is: (2020)
substance drops to (1/16)th of its initial (a) 4.5 × 10 𝐽
13

value? (2023) (b) 1.5 × 1013 𝐽

(a) 80 mins (c) 0.5 × 1013 𝐽
(b) 20 mins (d) 4.5 × 1016 𝐽
(c) 40 mins
7. A charged particle having drift velocity of
(d) 60 mins
7.5 × 10–4 𝑚𝑠 –1 in an electric field of 3 ×
2. In the given nuclear reaction, the element X 10–10 𝑉𝑚–1 , has a mobility in 𝑚2 𝑉 –1 𝑠 –1 (per
is: 22 +
11𝑁𝑎 → 𝑋 + 𝑒 + v (2022) second) of : (2020)
23
(a) 10𝑁𝑒 (a) 2.5 × 10 6

(b) 22 (b) 2.5 × 10−6

10𝑁𝑒
(c) 2.25 × 10−15
22
(c) 12𝑀𝑔 (d) 2.25 × 1015
23
(d) 11𝑁𝑎 8. When a uranium isotope 235
92𝑈 is bombarded
89
3. A nucleus of mass number 189 splits into with a neutron, it generates 36 𝐾𝑟, three

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
two nuclei having mass number 125 and neutrons and : (2020)
64. The ratio of radius of two daughter 91
(a) 40𝑍𝑟
nuclei respectively is: (2022) (b) 101
36𝐾𝑟
(a) 4 : 5 (c) 103
36𝐾𝑟
(b) 5 : 4 144
(d) 56𝐵𝑟
(c) 25 : 16
9. 𝛼-particle consists of : (2019)
(d) 1 : 1
(a) 2 protons and 2 neutrons only
(b) 2 electrons, 2 protons and 2 neutrons
4. The half-life of a radioactive sample (c) 2 electrons and 4 protons only
undergoing 𝛼-decay is 1.4 × 1017 𝑠. If the (d) 2 protons only
number of nuclei in the sample is 2.0 × 1021 , 10. For a radioactive material, half-life is 10
the activity of the sample is nearly. minutes. If initially there are 600 number of
(Covid Re-NEET 2020) nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the
(a) 10 Bq
5
distintegration of 450 nuclei is (2018)
(b) 106 Bq (a) 30
(c) 103 Bq (b) 10
(d) 104 Bq (c) 20
5. What happens to the mass number and (d) 15
atomic number of an element when it emits 11. Radioactive material ‘A’ has decay constant
𝛾-radiation? ‘8𝜆’ and material ‘B’ has decay constant ‘𝜆’.
(Covid Re-NEET 2020) Initially they have same number of nuclei.
(a) Mass number and atomic number After what time, the ratio of number of
remain unchanged. nuclei of material ‘A’ to that of ‘B’ will be
(b) Mass number remains unchanged while 1/e? (2017-Delhi)
atomic number decreases by one (a)
1
7𝜆
(c) Mass number increases by four and 1
atomic number increases by two (b)
8𝜆
1
(d) Mass number decreases by four and (c)
9𝜆
1
atomic number decreases by two (d)
𝜆
190
12. The energy liberated per nuclear fission is 16. A radio isotope X with a half life of 1.4 × 109
200 MeV. If 1020 fissions occur per second years decays to Y which is stable. A sample
the amount of power produced will be: of the rock from a cave was found to contain
(2017-Gujrat) X and Y in the ratio 1 : 7. The age of the rock
(a) 2 × 1022 𝑊 is: (2014)
(b) 32 × 108 𝑊 (a) 1.96 × 109 years
(c) 16 × 108 𝑊 (b) 3.92 × 109 years
(d) 5 × 1011 𝑊 (c) 4.20 × 109 years
13. The half-life of a radioactive substance is 30 (d) 8.40 × 109 years
minutes. The time (in minutes) taken 17. The binding energy per nucleon of 73𝐿𝑖 and
between 40% decay and 85% decay of the 4
2𝐻𝑒 nuclei are 5.60 MeV and 7.06 MeV,
same radioactive substance is: (2016-II) respectively. In the nuclear reaction 73𝐿𝑖 +
(a) 45 1 4 4
1𝐻 → 2𝐻𝑒 + 2𝐻𝑒 + 𝑄 the value of energy Q
(b) 60 released is: (2014)
(c) 15 (a) 19.6 MeV
(d) 30 (b) –2.4 MeV
14. The molecules of a given mass of a gas have (c) 8.4 MeV
r.m.s velocity of 200 𝑚𝑠 –1 at 27°C and (d) 17.3 MeV
1.0 × 105 𝑁𝑚–2 pressure. When the 18. The half life of a radioactive isotope ‘X’ is 20
temperature and pressure of the gas are years. It decays to another element ‘Y’ which
respectively, 127°C and 0.05 × 105 𝑁𝑚–2 , the is stable. The two elements ‘X’ and ‘Y’ were
r.m.s. velocity of its molecules in 𝑚𝑠 –1 is: found to be in the ratio 1 : 7 in a sample of

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
(2016-I) a given rock. The age of the rock is
(a) 100√2 estimated to be: (2013)
(b) 400/√3 (a) 100 years
(c) 100√2/3 (b) 40 years
(d) 100/3 (c) 60 years
(d) 80 years
15. If radius of the 27
12𝐴𝑙 nucleus is taken to be
19. A certain mass of Hydrogen is changed to
𝑅𝐴𝑙 , then the radius of 12553𝑇𝑒 nucleus is
Helium by the process of fusion. The mass
nearly: (2015)
5 defect in fusion reaction is 0.02866 u. The
(a) 𝑅
3 𝐴𝑙 energy liberated per u is (given 1 u = 931
3
(b) 𝑅 MeV): (2013)
5 𝐴𝑙
1 (a) 13.35 MeV
13 3
(c) (53) 𝑅𝐴𝑙 (b) 2.67 MeV
1 (c) 26.7 MeV
53 3
(d) (13) 𝑅𝐴𝑙 (d) 6.675 MeV

191
 Answer Key
S1. Ans. (a) S12. Ans. (b)

S2. Ans. (b) S13. Ans. (b)

S3. Ans. (b) S14. Ans. (b)

S4. Ans. (d) S15. Ans. (a)

S5. Ans. (a) S16. Ans. (c)

S6. Ans. (a) S17. Ans. (d)

S7. Ans. (a) S18. Ans. (c)

S8. Ans. (d) S19. Ans. (d)

S9. Ans. (a)

S10. Ans. (c)

S11. Ans. (a)

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ

192
 Solutions
S1. Ans.(a) S10. Ans.(c)
1
𝑇1
Half life = 10 minutes,
𝑁 1 1
= = (2) 2 𝑡1/2 𝑡1/2
𝑁0 16
So 600 → 300 → 150
𝑡 = 4𝑇1/2 = 20 × 4 = 80 mins
⇒ Total time = 2 half life = 20 min.
S2. Ans.(b) S11. Ans.(a)
22 +
11𝑁𝑎 →𝑋+𝑒 +v 𝑁 = 𝑁0 𝑒 −𝜆𝑡 𝜆1 = 8𝜆 𝜆2 = 𝜆
This is 𝛽 − decay +
𝑁1 = 𝑁0 𝑒 −𝜆1 𝑡
…(1)
22 22 +
11𝑁𝑎 → 10𝑁𝑒 +𝑒 +v
𝑁2 = 𝑁0 𝑒 −𝜆2 𝑡 …(2)
S3. Ans.(b)
Dividing Eq. (1) by Eq. (2), we get
Nuclear Radius 𝑁1
𝑁2
= 𝑒 𝜆2 𝑡−𝜆1 𝑡
𝑅 = 𝑅0 (𝐴)1/3
1
𝑅(125) 𝑅0 (125)1/3 5 𝑒
= 𝑒 𝑡(𝜆2 −𝜆1 )
= =
𝑅(64) 𝑅0 (64)1/3 4
𝑒 −1 = 𝑒 𝑡[𝜆−8𝜆] ⇒ 𝑒 −1 = 𝑒 −7𝜆𝑡
S4. Ans.(d)
1
𝑡=
R = Activity of the sample 7𝜆
0.693 S12. Ans.(b)
= 𝜆𝑁 = × 𝑁
𝑇

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
0.693
Energy = Power × time
𝑅 = 1.4×1017 × 2 × 1021 = 104 𝑁𝐸
𝑃= 𝑡
= 1020 × 200 × 106 × 1.6 × 10−19
S5. Ans.(a)
𝑃 = 32 × 108 W
After gamma radiation the mass number
and atomic number remains unchanged S13. Ans.(b)

S6. Ans.(a) Using equation of radioactivity

From mass energy equivalence 𝑁1 = 𝑁0 𝑒 −𝜆𝑡

𝐸 = 𝑚𝑐 2 40% decay

= 0.5 × 10−3 (3 × 108 )2 60 = 𝑁0 𝑒 −𝜆𝑡1 …(1)

= 4.5 × 1013 𝐽 85% decay

S7. Ans.(a) 15 = 𝑁0 𝑒 −𝜆𝑡2 …(2)

Mobility is given as Dividing Eq. (1) by Eq. (2), we get
vd 60 𝑒 −𝜆𝑡1
𝜇= where v𝑑 = drift velocity, E = = 𝑒 −𝜆𝑡2 ⇒ 4 = 𝑒 (𝜆𝑡2 −𝑡1 𝜆)
𝐸 15
Electric field Take log both side
7.5×10−4 6 2 −1 −1
𝜇= = 2.5 × 10 𝑚 v 𝑠 log 4 = log 𝑒 𝜆(𝑡2 −𝑡1 )
3×10−10

S8. Ans.(d) 2 ln 2 𝜆(𝑡2 − 𝑡1 )

When a uranium isotope is bombarded 2 ln 2 =
ln 2
(𝑡2 − 𝑡1 )
30
with neutron the reaction will take place
as:- 𝑡2 − 𝑡1 = 60 minutes
S14. Ans.(b)
235
92𝑈 + 10𝑛 → 89
36𝐾𝑟 + 144 1
56𝐵𝑎 + 3 0𝑛 + 𝑄

S9. Ans.(a) 𝑉 ∝ √𝑇

𝛼-particle is nucleus of Helium which has 𝑉

→ 200 = √300
400

two protons and two neutrons. It is He2+

nucleus, it has zero electrons.
193
 200(2) 39.20 + 𝑄 = 28.24 × 2 = 56.48
→𝑉=
√3
400 𝑄 = 56.48 − 39.20 = 17.28 𝑀𝑒𝑉
→𝑉= 𝑚𝑠 −1
√3 S18. Ans.(c)
S15. Ans.(a) X → Y(stable)
1/3
𝑅∝𝐴 𝑁𝑥 𝑁𝑦
𝑅𝐴𝑙 27 1/3 5 𝑁𝑥 1 𝑁𝑥 𝑁 1
= (125) ⇒ 𝑅𝑇𝑒 = 𝑅 = ⇒ =𝑁 =8
𝑅𝑇𝑒 3 𝐴𝑙 𝑁𝑦 7 𝑁𝑥 +𝑁𝑦 0

S16. Ans.(c) By using 𝑁 = 𝑁0 𝑒 −𝜆𝑡 we have

𝑁𝑥 1 𝑁𝑥 1 1 3 𝑁0
As =7⇒𝑁 = 8 = (2) = 𝑁0 𝑒 −𝜆𝑡 ⇒ 𝑡 = 3 × 20 years = 60 years
𝑁𝑦 𝑥 +𝑁𝑦 8

So, 𝑡 = 3𝑇1/2 = 3 × 1.4 × 109 yrs. S19. Ans.(d)

= 4.2 × 109 yrs. Energy released per U

0.02866
S17. Ans.(d) =(
4
) (931 𝑀𝑒𝑉) = 6.675 𝑀𝑒𝑉
B.E. of 2𝐻𝑒 4 = 4 × 7.06 = 28.24 𝑀𝑒𝑉
B.E. of 73𝐿𝑖 + 11𝐻 → 2𝐻𝑒 4 + 2𝐻𝑒 4 + 𝑄

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ

194
 Chapter 28
Sankalp Bharat
Semiconductor and Devices

1. A full wave rectifier circuit consists of two p- 𝐴 𝐵 𝑌

n junction diodes, a centre-tapped 0 0 1
transformer, capacitor and a load (d) 0 1 0
resistance. Which of these components 1 0 1
1 1 0
remove the ac ripple from the rectified
output (2023) 4.
(a) Load resistance
(b) A centre-tapped transformer
(c) p-n junction diodes
(d) Capacitor
2. Given below are two statements: The truth table for the given logic circuit is:
Statement I: Photovoltaic devices can (2022)
convert optical radiation into electricity. A B C
Statement II: Zener diode is designed to 1
0 0
operate under reverse bias in breakdown 0
(a) 0 1
region. In the light of the above statements, 0
1 0
choose the most appropriate answer from 1
1

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
1
the options given below: (2023)
(a) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II A B C
is correct. 1
0 0
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are 0
(b) 0 1
correct. 1
1 0
(c) Both Statement I and Statement II are 0
1 1
incorrect.
(d) Statement I is correct but Statement II A B C
is incorrect. 0 0 0
3. For the following logic circuit, the truth (c) 0 1 1
table is: (2023) 1 0 0
1 1 1
A B C

0 0 0
(d) 0 1 1
𝐴 𝐵 𝑌 1 0 1
0 0 0 1 1 0
(a) 0 1 0 5.
1 0 0
1 1 1
𝐴 𝐵 𝑌
0 0 1
(b) 0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 0
𝐴 𝐵 𝑌
0 0 0
(c) 0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 1
195
 In the given circuits (a), (b) and (c), the 9. Which of the following gate is called
potential drop across the two p-n junctions universal gate? (Covid Re-NEET 2020)
are equal in: (2022) (a) AND gate
(a) Circuit (b) only (b) NAND gate
(b) Circuit (c) only (c) NOT gate
(c) Both circuit (a) and (c) (d) OR gate
(d) Circuit (a) only 10. Out of the following which one is a forward
6. In half wave rectification, if the input biased diode? (Covid Re-NEET 2020)
frequency is 60 Hz, then the output
frequency would be : (2022) (a)
(a) 30 Hz
(b) 60 Hz (b)
(c) 120 Hz
(d) Zero (c)
7. The electron concentration in an n-type
semiconductor is the same as hole (d)
concentration in a p-type semiconductor.
An external field (electric) is applied across 11. A n-p-n transistor is connected in common
each of them. Compare the currents in emitter configuration (see figure) in which
them. (2021) collector voltage drop across load resistance
(a) Current in p-type > current in n-type. (800 Ω) connected to the collector circuit is
(b) Current in n-type > current in p-type. 0.8 V. The collector current is,

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
(c) No current will flow in p-type, current (Covid Re-NEET 2020)
will only flow in n-type.
(d) Current in n-type = current in p-type
8. For the given circuit, the input digital
signals are applied at the terminals A, B and
C. What would be the output at the terminal
y? (2021)
(a) 0.1 mA
(b) 1 mA
(c) 0.2 mA
(d) 2 mA
12. A intrinsic semiconductor is converted into
n-type extrinsic semiconductor by doping it
with (Covid Re-NEET 2020)
(a) Aluminium
(b) Silver
(c) Germanium
(d) Phosphorous
13. For the logic circuit shown, the truth table
is : (2020)

(a)

(b)
𝐴 𝐵 𝑌
0 0 0
(c) (a) 0 1 1
1 0 1
(d) 1 1 1

196
 𝐴 𝐵 𝑌 (b) OR
0 0 1 (c) NAND
(b) 0 1 1 (d) NOR
1 0 1
1 1 0 18. For a p-type semiconductor, which of the
𝐴 𝐵 𝑌 following statements is true ? (2019)
0 0 1 (a) Electrons are the majority carriers and
(c) 0 1 0 trivalent atoms are the dopants.
1 0 0 (b) Holes are the majority carriers and
1 1 0 trivalent atoms are the dopants.
𝐴 𝐵 𝑌 (c) Holes are the majority carriers and
0 0 0 pentavalent atoms are the dopants.
(d) 0 1 0 (d) Electrons are the majority carriers and
1 0 0 pentavalent atoms are the dopants.
1 1 1 19. In the circuit shown in the figure, the input
14. The increase in the width of the depletion voltage 𝑉𝑖 is 20 V, 𝑉𝐵𝐸 = 0 and 𝑉𝐶𝐸 = 0. The
region in a p-n junction diode is due to : values of 𝐼𝐵 , 𝐼𝐶 and 𝛽 are given by (2018)
(2020)
(a) Reverse bias only
(b) Both forward bias and reverse bias
(c) Increase in forward current
(d) Forward bias only
15. The solids which have the negative

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
temperature coefficient of resistance are:
(2020)
(a) Insulators only
(b) Semiconductors only
(c) Insulators and semiconductors (a) 𝐼𝐵 = 20𝜇𝐴, 𝐼𝐶 = 5𝑚𝐴, 𝛽 = 250
(d) Metals (b) 𝐼𝐵 = 25𝜇𝐴, 𝐼𝐶 = 5𝑚𝐴, 𝛽 = 200
16. For transistor action, which of the following (c) 𝐼𝐵 = 40𝜇𝐴, 𝐼𝐶 = 10𝑚𝐴, 𝛽 = 250
statements is correct? (2020) (d) 𝐼𝐵 = 40𝜇𝐴, 𝐼𝐶 = 5𝑚𝐴, 𝛽 = 125
(a) Base, emitter and collector regions 20. In a p-n junction diode, change in
should have same size. temperature due to heating (2018)
(b) Both emitter junction as well as the (a) Does not affect resistance of p-n
collector junction are forward biased. junction
(c) The base region must be very thin and (b) Affects only forward resistance
lightly doped. (c) Affects only reverse resistance
(d) Base, emitter and collector regions (d) Affects the overall V–I characteristics of
should have same doping p-n junction
concentrations. 21. In the combination of the following gates the
output Y can be written in terms of inputs
17.
A and B as (2018)

(a) ̅̅̅̅̅
𝐴. 𝐵 + 𝐴. 𝐵
(b) 𝐴. 𝐵̅ + 𝐴̅. 𝐵
(c) ̅̅̅̅̅
𝐴. 𝐵
(d) ̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅
𝐴+𝐵
The correct Boolean operation represented
by the circuit diagram drawn is : (2019) 22. Which one of the following represents
(a) AND forward bias diode? (2017-Delhi)
197
 (a)

(d)
(b)

26. From the circuit of the following logic gates,

(c)
the basic logic gate obtained is:
(2017-Gujarat)
(d)

23. The given electrical network is equivalent

to: (2017-Delhi)
(a) NAND gate
(b) AND gate
(a) OR gate (c) OR gate
(b) NOR gate (d) NOT gate
(c) NOT gate
27. A common emitter amplifier circuit is
(d) AND gate
shown in the figure below. For the
24. In a common emitter transistor amplifier transistor used in the circuit the current
the audio signal voltage across the collector amplification factor, βdc = 100. Other

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
is 3 V. The resistance of collector is 3 kΩ. If parameters are mentioned in the figure.
current gain is 100 and the base resistance (2017-Gujarat)
is 2 kΩ, the voltage and power gain of the
amplifier is: (2017-Delhi)
(a) 15 and 200
(b) 150 and 15000
(c) 20 and 2000
(d) 200 and 1000
25. The correct graph between current and
voltage for the arrangement is:
(2017-Gujarat) We find that:
(a) 𝑉𝐵𝐸 = +18.2 𝑉, 𝑉𝐵𝐶 = −3.45 𝑉 and
amplifier is
(b) 𝑉𝐵𝐸 = +18.5 𝑉, 𝑉𝐵𝐶 = +2.85 𝑉 and
(a)
amplifier is not working
(c) 𝑉𝐵𝐸 = +20.7𝑉, 𝑉𝐵𝐶 = +2.85 𝑉 and amplifier
is not working
(d) 𝑉𝐵𝐸 = +21.5𝑉, 𝑉𝐵𝐶 = −2.75 𝑉 and amplifier
is working
(b) 28. What is the output Y in the following circuit,
when all the three inputs A, B, C are first 0
and then 1? (2016-II)

(c)
(a) 1, 0
(b) 1, 1
(c) 0, 1
(d) 0, 0
198
29. The given circuit has two ideal diodes
connected as shown in the figure below. The
current flowing through the resistance R1
will be: (2016-II)

(a) NAND
(b) AND
(c) NOR
(d) OR
34. If in a p-n junction, a square input signal of
10 V is applied, as shown
(a) 1.43 A
(b) 3.13 A
(c) 2.5 A
(d) 10.0 A
30. To get output 1 for the following circuit, the
correct choice for the input is: (2016-I) The the output across RL will be: (2015)

(a)
(a) A = 0, B = 1, C = 0

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
(b) A = 1, B = 0, C = 0
(c) A = 1, B = 1, C = 0
(d) A = 1, B = 0, C = 1
31. A npn transistor is connected in common
(b)
emitter configuration in a given amplifier. A
load resistance of 800 Ω is connected in the
collector circuit and the voltage drop across
it is 0.8 V. If the current amplification factor
is 0.96 and the input resistance of the
circuit is 192 Ω, the voltage gain and the (c)
power gain of the amplifier will respectively
be: (2016-I)
(a) 4, 3.84
(b) 3.69, 3.84
(c) 4, 4(d)
(d)
(d) 4, 3.69
32. Consider the junction diode as ideal. The
value of current flowing through AB is:
(2016-I) 35. The input signal given to a CE amplifier
having a voltage gain of 150 is 𝑉𝑖 =
𝜋
2 cos (15𝑡 + 3 ). The corresponding output
signal will be: (2015 Pre)
(a) 0A 4𝜋
(a) 300 cos (15𝑡 + 3 )
(b) 10−2 𝐴
𝜋
(c) 10−1 𝐴 (b) 300 cos (15𝑡 + 3 )
(d) 10−3 𝐴 (c)
2𝜋
75 cos (15𝑡 + 3 )
33. Which logic gate is represented by the 5𝜋
(d) 2 cos (15𝑡 + 6 )
following combination of logic gates?
(2015)

199
36. The barrier potential of a p-n junction 38. The output (X) of the logic circuit shown in
depends on: (2014) figure will be: (2013)
A. Type of semiconductor material
B. Amount of doping
C. Temperature
Which one of the following is correct?
(a) 𝑋 = ̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅
𝐴+𝐵
(a) A and B only
(b) 𝑋 = 𝐴̿. 𝐵̿
(b) B only
(c) 𝑋 = ̅̅̅̅̅
𝐴. 𝐵
(c) B and C only
(d) 𝑋 = 𝐴. 𝐵
(d) A, B and C
39. In a n-type semiconductor, which of the
37. The given graph represents V-I
following statement is true? (2013)
characteristic for a semiconductor device.
(a) Holes are majority carriers and trivalent
(2014)
atoms are dopants
(b) Electrons are majority carriers and
trivalent atoms are dopants
(c) Electron are minority carriers and
pentavalent atoms are dopants
(d) Holes are minority carriers and
Which of the following statement is correct? pentavalent atoms are dopants
(a) It is V–I characteristic for solar cell 40. In a common emitter (CE) amplifier having
where point A represents open circuit a voltage Gain G, the transistor used has
voltage and point B short circuit current transconductance 0.03 mho and current

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
(b) It is for a solar cell and points A and B gain 25. If the above transistor is replaced
represent open circuit voltage and with another one with transconductance
current, respectively 0.02 mho and current gain 20, the voltage
(c) It is for a photo diode and points A and gain will be: (2013)
B represent open circuit voltage and (a) 5/4 G
current, respectively (b) 2/3 G
(d) It is for a LED and points A and B (c) 1.5 G
represents open circuit voltage and (d) 1/3 G
short circuit current respectively

200
 Answer Key
S1. Ans. (d) S22. Ans. (d)

S2. Ans. (b) S23. Ans. (b)

S3. Ans. (c) S24. Ans. (b)

S4. Ans. (b) S25. Ans. (a)

S5. Ans. (c) S26. Ans. (a)

S6. Ans. (a) S27. Ans. (c)

S7. Ans. (c) S28. Ans. (a)

S8. Ans. (a) S29. Ans. (c)

S9. Ans. (b) S30. Ans. (d)

S10. Ans. (c) S31. Ans. (a)

S11. Ans. (b) S32. Ans. (b)

S12. Ans. (d) S33. Ans. (b)

S13. Ans. (d) S34. Ans. (c)

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
S14. Ans. (a) S35. Ans. (a)

S15. Ans. (c) S36. Ans. (d)

S16. Ans. (c) S37. Ans. (a)

S17. Ans. (c) S38. Ans. (d)

S18. Ans. (b) S39. Ans. (d)

S19. Ans. (d) S40. Ans. (b)

S20. Ans. (d)

S21. Ans. (b)

201
 Solutions
S1. Ans.(d) S6. Ans.()
Theory based In half wave rectification
Capacitor in parallel removes the ac 𝑓𝑖𝑛 = 𝑓𝑜𝑢𝑡
ripple from the rectified output. ⇒ 𝑓𝑜𝑢𝑡 = 60 Hz
S2. Ans.(b) S7. Ans.(c)
Factual (theory based) In N type semiconductor majority charge
S3. Ans.(c) carrier e– and P type semiconductor
S1. Ans. (c) majority charge carriers are holes.
𝐼 = 𝑛𝑒𝐴𝑉𝑑 = 𝑛𝑒𝐴(𝜇𝐸)
𝜇𝑒 > 𝜇ℎ = 𝐼𝑒 > 𝐼ℎ
S8. Ans.(a)
𝐴𝐵
𝐵𝐶

𝑦 = ̅̅̅̅̅̅
𝐴̅ ⋅ 𝐵̅ 𝑌 = 𝐴𝐵 + ̅̅̅̅
𝐵𝐶

=𝐴+𝐵 A B C Y

𝐴 𝐵 𝑌 0 0 1 0+1=1
0 0 0 1 0 1 0+1=1

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
0 1 1
1 0 1 0 1 0 0+1=1
1 1 1 0 0 1 0+1=1
S4. Ans.(b)
S9. Ans.(b)
NOR gate and NAND gate are considered
as universal logic gates.
S10. Ans.(c)
For forward biasing potential of p type is
greater than potential of n-type junction.
𝐴 ⋅ 𝐵. ̅̅̅̅̅̅
𝐶 = ̅̅̅̅̅̅ 𝐴̅ ⋅ 𝐵
S11. Ans.(b)
Using De-Morgan Theorem
Across load resistance voltage drop =
𝐴 ⋅ 𝐵 + ̅̅̅̅̅̅
𝐶 = ̅̅̅̅̅̅ 𝐴̅ ⋅ 𝐵 0.8v
𝐶 = ̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅
𝐵(𝐴 + 𝐴̅) = 𝐵̅ 𝑉 0.8
𝐼𝑐 = 𝑅𝑐 = 800 = 0.001 = 1𝑚𝐴
𝑐
Therefore
S12. Ans.(d)
A B C
Phosphorous is a pentavalent element.
0 0 1 For N-type semiconductor intrinsic
0 1 0 semiconductor is doped by pentavalent
1 0 1 impurity.
1 1 0
S13. Ans.(d)
𝑌 = ̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅
𝐴̅ + 𝐵̅ = ̿̿̿̿̿̿
𝐴⋅𝐵 =𝐴⋅𝐵
S5. Ans.(c)
Therefore the given logic circuit is AND
In (a) & (c) circuits, both the junctions are
gate.
in same biasing conditions so oilers equal
resistances. Since both are in series, S14. Ans.(a)
therefore equal potential will drop across
the junction.
202
 In a p-n junction diode the width of the ⇒ 20 − (500)𝐼𝐵 − 0 = 0
depletion region increases due to reverse 20
𝐼𝐵 = 500 = 40𝜇𝐴
biasing.
S15. Ans.(c) From KVL at output side

For insulators and for semiconductors, 20 − (4)𝐼𝐶 − 0 = 0

20
temperature coefficient of resistance is 𝐼𝐶 = = 5 𝑚𝐴
4
negative but for metals temperature 𝐼 5 𝑚𝐴
coefficient of resistance is positive. And 𝛽 = 𝐼𝐶 = 40 𝜇𝐴 = 125
𝐵

S16. Ans.(c) S20. Ans.(d)

For transistor, Length of collector > It affects all the p–n diode
Emitter > Base Doping of emitter > characteristics. Because, temperature
Collector > Base increase, increases reverse saturation
Also emitter-base junction is forward current; Decreases Barrier, and Reverse
biased and base-collector junction is Breakdown voltage also increases as we
reversed biased. increase temperature affects overall. V-I
characteristics of p–n junction.
S17. Ans.(c)
S21. Ans.(b)
From the given logic circuit LED will
glow, when voltage across LED is high. 𝑌 = 𝐴. 𝐵̅ + 𝐴̅. 𝐵(𝑋𝑂𝑅 gate)
(𝐴 ⊕ 𝐵)

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
S22. Ans.(d)
𝑉1 is p-side potential
𝑉2 is potential at n-side
For forward biasing
𝑉1 > 𝑉2
It will be high when circuit abcda
S23. Ans.(b)
remains open. Therefore truth table will
be as follows.
Truth table
A B Y
𝑦1 = ̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅
𝐴+𝐵
0 0 1
𝑦2 = ̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅ 𝑦1 = ̿̿̿̿̿̿̿̿
𝑦1 + 𝑦1 = ̅̅̅ 𝐴+𝐵 = 𝐴+𝐵
0 1 1
𝑦2 = ̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅
𝑦 = ̅̅̅ 𝐴+𝐵 NOR gate
1 0 1
S24. Ans.(b)
1 1 0
𝑅𝐶
𝐴v = 𝛽
This is output of NAND gate. 𝑅𝐵
3
S18. Ans.(b) 𝐴v = 100 × 2 = 150
In p-type semiconductor, an intrinsic Power gain = 𝛽𝐴v
semiconductor is doped with trivalent
= 100 × 150 = 15000
impurities, that creates deficiencies of
valence electrons called holes which are S25. Ans.(a)
majority charge carriers.
S19. Ans.(d)
⇒ From KVL at input side.
𝑉1 − 𝑅𝐵 𝐼𝐵 − 𝑉𝐵𝐸 = 0

203
 A → Arsenic (n type)
B → Indium (p type)
Reverse biased
S26. Ans.(a) Option (d) satisfies the given condition,
Y=1
Y = (1 + 0)1
Y=1
S31. Ans.(a)
NAND gate
Given (current amplification factor). So
S27. Ans.(c)
𝛼 0.96
𝑉𝐵𝐸 = 𝑉𝐶𝐶 − 𝐼𝐵 𝛽 = 1−𝛼 = 0.04 → 𝛽 = 24
1.5×10−3 Voltage gain for common emitter
𝑅𝐵 = [24 − 15] × × 220 × 103 =
100 configuration
20.7 𝑉
𝑅 800
𝐴v = 𝛽 𝑅1 = 24 {192} = 100
𝑉𝐶𝐸 = 𝑉𝐶𝐶 − 𝐼𝐶 𝑖

𝑅𝐶 = 24 − 1.5 × 10−3 × 4.7 × 103 = 16.95 𝑉 Power gain for common emitter
configuration
∴= [20.7𝑉 − 16.95 𝑉] = 3.75 𝑉
S28. Ans.(a) 𝑃v = 𝛽𝐴v = 24 × 100 = 2400
Voltage gain for common base

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ
configuration
𝑅 800
𝐴v = 𝛼 𝑅1 = 0.96 × 192 = 4
𝑝

When A = B = C = 0 Y=1 Power gain for common base

configuration
A=B=C=1 Y=0
𝑃v = 𝐴v 𝛼4 × 0.96 = 3.84
S29. Ans.(c)
S32. Ans.(b)
The junction in given arrangement is
forward biased
∆𝑉 4−(−6) 10
= = = 0.01 𝐴
𝑅 1000 1000

S33. Ans.(b)

II, is reverse biased, current do not flow

through it, now circuit becomes

S34. Ans.(c)
Diode is forward biased for positive
10 voltage; V > 0 so the output across R will
𝐼𝑅1 = 2+2 be
𝐼𝑅1 = 2.5 𝐴
S30. Ans.(d)

204
 S38. Ans.(d)
S35. Ans.(a)
𝜋
Input signal 𝑉𝑖𝑛 = 2 cos (15𝑡 + )
3

Voltage gain = 150

CE amplifier gives phase difference of 𝜋 ̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅
̅̅̅̅
𝑋 = 𝐴𝐵 ̅̅̅̅
. 𝐴𝐵
between input and output signals 𝑋 = 𝐴𝐵 + 𝐴𝐵
𝑉0
𝐴v = 𝑋 = 𝐴𝐵
𝑉𝑖𝑛

𝑉0 = 𝐴𝑣 𝑉𝑖𝑛 S39. Ans.(d)

𝜋 The n-type semiconductor, can be
So, 𝑉0 = 150 × 2 cos (15𝑡 + 3 + 𝜋)
produced by doping an impurity atom of
𝑉0 = 300 cos (15𝑡 +
4𝜋
) valence 5 so, electrons are majority
3
charge carriers and holes are minority
S36. Ans.(d) charge carrier.
Doping increases potential barrier S40. Ans.(b)
decreases. Temperature increases ∆𝑉 𝑅𝐿 ∆𝐼𝐶
potential barrier increases. A = Voltage gain 𝐴v = ∆𝑉𝐶 = = 𝑔𝑚 𝑅𝐿
𝐵 ∆𝑉𝐵

S37. Ans.(a) 𝐴v1 𝑔𝑚1

=𝑔 ⇒𝐴
𝐺 0.03 2
= 0.02 ⇒ 𝐴v2 = 3 𝐺
𝐴v2 𝑚2 v2
Type here solution

ᶳᶪᶪᶹᶴᶽᶵᶭᶮᶱᶱᶮᶨ

205