Question 1 of 82

A hazardous area in which an explosive gas atmosphere is continuously present, or present

for long periods, is classified as: (Unit 1)

A) Zone 0

B) Zone 1

C) Zone 2

D) Zone 3

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 2 of 82

An Ex equipment has no ambient temperature marking on it. It may assumed that the design
ambient temperature range of the equipment is: (Unit 1)

A) 20°C to 40°C

B) -20°C to +40°C

C) up to +40°C

D) -10°C to +50 °C

Points: 0 out of 1

Question 3 of 82

Group II ‘Ex’ equipment may be marked IIA, IIB or IIC. With what gases could the equipment
be used If it is marked only 'II': (Unit 1)

A) The equipment can be used with all Group II gases.

B) The equipment can only be used with sub-group IIA.

C) The equipment can be only be used with sub-group IIA and IIB gases.

D) The marking is not valid, so the equipment is not suitable for use in any hazardous area.

Points: 1 out of 1
Question 4 of 82

The minimum temperature at which a flammable material will spontaneously ignite is the:
(Unit 1)

A) Minimum Ignition Energy.

B) Flash Point.

C) Ignition Temperature.

D) Flammable Limit (Range).

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 5 of 82

What is the equipment group allocation for electrical equipment in surface industries with a
gas hazard: (Unit 1)

A) Group I

B) Group II

C) Group III

D) Group G

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 6 of 82

Which one of the following gases falls in gas sub-division IIC: (Unit 1)

A) Propane.

B) Ethylene.

C) Hydrogen Sulphide.

D) Acetylene.

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 7 of 82

What does the 'T' rating of an equipment mean: (Unit 1)

 A) It will never to exceed the temperature as indicated by the T rating, under any conditions.

B) It is designed to reach the temperature as marked.

C) The surface temperature will not reach the flash point of the surrounding gas, during
normal operation.

D) The relevant ignition surfaces will not exceed the temperature appropriate to the marked
'T' rating, at full load and maximum rated ambient.

Points: 0 out of 1

Question 8 of 82

A letter can appear as the suffix to the Certificate number of Ex certified equipment. Which is
the correct letter for 'component certification': (Unit 2)

A) 'G'

B) 'X'

C) 'D'

D) 'U'

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 9 of 82

In IEC standards, the equivalent to ATEX Categories is given which of these abbreviations:
(Unit 2)

A) CSA

B) EPL

C) API

D) NEC

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 10 of 82

International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC) and European (EN) standards for explosion
protected equipment are now: (Unit 2)
 A) Similar.

B) Technically identical.

C) Published in all European languages.

D) Non-aligned.

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 11 of 82

The number of an explosion protected equipment certificate appears as

Baseefa08ATEX0272X. What is the meaning suffix X on this certificate number: (Unit 2)

A) The equipment is certified as a component only.

B) The equipment is suitable for indoor use only.

C) The equipment is suitable for use in a safe area only.

D) Special conditions of use apply, refer to original certificate.

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 12 of 82

The EU Directives, including ATEX 95, are developed for use throughout the European
Union, with an objective: (Unit 2)

A) to remove the technical barriers to free trade within the EU.

B) to create more stringent standards to avoid sub-standard products.

C) to allow cheaper products inside the EU market.

D) to create unity among the European Nations.

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 13 of 82

EU Directives defines criteria for various products and equipment. The ATEX 95 directive
relates to: (Unit 2)
 A) Standardisation of supply voltages.

B) Protection of the health & safety of workers in the workplace.

C) The design of equipment for use in potentially explosive atmospheres.

D) Minimising the emission of Electromagnetic waves.

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 14 of 82

What does EPL stand for: (Unit 2)

A) Equipment Protection Level.

B) Electrical Protection Level.

C) Explosion Protection Level.

D) Explosion Proof Level.

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 15 of 82

A flameproof equipment is so named because: (Unit 3)

A) it contains combustible elements inside.

B) it is designed to operate even when under fire.

C) it is robust in construction.

D) it will not ignite the surrounding atmosphere when there is an internal explosion in the
equipment.

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 16 of 82

The Ex d equipment standard has tables that specify the maximum gap for the different types
of joint.What is the importance of these dimensions: (Unit 3)
 A) To ensure that enclosure will be able to withstand the pressure of an internal explosion.

B) To ensure that gases escaping after an internal explosion will not ignite the surrounding
atmosphere.

C) To know the right thickness of gasket to be placed on the flange gap.

D) To allow more gas inside the enclosure.

Points: 0 out of 1

Question 17 of 82

What is the minimum number of full threads that a cable gland must be engaged in an Exd
enclosure: (Unit 3)

A) 4

B) 5

C) 6

D) More than 7

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 18 of 82

What is the minimum permitted gap between a flange joint flamepath and an external
obstruction for an Ex d equipment for use in a Group IIC hazard: (Unit 3)

A) 10mm.

B) 30mm

C) 40mm

D) 50mm

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 19 of 82

What do the standards permit for the environmental protection of flanged joints: (Unit 3)

A) Use of chemical sealants to prevent entry of moisture.

 B) Painting of the joint surfaces.

C) Use of general purpose grease on the surfaces.

D) Non-hardening grease bearing textile tapes may be applied around the joint as per the
standard.

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 20 of 82

Older flameproof equipment may have screw threads which are not metric. How are you
going to fit in a new gland with metric thread. (Unit 3)

A) Fit appropriate Ex 'd thread adaptors.

B) Screw in the metric threads until it stops.

C) Fit in thread inserts.

D) Remake the old threads to fit in the new gland.

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 21 of 82

The only method of Ex protection which permits an explosion to occur inside the enclosure is:
(Unit 3)

A) Pressurisation.

B) Flameproof.

C) Increased Safety.

D) Intrinsic Safety.

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 22 of 82

Where may Ex d certified equipment be used: (Unit 3)

A) Location requiring EPL "Ga", "Gb" or "Gc" (Cat 1,2 or 3).

 B) Location requiring EPL "Ga" or "Gb" (Cat 1 or 2).

C) Location requiring EPL "Gb" or "Gc" (Cat 2 or 3).

D) Location requiring EPL "Gc" (Cat 3) only.

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 23 of 82

In an Ex'd' equipment, care should be taken to avoid pressure piling. How can pressure piling
be prevented: (Unit 3)

A) No unauthorized modification, such as sub-division of the interior, can be done.

B) Increase the free internal volume of the enclosure.

C) Reduce the free internal volume of the enclosure.

D) Fit monitoring device.

Points: 0 out of 1

Question 24 of 82

Where may Increased safety (Ex e) equipment be installed: (Unit 4)

A) Only in locations requiring EPL Ga (ATEX Category 1G) .

B) Only in locations requiring EPL Gc (Cat. 3G) .

C) Only in locations requiring EPL Gb (Cat. 2G) or Gc (Cat. 3G).

D) Only in locations requiring EPL Ga (Cat. 1G) or Gb (Cat. 2G).

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 25 of 82

The minimum IP rating for Ex'e' equipment which contains bare live parts is: (Unit 4)

A) IP 22.
 B) IP 44

C) IP 54

D) IP 56

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 26 of 82

What is tE time of an increased safety motor: (Unit 4)

A) Time taken by thermal over load relay to trip a stalled Ex 'e' motor while running.

B) Run up time of an Ex 'e' motor.

C) Irrelevant to Ex 'e' motor.

D) Cooling time required to restart an Ex 'e' motor.

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 27 of 82

A motor is marked Ex nA II T2. What does 'nA' mean: (Unit 4)

A) Restricted breathing.

B) Energy-limited.

C) Non-sparking.

D) Protected sparking.

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 28 of 82

Which hazardous area requirements would allow the use of Ex'n' equipment: (Unit 4)

A) EPL 'Ga' (Cat 1G).

 B) EPL 'Gb' (Cat 2G) only.

C) EPL 'Gc' (Cat 3G) only.

D) EPL 'Gb' and 'Gc' (Cat 2G and 3G).

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 29 of 82

Arcing and sparking devices may be used in Ex n equipment provided they have additional
protection. One such method was 'energy limitation'. This was denoted by which marking,
and what has replaced it: (Unit 4)

A) ExnA / Exna.

B) Ex nR / Exnr

C) Ex nL / Ex ic

D) Ex nC / Ex mc

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 30 of 82

A pressurised enclosure contains an ignition source and is to be installed in an area requiring

EPL Gb (Cat. 2G) equipment. Which of these types of protection may be used: (Unit 5)

A) Only Ex px.

B) Only Ex py

C) Only Ex pz

D) Ex px or pz

Points: 0 out of 1

Question 31 of 82

Which Ex p enclosure, containing no ignition source, will suit an area requiring EPL Gc
(Cat.3G) equipment: (Unit 5)
 A) Ex px.

B) Ex py

C) Ex px or Ex pz

D) No pressurization required.

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 32 of 82

For protection type Ex 'p', which one of the following is a correct statement: (Unit 5)

A) Explosive gas and ignition is allowed inside the enclosure.

B) The protective gas, which is normally air, should be drawn in from a non-hazardous area.

C) Air should be drawn from Zone 0.

D) All types of gas can be used as protective gas.

Points: 0 out of 1

Question 33 of 82

Air is used as the safe gas in an Ex p installation and is taken from a safe area. If the air is
exhausted into a hazardous area, assuming normal EPL requirements, when would spark
arrestors not be required: (Unit 5)

A) Equipment produces sparks etc, exhausts to Zone 1.

B) Equipment produces sparks etc, exhausts to Zone 2.

C) Equipment does not produce sparks etc, exhausts to Zone 1.

D) Equipment does not produce sparks etc, exhausts to Zone 2.

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 34 of 82

Equipment with type Ex 'px' protection can be used in which locations: (Unit 5)
 A) Locations requiring EPL 'Gc' only.

B) Locations requiring EPL 'Gb' only.

C) Locations requiring EPL 'Ga' or 'Gc' only.

D) Locations requiring EPL 'Gb' or 'Gc' only.

Points: 0 out of 1

Question 35 of 82

In which type of protection is a flammable atmosphere prevented from entering the interior of
an enclosure: (Unit 5)

A) Ex 'n'.

B) Ex 'o'.

C) Ex 'p'.

D) Ex 'q'.

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 36 of 82

What type of protection is permitted in locations requiring EPL 'Gb' (Cat. '2G'), where the
enclosure does not contain ignition capable equipment: (Unit 5)

A) Ex 'px'.

B) Ex 'px' or Ex'pz'

C) Ex 'py'

D) No protection required.

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 37 of 82

A pressurised enclosure with no internal source of release is in a EPL 'Gc' (Cat. '3G')
location. What action is to be taken on loss of pressure, if the internal equipment does not
meet the location EPL requirement: (Unit 5)
 A) All equipment must shut down and be isolated automatically.

B) Alarm operates - all equipment to be shut down and isolated manually.

C) Alarm operates, immediate action to be taken to restore the system.

D) No action is required.

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 38 of 82

Which of these can be considered as SIMPLE apparatus, and used without certification in an
I.S. system: (Unit 6)

A) Induction motor.

B) LED.

C) Electric heater.

D) 25W light bulb.

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 39 of 82

The function of the intrinsically safe interface (barrier or isolator) is to limit which into the
hazardous area: (Unit 6)

A) Limit power.

B) Limit current.

C) Limit voltage.

D) Limit energy.

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 40 of 82

Which one of the following tests is appropriate when a zener barrier unit is suspected to have
a faulty fuse: (Unit 6)
 A) Disconnect unit and measure the current.

B) Disconnect unit and measure the resistance between the input (supply) and the output
terminals.

C) Perform check on the value of the voltage Um.

D) Disconnect output and measure the supply voltage.

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 41 of 82

The resistance of the cables connecting a zener barrier earth bar and the main earth should
not exceed: (Unit 6)

A) 1 Ohm.

B) 10 Ohms

C) 100 Ohms

D) 1M Ohms

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 42 of 82

Which one of the following may be connected (is in the hazardous area) to the output of a
Zener barrier: (Unit 6)

A) Simple apparatus.

B) Only apparatus specified in the documentation.

C) Any IS certified equipment and simple apparatus.

D) Any certified equipment.

Points: 0 out of 1

Question 43 of 82

The test voltage withstand for IS cables insulation is which of the following: (Unit 6)

A) 500Vac and 750Vdc.

 B) 500Vr.m.s (750Vdc)

C) 1000V

D) Double the rated Voltage.

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 44 of 82

The rating Label of an I.S associated apparatus is marked 'Um = 250 V'. What does this
mean: (Unit 6)

A) The maximum output voltage is 250V.

B) Barrier has been designed for use with safe area equipment with 250 Vac maximum
supply voltage.

C) Barrier must be tested at 250V

D) The interconnection cables have to be tested at 250 V.

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 45 of 82

Which of these methods of protection has the highest level of safety: (Unit 6)

A) Ex nA

B) Ex ia

C) Ex ib

D) Ex d

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 46 of 82

When testing intrinsically safe circuits using test instruments, the test instruments must be:
(Unit 6)

A) Supplied from an ELV source.

 B) Supplied via an [Ex ia] safety barrier.

C) Certified I.S.

D) Approved for use with intrinsically safe circuits.

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 47 of 82

Where one copper conductors are used between I.S. earth and main earth, what must be the
minimum cross sectional area of each: (Unit 6)

A) 1.0 mm2

B) 1.5 mm2

C) 4 mm2

D) 10 mm2

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 48 of 82

A pressure transmitter labeled Ex ib IIB T5 may be used where: (Unit 6)

A) In any hazardous area with any gas group.

B) In locations requiring EPL Ga, Gb, or Gc (Cat. 1G, 2G, or 3G) in gas sub-groups IIA, IIB
or IIC.

C) In locations requiring EPL Gb or Gc (2G, or 3G) in gas sub-groups IIA or IIB only.

D) In locations requiring EPL Gc (Cat. 3G) in gas sub-groups IIB or IIC only.

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 49 of 82

For enclosures containing Ex i circuits, which is practicable to be considered? (Unit 6)

A) Terminals should be certified.

 B) Enclosure should be painted.

C) To have a label indicating IS circuits inside.

D) Install only in safe area.

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 50 of 82

An Ex d (ia) IIB T4 flameproof enclosure has an intrinsically safe output. What type of cable
gland must be used for the I.S cable: (Unit 6)

A) A standard industrial IP54 gland suitable for the cable.

B) A certified flameproof gland suitable for the cable & enclosure.

C) A certified Ex'i' gland suitable for the cable.

D) An increased safety gland suitable for the cable.

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 51 of 82

I.S. apparatus remains safe with specified internal faults, but how many INSTALLATION
faults are permissible: (Unit 6)

A) 3

B) 2

C) 1

D) None

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 52 of 82

A circuit contains equipment marked Ex ia and Ex ib. Determine the control loop that should
be considered? (Unit 6)

A) Ex ia
 B) Ex ib

C) non certified

D) not approved.

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 53 of 82

Which cable parameters are to be considered when selecting IS cable? (Unit 6)

A) capacitance only.

B) inductance only.

C) both inductance and capacitance.

D) none

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 54 of 82

To achieve the correct selection and installation of equipment in a hazardous area, IEC
standards require technicians to possess basic understanding of which one of the following:
(Unit 7)

A) Classification drawing preparation.

B) Process operation.

C) Risk assessment procedures.

D) The various protection types.

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 55 of 82

IEC 60079 - 14 specifies the knowledge and skill of various group of people. Which is
required by technicians: (Unit 7)

A) The ability to prepare engineering drawings.

 B) Familiarity with the particular techniques to be employed in the selection & erection of
equipment.

C) A detailed knowledge of the applicable International Standards.

D) Basic knowledge of quality management systems.

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 56 of 82

IEC 60079 - 14 specifies cable requirements for fixed equipment in zone 1 & 2. Cables
sheathed with thermoplastic, thermosetting, or elastomeric may be used provided that: (Unit
7)

A) the cable is circular, compact, and has extruded bedding and fillers.

B) the cable is circular, compact, has extruded bedding, and any fillers are non-hygroscopic.

C) the cable is circular, compact, has extruded bedding and fillers, if any, are non-
conductive.

D) the cable is flat, compact, has extruded bedding and fillers, if any, are non-conductive.

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 57 of 82

What is the minimum requirement for terminating a SWA cable with an Ex'e' E1W cable
gland into an earthed Ex'e' steel enclosure having a 10mm threaded metal gland plate: (Unit
7)

A) Fit gland, earth tag, serrated metal washer and internal lock nut.

B) Fit gland, external IP washer and internal lock nut.

C) Fit gland.

D) Fit gland, external IP washer and internal serrated metal washer.

Points: 0 out of 1

Question 58 of 82

If a cable gland is marked with a suffix 'X', what does it mean: (Unit 7)

A) It can only be used with an enclosure that is also marked with a suffix 'X'.
 B) It can only be used with portable equipment if additional clamping is provided for the
cable.

C) It can only be used with fixed equipment.

D) It can only be used with fixed equipment and may require additional clamping.

Points: 0 out of 1

Question 59 of 82

Multi-stranded and fine stranded conductors need to be protected against separation of the
strands. How can this be achieved: (Unit 7)

A) By twisting the strands.

B) By soldering the strands.

C) By fitting cable lugs or soldering.

D) By fitting cable lugs or core end sleeves.

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 60 of 82

What type of gland was NOT permitted for terminating a SWA cable in to Ex'e' junction box
installed in 2005: (Unit 7)

A) An uncertified E1W brass gland meeting the Ex e impact and IP criteria.

B) An uncertified plastic gland.

C) A certified Ex'd', E1WF gland.

D) A certified Ex'e', E1W gland.

Points: 0 out of 1

Question 61 of 82

What are the gland requirements for installation in an Ex e / Ex n terminal box, before 2007:
(Unit 7)
 A) Ex 'd' barrier glands are required.

B) Ex d / Ex e dual certified glands must be used.

C) Any gland that meets the Ex 'e' impact and IP requirements may be used.

D) Uncertified metal gland meeting IP & impact ratings was required.

Points: 0 out of 1

Question 62 of 82

After 2007, the requirements for cable glands entering into Ex e / Ex n enclosure are: (Unit 7)

A) Ex d flameproof gland.

B) Ex d barrier gland.

C) Ex e certified gland.

D) Gland certified as meeting IEC 60079-0 requirements.

Points: 0 out of 1

Question 63 of 82

E1W, Ex'e' cable gland to be fitted into an Ex'e' plastic terminal box without internal earth
plate, via clearance holes. Which of the following is an acceptable installation: (Unit 7)

A) Fit gland and internal lock nut.

B) Fit gland, earth tag, external IP seal and internal lock nut.

C) Fit gland, external IP seal and internal lock nut.

D) Fit gland and external IP seal washer.

Points: 0 out of 1

Question 64 of 82

An earthed Ex e steel enclosure has a clearance entry hole in a 5mm gland plate. Which
method should be used to meet the required minimum installation standard when installing
armoured cable: (Unit 7)
 A) Fit gland.

B) Fit gland, shroud, external IP washer and internal locknut.

C) Fit gland, external IP washer, internal serrated washer and internal lock nut.

D) Fit gland, earth tag, external IP washer, internal serrated washer and internal lock nut.

Points: 0 out of 1

Question 65 of 82

A cable with individually screened pairs must be used to connect an I.S. instrument with 3
terminals. If two cores are used from one pair what should be done for the 3rd core: (Unit 7)

A) Use any spare core from any other pair.

B) Use the spare core from a pair where the other core is already used in another instrument
circuit.

C) Use one core from another pair. Do not use the remaining core - treat it as a 'spare'
unused core.

D) This cable cannot be used, a separate screened 3 core 'triad' cable must be run.

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 66 of 82

Why is it that the insulated screen of an IS circuit cable be normally connected to earth at
one point only? (Unit 7)

A) To minimize cost of installation.

B) To simplify the installation.

C) To avoid the possibility of the invasion of stray currents.

D) To prevent short circuit.

Points: 1 out of 1
Question 67 of 82

What is the best thing to do on the spare cores of a multi-core cable used for unearthed IS
circuits? (Unit 7)

A) adequately insulate from earth.

B) connect both ends to earth.

C) bundle with a cable tie.

D) connect to earth at the hazardous end.

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 68 of 82

Usually, screened cables are used to interconnect IS equipment. Where must the screen be
connected? (Unit 7)

A) To plant earth.

B) To points as shown on drawing.

C) To earth at both ends.

D) Left floating.

Points: 0 out of 1

Question 69 of 82

To minimise static electricity generated by plastic cable trays, IEC60079-14 specifies limits
for the insulation resistance values. Which of the following is the correct value: (Unit 7)

A) Not exceeding 1 MΩ

B) Greater than 1 Mohm

C) Not exceeding 1 Gohm

D) Greater than 1 Gohm

Points: 1 out of 1
Question 70 of 82

Where can Ex 'o' and Ex 'q' equipment be newly installed? (Unit 7)

A) Locations requiring EPL 'Gb' or 'Gc' (Cat 2 or 3).

B) Locations requiring EPL 'Gb' only (Cat 2 only).

C) Locations requiring EPL 'Ga' or 'Gb' (Cat 1 or 2).

D) Locations requiring EPL 'Ga' only (Cat 1 only).

Points: 0 out of 1

Question 71 of 82

An equipment certified as Ex 'de' would of the following construction: (Unit 7)

A) Flameproof equipment with increased safety terminals.

B) Increased safety enclosure with flameproof terminals.

C) Flameproof equipment with increased safety terminal chamber.

D) Increased safety enclosure with flameproof terminal box.

Points: 0 out of 1

Question 72 of 82

Which one of the following is a grade of inspection: (Unit 8)

A) Frequent.

B) Periodic.

C) Sample.

D) Visual.

Points: 1 out of 1
Question 73 of 82

What is the required grade of inspection prior to an installation being brought into service:
(Unit 8)

A) Visual.

B) Detailed.

C) Close.

D) Periodic.

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 74 of 82

After completion of an installation, what type of inspection is required before handover: (Unit
8)

A) Initial.

B) Detailed.

C) Visual.

D) Sample.

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 75 of 82

Which is an inspection requirement when a close inspection is carried out on an intrinsically

safe system: (Unit 8)

A) Electrical connections are tight.

B) Installation is clearly labeled.

C) Cables are terminated inaccordance with the documentation.

D) Cables not in use are correctly terminated.

Points: 0 out of 1
Question 76 of 82

Which of the following is an inspection requirement in a visual inspection of Ex 'd', 'e', or 'n'
equipment: (Unit 8)

A) Equipment circuit identification is correct.

B) Type of cable used is appropriate.

C) Motor fans have sufficient clearance to enclosure and/or covers.

D) Equipment circuit identification is available.

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 77 of 82

A Close Inspection is an inspection which: (Unit 8)

A) identifies defects apparent to the eye.

B) identifies defects only apparent using access equipment or tools.

C) is carried out before the equipment is put into service.

D) is only carried out when the plant is shut down.

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 78 of 82

A Detailed Inspection is an inspection which: (Unit 8)

A) identifies those defects only apparent using access equipment.

B) identifies, without the use of access equipment or tools, those defects apparent to the
eye.

C) is carried out on equipment in service at least once a year.

D) identifies those defects only apparent by opening the enclosure, using tools and test
equipment.

Points: 1 out of 1
Question 79 of 82

Before opening the cover of Ex equipment for inspection, what is the minimum isolation
requirement: (Unit 8)

A) Isolate the supply (including neutral) at the supply end - switch isolator OFF or removing
fuses/links.

B) Switch the isolator on the equipment to OFF.

C) Switch the isolator on the equipment to OFF and apply lock and tag.

D) Isolate the supply (including neutral) at the supply end, by switching isolator OFF (or
removing fuses/links), and apply lock.

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 80 of 82

Movable equipment are prone to damage. What is the maximum interval between close
inspections: (Unit 8)

A) 6 months.

B) 9 months.

C) 1 year.

D) 2 years.

Points: 1 out of 1

Question 81 of 82

When is it permitted to undertake inspection or maintenance of power equipment in a

hazardous area: (Unit 8)

A) Under a permit to work and the equipment is Ex'd'.

B) Under a permit to work and the equipment is Ex'e'.

C) Under a permit to work and you have a "Gas free Certificate".

D) When the work site has a gas detector.

Points: 0 out of 1
Question 82 of 82

Which grade of inspection is relevant when doing inspection of an Ex 'd' barrier cable gland.
(Unit 8)

A) Initial inspection.

B) Visual inspection.

C) Close inspection.

D) Detailed inspection.

Points: 0 out of 1