Sample Questions 2023-09-23 15-46-21

ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT PROTECTION: A
Review (10)
Life supporting portions of Earth composed of air, land, fresh water, and salt
water. The highest level of organization
O a. Biosphere
• b. Community
• c. Ecosystem
• d. Organism O e. Ecology
The law aims to protect the country's water bodies from land-based pollution
sources (industries and commercial establishments, agriculture and
community/household activities).
O a. RA 9275
• b. RA 8749
O C. RA 8500
O d. RA 9279
• e. RA 9570
Environmentalists have expressed fear that with rampant blast fishing activities in
the Lingayen Gulf, whale sharks, which have regularly visited the waters of San
Fabian since 2001, may not return. Two years ago, four whale sharks appeared in the
gulf.
O a. R.A 8550
O b.R.A 8225
O C. R.A. 5000
O d. R.A 5200
O e. R.A 5230
This law states that, it is the solemn duty of every citizen to protect public
forest and forest reserves from indiscriminate logging, senseless denudation and
wanton destruction to the detriment of the present and future generations.
O a. PD 250
O b. PD 335
O c. PD 330
O d. PD 231
O e. PD 235
The causes of air pollution are the following, except:

O a. Carbon dioxide
• b. Sulfur Dioxide
O c. Sulfur Oxides
O d. Peroxide
O e. Sulfur
The permanent rise of temperature in the atmosphere around the world.
• a. Climate change
• b. Greenhouse effect
• c. Global warming
O d. Pollution
• e. Waste Management
Any unicellular or multicellular form exhibiting all of the characteristics of

life, an individual. The lowest level of organization
O a. Biosphere
• b. Community O c. Ecosystem
• d. Organism
• e. Ecosphere
At least 90 percent of the food business establishments in Davao City are not aware
of the policy that prohibits the improper disposal of us Red cooking oil to the
sewers, according to lawyer Tristan Dwight Domingo, Assistant City Administrator.
Used cooking oil is considered as hazardous.
O a. R.A 8550
O b.RA6969
O C. RA 6060
• d. RA 6290
O e. RA 6065
Can be defined as any undesirable change in physical, chemical, or biological

characteristics of any component of the environment
O a. Air pollution
• b. Environmental pollution
• c. Water Pollution O d. Soil Pollution
• e. Thermal Pollution
Climate Change Act of 2009. Aims to systematically integrate the concept of climate
change in the policy formulation and development plans of all government agencies
and units, to the end that the government will be prepared for the impact of
climate change.
• a. RA 9512
O b. RA 9279
O C. RA 8749
O d. RA 9275
O e. RA 9425
GENDER AWARENESS AND

DEVELOPMENT: A Review (10)
Recognizes that there are socially determined differences between men and women
based on learned behavior which affects ability to access and control resources is
called
• a. Gender Identity
• b. Gender Role
• c. Gender Awareness
O d. Gender Equality
• e. Gender stereotypes
The aim of gender equality in the workplace is to achieve broadly equal outcomes
for women and men, not necessarily outcomes that are exactly the same for all. This
requires the following, except:
O a. Workplaces to provide equal pay for

work of equal or comparable value.
b. Access to all occupations and O industries, including leadership roles
regardless of gender.
c. Elimination of discrimination on the basis of gender, particularly in relation
to family and caring responsibilities.
• d. Additional barriers to protect women
• O e. None of the above
The process by which norms and expectations in relation to gender are learned by
women and men.
O a. Gender Awareness
• b. Gender Equality
• c. Gender Socialization O d. Gender stereotypes
O e. Gender Identity
Perception and gender roles are the following, except:

O a. Gender awareness
• b. Gender stability
• c. Absolute moral rules
O d. Social conventions
O e. None of the above
It is the process and condition by which women are mobilize to understand, identify
and overcome gender discrimination and achieve equality is called
O a. Women's Role O b. Women's advocacy
O c. Women empowerment
• d. Women's policy
• e. Both a and b
are characteristics, attitudes,

feelings and behaviors that society expects of males and females.
O a. Gender equality
• b. Gender identity
• c. Gender stereotypes
• d. Gender roles
• e. Gender Awareness
Societal norms and traditions dictate people to think men are the leaders,
pursuers, providers and take on dominant roles in society while women are
nurturers, men's companions and supporters and take on subordinate roles in
society.
O a. Gender-Based Violence
• b. Gender Discrimination
• c. Gender Mainstreaming O d. Gender Stereo typing
O e. Gender Awareness
"The state shall protect working women by providing safe and healthful working
conditions taking into account their maternal functions, and such facilities and
opportunities that will enhance their welfare and enable them to realize their full
potential in the service of the nation". Is called
O a. Art. 3 Labor: Sec 14
• b. Art 3 Labor Sec. 16
• c. Art 3 Labor Sec.20
• d. Art. 3 Labor. Sec 25
O e. Art 3 Labor. Sec 26
A
for making agencies work for
women's empowerment and gender equality.
O a. Approach
O b. Initiative
O c. Policy
• d. Strategy
• e. Equality
Philippine initiative on gender responsive governance on mainstreaming provides the

following, except:
O a. Enforce compliance to GAD
mainstreaming policies.
O b. Ehance existing structural mechanisms
to accelerate mainstreaming of GAD.
O c. Hiring more of females in the uniformed
service.
d. Enhance the capability of local and O regional GAD practitioners to deliver GAD
programs
PNP CUSTOMS AND TRADITIONS (10)

"His Majesty"
O a. King
• b. President O c. Queen
• d. Prime Minister O e. Prosecutor
Gun Salute for the President is:

• a. 20
O b.21
• c.19
O d. 22
О e. 23
For ceremonial purposes, he is treated as if he were the state itself.

O a. King
• b. Prime Minister
• c. President O d. Queen
• e. All of the above
A woman is never presented to any Police Officer regardless of his rank or to any
man, except to the President, a royal personage or a church dignitary.
O a. Something is wrong with the statement
• b. The statement is correct
• c. Partly true
O d. Partly false
"His Eminence"
О a. Pope
• b. Monsignor
• c. Cardinal
• d. Reverend Father
• O e. Priest
A guest who has just arrived is introduced to another who is just leaving.
O a. True
O b. False
• c. Partly true
• d. Partly false
• e. None of the above
Person entitled to port courtesies.

• a. Mayor
• b. Senator
• O c. President
O d. Chief of the PNP
This refers to the entry, free of customs, duty and other taxes of goods, which
would normally subject to taxation.
O a. Free entry
• b. Port courtesies
• c. Facilities of the port
• O d. Customs
• O e. Traditions
A rigid long established code.

O a. Social amenities
O b. Protocol
• c. Treaties
O d. Code of ethics
• e. Ethics
Peace of Westphalia.
O a. 1817
O b. 1956
O c. 1872
• d. 1648
• e. 1948
MANAGEMENT INFORMATION SYSTEM

(10)
It is concerned with long term policy decisions that defines the obiectives of a
business and checks how well these objectives are met.
O a. Tactical information
• b. Strategic information
O c. Operational Information
• d. Control information
O e. Information
The use of electronic transmission to permit same-time different-place meetings.

• a. Audio-graphic conferencing
• b. Video conferencing
• c. Teleconferencing
• d. Audio conferencing
It emphasizing a fair degree of integration and a holistic view;

O a. Management information system
• b. Management
• c. Information
• d. System
• e. Process
The interactive meeting involving groups of people that can see each other using
display screens.
O a. Teleconferencing
• b. Audio-graphic conferencing
• c. video conferencing
• d. Audio conferencing
The element of intrinsic information quality.

O a. Accuracy
O b. Accessibility
• c. Attractiveness
• O d. Format
• e. Management
It covers the planning, control, and administration of the operations of a concern.

• a. System
• b. Management
• c. Information
• d. Format
• d. All of the above
It is a computerized system that performs and records daily routine transactions

necessary to the conduct of the business.
• a. Enterprise resource planning
• b. Knowledge management system
• c. Transaction Processing system
• d. Decision support system
• e.aand b
It evolved from the decision support systems and gained strength with the
technology and applications like data warehouses.
O a. Content Management system
• b. Knowledge management system
O c. Business Intelligence
O d. b only
It is a groups of non-random symbols in the form of text, images, voice

representing quantities, action and objects.
O a. Information
O b. Data
• c. Knowledge
• d. Wisdom
• e. Process
These are the use of analysis tools to find patterns in large transaction
databases.
O a. Data mining
• b. Optimizing model
O c. Simulation model
• d. Online analytical processing
HUMAN RIGHTS AND INTERNATIONAL

HUMANITARIAN LAW (15)
14. Derogable rights are rights that can be limited to protect the community. This
limitation can only be done under three (3) conditions:
O a. Has a clear basis and clean intentions
O b. The state is under any form of
emergency situation
• c. Provided by law
• d. When there is armed conflict
Oe. Limits should not exceed only what is
necessary to achieve the overall goal
The following are in accordance to the International Humanitarian Law except

O a. ltaims to protect people who do not or
are no longer taking part in hostilities
O b. it impose duties on all parties to a
conflict, state and non-state actors
O C. Cover internal disturbances or
disturbances within a state
O d.aandb
• O e. None of the above
The following are used by medical and religious personnel and medical units, and on
medical transports except
• a. emblem of the red cross
• b. white flag, or flag of truce
O c. red crescent or red lion and sun on a
white ground
O d. red flag
O e. none of the above
International Human Rights instrument most commonly referred to in relation to

economic and social questions
a. International Convention for the
• Protection of All Persons from EnforcedDisappearance
b. Convention Against Torture and other
• Cruel Inhuman or Degrading Treatment orPunishment
O c. International Covenant on Economic,
Social and Cultural Rights or ICESCR
O d. A and B O e. None of the above
The Major International Convention that criminalize all act of torture is

O a. Convention on the Rights of Torture
Victims
b. Convention Against Torture and other
• Cruel, Inhuman or Degrading Treatment or
Punishment
O c. Committee on Torture
O d. A and c
Right that may be suspended during an emergency situation

O a. Rightto recognition as a person
everywhere
O b. Right to liberty of movement and
freedom to choose his residence
O c. Freedom of thought, conscience and
religion
• d. Aand C
Natural Rights are

rights,
acknowledge by everybody to be morally good. They are unwritten but they prevail as
norms of the society.
O a. Constitutional
• b. God-given
• c. Statutory
• d. Institutional
• O e. Stationary
limitation can only be done under three (3) conditions.
O a. Has a clear basis and clean intentions
O b. The state is under any form of
emergency situation
Oe. Limits should not exceed only what is
The obiective of economic social and cultural rights is to ensure.

O a. Equality
b. Equity
• c. Justice
O d. Security
O e. Quantity
The following individuals are protected by the International Humanitarian Law

except
O a. civilian who takes active part in the
hostility
O b. hors de combat by sickness, wounds,
detention, or any other cause
O c. members of armed forces who have
laid down their arms
O d. both a and b
• e.b only
What is one of the sources of human rights?

• a. International Bill of Human Rights
• b. International Human Rights
• O c. International Human Rights Committee
• d. International Humanitarian Law
• O e. Conly
The following are the primary State obligation to human rights except
O a. Advocate
• b. Respect
• O c. Fulfill
• d. Protect
• e. Loyalty
limitation can only be done under three (3) conditions:
• a. Has a clear basis and clean intentions
b. The state is under any form of
emergency situation
O e. Limits should not exceed only what is
According to the Commission on Human Rights, human rights are:

• a. Supreme, inherent and derogable rights to life, dignity and self-
development
• b. Supreme, inherent and non-discriminatory right to life, dignity
and self-development
O c. supreme, inherent and inalienable rights
to life, dignity and self-development
O d. Both A and B
. is a declaration and enumerations of

a person's rights and privileges which the constitution is designed to protect
against violations by the government or by an individual or group of individuals
O a. Human Rights
• b. Human Dignity
• c. Bill of Rights
• d. Human Pride
• e. Human Acts
Small Unit Management (15)

Using logic and reasoning to identify the strengths and weaknesses of alternative
solutions, conclusions or approaches to problems
• a. Critical thinking
• b. Active Learning
• c. Analytic Learning
• d. Active Listening
• e. Learning Strategies
The term sometimes describes a person without formal recognition as a leader
O a. Servant
• b. Charismatic
• c. Authoritative
• O d. Transactional
• e. Transformational
The daily activities and procedures that employees engage in order to accomplish a
task
• a. Strategy
• b. Systems
• c. Shared values
• d. Staff
• e. Skills
These are employees way of life which turns eminent as corporate culture
O a. Style
• b. Shared-Values
• c. Structure
• O d. Skills
• e. Style
The plan devised to maintain and build competitive advantage over the competitors
• a. Strategy
• b. Structure
• c. Shared values
• d. Systems
• e. Style
Mc Kinsey 7s is a concept the involves the following except:

O a. The 7s determines the way a
corporation operates
O b. Large or small strategies are
interdependent
O C. Management must take into account
external environment in the assessment
O d. it describes 7 factors to organize to
make it effective
The following are soft elements in the model except:

O a. Skills
O b. Style
O c. Structure
• d. Strategy
• e. Staff
According to this model, the best style to use is one that has both a high concern
for people and a high concern for the task
O a. Blake-Mouton Managerial Grid
• b. Transformational Leadership
• c. Path-Goal Theory
• d. Transactional Leadership
• O e. All of the above
A leadership style which is dependent on measurement and outcome

O a. Team
• b. Strategic
• O c. Effective
• d. Facilitative
• O e. Transactional
Research revealed that the least satisfying and least effective management style
O a. Autocratic
O b. Facilitative
• c. Transactional
• d. Laissez faire
• e. Charismatic
It refers to the employees and their general capabilities in the organization

O a. Staff
O b. Skills
• c. Structure
• d. Style
• e. Shared values
•
The following are hard elements in which directly influence the management except:
• a. Strategy
• O b. Skills
• c. Structure
• O d. Style
• e. Systems
The leadership style that involves teaching and supervising followers

• A. charismatic
• B. Visionary
• C. Facilitative
• d. Coaching
• e. Transformational
Obtaining and seeing to the appropriate use of equipment, facilities needed to do

certain work.
O a. Financial Resources
• b. Personnel Resources
• c. Human Resources
• d. Material Resources
• e. Time Management
Leaders make the final decisions, but they include team members in the decision-
making process
O a. Laissez-faire
• b. Autocratic
• c. Authoritative
• O d. Democratic
• e. Pacesetting
PP Administrative Disciplinary Bodies and its Functions: A Review (15)

Motu Propio investigation known as?
• A. Automatic investigation
• B. Outright investigation
• C. In his own initiative
• D. AandB
• E. All of the above
A written and sworn statement regarding a wrong grievance or injury sustained by a

person?
• A. Complaint
• B. Appeal
• C. Affidavit
O D. Motion for consideration
• E. Motion
Complaint for breach of internal discipline shall be brought before the following
disciplinary authorities?
• A. Chief of Police
• B. Provincial Director
• C. Regional Director
O D. Aonly
What do you call a police under investigation for administrative case?

• A. Defendant
O B. Plaintiff
• C. Respondent
O D. A and B
• E. None of the above
Who is the chairman of the national police commission?

• A. Secretary of DOJ
• B. Secretary of DILG
• C. Secretary of Education
• D. Secretary of Finance
Family of public officials and employees of the government means their spouses and
unmarried children under?
• A. 18 years of age
• B. 19 years of age
• C. 20 years of age
• D. 21 years of age
• E. 22 years of age
Any offense committed by a member of the pp involving minor offense?

O A. Breach of internal discipline
• B. Grave offense
• c. Under custody
• D. B only
PNP officers occupying positions, designations equivalent to cop, pd and regional

director?
• A. Equivalent supervisor.
O B. Supervisor
• C. Disciplinary authorities
• D. Band C
Shall refer to the city, municipal mayors, Chief of Police, PD and RD?
• A. Disciplinary authorities
• B. Administrative control
• C. Equivalent supervisor
O D. Sections Supervisor
Code of conduct and ethical standards for public officials and employees?
O A. RA 6711
O B. RA 6712
• C. Ra 6713
O D. Ra 6714
• E. Ra 6798
Includes elective and appointive officials and employees permanent or temporary?

• A. Public officials
• B. Private individual
O c.NGO
• D. A and B
The written disposition of the cases by any discplinary authorities?

O A. Resolution
• B. Decision
• c. Appeal
• D. Motion
A person who has been previously penalized for grave offense and is again charged
of another grave offense?
• A. Recidivist
• B. Malinger
• C. Probation
• D. Band C
•
Napolcom memorandum circular no. Revised of procedures before the administrative
disciplinary authorities.
O A. Mc 2016-001
• B. Mc 2016-002
• C. Mc 2016-003
O D. Mc 2016-004
• E. Mc 2016-005
Refers to a thing or a right to dispose gratuitiosly.

O A. Gift
O B. Incentives
O C. Allowance
• D. Gift Certificates
Rules on Evidence (20)

Quantum of proof required for criminal cases:
O a. proof beyond reasonable doubt
• b. substantial evidence
• c. preponderance of evidence
• d. clear and convincing
Quantum of proof required in administrative proceedings:

• d. clear and convincing
Defense of the accused that he was somewhere else at the time of the commission of
the offense.
O a. Positive
• b. negative
• c. alibi
• d. admission
• e. reasoning
The facts or material evidencing the fact or proposition to be established or

probative or evidentiary fact tending to prove the fact in issue;
• a. factum probans
• b. factum probandum
• c. Issue
• d. allegations
The statement made while the declarant was conscious of an impending death is
admissible in evidence as
O a. res gestae
• b. dying declaration
• c. admission
O d. confession
• e. none of the above
_ is that evidence that indirectly proves a fact in issue through an inference

which the fact finder draws from the series of unbroken chain of facts and evidence
established.
O a. direct evidence
O b. circumstantial evidence
O c. Positive evidence
O d. both a and c
Evidence to be admissible must not be excluded by the Rules and must be both
and
O a. competent and relevant
• b. positive and direct
• c. competent and direct
• d. relevant and positive
Presumption of innocence applies only in

O a. civil cases
• b. criminal cases
• c. administrative cases
• d. custodial investigation
It is offered to prove its existence, condition or for any purpose other than its
contents.
O a. object evidence
• b. documentary evidence
• c. subject evidence
• d. oral evidence
• e. real evidence
•
The statement by a bus driver immediately after the collision that he dozed off in
the wheel while driving may be admissible in evidence as
O a. dying declaration
• b. part of res gestae
• c. declaration against interest
• d. declaration
Which among the statement below

does not show the existence of factum probandum for the crime of illegal possession
of firearms.
O a. existence of the subject firearm or
explosive in accused' possession
• b. negative fact that the accused had no
• license
O c. license or permit to own or possess the
firearm or explosive
d. positive identification of the witness
• that he saw the accused possessing thefirearm
It is the probative effect of evidence and is the conviction or persuasion of the

mind resulting from a consideration of the evidence.
• a. evidence
O b.proof
• c. truth
• d. corpus delicti
• e. cand d
The party who has the burden of proof in criminal cases is the
O a. private complainant
• b. accused
• c. prosecution
O d. defense
O e. complaint
When the private document is offered as proof of its contents, it is considered as

O a. object evidence
O b. documentary evidence
O c. subject evidence
• d. real evidence
O e. oral evidence
Quantum of proof required in civil cases:

O d. clear and convincing
O e. a and b
When the subject of inquiry is the contents of a document, no evidence shall be

admissible other than the
_itself.
O a. evidence
• b. original document
• c. investigation result
O d. inquest result
It is the fact or proposition to be established and/or the fact to be proved;

O a. factum probans
• b. factum probandum
• c. Issue
• d. Allegations
• O e. none of the above
It is the means of proving a fact and is offered to ascertain the truth.
O a. evidence
• b. documents
• c. investigation
• d. inquest
• e. proceedings
In criminal cases, except those involving quasi-offenses (criminal negligence) or

those allowed by law, an offer of
_by the accused may be
received in evidence as an implied admission of guilt.
• a. compromise
• b. plea of guilt
• c. bargaining
O d. promise to pay
• e. plea bargaining
When A was stabbed on the chest during a street brawl, he instinctively shouted for
help.
B, who was nearby, heard the shout and immediately ran towards A who, upon inquiry
by B, stated that C had stabbed him. If A should die on account of the stab wound,
upon what rule or rules of evidence could B's testimony be received?
• a. res gestae
• b. dying declaration
• c. both a and b are correct
• O d. None of the above
NATURE AND IMPORTANCE OF LEADERSHIP AND TRAITS, MOTIVES AND CHARACTERISTICS OF

LEADERS
(20)
Among the 10 words which are essential for leaders to remember, what word that
needs to be acquired, updated and effectively communicated to personnel in an
office/station?
• A. Confidence
• B. Knowledge
• c. Success
• D. Unity
• E. Love
Considering the levels of leadership, it claims

"People follow a leader because of what the leader has done for the followers. This
refers to
• A. Permission
• B. Personhood
O C. People development
D. Position
E. Development
A Leader must connect with people by communicating "HELP." H - Hope; E -

Encouragement; L - Love; P stands for
• A. Personal Value
O B. Personhood
• c. Personality
O D. Permissiveness
O E. Development
A discipline within resource management which addresses interpersonal behaviors.

Factors that are considered include leadership; communication; team building; and
negotiation, facilitation and mediation abilities.
• A. Human relations
• B. Human relations development
• C. Human relations management
• D. Human relations leadership
Use _ style of leadership if group members have knowledge that are needed in making
decision by the leader who gives the final decision.
• A. Authoritarian
• B. Participative
• C. Delegative
• D. Combination
• E. Participation
What source or point of power that refers to the ability of the leader to control
others through fear of punishment. This leadership style may result to various
accomplishments.
• A. Reward power
• B. Coercive power
• C. Legitimate power
O D. Referent power
Considering the 10 Commandments of Human relations, what should come first?

• A. Speak to People
• B. Smile at People
O C. Call People by name
• D. Be friendly and helpful
Develop good character traits within your people that will help them carry out
their professional responsibilities. What principle of leadership is this?
O A. Know your people and look out for their
well-being.
O B. Know yourself and seek self-
improvement.
O C. Seek responsibility and take
responsibility for your actions.
O D. Develop a sense of responsibility in
your people.
It states that the true measure of leadership is influence, nothing more nothing
less.
• A. Law of Influence
• B. Law of connections
O C. Law of leadership
• D. Law of character
• E. Law of Attraction
One of the great traits of leaders and followers state "Great leaders demonstrate
appreciation loudly and often to those who give of themselves to support the
group's success. Great followers show appreciation for those who take the risks."
This refers to
• A. Accountability
• B. Gratitude
O C. Humility
• D. Compliance
O E. Unity
Use _ style of leadership if group members lack knowledge/skills about a certain

procedure and that the leader has it.
• A. Authoritarian
• B. Participative
• C. Delegative
• D. Combination
• E. Integration
Work to consider all options when making decisions. A strong leader will evaluate
the input from all interested parties and work for the betterment of the whole.
• A. Enthusiastic
• B. Respectful
• c. Open-Minded O D. Resourceful
• E. Time Management
Leadership is shortly defined as

• A. Influencing people
• B. Managing people
• c. Teaching people
• D. Encouraging people
Great leaders are energized not by being right, but rather by the glory that comes
from the entire team reaching the pinnacle of success. Great followers are focused
on executing the best ideas regardless of who provided them or who gets credit.
This describes what trait of a leader and follower as__?
• A. Patience
• B. Humility
• C. Accountability
O D. Gratitude
• E. Integrity
"Recognize people when they do something extraordinary. It will not only give
people a sense of accomplishment, it inspires others to make efforts to go above
and beyond their normal duties as well. We give a Championship Belt to a team
member each week to recognize that person for doing something incredible. Even
small efforts can make your personnel feel appreciated and inspire them to do even
more." The paragraph presents what a leader must do to have a phenomenal team?
• A. Give Recognition
• B. Play to People's Strengths
O C. Personal Lives are Important
O D. Don't Settle for Mediocre
This refers to the ability to control others through fear of punishment.

• A. Coercive power
O B. Legitimate power
• C. Referent power
• D. Expert power
O E. Excellent power
Among the ten essential words for leaders to remember in leading people, what word
is said to be most satisfying for personnel when used by leaders in making
statements?
• A. Love
• B. Smile
• C. Success
• D. We
• E. Unity
This is the need to control other people, be responsible for them and influence
their behaviour. Leaders are also motivated by the need to control resources. This
is also a key motivator for success. What leadership motive is described?
• A. Power Motive
• B. Drive & Achievement Motivation
• c. Tenacity
• D. Cognitive Traits
The factors of leadership are follower, leader, communication and situation. Under
follower it states
O A. Personnel must have to be dealt with
different leadership style.
• B. Personnel must be treated equally to boost their morale.
• C. Personnel must be encouraged toattend seminars/trainings/schoolings.
D. Personnel must have to be informed of new updates concerning his job
description.
Considering the five levels of leadership by John Maxwell, the foundation/first

level of leadership starts legitimately in a
O A. Rank
• B. Position
• C. Designation
• D. Appointment
• E. Order
HUMAN RELATIONS (10)

In getting along with people, as leaders, we should always be mindful of human
relations practice until they become part of our system.
• A. Principle of Workplace Condition
• B. Principle of Human Relations
O c. Principle of Business Ethics
• D. Principle of No Conflict Scenario
This theory is considered a systematic process whose objective is to help the

people in an organization in behaving correctly so that both the employees and the
organization are clear winners at the end of the day.
• A. Human Relations Theory
B. People for People Theory
• C. Human Resource Theory
• D. Theory of Organizational Hierarchy
The factor that influences efficiency and productivity is good relations between
the various people present in the workplace.
Employees are likely to be more productive if their contribution and efforts are
recognized.
• A. Improved Productivity
• B. Productivity Theory
• C. Efficiency and Productivity Principle
• D. Cost-Product Theory
It is a fact that when the management is supportive and conscious of employee's

needs and requirements, the employees will take pride in their work and try to
appease the management by working with more efficiency.
• A. Employee-Employer Relationship
• B. Employee Engagement
• C. Employee Management
• D. Employee Structure
Human relations skills such as communication and handling conflict can help us
create better relationships. The following are organizational structures where
companies depend on, except:
• A. People working together
• B. Creating conflict within the organization
O C. Positive human relations
• D. Workplace productivity
Personality clashes, disputes and inappropriate behaviors are signs of people not
getting along in the workplace. Early-stage misunderstandings often can be
identified quickly by observing employees' attitudes and body language. Human
resource professionals might need to apply specialized coaching skills in these
situations, serving as an internal coach.
• A. True
• B. Partially True
O C. False
• D. Partially False
Any person who willfully causes loss or injury to another in manner that is
contrary to morals, good customs or public policy shall defend himself before
compensating the latter for the damage.
• A. False
O B. Partially True
• C. Partially False
• D. True
Article 19 of the Civil Code states that "Every person must, in the exercise of his
rights and in the performance of his duties, act with justice when needed, give
everyone his due, and observe honesty and good faith".
• A. True
O C. False
If you are looking for the importance of good human relationships in the workplace,
then the most obvious one is increased loyalty.
Healthy relations have a way of building trust through interactions and bonding
with each other.
• A. Loyalty Engagement
• B. Increased Loyalty
• C. Loyalty Formation
• D. Employee-friendly Principle
There are several things a leader can do to get along with his/her subordinates.
The following are some things a leader can do to get along with people, except:
• A. Arrogance in a workplace
• B. Speak to people
• c. Smile to People
O D. Use of peoples name when you speak
to them
DOCTRINE OF COMMAND
RESPONSIBILITY (10)
The "Guidelines on the Accountability of the immediate Officer for the Involvement
of His Subordinates in Criminal Offenses and
Implementation of 3-Strike policy explicitly stated that:
a) Police Commissioned Officer (PCO) is duty bound and under obligation to
supervise the discharge of duties of men under other's superior officer.
b) Police Commissioned Officer (PCO) should monitor, coordinate, and control
the activities of other units within his AOR
c) Police Commissioned Officer (PCO)if situation warrant, shall make preventive nor
correlative measures as a mean to repress the wrongdoing of his subordinates.
d) All the above statement is correct as
per guidelines given.
"If the words of command are not clear and distinct, if orders are not thoroughly
understood, then the General is to blame." This rule making strategy concept is
known to be from.
O a) "Phillipic orations" of Marcus Tullius
Cicero
• b) General Colin Powell's Rules
O c) The "Art of War" by Sun Tzu
• d) LTG John M. Schofield, 1879
The order in which authority and power is wielded and delegated from top
management to every employee at every level of organization.
• a) Upward Instruction
O b) Chain of Command
O c) Flow Chart
• d) Administrative decentralization
In Section 2, Executive Order 226, Series of 1995, "Presumption of knowledge", is

basically construed on circumstances to which:
O a) "Government official or supervisor, OR
PNP Commander is well informed";
O b) "irregularities or illegal acts are known
only in the need to know basis";
c) "when the irregularities or illegal acts have been repeatedly or regularly
committed within his area of responsibility;
• d) "when members of his immedate staff
or office personnel is not involved".
"Effective command and control" or

"effective authority and control" means:
O a) There has superior-subordinates
relationship
O b) A string attached to the Chain-of-
Command
O c) There has organizational hierarchy to
where a Superior gives an order
d) Superior officer has material ability to
• prevent and punish the commission of offenses by subordinates
Section 2, Paragraph (r), Republic Act No.

9851 of 2009, "INTERNATIONAL HUMANITARIAN LAW, GENOCIDE AND OTHER CRIMES AGAINST
HUMANITY, specifically provides that "Superior" means:
a) The President as military commander
O or a person effectively acting as a military
commander.
b) Any other superior, in as much as the
• crime arose from activities within the effective authority and control.
O c) Immediate Officer for the involvement
of his subordinates in criminal offenses;
O d) The Implementation of 3-Strike Policy in
the Philippine National Police.
The Code of Ethics (1991) of the Philippines cites and provides that:
O a. Commanders shall exercise their
authority over their subordinates
• b. With due prudence in their leadership;
O c. They shall accept responsibility for their
actions.
• d. All of the above statement
One among the others is a "superior responsibility" action that a leader should do
to avoid liabilities for the wrongdoings of his subordinate/s.
O a) To punish their wrongdoings
O b) To order their relief
O c) To supervise them in well civilized
manners
• d) To require them to make patroloperations
"Command Responsibility" is connotatively a historical doctrine means:

O a) Superior responsibility
• b) Yamashita standard
• c) Medina standard
• d) All of the above
Which statement is NOT TRUE for the International Humanitarian Law

a) The first and only permanent international court with jurisdiction to prosecute
individuals for the violation of international crimes
b) Is a set of rules which seek, for humanitarian reasons, to limit the effects of
armed conflict
c) Protects persons who are not or are no longer participating in the hostilties
and restricts the means and methods of warfare
d) Provides a system for repressing violations of its rules based on the individual
criminal responsibility of those responsible to include a failure to act.
IRREFUTABLE LAWS (10)

Leaders evaluate everything with a leadership
bias
• a. Priority
• b. Intuition
• c. Sacrifice
• d. Legacy
A Leader's lasting value is measured by succession

O a. Timing
• b. Legacy
• c. Influence
• d. Empowerment
Leaders Touch a Heart Before They Ask for a

Hand
• a. Connection
• b. Timing
• O c. Priority
• d. Legacy
Only secure leaders give power to others great leaders are unafraid to help others
reach their full potential
• a. Sacrifice
• b. Legacy
• c. Empowerment
• d. solid Ground
Leadership law which is based on natural gifts and a toolbox of skills that are
continuously learned/improved on
• a. Process
O b. Addition
c. solid Ground
d. influence
A Leader must give up to go up

O a. Timing
• b. Sacrifice
• c. Priority
• O d. Explosive Growth
Leadership ability determines a person's level of effectiveness

O a. Lid
• b. Explosive Growth
• c. Big mo
• O d. Timing
Leaders impact and create the culture of their organization through who they are
and what they do
• a. Magnetism
• c. Navigation
• O c. Addition
• d. Buy-in
Leaders must take time to develop credibility with those they lead before
attempting to
"sell" their vision
• a. Picture
• b. Buy-in
O c. Solid Ground
• d. Sacrifice
Successful leaders are bound by a common thread-they refuse to accept defeat

O a. Victory
• b. Connection
• c. Solid Ground
d. Empowerment
BRIDGING LEADERSHIP (10)

The process when the vision becomes the societal outcome aspired for by everyone.
• a. Ownership
• b. Co-ownership
• c. Co-creation
• d. Bridging leadership
Willingness to work with others, in a way that taps their greatest potential,
toward collaboratively finding and implementing solutions to the inequities
• a. Self-Awareness
• b. System thinking
• c. Capacity to transform
• d. Strong sense of purpose
Leading the collaborative implementation of innovative programs that will result to

societal equity and that are based on new institutional arrangements that make
institutions responsive and empower citizens
O a. Convene a multi-stakeholder group that
is based on trust
• b. Multi-stakeholder processes
O c. Strengthen will to lead through self-
awareness
O d. Change institutional arrangements
Recognition of one's character and values and how strength and inspiration can be
drawn from these in facing the challenges and uncertainty that come with complexity
• a. Self-Aware of Character and Values O b. Strengthen will to lead through self-
awareness
O c. Convene a multi stakeholder group that
is built on trust
• d. Change institutional arrangements
Engaging diverse stakeholders and building trust among them toward reaching a
shared vision on how to address the current reality of inequities
• a. Change institutional arrangements
• b. Creativity
• c. Capacity to transform
• d. Convene a multi-stakeholder group that
is built on trust
Clarity of what should be done and how it can be done in order to be purposive and
strategic in addressing complex inequities
• a. Strong sense of purpose
• b. System thinking
• c. Strengthen will to lead
• d. creativity
Setting up and facilitating dialogic processes that bring together diverse

stakeholders into constructive engagement, dialogue and collective decision making
O a Strengthen will to lead through self-
awareness
O b. Convene a multi-stakeholder group that
is based on trust
c. Change institutional arrangements
• d. Multi-stakeholder processes
A new perspective, a specialized language, and a set of tools that can be used to
understand reality as a whole
O a. System thinking
• b. Strengthen will to lead
• c. Self-awareness
• d. Capacity to transform
Understands its systemic analysis and recognizes the interests of its many
stakeholders
O a. Ownership
• b. Co-ownership
• c. Co-creation
The process when social innovation/intervention is adopted and carried out through
new institutional arrangements/partnerships.
O a. Ownership
• b. Co-creation
• c. Co-ownership
TRANSFORMATIONAL LEADERSHIP (10)

One of the four components to transformational leadership, sometimes referred to as
the 4 l's where leaders have the ability to motivate followers.
O a. Idealized Influence O b. Inspirational Motivation
O c. Individualized Consideration
• d. Intellectual Motivation
The official authority who serves as a central source of information for release by
the PNP and responds to requests for information by the news media and the
community.
O a. Press Release
• b. News Media Representative O c. Public Information Officer
• d. Public Information
A leader works with subordinates to identify needed change, create a vision to

guide the change through inspiration, and execute the change in tandem with
committed members of a group.
• a. Laissez-faire leadership
• b. Transactional Leadership
• c. Adaptive Leadership
• d. Transformational Leadership
A leadership style that focuses on the use of rewards and punishments in order to
achieve compliance from followers.
O a. Transformational Leadership
• d. Situational Leadership

the 4 l's where the leader serves as role model for followers; the leader
"walks the talk, and is admired for this.
• a. Idealized Influence
• b. Inspirational Motivation
• c. Individualized Consideration

the 4 l's where leaders demonstrate genuine concern for the needs and feelings of
followers.
• a. Idealized Influence

the 4 l's where the leader challenges followers to be innovative and creative.
O a. Idealized Influence
O d. Intellectual Motivation
Transformational leaders look towards changing the future to inspire followers and
accomplish goals
O a. True
O b. False
• c. Partially true
O d. Partially false
Information that may be interest to the general public about policy, procedures and
events involving the PNP or such other newsworthy information that is not legally
protected, does not unduly interfere with the mission of the PNP, ongoing
investigations, infringe upon the rights of an individual or compromise the
legitimate safety and/or privacy interests of the officers, victims, witnesses or
others.
O a. Press Release
• b. News Media Representative
• c. Public Information Officer
It is the official statement issued by the PNP to the media.

O a. Press Release
• O c. Public Information Officer
Unlike in the transactional approach, it is not based on a "give and take"

relationship, but on the leader's personality, traits and ability to make a change
through example, articulation of an energizing vision and challenging goals.
• a. Transformational Leadership O b. Transactional Leadership
A process where leaders and their followers raise one another to higher levels of
morality and motivation.
O a. Transformational Leadership
O b. Transactional Leadership
O d. Situational Leadership
He initially introduced and coined the term transformational leadership.

• a. James MacGregor Burns
• b. Bernard M. Bass
• c. James V. Downton
• d. None of the above
An individual employed by agencies of the electronics or print media such as radio,

television, newspaper, news magazine, or wires to gather information and report on
a newsworthy event.
O a. Press Release
• c. Public Information Officer
Studies have shown that while transformational leadership styles are associated
with positive outcomes, this type is associated with negative outcomes, especially
in terms of follower satisfaction with leader and leader effectiveness.
• a. Laissez-faire leadership
• O c. Adaptive Leadership
HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT (20)

The Internal Affairs Service (IAS) is headed by an Inspector General who assists
the Chief PNP in ensuring operational readiness and investigates infractions of the
regulations committed by the members of the PNP.
• A. True
• B. False
• C. Partially True
Unity of Command dictates that there should only be one man commanding the unit to
ensure uniformity in the execution of orders.
• A. Partially True
• B. False
O C. True
In PNP organizational Structure there is a Directorate for Police Community

Relations
(DPCR)?
O A. No
• B. Yes
• C. None
O D. Division only
The following are powers and functions of the PNP, except:

O A. Enforce all laws and ordinances relative
to the protection of lives and properties;
B. Protect only the leaders in local and
national government;
O C. Maintain peace and order and take all
necessary steps to ensure public safety;
D. Investigate and prevent crimes, effect the arrest of criminal offenders, bring
offenders to justice and assist in their prosecution.
Delegation of authority is conferring of certain specified authority by a superior

to a subordinate.
O A. True
• c. False
The following are the programs under PNP, except:

• A. In-Service Program
O B. Competency/ Enhancement Training
Program
• C. Art Appreciation Program
• D. Moral Recovery Program
The following are the sources of Management Authority, except:

• A. Law
• B. Justice
O C. Tradition
• D. Delegation
Is there a Gender and Development Program

(GAD) under PNP?
• A. Yes
O B. No
• C. None
• D. Maybe
POLIS- a Greek word which means "citystate" or a system of organized civil

enforcement to preserve life, liberty, property, food sources, community health and
the enforcement of
laws.
• A. False
• B. True
•
PNP is national in scope and civilian in character.
O A. False
• B. True
A symbol and embodiment of all genuine leadership attributes, courage, nationalism,

self-reliance and a people-based and people powered community defense.
• A. Muhammad Dipatuan Kudarat
• B. Maximo Inocencio
• C. Lapu-Lapu
• D. Bai Bibyaon
•
The following are PNP Core Values, except:
• A. Maka-gobyerno (Pro-Government)
• B. Maka-Diyos (God-Fearing)
• C. Makabayan (Nationalistic)
• D. Makatao (Humane)
Malfeasance is the improper performance of some act which might be lawfully done.
• A. False
• C. True
•
How many stars are in PNP Seal?
O A.4
O B.2
• c.3
O D. 1
PNP shall be headed by a Chief and 3 Deputy chiefs.

• A. False
• B. True
O C. Partially True
The following are the factors affecting the span of control, except:
• A. Leadership qualities of the supervisors
B. Nature of the job and work
O C. Easiness of the workload
• D. Education and skill of the employees
Human Resource is the division of a business that is charged with finding,

screening, recruiting, and training job applicants, and administering employee-
benefit programs.
• A. False
• C. True
In PNP seal, the following are the words written, except
• A. Compassion
• B. Service
• C. Honor
• D. Justice
PNP is organized pursuant to what law?

O A. RA 6975 as amended by RA 8551
• B. RA 6976 as amended by RA 8553
• C. RA 6996 as amended by RA 8556
O D. RA 6906 as amended by RA 8554
PNP Motto
• A. We care and protect
• B. We Serve and Protect
• C. We Serve and Honor Justice
• D. We save lives
SPECIAL LAWS (30)

Trafficking in Human Person under R. A.
No.9208 is deemed committed in large scale, which is considered qualified, if:
O a) Josie recruits Jessa Mae, 16 years old
and Louis Anne, 19 years old.
O b) Josie recruits Aida, Fe, Lorna, Marlo, 16
years old and Asuncion.
O C) Josie recruits Jeremy, 17 years old and
Carlo Magno, 16 years old.
O d) Josie and Myrna recruit Oscar, 18 years
old and Lourdes, 38 years old.
O e) All of these
The husband has for a long time physically and mentally tortured his wife. After
one episode of beating, the wife took the husband's gun and shot him dead. Under
the circumstances, her act constitutes
O a. exempting battery
• b. Incomplete self-defence.
• c. mitigating passion and obfuscation
• d. Mitigating vindication of grave offense.
O e. battered woman syndrome, a complete self defense
Which of the following is NOT a feature of special laws?

• a criminal intent need not be proved
• b mala in se
O c mala prohibita
• d Plea-Bargaining
• e Probation Law
Any police officer or law enforcement personnel who, not being authorized to tap,
track down, listens to, intercepts or records any communication, messages or
discussion of any person suspected of the crime of terrorism shall:
• a. suffer a penalty of suspension
O b. suffer a penalty of perpetual absolute
disqualification
• c. suffer a penalty of reclusion perpetua
O d. all of these
O e. none of these
A child who is alleged as, accused of, or adjudged as, having committed an offense
under Philippine laws is referred as
O a. Child
• b. Dependent
• c. Child-in- conflict with the law
• d. Minor
• O e. Offender
In the absence of a Family Court, which of the following has jurisdiction in

hearing cases involving women and children?
O a. Municipal Trial Court
• b. Regional Trial Court
• O c. Court of Appeals
• d. Supreme Court
O e. Any Court of jurisdiction
X, a police officer, placed a hood on the head of W, a suspected drug pusher, and
watched as Y and Z, police trainees, beat up and tortured W to get his confession.
X is liable as
O a. as accomplice in violation of the Anti-
Torture Act.
O b. a principal in violation of the Anti-
Torture Act.
O c. a principal in violation of the Anti-
Hazing Law.
O d. an accomplice in violation of the Anti-
Hazing Law.
• e. None of these
Under R.A. No. 6981 (Witness Protection Program), a state witness may apply into
the Program whenever the following circumstances are present, EXCEPT;
O a) the offense in which his testimony will
be used is a grave felony.
O b) there is albsolute necessity for his
testimony.
O c) he does not appear to be the most
guilty.
O d) he does not have any pending criminal
case involving moral turpitude.
e) all of these
Jessy is married to Luis with six children. Not being attracted to Jessy anymore,
Luis would look for younger girls for sex, even including prostitutes. Every time
Jessy would initiate to have sex with him, Luis would refuse her saying that she is
no longer attractive. Jessy would feel humiliated and insulted. The situation
obtaining in the instant case is actionable under R.A. 9262 (Violation Against
Women and Children) because:
• a) it constitutes substantial emotional orpsychological distress to a woman.
b) it amounts to humiliation that can
O cause mental or emotional distress to a
woman.
O c) it is in a form of psychological abuse.
• d) None of these
• eAll of these.
When the adoption of a child is effected under the Inter-Country Adoption Act for
the purpose of prostitution, what is the proper charge against the offender who is
a public officer in relation to the exploitative purpose?
O a. Acts that promote trafficking in
persons.
• b. Trafficking in persons.
• c. Qualified trafficking in persons.
• d. Use of trafficked person.
O e. None of these
In an extra-judicial confession during custodial investigation under R.A. No. 7438,

which of the following fundamental requirements is accorded the greatest respect
for it to become admissible in evidence?
O a) The confession must be voluntary.
b) The confession must be made with the
• assistance of competent and independent counsel.
O c) The confession must be express.
d) the confession must be in writing.
e) None of these
Which of the following is/are the correct procedure/s to implement the provisions
of
R.A. No. 7438 (Custodial Investigation)?
a) Any person arrested, detained or under
O custodial investigation shall at all times be
assisted by a counsel.
b) Any extra judicial confession shall be in writing and signed by such person and
in
• the presence of any of the parents, brothers or sisters, his spouse, or priest or
chief of police.
c Any person arrested or detained or
O under custodial investigation shall be
allowed visits by his immediate members of the family during office hours.
d) Any investigating officer who obstructs, prevents or prohibits any lawyer, any O
member of his immediate family from visiting or conferring privately with him shall
suffer of penalty of perpetual absolute disqualification.
O e) None of these
A criminal action for rape is extinguished when the offender is forgiven by

O a. the offender's wife who herself is the
rape victim.
O b. his wife for having raped another
woman.
• c. the rape victim's husband.
• d. the rape victim herself.
O e. All of these
Rocky is a company janitor for seven years already. He has always been fascinated
by the ravishing beauty of Rosie who happens to be the company Treasurer. One
afternoon after office hours, Rocky chanced upon Rosie walking towards the gate
with no companion.
Rocky took it as an opportunity to fulfil his desire of hugging and kissing Rosie.
She did not notice that Rocky was behind her.
Immediately, Rocky hugged and kissed her neck. Shocked with what Rocky did to her,
Rosie slapped and pushed Rocky away. Rosie intends to file a criminal case against
Rocky.
Which of the following case can Rosie file?:
a) R.A. 9262 (Violation against Women
O and Children) because it amounts to sexual violation against a woman.
b)R.A. No 7877 (Anti-Sexual Harassment)
O because it happened in a work-related
environment where both of them are employed in a company.
O c) Unjust vexation because it annoyed
Rosie due to impertinence of Rocky.
• d) Acts of lasciviousness
O e) Malicious Mischief
Which of the following is the correct pronouncement of the Supreme Court with
respect to the implementation of Art. 11,
Section 21 of the R.A. No. 9165
(Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act of 2002)?
a) The presence of the accused or his representative or counsel, a representative
from the media and the Department of Justice, and any elected public official is
required to sign the copies of the inventory of the confiscated dangerous drugs and
other paraphernalia, otherwise, non-compliance thereof, will render the evidence as
inadmissible in evidence.
b) The non-compliance of Art. 11, Section 21 of R.A. No. 9165 is not of
admissibility, but of weight to be given the evidence.
c) The marking of the seized dangerous drugs may be taken even in the absence of
the accused for as long as the arresting
officer who seized the object can show that he has done it under the presumption of
regularity in the performance of duties
d) The marking of the seized documents may be delegated to any police officer
provided that the marking is done in the presence of the suspect and his counsel.
• e) All of these
In class, we've discussed the following as specialized groups that are protected
under human rights except which group?
O a. Persons living with HIV
• b. Solo parents
O c. Persons with disability
O d. Internally-displaced persons or mga
bakwit
• e. Aand c
Kardo Dalisay hit a pedestrian while driving his Montero Sport causing the
pedestrian to be thrown five meters away from the place of the incident, as a
result of which, the pedestrian died. Kardo Dalisay surrendered to PSSG Snappy who
was found to be drunk. PSSG Snappy is confused what appropriate charge/s should be
filed against Kardo
Dalisay. Which of the following steps will you recommend to PSSG Snappy?;
• a) Kardo Dalisay should be charged twice, one for violation of R.A.
No. 10586 (An Act O Penalizing Persons Driving under the Influence of Liquor,
Dangerous Drugs and Similar Substances and one for Homicide.
• b) Kardo Dalisay should be charged of Reckless Imprudence resulting
toHomicide.
c) Kardo Dalisay should be charged of Reckless Imprudence resulting to Homicide
with qualifying aggravating circumstance of violation of R.A. No.10586.
d) Kardo Dalisay should be charged of Reckless Imprudence resulting to Homicide
with a penalty provided in Art.249 of the Revised Penal Code and a fine ranging
from P 300,000.00 to P500,000.00
O e) All of these
Conspiracy to commit felony is punishable only in cases in which the law

specifically provides a penalty therefor. For example, under the Revised Penal
Code, in Art. 136, conspiracy and proposal to commit coup d'etat, rebellion, or
insurrection" are each punishable by years in prison and a fine.
Under which of the following instances are the conspirators not liable?
a. Conspiracy to commit cultivation or
• culture of plants which are sources of dangerous drugs.
• b. Conspiracy to commit terrorism.
O c. Conspiracy to commit photo and video
voyeurism.
• d. Conspiracy to commit trafficking in
persons.
• e. All of these
An extra-judicial confession made by a person, arrested, detained or under

custodial investigation may only be admissible as evidence in any proceeding, when
it is
• a. Made in writing.
O b. formally written and duly signed under
O c. written and signed by the person in the
presence of his counsel.
O d. not executed under duress and duly
signed in the presence of a Fiscal.
e. written and signed by the person in the presence of his counsel and in the
absence of a counsel, upon a valid waiver in the presence of any of the parents,
elder brothers and sisters, etc.
Marvin, knowing that Marites is only 11 years old is one among the prostitutes
recruited by Josie in a far-flung province down the south.
Marites looked every inch a fullgrown lady.
Marvin has always frequented the place and would hire Marites for a casual sex. At
one time, a raid was conducted and Marvin was caught having sexual intercourse with
Marites. The Police Officer who just finished his advance course in detection and
investigation, is not sure what criminal case he would charge Marvin. Which of the
following is the appropriate charge that Police Officer can file against Marvin?
• a) Rape
O b) RA. No. 7610 (Child Abuse)
considering that Marites is still a minor.
c) R. A. No. 9208 (Anti-Human Trafficking
O Law) considering that Marites is deemed a trafficked person having been recruited
by Josie.
d)R.A. 9262(Violation Against Women
O and Children) considering that Marites is a child which amounts to sexual
violence.
• e) R.A. No. 9165
PSSG MAT SANCHEZ is reputable to be living in style. He maintains several bank

accounts and has purchased four houses and lots for his children. He drives Montero
Sports though he also drives three more flashy cars.
He loves dining out with friends and girls in fancy clubs and restaurants. A
reliable asset reported him to the Anti-Money Laundering Council (AMLC).
Thereafter, AMLC charged him with violation of the Anti-Money Laundering Act under
R. A. No. 9160. Upon request of AMLC, BDO disclosed to it PSSG MAT SANCHEZ bank
deposits amounting to
75 Million. Subsequently, he was charged for violation of R. A. 9160. Which of the
following contention is correct to dismiss the case against PSSG MAT SANCHEZ?
O a) He has never been charged or
convicted of any crime.
b) In disclosing his bank account without his consent, BDO violated the Bank
• Secrecy Law and therefore any evidence obtained in violation thereof is
inadmissible in evidence.
c) He has been in the service for more than twenty years and he has saved enough
funds from his salaries and
wages.
O d) All of these
O e) None of these
What is the minimum age of criminal responsibility?

• a. fifteen (15) years old or under.
• b. nine (9) years old or under.
c. above nine (9) years old and under
• fifteen (15) who acted with discernment.
d. above fifteen (15) years old and under
• eighteen (18) who acted with discernment.
O e. None of these
Jimmy chanced upon a pretty young lady walking alone in the alley one night.
Attracted by her sexiness, Jimmy dragged her and pushed her on the grassy portion
of the road.
With the use of a knife, Jimmy succeeded in pulling down her skirt and her panty.
To his surprise, he found the girl to be Georgie, a confirmed transgender. Left
with no choice, Jimmy nonetheless inserted his penis into Georgie's anal of
orifice. Charged for rape under R. A. No. 8353, Jimmy contended that no rape took
place. Choose the correct statement:
a) The crime of rape was committed
through sexual assault.
b) The crime of acts of lasciviousness
• was committed considering that Georgie is not a woman but a man.
c) The crime of rape can only be committed by a man against a woman by way of
sexual intercourse.
• d) None of the above.
O e) All of these
A sexual favor being made as a condition for hiring or employment is punishable

under:
O a. RA No. 9208
O b. RA No. 9262
• C. RA No. 7877
• d) RA 9710
O e) RA 8353
Trafficking of persons is deemed committed by a syndicate if carried out

O a. by a group of three or more persons
• b. by military or law enforcement agencies
• c. involving foreigners
• d. by a male factor only
O e. all of these
Jimmy was charged and convicted for violation of R.A. No. 9160, otherwise known as
Anti-Money Laundering Act. Aside from the criminal action, he was likewise charged
in civil case for the forfeiture proceedings. Jimmy questioned the forfeiture
proceedings because:
O a it will amount to double jeopardy.
b) the civil case on the forfeiture
O proceedings is already deemed included in the criminal case, therefore, the
filing of a separate civil case is not allowed by law.
c) the forfeiture proceedings should have been presented during the trial in the
• criminal case, therefore, the failure of the prosecution to present evidence
during trial amounts to a waiver.
O d) none of these
O e) All of these
Failure to notify lost or stolen firearm or light weapon within thirty (30) days
from the date of discovery, carries the penalty of:
a) A fine of ten thousand pesos
• (P10,000.00) and suspension from office if government official or employee.
O b) A fine often Thousand (P10,000.00)
pesos.
c) Dismissal from the service in case of
government official or employee.
d) A fine of five thousand (P5,000.00) pesos and suspension in case of government
official or employee.
O e) All of these
The following are grounds for the revocation, cancellation or suspension of license
or permit to own a gun under R.A. No. 10591, EXCEPT;
O a commission of any of the acts
penalized under R. A. 9165.
b) Dismissal for cause from the service in
case of government official or employee.
O c) Pending criminal case involving moral
turpitude.
O d) Loss of firearm, ammunition, or nay
parts thereof through negligence.
O e) None of these
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George, the 20-yearold son of a rich politician, was arrested at the NAIA arrival
lounge and found positive for opium, a dangerous drug. When arrested, 15 grams of
cocaine were found in his backpack. What offense would you charge George under R.A.
No. 9165 (Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs
Act)?
O a. Use of dangerous drug.
• b. Use and possession of dangerous
drugs.
O c. Possession of dangerous drugs.
• d. Importation of dangerous drugs.
O e. None of these
Which of the following requirements should be accorded the greatest respect for an
extra-judicial confession to be admissible in evidence?
O a. the confession must be voluntary
• b. the confession must be in writing
c. the confession must be made with the assistance of competent and independent
counsel
• d. the confession must be subscribed
O e all of the above
Strategic Leadership
To find out what an organization's strategy is, you should:
O a. Read the mission statement
O b. Look at what the organization actually
• c. Read the strategic plan
O d. Ask the CEO
Should have the ability to develop a vision to see patterns into the future.
O a. Leaders
• b. Managers
• c. Management
• d. Workers
Micro environment is the.

environment of a company.
• a. Working
• b. Human
• O c. External
• d. Internal
Types) important managerial skills)

required for the effective strategic management
• a. Conceptual skill
• b. Human skill
• c. Intellectual skill
O d. all of the above
Systems are formal and informal rules and regulations that complement the company.
O a. strategy
• b. structure
• c. skills
d. environment
The process of forecasting an organization's future demands for and supply of right
type of people in right number is
O a. Product planning
• b. Process planning
• c. Man power planning
•
It provides a way to bring in the people dimension in macro company analysis
without using psychological models of human behavior.
O a. Environment
O b. Society
O c. Culture
In terms of the PESTLE analysis, the liberalizing of international trade and tariff
regimes could go in which section or sections?
O a. Political
• b. Legal
• c. Political and economic and legal
• d. Political and economic and
environmental
Strategic management and leadership are concerned with

O a. Short range planning
• b. Long range planning
O c. Both 'A' and 'B'
Strategic management deals with

O a. Production and quality
• b. Profit and loss _
O c. Business process
d. All of these
COUNTER INTELLIGENCE
What particular effective counterintelligence

(CI) that is designed to effectively protect and safeguard (thru secrecy and
discipline, communication security, concealment and camouflage) from unauthorized
person or enemy's attempt to gain access to the information about ones own
personnel, documents, equipments, armaments, installations, etc?
• A. Passive Cl measure
• B. Active Cl measure
O c. Submissive CImeasure
• D. Reactive Cl measure
What intelligence policy that grants authority to gain access to classified

document or information to properly cleared person when such matter is so required
or needed in the discharge of his or her official functions or duties?
• A. Compartmentalization policy
• B. Compartment policy
O c. Inclusion policy
• D. Security access policy
What type of counterintelligence (CI) service that is aimed at determining the

degree of compliance with established security rules and procedures by all police
or military establishments?
• A. Security Survey
• B. Security Analysis
• c. Security Study
• D. Security Inspection
Which of following intelligence tradecraft activities that deals on continuous

clandestine or secretive observation of the target or enemy's activities or
movements for the purpose of obtaining information with investigative and
intelligence value?
• A. Surveillance
• B. Tradecraft
O c. Special intelligence operation
• D. Casing
Which of the intelligence security measures that is designed to ensure safeguarding

of information, personnel, materials, and installations against espionage,
sabotage, subversion and disaffection?
• A. Strategic Intelligence
• B. Tactical Intelligence
O C. Operational Intelligence
• D. Counterintelligence
Which of the following Intelligence policies that requires the dissemination of

"classified matters" be strictly limited only to those person/s whose official
police or other government duty requires knowledge or possession thereof?
• A. Active Cl measure
• B. Passive Cl measure
O C. Submissive Cl measure
• D. Reactive Cl measure
Which of the following pertains to an end product or useful data (intelligence)

resulting from the collection, evaluation, analysis, integration, and the
interpretation of all gathered available information being used in the formulation
of police plans, programs, policies, among others?
• A. Military Intelligence
• C. Combat Intelligence
• D. Police Intelligence
What type of clearance that relates to an administrative determination from a

security standpoint that an individual is eligible for access to "classified
matters" of specific category?
• A. Security protection clearance
• B. Security access clearance
• c. Security green light clearance
• D. Security Clearance
What specific technique being employed intelligence agent or action agent with the
view of obtaining desired facts or information from a person, who is unaware that
he/she is providing wanted information, and if made aware may not intend to give
such matter?
• A. Elicitation
• B. Interrogation
• C Interview
• D. Revelation
PROFILING
What process that relates to the extrapolation of information about a person based
on his or her known traits or tendencies; or the act of suspecting or targeting a
person on the basis of observed characteristics or behaviour?
• A. Psychopathology
• B. Psychological Profiling
O C. Forensic Psychology
• D. Profiling
Which of the following pertains to the study of humans and human behaviour and
societies in the past and present?
• C. Criminal Profiling
D. Criminal Anthropology
What scientific study that deals on the mental or behavioural disorder of a person?
• D. Forensic Psychology
Who among the prominent police surgeons in United Kingdom regarded as the "first
offender profiler" instrumental in identifying the likely characteristics of the
serial killer tagged only as "Jack the Ripper", who terrorized London in 1888 by
killing and mutilating the bodies of five (5) women in different occasions?
• A. Dr Thomas Bond
• B. Dr Burt Bond
• C. Dr Arthur Bond
• D. Dr James Bond
Who among the famous USA police surgeons regarded as the "true pioneer of offender
profiling and instrumental in the positive identification, arrest, and filing of
criminal charge against a mad bomber George Metesky responsible in setting off 32
bombs within a period of eight years in New York City?
• A. Dr Jonathan Brussel
B. Dr Thomas Bond
• C. Dr Arthur Bond
• D. Dr James Brussel
•
Which of the following pertains to the study of humans and human behavior and
societies in the past and present?
• D. Criminal Anthropology
The following are the three (3) distinct approaches to psychological or criminal
profiling based on the studies conducted by
Dr Richard Kocsis and his group?
• A. Diagnostic Evaluations
• B. Criminal Investigative Analysis
• C. Investigative Psychology.
• D. Crime Scene Investigation (CSI)
Which of the following human sexually related abnormalities that deals on men's
neurotic condition in which the symptoms are a compulsion to have sexual
intercourse with as many women as possible and an inability to have lasting
relationships with them?
• A. Satyriasis
• B. Siatyriasis
• C. Sartiriasis
• D. Sacriasis
What specific forensic sciences that relates to the intersection between psychology
and the justice system that involves
understanding fundamental legal principles, particularly with regard to expert
witness testimony and the specific content area of concern?
O A. Forensic psychology
• B. Forensic psychiatry
• C. Forensic pathology
O D. Forensic medicine
Which of the following pertains to an investigative tool used by Law Enforcement

Agencies to identify likely suspects (descriptive offender profiling) and analyze
patterns that may predict future offenses?
• A. Pyschopathology
• B. Profiling
O c. Forensic Psychology
• D. Psychological or Criminal Profiling
Which of the following intelligence processes that determines the "pertinence or

significance" of the information relative to the operation, "reliability of the
sources or agency", and "accuracy of the information?
• A. Evaluation
• B. Interpretation
• C. Deduction
• D. Induction
What type of an intelligence process that is

"repetitive or continuing" in ultimately coordinating and integrating all
intelligence efforts of the collection agencies or units to produce intelligence
data out from gathered raw unevaluated data?
• A. Intelligence Cycle (IC)
• B. Intelligence Tradecraft Cycle (ITC)
• C. Intelligence Operational Circle (IOC)
• D. Intelligence Operational Cycle (IOC)
What are the Four (4) Phases of Intelligence

Cycle or Intelligence Process?
O A. Direction, Collection, Processing, and
Dissemination and Use Phases
O B. Direction, Collection, Processing, and
Dissemination Phases
C. Direction, Collection, Processing, and Utilization Phases
O D. Direction, Collection, Processing, and
Dissemination Phases
Which of the following processes that determines the significance of the gathered
information by comparing, contrasting and summarizing with those information or
intelligence data that have already known about the probable meaning of the
evaluated information?
• A. Interpretation Analysis
• B. Assessment
• C. Deduction
• D. Evaluation
What phase of the Intelligence Cycle that emphasizes on the "surreptitious (secret)
application of intelligence operations" such as: Surveillance, Casing, and
Undercover Assignment or Roping purposely to obtain the desired information?
• A. Collection Phase
• B. Dissemination and Use Phase
• C. Processing Phase
• D. Direction Phase
Which of the following pertains to all " raw data or materials consist of
observations, documents, statistics, materials, maps, diagrams, and reports", which
may be "true or false" "accurate or inaccurate", "positive or negative", "organized
or unorganized",
"related or unrelated, as long as they can be used in the production of
Intelligence?
• A. Unevaluated statements
• B. Tittle-Tattle
• c. Unfounded allegations
• D. Information
Which of the following pertains to any person, object, or activity/action from

which information about the enemy, weather, or terrain is originally
derived/obtained and it may or may not be under a friendly control?
• A. Source
• B. Agency
O C. Information provider
• D. Intelligence dossier
Which of the following refers to a generalized theoretical action that an enemy

might be expected to take in preparation of aggressive action like things or events
that transpired in the past or presently occurring?
• A. Strategic Intelligence
• c. Operational Intelligence
• D. Indicator
Which of the following refers to the concise written statement of the directives
broken down into objectives and further classified into pertinent targets as a
result of the analysis in relation with own capabilities and operational
conditions?
• A. Mission
• B. Vision
O C. Aim
O D. Goal
What specific intelligence process that sifts (filters) and sorts (categorizes) out
an evaluated information to isolate insignificant elements with respect to the
mission and operation of the unit?
• A. Evaluation
• B. Integration
O C. Deduction
• D. Assessment
THREATS TO NATIONAL SECURITY

GROUP (LOCAL AND INTERNATIONAL)
DIRECTION: Choose the BEST Answer. Write the LETTERS ONLY on your separate answer
sheet.
What is referred to an area or place where a criminal element or group normally
stores or conceals its armaments, vehicles and other equipment prior to or
immediately after conducting its criminal activity?
O A. Safe house
• B. Rendezvous house
• C. Storage house
• D. Stash house
Which of the following refers to a profit motivated and highly capable group of
persons, or an enterprise organized to undertake widespread, regular long term,
large scale, high profile and diversified criminal activities that has high impact
to the economy and national security?
• A. Transnational Crime Group (TOG)
• B. Syndicated Crime Group (SCG)
• C. Criminal Gang (CG)
• D. Organized Crime Group (OCG)
Which of the following is defined as a self-perpetuating association of individuals

who operate transnationally for the purpose of obtaining power, influence, and
monetary and/or commercial gains, wholly or in part by illegal means while
protecting their activities through a pattern of corruption and/or violence
irrespective of geography?
• A. Transnational Organized Crime
• B. Syndicated Crime
• C. Traditional Organized crime
• D. Organized Crime
What particular PNP list that contains the names of persons with criminal cases
filed in court and/or with standing warrant of arrest
(WA), who are subject of police intensified manhunt operation?
• A. Watch List
• B. Reference List
• C Mother List
• D. Wanted List
Which of the following pertains to a group of two or more persons with common
identifying signs or symbols and whose members individually or collectively engage
in or have engaged in a pattern of criminal activity, creating an atmosphere of
fear and intimidation within the community or a specific area using violence and
intimidation?
• A. Criminal Gang (CG)
• B. Organized Crime Group (OCG)
• C. Revolutionary Group
• D. Secessionist/Jihadist Group
Which of following is defined by the FBI as

"criminal enterprise" composed of individuals with an identified hierarchy or
comparable structure engaged in significant criminal activities?
• A. Organized Crime
O B. Notorious Crime
• C. Syndicated Crime
• D. Enterprise
What specific PNP list that contains the names of persons who have allegedly
committed crimes or engaged in some illegal activities based only on "unverified
reports and subject to further monitoring and case build-up?
• A. Watch List
• B. Wanted List
O C Target List
• D. Master List
What is the technical term for a location or area being used by the criminal
element or group as its embarkation or debarkation for criminal operations normally
situated within its activity area?
• A. Safe house
• B. Secured house
• C. Storage house
• D. Stash house
What particular group that is composed of two (2) or more armed individuals, who,
without authority from any law enforcement and security agencies owe allegiance to
provide security protection to a private person, group, or organization, rather
than a nation or state?
• A. Private Armed Group (PAG)
• B. Private Military Group
• c. Syndicated Crime Group (SCG)
• D. Private Army Group (PAG)
What specific list that contains both Watch

List and Wanted List being maintained by the PNP?
• A. Target List
• B. Master List
O C. Alpha List
• D. Order of Battle (ORBAT)
COURT TESTIMONY (MOOT COURT)

A person's demeanor is typically categorized as either
O a. positive or negative
• b. testimony
O c. credibility of the witness
Observing proceedings allow them to see how rules of and determine the viability of
a claim and the admissibility of evidence.
• a. Demeanor of the expert witnesses
• b. Witness's appearance and demeanor
• c. Civil Procedure and evidence
Supreme Court may adjudicate En Banc.

O a. True
• b. Partly True
O c. False
• d, Partly False
The appearance of credibility or non-credibility that the witness has during

testimony and examination at trial or hearing.
• a. Demeanor
• b. Evidence
• c. Court Observation
Demeanor evidence is quite valuable in shedding light on the credibility of a

witness, which is one of the reasons why personal presence at trial is considered
to be of paramount importance and has great significance concerning the HEARSAY
rule.
O a. Demeanor of the expert witnesses
c. Civil Procedure and evidence
O d. None of the above
Can private individuals be tried before the Sandiganbayan?

O a. True
• b. Partly True
• O c. False
• d. Partly False
The rules of law governing live testimony, confrontation rights, and hearsay rules
have all been shaped by this assumption about demeanor
O a. Demeanor
• b. Evidence
Being present in a courtroom observing a trial or hearing.

• a. Demeanor
• b. Evidence
Experts should be calm and poised while delivering testimony and during both the
direct and cross-examination phases. It's not just about what an expert says, but
how they say it to a jury.
O a. Demeanor of the expert witnesses
• c. Civil Procedure and evidence
is a simulation of court
proceeding. It entails drafting memorials (written submissions) and presentation of
oral arguments.
O a. Moot Court
• b. Mock Trial Script
• O c. Mock Court
An act or imitation trial.

O a. Moot Court
• c. Mock Court
Court of Appeals is assigned to review cases elevated to it from the Regional Trial
Courts.
O a. True
• b. Partly True
• c. False
• d, Partly False
•
Attorneys preparing for a real trial might use a this, consisting of volunteers as
role players to test theories or experiment with each other.
O a. Moot Court
• c. Mock Court
• O d. None of the above
A complete script of a mock trial to help the students visualize and practice the
lines and proper courtroom etiquette of a trial.
O a. Moot Court
• c. Mock Court
A ___ is a miniature version of a real

courtroom where legal processes and trials are held
O a. Moot Court
• c. Mock Court
FAMILY CODE
Marriage where one of the parties is of unsound mind.
• A. The statement is VALID
• B. The statement is VOID
• C. The statement is VOIDABLE
Marriage between father and daughter

Marriage between uncles and nieces

The remedy of the spouses who sought to have the marriage terminated if the
marriage is voidable.
• A. petition for nullity
• B. petition for annulment
• c. petition to declare void
• D. petition to remarry
• E. petition to cohabit
Children conceived and born out of a valid marriage.

• A. legitimated
O B. illegitimate
• C. non-marital
• D. adopted
• E. legitimate
It is considered as relative divorce because it does not affect the marital status,
there being no severance of the marriage tie.
• A. annulment of marriage
• B. nullity of marriage
• C. legal separation
• D. cohabitation
• E. divorce
•
Marriage where the consent of one of the contracting parties was obtained by force
and intimidation
The following are void marriages except:

• A. between ascendants and descendants
• B. between step-father and step- daughter
• C. between adopting parent and adopted child
• D. between minors
The following are void marriages except:

• A. between ascendants and descendants
• B. between step-father and step- daughter
O C. between adopting parent and adopted
• D. between minors
O E. between brother-in law and sister-in law
The remedy of the spouses who sought to have the marriage terminated if the
marriage is void.
O A. petition for nullity
• B. petition for annulment
• C. petition to delete the marriage contract
O D. petition to remarry
The couple who have been cohabiting for a period of 5 years without legal
impediment may enter a contract of marriage even without valid license under:
• A. Article 24
O B. Article 34
• c. Art 64 of the family code.
O D. Article 44
• E. Article 54
Marriage solemnized in remote areas without marriage lIcense

It is required among parents where the contracting parties in a marriage are both
20 years of age.
• A. Parental advice
• B. Parental counselling
• c. Parental consent
O D. Parental guidance
• E. Parental support
Which among the choices below is not an essential requirement of a valid marriage:
• A. legal capacity of the contracting parties
• B. parties must be a male and a female
• c. consent freely given by the parties
O D. parties appear before the solemnizing
officer
• E. marriage ceremony
Venues in the solemnization of marriages are in any of the places listed below
except:
• A. chapel
• B. chamber of the judge
• C.temple
• D. garden of eden
• E. airplane in articulo mortis
•
A petition where the absent spouse is missing for at least 2 years while in a point
of death for the present spouse to remarry.
• A. petition for presumptive death
• B. petition to remarry
O c. petition for nullity
• D. petition for Annulment
CHAIN OF CUSTODY RULE

If drugs are seized during a buy-bust operation, the inventory and photographing
should be made at the
O a. Nearest police station
• b. Place where the arrest was made
• c. nearest office of apprehending unit
O d. all of these
• e. None of these
Under the Memorandum on the "Mandatory Examination of all Firearms, Shells and
Slugs Recovered During Police Operations," all firearms, cartridges, and slugs
seized, captured, or recovered during checkpoints or pursuit operations, including
those seized during the service of warrants and those recovered from crime scenes
shall immediately be submitted to
O a. Evidence Custodian
• b. Judge
• O c. Prosecutor
• d. Prosecution
• e. Crime Laboratory
PSSG Masigasig acted as a poseur buyer.

When the CO asked the prospect, Tikboy, that somebody was willing to buy for a P100
worth of shabu (which in the drugs parlance means P100.00), the CI introduced PSSG
Masigasig (who was in short pant and sleeveless T-shirt) as the one interested in
buying the said item. When PSSG Masigasig was taking out the money to buy the shabu
from his pocket, Tikboy also was taking out the shabu from his pocket. Before
Tikboy can get the money from PSSG Masigasig, a prearranged signal was made by
spitting on the ground. At that point, PSSG Masigasig approached Tikboy and
announced of his arrest for selling a dangerous drugs. Tikboy was immediately
handcuffed and was brought to the nearest police station.
From the foregoing scenario, which of the following statements is correct?
O a. Since the intent to sell is clear, the sale
was already consummated.
b. The mere fact of unauthorized
O possession and sale of the dangerous
drugs is sufficient to sustain the findings of guilt
• c. The fact that substance said to be illegally sold is the very
same substance offered in court as exhibit is a strong evidence of guilt
• d. The transaction or sale did not actually man take place that
should lead to no other but acquittal
• e. The fact that the chain of custody was properly recorded, acquittal
of theaccused is incorrect.
Again, given the above situation, what is your NEXT course of action?
• a. Present suspect for Preliminary Investigation;
b. Forward evidence to Crime Laboratory
for Examination;
O c. Ensure that the witness/es will sign the
inventory receipt;
d. Turn-over the evidence to the investigator-on-case with the accomplished chain
of custody form;
e. Mark, conduct physical inventory and taking of photographs of the seized
evidence.
Seized drug evidence shall be forwarded to Crime Laboratory for qualitative and
quantitative examination within how many hours?
O a. 12 hours
O b. 18 hours
• c. 24 hours
O d. 36 hours
• e. 40 hours
You as the police officer apprehended a suspect inflagrante delicto on violation of

RA
9165. After apprehending the suspect/s, what will be your FIRST course of action?
a. Present suspect for Preliminary O Investigation;
O b. Forward evidence to Crime Laboratory
for Examination;
O c. Ensure that the witness/es will sign the
inventory receipt;
d. Turn-over the evidence to the
• investigator-on-case with the accomplished chain of custody form;
e. Mark, conduct physical inventory and O taking of photographs of the seized
evidence.
10. The Certificate of Inventory/Physical

Inventory of the seized illegal drug must be marked:
O a. Evidence Custodian
O b. in any place at the option of the
apprehending officer
• c. in the nearest police station
O d. Since the intent to sell is clear, the sale
was already consummated.
O e. the dangerous drugs can be easily
altered or substituted
The rule in the chain of custody in the prosecution of illegal sale of dangerous
drugs is more stringent than in the chain of custody of the item recovered in an
ordinary crime like homicide because:
O a. the dangerous drugs can be easily
altered or substituted
O b. the dangerous drugs can be easily
manipulated
O c. the dangerous drugs can be easily
transported
d. the dangerous drugs is readily
identifiable
O e. all of the above
If drugs are seized pursuant to a search warrant, the inventory and taking of
photograph should be made at
O a. nearest DOJ office
• b. nearest police station
• c. place where warrant was served
• d. nearest office of apprehending unit
O e. whichever is practicable
The duly recorded authorized movements and custody of seized drugs from the time of
seizure to receipt in the forensic laboratory to safekeeping to presentation in
court for destruction.
O a. Chain of Custody
• b. Chain of Custody Rule
• O C. DNA Sample
• d. Blood Sample
• O e. None of these
PEACE PROMOTING APPROACH TO PEACE BUILDING

What particular peace principle that requires the mobilization and facilitation of
the people's meaningful participation, especially the vulnerable groups (elderly,
women, children, & PWDs) towards social healing and reconciliation?
• A. Empowering Principle
B. Transparency Principle
• C. Conflict-Sensitive and Peace-O Promoting Principle
• D. Whole-of-Society Principle
Which of the UN Peace Initiative

Programmes adopted by Philippine government that promotes the "re-civilianization"
of the armed rebel combatants after they have surrendered and returned to the folds
of the law and later on to the mainstream society?
O A. Disarmament, Demobilization, and
Reintegration (DDR)
O B. Disarmament, Demoralization, and
Reintegration (DDR)
O C. Disarmament, Diffusion, and
Reintegration (DDR)
O D. Disarmament, Disbandment, and
Reintegration (DDR)
What peace related policy issued by then

PRRD that is being pursued by President
Ferdinand R Marcos, Jr. aimed at strengthening the framework on peace,
reconciliation and unity, and reorganizing the Government's administrative
structure for the purpose?
O A. E.O. No. 158
O B. E.O. No. 125
O C. E.O No. 19
D. E.O. No. 3
What peace related process that focuses on the facilitation of a peaceful end to
the arguments, reduction, elimination, or termination of all forms or types of
conflict?
• A. Conflict Resolution
• B. Crisis Management
• C. Negotiation Management
• D. Conflict Solution
Which of the following Philippine government peace related processes whereby the
ex-rebel combatants acquire civilian status and gain sustainable employment and
income?
• A. Reintegration
• B. Transformation
• C. Reformation
• D. Rehabilitation
What government policy that institutionalizes the whole-of-nation approach in

attaining an inclusive and sustainable peace, creates the National Task Force to
End Local Communist Armed Conflict, and adopts the national peace framework?
• A. E.O. No. 70
O B. E.O. No. 60
O C. E.O. No. 40
• D. E.O. No. 07
What particular national security policy and national security strategy issued by
former
President Rodrigo R Duterte that provides the general policies to achieve the
"security vision of the country" and articulates the
"vision and the security policies of the president?
• A. NSP 2017-2022 and NSS 2018-2022
• B. NSP 2016-2022 and NSS 2017-2022
• C. NSP 2018-2022 and NSS 2019-2022
• D. NSP 2020-2022 and NSS 2011-2022
What form of peace measure that facilitates transition from state of conflict to
state of peace that usually involves security sector and civil society actors
working together to enforce peace and mitigate conflict?
• A. Peacekeeping
• B. Peace mediation
• C. Peacebuilding
• D. Peacemaking
As mandated under EO No. 70, the conduct of peace negotiation with the CNN or CTG
shall be done through
• A. localized peace engagement
• B. community-based peace engagement
• c. regionalized peace engagement
• D. nationalized peace engagement
Which of the following pertains to a process where both the parties are brought to
a mutually beneficial compromise and limiting the negative aspect of the conflict
while increasing the positive aspects of conflict?
• A. Negotiation Management
• B. Crisis Management
• C. Negotiation Administration
• D. Conflict Management
What specific peace principle that requires the continuing consultations,

engagements, and dialogues on both national and local levels to build consensus for
a whole-of-society peace agenda?
• A. Whole-of-Society Principle
• B. Empowering Principle
O c. Transparency Principle
O D. Conflict Sensitive and Peace-
Promoting Principle
What form of peace effort that addresses the reconstruction of the foundations of
peace that include strengthening, re-establishing the rule of law and ensuring
access to justice, normalization; providing assistance for development; and
creating opportunities for the reintegration of former combatants into civilian
society?
O A. Peacebuilding
• B. Peace mediation
O C. Peacekeeping
• D. Peacemaking
Pursuant to E.O. No. 158, the following are the current three (3) principles to
adopted by the Philippine government in implementing its comprehensive peace
process, except
O A. Conflict Sensitive and Peace-
Promoting Principle
O B. Whole-of-Society Principle
• C. Empowering Principle
• D. Transparency Principle
What form of peace effort that is designed to end war and remove structural
violence, or establish the presence of external value conditions?
• A. Peacemaking
• B. Peace intervention
• C. Peacebuilding
• D. Peacekeeping
Which of the following peace principles that addresses drivers and root causes of
the conflict?
O A. Conflict Sensitive and Peace-
Promoting Principle
• B. Whole-of-Society Principle
• C. Empowering Principle
• D. Transparency Principle
CRIMINAL LAW II
The crime of Infanticide is defined as the the killing of any child less than
of age,
whether the killer is a parent or grandparent, any other relative of the child, or
a stranger.
O a. 10 days
• b. 7 days
• c. 5 days
O d. 3 days
This crime is committed by any public officer who shall agree to perform an act
constituting a crime, in connection with the performance of this official duties,
in consideration of any offer, promise, gift or present received by such officer,
personally or through the mediation of another.
O a. Indirect Bribery
• b. Direct Bribery
• c. Qualified Bribery
• d. Slight Bribery
A police officer responded to a disturbance call at around 1:30 in the afternoon in

an apartment in Quezon City. Upon his arrival, the police officer encountered Sisa
stabbing her 1-year old child with a kitchen knife, who later died. The police
officer grabbed Sisa and the latter threw the knife on the floor.
Sisa was immediately taken into custody.
What is the crime committed by Sisa?
O a. Murder
• b. Homicide
• O c. Parricide
• d. Infanticide
The crime of Direct Assaults may be committed by any person who shall:
a. Attack, employ force, seriously intimidate or seriously resist any person in
authority or any of his agents, while engaged in the performance of official
duties, or on occasion of such performance
b. Intimidate or resist any person in authority or any of his agents, while engaged
in the performance of official duties, or on occasion of such performance
c. Slightly intimidate or resist any person in authority or any of his agents,
while O engaged in the performance of official duties, or on occasion of such
performance
d. Use force upon any person in authority O or any of his agents, while engaged in
the performance of official duties, or on occasion of such performance
This crime is committed by any person who, by an act not constituting perjury,
shall directly incriminate or impute to an innocent person the commission of a
crime.
O a. Incriminating Innocent Person
• b. Slander by Deed
• c. Estafa
• O d. Libel
This crime is committed by any private individual who kidnaps or detains another or
in any other manner deprives the victim of liberty or he furnishes the place for
the perpetuation of the detention without the attendance of any of the
circumstances enumerated in Article 267 of the Revised
Penal Code.
O a. Slight Illegal Detention
O b. Kidnapping and Serious Illegal
Detention
• c. Arbitrary Detention
• d. Qualified Detention
In the crime of Delay in the Delivery of Detained Persons to the Proper Judicial
Authorities, within what period of time should the public officer or employee
deliver a person to the proper judicial authorities if the crime or offense
committed by the said person is punishable by correctional penalty?
• a. 12 hours
• b. 18 hours
O c. 36 hours
• d. 48 hours
The following are the elements of the crime of Indirect Bribery, EXCEPT:
O a. The offender is a public officer
b. The said gifts are offered to the public
officer by reason of his office
• c. The private person accepts money
• d. The public officer accepts gifts
The crime of Rape by Sexual Intercourse under the 1st paragraph of Article 266-A
may be accomplished through any of the following, EXCEPT:
O a. Through force, threat or intimidation
O b. When the offended party is deprived of
reason or otherwise unconscious
• c. Through serious resistance
• d. By means of fraudulent machination orgrave abuse of authority
Rico snatched Rica's bracelet by pulling it from her wrist causing the same to
break while she is walking down the Elms Street as the latter is on her way home
from work.
What is the crime committed by Rico?
O a. Robbery
• b. Plunder
• c. Bribery
• d. Theft
The crime of Indirect Assaults is under what title in Book II of the Revised Penal
Code?
O a. Title 1 - Crimes against National
Security and the Law of Nations
O b. Title III - Crimes against Public Order
O c. Title VI - Crimes against Public Morals
• d. Title XIII - Crimes against Honor
This crime is defined as the willful damaging of another's property for the sake of
causing damage due to hate, revenge, or other evil motive.
O a. Malicious Mischief
O b. Arson
• c. Robbery
• d. Slander by Deed
is committed by any
married women who shall have sexual intercourse with a man not her husband, and by
the man who has carnal knowledge of her, knowing her to be married, even if the
marriage be subsequently declared void.
• a. Concubinage
• b. Acts of Lasciviousness
• O c. Adultery
• d. Rape
This crime is committed by any convict who shall evade service of his sentence by
escaping during the term of his imprisonment by reason of final judgment.
• a. Alarms and Scandals
• b. Evasion of Service of Sentence
• c. Homicide
• d. Mutiny
A, the common-law husband of B, stabbed the latter in the chest using a 20-inch
bolo, with treachery, causing the immediate death of B. What is the crime committed
by A?
O a. Parricide
• b. Murder
• c. Mutilation
• d. Infanticide
One of the crimes against persons under

Title VIll is the crime of:
• a. Robbery
• b. Theft
• c. Infanticide
• d. Libel
This crime is committed by any public officer or employee who, without legal
grounds, detains a person.
O a. Kidnapping and Serious legal
Detention
• b. Arbitrary Detention
• c. Illegal Detention
• d. Slight Illegal Detention
The following are the Crimes against Public

Morals, EXCEPT:
O a. Grave Scandal
O b. Immoral Doctrines, Obscene
Publications and Exhibition
• c. Vagrancy
O d. Prostitution
Who among the following are the insulating witnesses whose presence is required
during the conduct of inventory and taking of photographs of the seized dangerous
drugs if the said seizure occurred from August 7, 2023 onward?
1. Elected Public Official
II. DOJ Representative
III. Commander-in-Chief
IV. National Prosecution Service Representative or Media Representative
• a. land Il
• b. land Ill
O c. Ill and IV
O d.landIV
Anna and Barbara, while working inside their sari-sari store, saw Javier and Jorge
robbing an elderly woman of her purse and brutally beating her which resulted to
the latter's immediate death. Thereafter, Javier and Jorge ran away with the
elderly woman's purse. What is the crime committed by Javier and Jorge?
• a. Homicide and Theft
• b. Robbery with Homicide
• c. Qualified Theft
• d. Murder

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ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT PROTECTION: A

The causes of air pollution are the following, except:

Any unicellular or multicellular form exhibiting all of the characteristics of

Can be defined as any undesirable change in physical, chemical, or biological

GENDER AWARENESS AND

O a. Workplaces to provide equal pay for

Perception and gender roles are the following, except:

are characteristics, attitudes,

Philippine initiative on gender responsive governance on mainstreaming provides the

PNP CUSTOMS AND TRADITIONS (10)

Gun Salute for the President is:

For ceremonial purposes, he is treated as if he were the state itself.

Person entitled to port courtesies.

A rigid long established code.

MANAGEMENT INFORMATION SYSTEM

The use of electronic transmission to permit same-time different-place meetings.

It emphasizing a fair degree of integration and a holistic view;

The element of intrinsic information quality.

It covers the planning, control, and administration of the operations of a concern.

It is a computerized system that performs and records daily routine transactions

It is a groups of non-random symbols in the form of text, images, voice

HUMAN RIGHTS AND INTERNATIONAL

The following are in accordance to the International Humanitarian Law except

International Human Rights instrument most commonly referred to in relation to

The Major International Convention that criminalize all act of torture is

Right that may be suspended during an emergency situation

Natural Rights are

The obiective of economic social and cultural rights is to ensure.

The following individuals are protected by the International Humanitarian Law

What is one of the sources of human rights?

According to the Commission on Human Rights, human rights are:

. is a declaration and enumerations of

Small Unit Management (15)

Mc Kinsey 7s is a concept the involves the following except:

The following are soft elements in the model except:

A leadership style which is dependent on measurement and outcome

It refers to the employees and their general capabilities in the organization

The leadership style that involves teaching and supervising followers

Obtaining and seeing to the appropriate use of equipment, facilities needed to do

PP Administrative Disciplinary Bodies and its Functions: A Review (15)

A written and sworn statement regarding a wrong grievance or injury sustained by a

What do you call a police under investigation for administrative case?

Who is the chairman of the national police commission?

Any offense committed by a member of the pp involving minor offense?

PNP officers occupying positions, designations equivalent to cop, pd and regional

Includes elective and appointive officials and employees permanent or temporary?

The written disposition of the cases by any discplinary authorities?

Refers to a thing or a right to dispose gratuitiosly.

Rules on Evidence (20)

Quantum of proof required in administrative proceedings:

The facts or material evidencing the fact or proposition to be established or

_ is that evidence that indirectly proves a fact in issue through an inference

Presumption of innocence applies only in

Which among the statement below

It is the probative effect of evidence and is the conviction or persuasion of the

When the private document is offered as proof of its contents, it is considered as

Quantum of proof required in civil cases:

When the subject of inquiry is the contents of a document, no evidence shall be

It is the fact or proposition to be established and/or the fact to be proved;

In criminal cases, except those involving quasi-offenses (criminal negligence) or

NATURE AND IMPORTANCE OF LEADERSHIP AND TRAITS, MOTIVES AND CHARACTERISTICS OF

Considering the levels of leadership, it claims

A Leader must connect with people by communicating "HELP." H - Hope; E -