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Introduction
In this topic we shall highlight valuation concepts. The topic will cover: the concepts of time
value of money, future value and present value, the application of time value of money concept
and valuation of long-term assets.
Therefore, money has a time value. It can be invested to earn interest or profits, so it’s better to
have Shs 1 now than in one year’s time. This is because Shs 1 now can be invested for the next
year to earn a return, whereas Shs 1 in one year’s time cannot. Put in another way, Shs 1 in
two years’ time is worth less than Shs 1 now.
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Risk
The earlier cash flows are due to be received, the more certain they are - there’s is less chance
that events will prevent payment. Earlier cash flows are therefore considered to be more
valuable.
To compound a sum, the figure is increased by the amount of interest it would earn over the
period.
Example 1: Compounding
An investment project of Shs 10 million is to be made today. What is the value of the
investment after 2 years if the interest rate is 10%?
Solution
Particulars Shs
Value after 1 year: 10,000,000 X 1.1 = 11,000,000
Value after 2 years: 11,000,000 X 1.1 = 12,100,000
The Shs 10 million will be worth Shs 12.1 million in two years at an interest rate of 10%. This
is a fairly straight forward calculation. However, if the question asked for the value of the
investment after 10 years, it would take a lot longer.
To speed up the process, we can use a formula to calculate the future value of the sum invested
now. The formula is:
F = P (1+ r) n
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Where F = Future value after n periods.
P = Present or initial value
r = Rate of interest per period
n = Number of periods
Solution
F = Shs 5,000,000 (1 + 0.05)6
= 5,000,000 x 1.3401
= Shs 6,700,500
Multi-Period Compounding
This is a situation where interest is compounded several times in a year’. The formula to use is
as follows:
F = P (1+ r/m)nm
Where: F is future value, P is principal or present value today, m = number of times
compounded, r is interest rate, and n is total number of compounding periods.
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Determining the future value of a mixed stream of cash flows is straight forward. We
determine the future value of each cash flow at the specified future date and then add all the
individual future values to find the total future value.
Solution
Year Cash flow No. of years earning FVIF8%, na Future value
(Shs) interest (n) [(1) x (3)]
(3)
(1) (2) (4)
1 11,500,000 5–1=4 1.360 Shs 15,640,000
2 14,000,000 5–2=3 1.260 17,640,000
3 12,900,000 5–3=2 1.166 15,041,400
4 16,000,000 5–4=1 1.080 17,280,000
5 18,000,000 5–5=0 1.000 18,000,000
Future Value of Mixed Stream = Shs 83,601,400
a FVIF at 8%
b The future value of the end of year 5 deposit at the end of year 5 is its present value
because it earns interest for zero years and (1 + 0.08)0 = 1.000.
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Continuous Compounding
Continuous compounding involves compounding over every microsecond – the smallest time
period ever imaginable. In this case the formula to use is:
F = PV x (e)rn
Where: PV is present value, e = 2.7183 is the Euler constant or exponential constant, r is
interest rate, and n is total number of compounding periods
Compounding Annuities
There are two basic types of annuities, that is, an ordinary or regular annuity and an annuity
due. For an ordinary annuity, the cash flows occur at the end of each period and for an annuity
due, the cash flows occur at the beginning of each period. In order to compound an ordinary or
regular annuity (the most common) the following formula is used:
FVAn = PMT x (FVIFAr, n)
Where: FVAn is the future value of an n, year annuity, PMT is the amount to be deposited
annually at the end of each year, and FVIFAr, n is the future value interest factor for the
ordinary annuity compounded at r per cent for n years.
Years 0 1 2 3 4
Discounting FV
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P= F = F (1+ r)-n
Formula or Tables
(Given in the examination)
1 = 0.621 You can simply find the DF from the
5
(1.10) PV table by locating the DF at the
10% column and the 5-year, i.e.0.621
Solution
ThisPis= just
F a re-arrangement
= 115,000,000/ of 0.06)9 = Shs 68,068,323 (using the formula)
(1 +the formula
(1+r) n
Discounting Annuities
An annuity is a constant annual cash flow for a number of years. There are two basic types of
annuities, that is, an ordinary annuity and an annuity due. For an ordinary annuity, the cash
flows occur at the end of each period and for an annuity due, the cash flows occur at the
beginning of each period.
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Example 5: Discounting Annuities
A payment of Shs 1 million is to be made every year for six years, the first payment occurring
in one year’s time. The interest rate is 10%. What is the PV of the annuity?
Solution
The PV of an annuity could be found by adding the PVs of each payment separately.
Year Payment PV
Shs DF @ 10% (from tables) Shs
1 1,000,000 0.909 909,000
2 1,000,000 0.826 826,000
3 1,000,000 0.751 751,000
4 1,000,000 0.683 683,000
5 1,000,000 0.621 621,000
6 1,000,000 0.564 564,000
4.354 4,354,000
However, you can see that the sum of all the DFs is 4.354. Therefore, the PV can be found
more quickly as follows: Shs 1,000,000 x 4.354 = Shs 4,354,000
The annuity factor (AF) is the name given to the sum of the individual DF. The PV of an
annuity can be found quickly using the formula:
PV = Annual cash flow x AF
Like with calculating a DF, the annuity factor can be found using an annuity formula or
annuity tables. The formula is:
AF = 1 - (1 + r)-n
R
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Formula or Tables
(Given in the examination)
1 – (1+r)-n You can simply find the AF from the annuity
r table by locating the DF at the 10% column
= 1 – (1.1)-6 = 4.335 and the six-year row, i.e. 4.355
0.1
Note that there might be a small difference due to rounding’s.
Discounting Perpetuities
A perpetuity is an annual cash flow that occurs forever or an annuity with an infinite life. It is
often described by examiners as a cash flow continuing for the foreseeable future. The PV of
a perpetuity is found using the following formula:
PV = Cash flow
r
or
PV = Cash flow x 1
R
The use of annuity factors and perpetuity factors both assume that the first cash flow will be
occurring in one year’s time.
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Sinking funds are used to pay off debts, to redeem bond issues, to replace assets after useful life
and to redeem preference shares, among other things.
Since the amount needed in the sinking fund, the time the amount is needed and the interest rate
that the fund earns are known, we have an annuity problem in which the size of the payment in
the sinking-fund deposit, is to be determined. A schedule showing how a sinking fund
accumulates to the desired amount is called a sinking-fund schedule. The sinking fund formula is
as follows:
Sinking fund annually = Future value
Compound value interest factor of annuity
Required: Work out the annual instalment and prepare the amortisation schedule for the loan.
Solution
Annual instalment = PV
PVIFA10%, 4 years
= 10,000,000
3.170
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= 3,154,574.132
For quoted companies the main reason for making a business valuation is when there is a
takeover bid. In a takeover bid, the bidder always offers more for the shares in the target
company than their current market price. A valuation might therefore be made by the bidder in
order to establish a fair price or a maximum price that he will bid for the shares in the target
company.
For unquoted companies, a business valuation may be carried out for any of the following
reasons:
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1) The company might be converted into a public limited company with the intention of
launching it on to the stock market. When a company comes to the stock market for the
first time, an issue price for the shares has to be decided.
2) When shares in an unquoted company are sold privately, the buyer and seller have to
agree a price. The buyer has to decide the minimum price he is willing to accept and the
seller has to decide the maximum price he is willing to pay.
3) When there is a merger involving unquoted companies, a valuation is needed as a basis
for deciding on the terms of the merger.
4) When a shareholder in an unquoted company retires or dies, a valuation is needed for the
purpose of establishing the tax liability on his estate.
Approaches to Valuation
The three main approaches are:
1) The dividend valuation model (DVM) - based on the return paid to a shareholder.
2) Income/earnings based methods - based on the returns earned by the company.
3) Asset based valuation models - based on the tangible assets owned by the company.
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Example 7: The DVM
Uganda Clays Ltd has the following financial information available:
Share capital in issue: 4 million ordinary shares at a par value of Shs 50.
Current dividend per share (just paid) Shs 24.
Dividend four years ago Shs 15.25.
Current equity beta 0.8
Solution
The formula Po = Do (1+g) will provide the value of a single share. The market
re - g
capitalisation can then be found by multiplying its current share price by the number of
shares in issue.
Do = Shs 24.
g can be found by extrapolating from past dividends as follows:
g = n√ Do -1
Dividend n years ago
g = 4√ 24 -1 = 24 1/4
- 1 = 12%
15.5 15.5
re can be found using the capital asset pricing model (CAPM) as follows:
re = Rf + β (Rm – Rf)
= 8 + 0.8(15 – 8)
= 13.6%
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Therefore
Po = 24 (1+ 0.12) = Shs 1,680
0.136 – 0.12
The market capitalisation is therefore Shs 6,720,000,000 (4,000,000 x 1,680).
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The subsidiary weaknesses of asset-based approach is that it ignores non-statement of financial
position intangible ‘assets’ e.g. highly-skilled workforce, strong management team and
competitive positioning of the company’s products.
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550,000
You ascertain that:
Loan notes are redeemable at a premium of 2%.
Current market value of freehold property exceeds book value by Shs 30,000,000.
All assets, other than property, are estimated to be realisable at their book value.
Required: Calculate the value of an 80% holding of ordinary shares, on an assets basis.
Solution
Shs’000
Non-current assets as per statement of financial position 450,000
Add: Undervalued freehold property 30,000
Adjusted value of non-current assets 480,000
Net current assets 100,000
Net assets 580,000
Less: Payable to loan note holders on redemption (102,000)
478,000
Valuation of 80% holding = 80 /100 x Shs 478,000,000 382,400
PE ratio method
The PE method is a very simple method of valuation. It is the most commonly used method in
practice. The PE ratios are quoted for all listed companies and calculated as:
PE = Price per share/ Earnings per share (EPS)
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This can then be used to value shares in unquoted companies as:
Value of company = Total earnings x PE ratio
Value per share = EPS x PE ratio
Earnings yield
The earnings yield is simply the inverse of the PE ratio:
EPS
Price per share
It can therefore be used to value the shares or market capitalisation of a company in exactly the
same way as the PE ratio:
Value of company = Total earnings x 1
Earnings yield
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Solution
Value of company = Total earnings x 1
Earnings yield
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