INTRODUCTION TO VISION SCIENCES

1. ROC stands for:

a) Receiver obtained characteristics
b) Response obtained characteristics
c) Receiver operating characteristics
d) Response obtained curve
e) Receiver operating curve
2. Detection of signal depends upon:
a) Intensity of stimulus
b) Physical state of individual
c) Psychological state of individual
d) All

3. CT scan is better for:

a) Trauma
b) Tumor
c) Dermoid cyst
d) Neurofibromatosis
e) Both a and b
4. Binocular interaction is responsible for enhancing:
a) Visual field
b) Visual acuity
c) Contrast sensitivity
d) Brightness
e) All
5. Temporal disparity gives the impression of:
a) Nearness
b) Farness
c) Smaller size
d) Larger size
e) No change
6. Motor fusion:
a) Occurs when images from the same object of interest fall on corresponding retinal
points
b) is stimulated in parts by disparity of two subjects on retina
c) Is the mental integration of signals from both eyes to produce a single perception
d) Occurs when both fovea are directed to the fixation object
e) Is not possible to assess in patients
7. The Parvocellular pathway carries information about:
a) small, fast things
b) colorful things
c) high spatial frequency
 d) high temporal frequency
e) both b & c

OCULAR PATHOLOGY

8. Nanophthalmos is associated with:

a) myopia
b) thickened sclera
c) thickened lens diameter
d) open angle glaucoma
f) both b & d
9. In pthysis bulbi :
a) the intraocular pressure is raised
b) calcification of the lens is uncommon
c) the scleral thinning occurs
d) the size of the globe is reduced
e) the retinal pigment epithelium undergoes osseous hypoplasia
10. Bitot's spots:
a) occur in patients with fat malabsorption
b) resolve with oral vitamin A
c) both a & b
d) are commonest on the nasal side of the conjunctiva
e) are caused by hyperplasia of the goblet cells

11. Name ‘Strawberry naevus’ is refered to:

a) Capillary haemangioma
b) Papilloma
c) Lipodermoid
d) Cavernous haemangioma
e) Keratocanthoma
12. Posterior misdirection of lashes arising from normal sites of origin:
a) Distichiasis
b) trichiasis
c) ectropion
d) entropion
e) ptosis
13. causes of primary punctual stenosis:
a) chronic blephritis
b) herpes simplex and herpes zoster lid infection
c) trachoma
d) cytotoxic drugs
e) all

14. Papillary reaction is present in:

a) Viral conjunctivitis
 b) Allergic conjunctivitis
c) Bacterial keratitis
d) Fungal keratitis
e) All
15. Features of acute uveitis are:
a) Aqaeous flare
b) Anterior chamber cells
c) Endothelial dusting
d) Keratic precipitates
e) Both a & b
16. Punctate epithelial keratitis is present in:
a) Adenoviral infection
b) Superior limbic keratoconjunctivitis
c) Neurotrophic keratitis
d) Vernal keratoconjucyivitis
e) All
17. Acute hydrops are present in:
a) Lattice dystrophy
b) Granular dystrophy
c) Lipid keratopathy
d) Keratoconus
e) Fuch’s endothelial dystrophy
NEUROPHYSIOLOGY OF VISION AND
NEUROPTHALMOLOGY
18. Mild ptosis, miosis with normal reaction to light and near is present in:
a) Horner syndrome
b) Oculosympathetic palsy
c) Both a & b
d) Argyll Robertson pupil
e) Third nerve palsy
19. In pituitary gland lesions(tumors), which quadrant of visual field is affected first:
a) Supronasal
b) Suprotemporal
c) Inferonasal
d) Inferotemporal
e) Inferior one third
20. Bitemporal hemianopia occur if lesion is present at the level of:
a) Optic disc
b) Optic radiation
c) Optic tract
d) Optic chiasma
e) Lateral geniculate body
21. Which is largest ocular motor nerve:
a) Trochlear nerve
b) Oculomotor nerve
c) Abducens nerve
 d) Facial nerve
e) Trigeminal nerve
22. Abducens nerve supplies:
a) Medial rectus
b) Inferior rectus
c) Lateral rectus
d) Superior rectus
e) Superior oblique

EPIDEMIOLOGY OF VISION ANOMALIES AND

OPTICAL CHARACTERISTICS OF EYE
23. During refractometry, uncontrolled accommodation may result in:
a) an over-corrected myope
b) an under-corrected hyperope
c) an unbalanced correction
d) Not being able to focus
e) all of the above
24. In case of high AC/A ratio, condition occur:
a) Convergence excess esotropia
b) Accommodative esotopia
c) Convergence insufficieny
d) Divergence insufficieny
e) Both a & c
25. AC/A ratio is measured by:
a) Heterophoric method
b) Gradient method
c) Fixation disparity method
d) Graphical method
e) All
26. Refractive index of cornea is:
a) 1.3376
b) 1.376
c) 1.406
d) 1.386
e) 1.00
27. In schematic eye describd by gullstrand, first focal point is:
a) -15.7 mm
b) 15.7 mm
c) 24.4 mm
d) 7.08
e) 7.33
28. Transpose the following: -5.00 DS/-2.00DC*60.
a) -7.00/ -2.00* 150
b) -7.00/+2.00* 150
c) +7.00/ +2.00* 60
d) +7.00/ -2.00 *150
 e) -7.00/-2.00*60

ADVANCED OPTOMETRIC MANAGEMENT OF OCULAR

PATHOLOGIES
29. Recurrent unilateral attacks of secondary open angle glaucoma with anterior uveitis occur
in:
a) Pseudoexfoliation
b) Sturge weber syndrome
c) Posner schlossman syndrome
d) Stargadts disease
e) Both b & c
30. Acute congestive glaucoma involves:
a) IOP > 50mmhg
b) Oval, fixed pupil
c) Shallow AC
d) Corneal oedema
e) All
31. The size of FAZ (Foveal avascular zone):
a) 900-1300 microns
b) 700-1000 microns
c) 400-700 microns
d) 1000-1500 microns
e) 1500-2000 microns
32. Among diabetics, Diabetic retinopathy accounts for:
a) 60%
b) 70%
c) 40%
d) 50%
e) 30%
33. Hemorrhages in in 1-3 quadrants, Mild IRMA, venous beading in one quadrant are
present in:
a) Mild NPDR
b) Moderate NPDR
c) Severe NPDR
d) Very severe NPDR
e) PDR
34. Fundus flavimaculatus is also called:
a) Stargadt’s disease
b) Best vitelliform dystrophy
c) Leber congenital amaurosis
d) Familial dominant drusrn
e) North Carolina macular dystrophy
35. Sharply demarcated bands of tightly packed snowflakes which gives the retina white frost
like appearance:
a) Snail track degeneration
b) Lattice degeneration
 c) White with pressure area
d) White without pressure area
e) Diffuse chorioretinal atrophy
36. Lattice degeneration is most commonly located in:
a) superior and nasal quadrant
b) superior and temporal quadrant
c) inferior and nasal quadrant
d) inferior and temporal
e) affects all quadrants equally
BRANCHES OF OPTOMETRY (NEURO-DEVELOPMENTAL
OPTOMETRY, GERIATRIC OPTOMETRY, PEDIATRIC
OPTOMETRY)

37. Which of these is an example of specific learning disability?

a) Mental retardation
b) ADHD
c) Dyslexia
d) Autism spectrum disorders
e) All
38. Reading disorder is a developmental disorder and is characterized by reading
achievement(e.g. accuracy, speed and comprehension) being signifantly below strandards
expected for which of the following:
a) chronological age
b) IQ
c) Schooling experience
d) All of the above
e) Behavior
39. Most commonly used drug for attaining cycloplegia in children less than 12 is:
a) Cyclopen
b) Atropine
c) Phenylphrine
d) Tropicamide
e) Adrenaline
40. Which of the following statements regarding Dementia is not true:
a) Dementia is a normal part of ageing and it is not possible for persons with dementia
to continue to engage and contribute within society and have a good quality of life.
b) Dementia is overwhelming for the caregivers and adequate support is required for
them from the health, social, financial and legal systems
c) Countries must include dementia on their public health agendas. Sustained action and
coordination is required at international, national, regional and local levels
d) People with dementia and their caregivers often have unique insights to their
condition and life. They should be involved in formulating the policies, plans, laws
and services that relate to them
e) All
41. Which of the following statements regarding Depression in old age is true:
 a) Depression in older adults is easily diagnosed and treated.
b) Health care providers may mistake symptoms of depression as just a natural reaction
to illness or the life changes that may occur with ageing and may not treat depression.
c) Older adults themselves often seek help for depression because they feel that they could
get better with appropriate treatment
d) Questions that assess the symptoms of depression using the Patient Health
Questionnaire are commonly used in surveys in Pakistan

42. A 2-year-old child presents with a squint and white eye reflex, what could be the
possibilities:
a) Coat’s disease
b) Retinoblastoma
c) PHPV
d) Coloboma of disc
e) all
ADVANCE CONTACT LENS

43. Instrument that gives detailed information about all the corneal parameters is:
a) Keratometry
b) Videokeratography
c) Corneal topography
d) Pachymetry
e) Both b & c
44. Person having spectacle prescription of -9.00 DS in BEs at 10mm wants to get contact
lenses, what would be his prescription?
a) -7.75 DS
b) -8.00 DS
c) -8.25 DS
d) -8.50 DS
e) -9.00 DS
45. Corneal power for keratometric readings of 7.89mm and 8.9 mm would be:
a) 42.7 D, 37.9 D
b) 42.7 D, 51.2 D
c) 45.7 D, 37.9 D
d) 45.7 D, 51.2 D
e) 44.7 D, 37.9 D
46. Soft contact lens fitting is assessed with:
a) Flourescien staining
b) Rose Bengal staining
c) By assessing the lens movement in slit lamp examination
d) Circumcorneal diameter of lens
e) Both a and c
47. Power of contact lens is determined by:
a) Curvature of contact lens
b) Refractive index of contact lens
c) Diameter of contact lens
 d) Both a & b
e) Both a & c
48. Base curve of contact lens:
a) Is measured in diopters
b) Refers to anterior corneal curvature
c) Measured with radiuscope
d) For particular patient measured according to central keratometric readings
e) Both c and d
49. If myopic individual wear contact lens:
a) Field of view will be reduced
b) Image will be magnified
c) Image will be minified
d) Reduce optical aberration
e) Both b & d
ADVANCE LOW VISION
50. For low vision patient, visual acuity is assessed:
a) Monocularly with LogMAR based chart with lights on
b) Monocularly with LogMAR based chart with lights off
c) Binocularly with LogMAR based chart with lights off
d) Both monocularly then binocularly with LogMAR based chart and habitual
prescription on
e) both b and c
51. In LogMAR based chart, each letter has value of:
a) 0.01 log units
b) 0.02 log units
c) 0.25 log units
d) 0.15 log units
e) 0.03 log units
52. If patient read 2 letters of 0.4 line in LogMAR chart, what would be the visual acuity:
a) 0.46
b) 0.36
c) 0.34
d) 0.42
e) 0.50
53. The VA of 0.3 logMAR in snellen acuity would be:
a) 6/36
b) 6/24
c) 6/15
d) 6/12
e) 6/9
54. Stand magnifier is used with:
a) Presbyopic spectacles
b) Hyperopic spectacles
c) Distance spectacles
d) Myopic spectacles
e) Both a and b
55. Notation used for near acuity in low vision are:
a) M-notation
b) Point notation
c) Jaeger notation
d) Reduced snellen notation
e) All
REFRACTIVE SURGERY
56. Arcuate keratotomy is used for:
a) Myopia
b) Hyperopia
c) Astigmatism
d) Presbyopia
e) Both a and b
57. PRK is able to correct myopia upto:
a) 4.00 Diopters
b) 4.50 Diopters
c) 5.00 Diopters
d) 5.50 Diopters
e) 6.00 Diopters
58. Complications of LASIK are:
a) Dry eyes
b) Epithelial defects
c) Subepithelial haze
d) Wrinkiling or dislocation of flap
e) All
59. Implantation contact lens is inserted:
a) Beneath the flap
b) In the Anterior Chamber
c) Attached to front of iris
d) Behind iris and infront of crystalline lens
e) Both c and d
60. Myopia >10D can be treated with
a) radial keratotomy
b) Hexagonal keratotomy
c) Clear lens extraction
d) PRK
e) Is not treated with refractive surgery