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 NTA—UGC

TEACHING AND
RESEARCH APTITUDE
PAPER 1
NET | SET | JRF

2023
Seventh Edition

KVS MADAAN

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 To
my revered gurus, my parents
Smt. Devika Rani and Late Shri Prem Singh Madaan

*The 2022 Question paper set contains memory-based questions, lawfully curated solely by the author relying upon
the memory of past attending candidates of the 2022 NTA-UGC examination. The copyright in the original question
papers is owned and vested with the concerned owners and Pearson does not claim any ownership in such copyright.
The answers to these questions have also been solely developed by the author herein, and Pearson shall not be liable for
any claims arising out of usage/accuracy of the content herein”.

Copyright © 2023 Pearson India Education Services Pvt. Ltd

Copyright © 2022, 2021, 2020, 2019, 2016, 2014 Pearson India Education Services Pvt. Ltd

Published by Pearson India Education Services Pvt. Ltd, CIN: U72200TN2005PTC057128.

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 Contents
Prefacevii
About NTA ix
About the Author x
Syllabusxi
Strategy about NTA-UGC NET Exam xiii
Memory-based UGC NET Question Paper 2022 - Set 1 xv
Memory-based UGC NET Question Paper 2022 - Set 2 xxxiii

1 Teaching Aptitude 1.1

2 Research Aptitude 2.1

3 Comprehension 3.1

4 Communication 4.1

5 Mathematical Reasoning and Aptitude 5.1

6 Logical Reasoning 6.1

7 Data Interpretation 7.1

8 Information and Communication Technology (ICT) 8.1

9 People, Development and Environment 9.1

10 Higher Education System 10.1

MOCK TEST M.1

NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 December 2019  Z.3
NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 2020 Z.12
NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 2021 - Set 1 Z.24
NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 2021 - Set 2 Z.38

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 Preface

The NET-JRF aspirants are most welcome go through this edition of NTA UGC NET/SET/JRF Paper 1–Teaching and
Research Aptitude title which has helped lakhs of candidates to qualify the NET JRF exam and pursue career in academ-
ics and research in higher education institutions. As marks obtained in Paper 1 are counted towards making the final list,
so this paper becomes automatically important. Our main objective has been to make our dear students ‘atmanirbhar’
in qualifying the exam. Pearson Education has always helped in this endeavour. This is an updated version of the book,
with a lot of new and updated practice questions.
This title covers not just teaching and research aptitude but also comprehension, mathematical ability, logical
reasoning, ICT and awareness relating to environment science and higher education. Thus, the syllabus has been divided
into ten units accordingly by UGC. In 2019, some ancient education topics were added in the syllabus so that we get in
touch with our ancient roots. We have given Sanskrit or Hindi translation of important words from Indian logic in Unit 6
and ancient education in Unit 10 so that students feel comfortable in grasping the topics. These are actually in continuity
with New Education Policy, 2020 so that it works for the holistic development of the students.
The author has taken special care so that the dynamic aspect of exam pattern is maintained, we have given space to
previous year papers as well as to future questions. We have taken special care of subjective knowledge and comprehensive
skills in the form of assertion reason and multiple statements type of questions.
This tile may be helpful to PhD admissions as per new UGC Guidelines, 2022. Many have travelled their successful
journey towards Fellowship programmes of IIMs with the help from this book.

Key Features
The language of this book has been kept very simple so that students are able to understand the topics in a lucid manner.
The discussion is supported by diagrams, figures, tables, updated data and pervious years’ questions as ‘stopovers’ so
that students can prepare smoothly and move ahead with confidence. There are more than 2600 questions for regular
practice. There is inclusion of two July–October 2022 papers as well.
For suggestions and feedback, a NET aspirant may write to madaankvs@gmail.com and at Telegram Link–t.me/@
KVSPaper1.

Acknowledgments
I feel indebted to Prof. Surindra Lal, retired Principal of Multani Mal Modi College, Patiala for always being a mentor and
continuous source of inspiration. I am grateful to my faculty colleagues Prof Sunita Mehta from Department of English,
CMK National Girls College (Sirsa), Prof Mahesh Mehta from Department of English, MM College, Fatehabad, Prof SP
Sajjan from Department of Computers Sciences, Govt First Grade College for Women, Jamkhandi (Karnataka) and Prof
Debasree Paul from Department of Political Science, Rabindra Bharati University (West Bengal). Prof S P Sajjan from,
Computer Sciences for their active support in academic and language matters. There is a great role of Prof Harish Jhamb,
Director, Daffodils College of Education (Fatehabad), Prof. (Dr) Pankaj Thakur, JNU (New Delhi), Prof Aditi Vinod Arya,
Unacademy, Prof Preeti Mandyal, Unacademy, Prof Manisha Kalra, SSD College (Bathinda), Prof Abhilasha N, Mulund
College of Commerce, Mumbai and Research Scholar Priya Gupta for their enormous contribution in this endeavour.
I am indebted to Shreya Malik, Convenor, Shodh Delhi, Prof Rahul Mishra, Prof Purnachander Konderi, and Yasar
Arafat, HOPE, WB for their online active support. Parv Luthra, a doctoral student of Pravara Institute of Medical Sciences,
Loni, (Maharashtra) always provided me the motivational support.
My special gratitude is always there for Shukti Mukherjee, Ruchira Dash, Bhupesh Sharma and Ashi Jain my esteemed
colleagues from Pearson Education for the successful implementation of this project.
Our sales and distribution magnets Vishal Dhawan, Binit Shukla, Desh Das Bandhu, Raman Pruthi and Srinivasan did
a great social service by taking this valuable product to emerging professors of India.
The best kind of help always comes from my better half Anshu Bala for the required motivation for this best product.
I always feel a divine power supporting my efforts when my kids Jiya, Srijan and Jappan are around. They actually made
me work harder and smarter on the project.

KVS Madaan

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 About NTA

The National Testing Agency (NTA) has been established as a premier, specialist, autonomous and ­self-sustained test-
ing organization to conduct entrance examinations for admission or fellowship in higher educational ­institutions. It has
been set up with the following specific objectives:
1. To conduct tests in an efficient, transparent and international standard, in order to assess the competency of candi-
dates for admission and recruitment purposes
2. To undertake research on educational, professional and testing systems in order to identify gaps in the knowledge
system and take steps for bridging them
3. To identify experts and institutions for formulating examination questions
4. To produce and disseminate information and research on education and professional development standards.
The NET exam is conducted on behalf of UGC to determine the eligibility of candidates opting for the post of Assistant
Professor only or Junior Research Fellowship (JRF) and Assistant Professor in Indian universities and colleges. The JRFs
selected acquire an essential stipend while pursuing PhD/Fellowship.
Until recently, the CBSE conducted NET exam in 84 subjects at 91 selected cities across the country. From December
2018, the UGC-NET (Eligibility for Assistant Professor only or Junior Research Fellowship and Assistant Professor) is
now conducted by NTA.
The NTA intends to create a question bank for all subjects using modern techniques. The administration of NTA has
been entrusted to the governing body, with Shri R. Subrahmanyam, Secretary, Department of Higher Education, MHRD,
being its first chairman.

Eligibility
Candidates who have secured at least 55% marks in master’s degree or equivalent examination from recognized uni-
versities in humanities (including languages) and social sciences, computer science and applications, electronic sci-
ence, etc., are eligible to appear for this test. A relaxation of 5% for other reserved categories has also been entitled to
candidates.
Candidates who are pursuing their master’s degree or equivalent course should comply to all the eligibility criteria.
It is essential for the candidates to complete their master’s degree or equivalent examination within two years from the
date of NET result with the required percentage of marks, failing which they will be treated as disqualified.
A Ph.D. degree holders whose master’s–level examination was completed by 19th September 1991 (­irrespective of
the date of result declaration) shall be eligible for a relaxation of 5% in aggregate marks, i.e., from 55% to 50%, for
appearing in NET.
Candidates are advised to appear in the subject of their post-graduation only. Candidates whose post-graduation
subject is not covered in the list of subjects may appear in a related subject.

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 About the author

KVS Madaan, Author and Director, KVS Madaan Online Classes/KvsMadaan.com has
been a Former Associate Director, Arni School of Business Management, Arni University,
Himachal Pradesh is a renowned author and academician. He is post graduate in Business
Administration from Haryana School of Business, GJUST, Hisar. He has helped thousands
of career aspirants realize their goals. He worked at top positions in many Universities
and institutions. He has been a keynote speaker at UGC and AICTE sponsored faculty
development programmes. He has authored a book for Commerce, NTA UGC NET, Paper
2.
He has active channel on YouTube – KVS Madaan Online Classes and a website kvsmadaan.
com.

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 Syllabus

UNIVERSITY GRANTS COMMISSION

NET BUREAU

PAPER-I
Subject: General Paper on Teaching and Research Aptitude

The main objective is to assess the teaching and research capabilities of the candidates. The test aims to assess teaching
and research aptitude as well. Candidates are expected to possess and exhibit cognitive abilities, which include com-
prehension, analysis, evaluation, understanding the structure of arguments, deductive and inductive ­reasoning. The
candidates are also expected to have a general awareness about teaching and learning processes in the higher educa-
tion system. Further, they should be aware of interaction between people, the environment, natural resources and their
impact on the quality of life.
The details of syllabus are as follows:

I. Teaching Aptitude
• Teaching: Concept, Objectives; Levels of teaching (Memory, Understanding and Reflective), Characteristics and
basic requirements
• Learner characteristics: Characteristics of adolescent and adult learners (Academic, Social, Emotional and
Cognitive), Individual differences
• Factors affecting teaching, related to the teacher, learner, support material, instructional facilities, learning environ-
ment and institution
• Methods of teaching in institutions of higher learning: Teacher-centred vs. Learner-centred methods, Off-line vs
On-line methods (Swayam, Swayamprabha, MOOCs etc.)
• Teaching Support Systems: Traditional, Modern and ICT based
• Evaluation Systems: Elements and Types of evaluation, Evaluation in choice-based credit system in higher educa-
tion, Computer-based testing, Innovations in evaluation systems

II. Research Aptitude

• Research: Meaning, Types and Characteristics, Positivism and Post-positivistic approach to research
• Methods of research: Experimental, Descriptive, Historical, Qualitative and Quantitative methods
• Steps of Research
• Thesis and article writing: Format and styles of referencing
• Application of ICT in research
• Research ethics

III. Comprehension
• A passage of text will be given. Questions will be asked from the passage to be answered.

IV. Communication
• Communication: Meaning, types and characteristics of communication
• Effective communication: Verbal and Non-verbal, Inter-cultural and group communications, Classroom
communication
• Barriers to effective communication
• Mass-Media and Society

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 xii Syllabus

V. Mathematical Reasoning and Aptitude

• Types of reasoning
• Number series, Letter series, Codes and relationships
• Mathematical Aptitude (Fraction, Time & Distance, Ratio, Proportion and Percentage, Profit and Loss, Interest and
Discounting, Averages etc.)
VI. Logical Reasoning
• Understanding the structure of arguments: argument forms, structure of categorical propositions, Mood and
Figure, Formal and Informal fallacies, Uses of language, Connotations and denotations of terms, Classical square of
opposition.
• Evaluating and distinguishing deductive and inductive reasoning
• Analogies
• Venn diagram: Simple and multiple use for establishing validity of arguments
• Indian Logic: Means of knowledge
• Pramanas: Pratyaksha (Perception), Anumana (Inference), Upamana (Comparison), Shabda (Verbal ­testimony),
Arthapatti (Implication) and Anupalabddhi (Non-apprehension)
• Structure and kinds of Anumana (inference), Vyapti (invariable relation), Hetvabhasas (fallacies of inference)
VII. Data Interpretation
• Sources, acquisition and classification of data
• Quantitative and qualitative data
• Graphical representation (Bar-chart, Histograms, Pie-chart, Table-chart and Line-chart) and mapping of data.
• Data Interpretation.
• Data and governance.
VIII. Information and Communication Technology (ICT)
• ICT: General abbreviations and terminology
• Basics of Internet, Intranet, E-mail, audio and video-conferencing
• Digital initiatives in higher education
• ICT and Governance
IX. People, Development and Environment
• Development and environment: Millennium development and sustainable development goals
• Human and environment interaction: Anthropogenic activities and their impacts on environment
• Environmental issues: Local, regional and global; Air pollution, water pollution, soil pollution, noise pollution, waste
(solid, liquid, biomedical, hazardous, electronic); Climate change and its socio-economic and political dimensions.
• Impacts of pollutants on human health
• Natural and energy resources: Solar, Wind, Soil, Hydro, Geothermal, Biomass, Nuclear and Forests
• Natural hazards and disasters: Mitigation strategies
• Environmental Protection Act (1986), National Action Plan on Climate Change, International agreements/efforts:
Montreal Protocol, Rio Summit, Convention on Biodiversity, Kyoto Protocol, Paris Agreement, International Solar
Alliance
X. Higher Education System
• Institutions of higher learning and education in ancient India
• Evolution of higher learning and research in post-independence India
• Oriental, Conventional and Non-conventional learning programmes in India
• Professional, Technical and Skill-Based education.
• Value education and environmental education.
• Policies, Governance and Administration.
NOTE:  (i) Five questions, each carrying 2 marks, are to be set from each Module.
(ii) Whenever graphical/pictorial question(s) are set for sighted candidates, a passage followed by equal num-
ber of questions and weightage be set for visually impaired candidates.

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 Strategy about NTA Exam

The National Eligibility Test is a national-level exam conducted in India by NTA on behalf of the University Grants
Commission (UGC). This test enables post-graduate students to qualify for university-level teaching jobs in India and
also to seek admission to Ph.D level programmes. The test ensures that a candidate qualifies for the minimum standards
in the teaching profession and research. The test is conducted in Humanities (including languages), Social Sciences,
Environmental Sciences, Geography, Commerce, Management to name a few.
Once you clear UGC NET, you are eligible to become an Assistant Professor or pursue Junior Research Fellowship in
distinguished universities. The vacancies are announced from time to time and you have to apply for the same.
Once you clear NET, you can apply for the post of Assistant Professor as and when the vacancies are announced by
the colleges and universities. While clearing NET is a mandatory criterion in many colleges and universities, the final
appointment will depend on how well you fare in the interview conducted by the concerned university.
Junior Research Fellowship is for those who have their heart set on research. You become eligible for the Junior
Research Fellowship if you have applied for it in your application form and you have subsequently cleared NET. Once you
get selected, you can then pursue research in any prestigious university and get the tuition fees reimbursed.

Tips and Techniques to Prepare for UGC NET

❍ Preparing well in time: The preparation for UGC Net exam starts while you are undergoing post-­graduate course.
Once post-graduation is complete, a focused preparation of three to six months is mandatory. Preparation should be
planned and implemented in such a manner that it leaves scope for revision as well.
❍ Refer to past questions: The previous years’ questions help the career aspirant get familiarized with the pattern of
the exam. Go through them and try to solve at least a few of them. This will give you an idea of what to expect in the
exam, and it also builds confidence in you. Take help from the teachers or seniors if required. It is better if you can
make a list of important topics, though the test is of an objective pattern now.
❍ Gaining familiar with the syllabus: Run through the syllabus thoroughly. It is important that you understand the
syllabus completely and prepare for each topic accordingly. As all papers are objective now, do not leave out any
topic.
❍ Prioritising the subjects: Out of the two papers, Paper II is based on the subject of your choice, whereas Paper I will
be based on general awareness and aptitude. It is very important that you have a complete hold over your subject, as
you can score well there. While focusing your attention on the subject papers, start preparing for the general aware-
ness test by solving sample papers.
For UGC Net Paper I, which is not merely qualifying now, marks are calculated towards the final score. Therefore,
students take this paper seriously now. Earlier, Paper I was only qualifying in nature: one had to score only 40% in
this paper, only then Paper II would be evaluated.
❍ Making personal notes: This is applicable for all the subjects and Paper I as well. These notes work as a kind of
‘ready reckoner’ once the exam nears fast. In general, go for big page notebooks or registers, divide the page into
three columns—on the left-hand side, write the main topics, titles, serial number, etc., the middle column is for
main discussion of the topic, and right-hand side for any addition, updations, references, etc., that may be required
to be done at some later date. The notes help in revision. The same may be done in case of Paper I also.
❍ Build upon speed and quality of preparation: While your aim should be on completing all the topics mentioned
in the syllabus, quality must also be kept in mind. While preparing, concentrate on improving the quality of your
preparation, which means you can concentrate more on zeroing down on what exactly and how much has to be
studied.

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 xiv Strategy about NTA-UGC NET Exam

❍ Time management: Time management depends upon the nature of the subject. Some subjects are purely theoreti-
cal, some are technical and some are both. Utilise time in an efficient manner. Have a strategy in place as to how to
complete all the questions within the given time. It is best if you time yourself while preparing the subjects.
❍ Be confident: There is no substitute of confidence. Confidence is the outcome of your degree of preparation.
Once you decide that you carve to eke out a distinguished career in teaching, then UGC Net Exam is the stepping
stone.
❍ If we take into account December 2021 / January 2022 UGC NTA NET JRF Exams, it is moving towards surprise ele-
ments, innovations and updations. Thus, it needs more efforts as well.

“All The Best and Do Your Best”

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 Memory-based UGC NET
Question Paper 2022 - Set 1 *
INSTRUCTIONS
Time Allowed: 1 hour  50 × 2 = 100 Marks

1. This paper consists of Fifty (50) objective type questions of Two (2) marks each.
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. Each item has four alternative responses marked (a), (b), (c) and (d). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the
correct response against each item.
Example: a b c d where (c) is the correct response.
4. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Sheet given at the end of the book.
5. Read instructions provided with each question carefully.
6. There are no negative marks for incorrect answers.

Directions for questions 1 to 5: Based on the data in 3. If 25% diesel engine cars in state ‘C’ are Air-Condi-
table, answer the five questions that follow: tioned (AC), then what is the number of diesel engine
Consider the following table that shows the percentage cars which are non-AC in State ‘C’?
distribution of cars and ratio between diesel and petrol (a) 150 (b) 90
engine cars in four different states (A-D).
(c) 190 (d) 210
Total number of cars in all the four states is 1400.
State wise distribution of cars 4. What is the difference between the total number of
cars in State ‘C’ and the number of petrol engine cars
Ratio in State ‘B’?
Percentage
State Diesel Engine Cars: (a) 212 (b) 224
Distribution of cars
Petrol Engine Cars
(c) 204 (d) 196
A 14% 3:4
5. What is the sum of petrol engine cars in all the states
B 28% 5:9 together?
C 32% 5:3 (a) 710 (b) 712
D 26% 1:1 (c) 714 (d) 716
6. Which of the following types of learners learn with
1. What is the difference between the number of die-
the help of flow charts or diagrams?
sel engine cars in state ‘B’ and the number of petrol
(a) Tactile (b) Visual
engine cars in state ‘D’?
(c) Auditory (d) Rote
(a) 24 (b) 42
7. Match List I with List II.
(c) 56 (d) 68
List I List II
2. Number of petrol engine cars in state ‘C’ is what percent Concepts Main proponent
more than the number of diesel engine cars in state ‘A’? A. Integral education I. John Dewey
(a) 100% (b) 125% B. Focus on spiritual II. Sri Aurobindo
(c) 200% (d) 120% aspects of Indian
philosophy

*The 2022 Question paper set contains memory-based questions, lawfully curated solely by the author relying upon the memory of past attending
candidates of the 2022 NTA-UGC examination. The copyright in the original question papers is owned and vested with the concerned owners and
Pearson does not claim any ownership in such copyright. The answers to these questions have also been solely developed by the author herein, and
Pearson shall not be liable for any claims arising out of usage/accuracy of the content herein”.

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 xvi Memory-based UGC NET Question Paper 2022 - Set 1

List I List II (c) C, D and E only

Concepts Main proponent (d) A, B and C only
C. Learning to take place III. Dr. Sarvepalli 14. Which of the following factors influence the sample
in nature and from Radhakrishan size for a project?
nature A. Type of project
D. Experiential learning IV. Rabindranath Tagore B. Purpose of project
Choose the correct answer from the options given
C. Previous research in the area
below: D. Researcher’s personality
(a) A – II, B – IV, C – III, D – I E. His/her standing as a researcher
(b) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV Choose the correct answer from the options given

(c) A – III, B – II, C – I, D – IV below:
(d) A II, B – III, C – IV, D – I (a) A, B and C only
8. In order to identify individual differences of learners in a (b) B, C and D only
class, which of the following can be used by a teacher? (c) C, D and E only
(a) Summative Assessments (d) A, C and E only
(b) Formative Assessments
(c) Diagnostic Assessments 15. Match List I with List II.
(d) Peer Assessments List I List II
Research method Characteristic
9. The e-content generated under e-PG Pathshala project
for Non-Technical Post-Graduate courses in hosted on A. Content analysis I. Summarization
web by B. Social network II. Use of bipolar
(a) NPTEL (b) INFLIBNET analysis adjectives
(c) SWAYAM (d) IGNOU
C. Semantic differential III. Focus on dyadic
10. Which of the following is NOT an affective domain? relations
(a) Receiving (b) Analysing
D. Meta analysis IV. Context unit
(c) Valuing (d) Organizing
11. When a variable leads to a spurious interpretation of Choose the correct answer from the options given

research results, it is called below:
(a) Control variable (a) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I
(b) External variable (b) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I
(c) Conflicting variable (c) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV
(d) Confounding variable (d) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D - II

12. The ‘Age’ of a respondent is an example of 16. In a classroom, an effective listener

(a) Parallel variable (a) Resists distractions
(b) Monadic variable (b) Seeks diversions
(c) Dyadic variable (c) Prefers message filtering
(d) Simple variable (d) Judges the message delivery style

13. Which of the following are disadvantages of qualita- 17. The two way, face-to-face communication is techni-
tive research? cally referred to as
A. Too sensitive to the context (a) Level one (b) Level two
B. Open to debate (c) Level three (d) Level four
C. Too subjective 18. From the communication perspective, which of the
D. Difficult to generalize following variables distinguish one culture from
E. Issue of replication another?
Choose the correct answer from the options given
A. Learning skills
below: B. Time sense
(a) A, D and E only C. Level of gratitude
(b) B, C and D only D. Level of honesty

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 Memory-based UGC NET Question Paper 2022 - Set 1 xvii

Choose the correct answer from the options given

(a) 12 (b) 15
below: (c) 20 (d) 10
(a) A and B only (b) B and C only 26. If the statement ‘No birds are mammals’ is given as
(c) C and D only (d) A and D only true, what could be immediately inferred from it?
19. Given below are two statements: A. ‘All birds are mammals’ is false
B. ‘Some birds are mammals’ is false
Statement I: Small group communication fulfills the
relationship needs. C. ‘Some birds are not mammals’ is false
D. ‘Some birds are not mammals’ is true
Statement II: However, small group communication
does not serve task related needs. Choose the correct answer from the options given

below:
In light of the above statements, choose the correct
(a) A, B and C only
answer from the options given below:
(a) Both statement I and statement II are true (b) A, B and D only
(b) Both statement I and statement II are false (c) A and D only
(c) Statement I is true but statement II is false (d) A and C only
(d) Statement I is false but statement II is true 27. “XYZ Home Finance offers best financial product in
the country because like a family member and a good
20. Which of the following are the functions of media as friend, XYZ Home Finance fulfills your need to have
related to their audiences? your own sweet home”. Which of the following falla-
A. Creation of passive longing for media products cies is committed in this argument?
B. Omnivorous devouring of media content (a) Ad Populum
C. Compensation through identification (b) Ad Hominem
D. Vicarious wish fulfillment (c) Hasty Generalisation
E. Sources of suggestion for appropriate role (d) Red Herring
Choose the correct answer from the options given
28. Given below are two statements:
below:
Statement I: ‘Some S is P’ is contrary to ‘Some S is not
(a) A, B and C only (b) B, C and D only
P’.
(c) A, B and E only (d) C, D and E only
Statement II: ‘Some S is not P’ is contradictory to ‘All
21. Find the missing term in the series given as: S is P’.
4, 6, 12, 14, 28, 30, ?
In light of the above statements, choose the correct
(a) 32 (b) 36
answer from the options given below:
(c) 52 (d) 60
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
22. In a certain code, O is written as E, A as C, M as I, S as (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
O, N as P, E as M, I as A, P as N and C as S, then how (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
will COMPANION be written in that code? (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(a) SEINCPAEP (b) SENCIAPEP
(c) SENCPIAPE (d) SNEIPCAPE 29. Given below are two statements :
Statement I: For the Indian thinkers, inference (anu-
23. In a class of 43 students, Aashman’s rank is 16th from
mana) means only a syllogistic inference based on the
the bottom. What is his rank from the top?
relation of invariable concomitance between middle
(a) 28 (b) 27
term and major term.
(c) 26 (d) 29
Statement II: There should be absence of the middle
24. A pipe can fill a water tank three times as fast as term wherever there is an absence of the major
another pipe. If both are used together, these can fill term.
the tank in 36 minutes. How much time will be taken
by the slower pipe alone to fill the tank? In light of the above statements, choose the correct
(a) 192 minutes (b) 108 minutes answer from the options given below:
(c) 144 minutes (d) 160 minutes (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
25. A retailer buys 40 pens at the marked price of 36 pens
from a wholesaler. If he sells these pens giving a dis- (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
count of 1%, what is the profit percentage? (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

A01_MADAN 07_65901_FM.indd 17 09/01/23 3:38 PM

 xviii Memory-based UGC NET Question Paper 2022 - Set 1

30. Given below are two statements: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Statement I: According to Classical Indian Logicians (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(Naiyayikas), the inference from the effect of the (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
cause is called Purvavat. (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Statement II: According to Naiyayikas, the inference 35. Match List I with List II.
of cause from the effect is not possible.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct List I List II
answer from the options given below: Computer Term Definition

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true A. Spyware I. W

 ireless technology used
for transmitting data over
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false short distances
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false B. Firewall II. Software that allows the
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true user to gain information
31. Given below are two statements, one is labeled as about another person’s
computer activity
Assertion A and the other is labeled as Reason R.
C. Bluetooth III. An attack on a network
Assertion A: In computer networking a MODEM is
which involves flooding the
considered as both input and output device. network with useless traffic
Reason R: MODEM sends data (upload/output) and D. Denial of service IV. H
 ardware or software
receives data (download/input) at the same time. designed to protect a
In light of the above statements, choose the correct network by controlling what
answer from the options given below: data can and cannot enter
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct expla-
nation of A Choose the correct answer from the options given

(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct below:
explanation A (a) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II
(c) A is true but R is false (b) A – IV, B – II, C – II, D – I
(d) A is false but R is true (c) A – I, B – IV, C – III, D – III
32. Programs that come into a computer system disguised (d) A – II, B – IV, C – I, D - III
as something else, are called:
36. Which of the following air pollutants is known to be a
(a) Trojan horses (b) Viruses
human carcinogen?
(c) Web bugs (d) Zombies (a) Carbon monoxide
33. You have been instructed to install additional RAM (b) Asbestos fiber
into a computer by your teacher. Identify the correct (c) Nitrogen dioxide
order of the following steps A-C that you should fol- (d) Sulphur dioxide
low to install the RAM safely.
A. Install RAM 37. Which region of India experiences the maximum
B. Isolate computer from the power supply number of cyclones?
C. Connect anti-static strap to wrist (a) East Coast
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(b) West Coast
below: (c) Central India
(a) A, B, C (b) C, A, B (d) Northern India
(c) B, A, C (d) B, C, A
38. Which of the following statements about biodiversity
34. Given below are two statements: are correct?
Statement I: SWAYAM initiative is a significant step A. Biodiversity can support ecosystem stability.
towards providing financial and technical assistance B. Human activities have sharply increased species
to young start-up entrepreneurs. extinctions.
Statement II: The tagline of Digilocker logo says “My C. Habitat fragmentation has no adverse impact on
Documents, Anytime, Anywhere”. biodiversity.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct D. About 70% of all known species are invertebrates.
answer from the options given below:

A01_MADAN 07_65901_FM.indd 18 09/01/23 3:38 PM

 Memory-based UGC NET Question Paper 2022 - Set 1 xix

(a) A, B and C only (c) National Scientists and Social Scientists

(b) A, B and D only Foundation
(c) B, C and D only (d) National Space Science and Society Forum
(d) A, C and D only 44. As per NEP 2020, National Educational Technology
Forum (NETF) will have following functions:
39. Identify the major sources of methane emissions. A. Provide independent evidence–based advice to
A. Landfills B. Mountain rivers central and state government agencies in technol-
C. Paddy fields D. Wetlands ogy–based interventions
Choose the correct answer from the options given
B. Articulate new directions for research and
below: innovation
(a) A, B and C only C. Envision strategic thrust area in the educational
(b) B, C and D only technology domain
(c) A, B and D only D. Develop curriculum for technical courses
(d) A, C and D only E. Build intellectual and institutional capacities in
40. Match List I with List II educational technology
Choose the correct answer from the options given
List I List II
below:
Objectives/Provisions International
Treaties/Agreements
(a) A, B, C and D only
(b) B, C, D and E only
A. Emissions Trading I. Paris Agreement
(c) A, B, C and E only
B. Sustainable Management II. K
 yoto Protocol (d) A, B, D and E only
of Resources
45. The following are the main objectives of curriculum
C. Clean affordable energy III. International Solar revision:
Alliance A. To align it better with vision and mission of the
D. Intended Nationally IV. Rio Summit institution
Determined B. To make it learning outcome based
Contributions
C. To make it more effective in improving attain-
Choose the correct answer from the options given
ment levels against programme outcomes
below: D. To develop capacities of students for competitive
(a) A – II, B – IV, C – I, D – III examination
(b) A – II, B – IV, C – III, D – I E. To meet the expectations of all stakeholder
(c) A – I, B – IV, C – III, D – II Choose the correct answer from the options given
(d) A – I, B – IV, C – II, D - III below:
41. Who is fully credited with the introduction of English (a) A, B, C and D only
education system in India, officially through the nec- (b) A, B, C and E only
essary order issued by Bentinck, the Governor Gen- (c) A, C, D and E only
eral of India on 7th March 1835? (d) B, C, D and E only
(a) Zachary Macaulay 46. Read the given passage carefully and answer the five
(b) Thomas Babington Macaulay questions that follow:
(c) Alexander Duff Many great inventions are initially greeted with ridi-
(d) Charles Trevelyan cule and disbelief. The invention of the airplane was
42. Which University did Xuang Zang and I-Quing visit in no exception. Although many people who heard about
India? the first powered flight on December 17, 1903, were
(a) Nalanda University excited and impressed, others reacted with peals of
(b) Takshashila University laughter. The idea of flying an aircraft was repulsive
to some people. Such people called Wilbur and Orville
(c) Banaras Hindu University
Wright, ‘the inventors of the first flying machine’,
(d) Vikramshila University
impulsive fools. Negative reactions, however, did not
43. NSSF, as envisaged by the National Knowledge Com- stop the Wrights. Impelled by their desire to succeed,
mission, stands for they continued their experiments in aviation.
(a) National Science and Social Science Foundation Orville and Wilbur Wright always had a compel-
(b) National Scientific and Social Science Foundation ling interest in aeronautics and mechanics. As young

A01_MADAN 07_65901_FM.indd 19 09/01/23 3:38 PM

 xx
boys, they earned money by making and selling kites
and mechanical toys. Later, they designed a newspa-
per-folding machine, built a printing press, and oper-
ated a bicycle repair shop. In 1896, when they read
about the death of Otto Lilienthal, the brothers’ inter-
est in flight grew into a compulsion.
Lilienthal, a pioneer in hang-gliding, had con-
trolled his gliders by shifting his body in the desired
direction. This idea was repellent to the Wright broth-
ers, however, they searched for more efficient meth-
ods to control the balance of airborne vehicles. In
1900 and 1901, the Wrights tested numerous glid-
ers and developed control techniques. The brothers’
inability to obtain enough lift power for the gliders
almost led them to abandon their efforts.
After further study, the Wright brothers con-
cluded that the published tables of air pressure on
curved surfaces must be wrong. They set up a wind
tunnel and began a series of experiments with model
wings. Because of their efforts, the old tables were
repealed in time and replaced by the first reliable fig-
ures for air pressure on curved surfaces. This work,
in turn, made it possible for the brothers to design
a machine that would fly. In 1903, the Wrights built
their first airplane, which cost less than $1,000. They
even designed and built their own source of propul-
sion – a lightweight gasoline engine. When they
started the engine on December 17, the airplane pul-
sated wildly before taking off. The plane managed to
stay aloft for 12 seconds, however, and it flew 120
feet.
By 1905, the Wrights had perfected the first air-
plane that could turn, circle, and remain airborne for
A01_MADAN 07_65901_FM.indd 20
Memory-based UGC NET Question Paper 2022 - Set 1
half an hour at a time. Others had flown in balloons
and hang gliders, but the Wright brothers were the
first to build a full-size machine that could fly under
its own power. As the contributors of one of the most
outstanding engineering achievements in history, the
Wright brothers are accurately called the fathers of
aviation.
47. The major interest of Wright brothers was in
(a) Making kites
(b) Producing mechanical toys
(c) Designing newspaper–folding machines
(d) Methods to control airborne vehicles
48. The Wright brothers succeeded in
(a) Testing numerous gliders
(b) Proving previous air pressure tables wrong
(c) Setting up a wind tunnel
(d) Finding desired direction for gliders
49. Which of the following was responsible for the inven-
tion of the first flying machine?
(a) People’s support
(b) Negative reactions of the people
(c) Compelling desire of the inventors
(d) Previous experiments in aviation
50. The Wright brothers were ultimately successful in fly-
ing their plane when they built their own
(a) Air pressure system
(b) Model wings
(c) Gasoline engine
(d) Curved surfaces
09/01/23 3:38 PM
 Memory-based UGC NET Question Paper 2022 - Set 1 xxi

Answer Keys
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (d)
21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (c) 25. (d) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (d) 29. (a) 30. (c)
31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (d) 36. (b) 37. (a) 38. (b) 39. (d) 40. (b)
41. (b) 42. (a) 43. (a) 44. (c) 45. (b) 46. (c) 47. (d) 48. (b) 49. (c) 50. (a)

A01_MADAN 07_65901_FM.indd 21 09/01/23 3:38 PM

 xxii Memory-based UGC NET Question Paper 2022 - Set 1

Hints and Solutions

From the question, it seems that we should try to get basic information first of all by making use of
some direct or shortcut methods. There are multiple options.
State Percentage distribution Absolute number Ratio of Diesel Diesel cars Petrol cars
of cars (Total 1400) of cars and Petrol cars
A. 14% 196 3:4 3/(3 + 4) of 196 = 84 196 – 84 = 112
B. 28% 392 5:9 5/(5 + 9) of 392 = 140 392 – 140 = 252
C. 32% 448 5:3 5/8 × 448 = 280 448 – 280 = 168
D. 26% 364 1:1 364 / (1+1) = 182 182

Basic calculations which apply in all the questions: document business, specifically by Frank and Lillian
14 Gilbreth. They are used in any field such as education,
Cars in State A = 14% of 1400 =
100
× 1400 = 196 business, manufacturing, engineering, architecture,
etc. Few examples have been shown below
Cars in State B = 28% of 1400, that means double of 196
= 2 × 196 = 392 Terminator
Cars in State C = Cars in State B + 4% of 1400 = 392 +
56 = 448
Cars in State D = Cars in State B – 2% of
1400 = 392 – 28 = 364 Process Document
Decision Data
We can take summation of the numbers to see that it
equals 1400
1. (b): The number of diesel engine cars in State
B = 182 Database

The number of petrol engine cars in State D = 140

Difference = 182 – 140 = 42
2. (a): The number of petrol engine cars in State
C = 168
The number of diesel engine cars in State A = 84
Difference = 168 – 84 = 84
84
Percentage difference = 84 × 100 = 100%
3. (d): The number of AC cars in State C = 25% of
280 = 70
The number of non-AC cars = 280 – 70 = 210
4. (d):
The number of total cars in State C = 448
The number of petrol engine cars in State B = 252
The difference = 448 – 252 = 196
5. (c):
The number of Petrol engine cars in all states = 112 +
252 + 168 + 182 = 714
6. (b): A flowchart is a diagram that depicts a process,
system or computer algorithm. It is used for visual
representation of data flow. Flowcharts use rectangles,
ovals, diamonds and potentially numerous other shapes
to define the type of step, along with connecting arrows
to define flow and sequence. Flowcharts were used to
7. (d): Integral Education–The concept of Integral
Education was given by Sri Aurobindo that is based
on the belief that the education of a human being
should begin at birth and continue throughout his
life. The main objective of any kind of education is
to ensure the realization of the inner potential of the
learner. Thus, this concept is quite dynamic and flex-
ible, it takes into account the whole personality of
the learner, through the concept of dealing with the
‘whole child’. This takes into account the individual
curiosity, passion and compassion, and this applies
to all situations in a beautiful manner. There are
integral schools at many places in India as enunci-
ated by Sri Aurobindo and his spiritual companion
Mirra Alfassa – known as mother.
Focus on spiritual aspects of Indian philosophy–
This is associated with Dr. Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan’s
metaphysics that is based on Sankara’s Advaita (non-
dual) Vedanta tradition (sampradaya). He was asso-
ciated with Prasthanatraya (main primary texts of
Vedanta), U ­ panishads, Brahma Sutra, and the Bhaga-
vad Gita. He was greatly influenced by the writings
and work of Swami Vivekananda.
Dr. Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan was actively involved
in the works of UNESCO. He was known for being a
bridge between eastern and western philosophies to

A01_MADAN 07_65901_FM.indd 22 09/01/23 3:38 PM

 Memory-based UGC NET Question Paper 2022 - Set 1
promote world unity and universal fellowship. To Dr
Radhakrishnan – ‘The idea of God is an interpreta-
tion of experience’.
Learning to take place in nature and from nature–
Sri Rabindranath Tagore believed in complete free-
dom of every kind for the students in terms of his
intellectual level, decision making, feelings, knowl-
edge, etc. The independence means normalcy or
the fact of being natural. There should be harmony
between man, God and nature. There is need to prac-
tice equanimity, harmony and balance.
Experiential Learning–In John Dewey’s experien-
tial learning theory, everything occurs within a social
environment. Knowledge is socially constructed and
based on experiences. This knowledge should be
organized in real-life experiences that provide a con-
text for the information. The names of other great per-
sonalities such as David Kolb, Kurt Lewin, and Jean
Piaget can be associated with experiential learning.
8. (b): Every learner (in fact, an individual) is unique. This
also gives rise to the concept of ‘individual differences’.
Every learner has her/his own characteristics. For a
teacher, the individual differences in the form of vari-
ables such as physical characteristics, intelligence, per-
ception, gender, ability, learning styles are important. A
more effective and productive learning-teaching process
can be planned by a teacher with this kind of knowledge.
Assessments are a useful way of maintaining qual-
ity. Assessments assess students’ understanding,
knowledge, and takeaways from the educational
experience. Assessments make learning process more
effective and enhance student development. Usually,
the assessments make use of empirical data.
Summative Assessment–This evaluates the overall
learning of the students at the end of a unit or course.
This assessment compares against some standardized
criteria or benchmark. These are basically formal in
nature which help in awarding a certificate also. This
assessment can be written assessment (writing an orig-
inal piece, such as a narrative or analytical essay), per-
formance assessment (to do an activity or task that will
showcase the abilities of the learners), standardized
assessment (an exam created for a given curriculum)
or oral assessment (such as a speech or presentation).
Formative Assessment–This assessment measures
how a student is learning during a course of study.
The goal is to monitor student learning to provide
ongoing feedback that can be used by instructors to
improve their teaching and by students to improve
their learning. This word can be linked with actual
formation of career of a student in the class.
Diagnostic Assessment–A diagnostic assessment is
an evaluation of a child’s knowledge and skill level
A01_MADAN 07_65901_FM.indd 23
xxiii
of a certain topic. These assessments are done at the
start of the topic to understand how much students
already know about the subject.
Peer Assessment: This assessment provides a struc-
tured learning process for students to critique and
provide feedback to each other on their work. Thus,
students develop lifelong skills. It equips them with
skills to self-assess and improve their own work.
9. (b): e-PG Pathshala–The UGC has launched an e-PG
Pathshala Project for standardizing the textbook mate-
rials for MA, MSc and MCom courses in different uni-
versities of India. In India, e-PG Pathshala is such an
innovation maintained by UGC-INFLIBNET and funded
by Ministry of Education. As part of its National Educa-
tion Mission through ICT (NME-ICT), it is a wide e-learn-
ing platform in terms of its subject material and breadth
of use as well.
On the other hand, Ministry of Education (earlier
MHRD) launched ‘e-pathshala’ web portal to host
educational resources for students, teachers, par-
ents, researchers and educators. This is a single point
repository of e- resources containing NCERT text-
books and various other learning resources.
10. The affective domain is one of the three domains in
Bloom’s Taxonomy. The affective domain as described by
Krathwohl, Bloom, Masia in the year 1973, includes the
manner in which we deal with things emotionally, such
as feelings, values, appreciation, enthusiasms, motiva-
tions, and attitudes. As per question, they have been put
in the following five categories (for future questions):
1. Receiving
(a) awareness of the action
(b) desire to achieve action
(c) controlled attention to action
2. Response (responding)
(a) In response to an agreement
(b) Desire to respond
(c) Response Contentment
3. Evaluation (valuing)
(a) Acceptance of value (valuing)
(b) Priority of value
(c) Commitment
4. Organizing (managing)
(a) Concept of values
(b) Price system organization
5. Specialization
(a) Higher evaluation by peers to do
(b) Normal group
(c) Specialization
In option (b), analysing means dividing a topic into parts
for the sake of understanding and also synthesising
means integrating the parts into a consolidated form.
09/01/23 3:38 PM
 xxiv
These acts relate consistently to an internal
belief. They may articulate a philosophy
or worldview. They break down complex
Characterizing
situations and respond on the basis of our
value system. They improve our lives by a
code of personal behavior.
Organizing
We are motivated to invest our time
and behave in a certain manner
frequently. We begin to identify
with a behavior and commit to that.
Responding
We want to get ready for
the setting or situation.
We give attention by
choice and be ready Receiving/Attending
for a new experience.
11.(d): A variable is any quantity that a researcher is able
to measure in some way. This could be temperature,
height, age, etc. Basically, a variable is anything that
contributes to the outcome or result of your experi-
ment in any way.
Control Variable–A control variable is anything that
is held constant or limited in a research study. It’s a
variable that is not of interest to the study’s aims, but
is controlled because it could influence the outcomes.
For example, one control variable in the plant growth
experiment could be temperature. Assume that this
should be kept uniform at 25° C, so it is the duty of
researcher to keep it at this uniform level.
External variable–These variables are factors that
are not manipulated as part of an experiment, but
they may exert some influence on the dependent vari-
able under study.
Confounding Variable–This is an unmeasured third
variable that ‘confounds’ (or influences) the relation-
ship between an independent and a dependent vari-
able. It actually suggests the p ­ resence of a spurious
correlation. Confounding is a causal concept, and as
such, cannot be described in terms of correlations or
associations.
Controls
Independent Condition A Dependent
Influences
Variable
Condition B
Variable
Confounding
Extraneous
Variables
Controls
source-www.simplypsychology.org
A01_MADAN 07_65901_FM.indd 24
Memory-based UGC NET Question Paper 2022 - Set 1
The values become more systematic. We can
compare and contrast our values and choices.
The values can be ordered and prioritized.
We choose to commit to certain values.
Valuing
We participate willingly and try
to become obedient, and find
satisfaction. We get ready to
participate.
12. (b): Monadic variable is basically used in the sur-
vey research that offers individual concepts to sur-
vey respondents in isolation–one at a time. The
independent findings are required for each stimu-
lus. They provide clear detailed feedback. This is
available with every automated tool. This can be
compared with polyadic variables. In comparison
testing several stimuli are tested simultaneously.
13. (c): There are two kinds of variables-Qualitative and
Quantitative
Qualitative Variables–This is also called as a categor-
ical variable. As the name indicates, it is not numeri-
cal. This describes data that fits into categories. These
are all qualitative variables as they have no natural
order.
The examples are
Skin colours–White, Yellow, Brown, Black
States–Haryana, Punjab, Manipur, Kerala
Quantitative variables–They have a value and they
can be added, subtracted, divided or multiplied.
Now look at the detailed discussion in context of its
disadvantages.
 oo sensitive to context–The main objective of
A. T
qualitative or any kind of research is to connect
with the theme or basic idea. It is basically behav-
ioural in nature.
B. Open To Debate–It is also positive reflection as it
is linked with the transparency.
C. Too subjective–Qualitative can always be some-
what subjective but being too much subjective is
its negative characteristic as the personal view-
point becomes very important.
09/01/23 3:38 PM
 Memory-based UGC NET Question Paper 2022 - Set 1
D.  Difficult to generalise–Though generalisation
is the main objective of any kind of research but
qualitative lacks in that.
E. Issue of replication–There are always less and less
chances of replication so that the generalisation also
becomes difficult. Thus, this can be taken as the dis-
advantage of qualitative research.
14. (a): The word ‘sample’ mostly applies in the case of
research. Thus, the word project can be taken as research
project. Sample helps us in finding the truth or getting
us very close to the truth. Sample size calculation and
determination are imperative to the researcher to deter-
mine the right number of respondents, keeping in mind
the research study’s quality.
The sample is the miniature version of the population
that reflects the desired features. That helps us in sav-
ing time and associated costs.
In qualitative studies, the study is mostly subjective,
and the sample size may have to be kept small as we
want to do their detailed analysis.
Thus, the population size matters, so is the confidence
level (90%, 95% or 99% to reflect upon the accuracy
and confidence of results), the margin of error (confi-
dence interval), standard deviation from mean (also
called as sigma that reflects upon the variability of a
distribution of population) – all these things matter to
a researcher.
Necessary Sample Size = (Z-score)2 * StdDev*(1-
StdDev) / (margin of error)2
The precision of obtaining the results from popula-
tion may ask for changing the sample size. Thus, the
population variability is important. If the popula-
tion is homogeneous, a researcher can manage with
smaller sample and vice versa. We have to determine
if the increased accuracy is more important than the
cost.
There can be probability (random and objective) or
non-probability (non random and more subjective)
sampling techniques.
The choices D and E are not or least important for a
researcher as research should always be objective.
15. (b): Meta-analysis intends to take a quick review
of multiple research studies on basically the same or
closely related problem or issue. combines the results
of multiple scientific studies. It is basically a quanti-
tative, formal, epidemiological study design that is
based on randomized, controlled trials.
Content Analysis–this is basically used in qualitative
studies where the answers may be subjective which
are based on the personal opinion. The language used
by the respondents in the qualitative research (such as
A01_MADAN 07_65901_FM.indd 25
xxv
case studies) may be different and a researcher need
to find the basic idea or description. This is called con-
tent analysis.
Semantic Differential–A semantic differential can
be used for the structuring of attitudes, most likely
in qualitative studies. This survey or questionnaire
rating scale asks people to rate a product, event, or
any ‘entity’ within the frames of a multi-point rating
option. These survey answering options are gram-
matically on opposite adjectives at each end. As they
are opposite to each other on the two ends of a con-
tinuum, this may be called as bipolar adjective.
Social Network Analysis–The dyad definition is the
close relationship of two people over a long period
with many interactions in different settings. The most
basic requirement for dyad sociology is that there are
two members of the group. The dyadic communica-
tion definition pertains to how the two group mem-
bers interact with each other. German sociologist
Georg Simmel studied how group dynamics changed
based on the size of the group.
16. (a): The word effective in communication means that
a message has been sent and received properly with
an understanding. That understanding is reflected
by ‘feedback’. In a classroom, an effective listener is
completely focused and thus tries to resist any kind of
distraction (or noise) that exists in the environment.
Message filtering in communication may actually be
perceived as a communication, as some fact is kept
hidden, distorted or manipulated with an objective to
manage receiver’s reaction. For example, a manager
tries to hide the poor sales figures of his division so
that the receiver (boss) does not get angry.
17. (a): This question is about face to face communica-
tion but different levels have been given by different
authors. In two way communication, the sender of
message gets the feedback from the receiver, that ful-
fils the basic objective of communication. The main
objective of communication is understanding the
message in the intended form.
Our answer is Level 1 as the communication is two
way and Face to Face between two persons. There can
be higher channels as per the channels involved.
The verbal, physical, auditory, emotional and
energetic are also described as the five levels of
communication.
18. (b): Time Sense–This is linked with temporal aspect
linked with culture. Western cultures, even South East
Asia tend to measure their time by the clock, keeping
in view that each activity should have a precise begin-
ning and end that may be termed as linear timing. To
them, the word ‘deadline’ is very important. Western-
09/01/23 3:38 PM
 xxvi
ers also see that time has a limited supply, so they
structure that accordingly.
In India, there is a concept of rebirth (punrjanam), we
assume that if something could not be completed in
this birth, will be completed in next birth. India has
the concepts of satya yug, dwapar yug, treta yug and
kaliyug, according to different time spans and culture
makes a shift accordingly. In most parts of India, Paki-
stan, Bangladesh. etc. a culture is event or personality-
related. The culture also travels if we look at history.
Some practices which were part of Greece travelled
to India and vice versa. Thus, the institutions such as
marraige become institutional.
Level of Gratitude–This is an integral part of cul-
ture According to Robert Emmons as he expressed
in his book Thanks, ‘Gratitude is literally one of the
few things that can measurably change people’s
lives’. Gratitude can improve our health and rela-
tionships—making it one of the most well-studied
and effective ways to increase our well-being in
life. This level of gratitude varies according to our
culture such as India, China, Russia, Japan, Ger-
many, etc. There can be high context, low context,
temporal context, emotive context, directive, phatic
contexts of different cultures which have been men-
tioned in Pearson Unit 3.
They found some similarities across cultures, as well
as some differences—an initial glimpse at how our
early steps toward gratefulness might be shaped by
larger societal forces. There can be Verbal or oral grat-
itude, concrete gratitude (offering toffee, chocolate,
etc) and connective gratitude (offer of friendship or
help, etc).
19. (c): Statement 1–Small group communication refers
to interactions among three or more people who are
connected through a common purpose, mutual influ-
ence, and a shared identity which indicate the rela-
tionship needs. The upper number of a small group is
taken between 15 to 20.
Statement 2–A person who is well informed about
the group’s task and/or highly motivated as a group
member may emerge as a leader and set into motion
internal decision-making processes, such as recruit-
ing new members or assigning group roles, that affect
the structure of a group. Different members will also
gravitate toward different roles within the group and
will advocate for certain procedures and courses of
action over others. External factors such as group
size, task, and resources also affect group structure.
20. (d): The options seem to be very close ones so that we
need to get some idea about all of them.
A. Creation of passive longing for media prod-
ucts–It has the word ‘passive’, otherwise we see
A01_MADAN 07_65901_FM.indd 26
Memory-based UGC NET Question Paper 2022 - Set 1
the media and audience and products for audi-
ence as dynamic and active.
B. Omnivorous devouring of media content –
Here, omnivorous means to consume all kinds
of food and devouring means consuming them.
Omnivorous devouring means that all types of
media content is being taken in, but media has to
show the contents to the audience or public also,
so that it is appreciated (or depreciated).
C. Compensation through identification–Here,
identification means connectivity with the audi-
ence or public so that some kind of rewards
(through advertisements) can be generated.
That is basically being done by YouTube, Face-
book, Instagram, etc. They develop loyalty and
CRM (Customer Relationship Management).
D. Vicarious Wish Fulfilment–Vicarious means a
feeling developed or experienced by watching or
reading about somebody else doing something,
rather than by doing it yourself. An example of
vicarious is when a mother who always wanted
to be a dancer continually pushes her children to
do ballet.
Freud’s most well-known theory, wish fulfilment, is
the idea that when wishes can’t or won’t be fulfilled in
our waking lives, they are carried out in dreams. Even
anxious or punishing dreams have their roots in wish
fulfilment. Freud’s dream theory is rooted in the idea
that we all need a way to express or vicariously fulfil
all of our wishes and desires.
Now, we see that people are led by their dreams and
fantasies. The social media generates the need for
product which were not felt by public till they see
them on social media.
Sources of suggestion for appropriate roles–this point
is vey important. Even the children of today want to
empathize the roles of adult members. This role per-
ception means that they are becoming more assertive
and challenging. They have almost complete access to
media that enables them to challenge the roles being
played by elders.
21. (d): 4 6 12 14 28 30 ….
The numbers are in the order of addition of TWO and
multiplied by TWO
4+2=6
6 × 2 = 12
12 + 2=14
14 × 2=28
28 + 2=30
30 × 2=60
09/01/23 3:38 PM
 Memory-based UGC NET Question Paper 2022 - Set 1 xxvii

22. (a): Given that Universal A All S are P All Birds are
Actual O A M S N E I P C Affirmative Mammals
Word Universal E No S are P No Birds are
Given E C I O P M A N S Negative Mammals
Form Particular I Some S are P Some Birds are
Affirmative Mammals
Accordingly
Particular O Some S are Some Birds are
Given C O M P A N I O N
Word Negative not P Not Mammals

Coded S E I N C P A E P We need to look at traditional square of opposition

and the Truth Table.
Form T F
Thus, (a) is the correct answer. F D
Contrary
23. (a): That means that there are 15 students with below D T A E F F
ranks in the class and Aashman is 16th student from
bottom. Considering his position in the class, there are s
rie
tra
(43 – 16), that is 27 students above him in the class. Sub
Con Sub
Thus, his own position is 28th in the class. alternation ies, alternation
ct or
24. (c): di
ntra
Let the slower pipe alone fill the tank in x minutes. Co
The tank filled by slower pipe in 1 minute = 1/x
T T I O D F
x Sub-Contrary
Then, faster pipe will fill it in 3 minutes. T D
F T
The tank filled by faster pipe in 1 minute = 1/x/3 =

3/x We need to look for separate discussion of contradic-

1 3 1 tories, contraries, sub contraries and sub alternation
∴ x + x = 36
for questions linked with square of opposition.
A E I O
4 1
⇒ x = 36
T F T F
F T F T
⇒ x = 144 minutes
D F T D
25. (d): ATQ, Cost Price of 40 Pens = Marked Price of 36 F D D T
Pens
Now look at the question statement – ‘No Birds

Let the Cost Price of 40 Pens = Marked Price of 36
are Mammals’ is Universal Negative that is E.
Pens = Rs 36
As it is given to be true, come to the second row where
Taking them separately,
A is False–it means that All Birds are Mammals is

Cost Price of 40 Pens = Rs 36
False.
Marked price of 36 pens = Rs 36
I is False–it means that Some Birds are Mammals is

Marked Price of 40 Pens = Rs 40 False
Discount is 1% on Marked Price. O is True–Some Birds are Not Mammals is True

Discount = 1% of Rs 40 = 40 paise
Thus, as per question A, B and D are part of answer.
Selling Price = Rs 40 – 40 Paise = Rs 39.60 Thus, option B is the correct answer.
Thus Profit = Rs 39.60 – Rs 36 = Rs 3.60 27. (a): Ad Populum: This can also be termed as ‘Appeal
Profit Percentage = 3.60 / 36 × 100 = 10% to Popularity’. This argument supports a position by
26. (b): As we know, a categorical statement lines up appealing to the shared opinion of a large group of
two distinct categories or classes against one another, people such as the majority, the general public.
measuring degrees of comparison, and makes an In this statement, a housemaker, XYZ Home Finance
assertion about the categories. This always involves a appeals to be like a family member and thus, to fulfil
subject term and a predicate term: the need to have your own sweet home – most likely

A01_MADAN 07_65901_FM.indd 27 09/01/23 3:38 PM

 xxviii
by financing through maximum finance, compara-
tively less rate of interest, long duration and easy to
pay system of Equated Monthly Instalments (EMIs).
28. (d): Statement I–‘Some S is P’ belongs to ‘I-category’
AND ‘Some S is not P’ belongs to ‘O-category’. That
has been explained in the explanation given under
question 26.
By looking at first diagram in question 26, we can say
that I and O are sub-contrary to each other, they are
not contrary to each other. So, Statement I is a false
statement.
Statement II–Again, ‘Some S is/are not P’ is a ‘O-cat-
egory’ statement and ‘All S is P’ is a ‘A-category’
statement. As given in square of opposition diagram,
both O and A are contradictory to each other. Thus,
Statement II is a true statement.
Thus, (d) is the correct answer.
29. (a): Statement I–The anumana is basically about
attaining inferential knowledge. That is further linked
with invariable concomitance or vyapti. Thus, the anu-
mana is based on syllogistic inference that is basically
invariable concomitance (vyapti) between middle
term and major term. Concomitance means the fact of
existing or occurring together with something else.
Thus, we are basically concerned with the definition
of Vyapti that is the non-presence of middle term
(hetu) in the locus of the non-existence of the major
term (sadhya). Vyapti is an invariable and uncon-
ditional relation between the middle term and the
major term.
For example, the hill is full of fire because it is full
of smoke. Here, smoke which is the middle term is
absent from all regions outside the region of fire (the
major term).
Statement II–Vyapti may also be defined as the co-
presence of the middle term with the major term
when there is no condition attached to the middle
term. Vyapti is the possession of that nature which
establishes the connection of the middle term with
the major term.
We can show the relation between minor term
(paksh), middle term (hetu) and major term (sad-
hya) with the help of following diagram.
Paksha Hetu Sadhya
Minor Term Middle Term Major Term
(Mountain) (Reason) vyapya (Fire) vyapaka
Characteristic- (smoke) Factum factum
linga probans probandum
30. (c): Anumana is knowledge that is obtained after
a proof. Anumana is not a direct knowledge but it
A01_MADAN 07_65901_FM.indd 28
Memory-based UGC NET Question Paper 2022 - Set 1
is obtained after some perception, testimony, etc.
According to question, we can discuss the following
three aspects.
1.  Purvavat–This is basically cause to effect rela-
tionship. This can also be termed as unperceived
effect from a perceived cause, thus the perceived
cause comes first and thereafter, the unperceived
effect (anuman). For example, we can infer the
future rain from a present dark clouds.
2. Sesavat–An inference in which the unperceived
cause is known from a perceived effect. For
example, we come to know about the rain from a
muddy flow of water in the river.
3. Samanyatodrasta Anumana–There are many
universal positions in this world such as different
positions of moon around the earth. From these,
we can draw inferences.
31. (a): MODEM functions as both – input and output
device. MODEM is a contraction of two words - MOdulator
/ DEModulator which functions simultaneously.
1. When sending communications out of the net-
work, the modem converts (modulates) a digital
signal into an analog signal for transmission over
analog media such as cable or telephone line.
2. When signals are coming into the modem from
the internet, it converts (demodulates) the analog
signal back to a digital signal for transmission on
the local network.
32. (a):
A. Trojan Horse–This is a type of malware that dis-
guises itself as legitimate code or software. Once
they get inside the network, these attackers are
able to carry out any action that a legitimate user
could perform, such as exporting files, modify-
ing data, deleting files or otherwise altering the
contents of the device.
B. Virus–A computer virus is a type of computer
program that, when executed, replicates itself by
modifying other computer programs and insert-
ing its own code. If this replication succeeds, the
affected areas are then said to be “infected” with a
computer virus, a metaphor derived from biologi-
cal viruses.
C. Web bug–This is also known as a Web beacon, is
a file object that is placed on a Web page or in an
e-mail message to monitor user behaviour.
D. Zombies–This is actually a computer connected
to the Internet that has been compromised by a
hacker via a computer virus, computer worm, or
trojan horse program and can be used to perform
malicious tasks under the remote direction of the
hacker.
09/01/23 3:38 PM
 Memory-based UGC NET Question Paper 2022 - Set 1
33. (d): B, C, A is the correct answer.
Random Access Memory (RAM) – This is essentially
a short term memory where data is stored as the pro-
cessor needs it.
Anti-static Strap – This is a key piece of safety gear
that helps to prevent the build up of static electricity
near sensitive electronics or other projects where static
charge could damage electronics or cause safety issues.
34. (b): Statement 1–Let’s look at some basics which
have been offered officially.
SWAYAM is basically Study Webs of Active-Learn-
ing for Young Aspiring Minds that is part of MOOC
Platform. It was developed indigenously by AICTE
in 2016 to facilitate hosting of online courses which
could be accessed by anyone, anywhere at any time
free of cost. The main objective is to achieve access,
equity and quality in context of education. This covers
subjects from high school onwards till higher educa-
tion including Skill based courses to ensure that every
student benefits from learning material through ICT.
The courses hosted on SWAYAM are in 4 quadrants
– video lectures, specially prepared reading material
that can be downloaded/printed, self-assessment
tests through tests and quizzes and an online discus-
sion forum for clearing the doubts. The objective is to
make system inclusive by using audio-video, multi-
media and state of the art pedagogy/ technology.
Statement 2–DigiLocker is basically linked with good
governance. This Indian digitization online service is
provided by Ministry of Electronics and Information
Technology (MeitY) under Digital India initiative.
This intends to provide services to every Aadhaar
holder for accessing driving license, vehicle registra-
tion, academic mark sheet in digital format from the
original issuers of these certificates. It also provides
1GB storage space for the same.
The structure of DigiLocker includes My Certificates
(digital and uploaded documents), My Profile, My
Issuer, My Requester and Directories.
35. (d):
A. Spyware – This malicious software enters our
computer device, gathers data, and forwards it to
a third-party without our consent. This legitimate
software monitors our data for commercial pur-
poses like advertising.
B. Firewall – A Firewall in a computer system is basi-
cally a network security system which controls
the flow of data between two or more networks,
and manages the links between the networks. A
firewall can consist of both hardware and soft-
ware elements. The examples are router (physical
firewall), anti virus, Java (software firewall).
A01_MADAN 07_65901_FM.indd 29
xxix
C. Bluetooth – This is a short-range wireless tech-
nology standard that is used for exchanging data
between fixed and mobile devices over short dis-
tances and building personal area networks.
D. A Denial of Service – This form of attack is
meant to shut down a machine or network,
making it inaccessible to its intended users.
36. (b): Asbestos was nicknamed “the magic mineral”
as it has unique chemical and physical properties.
The asbestos is used in thousands of products and
industries such as roofing, thermal and electrical
insulation, cement pipe and sheets, flooring, plas-
tics, textiles, paper, etc. Tiny asbestos fibres collect
in the lungs. Asbestos causes mesothelioma, that is
a relatively rare cancer of the thin membranes that
line the chest and abdomen. It causes cancers of the
lung, larynx and ovary. Mesothelioma treatments
include surgery, radiation and chemotherapy.
Asbestosis causes permanent lung damage. In Pleu-
ral effusions, fluid collects around the lungs.
Asbestos deposits are found in Andhra Pradesh, Bihar,
Jharkhand, Karnataka, Rajasthan and Manipur.
37. (a): The occurrence of cyclones is a sea linked phe-
nomena so there are no chances of its origin from
Northern and Central India. It originates in the seas
due to low air pressure conditions. The East coast
receives cyclones not only from those that originated
in Andaman Sea but also from the Pacific Ocean
(typhoons). For transfer of typhoons, there is no big
land mass to stop this. The Bay of Bengal receives
more rainfall in comparison to west coast. The winds
are slower and weaker over the ocean. This part is also
fed by rivers Ganga and Brahmaputra.
The surface sea temperature and humidity also play
an important part. The average temperature is around
28°C that is intensified by warm air currents.
Odisha state suffers the most from cyclones. The ratio
between cyclones from east coasts and west coasts is
4:1.
The tropical cyclones are less in west coast due to dry
air intrusion as dry winds flow from west to east. The
Arabian Peninsula is already dry. There is a strong
wind shear which hampers cyclone development.
The naming of cyclones is done in a schematic manner
by World Meteorological Organisation (WMO) that
was set up in the year 1950, the roots of which were
planted at the 1873 Vienna International Meteorolog-
ical Congress. WMO maintains rotating lists of names
which are appropriate for each Tropical Cyclone
basin. If a cyclone is particularly deadly or costly, then
its name is retired and replaced by another one.
09/01/23 3:38 PM
 xxx
38. (b):
A. Greater biodiversity in ecosystems, species, and
individuals leads to greater stability. For exam-
ple, species with high genetic diversity and many
populations that are adapted to a wide variety
of conditions are more likely to be able to with-
stand weather disturbances, disease, and climate
change. In other words, the two key compo-
nents of ecosystem stability are resilience and
resistance. Resistance is an ecosystem’s ability
to remain stable when confronted with a distur-
bance. Resilience is the speed at which an ecosys-
tem recovers from a disturbance.
B. Extinction is the death of all members of a species
of plants, animals, or other organisms. The three
types of extinction are mass extinction, back-
ground extinction, and human led extinction.
Earth could lose 16% of its species if the average
global temperature rise exceeds 4.3 °C.
Human activities in the form of anthropogenic
activities are basically human interference. The
main modern causes of extinction are the urban-
isation, industrialisation, loss and degradation
of habitat (mainly deforestation), over exploita-
tion (hunting, overfishing), invasive species, cli-
mate change, and nitrogen pollution. Our global
food system is the primary driver of biodiversity
loss, with agriculture alone being the identified
threat to 24,000 of the 28,000 (86%) species at
risk of extinction.
C. Habitat fragmentation actually leads to with-
drawal of support systems to many other species
which put their survival at stake.
D.
Vertebrates Invertebrates
69, 276 species 1,305,250
species
Flowering
Plants
Fungi &
268, 000
Protists
species
52, 280 species
Invertebrates are central to the functioning of ecosys-
tems, and are important part of biodiversity, yet they
are underappreciated and understudied. The Red List
A01_MADAN 07_65901_FM.indd 30
Memory-based UGC NET Question Paper 2022 - Set 1
of Threatened Species of the International Union for
Conservation of Nature (IUCN) is an important ref-
erence for the threat of species, but it is still heavily
biased towards vertebrates, with invertebrates being
particularly underrepresented.
39. (d): Landfills–Landfill gases produced during bio-
logical degradation of buried organic wastes include
methane, which when released to the atmosphere,
can contribute to global climate change. This can be
taken as a part of manure management.
Methane is the second-most abundant greenhouse
gas in the atmosphere, after carbon dioxide.
According to the IPCC, more than 40 per cent of meth-
ane emissions come from farms or are an outcome of
peatland destruction. A quarter of the global emissions
are products of agriculture and land-use changes. The
pledge by more than 80 nations, helped by the US and
EU, to cut emissions of this GHG (greenhouse gas) by
30 per cent is, therefore, an important step in global
warming mitigation efforts. Methane is 80 times
more powerful than carbon dioxide in its first 20
years in the atmosphere. While much of the conten-
tious aspects of curbing emissions of this GHG pertain
to agriculture, the oil and gas industry — especially
natural gas, whose popularity as a relatively cleaner
fossil fuel has led to a 50 per cent increase in its use in
the past 10 years — is the second-highest emitter of
this gas.
THE EMISSIONS SHARE
Manufacturing Industrial
Industries and Transport processes Enteric
Construction (13%) and product fermentation
(18%) use (8%) (54.6%)
Agricultural
soils (19%)
Waste (3%) Rice
cultivation
Agriculture (17.5%)
(14%) Manure
management
Electricity (6.9%)
production
(44%) Crop residue
burning
(2.1%)
Global Methane Pledge–During Glasgow COP meet-
ing, US and EU floated the idea of Global Methane
Pledge so as to contribute towards global tempera-
ture rise limit to 1.5°C. Participants joining the Pledge
agree to take voluntary actions to contribute to a col-
lective effort to reduce global methane emissions
at least 30 percent from 2020 levels by 2030, which
could eliminate over 0.2˚C warming by 2050. This is
a global pledge, and not a national reduction target.
Russia, India and China have not signed the Global
Methane Pledge.
09/01/23 3:38 PM
 Memory-based UGC NET Question Paper 2022 - Set 1
40. (b):
A. Emission Trading – Kyoto Protocol – This proto-
col was adopted in Kyoto, Japan, on 11 December
1997 and entered into force on 16 February
2005. The main objective of Kyoto Protocol was
to reduce the emission of gases. This was put into
practice by committing industrialized countries
and economies in transition to limit and reduce
greenhouse gases (GHG) emissions. The follow-
ing were the key objectives of Kyoto Protocol.
1. International Emissions Trading
2. Clean Development Mechanism (CDM)
3. Joint implementation (JI)
There were annexed nations for the purpose of
reduction of gases. The key concept was ‘com-
mon but differentiated responsibilities’ (CBDR).

The main GHGs were Carbon dioxide (CO2),
Methane (CH4), Nitrous oxide (N2O), Hydro-
fluorocarbons (HFCs), Perfluorocarbons (PFCs);
and Sulphur hexafluoride (SF6).
B. Sustainable Management of Resources – Rio
Summit (1992) - Agenda 21 of Rio Summit
(1992) talked about it. The ‘Earth Summit’ con-
cluded that the concept of sustainable develop-
ment was an attainable goal for all the people of
the world, regardless of whether they were at the
local, national, regional or international level. It
also recognized that integrating and balancing
economic, social and environmental concerns in
meeting our needs is vital for sustaining human
life on the planet and that such an integrated
approach is possible.
C. Clean Affordable Energy – International Solar
Alliance (ISA) – ISA is a treaty based inter-gov-
ernmental organization working to create a global
market system to tap the benefits of solar power
and promote clean energy applications. This was
primarily promoted by India and France. It was
started in 30 November 2015.
D. Intended Nationally Determined Contributions
– Paris Agreement – This agreement was adopted
in 2015. They are essence of the Paris Agreement
so that they can facilitate the achievement of
long-term objectives of emission reduction, bet-
ter energy measures, forest resources, etc. INDCs
embody efforts by each country to reduce national
emissions and adapt to the impacts of climate
change.
The long term objective is to hold the increase in
global average temperature to well below 2°C, to
pursue efforts to limit the increase to 1.5°C, and to
achieve net zero emissions in the second half of this
century. We can get the basic idea of revised goals by
A01_MADAN 07_65901_FM.indd 31
xxxi
studying Conference of Parties 26th Meet at Glasgow
in 2021.
41. (b): On this day in 1835, Thomas Babington Macaulay
successfully westernised education in India; English
was made the official language for the government
and courts, and was adopted as the official medium
of instruction. This point is specifically important in
Macaulay Minutes - ‘We must at present do our best
to form a class of persons, Indian in blood and col-
our, but English in taste, in opinions, in morals and in
intellect’.
42. (a): Nalanda University is the correct answer. Nal-
anda is an ancient center of higher learning in Bihar
from 427 to 1197. Nalanda was established in the 5th
century AD in Bihar, India.
A new Nalanda University has been recently devel-
oped in Bihar in 2010.
Xuan Zang (or call him Hiuen Tsang) visited Nalanda
University in 7th century. He stayed and travelled in
India for sixteen years. He translated Buddhist scrip-
tures. He also studied logic, Sanskrit grammar, Yogac-
ara in India. He opposed Samkhya and Vaiseshika
that he found to be opposing Budhhist philosophy.
According to I-Quing, there were followers of both
“vehicles” - Hinayana and Mahayana. Northern India
and most of the islands of the South Seas (such as
Sumatra, Java – parts of present Indonesia) practiced
– –
Hi nayana. The Buddhists in China and Malayu prac-
– –
ticed Maha yana.
1. For future questions, note that Fa-Hien was the
first Chinese traveller to visit India in the early
fifth century. The purpose of his visit was to look
for texts sacred to Buddhism.
2. Taxila university was one of the oldest universi-
ties of the world.
3. Nalanda University is a public central/union uni-
versity located in Rajgir in Nalanda district in the
state of Bihar. It is designated as an Institute of
National Importance (INI) and excellence. This
international university is supported by 18 mem-
ber countries was established by an Act of the
Indian Parliament in 2010. The President of India
serves as the Visitor to Nalanda University.
43. (a): National Knowledge Commission (NKC) was con-
structed in 2006 as a high-level advisory body to the
Prime Minister of India, with the objective of trans-
forming India into a knowledge society. It was brain
child of Sam Pitroda. NKC submitted around 300
recommendations on 27 focus areas. NKC focused
on five key areas of the knowledge paradigm – access
to knowledge, knowledge concepts, knowledge crea-
tion, knowledge application and development of bet-
09/01/23 3:38 PM
 xxxii
ter knowledge services.
NKC has recommended setting up of a National Sci-
ence and Social Science Foundation (NSSF) for pro-
ducing research work that can fetch a Nobel Prize for
an Indian scientist.
44. (c): National Education Policy, 2020 envisages the
setting up of an autonomous body – National Edu-
cational Technology Forum (NETF) to provide a
platform for free exchange of ideas on the use of tech-
nology to enhance learning, assessment, planning,
administration and so on, both for School and Higher
Education.
Aim of NETF: The aim of the NETF will be to facili-
tate decision making on the induction, deployment
and use of technology by providing to the leadership
of education institutions, State and Central Govern-
ments and other stakeholders the latest knowledge
and research as well as the opportunity to consult and
share best practices. The NETF will have following
functions:
1. To provide independent evidence-based advice to
Central and State Government agencies on tech-
nology-based interventions.
2. To build intellectual and institutional capacities
in education technology.
3. To envision strategic thrust areas in this domain.
4. To articulate new directions for research and
innovation.
5. To lay down standards of content, technology,
and pedagogy for online/digital teaching-learn-
ing. These standards will help to formulate guide-
lines for e-learning by States, Boards, Schools,
HEIs, etc.
6. To maintain regular flow of authentic data from
multiple sources including educational technol-
ogy innovators and will engage with diverse set
of researchers to analyse the data.
7. To conduct multiple regional and national con-
ferences, workshops, etc. to solicit inputs from
national and international educational technol-
ogy researchers, entrepreneurs, and practitioners.
8. To identify technological interventions for the
purpose of improving teaching-learning and eval-
uation process, supporting teacher preparation
and professional development, enhancing educa-
tional access, and streamlining educational plan-
ning, management, and administration including
process related to admissions, attendance, assess-
ments, etc.
A01_MADAN 07_65901_FM.indd 32
Memory-based UGC NET Question Paper 2022 - Set 1
9. To categorize emergent technologies based on
their potential and estimated frame for disrup-
tion, and periodically present this analysis to
Ministry of Education.
In July, 2021, the Prime Minister stated that
National Digital Education Architecture (NDEAR)
and National Education Technology Forum
(NETF) would be working to make digital and
economic framework across the country.
Let us look at the few other initiatives started by
Government of India in education sector.
Academic Bank of Credit: This aims to pro-
vide multiple entry and exit options for stu-
dents in Higher education and also the first year
Engineering Programmes in Regional Languages
and Guidelines for Internationalization of Higher
Education.
Vidya Pravesh: The initiative is a three-month
play-based school preparation module for Grade
1 students.
Indian Sign Language: The Indian Sign
Language has been launched as a subject at the
secondary level.
NISHTHA 2.0: This is an integrated programme
of teacher training designed by NCERT.
SAFAL (Structured Assessment For Analyzing
Learning Levels): SAFAL is a competency-based
assessment framework, which has been launched
for Grades 3, 5 and 8 in CBSE schools.
Artificial Intelligence Website: A website dedi-
cated to Artificial Intelligence has also been
launched.
45. (b): Curriculum revision means to modify the existing
curriculum using data from the review. Review and
revision are important because they enable teachers
to consider the ways curriculum interacts with actual
students in a real teaching learning environment. The
vision and mission also undergo a change. The social,
political, economic and above all the philosophical
environment are always at a change so as to make
teaching learning process more effective. Thus, there
are different stakeholders. The demands of industry
also change, so that the curriculum produces more
outcome-based citizens.
46. (c)
47. (d)
48. (b)
49. (c)
50. (a)
09/01/23 3:38 PM
 Memory-based UGC NET
Question Paper 2022 - Set 2 *
INSTRUCTIONS
Time Allowed: 1 hour  50 × 2 = 100 Marks

1. This paper consists of Fifty (50) objective type questions of Two (2) marks each.
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. Each item has four alternative responses marked (a), (b), (c) and (d). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the
correct response against each item.
Example: a b c d where (c) is the correct response.
4. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Sheet given at the end of the book.
5. Read instructions provided with each question carefully.
6. There are no negative marks for incorrect answers.

Directions for questions 1 to 5: The following table 3. The number of overweight men in the year 2021 was
presents data about the number of men, women and chil- what percent of the number of men who were not
dren and percentage (%) of overweight men, overweight overweight in the same year?
women and overweight children in a city during the last (a) 55% (b) 60%
six years from 2016 to 2021.
(c) 50.5% (d) 65.5%
Year-wise Distribution of Population in a city
4. What was the difference between the number of over-
Number of Percentage (%) of weight women and overweight children together in
Year Overweight the year 2018 and the number of overweight men in
Men Women Children Men Women Children the same year?
(a) 150 (b) 450
2016 27000 19000 7500 15% 36% 30%
(c) 345 (d) 865
2017 37500 32000 10500 7% 35% 28%
5. What was the ratio of the number of overweight
2018 31500 30000 6000 30% 25% 35%
women in the year 2018 to the number of overweight
2019 33000 27000 8000 16% 30% 30% men in the year 2020?
2020 35000 34000 10000 12% 27% 32% (a) 6 : 7 (b) 21 : 65
2021 39000 37500 22500 37.50% 22% 36% (c) 15 : 73 (d) 25 : 14
6. Which of the following are the principal components
1. What was the total number of children who were not of the CPU of a computer system?
overweight in the year 2016 and 2017 together? A. ALU (Arithmetic-Logic Unit)
(a) 4530 (b) 4350 B. CU (Control Unit)
(c) 12810 (d) 14820 C. Processor Registers
2. What was the average of the number of men, women D. SSD (Solid-State Drive)
and children who were overweight in the year E. VRAM (Video RAM)
2019? Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) 4812 (b) 5016 (a) A, B and D only (b) A, B and C only
(c) 5395 (d) 5260 (c) C, D and E only (d) B, C and D only
*The 2022 Question paper set contains memory-based questions, lawfully curated solely by the author relying upon the memory of past attending
candidates of the 2022 NTA-UGC examination. The copyright in the original question papers is owned and vested with the concerned owners and
Pearson does not claim any ownership in such copyright. The answers to these questions have also been solely developed by the author herein, and
Pearson shall not be liable for any claims arising out of usage/accuracy of the content herein”.

A01_MADAN 07_65901_FM.indd 33 09/01/23 3:38 PM

 xxxiv Memory-based UGC NET Question Paper 2022 - Set 2

7. Which among the following pesticides would have the 14. Given below are two statements.
least chance of bioaccumulation in food chains? Statement I: The new system of communication has
(a) Chlordane (b) Aldrin facilitated the emergence of an interactive society.
(c) Carbaryl (d) Endrin Statement II: The new system of communication is
8. In a certain code, ‘467’ means ‘leaves are green’, ‘485’ digital and has integrated multiple modes of commu-
means ‘green is good’ and ‘639’ means ‘they are play- nication through networks.
ing’, Which digit stands for ‘leaves’ in that code? In light of the above statements, choose the
(a) 6 (b) 7 correct answer from the options given below
(c) 4 (d) 9 (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
9. According to the revised Bloom’s taxonomy, which of
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
the following categories is considered to be highest
for the learner? (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(a) Understand (b) Apply 15. Which of the following have been considered as threat
(c) Analyse (d) Create to internal validity in research?
A. Randomisation B. Generalisability
10. Consider the following spreadsheet:
C. Maturation D. History
A B C E. Instrumentation
1 4 3
Choose the correct answer from the options given

2 5 2 below:
3 7 (a) A, B and C only (b) B, C and D only
4 8 9 (c) C, D and E only (d) A, B and E only
5 9 16. Some of the most notable universities that evolved
6 during ancient period in India were situated at:
A. Takshashila B. Vikramshila
If the formula = $A$3 + B2 in tell C4 is- copied to cell
C. Jagaddala D. Odantapuri
C5, then what is the value in cell C5? E. Nalanda
(a) 9 (b) 8 Choose the correct answer from’ the options given below:

(c) 7 (d) 17 (a) A, B, C, D and E (b) A, B and E only
11. Dynamic approach to teaching means (c) A, B, C and E only (d) A, B, D and E only
(a) Teaching should be lecture based. 17. Which of the following is not an essential component
(b) Teachers should be energetic. required for video-conferencing system?
(c) Teachers should be student friendly. (a) Video Camera (b) Display Device
(d) Students should learn through activities. (c) Telephone (d) Microphone
12. Suggestions for communication with people from dif- 18. The average age of students, in a class was 15 years,
ferent cultures can be: When 5 new boys whose average age was 12 years 6
A. Emphasise your interpretation months were admitted in the class, the average age
B. Forget your own cultural identity was reduced by 6 months. How many students were
C. Promote an eco-system of mutual respect there in the class originally?
D. Know the cultural context of other people (a) 15 (b) 20
E. Always state facts (c) 18 (d) 16
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
19. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as
(a) A, B and C only (b) C, D and E only Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
(c) B, C and E only (d) A, D and E only Assertion A: MOOCs on the SWAYAM portal can be
13. A wise sage has said, ‘The hunger for knowledge is used for earning upto 40% credits per semester by
more difficult to remove than the hunger for food, students.
Therefore, one should stick to the food,’ Which fallacy Reason R: All MOOCs on the SWAYAM portal are
is committed in this argument? credit-based MOOCs.
(a) Begging the Question In light of the above statements, choose the correct
(b) False Dilemma answer from the options given below
(c) Ignoratio elenchi (irrelevant conclusion) (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct expla-
(d) Appeal to Emotion nation of A

A01_MADAN 07_65901_FM.indd 34 09/01/23 3:38 PM

 Memory-based UGC NET Question Paper 2022 - Set 2 xxxv

(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct (c) Physical noise
explanation of A (d) Symbolic representaion
(c) A is true but R is false. 27. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of a good
(d) A is false but R is true question paper?
20. Given below are two statements. (a) Objectivity (b) Subjectivity
Statement I: An ethical framework of sustainable (c) Reliability (d) Validation
development provides normative guidance regarding 28. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as
our relationship with environment. Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Statement II: Anthropocentric model is misleading Assertion A: According to classical Indian Logicians
as evident from its environmental consequences. (Naiyayikas), all fallacies are material fallacies.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct Reason R: According to Nyaya, Syllogism is deduc-
answer from the options given below: tive-inductive and formal-material.
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true In light of the above statements, choose the
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false correct answer from the options given below
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct expla-
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true nation of A
21. Number of bacteria in a container doubles in every one (b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
minute, If the container gets completely filled with explanation of A
bacteria in 30 minutes, then in how many minutes (c) A is true but R is false
1/4th of the container shall be filled with bacteria? (d) A is false but R is true
(a) 15 minutes (b) 16 minutes 29. If the statement ‘Some plants are not carnivorous’ is
(c) 28 minutes (d) 25 minutes given as false, then which of the following could be
22. SWAYAM tries to take the best teaching-learning immediately inferred from it?
resources to all students through A. ‘Some plants are carnivorous’ is true
(a) Seminars (b) Video lectures B. ‘Some plants are carnivorous’ is false
(c) Classroom teaching (d) Conferences C. ‘No plants are carnivorous’ is false
23. ‘We should value the Moon more than the Sun because D. ‘All plants are carnivorous’ is true
the Moon shines when it is dark whereas Sun shines Choose the correct answer from the options given

when there is light anyway,’ This statement commits below:
the fallacy of (a) B, C and D only (b) A and D only
(a) Appeal to Emotion (b) Fallacy of False Cause (c) A and C only (d) A C and D only
(c) False Dilemma (d) Equivocation 30. Given below are two statements
24. The term ‘Hermeneutics’ is drawn from Statement I: The qualitative data are powerful
(a) Sociology (b) Theology because they are collected from very sensitive social,
(c) Anthropology (d) Economics historical and temporal context
Statement II: Context sensitivity cannot be com-
25. Which among the following hazards can occur due to
pletely removed from the qualitative data.
anthropogenic causes?
A. Cyclones In light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below
B. Nuclear Disaster
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
C. Floods
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
D. Volcanoes
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
E. Forest Fires
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Choose the correct answer from the options given

31. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as
below:
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
(a) A, B and D only (b) B, C and D only
Assertion A: Most cyclones cause widespread dam-
(c) B, D and E only (d) B, C and E only
age in coastal area.
26. In face-to-face communication, the non-verbal cues Reason R: Energy of most cyclones increases after
provided by the receiver, can be considered as landfall.
(a) Feedback In light of the above statements, choose the correct
(b) Decoding answer from the options given below:

A01_MADAN 07_65901_FM.indd 35 09/01/23 3:38 PM

 xxxvi Memory-based UGC NET Question Paper 2022 - Set 2

(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct

(a) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV
explanation of A (b) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct (c) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II
explanation of A (d) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III
(c) A is correct but R is not correct 37. Which of the following is NOT correct regarding
(d) A is not correct but R is correct Digilocker, a key initiative under ‘Digital India pro-
32. In pursuance of the National Council of Teacher Edu- gramme of Government of India?
cation Act,1993, NCTE was established in the year: (a) Indian citizens who sign up for a Digilocker
(a) 1995 (b) 1993 account get a dedicated cloud storage space that
(c) 1994 (d) 1996 is limited to their Aadhar number.
(b) It aims to eliminate the use of physical documents
33. Arrange the following water bodies in increasing and provide access to their digital documents
order of the quantity of freshwater they hold: anytime, anywhere and share it online.
A. Ice and snow (c) Citizens can self-upload documents and digitally
B. Freshwater lakes and reservoirs sign them using the e-sign facility.
C. Groundwater (d) The slogan of Digilocker is ‘My documents,
D. Rivers and streams Anytime, Anywhere.’
Choose the correct answer from the options-given
38. Find the missing number in the series:
below 2, 10, 30, 68, 130, 222, ?
(a) D, B, C, A (b) B, C, D, A (a) 350 (b) 352
(c) B, D, A, C (d) D, B, A, C (c) 194 (d) 104
34. Historical research has the limitation of 39. Communication compatibility between individuals is
(a) Problem identification rooted in
(b) Analytical synthesis (a) Stewardship (b) Interest in media
(c) Universal generalisation (c) Empathy (d) External influence
(d) Probable conclusions 40. Following are the characteristics of Non-Conventional
learning:
35. Which of the following is envisaged in the Sustainable A. It is teacher oriented.
Development Goals? B. It is for improvement of quality.
(a) By 2020, conserve at least 50% of coastal and C. It is cost effective.
marine areas. D. It is linked to employment.
(b) By 2030, reduce by one-third of the per capita E. It is on campus.
global food waste at the retail and consumer Choose the correct answer from the options given
levels. below:
(c) By 2030, double the global rate of improvement (a) A, B and C only (b) B, C and D only
in energy efficiency. (c) A, C and D only (d) C, D and E only
(d) By 2030, reduce by one-fifth the premature mor- 41. Certain number of birds are sitting on two trees A and
tality from non-communicable diseases. B. Birds sitting on tree A, tell to the birds sitting on
tree B, that if 2 birds from tree B shift to the tree A
36. Match List I with List II
then we are equal in number, However, the birds sit-
List I List II ting on tree B, tell those sitting on A that if two birds
Research Perspective Discipline from your side (tree A) shift to our side (tree B), then
A. Phenomenology I. Anthropology
we become double than you (tree A). How many birds
are sitting on the two trees A and B, respectively?
B. Ethnography II. Sociology (a) 8,1 2 (b) 10,14
C. Ethnomethodology III. Social psychology (c) 14,10 (d) 5, 7
D. Symbolic interactionism IV. Philosophy 42. Which of the following are the advantages of grape-
vine communication?
Choose the correct answer from the options given

A. Smooth float of adverse comments
below:
b. Knowing the morale in the organisation

A01_MADAN 07_65901_FM.indd 36 09/01/23 3:38 PM

 Memory-based UGC NET Question Paper 2022 - Set 2 xxxvii

C. Spead of propagandist views Together with her husband, Pierre, she discovered
D. To know the important issues faced by the radium, an element widely used for treating can-
employees cer, and studied uranium and other radioactive
E. Assessment of employee anxities substances. Pierre and Marie’s amicable collabora-
Choose the correct answer from the options given tion later helped to unlock the secrets of the atom.
below: Together with her husband Pierre, she was awarded
(a) A, B and C only (b) B, C and D only the Noble Prize for Physics in 1903.
(c) D, C and E only (d) B, D and E only Marie was born in Warsaw, Poland on 7 November

43. Which of the following statements are true regarding 1867, the daughter of a Physics teacher. At an early
Nyaya (Classical Indian School of Logic) view of hetra – age, she displayed a brilliant mind and a blithe per-
–
bhasa (fallacy) sonality. Her great exuberance for learning prompted
A. It means that middle term appears to be a her to continue with her studies after high school. She
reason but is not a valid reason. became disgruntled, however, when she learned that
B. All fallacies are material fallacies. the university in Warsaw was closed to women. Deter-
C. When an inference is based not on causation but mined to receive a higher education, she defiantly left
on uniformity of co-existence, it leads to a fallacy. Poland and in 1891 entered the Sorbonne, a French
D. Fallacies occur when any of the five characteris- University, where she earned her master’s degree and
tics of a middlle term are violated. doctorate in Physics.
Choose the correct answer from the options given Marie was fortunate to have studied at the Sorbonne

below: with some of the greatest scientists of her day, one of
(a) A, B and C only (b) A, B and D only whom was Pierre Curie. Marie and Pierre were mar-
(c) B, C and D only (d) A, B, C and D ried in 1895 and spent many productive years work-
ing together in the physics laboratory. A short time
44. Many computer users are worried about malware.
after they discovered radium, Pierre was killed by a
Which of the following are two examples of malware?
horse-drawn wagon in 1906. Marie was stunned by
A. Firewall B. Worm
the horrible misfortune and endured heartbreaking
C. Router D. Virus
anguish. Despondently she recalled their close rela-
Choose the correct answer from the options given
tionship and the joy that they had shared in scientific
below:
research. The fact that that she had two young daugh-
(a) A and C only (b) A and B only
ters to raise by herself greatly increased her distress.
(c) B and D only (d) C and D only
Curie’s feeling of desolation finally began to fade when
45. Match List I with List II
she was asked to succeed her husband as a Physics
List I List II professor at the Sorbonne. She was the first woman to
Concepts Main in Proponent be given a professorship at the world-famous univer-
A. Self-education through I. Sri Aurobindo sity. She received her second Noble Prize in Chemistry
development of individuality for isolating radium, in 1911. Curie’s eldest daughter,
B. Integral education II. Mahatma Gandhi Irene, was herself a scientist and winner of the Noble
C. Education to transform III. Maria Prize for Chemistry.
human mind Montessori
Although Marie Curie eventually suffered a fatal ill-
D. Basic education (Wardha IV. J. Krishnamurti
Education System)
ness from her long term exposure to radium, she
never became disillusioned about her work. Regard-
Choose the correct answer from the options given
less of the consequences, she had dedicated herself to
below: science and to revealing the mysteries of the physical
(a) A – I, B – III, C – IV, D – II world.
(b) A – III, B – I, C – II, D – IV 46. At what age did Marie Curie receive her first Nobel
(c) A – III, B – I, C – IV, D – II prize?
(d) A – I, B – IV, C – II, D – III (a) 36 years (a) 46 years
(b) 56 years (c) 44 years

Read the given passage and answer the questions
that follow: 47. After how many years of her marriage did Marie Curie
lose her husband?
Marie Curie was a Polish-born physicist and chem-

(a) 11 years (b) 39 years
ist and one of the most famous scientists of her time.
(c) 28 years (d) 6 years

A01_MADAN 07_65901_FM.indd 37 09/01/23 3:38 PM

 xxxviii Memory-based UGC NET Question Paper 2022 - Set 2

48. The passage shows Marie Curie to be a great scientist 50. What made Marie Curie study at Sorbonne University?
who (a) University in Warsaw did not allow her admission.
(a) was amiable in nature. (b) She wanted to work with Pierre Curie.
(b) had indomitable spirit and dedication to science. (c) She wanted to work on Radium.
(c) was emotionally vulnerable. (d) She did not enjoy learning at an early age in
(d) became disillusioned after her husband’s death. Warsaw.
49. Which of the following elements is widely used in
treatment of Cancer?
(a) Uranium (b) Radium
(c) Thorium (d) Plutonium

Answer Keys
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (c)
11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (a)
21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (b) 25. (d) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (a) 29. (d) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (a) 34. (c) 35. (c) 36. (d) 37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (b)
41. (b) 42. (d) 43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (a) 47. (a) 48. (b) 49. (b) 50. (a)

A01_MADAN 07_65901_FM.indd 38 09/01/23 3:38 PM

 Memory-based UGC NET Question Paper 2022 - Set 2
Hints and Solutions
1. (c): The percentage of children who were not over-
weight in 2016 = 100 – 30 = 70%
Their number = 70/100 × 7500 = 5250
The percentage of children who were not overweight
in 2017 = 100 – 28 = 72%
Their number = 72/100 × 10500 = 7560
The total number = 5250 + 7560 = 12810
Thus, (c) is the correct answer.
2. (d): For the year 2019
Number of overweight men = 16% of 33000 =
16/100 × 33000 = 5280
Number of overweight women = 30% of 27000 =
30/100 × 27000 = 8100
Number of overweight children = 30% of 8000 =
30/100 × 8000 = 2400
The total of above three = 5280 + 8100 + 2400 =
15780
Their average = 15780 / 3 = 5260
Thus (d) is the right answer.
3. (b): If we assume that total number of men in 2021
was 100
Then the number of overweight men = 37.5
The number of not overweight men = 100 – 37.5 =
62.5
The required percentage = 37.5 / 62.5 × 100 = 3 / 5
× 100 = 60%
Thus, (b) is the correct answer
4. (a): For the year 2018
The number of overweight women = 25% of 30000 =
25/100 × 30000 = 7500
The number of overweight children = 35% of 6000 =
35 /100 × 6000 = 2100
The total of overweight men and women = 7500 +
2100 = 9600
The number of overweight men = 30% of 31500 =
30/100 × 31500 = 9450
The required difference = 9600 – 9450 = 150
5. (d): The required ratio between overweight women
in 2018 and number of overweight men in 2020
= 25% of 30000 : 12% of 35000
= 750 : 420
= 25 : 14
Thus, (d) is the correct answer.
A01_MADAN 07_65901_FM.indd 39
xxxix
6. (b): Central Processing Unit (CPU): This part of a
computer is comprised with digital circuits called
arithmetic logic units (ALU) that are capable of per-
forming billions of arithmetic and logic operations
every second.
ALU is a digital circuit used to perform arithmetic and
logic operations. This makes the fundamental build-
ing block of the CPU of a system. The modern CPUs
contain powerful and complex ALUs.
Control Unit (CU) - Modern CPUs contain a CU, in
addition to ALUs. CU tells the ALU what operation is
to be performed on the data. ALU stores the result in
an output register. CU moves the data between these
registers, the ALU, and memory.
Process Registers – ALUs load data from input regis-
ters. A register is a small amount of storage available
as part of a CPU.
The information in a computer is stored and manipu-
lated in the form of binary numbers, i.e. 0 and 1 which
are managed by Transistor switches which are open or
closed.
CPU
Control
Unit Instructions
Processor
Registers
Input
Combinational
Output
Logic
Main
Memory
Block diagram of a basic computer with uniprocessor
CPU. Black lines indicate data flow, whereas red lines
indicate control flow. Arrows indicate the direction of
flow.
7. (c): Bioaccumulation describes the accumulation and
enrichment of contaminants in organisms, relative to
that in the environment. Bioaccumulation is the net
result of all uptake and loss processes. Uptakes are
respiratory and dietary. Loss happens by egestion,
passive diffusion, metabolism, transfer to offspring
and growth.
8. (b): ‘Leaves are Green’ and ‘Green is Good’ are coded
by 467 and 485, respectively. The word Green is there
in both sentences and so is 4. Thus, ‘Green’ is indi-
09/01/23 3:38 PM
 xl
cated by 4 ………..(1)
Similarly, in ‘Leaves are Green’ and ‘They are play-
ing’, coded by 467 and 639 respectively, the word
‘are’ is common. Their codes also have 6 in com-
mon……………..(2)
Comparing (1) and (2) and Leaves are Green with
each other, we can say that leaves are indicated by 7.
Thus, (b) is the right answer.
9. (d): There are different phases of human learning:
1. Cognitive - knowing, or head
2. Affective - emotions, feelings, or heart and
3. Psychomotor - doing, or kinesthetic, tactile, hap-
tic or hand/body
Bloom’s Cognitive Taxonomy in 1956 had remained
an essential element in teacher training. The updated
version was done by Anderson and Krathwohl in
2001. Affective skills were added in 1961 by David
Krathwohl.
1956 2001
Higher Level
Evaluation
Create
Synthesis Evaluate
Analysis Analyze
Application Apply
Comprehension Understand
Knowledge Remember
Lower Level Noun to verb Form
The revised taxonomy has these elements –
1. Remember - Recognizing and Recalling
2. Understand - Interpreting, Exemplifying,
Classifying, Summarizing, Inferring, Comparing,
Explaining
3. Apply - Executing, Implementing
4. Analyze - Differentiating, Organizing, Attributing
5. Evaluate - Checking, Critiquing
6. Create - Generating, Planning, Producing
10. (c): In a spreadsheet application, whenever a cell with
a formula is copied over to another cell, any cell refer-
ences in the formula will shift as per the relative shift
in the references of the copied cell and its destination.
The above behaviour can be explicitly disabled by
using the ‘$’ character before the column letter or row
number or both in the cell references in a formula.
We can take a look at what happens to the formula in
cells C3 and D2, when they are copied over from C2.
Example 1 - C2 contain the formula ‘= A2 + B2’
A01_MADAN 07_65901_FM.indd 40
Memory-based UGC NET Question Paper 2022 - Set 2
1. C3 will get the formula ‘= A3 + B3’
2. D2 will get the formula ‘= B2 + C2’
Example 2 - C2 contain the formula ‘= $A2 + B$2’
1. C3 will get the formula ‘= $A3 + B$2’
2. D2 will get the formula ‘= $A2 + C$2’
In the above example, the column A in the first refer-
ence and row number 2 in the second reference were
made absolute using the ‘$’ sign in the original for-
mula of cell C2. Thus, when C2 was copied over to
C3 and D2, the absolute part of both cell references
didn’t change in the formula.
In the given question, the value of the formula in cell
C4 is ‘= $A$3 + B2’. When this formula is copied over
to the cell C5, its value would become ‘= $A$3 + B3’,
as per the behaviour laid out above. Thus, value of C5
comes out to be 7.
11.(d): Learning allows us to make sense of the world
around us, the world inside of us, and where we fit
within the world. The life and society have become
very complex, the situations are diverse, we have to
deal with new situations every time. Thus, engage-
ment of students in different activities is very
important so that there is wholesome development
of personality. Education helps us get exposure to
new ideas and concepts.
12. (b):
A. Emphasize your interpretation approach indi-
cates that we may be highly subjective. It is not
relevant as we have to deal with open and diverse
society. The globalization has happened all
around. This type of approach also indicates the
feeling of ‘ethnocentrism’.
B. Forgetting your own culture means that we as a
culture are not participating so that establishing
contact with others may not be fruitful.
C. An ecosystem of mutual respect creates the feel-
ing of trust so that one culture can communicate
better with other cultures.
D. Knowing the cultural context of other people pro-
motes the feeling of ‘cultural relativism’, so that
we emphasize that every culture is equally impor-
tant. This helps in better communication with
other cultures.
E. Stating facts means that we believe in transpar-
ency and trustworthiness. We are not hiding
anything.
Thus, (b) is the correct answer.
13. (c): Ignoratio elenchi, is also called as ‘ignorance
of the refutation’. Refute means overthrow by argu-
ment, evidence, or prove to be false or incorrect or
controvert. It is broadly defined as any incorrect
09/01/23 3:38 PM
 Memory-based UGC NET Question Paper 2022 - Set 2
argument which reaches an evidentially irrelevant
conclusion. Historically, the fallacy is also more
NARROWLY defined as a counterargument to an
argument which does not attempt to prove the con-
tradictory of what was intended to be proved.
In this statement, hunger of knowledge and hunger
of food are narrowly linked, without any substantial
value. Practically, it functions as a ‘catch-all’ category.
The Traditional Form of Ignoratio Elenchi (fallacy of
irrelevancy) is occurring here whenever the conclu-
sion of an argument is irrelevant to its premises. The
fallacy of non sequitur is often identified with this
version.
14. (a): Both statements are true.
Statement 1 - Here, we can speak about three mod-
els of communication – linear, transactional and
interactive.
The linear model is transmission of communication -
mostly one way communication. So, called as trans-
mission model of communication.
Transactional Model takes into account social and
relational aspects and thus social context.
Interactive Models talk about channel (the way mes-
sages are sent and received), field of experience, phys-
ical context and psychological context. We can take
the examples of social media, interactive and online
marketing, user generated contents, chat rooms etc.
for interactive communication. We always look for
immediate feedback. Here, the communication is
a process where participants alternate positions as
sender and receiver and generate meaning by send-
ing messages and receiving feedback within physical
and psychological contexts.
1. The continuous feedback is the main element in
interactive communication. We are quickly able
to understand if a message is received or under-
stood. WhatsApp may be taken as an example.
2. There are continuous updates and communica-
tion with audiences.
3. There is more transparency in our interactive
communication.
4. There are additional alignment opportunities.
That was it seems to be extrovert as well.
5. We can share information with large audiences.
For statement 2 - The interested candidates may look
for Bloom Taxonomy once again that comes for digital
iconic communication.
15. (c): Internal validity is concerned with correctly con-
cluding that an independent variable and not some
extraneous variable is responsible for a change in the
dependent variable.
A01_MADAN 07_65901_FM.indd 41
xli
External validity refers to the generalizability and
also to randomisation of the treatment/condition
outcomes.
A. Randomisation - We need unbiased and objec-
tive in our research, and randomisation helps in
that. In simple terms, randomization eliminates
predictability. It follows the theory of probability.
This removes the possibility of any kind of human
interruption by the researcher. Randomization
eliminates accidental bias, including selection
bias.
Assume that a teacher has to select 10 students
out of 100 for a research purpose, they can be
any ten. Everyone in the class stands 1/100
chance of selection which are equal for anyone.
This equal chance of being selected is called as
randomisation.
B. Generalisation – It means that results of a
research study are applicable to the outer world.
That is called as the external validity.
C. Maturation – The processes within subjects act
as a function of the passage of time. This happens
when study is conducted on people which are
base of research findings. If that element changes
over a period of time, it threatens the internal
validity of the research.
D. History – This refers to any event other than
the ‘independent variable’. History--the specific
events which occur between the first and second
measurement.
E. Instrumentation – The reliability of the instru-
ment used to gauge the dependent variable or
manipulate the independent variable may change
in the course of an experiment. Thus, internal
validity may be threatened.
Both A and B facilitate the objectivity, unbiasedness
and validity of research. The question is about the
threat to internal validity in research. In this case,
these factors also matter for future questions.
1. Testing - first test affecting the subsequent tests
2. Statistical regression - candidates with extreme
scores, for example, choosing the poorest or the
most intelligent students in the class
3. Experimental mortality - that is the loss of
subjects
4. Selection of subjects - the biases which may
result in selection of comparison groups.
Randomisation can help in minimisation of this
effect.
When the sample size is small, randomization may
lead to Simpson Paradox. Similarly, the students can
study John Henry effect for additional knowledge
09/01/23 3:38 PM
 xlii
that is not conducive to internal validity.
The NET aspirants may remember the following
aspects which apply on external validity for future
questions.
1. Reactive or interaction effect of testing
2. Interaction effects of selection biases and the
experimental variable
3. Reactive effects of experimental arrangements
4. Multiple treatment interference
16. (a): All these universities are actually ancient uni-
versities. India is one of the oldest civilizations in the
world. It was a centre for higher learning in ancient
times. India contributed greatly to the field of Math-
ematics, Astrology, Astronomy, and other sciences.
Vedic science was so advanced that it could be com-
pared with the present day’s scientific inventions.
Taxila university was one of the oldest universities of
the world but that was not completely centralized.
The government has tried to revive the concept of
Nalanda University in Bihar.
17. (c): With video conferencing we can conduct meet-
ings in two or more locations by audio and video trans-
mission. VC specifically uses web cameras, display
devices, microphones (for voice communication),
high-speed Internet connectivity and personal com-
puters. With VC, those who participate in the meeting
can see, hear and speak to one another, regardless of
their geographical location. This is useful, can be used
both in home and business.
During recent times, the availability of cloud-based
services has facilitated the to – do video conferenc-
ing with minimal upfront investment. Now there is
advantage of rapidly emerging Artificial Intelligence
(AI) powered features to improve both the audio and
video performance.
18. (b): Let the original number of students = X
Average age = Total age / Number of students
Total original age = 15X years
New total age = 15X + 5(12.5) = 15X + 62.5 years =
15X + 125/2
New number of students = X + 5
New average age = 15 years – 6 months = 14.5 years
= 29/2 years
New average age = 29/2 = (15X + 125/2) / (X + 5)
29/2 (X + 5) = 15X + 125/2
29X + 145 = 30X + 125
X = 145 – 125 = 20
Thus, the original number of students was 20.
Thus (2) is the correct answer.
A01_MADAN 07_65901_FM.indd 42
Memory-based UGC NET Question Paper 2022 - Set 2
19. (c): Assertion (A): According to government sources,
courses offered through SWAYAM (Study Webs of
Active Learning for Young Aspiring Minds) are fully
recognized and eligible for credit transfer as per the
UGC (Credit Framework for Online Learning Courses
through Study Webs of Active Learning for Young
Aspiring Minds) Regulations, 2021. These regula-
tions, now facilitate an institution to allow upto 40%
of the total courses being offered in a particular pro-
gramme in a semester, through the online learning
courses offered through the SWAYAM platform. The
credits/marks obtained by the candidate enrolled in
universities for SWAYAM Certificate will be counted in
the transcript of the candidate, only if the University
has adopted MOOCs (Massive Open Online Course)
offered on SWAYAM Platform for Credit Transfer as
per the UGC (Credit Framework for Online Learning
Courses through Study Webs of Active Learning for
Young Aspiring Minds) Regulations, 2021.
Reason (R): SWAYAM is a part of MOOC. SWAYAM is
India’s own MOOCs platform, which offers free online
courses on almost all the discipline to students/
learners. The objective is to ensure access to the best
teaching learning resources to all, including the most
disadvantaged. The courses delivered on SWAYAM
are expected to reduce the digital divide by providing
access to best content to all. These courses are devel-
oped by reputed teachers in the country and available
free of cost. By integrating SWAYAM MOOCs with
conventional education the learning outcomes of the
students are expected to improve in coming days.
20. (a): Statement 1 – The agenda of sustainable devel-
opment is being carried forward with the help of
Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) which aim
to bring peace and prosperity to all people by 2030.
They started in the year 2015. This Agenda is a plan of
action for people, planet and prosperity. It also seeks
to strengthen universal peace in larger freedom. Ear-
lier there were Millennium Development Goals which
were set for a period between 2000 to 2015.
There are the 17 SDGs which are an urgent call for
action by all countries - developed and developing.
In simple terms, sustainable development means
integrating the economic, social and environmental
objectives of society, in order to maximise human
well-being in the present, without compromising the
ability of future generations to meet their needs.
Statement 2 – Anthropogenic model is the root cause
for taking sustainable development agenda more seri-
ously. Anthropogenic activities is the human interrup-
tion in nature for the sake of development to make the
human life comfortable but these activities bring mis-
ery also in the form of pollution, hazards etc. We need
to have a look at the following diagram.
09/01/23 3:38 PM
 Memory-based UGC NET Question Paper 2022 - Set 2
Forest and other Fires
New species of
cultivated plants
Genetic Modification (GM) Anthropogenic Activities contributing
to Environmental Degradation
Variety of Pollutants
Increase in Food intake
21. (c): The correct answer is (c).
If the container is completely filled with bacteria in 30
minutes, then at the end of 29 minutes, it was filed by
half.
If we move back to 28 minutes, it was filled by ¼ th.
22. (b): According to www.swayam.gov.in - SWAYAM
conducts programmes through a platform that facil-
itates hosting of all the courses, taught in the class-
rooms from Class 9 till post-graduation to be accessed
by anyone, anywhere at any time. All the courses are
interactive, prepared by the best teachers in the coun-
try and are available, free of cost to any learner. More
than 1,000 specially chosen faculty and teachers from
across the country have participated in preparing
these courses.
The courses hosted on SWAYAM are in 4 quadrants
1. video lecture
2. specially prepared reading material that can be
downloaded/printed
3. self-assessment tests through tests and quizzes
and
4. an online discussion forum for clearing the
doubts. Steps have been taken to enrich the learn-
ing experience by using audio-video and multi-
media and state of the art pedagogy / technology.
For future questions - In order to ensure that best
quality content is produced and delivered, nine
National Coordinators have been appointed. They are
the following
1. AICTE (All India Council for Technical Education)
for self-paced and international courses
2.  NPTEL (National Programme on Technology
Enhanced Learning) for Engineering
A01_MADAN 07_65901_FM.indd 43
xliii
Unsustainable
deforestations
Constructions (Concretization)
Unplanned Waste Management
3.  UGC (University Grants Commission) for non
technical post-graduation education
4. CEC (Consortium for Educational Communication)
for under-graduate education
5. NCERT (National Council of Educational
Research and Training) for school education
6. NIOS (National Institute of Open Schooling) for
school education
7. IGNOU (Indira Gandhi National Open University)
for out-of-school students
8. IIMB (Indian Institute of Management,
Bangalore) for management studies
9. NITTTR (National Institute of Technical Teachers
Training and Research) for Teacher Training
programme
23. (b): The fallacy of false cause (non causa pro causa)
mislocates the cause of one phenomenon in another
that is only seemingly related. The example taken in
the question statement are very much natural. The
moon is able to shine during the night as it gets light
from sun that is reflected back.
24. (b): Hermeneutics is the art of understanding and
interpretation of texts, specifically religious ones.
Hermeneutics is philosophical and theological in
nature. The history of hermeneutics stretches across
epochs, methods and all the disciplines in the human-
ities, social sciences, and even the natural sciences. It
can be identified with four major strands: conserva-
tive, critical, radical, and moderate.
Sociology is linked with society, groups and social insti-
tutions. Anthropology is the study of human beings
in its entirety. Economics deals with wealth related
issues in the form of micro and macro- economics.
09/01/23 3:38 PM
 xliv
25. (d): Anthropogenic means human interruption in
environment for the sake of development. It is basi-
cally based on environment possibilism so that
humans are to determine which way the environment
should go. Earlier there was concept of environmen-
tal determinism that said that ultimately the environ-
ment should decide its own way.
We need to look at all the events.
Cyclones – They are linked with sea water tem-
perature and pressure conditions. The more about
cyclones has been discussed in the earlier paper. The
frequency of cyclones has increased during recent
decades.
Nuclear Disasters – In a major nuclear disaster, a
reactor core is damaged and significant amounts of
radioactive isotopes are released which may result
in loss of lakhs of lives. The major such examples are
Chernobyl disaster in 1986 and Fukushima nuclear
disaster in 2011. The largest nuclear power plant in
Europe, the Zaporizhzhia Nuclear Power Plant, is
located in Ukraine, and has been a major flashpoint
for nuclear disaster.
Floods – The frequency of floods has increased during
the recent times as the natural way of water has been
disrupted due to concretization of natural resources
in the form of buildings, roads, factories etc. Defor-
estation has happened in a big way. There are more
and more flash floods which cause more destruction.
Volcanoes – They erupt from within the earth as per
the temperature and pressure conditions of the earth,
so anthropogenic activities do not play any role in it.
Forest Fires – That is basically burning of forest trees
on a massive scale.
26. (a): Let’s discuss the main aspects of communication
and feedback.
Communication is the main source of interaction
between people by which they share their ideas,
and thoughts with each other. Communication is
important in every aspect of life. The communica-
tion can be verbal, nonverbal or through by the use
of sign language or body language. Feedback can be
referred as ‘fed-back’. Feedback means that response
is generated.
Feedback can be in the form of non-verbal cues pro-
vided by the receiver. Thus, feedback fulfils the basic
objective of two-way communication. The importance
of feedback can be gauzed from the following facts.
1. The element of feedback should always be there
to make the communication effective.
2. Feedback is effective listening.
3. Feedback can motivate.
4. Feedback can improve performance.
5. Feedback is a tool for continued learning.
A01_MADAN 07_65901_FM.indd 44
Memory-based UGC NET Question Paper 2022 - Set 2
The feedback can be of following types:
1. Negative feedback: It reflects about mistakes,
errors during the process of communication, the
areas which have not been understood properly
and improvements required.
2. Positive feedback: There is proper understand-
ing of the message conveyed by sender.
3. Negative feedforward: These are basically cor-
rective comments about future behaviour of the
work and communication.
4. Positive feedforward: These affirm about the
future events.
27. (b): The question papers are made with the perspec-
tive of evaluation and assessment of candidates.
Objectivity – This can be taken as the main element
of a good question paper. They should be constructed
for the sake of qualifying an exam or the ranking of
candidates.
Subjectivity – This means that question paper setter
may be biased so that a particular set of candidates
get benefited from this.
Reliability – This refers to the consistency of a meas-
ure (whether the results can be reproduced under the
same conditions).
Validition – This refers to the accuracy of a measure
(whether the results really do represent what they are
supposed to measure).
From a research perspective, objectivity, reliability
and validity are important characteristics.
28. (a): Material Fallacies
There are five characteristics of a valid middle term;
they are as following:
1. Paksadharmata - The must be present in the
minor term. For example, smoke must be present
in the hill.
2. Sapaksasattva - It must be present in all positive
instances in which the major terms are present.
For example, the smoke must be present in the
kitchen where fire exists.
3. Vipaksasattva - It must be absent in all nega-
tive instances in which the major terms is absent.
For example smoke must be absent in the lake in
which fire does not exist.
4. Abadhita - It must be non-incompatible with the
minor term. For example, it must not prove the
coolness of fire.
5. Aviruddha - It must be qualified by the absence
of counteracting reasons which lead to a contra-
dictory conclusion. For example, ‘the fact of being
caused’ should not be used to prove the ‘eternal-
ity’ of sound.
Whenever, one of these characteristics is violated, the
fallacies take its place. It also says that the validity of
09/01/23 3:38 PM
 Memory-based UGC NET Question Paper 2022 - Set 2 xlv

an inference depends on the validity of hetu or rea- Similarly E as False, that is option C is a part of answer.
son. It is because of this fact that Naiyayikas consider A as True, that is option D is also part of answer.
fallacies of inference as fallacies of the reason (hetv-
That means that A, C and D are part of answer. Thus
abhasa). Fallacies of inference thus are all MATERIAL
overall, (d) is the answer.
fallacies.
30. (a): Statement I – Qualitative data is powerful as the
Fallacies of reason are of five types – Asiddha, Savyab-
most of this is to be collected from human resources
hichara, Satpratipaksha, Badhita and Virudha. They
whose behaviour is always complex and dynamic.
have been discussed as the last topic in Unit 6 of Pear-
Even the social context is so dynamic and changeable.
son book.
The behavioural context may even change from one
Material fallacies are also known as fallacies of point of time to another. Qualitative data is basically
presumption, because the premises ‘presume’ too non numeric, and it holds conceptual information.
much—they either covertly assume the conclusion or We use their feedback or response to capture their
avoid the issue in view. themes and patterns. The answering research ques-
Reason – The Nyaya system is formal and is deduc- tions is difficult. Thus, the whole scene is based on
tive-inductive can be understood through the follow- sensitive social, historical and temporal (time based)
ing example context.
(For such fallacies, we can refer to the last topic of Statement II – Obtaining right kind of information
discussion in Unit 6.) in a set of complex situations through customer inter-
29. (d): This question is quite similar to question number views, surveys, and feedback. Context sensitivity
26 in the previously solved pervious year paper. This takes the surroundings into consideration while plan-
is the basic information ning for the research. It takes into account community
values and assets.
Universal A All S are P All Birds are
Affirmative Mammals
We can look at the following types of approaches to
deal with the qualitative data so that we get the right
Universal E No S are P No Birds are
kind of information. This may be useful for the future
Negative Mammals
questions.
Particular I Some S are P Some Birds are
Affirmative Mammals 1. Content analysis – This element examines and
Particular O Some S are Some Birds are quantifies the presence of certain words, subjects,
Negative not P Not Mammals and concepts in text, image, video, or audio mes-
sages. The method transforms qualitative input
Now look at the question statement – ‘Some plants
into quantitative data to help you make reliable
are not carnivorous’, that is basically O – type. This is conclusions. This can be used for quantitative
given to be false. data as well.
A. ‘some plants are carnivorous’ denotes I-type – 2. Thematic analysis – This can only be applied to
given to be True in question. qualitative data, and focuses on identifying pat-
B. ‘some plants are carnivorous’ again denotes I- terns and ‘themes’. This can be done with innova-
type – given to be False tive tools such as Dovetail and Thematic.
C. No plants are carnivorous E-type – given to be 3. Narrative analysis – This method used to inter-
False pret research participants’ stories—things like
D. All plants are carnivorous denotes A-type – given testimonials, case studies, interviews, and other
to be True text or visual data.
4. Grounded theory analysis – This is a method of
A E I O
conducting qualitative research to develop theo-
T F T F ries by examining real-world data.
F T F T 5. Discourse analysis – This is the act of research-
D F T D ing the underlying meaning of qualitative data. It
F D D T involves the observation of texts, audio, and vid-
eos to study the relationships between the infor-
If O-type is false, then looking horizontally, we can
mation and its context.
say that 31. (c): Assertion – Cyclones cause an amazing rise in
I-type is True – that denotes that option A is a part of
the sea level. Cyclones are composite phenomena,
answer. consisting of winds, multiple storm waves, storm

A01_MADAN 07_65901_FM.indd 45 09/01/23 3:38 PM

 xlvi
surges (which generally last from several hours up to
a day) and inland flooding generated by heavy rain-
fall. This inland flooding often causes more fatalities
than the wind. Cyclones generally cause massive
erosion or deposition – both long- and cross-shore.
The forestations and green belts such as mangroves
usually protect us from the damage.
Reason – There are four stages of a cyclone - Forma-
tive Stage, Immature Stage, Mature Stage and Decay-
ing Stage.
A landfall happens when the centre of the storm
moves across the coast. It often carries heavy winds,
lashing rains, increasing sea level that can pose threat
to people living in the neighbouring region.
Once a cyclone makes landfall, it gets separated from
its ocean energy sources. When tropical cyclones
reach a land surface, they begin to lose their energy
and die out. This is because they are no longer receiv-
ing heat energy and moisture from the ocean, which
is needed to drive them.
32. (a): The National Council for Technical Educa-
tion was enacted in 1993 and was set up in 1995.
According to Government sources - the main objec-
tive of the NCTE is to achieve planned and coordi-
nated development of the teacher education system
throughout the country, the regulation and proper
maintenance of Norms and Standards in the teacher
education system and for matters connected there-
with. It includes the whole gamut of teacher educa-
tion programmes including research and training of
persons for equipping them to teach at pre-primary,
primary, secondary and senior secondary stages in
schools, and non-formal education, part-time edu-
cation, adult education and distance (correspond-
ence) education courses.
33. (a): Earth is known as ‘Water Planet’, as our planet
has more water than land.
1. In reality, less than three percent of Earth’s water
is fresh water, and most of that three percent is
inaccessible.
2. Over 68 percent of the FRESH WATER on Earth is
found in ice and snow (including glaciers).
3. Almost 30 percent of FRESH WATER is found in
ground water.
3. Only about 0.3 percent of FRESH WATER is found
in the surface water of lakes, rivers, and swamps.
4. In totality, more than 99 percent of Earth’s water
is unusable by humans and many other living
things.
As the question is in the form of increasing quantity,
(a) is the correct answer.
34. (c): Historical research is basically a descriptive study,
which mostly is a qualitative study.
A01_MADAN 07_65901_FM.indd 46
Memory-based UGC NET Question Paper 2022 - Set 2
The problem identification is the first thing that
should be done in any research. So, this can be taken
as the main objective.
Analytical synthesis means first probing all the
aspects of research study and then integrating them
in a desirable manner.
Universal Generalisation is an act of reasoning that
involves drawing broad inferences from particular
observations. It is widely-acknowledged as a qual-
ity standard in quantitative research. The chances of
generalisation are limited in qualitative research.
35. (c):
Energy is the golden thread that connects economic
growth, increased social equity, and environmental
sustainability that allows the world to thrive. The
indicator for Energy Intensity is in terms of total pri-
mary energy supply and GDP at PPP.
Under target number 7 of Sustainable Development
Goals, we need to double the global rate of improve-
ment in energy efficiency by the year 2030.
36. (d): Phenomenology - This is a qualitative research
approach that seeks to understand and describe the
universal essence of a phenomenon. The approach
investigates the everyday experiences of human
beings while suspending the researchers’ precon-
ceived assumptions about the phenomenon.
Ethnography – In this qualitative research, a
researcher or an ethnographer study a particular
social/cultural group with the aim to understand it
better. They actively participate in the group in order
to gain an insider’s perspective of the group. He may
try to get the equivalent experience that is similar to
the group members. There are experiences relating
to process, participation, data collection, interviews,
and the analysis of documents and artifacts.
Ethnomethodology – This is the study of how social
order is produced in and through processes of social
interaction. It generally seeks to provide an alterna-
tive to mainstream sociological approaches.
Symbolic interactionism – This counsels us that a
complex social situation like triangulated research
involves much more than simply forging a rational
design among fairly like-minded colleagues, since
participants must work hard to create a working,
shared understanding of their research.
37. (d): According to Government sources - DigiLocker
is a flagship initiative of Ministry of Electronics & IT
(MeitY) under Digital India programme. DigiLocker
aims at ‘Digital Empowerment’ of citizen by providing
access to authentic digital documents to citizen’s digi-
tal document wallet. The issued documents in Dig-
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 Memory-based UGC NET Question Paper 2022 - Set 2
iLocker system are deemed to be at par with original
physical documents as per Rule 9A of the Information
Technology (Preservation and Retention of Informa-
tion by Intermediaries providing Digital Locker facili-
ties) Rules, 2016 notified on February 8, 2017 vide
G.S.R. 711(E).
Benefits to Citizens
1. Important Documents Anytime, Anywhere!
2.  Authentic Documents, Legally at Par with
Originals.
3. Digital Document Exchange with the consent of
the citizen.
4.  Faster service Delivery- Government Benefits,
40. (b): Non Conventional Learning Programmes-
Employment, Financial Inclusion, Education,
Health.
Benefits to Agencies
Reduced Administrative Overhead: Aimed at the
concept of paperless governance. It reduces the
administrative overhead by minimizing the use of
paper and curtailing the verification process.
Digital Transformation: Provides trusted issued doc-
uments. Issued Documents available via DigiLocker
are fetched in real-time directly from the issuing
agency.
Secure Document Gateway: Acts as a secure docu-
ment exchange platform like payment gateway
between trusted issuer and trusted Requester/Verifier
with the consent of the citizen.
Real Time Verification: Provides a verification mod-
ule enabling government agencies to verify data
directly from issuers after obtaining user consent.
38. (a): We will use the formula: N3 + 1 where N is 1, 2,
3, 4, …………
41. (b): Let the number of birds on Tree A = A
13 + 1 = 2
23 + 2 = 10
33 + 3 = 30
43 + 4 = 68
53 + 5 = 130
63 + 6 = 222
73 + 7 = 350
Thus, (a) is the correct answer.
39. (c): The natural ability to live or work together in
harmony because of well-matched characteristics is
called as compatibility between individuals.
(a) Stewardship is an ethical value that embodies
the responsible planning and management of
resources.
A01_MADAN 07_65901_FM.indd 47
xlvii
(b) Interest in media for two individuals may not
develop in compatibility. Between two individu-
als, one may be interested in football matches,
and other one in serials.
(c) Empathy is shown in how much compassion and
understanding we can give to another. Sympathy
is more of a feeling of pity for another. Empathy
is our ability to understand how someone feels
while sympathy is our relief in not having the
same problems.
(d) External influence may help in temporary asso-
ciation, and not in compatibility.
The education system in which teaching-learning
activities is offered other than the on-campus with
fixed time classrooms. For examples, evening learn-
ing, distance learning, vocational studies, skill-based
courses, online learning, etc.
Non-conventional education is inspired by the P.H.
Coombs, and Ahmed who has worked on non-formal
education for the poor.
Characteristics of Non-conventional learning
• Learners oriented
• No fixed curriculum
• Cost-effective
• Linked to employment
• Continuous
• For improvement of Quality
Target groups of non-conventional education are
unemployed youths, the school dropped out, under-
privileged group, women and girls, Tribal and Minor-
ity population. This type of education is also for
literacy programmes.
And birds of Tree B = B
In first situation – if two birds shift from B to A, then
birds on A and B will be equal.
B–2=A+2
A – B = –4 ……(1)
In second situation – If 2 birds shift from A to B, then
birds on B will be double than those on A. Here, we
are doubling the birds on A so that both on A and B
are equal.
2(A – 2) = B + 2
2A – 4 = B + 2
2A – B = 2 + 4 = 6
2A – B = 6 ……(2)
09/01/23 3:38 PM
 xlviii
Deducting 2 from 1
A – B – (2A – B) = – 4 – 6
–1A = –10
A = 10
Putting A = 10 in equation (1)
10 – B = –4
–B = –4 –10
B = 14
Now, A=10, B= 14, thus (b) is the answer.
The question can be solved directly from the answer
by adding and reducing the values.
42. (d): Grapevine communication is basically informal
in nature so that more and more people feel comforta-
ble in it. They get connected in it, they feel connected
to informal groups where they express themselves.
Thus, informal communication boosts the morale of
the employees.
In the grapevine, employees discuss various issues.
The anxieties of the employees are also expressed.
The formal communication moves in a set direction,
so employees are bound by rules and regulations.
43. (b): Basically, criterion of valid knowledge is called as
pramana. The inference of one proposition from two
premises is called as syllogism. Any error of reason-
ing is called as fallacy. In nyaya system, it is called as
hetvabhasa.
The aspects A and B have been discussed in an earlier
question.
C. hetu (causation) is missing, (it may seem more
like inductive).
D. Linga paramarsa: The Nyaya syllogism has five
terms. Among them, middle term works as a
bridge between the major and the minor terms.
Therefore, the middle term has main responsibil-
ity to prove a syllogism valid or invalid. How a
middle term is related to major term is lingapara-
marsha. There are five characteristics of a middle
term:
1. Paksadharmata - it must be present in the minor
term. For example, smoke must be present in the
hill.
2. Sapaksasattva - It must be present in all positive
instances in which the major terms are present.
For example, the smoke must be present in the
kitchen where fire exists.
3. Vipaksasattva - It must be absent in all negative
instances in which the major terms are absent.
For example smoke must be absent in the lake in
which fire does not exist.
A01_MADAN 07_65901_FM.indd 48
Memory-based UGC NET Question Paper 2022 - Set 2
4. Abadhita - It must be non-incompatible with the
minor term. For example, it must not prove the
coolness of fire.
5. Aviruddha - It must be qualified by the absence
of counteracting reasons which lead to a contra-
dictory conclusion. For example, ‘the fact of being
caused’ should not be used to prove the ‘eternal-
ity’ of sound.
The above five are linked with Hetvabhasa or types
of it. In Indian logic a fallacy is called hetvahasa. It
means that middle term appears to be a reason but is
not a valid reason. All fallacies are material fallacies.
We have mentioned the five characteristics of a valid
middle term. When these are violated, we have falla-
cies. Five kinds of fallacies are recognised.
1. Assiddha or sadhyasama - This is the fallacy of
unproved middle.
2. Savyabhicara - This is the fallacy of irregular
middle.
3. Satpratipaksa - Here the middle term is contra-
dicted by another middle term.
4. Badhita - It is the non-inferentially contradicted
middle.
5. Viruddha - It is the contradictory middle.
44. (c): Malware is actually worrisome, it is any pro-
gram or file that is intentionally harmful to a com-
puter, network or server. Malware comes in so many
variants, there are numerous methods to infect
computer systems. The malware includes computer
viruses, worms, Trojan horses, ransomware and
spyware.
45. (c):
A. Montessori Method: This was developed by
Dr. Maria Montessori (1907) is based on the
idea of self-education. The child does not sit still
and idle to the lessons taught by the teacher,
here, in this system, the child educates himself
or herself, but with the teacher as a guide. The
child uses hands-on materials and specially
prepared classrooms to develop both intellect
and character. This type of self-actualization of
students is called “normalization.” This classroom
system is suitable in theory for all ages but mostly
practiced by preschoolers and kindergartners.
There is respect for feelings of child, the way
he/she wants to educate matters.
B. Integral Education, as envisioned by the Mother
and Sri Aurobindo, regards the child as a grow-
ing soul and helps him to bring out all that is
best, most powerful, most innate and living in his
nature. It helps the child develop all facets of his
09/01/23 3:38 PM
 Memory-based UGC NET Question Paper 2022 - Set 2 xlix

personality and awaken his latent possibilities so parents. Every experience becomes a learning tool for
that he acquires the child in its growth. IE helps the child to integrate
– a strong, supple, healthy, beautiful body with its true Self, its surroundings, its society, its
– a sensitive, emotionally refined, energetic country and humanity; in other words, to become the
personality complete being, the integral being that the child is
– a wide-ranging, lively intelligence and will meant to be.
– the subtler spiritual qualities that unify and Answers for Comprehension Passage
harmonise the being around the child’s inmost 46. (a)
Truth or Soul. 47. (a)
The focus and emphasis in Integral Education (IE)
48. (b)
is not just information and skills acquisition but
49. (b)
also self-development, triggered from within the
child and supported and nourished by teachers and 50. (a)

A01_MADAN 07_65901_FM.indd 49 09/01/23 3:38 PM

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A01_MADAN 07_65901_FM.indd 50 09/01/23 3:38 PM

 CHAPTER

1 Teaching Aptitude

01 Education: Basic Elements

02 Teaching: Concept, Objectives, Levels of

Teaching (Memory, Understanding and Reflective),
Characteristics and Basic Requirements.

03 Learner’s Characteristics:
Characteristics of Adolescent and Adult
Learners (Academic, Social, Emotional
and Cognitive), Individual Differences.

04 Factors Affecting
LEARNING Teaching Related to:
Teacher, Learner, Support
OBJECTIVES Material, Instructional
Facilities, Learning
Environment and Institution.

05 Methods of Teaching in Institutions

of Higher Learning: Teacher-Centred
vs. Learner-Centred Methods;
Off-line vs. Online Methods (Swayam,
Swayamprabha, MOOCs, etc.).
06 Teaching Support System:
Traditional, Modern and ICT Based.

07 Evaluation Systems: Elements and Types of Evaluation,

Evaluation in Choice Based Credit System in Higher
Education, Computer Based Testing, Innovations in
Evaluation Systems.

M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 1 27/12/22 8:14 PM

 1.2
Education
Definitions and Meaning of Education
“Education is not the preparation for life,
education is life itself ”
– John Dewey
“Education is simply the soul of a society as it passes
from one generation to another”
– G.K. Chesterton
According to New Education Policy, 2020, education
is a fundamental for achieving full human potential,
developing an equitable and just society, and promoting
national development.
The Global Education Development agenda reflected in the
Sustainable Development Goal-4 (SDG-4) of the 2030 agenda
for sustainable development, adopted by India in 2015 seeks
to “ensure inclusive and equitable quality education and pro-
mote lifelong learning opportunities for all by 2030”.
Every human being often reflects the learnings that he
has received from his elders - parents, family members
and teachers. That’s why we spend 20–25 years of life in
getting formal education. We want to become good citi-
zens as a result. Education is closely related to the appli-
cation part of philosophy. Philosophy gives ideals, values
and principles and our education system works them out.
Education without philosophy is like a tourist who knows
the name of the place where he wishes to go but does not
know how to find the place.
Thus,
(a) The main task of education is the transfer of our
knowledge to the next generation so as to make
our society a better place.
(b) In a formal manner, teacher functions as the
facilitator of knowledge. Teaching is the activity
directed at enabling learning. It is an activity usu-
ally conducted by an expert in their subject.
(c) Learning is the final outcome of teaching process.
(d) Evaluation is also done to assess the progress of
students.
Thus, philosophy of society, education, teaching,
learning and evaluation are closely related. Research
adds to the existing stock of knowledge.
We are starting our discussion with education and
gradually shifting towards teaching.
According to Tagore, the aim of education is self real-
ization. It means the realization of universal soul in one’s
self. It is a process which cannot be realized without edu-
cation. He synthesizes the ancient Vedantic.
Swami Vivekananda defines education is the manifes-
tation of perfection already in a man.
Aristotle defined education as a ‘creation of a sound
mind in a sound body’.
According to Heinrich Pestalozzi, ‘Education is the nat-
ural harmonious and progressive development of man’s
innate powers’.
M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 2
Chapter 1
John Dewey defines education as the power by which
a man is able to control his environment and fulfill his
possibilities.
According to Frobel, ‘Education is a process by which
the child develops its inner potential in a manner so as to
participate meaningfully in the external environment’.
United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural
Organization (UNESCO) celebrates October 5 as the
World Teachers’ Day, while India celebrates Teacher’s Day
on September 5 thats is birth anniversary of our second
President Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan.
Important Learning T heories and A pproaches
Philosophy is a very vast subject, and education is closely
linked with it. All aspects of education, such as aims, objec-
tives, curriculum, teaching methods, teacher, textbooks
and discipline are influenced by philosophy. There have
been more and more questions from learning theories in a
direct and in assertion reason form. So, their discussion is
important for us.
The concept of learning is very dynamic. The educa-
tional process has three types of questions.
(a) ‘Why’ is decided by philosophy?
(b) ‘How’ is decided by psychology?
(c) ‘What’ is decided by the social needs?
Hence, education is based on philosophical, psycho-
logical, and social aspects. As per Western philosophy,
Socrates is considered to be the father of education.
1. Behaviourist School of Thought: This approach was
developed in the 1900s, it was quite dominating in
the early 20th century. Learning basically consists of
a change in behaviour as a result of stimuli (S) from
environment and response (R) of the individual. Such
changes do happen in sequential manner as a result
of use of reward and punishment. Naturally, we get
interested in measurable changes in behaviour.
For example, when a teacher asks student a question
in accountancy. In case, the student gives the cor-
rect answer, the teacher may appreciate the student
by saying ‘commendable’, ‘excellent’, ‘very good’, etc
This acts as reinforcement to the student’s response,
that gains strength with passage of time. In teaching-
learning process, the focus is on drill and practice and
tutorials.
The following perspectives are important in the context
of behavioural theory.
E L Thorndike: There are two perspectives, firstly, a
response to a stimulus is reinforced when followed by
a positive rewarding effect. Secondly, a response to a
stimulus becomes stronger by exercise and repetition.
This view of learning is akin to the “drill-and-practice”
programmes.
The behaviourists have put forward three main laws of
learning:
(a) Law of Exercise: This law relates to strengthen-
ing the connection through practice.
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 Teaching Aptitude
  The main principle of learning is repetition, it
is termed as ‘drill’ or ‘drill and practice’ as done in
subjects such as mathematics.
(b) Law of Readiness: This indicates the student’s
willingness to make S-R connection.
(c) Law of Effect: The focus is on the effect of a
‘response’. The satisfying results reinforce the
response, and result in a reward. The annoying feel-
ings weaken the same, and result in ‘punishment’.
Type of conditioning: Conditioning is of two types.
(a) Classical conditioning: This concept was set by
Ivan Pavlov, that is linked with feeding of a dog
that salivates on a bell’s voice that is followed by
food. Two stimuli are linked together to produce
a new learned response. It is called as ‘generaliza-
tion’, unconscious or automatic learning. It is also
termed as Reflexive or Involuntary conditioning.
(b) Operant Conditioning: The organism learns by
way of modification in behaviour through rein-
forcement or punishment. It is termed as ‘volun-
tary’ and ‘instrumental behaviour.(Skinner sug-
gested the concept of ‘programmed instruction’).
2. Cognitive School of Thought: This approach
started in late 1950s. The acquisition of knowledge is
through brain: the learner is an information-proces-
sor who absorbs information, undertakes cognitive
operations on it, and stocks it in memory. The ability
of brain to experience, senses, and thought is known
as cognition. It is linked with lecturing and reading
textbooks. The learner is a passive recipient of knowl-
edge. The learners can be influenced by both internal
and external elements. The cognitive theory broke
off into sub-theories that focus on unique elements of
learning and understanding.
  Jean Piaget worked a lot on cognitive psychology.
His work focuses on environments and internal struc-
tures and how they impact learning.
  Teachers can give students opportunities to ask
questions (probing), and think out loud. The teach-
ing should be done in a more organized manner, that
help students to know their thought process works,
and utilize this knowledge to construct better learn-
ing opportunities.
  Vygotsky claimed that we are born with four
‘elementary mental functions’: Attention, Sensation,
Perception, and Memory.
3. Constructivist School of Thought: This school
believes that learning is not passive. They began to
consider learning as personal. Everyone constructs
his or her own knowledge and skills as a result of
undergoing experiences. The learning or knowledge
continuously gets constructed as new knowledge is
acquired. It means new experience is integrated with
previous experience. The focus is on Independent
learning, experiential learning and programming
etc. The focus is on ‘generalisable skills’ that are upon
individual discovery.
M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 3
1.3
Discovery Learning: This is based on the constructiv-
ist approach, with no or little guidance from teacher.
It was introduced by Jerome Bruner and is a method
of inquiry-based instruction. This popular theory
encourages learners to build on past experiences and
knowledge, use their intuition, imagination and cre-
ativity, and search for new information to discover
facts, correlations and new truths. A simulation in
which the teacher assists the students in the recall or
the application of relevant principles, is called ‘guided
discovery method’.
4. Transformative Learning Theory (TLT): TLT is a
learning approach for adult education and young
adult learning. It was suggested by Jack Mezirow.
TLT focuses on the idea that learners can adjust their
thinking based on new information. Adults has impor-
tant teaching and learning opportunities connected
to their past experiences and that critical reflection
and review could lead to a transformation of their
understanding.
  This approach works well for adult students.
Children don’t have the same kind of transformation
with their learning experiences—and with life expe-
rience. Teachers can employ this learning theory by
encouraging their students to learn new perspectives
while questioning their assumptions and open the floor
for discourse to cement their new train of thought.
5. Social Learning Theory (SLT): This is meant to deal
with difficult students who like to disrupt the class-
room and cause trouble. This theory focuses on the
concept of children learning from observing others
by acting on or not acting on what they see exhibited
by their classmates. This learning theory was founded
by Albert Bandura. He conducted an experiment
called the Bobo doll experiment in the early ’60s, dur-
ing which he studied children’s behaviour after they
watched an adult act aggressively with a doll-like toy.
He noted how the children reacted when the adult got
rewarded, punished, or suffered no consequences after
they attacked the doll. Bandura wrote about his find-
ings in 1977, detailing social learning theory and how
it affected the behavioural development of students.
  There are four elements to SLT:
(a) Attention: which calls upon different or unique
lessons or activities to help children focus.
(b) Retention: focusing on how the student will
internalize information and recall it later on.
(c) Reproduction: drawing on previously learned
behavior and when it’s appropriate to use it.
(d) Motivation: which can extend from seeing other
classmates being rewarded or punished for their
actions.
6. Experiential Learning Theory (ELT): ELT focuses
on ‘learning by doing’. Using this theory, students
are encouraged to learn through experiences that
can help them retain information and recall facts.
ELT, was identified by David Kolb in 1984. Though
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 1.4
his influence came from other theorists such as John
Dewey, Kurt Lewin, and Jean Piaget, Kolb was able to
identify four stages of ELT. The first two stages, con-
crete learning and reflective observation, focus on
grasping an experience. The latter two, abstract con-
ceptualization and active experimentation are about
transforming an experience. To Kolb, effective learn-
ing is seen as the learner goes through the cycle of
experiential learning theory. Students can enter the
cycle in any way and at any point.
  The “Situated Learning Theory” and “Community
of Practice” draw many of the ideas of the learning
theories considered above. They have been developed
by Jean Lave and Etienne Wenger.
7. Connectivism Learning Theory: This is one of the
newest educational learning theories. It focuses on
the idea that people learn and grow when they form
connections, as per their roles and obligations in the
society. They influence learning. Teachers can utilize
connectivism in their classrooms to help students
make connections to things that excite them, helping
them learn. Teachers can use digital media to make
good, positive connections to learning. They can help
create connections and relationships with their stu-
dents and with their peer groups to help students feel
motivated about learning. The e-learning or digital
learning is based on this.
Some Other Philosophies
1. Idealism: This aspect is closely linked with philosophy.
The word ‘idealism’ has been derived from ‘ideal’. It is
actually about ‘Mind and Self’, that reflects ‘spiritual-
ism’. The universal mind or God is central in under-
standing of the world. God is the source of all creation,
and knowledge, spirit and mind constitute reality.
(a) Values are absolute, eternal and unchanging.
(b) Real knowledge is perceived in mind that is more
important than knowledge gained through the
senses.
(c) Man has a superior nature that is expressed in the
form of intellectual culture, morality and religion.
 Fröbel, Kant, Plato, Swami Dayanand,
Vivekananda and Sri Aurobindo the main propo-
nents of idealism.
2. Naturalism: Contrary to idealism, naturalism is a
philosophy that believes nature alone represents the
entire reality. It takes into account natural matter,
natural force and natural laws.
  Our senses are the gateway to knowledge, and
nature is the source of all knowledge. The mind is
subordinate to nature. The educative process must be
pleasurable and set in natural surroundings.
  The main protagonists of naturalism are Tagore,
Rousseau, and Herbert Spencer.
3. Pragmatism: Pragmatism is basically a Greek word
that means practice or action. Here, we focus on the
M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 4
Chapter 1
word ‘utility’, whatever is useful is good, and whatever
is good is useful. A pragmatist lives in a world of facts.
  Pragmatism focuses on activity or doing. There are
no absolute values of life. Truth is created during the
course of experience. Humans are active beings and
have the ability to solve their problems through the
logic of experiments and scientific methods.
  The thinkers John Dewey, Kilpatrick, Mead are
some of the main exponents of this philosophy.
4. Rationalism: Rationalists claim that there are signifi-
cant ways through which our concepts and knowledge
gain independently through our sense experience.
5. Empiricists: A theory which states that knowledge
comes only or primarily from sensory experience. Our
five senses are eyes, ears, nose, tongue and skin.
6. Existentialism: A good education emphasizes indi-
viduality, thus the first step in any education then is to
understand ourselves. Every individual is unique and
education must cater to the individual differences, thus
developing our unique qualities, to harness his potenti-
alities and cultivate our individualities. Socrates is con-
sidered to be the first existentialist through his work
‘Know thyself’. In Hindu philosophy, there is focus on
the knowledge of the self, Janna. Buddhist philosophy
seeks enlightenment, being a ‘bodhi’.
7. Gestalt Psychology: It believes that the whole is
greater than the sum of its parts.
  For example, in the human body, there are cells, tis-
sues, organs, systems, etc., and the sum of all these
components (human body) is greater than the sum of
its parts. This is because the parts are interrelated to
each other. There is synergy created. Further, Gestalt
psychology demonstrated the significance of percep-
tion. It also showed that complex learning need not
occur gradually through lengthy practice but may
develop through insight.
  This theory states that the transfer of learning can
be best achieve when an individual is in the very best
of the frame of mind; in the times that he or she is
aware of the meanings of a particular situation or
experiences and to their practical application to one’s
daily life. It believes in the concept of ‘synergy’ that
believes that 2 + 2 = 5. That is positive synergy. The
concept of negative synergy is 2 + 2 = 3.
8. Eclectic Philosophy: Eclecticism is nothing but the
fusion of knowledge from all sources. It is a peculiar
type of educational philosophy that combines all good
ideas and principles from various philosophies.
9. Yoga philosophy: This speaks about the theory and
practice for the realization of the ultimate truth con-
cerning human being and the world. In Vedanta, yoga
is understood as a spiritual union of the individual
soul with the supreme soul. Yoga is a spiritual effort to
attain perfection through the control of sense organs,
gross body, subtle mind, intellect and ego. It guides
to achieve the highest wisdom through spiritual
realization. The first scripture of Yoga is Patanjali’s
‘Yoga-sutras’, followed by Vaisya’s “Yoga–bhasya” and
Vacavpati Mishra’s ‘Tattva-vaisaradi”.
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 Teaching Aptitude 1.5

  The Yoga Philosophy is closely associated with
Samkhya philosophy (discussed in detail in Unit 6).
The Yoga presents a practical path for the realiza-
tion of the self whereas the Samkhya emphasizes the
attainment of knowledge of self by means of concen-
tration and meditation. Thus, yoga is the practice and
Samkhya is its theory.
Advanced O rganizer Model
(Ausubel’s Model)
Advance Organizer Model is given by great education-
ist psychologist, David Ausubel. The primary concern of
this model is to help teachers organize and convey large
amounts of information in a very meaningful and efficient
manner. This model is taken from verbal learning princi-
ple. As we understand, any subject is a chain of concepts,
when we accept these facts, that is also settled as a chain in
our mind. The new concept should be related with the old
one. We need to explore big ideas with students before this.
Mental Model: Closely linked with advanced organizer
model, a ‘mental model’ is any organized pattern (such as
visual representations) that consist of both structure and
process (a kind of flow chart) that helps a student com-
prehend content knowledge. They may help to solve the
problems.
1. Concrete Experience (CE): The concrete experience
can be in the form of a new experience or situation, or
a reinterpretation of existing experience in the light
of new concepts. Assume that you get a job of Assis-
tant Professor and get some concrete experiences
while teaching in the class.
2. Reflective Observation of the New Experience (RO):
We may add to or modify our knowledge (new learn-
ing) in the light of their existing knowledge. Though
you may teach very well in the class but still learn cer-
tain things for betterment of classes in future. For a
teacher the learning is continuous. This step may be
termed as ‘review’ also.
3. Abstract Conceptualization (AC): The reflection
gained in step 2 may settle in our mind in the form of
an abstract concept. Some principles to teach better
get settled in our minds.
4. Active Experimentation (AE): We look to imple-
ment abstract concept into the future situations. The
teacher applies his idea/s in the class to teach the stu-
dents in a better manner.
Concrete
Experience
Feeling

Continuum
This theory of meaningful verbal learning. It has three
major concerns: Diverging
Accommodating
(a) How knowledge (curriculum content) is feel and do feel and watch
organized; Active Processing Continuum Reflective
(b) How the mind works to process new information Experimentation Observation
(learning); and Doing Watching
Perception
(c) How teacher can apply these ideas about curricu- Converging Assimilating
lum and learning when they present new material think and do think and watch
to students (instruction). This model is designed
to strengthen student’s cognitive structure.
Under ‘syntax’, Advance Organizer Model has three Abstract
phases of activity. Conceptualisation
Phase 1: The presentation of the advance organizer Thinking
(mental model)
Phase 2: The presentation of the learning task or
learning material; and Source: https://www.simplypsychology.org/learning-kolb.html
Phase 3: The strengthening of cognitive organiza-
tion. In this, the relationship of the learning material Thus, these four steps complete the outer part of the fol-
is to be done with the existing ideas to bring about an lowing diagram.
active learning process.
Active Reflective
Kolb’ s Learning Cycle Experimentation Observation
(Doing) (Watching)
We have just discussed the concepts of cognitivism,
behaviourism, and constructivism. That way David Kolb’s Concrete Accommodating Diverging
Learning Experience become automatically important as Experience (CE/AE) (CE/RO)
it is the combination of above. This model is in the form (Feeling)
of a few processes. This is also called as the reflective or
experiential learning model. And few questions have Abstract Converging Assimilating
been asked in NET JRF exam. Though it may seem to be Conceptualization (AC/AE) (AC/RO)
initially tough, but our discussion will help. It is a practi- (Thinking)
cal topic. The main objective of teaching is learning. The
learning cycle can be divided into the following steps. Source: https://www.simplypsychology.org/learning-kolb.html

M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 5 04/01/23 4:50 PM

 1.6 Chapter 1

Now we move towards the combination of the two ele-
ments that have been discussed earlier. Thus, we get four
steps further—Diverging, Assimilating, Converging and
Accommodating (DACA). Similarly, the feeling, watching,
thinking and doing (FWTA) are also important. The inter-
ested students may mug up the parts for future questions.
Some of the important philosophies of education have
been mentioned below:
Table 1.1 Important Concepts in Education and
Teaching and their Proponents
Concepts Proponents
Basic education (Wardha Education Mahatma
System)–This initiative was put in Gandhi
words by Dr Zakir Hussain in 1937,
this is also called as Nai or Buniyadi
Taleem. Its objective is to make
individuals self sufficient.
Learning must take place in nature Rabindranath
and from nature Tagore
Integral education Sri Aurobindo
Havighurst and Neugarten have given two important
functions of the education system:
1. A mirror that reflects society as it is or to be the stabi-
lizer of the society.
2. An agent of social change or a force directed towards
implementing the ideas of society.
George Payne, a sociologist, has given three main
­functions of education:
1. Assimilation of traditions
2. Development of new social patterns
3. Creative and constructive role
Emile Durkheim worked on structural functionalism that
means how does the society function. He focused on the
transmission of society’s norms and values as the major
function of society. The education was recognized as a
training for specialized roles (division of labour) that
also includes adopting some occupation for livelihood.
Education is required to perform the function of
(a) cultural transmission and enrichment
(b) acceptance and reformulation
(c) change and reconstruction

Focus on the spiritual aspects of Dr. Sarvepalli Two terms can be discussed here.
Indian philosophy Radhakrishnan Enculturation: It is the process why the young generation
learns the traditional ways of society. This practice differs
Education to transform human mind J. Krishnamurti from one society to another. Enculturation is formalized
through education.
Experiential learning John Dewey
Acculturation: It is the process through which a person
Self-education through development Maria or group from one culture comes to adopt the practices
of individuality Montessori and values of another, while still retaining their own dis-
tinct culture. This concept has become important in an
Kindergarten focus on self-activity, Fröbel increasingly globalized society.
creativeness, and social cooperation
Factors Determining Educational Aims
No formal learning; nature is the Rousseau
only teacher Education is mostly a planned and purposeful activity.
Educational aims are necessary in giving direction to
unique activities which are determined by the following
Forms of Education factors.
We can divide the education into three parts. 1. Philosophy: Philosophy and education are the two
1. Formal sides of the same coin. Philosophy is the main factor that
2. Informal determines the aim of education. Education is termed
3. Non-formal to be the best means for propagation of philosophy.
2. Human nature: It is closely linked with philosophy.
Integration of these three makes the education holistic For example, idealists regard unfolding of the divine
and comprehensive. These forms of education have been in man as the aim of education.
discussed in Figure 1.1 3. Socio-cultural factors and problems: Education has
to preserve and transmit the cultural heritage and tra-
Major Aims and ditions from one generation to another.
4. Religious factors: In ancient India, Buddhism
Objectives of Education emphasized the inculcation of the ideals of r­ eligion,
such as ahimsa and truth into the prevailing educa-
“We want that education by which character is tional system.
formed, strength of mind is increased, the intellect is 5. Political ideologies: There can be authoritarianism,
expanded and by which one stands on one’s own feet.” conservatism, liberalism, moderates, feminism, totali-
– Swami Vivekanand tarianism, corporatism, democracy, environmental-
ism, and so on. The society develops accordingly.

M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 6 27/12/22 8:14 PM

 Teaching Aptitude 1.7

Pre-planned and organized

Formal
Imparted through institutions like

FormS of Education
Schools Colleges, etc.

Indirect and Spontaneous

Informal
Imparted through day-to-day
activities from home and community

Flexible, Open system

Non-formal
Imparted through conscious and
deliberate efforts

Figure 1.1 Forms of Education

6. Exploration of knowledge: Knowledge is must for
good interpersonal relationships, healthy adjustment
in life, modification of behaviour, self-awareness and
for social growth, it is also a source of happiness. The
pace of creation of knowledge has become very fast.
7. Vocational: Education prepares the child to earn his
livelihood and make him self-sufficient and efficient
in both economic and social factors.
8. Self-actualization and total development: Self actu-
alization is the ultimate realization of the potential
gifted to us by God. It helps in holistic development
that includes physical, mental, emotional, social and
spiritual-moral developments.
9. Harmonious development: According to Mahatma
Gandhi,” ‘By education, we mean an all round
drawing out of the best in child and man-body, mind
and spirit’.
10. Moral and character development: This is consid-
ered as the best goal of education by Indian education
system. According to Herbert Spencer, education must
enable the child to cultivate moral values and virtues,
such as truthfulness, goodness, purity, courage, rever-
ence and honesty.
11. Citizenship: To become better citizens of society, to
do our duties and responsibilities.
12. Education for leisure: Leisure time is meant for
enjoyment and recreation. It helps us to take rest and
regain energy. It gives birth to physical and mental
balance. It helps us developing artistic, moral and aes-
thetic elements.

Physical Cognitive

Intellectual

Holistic
Emotional Development
Co-Cognitive

Social

Affective Psychomotor
Moral

M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 7 27/12/22 8:14 PM

 1.8
Some Specified Aims of Education in India: When
India gained freedom there was a need for reorientation
and restructuring of all our existing social, political and
educational systems, in order to meet the socio-economic,
political and educational needs of the country.
Since independence, various committees and commis-
sions were appointed to lay down the aims and objectives
of education in India.
National Educational Policy (1986): This policy specified
the f­ ollowing aims and objectives of our education:
1. All-round material and spiritual development of all
people
2. Cultural orientations and development of interest in
Indian culture
3. Scientific temper
4. National cohesion
5. Independence of mind and spirit, that furthers the
goals of socialism, secularism and democracy
6. Manpower development for different levels of economy
7. Promoting research in all areas of development
8. Education for equality
New Education Policy (2020): This is the first policy in
21st century. We can see a remarkable shift from 1968 and
1986 policies. It is built upon the foundational pillars of
Access, Equity, Quality, Affordability and Accountability.
The new policy is aligned to the 2030 Agenda for
Sustainable Development. It aims to transform India
into a vibrant knowledge society and global knowledge
superpower by making both school and college educa-
tion more holistic, flexible, multidisciplinary, more suit-
able to current and future needs. It aims to bring out the
unique capabilities of each student. It has been discussed
in details in the last unit of Higher Education.
Concept of Teaching
The main objective of effective teaching is learning. The
teachers are facilitators of knowledge. The progress and
prosperity of a nation depends upon the development of
its human resources. We always need highly competent
teachers who can give direction to the society and nation.
The name of this unit, teaching aptitude is all about
evaluating candidates who want to enter this successful
career of teaching profession on the basis of their qualities
of knowledge and skills. This also includes qualification,
intelligence, attitude, etc. to name a few.
Teaching can be defined in the following ways:
1. Teaching is the purposeful direction and manage-
ment of the learning process.
2. Teaching is a process of providing opportunities for stu-
dents to produce relatively permanent change through
engagement in e­ xperiences provided by the teachers.
3. Teaching is a skilful application of knowledge, experi-
ence and scientific principles with an objective to set
up an environment to facilitate learning.
M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 8
Chapter 1
4. Teaching is a planned activity and effective teaching
depends on the following factors.
(a) How clearly the students understand what they
are expected to learn.
(b) How accurately their learning can be measured.
5. Teaching is a process in which the learner, teacher
and other variables are organized in a systematic way
to attain some predetermined goals.
6. Teaching is an activity that influences a child to learn
and acquire desired knowledge and skills and also
their desired ways of living in the society.
Basic Teaching Models
There is no basic model of teaching that fits into all situa-
tions. Basically, we have discussed two models-pedagogy
and andragogy-that are almost extremes of a teaching
continuum. Then there is heutagogy approach.
Pedagogy
Pedagogy as a conventional approach is also called as
the art and science of teaching. The teacher assumes
the primary role in deciding the main aspects of teach-
ing. Friedrich Herbart, in his work Universal Pedagogy
(1906), advocated five formal steps in teaching.
1. Preparation: Linking new material to relevant exist-
ing ideas (memories).
2. Presentation: Present the new lesson after taking
into account the actual experience of concrete objects.
3. Association: Comparison of the new idea with exist-
ing ideas with an objective to implant new ideas in the
mind of learner.
4. Generalization: To take learning beyond perception
and experience to develop absrtract ideas.
5. Application: To make the newly acquired knowledge
become an integral part of the life of the student.
Andragogy
Here, the learner is mostly self-directed. He is mostly
responsible for his own learning. The students not only
receive knowledge but they interpret through ‘discovery’.
The students set the pace of their own learning.
The instructors facilitate the learning by offering
opportunities to learn themselves and acquire new knowl-
edge. Thus, students develop new skills.
Self-evaluation is also the characteristic of this
approach. Andragogical approach is also identified with
‘adult learning.’
Heutagogy
It is basically self-determined learning. The learners
are highly autonomous. The emphasis is placed on
development of learner capacity and capability with
the goal of producing learners who are well-prepared
for the complexities of today’s workplace. ‘Double Loop
Learning’ is considered as a part of heutagogy.
27/12/22 8:14 PM
 Teaching Aptitude 1.9

Table 1.2 Major Shifts in Teaching 3. Teaching is closely related to education, learning,
instruction and training.
From Pedagogy To Andragogy 4. Teaching is essentially an intellectual activity.
5. Teaching is an art as well as a science.
Teacher-centered, Learner-centered, flexible 6. Teaching tends towards self-organization.
fixed designs process 7. Teaching is a social service.
8. Teaching includes lengthy periods of study and
Teacher’s direction and Learner’s autonomy
training.
decisions
9. Teaching has a high degree of autonomy.
Teacher’s guidance and Teacher’s facilitation, 10. Teaching is a continuous process.
monitoring of learning support and 11. Teaching is a profession.
encouragement for learning These features have been discussed later in the coming
paragraphs.
Passive reception in Active participation in
learning learning Levels of T eaching
Learning within the four Learning in the wider The main objective of teaching is to ensure learning that
walls of the classrooms social context takes place during interaction between an experienced
person (the teacher) and an inexperienced person (the
Knowledge as ‘given’ and Knowledge evolves and is student).
‘fixed’ created There are basically three different levels of teaching
to ensure learning - memory level, understanding level
Disciplinary focus Multidisciplinary, and reflective level. Morris L. Biggie, in 1976, suggested
educational focus ‘least thoughtful’, ‘thoughtful’ and ‘the most thoughtful’
Linear exposure Multiple and divergent for these three levels respectively. The autonomous devel-
exposure opmental stage was added at a later stage, but has been
discussed first as it appears at the earliest stage of life.
Assessment is short Assessment is
multifarious, continuous Autonomous Development Level
This level is student centered. Intellectual development
Source: NCERT Pedagogy just happens in a natural manner. There is no felt need for
any kind of formal teaching. Thus, the presence or role of
Pedagogy is also called engagement, andagogy as culti- a teacher is assumed to be more negative than positive.
vation and heutagogy as realization. There should be little or no leadership, direction, coer-
cion, prescription, or imposition of student thought or
behaviour.
Nature of Teaching Some educators assume that this level may prevail
The nature of teaching includes the following: throughout the learning, even during tertiary level. The
assistance of teachers is still crucially needed. The suc-
1. Teaching works at different levels in life. cessful teachers are required to not only teach students
2. Teaching takes place in a dynamic environment. in academic areas but also understand students’ personal

The 5 pillars of Educational Psychology

Biological Cognitive Developmental Social and Mental and

personality physical health
Biopsychology/ Perception Learning Social Abnormal
Neuroscience
Thinking Lifespan Personality Therapies
Sensation development
Intelligence Emotion Stress,
Consciousness lifestyle and
Memory Motivation health

Figure 1.2 Five Pillars of Psychology

M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 9 27/12/22 8:14 PM

 1.10 Chapter 1

6. The subject material is well-organized and simple in

nature. The subject matter is simple.
7. The knowledge delivered is definite, structured and
observable.
Teaching Method
Reflective level The teaching is subject-centered and so are the teaching
(Most thoughtful) methods – drill, review, revision and asking ­questions.
Drill (and practice) means repetition or practice to attain
proficiency in memorizing.
Understanding level Review or revising the elements relates learners to new
(Thoughtful) experiences and form new associations.
The question technique is used to examine whether
Memory Level of Teaching or not knowledge-level objectives of teaching have been
(Less Thoughtful) achieved.
Teacher’s Role
Autonomous Development Level The teacher is the stage-setter, resource manager as well
as the evaluator in the classroom.
Figure 1.3 Teaching Pyramid Role of Learner
The role of the learner is a passive one, as the subject
and cultural characteristics. For this to happen, teachers content, teaching techniques and teaching methods are
need to be flexible in teaching and creating a supportive decided by the teacher.
learning environment.
Teaching Equipment
Different kinds of teaching aids, such as visual, audio
Memory Level of Teaching (MLT) and audio-visual aids models, charts, maps, pictures, TV,
Herbart is the main proponent of the memory level of radio etc. develop curiosity within the learners towards
teaching. Good memory includes rapidity in learning, the learning process.
stability of retention, rapidity in recalling and the ability Nature of Motivation
to bring only desirable contents to the conscious level.
The teaching–learning process is basically a ‘Stimulus– The motivation by a teacher drives students to learn better
Response’ (S–R). that should result in the development of an ‘intrinsic’
MLT is actually the initial stage of formal teaching feeling, it should not be a forced one. The focus is on
where a learner puts factual material to memory. memorization of facts. Hence, the nature of motivation at
this level of teaching is purely extrinsic.
1. MLT is the initial stage of teaching.
2. MLT induces the habit of rote memorization of facts Evaluation System for Learners
and bites of information. 1. The evaluation system mainly includes oral, written
3. MLT enables the learner to retain and also to repro- and essay-type examination.
duce the learnt material whenever required. 2. The evaluation is done on predetermined objectives
4. The evaluation system mainly includes oral, written to check the power of memorization of the students.
and essay-type examination. 3. For the written test, short-type, recall-type, recognition-
type, multiple-choice and matching-type test items are
Thus, the three major aspects are:
used.
1. Learning of the material 4. Here, the learners are required to attempt the maxi-
2. Retention of the material mum number of questions.
3. Reproduction of the material as and when required
Psychological Bases of Memory L evel
O bjectives of Memory Level of T eaching of T eaching
1. The main objective is imparting knowledge and infor- 1. According to theory of ‘cognitive development’, Jean
mation to the learner. Piaget stated that memory level is meant for starters.
2. Knowledge gained is basically factual that has been The learners are at the pre-operational level of cogni-
acquired through memorization or rote learning. tive development in the school. They cannot operate
3. It covers only the knowledge-based objectives of upon abstract concepts. As per their mental develop-
Bloom’s taxonomy. ment, they can learn simple concepts without analyz-
4. Teaching is subject-centered. ing their true meaning and nature. Normally, they are
5. Simple memorable things are taught to students. not expected to reflect upon the learnt facts.

M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 10 27/12/22 8:14 PM

 Teaching Aptitude
2. Herbartian theory of apperception suggests that the
young pupil mind gets ready at this stage for perceiv-
ing themselves and the world around them. The brain
gets ready for a big mass of factual information. It
includes concepts, elements, structures, models and
theories. They can acquire and retain information
about a large number of things, objects, and material
through memorization.
3. In conditioning theory, Pavlov and Skinner advocated
that underlines the concept that correct response
made by an individual is strengthened by reinforce-
ment to retain the learned subject-matter longer and
to facilitate ease in further learning.
4. Pavlov’s classical conditioning applies the mechanical
process as applied in memory level of teaching; and
thorough review or retrieval, correct learning by the
student is rewarded and retained for future use.
Suggestions for Memory-Level T eaching
1. The teaching material should be objective and useful.
2. The teaching material should be finite and progress
from simple to complex.
3. Teaching aids should be adequate, and parts of the
content should be integrated and well-sequenced.
4. The subject matter should be presented in a system-
atic and organized manner.
5. There should be scope for continuous evaluation to mea-
sure improvement in the memory power of students.
6. The retention of the material in memory of students
can be increased by practice and exercise.
7. There should be scope for continuous reinforcement
during the course of instruction.
Understanding-Level of Teaching
(ULT)
Morrison is the main proponent of the understanding
level of teaching. It is ‘memory plus insight’ as it goes
beyond just memorizing facts. It focuses on mastery of
the subject.
It makes pupil understand the generalizations, prin-
ciples, facts and some application parts also. It provides
more and more opportunities for the students to develop
‘intellectual behaviour’.
The teaching at this level stands higher as compared to
that of memory level.
There is higher development of cognitive abilities.
They become more capable of thinking, presenting the
facts in a more logical manner, analyzing them properly
and drawing inferences. They are able to evaluate the
relationships between the principles and facts and also
provide space for the assimilation of facts.
O bjectives
According to the revised Bloom’s Taxonomy, understand-
ing-level teaching aims at the following objectives:
1. It aims at the understanding of instructional mes-
sages by means of interpretation, exemplification,
M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 11
1.11
classification, comparison, inference of instructional
messages.
2. Application objectives include the use of a proper
procedure.
3. The subject matter is wider and more detailed. It
includes the application of principles and generaliza­
tions of real-life situations.
Teaching Methods and Equipments: They include the
following:
1. Lecture (cum demonstration)
2. Discussion method
3. Inductive-deductive (discussed in Unit 6).
4. Exemplification and explanation
Exemplification makes use of specific instances (exam-
ples) in classroom to clarify a point, to add interest, or
to persuade. Classroom climate is more motivational.
Learners are actively engaged in the learning process.
Motivation at the understanding level of teaching is
extrinsic as well as intrinsic in nature.
Teaching equipment includes the following:
1. Models
2. Charts
3. Flash cards
4. Pictures
The learners can comprehend the concepts more easily with
the help of teaching aids. The teacher must use the right aid
and equipment as per the need and level of students.
Evaluation
The evaluation system mainly includes both essay and
objective-type questions. Understanding level needs a
more comprehensive evaluation. The tests and tools need
proper planning. Planned tests could evaluate the stu-
dent’s ability to comprehend, grasp, analyze, synthesize
and discriminate.
These abilities can be examined using oral and writ-
ten tests. There should be some scope for testing practical
knowledge.
Role of the T eacher and Learner
The teacher plays a significant role. He presents learning
material and generates interest in them. The sequence of
presentation of content, mode of instruction and methods
used in evaluation remain with the teacher.
The role of the learner is more active and they have
to work hard at this level. The participants at this level
are secondary learners. The framework is set by the
teacher.
Reflective Level of Teaching (RLT)
“True teachers are those who help us think for
ourselves.”
– Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan
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 1.12
Hunt is the main proponent of RLT. This level is the high-
est and most practical level of teaching. Society expects
that a person should be able to understand the whole
­scenario and apply his knowledge. This is also termed
as the ‘introspective level’. It also means thinking deeply
about something.
1. It is highly thoughtful and useful. The pupils occupy
the primary place, and teachers assume the second-
ary place.
2. A learner can achieve this level only after attaining
memory level and understanding level.
3. Reflective level makes the learners to solve real problem
situations in life.
4. At this level, the student is made to face a real prob-
lem situation.
5. Classroom environment is to be sufficiently ‘open and
independent’.
6. Here, the problem is identified, defined, and then a
solution is found.
7. The student’s original thinking and capabilities
develop at this level.
8. The teacher needs to be democratic. The knowledge
should not be enforced on students.
9. The students becomes active, and they need to
become innovative and imaginative.
10. Essay-type test is used for evaluation. Attitude, belief
and involvement are also evaluated.
Merits of R eflective Level T eaching
1. The teaching at this level is leaner-centered.
2. There is more interaction between the teacher and
the learner.
3. This level of teaching is appropriate for the higher class.
Demerits of Reflective Level T eaching
1. It is mostly suitable for mentally mature children.
2. The study material is neither organised nor pre-
planned or systematic.
The concepts of cognition and metacognition as they are
linked with reflective practices.
Metacognition: This is a subdivision of cognition, or
a type of cognition. Metacognition is defined as the
­scientific study of an individual’s cognitions about his or
her own cognitions. It is basically application part.
Cognition: This is a mental process that includes memory,
attention, producing and understanding language, reason-
ing, learning, problem-solving and decision-making.
It is often referred to as information processing, apply-
ing knowledge, and changing preferences. It is something
that is more basic.
Stopover
A teacher offers many positive and negative examples
in the classroom to support his or her presentation.
M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 12
Chapter 1
Which level of teaching is reflected through this?
(a) Autonomous development level
(b) Memory level
(c) Understanding level
(d) Reflective level
The correct option is (d).
Offering positive and negative examples means making
the students familiar with actual life situations.
Dynamic Environment
Effective communication is the essence of teaching
that itself is very dynamic in nature. Teaching changes
according to time and place. Its environment consists of
interaction among three variables:
1. Independent variables: Teachers are largely assumed
to independent as they are in a position to manipulate
the behaviours of students.
2. Dependent variables: Students depend upon teach-
ers for learning.
3. Mediating or Intervening variables: The examples
are teaching methods, teaching instructional facili-
ties and motivational techniques. A mediator variable
hypothesize that the independent variable impacts
the mediating variable, which in turn impacts the
dependent variable.
According to Ronald T. Hyman, the dynamic triad of
teaching involves the teacher, the learner, and the subject
matter. Education is also assumed to be a tripolar process
of pupil, teacher and social environment.
Teaching is a Complex whole
Teaching makes use of all sorts of techniques, methods, and
media and also entails skills such as questioning, probing,
exemplifying, etc. Then teaching also makes use of media
such as audio-visual media, human interaction, print media,
realia, electronic media, etc. Success in teaching, to a great
extent, depends upon selection and use of appropriate tech-
niques, methods and media that makes it complex.
Teaching Visualizes Change in Behaviour
The changes as discussed in cognitive domain (knowledge),
affective domain (attitude, motivation) and psycho motor
domain (physical skills) are tentatively permanent. The
changes that occur in learners need not be performative but
be potential ability of the learners.
Teaching can be Direct or Indirect
(a) Direct methods: Here, teachers use methods,
such as lecture, demonstration, etc. and engages
students in face-to-face interaction.
(b) Indirect teaching: Here, active teaching meth-
ods, such as role-play, project, assignment,
inquiry or other such activities are applied. They
are basically learner-centred methods where the
involvement of learners is higher.
These methods have been discussed in the concept
box.
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 Teaching Aptitude 1.13

Training, Development, Instruction and

Concept Box Indoctrination
In case we want to look at the teacher, learner, Training: Training is a short-term process utilizing a sys-
curriculum, physical conditions (climate), the following tematic and organized procedure by which students or
scenarios emerge, starting from bipolar to quadrilateral. non-managerial personnel learn technical knowledge
skills for a definite purpose. It is for a short duration and
1. It is a bipolar process. for a specific job related purpose. When a teacher joins
some institution, the authorities make them familiar with
Teacher Learner rules, regulations and policies of the institution, that is
called as ‘induction training’.
The Inquiry Training Model was developed by Richard
figure 1.4 Bipolar Process Schumann to teach students a process for investigating
and explaining unusual phenomena.
2. It is a tripolar process.
Development: This is a long-term continuous educational
Teacher process utilizing a systematic and organized procedure
which managerial personnel learn conceptual and
Teacher theoretical knowledge for general purpose. It involves
Learning philosophical and theoretical educational concepts and
process its purpose is long-term development for managers.
Learner Curriculum
Instruction: Instruction is the process of teaching and
engaging students with content–how does a teacher
figure 1.5 Tripolar Process organize time and activities in implementing that content
(curriculum) and plan.
3. It is a quadri-polar process.
Indoctrination: Indoctrination can be termed as the
highest order of teaching. In indoctrination, beliefs and
Teacher ideas are impressed upon others and can be included in
teaching. Teaching can be done without indoctrination,
but indoctrination is not possible without teaching.

Physical Teaching
Curriculum
inteLLectuaL activity
climate Learning
Teaching is essentially a cognitive activity. It requires
Process
conscious and continuous organization of learning activi-
ties. It entails the creation of a conductive and supportive
learning environment. A teacher has to evolve a suitable
Learner plan of action to achieve desired changes in the behaviour
of a group of learners. The learners constitute the raw
figure 1.6 Quadripolar Process material. The expectations of learners are always varied.

teaching is a science as WeLL as an art

Teaching can be Vertical or Horizontal
In vertical teaching, teachers may lead students deep into
the topic. They teach learners higher-order thinking skills
such as analysis, synthesis, evaluation and creation.
Conversely, in horizontal teaching, more areas spread
over several topics instead of going deeper into one topic
are covered.
Teaching may be Planned or Unplanned
Traditionally, teachers plan for instruction before they go
to the classroom for teaching-content analysis and task
analysis is performed, the techniques and methods to be
used for teaching are decided, and then evaluation is per-
formed.
However, with the coming of active leaning methods,
no strict planning is possible as one is not clear in advance
what could be the possible way of organizing teaching-
learning activities.
The teaching profession is based upon a systematic body
of knowledge, which has been derived from social, psy-
chological, historical, political and economical spheres
of life. It is also influenced by the religious, spiritual and
ethical beliefs of the society. Teaching techniques are sys-
tematic; it has; they have definite steps to be followed and
are easily communicable. On the basis of assumptions of
science, a teacher can be trained. There are definite steps
that are followed in training a teacher.
Teaching is an art as well. It takes places in a dynamic
environment. The teacher has to deal with individual dif-
ferences in a class in a tactful manner. This requires a lot
of individualized approach and discretion.
seLf o rganization
The people in teaching profession are sensitive towards
growth and development because it is self-organized.
They evolve a definite mechanism to sustain and promote

M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 13 27/12/22 8:15 PM

 1.14 Chapter 1

the standards of the teaching profession. The growth in
teaching profession is organic in nature, i.e., the growth
happens in a spontaneous manner.
Social Service
It has been accepted that education is a potent tool to
bring about changes in any nation. It is useful to develop
the society.
High Degree of Autonomy
This autonomy is different from autonomous level that is
applicable ib = n case of students. There is a high degree
of autonomy in the teaching profession, right from curric-
ulum development, planning activities for a year, identi-
fying instructional objectives, deciding upon the method
of teaching, media, evaluation criteria and techniques to
divide the admission and promotion rules and autonomy
in planning and execution of co-curricular activities.
Teaching as a Profession
Teaching is the profession that makes other professions
possible. There are many courses, such as B.Ed, M.Ed,
etc., which impart knowledge and skills that establish the
foundation for a successful pathway to a career in teach-
ing. It entails a number of years of study and intermittent
training periods. A teacher has to improve his or her quali-
fication for advancements in the teaching career.
Objectives of Teaching
An objective describes an intended result of instruction
rather than the process of instruction itself. A good objec-
tive should be specific, outcome based (i.e., it should
emphasize on the output rather than the process of
instruction) and measurable.
The objectives of teaching and learning must integrate
at the end of the instruction.
There are two main ways of classifying instructional
objectives. One classification is given by Bloom, whereas
another classification is given by Gagne and Briggs.
Bloom’s Classification of Teaching and
Instructional Objectives
According to this classification, instructional objectives
fall under one of the following three categories:
1. Cognitive Domain: It is the core learning domain. It
is related to the development of intellectual capa-
bility that is basically thinking or knowledge. Other
domains (affective and psycho-motor) also need
the cognitive domain as basic platform. The fol-
lowing points are important in context of cognitive
domain.
(a) Knowledge: It is basically about recalling infor-
mation or contents.
(b) Comprehension: It is the ability to grasp the
meaning of a material.
(c) Application: It converts abstract knowledge into
practice.
(d) Analysis: It breaks communication into its con-
stituent parts so that it can be understood better.
(e) Synthesis: It basically combines the constituent
parts to convert them into a whole. It is the anto-
nym of analysis.
(f) Evaluation: It involves judgement made about
the value of methods and materials for particular
purposes.

Comparative Table Bloom’s 1956 vs. Anderson and Krathwohl, 2001

1956 2001

Complex Evaluation Create

form

Synthesis Evaluation

Cognitive Analysis Analyze

functions

Application Apply

Comprehension Understand

Simple
form Knowledge Remember

Noun 1956 Verb Form

Source: www.theresearchgate.com

M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 14 27/12/22 8:15 PM

 Teaching Aptitude
  Anderson, a former student of Bloom, and
David Krathwohl rearranged the the six levels in
the following manner by making changes in ‘eval-
uation’ and ‘synthesis’.
  (i)  Remembering: Recall or retrieve previous
learned information.
  (ii) 
Understanding: Comprehending the mean-
ing, translation, interpolation and interpre-
tation of instructions and ­problems. State a
problem in one’s own words.
(iii) Applying: Use a concept in a new situa-
tion or unprompted use of an abstraction.
Applies what was learned in the classroom
into novel situations in the work place.
  (iv)  Analysing: It separates a material or con-
cepts into component parts so that its organ-
izational structure may be understood. It
distinguishes between facts and inferences.
  (v) Evaluating: Make judgments about the
value of ideas or materials.
  (vi)  Creating: Builds a structure or pattern from
diverse elements. Put parts together to form
a whole, with emphasis on creating a new
meaning or structure.
  In Figure 1.6, the ‘synthesis’ (at point number 5)
in the earlier model should be assumed to be
shifted to point number 6 of ‘creating’ in the
Anderson’s revised model.
  The top model ‘evaluation’ goes on the second
last position in the revised model.
2. Affective domain: Man is not only rational but emo-
tional as well. Affective is closely linked with emotions,
motivation, feelings, sympathy, co-operation, fellow-
feeling, willingness to participate. It entails preference
for some object, issue, notion, etc. Affect is also treated
as a response to different social, political and economic
issues in the form of attitudes. An individual has to
develop and nurture desirable positive attitudes and
interests for his or her better adjustment in the society.
  Affective also means valuing what is being learned
and ultimately incorporating the values of discipline
into a way of life. It asks for better student participa-
tion and includes the following sub-levels:
(a) Receiving: willingness to listen
(b) Responding: willingness to participate
(c) Valuing: willingness to be involved
(d) Organizing: willingness to be an advocate of an idea
(e) Characterization: willingness to change one’s
behaviour or way of life
  Affective education takes a long time to achieve the
objectives as it deals with the behaviour. An individu-
al’s emotional and rational components of the brain are
somewhat independent of each other and operate sep-
arately. But at times, when they work in harmony with
each other. When the individual is faced with a prob-
lem or dilemma and is required to make a decision,
the emotional center of the brain functions first while
M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 15
1.15
the rational brain is yet to start functioning. The term
‘Emotional Intelligence’, given by Daniel Golemann
enables the individual to deal intelligently with various
social problems that one faces in life situations.
  An individual’s affective behaviour or learning is
influenced by both emotional intelligence and cogni-
tive learning.
  Therefore, the implication for the educational pro-
cess is that cognitive learning and affective learning
should be planned to go hand in hand.
  Affective flattening is a kind of schizophrenia.
This means that the person doesn’t have the full
range of emotional expression that others do. They
are relatively immobile, show unresponsive facial
expressions, have poor eye contact. Disorders such
as catatonia and alogia show inability to spea.
3. Psychomotor Domain: It is mainly concerned with
the acquisition of technical skills. There are five levels
of instructional levels under it.
(a) Imitation: It includes the demonstration of a skill
by a skilled person, and the learner tries to follow
the same.
(b) Manipulation: A learner tries to experiment
various aspects, such as manipulating machinery,
equipment, etc.
(c) Precision: Accuracy in performing various acts
increases with practice.
(d) Articulation: Achieving a desired level of effi-
ciency and effectiveness through practice.
(e) Naturalization: Skill is internalized, and an indi-
vidual is able to adapt, modify or design new tech-
niques, methods or procedures according to the
requirements of a situation.
The three domains of learning are not mutually exclusive,
the differentiation among them is warranted because of
the nature of the behavioural outcomes.
It is clear that cognitive as well as affective learning takes
place simultaneously and with the same content of learning.
Gagne and Briggs Classification of T eaching
and I nstructional O bjectives
According to this classification, the learning outcomes fall
under one of the following categories.
1. Intellectual Skills: These skills are crucial for dealing
with the environment. They include concept learning,
rule learning and problem solving.
2. Cognitive Strategies: These include methods and
techniques for one’s own learning, remembering and
thinking skills.
3. Verbal Information: It refers to organized bodies of
knowledge that an individual acquires.
4. Motor Skills: They are basically about motions car-
ried out when the brain, nervous system and muscles
work together.
5. Attitudes: They refer to an internal state of an indi-
vidual.
27/12/22 8:15 PM
 1.16
The teaching objectives can be put in the following forms
also:
Cultural context
Philosophy of people
National goals
Aims of education
Objectives of content
Translated into behaviours
figure 1.7 Hierarchy of Formulation of Objectives
Effective Teaching Practices
MaxiMs of teaching
A maxim is a ground rule or a fundamental principle
that has evolved over a period of time. It is a guide for
future action or behaviour. Teaching also has its own
set of maxims, which have been discussed below.
1. From Simple to Complex: Simple things be explained
first. This can be done with day to day examples. Then
gradually, a teacher can move towards concepts and
technical terms. This creates interest among learners
to acquire new knowledge. This is helpful for better
retention.
2. From Known to Unknown: This is related to the
first maxim. Retention is always better if new
knowledge can be linked with what is known.
3. From Seen to Unseen: Students should be imparted
knowledge about the present, and then they can
understand the past and the future better.
4. From Concrete to Abstract: The mental develop-
ment of students happen better with the concrete
objects they become familiar with and define micro-
words for them at a later stage.
5. From Particular to General: The students should be
presented with examples first and then general laws
and their derivations can be explained to them. The
experiments and demonstrations serve this purpose.
6. From Whole to Part: Gestalt psychologists have
proved that we first see the whole object and then its
parts. For example, we first perceive the tree and then
its trunk, branches, leaves, etc. Thus, the introduction
or overview of the topics is important. Linked with it
is the principle of integration during learning.
7. From Indefinite to Definite: The teacher should help
transform indefinite knowledge into definite knowl-
edge and aim to clarify the doubts of students.
8. From Psychological to Logical: During initial stages,
psychological order is more important, whereas for
grown-up learners, logical order is emphasized more.
M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 16
Chapter 1
9. From Analysis to Synthesis: Initially, the students
have little or vague knowledge about the topics.
Analysis means dividing problems into its constituent
parts, and then those are studied.
Synthesis means understanding by connecting the
knowledge acquired through analysing the parts. A
teacher should use analytic–synthetic method.
10. Follow Nature: It means to regulate the education of
a pupil according to his nature.
11. Training of Senses: The five senses, sight, sound,
taste, smell and touch are gateways to knowledge.
It is better if all or maximum of these senses can be
applied in teaching. Montessori and Fröbel are the
main proponents of this maxim.
12. Encouragement to Self-study: Dalton’s system is
based on self-study.
principLes of t eaching
They are closely related to maxims. Teaching methods are
based on two types of principles, general principles and
psychological principles.
General Principles
1. Principle of Direction: The direction of develop-
ment from head to feed is called as cephalo-caudal.
When this happens from centre (spinal cord) towards
peripheries (heart, limbs etc.) is called as proximodis-
tal sequence).
2. Principle of Activity (Learning by Doing): Fröbel’s
Kindergarten (KG) system is based on this principle. It
includes both physical and mental activities. For exam-
ple, students are asked to make charts and models.
3. Principle of Interest: By generating genuine interest
among the learner’s community, the effectiveness of
the teaching-learning process can be increased.
4. Principle of Linking with Life: Life is a continuous
experience, and learning linked with life can be more
enduring.
5. Principle of Definite Aim: This is important for opti-
mum utilization of teaching resources and making
learning more focused.
6. Principle of Recognizing Individual Differences:
Every student is unique in terms of intelligence,
attitude, abilities and potentialities, and socio-eco-
nomic background. The teaching method should be
devised in such a manner that it makes all students
avail equal opportunities in life.
7. Principle of Selection: The horizon of knowledge is
expanding every single day. The teacher should be
able to pick contents that can be more relevant and
updated to the learners’ objectives.
8. Principle of Planning: Every teacher has certain
time-bound objectives, and hence, teaching should be
systematic, to make optimum use of resources within
the time limit.
9. Principle of Division: To make learning easier, the
subject matter should be divided into units and there
should be links between the units.
27/12/22 8:15 PM
 Teaching Aptitude
10. Principle of Revision: To make learning enduring,
the acquired knowledge should be revised immedi-
ately and repeatedly.
11. Principle of Creation and Recreation: This principle
is a must to make the classroom environment humor-
ous and creative.
12. Principle of Democratic Dealing: It involves students
in planning and executing different activities; it helps
in developing self-confidence and self-respect among
the learners.
Psychological Principles
1. Principle of Motivation and Interest: A teacher
needs to understand that every student is a unique
psychological entity, and a student can be motivated
after identifying his or her motives and needs.
2. Principle of Recreation: Recreation is necessary to
tackle fatigue after attending lengthy classes. This
breaks monotony and prepares students for learning
again.
3. Principle of Repetition and Exercise: This is espe-
cially true in case of small children.
4. Principle of Encouraging Creativity and Self-
expression: This is specifically applicable in subjects
such as mathematics and languages.
5. Principle of Sympathy and Cooperation: This
principle is required for the motivation of students.
6. Principle of Reinforcement: Students should be
suitably rewarded for their desired behaviour.
7. Principle of Remedial Teaching: This principle is
necessary for the teacher to identify mistakes and
suggest better answers to the problems.
Stopover
The feedback is an important element in classroom
teaching. Which of the following elements does not
apply in the context of feedback?
(a) It should be available in a time bound manner
(b) Feedback should not be educative in nature
(c) Feedback should reference a skill or specific
knowledge
(d) Be sensitive to the individual needs of the student
The correct option is (b).
Effective Teaching Behaviour
The following aspects make teaching more effective.
1. Teach for understanding rather than exposure:
Most often, the teachers teach for exposure rather
than in-depth understanding of students. The teach-
ers should focus on less number of big ideas that are
important to critical understanding.
2. Explicit Instruction: Teachers should share those big
ideas with students and repeat them often. Students
should learn what are they going to learn and
M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 17
1.17
Concept Box
Microteaching
Microteaching is one of the most recent innovations in
teacher training program. It is a professional develop-
mental tool in pre-service or in-service teacher training
programs. It helps teachers to better understand the
processes of teaching and learning and provides the
opportunity to learn teaching skills, to study their own
teaching, and to study the teaching of others.
This is an organized, scaled-down teacher training
program where a trainee teacher plans a short lesson,
teaches it to a reduced group of students (3 to 10) in a 5
to 20 minute lesson, and then reflects on their teaching
afterwards. The lesson may be video recorded for either
individual or peer review. The trainee teacher’s micro-
lesson is reviewed, discussed, analyzed, and evaluated
to give a feedback. Based on this feedback, the trainee
teacher re-teaches the micro-lesson, incorporating those
points raised during the discussion and analysis.
Thus, microteaching has the potential to improve
the teachers’ pedagogic skills, competencies, self-con-
fidence, beliefs, and attitudes with minimum available
facilities. It provides students with valuable teaching
experiences and make them aware of the benefits and
relationships between theory and practice.
1. Plan
2.
k
ac
Te
a
db
ch
ee
-F
Re
6.
Microteaching Cycle
ck
5.
ba
Re
ed
-T
Fe
ea
3.
ch
4. Re-Plan
rationale behind them. They should be connectivity
between new material with earlier learned material.
3. Scaffolded Instruction: The teachers initially pro-
vide the students with the required support. This sup-
port is gradually reduced as students demonstrate
competence in working independently.
The following four dimensions have been identified for
effective teaching behaviour:
Methods of Teaching
‘If a child can’t learn the way we teach, we
should teach the way they learn’
—Ignacio Estrada
27/12/22 8:15 PM
 1.18 Chapter 1

Clarity Variety Task orientation, mostly Engagement in learning

(For Effective Teaching) (Newness, Motivation, in class task
Sustaining attention) (approach towards (self-directed goals and
practical and better life) drawing new experiences)
1. Objectives 1. Intensity of stimulus – 1. Goal directed 1. Make learning a
2. Knowledge speech pattern/bright light 2. Action directed ­developmental activity
3. Individual Differences 2. Contrast – sudden change 3. Achievement/ 2. Develop concentration
4. Integration of Facts 3. Teacher’s bodily gestures completion 3. Complete specified
5. Pinpointedness 4. Teacher’s movement 4. In-built motivation assigned homework
6. Levels of Teaching in class 5. Need fulfillment or task
7. Techniques of Evaluation 5. Self activity of participants 6. Relaxation 4. Reinforce the process of
8. Reflection 6. Audio-visual aids Example: Karma Yoga development of concep-
7. Teacher’s personal tual understanding and
9. Balance
behaviour/interaction application
10. Sharpness
8. Pausing

The term teaching method refers to the general principles,
pedagogy and management strategies used for classroom
instruction. They become important after setting objectives.
As per NTA-NET syllabus, we have the following two
extreme set of methods for institutes of higher learning:
1. Teacher-centred methods
2. Learner-centred methods
These can be assumed to be two extreme approaches. In
between, we can have a third method approach, which is
called mixed approach.
Teacher-Centred T eaching Methods
Lecture Method
This is the most conventional and dominating teaching
method. Teaching is primarily meant to be delivered through
lecture method. The facts, principles or relationships are
explained in the class.
The teacher is an active participant, the students are
assumed to be passive listeners. It may become one way
communication if students don’t converse during the
class.
It can be made a two-way communication if the teacher
allows students to ask few questions to clarify a point. It
is continuous in nature. The class listens, writes and notes
facts and ideas for remembering and to think them over
at a later stage.
Basic Features
1. It is formal and narrative in nature.
2. It presents a series of events or facts.
3. It explores a problem.
Advantages
1. It is cost effective as the number of students can be
taught simultaneously. It becomes more objective as
the syllabus can be covered in a prescribed time.

Table 1.3 Important Methods of Instruction

Teacher-centred strategy Mixed strategy
Large group methods Small group methods
1. Lectures 1. Group discussion
2. Team teaching 2. Seminar
3. TV or video presentation 3. Panel discussion
4. Dialogic Teaching and Direct Teaching 4. Brainstorming
5. Project method or work
6. Tutorials
7. Case study
8. Role-play
9. Simulation
10. Demonstration
Learner-centred strategy
Individualized methods
1. Tutorials
2. Assignments
3. Project work
4. Case study
5. Programmed instruction
6. Computer-assisted learning
7. Interactive video
8. Open learning
9. Personalized system of instruction (PSI)
10. Heuristic method

M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 18 27/12/22 8:15 PM

 Teaching Aptitude
3. Verbal
message
1. Visual 4. Students
message
2. Physical presence
Figure 1.8
2. It simplifies the task of the teacher.
3. It imparts factual information. The attention of
students can be drawn to important points.
4. During lecture, interruptions and distractions are
usually avoided.
Limitations
1. It provides very little opportunity for student ­activity,
as the teacher takes special care to make the class
interesting.
2. It usually does not provide opportunities to ­learners
to solve problems.
3. It offers limited opportunities for checking learning
progress, whether the students are attending and
understanding all that the teacher is explaining.
A phrase or expression in which the same thing is said
twice in different words is called ‘tautology’.
4. The interests, abilities and intelligence of students are
not taken care of.
5. It does not allow individual pace of learning.
Suggestions to make lecture method more effective:
1. Avoiding tendency to read out material from lecture
notes and that too word by word.
2. To maintain eye contact with the students to seek
their continuous attention.
3. There should be good lesson planning with introductory
remarks, main headings, sub-headings, figures and
important data and concluding remarks. The students
should get the opportunity to make notes.
4. The simple language should be used so that students
are able to understand. The main points should be
repeated in alternative language.
5. To make effective use of audio-visual instructional
facilities to improve the communication of ideas.
6. To make appropriate use of illustration and examples.
There is a need to ensure fair presentation of different
views and theories.
7. There should be provision of short breaks during
the lecture period for asking thought-provoking,
M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 19
1.19
6. What
5. What
students
students
say & do
think
notes
Lecture Method
stimulating and problem-solving questions. Leave
time at the end for clarifications and questions.
The lectures can be made interactive with the following
innovative techniques:
1. Write a Question–To motivate all the students to
spend a minute or two reflecting on the lecture thus
far and then writing down one or two questions on
paper.
2. Think-Pair-Share–A sufficiently difficult question can
be asked in the class. Then ask students to pair. The stu-
dents can be asked to share their perspectives with the
whole class.
3. Brainstorming–The students should be motivated
to share any new idea on (new) topic. This can be
recorded on the board.
4. Classroom Response Systems (Clickers)–These
techniques allow instructors to collect and analyze
student responses to multiple-choice (and sometimes
free-response) questions during class.
5. Backchannel–This refers to the student-to-student
and student-to-instructor conversations that can
occur during lectures and presentations.
6. Just-in-Time Teaching (JiTT)–It’s not uncommon to
expect students to have “done the reading” in smaller
seminar that lays the foundation for in class discus-
sions. It is basically a teaching and learning strategy
designed to promote the use of class time for more
active learning. This was developed by Educationist
Gregor Novak in 1999.
7. Team-Based Learning (TBL)–This well-developed
teaching method is similar to JiTT in that it involves
leveraging pre-class student assignments.
Team Teaching Method
This is an innovative approach in teaching large groups
in which two or more teachers are involved in planning,
executing and evaluating the learning experiences for a
group of students.
27/12/22 8:15 PM
 1.20 Chapter 1

INSTRUCTIONS / PLANNING ARE EQUALLY Dialogic Teaching and Direct Teaching

SHARED BETWEEN TECAHERS Dialogic teaching was developed by Robin Alexander in
early 2000s. It harnesses the ‘power of talk’ to stimulate
and extend students’ thinking and advance their learning
and understanding. It helps the teacher more precisely to
Teachers
diagnose students’ needs, frame their learning tasks and
Must Trust assess their progress.
Each Other Direct teaching is the use of straightforward, explicit
teaching techniques, usually to teach a specific skill. In
teacher-directed method, the teacher stands in front of a
classroom and presents the information. It is mostly used
for the languages where there is no need to make use of
native language.
Here, a teacher gets focused on explanations, reviews
Both teachers are Equally respected and feedback.
Students Feel a Greater presence when both teachers
work together Mastery Learning Model (MLM): This is basically an
educational strategy that was first introduced by educator
figure 1.9 Team Teaching Method Benjamin Bloom in 1968. This strategy uses multi-tiered
lessons, multiple assessments, and instructor feedback to
help students master learning material. This strategy main-
Advantages tains that students are capable of learning if given the time
1. Sharing the best faculty by more students and the right combination of tools to meet their particular
2. Optimum use of multiple teaching techniques and learning needs. MLM is also called as the Competency-based
devices learning or Learning for Mastery (LFM).
3. Improvement of teaching quality

Limitations Stopover
1. Finding teachers with special competencies is a diffi- Which of the following should be termed as the prin-
cult task. ciples of dialogic teaching?
2. More teachers are required for this method. (i) Collective
3. Not useful for teaching all subjects. (ii) Reciprocal
4. Requires much time for planning and scheduling. (iii)Supportive
(iv) Cumulative
(v) Purposeful
TV or Video Presentation Codes:
Television or video presentation is an improved pres- (a) (i),(ii), (iv) and (v)
entation of radio or audio presentation, and it can (b) (ii),(iii), (iv) and (v)
virtually bring the whole world inside the classroom. (c) (i),(ii), (v) and (vi)
Screening of video presentation is followed by a discus- (d) All of the above
sion or task. The correct option is (d).
Collective means being together, reciprocal means
Advantages listening to each other, supportive means free expres-
1. Many important personalities and experts are brought sion of ideas, cumulative means chaining of ideas,
to the classroom through video presentation. purposeful means being objective.
2. Specifically useful for adult learners.
3. Illustrated lectures and demonstrations can be sup-
plemented by other teaching instructional facilities, MixeD group t eaching MethoDs
such as slides, models, specimens, etc. This may be primarily meant for 3 to 12 students. Some
4. Easily accessible for learners in remote areas. of these methods are group discussion, seminar, project
5. Specifically useful for subjects such as geography, work, tutorials, role playing, etc. These are briefly
astronomy, etc. discussed below.

Limitations Group Discussion (GD)

1. Less possibility for two-way communication. This may be counted under small group teaching meth-
2. It can be difficult to adjust complicated schedules for ods. It is one of the oldest methods used by Greek scholars
the period of the telecast. and scholars from Nalanda University.

M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 20 27/12/22 8:15 PM

 Teaching Aptitude 1.21

Group Discussion method considers various facts 5. Panel Discussion: The panel discussion method of
about the topic under discussion. It tries to understand teaching is a method in which four to six or eight per-
the relationships between facts and draws out conclu- sons or students discuss assigned topic/issue/prob-
sions of the facts. This democratic method stimulates stu- lem creatively among themselves in front of an audi-
dents’ thinking process to analyses and integrate facts and ence which may be too large.
help in developing their abilities in presentation of their
ideas and facts clearly and fluently. This is useful in the
following situations.
1. For teaching a particular subject, and for supplement-
ing a lecture.
2. It is important in connection with an observation visit
or case presentation, and for sharing information.
It helps in analysis and initiation of facts, ideas, and
concepts.
3. It is a stimulating thinking process pooling of knowl-
edge, ideas, and feelings of several persons.
4. It may rationalize the facts and thus promotes intel-
ligent learning.
5. Learning together, sharing responsibilities and inter-
ests develops a team spirit.
6. It may help in discovering talented students.
It helps in stimulating thinking process, pooling of knowl-
edge, ideas and feelings of a group, rationalization of Figure 1.10 Panel Discussion
facts and developing hidden talents.
6. Conference: Conference as a method of teaching is
some what similar to class discussion but the number
Forms of Discussion of students is more limited. Usually the teacher assigns
The types of discussion can be classroom discussion, for- large class into small conference groups. A formal
mal group discussion, discussion in terms of a sympo- lecture may be conducted on the problem/issue so
sium, panel, seminar and conference. that participants get opportunities for discussion. The
method is also used before and after an observation
1. Classroom Discussion: This is basically an informal visit - pre-visit conference and post-visit conference
method of discussion. This can be undertaken when respectively. The lecturer may involve other, teachers
class size is not too large. A topic may be selected and to lead the conference groups. He needs to explain
the whole class participates in that. The main points the objectives of the conference to all the teachers
may be written on the black board by the teacher or the involved and function as a team.
leader of the group. The group discussion may be planned, partly planned
2. Formal Group Discussion: The basic process will and unplanned.
remain the same. The groups may be of 3-5 stu-
dents. At the end of smaller group discussion, they Advantages
combine into big group again at the end of allotted 1. This method gives more independence, which leads
time of 30-40 minutes. All points may be discussed to the development of presentation skills of the
again. participants.
3. Symposium: The symposium is a form of discus- 2. It provides opportunity for the trainees to prepare and
sion in which a systematic presentation of papers or contribute to a particular topic thoroughly.
speeches concerning a problem or various aspects of 3. It provides opportunity to the trainees towards
a problem or topic are done by two or more expert practical group leadership and allows them to use
persons to an audience under the direction of a chair- ­analytical skills, research on conclusions, solve a
man followed by general discussion. The debating problem, etc.
points are avoided here. It is systematic, well planned.
Symposium method is more formal than a panel dis- Limitations of Discussion Method
cussion and the participation of the audience may not
1. It may require more time and efforts of both teachers
always play a great part.
and students. The participants may not come directly
4. Seminar: Seminar as a method of group discussion
to facts.
is similar in many ways than symposium. It is usually
2. It may create emotional stress and unpleasant feelings.
used with students in the schools, colleges and uni-
3. Only a few students may dominate in discussion.
versities. It gives training in self learning, promotes
4. Discussion may go off the track.
independent thinking, and team spirit and co-opera-
tive attitude. Thus it is not suitable for all the topics.

M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 21 27/12/22 8:15 PM

 1.22
Brainstorming
Brainstorming is a creative group work in which the
group members produce a large number of ideas quickly
on a given topic or problem for subsequent evaluation.
In this method, anyone can exchange remarks with
anyone except that the participants are not allowed to
criticize the ideas at the time when views are invited.
Sometimes the quantity of ideas is more important than
quality. Spontaneity is the hallmark of brainstorming
sessions.
Several rounds of brainstorming are conducted till all
the ideas are exhausted. Participants are then asked to
evaluate all ideas and list the best one.
Advantages
1. It encourages creativity that helps trainers to p
­ roduce,
think and explore ideas.
2. Scope for larger participation.
3. It is economical as it does not require much
preparation.
Limitations
1. It is not a very systematic way of studying a subject.
2. There is a possibility of some trainees being reluctant
to participate.
Project Method
This can be described as both a small group and an
individualized instruction. In this method, students are
allowed to explore and experience their environment
through their senses and direct their own learning by
their individual interests. Very little is taught from the
textbooks and the emphasis is on experiential learning
rather than rote learning and memorization. A project
method classroom focuses on democracy and collabora-
tion to solve purposeful problems.
Advantages
1. Students are likely to develop the habit of critical
thinking.
2. They develop the habit of working in teams.
Limitations
1. Continuous monitoring may be required.
2. Additional resources may be required.
Role Playing
Role playing has been used effectively by many teachers
to help solve classroom interpersonal problems and to
teach human-relations skills in the classroom. Role play-
ing has also been used to facilitate subject matter learning
through the dramatization of literary and historical works
and historical or current events. In all these uses, role
playing provides the student with a dramatic confronta-
tion and clarification.
M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 22
Chapter 1
Advantages
1. It has the semblance of real-life situations.
2. Interactive and interesting, it entails the participation
of every member of the group.
3. It gives immediate feedback.
4. It develops social, decision-making, problem-­solving,
negotiating and manipulating skills.
5. It is effective to change the attitude of the participants.
Limitations
1. It has unpredictable outcomes.
2. Real-life situations are usually more complex.
3. It requires a considerable amount of resources.
Simulation
Simulation means creating conditions that are quite
similar to actual conditions and then training is provided
under those conditions. For example, the training of pilots
and astronauts takes place in conditions that are quite
similar to actual flight conditions. Simulation is specifi-
cally used for training purpose.
Advantages
1. They are economical in the long run.
2. Safety aspects are taken care of.
Limitation
1. It entails high initial investment in machinery, equip-
ment, etc.
Tutorials
The tutorial method is employed for teaching small
groups for developing skills for solving numerical prob-
lems, providing individual guidance and sorting personal
problems. It is appropriate for taking care of individual
differences and guiding the students as per their needs,
mastery, learning, comprehending concepts, principles
and their applications and for remedial exercises.
Advantages
1. Focused attention
2. Generates more ideas
3. Better control over pace of teaching and learning
process.
Limitations
1. It is difficult to find a suitable pace if the trainees vary
greatly in ability.
2. It can be time consuming.
Demonstration Method
This method is based on the principle of learning by doing
and learning from concrete to abstract. The term demon-
stration means to show. It is adopted in the classroom for
the achievement of cognitive, affective and psychomotor
objectives.
27/12/22 8:15 PM
 Teaching Aptitude
figure 1.11 Demonstration Method
Demonstration can be defined as a combination of ver-
bal explanation coupled with a live display of using appa-
ratus for presenting important facts, ideas or processes. It
may entail audio–visual explanation.
Advantages
1. It is effective in explaining materials, objects and
ideas.
2. It is effective for explaining abstract concepts.
3. It is useful for achieving objectives in cognitive, psy-
chomotor and affective domains as there is mental
and physical participation of students.
Limitation
1. Only few get opportunities to participate in the exper-
imental process.
Learner-centreD t eaching MethoDs
The learner-centred teaching methods try to accommo-
date the differences displayed between the learners. The
main teaching methods include assignments, case-study
approach, computer-based learning, open learning, per-
sonalized system of instruction and programmed instruc-
tions, which are discussed below.
Assignments
Assignments are given to students for a number of pur-
poses, such as for acquiring additional information,
surveying, application of knowledge and solving numeri-
cal problems. Although the main role is of the learner, the
teacher too has a crucial role. The teacher has to plan the
assignments and guide the student regarding references
for collecting relevant information.
Assignments can be prepared on any type of topic, but
the nature of assignment should be such that the students
M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 23
1.23
do not merely copy from the books. The assignments
should be open-ended and should promote creativity
among the students.
Advantages
1. It helps students work independently.
2. It helps sharpen the student’s comprehension, analytical
and problem-solving abilities.
3. It helps in the inculcation of creativity among students.
Limitation
1. Students may copy each other’s material unless the
assignments are carefully planned.
Case Study
Case study approach is an innovative student centred
approach where students gain hands-on experience of the
real world. It is important to bring real-world problems
into a classroom or a workshop.
A case is usually a ‘description of an actual situation,
commonly involving a decision, a challenge, an opportu-
nity, a problem, or an issue faced by a person or persons
in a social set-up such as an organization’. In case stud-
ies, the students must deal with situations described in
the case, that is basically in the role of a decision-maker
facing the situation. This method has been adopted in dis-
ciplines, such as psychology, management, biology, law,
sociology, history, etc.
The cases can be short, from brief classroom discus-
sions, to long and elaborate semester-long projects. This
ensures active participation and may lead to innovative
solutions to the problems.
Programmed Instruction (PI):
PI is a general term for a highly structured system of
learning, which is based on logical sequence of self-paced,
learning steps with feedback between each step. The
learner gets immediate feedback after each step.
Concept Box
Brainstorming Session: Flow of Ideas
Ideas
Strategies
Situation
Problems Needs Objectives
• The Idea you want to develop should flow from the
strategies you identify to achieve the objectives.
• Objective is what you want to achieve.
• Strategy is how you propose to achieve the objective
• Ideas can be all over the place. To develop ideas
efficiently, you need a strategy that addresses the
identified problem.
27/12/22 8:15 PM
 1.24
Advantages
1. There is regular feedback.
2. This ensures active participation of the learner and it
can be used for any subject.
Limitation
1. Learner motivation may get diminished after sometime.
Personalized System of Instruction (PSI)
PSI can be used for all subject matters except where the
students are to select the content. Learners must achieve
mastery on a series of written mastery units, assisted
by teachers, proctors and enriching lectures before pro-
ceeding to the final test. PSI consists of five basic ele-
ments as:
1. Mastery Learning Model (MLM)
2. Self-pacing
3. Stress on written material
4. Proctors
5. Lectures
It is best-suited for content that is usually conveyed
through written material.
Advantages
1. It is based on mastery learning.
2. It facilitates self-paced learning.
Limitations
1. It is not suitable for rapidly changing course contents.
2. It is not suitable for psychomotor and affective
domains.
Computer-Assisted Learning (CAL)
CAL is concerned with the use of a computer to mediate
the flow of information in a learning process. A computer
has the ability to process information very quickly,
accurately and to adapt and respond to the learner’s
needs, difficulties, and progress, which is much greater
than that of a book or video tape.
Advantages
1. It has more flexibility and better control in comparison
to other methods.
2. It can be effectively used for drilling and practising,
simulation and modelling.
Limitation
1. It is impersonal and costly.
Open Learning
It is a flexible method of delivering the instruction, where
the learner has open access to learning resources of peo-
ple, material, equipment and accommodation, although
regular class attendances are not necessary. There are no
or minimal restrictions on admissions.
The face-to-face interaction between teachers and
students through tutorials should form a part of open
M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 24
Chapter 1
learning. For open learning, the learning packages are
to be developed making use of multimedia. Open learn-
ing instruction is, however, not suitable for the rapidly
changing nature of content as this involves time, exper-
tise and resources.
Advantage
1. It offers flexibility to the learner.
Limitations
1. It is not suitable for achieving psychomotor and affec-
tive learning objectives.
2. It requires time, expertise, resources and is hence not
suitable for subjects of rapidly changing nature.
Interactive Video
The interactive video approach to teaching can be
employed to achieve cognitive, psychomotor and affec-
tive objectives. It allows the learner to randomly access
any piece of information and provide immediate feed-
back regarding the consequences of their action.
The essence of the interactive video experience is video
simulation with a greater number of video presentations
of real images.
Advantage
1. Interactive video approach enhances the decision-
making power of an individual.
Limitation
1. This method is time consuming and requires resources
and expertise.
Concept Box
Reflective Teaching
Classroom teaching depends on many factors, such as
individual differences, class environment, teacher’s
and learner’s abilities and the subject matter of the les-
son. There is no standard and perfect teaching method
to follow but teachers should seek a suitable approach
to present their lessons. Reflective teaching is specifi-
cally useful for pre-service teachers.
A reflexive teaching approach involves the use of
Experience Based Learning (EBL) techniques, which
engage the whole person and stimulate reflection on expe-
rience, whilst opening up the learner to new experiences.
a. The steps involved in reflective teaching are ‘sugges-
tions, problems, hypothesis, reasoning and testing’.
Reflective teaching is also seen as the attitude of
questioning the practice of the teaching profession.
b. The peer observation, written account of
experiences, self-reports, auto-biographies, journal
writing, collaborative diary keeping and recording
lessons, student’s feedback, teacher’s stories are all
common examples.
27/12/22 8:15 PM
 Teaching Aptitude
Heuristic Method
This method was advocated by Prof. Armstrong. In
this method, the student has to find out the answer
to his/her own problem by unaided efforts. Thus, the
child becomes a discoverer of knowledge by develop-
ing a spirit of inquiry. The main aim of teaching by
this method is not to provide much facts about science,
mathematics, grammar, etc., but to teach how knowl-
edge of these can be obtained.
Advantage
1. Self-learning approach
Limitation
1. Not much focus on factual knowledge
Differentiated Instruction (DI)
Differentiated instruction is a dynamic, proactive method
of teaching. It means that the teacher plans and uses a vari-
ety of ways to teach learning. It is a ­combination of whole
group, small group and individual instruction methods.
In this method, the qualitative aspects are given more
weightage than quantitative aspects. It uses multiple
approaches to accommodate multiple intelligences. It is
student centred, meaning that the lessons are engaging,
relevant, interesting and active. It is an organized and
planned method of teaching.
Flexibility Point of View
This includes the following types.
Autocratic Style: It refers to the control of a teacher over
the teaching methodologies. This includes Lecture, Lesson
demonstration, Tutorials and Programmed instruction.
Permissive Style: They are mainly student-centred. The
students choose what and how to learn. They may be sup-
ported by the teacher. They include Question-Answer,
Heuristics, Projects, Review, Group discussion, Role-
playing, Assignment, Discovery, CAI, Brain storming,
Open—Independent study, Leaders group or T-group,
and Sensitivity Training.
In T-group method, the participants learn about them-
selves through their interaction with each other. The feed-
back, problem solving, and role play techniques are used.
Thus, it an experience-based learning in the small groups
of 8-14 people. This is meant over an extended period.
The sensitivity training is linked with T- group. This
aims at making people more aware of their own goals as
well as their prejudices, and more sensitive to others and
to the dynamics of group interaction. This includes the
following steps.
1. Unfreezing the old values – awareness about the
inadequacy of the old values. This includes coming
out of dilemma of old values vs new values.
2. Development of new values – through training etc.
3. Refreezing the new ones – through practicing new
role and behaviour.
M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 25
1.25
Stopover
Below given are two columns. Column–A lists meth-
ods of teaching and Column–B lists the focus of a
method.
Match Column–A with Column–B.
Column–A Column–B
(A) Lecture method (i) Participative procedure
(B) Demonstration (ii) Experience-based
method learning
(C) Project method (iii) Large amount of
knowledge
(D) Collaborative (iv) Learning together
method
Select your answer from the options given below:
(a) (A)–(i); (B)–(iii); (C)–(ii); (D)–(iv)
(b) (A)–(ii); (B)–(iv); (C)–(i); (D)–(iii)
(c) (A)–(iii); (B)–(i); (C)–(ii); (D)–(iv)
(d) (A)–(iii); (B)–(ii); (C)–(iv); (D)–(i)
The correct option is (d).
Gagne’s Teaching – Learning
Process
Robert Gagne (1916–2002) was an educational psy-
chologist who pioneered the science of instruction in the
1940s. His book “The Conditions of Learning” first pub-
lished in 1965, identified the mental conditions that are
necessary for effective learning. Gagne created a nine-
step process that detailed each element required for
structuring of lectures that results in effective teaching.
1. Level 1: Gaining Attention (Reception): The fore-
most task for teachers before starting teaching is to
gain the attention of students. This change in stimu-
lus alerts the group that learning will soon take place.
This can be done by raising the volume of voice, ges-
turing, showing a short video.
2. Level 2: Informing Learners of the Objective
(Expectancy): Now the class is ready to learn the
new information. This should be explained to the
learners that what are the objectives and benefits of
the lecture or session.
3. Level 3: Stimulating Recall of Prior Learning
(Retrieval): There may be a need to establishing link-
ing or connectivity with the previous learning.
4. Level 4: Presenting the Stimulus (Selective
Perception): Present the new information to the
group in an effective manner. That also means in a
27/12/22 8:15 PM
 1.26
logical and easy-to-understand manner. Try to use a
variety of different media and styles (such as visual
cues, verbal instruction, and active learning) to suit
people with different learning styles.
5. Level 5: Providing Learning Guidance (Semantic
Encoding): The team should be provided alterna-
tive approaches so that learners are able to learn and
retain the information. This aspect can be illustrated
by citing examples, case studies, graphics, storytell-
ing, or analogies.
6. Level 6: Eliciting Performance (Responding): At
this stage, a teacher needs to ensure the learning of
students. This can be done by making them to demon-
strate their knowledge gained so far. There can be role
playing exercises.
7. Level 7: Providing Feedback (Reinforcement):
After the demonstration of their knowledge, provide
them the feedback and reinforce the necessary points.
8. Level 8: Assessing Performance (Retrieval): The
learners should complete the test assigned to them
in an independent manner, without any explicit help
or coaching of the teacher. The students can be given
tests, short questionnaires, or even essays.
9. Level 9: Enhancing Retention and Transfer
(Generalization): The learners must be in a position
to retain information by transferring their new knowl-
edge or skill to situations that are different from the
ones that are taught on in the class. Repeated practice
is the best approach. This helps in making them profi-
cient and desired generalizing.
Learning Principles of Robert G agne
The eight basic types have been arranged in a hierarchy.
If arranged in a pyramid, the first four in the pyramid are
‘behaviourial’ and rest up to problem solving are ‘cognitive’.
1. Signal learning: This is the simplest form of learn-
ing. This mainly includes the classical conditioning
that was first developed by the behavioral psycholo-
gist Pavlov. The dog linked experiment is divided into
conditioned (with food) and unconditioned (with
food). The animal (or individual) acquires a condi-
tioned response to a given signal.
Example: When there is a red signal (conditioned
response) on the road, people stop their vehicles.
2. Stimulus-response learning: This is also called as
‘operand conditioning’. It was originally developed by
Skinner. This learning is all about getting a response
to a Stimuli.
Example: When a teacher instructs the students to
raise their hands (stimuli), the students immediately
raise their hands (response).
3. Chaining: This is the ability to connect two or more
previously-learned stimulus-response bonds into a
linked sequence. This is of two types.
(i) Motor chaining: learning a skill such as riding a bike
(ii) Verbal chaining: rote learning such as saying or
a time table. These skills help in the development
of language skills.
M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 26
Chapter 1
4. Verbal association: The links between the items
being connected are described as verbal in nature.
This association helps in the development of language
skills. The simplest example is of naming an object,
which involves a chain of two links.
Example: Someone is named as Ishwar Chander that
is association of Ishwar and Chander.
5. Discrimination learning: This means developing the
ability to make appropriate (different) responses to a
series of similar stimuli that differ in a systematic way.
For example, differentiating an object by its colour,
shape etc.
6. Concept learning: This means developing an abil-
ity to make a consistent response to different stimuli
that form a common class or category of some sort.
This forms the basis of the ability to generalize, clas-
sify etc. For example, we respond to stimuli in terms
of abstract features such as color, shape, position etc.,
instead of on the basis of their concrete physical prop-
erties such as boiling point, melting point etc.
7. Rule learning: This is a very high level cognitive
process. It involves the ability to learn relationships
between concepts which can be applied in different
situations which may not be previously encountered.
Thus, we relate two or more concepts. Rules are, in
effect, chains of concepts. The knowledge may be rep-
resented as a hierarchy of rules.
8. Problem solving: This is the highest level of cog-
nitive process. It involves developing the ability to
invent a complex rule, algorithm or procedure for
the purpose of solving one particular problem, and
then using the method to solve other problems of a
similar nature.
5E Model: Atkin and Karplus suggested creation
of the 5E Model. It focuses on allowing students to
understand a concept over time through a series
of established steps, or phases - Engage, Explore,
Explain, Elaborate, and Evaluate.
Stopover
1. In Gagne’s hierarchy of learning styles which type
of learning immediately precedes ‘Rule learning’?
(2021)
(a) Problem solving learning
(b) Concept learning
(c) Discrimination learning
(d) Chain learning
The correct answer is (b).
Blended Learning
This model has been adopted by UGC now. This term
‘blended learning’ originated in USA. There is no clear
single definition available for it. Blended learning
combines online learning with face-to-face learning. It is
27/12/22 8:15 PM
 Teaching Aptitude 1.27

also defined as the combination of multiple approaches everybody top level higher learner to go on fast track
to pedagogy or teaching, for example, self-paced, while the slow learner would require extra time and
collaborative and inquiry-based study. It improves assistance to meet their academic targets. Keeping this
research skills, self-learning, self-engagement, self- mind, the ABC can mainly be understood through six
driving force, better decision making and also adds to building blocks:
computer literacy. It offers a larger sense of responsibility.
The overall goal of blended learning is to provide the
most efficient and effective instruction experience by
combining delivery modalities. The different types have Any Subject Bachelor of
been mentioned below. Combinations Liberal Education

Blended face-to-face class: This is based in the classroom, Notion of Specialization Notion of Branches broken or
broken more interdisciplinary types of Degrees to change
although there are many online activities.

Blended online class: Sometimes referred to as the Merging of Regular, Academic Convert Credits
“online driver model,” this class is the inverse of the Distance, Online Bank of into Degrees
& Virtual Modes Credit & Diplomas
blended face-to-face class. The class is mostly conducted
online, but there are some required in-person activities Notion of Mode of Education Notion of Educational
broken–Flexible education
such as lectures or labs. Currency broken

The flipped classroom: This reverses the traditional class Life Long
Study in any National
structure of listening to a lecture in class and completing or International
Learning Enabler
homework activities at home. Students in flipped classes Institutions
watch a short lecture video online and come into the Notion of Time of Education Notion of Physical Campus
classroom to complete activities such as group work, broken–Fast/Slow Degrees & Locations broken
Multiple Entry Multiple Exit
projects or other exercises. The flipped classroom model
can be seen as a sub-model of the blended face-to-face or Figure 1.12 ABC Building Blocks
blended online class.

The rotation model: Here, the students in a course

rotate between various modalities, one of which is online There is another linked approach, also called as Active
learning. There are various sub-models: station rotation, Blended Collaborative (ABC).
lab rotation and individual rotation. This requires
students in a course to rotate among locations on campus The Treasure Within: Jacques Delors from France is the
(at least one of which is an online learning lab). In the main proponent of the four pillar approach. He stated
individual rotation model, a student rotates through that lifelong learning is essential for gaining self-esteem
learning modalities on a customised schedule. and the ability to take control of one’s own life.
The self-blend model: Learners using this model are
enrolled in a school but take online courses in addition
to their traditional face-to-face courses. They are not
directed by a faculty member and choose which courses
they will take online and which they will take in person.
Learning to Live Together

The blended MOOC: This is a form of flipped classroom

Learning to Know

using in-person class meetings to supplement a massive

Learning to Do

Learning to Be

open online course. In 2012, San Jose State University

piloted such a blended MOOC.
Flexible-mode courses: This course offers all instruction
in multiple modes - in person and online and students
choose how to take their course. An example of this is
San Francisco State University’s hybrid flexible (HyFlex)
model.

Academic Bank of Credit (ABC): ABC is a carefully

laid out set of building blocks that has flexibility for Figure 1.13 Four Pillars of Learning

M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 27 27/12/22 8:15 PM

 1.28 Chapter 1

Offline vs Online Methods Offline Teaching Online Teaching

tabLe 1.4 Differences Between Offline Classroom
and Online Classroom
Offline Teaching
Methods
Teacher is the central
focus of teaching learning
process.
Learner is more passive,
there are less roles for
him.
Teacher is the facilitator
of knowledge and subject
matter.
The teaching strategy
is verbal oriented and
traditional.
There may be some use of
multimedia.
There is less student
interaction with
technology.
Focus on face-to-face
interaction between
teacher and learners
Online Teaching
Methods
Learner is the key focus
of the teaching–learning
process
Learning is more active
with more roles in the
process.
Teacher helps in
construction of knowledge
There is less focus on
instructions and more on
styles and methods.
Multimedia may be used
in a variety of way.
More interaction with
technology
Face-to-face interaction
between teacher and
learners is less
Methods Methods
Less chance for motivation There are greater chances
and self leaning for self learning and
motivation.
More use of traditional Makes use of innovative
styles of teaching techniques of instruction
Use of technological Use of technological
instruments is less instruments is more
Duration and period of Duration and period of
study is fixed study may be flexible
Massive o pen o nLine courses (Moocs)
Since last one decade, MOOCs have become important.
The learners come from diverse geographical areas, aca-
demic backgrounds, and professional pursuits.
India has become the second largest user of MOOCs
after USA. MOOCs courses are being run by pri-
vate houses, and also by Government with help from
National Program me on Technology Enhanced Learning
(NPTEL), IITs in India. SWAYAM is also a part of it. They
help in making education reach some target group,
achieve desired literacy level, and sharpen the skills of
youth.
MOOCs are further divided into two categories – cMOOCs
and xMOOCs.

Concept Box

X
FOCUS ON
m o o c
SCALABILITY

C
MASSIVE OPEN ONLINE COURSE
What is massive? 1. Open 1. Real-time 1. Self-paced
It may be 100 or Registration interaction? 2,. Start and end dates
1,000 or 10,000 2. Open content 2. Open content 3. College credits
or 100,000 or any 3. Free of charge 4. Badges
FOCUS ON number. or not 5. Role of the instructor
COMMUNITY AND 4. Affordable? 6. Learning community
7. Formal assessments
CONNECTIONS
and feedback

M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 28 27/12/22 8:15 PM

 Teaching Aptitude 1.29

1. cMOOCs are MOOCs that allow for dynamic develop- be taken as a combo of open and distributed as shown
ment of study material. That is, instead of having a below:
pre-planned set of reading materials and courseware,
the material is developed through online discussions
and collaborations among learners taking the course
across the globe.
2. xMOOCs believe in the conventional approach where MOOCs
the courses are well-structured with pre-selected Flexible
reading and reference materials. Open Learning Distributed
MOOCs were first started in 2008 by George Siemens Environments
and Stephen Downs. It was called as “Connectivism
and Connective Knowledge 2008” or simplified
as CCK08. It was created as a credit course for the
University of Manitoba.
There were effective changes in 2012 when Professors
Sebastian Thrun and Peter Norvig of Stanford University
started the online course called “Introduction to MOOCs Open and distributed learning Environment
Artificial Intelligence”. After its success, both Professors Pedagogical benefits of MOOCs are given in Table 1.5:
started Udacity, a business model for online knowledge
sharing. Coursera and EdX were very popular initially.
Table 1.5  ink between MOOC features and
L
Most MOOC courses have a schedule with start and end
Pedagogical benefits
date. There are some self-paced courses that are without
time restrictions of joining and enrolment. They are only MOOC Features Pedagogical Benefits
six percent of all the MOOCs offered.
In MOOCs, instructions are delivered in the form Online mode of delivery Efficacy of online learning
of multimedia content. The mixed mode approach,
‘blended learning’ brings together the online and the Online quizzes and Retrieval learning
face-to-face classroom components. This approach has assessments
been recommended by University Grant Commission.
Short videos and quizzes Mastery learning
This needs a multiple language platform. Government
promotes open technologies. Peer and self-assessment Enhanced learning
Now more users are accessing the courses via mobile through this assessment
devices including tablets, smart phone, than ever
before. These applications can support multiple plat- Short videos Enhanced attention
forms such as, android and iOS, allowing the learners and focus
to use the mobile devices to get enrol, access to course
content, and participate in all course activities. Online forums Peer assistance,
out-of-band learning
The following features are mostly adopted for MOOC
courses.
Process of MOOC Courses
1. Course Format–self-paced or scheduled course
1. Choose the Platform: There are multiple of plat-
2. Learning Model–online or blended. forms. A MOOC should be useful, consistent and cred-
3. Number of Courses ible. There can be following platforms.
4. Number of users already registered in any course of
platform. Provider Course Format Learning Model
5. Institutional Credits: Whether other institution
NPTEL Scheduled Online
provides credit for courses completed on the MOOC
platforms. mooKIT Scheduled Blended
6. Platform Language: What are the languages in
which the platform is provided? IITBX Scheduled Self-Pace Online
7. Mobile App: Do the platform have an App? SWAYAM Scheduled Self-Pace Blended
8. App Platform: For which platform, android and/or
iOS the app is provided. 2. Create an Account
MOOCs are driven by pedagogical techniques, knowl- 3. Decide how we want to Learn: There are three types
edge sharing and globalization. Courses are offered for of courses:
free or at very nominal cost. Many MOOC courses may (a) Audited course–learning course for our own
offered by professors at the top schools. MOOCs can also benefit

M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 29 27/12/22 8:15 PM

 1.30
(b) Certified course–to receive a certificate (veri-
fied or unverified)
(c) Specialisation course–consists of series of
course leading to a specialization
4. Enrolling in the MOOC
5. Complete the course
The Learner-Centric MOOCs (LCMs) have also become
very important during recent times.
Microcredentials: Microcredentials are a series of related
MOOCs that allows a person to gain a deeper understand-
ing of a specific subject.
1. MicroMasters—such as edX’s Artificial Intelligence
MicroMasters
2. Specializations—such as Coursera’s Deep Learning
Specialization
3. Nanodegrees—such as Udacity’s Self-Driving Car
Engineer Nanodegree.
Class Central is a search engine for online courses. Class
Central has been keeping track of SWAYAM’s progress since
the platform was first announced back in August 2014.
MOOC Platforms in I ndia
India is among the leading countries in terms of enrolments
in courses provided edX, Coursera, Udacity, SWAYAM
, NPTEL. Thus MOOC is an eminent alternative for the
learners in India to have access to higher education, and
to improve quality of their education with online learning.
Government has taken many steps to provide ‘open edu-
cation’ for repositories, libraries, educational media files,
e-books, etc. They have been made accessible to all through
technology with participation of following institutions.
1. IGNOU’s National Digital Repository
2. Sakshat providing e-content
3. CBSE’s Shishya for XI-XII Standards
4. Vidya Vahini integrating IT into the curriculum of
rural schools
5. Education and Research Network (ERNET) connect-
ing various colleges and schools by providing network
connectivity
6. EDUSAT - a satellite launched for education in India
7. Consortium for Educational Communication (CEC)–
the use of TV
8. Information and Library Network Centre (INFLIBNET)-
autonomous Inter-University Centre for connecting
university libraries.
9. e-PG Pathshala for postgraduate course – it is man-
aged by INFLIBNET of UGC. It is more of a repository
of e-content and assessment than a MOOC.
e-PG Pathshala is an initiative of Ministry of Education
under its National Mission on Education through ICT
(NME-ICT). It is being executed by the UGC.
e-Adhyayan (e-Books), UGC MOOCs and e-Pathya
(Offline Access) are closely linked with e-PG Pathshala.
M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 30
Chapter 1
Important MOOC linked I nstitutions
The following institutions are important from examina-
tion point of view.
A. National Program me on Technology
Enhanced Learning (NPTEL)
1. NPTEL was started by the Ministry of Education in
2003 that is basically a joint initiative of seven IITs and
the Indian Institute of Science (IISC), Bengaluru for
different streams such as computer science; electrical,
mechanical, and ocean engineering; management;
humanities, music, etc., free of cost. The certificates
may be issued at a nominal cost. Open technology is
used for such courses.
2. The courses are powered by Google’s open-source
platform Course Builder that runs on app engine
and Compute Engine. The course content is offered
through conventional video lectures or with PPT
slides to share the content.
3. NPTEL is the largest single repository of technical
courses through video format and with text meta-data
form videos, text transcription and subtitling. There is
use of multiple Indian languages. With hundreds of
new courses, they look like MOOC providers.
B. mooKIT
1. This open source lightweight MOOC management
system was developed by IIT-Kanpur in 2014. It is
used from micro to massive. It is designed to offer
cMOOC (connectivist MOOC). It is specially designed
to deal with low-bandwidth and low-computing
power situations.
2. mooKIT provides an indicator to help in solution of
problems. It gives a visual indication of bad connec-
tion to the learner and they can use other content
delivery options that mooKIT provides. There is the
provision of phone calls that helps learners from rural
areas. This feature is very helpful for learners from
rural areas, which don’t have smart phone, laptop,
internet connectivity, high bandwidth.
3. It has a very powerful analytics interface that allows
the learners to view their course activities.
It offers four types of solutions based on the requirement:
1. mooKIT Standard: It is used to run a single course,
even YouTube videos can be used. Example, moocon-
mooc.org.
2. mooKIT Enterprise: It is suitable to run a large num-
ber of online courses. Users are a part of a portal and
will be able to enroll in the courses they’re interested
in. Example, mooc4dev.org, and agmoocs.in.
3. mooKIT Replicated: It is suitable for low bandwidth
areas, by allowing the content to be cached on local
servers. The serves will sync periodically for updates.
4. mooKIT Personal or Mobi-mooKIT: It can run on the
devices with low computation and low storage capa-
bility as of mobile devices. It does not provide forum
or social networking due to the device constraint.
27/12/22 8:15 PM
 Teaching Aptitude 1.31

Concept Box

Higher School
Education Education

Flow of Flow of
resources resources

IITs, ITSc, Universities, National E-library NCERT, CBSE, NIOS,

and other stake (Containing all the media resources) SIETs, SIEs, and other
holders in Higher stake holders in School
education Education
Flow of
Login

Login
Researchers, Researchers,
Educators Teachers, resources Educators Teachers,
etc. etc.

MOOCs platform

Higher School
Education Education

Source: Ministry of Education, Government of India

C. IIT-BombayX More Discussion a bout Mooc

IIT-BombayX is a non-profit MOOC platform developed technicaL issues
by IIT Bombay using the open-source platform Open edX,
1. Coursebuilder: NPTEL courses are run on open-source
in 2014.
platform CourseBuilder that was created by Google in
The funding was done by National Mission on
2012. Anyone can offer their own courses using course
Education through Information and Communication
builder platform. Yet, the platform does not incorpo-
Technology (NMEICT), Ministry of Education. It offers
rate social networking as such. This course is built on
courses on different subjects from multiple disciplines.
Google app engine that is written in Python.
It uses blended learning. This model is named as “Blended
Learning - MOOC Model of IIT Bombay (BLMM)”. In this 2. Drupal: Drupal base code is written in PHP. It is
system prime universities from India are offering MOOC hosted on Apache Web Server as an application.
courses to Indian local college learners. For developing mooKIT, Drupal is used as open
source Content Management System (CMS) that
Institution is the core part of platform. Drupal is also used as a
Year of Behind back-end system for many websites relating to per-
Provider Launch Platform Website Link sonal blogs to corporate, political, and government
sites. It is also used for knowledge management and
NPTEL 2003 IIT Madras nptel.ac.in/ business collaboration.
These modules are written mainly in PHP and Java
mooKIT 2012 IIT Kanpur www.mookit.co/ Script.
IITBX 2014 IIT Bombay iitbombayx.in/ 3. Open EdX: IITBX is powered by open source Open
edX that was developed in 2013. EdX is founded by
SWAYAM 2016 MHRD and swayam.gov.in Harvard University and Massachusetts Institute of
Microsoft Technology (MIT).

M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 31 27/12/22 8:15 PM

 1.32 Chapter 1

  It is used by educational providers to host their own by the best faculty and available free of cost. There are
MOOCs. It can also used to host smaller classes and more than 1,000 specially chosen faculty members.
training modules. The courses hosted on SWAYAM are in 4 quadrants:
  Open EdX is mostly based on python with Django
(a) Video tutorials covering a whole course (normally
as the web framework. It is a web-based platform for
of 20 hours, each lecture not exceeding 30 minutes)
creating, delivering, and analyzing online courses.
(b) E-Content (added to the learning imparted
  LMS Module, Insight and CMS or Studio Module
through the video tutorials)
are also linked with it.
(c) Self assessment (Quizzes/assignments that
4. SWAYAM: This independent and microsoft supported intersperse the course)
MOOC type programme has been discussed sepa- (d) Discussion forum for posting queries
rately in this unit.
Features of SWAYAM
Challenges for MOOC in I ndia
(a) High quality learning experience using multime-
Some of the major concerns regarding the implementa- dia on an anytime, anywhere basis.
tion of MOOCs in India have been discussed below: (b) One-stop web location for interactive ­e-content
1. Technological Infrastructure: There can be digital for all courses from school to university level.
divide issues. MOOC needs the high speed internet (c) State-of-the-art system that allows easy access,
connections. monitoring and certification.
2. Investment: There is a need to liberalise conventional (d) Peer group interaction and discussion forum to
regulations and encourage public private partnership clarify doubts
for creating MOOCs in this country. (e) Hybrid model that adds to the quality of class
3. Diversified Needs: India is a well diversified nation room teaching.
in terms of culture, languages, and rural urban divide. Thus, all this happens through using audio-video, multi
We need to minimize such ‘digital divide’ through media and State-of-the-art pedagogy/technology.
uniform policy measures to ensure better quality.
4. Adoption of MOOC among Learners: There is a need Nine National Coordinators are:
for improvement in communication skills – both in oral
1. AICTE-self-paced and international courses
and written forms – between a teacher and learners.
2. NPTEL-engineering
5. Quality: There is a need for better quality teachers and
3. UGC-Non-technical PG education
technical staff to create and deliver quality of MOOC
4. CEC-UG education
programmes.
5. NCERT
6. NIOS-school education
Stopover 7. IGNOU-out of school students
Massive Open Online Courses (MOOCs) are:
8. IIMB-Management studies
(a) flexible and open form of self-directed, online 9. NITTTR-Teacher Training programme
learning designed for mass participation
(b) flexible and open form of teacher-directed, online
learning designed for mass participation
(c) flexible and open form of selfdirected, off-line Ministry of Education - Guidlines for
learning designed for mass participation MOOC guidelines Developing online
(d) flexible and open form of teacher-directed, off- courses for
line learning designed for mass participation SWAYAM
The correct option is (a).

SWAYAM
SWAYAM is an indigenous (Made in India) IT Massive
Open Online Courses (MOOCs) Platform for provid-
University Grants All India Council for
ing best quality education that can be accessed by any-
Commission Technical Education
one, anytime and anywhere using an IT system. It was gazette: Credit gazette:
launched by the Government of India to achieve the framework for Credit framework
three cardinal principles of Education–access, equity online learning for online learning
and quality. Access means taking the best teaching learn- courses through courses through
ing even to the most disadvantaged. It seeks to bridge SWAYAM SWAYAM
the digital divide for the economically disadvantaged
students at all levels. It is taught in classrooms from
9th class till post-graduation to be accessed by anyone, Figure 1.14 SWAYAM Framework
anywhere and at any time. The sessions are developed Source: Ministry of Education

M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 32 27/12/22 8:15 PM

 Teaching Aptitude 1.33

Students looking for certifications shall be registered and 4. Assist students (class 11th and 12th) prepare for com-
offered a certificate on successful completion of the course, petitive exams.
with a small fee. The assessment takes place through proc-
tored examination and the marks/grades secured in this Teaching Support System
exam could be transferred to the academic record of the stu- Teacher Support System is basically a set of tools that
dents. UGC has already issued the UGC (Credit Framework helps to improve student achievement by building newer
for online learning courses through SWAYAM) Regulation capacities in the teachers. It can be taken as kind of process
2016 advising the Universities to identify courses where as well, it influences the way decisions are made and what
credits can be transferred on to the academic record of the information is passed on. This helps us to know that how
students. teachers acquire new skills and increase student achieve-
SWAYAM platform is indigenously developed by ment in areas they are underperforming. Though they
Ministry of Education and AICTE with the help of are happening simultaneously, the movement has taken
Microsoft, and would be ultimately capable of hosting place from traditional to modern to ICT (Information and
2000 courses and 80000 hours of learning, covering communication technology)-based education. It happens
school, under-graduate, post-graduate, engineering, with the help of technology also.
law and other professional courses.
Traditional and Modern Methods
Stopover Let’s first differentiate between traditional and modern
approaches:
Which programme or course provide advance cur-

riculum and professional certification under a unified Traditional Methods Modern Methods
scheme and also meets the demands of Choice based
credit system in India? Traditional is basically Modern is a student-
(a) SWAYAM teacher-centred instruction centric approach that
(b) NPTEL that reflects educational reflects educational
(c) UGC essentialism and education progressivism.
(d) AICTE perennialism.
The correct option is (a).
Memorization of facts, The understanding of
objective information and facts, application of facts,
correct knowledge are analysis, evaluation,
Swayam Prabha paramount. innovation and critical
The SWAYAM PRABHA is a group of 34 DTH ­channels thinking is paramount
devoted to telecasting of high-quality educational pro-
grammes on 24 × 7 basis using the GSAT-15 ­satellite. Every This aims at high test This aims at learning,
day, there will be new content for at least 4 hours which scores, grades and retention, accumulation
would be repeated 5 more times in a day, allowing the stu- ultimately degrees. of valuable knowledge
dents to choose the time of their convenience. The channels Subjects are individual and and skills. Subjects
are uplinked from BISAG, Gandhinagar. The contents are independent. are integrated and
provided by NPTEL, IITs, UGC, CEC, IGNOU, NCERT and multidisciplinary.
NIOS. The INFLIBNET Centre maintains the web portal.
The students are matched The students are matched
The DTH Channels shall cover the following:
by age, ability, etc. by interest or ability for
1. Higher Education: Curriculum-based course contents each project or subject.
at post-graduate and under-graduate levels covering It can be multiage also.
diverse disciplines, such as arts, science, commerce,
performing arts, social sciences and humanities, This method has direct Practicality, discoveries,
engineering, technology, law, ­medicine, agriculture, instruction and lectures, group activities are the
etc. All courses would be certification-ready in their seatwork. Here, students main pillars. Focus is on
detailed offering through SWAYAM, the platform learn through listening and the Internet, library and
being developed for offering MOOCs courses. observation. The teacher outside experts.
relies on textbooks,
2. School Education (9-12 Levels): These are basic mod- lectures, and individual
ules for teacher’s training, teaching and learning instruc- written assignments, etc.
tional facilities for our children to help them understand
the subjects in better manner. It also helps learners to The presentation and The context learning
prepare themselves for various competitive exams to get testing methods favour integrates personal
admissions into professional degree courses. students who have prior knowledge within the
3. Curriculum-based courses that can meet the needs of exposure to the material school environment.
life long learners among Indian citizens in India and or exposure in multiple
abroad. contexts.

M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 33 27/12/22 8:15 PM

 1.34
ICT-Based T eaching
COVID 19 pandemic has actually changed the situation.
During this situation, ICT has actually became the only
way for teaching and learning. This trend should become
more permanent.
ICT based teaching support is an approach to facilitate
and enhance learning through, and based on, both com-
puter and communication technology. It refers to the use
of computer-based electronic technologies of the Internet,
e-mail, websites and CD-ROMS to deliver, facilitate and
enhance both formal and informal learning and knowl-
edge sharing from any place at any time. The communica-
tion devices can also include digital television, Personal
Digital Assistants (PDAs) and mobile phones.
ICT-based learning is also called Computer-Based
Training (CBT). Generally, CBT and e-learning are
treated as synonyms, but CBT is an older term, dating
from the 1980s. The term ICT evolved from CBT along
with the maturation of the internet, CDs and DVDs. It
includes Internet-based learning, web-based learning
and online learning.
ICT is significant in many ways. It enables flexible
learning with just-in-time, effective and efficient learn-
ing. The pace is determined by the learner.
ICT facilitates collaborative internet and web-based
learning opportunities to the learners.
ICT supports distance learning with wide area net-
works (WAN) and by creating multimedia CD-ROMs or
websites.
In ICT teaching methods, there is advantage of ­having
hyperlinking. There are interactive parts that illustrate dif-
ficult things. Here, doing some exercises is also possible;
it allows a wider range of learning experiences, such as
there is educational animation to online learners. It also
imparts e-training through the asynchronous and syn-
chronous communication modes. Thus, it permits learn-
ers the convenience of flexibility. Learners may look at
many other options to learn.
Specialised training is rendered through custom-
ised software, which addresses the particular needs of
the clientele mostly through the synchronous mode on
dedicated broadband Internet connectivity. Equally, it
also renders training to the learners through the generic
software displaying universal contents in asynchronous
mode to the learners through a shared network with
limited Internet access or on the world wide web; and
enhances teaching by professional development of teach-
ers through training on usage of ICT in education. World
Links enable teachers to integrate technology into teach-
ing, and thus create dynamic student-centred learning
environment in classrooms. The faculties can also inter-
act with their peer groups in the world and exchange
ideas and notes on the subject.
ICT is a planned effort towards providing interactive
and experiential learning, flexibility in terms of time,
place and pace, participation and accessibility, exper-
tise and qualitative subject matter, best resource at the
learners’ doorsteps and personalised training and centres
round the trainees.
M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 34
Chapter 1
Learning and Learner’s
Characteristics
Learning Defined
It appears quite simple to define the term ‘learning’, when
we all have spent our entire lives learning new things.
Learning is basically psychological in nature. A few defini-
tions offered by psychologists are:
1. Gates: Learning is the modification of behaviour
through experience.
2. Skinner: Learning is a process of progressive behav-
iour adaptation.
3. Crow and Crow: Learning involves the acquisition of
habits, knowledge and attitude.
Learning has also been defined as permanent change in
the capacity for performance. The learning is basically
fundamental, so for this, there are behaviourist school,
cognitivist school and constructivist school to deal with
learning. These theories have been discussed in the begin-
ning of this unit.
Principles of Learning
We have already discussed different theories and maxims
of teaching that enhance learning. Now we will discuss
some other principles of learning.
1. Principle of Association: A teacher must be aware
about the learner’s mind and capacity. A teacher must
be associated with the learner on a continuous basis,
so that learning is better and innovative. The current
learning must be linked with the previous learning.
2. Principle of Clarity: Learning practice must be con-
tinuously evaluated and redirected. Objectives must
be clear to a teacher and to the learner. Ultimately,
‘seeing is believing’.
3. Principle of Self Activity: Learning is more effective
if it engages the maximum number of senses.
4. Principle of Rewards: Learning must be challenging
and satisfying as well.
5. Principle of Practice: Learning should always result
in functional understanding of facts.
6. Principle of Nurturing Environment: It can be in
congenial environment that may be physical and
social environment.
7. Principle of Variable Learning Ability: Every
individual is unique so they need different techniques
to learn as well. This is linked as the concept of
individual differences. Some learners may be
slow, some may be fast, so learning depends upon
communication and learning ability.
8. Principle of Multiple Exposure: Different methods of
teaching, teaching aids and lot of practice is required to
make students learn.
9. Principle of Learning Capacity: The rate of learn-
ing declines at the rate of about one percent a year
after the age of 35. The main reasons attributed for
this decline are physical problems, low external
27/12/22 8:15 PM
 Teaching Aptitude
motivation, habits and the impact of a particular
ideology.
10. Principle of Active Process: Learning is an individ-
ual or personal choice, so some practices are required.
Audio-visual aids may also help.
11. Principle of Theory and Practice: The ‘why’ and
‘how’ of an idea are explained by theory. So a teacher
should balance theory and practice for ­better learning
by the learners.
12. Principle of Effective Communication: Better
learning can be achieved by integrating suitable
audio-visual aids in the teaching-learning process.
Learning Methods
Learning can take different forms. Our sensory organs
help in it. Apart from teaching, some of the ways how chil-
dren learn have been explained below:
1. Imitation: We see that small girls usually imitate
their mothers and small boys their fathers. Even
adults do imitations of others. Specifically less
­confident or less assertive people look for confident
and assertive people. With practice and passage of
time, they also become confident or assertive.
2. Observation: Observation is an interesting way
to learn. In case we want to learn about the social
behaviour of our leaders or boss or teacher, we
need to go to their office or habitat to observe them
closely.
3. Experience: Learning is based on and follows from
experience. We follow many things from our experi-
ences. That is called as experiential learning. We need
to raise questions and reflect over them so that learn-
ing is continuous.
4. Teaching: The teachers select a topic, subject it to
content and task analysis, and expose students to the
topic through lectures. The students listen to the lec-
ture and, as a result, they learn.
5. Instruction: Instruction is more linked with physical
settings rather than cognitive skills. Usually the system
involves demonstration with supporting explanation.
As a result, the learners acquire knowledge and skills.
6. Trial and Error: The amount of knowledge is expand-
ing. This world is already so complex, there is greater
amount of risk while dealing with the problems,
sometimes we don’t find the suitable answer. Thus,
the method of trial and error is also required to learn
in major part of life. The learning of mathematics can
be specially good with ‘drill and practice’.
7. Reflection: The reflective person has a tendency to
consider the whole situation and deliberate upon the
alternative solutions to problems. The cognitive pow-
ers, such as reasoning and analysis to make sense of
things is used. Conversely, an impulsive person tends
to respond spontaneously without deliberation,
especially in case of uncertain situations.
8. Experimentation: We need to resort to reality, thus
experimentation is going to help us. This may be
more linked with deductive method and quantitative
techniques. Our success in learning, to a great extent,
M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 35
1.35
depends on our ability to select the most appropriate
method, not the best one, looking into the nature of
matter to be learned and the objectives for which it is
learned.
9. Probing: The art of asking questions is called
probing. In theory the perfect convergent (closed-
ended) question would have only one answer, and
the perfect divergent (open-ended) question would
have infinite answers. Questions can be factual,
explanatory, analysing, hypothetical, decisional,
and so on.
‘Self Learning is also called as the conative learning’.
Anecdotal notes: They should be used to record the day-
to-day development of students, as well as their specific
behaviors, especially those that are a cause for concern,
speech patterns, language development, social/emotional
development, peer interactions, etc.
Features of A Motivated Classroom
This must have the following virtues for the students.
1. Belongingness: This is people’s innate need to estab-
lish close relationships with others through motiva-
tion and mutual respect.
2. Meaningfulness: This is developing an interest in or
appreciation for academic content, specially in sub-
jects such as mathematics.
3. Competence: The need to be successful in meeting
goals and interacting with the environment through
challenging tasks and formative feedback. This fos-
ters effort and persistence in students.
4. Accountability: This refers to the structures and rou-
tines that oblige students to report, explain, or justify
their activities. It is a kind of discipline.
5. Autonomy: The need to behave according to one’s
interests and values in an independent manner.
Learning Characteristics
Some of the important characteristics of learning are:
1. Learning is unitary: It implies that the learner reacts
as a whole person to the whole situation in a unified
way. It means that the learner responds intellectually,
emotionally, physically and spiritually at the same
time. This attitude helps in the achievement of educa-
tional goals.
2. Learning is a complex whole: The different dimen-
sions are knowledge, skills, insights, values, attitudes
and habits. Three main dimensions have been dis-
cussed below.
Development of knowledge: According to cogni-
tive psychologists such as Bruner and Ausubel,
each discipline has a structure consisting of key
concepts. Knowledge is organized systematically.
Expository methods, such as lecture or demonstra-
tion help in better understanding in finite (defi-
nite) form. Logical organized contents easily fall
into patterns–critical thinking abilities, such as
27/12/22 8:15 PM
 1.36
analysis and synthesis. Patterns give meaning. We
need to take learners to the higher levels of cogni-
tive abilities, such as analysis, synthesis, evaluation
and creating.
Development of skills: A skill is a learned activity
that one develops through practice and reflection.
It is the ability to perform a learned activity well
and at will. Skill, as an ability to perform something,
includes proficiency, competence, and expertise in
the activity. Skill refers to learning of psycho-motor
behaviours required in the activities such as driving
a car or swinging a tennis racket. The development of
skills entails the following stages:
(a) Cognitive stage: Achieved through declarative
knowledge
(b) Associative stage: Combining individual steps
into larger units
(c) Automated stage: Where the whole procedure
can be accomplished without much attention. In
the last stage, the brain process shifts from reflec-
tive to reflexive.
Development of Attitudes: Attitude is a mental
state held by an individual which affects the way that
person responds to events and organizes responses.
Attitudes are commonly held to have three essential
components or dimensions:
(a) Cognitive dimension: Beliefs and rationaliza-
tions which explains the holding of the attitudes
(b) Affective dimension: Emotional aspects of atti-
tude, such as likes, dislikes, feeling of distaste
(c) Conative or behavioural dimension: This
involves the extent to which an individual is pre-
pared to act on the attitude that they hold.
3. Learning may be planned or unplanned.
4. Learning can be active as well as passive.
5. Learning is usually individual, but it can also be col-
lectively generated in groups.
6. Learning is treated both as a process and as an out-
come. Learning is a life long process.
7. Learning may be incremental–it may add cumula-
tively to the prior learning or transformation.
8. Learning can be stimulated or triggered by any expe-
rience, failure, success, and anything else.
9. Learning outcomes may be undesirable as well as
desirable.
10. Learning always has a moral dimension.
11. Learning is self-active, creative and transferable.
Thus, we can say that learning is always multifaceted.
Basic Conditions of Learning
External conditions responsible for learning are very
important in various types of learning. A brief descrip-
tion of the basic conditions of learning are:
1. Contiguity: This basic condition is almost simultane-
ous occurrence of the stimuli and of the responses to
them. It applies to teaching also.
M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 36
Chapter 1
Unitary
Individual and social
Characteristic Self-active
of learning
Purposive
Learning Creative
Transferable
Affects the conduct
of the learner
Figure 1.15 Multifaceted Learning
2. Practice: Practice is the repetition of a response.
Practice of Stimulus-Response (S-R) is required, such
as in classical conditioning, operant conditioning and
skills learning.
3. Reinforcement: We can use reinforcement in differ-
ent ways to produce different effects.
4. Feedback is providing the knowledge that the
responses are correct or that they require amend-
ments, and it also functions as reinforcement in
strengthening the responses to be learned. It increases
the learning efficiency.
5. Generalization and Discrimination: Both gener-
alisation and discrimination (for example, among
colours) are perhaps better defined as phenomena
rather than as conditions of learning.
Learner’s Response to Learning
Singh and Sharma (1987) have suggested five component
behaviours of skill for managing students’ responses in
the classroom to enhance participation:
1. Prompting (when there is no answer/response):
Prompting in the form of clues, hints, a partial answer,
etc. to the students. Clues given for a correct answer
are known as prompts.
2. Redirection: When a student is not able to give the
right answer to the question, then it is directed to a
number of students. Through redirection, a teacher
can ensure greater participation, more time to think
and initiate brainstorming for the students.
3. Seeking Further Information: Additional informa-
tion related to a question or answer can be asked to
ensure whether a student has properly understood
the concept or not.
4. Refocusing: In case the students’ answer is correct,
he can be asked to relate knowledge gained in similar
or new situations. This helps in better application of
the acquired knowledge.
27/12/22 8:15 PM
 Teaching Aptitude
5. Increasing Critical Awareness: In case a student
gives the correct answer, the teacher puts higher
order questions in order to increase critical thinking
or awareness among students.
Stopover
Which among the following features describe the
emo­ tional intelligence of learners in an optimum
manner?
(i) A better understanding of others’ and our own
emotions
(ii) Strong expression of one’s own emotions
(iii) Manipulating one’s own emotions
(iv) Developing rational thinking
(v) Being innovative and accepting criticism
(vi) Better accepting of other people
Choose your answer from the options given below:
(a) (i), (iv) and (v)
(b) (iv), (v) and (v)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
The correct option is (a).
Learning Environment
Learning is an ongoing dynamic process. It is the result of the
interaction between individuals and environment in which
they operate. Learning environment may be defined ‘as a com-
posite of natural conditions, ­circumstances and influences,
and sociocultural contexts in which an individual is situated’.
Learning environment is the sum total of the surroundings in
which individuals interact to enrich experiences, thus leading
to learning. There are many theories at play while describing
learning environment.
Bandura, a social psychologist, in his ‘social learning the-
ory’ proposed that new behaviour can be learned through
the process of observation and imitation. It is the result of
interactions among personal characteristics, behaviour and
environmental factors. Besides social environment, physical
environment also influences learning.
Vygotsky, a constructivist thinker, believed that the
mastery over the culturally important tasks (such as lan-
guage) can take place only through social interactions.
Variations in learning environment lead to different
learning outcomes.
Based on the different types of settings, UNESCO
(1984) classified the following types of learning:
1. Formal Learning:
• Institutionalized to transmit knowledge.
• Highly structured and there is contin­uous interac-
tion that lead to recognised qualification.
• Teachers and learners are the prime stakeholders.
2. Non-formal Learning: It is not structured and it is
organised with flexibility. There is no certification.
M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 37
1.37
Family, neighborhood community, peer groups and
market-places are the prime stakeholders.
3. Informal Learning: incidental and individual­ized, it
is not organized. In a country, one can find a number
of initiatives and programmes, which are non-formal
by nature.
In India, adult education programmes, basic edu-
cation programmes, lit­ eracy programmes, health
awareness programme, etc. are certain examples.
Curricular experiences are gen­ erally formulated
keeping in mind the specific needs of the target
group. These are more indi­vidualised rather than
broad-based and general in nature. The transaction
of learning experiences is centred around commu-
nity resources.
Importance of Creating a Positive L earning
E nvironment
Some constituents of an institution’s environment are dis-
cussed as follows:
1. Physical Environment: ‘The classroom is the basic
structural unit of our educational system.’ ­Learners
constantly interact with the physical environment of
their institutions during scheduled or unscheduled
time, consciously or unconsciously. There is strong,
consistent evidence of the effect of basic physical vari-
ables (air quality, temperature, noise) on learning.
Overall, it is an important part of teaching learning
process.
  Different room arrangements, chairs, tables, etc.
serve different purposes. It is necessary for class-
rooms to have some degree of flexibility as change is
preferred sometimes. ‘Ownership’ and ‘engagement
of space and equipment is important.
2. Psychological Environment: If building, space and
facilities provide physical environment to a school, its
philosophy and practices that provide a psychologi-
cal environment. This environment mostly refers to
the stimuli that influence upon the learner’s psyche
in the school. For example, imagine a situation in a
school where a learner is kept in a threatening situa-
tion. This situation will result in the development of
anxiety in the learner. Anxiety may lead to undesirable
behaviours, such as escaping from tests, blaming the
teachers for faulty questions, engaging in malpractice
and so on.
3. Social Environment: Through constant interactions
with the peer group, a learner learns and practices
the social virtues of cooperation, self-sacrifice and
loyalty. The outdoor activities offer learners opportu-
nities for developing qualities like courage, resource-
fulness, self-reliance and initiative among students.
Good personal relationships develop stability, trust,
sense of belongingness, self-respect and self-accep-
tance among learners and creates a positive environ-
ment for learning.
27/12/22 8:15 PM
 1.38
As a teacher, you are expected to fulfill at least two
cognitive demands of the learners:
(a) academic task demands (understanding and
working with content) and
(b) social task demands (interacting with others who
are concerned with that content).
4. Motivational Climate: The motivational climate
must be created in the very beginning. The stu-
dents must see the worth of the work that ‘they are
doing’ and the ‘work others do’. Value and effort are
the two main methods for creating a motivational
climate.
(a) The duty of teacher is to demonstrate the value of
the task to be performed in the class. This can be
done by telling them the value of the task in daily
life.
(b) Effort involves the time, energy and creativity a
student uses to develop the “work”. This can be
done through adequate rewards and praise.
5. Understanding Individual Differences: A teacher
must understand the diversity element in the class and
create a conducive element for the same. He needs to
adopt a customized approach to cater to individual
needs to the extent possible.
Stopover
Below are listed some learners’ characteristics. Iden-
tify those that help in effective teaching.
(i) Learner’s respect for teacher
(ii) Learner’s level of mental ability
(iii) Learner’s previous experiences
(iv) Learner’s level of interest to relation
(v) Learner’s level of interpersonal relation
(vi) Learner’s view about the society
Concept Box
Main Steps in Learning Process
In NET Exam, there may be direct or indirect ques-
tions on learning process.
1. Reception: Gaining attention by making some
abrupt changes in stimulus or stimuli.
2. Expectancy: Informing learners of the objective
and what they will be able to do after learning.
3. Retrieval to working memory: Stimulating recall
of prior knowledge.
4. Selective perception: Displaying contents with
distinct features.
5. Semantic encoding: Learning guidance.
6. Responding: Asking learner to perform.
7. Reinforcement: Providing feedback to the learner.
8. Retrieval and reinforcement: Additional perfor-
mance by learner and it entails feedback also.
9. Generalization: More practice of varied problems
so as to increase retention.
M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 38
Chapter 1
Select your answer from the options given below:
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (vi)
(b) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (vi)
(d) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (vi)
The correct option is (d).
inDiviDuaL Differences in Learning –
t ypes of Learners
Learners have both common points and differences at dif-
ferent ages and stages of life. Teachers need to understand
both the commonalities and the differences in order to
meet the students’ needs as no two individuals are alike.
There are variations among learners with respect to their
age, cultural environment, past experiences, physical,
mental and emotional make up, goals, needs, etc.
Furthermore, different learners have different learn-
ing styles and as heterogeneity is increasing day by day,
they may perceive, interpret and evaluate the same learn-
ing event in different ways.
Learners’ characteristics, therefore, merit consideration
when selecting the media. Learners benefit from those
media that match their individual learning styles. Therefore,
it is understandable why a variety of methods, resources and
paths should be provided for different students to achieve a
particular objective. Thus, while designing an instructional
plan, the important task for the designer is to identify the
most critical characteristics for the attainment of instruc-
tional objectives.
types of Learners
There are three main categories of learner characteristics,
such as general characteristics, specific entry competencies
and learning styles.
Learner Characteristics
1. On the Basis of Personal and Social Attributes:
They help in planning instructional objectives as it
may reveal physical characteristics that are relevant to
training or instructional decisions. The social factors
mainly include the following.
(a) Age and maturity level
(b) Motivation and attitude towards the subject
(c) Expectations and vocational aspirations
(d) Special talents
(e) Mechanical dexterity
(f) Ability to work under various environmental
conditions.
Some of the differences in learner characteristics
between the adolescence and the adults has been
described further.
2. Field Independent vs. Field Dependent: ‘Field’ here
means context or surroundings.
Field-independent learners tend to rely less on the
teacher or other learners for support. They perceive
the things analytically. They see objects separately
from the surrounding field, they prefer to work in
27/12/22 8:15 PM
 Teaching Aptitude
self-structured situation and have self-defined goals.
In the classroom activities, such as extensive reading
and writing, which learners can carry out alone are
useful for field-independent learners.
  On the other hand, field-dependent learners often
work well in teams as they tend to be better at inter-
personal relationships. They perceive globally. They
prefer to work in existing structure or context, they
require externally defined goals and reinforcements
and are more aware of their surroundings.
  In the classroom, activities that connect different
parts of a lesson are useful for field-dependent learn-
ers. For example, learners can discuss what they know
about a topic, predict content or look at and listen to
related material.
3. Reflectivity and Impulsivity: When a question is
posed, some students take long time to respond while
others are quick in response. The speed with which
the respondents make a response to the task and the
number of errors they make is termed as conceptual
tempo. Those students who respond quickly and make
a fair number of mistakes are said to have a fast concep-
tual tempo. They are said to possess impulsive style of
learning.
  Learners who are slow in response and tend to
make fewer mistakes are called reflective. In problem-
solving situations, the impulsive learner collects less
data, they are less systematic and does not look for
alternative solutions. Reflective learner spends more
time collecting information and analyzing the data
before offering a response.
4. Classroom based Learning Styles: Learning styles
are traits that refer to how learners receive and pro-
cess information.
(a) Visual learners learn easily and are better
through sight. Brightness, size, colour, distance,
clarity, frame and symmetry are important to vis-
ual learners. Visual learners must see so that they
may learn easily. Visual learners may be catego-
rized as verbalists (they see words and letters) or
imagists (they see images, i.e., pictures).
(b) Auditory learners acquire information through
sound, i.e., the ear gate. Various aspects of sound,
for example, pitch, volume, tempo, rhythm,
resonance are important for auditory learners.
Auditory learners may be aural (they learn by
listening to others) or oral (they learn by talking
and hearing themselves).
(c) Motor learners learn through motor activity.
Various aspects of action, for example, frequency,
duration, intensity, pressure, etc., are important
for them. Motor learners may be kinesthetic
(they learn through the use of gross motor mus-
cles) or mechanical (they use fine motor muscles
to support their learning).
Apart from above, the classroom style learners
can be of the following types.
   (i) Intuitive: Insights and hunches
  (ii) Inductive: From facts to generalization
M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 39
1.39
(iii) Deductive: From theory to individual facts
  (iv) Reflectively: Introspection
5. Learner Characteristics on the Basis of Listening
Skills: Listening is an important skill and there are
four types of listening styles, which are as follows:
(a) Active Listening: It is listening with a purpose.
(b) Empathic Listening: It is a form of active listening in
which you attempt to understand the other person.
(c) Evaluative Listening or Critical Listening: In
this type, the listener evaluates the accuracy,
meaningfulness and utility of speaker’s message.
(d) Appreciative Listening: Listening for enjoyment
involves seeking situations involving relaxing, fun
or emotionally stimulating information.
6. Learner Characteristics on the Basis of Thinking
Styles: There are different thinking styles of learners,
which are mentioned below.
(a) Reflective thinkers
  (i) View new information with respect to the
subject.
  (ii) Relate new information to past experiences.
(iii) Always ask ‘why?’
  (iv) Examine their feelings about what they are
learning.
(b) Creative thinkers
  (i) Like to play with new information.
  (ii) Always ask ‘why?’
(iii) Create their own solutions and shortcuts.
(c) Practical thinkers
  (i) Always look for factual information.
  (ii) Seek the simplest and the most efficient
way to do their work.
(iii) Not satisfied until they know how to apply
their new skills to their job or other interest.
(d) Conceptual thinkers
  (i) Accept new information only after seeing
the big picture.
  (ii) Want to know how things work, not just the
final outcome.
(iii) Learn the concepts that are presented but
also want to know the related concepts that
may not have been included.
Characteristics of Adolescent and Adult
Learners: Academic, Social, Emotional and
Cognitive
‘Live as if you were to die tomorrow’
‘Learn as if you were to live forever’
— Mahatama Gandhi
Learning is a fundamental, continuous and lifelong process.
It’s for our successful adaptation of human beings to inter-
nal and external environment. It should be according to the
physical and intellectual ability of the learner. Both teachers
and learners must be aware of this fact. Here, we are first
going to discuss concepts of adolescent and adult learning
and thereafter compare both.
27/12/22 8:15 PM
 1.40
Adolescence Learners
Adolescence means ‘to emerge’ to achieve ‘identity’. It is a
time for the maturing of mind and behaviours. It is not an
age, but a stage. It is divided into three major stages:
1. Early Adolescence: (10 to 12 years) growth of hands,
feet and later the limbs. There is demand for indepen-
dence and privacy, so there are chances of ­conflict.
2. Middle Adolescence: (12 to 16 years) there are fur-
ther bodily and genetic developments, specifically
in girls.
  Girls develop personal skills quicker, and loyalty
and commitment matter more. The decisions of voca-
tions and education are made. The physical effect of
pubertal development becomes incorporated into the
self-image.
3. Late Adolescence: (16 to19 years) It is transforma-
tion towards the phase of adulthood. In late adoles-
cence, career decisions are finally traced. The child
gradually returns to the family on a new footing.
WHO defines adolescence in terms of age, spanning
the ages between 10 and 19 years. Hall describes ado-
lescence as a “storm and stress” period that reflects the
unsettling growth period in modern societies. This con-
cept was recognized by Margaret Mead also.
Academically, adolescence is the time spent in high
schools and early colleges.
Psychologically, it is a period of transition, during
which cognitive, physical, personality and social changes
occur.
Sociologically, it is a period that fills the gap between
dependent childhoods to self-sufficient adulthood. From
a medical point of view, adolescence begins with hor-
monal changes and the growth of the body.
In India, the adolescent is dependent on his parents for
many more years in comparison to the Western nations.
The emotional dependence is also termed as ‘Delayed
Adolescence’ that can go upto 21 years and even up to
25 years.
Academic Achievements
Adolescents spend more waking time in school. Academic
achievement during this stage is predicted by interper-
sonal (parental engagement), intrapersonal (intrinsic
motivation), and institutional factors. It can set the stage
for future career opportunities. Sports, games, arts and
crafts also play some role. Parents put greater efforts dur-
ing this stage.
Malcom Knowles has identified the following charac-
teristics of adult learners.
1. More autonomous and self-directed
2. Goal-oriented and practical
3. Relevance-oriented and see a reason for learning
something.
4. Adults must be shown respect. The adult trainers
must acknowledge the wealth of experiences that
adult participants bring to the classroom.
M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 40
Chapter 1
Nowadays, children know more, learn more, and want
more. This may lead to arguments, friction and tears, all
leading to a ‘cultural gap’ from their parents.
Adults learn voluntarily. They require more time
to practice new skills. They have many responsibili-
ties and have less time to learn. They prefer to learn by
participation.
As they have their own self-esteem and ego, they evalu-
ate learning in terms of results, and its utility to their life
situations.
Social Changes
Margaret Mead highlighted the role of cultural factors
in the development of personality of the adolescent.
Mead observed “storm and stress” as a serene and grad-
ual transition from childhood to adulthood and an easy
acceptance of adult roles. It is relatively stress- free in a
society.
Harold W. Bernard also subscribes it as a cultural phe-
nomenon. The cultural aspect of adolescence states that
two main aspects:
1. A rapidly widening life
2. An increasing overlapping between the roles of the
child and adult.
Adolescents may feel bad while facing conflicts, values,
emotional tension and extreme attitudes.
With industrialization, urbanization and individualiza-
tion, the incidents of juvenile delinquency also increase.
With fast growth and structural bodily changes, new
attitude towards oneself and others, rising awareness of
one’s rights and duties, adolescence is a transitional period.
Adolescence is affected by the following factors.
1. There is search for self-concept or self-identity.
2. There is a demand for more independence to make
decisions.
3. They think more about right values and wrong values.
4. Peer pressure also increases.
5. They communicate in different ways–through inter-
net, cell phones and social media.
The process of ‘socialisation’ is also affected during this
stage.
During ‘Homophily’, an adolescent spends more time
with friends. The peer groups evolve from primarily sin-
gle-sex to mixed-sex.
The ‘deviant peer contagion’, under which peers rein-
force problem behaviour by laughing or showing other
signs of approval, increase the likelihood of future prob-
lematic behaviour. Negative peer pressure leads to vices
and crime. Friends may provide support mechanism.
Crowds refer to different groups of people, such as
‘­theater kids’ or ‘environmentalists’. Friendships are recip-
rocal dyadic relationships. Cliques refer to frequently
interacting groups of individuals. They enjoy ‘shared rep-
utations’ than actual interactions, such as when the whole
group is famous or notorious for an activity.
Romantic relationships are usually short-lived rather
than long-term commitments during this stage.
27/12/22 8:15 PM
 Teaching Aptitude
Self-efficacy: It is a person’s belief in their ability to suc-
ceed in a particular situation. This reflects confidence in
the ability to exert control over one’s own motivation,
behavior, and social environment. Psychologist Albert
Bandura described these beliefs as determinants of how
people think, behave, and feel.
Emotional Changes
Research indicates that emotions cannot be separated
from the intellect (learning). If the learner is stressed,
over anxious, he/she will not be able to learn. Role confu-
sion is an indicator of not successfully meeting the task of
adolescence.
Adolescents face problems of morality and being very
ambitious. They favour freedom and democratic life. They
like permissive atmosphere so that parents and teachers
to be lenient towards them. They tend to be rebellious by
nature.
‘Conscience formation’ takes place during this stage.
Adolescents possess a self-owned yearning for religion,
God, worship, prayer and spiritual values.
Hall says that the major physical changes during this
phase cause major psychological changes.
Adolescent years are more important for the forma-
tion of personality. Anne believed that the libido, which
is quieted during the latency years, reawakens in adoles-
cence and threatens to upset the delicate balance of ego
and id.
According to Erik Erickson, adolescence resolves the
conflict of identity vis-à-vis identity confusion.
Early puberty and cognitive changes come with worse
outcomes for girls than boys. It impacts decision making
controls also.
The emotional changes with the unique combination
of genes, brain, environment, experiences, and culture
shape development. There is more self-consciousness
about physical appearance and changes. It is basically
an “invincible” stage of thinking and acting.
The egoistic needs are in the form of dominance,
achievement, retention, attention, autonomy, acquisi-
tion, cognizance and destruction. Moffitt regards ado-
lescent-limited antisocial behaviour as resulting from a
“maturity gap”.
The genetic changes to environmental factors are
called the differential susceptibility model. These varia-
tions are considered riskier than ­others. Individual differ-
ences play an important role in adolescent development.
The ‘unholy triad’ sums up these as substance abuse,
violence and early sexual experimentation.
Emotional Intelligence: The concept of ‘emotional intel-
ligence’ was introduced by Daniel Goleman in 1995. EI is
a set of skills for the purposes of
1. The accurate appraisal and expression of emotions in
oneself and in others
2. The effective regulation of emotion in self and others,
and
3. The use of feelings to motivate, plan, and achieve in
one’s life.
M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 41
1.41
Mayer and Salovey (1997) proposed that EI was a
cognitive ability which is separate but also associated to,
general intelligence. Their model consists of four different
abilities:
1. Perception of emotion: in yourself and others
2. Emotional facilitation: the ability of emotions to
help thinking
3. Understanding emotions: to judge the emotional
content of several stimuli such as faces, designs and
colours.
4. Management of emotions
Mayer and Salovey offered us a test, called as Mayer
Salovey Emotional Intelligence Test (MSCEIT).
The inability to recognize or describe one’s own
emotions is called as ‘alexithymia’.
Baron’s (2006) Model of Emotional Social Intelligence
(ESI) consists of intrapersonal (emotional awareness,
assertiveness, independence, self regard, self actual-
ization); interpersonal (empathy, social responsibility,
interpersonal relationships), stress management (stress
tolerance, impulse control); and general mood (happi-
ness and optimism).
Multiple intelligences: This tries to differentiate human
intelligence into specific ‘modalities’, rather than focus
on a single general ability. This concept was described by
Howard Gardner in his 1983 book ‘Frames of Mind’: The
Theory of Multiple Intelligences. According to the theory,
an intelligence ‘modality’ must fulfill eight established cri-
teria which are Linguistic, Logical/Mathematical, Spatial,
Bodily-Kinesthetic, Musical, Interpersonal, Intrapersonal,
and Naturalist.
Cognitive Development
We have discussed its definition earlier as well. This
refers to intelligence, thinking and imagination about
our environment. Our innate power (heredity) also plays
an important role in it.
Piaget mentioned the following stages for cognitive
development:
1. Sensory period (0–2 years)
2. Pre-operational period (2–7 years)
3. Concrete operation period (7–11 years)
4. Formal operation period (11–15 years)
The main characteristics displayed here are:
1. Systematic analysis of a problem
2. Logical approach towards the solution of problem – to
move away from rote learning.
3. Ability to use higher order structure to solve a problem
4. Systematic analysis of a problem
5. Moral maturity
It has been observed that the type of language used in
uneducated homes is mostly of commands, whereas in
educated homes, it is mostly of explanations. Individuals
struggle through environmental changes. Through this
process of adaptation, cognitive development takes place.
27/12/22 8:15 PM
 1.42 Chapter 1

The purpose of this process of adjustment is to bring about Autonomous

a ‘state of equilibrium’ in the life of individuals. and self directed
At adolescence stage, social interaction plays a very Lift experience
significant role in learning. Readymade solutions of prob- Self respect
and knowledge
lems should be discouraged. The teachers should provide
Characteristics
such type of education that helps to form minds which
of learning
can be critical, can verify and not accept everything that
is offered. Practical Goal oriented
At the stage of formal operation, the child displays
three new qualities: Relevance
oriented
1. Systematic analysis (with all possible solutions) of the
Figure 1.17  haracteristics of Learning by an
C
problem
Adult Learner
2. Logical approach and
3. Ability to use higher order structure.
There is no knowledge development without relating
objects within the environment. An individual acquires
knowledge not by passively copying objects in the envi- Leadership
ronment but by acting upon it.

Adult L earners Principles of

Novel styles Experience
Life is busy, and adults are seldom easy. They are actively adult learning
engaged in the process of life. To take time out of this busy
process, adults may ask:
“How will this benefit me? What makes learning this
Respect Appeal
worth the effort?”
Figure 1.18 Principles of Adult Learning
Mature

Prefer to be self-directed
Adult learner
Independent
Experienced
Figure 1.16 Adult Learner as per Malcolm S. Knowles
Adult education is based on a philosophy called ‘­andragogy’,
which is the art and science of helping adults learn. The
guiding principles of adult learning aim at ­bringing:
1. Changes in what people know
2. Changes in what can do
3. Changes in what people think
4. Changes in what people actually do.
In other words, it must emphasize change in knowledge,
attitude and skills of the learner.
Adulthood is mostly defined on the basis of age or
cognitive maturity. While in India, adulthood is defined
between 15 to 35 years, UNESCO and Organisation
for Economic Cooperation and Development defines it
between 24 to 65 years.
Adult learning process may be systematic learning pro-
cess, be it formal or non formal or informal, it may be self-
mentored or corporate-sponsored, may be undertaken as
fulltime or a part time learner.
Important Characteristics of Adulthood
Adults are not just grown up children. Adults learn differ-
ently from children.
With the maturity, the self-concept of a person moves
from being a dependent personality towards one of being
a self-directed person. Adulthood is the stage where this
transition occurs.
Adults are experiential learners. The person accumu-
lates a growing wealth of experience that is used to make
sense of the environment. Adults may know more than
the teacher.
With maturity, the readiness to learn becomes ori-
ented to the development tasks of social roles, but the
content must be relevant and legitimate. Life application
is critical.
With maturity, the time perspective moves from one of
postponed application to one of immediate application.
The shift is from subject-centeredness to problem-cen-
teredness. Adults enjoy solving problems.
Here, the motivation to learn is increasingly internal.
Personality responsibility is significant. Adult learners
want to meet the requirements of their lives. They want
to be successful. In India, an adult learner is a person who
has had no opportunity of formal education in their early
years of life.
Once we have gone through both adolescence and
adult learners, we need to focus on difference between
the two:

M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 42 27/12/22 8:15 PM

 Teaching Aptitude 1.43

Table 1.6 Differences Between the Adolescence and the Adults

Elements Adolescent Learners Adult Learners
Learner Dependence on teacher for learning The learner is self motivated and self directed
Role of The learner has little experience that is to be The learners are rich in experience. The adults
learner’s built upon, with the help of instructor. are a rich resource for one another also. The
experience experience becomes the source of self identify.
Orientation to Learning is a process of acquiring the Learning must have relevance to real-life tasks
learning prescribed subject matter. The contents that is organized around life/work situations
are sequenced according to the logic of the rather than subject matter units.
subject.
Motivation for  rimarily motivated by external rewards and
P  otivation happens by internal incentives:
M
learning punishment, competition for grades, and the recognition, better quality of life, self confidence,
consequences of failure self actualization. Learning is required in order to do
good in one or some aspect/s of life.
Demand for  earner must balance life responsibilities
L  earner can devote more time to the demands of
L
learning with the demands of learning learning because responsibilities are minimal
Permanence of  earning is self initiated and tends to last a
L  earning is compulsory and tends to disappear
L
learning long time shortly after instruction.
Climate • Tense, low trust • Relaxed, trusting
• Formal, cold, aloof • Mutually respectful
• Authority-oriented • Informal, warm
• Competitive, judgmental • Collaborative, supportive
Diagnosis of Primarily by teaching system and teacher Mutual assessment by learner and facilitator
needs
Planning of Primarily by teaching system and teacher Mutually by learners and facilitator
curriculum
Objectives of Objectives are set by the teaching system, Objectives are set by mutual negotiations; they are
learning they are predetermined and inflexible. predetermined and inflexible.
Designing • Teachers’ content plans • Learning contracts
learning plans • Fixed course syllabus • Learning projects
• Logical sequence • Sequenced by readiness
Learning  assive teaching methods like transmitted
P Active training methods are used
activities techniques, assigned readings, etc., are used
Pace of learning Teachers control timing and pace of learning Learners influence timing and pace of learning
Evaluation Evaluation is done by teachers, in Evaluation is done by learner-collected evidence
‘norm-referenced tests’ with grades validated by peers, facilitators, and experts. The
‘criterion-referenced’ test is used.

M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 43 27/12/22 8:15 PM

 1.44 Chapter 1

(e) follow cooperative learning

Stopover (f) adopt interactive approach
As per the cognitive development theory of Jean

Piaget, adolescent students are in which stage of At different stages of teaching, with added experience, a
development? teacher goes on enriching a higher style of teaching. This
(a) Sensory motor stage is indicative of the teacher’s growth in higher professional
(b) Concrete operational stage pursuits.
(c) Operational stage Metacore skills and Polycrest skills: A teacher needs to
(d) Formal operational stage focus on clarity, variety, task orientation, engagement in
The correct option is (b). learning task in classroom environment. A teacher, like a
doctor, pilot, engineer or a counselor, is supposed to pos-
sess a repertoire of teaching skills so that he can perform
Teaching and Learning Factors his teaching well. These ‘metacore skills’ help during pro-
fessional coaching. The greater variety of sub-skills are
According to new NTA-NET Exam pattern, teaching and
called ‘Polycrest skills’.
learning are important for effective teaching
Learning F actors
Teaching Process Learning In effective learning, we mostly notice these factors:
1. More intensity of learning
2. More retention
Spirit of New 3. Joyful learning
Realization 4. More scope of cognitive development
joy and experience
of objectives 5. Self-directed learning
creativity (Learning)
6. Self-motivation for further learning
Figure 1.19 Effective Teaching Keeping the above in consideration, the following f­ actors
become automatically important:
Teaching F actors 1. Background of the learner (repertoire)
A teacher should have the following qualities: 2. Nature of learning material (easy or difficult)
3. Environmental factors (space, physical condition and
1. Personal qualities like warmth, affection, s­ ympathy, psychological support)
democracy, optimism, dynamism, etc. 4. Motivation (intrinsic and extrinsic)
2. Professional competencies like command over the 5. Learning support can be human (teachers and par-
subject matter, effective communication, proper use ents) or electronic (audio, video and computer).
of teaching instructional facilities, classroom man-
agement and evaluating students learning also. Certain qualities and traits of learners, such as their
level of intelligence, their attitudes, their motivation,
From the training point of view, we classify teaching skills their learning styles, aptitudes, their readiness to take
into three broad categories: risks, etc. can impact the way they learn. Many factors
1. Core teaching skills: common for all subjects. have been defined under the learning topic itself.
2. Specific teaching skills: for specific subject areas
such as language, social science, science, maths, etc. Teacher Support Material
3. Target group specific skills: for exceptional children The support materials aim to support teachers and stu-
dents in achieving the learning outcomes of any subject.
Some factors as practised by teachers in classroom are as The ideas and resources are neither prescriptive nor
follows: exhaustive. Teachers and students can discover many
1. A teacher with limited exposure and experience in other ways of reaching the learning outcomes. They can
teaching is prone to relate to any book, practical sessions, some specific activi-
(a) follow textbook reading by the students ties etc. We can take the example from a book here:
(b) transmit information through lecture 1. Teacher solutions manual: They are designed to
(c) dictate notes assist teachers in effective teaching, such as sugges-
(d) impart required information tions on how to teach a topic. They are kind of com-
2. A teacher with professional training and reflective prehensive supplementary resources like an end-to-
thinking is tempted to end solution.
(a) adopt new ways to teach 2. Lecture slides: While teachers develop their own
(b) involve students in teaching instructional facilities to deliver a lecture in the class,
(c) generate new ideas through problem-solving the lecture slides provide a firm base for instructors to
(d) teach through group activities build on.

M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 44 27/12/22 8:15 PM

 Teaching Aptitude
3. Extra practice questions: Students always demand
extra practice. The texts are bundled with extra exercise
questions, case studies, and other such materials used
by teachers to frame homework, quizzes and tests.
Learning Environment and Institutions
Learning environment means developing an ecosystem
for the learning that itself is linked with the teaching and
education. Education seeks its origin from philosophy.
These are linked with democracy, autocracy, laissez faire
and then with political, cultural, legal environments. On
internal levels teachers, teaching methods, learning prin-
ciples, evaluation process play an important part. The
institutional building is also crucial for creation of direct
learning environment. As social, political and industrial
environment is dynamic, thus learning environment has
to be dynamic.
I nstructional F acilities
‘I hear and I forget, I see and I believe, I do and
I understand’
 —Confucius
The instructions are based on ‘give’ and ‘take’ relation-
ships in the teaching-learning process. The instructional
facilities that assist an instructor in the teaching–learn-
ing process. They supplement teaching methods and are
themselves not as self-supporting as teaching methods.
The teaching instructional facilities include audio-
visual instructional facilities. They follow the assumption
that learning originates from senses’ experience. They
help in better learning, retention and recall, thinking and
reasoning, activity, interest, imagination, better assimila-
tion and personal growth and development.
The Main Benefits of Instructional Facilities
Instructional facilities are also known as teaching learn-
ing materials TLMs. This association makes teaching more
effective, and also learners have better retention.
They are used to make the teaching-learning process
effective. They also help learners achieve the learning
outcomes after classroom teaching and learning. Some
of the reasons to use teaching instructional facilities in
classroom are of various types as described below.
1. Motivation of Learners: The main objective is to
capture the attention of learners through ‘variety of
stimuli’.
2. Based on Maxims of Teaching: The use of teaching
instructional facilities is based on maxims of teaching,
thus it is a systematic exercise.
3. Better Retention of Information: The more is the
use of sensory channels (and five sensory organs)
in interactions, the longer will be the retention of
information.
4. Teaching Instructional Facilities Facilitate Change
in Attitude: Pictures, models, etc. help in creating a
positive attitude among learners.
M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 45
1.45
5. Better Organization of Classroom Teaching: The
planned sequential organization of things is always
better for better delivery of contents, better learn-
ing and better retention. This helps to overcome
shortcomings in verbal or visual communication.
6. To Facilitate Holistic Learning: There are varied
learning objectives in cogni­tive, affective and psycho-
motor domains. There is need to cater to individual
differences as well.
7. Promotion of Scientific Temper: Teaching instruc-
tional facilities promotes scientific temper, which is
one of the main goals of education.
8. Practical Applications: These instructional facilities
show application of theoretical knowledge into prac-
tical applications.
9. Making Learning Fun: Learners enjoy the novelty of
handling new objects and learn new concepts through
them.
10. Concept Formation: Teaching instructional facilities
facilitate the formation and attainment of concepts
among ­children. They concretize the abstract con-
cepts. Thus, children are able to understand them and
not resort to rote learning.
Hersey-Blanchard Model of Leadership: There have
been some questions in NET-JRF Exam that are based on
this model. It focuses on the ability and willingness of indi-
vidual employees. It’s also referred to as the Situational
Leadership Model to deal with the members or learners.
There are following D and S categories.
Nature of learner (or member):
D1 - Unable and unwilling
D2 - Unable willing
D3 - Able unwilling
D4 - Able willing
Approaches to be adopted:
S1 - Directing
S2 - Coaching
S3 - Supporting
S4 - Delegating
For example, if a candidate is able and unwilling, he must
be supported. Able and willing candidate must be delegated
some task to show the results.
Stopover
The teaching strategy that is best suited to deal with
students who in terms of performance readiness level
are in the category of ‘able but unwilling’, will be,
(a) Assigning challenging tasks and delegation of roles
(b) Involving in tasks and providing socio-emotional
support with scope for recognition
(c) Mentoring and guiding with close supervision
(d) Keeping the tasks specific and soft
The correct answer is (b).
27/12/22 8:15 PM
 1.46 Chapter 1

Educational T echnology
Educational technology can be divided into two categories:
1. Hardware approach: This refers to the use of
machines and other devices in the teaching learning
process to reach maximum number of students and
also to lessen the cost. There is application of mecha-
nized “physical science” in the process through teach-
ing machines, radio, television, tape recorder, video-
tape, projectors, etc.
2. Software approach: This approach is linked mostly
with behavioral aspects such as skill and knowl-
edge. Educationist Skinner is also associated with it.
It is concerned with teaching objectives, principles
of teaching, methods of teaching, reinforcement,
feedback, reviews, evaluation. Newspapers, books,
magazines, games, flash cards etc. are also impor-
tant. It tries to develop Input, Process and Output of
technology.
Types of I nstructional F acilities
According to the senses involved, educational technology
can be divided into audio, visual and audio-video instruc-
tional facilities.
1. Audio Instructional Facilities: The quality of voice
is assumed to be very important as it has direct effect.
We spend more than 50% of our time in hearing. This
reflects the importance of the audio media in our
life. Examples of audio instructional facilities include
language labs, radio sets, sound distribution sets, etc.
2. Visual Instructional Facilities: This is linked with
‘seeing’. Examples include posters, flashcards, charts,
­bulletin boards, maps, models, photographs, etc.
3. Audio-visual instructional facilities: These ‘heard
and seen’ messages create a tripolar process of motiva-
tion, classification and stimulation. Out of five senses,
seeing at 87% and hearing at 7% are the major ones
to attract attention and increase learning. Examples of
audio-visual instructional facilities include television,
video films, documentary films, etc.
Functions of A udio-visual I nstructional
F acilities
These perform the following functions.
1. More clarity and understanding
2. Better attention, interest and retention
3. It helps in faster and comprehensive learning
4. Better access
5. Save the instructor’s time
6. Supplement the spoken words by combining audio
and visual stimuli
Limitations of Audio-visual
Instructional Facilities
1. The learners may form distortions in case of any lack
in instructional facilities.
2. Teaching may be narrowed down to only a few big
ideas, not giving the complete picture of a subject.
3. The practice of being a mere spectator rather than
taking any active part is called as ‘spectatorism’. There
should be thoughtful inquiry.
4. Multimedia could include several forms of media,
such as audios, texts, still images, animations, graph-
ics, videos and films so their right combination is
important for effective learning.
Types of I nstructional Facilities A ccording
to P rojection or S how
Teaching instructional facilities according to projection
or show are divided into projected and non-­ projected
instructional facilities that have been depicted in table 1.7.

Table 1.7 Projected and Non-projected Instructional Facilities

Projected Non-projected instructional facilities
instructional
facilities Graphic Display boards 3-D Audio Activity

Films Charts Blackboard Models Radio Field trips

Slides Flash cards Whiteboard Mock-ups Recordings Experimentation
Overhead Posters Bulletin board Objects and Digital Audio Dramatics
projector specimens Player
Epidiascope Pictures and Flannel board Puppets Television Teaching machines
photographs
Video projectors Graphs Magnetic board Telephone and Programmed
mobile instructions
Film strips Map diagrams Peg board

M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 46 27/12/22 8:15 PM

 Teaching Aptitude 1.47

Projected Visual Instructional overheaD projector (ohp)

Facilities
Any visual instructional facilities that is used for magnifi-
cation of image on a screen in dark or semi-dark conditions
can be called a projected visual instructional facility. There
are three important methods of projection and they are:
1. Direct Projection: Slide and film projectors
2. Indirect Projection: Overhead projector
3. Reflected Projection: Opaque projector
epidiascope
sLiDes
A slide is a transparent-mounted picture that is projected
by focusing light through it. The projection may be made
on a screen or on a white wall. Slides of 35 mm films
mounted on individual cardboard or plastic frames are
common and are extensively used in extension work dur-
ing training programmes, seminars, workshops, group
meetings, campaigns, exhibitions, etc.
An overhead projector, like a film or slide projector, uses
light to project an enlarged image on a screen, allowing
the view of a small document or picture to be shared with
a large audience. Their use is very less these days.
hanDheLD projector
It is also known as a pocket projector, a mobile projec-
tor or a pico-projector. It is an emerging technology that
applies the use of a projector in a handheld device. It is a
and response to the emergence of compact portable devices,
such as mobile phones, personal digital assistants and
digital cameras, which have sufficient storage capacity to
handle presentation materials with an attached display
screen.
viDeo projector
A video projector is also known as a digital projector,
which is now popular for many applications for extension
and development. All video projectors use a very bright
light to project the image.

opaQue projector (epiDiascope or episcope)

Concept Box It is a device that displays opaque materials by shining a
bright lamp onto the object from above. The material can be
Mind Mapping book pages, drawings, mineral specimens, leaves, etc.
This method of concept creation was developed by
Tony Buzan in 1960. A mind map is a diagram used fiLM strips
to visually organize information into a hierarchy, The film strip was a common form of still image instruc-
showing relationships among pieces of the whole. It tional multimedia. It was once commonly used by educa-
helps students to visualize and externalize concepts. tors in primary and secondary schools, now overtaken by
It is often created around a single concept, drawn newer and increasingly low-cost, full-motion videocas-
as an image in the center of a blank page, to which settes and DVDs, since 1940s till 1980s.
associated representations of ideas such as images,
words and parts of words are added. It is commonly
used in presentations, critical thinking, brainstorming, Concept Box
decision making and project management.
Microsoft PowerPoint Presentations
Sub-idea Sub-idea Microsoft PowerPoint is a presentation program that
− Idea Idea − was basically created by Robert Gaskins and Dennis
Sub-idea Sub-idea
Austin in 1987. This creates a ‘slide’ show of important
Subject information, charts, designs, images, etc. Now record-
Sub-idea Sub-idea ing, video options are also available on it. The better
− Idea Idea −
Sub-idea Sub-idea presentable and motivational contents created on it are
used for business and school presentations.
Microsoft Powerpoint, copyright © 2003

Fairness Quality

Success

Teamspirit Honesty
Microsoft Corporation.

M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 47 27/12/22 8:15 PM

 1.48
Non-projected Visual Instructional
Facilities
These facilities are used without projection or the help
of any projector. Advantages include easy availability,
no specific power supply requirement, economical and
ease in handling. They can be useful in small group sit-
uations. Many of them can be converted into projected
instructional facilities. For example, charts, flannel
graphs and flash cards can be photographed or scanned
and converted into slides. Some of them can be projected
through an opaque projector.
charts
Charts (and diagrams) are especially helpful, as they
enable students to see ideas visually laid out in an organ-
ized way. The visual tools can help the students process
content and to make connections more easily. The charts
can be displayed in the room as per lesson plan. They are
visually interesting, they put direct emphasis to highlight
key findings.
Concept Box
Types of Charts
1. Process charts are used to show steps in a process.
For example, charts can show life cycles of insects,
energy cycles, etc.
2. Organizational charts are used to represent
hierarchal relationships, flow of communication
among different departments in an organization.
3. Time charts are used to represent events, occur-
rences in chronological sequences, such as evolu-
tion of man, political empires, etc.
4. Tabular chart represents data in tabular form for
easy comparison and understanding. For example,
types of plantations, etc. are represented in tabular
form, which makes comprehension easier.
5. Tree chart shows the growth and development
from single source to many branches, like in a tree.
For example, a family tree is a familiar example.
6. Stream chart is opposite to a tree chart wherein
many branches come together to converge into a
single stream. For example: Many rivers like Yamuna
fall in Ganga, which then flows down to the sea.
7. Sequence charts or flip charts are collection of
charts like flip charts used to show many events or
series of events in succession.
The flip chart is like a calendar, with a sheet each
for twelve months. As the month changes, the
sheet is flipped over. Actually, flip chart consists of
several charts arranged in a sequential order and
fastened together at one end with a spiral, metal or
wooden strip.
M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 48
Chapter 1
fLash carDs
Flash cards are brief visual messages on poster board. The
cards are flashed (turned over at short intervals) before
the audience to emphasize the important points in a pres-
entation. Flash cards are held like a pack of cards and are
flashed to the audience one at a time in a sequence along
with the talk.
poster
A poster is displayed in a public place with the purpose of
creating awareness among people. A poster is generally
seen from a distance, and the person glancing at it seldom
has the time or inclination to stop and read. The job of the
poster is to stop the persons hurrying past and thrust the
message upon them.
1. Posters give only an initial idea and cannot furnish
detailed information. They need to be reported for
further information by another instructional facilities
or method (Examples: Leaflets and demonstration).
2. The production of good posters is a technical job and
requires skill and time.
3. It cannot be repeated, so for each occasion, a new
poster has to be made.
An attractive poster with appealing text to indulge the
audience is known as ‘caption’. Usually, a caption con-
veys the important message and the visual is to attract
attention and therefore, to support the message to be
conveyed. Posters can be of themes such as ‘Save Earth’,
‘Swachh Bharat Abhiyan’, ‘Rural Health’ etc.
pictures anD photographs
A picture is a representation made by drawing, paint-
ing or photography, which gives an accurate idea of an
object. A good picture may tell a story without using a
single word. Pictures may be in black and white or in
colour. Nowadays, digital cameras are popularly used to
take many photos and eye-catching images.
graphs
A graph is an image that represents data symbolically. A
graph is used to present complex information and numer-
ical data in a simple, compact format. Bar graphs, line
graphs, scatter graphs, and pictographs are some types
of graphs. In a two-dimensional graph, the information
is represented along two co-ordinates: X coordinate and
Y coordinate. An independent variable is shown along X
axis and dependent along Y axis. More about graphs is
discussed in Chapter 7 on data interpretation.
Maps
A map is a visual representation of an area. It is a sym-
bolic depiction highlighting the relationship between
elements of that space, such as objects, regions and
themes. Cartography or map-making is the study and
practice of making representations of the earth upon a
flat surface.
27/12/22 8:15 PM
 Teaching Aptitude
Maps are a useful tool in every discipline. In social
studies, it is very important for learning geographical,
historical and economical concepts.
Diagrams
A plan, sketch, drawing or outline designed to demon-
strate or explain how something works or to clarify the
relationship between the parts of a whole is called a
­diagram.
Display Boards
Blackboard or Chalkboard
Blackboard is one of the oldest teaching instructional
facilities, and the it is probably the simplest, most inex-
pensive, convenient, and widely used non-projected vis-
ual instructional facility in extension teaching. It is a vehi-
cle for a variety of visual materials.
The chalkboard is suitable for use in lectures, training
programmes, group meetings, etc.
It facilitates a step-by-step presentation of the topic,
creates a dramatic impact and sustains audience inter-
est. Presentations may be adjusted according to the
receptivity of the audience. It helps the audience to
take notes. It helps in comprehension and retention of
knowledge.
White Board
A whiteboard is also known as marker board,
multipurpose board, dry-erase board, dry-wipe board,
and pen-board etc, They became popular in 1990s. They
are glossy, usually white (or black surface) for making
non-permanent markings. They have a smoother surface
allowing rapid marking and erasing of markings on their
surface. A white board can be used for display on it with
the help of projectors.
Bulletin Board
A bulletin board displays messages. It is a surface in which
bulletins, news, information and announcements of spe-
cific or general interest can be displayed. Bulletin boards
are of different sizes with provisions to hold pins, book
exhibits and other materials.
Flannel Board and Flannel Graph
A flannel board is a visual instructional facilities in which
messages are written or drawn on thick paper and pre-
sented step-by-step to the audience to synchronize with
the talk. The board is a flannel-covered flat surface.
Flannel is stretched and then glued to a piece of plywood
or heavy cardboard.
Magnetic Board
A magnetic board can be a sheet of tinplate and simply
a type of chalkboard, the surface of which is treated or
coated with a porcelain-like substance. The base of the
board is steel, and pictures and objects can be pasted or
mounted with small magnets and can easily be moved
about.
M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 49
1.49
Peg Board
Perforated hardboard is a tempered hardboard that is
pre-drilled with evenly spaced holes. The holes are used
to accept pegs or hooks to support various items, such as
tools in a workshop.
Three -dimensional Models
Real things may not be available all the times and in
the desired form. Hence, models help to tide over this
problem. A model is a recognizable representation of
real things in three-dimensional view, such as its height,
width and depth. This makes the understanding better
and easy.
Models can be of three types, such as (i) solids, (ii) cut
away or cross sections and (iii) working models. They
have the advantage of reality depiction, illustration and
are complex and intricate. They are long-lasting and
inexpensive.
Objects, S pecimens , and Globe
Objects are collections of real things for instructional
use. Specimen is any typical object representing a class
or group of things. A globe is the spherical model of the
Earth.
Audio I nstructional Facilities
Radio
Radio has been a popular mass medium for close to a
century. These days, many of us tune in to the radio
through FM channels. Radio became popular due to its
easy access, speed and immediacy. With its introduction
in 1917, radio was visualized as a source of mass edu-
cation. In India, the first radio station was established
in Mumbai (Bombay) in July 1927. Two more radio sta-
tions in Calcutta and Delhi were established in 1936.
All India Radio (AIR) broadcasted radio programmes
for the country. In 1937, Calcutta station broadcasted
school programmes for the first time, and it continues
till date.
School educational programmes are still in demand
and are used by teachers to generate interest of stu-
dents. Gyan Vani is a dedicated FM channel for edu-
cational broadcasts. It is used to broadcast educational
programmes from Educational Media Production Centre
(EMPC) of Indira Gandhi National Open University
(IGNOU), New Delhi. Audio programmes developed by
Central Institute of Educational Technology (CIET) of
NCERT for school children are also broadcast by Gyan
Vani.
Podcast
Radio is a mass broadcast medium, whereas podcasts are
personalized broadcast.
Podcasts are prepared for and made available to a tar-
get group for specific learning objectives. Podcast is the a
portmanteau of the words ‘pod’ from iPod and ‘cast’ from
broadcasting.
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 1.50
Recordings
A tape recorder or any other kind of audio recording is
suitable for extension work in meetings, training pro-
grammes, campaigns, recording radio programmes, etc.
It facilitates on-the-spot recording of sound. It is easy to
operate and preserve and has low operational cost as the
same tape may be used again.
Digital Audio Player
A digital audio player is sometimes referred to as an MP3
player and has the primary function of storing, organ-
izing and playing audio files. Some digital audio play-
ers are also referred to as portable media players as they
have image viewing and video-playing support. An ideal
example is iPod (fourth generation audio instructional
facilities).
Telephone and Mobile
Usually, two people can communicate at a time through
a telephone and the system serves many people in a
given area if a speaker is attached to it, like Cell Phone-
Operated Mobile Audio Communication and Conference
System (COMBACCS). This technology is seeing a phe-
nomenal growth in many developing countries. Short
message service (SMS) and wireless application pro-
tocol (WAP)-enabled cell phones with cameras can be
effective in offering an available extension between
experts and people. COMBACCS can help community
members at different locations build relationships and
understanding.
Television
Television is an effective tool in expressing abstract
concepts or ideas. Abstract concepts are usually pro-
duced and conveyed with words. Besides this, in mak-
ing an abstract concept concrete, the role of animation
and visual experimentation is very ­important.
Activity I nstructional Facilities
1. Field Trip: A field trip is a structured activity that
occurs outside the classroom. It can be a brief observa-
tional activity or a longer, more sustained investigation
or project. Field trips offer an opportunity for students
to get exposure to real people, events and opportunity
to make connections with others.
2. Experimentation: The experiments are specifi-
cally useful in science subjects to relate theory with
practice.
3. Dramatics: They can convey some message to society
or the public at large. These are usually theme-based
and the students are assigned different roles.
4. Teaching Machines: There are many types of teach-
ing machines. In general, they all work on the same
method, which is to present a question, have the user
indicate the answer and then provide the user with
the correct answer. They are usually programmed.
They are particularly useful in subjects that require
drill, such as arithmetic or a foreign language. Users
can proceed at their own pace and also have an
M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 50
Chapter 1
opportunity to review their work. If the machines are
used in a classroom, they relieve teachers of some of
the time-consuming aspects of drilling students and
allowing them to give more attention to individuals
with specific problems or to concentrate on some par-
ticularly difficult area of instruction.
5. Programmed Instructions: They are also useful
instrument.
Factors Influencing the Selection of
Instructional Facilities
No single rule-of-thumb can be given for the selection
and use of various audio-visual instructional facilities
to ensure effectiveness in all situations. In order to get
the most effective results, the following aspects are
important:
1. Selection of appropriate instructional facilities
2. Suitable combination of the selected instructional
facilities
3. Their use in proper sequence
Audio-visual instructional facilities are used individually
or in combination, thereby taking into consideration the
following factors.
1. Nature of Audience: Printed media are meant for lit-
erate people, whereas exhibits, pictures and symbols
are for less literate people.
2. Size of Audience: A video show or whiteboard can-
not be used effectively when the number of partici-
pants exceeds 30, and internet can be used for large
audiences.
3. Teaching Objective or Expected Nature of Change:
Select the audio-visual instructional facilities based
on the objective of extension teaching, i.e., to bring
about a change in
(a) Thinking or knowledge
(b) Attitude or feeling
(c) Actions or skills.
  If you merely want to inform or to slightly influence
a large number of people, then use mass media such
as radio or television.
4. Nature of Subject Matter: In case a new practice is
simple and familiar, a news article, a radio ­message, or
a circular letter is effective, whereas complex or unfa-
miliar practices will require audio-visual instructional
facilities.
5. Availability of Instructional Facilities: Despite the
availability of the Internet more than two decades
back, it was not being used on a large scale. With
the availability of speed, due to better technology,
and cost effectiveness, more people are now using
Internet-based technologies as teaching instructional
facilities.
6. Relative Cost: Effective instructional facilities need
not necessarily be costly. The amount expended on
27/12/22 8:15 PM
 Teaching Aptitude 1.51

Dale’s Cone of Experience

People generally remember Learners are able to (Learning Outcomes)

10% of what they Read Define

Read
text Describe
List
Listen to Explain
20% of what they Hear
lecture (Hear)

30% of what they See Watch still pictures

Demonstrate
Watch moving pictures Apply
Practice
50% of what they See and Hear VIew exhibit

Watch demonstration

Participate in hands-on workshop Concrete

70% of what they Say and Write
Role-play a situation Analyze
Design
Model or simulate a real experience Create
Evaluate
90% of what they Do
as they perform the task Direct Purposeful Experience - Go through the real experience

Figure 1.20 Dale’s Cone of Experience

audio-visual instructional facilities, in relation to the
extent of effectiveness is also an important consider-
ation in their selection and use.
Dale’s Cone of Experience
Dale’s Cone of Experience is a model that incorporates sev-
eral theories related to instructional design and learning
processes. During 1960s, Edgar Dale theorized that learn-
ers retain more information by what they ’do’ as opposed
to what is ‘heard’, ‘read’, or ‘observed’. His research led to
the development of the ‘Cone of Experience’. Today, this
‘learning by doing’ has become known as ‘experiential
learning’ or ‘action learning’.
How can instructors use the cone of experience?
According to Dale’s research, the least effective method
at the top involves learning from information presented
through verbal symbols, i.e., listening to spoken words.
The most effective methods at the bottom involve direct,
purposeful learning experiences, such as hands-on or
field experience. Direct purposeful experiences repre-
sent reality or the closet things to real, everyday life. The
cone charts the average retention rate for various meth-
ods of teaching. The further you progress down the cone,
the greater the learning and the more information likely
to be retained. It also suggests that when choosing an
instructional method, it is important to remember that
involving students in the process strengthens knowledge
retention. It reveals that ‘action–learning’ techniques
result in up to 90% retention. People learn best when
they use perceptual learning styles and these learning
styles are sensory based.
The more sensory channels possible in interacting
with a resource, the better chance that many students can
learn from it. According to Dale, the instructors should
design instructional activities that build upon more real-
life experiences. Dales’ cone of experience is a tool to help
instructors make decisions about resources and activities.
Important Tips for Better
Classroom Management
In NET examination, there are questions about class indis-
cipline and how to deal with the situation. There are a
number of things a teacher must keep in mind when deal-
ing with students who do not behave in a disciplined man-
ner in class. There is a basic rule that the teacher must
consider that he or she does not hurt them physically or
emotionally. This would prove psychologically harmful to
the student and our purpose is surely not to harm them
but to modify their behaviour as individuals.
Punishments, if any, should be seen as reasonable and
fair, and never vicious. The ability to control a group of
students depends on the personality of the teacher and
also the rapport that he or she develops with them. There
are some tips to be kept in mind.
1. Immediate Action: In case of deviant behaviour, a
teacher must take immediate action.

M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 51 27/12/22 8:15 PM

 1.52 Chapter 1

the main purpose of instruction is conceived in terms of

Concept Box helping students achieve a set of learning outcomes that
include changes in the cognitive, psychomotor and affec-
Teaching with Sense of Humour tive domains.
● Laughter is a natural, universal phenomenon, and has
There is a direct relationship among the four impor-
beneficial effects, both physical and psychological. tant factors of the educational system, such as objec-
● Everyone loves a teacher with an infectious sense of tive, curriculum, method and evaluation. As Indian
humour. Education Commission (1944–1966) has remarked, ‘It
● It builds cordial relationship. is now agreed that evaluation is a continuous process,
● It has the ability to relax people and reduce tension. forms an integral part of the total system of education,
● It is an effective advertising strategy. and is intimately related to educational objectives. It
● Teaching with the help of cartoon is a very exercises a great influence on the pupil’s study habits
effective way. and the teacher’s method of instruction, and this helps
● When there is a willingness to change, there is hope
not only to measure educational achievement but also
to improve it’.
for progress in any field.
● Students enjoy humour in forms of funny anecdotes.
evaLuation
Evaluation is a systematic process of collecting, analysing
and interpreting information to determine the extent to
which instructional objectives are being achieved.
Perhaps the most comprehensive definition of evalua-
2. Stop Teaching in Case of Misbehaviour: The tion has been given by Beeby, which says, ‘Evaluation is
moment the teacher stops teaching, it is clear that the the systematic collection and interpretation of evidence
teacher means business and will not tolerate misbe- leading as a part of process to a judgement of value with
haviour in the class. a view to action.’
3. Change Seats: If few students disrupt the class, From this definition, it is clear that the following four
change their seats. Separating the troublemakers is key elements constitute the process of evaluation.
quite effective in controlling indiscipline. 1. Systematic collection of evidence (Example: score)
4. Adapt and be Sensitive: In case the entire class 2. Its interpretation
is gradually getting out of control, then it’s a signal 3. Judgement of value
that the activity is boring. The best way of control- 4. A view to action
ling them is by changing the activity. For example, if
they are reading, immediately switch over to a writing
task, which would keep them all quiet and involved.
The teacher must learn to adapt and be sensitive to
the mood of the class.
5. Counsel after Class: One of the most effective ways Curriculum standards
of tackling a student is by giving counselling after • Frameworks
class. The teacher should also clearly explain the con- • Syllabi
sequences of not improving. • Guides
6. Talk to the Parents: In several cases, a talk with the • Blueprints
parents will improve the behaviour of the student. It • Benchmarks
Correlation
would also give a better insight into the reasons for
indiscipline by individual students.
Validity
Instructional program
• Instructional styles
Evaluation Systems • Print materials
Assement-evaluation • Equipment
i nterDepenDence of teaching, L earning, anD • Facilities
system
e vaLuation • Objective tests • Technologies
Alignment • Communities
Teaching has been defined as the process of facilitating • Performance
learning, and the term learning is broadly defined as the assessments
process of acquiring knowledge, attitude, skills, habits • Portfolios
and abilities. To determine whether teaching has facili- • Teacher observations
tated learning, and if yes, upto what extent, evaluation • Program evaluations
is carried out. In other words, teaching, learning and
evaluation are three inter-dependent aspects of the edu-
cative process. This interdependence is clearly seen when figure 1.21 Congruence Triangle – Reynolds (1996)

M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 52 27/12/22 8:15 PM

 Teaching Aptitude 1.53

Desirable Characteristics of Evaluation

Evaluation
1. Comprehensiveness: It must try to assess all aspects
of a child’s development. Thus, different techniques
might be used by the teachers to evaluate the perfor-
Assessment
mance of the child.
2. Continuous: Evaluation is a continuous process in
education. It is not just an examination but a part Measurement
of the evaluation process. There is no fixed time
limit for the completion of evaluation work, but it
is a continuous process. CBSE’s Continuous and
Comprehensive Evaluation (CCE) is based on the
above two parameters. CCE helps in improving the
student’s performance by identifying his or her
learning difficulties at regular time intervals right Figure 1.22 Comparison Between Measurement,
from the beginning of the academic session and Assessment and Evaluation
employing suitable remedial measures for enhanc-
ing their learning performance. Functions of Evaluation
Difference between Measurement, Assessment Evaluation does not end with the summarization of results.
and Evaluation It has direct bearing on the improvement of the system as a
whole. The functions of evaluation are as ­follows.
Measurement is the quantitative description of one’s
performance. For example, a student scored 92 in 1. Feedback: To assess strengths and weaknesses.
Mathematics, 75 in Science, 65 in Social Science, 64 in 2. Motivation: The mere realization that you would be
Hindi and 68 in English. evaluated propels a student to work hard.
3. Better Guidance: Crucial for the growth of pupils.
Gathering information Measurement 4. Remediation: It helps in locating the areas that
require remedial measures.
5. Facilitates Planning: It helps the teacher in planning,
Assessment is the second step of evaluating student’s per-
organizing and implementing learning activities.
formance. The description that a student stood first in
the class represents the concept of assessment. It makes 6. Revision of curriculum.
student’s performance more meaningful. Unless we inter- 7. Inter-institutional comparison.
pret, analyse, rank-order and compare one’s individual 8. Educational Decision-making: It relates to selec-
score with the average score of the group, we cannot find tion, classification, placement, promotion, etc.
out one’s relative position in a group. 9. Submission of progress report to parents.

Comparison of two or
Assessment Types of Evaluation
more sets of information A good evaluation device is one which secures valid evi-
dence regarding the desired change of behaviour. A teacher
If in case of a student, we find that she has ‘improved signifi- needs to know the various devices that are helpful in gath-
cantly in half-yearly ­examination’ in comparison to her per- ering evidence on the changes taking place in a pupil.
formance in the earlier examinations, what does it mean?
We can conclude that this type of judgement carries Quantitative Techniques
certain value and adds to the performance of student to 1. Written Examination: It is also known as paper pen-
make it more meaningful. cil test. In this technique, the answers are to be writ-
While forming a judgement like ‘improved signifi- ten as per the instruction of questions.
cantly’, the earlier performance of the student in the pre- 2. Oral Examination: They supplement the written
vious examinations has been taken into consideration examination. Examples are tests of reading ability,
by the teacher. When we add value to the assessment of and pronunciation and viva voce.
student performance, we carry out evaluation of their 3. Practical Examination: These tests are necessary to
performance. test experimental and manipulative skills of a learner,
particularly in subjects such as science, technology,
Comparison of two agriculture, craft, and music.
sets of information Placement
+ = Evaluation
(Assessment) of value Qualitative Techniques
1. Observation and Interviews: Observation should be
The comparison can be depicted with the help of ­following done in a systematic manner to evaluate the behaviour
diagrams as well. of the students. It helps in controlled and uncontrolled

M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 53 27/12/22 8:15 PM

 1.54
situations. Thus its recording is also important.
Interview is sometimes superior to other devices. It is
because of the fact that pupils are usually more willing
to talk than write.
2. Checklist: A checklist is an instrument that is used for
collecting and recording evidence regarding signifi-
cant behavioural tendencies of the pupils or specific
problems they present in the classroom.
3. Rating Scale: Rating is a term applied to the expres-
sion of opinion or judgement regarding some situa-
tion, object or character. A rating scale is a device by
which judgements can be quantified.
4. Cumulative Records: Anecdotal records, cumula-
tive record cards and diaries of pupils are some other
devices used in evaluation process to know the details
about a child’s behaviour.
type of evaLuation on the basis of phase of
instruction
In the various phases of instruction, evaluation is inte-
grated. The four types of evaluation are placement, form-
ative, diagnostic and summative.
1. Placement Evaluation: This can be termed as
‘assessment before entrance’. This evaluation is
conducted when a candidate is seeking admission
in an institution, so it is called as ‘entry behaviour’.
Thus, it starts before the actual teaching in the class.
An institution or teacher is assured of some standard
of skills and knowledge that a learner possess at the
time of admission.
Concept Box
Deeksharambh
This is basically a Student Induction Programme (SIP).
This helps new students adjust and feel comfortable in
the new environment, inculcate in them the ethos and
culture of the institution, help them build bonds with
other students and faculty members, and expose them
to a sense of larger purpose and self-exploration.
2. Formative Evaluation: The key word in forma-
tive evaluation is learning progress (evaluation
for learning). It is the second stage of evaluation.
This evaluation starts from the very beginning of
On the basis of On the basis of phase On the basis of nature
Approaches of Instruction of reference
Quantitative techniques 1. Placement 1. Norm referenced
2. Formative 2. Criterion referenced
Qualitative techniques 3. Diagnostic
4. Summative
M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 54
Chapter 1
designing instruction and it continues till the end of
the course/instruction. Conducting unit end exami-
nation, monthly examination, quarterly examina-
tion, half-yearly examination, etc. are the examples
of formative evaluation. It provides feedback to the
teachers to know effectiveness of their teaching and
modification required and the learners to know the
progress of their learning. It also provides scope for
diagnostic evaluation.
3. Diagnostic Evaluation: The key word in diagnos-
tic evaluation is identifying of ‘learning difficulties’.
This evaluation is specially conducted to identify
and remove the learning difficulties of learner if it is
observed and found during the formative evaluation.
For example, if a learner couldn’t understand certain
concepts in a particular subject and continuously
performing poorly in that subject, a teacher should
conduct a diagnostic test to know the causes of the
difficulties and accordingly provide them remedial
treatment to overcome the difficulties. Diagnostic
evaluation also identifies and provides remedies for
personal, physical and psychological problems.
4. Summative Evaluation (External Evaluation): As
the name indicates, it is done at the end or comple-
tion of the course.
It determines the extent to which the objectives
of instruction have been achieved and is used for
assigning course grades. Summative evaluation
generally includes oral reports, projects, term
papers and teacher-made achievement tests and it
shows how good or how satisfactory the student is
in accomplishing the objectives of instruction.
Areas of function Types of evaluation and their
functions
After instructions Summative evaluation
(To certify the learner)
During instructions (a) Diagnostic evaluation
(To solve learning difficulties)
(b) Formative evaluation
(To provide feedback on the
teaching-learning process and
to have mastery in content)
Before instructions Placement evaluation
(To know entry behaviour)
On the basis of On the basis
purpose of grades
1. Diagnostic tests Direct
2. Aptitude tests
3. Achievement tests Indirect
4. Proficiency tests
27/12/22 8:15 PM
 Teaching Aptitude
evaLuation accorDing to nature of
reference
Norm-referenced testing and criterion-referenced testing
are the two complimentary approaches to educational
testing. There are some similarities and differences
between them.
1. Criterion-referenced Evaluation: Glasar (1963) first
used this test to describe the learner’s achievement on
a performance continuum.
Consider the following Statements:
(a) Amit scored 95 or 95% marks in Mathematics.
(b) The typing speed of Davinder is 58 words per
minute.
A criterion-referenced test is used to ascertain
an individual’s status with respect to a defined
achievement domain. In the above statements,
there is no reference to the performance of other
members of the group. Thus, criterion-referenced
evaluation determines an individual’s status with
reference to well-defined criterion behaviour.
There are clearly defined learning outcomes
which serve as referents (criteria). Success of cri-
terion-reference test lies in the delineation of all
defined levels of achievement which are usually
specified in terms of behaviourally stated instruc-
tional objectives.
The purpose of criterion-referenced evaluation
or test is to assess the objectives and that’s why it
is termed objective-based test. The objectives are
assessed, in terms of behavioural changes among
students. Hively and Millman (1974) suggested
the new term domain-referenced, which has a
wider connotation. A criterion referenced test can
measure one or more assessment domain/s.
2. Norm-referenced Evaluation: This test is used to
ascertain an individual’s status with respect to the
performance of other individuals on that test. It is
normally used in competitive exams.
Consider the following statements:
(i) Amit stood third in Mathematics test.
(ii) Rajesh scored 98 percentile, which means only
2% candidates scored better than him. This is
used in CAT for admission into IIMs and some
other top-notch institutes in India.
Concept Box
Scholastic Assessment
Scholastic assessment refers to the assessment of cog-
nitive abilities of learners in various academic activi-
ties that are associated with various subjects.
Therefore, all those abilities in cognitive domain,
namely, knowledge, understanding, application, anal-
ysis, synthesis, evaluation and creativity come under
scholastic abilities. Continuous and comprehensive
evaluation is one such example.
M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 55
1.55
In the above statements, the person’s performance
is compared to others of their group and the relative
standing position of the person in his/her group is
mentioned. We compare an individual’s performance
with similar information about the performance of
others.
Norm-referenced tests are mostly easy but can be
tough as well
Reflective Prompts
Reflective prompts is a technique in which the teacher
provides a set of flexible questions to the students that
prompt them to reflect on their own learning. In this
technique, each student answers some questions such
as given below after completion of a lesson/unit by the
teacher. If the test scores are interpreted in terms of an
individual, then they are known as self-referenced.
types of evaLuation tests of the basis of
p urpose
Though there is some overlap with the evaluation tech-
niques as discussed earlier, purpose-specific category
includes tests designed to achieve a specific purpose of
evaluation. Generally four test-types are identified in this
category. Let us briefly present the features of each of these.
Diagnostic Test
These tests help us in identifying ‘area of learning’ in
which a learner may need a remedial course and they pro-
vide us a profile of what the learner knows and does not
know. A diagnostic test may consist of a battery of a num-
ber of sub-tests to cover sub-areas.
Aptitude Test
These basically serve a predictive function. They help
us identify potential talents and desirable character-
istics which are essential for one to be competent to
perform a specific task. These tests are generally used
while selecting people for special courses.
Achievement Test
As the name indicates, such tests aim to measure the
extent to which the objectives of a course have been
achieved. The usual end-of-course exam may be taken as
a typical example of an achievement test.
Proficiency Tests
These tests aim to assess the general ability of a person at
a given time.
Their scope is governed by a reasonable exception of
what abilities learners of a given status (say, matriculates
or graduates) should possess.
graDing systeM of evaLuation
The word ‘grade’ is derived from the Latin word Gradus
which means ‘step’. In educational measurement, grading
involves the use of a set of symbols to communicate the
level of achievement of the students.
27/12/22 8:15 PM
 1.56
Types of Grading
1. Direct Grading: In direct grading, the performance
exhibited by an individual is assessed in qualitative
terms, and the impression so obtained by the examiner
is directly expressed in terms of letter grades.
The advantage of direct grading is that it minimizes
the inter-examiner variability. Moreover, it is easier to
use in comparison to indirect grading. Direct grading
lacks transparency.
2. Indirect Grading: In this method, the performance
of an examinee is first assessed in terms of marks and
subsequently transformed into letter grades by using
different modes. This transformation may be carried
out in terms of both ‘absolute grading’ and ‘relative
grading’ as discussed below.
(a)  Absolute Grading: Absolute grading is a conven-
tional technique of evaluation. It is based on a pre-
determined standard that becomes a reference
point for assessment of students’ performance. It
involves direct conversion of marks into grades,
irrespective of the distribution of marks in a sub-
ject. For example, the categorization of students
into five groups, namely,
Distinction - 75% and above
First division - 60% and less than 75%
Second division - 45% and less than 60%
Third division - 33% and less than 45%
Unsatisfactory - Below 33%
(b) Relative Grading: Relative grading is generally
used in public examination. In this system, the
grade of a student is decided not by her perfor-
mance alone but the performance of the group.
This type of grading is popularly known as ‘grad-
ing on the curve.’
O bjective and Projective P ersonality T ests
Objective Tests: This is a self-reporting system that
measures personality traits on a “yes” or “no” scale.
These tests are considered objective as there is no inter-
vention by the test maker to manipulate the answer.
   Locus of Control refers to an individual’s percep-
tion about the underlying main causes of events in
his/her life.
Projective Tests: This test is designed to let a person
respond to ambiguous stimuli, presumably revealing
hidden emotions. The internal conflicts may also be
projected by the person into the test.
   Kindly look at the following questions.
Stopover
1. Below are listed some activities performed by a
teacher. Which activities are of the nature of forma-
tive evaluation?
(A) Giving a mastery test
(B) Conducting quiz session
M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 56
Chapter 1
(C) Evaluating student in grading system
(D) Providing feedback while teaching
(E) Encouraging student reflect more
Select your answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B) and (C)
(b) (B), (C) and (D)
(c) (B), (D) and (E)
(d) (B), (C) and (E)
The correct option is (c).
2. Given below are two statements (2021)
Statement (I): Achievement and aptitude tests
designed to assess the upper limits of the examinees’
knowledge and abilities.
Statement (II): Objective personality tests and projec-
tive personality tests are designed to measure the typi-
cal behaviour and characteristics of the examinees.
Which of the following options is correct?
(a). Both statement (I) and statement (II) are correct.
(b). Both statement (I) and statement (II) are incorrect.
(c). Statement (I) is correct but statement (II) is incorrect.
(d). Statement (I) is incorrect but statement (II) is correct.
The correct answer is (a).
Choice Based Credit System (CBCS)
The Ministry of Education has brought out New Education
Policy (NEP) to bring out reforms in Indian education sys-
tem. UGC has earlier asked for active participation, already
initiating several steps to bring equity, efficiency and aca-
demic excellence in National Higher Education System.
Majority of institutions have entered recently into semes-
ter system to match the international educational pattern.
There is need to allow flexibility in education sys-
tem, so that students depending upon their interests
and aims can choose interdisciplinary, intra-disciplinary
and skill-based courses. This can only be possible when
choice-based credit system (CBCS), an internationally
acknowledged system, is adopted. The choice-based
credit system not only offers opportunities and avenues
to learn core subjects but also explore additional avenues
of learning beyond the core subjects for holistic develop-
ment of an individual.
Advantages of CBCS
1. Shift in focus from the teacher-centric to student-cen-
tric education.
2. Student may undertake as many credits as they can
cope with (without repeating all courses in a given
semester if they fail in one/more courses).
3. CBCS allows students to choose inter-disciplinary,
intra-disciplinary courses, skill-oriented papers (even
from other disciplines according to their learning
needs, interests and aptitude) and more flexibility for
students).
27/12/22 8:15 PM
 Teaching Aptitude 1.57

4. CBCS makes education broad based and at par with

global standards. One can take credits by combin- Computer-Based Testing (CBT)
ing unique combinations. For example, Physics CBT seems to be a catalyst for changes in pedagogical meth-
with Economics, Microbiology with Chemistry or ods. It brings about a transformation in learning, pedagogy
Environment Science etc. and curricula in educational institutions. The setting is the
5. CBCS offers flexibility for students to study at differ- basis of both computer-based and paper-based testing.
ent times and at different institutions to complete one
course (ease mobility of students). Benefits of Computer-Based T esting (CBT)
6. Credits earned at one institution can be transferred. 1. More frequent testing opportunities
Though difficult to adopt, the uniform grading system will 2. Data-rich results
also enable potential employers assess the performance 3. Increasing candidate reach
of the candidates. In order to bring uniformity in evalu- 4. Streamlined logistics
ation system and computation of the cumulative grade
point average (CGPA) based on student’s performance in There are two types of CBT which include:
examinations, the UGC has formulated the guidelines to 1. Linear Test: This involves a full-length examination
be followed. in which the computer selects different questions for
individuals without considering their p ­ erformance
O utline of C hoice Based Credit System level.
2. Adaptive Test: Here, the computer selects a range
1. Core Course: A course, which should compulsorily of questions based on the individual’s performance
be studied by a candidate as a core requirement is level. These questions are taken from a very large pool
termed as a core course. of possible questions categorized by content and dif-
2. Elective Course: Generally a course which can be ficulty.
chosen from a pool of courses and which may be very
specific or specialized or advanced or supportive to Using the Waterfall model, CBT’s SDLC, was split into
the discipline/subject of study or which provides a number of independent steps. The previous stage is
an extended scope or which enables an exposure to always completed before moving to the next stage of the
some other discipline/subject/domain or nurtures life cycle.
the candidate’s proficiency/skill is called an elective 1. Requirements analysis and definition
course. 2. System and software design
3. Discipline-Specific Elective (DSE) Course: 3. Implementation and unit testing
Elective courses may be offered by the main dis- 4. Integration and system testing
cipline/subject of study is referred to as Discipline 5. Operation and maintenance
Specific Elective. The University/Institute may also
offer discipline related elective courses of interdis- In India, CBT has been started for number of exams such
ciplinary nature (to be offered by main discipline/ as by IBPS for banking exams and currently by National
subject of study). Testing Agency (NTA) to conduct exams for UGC, NEET,
4. Dissertation/Project: An elective course designed to GPAT, GMA, etc.
acquire special/advanced knowledge, with an advi-
sory support by a teacher/faculty member is called Stopover
dissertation/project. Which of the following is an example of maximum

5. Generic Elective (GE) Course: An elective course performance test?
chosen generally from an unrelated discipline/sub-
ject, with an intention to seek exposure is called a (a) Personality tests
Generic Elective. (b) Projective personality tests
6. Ability Enhancement Courses (AEC): This may (c) Aptitude tests
be of two kinds: Ability Enhancement Compulsory (d) Interest and attitude scales
Courses (AECC) and Skill Enhancement Courses The correct option is (c).
(SEC). “AECC” courses are those based upon the
content that leads to Knowledge enhancement; Skill
Enhancement Courses (SEC): These courses may be
chosen from a pool of courses designed to provide Curriculum Framework, Curriculum
value-based and/or skill-based knowledge. and Syllabus
Central/state universities have a lot of flexibility in decid-
Though many Constitution related aspects have been dis-
ing common minimum syllabi of the core papers and at
cussed in unit 10, we need to look at the following points.
least follow common minimum curriculum as fixed by the
UGC. This allows deviation from the syllabi, 20 % being 1. Till 1976, state governments used to take decisions
the maximum. on all matters pertaining to education, including

M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 57 27/12/22 8:15 PM

 1.58 Chapter 1

curriculum. The role of centre was to provide guid-
ance to the states on policy issues.
2. National Council for Education Research and Training
(NCERT) developed the National Curriculum
Framework (NCF) in 1975 following the recommen-
dations of Education Policy on 1968.
3. In 1976, the constitution was amended to include
education in the concurrent list.
4. In 1986, National Policy on Education (NPE) envisioned
National Curriculum Framework (NCF) that aimed at
modernizing education, and focused on India’s geo-
graphical and cultural diversity while setting core val-
ues and standards. NPE focused on a relevant, flexible
and learner-centred curriculum. NCF was subsequently
revised in the years 1988, 2000 and 2005.
5. In September 2021, the Union Ministry of Education
constituted a 12-member national steering commit-
tee to develop a new National Curriculum Framework
(NCF) in line with the National Education Policy 2020
(NEP).
facilitate learning and are designed to implement specific
educational aims.
It is a plan to explain what concepts are to be trans-
acted, what knowledge, skills and attitudes are to be
deliberately developed among learners. It includes state-
ments of criteria for selection of content and choice of
methods for transaction of content as well as evaluation.
It is concerned with the following factors:
1. The general objectives of education at a particular
stage or class.
2. Subject-wise learning objectives and content.
3. Course of studies and time allocation.
4. Teaching-learning experiences.
5. Teaching-learning instructional facilities and materials.
6. Evaluation of learning and feedback to learners.
In reference to the discussion given above, it would mean
that the curriculum core and syllabus put together form
the curriculum.

Curriculum Framework: It is a plan that interprets Syllabus

educational aims with regard to both the individual and
society. This plan leads to an understanding of the kinds
of learning experiences that an educational institute must
provide to children.
Curriculum: This is perhaps best thought of as the
sum total of all deliberately planned set of activities that
Syllabus is a document that gives the details of the content
of subjects to be transacted and the skills, knowledge and
the attitude which are to be deliberately fostered together
with the stage (level)-specific objectives.
Syllabus is a descriptive list of subjects to be covered and
a summary of their contents. It describes and summarizes

Curriculum framework

Assumptions concerning Aims of education

human beings and society

Stage-specific objectives Details of the syllabus

Epistemological assumptions
Principles of content
selection and organization

Recommended
Assumptions about learning Criteria for good methods classroom practices

Criteria for good material Textbooks and TLM

Assumed understanding of
the child and her context
Principles of evaluation Evaluation scheme

Foundations of curriculum Curriculum core Curriculum details

Source: NCERT Pedagogy

figure 1.23 Curriculum Framework

M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 58 27/12/22 8:15 PM

 Teaching Aptitude 1.59

Connecting knowledge to life outside school.

Ensuring that learning is shifted away from rote methods

Guidelines
for Enriching the curriculum to provide for overall development
curriculum of children rather than remaining textbook-centric.
development

Making examination more flexible and integrated into

classroom life.

Nurturing overriding identity informed by caring concers

within the democratic policy of the country.

Figure 1.24 Curriculum Development Guidelines

what should be taught to the students; it may have details, for action, identified as the ‘successful performance
such as schedule, assessments, assignments, projects, etc. of tasks’. The focus is to observe the change in behav-
Thus, it may highlight the schedule of assignments, proj- iour. The following types fall within the scope of such
ects and exams, etc. curriculum.

Main Differences Between Syllabus and (a) Competency-based curriculum: According

C urriculum
1. The syllabus is the summary of the topics to be taught
in the particular subject where as curriculum refers to
the overall content taught in an educational system or
a course.
2. The curriculum is wider in scope when compared
with syllabus. Syllabus is descriptive in nature, but
the curriculum is prescriptive.
3. Syllabus varies from teacher to teacher while the cur-
riculum is same for all teachers.
4. The syllabus is accessible to the learners at the begin-
ning of course. This can used as a guide for their stud-
ies. Curriculum is not available to the learners unless
it is specifically ask for.
5. Syllabus is mostly prepared by the teachers.
Conversely, a curriculum is decided at a higher level.
6. The duration of syllabus is one year only. The curricu-
lum lasts till the completion of the course.
Basic A pproaches to Curriculum
1. Subject-centred Curriculum: The knowledge is
transferred from possessors of knowledge to those
who don’t possess it. Sometimes it is termed as give
(teacher) and take (learner) relationship. Lecture is
the main method for it. The focus to imbibe the top-
ics is through rote memorization. The knowledge is
tested through evaluation.
2. Behaviourist Curriculum: Here, learning is viewed
as change in behaviour. Knowledge is the capability
to UNESCO, competency is the ability to apply
learning resources and outcomes (knowledge,
skills, values,and attitudes) adequately in a
defined context (education, work, personal,or
professional development). A competency-based
curriculum is a curriculum that emphasizes what
learners are ‘expected to do’ rather than mainly
focusing on what they are ‘expected to know’. In
principle, such a curriculum is learner-centred
and adaptive to the changing needs of students,
teachers, and society.
(b) Criterion-referenced curriculum: In such situ-
ations, the results are compared to a set standard
or criteria and testers are ranked in relation to the
body of tested knowledge.
(c) Mastery learning: In Mastery Learning curricu-
lum, a student’s aptitude is based on how long
they need to master the content, and all stu-
dents (given enough time and intervention) are
assumed to be able to eventually master the con-
tent. Mastery learning is usually divided into five
stages: pre-assessment, instruction, formative
assessment, correction or enrichment instruc-
tion, and summative grading or assessment.
(d) Programmed learning: This curriculum is in the
process format where we can move from arrang-
ing the material to be learned into a series of
sequential steps that is from known to unknown.
B.F.Skinner and his companions had first started
‘programmed learning’ in 1943.

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 1.60 Chapter 1

  Here, the teachers are facilitators of knowledge
and learning, they assume active role. The learn-
ers are assumed to be passive (or silent) receivers of
knowledge, and their cognitive aspects and behav-
iour changes under guidance from a teacher. The
chalk and talk (lecture) method is assumed to be the
best. The critics say that it does not focus on all round
development of the student.
3. Learner-centred Curriculum: Here, motivation is
used to impart and nurture knowledge in a stimulat-
ing environment. The engaging curriculum also plays
a role in it. The learning is viewed from a constructivist
perspective.
  The students need to become creative, get involved
in inquiry and make meaning for themselves out of
interactions with the environment. The focus is ‘what
is happening within’. The learner stands between the
stimulus and the response.
  ‘Constructivist curriculum’ is based on the follow-
ing assumptions:
(a) Knowledge is constructed in an active manner, thus
it is invented, created or discovered by learners. It is
not passively received and stored by learners.
(b) Knowledge cannot be separated from the process
of learning. It is based on learner’s conceptual
structures and prior experiences.
(c) There is need to construct and reconstruct cogni-
tive structures by learners, this may happen as a
result of new knowledge or reflection of students
on previously acquired knowledge.
(d) Social interactions help in construction and evo-
lution of knowledge.
(e) Concept formation progresses from concrete to
abstract slowly.
(f) The learning styles of learners are different and they
must be duly accommodated by the teacher.

Table 1.8 Important Dates Related to Education

Dates Important days

January 04 World Braille Day—A form of written language for blind people, in which the characters are
represented by patterns of raised dots that are felt with the fingertips.
January 24 National Girl Child Day, also known as Balika Divas.
February 21 International Mother Language Day
February 28 National Science Day—To commemorate the invention of the Raman Effect in India by the Indian
physicist Sir Chandrasekhara Venkata Raman on the same day in 1928.
June 21 International Day of Yoga— United Nations proclaimed 21 June as International Yoga Day.
September 5 Teachers’ Day is celebrated on 5th September every year, which is also the birthday of Dr. Sarvepalli
Radhakrishnan, the first Vice President of independent India and the second President of the country.
September 8 International Literacy Day—To highlight the importance of literacy in life and remind ourselves of
the status of literacy and adult learning worldwide.
September 14 Hindi Day
October 5 World Teachers’ Day—UN World Teachers’ Day commemorates the work of teachers and their
contributions to society.
October 11 International Day of Girl Child
October 20 World Statistics Day
November 1 National Education Day—It is also the birthday of Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, eminent educationist
and the first Education Minister of independent India.
November 14 Children’s Day—It is also the birthday of independent India’s first Prime Minister Pundit Jawaharlal
Nehru.
November 20 Universal Children’s Day

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 Teaching Aptitude 1.61

A s s e s s Yo u r L e a r n i n g

CONCEPTS, NATURE, AND CHARACTERISTICS

1. Given below are two statements, one labelled as 7. In the sets given below, Set I provides levels of teach-
Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). ing while Set II gives their focus of concern:
Assertion (A): Philosophy helps in determining
aims of education. Set I Set II
Reason (R): Education depends mostly on (Levels of Teaching) (Focus of Concern)
Philosophy. (A) Autonomous (1) Problem rising and
In the context of the two statements, which one of development level
the following is correct? problem solving
Codes:
(B) Memory level (2) Affects and feelings
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are false. (C) Understanding (3) Recall of facts and
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. level informations
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. (D) Reflective level (4) Seeing of relationship
2. Given below are two statements: among facts and their
Statement I: One of the basic principles of progres- examples
sive view of teaching is that education should be life (5) Peer learning
itself rather than a preparation for living.
Statement II: According to reconstructionist view of Select the correct answer from the options given below.
education the new social order must be ‘genuinely
(a) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-5
democratic’.
(b) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
In the light of the above statements. Choose the cor-
(c) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
rect answer from the options given below:
(d) A-5, B-4, C-3, D-2
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false. 8. Who among the following thinkers propagated the idea
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. of education of the most talented? [June 2019]

A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true. (a) Emanuel Kant (b) John Paul Sartre
(c) Aristotle (d) Plato
3. The term hermeneutics is drawn from [July 2022]
(a) Sociology (b) Anthropology 9. A teacher is faced with the problem of choosing the
(c) Theology (d) Economics appropriate teaching method for the transaction of a
course content. Which branch of philosophy will most
4. Things as they are and as they are likely to be encoun-
appropriately describe his/her predicament?
tered in life rather than words” was the slogan of the
[June 2019]
(a) Pragmatists (b) Realists
(a) Metaphysics (b) Epistemology
(c) Idealists (d) Existentialists
(c) Axiology (d) Logic
5. An existentialistic teacher should emphasize on
10. Which of the following can be taken as the right state-
(A) Freedom
ments in context of teaching?
(B) Responsibility
1. A teacher should have the ample subject knowl-
(C) Subjective feelings
edge as per the standard being taught.
(D) Cooperative living
2. Teachers are always born in a particular section of
In the above, which combination is correct?
society.
[December 2012]
3. The duty of a teacher in the class should be to
Codes: teach his/her subject in the artistic manner.
(a) A and B are correct. 4. The main objective of a teacher is to make the stu-
(b) A and C are correct. dent understand what has been taught in the class.
(c) A, B and C are correct. 5. The prime duty of a teacher is to always seek guid-
(d) B, C and D are correct. ance from the authorities while teaching in the class.
6. Behaviour pattern that increases in frequency when Codes:
followed by a reward is known as
(a) 1, 3, and 5 (b) 1, 2, 3, and 5
(a) Shaping (b) Classical Conditioning
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(c) Generalization (d) Operant Conditioning

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 1.62 Chapter 1

11. Which of the following statements are true?
1. Behaviourism pedagogical approach would say
that learning is teacher centred. Teacher is sole
authority figure and leads the lesson. The class
activities are visible.
2. The theory of Behaviourism in a classroom setting
came from pedagogical research by Thorndike,
Pavlov and Skinner.
3. In behaviourist pedagogical approach, we can
expect a mixture of lecturing, modelling and dem-
onstration, rote learning, and choral repetition.
4. The process of imbibing one’s own culture in one’s
personality is called as enculturation.
Codes:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
12. An almost simultaneous occurrence of the stimuli and
of the responses to them, it is called as
(a) Generalisation and discrimination
(b) Contiguity
(c) Reinforcement
(d) Practice
13. Which of the following chains represents the change
processes underlying educational system of Free
India?
(a) Psychological change – Social change – Political
change – Educational change.
(b) Political change – Social change – Psychological
change – Educational change.
(c) Social change – Psychological change – Political
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
15. Development of language in children, according to
B.F. Skinner, is the result of
(a) Training in grammar
(b) Imitation and reinforcement
(c) Innate abilities
(d) Maturation
16. Techno-Pedagogic competency is
(a) A science of using technology in teaching.
(b) A technique of combining principles of technol-
ogy and principles of teaching.
(c) A set of skills of interweaving technology into
teaching and learning both scientifically and
aesthetically.
(d) A competence to develop techno pedagogic sys-
tems in education.
17. Which of the following can be taken as the main
approaches in andragogy?
1. The focus of andragogical approach is on self-
directed, cooperative and two-way learning process.
2. In andragogy, motivation for learners is based on
intrinsic factors such as; self-esteem, self-confi-
dence, desire for the better quality of life, curios-
ity, self-development etc.
3. Andragogy is motivational approach.
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
18. Match the following.
Type of variable Basic Feature
(A) Independent Variable (i) Predictor variable
(B) Dependent Variable (ii) Tells relationship

change – Educational change.

(d) Educational change – Social change – Psychological between two
change. variables
14. According to Kolb (1984), match the learning style (C) Intervening Variable (iii) Outcome variable
with their respective characteristics as given in List-I
and List-II [December 2021] (a) A–(ii), B–(iii), C–(i)
(b) A–(i), B–(iii), C–(ii)
List-I List-II (c) A–(iii), B–(i), C–(ii)
(Learning Style) (Characteristics) (d) A–(i), B–(ii), C–(iii)
(A) Accommodators (i) Real life experience 19. Match List-I with List-II.
and discussion
List-I List-II
(B) Converger (ii) Theories and facts (Teaching maxims) (Main proponents)
(C) Diverger (iii) Hands-on learning (A) From whole to part (i) Gestalt
(D) Assimilator (iv) Hands-on learning psychologists
and theory (B) Self-study (ii) Dalton
Choose the correct answer from the options given (C) Training of senses (iii) Montessori and
below: Fröbel
Codes: Codes:
(a) (A)–(iv), (B)–(ii), (C)–(i), (D)–(iii) (a) (A)–(i), (B)–(ii), (C)–(iii)
(b) (A)–(iii), (B)–(i), (C)–(iv), (D)–(ii) (b) (A)–(i), (B)–(iii), (C)–(ii)
(c) (A)–(i), (B)–(iii), (C)–(ii), (D)–(iv) (c) (A)–(ii), (B)–(iii), (C)–(i)
(d) (A)–(iii), (B)–(iv), (C)–(i), (D)–(ii) (d) (A)–(ii), (B)–(i), (C)–(iii)

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 Teaching Aptitude
20. The principle of ‘the child, the school and education
itself are shaped largely by social and cultural forces’
was enunciated by [June 2019]
(a) reconstructionism (b) existentialism
(c) pragmatism (d) perennialism
21. Who among the following Indian thinkers has con-
tributed towards the concept of integral education?
 [June 2019]
(a) Gijubhai Badhera
(b) Swami Vivekananda
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Sir Aurobindo
22. Pitch of the teacher’s voice in the classroom is
described as [December 2019]
(a) Linguistic (b) Paralinguistic
(c) Non-linguistic (d) Macro-linguistic
23. In developing seven ‘multiple intelligences’, Gardner
made some important observations. Identify such
observations from the list given below: [June 2019]
1. Intelligence in not entirely genetic
2. Intelligence is a part of acquired behaviour
3. Intelligence is not fixed at birth
4. There is little or no hope for developing intelligence
5. Intelligence can be nurtured and grown
Give your answer by selecting from the options given
below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 5
(c) 3, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 4 and 5
24. From the list of the effective teaching behaviours.
1. Direct, audible and oral delivery to all students
2. Encouraging students to elaborate on an answer
3. Intelligence is not fixed at birth
4. Varying modes of presentation
5. Preventing misbehaviour with a minimum of class
disruption
6. Organising what is to came and summarising
what has gone before
Select your answer from the options given below:
(a) 1, 4 and 5 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 4, 5 and 6
25. What do we mean by curriculum?
(a) All the experiences which students get in school.
(b) Subject that are transferred by the faculty.
(c) Syllabus prescribed for the course.
(d) Class experiences, sports and games.
26. Family is the main agency of
(a) Informal education
(b) Formal education
(c) Non-formal education
(d) None of the above
27. Delinquency is committed by the children of the age
group
(a) 8 – 18 years (b) 6 – 14 years
(c) 7 – 15 years (d) 9 – 19 years
28. Five E’s instructional model of constructivism has
been developed on the basis of which of the following
theoretical basis of learning? [June 2019]
M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 63
1.63
(a) Learning emerges from the sequence of events in
a class.
(b) Learning occurs through the search for epistemo-
logical structure of understanding.
(c) Learning is contingent upon the socio-emotional
environment in the class.
(d) Learning is perceived as a change in behaviour as
a result of teacher motivation.
29. A teacher gives lot of positive and negative examples
to support his/her presentations in the classroom.
This will be related to which level of teaching?
 [June 2019]
(a) Autonomous development level.
(b) Memory level.
(c) Understanding level.
(d) Reflective level.
30. Which of the following statements are true in context
of teaching?
1. The method mainly used by a teacher is
analytical-synthetic.
2. The books are good source if contents are illustrative.
3. The objective of teacher should be to develop an
inquiring mind.
4. A teacher motivates students for self learning
5. A teacher should be compassionate and disciplinarian
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 5
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
31. Effectiveness of teaching has to be judged in terms of
 [January 2017]
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
(a) Course coverage
(b) Students’ interest
(c) Learning outcomes of students
(d) Use of teaching aids in the classroom
32. In emphasis in memory level, teaching is on which of
the following? [December 2019]
1. Organisation of thoughts and ideas
2. Seeing of relationship among facts
3. Systematic presentations to enable quick
reproduction
4. Critical thinking
5. Mastery of concept sequencing of facts
6. Segregating one feature from another
Choose the answer from the following options
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 5
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 4, 5 and 6
33. Given below are two statements [December 2021]
Statement I: The core of the teaching process is the
arrangement of environments within which stu-
dents can interact and study how to learn.
Statement II: A model of teaching is not a descrip-
tion of a learning environment.
In light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:
27/12/22 8:15 PM
 1.64 Chapter 1

Codes: 37. The order of activity in advance organiser model of

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. teaching is: [December 2021]
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. A. presentation of learning task/material
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. B. strengthening cognitive organisation
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. C. presentation of advance organiser
34. Which among the following constitute personal D. clarification of students problems
competence? Choose the correct answer from the options given
1. Empathy below:
2. Motivation (a) A, B, D, C (b) C, A, B, D
3. Social skills (c) C, B, A, D (d) B, A, C, D
4. Self awareness 38. Which of the following are the highest taxonomic cat-
5. Self regulation egories in the cognitive, affective and psychomotor
Choose the correct answer from the options given domains of learning? [December 2019]
below: A. Analysis
Codes: B. Evaluation
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only C. Awareness
(c) 2, 4 and 5 only (d) 3, 4 and 5 only D. Characterization
35. As suggested by UGC, Student Induction Programme, E. Naturalization
also called as ‘deeksharambh’ engages with the new Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
students as soon as they come into the institution, (a) A, B and C only (b) B, D and E only
before regular classes start. The students learn about (c) B, C and D only (d) C, D and E only
the institutional policies, processes, practices, culture 39. The variability or flexibility of delivery during the
and values, and their mentor groups are formed. presentation of a lesson by a teacher is called as
Which of the following policies are covered under  [December 2021]
‘deeksharambh’ ? (a) Thinking curriculum
(1) Socializing (b) Instructional variety
(2) Associating (c) Comprehension
(3) Governing (d) Procedural knowledge
(4) Experiencing 40. Which of the following statements are true about
(5) Small-group activities coherent curriculum?
Codes: 1. It is well organized and purposefully designed to
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 5 facilitate learning
(c) 3, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

2. It is free of academic gaps and needless repetitions

36. Match List-I with List-II. [December 2021] 3. It is aligned across lessons, courses, subject areas,
and grade levels
List-I List-II Codes:
(Training types) (Major Objective) (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(A) Pre-service (i) acquaint new entrants 41. Which of the following sequences correctly reflects
teacher training with duty and Kolb’s experiential teaching-learning? [June 2019]
responsibility (a) Think, do, feel and watch
(B) Practice (ii) upgradation of (b) Watch, feel, do and think
teaching knowledge (c) Do, watch, feel and think
(C) Induction (iii) to develop teaching skills (d) Feel, watch, think and do
training 42. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a good
question paper? [July 2022]
(D) In-service (iv) understanding aims & (a) Subjectivity
teacher training objectives of education (b) Objectivity
(c) Reliability
Choose the correct answer from the options given (d) Validation
below: 43. Consider the following assertion and reason.
Codes:
(a) (A)–(i), (B)–(ii), (C)–(iii) Assertion (A): Pedagogy is defined simply as the
(b) (A)–(i), (B)–(iii), (C)–(ii) method, and practice, of teaching.
(c) (A)–(ii), (B)–(iii), (C)–(i) Reason (R): The delivery of contents by a teacher
(d) (A)–(ii), (B)–(i), (C)–(iii) depends upon his teaching preferences, his experi-
ence, and the context that he teaches in.

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 Teaching Aptitude
(a) A is true and R is also true, and R explains the A
correctly
(b) Both A and R are correct, but R is not the exact
explanation of A
(c) Only A is correct
(d) Only R is correct
44. In context of dynamic teaching environment, which
of the following statement is true?
(a) Teacher is a dependent variable and student is
an independent variable.
(b) Teacher is an independent variable and student
is a dependent variable.
(c) Both teacher and student are intervening variables.
(d) Teaching is not linked with any variable.
45. At which of the following teaching levels is classroom
environment required to be sufficiently ‘open and
independent’?
(a) Memory level (b) Understanding level
(c) Reflective level (d) All of the above
46. Dynamic approach to teaching means
(a) Teaching should be lecture based
(b) Teacher should be energetic
(c) Teacher should be student friendly
(d) Student should learn through activities
47. Assertion (A): Emotionally intelligent children are
found to be good in problem solving. [June 2019]
Reason (R): Emotional intelligence implies the
capacity to integrate and manage the emotion.
In the light of the above statements choose the cor-
rect option:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the cor-
rect explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true
48. Which of the strategies in the list given below will be
associated with direct teaching?
1. Providing example and explanation
2. Promoting inquiry
3. Focusing on concepts
4. Giving review and recapitulation
5. Offering practice and feedback
6. Problem raising and problem-solving
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 4 and 5 (d) 4, 5 and 6
49. To make use of previously learned material in new
situation is
(a) Comprehension (b) Application
(c) Knowledge (d) Analysis
50. There are six levels of cognitive learning according to
the revised version of Bloom’s Taxonomy. Each level is
conceptually different. The six levels are
(a) 
remembering, understanding, applying, analyz-
ing, evaluating, and creating
M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 65
1.65
(b) creating, remembering, understanding, evaluat-
ing, applying, and analyzing
(c) 
understanding, remembering, applying, analyz-
ing, evaluating, and creating
(d) 
remembering, applying, understanding, analyz-
ing, evaluating, and creating
51. Epistemology is the branch of philosophy which deals
with the theories of
(a) Reality (b) Existence
(c) Knowledge (d) Values
52. Match List-I with List-II
List-I List-II
(Characteristic) (Philosophy)
(A) Learning by doing (i) Naturalism
(B) Education through (ii) Idealism
environment
(C) Realization of truth, beauty, (iii) Pragmatism
and goodness
(D) ‘World as it is here and now’ (iv) Realism
Codes:
(a) A–(i), B–(iv), C–(ii), D–(iii)
(b) A–(iii), B–(i), C–(ii), D–(iv)
(c) A–(i), B–(iii), C–(ii), D–(iv)
(d) A–(iii), B–(ii), C–(iv), D–(i)
53. Constructivist approach to teaching – learning pro-
cess is being emphasized at all levels of education.
Which of the following methods is mainly based on
this approach?
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
(a) Lecture Method (b) Project Method
(c) Discussion Method (d) All of the above
54. Which of the following assists students in managing
their own learning by modeling a problem solving
technique?
(a) Drill and Practice (b) Mental Modeling
(c) Discovery Learning (d) Direct instruction
55. The students or individuals may develop beliefs (posi-
tive or negative) about their own ability to cope effec-
tively in a variety of situations. This can be termed as
(a) Self-efficacy (b) Self-regulation
(c) Ego (d) Confidence
56. When the learning outcomes of students are ensured
with employment of less resources and effort on the
part of a teacher and more initiative for self-learning
is evident, which of the following expression will
describe the teacher most appropriately?
 [June 2019]
(a) Teacher is successful
(b) Teacher is effective
(c) Teacher is intelligent
(d) Teacher is practical
57. Which among the following is NOT a component of
effective teaching? [December 2019]
27/12/22 8:15 PM
 1.66
(a) Questioning to check for the understanding of
students
(b) Providing students with feedback
(c) Being flexible about how long it takes to learn
(d) Reactive mode of student’s behaviour
58. Identify the factors that do not contribute to the effec-
tiveness of teaching from the options given below:
 [December 2020]
1. Socio–economic background of Teacher
2. Teacher’s skill in pleasing the students
3. Teacher’s subject knowledge
4. Teacher’s personal contact with students
Choose the correct option:
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4
59. Which of the following skills refer to metacognition
skills?
1. It is thinking about thinking.
2. It enhances a student’s learning for immediate
outcomes and for understanding own learning.
3. It is a teachable skill that is central to other skills
sets such as problem solving, decision-making,
and critical thinking.
4. It is knowing your own strengths and weaknesses
as a learner.
(a) Only 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 2, 3 and 4
(c) Only 1, 2 and 4 (d) All of the above
60. Choose two factors that do NOT affect the academic
performance of students adversely:
 [December 2019]
1. Low self– efficacy belief
2. Belief in God
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
3. Indifferent attitude towards politics
4. Teacher’s low expectation from students
Choose the correct option:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 2 and 4 only
61. Identify the characteristics of a learner that help in
the effective teaching. [June 2019]
1. The overall respect for a teacher
2. The mental ability level of the learner
3. The previous experiences of the learner
4. The interest of the learner
5. The interpersonal relation of the learner
6. The societal perspective of the learner
Select your answer from the options given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 3, 4, 5 and 6
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 6 (d) 2, 3, 4 and 6
62. Identify the teaching methods that are relevant for
dialogic discourses.
1. Formal Lecture
2. Team teaching
3. Tutorials
4. Project methods
5. Group discussions
M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 66
Chapter 1
Select your answer from the options given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3, 4 and 5
(c) 2, 3 and 5 (d) 4, 5 and 6
63. Which among the following best describes the emo-
tional intelligence of learners?
1. Understand the emotions of other people and
your own
2. Aggressive expression of feelings
3. Human beings are simply information processors
4. Self regulation as per the situation
5. Being creative and open to criticism
6. Empathy
Choose your answer from the options given below:
(a) 1, 4, 5, 6 (b) 3, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4
64. Which of the following potential factors affecting
teaching are related to instructional facilities and
learning environment? [June 2020]
1. Praise and encouragement by teacher‘
2. Non availability of text books / reading materials
for use
3. Proactive moves in the interactive process
4. Shortage of highly qualified teachers
5. Availability of smart classes
Choose the correct answers from the following options
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 5
(c) 1, 4 and 5 (d) 3, 4 and 5
65. The phrase ‘giving personal attention to each student
individually’ is an example of. [January 2018]
(a) succinctness
(b) circumlocution
(c) wordiness
(d) tautology
66. Assertion (A): All classrooms communication is pre-
decided by social and institutional demands.
Reason (R): Positive educative actions should guide
learners to acquire knowledge of social significance.
Choose the correct answer from the following code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the cor-
rect explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
67. Which of the following statements is true in the case
of a test prepared by you as a teacher?
(a) If a test is reliable, it is objective
(b) If a test is valid, it is reliable also
(c) If a test is reliable, it is valid
(d) If a test is valid and reliable, it is usable
68. Consider the following statements.
(1) It is the use of straightforward, explicit teaching
techniques, usually to teach a specific skill.
(2) It is a teacher-directed method.
27/12/22 8:15 PM
 Teaching Aptitude
Which of the following teaching methods is being dis-
cussed here?
(a) Discovery learning
(b) Constructivist approach
(c) Direct instruction
(d) Hit and trial teaching
69. Which among the following bases can be counted to
judge the effectiveness of teaching? [June 2019]
(A) Marks obtained by students in overall subjects
(B) Level of realization of instructional objectives
(C) Time taken by the students to learn
(D) Resources used by the teacher in teaching
(E) Regularity of students in class
Select your answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B) and (C)
(b) (A), (B) and (D)
(c) (C), (D) and (E)
(d) (B), (C) and (D)
70. Who among the following has given the concept of
masterly learning?
(a) Carlton Washburne (b) Albert Bandura
(c) David Ausubel (d) Edward Thorndike
71. Consider the following statements:
(1) The theory is used for teaching abstract relationship.
(2) The theory helps students to retain important &
large information for longer duration.
(3) The theory was discovered by David Ausubel.
Identify the theory.
(a) Theory of mastery learning
(b) Theory of receptive learning
(c) Theory of social learning
(d) Theory of discovery learning
72. Consider the following statements.
(1) Learning is an active process
(2) Learners construct new ideas or concepts based
upon their current or past knowledge.
(3) This is basically a constructivist approach.
Which of the following theories is according to these
statements?
(a) Receptive learning by David Ausubel
(b) Social learning theory Albert Bandura
(c) Mastery learning by Carlton Washburne
(d) Discovery Learning by Jerome. S. Brune
73 Which of the following disease shows the irreversible,
progressive brain disorder that slowly destroys mem-
ory and thinking skills and, eventually, the ability to
carry out the simplest tasks?
(a) Alzheimer’s disease (b) Dyslexia
(c) Parkinson’s disease (d) None of the above
74. Which of the diseases refer to following problems?
(1) A learning disorder that involves difficulty in read-
ing due to problems identifying speech sounds.
(2) It deals with learning how they relate to letters
and words that is decoding.
M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 67
1.67
(3) It affects areas of the brain that process language.
The choices are
(a) Alzheimer’s disease
(b) Dyslexia
(c) Parkinson’s disease
(d) None of the above
75. The theory of multiple intelligences differentiates
human intelligence into specific ‘modalities’, rather
than seeing intelligence as dominated by a single gen-
eral ability. Who among the following developed the
theory of ‘Multiple Intelligence’?
(a) Alfred Binet
(b) L. Thurstone
(c) Charles Spearman
(d) Howard Gardner
76. Which of the following statement explain the con-
cepts of inclusive teaching?
(a) Teacher facilitates the learning of the gifted students
(b) Teacher facilitates the learning of the weak students
(c) Teacher takes support of parents of the student to
make them learn
(d) Teacher makes the student of different back-
ground to learn together in the same class
77. Which of the following applies in the case of discovery
learning?
1. It is a constructivist approach based
2. It was introduced by Jerome Bruner
3. It is a method of Inquiry-Based Instruction
Codes:
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
78. As learning is continuous, a teacher must start teach-
ing at the level of students’ mind for their better learn-
ing. This is called as
(a) Principle of Clarity
(b) Principle of Association
(c) Principle of Active Process
(d) Principle of Multiple Exposure
79 The rate of learning declines at the rate of about one
percent a year after the age of
(a) 30 years (b) 35 years
(c) 42 years (d) 45 years
80. Which of the following are the methods of learning?
1. Teaching
2. Trial and Error
3. Imitation
4. Experimentation
5. Questioning
6. Reflection
Codes:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 (b) 2, 3, 4 and 6
(c) 1, 3 and 5 (d) All of the above
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 1.68 Chapter 1

81. From the list of the effective teaching behaviours, Codes:

identify those which are called key behaviours.
1. Direct, audible and oral delivery to all students
2. Encouraging students to elaborate on an answer
3. Warm and nurturing relationships with learners
4. Varying modes of presentation
5. Preventing misbehaviour with a minimum of
class disruption
6. Organizing what is to come and summarizing
what has gone before
Select your answer from the options given below:
(a) 1, 4 and 5 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 4, 5 and 6
82. From the list given below, identify those questions
which are called process rather than content based
questions? [June 2019]
1. Convergent questions
2. Divergent questions
3. Fact based questions
4. Concept based questions
5. Open questions
6. Closed questions
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 4, 5 and 6 (d) 2, 3 and 5
83. Which of the learner characteristics will influence
his/her perspective in a course of study?
1. Learner’s commitment
2. Parents interest in the learner
3. Prior knowledge of the learner
4. Skill of the learner in the concerned area
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
(a) (A)–(i), (B)–(ii), (C)–(iii)
(b) (A)–(ii), (B)–(i), (C)–(iii)
(c) (A)–(ii), (B)–(iii), (C)–(i)
(d) (A)–(iii), (B)–(ii), (C)–(i)
86. Which of the following statements applies in the
context of online teaching methods?
1. Teacher does not help in construction of knowledge
2. There is more role of learners in the instructional
process
3. The delivery of instruction is always verbal
4. There are more chances of self-learning and
motivation
5. It is rigid in nature
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 5 (d) 1, 3 and 5
87. Which of the following statements is/are correct in
the context of learning process?
(a) The context can be both field independent and
field dependent
(b) The learners are always reflective in nature
(c) There is no scope for practical thinkers
(d) All of the above
88. Which of the following can be described as the emo-
tional changes during adolescence stage?
1. It is stage of conscience formation
2. It is invincible stage of thinking and acting
3. The genetic changes to environmental factors
are called as a differential susceptibility model
4. There is reawakening of libido
5. The outcomes are worse for girls than in case of
boys

5. Family size of the learner Codes:

6. Socio-economic background of the family to (a) Only 1, 2 and 3
which the learner belongs (b) Only 2, 3 and 4
(c) Only 1, 3 and 5
Choose the correct answer from the options given (d) All of the above
below:
89. Which of the following stages have been defined by
(a) 1, 3 and 4 Piaget for the cognitive development in the ascend-
(b) 1, 2 and 3 ing order?
(c) 3, 4 and 5 (a) Sensory period, Pre-operational Period,
(d) 4, 5 and 6 Concrete operation period, Formal Operation
84. Teaching can be defined as period
(a) Bipolar process (b) Pre-operational Period, Sensory period,
(b) Tripolar process Concrete operation period, Formal Operation
(c) Quadrilateral process period
(d) All of the above (c) Sensory period, Concrete operation period, Pre-
85. Match the following items operational Period, Formal Operation period
(d) Sensory period, Formal Operation period,
Development of skill Description ­Pre-operational Period, Concrete operation period
(A) Cognitive Stage   (i) combining steps into 90. During which of the following stages, the purpose
larger units of process of adjustment is to bring about a ‘State of
(B) Associative Stage (ii) declarative ­Equilibrium’ in the life of individuals is more specific?
knowledge (a) Emotional Changes
(b) Cognitive development
(C) Automated Stage (iii) without much
(c) Social changes
attention
(d) Physical changes

M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 68 27/12/22 8:15 PM

 Teaching Aptitude 1.69

91. Which of the following changes are more prominent 97. Consider the following statements:
during the social changes of adolescence? 1. The curriculum covers the whole spectrum of
(a) It is period of storm and stress during transition teaching-learning activities in the educational
­
(b) There is feeling of homophily as there is mix up institution.
transition from single sex to mixed sex. 2. The syllabus is not restricted to examinable por-
(c) There is deviant peer contagion that may show tions of the curriculum
other signs of approval Which of the above is/are true?
(d) All of the above Codes:
92. Which of the following types of evaluation applies (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
more during adult stage? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above
1. By learner-collected evidence validated by peers, 98. Consider the following statements
facilitators, experts 1. It is self determined learning
2. It is basically criterion-referenced 2. It is student centered instructional strategy
Codes: 3. It emphasize the development of autonomy, capac-
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 ity, and capability
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above The following teaching strategy is indicated as a result
93. Consider the following statements: of these statements.
1. A problem is identified. (a) Pedagogy (b) Heutagogy
2. Small groups are formed. (c) Andragogy (d) Tautalogy
3. All members are encouraged to find the solution 99. Match List-I with List-II.
and express their ideas.
4. No idea is criticized, however ideas can be modified. List-I List-II
Which of the following teaching techniques is being (Teaching maxims) (Main proponents)
referred here? (A) From whole to part (i) Gestalt
(a) Brainstorming (b) Task Group psychologists
(c) Inquiry Group (d) Role Play
(B) Self-study (ii) Dalton
94. Microteaching is a technique aiming to prepare
teacher candidates to the real classroom setting. (C) Training of senses (iii) Montessori and
Which of the following is correct order of phases of Fröbel
microteaching?
Codes:
1. Knowledge acquisition Phase
(a) (A)–(i), (B)–(ii), (C)–(iii)
2. Skill acquisition Phase
(b) (A)–(i), (B)–(iii), (C)–(ii)
3. Transfer Phase

A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
(c) (A)–(ii), (B)–(iii), (C)–(i)
Codes:
(d) (A)–(ii), (B)–(i), (C)–(iii)
(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 1, 3, 2
(c) 2, 1, 3 (d) 3, 1, 2 100. Match The Following List.
95. From the following list of statements, select those
Bloom’s Classification Main Characteristic
which indicate the characteristics and basic require-
ments of effective teaching. (A) Cognitive Domain (i) Technical Skills
1. Teaching effectiveness depends upon (B) Affective Domain (ii) Love, motivation
communication and attitude
2. Effective teaching entails ability to develop rela-
tionships with their students. (C) Psycho-motor (iii) Describe a specific
3. An effective teacher has to be a good seller of ideas Domain topic
4. Effective teaching is always formal in nature
5. Effective teacher who are most successful in help- Codes:
ing students to learn (a) A–(iii), B–(i), C–(ii)
Choose the correct answer from the code given (b) A–(i), B–(ii), C–(iii)
below: (c) A–(iii), B–(ii), C–(i)
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (d) A–(ii), B–(iii), C–(i)
(c) 2, 3 and 5 (d) 1, 2 and 5 101. Which of the following is/are the teaching maxims?
96. When presenting materials, which of the following 1. From psychological to logical
should the teachers consider? 2. From analysis to synthesis
(a) Structuring (b) Balancing 3. From concrete to abstract
(c) Motivation (d) All of the above 4. Follow nature
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) All of the above

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 1.70 Chapter 1

102. Analysis means (c) Mastery over appropriate use of media and tech-
(a) Ability to break a problem into its constituent nology in teaching.
parts (d) All of the above
(b) To combine the constituent parts 109. Which of the following activities can help a teacher
(c) Both (a) and (b) inculcate social and moral values among the
(d) It is always used in combination with synthesis students?
103. The rules of presenting the contents to make them (a) Deliver lectures on values
easy are called (b) Show TV programmes
(a) Methods of teaching (c) Involve students actively in co-curricular activities
(b) Maxims of teaching (d) Observe religious festivals
(c) Techniques of teaching 110. According to the revised Bloom’s taxonomy, which
(d) Teaching strategies of the following categories is considered to be high-
104. With smaller classes, teachers are much more able to est for the learner? [July 2022]
(a) Identify learning problems (a) Understand (b) Create
(b) Provide individual attention (c) Analyse (d) Apply
(c) Adapt instruction to individual differences 111. Following are the characteristics of non–conventional
among students. learning [July 2022]
(d) All of the above 1. It is teacher oriented
105. The single most important factor in the beginning of 2. It is for improvement of quality
the teaching career is 3. It is cost effective
(a) Meritorious academic record 4. It is linked to employment
(b) Communication skills 5. It is on campus
(c) One’s personality and ability to relate to class Choose the correct answer from the options given
and students below:
(d) Organizing ability
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
106. In List-I, the names of the philosophers are given and (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 3, 4 and 5
in List-II, the statements regarding the philosophy
112. Which of the following is the least important aspect
are given. Match List-I with List-II in correct order.
of the teacher’s role in the guidance of learning?
List-I List-II (a) The development of insight to overcome pitfalls
(Characteristic) (Philosophy) and obstacles.
(b) The development of insight into what consti-
(A) Tagore (i) Harmonious development tutes an adequate performance.
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

of personality (c) The provision of encouragement and moral

(B) Vivekananda (ii) The doctrine of karma support.
(d) The provision of continuous diagnostic and
(C) Mahatma (iii) Child is more important
remedial help.
Gandhi than all kinds of books
113. From the following list of statements, select those
(D) Buddhism (iv) Yoga as a method of
which indicate the characteristics and basic require-
education
ments of teaching.
(v) The doctrine of dharma 1. Effective teaching must include some feedback
Codes: 2. Teaching means organizing and supervising.
(a) A–(v), B–(i), C–(ii), D–(iv) 3. Teaching implies making others learn.
4. Teaching requires convincing others.
(b) A–(iii), B–(iv), C–(ii), D–(v)
5. There can be teaching without formal
(c) A–(iii), B–(iv), C–(i), D–(ii) communication
(d) A–(iv), B–(ii), C–(i), D–(iii) (a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 (b) 1, 3 and 5
107. Who said that ‘Education is man-making. It is that (c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 (d) All of the above
by which character is formed, strength of mind is 114. Which of the following are the underlying purposes
increased, intellect is expanded and by which man of teaching aids?
can stand on his own feet’? 1. To motivate students to learn
(a) Swami Vivekananda 2. Teaching aids are helpful in meeting individual
(b) Rabindranath Tagore differences
(c) Swami Dayanand Saraswati 3. Teaching aids makes the abstract ideas concrete
(d) Jawahar Lal Nehru 4. To make learning permanent
108. The basic requirement of teaching efficiency is Codes:
(a) Mastery on teaching skills (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(b) Mastery over use of different techniques of (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) All of the above
teaching.

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 Teaching Aptitude 1.71

115. Arrange the following activities of classroom teach- (a) (i), (iv), (v), (ii), (iii)
ing in a logical order. (b) (iv), (v), (i), (ii), (iii)
1. Analysis of the work done (c) (iv), (i), (ii), (v), (iii)
2. Planning and preparation (d) (iv), (i), (v), (ii), (iii)
3. Presentation of material 122. Which one of the following is a product of learning?
4. Modification and improvement (a) Intelligence (b) Maturity
Codes: (c) Skills (d) Memory
(a) 2, 3, 1 and 4 (b) 3, 2, 1 and 4
123. Match List I with List II [July 2022]
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 1 (d) 2, 1, 3 and 4
116. In intuitive thinking, the learners typically focus on List I List II
one characteristic of someone or something, and (Concepts) (Main proponent)
base their decisions or judgment on that one charac-
teristic rather than considering multiple characteris- (A) I ntegral Education I. John Dewey
tics. This is called as (B) F
 ocus on spiritual II. Sri Aurobindo
(a) Logical thinking (b) De-centering aspects of Indian
(c) Centration (d) None of the above philosophy
117. Consider the following terms:
1. Logical Thinking (C) Learning to take III. D
 r. Sarvepalli
2. Critical Thinking place in nature and Radhakrishnan
3. Objectivity from nature
4. Suscepticism (D) Experiential IV.  Rabindranath
5. Preservance Learning Tagore
Which of the above are required for development of
scientific attitude and scientific temper among the Choose the correct answer from the options given
learners? below.
(a) 2, 3, 4 and 5 (b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 (a) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (b) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
118. Cognitive domain is related to development of intel- (c) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
lectual capabilities of learners that functions at dif- (d) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
ferent levels. Which of the following level is about 124. The following are the main objectives of curriculum
making use of previously learned material in new revision: [July 2022]
situation according to Bloom’s Classification of A. To align it better with vision and mission of the
Teaching and Instructional objectives? institution

(a) Knowledge (b) Comprehension
(c) Application (d) Analysis
119. Reinforcement is provided by any factor that increases
the probability that a response will be repeated. Which
of the following can be factor(s) of reinforcement?
(a) Praise
(b) Token award
(c) Simply succeeding in a task
(d) All of the above
120. While comparing hearing and listening, we can say that
(a) Hearing is a physical process; listening is a psy-
chological process
(b) Listening is a physical process; hearing is a psy-
chological process
(c) Both are purely physical processes
(d) Both are purely biological processes
121. Arrange the following teaching process in order
  (i) Relating the present knowledge with the previ-
ous knowledge
(ii) Evaluation
(iii) Re-teaching
  (iv) Formulation of teaching objectives
(v) Presentation of materials
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
B. To make it learning outcome based
C. To make it more effective in improving attain-
ment levels against programme outcomes
D. To develop capacities of students for competitive
examination
E. To meet the expectations of all stakeholders
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(a) A, B, C and D only
(b) A, B, C and E only
(c) A, C, D and E only
(d) B, C, D and E only
125. The ability to locate, evaluate, and effectively use
information is an important trait known as
(a) Critical thinking
(b) Information literacy
(c) Hearing
(d) Selective attention
126. Consider the following statements:
1. The curriculum covers the whole spectrum of
teaching-learning activities in the school
2. The syllabus is not restricted to examinable por-
tions of the curriculum

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 1.72
Which of the following statement/s of the above is /
are true?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
127. Which theory of learning has found that knowledge
of internal processes is crucial for the understanding
of learning?
(a) Cognitive Theory
(b) Stimulus–response theorists
(c) Operant conditioning theorists
(d) Classical conditioning theorists
128. Arrange the following activities of interaction in log-
ical order.
1. Analysis of the work done
2. Planning and preparation
3. Presentation of material
4. Modification and improvement
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3, 1 and 4
(c) 4, 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3, 4 and 2
129. Effective teaching means all of the following except
(a) A teacher teaches with enthusiasm
(b) A teacher finds fault in his students
(c) A teacher puts emphasis more on teaching than
on class control
(d) A teacher is interested in making the subject
matter understood rather than on completing
the course
130. If some students fail in the examination, it is the
fault of
(a) The teacher
(b) The principal
(c) Students themselves
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
(d) It cannot be generalized
131. A teacher who is not able to draw the attention of his
students should
(a) Evaluate his teaching method and improve it
(b) Resign from the post
(c) Find fault in his pupils
(d) Start dictating
132. Which of the following teacher’s behaviour suggests
a dimension of ‘unsuccessful’ teacher behaviour?
A teacher who is
(a) Always motivating students
(b) Business-like and friendly approach
(c) Aloof and focused on routine tasks
(d) Understanding and sympathetic
133. Which of the following is desirable from a new
teacher as his/her professional responsibility?
(a) Changing the course curriculum
(b) Cooperate with the fellow teacher despite the
differences
(c) Follow the procedures of the institute
(d) None of the above
134. ‘Mirambika’—The school based on ideas of free
­progress education was advocated by
(a) M. K. Gandhi (b) Vivekananda
(c) John Dewey (d) Sri Aurobindo
M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 72
Chapter 1
135. What are the components of Tyler’s model of
curriculum?
(a) Aims, subject content, teaching, evaluation
(b) Purpose, educational experiences, effective
organization of experiences, verification of goal
(c) Aims of education, organization of content, test-
ing, feedback
(d) Subject content, teaching, learning, testing
136. The experienced teachers do not require the detailed
lesson plan of a topic because
(a) They can teach more effectively without its help
(b) There are just few curious students in the class
(c) The teacher is not likely to face any challenges
from students even if they are wrong
(d) They can equip themselves with brief outline as
they gain specialization in it through experience
137. The field of education is permeated by conflicts and
misconceptions because of the
(a) Subjectivity of interpretation
(b) Problems that are not amenable to rigorous sci-
entific investigation
(c) Lack of good teaching methods
(d) All of the above
138. With the development of technology, the role of a
teacher in future will be
(a) To provide information
(b) To develop new textbooks
(c) To guide students
(d) To use the Internet in teaching
139. Which of the following skills are needed for the
present-day teacher to adjust effectively with class-
room teaching?
1. Knowledge of technology
2. Use of technology in teaching learning
3. Knowledge of students’ needs
4. Content mastery
Codes:
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
140. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Syllabus is an annexure to the curriculum
(b) Curriculum is the same in all educational
institutions
(c) Curriculum includes both formal and informal
education
(d) Curriculum does not include methods of
evaluation
141. To whom the responsibility of organization of cur-
ricular activities should be stored with?
(a) The principal
(b) The teacher who is appointed for this work.
(c) The teachers who take interest in it.
(d) All the teachers
142. The aim of education should be
(a) To develop vocational skills in the students.
(b) To develop social awareness among students.
(c) To prepare the students for examination.
(d) To prepare the students for practical life.
27/12/22 8:15 PM
 Teaching Aptitude
143. The contribution of taxpayers in primary education
is in the form of
(a) Income tax
(b) Tuition fee
(c) Paying money for individual tuition
(d) Educational cess
144. The success of integrated education depends on
(a) The support of community.
(b) The excellence of textbooks.
(c) The highest quality of teaching-learning
material.
(d) The attitudinal changes in teachers.
145. The purpose of ICT integration is for
(a) optimising learning outcomes
(b) enhancing students’ involvement in learning
(c) promoting concems for economy in use of
resources
(d) reducing workload of teachers in terms of trans-
actional hours
146. The quality of school education exclusively depends
upon
(a) Infrastructural facilities
(b) Financial provisions
(c) International support
(d) The quality of teacher’s education
147. The in-service teacher training can be made more
effective by
(a) Using training package which is well prepared in
advance.
(b) Making it a residential programme.
(c) Using cooperative approach.
(d) Practicing training follow-up procedures.
148. Who developed the interaction analysis category
system in education for increasing the teacher’s
effectiveness?
(a) Flander
(b) Rayon
(c) Amidon and Simon
(d) Richard Over
149. One of the important theories of moral development
was proposed by
(a) Lawrence Kohlberg (b) Erich Fromm
(c) Daniel Coleman (d) Benjamin Bloom
150. Spare the rod and spoil the child. This assumption
is related to the type of discipline which has been
advocated
(a) By naturalist philosophy
(b) By pragmatist philosophy
(c) In Victorian era
(d) In democratic era
151. Which of the following is an approach to educational
planning?
(a) Manpower approach
(b) Social demand approach
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
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1.73
152. ‘Man is born free but is everywhere in chains.’ This
statement was given by
(a) Abraham Maslow
(b) Jean-Jacques Rousseau
(c) John Dewey
(d) W. H. Kilpatrick
153. Which of the following statements are true in context
of social constructivism?
(a) This is considered to be a blend of teacher guided
and student centred.
(b) This concept was given by Lev Vygotsky
(c) The learning was a collaborative process between
student and teacher.
(d) All of the above
154. Which of the following are the features of construc-
tivism ?
1. People learn through experiences and reflection.
2. The child is put at the centre of learning, and
thus it may be called as the ‘invisible pedagogy’.
3. This approach incorporates project work, inquiry
based learning, and might adopt a Montessori or
Steiner method.
4. We make a shift from behaviourism and towards
social constructivism.
5. This approach was mainly propounded by Piaget
who wrote extensively about ‘schemas’.
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 3 and 5
155. When the children become mischievous and disobe-
dient in the classroom, the teacher should examine
(a) Home background of the students.
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
(b) Influence of outside elements in class.
(c) Teaching methods and subject knowledge.
(d) Co-curricular and other attractions in the school.
156. Which of the following set of activities will be con-
sidered most relevant for developing curricular
framework in writing skill?
(a) Construct, Reflect, Communicate, Construct
and Assess.
(b) Plan, Assess, Build and Reconstruct.
(c) Plan, Construct, Communicate, Reflect and
Assess.
(d) Formulate, Construct, Prepare and Reflect.
157. Assertion (A): Teacher education curriculum has to
give enough scope to learners for developing their
own logical thinking and problem solving ability.
Reason (R): The learners today need considerable
freedom to explore, enquire and investigate.
Select the correct option:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the cor-
rect explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
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 1.74 Chapter 1

TEACHING METHODS AND TEACHING INSTRUCTIONAL FACILITIES

158. Micro teaching is more effective 168. Educational technology is useful because
(a) During preparation for teaching practice (a) It is the need of the hour.
(b) During teaching practice (b) It is adopted by famous institutions.
(c) After the teaching practice (c) It makes teaching effective and efficient.
(d) Always (d) It attracts students towards teaching and learn-
159. Microteaching is useful for students of ing activities.
(a) Primary classes only 169. Which component(s) might be included in a lesson
(b) Junior classes only plan?
(c) 10 + 2 classes only (a) Development or outline of a lesson.
(d) Both for primary and higher classes (b) Varied materials and media to supplement and
160. Which of the following university was the pioneer in clarify content.
microteaching concept started in 1961? (c) Specific objectives of the lesson.
(a) Stanford University (d) All of the above
(b) Oxford University 170. One of the most popular forms of drill and practice is
(c) Delhi University (a) Questioning
(d) JNU University, New Delhi (b) Direct instruction
161. In which of the following is instructional procedure (c) Experiential instruction
the main component? (d) Discussion orientation
(a) Synectics teaching model 171. Practice is made in
(b) Basic teaching model (a) Inductive method (b) Deductive method
(c) Inductive model (c) Drill method (d) Discussion method
(d) Social stimulation 172. In which of the following subjects, role playing can
162. In education, John Dewey stressed on be mainly useful for teaching?
(a) Learning by doing (a) History (b) Science subjects
(b) Authoritarian teaching methods (c) Mathematics (d) Language
(c) Rote learning 173. Below given are two columns. Column–A lists methods
(d) None of the above of teaching and Column–B lists the focus of a method.
163. Symposium is a type of
(a) Discovery method Column–A Column–B
(b) Discussion method
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

(A) Lecture method (i) D

 ynamic, proactive
(c) Lecture method method of teaching
(d) Demonstration method
164. Questioning skill in teaching is most useful in (B) Demonstration (ii) E
 xperience-based
(a) Ensuring students’ active participation in method learning
learning (C) Heuristic method (iii) Imparting large
(b) Memorizing the facts by students amount of knowledge
(c) Making students disciplined
(d) Preparing students for examination (D) Differentiated (iv) T
 he student has to
165. Which of the following statement is incorrect about Instruction solve own problem
microteaching? by unaided efforts
(a) It is a method of teaching.
(b) It consists of core teaching skills. Select your answer from the options given below:
(c) Each skill is practised separately. (a) (A)–(i); (B)–(iii); (C)–(ii); (D)–(iv)
(d) Questioning is one component of microteaching. (b) (A)–(ii); (B)–(iv); (C)–(i); (D)–(iii)
166. Armstrong was the main exponent of (c) (A)–(iii); (B)–(i); (C)–(ii); (D)–(iv)
(a) Problem-solving method (d) (A)–(iii); (B)–(ii); (C)–(iv); (D)–(i)
(b) Project method 174. Which of the following condition must be met to make
(c) Discussion method the discussion method in teaching more effective?
(d) Heuristic method 1. We need to ask each participant so that an easy
167. Discussion method is useful if topic is picked.
(a) The topic is very easy. 2. The topic should be declared in advance
(b) The topic is difficult. 3. The topic should be of common interest
(c) The topic is very difficult. 4. Availability of more than one teacher
(d) In all situations 5. Language facility of participants

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 Teaching Aptitude 1.75

Select appropriate answer from the options given 4. Team teaching based method
below: 5. Interactive presentation
(a) 2, 3 and 5 (b) 1, 2 and 3 6. Tutorials
(c) 1, 2 and 5 (d) 3, 4 and 5 Select your answer from the options given below:
175. According to Bruner discovery approach is a must for (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
learning with components of which of the following? (c) 3, 4 and 5 (d) 2, 3 and 6
(a) Activation, maintenance and direction
184. When presenting materials, teachers should con-
(b) Stimulus situation, response and reinforcement
sider which of the following?
(c) Assimilation, accommodation and adaptation
(a) Structuring (b) Balancing
(d) Self-motivation, beliefs, self-control and
(c) Motivating (d) All of the above
self-reaction
185. The technology in education is making teaching
176. Which is not the advantage of team teaching?
(a) Learner oriented
(a) Better utilization of resources
(b) Teacher oriented
(b) Better planning
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(c) Better use of teaching techniques
(d) Social media oriented
(d) Better financial benefits of teachers
186. Which of the following is/are true of whole-group
177. Peer group interaction in a classroom helps in
instruction?
(a) Concept understanding
(a) Permits students to progress at their own pace
(b) Realization of One’s misunderstanding
(b) Convenient for teaching the same skills or con-
(c) Rapport Building
tent to the entire class
(d) Questioning
(c) Gives the teacher a chance to introduce new
178. A teacher performs practically and explains in skills at a level suited to particular students
(a) Lecture method (d) All of the above
(b) Discovery method
187. Which of the following methods of communication
(c) Demonstration method
is the most effective?
(d) Problem-solving method
(a) Verbal communication
179. Given below are two statements–one is labelled as (b) Oral Communication
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). (c) Multimedia method
Assertion (A): Defining the objectives of the topic (d) Difficult to generalize and depends upon the
of discussion is not necessarily the first step in class- situation
room communication. 188. Maximum participation of students is possible in
Reason (R): Clear definitions of objectives make teaching through

A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
students understand the topic well. (a) Lecture method
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct (b) Discussions
explanation of (A). (c) Textbook method
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the cor- (d) Audio-visual instructional facilities
rect explanation of (A). 189. In the two lists given below, List-I provides the list of
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. teaching methods, while List-II indicates the factors
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. helpful in rendering them effective. Match the two
180. The main assumption underlying team teaching is lists and choose the correct answer from the code
(a) Teachers feel bored while working alone. given below.
(b) Teachers are not competent.
List-I List-II
(c) The best teachers can be shared by more students.
(Teaching (Factors helpful in making
(d) The single teacher cannot control the class.
Methods) them effective)
181. Dialogue method of discovering the truth was given
by (A) Expository (i) Promotes student
(a) Plato (b) Socrates method autonomy and enhance
(c) Froebel (d) Herbart learning
182. Which is not the mode of CAI? (B) Discovery (ii) Open-ended and
(a) Tutorial mode (b) Drill mode method collaborative exchange
(c) Simulation mode (d) Question mode of ideas
183. In the spectrum of teaching methods which of the (C) Discussion (iii) Learning by doing
following will be called ‘dialogic’? method
1. Demonstration method (D) Personalised (iv) Systematic, step-by-step
2. Problem solving method method presentation
3. Chalk and talk method

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 1.76 Chapter 1

Codes: 196. Which of the following cannot be a good way of com-

(a) (A)–(iii), (B)–(iv), (C)–(ii), (D)–(i) munication in promoting literacy among villagers?
(b) (A)–(iv), (B)–(iii), (C)–(i), (D)–(ii) (a) Demonstration
(c) (A)–(iv), (B)–(iii), (C)–(ii), (D)–(i) (b) Reading and writing
(d) (A)–(iv), (B)–(ii), (C)–(iii), (D)–(i) (c) Providing material on TV and film projector
190. Below is the list of teaching methods and approaches. (d) Large group discussion
Which among them denotes the individualized 197. The main advantage of giving home assignments to
teaching approach? students is
(A) Demonstration method (a) Keeping them busy in studies all the time
(B) Modular approach based teaching (b) To stop them from watching TV
(C) Programmed learning (c) To develop the habit of self-study
(D) Personalized teaching (d) All of the above
(E) Collaborative method 198. From the list given below, identify those teach-
Select your answer from the options given below: ing methods which have a great scope for dialogic
discourses.
(a) (A), (B) and (C)
(b) (B), (C) and (D) 1. Lecture with audio–visual aids
(c) (C), (D) and (E) 2. Team teaching
(d) (A), (D) and (E) 3. Tutorials
4. Problem solving methods
191. The teacher presents the subject matter and directs
5. Chalk and talk method
the students through the lesson. A rule is presented
6. Group discussions
with an example and then practice is provided. This
is termed as Select your answer from the options given below:
(a) Expository Teaching (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3, 4 and 6
(b) Direct instruction (c) 2, 3 and 5 (d) 4, 5 and 6
(c) Guided exploration 199. In which teaching method, learner’s participation is
(d) Problem based learning made optimal and proactive? [January 2017]
192. The knowledge that is acquired without inference (a) Discussion method
and/or use of reason is called as (b) Buzz session method
(a) Demonstrative knowledge (c) Brainstorming session method
(b) Logical knowledge (d) Project method
(c) Experiential knowledge 200. The main task of educational computer is
(d) Intuitive knowledge (a) Scoring the answers
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

193. Concept-mapping is used to organize related infor- (b) Preserves the information
mation in a visual manner, it demonstrates hierar- (c) Analysis of data
chical relationships among the topic, main ideas, (d) All of the above
and supporting details or pertinent course material. 201. The computer-based teaching model has been devel-
Concept mapping can be used as oped by
(a) both for learning and assessment tool (a) Gilbert (b) Stolorow and Davis
(b) for memorising only (c) Robert Gagne (d) Mecner
(c) for learning only
(d) for assessment only 202. Which of the following expectation students have
from group learning?
194. In which of the following techniques does a teacher (a) To get appreciation from the group
provide a set of flexible questions to the students (b) To distribute the work equally
that prompt them to reflect on their own learning? (c) To ignore individual view point
(a) Reflective prompts (d) To motivate isolated students to become members
(b) Self assessment of the group
(c) Peer assessment
(d) None of the above 203. Which of the following combines scopes of large
group, small group and individualized teaching
195. Which type of teaching paradigm would focus on a methods?
technical or ‘one right way to teach’ approach to pre- (a) Group discussion
senting content? (b) Differentiated instruction
(a) Learning paradigm (c) Brainstorming
(b) Instructional paradigm (d) Direct instruction
(c) Value-added paradigm
(d) Attitudinal paradigm 204. Which combination of teaching methods listed below
would encourage the learner-centred paradigm?
(a) Individualized instruction and lecture method.

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 Teaching Aptitude
(b) Simulation and demonstration.
(c) Lecture method and experimentation.
(d) Projects and direct experiences.
205. What is the limitation of the project method of
teaching?
(a) It is learner-centred.
(b) Learners get practical experience.
(c) Learners are usually not properly supervised.
(d) None of the above
206. The heuristic approach is based on
(a) Rote memorization (b) Home work
(c) Spirit of inquiry (d) None of the above
207. A teacher uses the learning instructional facilities to
make learning
(a) Simple (b) More knowledgeable
(c) Quicker (d) Interesting
208. Which of the following is a teaching instructional
facilities?
(a) LCD projector (b) Green board
(c) Tape recorder (d) All of the above
209. Teacher uses visual instructional facilities to make
learning
(a) Interesting (b) Passive
(c) Quicker (d) Complex
210. Which of the following is not true about projects as a
learning activity?
(a) It is a purposeful activity
(b) It is proceeds in social environment
(c) It is accomplished in real-life situations
(d) It is teacher-centred activity
211. Use of telecast materials facilitates
(a) Better concentration and learning
(b) To reach large number of people
(c) Better retention of topics taught
(d) All of the above
212. Which of the following is a benefit associated with
the overhead projector?
(a) They are relatively inexpensive
(b) Overhead transparencies can be made relatively
quickly
(c) They offer teachers the option of writing on
transparencies during the class activity
(d) All of the above
213. What is most important while writing on blackboard?
(a) Good handwriting
(b) Clarity in writing
(c) Writing in big letters
(d) Writing in small letters
214. Which of the following teaching method(s) is/are con-
tributive to ‘direct learning’? [December 2019]
1. Team Teaching and lecturing
2. Simulation and role playing
3. Lecture with or without use of audio—visuals
4. Participation in workshop and assignments
5. MOOCs and heuristics
6. Interactive presentation
M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 77
1.77
Choose your answer from the following options:
(a) 2, 4 and 6 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3, 4 and 6 (d) 4, 5 and 6
215. Peer group interaction in a classroom helps in
(a) Concept understanding
(b) Realization of one’s misunderstanding
(c) Rapport building
(d) Questioning
216. Inclusive education implies
(a) Ensuring learning outcome of every child to be
the same
(b) Including the disabled in the main stream
(c) Provides compulsory education for children
below 14 years
(d) Ensuring that no child is left behind in education
217. The modality of teaching has to be differentiated
from training or instruction in terms of which of the
following learning outcome?
(a) Disciplined or patterned behaviour
(b) Critical and creative thinking
(c) Firm and durable association of ideas
(d) Quick feedback
218. A university teacher plans to study the effect of
level of aspiration of students in terms of their
socio-economic background on their scholastic
performance at the term end evaluation conducted
by an external testing agency. What is the dependent
variable in this study?
(a) Level of aspiration of students
(b) Socio-economic background of students
(c) Scholastic performance of students
(d) Term end evaluation
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
219. From the list given below identify the instructional
events which form part of the structure of a lesson
plan. Select your answer from the options given
below the list:
List of instructional events:
1. Gaining attention of students
2. Prior knowledge of students
3. Informing the learner about the objectives
4. Stimulating recall of pre-requisite learning
5. Checking the availability of reading material in
the library.
6. Eliciting the desired response
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 1, 3, 4, 6
(c) 2, 3, 5, 6 (d) 1, 3, 4, 5
220. Which of the following statements are true in the
context of Brain storming?
1. Brainstorming is a group creativity technique
2. Brainstorming is a problem solving technique
3. Brainstorming helps at individual level and
group level
4. The top priority of brainstorming is quantity over
quality
Codes:
(a) Only 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) All of the above
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 1.78
221. For optimizing self-learning which of the following
motivational principles will be the most helpful?
(a) Using reward and punishment
(b) Creating scope for fulfilling relatedness need
(c) Providing scope for satisfying need for
competence
(d) Promoting concerns for meeting status needs
222. Why do teachers use teaching instructional facilities?
(a) To make teaching fun filled
(b) To teach within the understanding level of
students
(c) For students’ attention
(d) To make students attentive
223. Which among the following gives more freedom to
the learner to interact?
(a) Use of film
(b) Small group discussion
(c) Lectures by experts
(d) Viewing country-wide classroom programme on
TV
224. Which of the following is more interactive and stu-
dent centric?
(a) Seminar (b) Workshop
(c) Lecture (d) Group discussion
225. An effective teaching instructional facilities is one
which
(a) Is colourful and good looking
(b) Activates all faculties
(c) Is visible to all students
(d) Easy to prepare and use
226. Which of the following belongs to a projected
instructional facilities?
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
(a) Blackboard
(b) Diorama
(c) Epidiascope
(d) Globe
227. The students valued the blended learning because
(a) Boost the creativity level of students
(b) It provides both immediate and asynchronous
access to learning resources
(c) Solve the problems of students
(d) Keep students relaxed while learning
228. Blended Mode is an
(a) instructional methodology,
(b) professional methodology
(c) research methodology
(d) none of these
229. Blended learning involves
1. A teaching and learning approach that combines
face to face classroom methods with computer
mediated activities to deliver instruction
2. A mixture of face-to-face and teacher centred
activities
3. It is an integration of synchronous and asyn-
chronous learning tools
4. It does not provide effective learning processes
M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 78
Chapter 1
5. Enable students to have some control over the
speed or topics through the tools used by them
Select your answer from the options given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, d and 5
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 5
230. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): In a flipped classroom programme,
students can access digital learning materials via a
cloud-based platform
Reason (R): Resources such as video lectures, pod-
casts, recordings and articles would be provided
by teacher to students prior to each class on cloud-
based platform.
(a) Both the (A) and (R) are true, and (R) provides
the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both the (A) and (R) are true, and (R) does not
provide the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
231. The student centricity means
(a) Availability of multiple entry and exit points
(b) Promotion of the English and other foreign
languages
(c) Reforming the examination systems with open
book testing and group exams
(d) Both (a) and (c)
232. The important features of Blended Learning envi-
ronment are:
(a) Improved student learning outcomes
(b) More flexible teaching and learning environment
(c) Better opportunities for experiential learning
(d) All of the above
233. Which of the following is not the advantage of
blended learning:
(a) Repeatable, reliable and reproducible learning
material.
(b) Increase in interaction
(c) Rigid to change
(d) Enhancement in learning skills
234. Which of the following are essential characteristics
of experiential learning ?
(a) Learning is a continuous process grounded in
experience.
(b) Learning is a holistic process of creating
knowledge.
(c) Learning involves transactions between the per-
son and the environment.
(d) All of the above
235. Correct sequence of the steps of constructivist learn-
ing is :
(a) New information> experiential activity>
Analyse >Solve> Examine >Explore> Assess.
(b) Experiential activity> Examine >Analyse >
new information> assess > Explore
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 Teaching Aptitude 1.79

(c) New information> Analyse >experiential activ- 239. Match the following
ity> assess > Explore> Examine
(d) Examine > Analyse >Solve> New information 1. The self-blend    (I) Massive open online
>Explore> Experiential activity > Assess Model course
236. Which is not feature of blended learning from below 2. The flipped (II) Self blending is a
mentioned. classroom programme-level model
(a) classroom instruction has largely been 3. The rotation (III) K–12 education.
teacher-directed Model
(b) privacy that keep teachers continuously engaged
and motivated. 4. The blended (IV) Reversal of the
(c) classroom instruction has largely been more MOOC traditional class
student-driven structure
(d) provides an appropriate balance between online
instructions as tech-based learning (a) 1-II, 2-IV, 3-III, 4-I
(b) 1-I, 2-IV, 3-II, 4-III
237. Which is not a role of a Learner in the Blended learn- (c) 1-II, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I
ing Environment (d) 1-I, 2-IV, 3-IV, 4-III
(a) Increase student interest and Promote student
ownership: 240. Experiential Learning Theory has been given by
(b) Keep students focused for longer and Prepares (a) David Kolb (b) Morris L. Biggie
students for the future (c) John Dewey (d) Jean Piaget
(a) Instil a disposition of self-advocacy and Enables 241. Which of the following define Experiential Learning
students to learn at their own pace Theory Approach?
(d) keep students continuously engaged and (a) Learning is the process whereby knowledge
motivated is created through the transformation of
238. Blended learning offers a multitude of real-world experience
skills, that directly translate into life skills, from not (b) This theory is majorly concerned with the learn-
(a) Research skills and Computer literacy er’s internal cognitive processes
(b) Self-learning and Self-engagement (c) This happens through questioning, critical
(c) Helps to develop a ‘self-driving force’ and better analysis, application of the concept and by,
decision making reflection-on-action.
(d) Solve problems and create new knowledge (d) Both (a) and (b)

A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
LEARNER’s CHARACTERISTICS
242. Understanding theories and principles of children’s 246. Below are listed some learners’ characteristics. Iden-
learning is of fundamental importance tify those that help in effective teaching.
(a) For effective teaching 1. Learner’s respect for teacher
(b) For effective curriculum planning 2. Learner’s level of mental ability
(c) For motivation of the learner 3. Learner’s previous experiences
(d) All of the above 4. Learner’s level of interest to study
243. The most appropriate meaning of learning is 5. Learner’s level of interpersonal relation
(a) Inculcation of knowledge 6. Learner’s view about the society
(b) Modification of behaviour Select your answer from the options given below:
(c) Personal adjustment (a) 1, 2, 3 and 6 (b) 3, 4, 5 and 6
(d) Acquisition of skills (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3, 4 and 6
244. Teachers knowledge on students’ needs and interests 247. The psychological aspects of the classroom are best
are covered by the subject managed by
(a) Philosophy of education (a) The class teacher (b) The subject teacher
(b) Psychology of education (c) The principal (d) The student themselves
(c) Sociology of education
248. Students can be classified into four types on the basis
(d) Politics of education
of their learning. Which one of the following seeks
245. The most important challenge before a teacher is meaning and reasoning to the learning?
(a) To maintain discipline in the class (a) Innovative learner
(b) To make students do their homework (b) Analytic learner
(c) To prepare question paper (c) Common sense learner
(d) To make teaching-learning process enjoyable (d) Dynamic learner

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 1.80 Chapter 1

249. Instruction that takes into account various types of (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 4, 3, 2 and 1
learners and learning styles and is adapted accord- (c) 2, 3, 4 and 1 (d) 3, 1, 2 and 4
ingly is said to be 258. We usually say that no two students are alike. They
(a) Teacher-centred (b) Differentiated may differ from each other in terms of
(c) Direct instruction (d) None of the above (a) Upbringing and social status
250. A heavy emphasis on measurable outcomes leads to (b) Aptitude
(a) Rote learning (b) Memorization (c) Attitude
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above (d) All of the above
251. Teachers who are enthusiastic in the classroom 259. Reinforcement is provided by any factor that
teaching increases the probability that a response will be
(a) Lack proficiency in the subjects, which stays hid- repeated. Which of the following can be factor(s) of
den under their enthusiasm reinforcement?
(b) Simply dramatize to hold the student’s attention (a) Praise
(c) Involve their students in the teaching-learning (b) Token reward
process (c) Simply succeeding in a task
(d) All of the above (d) All of the above
252. A teacher organizes and reorganizes the presentation 260. When you complete your math’s exercise, you can
in a discussion session being conducted by her/him. play the computer game. Using such kind of rein-
This will be placed at which stage of the teaching act? forcement wherein student’s favourite activity can
(a) Preactive preparation stage be used to reinforce a student’s engagement in a less
(b) Preactive planning stage popular activity is termed as
(c) Interactive stage (a) Premack principle (b) Thorndike law
(d) Post active stage (c) Pavlov experiment (d) None of the above
253. Diversity in student demographics requires common 261. Morphographs is the term associated with
academic standards to (a) Corrective spelling
(a) Provide a common benchmark for assessment. (b) Corrective reading
(b) Promote genuine learning for high-performing (c) Corrective learning
students. (d) Corrective behaviour
(c) Ensure that all states have the same require- 262. Which of the following description(s) apply in con-
ments as required by the Central government. text of constructivist approach and cognitive theory
(d) None of the above of learning?
254. Intuitive thinking (a) Learners as active participants in learning
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

(a) Is part of the process of discovery process

(b) Has been encouraged by traditional teaching (b) Seeking to interpret
(c) Is not a cognitive process (c) Using multiple sources of information
(d) None of the above (d) All of the above
255. While presenting your ideas in a classroom, it is bet- 263. Organized bodies of knowledge that we build up
ter to about particular objects, situations or phenomena
1. Recognize that there can be other views are termed as
2. Recognize that students are not a homogenous (a) Schemas or mental schemata
mass (b) Memory
3. Take dissenting views also in consideration (c) Cognition
Codes: (d) Metacognition
(a) Both 1 and 3 (b) Only 3 264. The taking in of new information is termed as
(c) Only 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) Assimilation (b) Accommodation
256. ‘Individual differences’ in learning process are given (c) Cognition (d) Reception
the least importance in 265. The term which is used to refer to the variety of ways
(a) Naturalism (b) Realism in which teachers and others help or support learn-
(c) Idealism (d) Pragmatism ers to move beyond their current level of under-
257. Arrange the following experimental learning activi- standing by giving them cues, suggestions or even
ties adopted by a teacher in cyclic order. direct guidance at appropriate moments in their
1. Accommodation investigations or activities is known as
2. Converging (a) Scaffolding
3. Assimilation (b) Cognition
4. Diverging (c) Reinforcement
Codes: (d) None of the above

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 Teaching Aptitude 1.81

266. The changes in behaviour (learning) are the net result (c) Both (a) and (b)
of environmental influences, interacting with innate (d) To hear everything possible
predispositions and processes within the learner 276. According to Francis Gallon, heredity does not go
(a) Neo-behavioural theory to immediate parents but to remote ancestors. Only
(b) Cognitive theory 50% of the heredity is due to
(c) Behavioural theory (a) Parents
(d) None of the above (b) Great-grandparents
267. The students or individuals may develop beliefs (c) Grand-parents
(positive or negative) about their own ability to (d) None of the above
cope effectively in a variety of situations. This can be 277. Arrange the following teaching processes in order.
termed as 1. Relating the present knowledge with the previous
(a) Self-efficacy (b) Self-regulation knowledge
(c) Ego (d) Confidence 2. Evaluation
268. The ability of an individual to think about one’s own 3. Re-teaching
thought processes, self-monitor and modify one’s 4. Formulation of teaching objectives
learning strategies as necessary is termed as 5. Presentation of materials
(a) Metacognition (b) Self-regulation Codes:
(c) Simple cognition (d) None of the above
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
269. Teachers blame a student’s learning problems on (b) 2, 1, 3, 4, 5
(a) Lack of motivation (c) 5, 4, 3, 1, 2
(b) Lack of intelligence (d) 4, 1, 5, 2, 3
(c) Casual parental attitude
278. Assertion (A): Learning is a lifelong process.
(d) None of the above
Reason (R): Learning to be useful must be linked
270. The memory that refers to our memory of meaning-
with lifelong processes.
ful facts, rules, definitions, concepts and principles
is termed as Choose the correct answer from the following code:
(a) Semantic memory (a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct
(b) Episodic memory explanation of (A).
(c) Procedural memory (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the cor-
(d) None of the above rect explanation of (A).
271. An individual’s awareness of his or her own mem- (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
ory processes and the ways in which storage and (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true

retrieval of information can be enhanced is termed
as
(a) Semantic memory (b) Episodic memory
(c) Procedural memory (d) Meta memory
272. Which of the following can impact process listening
in an adverse manner?
(a) Excess of listened material—message overload
(b) Very high speed of speaking
(c) A good amount of hearing loss
(d) All of the above
273. The most important aspect of communication, which
is listening can be improved by
(a) Linking listening to a monetary reward system
(b) Making the contents interesting and need based
(c) Enhancing voice effectiveness and impressiveness
(d) All of the above
274. Listening to a lecture is basically
(a) Informational listening
(b) Evaluative listening
(c) Emphatic listening
(d) Dynamic Listening
275. The evaluative listening is basically about
(a) To accept or reject an idea given to the listener
(b) To evaluate the speaker’s credibility and personality
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
279. The process of communication enhances through
(a) The feeling of belongings and commonness
(b) Security and freedom to make choices
(c) Informal environment
(d) All of the above
280. Which one of the following is a product of learning?
(a) Intelligence (b) Maturation
(c) Skills (d) Memory
281. Which of the following explains the mental growth
most suitably?
(a) A growth pattern runs parallel to the physical
growth
(b) It is an erratic pattern
(c) It is not an erratic pattern
(d) Uniform rise to the middle teens and gradual
levelling off during middle twenties
282. While comparing hearing and listening, we can say
that
(a) Hearing is a physical process and listening is a
psychological process
(b) Hearing is a psychological process and listening
is a physical process
(c) Both are mainly physical processes
(d) Both are biological processes

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 1.82
283. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) Human relationships are not affected by listening
(b) When communicating, college students spend
over half of their lives listening
(c) Listening constitutes just a small fraction of our
overall communication
(d) None of the above
284. When a person listens and attempts to understand
the other person’s viewpoint, he/she can be termed as
(a) Active listening
(b) Empathetic listening
(c) Critical listening
(d) Passive listening
285. Which gender tends to listen in order to solve prob-
lems, is less attentive to nonverbal cues and inter-
rupts to switch topics?
(a) Men (b) Women
(c) Both genders (d) Neither gender
286. Critical thinking
(a) Focuses solely on the details instead of the main
point
(b) Ignores the context in which communication is
occurring
(c) Is important when making judgments about the
message being presented
(d) Is only associated with listening
287. Asking questions to clarify information, paraphras-
ing messages and identifying confusing areas are
basically
(a) Barriers to listening
(b) Listening for fun
(c) Techniques for checking your understanding of
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
a message
(d) None of the above
288. Suggestions for lecture listening include
(a) Focusing on the delivery part and avoiding sum-
marizing and reviewing the information
(b) Poor attention in order to think creatively, listen-
ing for details and ignoring lecture cues
(c) Not making notes so as to focus better on lecture
and message delivery
(d) Finding areas of interest to you, avoiding dis-
tractions and listening for main ideas
289. The ability to locate, evaluate and effectively use
information is an important trait known as
(a) Critical thinking
(b) Information literacy
(c) Hearing
(d) Selective attention
290. At primary level, it is better to teach in mother lan-
guage because
(a) It develops self-confidence in children
(b) It makes learning easy
(c) It is helpful in intellectual development
(d) It helps children to learn in natural atmosphere
291. The best approach to motivate students is by
(a) Giving them suitable prizes
(b) Providing them proper guidance
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Chapter 1
(c) Giving examples all the time
(d) Delivering speech in class
292. The best way a teacher can try to inculcate good val-
ues among students is by
(a) Storytelling
(b) Developing sense of discipline
(c) Ideal behaviour of teacher themselves
(d) Taking their parents into confidence
293. How the students should be motivated to get success
in life?
(a) Selected study (b) Incidental study
(c) Intensive study (d) Rote learning
294. The problem of absenteeism can be tackled in a bet-
ter way through
(a) Reduction of the weight of curriculum.
(b) Sympathy of teachers.
(c) Attractive environment of the school.
(d) Motivation of the students.
295. The best remedy of a student’s problems related with
learning is
(a) Suggestion for hard work
(b) Supervised study in library
(c) Suggestion for private tuition
(d) Diagnostic teaching
296. Emotional adjustment of students is effective in
(a) Personality formation
(b) Class teaching
(c) Discipline
(d) All of the above
297. Who among the following is described as ‘Father of
Psychoanalysis’?
(a) Erik H. Erikson (b) Jean Piaget
(c) Jerome S. Bruner (d) Sigmund Freud
298. The main proponent of the cognitive theory of teach-
ing is
(a) N. L. Gage (b) Shiv Kumar Mitra
(c) B. F. Skinner (d) McDonald
299. Practical knowledge of language is learnt at
(a) School
(b) Language laboratory
(c) Language teaching
(d) Language instruction
300. In which domain does the following objective fall?
At the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to
hit the football using the head.
(a) Affective domain
(b) Cognitive domain
(c) Psychomotor domain
(d) Both (a) and (c)
301. Planning or arranging the student’s environment
in order to predict the consequences of a student’s
behaviour is referred to as
(a) Prompting (b) Reinforcement
(c) Shaping (d) Stimulus control
302. Which theory of learning has found that knowledge
of internal processes is crucial to the understanding
of learning?
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 Teaching Aptitude
(a) Cognitive theory
(b) Stimulus–response theory
(c) Operant conditioning theory
(d) Classical conditioning theory
303. Which aspect of evaluation is used when a teacher
ensures that students complete an exercise in math-
ematics and also makes sure that instructions are
clear and specific?
(a) Validity (b) Practicality
(c) Reliability (d) Consistency
304. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a
slow learner?
(a) Limited vocabulary
(b) Short span of attention
(c) Abstract thinking
(d) Limited range of interests
305. A teacher used the following statement to change the
behaviour of a student who was a smoker. ‘Smoking
is healthy for the nation’. This is an example of:
(a) Cognitive dissonance
(b) Conceptual conflict
(c) Meaningful learning
(d) Challenge
306. The best way to memorize is
(a) To study for long time
(b) To understand the concept
(c) To read loudly
(d) To write the concept
307. Attitudes, concepts, skills, and knowledge are prod-
ucts of
(a) Learning (b) Research
(c) Heredity (d) Explanation
308. Which of the following is not a product of learning?
(a) Attitudes (b) Concepts
(c) Knowledge (d) Maturation
309. Some students in a class exhibit great curiosity for
learning. It may be because such children
(a) are gifted
(b) come from rich families
(c) show artificial behaviour
(d) create indiscipline in the class
310. The best way to react to a wrong answer given by a
student is
(a) To scold him for not having learnt the lesson
(b) To explain why the answer is wrong
(c) To ask another student to give the correct answer
(d) To ignore the wrong answer and pass on the
next question
311. When a student asks a question to which the teacher
has no direct, correct answer, he should
(a) Give some vague answer and satisfy the student
(b) Tell the student not to ask much irrelevant
questions
(c) Tell the student that he would give the correct
answer later
(d) Ask the student to find out the answer himself
from the books in the library
M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 83
1.83
312. If the students do not understand what is taught in
the class, the teacher should
(a) Repeat the lesson once again
(b) Teach the lesson again citing suitable examples
(c) Check the previous knowledge of the students in
the topic
(d) Proceed to the next topic
313. An ideal situation in a classroom would be where
(A) A teacher comes fully prepared to deliver his
lecture
(B) Students come fully prepared and discuss the
subject with each other in teacher’s presence.
(C) Teachers and students discuss the subject
(D) The teacher uses audio-visual instructional facil-
ities while learning
(a) Both (A) and (C)
(b) Both (C) and (D)
(c) Only (B)
(d) Only (D)
314. Which of the following categories of teachers tend
to favour the traditional, formal seating pattern of
rows of students directly facing the teacher at the
front of the classroom?
(a) Direct instruction
(b) Indirect instruction
(c) Student-centred
(d) None of the above
315. Which of the following teacher can be identified
with authoritarian teaching style?
(a) Democratic teacher
(b) Indirect teacher
(c) Laissez-faire teacher
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
(d) Direct instruction teacher
316. What is more desirable in a classroom?
(a) A teacher delivering a lecture on the basis of the
text and his own research
(b) A teacher delivering a lecture on the basis of
course content and standard books
(c) A teacher answering questions raised by
students
(d) A teacher maintaining strict discipline and tak-
ing attendance regularly
317. Which process of communication is the best for con-
trolling noise in a classroom?
(a) Saying ‘do not talk’
(b) Raising one’s voice above students’ voice
(c) Remaining calm and just looking at the students
(d) Continue teaching without caring for noisy class
318. As a teacher, what will you do if students do not
attend your class?
(a) Blame students for their absence from the class
(b) Ponder over the present attitude of students in a
calm manner
(c) Think about using some interesting techniques
of teaching
(d) Try to understand the reasons and try to elimi-
nate them
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 1.84 Chapter 1

319. A teacher is strict in maintaining discipline in the
class both in curricular and extracurricular activi-
ties. However, there is always room for discussion
regarding clarification of doubts in teaching–learn-
ing and conducting other activities. What is the
approach of teacher towards students?
(a) Authoritative (b) Democratic
(c) Flexible (d) Rigid
320. Better classroom management means
(a) Effective group work and interaction among the
students
(b) Proper planning and preparation in developing
suitable teaching instructional facilities
(c) Punctuality of the teachers and ability to com-
plete course in time
(d) All of the above
321. Which of the following can be described as the most
probable characteristic of an ineffective teacher?
(a) Always focus on achievement of instructional
objectives
(b) Always focus on observance of teaching standards
(c) Always focus upon control of immediate
situation
(d) None of the above
322. If majority of students in your class are weak, as a
teacher you should
(a) Not care about the intelligent students
(b) Keep your speed of teaching fast so that stu-
dents’ comprehension level may increase
(c) Keep your teaching slow
(d) Keep your teaching slow along with some extra
guidance to bright pupils
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
327. With specific reference to classroom environment, all
except one of the major components of listening is
(a) Hearing
(b) Being attentive
(c) Answering
(d) Understanding and remembering
328. Which of the following will not hamper effective
communication in the classroom?
(a) A lengthy statement
(b) An ambiguous statement
(c) A precise statement
(d) A statement which allows the listener to his own
conclusions.
329. If backbenchers are always talking in the classroom,
a teacher should
(a) Let them do what they are doing.
(b) Punish them
(c) Ask them to sit on the front benches
(d) None of the above
330. If a teacher is not able to answer the question raised
by a student in the classroom, he should
(a) Say that he will answer after consultation
(b) Rebuke the student
(c) Try to manipulate the students
(d) Feel shy of his ignorance
331. If students are not able to follow, you should
(a) Give them prompt explanation
(b) Make the matter easy
(c) Illustrate with examples
(d) All of the above
332. If students pass remarks on you while you are work-
ing as a teacher, you will

323. If some of the students misbehave with the teacher (a) Punish them
in the college campus, which kind of solution can (b) Expel them from the college
help in the long run? (c) Take revenge while evaluating internal test copies
(a) Reporting to their parents (d) Be impartial at the time of evaluation
(b) Teacher should improve their behaviour by their 333. Discussion in class will be more effective if the topic
own character and scholarship of discussion is
(c) Reporting the matter to the principal (a) Not introduced
(d) Mobilize other teachers against these guys (b) Stated at the start of the discussion
324. A teacher in the class should keep the pitch of his voice (c) Written on the board without introducing it
(a) High enough (d) Informed to the students in advance
(b) Low 334. Failure of the teacher to communicate his ideals well
(c) Moderate to the students may result in
(d) Sometime low and sometime high (a) Classroom indiscipline
325. Which of the following should a teacher adopt in a (b) Loss of students’ interest in the topic being
lecture? taught
(a) Precise and low tone (c) Increased number of absentees in the class
(b) Elongated tone (d) All of the above
(c) Precise and high tone 335. Which of the following is the most important sin-
(d) Moderate tone gle factor underlying the success of beginning as a
326. If students do not understand what is taught in the teacher?
classroom, the teacher should feel (a) Scholarship
(a) Terribly bored (b) Communicative ability
(b) That she needs to explain it in a different way (c) Personality and the ability to relate to the class
(c) That he is wasting time and the pupils
(d) Pity for the students (d) Organizational ability

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 Teaching Aptitude
336. All of the following are the characteristic features of
an effective teacher except
(a) Emphasis upon maintaining standards of
education
(b) Emphasizing group discussion for the purpose
of clarifying the objectives.
(c) Emphasis upon providing solution to immediate
problems.
(d) Differential treatment meted out to students of
his class.
337. Some students send a greeting card to you on Teach-
er’s Day. As a teacher, you will
(a) Not respond at all.
(b) Say thanks to them.
(c) Ask them to not waste money.
(d) Reciprocate wishes to them.
338. A student comes late in your class. As a teacher you
will
(a) Inform the principal and parents.
(b) Punish him to set an example.
(c) Try to know the reason.
(d) It is not worth paying attention.
339. When a number of students regularly fail in the
exams, it can be understood that it is
(a) The system‘s failure
(b) The teacher’s failure
(c) The textbooks failure
(d) The individual student’s failure
340. If a student asks questions on some unrelated topic
in the class, as a teacher you will
(a) Allow him to ask unrelated questions
(b) Not allow him to ask unrelated questions
(c) Answer the question after the class
(d) Consider it an act of indiscipline
341. A guardian never comes to see you in school. As a
teacher, you will
(a) Ignore the child
(b) Write a letter to the guardian
(c) Go to meet him yourself if possible
(d) Start punishing the child
342. To maintain interest among students in class, a
teacher should
(a) Make maximum use of teaching instructional
facilities
(b) Discuss
(c) Ask questions intermittently
(d) All of the above
343. A teacher asks the questions in the class to
(a) Keep students busy
(b) Maintain discipline
(c) Attract the student’s attention
(d) Teach
344. What quality do students like the most in a teacher?
(a) Idealist philosophy
(b) Compassion
M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 85
1.85
(c) Discipline
(d) Entertaining
345. Research has shown that the most frequent symptom
of nervous instability among teachers is
(a) Digestive upsets
(b) Explosive behaviour
(c) Fatigue
(d) Worry
346. Which one of the following is appropriate with
respect to teacher-student relationship?
(a) Very informal and intimate
(b) Limited to classroom only
(c) Cordial and respectful
(d) Indifferent
347. In a lively classroom situation, there is likely to be
(a) Occasional roars of laughter
(b) Complete silence
(c) Frequent teacher–student dialogue
(d) Loud discussion among students
348. For maintaining effective discipline in the class, the
teacher should
(a) Allow students to do what they like
(b) Deal with the students strictly
(c) Give the students some problems to solve
(d) Deal with them politely and firmly
349. Those teachers are popular among students who
(a) Develop intimacy with them
(b) Help them solve their problems
(c) Award good grades
(d) Take classes for extra tuition fee
350. The essence of an effective classroom environment is
(a) A variety of teaching instructional facilities
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
(b) Lively student–teacher interaction
(c) Pin-drop silence
(d) Strict discipline
351. On the first day of his class, if a teacher is asked by
the students to introduce himself, he should
(a) Ask them to meet after the class
(b) Tell them about him in brief
(c) Ignore the demand and start teaching
(d) Scold the student for this unwanted demand.
352. Moral values can be effectively inculcated among the
students when the teacher
(a) Frequently talks about values
(b) Himself practices them
(c) Tells stories of great people
(d) Talks of gods and goddesses
353. Suppose a student wants to share his problems with
his teacher and visits the teacher’s house for the pur-
pose. The teacher should
(a) Contact the student’s parents and solve his
problem
(b) Suggest him that he should never visit his house
(c) Suggest him to meet the principal and solve the
problem
(d) Extend reasonable help and boost his morale
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 1.86
354. To keep a check on the habit of absenteeism among
students
(a) The principal and parents should get worried
(b) The officials should put notice against absentee
students on the notice board
(c) The teachers should take it as a serious problem
(d) They should be given less priority in the class-
room as compared to regular students
355. When the students try to solve the questions in some
different way not taught by the teacher from pre-
scribed books, then these students should be
(a) Always discouraged to consult some other books
on the subject
(b) Always encouraged to consult other books on
the subject
(c) Suggested to seek permission of their respective
class teachers before referring to other books
(d) No action required
356. Students who ask questions in the class should be
(a) Advised to meet the teacher after the class
(b) Encouraged to participate in the discussion in
the class
(c) Encouraged to continue asking questions
(d) Encouraged to search answers independently
357. In order to modify the undesirable behaviour of a
student, the most effective method is
(a) To punish the student
(b) To bring it to the notice of parents
(c) To find out the reasons for the undesirable
behaviour and provide remedies
(d) All of the above
358. A majority of classroom tasks initiated by teachers in
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
traditional classrooms are usually
(a) Low-level cognitive processes
(b) High-order cognitive processes
LEARNER’S EVALUATION
364. In the role of a test constructor, how should a teacher
proceed?
A. Prepare test items that match the instructional
objectives
B. List the major course or unit objectives
C. Prepare a table of specifications
D. Specify the course or unit content
E. Discard unrealistic objectives
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(a) A, B, C, D, E (b) B, E, D, C, A
(c) C, A, E, D, B (d) D, B, E, C, A
365. The most significant approach of evaluation is
(a) Continuous and comprehensive evaluation
(b) Conducting objective term-end examination
(c) Maintaining cumulative records of students
(d) Semester system evaluation
M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 86
Chapter 1
(c) Affective processes
(d) Both (a) and (b)
359. In totality, the teacher helps student the most in
which of the following way?
(a) Integrated development of the child
(b) Physical growth of the child
(c) For socio-cultural
(d) Development of the child
360. If students are not able to follow, the teacher in the
class should
(a) Give them prompt reply
(b) Illustrate with suitable examples
(c) Make the contents easier
(d) All of the above
361. If the students are not taking interest in your teach-
ing, then you will
(a) Ignore them
(b) Leave the class
(c) Ask them to pay attention
(d) Review the teaching method
362. When some students are deliberately attempting to
disturb the discipline of the class by making mis-
chief, what will be your role as a teacher?
(a) Expelling those students.
(b) Isolate those students.
(c) Reform the group with your authority.
(d) Giving them an opportunity for introspection
and improve their behaviour.
363. A teacher is said to be fluent in asking questions if he
can ask
(a) Meaningful questions
(b) As many questions as possible
(c) Maximum number of questions in a fixed time
(d) Many meaningful questions in a fixed time
366. Given below are the two statements:
Statement I: In norm referenced testing of students,
test data helps us determine a student’s place or rank.
Statement II: In criterion referenced testing, the test
data tells us about a student’s level of proficiency.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below.
(a) Both statements I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both statements I and Statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true and Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false and Statement II is true.
367. Which of the following is not applicable to the inter-
nal assessment?
(a) Integration of teaching and evaluation
(b) Testing of skills and abilities
(c) Periodic and continuous
(d) Use of only achievement tests
27/12/22 8:15 PM
 Teaching Aptitude
368. What type of test is most effective when trying to test
memorization?
(a) True or false (b) Multiple choices
(c) Fill in blanks (d) Both (b) and (c)
369. Essay-type tests are not reliable because
(a) Their answers are different
(b) Their results are different
(c) Their checking is affected by examiner’s mood
(d) Their responding styles are different
370. Assertion (A): Formative learning tends to acceler-
ate the process of learning.
Reason (R): As against summative evaluation, for-
mative evaluation is highly reliable.[January 2017]
Choose the correct answer from the following code:
(a) Both (a) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(b) Both (a) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the cor-
rect explanation of (A).
(c) (a) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (a) is false, but (R) is true
371. Below are listed some activities performed by a
teacher. Which activities are of the nature of forma-
tive evaluation?
A. Giving a mastery test
B. Conducting quiz session
C. Evaluating students in grading system
D.Providing feedback while teaching
E. Encouraging students reflect more
Select your answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B and C (b) B, C and D
(c) B, D and E (d) B, C and E
372. The best method of checking a student’s homework is
(a) To assign it to intelligent students of the class.
(b) To check the answers in the class in group manner.
(c) To check them with the help of specimen answer.
(d) To check by the teacher himself in a regular way.
373. A time-bound testing programme for students
should be implemented in schools so that
(a) The progress of the students should be informed
to their parents
(b) A regular practice can be carried out
(c) The students can be trained for final examinations
(d) The remedial programme can be adopted on the
basis of the feedback from the results
374. Which of the following evaluation systems belongs
to the category of being an innovative practice?
(a) Semesterized examinations
(b) Performance evaluation
(c) Portfolio based evaluation
(d) Learning outcome based evaluation
375. The most important indicator of quality of education
in an educational institute is
(a) Infrastructural facilities of a school
(b) Classroom system
(c) Textbooks and teaching-learning material
(d) Student achievement level
M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 87
1.87
376. Teachers use placement evaluation in order to
(a) Find out what knowledge and skills students
have mastered.
(b) Discover the causes of students’ learning or
behavioural problems.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
377. Summative evaluation is used for which of the fol-
lowing purposes?
(a) To monitor student’s progress during the learn-
ing process.
(b) Primarily to certify or grade students.
(c) To find out the students interests and work
habits.
(d) To assign students to specific learning groups.
378. Which among the following is the main objective of
assessment?
(a) Collect information systematically to judge stu-
dents’ characteristics.
(b) To find out the weakness of teaching-learning
system.
(c) To relate various collected information about
students.
(d) To obtain data about learning difficulties.
379. For the homework to be effective in accomplishing
its purposes, which of the following suggestions for
teachers is correct?
(a) Give homework as punishment.
(b) Make up spur-of-the-moment homework assign-
ments for student practice.
(c) Do not expect students to always have their
homework assignments completed.
(d) Do not listen to what students say about their expe-
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
riences in completing homework assignments.
380. Which of the following is an example of maximum
performance test? [December 2019]
(a) Projective Personality Test
(b) Intertest Inventory
(c) Aptitude Test
(d) Attitude Test
381. Which among the following factors doesn’t contrib-
ute to assessment bias?
(a) When language of the test and the tester is dif-
ferent from the languages of the students.
(b) Answers that support middle–class value.
(c) To assessment procedures are flexible and diverse
to make disadvantaged students comfortable.
(d) Objective test for assessing abstract reasoning of
the student.
382. Which type of evaluation is carried out at the end of
a course of study?
(a) Summative (b) Assessment
(c) Formative (d) Both (a) and (b)
383. Which test is carried out to determine the ability of a
learner?
(a) Aptitude (b) Attitude
(c) Achievement (d) Scholastic
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 1.88 Chapter 1

384. The verbs write, list, label and name when used in an repeated and responses that bring displeasure or
examination, test the pain are likely to weaken and fade, it is called
(a) Comprehension level (a) Thorndike’s law of effect
(b) Application level (b) Thorndike’s law of exercise
(c) Knowledge level (c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Synthesis level (d) None of the above
385. Good evaluation of written material should not be 391. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as
based on Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(a) Linguistic expression (R). [July 2022]
(b) Logical presentation Assertion (A): MOOCs on the SWAYAM portal can
(c) Ability to reproduce whatever is read be used for earning upto 40% credits per semester
(d) Comprehension of subject by the students.
386. By which of the following methods, the true evalua- Reason (R): All MOOCs on the SWAYAM portal are
tion of the students is possible? credit based MOOCs.
(a) Evaluation at the end of the course.
In light of above statements, choose the correct
(b) Evaluation twice in a year
answer from the options given below:
(c) Continuous evaluation
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct expla-
(d) Formative evaluation
nation of A.
387. In order to identify individual differences of learners (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
in a class, which of the following can be used by a explanation of A.
teacher? [July 2022] (c) Only A is true, but R is false.
(a) Formative Assessments (d) A is false, but R is true.
(b) Summative Assessments
392. SWAYAM tries to take the best teaching learning
(c) Diagnostic Assessments
resources to all students through [July 2022]
(d) Peer Assessments
(a) Seminars
388. Which of the following can be termed as the main (b) Classroom teaching
benefits of Choice-based Credit System (CBCS)? (c) Video lectures
1. Shift in focus from the teacher-centric to student- (d) Conferences
centric education.
393. Which of the following represent ICT integrated
2. Student may undertake as many credits as they
strategy?
can cope with.
3. There is more flexibility to the students in terms A. Flipped teaching-learning
B. Blended teaching-learning
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

of completion of different courses.

4. The education becomes broad based and at par C. Edusat-based teaching-learning
with global standards. D.Video conferencing
5. Credits earned at one institution can be transferred. E. Collaborative teaching-learning
F. Peer tutoring
Codes:
Indicate your answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (d) 2, 3 and 5 (a) B, C and D (b) B, C and E
(c) A, B and D (d) A, B, C and D
389. Consider the following statements.
1. In direct grading, the performance of an individ- 394. Which of the following instructional designs is part
ual is assessed in qualitative terms. This is easier of SWAYAM launched by Government of India?
to apply and it minimizes the inter examiner 1. E-Tutorial 2. E-Content
variability. 3. Assessment 4. Discussion Forum
2. In indirect grading, the performance of an 5. Classroom teaching
examinee is first assessed in terms of marks and Choose the correct option from below
subsequently transformed into letter grades by (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
using different modes. (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 3 and 5 only
3. The indirect grading can be absolute as well as
395. Kindergarten system of education was constituted by
relative grading.
(a) T. P. Nunn (b) Spencer
Codes: (c) Fröbel (d) Montessori
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 396. Given below are two statements–one is labeled as
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R):
390. When an action or response produces a pleasant or Assertion (A): Through on-line teaching a large
rewarding outcome that behaviour is likely to be number of students can be taught by very competent
faculty.

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 Teaching Aptitude
Reason (R): On-line teaching helps students in
developing critical thinking more than the Off–line
teaching can do.
In the light of the above two statements choose the
correct option:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the cor-
rect explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true
397. Statement I: National Council of Educational
Research and Training (NCERT) to assist and advise
the Central and State Governments on policies and
programmes for qualitative improvement in school
education was established in 1961.
Statement II: National Council for Teacher Educa-
tion (NCTE) that plans and co-ordinates the devel-
opment of teacher education system was set up in
the year 1995.
(a) Both statements I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both statements I and Statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true and Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false and Statement II is true.
398. Which of the following are the main objectives of
New Education Policy, 2020 ?
1. No hard separations between different subjects
and streams
2. Multidisciplinarity and a holistic education across
all subjects
3. Emphasis on conceptual understanding rather
than rote learning and learning-for-exams
4. Creativity and critical thinking to encourage logi-
cal decision-making and innovation
5. Promoting multilingualism and the power of lan-
guage in teaching and learning
6. More focus on summative assessment than forma-
tive evaluation
Codes:
(a) 2, 3, 4 and 5 (b) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 3, 4, 5 and 6
399. A teacher presents information by accessing from
E-learning portals while displaying confidence in
the domain of concerned knowledge. This may
involve which of the following?
(a) Non-observance of ethicality
(b) Inappropriate information coverage
(c) Lack of harmony and relevance
(d) Lack of technical skill
400. Given below are two statements, one labelled as
Assertion (a) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): In Criterion-referenced tests, an indi-
vidual’s score, and how that score is categorized, is
not affected by the performance of other students.
Reason (R): Criterion-referenced tests compare
a person’s knowledge or skills against a predeter-
M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 89
1.89
mined standard, learning goal, performance level,
or other criterion.
Read the statements and choose the correct answer
using the code given below:
(a) Both (a) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
(b) Both (a) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the cor-
rect explanation of (A)
(c) (a) is true, but (R) is false
(d) (a) is false, but (R) is true
401. Asking questions to clarify information, paraphras-
ing messages, and identifying confusing areas are
basically
(a) Barriers to listening
(b) Listening for fun
(c) Techniques for checking your understanding of
a message
(d) None of the above
402. In many cases, slow learning is caused by factors
other than low intellectual ability. Which of the fol-
lowing is not a characteristic of a slow learner?
(a) Abstract Thinking
(b) Short span of attention
(c) Limited range of interests
(d) Limited vocabulary
403. Which of the following activities indicate the nature
of formative evaluation?
(1) Conducting a quiz test
(2) Conducting an aptitude test
(3) The evaluating of student in a grading system
(4) Providing feedback while teaching
(5) Motivating students for innovative thinking in
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
the class
Select your answer from the options given below:
(a) (1), (2) and (3) (b) (2), (3) and (4)
(c) (1), (4) and (5) (d) (2), (3) and (5)
404. The performance of a student is compared with
another student in which type of testing?
(a) Criterion referenced testing
(b) Diagnostic testing
(c) Summative testing
(d) Norm-referenced testing
405. When the ‘test data’ tell us about a student’s level of
proficiency in a defined area. The procedure of eval-
uation is called  (June 2020)
(a) Formative evaluation
(b) Summative evaluation
(c) Norm referenced testing
(d) Criterion referenced testing
406. Diagnostic evaluation ascertains
(a) Students performance at the beginning of
instructions
(b) Cause and remedies of persistent learning prob-
lems during instructions
(c) Degree of achievement of instructional objec-
tives at the end
(d) Learning progress and failure after instructions
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 1.90 Chapter 1

407. Which of the given learner characteristics are of a specific subject. Which of the following can be
associated with field dependent (holistic/visual) termed as popular microcredentials ?
learning style? (June 2020) (a) MicroMasters (b) Specializations
1. Focusing on facts and principles (c) Nanodegrees (d) All of the above
2. Relating concepts to personal experience 410. e-PG Pathshala is an initiative of the MHRD under its
3. Formal interaction with teacher related to task at National Mission on Education through ICT (NME-ICT)
hand being executed by the UGC. Which of the following
4. Preferring to compete rather than cooperate institutions are closely associated with e-PG Pathshala?
5. Preferring to cooperate rather than compete (a) e-Adhyayan (e-Books)
6. Perceiving global aspects of concepts and materials (b) UGC MOOCs
Choose the correct answer from the option given below: (c) e-Pathya (Offline Access)
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 5 (d) All of the above
(c) 2, 5 and 6 (d) 4, 5 and 6 411. Which of the following can be termed as the major
408. Massive Open Online Courses (MOOCs) are challenges for MOOCs in India?
(a) flexible and open form of selfdirected, online 1. Technical Infrastructure
learning designed for mass participation 2. Diversified needs
(b) flexible and open form of teacher-directed, 3. Adoption of MOOC among learners
online learning designed for mass participation 4. Low investment
(c) flexible and open form of selfdirected, off-line 5. Low training
learning designed for mass participation Codes:
(d) flexible and open form of teacher-directed, (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 5
offline learning designed for mass participation (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
409. Microcredentials are the series of related MOOCs
that allows a person to gain a deeper understanding
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

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 Teaching Aptitude 1.91

Answer Keys

Concepts, Nature, and Characteristics

1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (b)  5. (c) 6. (d)  7. (a)  8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (a)
21. (d) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (a) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (b) 29. (c) 30. (d)
31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (d) 36. (d) 37. (b) 38. (b) 39. (b) 40. (d)
41. (d) 42. (a) 43. (a) 44. (b) 45. (c) 46. (d) 47. (a) 48. (c) 49. (b) 50. (a)
51. (a) 52. (b) 53. (a) 54. (b) 55. (a) 56. (b) 57. (d) 58. (d) 59. (d) 60. (b)
61. (d) 62. (b) 63. (a) 64. (b) 65. (d) 66. (a) 67. (b) 68. (c) 69. (d) 70. (a)
71. (b) 72. (d) 73. (a) 74. (b) 75. (d) 76. (d) 77. (d) 78. (b) 79. (b) 80. (d)
81. (a) 82. (d) 83. (a) 84. (d) 85. (b) 86. (b) 87. (a) 88. (d) 89. (a) 90. (b)
91. (d) 92. (c) 93. (a) 94. (a) 95. (d) 96. (d) 97. (b) 98. (b) 99. (c) 100. (c)
101. (d) 102. (a) 103. (b) 104. (d) 105. (c) 106. (c) 107. (a) 108. (d) 109. (c) 110. (b)
111. (c) 112. (a) 113. (b ) 114. (b) 115. (a) 116. (c) 117. (d) 118. (c) 119. (d) 120. (a)
121. (d) 122. (c) 123. (d) 124. (b) 125. (d) 126. (a) 127. (a) 128. (b) 129. (b) 130. (d)
131. (a) 132. (c) 133. (b) 134. (d) 135. (b) 136. (d) 137. (b) 138. (c) 139. (c) 140. (a)
141. (a) 142. (d) 143. (d) 144. (d) 145. (a) 146. (d) 147. (d) 148. (a) 149. (a) 150. (c)
151. (c) 152. (b) 153. (d) 154. (c) 155. (c) 156. (c) 157. (a)

Teaching Methods and Teaching Instructional Facilities

158. (a) 159. (d) 160. (a) 161. (b) 162. (a) 163. (b) 164. (a) 165. (a) 166. (d) 167. (d)
168. (c) 169. (d) 170. (b) 171. (c) 172. (a) 173. (d) 174. (a) 175. (a) 176. (d) 177. (a)
178. (c) 179. (d) 180. (c) 181. (b) 182. (d) 183. (d) 184. (d) 185. (a) 186. (b) 187. (d)
188. (b) 189. (c) 190. (a) 191. (a) 192. (d) 193. (a) 194. (a) 195. (b) 196. (d) 197. (c)
198. (b) 199. (d) 200. (d) 201. (b) 202. (d) 203. (b) 204. (d) 205. (c) 206. (c) 207. (a)
208. (d) 209. (a) 210. (d) 211. (d) 212. (d) 213. (a) 214. (a) 215. (a) 216. (d) 217. (b)
218. (c) 219. (b) 220. (d) 221. (c) 222. (b) 223. (b) 224. (d) 225. (b) 226. (c) 227. (b)
228. (a) 229. (d) 230. (a) 231. (d) 232. (d) 233. (c) 234. (d) 235. (a) 236. (b) 237. (d)
238. (d) 239. (a) 240. (a) 241. (d)

A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
Learner’s Characteristics
242. (d) 243. (b) 244. (b) 245. (d) 246. (d) 247. (a) 248. (b) 249. (b) 250. (c) 251. (c)
252. (c) 253. (a) 254. (a) 255. (d) 256. (c) 257. (d) 258. (d) 259. (d) 260. (a) 261. (a)
262. (d) 263. (a) 264. (a) 265. (a) 266. (a) 267. (a) 268. (a) 269. (a) 270. (a) 271. (d)
272. (d) 273. (c) 274. (b) 275. (a) 276. (a) 277. (d) 278. (b) 279. (d) 280. (c) 281. (d)
282. (a) 283. (b) 284. (b) 285. (a) 286. (c) 287. (c) 288. (d) 289. (d) 290. (d) 291. (b)
292. (c) 293. (c) 294. (d) 295. (d) 296. (d) 297. (d) 298. (a) 299. (b) 300. (c) 301. (d)
302. (a) 303. (a) 304. (c) 305. (a) 306. (b) 307. (a) 308. (d) 309. (a) 310. (b) 311. (c)
312. (b) 313. (a) 314. (a) 315. (d) 316. (a) 317. (c) 318. (d) 319. (c) 320. (d) 321. (c)
322. (d) 323. (b) 324. (a) 325. (c) 326. (a) 327. (c) 328. (c) 329. (c) 330. (a) 331. (d)
332. (d) 333. (d) 334. (d) 335. (c) 336. (d) 337. (b) 338. (c) 339. (a) 340. (c) 341. (c)
342. (d) 343. (c) 344. (b) 345. (b) 346. (c) 347. (c) 348. (d) 349. (b) 350. (b) 351. (b)
352. (b) 353. (d) 354. (c) 355. (b) 356. (c) 357. (c) 358. (d) 359. (a) 360. (b) 361. (d)
362. (d) 363. (d)

Learner’s Evaluation
364. (d) 365. (a) 366. (a) 367. (d) 368. (d) 369. (c) 370. (c) 371. (c) 372. (d) 373. (d)
374. (d) 375. (d) 376. (a) 377. (b) 378. (a) 379. (c) 380. (c) 381. (c) 382. (a) 383. (a)
384. (c) 385. (c) 386. (c) 387. (a) 388. (c) 389. (b) 390. (a) 391. (a) 392. (c) 393. (d)
394. (c) 395. (c) 396. (c) 397. (a) 398. (b) 399. (a) 400. (b) 401. (c) 402. (a) 403. (c)
404. (d) 405. (d) 406. (b) 407. (c) 408. (a) 409. (d) 410. (d) 411. (d)

M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 91 27/12/22 8:15 PM

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M01_MADAN 07_65901_C01.indd 92 27/12/22 8:15 PM

 ChAPTER

2 Research Aptitude

01 Research: Meaning, Types and Characteristics

02 Positivism and Post-positivistic Approach to Research

03 Methods of Research: Experimental,

Descriptive, Historical

04 Qualitative and Quantitative Methods

05 Steps of Research
lEARnIng
OBJECTIVES 06 Thesis and Article Writing

07 Format and Styles of Referencing

08 Application of ICT in Research

09 Research Ethics

M02_MADAN 04_65901_C02.indd 1 23/12/22 7:14 PM

 2.2
Research: Concept and Meaning
According to a famous Hudson Maxim, “All progress is
born out of inquiry. Our doubts lead to inquiries, and an
inquiry leads to an invention”. Research is not synonymous
with common sense. The difference between research and
common sense lies in procedures and methods.
We acquire knowledge through different sources. The
process of acquiring knowledge has become very fast now.
There are basically five basic methods to acquire knowl-
edge that gradually become research oriented.
1. Intuition: This is the first method to know. When we
use our intuition, we rely on our guts, our emotions,
and/or our instincts to guide us.
2. Authority: It means accepting new ideas because
some authority figure states that they are true.
3. Rationalism: It involves using logic and reasoning to
acquire new knowledge.
4. Empiricism: It involves acquiring knowledge through
observation and experience.
5. Scientific method: It is a process of systematically
collecting and evaluating evidence to test ideas and
answer questions. The pure basic form of scientific
method is called deduction that has been discussed
later under positivism also.
Research is a structured enquiry that utilizes the accept-
able scientific methodology to solve problems and create
new knowledge that is generally applicable. The enquiry
is aimed at understanding an object or phenomenon or
solving a problem.
The term research comprises two words ‘re’ and ‘search’.
Generally, ‘re’ means again and ‘search’ means to find out.
Research is a careful investigation or inquiry, specially to
search for new facts in any branch of knowledge.
According to Creswell, ‘research is a process of steps
used to collect and analyze information to increase our
understanding of a topic or issue.’ Thus, we can say that
research
1. is a process of enquiry and investigation,
2. is systematic and methodical, and
3. increases knowledge
Cook has beautifully outlined research as an honest, exhaus-
tive, and intelligent searching for facts and their meanings or
implications, with reference to a problem. To him, research
is an acronym of the following that defines its essence.
R = Rational way of thinking
E = Expert and exhaustive treatment
S = Search and solution
E = Exactness
A = Analysis
R = Relationship of facts
C = Critical observation, careful planning, constructive
attitude, and condensed generalization
H = Honesty and hard work
M02_MADAN 04_65901_C02.indd 2
Chapter 2
The scientific method consists of systematic observa-
tion, classification, and interpretation of data. Research
is basically scientific in nature, so as to achieve the objec-
tives that are based upon unbiased evaluation of data.
There is nothing like unscientific research approach, even
in case of social sciences. A good researcher must be hard-
working, diligent, open-minded, and should adopt a criti-
cal way of thinking.
Here, we should know what is a scientific method.
According to Random House Dictionary, in scientific
method, a problem is identified, relevant data are gath-
ered, a hypothesis is formulated, and that is empirically
tested.
Research is like carrying out a journey, and one must
be aware about its final destination. We should be clear
about the route to be adopted. The sequence of steps
during the journey is not absolute. At every step, there
is multiplicity of methods, approaches, and procedures.
Here, the experience of researcher helps our actions to
achieve our objectives.
The research can be conducted on issues such as
1. How the COVID-19 disease has erupted and spread
throughout the world.
2. What are the common conditions prevalent among
rural students?
3. How the New Education Policy has evolved after
independence?
4. What is the change in the level of understanding of
students with a change in the method of teaching?
Thus, the list of questions may be endless.
Research Objectives
We need to narrow down to essentials in the research.
1. To gain familiarity or to develop a new insight with
some phenomenon.
2. To review and synthesize the existing knowledge.
3. To investigate some existing situation or problem.
4. To offer some solution to a problem.
5. To explore and analyze more general issues.
6. To construct or create a new procedure or system.
7. To generate new knowledge.
The actual research may encompass one or a combination
of any of the above objectives.
Motivational Factors in Conducting Research
Usually research takes long time so its motivational aspect
is very important.
1. To acquire a research degree along with its consequen­
tial benefits.
2. To Face the challenges in solving unsolved problems.
3. There is an intellectual satisfaction in doing innova-
tive work.
However, the list for motivating people to undertake
research studies is not exhaustive.
23/12/22 7:14 PM
 Research Aptitude 2.3

(b) Standardization: It means using uniform,

White Hat 1. Information • Facts
consistent procedures in all phases of data
• Figures
collection.
• Data
(c) Operationalization of Concepts: It is basically
Red Hat 2. Emotions • Gut feel standardizing the meaning of concepts.
• Intuitions   An operational definition of a concept defines
• How it makes you feel that concept in terms of how it is measured or
what operations produced it.
Black Hat 1. Negative • Why it can’t be done (d) Avoiding Bias: Bias from external influences,
Aspects • What’s so hard in this personal beliefs, observers’ perspectives, and
task human expectations can distort all data.
• What’s won’t work
here 2. Reliability: Reliability in the context of research is
consistency. It refers to the extent to which an inves-
Yellow Hat 2. Positive • Hope tigation produces consistent results. It can also be
Aspects • The bright side termed as verifiability.
of the pic   If any research yields similar results each time, that
• Why it will work is undertaken with a similar population in the given
context and with similar procedures, it is said to be a
Green Hat 1. Creative • New ideas reliable research.
Things • Different perspective   Let us take an example, assume that a research
• Lateral thinking is conducted on the effects of watching television
Blue Hat 2. Process • Cool and calm on the class performance of the children and if the
• Control results conclude that watching TV causes low grades
• Organisation and in class, and if another sample taken from the popu-
process lation shows the same results with the same research
procedure, then we can say that the research proce-
dure and the outcomes are reliable.
  More the similarity in results, the more the reliabil-
Desirable Characteristics of Research ity of the research. The coefficient of determination is
also termed as reliability coefficient.
Before starting nature of research, there is a word of
caution. Which states that there is an overlapping in the Let us look the required criteria in a formal manner from
meaning and scope of these characteristics. The research exam point of view.
should be free of biases, prejudice and subjective errors. (a) Stability: Will the measure employed repeatedly
We make use of measurement as the assignment of on the same individuals yield similar results?
numerical values to objects or events according to rules. Test-retest correlation provides an indication
Then we are able to quantify the data in exact manner, of stability over time, its definition has been dis-
though ‘random errors’ do happen in measurements. cussed below also.
1. Objectivity: In simple words, being objective means (b) Equivalence: Will the measure employed by dif-
‘without any biased approach’. It should be without any ferent investigators yield similar results?
prejudices. We need to be objective so that it always (c) Homogeneity: Will a set of different ‘operational
reflects scientific and systematic aspect. All other char- definitions’ of the same concept (such as poverty,
acteristics are built around it. Researchers usually take richness, job satisfaction etc.) employed on the same
utmost precautions that results are not affected by their individuals, using the same data-collecting tech-
own presence, behaviour, and attitude. They critically nique, give us a highly correlated result? OR will all
examine the research methods to avoid any bias. items of the measure be internally consistent?
  The following measures can be adopted to ensure   Split-half correlation is related to homogene-
objectivity during research process: ity. The group is divided into half, there are two
(a) Procedural Safeguards: The processes involved in groups of two questions, and see if the two sub-
procedural safeguards are as follows: scales are highly correlated.
  (i) 
Keeping complete records of observations There are four general classes of reliability estimates, each
and data analyzes in a form that other of which estimates reliability in a different way. They are:
researchers can understand and evaluate.
(ii) Most scientific reports are written in a simi- 1. Inter-Rater or Inter-Observer Reliability: Used to
lar form and published by organizations assess the degree to which different raters/observers
of scientists. These reports communicate give consistent estimates of the same phenomenon.
ideas to the entire scientific community and 2. Test-Retest Reliability: Used to assess the consis-
open those ideas to criticism. tency of a measure from one time to another.

M02_MADAN 04_65901_C02.indd 3 23/12/22 7:14 PM

 2.4
3. Parallel-Forms Reliability: Used to assess the con-
sistency of the results of two tests constructed in the
same way from the same content domain.
4. Internal Consistency Reliability: Used to assess the
consistency of results across items within a test.
  Types of Errors: There can be two types of errors
that have been put in brief here.
(a) Random error: This can be attributed to a set of
unknown and uncontrollable external factors that
randomly influence some observations but not oth-
ers. Random error is seen as noise in measurement,
it may always happen, so it is usually ignored.
(b) Systematic error: This error is introduced by
factors that systematically affect all observations
of a construct across the entire sample. This error
is considered as a bias in measurement, it should
be corrected to yield better results of the sample.
3. Validity: Validity in research mainly stands for the accu-
racy of procedures, research instruments, tests, etc.
  The concept of validity can also be understood by
posing the question, ‘are we measuring or able to
measure what we originally intended to measure?’
  Validity means that research must be unbiased
and free from any systematic errors, as these may
impact the applicability of research. Without v­ alidity,
research goes in the wrong direction.
  Generally, validity is termed to be much more
important than reliability. To keep research on the
right track, it is imperative that the concepts are
defined in the best possible ­manner so that no error
occurs during measurement. Different types of valid-
ity are given as follows:
(a) Internal Validity: With higher internal valid-
ity, a researcher is able to establish better causal
relationship between two or more variables. This
is specifically true in case of laboratory experi-
ments where cause and effect relationship is sup-
posed to be more clearly established.
(b) External Validity: External validity means that
research findings study should be applied to the
external situations. It refers to the extent to which
the research outcome can be ‘generalized’ and
applied to other cases that are not under study. The
external factors that may affect the study must be
controlled. For example, the response of a respon-
dent in social sciences surveys could be affected by
the mere presence of a non-participant observer.
  Thus, internal validity is called as credibility, and
external validity is called as generalizability (or
transferability). Generalization also means devel-
oping a theory that applies to other situations.
(c) Face Validity: By valid, we mean that survey
and questionnaire accurately measure what
they are supposed to measure.
  For example, all participants who filled a ques-
tionnaire meant for measuring certain personality
traits agree that this exercise appears to measure
those traits and not something very different.
M02_MADAN 04_65901_C02.indd 4
Chapter 2
(d) Content Validity: The indicator measures all
aspects of the construct or concept and not just a
part of it.
(e) Criterion Validity: Criterion validity measures
how well one measure (or indicator) predicts an
outcome for another measure. It is of three types.
(i) Predictive Validity: If the test accurately pre-
dicts what it is supposed to predict.
(ii) Concurrent Validity: When the predictor
and criterion data are collected at the same
time. For example, when a test replaces
another test that might be cheaper.
(iii) Postdictive validity: If the test is a valid
measure of something that happened before.
For example, does a test for adult memories
of childhood events work.
(f) Construct Validity: The indicator measures the
construct in a manner that is convergent with
other measures in terms of direction.
For example: The level of education and income
level converge. The indicator also allows discrimi-
nation of opposing constructs.
  Reliability is about the consistency of a mea-
sure, and validity is about the accuracy of a
measure.
4. Accuracy: It is closely related to validity. It is also
the degree of accuracy to which research processes,
instruments, and tools are related to each other.
Accuracy also measures whether the research tools
have been selected in the best possible manner and
whether the research procedures suit the research
problem or not.
  Rigorous scientific methods and procedures have
been adopted in research and each step in the research
is tested for accuracy. Thus, choosing the best data
collection tool improves the accuracy of research.
5. Credibility: It is the use of the best source of infor-
mation and the best procedures in the research. The
use of secondary data saves time and reduces cost.
However, the excessive reliance on secondary data
when the option of primary data is available entails
the risk of reducing the credibility of the research.
Hence, it has to be a trade-off between primary data
and secondary data.
  The accurate references in research enhances
the credibility of research, but fake references also
decrease the credibility of research.
6. Generalizability: It is closely related to validity. It
refers to the degree to which research findings can
be applied to a larger population. The sample con-
sidered is representative of the whole population, so
the findings should also be applicable to the whole
population.
  Research adopts both quantitative and qualitative
techniques. Social sciences have not been able to
establish generalizations equivalent to theories of
the natural sciences or, to predict events accurately.
Perhaps, social sciences will never realize the objective
of science as completely as natural sciences (physical
23/12/22 7:14 PM
 Research Aptitude
sample
selection
N| n Positivism and Post-positivistic
Generalization
m| M
s| s 1. Paradigm: A paradigm is a comprehensive belief sys-
and biological phenomena) do. In fact, there are
several limitations involved in the application of the
scientific approach in social sciences.
7. Empirical Research: It is based on real-life experi-
ences, direct experiences, or observation by the
researcher. It implies that research is related basi-
cally to one or more aspects of a real situation and
deals with concrete data that provides a basis for
external validity to the results of the research.
8. Systematic: For a research to be effective, it has to be
systematic. It is the only approach to undertake any
research work, and each step must follow the other.
There are a set of procedures that have been tested
over a period of time and are, thus, suitable for use
in research. Therefore, each research should follow a
definite procedure.
9. Controlled Factors: In real-life experience, there is
always more than one factor that affects an outcome
of an event. Similarly, in research, various factors may
affect the outcome, and some are taken as controlled fac-
tors, whereas the others are tested for possible outcome.
  The concept of control implies that, in exploring
causality in relation with two variables (factors), we
set up a study in a way that minimizes the effects of
other factors affecting the relationship. The controlled
factors or variables have to be controlled rigorously.
  In physical sciences, it is easier to control such fac-
tors as the experiments are conducted in laboratories.
In social sciences, it is extremely difficult, as research is
carried out on the issues related to human beings living
in society, where exerting such controls is not possible.
Moreover, within social sciences, the level of control
may vary significantly from one discipline to another.
10. Cyclical: Research is a cyclical process because it
starts with a problem and ends with a problem that
may become basis for further research.
M02_MADAN 04_65901_C02.indd 5
2.5
11. Logical: The statement, a good research is logical, implies
that research is guided by the rules of logical reasoning.
Induction and deduction are of great value in research,
which have been discussed under types of research.
12. Replicable: This characteristic allows the results of
the research to be verified by replicating the study
and thereby building a sound basis for decisions.
Stopover
Which of the following can be defined as the most
desirable characteristic/s of research?
(a) Objectivity (b) Reliability
(c) Validity (d) All of the above
The correct option is (d).
Paradigms to Research
tem, world view or framework that guides research
and practice.
(a) A paradigm helps in making number of assump-
tions about fundamental issues relating to nature
and characteristics of truth or reality (ontology)
and the theory of knowledge dealing with how
can we know the things that exist (epistemology).
(b) Paradigms guide research and practices used in
the field.
(c) Paradigms are general methodological prescrip-
tions including tools for data collection and data
analysis to conduct the work within the paradigm.
Paradigms are of three types:
(i) Realism–to get information from external
world or sources.
(ii) C onstructivism–everyone has unique expe-
rience, there is nothing important outside
from this type of experience.
(iii) P
 ragmatism–Realism and constructivism
are termed as the two alternative ways to
understand this world.
2. Metaphysics is the branch of philosophy that deals
with abstract concepts, such as being, knowing, iden-
tity, time and space. It is intimately connected with
epistemology.
3. Ontology refers to the branch of metaphysics deal-
ing with the nature of being and reality. In short,
ontology refers to our ideas of reality and how it is
constituted.
4. Epistemology is the study of knowledge. It deals
with the origin, nature, scope and methods to acquire
knowledge. This term was first used by Frederick
Ferrier. There are basically two ways to acquire
knowledge and they are rationalism and empiricism.
(a) Rationalism: Rationalism tends to believe
that logic and reason as the means of acquiring
23/12/22 7:14 PM
 2.6
knowledge. Mind is given the authority over
senses. This is b
­ asically a prior use of logic and rea-
son comes first to conclude something before expe-
rience. Rationalism is associated with deduction.
(b) Empiricism: Empiricists claim that sensing expe-
rience is the ultimate starting point for all our
knowledge. The senses give us all our raw data
about the world and without this raw material,
there would be no knowledge at all. This is termed
as a p
­ osteriori. It is related to induction.
5. Axiology: This is a branch of philosophy that studies
judgements about the value. Specifically, axiology is
engaged with assessment of the role of research­er’s
own value system on all stages of the research pro­
cess. Axiology primarily refers to the ‘aims’ of the
research. It checks whether actions are blamewor­thy
or praiseworthy.
6. Theory is a set of systematically related statements,
including some law-like generalizations that can be
tested empirically. These generalizations provide
hypothesis and these hypothesis determine what
must be measured.
7. Research paradigms are models of the functions and
interrelationships of a process, a ‘way of thinking’ about
something and how to study it. There is a difference
between natural sciences and social sciences and so is
the difference between research approaches relating
to them. Hence, there are two competing paradigms
to acquire knowledge. The paradigms are grouped as
positivist paradigm and interpretive paradigms.
Epistemology:
Theoretical
framework,
literature and Research Methodology
research practice
Ontology:
Assumptions Axiology:
about the Value systems
nature of reality and ethical
and knowledge principles
Figure 2.1 Research Methodology approaches
Positivism is aligned with the hypothetico-deductive
model of science that builds on verifying a priori hypoth-
eses and experimentation by operationalizing variables
and measures; results from hypothesis testing are used to
inform and advance science.
Positivism Approach
The term positivism was coined by the French philosopher
Auguste Comte in 19th century and reflected through by
Francis Bacon, John Locke, Isaac Newton etc. Auguste
M02_MADAN 04_65901_C02.indd 6
Chapter 2
Comte divided the theological stage into three parts -
Animism, Polytheism and Monotheism.
Positivists believe that sociology can and should use the
same methods and approaches to study the social world
that “natural” sciences such as biology and physics use
to investigate the physical world. By adopting “scientific”
techniques sociologists should be able, eventually, to
uncover the laws (social actions) that govern societies
just as scientists have discovered the laws that govern
the physical world. Thus, the focus is on social actions.
Max Weber’s social action theory argues that individual
human beings engage in unique series of actions (social
actions) informed by cause and effect in social contexts.
We should say that social actions make the society to
function. The methods being adopted in ‘natural sciences’
should be adopted in the ‘social sciences’ also.
Accordingly, Bacon proposed that philosophers should
not attempt to wander beyond the ‘limits of nature’.
Saint–Simon applied the term positive in his Essay on the
Science of Man to the sciences which were based on facts
which have been observed and analyzed.
Positivism relies on the following facts of science:
1. Science is deterministic as it explains cause and effect
relationships. Positivists believe the social sciences
can be as rigorously scientific as natural ­sciences.
2. Science is mechanistic as researchers develop hypoth-
eses to be proved or disproved via applica­tion of spe-
cific research methods.
3. Science uses methods such as selection of sample,
measurements, analysis, and reaching conclusions
about hypotheses.
4. Science deals with empiricism, where it is assessed
as objective, as seen, or measured. Science must be
value free.
5. Positivists usually adopt a deductive approach and
quantitative research aspects, wherein the concentra-
tion is on facts.
6. Positivism depends on quantifiable observations that
lead to statistical analyzes. So, accordingly, the role
of the researcher is limited to data collection and
interpretation in an objective way. The researcher
is independent and external in his research stud-
ies, that also means that there is minimal interac-
tion with participants and the research is purely
objective.
7. We need to be ‘factual’ and ‘objective’ in positivism,
so ontology in positivism is ‘realist’ and epistemol-
ogy is ‘objectivist’. ‘Factual’ knowledge is obtained
through observation (senses and measurement) in
positivism.
8. Positivists usually adopt deductive approach, the
focus is on the facts. There is one reality, knowable
within probability. There is less scope for alternative
methods in the research.
Drawbacks of Positivism
Positivism as an epistemology is associated with the fol-
lowing set of disadvantages.
23/12/22 7:14 PM
 Research Aptitude
It believes in the unity of method. Sociology is not dif-
ferent from the natural sciences as far as the method of
enquiry is concerned.
1. Positivism relies on experience as a valid source of
knowledge.
2. The principle of objectivity may be compromised to
some extent as there can be variations of actions of
individuals or relationships between individuals.
3. Adoption of positivism in business studies and other
studies can be criticized for reliance on status quo.
4. The principle of metaphysics may also be compromised
to some extent.
Post-positivistic A pproach
The overall society (including natural sciences) is not
static as assumed in positivism paradigm. There are
traditions of ‘conflict’. The human beings are rational.
According to Durkheim, society is a complex system that
consists of inter-related and interdependent parts. There
are interactions at micro-relational level. Thus, all the
above complications demand that there is requirement
of different approach that was called as post-positivism
paradigm.
Thus, the focus of research has shifted from ‘reality’
to ‘critical reality’. This approach is more relevant to deal
with the problems of a more ‘complicated world’, and thus
it is more ‘innovative’ also to deal with more dynamic
situations. Research is broader than set conditions. Post-
positivist research has the following characteristics:
1. Research is much broader rather than being special-
ized. There are lots of different things which qualify
as a research; We need not to focus on ‘just the facts’;
We should not always look for ‘correct techniques’ for
research. It represents a less stricter form of positiv-
ism. It is also known as ‘logical positivism’. Now the
social scientists and natural scientists share the same
goals for research and employ similar methods of
investigation.
2. Post-positivism paradigm is more constructivist that
considers that new knowledge is built on the previous
knowledge.
3. The researcher’s motivations for research are cen-
tral and crucial to the project. This kind of research
puts more focus on values, passion, and politics
in research. It is basically qualitative or ‘mixed’
research.
4. The focus of ‘positivism’ was on reality. With more
involvement of individualism, and human beings in
a more direct manner, post-positivism becomes ‘criti-
cal reality. Thus, its ontology is ‘critical reality’ and its
epistemology becomes ‘modified objectivist’.
The following terms are more closely linked with post-
positivism approach.
1. Interpretive Paradigm: It is usually associated with
qualitative research strategies. It is specifically appli-
cable in social sciences, such as sociology, political
science, etc. According to interpretive approach, the
M02_MADAN 04_65901_C02.indd 7
2.7
research design should be flexible and unstructured,
the methods should be valid, and the research design
should generate small-scale and intensive data, using
insider accounts and based on descriptions of what is
seen and heard.
2. Verstehen: It is closely associated with the work
of the German sociologist Max Weber. In social
sciences, such as anthropology and sociology,
verstehen means a systematic interpretive process
in which an outside observer of a culture attempts
to relate to it and understand others. Verstehen
roughly translates to ‘meaningful understanding’ or
‘putting yourself in the shoes of others to see things
from their perspective’.
The method of the natural sciences (Physics, Chemistry,
and Biology) is explanation (erklären), whereas that of
history is understanding (verstehen).
Note: As positivism is deductive in nature, so in research,
in positivism we want to move to inductive. Similarly
for post positivism (or realism) it is deduction, for criti-
cal realism it is retroduction and for interpretativism it is
abduction.
Stopover
The research approach which is based on the assump-
tion that social phenomena can be explained by
observing cause and effect is:
(a) Positivism
(b) Interpretivism
(c) Qualitative
(d) None of the above
The correct option is (a).
Methods of Research
Sometimes positivism and post positivism approaches
can also be counted as types of research. Research itself is
becoming more and more interdisciplinary.
Table 2.1 gives an idea about the main basis adopted
for the classification of research. Here, it is important
to mention that these approaches are not exclusive.
Research is usually interdisciplinary. In the follow-
ing classification, positivism may be identified more
with the experimental, quantitative and deductive
researches. Post positivistic approach should be identi-
fied more with descriptive, qualitative and inductive
approaches. Practically, most of the researches are
‘mixed’ in nature. The use of word ‘more’ in the above
sentences is being done with a caution. Thus, research-
ers should be innovative while categorizing the differ-
ent types of approaches.
Classification on the Basis of O bjectives
On the basis of objectives, a research can be classified as
follows:
23/12/22 7:14 PM
 2.8 Chapter 2

Table 2.1 Methods of Research 3. There is little possibility of using statistical tools to
verify an issue.
S. No. Basis of classification Types 4. There is a possibility that presence of an observer
could interfere with a respondent’s ability to answer
1. Objectives • Descriptive accurately. This effect is called as the “observer
• Correlational effect.”
• Exploratory It includes surveys and fact-finding enquiries with
• Experimental ­adequate interpretation.
The main examples are National Sample Surveys and
2. Outcome • Fundamental Census methods.
• Applied ‘The study of socio-economic status of distance educa-
tion students in India’ describes the gender composition,
3. Logic • Deductive economic status of students, rural-urban composition,
• Inductive etc. The findings (description) of one such study, say in
2009, can be different than what one would find in a sim-
4. Process • Quantitative ilar study in 2019. The aim of descriptive research is to
• Qualitative describe ‘what exists’ with respect to variables or condi-
tions in a situation.
5. Inquiry mode • Structured
• Unstructured
Applications of Descriptive Research
6. Idea or concept • Conceptual This helps in understanding the behaviours, traits and
• Empirical patterns of the participants. Close-ended questions can
reveal their opinions and attitudes. These may help in
making various decisions. This can be designed to meas-
ure trends as well. This can be used to do comparisons in
Descriptive Research terms of differences and similarities. An analysis can also
be conducted.
The main objective of descriptive research is describing Depending on the number of times the data are col-
the state of affairs as it prevails at the time of study. It aims lected, descriptive research can be of two types:
to accurately and systematically describe a population,
situation or phenomenon. Descriptive research answers 1. Cross-sectional Study: One-time interaction or one-
the questions who, what, where, when, and how. In time data collection.
simple words, descriptive research is all about describing 2. Longitudinal Study: A study that collects data more
the phenomenon, observing, and drawing conclusions than once from the same individuals.
from it.
Types of Descriptive Research
Benefits There are mainly three types of descriptive studies that
1. Descriptive studies mostly deal with large sample help in better understanding of the phenomena.
sizes, so their data collection is efficient and cost
effective. 1. Survey research
2. The variety of observational method, case study 2. Correlational studies
method and survey method can be used in it. 3. Causal-comparative studies
3. Descriptive study can use both qualitative and quan- Ex post facto, historical, exploratory, and analytical
titative data, thus it provides a holistic view of the research are the other variants of descriptive research.
subject.
4. As descriptive research is conducted in a respondent’s 1. Survey Studies: We have discussed many aspects of
own environment, so data integrity and accuracy are survey research under descriptive research.
assured. There is no manipulation of ‘environment’,
(a) The survey research is a non-experimental (that
so it is not a true experimental study.
is, it does not involves any observation under con-
trolled conditions).
Limitations (b) This is again a quantitative method used for
1. As the most of descriptive studies rely on observa- studying of large sample. The researcher collects
tional data, their research process is difficult to rep- data with the help of standardized questionnaires
licate. This makes it different from experimental or interviews which is administered on a sample
research. of respondents from a population.
2. The poorly framed questions can compromise the (c) This technique is used in social sciences that does
results of a descriptive study. data collection through direct (such as face to

M02_MADAN 04_65901_C02.indd 8 23/12/22 7:14 PM

 Research Aptitude
face interview) and indirect observation (such
as opinions on online education facility of a
university).
  There is some scope of biased approach while
compiling results though we make use of random
sampling.
  There is description of sampling, randomization,
preparing questionnaire, mails, structured inter-
views, unstructured interviews used in context of sur-
vey research in the coming paragraphs.
  Random sampling is vital to the generalizability of
a survey’s results.
2. Correlational Studies: A correlational research
design investigates relationships between two vari-
ables (or more) without the researcher controlling
or manipulating any of them. It’s a non-experimen-
tal type of quantitative research. The correlation can
be positive, negative or zero. It varies between -1 to
+1 including zero.
Correlational studies are generally intended to answer
the following questions.
Is there a relationship between two variables (or two
sets of data)? If ‘yes’, then two other questions ­follow:
(a) What is the direction of the relationship, and is it
positive or negative?
(b) What is the magnitude of the relationship as indi-
cated by the coefficient of correlation?
The correlational statistics will help test researchers’
hypothesis about the relationship between two variables
and assess the magnitude of the relationship.
Causal-comparative research: This method used to
identify the cause–effect relationship between a depend-
ent and independent variable. This relationship is usually
a suggested relationship as a researcher can’t control an
independent variable completely. The researcher com-
pares two groups to find out whether the independent
variable affected the outcome or the dependent variable.
(The dependent and independent variables have been
discussed under research process). This research tries
to answer ‘why’ also, thus it tries to find out the possible
causes of certain occurrences or their non-occurrence.
Then we draw conclusions. It is descriptive research, as
variables can’t be manipulated (at least in a big manner).
For example, ability variables (independent variable)
effect the achievement (dependent variable) in the exam.
Similarly, personality variables lead to the development
of self concept. This research is of two types:
1. Retrospective causal comparative research:
Retrospective means looking backwards. Thus,
this research starts with effects (that have already
occurred) and it investigates causes. This type of
research is more common.
2. Prospective causal comparative research: Prospective
means that is expected in future. The researcher begins
with the causes and it investigates effects.
M02_MADAN 04_65901_C02.indd 9
2.9
Ex Post Facto Research
1. It is used in social sciences and business organizations.
2. It is conducted in context of a phenomenon after that
has occurred or at the time of its occurrence.
3. It basically deals with non-manipulated variables of a
phenomenon.
Historical Research
1. It is another dimension of descriptive research and
somewhat similar to ex post facto research.
2. It usually focuses on the historical aspect of an issue of
interest or problem.
3. Examples are growth of trade unions in India, evolu-
tion of modern education system in India, etc.
Analytical Research
1. In this method, the researcher uses facts or informa-
tion already available.
2. It attempts to make critical evaluation of the material.
Exploratory Research
1. It is generally done at the beginning of a research.
It is undertaken to explore an area where little is
known or to investigate the possibilities of undertak-
ing a particular research study, and is akin to feasibil-
ity study or pilot study. A ‘small-scale study’ is under-
taken to decide whether it is worth carrying out a
detailed investigation.
2. It attempts to clarify why and how there is a relation-
ship between two or more aspects of a situation or
phenomenon.
3. The purpose of exploratory research is to gain back-
ground information, define terms, clarify the prob-
lems, develop hypothesis, establish research priorities
and objectives, and develop questions to be answered.
4. It makes use of secondary data (mainly literature
review), experience surveys, case studies, interviews
(mainly focus group interviews), projective tech-
niques, and Delphi techniques.
Experimental Research
“Men do not think they know a thing till they have
grasped the ‘why’ of it”
– Aristotle
Earlier, we discussed causal-comparative research but that
was without any manipulation. In experimental research,
there is scope of manipulation on independent variable
so that we get an effect (that is dependent variable). As
the manipulation is done only on independent variable,
other variables are held constant.
The variable upon which the effects of changes are
observed is called the dependent variable, which is
23/12/22 7:14 PM
 2.10
observed but not manipulated by the experimenter.
The dependent variable is so named because its value is
hypothesized, to depend upon and vary with the value of
the independent variable.
For example, to examine the effect of different teach-
ing methods upon achievement in reading, an investi-
gator would manipulate the method, the independent
variable, by using different teaching methods in order to
ascertain their effect upon achievement, the dependent
variable.
Examples are–why examination-related stress leads
to rote learning? Why and how does stress lead to heart
disease?
Three Characteristics of Experimental
R esearch
These can also be termed as conditions for claim of
­causality.
1. Manipulation: Manipulation is defined as the first
feature of experimental design. Manipulated condi-
tion (Independent variable) can also be termed as the
‘treatment’ or ‘intervention’. Manipulation of an inde-
pendent variable must involve the active intervention
of the researcher.
2. Control: We understand and able to identify the dif-
ferent factors affecting the internal and external
validity of an experimental design. In order to make
experimental design both internally and externally
valid, a check has to be put on the sources of error
affecting dependent variable. This is called ‘Control’.
3. Random Assignment: Random assignment intends
to produce equivalent groups. It ensures group simi-
larity. It means each participant has an equal chance
of being selected in a group and they are independent
of selection of other participants.
  Reflexivity refers to the circular relationships
between cause and effect. A reflexive relation-
ship is bidirectional, with both the cause and the
effect affecting one another in a relationship in
which neither can be assigned as causes or effects.
For example, poverty is the main cause of unem-
ployment, and unemployment is the main cause of
poverty.
Types of Experimental Research
According to Campbell and Stanley, experimental
research refers to that portion of research in which vari-
ables are manipulated and their effects upon other vari-
ables are observed.
Pre-Experimental Research Design
Pre-experiments refer to experiments for the purpose of
comparison. Experimental designs refer to true experi-
ments, quasi-experiments and some static experiments.
Pre-experiments are not typical experimental designs.
They are mainly used as exploratory tools and for com-
parison with other experimental designs. They are
M02_MADAN 04_65901_C02.indd 10
Chapter 2
v­ ulnerable to internal and external validity. They have no
control group for contrast. They are of following types:
1. One-shot case study research design: In this kind of
research, one dependent variable is considered. It’s a
post-test study as it’s carried out after treating what
presumably caused the change. It is difficult to draw
conclusions as there is no typical cause and effect
relationship between the intervention and outcome.
  Educational institutions follow the pre-experimen-
tal research design to administer exams and evaluate
students at the end of a semester. Students are the
dependent variables and lectures are independent.
Since exams are conducted at the end and not the
beginning of a semester, it’s easy to conclude that it’s
a one-shot case study research.
2. One-group pretest-posttest design: This test is
somewhat more structured. This research combines
both pretest and posttest studies by testing a single
group before and after administering the treatment.
This design has minimal internal validity. It has no
external validity that means that it has less chances
for ‘generalization’. It has the minimal control.
3. Static-group comparison: It is the best out of three.
This research involves studying two groups by sub-
jecting one to treatment while the other remains
static. After post-testing, all groups the differences
are observed.
  This design is practical but lacks in certain areas of
true experimental criteria.
True Experiments
True experiments are a kind of ‘gold standard’ as they
help in evaluating other experiment designs. It is planned
to depict cause and effects relationships among variables
through manipulation, control, and random assignment
to the groups.
The true experiment is basically study of one population.
True experiments take care of all the three aspects such
as manipulation, control and random assignment. The
randomization is done to increase the equivalence of
the groups. The control group does not receive any
experimental treatment.
1. The Pretest Post Test Design: This results of this
research depend on statistical analysis to approve or
disregard a hypothesis. This accurate design can be
conducted with or without a pretest on a minimum
of two dependent variables assigned randomly. It is
further classified into three types:
2. The posttest-only control group design: This
involves randomly selecting and assigning subjects
to two groups: experimental and control. Only the
experimental group is treated, while both groups
are observed and post-tested to draw a conclusion
from the difference between the groups. To evalu-
ate the teaching methods of two teachers, they can
be assigned two student groups. After teaching their
respective groups on the same topic, a posttest can
determine which group scored better and who is
23/12/22 7:14 PM
 Research Aptitude
better at teaching. This method can have its draw-
backs as certain human factors, such as attitudes of
students and effectiveness to grasp a subject, may
negatively influence results.
3. Pretest-posttest control group design: In this test,
two groups are randomly assigned subjects. Both
groups are presented, the experimental group is
treated and both groups are post-tested to measure
how much change happened in each group.
  For example, this research method can be used to
evaluate employees’ skills. The candidates are asked
to take tests before filling a post for the purpose of
screening. That is done from a pool of candidates.
This allows organizations to identify skills at the time
of employment. After training employees on the job,
organizations further evaluate them to test impact and
improvement. In this control group example employ-
ees are ‘subjects’ and the training is ‘treatment’.
4. Solomon four-group design: This design is a com-
bination of the previous two methods. Subjects are
randomly selected and assigned to four groups. Two
groups are tested using each of the previous methods.
  True experimental research design should have a
variable to manipulate, a control group and random
distribution, which is administered after exposure to
a treatment.
Quasi-experimental Designs
The word ‘quasi’ signifies that it resembles experimental
research. There is scope for manipulating the indepen-
dent variable before the dependent variable.
The quasi-experiments have the element of direc-
tionality in them, but the participants are not randomly
assigned. The confounding variables that affect partici-
pant selection are still there. These designs are used for
their convenience.
Experimental
Research Designs
Pre- True
Experimental Experimental
One-Shot Pre-Test -
Case Study Post-Test
Control Group
One Group Post-Test
Pre-Test- Only Control
Post-Test Group
Solomon Four
Static Group
Group
Figure 2.2 Experimental Research
M02_MADAN 04_65901_C02.indd 11
2.11
1. The sample size is small so there are difficulties in
randomization. Quasi-experiments have outcome
measures, treatments, and experimental units.
2. They are more suitable for real natural world. They
are easier to be designed than true experimental
designs, which require random assignment of sub-
jects. They are more feasible to conduct.
3. The criterion for assignment is selected by the
researcher, while in a natural experiment the assign-
ment occurs ‘naturally,’ without the researcher’s
intervention.
4. There may be threats to internal validity.
1. Time-series design: Here, a dependent variable
is measured at many different points in time in one
group before and after a treatment is administered,
which is manipulated by the researcher.
2. Multiple time series: This design adds a control
group to the study for the purpose of comparison.
Statistical Groups
Statistical groups basically deal with the random aspect.
The randomized designs provide flexibility in deal-
ing with numerous variables in the field s­ettings. Such
designs result from random assignment of participants to
treatment groups or are based on randomization.
1. Randomized Block Design: A randomized block
design is an experimental design where the experi-
mental units are in groups called blocks. The treat-
ments are randomly allocated to the experimental
units inside each block. When all treatments appear
at least once in each block, we have a completely ran-
domized block design.
2. Latin Square Design: It is the arrangement of t
treatments, each one repeated t times, in such a way
Quasi
Statistical
Experimental
Time Series Randomized
Blocks
Multiple Time Latin Square
Series Design
Factorial
Design
23/12/22 7:14 PM
 2.12 Chapter 2

that each treatment appears exactly one time in each Examples

row and each column in the design. 1. All men are mortal (general fact, applies to all men).
3. Factorial Design: It is used to examine treatment 2. Socrates is a man.
variations and can combine a series of independent 3. (Therefore,) Socrates is mortal (specific).
studies into one, for efficiency. Inductive Approach
It is also termed as bottom–up approach.
In inductive research, we move from specific to general.
Stopover This approach also involves the following three steps.
Consider the following statements:
1. True experiments must have a control group. 1. Observe different phenomena in the world.
2. Control group is a group of research participants 2. Search for a pattern in what is observed.
that resemble the experimental group, but do 3. Make a generalization about what is occurring.
not receive the experimental treatment. Examples
3. The control group provides a reliable baseline
data to which you can compare the experimental 1. Socrates is mortal (specific).
results. 2. Alexander is mortal (specific), Pluto is mortal and so
on (specific).
Which of the above are the correct statements? 3. All men are mortal (general).
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3 Take another example: 3 + 5 = 8. Here, eight is an even
(c) Only 1 and 3 number. 7 + 59 = 66, and the result is again an even num-
(d) All of the above ber. Therefore, the conclusion is when an odd number is
added to another odd number, the result will be an even
The correct option is (d).
number.
Figure 2.3 shows the main components that form a
part of inductive and deductive approach.
Classification on the Basis of Application
On the basis of application, research is of two types,
namely pure (or basic research) and applied research. Generalization —
laws and theories
Table 2.2  lassification of Research on the Basis
C Induction Deduction
of Application
Fundamental Applied research Observations Explanation and
research and facts predictions
Addition to knowledge Solution to existing problems
Figure 2.3 Induction and Deduction
Discovery or invention Innovation or application
Mostly academic Practical use in solving a There is more discussion on inductive and deductive
problem approaches in Unit 6.

Extensive in nature Intensive in nature Classification on the Basis of I nquiry Mode

Basically, the process adopted to find answers to research
questions involves two approaches, structured and
Classification on the Basis of Logic unstructured.
In research, conclusions are based on two approaches, Structured Approach
deduction and induction.
1. The structured approach to inquiry is usually ­classified
Deductive Approach as quantitative research.
2. Everything that forms the research process, such
It is also termed as top–down or general-to-specific approach.
as objectives, design, sample, and the questions
In deduction, we start from a theory and try to prove
that a researcher plans to ask of respondents, is
it with the help of available information. The deductive
predetermined.
method involves the following three steps.
3. It is more appropriate to determine the extent of a
1. State the hypothesis (based on theory or research problem, issue, or phenomenon by quantifying the
­literature). variation. For example, how many people have a par-
2. Collect data to test the hypothesis. ticular problem? How many people hold a particular
3. Make decision to accept or reject the hypothesis. attitude?

M02_MADAN 04_65901_C02.indd 12 23/12/22 7:14 PM

 Research Aptitude
Unstructured Approach
1. The unstructured approach to inquiry is usually clas-
sified as qualitative research.
2. It allows flexibility in all aspects of the research
process.
3. It is more appropriate to explore the nature of a prob-
lem, issue, or phenomenon without quantifying it.
Classification on the Basis of Process
There are two types of researches—quantitative and
qualitative.
Quantitative research: This basically helps in deduc-
tive approach, it deals with numbers and statistics.
Quantitative methods allow you to systematically meas-
ure variables and test hypotheses.
Qualitative research: This deals with words and mean-
ings. Qualitative methods allow a researcher to explore
the concepts and experiences in an exhaustive manner.
We have tried to differentiate between the two researches
with the help of table.
1. In-depth Interview: This is usually a one-to-one
interview, with one participant at a time. Though it
is systematically planned, it may have unstructured
elements as well. The researcher prepares questions
in advance to make sure that only the most important
questions are asked to the participant. The interview
can last anywhere between twenty minutes to half an
hour, during which the researcher tries to collect as
much meaningful data as possible from the partici-
pants to draw inferences.
2. Focus Group: A focus group comprises around 6–10
participants who are usually subject matter experts.
A moderator, usually an experienced person, is
assigned to a focus group to facilitate the discussion.
The role of a moderator is to probe the participants by
asking the correct research questions so as to collect
research-related information.
3. Narrative Research: It is an approach to review the
literature. Sometimes, it is contrasted with a system-
atic review. It tends to be less focused than a system-
atic review and seeks to arrive at a critical interpreta-
tion of the literature that it covers.
4. Phenomenology: This research examines human
experiences through the descriptions provided by the
people involved. These experiences are called ‘lived
experiences’. The researcher must first identify what
she or he expects to discover and then deliberately put
aside these ideas; this process is called ‘bracketing’.
A researcher wants to explore areas where there is
little knowledge. For example, interviewing the wives
of 10 prisoners of war and asking them to describe
their experiences. In phenomenological research,
respondents are asked to describe their experiences
as they perceive them. They may write about their
experiences, but information is generally obtained
through interviews. Themes and patterns are sought
M02_MADAN 04_65901_C02.indd 13
2.13
in the data. Data collection and data analysis occur
simultaneously.
5. Ethnography: Ethnographic studies involve the col-
lection and analysis of data about cultural groups.
Ethnography has been described as “encountering dif-
ferent worlds and making sense of them”. It means that
one world (of researcher) making sense of actions of
other world (of participants from some tribal society).
Ethnography means ‘learning from people’, where
the researcher frequently lives with the people and
becomes a part of their culture. The researcher explores
with the people their rituals and customs. An entire cul-
tural group may be studied or a subgroup in the culture.
We can cite example of tribal society in Madhya Pradesh.
Ethnographers interview people who are most knowl-
edgeable about the culture. These people are called key
informants. Data are generally collected through partic-
ipant observation and interviews. Data collection and
analysis occur simultaneously. As understanding of the
data occurs, new questions emerge. The end purpose
of ethnography is the development of cultural theories.
Ethnographers study how people live and how they
communicate with each other.
6. Semiotics: The world is full of signs and symbols
broadcast by brands and consumers in the mass
media. Semiotics is a theory that can be used to
uncover hidden meanings in the messages through
‘Decoding. It also reflects that how meaning is made
within a culture.
7. Transformative/Emancipatory paradigm: This
research focuses on the view that reality is shaped
by culture, politics, economics, race, gender, ethnic-
ity and disability. Values are considered to be impor-
tant, particularly as values and beliefs differ from
one culture to the next. Knowledge and understand-
ing are aimed at critical praxis.
8. Case Study Research: A case study may be consid-
ered as quantitative or qualitative research depend-
ing on the purpose of the study and the design cho-
sen by the researcher. Case studies are not used to
test hypotheses, but hypotheses may be generated
from case studies. Data may be collected in case stud-
ies through various means such as questionnaires,
interviews, observations, or written accounts by the
subjects. This type of research is used in the areas of
management, education, philosophy, and psychol-
ogy. This method involves deep digging into the
developments and collecting data.
9. Content Analysis: This is closely linked with case
study. Content analysis is also known as text analysis.
This method is a bit different from other qualitative
research methods. It is used to analyze social life by
decoding words, texts, etc., through any available
form of documentation. The researcher studies and
understands the context in which the documents are
furnished with the information and then tries to draw
meaningful inferences from it.
10. Grounded Theory: Grounded theory is a qualitative
research approach that was developed by two
23/12/22 7:14 PM
 2.14
sociologists, Glaser and Strauss in 1967. The data is
collected and analyzed and then a theory is developed
that is grounded in the data. Data are gathered in
naturalistic settings (field settings). Data collection
primarily consists of participant observation
and interviews. The data are recorded through
handwritten notes and tape recordings. A process
called ‘constant comparison’ is used, in which data
are constantly compared to data that have already
been gathered. It reflects the fundamental patterns in
all social life. These patterns are called ‘basic social
processes’. Adjustments are to be made to modify the
theory. Role play, simulation, and diary methods are
also used in research.
11. Hermeneutics: This is the theory and methodology
of interpretation, especially the interpretation of
biblical texts, wisdom literature, and philosophical
texts.
Once the candidates go through the research process,
they can have a look at the following table again:
Table 2.3 Difference between Quantitative and Qualitative Research
Quantitative Research
It is very clear to researcher, what to do, what not to
do by employing statistical, logical and mathematical
techniques.
It adopts ‘objective’ approach that describes, explain and
quantify the problem.
The approach is top–down. The objective is to confirm
the ‘what’ and ‘when’.
This follows general to specific approach. This basically
follows ‘deductive reasoning’ that starts from the theory,
it forms a hypothesis, then goes for observation and
finally confirm the hypothesis.
The data collected mainly includes experiments,
numbers and statistics, polls, controlled observations,
longitudinal studies, structured interviews, surveys and
statistical records. The sample sizes are big in number.
Random sampling is a type of probability sampling
in which the researcher ‘randomly’ selects a subset of
participants from a population. Each member of the
population has an equal chance of being selected. This
‘randomization’ is meant for objective and unbiased
approach in scientific methods.
Result-oriented inquiry.
The results are specific and thus findings are more
generalizable.
M02_MADAN 04_65901_C02.indd 14
Chapter 2
Action Research
Action research refers to a wide variety of evaluative,
investigative, and analytical research methods designed to
diagnose problems with the objective to help researchers
to find practical solutions to address them in a quick and
efficient manner. Action research is basically ‘learning by
doing’.
The term ‘action research’ was coined by Kurt Lewin
during 1940s. He is considered as father of ‘action
research’. He defined Action Research as ‘a spiral of steps,
each of which is composed of a circle of planning, action,
and fact-finding about the result of the action’. Cohen and
Manion (1989) described action research as, ‘a small-
scale intervention in the functioning of the real world and
a close examination of the effects of such intervention’. A
lot of research has taken place on ‘action research.’
Features of Action Research: The main features of
‘action research’ have been described below.
Qualitative Research
Here, the main objective is to develop an understanding
on human beings/social sciences to know what people
feel and think.
This is basically a ‘subjective research’ that explores and
gains an understanding of the problems.
The approach is bottom–up. It explores to know ‘How’
and ‘When’.
This is actually follows specific to general approach.
This mainly follows inductive reasoning that starts from
observation, it tries to develop a pattern, then it develops
a ‘tentative hypothesis’ and finally forms a theory.
The data is mainly verbal (such as words and images),
in-depth interviews, focus group discussion, observation
and document reviews. We make use of ‘content analysis’ to
obtain and interpret information. The sample sizes are less
in number.
Non-random sampling is a sampling technique where
the sample selected will be based on factors such as
convenience, judgement and experience of the researcher
and not on probability. All units of the population do not
an equal chance of participating in the survey. Therefore,
the results cannot be generalized for the population.
Process-oriented inquiry.
The results are descriptive and thus findings are less
generalizable.
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 Research Aptitude
1. Situational and problem solving perspective: It
usually emerges out of situational needs and a solu-
tion to a problem is also designed with respect to the
situation.
2. Intervention in real world: As problem emerges in
practical real-life situation, so action is to be taken in
real world as well.
3. Adoption of alternative practices: Through action
research, we intend to discover new and alternative
ways to achieve our objectives, be it teaching or man-
agement sector.
4. Immediate problematic situation: The focus may be
more on problems that need urgent attention.
5. Goals of social science: It is mostly in social situa-
tions, such as in educational institutions.
6. Collaborative and participatory.
7. Co-learning: As action research is collaborative
approach, co-learning is also the outcome.
8. Self-evaluative: Just as action research is self-initi-
ated since it evolves out of the perception of problems
by the practising individual or group, it becomes self-
evaluative where the action research team evaluates
the outcome of the exercise.
9. Action research is a process: It has been discussed in
the following paragraphs.
Action Research Process or Cycle
Action research is a process by which change and under-
standing can be pursued at one time. It is usually described
as cyclic, with action and critical reflection taking place in
turn. The reflection is used to review the previous action
and plan the next one. It is commonly done by a group of
people, though sometimes individuals use it to improve
their practice.
Stephen Kemmis has developed a simple model of
the cyclical nature of the typical action research ­process,
which consists of four steps: such as planning, acting,
observing, and reflecting.
If required Revised If required
Plan
plan
Reflect Act Reflect Act
Observe Observe
Cycle 1 Cycle 2
Figure 2.4 Action Research
In action research, development and research take
place in a simultaneous manner. For example, a teacher
may face many problems and he or she tries to find an
instant solution based on previous experiences, but
many times such solution is either partial or temporary.
Thus, a teacher needs to find a solution which is based
on research, so that the solution obtained really solves
the problem. Here, action research comes handy.
M02_MADAN 04_65901_C02.indd 15
2.15
Now, we need to look at the main steps of ‘action
research’.
1. Planning: First thing to do is to analyze the problem
scientifically in the specific perspective in which
the problem has emerged. Planning covers the ini-
tial reflection.
Planning entails identification of the problem and
changes a teacher can make to overcome the problem.
2. Action: After the planning stage in which all the
procedures of investigation have been determined,
comes the action stage. This stage is time bound.
The researcher has to administer tools to collect data
and information. Systematic analysis has to be done.
Results have to be recorded.
3. Observation: During ‘action research’, observation
of tools has to be done cautiously. Observation has
to be objectively done without any presuppositions.
The detailed observations, monitoring, and record-
ing enables you to report your findings to others.
Those involved in action research should also keep a
detailed diary or journal.
4. Reflection: Once the results have been obtained and
analyzed and conclusions drawn, you are ready to ini-
tiate changes in your teaching strategy. This change
or modification in the style of teaching is the result
of action-research aimed at improving the teaching-
learning process. It is also aimed at adopting a new
method. You would also reflect on the efficacy of the
changes you are bringing in.
Scope of action research in education: We can identify
the following areas in the scope of action research.
1. Curriculum planning and course material development
2. Programme delivery and learning strategies
3. Student assessment and evaluation
4. Staff development
5. Management and administration
6. Behavioural changes, like attitudes, values, staff
motivation, etc.
Cycle 3 Thus, almost all areas have the potentiality of using action
research for solving problems and for improvement of
practices.
Mixed Research
Both quantitative and qualitative researches are not
exclusive. Qualitative research may end in a hypothesis
that can be quantitatively tested later.
Quantitative research may involve qualitative research
elements.
Quantitative research may answer questions, such as
the extent and pattern of poverty in India, but it may not
be efficient for answering questions, such as what is the
experience of facing poverty, hardships, consequences,
and circumstances that lead to poverty. This may be
answered by qualitative research. As quantitative research
is generally well known, it may be useful to outline when
qualitative research is needed.
23/12/22 7:14 PM
 2.16 Chapter 2

Classification on the Basis of Concept Stopover

Conceptual Research Which of the following is a form of explanatory

Conceptual research is generally used by philosophers research in which the researcher develops a theoreti-
and thinkers to develop new concepts or to reinterpret cal model and empirically tests the model to deter-
existing concepts. It is related to some abstract idea or mine how well the model fits the data?
theory.
(a) Causal modelling
Empirical Research (b) Predictive research
Empirical research relies on experience or observation (c) Descriptive research
alone, which is without due regards for system and the- (d) Exploratory research
ory. It is a data-based research coming up with conclu- The correct option is (a).
sions that are capable of being verified by observation or
experiment.
In this research, the researcher must formulate a
working hypothesis. He collects data to prove or disprove
his hypothesis. The researcher is in ­control over the facts. Steps Of Research
Empirical research is appropriate when proof is sought
that certain v­ariables affect other variables in one way or The research process usually adopts the following three
the another. criteria of undertaking a research.

The Concept of Triangulation 1. It is conducted within a framework of a set of

We know that being ‘objective’ is the most desirable fea-
ture in research.
1. Triangulation is mostly used in qualitative or social
research to deal with the issue of multiple realities in
society.
2. It also solves the research problem in multiple ways to
increase the validity of the research.
3. It overcomes the problem of subjectivity and biasness.
4. Triangulation makes use of multiple data sources,
multiple investigators, and most importantly, mul-
tiple methods (such as participant observation, focus
groups, case studies and so on) to get a complete
understanding of the social phenomena.
Hermeneutics is the theory and methodology of
interpretation, especially the interpretation of biblical
texts, wisdom literature, and philosophical texts.
approaches. It may be qualitative or quantitative. It
depends upon the academic discipline as well.
2. The logical sequencing of steps undertaken in order to
find the answers to the research questions is termed
as research methodology. It adopts procedures, meth-
ods, and techniques that are tested for their validity
and reliability.
3. It is unbiased and objective.
According to the definition given by Creswell, research
consists of three basic steps:
1. Formulating a research question or posing a problem,
to which the researcher wants to find answers to.
2. Collecting data to answer the questions.
3. Present an answer to the question.
These basic steps have been elaborated further in Table 2.4
and discussed in detail in the following paragraphs.

Table 2.4 Research Process—A Snapshot

Step 1: Formulation of Step 2: Preparing Step 3: Developing Data Step 4: Selecting Samples
Research Problem Research Design Collection Instrument Types of samples
• Literature review • Problem structure (Research Instrument) • Probability
• Formulation of objectives • Study design • Types of data • Non-probability
• Identifying research • Experimental study • Methods of data • Determining sample
variables and measuring • Non-experimental collection design
scales study • Designing research tool
• Formulating hypothesis
Step 5: Writing a Step 6: Collecting Step 7: Processing and Step 8: Writing a
Research Proposal Data Analyzing Data Research Report
Main elements • Observations • Editing and Coding • Title page
– Need • Interviews • Classification of data • Table of contents
– Benefits • Questionnaire • Tabulation • Chapters
– Types of data • Schedules • Analysis • Bibliography
– Justification for funds and • Hypothesis testing • Appendices
other resources • Generalizations

M02_MADAN 04_65901_C02.indd 16 23/12/22 7:14 PM

 Research Aptitude
Step 1: Formulation of the Research
Problem
The manner in which a problem is formulated determines
almost every step that follows.
Steps in F ormulation of a Research Problem
During this initial phase of ‘discovery of context’, we
take help from our observations, belief, information
and general knowledge, etc. We are guided towards
a new idea or a different way of thinking about some
phenomenon.
A reasonable level of knowledge in the broad subject
area is required to work through these steps. Thus, follow-
ing steps are required to formulate a research problem.
Step 1: Identifying a Broad Area of Interest: What
really interests me as a professional? As a teacher, I might
be interested in the area of teaching methodology or
exploring the reasons behind increasing acts of violence
among students.
Step 2: Dividing Broad Areas Into Subareas: ­Suppose I
want to study acts of violence among students. It can have
various subareas: (1) ­profile of families these ­students
come from, (2) ­ profile of perpetrators, (3) causes of
­violence, (4) role of politicization of education, (5) impact
on society and so on.
Step 3: Focusing on and Selecting an Area of I­ nterest:
Here, we follow the concept of ‘selective perception’. We
may not be in a position to focus on each and every area
from research point of view.
Step 4: Identifying the Gaps and Raising Research
Questions: Within an area, list all the questions the
researcher wants to find answers to.
Step 5: Formulation of Broad Objectives: ­Objectives
grow out of the questions.
Step 6: Assessing and Reviewing Objectives: As a
researcher narrows the research problem, the specific
identification of study population is crucial in order to
select the appropriate respondents.
Extensive L iterature R eview
Literature review is an integral part of the entire research
process. It makes significant contribution to each and
every operational step at a later stage. After passing
through this stage, a researcher is able to acquaint one-
self with the available body of knowledge in the area of
interest. The main objectives of literature review are as
follows.
1. It broadens the knowledge of researcher about the
research problem.
2. It brings better clarity and focus to the research
problem and also helps to improve the authenticity
of research.
3. It helps improve the research methodology.
M02_MADAN 04_65901_C02.indd 17
2.17
4. It helps contextualize the findings. It means how
value addition has been done by the researcher to the
existing stock of knowledge.
The procedure for reviewing literature covers searching
the existing literature, reviewing it, and developing a the-
oretical and conceptual framework.
The main sources of literature review are books and
journals. In both cases, specifically in journals, there can
be a gap of two to three years between the completion of a
research project and the publication in a journal.
As with books, the researcher needs to prepare a list
of journals for identifying the literatures relevant to his
research. Nowadays, researchers make extensive use of
internet sources for literature survey and review, and at
the same time, the researcher should be careful about the
authenticity of the content.
Bibliography given at the end of a project gives a clear
and complete description of the sources that were used
while preparing the report.
Formulation of O bjectives
Objectives are the goals you set out to attain in your study.
They inform the reader what the researcher wants to
accomplish through the research work. The wording of
the objective should be very ­precise and specific.
Objectives can be written under two headings:
1. Main objectives or aims
2. Sub-objectives
The main objective is an overall statement of the study.
It also states the main associations and relationships that
we want to establish. The sub-objectives are the specific
aspects of the topic that you want to investigate within the
main framework.
1. They should be listed numerically.
2. The wording should be clear, complete, and specific.
3. Each objective should contain only one aspect of the
study.
4. Use action-oriented words or verbs when writing
objectives.
The objectives should start with words such as ‘to deter-
mine’, ‘to find out’, ‘to ascertain’, ‘to m
­ easure’, ‘to explore’,
etc. The wording of objectives determines the type of
research (descriptive, correlational, and experimental)
and the type of research design you need to adopt to
achieve them. For example, in case of descriptive studies,
the objective can be stated as, ‘To describe the types of
incentives provided by the organizations in Chandigarh
to their employees in the IT industry.’
In correlational studies, it may state, ‘To ascertain the
impact of coaching classes on students’ performance.’
Main C onsiderations in S electing a R esearch
Problem
These help ensure that your study remains m
­ anageable
and that you remain motivated.
23/12/22 7:14 PM
 2.18
You can find innumerable research problems in any
area. Obviously, you cannot study all the problems.
1. Interest: Research is usually time-consuming and
entails the use of resources. Many unforeseen prob-
lems may crop up. So the topic should be of interest to
the researcher to sustain the desired motivation level.
2. Manageable Magnitude: The topic should be man-
ageable within the available time and resources. The
broader topic should be broken down to be a manage-
able level. It should be specific and clear to the high-
est extent possible. The cardinal principle is to choose
a research problem that is not too small to be insig-
nificant but not too big to be impossible.
3. Concept Measurement: The clarity about indicators
and measurement of concepts is required. The idea of
construct is important here.
4. Level of Expertise: The adequate level of skills for
the task is required.
5. Relevance: Though relevance is again a subjective
term, the research should add to the existing stock
of knowledge and bridge the current knowledge
gaps.
6. Availability of Data: The availability of data sources
is to be ensured before finalizing the topic.
7. Ethical Issues: The ethical issues and their rem-
edies must be anticipated before formulating the
problem.
Example of Main Objective
The main objective is to explore the relationship between
the use of modern teaching techniques and student
performance.
Sub-objectives
The sub-objectives are as follows:
1. To find out the extent of relationship between the use
of modern teaching techniques and student perfor-
mance.
2. To compare the use of modern teaching techniques in
government and private schools.
3. To study the impact of modern teaching and the level
of motivation of students to learn.
Concepts and Variables
The meanings of terms, such as teaching effective-
ness, class performance, job satisfaction etc. may vary
from one person to another, and from one place to
another. Concepts (or constructs) are mental images
and thus, are not directly measurable. For research,
we have to define concepts so that they are under-
stood in the same sense by respondents in case we
collect data.
The concepts have to be made measurable, in a form
so that data can be collected in an easy manner. It
means that concepts should be capable of assuming dif-
ferent values. Here, the terms indicators and variables
come into picture. Anything capable of assuming differ-
ent values is known as variable.
M02_MADAN 04_65901_C02.indd 18
Chapter 2
For example, if richness (or say poverty) is a concept
or construct, then assets and income are its indicators.
The asset values and annual incomes are variables.
‘Concept Mapping’ is a visual representation of the
relationship between ideas generated by an individual
or group.
Types of Variables
The variables are classified into categorical and quanti-
tative variables. Quantitative variables vary in degree or
amount, such as annual income, and categorical variables
vary in type or kind, such as gender. Categorical variables
have been discussed in subsequent discussion.
On the basis of causation, the variables are basically of
two types, namely independent and dependent variables.
In an experiment, one discovers and confirms a rela-
tionship between an independent variable and a depen-
dent variable.
1. Independent Variables (IV) are also known as
manipulated, experimental, or treatment ­variables.
  They become the cause of another variable. It is the
variable that is manipulated by the researcher in an
experiment.
2. Dependent Variables (DV) are also called the out-
come or response variables. The dependent variable
is the variable that changes as a result of changes
made on the independent variable.
  For example, in the study about impact of ­coaching
on student performance, coaching is independent vari-
able and student performance is dependent variable.
In addition, there can be intervening variables and extra-
neous variables.
1. Intervening Variables: These are also termed as
mediator variables. They establish a link between IV
and DV. These are variables through which one vari-
able affects another. These are helpful to understand
the process.
  For example, tissue damage is an intervening vari-
able in smoking and lung cancer relationship. We can
use arrows (which mean causes or affects) and draw
the relationship that includes an intervening variable
like shown in the figure.
Smoking Tissue damage Lung cancer
2. Extraneous Variable:
(a) In real-life situations, there can be many factors or
variables that may affect the outcome. These vari-
ables are termed as extraneous variables.
(b) Extraneous variables also affect the dependent
variable, although these are not manipulated by
the researcher.
(c) They may mask the relationship between inde-
pendent variable and dependent variable.
  Extraneous variables may directly affect the
dependent variable or may combine with the inde-
pendent variable to produce an affect. Therefore,
extraneous variables must be controlled so that
23/12/22 7:14 PM
 Research Aptitude 2.19

Independent, dependent, and extraneous variables in a causal relationship

Smoking Coronary heart disease

(Assumed cause) (Assumed effect)

Independent variable Dependent variable

Affect the relationship

• The age of the person

• The extent of his/her smoking
• The duration of smoking
• The extent of daily exercise, etc.

Extraneous variables

Figure 2.5 Relationship between Independent, Dependent, and Extraneous Variables

the experimenter can determine whether the
dependent variable changes in relation to a varia-
tion in the independent variable.
  They actually compete with the independent
variable in explaining the outcome.
(d) If an extraneous variable is the real reason for an
outcome instead of independent variables, then
it is also known as confounding variable because
it has confused or confounded the relationship
we are interested in.
Take an example from teaching. Speed of learning
depends on meaningfulness of topic–the greater the
meaningfulness, the faster the learning. Therefore, the
speed of learning is called dependent variable and mean-
ingfulness is an independent variable.
A mediating variable (or mediator) explains the pro-
cess through which two variables are related, while a
moderating variable (or moderator) affects the strength
and direction of that relationship.
On the basis of study design: The variables can be of
two types.
1. Active variables: They can be manipulated or con-
trolled during the study.
2. Attribute variables: These cannot be changed,
controlled, or manipulated. such as gender, age, etc.
On the basis of Unit of Measurement: The variables can
be categorical or continuous.
1. Categorical variables: These are measured on
nominal or ordinal scale and can be further classified
as follows.
(i) Constant Variable: Only one value, such as
flower, tree, etc.
  (ii) Dichotomous Variable: Two categories, such as
male and female, rich and poor, etc.
(iii) Polytomous Variable: More than two catego-
ries, such as below average, average, above aver-
age, etc.
2. Continuous variables: These variables are variables
that can take on any value within a range. Continuous
variables are also considered metric or quantitative
variables, where the variable can have an infinite
number or value between two given points. Example
is height, weight etc that can take any possible value.
1. Constant Variable: Only one value, such as flower,
tree, etc.
2. Dichotomous Variable: Two categories, such as male
and female, rich and poor, etc.
3. Polytomous Variable: More than two categories,
such as below average, average, above average, etc.
Measuring Variables
Measurement of variables is central to research ­ studies.
According to Stevens, measurement scales can be of four types:
Scale: A scale is a device or an object used to measure or
quantify any event or another object.
Levels of Measurements
There are four different scales of measurement. The four
types of scales are:
1 st–Nominal Scale
It is basically ‘named variables’. A nominal scale is also
termed as classificatory scale, a variable is classified into
two or more categories. These tags or labels helps in iden-

M02_MADAN 04_65901_C02.indd 19 23/12/22 7:14 PM

 2.20
tification of objects. Thus, a nominal scale usually deals
with the non-numeric variables or the numbers that do
not have any value.
It is qualitative in nature as it helps in identification of
objects. They don’t define the object features. The only
permissible aspect of numbers in the nominal scale is
“counting.”
For example, a gender can be classified into three cat-
egories – Male, Female and Transgender.
2 nd–Ordinal Scale
It is named + ordered. The ordinal scale reports the
ordering and relative ranking of data without establishing
the degree of variation between them. It identifies and
describes the magnitude of a variable. This data is again
qualitative data or categorical data. It can be grouped,
named and also ranked. As it is qualitative, the interval
properties are not known.
Examples:
1. Ranking of university students: 1st, 2nd, 3rd, 4th,
5th etc.
2. Evaluating the frequency of occurrence: Very
often, Often, Not so often, Not present at all
3. Degree of agreement: Totally agree, Agree, Neutral,
Disagree, Totally disagree
3rd–Interval Scale
It is named + ordered + proportionate interval between
variables. It is a quantitative measurement scale. It can
quantify the difference between the values. Thus, vari-
ables are measured in an exact manner, not as in a ‘rela-
tive’ way in which the presence of zero is arbitrary. It
allows calculating the mean and median of the variables.
It is useful in statistical calculations, as it helps to assign
any numerical values to arbitrary assessment such as feel-
ings, calendar types, etc. For example, 60°C is colder than
65°C. The temperature difference of 5°C is same as that
between 50°C and 55°C. In other words, the difference of
5°C in both intervals shares the same interpretation and
meaning.
Examples are Likert Scale, Net Promoter Score (NPS)
and Bipolar Matrix Table
4th–Ratio Scale
It is named + ordered + proportionate interval between
variables + can accommodate absolute ‘zero’.
It is again quantitative. It combines the properties of
nominal, ordinal, and interval scales. Ratio scale consists
of equidistant points. It allows researchers to compare the
differences or intervals. It possesses the feature of absolute
zero. As it has absolute zero feature, it does not have nega-
tive numbers. It has its own property of fixed starting point.
It offers wide options in statistical analysis. The vari-
ables can be orderly added, subtracted, multiplied,
divided. Mean, median, and mode can be calculated using
the ratio scale.
M02_MADAN 04_65901_C02.indd 20
Chapter 2
Ratio scale has unique feature such that it allows
unit conversions like kilogram – calories, gram – calo-
ries, etc.
Example: For percentage score in 12th standard.
Less than 60 percent
Between 60 – 75 percent
Between 76 – 90 percent
Between 86 – 95 percent
More than 95 percent
Attitudinal Scale
If you want to ascertain the attitude of students towards
a teacher, the questionnaire framed may be open-ended
or close-ended. If the ­questionnaire is open-ended, it
may invite respondents to describe the attitude they hold
towards teaching quality. If the researcher has framed
close-ended questions, the respondent is given options
such as strongly agree (SA), agree (A), undecided (U),
disagree (D), and strongly disagree (SD).
Types of Attitudinal Scale
As the attitudinal scales are very important in qualitative
research, the different types of attitudinal scales are as
follows:
1. Likert Scale: It is also termed as summated rating
scale. It is the easiest one to construct. It is based on the
assumption that each statement or item on the scale
has equal attitudinal value, importance, or weight. The
quality of a teacher may have many dimensions, such as
use of knowledge base, communication skills, presenta-
tion of contents, organization of material, promptness
to solve student problems, etc. The respondents may
have different attitudes towards different aspects.
Statements About Teacher SA A U D SD
1. Knows the subject well (+)
2. Willing to solve ­students’
problems (+)
3. Have poor ­communication
skills (-)
4. Is hard to approach (-)
5. Good teaching skills (+)
6. Liking/disliking (+/-)
Some statements may be positive, some negative,
and some neutral. Then, the scores may be assigned
to different responses and the score of each respon-
dent is calculated. Some respondents may have more
positive attitude than others. There can be a numeri-
cal scale as well. Instead of SA, A, U, D, and SD, it
will have values 5, 4, 3, 2, and 1.
23/12/22 7:14 PM
 Research Aptitude
2. Thurstone Scale: It may assign weightages to
the different statements, such as willingness to
solve student problem may have a weight of 1, the
statement about subject knowledge has weight of
1.5, and statement in context of teaching skill can
have weight of 2, and the scores are calculated
accordingly.
3. Guttman Scale: It is mainly based on ratio scale. It is
quite difficult to develop.
Factor Analysis
Factor analysis allows researchers to describe many vari-
ables using few factors, thus reducing the number of vari-
ables to a manageable level in terms of factors, which can
be analyzed further.
Formulating Hypothesis
(Plural – Hypotheses)
Researchers may have one or more hypotheses. These are
the questions that they want to address, which include
predictions about possible relationships between the
things they want to investigate (variables).
As a researcher, we do not know the exact truth, but
have a hunch about the outcome, and thus, we make
some prediction about the outcome. This hunch or pre-
diction about the outcome is called a hypothesis. It can
also be termed as an educated guess or assumption about
some phenomenon. This assumption is tested by collect-
ing information that will enable us to conclude if our
hunch was right. Thus, defining hypothesis has the fol-
lowing features:
1. It is a tentative proposition.
2. The validity of a hypothesis is unknown.
3. In most cases, formulating a hypothesis specifies the
logical relationship between two variables.
4. It must be generalizable.
5. It should be kept simple.
Six Thinking Hats
This concept explores the cognitive aspect, how do we
think in different directions. This approach was created
by Edward de Bono in 1985 under the book of the same
name. He wanted it to be a practical tool for everyday
problem solving. He was also the inventor of “lateral
thinking,” a method of solving problems indirectly, often
in creative and surprising ways.
Main Functions of a Hypothesis
Formulating a hypothesis, though important, is not abso-
lutely necessary for a research. A perfectly valid research
can be conducted even without formulating any hypoth-
esis. In general, formulation performs the following
functions:
1. It brings focus, clarity, and specificity to the research
study.
2. It helps in making the sample design.
M02_MADAN 04_65901_C02.indd 21
2.21
3. It makes the study more objective.
4. It facilitates the formulation of a theory.
Hypothesis can be of the following types:
1. Descriptive Hypothesis: It is formulated to describe
the characteristics. For example, the present rate of
unemployment in urban areas of India is 10 per cent.
2. Relational Hypothesis: It indicates the relationship
between two variables. For example, parents residing
in urban areas spend more money on the education of
their children.
3. Explanatory Hypothesis: It guides the cause-
and-effect relationship between two variables. For
example, when salaries increase, the spending on
food items also increase. However, the reverse may
not be true.
In statistical hypothesis testing, you have a null hypoth-
esis against which you are testing an alternative. The
hypothesis concerns one or more characteristics of the
distribution.
Concepts of Null and Alternative Hypotheses
Professor R. A. Fisher was the first to use such an
­experiment for testing the hypothesis by scientific investi-
gation. He talked about the principle of replication, rand-
omization, and local control in research.
Hypothesis testing or significance testing is a method
for testing a claim or hypothesis about a parameter in a
population, using data measured in a sample. We know
that data about population are called as population
parameter and about sample are called as sample statistic.
We always assume sample mean as an unbiased estimator
of the population mean.
Null Hypothesis
The Null Hypothesis (Ho) is a statement about a popu-
lation parameter, such as the population mean, that is
assumed to be true. The null hypothesis is a starting
point. We will test whether the value stated in the null
hypothesis is likely to be true. Null means no difference
between variables, such as between population mean
and sample mean or between two sample means and so
on. Let us look at some simple examples of setting null
hypothesis.
Chance Accept the
Outcomes Null Hypothesis
Middle 95%
Critical Region
Critical Region
Reject the Null
Non-Chance
Outcomes Two-Tailed Test
(Non-Directional)
Outer 2.5% Outer 2.5%
23/12/22 7:15 PM
 2.22 Chapter 2

Research design achieves the following purposes:

Question Null Hypothesis
1. It makes research efficient
Are teens better at math Age has no effect on 2. Optimum utilization of resources—maximum
than adults? mathematical ability. information with minimal expenditure, time, and
Does taking aspirin every Taking aspirin daily does money
day reduces the chance of not affect heart attack 3. Flexibility
having a heart attack? risk. 4. Minimization of bias
5. Reliability and objectivity
Do teens use cell phones Age has no effect no cell
to access the internet phones being used for
more than adults? internet access. Study Design on the Basis of
Number of Contacts
We use the word ‘no’ or ‘no difference’ with every null On the basis of contacts, research can be cross-sec-
hypothesis so as develop a platform to be tested through tional or longitudinal.
‘sample’.
1. Cross-sectional studies: In cross-sectional studies,
Alternative Hypothesis (HA): If ‘null hypothesis’ is data are collected only once during the research pro-
rejected as sample mean falls in the ‘rejection region’ cess. The data are not necessarily gathered simulta-
on left or right, then alternative hypothesis is accepted. neously and data collection may spread over a period
It is actually contradiction of null hypothesis. It means of time, such as one week, one month or so. It may
that actual value of a population parameter is less than, also take a longer period. For example, data may be
greater than, or not equal to the value stated in null collected about holiday preference of software profes-
hypothesis. sionals in India.
After setting hypothesis, we collect data with the help 2. Longitudinal Studies: In longitudinal studies, data
of samples. We apply different statistical tests on the sam- would be collected at several points of time. For exam-
ple data to arrive at some findings. Then those findings ple, when a drug has been administered to a group
are interpreted. In the mean while we will discuss other of patients to check the efficacy of the drug, the data
aspects in the research process. Once familiar with these may have to be collected many times to check their
aspects, we will try to discuss the things in the form of health conditions. The HR department of an organi-
‘testing of hypothesis’ on page 2.29. zation may collect data about employee satisfaction
level before and after a raise in pay or promotion. The
marketer may be interested in getting information
Step 2: Preparing Research Design about the impact of advertisement on sales.
and Study Design The relation between research design and problem
structure has been shown in the Figure 2.6.
Now, when the setting up of hypothesis is done, the next
step is research design. It is a roadmap to carry out the Research design Problem structure
research. It is a step-by-step approach addressing basic
questions like what is the scope of research study or
what type of data are to be collected or something like
Exploratory Unstructured
what methods should be used to collect the data and to
analyze them. Justification is required at every step as Descriptive Structured
the resources are at stake. In fact, many of the research
Causal Structured
methods are basically research designs or closely linked
with them. Figure 2.6 Research Design
Research design is also defined as a plan, structure,
and strategy of investigation to get answers to research Study Design on the Basis of
questions. Reference Period
Therefore, research design involves the following
consideration: 1. Retrospective Study Design: It is meant for a phe-
nomenon or a situation that has occurred in the
1. Objectives of research study past.
2. Selection of method of data collection 2. Prospective Study Design: It pertains to likely preva-
3. Source of information—sample design lence of a phenomenon in the future.
4. Tools for data collection Study design based on reference period can be a
5. Data analysis—qualitative and quantitative ­combination of both retrospective and prospective studies.

M02_MADAN 04_65901_C02.indd 22 23/12/22 7:15 PM

 Research Aptitude
Study Design on the Basis of
N ature of Investigation
For example, a pharmaceutical company wants to test
the impact of a drug in treating people. There is a cause
and effect relationship between the two variables. The
research can be broadly classified into two for the pur-
pose of study design, namely experimental study and
non-experimental study.
Experimental Study
If a study is done in a manner that we start from cause to
establish the effects, the independent variable can be manip-
ulated by the researcher to see the effect of change in inde-
pendent variable (cause) on dependent variable (effect).
The treatment groups (not in terms of medical ­science)
are of two types, experimental group and control group.
1. Experimental Group: The group receiving the treat-
ment is the experimental group.
  Example: Students of a class being taught with
a new teaching method, a group of patients being
administered a new medicine, etc.
2. Control group: The group not receiving the treat-
ment is the control group.
  Example: Students being taught with same con-
ventional method, a group of patients with no medi-
cine or no new medicine, etc.
  Control in an experiment means that the researcher
wants to investigate the effect of various factors one
at a time in that ­experiment.
Randomization
It covers the following aspects:
1. The selection of a group as experimental or control
group is random.
2. All participants have equal chance of being chosen for
experimental group or control group.
3. The larger the number of participants, the greater the
chance that groups will represent the population.
Non-experimental Study
It is a retrospective study. Thus, we start from the effects
to trace the cause. Here, the assumed cause has already
occurred. The variables are still referred to as IV and DV.
Example: Comparing opinions from natural groups.
There can be other types of study designs as well. A few
important study designs are as follows.
1. Action research: Action research has been discussed
earlier. It is a research initiated to solve an immediate
problem. It was coined by Kurt Lewin.
2. Cohort Studies: It is based on the existence of some
common characteristics, such as year of birth, gradu-
ation, or marriage. For example, the researcher wants
to study the pattern of employment of MBAs who grad-
uated in 1991, when India was facing economic crisis,
or a study of people born between 1995 and 2000.
3. Placebo Design: A patient, for example, may have
an impression that he is undergoing treatment, but in
M02_MADAN 04_65901_C02.indd 23
2.23
reality, he is being given only sugar pills. It can play
an important role in his recovery. There can be two
groups, where one receiving the actual treatment and
the second receiving placebo treatment. The control
group can also be used in this design. The first group
may receive the actual treatment, the second group
receives placebo treatment, and the third group (con-
trol group) receives nothing.
Step 3: Developing Data Collection
Instrument (Research Instrument)
Data are defined as the information recorded to represent
facts. Some important points about data are worth men-
tioning here.
1. Data represent facts about hypothesized variables.
2. Data are analyzed to determine consistency with
prediction. Prediction is in the form of setting up of
hypothesis.
3. If data and prediction are consistent, then null hypoth-
esis is supported.
4. If data and prediction are inconsistent, hypothesis is
not supported and is rejected.
The quality and validity of the output are solely dependent
on the tools used for data collection. The data can be clas-
sified as primary and secondary, objective and subjective,
and qualitative and quantitative.
Primary Data and Secondary Data
Primary data are collected for the purpose of current
research project, whereas secondary data are collected
for some other research purpose. They are collected fresh
by the researcher and are based on surveys, observations,
and experimentation. They are expensive and difficult
to acquire. They are reliable as they have been obtained
directly with a specific problem in view. Figure 2.7 shows
various ways in which primary data can be collected.
Secondary data are collected from external sources, such
as TV, radio, the Internet, magazines, books, and newspa-
pers. These data might have been collected for different
purposes. They are an inexpensive and quick method to
obtain information. Sometimes, it is the only way when
the original source is inaccessible. It should be ascertained
(i) whether the data are relevant to your study and
(ii) if they are credible.
Primary Data
Observations Interviews
Mail Phone Personal
Figure 2.7 Sources for Collection of Primary Data
23/12/22 7:15 PM
 2.24
O bjective Data and Subjective Data
Objective data are independent of any single person’s
opinion, whereas subjective data can be an individual’s
opinion or dependent upon the researcher.
Q ualitative Data and Quantitative Data
Qualitative data are the description of things made with-
out assigning numeric values. For example, facts gener-
ated from unstructured interview. It needs the research-
er’s interpretation.
Quantitative data entail measurements in which the
numbers are used directly to represent properties of
things. It is ready for statistical analysis. A larger sample
is required in quantitative data; and with proper sampling
design, the ability to generalize is also high.
O bservation Method
This is used in behavioural sciences. It is about collecting
primary data by investigator’s own direct observation of
relevant people, actions, and situations without asking
the respondent.
Types of Observations
1. Structured—for descriptive research
2. Unstructured—for exploratory research
3. Participant observation
4. Non-participant observation
5. Disguised observation
The most important approach for data collection in
observational research is participant observation. In
participant observation, researchers become active
participants in the group or situation they are studying.
Participant observation is very similar to naturalis-
tic observation in that it involves observing people’s
behaviour in the environment in which it typically
occurs.
One other observational method is called as structured
observation. Here, the investigator makes careful obser-
vations of one or more specific behaviours in a particular
setting that is more structured than the settings used in
naturalistic and participant observation.
In social sciences or qualitative studies, we may use
‘naturalistic observation’ to collect data from samples. It
is an observational method that involves observing peo-
ple’s behaviour in the environment in which it typically
occurs. Thus, naturalistic observation is a type of field
research (as opposed to a type of laboratory research).
Jane Goodall’s famous research on chimpanzees is a clas-
sic example of naturalistic observation.
Sometimes, researchers usually make their observa-
tions as unobtrusively as possible so that participants are
not aware that they are being studied. Such an approach
is called disguised naturalistic observation.
In undisguised naturalistic observation the partici-
pants are made aware of the researcher presence and
thus, monitoring of their behaviour. The reactivity may
happen as a result of undisguised natural observation.
M02_MADAN 04_65901_C02.indd 24
Chapter 2
Reactivity refers to when a measure changes participants’
behaviour.
Vignettes: They comprise stimuli that portray elements
of reality to which research participants readily respond.
They reflect perceptions, attitudes, and behaviours in
qualitative research.
Limitations
Initially, there are many behavioural aspects that may
not be observable directly. For example, marketer as a
researcher cannot measure the feelings, beliefs, and atti-
tudes that motivate buying behaviour, and infrequent
behaviour cannot be observed.
Secondly, the observation method is quite expensive.
Survey Method
Sometimes, the observation method is supplemented
with survey method. This approach is most suited for
gathering descriptive information, and this research may
be direct or indirect. It is of two types and these are struc-
tured and unstructured surveys.
1. Structured surveys: They use formal lists of questions
to be asked from all respondents in the same manner.
2. Unstructured surveys: They give the interviewer the
flexibility to probe respondents and direct the inter-
view according to their answers.
Advantages
1. Quick and lower cost in comparison to observation
method
2. Survey method can be administered to collect many
different types of information.
Limitations
1. Privacy issues
2. Reluctance on the part of respondents
3. Biases
Contact Methods
Information may be collected by mail, telephone, ­personal
interview, etc.
Mail Questionnaires
Advantages
1. It includes collecting large amounts of information at
a low cost per respondent.
2. Respondents may give more honest answers to per-
sonal questions to a mail questionnaire.
3. It is unbiased as no interviewer is involved.
4. Convenient for respondents who can answer when
they have time.
5. Good way to reach people who travel.
Limitations
1. It is not flexible.
2. It takes a longer time to complete than telephonic or
personal interviews.
23/12/22 7:15 PM
 Research Aptitude
3. It has a low response rate.
4. Little control of researcher over the process.
Telephonic Interviewing
Advantages
1. It is a quick method.
2. It gives greater flexibility to interviewer as he can
explain questions not understood properly by the
respondent.
3. It has greater sample control.
4. It has a higher response rate.
Limitations
1. High cost per respondent as interviewer should be
more skilled.
2. Privacy issues
3. Complete standardization is not possible.
4. Wrong entry is possible due to the lack of time.
Personal Interviewing
It is very flexible and can be used to collect large amounts
of information. Trained interviewers can hold the
respondent’s attention and are available to clarify difficult
questions.
They can guide interviews, explore issues, and probe
as the situation requires. Personal interviews can be
used in any type of questionnaire and can be conducted
fairly quickly. Interviewers can also show actual prod-
ucts, advertisements, or packages, and observe and
record their reactions and behaviour. This takes two
forms, namely intercept interviewing (for individuals)
and focus group interviewing (for groups).
Intercept Interviewing
Advantages
1. It is widely used in marketing research such as tourism.
2. It allows the researcher to reach known people in a
short period of time.
3. It is the only method of reaching people whose names
and addresses are unknown.
4. It involves talking to people at homes, offices, on the
street, or in shopping malls.
5. The interviewer must gain the interviewee’s cooperation.
6. It is time-consuming and may range from a few min-
utes to several hours (for longer surveys, compensa-
tion may be offered).
7. It involves the use of judgemental sampling, i.e., the
interviewer has guidelines as to whom to ­intercept,
such as 25 per cent under twenty years of age and
75 per cent over sixty years of age.
Limitations
1. There is a greater room for error and bias on the part
of the interviewer who may not be able to correctly
judge age, race, etc.
2. Interviewer may not be comfortable talking to c­ ertain
ethnic or age groups.
M02_MADAN 04_65901_C02.indd 25
2.25
Focus Group Interviewing
Advantages
1. It is usually conducted by inviting 6–10 people to
gather for a few hours with a trained moderator to
talk about a product, service, or organization. The
meeting is held in a pleasant place and refreshments
are served to create a relaxed environment.
2. The moderator needs objectivity, knowledge of the
subject and the industry, and some understanding of
the group and individual behaviour.
3. The moderator starts with a broad question before mov-
ing to more specific issues, encouraging open and easy
discussion to bring out the true feelings and thoughts.
At the same time, the interviewer focuses on the dis-
cussion, hence the term focus group interviewing.
4. It is often held to help determine the subject areas
on which questions should be asked in a later, large-
scale, structured, direct interview.
5. Comments are recorded through note taking or
­videotaped and studied later (content analysis).
Limitations
1. It is more expensive than a telephonic survey.
2. Group interview studies keep the sample size small
enough to keep the time and cost down. Therefore, it
may be difficult to generalize from the results.
3. There is some possibility of interviewer bias.
Construction of a Research T ool
(Q uestionnaire)
The questionnaire depends upon research ­objectives.
For each objective or research questions, all the
­associated questions that a researcher wants to answer
through the study are listed. Then, the informa-
tion required to answer them is listed and finally the
questions are listed.
Questionnaire-Concept and types
A questionnaire consists of a set of questions presented to
a respondent for answers. The questionnaire is used dur-
ing structured surveys or interviews. The respondents
read the questions, interpret what is expected, and then
write down the answers themselves. It is also called an
interview schedule when the researcher asks the ques-
tions and records the respondent’s reply on the interview
schedule. Here, the researcher may have to explain ques-
tions to the respondents.
There are many options before the researchers to
adopt this method, but questionnaires should be devel-
oped and tested carefully before being administered on
a large scale. There are three basic types of question-
naires, closed-ended, open-ended, and a combination
of both.
1. Closed-ended Questionnaire: Closed-ended question-
naires generally include multiple choice questions or
scale questions. This type of questionnaire can be admin-
istered to a large number of respondents or sample size.
23/12/22 7:15 PM
 2.26
As there is a set format, the data generated from ques-
tionnaire can be easily fed into a computer system for the
purpose of analysis.
2. Open-ended Questionnaire: Open-ended question-
naires offer the flexibility to respondents to answer in
their own words. It may leave a blank section to write
an answer.
  Closed-ended questionnaires might be used to
find out how many people use metro rail service in
New Delhi, but open-ended questionnaires might be
used to find out what people think about the quality
of service.
3. Combined Questionnaire: In this method, it is possi-
ble to find out how many people use a service and what
they think of the service in the same form. The com-
bined questionnaire may begin with a series of closed-
ended questions, with boxes to tick or scales to rank
and then finish with a section of open-ended questions
or a more detailed response.
Step 4: Selecting Samples
If the population under study is small or manageable, then
the data should be collected on each item or entity under
study. But this is rarely the situation in a survey research.
Sampling is required if the universe of population under
study is too large.
A sample may be defined as a representative subset
or cross-section of the population in miniature. It should
homogeneously represent the entire field.
The validity of research results depends upon the qual-
ity of the sample drawn. There are scientific, logical, or
statistical techniques for formulating a sample.
If the sample is biased or lopsided, then the results can-
not be trusted or generalized.
The main benefits of sampling are as follows:
1. Reduction in overall cost of research.
2. Less time-consuming and, in certain cases, it is desir-
able as well.
3. In case the population is consistent, this becomes
even more desirable.
Ideally, a representative sample should be an unbiased
indication of what the population is like. Some of the fac-
tors that researchers consider when selecting a represent-
ative sample include sex, age, educational level, socio-
economic status, and marital status.
For example, if roughly half of the total population
of interest is female, then a sample should be made
up of approximately 50 per cent women in order to be
representative.
In research, the population does not mean only human
population all the times, and it can be factories, schools, etc.
Population is denoted by N and the sample as n.
The factors affecting inferences drawn from a ­sample
are dependent on the following.
1. Sample Size: The larger the sample the more the
accuracy.
M02_MADAN 04_65901_C02.indd 26
Chapter 2
2. Variation in Population: The greater the variation in
population, the greater will be the uncertainty of out-
come. The higher the consistency in population, the
more confident we are about the quality of outcome.
The higher the variations in the population, the larger
should be the sample size.
Types of Sampling T echniques
1. Probability or Random Samples: Each person in
the population has equal, independent, and known
chances of being selected. In case, there are 100
elements in a population, every element has 1/100
chance of being selected in a sampling exercise. Here,
independence means that selection of one element is
neither affected by the selection of other elements nor
will it affect the other elements.
  Though probability or random sampling is mostly
correct, still some error, technically known as ‘Margin
of Error’ cannot be avoided. It can be calculated statis-
tically and accounted for in the results. NET aspirants
can refer to terms such as ‘level of significance’ for a
better idea.
  Now we can discuss the important types of
­probability sampling.
(a) Simple Random Sample: Every element or
member of the population has a known and equal
chance of being selected.
(b)  Stratified Random Sample: In case the popula-
tion is heterogeneous, it can be divided into dif-
ferent strata. The population within a stratum is
homogeneous with respect to the characteristics
under study. Population is divided into mutually
exclusive groups, such as age groups, and random
samples are drawn from each group. The popula-
tion in a particular stratum may be proportionate
to its population. Suppose there are 1000 students
in a college, 600 of them study humanities and 400
pupils study commerce. In a sample of 100, sixty
students will be from humanities and forty from
commerce, i.e., in the same ratio as in the overall
population.
(c) Cluster Sample: A simple and stratified sam-
pling is adopted in situations where the popu-
lation size is small and units are identifiable.
But if the population is larger, the researcher
can go for cluster sampling. The population
is divided into mutually exclusive groups and
the researcher draws a sample of the group to
interview. For example, in a national level sur-
vey, at the first few levels, a few states may be
selected. Within the states, a few districts may
be selected, then within each district, some
blocks may be selected and then villages and
so on. This is termed as ‘multistage cluster
sampling’.
2. Non-probability or Non-random Sampling: It is a
­non-structured sample and items are included in the
study due to some convenience of the researcher,
23/12/22 7:15 PM
 Research Aptitude
etc. This sampling takes less time and is handy. As
all members of population do not get equal chance
of being selected, non-probability sampling may be
­lopsided, loaded with biases and have higher ­margin
of error.
  The types of non-probably sampling have been dis-
cussed as follows:
(a) Convenience Sampling: The researcher selects
the easiest population members from which to
obtain information.
(b) Judgement or Purposive Sampling: The
researcher uses his or her judgement to select
population members who are likely to provide
accurate information. This can be used for his-
torical research or descriptive research.
(c) Quota Sampling: The researcher finds and
interviews a prescribed number of people in
each of several categories. Here, the main crite-
rion used by the researcher is the ease to access
sample population. The sample is selected
from a location convenient to him or her. Here,
there are some possibilities to include people
with some visible characteristics. However,
the results may not be generalized to larger
populations.
(d) Accidental Sampling: It is akin to quota ­sampling,
but it is used in market research (in market places)
where a researcher can come across any person
who may not have any information.
Snowball Sampling: In this kind of sampling,
(e) 
the information may be selected from few indi-
viduals and they may identify other people for
the purpose of gathering information. They may
also become a part of the sample. This creates a
network of sample elements.
Determining Sample Design
Designing the sample calls for three decisions:
1. The sample itself: Who will be surveyed? It further
depends upon what type of information is required.
2. Sample size: How many people should ideally be sur-
veyed? Large samples are likely to give more reliable
results than small samples. However, it has to be a
trade-off between cost and accuracy.
3. Sampling: How should the sample be chosen? Sam-
pling can be done by adopting either probability or
non-probability method.
The sample size for any research study depends upon
four Ps:
1. Purpose: The required precision of study.
2. Population: The size and nature of the population
under study.
3. Procedure: The time, budget, and resources available.
4. Publishing: The importance of the study.
Note: The more heterogeneous or diverse the population,
the bigger should be the sample size.
M02_MADAN 04_65901_C02.indd 27
2.27
Step 5: Writing A Research Proposal
A research proposal is a document of usually three to
seven pages that informs others of a ­proposed piece of
research. This proposed research is usually a master’s or
doctorate thesis, but it can also be a research for a corpo-
rate purpose.
A research proposal is a document written by a
researcher that provides a detailed description of the
proposed program. It is like an outline of the entire
research process that gives the reader a summary of
information discussed in the ­project. Research propos-
als are written for v­ arious reasons, such as a budget
request for the research, certification requirements for
the research, etc.
Main Elements of Research Proposal
1. Need of a specific research project.
2. Benefits and beneficiaries.
3. The type of data to be collected and the means to col-
lect the data.
4. Types of analysis.
5. Help required from other organization, if any.
6. Duration, facilities, and requirement of funds.
7. Profile and credentials of the proposers.
Step 6: Collecting Data
There are many alternatives available to collect relevant
data. The researcher should select one of these methods
of collecting data taking into account the nature of the
investigation, scope and objective of inquiry, financial
cost, availability of time, and the desired accuracy.
Primary data can be collected either through experi-
ment or through survey. If the researcher conducts an
experiment, he will take some quantitative measure-
ments (data). The data are analyzed further to test the
hypothesis.
In case of a survey, data can be collected by any one or
more of the following ways.
1. By Observation: This entails the collection of infor-
mation by way of the investigator’s own obser-
vation without interviewing the respondents.
The information obtained relates to the current
­happenings. This method is very expensive, and
the information gathered in such a manner is
limited. This method is not suitable for research
where large samples are required, as is the case
with quantitative research.
2. Personal Interviews: The investigator follows struc-
tured approach, and the questions are pre-conceived.
Here, the output also depends upon the ability of the
interviewer to a large extent.
3. Telephonic Interviews: This method of collecting
information involves contacting the respondents over
telephone itself. It is used when the survey has to be
accomplished in a very limited time.
23/12/22 7:15 PM
 2.28
4. Mailed Questionnaires: Questionnaires are mailed to
the respondents with a request to return after filling in
the same. It is the most commonly used method in eco-
nomic and business surveys. A pilot study may be con-
ducted for testing the questionnaire to check its appro-
priateness for the purpose.
5. Schedules: In this method, the enumerators are spe-
cially appointed and trained for gathering informa-
tion. Schedules consist of relevant questions. The enu-
merators visit respondents with these schedules, and
are filled up by the enumerators on the basis of replies
given by the respondents.
Some random checking by the supervisors may be
required to ensure the validity of the research process.
Although attention should be given to all these factors,
much depends upon the ability and experience of the
researcher.
Step 7: Processing and Analyzing Data
After collecting the data, the next step is to analyze it.
It requires a number of closely related operations, such as
establishment of categories and the application of these
categories to raw data through coding, tabulation, and
then drawing statistical inferences.
The large data should be condensed into a few manage-
able groups and tables for further a ­ nalysis. This is done
with the help of classification of data into more relevant,
purposeful, and usable ­categories.
1. Editing: The process of cleaning data is called
editing. The purpose of editing is to identify and
minimize errors, miscalculations, misclassifica-
tion, or any gap in information provided by the
respondent. Editing improves the quality of the
data for coding.
2. Coding: It depends upon how a variable has been
measured in your research instrument. For coding, the
first step is to ensure the nature of data, i.e., whether
it is quantitative or qualitative. The qualitative data
may be descriptive about the f­ ollowing details or case
history. For example, categorical or discrete, gender
(male or female), income (below average or above
average), and attitude (strongly favourable, favour-
able, or unfavourable).
Quantitative and categorical information is processed
to be converted into numerical values called codes. It is
usually done at this stage through which the categories
of data are transformed into symbols that may be tabu-
lated and counted. After coding is completed, the data
are tabulated.
The descriptive information goes through a process
called content analysis with the motive of getting an idea
about the ‘themes’ of the descriptive information, such
as an interview. In descriptive or qualitative data, the
researcher may go through the transcription of all inter-
views in which people may use different words to express
the same phenomenon.
M02_MADAN 04_65901_C02.indd 28
Chapter 2
Research Biases
The most formidable challenge in research is to remain
objective and free from biases. There can be a variety of
biases to distort people’s impressions of collected data.
1. External Influences: One’s culture or opinion cre-
ated by media (say social media) can influence people
to accept a particular world view.
2. Personal Bias: This may happen due to personal
beliefs, attributes, or past experiences.
3. Observer Bias: Some events are taken as meaning-
ful by some and not taken meaningful by others.
Researchers themselves were raised in certain cul-
tures and societies. They also have role expectations.
These background factors can affect all the way that
researchers observe and interpret events in their lives.
4. Expectancy Bias: Researchers sometimes expect to
find specific outcomes, they may see (or note) what
they expect to see rather than remain objective.
5. Placebo Bias: It operates when people strongly want
to believe a treatment is successful. For example,
many people may claim to feel better after taking a
placebo such as a sugar pill.
Classification of Data
Classification of data is a process of arranging data in
groups or classes on the basis of common characteristics.
It can be done in the following ways.
Classification According to Attributes
The data can be descriptive (Example: Literacy, sex,
religion, etc.) or numerical (Example: Weight, height,
income, etc.). Further classification can be either simple
classification or manifold classification.
1. Simple Classification: In this classification, we con-
sider only one attribute and divide the universe into
two classes, where one class consists of items possess-
ing the given attribute and the other class consists of
items that do not possess the given ­attribute.
  Example: The number of candidates with MBA
degree is as follows.
Yes No Total
MBA degree 21 09 30
2. Manifold Classification: In this classification, we
consider two or more attributes simultaneously and
divide the data into a number of classes.
  Example: The educational qualification of ­faculty
members is given as follows:
Yes No Total
Gender M F M F M F
PG degree
Ph.D.
23/12/22 7:15 PM
 Research Aptitude
Classification According to Class Intervals
Classification is done with data relating to income, age,
weight, tariff, production, occupancy, etc. Such quanti-
tative data are known as the statistics of variables and
are classified on the basis of class intervals. For example,
people whose income is within `2001 and `4000 can
form one group or class, and those with income within
`4001 and `6000 can form another group or class and so
on. The number of items that fall in a given class is known
as the frequency of the given class.
Tabulation
Tabulation is a part of the technical procedure wherein
the classified data are put in the form of tables. It is the
process of summarizing raw data and displaying the
same in a compact form for further analysis. Mechanical
devices can also be used for this purpose. When data
are really large, computers can be used for tabulation. It
also makes it possible to study large number of ­variables
affecting a problem simultaneously. It is an orderly
arrangement of data in columns and rows. It is essential
because of the following reasons:
1. It conserves space and reduces explanatory and
descriptive statement to a minimum.
2. It facilitates the process of comparison.
3. It facilitates the summation of items and the detection
of errors and omissions.
4. It provides the basis for various statistical
­computations.
Tabulation may also be classified as simple and complex
tabulations. Simple tabulation generally results in a one-
way table that supplies answers to questions about one
characteristic of data only. Complex tabulation usually
results in two-way tables, which give information about
two interrelated characteristics of data. Three-way tables
or still higher order tables are also known as manifold
tables.
Analysis of Data
After tabulation, analysis is done with the help of differ-
ent mathematical and statistical techniques, such as per-
centages, averages, coefficients of correlation, regression
and so on. It largely depends upon whether the data are
qualitative or quantitative.
Qualitative Data Analysis
The analytical approach may be personalized, and there
may be few rigid rules and procedures. ­Generally, the
researcher needs to go through a process called content
analysis. Content ­analysis means analyzing of the con-
tents of an interview in order to identify the main themes
that emerge from responses given by the respondents.
This process involves the following steps:
1. Identify the Main Themes: People use different
words and languages to express themselves, so we
need to understand the main theme. The researcher
needs to understand the descriptive responses given
by respondents to each question.
M02_MADAN 04_65901_C02.indd 29
2.29
2. Assign Codes to the Main Themes: Assigning codes
is required when the researcher wants to count the
number of times a theme has emerged in an interview.
3. Classify Responses Under the Main Themes:
Having identified the themes, the next step is to go
through the transcripts of all the interviews and clas-
sify the responses under different themes.
4. Integrate Themes and Responses into the Text of
Your Report: Having identified the responses that fall
under different themes, the next step is to integrate
the themes and responses into the text of your report.
It entirely depends upon the way the researcher wants
to communicate the findings to the readers.
Quantitative Data Analysis
This method is most suitable for large, well-designed and
well-administered surveys using properly constructed
and worded questionnaire. Data can be analyzed either
manually or with the help of a computer.
1. Manual data analysis: This can be done if the num-
ber of respondents is reasonably small and if there
are not many variables to analyze. However, this is
useful only for calculating frequencies and for sim-
ple cross-tabulations. Manual data analysis is time
consuming. The easiest way to do this is to code it
directly onto a large graph paper in columns.
2. Data analysis using a computer: If you want to ana-
lyze the data using computer, you should be familiar
with the appropriate program. In this area, knowledge
of computer and statistics plays an important role.
The most common software is SPSS for w ­ indows.
However, data input can be a long and laborious
process, and if data are entered incorrectly, it will
influence the final results.
In the process of analysis, relationships or differences,
supporting or conflicting with original or new hypothesis,
should be subjected to tests of significance to determine
with what validity the data can be said to indicate any
conclusions.
Testing of Hypothesis
We have discussed all major aspects of research. In step
1, the focus was on basics. Now, being familiar with all
concepts in the process, in step 7, we have tried to explain
the concept with an example. The questions in NTA NET
Exam have been asked on hypothesis, errors, skewness,
normalisation etc. So, we need to be more comprehen-
sive, but without being too much technical as that kind of
discussion is beyond the scope of syllabus.
Population Parameter and Sample Statistic: The value
assumed about population is called as ‘population param-
eter’. The value of a statistic obtain from the sample can
be taken as an estimate of the population parameter. The
value obtained about the sample can be termed as ‘sample
statistic’. The population standard deviation is used if it is
known, otherwise the sample standard deviation is used
for calculation purposes. We not putting formulas as they
are not part of syllabus.
23/12/22 7:15 PM
 2.30
Example: We are comparing past performance of stu-
dents who have taken coaching with the performance of
present students who have completed it now. The ‘sam-
ple’ of present students will be collected. The past marks
of students were actually 80 (or they might have been
assumed to be 80). In general, we know that coaching has
positive impact on performance of students. Null hypoth-
esis assumes that there is ‘NO’ such benefit (impact) of
coaching as the word ‘null’ itself indicates this as per the-
ory discussion earlier.
Null hypothesis (Ho) = 80 marks
The data of 80 marks may be available actually or may be
assumed (set hypothetically) as per situation.
Alternative hypothesis (Ha): It states that marks of
present students are not equal to 80 marks.
It means that coaching has an impact on the performance
of students, in positive or negative direction.
We collect data from a sample of 40 students in the
school. As per ‘standard deviation’ and ‘level of significance’,
we keep a range of +/– 3 from 80 marks. It means 77 to 83
is the ‘flexible’ range set. If students get between 77 to 83
marks, then coaching has not benefited them. They actually
fall within ‘acceptance region’, and thus null hypothesis is
accepted. It means null hypothesis is accepted, and marks
of the students tally with the past or assumed performance.
If marks are ‘less than 77’OR‘more than 83’, they will
fall in the ‘rejection region’. It means null hypothesis
is rejected (or ‘alternative hypothesis’ is accepted) and
coaching has an impact on the performance of students.
The impact may be positive (if marks > 83) or negative
(if marks < 77). We make use of some statistical tests to
make such calculations.
conclusion from
statistical analysis
Accept the Null Reject the Null
Null hypothesis
is true Type I Error
Correct
reject a true null
Conclustion
hypothesis
the true state
of nature
Type II Error
Correct
accept a false null
Conclustion
Null hypotheis hypothesis
is false
Directional and Non directional Tests: The above cal-
culation was done as per ‘two-tailed’ test. They reflect ‘=’
sign. These can be stated as ‘non-directional’ tests.
There can be one-tailed tests also to show the situation
with < or > signs. These can be termed as ‘directional’
tests.
In a formal manner, we can say that
1. A directional test makes assumption about one tailed
test, while a non-directional test is two-tailed test.
M02_MADAN 04_65901_C02.indd 30
Chapter 2
2. Directional hypothesis measures the direction of vari-
ation of two variables. This effect of one variable on
the other variable can be in positive direction or in
negative direction. Non-directional hypothesis does
not indicate the kind of effects but only shows the
relation between two variables.
Sampling Errors: When we talk about samples, errors
some may erupt into testing of hypothesis. There are two
types of errors.
1. a(Alpha) is the probability of Type I error in any test
of hypothesis. It incorrectly rejects the null hypoth-
esis. Alpha is also called as ‘Level of Significance’. It
may be set as 1%, 5% or 10%. For example, a signifi-
cance level of 0.05 indicates 5% risk (probability) of
concluding that a difference exists when there is no
actual difference.
2. b(Beta) is the probability of Type II error in any test-
ing of hypothesis. It incorrectly fails to reject the null
hypothesis.
The errors can be of categorised into following types
also.
1. Sampling Errors: Errors caused by the act of taking a
sample. It makes samples inaccurate.
2. Random Sampling Errors: These errors are caused
by a ‘chance factor’ in selecting a ‘random sample’.
The random sampling is basically done to ensure
objectivity and unbiasedness in samples.
3. Non-sampling Errors: These errors are not related
to the act of selecting a sample from the population.
They can be present in a census.
Sample Size:
Small Sample Test: If sample size is less than 30, it is
called as small sample test. The best example is ‘student’s
t-test’.
Large Sample Test: If sample size is more than 30, it is
called as large sample test. The best example is ‘z-test’.
The basic difference between these two test is in
changes in formulas.
Parametric and Non-parametric Tests:
1. Parametric Tests: A parametric statistical test is
one that makes ‘assumptions’ about the population
parameters. For example, the value of arithmetic
mean was assumed to be 80 in the example. The value
of 80 about the population can be actual or assumed.
The sample data is collected on the same basis.
  T-test, Z-test, ANOVA, and Correlation Coefficient
are the main examples of parametric tests.
  The value assumed about population is called as
‘population parameter’. The value of a statistic obtain
from the sample can be taken as an estimate of the
population parameter. The value obtained about the
sample can be termed as ‘sample statistic’.
2. Non-parametric Tests: A non-parametric test is one
that makes no such assumption about population
parameter. Non-parametric tests are ‘distribution-free’
23/12/22 7:15 PM
 Research Aptitude 2.31

and, as such, can be used for non-normal variables. In

Mode
such cases, skewness and kurtosis may deviate a lot Mode
Median Median
from the normal distribution.
Mean Mean
 Chi-square test, Wilcoxon signed rank test,
Friedman test, Goodman Kruska’s Gamma, Mann–
Whitney test, and Spearman Rank Correlation are the
main examples of non-parametric tests.
  Non-parametric tests are more suitable for qualita- Left-Skewed (Negative Skewness) Right-Skewed (Positive Skewness)
tive research studies.
2. Kurtosis: While skewness focuses on the overall shape,
Difference between Parametric and Non-parametric Kurtosis focuses on the tail shape. Kurtosis is a measure
Tests of how differently shaped are the tails of a distribution
as compared to the tails of the normal distribution.
Non-parametric Parametric Kurtosis is the fourth standardized central moment,
• C
 an be used on ordinal • U
 sed mainly on interval thus it is always positive. Kurtosis values can range from
and nominal scale and ratio scale data. 1 to +∞. The kurtosis of a normal distribution is 3.
data (although also on There are three situations in Kurtosis.
internal and ratio scale).
• C
 an be used on small • T
 end to need larger 1. Platykurtic: When K< 3, it is called as platykurtic
samples. samples. (less ‘peakedness’ and weaker ‘tails’)
2. Leptokurtic: When K > 3, it is leptokurtic (more peak-
• C
 an be used on data • D
 ata should fit a edness and heavy tails)
that are not normally particular distribution; 3. Mesokurtic: When k = 3, it is called as mesokurtic
distributed. the data can be (moderate in height and breadth)
transformed to that
distribution. Leptokurtic
Distribution
• C
 an be used where the • S
 amples should be
samples are not selected drawn randomly from Mesokurtic
Distribution
randomly. the population.
• H
 ave less power than the • More powerful than non- Platykurtic
Distribution
equivalent parametric test. parametric equivalent.
Source: Saga research methods

Requirement of Normal distribution:

If we look at the first figure, it has the ‘normally distri-
bution’, where mean, median and mode carry the same
value. It is symmetric in nature. Somehow errors come
in due to different reasons. Statistical theory assume
that the underlying data is normally distributed. Thus,
researchers try to achieve normal distribution. It helps us
in rectifying many errors.
Skewness and Kurtosis: The ‘Skewness’ and ‘Kurtosis’ show
the different aspects of same distribution.The interested stu-
dents may go through this piece of information, though their
detailed discussion is beyond the scope of syllabus.
1. Skewness: It helps us know by how much the ‘overall
shape of a distribution’ deviates from the ‘normal dis-
tribution’, it is actually lack of symmetry from the nor-
mal distribution. Skewness isthe third standardized
central moment. Skewness of the normal distribution
is zero. The term skewness means lack of symmetry
from the normal distribution. The study of measure of
skewness, thus becomes is important to guard against
any variation from normal distribution. If the value of
mean is greater than that of mode, skewness is posi-
tive in nature. If the value of mean is less than that of
mode, it is negative in nature.
Stopover
A researcher administers an achievement test to assess
and indicate the possible effect of an independent
variable in his/her study. The distribution of scores
on the tests is to be negatively skewed. On the basis of
this, what can be stated with regard to difficulty level
of the test ? (June 2020).
(a) The test level is very easy.
(b) The test is very difficult.
(c) The test is neither easy nor difficult.
(d) The test is easy and needs normalisation.
The correct answer is (d).
In this scenario, we need to ensure ‘normalisation’.It
means that normal ‘symmetrical’distributionis required
to get better results. As given in question statement, there
are independent (anddependent) variables, it should be
more standardised to see the effect of one set of variables
on other. Even if it is negatively skewed (or positively
skewed), some mathematical formula and techniques
should be adopted to remove skewness and bring in nor-
malisation. We can’t say that negative skewness is worse
than the positive skewness or vice versa in this case. It’s

M02_MADAN 04_65901_C02.indd 31 23/12/22 7:15 PM

 2.32 Chapter 2

a question of direction only. The method for converting Chapter II Research Design
negative or positive skewed distribution into the ‘normal’ Chapter III Data Analysis and Interpretation
one may be different. Chapter IV Summary and Conclusion.
Suggestions for Further Research
G eneralizations and I nterpretation
References/Bibliography
If a hypothesis is tested and upheld several times, it may Appendices
be possible for the researcher to arrive at generalization, Appendix I Questionnaire for Employees
i.e., building a theory. As a matter of fact, the real value Appendix II Questionnaire for Managers
of research lies in its ability to arrive at certain generali-
zations. If the researcher had no hypothesis to start with, List of Tables
he might seek to explain his findings on the basis of some This section includes the title and page numbers of
theory. It is known as interpretation. The process of inter- all tables.
pretation may trigger new questions, which in turn may
lead to further researches. Example
Table No. Title Page No.
Step 8: Writing A Research Report 1. Income levels of ­respondents
Writing a report is the last and, for many, the most dif- 2. Age distribution of respondents
ficult step of the research process. The report informs
the world what you have done, what you have dis-
covered, and what conclusions you have drawn from List of Figures
your findings. The report should be written in an aca- This section contains the title and page numbers of all
demic style. The language should be formal and not graphs, pie charts, etc.
journalistic.
Example
Stopover Figure No. Title Page No.
The process not needed in experimental research is:

1. Pie chart showing the age
(a) Observation
distribution of respondents
(b) Manipulation and replication
(c) Controlling 2. Bar graph showing the
(d) Reference collection popularity of menu items
The correct option is (b).
Acknowledgement
In this section, the researcher may ­acknowledge the insti-
Research Report Format tute, principal, faculty guides (both research guide and
Traditional written reports tend to be produced in the fol- technical guide), research participants, friends, etc.
lowing format.
Introduction
Title Page This section introduces the research, setting out the
1. Title of the research project main aims and objectives. It is actually a rationale for the
2. Name of the researcher research.
3. Purpose of the research project
Theoretical Framework and Review of Literature
For example, ‘A research project submitted on p
­ artial
fulfilment of the requirements of XYZ University, This section includes all the background research informa-
New Delhi, for the degree of ____________’. tion that has been obtained from the literature review. You
4. Date of publication must indicate from where all the information was obtained.
Thus, it is mandatory to keep a complete record of every-
thing the researcher has read. Otherwise, there are chances
Table of Contents that the researcher could be accused of plagiarism, which is
In this section, the contents of the report, either in chap- akin to intellectual theft.
ters or in subheadings, are listed.
Research Design
Example This section includes all practical details followed for the
Contents Page No. research. After reading this, any interested party should
Introduction be able to replicate the research study. It includes the
Chapter I Theoretical Framework and Review of Related methods used for data collection, sampling procedures,
Literature tools used for data collection, and analysis of data.

M02_MADAN 04_65901_C02.indd 32 23/12/22 7:15 PM

 Research Aptitude 2.33

Critical values for a

non-directional test
(two-tailed test with a = .05

Acceptance region

Rejection region Rejection region

a = .0250 a = .0250

-3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3
Arithmetic Mean
-1.96 = Median 1.96
= Mode

We expect the
sample mean to
HA: Students be equal to the HA: Students
scoring less population mean. scoring more
than 77 marks. than 83 marks.

m = 80 m = 80

m = 80
HA: Students
who do not
score 80
Normal Symmetric Distribution

Data Analysis and Interpretation Suggestions for Further Research

If you have conducted a large quantitative survey, this sec-
tion may contain tables, graphs, pie charts, and associ-
ated statistics. If you have conducted a qualitative piece of
research, this section may be a descriptive prose.
Summary and Conclusion
In this section, you sum up your findings and draw conclu-
sions from them, perhaps in relation to other research or
literature.
Recommendations
If the research has been conducted for any client organi-
zation, this section could be treated as the most important
part of the report. Sometimes, this section is included at
the beginning of the report.
Research is a continuous process. This section shows
how research could be continued. This could hap-
pen as some results are inconclusive or the research
itself has thrown up many more research questions
that need to be addressed. It also shows the honesty
and integrity of the researcher–that he has a wider
perspective and has actually not tried to cover up the
shortcomings.
List of References/Bibliography
The list of references contains only the details of those
works that have been cited in the text. It includes sources
not cited in the main text, but those that are relevant to
the subject of study, specifically in case of larger disserta-
tions or theses. Small research projects may need just a

M02_MADAN 04_65901_C02.indd 33 23/12/22 7:15 PM

 2.34 Chapter 2

reference section to include all the literature that has been Certificate
referred to in the report.
Certified that this research project titled _____________
For Books _____________________ is the bona fide record of work
1. Authors’ surname (alphabetically), followed by their carried out by __________ for final year __________.
initials.
2. Date of publication. Technical guide Research coordinator Principal
3. Title of the book in italics.
Place __________  Date __________
4. Place of publication and publisher.

For Journal Articles

The title of the article appears in inverted commas and
the name of the journal comes in italics, followed by the
volume number and pages of the article.
Example
Madaan. KVS. ‘Influence of British Rule on Indian Culture’.
Journal of Tourism. 10–18.
Appendices
This is specifically required in case of questionnaires or
interview schedules made for conducting the research; it
may be useful to include them in the report as an appendix.
Appendices do not count towards your total number
of pages or words. It is a useful way of including relevant
material so that the examiner can gain a deeper under-
standing of your work by reading it.
Format and Styles of Referencing
A referencing style is a set of rules that tell you how to
acknowledge the thoughts, ideas, and works of others in
a particular way.
Referencing plays a crucial role in the following:
1. Successful academic writing.
2. Avoiding plagiarism.
3. Key to your assignments and research.
Earlier, after the last step of research steps, we discussed
‘Research Report Format’ that may vary somewhat
according to university as well. Different types of sources
have different formatting requirements in the bibliogra-
phy. Background research plan and bibliography work-
sheet help in the development of bibliography.

Dissertation and Thesis

A dissertation culminates in a postgraduate degree such as MS/M.Tech./M.Sc./M.Phil., whereas a t­ hesis leads
to a doctoral degree (Europe and India). In American universities, a dissertation leads to a Ph.D. degree and a thesis
leads to a master’s degree. We will adhere to the former one.
In a dissertation, it is adequate if one has a decent knowledge of the new discoveries in order to arrive at the con-
clusion effectively. In a thesis, one has to substantiate the hypothesis with original research work. The hypothesis or
the ‘synopsis’ should contain the gist of the new findings one has made on the subject of research. The written thesis
should contain all the details of original research work that one has done on the subject. A thesis may be subjected to
scrutiny for any plagiarism to determine the originality of the effort. Another finite difference between the two is that,
in a thesis, analysis of the existing literature is added, whereas a dissertation by itself is an analysis of the existing
literature. The differences between a dissertation and a thesis are given below.
1. A researcher has to utilize the already collected information in order to prepare a dissertation, whereas thesis is
based on the research conducted entirely by the researcher.
2. A thesis is lengthier and takes more time to be completed, whereas a dissertation is short. Therefore, it does not
consume too much time to be completed.
3. In a thesis, the researcher has to include a hypothesis based on the research work. In contrast to a thesis, in a
dissertation, the researcher should have a decent knowledge of the new discoveries in order to infer conclusions
effectively.
4. In a thesis, the researcher has to focus on the primary argument in order to prove the standpoint to the readers.
Conversely, a dissertation focuses on background work.
5. In a master’s dissertation, the researcher has to utilize the research work in order to prove his point. In case of a
Ph.D. thesis, the researcher has to add novel findings to the existing literature.
6. A thesis is written as an academic research paper, whereas a dissertation is more like an academic book.
7. The data collected in a dissertation is a based upon the hypothetical analysis of contents, whereas a thesis is com-
prised of theory and argumentation based on original research.
The structure of a dissertation and thesis writing is normally described in a university’s students’ handbook.

M02_MADAN 04_65901_C02.indd 34 23/12/22 7:15 PM

 Research Aptitude 2.35

There are standards for documenting sources of infor-
mation in research papers. Even though different journals
may use a slightly different format for the bibliography,
they all contain the same basic information. The most
basic information is that each reference should have the
author’s name, the title, the date, and the source.
In research areas, the two most commonly used
guidelines for this formatting are published by the MLA
(Modern Language Association) and the APA (American
Psychological Association). The MLA guidelines call the
bibliography ‘works cited’.
The APA guidelines call the bibliography Reference List.
APA article Author, A. A., Author, B. B., and
from a Author, C. C. (Year). Title of article.
database Title of Periodical, volume number
(issue number), pages. DOI
APA Website Author, A. A., and Author, B. B. (Date
of publication). Title of document.
Retrieved date, from name of Website,
http://Web address
MLA article Author, First name. ‘Title of Article.’
from a Title of Journal Volume. Issue (Year):
database pages. Name of database. Web. Date
of access.
MLA Website Editor, author, or compiler name.
Name of Site. Version number.
Institution/organization affiliated
with the site, date of resource creation.
Web. Date of access.
APA Style MLA Style
The other popular styles are given as follows:
Abbreviation Full Name
ACS American Chemical Society
AGLC Australian Guide to Legal Citation
AMA American Medical Association
AMJ Academy of Management style
CMS Chicago Manual of Style
CSE (CBE) Council of Science Editors/Council of
Biology Editors
Harvard
IEEE Institute of Electrical and Electronics
Engineers
Vancouver
Chicago/Turabian style is generally used for business,
history, and the fine arts.
The Indian National Bibliography has been conceived as
an authoritative bibliographical record of current Indian
publications in Assamese, Bengali, English, Gujarati,
Hindi, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Oriya, Punjabi,
Sanskrit, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu languages, received in
the National Library, Kolkata, under the Delivery of Books
and Newspapers (Public Libraries) Act, 1954.
The main entries are in Roman script and the collations
and annotations, if any, are in English. The classified por-
tion follows the Dewey Decimal Scheme of Classification,
but the numbers from the Colon Classification scheme are
assigned to each entry at the bottom right hand to facili-
tate the use of the bibliography and libraries arranged
according to the Colon Schemes of Classification. The
Indian National Bibliography and Central Reference
Library fall under the supervision of Ministry of Culture,
Government of India.

Used in social sciences Used in humanities

The title is in italics – only the
most necessary words are put
in capital letters.
The source page is titled as
‘references’ or reference links.
Here, only the last name of
author is used.
Author’s name and year of
publication is used for ‘in-text’
citations.
Commas are used for ‘in-text’
citations.
The title is underlined, Main Terms Used in Context of Footnotes
all major words are
and Reference Writing
capitalized.
1) Ibid is the abbreviation for the Latin word, Ibidem,
Source page is titled which means the same. It refers to the same author and
‘works cited’ source (Examples: Book and journal) in the immedi-
ately preceding reference.
Here, it is the full 2) op. cit. is the abbreviation for the Latin term, opus
name. citatum, meaning the work cited. It refers to the refer-
ence listed earlier by the same author.
Here, it is author’s 3) Loc. cit. is the abbreviation for the Latin origin loco
name and page citato, meaning in the place cited. It is a footnote or
numbers. endnote term used to repeat the title and page number
for a given work.
No use of commas. 4) et. al. refers to and others, where it is used for refer-
ring to a number of people.

M02_MADAN 04_65901_C02.indd 35 23/12/22 7:15 PM

 2.36
Shodhganga and Shodhgangotri: Shodhganga is
the name coined to denote the digital repository
of Indian electronics thesis and dissertations set up by
Information and Library Network (INFLIBNET) Centre,
an autonomous inter-university centre (IUC) of the
University Grants Commission. Now, the candidates
will have to store the thesis in a compact disc (CD) and
upload each chapter in a separate PDF file using the
naming convention as prescribed by Shodhganga. The
CD must be authenticated by the Supervisor/Head of
Department.
INFLIBNET introduced Shodhgangotri, which has been
built to maintain a database of synopsis of on-going
M.Phil./Ph.D. in Indian universities and institutions.
Turnitin is an American commercial, Internet-based
plagiarism detection service.
Application of ICT Tools on Research
Process
Use of ICT in research is very extensive, where nowadays
it is difficult to conceive a scientific research project with-
out it.
Many research studies cannot be carried out without the
use of computers and specifically ICT that entails complex
computations, data analysis, and modelling. Computer in
scientific research is used at all stages of study, from pro-
posal/budget stage to submission/presentation of findings.
Statistical Analysis Tool: The acronym SPSS stands for
Statistical Package for Social Sciences. The latest version
of SPSS is IBM SPSS STATISTICS 20 (purchased by IBM
after version 19). It provides the following attributes:
1. Provides data view and variable view measures of
central tendency and dispersion
2. Statistical inference
3. Correlation and regression analysis
4. Analysis of variance
5. Non-parametric test
6. Hypothesis tests: t-test, chi-square, z-test, ANOVA,
Bipartite variable, etc.
7. Multivariate data analysis
8. Frequency distribution
9. Data exposition by using various graphs, like line,
scatter, bar, Ogive, histogram, pie chart….
Data A nalysis T ool: Spreadsheet Packages
Since ICT has become an indispensable tool for research,
various content has been picked from w­ ebsites to throw
some information on it. A spreadsheet is a computer
application that simulates a paper worksheet. It dis-
plays multiple cells that together make up a grid con-
sisting of rows and columns, each cell containing either
alphanumeric text or numeric values.
M02_MADAN 04_65901_C02.indd 36
Chapter 2
Microsoft Excel is a popular spreadsheet software. The
other spreadsheet packages are Lotus 1-2-3,
Quattro Pro, Javelin Plus, Multiplan, VisiCalc,
SuperCalc, Plan Perfect, etc.
Other Statistical Tools
SAS, S-PLUS, LISREL, EViews, etc.
Word Processor Packages
A word processor (document preparation system) is an
ICT application used for the production (including com-
position, editing, formatting, and possibly printing) of
any sort of printable material.
The word processing packages are Microsoft Word,
WordStar, WordPerfect, Softward, AKHAR (Gujarati),
Ami Pro, etc.
Presentation Software
A presentation program is a computer software package
used to display information, normally in the form of a slide
show. It typically includes three major functions: an editor
that allows text to be inserted and formatted, a method for
inserting and manipulating graphic images, and a slide
show system to display the content.
The presentation packages are Microsoft Powerpoint,
Lotus Freelance Graphics, Corel Presentations, Apple
Keynote, etc.
Database Management Packages (dbms)
Database is an organized collection of information. DBMS
is a software designed to manage the database.
The various desktop databases are Microsoft Access,
Paradox, dBase or dBase III+, FoxBASE, FoxPro/ Visual
FoxPro, and FileMaker Pro.
The commercial database servers that supports
multiuser are Oracle, MS SQL Server, Sybase, Ingres,
Informix, DB2 UDB (IBM), Unify, Integral, etc.
The open source database packages are MySQL,
PostgreSQL, Firebird, etc.
Browsers
A web browser is a software application which enables
a user to display and interact with text, images, vid-
eos, music, games, and other information typically by
accessing a web page found on a website which is col-
lectively provided in the world wide web or a local area
network.
Some examples of browsers are Microsoft Internet
Explorer, Mozilla Firefox, Opera, Netscape Navigator,
Chrome (Google browser), Safari, etc.
Tools T hrough Internet
• Search engines (To search the information)
• Google (Popular search engine)
• Yahoo!
• WebCrawler
• Excite
• AltaVista
23/12/22 7:15 PM
 Research Aptitude
Online Data/Documentation Management
(To Manage Documents Online)
• Dropbox
• Google Drive
• Google Docs
• MS SkyDrive (Free)
• Microsoft 365 (Paid version)
Online Data Collection
(To Collect Data Online from Different Users)
• Online forms - Online questionnaires
• Online surveys
• Collaboration tools
• Skype : Voice and video conferencing
• Google Hangouts : Voice and video conferencing
Modern Research Tools
Modern electronic research tools, like Zotero and
Evernote, make the collection of research data and col-
laboration between colleagues possible, which in the past
would have been difficult, expensive, or even impossible.
They also save a great amount of time citing and creating
bibliographies. Evernote allows the user to capture digi-
tal content, including web pages, PDF files, or snippets of
web pages, organize them, annotate them, share them,
publish them, and search them.
Research Ethics
Ethics are the principles and guidelines that help us
uphold the things we value. Ethics and law are differ-
ent aspects, although laws of the land are intended to be
based on certain ethics. Almost all societies have legal
rules to govern certain behaviour in a country or society,
but ethical norms tend to be broader and more infor-
mal than laws. An action may be legal, but unethical
or illegal, but ethical. Ethics aim to achieve two funda-
mental objectives, i.e., to tell us how we ought to act in
a given situation and to provide us with strong reasons
for doing so.
Ethics always emerge from a conflict between values,
and research ethics are not an exception. In research,
these conflicts may take different forms, such as par-
ticipant’s concern for privacy versus some justifica-
tion for manipulation, openness and replication versus
M02_MADAN 04_65901_C02.indd 37
2.37
confidentiality, present loss versus future benefits and
so on. Each decision made in research involves a poten-
tial compromise of one value for another. However,
researchers must still try to minimize the risk to par-
ticipants, colleagues, and society while trying to opti-
mize the quality of outcome. Research ethics help us to
reconcile value conflicts.
The benefits of observing ethics in research studies are
as follows:
1. It helps in promoting the aims of research, such as
bringing out the truth and avoidance of errors.
2. It promotes the values that are essential to collab-
orative work, such as trust, accountability, mutual
respect, and fairness.
3. It holds the researcher accountable to the public and
society.
4. It helps in building public support for research, which
in return can help in getting participants who take
part in the research willingly.
Main A pproaches to Research Ethics
The following are the three major approaches to ethics:
1. Deontological Approach: We should identify and
use a universal code in making ethical decisions. This
is an absolutist approach.
2. Ethical Scepticism Approach: It states that ethical
standards are not universal, but are relative to one’s
own particular culture and time. This is based on
relativism.
3. Utilitarianism Approach: This can be taken as the
modern version of the end justifying the means.
Research decisions are based on utilitarian cost
-benefit analysis. Some comparison may be done.
If the expected benefits exceed the expected risks,
the study is presumed to be ethical. Sometimes
the issue may be of potential harm to human life
or animal life, thus such qualitative issues become
crucial for the purpose of taking research decisions.
Some Desirable Elements to Ensure
E thics in Research
The following is a general summary of some research
ethical guidelines and principals that various codes
address.
23/12/22 7:15 PM
 2.38
Honesty in reporting data, results, methods and
1 procedures, and publication status.
Objectivity to avoid bias in experimental design,
2 data analysis, interpretation, and peer review.
Integrity, acting with sincerity, and striving for
3 consistency of thought and action.
Carefulness to avoid careless errors and
4 negligence and proper documentation of
all aspects.
Openness in sharing data, results, ideas, tools,
5 and resources and openness to criticisms and
new ideas.
Respect for intellectual property rights, such
6 as patents, copyrights and other forms of
intellectual property.
Confidentiality in context of communications,
7 ­personal records, and privacy issues.
Responsible publication, with the aim to serve
8 the society. Avoiding wasteful and duplicative
publication.
Responsible mentoring in terms of guiding
9 research students.
Respect for colleagues translates to extending
10 fair treatment to colleagues.
Social responsibility means to serve the society
11 and different stakeholders.
Non-discrimination against colleagues or
12 students on the basis of sex, race, or factors that
are not related to their scientific competence and
integrity.
Enhancing competence for own professional
13 advancement or lifelong learning and taking steps
to promote competence in science as a whole.
Ensuring legality of the whole process by
14 obeying relevant laws, i.e., institutional and
governmental policies.
15 Animal care through proper experimental designs.
Stakeholders in Research
There are three stakeholders in the research process,
namely the participants or subjects, the researcher, and
the funding organization.
M02_MADAN 04_65901_C02.indd 38
Chapter 2
Ethical Issues Relating to Participants
There are many ethical issues in relation to participants
of a research activity. One of the most commonly cited
ethical principles is that we should not cause harm to
our research participants. The issue of ethics in research
mainly caught the attention of policy makers as a result of
many gruesome instances, few of which have been men-
tioned below.
1. Medical experiments conducted by Nazi doctors in Ger-
man concentration camps in the 1930s. Nazi doctors in
German concentration camps killed twin gypsy teenag-
ers while conducting experiments in order to determine
why some of them had differently coloured eyes.
2. A South African oncologist experimented with women
suffering from cancer, administering excessive dos-
ages of chemotherapeutics without informing the
patients and taking their due consent.
3. Ethical issues during organ transplant, s­terilization
and so on.
4. Experiments on animals.
In research, specifically in medical sciences, the obser-
vance of ethics is very crucial. Even now, when phar-
maceutical companies want to conduct clinical trials in
underdeveloped or developing countries, this issue crops
up again and again. It is a general understanding that eth-
ical research issues are more moral than legal.
Apart from physical injury, the psychological distress
or emotional harm, loss of self-esteem, being persuaded
to conduct morally ­reprehensible acts, and hampering
one’s physical, intellectual, or emotional development are
other important concerns.
We must also be careful about the security of our
research records, so that respondents may not be identi-
fied or otherwise harmed through loss of confidentiality.
During the initial phase of medical research history,
people participating in trials were referred to as research
subjects. Now, they are known as trial participants. Now,
their role has transformed from a passive subject to that of
an active participant. Thus, we can see that research eth-
ics are basically about means of ensuring that vulnerable
people are protected from exploitation and other forms of
harm. The ethical issues are to be observed at every stage
of a research process.
1. Collecting Information: Before a researcher actually
collects information, his request for information may put
pressure or create anxiety on a respondent, and this may
not be ethical. However, without research, there will be
no intellectual progress or development in the society. A
researcher is required to improve the conditions by con-
sidering various points in the ensuing discussion.
2. Seeking Consent of Participants: Informed consent
refers to an individual’s willingness to participate in
a study. Individuals who provide informed consent
have been made aware of the design and procedures
with enough detail to exercise a rational decision to
participate.
3. Providing Incentives: Most people do not partici-
pate in a study because of incentives, but they are
23/12/22 7:15 PM
 Research Aptitude
motivated because of the importance of the study.
Giving a gift before data collection is not ethical on
the part of a researcher.
4. Seeking Sensitive Information: Some pieces of
information can be regarded as sensitive or confi-
dential by some people. This may be akin to invading
their privacy. Seeking such information may upset
them. Questions on income, age, marital status, etc.,
may be considered intrusive.
  However, it may not be unethical to enquire if the
participants need explanation before the research
and if they are given sufficient time to decide if they
want to participate without any major inducement.
5. Possibility of Causing Harm to the Participants:
When you collect data from the respondents or involve
subjects in an experiment, you need to examine care-
fully whether their involvement is likely to harm them
in any way. Harm may include the use of chemicals,
drugs, discomfort, anxiety, harassment, invasion of
privacy, or demeaning or dehumanizing procedures.
Even after the consent, the researcher must make sure
that the risk is minimal.
6. Maintaining Confidentiality: In case the researcher
has to identify the respondent as information needs to
be sought more than once, sharing information about
a respondent with others for purposes other than
research is not ethical, and the information provided
by the respondent should at least be kept anonymous.
Ethical Issues Relating to the Researcher
1. Avoiding Bias: Objectivity in research means to avoid
bias in the research process as it is considered unethi-
cal. Bias means a deliberate attempt to either hide
facts or to under-represent or over-represent them. It
may undermine the truth.
2. Provision or Deprivation of a Treatment: This is
specifically true in case of medical research. Is it ethi-
cal to provide a study population with an intervention
or treatment that has not yet been conclusively proven
effective? Thus, it imposes an ethical dilemma before
researchers. Informed consent, minimum risk, and
frank discussion can help resolve the ethical issues.
3. Using Inappropriate Research M ­ ethodology: The
deliberate use of a highly biased sample, method, or
procedure is unethical.
4. Incorrect Reporting: This can be done to advance
the interests of the researcher.
5. Inappropriate Use of the Information: Sometimes,
it is possible to harm individuals in the process of
achieving benefits for the organization. An example
would be a study to help in the formulation of a pol-
icy by the organization. New policy may not serve
the interests of certain individuals, but may be good
for the organization as such. Should you ask respon-
dents for information that is likely to be used against
them?
Some of the key terms used in the context of ethical issues
concerning researchers are as follows:
M02_MADAN 04_65901_C02.indd 39
2.39
1. Fabricating Behaviour: Creation of spurious data by
researcher, their recording, and drawing inferences.
2. Falsification: It manipulates the research material,
equipment, and processes or changes or omits data or
results such that the research is not accurately repre-
sented in the research records.
3. Plagiarism: It is the act of appropriating somebody
else’s ideas, thoughts, pictures, theories, words,
or stories and presenting those as your own. If a
researcher plagiarizes the work of others, the integ-
rity, ethics, and trustworthiness of the sum total of his
or her research becomes questionable. Plagiarism is
both illegal and a punishable act and is considered to
be on the same level as stealing from the author who
originally created it. It can take the following forms:
(a)  Intra-corpal: A case of plagiarism where one
student has copied from another in the same sub-
mission is known as intra-corpal plagiarism.
(b)  Extra-corpal: It is an instance of plagiarism where
a student has copied the material from an external
source (Example: Books, journal article, world
wide web, etc.).
(c)  Autoplagiarism: It is citing one’s own work with-
out acknowledgement.
4. Multiple Authorship: There can be many impropri-
eties in authorship. Improper assignment of credit,
such as excluding other authors, inclusion of others
as authors who have not made a definite contribution
towards the work published, or submission of multi-
authored publication without the knowledge of all
the authors.
5. Peer Review: It is the process in which an author
submits a written manuscript or an article to a jour-
nal for publication. The journal editor distributes
the article to experts or reviewers. The peer review
process seldom proceeds in a straight line. The entire
process may involve several rounds of communica-
tion between the editor, the reviewers, and the origi-
nal author before an article is ready for publication.
  The two most important ethics in the process are
maintaining confidentiality and the protection of
intellectual property. Reviewers and author should
not know the names of each other. Only then, the
peer review process can be genuinely open and ben-
eficial. None in the process can publicly disclose the
information in the article or use the information in a
submitted article for personal gain.
6. Duplicate and Partial Publication: It is publishing the
same data and same results in more than one publica-
tion or journal. This is unethical, but may be acceptable
in certain cases, such as publishing results in a jour-
nal to provide research participants with a summary
of the results. Partial publication involves publishing
parts of your results in different journals. It is specifi-
cally unethical for a small, focused study. However, in
case of large studies with many variables, this may be
acceptable as different publications involve different
research questions and different data, and this actually
advances the ­interest of the study.
23/12/22 7:15 PM
 2.40 Chapter 2

Important Measures to Make 3. Journal selection

Research More Ethical 4. Journal submission
1. Informed Consent: The provision of informed con- 5. Manuscript tracking
sent also includes the knowledge that the informed 6. Peer review
participation is voluntary and that participants can 7. Manuscript rejection
withdraw from the study at any time. 8. Post publication
2. Protective Research Design: This involves estimat-
A review article or review paper summarizes the findings
ing the probability of happening of harmful effects,
of existing literature. So, the readers can develop an idea
their severity, and the likely duration of these effects.
about the existing knowledge on a topic without having to
3. Screening: It is an attempt to select only those indi- read all the published works in the field. It does not report
viduals for study who show a high tolerance for poten- original research. Review articles generally summarize
tial risks. the existing literature on a topic in an attempt to explain
4. Pilot Studies: When the potential harms the current state of understanding on the topic. Review
are ­uncertain, a useful precaution involves a pilot articles can be of three kinds.
study with follow-up diagnostic interviews to assess
the effects and request advice from the participants. 1. Narrative Review: It explains the existing knowledge
5. Outside Proposal Review: Requesting others to on a topic based on all the published research avail-
review research proposals is a helpful precaution for able on the topic.
minimizing risks. 2. Systematic Review: It searches for the answer to a
particular question in the existing scientific literature
6. Professional Codes: Two features of professional
on a topic.
codes are important for discussion. Firstly, profes-
3. Meta-analysis: It compares and combines the find-
sional codes have been developed inductively from
ings of previously published studies, usually to assess
the wide research experiences of professionals.
the effectiveness of an intervention or mode of
Secondly, professional codes place strong emphasis
treatment.
on researchers’ responsibility for their research.
7. Government Regulations: Government regulations Most reputed journals publish review articles. If published
such as state and central laws are designed to protect in a good peer-reviewed journal, the review articles often
or advance the interests of society and its individu- have a high impact and receive a lot of citations.
als. Thus, the researchers are required to take certain
precautions. Difference Between a Thesis and an Article
A researcher is always under pressure to publish, where
one good way to do this is to convert doctoral thesis into
Articles, Workshop, Seminar, a journal article, during or after Ph.D. It is essential to
know how a thesis differs from a journal article. Here are
Conference, And Symposium some of the elements that you will need to work on to
successfully create a journal article from your thesis.
‘The whole of science is nothing more than a
refinement of everyday thinking’ Thesis Article
 — Albert Einstein
Purpose The purpose is The purpose is
education as it advancement
shows how much a to enhance
Article or J ournal A rticle person knows. credibility and
Since we are discussing articles within research, an contribution in
article is also to be discussed in the manner of research the field.
only. This topic can be divided into research article and
review paper. Audience Educational Here, person may
A research article is based on original research. The kind committee and look to become
of research varies depending upon the field or the topic professors decide a scientist or
(experiments, survey, interview, questionnaire, etc.). Here, whether a person is conduct further
the authors need to collect and analyze raw data and con- worthy of degree. research.
duct an original study. The research paper will be based on
Abstract Longer, up to 500 Shorter, up to
the analysis and interpretation of these data.
words 150–250 words.
The various steps followed to show the process have
been given as: Introduction More detailed More concise, only
1. Conducting research absolutely required
2. Manuscript writing information.

M02_MADAN 04_65901_C02.indd 40 23/12/22 7:15 PM

 Research Aptitude 2.41

Thesis Article W ebinars or Web Conferences

Webinars or web conferences are presentations that
Length Longer, as the It is shorter, involve an audio and video component. The audio portion
page count can be between 3000 of the event is delivered via phone or over the internet, so
up to fifty pages and 6000 words. that participants can listen via their computer speakers.
and around 20000 It is better to The video portion of the event is delivered via the inter-
words. avoid copying, net, giving participants a presentation to watch while lis-
rewriting, or tening to the instructor.
paraphrasing.
Seminar
Material and Extensive Controlled
The word seminar is derived from the Latin word semi-
method presentation presentation
narium, meaning seed plot. It is a formal presentation by
Discussion Detailed Clear and concise one or more experts to a small group of audience. It can be
interpretation of presentation of conducted on recurring or regular basis, monthly or even
results results. weekly. There is an invited speaker, and the audience is
much more technically versed or specific in nature.
References Exhaustive list Selective list The motive behind the seminar system is to familiarize
students extensively with vital aspects of their study and
Appendices Inclusion Inclusion optional allow them to interact with examples of practical prob-
mandatory lems that always occur during study or research work.
Thus, a seminar is a form of academic instruction either
at an academic institution or offered by a commercial or
professional organization.
Meeting Seminars focus on some particular subject in which
A meeting is an assembly or coming together of people, everyone present is requested to actively participate.
be it a symposium, workshop, conference or so. In a very Colloquia and seminars both happen in an ­academic
remote sort of a way, all of them convey the same mean- setting. Phenomena such as global warming and climate
ing, i.e., people coming together for a purpose. change and nuclear power accidents are discussed but
from the perspective of a scientist. However, a well-edu-
Symposium cated audience is able to understand it.
It is usually a formal meeting in which specialists deliver Teleseminars are seminars delivered via a conference
short addresses on a topic or on related topics and then call over the telephone and/or through the internet.
answer the questions relating to these topics. It is espe-
cially one in which the participants form an audience and W orkshops
make presentations. Workshops tend to be smaller and more intense than semi-
A symposium is also defined as a collection of writings nars. This format involves students practising their new skills
on a particular topic, as in a magazine. during the event under the watchful eye of an instructor.
Hands-on workshops typically involve participants
Colloquium doing work on a particular issue during the program. The
promise is that when they leave, they will have at least a
It is usually an academic meeting in which specialists
rough plan or tools in place to address the challenge.
deliver addresses on a topic or on related topics and then
answer the questions relating to these topics. A colloquium Impact Factor
is targeted to a well-educated but not specialized audience.
The impact factor of an academic journal is a measure
reflecting the average number of citations to recent arti-
Conference cles published in the journal. It reflects the relative impor-
A conference is a meeting of people who confer about a tance of a journal within its field. Journals with higher
topic. It is a meeting where people come for discussion. impact factors are deemed to be more important than
It features keynotes and presentations delivered to those with lower ones.
all attendees, as well as multiple break-out sessions. The h-index is an index that attempts to measure both
Attendees expect to receive information about industry the productivity and the impact of the published work of
trends and developments. a scientist or a scholar.
It can be an academic conference (a formal event The g-index is like the h-index, and it has an averaged
where researchers present results), a business confer- citation count.
ence (organized to discuss business-related matters), The i10-index indicates the number of academic
or a parent–teacher conference (meeting with a child’s publications an author has written that has at least ten
teacher to discuss grades and school performance), a citations from others. It was introduced in July 2011 by
peace conference (a diplomatic meeting to end conflict) Google as part of their work on Google Scholar, a search
and so on. engine dedicated to academic and related papers.

M02_MADAN 04_65901_C02.indd 41 23/12/22 7:15 PM

 2.42 Chapter 2

A s s e s s Yo u r L e a r n i n g

RESEARCh – BASIC COnCEPTS

1. Research is 8. A scientific approach in social science research should
(a) A purposeful, systematic activity. take into account
(b) Conducted for purely academic purposes. A. Metaphysical elements
(c) Conducted to answer questions about practical B. Spurious relations
issues. C. The factor of co-variation
(d) A random, unplanned process of discovery. D.Time order
2. Which of the following can be termed as the main E. The possibility of theorisation
objectives of research ? Choose the most appropriate answer from the options
1. To achieve research objectives which can be gen- given below:
eral as well as specific. (a) A, B, C only
2. To get valid, reliable, accurate, timely and com- (b) B, C, D only
plete information. (c) C, D, E only
3. To solve the problems of society. (d) A, B, E only
4. To expand our knowledge base.
5. To gain familiarity with new phenomena. 9. Consider the following definitions.
1. Scientism: Science is qualitatively distinct from,
Codes: superior to and ideal for all other areas of human
(a) 1, 2 and 3 endeavor.
(b) 2, 3 and 4 2. Methodologism: The distinction, superiority and
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 idealhood that Science enjoys is traceable. to its
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 possession of method.
3. A grand theory 3. Methodological monism: There is only one
(a) Explains interrelationships among concepts. method common to all sciences, irrespective of
(b) Is highly abstract. their subject matter.
(c) Broad explanation of phenomenon in a discipline. 4. Inductivism: A method that is common to all sci-
(d) All of the above ences, natural or human.
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

4. The idea that knowledge comes from experience is Which of the above definition are correct?
(a) Rationalism (a) 1 and 2
(b) Deductive reasoning (b) 2 and 3
(c) Logic (c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Empiricism (d) All are correct
5. Which of following descriptions is true in context of 10. Consider the following statements
defining ‘theory’? 1. The nature of reality is external to human mind.
(a) An organized body of concepts and principles 2. The focus is on critical reality.
intended to explain a particular phenomenon. 3. The purpose of research is to find universals.
(b) Tentative explanations that new data either sup- 4. The acceptable method and data is basically
port or do not support. ‘scientific method’.
(c) Apt to drive further research. 5. This method is nearer to inductive approach.
(d) It is always contradictory to related generalization. Which of the following approach is working in above
6. Epistemology refers to statements?
(a) A term specifically used in the social sciences. (a) Positivism
(b) A term used to study the types of diseases. (b) Post positivism
(c) Acceptable level of knowledge in a field of study. (c) Deductive approach
(d) A type of interviewing technique. (d) Experimental approach
7. Which of the following is a function of theory? 11. Which of the following can be defined as the main
(a) Integrating and summarizing current knowledge attributes of research?
(b) Making predictions 1. Reliability
(c) Explaining phenomena 2. Validity
(d) All of the above 3. Objectivity

M02_MADAN 04_65901_C02.indd 42 23/12/22 7:15 PM

 Research Aptitude 2.43

4. Subjectivity 2. The person must have the qualities of curiosity,

5. Intuition active imagination and intuition.
Codes: 3. The researcher should have the qualities of induc-
tive thinker for social research.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 4. The result of setting out a reasoned argument in
(b) 2, 3 and 4 steps is known as evaluation.
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 5. The researcher must have the mind set to generate
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 new principles and theories.
12. Which of the following is defined as a systematic Codes:
method of evaluating statistical data based on the
results of several independent studies of the same (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
problem? (c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a) Factor analysis (b) Meta-analysis 18. What do you consider as the main aim of interdiscipli-
(c) Systematic analysis (d) Subjective analysis nary research?
13. In research, evidence that the same concept meas- (a) To bring out holistic approach to research.
ured in different ways yields similar results is called as (b) To reduce the emphasis of single subject in
research domain.
(a) divergent validity (c) To oversimplify the problem of research.
(b) discriminant validity (d) To create a new trend in research methodology.
(c) convergent validity
(d) face validity 19. The positivist researchers consider reality as
(a) Subjective (b) Objective
14. The conceptual framework in which a research is con- (c) Neutral (d) Insignificant
ducted is called a  [June 2019]
(a) Synopsis of research 20. Which of the following statements is true about theory?
(b) Research design (a) It explains phenomenon in simple manner.
(c) Research hypothesis (b) It explains the ‘how’ and ‘why’ questions.
(d) Research paradigm (c) It can be a well-developed explanatory system.
(d) All of the above
15. The rationalistic mode of knowledge accepts the rules
of 21. Given below are two statements
(a) Legality (b) Manipulation Statement I: Qualitative research is impressionistic
(c) Logic (d) Authority and subjective.
16. Match The Following: Statement II: Quantitative research has a higher
level of possibility of generalising the findings.

A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
Research In light of the above statements, choose the correct
Features Basic Points answer from the options given below:
(A) Reliability (i) entities, procedure, or (a) Both Statement I and II are true.
devices to measure the (b) Both Statement I and II are false.
dimensions that are (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
used to measure (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(B) Validity (ii) constantly thinking 22. Which of the following point/s is/are significant for
about the research Research Methodology that is a wide term ?
process and its progress 1. theoretical perspectives or orientation to guide
research and logic of inquiry
(C) Intuition (iii) Linked with any
2. tools and techniques of data collection
personal bias may vitiate
3. methods of data analysis
research results.
4. only deductive methods
(D) Objectivity (iv) stable, consistent, and Codes:
dependable
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
Codes: (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a) (A)–(iv), (B)–(ii), (C)–(i), (D)–(iii) 23. The ‘feasibility studies’ are pieces of research done
(b) (A)–(iv), (B)–(i), (C)–(ii), (D)–(iii) before a main study to answer the question ‘can this
(c) (A)–(iii), (B)–(i), (C)–(ii), (D)–(iv) study be done?’ The feasibility of a research study
(d) (A)–(iv), (B)–(i), (C)–(iii), (D)–(ii) generally depends upon
17. Which of the following should be termed as the quali- 1. Cost factor
ties of a researcher ? 2. Time required to conduct research
1. The person must possess thinking and reasoning 3. The skill set of the researcher
ability. 4. The team spirit and work

M02_MADAN 04_65901_C02.indd 43 23/12/22 7:15 PM

 2.44
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
24. An empiricist believes that
(a) Natural science methods should not be applied to
social science research.
(b) Social science methods cannot be applied in natu-
ral sciences.
(c) Knowledge is acquired through our sensory
perceptions.
(d) No knowledge is genuine.
25. Look at the following statements
1. These are socially constructed.
2. They reflect understanding.
3. The subjective and objective research methods are
acceptable.
4. The understanding is contextual and there is
reduced focus on universal aspects.
5. There are integrated activities.
Which of the following terms is being referred here?
(a) Positivism (b) Hypothetico-deductivism
(c) Interpretivism (d) Constructivism
26. What is the position held by a positivist as far as
acquiring knowledge is concerned?
(a) A general positive attitude towards research.
(b) Scientific research should be based on value-free,
empirical observations.
(c) Exact knowledge can be acquired from society.
(d) None of the above
27. The approach which is based on the assumption that
social phenomena can be explained by observing
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
cause and effect is
Types of Research
31. The two main approaches of a research are
(a) Data collection and data analysis
(b) Surveys and questionnaires
(c) Sampling and data collection
(d) Qualitative and quantitative
32. Qualitative research is
(a) Without any specific purpose.
(b) Primarily concerned with in-depth exploration of
phenomena.
(c) Deals with the collection and analysis of numeri-
cal data.
(d) Dependent upon spiritual aspects only.
33. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer
from the code given below.
List-I List-II
(A) Historical method (i) Past events
(B) Survey method (ii) Vision
M02_MADAN 04_65901_C02.indd 44
Chapter 2
(a) Positivism
(b) Interpretivism
(c) Qualitative
(d) None of the above
28. Look at the following statements
1. This method suggested by Karl Popper, is actually
a proposed description of scientific method.
2. According to it, scientific inquiry proceeds by for-
mulating a hypothesis in a form that could con-
ceivably be falsified by a test on observable data.
3. A test that runs contrary to predictions of the
hypothesis is taken as a falsification of the hypoth-
esis. Otherwise the hypothesis is corroborated.
4. That the method which is common to all sciences,
natural and human.
Which of the following concepts is being referred by
the above statements?
(a) Hypothetico-deductive method
(b) Hypothetico-inductive method
(c) Inductive method
(d) Descriptive method.
29. An important practical issue to consider while design-
ing a research project is
(a) An interesting theoretical perspective.
(b) Addition to knowledge of researcher only.
(c) Availability of time and other resources.
(d) It should be qualitative.
30. The time frame during which a research study
explores a situation or problem is called as
(a) Reference period
(b) Age
(c) Longitudinal
(d) Retrospective time
List-I List-II
(C) Philosophical method (iii) Present events
(D) Experimental method (iv) Future action
Codes:
(a) (A)–(i), (B)–(iii), (C)–(ii), (D)–(iv)
(b) (A)–(i), (B)–(ii), (C)–(iii), (D)–(iv)
(c) (A)–(i), (B)–(ii), (C)–(iii), (D)–(iv)
(d) (A)–(ii), (B)–(iii), (C)–(i), (D)–(iv)
34. Which of the following research specifically requires
objectivity to discover facts and causes from the data
gathered for the ­purpose?
(a) Quantitative research
(b) Fundamental research
(c) Qualitative research
(d) Action research
35. There are two sets given below. Set-I specifies the type
of research, while Set-II indicates their characteris-
23/12/22 7:15 PM
 Research Aptitude 2.45

tics. Match the two and give your answer by selecting 39. In the method of naturalistic observation, there will
the appropriate code. [July 2018] be
(a) Haphazard behaviour as it naturally occurs.
Set-I Set-II (b) Setting up of controlled experiments by which
(Research Type) (Characteristics) they uncover causal elements in behaviour.
(A) Fundamental (i) Finding out the extent of (c) Set out to actively observe subjects in their natural
research perceived impact of an environments.
intervention (d) Interview subjects at different stages of life.
(B) Applied (ii) Developing an effective 40. Which of the following is a form of explanatory
research explanation through research in which the researcher develops a theoreti-
theory building cal model and empirically tests the model to deter-
mine how well the model fits the data?
(C) Action (iii) Improving an existing (a) Causal modelling
research situation through use of (b) Predictive research
interventions (c) Descriptive research
(D) Evaluative (iv) Exploring the possibility (d) Exploratory research
research of a theory for use in 41. Match the following two lists.
various situations
(v) Enriching technological List-I List-II
resources (A) Experimental (i) Criticism
Codes: (B) Historical (ii) Control
(a) (A)–(ii), (B)–(iv), (C)–(iii), (D)–(i) (C) Case study (iii) Interpretative
(b) (A)–(v), (B)–(iv), (C)–(iii), (D)–(ii)
(c) (A)–(i), (B)–(ii), (C)–(iii), (D)–(iv) (D) Ethnography (iv) Intensive
(d) (A)–(ii), (B)–(iii), (C)–(iv), (D)–(v) (v) Intuitive
36. Which of the following are features of the qualitative Codes:
research paradigm? [June 2020] (a) (A)–(ii), (B)–(iii), (C)–(iv), (D)–(v)
A. The research is concerned with understand- (b) (A)–(i), (B)–(ii), (C)–(v), (D)–(iii)
ing the social phenomena from the participant’s (c) (A)–(iii), (B)–(i), (C)–(iv), (D)–(v)
perspective. (d) (A)–(ii), (B)–(i), (C)–(iv), (D)–(iii)
B. It seeks to establish relationships, among vari-
ables and explains the causes of changes in meas- 42. Which of the following aspects are true in context of

A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
ured social facts. research in sciences, social sciences, and humanities?
C. It is conducted in actual settings as the direct source 1. The need of supervisor, topic, critical analysis,
of data and the researcher is the instrument. and patience.
D. It is concerned with the process rather than sim- 2. The triangulation method of research is essential
ply with outcomes or products. both in quantitative and qualitative researches.
E. It attempts to establish universal context-free 3. Random sampling is important and practical in
generalization. social sciences only.
Choose the correct answer from the options given 4. Manipulation is a necessary tool only in experi-
below: mental research that makes it different from
(a) A, B and C only descriptive research.
(b) B, C and D only Codes:
(c) A, C and D only (a) 1, 2 and 3
(d) C, D and E only (b) 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
37. The research which is exploring new facts through
the study of the past is called (d) 1 and 4
(a) Philosophical research 43. Which one of the following is an important character-
(b) Historical research istic of the researchers involved in qualitative study?
(c) Mythological research (a) Non-partisan (b) Reflexivity
(d) Content analysis (c) Transparency (d) Enthusiasm
38. The scientific method can be used 44. Research can be classified as
(a) Only in physical sciences, such as physics and (a) Basic, applied, and action research.
chemistry. (b) Quantitative and qualitative research.
(b) Only in social sciences. (c) Philosophical, historical, survey, and experimen-
(c) Both in physical and social sciences. tal research.
(d) Only in qualitative kind of study. (d) All of the above

M02_MADAN 04_65901_C02.indd 45 23/12/22 7:15 PM

 2.46 Chapter 2

45. The term associated with the theory and method of 56. Which of the following is classified in the category of
interpretation of human action in social sciences is developmental research?
(a) Theology (b) Hermeneutics (a) Philosophical research (b) Action research
(c) Ontology (d) Positivism (c) Descriptive research (d) All of the above
46. Which research approach is the most appropriate to 57. Action research is
establish a relationship that is causal in nature? (a) An applied research
(a) Causal-comparative (b) Experimental (b) A research carried out to solve immediate
(c) Correlational (d) Descriptive problems
47. Books and records are the primary sources of data in (c) A longitudinal research
(a) Historical research (d) Simulative research
(b) Participatory research 58. The term ‘phenomenology’ is associated with the pro-
(c) Clinical research cess of
(d) Laboratory research (a) Qualitative research (b) Analysis of variance
48. The type of research that tests hypothesis and theo- (c) Correlational study (d) Probability sampling
ries in order to explain how and why a phenomenon 59. Which of the following is not a longitudinal design?
operates as it does is (a) Panel
(a) Descriptive research (b) Predictive research (b) Cross-sectional
(c) Explanatory research (d) None of the above (c) Trend
49. The study in which investigators attempt to trace an (d) Both (a) and (c) are longitudinal designs
effect is known as 60. When a researcher starts with the dependent variable
(a) Survey research and moves backwards, it is called
(b) ‘Ex post facto’ research (a) Predictive research
(c) Historical research (b) Retrospective research
(d) Summative research (c) Exploratory research
50. Fundamental research reflects the ability to (d) Descriptive research
(a) Synthesize new ideas 61. The essence of the experimental method is
(b) Expound new principles (a) The correct calculation of Karl Pearson’s coeffi-
(c) Evaluate the existing material concerning cient of correlation.
research (b) Obtaining direct reports from subjects about their
(d) Study the existing literature regarding various subjective experience.
topics (c) Careful measurement and record keeping.
51. The strongest evidence for causality comes from which (d) Using control to identify cause-and-effect
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

of the following research ­methods? connections.

(a) Experimental (b) Causal–comparative
62. The following is a qualitative research approach that
(c) Correlational (d) None of the above
involves observing variables in their natural envi-
52. One of the limitations of the case study is that ronments or habitats in order to arrive at objective
(a) There are few subjects for which it is applicable. research outcomes.
(b) There are no control groups. (a) Ethnographic research
(c) It requires a large and expensive sample size. (b) Case study research
(d) It can not be included in triangulation method. (c) Content analysis
53. Which of the following research method is termed as (d) Focused Interview
controlled observation? 63. Which of the following are common characteristics of
(a) Historical research experimental research?
(b) Philosophical research (a) It relies primarily on the collection of numerical
(c) Field experimentation data.
(d) All of the above (b) It can produce important knowledge about cause
54. Fieldwork-based research is classified as and effect.
(a) Empirical (b) Historical (c) It uses the deductive scientific method.
(c) Experimental (d) Biographical (d) All of the above
55. The research that applies the laws at the time of field 64. Which type of research is likely to provide the strong-
study to draw more and more clear ideas about the est evidence about the existence of cause-and-effect
problem is [December 2008] relationships?
(a) Applied research (b) Action research (a) Non-experimental research
(c) Experimental research (d) None of the above (b) Experimental research

M02_MADAN 04_65901_C02.indd 46 23/12/22 7:15 PM

 Research Aptitude 2.47

(c) Historical research (a) Deductive method (b) Inductive method

(d) Descriptive research
65. Research in which the researcher uses the qualitative
paradigm for one phase and the quantitative para-
digm for another phase is known as
(a) Action research
(b) Basic research
(c) Quantitative research
(d) Mixed method research
66. Consider the following points
1. Existing theories are typically used only as point
of departure for the analysis.
2. Theories are further developed by forming new
concepts and relations. The contents of the new
concepts are studied and illustrated.
3. Practical application of theory is illustrated by cases.
Which of the following types of research is being
referred in this kind of scenario?
(a) Quantitative Research
(b) Qualitative Research
(c) Mixed Research
(d) Experimental Research
67. The type of research typically conducted by teachers,
counsellors and other professionals to answer ques-
tions they have and to specifically help them solve
local problems is called
(a) Action research
(b) Basic research
(c) Predictive research
(d) Longitudinal research
68. Consider the following statements in context of quan-
(c) Hypothesis method (d) Pattern method
71. Which scientific method is a bottom-up or generative
approach to research?
(a) Deductive method (b) Inductive method
(c) Hypothesis method (d) Pattern method
72. The method of drawing conclusions based on the
observation of each and every instance of a popula-
tion is called the
(a) Scientific method (b) Deductive method
(c) Inductive method (d) Dialectic method
73. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a good
theory or explanation?
(a) It is parsimonious.
(b) It is testable.
(c) It is general enough to apply to different
situations.
(d) All of the above.
74. Which scientific method follows these steps, (i) obser-
vation/data, (ii) patterns, and (iii) theory?
(a) Inductive (b) Deductive
(c) Top-down (d) All of the above
75. Which scientific method is a top-down or confirma-
tory approach?
(a) Deductive method (b) Inductive method
(c) Hypothesis method (d) Pattern method
76. The major characteristic of correlation analysis is to
seek out [June 2019]
(a) Differences among variables
(b) Variations among variables
(c) Association among variables

titative research.
1. The formulation of closed questions and the
answer categories to be prepared in advance.
2. The representativeness as per proportion of
population.
3. The timing of analysis is after data collection.
4. The standard statistical methods are frequently
used.
5. A-priori deducted theories are opeationalized and
tested on data.
Which of the above statements do apply?
(a) 1, 2 and 5
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
69. Research that is done to examine the findings of some-
one else using the ‘same variables but different people’
is called
(a) Exploration (b) Hypothesis
(c) Replication (d) Empiricism
70. Which scientific method is a top-down or confirma-
tory approach?
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
(d) Regression among variables
77. Which of the following statements are true in context
of hypothesis ?
1. A hypothesis is a tentative statement made that
needs logical and empirical confirmation.
2. A hypothesis can be formulated as a proposition
or set of propositions providing most probable
explanation for occurrence of some event or spec-
ified phenomenon.
3. A hypothesis must, therefore, be capable of being
tested, either accepted or rejected.
4. A hypothesis should be stated in terms of a rela-
tionship between the dependent and independ-
ent variables.
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 5
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
78. In the two sets given below, Set-I specifies the meth-
ods of research while Set-II describes the critical fea-
ture associated with a method of research. Match the
two and select from the code to indicate your answer.

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 2.48 Chapter 2

84. Research study that takes place over a long period of

Set-I Set-II
time is termed as
(Research (critical features associated)
(a) Cross-sectional research
methods)
(b) Longitudinal research
(A) Experimental (i) Generalizing to the (c) Research methodology
method population from a large (d) Pure research
sample 85. The main difference between longitudinal and cross-
(B) Ex post facto (ii) Establishing the patterns sectional researches is in terms of
method of events which have (a) Frequency of data collection
happened, through primary (b) Primary versus secondary
and secondary sources (c) The qualification of the researcher
(d) None of the above
(C) Historical (iii) Studying shared
method behaviour patterns 86. Defining hypothesis is a useful way of approaching
research because
(D) Ethnographic (iv) Establishing cause and (a) It will impress the reader.
method effect through control (b) It allows the development of testable propositions.
(v) Probing into the casual (c) It allows for the development of indisputable
factors from the observed proof to be established in research findings.
effects (d) It looks suitably scientific.
87. The Government of India conducts census after
Codes:
every 10 years. The method of research used in this
(a) (A)–(iv), (B)–(v), (C)–(ii), (D)–(iii)
process is
(b) (A)–(i), (B)–(ii), (C)–(iii), (D)–(iv)
(a) Case study (b) Developmental
(c) (A)–(ii), (B)–(i), (C)–(iv), (D)–(iii)
(c) Survey (d) Experimental
(d) (A)–(ii), (B)–(iii), (C)–(iv), (D)–(v)
88. A nine-year-old is taller than seven-year-old ones.
79. A field experiment is one that takes place in This is an example of
(a) The real world (a) Vertical studies
(b) The laboratory (b) Cross-sectional studies
(c) Both in the real world and laboratory (c) Experimental studies
(d) Naturalistic environment (d) Case studies
80. Characteristics of the scientific method necessarily 89. The main difference between basic research and
include applied research lies in
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

(a) Lab experiments only (a) Basic process (b) Sample size
(b) Controlled observation (c) Utility (d) All of the above
(c) Analysis formulation
90. Which type of method can be used in order to create
(d) All of the above
a real-world laboratory?
81. A correlational study determines (a) Correlational coefficients
(a) The relationship between independent and (b) Field experiment
dependent variable. (c) Case study
(b) Impact of the observer on the participant. (d) Random assignment
(c) Cause-and-effect relationship. 91. In a research study to learn the impact of the Inter-
(d) The relationship between two events. net surfing on exam performance, it was found that
82. A non-government organization conducted a study as the number of hours spent on Internet surfing
in a Gram Panchayat to see the impacts of campaign increases, exam performance deteriorates. This
approach on enrolment and retention of rural ele- study is an e­ xample of
mentary school children. This is an example of (a) Experimental method
(a) Descriptive study (b) Correlational research
(b) Field experiment (c) Case study
(c) Ex-post facto research (d) Descriptive Research
(d) Historical research 92. A researcher spent several years observing social
83. The classification of studies into exploratory, descrip- behaviour of people in their native habitat. The
tive, analytical, or predictive research is based on research method used here is
(a) Logic of the research (a) Case study
(b) Outcome of the research (b) Experimental method
(c) Process of the research (c) Correlational study
(d) Purpose of the research (d) Naturalistic observation

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 Research Aptitude 2.49

93. In a study of two variables, when one variable goes 98. In which of the following research studies, interpre-
up as another goes down in value is known as a tation and meaning get more attention than formu-
(a) Positive correlation lation of generalizations?
(b) No correlation 1. Historical studies
(c) Negative correlation 2. Survey studies
(d) Fluctuating correlation 3. Philosophical studies
94. Which of the following are the essential characteris- 4. Ethnographic studies
tics of the case study method? 5. Hypothetico–deductive studies
1. Negatively oriented 6. Ex post facto studies
2. Appreciation oriented Choose your answer from the options given below:
3. Particularistic
(a) 1, 2, and 3
4. Descriptive
5. Inductive (b) 4, 5, and 6
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2, 4, and 5
(b) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3, and 4
(c) 3, 4 and 5 99. Which of the following statements are correct in con-
(d) 1, 2 and 5 text of descriptive research?
95. Kindly look at the following question: (a) This describes the characteristics of the popula-
Why stressful living results in heart attacks? tion or phenomenon that is being studied.
In these types of questions, we need to look at rela- (b) This methodology focuses more on the “what” of
tionship between two aspects of a situation that are the research subject rather than the “why” of the
‘how’ and ‘why’. research subject.
Which kind of research helps in the above situation? (c) This should preferably be a qualitative research.
(a) Exploratory research (d) All of the above
(b) Descriptive study
100. Through which research method, the manipulation
(c) Ethnographic research
of an independent variable and its effect on depend-
(d) Explanatory Research
ent variable is examined with reference to a hypoth-
96. Look at the following statements in context of exper- esis under controlled conditions?
imental research? (a) Ex post facto research
1. The researchers randomly assign participants to (b) Descriptive research
groups. (c) Case study research
2. They provide control over extraneous variables (d) Experimental research
with an objective to isolate the effects of the inde-

A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
pendent variable on the results. 101. Commonly used in sciences such as sociology, psy-
3.  The treatment conditions may be physically chology, physics, chemistry, biology, and medicine,
manipulated. experimental research is a collection of research
4. There is statistical comparison of the groups. designs which make use of manipulation and con-
5. The experiment is designed to reduce the threats trolled testing in order to understand the
to internal validity and external validity. (a) Casual processes
(b) Non-causal process
Which ones of the above statements are applicable? (c) Only experimental group processes
(a) 1, 2, 3, and 4 (b) 2, 3, 4, and 5 (d) Only control group processes
(c) 1, 2, 3, and 4 (d) All of the above
97. In social sciences, it is a very difficult task to get the 102. Look at the following statements in context of exper-
most reliable results. Consider the following state- imental research?
ments in this context. 1. The researchers randomly assign participants to
1. The wording of questions groups.
2. The physical setting of interaction 2. They provide control over extraneous variables
3. The mood of respondent with an objective to isolate the effects of the inde-
4. The mood of the interviewer pendent variable on the results.
5. The nature of interaction 3.  The treatment conditions may be physically
6. The regression effect of an instrument manipulated.
Which of the above statements apply in the context? 4. There is statistical comparison of the groups.
(a) 1, 2, 3, 5, and 6 5.  The experiment is designed to reduce the
(b) 2, 3, and 5 threats to internal validity and external
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 validity.
(d) 1, 3, 4, and 5

M02_MADAN 04_65901_C02.indd 49 23/12/22 7:15 PM

 2.50
Which ones of the above statements are applicable?
(a) 1, 2, 3, and 4
(b) 2, 3, 4, and 5
(c) 1, 2, 3, and 4
(d) All of the above
103. Consider the following statements:
1. A patient’s belief that s/he is receiving treatment
can play an important role in her/his recovery
from an illness even if treatment is ineffective.
2. A placebo study involves two or three groups,
depending on whether or not the researcher
wants to have a control group.
3.  If the researcher decides to have a control
group, the first group receives the treatment,
the second receives the placebo treatment and
the third – the control group – receives nothing.
4. The decision about the group allocation can be
made through randomization.
Which of the above statements are right?
(a) 1, 2, and 3 (b) 2, 3, and 4
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of the above
104. The researcher manipulates two or more independ-
ent variables (factors) simultaneously to observe
their effects on the dependent variable. This design
allows for the testing of two or more hypotheses in a
single project. This is called as
(a) Randomized Block Design
(b) Factorial Design
(c) Non-Randomized Design
(d) Quasi-experimental research
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
105. Experimental research is used where
(a) Time priority in a causal relationship
(b) consistency in a causal relationship
(c) magnitude of the correlation is great
(d) All of the above
106. Consider the following statements:
1. True experiments must have a control group.
2. Control group is a group of research participants
that resemble the experimental group but do not
receive the experimental treatment.
3. The control group provides a reliable baseline data
to which you can compare the experimental results.
Which of the above are the correct statements?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) All of the above
107. Consider the following statements:
1. The experimental group is the group of research
participants who receive the experimental
treatment.
2. True experiments must have at least one control
group and one experimental group, though it
is possible to have more than one experimental
group.
M02_MADAN 04_65901_C02.indd 50
Chapter 2
(a) Only 1 is true
(b) Only 2 is true
(c) Both 1 and 2 are true
(d) None of the above
108. Consider the following statements:
1. This step is probably the most critical part of the
planning process.
2. These stated research questions provide the basis
for design and data analysis.
3. This step guides the researcher’s decision as to
go for an experimental design or some other
orientation.
These three statements reflect the following.
(a) Literature survey
(b) Research design
(c) Hypotheses
(d) Deciding about research topic
109. Consider the following statements about an experi-
mental test.
1. This type of design has two randomly assigned
groups: an experimental group and a control group.
2. Neither group is pretested before the implemen-
tation of the treatment.
3. The treatment is applied to the experimental group.
Which kind of the test has been conducted in this case?
(a) Pretest only design
(b) Post-test only design
(c) Pretest-Post-test only design
(d) One-group pret-est-post-test design
110. Which of the following statements apply in case of a
true experiment?
(a) Control group and experimental group
(b) Researcher-manipulated variable
(c) Random assignment
(d) All of the above
111. In quasi-experimental design is applied in situations
where
(a) the researcher has less control over the inde-
pendent variable than in the classical design.
(b) the classical design is much easier.
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
112. Consider the following statements:
1. There are a large number of experimental groups.
2. This design is used when there are inherent dif-
ferences between subjects and possible differ-
ences in experimental conditions.
3. It is important to bring some homogeneity to
each group.
Which type of design is being discussed in these
statements?
(a) Cross-over design
(b) Randomized block design
(c) Factorial design
(d) Any type of block design
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 Research Aptitude
RESEARCH AS A Process
113. In the context of survey research, the following steps
are taken in certain order. Which of the following
options represent the correct order?
1. Sampling
2. Inference
3. Data analysis
4. Data collection
(a) 2, 3, 1, 4 (b) 1, 4, 3, 2
(c) 3, 2, 4, 1 (d) 4, 1, 2, 3
114. Which of the following is not the requirement of a
hypothesis?
(a) Basis on facts.
(b) Being conceivable.
(c) Contradict the knowledge of nature.
(d) Allow consequences to be deduced from it.
115. For a proposition to be true, it should have the
following characteristics except which of the
­ (c) The research method adopted
­following?
(a) It must be objective.
(b) It must be in tune with accepted beliefs.
(c) It must be consistent.
(d) It must be testable.
116. The objective of a research can be written
(a) Only in question form.
(b) Only in statement form.
(c) Both question and statement forms.
(d) In hypothetical form.
117. sine qua non (essential element) of a good research is
(a) A well-formulated hypothesis
(b) A good research supervisor
(c) Adequate library
(d) A well-formulated problem
118. A good hypothesis should be
(a) Precise, specific and consistent with most known
facts.
(b) Formulated in such a way that it can be tested by
the data.
(c) Of limited scope and should not have global
significance.
(d) All of the above
119. Hypothesis cannot be stated in
(a) Null and question form terms
(b) Declarative terms
(c) General terms
(d) None of the above
120. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) In research, objectives can be worded in ques-
tion form.
(b) In research, objectives can be worded in state-
ment form.
(c) Objectives are to be stated in Chapter I of the
thesis.
(d) All of the above
M02_MADAN 04_65901_C02.indd 51
2.51
121. Which of the following statements is ­correct?
(a) Objectives should be pin-pointed.
(b) Objectives can be written in statement or ques-
tion forms.
(c) Another word for problem is variable.
(d) All of the above
122. A satisfactory statistical quantitative method should
not possess which one of the following qualities?
(a) Appropriateness
(b) Measurability
(c) Comparability
(d) Flexibility
123. The accuracy of the research process depends
upon the
(a) Unbiased attitude of the researchers
(b) The sample size
(d) All of the above
124. Who is regarded as the father of scientific social
surveys?
(a) Best (b) Booth
(c) Darwin (d) Newton
125. A research plan
(a) Should be detailed.
(b) Should be given to others for review and
comments.
(c) Sets out the rationale for a research study.
(d) All of the above
126. Sources of researchable problems can include
(a) Researchers’ own experiences as educators.
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
(b) Practical issues that require solutions.
(c) Theory and past research.
(d) All of the above
127. The introduction section of the research plan
(a) Gives an overview of prior relevant studies.
(b) Contains a statement of the purpose of the study.
(c) Concludes with a statement of the research
questions.
(d) All of the above
128. A statement that predicts the cause-and-effect relation-
ship between variables is known as the
(a) Null hypothesis
(b) Experimental hypothesis
(c) Independent variable
(d) Dependent variable
129. To be confident that a cause-and-effect relationship
exists, it is necessary to
(a) Engage in naturalistic observation.
(b) Develop a positive correlation.
(c) Perform a controlled experiment.
(d) Test for a negative correlation.
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 2.52 Chapter 2

130. Match List-I (interviews) with List-II (meaning) 136. In which of the following techniques of data col-
and select the correct answer from the code given lection, several participants, including facilitator,
below. emphazise on questioning a specific and defined
topic and interaction within the group and the joint
List-I List-II construction of meaning?
(Interviews) (Meanings) (a) Case study (b) Focus group
(A) Structured (i) Greater flexibility (c) Ethnography (d) Ideal Group
interviews approach 137. The process not needed in experimental research is
(a) Observation
(B) Unstructured (ii) Attention on
(b) Manipulation and replication
interviews questions to be
(c) Controlling
answered
(d) Reference collection
(C) Focused (iii) Individual life 138. Which type of study will be preferred by a researcher
interviews experience to estimate the degree of relationship between the
(D) Clinical (iv) Predetermined level of education and achievement motivation?
interviews question (a) Naturalistic (b) Inventory
(c) Correlational (d) Experimental
(v) Non-directive
139. Which scale is the simplest form of measurement?
Codes: (a) Nominal (b) Ordinal
(a) (A)–(iv), (B)–(i), (C)–(ii), (D)–(iii) (c) Interval (d) Ratio
(b) (A)–(ii), (B)–(iv), (C)–(i), (D)–(iii) 140. Which of the following is the correct order of
(c) (A)–(v), (B)–(iv), (C)–(iv), (D)–(i) Steven’s four levels of measurement?
(d) (A)–(i), (B)–(iii), (C)–(v), (D)–(iv) (a) Ordinal, nominal, ratio, and interval.
(b) Nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio.
131. The first step of research is
(c) Interval, nominal, ordinal, and ratio.
(a) Selecting a problem
(d) Ratio, interval, nominal, and ordinal.
(b) Searching a problem
(c) Finding a problem 141. We use factor analysis
(d) Identifying a problem (a) To know the relationship between two variables.
(b) To test the hypothesis.
132. Which of the following statements is ­correct? (c) To know the difference between two variables.
(a) Objectives of research are stated in first chapter (d) To know the difference among many variables.
of the thesis.
142. The process not needed in experimental researches
(b) Researcher must possess analytical ability.
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

(c) Variability is the source of problem.
(d) All of the above
133. A research problem is feasible only when
(a) It has utility and relevance.
(b) It is researchable.
(c) It is new and adds something to the knowledge.
(d) All of the above
134. The first question that a researcher interested in the
application of statistical techniques to his problem
has to ask is
(a) Whether the data could be quantified.
(b) Whether appropriate statistical techniques are
available.
(c) Whether analysis of data would be possible.
(d) Whether worthwhile inferences can be drawn.
135. Which one of the following is a data collection
method?
(a) The opinion (b) Positivism
(c) The case study (d) The interview
is
(a) Observation (b) Manipulation
(c) Controlling (d) Content analysis
143. Which of the following correlational values is the
strongest?
(a) +0.10 (b) -0.95
(c) +0.90 (d) -1.00
144. The correlation between intelligence test scores and
grades is
(a) Positive (b) Negative
(c) Perfect (d) No correlation
145. Which of the following figures reflect the highest
value of Karl Pearson’s coefficient of correlation?
(a) +0.22 (b) +0.91
(c) -0.49 (d) -0.92
146. A widely used format developed by Rensis Likert is
used for asking questions about
(a) Attitude (b) Personality
(c) Morale (d) Aptitude

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 Research Aptitude 2.53

Research Characteristics
147. Objectivity in research implies (a) The incident is reported after a long period of
(a) Exact judgement of truth time from its occurrence.
(b) Findings consistent with reality (b) The author who is a source of information is
(c) Inter-researcher agreement biased and incompetent.
(d) Methodological sophistication (c) The researcher is not competent enough to draw
148. The extent to which an instrument measures a char- logical conclusions.
acteristic that cannot be directly observed but is (d) All of the above
assumed to exist is 154. The term used to describe when a research measures
(a) Face validity the variable or dimension it is supposed to measure is
(b) Construct validity (a) Validity (b) Reliability
(c) Criterion validity (c) Dependability (d) Suitability
(d) Content validity
155. Which of the following is not a characteristic of
149. Field study is related to research?
(a) Real-life situations (a) Research is systematic.
(b) Experimental situations (b) Research is not a process.
(c) Laboratory situations (c) Research is problem oriented.
(d) Subconscious reality (d) Research is not passive.
150. The verification that the method of measurement 156. Which of the following terms is closely related to
actually measures what it is expected to measure is generalization of outcome of research?
known as (a) External validity
(a) Content validity (b) Inference
(b) Face validity (c) Both (a) and (b)
(c) Construct validity (d) This can’t be ascertained
(d) Criterion validity
157. A research instrument giving inconsistent results has
151. The extent to which the results of a research study (a) Low validity (b) High validity
apply to situations beyond the study itself and the (c) Low reliability (d) High reliability
extent to which conclusions can be generalized is
(a) External validity 158. Authenticity of research finding is its
(b) Internal validity (a) Originality
(b) Validity
(c) Situation validity
(c) Objectivity

A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
(d) Unidentified validity (d) All of the above
152. The extent to which the design and data of a research 159. How can the objectivity of research be enhanced?
study allows the researcher to draw accurate conclu- (a) Through impartiality
sions about cause-and-effect and other relationships (b) Through reliability
within the data is (c) Through validity
(a) External validity (d) All of the above
(b) Internal validity
160. Manipulation is always a part of [December 2007]
(c) Situation validity (a) Historical research
(d) Unidentified validity (b) Fundamental research
153. The validity and reliability of a research will be at (c) Descriptive research
stake when (d) Experimental research

Formulation of Hypothesis
161. An educated guess about what is controlling some (b) While planning your research study.
behaviour is called (c) At the time of publishing the results.
(a) Experimental control (d) None of the above
(b) A hypothesis 163. To test null hypothesis, a researcher uses
(c) An experimental variable (a) t-test
(d) A theory (b) ANOVA
162. It is best to use the method of working multiple (c) c 2 (Chi-square test)
hypothesis (d) Factorial analysis
(a) During the final stages of research.

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 2.54
164. Hypothesis cannot be stated in
(a) Declarative terms
(b) Null hypothesis and question form terms
(c) General terms
(d) Directional terms
165. What type of research would be least likely to include
a research hypothesis?
(a) Intervention research
(b) Associational research
(c) Descriptive research
(d) Experimental research
166. The basis on which the assumptions are formulated is
(a) Cultural background of the country
(b) Universities
(c) Specific characteristics of the castes
(d) All of the above
167. A null hypothesis is
(a) When there is no difference between the variables.
(b) The same as research hypothesis.
(c) Subjective in nature.
(d) When there is difference between the variables.
168. Research hypothesis are
(a) A review of current research.
(b) Statements of predicted relationships between
variables.
(c) Stated such that they can be confirmed or refuted.
(d) Both (b) and (c)
169. Which of the following best describes the develop-
ment process for a research ­question?
(a) A broad question is made more specific as terms
are more clearly defined.
(b) A broad question is made more specific in order
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
to be more significant.
(c) A specific question is broadened as terms are
more clearly defined.
(d) A specific question is broadened in order to be
more significant.
170. Good research questions are
(a) Clear, significant, and ethical.
(b) Feasible, clear, significant, and ethical.
(c) Feasible, clear, significant, and include a
hypothesis.
(d) Feasible, clear, and ethical.
171 The essential characteristic of a researchable ques-
tion is
(a) Question seems interesting to answer.
(b) Possibility of data collection that can be col-
lected in an attempt to answer a question.
(c) Possibility of commercialization.
(d) A significant positive change in society.
172. A good hypothesis should be
(a) Formulated in such a way that it can be tested by
the data.
(b) Precise, specific and consistent with most known
facts.
M02_MADAN 04_65901_C02.indd 54
Chapter 2
(c) Of limited scope and should not have global
significance.
(d) All of the above
173. Statement I: A research hypothesis is a tentative
statement postulating a relationship between fac-
tual and conceptual elements of the variables.
Statement II: A researcher sets up a null hypothesis
so that deduced consequences of a research hypoth-
esis may be directly tested.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below.
(a) Both Statement I and II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and II are false.
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
true.
174. Formulation of hypothesis may not be required in
(a) Survey method
(b) Historical studies
(c) Experimental studies
(d) Normative studies
175. An operational definition is
(a) No relation to the underlying concept.
(b) An abstract, theoretical definition of a concept.
(c) In terms of specific and empirical measures.
(d) None of the above
176. What is the purpose of the conclusion in a research
report?
(a) It explains how concepts were operationally
defined and measured.
(b) It summarizes the key findings in relation to the
research questions.
(c) It contains a useful review of the relevant
literature.
(d) It outlines the methodological procedures that
were employed.
177. Which of the following is an advantage of stating
hypothesis?
(a) It forces the researcher to think more deeply and
specifically about the possible outcomes of a study.
(b) It simplifies the study.
(c) It clarifies definitions.
(d) It reduces researcher bias.
178. Which of the following is an example of a directional
hypothesis?
(a) There will be a difference between the students’
reading levels.
(b) There will be a difference between lecture and
group instruction.
(c) Group instruction is more effective than lecture
in the elementary classroom.
(d) There will be an increase in learning.
179. Formulation of hypothesis may not be necessary in
(a) Survey studies
(b) Fact finding historical research
(c) Experimental studies
(d) Quantitative Research
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 Research Aptitude 2.55

180. Which of the following is true in context of a
hypothesis?
(a) It is a tentative proposition.
(b) The validity of hypothesis is unknown.
(c) It must be generalizable.
(d) All of the above
181. In mixed methods research, quantitative and qualita-
tive findings should be
(a) Listed in the order of importance.
(b) Contained in separate sections.
(c) Integrated
(d) Shown fully in appendices.

Research Variables
182. Attributes of objects, events or things which can be (c) Both (a) and (b)
measured are called (d) Neither (a) nor (b)
(a) Qualitative measure (b) Data 191. An example of a categorical variable is
(c) Variables (d) None of the above (a) Teacher’s hair colour.
183. A statistical technique used for large number of (b) Average time it takes a teacher to grade an
variables to establish whether there is a tendency of essay.
groups to be interrelated is (c) Distance a teacher has to travel from the office to
(a) Simple correlation her class.
(b) Multiple correlation (d) Time taken by a sports person to complete a circle
(c) Factor analysis
192. Which variables are those that a researcher chooses
(d) None of the above
to study in order to assess their possible effects on
184. When studying an active independent variable, an one or more other variables?
intervention or treatment given to group of partici- (a) Dependent
pants is called (b) Independent
(a) Experimental group (b) Control group (c) Extraneous
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) or (b) (d) Confounding variable
185. Which of the following can best be described as a 193. A condition or characteristic that can take on differ-
categorical variable? ent values or categories is called
(a) Age (a) A constant
(b) Annual income (b) A variable
(c) Grade point average (c) A cause-and-effect relationship
(d) Religion

A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
(d) A descriptive relationship
186. Experimental studies are based on
(a) The manipulation of the variables 194. Which of the following includes examples of quanti-
(b) Conceptual parameters tative variables?
(c) Replication of research (a) Age, temperature, income and height
(d) Survey of literature (b) Grade point average, anxiety level and reading
performance
187. A manipulated independent variable is called? (c) Gender, religion and ethnic group
(a) Extraneous variable (d) Both (a) and (b)
(b) Intervening variable
(c) Subject variable 195. In which scale of measurement, classification, order
(d) Active variable and equality of units are ensured? [June 2020]
188. Control groups and experimental groups are exactly (a) Ordinal
the same except for (b) Nominal
(a) Dependent variable (c) Interval
(b) Independent variable (d) Ratio
(c) Extraneous variables 196. We use factorial analysis
(d) Replication variables (a) To know the relationship between two variables.
189. The behaviour that is measured during an experi- (b) To test the hypothesis.
ment is known as the (c) To know the difference between two variables.
(a) Confounding variable (d) To know the difference among many variables.
(b) Independent variable 197. A variable that is presumed to cause a change in
(c) Dependent variable another variable is called
(d) Control variable (a) A categorical variable
190. This type of longitudinal research studies the same (b) A dependent variable
individuals over an extended period of time. (c) An independent variable
(a) Trend study (d) An intervening variable
(b) Panel study

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 2.56 Chapter 2

198. Which of the following independent variables can- 203. An experiment is performed to test the effects of
not be manipulated in a research study? sleep deprivation on rote memory. In this experi-
(a) Gender ment, the dependent variable is
(b) Ethnicity (a) Number of hours subjects go without sleep.
(c) Intelligence and other traits (b) Rote memory scores.
(d) None of the above (c) Number of subjects deprived of sleep in the
199. In an experimental design, the dependent variable is experimental group.
the one (d) Correlation between hours of sleep and fatigue.
(a) In which any changes are observed 204. The variable manipulated by the researcher in an
(b) Which is not manipulated experiment is called the
(c) Both (a) and (b) (a) Response variable
(d) None of the above (b) Independent variable
200. This variable depends upon what is done to it by the (c) Dependent variable
independent variable. (d) Extraneous variable
(a) Extraneous (b) Dependent 205. Which of the following would not be an appropriate
(c) Manipulated (d) All of the above synonym for the dependent variable?
201. Extraneous variables are essentially (a) Outcome variable
(a) Independent variables (b) Response variable
(b) Dependent variables (c) Effected variable
(c) Independent or dependent (d) Experimental variable
(d) Neither independent nor dependent 206. An example of quantitative variable is the
202. These variables are those that are created by the (a) Date of birth
researcher and are typically found in experimen- (b) Highest educational qualification
tal studies. (c) Time taken to complete a task
(a) Extraneous (b) Manipulated (d) Postal code
(c) Dependent (d) None of the above

Sampling
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

207. Generalized conclusion on the basis of a sample is (b) Stratified sampling

technically known as (c) Purposive sampling
(a) Data analysis and interpretation (d) Convenient sampling
(b) Parameter inference 212. The type of sampling where each person in popula-
(c) Statistical inference tion has equal chance of being selected is
(d) All of the above (a) Probability sampling
208. The process of selecting a subset of a population for (b) Non-probability sampling
a survey is known as (c) Judgement sampling
(a) Survey research (b) Representation (d) Convenience sampling
(c) Triangulation (d) Sampling 213. Here, some people have greater chance of being
209. Researchers ultimately want the answer to a research elected than other members of the population. It is
question to pertain to the (a) Probability sampling
(a) Sample (b) Non-probability sampling
(b) Accessible population (c) Quota sampling
(c) Target population (d) None of the above
(d) World 214. Which of the following variables cannot be expressed
in quantitative terms?
210. When a research problem is related to heterogene-
(a) Socio-economic status
ous population, the most suitable method is
(b) Marital status
(a) Cluster sampling (b) Stratified sampling
(c) Numerical aptitude
(c) Convenient sampling (d) Lottery method
(d) Professional attitude
211. An investigator wants to study the vocational aspira-
215. A representative sample is essential in
tions of visually challenged children in a wide geo-
(a) Survey method (b) Experimental method
graphical area. He should select his sample by using
(c) Case study (d) Clinical method
(a) Simple random sampling

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 Research Aptitude 2.57

216. Which one is known as non-probability sampling? (a) Simple random sampling
(a) Cluster sampling (b) Stratified random sampling
(b) Quota sampling (c) Cluster random sampling
(c) Systematic sampling (d) None of the above
(d) Stratified random sampling 227. Which of the following terms best describes data
217. While the statistical measure based upon entire pop- that were originally collected at an earlier time by a
ulation is called parameter, the measure based upon different person for a different purpose?
a sample is known as (a) Primary data
(a) Sample parameter (b) Inference (b) Secondary data
(c) Statistic (d) None of the above (c) Experimental data
218. A researcher selects a probability sample of 100 out (d) None of the above
of the total population. It is called 228. From the following identify those which are called
(a) A quota sample non-probability sampling procedures:
(b) A simple random sample (A) Systematic sampling
(c) A stratified random sample (B) Quota sampling
(d) A systematic sample (C) Starified sampling
219. A researcher divides the school students on the basis (D) Purposive sampling
of gender and then by using the random digit table, (E) Snowball sampling
he selects some of them from each group. This pro- Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
cess is called (a) (A), (B) and (C) only
(a) Stratified sampling (b) (B), (C) and (D) only
(b) Stratified random sampling (c) (B), (D) and (E) only
(c) Representative sampling (d) (C), (D) and (E) only
(d) None of the above 229. Which of the following is an example of a random
220. To ensure accuracy of a research, the sample should be sampling method?
(a) Taken randomly (a) Systematic sampling
(b) Fixed by quota (b) Convenience sampling
(c) Representative of the population (c) Purposive sampling
(d) Purposive (d) None of the above
221. A researcher can keep the sample size low if the popu- 230. Which of the following is not an example of a ran-
lation is dom sampling method?
(a) Heterogeneous (b) Inaccessible (a) Systematic sampling

A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
(c) Homogeneous (d) All of the above (b) Stratified random sampling
222. Which technique is generally followed when the (c) Simple random sampling
population is finite? (d) All of the above
(a) Area sampling technique 231. Which of the following is an example of a random
(b) Purposive sampling technique sampling method?
(c) Systematic sampling technique (a) Two-stage random sampling
(d) None of the above (b) Systematic sampling
223. Cluster sampling is used when (c) Convenience sampling
(a) Population is scattered and sample size is to be (d) Purposive sampling
kept large. 232. Which of the following is an example of a non-ran-
(b) Population is heterogeneous. dom sampling method?
(c) Long survey is needed. (a) Convenience sampling
(d) Both (a) and (c) (b) Stratified random sampling
224. A researcher divides his population into certain (c) Simple random
groups and fixes the size of the sample from each (d) Cluster random
group. This is called 233. The purpose of stratified random sampling is to
(a) Stratified sample (b) Quota sample make certain that
(c) Cluster sample (d) All of the above (a) Every member of the population has an equal
225. Which of the following is a non-probability sample? chance of being selected.
(a) Quota sample (b) Simple random sample (b) For proportionate representation from different
(c) Purposive sample (d) Both (a) and (c) categories.
(c) Prompt response from respondents.
226. If a researcher selected five schools at r­ andom and (d) None of the above
then interviewed each of the teachers in those five
schools, the researcher used

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 2.58 Chapter 2

234. A correlation coefficient is best characterized as
(a) A measure of the extent of the relationship
between two variables.
(b) An index of the causal direction between an
independent and dependent variable.
(c) An indication of the likelihood that an experi-
mental finding will be replicated by others.
(d) A measure of the likelihood that observed differ-
ences may be attributed to chance.
235. Responding to a substance like a sugar pill as if it was
a drug is called
(a) The placebo effect
(b) An extraneous factor
(c) Variability
(d) None of the above
236. What is a cross-sectional design?
(a) A study of one specific segment of customers.
(b) The research design that is free from any per-
sonal bias.
(c) The collection of data only once from different
respondents that belong to an institution.
(d) A comparison of two or more variables over a
long period of time.
237. Consider the following two statements.
1. Categorical variables are measured on nominal
or ordinal measurement scales.
2. Continuous variables are measured on either an
interval or a ratio scale.
3. Both categorical and continuous variables can be
measured against any scale as per situation.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
240. The standard error is an estimate of the standard
deviation of a statistic. The standard error is a statis-
tical measure of
(a) The normal distribution of sample scores around
the sample mean.
(b) The extent to which a sample mean differs from
the population mean.
(c) Clustering of scores at each end of a survey scale.
(d) Checking the accurate stratification of the
sample.
241. Which of the following statements refer to ‘data pro-
cessing error’?
(a) Events related to the non response of sampling
process.
(b) Error in faulty application of techniques of cod-
ing and managing data.
(c) Issues related with the implementation of the
whole research process.
(d) The unavoidable discrepancy between the sam-
ple and the population.
242. In a research, the total population is small. The easy
method of sampling is to number each element
using separate slips of paper for each element. All
the slips are put in a box. The researcher picks them
out one by one without looking, until the number of
slips selected equals the desired sample size. This
technique can termed as
(a) Snowball sampling method
(b) Fishbowl sampling method
(c) Stratified sampling method
(d) Cluster sampling method
243. A shift in response attitude in respondents between
two points during data collection is called

(b) Only 2 and 3

(c) Only 1 and 3 (a) Reactive effect
(d) All of the above (b) Maturation effect
238. Which of the following statements refer to a sam- (c) Regression effect
pling frame? (d) Conditioning effect
(a) A comprehensive coverage of the various stages 244. From the list given below identify those which are
involved in designing a survey. called ‘Non-probability sampling procedures’:
(b) A summary view of all the main clusters of units 1. Simple random sampling
in a sample. 2. Dimensional sampling
(c) A list of all the units in the population from 3. Snowball sampling
which a sample will be selected.
4. Cluster sampling
(d) A table frame used to display tables of random
numbers. 5. Quota sampling
6. Stratified sampling
239. The multi-stage cluster sample is most helpful when
(a) There is wide geographical dispersion of Choose the correct option
population. (a) 1, 2, and 3
(b) The researcher has time and money constraints. (b) 2, 4, and 5
(c) The researcher would use a probability sample (c) 1, 3, and 6
in order to generalize the results. (d) 2, 3, and 5
(d) All of the above.

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 Research Aptitude
Research Ethics/Misc
245. Research is not considered ethical if it 
 [December 2011]
(a) Tries to prove a particular point.
(b) Does not ensure privacy and anonymity of the
respondent.
(c) Does not investigate the data scientifically.
(d) Is not of a very high standard.
246. Ethical transgression is
(a) Following ethical principles
(b) Defying ethical principles
(c) Defining ethics
(d) None of the above
247. Which of the following ideas is not associated with
the stance of situation ethics?
(a) Anything goes
(b) The end justifies the means
(c) No choice
(d) All of the above
248. Which of the following is a form of harm that might be
suffered by research participants?
(a) Physical injury
(b) Stress and anxiety
(c) Impaired development
(d) All of the above
249. The main purpose of personal data being kept confi-
dential in research studies is
(a) To hide from participants what has been written
about them.
(b) Apprehension of harming identification or dis-
closure of personal information.
(c) For access by government authorities.
(d) To know more about private lives of participants.
250. Which method is most directly associated with lack
of informed consent?
(a) In-depth interviewing (b) Content analysis
(c) Covert observation (d) Case study
251. Which of the following is a form of harm that might
be suffered by research participants?
(a) Psychological distress
(b) Physical injury
(c) Loss of self-esteem
(d) All of the above
252. The act of publishing the same data and results in
more than one journal or p ­ ublication refers to which
of the following professional issues?
(a) Partial publication
(b) Duplicate publication
(c) Full publication
(d) None of the above
253. Why is it important that personal data about
research participants be kept within secure confi-
dential records?
(a) To observe principle of research ethics.
M02_MADAN 04_65901_C02.indd 59
2.59
(b) To sell the data at a later stage to recover the cost
of research.
(c) To keep secrecy from other researchers.
(d) None of the above
254. The importance of measurement in quantitative
research is that
(a) It allows us to delineate fine differences between
people or cases.
(b) It provides a consistent device or yardstick.
(c) It allows for precise estimates of the degree of
­relationship between concepts.
(d) All of the above
255. One of the preoccupations of quantitative research-
ers is with generalization, which is a sign of
(a) External validity (b) Internal reliability
(c) External reliability (d) Internal validity
256. Population generalizability refers to
(a) Conclusions researchers make about a random
sample.
(b) Conclusions researchers make about informa-
tion uncovered in research study.
(c) The degree to which a sample represents the
­population of interest.
(d) The degree to which results of a study can be
extended to other settings or conditions.
257. The degree to which results of a study can be
extended to other settings or conditions describes
(a) Population generalizability
(b) Conclusions researchers make about a random
sample.
#ntaugc-netimportantquestions
(c) Conclusions researchers make about information
uncovered in research study.
(d) Ecological generalizability
258. The research design is
(a) A common method adopted by all researchers to
carry out research.
(b) The final choice between using qualitative or
quantitative methods.
(c) Presentation of research findings.
(d) A framework for every stage of the data collec-
tion and its analysis.
259. Recognizing our own values in pursuit of research is
essential because
(a) It allows us to eliminate them.
(b) It allows us to be honest with ourselves about
what may influence our research.
(c) At least we know what we can ignore.
(d) It enables us to persuade others of our values.
260. As the value of one variable is increasing, the value
of second variable is also increasing, then the
­correlation coefficient will be
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Zero
(d) None of the above
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 2.60 Chapter 2

261. It is important that academics produce research that 270. Identify the correct sequence of steps in the research
can be widely used and valued by academic commu- process as identified by David Nachmias:
nity around the world. This is termed as A. Research design
(a) Research impact B. Data collection
(b) Citation impact C. Formulation of hypothesis
(c) Ethics impact D.Data analysis and generalisation
(d) None of the above E. Problem identification
262. The problem of researcher seeing only what they
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options
expect to see is called
given below:
(a) Researcher bias (b) Experimenter effect
(c) Leniency effect (d) Halo effect (a) A, B, C, D, E
(b) B, C, D, E, A
263. Which of the following is most appropriate to impart
(c) C, D, E, A, B
training for SPSS, a software package used for statis-
(d) E, C, A, B, D
tical analysis?
(a) Seminar (b) Conference 271. Match the following statements in context of ‘quanti-
(c) Workshop (d) Paper tative approach’ in research.
264. Which of the following is essentially an academic
meeting? Research
(a) Colloquium (b) Conference approach Basic Points
(c) Symposium (d) None of the above 1. Inferential A. operation of a
265. In which of the following is it required to cite sources approach numerical model that
in a bibliography at the end? represents the structure
(a) Conference (b) Colloquium of a dynamic process.
(c) Seminar (d) Paper 2. Experimental B. greater control is
266. Which of the following is most likely to make use of approach exercised over research
the Internet? environment through
(a) Web Conference (b) Seminar manipulations.
(c) Symposium (d) None of the above
3. Simulation C. database is
267. Which of the following is published in a journal? approach established through
(a) Article (b) Paper survey method and
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above conclusion is drawn
#ntaugc-netimportantquestions

268. A researcher conducted three experiments with 100 about characteristics

subjects each following uniform design instead of or relationship of
one experiment with 300 subjects. This is known as variables.
(a) Replication (b) Manipulation
(c) Observation (d) Validation Codes:
269. In which of the following researches, attempts are (a) 1–C, 2–A, 3–B
made to establish context-free generalizations? (b) 1–B, 2–C, 3–A
(a) Phenomenology (c) 1–C, 2–B, 3–A
(b) Grounded theory (d) 1–A, 2–B, 3–C
(c) Symbolic interactionism
(d) Experimental Studies

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 Research Aptitude 2.61

Answer Keys
Basic Concepts
1. (a)  2. (d)  3. (c)   4. (d) 5. (a)  6. (c)  7. (d)  8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (d)
21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (c) 25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (a)
Types of Research
31. (d) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (a) 36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (c) 39. (c) 40. (a)
41.  (d) 42. (d) 43. (b) 44. (d) 45.  (b) 46. (b) 47. (a) 48. (c) 49. (b) 50. (b)
51. (a) 52. (b) 53. (c) 54. (a) 55. (a) 56. (d) 57. (b) 58. (a) 59. (b) 60. (b)
61. (d) 62. (a) 63. (d) 64. (b) 65. (d) 66. (b) 67. (a) 68. (d) 69. (c) 70. (a)
71. (b) 72. (b) 73. (d) 74. (a) 75. (a) 76. (c) 77. (d) 78. (a) 79. (a) 80. (b)
81. (d) 82. (b) 83. (d) 84. (b) 85. (a) 86. (b) 87. (c) 88. (b) 89. (c) 90. (b)
91. (b) 92. (d) 93. (c) 94. (c) 95. (d) 96. (d) 97. (c) 98. (d) 99. (d) 100. (d)
101. (a) 102. (d) 103. (d) 104. (b) 105. (d) 106. (d) 107. (c) 108. (c) 109. (b) 110. (d)
111. (c) 112. (b)
Research Process
113. (b) 114. (c) 115. (b) 116. (b) 117. (a) 118. (d) 119. (c) 120. (b) 121. (a) 122. (d)
123. (d) 124. (b) 125. (d) 126. (d) 127. (d) 128. (b) 129. (c) 130. (a) 131. (c) 132. (d)
133. (d) 134. (a) 135. (d) 136. (b) 137. (d) 138. (c) 139. (a) 140. (b) 141. (d) 142. (d)
143. (d) 144. (a) 145. (d) 146. (a)
Research Characteristics
147. (b) 148. (b) 149. (a) 150. (a) 151. (a) 152. (b) 153. (d) 154. (a) 155. (b) 156. (c)
157. (c) 158. (d) 159. (d) 160. (d)
Formulation of Hypothesis
161. (b) 162. (b) 163. (c) 164. (c) 165. (c) 166. (d) 167. (a) 168. (d) 169. (a) 170. (b)

#ntaugc-netimportantquestions
171. (b) 172. (a) 173. (d) 174. (b) 175. (c) 176. (b) 177. (a) 178. (c) 179. (b) 180. (d)
181. (c)
Research Variables
182. (c) 183. (c) 184. (a) 185. (d) 186. (a) 187. (d) 188. (b) 189. (c) 190. (c) 191. (a)
192. (b) 193. (b) 194. (d) 195. (c) 196. (d) 197. (c) 198. (d) 199. (c) 200. (b) 201. (a)
202. (b) 203. (b) 204. (b) 205. (d) 206. (c)
Sampling
207. (c) 208. (d) 209. (c) 210. (b) 211. (b) 212. (a) 213. (b) 214. (d) 215. (a) 216. (b)
217. (c) 218. (b) 219. (b) 220. (c) 221. (c) 222. (c) 223. (d) 224. (b) 225. (d) 226. (c)
227. (b) 228. (d) 229. (a) 260. (a) 231. (a) 232. (a) 233. (b) 234. (a) 235. (a) 236. (c)
237. (a) 238. (c) 239. (d) 240. (b) 241. (b) 242. (b) 243. (c) 244. (d)
Research Ethics/Misc
245. (b) 246. (b) 247. (d) 248. (d) 249. (b) 250. (c) 251. (d) 252. (b) 253. (a) 254. (d)
255. (a) 256. (c) 257. (d) 258. (d) 259. (b) 260. (a) 261. (b) 262. (a) 263. (c) 264. (a)
265. (d) 266. (a) 267. (c) 268. (d) 269. (d) 270. (d) 271. (c)

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M02_MADAN 04_65901_C02.indd 62 23/12/22 7:15 PM

 CHAPTer

3 Comprehension

01 About Comprehension Passages

02 Solution Guidelines

03 Main Question Categories

LeArnInG
OBJeCTIVeS

04 Five Specimen Passages

05 Sixteen Practice Passages

M03_MADAN 04_65901_C03.indd 1 21/12/22 10:52 AM

 3.2
Comprehension Passage
According to Wren and Martin, a comprehension ­exercise
can be defined as a passage upon which questions are
set to test the students’ ability to understand the content
of the given text and to infer information and meanings
from it. To put it in simple terms, reading comprehension
is the act of understanding what you are reading.
It mainly requires two inputs from the reader, that
is, vocabulary knowledge and text comprehension.
In order to understand a text, the reader must be able to
comprehend the vocabulary used in a piece of writing. A
comprehension test requires specific reading skills, the
ability to grasp the main ideas from the passage, link-
ing them, inferring, and drawing conclusions based on
a proper understanding of the passage. Eventually, by
gaining a clear understanding, a candidate is supposed to
answer the questions given at the end of the passage.
For candidates, even though they have ample choice
amongst questions, reading comprehension is a must
attempt as it does not require studying any specific topic
and some practice can help in answering the questions
with confidence. Usually, each reading comprehension is
followed by five to six questions in UGC Paper I Exam.
Solution Guidelines
Here are some techniques that can be used to make com-
prehension easier:
1. Identification of Key Ideas: There are always certain
key sentences that determine the flow of the ideas in
a passage. To make comprehension simpler, these sen-
tences are supposed to be identified during the first
reading of the passage. The paragraph(s) should be
read quickly to get a general idea. It should be read
again, a little slowly, to know the details. The key ideas
can also be underlined.
2. Summarize the Paragraph: While reading the pas-
sage, develop a habit of mentally summarizing each
paragraph and keep linking them as you proceed.
This helps in understanding the overall idea of the
passage and, as a result, the candidate may find it eas-
ier to answer the questions. Some readers may prefer
to study the questions again and return to the relevant
portions of the passage later.
3. Determine Sentence Links: Usually, the sentences
within a passage are directly or subtly linked. For this,
practice helps a lot in identifying such links. However,
failing to practice would mean missing out the most
important points.
4. Ask Questions: Whenever in doubt, the reader
should always ask questions to oneself. For ­example,
the following questions can be asked: why has the
author mentioned this example? What is the purpose
of the second paragraph? This kind of reflection helps
in developing a deeper perspective about the main
ideas.
M03_MADAN 04_65901_C03.indd 2
Chapter 3
Main Question Categories
Comprehension passage questions can be classified into
the following categories:
Main T heme or Central Idea
These type of questions are based on the passage as a
whole and are typical in nature as they reflect the author’s
motive behind writing the passage.
These questions will put someone to test by scrutiniz-
ing the ability of the reader in understanding the given
paragraph.
Solution Approach
Usually, the answers to such questions lie in the introduc-
tory or the concluding paragraphs. A quick reading of the
first or last or both paragraphs is helpful.
Examples:
1. Which of the following alternatives best narrate the
passage?
2. Which of the following sentences reflect upon the
main idea of the passage?
Paying attention to single words and phrases helps to
understand the relationship between the ideas within a
paragraph.
1. Cause and effect words—as a result, therefore
2. Time words—meanwhile, before
3. Contrast words—in contrast, conversely
4. Addition words—also, in addition
5. Emphasis words—more important, remember
Author’s O pinion and Attitude
Such questions are based on the author’s viewpoint, and
the answers are not explicitly m
­ entioned. They have to be
derived from the key sentences that the author has used
to express his thoughts and opinions. The questions are
framed to test one’s ability to judge the author’s attitude
or his knowledge on the subject by analyzing the content,
style, and phraseology used in the passage. The candidate
needs to be empathetic with the author while answering
such questions. Such a set of questions examines the can-
didate on many fronts.
Solution Approach
One can look for the writing style and the sentences that
determine the tone used by the author, which serve as a
clue to the answers. If a particular part of the passage is in
question form, then try to understand the reasoning used
by the author to explain that part.
Alternatively, the reader could focus on the adverbs
and adjectives used by the author to describe something.
These words are indicative of the mood and intensity of
his thoughts.
21/12/22 10:52 AM
 Comprehension
Examples:
1. What is the author’s tone in the second paragraph?
2. According to the author, what can be a logical solu-
tion to the issue at hand?
3. Which of the following ideas is the author most likely
to agree with?
Explicit or Direct Information
These are direct questions based on the names, dates,
figures, data, facts, or opinions mentioned in the pas-
sage and are easily noticed during the first read itself. The
answer options may also be direct sentences picked up
from the passage. Scan the passage to spot the keywords
for specific details.
Some specific detail questions are negative and are
singled out by words such as not, except, most, and
least. If you cannot find the correct answer for negative-
specific details, eliminate the choices given and choose
the one that remains as the correct response. It also
makes a lot of sense to read the questions first as it gives
an idea of what to look for while reading the passage.
Questions based on explicit information should be veri-
fied by reading specific parts of the passage that contain
the answer.
Examples:
1. Which one of the following options is true according
to the passage?
2. Which one of the following options is no longer a
motivation for youth today?
I mplicit I nformation
The answers to these questions are not explicitly stated,
but are implied, and they are inferred/deducted from the
passage.
These questions test both our comprehension skills and
our ability to relate to the author’s opinion.
Solution Approach
Understanding the overall idea of the passage helps to
answer these questions. While reading the passage, the
candidate should try to understand the arguments pre-
sented by the author.
Examples:
1. According to the passage, which of the following
options can be inferred?
2. With which of the following arguments is the author
most likely to agree?
Language Expression Questions
These questions are based on specific words or phrases
mentioned in the passage. However, sometimes, there
may be synonym- or antonym-based questions, which
test our understanding of a word in the context of the
passage. The aim of the reader should be to understand
the contextual meanings of the words with respect to
the passage, rather than sticking to their dictionary
meanings.
M03_MADAN 04_65901_C03.indd 3
3.3
These questions test our ability to move simple, known
words and their literal meanings to understand the lan-
guage usage and the subject matter of the passage. They
test our reasoning skills and the ability to relate to the
author’s ideas while reading the passage.
Solution Approach
A thorough second reading of that part of the passage
from where a phrase has been picked up helps us in cor-
rectly understanding the context of the passage.
Examples:
1. In the context of this paragraph, what does, as good
as it gets, mean?
2. From the options, find the word closest in meaning to
the given word as it has been used in the passage.
Organization of the P assage
These questions are based on the structure of the passage and
the literary techniques used by the author in expressing his
arguments. Questions dealing with strengthening and weak-
ening arguments fall in this category.
These questions test our ability to analyze the structure
of the passage and identify sentences and paragraphs as
assumptions, arguments, solutions, conclusions, etc.
Solution Approach
A lot of reading can help a reader to acquire literary skills.
Examples:
1. Which of these options best represent the structure of
the passage?
2. What is the fundamental premise on which the author
has based his analysis?
3. What is the assumption made by the author when he
says democracy will never fall?
Analogous A rgument
A candidate is required to choose the option that is similar
to or conforms to reasoning along the same lines as the
arguments mentioned in the passage.
This question tests our comprehension and our ability
to illustrate the analysis formed in our mind based on our
reading of the passage. It also tests our capacity to associ-
ate two separate ­illustrations that follow a single line of
reasoning.
Solution Approach
The key to answering such questions is to first under-
stand the basic arguments before looking at the options
provided. Then, eliminate the options by comparing
them to the line of reasoning in the ­question stem.
Examples:
1. Which of the following illustrations best represent the
arguments mentioned in the second paragraph?
2. The phrase, to err is human, is applicable in which
one of the situations listed below?
21/12/22 10:52 AM
 3.4
Specimen Passage 1
The sugar maple is a hard maple tree. It can grow as tall
as 100 feet and as wide as four feet. The sugar maple is
commercially valued for its sap, which is used in making
maple syrup. The two north-eastern states, Vermont and
New York, are major producers of maple syrup. In Canada,
Quebec’s annual syrup production surpasses 2.5 million
gallons. To make pure maple syrup, holes are made in the
trunk of the tree at the end of winter or in early spring. The
water-like sap seeps through the holes and runs through a
plastic spout that is put into the hole. Afterwards, the col-
lected sap is transferred into tubes that are hooked up to a
tank kept in the sugar house. Then, the sap goes through a
boiling process. Boiling enhances the flavour and adds col-
our to the sap. Once the sugar content of the sap is about
65–66 per cent, the sap is ready to be strained and mar-
keted. However, maple syrups found in supermarkets are
usually not pure and have other additives. The colour of
pure maple may range from golden honey to light brown.
Between 35 to 50 gallons of sap is needed to produce 1 gal-
lon of maple syrup. Also popular for the strength and finish
of its wood, the sugar maple tree has been put to use in fur-
niture, interior woodwork, flooring, and crates.
Questions
1. What is the main purpose of the passage?
(a) To examine the economic viability of making
maple syrup.
(b) To list a number of major producers of maple
syrup.
(c) To provide information on the preparation of
maple syrup.
(d) To discuss the use of maple wood in furniture and
other products.
This is a general inference question. Most of the pas-
sage explains the technique used for making maple
syrup. Hence, the correct answer is (c).
2. For which of the following words does the author
­provide a definition?
(a) The sugar maple (b) A tank
(c) Additives (d) Furniture
This specific detailed question tests our understand-
ing of a definition. Only sugar maple is defined in the
first line of the passage. Other words have just been
mentioned in the passage. Hence, the correct answer
is (a).
3. According to the passage, which of the following peri-
ods is ideal for sapping?
(a) End of winter or early spring.
(b) Beginning of winter or early spring.
(c) End of winter or late spring.
(d) Throughout the year.
This is again a specific question. Based on the infor-
mation in the passage, sapping takes place at the
end of winter and in early spring. Hence, the correct
answer is (a).
M03_MADAN 04_65901_C03.indd 4
Chapter 3
4. All of the following statements are true about boiling,
except which of the following?
(a) It enhances colour.
(b) It improves flavour.
(c) It increases sugar content.
(d) It reduces the shelf-life of the syrup.
This specifically detailed question is negative and we
can eliminate choices that are not applicable. Hence,
the correct answer is (d).
5. What can be inferred about the production of maple
syrup?
(a) It is simple, but time consuming.
(b) It is labour intensive.
(c) Its processing demands complex equipment.
(d) The higher the volume, the less predictable is the
quality.
This question tests our ability to infer meaning. The
answer to the question is not directly stated in the
passage.
Hence, the correct answer is (a). The production
­technique is quite straightforward, but it takes time. The
producers have to depend on the natural flow of sap.
6. The phrase, to be strained, could best be replaced by
which of the following statement?
(a) To be tried (b) To be purified
(c) To be filtered (d) To be solidified
This is a language/expression question. Hence, the
­correct answer is (c).
Specimen Passage 2
Now, India’s children have to receive at least eight years
of education. The gnawing question is whether it will
remain on paper or it will become a reality. One hardly
needs a reminder that this right is different from oth-
ers enshrined in the constitution that the b ­ eneficiary—a
six-year-old child—cannot demand it, nor can he or she
fight a legal battle when the right is denied or violated.
In all cases, it is the adult society that must act on behalf
of the child. In another peculiarity, where a child’s right
to education (RTE) is denied, no compensation offered
later can be adequate or relevant. This is so because
childhood does not last long. If a legal battle fought on
behalf of a child is eventually won, it may be of little use
to a boy or girl because the opportunity missed at school
during childhood cannot serve the same purpose later
in life. This may be painfully true for girls because our
society permits them only a short childhood, if any at
all. The RTE has become a crucial point of law in India’s
history when the ghastly practice of female infanticide
resurfaced in the form of foeticide. This is ‘symptomatic
of deeper turmoil’ in society, which is compounding the
traditional obstacles to girls’ education. Tenacious prej-
udice against intellectual potential of girls runs across
our cultural diversity and the system of education has
not been able to address it.
21/12/22 10:52 AM
 Comprehension
Q uestions
1. With reference to the passage, consider the following
statements:
(A) When children are denied education, the adult
society does not act on behalf of them.
(B) RTE as a law cannot be enforced in the country.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
incorrect?
(a) Only (A) (b) Both (A) and (B)
(c) Only (B) (d) Either (A) or (B)
Explanation
Statement (A) is incorrect. The enactment of RTE
itself shows that adult society may act on behalf of
children to ensure their education.
Statement (B) is incorrect as the passage does not
indicate that the right cannot be enforced in the coun-
try but rather mentions the shortfalls and difficulties
that may occur in the act of enforcing the law.
Both A and B are incorrect statements. Hence,
option (b) is the right answer.
2. According to the passage, what could be traditional
obstacles to the education of girls?
(A) Inability of the parents to fight a legal battle when
the RTE is denied to their children.
(B) The traditional way of thinking about girls’ role in
society.
(C) The prejudice against the intellectual potential of
girls.
(D) Improper system of education.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
(a) Only (A) and (B)
(b) Only (A), (C), and (D)
(c) Only (B), (C), and (D)
(d) (A), (B), (C), and (D)
Explanation
Statement (A) is not mentioned in the passage any-
where. The statements (B), (C), and (D) are men-
tioned as traditional obstacles at the end of paragraph.
Hence, (c) is the correct answer.
3. Where a child’s RTE is denied, no compensation
offered later can be adequate or relevant, is reflected
through the fact that:
(a) Childhood is short.
(b) Opportunity to learn missed during a specific
childhood period may not be compensated later
in life.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Explanation
Both statements are mentioned in the passage.
Both (a) and (b) apply. Hence, the correct option
is (c).
M03_MADAN 04_65901_C03.indd 5
3.5
4. The expression, symptomatic of deeper turmoil
reflects:
(a) Lack of proper education for girls in society.
(b) Enactment of RTE.
(c) Prevailing political environment in the country.
(d) None of the above
Explanation
There is a mention of girl’s education in the ­second part
of the sentence. Hence, the correct option is (a).
5. Which one of the following statements convey the key
message of the passage?
(a) India has declared that education is compulsory
for children.
(b) Adult society is not keen in implementing the RTE.
(c) The RTE, particularly for a girl child, needs to be
safeguarded.
(d) None of the above
Explanation
Option (a) is incorrect as there is no mention of edu-
cation being made compulsory. Option (b) is also
incorrect, as there is no mention of adults not being
keen in implementing the RTE; it simply mentions
that it is the adult society that must act on behalf of
the child. The author is specifically concerned about
girl child’s education. Hence, the correct option is (c).
6. Which one of the following statements convey the
inference of the passage?
(a) The society has a tenacious prejudice against the
intellectual potential of girls.
(b) Adults cannot be relied upon to fight on behalf of
children for their RTE.
(c) The legal fight to get education for children is
­protracted and prohibitive.
(d) There is no sufficient substitute for education
received in childhood.
Explanation
The option (a) is directly mentioned in the passage
and hence, it is not an inference. Option (c) has the
word ‘prohibitive’ that cannot be inferred from the
­passage. Option (d) is supported by ‘if a legal b
­ attle …
if at all’, which points out the opportunity cost of a
missed childhood, particularly for girls. Hence, the
correct option is (d).
Specimen Passage 3
The concept of creative society refers to the phase of
development of a society, in which a large number of
potential contradictions become articulate and active.
This is most evident when oppressed social groups
are politically mobilized and demand their rights. The
upsurge of peasants and tribes, the movements for
regional autonomy and self-determination, the environ-
mental movements, and the women’s movements in the
developing countries are signs of emergence of a c­ reative
21/12/22 10:52 AM
 3.6
society in contemporary times. The forms of social
movements and their intensity may vary from country
to country and place to place within a country, but the
very presence of movements for social t­ransformations
in various spheres of a society indicates the emergence
of a creative society in a country.
Q uestions
1. What does the author imply by creative ­society?
(A) A society where diverse art forms and literary
writings seek incentive.
(B) A society where social inequalities are accepted as
a norm.
(C) A society where a large number of contradictions
are articulate.
(D) A society where the exploited and the oppressed
groups grow conscious of their human rights and
upliftment.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) (A), (B), and (C) (b) Only (D)
(c) Only (C) and (D) (d) Only (B) and (D)
Explanation
Statement (A) takes the literal meaning of creative
­society, which is not appropriate in the given ­context
of the paragraph. Statement (B) contradicts the pas-
sage as there is talk about oppressed social groups
getting politically mobilized and demanding rights.
Statement (C) is mentioned in the first sentence,
where potential contradictions become ‘­ articulate’.
Statement (D) is mentioned in ‘this is most e­ vident …
creative society in temporary times’. Hence, the cor-
rect option is (c).
2. According to the passage, what are the manifestations
of social movements?
(A) Being aggressive
(B) Involvement of the whole society.
(C) Quest for social equality and individual freedom.
(D) None of the above
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) Only (A) and (B) (b) Only (C)
(c) Only (B) and (C) (d) (A), (B), and (C)
Explanation
Social movements do not need to be aggressive.
Hence, (A) is incorrect. Statement (B) contradicts the
passage since social groups get politically mobilized
and demand their rights internally, not externally.
The entire passage supports statement (C). Hence,
the correct option is (b).
3. With reference to the passage, consider the following
statements.
(A) To be a creative society, it is essential to have a
variety of social movements.
(B) To be a creative society, it is imperative to have
potential contradictions and conflicts.
M03_MADAN 04_65901_C03.indd 6
Chapter 3
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only (A) (b) Only (B)
(c) Both (A) and (B) (d) Neither (A) nor (B)
Explanation
Statements (A) and (B) invert the argument in the
passage. The paragraph does not mention having
a variety of social movements is a necessary condi-
tion for a creative society in the entire paragraph,
so statement (A) is incorrect. For statement (B),
just the presence of potential contradictions and
conflicts is itself not a necessary condition for social
movement, but their ‘articulation and (being) active’
is also required. So statement (B) is also incorrect.
So the answer should be neither (A) nor (B). Hence,
the correct option is (d).
4. Which of the following are examples of different
social movements?
(A) Upsurge of peasants and tribes.
(B) Movements for regional autonomy and
self-determination.
(C) The environmental movements.
(D) The women’s movements.
Codes:
(a) (A), (B), and (C) (b) (B), (C), and (D)
(c) (A), (B), and (D) (d) All of the above
Explanation
This is explicitly mentioned in the third line of the
passage. Hence, the correct option is (d).
5. Which of following can be described as the most
appropriate aim(s) for various social movements?
(A) To achieve the status of a creative society.
(B) To achieve rights.
(C) Social transformation
Codes:
(a) (A) and (B) (b) (B) and (C)
(c) (A) and (C) (d) Only (C)
Explanation
Statement (A) is not the explicit aim of any move-
ment. Statement (B) is mentioned in the second line
of the paragraph. Social transformation has been
mentioned in the last line of the paragraph. Hence,
the correct option is (b).
6. Which of following can be considered the most
­suitable title for the passage?
(a) Creative society and social movements
(b) Social movement as the prerequisite for a creative
society
(c) Social movements
(d) None of the above
Explanation
Option (a) seems to be the most appropriate option.
Option (b) is not the answer: yes, social movements
indicate the emergence of creative society, but
21/12/22 10:52 AM
 Comprehension
nowhere is it mentioned in the paragraph that social
movement is the prerequisite for a creative society.
Option (c) is also not the answer as the paragraph is
mainly about creative society.
3. Which of the following can be considered the main
Specimen Passage 4
A country under foreign domination seeks escape from
the present in dreams of a vanished age and finds consola-
tion in visions about the greatness of the past generations.
That is a foolish and dangerous pastime in which many of
us indulge.
An equally questionable practice for us in India is to
imagine that we are still spiritually great, though we
have come down in the world in other respects. Spiritual
or any other such greatness cannot be found on lack of
freedom and opportunity or on starvation and misery.
Many western writers have encouraged the notion that
Indians are other worldly. I suppose that the poor and
unfortunate in every country become other worldly to
some extent, unless they become revolutionaries, for
this world is evidently not meant for them. So are the
subjected people.
As a man grows to maturity, he is not entirely
engrossed in or satisfied with the external objective
world. He also seeks some inner meaning and some
psychological and physical satisfaction. Therefore,
along with people and civilizations, they mature and
grow as adults. Every civilization and every person
exhibits these parallel streams of external and internal
lives. Where they meet or keep close to each other there
is an equilibrium and stability, and when they diverge,
conflicts and crisis arise that torture the mind and the
spirit.
Q uestions
1. The passage mentions that ‘this world is evidently not
meant for them’. It refers to people who:
(a) Seek freedom from foreign domination
(b) Live in starvation and misery
(c) Become revolutionaries
(d) All of the above
Explanation
The pronoun, them, refers to the poor and unfor-
tunate in every country. Hence, the correct option
is (b).
2. Which of the following can be taken as the most valid
assumption of the paragraph?
(a) A country under foreign domination cannot
indulge in spiritual pursuit.
(b) Poverty is an impediment in suitable pursuit.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
M03_MADAN 04_65901_C03.indd 7
3.7
Explanation
Statement (a) is contradictory to the passage.
­Statement (b) is an assumption implied from ‘­Spiritual
or any other … starvation and misery’. Hence, the cor-
rect option is (b).
theme of the paragraph?
(a) The state of mind of oppressed people.
(b) Starvation and misery.
(c) The growth of civilization.
(d) Body, mind, and spirit of people in general.
Explanation
The statements (b), (c), and (d) are just references in
the passage. Hence, the correct option is (a).
4. According to the passage, the torture of the mind and
spirit is caused:
(a) By the ruthlessness of foreign domination.
(b) By the desire to escape from foreign domination
and find consolation in visions of past greatness.
(c) By the desire to become either other worldly or
revolutionary.
(d) Due to lack of equilibrium between an external
life and an internal life.
Explanation
Statement (d) is the correct option. It is mentioned
in the last line of the third paragraph—this has been
rephrased in the specimen passage. Needs to be
rephrased here also. ‘Where they meet or keep … and
crises arise that torture the mind and spirit’.
5. As a person grows in maturity, she/he seeks:
(a) Psychological satisfaction only.
(b) Physical satisfaction only.
(c) Both psychological and physical satisfaction.
(d) Neither (a) or (b).
Explanation
This is mentioned explicitly in the last paragraph.
6. Many western writers have encouraged the notion
that Indians are other worldly. What can be the possi-
ble meaning of ‘other worldly’ in the context of entire
passage?
(a) They are still basking in past greatness and are
not in touch with the realities of the present-day
world.
(b) Poor, unfortunate, and subject people.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Explanation
The term ‘other worldly’ has been explicitly used in the
second paragraph for poor people. In common par-
lance, it means the poor people that are cut-off from
main stream society. Hence, the correct option is (b).
21/12/22 10:52 AM
 3.8
Specimen Passage 5
Ecosystems provide people with a variety of goods and ser-
vices, such as food, clean water, clean air, flood control, soil
stabilization, pollination, climate regulation, spiritual fulfil-
ment, and aesthetic enjoyment, to name just a few. Most of
these benefits are either irreplaceable or the technology nec-
essary to replace them is prohibitively expensive. For exam-
ple, potable freshwater can be extracted by desalinating sea
water, but only at great cost.
The rapidly expanding human population has greatly
modified the earth’s ecosystem to meet their increased
requirements of some goods and services, particularly
food, freshwater, timber, fibre, and fuel. These modifica-
tions have contributed substantially to human well being
and economic development. The benefits have not been
equally distributed. Some people have actually been
harmed by these changes. Moreover, s­ hort-term increases
in some ecosystems’ goods and services have come at the
cost of long-term degradation of others. For example,
efforts to increase the production of food and fibre have
decreased the ability of some ecosystems to provide clean
water, regulate flooding, and support biodiversity.
Q uestions
1. Expanding human population has an adverse effect on:
(A) Spiritual fulfilment
(B) Availability of potable freshwater.
(C) Employment
(D) Biodiversity
Which of the statements given above are ­correct?
(a) (A), (B), and (C) (b) (B), (C), and (D)
(c) (B) and (D) (d) All of the above
Explanation
The last sentence indicates an adverse effect on the
availability of clean water and biodiversity. Hence,
the correct option is (c).
2. The passage mentions that ‘some people have actually
been harmed by these changes’. It indicates:
(a) Inequitable distribution of benefits.
(b) Decrease in the ability of some ecosystems to pro-
vide clean water, regulate flooding, and support
biodiversity.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Explanation
Both (a) and (b) indicate inequitable distribution
of benefits and resources. Hence, the correct option
is (c).
3. Which of the following is correct in the context of the
passage?
(a) The rapid expansion of population has adversely
affected some people.
(b) Sufficient efforts have not been made to increase
the production of food and fibre.
M03_MADAN 04_65901_C03.indd 8
Chapter 3
(c) In the short-term, some people may be harmed,
but in the long-term, everyone will benefit from
modifications in the earth’s ecosystem.
(d) None of the above
Explanation
Only statement (a) is implied, (b) is irrelevant, and
the discussion in the passage does not support (c).
Hence, the correct option is (a).
4. With reference to the passage, consider the following
statements:
(A) It is imperative to modify the earth’s ecosystem for
the well being of mankind.
(B) Technology can never replace all the goods and
­services provided by the ecosystems.
Which of the following statement(s) given above is/
are correct?
(a) Only (A)
(b) Only (B)
(c) Both (A) and (B)
(d) Neither (A) nor (B)
Explanation
Statement (A) is incorrect because the passage is
almost entirely about the positive and negative
aspects of the modification of our ecosystem. State-
ment (B) is mentioned clearly in the passage. Hence,
the correct option is (b).
5. According to the passage, which of the following can
be taken as the main reason for the modification of
the earth’s ecosystem?
(a) Technology
(b) Increasing population
(c) Lack of an integrated approach
(d) All of the above
Explanation
Though both technology and lack of integrated
approach may be applicable, both are long drawn
inferences. Among the available choices, increasing
population is clearly mentioned. Hence, the correct
option is (b).
6. Which of the following can be considered as the most
suitable title for the passage?
(a) Modification of our ecosystem.
(b) Our natural resources.
(c) Harmful effect of the increase in human
population.
(d) Human interference in our ecosystem.
Explanation
Clearly, options (b), (c), and (d) may be relevant
to the discussion in the passage, but the passage is
mainly about the causes and effect of changes in our
ecosystem. Hence, the correct option is (a).
21/12/22 10:52 AM
 Comprehension 3.9

A s s e s s Yo u r L e a r n i n g

PrACTICe PASSAGeS
Passage 1 3. Who protected the school during the riot?
(a) Hindus (b) Local Muslims
Read the following passage and answer the questions
(c) Politicians (d) Christians
1–5.
4. Who is the teacher of Sanskrit?
Each day at Shantiniketan, the school starts with
Saraswati Vandana. When painting competitions are (a) Manisha Vakil
held in the school, images of Hindu gods and goddesses (b) Ranchodbhai Kiri
are the most common. Sanskrit is the favourite sub- (c) Husena Mansuri
ject of many students. Nothing is new about it except (d) Husena Khatoon
that the 1200 odd students studying in the Hindu-run
school are Muslims. In 1983, when Ranchhodbhai Kiri 5. What is the hope despite the communal riots?
started Shantiniketan in the all-Muslim Juhapura area of (a) Hindus and Muslims can live side by side
Ahmedabad in Gujarat, only 20 per cent of the students (b) Only Hindus can live
were Muslim, but when riots involving the Muslims of (c) Hindus and Muslims cannot live side by side
Juhapura and the Hindus of nearby Jivraj Park, Vejalpur,
(d) Only Muslims can live
affected the locality, Hindus started migrating. Today, all
the students are Muslims, and the school is an unparal- Passage 2
leled example of harmony. In 2002, when a section of the
Read the following passage and answer the questions
inflamed Muslims wanted the school closed, the parents
6–10.
of the students stood like a wall behind it. Shantiniketan’s
Some religious leaders have taught that man is made
principal said, ‘We never thought of moving the school
up of a body and a soul, but they have been silent about
out of the area because of the love and affection of the
intellect. Their followers try to feed the body to earth
local Muslims. Indeed, they value the high standard of
and save the soul from perdition after death, but they
education that we have set.’ Such is the reputation of the
neglected the claims of the mind. Bread for the body
school that some of the local Muslim strongmen accused
and virtue for the soul, these are regarded as indispen-
of involvement in communal riots are willing to protect

A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
sable requisites of human welfare. Nothing is said about
the school during riots. The parents of Shantiniketan’s
students believe that it is the best school when it comes knowledge and education. Thus, Jesus Christ spoke of
feeding the hungry, healing the sick, and converting the
to quality of teaching. A large number of students have
sinners, but he never taught the duty of teaching the
gone for both graduation and post-graduation studies.
ignorant and increasing scientific knowledge. Gautama
Significantly, the only Muslim teacher in the 40-member
Buddha also laid stress on morality, meditation, and
teaching staff, named Husena Mansuri, teaches Sanskrit.
asceticism, but he did not attach great importance to
In fact, she is so happy with the school that she recently
history, science, art, or literature. St. Ambrose depre-
declined the principalship of another Muslim-run school.
cated scientific studies and wrote, ‘To discuss the nature
Some of the students’ entries in a recent inter-school
and position of the earth does not help us in our hope
painting competition were truly moving. One drew a
for life to come.’ St. Basil said ‘It is not a matter of inter-
picture of Bharat Mata with a mosque and temple, while
est to us whether the earth is a sphere, a cylinder, or a
another portrayed a boy tying rakhi to his sister. Truly,
disc.’ Thomas Carlyle also followed the Christian tradi-
Shantiniketan is a beacon of hope that despite the provo-
tion and declared that he honoured only two kinds of
cations from both communities, Hindus and Muslims can
men and no third, that is, the manual labourer and the
live side by side with mutual respect.
religious teacher. He forgot the scientist, the scholar,
1. How does Shantiniketan school start the day? and the artist. The cynics of Greece despised education
(a) Prayer as well.
(b) National anthem 6. What have the religious teachers taught in the past?
(c) Saraswati Vandana
(a) That man is made up of body only.
(d) Puja
(b) That man is made up of soul only.
2. Which subject is most preferred by the students?
(a) English (b) Hindi (c) That man is made up of bubbles.
(c) Sanskrit (d) Gujarati (d) That man is made up of body and soul.

M03_MADAN 04_65901_C03.indd 9 21/12/22 10:52 AM

 3.10
7. According to the passage, what is food for the soul?
(a) Bread (b) Virtue
(c) Vice (d) Education
8. The following philosophers are mentioned in the
paragraph:
(A) Jesus (B) Gautama Buddha
(C) St. Ambrose (D) Thomas Carlyle
(E) St. Basil
Which of the following depicts the correct order as
they appear in the paragraph.
(a) (A), (B), (C), (D), and (E)
(b) (A), (C), (D), (E), and (B)
(c) (A), (B), (C), (E), and (D)
(d) (B), (A), (C), (D), and (E)
9. Intellectual pursuits have been neglected because:
(A) They are unnecessary and superfluous.
(B) They make people dwarves.
(C) They lead people to hell.
(a) Only (A) is correct
(b) Only (B) is correct
(c) Only (C) is correct
(d) Only (A) and (B) are correct
10. The style of the passage is:
(a) Narrative (b) Expository
(c) Critical (d) Analytical
Passage 3
Read the following passage and answer the ­questions
11–15.
The previous decade has reversed the presumptions about
development, and more than anything else, it has made
it difficult to decide what is in store for the next decade.
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
However, there are some things about which one can
make claims with some confidence.
Firstly, education, health, and productive employment
are the decisive factors for development and impartial-
ity. We believe that all these are results of rapid economic
development, and to achieve these ends, development
only can generate resources. In the present form, it will
be best to view these as a better reason than as a result
of development. In fact, in every case of successful devel-
opment, the evaluation of previous reforms in education,
technical skills, health, existence, and productive tasks is
included.
Secondly, technical ability is a vital resource and
explains the high ratio of development in production and
trade as compared to ratios of development in more tradi-
tional factors, such as natural resources or capital forma-
tion. There is no requisite capability in research. In fact,
industrial momentum in a factory or farm is more impor-
tant than the presence of a research organization.
Thirdly, the essentially required environment also
cannot be ignored for a long time period, which is next
only to the issue of disarmament in the list of interna-
tional issues. At the national level, there has been a defi-
nite rise in ignorance towards the environment due to
development.
M03_MADAN 04_65901_C03.indd 10
Chapter 3
In the context of India, at least two immediate factors
increase the ratio mentioned above. The first of these
is the rise in population level. By giving momentum
to expansion of population and the workforce, human
resource development has achieved synergistic impor-
tance. An increase in population is also a factor, but is not
the most important one that delineated environmental
decay in rural and urban areas. Second, as a large coun-
try, we cannot make an independent place for ourselves
in the global system without developing appropriate abil-
ity for the development of our self-respect. In order to
achieve this objective, the achievement of technical skills
is a decisive step.
So far, we have taken human resource development
and technical and environmental issues as support-
ing factors of the main part of the plan. Along with the
expansion of quality of basic infrastructure and targets
of production (tonnes of steel and kilowatt-hours of elec-
tricity), other targets of capacity (kilometres), and other
targets (number of schools and students and number of
electrified villages), known techniques, full use of natural
resources, and maximum possible use of available finan-
cial resources have been emphasized upon.
11. According to this passage, what has been considered
to be the most important by us out of the following?
(a) Basic facilities and increase in the number of
achieved targets.
(b) Ideal use of available natural resources.
(c) Maximum use of available financial resources.
(d) All of the above
12. According to the author of the passage, whose effect
out of the following is felt at the national level?
(a) Expansion of workforce of high quality.
(b) Lack of care and activism for the protection of
environmental resources.
(c) Continuous decay of technical potentialities in
urbanized countries.
(d) Emphasis on a slower pace of disarmament as
compared to disarmament in other nations.
13. According to the author of the passage, which of the
­following factors is of synergistic importance?
(a) Population growth
(b) Workforce
(c) Human resource development
(d) None of the above
14. Which of the following areas has not been included
amongst various ‘targets’ mentioned in the passage?
(a) Maximum use of financial resources
(b) Electricity production
(c) Population growth
(d) Number of schools and children
15. Which of the following can be the most suitable title
of the passage?
(a) Potential obstacles in economic development
(b) Main factors of development
(c) Targets in development process
(d) Role of population growth in development
21/12/22 10:52 AM
 Comprehension
Passage 4
Read the following passage and answer the questions
16–20.
The great Acharyas have said that everything discov-
ered has a great goal; surrender yourself to that goal
and act on it by drawing your inspiration from that goal
whereby you will get a new column of energy. Do not
allow this energy to be dissipated in the futile memory
of past regrets or failures, or excitement of the present,
and bring that entire energy focused into activity, that
is, the highest creative action in the world outside,
whereby the individual who is till now considered the
most inefficient, finds his way to the highest achieve-
ment and success.
This can be said very easily in a second. In order to train
our mind to this attitude, considerable training is needed
because we have already trained our mind wrongly to
such an extent that we have become perfect in imperfec-
tions. Not knowing the art of action, we have mastered
artists in doing wrong things, and the totality of activity
will bring the country to a wrong end indeed.
If each individual is given a car to achieve an ideal
socialistic pattern and nobody knows driving but starts
driving, what would be the condition on road? Everybody
has equal rights on the public roads. Then, each car will
necessarily dash against the other and there is bound to
be a jumble.
There seems to be a very apt pattern of life that we are
heading to. Every one of us is a vehicle. We know how
to go forward. The point intellect is very powerful, and
everybody is driving, but nobody knows how to control
the mental energy and direct it properly or guide it to the
proper ­destination.
16. What is the effect of wrong training of our mind?
(a) Becoming perfect in all aspects of life.
(b) Becoming master artists.
(c) Taking the country to wrong destination.
(d) Carrying on activities without knowing how to
­control mental energies.
17. The source of energy according to the author is:
(a) Highest creative action.
(b) Proper training of mind.
(c) Inspiration from past events.
(d) Stimulation obtained from a set goal.
18. The author’s main focus in the passage is:
(a) Finding out a worthy goal in life.
(b) Regulation of energy in proper channels.
(c) Struggle for equal rights.
(d) Car accidents due to lack of driving skills.
19. The country may perish because of:
(a) Failures in past acts.
(b) Wrong deeds performed without proper
knowledge.
(c) Completely surrendering to any one goal.
(d) Directing mental energy to the right destination.
M03_MADAN 04_65901_C03.indd 11
3.11
20. The author considers everyone to be a vehicle that
knows how to go forward:
(a) Without driving energy
(b) With least consideration for others
(c) With no sense of direction
(d) With no control on speed
Passage 5
Read the following passage carefully and answer the
­questions 21–25.
The phrase ‘What is it like?’ stands for a fundamental
thought process. How does one go about observing and
reporting on things and events that occupy the segments
of earth space? Of all the infinite varieties of phenomena
on the face of the earth, how does one decide what phe-
nomena to observe? There is no such thing as a complete
description of the earth or any part of it, as every micro-
scopic point on the earth’s surface differs from every other
such point. Experience shows that the things observed
are already familiar because they are like phenomenon
that occur at home or because they resemble the abstract
images and models developed in the human mind.
How are abstract images formed? Humans alone,
amongst all other animals on the earth, possess lan-
guage, and their words symbolize not only specific things,
but also mental images of classes of things. People can
remember what they have seen or experienced because
they attach a word symbol to them.
During the long record of our efforts to gain more and
more knowledge about the face of the earth as the human
habitat, there has been a continuing interplay between
things and events. The direct observation through the
senses is described as a percept, and the mental image is
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
described as a concept. Percepts are what some people
describe as reality, in contrast to mental images, which
are theoretical, implying that they are not real.
The relation of percept to concept is not as simple as
the definition implies. It is now quite clear that people of
different cultures or even individuals in the same culture
develop different mental images of reality and what they
perceive is a reflection of these preconceptions. The direct
observation of things and events on the face of the earth
is therefore, clearly a function of the mental images of the
mind of the observer that the whole idea of reality must
be reconsidered.
Concepts determine what the observer perceives,
yet concepts are derived from the generalizations of
previous percepts. What happens is that the educated
observer is taught to accept a set of concepts and then,
he/she sharpens or changes these concepts during their
professional career. In any field of scholarship, profes-
sional opinion at one time determines what concepts
and procedures are acceptable, and these form a kind
of model of scholarly behaviour.
21. The problem raised in the passage reflects on:
(a) Thought process (b) Human behaviour
(c) Cultural perceptions (d) Professional opinion
21/12/22 10:52 AM
 3.12
22. According to the passage, human beings have which
of the following in mind the most?
(a) Observation of things
(b) Preparation of mental images
(c) Expression through language
(d) To gain knowledge
23. Concept means:
(a) A mental image
(b) A reality
(c) An idea expressed in language
(d) All of the above
24. The relation of percept to concept is:
(a) Positive (b) Negative
(c) Reflective (d) Absolute
25. In the passage, the earth is taken as:
(a) The globe (b) The human habitat
(c) A celestial body (d) A planet
Passage 6
Read the following passage carefully and answer the
­questions 26–30.
It should be remembered that the Nationalist Movement
in India, like all nationalist movements, was essentially a
bourgeois movement. It represented the natural histori-
cal stage of development, and to consider it or to criticize
it as a working class movement is wrong. Gandhi repre-
sented that movement, and the Indian masses in relation
to that movement to a supreme degree, and he became
the voice of Indian people to that extent. The main con-
tribution of Gandhi to India and the Indian masses has
been through the powerful movements that he launched
through the National Congress. Through nation-wide
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
action, he sought to mould the millions and largely suc-
ceeded in doing so. He changed them from a demoralized,
timid, and hopeless mass, bullied and crushed by every
dominant interest and incapable of resistance, to people
with self-respect and self-reliance, resisting tyranny, and
capable of united action and sacrifice for a larger cause.
Gandhi made people think of political and economic
issues, and every village and every bazaar hummed with
arguments and debates on the new ideas and hopes that
filled the people.
That was an amazing psychological change. The time
was ripe for it, and, of course, the circumstances and
world conditions worked for this change. However, a great
leader was necessary to take the advantage of those cir-
cumstances and conditions. Gandhi was that leader, and
he released many bonds that imprisoned and disabled our
minds, and none of us who experienced it can ever forget
that great feeling of release and exhilaration that came
over the Indian people.
Gandhi has played a revolutionary role of greatest
importance in India because he knew how to make the
most of the objective conditions and could reach the heart
of the masses, whereas groups with a more advanced ide-
ology functioned largely in air because they did not fit in
with those conditions and could, therefore, not evoke any
substantial response from the masses.
M03_MADAN 04_65901_C03.indd 12
Chapter 3
It is perfectly true that Gandhi, functioning in a nation-
alist plane, did not think in terms of the conflict of classes,
trying to compose their differences. However, the actions
he indulged in and taught the people have inevitably
raised mass consciousness tremendously and made social
issues vital. Gandhi and the Congress must be judged by
the policies they pursued and the actions they indulged
in. But behind this, personality counts and that colours
those policies and activities. In case of very exceptional
person, like Gandhi, the question of personality becomes
especially important in order to understand and appraise
him. To us, he represented the spirit and honour of India,
the yearning of her sorrowing millions to be rid of their
innumerable burdens. An insult to him by the British
Government or others was an insult to India and her
people.
26. Which one of the following is true for the given
passage?
(a) The passage is a critique of Gandhi’s role in Indian
movement for independence.
(b) The passage hails the role of Gandhi in India’s
­freedom movement.
(c) The author is neutral on Gandhi’s role in India’s
­freedom movement.
(d) It is an account of Indian National Congress’ sup-
port to the working class movement.
27. The change that the Gandhian movement brought
amongst the Indian masses was:
(a) Physical (b) Cultural
(c) Technological (d) Psychological
28. To consider the nationalist movement or to criticize
it as a working class movement was wrong because it
was a:
(a) Historical movement
(b) Voice of the Indian people
(c) Bourgeois movement
(d) Movement represented by Gandhi
29. Gandhi played a revolutionary role in India because
he could:
(a) Preach morality
(b) Reach the hearts of Indians
(c) See the conflict of classes
(d) Lead the Indian National Congress
30. Groups with advanced ideology functioned in air as
they did not fit in with:
(a) Objective conditions of masses
(b) The Gandhian ideology
(c) The class consciousness of the people
(d) The differences amongst masses
Passage 7
Read the following passage carefully and answer the
­questions 31–35.
Secularism is the very soul of Indian society and the
democracy. The feelings of co-existence, tolerance, co-
operation and mutual respect between all its social and
religious groups have been in the main stream of India
21/12/22 10:52 AM
 Comprehension
since ancient times. Hinduism itself was a religious con-
glomeration of thousands of sects having distinct beliefs,
rituals, customs and practices. Three nearly different
religions branched out of it, namely, Buddhism, Jainism
and Sikhism having separate places of worship and holy
books. Islam is the second largest community of our
nation with a spectacular contribution. All the religions
have added variety, colour and richness to native herit-
age. Christianity had preceded Islam to India. St. Thomas,
the twelve disciples of Christ arrived in India to preach his
message when St. Peter was in Rome.
Parsis came to India in eighth century to escape
from religious persecution in Iran. They brought
Zoroastrianism. Jews sailed to India two thousand years
ago to settle down in Mumbai, Pune, Kochi and Delhi. In
all, India remained a shining example of unity in diversity,
nowhere else found in the world.
Thus, our constitution makers declared our nation to be
a secular state without any discrimination. Despite being
religious, they don’t harbour any ill will or intolerance
against other faiths. Even during the freedom struggle
the leaders who led it made secularism a basic policy to
rally all the people against the British. The secular polity
was fiercely strengthened by Mahatma Gandhi. Himself a
deeply religious Hindu, he had great respect for all other
religions and faiths.
To divide the Indians, the colonial rulers tried to
destroy file spirit of secularism by aiding and abetting
communal forces. Some of our people terribly played in
the hands of British. Our nation paid a terrible price for
that lapse that got divided into two nations. Gandhi Ji sac-
rificed to the bullets of a degenerated fanatic who had no
use for our secular legacy. It should teach us a lesson that
only secular spirit will keep India going.
31. Which of the following tradition/s has/have been the
main tradition/s of India?
(a) Co-existence, tolerance, mutual respect and
cooperation
(b) beliefs, rituals, customs and practices
(c) unity in diversity
(d) All of the above
32. Which religions came to India from abroad?
(a) Islam, Christianity, Zoroastrians, Jews
(b) Hindus, Sikhs, Buddhist, Jainism
(c) Different sects over a period of time
(d) None of the above
33. What price India paid for its lapse in secularism?
(a) India got divided into two nations at the time of
independence.
(b) Mahatma Gandhi sacrificed for the nation.
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of the above
34. Which of the following concept has been used to show
that India has successfully accommodated all impor-
tant religions?
M03_MADAN 04_65901_C03.indd 13
3.13
(a) Unity in Diversity
(b) Hind Ki Chadar
(c) Diversity in Unity
(d) Uniform society
35. Which of the following personalities is christened as a
pivot to fought for secular spirit of India?
(a) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Dr Bhim Rao Ambedkar
(d) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
Passage 8
Read the following passage carefully and answer the
­questions 35–40.
In India, co-education has not been a very long practice. It
started in India during pre-independence period. At that
time, education movements started as a part of national
movement. It was realised that co-education was a part
of the modern education which reduced gender biases.
The modern education started in India in the early part
of nineteenth century. Co-education is based on the feel-
ing of gender equality and skill development so that we
can see women at top positions. The girls and boys look
for freedom to interact with each other so that a healthy
practice can be set instead of being conservative, suspi-
cious, and ignorant. In our rural counterparts, we can still
see separate schools for boys and girls. Now, co-education
is being practiced in big towns and cities, in colleges, uni-
versities and other institutions. This situation is perceived
to be beneficial for complete personality development.
In fact, Switzerland was the first nation to introduce
co-education. Then, this phenomenon spread to other
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
western nations. Now, it is a modern way of life.
This system of education is very cost effective as well. It
reduces financial burden that is required with more sepa-
rate buildings, teacher requirements. A developing nation
such as India, has always been under financial distress,
we always look for better returns on investment on educa-
tion. This is mandatory as per our legislative commitment
towards universal and compulsory education.
A better understanding between boys and girls is ulti-
mately sign of our family and social progression. They
may know better the intricacies of relationships. The
social media is also playing an important role in it. The
boys are not posed as dangerous creatures. The boys must
learn to treat girls in a respectful and civilized manner.
The gender linked crime rate must come down. The soci-
ety can exert better social control and discipline as boys
behave decently in the presence of girls. Girls also come
out of their social reservations. A healthy competition
gets generated and they can explore their talent, skills
and capabilities in the desired manner. This helps in the
refinement of society.
36 What was the main reason cited for development of
co-education system in India?
(a) Gender equality and skill development
(b) This tallies with religious ordains
21/12/22 10:52 AM
 3.14
(c) This is required for economic development
(d) This is required for purely emotional feeling
37 Which of the following nations introduced co-education
for the first time in the world?
(a) Great Britain
(b) Switzerland
(c) Austria
(d) Russia
38. How boys are found to behave in the presence of girls?
(a) The boys are found to behave decently in presence
of girls.
(b) The violent incidents are bound to increase in the
society.
(c) The boys are likely to be more upset with issues as
unemployment.
(d) The boys will become more reserved in their
activities.
39. As mentioned in the passage, why should boys and
girls study together and interact?
(a) It mainly started in India during independ-
ence struggle as a part of the modern-education
feature.
(b) It generates healthy respect for each other
between boys and girls instead of suspicions.
(c) Expenses on education is reduced by co-educa-
tion as boys and girls share the same facilities and
staff.
(d) All of the above
40. What are the economic aspects of co-education in
India?
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
(a) The better skill development for the betterment of
the society.
(b) The cost of setting up of schools can offers us
better returns
(c) The staff utilisation can offer us better returns
(d) All of the above
Passage 9
Read the following passage carefully and answer the
­questions 41–45. [June 2021]
The ceremonial use of slogans and catchwords in educa-
tional discussions raises the suspicion of a tenuous linkage
between thought and action. As stock phrases multiply
and the talk begins to take on an idealistic ring, the wary
listener might well begin to wonder whether the lip ser-
vice paid to these concepts is connected with what actu-
ally goes on in classrooms. It is difficult in this day and age
to be opposed to democracy, creativity, and innovation
in education, but how are these attractive words related
to the more mundane business of teaching practice? The
answer, of course, is that the two are often not related - a
fact that accounts for one of the most frequently recurring
complaints among today’s educators: the all-too-obvious
gap between theory (i.e., educational talk) on the one
hand and practice on the other.
M03_MADAN 04_65901_C03.indd 14
Chapter 3
The dissonance between what teachers say. or at least
what their leaders say, and what they do takes many
forms and has several important consequences. For some,
it lays the groundwork for the development of a cynical
outlook towards the admonitions of idealists and the
advocates of new and supposedly revolutionary practices.
This cynicism, which grows out of a prior sense of disil-
lusionment strikes many young teachers as they begin
to appreciate the unrealistic quality of several of the
expectations aroused during the period of their profes-
sional training. Teaching as actually experienced and as
described in textbooks and college courses often turns out
to be to quite different states of affairs. The result is that
college instructors of education and other outsiders begin
to be looked upon with suspicion by many practitioners.
Even the testimony of fellow teachers may be viewed sus-
piciously when it conflicts with the listener’s own experi-
ence in the classroom.
41. The use of stock phrases in educational discussions
has tended to reveal:
(a) The linkage between thought and action
(b) The difference between saying and doing in class-
room contexts
(c) The ceremonial importance of slogans
(d) The idealistic ring of talks
42. How are the idealistic concepts related to the routine
practices in education?
(a) They intertwine theory and practice
(b) They make classroom teaching innovative
(c) They make the business of education highly
profitable
(d) They lead to the identification of gap between
theory and practice
43. What is the sequel of lack of congruence between say-
ing and doing as evident in teacher behaviour?
(a) Opposition to revolutionary practices
(b) Lays ground for frequent complaints
(c) Emergence of disillusionment among teachers
(d) Support to the admonition of idealists
44. Why do young teachers appreciate the unrealistic
quality of expectations?
(a) Because of the cynical attitude among teachers
(b) Because of the testimonial given by fellow
teachers
(c) Because of their professional training
(d) Because of their own experience in teaching
45. The passage analyses
(a) The linkage between language and discussions
(b) The schism between theory and actual practice of
teaching
(c) The need to the use of high brow language in edu-
cational discussions
(d) The importance of idealism in education
21/12/22 10:52 AM
 Comprehension
Passage 10
Read the following passage carefully and answer the
­questions 46–50. [June 2021]
How much time should you allot for group work? It
depends on task complexity, but you must make some
more refined estimates as well. You need to determine
the time to devote to group work and time to devote to
all groups coming together to share their contributions.
This latter time may be used for group reports, a whole-
class discussion, debriefing to relate the work experiences
of each group to the end product, or some combination
of these tasks. Group work can easily get out of hand in
the excitement, controversy, and natural dialogue that
can come from passionate discussion. This possibility
requires you to place limits on each stage of the coopera-
tive learning activity, so one stage does not take time from
another and leave the task disjointed and incomplete in
your learners’ minds. Most time naturally will be devoted
to the work of individual groups, during which the major
portion of the end product will be completed. Individual
group work normally will consume 60% to 80% of the
time devoted to the cooperative learning activity. The
remaining time must be divided among individual group
presentations and/or whole class discussion and debrief-
ing that places the group work into the perspective of a
single end product. If you plan both group reports and
whole class discussion for the same day, be aware that the
discussion probably will get squeezed into a fraction of
the time required to make it meaningful. To avoid this, the
group discussion or debriefing for the following class day
may be so scheduled so that class members have ample
time to reflect on their group reports and to pull together
their own thoughts about the collaborative process, which
may or may not have occurred as intended. Providing 15
or 20 minutes at the beginning of class the next day is usu-
ally enough time for students to have acquired the proper
distance to reflect meaningfully on their experiences of
the day before-and to learn from them.
46. What is the main determinant of time allocation in
cooperative learning?
(a) Time devoted to group work
(b) Time devoted to all groups
(c) Time devoted to presentation of reports
(d) Complexity and the number of tasks involved
47. What can disrupt group work?
(a) Difficulty of task
(b) A whole class discussion
(c) Discussions which involve emotions
(d) Arguments on various points
48. A major chunk of time in cooperative learning is
devoted to which of the following?
(a) Individual group presentation
(b) Whole class discussion
(c) Individual group work
(d) Debriefing
M03_MADAN 04_65901_C03.indd 15
3.15
49. The members of cooperative learning team should be
given enough time to:
(a) reflect
(b) discuss
(c) ask questions
(d) present new ideas
50. The most appropriate caption for the passage will be:
(a) Guidelines for cooperative learning
(b) Procedure for cooperative learning
(c) Precaution in the conduct of cooperative learning
(d) Limitations of cooperative learning
Passage 11
Read the following passage carefully and answer the
­questions 51–55.
According to a study published recently in the journal
Nature Climate Change, while black carbon has a large
effect on snow darkening and resultant melting of snow,
dust particles transported from as far as Saudi Arabia that
get deposited in the Western Himalayan Region (WHR)
have a large role to play in melting of snow, particularly at
higher elevations. Dust transported as elevated, aerosol
layers get deposited at 1 – 5 km elevations, black carbon
emission is mostly a surface phenomenon and influences
melting of snow from surface to about 3 km elevation.
Based on remote sensing data of spatial distribution of
dust aerosol concentration over the Indian subcontinent
and dust induced snow albedo reduction over Himalayas
during the period 2011–2016 and simulations, it has
been inferred that the relative impacts of dust and black
carbon vary with surface elevation of snow pack. This is in
addition to snow-melt caused by warming due to climate
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
change. Earlier studies have shown that the magnitude of
snow mass decrease is about 1mm per year at 1 km eleva-
tion, about 5 mm per year at 4.5 km elevation and about 3
mm per year at 6 km elevation.
Though black carbon has a larger snow albedo dark-
ening effect than dust due to a larger mass absorption
efficiency, the study found that radiative effects of dust
deposited on snow are comparable to black carbon in
the WHR at higher elevations. This is mainly because the
deposition of the dust by mass is 100-1000 times more
than black carbon. As the elevation increases, the influ-
ence of dust comes greater than black carbon and this
coincides with maximum intensity of snow melt reduc-
tion seen at 3-5 km elevation. Between these two black
carbon mainly contributes to snow melt at lower eleva-
tion while dust is the major contributor for snow melt at
higher elevation. Westerlies transport dust particles as
elevated aerosol layers at maximum intensities mostly
during the pre-monsoon period and this gets deposited at
higher elevations in the WHR.
Due to global warming, snow cover at lower elevations
in the Himalayas will occur less frequently or totally dis-
appear compared with snow cover at higher elevations.
The annual contribution of dust to snow melt will there-
fore likely increase in future as the black carbon effect at
lower elevation weakness with dwindling snow pack.
21/12/22 10:52 AM
 3.16
51. Snow melt in Himalayas is on account of:
(A) Dust deposition
(B) Black carbon deposition
(C) Increase in albedo
(D) Climate change
(a) (A) and (B) only
(b) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(c) (A), (B) and (C) only
(d) (A), (B) and (D) only
52. Maximum rate of snow mass reduction per annum is
at elevation of:
(a) 1 km (b) 3-5 km
(c) 6 km (d) 2 km
53. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: Reduction in snow albedo is more in case
of black carbon than dust
Reason R: Black carbon has higher mass absorption
efficiency compared to dust.
In the light of the above statements, choose the cor-
rect answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explana-
tion of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
54. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: Radiative effects of dust deposited on
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
snow are comparable to black carbon in the WHR at
higher elevations.
Reason R: Both black carbon and dust darken the
snow cover.
In the light of the above statements, choose the cor-
rect answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explana-
tion of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
55. The passage clearly brings out the finding that:
(a) Black carbon causes global warming
(b) Dust causes global warming
(c) Dust modifies the radiative properties of snow
cover to the same extent as black carbon
(d) Black carbon and dust are competing agents in
melting of snow packs
Passage 12
Read the following passage carefully and answer the
­questions 56–60. [June 2021]
M03_MADAN 04_65901_C03.indd 16
Chapter 3
The need for continuing and reinforcing value-oriented
curriculum at the post graduate level and level of profes-
sional studies may be considered even more important.
Most of the students trained at these levels are likely to
become leaders of business and industry, technocrats,
leaders of thought, teachers and educationists, research
workers, professionals, political leaders and social work-
ers etc. besides playing their normal roles as citizens and
family members like all other people. It appears that most
of them at the time of leaving the college after 3-6 years
of study, may have a poor idea of the values of freedom
and human dignity, the value of food, security and health
care for millions of poor and disadvantaged people, the
importance of correct public policies for managing soci-
eties and solving several problems, the importance of
proper human relations and personal life styles, etc. A
good number of them, however are now getting oppor-
tunities to acquire modern scientific and technical knowl-
edge of high standards particularly in some of our institu-
tions of excellence, comparable to the best institutions in
the developed countries. But the problem of inadequate
access to this kind of modern knowledge for the poor and
disadvantaged groups in our society constitutes a serious
social and moral issue. Curricular reform and reconstruc-
tion on proper lines should be the active concern of edu-
cationists and educational planners, because as pointed
out in national policy document 1986, it can be a forceful
tool for the cultivation of social and moral values. In our
culturally plural societies education should foster univer-
sal and eternal values, oriented towards the unity and
integration of our people. Such value education should
eliminate obscurantism religious fanaticism, violence
superstition and fatalism.
56. In higher education, in the context of promoting
strong value orientation, which of the following state-
ment holds true?
(1) Provide opportunities to students to acquire scien-
tific knowledge of high standards.
(2) A Policy for development of values may be
prepared.
(3) Offer courses related to inter disciplinary contem-
porary socio-economic problems.
(4) The universities should aim to enrich technologi-
cal dimensions.
57. The higher education system as of now emphasizes on
(1) Utilitarian values
(3) Social and Political values
(2) Human values
(4) Spiritual values
58. Value oriented curriculum at professional studies
level is important
(1) To propagate the values further
(2) To have a glimpse of the issues of the poor and
disadvantaged
(3) To balance other pedagogy, related deficiencies
(4) To train students as efficient resource agents
21/12/22 10:52 AM
 Comprehension 3.17

59. The most suitable caption for the passage may be:
(a) Enforcing values in education
(b) Importance of values
(c) Value implementation
(d) Value basis for tertiary education and society
60. In order to cultivate values, the higher education sys-
tem should concentrate on:
(a) Plugging pedagogical deficiencies
(b) Integrating technology
(c) Integrating technology with pedagogy
(d) Curricular reforms

A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

M03_MADAN 04_65901_C03.indd 17 21/12/22 10:52 AM

 3.18 Chapter 3

Answer Keys
Passage 1
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (a)
Passage 2
6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (a)
Passage 3
11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (b)
Passage 4
16. (d) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (c)
Passage 5
21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (c) 25. (b)
Passage 6
26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (a)
Passage 7
31. (d) 32. (a) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (b)
Passage 8
36. (a) 37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (d) 40. (d)
Passage 9
41. (b) 42. (d) 43. (c) 44. (a) 45. (b)
Passage 10
46. (d) 47. (c) 48. (c) 49. (a) 50. (c)
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

Passage 11
51. (d) 52. (b) 53. (a) 54. (b) 55. (d)
Passage 12
56. (c) 57. (a) 58. (d) 59. (d) 60. (d)

M03_MADAN 04_65901_C03.indd 18 21/12/22 10:52 AM

 CHaPTer

4 Communication

01 Communication: Meaning, Characteristics of Communication

02 Communication and its Types

03 Effective Communication:
learninG Verbal and Non-verbal,
Inter-cultural and Group
oBJeCTiVes Communications, Classroom
Communication

04 Barriers to Effective Communication

05 Mass-media and Society

M04_MADAN 04_65901_C04.indd 1 21/12/22 10:54 AM

 4.2
Communication: Meaning,
Types and Characteristics
The word ‘communication’ comes from the Latin word
communicare, meaning ‘to share’. This word literally
means “to make common.” Human beings are social ani-
mals, they have a set of needs that are dynamic. At the
most basic level, we need to communicate ourselves to
fulfill those needs. At its highest level, communication
means building strong, trusting relationships with people
whose perspectives are very different from your own.
We have a compulsive urge to communicate with
each other for the sake of becoming good citizens and
development.
According to the Oxford Dictionary, ‘Communication
is the transferring or conveying of meaning’. This is the
exchange of thoughts, information or feelings by speech,
writing or other means of disseminating data.
According to Little, ‘Human communication is the
process by which information is passed between peo-
ple by means of previously agreed symbols, in order to
produce a desired response.’ The following aspects are
important.
1. We prioritize our senses in communication, and
through our bodily gestures, face expressions, eye
contact etc. Listening aspect is equally important in
this world as all people aspire to be listened, may be
for the sake of ‘feedback’.
2. Communication is a form of interaction that takes
place through signs and symbols also.
2. A Sender sends Giving Information
a message
(giving or asking
CHANNEL
for information).
1. The
Communication SENDER MESSAGE
process starts (ENCODING)
with a sender.
CHANNEL
Receiving
Information
Figure 4.1 Elements of Communication
M04_MADAN 04_65901_C04.indd 2
Chapter 4
A sign is an ‘object’ or figure’ that represents a certain real-
ity for those who interpret it. For example, the red colour
is a “stop” sign in traffic.
A symbol represents an ‘idea’ that must be perceived
from the senses and that is linked to a convention accepted
by society. A red rose may indicate love and affection.
According to Vygotsky, symbols are learned within
a social context, and they need to be internalized, and
then can be used to share meaning with others, they
function as mental tools to construct an understanding
of the world.
The study of relationships among words is called as
‘syntactics’.
3. Effective communication always includes feedback.
4. The modern age of communication is characterized by
speed, efficiency and the ability to transcend physical
or geographical limitations.
Almost 70% or more of our time is spent in commu-
nicating with others. No development is possible without
communication. It is an important tool in our personality
development also.
Thus, we are going to explore all these facts in this
unit. The evolution of mankind is basically the story of our
progress in communication methods.
In the communication process, the sender (encoder)
encodes the message and then using a medium/channel,
sends it to the receiver (decoder) who decodes the mes-
sage, and after processing the information, the receiver
sends back appropriate feedback/reply using a medium/
channel.
3. A Channel (or
path), such as
Phone/face-to-
face (talk/writing)
is used to transfer
the message.
REPLY TO
SENDER
RECEIVER
(DECODING)
5. The receiver
replies to the 4. The message
sender. is received by the
receiver.
21/12/22 10:54 AM
 Communication
aSSertive CoMMuniCation
These days we tend to get aggressive very soon due to situ-
ations, stress etc. But the requirement is to become asser-
tive, that is a healthier communication style. It involves
(a) Expressing our views without disrespecting
others or ourselves.
Concept Box
Theory of Communication
It is helpful to examine communication and commu-
nication theory through one of the following view-
points:
1. Mechanistic: The perfect transaction of a message
from the sender to the receiver.
2. Psychological: The sending of a message to a
receiver and the emotions of the receiver upon inter-
preting the message.
3. Social Constructionist (Symbolic Interactionist):
It sees the product of the interactants sharing and
creating of meaning of message, while ‘transmission
Models of Communication
The different models help us in checking the flow
of information over a period of time. They guide
us towards future as well. A ‘model’ analyses the
communication that takes a mechanistic perspective of
‘human communication’. This tells us about the flow of
information. Communication is primarily a transmission
process. We need to understand relationship among its
different variables so that it can be made more effective.
Alex Fish has proposed three models of communica-
tion—Transmission (or Linear Model), Interactive and
Transactional Models.
tranSMiSSion or linear Model
According to this model, communication has occurred
when a message has been sent and received, thus
communication is through one way only. The three basic
elements are–channel (medium), sender and receiver.
Speaker Speech
Occasion
M04_MADAN 04_65901_C04.indd 3
4.3
(b) Communicating our opinion and ideas clearly.
Thus, being transparent and unbiased.
(c) We need to strike a balance between our needs
and those of others.
The details of steps of communication process have been
given on page 18.
model’ sees communication as a robotic and com-
puter-like situation.
4. Systemic: The individuals interact with each other
through symbols to create and interpret meanings.
The new messages are created via ‘through put’, and
then interpreted and reinterpreted as they travel.
This information is mentioned in Shannon and
Weaver Model also.
5. Critical: A source of power and oppression of indi-
viduals and social groups. Inspection of a particular
theory on this level will provide a framework on the
nature of communication as seen within the con-
fines of that theory.
Feedback is missing in transmission model. This model is
also termed as pipeline or container model. The different
transmission models have been discussed as follows.
Channel
Sender Message Receiver
Channel
Figure 4.2 Transmission Model
Aristotle Model
This model dates back to 300 BC. This includes three
communication elements– the speaker, the subject and
the audience. This model tries to make better and more
persuasive communicator. He gave the term ‘rhetoric’
in this context that means ‘speaker’ that is intended to
Audience Effect
21/12/22 10:54 AM
 4.4
persuade. Its main application is in public speaking,
seminars, and lectures. The sender (public speaker,
professor, etc.) passes on their message to the receiver
(the audience). Thus, the sender is the only active member
in this model, whereas the audience is passive. Aristotle
used ‘discovery of the available means of persuasion’ for
defining the whole art of persuasive communication.
Aristotle identified three elements that may help in
improving communication:
1. Ethos: This defines the credibility, authority and
power of the speaker in a field of their choice.
2. Pathos: This connects the speaker with the audience
through different emotions (anger, sadness, happi-
ness, etc.)
This Lasswell model was represented by Michael Buhler
Situation WHO
depending on the
human sciences
Transmitter
BY WHAT
CHANNEL
Situation nearing SAYS WHAT
the physical
sciences Message
Stimulus
Shannon and Weaver
Claude Shannon and Warren Weaver in 1949 provided
a visual mode of communication system in relation to
electronic media. That was in context of ‘telegraphed
communication. This model is referred to as engineering
model or ‘mathematical model of communication’. They
aimed to discover which channels are most effective for
communicating. This model was the first one to highlight
the role of ‘noise’ in communication, which can disrupt or
alter a message between sender and receiver.
They talked about the three levels of issues in the com-
munication of information–technical (signals), semantic
(interpretation of meaning) and influential (effectiveness).
Though all the explanation on process of communica-
tion, it remained a linear, one-way communication model
without any emphasis on feedback.
M04_MADAN 04_65901_C04.indd 4
Chapter 4
3. Logos: This signifies logic so creating interests becomes
a challenge.
The communication process have been five basic elements
that are speaker, speech, occasion, target audience and effect.
Lasswell’s Model
Here, the communication is the transmission of a mes-
sage with the effect as the result that is measurable as
well, with obvious change in behaviour of receiver. This
is dependent upon on five questions that have been put in
the diagram below. If any of these element change, their
‘effects’ also changes.
The main components of this model are communicator,
message, medium, audience (receiver) and effect.
TO WHOM
Receiver
WITH WHAT EFFECTS
Influence reply
Shannon and Weaver talked about the following con-
cepts, though in technical terms.
1. Entropy: Entropy is the degree of disorder or uncer-
tainty or unpredictability or randomness in a message;
thus, negative entropy is the higher degree of order in
communication (that means less disorder). A highly
‘organized message’ has low entropy. We can also say
that entropy means a process in which order deterio-
rates with the passage of time. The growing entropy
(disorder) is the positive entropy. The more entropy
leads to signalling errors. This helps us in choosing a
message, which message should be picked up, keep-
ing desired entropy in mind. The ratio of the actual to
the maximum entropy is called relative entropy.
2. Redundancy: This word basically means ‘overflow’
or “more than necessary”. They convey highly
21/12/22 10:54 AM
 Communication 4.5

predictable (extra) information to the receiver.
Avoiding redundancy may help in better
communication. High redundancy means that it
requires almost no effort or less efforts to decode
the messages. For example, instead of saying
Twelve midnight, the word midnight is sufficient;
use ‘repeat’ instead of saying ‘repeat again’; use
innovation instead of saying ‘new innovations’.
Twelve, again and new words are not required and
information should be concise.
3. Channel Capacity: The amount of information that can
be transmitted per unit of time. Beyond this optimum
level of information, communication will have some
errors.
  This model is applied more in interpersonal com-
munication than in group communication and mass
communication. Thus, the sender plays the primary
role of sending messages, and the receiver plays the
passive part. Feedback is taken as less important in
comparison to the messages sent by the sender.

Source Transmitter Receiver Destination

Message Signal Received Message
signal

Noise source

Figure 4.3 Shannon-weaver Information Model

Berlo ’s S-M-C-R model
Berlo tried to explain communication as S–R Model or
sender–receiver model, where sender stands for stimulus
and receiver stands for response. This was later extended to
Source, Message, Channel, and Receiver (S-M-C-R Model).
This is a linear model of communication; there is no
inclusion of feedback. There is no noise as well, and so no
concept of barriers in communication.
The communication depends upon communica-
tion skills, attitude (to win), knowledge (depends upon
qualification), social system and culture (including cross-
cultural communication).
The key factors in communication are content
(script), elements (speech itself, gestures, body lan-
guage, facial expressions), treatment (of message by the
source itself), structure of message, and code (verbal
and nonverbal).
The hearing, sense of taste, sense of sight, smelling,
touching, all these linked with five sense organs are also
important for conveying the messages.

Berlo ’s Model of Communication

S M C R
Source Message Channel Receiver

Communication Seeing Communication

skills Elements Structures skills

C C Hearing
Attitudes Attitudes
O O
N D Touching
Knowledge T E Knowledge
E
Smelling
Social N Social
system T system
Tasting
Culture Culture

Figure 4.4 S-M-C-R Model

M04_MADAN 04_65901_C04.indd 5 21/12/22 10:54 AM

 4.6 Chapter 4

I nteractive Model of Communication

According to Schramm (1997), “The participants alter-
nate their positions as sender and receiver and generate
meaning by sending messages and receiving feedback
within physical and psychological contexts”. This model
incorporates feedback, which makes communication
a more interactive, two-way process. This model is also
known as ‘convergence model’. Field of experience is a
communication pattern. It is affected by alteration factors
such as culture, social, psychology, situation and channels
used. The overlapping field of experiences initiates con-
versation and more conversation, that in turn, expands
the communicator’s field of experience. All these factors
also affect the message interpretation. The Interaction
Model takes physical (environmental factors) and psy-
chological (mental factors such as stress and anxiety and
other emotional factors) factors into account.
Channel
Sender Message Receiver
and and
Receiver Message Sender
Channel
Figure 4.5 Interactive Model of Communication
Osgood-Schramm Model
This model looks at reciprocal communication that shows
how we have to encode, decode, and interpret informa-
tion in real-time during a conversation. Charles Osgood
describes communication as a dynamic process and says
that a given communication event may begin with receiv-
ing stimuli.
Encoder Decoder
M
Interpretor Interpretor
M
Decoder Encoder
Source Receiver
This model is a circular model of communication, in which
messages go in two directions.
There are four principles in this model:
1. Communication is circular— The individuals involved
change their roles as encoders and decoders.
2. Communication is equal and reciprocal— both par-
ties are equally engaged as encoders and decoders.
3. The message requires interpretation— the informa-
tion needs to be properly interpreted to be understood.
4. There are three steps in the process of communica-
tion: Encoding, Decoding and Interpreting
Katz’s Model
Robert Katz talked about the role of ‘gatekeepers’ or ‘inter-
mediaries’ or ‘censor groups’ in his work ‘Intermediary
Model of Communication’ in 1957. These gatekeepers
have some ability to shape the organization through their
selective sharing of information. He talked about tech-
nical skills, human skills and conceptual skills in case
of sharing of information. Gatekeepers are the persons
working in different mass media, having the responsibil-
ity of deciding what should get printed, broadcasted or
produced.

Speaker Gatekeeper Audience

An intermediary model
Figure 4.6 Katz’s Model

Schramm Model of Communication Weaver’s model to human communication and introduced

Wilbur Schramm (1964) talked about the role of ‘Field two concepts of encoder, decoder, redundancy, feedback
of Experience’ (type of orientation or attitudes) in his and noise into his model to explain the communication
communication model. Schramm adapted Shannon and process.

Field of experience Field of experience

Source Encoder Signal Decoder Destination

Figure 4.7 Schramm Communication Model

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 Communication 4.7

Newcomb’s Model (1953) object of the orientation (background, culture, and

Communication takes the shape of a triangle that has
three points – sender, receiver and society. Thus, it tries to
explain the role of communication in a society or a social
relationship. According to it, communication maintains
equilibrium within the social system and works like this.
Westley and Maclean Model
This model is seen as an extension of Newcomb’s Model.
The messages in mass communication pass through
different check points called as ‘gatekeepers’ before they
are actually received by the audience. The communication
is influenced by environmental, cultural and personal
factors, its process starts with environmental factors, and
not with the source or sender. The culture or society where
the speaker lives in and his space (public or private) play
an important role. Thus, this model takes into account the
beliefs) of sender and receiver of messages. The role of
feedback is also significant.
This model consists of nine crucial components—
environment, sensory experience, source/Sender,
the object of the orientation of the source, receiver,
the object of the orientation of the receiver, feedback,
gatekeepers and opinion leaders.
George Gerbner’s Model of Communication (1956)
Here, the communication is seen as a transmission of mes-
sages. It relates the messages to ‘reality’ and thus enables
us to approach the question of perception and meaning;
further it sees the communication process as consisting of
two alternative dimensions—the perceptual or receptive
dimension and the communicating or means and control
dimension.

Sender Message Treatment Channel Receiver

Figure 4.8 General Communication Model

Transactional Model of Communication 1. Cues: Here, the role of ‘cues’ is highlighted. Cues refers
This model was initially proposed by Watzlawick. Here, to the signs for doing something. There are public cues
the communication is integrated in our internal realities. (physical, environmental or artificial and natural or
The context, non-verbal communication and feedback man-made), private cues (objects of orientation which
have been added to transactional model. Here, the focus include senses of a person) and behavioural cues.
is on conceptualization of communication. Instead of These cues can be verbal as well as non-verbal. Jagged
participants being tagged as senders and receivers, the lines show us that availability of cues can be unlimited.
people in a communication encounter are considered to 2. Speech act: This refers to particular instance of com-
be communicators. The meaning lies is in people, not in munication in the model.
words, thus, it creates shared meaning. The communication 3. Filters: These are the realities of people engaged in
includes both content and relationship dynamic. communication. They can vary as per the cultures,
traditions, content of the message, etc.
nnel of feedba 4. Noise: This problem arises in communication flow
Field of Cha ck Field of and disturbs the message flow.
experience experience
5. Shared field experience: That kind of experience is
Channel
between sender and receiver.
Sender Receiver
and Message and The sending and receiving of messages happen simulta-
Receiver Sender neously between people. This model was further modified
Channel as General Transactional Model, thus shifting its focus
from being linear to dynamic and two way communica-
tion model. This model is taken as the most systematic
Ch ck model of communication.
a n n el f fe e d b a
o
Leagan’ s Model (1961)
Figure 4.9 Transactional Model
This model is specifically used in the ‘extension edu-
Some models of interactional communication have been cation’. The successful communication in it requires a
discussed below. skilled communicator sending a useful message through
a proper channel, effectively treated to an appropriate
Barnlund’s Transactional Model of Communication audience. The response is given as desired. These key
(1970) elements involved in his model are: communicator, mes-
This model says that communication exchange is recipro- sage or content, channels of communication, treatment of
cal. The following terms are important in this model. message, the audience and audience response.

M04_MADAN 04_65901_C04.indd 7 21/12/22 10:54 AM

 4.8 Chapter 4

Helical Model of Communication
Frank Dance proposed a communication model inspired
by a helix in 1967, known as helical model of communi-
cation. A helix is a three-dimensional spring-like curve in
the shape of a cylinder or a cone. This model sees com-
munication as a circular process that gets more and more
complex as communication occurs, which can be repre-
sented by a helical spiral. The model is linear as well as
circular combined, and disagrees with the concept of lin-
earity and circularity individually.
∞
Craig proposes seven different traditions as listed below.
1. Rhetorical: The practical art of discourse
2. Semiotic: The mediation by signs
3. Phenomenological: The experience of dialogue with
others
4. Cybernetic: The main flow of information
5. Socio-psychological: The interaction of individuals
6. Socio-cultural: The production and reproduction of
the social order
7. Critical: A process in which all assumptions can be
challenged.
Transactional and I nteractional Models
Brown and Yule (1983) use two terms to describe the major
functions of language. The functions of language where the
transfer of information is involved is called ‘Transactional’,
and the function involved in expressing social relations
and personal attitudes is called ‘Interactional’.
1. A: There’s no message for you (Transactional)
B: Ok
2. A: How are you? (Interactional)
B: Fine, thank you.

Figure 4.10 Helical Model of Communication Stopover

1. Which of the following is an exclusive example of
Rogers and Kincaid Model (1981) non-verbal cue that includes the pitch, rate, volume
This model is called as ‘convergence model of communi- and use of pauses ? (December 2021)
cation’. This focus on the importance of information and (a) Linear Model of Communication
also on the manner in which information links individu- (b) Interactional Model
als together in social networks. Here, communication is (c) Non-verbal cues
defined as a process in which individuals create and share (d) Para-Language
information with one another in order to reach mutual The correct option is (d).
understanding.
2. Which of the following is Berlo’s Linear Model of
Becker’s Mosaic Model (1968) communication?
(a) S-M-R-C (b) S-M-C-R
Sam Becker proposed this communication model in “The
(c) S-R-M-C (d) S-R-C-M
Prospect of Rhetoric” in 1968. The model explains the
complexity of human communication. There is lot of The correct option is (b).
‘randomness’. There are immense number of fragments 3. If it is assumed that communication has no beginning
or bits of information on an immense number of topics or end, then it is termed as
in a mosaic. These bits are scattered over time and space (a) Mediation (b) Process
and modes of communication. This model is multi-lay- (c) Interaction (d) Transaction
ered. The correct option is (b).
1. Empty cells: Unavailable messages or sources 4. Which is ‘feedback’ in newspaper’s communication?
2. Vertical layers: Set of similar messages (a) Articles
3. Cells: Messages and sources (b) Editorials
4. Receivers go through the cells in loops every time. (c) Letters to the Editor
(d) News
Constitutive Metamodel The correct option is (c).
It is a communication model which proposes that commu- 5. Given below are two statements:
nication creates our social world. Communication creates
and produces our social world. This is a driving force in Statement I: Signs and symbols have internal rela-
our lives, in our relationships. Communication is the cen- tions to produce meanings
tral activity in our lives that creates all other social forces Statement II: This is possible because of a network of
in society. signs through such relations

M04_MADAN 04_65901_C04.indd 8 21/12/22 10:54 AM

 Communication
In light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below
(a) Both Statement I and II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
The correct option is (a).
Mass Media Model
We have mass media in our syllabus. It has been discussed
under communication types. Here we want to discuss
a communication model called the ‘Attention-gaining
Model” or “Attention Model”. It is an essential commu-
nicative activity of mass media to attract and keep atten-
tion. Communication has three models – Transmission,
Expression/Ritual and Attention-gaining.
Mass Media Sender’s Receiver’s
Model Orientation Orientation
Transmission Transfer of Cognitive
meaning processing
Expression/Ritual Performance Shared
Experience
Attention-gaining Display Spectatorship
1. Transmission Model: This model is mostly linked
with institutional contexts, such as education, reli-
gion and government. It is, however, not relevant to
most media activity.
2. Ritual Model: The ritual model shares some elements
with the transmission model, but emphasises more on
external interpretation by observers than the stated
purpose of receivers and senders.
3. Attention gaining Model: This model is to attract
audiences. Audiences view media as escapist and
diversionary. Thus, it is in conflict with the above two
models. Media culture and practice have to develop
close links with attention-holding goal. Attention
is measurable in the time allotted. The intensity of
involvement depends upon the type of contents. The
mass communication market is mainly concerned
with attention more than anything else. This is what
sells the this medium to the advertisers.
Types of Communication
We communicate with each other in different manners
that totally depends upon the message and context in
which it is being forwarded. The choice and style of
channel also affects communication.
M04_MADAN 04_65901_C04.indd 9
4.9
Classification on the Basis of
R elationship Element
Intrapersonal Communication
1. It is communication within an individual almost all
the times, including speaking to oneself, listening to
oneself and relating to oneself.
2. It includes individual reflection, meditation,
­contemplation and even praying to God.
3. We conceptualize and formulate our thoughts or ideas
before actually indulging in overt communication.
Muttering the words such as ‘Oh my god’, ‘Oh no’ (when in
trouble), ‘Wow’ and ‘Thank god’ are a few common exam-
ples of intrapersonal communication.
Interpersonal Communication
1. It is also termed as dyadic communication.
2. It is universal form of face-to-face routine communi-
cation between two people, both– while sending and
receiving messages.
3. It may be formal or informal, verbal or non-verbal.
4. It takes place anywhere by means of words, sounds,
facial expression, gestures and postures.
5. It is an effective communication situation because
you receive immediate feedback.
6. Due to the proximity between the sender and the
receiver, interpersonal communication has an emo-
tional appeal too. It can motivate, encourage and
coordinate work more effectively than any other form
of communication.
7. The efficacy of interpersonal communication depends
very much on the mutual relationship between two
partners in communication, their s­ tatus, roles and skills.
8. It has greater scope for grapevine.
Interpersonal communication can be further subdivided
into formal (meeting and conference) or informal (pri-
vate discussion with family members or friends) commu-
nication.
Group Communication
Group communication situations are quite common in
day-to-day life. Our educational background, profession,
economic status, religious affiliation, etc. distinguish us
and make us belong to one or more groups at the same
time. A group is a number of people with a common goal
that interact with one another to attain the goal that
recognize one another’s existence, and see themselves
as part of the group. An individual may belong to more
than one group simultaneously. Since the large majority
of us do not live alone, we consequently live in groups –
all kinds of groups. Groups may be of two types:
1. Primary Groups
2. Secondary Groups
According to C. H. Cooley, primary groups are com-
posed of individuals with intimate, personal relations
and who interact face to face, figuratively and not
21/12/22 10:54 AM
 4.10
literally. It is the degree of intimacy or social distance
rather than physical distance that determines the pri-
mary group. The family is considered a primary group.
The other examples of primary group are play groups,
kinship groups, labour groups, clan, etc.
Secondary groups are those in which individuals have
formal, impersonal and status relationships. All other
groups which are not primary are considered secondary.
Groups may be statistical (demographic arrange-
ments), societal (common consciousness), social (actual
association) and associational groups (formal structure).
Group communication is interpersonal communication.
P Mass media is not a mere physical transmission of infor-
P P
Group Leader = GL
P GL P paper-print media but also a variety of audio-visual and
Participants = P
P P
P
Figure 4.11 Group Communication
Characteristics of a group in relation to an individual
on the basis of membership are dependence, acceptance,
attraction, volition (voluntary basis), innate (by birth),
pressure (confirm to certain standards), change and flex-
ibility (no group is rigid and static) and leadership.
The leader leads the group in two manners:
1. Task-oriented Roles: Initiation of discussion, giving
and receiving information, elaboration and clarifica-
tion, orientation and summarization, tests of ­consensus
2. Maintenance Roles: Compromising, supporting and
encouraging, gate-keeping, standard-setting and testing.
Leadership can be democratic, authoritarian or
­Laissez-faire (creative and committed people).
The degree of formality governing the ‘jurisdiction’ of
the participants in group communication activity ­differs
according to the ‘context’.
Group communication is influenced by several
­heterogeneous factors, such as age, sex, education and
economic, social, linguistic, religious, national, regional
and racial differences.
The careful balance of interaction in dyad no longer
exists in group communication. According to Baker, the
best size in terms of total interaction and greatest effi-
ciency is between 5 to 7 members. Participation and shar-
ing of information is central to the functioning of a group.
A group can function on the basis of committees (small
groups for a specific purpose) or conferences (large group
and more ­formal). Group communication is considered
effective as it provides an opportunity for direct interac-
tion among the members of the group and helps in bring-
ing about changes in attitudes and beliefs.
M04_MADAN 04_65901_C04.indd 10
Chapter 4
Mass Media
Mass usually means a large number. Mass has both positive
and negative meanings.
1. In socialist tradition, mass has a positive meaning.
It connotes the strength and solidarity of ordinary
working people when organised together for social
and political ends.
2. In the negative sense, mass refers to the ignorant and
unruly mass that implies a lack of culture, intelligence
and even of rationality.
mation, but a complex, integrated, intermixed and interac-
tive system that has resulted in the seamless integration of
data, text, images and sound within a single digital infor-
mation environment, known as Multimedia. Mass media
is also widening its scope to include not only conventional
electronic media. Public relations and advertisements also
form parts of this field. Now mass media is regarded as the
fourth estate that shapes, influences and indirectly gov-
erns public affairs in a democratic set-up.
Masses are geographically distributed. With moderniza-
tion, the complexity of the society has increased further. A
crowd is a spontaneous collection of individuals. It is tem-
porary and never reappears with the same composition.
Four Ways to represent Media
There are four ways to look at audience in mass media:
1. Media Reach: The owners and producers of the mass
media conceive the total population to whom their
communications can reach.
2. Media Access: Mass media may be available but the
capacity or willingness to use the media may not be
there.
3. Media Exposure: Only these individuals who actu-
ally expose themselves to the media are the media
audience.
4. Media Effects: Media effects individuals who have
been exposed to mass communication products and
have undergone a change in their knowledge, opin-
ions, attitude or behaviour.
Main Characteristics of Mass Media
At a different level, mass communication has three char-
acteristics.
1. The Audience is Large and Heterogeneous: such as
radio, newspapers and televisions.
2. The Source is an Institution or a Group of ­People:
They may be in public sector or private sector.
3. Some Kind of Mechanism is Used to Reproduce
Information:
(a) It is also termed as ‘mediated communication’.
(b) It deals with mass audience such as large groups,
state or nation.
(c) Channels for mass communication are termed as
mass media.
21/12/22 10:54 AM
 Communication
Decision-makers
Mass Media
Society
Figure 4.12 Mass Media Model
(d) It uses mechanical devices that multiply mes-
sages and convey information to a large number
of people simultaneously.
The concept of mass media has become popular during
20th century. Technology also helped as it allowed the
massive duplication of material, for example, nationwide
radio networks, mass circulation newspapers and maga-
zines. Physical duplication technologies, such as printing,
record pressing and film duplication allowed the dupli-
cation of books, newspapers and movies at low prices to
huge audiences. Radio and television allowed the elec-
tronic duplication of information for the first time.
Mass media is based on the economics of linear repli-
cation – a single work could make money proportionate
to the number of copies sold. As sales volumes went up,
units costs came down, increasing profit margins further.
Recently the Internet, social media, podcasting, blog-
ging, etc. have been added. The terms ‘public media’
or ‘mainstream media’ carries very similar meaning.
‘Mainstream Media (MSM)’ includes those outlets which
are in tandem with the prevailing direction of influence in
the culture at large.
MSM is also popular as ‘drive by media’ as Rush
Limbaugh did this. It may make it difficult to decipher the
difference between truth and untruth.
Again ‘mediated communication’ and ‘Mass media’ are
considered to be synonymous. The media is known as the
fourth pillar of democracy. The audience is large and hetero-
geneous. The source is an institution or a group of people.
Under Article 19 of our constitution, everyone has the
right to freedom of opinion and expression; this right
includes freedom to hold opinions without interference
and to seek, receive and impart information and ideas
through any medium regardless of frontiers.
Evolution of Mass Media
In India in the 19th and 20th century, a classification
called the ‘seven mass media’ became popular as men-
tioned below:
M04_MADAN 04_65901_C04.indd 11
4.11
Treetops Tactics
Grassroots Tactics
1. Print: Books, pamphlets, newspapers, magazines, etc.
from late 15th century onwards. Galleys or ‘bound
proofs’ are used for promotional purposes.
2. Recordings: Gramophone records, magnetic tapes,
cassettes, cartridges, CDs, and DVDs from the late
19th century onwards
3. Cinema: Cinema in India began from 1900 onwards
4. Radio: Radio came into existence since from 1910
onwards
5. Television: Television began from 1950 onwards
6. Internet: Use of internet started from 1990 onwards
7. Mobile phones: Mobile use began from 2000
onwards
The Internet and mobile phones are known popularly
as ‘digital media’. The digitization of the news industry
has led to a compression of time and space, which led to
easy reach of distant news to the public within a blink of
an eye. For example, we get to see news images of any
­demonstrations, riot, coups or even a war within minutes
of occurrance of these incidents in any part of the world.
Electronic media and print media specifically include:
1. Broadcasting
2. Various types of discs or tape
3. Film
4. Internet: Blogs and podcasts, etc.
5. Publishing: Newspapers, books, magazines and
newspapers. Publication is important as a legal
concept.
6. Computer games
Few Popular terms
Let’s look at a few popular terms related to mass media:
Gate Keepers: This refers to persons working in dif-
ferent mass media. They have the responsibility to
decide such as what should get printed, produced and
broadcasted.
21/12/22 10:54 AM
 4.12
Entropy: The tendency of communication system
to move from a state of order to disorder or chaos.
Everything seems to be more chaotic when media is
highly influential.
New Wave: An experimental style of film-making,
popularised first in France in the fifties; New wave
films are without any elaborate plot and chronological
continuity and is generally free from the atricalities,
but there is an originality with regard to treatment.
Prime Time: The time during which the media have
their largest audience.
Yellow Journalism: This is a practice followed by the
media that sensationalize a story. It is a type of jour-
nalism that does not report much of real news with
facts. It uses shocking headlines that catch people’s
attention to sell more newspapers. It pushed Spain
and USA into war in 1898.
Alternative Media: It is also a type of ‘mass media’.
Alternative media use technology capable of reach-
ing many people, even if the audience is often smaller
than the mainstream.
Participatory Media: The means of production are
widely available, and content creation is not based
on traditional editorial structures. Anyone with a cell
phone camera and Internet access to participate can
participate in the activity of journalism. This creates
both new opportunities for information production
and a more complex information environment.
Sousveillance: It means the recording of an activity
from the perspective of a participant in the activity.
The participants possess small portable or wearable
recording devices that often stream continuous live
video on the Internet.
Embedded Journalist: These journalists are inserted
into military units by the governments.
Multimedia: A complex, integrated, intermixed and
interactive system that has resulted in the seamless
integration of data, text, images and sound within a
single digital information environment.
Public Relations: This takes up the role to inform, to
resolve conflicts and/or to improve understanding
between persons. As demographic pressures have
become more and more complex, communication
among groups and individuals has become charac-
terised by a very complicated and involved process
that led to the development of ‘public relations’.
Advertising and Advertisements (ADS):
Advertisements are forms of communication that
involve creativity, persuasion and impact of the mes-
sages carried by them. Advertisements specially prod-
uct advertisements describe the features at the prod-
ucts or services, usefulness and also compare with
other products or services. These contain useful infor-
mation and latest developments.
Advertising is considered part of mass communica-
tion for three reasons:
M04_MADAN 04_65901_C04.indd 12
Chapter 4
1. It provides financial support to mass communication;
2. Advertisements are usually mass based and hence all
expertise required for mass communication are appli-
cable here; and
3. Advertising is a pervasive part of modern culture, a
medium to build up images of a society.
Impact of Mass Media on Society
Let’s look at the main impacts of Mass Media on society:
1. The mass media educates people about the world out-
side of their immediate context.
2. It functions as an important accountability index. We
can discuss concepts such as advocacy, surveillance
here.
3. Mass media promotes cultural diversity.
As per one’s perception, mass media can be used for
the following purposes:
1. Advocacy–for business and social issues such as
advertising, marketing, propaganda, public relations,
and political communication.
2. Enrichment, socialization and education–such as
literature
3. Entertainment–acting, music, light reading, com-
puter games, etc.
4. Journalism–an activity of gathering, assessing, creat-
ing, and presenting news and information.
5. Public Relations–used to build positive image of an
organization.
This is performed by corporations, non profit organiza-
tions, politicians, etc.
Mass Media Functions by Harold Lasswell
Harold Lasswell has considered three functions in context
of mass media in any society:
1. Surveillance: As an ‘informer’, ears, eyes and voice of
the audience and for shaping our thoughts, attitudes
and actions. For instance, the advertisements make us
aware about the new products.
Cliché refers to an expression that has been overused
to the extent that it loses its original meaning or nov-
elty. A cliché may also refer to actions and events that
are predictable because of some previous events. All
examples of cliché are expressions that were once
new and fresh.
2. Correlation: Developing public opinion, thus helping
to create consensus in a society on key issues.
3. Admission of Social Inheritance: Present media have
assumed the functions of transmitting social inheritance,
which was done by parents, teachers and other elders.
The media today provide main frames of reference to soci-
ety. Urbanization, relative anonymity, social uprootings,
and the transition from traditional social organizations
like joint family, clan have increased the role of media as
transmitters of knowledge and values. Mass media have
today become essential to carry out certain functions of
socialization and transmission of social heritage. The
21/12/22 10:54 AM
 Communication
following are also listed as functions performed by mass
media:
(a) Public opinion to create ‘cultivation of perceptions’.
(b) To set up political agenda that is called as ‘agenda
setting’.
(c) Setting up link between the government and
people.
(d) Mass Media fills ‘Knowledge Gap’ also so as to
seek information.
Main Theories of Mass Media
This discussion has become important as NTA NET JRF
is asking many questions on theory as is being done in
Unit 1 as well.
1. Hypodermic or Bullet Theory: This theory reflects
the fear or awe of mass media being used for massive
propaganda. It happened during World War II, when
mass media was thought to have direct and power-
ful influence upon audiences. The audiences may be
manipulated by the media at will. The messages were
thought to be like magic bullets that were shot directly
into the receiver. It assumes that receivers are passive
and defenseless and take whatever is shot at them.
2. Psychological or Individual Difference Theory:
There is a psychological approach to understanding
communication effects. Individual difference theory
is among them.
Here, the different personality variables result in dif-
ferent reactions to the same stimuli. In other words, an
individual’s psychological mechanism accounts for his
reactions to media messages. Here, selective exposure
and selective perceptions are important.
(a) Selective Exposure: Selective exposure occurs
when people tend to expose themselves selec-
tively only to communications which are in gen-
eral accordance with their established convic-
tions and avoid communications which seem to
challenge their beliefs.
(b) Selective Perception: Once individuals have
selectively exposed themselves to the messages
in accordance with their preferences, they tend
to “read into” the message that suits their needs.
This process is called selective perception.
3. Cognitive Dissonance Theory: The psychological
conflict, which is the result of contradictory thoughts,
is called cognitive dissonance. For example, a person
likes a Apple’s Ipad but he does not support the price
of the product. Thus such every person may look for
balanced beliefs, thus wants to avoid cognitive disso-
nance. Therefore, we may always try to refrain from
hearing any contrasting views.
If perceptual difference is due to our social group sta-
tus, then it is called ‘standpoint theory’.
4. Personal Influence Theory: This theory is the out-
come of a classic study of the 1940 presidential elec-
tions in USA by Paul E. Lazarsfeld and others in the
book, The People’s Choice. The findings revealed that
no voter seemed to have been directly influenced
by the mass media. It turned out that interpersonal
M04_MADAN 04_65901_C04.indd 13
4.13
relationships, and not mass media, had an enormous
influence on voters.
Two-step Flow: Many voters had limited exposure
to the mass media. The information they received
was mostly through other people, called “opinion
leaders”, who had first-hand access to mass media
information.
Multi-step Flow: Multistep means opinion leaders
adopt the multi-directional influence–they interpret
the media messages for audiences. The role is not only
‘downwards’ but upwards also when they tell the gate-
keepers (editors of newspapers and so on) how to do
their job. Also, the influence is “sideways” when they
shared insights with other opinion leaders. There are
multiple relay points.
5. Sociological Theories of Mass Communication:
The sociological approach to communication theory
is based on the assumption that there exists a defi-
nite relationship between mass communication and
social change (societal values, public beliefs and
opinions, etc.)
Cultivation Theory: This theory, developed by George
Gerbner (1967), is based on the assumption that mass
media have subtle effects on audiences who, unknow-
ingly, absorb the dominant symbols, images, and mes-
sages in the media. This is called as ‘cultivation of dom-
inant image pattern’. Powerful effects of mass media
act as moulds for the society.
Agenda Setting Theory: Set up by Maxwell McCombs
and Donald L. Shaw (1972), the theory focuses on
about voting during elections. Media are more suc-
cessful in telling people “what is to think about” than
in telling them “what to think”.
The Uses and Gratification Theory: This was set up
by Katz (1959). The “uses” approach assumes that
audiences are active and willingly expose themselves
to media. The uses of mass media are dependent on
the perception, selectivity, and previously held beliefs,
values, and interests of the people. The term “gratifica-
tion” refers to the rewards and satisfaction experienced
by audiences after using media.
Dependency Theory: This was proposed by Melvin
De Fleur and Sandra Ball-Rokeach, in which they rec-
ognise various psychological and social factors that
prevent the media from exercising arbitrary control
over their audiences.
Spiral of Silence Theory: The media publish opin-
ions. The people modify or adjust their views accord-
ingly to avoid being isolated. Here, free expression
becomes automatically important. There are always
some people who don’t express themselves. These
people, with a suppressed point of view, are called as
‘minorities’.
Diffusion of Innovation Theory: This theory was
developed by Neil Gross and Bryce Ryan in 1943.
This theory stresses the process by which different
channels communicate new ideas to different people.
The various factors influence people’s thoughts and
actions about the original design or technology.
21/12/22 10:54 AM
 4.14
Cultivation Theory: The media influences a person’s
sense of reality. Most of us are not able to acquire
experience by the direct medium, for the simple rea-
son that we cannot be present at every news that is
happening around the world.
Confirmation bias Theory: All of us may perceive
and interpret the world in a different manners. The
reinforcing thoughts are accepted, while others are
rejected.
6. Normative Theories of Mass Media: Normative
theories explain how the media ‘ought to’ or can be
‘expected to’ operate under the prevailing set of polit-
ico-economic circumstances.
Authoritarian Theory: The term was proposed by
Siebert. It refers to an arrangement in which the press
is subordinated to state power and the interests of the
ruling class. Press and other media should always be
subordinate to established authority and should do
nothing to undermine it. This theory justifies advance
censorship and punishment for deviation from exter-
nally set guidelines. In India, the press, which is
free, lost its independence and freedom during the
Emergency (1975-77).
Free Press Theory: This theory is also called as
“Libertarian Theory”. It was mainly promoted by
Siebert. It is based-on the fundamental right of an
individual to freedom of expression, which is regarded
as the main legitimating principle for print media in
liberal democracies.
Social Responsibility Theory: This is linked with
Commission on Freedom of Press (Hutchins 1947) in
USA. The free market has failed to fulfill certain obliga-
tions, such as information, social and moral needs of
the society. In fact, it has increased the power of a single
class.
Communist Media Theory: This theory is derived
mainly from the basic tenets of Marx and Engels. It
envisages media to be under the control of the working
class, whose interest they are meant to serve. Private
ownership of the press or other media is ruled out. The
term ‘propaganda’ that means ‘agitation’ was given by
Georgy Plekhanob and later defined and popularized
by Vladimir Lenin in 1902.
Development Communication Theory: This theory
is mostly based upon the UNESCO Report (1980).
Press has limited application in four fields and com-
munication is used to carry out development tasks in
line with nationally established policy.
Democratic-Participant Media Theory: This theory
favours three things – multiplicity of media, small-
ness of the scale of operation and a horizontality of
communication at all levels. It opposes uniform, cen-
tralized, high-cost, highly professionalized and state-
controlled media.
Few more important theories of Mass Media:
1. Mass Society Theory: According to Denis McQuail,
this theory emphasises the inter-dependence of institu-
tions that exercise power in the society, and mass media
M04_MADAN 04_65901_C04.indd 14
Chapter 4
are deemed to be integrated into the sources of social
power and authority. This theory gives a primacy to the
media as the cause and maintainer of mass society.
2. Political Economic Media Theory: This theory is
linked with Marxist theory, and the focus is on the
economic structure of the media rather than the ideo-
logical content of the media.
3. Hegemony Theory: This theory concentrates less on
the economic system and more on the ideology itself.
Here, a greater degree of independence of ideology
from the economic base is emphasised.
4. Culture and Semiotic Theory: The linguist Saussure
(1935) stressed on texts and its meaning in the light
of the “host” culture. It is thus concerned with the
explanation of cultural as well as linguistic meaning.
Semiotics is the general science of signs, developed
by the philosopher and logician Peirce (1931–35),
which deals with how signs signify.
Semiotic theory, thus, is not concerned with transmis-
sion of message as is the case in process approach, but
with the derivation or transfer of meaning in commu-
nication.
5. Marshall McLuhan’s Impact of Media Theory:
McLuhan linked major historical shifts, social trends,
psychological and sensory orientations on commu-
nication media and technologies. The central idea
behind his saying “the medium is the message” is that
the medium through which content is carried plays
a vital role in its perception. The message delivered
through social media such as Facebook, Whatsapp
may be perceived differently when the same message
is conveyed through newspaper. He also gave the
concept of ‘global village’ that stated that masses can
unite to effect changes. He also gave the concept of
‘dramatized society’.
Impact of Mass Media on Society
Denis McQuail (1983) proposed the relationship of mass
media and society as an interactive perspective, that mass
media are primarily molders of society as well as reflectors.
The industrial and communication revolutions have
changed the face of our society. The impact of mass media
has to be seen in the background of our tradition - and
value-bound social structure.
Two social scientists, Bernard Beralson and Monis
Janowitz, shared information about mass media in the
following way:
“The effects of communication are many and diverse.
They may be short-termed or long-termed. They may be
manifest or latent. They may be strong or weak. They may
derive from any number of aspects of the communica-
tion content. They may be considered as psychological or
political or economic or sociological. They may operate
upon opinions, values, information levels, skills, taste, or
over behaviour.”
The growth of mass communication has made it pos-
sible for us to get far more information today than before.
Information is indispensable in a complex, advanced
society.
21/12/22 10:54 AM
 Communication
Information today is a commodity we are willing to pay
for. The mass media today are not only entertaining the
masses, they are selling information as well. Information
is power. Mass media sense our needs. Mass communica-
tion is too essential to be ignored. We have print journal-
ism, radio, film, TV, video, cable and satellite TV.
India, towards the end of the 20th century, still largely
remains an oral society. We spend more time communi-
cating interpersonally rather than through the channels
of mass communication. The situation in the West is dif-
ferent. People spend more time in consuming mass media
information.
Among the concerns faced by Indian society, there are
five major ones are:
1. Manipulation: This is actually the altering the
meaning of recorded visuals and audio materials.
2. Privacy: This is actually the issue of linking privacy
issues with the public interest.
3. Security: Protection of secret government informa-
tion, private financial transactions and institutional
records in computer systems has become a matter of
concern.
4. Democratic Process: The voting rights of voters are
manipulated by using different means.
5. Isolation: While the communication revolution
has the power to draw the global community closer,
simultaneously, it may actually result in the isolation
of individuals into small groups. This leads to the
fragmentation of society.
Concept Box
Communication can also be categorized on the basis of
involvement of parties, such as
1. Intrapersonal: Reading a newspaper, meditation,
introspection.
2. Interpersonal: Conversation with a colleague
3. Apersonal: Use of mass media, publicity,
advertisement
Stopover
Which of the following is not the major concern for
mass media in India?
(a) Manipulation
(b) Privacy
(c) Security
(d) Integration of society
The correct option is (d).
CoMMuniCation t ypeS on the
B aSiS oF ChannelS
On the basis of channels, communication is of two types:
1. Verbal communication
2. Non-verbal communication
M04_MADAN 04_65901_C04.indd 15
4.15
Verbal Communication
Verbal means the use of words in the communication pro-
cess and in designing and formulating messages. In verbal
communication, a message is transmitted verbally, i.e., by
making use of words, such as oral and written.
In verbal communication, remember the acronym KISS
– keep it short and simple.
In order to deliver the right message, the communica-
tor must be empathetic. Verbal communication is further
divided into the following types:
1. Oral communication
2. Written communication
Oral Communication
The spoken words are used in this communication.
It includes face-to-face conversation, speech, telephonic
conversation, video, radio, television and voice over the
internet. In oral communication, the communication is
influenced by the following factors:
1. Pitch and Volume: Pitch is the degree of highness or
lowness of tone, and it depends upon the frequency
of sound waves. It is the key element in the teaching-
learning process. The teacher’s voice and knowing
the correct language is the main input in speech. One
should be loud enough to be heard. When speaking,
one should remember to change the pitch in your voice
as a monotonous voice may become boring. Excitement
is indicated by a high pitch and anger by a low pitch.
Volume depends upon the proximity and number of
people and is measured in decibels.
2. Rate: It is the speed at which words are delivered.
One should maintain regularity when speaking,
because a regular or rhythmic voice makes you sound
more confident. Irregular speech may show a sign of
uncertainty. If a teacher talks at a slow pace, then the
students may become frustrated because the informa-
tion is not being given quickly enough.
3. Clarity in Speaking and Articulation: Proper pronun-
ciation and delivery of words contribute towards the
effectiveness of the message. It also depends upon clar-
ity of thought of the communicator. Pitch, volume, rate
and clarity are termed as components of paralanguage.
The spontaneity, being natural, easy understanding due
to ample choice of words, support by non-verbal com-
munication, physical availability of speakers are the main
characteristics of oral communication. It helps in devel-
oping a close relationship between the speaker and the
listener.
The limitations include its being a temporary communi-
cation as spoken words disappear into air, and temptation
to forget in comparison to written communication. The
non-verbal communication supporting oral communica-
tion may not be understood by people from other cultures.
Phonetics
We use sounds to speak and pronounce the words. The
words are made up of one or more sounds. We put these
21/12/22 10:54 AM
 4.16
sounds together to pronounce words. Thus, phonetics is
the study of the sounds that we make when we speak. For
example, pronouncing cat, c-a-t.
Written Communication
In written communication, written signs and symbols,
both in printed or handwritten form, are used. Pictures,
graphs, etc., are used to compliment the written text. The
communicator’s writing skills, style and knowledge of
grammar affect the quality of message. In written com-
munication, message can be transmitted through email,
letter, report, memo, etc.
The organization needs to communicate with different
stakeholders, both in internal and external environments,
to meet its objectives. Thus, written communication can
further have two dimensions, internal and external.
The internal written communication is in the form of
memos, reports, bulletins, job descriptions, employee
manuals and emails specifically for internal communica-
tion, i.e., within an organization.
Emails, internet, websites (URLs), letters, propos-
als, telegrams, faxes, postcards, contracts, advertise-
ments, brochures and news releases are used for external
communication.
Even oral communication is used for both internal as
well external communication.
Advantages of written communication are as follows:
1. Messages can be edited and revised many times before
being sent, so it minimizes the chances of error.
2. Written communication provides an automatic record
for every message sent and can be saved for later study
or references.
3. A written message enables the receiver to fully
understand it and send appropriate feedback. It
brings in the element of impersonality and more
objectivity.
Limitations of written communication are as follows:
1. Written communication may not provide prompt and
spontaneous feedback.
2. Written communication may take more time.
3. Usually communication is a mix of both oral and writ-
ten formats.
taBle 4.1 Types of Verbal Communication
Oral Written
Small Group Conversation Letters/Memos
Telephone Telex
Large Group Lectures Circulars
Meetings Newsletters
Radio Handbooks/Manuals
Short Circuit Posters/Bulletin Board
M04_MADAN 04_65901_C04.indd 16
Chapter 4
Concept Box
Mnemonics
Mnemonics is the use of different strategies for learn-
ing and recalling words, numbers, facts and so on in
different contexts.
Mnemonics are memory devices that help learn-
ers recall larger pieces of information, especially in
the form of lists, such as characteristics, steps, stages,
parts, phases, etc. A study conducted by Gerald R.
Miller in 1967 found that mnemonics increased recall.
Mnemonics can even be used to recall words or remem-
ber numbers. For example, BRASS is an acronym
for how to shoot a rifle—Breath, Relax, Aim, Sight,
Squeeze. They help in taking notes also.
Non-verbal Communication
This is the transmission of messages or signals through
a nonverbal platform such as eye contact, facial
expressions, gestures, posture, and body language. This
also includes the use of social cues, kinesics, distance
and physical environments and appearance, sounds and
touch also.
Types of Non verbal Communication: They can be
categorized in the manners below.
1. Facial Expression: These express feelings such as
happiness, sadness, anger, surprise, fear, etc. The
smiling face, relaxed face, matching expressions with
what we say).
2. Posture: These are positions of the body. They try to
show our confidence and feelings. Thus, keeping our
body relaxed, straight shoulders, sitting straight, keep
our hands by our sides while standing are different
suggestions.
3. Gestures or Body Language: These bodily move-
ments or gestures, especially hands or head, to express
an idea or meaning. This includes waving, pointing
and using our hands when speaking. Raising a hand
may mean asking a question, biting nails may show
some anxiety are other examples. Avoid pointing at
people with our finger, bending head while listening
or greeting are suggestions.
4. Touch: We communicate a great deal through our
touch, such as shaking hands and patting on the back
in the reward.
5. Space: This is basically maintaining the physical
distance between two people when speaking with
someone.
6. Eye contact: The way we look at someone can com-
municate things, such as interest or anger.
7. Paralanguage: This means how do we speak. The
tone of our voice, speed and volume are important to
make a difference in the meaning we want to convey.
Speaking too fast may show happiness, excitement or
nervousness. Speaking too slow may show serious-
ness or sadness.
21/12/22 10:54 AM
 Communication 4.17

The non verbal communication can be divided into the
two categories – static and dynamic. They have been dis-
cussed below:
1. Static Features
Distance: The distance one stands from another fre-
quently conveys a non-verbal message. In some cul-
tures it is a sign of attraction, while in others it may
reflect status or the intensity of the exchange.
Orientation: People may present themselves in vari-
ous ways, such as face-to-face, side-to-side, or even
back-to-back. For example, cooperating people are
likely to sit side-by-side while competitors frequently
face one another.
Physical Contact: Shaking hands, touching, holding,
embracing, pushing, or patting on the back all convey
messages. They reflect an element of intimacy or a
feeling of (or lack of) attraction.
Postures are also a part of it that has been discussed
right now.
2. Dynamic Features: Facial expressions such as smile,
frown, raised eyebrow, yawn, and sneer all convey
information. Facial expressions continually change
during interaction and are monitored constantly by
the recipient. There is evidence that the meaning of
these expressions may be similar across cultures.
Gestures: For example, hand movement. Most people
use hand movements regularly when talking. While
some gestures (e.g., a clenched fist) have universal
meanings, most others are individually learned and
idiosyncratic.
Looking: A major feature of social communication
is eye contact. It can convey emotion, signal when to
talk or finish, or aversion. The frequency of contact
may suggest either interest or boredom.
Paralinguistic: When we speak, other people ‘read’ our
voices in addition to listening to our words. They pay
attention to our timing, pace, tone, loudness, pitch, vol-
ume rate, quality, intonation, inflection, vocalised pauses,
etc.
Kinesics: There are many body signals that amplify mean-
ing between communicators. These include gestures, eye
contact, facial expressions, posture, locomotion and hap-
tics. In USA, a long eye contact may be to show respect
while in Japan, a long eye contact is better to be averted,
it shows disrespect.
Haptics: Haptics refers to how and what touch commu-
nicates. Reaction to unsolicited touch va-ries from person
to person. This may vary according to culture. The exam-
ples are gentle touch on the forearm, a two-handed hand-
shake, or a slight kiss on the cheek.
Phonemics: Phonemics is a linguistic ability. A pho-
neme is a unit of sound that distinguishes one word from
another in a particular language.
Dress and Appearance: The meaning depends upon the
situation.
Chromatics: Chromatics is communication through the
use of colour. Colours of clothing, products or gifts send
intended or unintended messages to the recipient of
message.
Iconic: These systems are used to represent words or lin-
guistic concepts. We can take examples of different types
of ‘emoticons’ to represent the idea.

Concept Box
Visual Communication
Visual communication, as the name suggests, is com-
munication through visual aid. It is the communication
of ideas and information in forms that can be read or
looked at. Primarily associated with two dimensional
images, it includes signs, typography, drawing, graphic
design, illustration, color and electronic resources.

Eight Types of Non-verbal Communication:

Non-Verbal Communication is categorized into eight types
that have been discussed below, they increase loyalty and
rapport.
Codes: Codes in communications, an unvarying rule for
Proxemics: We can use personal and physical space to replacing a piece of information such as a letter, word, or
communicate many non-verbal messages including inti- phrase with an arbitrarily selected equivalent.
macy, affection, aggression or dominance.

M04_MADAN 04_65901_C04.indd 17 21/12/22 10:54 AM

 4.18
Concept Box
A study by Mehrabian
According to Mehrabian, ‘Words account for 7%, tone
of voice accounts for 38%, and our body language
accounts for 55% of communication.’ This has become
the 7/38/55 rule. They are abbreviated as the 3 V’s, i.e.,
Verbal, Vocal and Visual.
Thus, in practice, it is always a mix of verbal as well
as non-verbal communication.
In teaching, it is assumed that attention is the start-
ing point of desirable development change. Thus, atten-
tion is the starting point to arouse interest. Research has
shown that attention is sought by people in the follow-
ing proportion:
Seeing – 87 %
Hearing – 7 %
Smell – 3.5 %
Touch - 1.5 %
Taste – 1.0 %
ClaSSiFiCation BaSed on purpoSe and Style
These can also be taken as the main categories of commu-
nication.
Formal Communication
This refers to the flow of official information through
proper, predefined channels and routes. Such flow
is controlled and needs deliberate efforts for right
communication. This needs a hierarchical structure and
chain of command, that is usually top down, means from
senior to low level employees. Employees are bound to
follow formal communication channels while performing
their duties. Memos, intranet, meetings, conferences,
formal one-on-ones, bulletin boards, handouts, letters,
presentations, speeches, notice boards, organizational
blogs, emails etc. are different examples.
In specific example, in case an Assistant Professor has
to communicate with the college Principal, it is usually
through the Head of Department (HoD).
Informal Communication
There is additional but not less important flow of infor-
mation in the company. The context is of informal group
conversations. This is free, multi-dimensional, diverse,
quicker, relational and natural. This is not bound by pre-
defined channels and communication routes. This does
not have a paper trail.
The informal communication has the following ways.
Grapevine: This generally begins with employees
through social relations. This can be described as a casual
and unofficial communication system within the organi-
zation.
Gossip: Here, one person is at the epicenter of the wheel
who seeks and shares information with others.
M04_MADAN 04_65901_C04.indd 18
Chapter 4
Single Strand: Here, each person communicates with the
next in a single sequence.
Cluster Networks: Here, a person gets information and
pass this information to their cluster network or keep the
information to themselves. Each individual may pass on
the information to the next cluster network
Probability Chain: Here, each individual ‘randomly’ tells
another individual the same piece of information.
ClaSSiFiCation on the BaSiS oF direCtion
Vertical Communication
1. This is basically formal communication.
2. This can be upwards (bottom–up) and downwards
(top–bottom).
Lateral or Horizontal Communication
1. Communication with people at the same level in a
hierarchy of peers and colleagues is termed as lateral
communication.
2. This may combine both formal and informal
communications.
This is the most effective communication, as
it is generally not stalled by a chain of command
methods. This can help in building teams in an
organization.
3. The amount of horizontal communication depends
upon the interdependence of different departments.
Diagonal Communication
1. Diagonal communication is effective as hierarchical
bindings are removed and there is a free flow of infor-
mation, cutting across positions or status.
2. It facilitates in building relationships and bonding
between the superior and the subordinate.
CoMMuniCation netWorKS
Communication network shows all communication pat-
terns or relationships that may exist in the organization.
The various types of communication networks are repre-
sented diagrammatically in Figure 4.13.
Chain Wheel
Circle All-channel
Figure 4.13 Types of Communication Networks
21/12/22 10:54 AM
 Communication
1. Chain Network: It follows a formal chain of com-
mand, as is the case with a typical bureaucratic orga-
nization. Here, members communicate with each
other in a pre-planned sequence.
2. Wheel Network: It is also known as ‘STAR’ network.
Here, information flows from one central member
of the group to the rest of the members. Other group
members may not have to communicate with each
other to perform well and all communication is chan-
nelized through the supervisor, for example, one-to-
one interactions of heads of departments (HoDs) with
the college principal, but little or no interaction of HoDs
among themselves. It is not very effective in teams.
3. Circle Network: Here, members communicate infor-
mally with adjoining members generally on the basis
of shared experiences, beliefs, areas of expertise,
background, or office location. It may have a formal
leader as well, but interaction is still lateral. It works
in an autonomous team.
4. All-channel Network: An all-channel network is
found in teams. Both the intensity and frequency of
interaction is high among members. Information
flows in all directions. There is no formal leader, and
communication may be started by any member.
I ntercultural Communication
The credit for this term is often given to American anthro-
pologist Edward T. Hall, who used it for the first time in
his book The Silent Language in 1959. The book is some-
times called “the field’s founding document”.
Culture is the characteristics and knowledge of a par-
ticular group of people, encompassing language, reli-
gion, cuisine, social habits, music and arts. Language is
an example of an important cultural component that is
linked to intercultural understanding.
Culture is a
1. Human creation
2. Human part of the environment
3. Non biological aspect of life
Cultural is considered to be dynamic and considers inter-
action between values, beliefs and perceptions. Our brain
is an open system, so we have free choice to respond.
Intercultural communication is the study of communica-
tion between people whose “cultural perceptions and symbol
systems are distinct enough” to alter their communication.
Intercultural communication is important for the fol-
lowing reasons:
1. Immigration and refugee patterns
2. Social contact
3. International interaction – opening up of media
Intercultural communication increases our competence.
There are few indicators of intercultural competence in
the form of motivation, knowledge, attitudes and skills.
Intercultural effective person is
1. Tolerance of ambiguity – effect on the values, tradi-
tions, social and political relationships
M04_MADAN 04_65901_C04.indd 19
4.19
2. Behavioural flexibility
3. Goal orientation
4. Sociability and interest in other people
5. Empathy-non-judgmental perspective
6. Meta-communication skills
7. Increase in cultural sensitivity
Culture has its effect on verbal and non-verbal messages
and, thirdly, by the influence it has on the historical set-
ting, relational setting and a person’s position within a
speech community.
Power Distance: This relates to social inequality.
Individualism versus collectivism relates to the degree of
integration and orientation of individuals. Femininity ver-
sus masculinity pertains to the division of roles between
women and men. Uncertainty avoidance describes the
degree of tolerance for the unknown. Long-term ori-
entation relates to trade-offs between long-term and
short-term gratification of needs. Finally, high versus low
context refers to the amount of information already con-
tained in the person or context versus the amount in the
coded, explicit and transmitted part of the message.
Ethnocentrism vs Cultural Relativism
Ethnocentrism: My culture’s the best in every way. It is
the idea that one’s own culture is the main standard by
which other cultures can be measured.
Cultural relativism: This posits “every culture is equally
valid, so you have no right to impose your culture’s values
on other cultures.” This concept covers a wide area of
human interactions, beliefs, values and practices.
Conservatives lean towards ethnocentrism, while lib-
erals lean towards cultural relativism. Most people dwell
between these extremes. One needs to convert from being
ethnocentric to ethnorelativistic.
Analytical Thinking Vs Holistic Thinking
Analytical Thinking: Here, more attention is paid to
objects in focus and specific details. Cause and effect rela-
tionships are more important. If you get good marks, they
are a result of hard work.
Holistic Thinking: Eastern societies assume that indi-
vidual parts cannot be fully understood unless they are
placed within interdependent relationships. If you get
good marks, they are a result of hard work, good environ-
ment, parental support etc. Holistic thinkers tend to be
dialectical thinkers as they accept grey areas, assuming
that things constantly change.
High-context vs. Low Context Culture
High-context Culture: Members of high-context com-
munication cultures, such as Eastern societies, rely on
their pre-existing knowledge of each other. The verbal
messages are perceived to be pointless, awkward, or even
deceitful, without high context. Explicit, direct messages
are perceived to be either unnecessary or even threaten-
ing. This mainly happens in collectivist cultures. Being
pleasant is important.
21/12/22 10:54 AM
 4.20
Low Context Culture: In low-context communication
of Western cultures, the meaning is clearer when it is
expressed through explicit words. Direct, detailed and
unambiguous words are required. In case of misunder-
standing, the sender of the message is often held respon-
sible as he was not able to construct a clear idea.
Self-enhancement vs . Self-effacement
Self Enhancement: In individualistic, low-context com-
munication cultures, society focuses on promoting indi-
viduals’ self-esteem and self-efficacy. Individuals are
direct and more expressive about their abilities and
accomplishments.
Self effacement: In collectivistic eastern cultures, such
as Japan and China, the tendency is on self-criticism.
Individuals hesitate while discussing their own abilities.
It maintains group harmony and avoids offense.
Elaboration vs. Understating
Elaboration: The French, Arabs, Latin Americans, and
Africans prefer an elaborative communication style. This
can also be called verbal exaggeration. This over assertion
is practiced by Saudi Arabians.
Understanding: Understated communication style involves
the extensive use of silence, pauses, and understatements
in conversations, as practiced by the Chinese. When con-
flict arises, using silence as an initial reaction allows people
to calm down, exhibit emotional maturity and take time to
identify better conflict management strategies.
The four barriers to intercultural communication include
ethnocentrism, stereotyping, prejudice and discrimination.
To deal with barriers, non-dominant group members
use one or more of three main strategies to get what they
want from dominant group members, such as assimila-
tion, accommodation or separation.
The five ways to improve intercultural communication
are as follows.
1. Pay attention to your own words and actions.
2. Control your assumptions.
3. Engage in transpection—the process of empathizing
across cultures.
4. Gain knowledge.
5. Gain experience.
The Internet offers a vehicle for searching common val-
ues, understandings and approaches to managing a world
of different cultures.
Characteristics of Communication
The nature of communication can be explained using the
following characteristics:
1. Communication is Continuous: Communication
is continuous, dynamic and action oriented process
towards a desired goal.
2. Communication is All-pervasive: Lower levels
provide information to the middle level, that further
M04_MADAN 04_65901_C04.indd 20
Chapter 4
processes it to top level for decision making. That
is called as the vertical and bottom-up approach.
Similarly, in an authoritative manner, information
moves in top-bottom manner. Information flows in
diagonal and horizontal manner.
3. Effective Communication is a Two-way Process:
Communication is deemed to be effective when there
is some kind of feedback mechanism.
4. Communication is Always with a Context and a
Relationship Aspect: Both in terms of (i) what you
say and (ii) how you say the matter. Same message
can be communicated authoritatively or politely.
For example, while asking for a glass of water, one
can say:
(a) Please bring me a glass of water
(b) Give me a glass of water
(c) Can I have a glass of water?
(d) Could you please give me a glass of water?
Even grammar is not always run by ‘set rules’ but by
emotions and feelings. Each message will have a dif-
ferent effect on the person you are talking to.
5. Communication Exchanges are Based on
Symmetry and Complementary: Symmetry refers to
similarity and complimentary refers to the differences
in characteristics. For example, two students who are
very good in mathematics will have a good communi-
cation relationship. This will be termed as symmetry.
On the other hand, suppose there are two students,
one is good in Mathematics but poor in English and
the other is good in English but poor in Mathematics.
They may have good complementary communication
relationship with each other because they compen-
sate each other’s weaknesses.
6. Common Language: This helps developing better
understanding between the sender and the receiver
of a message and thus, making communication more
effective.
7. Meeting of Minds is Necessary: The receiver must
comprehend the intended meaning of the message
that the sender wants him or her to understand.
8. The Message Must have Substance: The gist of the
message holds importance only until the receiver
shows interest in the subject matter. For example,
any discussion about cricket will be well received by a
cricket fanatic.
9. Communication can Also be Conducted Through
Gestures: Communication should not necessarily be
verbal or written. Nodding of heads, rolling of eyes,
movement of lips, etc., are some of the gestures used
to convey certain basic ideas.
10. Communication is of Different Types: It can be for-
mal or informal, verbal or non-verbal. The different
types have been discussed in detail in the ensuing
discussion.
11. Communication Always has a Context:
Communication always takes place within a context.
According to Bateson, ‘Without context, words and
actions do not carry any meaning at all’. At times, this
context may not be obvious, and at times, it may stand
21/12/22 10:54 AM
 Communication
out boldly. The context of communication has four
dimensions:
(a) Physical Context: It refers to the place where
communication is taking place, such as in public,
conference room, classroom, etc. It refers to the
ambience of the place as well.
(b) Social Context: Social context is mainly about
(i) the role and status relationship between the
sender and the receiver of messages and (ii) the
norms and culture of the society. For example,
the social context of friends attending a party
will be different from people attending a meet-
ing in an organization or a doctor attending a
patient.
(c) Psychological Context: It refers to the environ-
ment characterized by formality or informality,
friendliness or unfriendliness.
(d) Temporal Context: It refers to the time factor in
communication, such as at what time of the day
the communication takes place. In the morning, we
usually talk about religious and spiritual aspects of
life, and during day time, it is usually about profes-
sional aspects, and so on.
Concept Box
Adjacency Pairs
One way in which meanings are communicated and
interpreted in conversation is through the use of what
have been called adjacency pairs. Adjacency pairs are
utterances produced by two successive speakers such
that the second utterance is identified as related to
the first as an expected follow-up. Adjacency pair is
described as the basic structural unit in conversation.
Consider the following examples
(a) Greeting-Greeting
A: Hi
B: Hi
(b) Compliment-Acceptance
A: That’s a nice cap.
B: Thanks.
functions of Communication
During recent times, communication by mass media and
through social media is the underlying force for changes
taking place in society. People communicate to learn
what they need and want to cope with their physical and
social reality. Successful people are usually effective com-
municators.
The different objectives of communication are dis-
cussed as follows:
1. Information to keep oneself updated and for decision-
making
2. Education and instruction
3. Smooth functioning of groups
4. Motivation and morale
M04_MADAN 04_65901_C04.indd 21
4.21
5. Control
6. Cultural promotion
7. Integration
8. Communication skills are of four types, listening,
speaking, writing and reading.
Listening is termed as a good skill and hence, it is said
that one has to learn ‘how to listen so that others will
talk’. Listening is a whole range of other aspects of com-
munication.
MaCro FunCtionS oF CoMMuniCation
As per changing exam pattern, in question statements,
there is an increasing use of technical words. Thus, we
need to discuss some functions. The macro functions of
communication are listed below:
1. Emotive Function: To communicate the inner state
of mind and emotions. For example, ‘Oh My God!
Oh no!’
2. Directive Function: This function seeks to affect the
behaviour of others, for example, ‘Fetch me a glass of
water, please.’
3. Phatic Function: This is to open the channel of
communication or checking that it is working. For
example, ‘Hello, is it Ram?’ or ‘Can you hear me,
Mrs. Girdhar?’ This function establishes, acknowl-
edges or reinforces social relations
4. Poetic Function: This refers to the aesthetic func-
tion of language and focuses on ‘the message for
its own sake’. Thus, it is basically the essence of the
message. For example, euphony (pleasantness of
sounds in speech and pronunciation) is an applica-
tion of this function. This poetic function of language
can be used when one says ‘Asoka the Great’, instead
of ‘the great Asoka’, which essentially has the same
meaning.
5. Referential Function: Referential function refers to
any message that is constructed to convey information.
6. Metalinguistic Function: This function focuses
attention on the code of language itself. When lan-
guage is used to speak about language, for example,
in grammar or a dictionary, the metalingual function
has been employed. Metalinguistic activity may be
unconscious.
For example, ‘The use of both will or shall is correct in
modern usage.’
7. Contextual Function: It facilitates the creation of a
particular kind of context. It sets the tone. For exam-
ple, ‘Right! Let’s start the meeting now.’
8. Heuristic Function: Here, we use language to gain
knowledge, learn and explore the environment.
A child uses language to learn. This may be in the
form of questions and answers or the kind of run-
ning commentary that frequently accompanies chil-
dren’s play.
In addition, there can be some more functions.
1. Denotation refers to the literal meaning of a word,
the ‘dictionary definition’. For example, if you look up
21/12/22 10:54 AM
 4.22 Chapter 4

the word ‘snake’ in a dictionary, you will discover that Noise Decoding and
one of its denotative meanings is ‘any of numerous Formulation of interpretation
scaly, legless, sometimes venomous reptiles, having message Sender/
of message
a long, tapering, cylindrical body and found in most receiver
tropical and temperate regions’.
2. Connotation, on the other hand, refers to the asso-
ciations that are connected to a certain word or the Encoding Feedback/
emotional suggestions related to that word. The con- of message transmission
notative meanings of a word exist together with the
denotative meanings. The connotations for the word
‘snake’ could include evil or danger.
3. A simile is a comparison between two dissimilar
Transmission/ Encoding
objects using the words as or like to connect them.
feedback of message
For example, if you say, ‘my boyfriend is like a water-
melon in the summer’, you are creating a simile that
compares your boyfriend to a watermelon. If on the
other hand you are angry at him and say, ‘he’s like a
typhoon in the house’, then you are comparing your
Decoding and
boyfriend to a typhoon. Formulation of
interpretation
4. A metaphor is similar to a simile, except that a meta- Receiver/ message
of message
phor compares two dissimilar objects without using sender
the words as or like. If you write, ‘my boyfriend is an
angel’ or ‘my motorcycle is a bomb on wheels’, you are Noise
creating metaphors. Figure 4.14 Process of Effective Communication

Stopover
The information function of mass communication is
1. Formulation of message
described as 2. Message encoding
(a) Diffusion 3. Message transmission
(b) Publicity 4. Message decoding and interpretation
(c) Surveillance 5. Feedback and evaluation
(d) Diversion The process of an effective two-way communication is
The correct option is (c). shown in Figure 4.14.

Classroom Communication
Process–Cole and Chan Model
The main objective of classroom teaching is transfer knowl-
edge, comprehension, application, analysis, synthesis etc.
to name a few. Classroom teaching still dominates the
scene of formal education system. This mainly deals with
cognitive domain. It is an integral part of any teaching-
learning process. Classroom communication is affected by
multiple factors pertaining to teachers, students, message,
instructional methods and media and the learning envi-
ronment. We need to understand the nature of this teach-
ing process so that it can be made more effective. We can
improve the this sacred act through training and practice.
All communication is based on symbols. It is a process that
involves organizing, selecting and transmitting symbols
in an appropriate manner to ensure that the receiver per-
ceives in his/her thought process, the intended meaning of
the communicator.
According to Cole and Chan, a typical process of class-
room communication (and communication in general as
well) includes the following five distinct stages:
Formulation of Message
It is appropriate to recall the slogan, ‘Medium is the Message’
coined by Marshall McLuhan. This implies that the carrier
of the communication, in whatever physical form –human
voice, image or text—digitised– influences the message, the
sender, the audience and the effects of mass media, far more
significantly than it has ever been possible. This is more than
true with the advances in multimedia. technology. The suc-
cess of communication, therefore, depends on what we say
and how we say it.
1. All communication starts with an idea or a message
that is to be transmitted to the target audience (indi-
vidual) with a motive to get a positive response. Com-
municator (sender or encoder) is the one who initi-
ates the communication process.
2. A message is a set of verbal or non-verbal cues sent by
a source. Messages can be spoken or written words,
gestures, movements, etc. They cannot have a mean-
ing apart from the person involved in the sending and
receiving process.
3. Effective communication depends on the communi-
cation skill, knowledge level and attitude of the com-
municator and how he/she desires to affect his/her

M04_MADAN 04_65901_C04.indd 22 21/12/22 10:54 AM

 Communication
receiver. Ability to think, organize thoughts quickly
and express himself/herself effectively are some of
the attributes of a good communicator.
4. Teachers concerned conceptualize ideas to be con-
veyed to students by arranging them in coherent and
meaningful sequence. In most instances, they will
draw on content from the curricula. Teachers inter-
pret those ideas and determine the appropriate orga-
nization of the content.
Message E ncoding
1. The internal shaping, sorting and sifting of ideas for
clarification and organization is called message for-
mulation. Its purpose is to create a clear and meaning-
ful message.
2. Encoding involves converting an idea into a form that
can be transmitted to receivers.
3. The communicator not only translates his/her
­purpose (ideas, thoughts, or information) into a mes-
sage but also decides on the medium to communicate
his/her planned message.
4. The communicator must choose the media (speech,
writing, signalling, or gestures) that the receiver can
comprehend well. For instance, an illiterate receiver
may fail to understand a written message but can
understand it well if told orally.
5. Teachers encode their ideas in different ways accord-
ing to the demands of various curricula. It is the
teacher’s responsibility to use appropriate symbolic
forms for each subject and to teach students to use
these forms.
Message T ransmission
1. It is a critical stage in the communication pro-
cess and answers how a message is delivered. The
sender selects an appropriate channel or mode of
presentation.
2. A ‘channel’ is the vehicle or means through which a
message or stimulus is carried from the communica-
tor to the receiver. There are various options available
as channels, such as written, spoken, verbal, non-ver-
bal, mass media, etc.
  For example, a teacher may use a film or physical
demonstration to convey the same idea. Teachers are
usually able to use more than one channel in ways
that allow for an integrated presentation.
Message Decoding and I nterpretation
1. Decoding is the interpretation of a message by the
receiver. Actually, the receiver looks for meaning in
the message that is common to both the receiver and
the communicator.
  The process of decoding by the receiver is not pas-
sive but active. Language does not have meaning; it
has the potential for meaning, and it is the decoder
who is actively engaged in making meaning on the
basis of his/her background knowledge and the con-
text of communication.
M04_MADAN 04_65901_C04.indd 23
4.23
2. If the receiver possesses the background information
and is familiar with the form of language used, then
it becomes easier for him/her to decode and compre-
hend the message.
3. If the receiver does not have the ability to listen, read
and think, he/she will not be able to receive and
decode the messages in the manner the communica-
tor wants him/her to.
4. For effective communication, the receiver is the most
important link in the communication process.
Feedback and Evaluation
1. Feedback is the response or acknowledgement of
the receiver to the communicator’s message. The
exchange is possible only if the receiver responds.
Feedback is considered as motor function.
2. It involves the receiver reacting to the transmit-
ted messages and conveying the response to the
sender.
3. Most effective communicators encourage feedback
and adjust the content and presentation of their mes-
sages as per the feedback received.
4. Teachers need to be aware of the subtle and direct
ways of students for conveying reactions to the mes-
sages received. Skilled teachers can also control feed-
back so as to avoid unnecessary interference in the
ongoing communication process.
5. Even by fluttering eyelids, raising an eyebrow, mak-
ing facial expressions, organizing a point and asking
for explanation expresses a lot. Thus, the message is
shaped and reshaped by the communicator and the
receiver until the meaning becomes clear. In this way,
both the participants in communication interact and
constantly exchange roles. In face-to-face communi-
cation, the receiver responds naturally, directly and
immediately. This provides the communicator an
opportunity to improve and make his/her communi-
cation effective.
6. Therefore, feedback provides an opportunity to
evaluate what is right or wrong about a particular
communication. It helps to regulate the conversa-
tion among two or more individuals and also stim-
ulates and reinforces an idea that is desired to be
communicated.
7. An interactive model of communication (Cole and
Chan) has a specific application for classroom teach-
ing and learning. In most classroom interactions,
there are constant role changes and many times the
communication process is reversed.
Noise
Noise is an interruption that can creep in at any point of
time in the communication process and make it ineffec-
tive. Environment is one major cause that interferes with
message reception, including noises from the roadside,
constant chattering of individuals, blaring loudspeaker,
faulty transmission, etc. Noise can also occur in other
forms, such as poor handwriting, heavy accent or soft
21/12/22 10:54 AM
 4.24
speech, communication in a poorly lit room, etc. In fact,
these are barriers to effective communication. For smooth
and effective communication, it is necessary to eliminate
or reduce noise as far as possible.
Noise can be mainly divided into the following
categories:
1. Physiological Noise: It is the distraction caused by
hunger, fatigue, headache, medication, etc.
2. Physical Noise: It is the most direct form of interfer-
ence in our physical environment, for example, traffic
horns and poor lighting.
3. Psychological Noise: It refers to the qualities in us
that affect how we communicate and interpret mes-
sages to others. For instance, if a manager is preoc-
cupied with a very intense problem, then he/she
may be inattentive in a meeting. Similarly, preju-
dice and defensive attitude can also interfere with
communication.
4. Semantic Noise: It occurs when words themselves
are not mutually understood. Authors sometimes cre-
ate semantic noise by using jargon or avoidable tech-
nical language.
Concept Box
Education as a Communication System
Tiffin and Rajasingham discuss education as a commu-
nication system that also shares the characteristics of an
open system:
1. Negative-entropy: Open systems resist the trend
towards disorder and more towards increased
organization. For this purpose, they depend on
feedback system and the environmental supra
system.
2. Feedback: Feedback enables the system to take
corrective steps to adjust its malfunctioning, if
there is any.
3. Steady State: It is a condition of dynamic equi-
librium. Here, the system maintains its structure
as stable, despite fluctuation in environmental
conditions.
4. Differentiation: Open systems adapt to the chang-
ing environment. They also move in the direction
of higher level of organization or growth.
5. Equifinality: It is the ability of open systems to
reach a given state or condition by several different
paths.
6. Teleology: It is a characteristic of open system that
indicates the purposefulness of the system and
works according to its objectives.
7. Hierarchy: Open systems are hierarchical, i.e.,
they are both independent framework consisting
of a number of integral lower level sub-systems
and each one is a dependent member of the higher
level system.
M04_MADAN 04_65901_C04.indd 24
Chapter 4
Principles of effective Classroom
Communication
Effectiveness of classroom communication depends on five
major factors, namely teacher, student, message, instruc-
tional methods and media, and learning environment.
The principles of effective classroom communication have
been discussed under the following four headings:
1. Principles for teachers
2. Principles for message design
3. Principles for selection of instructional methods and
media
4. Principles for creating conducive learning environment
prinCipleS For t eaCherS
A teacher should have the following qualities.
1. Develop a Realistic Self-concept and a Perception
About Surrounding: This requires analysis of one’s
strengths and weaknesses, acceptance of the reality
and efforts to realize one’s potential.
2. Develop Proficiency in the Subject Matter: Desire to
acquire knowledge is a must for the teacher. In the
words of Mahatma Gandhi,
‘Live as if you were to die tomorrow
Learn as if you were to live forever’.
A teacher should make every effort to remain
updated in his/her subject area by independent read-
ing, participation in short-term courses, attending
classes of proficient teachers/experts, discussing
subject-related issues and problems with other col-
leagues or seniors, etc. This helps in boosting the con-
fidence of the teacher.
3. Understand the Learners: A teacher should try to
collect as much information about the learners’ char-
acteristics as he/she can. Information needs to be col-
lected about the previous knowledge, learning styles,
cognitive styles, motivation and interests. A teacher
should accept the fact that no two individuals are
alike and thus cannot be treated in the same manner.
4. Develop Effective Communication Skills (both
Verbal and Non-verbal): Communication skills can
be acquired through training and practice. A teacher
can record his/her own audio and analyse the same for
identifying the strengths and weaknesses in the spo-
ken language. He/she should remain open to feedback
from colleagues, superiors and students.
5. Knowledge About Pedagogy and Andragogy: This
enables the teacher to plan, organize, deliver and
evaluate instructions based on sound principles of
teaching and learning, thereby promoting learning
among students.
6. Adopt Flexible Approach: This helps in modifying
instructions as per the needs of the students.
7. Being Objective and Unbiased: A teacher should
treat students as equal and not give any preferences
to students on the basis of sex, caste or creed.
21/12/22 10:54 AM
 Communication
prinCipleS For MeSSage deSign
The message should have the following characteristics:
1. Clear and Specified Objectives: Objectives should
satisfy the criterion of being SMART.
(a) Specific
(b) Measurable
(c) Achievable
(d) Realistic
(e) Time framed
2. Relevant to the Objectives: Contents should be rel-
evant to cover all the objectives.
3. Properly Sequenced: This is covered in Unit I under
the maxims and principles of teaching. It should be
seen that the content is organized based on the fol-
lowing parameters.
(a) Simple to complex
(b) Easy to difficult
(c) Concrete to abstract
(d) Known to unknown
(e) Observation to reasoning
4. Use Language Comprehensible to the Learners:
The language of the message should be simple and
comprehensible to the learners. Technical jargon
should be avoided.
5. Use Appropriate Symbols: Symbols used in
the message should be technically correct and
standardized.
6. Include relevant exercises: The exercises selected
should be of varying difficulty levels and involve the
learners meaningfully.
7. Make Generous Use of Examples and Non-
examples: Examples from daily life and the world
of work should be used to facilitate understanding of
the applicability of content in different settings and
thus, it ensures greater transferability of the learnt
materials.
prinCipleS For SeleCtion oF i nStruCtional
M ethodS and Media
1. Select Relevant and Appropriate Methods and
Media: The methods and media should be relevant
to the objectives, content and context, and should
be appropriate to the level of learners. Instructional
methods and teaching methods have been discussed
in Unit I.
2. Use Variety of Methods and Media: In order to cater
to the individual differences among learners and to
avoid monotony, a variety of methods and media
should be used by the teacher.
3. Use Good Quality Media: The quality of media in
terms of its visibility, legibility, finish, colour and
printing should be judged before its use.
4. Integrate Media in Teaching–learning: Media
should not be used in isolation. For example, if a video
film is being used at the end of a lesson to reinforce
what has been taught in the class, then it should either
be followed by a discussion or some quick assessment
of the students’ understanding.
M04_MADAN 04_65901_C04.indd 25
4.25
prinCipleS For Creating ConduCive learning
environMent
1. Classes Should not be Overcrowded: This is required
so that a teacher can pay individual attention to every
student.
2. Ensure Proper Seating Arrangement in the Class:
This is required to maintain optimum distance between
a teacher and students, ambiance and furniture of the
classroom, for proper lighting and ventilation.
3. Build Rapport with the Students: The positive atti-
tude is required from both sides in the classroom. The
individuality of students must be maintained.
4. Encourage Cooperation and Healthy Competition
among students: This can be achieved by assigning
group activities and pairing bright students with aver-
age or poor oones.
5. Feedback Mechanism: It should work both ways.
6. Encourage Experimentation: This is required to
maintain innovations in the classroom.
7. Provide Reinforcement: A teacher should reinforce
the desired communication behaviour of learners
through praise, appreciation, rewards, social recogni-
tion and so on.
8. Provide Non-threatening Environment: There
should not be a fear of punishment. Prior informa-
tion regarding schedule of activities, tests, assign-
ments, etc. should be provided to learners in order
to avoid any unnecessary anxiety on the part of the
learners.
Concept Box
Paraphrasing
Paraphrasing is a skill that is absolutely necessary for
good listening. It means stating in your own words
your understanding of what has just been said. It
gives the speaker the opportunity to find out what
message he/she is getting across to you. He/she can
then make any corrections needed. To begin para-
phrasing, you might start by saying, ‘What I hear you
saying is ....’ or ‘It sounds like ....’ or ‘Let me see if I’m
understanding you ....’
Advantages of Paraphrasing
1. It helps the students know that they are under-
stood by the instructor.
2. It prevents misunderstandings from occurring.
3. It helps to avoid impulsive or angry reactions.
4. It will prevent you from getting distracted easily.
5. It helps to remember what was said frequently.
some important Terms
1. Synchronous Media: Media that takes place in real
time, such as live television or radio and requires the
audience to be present when the media is broadcasted
or performed is called synchronous media.
21/12/22 10:54 AM
 4.26
2. Asynchronous Media: Media that does not require
the audience to assemble at a specific time in order to
use it is called asynchronous media. Examples of asyn-
chronous media are printed materials or recorded
audio or video.
3. Time Shift: The recording of an audio or video event,
usually by the audience, to be watched later at a time
other than when it was originally broadcast is called
time shift. Setting a VCR to record a favourite pro-
gram is an example of time-shifting.
4. Surveillance: Primarily, the function of mass com-
munication is to provide information about the pro-
cesses, issues, events and other developments in
the society.
5. Convergence: It is the combination of computing,
telecommunications and media in a digital environ-
ment. Convergence and the changes that it is bring-
ing are fundamentally changing many aspects of mass
media and communication.
Ten Commandments of
Communication
Though we have studied them earlier, in order
to make communication effective, let us observe
some important aspects that make communication
­effective:
1. Clarify ideas before communicating.
2. Examine the true purpose of communication.
3. Take the entire environment, physical and
human, into consideration.
4. When valuable, take advice from others while
planning communication.
5. Be careful of the overtones and the basic content
of the message.
6. Use crisp language and be clear.
7. Follow-up on communication.
8. Communicate with the future as well as the pres-
ent in mind.
9. Be a good listener.
10. Exhibit congruency.
Six Different T ypes of I nterpersonal Power
of C ommunication
These do happen when a person is in leadership position
such as teacher.
1. Expert Power: Having expert knowledge about a sub-
ject that others value and do not possess themselves.
2. Referent Power: The ability to empathize with sub-
ordinates gives a leader referent power in communi-
cation. Leaders can identify with how their subordi-
nates feel and think.
3. Information Power: This power refers to the impor-
tance of presenting information coherently and logi-
cally. This is linked with expert power.
M04_MADAN 04_65901_C04.indd 26
Chapter 4
4. Legitimate Power: This power comes from formal
titles, such as CEO, MD, parent, teacher, mentor,
coach etc.
5. Reward Power: An employee is likely to respond
favourably to orders and directions if he receives a
tangible reward, such as a better job assignment or a
pay raise.
6. Coercive Power: This power is the ability to pun-
ish someone for noncompliance with an order or
direction.
Communication Barriers
Communication barriers are interferences or obstacles
which limit the receiver’s understanding of the message.
Barriers may have the effect of entirely preventing com-
munication, filtering part of it, or giving it an incorrect
meaning.
Barriers occur if any of the essential elements of com-
munication (sender, message, medium or receiver)
become faulty or defective.
As a matter of fact, no communication can break down;
it merely changes. For instance, when you ignore some-
one, you communicate that you do not wish to talk.
Stopover
Which of these is not a commandment of effective
communication?
(a) Clarity in language
(b) Listen poorly
(c) Home communication skills
(d) Adequate medium
(b) is the right answer.
The correct option is (b).
Psychological Barriers
1. Frame of Reference: Each person has a frame of
reference, a kind of a window to view the world,
people, events and situations. A frame of reference
is shaped by our cultural environment (norms, val-
ues and beliefs), childhood experiences and heredity.
All these factors are usually implicit. No two people
will have same frame of reference. Our frames of
reference change with passage of time as our needs
and experience also change. Here, it is important to
mention the concept of reference groups whom we
espouse as our own and try to follow in our routine
behaviour.
2. Self-image: Self-image or self-concept is closely
related to frame of reference. People establish their
points of view and interpret messages in accordance
with their self-concepts. They respond favourably
those messages that reinforce their self-concept and
reject those messages that are perceived to be threat-
ening to the self image.
3. Stereotyping: It originates from the ego, and becomes
a barrier to communication when people react as if
21/12/22 10:54 AM
 Communication 4.27

Communication Barriers

Psychological Linguistic and Mechanical Organisational Physical

Barriers Cultural Barriers Barriers Barriers Barriers

Frame of reference Semantic barriers Language Size Size Competing stimulus

Self-image High/low culture Perpetual biases Distance Environmental stress
Stereotyping Cross cultural barrier Impersonal relationships Specialisation Subjective stress
Field of Experience Cultural differences Org Culture Medium unfamiliarity
Cognitive dissonance Rules & regulations
Defensiveness and Fear Power Structure
Selective Perception Complexity
Filtering Facilities
Lack of cooperation
Figure 4.15 Barriers of Communication

they already know the message coming from the
sender, or worse. However, senders and listeners
should continuously look for and address thinking,
conclusions and actions based on stereotypes.
4. Field of Experience: This barrier occurs when
the field of experience is not common to both - the
sender as well as the receiver. If a teacher is teach-
ing Einstein’s equation to commerce students, he/she
will not get any response, but if it is taught to physics
students, his/her communication is likely to be more
effective.
5. Cognitive Dissonance: Cognitive means thinking
and dissonance means conflict. Thus, it means con-
flict in thinking. For example, although a smoker
accepts the truthfulness of drug de-addiction in
advertisement messages by the Department of Social
Welfare, he is not able to react favourably.
6. Defensiveness and Fear: This is closely related to the
desire to maintain status quo, and a person always
justifies his/her viewpoint or idea.
Along with the feelings of nervousness, anxiety
and tension, fear is the most restricting of all effects,
resulting in narrow thinking, which selects and dis-
torts communication. However, a little fear and anxi-
ety can be turned into a source of energy and enhance
confidence as it motivates to perform better.
7. Selective Perception: It is also known as ‘I-know-it
syndrome’. If somebody says, ‘It is a waste of time’, is
also exhibiting selective perception when one does
not apply full mind on communication situation.
8. Filtering: A sender’s manipulation of information can
be seen as more favourable by the receiver.
An individual’s particular psychological characteris-
tics are basically termed as ‘conceptual filters’. They can
also put a limit on the encoding process of an individual.
Communication skills, knowledge of the topic, and person-
ality factors such as attitudes, values interests, and moti-
vational needs are some of the traits or mental conditions
that combine to limit, screen or filter what is encoded. They
also add to the quality of message.
Linguistic and Cultural Barriers
Language, both verbal or non-verbal, makes use of words.
Words are mere symbols. Symbols can be comprehended
differently by participants in ­communication. The com-
munication message might not use vocabulary that is
understood by the receiver. For example, excessive use of
technical, financial, medical or psychological terms and
jargon.
Most of the native languages are culture specific. When
languages are distinct, communication is carried out
through translation, which increases the probability of
misunderstandings.
Although languages are meant to improve understand-
ing, different cultural contexts and languages can also
prove to be a barrier to communication across different
cultures.
1. Semantic Barriers: Semantic barriers occur when
there is a disagreement about the words being used,
which is a result of individuals being from different
cultures. Thus, disallowing the parties involved to
determine a common meaning of the words used. This
frequently occurs when the parties involved speak dif-
ferent languages.
2. High-context and Low-context Cultures: High-
context culture is the culture that relies heavily on
non-verbal and subtle situational cues to communi-
cate. A lot of things are left unsaid, but it is already

M04_MADAN 04_65901_C04.indd 27 21/12/22 10:54 AM

 4.28 Chapter 4

understood by the members that constitute the group. 3. Impersonal Relationships: Our perception is also
Asiatic societies such as India, Saudi Arabia and Japan based on past experiences with the communicator.
are prominent examples of high-context culture. The same communication from the highest authority
Low-context culture relies heavily on words to con- may be perceived differently than that from a subor-
vey meanings in a communication. A few words can dinate or a colleague.
communicate a complex message very effectively to 4. Cultural Differences: Effective communication
an in-group (in-group is one’s own culture) but less requires deciphering the basic motives, values,
effectively outside that group. In a low-context culture, assumptions and aspirations that operate across dif-
the communicator needs to be much more explicit. ferent cultures.
Western societies are usually low-context societies.
3. Cross-cultural Communication: Cross-cultural
communication is a field of study that analyse how Stopover
people from varying cultural contexts communicate Which of the following is termed as the first enemy of
in similar ways and also in different ways among communication?
themselves. How do they endeavour to communicate (a) Noise
across cultures? (b) Clarity
(c) Politeness
Stopover (d) Completeness
Which of the following denotes the problem arising The correct option is (a).
from expression?
(a) Cultural barriers
organizational BarrierS
(b) Semantic problems
(c) Wrong assumptions These barriers develop when an organization evolves.
They can be attributed to the following conditions:
(d) Selecting perception
The correct option is (b). 1. Size of the organization
2. Physical distance between employees
MeChaniCal BarrierS 3. Specialization of jobs and activities
4. Organizational culture, which impacts freedom
Mechanical barriers can exist in both interpersonal or
and trust
mass communication. There can be difficulty in recep-
tion, or some elements of the message may not reach the 5. Organizational rules and regulations
destination or both. It can be in the form of absence of 6. Power structure in the organization
communication facilities. 7. Complexity in organizational structure
Channel noise is a technical term used for such 8. Inadequate facilities and opportunities
mechanical barriers that includes any disturbance in 9. Lack of cooperation between seniors and subordinates
physical transmission of a message. Some examples of
mechanical barriers are disturbances in radio transmis- phySiCal BarrierS
sions, blurriness on TV screens, spreading of ink on a
newspaper, inaudibility in telephone devices, a barely The geographic distance between the sender and
readable point size or any kind of improper functioning receiver(s) can be taken as the most pertinent example of
of a device. They can also be associated with cultural or physical barrier in communication.
social issues, language, customs, beliefs, motives or sim-
ply illiteracy.
The various communication barriers at workplaces are Concept Box
as follows:
The 7 Cs provide a checklist for making sure that com-
1. Language: The same message can be interpreted munication in the form of teaching, instructions, meet-
differently by different people. Several factors affect ings, emails, conference calls, reports and presenta-
how an individual attributes meaning to particular tion is well constructed and clear so that the audience
words. understands the message.
2. Perpetual Biases: It prevents us from looking at real- According to the 7 Cs, communication needs to be:
ity in a truthful manner. The most common perceptual 1. Clear
biases are stereotyping, projection and self-fulfilling 2. Concise
prophecies. 3. Concrete
Stereotyping comes into play when we assume that 4. Correct
a person belonging to a certain group will display 5. Coherent
specific characteristics. However, the person may not 6. Complete
actually exhibit those characteristics. This is specifi- 7. Courteous
cally true in the case of traditional societies.

M04_MADAN 04_65901_C04.indd 28 21/12/22 10:54 AM

 Communication
Four T ypes of Powers in communication
These powers are following
1. Expressing Yourself: from the very first moment we
enter into this word.
2. Listening and Responding
3. Regulating Attention and Intention: through emo-
tional intelligence also
4. Understanding and Responding to People in Their
“Style”
Communication is generally easier over shorter distances
as more communication channels are available and lesser
or no technology is required. The ideal communication is
face-to-face.
Although modern technology often helps to reduce
the impact of physical barriers, the advantages and dis-
advantages of each communication channel should be
understood so that an appropriate channel can be used to
overcome the physical barriers.
There are four kinds of physical barriers:
1. Competing Stimulus: There can be some other con-
versation going on in the surrounding area or traffic
noise in the background and so on.
2. Environmental Stress: High temperature, poor ven-
tilation and so on.
3. Subjective Stress: Sleeplessness, ill health, effects of
drugs, mood variations and so on.
4. Receiver’s Unfamiliarity with Medium: The use of a
medium with which the recipient is unfamiliar is also
a communication barrier.
Stopover
In which of these problems, is the actual message lost
in the abundance of transmitted information?
(a) Selecting perception
(b) Over communication
(c) Under communication
(d) Filtering
The correct option is (b).
O vercoming B arriers of Communication
To make communication more effective, supervisors/
managers must try to attempt to remove the barriers.
1. Regulate the flow of information.
2. Feedback: Acknowledgment of a message.
3. Human resources should use simple language.
4. Level of Knowledge: It is always advantageous to
speak in the subordinate’s language (level of knowl-
edge, his educational qualification and fluency of lan-
guage of the receiver). It is best to communicate in the
mother tongue of the subordinate.
5. Listen Carefully: Hearing is passive, whereas listen-
ing is an active and intellectual process. While listen-
ing, one should stop talking, be patient, hold temper,
ask questions, remove distractions and entirely con-
centrate on what the speaker is saying.
M04_MADAN 04_65901_C04.indd 29
4.29
6. Control Emotions: Emotion can be in any form, such
as anger, disgust and sadness. Emotions severely
cloud and distort meaning. The best thing is to defer
or postpone further communication until calmness
and coolness is established.
7. Watch for Non-verbal Cues or Body Language:
In case of oral communication, the sender should
observe the actions of receiver and find whether they
go along with the understanding. A supervisor should
watch the non-verbal cues or body language carefully.
Communications T hrough Emoticons
Emoticon is the combination of “emotion” and “icon”.
They are visual representations of writers’ emotions. They
are often taken as utterances in computer related commu-
nication that are interpreted by receivers. They are basi-
cally graphic representations of facial expressions. They
are produced by ASCII symbols (:-)) or by “pictograms,”
which are graphic symbols (), and now produced by Shift
JIS art and Unicode art.
The first emoticon was used by Scott E. Fahlman in USA
in 1982. According to him, “smiley” face :-) and “frowny”
face :-( could be used to identify jokes in computer sys-
tems. They try to economize computer-mediated interac-
tion. They are akin to visual and body language. They are
emotion markers.
Emoji (from the Japanese e, “picture,” and moji, “char-
acter”) are a slightly more recent invention. They are dif-
ferent from emoticons. Emoji are pictographs of faces,
objects, and symbols.
Emoticons function as “contextualization cues”, as
they supplement and organize in interpersonal relations
in written interaction. They serve three basic functions.
1. Positive Attitude Function: specifically following
signatures
2. Humorous Function: when following utterances, they
joke/irony markers.
3. Hedge Function: This is done in two ways:
(a) Strengtheners: For expressive speech acts such
as thanks, greetings, etc.
(b) Softeners: For following directives such as requests,
corrections, etc.
We can use speech act and politeness theory for emoticons.
Now emoticons are used in ‘chat software’. They are identi-
fied as a typically ‘teenage phenomenon’. To some thinkers,
emoticons are superfluous and a waste of bandwidth. Their
excessive use may indicate may signal emotional instabil-
ity and a lack of control over one’s feelings. Thus, we need
in-depth knowledge for the authentic use and communica-
tive functions of emoticons. Emoticon is used as semiotic
resource in e-mail communication, it is used systematically
to modify speech, to contextualize discourse and to organ-
ize social relationships.
The first study on emoticons was conducted in 1995 by
Rezabeck and Cochenour. Women used emoticons more
often than men did, such as through Internet Relay Chat
(IRC). The majority of emoticons in corpus of Synchronous
Instant Messaging (SIM) are produced by women.
21/12/22 10:54 AM
 4.30
Emoticons modify the perception of ‘flaming’, so such
messages should be taken less seriously. Thus, they rep-
resent a useful strategy for preventing unintentional out-
breaks of flaming.
Emoticons are linked with private e-mail, private chat
(Instant Messaging), public chat (AOL chat; Internet
Relay Chat), and postings on public discussion forums.
The primary function of emoticons is not to convey emo-
tion but rather to indicate an illocutionary force – that is
the intended effect of the utterance.
Speech act and politeness theory
There are two theories of linguistics - speech act theory
(a kind of social action called as speech act) and polite-
ness theory. We need to differentiate between two types
of utterances “constatives” and “performatives”.
1. Constatives: These are descriptive statements which can
be either true or false. For example, “It is hot in here”.
2. Performatives: These are utterances which realize a
social action–“I hereby pronounce you husband and
wife”.
There are three distinct acts of an utterance:
(a) Locutionary: This is the act of making a meaning-
ful utterance, a stretch of spoken language that is
preceded by silence and followed by silence or a
change of speaker that is also known as a locution
or an utterance act.
M04_MADAN 04_65901_C04.indd 30
Chapter 4
(b) Illocutionary: These acts refer to the making of
a request, offer, joke, promise, etc. in uttering a
sentence.
(c) Perlocutionary: These acts refers to the effect
that is brought to the audience.
There are following five main categories of speech
acts–Directives (requesting), Expressives (thanking),
Representatives (asserting), Commissives (promising)
and Declarations (appointing).
Politeness Theory developed by Penelope Brown and
Stephen C. Levinson is defined as behaving in a socially
acceptable way with proper manners and etiquette.
Hedging: These are expressions with a “pragmatic
value that modifies the speech act, not the logical
form of the utterance”. Moreover, they are referred
to as a “direct modification of propositional content”.
Thus, hedges may be divided into “strengtheners”
emphasizing the propositional content and “soften-
ers” which soften the propositional content. They
“indicate something about the speaker’s commitment
toward what he/she is saying, and in so doing modify
the illocutionary force”.
To depict the categories of the speech acts, we use the capi-
tal letters D(irectives), E(xpressives), C(ommissives) and
R(epresentatives) after the respective acts.
21/12/22 10:54 AM
 Communication 4.31

A s s e s s Yo u r L e a r n i n g

ConCePT anD naTure of CoMMuniCaTion

1. When we say that communication is intentional, it 7. If it is assumed that communication has no beginning
means that or end, then it is termed as
(a) The sender consciously intends to affect the (a) Mediation (b) Process
behaviour of the receiver of the message. (c) Interaction (d) Transaction
(b) Effective communication is a process of acting on 8. The essential components of communication are
information. (a) Source, message, interference, channel, receiver,
(c) Through speech communication, people make feedback and context.
sense of the world. (b) Sign, source, destination, interaction and
(d) None of the above correlation.
2. Which of the following statements are important in (c) Signs, symbols, understanding, communication
context of communication? and communicant.
1. The main objective is receiver understanding. (d) Symbols, understanding, purpose, ideas, opin-
2. Learning to communicate with others is key to ions, non-verbal and reaction.
establish rewarding relationships. 9. Which of the following statements are true?
3. A message can only be deemed effective when it is 1. Shannon and Weaver model of communication is
understood by others and produces the intended linear.
results. 2. Dyadic communication is the transfer of mes-
4. Communication is part of motivation function. sages from a person to another person and vice
5. Communication depends upon our basic needs. versa.
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 (b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 3. The study of relationships among words is called
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 as syntactics.
4. Culture is a value free asset, according to Wilbur
3. Which of the following can be termed as the ‘context’ Schramm.
of communication?
(a) An interference with message reception. Codes:
(b) Effective communication. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4

A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
(c) Verbal and non-verbal responses to messages. (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
(d) A physical and psychological environment for 10. The concept of global village that stated that masses
conversation. can unite to effect changes was given by
4. Which of the following is Berlo’s Linear Model of (a) Marshall Macluhan
communication? (b) Shannon and Weaver
(a) S-M-R-C (b) S-M-C-R (c) Aristotle
(c) S-R-M-C (d) S-R-C-M (d) Swami Vivekanand
5. Who among the following has stated that peo- 11. A hypothetical lost parent language from which actual
ple know each other and themselves only through languages are derived, is called as
communication? (a) Para-language (b) Derivative language
(a) George Herbert Mead (c) Metalanguage (d) Protolanguage
(b) Mahatma Gandhi 12. The major contributer to the theory of communica-
(c) Martin Luther King tive reason and communicative rationally was
(d) Henry Fayol (December 2021)
6. The ability to communicate effectively (a) Schulman (b) Allen Luke
(a) The education level only can make a contribution (c) Deng-Xiao-Ping (d) Habermas
towards communication. 13. When a group agrees to support and commit to the
(b) Communication is only a natural talent that can- decision of the group, they have reached
not be learned. (a) a census (b) a solution
(c) Communication has become absolutely technol- (c) a consensus (d) an analysis
ogy oriented.
(d) This skill can be acquired during different phases 14. Prospective taking in communication supports
of life. (December 2021)

M04_MADAN 04_65901_C04.indd 31 21/12/22 10:54 AM

 4.32 Chapter 4

1. Behavioral rigidity 21. A high-context culture is one where

2. Openness
3. Sharing of information
4. Trust
5. Secrecy
Choose the correct answer from the option given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 3, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 3, and 5
15. During the communication process, the message is
­converted to a symbolic form called
(a) Decoding (b) Encoding
(c) Deciphering (d) Expanding
16. One’s own description as a person is
(a) Self-concept (b) Self-perception
(c) Self-awareness (d) Self-respect
17. Which of the following terms describes the communi-
cation between two people that involves sending and
receiving of messages?
(a) Decoding (b) Encoding
(c) Transaction (d) Dyadic
18. According to Shannon and Weaver Model, which of
the following statements are true?
1. Technical (signals), semantic (interpretation of
meaning) and influential (effectiveness).
2. The entropy and randomness are required for the
purpose of messages.
3. Their model was the first one to highlight the role
of ‘noise’ in communication.
4. This communication is called as ‘telegraphed
communication.
Codes:
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
(a) Much of the information is about the context or
the person.
(b) Much of the information is spoken.
(c) Most people use sign language.
(d) Much of the information is unspoken.
22. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In communication, language ambigu-
ity takes place because of the incorrect use of words.
Statement II: Informal time terms lead to different
interpretations.
In light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect.
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct.
23. Given below are two statements: One is labeled as
Assertion A and the other is labeled as Reason R
 (December 2021)
Assertion (A): With the development of science
and technology, the forms and ways of communica-
tion have become more specialized and there is an
increasing use of social media as the new methods
of communication
Reasons (R): In the socities of today, the communi-
cation process is more complex and indirect because
of the use of modern gadgets in which the individu-
als do not interact face to face

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 In the light of the above statements. Choose the cor-
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 rect answer from the options given below:
19. Being assertive in communication means the (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
following explanation of (A)
1. An assertive statement is frank and true expres- (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the NOT
sion of their feelings. correct explanation of (A)
2. An assertive statement is being transparent and (c) (A) is true but (R) is false
unbiased. (d) (A) is false but (R) is true
3. An assertive statement means that we need to
24. Given below are two statements: One is labeled as
strike a balance between our needs and those of
Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R):
others.
4. Assertive communication gives confidence to the Assertion (A): Agenda building is a collective com-
speaker. munication process in which media, government
5. Assertive communication means offering respect and the citizenry reciprocally influence one another.
to the other partners. Reasons (R): Agenda building presumes cognitive
codes: effects and inactive audience with less societal-level
effects.
(a) 2, 3, 4 and 5 (b) 3, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (d) 2, 4 and 5 In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:
20. A low-context culture is one where
(a) Most of the information is unspoken. (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(b) Most of the information is explicitly stated in a explanation of (A)
­verbal message. (b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the cor-
(c) Most of the information is apparent. rect explanation of (A)
(d) Most of the information is non-existent. (c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

M04_MADAN 04_65901_C04.indd 32 21/12/22 10:54 AM

 Communication 4.33

25. Given below are two statements: 3. Sign is objective while symbol is subjective.
Statement I: Body language is the basis of deceptive 4. Words are symbols for thoughts,we use them
communication. according to the thoughts you associate with
Statement II: Non-verbal cues have their own shared those words
meanings. Codes:
In light of the above statements, choose the correct (a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4
answer from the options given below: (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. 31. Emoticons are
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false. (a) Emotional conference
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. (b) Specifically expressive bodily gestures
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true. (c) Emotional queries
26. The primary channels used by individuals to commu- (d) Typed symbols that communicate facial
nicate with others are expressions
(a) Radio and television (b) E-mail 32. In the communication process, ‘to encode’ means to
(c) Tone of voice (d) Sight and sound (a) Translate ideas into a code
27. Match the following in context of Lasswell Model of (b) Interpret a code
Communication. (c) Block a pathway between the sender and receiver
of a message
Basic Aspects Meaning (d) Speak to large groups of people
1. Who A. Receiver 33. A person is more likely to use eye contact while
2. To whom B. Transmitter (a) Listening
(b) Uninterested being uninterested in communication
3. With what effect C. Stimulus message (c) Speaking
4. Says what D. Influrnce reply (d) Interpreting
Codes: 34. Which of the following statements are true in context
of feedback?
(a) 1–A, 2–B, 3–C, 4–D
(b) 1–B, 2–A, 3–C, 4–D 1. A situation in which the sender and the receiver
(c) 1–B, 2–A, 3–D, 4–C exchange information
(d) 1–A, 2–C, 3–B, 4–D 2. Listening is adversely affected by fast speed of
delivery of messages
28. The sequence of the stages of communication process
3. Listening is adversely affected by improper selec-
is (December 2021)

A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
tion and use of media
1. Level of acceptance
4. Listener’s verbal or non-verbal responses to a
2. Transmission of cognitive data
message.
3. Message Reception
4. Understanding Codes:
5. Reaction (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Choose the correct answer from the options given (b) 1, 2 and 4
below : (c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(b) 2, 3, 4, 5 and 1 35. Which of the following statements are true in context
(c) 3, 5, 4, 1 and 2 of classroom cybernetics?
(d) 2, 3, 4, 1 and 5 1. This means ‘to steer’, ‘to navigate’ or ‘to govern’ for
taking the system to desired goal.
29. Which of the three components are parts of the human
2. This means classroom teaching-learning process
communication process?
is a system and the goal is success of the learner
(a) Message, recording and feedback and learning process.
(b) Noise, feedback and jargon 3. This is constituted by Constructivism,
(c) Message, noise and feedback Conversation theory and a feedback system.
(d) Feedback, message and critiquing 4. This term was first defined by Norbert Wiener in
30. Which of the following statements are true in the con- 1948.
text of communication? codes:
1. A sign is an object or figure that represents a cer- (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
tain reality for those who interpret it. (b) 1, 2 and 4
2. A symbol represents an idea that must be per- (c) 2, 3 and 4
ceived from the senses and that is linked to a con- (d) 1, 2 and 3
vention accepted by society.

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 4.34 Chapter 4

36. When we try to organize details in our minds, we are 45. An example of a communication channel is
seeking to (a) Noise
(a) Produce new ideas in our mind (b) Context
(b) Process complex information and then (c) Face-to-face conversation
categorize it (d) Feedback
(c) Categorize difficult and easy pieces of 46. The way one interprets information around oneself is
information (a) Always negative
(d) Process simple information and cat­egorize (b) Always positive
37. To decode a message is to (c) Related to one’s values, beliefs and past
(a) Evaluate a message experiences
(b) Translate ideas into code (d) Always mysterious
(c) Reject a message 47. Gatekeeping is related with
(d) Interpret a message (a) Intrapersonal communication
38. The process of filtering messages from source to receiver (b) Interpersonal communication
is called (c) Mass Communication
(a) Handout (d) Group communication
(b) Kinesics 48. Kinesics is related with
(c) Degeneration (a) Verbal communication
(d) Gatekeeping (b) Nonverbal communication
39. A message is a signal that serves as (c) Mass Communication
(a) Stimuli for a sender (d) Group communication
(b) Stimuli for a receiver 49. The term ‘rhetorics’ is a term related with
(c) Stimuli for a mass audience (a) Plato (b) Aristotle
(d) Noise reduction (c) Denis mcquaill (d) Marshal Mcluhan
40. .................. message have more or less same meaning 50. Listening
for the audience. (2021) (a) May be a complex process involving many steps
(a) Complex (b) Is always reflexive
(b) Connotative (c) A natural habit
(c) Denotative (d) A physiological process occurring in a spontane-
(d) Abstract ous manner
41. The subjective meaning of a word is its 51. The responding step of listening
(a) Denotative meaning (a) Is non-verbal
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

(b) Indirect meaning (b) Depends upon human memory

(c) Antonym (c) Can be verbal or non-verbal
(d) Connotative meaning (d) Is always verbal
42. Which of the following can be defined as the functions 52. One of the most important communication skills is
of communication? (a) Active listening (b) Objective listening
1. Information function (c) Passive listening (d) Inactive listening
2. Command and instructive functions 53. A technique that might be used by an active listener is
3. Influence and persuasion function (motivational (a) Paraphrasing the speaker’s meaning
function) (b) Expressing concern
4. Integrative function (c) Explaining the speaker’s meaning
Codes: (d) Offering a viewpoint when in conversation
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 54. Effective listening includes
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 (a) Filtering out points of disagreement.
(b) Detailed analysis.
43. For which of the following word/s, the term
(c) Attaching subjective meaning to a message.
‘­
chronemics’ is used for the interpretation of
(d) Confirming one’s understanding of a message.
messages?
(a) Smell (b) Taste 55. A classification of body movements is called
(c) Time (d) All of the above (a) Emblems (b) Non-verbal
(c) Displays (d) Kinesics
44. In the communication process, a receiver
(a) Is a channel 56. Movements of the face that convey emotional mean-
ings are called
(b) Decodes a message
(a) Displays (b) Emblems
(c) Is the person who encodes an idea (c) Eye contact (d) None of the above
(d) Responsible for message interference

M04_MADAN 04_65901_C04.indd 34 21/12/22 10:54 AM

 Communication
57. Touch is an important element in
(a) Business communication
(b) Interpersonal communication
(c) Intrapersonal communication
(d) None of the above
58. Which of the following are parts of active listening?
(a) Eye contact (b) Nodding
(c) Seeking clarification (d) All of the above
59. Evaluative listening is successful when we
(a) Accurately distinguish stimuli in a message
(b) Infer the meaning of a message
(c) Critically assess the accuracy of facts stated in a
message
(d) None of the above
60. An effective communication does not require
(a) Change in speech pattern
(b) Appropriate gestures
(c) Mastery of content
(d) Handsome personality
61. One will be an effective communicator if one
(a) Is a humorous speaker
(b) Has histrionic talents
(c) Is very clear about what one communicates
(d) Communicates in one’s mother tongue
62. Which of the following is considered unethical com-
munication? (December 2021)
(a) Use of alternative source of information
(b) Not reveling the source of information
(c) Non commercial publicity
(d) Propaganda
63. Communication means ______ of information
1. Suppression
2. Exchange
3. Understanding
4. Contextualization
5. Abstraction
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 2 and 5 (d) 2, 3 and 4
64. Which of the following steps would you consider first
for an effective communication?
(a) Select the channel of communication
(b) Plan the evaluation procedure
(c) Specify the objectives of communication
(d) Identify various media for communication
65. Which is ‘feedback’ in newspaper’s communication?
(a) Articles (b) Editorials
(c) Letters to the Editor (d) News
66. Given below are two statements: One is labeled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The positive feedback from the teacher
is necessary to motivate students.
Reasons (R): Continuous criticism of students is the
best method to make them realize positive outcomes
in their pursuit of knowledge.
M04_MADAN 04_65901_C04.indd 35
4.35
In the light of the above statements, choose the answer
from the options given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the cor-
rect explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
67. Which of the following is not a successful
communicator?
(a) One who presents material in a precise and
clear way
(b) One who is able to adopt himself/herself accord-
ing to the language of the communicatee
(c) One who knows a lot but is somewhat reserve in
his/her attitude
(d) One who sometimes becomes informal before the
receiver and develops a rapport
68. The most important aspect of communication, i.e., lis-
tening can be improved by
(a) Making the attention fully paid
(b) Making the communicated material novel, inter-
esting and need-based
(c) Making voice effective and impressive
(d) All of the above
69. The process of communication is enhanced through
(a) Belongingness
(b) Security and freedom to make choices
(c) Information of meeting and avoidance of pressure
(d) All of the above
70. Two-way communication becomes effective
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
1. Focusing on the eyes of the person speaking
2. Making eye contact
3. Observing body language
4. Comments in social media
5. Questions
6. Paraphrasing
Codes:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 (b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
(c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 (d) 3, 4, 5 and 6
71. Effective communication takes place when
(a) The source is attractive and authoritarian
(b) The message design incorporates audience
(c) Modern communication technologies are used
(d) Receivers are passive components
72. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The art of Mass communications is much
more simple than of face to face communication or any
type of communication.
Statement II: Each of us uses 3S (Sight, Sound and
Smell) and 2T (Touch and Taste) when we communi-
cate with others.
21/12/22 10:54 AM
 4.36 Chapter 4

In light of the above statements, choose the most 80. In communication, the language is
appropriate answer from the options given below: (a) The non-verbal code
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (b) The verbal code
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. (c) The symbolic code
(d) The iconic code
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. 81. Media that exist in an interconnected series of com-
munication points are referred to as
73. Which of the following is less important in the context (a) Networked media
of effective communication? (b) Connective media
(a) Total control over language (c) Nodal media
(b) Good vocabulary (d) Multimedia
(c) Attractive personality of the speaker 82. The main challenge of grapevine communication are:
(d) Total control on the content to be transacted A. Its formal nature
74. A good communicator is one who offers his/her B. Distortion
­audience C. Misunderstanding
(a) Plentiful of information D. Source anonymity
(b) A good amount of statistics E. Conformity
(c) Concise proof Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(d) Repetition of facts
(a) A, B and C only (b) B, C and D only
75. Which of the following statements is correct? (c) C, D and E only (d) A, C and D only
(a) A communicator should have fine senses
83. Which of the following is an exclusive example of
(b) A communicator should have tolerance power Non- Verbal cue that include the pitch, rate , volume
(c) A communicator should be soft spoken and use of pauses? (December 2021)
(d) A communicator should have good personality (a) Linear Model of Communication
76. Which of the following can help the most in enhanc- (b) interactional Model
ing the effectiveness of active listening? (c) Non-Verbal Cues
(a) Developing apathy to the sender (d) Para Language
(b) Developing a system to minimize noise in the area 84. A position created to receive and respond to inquiries,
(c) Paying attention to the body language of the sender complaints, requests for policy clarification, or allega-
(d) Developing empathy with the sender tions of injustice by employees.
77. Marshall Mcluhan’s name is associated with the Through that position, employees can have their prob-
assertion: (December 2021) lems resolved quickly without going through lengthy
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

(a) The message is the medium channels.

(b) The medium is the message
(a) Board of Directors
(c) The message determines the medium accurately
(b) Chief Executive Officer
(d) A message is a message
(c) Ombudsperson
78. Which of the following statements is not connected (d) National Judicial Commission
with communication?
85. Which of the following concept or model helps in the
(a) Medium is the message
process of giving and receiving feedback and it has four
(b) The world is an electronic cocoon
zones called as arena, facade, blind spot and unknown?
(c) Information is power
(a) Johari Window
(d) Telepathy is technological
(b) Aristotle Model
79. Postmodernism is associated with (c) Shannon and Weaver Model
(a) Newspapers (b) Magazines (d) Schramm Communication Model
(c) Radio (d) Television

Types of Communication
86.Writing in a personal diary or otherwise recording 87. Identify the sequence of human communication skills.
one’s thoughts and feelings are examples of A. Public speaking
(a) Mediated intrapersonal communication B. Group interaction
(b) Mediated interpersonal communication C. Relationship
(c) Mediated mass communication D. Feed forward
(d) None of the above F. Self-presentation

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 Communication 4.37

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 96. Which of the following is also termed as mediated
(a) B, D, E, C, A communication?
(b) A, C, D, B, E (a) Intrapersonal communication
(c) C, E, A, D, B (b) Interpersonal communication
(d) E, C, B, A, D (c) Group communication
(d) Mass communication
88. Interpersonal communication occurs only when
(a) A person exchanges an idea with another one as a 97. Communication becomes circular when
unique individual (a) The decoder becomes an encoder
(b) A large number of people communicate with each (b) The feedback is absent
other at the same time (c) The source is credible
(c) Only friends talk (d) The channel is clear
(d) None of the above 98. Non-verbal communication includes
89. Peer-to-peer communication is (a) Delivering a speech
(a) Horizontal (b) Telephonic conversation
(b) Convoluted (c) Singing a song
(c) Non-transactional (d) Shaking hands
(d) Authoritarian 99. The following term deals with the interpretation of
90. Non-verbal messages are body language such as facial expressions and ges-
(a) Overestimated in importance tures or more formally, non-verbal behavior related to
(b) Attempts at manipulation and should be ignored movement, either of any part of the body or the body
(c) Generally irrelevant to overall message meaning as a whole. Body Language is technically known as
(d) Important for a listener to understand (a) Para-Language
(b) Kinesics
91. Intrapersonal communication helps one (c) Phonetics
(a) Learn about oneself (d) Grapevine
(b) Know what others are thinking
(c) Communicate with the general public 100. Which of the following is the technical term for the
(d) Become a talented public speaker voice cues that accompany spoken words. It is con-
cerned with the sound of the voice and the range of
92. More and more informal exchange within a group to meanings that people convey through their voices
resolve conflicts is an example of (December 2021) rather than the words they use.
(a) Horizontal communication (a) Para-Language (b) Kinesics
(b) Vertical communication (c) Phonetics (d) Grapevine
(c) Risk Communication

A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
(d) Personal communication 101. Leadership roles first emerge in which of the follow-
ing kinds of communication?
93. Communication between two or more people is called
(a) Intrapersonal communication
(a) Organizational communication
(b) Small group communication
(b) Interpersonal communication
(c) Face-to-face public communication
(c) Extrapersonal communication
(d) Media-like cell phones and instant messenger
(d) Intrapersonal communication
102. Four conditions influence the effectiveness of an
94. In interpersonal communication, ethics are
encoded message, the skills, attitudes, knowledge of
(a) Important
the sender and
(b) Communication barriers
(a) Social cultural system
(c) Ineffective
(b) Knowledge of the receiver
(d) None of the above
(c) Age of the sender
95. Which of the following are identified as verbal commu- (d) Environmental issues
nication skills?
103. Look at the following characteristics.
A. Use of aggressive language
1. It is beyond the control of the management.
B. Assertiveness
2. It is considered more reliable by the employees
C. Opening feedback channels
than the formal communication channels.
D. Taking credit for oneself
3. Employees mostly use it to serve their personal
E. Use of affirmative words
and social interests.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
Which type of communication group can be identi-
below:
fied by these ?
(a) A, B and C only (a) Formal group
(b) B, C and D only (b) Quality circles
(c) C, D and E only (c) Grapevine
(d) B, C and E only (d) External Network

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 4.38 Chapter 4

104. The lateral communication involves communication
across chains of command. It facilitates coordina-
tion among departments. It probably takes place
because people prefer the informality of lateral com-
munication to the formal downward and upward
communication. Those actively involved in lateral
communication are called
(a) Man of The Match
(b) Boundary spanners
(c) Hit The Wicket
(d) Wicket Keeper
105. The sequence of stage of communication process is
 (December 2021)
1. Level of acceptance
2. Transmission of cognitive data
3. Message reception
4. Understanding
5. Reaction
Choose the correct answer from the option given
below
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
(b) 2, 3, 4, 5, 1
(c) 3, 5, 4, 1, 2
(d) 2, 3, 4, 1, 5
106. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Appropriate word choice is an essential
of effective oral communication.
Statement II: Facial expression and postures fall
under visual communication.
In the light of the above statements, choose the cor-
rect answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
111. Read the following statements
1. The manner in which a verbal statement is
presented, including its rhythm, breathiness,
hoarseness, or loudness.
2. It reflects psychological arousal, emotion, and
mood.
3. It may carry social information, as in a sarcastic,
superior, or submissive manner of speaking.
The above statements indicate
(a) Tone of voice (b) Emotional cues
(c) Both a and b (d) None of the above
112. Which of the following are identified as verbal com-
munication skills? (December 2021)
1. use of aggressive language
2. Assertiveness
3. Opening feedback channels
4. Taking credit for oneself
5. Use of affirmative words
Choose correct option below
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 5 only (d) 3, 4 and 5 only
113. Another term used for interpersonal communication
is
(a) Group communication
(b) Face-to-face public communication
(c) Dyadic communication
(d) Traditional communication
114. Non-verbal message interpretation largely
(a) Depends upon cultural context
(b) Depends upon physical context
(c) Depends upon noise level
(d) Varies from person to person

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. 115. According to communication research findings,
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true. some amount of gossip is necessary for
107. The process of mass communication is not (a) Pro-social motivation
(a) Asymmetrical (b) Prevention of distortion
(b) Personal (c) Extending communication range
(c) Anonymous (d) Relocation of emotional affiliations
(d) Effected on a large scale 116. Audio-conferencing may be classified among which
108. Which of the communication has more emotional of the following types of communication?
appeal? (a) One-sided verbal
(a) Intrapersonal (b) Two-sided verbal
(b) Interpersonal (c) One-sided non-verbal
(c) Group (d) Two-sided non-verbal
(d) Mass 117. Recording a television programme on a VCR is an
109. Who proposed “The Agenda Setting theory”? example of
(a) Defer and Ballrockeach (a) Time-shifting
(b) Maxwell McComb and Donald Shaw (b) Content reference
(c) Joseph Klapper (c) Mechanical clarity
(d) Carl Howlan (d) Media synchronization
110. Which of the following model refers to gatekeeper 118. In describing elements of communication, person or
concept ? an event which provide you verbal or non-verbal use
(a) Newcombs to which someone can respond is known as
(b) Shannon and Weavers  (December 2021)
(c) Westleys and Leans (a) Source (b) Message
(d) George Gerbener (c) Channel (d) Communication Context

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 Communication 4.39

119. A negative reaction to a mediated communication is 126. Classroom communication involves 

described as  (November 2020)
(a) Flak A. Listening by learning
(b) Fragmented feedback B. Formal lecturing
(c) Passive response C. Informal discussions
(d) Non-conformity D. Less importance to feedback
120. In communication, chatting over the internet is E. Explaining
(a) Verbal communication Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(b) Non-verbal communication (a) A, B, C only
(c) Parallel communication (b) B, C, D only
(d) Grapevine communication (c) B, C, E only
(d) C, D, E only
121. Match The Following
127. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as
Term Description Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
 (November 2020)
1. Proxemics A. A personal space aspect of
body language Assertion (A): To be effective in the classroom, a
teachers should minimise the communication barriers.
2. Oculesics B. Role of eye contact in non
verbal communication Reasons (R): Since communication is a complex
process, regular feedback analysis is essential for this
3. Chronemics C. Use of time in nonverbal purpose.
Communication
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
4. Haptics D. The study of touching appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the cor-
Codes: rect explanation of (A)
(a) 1–A, 2–C, 3–B, 4–D (b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the
(b) 1–A, 2–B, 3–C, 4–D correct explanation of (A)
(c) 1–A, 2–B, 3–D, 4–C (c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(d) 1–D, 2–C, 3–B, 4–A (d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
122. Public communication tends to occur within a more 128. Match List I with List II. List I gives Modes of Com-
(a) Complex structure munication, while list II provides their description
(b) Political structure  (November 2020)
(c) Convenient structure

A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
(d) Formal structure List I List II
123. The information function of mass communication is (Modes of
Communication) (Description)
described as
(a) Diffusion (b) Publicity A. Publicity I. Reputation
(c) Surveillance (d) Diversion management
124. The main aims of interactive communication are B. Propaganda II. Paid message
1. Task coordination
2. Problem solving C. Advertising III. Non-commercial
3. Information sharing promotion
4. Conflict resolution D. Public relations IV. Communication with
5. Dominating other team members motives
Codes: Choose the correct answer from the options given

(a) 2, 3, 4 and 5 below:
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(c) 3, 4 and 5
(b) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(c) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
125. Which of the following is essential in classroom com- (d) A–III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
munication? (November 2020)
129. Classroom communication is (November 2020)
(a) Frequent repetition of the message in different
A. Goal-oriented
ways
B. Style-centric
(b) Avoiding repetition of the message
C. Collaborative
(c) Interrupting the speaker frequently
D.Vertical
(d) Avoiding eye contact with students
E. Non-rhetorical

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 4.40 Chapter 4

Choose the correct answer from the options given D. Grapevine IV. It is the most common
below: Communication communication system
(a) A and B only (b) B and D only in an organization
(c) A and C only (d) D and E only
Choose the correct answer from the options given
130. Which of the following is essential in classroom com-
below:
munication? (November 2020)
(a) (A)–(I), (B)–(II), (C)–(IV), (D)–(III)
(a) Frequent repetition of the message in different
(b) (A)–(II), (B)–(I), (C)–(III), (D)–(IV)
ways
(c) (A)–(III), (B)–(IV), (C)–(I), (D)–(II)
(b) Avoiding repetition of the message
(d) (A)–(IV), (B)–(III), (C)–(II), (D)–(I)
(c) Interrupting the speaker frequently
(d) Avoiding eye contact with students 133. Identify the CORRECT sequence of categories of
grapevine communication
131. Classroom communication involves
A. Cluster chain
A. Listening by learning
B. Probability chain
B. Formal lecturing
C. Gossip chain
C. Informal discussions
D.Single strand chain
D.Less importance to feedback
E. Explaining Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(a) A, B, C, D
below:
(b) B, C, D, A
(a) A, B, C only
(c) D, C, B, A
(b) B, C, D only
(d) C, D, A, B
(c) B, C, E only
(d) C, D, E only 134. Match List I with List II:
132. Match List I with List II: List I List II
List I List II Categories of
Communication Features
Types of
Communication Main Features A. Lateral I. Touch communication
A. Downward I. Grows primarily to B. Haptics II. Between equals
Communication meet organizational/ C. Semantics III. Interpretation of signs
member’s need for
communication D. Semiotics IV. Concerned with
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

meanings
B. Upward II. It forms a useful link
Communication in decision making for Choose the correct answer from the options given

task coordination below:
(a) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
C. Horizontal III. Provides management (b) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
Communication with feedback about (c) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
current issues and (d) A–I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
problems

Communication Barriers
135. Disturbances that interfere with the transmission, 137. Identify the barrier to communication from the list
receipt or feedback of a message are called given below: (December 2021)
(a) Feedback 1. Time and distance
(b) Feed forward 2. By passed instructions
(c) The channel 3. Encoding of thoughts and ideas
(d) Noise 4. Decoding of thoughts and Ideas
136. The most powerful barrier of communication in the 5. Logical sequence
class is Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Noise in the classroom (a) 3 and 4 only
(b) Confusion on the part of teacher (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) More outside disturbance in the classroom (c) 1 and 2 only
(d) Lack of teaching aids (d) 4 and 5 only

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 Communication 4.41

138. A disruption in the communication process is called (a) Generalizing (b) Consistency
(a) Transgression (b) Feedback (c) Stereotyping (d) Oversimplification
(c) Noise (d) Interaction 148. The goal of perception checking is
139. Which of the following is not true about the (a) Confirmation
grapevine? (b) Cultural sensitivity
(a) It is faster than formal communication network (c) To further explore the thoughts and feelings of
(b) It is less accurate than formal network others
(c) It is found in almost all organizations (d) Control
(d) It is preferred over formal communication 149. Which is a characteristic of prejudice?
140. Level C of the effectiveness of communication is (a) Generalized evaluation, specifically of out-
defined as group members
(a) Channel noise (b) Semantic noise (b) Negativity
(c) Psychological noise (d) Source noise (c) Biased perceptions
141. All of the following are barriers to effective commu- (d) All of the above
nication except 150. The main assumption of ‘primacy effect’ is
(a) Absence of noise (a) The most information is always one that
(b) Distortion of information comes first.
(c) Information overloads (b) The most important piece of information
(d) Cognitive dissonance comes last.
142. Informal transmission of information or filtered (c) The degree of importance depends upon the
information is called situation.
(a) Gossip (d) All pieces of information carry the same weight.
(b) Grapevine 151. In communication, a major barrier to reception of
(c) Vertical communication ­messages is
(d) Horizontal communication (a) Audience attitude
143. An example of physiological noise is (b) Audience knowledge
(a) Feeling hungry (c) Audience education
(b) A humming air conditioner unit (d) Audience income
(c) A lawn mower 152. Semantic noise in classroom communication can be
(d) A speaker using complex terms limited by avoiding the use of
144. A speaker using complex terms is an example of (a) Dialogues
(a) Physiological noise (b) Psychological noise (b) Cliched jargon

A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
(c) Semantic noise (d) Physical noise (c) Non verbal cues
(d) Multi-media
145. Which one of the following is an example of a tech-
nological barrier in communication? 153. Which of the following are useful in overcoming the
 (December 2021) communication barriers in a classroom?
(a) Physical location of communicators  (November 2020)
(b) Low bandwidth of Internet A. Identifying the level of redundancy
(c) Personal attitude towards technology B. Use of unfamiliar words
(d) Complexity of ideas C. Ignoring the students’ vocabulary
D.Fragmented sentences
146. A noise in the communication process E. Voice inflexion
(a) Causes listeners to listen to messages more F. Contextualizing the speech
carefully
(b) Interferes with a message Choose the correct answer from the options given
(c) Focuses wandering thoughts below:
(d) Enhances a message (a) Only A, B and C
(b) Only B, C and D
147. A fixed and categorized impression of a group of (c) Only C, D and F
people based on a predetermined set of qualities (d) Only A, E and F
is called

M04_MADAN 04_65901_C04.indd 41 21/12/22 10:54 AM

 4.42 Chapter 4

Classroom Communication

154. A teacher will become an effective communicator if
(a) She/he uses instructional aids
(b) She/he helps students get meaning out of what
she/he teaches
(c) She/he asks question in between teaching
(d) She/he helps students get correct answer to the
questions on the topic
155. The psychological aspects of the classroom are best
managed by
(a) The class teacher
(b) The subject teacher
(c) The principal
(d) The student themselves
156. Books can be powerful source of communication,
provided
(a) The content is abstract
(b) The content is illustrative
(c) The medium is Hindi
(d) The content is presented through good print
157. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) A good communicator cannot be a good teacher
(b) A good communicator has a good sense of
humour
(c) A good communicator has wide reading
(d) A good communicator has command over
language
158. Which of the following are the main constituents of
paralanguage?
1. Tone
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
(c) Speaking with high authority
(d) Telling what is useful to the listeners
162. Given below are two statements
Statement I: Body language is the basis of deceptive
communication.
Statement II: Non-verbal cues have their own
shared meanings.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the option given below.
 (December 2021)
(a) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(b) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(c) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
163. The facial expression of students relate to which
­element of the communication process?
(a) Message (b) Receiver
(c) Channel (d) Sender
164. Which group of communication aspects does not
­disrupt the communication process in the class?
(a) Reversing–evaluating–focussing
(b) Evaluating–focussing–illustrating
(c) Evaluating–focussing–exaggerating
(d) Focussing–illustrating–exaggerating
165. Which of the following will not hamper effective
communication in the classroom?
(a) A lengthy statement
(b) An ambiguous statement
(c) A precise statement

2. Pitch
3. Quality of voice (d) A statement that allows the listener to draw his/
4. Rate of speaking her own conclusions
(a) 1, 2 and 3 166. Which of the following cannot be a good way in pro-
(b) 2, 3 and 4 moting literacy among villagers?
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (a) Demonstration
(d) All of the above (b) Reading and writing
159. If a student raises a hand to speak in class, the person (c) Providing material on TV and film projector
is using (d) Large group discussion
(a) Modifier (b) Emblem 167. What are the most prominent elements in the
(c) Regulator (d) Display management of communication in an educational
160. Communication in the class fails because institution? (November 2020)
(a) The students are inattentive A. Sidetracking oppositional views
(b) The teacher is monotonous in delivering the B. Structuring work roles
message C. Commanding over colleagues and students
(c) The students have no interest in the lesson being D.Keep others informed
taught E. Guiding others wherever possible
(d) There is much noise in and around the Choose the correct answer from the options given
classroom below:
161. Which of the following will make communication (a) A, B and C only
more effective? (b) B, C and D only
(a) Cracking jokes in between (c) C, D and E only
(b) Using multi-sensory appeal (d) B, D and E only

M04_MADAN 04_65901_C04.indd 42 21/12/22 10:54 AM

 Communication 4.43

Miscellaneous
168. Journal-like entries written by individuals and (c) William Francis
posted on the Internet that sometimes can generate (d) James gold
many online discussions are 177. A sender in communication process has very good
(a) Weblogs grammar. This competence is basically
(b) Simple posting (a) Phonemic (b) Semantic
(c) E-journals (c) Syntactic (d) Pragmatic
(d) None of the above
178. The communication among persons working in dif-
169. According to Mehrabian, the respective contribu- ferent levels who have no direct reporting relation-
tions of (i) words, (ii) tone of voice and (iii) body ship is called.
language in overall communication are (a) Interpersonal communication
(a) 38%, 7% and 55% (b) Horizontal Communication
(b) 7%, 38% and 55% (c) Diagonal communication
(c) 55%, 38% and 7 % (d) Upward communication
(d) None of the above
179. A location where the internet users can gain wireless
170. Paraphrasing is a skill that is absolutely necessary to access to the Internet is
effective (a) Extranet
(a) Listening (b) Intranet
(b) Hearing (c) Web conference
(c) Speaking (d) Wi-Fi hotspot
(d) None of the above
180. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true in
171. Marshal Mcluhan’s name is associated with the the context of paraphrasing?
assertion: (December 2021) 1. It is basically about stating in your own
(a) The message is the medium words, your understanding of what has just
(b) The medium is the message been said
(c) The Message determines the medium accurately 2. It gives speaker opportunity to find out what
(d) A message is a message message he/she is getting across to you
172. The transmission of culture from one generation to (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
another is called (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Acculturation 181. An example of asynchronous medium is
(b) Enculturation (a) Radio (b) Television

A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
(c) Interculturation (c) Film (d) Newspaper
(d) None of the above 182. In communication, connotative words are
173. Leakage cues refer to (a) Explicit (b) Abstract
(a) Facial expressions that people have misread. (c) Simple (d) Cultural
(b) One of the characteristic styles of facial 183. Who developed Wireless telegraphy ?
expressions. (a) Heinrich Hertz
(c) Unintended signs of how a person really feels. (b) Thomas Edison
(d) A technique employed by professional actors. (c) J C Maxwell
174. Who primarily contributed towards the develop- (d) Guglielmo Marconi
ment of www? 184. A message beneath a message is labelled as
(a) Steve Jobs (a) Embedded text (b) Internal text
(b) Tim Berners Lee (c) Intertext (d) Subtext
(c) Henry William Gates
(d) Michael Dell 185. In analogue mass communication, stories are
(a) Static (b) Dynamic
175. A person has a very advanced sense of what is (c) Interactive (d) Exploratory
socially appropriate and always knows what to say
in every social context. The person has which kind 186. The ability to understand, communicate with, moti-
of linguistic competence? vate, and support other people, both individually
(a) Phonemic (b) Cognitive and in groups, defines which of the following organ-
(c) Syntactic (d) Pragmatic izational skills?
(a) Hard skills
176. Comment is free; facts are sacred. Who made this (b) Soft skills
statement? (c) Conceptual skills
(a) CP Scott (d) Political skills
(b) Brian Roberts

M04_MADAN 04_65901_C04.indd 43 21/12/22 10:54 AM

 4.44 Chapter 4

187. Match List I with List II: 1. Hedges are pragmatic values that modifies the
speech act, not the logical form of the utterance.
List I List II 2. Hedges are referred to as a ‘direct modification of
Concept of Power propositional content’.
Communication Description of feature 3. Hedges may be divided into “strengtheners” and
A. Legitimate Power I. Specialised knowledge “softners”.
4. Hedges indicate something about the speaker’s
B. Referent Power II. By virtue of position commitment toward what he/she is saying, and
C. Reward Power III. When others feel to be in so doing modify the illocutionary force.
like you Codes:
D. Expert Power IV. Control over what (a) 1, 2 and 3
others seek (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(d) 1, 3 and 4
below:
191. In speech-act theory, the following can be defined as
(a) A–I, B–II, C–III, D–IV
an act of making a meaningful utterance, a stretch
(b) A–III, B–IV, C–I, D–II
of spoken language that is preceded by silence and
(c) A–IV, B–I, C–II, D–III
followed by silence or a change of speaker ?
(d) A–II, B–III, C–IV, D–I
(a) Locutionary Act
188. Which of the following statements are true in the (b) Illocutionary act
context of Emoticons? (c) Perlocutionary Act
(1) Emoticons are basically visual representations (d) None of the above
of writers’ emotions.
192. Feedback reflects the reactions of the audience when:
(2) Emoticon is often taken as utterances in computer
related communication that are interpreted. (A) One knows the effects of communication.
(3) Emoticons are basically graphic representations (B) One knows the quality of content of the message.
of facial expressions and construction of the (C) One knows the future prospect of the object of
words such as “emotion” and “icon”. communication.
(4) Emoticons may be produced by ASCII symbols (D) One knows the financial implications of the
(:-)) or by “pictograms,” which are graphic communication.
symbols (). Choose the most appropriate answer from the options
Codes: given below:
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (a) (A), (B), (D) only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 (b) (B), (D), (C) only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) (A), (C), (D) only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 (d) (A), (B), (C) only
189. Match The Following 193. The power which comes through connectedness of
one’s words matching one’s feelings, body and facial
Set 1 Set 2 expression in communication process is known as:
(Functions) (Description) (a) Conformity (b) Congruence
A. Positive Attitude 1. Expressive speech (c) Collaboration (d) Control
acts–‘strengtheners’, 194. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as
directives and softeners Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
B. Humorous 2. Following utterances, Assertion A: Smiles and laughter should be avoided
Function they joke/irony markers when messages are serious.
C. Hedge Function 3. Specifically following Reason R: Non-verbal cues are always contextual
signatures like verbal communication.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct
Codes: answer from the options given below:
(a) A–1, B–2, C–3  (December 2021)
(b) A–3, B–2, C–1
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct expla-
(c) A–2, B–3, C–1
nation of A
(d) A–1, B–3, C–2
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
190. Which of the following statements are true in the explanation of A
context of ‘hedges’ in context of emoticons? (c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

M04_MADAN 04_65901_C04.indd 44 21/12/22 10:54 AM

 Communication 4.45

Answer Keys
Concept and Nature of Communication
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (a)
11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (b)
21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (c) 25. (d) 26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (d)
31. (d) 32. (a) 33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (a) 36. (b) 37. (d) 38. (d) 39. (b) 40. (c)
41. (d) 42. (c) 43. (c) 44. (b) 45. (c) 46. (c) 47. (c) 48. (b) 49. (b) 50. (a)
51. (c) 52. (a) 53. (a) 54. (d) 55. (d) 56. (a) 57. (b) 58. (d) 59. (d) 60. (d)
61. (c) 62. (d) 63. (d) 64. (c) 65. (c) 66. (c) 67. (c) 68. (d) 69. (d) 70. (b)
71. (b) 72. (d) 73. (c) 74. (a) 75. (a) 76. (d) 77. (b) 78. (d) 79. (d) 80. (b)
81. (a) 82. (b) 83. (d) 84. (c) 85. (a)
Types of Communication
86. (a) 87. (d) 88. (a) 89. (a) 90. (d) 91. (a) 92. (a) 93. (b) 94. (a) 95. (d)
96. (d) 97. (a) 98. (d) 99. (b) 100. (a) 101. (b) 102. (a) 103. (c) 104. (b) 105. (d)
106. (a) 107. (b) 108. (b) 109. (b) 110. (c) 111. (c) 112. (c) 113. (c) 114. (a) 115. (a)
116. (b) 117. (a) 118. (a) 119. (a) 120. (a) 121. (b) 122. (d) 123. (c) 124. (b) 125. (a)
126. (c) 127. (a) 128. (d) 129. (c) 130. (a) 131. (c) 132. (d) 133. (c) 134. (a)
Communication Barriers
135. (d) 136. (b) 137. (c) 138. (c) 139. (d) 140. (a) 141. (a) 142. (b) 143. (a) 144. (c)
145. (b) 146. (b) 147. (c) 148. (c) 149. (d) 150. (a) 151. (a) 152. (b) 153. (d)
Classroom Communication
154. (b) 155. (a) 156. (b) 157. (a) 158. (d) 159. (b) 160. (b) 161. (b) 162. (a) 163. (a)
 164. (d) 165. (c) 166. (d) 167. (d)
Miscellaneous
168. (a) 169. (b) 170. (a) 171. (b) 172. (b) 173. (c) 174. (a) 175. (d) 176. (a) 177. (c)
178. (d) 179. (d) 180. (c) 181. (d) 182. (d) 183. (d) 184. (d) 185. (a) 186. (b) 187. (d)
188. (c) 189. (b) 190. (c) 191. (a) 192. (d) 193. (b) 194. (a)

M04_MADAN 04_65901_C04.indd 45 21/12/22 10:54 AM

 This page is intentionally left blank

M04_MADAN 04_65901_C04.indd 46 21/12/22 10:54 AM

 ChAPtER Mathematical
5 Reasoning and
Aptitude

01 Concept of Reasoning

02 Types of Reasoning

03 Number Series, Letter Series,

LEARnIng Codes and Relationships

OBJECtIVES

04 Mathematical Aptitude (Fraction, Time

and Distance, Ratio, Proportion and
Percentage, Profit and Loss, Interest
and Discounting, Averages, etc.)

05 Solved Examples for Better Understanding of Concepts

M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 1 23/12/22 7:23 PM

 5.2
Reasoning
Reasoning, one of the highest orders of thinking, is
the stepwise thinking and mental recognition of cause
and effect relationships. It involves productive think-
ing in which insight and past experiences are required.
Reasoning is a factor of intelligence. It is a process in
which pre-knowledge, experiences, insight and under-
standing of relationship are used to solve problems. The
ability to reason is closely related to intelligence. It goes in
the direction given to the learner, that is, it is always goal-
oriented. It is creative and reflective in nature. Reasoning
ability develops gradually. It means that experiences are
also helpful in developing reasoning power along with
intelligence. There may be more than one logic to draw
an inference—reasoning is multi-dimensional.
Numerous philosophical mathematicians and psychol-
ogists have given the following six steps for reasoning:
Identification Defining the
of the problem problem
Verification/ Formation of
evaluation of hypothesis
hypothesis
Tabulating and Collection
systematizing of data
data
Types of Reasoning
Aristotle gave an extended, systematic treatment of the
methods of human reasoning. The three methods were
deductive, inductive and abductive reasonings (Fig. 5.1).
1. Deductive reasoning: Deductive reasoning is also
known as analytical reasoning as it deals with objects
by looking at its component parts. Formal logic has
been described as the science of deduction. The con-
cept of syllogism has been explained in Chapter 6.
2. Inductive reasoning: Inductive reasoning is also
known as ‘synthetic reasoning’ and deals with a class
of objects by looking at the common properties of
each object in the class. The study of inductive rea-
soning is generally carried out within a field known
as ‘informal logic’ or ‘critical thinking’.
3. Abductive reasoning: Abductive reasoning is con-
sidered as the third form of reasoning. It is somewhat
similar to inductive reasoning. It takes its clues from
the term ‘guessing’, since conclusions drawn here are
M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 2
Chapter 5
based on probabilities. Here, it is presumed that the
most plausible conclusion is also the correct one.
Logical
reasoning
Deductive Inductive Abductive
reasoning reasoning reasoning
Syllogisms Non-verbal sequences
Number sequences
Figure 5.1 Reasoning and its Types
Example:
Major premise: The container is filled with yellow peb-
bles.
Minor premise: Bobby has a yellow pebble in his hand.
Conclusion: The yellow pebble in Bobby’s hand was
taken out of the container.
By abductive reasoning, the possibility that Bobby
took the yellow pebble from the container is reason-
able, though it is purely based on speculation. Anyone
could have given the yellow pebble to Bobby, or prob-
ably Bobby could have bought a yellow pebble at a retail
store. Therefore, abducing that Bobby took the yellow
pebble, from the observation of ‘the yellow pebble–filled
container’, may lead to a false conclusion. Unlike deduc-
tive and inductive reasoning, abductive reasoning is not
commonly used for psychometric testing.
Here, we can discuss other forms of reasoning as well.
Hypothetical Syllogism (Modus Ponens)
A syllogism is simply a three-line argument that consists
of exactly two premises and a conclusion. A hypothetical
syllogism is a syllogism that includes at least one hypo-
thetical or conditional (if–then) premise. This is why
such type of deductive reasoning is also known as condi-
tional reasoning. This pattern of reasoning is also known
as modus ponens. The four varieties of modus ponens are
as follows.
Chain Argument
Chain arguments consist of three conditional statements
that are linked together. Here is an example of a chain
argument.
If I do not appear in the exam, then I will fail in
graduation.
If I fail in graduation, then I will lose my time and
money.
Therefore, if I do not appear in exam, I will lose my
time and money.
Modus Tollens
These are sometimes called ‘denying the consequences’
because they consist of one conditional premise, a second
premise that denies (asserts to be false) the c­ onsequences
23/12/22 7:23 PM
 Mathematical Reasoning and Aptitude
of the conditional and a conclusion that denies to be the
antecedent of the conditional. Here is an example of
modus tollens argument.
If we are in Manchester, then we are in Gujarat.
We are not in Gujarat.
Therefore, we are not in Manchester.
Denying the Antecedent Argument
In such arguments, the first premise denies (i.e. asserts to
be false) the antecedent of the conditional and a conclu-
sion denies the consequent of the conditional.
Here is an example.
If we are in Chandigarh, then we are in the North.
We are not in Chandigarh.
Therefore, we are not in the North.
We can notice that the premises in the above–men-
tioned examples are true and the conclusion is false.
The pattern of reasoning of this argument is not logically
reliable.
Affirming the Consequent
This pattern of reasoning is also faulty and affirms the
consequent.
For example, if we are on Venus, then we are in the
solar system.
We are in the solar system.
Therefore, we are on Venus.
Such pattern of reasoning has true premises and a false
conclusion; it is clear that affirming the consequent is not
logically reliable.
Categorical Syllogism
They have been discussed in Unit 6 also. Here, the state-
ments of the premises begin typically with ‘all’, ‘none’
or ‘some’, and the conclusion starts with ‘therefore’ or
‘hence’.
Argument from Definition
In an argument from definition, the conclusion is pre-
sented as being true by definition.
Nand is a cardiologist. Therefore, Nand is a doctor.
A straightforward relationship between the cardiolo-
gist and the doctor (two elements) is observed here. The
conclusion of valid deductive reasoning contains no more
information than the premise.
Argument by Elimination
An argument by elimination seeks to logically rule out vari-
ous possibilities until only a single possibility remains. It is
like attempting questions in an examination.
Argument Based on Mathematics
The main aim of mathematics is to develop the reasoning
power of humanity.
Here is an example.
Here, the conclusion is claimed to depend largely
or entirely on some mathematical calculation or
M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 3
5.3
measurement (perhaps in conjunction with one or more
non-mathematical premises).
Twelve is greater than eight.
Eight is greater than four.
Therefore, twelve is greater than four.
Inductive Reasoning
Let us discuss the inductive reasoning in more detail.
The statement or proposition is based on general
observations and experiences; such reasoning is called
inductive reasoning. There is a strong contrast with
deductive reasoning. Even in the strongest cases of
inductive reasoning, the truth of the premises does not
guarantee the truth of the conclusion. Rather, the con-
clusion of an inductive argument follows some degree
of probability. There may be more information in the
conclusion of an inductive reasoning than that already
contained in the premises. Thus, this method of reason-
ing is applicative.
In inductive reasoning, a statement in one particu-
lar case will be true in all other cases in the same serial
order. It may be applied generally to all such cases. Here,
one can formulate a generalized statement or principle
and conclusions on the basis of certain facts and specific
examples.
Once we have discussed inductive reasoning, we
can now discuss six common patterns of inductive
reasoning:
1. Inductive generalization: It is an argument in which
a generalization is claimed to be probably true based
on the information about some members of a class. All
inductive generalizations claim that their conclusions
are probable rather than certain.
2. Predictive argument: It is a statement about what
may or will happen in the future; here a prediction is
defended with reasons. It is among the most common
patterns of inductive reasoning. Here is an example: It
has rained in Mumbai every June since weather records
have been maintained. Therefore, it will probably rain
in Mumbai next June.
  Nothing in the future is absolutely certain; argu-
ments containing predictions are usually inductive.
3. Argument from authority: The conclusion is sup-
ported by presumed authority or witness who has
said that the conclusion is true. We can never be abso-
lutely certain that a presumed authority or witness is
accurate or reliable.
4. Causal argument: One of the most basic, most com-
mon and most important kinds of knowledge we seek
is the knowledge of cause and effect. A causal argu-
ment asserts or denies that something is the cause of
something else.
5. Statistical argument: A statistical argument rests
on statistical evidence, that is, evidence that some
percentage of some group has some particular
characteristics.
23/12/22 7:23 PM
 5.4 Chapter 5

6. Argument from analogy: An analogy is a compari- Number Series

son of two or more things that are claimed to be alike
in some relevant respect. Prime Number Series
Example 1: 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, …
Towards the end, we can say that inductive reasoning is
informative because the conclusion of an inductive rea- (a) 15 (b) 17 (c) 18 (d) 19
soning contains more information than is already con-
tained in the premises. Solution: The given series is a prime number series. The
next prime number is 19.
Other Reasoning Types Therefore, (d) is the correct answer.
We are using verbal and non-verbal symbols to communi-
cate with others. There are five types of reasoning, which Example 2: 2, 5, 11, 17, 23, 31, …
are explained as follows: (a) 33 (b) 37 (c) 41 (d) 43
1. Verbal reasoning: Normally, we communicate with Solution: The prime numbers in this range are 2, 3, 5, 7,
others by language, and the language is a vehicle for 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, 43, … .
reasoning. So reasoning without language or words Prime numbers have been written alternatively. Thus,
and symbols is not possible. In verbal reasoning, we after 31, the prime numbers are 37, 41, … . Ignoring 37,
use linguistic symbols such as words. Some verbal the answer is 41.
reasoning ability tests are available.
2. Non-verbal reasoning: In competitive examinations, Therefore, (c) is the correct answer.
we observe that a part of the written paper consists of
reasoning, containing ome figures, graphs and draw- Difference Series
ings which can measure the non-verbal reasoning Example 3: 2, 5, 8, 11, 14, 17, …, 23, 26
ability of the contestant.
3. Reasoning as propositions: It is often difficult to (a) 19 (b) 21 (c) 20 (d) 18
determine whether a long and complex argument is
Solution: The difference between the numbers is 3
valid or invalid just by reading. The logical process of
(17 + 3 = 20).
analysis of the parts of whole arguments and symbol-
izing them to determine the validity of arguments is Therefore, (c) is the correct answer.
known as propositional reasoning.
  Here is an example. Example 4: 45, 38, …, 24, 17, 10, 3
  If a = 4, b = 7, a + c = b, then c = ? (a) 31 (b) 34 (c) 38 (d) 29
  4 + c = 7.
  Therefore, c = 3. Solution: The difference between the consecutive
4. Automated reasoning: It is basically an area of com- numbers is 7 (38 − 7 = 31).
puter science. It understands different aspects of rea- Therefore, (a) is the correct answer.
soning to allow the creation of computer software to
reason completely or almost completely automati- Multiplication Series
cally. Sometimes, it is usually considered a subfield
of artificial intelligence, but it also has strong con- Example 5: 2, 6, 18, 54, …, 486, 1458
nections to theoretical computer science and even (a) 152 (b) 182 (c) 162 (d) 108
philosophy.
5. Brain’s centre of reasoning: The left hemisphere Solution: The numbers are multiplied by 3 to get the next
is dominant for most people; it controls written and number (54 × 3 = 162).
spoken languages and mathematical calculations. Therefore, (c) is the correct answer.
The prefrontal cortex is the farthest forward area in
the brain and is an associated area of the frontal lobe. Example 6: 3, 12, 48, …, 768, 3072
The left hemisphere of the brain is said to be analyti-
cal, logical, mathematical and concerned with cause (a) 192 (b) 216 (c) 512 (d) 72
and effect related to scientific thinking.
Solution: The numbers are multiplied by 4 to get the next
number (48 × 4 = 192).
Series Completion Therefore, (a) is the correct answer.
A series may consist of a number series or a letter series.
There are several such series, such as finding the missing Division Series
numbers, replacing the wrong numbers, finding the miss-
ing letters and finding the wrong group of numbers or let- Example 7: 720, 120, 24, 6, …, 1
ters, to name a few. (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

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 Mathematical Reasoning and Aptitude 5.5

Solution: 720 divided by 6 = 120 Alternatively: The series is 12 − 1, 22 − 2, 32 − 3, 42 − 4,

120 divided by 5 = 24 52 − 5, 62 − 6, 72 − 7, 82 − 8 and so on.
24 divided by 4 = 6 Therefore, (c) is the correct answer.
6 divided by 3 = 2 N 3 Series
2 divided by 2 = 1
Example 14: 1, 8, 27, 64, 125, 216, …
Therefore, (b) is the correct answer.
(a) 256 (b) 343 (c) 365 (d) 400
Example 8: 32, 48, 72, …, 162, 243
Solution: The series is 13, 23, 33, etc. The missing number
(a) 84 (b) 96 (c) 108 (d) 132 is 73 = 343.
Solution: Each number is being multiplied by 3/2 to get Therefore, (b) is the correct answer.
the next number.
N 3 + 1 Series
Therefore, (c) is the correct answer.
Example 15: 2, 9, 28, 65, 126, 217, 344, …
N 2 Series (a) 513 (b) 362 (c) 369 (d) 361
Example 9: 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, …, 64
Solution: The series is 13 + 1, 23 + 1, 33 + 1 and so on.
(a) 42 (b) 44 (c) 45 (d) 49 Thus, the missing number is 83 + 1 = 513.
Solution: The series is squares of 1, 2, 3, 4 and so on. Therefore, (a) is the correct answer.
Therefore, (d) is the correct answer.
Letter Series
Example 10: 0, 4, 16, 36, 64, …, 144
In this type of problem, a series of letters of the English
(a) 100 (b) 84 (c) 96 (d) 120 alphabet will be given which follow a pattern or a
Solution: The series is squares of even numbers, such as sequence. The letter series mainly consists of skipping the
2, 4, 6, 8, 10 and 12. Hence, the answer is 102 = 100. letters.
To solve these types of problems, assign numbers
Therefore, (a) is the correct answer. 1–26 to the letters of English alphabet as shown below.
In some cases, it is useful to assign the numbers in a
N 2 − 1 Series reverse order.
Example 11: 0, 3, 8, 15, 24, 35, 48, 63, …
Concept of ‘EJOTY’
(a) 80 (b) 82
(c) 83 (d) None of the above Letters E J O T Y
Solution: The series is 12 − 1, 22 − 1, 32 − 1 and so on. The Position 5 10 15 20 25
next number is 92 − 1 = 80.
Therefore, (a) is the correct answer. The candidates can determine the relative positions of
various alphabets by just remembering the word ‘EJOTY’.
Alternative solution: The differences between the
Various types of letter series are given as ­follows:
numbers across the series are 3, 5, 7, 9, 11, 13, 15 and 17.
The next number is 63 + 17 = 80. • First alphabetical half: A to M → 1–13
• Second alphabetical half: N to Z → 14–26
N 2 + 1 Series
Tables 5.1 and 5.2 show both the forward and the
Example 12: 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, …, 65 backward place values of the English alphabet. A very
(a) 50 (b) 48 (c) 49 (d) 51 important fact about the position of any letter is that the
sum of forward position and reverse position for any let-
Solution: The series is 12 + 1, 22 + 1, 32 + 1 and so on. The ter is always constant and equal to 27. For example, the
next number is 72 + 1 = 50. sum of both positions of H is (8 + 19 = 27), and for W is
Therefore, (a) is the correct answer. (23 + 4 = 27).

N 2 + N Series and N 2 − N Series Table 5.1 English Alphabet—Position Left to Right

Example 13: 0, 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, …, 56
A B C D E F G H I J K L M
(a) 36 (b) 40
(c) 42 (d) None of the above 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
Solution: The series is 02 + 0, 12 + 1, 22 + 2, 32 + 3 and so
on. The missing number is 62 + 6 = 42. 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26

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 5.6 Chapter 5

Table 5.2 English Alphabet—Position Right to Left Example 21: A, E, I, O, …

(a) Q (b) R (c) U (d) S
Z Y X W V U T S R Q P O N
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 Solution: These are all vowels.
M L K J I H G F E D C B A Therefore, (c) is the correct answer.
14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 Example 22: A, D, I, P, …
(a) U (b) V (c) X (d) Y
Table 5.3 Series of Opposite English Alphabet
Solution: According to the alphabet series, the positions
A B C D E F G H I J K L M are 1, 4, 9, 16 and so on, which are (1)2, (2)2, (3)3, (4)2 and
so on. The next number is 52 = 25 and the corresponding
Z Y X W V U T S R Q P O N letter is Y.
One-Letter Series Therefore, (d) is the correct answer.

Example 16: A, C, E, G, …, K Example 23: D, F, H, I, J, L, …

(a) I (b) H (c) J (d) M (a) K (b) O (c) M (d) P
Solution: The series is A + 2 = C; C + 2 = E; E + 2 = G;
G + 2 = I; I + 2 = K. The missing letter is I. Solution: If the numbers are assigned, the series
becomes 4, 6, 8, 9, 10, 12 and so on, that is, composite
Therefore, (a) is the correct answer. number series. The next composite number is 14 and the
Example 17: A, B, D, G, …, P corresponding letter is N.
(a) K (b) L (c) M (d) N Therefore, (c) is the correct answer.

Solution: The series is +1, +2, +3, +4, +5 and so on. Example 24: A, Z, B, Y, C, X, D, …
A + 1 = B; B + 2 = D; D + 3 = G; G + 4 = K; K + 5 = P. (a) U (b) V (c) W (d) X
The missing letter is K.
Therefore, (a) is the correct answer. Solution: The sequence consists of two series, where
one is an ascending (A, B, C, D, etc.) and the other is a
Example 18: B, E, H, K, N, … descending (Z, Y, X, W, etc.) series.
(a) P (b) O (c) Q (d) R Therefore, (c) is the correct answer.
Solution: The series is +3. The missing letter is N + 3 = Q. Combined Two-Letter Series
Therefore, (c) is the correct answer. The first letters of the series follow one logic and the sec-
Alternative solution: Skip two letters to get the next ond letters follow another logic, and then they pair with
letter, that is, skip O and P after N to get Q. The missing each other.
letter is Q. Example 25: AM, BN, CO, DP, …, FR
Example 19: B, D, G, I, L, N, … (a) EQ (b) FT (c) GR (d) ER
(a) N (b) O (c) P (d) Q Solution: The first letters are A, B, C, D, E and F, and the
Solution: This series is formed by moving + 2 and +3 for second letters are M, N, O, P, Q and R.
each pair of letters starting from left. Thus, the missing Therefore, (a) is the correct answer.
letter is N + 3 = Q.
Example 26: AB, DE, GH, …, MN
Therefore, (d) is the correct answer.
(a) HI (b) JK
Alternative solution: Skip one and two letters (c) KL (d) KM
alternately to get the next l­ etter, that is, skip two letters O
and P after N to get Q. Solution: After every pair, one letter is skipped.
Therefore, (b) is the correct answer.
Example 20: B, C, E, G, K, …
(a) M (b) N (c) O (d) P Example 27: AA, CE, EI, GO, …
(a) IU (b) IQ (c) IR (d) IT
Solution: B = 2, …, K = 11 according to the alphabet
series (Table 5.1). Thus, the alphabet series have been Solution: The first letters of all pairs given in the question
constructed according to the prime numbers. The next follow a sequence of A + 2 = C, C + 2 = E and so on. The
prime number is 13 and the corresponding letter is M. second letters are vowels.
Therefore, (a) is the correct answer. Therefore, (a) is the correct answer.

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 Mathematical Reasoning and Aptitude 5.7

Three-Letter Series In these types of questions, the letters of the alpha-

This sequence consists of three letters in each term. The
first letters follow one logic, the second letters follow
another logic and the third letters follow some other
logic (or the same logic in all the three cases).
Example 28: ABD, CDF, …, GHJ, IJL
(a) EFH (b) IJL (c) HIJ (d) HIK
bet are exclusively used. These letters do not stand for
themselves but are allotted some artificial values based
on some logical pattern or analogy. By applying those
principles or observing the pattern involved, the candi-
dates are required to decode a coded word or encode a
word. This can be further classified into the following
categories.

Solution: The first letter of each triplet follows a sequence
of A, C, E, G, I and so on. The second letter of each triplet
follows a sequence of B, D, F, H, J and so on, and the third
letter forms a sequence of D, F, H, J, L and so on.
Therefore, (a) is the correct answer.
Simple Analogical Letter Coding
These are also called arbitrary codes. There are two defi-
nite principles or patterns involved. Codes are based on
the analogy of one example from which different codes
are formed.

Example 29: CKZ, DLY, … , FNW, GOV Example 32: If ‘BELONGINGS’ is coded as ‘TABLESTESF’,
then how will you code ‘LINEN’?
(a) EMX (b) ENY
(c) ENX (d) None of the above (a) BTEAE (b) BTAEA
(c) BATEA (d) None of the above
Solution: The first letters form a series of C, D, E, F, G
and so on. The second letters form a series of K, L, M, N, Solution
O and so on. The third letters form a series of Z, Y, X, W, The coding is done as follows:
V and so on.
Therefore, (a) is the correct answer. Letters B E L O N G I N G S

Example 30: NAB, OEC, PIE, QOG, … ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓

(a) QPH (b) QUH (c) QUI (d) RUK Codes T A B L E S T E S F
Solution: The first letters form a series of N, O, P, Q, R
and so on. The second letters form a vowel series, and the Accordingly, the code for LINEN is BTEAE.
third letters form prime number series according to their Thus, the answer is (a).
number position.
Therefore, (d) is the correct answer. Letter Coding on Specific Pattern
First, the candidates are required to observe the specific
Example 31: ABC, CBA, DEF, …, GHI, IHG pattern involved and then proceed with encoding or
(a) JKL (b) FED (c) DFE (d) IJK decoding as the case may be.

Solution: The second term is the reverse order of the first Example 33: If ‘POSTED’ is coded as ‘DETSOP’, then how
term. In addition to the above-stated types, a number of will you code ‘SPEED’?
other types can also be identified. (a) DEEPS (b) DEESP
Therefore, (b) is the correct answer. (c) DESEP (d) SPEDE
Solution: By careful observation, we can say that the
Coding and Decoding letters have been written in the reverse order. Hence,
The codes are based on various principles or patterns such SPEED will be written DEEPS; therefore, (a) is the correct
that the message can be easily deciphered at the other end. answer.
They have become an almost regular feature of NET Paper Example 34: If ‘GREET’ is coded as ‘FQDDS’, then ‘CDDO’
I Exam to judge the candidates’ intelligence and mental stands for
abilities. They are required to encode and decode words
and sentences after observing the pattern and principles (a) EDDP (b) DEEP (c) PEED (d) EPED
involved. These questions can be broadly classified into Solution: Here, it is −1 for each letter of the word
alphabetical coding, numerical coding and mixed coding. ‘GREET’.
Alphabetical Coding
Word G R E E T
Remembering the positions of different letters is nec-
essary to solve any question on alphabetical series. The −1 −1 −1 −1 −1
English language contains 26 alphabets and their varied
positions are discussed in Tables 5.1−5.3. Code F Q D D S

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 5.8 Chapter 5

CDDO itself is a code. To find out what it stands for, we have There is no set of principles or patterns involved. The can-
to add +1 to the alphabets to get back the original word. didates are required to study the given examples before
getting started with the exercise.
Code C D D O
Example 38: If ‘SELDOM’ is coded as ‘1 2 4 3 6 5’, then
+1 +1 +1 +1 how will you code ‘MODE’?
Word D E E P (a) 3 6 2 1 (b) 6 2 3 1 (c) 5 6 3 2 (d) 6 2 1 3

(b) is the correct answer.

Solution

Example 35: If ‘PAT’ is coded as ‘QRBCUV’, then how will Word S E L D O M

you code ‘GRACE’?
↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓
(a) HISTBCDEFG (b) HISTBCDEGF
(c) HISBTCDEFG (d) HISTBCEDFG Code 1 2 4 3 6 5
Solution: The pattern of coding is such that each letter On the basis of the analogical relationship established
has been allotted the value of two letters following the
between the letters and the numbers, we can code ‘MODE’
sequence, that is, A = BC, B = CD, C = DE, etc.
as 5632.
Hence, the word GRACE will be coded as ‘HISTBCDEFG’.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Therefore, (c) is the correct answer.

Example 36: If ‘EGHJKMKM’ is the code for ‘FILL’, then Coding with Specific Pattern
how will you decode ‘EGDFDFKM’? This is a pattern of coding that exhibits the natural cor-
(a) LEEF (b) FEEL (c) DEAL (d) REEL relation of Arabic numbers with alphabetical letters. For
instance, alphabets A to Z are assigned the numeric codes
Solution: Refer to alphabet series in Table 5.1. Starting from 1 to 26, where each letter gets the assignment in the
from the L.H.S. pair; E is the antecedent of F and G is the pattern as follows: A = 1, B = 2, C = 3, etc.
precedent of F. We get EG as code for F, HJ as code for I The sequence is classified as follows:
and so on.
1. Forward sequence: For example, A = 1, B = 2, …, Y =
Similarly, EGDFDFKM is the code for FEEL. F is coded
25, Z = 26
as EG with its precedent and antecedent letters. Similarly,
‘I’ is coded as HJ and L as KM. Hence, EGDFDFKM stands Example 39: If ‘PACE’ is code as 16−1−3−5, then how
for FEEL. will you code ‘RACE’?
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. (a) 18−1−3−5 (b) 16−1−3−5
(c) 16−3−5−1 (d) None of the above
Coding with Numerical Digits
By referring to Table 5.1, we can say that (a) is the
Here, the numerical values (not necessarily according to
correct answer.
rank of letters in the alphabet series) can be assigned to
letters. The values are allotted based on some specific pat- 2. Backward sequence: For example, Z = 1, Y = 2, …, B
tern that has to be discerned by the candidate in order to = 25, A = 26
solve the problem.
Example 40: If ‘GREAT’ is coded as 20–9–22–26−7, then
Example 37: If ‘TRAIN’ is coded as 23456, then how will how will you code ‘GATE’?
you code ‘RAIN’? (a) 20−26−7−22 (b) 20−26−6−22
(a) 3456 (b) 3546 (c) 2345 (d) 2456 (c) 26−20−7−22 (d) 26−20−22−7
Solution: By referring to Table 5.2, (a) is the correct answer.
3. Random sequence: The pattern can be established in
Word T R A I N alternative ways, but in every case, a set pattern has to
be discovered by careful examination of the example
Code 2 3 4 5 6 given in the question.
Example: Sometimes, A = 3, B = 4, Z = 28 might be
These values have been assigned arbitrarily. The question given, sometimes it might be given in the form such
can be solved on the basis of the relationship established. as A = 5, B = 7, C = 9 and so on.
For RAIN, the code is 3456, so (a) is the correct answer.
Example 41: If ‘FRANCE’ is coded as 10−22−5−18−7−9,
Analogical Coding with Numerical Digits then how will you code ‘INDIA’?
Here, the letters are assigned numerical values on the (a) 13−18−8−13−5
basis of the analogy of the example given in the question. (b) 13−17−6−12−4

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 Mathematical Reasoning and Aptitude 5.9

(c) 12−17−7−12−5 Coded Statements

(d) None of the above 1. In a certain code language, ‘do re me’ means ‘he is
Solution: The pattern of assignment can be read as given late’, ‘fa me la’ means ‘she is early’ and ‘so ti do’ means
in the following table: ‘he leaves soon’. Which word in that language means
‘late’?
A B C D E F G H I J (a) la (b) do
(c) me (d) re
5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14

Explanation
K L M N O P Q R S T do re me—he is late (i)
15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 fa me la—she is early (ii)
so ti do—he leaves soon (iii)
U V W X Y Z Comparing (i) and (ii), we can say that ‘me’ stands
25 26 27 28 29 30 for ‘is’.
Comparing (i) and (iii), we can say that ‘do’ stands
Therefore, (a) is the correct answer. for ‘he’.
Substituting them in sentence (i), we can say that ‘re’
stands for ‘late”.
Mixed Coding (Letters + Digits) The following arrangement also helps in the
Mixed coding takes the pattern of coding with both the solution:
letters of the alphabet and the numerical assignment. The
candidates are required to study the analogy given in the he
do re me is late
question.
Example 42: If ‘A3T15R’ stands for ‘ACTOR’ and ‘D1T5’ me
fa la she is early
stands for ‘DATE’, then how will you code ‘ROTATE’?
(a) R15T1T5 (b) R16T1T5
(c) R15T1T6 (d) L15C1T7 so ti do he leaves soon

Explanation
Hence, the code for ‘late’ is ‘re’.
A 3 T 15 R (d) is the correct answer.
A C T O R 2. In a certain code, ‘jo ka ra’ means ‘go for walk’, ‘ma fo
ka’ means ‘do not walk’ and ‘sa ta jo’ means ‘good for
you’. What is the code for ‘go’?
D 1 T 5 (a) ra (b) ka
D A T E (c) ta (d) jo
Explanation
Similarly, (in inverse manner)
jo ka ra go for walk
R O T A T E
R 15 T 1 T 5 ma fo ka do not walk

Thus, (a) is the correct answer. sa ta jo good for you

Example 43: If ‘M I S S I O N’ is coded as ‘ ! ? ? ! ϕ $’ and Hence, the code for ‘go’ is ‘ra’.
‘LENS’ is coded as ‘@#$?’, then how will you code ‘LION’?
The correct answer is (a).
(a) @ ! ϕ $ (b) @ ! $ #
(c) ? ? # # (d) None of the above 3. If rain is water, water is road, road is cloud, cloud is
sky, sky is sea and sea is path, where do aeroplanes
Explanation fly?
(a) Road (b) Sea
LION = L + ION (c) Cloud (d) Water
Pick L from LENS and ION from MISSION. By careful Explanation
observation, we can identify that the code for L is @ and The aeroplanes fly in the ‘sky’ and the ‘sky’ is called
the code for ION is !ϕ  $. ‘sea’. Hence, the aeroplanes fly in the ‘sea’.
Hence, option (a) is the answer. Therefore, (b) is the correct answer.

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 5.10 Chapter 5

4. In a certain code, ‘247’ means ‘spread red carpet’, Choosing the O dd Pair of Words
‘256’ means ‘dust one carpet’ and ‘236’ means ‘one red In each of the following questions, four pairs of words are
carpet’. Which digit in that code means ‘dust’? given, out of which the words in four pairs bear a certain
(a) 2  (b) 3  (c) 5  (d) 6 common relationship. Choose the pair in which the words
Explanation are differently related.
In the first statement, the common code digit is ‘2’. In
the second statement, the common word is ‘carpet’. Example 46: Choose the pair in which the words are
Thus, ‘2’ means ‘carpet’. In the second and third state- differently related.
ments, the common code digit is ‘6’ and the common (a) Man : Crowd (b) Cow : Herd
word is ‘one’. Thus, ‘6’ means ‘one’. Therefore, in the (c) Sheep : Flock (d) Fish : Shoal
second statement, ‘5’ means ‘dust’.
Thus, the correct answer is (c). Explanation
5. In a certain code language, ‘Siberia is a cold place’ is writ- In all other pairs, the second word is a collective group of
ten as ‘a cold is place Siberia’. In the same code, ‘Water the first.
freezes to ice here’ is written as ‘freezes here ice to water’. Thus, the correct answer is (a).
How will ‘covers ten percent of earth’ be written?
(a) covers earth ten percent of Example 47: Choose the pair in which the words are
(b) covers earth of percent ten differently related.
(c) Earth covers ten percent of (a) Joule : Energy (b) Ampere : Current
(d) None of the above (c) Angle : Degree (d) Pascal : Pressure
Explanation Explanation
The first alphabet of the words is to be picked and In all other pairs, the first is a unit to measure the
then written as they appear in the alphabetic series. second.
The correct answer is (b). Thus, the correct answer is (c).

Classification Choosing the O dd N umeral

In each of the following questions, four numbers are
The questions based on classification are based on similarity given. Out of these, three are alike in a certain way
or dissimilarity between a number of items or objects. Some except one.
objects are grouped together on the basis of some common
characteristics. The candidate has to identify that charac- Example 48: Choose the number that is different from
teristic and separate out the object that does not belong to others in the group.
the group. This test is also known as ‘Odd Man Out’. (a) 139 (b) 177 (c) 144 (d) 183
Choosing the O dd Word Explanation
In these types of problems, some words belong to the real Number 144 is the only perfect square number in the
word. They have certain common features except for the group.
odd one.
Thus, the correct answer is (c).
Example 44: Choose the word that is least like the other Example 49: Choose the number that is different from
words in a group? others in the group.
(a) Calendar (b) Date (a) 127 (b) 345 (c) 361 (d) 514
(c) Day (d) Month
Explanation
Explanation
All other numbers except 361 are two more than the cube
All other words are parts of a ­calendar. of a certain number.
Thus, the correct answer is (a). Thus, the correct answer is (c).
Example 45: Choose the word that is least like the other Choosing the O dd N umeral Pair or Group
words in a group?
Choose the odd numeral pair or group in each of the fol-
(a) Peacock (b) Vulture lowing questions.
(c) Sparrow (d) Swan
Example 50: Choose the number pair or group that is
Explanation different from others.
Swan is the only water bird in the group. (a) 15 : 46 (b) 12 : 37
Thus, the correct answer is (d). (c) 9 : 28 (d) 8 : 33

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 Mathematical Reasoning and Aptitude 5.11

Explanation (a) Laces (b) Cobbler

In all other pairs, second number = (Ist number × 3) + 1 (c) Leather (d) Shoes
Thus, the correct answer is (d). Explanation
Example 51: Choose the number pair or group that is The first is made by the other.
different from others. Thus, the correct answer is (c).
(a) 3, 5 (b) 7, 2 (c) 6, 2 (d) 1, 7
Example 55: As ‘delicious’ is related to taste, ‘melodious’
Explanation is related to
In all other pairs, the sum of two numbers is 8. (a) Voice (b) Speak
Thus, the correct answer is (b). (c) Music (d) Highness

Choosing the O dd L etter Group Explanation

In each of the following questions, some groups of l­ etters Delicious represents good taste. Similarly, melodious
are given, all of them, except one, share a similarity. describes pleasant voice.
Thus, the correct answer is (a).
Example 52: Choose or find the odd letter group.
(a) BCD (b) NPR (c) KLM (d) RQP Completion of Analogous Pair
Explanation Example 56: Giant : Dwarf :: Genius : ?
All other groups contain three consecutive letters of the (a) Wicked (b) Gentle
alphabet series. (c) Idiot (d) Cunning
Thus, the correct answer is (b).
Explanation
Example 53: Choose the group of letters that is different As dwarf is the antonym of giant, idiot is the antonym of
from the others. genius.
(a) KLM (b) IJK (c) PQR (d) RST Thus, the correct answer is (c).
Explanation
Example 57: Fruit : Banana :: Mammal : ?
No other group contains a vowel.
(a) Cow (b) Snake
Thus, the correct answer is (b). (c) Fish (d) Sparrow

Analogy Explanation
As banana is a type of fruit, cow is a type of mammal.
The close meaning of analogy is correspondence. In the
questions based on analogy, a particular relationship is Thus, the correct answer is (a).
given and another similar relationship has to be identified
from the alternatives provided. Therefore, analogy tests Selecting the Right A nalogous Pair
are meant to test candidates for their overall knowledge, In these types of questions, a pair of word is given that is
power of reasoning and the ability to think concisely and followed by four pairs of words as alternatives. The can-
accurately. Questions on analogy test the ability of a can- didate is required to choose the pair in which the words
didate to understand the relationship between two given bear the same relationship to each other as in the case of
objects and apply the same relationship to find what was the words of the given pair.
asked in the question. Some c­ ommon relationships­are
given below, which will help you detect most analogies Example 58: Lamp : Darkness
better. (a) Fatigue : Exercise (b) Water : Thirst
Different types of analogy are given below.
(c) Medicine : Illness (d) Study : Classroom
Direct/Simple A nalogy Explanation
In these types of questions, the first two words have a Just as a lamp eliminates darkness, water quenches
definite relationship. According to the relationship, we thirst.
have to choose one word out of the given four alternatives
that have the same relationship with the third word as Thus, the correct answer is (b).
between the first two. Example 59: Weight : Kilograms
Example 54: Apparel is related to cloth in the same way (a) Axe : Grind (b) Ammeter : Current
as footwear is related to (c) Power : Ampere (d) Energy : Joule

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 5.12 Chapter 5

Explanation Solution: Clearly, the first, second, third and fourth

As weight can be measured in kilogram, joule is the unit letters of the first group are moved 11, 12, 13 and 14 steps
of measuring energy. forward, respectively, to obtain the corresponding letters
of the second group.
Thus, the correct answer is (d).

Choosing a Similar W ord A B C D

In this type of questions, a group of three or four words is +11 +12 +13 +14
given, followed by four other words as alternatives. The
L N P R
candidate is required to choose the alternative, which is
similar to the given words.
Similarly,
Example 60: Iron : Copper : Zinc
(a) Ceramic (b) Carbon (c) Nickel (d) Mercury F G H I
+11 +12 +13 +14
Solution: All are solid metals.
Q S U W
Therefore, (c) is the correct answer.
Example 61: Potato : Carrot : Radish Thus, the correct answer is (b).
(a) Tomato (b) Spinach
(c) Sesame (d) Groundnut
Number Based
Under this category, the following types of questions can
Solution: All of these crops/vegetables grow be asked:
underground.
1. Choosing a number related to a given number in the
Therefore, (d) is the correct answer. same manner as the two numbers of another given
pair are related to each other
Alphabet A nalogy 2. Choosing a similarly related pair as the given number
In this type of question, two groups of letters are related pair on the basis of the relationship between the num-
to each other in some way as given. The candidate is bers in each pair
required to find out this relationship and then choose 3. Choosing a number similar to a group of numbers
either a letter-group that is related in the same way to a on the basis of certain common properties that they
third group provided in the questions or a pair consisting possess
of similarly related letter-groups. 4. Choosing a number set similar to a given number set

Example 62: BEGK is related to ADFJ in the same way as Example 64: 9 : 14 :: 26 : ?
PSVM is related to …? (a) 2 (b) 13 (c) 15 (d) 31
(a) LOQT (b) ROUX (c) OTUZ (d) ORUL
Solution: The relationship is x : (x + 5).
Solution: Clearly, each letter of the first group in a pair Therefore, (d) is the correct answer.
is moved one step backward to obtain the corresponding
letter of the second group. Example 65: 8 : 28 :: 27 : ?
(a) 55 (b) 63 (c) 64 (d) 85
B E G K
Solution: The relationship is x : (3x + 4).
−1 −1 −1 −1
Therefore, (d) is the correct answer.
A D F J
Example 66: 42 : 56 :: 72 : ?
Similarly, (a) 81 (b) 90 (c) 96 (d) 100

P S V M Solution: The ratio between 42 and 56 is 3:4.

Similarly, 72 : 96 depicts the ratio 3:4.
−1 −1 −1 −1 Therefore, (c) is the correct answer.
Q R U L

Therefore, (d) is the correct answer. Blood Relations

The questions that are asked in this section depend on
Example 63: ABCD : LNPR :: FGHI : ? relation. The candidate should have a sound knowledge of
(a) SUPW (b) QSUW (c) QSVW (d) RSUW blood relations in order to solve the questions.

M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 12 23/12/22 7:23 PM

 Mathematical Reasoning and Aptitude 5.13

To remember easily, the relations may be divided onto Suppose M is male and N is female. Some authors use
two sides as given in Table 5.4. the signs of + and − for indicating male and female. Cousin
is a common gender; it means that this relationship can be
Table 5.4  lood Relations of Paternal and
B used for both male and female.
Maternal Sides
Relations of paternal side Condition Sign

Father’s father Grandfather M is male +M

Father’s mother Grandmother N is female −N

Father’s brother Uncle M and N are married to each other M=N

Grandfather’s son Father or uncle P and Q are siblings P Q

Grandfather’s only son Father A is the child of B A

Father’s sister Aunt

Children of uncle Cousins B

Wife of uncle Aunt A has two children B and C A

Children of aunt Cousins

B C
Husband of aunt Uncle
Sister’s husband Brother-in-law Approach to Draw the F amily
Wife’s brother Brother-in-law R elations Diagram
Brother’s son Nephew To draw a family tree:
Brother’s wife Sister-in-law 1. First of all, identify the males and the females, and
then according to generation, put each member at the
Brother’s daughter Niece appropriate position in the tree.
Grandson’s or ­granddaughter’s Great 2. Draw the diagram with relationships among family
daughter granddaughter members using notations.
3. Once the diagram is filled, the candidate can answer
Mother’s or father’s son/daughter Brother/sister the given questions.
Son’s wife Daughter-in-law Example 67: X and Y are brothers. C and D are sisters.
Relations of maternal side X’s son is D’s brother. How is Y related to C?
(a) Uncle (b) Grandfather
Mother’s father Maternal (c) Father (d) None of the above
grandfather
Explanation
Mother’s mother Maternal
grandmother +X +Y

Mother’s brother Maternal uncle

Mother’s sister Aunt
Children of maternal uncle Cousins
Wife of maternal uncle Maternal aunt +Son −D −C
Others As per the statement and the family tree, X’s son, D and C
Children of same parents Siblings are siblings. Y is the uncle of C.
Thus, (a) is the correct answer.
Common term for husband and wife Spouse
Example 68: ‘A’ is the father of ‘C’, and ‘D’ is the son of ‘B’.
Developing a F amily Relationship Tree ‘E’ is the brother of ‘A’. If ‘C’ is the sister of ‘D’, then how is
‘B’ related to ‘E’?  [NET June 2007]
To develop a blood relation tree, some standard symbols
may be used to express the relationships among the fam- (a) Daughter (b) Husband
ily members. (c) Sister-in-law (d) Brother-in-law

M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 13 23/12/22 7:23 PM

 5.14 Chapter 5

Explanation
Direction Sense
+E A=B There are four main directions: east, west, north and
south, shown as follows:
N

−C +D

Thus, B is the sister-in-law of E. (c) is the correct answer. W E

Example 69: E is the son of A; D is the son of B; E is

married to C; C is the daughter of B. How is D related to E?
 [NET June 2010]
S
(a) Brother (b) Uncle
(c) Father-in-law (d) Brother-in-law There are four cardinal directions, such as north-east
(NE), north-west (NW), south-east (SE) and south-west
Explanation (SW), shown as follows:
Family tree: NW N NE
A B
W E

SW S SE

Few Important Points

1. At the time of sunrise, if a person stands facing the
+E = −C +D east, then his/her shadow will be towards the west.
2. At the time of sunset, the shadow of an object is always
Hence, D is the brother-in-law of E. in the east.
Therefore, (d) is the correct answer. 3. If a person stands facing the north, at the time of sun-
rise, his/her shadow will be towards his/her left; and
Example 70: If B is the only child of C’s grandfather’s at the time of sunset, it will be towards his/her right.
only daughter, then how is C’s father related to B? 4. At 12 p.m., the rays of the sun are vertically down-
ward. Hence, there will be no shadow.
(a) Maternal uncle
(b) Father Example 71: Prakash walked 30 m westward, took a
(c) Paternal uncle left turn and walked 20 m. He again took a left turn and
walked 30 m. Then, he took a right turn and stopped. He
(d) Cannot be determined
is now facing
Explanation (a) South (b) North (c) East (d) West
30 m
C’s grandfather N

20 m W E
Only daughter Brother (C’s father)

30 m S

B C

As B is the only child, C cannot be the sister of B. On the
other hand, B’s mother is the only daughter of her par-
ents, so she can have a brother. Hence, C’s father is the
maternal uncle of B.
Thus, (a) is the correct answer.
Therefore, (a) is the correct answer.
Example 72:
If south-east direction becomes north, north-east direction
becomes west and so on, then what will west become?

M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 14 23/12/22 7:23 PM

 Mathematical Reasoning and Aptitude 5.15

(a) North-west (b) North-east Here, Q is between G and S—this is 100%; whether right
(c) South-east (d) South-west or left, it requires more information. Therefore, the posi-
tion of Q cannot be determined with the available infor-
N
NW NE S W mation. Hence, (c) is the right option.
Therefore, (c) is the correct answer.
W E SE Example 75: Among M, N, T, R and D, each has a different
height. T is taller than D, but shorter than M. R is taller
than N, but shorter than D. Who among them is the tallest?
SW S SE E N
(a) R (b) M
Therefore, (c) is the correct answer. (c) D (d) None of the above
Example 73: Atul walks 20 m towards the south; turning Solution: M > T > D > R > N
left, he walks 30 m. Then, turning right, he walks 10 m Hence, M is the tallest.
and then, turning right, he walks 40 m. Then, turning
right, he walks 30 m and stops. In which direction is he Therefore, (b) is the correct answer.
standing with respect to his starting point? Example 76: A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a row facing
(a) East (b) West (c) North (d) South north. A is the neighbour of B and D. E is the neighbour of
C and F, and D is the neighbour of C. How many members
Explanation are there between A and E?
Starting point (a) Two (b) One (c) Three (d) Four
20 m Explanation
30 m The sitting arrangement is B A D C E F. Between A and E,
30 m there are two members D and C.
10 m
Thus, (a) is the correct answer.

40 m Mathematical Aptitude
Therefore, (c) is the correct answer.
Fractions
Basically, a fraction describes how a part of a group
Seating Arrangement relates to the whole group. Fractions represent complete
groups that have been fractured or broken apart in some
Example 74: Among six members P, Q, R, G, S and M way. They help us understand how those pieces fit into the
sitting along a circle facing the centre: original group.
  I. R is between G and P. When we look at a fraction, we look at the number that
represents the pieces (the fractured section) on the top of
II. M is between P and S.
the division line. Such a number on the top is called the
What is the position of Q? numerator. The number below the line represents how
(a) To the immediate left of G many total parts are in the group. This number is called
(b) To the immediate right of S the denominator. To easily tell these two parts of the frac-
(c) Cannot be determined tion apart, just remember that denominator and down
(d) None of the above both start with the letter d.
Part Numerator
Explanation Fraction = =
Whole Denominator
G P If there are 5 apples in a carton of 12 apples, then the frac-
5
tion of apples for the whole would be represented as .
R Q R M 12
There can be various types of fractions:
OR 1. Common fraction: A common fraction is a num-
ber written with a numerator and a denominator, in
5
P S G S which both are natural numbers, for example,
17 12
M Q and .
12

M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 15 23/12/22 7:23 PM

 5.16 Chapter 5

2. Proper fraction: A proper fraction that is less than know English. How many students know both English
1 3 1
1 is known as proper fraction, such as and . and Hindi if students who know Hindi are th of total
2 4 8
A proper fraction has the same name as ratio. students in the class?
3. Mixed number fraction: It is basically a whole num-
ber plus a proper fraction. For example: 1 100 10 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
24 24 12 4
1 1
2 = 2+ Explanation
3 3
3
4. Improper fractions: If we divide each whole unit th do not know English or Hindi.
4
into thirds, say, and keep counting them, then we will 1
3 4 5 Therefore, th know English or Hindi or both.
come to , , and so on. That is, we will come to 4
3 3 3 1 1
fractions that are equal to or greater than 1. We call th know English and th know Hindi.
those improper fractions. 6 8
1 1 1 1
How to convert an improper fraction to a mixed number Now, − − = −
or a whole number? 4 6 8 24
Thus, the correct answer is (a).
9 1
For example: =4
2 2 3
Example 78: of a group of children are girls. If there
5
Divide the numerator by the denominator. Write the are 24 girls, then how many children are there in the
quotient (4) and write the remainder (1) as the numera- group?
tor of the fraction, do not change the denominator.
Fractions can be added, subtracted, multiplied or (a) 32 (b) 36 (c) 40 (d) 42
divided also.
A fraction in which there is no common factor, except Solution
1, in its numerator and denominator is called a fraction in ?
the simplest or lowest form.
Fractions with same denominators are called like frac-
tions and if the denominators are different, then they are
called unlike fractions. 24 girls
• Fractions can be compared by converting them into 3 units = 24
like fractions and then arranging them in ascending
1 unit = 24 ÷ 3 = 8
or descending order.
• Addition (or subtraction) of like fractions is mostly 5 units = 5 × 8 = 40
done by adding (or subtracting) their numerators. There were 40 children in the group.
Addition (or subtraction) of unlike fractions can be
done by converting them into like fractions. Thus, (c) is the correct answer.
• Fractions with denominators 10,100, etc., can be Example 79: Shyam had 120 teddy bears in his retail
written in a form, using a decimal point called deci- 2
mal numbers or decimals. store. He sold of them at `12 each. How much did he
• Decimal numbers can be compared by using the idea 3
of place value; then they can be arranged in ascend- receive?
ing or descending order. (a) 800 (b) 840 (c) 960 (d) 920
• Decimals can be added (or subtracted) by writing
them with equal number of decimal places. Solution
• Many of our daily life problems can be solved by Step 1: The number of teddy bears sold =
converting different units of measurements, such as
money, length and weight, in the decimal form and 2 2 × 120
× 120 = = 80
then adding (or subtracting) them. 3 3
3 Step 2: The money received =
Example 77: In a class, th of the students do not
4 1 80 × 12 = 960
know either English or Hindi. But th of the students
6 Thus, (c) is the correct answer.

M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 16 23/12/22 7:23 PM

 Mathematical Reasoning and Aptitude 5.17

Example 80: A fraction is divided by the reciprocal of 9 11

itself. It is then multiplied by the original fraction. What is Now let’s compare with .
13 17
25
the fraction if the answer obtained is 11 ? ad = 9 × 17 = 153
64 bc = 13 × 11 = 143
9 27 9 2 153 > 143
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4 8 8 3 9
∴ is largest.
Explanation 13
9 11 5
Let the fraction be A. So, the descending order is > >
13 17 8
According to the question 9 11 5
Answer: ; ;
A 25 13 17 8
× A = 11
1 64 1
A
Exampl e 82: Eiffel Tower’s th part is painted bronze.
1 5
729 9 × 9 × 9 th of the remaining part is painted maroon. Rest of the
A3 = = 4
64 4×4×4 Eiffel Tower has golden colour. If the height of this golden-
9 coloured part is 450 m, then what is Eiffel Tower’s height?
A=
4 (a) 2,250 m (b) 1,250 m
Thus, (a) is the correct answer. (c) 1,000 m (d) 750 m
Example 81: Which of the following is in descending Explanation
order? Let’s assume that length of Eiffel Tower is 100m.
5 9 11 5 11 9 1
(a) ; ; (b) ; ; th of 100 = 20 m is bronze.
8 13 17 8 17 13 5

9 11 5 11 9 5 1 1
(c) ; ; (d) ; ; th of the remaining = th of (100 – 20) = 20 m is maroon.
13 17 8 17 13 8 4 4
Rest = 100 – 20 – 20 = 60 m is golden.
Explanation
In such fractions, you can either divide directly or use the If golden part is 60m, then total height = 100 m
following way. If golden part is 1m, then total height = 100 / 60 m
If golden part is 450m, then total height = 100/60 × 450
Tip:
= 750 m
In two fractions a/b and c/d:
Therefore, the actual height of Eiffel tower is 750 m.
a c
• If ad > cb, then > .; ad < cb, (d) is the right answer.
b d
Time and Distance
a c
• If ad < cb, then < . If speed, time and distance are denoted by S, T and D,
b d
D D
a c respectively, then S = , , D = S × T and T =
• If ad = cb, then = . T S
b d
5
To convert from km/h to m/s, multiply by
18
5 9 5 11 18
First, let’s compare with and with . To convert m/s to km/h, multiply by
8 13 8 17 15
If the ratio of the speeds of A and B are a:b, then the
by cross multiplying ratio of the time taken by them to cover the same distance
5 × 13 = 65 5 × 17 = 85 1 1
is : or b:a.
8 × 9 = 72 11 × 8 = 88 a b
65 < 72 85 < 88 Suppose a man covers a certain distance at x kmph
5 9 5 11 and an equal distance at y kmph. Then, the average speed
∴ < ∴ <
8 13 8 17 2xy
during the whole journey = kmph (also covered
( x + y)
5
Thus, the smallest number is . under the topic of Averages).
8

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 5.18 Chapter 5

Example 83: A man covers 60 km in 4 hours. Find the The parts of distances are D/4, D/4 and D/2
speed.
⎛ D⎞ ⎛ D⎞ ⎛ D⎞
Distance 60 ⎜⎝ ⎟⎠ ⎜⎝ ⎟⎠ ⎜⎝ ⎟⎠
Solution: Speed = = = 15 kmph Total time = t 1 + t 2 + t 3 = 4 + 4 + 2
Time 4 20 10 80
Note: Depending on the answer choices, the kmph can D D D
5 = + +
also be converted into m/s by multiplying by . 4 × 20 4 × 10 2 × 80
18 D D D 7D
1 = + + =
Speed (m/s) = 15 × (5/18) = 4 m/s 80 40 160 160
6
D
Example 84: A man covers 20 km in 2½ hours. Find the ∴ Average speed = = 22.85 km/h
7D
distance covered in 9 hours.
160
D 20 km
Solution: Speed = = hours = 8 km/h Therefore, (a) is the correct answer.
T 2½
Distance covered in 9 hours = S × T = 8 × 9 = 72 km Example 88: An office boy increases his speed to 9/5
times of his original speed. By doing this he is able to
Example 85: A car completes a journey in 4 hours, the reach his office 30 minutes before the usual time. How
first half at a speed of 40 kmph and the second at 60 much time is usually taken by him?
kmph. Find the total distance covered. (a) 70.50 minutes (b) 54 minutes
(c) 66.67 minutes (d) 67.50 minutes
Solution: As the total journey is divided into equal parts,
the average speed can be calculated by the formula­2xy/ Solution
(x + y) = 2 × 40 × 60/(40+60) = 48 kmph.
The distance traveled is same in both the cases. Time T is
Distance = S × T = 48 × 4 = 192 km. being considered in minutes.
Example 86: A student walks from his house at a speed D=D
of 3 kmph and reaches the school 10 minutes late. If he
walks at a speed of 4 kmph, then he reaches the school 10 ⎛ 9S ⎞
S × T = ⎜ ⎟ (T − 30)
minutes earlier. What is the distance between his school ⎝ 5⎠
and his house? ⎛ 9ST − 270S ⎞
ST = ⎜ ⎟⎠
⎝ 5
Solution: Let the distance be x km.
5ST = 9ST − 270S
Difference between timings of reaching the school at
20 1 4ST = 270S
different speeds = 10 + 10 = 20 minutes or or hour.
60 3 4T = 270
According to question:
x x 1 270
− = T= = 67.5min
3 4 3 4

4 x – 3x 1 Hence, the correct answer is (d).

=
12 3 Example 89: Pankaj starts from home at a speed of
x = 4 km 30 km/h and reaches his school 20 minutes late. Then the
next day he increases his speed by 15 km/h but still gets
Example 87: Sidhu travels one-fourth of the total journey late by 8 minutes. How far is his school from his home?
at 20 km/h, one-fourth at 10 km/h and rest of his journey (a) 18 km (b) 35 km
at 80 km/h. Find the average speed per hour of Sidhu for
(c) 20 km (d) 27 km
the whole distance.
(a) 22.85 km/h (b) 25.15 km/h Solution: Let the distance be D.
(c) 50 km/h (d) 40 km/h With speed 30 km/h, he is 20 minutes late.
With speed 45 km/h, he is 8 minutes late.
Solution ∴ difference between two timings
D 12 1
∴ S = D/T = 20 − 8 = 12 minutes = hours= hours
60 5
S T
D
T=
Let the total distance be D km. S

M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 18 23/12/22 7:24 PM

 Mathematical Reasoning and Aptitude 5.19

D D 12 360
Thus, − = Thus 100 =
30 45 60  Time
Solving it D = 18 km Time = 3.6 seconds
The correct answer is (a). Therefore, (a) is the correct answer.
Example 90: Mansi covers a distance at a speed of 24 Ratio and Proportion
km/h in 6 minutes. If she wants to cover the same distance
in 8 minutes, what should be her speed on per hour basis? Ratios can also be expressed as fractions. They represent
the basic relationship between two quantities. Proportions
(a) 18 km/h (b) 21 km/h are in comparison to the whole.
(c) 30 km/h (d) 15 km/h In a mixture of 20 l of milk and 30 l of water, the ratio
Solution: Distance is same. of milk and water is 2 : 3. This can be converted to fraction
2
∴ S1 × T1 = S2 × T2 of milk in the solution as 2 : 5 or th.
5
6 8 2 2
∴ 24 × = S2 × As seen, is nothing but × 100 = 40%.
60 60 5 5
(The minutes have been divided by 60 to convert them Example 93: What percentage of 180.50 is 36.1?
into hours) (a) 20 (b) 25
∴ S2 = 18 km/h (c) 20.50 (d) None of the above
Therefore, (a) is the correct answer. Solution: Let’s consider x% of 180.5 = 36.1.
Example 91: A man rows a boat at the speed of 12 km/h 36.1
in still water to some upstream point and back to the x% =
180.5
starting point. The speed of flow of river is 3 km/h. Find
his average speed (km/h) for the total journey. x = (36.1/180.5) × 100 = 20%
(a) 11 ¼ (b) 12 ¾ (c) 10 ½ (d) 9 ½ Example 94: A mixture contains milk and water in the
ratio of 8:3. On adding 3 litres of water, the ratio of milk
Solution: Speed of the man in still water = 12 km/h of water becomes 2:1. Find the quantities of milk and
Speed of the stream = 3 km/h water in the mixture.
Downstream speed = (12 + 3) = 15 km/h
(a) 20 and 9 (b) 9 and 24
Upstream speed = (12 – 3) = 9 km/h
Let the distance travelled be ‘d’ km. Then, average speed = (c) 12 and 15 (d) 24 and 12
Solution:
Total distance
Average speed= Let the original quantities of milk and water be 8a and 3a.
Total time After adding 3 L of water.
d+d 8a (3a + 3) = 2/1
= 8a = 6a + 6
d d
+ 2a = 6; a = 3
15 9 Hence, milk = 8 × 3 = 24 L and water = 3 × 3 + 3 = 12 L
2d This can be verified as present ratio = 24 L : 12 L = 2 : 1
=
9d + 15d Hence (d) is the answer.
15 × 9 Example 95: If 30 men do a piece of work in 27 days, in
2d ×(15× 9) 45 1 what time can 18 men do another piece of workthat is 3
= = km/h = 11 km/h
24d 4 4 times bigger?
Therefore, (a) is the correct answer. (a) 120 days (b) 135 days
(c) 150 days (d) 180 days
Example 92: The two trains of respective lengths 160 and
200 m travel at the speeds of 48 and 52 m/s, per second Solution:
respectively, in opposite direction to each other. What is We work on the principle of less men, more days and more
the total time taken by them to cross each other? work, more days.
(a) 3.6 seconds (b) 4.5 seconds Given that 30 men do 1 piece of work in 27 days
(c) 4.8 seconds (d) 5.4 seconds Then, 1 men can do 1 piece of work in 27 × 30 days
There 18 men can do 3 pieces (times bigger) work in (27
Solution: Relative speed = 48 + 52 = 100 m/s × 30 × 3)/18 days
Total distance covered by both the trains = 160 + 200 = 360 m 27 30 3
Distance the reqd. no. of days = =135 days
Speed= 18 1
Time Hence (b) is the right answer.

M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 19 23/12/22 7:24 PM

 5.20 Chapter 5

Example 96: If 15 men or 24 women or 36 boys do a Solution:

piece of work in 12 days, working 8 hrs a day, how many 1
men must be associated with 12 women and 6 boys to Here 2 : 3 : 4 = 5 : 6 : 8
2
1 1 1
do another piece of work 2 times as great in 30 days Their proportional value = 5×1:6 × :8 × = 5:3:2
4 2 4
working 6 hrs a day? Their Total = 5 + 3 + 2 = 10
(a) 5 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 12 5
∴ the value of rupees = of `210 = `105
10
Solution:
We can make use of following reasoning. 3
The value of fifty-paise coins = of `210 = `63
(1) More days : less men. 10
(2) Less working hrs : more men. 2
(3) More work : more men. The value of 25-paise coins = of `210 = `42
10
Therefore, by the rule of three,
Therefore, there are 105 rupees, 126 fifty-paise coins and
168 twenty-five paise coin.
30 days : 12 days ⎤
⎥ Hence, (a) is the correct answer.
6 hrs : 8hrs ⎥ ::15men: the reqd. no. of men
⎥ Example 99: The contents of two vessels containing water
1 and milk are in the ratio 1:2 and 2:5 are mixed in the ratio
1work :2 works ⎥
4 ⎥⎦ 1:4. The resulting Mixture Will have water and milk in
15×12 × 8 × 2.25 the ratio.
∴the reqd. no. of men = = 18
30 × 6 ×1 (a) 23:64 (b) 31:68
(c) 28:75 (d) 31:74
Now, we have, 24 women = 15 men
Solution:
∴12 women =7.5men
Change the ratios into fractions.
And also, 36 boys = 15men
15 5 Water Milk
∴6 boys = = =2.5men
6 2 1 2
∴12 women + 6 boys = 7.5 + 2.5 = 10men Vessel I
3 3
So, 18 − 10 = 8men must be associated. 2 5
Vessel II
Thus, (b) is the correct answer. 7 7

Example 97: A certain sum of money is divided among A, 1 4

From Vessel I, is taken and from Vessel II, is taken.
B and C such that for each rupee A has 65 paise and C has 5 5
40 paise. If C’s share is `8, find the sum of money. Therefore, the ratio of water to milk in the new vessel
(a) `35 (b) `38 (c) 41 (d) 45
⎛ 1 1 2 4⎞ ⎛ 2 1 5 4⎞
= ⎜ × × × ⎟ :⎜ × + × ⎟
Solution: ⎝ 3 5 7 5⎠ ⎝ 3 5 7 5⎠
Here A : B : C = 100 : 65 : 40 = 20 : 13 : 8 ⎛ 1 8 ⎞ ⎛ 2 20 ⎞ 31 74
Their Total = 20 + 13 + 8 = 41 = ⎜ + ⎟ :⎜ + ⎟ = : = 31:74
⎝ 15 35 ⎠ ⎝ 15 35 ⎠ 105 105
8
As of the whole sum = `8 Hence, (d) is the correct answer.
41
Example 100: 465 coins consist of rupee, 50 paise and
8 41
∴ the whole sum of money = ` = `41 25 paise coins. Their values are in the ratio 5 : 3 : 1. Find
8 the number of each coin.
Hence, (c) is the correct answer.
(a) 155, 186, 124 (b) 135, 186, 124
Example 98: How many one rupee, fifty paise coins and (c) 155, 124, 186 (d) 155, 106, 124
twenty five paise coins are there if their numbers are
Solution:
1
proportional to 2 , 3 and 4. Their total worth is `210. The ratio of number of coins
2
100 100 100
(a) 105, 63 and 42 (b) 63, 42 and 105 = 5× :3× :1× = 5:6 :4
(c) 90, 63 and 42 (d) 75, 63 and 42 100 50 25

M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 20 23/12/22 7:24 PM

 Mathematical Reasoning and Aptitude 5.21

465
∴ The number of one-rupee coins = × 5 = 155 If price increases, then consumption will come down as
5+ 6 + 4 we have to keep the total expenditure same.
465 100 × 100 = (100 – x) × (100 + 25)
The number of 50 P coins = × 6 = 186 x = 20%
5+ 6 + 4
Hence, (c) is the correct answer.
465
The number of 25 P coins = × 4 = 124 Alternatively, such problems can be solved by the follow-
5+ 6 + 4 ing methods also.
Hence, (a) is the correct answer. If the price of a commodity increases by r%, then the
reduction in consumption so as not to increase the expen-
Percentage Calculations diture, is
If it is said that India won 50% of the matches it played, ⎛ r ⎞
then neither does it mean that India won 50 matches nor ⎜⎝ ×100⎟ %
100 + r ⎠
does it mean that India won 0.5 matches. It means that
India played 100 matches and won 50 match. If the price of a commodity decreases by r%, then increase
Now assume that India won 40% of matches that it in consumption, so as not to decrease expenditure on this
played in 2015. We have to calculate how many matches item, is
it actually won, and for that, we ought to know the total
matches played, say, for example, 25 matches. Thus, if ⎡ r ⎤
⎢⎣ ×100 ⎥ %
India had played a total of 25 matches, then it would have 100_ r ⎦
40
won 40% of 25 = × 25 = 10 matches. Example 101: Express 12% as a fraction?
100
Percent in the simplest sense means per cent, that is, 2 3
(a) (b)
15 25 25
per hundred. For example, 15% = = 0.15.
100 4 7
1. To convert any per cent as a part or multiple of 1, (c) (d)
25 25
divide it by 100. Examples: 4% = 0.04, 40% = 0.4 and
400% = 4. Solution:
2. Conversely, to write any number in the percentage 12 3
form, multiply it with 100 and append a % ­symbol. 12% = =
Example: 2 = 200%, 0.2 = 20%, 0.02 = 2% and 0.002 100 25
= 0.2%. Hence, (b) is the correct answer.
As seen above, x% is nothing but a fraction with numera- Example 102: If two litres of water is evaporated on boiling
tor x and denominator 100. Identifying certain percent- from 8 litres of sugar solution containing 5% sugar, find
ages in the reduced form of the fractions can be very use- the percentage of sugar in the remaining solution?
ful. For example, whenever we have to calculate 20%,
2
20 1 3 (a) 6 % (b) 8%
we can calculate = . Similarly, the ratio can be 3
100 5 5 (c) 9% (d) 10%
60
expressed as , that is, 60%. Solution:
100
1 1 As sugar does not evaporate, its quantity will remain same
We assume that 1 is equal to 100%, then = 50%,
2 3 in the remaining solution, that is 8-2 = 6 litres of solution.
1 1 1 1 5% of 8 = x% of 6
= 33.33%, = 25%, = 20%, = 16.66%, x= 12.5%,
4 5 6 8 (5 × 8)
1 1 Thus, x =
1 6
= 8.33%, = 6.25%, = 5% and so on.
12 16 20 Thus,(a) = 6 2/3 % is the correct answer.
If we were to convert 3/8 to percentage, simply
­multiply its percentage equivalent of 1/8 by 3. Then, we Short cut formula
get an answer 3 × 12.5% = 37.5%. Suppose a quantity (such as price or salary) increases or
decreases first by x%, and then by y%. What is the net
If the price of a commodity increases by 25%, then by how
increase or decrease in the price?
much percentage, a household should decrease his con-
sumption so that his total expenditure remains the same?  xy 
Net increase = x + y +  . This formula is used
(a) 15% (b) 18 % (c) 20% (d) 30%  100 
Let both consumption and prices are 100 each. where ‘two’ quantities are to be multiplied as per formula
Total expenditure = price × consumption = 100 × 100

M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 21 23/12/22 7:24 PM

 5.22
or requirement of the question, and one or both of these
quantities may increase or decrease.
Example 103: The price of a commodity increases first
by 20% and then by 10%. What is the net increase in the
price?
Solution: Let original price = 100
Price after first increase = 100 + 20 = 120
Price after second increase = 120 + (10% of 120) = 132
Net increase = 132 − 100 = 32%
Direct formula = 20 + 10 + [(20 × 10)/100] = 32%
Example 104: A retailer offers two successive discounts
of 20% and 30%. What is the net decrease in the price?
Solution: Let’s consider original price = 100
Price after first discount = 100 − 20 = 80
Price after second discount = 80 − (30% of 80) = 56
Net discount = Original price − Discount = 100 − 56 = 44
Direct formula = (−20) + (−30) + [(–20) × (–30)]/100]
= −50 + 6 = −44%.
Negative sign shows the decrease.
Example 105: The price of a commodity is first increased
by 40% and then reduced by 20%. What is the net increase
or decrease in the price?
Solution: Let the original price = 100
Price after increase = 100 + 40 = 140
Price after decrease = 140 − (20% of 140) = 112
Net increase in price = 112 − 100 = 12%
Direct formula = 40 − 20 + [40 × (−20)]/100] = 12%
Example 106: A’s income is 70% of B’s income. B’s
income is 50% of C’s income. If C’s income is `1,00,000,
then what is A’s income?
⎛ 50 ⎞
Solution: B’s income = ⎜ × 1,00,000 = 33.33%
`50,000
⎝ 100 ⎟⎠
⎛ 70 ⎞
A’s income = ⎜ × 50,000 = `35,000
⎝ 100 ⎟⎠
Alternative method
A’s income = 70% of 50% of `1,00,000 = `35,000
Example 107: The income of A is 60% of the income of
B. If the income of B is `15,000, then what is the income
of A?
(a) `8000 (b) `8500
(c) `9000 (d) `9500
60
Solution: The income of A = = `9000
100 × 15000
Example 108: The income of X is 25% more than that of
income of Y. Calculate by how much percent, the income
of Y is less than that of income of X?
(a) 18% (b) 20% (c) 25% (d) 28%
M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 22
Chapter 5
Solution: In comparison questions, the quantity with
which comparison is being done should be taken as
denominator (or base).
Let the income of Y = `100
The income of X = `100 + 25 = `125
For sake of comparison, we have to make income of X as
equal to `100.
100 × 100
If income of X is 100, then income of Y = = `80
125
Thus, the difference = 100 – 80 = `20
(a) is the correct answer.
Alternatively, The difference can be calculated directly
with following formula.
r
Difference = (Here, r is the percentage
(100 + r) × 100
difference as asked in the question).
25
= = 20%
(100 + 25) × 100
If there is mention of ‘less than’ in the question, then it can be
solved in the following manner to calculate the difference.
r
Difference =
(100 – r) × 100
Example 109: In an exam, a student scored 50% of the
maximum marks and yet failed by 15 marks. If he had
scored 10% more than what he scored, then he would
have just managed to get the pass percentage. What is the
maximum marks for the paper?
Solution: Let maximum passing marks = 100
Actual marks obtained = 50
Had he scored 50 + 10% of 50, that is, 55 marks, then he
would have scored passing marks. In this situation, the dif-
ference between the actual and passing marks is 5.
Actual difference = 15
5% of maximum marks = 15
Maximum marks = 15 × 100/5 = 300
Example 110: In a basket of fruits, 60% are mangoes and
remaining are apples. In that, 25% of the apples are green
and the rest are red. Of the mangoes, 80% are red and
the rest of the mangoes are green. What percentage of the
green fruits are mangoes?
Solution: Let us assume that the total number of fruits is
100. Here, 60 are mangoes and 40 are apples.
Green apples = 25% of 40 = 10
Green mangoes = 20% of 60 = 12
Total number of green fruits = 10 + 12 = 22
Thus, required percentage = 12/22 × 100 = 54.5%
Example 111: If the milk to water ratio in a mixture is
2:3, then what is the percentage of milk in the mixture?
Solution: There are five parts in total, that is, two parts
are of milk and three parts are of water.
Percentage of milk in the mixture
= 2/5 × 100 = 40%
23/12/22 7:24 PM
 Mathematical Reasoning and Aptitude 5.23

Example 112: If two-third of residents in a housing ⎡ Loss × 100 ⎤

society own cars, and furthermore, one-half of car owners Loss% = ⎢ ⎥
own a Swift car, then what percentage of residents own ⎣ C.P. ⎦
Swift cars? 3. Selling price (S.P.)
Solution: The fraction of residents owning a Swift car ⎡ (100 + Profit %) ⎤
S.P. = ⎢ × C.P.⎥
= 1/2 of 2/3 = (1/2) × (2/3) = 1/3 ⎣ 100 ⎦
Converting it into percentage, (1/3) × 100 = 33.33%
4. Selling price (S.P.)
Example 113: Neeru’s expenditure and savings are in the ⎡ (100 − Loss%) ⎤
ratio 3:2. Her income increases by 10%. Her expenditure S.P. = ⎢ × C.P.⎥
⎣ 100 ⎦
increases by 12%. By what percentage does her savings
increase? 5. Cost price (C.P.)
⎡ 100 ⎤
Solution: Let Neeru’s income = 100 C.P. = ⎢ × S.P.⎥
⎣ (100 + Profit %) ⎦
Expenditure = [3/(2+3)] × 100 = 60
6. Cost price (C.P.)
Saving = 100 − 60 = 40
New income after 10% increase = 110 ⎡ 100 ⎤
C.P. = ⎢ × S.P.⎥
New expenditure after 12% increase ⎣ (100 − Loss%) ⎦
= 60 + 12% of 60 = 67.2%
New savings = 110 − 67.2 = 42.8 Example 115: The cost price of the goods for a shopkeeper
was X. He marked them at a 20% higher price than the
Percentage increase in savings
Cost Price. Finally he sold the goods at 30% discount. Did
= [(42.8–40)/40] × 100 = 2.8/40 × 100 = 7% he earn a profit or incur a loss? How much?
Percentage of a per cent = 20% of 30% will be nothing but (a) 5% Profit (b) 5.5% Profit
20 30 6 (c) 10% Profit (d) 16% Profit
× =
100 100 100
Solution:
6/100 is equal to 6%. Let CP = `100
Example 114: What is 20% of 30% of 40%? Marked Price = 20% more than CP
∴ MP = `120
⎛ 20 ⎞ ⎛ 30 ⎞ Discount = 30% on marked price
Solution: The value is= ⎜ × × 40% = 2.4%
⎝ 100 ⎟⎠ ⎜⎝ 100 ⎟⎠ ∴ SP=(100 – 30)% on MP
70
∴SP= ×120=RS.84
Profit and Loss 100
100-84
Whenever an article is sold or purchased, there are some Loss%= ×100=16%
commercial terms involved. Sometimes there is a profit, 100
sometimes a loss and in other cases neither of the two. Hence, the correct answer is (d).
This difference is calculated and then converted to per-
centage to make comparison easier. Example 116: One shopkeeper Keeper was offering two
Let’s have a look at the different formulas: successive discount of 15% and 10% on an item while the
second one is offering flat 25% discount on the same item.
Cost Price (C.P.): The price at which an article is pur-
From which shopkeeper should I buy the item?
chased by the seller.
(a) First Shopkeeper
Selling Price (S.P.): The price at which an article is sold. (b) Second Shopkeeper
Profit or Gain (P): If the difference between S.P. and C.P. (c) Any of them; both are same
is positive, then the amount is called profit or gain. (d) Data Insufficient

Loss: If the difference between C.P. and S.P. is positive, Explanation:

then the amount is called loss.
Tip:
1. Profit percentage (Profit %)
MULTIPLY
⎡ Profit × 100 ⎤ Single equivalent of 2 discounts =ADD −
Profit % = ⎢ ⎥ 100
⎣ C.P. ⎦
2. Loss percentage (Loss %) ADD = 15 +10 = 25

M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 23 23/12/22 7:24 PM

 5.24 Chapter 5

MULTIPLY 15×10 Example 120: Romit sold his old TV and earned a profit
= = 1.5 of 10%. If he could have managed to sell it for `8100
100 100
more, then his profit would have been 37%. Find the price
Single equivalent = 25 – 1.5 = 23.5% at which he bought the TV.
The single equivalent discount offered by first shop-
keeper is 23.5%. (a) `30,000 (b) `41,000
Second shopkeeper is offering it at 25%, which makes (c) `44,500 (d) `55,000
the item cheaper for the buyer. Solution: First profit = 10%
Hence, (b) is the correct answer.
If Romit sells TV for `8100 more, then profit = 37%
Example 117: An umbrella was sold at a profit of 20%. S.P. = (100 + Profit%)% of C.P.
What is the selling price of the umbrella if the shopkeeper ∴ S.P.1 + 8100 = S.P.2
procured it at a cost of `180?
∴ (110)% of C.P. + 8100 = (137)% of C.P.
(a) 210 (b) 216 (c) 230 (d) 236 ∴ 27% of C.P. = 8100
Solution: Substituting values in the formula above, we get:
8100 × 100
(100 + 20)  ∴ C.P. = = `30,000
27
Selling price =   × 180
 100  Therefore, (a) is the correct answer.
Selling price = 12 × 18
Selling price = 216 Example 121: A man bought a horse for a certain sum
Therefore, the selling price of this umbrella is `216. and sold it at a loss of 8% on his outlay. If he had received
14
Example 118: An article is sold for `2400 at a profit of
`1800 more, then he would have gained 1 on his
25%. What would have been the actual profit or loss if it
outlay. What did the horse cost?
had been sold at `1800? 2%
Solution: Initially, let us find the cost price of the same. (a) `3500 (b) `5000
C.P. = 2400 × 100/125 = 1920. (c) `6000 (d) `8000
New selling price = `1800 ⇒ Loss = 1920 – 1800 = 120 Solution: C.P. = (Difference in S.P.) ÷ (% Difference in
∴ Loss percentage = 100 × 120/1920 = 6.25%. profit)
Example 119: Ram buys some paper wind fans at 4 per C.P. of the horse = 1800 × 100 / [14 1/2 – (–8)]
rupee. He then buys the same number of paper wind = 1800 × 100/22.5 ⇒ C.P. = 8000.
fans from another shop at 5 per rupee. He puts them all Therefore, (d) is the correct answer.
together and sells them at 4 per rupee. Will he make a
profit or incur a loss? How much? Example 122: A man purchases two pens for `740. He sells
one at 12% profit and the other at 8% loss. Then he neither
115 115 gains nor loses. Find the cost price of each pen (in `).
(a) Profit = (b) Loss =
9% 9% (a) 324, 416 (b) 296, 444
100 100 (c) 288, 452 (d) 365, 375
(c) Profit = (d) Loss =
9% 9% Solution: C.P. of two pens = 740.
1
Solution: C.P. of one wind fan in the first shop = ` Let C.P. of the first pen be x and C.P. of the second pen be y.
4
Since there is no profit and loss in the whole transac-
1 tion, so 12% of x = 8% of y.
C.P. of one wind fan in the second shop = `
5 ⇒ x:y = 2:3
On mixing these two wind fans, the cost price of these 2
Hence, the cost of first pen =   × 740 = `296, and that
1 1 9 3
two will be = + = ` 3
4 5 20 of the second pen =   × 740 = `444.
9 5
9 Therefore, (b) is the correct answer.
So, C.P. of one wind fan = 20 = `
2 40 Example 123: A merchant buys 30 kg of rice at `40/kg
Actual price at which one wind fan is sold after com- and another 20 kg of rice at `30/kg. He mixes them and
1 sells half of the mixture at `36/kg. At what price should he
bining = ` sell the remaining mixture to get an overall profit of 30%?
4
Solution: Total cost for the entire quantity of rice =
1 9 1
S.P. – C.P. = − = (30 × 40) + (20 × 30) = `1800.
4 40 40 If his profit is 30%, then sales value = 1800 × (100+30)
It is positive; so it is profit. = `2340.

M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 24 23/12/22 7:24 PM

 Mathematical Reasoning and Aptitude 5.25

He sells 25 kg at `36/kg = `900. Therefore, to make the Principal

said amount of profit, he should sell the remaining 25 kg The money borrowed or lent out for a certain period is
of rice at `2340 – `900 = `1440. called the principal or the sum. It is denoted by P.
∴ The selling price of 1 kg of rice for the remaining 25
kg = 1440/25 = `57.6. Simple Interest Calculations
Interest is the extra money that the borrower pays for
Example 124: A dealer paid a car manufacturer `135000
using the lender’s money. Simple interest is denoted
for a car. What should be the selling price of the car if
by S.I.
after allowing a buyer 10% discount on the selling price,
Simple interest (S.I.) = P × R × T/100. Here, R and T are
he made a profit of 8% on his outlay?
basically rate of interest and time.
(a) `1,50,000 (b) `1,60,000 S.I
(c) `1,62,000 (d) `1,52,500 Principal amount is P = 100 ×
(R × T )
Solution: S.I.
T = 100 ×
Here, we have to make two kinds of assumptions. ( P × R)
Let CP of dealer = `100 S.I.
Profit = `8 R = 100 ×
SP = 100 + 8 = `108 (P × T)
Let us make other assumption to calculate SP after dis- Compound Interest
count of `10.
Now SP = `100 Here, we are exploring some simple questions on compound
Discount = `10 interest as per NTA-NET exam pattern. Compound interest
Net SP = `100 - Rs 10 = `90 is basically an amount paid not only on the principal amount
If Net SP is 90 then SP = `100 but also on whatever interest has been paid already. In other
If Net SP is 1 then SP = 100/90 ` words, interest amount is also added to the original principal
If Net SP is 108 then SP = 100/90 × 108 = `120 amount and that earns interest on the total investment.
As per question again Interest accumulated over one period is applied to
If CP is 100 then SP = `120 the principal before calculating the interest for the next
If CP is Rs 1,35,000 then SP = 120/100 × 1,35,000 = period. Typical intervals are quarterly (four times a year),
` 1,62,000 monthly, daily and on a regular basis.
Therefore, (c) is the correct answer. The formula for compound interest is given as follows:
Compound interest = A – P
Example 125: A man sells an article at a profit of 8%. If where A is the amount to be available at the end of
N
the cost price were 10% less and the selling price `18 less, ⎛ R ⎞
A = P ⎜1 + period.
then his profit would have been 15%. Find the cost price ⎝ 100 ⎟⎠
of the article.
(a) `430 (b) `450 Example 126: How much time will it take for an amount
(c) `220 (d) `400 of `900 to yield `81 as interest at 4.5% per annum of
simple interest?
Solution: Let C.P. of the article = 100 (a) 2 years (b) 3 years
Thus, old S.P. = `108 (c) 1 year (d) 4 years
New C.P. = 90
As the profit is 15%, so the new SP = 90 × (115/100) = Solution: P = `900
`103.5. S.I. = `81
The difference in the two S.P. = 108 – 103.5 = `4.5. T=?
If difference in S.P. is Rs 4.5, then C.P. = `100 R = 4.5%
If difference in S.P. is 18, then C.P. = (100/4.5) × 18 = `400. 100 × SI 100 × 81
Therefore, (d) is the correct answer. T= = = 2 years
PR 900 × 4.5
Example 127: Find S.I. on `6250 at 14% per annum for
Interest 146 days.
Simple Interest (a) `350 (b) `450
When we give some house for a rent, we get rent on it. (c) `550 (d) `650
Similarly, when we lend money to a borrower, the bor- Explanation
rower is to pay an extra amount of money to the lender. P = `6250, R = 14%
This extra money is known as the interest. If the interest
on a sum borrowed for a certain period is reckoned uni-  146  2
T=  = years.
formly, then it is called simple interest or the flat rate.  365  5

M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 25 23/12/22 7:24 PM

 5.26 Chapter 5

6250 ×14 ×(2 /5)

S.I. = = `350 n
100 ⎛ 7 ⎞
Then, 30,000 ⎜ 1 + = 34347
34,347
Therefore, (a) is the correct answer. ⎝ 100 ⎟⎠

Example 128: A certain sum of money amounts to `1008 107 ⎞

n
34,347 11,449 ⎛ 107 ⎞
2

1 ⇒ ⎛⎜ = = =⎜
in 2 years and to `1164 in 3 years. Find the sum and the ⎝ 100 ⎟⎠ ⎟
30,000 10,000 ⎝ 100 ⎠
2
rate of interest. ∴ n = 2 years.
(a) 800, 14% (b) 800, 13% Example 132: Simple interest on a certain sum of money
(c) 800, 12% (d) 800, 19% for 3 years at 8% per annum is half the compound interest
on `4000 for 2 years at 10% per annum. The sum placed
Explanation on simple interest is
1
S.I. for 1 years = `(1164 – 1008) = `156 (a) `1550 (b) `1650 (c) `1750 (d) `2000
2
⎛ 2 ⎞ Explanation
S.I. for 2 years = ` ⎜ 156 × × 2⎟ = `208
⎝ 3 ⎠
⎡ ⎛ 10 ⎞
2
⎤
Therefore, principal = `(1008 – 208) = `800. C.I. = ` ⎢4000 × ⎜ 1 + ⎟ − 4000⎥
Now, P = 800, T = 2 and S.I. = 208. ⎢⎣ ⎝ 100 ⎠ ⎥⎦
(100 × S.I.) (100 × 208)  ⎡ 11 11 ⎤
Therefore, rate = =  = 13% = ` ⎢4000 × × − 4000⎥ = `840
(P × T )  (800 × 2)  10 10
⎣ ⎦
Therefore, (b) is the correct answer.
⎛ 420 × 100 ⎞
∴ Sum = ` ⎜ = `1750
Example 129: The simple interest on a certain sum of ⎝ 3 × 8 ⎟⎠
1
money for 2   years at 12% per annum is `40 less than
2 Therefore, (c) is the correct answer.
1
the simple interest on the same sum for 3   years at Example 133: The compound interest on a certain sum
2
10% per annum. Find the sum. of money for 2 years at 10% per annum is `525. The
(a) `600 (b) `666 (c) `780 (d) `800 simple interest on the same sum for double the time at
half the rate per cent per annum is
Explanation
(a) `400 (b) `500 (c) `600 (d) `800
Let the sum be `x. ( x × 10 × 7)   ( x × 12 × 5) 
Then we can write:   –  = 40. Explanation
 (100 × 2)   (100 × 2)  Let the sum (that is principal amount here) be `P.
This can be written as: 7x/20 – 3x/10 = 40.
Therefore, we have x = `800. ⎡ ⎛ 2
⎤
10 ⎞
Therefore, (d) is the correct answer. Then, ⎢ P ⎜ 1 + ⎟ − P ⎥ = 525
⎢⎣ ⎝ 100 ⎠ ⎦⎥
Example 130: A man took a loan from a bank at the rate
of 12% p.a. simple interest. After 3 years, he had to pay ⎡⎛ 11 ⎞ 2 ⎤
`5400 interest only for the period. The principal amount ⇒ P ⎢⎜ ⎟ − 1⎥ = 525
borrowed by him was ⎢⎣⎝ 10 ⎠ ⎦⎥
(a) `12,000 (b) `11,000 ⎛ 525 × 100 ⎞
(c) `14,000 (d) `15,000 ⇒ P =⎜ ⎟ = 2500
⎝ 21 ⎠
Explanation Thus, principal amount = `2500
(100 × 5400) 
Here, the principal = `   = `15,000.
 (12 × 3)  ⎛ 2500 × 5 × 4 ⎞
So, S.I. = `⎜ ⎟⎠ = `500
Thus, the correct option is (d). ⎝ 100
Example 131: The compound interest on `30,000 at 7% Therefore, (b) is the correct answer.
per annum is `4347. The period (in years) is
1 Example 134: An amount doubles itself in 15 years
(a) 2 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 What is the rate of interest?
2
Explanation (a) 7.85% (b) 9.41% (c) 6.66% (d) 4.21%
Amount = `(30,000 + 4347) = `34,347
Explanation
Let the time be n years.
Let the principle be P.

M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 26 23/12/22 7:24 PM

 Mathematical Reasoning and Aptitude
As the amount doubles itself, the interest is P too.
So P = (P X R X 15) / 100.
⇒ R = 100/15 = 20/3% = 6.66%
Therefore, (c) is the correct answer.
Example 135: A certain sum of money amounts to `2500
in a span of 5 years and further to `3000 in a span of
7 years at a simple interest. The sum is
(a) `1800 (b) `2000
(c) `1400 (d) `1250
Explanation
2500 in the fifth year and 3000 in the seventh year.
Therefore, in the gap of 2 years, `500 has increased.
⇒ For a year, 500/2 = 250.
Thus, there is per year increase of `250; then in 5 years
⇒ 250 × 5 = 1250
Hence, the initial amount must be 2500 – 1250
= `1250.
Therefore, (d) is the correct answer.
Averages
The arithmetic mean or simply ‘average’ or ‘mean’ of a
group of values is the sum of the values divided by the
total number of values. It is one of the measures of central
tendencies. It is denoted by X, where X is the variable,
such as height, weight and score.
Average of n observations = Sum of observations/
n = ∑x n
Combined average: N1X1 + N2 X2 + … + Nn Xn/(N1 + N2 +
… + N ), where N , N , …, N are the respective numbers
n 1 2 n
of observations in different groups and X1, X2, …, Xn are
the averages.
Suppose a man covers a certain distance at x kmph and
an equal distance at y kmph, or x and y are the speeds
in going to a station and coming back; then the average
speed during the whole journey is
2xy
kmph
x+ y
Example 136: If a candidate scores 5, 15, 25, 10 and
15 marks in different subjects, then calculate the mean
marks scored by the candidate.
Solution:
5 + 15 + 25 + 10 + 15 70
Mean marks = = = 14
5 5
Example 137: The average age of 30 boys in a class is 15
years. If the age of the teacher is also included, then the
new average age becomes 16 years. What is the age of the
teacher?
Solution: Here, average age = total age/number
Total age = Average age × Number
M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 27
5.27
Total age = 15 × 30 = 450 years
New total age = 16 × 31 = 496
The new total age is higher because the age of the
teacher is also included in it.
Age of teacher = 496 − 450 = 46 years
Example 138: India scores 52 runs in the first 10 overs
in a 50 over one day cricket match against Pakistan. What
should be the run rate in the remaining 40 overs to reach
the target of 252 runs?
Solution: The score required in 40 overs = 252 − 52 =
200 runs
Average required run rate in 40 overs = 200/40 = 5
Example 139: The average monthly income of A and B is
`5050. The average monthly income of B and C is `6250
and the average monthly income of A and C is `5200. The
monthly income of A is
(a) `3500 (b) `4000 (c) `4050 (d) `5000
Solution: Total income of A and B = (5050 × 2) = `10,100
(i)
Total income of B and C = (6250 × 2) = `12,500(ii)
Total income of A and C = (5200 × 2) = `10,400(iii)
Adding (i), (ii) and (iii), we get 2(A + B + C) = 33,000
Or A + B + C = 16,500
But B + C = 12,500 from Equation (ii)
Hence, A = 16,500 − 12,500 = 4000
Therefore, (b) is the correct answer.
Example 140: A person divides his total route of journey
into two equal parts. The speeds for both the parts are
40 km/h and 30 km/h. Find his average speed during the
entire journey.
(a) 32 km/h (b) 34.3 km/h
(c) 36.3 km/h (d) 38 km/h
Solution: If x and y and z are two speeds during the
journey, we can use the following formula to calculate the
average speed =
2xy
(x + y)
(2 × 40 × 30)
Average speed =
(40 + 30)
(2 × 40 × 30)
= = 34.3 km/hr
70
Hence, (b) is the correct answer.
Example 141: A train starts full of passengers. At the
first station, it drops one-third of these and takes in 96
more. At the next, it drops one-half of the new total and
takes in 12 more. On reaching the next station, there are
23/12/22 7:24 PM
 5.28 Chapter 5

found to be 248 left. With how many passengers has the x x 5x

= + + hrs
train started with? (3 × 25) (4 × 30) (12 × 50)
(a) 464 (b) 520 (c) 564 (d) 680 18x 3x
= hrs = hrs
Solution: Let the train start with X passengers. 600 100
After dropping one-third and taking in 96 passengers, the 100 1
Then, average speed = (x/1) /(3x/100) = = 33 km/h
train has 3 3
X 2x 2x + 288 Thus, (b) is the correct answer.
X− + 96 = + 96 = Passengers
3 3 3 Example 144: The average salary of male employees in a
At the second station, the number of passengers firm was `6000 and that of females was `5600. The mean
salary of all the employees was `5800. What is the % of
2x + 288
= +12 female employees?
6
(a) 42% (b) 50% (c) 55% (d) 62%
2x + 288
Now, +12 = 248
6 Solution: Average salary of male employees = `6000
Or, 2x + 288 =1416 Average salary of female employees = `5600
∴   x = 564 Mean salary = `5800
Thus, (c) is the correct answer. By using allegation
(6000) (5600)
Example 142: There were 35 students in a hostel. If
(5800)
the number of students increases by 7, the expenses 200 200
of the mess increase by `42 per day while the average
expenditure per head diminished by `1. Find the original ∴ The ratio of male : female = 200:200 = 1:1
expenditure of the mess 1
Hence, % of female employees = ×100 = 50%
(a) 450 (b) 500 2
(c) 400 (d) 420 Therefore, option (b) is correct.
Solution: Example 145: Average present age of father, mother and
Suppose the average expenditure was `x daughter is 26 years. Average age of father and daughter
Total expenditure = 35x five years ago is 21 years. Find the age of mother after 10
According to question years
(35x + 42) (a) 26 yrs (b) 18 yrs (c) 32 yrs (d) 36 yrs
Average expenditure = =x–1
35 + 7
Solution: Total of ages of father, mother and daughter
35x + 42 = 42x – 42 = 26 × 3 = 78 yrs
x = 12
Thus, the original expenditure of the mess = 35 × 12 = `420 Total of ages of father and daughter = (21 × 2) + 10 = 52
Hence (d) is the correct answer. yrs
Age of mother = 78 – 52 = 26 years
Example 143: One third of a certain journey is covered Mother’s age after 10 yrs = 26 + 10 = 36 years
at the rate of 25 km/h, one fourth at the rate of 30 km/h, Thus, the correct answer is (d).
and the rest at 50 km/h. Find the average speed of whole Example 146: The average temperature for Wednesday,
journey. Thursday and Friday was 40°C. The average for Thursday,
1 Friday and Saturday was 41° C. If temperature on Saturday
(a) 34 km/h (b) 33 km/h
3 was 42° C, what was the temperature on Wednesday?
1 (a) 39° C (b) 44° C (c) 38° C (d) 41° C
(c) 35 km/h (d) 32 km/h
2 Solution:
Solution: Let the total journey be x km. Average temperature for Wednesday, Thursday and
x x Friday = 40° C
Then km travelled at the speed of 25 km/h and km Total temperature = 3 × 40 = 120° C
3 4
x x 5x Average temperature for Thursday, Friday and Saturday
at 30 km/hr and the rest of distance (x – – ) = was = 41° C
3 4 12
Total temperature = 41 × 3 = 123° C
travelled at the speed of 50 km/h.
Total time taken during the journey of x km Temperature on Saturday = 42° C

M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 28 23/12/22 7:24 PM

 Mathematical Reasoning and Aptitude
Now,
(Thursday + Friday + Saturday) – (Wednesday +
Thursday + Friday) = 123 –120;
Saturday – Wednesday = 3
Wednesday = 42 – 3 = 39° C
Calendar Questions
In NET examination, usually one simple calendar ques-
tion is asked. We need to be familiar with a few concepts.
It is necessary to know the concept of ‘odd days’ to
solve calendar problems. We are supposed to find the day
of the week on a given date.
Odd days: In a given period, the number of days more
than the complete weeks is called odd days.
Leap year: A leap year has 366 days. Every year divisible
by 4 is a leap year, but not if it is a century. Only every
fourth century year is a leap year.
Examples: Each of the years, such as 1880, 1988, 2004,
2012, 2016, 2020, 2024, is a leap year.
Each of the years, such as 400, 800, 1200, 1600 and
2000, is a leap year, but 1700, 1800, 1900, and so on are
not leap years.
Ordinary year: The year that is not a leap year is called
an ordinary year. An ordinary year has 365 days.
Day Sunday Monday Tuesday
Number 0 1 2 3
Example 147: What was the day of the week on 1 January
2001? [June 2009]
(a) Friday (b) Tuesday
(c) Sunday (d) Wednesday
Explanation
By the end of centuries 400, 800, 1200, 1600, 2000, 2400
and so on, there are no extra days left. It means that the
last year 2000 was Sunday.
As per convention, the week starts with Monday and
hence, the next day after last day of year 2000, that is,
1 January 2001, is Monday.
Therefore, (b) is the correct answer.
Example 148: 1 January 1995 was a Sunday. What
would be the day of the week on 1 January 1996?
 [December 2009]
(a) Sunday (b) Monday
(c) Wednesday (d) Saturday
Explanation
There is an increase of 1 day (odd day) in the subsequent
year. In case of a leap year (if the day is after February),
there will be an increase of 2 days.
M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 29
5.29
Counting of O dd Days
01 January 0001 is assumed to be a Monday.
1 ordinary year = 365 days = 52 weeks + ‘1 day’. That 1
extra day is counted as odd day.
1 leap year = 366 days = (52 weeks + 2 days)
1 leap year has 2 odd days.
100 years = 76 ordinary years + 24 leap years
= (76 × 1 + 24 × 2) odd days = 124 odd days
= (17 weeks + 5 days).
It means 5 odd days.
Therefore, the number of odd days in 100 years is 5.
Number of odd days in 200 years = (5 × 2) = 10 days. If
further divided by 7, then it gives us 3 odd days.
Number of odd days in 300 years = (5 × 3) = 15 days,
which means ‘1 odd day’.
Number of odd days in 400 years = (5 × 4 + 1) = 0 odd
day
Similarly, each one of 800th year, 1200th year, 1600th
year, 2000th year, 2400th year, and so on has 0 odd day.
Day of the W eek Related to O dd Days
We usually count days from Sunday.
For example, if as per our calculation the number
of ‘odd days’ is 2, then it means that the answer will be
Tuesday.
Wednesday Thursday Friday Saturday
4 5 6
Although 1996 is a leap year, the day in question is
in January, so there will be an increase of 1 day. Thus,
1 January 1996 is Monday.
Therefore, (b) is the correct answer.
Example 149: On 12 January 1980, it was a Saturday.
The day of week on 12 January 1979 was a
(a) Thursday (b) Friday
(c) Saturday (d) Sunday
Explanation
Although 1980 is a leap year, it would not have any impact
on the calculation as the date in the question is in January
month (and before 28 February). Thus, it is assumed as a
normal year. There is a gain of 1 day in the next year.
However, here, we will do backward calculation, and
subtract 1 day from the year 1980. If it was Saturday, then
the same day in the previous year was to be Friday.
Therefore, (b) is the correct answer.
Example 150: If 1 October is Monday, then 1 November
will be
(a) Thursday (b) Friday
(c) Sunday (d) Monday
23/12/22 7:24 PM
 5.30 Chapter 5

Explanation
October has 31 days. 1, 8, 15, 22 and 29 dates of October
will be Mondays. Thus, 1 November will be a Thursday.
Therefore, (a) is the correct answer.
Clock Questions
Angle (between minute hour and hour hand) = [(11/2) M
– 30H)] where M shows minutes and H shows hours.

Example 151: If the first day of the month is Sunday,
then what date will be 3 days after the fourth Wednesday
in the month? [June 1998]
(a) 24 (b) 29 (c) 27 (d) 30
Explanation
First Wednesday of the month will be on 4th day of the
month, 2nd Wednesday will be on 11th, 3rd Wednesday
on 18th and 4th Wednesday on 25th. Now, 3 days after
25th, which means 25 + 4 = 29th day of the month.
Therefore, (b) is the correct answer.
Example 152: If the first day of the ordinary year (other
than the leap year) was Friday, then which was the last
day of that year?
(a) Wednesday (b) Thursday
(c) Friday (d) Sunday
Explanation
An ordinary year has 365 days. Week starting with Friday
will end in Thursday. Hence, the 364th day (end of com-
plete 52 weeks) will be Thursday. The 365th day will be
Friday. Thus, the first and last days of an ordinary year
are same.
Therefore, (c) is the correct answer.
Example 153: It was Monday on 1 January 2007. What
was the day of the week on 1 January 2011?
(a) Sunday (b) Saturday
(c) Friday (d) Wednesday
Explanation
Odd days in 2007 = 1 (2007 is an ordinary year and we are
doing calculation from January 1)
Odd days in 2008 = 2 (2008 is a leap year)
Odd days in 2009 = 1 (ordinary year)
Odd days in 2010 = 1 (ordinary year)
Thus, 1 January 2011 will be Monday plus 5 days, that
is, Saturday.
Therefore, (b) is the correct answer.
Example 154: If the 4th Saturday of a month is the 22nd
day, then what day is the 13th day of the month?
(a) Tuesday (b) Wednesday
(c) Thursday (d) Friday
Explanation
The earlier 3 Saturdays are on 15th, 8th and 1st. If 15th is
Saturday, Thursday falls on 13th. Thus, 13th is Thursday.
Therefore, (c) is the correct answer.
155. We assume that the hours hand is closer to 12 than
the minutes hand in a conventional clock. At which
of the following timings the angle between 10 am
and 11 am will the angle between the minutes hand
and hours hand be 3°
(a) 10:45 (b) 10:50 (c) 10:54 (d) 10:58
Solution:
Let us assume that 10 hrs × mins.
Let’s measure the angle from 12 in clockwise direction.
Angle made by hours hand = 10(360°/12) + x(30°/60)
= 10(30°) + × (1/2) = 300° + x/2...(1)
Angle made by minutes hand = x(360°/60)
= x(6°)…(2)
Given that hours hand is nearer to 12 than minutes
hand, i.e., hours hand crossed minutes hand.
Hence, (1) – (2) = 3°
⇒ 300°+ x/2 – 6x = 3°
⇒ –11x/2 = –297
⇒ x = 54
Hence, the time will be 10:54.
Thus, the answer is option (c).
156. At which of the following timings the hands of the
clock will show the mirror image of 4:10?
(a) 7:10 (b) 7:40 (c) 7:50 (d) 8:10
Solution:
4:10 7: 50
It should be 7:50.
So, the answer is option (c).
157. A and C are running on a circular track with the
speeds of 20m/s and 24m/s. A is running in the
clockwise direction and C is running in the anti-
clockwise direction. At how many distinct points
these two will meet on the circular track?
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 11 (d) 10
Solution:
If two bodies are moving in opposite direction with
their speeds in the ratio a: b, the number is distinct
points at which they meet on a circular track = a + b.
Here, the ratio = 20:24 ⇒ 5:6
Therefore, number of distinct points = 5+6 = 11
So, the answer is option (c).
158. What is the angle made between the hour and min-
ute hands of a clock 30 minutes after they meet for
the third time in a day?
(a) 150 degrees (b) 165 degrees
(c) 180 degrees (d) can’t be calculated

M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 30 23/12/22 7:24 PM

 Mathematical Reasoning and Aptitude 5.31

Solution: 3. If one word belongs to a second group that further

In thirty minutes, the minute hand covers 180 belongs to the third group:
degrees and hour hand covers 15 degrees. So, angle
between the hands is 165 degrees. Cow, Mammals and Animal kingdom
So, the answer is option B.
159. For how many times in a day do the minute and hour
hands of a clock overlap?
(a) 23 (b) 24 (c) 22 (d) Any number
Solution: Mammals
In twelve hours, the hands overlap 11 times. So, in a
day, they overlap 22 times. Cow
So, the answer is option C.

Venn Diagrams
Animal kingdom
In NET Paper I examination, one or two questions are asked
about Venn diagrams almost every time. While the circles
or figures (also called sets) deal with individual data items,
the number shown in rectangle is the total number (rectan-
gle is also known as universal set). 4. If there is some relation between two items and these
There can be other shapes such as triangles and squares two items are completely related to a third item, then
to represent data. The following examples will help in better they will be shown as follows:
understanding on how to solve questions on Venn diagrams.
Men, Brother and Father

Venn Diagrams and Relationships

The main aim of this section is to test your ability about
the relation between some items of a group by diagrams.
In these questions, some figures of circles and some words
Father Brother
are given. You have to choose a figure that represents the
given words.
Some critical examples are as follows:
1. If all the words are of different groups, then they will Men
be shown by the diagram as follows:
Dog, Cow and Horse
Some brothers may be fathers and vice versa.
Similarly, some fathers may not be bothers and vice
Dog Cow Horse versa. But all the fathers and all the brothers belong
to the group men.
5. Two items are related to a third item to some extent but
All these three are animals but of different groups, not completely and the first two items are totally different:
and there is no relation between them. Hence, they Students, Boys and Girls
will be represented by three different circles.
2. If few words belong to a common group:
Cow, Horse and Mammals
Boys Students Girls

Mammals

The boys and girls are different genders while some

Cow Horse boys may be students. Similarly, among girls, some
may be students.
6. All the three items are related to one another but to
some extent and not completely:

M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 31 23/12/22 7:24 PM

 5.32
Boys, Students and Athletes
Boys
Students
Athletes
Some boys may be students and vice versa.
Some boys may be athletes and vice versa.
Some students may be athletes and vice versa.
7. Two items are related to each other completely and the
third item is entirely different from the first two:
Lions, Carnivorous and Cows
Lions
Carnivorous Cows
animals
All lions are carnivorous but no cow is a lion or a carnivore.
8. The first item is partially related to the second, but the
third is entirely different from the first two:
Dogs, Flesh eaters and Cows
Flesh
Dogs Cows
eaters
Some dogs are flesh eaters but not all, whereas any
dog or any flesh eater cannot be cow.
  There can be many other situations too.
  Now, we discuss Venn diagram to solve mathemati-
cal problems. This can be used as an easier approach
to solve problems, which can be practised by students
from non-mathematical background also.
Example 160: In a class, there are:
(a) 8 students who play football and hockey.
(b) 7 students who do not play football or hockey.
(c) 13 students who play hockey.
(d) 19 students who play football.
How many students are there in the class?
M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 32
Chapter 5
Solution
Step I
F H
The eight students who play both hockey and football
should go inside the intersection because they need to be
in both circles. The seven students who do not play either
of the two games should go outside because they should
not be in either of the circles.
Step II
F H
11 8 5
7
There are 13 students who play hockey, so the numbers
in the hockey circle should add up to 13.
There are 8 students in the intersection, so there are 5
who play hockey but not football.
Similarly, there are 19 students who play football.
The students who play football but not hockey must be
19 – 8 = 11.
Thus, the total number of students in the class = 11 + 8
+ 5 + 7 = 31.
There are 31 students in the class.
Example 161: In a class, there are 30 students.
(a) 21 students like Maths.
(b) 16 students like English.
(c) 6 students don’t like Maths or English.
How many students like both Maths and English?
Solution
Step I
M E
6
23/12/22 7:24 PM
 Mathematical Reasoning and Aptitude 5.33

The 6 students who do not like either of the two subjects Solution:
go outside because they should not be in either circles. We A. Yaman travels 600 m in 5 minutes, that means his
know that the total in the Maths circle needs to be 21, but we speed in m/s is
cannot put this in because we don’t know how many should Speed (in m/s) = 600 m / 300 seconds = 2 m/s
go inside the intersection (if they like both subjects) and Multiplying it by 18/5 will give us Km/hr
how many should go on the left (if they like only Maths). Speed (in Km/hr) = 2 x 18/5 = 7.2 km/hr
Step II B. Let’s assume that total journey = 1
Journey by train and bus = 2/15 + 9/20 = 35/60
   = 7/12
M E Journey on cycle = 1 – 7/12 = 5/12
Let’s verify this: 5/12 of 24 Kms = 10 Kms
21 in Thus, this statement is correct.
total like 3 C. Anita’s 8 day’s work = 1
Maths
Her 1 day’s work = 1/8
Her 2 day’s work = 1/8 × 2= 1/4
6
So, this statement is not correct.
Overall, (c) is the correct answer.
There are 30 students in the class, and if there are 6 stu-
dents outside the circles, then the other 3 sections must 163. The owner of a mobile phone charges his customer
add up to 24. 25% more than the cost price. If a customer paid
Furthermore, there are 21 students who like Maths, so 8,000/- for a mobile phone, then what was the cost
the middle and left sections must add up to 21. This leaves price of the mobile? [December 2021]
3 on the right as 24 − 21 = 3. (a) ` 5600 (b) ` 6000
(c) ` 6400 (d) ` 7000
Step III
Solution:
The owner sells the mobile at the profit of 25%. The
M E
customer pays ` 8000 for it.
Let the CP = ` x
8 13 3 SP = x + 25% of x = 1.25X
1.25x = ` 8000 (given)
X =8000/1.25
X = ` 6400
6 Thus, the CP = ` 6400
Correct answer is (c).
There are 16 students who like English. Hence, the 2 parts
164. Given the relationship between variables Y and X :
of the English circle should add up to 16 and so we can
Y = X2; if X changes by 6%. What is the percantage
find the number in the intersection by doing 16 − 3 = 13.
change in Y?
There are 21 students who like Maths. There are 8 (got by
(a) ~ 36% (b) ~ 12%
21 − 13) who like Maths but not English. If we check all the
(c) ~ 8% (d) ~ 6%
four facts given to us, then we can see that they are all true.
There are 13 students who like both Maths and English. Solution:
Y = X2
Mix Bag Questions Let the value of X = ` 100
Y = (100)2 = 10000
162. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct? New value of X = 100 + 6 = 106
 [December 2021] New value of Y = (106)2 = 11236
A. Yaman crosses a 600m long road in 5 minutes. His Thus, the difference in the value of Y = 11236 – 10000
speed is 7.2 km/hr = 1236
B. Vinod performs 2/15 of his total journey by train; Percentage difference = 1236 / 10000 × 100 = 12.36%
9/20 by bus and rest 10 km on cycle. His total = 12% apprx
journey is 24 km Short cut method = 6 + 6 + (6 × 6) / 100 = 12.36%
C. Anita can complete a work in 8 days. She can com- Correct Answer is (b)
plete 1/8 fraction of the work in two days.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below 165. A seller mixes 26 kg rice of a price of ` 20/kg, with
30 kg of different variety rice of a price of ` 36/kg.
(a) A only (b) B only
(c) A and B only (d) A and C only

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 5.34 Chapter 5

He sells both the mixed rices at ` 30/kg. What will A = 1/3 (B + C + D)

be the profit in percentage? [December 2021] 3A = B + C + D
Adding A on both sides
(a) 5% (b) 10% (c) 15% (d) 20% 3A + A = A + B + C + D
Solution: 4A = 80 (as per equation 1)
Total Input cost of 56 kg (26 + 30) of rice = ` (26 × 20 Thus, A = 80 / 4 = 20
+ 30 × 36) = ` (520 + 1080) = ` 1600 Alternative solution: The average of 4 terms is 20.
Then selling price of 56 kg rice =` 56 x 30 = ` 1680 Again, A represent the one third of sum of rest of
Profit = 1680 – 1600 = ` 80 three terms. This shows that A itself is equal to aver-
Profit percentage = 80/1600 × 100 = 5% age value. That average (of 20) is already given to us
in the question statement. Thus, the answer is (b).
166. A milk man purchases milk at ` X per litre and sells it
at ` 2x per litre. Still he mixes 2 litres of water with 169. X has one and a quarter times as many as Y, and Z has
every 6 litre of pure milk. What is his profit percent- one and a quarter times as many as X. Altogether,
age? [December 2021] they have 61. How many do Z, Y and X have, respec-
tively? [December 2021]
(a) 33.33 (b) 66.66 (a) 25, 16, 20
(c) 133.33 (d) 166.66 (b) 20, 16, 12
Solution: (c) 25, 20, 16
(d) 16, 20, 25
Let the total quantity = 6 L. And Price is ` 1 per L
Then total CP = 6 × 1 = ` 6 Solution:
Total quantity sold = 2 × 6 + 2 = 14 L X/Y = 5/4; that means X:Y = 5:4 OR
Total SP = 2 × 6 + 2 × 2 = ` 16 Y:X = 4:5            …….(i)
Profit = ` 16 – Rs 6 = ` 10 Z = 5/4 of X
Profit percentage = (16 – 6)/6 × 100 Z/X = 5/4 that means Z:X = 5:4 OR
        = 10/6 × 100 X:Z = 4 : 5           ………(ii)
        = 166.66% Now bringing (i) and (ii) together to put x, y and z to
Thus (d) is the answer. get their standard ratio.
167. The average monthly income of P and Q is ` 5,050/–. Y : X : Z
The avarage montly income of Q and R is ` 6,250/– 4 : 5
and that of P and R is ` 5,200. What will be the 4 : 5
monthly income of P? [December 2021] 4×4 : 5×4 : 5×5
(a) ` 3,000/– (b) ` 3,500/– 16 : 20 : 25
(c) ` 4,000/– (d) ` 4,500/– As per question: Z : Y : Z = 25 : 16 : 20
Solution: Thus, we get the ratio. As a matter of fact, their total
also come to be 61 (=25 + 16 + 20). So, no further
Let P, Q and R represent their respective monthly calculation is required to get their exact numbers. This
income. Then, we have: can be taken as their answer as well. (a) is the correct
Total income answer.
P + Q = 5050 × 2 = 10100
Q + R = 6250 × 2 = 12500 170. Consider the following statements:
P + R = 5200 × 2 = 10400  [December 2021]
Adding A. A single discount equivalent to three successive
2P + 2Q + 2R = 2(P + Q + R) = ` 10100 + 12500 + discounts of 10% 20% and 25% is 46%
10400 = ` 33000 B. A mobile is sold for ` 14,500 at a loss of 20%. The
P + Q + R = 33000 / 2 = ` 16500 cost price of the mobile is ` 18,225.
P + (12500) = 16500 C. If the loss is 1/3 of the selling price, the loss per-
P = ` 16500 – 12500 = ` 4000 centage is 28%
Thus (c) is the right answer.
Choose the correct answr from the options given below:
168. The average of 4 terms is 20, and the first term is (a) A and B only (b) B and C only
1/3rd of sum of the remaining 3 terms. What will be (c) A and C only (d) A only
the value of first term? [December 2021]
(a) 15 (b) 20 (c) 25 (d) 30 Solution:
Solution: Question Part A:
Let the terms are A, B, C and D The single discount equivalent to a series of 10%, 20%
Their total = A + B + C + D = 4 × 20 = 80 …..(1) and 25% is 46%

M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 34 23/12/22 7:25 PM

 Mathematical Reasoning and Aptitude 5.35

First, we want to see the impact of discounts of 10% and
20%. Then third discount will be taken into account.
The basic formula will be (X + Y – XY/100)
    = 10 +20 – (10 × 20/100)%
    = 30 – (200/100)% = (30 – 2)% = 28%
Now, we want to see the impact of this calculated dis-
count of 28% and 25% with same formula.
    = [28 + 25 – (28 × 25/100)]%
    = (53 – 7) % = 46%
Thus, the statement A is true.
Question Part B
CP of mobile = ` 18225, Loss = 20%, SP (given) = 14500
We can directly calculate SP.
SP = 18225 × (100 – 20)/100 = 18225 × 4/5 = ` 14580
Thus, calculated SP does not tally with the given SP,
so it’s a wrong statement.
Question Part C
Let loss = x and selling price = 3x
Loss = CP – SP
X = CP – 3X
CP = X + 3X = 4X
Now % age loss = 4X – 3X/ 4X × 100 = 25%
Hence, statement C is a false statement.
Only statement A is correct. (d) is the correct answer.
171. In a class of 65 students, 27 speak Hindi, 21 speak
English and 17 speak Bangla. 7 speak only Eng-
lish and HIndi, 6 speak only Hindi and Bangla and
5 speak only English and Bangla. If 12 speak only
Hindi then how many speak all the three languages.
 [November 2020]
(a) 5 Solution:
(b) 2 Statement I:
(c) 4 Compound Interest = SI of First year + SI for 1/2 year
(d) 3 (on total amount of first year)
Solution:
Students who speak all the three languages =
Students who can speak Hindi–(Students who can
speak only Hindi + Students who speak only English
and Hindi + Students who speak only Hindi and
Bangla)
= 27 – (12 + 7 + 6)
= 27 – 25
=2
Hence, (b) is the correct answer.
The Venn diagram for the following question is given
below.
English Hindi
172. How many terms are there in the series
 [December 2021]
168, 175, 185, _ _ _ _, 266?
(a) 13/13 (b) 14/14
(c) 15/15 (d) 16/16
Solution:
The first term in the series = 168
Common difference = 175 – 168 = 182 – 175 = 7
Let the number of terms in the series = n
The nth terms of the series = 266
Therefore, 168 + (n – 1) 7 = 266
7n = 266 – 168 + 7
7n = 105
n = 15
Thus, there are 15 terms given in the series.
The total terms can be calculated manually also.
173. Given below are two statements [December 2021]
Statement I: The compound interest on ` 280 for 18
months at 18% per annum is ` 44.3.
Statement II: At 5.6% rate of simple interest, a
certain sum will be doubled in 15 years.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
SI for first year = 10% of ` 280 = ` 28
Principal for next six months = 280 + 28 = ` 308
SI for these six months = 308 × 5 × 1 /100 = 15.40
Thus, total interest = ` 28 + ` 15.40 = ` 43.40
This question can be directly solved by compound
interest formula.
There is difference of 10 paisa in calculated amount
and given amount of ` 43.3 in the statement. Thus, it
is not correct.
Statement 2: As the amount is calculated on SI, that
amount will remain the same through 15 years. Thus,
in 15 years, the principal amount of ` 100 will add
15 × 5.6 = ` 84. So, it is not doubling. This statement
is also wrong.

7 7 12 174. A total of 324 coins of 20 paise and 25 paise make

2 a sum of ` 71. The number of 20 paise coins is
5 6  [December 2021]
(a) 144 (b) 124
4 (c) 200 (d) 125
Bangla

M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 35 23/12/22 7:25 PM

 5.36 Chapter 5

Solution:
x x 18
Let the coins of 20p = X – =
Then the coins of 25p = 324 – X 4 5 60
Total value = X. 20p + (324 – X).25p
    = X.1/5 + (324 – X).1/4 = 71 5x – 4x 3
=
    = X/5 + 81 – X/4 = 71 20 10
X/5 – X/4 = 71-81 = –10
–X/20 = – 10 3
X = 10 × 20 = 200 ⇒x= × 20 ⇒ 6 km
10
Hence, the number of 20p coins is 200. The correct
answer is (c). Hence, option b is the correct answer.
175. The incomes of Ravi and Kavita are in the ratio 2:3
are their expenditures are in the ratio 3:5. If each 178. The LCM of two numbers is 2376 while their HCF
saves ` 100, then Ravi’s income is  is 33. If one of the numbers is 297, then the other
 [December 2021] number is
(a) ` 200 (b) ` 600 (a) 216 (b) 264
(c) ` 400 (d) ` 100 (c) 642 (d) 792

Solution: Solution:
Let the incomes of Ravi and Kavita are 2x and 3x. As there are two numbers, the question is going to be
Income = Saving + Expenditure easy.
Expenditure = Income – saving, the ratio of their LCM × HCF = 1st number × 2nd number
expenditures is 3 : 5 2376 × 33 = 297 × 2nd number
Thus, 2x – 100/3x – 100 = 3/5 Thus 2nd number = 2376 × 33 / 297 = 264
3(3x – 100) = 5 (2x – 100) 179. If Amit works 5 hours a day, he can complete the job
9x – 300 = 10x – 500 in 8 days. Bobby can complete the same job in 10
x = ` 200 days by working 6 hours a day. If they start working
Thus, income of Ravi = 2x = 2 × 200 = ` 400 together 4 hours a day, in how many days, they will
176. The new cost of a mobile which has been discounted complete the job?
by 15% is 3230. What was the cost of the mobile (a) 3 days (b) 6 days
originally? [December 2021] (c) 4 days (d) 8 days
(a) ` 3675 (b) ` 3650 Solution:
(c) ` 3600 (d) ` 3800 The total hours taken by Amit to complete the job =
Solution: 5 × 8 = 40 hours
Let original cost (OC) = 100 The total hours taken by Bobby to complete the job =
New cost = 100 – 15 = 85 10 × 6 = 60 hours
85% of OC = 3230 Thus, one hour job work of Anu and Bobby
OC = 3230 x 100 / 85 = Rs 3800 1 1 60 + 40 100 1
The correct answer is (d). ⇒ + = = =
40 60 2400 2400 24
177. Neeraj Chopra gets late by 9 minutes for his sports Hence, Amit and Bobby together can finish the job in
ground from his home if he rides his cycle at a speed 24 hours. Working 6 hours a day, the job will be com-
of 4 km/hour. If he rides at 5 km/hour, he arrives 9 pleted in 6 days.
min early. Find the distance between his home and
sports ground. 180. The income of A is 150% of the income of B and the
(a) 8 km (b) 6 km income of C is 120% of the income of A. If the total
(c) 7 km (d) 10 km income of A, B and C together is Rs. 86000, what is
Solution: B’s income?
(a) 20000 (b) 26000
Let’s look at the basic relationship of time and distance.
(c) 28000 (d) 25000
Distance = Time × Speed
Solution:
Distance Let’s assume that income of B is Rs. 100, then
Time =
Speed 120 × 150
A : B : C = 150 : 100 :
Let the distance be x km. 100
Time difference calculated as per formula =
Calculated difference of time = 15 : 10 : 18

M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 36 23/12/22 7:25 PM

 Mathematical Reasoning and Aptitude 5.37

We can solve this question directly by this formula

10
Thus, share of B = × 86000 = ` 20000 Angle = [(11/2) M – 30 H] where M and H shows
43 minute and hours in the question.
So, our answer = [11/2 × 50 – 30 × 5]
181. Channel A can fill the storage tank in 6 hours, Chan-
nel B can fill the same in 10 hours and Channel C can         = 275 – 150 = 125 degrees
empty the tank in 5 hours. The first two Channels In case, we get answer in minus, even then the answer
are kept open for 3 hours in the beginning and then is to be taken in absolute value terms.
the third Channel is also opened. In what time is the
tank full? 184. What should be the angle in degrees between the
(a) 5 hours (b) 6 hours minute and hour hands of a clock at 8:30 ?
(c) 8 hours (d) 10 hours (a) 60 (b) 75
Solution: (c) 85 (d) 90
We take the LCM of 5, 6 and 10, and assume it to be
the total work, which is = 30 Solution:
Work done by A and B for 3 hours = (5 + 3) × 3 = 24 The answer by the direct formula
Balance of work = 30 – 24 = 6    = 11/2 x 30 - 30 x 8
When C is also opened for emptying the tank after    = 165 - 240 = - 75 degrees
3 hours, then A, B and C can complete the balance work Thus, minus sign is to be ignored. (b) is the correct
in [ 6 / (5 + 3 – 6)] = 3 hours answer.
Thus, total time taken to fill the tank = 3 + 3 = 6 hours.
Hence, option B is correct.
185. The difference between two numbers is 2500. If
182. The ratio of the ages of Anglika and her mother is larger number is divided by smaller number, the
1 : 4 and the ratio of the ages of Anglika’s mother quotient comes to be 8. The remainder comes to be
and her brother is 9 : 1. If Esha’s brother is 5 years 50. The smaller number is
younger than Anglika. What will be the age of Ang- (a) 250 (b) 280
lika’s mother after 4 years? (c) 350 (d) 400
(a) 36 years (b) 40 years
Solution:
(c) 45 years (d) 50 years
Let’s assume that numbers are ‘n’ and ‘2500 + n’
Solution: According To Question
Anglika : her mother = 1 : 4 2500 + n = 8n + 50
Her mother : Her brother = 9 : 1 8n – n = 2500 – 50
Anglika: Her mother : Her brother = 9 : 36 : 4 7n = 2450
Now, ATQ n = 2450 / 7 = 350
9x – 4x = 5 Hence, option C is the correct answer.
5x = 5
x=1 186. Rupesh borrowed ` 8300 from Shah at the rate of
Anglika mother age after 4 years = 36 × 1 + 4 = 40 12% per annum at simple interest for 3 years. He
years added some money to the borrowed sum. That
money was then lent to Sonia for 3 years at 14% per
183. What is the angle between two hands of a clock when annum interest. If Rupesh gains ` 939 in the whole
it is 50 minutes past 5 o’ clock? transaction. Find out what amount had he added
(a) 95° (b) 88° from his own pocket?
(c) 110° (d) 125° (a) ` 115 (b) ` 120
(c) ` 125 (d) ` 105
Solution:
Solution:
Let’s take the difference between two amounts of
interest.
(830 + x) × 14 × 3 830 × 12 × 3
– = 93.90
100 100
830 × 42 + 42x – 830 × 36 = 9390
42x + 830 × (42 – 36) = 9390

M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 37 23/12/22 7:25 PM

 5.38 Chapter 5

4410 x 65
42x = 9390 – 4980 ⇒ x = = 105 ⇒ =
42 y 35
Thus, the amount added = ` 105 After 20 years, ratio will be
187. The sum of five numbers is 5200. The average of x + 20
the first two numbers is 800 and average of last two ⇒
numbers is 1400. Determine the third number? y + 20
(a) 660 (b) 800
(c) 1500 (d) 1200 65 + 20 85 17
⇒ = =
Solution: 35 + 20 55 11
The sum of first two numbers is 2 × 800 = 1600
Hence, option (B) is the correct answer.
The sum of last two numbers is 2 × 1400 = 2800
Thus, the middle third number = 5200 – (1600 + 2800) 189. A shopkeeper sold a shirt at ` 300 after giving 10%
   = 800 discount on labelled price. Had he not given the dis-
188. The sum of the present ages of a father and his son count, he would have earned a profit of 15% on the
is 100 years. 5 Years ago their ages was in the ratio cost price. What was the cost price of the shirt?
of 2 : 1. The ratio of the age of father and son after (a) ` 190 (b) ` 195
20 years will be (c) ` 200 (d) ` 198
(a) 15 : 13 (b) 17 : 11 Solution:
(c) 11 : 19 (d) 20 : 23
Let Cost Price = 100
Solution: Labelled Price = 100 + 15 = 115
Let us assume that present ages of father and son are Selling Price after discount = 115 – 10% of 115
x and y.     = 115 – 11.5 = 103.50
We have been given, x + y = 100 Thus 103.50 % of CP = 207
⇒ x = 100 – y ..............(i) CP = 207 × 100 / 103.50 = 200
Five years ago, their ages was in ratio of 2 : 1 190. There is a two digit number. The digits are inter-
x–5 2 changed and the number thus formed is added to
⇒ = the original number. The sum of two such numbers
y–5 1 must be divisible by
x – 5 = 2y – 10 (a) 11 (b) 9
2y – x – 5 = 0 (c) 5 (d) 3
x – 2y + 5 = 0.............(ii) Solution:
Putting the value given eqn. (i) in eqn. (ii) Let the two digits at ten’s place and unit place are x
100 – y – 2y + 5 = 0 and y.
100 – 3y + 55 = 0 Thus, the number is 10x + y.
105 = 3y After interchanging the digits, the number obtained
105 = 10y + x.
Thus y = = 35 ATQ,
3 The new number formed = 10x + y + 10y + x
   = 11x + 11y = 11 (x + y)
Now putting value of y in eqn. (i) This number is exactly divisible by 11.
x = 100 – 35 = 65 years Hence, option (A) is the correct answer.
Thus, the ratio of present ages of father and son

M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 38 23/12/22 7:25 PM

 Mathematical Reasoning and Aptitude 5.39

A s s e s s Yo u r L e a r n i n g

nuMBER SERIES COMPLEtIOn

1. Find the missing number in the following series. 2/3, 4/7, ?, 11/21, 16/31
512, 256, 128, ?, 32, 16, 8 (a) 10/8 (b) 6/10 (c) 5/10 (d) 7/13
(a) 52 (b) 61 (c) 64 (d) 56 11. Find the wrong number in the following sequence.
2. Find the missing number in the following series. 125, 127, 130, 135, 142, 153, 165
2, 7, 17, 32, 52, 77, ? (a) 130 (b) 142 (c) 153 (d) 165
(a) 107 (b) 91 (c) 101 (d) 92 12. Find the missing number in the following series.
3. Find the missing number in the following series. 3, 10, 101, ?
15, 18, 24, ?, 45 (a) 10,101 (b) 10,201
(a) 27 (b) 30 (c) 33 (d) 36 (c) 10,202 (d) 11,012
4. Fill in the missing number in the following arrange- 13. Find the missing number in the following series.
ment based on some principle. 1, 1, 4, 8, 9, 27, 16, ?
(a) 32 (b) 64 (c) 81 (d) 256
8 6 4 14. Find the missing number in the following series.
3 ? 7 3, 5, 13, 43, 177, ?
(a) 891 (b) 713 (c) 885 (d) 899
14 16 18
15. Find the missing number in the following series.
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 8 3, 4, 7, 7, 13, 13, 21, 22, 31, 34, ?
(a) 41 (b) 43 (c) 45 (d) 47
5. Find the missing number in the following series.
8, 24, 12, ?, 18, 54 16. Find the missing number in the following series.
(a) 26 (b) 24 (c) 36 (d) 32 10, 24, 52, ?, 220, 44, 892
(a) 104 (b) 98 (c) 112 (d) 108
6. What is the number that comes next in the sequence?
12, 20, 100, ?, 8,900, 88,900, 8,88,900 17. Which of the following will not be a number of the
(a) 1,000 (b) 900 (c) 800 (d) 400 series
1, 8, 27, 64, 125, ?
7. Find the missing number in the following series.

A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
(a) 256 (b) 512 (c) 729 (d) 1,000
28, 33, 31, 36, ?, 39
(a) 30 (b) 32 (c) 33 (d) 34 18. Find the missing number in the following series.
13, 32, 24, 43, 35, ?, 46, 65, 57, 76
8. Find the missing number in the following series.
(a) 45 (b) 52 (c) 54 (d) 55
1, 3, 4, 8, 15, 27, ?
(a) 45 (b) 50 (c) 55 (d) 60 19. Find the missing number in the following series.
23, 33, 46, 62, 81, 103, ?
9. Find the missing number in the following series.
(a) 126 (b) 130 (c) 133 (d) 128
4, 16, 8, 64, ?, 256
(a) 16 (b) 24 (c) 32 (d) 20 20. Find the wrong number in this following sequence.
10, 26, 74, 218, 654, 1946
(a) 26 (b) 74 (c) 218 (d) 650
10. Find the missing number in the following series.

LEttER SERIES COMPLEtIOn

21. Find the missing letters in the following series. 24. Find the missing letters in the following series.
QAR, RAS, SAT, TAU, __________ JAK, KBL, LCM, MDN, __________
(a) UAV (b) TAS (c) UAT (d) TAT (a) OEP (b) NEO (c) MEN (d) PFQ
22. Find the missing letters in the following series. 25. Find the missing letters in the following series.
FTG, GTF, HTI, ITH, __________ AK, EO, IS, __________, QA, UE
(a) JTK (b) HTL (c) HTK (d) JTI (a) LV (b) MW (c) NX (d) LW
23. Find the missing letters in the following series. 26. Find the missing letters in the following series.
SCD, TEF, UGH, __________, WKL ELFT, GLHT, ILJT, __________, MLNT
(a) CMN (b) UJI (c) VIJ (d) IJT (a) OLPT (b) LLMT (c) KLMT (d) KLLT

M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 39 23/12/22 7:25 PM

 5.40
27. Find the missing letters in the following series.
WE, SG, PJ, LN, __________
(a) IS (b) SI (c) PT (d) QT
28. Find the missing letters and numbers in the following
series.
C2A, E5D, G8G, I11J, __________
(a) K14M (b) M14K
(c) L14M (d) M14L
Coding and Decoding
31. If ‘CERTAIN’ is coded as ‘XVIGZRM’ in a particular
code language, how will ‘MUNDANE’ be coded in that
language? 
(a) NFMWZMX (b) VMZWMFN
(c) NFMWZMV (d) MIMXZMV
32. If ‘EDUCATION’ is coded as NOITACUDE, then ‘RED
FORT’ will be coded as
(a) TROFDER (b) FORTRED
(c) TROFRED (d) FORTDER
33. In a certain code, ‘MOTHER’ is written as ‘OMHURF’.
How will ‘ANSWER’ be written in that code?
(a) NBWRRF (b) MAVSPE
(c) NBWTRD (d) NAWTRF
34. In a certain code, ‘COMPUTER’ is written as
‘­RFUVQNPC’. How is ‘PRINTER’ written in the same
code?
(a) R F U O J S P (b) P F U O J S R
(c) P S J O U F P (d) R S J O U F P
35. BF is related to DH in the same way as PS is related to
(a) SU (b) SV (c) RV (d) RU
36. CLAIM : DNDMR :: CHARGE : ?
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
(a) DJDVLK (b) DIDWLL
(c) DJCVMK (d) DIDWKL
37. COLD : FSQJ :: HEAT : ?
(a) XJFY (b) KIGZ
(c) KIFZ (d) YIGY
38. In a certain code, ‘PAPER’ is written as ‘SCTGW’. How
is ‘MOTHER’ written in that code?
(a) POXJJT (b) ORVLGW
(c) PQXKJV (d) PQVJGT
39. If HE = 13 and MOVER = 73, then BASIC = ?
(a) 55 (b) 34 (c) 50 (d) 49
40. In a certain code, 15789 is written as XTZAL and 2346
is written as NPSU. How is 235491 written in that
code?
(a) NPTSL (b) NPTUL
(c) NBTSL (d) PNTSL
41. If A stands for 5, B for 6, C for 7, D for 8 and so on,
what do the following numbers stand for: 22, 25, 8,
22 and 5? 
(a) PRIYA (b) NEEMA
(c) MEENA (d) RUDRA
42. If ‘CALENDAR’ is coded as ‘CLANAEDR’, then the code
for CIRCULAR is
M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 40
Chapter 5
29. Find the missing letters in the following series.
QAR, RAS, SAT, TAU, __________
(a) UAV (b) UAT
(c) TAS (d) TAT
30. Find the next pair in the following sequence.
C − 3, E − 6, G − 12, I − 24, K − 48, __________
(a) S − 48 (b) M − 96
(c) L − 96 (d) O − 48
(a) LACANDER (b) CRIUCALR
(c) CLANADER (d) None of the above
43. In a code sign, ‘DRLAL’ is coded as 62014314. How is
‘CAMEL’ coded?
(a) 5315714 (b) 35729310
(c) 5313613 (d) None of the above
44. If ‘LIGHT’ is coded as ‘GILTH’, then find the code for
‘RAINY’.
(a) IARYN (b) ARINY
(c) NAIRY (d) RINAY
45. If all the letters in the word ‘ARGUMENT’ are rear-
ranged in alphabetical order and substituted by the
letter immediately following it in English alphabet,
then what will be the new arrangement of letters?
(a) BFHNOSUV (b) BFHONSWV
(c) BFHNOUSV (d) BFHNOQUV
46. Which of the following pairs have the same relation-
ship as OFTEN : FOTNE?
(a) HEART : TRAHE (b) OPENS : SNEOP
(c) RISKY : IRSYK (d) FIRST : IFRST
47. If water is called food, food is called tree, tree is called
sky, and sky is called wall, then on which of the fol-
lowing a fruit grows?
(a) Water (b) Food (c) Sky (d) Tree
48. If red means blue, blue means green, green means
orange, orange means pink, and pink means black,
then what is the colour of clear sky?
(a) Orange (b) Green
(c) Blue (d) None of the above
49. In a certain code, ‘bi nie pie’ means ‘some good jokes’,
‘nie bat lik’ means ‘some real stories’, and ‘pie lik tol’
means ‘many good stories’. Which word in that code
means ‘jokes’?
(a) bi (b) nie
(c) pie (d) None of the above
50. If ‘table’ is called ‘chair’, ‘chair’ is called ‘cupboard’,
‘cupboard’ is called ‘chalk’, ‘chalk’ is called ‘book’,
‘book’ is called ‘duster’, and ‘duster’ is called ‘table’,
then what does the teacher use to write on the
blackboard?
(a) Book (b) Cupboard
(c) Table (d) Duster
51. In a certain code language,
(A) ‘pit dar na’ means ‘you are good’.
(B) ‘dar tok pa’ means ‘good and bad’.
23/12/22 7:25 PM
 Mathematical Reasoning and Aptitude 5.41

(C) ‘tim na tok’ means ‘they are bad’.
In that language, which word stands for ‘they’?
(a) na (b) tok (c) tim (d) pit
52. In a certain code language, ‘743’ means ‘mangoes are
good’, ‘657’ means ‘eat good food’, and ‘934’ means
‘mangoes are ripe’. Which of the following digit in
that code means ‘ripe’?
(a) 9 (b) 4
(c) 5 (d) 7
53. In a certain code, ‘256’ means ‘you are good’, ‘637’
means ‘we are bad’, and ‘358’ means ‘good and bad’.
Which of the following digits in that code means ‘and’?
(a) 2 (b) 5
(c) 8 (d) 3
54. In a certain code language, ‘526’ means ‘sky is blue’,
‘24’ means ‘blue colour’, and ‘436’ means ‘colour is
fun’. Which of the following digits in that language
means ‘fun’?
(a) 5 (b) 4
(c) 3 (d) 2
55. In a certain code language, ‘123’ means ‘hot filtered
coffee’, ‘356’ means ‘very hot day’, and ‘589’ means
‘day and night’. Which of the following digits in that
language means ‘very’?
(a) 9 (b) 5
(c) 8 (d) 6

Choose Odd Word

56. Choose the word that is least like the other words in
the group.
(a) Moon (b) Sun
(c) Universe (d) Planets
57. Choose the word that is least like the other words in
the group.
(a) Chemistry (b) Geography
(c) Zoology (d) Botany
58. Choose the word that is least like the other words in
the group.
(a) Mechanic (b) Mason
(c) Blacksmith (d) Architect
59. Choose the word that is least like the other words in
the group.
(a) Sister (b) Friend
61. Choose the word that is least like the other words in
the group.
(a) Lion (b) Cheetah
(c) Bear (d) Tiger
62. Choose the word that is least like the other words in
the group.
(a) Sheet (b) Cot
(c) Spain (d) Pillow
63. Find the odd word among the following:
(a) Kiwi (b) Eagle
(c) Penguin (d) Ostrich
64. Find the odd word among the following:
(a) Lake (b) Sea
(c) River (d) Pool
65. Find the odd word among the following:

A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
(c) Brother (d) Father (a) Arrow (b) Axe
60. Choose the word that is least like the other words in (c) Knife (d) Dagger
the group.
(a) Zinc (b) Aluminium
(c) Copper (d) Mercury

Odd Pairs
66. Find the odd pair of words. 70. Find the odd pair of words.
(a) Mason : Wall (b) Cobbler : Shoe (a) Room : House (b) Atom : Electron
(c) Farmer : Crop (d) Chef : Cook (c) Car : Engine (d) Milk : Water
67. Find the odd pair of words. 71. Find the odd number.
(a) Bottle : Wine (b) Cup : Tea (a) 13 (b) 53 (c) 63 (d) 23
(c) Pitcher : Water (d) Racket : Shuttle 72. Find the odd number.
68. Find the odd pair of words. (a) 51 (b) 144 (c) 64 (d) 121
(a) Lion : Roar (b) Snake : Hiss 73. Find the odd number.
(c) Frog : Bleat (d) Bees : Hum (a) 15 (b) 21 (c) 24 (d) 28
69. Find the odd pair of words. 74. Find the odd number.
(a) Daring : Timid (a) 324 (b) 244 (c) 136 (d) 352
(b) Beautiful : Pretty
75. Find the odd number.
(c) Clarity : Ambiguity
(a) 25 (b) 27 (c) 125 (d) 343
(d) Youth : Adult

M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 41 23/12/22 7:25 PM

 5.42 Chapter 5

Choose the Odd Number Pair or Group

76. Find the odd number pair.
(a) 95 : 82 (b) 69 : 56
(c) 55 : 42 (d) 48 : 34
77. Find the odd number pair.
(a) 2 : 8 (b) 3 : 27
(c) 4 : 32 (d) 5 : 125
78. Find the odd number pair.
(a) 80 : 9 (b) 64 : 8
(c) 36 : 6 (d) 7 : 49
79. Find the odd number pair.
(a) 3 : 5 (b) 5 : 3 (c) 6 : 2 (d) 7 : 3
80. Find the odd number pair.
(a) 1 : 0 (b) 3 : 8
(c) 6 : 35 (d) 7 : 50
81. Find the odd number pair.
(a) 23 : 29 (b) 19 : 25
(c) 13 : 17 (d) 3 : 5
82. Find the odd number pair.
(a) 343 : 7 (b) 243 : 9
(c) 512 : 8 (d) 216 : 6
83. Find the odd number pair.
(a) 13 : 21 (b) 19 : 27
(c) 15 : 23 (d) 16 : 24
84. Find the odd number pair.
(a) 14 : 56 (b) 12 : 36
(c) 23 : 92 (d) 15 : 35
85. Find the odd number pair.
(a) 5 : 26 (b) 6 : 37
(c) 7 : 49 (d) 8 : 65

Choose the Odd Letter Group

86. Find the odd letter group.
(a) ACE (b)
(c) UWY (d)
87. Find the odd letter group.
(a) RTW (b)
(c) IKG (d)
88. Find the odd letter group.
(a) KOM (b)
(c) BFD (d)
89. Find the odd letter group.
(a) BHE (b)
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
91. Find the odd letter group.
PRT (a) BYX (b) LPO
MNO (c) EVU (d) FUT
92. Find the odd letter group.
QOM (a) CHM (b) HMR
BDF (c) DIN (d) LPU
93. Find the odd letter group.
LPN (a) XUW (b) DAC
GLI (c) PMN (d) HEG
94. Find the odd letter group.
DJG (a) RAT (b) SAT

(c) SYV (d) JPM (c) CAT (d) MAT

90. Find the odd letter group. 95. Find the odd letter group.
(a) BCD (b) MNO (a) OTP (b) ABA
(c) KLM (d) PQR (c) SZX (d) UVB

Analogy
It is important to note that the analogy questions also
cover many aspects of ‘relationships’. Relationships have
been specifically mentioned in NET Paper 1 syllabus.
Direct or Simple A nalogy
96. As ‘Boxing’ is to ‘Ring’, ‘Tennis’ is to
(a) Pool (b) Court
(c) Arena (d) Ground
97. ‘Doctor’ is related to ‘Patient’ in the same way as
‘­Consultant’ is related to
(a) Customer (b) Accused
(c) Magistrate (d) Client
98. ‘Easiness’ is related to ‘Difficulty’ in the same way as
‘Comfort’ is related to
(a) Hardship (b) Rest
(c) Poverty (d) Difficulty
99. As ‘Pen’ is related to ‘Ink’, ‘Needle’ is related to
(a) Thread (b) Cloth
(c) Stitching (d) Art
100. ‘Chef’ is related to ‘Kitchen’ in the same way as
‘­Scientist’ is related to
(a) Medicine (b) Pharmacy
(c) Laboratory (d) Chemist
101. ‘Engineer’ is related to ‘Production’ in the same way
as ‘Doctor’ is related to
(a) Cure (b) Hospital
(c) Body (d) Surgery
102. As ‘Design’ is related to a ‘Structure’, ‘Rhythm’ is
related to
(a) Music (b) Art
(c) Kathak (d) Dance

M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 42 23/12/22 7:25 PM

 Mathematical Reasoning and Aptitude
103. ‘Drama’ is related to ‘Director’ in the same way as
‘­Magazine’ is related to
(a) Story (b) Editor
(c) Reader (d) Printer
104. ‘Demonstrator’ is related to ‘Laboratory’ in the same
way as ‘Leader’ is related to
(a) Podium (b) Assembly
(c) Parliament (d) State
105. ‘Author’ is related to ‘Book’ in the same way as
‘­Choreographer’ is related to
(a) Drama (b) Dance
(c) Masque (d) Opera
106. ‘Starvation’ is related to ‘Nutrition’ in the same way
as ‘Exhaustion’ is related to
(a) Energy (b) Bravery
(c) Freshness (d) Courage
107. ‘Science’ is related to ‘Laboratory’ in the same way as
‘Astronomy’ is related to
(a) Observatory (b) Telescope
(c) Space (d) Station
108. ‘Bibliophile’ is related to ‘Books’ in the same way as
‘Patriot’ is related to
(a) Defence (b) Country
(c) Mankind (d) Society
109. ‘Ancestor’ is related to ‘Descendant’ in the same way
as ‘Beautiful’ is related to
(a) Gloomy (b) Handsome
(c) Girl (d) Ugly
110. ‘Bee’ is related to ‘Hive’ in the same way as ‘Rat’ is
related to
(a) Burrow (b) Nest
(c) Hole (d) Stab
Completing the Analogous Pair
In each of the following questions, there is a certain rela-
tionship between two given words. On the left side of ::,
one word is given, whereas on the right side of ::, another
word is to be found from the given alternatives having the
same relation with this word as the words of the given
pair. Now choose the correct alternatives for the questions
given below.
111. Terrible : Serene :: Roof : ?
(a) Door (b) Floor
(c) Walls (d) Pillars
Blood Relations
126. If F is the brother of A, C is the daughter of A, K is the
­sister of F, and G is the brother of C, then who is the
uncle of G?
(a) F (b) K
(c) C (d) None of the above
127. Ravi said to Seeta, ‘Your mother is the daughter of
my grandmother.’ How are Ravi and Seeta related?
(a) Uncle–niece (b) Father–daughter
(c) Cousin (d) None of the above
M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 43
5.43
112. Man : Biography :: Nation : ?
(a) Democracy (b) Constitution
(c) Geography (d) History
113. Victory : Encouragement :: Failure : ?
(a) Bad (b) Defeat
(c) Anger (d) Frustration
114. Dilatory : Expeditious :: Direct : ?
(a) Tortuous (b) Circumlocutory
(c) Straight (d) Curved
115. Foundation : Edifice :: Constitution : ?
(a) Government (b) State
(c) Nation (d) Cabinet
116. Taxonomy : Classification :: Pedology : ?
(a) Nature (b) Farming
(c) Soil (d) Mountain
117. Monotony : Variety :: Crudeness : ?
(a) Refinement (b) Raw
(c) Sobriety (d) Simplicity
118. Interview : Job :: Armistice : ?
(a) War (b) Treaty
(c) Amnesty (d) Agreement
119. Wizard : Witch :: Monk : ?
(a) Madam (b) Widow
(c) Nun (d) Virgin
120. Burglar : House :: Pirate : ?
(a) Sea (b) Ship
(c) Sailor (d) Crew
121. Bird : Chirp :: Horse : ?
(a) Bray (b) Neigh
(c) Race (d) Stable
122. Insert : Extract :: Mighty : ?
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
(a) Thin (b) Strong
(c) Frail (d) Feeble
123. Ornithologist : Birds :: Anthropologist : ?
(a) Plants (b) Animals
(c) Mankind (d) Environment
124. Oxygen : Burn :: Carbon dioxide : ?
(a) Isolate (b) Foam
(c) Extinguish (d) Explode
125. Seismograph : Earthquake :: Tachometer: ?
(a) Volcanoes (b) Resistance
(c) Landslides (d) Strains
128. A has three children. B is the brother of C, and C is
the sister of D; E, who is the wife of A, is the mother
of D. There is only one daughter of the husband of E.
What is the relation between D and B?
(a) B is brother of D
(b) B is not related to D
(c) D is sister of B
(d) None of the above
23/12/22 7:25 PM
 5.44
129. Dinesh said to Naveen, ‘The person playing this game
is the youngest of the two brothers of the daughter
of my father’s wife.’ How is the person playing the
game related to Dinesh?
(a) Cousin (b) Brother
(c) Son (d) Brother-in-law
130. Pointing to a picture of a boy, Somesh said, ‘He is the
son of the only son of my mother.’ How is Somesh
related to that boy?
(a) Brother (b) Uncle
(c) Cousin (d) Father
131. Introducing a woman, Namrata said, ‘She is the
­daughter-in-law of the grandmother of my father’s
only son.’ How is the woman related to Namrata?
(a) Grandmother (b) Sister-in-law
(c) Sister (d) Mother
132. Pointing to a photograph Raveena says, ‘He is the
son of the only son of my grandfather.’ How is the
man in the photograph related to Raveena?
Direction Sense
136. Raman travels a distance of 5 km in the south direc-
tion. He turns to his right. After walking 3 km, he
turns to the left and walks 5 km. Now in which direc-
tion is he from the starting place?
(a) West (b) South
(c) South-west (d) North-east
137. Ravi left home and cycled 10 km towards the south.
He, then, turned right and cycled 5 km, and then
again turned right and cycled 10 km. After this, he
turned left and cycled 10 km. How many kilometres
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
will he have to cycle to reach his home straight?
(a) 15 (b) 20 (c) 25 (d) 30
138. Chintan walked 15 km towards the west, and then,
he turned left and walked for 20 km. Then, he moved
towards the east and walked 25 km, and finally, turn-
ing left, he covered 20 km. How far was he from his
starting point?
(a) 20 km (b) 30 km
(c) 10 km (d) None of the above
139. Vijay starts walking towards the north. After walking
some distance, he turns to his right. Then, walking
for a while, he turns to his left and walks for 1 km,
and then, he turns to his left again. In which direc-
tion is he moving now?
(a) North (b) South
(c) West (d) East
140. Rashi travels 20 km towards the north. Then, she
turns right and travels 30 km. Then, she turns right
and travels a distance of 35 km. Then, she turns left
and walks 15 km. Finally, she turns left and walks 15
km. In which direction and how many kilo metres is
she from the starting position?
(a) 5 km west (b) 30 km east
(c) 30 km west (d) 45 km east
M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 44
Chapter 5
(a) Uncle (b) Brother
(c) Cousin (d) None of the above
133. Vinita, who is the sister-in-law of Amit, is the
­daughter-in-law of Kamni. Deepak is the father of
Sandy who is the only brother of Amit. How is Kaly-
ani related to Ashok?
(a) Mother-in-law (b) Aunt
(c) Wife (d) None of the above
134. Pointing to a woman in a picture, Amit said, ‘Her
granddaughter is the only daughter of my brother.’
How is the woman related to Amit?
(a) Sister (b) Grandmother
(c) Mother-in-law (d) Mother
135. X and Y are siblings. C and D are wife and husband,
respectively; X is the only son of C. F is the sister of
D. How is Y related to F?
(a) Niece (b) Nephew
(c) Uncle (d) Cousin
141. Kumar walked 5 m towards the north, took a left
turn and walked for 10 m. He then took a right turn
and walked for 20 m, and again took a right turn and
walked 10 m. How far is he from the starting point?
(a) 20 m   (b) 15 m  (c) 25 m  (d) 30 m
142. Shalini walked 15 m towards the south, took a right
turn and walked 3 m. She took a right turn again and
walked 15 m before s­ topping. Which direction did
Shalini face after ­stopping?
(a) West (b) South
(c) East (d) North
143. Town D is 12 km towards the north of town A. Town
C is 15 km towards the west of town D. Town B is
15 km towards the west of town A. How far and in
which direction is town B from town C?
(a) 15 km towards the north
(b) 12 km towards the south
(c) 3 km towards the south
(d) 12 km towards the south
144. Read the following carefully and answer the ques-
tion given below.
1. Point B is 4  m towards the north of Point A.
2. Point E is 8  m towards the east of Point B.
3. Point C is 5  m towards the east of Point A.
4. Point D is 9 m towards the west of Point C.
How far should one walk from Point A in order
to reach Point D?
(a) 4 m (b) 9 m
(c) 5 m (d) 14 m
145. Rahul started from Point A and travelled 8 km
towards the north to Point B; he then turned right
and travelled 7 km to Point C; and from Point C, he
23/12/22 7:25 PM
 Mathematical Reasoning and Aptitude 5.45

took the first right and drove 5 km to Point D. Then,
he took another right and travelled 7 km to Point E,
and finally, he turned right and travelled for another
3 km to Point F. What is the distance between Points
F and B?
(a) 1 km  (b) 2 km  (c) 3 km  (d) 4 km
Seating Arrangement
146. A, P, R, X, S and Z are sitting in a row. S and Z are in
the centre. A and P are at the ends. R is sitting to the
left of A. Who is to the right of P?
(a) S (b) X
(c) Z (d) None of the above
147. A, B, C, D and E are sitting on a bench. A is sitting
next to B; C is sitting next to D, and D is not sitting
with E who is on the left end of the bench. C is on the
second position from the right. A is to the right of B
and E. A and C are sitting together. In which position
is A sitting?
(a) Between B and D
(b) Between B and C
(c) Between E and D
(d) Between C and E
148. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a circle
and are facing the centre.
1. P is second to the right of T who is the neighbour
of R and V.
2. S is not the neighbour of P.
3. V is the neighbour of U.
4. Q is not between S and W. W is not between U
and S.
Which two of the following are not neighbours?
(a) R and V (b) U and V
(c) R and P (d) Q and W
149. J, D L, H and F are travelling to a station; each one
reaches at a different time. L reaches only after J and
D reaches only before F. Who among them is third to
reach?
(a) F (b) L (c) D (d) H
150. P, Q, R, S and T are sitting in a straight line facing
north. P sits next to S but not to T. Q is sitting next to
R, who sits on the extreme left corner. T does not sit
next to Q. Who sits to the left of S?
(a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) S

fractions
1
151. Which of the following has the largest value? 156. Ramu finishes part of a work in 1 hour. How much
3
32 0.320 1
(a) (b) part of the work will he finish in 2 hours?
0.05 50 5
13 11 7 9
3.2 3.2 (a) (b) (c) (d)
(c) (d) 14 15 15 14
0.05 50

A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
2 6 13
157. The ascending arrangements of , , is
3 3 7 21
152. of 3245 + 32% of 6250 − (?) = 103
2

5
6 2 13 13 2 6
(a) 58 (b) 60 (c) 62 (d) 65 (a) , , (b) , ,
7 3 21 21 3 7
2 6 13 2 2 6 13
153. 13 % of 3300 + 25% of 184 = 40% of ? , , , ,
3 (c) (d)
7 21 3 3 7 21
(a) 1242.5 (b) 1140.8
1
(c) 1325.3 (d) 1018.2 158. In a class of 40 students, of the total number of
5
154. The largest of the following is 2
students like to eat rice only, of the total number
1 5
(a) 0.0001 (b)
1000 of students like to eat chapati only, and the remain-
1 ing students like to eat both. What fraction of the
(c) (0.100)2 (d) ÷ 0.1 total number of students like to eat both?
10
(a) 8 (b) 16
(c) 20 (d) 24
1 1 1
155. Find the value of + + 159. Three planets take one revolution around the Sun
2 11 ⎛ 5 ⎞
4 3 ⎜ ⎟ in 200, 250 and 300 days, respectively, in their own
7 13 ⎝ 9 ⎠ orbits. When do they all come relatively to the same
(a) 172/75 (b) 164/75 position as at a certain point of time in their orbits?
(c) 181/90 (d) 175/77 (a) After 2800 days (b) After 3000 days
(c) After 3050 days (d) After 3200 days

M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 45 23/12/22 7:25 PM

 5.46
1 7
160. In the morning, a milkman filled 5 l of milk in his
2 3
can. He sold to Renu, Kamala and Renuka l each;
4 How much milk is left in the can?
time and Distance
161. A person crosses a 1200 m long street in 10 minutes.
What is his speed in kmph?
(a) 7.2 kmph (b) 8 kmph
(c) 9 kmph (d) None of the above
162. A person completes a journey of 48 km in 2 hours.
How much time will he take to cover a distance of
252 km?
(a) 10 hours (b) 11 hours
(c) 10½ hours (d) None of the above
163. A train completed half a trip at 30 miles/h and the
other half at 60 miles/h. If the whole trip was of
20 miles, then how much time did the train take to
complete the trip?
(a) 90 minutes (b) 60 minutes
(c) 45 minutes (d) 30 minutes
164. A person performs half of his journey by train, one-
third by bus and the rest 5 km by auto rickshaw. Find
his total journey.
(a) 30 (b) 36
(c) 40 (d) 45
165. Excluding stoppages, the speed of a bus is 54 kmph,
and including stoppages, it is 45 kmph. For how
many minutes does the bus stop per hour?
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
(a) 9 (b) 10
(c) 12 (d) 20
Ratio, Proportion, Percentage and Discounting
171. The price of cooking oil has increased by 25%. The
percentage of reduction that a family should effect
in the use of cooking oil so as not to increase the
expenditure on this account is
(a) 25% (b) 30%
(c) 20% (d) 15%
172. In an organization, 40% of the employees are matric-
ulates, 50% of the remaining employees are gradu-
ates, and the remaining 180 are postgraduates. How
many employees are graduates?
(a) 360 (b) 240
(c) 300 (d) 180
173. In a town, 96% of the population is 23,040. The total
population of the town is
(a) 32,256 (b) 24,000
(c) 24,936 (d) 25,640
174. If 75% of the students in a school are boys and the
number of girls is 420, then the number of boys is
(a) 1176  (b) 1350  (c) 1260  (d) 1125
M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 46
Chapter 5
1
to Shadma he sold l; and to Jassi he gave 1 l.
8 2
7 5 3 6
(a) (b) (c) (d)
81 81 41 111
166. A man completes a journey in 10 hours. The first half
of the journey is covered at the speed of 21 km/h
and the second half at 24 km/h. The total distance
covered during the journey is
(a) 220 km (b) 224 km
(c) 230 km (d) 234 km
167. A man on tour travels first 320 km at 64 kmph and
the rest at 80 kmph. The average speed for the entire
640 km of the tour is
(a) 35.55 kmph (b) 36 kmph
(c) 71.11 kmph (d) 71 kmph
168. A person travelled a distance of 610 km in 9 hours.
He travelled the first phase at a speed of 40 kmph
and the rest at 90 kmph. The distance travelled dur-
ing the first phase is
(a) 140 km (b) 150 km
(c) 160 km (d) 170 km
169. A train whose length is 320 m is running at a speed of
36 kmph. How much time will it take to pass a pole?
(a) 30 seconds (b) 32 seconds
(c) 36 seconds (d) 40 seconds
170. A 280 m long train is moving at a speed of 80 kmph.
How much time will it take to pass a bridge that is
120 m long?
(a) 30 seconds (b) 32 seconds
(c) 36 seconds (d) 40 seconds
1
175. A man spends `3500 and saves 12 % of his income.
2
His monthly income (in `) is
(a) 3937.50 (b) 4000
(c) 4250 (d) 4160
176. The price of an item increased by 20% and then
decreased by 20%. The final price as compared to
the original price is
(a) 20% less (b) 20% more
(c) 4% more (d) 4% less
177. X’s salary is half that of Y. If X got a 50% rise in his
­salary and Y got a 25% rise in his salary, then the
percentage increase in combined salaries of both is
(a) 30% (b) 33.33%
(c) 37.5% (d) 75%
178. A mixture of 40 l of milk and water contains 10%
water. How much water should be added to it so that
water may be 20% in the new mixture?
(a) 5 l (b) 4 l
(c) 6.5 l (d) 7.5 l
23/12/22 7:25 PM
 Mathematical Reasoning and Aptitude
179. A man spends 75% of his income. His income is
increased by 20% and he increased his expenditure
by 10%. His savings increased by
(a) 10% (b) 25%
(c) 37.5% (d) 50%
180. If A’s income is 25% more than B’s, and B’s income
is 20% more than C’s, then by what per cent is A’s
income more than C’s?
(a) 15% (b) 25%
(c) 33.5% (d) 50%
181. If the price of a television set is increased by 25%,
then by what percentage should the new price be
reduced to bring the price back to the original level?
(a) 15% (b) 20%
(c) 25% (d) 30%
182. A dealer marks his goods 20% above the cost price.
He then allows some discount on it and makes a
profit of 8%. The rate of discount is
(a) 4% (b) 6%
(c) 10% (d) 12%
183. As the price of mangoes decreased by 25%, I can
­purchase four mangoes more for `60. What is the
new price of one mango?
(a) `5 (b) `4
(c) `3.75 (d) None of the above
184. If the length of a rectangle increases by 10%, then by
what per cent should the breadth decrease to main-
tain the same area?
(a) 10 (b) 20
(c) 9.11 (d) 5
profit and loss
191. The cost price of an article is `4800. It is to be sold
at a profit of 6.25%. How much should be its selling
price?
(a) `5100 (b) `5150
(c) `5400 (d) `5500
192. A trader sells an article at a profit of 20%. Had he
bought it at 10% more and sold it for `700 more,
he would have earned a profit of 25%. Find the cost
price of the goods.
(a) `5000 (b) `4000
(c) `3800 (d) None of the above
193. The cost of an article is `5000. The marked price is
`8000. What is the profit percentage for the seller if
he sells and offers a discount of 10% on the marked
price?
(a) 36% (b) 38%
(c) 40% (d) 44%
194. The cost price of 100 pencils is equal to the selling
price of 60 pencils. The gain percentage or loss per-
centage is
(a) 33 1/3% (b) 66 2/3%
(c) 50% (d) 45%
M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 47
5.47
185. If the price of potatoes increased first by 20% and
subsequently by 40%, then what is the final price per
­kilogram if the original price was `25 per kg?
(a) `40 (b) `42
(c) `45 (d) `48
186. The radius of a circle has increased by 20%. By what
­percentage does the circumference increase?
(a) 20% (b) 40%
(c) 44% (d) 48%
187. The radius of a circle has increased by 20%. By what
­percentage does its area increase?
(a) 33% (b) 44%
(c) 55% (d) None of the above
188. If the side of a square is increased by 25%, then its
area is increased by how much per cent?
(a) 25% (b) 50%
(c) 62.5% (d) None of the above
189. The length and breadth of a rectangle are 20 and
10 cm, respectively. The length is increased by 10%
and the breadth is increased by 20%. What is the
new area of the rectangle?
(a) 240 (b) 254
(c) 264 (d) 280
190. The number of seats in an auditorium is increased by
25%. The price on a ticket is also increased by 12%.
What is the effect on the revenue collected?
(a) 37 (b) 40
(c) 42 (d) None of the above
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
195. Arvind deals in carpets. He allows 4% discount on
the marked price. What price must be marked on a
carpet that cost `480 so as to make a profit of 10%?
(a) `528 (b) `550
(c) `580 (d) `600
196. A readymade producer manufactures both men’s
and women’s garments. The average profit is 5% of
the total sales. The profit on men’s garments is on an
average of 9% of the sales. The women’s garments
are 60% of the total output. The average profit per-
centage on women garments is
(a) 5% (b) 9%
(c) 2.33% (d) 3.4%
197. The cost of an article is `500 and its original price was
marked up 40% by the shopkeeper. Then shopkeeper
sets a new price; he marks the cost price up by 80%
and then gives a discount of 20% to the customer.
How much more/less money will the shopkeeper
make now?
(a) More price of `20
(b) Less price of `20
(c) More price of `80
(d) No extra profit
23/12/22 7:25 PM
 5.48
198. The cost of an article reduces by 20%. This enables
a person to buy 2 kg more articles for `300. Find the
reduced and the original price per kg of rice.
(a) `60 and `80 (b) `60 and `75
(c) `75 and `60 (d) `50 and `60
199. Arjun makes a profit of 18% on cost price by selling a
bike for `59,000. The cost price of the bike increases
by 5%. Arjun wants to make the same amount of
profit. What will be the new profit percent on selling
price in rupees?
Interest
201. Yugpurush paid an interest of `11,400 after 9 years.
For the first 2 years, the simple interest was 6%; for
the next 3 years, it was 9%; and for the next 4 years, it
was 14%. How much principal money was borrowed
by him?
(a) `12,000 (b) `11,400
(c) `11,000 (d) `10,000
202. Some amount becomes `900 in 3 years if calcu-
lated on compound interest, and the same amount
becomes `1000 in the fourth year. What was the
principal amount and rate of interest?
(a) `695.80, 11.11%
(b) `625, 12.50%
(c) `656.10, 11.11%
(d) `686, 12.50%
203. `2000 is invested each on simple interest and com-
pound interest. What will be the difference between
their amounts of simple interest and compound
interest if the rate of interest on each investment is
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
10% per annum and the time span is 3 years?
(a) `56 (b) `62
(c) `70 (d) `76
204. Manish gets `26,000 by making an investment of
`20,000 in 5 years at some simple rate of interest.
Had the investment been made at another place
where rate of interest is 3% higher, how much
amount Manish would have made during the same
duration?
(a) `29,000 (b) `30,000
(c) `31,000 (d) `28,000
205. Navjot gets a salary of `8600. The salary was invested
by him in two parts. Find the difference between the
two parts of his salary if in the first part he got some
simple interest at 15% per annum in 4 years, which
Averages
211. The average weight of eight persons increases by 2.5
kg when a person weighing 60 kg is replaced by a
new ­person. What might be the weight of the new
person?
(a) 76 kg (b) 76.5 kg
(c) 80 kg (d) Data inadequate
M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 48
Chapter 5
(a) 61,500 (b) 62,500
(c) 60,000 (d) 58,000
200. After selling a cycle for `1680, a shopkeeper suffers
a loss of 16%. If he wants to earn 15% profit after
giving the discount of 8%, what will be the marked
price?
(a) `2200 (b) `2450
(c) `2500 (d) `2600
was same as the second part which he invested at
20% for 3 years.
(a) `0 (b) `150
(c) `280 (d) `320
206. Rajinder divided `1301 among his sons Santa and
Banta. He asked them to invest the money at annual
4% compound rate of interest. It was observed that
each of his sons gets the same amount after 17 and
19 years, respectively. How money was given to
Banta?
(a) `705 (b) `615
(c) `676 (d) `625
207. Nagarjuna invested some money at compound rate
of interest. His amount gets doubled in 9 years. In
how many years will the amount become four times
itself?
(a) 13.5 years (b) 27 years
(c) 9 years (d) 18 years
208. If at same rate of interest, in 2 years the simple inter-
est is `40 and the compound interest is `41, then
what is the rate of interest?
(a) 4% (b) 5%
(c) 8% (d) None of the above
209. If a sum of money invested at compound interest
becomes `800 in 3 years and `840 in 4 years, then
what is the rate of interest per annum?
(a) 5% (b) 6%
(c) 7% (d) None of the above
210. An amount if given on interest becomes four times
in 6 years. In how much time span will it become 64
times if the rate of interest remains unchanged?
(a) 8 years (b) 16 year
(c) 18 years (d) 24 years
212. The average weight of eight articles is 25 kg. If the
average weight of three of them is 20 kg, then what
is the average weight of rest of the five articles?
(a) 26 kg (b) 27 kg
(c) 28 kg (d) None of the above
23/12/22 7:25 PM
 Mathematical Reasoning and Aptitude
213. The average speed of a taxi car from Town A to Town
B is 35 kmph and that during the return journey is
42 kmph. What is the average speed of the whole
journey?
(a) 35.5 kmph (b) 36 kmph
(c) 38.17 kmph (d) Cannot be determined
214. A car owner buys petrol at `8 and `10 for 2 succes-
sive years. What approximately is the average cost
per litre of petrol if he spends `4000 each year?
(a) `9 (b) `9.90
(c) `8.88 (d) None of the above
215. A question is followed by two statements I and II
that contain certain data. Tell by selecting one of the
answer choices given whether the data given in the
statements are sufficient for answering the question.
(a) If statement I alone is sufficient
(b) If statement II alone is sufficient
(c) If both statements I and II taken together are
sufficient
(d) If none of the statements is sufficient
Question: A horse ran 100 miles without stop-
ping. What was the average speed in miles per
hour?
Statements
I. The horse ran 20 miles/h for the first 50 miles.
II. The entire journey starts from 8 p.m. on day 1 to
4 a.m. the following day.
216. A and B start from the same destination and take the
same route. A starts at 8 a.m. and drives at a speed
Calendar
221. The year next to 1991 will have the same calendar as
that of the year 1991.
(a) 1992 (b) 1995
(c) 1996 (d) 1997
222. What day of the week was 28 May 2007?
(a) Thursday (b) Friday
(c) Saturday (d) Monday
223. What was the day of the week on 16 June 1999?
(a) Monday (b) Tuesday
(c) Wednesday (d) Thursday
224. What will be the day of the week on 16 August 2010?
(a) Sunday (b) Monday
(c) Tuesday (d) Friday
225. It was Wednesday on 15 August 2012. What should
be the day on 15 November 2013?
(a) Wednesday
(b) Thursday
(c) Friday
(d) None of the above
M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 49
5.49
of 40 kmph. B starts at 9 a.m. and drives at a speed
of 50 kmph. If the destination is 350 km away from
the starting point, then how far will A be from the
destination when B reaches there? 
(a) 20 km (b) 30 km
(c) 50 km (d) 70 km
217. A train runs for 2 hours at a speed of 35 kmph. It runs
for 3½ hours at the speed of 60 kmph and then runs
for 2½ hours at the speed of 70 kmph. Find the aver-
age speed of the train. 
(a) 50 kmph
(b) 55 kmph
(c) 80 kmph
(d) 56.87 kmph
218. The average age of a husband and wife was 22 years
when they were married 5 years back. What is the
present average age of the family if they have a
3-year-old child? 
(a) 19 years (b) 25 years
(c) 27 years (d) 28.5 years
219. A man’s monthly income is `1400. What should be
his average monthly expenditure so that he is able to
save `3600 in a year?
(a) `1000 (b) `1100
(c) `1150 (d) `1200
220. The average of A, B and C is 50. If D is 10, then what
is the average of A, B, C and D?
(a) 15 (b) 40
(c) 30 (d) 60
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
226. If it is Sunday today, then what will be the day after
60 days?
(a) Sunday (b) Thursday
(c) Tuesday (d) Friday
227. If 22 April 2013 is Monday, then what was the day of
the week on 22 April 2012?
(a) Sunday (b) Saturday
(c) Tuesday (d) Wednesday
228. What was the day of week on 1 April 2001?
(a) Sunday (b) Saturday
(c) Tuesday (d) Friday
229. The last day of a century cannot be
(a) Monday (b) Wednesday
(c) Tuesday (d) Friday
230. 10 February 2005 was Thursday. What was the day
of the week on 8 February 2004?
(a) Tuesday (b) Monday
(c) Sunday (d) Wednesday
23/12/22 7:25 PM
 5.50 Chapter 5

Venn Diagrams
231. Out of 40 students, 14 are taking English composi- 238. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best
tion and 29 are taking Chemistry. If five students are relation between teacher, parents and guardians?
in both classes, then how many students are in nei-
ther class? How many are in either class? (a) (b)
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 5
232. How many numbers are there between 1 and 100 (c) (d)
that are not divisible by 3 and 5?
(a) 47 (b) 43 239. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best
(c) 53 (d) 58 relation between professors, doctors and men?
233. In an examination, 52% of the candidates failed
in ­English, 42% in Mathematics and 17% in both.
(a) (b)
The number of those who passed in both the sub-
jects is
(a) 83% (b) 23%
(c) 64% (d) 55.5% (c) (d)
234. In a group of 40 people, 25 speak English and 20
speak both Hindi and English. All the people speak 240. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best
at least one of the two languages. How many people relation between mercury, zinc and metal?
speak Hindi?
(a) 15 (b) 20 (a) (b)
(c) 25 (d) 30
235. If 40% of the people read newspaper X, 50% read (c) (d)
­newspaper Y, and 10% read both the papers, then
what percentage of people read neither of the
newspaper? Questions 241−245: Study the diagram given below and
(a) 10% (b) 15% answer each of the following questions.
(c) 20% (d) 25%
236. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best
25 4 17 Artists
relation between a teacher, a writer and an artist?
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

22 3
8 Players
(a) (b)
30 Doctors

(c) (d)
241. How many doctors are neither artists nor players?
237. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best (a) 17 (b) 5 (c) 10 (d) 30
relation between travellers, train and taxi? 242. How many doctors are both players and artists?
(a) 22 (b) 8 (c) 3 (d) 30
(a) (b) 243. How many artists are players?
(a) 5 (b) 8 (c) 25 (d) 16
244. How many players are neither artists nor doctors?
(c) (d) (a) 25 (b) 17 (c) 5 (d) 10
245. How many artists are neither players nor doctors?
(a) 10 (b) 17 (c) 30 (d) 15

M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 50 23/12/22 7:25 PM

 Mathematical Reasoning and Aptitude 5.51

Answer Keys
Number Series Completion
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (d)
11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (d)
Letter Series Completion
21. (a) 22. (a ) 23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (b) 26. (d) 27. (a) 28. (a) 29. (a) 30. (b)
Coding and Decoding
31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (d) 34. (a) 35. (d) 36. (a) 37. (c) 38. (c) 39. (b) 40. (a)
41. (d) 42. (b) 43. (a) 44. (a) 45. (a) 46. (c) 47. (c) 48. (b) 49. (a) 50. (a)
51. (c) 52. (a) 53. (c) 54. (c) 55. (d)
Choose Odd Word
56. (c) 57. (b) 58. (a) 59. (b) 60. (d) 61. (c) 62. (b) 63. (b) 64. (c) 65. (a)
Odd Pairs
66. (d) 67. (d) 68. (a) 69. (b) 70. (a) 71. (c) 72. (a) 73. (d) 74. (a) 75. (a)
Choose the Odd Number Pair or Group
76. (d) 77. (c) 78. (a) 79. (d) 80. (d) 81. (b) 82. (b) 83. (d) 84. (d) 85. (c)
Choose the Odd Letter Group
86. (d) 87. (a) 88. (d) 89. (d) 90. (b) 91. (b) 92. (d) 93. (c) 94. (d) 95. (b)

Analogy
Direct or Simple Analogy
96. (b) 97. (d) 98. (a) 99. (a) 100. (c) 101. (a) 102. (a) 103. (b) 104. (a) 105. (b)
106. (a) 107. (a) 108. (b) 109. (d) 110. (d)
Completing the Analogous Pair

A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
111. (b) 112. (d) 113. (d) 114. (b) 115. (c) 116. (c) 117. (a) 118. (b) 119. (c) 120. (b)
121. (b) 122. (d) 123. (b) 124. (c) 125. (d)
Blood Relations
126. (a) 127. (c) 128. (a) 129. (b) 130. (d) 131. (d) 132. (b) 133. (d) 134. (d) 135. (a)
Direction Sense
136. (c) 137. (a) 138. (c) 139. (c) 140. (d) 141. (c) 142. (d) 143. (d) 144. (a) 145. (b)
Seating Arrangement
146. (b) 147. (b) 148. (a) 149. (d) 150. (a)
Fractions
151. (a) 152. (c) 153. (a) 154. (d) 155. (a) 156. (b) 157. (b) 158. (d) 159. (b) 160. (a)
Time and Distance
161. (a) 162. (c) 163. (d) 164. (a) 165. (b) 166. (b) 167. (c) 168. (c) 169. (b) 170. (c)
Ratio, Proportion, Percentage and Discounting
171. (c) 172. (d) 173. (b) 174. (c) 175. (b) 176. (d) 177. (b) 178. (a) 179. (d) 180. (d)
181. (b) 182. (c) 183. (c) 184. (c) 185. (b) 186. (a) 187. (b) 188. (d) 189. (c) 190. (b)

M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 51 23/12/22 7:25 PM

 5.52 Chapter 5

Profit and Loss

191. (a) 192. (b) 193. (d) 194. (b) 195. (b) 196. (c) 197. (a) 198. (b) 199. (a) 200. (c)
Interest
201. (a) 202. (c) 203. (b) 204. (a) 205. (a) 206. (d) 207. (d) 208. (b) 209. (a) 210. (c)
Averages
211. (c) 212. (c) 213. (c) 214. (c) 215. (b) 216. (b) 217. (d) 218. (a) 219. (b) 220. (b)
Calendar
221. (d) 222. (d) 223. (c) 224. (b) 225. (c) 226. (b) 227. (a) 228. (a) 229. (c) 230. (c)
Venn Diagrams
231. (a) 232. (c) 233. (b) 234. (a) 235. (c) 236. (a) 237. (d) 238. (b) 239. (c) 240. (b)
241. (a) 242. (c) 243. (c) 244. (a) 245. (c)
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 52 23/12/22 7:25 PM

 Mathematical Reasoning and Aptitude 5.53

Solution
N umber Series Completion
1.(c): Each number is half of its preceding number.
2.(a): +5, +10, +15, +20, +25, +30.
3.(c): +3, +6, +9, +12.
4.(b): In first row, it is −2; in second row, it is +2, and in
third row, it is +2.
5. (c): Multiply the first by 3 and divide the number so
obtained by 2. This is to be done alternatively for all
other numbers.
6. (b): ×10 − 100, ×10 − 100 and so on.
7. (d): The pattern is +5, −2, +5, −2, …. Hence, the
missing term = 36 − 2 = 34.
8. (b): The sum of any three consecutive terms of the
series is given to the next term. Hence, missing num-
ber = 8 + 15 + 27 = 50.
9. (a): The second number is the square of the first num-
ber; the fourth number is the square of the third num-
ber. Similarly, the sixth number should be the square
of the fifth number. Hence, the answer is 16, that is,
square root of 256.
10. (d): The numerator increases by addition of 2, 3, 4 and
5. The denominator increases by addition of 4, 6, 8
and 10.
11. (d): Prime numbers (numbers that are divisible by 1
and themselves only) starting with 2 are being added
to each number to get the subsequent numbers.
Thus, the sequence of numbers can be read as 125,
125 + 2, 127 + 3, 130 + 5, 135 + 7, 142 + 11 and 153 +
16. (d): 10 × 2 + 4 = 24;
24 × 2 + 4 = 52;
52 × 2 + 4 = 108;
and so on.
17. (a): The given series consists of cubes of natural num-
bers only. The number 256 is not the cube of any natu-
ral number.
18. (c): The given sequence is a combination of two
series:
First series: 13, 24, 35, 46, 57
Second series: 32, 43, ?, 65, 76
The pattern in both series is +11. Hence, the miss-
ing term = 43 + 11 = 54.
19. (d): 23 + 10 = 33, 33 + 13 = 46, 46 + 16 = 62 and so on.
20. (d): 10 × 3 − 4 = 26
26 × 3 − 4 = 74
74 × 3 − 4 = 218
218 × 3 − 4 = 650
650 × 3 − 4 = 1946
L etter Series Completion
21. (a): The third letter is repeated as the first letter of
the next segment. The middle letter, A, remains static.
The third letters are in alphabetical order beginning
with R.
22. (a): The middle letter T is fixed. The first and third let-
ters are swapping their position in second and fourth
terms. The first letters are in alphabetical order: F, G, H,
I and J. The missing segment begins with a new letter J.
23. (c): For first letter of each triplet, the series is STUVW.

13. Hence, the last number should be 166.
12. (c): Each term in the series is obtained by adding 1 to
the square of the preceding term.
Hence, the missing term = (101)2 + 1 = 10,202.
13. (b): It is a question of mixed series.
(i) Numbers at 1st, 3rd, 5th, and 7th places are
squares of 1, 2, 3 and 4.
(ii) Numbers at 2nd, 4th, 6th, and 8th places are
cubes of 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. Hence, the answer is 43
= 64.
14. (a): The pattern is:
3 × 1 + 2 = 5
5 × 2 + 3 = 13
13 × 3 + 4 = 43
43 × 4 + 5 = 177
177 × 5 + 6 = 891
Hence, (a) is the answer.
15. (b): The given sequence is a combination of two
series:
(i) 3, 7, 13, 21, 31, ? and (ii) 4, 7, 13, 22, 34
The pattern in (i) is + 4, + 6, + 8, + 10, ….
The pattern in (ii) is + 3, + 6, + 9, + 12, ….
Hence, the missing term = 31 + 12 = 43.
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
The remaining two letters of the series go like CD, EF,
GH, IJ, KL.
24. (b): This is an alternating series in alphabetical order.
The middle letters follow the order ABCDE. The first
and third letters of the triplets are in alphabetical
order beginning with J. The third letter is repeated as
a first letter in each subsequent three-letter segment.
25. (b): If we look at the alphabetic series given in Table
5.1, the difference between first letters of all pairs is 3.
Moreover, the difference between two letters in each
pair is 10. Hence, MW is the answer.
26. (d): The second and fourth letters in the series, L and
T, are static. The first and third letters consist of an
alphabetical order beginning with the letter E.
27. (a):
First Letter Second Letter
W–4=S E+2=G
S–3=P G+3=J
P–4=L J+4=N
L–3=I N+5=S
Thus, (a) is the right answer.

M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 53 23/12/22 7:25 PM

 5.54 Chapter 5

28. (a): This series is just like the above series. However, 38. (c): The letters at the odd positions are moved three,
the middle letter of each term is replaced by a number. four and five steps forward, whereas the letters at the
29. (a): The third letter is repeated as the first letter even positions are each moved two steps forward to
of the next segment. The middle letter, A, remains get the corresponding letters of the code.
static. The third letters are in alphabetical order 39. (b): Please refer to alphabetic series table and add the
beginning with R. number of alphabets in the given word.
30. (b): There is a gap of one letter in the successive 40. (a): The numbers are coded as follows:
terms. The numbers are doubled.
1 3 7 8 9
Coding and Decoding
X T Z A L
31. (c): Refer to Tables 5.1 and 5.2.
For example, C is ranked 3 in Table 5.1. The same 2 3 4 6
rank denotes ‘X’ in Table 5.2. Thus, X is coded for C.
Thus, CERTAIN has been coded as XVIGZRM. N P S U
Similarly, MUNDANE can be coded as NFMWZMV.
32. (a): Here, the code is the reverse of the given word. That is, 2 as N, 3 as P, 5 as T, 4 as S and 9 as L. Thus,
The answer is TROFDER, which is the reverse of RED 23549 is coded as NPTSL.
FORT. 41. (d)
33. (d)
A B C D E F G H I J K
M O T H E R
+1 +1 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

O M H U R F L M N O P Q R S T U
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
Similarly,
A N S W E R Now,
+1 +1 22 25 8 22 5
N A W T R F R U D R A
42. (b)
34. (a): The first and the last letters of the word swap
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

their positions. All other letters are moved one place C A L A N D E R

and get placed in the reverse manner.
35. (d)
C L A N A E D R
36. (a)
C L A I M C I R C U L A R
+1 +2 +3 +4 +5
D N D M R
C R I U C A L R
C H A R G E
+1 +2 +3 +4 +5 +6 43. (a)
D J D V L K Letters D R L A L
37. (c) Position 4 18 12 1 12
Change +2 +2 +2 +2 +2
C +3 F
Code 6 20 14 3 14
O +4 S
L +5 Q Hence, the code for DRLAL is 62014314.

D +6 J Letters C A M E L
Similarly,
Position 3 1 13 5 12
H +3 K
Change +2 +2 +2 +2 +2
E +4 I
Code 5 3 15 7 14
A +5 F
T +6 Z Hence, the code for CAMEL is 5315714.

M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 54 23/12/22 7:25 PM

 Mathematical Reasoning and Aptitude 5.55

44. (a) Hence, ‘4’ and ‘3’ are the codes for ‘mangoes’ and ‘are’,
L I G H T respectively. Thus, in the third statement, ‘9’ means
‘ripe’.
53. (c): In the first and third statements, the common
G I L T H code digit is ‘5’ and the common word is ‘good’. Hence,
‘5’ means ‘good’.
R A I N Y In the second and third statements, the common code
digit is ‘3’ and the common word is ‘bad’. Thus, ‘3’
means ‘bad’.
Thus, in the third statement, ‘8’ means ‘and’.
I A R Y N
54. (c): In the first and third statements, the common
45. (a): First, rearrange the letters of the word ‘ARGU- code digit is ‘6’ and the common word is ‘is’. Thus, ‘6’
MENT’ in alphabetical order and then substitute each means ‘is’.
letter by the letter immediately following it. In the second and third statements, the common code
digit is ‘4’ and the common word is ‘colour’. Thus, ‘4’
A E G M N R T U means ‘colour’.
+1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1 Thus, in the statement, ‘3’ means ‘fun’.
B F H N O S U V 55. (d): In the first and second statements, the common
code digit is ‘3’ and the common word is ‘hot’. Thus,
46. (c): All words in the answer choices consist of five ‘3’ means ‘hot’.
letters. The first two and last two letters interchange In the second and third statements, the common code
their positions. digit is ‘5’, and the common word is ‘day’. Thus, ‘5’
O F T E N means ‘day’.
Thus, in the second statement, ‘6’ means ‘very’.

Choose O dd Word
F O T N E
56. (c): All, except the universe, form a part of the universe.
Similarly,
57. (b): All, except geography, are branches of science.
R I S K Y
58. (a): All, except a mechanic, help in building a house.
59. (b): All others denote blood relations.
I R S Y K 60. (d): Mercury is the only liquid metal in the group.

47. (c): The fruits grow on a ‘tree’, and ‘tree’ is called ‘sky’.
Hence, the fruits grow on the ‘sky’.
48. (b): The colour of the sky is blue; here, blue is called
green.
49. (a): In the first and second statements, the common
code word is ‘nie’ and the common word is ‘some’.
Thus, ‘nie’ means ‘some’.
In the first and third statements, the common code
word is ‘pie’ and the common word is ‘good’. Thus,
‘pie’ means ‘good’. Hence, ‘jokes’ is denoted by ‘bi’.
50. (a): Teacher uses chalk to write on the blackboard.
Here, chalk has been called book.
51. (c): In the first and third statements, the common
word is ‘na’ and the common word is ‘are’. Hence, ‘na’
means ‘are’.
In the second and third statements, the common code
word is ‘tok’ and the common word is ‘bad’. Hence,
‘tok’ means ‘bad’. Thus, in the third statement, ‘tim’
stands for ‘they’.
52. (a): In the first and third statements, the common
code digits are ‘4’ and ‘3’, and the common words are
‘mangoes’ and ‘are’.
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
61. (c): All, except the bear, belong to the cat family.
62. (b): All others are parts of bed spread.
63. (b): All, except eagle, are flightless birds.
64. (c): All, except river, contain stagnant water.
65. (a): All, except arrow, are used while holding hand.
Odd Pairs
66. (d): In all other pairs, second is prepared by the first.
67. (d): In all other pairs, first is used to contain the
second.
68. (a): In all other pairs, second is the noise produced by
the first.
69. (b): In all other pairs, the two words are antonyms of
each other.
70. (a): In all other pairs, second is a part of the first.
71. (c): Each of the numbers except 63 is a prime number.
72. (a): Each of the numbers except 51 is a perfect square.
73. (d): Each of the numbers except 28 is divisible by 3.
74. (a): Sum of the digits in each other number is 10.
75. (a): All other numbers are cubes of odd numbers.

M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 55 23/12/22 7:25 PM

 5.56
Choose the O dd Number Pair or G roup
76. (d): In all other pairs, first number is 13 more than the
second.
77. (c): In all other pairs, second number is the cube of
the first.
78. (a): In all other pairs, one number is the square of the
other.
79. (d): In all other pairs, the sum of two numbers is 8.
80. (d): In all other pairs, the second number is 1 less
than the square of the first number.
81. (b): All other pairs consist of prime numbers only.
82. (b): In all other pairs, first number is the cube of the
second.
83. (d): All other pairs consist of odd numbers only.
84. (d): In all other pairs, the second is the multiple of
the first.
85. (c): In all other pairs, it is the square of the first
term + 1.
Choose the O dd L etter Group
86. (d): All other groups contain alternate letters from
left or right.
87. (a): All other groups contain alternate letters of the
alphabet.
88. (d): The first letter is moved two places forward to
obtain the third letter. Then, third letter is moved two
positions forward to obtain the middle letter.
89. (d): In all other groups, the third and second letters
are three steps ahead of the first and third letters,
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
respectively.
90. (b): Only (b) contains a vowel.
91. (b): In all other groups, the first and second letters
occupy the same position in the alphabet from the
beginning and the end, respectively.
The second letter is moved one step backward to
obtain the third letter.
92. (d): In all other groups, four intervening letters are
skipped.
93. (c): In all other groups, the second letter is moved two
steps forward to obtain the third letter, which then is
moved one step forward to obtain the first.
94. (d): All other groups end with AT.
95. (b): There is no repetition of any letter in any other
group.
Analogy
Direct or Simple A nalogy
96. (b): Second word denotes the place where the sport
is held.
97. (d): First works for and earns from the second.
98. (a): The words in each pair are antonyms of each pair.
99. (a): Second is required by the first to function.
M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 56
Chapter 5
100. (c): Second is the working place of the first.
101. (a): The prime job of the first is to do the second.
102. (a): Second is made according to the first.
103. (b): First is prepared as per the directions of the
second.
104. (a): Second is the place for the first to perform on.
105. (b): First composes the second.
106. (a): First denotes the lack of second.
107. (a): Scientific experiments are conducted in a labo-
ratory. Similarly, astronomical observations are
made in an observatory.
108. (b): Bibliophile is a lover of books. Similarly, patriot
is a lover of one’s country.
109. (d): The words in each pair are antonyms of each other.
110. (d): Second is the dwelling place of the first.
Completing the Analogous Pair
111. (b): The words in each pair are antonyms of each
other.
112. (d): Second contains the story of the first.
113. (d): First causes the second.
114. (b): The words in each pair are antonyms of each
other.
115. (c): First forms the basis of the second.
116. (c): Taxonomy is the science of classification. Simi-
larly, pedology deals with the study of soils.
117. (a): The words in each pair are antonyms of each
other.
118. (b): First is followed by the second.
119. (c): Second is the feminine gender of the first.
120. (b): First robs the second.
121. (b): Second is the sound produced by the first.
122. (d): The words in each pair are antonyms of each
other.
123. (b): An ornithologist specializes in the study of birds.
Similarly, an anthropologist specializes in the study
of mankind.
124. (c): Oxygen supports burning, whereas carbon diox-
ide extinguishes fire.
125. (d): Seismograph measures the intensity of earth-
quakes. Tachometer measures strains.
Blood Relations
126. (a):
A +F −K
−C +G
Hence, F is the uncle of G.
23/12/22 7:25 PM
 Mathematical Reasoning and Aptitude 5.57

127. (c): 132. (b): The man in the photograph is the son of the only
Grandmother
son of Raveena’s grandfather. Thus, the man is the
son of Raveena’s father. Hence, he is the brother of
Raveena.
Seeta’s mother 133. (d):
Kamni Deepak
Seeta Ravi

The maternal grandmother of Seeta and the grand-

mother of Ravi are the same person. Hence, Seeta Vinita Sandy Amit
and Ravi are cousins.
128. (a): Amit is the only brother of Sandy, and Vinita is the sis-
ter-in-law of Amit. Hence, Vinita is the wife of Sandy.
+A = − E
Kamni is the mother-in-law of Vinita. Kamni is the
mother of Amit.
134. (d):

+B −C +D Woman

Therefore, D is a boy because there is only one daugh- Brother (of Amit)
ter of E (or husband of E as given in the question
statement).
Here, + and – have been used for male and female, Grand daughter
respectively. = sign has been used to show husband–
wife relationship, and ↔ for sibling relationship. Hence, the woman in the picture is the mother of
Hence, B is the brother of D. Amit.
129. (b): 135. (a):
Father = Wife (Dinesh’s mother) −C = +D F

+X −Y

A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
Younger brother Daughter Elder brother As X is the only son of C (and D), Y is a female.
(playing game) (Dinesh) Looking at the family tree, we can say that Y is the
niece of F.
As per the question, the person playing the game is
different from Dinesh. The person playing the game Direction Sense
is the brother of Dinesh. 136. (c):
130. (d): Start point
Somesh’s mother 5 km

5 km 3 km
Only son (i.e. Somesh)

D
Son 137. (a):
131. (d): 138. (c):
Grandmother B 15 m A E
Daughter-in-law
20 m 20 m
Woman = Father

C 25 m D
Namrata

M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 57 23/12/22 7:25 PM

 5.58 Chapter 5

139. (c): Fractions

E D
151. (a)
1 km
B 152. (c): 1947 + 2000 – 103 = (?)2
C 3947 – 103 = (?)2
A
3844 = (?)2
He is moving in the west direction now. ? = 62
140. (d): 2
153. (a): 13 % of 3300 + 25% of 184 = 40% of ?
B 30 km C 3
41 1
20 km × 3300 + × 184 = (41 × 11) + 46 = 40% of ?
300 4
F
2
35 km

15 km 451 + 46 = ×?
5

D 15 km E 5
? = 497 × = 1242.5
2
Required distance = AF
154. (d)
   = 30 + 15 = 45 km 1 1 1
155. (a): Given expression = + +
141. (c): ⎛ 30 ⎞ ⎛ 50 ⎞ ⎛ 5 ⎞
142. (d): ⎜⎝ ⎟⎠ ⎜⎝ ⎟⎠ ⎜⎝ ⎟⎠
7 13 9
143. (d): 7 13 9
144. (a): = + +
30 50 5
145. (b):
35 39 270 35 + 39 + 270 172
= + + = =
Seating Arrangement 150 150 150 150 75
146. (b): The seating arrangement is as follows: 35 39 270 35 + 39 + 270 172
= + + = =
150 150 150 150 75
1
P X S Z R A
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

156. (b): The part of work finished by Ramu in 1 hour =

3
Therefore, the right of P is X. 1
So, the part of work finished by Ramu in 2 hours
147. (b): 5
1 1 11 1 11× 1 11
=2 × = × = =
5 3 5 3 5 × 3 15
E B A C D 157. (b)
Therefore, A is sitting in between B and C. Hint: The question can be solved by taking LCM.
148. (a): 158. (d)
Q 159. (b)
Hint: Take LCM of 200, 250 and 300.
W P
160. (a)
S R
Time and Distance
U T Distance 1200 m
161. (a): Speed = =
V Time 600s econds
= 2 m/s
149. (d): J > L and D > F.
Speed in kmph = 2 × (18/5)
Hence, J > L > H > D > F. = 7.2 kmph
Hence, H is the person to reach.
48
150. (a): 162. (c): Here, speed = = 24 kmph
North 2
R Q P S T 252
Time taken = = 10½ hours
24

M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 58 23/12/22 7:25 PM

 Mathematical Reasoning and Aptitude 5.59

163. (d): Average speed = 2 × 30 × [60/(30+60)] 172. (d): Let total employees = 100
= 2 × 30 × (60/90) = 40 mph Matriculates = 40
Time taken by train to complete the trip = Distance/ Remaining = 100 − 40 = 60
20 Graduates = 50% of remaining 60 = 30
Speed = = ½ hour = 30 minutes Postgraduates = 100 − 40 − 30 = 30
40 Graduates = Postgraduates
164. (a): The distance covered by auto rickshaw Hence, graduates are also 180.
1 173. (b): 96% of total population = 23,040
= 1 − [(1/2)+(1/3)] = Hence, total population = 23,040 × 100/96 =
6
1 24,000
of total journey = 5 km
6 174. (c): Ratio between boys and girls = 75%:25% = 3:1
Total journey = 6 × 5 = 30 km Hence, number of boys = 3 × 420 = 1260
165. (b): Due to stoppages, it covers 9 km less. 175. (b): (100 – 12.5)%, that is, 87.5% of total income =
Time taken to cover 9 km = (9/54) × 60 minutes = 3500
10 minutes Total income = 3500 × 100/87.5 = `4000
(2 × 21 × 24)
166. (b): Average speed = = 22.4 kmph [+20 − 20 + ( − 20) × (+20)]
(21 + 24) 176. (d): = −4%.
100
Distance = Time × Speed = 22.4 × 10 = 224 km
177. (b): Let Y’s salary = 100; then X’s salary = 50
167. (c): As the distance in both ways is same, we can X’s new salary = 50 × 3/2 = 75
apply the formula (2xy/x)+ y. Y’s new salary = 100 × 5/4 = 125
(2 × 64 × 80) Combined old salary = 100 + 50 = 150
Average speed = = 71.11 kmph New combined salary = 75 + 125 = 200
(64 + 80)
Increase in combined salary = 50
168. (c): Let the distance travelled in the first phase be x km. Percentage increase = (50/150) × 100 = 33.33%
Then, distance travelled in the second phase = 178. (a): Let x water to be added to make water 20% of
(610 − x) km the new mixture.
Hence, x + (610 − x ) = 9 hours Water in the old mixture = 10% of 40 = 4 l
40 90 Water in the new mixture to make it 20% =
(4 + x) l
⇒ x = 160 km Now 20% of (40 + x) l = 4 + x
169. (b): Distance to be travelled = 320 m Solving equation, we get x = 5 l.

A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
Speed = 36 kmph = 36 × (5/18) = 10 m/s 179. (d): Let income = 100
320 New income = 120
Time taken = D/S = = 32 seconds
10 New expenditure = 75 + 10% of 75 = 82.5%
170. (c): Total distance to be travelled = 280 + 120 = 400 m New savings = 120 − 82.5 = 37.5
Speed should be converted into m/s. Old saving = 25
100 Percentage increase in savings
Speed = 40 kmph = 40 × (5/18) = m/s = (37.5 − 25)/25 × 100
9 = 12.5/25 × 100 = 50%
Time = D/S = (400/100)/9 = 36 seconds 180. (d): Let C’s income = 100
B’s income = 100 + 20 = 120
Ratio, P roportion, P ercentage and A’s income = 125% of 120 = 150
D iscounting Thus, A’s income is 50% higher than that of C.
171. (c): Let original price = 100 181. (b): Let original price = 100
Original quantity = 100 Increased price = 100 + 25 = 125
Total expenditure = 100 × 100 Now 125 is to be brought to 100; say it is multi-
New price = 100 + 25 = 125 plied by x.
New quantity = Q 125 × x = 100 4
As expenditure is to be kept same, x = 100/125 = that is equivalent to 80%.
5
100 × 100 = 125 × Q
Hence, the price should be reduced by 20%.
(100 × 100) 182. (c): Let cost price = 100
Q= = 80 Net selling price = 100 + 8 = 108
125
Now 120 – (x% of 120) = 108

% reduction in quantity = 100 − 80 = 20 x = 10

M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 59 23/12/22 7:25 PM

 5.60 Chapter 5

183. (c): Discount on `60 = 25% of `60 = `15 Profit and Loss
Assume that the retailer offers a discount of `15
or four extra mangoes. 100 + 6.25 106.25
191. (a): S.P.SP = × 4800 = × 4800 = =`5100
New purchase price of four mangoes = `15 `5100 100 100
Purchase price of one mango = 15/4 = `3.75
184. (c): Suppose both length and breadth are 100. 192. (b): Let C.P. = `100 and S.P. = `120.
Hence, area = 100 × 100 New C.P. = `110
New length = 100 + 10 m = 110 m 110 × 125
As area is to be kept same, ∴∴S.P.
SP on 25% profit = == ``137.5
137.5
100
110 × new breadth = 100 × 100
New breadth = 100 × (100/110) = 1000/11 Difference of S.P.s = 137.5 – 120 = `17.5
Now take a ratio.
100
Decrease in breadth = 100 − (1000/11) = 17.5:100 :: 700:x
= 9.11% 11 100 × 700
As breadth was assumed to be 100, no additional ∴x = = ` 4000
17.5
calculation is required for percentage figure.
185. (b): Using the formula: x + y + xy/100, net percent- 193. (d): S.P. = 90% of 8000 = `7200
Profit = 7200 – 5000 = `2200
(20 × 40) Profit percentage = 2200/5000 × 100 = 44%
age increase = 20 + 40 + = 68%
100 194. (b): Let C.P. = S.P. = `100.
Increased price = `25 + 68% of 25 = 25 + 17 = `42 C.P. of 100 pencils = `100
Alternatively: Using the multiplier factor con- C.P. of 1 pencil = 100/100 = `1
⎛ 6⎞ ⎛ 7⎞ S.P. of 60 pencils = `100
cept, we get the final price as 25 × ⎜ ⎟ × ⎜ ⎟ =` 42 5
⎝ 5⎠ ⎝ 5⎠ S.P. of 1 pencil = `100/60 = `
3
= `42. 5 2
Profit = – 1 =
186. (a): Circumference of a circle = 2pr. As r increases by 3 3
20%, the circumference also increases by 20%. Profit percentage = (2/3)/1 × 100 = 66 2/3%
187. (b): Area of a circle = π  r2 195. (b): S.P. = 480 + 10% of 480 = `528
As r2 = r × r and as r increases by 20%, r2 increases Let marked price = M.
(20 × 20) Now 96% of M = 528, so M = `550.
by 20 + 20 + = 44% .
100 196. (c): The ratio of production between women and
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

188. (d): Let side of square = 100 men is 60:40.

Area = 100 × 100 = 10,000 The profit on men’s garments = 9% of `40 = `3.6
To make profit of 5%, contribution of women’s
New side = 100 + 25 = 125
­garments = 5 – 3.6 = `1.4
New area = 125 × 125 = 15,625
Profit percentage on women = 1.4/60 × 100 =
Percentage increase = [(15,625 – 2.33%
10,000)/10,000] × 100 = 56.25
Alternatively = x + x + x2/100 = 25 + 25 + (25 × 197. (a): Old sales price = 500 + 40% of 500 = `700
25/100) = 56.25%  New marked sales price = 500 + 80% of 500 =
`900
11
189. (c): Increased length = 20 × = 22 cm Discounted price = 900 – 20% of 900 = `720
10 Thus, the new price is higher by `20.
120 6 198. (b): 20% reduction on `600 means benefit of `120 to
Increased breadth = 10 × = 10 × = 12 cm
100 5 a customer. That enables customer to buy 2 kg
extra article.
The new area = 22 × 12 = 264 cm 2
Thus, reduced selling price of 2 kg = `120 and of
As there is multiplication of two quantities in
1 kg = 120/2 = `60
the area formula, we can use the method a + b + If a value reduces by 20%, it means it should be
ab increased by 25% to reach at the original value
to calculate the percentage increase in area again.
100
also. Thus, original price = 60 + 25% of 60 = `75
xy 199. (a):  int: Original C.P. can be calculated first, that
H
190. (b): We can use the formula x + y + to calculate is, `50,000.
the net increase. 100
 Then C.P. increases by 5%. Same amount of
25 + 12 + (25 × 12)/100 = 40% profit can be added to it, and then percentage
calculated on it.

M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 60 23/12/22 7:26 PM

 Mathematical Reasoning and Aptitude 5.61

1680 ∴ Interest = `840 – `800 = `40

200. (c): Cost Price = × 100 == ``2000
2000. For 1-year time period, simple intersest = com-
84 pound interest
115% P × R × T 800 × R × 1
Marked price = 2000 ×
== ``2500
2500. = = ` 40
92% ∴
100 100
∴ R = 5%
I nterest
210. (c): 4 times in 6 years.
P × 6 × 2 P × 9 × 3 P × 14 × 4 So 16 times in 12 years
11400 ==
201. (a): 11,400 + +
100 100 100 And 64 times in 18 years.
∴ P = `12,000 Averages
202. (c): Hint: First, calculate that `900 becomes `1000
in the fourth year. Calculate rate of interest by 211. (c): Total increase in weight = (8 × 2.5) kg = 20 kg
application of simple interest formula. Thereaf- Weight of new person = (60 + 20) kg = 80 kg
ter, principal amount can also be calculated. 212. (c): Total weight of 8 articles = 200 kg
203. (b) Total weight of 3 articles = 3 × 20 = 60 kg
204. (a): H int: First initial R can be calculated, and then Total weight of rest of 5 articles = 200 − 60
3% added to it. = 140 kg
205. (a): We can solve this question directly. Average weight of 5 articles = 140/5 = 28 kg
The simple interest amount is same in both cases. 213. (c): As the distance is not mentioned, L.C.M. of 35
15 × 4 = 20 × 3 and 42, that is, 210, can be assumed to be the total
206. (d): Let Banta get `M. distance.
∴ Santa gets `(1301 – M). Time taken from A to B = 210/35 = 6 hours
We know that both get the same amount. Time taken from B to A= 210/42 = 5 hours
For compound interest, total amount = Total time taken = 11 hours
n (210 + 210) 420
⎛ R ⎞ Average speed = = = 38.17 kmph
⎜⎝ 1+ ⎟ (6 + 5) 11
100 ⎠
Alternatively, by applying direct formula
17 19
⎛ 4 ⎞ ⎛ 4 ⎞ 2 xy
∴ (1301 − M ) ⎜ 1 + = M ⎜1 +
⎝ 100 ⎟⎠ ⎝ 100 ⎟⎠ =
x+ y

A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
2
⎛ 4 ⎞ = (2 × 35 × 42) / 35 + 42 = 38.17 kmph
∴ 1301 − M = M ⎜ 1 +
⎝ 100 ⎟⎠
214. (c): Petrol consumed during first year = 4000/8
676 M = 500
∴ 1301 − M =
625 Petrol consumed during second year = 4000/10
∴ 1301 × 625 – 625M = 676 M = 400
Total expenditure = 4000 × 2 = 8000
∴ M = `625 Total petrol consumed = 500 + 400 = 900
207. (d): Let amount be `person. Average cost per litre = 8000/900 = `8.88
It becomes double = 2A in 9 years. Note: The answer won’t be `9 as many have
In the next 9 years, it again doubles, that is, thought because calculation of average also
becomes 2 × 2A = 4A. depends on the quantity consumed. This ques-
So in 9 + 9 = 18 years, the amount becomes four tion can be solved with harmonic mean also.
times itself. 215. (b): First statement is not sufficient to answer the
208. (b): Simple interest for each year = 40/2 = `20 question because the speed of the second half of
Compound interest for the first year is `20 and the distance is not given here but statement II can
for the ­second year = 41 – 20 = `21 answer as information to calculate average speed =
Thus, `20 becomes `21; hence rate of interest distance/time is given in the statement.
350
can be calculated. 216. (b): Time taken by B to reach destination =
= 7 hours 50
P = `20, SI = `1, T = 1 year
So R = SI × 100/P × T = 1 × 100/20 × 1 = 5% If A has a head start of 1 hour, then the distance
travelled by A when B reaches the destination
209. (a): 4 years – 3 years = 1 year = 40 × (7 + 1) = 320 km
Thus, we can say that `800 becomes `840 in Hence, A has to still travel 30 km while B has
1 year. reached the destination.

M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 61 23/12/22 7:26 PM

 5.62 Chapter 5

217. (d): Distance travelled in 2 hours = 35 × 2 = 70 km Odd days in 300 years = (5 × 3) = 1

Distance travelled in next 3½ hours = 60 × 3.5 98 years have 24 leap years + 74 ordinary years.
= 210 km Number of odd days in 98 years = (24 × 2 + 74) = 122
Distance travelled in next 2½ hours = 70 × 2.5 = 3 odd days.
= 175 km
Now come to the calculation of odd days in the
Total distance = 70 + 210 + 175 = 455 km
period from 1.1.1999 to 16.6.1999.
Average speed = Total distance/Total time taken
(70 + 210 + 175)

March
= = 455/8 = 56.87 kmph

Total
April

June
May
Feb
Jan
(2 + 3.5 + 2.5)
218. (a): The present total age of husband and wife = 2 ×
(22 + 5) = 54 years Odd 31 28 31 30 31 16 167
Total age of family (including child) = 54 + 3 = 57 days
years 57
Average age of family = = 19 years 167 days = 23 complete weeks + 6 odd days (this
3 result is obtained by dividing 167 days by 7)
3600 Total number of odd days = (0 + 1 + 3 + 6) = 10 ⇒ 3
219. (b): Monthly saving = = `300 odd days
12
Hence, monthly expenditure = income − saving = Thus, the day asked in the question is Wednesday.
1400 – 300 = `1100 224. (b): 16 August 2010 = (2000 + 9 years + period
220. (b): The total of a, b and c = 3 × 50 = 150 1.1.2010 to 16.8.2010)
d = 10 Odd days in 2000 years = 0
Total of a, b, c and d = 150 + 10 = 160 9 years = (2 leap years + 7 ordinary years) = (2 × 2 +
Average of a, b, c and d = 160/4 = 40 7 × 1) = 11 odd days
11 can be divided by 7 ⇒ 4 odd days
Calendar
221. (d): There are two conditions for 2 years having the

March
same calendar: both having same length in terms of

Total
April

June
May

July
Aug
Feb
Jan
the number of days and first day starting with same
day of the week.
The year 1991 has 365 days, that is, 1 odd day, and
Odd
the year 1992 has 366 days, that is, 2 odd days, while 31 28 31 30 31 16 31 16 228
days
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

the year 1993 has 365 days, that is, 1 odd day. The
years 1994, 1995 and 1996 have 1 odd day each. The odd days can be calculated for each month sepa-
The sum of odd days so calculated from years 1991 rately and then added up. This can save some time
to 1996 = (1 + 2 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1) = 7 odd days in calculation. Such as January has 3 odd days (31
Hence, the year 1997 will have the same calendar as divided by 7 gives remainder of 3 and so on).
that of the year 1991. Now, 228 days = 32 complete weeks + 3 extra days;
222. (d): 28 May 2007 = (2000 years + 6 years + period it means 3 odd days.
from 1.1.2007 to 28.5.2007) Total number of odd days = (0 + 0 + 4 + 4) = 8; it
Odd days in 2000 years = 0 means 1 odd day.
Odd days till 2006 = (5 ordinary years + 1 leap year) Thus, 16 August 2010 was Monday.
= (5 × 1 + 1 × 2) = 7 odd days 225. (c): From 15 August 2012 to 15 August 2013, there
is 1 extra day. In the rest of 16 days of August, there
Jan Feb March April May Total are 2 odd days.
31 28 31 30 28 148 In September, there are 2 odd days, and in October,
3 odd days. In the first 15 days of November, there
148 days = (21 weeks + 1 day) ⇒ 1 odd day will be 1 odd day.
Total number of odd days = (2000 years + 6 years + Thus, the total number of odd days is 1 + 2 + 2 + 3 + 1
period from 1.1.2007 to 28.5.2007) = 9; it means 2 extra (odd) days. Hence, 15 Novem-
= (0 + 7 + 1) = 8 odd days, that is, again 1 odd day. ber 2013 was Friday.
Hence, Monday is the answer. 226. (b): Each day of the week is repeated after 7 days.
223. (c): 16 June 1999 = (1900 years + 98 years + period Assuming that the first day is Sunday, 8, 15, 22, 29,
from 1.1.1999 to 16.6.1999) 36, 43, 50 and 57 days will be Sundays.
Hence, day 58 is Monday, 59 is Tuesday, and 60 is
Now first deal with 1998 complete years; then how
Wednesday.
many odd days are there in 1998 years?
Hence, day after 60 days will be Thursday.
Odd days in 1600 years = 0

M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 62 23/12/22 7:26 PM

 Mathematical Reasoning and Aptitude 5.63

227. (a): The year 2012 is a leap year. Thus, it has 2 odd 232. (c): Let us draw a Venn diagram with the informa-
days. tion given in the question.
But as calculation is to be done from 22 April 2012 100
to 22 April 2013, so it has 1 odd day only. As the cal-
culation is to be done backwards, 22 April was 1 day
less. Thus, it was Sunday.
Numbers Numbers Numbers
Note: Had the question been about 22 April 2014, the divisible divisible divisible
answer would have been Tuesday. If the same ques- only by 3 by 3 and 5 only by 5
tion is framed for 22 April 2016, the answer would = 33 − 6 = 27 =6 = 20 − 6 = 14
have been Friday, as 2016 is a leap year.
228. (a): 1 April 2001 = (2000 years + period from
1.1.2001 to 1.4.2001) Numbers not divisible by 3 or 5 = 100 − (27 + 6 + 14) = 53
Odd days in 2000 years = 0
Now, calculate the odd days for the year 2001. Numbers divisible by 3 (3, 6, 9 and so on) = 33
Numbers divisible by 5 (5, 10, 15 and so on) = 20
Jan Feb March April Total Numbers which are divisible by both 3 and 5 (15, 30,
45, 60, 75 and 90) = 6
31 28 31 1 91 Numbers divisible by 3 or 5 or both 3 and 5 = 27 + 6 + 14
91 divided by 7 gives 0 as remainder, so, odd days = 47 (alternatively, 33 + 20 − 6 = 47)
can be counted as 0. Numbers divisible neither by 3 nor by 5 = 100 − 47 = 53
Total number of odd days = (0 + 0) = 0 233. (b): Number of candidates failed in English = 52%
On 1 April 2001, it was Sunday. Number of candidates failed in Mathematics = 42%
229. (c): 100 years contain 5 odd days. Number of candidates failed in both = 17%
Last day of the first century is Friday. Total failed = 52 + 42 – 17 = 77%
200 years contain (5 × 2) = 3 odd days. Passed in both the subjects = 100 − 77 = 23%
Last day of the second century is Wednesday. 234. (a):
300 years contain (5 × 3) = 15 odd days, that is,
equal to 1 odd day.
Last day of the third century is Monday.
400 years contain 0 odd days.
English only Both English Hindi only
Last day of the fourth century is Sunday. = 40 − (5 + 20)
= 25 − 20 = 5 and Hindi
This cycle is repeated. = 20 = 15
Last day of a century cannot be Tuesday or Thursday

A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
or Saturday.
230. (c): The year 2004 is a leap year. It has 2 odd days.
Hence, 10 February 2004, was Tuesday, and 8 Total = 40
February 2004 must be Sunday.
235. (c): People reading newspaper X or Y = 40 + 50 − 10 = 80
Venn Diagrams Hence, people reading neither X nor Y = 100 − 80 = 20
(Candidates can try to solve this question with Venn
231. (a) diagram also.)
Total = 40
236. (a): A teacher can be an author; an author can be an
­artist, and so on. Some person can be a teacher, an
author as well as an artist.
Both 237. (d): A traveller can travel by both taxi and train.
English 238. (b): Same explanation as in Question 236 offered in
Only English Only
composition Venn Diagram descriptions.
composition Chemistry
and
= 14 − 5 = 9 = 29 − 5 = 24 239. (c): Same explanation as in Question 236 offered in
Chemistry
=5
Venn Diagram descriptions.
240. (b): Mercury is also a metal, although it exists in liq-
uid state.
Neither English nor Chemistry = 40 − (9 + 5 + 24) = 2 241. (a)
242. (c)
Alternatively: Students taking either English compo-
243. (c)
sition or Chemistry = 14 + 29 – 5 = 38
Hence, students not taking any class = 40 − 38 = 2 244. (a)
245. (c)

M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 63 23/12/22 7:26 PM

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M05_MADAN 04_65901_C05.indd 64 23/12/22 7:26 PM

 CHAPTER

6 Logical Reasoning

01 Understand the Structure of Arguments: Argument Forms,

Structure of Categorical Propositions, Mood, and Figure, Formal
and Informal Fallacies, uses of Language, Connotations and
Denotations of Terms, Classical Square of Opposition.

02 Evaluating and Distinguishing

Deductive and Inductive Reasoning.

03 Analogies
LEARnInG
ObJECTIVES 04 Venn Diagram: Simple and
Multiple use for Establishing
the Validity of Arguments.

05 Indian Logic: Means of Knowledge.

06 Pramanas: Pratyaksha (Perception),

Anumana (Inference), Upamana
(Comparison), Shabda (Verbal
Testimony), Arthapatti (Implication) and
Anupalabddhi (Non-apprehension).

07 Structure and Kinds of Anumana (Inference),

Vyapti (Invariable Relation), Hetvabhasas
(Fallacies of Inference)

M06_MADAN 07_65901_C06.indd 1 27/12/22 8:17 PM

 6.2 Chapter 6

The word ‘because’ indicates that a premise or reason

Introduction
‘The whole of science is nothing more than a
refinement of everyday thinking’
 — Albert Einstein
Let’s start with an interesting example. There is a popular
story that Newton was sitting under an apple tree, an apple
fell on his head, and he suddenly thought of the Universal
Law of Gravitation. Apples were falling towards earth earlier
also but that knowledge was implicit. What Newton did was
to make that part of knowledge as explicit. Knowledge makes
the theories explicit. What makes reasoning important is
that not many problems are solved in life, we work for their
solution. But at the same time, what may be said about
one theory, others may say it in a different manner, thus
progression takes in life. Logic is the way of life that trains a
person in certain methods that help in differentiating what
is right and what is wrong. Flow of knowledge is both the
ways which are called deductive and inductive.
Deductive–General Inductive–specific to
to specific general
All Men are mortal Chanakya is a Man
(general) (cause)
Chanakya is a Man (cause) Chanakya is mortal (effect)
Chanakya is mortal All Men are mortal
(effect) (general)
1. From general (rule) and cause, deduce the effect.
2. From cause and effect, induce the general (rule)
3. From general and an effect, abduce the cause.
Example:
Most of the times, arguments have two or more premises.
The immediate inference has a single premise that sup-
ports the conclusion. Here is an example:
Premise: No items on menu are vegetable dishes.
Conclusion: Therefore, no vegetable dishes are
items on menu.
is being provided to support a claim. The three main types
of claims are—Value, Policy, and Factual claims.
Examples of words and phrases that may signal a
premise are: as, due to, as indicated by, for the reason
that, owing to, through, in the view of, as a result of, etc.
The word ‘therefore’ and its synonyms are clues that
a conclusion, or claim, is being made. Other words are:
accordingly, consequently, infer that, hence, prove that,
conclude that etc.
The simple example:
The argument is, ‘The internet is a good invention.’
Then, we support this contention with logical reasons,
such as ‘It is a source of endless information’, and ‘It is a
hub of entertainment’, and so on. Hereby, we conclude
the argument by giving our verdict.
While evaluating an argument, one must consider both
the forms as well as the content. We are discussing it in
the ensuing passages.
Arguments – Types of Reasoning
The two main types of reasoning involved in the disci-
pline of logic are deductive reasoning and inductive rea-
soning.
Saint Aristotle had emphasized the concept of deduc-
tive reasoning. Immanuel Kant (1724-1804) rightly wrote
in the ‘Critique of Pure Reason’ that Aristotle’s theory
of logic completely accounted for the core of deductive
inference. For him certainty or being closer to the truth is
attained only through deductive inference.
The modern period philosophers, particularly Francis
Bacon and J S Mill, ‘lamented the powerlessness of deduc-
tion’. They focused on ‘inductive reasoning’ to lead to new
knowledge. Deduction is simply the explication of what is
implied in the major premise and the conclusion cannot
be more general than the major premise. Therefore, they
propose inductive inference to be the sole inference which
can offer us to have new knowledge.
Deductive Reasoning
Deductive reasoning is an inferential process that sup-
ports a conclusion with certainty.
Example from Deductive Reasoning:

Logical argument Premise 1: All men are mortal.

Evidence/ Premise 2: I am a man.
Premises
Accepted facts Conclusion: So I am mortal.
Inference
Statements
Here, conclusion is part of premises.
What is claimed to
Conclusion How many premises can we have to arrive at conclusions?
­follow from the evidence
There is no limit to it. In this example, it can be I, you, he,
Figure 6.1 she, Rohan, Sohan and so on. Even if we take one thou-
sand or one million such examples, there may always be
I dentifying A rguments next one. No totality is available. It is rather an impossible
There are some ‘signal words’ in our text to indicate an task. Usually we adopt N + 1 approach. Deductive is the
argument. ‘whole class’, nothing is excluded. It is basically termed

M06_MADAN 07_65901_C06.indd 2 27/12/22 8:17 PM

 Logical Reasoning
Deductive
Theory
Hypothesis
Waterfall
Observation
Confirmation
● Deductive reasoning works from the more
general to the more specific.
● Sometimes this is informally called as ‘top-
down’ approach.
● Conclusion follows logically from premises
(available facts).
Figure 6.2 Deductive vs. Inductive
as ‘deterministic’. It is considered more scientific. Formal
logic has been defined as the ‘science of deduction’.
Deductive inference is further categorized into
immediate (where conclusion is drawn from a single
statement) and mediate (where conclusion is drawn
from two statements, called syllogism). Syllogism has
been discussed further in this unit. Deductive is akin to
analysis (separating any material or abstract entity into its
constituent elements).
We need to look at the following points.
1. Deductive reasoning is the process in which con-
clusions are drawn with ‘logical certainty’ from the
given premises. Thus, conclusion is directly contained
in premises. It is taken as on a ‘conclusive ground’.
Deductive reasoning helps us to know what is ‘embed-
ded’ or ‘entailed’ in the premises. Here, the premises
are complete, sufficient and proper. Conclusion does
not go beyond premises. Thus, deductive offers very
less or no scope for innovation.
2. We move from ‘general’ (theory) to ‘specific’ (specific
premises) in deductive reasoning. This is like deal-
ing with a formal system that is based on structure
and form that’s why a deductive argument is called as
‘structural’ forms. That is require to make an argument
‘valid’.
3. Knowledge is not mere acquisition of new informa-
tion. It is the outcome of analytical (deeply thought),
critical and reflective attitude.
4. A deductive reasoning does not question the status of
premises, they may be actually true or not. The argu-
mentator is ‘necessarily’ concerned with given set of
premises.
M06_MADAN 07_65901_C06.indd 3
6.3
Inductive
Theory
Tentative
Hypothesis
Hill climbing
Pattern
Observation
● Inductive reasoning works the other way,
moving from specific observations to
broader generalizations and theories.
● Informally, we sometimes call this as ‘bot-
tom up’ approach.
● Conclusion is likely based on premises.
● Involves a degree of uncertainty.
5. Deductive reasoning has three basic features – logi-
cal necessity, a priori and rational. Deductive pro-
vides a ‘priori logic’ (that is basically independent
of experience – a knowledge that is prior to sense
experience).
6. Deductive is akin to analysis, that is separating any
material or abstract entity into its constituent elements.
7. There are two dimensions in deductive reasoning –
valid (or invalid) and truth (or falsity) on the other
hand. Validity is not a matter of degree, there are two
situations – Nothing comes in between. An invalid
argument is a conclusion that does not come from the
premises.
The some of the methods to check ‘formal validity’ are
these–‘six rules of valid categorical syllogism’, ‘Venn
diagram method’, ‘nine rules of inference’, ‘ten rules of
replacement’, ‘truth table method’, ‘shorter truth table
(reductio ad absurdum)’ etc.
The example of deductive reasoning:
Proposition I: All vegetables contain vitamins.
Proposition II: Carrot is a vegetable.
Conclusion: Thus, carrot contains vitamins.
We should take a note that truth and falsity deal with the
‘statements’ (be it individual premises and conclusion)
while validity and invalidity deal with arguments in their
whole form.
vAlidity
Validity and Truth: A statement is assumed to be true
when it agrees with reality. For example, all men are
27/12/22 8:17 PM
 6.4
human beings. The above statement is true because men
are human beings. There are two types of truth:
1. Material Truth: This is a matter of fact (truth). This
comes out after empirical query (verifiable by obser-
vation or experience).
2. Logical Truth: This is outcome of the form of an
argument. This is linked with deductive reasoning
where the logician does not bother about the status
of premises whether they are actually true of not. He
is concerned what actually flows from those given
premises. In deductive, the assumption about truth
of premises is assumed (the actual or material truth
does not matter).
Falsity as a statement is false it does not agree with the
realty. For example, Swami Vivekanand was not the social
reformer.
We will discuss them in details in the coming paragraphs.
Validity: An argument is valid when the conclusion is
drawn from premises. Thus, it is formal in nature.
Validity is about strength of the inference, between the
premises and the conclusion. If all premises were true,
then its conclusion must be true, by ‘necessity’. When the
form (or structural form) of an argument is correct, it is
called a valid argument. An argument is invalid, if it does
not have the correct form. There is nothing called as ‘less
valid’, statements are either ‘valid’ or ‘invalid’.
We need to make the following assumptions:
1. First, we need to assume that the premises are true,
even if they are not. We assume that they are true.
2. Then ask yourself, whether the conclusion would
need to be true, assuming that the premises are true.
For example, all men are honest.
All honest are girls.
Therefore, all men are girls.
This argument is valid as it is in right structural form,
though ‘all men are girls’ is not a right statement. The
combination of some statements will lead to valid
argument and false to invalid but this is not the case.
Thus, truth or validity may or may not coincide with each
other. According to deductive principle, knowledge is not
mere acquisition of new information, knowledge is the
outcome of critical, reflective and analytical attitude—
eliminate ignorance (avidya) and become enlightened.
Premises Conclusion Arguments
1. TRUE TRUE VALID
2. TRUE TRUE INVALID
3. TRUE FALSE INVALID
4. FALSE TRUE VALID
5. FALSE TRUE INVALID
6. FALSE FALSE VALID
7. FALSE FALSE INVALID
Valid arguments: 1, 4 and 6 are valid arguments. 1
consists of true premise with true conclusion. 4 consists
of false premises with true conclusion. 6 says that false
premise with false conclusion.
M06_MADAN 07_65901_C06.indd 4
Chapter 6
Invalid arguments (2, 5 and 7) may be interpreted in
the similar manner. Argument 3 points towards the logi-
cal necessity in deductive logic. The false conclusions can
not be withdrawn from all true premises.
In deductive arguments, there are valid or invalid
while propositions are true or false.
Soundness
Soundness is the attribute of a deductive argument that
denotes both the truth of its premises and its logical
strength. A deductive argument is sound when:
1. It is valid.
2. It has all true premises.
For example:
Premise 1: All cats are mammals.
Premise 2: All mammals are animals.
Conclusion: All cats are animals.
This argument is sound because:
1. It is valid as the premises support the conclusion by
necessity.
2. All of the premises are actually true.
On the other hand, the example above used to dem-
onstrate validity (with dogs, dragons, and birds) is not
sound, because it does not have all (or any) true premises.
The form is still valid. We need to look at the figure also to
establish the whole picture.
Inductive Reasoning
We have discussed examples earlier. There is always a
relationship of some doubt in inductive reasoning. We
should be very clear on that aspect.
Proposition I: Most vegetables contain vitamins.
Proposition II: Carrot is a vegetable.
Conclusion: Therefore, a carrot contains vitamins.
Proposition I contains the word ‘most’ in inductive while
deductive contains the word ‘all’. Thus, deductive is
deterministic in nature while inductive is probabilistic.
Aristotle used the word ‘epagoge’ for induction and CS
Peirce used the word ‘ampliative’ for the same. There is
possibility that the conclusion goes beyond the premises.
Thus, inductive arguments are innovative that work for
the solution of problems in the society.
The study of inductive reasoning is generally carried out
in the field of ‘informal logic’ or ‘critical thinking’. As deduc-
tive reasoning does not help much in the progression of
knowledge. Then Inductive reasoning comes into picture.
Inductive is more about social sciences. This cycle of knowl-
edge moves on. Some claim that induction as a principle is
falsifiable because it is based on human observations.
While inductive reasoning is not 100 per cent accurate
all the time as a little doubt is always there in inductive
27/12/22 8:17 PM
 Logical Reasoning
reasoning. But still inductive reasoning a relatively ‘quick
way to make decisions. In most of situations in life, sav-
ing time is more important than being accurate and fact
based always (as is the objective of deduction).
The future examples may be highly uncertain. Inductive
strength the attribute of inductive arguments.
1. In Inductive reasoning, we draw the most probable
(or say ‘the best possible’) conclusion. These conclu-
sions are suggested by set of observations and expe-
riential (gained through senses) statements. The
observations never provide us the complete idea or
solution, so we use the world ‘probability’ with induc-
tive reasoning.
2. We move from ‘specific (specific premises) to ‘theory’
(general) in inductive reasoning.
3. Inductive arguments are tentative, probable and pro-
visional. No empirical science, natural or social can
try to explain the social phenomena with inductive
reasoning.
4. Inductive arguments are posteriori that means that
knowledge is acquired ‘after experience’. There is pos-
sibility of acquiring new knowledge, therefore, it is
innovative.
5. An inductive reasoning is tested by strong / weak and
cogency. The argumentator is concerned with ‘prob-
ably’ concerned with given set of premises.
6. Inductive reasoning has three basic features – logical
probability and a post priori and some flexibility. We
get knowledge that is after sense experience.
7. Inductive arguments are not evaluated as valid or
invalid, but true or false.
Comparison: Addition of premises may take the change
the status from inductive to deductive. Both are not
opposed or contradictory to each other, they are rather
complimentary and supplementary to one another. They
differ mostly in their ‘beginning points’. According to
Hume, deductive is akin to ‘demonstrative’, and induc-
tive is ‘probable’. JS Mills criticized the deductive as ‘syl-
logism’. In inductive reasoning, challenge is how to get
generality, necessity, normativity etc.
Truth takes the value of ‘1’ and falsity the value of ‘0’.
According to Immanuel Kant (1724–1804), Saint
Aristotle focused on the concept of deductive reason-
ing. To him, the certainty or being closer to the truth is
attained only through deductive inference. The modern
period philosophers, particularly Francis Bacon and J
S Mill, ‘lamented the powerlessness of deduction’. They
focused on ‘inductive reasoning’ to lead to new knowl-
edge. This helps in the solution of problems as well.
Premise 1: Most peacocks eat oats.
Premise 2: This bird is a peacock.
Conclusion: T
 hus, probably this bird eats oat.
This argument is inductively strong because if all its
premises were true, then it would be highly likely or prob-
able that its conclusion would also be true.
M06_MADAN 07_65901_C06.indd 5
6.5
Inductively strong arguments may have:
• True premises, true conclusion.
• False premises, false conclusion.
• False premises, true conclusion.
Inductively strong arguments cannot have:
• True premises, false conclusion.
To summarize, a strong inductive argument is one
where it is improbable for the conclusion to be false, given
that the premises are true. A weak inductive argument is
one where the conclusion probably would not follow from
the premises, if they were true.
Cogency
Cogency is the attribute of an inductive argument that
denotes the truth of its premises and its logical strength.
An inductive argument is cogent when:
1. It is inductively strong, and
2. It has all true premises.
Here is an example:
Premise 1: Europa has an atmosphere containing
oxygen.
Premise 2: Oxygen is required for life.
Conclusion: Thus, there may be life on Europa.
This argument is cogent because:
1. It is inductively strong (if the premises were true, then
the conclusion would probably be true), and
2. The premises actually are true.
On the other hand, the example above concerning
peacocks, used to demonstrate inductive strength, is
not cogent, because it does not have all true premises.
In summary, an inductive argument is one in which it
is improbable that the conclusion is false given that the
premises are true.
Good A rguments
The important take-away from the information on the
attributes of both deductive and inductive arguments
is this:
A good argument proves its conclusion and has two key
features:
1. It is logically strong.
2. All of its premises are true.
Logical Strength
Logical strength is the degree of support that the prem-
ises, if true, confer on the conclusion. This ­attribute
applies to both deductive arguments (by virtue of valid-
ity) and inductive arguments (by virtue of inductive
strength).
27/12/22 8:18 PM
 6.6 Chapter 6

1. A good deductive argument is not only valid, but is
also sound.
2. A good inductive argument is not only inductively
strong, but is also cogent.
David Hume stated, ‘Will the Sun rise tomorrow?’
The laws of nature say this, but still not sure about
tomorrow.
Let us look at close examples of deductive and induc-
tive arguments:
Deductive Reasoning
Proposition I: All vegetables contain vitamins.
Proposition II: Carrot is a vegetable.
Conclusion: Thus, carrot contains vitamins.
Inductive Reasoning
Proposition I: Most vegetables contain vitamins.
Proposition II: Carrot is a vegetable.
Conclusion: Thus, carrot contains vitamins.
Stopover
1. In a deductive argument, conclusion is:
(a) Summing up of the premises.
(b) Not necessarily based on premises.
(c) Entailed by the premises.
(d) Additional to the premises.
The correct option is (c).
2. Inductive reasoning is based on or presupposes:
(a) Uniformity of nature.
(b) God created the world.
(c) Unity of nature.
(d) Laws of nature.
The correct option is (a).
3. A deductive argument is valid if:
(a) Premises are false and conclusion is true.
(b) Premises are false and conclusion is also false.
(c) Premises are true and conclusion is false.
(d) Premises are true and conclusion is also true.
The correct option is (d).
4. Structure of logical argument is based on:
(a) Formal validity
(b) Material truth
(c) Linguistic expression
(d) Aptness of examples
The correct option is (a).
Logical reasoning is an essential part of human thought
process, but humans are not logical reasoners.
Deductive method leads to acceptance or rejection of
decisions. Inductive method leads to tentative conclu-
sion that itself seems to be subjective. The inductive and
deductive theorizing are two complementary stages of
constructing any theory, in a way that induction precedes
deduction.
According to Aristotle, the difference between deduc-
tive and inductive arguments does not lie in the words
used within the arguments, but rather in the intentions of
the arguer. If we have no information about the intentions
of the arguer, then we check for both. That is, we assess
the argument to see whether it is deductively valid and
whether it is inductively strong.
1. Priori and posteriori arguments: In context of New-
ton’s example, or specific, let us look at ‘priori’ and
‘posteriori’ arguments.
Priori argument is prior to sense experience, thus
‘priori’.
2. In contrast, a posteriori argument (enlightenment or
new enlightenment) is gained only after sense experi-
ence has already occurred.
After Newton, many other scientific observations also
add to such kinds of relationships.
Types of syllogism: On the basis of proposition, syl-
logism is of four types and they are as follows:
1. Categorical: Here, the relationship between the sub-
ject and the predicate is without any condition.
Example: I. All trains are planes. II. All dogs are
animals.
Within syllogism, our focus is on categorical
syllogism.
All told, there are exactly 256 distinct forms of cat-
egorical syllogism: four kinds of major premise mul-
tiplied by four kinds of minor premise multiplied by
four kinds of conclusion multiplied by four relative
positions of the middle term.
2. Hypothetical: The relationship between the subject
and the predicate is asserted conditionally.
For example, if it rains, he will not attend.
3. Disjunctive: In a disjunctive proposition, the asser-
tion is of alteration.
Example: I. Either he is courageous or he is strong.
4. Relational: Here, the relation between the various
terms is shown in an order:
Example: a > b > c > d; so a > d (conclusion).

Stopover Stopover
Which of the following is the characteristic feature of
Which of the following is an analogous statement?
an argument? [December 2019]  [2019]
(a) It is either valid or invalid. (a) Man is like God.
(b) It is neither valid nor invalid. (b) God is great.
(d) It is either true or false. (c) Gandhi is the father of the nation.
(d) It is neither true nor false. (d) Man is a rational being.
The correct option is (a). The correct option is (a).

M06_MADAN 07_65901_C06.indd 6 27/12/22 8:18 PM

M06_MADAN 07_65901_C06.indd 7
Logical Reasoning

Argument terminology Determine validity or strength:

If we assume the premises are true,
does the conclusion follow? Sound: Valid and
Sound
All premises ‘True’

Valid

Unsound
Deductive

Deductive: Conclusion
necessarily/certainly Invalid Unsound
follows from premises

Argument
Cogent: Strong and
Cogent
Argument: All premises ‘True’
• Collection of statements
Strong
(Premises) intended to
support or infer a claim
Uncogent
(Conclusion)
Inductive
• Each statement has a
truth value either ‘True’
or ‘False’ Inductive: Conclusion
follows from premises Weak Uncogent
with some probability
Figure 6.3 Argument Terminology
6.7

27/12/22 8:18 PM
 6.8 Chapter 6

Proposition
Animals
A proposition is a sentence that makes a statement and
gives a relation between two or more terms. In logical rea-
soning, any statement is termed as a proposition. Cats
A proposition is assumed to be true and from which a
conclusion can be drawn. The statement, ‘All cats are lem-
ons’ is assumed to be true as a proposition (or premise),
but we all know that cats and l­ emons are entirely different
entities. Figure 6.4
Proposition consists of the following four parts: 2. Universal Negative (E): It denotes exclusion.
1. Quantifier: All, no, and some. They specify a quan- Form: No S is P.
tity. ‘All’ and ‘no’ are universal quantifiers, and ‘some’ Example: ‘No fishes are birds’ would be a universal
is a particular quantifier. negative.
2. Subject (S): About which something is being said. Distribution: Both subject and predicate. Here, an
3. Predicate (P): Something that affirms or denies the entire class of predicate term is denied to the entire
subject. class of the subject term.
4. Copula: Copula reflects relation between the subject
and predicate.
Fish Birds
Quantifier + Subject + Copula + Predicate

Examples: Figure 6.5

All bats are boys.
Some players are doctors.
Quality: Categorical propositions can have one of the two
qualities, affirmative or negative, which have been clari-
fied through ‘classification of proposition’.
Classification of Propositions
Propositions are basically of two types, universal and
particular. Universal proposition is further divided into
two parts.
1. Universal Positive or Affirmative (A): It denotes
inclusion.
Form: All S is P, where S is the subject and P is the
predicate.
Example: ‘All cats are animals’. It is basically about
inclusion.
Distribution: It distributes the subject only. In the
above statement, cats are distributed in animals.
  Predicate is not interchangeable with the subject
while maintaining the validity of a proposition. We
cannot say that all animals are cats.
Particular proposition: A particular proposition can also
be divided into two parts.
1. Particular Positive (I): It denotes ‘partial inclusion’.
Form: Some S is P.
Example: Some men are foolish.
Distribution: Neither the subject nor the predicate.
In the example, the subject term, men, is used not for
all, but only for some men and similarly, the predicate
term, foolish, is affirmed for a part of subject class. So,
both are undistributed.
Foolish
Men
Figure 6.6
2. Particular Negative (O): It denotes partial exclusion.
Form: Some S is not P, or not every S is P.
Example: ‘Some birds are not carnivores.’
Distribution: Only of the predicate.
Table 6.1 will help the candidates compare major
aspects of different forms of a proposition.

Table 6.1 Types and Main Characteristics of Propositions

Sign Statement form Examples Quantity Quality Distributed

A All S are P All politicians are liars. Universal Positive Only subject

E No S are P No politicians are liars. Universal Negative Both subject and predicate.

I Some S are P Some politicians are liars. Particular Positive Neither subject nor predicate.

O Some S are not P Some politicians are not liars. Particular Negative Only predicate

M06_MADAN 07_65901_C06.indd 8 27/12/22 8:18 PM

 Logical Reasoning 6.9

A word of caution is required. Sometimes predicate carries
negative force. But it does not make the quality of proposition
negative. For example, ‘dishonest’, non-natural, etc. consti-
tute terms in their own right. They have nothing to do with
the quality of proposition. Consider these two propositions:
1. Shakuni is dishonest.
2. Telepathy is a non-natural phenomenon.
These propositions are positive (affirmative) only. It
means that a proposition is negative only when a negative
word is a part of copula. However, quantity of proposition
needs elaborate explanation.
them to draw a conclusion. For example, in a previous
NET examination, the statements (i) ‘only graduates are
eligible for this post’ and (ii) ‘most rickshaw pullers are
graduates’ were given. These types of statements need to
be converted to their logical form, i.e., quantifier + subject
+ copula + predicate, as discussed earlier. The rules of
reduction can help in solving these types of problems.
1. A-type Propositions: Statements starting with words
‘each’, ‘every’, ‘any’, etc., are to be treated as A-type
propositions (starting with all).
Original sentence Logical form

Parts of Categorical Propositions Every man is liable to All men are persons who
commit error. are liable to commit
There are three parts of statements in categorical syllogism, mistakes.
the major premise, the minor premise, and a conclusion.
Each premise has one term in common with the conclusion. Each student All students are ­persons
­participated in the who ­participated in the
Parts Example event. event.
Major premise All humans are mortal.
Any one of the Indians All Indians are laborious.
Minor premise All Greeks are humans. is laborious.
Conclusion All Greeks are mortal. Only Indians are All students of this
students of this college. ­college are Indians.
1. Major Premise: Predicate of the conclusion is called
as the major term. The premise containing a major The honest alone are All successful persons
term is called a major premise. In the example, mortal successful. are honest.
is the major term.
 ote: Sentences with singular term or definite singular
N
2. Minor Premise: The subject of the conclusion is called
term without the sign of negation are also to be treated
minor term. The premise containing a minor term is
as A-type proposition. For example, ‘Ram is mortal’.
called a minor premise. In the example, Greeks is the
minor term. 2. E-type Propositions: Sentences with singular term
3. Middle Term: One term common in both the premises or definite singular term with the sign of negation are
is called middle term. It is not a part of conclusion. In to be treated as E-type propositions. Sentences begin-
the example, humans is the middle term. ning with the words like ‘no’, ‘never’, and ‘none’ are to
  For practical purpose, we can put the statements in be treated as E-type propositions.
the following form:   ‘Men are never perfect’ is ‘No men are perfect’ in its
logical form.
Statement 1:
3. I-type Propositions: Affirmative sentences with
A B words like ‘a few’, ‘certain’, ‘most’, and ‘many’ are to
B C be treated as I-type propositions.
Conclusion:
A C Sentence Logical form
According to our above discussion, A is the minor A few men are present. Some men are present.
term, C is the major term, and B is the ­middle term.
4. Conclusion: In conclusion statement, first term or Most of the students are Some students are
(subject) is the subject of the first proposition and laborious. laborious.
second term (or predicate) is the predicate of the sec-
ond proposition. Few men are not selfish. Some men are selfish.
Certain books are good. Some books are good.
Deductive Inference and Syllogism
Many Indians are Some Indians are
Conversion of Common Statements into their religious. religious.
Standard Logical Forms All students of my class, Some students of my
This step depends upon the requirement to do so. In except a few, are well class are well prepared.
logical reasoning or syllogism problems, the common prepared.
language sentences may have to be converted into their
logical standard form before we can apply logic rules on The poor may be happy. Some poor people are
happy.

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 6.10 Chapter 6

4. O-type Propositions: A negative sentence that begins are mortal. The immediate inference involves two and only
with a word like ‘every’, ‘any’, ‘each’, or ‘all’ is to be two terms: men and mortal. We have two methods–Eductions
treated as an O-type proposition. and ‘square of opposition’. First we are discussing Eductions
and then the ‘traditional square of opposition’.
Sentence Logical form
1. By Implication: If a given proposition is A type, then it
Every man is not rich. Some men are not rich. also implies that I-type conclusion must be true.

Certain books are not Some books are not Statement Implication of statement
readable. readable.
All chairs are tables Some chairs are tables
Most of the students are Some students are not (A-type). (I-type).
not rich. rich.
No chair is table Some chairs are not tables
Some men are not above Few men are above (E-type). (O-type).
temptation. temptation.
  Looking at the proposition again, when we say
5. Exclusive proposition: that ‘All chairs are tables’, it implies that ‘Some chairs
(a) In exclusive propositions, the subject is qualified (we are presently concerned with) are tables’. This is
with words such as ‘only’, ‘alone’, ‘none but’, or based on our knowledge that some is a part of all.
‘no one else but’.   Similarly, we can say that an E-type proposition also
(b) Here, the quantity is not explicitly stated. implies an O-type conclusion. If we say that ‘No chair
(c) They can be reduced to A, E, or I types by first is table’, we are absolutely sure that ‘Some chairs are
interchanging the subject and the predicate, and not tables’.
then replacing words like ‘only’ or ‘alone’ with The immediate inferencing by implication is quite
‘all’. similar to the concept of ­ sub-alternation also dis-
If the exception is definitely specified as in case of, ‘All cussed under Squares of Opposition.
metals except mercury are solid’, then the proposition is 2. By Conversion: First of all, let us be familiar with the
to be treated as universal (All non-mercury metals are few terms.
solid). In case the exception is indefinite, as in case of, Convertend: The original proposition.
‘All metals except one are solid’, the proposition is to be Converse: The new proposition.
treated as particular. Conversion: The process itself.
The nature of proposition depends upon the context The process consists of two steps. The first step is
as well. For example, ‘Students are present’ is reduced to, interchanging the subject and the predicate, the sub-
‘Some students are present’ (I type). ject will become the predicate, and predicate will
become the subject.
In certain cases, the predicates are qualified by words
The second step is to change the type of the given
such as ‘hardly’, ‘scarcely’, and ‘seldom’, but quantity is
proposition to the pattern given in Table 6.2.
not specified. Such propositions should be treated as par-
ticular negative. For example, ‘Businessmen are seldom These conversion rules are helpful, not only for immediate
honest’ is an irregular proposition. It is reduced to, ‘Some inference but also for mediate inference, depending on the
businessmen are not honest’. nature of the problem and answer choices. Thus, candi-
If such a proposition contains the sign of negation, dates are expected to learn the conversion rules by heart.
then this proposition is to be treated as an I-type proposi- Important Note: In NET examination, a question is fre-
tion. quently asked only about conversion.
For example, ‘Businessmen are not seldom honest’ is to
be reduced to ‘Some businessmen are honest’, which is an Table 6.2 Conversion Table
I type proposition. This is so because it involves a double
negation, which is equivalent to affirmation. Types of Statements Valid Conversion
As we discussed earlier, deductive inference problems Universal Positive (A) Only Particular Positive (I)
are basically of two types. All chairs are tables. Some tables are chairs.
1. Immediate inference Some chairs are tables.
2. Mediate inference Universal Negative (E) Universal Negative (E)
No chairs are tables. No tables are chairs.
I mmediate Inference Particular Positive (I) Only Particular Positive (I)
Here, the ‘conclusion’ is drawn only from ‘one given proposi- Some chairs are tables. Some tables are chairs.
tion’ in an argument. It means that there are two propositions
in total–one premise and a conclusion. For example, from “all Particular Negative (O) No conversion
men are mortal,” we can immediately deduce that some men Some chairs are not tables.

M06_MADAN 07_65901_C06.indd 10 27/12/22 8:18 PM

 Logical Reasoning 6.11

Contrary Opposition
Stopover
What can be concluded from the given statement, ‘Some Every S is P No S is not P
men are honest’. Which of the following is true? If one is T the other must be F, but both can be F
(a) Some honest people are not men.
(b) All honest people are not men. A E
(c) Some honest people are men.

descend with truth, rise with falsity

(d) None of the above

descend with truth, rise with falsity

Solution: This statement is particular positive statement.
Hence, according to Table 6.3, it can be converted into

Subalternation

Subalternation
Particular Positive only.
Contradictory Opposition
Table 6.3  nswer Choices and Justification as per
A If one is F the other must be T,
Conversion Table If one is T the other must be F
Answer choices Justification
(a) Some honest Particular Negative, hence
people are not men. eliminated.
(b) No honest people Universal Negative, hence
are men. eliminated. I O
(c) Some honest Particular Positive, hence this If one is F the other must be T, but both can be T
people are men. is the correct answer.
Some S is P Some S is not P
(d) None of the above Not applicable
Sub-contrary Opposition
Thus, (c) is the correct answer.

1. The same is the case with E (Universal Negative)

‘Square of Opposition’–An Easy
Approach
This is also a part of immediate inference. We need to look
at diagram 6.1 on page 6.2. Universal mean ‘All’ and ‘No’
are given as subjects in the propositions. Affirmative means
positive, it indicates presence. Negative means ‘No’ and
‘Not’ in the above propositions. Particulars means ‘some’.
We have tried to explain the contradictories, contrar-
ies, sub contraries and sub alterations. These have been
put in the diagram as well. A has relationship with E, I and
O. E has relationship with A, I and O. So is the case with I
and O. Their network makes up the square of opposition.
The sqaure of opposition tells us the relationship between
quantiaty, quality or both.
If we take a horizontal split in the middle across the square
of opposition, then A represents Universal Affirmative and E
Universal Negative. Below that split, ‘I’ represents Particular
Affirmative and O Particular Negative.
Similarly, assume a vertical line Affirmatives and
Negative across on left hand and right hand sides.
1. Contradictory Opposition
These categorical propositions differ from each other
both in quantity and quality. For example, between A
type and O type, A is Universal Affirmative and O is
Particular Negative. Here, Universal and Particular
differ in quantity. Also, Affirmative and Negative dif-
fer in Quality.
and I (Particular Positive) that again differs in
quantity and quality.
2. Two propositions are contradictories if one is
denial or negation of the other. They can’t both be
true OR both be false.
3. The contradictories exist in two forms – 1. A and
O 2. E and I
A O E I
A All men are honest E No men are honest
O Some men are not honest I Some men are honest
‘X’ in the middle of square of oppostion represents
contradictories, with opposite truth values. This can
be easily remembered.
2. Contrary Opposition
Two universals (A and E) can’t be true together. If A is
given to be True, then E is False. If A is given to be false,
then O will be doubtful. The vice versa is also applicable.
A E
A – All men are honest.
E – No men are honest.
Since God (or Truth) is assumed to be at the top of dia-
grams. We assume that God is one, there can’t be two
Gods. In a similar manner, both of the contraries (A and
E) can’t be true simultaneously.

M06_MADAN 07_65901_C06.indd 11 27/12/22 8:18 PM

 6.12 Chapter 6

3. Sub-contrary Opposition 2. On the second level, there are F T F T. If E is True, then

Two particulars can’t be true together. If ‘I’ type is we will go to the second level, and see that A is F, I is
given to be True, ‘O’ type is doubtful. If ‘I’ is given to F and O is True. Thus, positions of T and F should be
be true, the other will be false. The vice versa is also ascertained from the diagonals.
applicable. It means that both won’t be true together. 3. If E is False, we should go to the third level where A is
Further, both terms have the same quantity, both D (doubtful), I is True and O is doubtful. If I is true we
‘I’ and ‘O’ types are particular (same quantity). They should look at third level as benchmark (and NOT to
differ on ‘quality’ terms only. For example, ‘I’ is of level 1).
affirmative quantity, then we know that ‘O’ type is of
negative quantity). 4. If A is False, then E and I are Doubtful. O is true in that
case.
I O Now look at the two recent questions.
Question 1 (June 2022 Exam)
Example:
If the statement ‘some plants are not carnivorous’ is
Some men are honest. given as false, then which of the following could be
Some men are not honest. immediately inferred from it ?
4. Sub-alternation A. ‘some pants are carnivorous’ is true.
When two propositions differ only in quantity (one B. ‘some plants are carnivorous’ is false.
is universal and other is particular), the opposition is C. ‘No plants are carnivorous’ is false
called sub alteration. D. ‘All plants are carnivorous’ is true.
(a) B, C and D
A I (b) A and D
E O (c) A and C
(d) A, C and D
Example Explanation:
Now look at the question statement – ‘Some plants
A All men are honest E No men are honest are not carnivorous’, that is basically O – type. This is
given to be false.
O Some men are not honest I Some men are honest A. ‘some pants are carnivorous’ denotes I-type –
given to be True in question.
B. ‘some plants are carnivorous’ again denotes I- type
Shortcut Method For ‘Square of – given to be False
O pposition’ thorugh T ruth T able C. No plants are carnivorous E-type – given to be
False
D. All plants are carnivorous denotes A-type – given
Proposition A E I O to be True
If O-type is false, then looking horizontally on Truth
Level 1 T F T F Table given above, we can say that
I-type is True – that denotes that option A is a part of
answer.
Level 2 F T F T
Similarly E as False, that is option C is a part of answer.
A as True, that is option D is also part of answer.
Level 3 D F T D
That means that A, C and D are part of answer. Thus
overall, (d) is the answer.
Level 4 F D D T Question 2 (June 2022 Exam)
If the statement ‘no birds are mammals’ is given as
There may 1-2 questions on true and false. Thus, we are true, what could be immediately inferred from it ?
providing a systematic diagramatic solution for this. The A. ‘all birds are mammals’ is false.
difficult relationships among A, E, I and O become easy B. ‘some birds are mammals’ is false.
with the main diagram. The T stands for Truth, F for False C. ‘Some birds are not mammals’ is false
and D for doubtful. D. ‘Some birds are not mammals’ is true.
1. In the first level, there is T F T F. Suppose, A is True, (a) A, B and C only
then E is false, I is True and O is False. (b) A, B and D

M06_MADAN 07_65901_C06.indd 12 27/12/22 8:18 PM

 Logical Reasoning
(c) A and D
(d) A and C
Explanation:
Now look at the question statement – ‘No birds are
Mammals’ is Universal Negative that is E. As it is given
to be true, come to the second row where
A is False–it means that All Birds are Mammals is False.
I is False–it means that Some Birds are Mammals is False
O is True–Some Birds are Not Mammals is True
Thus, as per question A, B and D are part of answer.
Thus, (b) is the correct option.
Stopover
1. By which of the following propositions, the proposi-
tion, ‘Some men are not honest’ is contradicted?
(a) All men are honest.
(b) Some men are honest.
(c) No men are honest.
(d) All of the above.
The answer is (a).
2. Two propositions that have the same subject and pred-
icate terms, but are different in quality are termed as:
(a) Contradictory (b) Contrary
(c) Subaltern (d) Subalternation
The answer is (a).
3. If two propositions are related in such a way that they
cannot be true together although they may be false
together, then such a relationship is considered to be:
 [2019]
(a) Contrary (b) Contradictory
(c) Subaltern (d) Sub-contrary
The answer is (a).
4. ‘All students clear their examinations’ and ‘few stu-
dents did not clear their examination’. [2019]
This is an instance of:
(a) Contradictories (b) Superaltern
(c) Subaltern (d) Contraries
The answer is (a).
Mediate Inference
In addition to conversion, let us look at other three cases
of mediate inference. These are also called as ‘Eductions’.
The ‘square of opposition’ is also considered as a part of it
and has been discussed.
1. Obversion
Obversion is a kind of immediate inference in which
there is a change in the quality of the given proposi-
tion, while its meaning remains unchanged.
Examples:
1. The obverse of ‘All tigers are insects” is ‘No tigers
are non-insects’.
M06_MADAN 07_65901_C06.indd 13
6.13
2. The obverse of ‘Some singers are males” is ‘Some
singers are not non-males.’
2. Contraposition
Contraposition is a kind of immediate inference in
which from a given proposition we infer another
proposition, having its subject the contrary of the
given predicate.
For example, the contrapositive of ‘All crows are birds’
is ‘All non-birds are non-crows.’
3. Inversion
Inversion is a kind of immediate inference in which
from a given proposition we infer another proposi-
tion, having its subject the contradictory of the given
subject.
For example, the inversion of ‘all men are mortal’ is
‘Some not-men are not-mortal.’
Methods of Mediate I nference
Mediate inferences (syllogisms) have three and only
three terms. There are basically two approaches to solve a
syllogism problem, namely
1. Analytical method
2. Venn diagrams
The candidates may prefer Venn diagram method to
analytical method as they find it easier. In this book,
there are many illustrations using both the methods.
As questions are frequently asked from the analytical
method in NET examination, the candidates should
be well versed with analytical method as well.
Candidates are advised not to rely exclusively on Venn
diagrams as they can be ambiguous at times. As many ques-
tions based on theory are expected, analytical method can
reinforce our understanding about the concepts.
Analytical Method for Mediate
Inference Problems
The basic steps to solve syllogism problems are
1. Alignment of statements
2. Drawing conclusions
Depending on the nature of the problem, it can entail
two additional steps also. Table 6.4 shows the steps
needed in analytical method for mediate inference.
Table 6.4  teps in Analytical Method for Mediate
S
Inference Problems
Step I Alignment of the propositions—standard
format.
Step II Draw conclusion by use of the table.
Step III Check for immediate inferences.
Step IV Check for complementary pair if steps II and
III fail.
The requirement of steps I, III, and IV depends upon the
question.
27/12/22 8:18 PM
 6.14
Step I: Alignment of the Propositions
It consists of two steps. Firstly, make sure that there are
exactly three terms given in both the statements. In case,
the number of terms is different, we need not go fur-
ther, as there will be no conclusion. Secondly, we check
whether the propositions are in standard form or not.
For practical purposes, the following format can be
used as a standard.
Minor (or first) term A B
Middle term (major or third) term B C
A, B, and C used above denote the first, second, and third
term, just for quick representation of terms while solving
practical questions. Please note that this A (used for first
term) is different from A used for universal affirmative.
As discussed earlier, in the conclusion statement, the
first term (subject) is the subject of the first proposition
and second term (predicate) is the predicate of the second
proposition. This fact becomes the basis for the alignment
of propositions.
In case, the problem is in the standard form, we can
directly move to Step II.
If one or both propositions are not given in the stan-
dard format, align them by
1. Converting the first or second statement or both
2. Changing the order of premises
We can make it clear through the following examples.
It is important to remind at this stage that sometimes the
words ‘mostly’, ‘generally’, ‘only’, and so on are mentioned in
one or both the statements. Initially, we convert them into
logical form before doing their alignment, if required. This
has been discussed separately under ‘Converting common
language statements into their logical Form’ on Page 6.9.
Example 1
Statements
1. Intelligent alone are laborious.
2. Most of the girls are smart.
These statements should first be converted into logical
forms according to the rules for logical form.
1. All smart are laborious. This is in the form B to C.
2. Some girls are intelligent. This is in the form A to B.
Just by changing their order, we can align them. After
alignment is done, we move to Step II.
Example 2
Statements
1. Some pens are books.
2. Some stationery are books.
M06_MADAN 07_65901_C06.indd 14
Chapter 6
As books is the common term, they are in the form A
to B and C to B. The first statement does not require any
change. As the second statement is in particular positive
(I-type), this can be changed to I-type only according to
conversion table given earlier. The second statement will
become, ‘Some books are stationery’.
Now, propositions are properly aligned, i.e., ‘Some
pens are books’ and ‘Some books are stationery’. We now
move to Step II.
Example 3
Statements
1. No van is house.
2. All boxes are house.
Here, the common term, house, is the predicate in both
propositions. Here, we have to alter the first proposition
and also change the order to bring it to the form A to B
and B to C.
1. All boxes are house.
2. No house is van.
Now, the predicate of the first proposition is the subject
of the second statement.
Example 4
Statements
1. All boys are tigers.
2. Some tigers are cowardly.
Solution: Here, the middle term, tiger, is the predicate
in first proposition and the subject of the second proposi-
tion. No alignment is required here.
After aligning the statements among themselves, we
can move to Step II.
Concept box
IEA Rule
There can be confusion while aligning a pair of state-
ments, where the statement should be given prior-
ity in terms of conversion. For example, if there are
two statements, A-type and I-type, which should be
converted so that our purpose of getting the standard
form is achieved? The IEA rule helps in such decision-
making.
If first statement given is of A-type and second is of
I-type, then as per IEA rule, the I-type statement should
be given priority for conversion. Similarly, in case of
confusion between E-type and A-type, E-type should
be given priority over A-type.
Step II: Applying Syllogism Rules
After ensuring that propositions are in a standard
format, we apply syllogism rules to draw conclusions.
27/12/22 8:18 PM
 Logical Reasoning 6.15

Table 6.5 Rules of Syllogism

Proposition I (A to B) Proposition II (B to C) Conclusion Summarized form
Universal Positive (A) Universal Positive (A) A+A=A
Universal Positive (A)
Universal Negative (E) Universal Negative (E) A+E=E
Universal Positive (A) Particular Negative (O) E + A = O*
Universal Negative (E)
Particular Positive (I) Particular Negative (O) E + I = O*
Universal Positive (A) Particular Positive (I) I+A=I
Particular Positive (I)
Universal Negative (E) Particular Negative (O) I+E=O
*In this case, the flow is from C to A, and not from A to C, as in all other cases. (Please refer Table 6.5. A, B, and C stand
for first, middle, and second terms, respectively.)

After aligning the statements, as per our discussion in conclusion is the converse of the first statement, so (B)
Step I, the conclusion may be drawn by using Table 6.5, follows. Hence, (B) is the answer.
where the rules of syllogism are mentioned.
Question 2
No definite conclusion can be drawn for other combi-
Statements
nations like A + I or O + A, which have not been mentioned
1. All birds are men.
in the above table. In general, we can say that two nega-
2. All crows are birds.
tives (E + E, E + O, O + E, or O + O) do not lead to any
conclusion. Conclusions
Two particulars also do not lead to any conclusion. A. All crows are not men.
Statements: B. Some men are not crows.
  I. All chairs are tables. (A-type) Explanation
II. All tables are furniture (A-type) Step I: The middle term is birds. A close observation indi-
Conclusion: cates that the statements are in the form B to C and A to B.
All chairs are furniture. (A + A = A). After swapping, the statements will become ‘All crows are
birds’ and ‘All birds are men’.
Now, consider Example I as discussed in Step I.
Step II: The conclusion should be A + A = A (universal
1. Some pens are books. (I-type) positive). The conclusion is ‘All crows are men’. So (d) is
2. Some books are stationery. (I-type) the answer.
No conclusion as I + I = No conclusion. Question 3
Now, consider some examples from NET previous Statements
years’ exams. In each of the following questions (1–3), 1. All boats are boys.
two statements are followed by two conclusions, A and B. 2. All boys are lamps.
Assuming that the given statements are true even if they
are at variance with commonly known facts, pick up one Conclusions
of the following answer choices which you think is correct. A. All lamps are boats.
(a) If only conclusion A follows. B. All boats are lamps.
(b) If only conclusion B follows. Solution
(c) If both A and B follows. Step I: Statements are in the standard form, A to B and B
(d) If neither A nor B follows. to C. The common term, boys, is the predicate of the first
proposition and the subject of the second proposition. So
Question 1 no alignment is required.
Statements
1. Some doctors are fools. Step II: A + A ⇒ A
2. He is a doctor. The subject of the conclusion will be the subject of the
first statement, and the predicate of the conclusion will
Conclusions
be the predicate of the second statement. The common
A. He is a fool.
terms will disappear. So, the conclusion is ‘All boats are
B. Some fools are doctors.
lamps’. Thus, only conclusion 2 follows and (B) is the
Solution answer.
No conclusion can be drawn from the two particular Now solving the problem through Venn diagram
affirmative propositions. So (A) does not follow. Second solution.

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 6.16 Chapter 6

According to Statement I, ‘All boats are boys’. Choices

(a) I and II are valid.
Boys (b) II and III are valid.
(c) I and III are valid.
Boats (d) None of the above.
Solution
Figure 6.7 I + I = No conclusion
Two particulars don’t to any conclusion, but after immedi-
According to Statement I and Statement II, the Venn dia- ate inference, we find that (i) and (ii) are valid. So, option
gram looks as follows: (a) is the answer.
Lamps Step IV: Checking for Complementary Pair
Boys (If Required)
Boats Check for complementary pairs if Steps II and III fail. A
complimentary pair is a pair of contradictory statements,
and both cannot be true simultaneously.
We can call a pair as a complementary pair if:
Figure 6.8 1. The subject and predicate of both the sentences are
Looking at the Venn diagram, we can say that second con- the same.
clusion, ‘All boats are lamps’ is correct. 2. They are I + O or A + O or I + E type pairs, which have
been discussed below.
Question 4
Statements I + O type A + O type I + E type
1. All lemons are balls.
2. No bats are lemons. Some chairs are All chairs are Some chairs are
tables. tables. tables.
Conclusions
A. Some balls are not bats. Some chairs are Some chairs are No chair is a
B. Some bats are lemons. not tables. not tables. table.
Solution Note: Sometimes, the converse of the derived conclusions
By changing the order of the statements itself, we can is among answer choices.
align the sentences. The aligned pair is:
No bats are lemons. So (a) is the answer.
All lemons are balls.
E + A = O*. So, the conclusion is, ‘Some balls are not Concept box
bats’.
A Snapshot–Golden Rules of Syllogism
Note: In all the questions discussed previously, Step III and To sum up all the discussion, some golden rules have
Step IV are not required as per the answer choices. emerged to solve the syllogism problems. These are in
continuity with the earlier discussion.
Step III: Checking for Immediate Inferences
1. Every deduction should contain exactly three
(If Required)
terms.
We can check the conclusion (or even statements) for 2. The middle term (present in both the premises)
immediate inference as per answer choices. Usually, in must be distributed at least once.
this case, there are more than two conclusions. Even 3. If one of the premises is negative, then the con-
in case of two conclusion questions, we can go for clusion must be negative (will have the words ‘no’
this step. or ‘not’).
Let us discuss one comprehensive example. 4. If one of the premises is particular, then the conclu-
Statements sion must be particular (will have the words ‘some’,
1. Some tables are chairs. ‘few’, ‘many’, etc.).
2. Some chairs are furniture. 5. If both the premises are particular, then no conclu-
sion can be drawn from the given premises.
Conclusions 6. If both the premises are negative, then no conclu-
I. Some chairs are tables. sion can be drawn from the given premises.
II. Some furniture is chair. 7. A term that is not distributed in the premises can-
III. All tables are furniture. not be distributed in the conclusion.

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 Logical Reasoning 6.17

Examples of Mediate and Immediate Inference Relational A rguments

Question 1 In relationship arguments, both premises and their con-
Statements clusions are relational proposition. There are two char-
1. All movies are stories. acteristics of a relation—relation to itself and to ­others.
2. All stories are surprises. Deductive reasoning is also sometimes ­dependent on the
validity of relational arguments. In NET examination,
Conclusions questions have been asked on relational arguments.
A. All movies are surprises. These are quite easy to understand.
B. Some surprises are movies.
Symmetry
First, let us consider only the statements. The ­sentences
are already aligned. 1. Symmetrical relationship
Since A + A = A, the conclusion will be ‘All movies are sur- Example
prises’. Till this point, it is a question of mediate inference. A is equal to B.
If we convert this conclusion (immediate inference), So, B is equal to A—valid.
we get, ‘Some surprises are movies’. Hence, both the con- It is a ‘symmetrical relationship’.
clusions given in the question are true. 2. Asymmetrical relationship
Question 2 Example
Statements A is greater than B.
1. Some rooms are lamps. So, B is greater than A—invalid.
2. Some lamps are tubes. 3. Non-symmetrical relationship
Conclusions Example
A. Some rooms are tubes. A is the sister of B.
B. Some lamps are rooms. So, B is the sister of A—may or may not be valid.
B may be the brother of A.
We know that from a combination of I + I, no conclusion
can be drawn.
On converting the first statement, we get ‘Some lamps Transitivity
are rooms’, i.e., conclusion (B). 1. Transitive relation: It implies that a relation ­travels
Also, on converting the second statement, we get from A to C through B.
‘Some tubes are lamps’. This proposition is not given in Example
the conclusion part. So, in this example, conclusion (B) A is equal to B.
alone is true. B is equal to C.
Thus, we can see the importance of immediate infer- So, A is equal to C—valid.
ences in solving syllogism problems. In transitive relations, the premises are true and the
conclusion is also valid. ‘Younger to’, ‘precedes’, ‘suc-
Structure of A rguments: U se of languages
ceeds’, and ‘ancestor of’ are other examples of transi-
There are other perspectives or dimensions of structure tive relationships.
of arguments (relational arguments, symmetry, transitiv-
ity, reflexiveness, and connexity), squares of opposition 2. Intransitive relation: Here, relation does not travel
(contradictions, contraries, sub-contraries, and sub-alter- from A to C through B.
nations), definitions (stipulative, lexical, precising, oper- Example
ational, etc.), and other terms such as prejudices, facts, A is the father of B.
opinions, and advice that suggest more about the structure B is the father of C.
of arguments. The questions have been asked regularly in So, A is the father of C—invalid (false conclusion).
NET paper examination. The types of questions have been Relations such as ‘son of’ also fall in the category of
mentioned during the course of discussion as well as in intransitive relations.
practice questions theory. Candidates are expected to go 3. Non-transitive relation:
through these topics. There is one example taken from
Example
NET previous years’ paper.
A is an enemy of B.
Example B is an enemy of C.
In the expression, ‘Nothing is larger than itself’, the rela- So, A is an enemy of C—invalid or false conclusion.
tion ‘is larger than’ is: The relations such as ‘friend of’ and ‘neighbour of’ are
(a) Antisymmetric examples of non-transitive relationships.
(b) Asymmetric
(c) Intransitive
(d) Irreflexive

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 6.18
Reflexiveness
The term reflexiveness is of following types.
1. Reflexive relationship: It is between a term and
itself. Some examples are, ‘is equal to itself, ‘resem-
bles itself’, ‘as old as’, and ‘as young as’.
2. Partial reflexiveness: It means establishing a rela-
tionship with some other thing. Its examples are, ‘A
is as tall as B; B is as tall as C’. Hence, A is as tall as C.
3. Irreflexive: This type of relationship cannot be held
between a term and itself. A is smaller (or greater)
than itself. A is west (or east) of itself and so on.
4. Non-reflexive: This may or may not be held between
a term and itself. An example is, ‘A loves itself’. This
may or may not happen.
Connexity
This type of relationship is valid between any two terms.
For example, 3 is greater than 2, but less than 4.
Types of Definition
A definition is a comprehensive description of a concept
by means of known concepts expressed mainly through
verbal means. The purpose of a definition is as follows:
1. To describe a concept at a given level of abstraction.
2. To distinguish a concept from related concepts.
3. To establish a relationship between the concept in
question and the other concept in order to determine
the position of the concept in the system.
4. To delimit a concept for the purpose of normative ter-
minological work.
The definition should be the starting point for select-
ing and analyzing the term. When selecting or seeking an
appropriate term for a concept, it is necessary to start with
a clear definition of the concept. For clarifying the concept,
its intension and its extension have to be determined.
In NET examination, questions have frequently been
asked on the definition of the following terms:
1. Intensional Definition: Specifying the properties or
features and also the meaning of a term. For exam-
ple, in chemistry, water is defined as a compound of
hydrogen and oxygen, while in physics, it is defined
as a liquid with freezing point of 0°C and boiling point
of 100°C.
2. Extensional Definition: Specifying the class mem-
bers of the term. For example, the planets of the solar
system are Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter,
Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune.
3. Lexical Definition: It is also termed as reportive defi-
nition. Lexical definition is the dictionary meaning of
a term, the common vocabulary of a given language,
for example, defining a book, chair and so on.
4. Stipulative Definition: It is an arbitrary, specified
definition. It is not used to explain the existing mean-
ing of a term, but to assign a new meaning to a term,
whether or not it has already got a meaning. Some
examples are idioms and slangs used in English.
M06_MADAN 07_65901_C06.indd 18
Chapter 6
5. Precising Definition: A definition developed to
clarify a vague or ambiguous term. It is often used in
legal, scientific, or medical settings. For example, a
virus is an infectious agent that causes small pox.
6. Persuasive Definition: A persuasive definition is any
definition that attaches an emotive, positive, or derog-
atory meaning to a term where it has none. This may
be used as a rhetorical tool in a debate or discussion.
For example, someone against abortion may offer the
definition of ‘abortion’ as the murder of an innocent
person during pregnancy. This definition carries a
negative connotation, as the term murder suggests
that abortion is wrongful killing and assumes that the
aborted foetus is already a person. Such a definition
is surely not appropriate in a fair debate on the moral
legitimacy of abortion, even though it might be useful
as a rhetorical tool.
7. Operational Definition: A definition that provides
a meaning to a term by specifying a measurement
procedure.
8. Functional Definition: A definition that specifies the
purpose or use of the items denoted by the term.
9. Ostensive Definition: A definition developed by
showing someone an object and attaching a word
to it.
  This type of definition is often used when a term is
difficult to define verbally, either because the words
will not be understood (as with children and new
speakers of a language) or because of the nature of
the term (such as colours or sensations). For example,
defining red by pointing out red objects—apples, stop
signs, roses, etc.—is giving ostensive definition, as is
naming.
10. Analogous Definition: This definition has analogy;
corresponding in some particular. A brain and a com-
puter are analogous.
  In biology, there is corresponding in function, but
of different origins and having evolved separately, as
the wings of birds and insects.
Connotative and Denotative Meanings
Words are not limited to one single meaning. Most words
have multiple meanings, which are either categorized as
denotative or connotative.
1. The denotation of a word is its explicit definition as
listed in a dictionary. Let us consider the word ‘home’
as an example. The denotative or literal meaning of
home is ‘a place where one lives; a residence’.
2. The expressiveness of a language, however, comes
from the other type of word meaning, a connotation
or the association or set of associations that a word
usually brings to mind. The connotative meaning of
home is a place of security, comfort, and family. The
quote ‘East or west, home is the best’ does not refer
to denotative meaning of home, but the emotions the
word home evokes in most of us. By definition, syn-
onyms have the same denotation or literal meaning,
but almost always have different connotations.
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 Logical Reasoning
Fact, O pinion, B elief , and Prejudice
In these types of questions, a statement is given where the
candidate has to answer whether the statement is a fact, a
prejudice, a belief, or just an opinion.
In the past, many questions have been based upon the
understanding of these terms.
Statement
English is an invaluable asset in international communi-
cation.
Mark
(a) If the statement is a fact.
(b) If the statement is an advice.
(c) If the statement is an opinion.
(d) If the statement is a prejudice.
Similarly, there were statements such as:
(i) Decline of the British Empire should have resulted in
the decline of English.
(ii) Persons educated through a foreign language are sure
to be unpatriotic.
Facts
A fact is verifiable. We can determine whether it is true by
researching the evidence. The facts are as follows:
1. Things known for certain to have happened.
2. Things known for certain to be true.
3. Things known for certain to exist.
This may involve numbers, dates, testimony and so on.
For example, India became independent on 15 August
1947. Facts provide crucial support for the assertion of
an argument.
Opinion
An opinion is a judgment based on facts, an honest
attempt to draw a reasonable conclusion from factual evi-
dence. Opinions are as follows:
1. Things believed to have happened.
2. Things believed to be true.
3. Things believed to exist.
For example, we know that lakhs of people go without
proper medical care in India, and so someone forms the
opinion that the country should institute national health
insurance even though it would cost a few ­ thousand
crores of rupees. An opinion is potentially changeable,
depending on how the evidence is interpreted. Opinions
are debatable, but facts usually are not.
Prejudice
Another kind of assertion that has no place in serious
argumentation is prejudice, a half-baked opinion based
on insufficient or unexamined evidence (for example,
women are bad drivers). Unlike a belief, a prejudice is
testable—it can be contested and disapproved on the
basis of facts. We often form prejudices or accept them
from others, including family, friends, media, and so on,
without questioning their meaning or testing their truth.
M06_MADAN 07_65901_C06.indd 19
6.19
Belief
Unlike an opinion, a belief is a conviction based on cul-
tural or personal faith, morality, or values. Statements
such as ‘capital punishment is legalized murder’ are often
called opinions because they express viewpoints, but are
not based on facts or evidence. They cannot be disap-
proved or even contested in a rational or logical manner.
Since beliefs are inarguable, they cannot serve as the the-
sis of a formal argument.
Analytical Reasoning
Analytical reasoning is considered to be the recent form
of logic in which almost all classical terms are covered.
Here, a sentence, a group of sentences, or a short argu-
mentative paragraph covering concepts, facts, theories,
figures, and so on may be given and questions are asked
with regard to arguments, conclusion, inferences, impli-
cations, and so on. In dealing with these questions, the
methods generally used include inductive reasoning,
deductive reasoning, quoting authorities and facts, find-
ings, and illustrations.
Solution Approach
1. Underline the important assumptions in the case of a
passage. Note the inferences that are both inductive
and deductive.
2. Identify the supporting arguments.
3. Note the premises of supporting argument.
4. See the nature of questions.
Nature of Questions
Based on the given information, the types of questions to
be asked include the following:
1. Assumptions and statements.
2. Force of argument.
3. Assertion and reasoning.
4. Statements (situation) and course of action.
Various concepts of analytical reasoning have been dis-
cussed below.
Assumptions and Statements
Assumptions are unstated or even unknown, but implied
by the associated theory or argument. Thus, an assump-
tion can be termed as an implied premise. An assumption is
defined as something which is assumed, supposed, or taken
for granted. In practical life, if something is to be conveyed,
it is not put in words. Many things may not be said, but are
taken for granted, which may be defined as an assumption.
Implicit means hidden, and, therefore, implicit assump-
tions are those assumptions that are hidden. A typical ques-
tion on implicit assumptions goes as follows:
Directions (Questions 1–4): In each of the questions
below, a statement is followed by two assumptions
numbered as I and II. An assumption is something that
27/12/22 8:18 PM
 6.20 Chapter 6

is supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider Explanation

the statement and the following assumptions and decide The teacher warns his student in anticipation that he
which of the assumption is implicit in the statement. would stop troubling him. So, Assumption I is implicit.
The general nature of children cannot be derived from the
(a) Only assumption I is implicit.
statement. So, Assumption II is not implicit.
(b) Only assumption II is implicit.
(c) Both I and II are implicit. Example 4
(d) Neither I nor II is implicit. Statement
Of all the newspapers published in India, The Hindu has
Example 1 the largest number of readers.
Statement Assumptions
A to B – ‘In my opinion, you should undergo a training I. The volume of readership of all newspapers in India is
under an expert in order to be successful in your career’. known.
II. No newspaper in India other than The Hindu has a
Assumptions large readership.
I. B sought advice from A.
II. Experts are more competent to guide a person to be Explanation
successful in their career. It is on the basis of data that we can say The Hindu has the
largest number of readers. So, Assumption I is implied.
Explanation But, it is not possible to say that no other newspaper in
There are many instances in life when we get an advice India has a large readership. We need to define large read-
from a person without asking for it. Assumption I is not ership as well. So, Assumption II is not implicit.
definitely valid. Such decisions, as given in the statement, are taken
Only assumption II is implicit. Otherwise, A would not only after taking the existing vacancies into consider-
have advised B to get training from an expert. Therefore, ation. So, Assumption I is implicit, while II is not.
it is correct to assume that experienced people make bet-
ter guides. Force of Arguments
Argument: Earlier also we discussed about the valid-
Example 2 ity of arguments. An argument is a set of two or more
Statement premises leading to a conclusion. An argument can be
‘This multimedia CD-ROM offers you active help as you said to be valid if the premises, if true, definitely lead to
learn yoga without an instructor’ says a newspaper adver- a ­conclusion.
tisement. All scientists are intelligent people. Raman is a ­scientist.
So, Raman is an intelligent person (invalid).
Assumptions All scientists are genius. Raman is an intelligent per-
I. Everyone may not be able to get active help from a son. So, Raman is a scientist (invalid).
yoga instructor. The second argument is invalid as there is no premise
II. Aerobic exercises can be learnt with the help of a that states that all intelligent persons are scientists.
CD-ROM. Validity is the property of an argument.
Assertion and Reasoning
Explanation
In the above example, both I and II are valid. The multi- Introduction: Assertion and reasoning-type questions
media CD-ROM intends to teach yoga in the absence of an have one assertion (A) and one reason (R). We must first
instructor. This means that the absence of an ­instructor determine whether the statement is true. If statement is
is a distinct possibility for many people. Therefore, true, next we must determine whether the reason cor-
Assumption I is valid. The advertiser has come out with a rectly explains the assertion. There is one option for each
CD-ROM on yoga. It definitely implies that aerobic exer- possible outcome. These types of questions are followed
cises can be learnt by CD-ROMs. Hence, Assumption II is by four options.
also valid. (a) A is true but R is false.
Example 3 (b) A is false but R is true.
(c) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct expla-
Statement
nation of A.
‘If you keep creating indiscipline in class, I will have
(d) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explana-
to take a strict action against you’, a teacher warns his
tion of A.
­student.
A few examples have been discussed as given below.
Assumptions
I. With the warning, the student may stop creating Example 1
indiscipline in the class. Assertion (A): Most of the prominent places in ancient
II. All students are basically naughty. civilizations grew near rivers.

M06_MADAN 07_65901_C06.indd 20 27/12/22 8:18 PM

 Logical Reasoning
Reason (R): Rivers provide water for irrigation and also
work as means of transportation.
Explanation: Here, we can use our basic general knowledge
or commonly known facts. We know that most of ancient
civilizations grew near rivers, so, A is correct. In the exam-
ple, R is also simple and true. So, option (a) is the answer.
Example 2
Assertion (A): Tides indicate the regular and periodic rise
and fall in sea level.
Reason (R): Tides are caused by the gravitational pull of
the moon on sea level.
Explanation: In this case also, the concept of tides is the
reason for their origin. Both A and R are true, so, option
(c) is the answer.
Example 3
Assertion (A): Mercury is the farthest planet from the sun.
Reason (R): Mercury is the smallest planet in the solar
system.
Explanation: Here, A is false as mercury is the closest to
sun. Hence, R is the correct option.
Example 4
Assertion (A): Carbon monoxide when inhaled causes
death.
Reason (R): Carbon monoxide combines with haemoglobin.
Explanation: The chemical composition of oxygen and car-
bon monoxide is the same. Carbon monoxide combines with
haemoglobin and reaches different parts of the body and
causes death. Hence, (a) is the correct answer.
Statements and Courses of Action
Introduction: A course of action is a step or administrative
decision to be taken for improvement, f­ollow-up, or
further action in regard to a problem, policy, and so on.
On the basis of the information given in the statement
or situation, the candidate has to assume everything in
the statement to be true, and then decide which of the
suggested courses of action logically follow for pursuing.
Example 1
Situation: The incessant rains that have been continu-
ing for the past several days have created the problem of
deluge, because the river bed is full of silt and mud.
Courses of actions
I. The people living close to the river should be trans-
ferred to a safer place.
II. People should be given information about the immi-
nent danger through radio or television.
III. Immediately after the reduction of water level of the
river, the silt and mud should be removed from the
river body.
(a) Only I and II follows.
(b) Only II and III follows.
M06_MADAN 07_65901_C06.indd 21
6.21
(c) None of these follow
(d) All of these follow
Explanation: Actions I and II are immediately required
as they are crucial in saving precious lives of the people.
It may not be practicable for authorities to remove silt
and mud from the river body. So, only I and II ­follow, and
hence, (a) is the answer.
Example 2
Indicate which of the following actions are the most
appropriate in the situation given below.
Situation: Two to three students in the class of a sincere
and devoted teacher frequently disturb him in the class
while teaching. He is fed up with them.
Courses of actions
(a) He tells the students of the class that he will not hold
the classes if the disturbing students continue doing
that.
(b) He suspends the disturbing students from attending
his class in the interest of the rest of the class.
(c) He talks to the disturbing students to find out what
makes them behave that way and what could become
of them.
(d) He reports against them to the principal with the recom-
mendation to take strong action against them.
Explanation: (c) suggests long-term approach to deal
with the issue of indiscipline in the class.
Mood and Figure
As we have discussed earlier in this chapter, a categorical
syllogism meets the following strict qualifications to be in
a standard form.
1. It is an argument with two premises and one con-
clusion.
2. All three statements are categorical propositions.
3. It contains exactly three different terms.
4. Each term is used exactly twice.
We understand that a categorical syllogism has three
statements – Major Term, Minor Term and Conclusion.
Each statement has two terms S and P. As discussed earlier
in Step I on page 6.11, we need to bring the statements
in the standard form. Take a note that premise 1 contains
the major term, while premise 2 contains the minor term.
Premise 1 is therefore called the major premise, while
premise 2 is called the minor premise. The standard form
demands that the major premise (i.e., the one containing
the major term) always be listed first.
1. All mammals are skinny organisms.
2. All cats are mammals.
3. Therefore, all cats (subject/minor) are skinny organ-
isms (predicate/major).
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 6.22 Chapter 6

Standard form of a Syllogism

Major premise
1. Quantifier copula
(contains major term)

Minor premise
2. Quantifier copula
(contains major term)

3. Quantifier copula Conclusion

Minor Major
term term

We need to identify that there are three different terms 1. All mammals are skinny organisms.
in this argument. These are called as ‘major term’, ‘minor 2. All cats are mammals.
term’, and ‘middle term.’ The statement indicated by
‘therefore’ (or any such word) is called as conclusion. We are presenting a consolidated picture of few examples
Here, the conclusion has TWO of the three terms which which give an idea about the Subject, Predicate, Major,
are cats and skinny organisms. Mammals being Middle Minor and Middle Terms, and ultimately the “mood’.
Term will not appear anywhere in conclusion. 1. Major premise: All H are M. HAM
Now look at this arrangement. Minor premise: J is H. JAH
Major Premise: The predicate term of the conclusion Conclusion ∴ J is M. ∴ JAM
that is Major term also. That is represented by skinny 2. Major premise: All R are H. RAH
organism in the argument.
Minor premise: No R are L. REL
Minor Premise: The subject term of the conclusion Conclusion ∴ Some L are not H. ∴ LOH
that is a Minor Term. That is represented by ‘cats’ as
3. Major premise: No W is Y. WEY
given in the argument.
Minor premise: All Y is B. YAB
Middle Term: The term that does NOT appear in the Conclusion ∴ Some B is not W. ∴ BOW
conclusion (mammals)
Accordingly, we can list 64 moods. (At this stage, let
us not restrict ourselves to valid moods). There is no
Prepositions Term Preposition need to list all 64 moods. When we compute all possible
Type arrangements, we arrive at 64 moods. There are two
P1 All Mammals are skinny Major A important aspects. First, we have discovered a certain
organisms Term number of structures in which syllogistic arguments
can be constructed, and second, which we notice
P2 All cats are mammals. Minor A later, not all structures to which arguments subscribe
Term are valid. It is in this sense that the logical status of
C Therefore, all cats Mix A an argument is determined by the structure of that
(Subject / Minor) particular argument.
are skinny organisms
(Predicate /Major).
Figures of Syllogism
The Mood of this syllogism is AAA. Mood depends upon
the type of propositions (A, E, I, or O). The ‘mood’ of a Figure: The ‘figure’ of a syllogism is determined by the
syllogism is determined by the ‘quantity’ and ‘quality’ of position of ‘middle term’ as it appears both in the major
the three propositions. and in minor premises. There are four ‘Figure’ options, we
To do the ‘Figure’ task, we need to bring propositions need to pick up the correct option that depends on the
into proper standard form again. placement of ‘middle term’ in the premises statements.

M06_MADAN 07_65901_C06.indd 22 27/12/22 8:18 PM

 Logical Reasoning 6.23

There is no role of ‘conclusion’, and obviously that of sub- 2. P M

ject and predicate as well. Major premise: All saints are pious SAP
S M
Figure 1 Figure 2 Figure 3 Figure 4 Minor premise: No criminals are pious CEP

M P P M M P P M
Conclusion: ∴ No criminals are saints CES
S P
S M S M M S M S

S P S P S P S P The knowledge of ‘figures’ help us to compute the total

number of possible moods. Mood is determined by the
quality and quantity of propositions. Since there are
We can draw lines through the middle terms in each of four figures in all, there is possibility of arranging 256
these four diagrams to create a collar-like shape, like categorical propositions. These are exactly what we
this: mean by moods. However, out of 256, 245 moods can be
shown to be invalid by applying the rules and corollaries.
Figure 1 Figure 2 Figure 3 Figure 4 So, we have only eleven ‘valid’ moods. Even this is not
sufficient to have a clear picture. There is no ‘figure’ in
M P P M M P P M which all eleven moods are valid. Within the framework
of traditional logic, in any given figure, only six moods are
S M S M M S M S valid in each sentence which are given below.
I. AAA, AAI, EAE, EAO, EIO, and AII
S P S P S P S P
II. AEE, AEO, EAE, EAO, EIO, and AOO
III. AAI, AII, IAI, EAO, EIO, and OAO
IV. AAI, IAI, AEE, AEO, EAO, and EIO
Now coming to a combined example of moods and figures. Moods are represented above in three ways.
All red are apples. 1. Moods in italics and bold form are called strength-
ened moods.
Some apples are green.
2. Moods in mere italics are called weakened moods.
Therefore, some greens are red. 3. All other moods are represented in normal form.
Now we need to look at the conclusion first, that indicates Strengthened Mood: This happens when the laws of syl-
that green are subject/minor and red are predicate/major. logism, permit two universal premises to yield logically
only one particular conclusion.
Sequence of Mood - A I I
Weakened Mood: This happens when we deduce par-
Therefore, apples are the middle term. ticular conclusion from two universal premises, even
when the laws of syllogism permit two universal premises
to yield logically only one universal conclusion.
P1 All reds are apples. Major Term A Pope John XXI devised a technique to remember the
method of reducing arguments from other figures to the
P2 Some apples are green. Minor Term I first figure. This technique is known as mnemonic verses.
C Some green (subject Conclusion I Dilemma: A ‘dilemma’ in logic means an argument that pre-
/ minor) are red sents an antagonist with a choice of two or more alternatives,
(predicate / major) each of which appears to contradict the original contention
and is inconclusive. Dilemma is a powerful instrument of
Thus, mood is A I I. Now looking at cross between apples, persuasion and also a devastating weapon in controversy.
we can say that it is ‘Figure 4’.

1. P M Formal and Informal Fallacies

Major premise: No soldiers are traitors SET
Fallacies are errors, but can be tricks of reasoning. Fallacy
M S is an error of reasoning if it occurs accidentally; it is a
Minor premise: All traitors are sinners TAS trick of reasoning if a speaker or writer uses it in order to
deceive or manipulate his audience.
Conclusion: ∴ Some sinners are not soldiers SOS A fallacy is ‘an argument or an apparent argument that
S P professes to be decisive of the matter at the issue, while in

M06_MADAN 07_65901_C06.indd 23 27/12/22 8:18 PM

 6.24
reality it is not’. Fallacies weaken arguments and in doing so,
weaken the overall strength of our paragraph or assignment.
Usually, there are five common categories of fallacies,
as follows:
1. Using feelings
2. Distracting from the argument.
3. Misinformation
4. Generalizations (to make a powerful statement).
5. Irrelevant connections
According to NET syllabus, fallacies are mainly of two
types, formal or informal.
Whatever its type, its use undercuts the validity and
soundness of any argument, and fallacious reasoning may
damage the credibility of the originator of the message and
plays with the emotions of the receiver.
Formal F allacies
Most formal fallacies are errors of logic, where the con-
clusion is not supported by the premises, so it does not
really follow the word ‘from’. Either the premises are
untrue or the argument is invalid. Given below is an
example of an invalid deductive argument.
Premise: All black bugs are carnivores.
Premise: All rats are carnivores.
Conclusion: All rats are black bugs.
Bugs are a subset of carnivores. Rats also are a subset of
carnivores. But these two subsets do not overlap, and this
fact makes the conclusion illogical. The argument is inva-
lid, i.e., the relationship between the premises does not
support the conclusion.
But then how do we recognize formal fallacies?
‘Rats are black bugs’ is instantaneously recognizable as
fallacious as it sounds illogical. However, that and other
forms of poor logic play out on a daily basis, and they have
real-world consequences. Below is an example of a falla-
cious argument.
Premise: All Europeans are Christians.
Premise: All Russians are Christians.
Conclusion: All Russians are Europeans.
This argument fails on two levels:
1. The premises are untrue because although many
Europeans and Russians are Christians, not all are.
2. The two ethnic groups are sets that do not overlap, but
the two groups are confused because they (largely)
share one common quality.
Informal Fallacies
Informal fallacies take many forms. They are widespread
in our routine lives. Informal fallacies develop when:
1. The relationship between premises and conclusion
does not hold up.
2. When premises are unsound.
M06_MADAN 07_65901_C06.indd 24
Chapter 6
3. Informal fallacies are more dependent on misuse of
language and of evidence.
Frequently, they may bring irrelevant information into an
argument or they are based on assumptions that, when
examined, prove to be incorrect, but they may not always
be easy to spot. Some moves are always fallacious, and
others may be allowed on the basis of context.
Use of Ethos, Logos, and Pathos to Test
Arguments for Fallacies
To test an argument for fallacies is to focus on the con-
cepts of ethos, logos, and pathos.
• Ethos: For ethics, authority, and/or credibility.
• Logos: An appeal to logic.
• Pathos: An appeal to emotion.
Ethos, logos, and pathos can be used to strengthen our
argument or inappropriately manipulate an audience
through the use of fallacies. Some fallacies may fit into
multiple categories. Thus, we can see that both formal
and informal fallacies are errors of reasoning, and if
speaker or writer relies on such fal­lacies, even uninten-
tionally, he/she undercuts their argument.
Types of Informal Fallacies
We shall now concentrate on different class of fallacies.
These are also called non-logical fallacies because there
is no violation of any rule of inference as such. However,
they are fallacious because in such arguments premises
and conclusions are mutually irrelevant. They can also
be called as fallacies of irrelevance. Fallacy can also
result due to ambiguity in language. Though the number
of informal fallacies may run up to 300, we are discuss-
ing only those which are important from examination
point of view. If one particular fallacy is missing, it does
not guarantee the absence of other fallacies, they may
exist.
1. Petitio Principii (Begging the Question): This is a
very common fallacy. This is committed when in our
attempt to prove, we assume what has to be proved. It
simply says that something is proved on the basis of
itself. We start from a position and end our argument
by returning to the very same position. Petitio princi-
pii is sometimes defined as an immediate argument or
arguing in circle. It covers inductive principle.
For example,
Murder is morally wrong.
Abortion is murder.
Therefore, abortion is morally wrong.
We mostly agree on the first premise, murder is mor-
ally wrong. The problem is in the second premise. Not
all individuals would agree that abortion is murder.
However, as presented, the premise creates a pre-
sumption that it is valid in all cases.
2. Accident (Sweeping Generalization): This form
of fallacy has two types—direct fallacy and its con-
verse. The fallacy results due to inappropriate use
of generalization in both the cases. These fallacies
27/12/22 8:18 PM
 Logical Reasoning
are committed when the difference between normal
and special circumstances is ignored. Since it can be
ignored in two ways, we have two types of fallacies.
When any norm, which applies to generalization, is
made applicable to any special case ignoring the dif-
ference between them, then fallacy of direct accident
is committed.
  Sweeping Generalizhation can be explained with
this example. Normally a sentence is read as ‘murder-
ers are to hanged, so all soldiers must be hanged.
1. Murderers are to be hanged (normal circumstance).
2. so, all soldiers must be hanged (special
circumstance).
  Here, the difference between ‘normal circumstance’
and ‘special circumstance’ is ignored.
3. Converse Fallacy of Accident: It is related to earlier
fallacy. When the norm, which applies to a special
case, is blindly extended to general circumstances,
the converse fallacy of accident is committed.
  An enlightening example is the dialogue between
Socrates and Polemarchus. When Polemarchus
argues that justice consists in repaying debt, Socrates
promptly challenges him by demanding to know
whether justice consists in returning arms, bor-
rowed from my friend, to him when I know that he
has passed from sober state to disturbed state. If the
answer had been ‘yes’, then fallacy of direct accident
would have been committed. If you argue in reverse
order then converse fallacy is committed.
10. Ignoratio Elenchi: This fallacy is quite different from
4. Argument ad Verecundiam: This type of fallacy is
committed when we choose irrelevant premise. It is
irrelevant because the premise really does not provide
any support to the conclusion. This fallacy is commit-
ted when we try to get support from any person (usu-
ally famous and highly respected).
  Surely, from the logic point of view, what a person
says or does not say is irrelevant, more so when the per-
son who is quoted is not an expert. This particular fal-
11. Complex question: Generally, complex question fig-
lacy, in most of the cases, describes those who indulge
in advertisement because in most of the advertise-
ments, the models who bat for the advertising compa-
nies know nothing about the products. Yet, they speak
with authority, which is endorsed by others.
For example, ‘We have no evidence that the Rolls
Royce ever existed. They must have been so clever
they destroyed all the evidence.’
5. Argument ad Populum: This fallacy is committed when
a speech appeals to emotion and stirs up love or hatred.
12. Strawman Argument: It is much easier to defeat
Generally, political speeches fall under this category.
A classic example of this fallacy finds place in
Shakespeare’s Julius Caser, when Mark Antony insti-
gates the crowd to take revenge on Caesar’s killing. It
should be noted that, in such case the appeal is striking
and hence it is noticeable easily.
6. Argument ad Misericordiam: This is an appeal to
pity. From Plato’s dialogues we understand that in
ancient Greece, the criminals followed this method
to escape punishment. It is doubtful whether this was
followed by one who was not guilty.
M06_MADAN 07_65901_C06.indd 25
6.25
7. Argument ad Baculum: Here, of course, there is no
appeal, but threat. Again, Baculum is one method fol-
lowed by those who are after power or who, supported
by political authorities, try to enforce their ideology,
whether religious or social. Threat may be to life or
property or position. Baculum has all the features of
totalitarian mindset and hence undemocratic.
8. Argument ad Ignorantiam: This is a commonplace
fallacy committed in academic circles. When we
appeal to ignorance, we argue that the proposition
must be accepted unless someone can prove other-
wise. The argument rests not on any evidence, but on
a lack of evidence. We are to believe the truth of the
argument because no one has disproven it.
  For example, God exists because reason has failed
to prove that God does not exist. The thesis is estab-
lished when its antithesis could not be established by
any opponent.
9. Argument ad Hominem: The arguments of ‘X’ are
good and supported by the good evidence. But at
the same time, the personality or character of ‘X’ has
not been generally good. We shift our focus from the
premises to personality of the person putting the
argument. This fallacy happens rarely in academic
circles and mostly in political circles. Usually, rivalry
is behind committing this fallacy.
Example 1: ‘Madan roots for an Indian football team.
Clearly, he is unfit to be a police chief in a small city.’
Example 2: ‘All people from Island are liars’
other fallacies. In the case of former fallacies, the
chosen premises are irrelevant. But in this case, we
get some conclusion that is quite different from the
expected or intended one. Instead of proving what is
intended, we prove something different.
  ‘It is not the case of missing the bus, but it is a case
of the bus missing the route’. It is a case of reasoning
going ‘astray’.
ures prominently in legal field. Complex question is
an example of clever way of manipulation in order to
checkmate the accused in particular or opponent in
general. The question is framed in such a way that it
admits only two answers and no matter which answer
is chosen, the accused walks into the trap. The ques-
tion is such that answers are hidden in it and hence it
is impossible for anyone to construe any other answer
to the question.
your opponent’s argument when it is made of straw.
The Strawman argument is aptly named after a
harmless, lifeless scarecrow. In the strawman argu-
ment, someone attacks a position the opponent does
not really hold.
Example 1: ‘The MP thinks we can solve all our eco-
logical problems by driving a Hybrid car.’
Example 2: ‘Quite the contrary, the MP thinks the envi-
ronment is such a wreck that no one’s car choice or
driving habits would make the slightest difference.’
27/12/22 8:18 PM
 6.26
13. Slippery Slope: This type of fallacy occurs when we
assume one action will initiate a chain of events. It
will result in an undesirable event at a later stage.
We assume that final event is inevitable. If we are
prone to slippery slope, we ignore the fact that there
are probably a number of other things that can hap-
pen between the initial event and the bottom of the
slope.
  For example, if sex education is taught in the col-
lege, then students will enjoy sex. It will result in a
rash of unplanned pregnancies and sexually trans-
mitted diseases. Students will be forced to drop out of
college. They will never have the chance to succeed
in life.
  It is very clear that learning about sex does not
automatically mean that you will engage in sex.
Even more unlikely is the fact that merely learning
about sex will force you to drop out of college.
14. Red Herring (Irrelevant Thesis): In Red herring, an
irrelevant topic (or fallacy) is introduced in an argu-
ment to divert the attention of listeners (or readers)
from the original issue. This fallacy is often used in
detective or suspense novels in literature. The listen-
ers may be induced to make the false conclusions.
  For example, a teacher catches a student cheating
during an exam. The student replies, ‘I know I have
made a mistake. Kindly think of my parents. They
will feel very bad.’ The student uses a red herring in
his response. He tries to appeal to pity to distract his
teacher from the real issue.
Fallacies Due to Ambiguity
Ambiguity is of three types, use of ambiguous words,
ambiguous structure of sentence, and differing accent.
1. Equivocation: It may occur as a result of ambiguous
words. Good is one such ambiguous word. Consider
this example. ‘Rama is good’. ‘Rama is a teacher’.
Therefore, Rama must be a good teacher. It is one
thing to be a good human being and something differ-
ent to be a good teacher. This difference in the mean-
ing of the word ‘good’ is obliterated here. Hence, fal-
lacy of equivocation arises.
2. Amphiboly: It is due to the manner in which the
words are combined and the hidden meaning that
such combination suggests. The way in which
Socrates understood what the Oracle at Delphi said
and the way in which others understood the same
accounts for amphiboly. When the Oracle said that
Socrates is the wisest man in Greece, Socrates took
it to mean very differently.
3. Accent also can Lead to Fallacy: The premise
emphasizes one aspect, while the conclusion empha-
sizes another aspect.
  For example, when Jesus in his sermon, advices his
disciples to ‘love their neighbour’, the advice could
have been misconstrued by placing emphasis on the
word ‘your’, while, in reality, Jesus emphasized the
word ‘neighbour’.
M06_MADAN 07_65901_C06.indd 26
Chapter 6
4. Composition: First fallacy consists in proceeding
from parts to whole, whereas the second consists in
proceeding from whole to parts. Generally, these fal-
lacies are committed when the attributes are under
scrutiny. In the history of western philosophy we
have a famous example of J. S. Mill, who consciously
committed the fallacy of composition. He said –
every man desires his own happiness. All men desire
the happiness of all.
5. Division: Composition and division are recipro-
cal fallacies. If the above-mentioned example is
reversed with a little modification, then it becomes
division. No men desire the happiness of all. No man
desires his own happiness. It is obvious that falla-
cies of ambiguity are due to wrong interpretation or
understanding, whereas logical fallacies are due to
wrong reasoning. Interpretation and reasoning are
different.
Inductive Fallacy
False cause: This fallacy consists in regarding an event
as a cause of given effect, when, in reality, it is not the
cause. But how are we to know that the supposed cause
is not the cause at all? The only way is to wait for the
occurrence of effect, which does not follow the supposed
cause. But suppose that it did not happen. Then, there
is no way of deciding against the supposed link between
cause and effect.
For example, a historian may claim that the cause
of India becoming independent is the World War II.
There is no way in which the sequence of events can be
repeated in future if this claim has to be tested. Hence,
proof in the strict sense of geometrical proof is impos-
sible in induction.
There is no rule in inductive logic. Hence, there is no
question of fallacy at all. With respect to inductive argu-
ments, it can only be remarked that whatever opposes an
acceptable inductive argument is fallacious. Mere com-
mon sense or experience is enough to suggest what is
acceptable. Hence, without demanding logical proof, it is
possible to decide what is acceptable and hence, what is
fallacious.
One advantage of knowing what fallacies are,
whether in strict sense or in loose sense, is that if we
know what is wrong, then we can correct mistakes or
we may refrain from making them, and this is the way
knowledge grows.
Stopover
‘Everyone is going to the party. You should go too.’
This inference commits which type of fallacy?[2019]
(a) Ad Populum
(b) Equivocation
(c) Ad Verecundiam
(d) Ad Ignorantiam
The correct option is (a).
27/12/22 8:18 PM
 Logical Reasoning
Indian Logic: Means of knowledge
Knowledge is considered to be ‘luminous’ at the highest
level, knowledge means to illuminate something. ‘Truth’
and ‘knowledge’ are similar in nature.
After asking, ‘Can I know?’, the next question is obvi-
ously ‘How do I know?’ or ‘What are the sources of knowl-
edge?’ Epistemology is the study of the origin, nature, and
limits of human knowledge.
Logic is the study of inference and argument. The logic
and theory of knowledge of Indian systems are largely
coloured by their metaphysical tenets. Philosophy basically
deals with interpretation of man and nature. It is the analy-
sis, assessment, and exposition of the process of knowledge.
In general, knowledge is gained through different
means. We have already discussed inductive, deductive,
and many aspects in Unit 1. Now we are learning experi-
ential knowledge also that is important in Indian system.
Experiential Knowledge: Experiential (a posteriori) knowl-
edge is mainly of four types.
1 Sensory Perception: This is the first and most
obvious. Each of our five senses is like a door to the
outside world; when we throw them open, we are
flooded with an endless variety of sights (visual
function), sounds (auditory function), textures
(tactual function), smells (olfactory function), and
tastes (gustatory function). This is closely linked with
realist, empiricist, logical positivist and scientist.
2. Introspection: directly experiencing our own mental
states.
3. Memory: recording device that captures events that
I experience more or less in the order that they occur.
4. Testimony: While it is convenient for us to trust the
testimony of others, the problem is that there is often
a high likelihood of error.
The knowledge is first received through perception
(pratyakşa–izR;{k) or comparison (upamāna–mieku) or
words of sacred authority (shabda– ”kCn).
Here, the aim is to study Indian logic by means of
knowledge.
Indian logic (Means of knowledge)
Orthodox (Aastik) Unorthodox
Vedas (Naastik) Non vedas
1. Nyaya Philosophy 1. Buddhist
2. Vaisheshika 2. Jainism
3. Mimamsa/Purva Mimamsa 3. Charvaka (Materialists)
4. Sankhya Philosophy
5. Yoga Philosophy
6. Uttara Mimamsa (Vedanta)
Figure 6.9 Indian Logic
M06_MADAN 07_65901_C06.indd 27
6.27
In India, there are six orthodox schools of philosophy
that recognize the authority of Vedas as divine revela-
tion. Those who did not recognize this authority were
the Jains and Buddhists (both heterodox), and Charvaka
(materialists).
There is much divergence of opinion among Indian phi-
losophers concerning the nature and scope of Pramana
(izek.k–source of knowledge).
Indian philosophy divides itself into three main
periods:
1. Vedas or Vedic Period
2. Upanishad period and
3. Later Vedic Period or Vedanta Vedic Age
1. Vedic Period ( ): They originated in our
ancient system. They can be linked with ‘Rigveda’
of very ancient era. The vedic Age (1500–500 BCE)
is the period between the Bronze Age and the early
Iron Age. Veads belong to orthodox system because
they all have recognized the ultimate authority of the
Vedas. Vedas were assumed to be linked with influen-
tial Brahmanical, which later met some resistance in
the form of Jainism and Buddhism. It is also related
to the Indo-Aryan tribe. The Vedic period defined the
real nature of the soul or the philosophy about the
soul + cosmic principle (or Brahman) which repre-
sented the ‘ultimate reality’. Its six different darshans
are also called ‘Shad Darshan’ ( ).
   The post-Vedic period is a systematic period. Of
the systems of thought or philosophy, six became more
famous than the others. Gautama’s Nyaya, Kinnada’s
Vishishti, Kapila’s Samkhya Patanjali’s Yoga, Jaimini’s
Purva-Mimamsa and Badarayana’s Uttara Mimamsa
or Vedanta. All of them accept the authority of the
Vedas. He considered spiritual experience to be
greater than intellectual reason. Those who did not
believe in the Vedas were Jains, Buddhists and mate-
rialists. Vedic literature has developed in four phases,
later there was some separation.
1. Ved Samhita ( – code of conduct)
2. Brahmin ( )
3. Aranyaka ( )
4. Upanishads ( )
The collection of mantras and hymns is called ‘Samhita’
( ) that has got four main types:
1. Rigveda ( ): It is considered to be the world’s
first book. This is a song of praise.
2. Yajurveda ( ): Yajurveda contains prose and
poetry for the actual process of Yagya. Yajurveda is
primarily a prose text. The prose hymns uttered in the
Yagya are called Yajus.
3. Samaveda ( ): This song-music is predominant.
It was sung by the ancient Aryans. It is the smallest in
terms of size among the four Vedas, it has the highest
prestige.
4. Atharva Veda ( ): This is mainly the Samhita
i.e. Mantra part, this Veda is also called Brahmaveda.
27/12/22 8:18 PM
 6.28
Along with the praise of the gods, there are also mantras
for medicine, science and philosophy. Due to his utterance,
the nation progresses continuously without any distur-
bance. It is the earliest source of Sanatan Dharma, it has 10
mandalas, 1028 suktas (lwDr) and presently 10,600 man-
tras. ‘Manusamhita’ (euqlfa grk) is the most important text of
Indian practice. After the Vedas in India, the most recogni-
tion and the practice is of ‘Manusamhita’. It is also called
‘Manusmriti’ (euqLe`fr). It discusses all religious, social and
moral duties. The Vedas could not grow much mainly due
to the rituals of Brahmanism, but they sprouted under
the umbrella of the Aranyakas and developed a lot in the
Upanishads, which are briefly described further.
2. Upanishad period ( ): Upanishad means
that the student takes refuge in the Guru. Or get
the secrets of knowledge by sitting ‘near’ the Guru.
The composition of the Upanishads is believed to
be between 1000 and 800 BC. It could even be as
far back as 600 BC. During this period there was a
considerable development of Yagya culture in North
India. In the Upanishads, Brahman and Atman are
the central ideas. In this ‘Bhadranayak’ (Hknzuk;d) had
played the lead role. The total number of Upanishads
is considered to be 108, out of which twelve are the
most ancient and main. Of these ‘Bhagavad Gita
and Brahmasutra Upanishad’ Vedanta is the basis of
philosophy and ‘Maitri Upanishad’ Samkhya and Yoga
philosophy are the basis of.
3. Later Vedic period or Vedanta (
): This era is between about 1400 BC to 600 BC.
During this period, the society was divided into four
varnas. In this period, Brahmins were given more
priority because the responsibility of protecting the
Vedas was considered to be ‘theirs’. People still feel
like this Theist and Atheist Knowledge (Orthodox and
Unorthodox Knowledge). The Indian tradition of phi-
losophy is determined by two directions, one direc-
tion is called ‘astika’ ( ) and the other direction
is called nastika ( ).
The following elements are important, which help us in
making a classification about the different philosophies.
1. A theist is the direction that accepts the supernatu-
ral and spiritual beings like God, soul, reincarnation,
heaven-hell etc. in an intuitive manner. The atheist
never accepts these powers.
2. Only Charvak philosophy is such that does not accept
any of the supernatural and spiritual authority.
This recognizes only the supernatural and material
beings.
3. Buddhism and Jainism accept theories like reincarna-
tion and soul respectively, but not spiritual beings, so
these philosophies are also called atheists.
4. Nyaya, Vaisheshika and Mimamsa philosophy have
been considered realist under the astik philosophy,
because while accepting the spiritual and supernatu-
ral being, it also recognizes the planetary and material
beings.
M06_MADAN 07_65901_C06.indd 28
Chapter 6
5. Mimamsa philosophy does not accept God. The Samkhya
philosophy also creates controversy over God consider-
ing him to be imperfect.
6. Prakriti is also given priority in Sankhya philosophy.
The post-vedic period is systematic period, which saw
the development of ‘orthodox systems’. Currently, we are
starting with Charvaka system.
Charvaka Materialist School’ s Views of
Knowledge ( )
Rishi Brihaspati was the founder of this school. Charvaka
is also called Lokayata, which is the Sanskrit word for
‘worldly ones’ that is the meaning understood by common
people.
As we discussed, ‘pratyaksha’ (izR;{k) is the only source
of valid knowledge. Only direct perception anubhava
( ) is recognized. What we cannot perceive through
senses must be treated as non-existent. They refute all
other sources of knowledge—no mind, no consciousness,
and then no soul. Only the physical body is real.
There are four traditional elements—earth, water,
fire, and air. The validity of inference is also rejected by
Charvakas. Inference is considered to be a mere leap into
the dark.
We proceed from the known to the unknown, and
there is no certainty in this, though some inferences may
turn out to be accidentally true. Induction is uncertain,
and deduction is arguing in a circle. Deductive inference
is vitiated by the fallacy of petition principia.
Though we consider invariable association or Vyapti
(O;kfIr) as the nerve of all inferences, Charvakas challenges
this and regards it as guess work. Perception does not approve
this Vyapati. Inference and testimony do not approve it.
Charvaka reviews perception as valid and inference as
invalid, as it is the result of inference. The creations, such
as Kautilya’s Arthashastra (vFkZ”kkL=–Science of material
gain), are based on it as it is considered to be an hedonist
opportunist approach.
Orthodox Views of Knowledge
The Nyaya and Vaisheshika schools are primarily analytic
and are, therefore, more concerned with logic and episte-
mology than ethics.
Nyaya School
Nyaya philosophy is very important as per syllabus. It was
primarily given by sage ‘Gotama’ (different from Bhagwan
Gautam Buddha). His creation is ‘Aksapada’. This
school is also known as ‘tarakshastra’ (rdZ”kkL=–science
of reasoning), ‘pramanashastra’ (izek.k”kkL=–science of
logic and epistemology), ‘hetuvidya’ (gsrqfo|k–science
of causes), ‘vadavidya’ (okn fo|k–science of debate),
‘anviksiki’ (v.kfof{kdh–science of critical study).
This school is associated with ‘atomistic pluralism’ and
logical realism, they actually means ‘liberation of the indi-
vidual self’. They are linked with material and spiritual
as ultimate constituents of the word. We are concerned
27/12/22 8:18 PM
 Logical Reasoning
with both internal and external aspects of knowledge. We
should be connected with expression of reality (arthab-
hava–vFkZHkko). The gain of knowledge is connected with
perception, inference, comparison and verbal testimony
which are part of syllabus also.
The objects of learning are self, body, sense organs,
sense objects, intellect, mind, and activity.
Knowledge is the knowledge of things, and it consti-
tutes the expression of reality (arthhubhava). Whatever
its type, it is a natural response to the disposition present
in human mind.
Vaisheshika Philosophy ( ) 3. Aasnn (vklUu–adjacent-steady postures of the physical
Nyaya system is allied to the Vaisheshika systems, which
developed metaphysics and ontology. The Vaisheshika
sutras are the oldest ones and were written by Kannada,
shortly before Gautama’s Nyaya Sutras (U;k; lw=).
The word Vishesa (fo”ks’k) means particularity and
emphasizes the significance of individuals. It recognizes
three real objects of experience as substance, quality,
and activity.
There are three products of intellectual discrimination,
which are generality, particularity, and combination.
Like the Nyaya school, this school also acknowledges
perception, inference, comparison, and verbal testimony
as the valid sources of knowledge.
Sankhya philosophy ( ) 2. Kumbhaka (dqEHkd–holding the breath inside)
The founder of Samkhya philosophy was the famous sage
Kapil. The Samkhya system is also called ‘dualistic’ ( ).
It believes in Prakriti and Purushartha.
The knowledge consists of three main causative
elements.
(a) one who knows the subject
(b) known object
(c) process of knowledge
Samkhya accepts three pramanas—pratyksha, anumaan
and shabda. (These are basically ‘yatharth gyan’).
Nature is considered to be a fundamental and real sub-
stance. Human being (Purusha) as mere ‘consciousness’
(chetna– ) is above all modifications and changes. It
is a unique ideology, unaffected by ‘modifications’ in the
mind. A man in bondage is freed in the form of intelli-
gence by the efforts of nature.
There are two types of inference in Sankhya philosophy:
1. Veet ( ): This refers to the anumaan (inference)
which is dependent on the eternal ‘law sentence’
(shashvat vidhi).
2. Aveet ( ): Here, the inference is dependent on
the eternal negation (shashwat nishedh– ) hitgrahi (vxzfgrxzfg). Memory is excluded from valid
sentence.
Yoga Philosophy ( ) Here, all knowledge is valid by itself. It is not validated by
Maharishi Patanjali founded yoga philosophy in the
2nd century BC. His Yoga Sutras are the first authentic
texts of Yoga-philosophy. It is based on ‘Gyan Mimamsa’
M06_MADAN 07_65901_C06.indd 29
6.29
(Kku eheaklk) of Yoga Philosophy. It accepts Samkhya,
psychology and metaphysics (lka[;, euksfoKku vkSj rRoeheaklk)
but belongs to the ‘atheist school’ of thought. Yoga system
is the applied form of the ‘sankhya’ itself. It is more
systematic than Sankhya philosophy. Human beings
use these yoga methods for their purity by purifying,
controlling and ultimately eliminating the modifications
of the mental system (var%dj.k ;k fpÙk). The method is
called Aashtanga Yoga (vk’Vakx ;ksx) which includes the
following exercises:
1. Yama (;e–self-control)
2. Niyam (fu;e–following certain principles)
body)
4. Pranayama (izk.kk;ke–breathing control)
5. Pratyahara (izR;kgkj–removal of the senses and the mind
from the objects of enjoyment)
6. Dharana (/kkj.kk–mindfulness on a chosen object)
7. Dhyaan (/;ku–meditation–controlled and sustained
attention to the object)
8. Samadhi (lekf/k–the absorption of the mind in an object
–a man gets his own experience and realizes its true
nature.
Pranayama means control of breathing, it has three main
parts:
1. Poorak (iwjd–breathing in)
3. Rechak (jspd–laxative–breathe out slowly)
Swami Vivekananda made a special contribution in this
field by composing ‘Raj Yoga’ on Patanjali Yoga Sutras.
Mimamsa Philosophy ( )
Mimamsa literally means ‘revered thought’ and was origi-
nally applied to the interpretation of the Vedic rituals,
which commanded highest reverence.
It is also very ancient; Mimamsa Sutra ( ) by
Jamini was written during 4th century BCE.
A cognition, which apprehends an object, cannot be
intrinsically invalid. Memory arises from the impression
of a priori cognition.
Kumarila defines that valid knowledge is free from
causes and from defects and is not contradicted by subse-
quent knowledge.
A valid cognition must fulfil four conditions.
1. It must not arise from defective causes.
2. It must be free from contradiction. It must be self-
consistent and should not be set aside by subsequent
knowledge.
3. Novelty is an essential feature of knowledge agra­
acknowledge.
4. It must truly represent the object.
any other knowledge. It is not due to any extraneous con-
ditions. A need for explanation is felt only when knowl-
edge fails.
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 6.30
If a rope is mistaken for a snake, the knowledge of the
snake is invalidated by the subsequent knowledge of the
rope.
Truth is normal, and error is abnormal. Belief is natural
and disbelief is an exception.
According to bhadrayana ( )–(Uttara Mimamsa
and Vedanta), knowledge comes from the scriptures
(Sruti) and other authorities (Smriti). Scripture refers to
the Vedas and Smriti to the Bhagavad Gita, Mahabharata,
and Laws of Manu.
According to Sankhya, both the validity pramanya
( ) and the invalidity (Apramanya– ) of knowl-
edge are self-evident. Whatever manifests itself at any
time has all along been hidden there.
O ther Heterodox Schools of Knowledge
The word ‘Jain’ is derived from jina or jaina which means
the ‘conqueror’. Jainism and Budhism don’t recognize
the authority of ‘vedas’, and are heterodox schools of
philosophy. Jainism came to prominence in the 6th century
B.C., when Lord Mahavira propagated the religion.
There were 24 great teachers (tirthankaras), the last of
whom was Lord Mahavira. Tirthankaras attained all knowl-
edge and were liberated (that is called as Moksha). The first
Tirthankara was Rishabnatha. Kalpa Sutra (dYi lw=) is a
biography on numerous Tirthankaras with a primary inter-
est in Vardhaman Mahavira and Parshvanatha.
Lord Mahavira has given five Mahavrats (Great vows)–
truth, non violence, non stealing, non possession, extra-
version/celibacy (lR;, vfgalk, vLrs;, vifjxzg vkSj czãp;Z).
Three Jewels for Triratna are
1. Right Faith: (Samyakdarshana–lE;Dn”kZu),
2. Right Knowledge: (Samyakjnana–lE;DKku),
3. Right Action: (Samyakcharita–lE;Dpfjr)
Jainism is divided into two categories–Digambar (fnxEcj)
and Shwetambar (“osrkEcj). The second ones are more
liberal in their approach, towards women also. The
ultimate objective of Jainism is achieve Moksha (Ekks{k–the
ultimate liberation) through Kaivalya (dSoY;).
Jainism
Jains have critically examined the valid sources of knowl-
edge. Here, knowledge is of two kinds:
1. Pramana refers to the knowledge of a thing as it is.
2. Naya ( ) or knowledge of a thing in its reflec-
tion. It means the standpoint of thought from which
we make a statement about a thing. All truth is rela-
tive to our standpoint. Partial knowledge of one of
the innumerable aspects of a thing is called ‘naya’.
Both Pramana and Naya are essential for the full and true
knowledge of a thing.
Mediate knowledge is any knowledge which the
soul comes to have by the mediation of sense organs;
any knowledge whose acquisition involves something
other than the soul itself. On the other hand, immedi-
ate knowledge is that which the soul obtains without the
intervention of the sense organs.
M06_MADAN 07_65901_C06.indd 30
Chapter 6
Jainism
Knowledge
Immediate Mediate
Aparoksa Paroksa
(vijks{k) (ijks{k)
Avadhi Manahparyâyâ Kevala Matti Shruta
Figure 6.10 Knowledge as per Jainism
1. Immediate Knowledge
(i) Avadhi ( ): This is the direct knowledge of
things even at a distance of space or time. It is
called Avadhi or ‘limited’ because it functions
within a particular area and up to a particular time.
It cannot go beyond spatial and temporal limits.
(ii) Manahparyâyâ ( ): This is the direct
knowledge of the thoughts of others (telepathy),
which is limited to space and time conditions.
  Both Avadhi and Manahparyâyâ are called
extra-sensory form of knowledge, as the soul is
unaided by the senses or mind in obtaining direct
knowledge.
(iii)Kevala Jnana ( ): This is absolute, extraor-
dinary, and infinite knowledge. It is not limited by
space, time, or object, and can be acquired only by
liberated souls.
   These three kinds of immediate knowledge may
be called extra-ordinary and extra-sensory per-
ceptions. Avadhi is clairvoyance; Manahparyaya is
telepathy; and Kevala is omniscience.
2. Mediate Knowledge
The instruments of matti and shruta knowledge are
perception, inference, and authority.
(i) Matti ( ): This includes perceptual and infer-
ential knowledge. Pure perception in the sense of
mere sensation cannot be knowledge. Sensation
to become knowledge must be given meaning and
arranged into order by thought.
(ii) Shruti ( ) means knowledge derived from
authority.
Shruta Jnana (Jqrk Kku) means knowledge derived from
figures of authority, creation of great sages, books etc.
Perceptual knowledge is ordinarily called as ‘imme-
diate’, thus admitted to be relatively so by Jainism.
Therefore, it is included in mediate knowledge. Pure per-
ception in the sense of mere sensation cannot rank the title
of knowledge. It must be given meaning and arranged into
order by conception or thought. Perceptual knowledge is,
therefore, regarded as mediate since it presupposes the
activity of thought. Mediate knowledge is divided into
mati and shruta. Mati includes both perceptual and infer-
ential knowledge.
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 Logical Reasoning 6.31

According to Jaina epistemology, indirect knowledge is It can be achieved by following the Atthanga Magga (Eight
of five kinds: Fold Path).
1. Smrti (Le`fr –valid knowledge) Eight Fold Paths: These practices are linked with knowl-
2. Pratyabhijna (izR;fHkKk –recognition) edge, conduct, and meditative practices.
3. Tarka (rdZ –logic) 1. Right view
4. Anumana (vuqeku –inference) 2. Right intention
5. Agama (vxek –words of reliable people) 3. Right speech
4. Right action
Here, we can discuss two important aspects. 5. Right livelihood
1. Naya Vada: means a standpoint of thought from 6. Right mindfulness
which we make a statement about a thing. All truth is 7. Right effort
relative to our standpoints. Partial knowledge of one 8. Right concentration
of the innumerable aspects of a thing is called ‘Naya’. Five Precepts (Panchasheel Principles—iap”khy ds fl)kar).
2. Syad vada or Saptabhangi ( ): The disciples are needed to refrain from them.
is the most important part of Jaina logic. According 1. Violence
to this, we can know only some aspects of reality and 2. stealing
so all our judgements are relative. It is a theory of 3. sexual misconduct
the relativity of knowledge—what is true in my eyes, 4. lying or gossip
may be wrong in the eyes of others. 5. taking intoxicating substances e.g. drugs or drink
The process of practical perception in Jainism is given as In epistemological ideas also we can see the different
under: opinions among the four schools of Buddhism.
1. Avagrah ( ): distinguishing the type, horse, cow 1. Yogachara ( –Yoga Practice)
or man, without detailing the main features. 2. Madhyamika ( –middle path, also called as
2. iha ( ): inquiring about whereabouts, country, shoonyavaad ): This is called as
direction etc). Parmarthik element (charitable) of the world that
3. avaya ( ): correct identification says that origin of world is ‘Zero’.
4. Dharana ( ): recollecting the things popularized 3. Sautrantika ( –all is truth doctrine)
and keeping them in mind. 4. Vaibhasika ( –to get knowledge through two
means
Budhism ( ) (a) grehen ( ): to receive knowledge
Buddhism started in India almost 2,600 years ago with (b) adhyvsay ( ): to gain knowledge through
an objective of transforming a person. This is popular in hard work, diligence, persistence, assiduousness
South and South East Asia. etc.
This religion is based on teachings of Siddhartha Sautrantika says that the external objects are not known
Gautam, born in circa 563 BCE. He was born into royal through perception. According to Vaibhasika, the knowl-
family of Sakya clan who ruled from Kapilvastu, in edge of the external objects can also be gained through
Lumbini near Indo-Nepal Border. perception.
Gautama at the age of 29 left home and embraced a life- According to Vaibhasika, the inference of things exter-
style of asceticism, or extreme self-discipline. He attained nal to knowledge is self-contradictory. If all the external
‘enlightenment’ at the age of 49, at Bodhgaya in Bihar. He objects are inferred by their knowledge, then nothing can
delivered his first sermon at Sarnath. This event is known as be known by perception. In the absence of perception,
Dharma-Chakra-Pravartana (turning of the wheel of law). there can be no relation of concomitance between the
major and the minor premise, without which no inference
Tenets of Buddhism is possible. This is opposed to actual experience.
Buddha asked his followers to avoid indulgence in worldly The Vaibhasikas accept the presence of the external
pleasure. They were told to follow the practice of strict things and conceive them as subject to perception. To
abstinence and asceticism. them, by Pramana, only direct knowledge is possible. The
He ascribed instead the ‘Madhay Marg’ (middle path) Pramanas are of two types, namely Pratyaksa (percep-
which was to be followed. tion) and anumana (inferential). Both these Pramanas
Human life is set with sufferings, suffering is caused by are known as samyagjnana (right knowledge), and it is by
our desires and attachment, the truth of end of sufferings these that all the purusharthas are attained. Pratyaksa is
and truth of the path that leads to end of suffering. the knowledge that is without any imagination and error.
This knowledge is of four types:
Four noble truths: 1. Indriya Jnana ( ): Knowledge through senses.
Suffering (dukkha) is the essence of the world. 2. Mano Vigyan ( ): Sensual knowledge in the
Every suffering has a cause—Samudya. form of samanatara pratyaya after the knowledge
Suffering could be extinguished—Nirodha. through senses.

M06_MADAN 07_65901_C06.indd 31 27/12/22 8:18 PM

 6.32
3. Atma samvedana ( ): It is the manifesta-
tion of chitta (fpRr), and its dharmas are like pleasure
and pain in their real form.
4. Yogic Jnana ( ): It is the ultimate knowledge
of the things perceptible through various Pramanas.
Inference is of two types
1. Svartha (LokFkZ –for the self)
2. Parartha (ijkFkZ –for others)
In the former, the linga is inferential, i.e., in inference, if
there is fire on the hill, the hill is linga and the fire is infer-
ential. In it the linga remains in self-side (svapaksha–Lo%i{k),
just as the kitchen. The linga does not remain in the oppo-
site side (vipaksa), e.g., a pool of water, etc.
There are two sections of Budhism:
1. Mahayana ( ): This Buddhism considered Gau-
tama Buddha to be a divine being who guided his
followers to attain nirvana (ultimate liberation from
desires and expectations in this birth - freedom from
cycles of birth and death).
2. Hinayana ( ): This sect of Buddhists consider
Gautama Buddha as an ordinary human being who
attained Nirvana.
There are three types of sects on the basis of principles.
1. Aneeshwarvaad ( ): This means ‘atheist’,
they don’t trust the authority of God.
2. Anatmvaad ( ): What we call as ‘soul’ is actually
the integral flow of ‘consciouness’. Budhhism is unique
to deny the existence of a soul. There is no unchanging,
permanent self, or essence in the phenomena.
3. Kshanikvaad ( ): All universal things are
‘momentary’ in nature.
Tripitika ( —Three Baskets): This term is used in
many Buddhist scriptures. Much of the buddhist literature
is written/discussed in ‘Pali”. The three pitakas are
1. Sutta Pitaka ( ): This is basket of discourse
/discussion. It is the largest section for discussions. A
sutta can be called a sutra in Sanskrit.
2. Vinaya Pitaka ( ): This is basket of discipline,
that is the set of hundreds of rules to be followed by
monks (fHk{kq ) and nuns in their monastic life so that
they can lead a successful life in the sangha (la?k).
   A monastery for Buddhist renunciates is known as
a Vihara (fogkj).
3. Abhidhamma Pitaka ( ): This means
further or special teachings, is a systematic philo-
sophical and sometimes “scientific” description of the
nature of mind, matter and time.
Theravada school Tripitaka is the only complete Tripitaka
preserved in Pali.
Sarvastivada is a near complete Tripitaka in Sanskrit,
Chinese and Tibetan.
A small comparison between Buddhism and Jainism:
Buddhism and Jainism movements were started to
M06_MADAN 07_65901_C06.indd 32
Chapter 6
reform Hinduism. The languages spoken by the masses,
such as Prakrit and Pali, started getting prominence
over Sanskrit, a language which was limited to the
priestly and aristocratic classes. The source of both the
religions is vedic religion, and both are indebted to the
Upanishads.
Buddhism is centred upon the life and teachings of
Gautama Buddha, whereas Jainism is centred on the life
and teachings of Mahavira. Buddhism is a polytheistic reli-
gion, and its main goal is to gain enlightenment. Jainism
is also a polytheistic religion and its goals are based on
non-violence and liberation of the soul.
Buddhism says that this life is suffering and the only way
to escape from this suffering is to dispel one’s cravings and
ignorance by practising the Eightfold Path.
Jainism suggests respecting all living things and
attaining liberation by avoiding and shedding of bad
karma, which is the cause of rebirths and all sufferings.
Pramana ( – Source of
Knowledge)
The general science of inference is logic, and its aim is to
make explicit the rules by which inferences are drawn.
Inferences are rule-governed steps from one or more
propositions, known as premises, to another proposi-
tion, called conclusion. A deductive inference is one that
is intended to be valid, whereas a valid inference is one
in which the conclusion must be true if the premises are
true. All other inferences are inductive.
Our discussion is primarily based upon nyaya (U;k;) sys-
tem. Vatsayana defines a Pramana as a source or means of
valid knowledge. Gautama’s Nyaya Sutra defines perception
as an awareness that is
1. produced from the connection between the sense
organ and object
2. not produced by words
3. not deviating from its object, i.e., it is always true
4. is of the nature of certainty.
There are four factors involved in any knowledge as
listed below.
1. The subject who knows (Pramata–Áekrk)
2. The object of knowledge (Prameya–Áes;)
3. The means of valid knowledge (Pramana–Áek.k)
4. The resultant of valid knowledge (Prama–Áek)
Knowledge can be of two types:
1. Prama ( –valid): This is also known as ‘presen-
tative knowledge’ when the object of knowledge is
directly present to the knower. Four types of valid
knowledge includes perception, inference, compari-
son and sabda.
2. Aprama ( –invalid): This is basically wrong appre-
hension of an object. It includes memory (smriti), doubt
(smasya), error (viparyaya) and hypothetical reasoning
(tarka).
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 Logical Reasoning 6.33

Nyaya Epistemology

Valid Invalid

Anupalbdhi Arthapatti

Pratyaksha Anumana Upamana Shabda

Stages Type of Testimony

Indeterminate Determinate Vaidika Avaidika

Psychological Vyapti Induction

Swartha Prartha Kewalanyi Kevalanuitireki Airunya

vyitreki

Purvavat Shashavat Samayatra

prashta

Types

Extra
Ordinary
Ordinary

External Internal

Samanya Gyan Yogaza

Inner Cognitive Feelings Laksha Lakshna
sense

M06_MADAN 07_65901_C06.indd 33 27/12/22 8:18 PM

 6.34
Hence, pramana is the valid means of knowledge. It
has four important means:
1. Pratyaksa (ÁR;{k —Perception)
2. Anumana (vuqeku —Inference)
3. Upamana (mieku —Comparison)
4. Shabda (“kCn —Verbal testimony)
Different schools of knowledge accept or reject differ-
ent facets of these methods.
1. All methods are accepted by Mimamsa.
2. Only perception, inference, and testimony by Samkhya
and Yoga.
3. Only perception and inference by Buddhism and
Vaisheshika.
4. Only perception by Charvaka.
Pratyaksha ( –Perception )
Pratyaksha is combination of Prati (Áfr) + aksha (v{k).
It is basically what is before one’s eyes; ‘aksa’ means
sense organ and ‘prati’ means the function of each sense
organ. Perception is a valid form of knowledge produced
by the contact of an object with a sense organ.
Perception in Gautama system is defined as the knowl-
edge that originates from contact (sannikarsa–lfUu’d’kZ) of
a sense with its object that is determinate, unnamable and
non-erratic.
The term avyapadeshya (vO;ins”;) is used for percep-
tion that is without any doubt or error.
According to Nyayikas, perception is the direct and
immediate cognition produced by the interaction between
the object and sense organs. Perception needs four ele-
ments - self, mind, sense organs and objects.
It is the first of the five means of knowledge or pramanas
that enable a person to have correct cognitions of the world.
Pratyaksha is of two kinds:
1. Anubhava ( ): Direct perception
2. Smriti ( ): Remembered perception
Perception is considered to be of two types.
1. Indiscriminate perception (nirvikalpaka– ):
The object is perceived without its distinguishing fea-
tures such as colour, shape, size etc. This is also called
as avykta (vO;Dr) that means that it can’t be explained
through our vocabulary. This perception is important
to the followers of the Advaita (non-dualist) school of
Vedanta, as it allows the liberating perception of brah-
man (ultimate reality), which is without features.
2. Discriminate perception (savikalpaka– ):
The distinguishing features are both observed and
recognized. It has name, colour, shape etc. It gives
direct knowledge of the object. Examples are, it is a
smartphone. She is a woman.
Knowledge arises by contact of sense organs (indriya–
bfUnz;) with an object. Such contact is not the sole con-
dition of perception, but it is its distinctive feature or
extraordinary cause (karana–dkj.k) of perception. The
actual process is given below:
M06_MADAN 07_65901_C06.indd 34
Chapter 6
1. Self comes into contact with mind (manas–Ekkul).
2. The manas with the senses.
3. The senses with the object.
The function of a sense organ with regard to its own object
is described in two ways, nature of contact and nature of
knowledge.
Sense–object is also the instrumental cause of percep-
tion, as it immediately gives rise to the perceptual knowl-
edge of that particular object.
The modern school of Nyaya gives a new definition
of perception as it is direct or immediate cognition that
is not derived through the instrumentality of any other
cognition. It applies to all cases of perception, human or
divine. Even God’s omniscience has the highest degree of
immediacy conceivable.
Perception is divided into the following two categories:
Ordinary perception (Laukika): Knowledge results from
the contact of the sense organs with the external objects.
Extraordinary perception (Alaukika): it has three dis-
tinctions,
1. Samanyalaksna ( perception of uni-
versals/classes): Universals are a distinct classes.
They represent all the particulars of the class being
discussed. A man has all qualities of ‘manhood’ that
are common among all men.
2. Jnana laksnana ( knowledge traits): If we
saw some object previously. On seeing the picture of the
object, we can recall important or some of its important
property. Suppose, on seeing the tree of ‘sandalwood
(chandan), we can recall its strong fragrance.
3. Yogaja ( Intuition): This is extraordinary per-
ception that is found in gurus and rishis. These are
supernatural powers. They have power of meditation
that has intuitive and immediate perception of all
objects, past, present and future.
According to later logicians, there are two kinds of verbal
testimony:
1. Vaidika or Alukika : It is also known
as divine or scripture. The vedas are spoken by God.
This testimony is divine and perfect.
2. Laukika or secular : It is known as secular. The
human beings are not perfect. so only the words of trust
worthy person can be considered as laukika.
The former relates to the words of God. The Vedas are
created by God and therefore, perfectly valid. The latter
relates to the words of trustworthy people.
According to Nyayikas, since human beings are not per-
fect, only the words of trustworthy people can be consid-
ered as Laukika Shabda.
Anumana (Inference)
This word indicates knowledge after earlier knowledge
(anu—after, mana—knowledge). It is the second source
of valid knowledge. Inference is defined as the knowledge
of an object (lingi) due to a previous knowledge of some
sign or mark (linga).
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 Logical Reasoning
Gautama defines it as a specific form of knowledge
preceded by perception. The perception of the invariable
relation between the proban (linga) and the probandum
(lingi) is a previous perception of such a relation some-
where else. Again, the perception of the proban is invari-
ably related to probandum as it exists in the locus.
Shabda (  Verbal T estimony)
According to Nyaya Philosophy, Shabda is the fourth and
last valid source of knowledge. Shabda literally means
verbal knowledge. The mere combination of words does
not provide a valid knowledge.
All verbal statements are not valid. Hence, Gautama
defines shabda pramana ('kCn izek.k) as the statement
of a reliable person. In other words, verbal testimony
is the communication from a trustworthy person—who
is a trustworthy person (apta) and why is assertion
(upadesa) a testimony (prambna)?
Analyzing the process of verbal testimony we find the
following steps.
First, there is the perception of the words of a sentence
uttered by a trustworthy person.
Second, there is the understanding of the meaning of
words. This is called the karana (dkj.k) or the special cause
of the verbal knowledge.
The knowledge of words (padajnana–in Kku) leads to
the knowledge of objects through the function (vyapaar–
O;kikj) of recalling the meaning of words.
Gautama and Vatsyayana stated in Nyaya school that
verbal knowledge is of two kinds:
1. Drustartha (–’VkFkZ or –’V vFkZ): This one is relating to
perceptible objects, which means the sensible object
attainable in this world.
2. Adrsta or Adrusthartha (v–’VkFkZ): A sabda that deals
with the imperceptible object is called as ‘adrsta’. For
example, honesty is the best policy. God is one.
This is the division of words of the ordinary people and
the seers.
U pamana ( –Comparison)
Upamana is the combination of ‘upa’ and ‘mana’. ‘Upa’
means similarity or ‘sadrusya’ and ‘mana’ means c­ ognition.
Thus, upamana is the knowledge derived from similarity.
It has been defined as the knowledge of relation between
a person and its denotation. Upamana is the third source
of valid knowledge.
For example, when we tell a city man that a wild cow is
an animal like a cow, later on, when he sees a wild cow in
a forest, he recognizes it as a wild cow. Then, his knowl-
edge of the wild cow is the outcome of conjunction with
the knowledge of the cow. Hence, the ‘upamana’ is just the
knowledge of the relation between a name (here it is the
wild cow) and the object denoted by that name (the actual
wild cow seen in the forest).
Mimansa treats Upamana as analogy. Buddhism accepts
comparison as an independent source of valid knowledge.
According to Mimansa, the following two schools have
also been identified.
M06_MADAN 07_65901_C06.indd 35
6.35
Arthapatti ( –P resumption )
It is an independent source of knowledge. It is admitted
as a distinct pramana that cannot be brought under anu­
mana or sabda.
It consists in the assumption of some unperceived fact in
order to explain apparently inconsistent facts. Let us take an
example of arthapati. Devadatta is alive and he is not pres-
ent in his house, and we presume that he is elsewhere. The
essential element in presumption is that a certain fact like
Devadatta’s ‘being alive’ and ‘not being present in his house’ is
unaccountable without presuming another fact such as being
outside his house. In presumption, we proceed from the
knowledge of something to be explained to the knowledge of
that which explains it. The means of presumption (karana) is
the knowledge of the inner contradiction (anupatti) and its
result is the reconciliation of the contradiction (upapatti).
If Devadatta is fat and does not eat during the day, we
presume that he must be eating during night, otherwise
the inconsistency between ‘being fat’ and ‘not eating dur-
ing day’ cannot be resolved.
Anupalabdhi ( –Non -apprehension
Mimamsa)
According to Kumarila Bhatta and others, non-appre-
hension as the sixth independent source of knowledge
consists in the presentative knowledge of negative facts.
In other words, negative facts are cognized by a special
instrument (karana) called non-apprehension.
Only positive facts are apprehended through positive
sources like perception, inference, etc, but negative facts
are apprehended through non-apprehension. For exam-
ple, the absence of a jar on the ground is apprehended
through anuplabdhi.
Kumarila argues that the concept of the emptiness of
the container inevitably presupposes non-existence. He
also refutes the Nyaya view that non-apprehension is the
same as perception or inference.
Negation is never perceived, for there is no sense–
object contact in it.
Stopover
The distinction between laukika and alaukika is
made with reference to which one of the following
­pramanas? [2019]
(a) Anumana (Inference)
(b) Upamana (Comparison)
(c) Pratyaksa (Perception)
(d) Sabda (Verbal testimony)
The correct option is (c).
Structure and kinds of Anumana
(Inference)
Knowledge that comes after perception is inferential or
relational, and it is called inference. Anumana, etymologi-
cally means ‘secondary proof’. The data for inference are
derived from perception and verbal testimony.
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 6.36
There are two main groups of inference:
1. Vyapti ( ): It is when universal relation, such as
between fire and smoke, is known.
2. Paksadharmata ( ): Fire is inferred on the
hill, where smoke is perceived in it.
Inference is mediate and indirect, that is, arranged
through the medium of some mark which is called ‘hetu’.
This may be explained with the help of the typical exam-
ple of inference, the presence of fire on the perception of
smoke. When one sees smoke on distant hill, one remem-
bers one’s experience of the universal concomitance
(Vyapti) between smoke and fire and concludes that there
is fire on the distant hill.
Thus, we can say that:
1. This hill has fire (pratijna–izfrKku).
2. Because it has smoke (hetu–gsrq).
3. Whatever has smoke has fire, for example, an oven
(udaharana–mnkgj.k).
4. This hill has smoke, which is invariably associated
with fire (upanaya–miu;).
5. Therefore, this hill has fire (nigamana–fuxeu).
The first, the pratijna, is the logical statement, which is to
be proved. The second is hetu or reason, which states the
reason for the establishment of the proposition. The third
is udaharana, which the universal concomitance together
with example. The fourth is upanaya or application of the
universal concomitance to the present case. The fifth is
nigamana or conclusion drawn from the preceding propo-
sitions. These five members of Indian syllogism are called
Avayavas.
In the Aristotelian syllogism, the character which is
inferred (fire) is called sadhya; the mark on the strength
of which the character is inferred is the hetu (smoke); the
subject where the character is inferred is paksa (hill). The
three terms sadbya, hetu and paksha (lk/;, gsrq vkSj i{k)
correspond to the major, the middle, and the minor terms.
Linga Paramarsa: The Nyaya syllogism has five terms.
Among them, middle term works as a bridge between the
major and the minor terms. Therefore, the middle term
has main responsibility to prove a syllogism valid or inva-
lid. How a middle term is related to major term is linga-par­
amarsha. There are five characteristics of a middle term.
Vyapati ( Invariable R elation)
The word ‘vyâpti’ literally means ‘the state of pervasion’.
It implies a correlation between two facts, of which one is
pervaded (vyâpya), and the other pervades (vyâpaka). A
fact is said to pervade another when it always accompanies
the other. A fact is said to be pervaded by another when it
is accompanied by the other. In the given example, smoke
is pervaded by fire, since it is always accompanied by fire.
But while all smoky objects are fiery, all fiery objects are
not smoky, e. g., the red hot iron ball. Thus, vyâpti is a
relation of invariable concomitance between middle term
and the major term. Without the definite knowledge of
such a relation, our inference of fire is impossible in spite
of the perception of smoke.
M06_MADAN 07_65901_C06.indd 36
Chapter 6
A vyapti may be of two types and they are as follows:
1. Samvyapti ( )
2. Asamvyapati ( )
A vyâpti between terms of equal extension is called samavy­
âpti or equipollent concomitance, for example, ‘­nameable’
and ‘knowable’. Whatever is nameable is knowable and
again whatever is knowable is nameable. Here, we can
infer either of the terms from the other.
On the other hand, a vyâpti between terms of unequal
extension is called asamavyâpti. Fire is present in all cases
where smoke is present, but the reverse is not true.
The Naiyayikas maintain that there are five ways or meth-
ods for the establishment of vyâpti. They are the following:
1. Anvaya or Agreement in Presence ( ): Vyâpti is
a relation of agreement in presence (anvaya) between
two things.
2. Vyatireka or Agreement in Absence ( ): The
hetu and the sâdhya should agree in being absent together.
3. Vyabhicaragraha ( ): We do not observe any
contrary instance in which one of them is present and
the other is absent. That is, they must be related to each
other.
4. Upâdhinirasa or Elimination of Condition
( ): Vyâpti is an unconditional relationship
that is universal and necessary. An adventitious con-
dition may vitiate the natural and invariable relation
between hetu and sâdhya.
5. Tarka or Hypothetical Reasoning ( ): Tarka is
an indirect method to get the vyâpti. All the methods
mentioned above are direct methods. Ratiocination is
the process of thinking about something in a logical
way to establish the vyâpti.
6. Sâmânyalakaa Pratyaka ( ): Sâmân­
yalakaa pratyaka is an extraordinary perception. They
maintain that when we perceive an individual case,
we also perceive all the actual and possible instances
of fire and smoke.
Vyapti – Another classification of Inference
Inference here is classified based on the nature of vyapti
between hetu (smoke) and sadhya (fire). Vyapti denotes a
correlation between two facts of which one is pervaded and
the other which pervades. E.g. Smoke is pervaded by fire
and fire pervades smoke. Vyapti is established based on its
presence of both in all such events (wherever there is smoke
there is fire) and the absence of both (wherever there is no
fire there is no smoke). The classification is based on the
relationship (causal uniformity or non-causal uniformity)
between the reason and what is inferred. There are three
types of inference.
1. Purvavat inference ( ): It is that in which
we infer the unperceived effect from a perceived
cause. Example, we infer of future rain from the
appearance of dark heavy clouds.
2. Sesavat Inference ( ): It is that in which we
infer the unperceived cause from a perceived effect.
Example, we infer of the past rain from swift muddy
current of water in the river.
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 Logical Reasoning
3. Samanyatodrasta inference ( ): It is
that which we infer not based on causal relation but
on experience of uniformity. Example, on seeing the
different positions of the moon at long intervals, we
infer that it moves although the motion might not
have been perceived by us.
A comparison – Indian nyaya system and Western
­system.
Nyaya Syllogism – there are five propositions
1. Paksa – The Thesis OR The hill has fire
Pratijna – Proposition
2. Hetu – the main reason Because it has smoke
3. Drshtanta – The corroboration Where there is smoke, there All men are mortal like my
is fire as in the kitchen
4. Upanaya – The application The hill is so
5. Nigamana – The conclusion Therefore, the hill has fire.
The first three propositions (1-3) form inductive syl-
logism. The last three (3-5) form a deduction. The prop-
osition 3 is the conclusion for induction, and the major
premise for the deduction.
When it denotes negative concomitance, it is said to
be vyatireka vyapti. The example is opposite of above five
statements – The hill has no smoke; because there is no
fire; wherever there is no fire, there is no smoke; there is
no fire in the hill; therefore, the hill has no smoke.
Hetvabhasa (Ancient Indian
Fallacy System)
Hetvabhasa is a Sanskrit term which means fallacy in the
English language. It means that in Indian logic system,
a fallacy is termed as the Hetvabhasa. Here, the middle
term appears to be a reason but is not the valid reason. All
fallacies in ancient Indian system are ‘material fallacies’.
There are five features of a valid middle term which have
been discussed below.
1. It must be present in the minor term (paksha-­dharmata).
For example, smoke must be present in the hill.
2. It must be present in all positive instances in which the
major term is present. For example, smoke must be pres-
ent in the kitchen where fire exists (sapakshasattva).
3. It must be absent in all negative instances in which
the major term is absent. For example, smoke must
be absent in the lake in which fire does not exist
(vipaksha asattva).
4. It must be non-incompatible with the minor term.
For example, it must not prove the coolness of fire
(abaadhita).
5. It must be qualified by the absence of counteracting
reasons which lead to a contradictory conclusion. For
M06_MADAN 07_65901_C06.indd 37
6.37
example, ‘the fact of being caused’ should not be used
to prove the ‘eternality’ of sound (aviruddha).
When any of the above features are violated, we get fal-
lacies. So they must be seen very carefully. The five kinds
of fallacies have been recognized with this approach.
1. Asiddha ( ): This is the fallacy of the unproved
middle. The middle term must be present in the minor
Western Example
Ram is mortal
Because he is a man. f Inductive syllogism
grandfather
Ram is also a man
fDeductive syllogism
Therefore, Ram is a mortal
term (pakshadharmata). If it is not, it is unproved. It is
of three kinds.
(a) Ashraya asiddha ( ): The minor term
is the locus of the middle term. If the minor term
is unreal, the middle term cannot be present in it.
For example, the sky-lotus is fragrant, because it
is a lotus, like the lotus of a lake.
(b) Svarupa asiddha ( ): Here the minor
term is not unreal. But the middle term cannot be
its very nature be present in the minor term. For
example, ‘sound is a quality, because it is visible’.
Here visibility cannot belong to sound which is
audible.
(c) Vyapyatva asiddha ( ): Here, Vyapti
is conditional (sopadhika). Thus, we can’t say that
‘wherever there is fire there is smoke’. Fire smokes
only when it is associated with the wet or watery
fuel. A red - hot iron ball or clear fire does not
smoke. Hence ‘Association with wet fuel’ is a condi-
tion necessary to the aforesaid vyapti. Being con-
ditioned, the middle term becomes fallacious if we
say that ‘the hill has smoke because it has fire’.
2. Savyabhichara or Anaikantika (
): This is fallacy of the irregular middle.
This is again of three types.
(a) Sadharana ( ): Here the middle term is
too wide, it is taken as ‘mixed land’. It is taken
as present in sapaksha (positive) and vipaksha
(negative) instances. It violates the rule that the
middle not be present in the negative instances
(vipaksha asattva). For example, ‘the hill has fire
because it is knowable’. Here ‘knowable’ is pres-
ent in fiery as well as non – fiery objects.
(b) Asadharana ( ): Here, the middle term
is too narrow. It is present only in ‘paksha’. It is
27/12/22 8:18 PM
 6.38
present neither in ‘sapaksha’ not in ‘vipaksha’. It
violates the rule that the middle term should be
present in the sapaksha (sapaksha sattva). For
example, ‘sound is eternal, because it is audible’.
Here audibility belongs to sound only and is
present nowhere else.
(c) Anupasamhari ( ): Here the middle
term is non-exclusive. The minor term is all –
inclusive and leaves nothing by way of sapaksha
or vipaksha. For example, ‘all things are non-
eternal, because they are knowable’.
3. Satpratipaksha ( ): Satpratipaksa consists
of two terms – sat and pratipak a. The middle term
is contradicted by another middle term. The reason
is counter - balanced by another reason. And both are
of equal force. For example, ‘sound is eternal, because
it is audible’ and ‘sound is non-eternal, because it is
produced’. Here ‘audible’ is counter – balanced by
‘produced’ and both are of equal force.
M06_MADAN 07_65901_C06.indd 38
Chapter 6
4. Badhita ( ): Badhita means hindered or
prohibited. It is the non - inferentially contradicted
middle. The middle term is contradicted by some
other pramana and not by inference. It cannot prove
the major term which is disproved by another stronger
source of valid knowledge. For example, ‘fire is cold,
because it is a substance’. The middle term ‘substance’
is directly contradicted by perception.
5. Viruddha ( ): It is again the contradictory
middle. The middle term, instead of being pervaded
by the presence of the major term is pervaded by
the absence of the major term. Instead of proving
the existence of the major term in the minor term, it
proves its non-existence therein. For example, ‘sound
is eternal, because it is produced’. Here, ‘produced’,
instead of proving the eternality of sound, proves its
non-eternality.
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 Logical Reasoning 6.39

A s s e s s Yo u r L e a r n i n g

THEORy QuESTIOnS
1. The process by which conclusion is arrived at on the Codes:
basis of other propositions is termed as (a) 1, 2 and 4
(a) Concept (b) Inference (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) Connotation (d) Conference (c) 1, 3 and 4
2. Propositions that support the conclusion of an argu- (d) 1, 2 and 3
ment are called 10. Inductive reasoning is grounded on (June 2015)
(a) Inferences (b) Premises (a) Integrity of nature
(c) Concepts (d) None of the above (b) Unity of nature
3. That proposition which is affirmed on the basis of (c) Uniformity of nature
premises is called (d) Harmony of nature
(a) Major term (b) Concept 11. A cluster of propositions with a structure that exhibits
(c) Conclusion (d) Syllogism some inference is called a (December 2015)
4. When a group of prepositions, one preposition is (a) An inference
claimed to follow from the others, that group of (b) An argument
prepositions is called as (December 2014) (c) An explanation
(a) An argument (d) An invalid argument
(b) A valid argument 12. Which of the following statements are true?
(c) An explanation 1. In inductive reasoning, the conclusion is deterministic
(d) An invalid argument 2. Inductive arguments are properly characterized
5. Deductive proceeds from (November 2020) as strong and weak
(a) Particular to Universal 3. In logical reasoning, truth or falsehood is usually
(b) Universal to Particular propositions
(c) Particular to Particular 4. Validity or invalidity is always predicted by deduc-
(d) Universal to Universal tive arguments
6. With which of the following terms, deduction infer- 5. The falsehood of a valid deductive argument’s con-

A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
ence can be identified? clusion guarantees that the validity is uncertain
(a) Synthetic (b) Analytic Codes:
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above (a) 2, 3, 4, and 5 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (d) 3, 4 and 5
7. Which of the following can be defined as a group of
statements that have common conclusion? 13. Which one of the following is the characteristic fea-
(a) Proposition (b) Argument ture of an argument? [Dec 2019]
(c) Concept (d) Fallacy (a) It is either valid or invalid
(b) It is neither valid nor invalid
8. The premises provide conclusive grounds for conclu- (c) It is either true or false
sion in (d) It is neither true nor false
(a) Inductive reasoning
(b) Deductive reasoning 14. ‘All tigers are animals’ is an example of which type of
(c) Intuitive reasoning proposition? [Dec 2019]
(d) None of the above (a) Particular negative
(b) Particular affirmative
9. Which of the following statements are true ? (c) Universal negative
1. The defining feature of a valid deduction is its (d) Universal affirmative
certainty
2. Inductive arguments are typically synthetic 15. Which among the following terms are distributed in
3. The relationship between premises and con- the statement, ‘No dogs are reptiles’? [Dec 2019]
clusion in a deductive argument is basically of (a) Only subject term
implication–entailment (b) Only predicate term
4. Inductive and deductive always go in the same (c) Both subject and predicate terms
direction (d) Neither subject nor predicate term

M06_MADAN 07_65901_C06.indd 39 27/12/22 8:18 PM

 6.40 Chapter 6

16. Consider the following statements with reference to
the proposition ‘Some girls are not students’. 
 [Dec 2019]
  (i) Subject term students are distributed.
(ii) Predicate term girls are undistributed.
(iii)Predicate term students are distributed.
(iv) Subject term girls are undistributed.
Choose the correct option.
(a) Only (i) and (iii) are correct
(b) Only (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) Only (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) Only (iii) and (iv) are correct
17. The reasoning which would be helpful in finding new
knowledge of facts about the world is (June 2019)
(a) Speculative
(b) Deductive
(c) Analogical
(d) Inductive
18. ‘Some students are sincere’—it is an example of which
proposition? [Dec 2019]
(a) Universal affirmative
(b) Universal negation
(c) Particular affirmative
(d) Particular negation
19. A fallacy is a
(a) True argument (b) False argument
(c) Valid argument (d) Invalid argument
20. Inductive reasoning is based on
1. Uniformity of nature
2. Theory to observation approach
3. Aristotle was basically in favour of inductive
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
24. A deductive argument is sound if and only if it is
(a) Valid and all its premises are true
(b) Invalid and all its premises are true
(c) Is valid and one of the premise is false
(d) Is valid and its conclusion is false
25. Lakshmana is a morally good person because
(a) He is religious. (b) He is educated.
(c) He is rich. (d) He is rational.
26. Look at the following statements
1. In terms of nature, both of the premises and con-
clusion of an argument are propositions
2. In syllogism, there are two premises and one
conclusion
3. In inductive reasoning, strong, weak, cogent and
uncogent are crucial aspects
4. Inductive deals with the post-priori knowledge
Codes:
(a) 1, 2, and 3 are correct
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(c) 3 and 4 are correct
(d) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
27. Which of the following denotes a statement of rela-
tion between two terms?
(a) Proposition (b) Denotation
(c) Syllogism (d) None of the above
28. Structure of a logical argument is based on
(a) Formal validity
(b) Material truth
(c) Linguistic expression
(d) Aptness of examples
29. In a deductive argument, conclusion is
(a) Summing up of the premises

reasoning
4. Observation to Theory approach (b) Not necessarily based on premises
(c) Entailed by the premises
Codes:
(d) Additional to the premises
(a) 1 and 4
30. Which of the following are correct statements.
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. Syllogistic reasoning is deductive in nature
(c) 3 and 4
2. Inductive is about critical analysis
(d) 2 and 3
3. Inductive knowledge is always innovative
21. If it is possible for the premises of a deductive argu- 4. Inductive and deductive are always same in terms
ment to be true and its conclusion to be false that of process
argument is: Codes:
(a) Valid (b) Invalid (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) Indescribable (d) Sound (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
22. Consider the following propositions 31. A syllogism must have
A is human and mortal. (a) Three terms (b) Four terms
B is human and mortal. (c) Six terms (d) Five terms
C is human and mortal.
32. The two kinds of propositions are
D is human and mortal.
(a) Connotative–denotative
Therefore, ‘All humans are mortal’ is an example of: (b) Categorical–conditional
(a) Deductive argument (b) Inductive argument (c) Both (a) and (b)
(c) Syllogistic argument (d) None of the above (d) None of the above
23. Which of the following describes a valid deductive 33. Which of the following denotes a relation between
argument with true premises? two terms?
(a) Sound (b) Unsound (a) Subject (b) Predicate
(c) Fallacious (d) Ambiguity (c) Object (d) Copula

M06_MADAN 07_65901_C06.indd 40 27/12/22 8:18 PM

 Logical Reasoning
34. A deductive argument is valid if
(a) Premises are false and conclusion is true.
(b) Premises are false and conclusion is also false.
(c) Premises are true and conclusion is false.
(d) Premises are true and conclusion is true.
35. Which of the following statements are false?
1. Inductive arguments always proceed from the
particular to the general.
2. A cogent argument must be inductively strong.
3. A valid argument may have a false premise and a
false conclusion.
4. An argument may legitimately be spoken of as
true or false.
Codes:
(a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 2
36. Which of the following statements are correct?
1. The sum total of the objects to which a term can be
applied is called as its connotation
2. Denotation is the same as ‘extension’
3. The function of suggesting qualities possessed by
the objects is known as connoting
4. Denotation is the same as ‘intension’
Codes:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
37. ‘If it rains, then the drought will end. The drought
has ended. Therefore, it rained’. What kind of fallacy
does this commit? [Dec 2019]
(a) Deductive fallacy
(b) Inductive fallacy
(c) Abductive fallacy
(d) Informal fallacy
38. Which one of the following propositions is a c­ ontrary
to ‘All poets are dreamers’?  [Dec 2019]
(a) Some poets are dreamers
(b) Some poets are not dreamers
(c) No poets are dreamers
(d) No dreamers are poets
39. The collection of all the objects to which a term may
correctly be applied is called: [2021]
(A) The intension of that term
(B) Connotation of that term
(C) The extension of that term
(D) Denotation of that term
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(a) (A) and (B) only
(b) (B) and (C) only
(c) (A) and (D) only
(d) (C) and (D) only
40. Among the following, identify the two statements
which are in such a relation that the truth of one
implies the truth of the other, but not conversely.
 (December 2018)
M06_MADAN 07_65901_C06.indd 41
6.41
(a) All plastic are synthetic
(b) Some plastic are synthetic
(c) Some plastic are not synthetic
(d) No plastics are synthetic
41. The proposition ‘if you work hard you will succeed’ is
an example of
(a) Categorical proposition
(b) Conditional proposition
(c) Negative proposition
(d) Pre-emptive proposition
42. A disjunctive proposition is a type of
(a) Conditional proposition
(b) Unconditional proposition
(c) Categorical proposition
(d) Imperative proposition
43. Which of the following statements are true?
1. Some arguments while not completely valid are
almost valid.
2. A sound argument may be invalid.
3. A cogent argument may have a probably false
conclusion.
4. A statement may be true or false.
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 4 only (d) 3 and 4
44. Affirmative or negative is the classification of proposi-
tions on the basis of
(a) Quantity (b) Quality
(c) Validity (d) Truth
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
45. Universal or particular is the classification of the
propositions on the basis of
(a) Quantity (b) Quality
(c) Validity (d) Truth
46. A proposition in which the predicate refers to all indi-
vidual objects denoted by the subject is called
(a) Particular (b) Negative
(c) Disjunctive (d) Universal
47. A proposition in which the predicate belongs only to a
part of the denotation of the subject is called
(a) Particular (b) Negative
(c) Disjunctive (d) Universal
48. Individual propositions are to be regarded as
(a) Universal (b) Particular
(c) Negative (d) None of the above
49. The proposition ‘all men are mortal’ is an example of
(a) Universal affirmative
(b) Universal negative
(c) Particular affirmative
(d) Particular negative
50. The proposition ‘no men are perfect’ is an example of
(a) Universal affirmative (b) Universal negative
(c) Particular affirmative (d) Particular negative
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 6.42 Chapter 6

51. ‘Some flowers are green’ is an example of 62. Which of the following terms show the relationship
(a) Universal affirmative (b) Universal negative between two propositions having the same subject,
(c) Particular affirmative (d) Particular negative but differing in both quality and quantity?
52. The proposition ‘some Indians are not spiritual’ is an (a) Contrary opposition
example of (b) Contradictory opposition
(a) Universal affirmative (c) Sub-alternation
(b) Universal negative (d) Sub-contrary
(c) Particular affirmative 63. The relation between two particular propositions that
(d) Particular negative have the same subject and predicate, but differing in
53. When a term is used in its entire extent, referring to quality is
the objects denoted by the term, it is said to be (a) Contrary (b) Contradictory
(c) Sub-alternation (d) Sub-contrary
(a) Undistributed (b) Excluded
64. Which of the following shows that an opposition is the
(c) Distributed (d) Verified
relation between two propositions having the same
54. When a term refers only to a part of the class of things subject and predicate, but differing in quantity only?
denoted by the term, the term is said to be (a) Contrary (b) Contradictory
(a) Undistributed (b) Unexcluded (c) Sub-alternation (d) Sub-contrary
(c) Distributed (d) Verified
65. If one of the contraries is true, then the truth value of
55. Universal affirmative proposition distributes the other is
(a) Subject (a) True (b) Partially true
(b) Predicate (c) False (d) Neither true nor false
(c) Both subject and predicate
66. If one of the contraries is false, then the truth value of
(d) Neither subject nor predicate the other is
56. Universal negative proposition distributes (a) True (b) False
(a) Subject (c) Neither true nor false (d) Doubtful
(b) Predicate
(c) Both subject and predicate 67. If one of the contradictories is true, then the other must
(d) Neither subject nor predicate be
(a) True (b) False
57. Particular affirmative proposition distributes
(a) Subject (c) Doubtful (d) Neither true nor false
(b) Predicate 68. Both the contrary propositions cannot be
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

(c) Both subject and predicate (a) True (b) False

(d) Neither subject nor predicate
58. Particular negative proposition distributes
(a) Subject
(b) Predicate
(c) Both the subject and the predicate
(d) Neither the subject nor the predicate
59. The process of passing directly from a single proposi-
tion to a conclusion is
(a) Immediate inference (b) Mediate inference
(c) Definition (d) Classification
60. Which of the following asserts the agreement or
­disagreement of a subject and predicate after having
compared each with middle term?
(a) Immediate inference
(b) Mediate inference
(c) Definition
(d) Classification
61. Which of the following   shows the relationship
between two universal propositions having the same
subject, but differing in quality only?
(a) Contrary opposition
(b) Contradictory opposition
(c) Sub-alternation
(d) Sub-contrary
(c) True and false (d) Doubtful
69. Of the two sub-contraries, if one is false, the other is
necessarily
(a) True (b) False
(c) Doubtful (d) Neither true nor false
70. If one of the two sub-contraries is true, then the other
one is
(a) True (b) False
(c) Doubtful (d) Neither true nor false
71. Between sub-alternations, if the universal is true,
then the particular is
(a) True (b) False
(c) Doubtful (d) Both true and false
72. If the particular proposition of a sub-alternation rela-
tion is false, then its corresponding universal proposi-
tion will be
(a) True (b) False
(c) Both true and false (d) Doubtful
73. If a particular proposition of a sub-alternation relation
is true, then the truth value of the universal proposi-
tion is
(a) True (b) False
(c) Both true and false (d) Doubtful

M06_MADAN 07_65901_C06.indd 42 27/12/22 8:18 PM

 Logical Reasoning 6.43

74. The proposition, ‘Chanakya is wise’ is an example of 86. No conclusion is possible from two
(a) Negative proposition (a) Universal premises (b) Affirmative premises
(b) Singular proposition (c) Negative premises (d) Categorical premises
(c) Emotive proposition
87. If one premise is particular, then the conclusion
(d) Invalid proposition
must be
75. The quantity of the proposition is determined by the (a) Universal (b) Negative
extension of the (c) Affirmative (d) Particular
(a) Subject
88. Which one of the following is not an argument?
(b) Predicate
(c) Both subject and predicate (a) If today is Tuesday, tomorrow will be Wednesday.
(d) Copula (b) Since today is Tuesday, tomorrow will be
Wednesday.
76. In a conditional proposition, the part which expresses
(c) Ram insulted me, so I punched him in the nose.
the condition by ‘if’ or its equivalent is
(a) Antecedent (b) Consequent (d) Ram is not at home, so he must have gone to town.
(c) Opposite (d) Meaning 89. Which one of the following statements is completely
77. Which of the following terms describe the syllogism? nonsensical?
(a) Mediate and deductive (a) He had been a bachelor, but he married recently.
(b) Immediate and deductive (b) He is a bachelor, but he married recently.
(c) Mediate and inductive (c) When he married, he was not a bachelor.
(d) Immediate inductive (d) When he was a bachelor, he was not married.
78. The major term is the 90. Venn diagram is a kind of diagram to
(a) Subject of the conclusion (a) Represent and assess the truth of elementary
(b) Copula inferences with the help of Boolean Algebra of
(c) Predicate of the conclusion classes.
(d) Predicate of the minor premise (b) Represent and assess the validity of elementary
inferences with the help of Boolean Algebra of
79. The minor term is the
classes.
(a) Subject of the conclusion
(b) Predicate of the conclusion (c) Represent but not assess the validity of elemen-
(c) Subject of the major premise tary inferences with the help of Boolean Algebra
(d) Predicate of the major premise of classes.
(d) Assess but not represent the validity of elemen-
80. That term which occurs in the premises and not in the tary inferences with the help of Boolean Algebra
conclusion is of classes.

A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
(a) Major term (b) Minor term
(c) Middle term (d) None of the above 91. ‘A is true because B is true; B is true because A is true.’
This type of argument is termed as
81. Which of the following performs the function of an
(a) Inductive argument
intermediary?
(a) Major term (b) Middle term (b) Deductive argument
(c) Minor term (d) Copula (c) Circular argument
(d) None of the above
82. How many times each term occurs in the syllogism?
(a) Once (b) Twice 92. Which of the following is an example of circular
(c) Thrice (d) Four times argument?
83. All Indians are hardworking. All Punjabis are Indians. (a) God created man in his image, and man created
Therefore, all Punjabis are hardworking. God in his own image.
The above argument is (b) God is the source of scripture and the scripture is
(a) Invalid  (b) False  (c) Valid  (d) True the source of our knowledge of God.
(c) Some of the Indians are great because India is great.
84. If one premise is negative, then the conclusion
must be (d) Rama is great because he is Rama.
(a) Negative 93. Determine the nature of the following definition:
(b) Positive ‘Poor’ means having an annual income of ` 1000.
(c) Both negative and positive (a) Persuasive (b) Precising
(d) Neither negative nor positive (c) Lexical (d) Stipulative
85. Combination of which of the following two types of 94. In the expression, ‘Nothing is larger than itself’, the
premises yields no valid conclusion? relation ‘is larger than’ is
(a) Universal (b) Particular (a) Antisymmetric (b) Asymmetrical
(c) Affirmative (d) Categorical (c) Intransitive (d) Irreflexive

M06_MADAN 07_65901_C06.indd 43 27/12/22 8:18 PM

 6.44 Chapter 6

95. Determine the nature of the following definition, 104. Consider the following statements.
‘­Abortion means the ruthless murder of innocent 1. The sunset is beautiful.
beings’. 2. Mahatma Gandhi believed in non-violence.
(a) Lexical (b) Persuasive 3. Do not tell the world what you can do, just do it.
(c) Stipulative (d) Theoretical 4. Those who own a car are rich.
96. Which one of the following is not an argument? Which one of the following is correct?
(a) Abhimanyu does not eat in the day so he must Fact Opinion Advice Assumption
eat at night.
­ (a) 1 4 3 2
(b) If Abhimanyu is growing fat and if he does not (b) 2 3 4 1
eat during the day, he will be eating at night. (c) 4 2 1 3
(c) Abhimanyu eats in the night so he does not eat (d) 2 1 3 4
during the day. 105. Education and socio-economic development are
(d) Since Abhimanyu does not eat in the day, he (a) Related in a direct proportion.
must be eating in the night. (b) Related in an indirect proportion.
97. If P is true, Q is true. If P is false, Q is false. The rela- (c) Sometimes related and sometimes not related.
tion of this proposition is (d) Not related
(a) Independent (b) Equivalent 106. Bats are mammals because bats suckle their young,
(c) Subcontrary (d) Contradictory and
98. Two propositions with the same subject and predi- (a) All those who suckle their young are mammals.
cate terms, but different in quality are (b) All mammals suckle their young.
(a) Contradictory (c) Some of those who suckle their young are
(b) Contrary mammals.
(c) Subalternation (d) All of the above
(d) Subcontraries
107. ‘A single shelf of a good European library is worth
99. Which of the following statements are always true? the whole native literature of India and Arabia.’ This
1. A wooden table is a table. statement is
2. Now, it is raining or not raining. (a) Factual (b) Logical
3. The sun rises in the East every day. (c) Opinion (d) Reactionary
4. A chicken comes out of a hen’s egg.
Codes: 108. Consider the following statements:
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4 I think
(c)1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3 Thinking things exist
100. Persons educated through a foreign language are Therefore, I am (i.e., I exist as a thinking thing)
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

sure to be unpatriotic. Mark the answer as follows: This argument is

(a) The statement is a fact. (a) Valid (b) Invalid
(b) The statement is an advice. (c) Doubtful (d) Cannot be said
(c) The statement is an opinion. 109. Which one of the following statements follow from
(d) The statement is a prejudice. the statement ‘only goods trains stop at this station’?
101. Statement: ‘The decline of British Empire should (a) Some goods trains stop at this station.
have resulted in the decline of English language.’ (b) All goods trains stop at this station.
Mark the answer as follows: (c) Some goods trains do not stop at this station.
(a) If the statement is a fact. (d) All trains that stop at this station are goods
(b) If the statement is an advice. trains.
(c) If the statement is an opinion. 110. Evaluate the following statements in terms of
(d) If the statement is a prejudice. whether each is a fact, opinion, prejudice, or advice.
102. If ‘X loves Y’, then what can be inferred about ‘Y loves 1. Women are not suitable for police service.
X’? It is 2. In a democracy, no party should be in power for
(a) True (b) False too long.
(c) May be true (d) None of the above 3. Have proper rest, even during the examination
103. ‘Honesty is the best policy’ because time.
(a) God rewards those who follow this maxim. 4. Obesity is a risk factor for coronary heart disease.
(b) It leads to recognition in the society. Which one of the following is correct?
(c) It facilitates cohesiveness in society. Opinion Prejudice Fact Advice
(d) It leads to material prosperity and spiritual (a) 2 3 4 1
awakening. (b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 2 4 3 1

M06_MADAN 07_65901_C06.indd 44 27/12/22 8:18 PM

 Logical Reasoning
111. Information: NET test is conducted for postgraduates.
Inferences:
(a) Kumar is a postgraduate, so he should have
undertaken the test.
(b) Kamal is a graduate. She cannot take the NET
examination.
(c) All postgraduates can take the NET examination.
(d) No other agency can take the NET examination.
112. For a proposition to be true, it is necessary that it
should have all the following characteristics EXCEPT
(a) It must be objective.
(b) It must be in tune with accepted beliefs.
(c) It must be consistent.
(d) It must be testable.
113. Four inferences are drawn from the statement given
below, which one can be the correct inference?
 [December 1998]
Statement
People in Australia generally speak English.
Inferences
(a) Rosy speaks English. So she is from Australia.
(b) Rahim knows English. That is why he is going to
Australia next month.
(c) Rahul has been living in Australia, so he most
probably can speak English.
(d) Ramesh does not know English. He cannot talk
to anyone if he goes to Australia.
Directions (Questions 114–135): In each of the questions
below, a proposition is followed by four answer choices.
Match the proposition with one of the choices that seems
to be the most justified or applicable.
114. The spread of the Internet for higher education is
premised on [June 2000]
(a) Research and development are vital.
(b) Browsing encourages critical thinking.
(c) Easy management and dissemination of
knowledge.
(d) India should be second to none in the world.
115. World Trade Organization believes in intellectual
property and liberalized trade regime.[June 2000]
Their belief is based on the assumption that
(a) Modern economy bestows equal benefits.
(b) Knowledge-based economy and globalization
are reality.
(c) All countries are well suited for modern trade.
(d) Rich countries will always help the poor countries.
116. The essence and justification to beauty contests
is that [June 2000]
(a) Women have standard features on which they
can be rated.
(b) Beautiful women have a vision and role to play
in social upliftment.
(c) They symbolize eternal freedom for women.
(d) They provide an opportunity for beautiful
women of the world to come together on one
platform.
M06_MADAN 07_65901_C06.indd 45
6.45
117. This worker is a graduate. No one else in the factory
is a graduate.
(a) All workers in the factory are graduates.
(b) Everybody in the factory has a graduation
certificate.
(c) Some of the factory workers have higher
qualification.
(d) Only one worker in the factory is a graduate.
118. All that glitters is not gold. [June 2003]
(a) Many things that shine are other than gold.
(b) Whatever shines is other than gold.
(c) Gold is not the only glittering substance.
(d) All of the above
119. All students are not geniuses. [June 2003]
(a) Many students are not genius.
(b) All geniuses are students.
(c) No student is a genius.
(d) None of the above
120. Which of the following statements say the same
thing? [December 2006]
1. ‘I am a teacher’ (said by Arvind).
2. ‘I am a teacher’ (said by Binod).
3. My son is a teacher (said by Binod’s father).
4. My brother is a teacher (said by Binod’s sister).
5. My brother is a teacher (said by Binod’s only
sister).
6. My sole enemy is a teacher (said by Binod’s only
enemy).
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3, 4, and 5
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 5 and 6
121. Which of the following are the correct ways of
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
­arguing? [December 2006]
1. There can be no second husband without a sec-
ond wife.
2. Anil is a friend of Bob, Bob is a friend of Raj, hence
Anil is a friend of Raj.
3. A is equal to B, B is equal to C, and hence, A is
equal to C.
4. If everyone is a liar, then we cannot prove it.
Codes:
(a) 3 and iv (b) 1, 3, and 4
(c) 2, 3, and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
122. Which of the following is an analogous statement?
 [December 2009]
(a) Man is like God.
(b) God is great.
(c) Gandhi is the father of the nation.
(d) Man is a rational being.
123. ‘No men are mortal’ is contradictory to[June 2009]
(a) Some men are mortal.
(b) Some men are not mortal.
(c) All men are mortal.
(d) No mortal is man.
27/12/22 8:18 PM
 6.46
124. Certainty is [June 2010]
(a) An objective fact
(b) Emotionally satisfying
(c) Logical
(d) Ontological
125. Inductive logic studies the way in which a premise
may [December 2011]
(a) Support and entail a conclusion.
(b) Not support but entail a conclusion.
(c) Neither support nor entail a conclusion.
(d) Support a conclusion without entailing it.
126. Most dresses in that market are expensive, this
means
(a) There are no cheap dresses available in that
market.
(b) There are some cheap dresses also in that
market.
(c) Some dresses in that market are expensive.
(d) None of the above
127. Every library has books.
(a) Books are only in a library.
(b) Libraries are meant for books only.
(c) No library is without books.
(d) Some libraries do not have readers.
128. The electronic media convinces its viewers that the
likelihood of their becoming the victim of a violent
crime is extremely high; at the same time, by its
very nature, it persuades viewers to passively accept
whatever happens to them.
(a) Exposure to electronic media promotes criminal
behaviour.
(b) The users of electronic media are more vulner-
able to become victims of violence than others.
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
(c) Electronic media promotes a feeling of helpless
vulnerability in viewers.
(d) None of the above.
129. This book can help because all good books help.
(a) This is not a good book.
(b) This is a good book.
(c) No good book helps.
(d) Some good books help.
130. Soldiers serve their country.
(a) Men mostly serve their country.
(b) The persons who serve their country are soldiers.
(c) Some people who are soldiers serve their
country.
(d) Women usually do not serve their country as
they are not soldiers.
131. To pass any competitive exam, one must work hard.
(a) Getting good grades in exam needs hard work.
(b) All those who work hard, pass.
(c) The candidates who work hard overcome anxi-
ety in the competitive exam.
(d) Without hard work, one does not pass the com-
petitive exams.
132. All the books written by Professor Bhardwaj are
textbooks. Some of his books are published by India
Publishing House.
M06_MADAN 07_65901_C06.indd 46
Chapter 6
(a) India Publishing House publishes textbooks only.
(b) Some textbooks written by Professor Bhardwaj
are published by publishers other than M/s
India Publishing House.
(c) All the books published by M/s India Publishing
House have been written by Professor Bhardwaj.
(d) None of the above.
133. All students in my class are bright. Mehtab is not
bright.
(a) Some students are not bright.
(b) Mehtab is not a student of my class.
(c) Mehtab must change the school.
(d) No student is dull.
134. Which one of the following is not correct? A belief
becomes a scientific truth when it
(a) Is established experimentally
(b) Is arrived logically
(c) Is accepted by many people
(d) Can be replicated
135. Child labour can best be eradicated if the following is
done for the concerned children
(a) Schools are opened and free lunch is provided.
(b) Employment is provided to parents and free
education is given to children.
(c) Appropriate laws are enacted and enforced.
(d) Employers of child labourers are punished and
children are sent to school.
136. A reasoning where we start with a particular statement
and conclude with a universal statement is called a
(a) Deductive reasoning
(b) Inductive reasoning
(c) Abnormal reasoning
(d) Transcendental reasoning
137. To be critical, thinking must be
(a) Practical (b) Socially relevant
(c) Individually satisfying (d) Analytical
138. Consider the argument provided below:
 [Jun 2019]
‘Sound is impermanent because it is invisible’
Identify the fallacy involved in the above argument
on the basis of Indian logic
(a) Fallacy of irrelevant reason
(b) Fallacy of wrong assertion
(c) Fallacy of trivial reason
(d) Fallacy of contradictory reason
139. If ‘All men are mortal’ is given as True, then which of
the following options can be validly inferred from it?
 [2021]
A. ‘No men is mortal’ is False
B. ‘Some men are mortal’ is True
C. ‘Some men are not mortal’ is True
D. ‘Some men are not mortal’ is False
E. ‘Some men are mortal’ is False
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(a) A, B and D only (b) A, B and C only
(c) A, B, C and D only (d) B, C, D and E only
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 Logical Reasoning 6.47

140. ________ messages have more or less same meaning 148. Look at the following statement.
for the audience. [2021] ‘My mother must be visiting, since there is a
(a) Abstract (b) Complex Mercedes parked outside’.
(c) Connotative (d) Denotative What kind of fallacy does it indicate?
141. Consider the following argument. Statement: (a) Fallacy of deviation
Some chairs are curtains. (b) Fallacy of contradiction
All curtains are bed sheets. (c) Fallacy of unestablishment
Conclusion: Some chairs are bed sheets. (d) Fallacy of rebuttal
What is the mood of the above proposition? 149. Look at the following statement
(a) IAI (b) IAA ‘Santa was not a kind man, since he gave his life for
(c) IIA (d) AII others.’
What kind of fallacy does it indicate?
142. ‘Everyone is going to the party. You should go too’.
(a) Fallacy of deviation
This inference commits which kind of fallacy?
(a) Ad populum (b) Equivocation (b) Fallacy of contradiction
(c) Ad verecundiam (d) Ad ignorantiam (c) Fallacy of unestablishment
(d) Fallacy of rebuttal
143. The inference ‘A mouse is an animal. Therefore, a
large mouse is a large animal’ commits which one of 150. In a Buddhist work, Katha— -vatthu, there is demon-
the following fallacies? stration of many inconsistencies between a propo-
(a) Straw man nent and an opponent. This title was written by
(b) Slippery slope (a) Kalidasa (b) Moggaliputta Tissa
(c) Equivocation (c) Varahmihir (d) Buddhyana
(d) Fallacy of composition 151. Look at the following statement
144. Humans and animals are both living, breathing I know that your mother is in town, since I saw a
beings. Humans have civil rights. Therefore, animals Rolls Royce parked outside your home.
have civil rights. What kind of fallacy does it indicate?
These statements indicate the following fallacy. (a) Fallacy of deviation
(a) False analogy (b) Fallacy of contradiction
(b) Ad hominem (c) Fallacy of unestablishment
(c) Red herring (d) Fallacy of rebuttal
(d) Complex question
152. When counterarguments of equal or greater force
145. If we teach sex education in school, then students will are put forth in support of an opposing conclusion,
have more sex. If students have more sex, we will have it is called a

A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
a rash of unplanned pregnancies and sexually trans- (a) Fallacy of deviation
mitted diseases. Students will be forced to drop out of (b) Fallacy of contradiction
school and will never have the chance to succeed in (c) Fallacy of counterbalanced
life. (d) Fallacy of rebuttal
These statements indicate which of the following
fallacy? 153. What is the number of ‘Moods’?
(a) False analogy (b) Ad hominem (a) 4 (b) 16
(c) Red herring (d) Ignoratio Elenchi (c) 64 (d) 256
146. People have been seeing ghosts for hundreds of 154. To test an argument for fallacies is to focus on the
years. No one has been able to prove definitively that ­concepts of
ghosts do not exist. Therefore, ghosts are real. (a) Ethos (b) Logos
These statements indicate which of the following (c) Pathos (d) All of the above
fallacy? 155. Consider the following statements in the context of
(a) Fallacy of ignorantiam ‘moods and figures’?
(b) Fallacy of Ad hominem 1. The ‘mood’ of a syllogism is determined by the
(c) Begging the question ‘quantity’ and ‘quality’ of the three propositions.
(d) Fallacy of Red herring 2. The ‘figure’ of a categorical syllogism is deter-
147. Murder is morally wrong. Abortion is murder. There- mined by ‘middle term’.
fore, abortion is morally wrong. 3. Figure and mood together determine the struc-
These statements indicate which of the following ture of syllogism.
fallacy? Codes:
(a) Argument ad Populum (a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) Fallacy of slippery slope (b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c) Fallacy of strawman (c) 1 and 3 are correct
(d) petitio principii (d) 1, 2, and 3 are correct

M06_MADAN 07_65901_C06.indd 47 27/12/22 8:18 PM

 6.48 Chapter 6

156. Identify the features of Aristotelian syllogism from 158. “The Daily News carried an article this morning
the following: [2020] about some local teenagers who were arrested on
(A) It is deductive-inductive and formal the charges of drug possession. Teenagers these
material. days are nothing but a bunch of junkies”.
(B) It is only deductive and formal. Which fallacy is committed in the above statement?
(C) The major and minor terms stand apart in the  [2021]
premises. (a) Red Herring
(D) It is verbalistic.
(b) Strawman
(E) Verbal form is not the essence of inference.
(c) Argument against the person (ad hominem)
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(d) Hasty Generalization
below:
(a) (A), (B) and (C) only 159. The inference ‘A mouse is an animal. Therefore, a
(b) (A), (C) and (E) only large mouse is a large animal’ commits which one of
(c) (B), (C) and (D) only the following fallacies? [Dec 2019]
(d) (A), (D) and (E) only (a) Straw man
(b) Slippery slope
157. Name the fallacy committed in the argument below:
 [2021] (c) Equivocation
(d) Fallacy of composition
“All men who understand women are potentially
perfect husbands. 160. ‘Mr X lives in a slum and is unemployed. Therefore,
Mr X deserves to be a minister’.
All potentially perfect husbands are men of infinite
Which kind of fallacy is committed in this argu-
patience.
ment?  [Dec 2019]
Therefore, some men of infinite patience are men (a) Fallacy of composition
who understand women.” (b) Ad misericordiam
(a) Exclusive premises (c) Fallacy of division
(b) Existential fallacy (d) Fallacy of accident
(c) Illicit major
(d) Undistributed middle

Practical Problems
Directions (Questions 161–175): In each of the ques- I. Some men are boys.
tions below, two statements are followed by the two con- II. All boys are fathers.
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

clusions, I and II. Assuming that the given statements 164. Statements
are true, even if they are at variance with the commonly All teachers are girls.
known facts, pick one of the following answers that you No girl is dull.
think is correct. Conclusions
(a) If only conclusion I follows. I. No boy is a teacher.
(b) If only conclusion II follows. II. No teacher is dull.
(c) If both I and II follows.
(d) If neither I nor II follows. 165. Statements
All poets are inspiring.
161. Statements All artists are inspiring.
Some tables are golden. Conclusions
All teaks are tables. I. All artists are poets.
Conclusions II. Some inspiring persons are not artists.
I. Some teaks are golden.
II. Some golden are teak. 166. Statements
No tree is bottle.
162. Statements No bottle is unbreakable.
No man is a tiger. Conclusions
Karan is a man. I. No tree is unbreakable.
Conclusions II. Nothing unbreakable is a tree.
I. Karan is not a tiger. 167. Statements
II. All men are not Karan. All horses are donkeys.
163. Statements All donkeys are monkeys.
All boys are men. Conclusions
All men are fathers. I. All horses are monkeys.
Conclusions II. All monkeys are horses.

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 Logical Reasoning 6.49

168. Statements 176. Statements

No villagers own a car. All magic are women.
Shankar owns a car. All women are crazy.
Conclusions Conclusions
I. Shankar lives in a town. 1. All magic are crazy.
II. Shankar owns a car. 2. All crazy are magic.
169. Statements 3. Some crazy are magic.
Some teachers are women. 4. Some crazy are women.
No teacher is absent. Choices
Conclusions (a) Only I, III, and IV follows.
I. There are no male teachers. (b) Only II and III follows.
II. All women teachers are present. (c) All conclusions follow
170. Statements (d) None of the conclusions follow.
Some benches are chairs. 177. Statements
Hammer is a bench. All cats are mammals.
Conclusions No tigers are cats.
I. Some chairs are benches. Conclusions
II. Hammer is not a chair. (a) No tiger is a mammal.
171. Statements (b) No mammals are tigers.
All books are stones. (c) Cats are tigers.
All stones are papers. (d) None of the above
Conclusions 178. Statements
I. Some papers are books. Some boxes are round.
II. Some papers are stones. All rounds are spheres.
172. Statements Conclusions
Only graduates are eligible for this post.   I. Some boxes are spheres.
Most rickshaw-pullers are graduates.    II. Some spheres are boxes.
Conclusions III. Some spheres are round.
I. Some rickshaw-pullers are eligible for this post. IV. All spheres are round.
II. All those eligible for this post are graduates. Choices
173. Statements (a) I, II, and III follows.
All grapes are oranges. (b) II, III, and IV follows.
Some apples are not oranges. (c) I, III, and IV follows.

A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
Conclusions (d) I, II, and IV follows.
I. All apples are grapes. 179. Statements
II. Some apples are grapes. All books are clocks.
174. Statements Some clocks are chips.
All students are ambitious. Conclusions
All ambitious persons are hardworking.    I. Some clocks are books.
Conclusions II. No clocks are books.
I. All students are hardworking. III. Some books are chips.
II. All hardly working people are not ambitious. IV. No books are chips.
175. Statements Choices
All gardens are schools. (a) I and III follows.
All schools are colleges. (b) Only I follows.
Conclusions (c) Either I or II follows.
I. All gardens are colleges. (d) Either III or IV and I follows.
II. Some gardens are not colleges. 180. Statements
Directions (Questions 176–192): In each of the ques- Some tables are TVs.
tions below, there are two statements followed by three Some TVs are radios.
to four conclusions numbered as I, II, III, and IV. You Conclusions
have to take the given statements to be true even if they    I. Some tables are radios.
seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and II. Some radios are tables.
then decide which of the given conclusions logically fol- III. All radios are TVs.
low from the given statements. IV. All TVs are tables.

M06_MADAN 07_65901_C06.indd 49 27/12/22 8:18 PM

 6.50
Choices
(a) Only I and III follows.
(b) Only II and IV follows.
(c) All follow
(d) None follows
181. Statements
Some rabbits are bears.
No goats are bears.
Conclusions
  I. Some rabbits are not goats.
  II. All rabbits are goats.
III. Some goats are not rabbits.
  IV. All goats are rabbits.
Choices
(a) Only I follows.
(b) Only III follows.
(c) Either I or II follows.
(d) Either III or IV and I follows.
182. Statements
No systems are desks.
All desks are books.
Conclusions
  I. Some systems are books.
  II. Some systems are not books.
III. Some books are systems.
  IV. Some books are not systems.
Choices
(a) Only II follows.
(b) Only IV follows.
(c) I and IV follows.
(d) Either I or II and IV follows.
183. Statements
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
All branches are flowers.
All flowers are trees.
Conclusions
  I. All branches are trees.
  II. All trees are branches.
III. All flowers are branches.
  IV. Some trees are branches.
Choices
(a) Only I and IV follows.
(b) Only II and III follows.
(c) All follow
(d) None follows
184. Statements
Some bags are pockets.
No pocket is a pouch.
Conclusions
  I. No bag is a pouch.
  II. Some bags are not pouches.
III. Some pockets are bags.
  IV. No pocket is a bag.
Choices
(a) Only I and III follows.
(b) Only II and III follows.
M06_MADAN 07_65901_C06.indd 50
Chapter 6
(c) Only either I or IV follows.
(d) None follows
185. Statements
All politicians are honest.
All honest are fair.
Conclusions
  I. Some honest are politicians.
II. No honest is politician.
III. Some fair are politicians.
  IV. All fair are politicians.
Choices
(a) None follows
(b) Only I follows
(c) Only I and II follows.
(d) Only I and III follows.
186. Statements
All the students passed the examination.
Some students are girls.
Conclusions
  I. Some boys passed the examination.
II. All the girls failed the examination.
III. None of the boys passed the examination.
  IV. None of the girl students failed the examination.
Choices
(a) Only I and II follows.
(b) Only II and III follows.
(c) Only I, II, and III follows.
(d) None of the above
187. Statement
Most of the Indian states existed before
independence.
Conclusions
I. Some Indian states existed before independence.
II. All Indian states did not exist before independence.
Choices
(a) Only I is implied.
(b) Only II is implied.
(c) Both I and II are implied.
(d) Neither I nor II is implied.
188. Proposition
No teacher is on time for the class.
Conclusions
   I. No persons who are on time for their classes are
teachers.
  II. Some teachers are not late for their classes.
III. Most teachers come to their classes on time.
  IV. Few teachers come on time for their classes.
189. Statement
Necessity is the mother of all inventions.
Conclusions
  I. There can be no invention without there being a
mother.
II. Mother is a necessity.
Choices
(a) Only I is implied.
(b) Only II is implied.
27/12/22 8:18 PM
 Logical Reasoning
(c) Both I and II are implied.
(d) Neither I nor II is implied.
190. Statement
Most teachers are hardworking.
Conclusions
  I. Some teachers are hardworking.
II. Some teachers are not hardworking.
Choices
(a) Only I is implied.
(b) Only II is implied.
(c) Both I and II are implied.
(d) Neither I nor II is implied.
191. Statement
No man is infallible.
Conclusions
  I. All men are fallible.
II. No infallible persons are men.
Miscellaneous
193. Which of the following statements are mutually
inconsistent?
1. Mostly poets are not egoistic.
2. Mostly poets are humble.
3. Some poets are egoistic.
4. Some poets are not non-egoistic.
Codes:
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
194. Statement: If all men are mortal, and if Rama is a
man, Rama is also mortal.
(a) The premise is true and the conclusion is true.
(b) The premise is false and the conclusion
is false.
(c) The premise is false and the conclusion is true.
(d) The premise is true and the conclusion is false.
195. If ‘no politician is dishonest’ is false, then the state-
ment ‘some politicians are dishonest’ shall be
(a) True (b) False
(c) May be true (d) None of the above
196. If the statement ‘some men are cruel’ is false, which
of the following statement/s is/are true?
1. All men are cruel.
2. No men are cruel.
3. Some men are not cruel.
Codes:
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only
M06_MADAN 07_65901_C06.indd 51
6.51
Choices
(a) Only inference I is correct.
(b) Only inference II is correct.
(c) Both inferences I and II are correct.
(d) Neither inference I nor inference II is correct.
192. Statements
All aeroplanes are trains.
Some trains are chairs.
Conclusions
  I. Some aeroplanes are chairs.
  II. Some chairs are aeroplanes.
III. Some chairs are trains.
  IV. Some trains are aeroplanes.
Codes:
(a) None follows
(b) Only I and II follow.
(c) Only II and III follow.
(d) Only III and IV follow.
197. Proposition
No teacher is on time for the class.
Conclusions
(a) No persons who are on time for their classes are
teachers.
(b) Some teachers are not late for their classes.
(c) Most teachers come to their classes on time.
(d) Few teachers come on time for their classes.
198. Which of the following statements are mutually
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
contradictory?
1. All flowers are not fragrant.
2. Most flowers are not fragrant.
3. No flowers are fragrant.
4. Most flowers are fragrant.
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
Directions (Questions 199 and 200): In each of the
questions below, two statements are given ­followed by
an inference. Mark (A) if the ­inference is definitely true,
mark (B) if the inference is definitely false, mark (C) if
the inference is probably false or true, and mark (D) if the
inference cannot be drawn.
199. Statements
1. Glass is brittle.
2. This substance is not brittle.
Inference
This substance is not glass.
200. Statements
1. Some intelligent people are happy.
2. Some intelligent people are rich.
Inference
Some people who are rich are happy.
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 6.52 Chapter 6

Indian Logic: Means of Knowledge

201. The ultimate objective of the Nyaya system is (c) Vaisheshika system
(a) To bring an end to human suffering, which (d) Jain system
results from ignorance of reality 210. The Nyaya theory of causation defines a cause as
(b) To make a person happy with all material an unconditional and invariable antecedent of an
wealth effect. Match the following sets of causes:
(c) To make a person happy in all possible manners
(d) All of the above Type of cause Meaning
202. Which of the following gurus wrote A. Inherent I. It helps in the
‘Vaisheshika­sutras’? production of a cause
(a) Kanada (b) Gautama B. Non-inherent II. The substance out
(c) Mahatma Buddh (d) Vatsayana cause of which an effect is
203. ‘Inference is considered to be a mere leap into produced
the dark’. C. Efficient cause III. The power that helps
Which of the following schools considers the above the material cause
statement? produce the effect
(a) Nyaya School (b) Mimamsa School
Codes:
(c) Charvaka School (d) None of the above (a) A-I, B-II, C-III (b) A-II, B-I, C-III
204. With which of the following did the Vedanta (c) A-II, B-III, C-I (d) A-III, B-I, C-II
schools have a special affiliation? 211. Nyaˉya epistemologists speak of cognition. Which
(a) The authority of shruti–that which is heard of the following are the components of such
(b) The Mimamsa–the questions after interpreting cognition?
the sacred texts 1. Jña
ˉna
(c) Both a and b 2. Buddhi
(d) None of the above 3. Upalabdhi
205. Mahatma Buddha teaches his Four Noble Truths. 4. Pratyaya
Which of the following statements does not apply? Codes:
(a) Dukkha–dissatisfaction with existence in the (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
phenomenal world (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) All of the above
(b) The origination of dukkha in craving or desire
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

(c) The cessation of dukkha 212. Which of the following statements are true in the
(d) The way leading to that cessation by following context of Vyapti?
Four fold Path 1. Vyapti is a relation between Hetu and Sadhya.
206. Which of the following is considered to be the most 2. Vyapti means co-presence, co-absence,
sophisticated natural theologies? co-presenceabsence of Hetu and Sadhya
(a) Nyaya (b) Buddhism 3. Vyapti (the invariable association of middle and
(c) Jainism (d) None of the above major terms) serves as the basis of Nyaya syllogism
Codes:
207. Upamana is basically
(a) Anumana (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(b) Testimony (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Comparison 213. Which of the following terms is used for the word
(d) Object of knowledge ‘probandum’?
208. Match the following three terms of Indian Logic (a) Sadhya (b) Vyapati
with Aristotelian logic. (c) Hetu (d) Anumana
Indian Logic Aristotelian Logic 214. Which of the following statements are true in the
A. Paksa I. Middle Term context of ‘anumana’?
B. Sadhya II. Major Term 1. According to Nyaya, it is the indirect source of
C. Linga III. Minor Term valid knowledge.
Codes: 2. Anumana should have three terms—hetu, sad-
(a) A-I, B-II, C-III (b) A-II, B-I, C-III hya, and paka
(c) A-III, B-II, C-I (d) A-I, B-III, C-II 3. Anumana has five propositions
209. In its metaphysics, Nyaya is allied to the Codes:
(a) Patanjali system (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(b) Buddha System (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

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 Logical Reasoning 6.53

215. Look at the following statement: 222. Nyaˉya syllogism employs a formal five-step argu-
‘One can infer the existence of fire after perceiving ment. Kindly match the items in List I with those
the smoke that has an uninterrupted connection in List II.
with the surface of the mountain’. List I List II
Which of the following characteristics of ‘anumana’
or inference emerge from the above statement? A. There is fire on the hill I. Pratijña
ˉ
1. It is indirect (paroksa). B. Because there is smoke on II. Hetu
2. It takes place through the medium of some mark the hill
which is called the ‘Hetu’. C. Wherever there is smoke, III. Uda
ˉharaa
ˉa
3. It is invariably connected with the ‘major term’ there is fire, like a kitchen
(Sadhya) hearth and unlike a lake
4. It is that cognition which presupposes some other D. This hill is likewise smoky IV. Upanaya
cognition
5. Anumana is a secondary proof E. Thus, there is fire on the hill V. Nigamana
Codes: Codes:
(a) 1, 2, 3, and 4 (b) 2, 3, and 4 (a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-V, E-IV
(c) 1, 2, 3, and 5 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 (b) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV, E-V
(c) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV, E-V
216. Which of the following should be considered as the
(d) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV, E-V
essential characteristic/s of ‘anumana’ (inference)?
1. Fire is inferred on the hill, where smoke is per- 223. Perception of a universal through an individual which
ceived in it, is called as Paksa̧ dharmata. instantiates, it is Nya
ˉya’s response to the problem of
2. When universal relation between fire and smoke (a) Induction
is known, it is called Vya ˉpti. (b) Deduction
(c) Both induction and deduction
3. Anumiti arises without the coexistence of the
(d) None of the above
Hetu and Sadhya.
Codes: 224. A reason appears to be real or appropriate but in fact
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 is not. With which of the following terms, the fallacy
is known as hetvabhasa?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) All of the above
(a) Minor Term (b) Middle Term
217. Which of the following is termed as the statement of (c) Major Term (d) All of the above terms
reason? 225. Which of the following should be considered as the

#ntaugc-netimportantquestions
(a) Hetu (b) Pratijana two fundamental requirements for inference?
(c) Upanaya (d) Nigamana 1. Awareness of pakşadharmata ˉ—the inferential
mark’s qualifying the locus of the inference
218. Which of the following statements does not apply in
2. Vyaˉpti—the sign’s invariable concomitance with
context of Anumana?
the target property or probandum
(a) Anumana is knowing something not by means 3. Hetva-bhasha
of contact between the senses and the objects of Codes:
the world (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(b) Anumana is not by observation (c) 1 and 3 (d) None of the above
(c) Anumana is not through the medium of a sign
226. A perception where we do not have the knowledge
(d) Anumana is inference for oneself or inference of an object characterized by any predicate but an
for others. apprehension of some unrelated elements is called
219. What is the number of propositions in Nyaya ­Theory as? [Jun 2019]
of perceptions? (a) Determinate
(a) three (b) four (b) Indeterminate perception
(c) five (d) six (c) Verbal testimony
(d) Implication
220. The oldest extant Nya ˉya text is the Nya
ˉya-su
ˉtra that
is attributed to great guru 227. Which of the following should be considered as the
(a) Patanjali (b) Gautama ­categories of metaphysical study?
(c) Vaˉtsyaˉyana (d) Udayana 1. Substance 2. Quality
3. Action 4. Universal
221. Tarka is basically
5. Individuator 6. Inherence
(a) Inference
7. Absence
(b) Conclusion
(a) 1, 2, 3, 5, and 7 (b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6
(c) Hypothetical argument
(c) 3, 4, 5, 6, and 7 (d) All of the above
(d) Grounds of defeat

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 6.54 Chapter 6

228. Consider the following statements: 235. Anekantavada denotes the central theme of
1. A water buffalo looks something like a cow and (a) Buddhism (b) Jainism
such buffaloes are present at a certain place in (c) Islam (d) Hinduism
the countryside. 236. Consider the following statements.
2. When out in the countryside, he recognizes that 1. Knowledge is the state of soul itself.
the thing he is seeing is similar to a cow, and 2. 
The knowledge is of two types—the mediate
therefore is a water buffalo. (paroksa, acquired through sense organs) and the
These two statements endorse the concept of immediate (aparoksa, acquired without the inter-
(a) Anumana (b) Upamana vention of the sense organs).
(c) Sabada (d) Pratimana 3. 
Immediate knowledge is divided into Avadhi,
229. Which of the following statements are true in the Manahparyaya, and Kevala; and mediate knowl-
­context of Sabda edge into Mati and Shruta.
Which of the religious practice is being described
1. Sabda is thought of as a transmission of informa-
through the above statements?
tion or content.
(a) Hinduism
2. A person attains an accurate cognition through (b) Jainism
some prama ˉna token. (c) Buddhism
3. Sabda has the widest range of any source of (c) All of the above
knowledge, far outstripping what one may know
from personal perception, inference or analogy. 237. Which of the following concepts of Indian logic sys-
tem denotes circumstantial implication?
Codes:
(a) Upama–na (b) Artha–patti
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) Anupalabdi (d) Pratyaks.a
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of the above
238. According to some school/s, the proper means of
230. Match the qualities of the universals in List-I with knowledge must rely on these three pramanas:
their examples in List-II (a) Pratyaks.a — perception
List-I List-II (b) Anuma–na — inference
A. Substances I. Redness (c) Śabda — testimony or words of reliable experts
B. Motions II. Pot-hood The answer choices are
C. Qualities III. Contraction-hood (a) Sankhya
Codes: (b) Yoga
(a) A-I, B-II, C-III (b) A-II, B-III, C-I (c) Two sub-schools of Vedanta
#ntaugc-netimportantquestions

(c) A-III, B-II, C-I (d) A-II, B-I, C-III (d) All of the above
231. According to Kumarila Bhatta, anupalabdhi (say 239. The term ‘yogaja’ (intuitive) pertains to which of the
non-apprehension) as the sixth independent source following prama–n.as?
of knowledge consists in the presentative knowledge (a) Perception
of (b) Inference
(a) Negative facts (b) Positive facts (c) Verbal testimony
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) or (b) (d) Comparison
232. Which of the following statements are true in con- 240. Which of the following schools accept only percep-
text of Arthapatti (Presumption)? tion as prama–n.a?
(a) It is an independent source of knowledge.
(b) It is admitted as a distinct pramana which can- (a) Charvaka school
not be brought under anumana or sabda. (b) Buddhhist school
(c) Both a and b (c) Jainism school
(d) Neither a nor b (d) Nyaya school
233. What is the total number of hetvabhasa or fallacies 241. Which of the following schools accept perception
of inference? and inference as prama–n.as?
(a) 4 (b) 5
(a) Buddhists and Vaiśes.ikas schools
(c) 6 (d) 8
(d) Nyaya school
234. ‘Milind Panho’ explaining the Buddhist doctrines in
the form of a dialogue between Milind and his teacher (c) Jainism school
Nagsena (the great Buddhist philosopher) is in: (d) All of the above
(a) Sanskrit 242. Which of the following accept only these two prama–n.
– –
(b) Pali Language as that are pratyaks.a-praman.a and paroks.a-praman.a?
(c) Hindi (a) Buddhists (b) Nyaya school
(d) Santhali (c) Jainism school (d) Vaiśes.ikas school

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 Logical Reasoning 6.55

243. The concept of Prama–n.a in our logic system is
defined as a means of acquiring prama or certain,
correct, and true knowledge.
Which of the following have not been identified as
the correct form of six Prama–n.a?
1. Pratyaks.a – perception
2. Anuma–n.a – inference
3. Upama–n.a – comparison and analogy
4. Artha–patti – implication
5. Anupalabdhi – Apprehension
6. Śabda – nonverbal testimony
Codes:
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2, 3, and 4
(c) 5 and 6
(d) 2, 4, and 6
244. Consider the following statements:
1. Indriyarthasannikarsa—direct experience by
one’s sensory organ(s) with the object
2. Avyapadesya—non-verbal; correct perception is
not through hearsay
3. Avyabhicara—does not wander; correct percep-
tion does not change
4. Vyavasayatmaka—definite; correct perception
excludes judgments of doubt
Which of the following are the correct explanations
for Pratyaks.a that means perception?
(a) 1, 2, and 3 (b) 2, 3, and 4
(c) 1, 3, and 4 (d) All of the above
245. Nyaya mentions four sources or Pramhas of knowl-
edge—Perception (Pratyaksa), inference (Anumha),
comparison (Upamiina), and the Vedic word
248. Which of the following prama–n.as is used by classical
Indian school of logic to prove the existence of God?
(a) Artha–patti (postulation)
(b) Upama–n.a (comparison)
(c) Pratyaksha (perception)
(d) Anuma–n.a (inference)
249. Which one of the following is signified by Uda–harana
of Anuma–n.a (inference) in Indian logic?
(a) Statement of reason
(b) Proposition to be proved
(c) Conclusion proved
(d) Universal proposition along with an instance
250. Devdatta is fat and he does not eat during the day.
Therefore, Devdatta is eating during the night. The
above example in classical Indian school of logic is a
case of:
(a) Comparison (b) Implication
(c) Perception (d) Verbal testimony
251. Naiyayaikas have explained five members of syl-
logism. If we take the example that the hill is fiery
because it has smoke, their constituents could be
illustrated in the following way:
1. Pratijna: The hill is fiery. (S is P)
2. Hetu: Because it smokes. (S is M)
3. Udaharana: Whatever smokes is fiery e.g. as is the
hearth. (M is P)
4. Upanaya: So like the hearth kitchen, the hill is
smoky. (S is M)
5. Nigamana: Therefore, the hill is fiery. (S is P)
Which of the above is incorrect?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2

#ntaugc-netimportantquestions
(Shabda). Nyaya argues that the outside world is (c) Only 3
known to us through (d) All of the above are correct.
(a) The senses 252. When the middle term is both positively and
(b) The mind ­negatively related to the major term, the inference is
(c) Both a and b called [2020]
(d) None of the above (a) Based on uniformity of co-existence
(b) Kevalanavayi
246. The distinction between ‘laukika’ and ‘alaukika’ is
(c) Kevala vyatireki
made with reference to which one of the following
(d) Anavaya vyatireki
prama–n.as?
(a) Anuma–n.a (Inference) 253. From the following identify those which illustrate
(b) Upama–n.a (Comparison) the fallacy of the unproved middle? [2020]
(c) Pratyaksha (Perception) (A) Ashrayasidha (B) Swarupasidha
(d) Śabda (Verbal testimony) (C) Vyapyatvasidha (D) Virudha
247. Identify the distinctive feature of traditional method (E) Badhita
of Indian education from the following list. Choose the correct answer from the options given
(a) ‘Direct perception of truth’—both as means and below:
ends (a) (A), (B) and (C) only
(b) Making everything on trust (b) (B), (C) and (D) only
(c) Evolving own ways of learning (c) (A), (D) and (E) only
(d) Following nyaya philosophy with deductive and (d) (A), (C) and (D) only
inductive process

M06_MADAN 07_65901_C06.indd 55 27/12/22 8:18 PM

 6.56 Chapter 6

Answer Keys

Theory Questions
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (d) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (a)
21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (d) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (a)
31. (a) 32. (b) 33. (d) 34. (d) 35. (c) 36. (a) 37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (d) 40. (a)
41. (b) 42. (a) 43. (d) 44. (b) 45. (a) 46. (d) 47. (a) 48. (a) 49. (a) 50. (b)
51. (c) 52. (d) 53. (c) 54. (a) 55. (a) 56. (c) 57. (d) 58. (b) 59. (a) 60. (b)
61. (a) 62. (b) 63. (d) 64. (c) 65. (c) 66. (d) 67. (b) 68. (a) 69. (a) 70. (c)
71. (a) 72. (b) 73. (d) 74. (b) 75. (a) 76. (a) 77. (a) 78. (c) 79. (a) 80. (c)
81. (b) 82. (b) 83. (c) 84. (a) 85. (b) 86. (c) 87. (d) 88. (a) 89. (b) 90. (b)
91. (c) 92. (b) 93. (b) 94. (d) 95. (b) 96. (b) 97. (c) 98. (d) 99. (b) 100. (d)
101. (c) 102. (c) 103. (c) 104. (d) 105. (a) 106. (a) 107. (d) 108. (a) 109. (d) 110. (b)
111. (c) 112. (b) 113. (c) 114. (c) 115. (b) 116. (a) 117. (d) 118. (d) 119. (a) 120. (b)
121. (a) 122. (a) 123. (b) 124. (c) 125. (d) 126. (c) 127. (c) 128. (c) 129. (b) 130. (c)
131. (d) 132. (b) 133. (b) 134. (c) 135. (b) 136. (b) 137. (d) 138. (a) 139. (a) 140. (c)
141. (a) 142. (a) 143. (c) 144. (a) 145. (c) 146. (a) 147. (b) 148. (a) 149. (b) 150. (b)
151. (c) 152. (c) 153 (c) 154. (a) 155. (d) 156. (c) 157. (b) 158. (d) 159. (c) 160. (b)
Practical Problems
161. (d) 162. (a) 163. (c) 164. (b) 165. (d) 166. (d) 167. (a) 168. (d) 169. (d) 170. (a)
171. (c) 172. (c) 173. (d) 174. (a) 175. (a) 176. (c) 177. (d) 178. (a) 179. (b) 180. (d)
181. (d) 182. (d) 183. (a) 184. (b) 185. (c) 186. (d) 187. (d) 188. (a) 189. (d) 190. (b)
191. (a) 192. (d)
Miscellaneous
193. (c) 194. (a) 195. (a) 196. (d) 197. (a) 198. (d) 199. (a) 200. (d)
Indian Logic: Means of Knowledge
#ntaugc-netimportantquestions

201. (a) 202. (a) 203. (c) 204. (c) 205. (d) 206. (a) 207. (c) 208. (c) 209. (c) 210. (b)
211. (d) 212. (d) 213. (a) 214. (d) 215. (d) 216. (c) 217. (a) 218. (c) 219. (c) 220. (b)
221. (c) 222. (c) 223. (a) 224. (b) 225. (a) 226. (b) 227. (d) 228. (b) 229. (d) 230. (b)
231. (a) 232. (c) 233. (b) 234. (b) 235. (b) 236. (b) 237. (b) 238. (d) 239. (a) 240. (a)
241. (d) 242. (c) 243. (c) 244. (d) 245. (c) 246. (c) 247. (a) 248. (d) 249. (d) 250. (b)
251. (d) 252. (d) 253. (a)

M06_MADAN 07_65901_C06.indd 56 27/12/22 8:18 PM

 Logical Reasoning 6.57

HINTS AND Solutions

Practical Problems 164. (b): Three terms—Teacher, girls, and dull. Next, it is
in proper format. No alignment is required.
161. (d): Step I: First, we check that there are three terms, Now, A + E = E. That is, ‘No Teacher is dull’. Conclusion
tables, and teak. Here, table is the middle term. II follows. Boys is not mentioned as a term. So noth-
Then, we see whether it is in the form: A to B and ing can be said about conclusion I.
B to C. It is not; so alignment is required. For align- Venn diagram solution:
ment, we just need to change the order in this case.
After alignment: Girls
All teak are tables.
Some tables are golden. Teachers Dull
Step II: This is ‘A + I’. (Please refer to ‘syllogism rule
table)’. No conclusion can be drawn.
So, option (d) is the answer.
Venn diagram solution:
165. (d): There are three terms—poets, inspiring, and
Table Table artists.
Golden Or Teak
Golden All poets (A) are inspiring (B).
Teak All artists (C) are inspiring (B).
A to B.
Conclusion I: Some teak may or may not be golden. C to B.
There is ambiguity. Conclusion I does not follow. So alignment is required as it should be in the form
Conclusion II: Similarly, some golden may or may A to B and B to C.
not be teak. After converting second statement.
As there is ambiguity in both cases, none follows. All poets are inspiring (A type).
Thus, option (d) is the answer. Some inspiring persons are artists (I type). It contra-
162. (a): First check the number of terms. It is three. Now dicts second conclusion also.
look at alignment. A + I = No conclusion.
Now, the common term ‘man’ is not in the form A to So, option (d) is the answer.
B and B to C. So alignment is required. Venn diagram solution:
Align this pair as ‘Karan is a man’ and ‘No man is a
Tiger’. Inspiring

#ntaugc-netimportantquestions
Here, it is important to mention that statement
‘Karan is a Tiger’ is considered as A type. Artists
Poets
Now, A + E = E. So conclusion I, ‘Karan is not a Tiger’
follows.
Alternative solution:
Venn diagram solution: 166. (d): E + E = No conclusion. So, option (d) is the
answer.
Man 167. (a): A + A = A, only statement I follows, so option (a)
Tiger is the answer.
Karan
168. (d): Town is not mentioned in the statements. So
conclusion I cannot follow. The premise and con-
163. (c): There are three terms. No alignment is required
clusion cannot be the same. So, option (d) is the
as it is in the standard format.
answer.
A + A = A. The conclusion is ‘all boys are fathers’.
Conclusion II follows. 169. (d): If we look at conclusions directly, the term ‘male
By applying immediate reference to (converting) teacher’ in the first conclusion and ‘women teachers’
statement I, we can say that some men are boys. and ‘present’ in the second conclusion are not men-
Conclusion I also follows. Both I and II follows. tioned in the statements.
Venn diagram solution: So, option (d) is the answer. Here, it is important to
mention the syllogism propositions—the opposite of
Father ‘absent’ is not ‘present’.
Men 170. (a): The aligned pair is ‘Hammer is a bench’ and
‘Some benches are chairs’. There is no definite con-
Boys clusion for A + I-type pair. But conversion of state-
ment I implies conclusion I.
171. (c): The condition of three terms is satisfied. No
alignment is required.

M06_MADAN 07_65901_C06.indd 57 27/12/22 8:18 PM

 6.58
A + A = A, conclusion is ‘All books are papers’. The
immediate inference of the conclusion is ‘Some
papers are books’. So conclusion I follows.
The immediate inference of second statement is
‘some papers are stones’; that is also conclusion II.
So, option (c) is the answer.
Venn diagram solution:
Papers
Stones
Book
172. (c): This is a comprehensive question, covering all
major aspects of syllogism. Please look at the solu-
tion carefully.
We need to bring the statements to their logical form
before checking them for alignment.
All those eligible for the post are graduates.
Some rickshaw-pullers are graduates.
There are three terms—eligible, graduates, and
rickshaw-pullers. ‘Graduates’ is the common term.
The statements are not in the form: A to B and A to B.
According to IEA, second statement should be given
priority for conversion:
‘Some graduates are rickshaw-pullers’.
Now the statements are to be brought to A to B and
B to C form.
‘All those eligible for the post are graduates’ (A-type)
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
‘Some graduates are rickshaw-pullers’ (I-type)
A + I = No conclusion.
173. (d): There are three terms—grapes, oranges, and
apples.
A + O = No conclusion.
We do not get any conclusion through immediate
inference (conversion) also. So, option (d) is the
answer.
174. (a): A + A = A, so conclusion I follows.
In conclusion II, the term ‘hardly working’ is not
mentioned in the statements. So it does not need
any consideration.
175. (a): Since, both the premises are affirmative, the
conclusion must be affirmative, conclusion II cannot
follow.
176. (c): Only three terms (magic, women, and crazy).
No alignment is required as they are in the standard
format.
Now A + A = A.‑
Conclusion: All magic is crazy. So statement I is
­correct. Its immediate inference is ‘Some crazy are
magic’. It means the third statement is true.
The converse of second statement ‘All women are
crazy’ is ‘Some crazy are women’. So fourth conclu-
sion is also true. Thus, option (c) is the answer.
M06_MADAN 07_65901_C06.indd 58
Chapter 6
177. (d): There are three terms. After alignment,
Some mammals are cats.
No cats are tigers.
178. (a): I + A = I. The conclusion is some boxes are
spheres which is I. This can be converted to some
spheres are boxes, which is II. Conclusion III follows
after converting all rounds are spheres. So, option
(a) is the answer.
Venn diagram solution:
Boxes
Round Sphere
179. (b): They are in desired format: A to B and B to C.
All books are clocks (A-type)
Some clocks are chips (I-type)
A + I = No conclusion.
Now, we can check first statement after immediate
inference—Some clocks are books.
Second statement after immediate inference—Some
chips are clocks.
So only conclusion I follows. Thus, option (b) is the
answer.
180. (d): Since both the premises are of ‘particular’ type,
no definite conclusion follows.
181. (d): It has three terms.
After alignment—‘no goats are bears’ and ‘some
bears are rabbits’.
E + I = O. So the conclusion is Some rabbits are not
goats. Hence, I follows. III and IV also make a com-
plementary pair.
182. (d): E + A = O*. Hence, the conclusion is ‘Some books
are not systems’. Again, I and II are complementary
pair.
183. (a): A + A = A, ‘All branches are trees’. Conclusion
I follows. The immediate inference of ‘All branches
are trees’ is ‘Some trees are branches’, that is conclu-
sion IV. So, option (a)’ is valid.
184. (b): Students can try to solve this question with help
of venn diagram.
185. (c): Students can try to solve this question with help
of venn diagram.
186. (d): The opposites of ‘passed’ and ‘girls’ are not
‘failed’ and ‘boys’. Failed and boys are not mentioned
in the statements. So, no conclusion is valid.
187. (d): The logical form of ‘Most of Indian states
existed before independence’ is ‘Some Indian states
existed before independence’. It is same as conclu-
sion I. Statement and conclusion cannot be the
same. Conclusion II is also not implied. So, (d) is
the answer.
188. (a): After converting statement I, we can say that ‘a’
is true. ‘On time’ does not mean ‘not late’ in case of
propositions. Thus, options (c) and (d) are also not
converse of (a).
27/12/22 8:18 PM
 Logical Reasoning
189. (d): The contextual meaning and logical meaning
are different for both the terms. So, option (d) is the
answer.
190. (b): ‘Most teachers are hardworking’ is ‘Some teachers
are hardworking’ in its logical form. Both statement
and conclusion cannot be the same. So conclusion I
is not implied. However, conclusion II ‘Some teachers
are not hardworking’ is complimentary of I, so only II
is implied. Thus, option (b) is the answer.
191. (a): The immediate inference for ‘No man is infal-
lible’ is ‘No infallible (persons) are men’. So con-
clusion II is right. In logical form, the opposite of
infallible may not be fallible. So inference may not
apply. So, option (a) is the answer.
192. (d): Since the middle term ‘trains’ is not distributed
even once in the premises, no definite conclusion
follows. However, III is the converse of the second
premise, while IV is the converse of the first premise.
So, both of them hold.
Miscellaneous
193. (c): The logical form of statement I is ‘some poets are
not egoistic’.
The opposite of egoistic is not ‘humble’ or ‘not
egoistic’.
So I and III are mutually inconsistent.
194. (a)
M06_MADAN 07_65901_C06.indd 59
6.59
195. (a): Please refer to ‘square of opposition’. If a state-
ment is false, its contradictory is taken to be true.
The contradictory of ‘No politician is dishonest’
(E-type) is ‘Some politicians are dishonest’ (I-type).
So it is true.
196. (d)
197. (a): As there is a single proposition, we can apply
immediate inference to draw conclusion. This is an
E-type proposition with ‘teacher’ as subject and ‘(per-
sons) on time for the class’ as the predicate, which
can conclude only E-type. After conversion, ‘per-
sons who are on time’ becomes subject, and teacher
becomes predicate. So, option (a) is the answer.
198. (d): According to squares of opposition: The logical
form of ‘None of the flowers is fragrant’ is ‘No flower
is fragrant’ (i.e., E-type). It can be converted only to
I-type, that is, statement IV (the logical form of ‘Most
flowers are fragrant’ is ‘Some flowers are fragrant’).
199. (a)
200. (d): There are three terms. Both statements are
I-type, even after conversion for alignment purpose,
they will be of I type as shown below.
‘Some intelligent people are happy’, we get
Some who are happy are intelligent (I-type)—first
statement.
Some intelligent people are rich (I-type)—second
statement.
I + I = No inference. So, option (d) is the answer.
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
27/12/22 8:18 PM
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M06_MADAN 07_65901_C06.indd 60 27/12/22 8:18 PM

 CHapteR

7 Data Interpretation

01 Sources, Acquisition and Classification of Data

02 Quantitative and Qualitative Data

leaRnInG
03 Graphical Representation
oBJeCtIveS (Bar chart, Histograms,
Pie chart, Table chart and
Line chart)

04 Mapping of Data

05 Data Interpretation

06 Data and Governance

M07_MADAN 04_65901_C07.indd 1 21/12/22 11:26 AM

 7.2
Data Interpretation
Data interpretation is one of the easiest chapters of NET
Paper 1. It is basically about drawing conclusions and
inferences from comprehensive data presented numeri-
cally in a tabular or graphical form by means of an illus-
tration, such as graphs, pie charts and so on. Therefore,
the act of organizing and interpreting data to get mean-
ingful information is known as data interpretation. The
important aspects of data sources, their acquisition and
interpretation have been covered in Unit II on research
aptitude. In this unit, the main focus is on solving practi-
cal problems as per questions asked in the NET pattern.
Data interpretation needs some mathematical and sta-
tistical skills. It needs good knowledge of the ­concepts of
percentage, ratio, proportion, average, etc. The other main
input required is to practice a few problems.
Familiarity with graphical representation of data, such
as Venn diagrams, graphs, pie charts, histogram and poly-
gon, is helpful. Once the data is grasped well, questions
based on tables and graphs take little time.
Sometimes, data is presented in more than one table
or graph. The aim is to test not only the quantitative skills
but also relative, comparative and analytical abilities.
While the terms ‘data’ and ‘statistics’ are often used
interchangeably, in scholarly research there is an impor-
tant distinction between the two.
Data refers to individual pieces of factual information
recorded and used for the purpose of analysis. It is the raw
information from which statistics are created. Statistics
are the results of data analysis through its interpretation
and presentation.
Data is usually collected for research purposes, and
it is closely related with sampling as well. Data sources,
acquisition and classification have been taken care of in
the second unit of research. Acquisition basically means
collecting data and how it is collected with the help of
interviews, questionnaire and so on. Primary and sec-
ondary sources, quantitative and qualitative data have
also been explained there.
Graphical Representation
Basically, it is a graphic representation of data. It is one of
the important ways of analysing numerical data. A graph
is a kind of chart through which statistical data is repre-
sented in the form of lines or curves drawn across coor-
dinated points that are plotted on its surface. Graphs are
also easy to understand and are eye catching.
They help us to study the cause and effect relationship
between two variables, to measure the extent of change in
one variable when another variable changes by a certain
amount.
They enable us to study both the time series and the
frequency distribution. They give clear account and pre-
cise picture of a problem.
M07_MADAN 04_65901_C07.indd 2
Chapter 7
General Principles of Graphic
Representation
Some basic algebraic principles apply to all types of
graphic representation of data:
1. There are two lines called coordinate axes, where the
vertical one is known as Y-axis and the ­horizontal one
is called X-axis (Fig. 7.1).
2. These two lines are perpendicular to each other.
Where these two lines intersect each other is called
point ‘O’ or origin.
3. On the X-axis, the distances right of the origin have
positive values and the distances left of the origin
have negative values. On the Y-axis, distances above
the origin have positive values and those below the
origin have negative values.
Y
(X –ve, Y +ve) (X +ve, Y +ve)
x x
(X –ve, Y –ve) (X +ve, Y –ve)
–Y
Figure 7.1 X and Y Coordinates
Graphical representation of data may have many for-
mats. According to the NTA-NET syllabus, graphic repre-
sentation of data has been divided into bar chart, histo-
grams, pie chart, table chart and line chart. Here, we are
discussing their brief description and some numerical
problems.
Bar Chart
It is also known as a column graph, a bar graph or a
bar diagram. It is basically a pictorial representation of
data and is shown as rectangles spaced out with equal
spaces between them and having equal width. Here,
the height (or length) of each bar corresponds to the
frequency of a particular observation. We can draw bar
graphs both vertically and horizontally depending on
whether we take the frequency along the vertical or
horizontal axes, respectively. We can take the following
example.
Bar charts are one of the easiest, graphically attractive
and, hence, most commonly used methods of presenting
all types of data. Given quantities can be compared by
the height or length of a bar graph. A bar graph can have
21/12/22 11:26 AM
 Data Interpretation 7.3

either vertical or horizontal bars. The width of the bars is 07 00.09

largely inessential and is used only for clarity of presen-
00.08
tation. We can compare different quantities or the same 06
quantity at different times. 00.07
In bar graphs, the data is discrete. Presentation 05 0–5
00.06
of data in this form makes comparative evaluation 5–10
easier. 04 00.05

03 00.04 10–15
Sports Number of Participants 00.03
02 15–20
Cricket 15 00.02
01
Volleyball 25 00.01
00 00
Football 10
00 05 10 15 20
Total 50 Figure 7.3 Histogram

By taking sports along the x-axis and 5 as the common

representation on the y-axis, a bar chart can be repre-
sented as shown in Figure 7.2. f­ requency of the data values. The median and distribu-
tion of the data can be determined by a histogram. In
Participants addition, it can show any outliers or gaps in the data.
X
30
Distributions of a Histogram
25 1. A Normal Distribution: Here, points on one side of
the average are as likely to occur as on the other side
20 of the average (Fig. 7.4).
15

10

0 Y
Cricket Volleyball Football

Figure 7.2 Bar Chart of Above Table

Histograms Figure 7.4 Normal Distribution

As we could see, the bar chart graph depicts discrete
data, while histograms depict continuous data. The con- 2. A Bimodal Distribution: In bimodal distribution, the
tinuous data can take the shape of class intervals. Thus, data should be separated and analysed as separate
a histogram is a graphical representation with class normal distributions (Fig. 7.5).
intervals or attributes as the base and frequency as the
height (Fig. 7.3).
Histograms have bars without any spaces between
them and the rectangles need not be of equal width. It can
be understood with the following example.
Class intervals such as 0–5, 5–10, 10–15 and 15–20 are
continuous data. We may ignore the values on the right
vertical axis. Thus, for the class interval 0–5, the cor- Figure 7.5 Bimodal Distribution
responding frequency is 3. Again, for the class interval
5–10, the frequency is 7 and so on. 3. A Right-skewed Distribution: A right-skewed distri-
bution is also called a positively skewed distribution.
I mportance of Histograms In a right-skewed distribution, a larger number of
Histogram provides a visual representation of data dis- data values occur on the left side and a fewer number
tribution. It displays a large amount of data and the of data values on the right side (Fig. 7.6).

M07_MADAN 04_65901_C07.indd 3 21/12/22 11:26 AM

 7.4 Chapter 7

In case the class intervals are not even in size, the type
of diagram given in Figure 7.9 emerges.

3
2.8
2.1

Frequency
2

1
0.5

0 15 25 40 60 100
Age Groups

Figure 7.9 Class Intervals

Figure 7.6 Right-Skewed Distribution

4. A left-skewed distribution: A left-skewed distribution Comparison of Bar Graphs and Histogram

is also called a negatively skewed distribution. A larger Bar graph
number of data values occur on the right side and a `500
fewer number of data values on the left side (Fig. 7.7).
`400
Gaps

`300

`200

`100

`0
USA India UK NZ Japan
Categories
Source: Tes.com
Figure 7.10 Bar Graph
Figure 7.7 Left-Skewed Distribution
Histogram
5. A random distribution: A random distribution lacks an
apparent pattern and has several peaks. Here, the dif- 50
ferent data properties are combined. Therefore, the data No gaps
should be separated and analysed separately (Fig. 7.8). 40

30

20

10

0
100 150 200 250 300 350
Number
ranges

Figure 7.11 Histogram

Figure 7.8 Random Distribution

M07_MADAN 04_65901_C07.indd 4 21/12/22 11:26 AM

 Data Interpretation 7.5

Solved Examples on Simple Bar Graphs (Questions 1–20)

Directions: Study the bar graph given below and answer 4. The percentage increase in sales from 2011 to 2012
the questions 1–5. It consists of data on the sales of cel- was
lular phones during 2007–12. (a) 115% (b) 128%
48,000
(c) 122% (d) 118%
50,000
Sale of Cellular phones

40,000 40,000 Ans: (c) Increase in sales = 40000 – 18000 = 22000

40,000 Percentage increase in sales
30,000 25,000
30,000 = 22000/18000 × 100
18,000
20,000 = 122%
10,000
Hence, (c) is the correct answer.
0
2007 2008 2009 2010 2011 2012 5. What is the average sales figure of all the years?
Years (a) 32,000 units
(b) 33,500 units
1. The difference in the sale of cellular phones for the (c) 34,500 units
years 2007 and 2009 is
(d) 35,000 units
(a) 500 units 2,01,000
(b) 1000 units Ans: (b) Average = = 33,500 units
6
(c) 5000 units
(d) 18,000 units Directions: Study the bar graph given below and answer
Ans: (d) The difference = 48,000 – 30,000 questions 6–10. It consists of data on the number of
= 18,000 units students passed (in thousands) from two universities
between the years 2003 and 2008.
2. The two years between which the rate of change of
­cellular phones has been minimum are 70
(a) 2007 and 2008
(b) 2009 and 2010 60
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) 2011 and 2012 50
Ans: (c) Percentage changes over years: 40
8000
2007 and 08 = × 100 = 16.66% 30
48,000
10,000 20
2008 and 09 = × 100 = 25%
40,000 10
5000
2009 and 10 = × 100 = 16.66% 0
30,000 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007 2008
7000 University A University B
2010 and 11 = × 100 = 28%
25,000
6. What is the sum of students passing from University B
22,000 in 2003, 2005 and 2006 together?
2011 and 12 = × 100 = 122.22%
18,000 (a) 75,000 (b) 80,000
3. The sum of sales of cellular phones in the years 2009 (c) 88,000 (d) 90,000
and 2011 is equal to that in Ans: (b) Required number of students = (30 + 10 +
(a) 2007 40) thousands = 80,000
(b) 2008 7. What is the ratio of the number of students passed
(c) 2010 from University A in year 2007 and ­the number of stu-
(d) 2012 dents passed from University B in year 2004?
(a) 7 : 10 (b) 10 : 7
Ans: (a) Combined sales of 2009 and 2011 = 30,000
+ 18,000 = 48,000 (c) 4 : 5 (d) 5 : 4
It tallies with the sales figure of 2007. Ans: (b) Required ratio = 50 : 35 = 10 : 7

M07_MADAN 04_65901_C07.indd 5 21/12/22 11:26 AM

 7.6 Chapter 7

8. The number of students from University B in the year ⎡ (35 − 25) ⎤

2008 is approximately what percentage of the total For 2017 = ⎢ × 100⎥ % = 40%
number of students passed from University A over the ⎣ 25 ⎦
years?
(a) 20 (b) 22 ⎡ (35 − 35) ⎤
For 2018 = ⎢ × 100⎥ % = 0%
(c) 28 (d) 30 ⎣ 35 ⎦
Ans: (b) Required percentage = 50/225 × 100 ⎡ (40 − 35) ⎤
= 22.22% ~ 22% approximately For 2019 = ⎢ × 100⎥ % = 14.29%
⎣ 35 ⎦
9. What is the ratio between the number of students
passed in the years 2007, 2008 and 2005 from Uni- ⎡ (50 − 40) ⎤
For 2020 = ⎢ × 100⎥ % = 25%
versity A?
⎣ 40 ⎦
(a) 3 : 5 : 5 (b) 5 : 3 : 3
(c) 5 : 3 : 2 (d) 5 : 2 : 2 Hence, the maximum percentage rise/fall in the
Ans: (b) Required ratio = 50 : 30 : 30 = 5 : 3 : 3 production of Company Y is for 2017.
10. What is the difference between the total number of 12. What is the ratio of the average production of Com-
students passed from both the universities together in pany X over the period 2018–20 to the average pro-
2007 and the total number of students passed from duction of Company Y over the same period?
both the universities together in 2005? (a) 1:1 (b) 15:17
(a) 70,000 (b) 80,000 (c) 23:25 (d) 27:29
(c) 85,000 (d) 90,000 Ans: (c) Average production of Company X over the
Ans: (a) Total number of students passed in 2007 period 2018–20
= 110 (in thousands)
Total number of students passed in 2005 = 40 ⎡1 ⎤ ⎛ 115 ⎞
= ⎢ × (25 + 50 + 40)⎥ = ⎜ ⎟ lakh tons
(in thousands) ⎣ 3 ⎦ ⎝ 3 ⎠
Required difference = 110 – 40 = 70 (in Average production of Company Y over the
thousands) period 2018–20
Directions: The bar graph given below shows the data of
the production of paper (in lakh tons) by three different ⎡1 ⎤ ⎛ 125 ⎞
= ⎢ × (35 + 40 + 50)⎥ = ⎜ ⎟ lakh tons
companies X, Y and Z over the years. ⎣3 ⎦ ⎝ 3 ⎠

Production of paper (in lakh tons) by three Companies ⎛ 115 ⎞

X, Y and Z over the years ⎜⎝ 3 ⎟⎠ 115 23
60 Thus, required ratio = = =
⎛ 125 ⎞ 125 25
⎜⎝ 3 ⎟⎠
50
Quantity (lakh tons)

40 13. The average production for 5 years was maximum for

which company?
30 (a) X (b) Y
(c) Z (d) Both X and Z
20
Ans: (d) Average production (in lakh tons) in 5 years
10 for the three companies is:
For Company X
0
2016 2017 2018 2019 2020 ⎡1 ⎤ 190
= ⎢ × (30 + 45 + 25 + 50 + 40)⎥ = = 38
Years ⎣ 5 ⎦ 5
X Y Z
For Company Y
11. For which of the following years, the percentage rise/ ⎡1 ⎤ 185
fall in production from the previous year is the maxi- = ⎢ × (25 + 35 + 35 + 40 + 50)⎥ = = 37
⎣5 ⎦ 5
mum for Company Y?
(a) 2017 (b) 2018 For Company Z
(c) 2019 (d) 2020
⎡1 ⎤ 190
= ⎢ × (35 + 40 + 45 + 35 + 35)⎥ = = 38
Ans: (a) Percentage change (rise/fall) in the produc- ⎣ 5 ⎦ 5
tion of Company Y in comparison to the previ-
ous year for different years is: Thus, average production of five 5 is maximum
for both the Companies X and Z.

M07_MADAN 04_65901_C07.indd 6 21/12/22 11:26 AM

 Data Interpretation 7.7

14. In which year was the percentage of production 16. How many companies have shown production below
of ­Company Z to the production of Company Y the their average production in 2012–2013, but have
maximum? showed above the average production in 2013–14?
(a) 2016 (b) 2017 (a) One (b) Two
(c) 2018 (d) 2019 (c) Three (d) Four
Ans: (a) The percentages of production of Company Ans: (c) Average sales of company:
Z to the production of Company Z for various (6 + 14 + 21)
years are: Honda = = 13.66
3
⎛ 35 ⎞ (12 + 18 + 18)
For 2016 = ⎜ × 100⎟ % = 140% GM = = 16
⎝ 25 ⎠ 3
⎛ 40 ⎞ (5 + 9 + 15)
Maruti = = 9.66
For 2017 = ⎜ × 100⎟ % = 114.29% 3
⎝ 35 ⎠
(16 + 9 + 12)
Hindustan Motors = = 12.33
⎛ 45 ⎞ 3
For 2018 = ⎜ × 100⎟ % = 128.57%
⎝ 35 ⎠ (8 + 14 + 7)
Hyundai = = 9.66
3
⎛ 35 ⎞
For 2019 = ⎜ × 100⎟ % = 87.5% 17. The ratio of Hindustan Motors production in 2013–
⎝ 40 ⎠ 2014 to Honda’s production in 2012–2013 is
(a) 0.66 (b) 1.5
⎛ 35 ⎞ (c) 2 (d) None of these
For 2020 = ⎜ × 100⎟ % = 70%
⎝ 50 ⎠ Ans: (b) The required ratio is (9/6) = 1.5.
Clearly, this percentage is highest for 2016. 18. For how many companies has there been no decrease
in production in any year from the previous year?
15. What is the percentage increase in the production of
(a) One (b) Two
Company Y from 2016 to 2019?
(c) Three (d) Four
(a) 30% (b) 45% Ans: (c) By visual inspection, we can say that Honda,
(c) 50% (d) 60% GM and Maruti have not shown a decrease.
Ans: (d) Percentage increase in the production of 19. Which of the following companies has shown consist-
Company Y from 2016 to 2019 ent growth during the period ?
⎡ (40 − 25) ⎤ (a) Maruti (b) Honda
= ⎢ × 100⎥ % (c) Hindustan Motors (d) Both (a) and (c)
⎣ 25 ⎦ Ans: (d) By simple observation, we can say that (d) is
⎡ 15 ⎤ the right answer.
= ⎢ × 100⎥ %
⎣ 25 ⎦ 20. Which of the following companies have shown high-
est and lowest growth rates?
= 60% (a) Honda and Hyundai (b) Honda and Maruti
Directions: The following chart shows the production of (c) GM and Hyundai (d) GM and Honda
cars in thousands. Ans: (b) By simple observation, we can say that (b) is
the right answer.
Production of cars for 2012–2015 period from the
selected manufacturers Circle G raphs (or P ie Charts)
25
Circle graphs are used to show how various sectors are in the
whole. They are popularly called pie charts. Circle graphs
20
usually give the percentage that each sector receives.
In such representation, the total quantity in question
15 is distributed over a total angle of 360°. While using pie
chart to find the ratios of various sectors, there is no need
10 to find the amounts each sector received and then the
ratio of the amounts. Find the ratio of the percentages,
5 which is much easier.
If some percentage figure is to be converted into degrees
of angles extended at the centre, then multiply it by 3.6. For
0
Honda GM Maruti Hindustan Hyundai example, if some category is 20%, in degrees equivalent, it
Motors is 72°, that is, (20 × 3.6). Conversely, if degree data is to be
2012–2013 2013–2014 2014–2015 converted into per cent figure, then divide it by 3.6.

M07_MADAN 04_65901_C07.indd 7 21/12/22 11:26 AM

 7.8
Solved Examples on Pie Charts (Questions 21–30)
Directions: Study the pie chart given below and answer
Questions 21–25. It gives the breakup of expenses of an
educational institute.
Publicity
4%
Staff
Maintenance
salaries
20%
38%
Transportation
10%
Sports
8%
Cultural Miscellaneous
events 15%
5%
21. If total expenditure during a year is `65 lakhs, then
what are the expenses on cultural events (in lakhs)?
(a) 1.67 (b) 2.65
(c) 3.25 (d) 4.25
Ans: (c) 5% of `65 lakhs = `3.25 lakhs
22. What is the approximate angle extended by staff sala-
ries at the centre (in degrees)?
(a) 132 (b) 137
(c) 142 (d) 145
Ans: (b) Angle extended by staff salaries at the cen-
tre = 38 × 3.6 = 137°
23. The total of which of the following heads is equal to
­salary expenses?
(a) Miscellaneous, transportation and cultural events
(b) Maintenance, transportation and sports
(c) Maintenance, publicity and miscellaneous
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b) Maintenance + transportation + sports =
38%
24. If the teachers’ salaries are increased by 20%, then
what will be the new angle extended at the centre (in
degrees)?
(a) 45.6 (b) 43.6
(c) 56 (d) Cannot be determined
Ans: (d) No separate data is given for teachers’ sal-
ary. Hence, it cannot be determined. So, new
angle extended may not be determined.
25. What is the angle extended at the centre by a combi-
nation of miscellaneous and cultural events expenses
at the centre (in degrees)?
(a) 65 (b) 72
(c) 78 (d) 84
M07_MADAN 04_65901_C07.indd 8
Chapter 7
(b) Total of miscellaneous and cultural per-
Ans: 
centages = 15 + 5 = 20%. Hence, angle extended
by them at the centre = 20/100 × 360 = 72°.
Directions: Study the pie chart given below and answer
Questions 26–30. It gives the breakup of expenses
incurred in publishing a book.
Expenditure Incurred in Publishing a Book
Binding Royalty
20% 15%
Promotion cost
Transportation 10%
cost 10%
Printing cost
20%
Paper cost
25%
26. If the publisher has to pay `61,200 as the printing cost
for production of a certain quantity of books, then
what will be the amount of royalty to be paid for these
books?
(a) `22,950 (b) `45,000
(c) `45,900 (d) `48,900
Ans: (c) The ratio between printing cost and royalty
= 20 : 15 or 4 : 3.
Let royalty be denoted by R.
Then 4 : 3 = 61,200 : R
R × 4 = 61,200 × 3
R = (61,200 × 3)/4 = `45,900
27. If the cost price of the book is `150, then what is the
combined printing and binding cost for a single copy
of the book?
(a) `60 (b) `75
(c) `80 (d) `72
Ans: (a) Total printing and binding cost = 20 + 20
= 40%
Printing and binding cost = 40% of cost price
= 40% of 150 = `60
28. What is the central angle of the sector corresponding
to the expenditure incurred on royalty?
(a) 48° (b) 54°
(c) 60° (d) 72°
(b) Central angle corresponding to royalty
Ans: 
= (15% of 360)° = 15/100 × 360 = 54°
21/12/22 11:26 AM
 Data Interpretation 7.9

29. What is the difference between promotion and Purpose

­printing cost if we assume that total cost is `200?
(a) `10 (b) `20
(c) `30 (d) `24
Ans: (b) Difference in percentage terms = 20 – 10
= 10%
Then, 10% of `200 = `20
30. If 1000 copies are published and the transportation
cost on them amounts to `15,000, then what should
be the selling price per book so that the publisher can
earn a profit of 20%?
(a) `150 (b) `160
(c) `180 (d) `200
Ans: (c) To calculate the selling price of a single
book, we need to total the cost. Let us calculate
that first.
Transportation cost per book = 15,000/1000
= `15
As transportation cost is 10% of total cost, thus
`15 = 10% of total cost
Total cost of printing a copy = 15 × 100/10
= `150
Now selling price = total cost + profit
= 150 + 20% of 150 = 150 + 30 = `180
Tables
A table is a systematic arrangement of data into vertical
columns and horizontal rows. The process of arranging
data into rows and columns is called tabulation.
The purpose of tabulation is to present data in such a way
that it becomes more meaningful and can be easily under-
stood by a common person. However, in case of voluminous
data, it may require closer reading than graphs of charts
and hence, it is difficult and time consuming to interpret.
Essential Parts of a T able
A statistical table is divided into the following eight parts:
1. Title of the table: A title is a heading at the top of the
table describing its contents. It mainly reflects upon
the nature of the data, where the data is, what time
period the data covers and how the data is classified.
2. Caption: The headings for various columns and
rows are called column captions and row captions,
respectively.
3. Box head: The portion of the table containing t­ he col-
umn caption is called the box head.
4. Stub: The portion of the table containing row c­ aption
is called stub.
5. Body of the table: The body of the table contains the
statistical data that has to be presented in different
rows and columns.
6. Prefatory notes or head notes: Prefatory notes
appear between the title and the body of the table and
are enclosed in brackets. They may throw some light
on the units of measurements.
7. Footnote: A footnote is always given at the bottom of
the table but above the source note. It is a statement
about something which is not clear from the headings,
title, stubs, captions and so on.
8. Source note: A source note is placed immediately
below the table but after the footnote. It refers to the
source from where information has been taken.

Solved Questions on Tables and Simple Line Graphs (Questions 31–55)

Directions: Study the table given below and answer Questions 31–35. (The table consists of marks obtained by candi-
dates in different subjects. The numbers in the brackets give the maximum marks in each subject.)
Marks Obtained in Different Subjects by Various Candidates
Subjects (Maximum Marks)
Computer
Students Maths Chemistry Physics Geography History
Science
(150) (130) (120) (100) (100) (100)
Ayush 90 50 90 60 70 80
Aman 100 80 80 40 80 70
Sajal 90 60 70 70 90 70
Rohit 80 65 80 80 60 60
Muskan 80 65 85 95 50 90
Tanvi 70 75 65 85 40 60
Tarun 65 35 50 77 80 80

M07_MADAN 04_65901_C07.indd 9 21/12/22 11:26 AM

 7.10 Chapter 7

31. What is the average of marks obtained by Aman for all Ans: (b) Average marks in Physics =
subjects?
(a) 72 ⎡ 90 + 80 + 70 + 80 + 85 + 65 + 50 ⎤ ⎡ 90 + 80
⎡ 520 ⎤ + 70 + 80 + 85 + 65 + 50 ⎤ = ⎡ 520 ⎤
(b) 75 ⎢ ⎥ =⎢ ⎢ ⎥ ⎥ ⎢ 7 ⎥
⎣ 7 ⎦ ⎣⎣ 7 ⎦ 7 ⎦ ⎣ ⎦
(c) 80
= 74.28 = 74 . 28
(d) 85
Ans: (b): Average marks 34. Who among the following has obtained the highest
aggregate marks?
⎡ 100 + 80 + 80 + 40 + 80 + 70 ⎤ ⎡ 450 ⎤ (a) Ayush (b) Aman
=⎢ ⎥ =⎢ ⎥ = 75 (c) Sajal (d) Muskan
⎣ 6 ⎦ ⎣ 6 ⎦
Ans: (d) Aggregate marks: Ayush, 440; Aman, 450;
32. What is the approximate percentage of marks Sajal, 450; and Muskan, 465
obtained by Ayush? 35. Who among the following has secured the highest
(a) 62.8 ­percentage marks in Physics, Chemistry and Maths?
(b) 72.5 (a) Ayush
(c) 75 (b) Aman
(d) 74 (c) Rohit
(d) Muskan
Ans: (a): Percentage marks
Ans: (b) As the denominator is same for the calcu-
⎡ 90 + 50 + 90 + 60 + 70 + 80 ⎤ lation of percentage of marks in all the cases,
=⎢ × 100⎥ there is no need to calculate the percentage fig-
⎣ 150 + 130 + 120 + 100 + 100 + 100 ⎦
ures. Simply, the aggregate marks of three sub-
⎡ 440 ⎤ jects will provide the answer:
=⎢ × 100⎥ = 62.8%
⎣ 700 ⎦  
Ayush, 230; Aman, 260; Rohit, 225; and
Muskan, 230.
33. What is the average of marks obtained by all candi- Directions: Study the table given below and answer
dates in Physics? Questions 36–40. (The table consists of the number of can-
(a) 62.85 (b) 74.28 didates who appeared and qualified in a competitive exam-
(c) 78.52 (d) None of the above ination from different states from 2007 to 2011.)

Number of Candidates Who Appeared and Qualified in a Competitive Examination

Year
State 2007 2008 2009 2010 2011
App. Qual. App. Qual. App. Qual. App. Qual. App. Qual.
M 5200 780 7800 1170 8000 1200 8800 1320 9000 1350
N 7500 750 8500 850 8600 860 9200 920 8800 880
P 6400 960 8800 1100 9000 900 9200 920 10,000 1100
Q 8100 850 9000 1350 9200 1480 10,000 1200 10,000 1280
R 7800 1560 7600 760 9800 700 (78010,000
+1170 +12001250
+132011,200
+1350) 1650
⎡ ⎤
=⎢ ×100 ⎥
⎣ (5200 + 7800 + 8000 + 8800 + 9000) ⎦
36. What is the percentage of candidates ­who qualified ⎡ 4900 ⎤
­during 2007 for all states combined? =⎢ ×100 ⎥ = 14%
(a) 12% ⎣ 35,000 ⎦
(b) 14%
37. What is the average percentage of candidates who
(c) 15%
qualified from State M for all the years?
(d) None of the above
(a) 12%
Ans: (b) Percentage of candidates qualified = (b) 14%
780 + 750 + 960 + 850 + 1560 (c) 15%
5820 = × 100 (d) 16%
5200 + 7500 + 6400 + 8100 + 7800

M07_MADAN 04_65901_C07.indd 10 21/12/22 11:26 AM

 Data Interpretation 7.11

Ans: (c) Percentage of candidates ­qualified (a) 702 (b) 852

(c) 862 (d) 902
= ⎡Number of candidates
(780 +1170 +1200 +1320qualified
+1350)
⎡ (780
× +1170
100 ⎤ +1200 +1320 +1350)
Ans: (b) ⎤
= ⎢Number of candidates appeared =⎢ ×100 ⎥ ×100 ⎥
⎣ (5200 + 7800 + 8000 + 8800 + 9000
⎣ (5200) + 7800
⎦ + 8000 + 8800 + 9000) ⎦
⎡ 750 + 850 + 860 + 920 + 880 ⎤
⎡780 4900
+ 1170 +⎤ 1200 + 1320 ⎡+ 4900
1350 ×100 ⎤ = 14% Average = ⎢
=== ⎢⎡ (780 +…)×100 ⎥ =
×100 ⎥
⎤
14% = ⎢ × 100 ⎥ ⎣ 5 ⎥⎦
35,000
⎣⎢⎣5200
(5200++…
7800
) ⎦+ 8000 + 8800 ⎣+35,000
9000 ⎦
⎦ ⎡ 4260 ⎤
=⎢ = 852
=⎢
⎡ 5820 ⎤
×100 ⎥ = 15% ⎣ 5 ⎥⎦
⎣ 38,800 ⎦
40. What is the percentage increase in candidates who
If we look at all the figures for individual years, appeared between 2007 and 2011?
we can see that the result has been consistent at (a) 35% (b) 40%
15% for all these years. (c) 45% (d) 50%
38. What is the average number of candidates who Ans: (b) Total number of candidates in 2007
appeared from State Q during the given years? = 35,000 (as calculated in Question 36)
(a) 8660 Total number of candidates in 2011
(b) 9260 = 9000 + 8800 + 10,000 + 10,000 + 11,200
(c) 9560 = 49,000
(d) 9660
Increase = 49,000 – 35,000 = 14,000
Ans: (b) Average number of candidates appeared
Percentage increase = 14,000/35,000 × 100
⎡ (8100 + 9000 + 9200 +10,000 +10,000) ⎤ = 40%
=⎢ ⎥
⎣ 5 ⎦
Directions for Questions 41–45: Presented below is the
⎡ 46,300 ⎤ percentage distribution of households by household size
=⎢ = 9260
⎣ 5 ⎥⎦ and the average sizes of household in:
39. What is the average number of candidates who quali- • All Indian rural and urban areas
fied from State N during all these years? • Urban areas classified as per population size

20
19
18
16
17
15
14
13
12
Percentage

11
10
9 Urban
8
7 Rural
6
5
4
3
2
1
0
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Household size

M07_MADAN 04_65901_C07.indd 11 21/12/22 11:26 AM

 7.12 Chapter 7

(c) In urban areas, the average size of the household

Distribution of Average Size of is the least for towns.
All India People Household
(d) In urban areas, there are 460 persons on an aver-
Rural – 5.08 age per 100 households.
Ans: (b)
Urban – 4.60
Explanation: Only statement (b) can be inferred
Distribution of Below 15,000 4.75 from the given graphs.
urban
15,000–50,000 4.50 Directions: Study the following graph carefully and
answer Questions 46–50 given below it. It depicts profits
50,001 to above 4.70
earned by a company during various years. Profit earned
in lakhs
41. In rural areas, which of the following sizes of the (Profit = Revenue − Expenditure)
households is the highest in number?
(a) 15 (b) 2 40
(c) 3 (d) 4 35
Ans: (d) 30
Explanation: From the graph, we see that the line for 25

Profit
rural peaks at about 4–5. 20
Hence, the best answer is 4. 15
42. In urban areas, among the households of different 10
sizes, what is the percentage of households of size 5 5
or less?
0
(a) 13 (b) 72 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009
(c) 36 (d) 87
46. What is the average profit earned by the company
Ans: (b)
over the years?
Explanation: The total number of households ≤5 is (a) `26 lakhs
17 + 14 + 12 + 15 + 14 = 72. (b) `28 lakhs
(c) `30 lakhs
43. In rural areas, per 100 households, there were 31 (d) `32 lakhs
households of size
(a) 3 or above Ans: (c) Total profit earned over 5 years = (25 + 35 +
(b) 3, 4 and 5 22.5 + 30 + 37.5) = 150 lakhs
Average profit = 150/5 = `30 lakhs
(c) 3 or less
(d) 4 or less 47. If the expenditure of the company in 2009 was
`28 lakhs, then what was the revenue of the company
Ans: (c) in that year?
Explanation: Total up the values for rural area for the (a) `65.5 lakhs
size 3 or less to get the answer. (b) `72.5 lakhs
(c) `75 lakhs
44. As the urban population of towns increases, the aver- (d) None of the above
age household size
Ans: (a) Revenue in 2009 = Profit + Expenditure
(a) Increases = `65.5 lakhs
(b) Decreases 48. What is the approximate percentage increase in the
(c) Remains constant profit of the company in 2008 in comparison to the
(d) Fluctuates previous year?
Ans: (d) (a) 28 (b) 30
Explanation: As the population size increases, we see (c) 36 (d) 40
that household sizes are 4.75, 4.50 and 4.70. Hence, Ans: (b) Percentage increase = (30 − 23)/23 × 100
the values are fluctuating. = 30.43 ∼ 30%
45. Which of the following statements is true? 49. What is the ratio of profit earned by the company in
(a) On the average, there are more persons per family 2005 to the profit earned in 2009?
in urban areas than in rural areas. (a) 1 : 3 (b) 2 : 3
(b) In rural areas, 35% of the households are of the (c) 3 : 5 (d) 1 : 2
size 7 and above. Ans: (b) The required ratio = 25 : 37.5 = 2 : 3

M07_MADAN 04_65901_C07.indd 12 21/12/22 11:26 AM

 Data Interpretation 7.13

50. If the revenue of the company in 2007 was `45 lakhs, Ans: (d) The differences between the productions of
then what was the expenditure of the company in Companies X and Y in various years are as fol-
that year? lows (all figures in thousands):
(a) `20.5 lakhs For 2007 (139 − 119) = 20
(b) `22.5 lakhs For 2008 (120 − 99) = 21
(c) `24.5 lakhs For 2009 (141 − 100) = 41
(d) `25.5 lakhs For 2010 (128 − 78) = 50
For 2011 (120 − 107) = 13
Ans: (b) Expenditure in 2007 = 45 − 22.5 = `22.5 For 2012 (159 − 148) = 11
lakhs Hence, the maximum difference was in 2010.
Directions: Study the following graph carefully and 55. The production of Company Y in 2010 was approxi-
answer Questions 51–55. The graph consists of data mately what percentage of the production of Com-
about the number of vehicles manufactured by two com- pany X in the same year?
panies over the years. (a) 173 (b) 164
(c) 132 (d) 97
Number of Vehicles Manufactured by Two
Companies Over the Years Ans: (b) As the comparison is with Company X, its
production figure will appear as denominator.
No. of vehicles (thousands)

160 159 Required percentage = (1,28,000/78,000) × 100

139 141
140 120
128 120
120
119
100
80
99 100
78
60
40
2007 2008 2009 2010 2011 2012
Years
51. What is the difference between the number of vehi-
cles manufactured by Company Y in 2010 and 2011?
(a) 50,000 (b) 42,000
(c) 33,000 (d) 21,000
Ans: (d) Difference = 1,28,000 − 1,07,000 = 21,000
52. What is the difference between the total production of
the two companies in the given years?
(a) 19,000 to the brain are in the retina. Data mapping helps us see
(b) 22,000
(c) 26,000 Customer trends can be traced in the real time. The
(d) 28,000
Ans: (c): Total production of Company X from 2007
to 2012 (in thousands) = 119 + 99 + 141 + 78 +
120 + 159 = 716
Total production of Company Y from 2007 to
2012 (in thousands) = 139 + 120 + 100 + 128 +
107 + 148 = 742
Difference = (742 − 716) thousands = 26,000
53. What is the average numbers of vehicles manufac-
tured by Company X over the given period?
(a) 1,19,333 (b) 1,17,166
(c) 1,12,778 (d) 1,11,223
Ans: (b) Average number of vehicles manufactured
by Company X = (119 + 99 + 141 + 78 + 107 +
159)/6 = 1,17.166 (in thousands) = 1,17,166
54. In which of the following years was the difference
between the productions of Companies X and Y the
maximum?
(a) 2007 (b) 2008
(c) 2009 (d) 2010
148
= 164%
107
Data Mapping
Data mapping is the process of mapping data fields from a
source file to their related target fields. The accessibility to
required data can make some organization more success-
X Y ful. Somehow, data is easier to use when it is visualized.
Visual data helps people understand how different con-
cepts originate and their relation with each other. Data
mapping helps in all these. For example, ‘Name’, ‘Email’
and ‘Phone’ fields from an Excel source are mapped to the
relevant fields in a delimited file, which is our destination.
Data mapping helps by providing organizations with
procedure links to show how certain tasks are to be uti-
lized. Forty per cent of our nerve fibres that are linked
what makes different pieces of data useful and helpful.
causes of trends and past data numbers can be analysed
and other calculations of information and variables can
be done. We can also use data mapping software to com-
pare our date with that of competitors. This should make
it easier for your business to grow when chosen right.
It also works by establishing larger maps. Sales-force of
any organization has a particularly strong data mapping
software program that can be put to use. This helps in real
time also. We can get connected to a cloud network to get
information in real time.
Data mapping works for all businesses. For example,
if we were in the retail sector, then we can use data map-
ping to calculate how discount sales can influence the
overall sales totals in a business. Similarly, financing and
investment decisions can also be made.
Data may be internal or external, but if it is getting
more dispersed and voluminous, then data leverage is
important and actionable insights should be developed.
There are arrays of data points to collect information.
Their language may be quite different. We can develop
separate data models.

M07_MADAN 04_65901_C07.indd 13 21/12/22 11:26 AM

 7.14
Data mapping tasks vary in complexity, depending on
the hierarchy or disparity between the structure of the
source and of the target. Every application, on-premise or
on cloud basis, uses metadata to explain data fields.
Microsoft SharePoint, InetSoft Style Intelligence
and IBM Cognos Business Intelligence help us to review
information by generating simple charts and graphs.
Depending on the number and schema of the data
sources, database mappings can have a varying degree of
complexity.
In general, data mapping helps with the following
activities.
Data Integration
It includes data mapping tools to cover differences in the
schemas of data source and destination, allowing busi-
nesses to consolidate information from different data
points ­easily.
Data Migration
It is moving data from one database to another. Here,
using a code-free data mapping solution that can auto-
mate the process is important to migrate data to the des-
tination successfully.
Data Warehousing
Data mapping in a data warehouse is the process of creat-
ing a connection between the source and the target tables
or attributes.
Data T ransformation
It is essential to break information silos and draw insights.
Data mapping is the first step in data transformation.
Data Mapping T echniques
Although an essential step in any data management pro-
cess, data mapping can be complex and time-­consuming.
Based on the level of automation, data mapping tech-
niques can be divided into two types:
1. Manual Data Mapping: Although hand-coded, man-
ual data mapping process offers unlimited flexibility.
2. Semi-automated Data Mapping: Schema mapping
is often classified as a semi-automated data mapping
technique. The process involves identifying two data
objects that are semantically related and then build-
ing mappings between them.
Data Interpretation
The interpretation of data assigns a meaning to the infor-
mation analysed and determines its signification and
implications. It refers to the implementation of processes
through which data is reviewed for the purpose of arriv-
ing at an informed conclusion.
Keeping in view its importance, data mapping should
be done properly. Data is obtained from multiple sources,
M07_MADAN 04_65901_C07.indd 14
Chapter 7
so it needs to enter the analysis process with haphazard
ordering. Data analysis is usually subjective and, thus,
the goals of interpretation may vary from one business to
another. Basically, there are two main types of ­analysis,
quantitative and qualitative.
A good decision should be made regarding scales of
measurement. The varying scales include the following:
• Nominal scale: It consists of non-numeric categories
that cannot be ranked or compared quantitatively.
­Variables are exclusive and exhaustive.
• Ordinal scale: It consists of categories that are exclu-
sive and exhaustive but with a logical order. Quality
ratings and agreement ratings are examples of ordi-
nal scales (i.e. good, very good, fair, etc., or agree,
strongly agree, disagree, etc.).
• Interval: It is a measurement scale where data is
grouped into categories with orderly and equal dis-
tances between the categories. There is always an
arbitrary zero point.
• Ratio: It contains features of all three mentioned
above.
When interpreting data, an analyst must try to discern
the differences between correlation, causation and coin-
cidences, etc., in addition to some other factors. In this
part, we will look at the two main methods of inter-
pretation of data with a qualitative and a quantitative
analysis.
Qualitative Data I nterpretation
Narrative data is mostly collected by employing a wide
variety of person-to-person techniques. It is basically
described as ‘categorical’. The description is not through
numerical values or patterns but through descriptive
context or text. These techniques include the following
parameters:
• Observations: Here, behaviour patterns may be the
amount of type and time spent in an activity and com-
munication used.
• Documents: Here, different types of documentation
resources can be coded and divided based on the type
of material they contain.
• Interviews: They are described as the best collection
method for narrative data. Enquiry responses can
be grouped by theme, topic or category. The inter-
view approach helps in highly focused data segmen-
tation.
A person to person data collection technique can lead to
three basic principles, notice things, collect things and
think about things. Qualitative data much open to inter-
pretation must be ‘coded’ so as to facilitate the grouping
and labelling of data into identifiable themes.
Quantitative Data Interpretation
The keyword in quantitative is ‘numerical’. It is a set of pro-
cesses by which numerical data is analysed. It involves the
use of statistical modelling, such as standard ­deviation,
21/12/22 11:26 AM
 Data Interpretation
mean and median. Let’s quickly review the most common
statistical terms that are as follows:
• Mean: A mean represents a numerical average for a
set of responses.
• Standard Deviation: It reveals the distribution of
the responses around the mean, the degree of con-
sistency within the responses and then insight into
data sets.
• Frequency Distribution: This is a measurement of
gauging the rate of a response appearance within
a data set. It is extremely keen in determining the
degree of consensus among data points.
It entails correlation tests between two or more variables.
The different processes can be used together or sepa-
rately, and comparisons can be made to ultimately arrive
at a conclusion. Other signature interpretation processes
of quantitative data include the following:
• Regression analysis
• Cohort analysis
• Predictive and prescriptive analysis
I mportance of Data I nterpretation
The purpose of collection and interpretation is to acquire
useful and usable information and to make the most
informed decisions possible. Data interpretation includes
the following characteristics:
• Data identification and explanation
• Comparing and contrasting of data
• Identification of data outliers
• Future predictions
There are some common issues with data interpretation:
1. Informed Decision Making: Data analysis should
include identification, thesis development and data
collection followed by data communication.
2. Anticipating needs with Trends Identification:
Data insights provide knowledge, and knowledge is
power.
3. Cost Efficiency: Proper implementation of data anal-
ysis processes can provide businesses with profound
cost advantages within their industries.
4. Clear Foresight: Companies that collect and ­analyse
their data gain better knowledge about themselves,
their processes and performance.
In addition, there are certain problems with data inter-
pretation.
It is usually said that ‘big data equals big trouble’ where
some ‘pitfalls’ do exist and can occur when analysing data,
especially at the speed of thought. Let’s identify three of the
most common data misinterpretation risks and shed some
light on how they can be avoided:
1. Correlation mistaken for causation: It is the
tendency of data analysts to mix the cause of a
M07_MADAN 04_65901_C07.indd 15
7.15
­ henomenon with its correlation. When two actions
p
occurred together, one caused the other. This is not
accurate as actions can occur together. The remedy is
to attempt to eliminate the variable you believe to be
causing the phenomenon.
2. Confirmation Bias: It occurs when we have a theory
or hypothesis in mind, but are intent on discover-
ing only data patterns that provide support, while
rejecting those that do not. This pitfall is often
based on subjective desires. Thus, always remem-
ber to try to disprove a hypothesis rather than try to
prove it.
3. Irrelevant Data: As large data is no longer centrally
stored and as it continues to be analysed at the
speed of thought, it is inevitable that analysts will
focus on data that is irrelevant to the problem they
are trying to correct. The remedy is to proactively
and clearly frame any data analysis variables and
key performance indicators prior to engaging in a
data review.
Keeping in view all these aspects, we need to be careful
about the following factors:
1. Collect your data and make it as clean as possible.
2. We need to be careful about the type of analysis to
perform, be it qualitative or quantitative, and apply
the methods, respectively, to each. We have already
discussed qualitative and quantitative aspects.
3. We may need to take a step back and think about data
from various perspectives and what it means for vari-
ous participants or actors of the project.
4. We need to reflect on our own thinking and ­reasoning,
such as correlation versus causation, subjective bias,
false information and inaccurate data.
Data and Governance
Data governance is a requirement in today’s fast-moving
and highly competitive enterprise environment. Now that
organizations have the opportunity to c­apture massive
amounts of diverse internal and external data, they need
a discipline to maximize their value, manage risks and
reduce costs.
Data governance is a collection of processes, roles,
policies, standards and metrics that ensures the effective
and efficient use of information in enabling an organiza-
tion to achieve its goals. It defines who can take what
action, on what data, in what situations and using what
methods.
Data governance ensures that roles related to data are
clearly defined, and that responsibility and accountabil-
ity are agreed upon across the enterprise. A well-planned
data governance framework covers strategic, tactical and
operational roles and responsibilities.
While crafting data and governance strategy, we need
to be careful.
21/12/22 11:26 AM
 7.16
Data governance is not data management: Data man-
agement refers to the management of the full data lifecy-
cle needs of an organization. Data governance is the core
component of data management, including data ware-
housing.
1. Data Governance is not Master Data Management:
Master data management focuses on identifying an
organization’s key entities and then improving the
quality of this data.
2. Data Governance is not Data Stewardship: Data
stewards take care of data assets, making certain that
the actual data is consistent with the data governance
plan, linked with other data assets and in control in
terms of data quality, compliance or security.
Benefits of Data Governance
An effective data governance strategy provides many ben-
efits to an organization, including the following:
• There is a common understanding of data.
• There is improved quality of data, such as data
accuracy, completeness and consistency.
• Data map is available.
• Holistic View: Data governance provides a 360° view
of each ­customer and other business entities, basi-
cally ‘a single ­version of the truth’.
M07_MADAN 04_65901_C07.indd 16
Chapter 7
• Consistent Compliance: Data governance provides
a platform for meeting the demands of government
regulations.
• Improved Data Management: It brings a human
dimension into an otherwise highly automated and
data-driven world.
We can use technology as the enabler for the same.
Open source and cloud are the basic strategies for data
governance tools. iPaaS is also closely linked with them.
These tools also help us achieve the following:
1. Capture and understand our data
2. Improve the quality of our data
3. Managing Data: With metadata-driven ETL and ELT
and data integration applications
4. Controlling our data
5. Document our data
6. Empower the people that know the data best: To
contribute to the data stewardship
7. Protect sensitive data
We need to understand that data governance is not
optional.
The implementation known as a ‘data lake’ necessar-
ily requires processes that allow you to keep the data you
need in a way that eliminates technical b­ arriers and gives
new capabilities to process that data.
21/12/22 11:26 AM
 Data Interpretation 7.17

A s s e s s Yo u r L e a r n i n g

Directions: Study the table given below and answer ques- 6. The number of students who appeared from School
tions 1–5. The table shows the populations of three states E in 2004 is approximately what percentage of the
over the years 2002–2007. total number of students who appeared from all the
schools together in that year?
Population (in lakhs) of three states over the years (a) 16% (b) 18%
(c) 20% (d) 25%
Year
7. What is the average number of students who appeared
State 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007 from School B for all the years?
A 4.5 4.8 5.2 5.4 5.8 6.2 (a) 676 (b) 787
(c) 808 (d) 818
B 3.2 3.6 3.4 3.8 4.1 4.4 8. The number of students who appeared in 2006 from
C 5.6 5.5 5.8 6.3 6.6 6.9 School A is what per cent of the total number of stu-
dents who appeared from School A for all the years
1. What is the average population of State B for all the together?
years together (in lakhs)? (a) 25.25 (b) 21.33
(a) 3.5 (b) 3.6 (c) 22.45 (d) 23.45
(c) 3.75 (d) 3.8 9. What is the ratio between the total number of stu-
2. What is the percentage increase in population of State dents who appeared in 2004 and 2005 from Schools
A between 2002 and 2003? C and D, respectively?
(a) 5 (b) 5.25 (a) 84 : 79 (b) 79 : 84
(c) 6.67 (d) 7.5 (c) 84 : 89 (d) 89 : 84
3. What was the difference between combined popu- 10. What is the average number of students who appeared
lations of all the three states for the years 2004 and from the given schools in 2007?
2005? (a) 825 (b) 836 (c) 845 (d) 863
(a) 90,000 Directions: Study the following table carefully and
(b) 1,00,000 answer questions 11–15. It consists of data on the gradu-
(c) 1,10,000 ates and postgraduates living in various towns.

A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
(d) None of the above
4. What was the average population of all the three Towns Graduates Postgraduates
states in 2006 (in lakhs)? A 10,200 8000
(a) 5.5 (b) 5.8
(c) 6.1 (d) 6.3 B 25,250 18,000
5. What is the ratio between combined populations of all C 15,150 10,500
the three states in 2004 and 2005?
(a) 155 : 144 (b) 144 : 155 D 20,200 16,250
(c) 144 : 165 (d) 165 : 144 E 24,000 20,000
Directions: Study the following table carefully and F 16,500 18,450
answer questions 6–10. It consists of data on the num-
ber of candidates who appeared from five schools in the 11. What is the difference between the number of gradu-
board exams from 2004 to 2008. ates and the number of postgraduates in town C?
(a) 4500 (b) 4600
Schools
(c) 4650 (d) 4560
Year A B C D E 12. What is the average number of postgraduates in all
2004 650 760 820 800 780 the towns together?
(a) 15,000 (b) 15,500
2005 700 740 860 780 740 (c) 16,250 (d) 15,200
2006 800 820 940 750 730 13. What is the ratio of the number of graduates from
towns A and B together to the number of postgradu-
2007 750 880 920 840 790 ates from towns A and E together?
2008 850 840 900 860 770 (a) 709 : 580 (b) 709 : 560
(c) 560 : 709 (d) None of the above

M07_MADAN 04_65901_C07.indd 17 21/12/22 11:26 AM

 7.18 Chapter 7

14. What is the total number of graduates and postgradu- Directions: Study the following bar graph carefully and
ates in towns A, D and F together? answer questions 21–25. It consists of data on student
(a) 85,500 enrolment in different states.
(b) 88,600 120
(c) 89,600 110
(d) 90,600 100
90
15. The number of graduates in town F is approximately 80
what percentage of the number of postgraduates in Student 70
60
the same town? enrolment 50
(a) 84 (b) 89 in 40
30
(c) 92 (d) 95 thousands 20
10
Directions: Study the following bar graph carefully 0
State State State State State State
and answer questions 16–20. It consists of data on
A B C D E F
exports and imports of IT and electronics industry over 2010 2011
a period.
Exports and Imports of
21. What is the ratio of the total enrolment of State B for
IT and Electronics Industry (in billion `)
years 2010 and 2011 to the total enrolment of State D
for both the years combined?
90 (a) 7 : 9 (b) 4 : 5
80 (c) 3 : 5 (d) 2 : 3
70 22. What is the percentage of total enrolment of State C
60 in comparison to enrolment of State E for years 2010
50 and 2011?
40 (a) 73 (b) 126
30 (c) 137 (d) 145
20
23. By what per cent is the enrolment in the year 2011
10 higher than that of 2010 for all the states combined?
2004 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009 (a) 12 (b) 15
Exports Imports (c) 18 (d) 20
24. Which of the following states has shown the highest
16. For how many years, the exports are at least 10% increase in student enrolment from years 2010 to
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

higher than the imports? 2011?

(a) 1 (b) 2 (a) A (b) C
(c) 3 (d) 4 (c) E (d) F
17. In which year have the exports shown the highest 25. What is the average enrolment for all the states for the
growth in percentage terms in comparison to the pre- year 2010?
ceding year? (a) 80 (b) 85
(a) 2005 (b) 2006 (c) 90 (d) 95
(c) 2007 (d) 2008
Directions: The bar graph given below shows the percent-
18. What are the average exports (in billion `) for the age distribution of the total expenditures of a company
period 2004–2009? under various expense heads during 2003. Study it and
(a) 60.35 answer questions 26–30.
(b) 65.83
(c) 70.20 Breakup of Total Expenditure of a Company
(d) 75.36 25
20 20
Per cent spent

19. By how much percentage are the total exports higher 20 17.5
than total imports from 2004 to 2009? 15
15
(a) 4.15 12.5 10
10
(b) 5.33 5
(c) 6.33 5
(d) 7.58 0
Advertisement
Infrastructure

Interest on
Transport

Taxes

Salary
R&D

20. What is the percentage increase in imports between

loans

the years 2004 and 2009?

(a) 110 (b) 114
(c) 125 (d) 135

M07_MADAN 04_65901_C07.indd 18 21/12/22 11:26 AM

 Data Interpretation 7.19

26. The total amount of expenditure of the company is 33. If the funds contributed by FIIs is `33,000 crore, then
how many times the expenditure on research and the funds contributed towards subscription of Bharat
development? Bonds by NRIs is
(a) 27 (b) 20 (a) `10,000 crore (b) `11,000 crore
(c) 18 (d) 8 (c) `12,000 crore (d) `12,500 crore
27. If the expenditure on advertisement is 2.10 crore, 34. If total subscription is `55,000, then the difference
then the difference between the expenditure on trans- between funds invested by banks and by public is
port and on taxes is (a) `550 crore (b) `1100 crore
(a) `1.25 crore (c) `1050 crore (d) `1650 crore
(b) `95 lakhs 35. If the difference between funds contributed by pub-
(c) `65 lakhs lic and by banks on one hand and by pension funds
(d) `35 lakhs on the other is `5000 crore, then the total funds sub-
28. What is the ratio of the total expenditure on infra- scribed for Bharat Bonds are
structure and transport to the total expenditure on (a) `25,000 crore
taxes and interest on loans? (b) `50,000 crore
(a) 5:4 (b) 8:7 (c) `55,000 crore
(c) 9:7 (d) 13:11 (d) `1,10,000 crore
29. If the interest on loans amounted to `2.45 crore, then
the total amount of expenditure on advertisement, Directions: Study the following pie chart carefully and
taxes and research and development is answer questions 36–40. It consists of data on tourist
(a) `7 crore (b) `5.4 crore arrival from different countries.
(c) `4.2 crore (d) `3 crore
Total Tourist Traffic = 20 lakhs
30. The expenditure on the interest on loans is by what
per cent more than the expenditure on transport? UK
(a) 5% (b) 10% 10%
(c) 20% (d) 40% USA
Others
20% 40%
Directions: Study the following pie chart carefully and
answer questions 31–35. It consists of data about sub- Japan
scription from different sources for Bharat Bonds issued 30%
by the Government of India.
Subscription Generated for 36. The difference between tourist numbers from the USA

A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
Bharat Bonds and Japan is
(a) 2 lakhs (b) 3 lakhs
NRIs
(c) 4 lakhs (d) 5 lakhs
11% FII
33% 37. The angle extended at the centre by sector of tourists
from the USA is
Companies (a) 108° (b) 118°
34%
Pension (c) 144° (d) 165°
funds 38. If the number of tourists from the UK doubles up
16% while the total remains the same, then the new angle
Banks extended by tourists from the UK will be
2% Public (a) 60° (b) 72°
4% (c) 90° (d) 120°
31. If the investments by NRIs is `8000 crore, then the 39. If the total number of tourists doubles while the abso-
combined investment of companies and FIIs into lute number of tourists from ‘others’ remains the
Bharat Bonds is same, then the new angle extended by ‘others’ at the
(a) `48,726 crore centre will be
(b) `48,000 crore (a) 36° (b) 72°
(c) `50,827 crore (c) 108° (d) None of the above
(d) Insufficient information 40. If the tourist traffic from the USA shows a growth of
32. If the total investment is `55,000 crore, then the com- 50% while the total number of tourists remains the
bined investment by pension funds and public is same, then the new percentage from the USA is
(a) `10,000 crore (b) `10,200 crore (a) 40% (b) 45%
(c) `10,500 crore (d) `11,000 crore (c) 50% (d) None of the above

M07_MADAN 04_65901_C07.indd 19 21/12/22 11:27 AM

 7.20 Chapter 7

Directions: Study the following table carefully and answer 46. What is the respective ratio of the total number of
questions 41–45. It consists of breakup of expenses of a girls enrolled in painting in Institutes A and C together
company over different years. to those enrolled in stitching in Institutes D and E
together?
Items of Expenditure (`, in lakhs) (a) 14:23 (b) 16:23
(c) 18:23 (d) 8:12
Year Salary Fuel and Bonus Interest Taxes
Transport on Loans 47. The number of girls enrolled in stitching in Institute
B forms approximately what percentage of the total
1998 288 98 3.00 23.4 83 number of girls enrolled in stitching in all the insti-
1999 342 112 2.52 32.5 108 tutes put together?
(a) 19 (b) 21
2000 324 101 3.84 41.6 74 (c) 23 (d) 25
2001 336 133 3.68 36.4 88 48. What is the respective ratio of the total number of
2002 420 142 3.96 49.4 98 girls enrolled in painting and stitching from all the
institutes put together?
(a) 11:12 (b) 12:11
41. What is the average amount of interest per year which (c) 11:14 (d) 12:17
the company had to pay during this period?
(a) `32.43 lakhs 49. The number of girls enrolled in dancing in Institute
(b) `33.72 lakhs A forms what percentage of the total number of girls
(c) `34.18 lakhs enrolled in all the vocational courses together in that
(d) `36.66 lakhs institute?
(a) 20.7 (b) 25.5
42. The total amount of bonus paid by the company dur- (c) 28.2 (d) 29.5
ing the given period is approximately what percent-
age of the total amount of salary paid during this 50. What is the total number of girls enrolled in painting
period? from all the institutes together?
(a) 0.1% (b) 0.5% (a) 1050
(c) 1% (d) 1.25% (b) 1100
(c) 1150
43. Total expenditure on all these items in 1998 was (d) 1200
approximately what percentage of the total expendi-
ture in 2002? Directions: Study the following line graph carefully and
(a) 62% (b) 66% answer questions 51–55. It consists of profit data of a
(c) 69% (d) 71% company for 2003 and 2004.
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

44. The total expenditure of the company over these

Profit (`, in crores) Earned by Companies During
items during year 2000 is
2003 and 2004 (Profit = Income − Expenditure)
(a) `544.44 lakhs (b) `501.11 lakhs
(c) `446.46 lakhs (d) `478.87 lakhs 90
80
45. The ratio between the total expenditure on taxes for
all the years and the total expenditure on fuel and 70
transport for all the years is approximately 60
2003
(a) 4:7 (b) 10:13 50 2004
(c) 15:18 (d) 5:8 40
30
Directions: Study the following bar graph carefully and
20
answer questions 46–50. It consists of data on student
10
enrolment in different vocational courses in A, B, C, D and
0
E institutes. A B C D E F G

450 51. What is the ratio between the profits earned by Com-
400
350
pany A in 2004 and Company B in 2003?
300 (a) 4:3 (b) 3:2
Painting (c) 3:4 (d) 1:1
250
200 Stitching 52. What is the difference between the total profit earned
150 Dancing by Companies E, F and G together in 2003 and 2004
100 (`, in crores)?
50 (a) 70 (b) 72
0 (c) 78 (d) 80
A B C D E

M07_MADAN 04_65901_C07.indd 20 21/12/22 11:27 AM

 Data Interpretation 7.21

53. What is the ratio between the profit earned by Com-
pany C in 2003 and 2004 together and the profit
earned by Company E in the same 2 years mentioned
above?
(a) 11:9 (b) 10:11
(c) 9:11 (d) None of the above
54. What is the approximate average profit earned by all
the companies in year 2003 (`, in crores)?
(a) 53 (b) 58
(c) 62 (d) 68
55. The profit earned by Company B in 2004 is what per
cent of the profit earned by the same company in
2003?
(a) 60% (b) 75%
(c) 125% (d) 133.33%
Directions: Study the following pie charts carefully and
answer questions 56–60. It consists of data on admission
in graduate and postgraduate courses in different institu-
tions.
Postgraduate Admissions
(Percentage Breakup)
57. What is the difference in graduate and postgraduate
courses in College A?
(a) 1400 (b) 1600
(c) 1800 (d) 2000
58. By what percentage are admissions in graduate
courses higher than postgraduate courses in case of
College F?
(a) 31.25% (b) 25.50%
(c) 33.33% (d) 35.50%
59. What is the difference between the highest admis-
sions in graduate and the highest admissions in post-
graduate courses in any combination of the colleges?
(a) 1200 (b) 1500
(c) 1600 (d) 2000
60. By what per cent are postgraduate admissions lower
than graduate admissions in case of College D?
(a) 45% (b) 55%
(c) 70% (d) 80%
Directions: The bar graph given below shows the foreign
exchange reserves of a country (in million USD) from
2011–12 to 2018–19.
Foreign Exchange Reserves of a Country (in Million USD)

F, 16 A, 20 6000
5040
5000 4320
3720 3360
4000
E, 14 2640 2520 3120 3120
3000
B, 18 2000
1000
D, 10
0

A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
C, 22
2

9
-1

-1

-1

-1

-1

-1

-1

-1
11

12

13

14

15

16

17

18
20

20

20

20

20

20

20

20
Total Admissions = 20,000

Graduate Admissions 61. The ratio of the number of years in which the foreign
(Percentage Breakup) exchange reserves are above the average reserves to
those in which the reserves are below the average
F, 14 reserves is
A, 18 (a) 2:6 (b) 3:4
(c) 3:5 (d) 4:4
E, 16
62. The foreign exchange reserves in 2017–18 were how
many times of those in 2014–15?
B, 20 (a) 0.7 (b) 1.2
(c) 1.4 (d) 1.5
D, 12
63. For which year has the percentage increase in foreign
C, 20 exchange reserves over the previous year been the
highest?
Total admissions = 30,000 (a) 2012–13 (b) 2013–14
(c) 2014–15 (d) 2016–17
56. What are the total admissions in College B for both 64. The foreign exchange reserves in 2016–17 were
graduate and postgraduate courses? approximately what percentage of the average for-
(a) 9600 (b) 9800 eign exchange reserves over the period under review?
(c) 10,200 (d) 10,500 (a) 95% (b) 110%
(c) 115% (d) 125%

M07_MADAN 04_65901_C07.indd 21 21/12/22 11:27 AM

 7.22 Chapter 7

65. What was the percentage increase in the foreign Codes:

exchange reserves in 2017–18 over those in 2013–14? (a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(a) 100% (b) 150% (b) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(c) 200% (d) 250% (c) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(d) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
Directions: Study the bar graph given below and answer
73. The National Sample Survey (NSS) came into being
questions 66–70.
to collect information through sample surveys on a
Online Travel Industry Sales Turnover variety of socioeconomic aspects in the year
(`, in crores) (a) 1950 (b) 1952
37,900 (c) 1956 (d) 1962
40,000
35,000 74. The Indian Statistical Institute is located in
30,000 (a) New Delhi (b) Kolkata
25,300
25,000 (c) Mumbai (d) Hyderabad
20,000 Sales
10,500 15,000 turnover 75. How many divisions are there in the Central Statisti-
15,000
6300 cal Organization?
10,000
5000 (a) 2 (b) 3
0 (c) 4 (d) 5
2007 2008 2009 2010 2011
76. The National Statistical Commission was set up in the
year
66. Which year witnessed the maximum growth in sales (a) 2000 (b) 2003
turnover in absolute terms? (c) 2005 (d) 2008
(a) 2008 (b) 2009
(c) 2010 (d) 2011 77. Which of the following methods is best suited to show
on map the types of crops grown in a region?
67. Which year witnessed the maximum growth in sales (a) Choropleth
turnover in percentage terms? (b) Chorochromatic
(a) 2008 (b) 2009 (c) Choroschematic
(c) 2010 (d) 2011 (d) Isopleth
68. What is the average sales turnover during all the years 78. Which of the following sources of data is not based on
(`, in crores)? primary data collection?
(a) 17,000 (b) 18,000 (a) Census of India
(c) 19,000 (d) None of the above (b) National Sample Survey
69. What is the approximate percentage growth between (c) Statistical Abstracts of India
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

2007 and 2011? (d) National Family Health Survey

(a) 400% (b) 500% 79. Which of the following is not a source of data?
(c) 525% (d) 600% (a) Administrative records
70. How many years witnessed more than aver­ age (b) Population census
growth? (c) GIS
(a) 1 (b) 2 (d) Sample survey
(c) 3 (d) None of the above 80. Which of the following is the oldest archival source of
71. Census is conducted after every data in India?
(a) 5 years (b) 10 years (a) National Sample Survey
(c) 11 years (d) 15 years (b) Agricultural statistics
72. Match List-I with List-II. (c) Census
(d) Vital statistics
List-I (Event) List-II (Year)
A Statistical abstract of British I 1868
India
B Agricultural statistics of II 1886
British India
C First census III 1881
D Central Statistical IV 1952
Organization

M07_MADAN 04_65901_C07.indd 22 21/12/22 11:27 AM

 Data Interpretation 7.23

Answer Keys
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (b)
11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (b)
21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (a)
31. (a) 32. (d) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (b) 36. (a) 37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (a) 40. (c)
41. (d) 42. (c) 43. (c) 44. (a) 45. (b) 46. (b) 47. (b) 48. (a) 49. (a) 50. (b)
51. (d) 52. (d) 53. (a) 54. (a) 55. (b) 56. (a) 57. (a) 58. (a) 59. (c) 60. (d)
61. (c) 62. (d) 63. (a) 64. (d) 65. (a) 66. (d) 67. (d) 68. (c) 69. (b) 70. (b)
71. (b) 72. (a) 73. (a) 74. (b) 75. (d) 76. (c) 77. (a) 78. (c) 79. (d) 80. (b)

A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

M07_MADAN 04_65901_C07.indd 23 21/12/22 11:27 AM

 7.24 Chapter 7

Solution
1. (c): Required average Total number of postgraduates from A and E = 8000
+ 20,000 = 28,000
⎡ 3 . 2 + 3 . 6 + 3 . 4 + 3 . 8 + 4 .1 + 4 .4 ⎤ Required ratio = 35,450:28,000 = 709:560
=⎢ ⎥⎦
⎣ 6 14. (c): Total number of graduates in A, D and F = 46,900
⎡ 22.5 ⎤ Total number of postgraduates in A, D and F = 42,700
=⎢ ⎥ = 3.75 lakhs Required total = 46,900 + 42,700 = 89,600
⎣ 6 ⎦
15. (b): Required percentage = 16,500/18,450 × 100
2. (c): Required percentage = (4.8 – 4.5)/4.5 × 100 = 89.43 ~ 89%
= 0.3/4.5 × 100 = 6.67% 16. (b): As the comparison is with imports, the imports
3. (c): Combined population in 2004 = 5.2 + 3.4 + 5.8 will appear as the denominator.
= 14.4 lakhs The formula to calculate the percentage figure for
Combined population in 2005 = 5.4 + 3.8 + 6.3 higher exports with regard to imports is the following:
= 15.5 lakhs Difference/imports × 100
Difference = 15.5 − 14.4 = 1.1 lakhs = 1,10,000 In 2004, exports = 40 > 35
4. (a): Average population in 2006 = (5.8 + 4.1 + 6.6)/3 Required percentage figure = 5/35 × 100 ∼ 14%
= 16.5/3 = 5.5 lakhs Similarly, for the year 2005, required percentage
= [(65 − 60)/60] × 100 = 8.33%
5. (b): Total population in 2004 = 5.2 + 3.4 + 5.8
For 2006, imports > exports, so no calculation is
= 14.4 lakhs
required.
Total population in 2005 = 5.4 + 3.8 + 6.3 = 15.5 lakhs
For 2007, 5/50 × 100 = 10%
Required ratio = 14.4:15.5 = 144:155
For 2008, 5/80 × 100 = 6.25%
6. (c): Total candidates who appeared in 2004 = 3810 For 2009, 5/75 × 100 = 6.66%
Percentage of students from School E = 780/3810 Thus, for years 2004 and 2007, the exports are at
× 100 = 20.47 ∼ 20% least 10% higher than imports.
7. (c): Required average = (760 + 740 + 820 + 880 17. (a): The required formula = increase/exports in pre-
+ 840)/5 = 4040/5 = 808 ceding year × 100
8. (b): Total number of students who appeared from In 2005, percentage increase in exports = (65 − 40)/
School A during 2004–2008 = (650 + 700 + 800 + 750 40 × 100 = 25/40 × 100 = 62.5%
+ 850) = 3750 In 2006, percentage increase in exports = 5/65 × 100
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

Required percentage = 800/3750 × 100 = 21.33% = 7.69%

9. (a): Required ratio = (820 + 860):(800 + 780) In 2007, exports have actually declined over the pre-
= 1680:1580 = 84:79 ceding year, so no calculation is required.
10. (b): Required average In 2008, percentage increase in exports = [(85 − 55)/
55] × 100 = 54.54%
⎡ (750 + 880 + 920 + 840 + 790 ⎤ ⎡ 4180 ⎤ In 2009, exports declined in compar­ison to 2008;
=⎢ ⎥⎦ = ⎢⎣ 5 ⎥⎦
⎣ 5 again no calculation is required.
= 836 18. (b): Average export = (40 + 65 + 70 + 55 + 85 + 80)/6
= 395/6 = `65.83 billion
11. (c): Number of graduates in C = 15,150 19. (b): Total exports = `395 billion
Number of postgraduates in C = 10,500 Total imports = `375 billion
Difference = 15,150 − 10,500 = 4650 Difference = `20 billion
12. (d): Required average Percentage difference = 20/375 × 100 = 5.33%
As the comparison is with imports, imports will
⎡ (8, 000 + 18, 000 + 10, 500 ⎤ appear as denominator.
⎢ ⎥
+16, 250 + 20, 000 + 18, 450) ⎥ 20. (b): The imports have increased from 35 in 2004 to
=⎢
⎢⎣ 6 ⎥⎦ 75 in 2009. Hence, percentage increase in imports
should be calculated by taking 2004 as the base
⎡ 91, 200 ⎤
=⎢ ⎥ = 15, 200 year.
⎣ 6 ⎦ Required percentage = [(75 − 35)/35] × 100 = 114.28
∼ 114%
13. (b): Total number of graduates from A and B = 10,200 21. (a): The required ratio is
+ 25,250 = 35,450 (65 + 75)/(85 + 95) = 140/180 = 7:9

M07_MADAN 04_65901_C07.indd 24 21/12/22 11:27 AM

 Data Interpretation 7.25

22. (c): As the comparison is with State E, it will appear as 36. (a): Difference = 40 – 30 = 10
denominator. Now, 10% of 20 lakhs = 2 lakhs
The required ratio = [(95 + 110)/(70 + 80)] × 100 Hence, option (a) is the answer.
= 136.66% ∼ 137% 37. (c): 40/100 × 360 = 144°
23. (b): Total enrolments for the year 2010 = 80 + 75 + 95 38. (b): Old number = (10/100) × 20 = 2 lakhs
+ 85 + 75 + 70 = 480
New number = 2 × 2 = 4 lakhs
Total enrolments for the year 2011 = 105 + 65 + 110
New angle extended at centre = 4/20 × 360 = 72°
+ 95 + 95 + 80 = 550
Percentage difference = [(550 − 480)/480] × 100 39. (a): Old number from ‘others’ = 20% of 20 lakhs
= 14.58% ∼ 15% = 4 lakhs
New total of tourists = 20 × 2 = 40 lakhs
24. (a): For State A, percentage increase = [(105 – 80)/
80] × 100 = 31.25% So, new angle extended at centre by ‘others’ = 4/40
× 360 = 36°
For State C, percentage increase = [(110 − 95)/95]
× 100 = 15.78% 40. (c): Old number of tourists from the USA = 40% of
For State E, percentage increase = [(95 − 75)/75] 20 lakhs = 8 lakhs
× 100 = 26.66% Increase of 50% = 50% of 8 lakhs = 4 lakhs
For State F, percentage increase = [(80 − 70)/70] New traffic figure from the USA = 8 + 4 = 12 lakhs
× 100 = 14.28% New total number from all countries = 20 + 4
25. (a): Average enrolments for 2010 = 480/6 = 80 = 24 lakhs
26. (b): Expenditure on R&D is 5% of the total Revised percentage of tourist traffic from the USA
expenditure. = 12/24 × 100 = 50%
It means that it is 1/20th of the total expenditure. 41. (d): Average interest =
27. (d): Advertisement expenditure is 15% of the total
⎡ 23.4 + 32.5 + 41.6 + 36.4 + 49.4 ⎤
expenditure. = `⎢ ⎥ lakhs
Given, 15% of total expenditure = 2.10 crore ⎣ 5 ⎦
Hence, total expenditure = 2.10 × 100/15 = 14 crore ⎡ 183.3 ⎤
Transport cost = 12.5% of 14 crore = 1.75 crore = `⎢ ⎥ lakhs = `36.66 lakhs
⎣ 5 ⎦
Taxes = 10% of 14 crore = 1.4 crore
So, the difference between transport and taxes = 1.75 42. (c): Required percentage
− 1.40 = 0.35 crore = 35 lakhs
⎡ (3.00 + 2.52 + 3.84 + 3.68 + 3.96) ⎤
28. (d): Total of infrastructure and trans­ port:total of =⎢ × 100⎥ %
⎣ (288 + 342 + 324 + 336 + 420 ) ⎦

A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
taxes and interest on loans
= (20 + 12.5) : (10 + 17.5) ⎡ 17 ⎤
=⎢ × 100⎥ % = 1%
= 32.5 : 27.5 ⎣ 1710 ⎦
= 13 : 11
43. (c): Required percentage
29. (c): As interest on loan is 10% of total expenses,
17.5% of total expenditure = `2.45 crore ⎡ (288 + 98 + 3.00 + 23.4 + 83) ⎤
=⎢ × 100⎥ %
Total expenditure = (2.45 × 100)/17.5 = 14 crore ⎣ (420 + 142 + 3.96 + 49.4 + 98) ⎦
Advertisement + taxes + R&D = 15 + 10 + 5 = 30% ⎡ 4955 .4 ⎤
30% of `14 crore = `4.2 crore =⎢ × 100⎥ % = 69.45%
⎣ 713.36 ⎦
30. (a): Difference = 17.5 – 12.5 = 5%
31. (a): Combined investment by companies and FIIs 44. (a): Total expenditure during 2000
= 67/11 × 8000 = `48,726 crore = `(324 + 101 + 3.84 + 41.6 + 74) lakhs
32. (d): (16 + 4)/100 × 55,000 = `11,000 crore = `544.44 lakhs
33. (b): FIIs contribute 33% and NRIs contribute 11% of 45. (b): Required ratio
the total funds. ⎡ (83 + 108 + 74 + 88 + 98) ⎤
Hence, funds contributed by NRIs = 11/33 × 33,000 =⎢ ⎥
⎣ (98 + 112 + 101 + 133 + 142) ⎦
= `11,000 crore
⎡ 451 ⎤ 10
34. (b): Percentage difference = 4 – 2 = 2% =⎢ ⎥= = 10 : 13
Given that 2% of `55,000 crore = (2/100) × 55,000 ⎣ 586 ⎦ 13
= `1100 crore 46. (b): Total number of girls enrolled in painting in A
35. (b): Difference in percentage terms = 16 – (2 + 4) = 10% and C = 250 + 150 = 400
10% of total funds = `5000 crore Total number of girls enrolled in stitching in D and E
Hence, total funds = 5000/10% = 5000 × 100/10 = 250 + 325 = 575
= `50,000 crore Required ratio = 400:575 = 16:23

M07_MADAN 04_65901_C07.indd 25 21/12/22 11:27 AM

 7.26 Chapter 7

47. (b): Total number of girls enrolled in stitching in all
institutes = 325 + 250 + 50 + 250 + 325 = 1200
Number of girls enrolled in stitching in B = 250
Required percentage = 250/1200 × 100 = 21%
48. (a): Total girls enrolled in painting = 250 + 225 + 150
+ 175 + 300 = 1100
Total enrolment in stitching course = 1200 (calcu-
lated in the earlier question)
Total enrolment in dancing = 150 + 200 + 75 + 400
+ 350 = 1175
Required ratio = 1100:1200 = 11:12
49. (a): Total enrolments of girls in A = 250 + 325 + 150
= 725
Number of girls enrolled in dancing in A = 150
Required percentage = 150/725 × 100 = 20.69
∼ 20.7%
50. (b): Solution is done as in Question 48.
51. (d): Profit earned by Company A in 2004 = `40 crore
Profit earned by Company B in 2003 = `40 crore
Required ratio = 40 : 40 = 1 : 1
52. (d): Total profits earned by Companies E, F and G in
2003 = 50 + 80 + 60 = `190 crore
Total profit earned by Companies E, F and G in 2004
= 40 + 20 + 50 = `110 crore
Required difference = 190 − 110 = `80 crore
53. (a): The profit earned by Company C in 2003 and
2004 = 50 + 60 = `110 crore
Profit earned by Company E in 2003 and 2004
= 40 + 50 = `90 crore
Required ratio = 110 : 90 = 11 : 9
54. (a): Required average = (20 + 40 + 50 + 70 + 50 + 80
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
Admission in postgraduate courses in College C
= 22% of 20,000 = 4400
Admission in graduate courses in College C = 20% of
30,000 = 6000
Difference = 6000 − 4400 = 1600
60. (d): Admission in postgraduate courses in College D
= 10% of 20,000 = 2000
Admission in graduate courses in College C = 12% of
30,000 = 3600
Difference = 3600 − 2000 = 1600
As the comparison is with admissions in graduate
courses, 3600 will be taken as the denominator.
Percentage difference = 1600/3600 × 100 = 44.5%
∼ 45%
61. (c): Average Foreign Exchange Reserves (FER) over
the given period = 3480 million USD
(a): The country had reserves above 3480 million USD
during the years 2012–13, 2016–17 and 2017–18, that
is, for 3 years.
(b): They are below 3480 million USD during the years
2011–12, 2013–14, 2014–15, 2015–16 and 2018–19,
that is, for 5 years. Hence, the required ratio is 3 : 5.
62. (d): Required ratio = 5040/3360 = 1.5
63. (a): There is an increase in foreign exchange reserves
during the years 2012–13, 2014–15, 2016–17 and
2017–18 as compared to the previous year (as shown
by bar graph).
The percentage increases in reserves during these
years compared to previous years are as follows:
For 2012–13:
⎡ (3720 − 2640) ⎤
=⎢ ×100 ⎥ % = 40.91%

+ 60)/7 = 370/7 = 52.86 ∼ `53 crore ⎣ 2640 ⎦

55. (b): Profit earned by Company B in 2004 = `30 crore
For 2014–15:
Profit earned by Company B in 2003 = `40 crore
Required ratio = 30/40 × 100 = 75% ⎡ (3360 − 2520) ⎤
=⎢ ×100 ⎥ % = 33.33%
56. (a): Postgraduate admissions in College B = 18% of ⎣ 2520 ⎦
20,000 = 3600
Graduate admissions in College B = 20% of 30,000 For 2016–17:
= 6000
Total admissions = 3600 + 6000 = 9600 ⎡ (4320 − 3120) ⎤
=⎢ × 100 ⎥ % = 38.46%
57. (a): Admissions in postgraduate courses in College A ⎣ 3120 ⎦
= 20% of 20,000 = 4000 For 2017–18:
Admissions in graduate course = 18% of 30,000
= 5400 ⎡ (5040 − 4320) ⎤
=⎢ × 100 ⎥ % = 16.67%
Required difference = 5400 − 4000 = 1400 ⎣ 4320 ⎦
58. (a): Admissions in postgraduate courses in College F
= 16% of 20,000 = 3200 Thus, the percentage increase over previous years is
Admissions in graduate courses in College F = 14% of highest for 2012–13.
30,000 = 4200 64. (d): Average FER over the given period
Difference = 4200 − 3200 = 1000 = (2640 + 3720 + 2520 + 3360 + 3120 + 4320 + 5040
Percentage difference = 1000/3200 × 100 = 31.25% + 3120)/8
59. (c): The highest admissions were in College C for = 3480 million USD
graduate as well postgraduate college. FER in 2016–17 = 4320 million USD

M07_MADAN 04_65901_C07.indd 26 21/12/22 11:27 AM

 Data Interpretation
According to the question, let’s assume FER for
2016–17 = x% of average FER
Thus, 4320 = x% of 3480
x% = 4320/3480 × 100 = 124.1% ∼ 125%
65. (a): As the FER doubled from 2520 in 1993–94 to
5040 in 2017–18, there is an increase of 100%.
Alternatively, it can be calculated very easily.
Increase = 5040 − 2520 = 2520
Increase in percentage = (2520/2520) × 100 = 100%
66. (d): Growth in 2008 = 10,500 – 6300 = 4200 crore
Growth in 2009 = 15,000 – 10,500 = 4500 crore
Growth in 2010 = 25,300 − 15,000 = 10,300 crore
Growth in 2011 = 37,900 – 25,300 = 12,600 crore
67. (d): Percentage growth in 2008 = (4200/6300) × 100
= 66.66%
M07_MADAN 04_65901_C07.indd 27
7.27
Percentage growth in 2009 = (4500/ 10,500) × 100
∼ 43%
Percentage growth in 2010 = (10,300/15,000) × 100
∼ 69%
Percentage growth in 2011 = (12,600/25,300) × 100
∼ 50%
68. (c): Total turnover = 6300 + 10,500 + 15,000 + 25,300
+ 37,900 = 95,000 crore
Average = 95,000/5 = 19,000 crore
69. (b): Increase between 2007 and 2011 = 37,900 – 6300
= 31,600 crore
Percentage growth = 31,600/6300 × 100 = 500%
70. (b): Years 2010 and 2011 witnessed higher than aver-
age sales turnover figures.
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
21/12/22 11:27 AM
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M07_MADAN 04_65901_C07.indd 28 21/12/22 11:27 AM

 CHaPTER Information and
8 Communication
Technology (ICT)

01 Meaning of Information and

Communication Technology

02 ICT: General Abbreviations and

Terminology

LEaRNING
03 Basics of Internet,
oBJECTIVEs Intranet, Email, Audio and
Video conferencing

04 Digital Initiatives in Higher Education

05 ICT and Governance

M08_MADAN 04_65901_C08.indd 1 23/12/22 7:38 PM

 8.2
Introduction
Information and communication technology (ICT) is a
very important topic. We can see that during pandemic
COVID19 situation also, that made us to look to digital
education in a bigger manner. We have a large population,
and in year or so we are going to overtake China to become
number one. The knowledge expansion but limited time
span has compelled us to look at our digital journey more
seriously. We need to achieve our objectives of access,
equity and quality in education with the help of ICT. In
this unit, we are exploring all the aspects.
ICT Basics and Its Link with
Education
UNESCO defines ICT as ‘the scientific, technological and
engineering disciplines and the management technique
used to handle transmit information with men and
machines’.
ICT includes both old and new tools. Old ICT tools
mainly include radio, TV and telephone. New ICT tools
mainly include computers, satellite, wireless technology.
These different tools are now able to work together and
combine to form our networked world.
These conventional and more familiar technologies are
referred under the collective heading of analogue media,
while the newer computer and internet-based technolo-
gies are called the digital media. The differentiation
between the old ICT and the new ICT is subjective to some
extent.
Education has been identified as one of the 12 main
services under General Agreement on Trade in Services
(GATS), which needs to be opened up for free flow
of trade between countries. Knowledge is expected to
become a tradable commodity and it will be essential
for Indian educators to keep pace with the change or
else perish in the face of competition from multinational
forces in all fields of education and learning, including
adult learning.
According to Cross and Adam, the four basic ratio-
nales behind introducing ICT in education are given in
Table 8.1.
According to our main objectives, ICT in education has
three main parts:
1. ICT Education: This refers to the creation of trained
manpower to meet the IT needs of knowledge ­society,
in terms of both software and hardware.
2. ICT-supported Education: This is sometimes termed
multimedia education. Nowadays, many distance
education universities and institutions use ICT to sup-
plement printed study materials. Here, ICT mainly
includes broadcast media such as radio and TV pro-
grammes, audio and video tapes. Multimedia con-
tents such as lessons are offered on CDs.
3. ICT-enabled Education: In this case, a compre-
hensive educational programme is purely delivered
through ICTs.
M08_MADAN 04_65901_C08.indd 2
Chapter 8
Table 8.1  asic Rationales for Introducing IT in
B
Education
Rationale Basis
Social Keeping in view the role that
technology now plays in society,
students need to learn technology
Vocational Now, most jobs require technological
orientation
Catalytic To enhance teaching effectiveness with
the help of technology
Pedagogical To make use of technology in
enhancing learning, flexibility and
efficiency in the course of delivery
In terms of demography, almost half of India’s population
is below 25 years of age, 70% people live in rural areas,
the literacy rate is around 60% and people speak 15
major languages. The demand for education outstrips
the conventional system’s ability to provide it, leaving no
alternative but the use of technology in education. Urban–
rural divide (sometimes termed digital divide) still exists
in terms of access, equity and resources.
Objectives of Using ICT in Higher Education
Now ICT has become a more permanent feature of our
education. The main objectives of using ICT are as follows:
1. Improving access to the system through online
­education
2. Improving the quality of teaching, especially across
remote locations
3. Increasing transparency and strengthening the
­systems, processes and compliance norms in higher
education institutes
4. Measuring the students’ learning participation and
effectiveness
5. Analysing students’ behaviour to maximize their
involvement, optimizing retention and improving
placements
6. Analysing students’ performance, placement, applica-
tion volume, website analytics and social media met-
rics for brand audit
Strengths and L imitations of ICTs
Strengths of ICT
Some of the strengths of ICTs are as follows:
1. Individualization of Learning: Due to ‘individual-
ization’ of human nature, and complications in soci-
ety, we need ‘customization’ of education. We need
self paced learning.
2. Interactivity: Through interactivity feature, the learner
can relate to the content more effectively, go forward
and backward in the content and start at any point,
depending on prior knowledge and experience. It is
23/12/22 7:38 PM
 Information and Communication Technology (ICT)
not always necessary that the learner should move in a
sequential manner.
3. Distance and Climate Insensitive: Teaching and
learning could be taken out of the conventional edu-
cation system of schools and colleges. This can help in
overcoming geo-climatic conditions also.
4. More Eeconomical, Higher Speed of Delivery and
Wider Reach: This happens with increase in the
number of learners.
5. Multiple Teaching Functions and Diverse
Audiences: Using ICTs, especially computer-and
internet-based technologies, can be useful in ‘drills
and practices’ to help diagnose and solve problems
for accessing information and knowledge about vari-
ous related themes.
6. Uniform quality: With effective ‘ICT’ tools, the same
quality of education can be delivered to the rich and
the poor, the urban and the rural equally at the same
low cost. Thus, ICT has become a great equalizer.
Limitations of ICT
Some of the limitations depend on the use of ICTs:
1. High Infrastructure and Start-up Costs: It costs
money to build ICT systems and to maintain them. The
cost of hardware and software can be very high.
2. Little Attention Towards Individual Differences in
Order to Achieve Economies of Scale: In order to
reduce the cost, the same contents may be delivered
to all. Thus, the basic learning goal of ‘individual dif-
ferences’ may be ignored. That may create a ‘digital
divide’ also where one resourceful section of society
may be benefited more. The others are deprived of
such benefits.
3. Accessibility Issue: Timing of broadcast, electric-
ity supply, socio-cultural ­factors, poverty, illiteracy,
time constraints, mobility and relevance are the key
factors.
4. ICT is Basically a Delivery System: A medium is dif-
ferent from the content. ICTs are essentially meant
only to deliver content and are not expected to initi-
ate major attitudinal or behavioural changes.
5. Difficulty in Performance Evaluation: Learning
from ICTs is usually multidimensional and with
long-term perspective. Thus, it may take longer time
to assess performance in comparison to classroom
assessment which is spontaneous.
6. Continuous Training Requirement: As technologies
change, there is a continuous need to train the train-
ers, which may sometimes be resisted by them. We
need to increase their expertise.
7. Call for Attitudinal Change to Understanding of
Teaching and Learning: ICT is basically a commu-
nication tool rather than face-to-face conversation.
Thus, there is possibility of increase of transactional
distance that we discussed in Unit 3. The potential
threat of plagiarism is high as students can copy
information rather than learn and develop their own
skills.
M08_MADAN 04_65901_C08.indd 3
8.3
Synchronous and A synchronous Media
The ICT media can be divided into two categories.
(a) S
 ynchronous media: This requires all participants
to be together at the same time even when they
are at different locations. The examples are online
chat, instant messaging and video conferencing.
(b) Asynchronous media: This allows participants
in the learning process to be at different times
and at different places. The online learning
resources used to support asynchronous learning
include email, electronic mailing lists, threaded
conferencing systems, online discussion boards,
wikis, blogs, etc.
Stopover
Which of the following communication technologies
employ only asynchronous communication?
(1) Video conferencing
(2) Email
(3) Forums
(4) Instant messaging
Choose the correct option.
(a) (1) and (3)
(b) (2) and (4)
(c) (2) and (3)
(d) (1) and (4)
The correct option is (c).
Major ICT Learning Categories
In view of ICT, education can be classified into three main
categories as follows:
1. E-learning
2. Blended learning
3. Distance learning
In addition, there are face-to-face, self-paced and
online collaborative learning under major ICT learning
categories.
E-learning or Electronic Learning
This happens with Advanced Learning Technologies (ALT).
These tools enhance human learning with advanced net-
worked and multimedia technologies. Distance education
provided the base for e-learning’s development. E-learning
can be ‘on demand’. It overcomes timing, attendance and
travel difficulties and also allows higher participation and
greater interaction.
Blended Learning
It is a combination of multiple approaches to learning.
It is usually used to define a situation where different
delivery methods are combined together to deliver a
particular course. These methods may include a mixture
of face-to-face learning, self-paced learning and online
classrooms.
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 8.4
Face-to-Face Learning
It refers to learning that occurs in a traditional classroom
setting where a faculty member ­delivers instructions to a
group of learners. This could include ­lectures, workshops,
presentations, tutoring, conferences and so on.
Self-paced Learning
It provides the flexibility to learn according to the avail-
ability of learners’ own time and pace. It occurs in a
variety of ways, such as reading specific chapters from a
­textbook, studying the course material presented through
web-based or CD-based courses, attending pre-recorded
classes or sessions, reading articles referred by the fac-
ulty members, working on assignments and projects, and
searching on and browsing the internet.
Online Collaborative Learning
It involves interaction between the learners and the
faculty members through the web. This interaction can
occur synchronous and asynchronous interactions.
Distance Learning
Here the students work on their own at home or at office
and communicate with the faculty and other students
through email, electronic forums, video conferencing,
chat rooms, instant messaging and other forms of
computer-based communication. It is also known as
open learning. World Wide Web (internet), computer
based training (CBT), creation of ‘virtual classrooms’
can help in the process.
The creation of ‘digital libraries’ are also created
with the help of ICTs where the students, teachers and
professionals can access research material and course
material from any place at any time. Such facilities
allow the networking of academics and researchers,
hence such sharing leads to quality enhancement in
teaching and learning.
Stopover
Read the following two statements:
I: Information and Communication Technology
(ICT) is considered a subset of Information Tech-
nology (IT).
II: The ‘right to use’ a piece of software is termed
copyright.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) Both I and II
(b) Neither I nor II
(c) II only
(d) I only
The correct option is (b).
Digital and O ther Initiatives in Higher
Education
We have already discussed MOOC, SWAYAM, SWAYAM
PRABHA, National Digital Library (NDL) etc. in Unit 1.
M08_MADAN 04_65901_C08.indd 4
Chapter 8
The Education Ministry has also taken measures such
as ‘Cashless Campus’ and Digital Financial Literacy of
community by students. Our National Education Policy
2020 is targeting 50 per cent Gross Enrollment. Ratio
(GER) by 2035. The physical expansion of facilities
requires both infrastructural and human resource
limitations. The use of technology becomes imperative
due to the factors such as being affordable, higher quality,
inclusiveness, employability, skilling the unskilled (under
Skill India Mission) etc.
Now we can discuss various initiatives started by gov-
ernment and other agencies to democratize the opportu-
nities of quality education:
1. National Mission on Education through Informa-
tion and Communication Technology (NMEICT):
The NMEICT is a ‘centrally sponsored scheme’ (CSS)
to realize the potential of ICT in teaching learning pro-
cess for the benefit of all the ­learners in higher edu-
cation institutions anytime and anywhere. Content
generation and connectivity along with provision for
access devices for institutions and learners are the
main objectives. Now many universities have been pro-
vided 1 Gbps connectivity and more than 14,000 col-
leges have also been provided virtual private network
(VPN) connectivity.
  A-VIEW software has been developed under the
NMEICT for teacher training. This could become the
basis for successful implementation of the proposed
National Mission on Teachers.
  Under the N-list program of the Information and
Library Network (INFLIBNET) under the NMEICT,
lakhs of e-books and thousands of high-quality paid
e-journals have been made available to colleges and
universities with a view to inculcate research cul-
ture in teachers and students. The model needs to be
scaled up for maximizing coverage and for productive
usage of the available resources.
2. National Programme on Technology Enhanced
Learning (NPTEL): NPTEL is an initiative by seven
Indian Institutes of Technology (IIT Bombay, Delhi,
Guwahati, Kanpur, Kharagpur, Madras and Roorkee)
and Indian Institute of Science (IISc) for creating
course contents in engineering and science. NPTEL
provides E-learning through online Web and Video
courses in Engineering, Science and Humanities
streams. NOC stands for NPTEL Online Certification.
The main benefits of participating in an online
course under NPTEL are:
(a) Students: credit transfer and better resume
(b) Faculty: Refresher courses, AICTE recognized
FDP courses
(c) Working professionals: For upskilling and
reskilling
3. SWAYAM: It is an indigenous (Made in India) IT
MOOCs platform for providing best quality education
that can be accessed by anyone, anytime and anywhere
using the IT system. It was launched by the Government
23/12/22 7:38 PM
 Information and Communication Technology (ICT)
of India to achieve the three cardinal principles of edu-
cation—access, equity and quality. (This topic is dealt
with in detail in Chapter 1.)
4. SWAYAM PRABHA—the 34 educational direct-
to-home (DTH) channels: The SWAYAM PRABHA
has been conceived as the project for telecasting high-
quality educational programmes through 34 DTH
channels on 24×7 basis. Every day, there will be new
content of at least 4 hours which would be repeated
six times a day, allowing students to choose the time
of their convenience. Earlier, the number of channels
was 32.
5. National Digital Library (NDL): A project titled
‘Development of National Digital Library of India,
Towards Building a National Asset’ has been sanctioned
to IIT, Kharagpur under the NMEICT by the Ministry
of Education. A Repository integrates contents from
different Indian Institutional Repositories. There
are more than 60 types of learning resources are
available–books, articles, manuscripts, video lectures,
thesis, etc. NDL is designed to hold content of any
language and provides interface support for 10 most
widely used Indian languages.
  There is development of design and development of
‘OAI-PMH’ Server for Metadata Harvesting, Indexed,
etc.
6. National Academic Depository (NAD): It is an ini-
tiative of the Ministry of Education to facilitate digital
issuance, storage, access and verification of academic
awards issued by academic institutions. NAD is a
unique, innovative and progressive initiative under
‘Digital India’ theme towards achieving digital enable-
ment of the education records. It aspires to make the
vision of Digital Academic Certificates a reality for
every Indian.
7. e-Shodh Sindhu: This is again sponsored by UGC-
INFONET Digital Library Consortium, NLIST and
INDEST-AICTE Consortium. This will provide current
as well as archival access to more than 10,000 core
and peer-reviewed journals, and also bibliographic,
citations and factual databases in different disciplines
from a large number of publishers and aggregators
to its member institutions including centrally-funded
technical institutions, universities and colleges that are
covered under 12(B) and 2(f) Sections of the UGC Act.
INFLIBNET, Gandhinagar is the implementing agency.
8. Virtual labs: The physical distances and lack of other
resources make us unable to perform experiments,
especially when they involve sophisticated instru-
ments. Good teachers are always a scarce resource.
Web-based and video-based courses address the issue
of teaching to some extent. VLs project addresses the
following:
(a) Access to online labs to those engineering col-
leges that lack these lab facilities.
(b) Access to online labs as a complementary facility
to those colleges that already have labs.
Training and skill-set augmentation through
(c) 
workshops and on-site/ online training.
M08_MADAN 04_65901_C08.indd 5
8.5
9. e-Yantra: This is a robotics outreach program funded
by the Ministry of Education and hosted at IIT
Bombay. The main objective is to harness the talent of
young engineers to solve problems using technology
across a variety of domains such as: agriculture, man-
ufacturing, defense, home, smart-city maintenance
and service industries.
  e-Yantra creates projects that aims to train teachers.
The Ministry of Education sees the core skills devel-
oped by the IITB. All the projects and code are avail-
able on the e-Yantra website www.eyantra.org as open
source content.
10. Campus Connectivity: Establishment of 1 Gbps con-
nectivity to universities and 512 kbps broadband con-
nectivity to 20 colleges has been provisioned under
the NMEICT.
  On guidelines from ‘Digital India’ initiative of the
PMO, the Ministry of Education has decided that
university campuses (having 1 Gbps bandwidth) shall
be made Wi-Fi-enabled campuses. All IITs, IIMs, and
NITs have established Wi-Fi campuses. The process
of laying the optical fibre and provision of Wi-Fi in
central universities is currently underway.
11. Talk to a Teacher: Talk to a Teacher, developed by
IIT Bombay, is an initiative of the National Mission
on Education through ICT. It has been funded by the
Ministry of Education to provide free access to a selected
few graduate and postgraduate courses, taught at IIT
Bombay largely by distinguished faculty members and
scholars. It uses A-View collaboration tool developed
by Amrita University for providing virtual classrooms
to the faculty across the country. These courses can be
viewed absolutely free of charge at lower bandwidths
on a personal computer (PC)/laptop that has a head-
phone and internet connection.
12. e-Acharya: e-Acharya is an ‘integrated e-content’
portal developed under NME-ICT. The portal provides
facility to search and browse the learners all learning
materials includes audio, video, textual materials, etc.
through a single interface. The portal cover quality
learning resources from top institutions in the country
in eight subject categories viz Agriculture Science,
Biological Science etc. Contents are mostly provided by
the NCERT.
13. e-Kalpa and e-Yantra: It is combined project of
Minsitry of Education and NMEICT initiative. It creates
Digital-Learning Environment for Design in India.
(a) Digital online content for learning design with
e-learning programs on design
(b) Digital Design Resource Database, including the
craft sector
(c) Social networking for higher learning with col-
laborative learning space for design
(d) Design inputs for products of National the
Mission in Education through ICT
14. Free and Open Source Software for Education
(FOSSEE): This project sanctioned to IIT Bombay has
been promoting the use of open source software in
educational institutions (http://fossee.in). It does this
23/12/22 7:38 PM
 8.6
through instructional material, such as spoken tutori-
als, documentation, such as textbook companions,
awareness programmes, such as conferences, training
workshops and internships. The Textbook Companion
(TBC) is a collection of code for solved examples of
standard textbooks. Scilab and Python TBCs are also on
the cloud.
15. e-VIDWAN: ‘The INFLIBNET’ Centre took the initia-
tive called ‘VIDWAN: Expert Database and National
Researcher Network’ with financial support from
the NMEICT. The main objective is deal with many
research and knowledge issues in a collaborative man-
ner by working with scientists, faculty and research
scientists.
16. Central Cloud Infrastructure: The MHRD under
the NMEICT has awarded a project to IIT Delhi to set
up a robust 24×7-backed data centre, and the activi-
ties have been put up at the National Informatics
Centre (NIC)/National Knowledge Network (NKN)
Data Centre; the cloud is called ‘Baadal’. The IIT
Delhi cloud is hosting e-content and video content of
e-Acharya.
17. Lekhika 2007: It was developed by the Centre for the
Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC) under
India’s IT Ministry and Israel’s FTK Technologies. The
objective of this project is to spread computer literacy
to the masses in India who do not know English.
18. Campus Wide Networking: This can be linked with
https://ernet.in/. The main objective is to integrate
ICT into the learning environment. The focus is to
improve the quality of education and laying a good
foundation at the higher learning institution and
encourage the institution and its affiliated colleges
to share the resources, knowledge content, promo-
tion and implementation of e-governance, faculty
development and exchange of skills.
19. National Knowledge Network (NKN) and Connected
Digital: An initiative has been undertaken to cover
1000 institutions besides providing digital campuses,
video-conference classrooms, wireless hotspots and
laptops/desktops to all students of professional/sci-
ence courses and Wi-Fi connectivity in hostels.
20. Centre for Distance Engineering Education
Program (CDEEP): The CDEEP is an emulated class-
room interaction programme that uses real-time
interactive satellite technology. This was launched by
IIT-Bombay.
21. EDUSAT: The launch of EDUSAT brought satel-
lite connectivity to large parts of rural India. Indira
Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU) is lever-
aging satellite, TV and internet technologies to offer
online courses.
22. IIMs: IIM-C, IIM-B, IIM-K, XLRI and other management
institutes have started offering courses (in association
with private players such as Hughes Global Education,
Reliance, NIIT) after the Distance Education Council
(DEC) allowed them to do so in 2007.
23. Brihaspati: This open source e-learning platform has
been developed by IIT-Kanpur.
M08_MADAN 04_65901_C08.indd 6
Chapter 8
24. Private Players: An increasing number of private
players, such as Hughes Global Education, Manipal
Education Group, Centum Learning, UEI Global and
Shiv Nadar University, on are offering online educa-
tion courses in association with leading central and
state universities that have good ICT infrastructure.
25. Digitization of Books (e-text books): This helps
in the creation of a digital repository of books that
creates a digital learning environment for students.
The digital version of the books embedded with
text and pictures along with video, simulations and
visualizations helps students learn the concepts in
an interactive way. NMEICT has plans to generate
new online course contents for UG, PG and doctoral
education.
26. Content Delivery Using IT/ICT: Higher educa-
tion is purely a content-driven play, in which educa-
tional content is delivered through innovative use of
ICT. There is an increased trend in higher education
institutes to render content through radio, TV and
satellite.
27. Open Education Resources: Many Indian universi-
ties are contemplating technology-enabled free access
to educational resources. The All India Council for
Technical Education-Indian National Digital Library
in Engineering and Technology (AICTE-INDEST) is
a consortium set up by the Ministry of Education to
enhance greater access and generate annual savings
in access of bibliographic databases. The UGC has also
launched its Digital Library Consortium to provide
access to peer-reviewed journals and bibliographic
databases covering subjects such as arts, humanities,
technology and sciences. The AICTE-INDEST and
Digital Library Consortium can be called e-journal
consortia.
28. Virtual Technical University (VTU): The National
Mission on Education through ICT is working hard to
establish a VTU to impart training to UG/PG students
along with new teachers. It focuses on science, technol-
ogy, management and other related areas.
29. Gyan Darshan: Launched in 2000, Gyan Darshan
is a joint effort of IGNOU and the IITs. It is a bouquet
of channels that broadcasts educational programmes
for schoolkids, university students and adults. The
courses are contributed by IGNOU, UGC Consortium
for Educational Communication (UGC-CEC), IITs and
so on. CEC is an inter-university centre of the UGC.
30. Gyan Vani: It is a bouquet of frequency modulation
(FM) radio channels that broadcasts programmes
contributed by institutions such as IGNOU and the
IITs. Under the UGC Countrywide Classroom initia-
tive, education programmes are telecast on Gyan
Darshan and Doordarshan’s National Channel (DD1)
every day.
31. e-Gyankosh: It is a knowledge repository launched by
IGNOU in 2005 which aims at storing and preserving
digital learning resources. Almost 95% of IGNOU’s
printed material has been digitized and uploaded on
the repository.
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 Information and Communication Technology (ICT) 8.7

32. Education and Research Network (ERNET): It is pro- The key challenges in our higher education system are as
moted by the Department of Information Technology. follows:
It provides communication infrastructure and services
1. Lack of desired level of knowledge and technology
to academic research institutions in India. It has under-
readiness
taken networking projects, such as AICTE-Net, Indian
2. Poor implementation
Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR)-Net and UGC-
3. Linguistic barriers
Infonet to provide internet and intranet facilities.
33. Sakshat Portal: Launched in 2006, Sakshat is a one-
stop education portal for addressing all the educa- Stopover
tion and learning-related needs of students, scholars, 1. Virtual education refers to imparting instructions in a
teachers and lifelong learners. It has been developed learning environment where the teacher and the stu-
at IGNOU. The portal was developed by the NIC and dents are separated by
provides links to vast knowledge resources, educa- (a) Time only
tional news, examination alerts, sample papers and (b) Space only
other useful links that are available on the web. It has (c) Both (a) and (b)
an in-built repository of educational resources and (d) None of the above
online testing facility.
34. GRID GARUDA: It is India’s first national grid bring- The correct option is (c).
ing together the academic, scientific and research 2. Which of the following can be termed the digital
communities for developing their data and other library for education?
applications. It is connected with the NKN. (a) Swayam
35. Shruti-Drishti: It is basically created for the visually (b) MOOC
impaired women’s empowerment (VIWE). (c) NPTEL
36. Consortium for Educational Communi­ cation: (d) Sakshat
It has been tasked with the creation of e-content for 87 The correct option is (c).
undergraduate courses. The UGC has cleared a proposal
3. Consider the following statements:
to publish e-content for 77 postgraduate courses (PGC).
I: The initiative is a collaboration of the scientific,
37. DIKSHA: This platform offers engaging learning
engineering and academic community to carry
material, relevant to the prescribed school curriculum,
out research and experimentation on a nation-
to teachers, students and parents. We can download
wide grid of computational nodes.
the DIKSHA app and scan QR codes in our textbooks
II: It is a mass storage that aims to provide the
for easy access to all of our lessons. This can be linked
distributed data and compute intensive high-
with NCERT also, called as Diksha-NCERT.
performance computing solutions for the 21st
38. E-Pathshala: This has been developed by NCERT
century.
for showcasing and disseminating all educational
III: 
The Department of Information Technology has
e-resources including textbooks, audio, video, peri-
funded the Center for Development of Advanced
odicals and a variety of other print and non-print
Computing to deploy the nationwide computational
materials through website and mobile app.
grid.
39. Samagra Shiksha, a PRABANDH System: This is
IV: The availability of this efficient, high-speed
meant to leverage technology to enhance efficiency
(multi-gigabit) network makes the backbone of
and manage the implementation of newly launched
National Knowledge Network.
Centrally Sponsored Integrated Scheme for School
Education. This has many programmes for girl edu- Which of the following programmes is being referred
cation. It wants to bridge gender and social category through these statements?
gaps at school level. (a) SWAYAM
40. Vidya Lakshmi: This is a first of its kind portal for (b) GRID GARUDA
students seeking Education Loan. This portal has (c) MOOC
been developed under the guidance of Department of (d) NPTEL
Financial Services (Ministry of Finance), Department The correct option is (b).
of Higher Education (Ministry of Education) and
Indian Banks Association (IBA).
41. Education and Research Network (ERNET): This Social Learning–Web 1.0, Web 2.0 and Web 3.0
is an autonomous scientific society of the MeITY. The technological learning of society helps in making
ERNET has made an important contribution to the better citizens and its economy do better. The
emergence of networking in the country. This practi- understanding of Web 1.0, Web 2.0 and Web 3.0 gives us
cally brought the Internet to India. This has built up the idea how technological flows have taken flow in the
national capabilities in the area of net-working, espe- past two to three decades.
cially in protocol software engineering. It is the first Web 1.0: This refers to the first stage of the World Wide
internet service in India. Web evolution. The following were the main features:

M08_MADAN 04_65901_C08.indd 7 23/12/22 7:38 PM

 8.8 Chapter 8

1. Static pages Under Web 3.0, we can speak about ‘metaverse’

2. Content served from the server’s file system technology in future. Metaverse forms a bridge
3. Pages built using Server Side Includes or Common between the real and virtual worlds. The metaverse
Gateway Interface (CGI) is a concept of a persistent, online, 3D universe that
4. Frames and Tables used to position and align the ele- combines multiple different virtual spaces. To them,
ments on a page Internet is the only reality.
Web 2.0: This refers to world wide website that high- The Main Differences between Web 1.0, Web 2.0 and
lights user-generated content, usability and interoper- Web 3.0:
ability for end users. It is also called participative social
web. The web browser technologies are used in Web Web 1.0 Web 2.0 Web 3.0
2.0 development and they include AJAX and JavaScript
frameworks. Mostly read-only Wildly Portable and
With time, Learning Management Systems (LMS) read-write personal
such as Blackboard, Sakai, Moodle or Web Course Tools Company focus Community Individual focus
(WebCT) have become course-centred and teacher- focus
driven. Mobile phones have become more integrated with
learning. Home pages Blogs/Wikis Live-streams/
Five major features of Web 2.0 are as follows: Waves
1. Free sorting of information, with permission to Owning content Sharing Consolidating
retrieve and classify the information collectively content content
2. Dynamic contents and a participative society.
3. Information flows by means of evaluation and online Web forms Web Smart
commenting applications applications
4. Developed APIs to allow self-usage
Directories Tagging User behaviour
5. Shift to wider variety of users
The eight major tools are–Podcasting, Blogging, Tagging, Page views Cost per click User
Curating with RSS, Social bookmarking, Social network- engagement
ing, Social media, Web content voting. Banner Interactive Behavioural
Web 3.0: This refers to the evolution of web utilization
Advertising Advertising Advertising
and interaction which includes altering the web into a
database. It enables the upgradation of back end of the Britannica online Wikipedia The Semantic
web. In this, data is not owned but instead shared, where Web
services show different views for the same web/the same
data. HTML/portals XML/RSS RDF/RDFS/OWL
The following are the unique features for Web 3.0.
1. Semantic Web: It helps to create, share and connect Stopover
content through search and analysis based on the
capability to comprehend the meaning of words. 1. Consider the following statements
2. Artificial Intelligence: They become more intelligent Assertion (A): The Semantic Web is a collaborative
to fulfil the requirements of users. movement led by international standards body the
3. 3D graphics: Museum guides, computer games, World Wide Web Consortium.
ecommerce, geospatial contexts, etc. Reason (R): The Semantic Web provides a com-
4. Connectivity: The user experience evolves to another mon framework that allows data to be shared and
level of connectivity that leverages all the available reused across application, enterprise, and community
information. boundaries.
5. Ubiquity: Content is accessible by multiple applica- (a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation.
tions; every device is connected to the web; the ser- (b) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation.
vices can be used everywhere. (c) A is not correct but R is the correct statement.
6. Blockchain and Metaverse: There have been a ques- (d) Both A and R are incorrect.
tion on blockchain in NET JRF exam. Under Web 3.0,
we all know about bitcoin, a cryptocurrency that is The correct answer is (a).
fungible. That is based on blockchain. Linked with 2. Which of the following is a characteristic of Web 2.0
it is the Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs) that represents applications?
a unique asset like a piece of art, digital content or (a) Multiple users schedule their time to use Web 2.0
media. Apart from bitcoin, the other examples of applications one by one.
cryptocurrencies are ethereum, hyperledger, doge- (b) Web 2.0 applications are focused on the ability of
coin, shiba inu. people to collaborate and share information online.

M08_MADAN 04_65901_C08.indd 8 23/12/22 7:38 PM

 Information and Communication Technology (ICT) 8.9

(c) Web 2.0 applications provide users with content According to Function
rather than facilitating users to create it. Computers are of the following types according to their
(d) Web 2.0 applications use only static pages. function.
The correct option is (b).
Analogue Computers
Analogue computers are those in which data varies con-
Basic Computer Terms tinuously, that is, the movement of data is continuous.
These are generally meant to measure physical variables,
A computer is a programmable machine. The two prin- such as voltage, pressure, temperature and speed. These
cipal characteristics of a computer are: It responds to are mainly used for communication and broadcast trans-
a specific set of instructions in a well-defined manner mission.
and it can execute a pre-recorded list of instructions If instead of computer types, we take the basis of ‘sig-
(a ­program). nals’, the examples are thermometer, old radio, mega-
Modern computers are electronic and digital. The phone, old landline telephone sets, old stereo systems.
actual machinery—wires, transistors and circuits —is When we increase the sound of stereo system, that
called hardware; the instructions and data are called increases slowly and gradually. They were mostly used
software. before 1995.
The characteristics of computers that have made
them so powerful and universally useful are speed, Digital Computers
accuracy, diligence, versatility and storage capacity.
The hardware and software components have been Digital computers are those computers in which data flows
discussed after the types of computers. in a discrete form. These are high-speed ­programmable
electronic devices that perform mathematical calcula-
Classification of Computers tions, compare values and store the results. These use
Computers are classified according to (i) ­ generation, binary number system in which there are only two dig-
(ii) function, and (iii) size and configuration (Figure 8.1). its, 0 and 1 (each is called a bit). The digital computer
is designed using digital circuits in which there are two
According to Generation levels for an input or output signal. These two levels are
Generation refers to the time period during which a com- known as logic 0 and logic 1. Digital computers provide
puter was developed. The different generations of com- more accurate and faster results. The origin of this can be
puter are given in Table 8.2. traced to the ‘Morse code’.
Digital computers are better suited for solving complex
problems in science, engineering and technology. Hence,
they are increasingly used in the field of design, research
Classification of computers and data processing.
Based on their purpose, digital computers can be fur-
ther classified as follows:
Function Size and Generation 1. General-purpose computers
­configuration 2. Special-purpose computers
General-purpose computers are used for any type of appli-
First cations. Most computers are general-purpose computers.
Analogue Super
generation A special-purpose computer is one that is built for a spe-
cific application.
Digital Mainframe Second
generation Hybrid Computers
A hybrid computer combines the desirable features of
Hybrid Mini frame
Third analogue and digital computers. It combines the speed
generation of analogue computers and the accuracy of digital com-
Workstations puters. Now, analogue-to-digital and digital-to-analogue
converters are used for transforming data into suitable
Fourth form for either type of computation.
generation For example, in a hospital’s intensive care unit
Micro
(ICU), analogue devices might measure a patient’s
Fifth temperature and blood pressure. These analogue mea-
generation surements may then be converted into numbers and
supplied to digital components in the system for better
Figure 8.1 Types of Computers According monitoring. Hybrid computers are mainly used for spe-
to Operations cialized tasks.

M08_MADAN 04_65901_C08.indd 9 23/12/22 7:38 PM

 8.10 Chapter 8

Table 8.2 Computer Generation: Comparison

Generation Device Hardware Features Characteristics System Names

First • Vacuum tubes • Support machine language • ENIAC

(1942–59) • Punch cards only • EDVAC
• Very costly • TBM 701
• Generate lot of heat
• Huge size
• Consumed lot of electricity

Second • Transistors • Batch operating system • Honeywell 400

(1959–65) • Magnetic tapes • Faster, smaller and reliable • CDC 1604
than previous generation • IBM 7030
• Costly

Third • ICs • Time sharing OS • IBM 360/370

(1965–75) • Large-capacity disk and • Faster, smaller, reliable • CDC 6600
magnetic tapes and cheaper • PDP 8/11
• Easier to update

Fourth • ICs with VLSI technology • Multiprocessing and GUI OS • Apple II

(1975–88) • Semiconductor memory • Object-oriented programs • VAX 9000
• Magnetic tapes and floppy • Small, affordable, easy • CRAY 1/2
as portable to use
• Easier to update

Fifth • ICs with ULSI technology • Powerful, cheaper, reliable, • IBM

(1988 to present) • Large-capacity hard disk easy to use, portable • Pentium
with RAID support • Rapid software • PARAM
• Optical disks as portable development possible
read-only storage media
• Powerful servers, internet,
cluster computing

According to Size and Configuration
There are four different types of computers which are
classified based on their size and configuration. These are
discussed in the subsequent paragraphs.
Supercomputers
They are mostly used for applications that require inten-
sive numerical computations, such as stock analysis,
weather forecasting, nuclear energy research, electronic
design and analysing geological data. They can process
billions of instructions per second. The best known super-
computer manufacturer is Cray Research. Some of the
companies that produce supercomputers are Cray, IBM
and HP. PARAM is India’s first supercomputer.
PARAM Supercomputers: PARAM is a series of super-
computers designed and assembled by the Centre for
Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC) under
Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
(MeITY). PARAM means “supreme” in the Sanskrit lan-
guage, whilst also creating an acronym for “PARAllel
Machine. The C-DAC is headquartered in Pune. PARAM
8000 was the first super computer in the serirs and
PARAM Pravega is the latest one developed in January,
2022.
Mainframe Computers
Mainframe computers can also process data at very high
speeds (in million instructions per second, shortly termed
‘MIPS’). They are large-sized, powerful, multi-user
­computers that can support concurrent programs. They
can accommodate more than 1000 workstations simul-
taneously. Normally, they are used in banking, airlines,
railways and so on for their applications.
The technique that allows many people at the termi-
nals to access the same computer concurrently is called
time sharing.
Minicomputers
Minicomputers have lesser speed and storage capacity in
comparison to mainframe computers. Hence, their per-
formance is also less than that of mainframes. They are
mid-sized multiprocessing computers. They can perform
several actions at the same time and can support 4–200

M08_MADAN 04_65901_C08.indd 10 23/12/22 7:38 PM

 Information and Communication Technology (ICT)
users simultaneously. Some of the features of main-
frames are not available in minicomputers.
In recent years, the distinction between minicomputers
and small mainframes has blurred. Often the distinction
depends on how the manufacturer wants to market his/
her machine.
Workstations
Workstations are powerful, single-user computers. They
have the capacity to store and process large quantities of
data, but they can be used only by one person at a time.
They are typically linked together to form a computer
network called a local area network (LAN), in which
several people, such as staff in an office, can communi-
cate with each other and share electronic files and data.
In terms of computing power, workstations lie between
personal computers and minicomputers. Workstations
commonly support applications that require relatively
high-quality graphics capabilities and a lot of memory,
such as desktop publishing, software development and
engineering applications.
A workstation is similar to a personal computer but is
more powerful and often comes with a higher quality
monitor.
Microcomputers
A microcomputer is also called a PC. It is a small and
relatively inexpensive computer, commonly consist-
ing of a display screen, a keyboard, a central process-
ing unit (CPU), one or more disk drives and a printer,
with limited storage and based on a microprocessor. It is
designed for an individual user.
The invention of microprocessor (single-chip CPU)
gave birth to much cheaper microcomputers. They are
further classified into the following processors:
1. Desktop computers
2. Laptop computers
3. Handheld computers (PDAs)
Computer Hardware
It is the physical equipment required to create, use,
manipulate and store electronic data. The hardware
Central processing unit
Arithmetic
logic unit
Input unit
Main
memory
Secondary
storage
Figure 8.2 Main CPU Components
M08_MADAN 04_65901_C08.indd 11
8.11
of a computer system can be classified into CPU and
peripherals.
Central Processing Unit (CPU)
CPU is a microprocessor that controls the execution of
program instructions (microprocessor is programmable
while integrated circuits or ICs perform predetermined
tasks only). The CPU performs the following functions:
1. Arithmetic operations
2. Logical operations
3. Input/output operations
4. Data manipulations
Main CPU Components
To carry out the functions as mentioned earlier, the CPU
has the following components (Figure 8.2):
1. Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU): It performs various
calculations, such as addition, subtraction, division,
multiplication and comparison.
2. Control Unit (CU): It coordinates the operation
of hardware, the flow and execution of data and
instructions that are fed into memory or main storage
through CPU.
3. Memory Unit (main storage): It holds data instruc-
tions, intermediate results and final results that are
ready for output. The data and instructions are passed
from the main store into ALU or to and from the storage
device under the control of CU.
  CPU Scheduling: This is required to complete job on
time. This CPU process allows one process to use the
CPU while other process is on standby mode (delayed)
due to unavailability of any resources such as I / O etc.
Thus, we are able to make full use of the CPU. This
makes the system more efficient, faster, and fairer. This
can be done on the basis of ‘First In First Out (FIFO)’,
‘Last In First Out’ (LIFO), ‘Shortest Job First’ (SJF). In
Round Robin concept, the algorithm uses ‘time sharing’.
  Now, computers hold megabytes or even gigabytes
of data. A megabyte is a unit of 1 ­million bytes, a giga-
byte is 1 billion bytes and a terabyte is 1 trillion bytes.
If a computer has a memory of 64 megabytes, then it
can hold 64 million bytes of information.
Control unit Output unit
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 8.12 Chapter 8

Set of Registers Storage Devices

Within  a CPU,  there are a number of high-speed, special-
purpose memory units called registers. These registers
carry out critical functions in the execution of programs.
They are used for storing small information.
Motherboard
The computer’s main circuit board contains the CPU, the
memory and expansion slots for additional circuit boards
known as adapters or cards.
Buses
They are a set of parallel wires for connecting the CPU of a
computer to all other input–output devices. The data can
be transmitted in two directions, from and to the CPU.
Peripheral Devices
A peripheral device is any device that can be connected
to a computer. This term includes monitors, keyboards,
mouse, webcams, drawing pads, joystick, modems, print-
ers, scanners, interactive whiteboards, drive wheel and
so on.
I nput Devices
Any device that is capable of inputting information into
a computer system, for example, keyboard, microphone,
mouse, scanner and webcam, is known as an input
device.
O utput Devices
The output devices are basically meant for anything that
comes out of a computer after being processed. They
include the monitor, headphone, printers, speakers, plot-
ters and visual display units (VDUs).
Computer data storage, often known as memory, refers
to the computer components and recording media which
retain the digital data. Memory refers to the temporary
internal storage areas within a computer. The term mem-
ory is usually used as a shorthand for physical memory
and refers to the actual chips ­capable of holding data.
Some computers also use virtual memory, which expands
physical memory onto a hard drive.
Size of the Memory
Memory is the part of a computer which stores informa-
tion. A computer has different types of memories that bal-
ance the functions of speed and cost (Figure 8.3):
1. Cache memory: It is the volatile computer memory
which is closest to the CPU memory. The access time
of data is less than that of main memory. All the
recent instructions are stored into the cache memory.
It is the fastest memory that provides high-speed data
access to a computer microprocessor. The capacity of
cache memory is too low in comparison to memory
Random Access Memory (RAM) and hard disk. Now
microprocessors contain the cache memory on the
chip itself, earlier that was not the case.
2. Random Access Memory (RAM): It is also termed
the main memory. It is the temporary memory (vola-
tile) that allows information to be stored randomly
and accessed quickly and directly (without the need
to go through intervening data).
  A computer can both write data into and read data
from RAM. Every time a user turns on his/her com-
puter, a set of operating instructions is copied from
the hard disk into RAM. These instructions, which

Bytes Internal
CPU
Registers Memory
Volatile
Cache
kB/MB Memory
Faster (SRAM)
access Primary
GB Main Memory (RAM)
Higher (DRAM) Memory
capacity and
economical GB USB/Flash Memory
(EEPROM) Secondary
Storage
TB
Magnetic Disk/Hard Disk
Non-volatile

PB/EB Tertiary
Magnetic Tapes/Tape drives
Storage

Figure 8.3 Memory Hierarchy

M08_MADAN 04_65901_C08.indd 12 23/12/22 7:38 PM

 Information and Communication Technology (ICT)
help control the basic computer functions, remain in
RAM until the computer is turned off. As soon as the
power is turned off, whatever data is present in the
RAM disappears.
3. Read-Only Memory (ROM): It is the permanent
memory of a computer. A set of instructions is built
into the computer by the manufacturer and cannot be
accessed or changed by the user. It permits the user
to only read data. Computers always contain a small
amount of ROM that holds instructions for starting up
the computer.
4. Programmable Read-Only Memory (PROM):
A PROM is a memory chip in which you can store a
program. Once the PROM has been used, you cannot
wipe it clean and use it to store something else. Like
ROMs, PROMs are non-volatile.
5. Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory
(EPROM): An EPROM is a special type of PROM that
can be erased by exposing it to ultraviolet light.
6. Electrically Erasable Programmable Read-only
Memory (EEPROM): An EEPROM is a special type of
PROM that can be erased by exposing it to an electri-
cal charge. It is also termed flash memory.
Stopover
Which of the following correctly lists computer mem-
ory types from highest to lowest speed?
(a) Secondary Storage; Main Memory (RAM); Cache
Memory; CPU Registers
(b) 
CPU Registers; Cache Memory; Secondary
Storage; Main Memory (RAM)
(c) 
CPU Registers; Cache Memory; Main Memory
(RAM); Secondary Storage
(d) 
Cache Memory; CPU Registers; Main Memory
(RAM); Secondary Storage
The correct option is (c).
Memory is also classified as (a) primary storage and
(b) secondary storage(Figure 8.4).
MEMORY
MEMORY
Primary (Volatile Memory)
ROM RAM
PROM
EPROM
EEPROM SRAM DRAM
Figure 8.4 Types of Memory
M08_MADAN 04_65901_C08.indd 13
8.13
(a) Primary Storage: It consists of RAM and ROM. In
primary memory, data is not stored permanently but
stored temporarily. After accessing the i­nformation,
the data is erased from the memory of the computer.
Such types of data are considered short-term memory.
(b) Secondary Storage: This ‘auxiliary’ storage is the slowest
and the cheapest form of memory. It cannot be processed
directly by the CPU and must be copied first into primary
storage (RAM). The main secondary memory devices
are magnetic disks, such as hard drives and floppy disks,
optical disks such as CDs and CD-ROMs, and magnetic
tapes, and they were actually the first forms of second-
ary memory. In computer disk storage, any sector is a
subdivision of a track on a magnetic disk or optical disk.
Each sector stores a fixed amount of user-accessible data,
traditionally consisting of 512 bytes for hard drives and
2048 bytes for CD-ROMs and DVD-ROMs.
Memory can be of following types as well:
1. Volatile memory is the type of computer memory that
is temporary in nature. It stores the data inside it only
until the power is supplied.
2. Non-volatile memory is the type of computer memory
that is permanent in nature. The data stored in such
kind of memory remains there even after the system
is turned off.
The storage devices can be divided into two
categories:
  (i) Internal: They reside within a computer. Hard disk is
an example of a magnetic disk in which the computer
data can be stored. They usually hold more data and
are conventionally faster.
(ii) External: They are portable and are usually used as
removable storage devices. USB flash drive (com-
monly termed pen drive), CD, digital video disk
(DVD) and Blu-ray Disc are certain examples.
USB flash drives look like a small flat pen. They may have
large storage capacity and can be plugged into any com-
puter with a USB socket. Flash drives are also commonly
referred to as pen drives or memory sticks.
Secondary (Non-volatile memory)
HDD
FDD
DVD
Pen drive
23/12/22 7:38 PM
 8.14
Hard Device Disk and Solid State Drive (HDDs and
SDDs): As buyers we look for optimum utilization of
resources. Both SSDs and HDDs are storage devices, we
invented them long time ago, but their ‘pricing’ aspect led
to late adoption of SSD. Technologically SSD is preferred
over HDD.
HDD: HDD consists of a series of platters covered by a fer-
romagnetic coating. The system is basically ‘mechanical’,
the hard disk is the slowest and most ‘fragile’ component
of any computer. It is ‘more economical’ in comparison to
SSD. It is best for storing extra data, such as movies, pho-
tos and documents.
SSDs: are newer types of disks that store information on
‘flash memory’, which consists of individual memory cells
storing bits that are instantly accessible by the control-
ler. SDD is faster, it may have shorter lifespan, it is more
expensive, it is shock resistant. SSD is best for storing
operating systems, gaming apps and frequently used files.
Booting: This is the process of starting a computer. This
may be started by hardware (such as by pressing a but-
ton) or simply by a software command. When a system is
switched on, a CPU has no software in its main memory,
so some processes must load software into memory before
execution. This may be done by hardware / firmware in
CPU. This may also be done by a separate processor in the
computer system.
Rebooting: This is basically restarting a computer that
can be done in two ways. The ‘hard’ rebooting is done
after electrical power to the CPU is switched from off to
on. The “soft” means where the power is not cut.
Stopover
1. The process of copying files to a CD-ROM is known as
(a) Burning
(b) Zipping
(c) Digitizing
(d) Ripping
The correct option is (a).
2. Consider the following statements:
1. Use of flash memory to deliver superior perfor-
mance and durability
2. Without moving parts, are more durable, run
cooler and use less energy
3. Can be thought of as large USB drives
Which of the technology is being referred in this case?
(a) Hard Disk Drive
(b) Solid State Drive
(c) Non-flash Drive
(d) None of the above
The correct option is (b).
Computer Software
Software is a set of programs, procedures, algorithms and
associated documents that provide instructions to a com-
puter by ordering what to do, when to do and how to do.
M08_MADAN 04_65901_C08.indd 14
Chapter 8
When software is stored in a hardware that cannot be
easily modified (such as BIOS, ROM in a PC), it is called a
firmware, which indicates that it falls into an area some-
where between the software and the hardware.
System Software
System software provides the basic functions for com-
puter usage and helps to run the computer hardware and
system.
It includes a combination of devices, drivers, oper-
ating systems (OSs), servers and utilities. It manages
the hardware devices. It is also responsible for resource
allocation. The OS and utility software are the two
major categories of system software.
Types of System Software
1. Compilers: They convert the source code (written
in a programming language) into another computer
language called object code. The examples are ALGOL
compilers, BASIC compilers, C++ compilers and
FORTRAN compilers.
2. Operating System (OS): An OS controls all other
resources of a computer system. It can be 16-bit,
32-bit or 64-bit.
The main categories of operating system are as follows:
(a) Unix/BSD: Unix system V, AIX, HP-UX, Solaris, IRIX,
BSD Distros
(b) GNU/Linux: Linux, Google Chrome OS
(c) Windows: 2000, XP, Vista, 7, CE
(d) Mac OS: Mac OS X
(e) Embedded and real-time OS
(f) Experimental: Oberon/Bluebottle, Amoeba, Plan 9
(Bell Labs)
Windows was developed in 1985 as an add-on to
MS-DOS in response to the growing interest in graphical
user interfaces (GUIs). Mac OS was the previous OS that
used a GUI. The most recent client version of Windows
after Vista is Windows 10.
Linux was developed by Linus Torvalds. It is a freely
available multi-tasking and multi-user OS. Since the
very beginning, Linux was placed under General Public
License (GPL).
Utility Software
It is a system software designed to help, analyse, monitor,
configure and optimize settings and maintain the com-
puter. Skins that customize the media player’s looks and
DVD burners are examples of utility software.
Some utility software that is frequently used is classi-
fied as follows:
1. Antivirus Software: Antivirus is a protective s­ oftware
designed to defend a computer against malicious soft-
ware (malware).
2. Desktop Widgets: Widgets are virtual tools that pro-
vide single-purpose vehicles showing the latest news,
time, calendar, dictionary, map, calculator and so on.
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 Information and Communication Technology (ICT)
3. Backup Software: The backup software are backup
files, cleaning up hard disk and shredding files.
Examples are Windows Backup and Restore Centre
and Net Backup by Symantec.
Application Software
It helps the user perform singular or multiple related
tasks. It can be further classified into the following:
1. Productivity Software: Examples are word proces-
sors, spread sheets, schedulers, DBMS, desktop pub-
lishing, ERP, Mozilla Firefox
2. Collaborative software: These are also referred to
as groupware software. The examples are Facebook
application and Etherpad.
Software can be either proprietary (also called closed)
or open. Proprietary software is privately owned and
controlled. The specifications of such software are not
divulged in order to prevent other companies from dupli-
cating it.
The users usually prefer using open software, which is
publicly accessible. Anyone can create add-on products
for it because one can understand how it was designed.
Freeware is a software that can be copied and used with-
out payment to the author(s), although there may be
some restrictions on distribution.
Stopover
Which of the following is an open source software?
(a) MS Word
(b) Windows
(c) Mozilla Firefox
(d) Acrobat Reader
The correct option is (c).
Levels of P rogramming Languages
These are the rules, conventions and specific commands
that are used to write a computer program. Most programs
must be converted into machine language or binary code
so that the instructions can be performed on a specific
computer platform.
1. Machine Language: This is the first generation
and also the only language that is understood by a
computer. Each statement in a machine language
program is a sequence of bits. Each bit may be set to 0
or 1. While easily understood by ­computers, machine
languages are the most difficult for humans to put to
use. They are entirely compiled by binary numbers.
Programmers, therefore, use either a high-level
programming language or an assembly language.
2. Assembly Language: This is known as second-
generation language. It is also called as ‘symbolic
machine code’. It contains the same instructions as
machine language, but the instructions and variables
have names instead of just numbers. The advantage
of assembly language is that its instructions are
M08_MADAN 04_65901_C08.indd 15
8.15
readable. For example, assembly language state-
ments such as MOV and ADD are more recognizable
than sequences of 0’s and 1’s.
3. High-level Language (HLL): HLL are what most
programmers use. Languages such as C++ and Java
are HLLs. One advantage of HLLs is that they are
very ­readable. The statements in these languages
are in English. Programs written in HLLs are trans-
lated into assembly language or machine language
by a compiler. Assembly ­language programs are
translated into machine language by a program
called an assembler.
Every CPU has its own unique machine language.
Programs must be rewritten or recompiled to run on dif-
ferent types of computers.
First-and second-generation computers are identified
as ‘low-level languages’ and third-fourth-and fifth-gener-
ation computers as ‘HLL’.
Program
A program is a set of instructions for performing a par-
ticular task. These instructions are just like English words.
The computer interprets the instructions as 1’s and 0’s. A
program can be written in assembly language as well as in
HLL. This written program is called the source program.
The source program is to be ­converted into machine lan-
guage, which is called an object program. A translator is
required for such translation.
Language Processors
1. Assembler: This language processor converts the
program written in assembly language into machine
language.
2. Interpreter: This language processor converts a HLL
program into machine language by converting it line-
by-line. If there is any error in any line, then it reports
it at the same time, and program execution cannot
resume until the error is rectified.
3. Compiler: It also converts the HLL program into
machine language. It converts the entire HLL pro-
gram in one go and reports all the errors of the pro-
gram along with the line numbers. After all the errors
are removed, the program is recompiled and after
that, the compiler is not needed in the memory as the
object program is available.
How Does a Computer Process
Information?
When data is entered into a computer, the numbers or
words we understand are translated into a binary number
system (Figure 8.5). Binary language is the language of
computers.
Everything you type, input, output, send, retrieve,
draw and so on, in the end, is converted to the computer’s
native language, that is binary.
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 8.16 Chapter 8

Binary N umber System
Formally, we all know that base-10 system is a positional
system.
In decimal notation, we write a number as a string of
symbols, where each symbol is one of these 10 digits, and
to interpret a decimal number, we multiply each digit by
the power of 10 associated with that digit’s position.
The binary system uses only two symbols, 0 and 1, to
represent values.
Computers are built from transistors and an individual
transistor can only be ON or OFF (two options).
Thus, the values in a binary system, such as 0’s and
1’s, are called binary digits or bits. Computers use base 2
because they can recognize only two values, 1 or 0.

Given a decimal number, convert it to binary

Decimal number Binary number

Given a binary number, convert it to decimal

Figure 8.5

For example, consider a decimal number ‘6249’. The unit position of this number is illustrated as shown in Figure 8.6.

6 2 4 9 = 6 ⋅ 103 + 2 ⋅ 102 + 4 ⋅ 101 + 9 ⋅ 100

103 102 101 100

position position position position
(thousand’s position) (hundred’s position) (ten’s position) (one’s position)

Figure 8.6 Conversion of Binary into Decimal and Vice versa

We can consider binomial number 11012 and see how this can changed into decimal number (Figure 8.7).

1 1 0 1 = 1 ⋅ 23 + 1 ⋅ 22 + 0 ⋅ 21 + 1 ⋅ 20 = 1310

23 22 21 20
position position position position
(eight’s position) (four’s position) (two’s position) (one’s position)

Figure 8.7 Conversion of Binary into Decimal and Vice versa

Example 1 We are solving this first question in a detailed manner.

Find the decimal value of 1110012 Step 1: Perform the successive MOD operation by 2
for the given decimal number 294 and note down the
Binary number 1 1 1 0 0 1 remainder (either 0 or 1) for each operation. The last
Power of 2: 25
2 4
23
22 21
20 remainder is the most significant bit (MSB) and the
first remainder is the least significant bit (LSB).
We can put the solution in the following form also:
1110012 = 1 × 25 + 1 × 24 + 1 × 23 + 0 × 22 + 0 × 21 + 294/2 = 147: Remainder is 0 → LSB
1 × 20 = 5710 147/2 = 73: Remainder is 1
73/2 = 36: Remainder is 1
Example 2 36/2 = 18: Remainder is 0
Convert the decimal number 29410 into its binary equiv- 18/2 = 9: Remainder is 0
alent. 9/2 = 4: Remainder is 1

M08_MADAN 04_65901_C08.indd 16 23/12/22 7:38 PM

 Information and Communication Technology (ICT) 8.17

4/2 = 2: Remainder is 0 4. Hexadecimal Number System: Base of this number

1/2 = 0: Remainder is 1 → MSB system is 16, that is, 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 A B C D E F.
Step 2: Write the remainders from MSB to LSB, providing
the equivalent binary number: Decimal Number Binary Number
29410 = 101001102 0 0000
Example 3 1 0001
Convert 17410 to its binary equivalent.
2 0010
Division Quotient Remainder 3 0011
174/2 87 0 4 0100
87/2 43 1 5 0101
43/2 21 1
6 0110
21/2 10 1
7 0111
10/2 5 0
5/2 2 1 8 1000

2/2 1 0 9 1001
1/2 0 1 10 1010
11 1011
So, 17410 = 101011102 12 1100
Example 4
13 1101
Convert 1310 to its binary equivalent.
14 1110
Division by 2 Quotient Remainder
15 1111
13/2 6 1
6/2 3 0 Binary Digit (Bit)
3/2 1 1 It is a digit within the binary number system. A bit is the
1/2 0 1 smallest unit of information held in a computer. In order
to make the bits useful, they are combined into bytes of
Therefore, 1310 = 11012 information.

Byte
Stopover It is a combination of bits that represents one character.
If the binary equivalent of the decimal number 48 is A byte is usually composed of 8 bits.
110000, then the binary equivalent of the decimal
number 51 is given by American Standard Code for Information
(a) 110011 Interexchange (ASCII)
(b) 110010 It assigns a specific pattern of (ASCII) to each char-
(c) 110001 acter as described earlier. Another code that may be
(d) 110100 found, especially in IBM brand mainframe computers,
The correct option is (a). is Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
Hint: Here the binary digits of 3 can be directly added (EBCDIC).
to that of 48.
Extended Binary Coded Decimal
Interchange Code
N umber Systems in a nutshell
The important point to remember about these codes is that
1. Binary Number System: It has only base 2, that is, 0 their main value is to store information so that it is read-
and 1. able by other computers. By using ASCII or EBCDIC, it is
2. Octal Number System: Base of octal is 8, that is, 0, 1, possible for people to retrieve and use someone else’s data
2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7. using a different type of hardware or software. The main
3. Decimal Number System: Base of decimal is 10, that disadvantage of using ASCII is that formatting or other
is, 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9. special qualities of computer-ized information may be lost.

M08_MADAN 04_65901_C08.indd 17 23/12/22 7:38 PM

 8.18 Chapter 8

A Ready Reckoner of Conversion Table

Traditional Units Decimal for Comparison
Name Symbol Binary Equal to Name IEC Decimal
Kilobyte kB 210 1024 B Kilobit kbit 103
Megabyte MB 220 1024 kB Megabit Mbit 106
Gigabyte GB 230 1024 MB Gigabit Gbit 109
Terabyte TB 240 1024 GB Terabit Tbit 1012
Petabyte PB 250 1024 TB Petabit Pbit 1015
Exabyte EB 260 1024 PB Exabit Ebit 1018
Zettabyte ZB 270 1024 EB Zettabit Zbit 1021
Zotabyte YB 280 1024 ZB Zotabit Ybit 1024

in some larger network (e.g. the internet) instead of

Computer Networks
1. Network: A network is a system of interconnected
computers. There are a number of types of computer
networks.
2. Local Area Networks (LANs): LANs use cable to con-
nect a number of computers within the same location
or in close proximity.
3. Wide Area Networks (WANs): WANs use telephone
lines or other telecommunication devices to link com-
puters in widely separated locations.
4. Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN): WLAN links
two or more devices using some wireless distribution
method and provides connection through an access
point to a wider internet.
5. Personal Area Network (PAN): PAN is a computer
network used for communication among computers
and different IT devices close to one person.
6. Metropolitan Area Network (MAN): MAN is a net-
work of computers located at different sites within a
large fixed area, such as a city.
7. Campus Area Network (CAN): CAN is a network of
multiple interconnected LANs in a limited geographi-
cal area. It is smaller than a WAN or MAN.
8. Storage Area Network (SAN): SAN is known as
server area network.
9. Internet: The internet is a system that links existing
networks into a worldwide network.
10. Intranet: It is a private network inside a company or
an educational organization and used over its LAN.
This can be taken as akin to local internet and it is
under a single administrative set-up.
11. Extranet: It is a technology that permits users of an
organization’s intranet to enter portions of another
organization’s intranet in order to conduct business
transactions or collaborate on joint projects.
12. Virtual Private Network (VPN): It is a computer net-
work in which some of the links between the nodes
are carried out by open connections or virtual circuits
­physical wires.
Intranet
Intranet is a private network. It is created only for the
employees of one company to improve their commu-
nication. An intranet is an ideal way to communicate
in a secure environment. It is a collection of resources
to which only internal users have access. Intranets are
often separated from the internet by using a firewall.
They help to overcome some of the limitations of exist-
ing LANs and WANs.
An intranet operates on a common technology. While
an intranet allows all kinds of internet connections,
from Telnet to File Transfer Protocol (FTP) to Gopher, it
is die web that is most commonly used on an intranet.
The web and its browsers offer a common interface that
is comfortable and well known to most of an intranet’s
intended users.
Intranet as technology enabler brings the resources
to the users in a specific domain of interest. The ways to
authenticate users are as follows:
1. Server permissions-based authentication
2. Database-based authentication
3. Firewall
4. IP-based authentication or some combination of the
above
5. Database(s)—Access, SQL Server, MySQL
6. XML
7. Hypertext Markup Language (HTML) or XHTML-
based forms
8. Web scripting (ASP, PHP, ColdFusion)
A basic knowledge of computers is very useful here.
Basic intranet is usually made up of a simple shared folder
connected to a network. All files in the folder will be vis-
ible to other intranet members. It depends on their per-
mission levels also.

M08_MADAN 04_65901_C08.indd 18 23/12/22 7:38 PM

 Information and Communication Technology (ICT)
Intranets offer several facilities that aid knowledge
sharing and they are as follows:
1. Easy to access and use: The use of WWW browsers
give a low-cost and easy-to-use interface to informa-
tion and applications.
2. Universal access to information: The intranet mar-
ket has expanded to smaller businesses as a result
of less cost.
3. Person-to-person interaction: It is mainly through
electronic mail and computer conferencing.
4. Informal networks: Publishing information and mak-
ing contact is quick and informal on an intranet.
An extranet is conceptually the same thing, but tech-
nically, it is used when employees are located in differ-
ent places and cannot access the same local server.
Concept Box
Topology: The physical topology of a network refers
to the configuration of cables, computers and other
peripherals or simply as arrangement of computers.
Here, the workstation or node refers to computer sys-
tems which are in the network. The topology can be
classified as follows:
1. Bus Topology: Here, every computer is connected
to a main (single) cable, such as a bus.
2. Star Topology: There is a hub or switch box to
which all workstations are directly connected.
3. Ring Topology: Here, every device has exactly two
neighbours.
4. Mesh Topology: Every computer is connected to
another, so messages can take any path.
5. Tree Topology: It is a combination of two or more
star networks.
Computer Virus
A computer virus is a malicious software program that is also
called as ‘malware’. This computer code or program is capa-
ble of affecting computer data in an adverse manner. It may
destroy computer programs. The virus has the tendency to
make its duplicate copies at a very fast pace. The virus spreads
across every folder and damage the data of our computer sys-
tem. The infected computer programs may include data files,
or even the “boot” sector of the hard drive. The virus is mostly
detected by seeing through the functionality of our computer
system. The computer affected by a virus does not take com-
mand properly.
types Of virUs wOrms
This computer program replicates itself at a swift pace.
But it is not exactly like a computer virus. It is self-con-
tained and hence does not need to be part of another pro-
gram to propagate itself.
M08_MADAN 04_65901_C08.indd 19
8.19
1. Simple Virus: This virus targets the program file,
when we run that program then it gets executed itself.
This virus automatically attaches itself to other pro-
grams.
2. Encrypted Virus: An encrypted virus is a computer
malware that has become a serious threat to global
businesses over the past half-decade. An encrypted
virus is defined as a computer virus/malware that
is capable of encrypting its payload in order to
make its detection difficult, i.e. can create a state of
suspicion.
3. Polymorphic Virus: The evolution of this virus
infects the ‘sign in’ of the virus, making it more diffi-
cult for the antivirus to detect the virus. This virus can
only be detected by special codes written specifically
for polymorphic viruses.
4. Macro Virus: It is a mini-program in its name that
runs inside other programs. These virus scripts are
specially written to infect computers and can spread
rapidly.
5. Trojan Horse: A Trojan horse resides in a disguised
or embedded form in a common software program.
With that program installed, it gets installed on your
computer as well. It is also destructive. It is not actu-
ally a virus, as it cannot replicate itself, but there is a
possibility that a Trojan horse may have a virus pro-
gram hidden in it.
6. Bombs: It is very similar to Trojan horse. It also has
a feature that this logic bomb can include a timing
device, thus it will go off only on a particular date and
time.
7. Worms: The worms themselves are a kind of copycat,
it can spread to many computers connected in a net-
work. You need software with antivirus and firewall
to protect your system from worms.
8. Boot Sector Computer Virus: It damages the BOOT
record on digital storage equipment, which includes
the computer’s hard disk and all peripheral disks used
on them, including DVDs, CDs, and floppy disks in
general. These viruses can be loaded onto the com-
puter at any time, but they become active after the
BOOT record has been used by the computer. Once
activated, it is a very difficult task to remove them. At
present the redundancy of floppy disks has reduced
the presence of boot sector viruses.
9. Master Boot Record Computer Virus: These
viruses are special variants of boot sector viruses, in
that they mainly affect the master boot record of the
computer.
10. File Infector Computer Virus: File Infector Viruses
exist on files that are known as executable files, such
as extensions and .com. Most of these viruses attach
themselves to files, and download those files to other
users’ computers.
11. Macro-computer virus: These viruses exist on mac-
ros, which are data files, and are generally associated
with MS Office programs. Because they target the
software rather than the system, macro viruses can
infect any operating system.
23/12/22 7:38 PM
 8.20
The Entry of Virus in System: The virus may affect our
system in the following ways.
1. Through downloading files from the Internet.
2. Through removable media or drives.
3. Through pen drive.
4. Through mail attachments.
5. Through unpatched software and services.
6. Through unprotected or poor administrator pass-
words.
I mpact of Virus
1. It disrupts the normal functionality of respective com-
puter system.
2. It modifies configuration setting of the system
3. It disrupts system network use.
4. It destroys the confidential data.
5. It disrupts our computer network resources.
The antivirus software in our system can easily check
programs and files on a system for virus signatures.
Virus Preventive Measures
1. Through installation of an effective antivirus software.
2. Patching up the operating system and client software.
3. We need to put highly secured Passwords.
4. The use of firewalls also helps.
The Internet Basics
Internet is defined as an information superhighway, to
access information over the web.
• The concept of internet was originated in 1969.
• The concept of internet was generated in Advanced
Research Project Agency Network (ARPANET) that
was developed by the U.S. Department of Defense.
Then its main objective was to provide communication
among the government bodies.
Benefits
Internet is the ‘network of networks’. It covers almost
every aspect of life.
1. Easy communication with the people sitting at remote
locations, through social media platforms such as Face-
book, Instagram, Twitter, WhatsApp, Pinterest etc.
2. Surf for any kind of information, and also for
entertainment.
3. Accessing many services such as banking, matrimo-
nial services, online shopping, online ticket booking,
online bill payment, data sharing and email.
4. Internet provides the concept of electronic commerce
(e-commerce). It allows the business deals to be
conducted
5. For conducting research.
6. Work From Home during pandemics such as covid19.
7. Mapping services such as Street Views (that may be
allowed in India in year 2022 itself ) on electronic
systems.
M08_MADAN 04_65901_C08.indd 20
Chapter 8
Basic Mechanism for I nternet W orking
Internet uses the standard Transmission Control Protocol/
Internet Protocol (TCP/IP).
We need the following two items for sending and
receiving information:
1. Address for communication
2. A secure means for moving data in the form of elec-
tronic signals
We need protocols for sending and receiving files.
There are basically two protocols for the purpose—TCP
and IP.
Role Played by TCP in Internet: TCP divides the data
into data packets for the purpose of sending and receiving
data. In addition, the rules for reassembling data and
damage-free delivery are also specified.
Role of IP: The IP puts destination—address­ing infor-
mation on such packets. The address can be typically
written as user@host.domain. The user is the name of
the internet account holder.
The name must be the same which is used by the user
while logging in. The hosts are individual machines at a
particular location. Resources of the host machine are
normally shared and used by any internet user.
Every host and router on the internet has an IP address.
An IP address consists of four sets of numbers that are
separated by dots. These addresses are organized from
left to right.
Three points are important regarding IP address.
1. IP address is a unique set of four numbers (such as
110.22.33.114) which identifies a computer location.
We need to see that all parts are a number from 0 to
255. The lowest IP address is 0.0.0.0 and the highest
is 255.255.255.255.
2. A special computer Domain Name Server (DNS) is
used to give name to the IP address so that user can
locate a computer by a name.
3. A portion of a number separated by a dot is known as
an octet. Thus, IP addresses have four octets that are
equal to 32 bits. Computers translate word addresses
or person-understandable addresses into numeric
equivalents.
IPv4, IPv6 and IPv12
The designers of TCP/IP defined an IP address as a 32-bit
number, a system still in use today known as Internet
Protocol Version 4, or IPv4. Later, due to the widespread
development of the Internet and the resulting lack of
available addresses, a new identification system (IPv6)
was developed in 1995 using 128 bits for the address.
The main function of a network protocol is to transfer
data from one computer to another in a packet network
such as the Internet. IPv12 can be called the ‘protocol of
the future’.
User Datagram Protocol (UDP) can also be used in
place of TCP. IP and UDP can also be called connection-
less protocols.
23/12/22 7:38 PM
 Information and Communication Technology (ICT)
I.S.P.
Internet
Web Server
Website 1
Website 2 Webpage 1
Website 3 Webpage 2
Website 4 Webpage 3
etc. Webpage 4
etc.
Figure 8.8 Internet Basic Elements
The network number is assigned by Network
Information Centre to avoid the possibility of any conflict.
The web servers placed over internet are registered to
a domain. One web server can serve multiple virtual web
servers, where each virtual server is mapped or registered
to different or unique names.
All the servers/systems on the network communicate
with each other through a particular path, which is called
a gateway.
Other Important Internet Protocols
In addition to TCP/IP which are the essence of internet,
the following protocols are also very important.
1. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP): It defines the
format for communication between web browsers
(web clients) and web servers.
2. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP): It
defines the format for communication between email
servers and clients.
3. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL): It is a protocol devel­
oped by Netscape for transmitting private docu­ments
through the internet.
4. File Transfer Protocol (FTP): It is a set of guidelines or
standards that establish the format in which files can
be transmitted from one computer to another.
5. Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP): This pro­
tocol allows transferring of files between the net­work
devices.
6. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP): Network-
based email was initially exchanged on the ARPANET
in extensions to the FTP, but it is now carried by the
SMTP.
M08_MADAN 04_65901_C08.indd 21
8.21
Smart Phone
iPad
Ph
on
Ca e Wi-Fi
ble
Router
Wi-Fi Wired
COMPUTER
Web Browser
7. Telnet: It is a protocol that allows a computer to con­
nect with a remote host computer on the inter­net. The
use of Telnet has diminished as the web’s HTTP has
become a dominant protocol.
8. Hypertext Markup Language (HTML): It is a for­
matting language which is used to establish the appear-
ance of a web page. Thus, it helps in cre­ating pages on
the WWW. HTML also enables us to insert hypertext
links within one web page or to other pages.
Open Systems Interconnection (OSI): This model
describes the seven layers that computer systems use to
communicate over a network. This is basically the first
standard model for network communications, adopted by
all major computer and telecommunication companies in
the early 1980s.
Who Governs the I nternet ?
The Internet was developed by Bob Kahn and Vint Cerf in
the 1970s. Packet switching was thought of as a better and
faster method to transfer data than the hardware solution
to the problem. Internet has no president or chief operat-
ing officer, and it is governed by a number of authorities.
The ultimate authority of internet rests with the Internet
Society (ISOC), a voluntary membership organization
with an objective to promote global interchange of infor-
mation. Another authority is a group of invited volunteers
called the Internet Architecture Board (IAB). The IAB sets
standard and provides internet addresses. The Internet
Engineering Task Force (IETF) discusses the technical
and operational problems in internet.
No one pays to use the internet, but everyone pays for
its part.
23/12/22 7:38 PM
 8.22
Main Applications of Internet
When the internet started, it had five main applications
and they are listed as follows:
1. Emails 2. News
3. Remote login 4. File transfer
5. Research
Hardware Requirements for the Internet
1. Modem (Modulator and Demodulator): A modem
is a device or program which converts computer data
to a signal that can be transmitted over a telephone
line. It can also reconvert a signal coming into a com-
puter through a telephone line so that it can be under-
stood by the computer. Modems are used to connect
computers with the internet.
2. Hub: A hub is a place of convergence where data arrives
from one or more directions and is forwarded out in one
or more directions. A hub is a common connection point
for networked computers and other devices. Hubs are
used to connect devices in a LAN.
3. Bridge: A bridge is a network device that connects two
or more networks, such as one LAN to another LAN
that uses the same protocol (Ethernet or token ring).
4. Router: This is actually a ‘networking layer system’
that is used to manage and forward data packets to
computer networks. Data packets are sent through
the e-mail and web pages. The packet’s destination or
target IP address is determined by a router. A router
is linked to two or more data networks from different
IP addresses. A router sets the shortest path for the
data packets to travel from source to destination.
5. Gateway: A gateway is essentially a system used to
communicate between networks with different pro-
tocols and are responsible for converting one proto-
col into another. A gateway is a node in a computer
network that serves as an entrance to another net-
work. The hardware examples are connector, cables,
adopters, circuits, switches etc.
I nternet Service Provider
A company that provides a subscription service to enable
the user or organization to access the internet is an ISP.
An ISP has a network of computers permanently linked
to the internet. Dedicated lines are also provided by some
ISPs. ISPs also give you an email address and space on the
WWW for setting up one’s own website.
Main Internet Connection Options
To be specific, the following technological options are
available to us for accessing the internet:
1. Dial-up connection: It uses an analogue telephone
line for establishing a temporary communication. It
converts a computer’s digital signals into analogue sig-
nals. The Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)
is used for this purpose that is without a modem. It is
termed wired ether.
2. Cable TV connections: Households with cable TVs
have the option of cable modem internet access.
M08_MADAN 04_65901_C08.indd 22
Chapter 8
3. Digital subscriber line (DSL): It works over plain old
telephone service (POTS), that is, copper telephone
lines. DSL has two types:
(i) Asymmetric digital subscriber line (ADSL) pro-
vides different bandwidths in the upstream and
downstream directions.
(ii)  Symmetric digital subscriber line (SDSL) pro-
vides the same bandwidth in both the directions.
4. Satellite connection: It is akin to receiving TV ­signals
directly from the satellite.
5. Bluetooth: Bluetooth is an open wireless technology
for data exchange over short distances. It is a proto-
col that permits wireless exchange of information
between computers, cell phones and other electronic
devices within a radius of about 30 ft.
6. Broadband: Broadband refers to various high-capac-
ity transmission technologies to transmit data, voice,
and video across long distances and at high speeds.
The main mediums to transmit data are coaxial cables,
fiber optic cables, and radio waves. Broadband is
always connected and removes the need for dial-up.
In September 2021, Telecom Regulatory Authority of
India (TRAI) has proposed that a minimum of 2Mbps
speed is allowed in broadband connections in India.
  Fibre optic internet is also a broadband connection
that can reach upto speeds of 940 mbps. This uses fibre
optic cable. It has low lag time.
7. WiFi: This is basically Wireless fidelity. It is also known
as high-frequency wireless local area network (LAN).
They transmit and receive data at a local level. Many
hotels, educational institutions, railways and airports
offer Wi-Fi access to people using laptops. Wireless
access points support different IEEE standards. This
can be in Wireless LAN, MAN, PAN, WAN etc. WiMax is
also wireless technology that uses spectrum to deliver
connection to network. WiMax is used to provide inter-
net services such as Mobile Data and ‘hotspots’.
8. Leased Line: A leased line is a dedicated data connec-
tion with a fixed bandwidth. This enables oragnisa-
tions to connect to internet in a secure, reliable, and
efficient manner. They will have maximum download
capacity and discipline. They are symmetrical, uncon-
tended (can not be shared), and they are point to point.
Other Important Internet -related T erms
World Wide Web (WWW or W3)
WWW is a hypertext system that uses the Internet in order
to access specific locations and content stored there. It is
basically between clients (browsers) and servers, HTTP
and HTTPS (Hypertext Transport Protocols) control the
transmission of data through accessing locations. It is
actually a subset of Internet. WWW and Internet are not
synonyms.
Tim Berners-Lee is credited with the invention of the
World Wide Web. While working with CERN, he became
interested in a new technology called ‘hypertext’. He can
be credited with three key technologies, HTML, URL, and
HTTP which are fundamental the web today. Nikola Tesla
23/12/22 7:38 PM
 Information and Communication Technology (ICT)
theorized a “world wireless system” over one hundred
years ago. The concept of the World Wide Web, a global
“network of networks,” stretches back to the 1930s. The
public service of WWW started in 1993.
WWW consists of documents called web pages that
contain information on a particular topic. A web page
might also contain one or more links that point to other
web pages. A website is a location on the WWW.
Web Browsers
A web browser takes us anywhere on the internet. It acts
as an interface between the user and inner working of
internet (specifically WWW). It retrieves information
from other parts of the web. That information is dis-
played on our desktop or mobile device. The informa-
tion is transferred using the Hypertext Transfer Protocol
(HTTP). Thus, transmission of text, images and video is
done on the web. Some popular browsers are enlisted as
follows:
1. Internet Explorer
2. Mozilla Firefox 3.5
3. Opera
4. Safari 4.0
Cross-platform Browsers
They can operate on more than one platform, such
as Windows, Mac and Linux. SeaMonkey, Flock and
K-Meleon are different examples of cross-platform
browsers. A browser can be
(a) graphical or
(b) text based
The main examples of graphical browsers are Microsoft
Edge, Netscape Navigator, Mosaic and Opera. Lynx can be
taken as an example of a text-based browser. The services
of Microsoft Internet Explorer ended on June 15, 2022.
Bookmarks: The web browser can also store a list of
favourite sites, also called as bookmarks, to permit the
users to jump directly to the site they wish to see instead
of having to enter its URL every time.
Domain Name
It is the unique name that identifies an internet site or
website. Domain names always have two or more parts
separated by dots. The part on the left is the most specific
and the part on the right is the most general. A provided
machine may have more than one domain name but a
given domain name points to only one machine.
Domain names are the alphabetical names which are
used to refer to computers on the internet. The suffix indi-
cates what type of an organization is hosting the site. There
are six main categories and they are as follows:
1. .com: Commercial institutions or organization
2. .edu: Educational institutions
3. .gov: Government sites
4. .mil: Military sites
5. .net: Gateways and administrative hosts
6. .org: Private organizations
M08_MADAN 04_65901_C08.indd 23
8.23
There are geographic names as well:
Country Domain Name
Australia .au
China .cn
Germany .de
India .in
Japan .jp
United Kingdom .uk
United States .us
Domain N ame Server (DNS)
A DNS is a directory of domain names that align with IP
addresses. When we try to connect to a website with a
domain name such as puchd.ac.in (Punjab University,
Chandigarh), a request is first made to a name server to
resolve this name into an IP address, which is then used to
locate the system where the website is stored. Then we can
establish a connection with it.
Internet Protocol A ddress
It is the unique numerical address of a computer on
the internet and it is expressed as four sets of numbers
(maximum three digits each) separated by dots, for
example, 150.237.176.24. Computers on the internet
are nearly always referred to by more memorable domain
names, which are mapped onto their IP addresses by special
internet computers known as name servers.
Home Page
The main page of a website is its home page. Typically, the
home page serves as an index or table of contents to other
documents stored at the site (i.e. the address). A home page
is similar to the title page and table of contents in a book. It
identifies the site and contains links to other pages at the site
which is called Microsoft Explorer.
Hyperlink
An element in a hypertext document is highlighted by
means of underlining or with the use of a different colour.
When the highlighted element is clicked, the user is con-
nected to another element in the same document or
another document.
Firewall
A firewall is a software package that sits between the com-
puter and the internet connection, keeping an eye on the
traffic going to and fro. It also warns the user in case some-
thing suspicious appears. Any computer is vulnerable when
connected to the internet.
Search Engines and Meta Search Engines
This programme searches documents for specified
keywords and returns a list of documents where the
23/12/22 7:38 PM
 8.24 Chapter 8

keywords were found. Google (linked with chrome
browser), Yahoo, Microsoft Bing, Baidu (Chinese origin),
Yandex (Russian origin), DuckDuckGo, ask.com, AoL.
com, Internet Archive are the popular search engines.
Meta Search Engine: This is a search tool that sends user
requests to several other search engines and/or databases
and aggregates the results into a single list or displays
them according to their source.
Wide Area Information Server (WAIS) is an internet
system in which specialized subject database are created at
multiple server locations, their tracks are kept.
The examples of meta search engines are All4one and
MetaCrawler.
Stopover
1. The code for a web page is written using
(a) Hypertext Markup language
(b) Perl
(c) FTP
(d) URL
The correct option is (a).
2. Each computer connected to the internet must
(a) be an IBM PC
(b) be internet compatible
(c) have a modern connection
(d) have a unique IP address
The correct option is (d).
3. The web standard allows programmers on many dif-
ferent computer platforms to dispersed format and
display the information server. These programs are
called
(a) Internet Explorer
(b) HTML
(c) FTP
(d) Web browsers
The correct option is (d).
Email–Electronic Mail
It is the transmission of text-based messages among net-
worked computers. Email is one of the earliest and most
basic messaging resources on the internet, and in many
ways, it still acts as the lowest common denominator for
computer communications (Figure 8.9).
The features of an email are as follows:
1. It is faster and more secure than conventional mail
that requires less physical effort to edit and send a let-
ter of communication.
2. The internet is free; it does not require the attention
of both parties at the same time.
3. It provides a time-stamped proof of an interaction.
Also, many email services (such as Yahoo) collate
the conversation on the same subject into single
threads.
4. It is easy to archive for future recall. Most of the email
services provide search facility through emails. An
email can be edited and rephrased as much as desired
before sending it to the recipient(s).

From : Alex Diaz alex@tutorialspoint.com Wed Jun 22 11:00 EDT 2022

Date : Wed, 22 Jun 2022 11:00:46 EDT 2022-0400 (EDT)
E-mail
To : shiller@tutorialspoint.com
header
Subject : bean dip
Cc : wong@tutorialspoint.com
Bcc :

Greeting Hi Guys,

Someone accidently finished off the black bean dip last night. Can one
of you pick up another case of it on your way home? I think luke is on his bike
today, so you might have to Tak.
Text
--Alex
Body

******************************************************************************************

Alex T. Diaz office: (401)347 - 2345

332, Toast Lane fax : (401)347 - 0013
Signature East Providence,
Rhode Island 05893
******************************************************************************************
Figure 8.9 Sample email

M08_MADAN 04_65901_C08.indd 24 23/12/22 7:38 PM

 Information and Communication Technology (ICT)
5. It is easy to send the same piece of information to
several people simultaneously, such as circulation of
memos, agendas and minutes, or to disseminate edu-
cational material.
An email address has the following three parts.
Username
The first part of an email address is the username. This is
the unique name that you or your ISP selects. This can be
your real name or a nickname.
@ Symbol
An ‘at’, or ‘@’, symbol is the second part of an email
address. This fits in between the username and the
domain of your email address.
Domain
The last part of an email address is the domain, which can
be broken down into two portions: the mail server and the
top-level domain (TLD).
Types of Email Services
The email services are usually categorized into the
­following three parts:
1. Free Web-based Email Services are the commonly
used email accounts accessible through web browser
(such as Internet Explorer, Firefox), and generally use
HTTP. Almost all the major services provide secure login
using Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS),
which can be identified in the URL line while signing
into the account (https://gmail.com or https://mail.
yahoo.com).
2. Priced Web-based Email Services are free web-based
email service providers, such as Yahoo! and Hotmail, that
offer premium accounts on payment basis. The major
advantages of more secured transaction of communica-
tion services are personalized email address, better spam
filtration, increased storage space, etc.
3. Private Email Services are used by the institutions
having their own dedicated mail server and offer mail
account for free to their staff and other members of
the institution, for example, abc@ugc.ac.in.
Mail Merge: This is a useful tool that allows us to produce
multiple letters, labels, envelopes, name tags, and more
using information stored in a list, database, or spread-
sheet. This is used on Word document.
Structure and F eatures of Email
Internet email messages consist of two major sections, the
header and the body.
Header: The header of an email is structured into various
fields, such as summary, sender, receiver and other infor-
mation about the email. It can be easily distinguished from
the body of the email. Various fields included within the
header are as follows:
1. From: It contains the email address and, optionally,
the name of the sender.
2. To: It contains the email address(es) and, optionally, the
name(s) of the receiver(s) who receives the message.
M08_MADAN 04_65901_C08.indd 25
8.25
3. Subject: It contains a brief summary of the contents
of the message.
4. Date: It contains the local time and date when the
message was originally sent.
5. CC: It stands for carbon copy. It contains the email
address(es) of those who will receive a copy of the
message in addition to the receiver(s) mentioned in
the ‘To’ field.
6. BCC (Blind Carbon Copy): Those people who are
able to receive the message, but the sender does not
want to inform about them to others.
7. Message-ID: It shows the number assigned to the
message by the mail program at the host machine.
8. A series of received: These are the lines, showing
details of the systems through which the email has
passed (useful for troubleshooting if the mail bounces
back).
9. A reply-to: It gives the preferred address for replies
(usually, but not always, the same as the sender’s
address).
Blank spaces are not allowed in an email address. Also, an
email address is not case-sensitive.
Body: The body of an email contains the message itself,
mostly in text form. An account may be configured to
automatically assign a signature (of the user) at the end.
Signature is the text appearing at the end of the body by
default in each message. Normally, it is the name of the
sender and other contact details.
Features
1. Email is based on push technology, that is, email is
delivered to the recipients so they do not have to work
to get it and just need to open their inbox to access the
email.
2. Most email clients offer to create Multipurpose
Internet Mail Extensions (MIME) and HTML emails
with colourful fonts, graphics and links.
3. The email account can be set to remind an upcoming
event.
4. The accounts offer facility for spellcheck while writ-
ing an email.
5. Any kind of document including multimedia objects
can be sent through an email as attachments. However,
the maximum size of the object which can be attached
or received is fixed and set by the service providers.
6. An email collates threads of communication on a
single subject. Therefore, it sometimes acts as time-
stamped proof of communication. Gmail of Google
offers this service.
7. A message can be saved or printed along with all com-
munication details.
8. A list of contacts (along with other details, such as phone
number, fax) can be created within an account with an
ease to recall any nickname associated with each email
address. Hence, the user only has to enter one word for
an email, instead of the full address.
9. Web-based email programs usually have a virus scan
function that scans attachments before they are sent
along with the main email.
23/12/22 7:38 PM
 8.26
10. One common feature of all email programs is the use of
folders. These folders include an inbox, drafts folder,
sent items folder and deleted messages folder. The
users can also create other folders to sort their email
better. Filters are also included in email programs to
define certain words or phrases that the program will
look for in a message. The programs will then delete
the message, forward it to a specified address or put it
in a particular folder.
Functioning of Email Systems
1. Protocols: A protocol can be defined as a set of rules
to perform a specific task. For example, IMAP is used
by the client that is used to read email, like Firebird,
Outlook Express and Apple Mail (also known as Access
Client). Then there are TCP/IP, SMTP, HTTP, etc.
2. Delivery agent: The following parts have been
mentioned here:
Mail Transfer Agent Mail: Transfer Agent is a
(a) 
piece of software that transfers messages or mails
from one host or machine to other. It is often
referred to as mail server.
(b) Mail Delivery Agent: This is a computer soft-
ware used by the Mail Transfer Agent to deliver
email to a particular user’s mailbox.
Access Client: It is an agent acting as a cli-
(c) 
ent towards an email server to access an email
account. It is a kind of application software. Some
of the examples of Access Client are Outlook
Express, Outlook or Thunderbird.
Starting an Email Account
Starting an email account includes setting up an account
option also. Most web-based mail services offer four
standard email folders, the ‘Inbox’, ‘Sent’, ‘Drafts’ and
‘Trash’. Each of them is described next.
Inbox: It enlists all emails received from other email
accounts. It highlights the newly received/unread
mails.
Sent: Copies of messages sent are put into the ‘Sent’
folder, provided that the mail account is set to save all the
sent messages.
Drafts: It is a place for storing unfinished messages. If
the writing of a message is not yet finished and needs to
be stopped in between, clicking the ‘Save’ button puts
the ­message into the ‘Drafts’ folder, from where it can be
accessed later on.
Trash: It stores an email that is deleted from other folders.
The messages are not truly deleted until they are deleted
from this folder.
A message can be opened by clicking its ‘subject’. Once
the mail gets opened, there are various options available
at the top to delete, print or forward a message. The mes-
sages in ‘Trash’ folder that are more than few days old will
automatically be deleted.
Messaging can synchronous and asynchronous as we
discussed earlier.
M08_MADAN 04_65901_C08.indd 26
Chapter 8
Messaging
Messaging is a method of communication between two
people or organizations. It could be done using the power
of internet or through cell phones. There are two types of
messaging and they are explained as follows:
1. Asynchronous Messaging: It is a method of communi-
cation between programs in which a program places a
message on a message queue and leaves. It really does
not matter how the message will be delivered. It is the
delivery agent or the kind of infrastructure that ensures
the delivery of message, even if the recipient is offline,
for example, delivery of emails.
2. Synchronous Messaging: In this kind of communica-
tion, both the sender and the receiver have to be in con-
nection while transferring the message, for example,
telephonic conversation. Hence, a program places a
message in a message queue and then waits for a reply
to its message before continuing further.
Instant Messaging
It is a form of real-time communication between two or
more people based on typed text or using audio or video.
The message is conveyed via devices connected over a net-
work. Most IM messages provide these features.
1. Instant messages/chat: These involve sending and
receiving text/notes with an online friend.
2. Chat rooms: These are a common platform where
two or more than two people can communicate.
3. Files/web links/videos/images: These can be
shared over a network.
4. Talk: Instead of a phone, the internet can be used to actu-
ally talk with friends. Examples: Google+, Hangouts.
5. Mobile capabilities: Instant messages can be sent to
mobile/cell phones.
Unified Messaging
It is a combination of different media into one channel. A user
can access information from different media using a single
device. Normally, unified messaging is common in mobile
communication, where voice, text and fax can be accessed
using one mailbox. It provides the power to reach people
almost anywhere at any time and the flexibility to allow peo-
ple to control when they can be reached.
The major issues with messaging are spamming, pri-
vacy and security. Spamming is a collection of unwanted
mails which includes threats, promotional mails and so
on. These messages are called spam. There are two kinds
of spams, mail lists and individual mails.
Widgets
Widgets are small cards that display dynamic content from
your favorite apps and services on our Windows desktop.
They appear on the widgets board, where you can discover,
pin, unpin, arrange, resize, and customize widgets to
reflect our interests. The widgets board is optimized to
show relevant widgets and personalized content based on
our usage. They are an offering during Web 2.0.
23/12/22 7:38 PM
 Information and Communication Technology (ICT)
E-mail hacking: Hacking is gaining of unauthorized
access to data in a system or computer. This can be done in
any of the following ways:
1. E-mail Spamming: This may happen whenever a
commercial organization sends mail to the e-mail
account holders without any request to advertise its
products and services. These are also called ‘junk
mail’. These are also called ‘unsolicited bulk emails’.
2. Virus: An e-mail file contains malicious script, when
we run such file on our computer, there is a possibility
of loss of important data.
3. Phishing: Phishing is a type of online-in scam that
targets consumers by sending an e-mail that appears
to be from a well-known source (ISP, bank, mortgage
company etc). It asks the consumer to provide per-
sonal identifying information. Its main purpose is to
‘steal’ sensitive information such as user name, pass-
word and credit card details, etc. This mail contains
links that direct the e-mail user to a website that looks
like the original website.
4. Splag: Splag is a ‘malintent’—that is harming others.
It means that a spammer ‘keep spamming’ someone
until there is a lot of mess in his computer and the
computer crashes.
Stopover
1. Which of the following is a correct format of email
address?
(a) name@website@info
(b) name@website.info
(c) www.nameofebsite.com
(d) name.website.com
The correct option is (b).
2. Which of the following is not a search engine?
(a) Bing
(b) Google
(c) Yahoo
(d) Windows
The correct option is (d).
3. Which of the following is a type of online chat that
offers real-time text transmission over the internet?
(a) Asynchronous messaging
(b) Scheduled messaging
(c) Instant messaging
(d) All of the above
The correct option is (c).
E-CoMMERCE
Electronic commerce (e-commerce) has changed the
lifestyle of society. With the help of e-commerce, it is
possible to buy, sell and exchange products, services
and information through computer networks, primarily
through the internet. Though the definition of
e-commerce is quite debatable, it is still very much useful
for both individuals and corporates.
M08_MADAN 04_65901_C08.indd 27
8.27
At present, five types of e-commerce can be summa-
rized here basically:
1. Business-to-Consumer (B2C) e-commerce
2. Business-to-Business (B2B) e-commerce
3. Consumer-to-Consumer (C2C) e-commerce
4. Peer-to-Peer (P2P) e-commerce
5. Mobile Commerce (M-commerce)
appLicatiOns Of e-cOmmerce
E-commerce has various forms of applications:
1. Electronic Payments: This is the best form of payment
at present. Electronic payments can be done through
various ways, such as through electronic credit cards,
electronic cash, smart cards, electronic fund transfer
(EFT) and e-wallets and purchasing cards.
2. Banking Gateway: E-commerce plays a vital role in
the banking sector for inter-bank transactions and
building a separate gateway for the unified banking
gateway.
3. E-governance: Now, the Government of India
has initiated total online transactions for tax pay-
ment, phone bill payment, loan EMI payment from
banks, etc.
Concept Box
BHIM
Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM) is an initiative to
enable fast, secure, reliable cashless payments through
your mobile phone. BHIM is interoperable with other
Unified Payments Interface (UPI) applications and
bank accounts for quick money transfers online. It
was developed by the National Payment Corporation
of India (NPCI) as a part of the Digital India initiative.
BHIM is the only online payment app that you ought
to have.
Security in Electronic Payment
The security requirements needed for conducting e-com-
merce transactions are as follows:
1. Authentication for both the parties
2. Integrity for unaltered transactions
3. Non-repudiation for unjustified denial of placing
orders
4. Privacy of identity to be secured
5. Safety for providing credit card number in the
internet
mObiLe a pps
To a common person, a mobile app is a function that
simplifies some work just by a click of a button on his/
her mobile. For some tech person, mobile apps are a
computer-generated program or software applications
which are built to run on various mobile devices, such as
iPhones, smartphones and tablets.
23/12/22 7:38 PM
 8.28
Apps can be broadly classified into the following:
1. Web
2. Mobile apps
Mobile apps can further be divided into native and
hybrid apps.
W eb Apps
When an application is accessed using a web browser over
a network like an internet, it is termed web app. Web apps
are functional and interactive. They need not to be down-
loaded like mobile apps. They are loaded on browsers such
as Chrome or Firefox. They do not consume memory or stor-
age space on the user’s device. People can easily write, using
cross-platform, standard web technologies such as HTML,
CSS or JavaScript, a web app.
A web app can be used on any mobile device that has a
web browser, be it iOS, Android or Windows.
On the flipside, device level features such as push
notification, work offline and load on the home screen
are not supported.
Mobile Apps
They are of two types:
1. Native App: The native apps are created, designed
and coded for specific platforms, such as iOS, Android
and Window phones. They are much more complex if
compared to web apps. Hence, one native app created
for one OS will not run on the other.
  If development of native apps for iOS, Android and
Windows is required, then we need to create separate
apps. Unlike iOS devices, Android devices have the ‘back
button’ and hence, they do not need separate user inter-
face element for this.
  Native apps are released and distributed through an
‘App Store’. The user gets access to hundreds of apps
at a single location, which makes it easier to install
them. Each of these platforms has its own publication
procedure.
2. Hybrid Apps: As per the name itself, they are an amal-
gamation of native and web apps. They get installed
as native app and feel like web apps.
  They are built on JavaScript, HTML or CSS and
run on a simplified browser within the app, termed
web view.
Audio Conferencing
A computer-based communications system allows a group
of computer users at different locations to conduct a ‘vir-
tual conference’. Here, the participants hear one another
as though they are in the same room participating in a real
conference. The audio conferencing systems do not allow
the participants to see one another.
In audio conferencing, multiple callers are allowed to
join a conversation by dialling into an audio conferencing
bridge. The participants are supplied with an access num-
ber, a conference ID and possibly a secure PIN number to
uniquely identify the participant. This also improves the
M08_MADAN 04_65901_C08.indd 28
Chapter 8
security of the call. Call organizers provide the necessary
information to participants through emails to provide back-
ground data or perhaps to review documents in the call.
Skype for Business includes the audio conferencing
feature for just this situation. People call into Skype for
business meetings using a phone, instead of using the
Skype for Business app on a mobile device or PC. The
organizers need to set up audio conferencing for people
who plan to schedule or lead meetings.
The following can be termed the advantages of audio
conferencing:
1. Audio conferencing is a cost-effective communication
tool.
2. Audio conferencing is easily accessible.
3. Audio conferencing can save you a lot of time.
Disadvantages of Audio Conferencing
The following are the three obvious disadvantages of
audio conferencing and its possible solutions
1. The communication is only verbal.
2. Audio conferencing cannot keep you focused on the
meeting.
3. The quality of a conference call is not reliable.
Audio conferencing has brought a lot of benefits to peo-
ple, especially in the business world. When the technology
grows to a certain degree, it comes across its bottleneck.
Video-conferencing
It is a computer-based communications system that
allows a group of computer users at different locations to
conduct a ‘virtual conference’. Here, the participants can
see and hear each other as if they were in the same room
participating in a real conference.
Video conferencing can occur between two partici-
pants in a peer-to-peer call or between multiple partici-
pants via a video conferencing bridge, sometimes called
a multi-point control unit (MCU). Here, the bridge can be
located within a company network and can be made avail-
able from a service provider that can be on a subscription
or metered basis or free of cost. It may depend on the
intended use and service model. Video conferencing also
includes an audio channel and may include a document
or screen-sharing capability. It can also exist on a com-
pany’s internal network, although when external partici-
pants join, they generally connect over the internet using
a specialized type of firewall.
Video conferencing can be divided into three types:
1. Hardware-based video conferencing
2. Software-based video conferencing
3. Hybrid conferencing
Video conferencing system consists of end points (including
main peripheral equipment for end points, such as cameras,
microphones and other A/V processing equipment),
MCU (equals to a server) and network connection. When
a participant talks to the screen before us, our voice and
image are going into the software in analogue form. The
23/12/22 7:38 PM
 Information and Communication Technology (ICT) 8.29

server will transform it to digital form when accepting the The ‘SMART Governance’ is basically about the
message we sent through the software and then transforms following:
it back into analogue form to the receiving end. This is the
1. Simple: There are no elaborate procedures, no paper
situation for point-to-point video call.
work and no need for frequenting government offices.
For multi-point video conference, it will be much more
2. Moral: The system is cleaned up of corruption and
complicated. With the help of scalable video coding tech-
other unethical practices.
nology, the server can send each participant a set of video
3. Accountable: Since all the information is in public
streams, so that every receiving end in different locations
domain, the government’s accountability enhances.
can receive the optimized voices and images.
4. Responsiveness: Through the use of ICT, the govern-
Teleconferencing ment can be in regular touch with the masses and get
It refers to a ‘virtual’ conference with participants in dif- their feedback.
ferent locations, via either telephone (audio conferenc- 5. Transparency: The information which was shrouded
ing) or video (video conferencing). The UNHCR uses a in secrecy within dark file chambers will become
number of teleconferencing tools, including Skype for available to all on the click of a mouse.
Business (Microsoft Lync) and Cisco WebEx. The following are the main components of e-governance:
ICT and Governance 1. Government–Citizen Interface
2. Government–Government Interface
In 1954, W. Howard Gammon wrote an e-government
3. Government–Business Interface
research paper on the use of ICT for providing good gov-
4. Government–Employee Interface
ernance. The internet, SMS and d ­ ifferent mobile apps help
5. Government–Society Interface
people to access i­nformation quickly. The data access has
become very cheap due to cost competitiveness among The rationale behind all is to achieve the basic princi-
companies. Now they are being used in education, banking ple of democracy, information sharing and greater citizen
services, railway and other g­ overnance issues. Government participation.
has started utilization of internet to serve common people The benefits of ICT-based governance are as follows:
through e-governance.
Among researchers, there is an issue on the correct use 1. Automation of Administrative Processes
of the two terms. While e-governance is the use of ICT to 2. Workforce Reduction
support in the administration or management of govern- 3. Better Service Delivery—through integration
ment, e-government is the use of ICT to provide services 4. Technical and Supportive Role
in maintaining government operations correctly. 5. Transparency
If governance is done through the use of ICT, it is said 6. Economic Development
to be e-governance. Through e-governance, the broader 7. Social Development
objective of paper-free and hassle-free government offices 8. Innovative Role
is achieved (Figure 8.10). 9. Change in the Administrative Culture

1. Achieving Visibility: The general public comes to The challenges faced in implementing E-governance
know about that organ of government. Most of the are as follows:
sites maintained by state provide certain basic infor- 1. Lack of Resources
mation and profile of that state. 2. Lack of Infrastructure
2. Online Access to Information in Public Domain: 3. Social Issues in the Regulation of Cyberspace
Knowledge of laws, rules and regulation reports of 4. Digital Divide
various commissions, etc., is being provided by gov- 5. Lack of Relevant Information in Local Languages
ernment on line now. 6. Building E-governance Capacity
3. Completing Transaction Online: Filing of tax returns, 7. Security Issues in Cyberspace
driving licences, passport, etc., is done online now. 8. Reluctant Bureaucracy
Thus, the ultimate objective of ‘good governance’ is
achieved. Basis Conventional ICT-based
Governance Governance
Manual Nature Secretive Transparent
Power structure Hierarchical Horizontal/
networked
ICT
Government Citizens Response Passive and Pro-active and quick
slow
Manual
Communication One way Direct/immediate
Emphasis Compliance Achieving targets
Figure 8.10 ICT’s Value in E-Governance

M08_MADAN 04_65901_C08.indd 29 23/12/22 7:38 PM

 8.30
In the recent past, the Government of India has taken
a number of initiatives to implement e-governance. The
e-sampark centres have been set up in Chandigarh. The
Information Technology Act, 2000, provides the necessary
legal framework for e-governance. Though the Act deals
with a variety of issues related to cyber world, one of its
objectives is to promote e-governance by providing legal
recognition to online transactions with the government.
The government has set up NIC under the Department
of Information Technology as the specialized body to pro-
vide the network backbone and e-governance support to
the central government, state governments, UT adminis-
trations, districts and other government bodies. Almost all
the government departments now maintain web presence.
The following is the list of certain projects undertaken
at the central level:
1. India Image (Government of India Portal)
2. Agricultural Marketing Information Network
(AGMARKNET)
3. Central Passport System
4. Community Information Centres (CICs)
5. Computeried Rural Information Systems Project (CRISP)
The e-courts have been set up in judiciary. The state
government has started its own projects.
Some state governments projects are the following:
1. Bhoomi
2. e-Seva (electronic Seva)
3. CARD in Andhra Pradesh
4. FRIENDS
5. Gyandoot
6. Vidya Vahini
7. Lok Mitra
8. SETU
9. Jan Mitra
10. Aarakshi
Glossary of ICT and the Internet
Terms
Absolute Link: It is used by web authors. In an HTML
document, a relative link indicates the location of a file
relative to the document, whereas an absolute link talks
about the full URL.
Acceptable Use Policy (AUP): It is a set of rules that sets
standards and defines the ways in which ICT facilities can
and cannot be used in an institution.
Accessibility: Everyone should have access to the ser-
vices provided by ICT, for example, computer programs,
email and the World Wide Web, regardless of any visual,
auditory or other physical impairment they might have.
Address Book: Usually, it is supplied as part of your e
mail software. An address book, in this sense, is used to
keep a record of all the email addresses of people whom
you may wish to contact by email.
M08_MADAN 04_65901_C08.indd 30
Chapter 8
Adware: Adware is a software that may have been installed
on your computer by a remote computer, that is, through
the web.
AJAX (Combination of Asynchronous JavaScript and
XML): It is a web programming tool (or rather a set of
tools) which makes it possible to create interactive web
applications. AJAX is a programming tool that is used
extensively in what are known as Web 2.0 applications.
Analogue: ‘Something that corresponds to something
else.’ For example, in the context of equipment used for
recording and playing back sound, analogue refers to the
way in which the sound is recorded and reproduced.
Anchor: In the context of HTML, an anchor the coding
system used for creating web pages. An anchor is the main
target of a hyperlink.
Animation: The display of a sequence of images in a com-
puter program or on a web page to give the impression of
movement.
Application Programming Interface (API): The word
Application refers to any software (available on Operating
System)with a distinct function. Interface can be thought
of as a contract of service between two applications. This
contract defines how the two communicate with each
other using requests and responses.
Apache: It is the most popular web server software on the
World Wide Web. Apache mainly runs on UNIX systems.
Applet: It is a small program written in the Java program-
ming language and embedded in a web page. When you
use your browser to access a web page, an applet may run
inside the web page, as it were to perform an interactive
animation and make a calculation or carry out another
simple task.
App: Application.
Archie: It allows a user to search files in FTP sites. It regu-
larly monitors hundreds of FTP sites and updates a data-
base (called an Archie server) on software, documents
and data files available for downloading. By clicking on
a list of the Archie server, it will take the user to another
computer system where relevant files are stored. The
Archie server may allow users to continue their searches
for files until they locate what they actually need.
Archive: It is used to describe the documents or files that
are not immediately needed but would not be completely
discarded. An archive may be stored in an external hard
disk, such as CD-ROM, DVD or other storage devices.
Advanced Streaming Format (ASF): Microsoft’s own
file format that stores both audio and video information
and is specially designed to run over the internet.
Attachment: It is a term used in connection with an email.
An attachment can be a file of almost any kind, such as a
document file, an image file, a sound file or a video clip
that you can add, that is, attach to an e mail.
23/12/22 7:38 PM
 Information and Communication Technology (ICT)
Authoring Package/authoring Program/authoring
Tool: These terms specify the content-free software pack-
ages that allow a teacher to develop interactive learning
and teaching materials without having to hold detailed
knowledge about computer programming languages.
These terms may also be applied to software packages
used for creating web pages, for example, FrontPage or
Dreamweaver.
Automatic Speech Recognition (ASR): A branch of
human language technologies that helps in automatic
processing of human speech.
Avatar: It is a graphical representation of a real ­person;
it is used as MUVE or MMORPG, a kind of ‘virtual world’.
AVI: It refers to Audio Video Interleave.
Backup or back up: Used as a verb; to back up means to
copy a file or folder from your computer to another storage
device.
Bandwidth: It is the amount of data that can be sent
from one computer to another through a particular con-
nection in a certain amount of time. For example, it can
be connected through a computer to the internet and
vice versa. The more the bandwidth, the faster the access
to information. Bandwidth is usually measured in kbps
or Mbps.
Baud: It is a unit of measurement at which data can be
transferred (i.e. the baud rate), for example, over a tel-
ephone line through a modem or from a computer to an
external device, such as a printer. Baud is rarely used
nowadays, as transfer rates are normally expressed in
kbps or Mbps.
BGAN: They are short for ‘Broadband Global Area
Network’ and are portable terminals which provide inter-
net connectivity and voice communications in remote
locations.
BIOS: Basic input/output system.
Bitmap (BMP): It is a computer graphic or image com-
posed of thousands of individual dots or pixels, each pixel
being stored as a number.
Blackboard: It is a commercial virtual learning environ-
ment (VLE) package.
Blockchain: Blockchain was introduced in 1991 by
Stuart Haber and W. Scott Stornetta. It was introduced
to public in 2008 by Satoshi Nakamoto. Crypto currency
that is supported by Blockchain that is actually a ‘Group
of blocks (chunks)’ that holds group of information. The
information is stored in ‘digital format’ that is used in
transactions in business network. They are used crypto-
currency systems, such as Bitcoin, meme crypto, dogecoin
(linked with the richest person Elon Musk). It maintains
a ‘secure’ and decentralized record of transactions. It is
also used for decentralized finance (DeFi) applications,
non-fungible tokens (NFTs), and smart contracts. Closely
linked with it is NFT.
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8.31
Non Fungible Tokens (NFTs): They are created using
the same type of programming used for cryptocurrencies.
These are based on blockchain technology but can not be
traded like bitcoin or ethereum.
Blog: A blog (short form for web log) is an online diary in
which an individual records and publishes his/her thoughts
on one or more subjects. It can contain news items, short
essays, annotated links, documents, graphics and multime-
dia. These posts are usually in a reverse chronological order
and often take the form of a journal or diary. Blogger refers
to someone who blogs, that is, who regularly writes blogs.
Bookmark: It is a facility within a browser that enables
a person to keep a record of web pages visited and that
may be visited again. Bookmarks are stored in a subdirec-
tory of the Windows directory on computer. In Internet
Explorer, bookmarks are known as Favorites.
Boot: It is a verb used for starting up a computer by load-
ing the operating system into memory.
Bot: It is short for robot; we can look at ‘crawler’, as well.
Branching: It is the process of interrupting a sequence of
instructions in a computer program so as to go to a differ-
ent point.
Bug: Not a nasty insect but a logical fault in a computer
program that causes it to malfunction.
Bulletin Board: A type of forum on the internet or an
intranet, where users can post messages by email or
WWW for other users to read and respond to. BBS stands
for Bulletin Board Systems.
Burn: When data is written on a CD, this process is often
referred to as ‘burning a CD’. This system is seldom used
these days.
Cache: It contains the information stored by a web
browser on the hard disk, so that we do not have to down-
load the same material repeatedly from a remote com-
puter. The cache is normally stored under Windows in a
folder called Temporary Internet Files.
CALI: Computer Assisted Language Instruction.
Camcorder: A portable video camera, capable of record-
ing live motion video for later replay through a videocas-
sette recorder (VCR), DVD player or computer.
Card: An electronic circuit board, usually one which can
be slotted into your computer in order to fulfil a special-
ized function. Examples are sound card and video card.
Cascading Style Sheets (CSS): CSS are a feature of
HTML that enables a range of styles for headers, body
text, bullet points, links, etc.
Case Sensitivity: It is used to describe how a computer
program, for example, a browser, interprets upper-and-
lower case letters.
Cathode Ray Tube (CRT): An older type of computer
display screen or monitor, in which beams of high-voltage
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 8.32
electrons are fired at a screen causing thousands of red,
green and blue (RGB) dots to glow in different combina-
tions and intensities. It produces full-colour image dis-
played on the screen.
CBT: Computer-based training.
Compact Disc Read-only Memory (CD-ROM): This is a
pre-pressed optical compact disc that contains data (audio,
text, sound, pictures etc). Computers can read—but not
write or erase on them (read-only memory). During the
1990s, CD-ROMs were popularly used to distribute soft-
ware and data for computers and fifth generation video
game consoles. They have been replaced with Memory
Flash such as Flash Memory cards, Integrated Chips (ICs)
and cloud computing.
CELL: Computer enhanced language learning.
CERN: European Organization for Nuclear Research in
Geneva. It is the largest particle physics laboratory. It is
also the birthplace of the World Wide Web, which was
invented there by Tim Berners-Lee.
Computer Graphics: This deals with generating images
with the aid of computers. Now, it has become a core
technology in digital photography, film, video games, cell
phone and computer displays etc.
CGI Script: Common Gateway Interface. A term used by
web authors, it processes data from an HTML form.
Character User Interface (CUI): CUI is a user interface
where the user interacts with the computer solely through
the keyboard. He requires a command to perform any task.
CUI is the precursor of GUI and was utilized in most of the
early computers. Most computers use GUI rather than CUI.
Chat Room: A synchronous, mainly text-based commu-
nication facility, offering a web-based environment in
which people either drop into or arrange to meet and chat
at specific times.
Chunking: This is the method of presenting information
which splits concepts into small pieces or chunks so that
they can be understood faster and easier.
Client: A computer that receives services from another
computer. We can refer to LAN and VAN in the chapter.
Clipart or Clip Art: A collection of image files that can
be embedded or inserted into web pages, word-processed
documents, PowerPoint presentations, etc.
Clipboard: A temporary storage area in a computer’s
­memory.
Clock Speed: The speed of a computer’s CPU that is nor-
mally expressed in megahertz (1 million cycles/s) or giga-
hertz (1000 MHz).
Cloze Procedure: It was invented by Wilson Taylor. It was
originally conceived as a tool for measuring the readabil-
ity of a text or a learner’s reading comprehension level. It
derives itself from the gestalt psychology term ‘closure’,
whereby people tend to complete a familiar but incom-
plete pattern by ‘closing’ the gaps.
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Chapter 8
CMC: Computer-mediated communication.
CMY: Cyan Magenta Yellow, the scheme used in colour
printing.
CODEC: COmpressor/DECompressor or COder/
DECoder. A CODEC is a software that is used to compress
or decompress a digital audio or video file.
Collaborative Writing: A process that involves the
creation and editing documents using Web 2.0 tools
designed for use by multiple authors, for example, Google
Documents or Zoho Writer.
Colour Depth: The number of colours that can be dis-
played at any one time on a computer display screen.
Combination Drive: A disk drive that is capable of read-
ing and writing CD-ROMs, audio CDs and DVDs.
Compatibility: It is basically the setting between hard-
ware and/or software so that they can work together.
Compression: A technique which reduces the amount of
space required to store data.
Concordance Program: It operates on a body of texts (a
corpus) and is commonly used for compiling glossaries
and dictionaries.
Condenser Microphone: This type of microphone is
probably the best type to use in multimedia CALL pro-
grams as it provides a stronger signal when the learner is
recording his/her own voice.
Content and Language Integrated Learning (CLIL): If a
foreign language is to be used.
Content-free: Used to describe a computer program which
is supplied as an ‘empty shell’, that is, without content, such
as texts, images, audio recordings or video recordings.
Continuing Professional Development (CPD): It can
take the form of seminars, research, training courses, etc.
Cookie: It is a piece of information stored in a user’s com-
puter by a web browser when the user visits a website for
the first time. Websites use cookies to recognize users
who have previously visited them. The next time the user
visits that site, the information in the cookie is sent back
to the site so that the site can tailor what it presents to
the user, for example, tastes in music or shopping habits.
Copyright: New technologies have raised all kinds of new
issues relating to copyright mainly because it has become
so easy to copy materials from a variety of digital sources.
Course Management System (CMS): It is a type of virtual
learning environment (VLE), for example, Moodle.
Crash: It basically refers to ‘hang’ (stopping) of software
and hardware during their working. Their was a ‘google
hangout’ that was a cross platform instant messaging
service that was originally a feature of google+ (that also
closed). In ‘frozen screen’, the keyboard and/or mouse go
dead with the result that nothing can be typed and the
cursor cannot be moved around the screen.
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 Information and Communication Technology (ICT)
Crawler: This searches the web for new links, new content
and changes in order to keep the search engine results up
to date. It may also be called a bot (short form for robot)
or ­spider. Crawlers within the search engines perform a
useful indexing function, but there are also crawlers or
bots that have more sinister motives, such as gathering
addresses to be targeted by spammers.
Data-driven Learning (DDL): It was pioneered by
Tim Johns, whereby learners of a foreign language
gain insights into the language that they are learning
by using concordance programs to locate authentic
examples of language in use.
Debug: To test a program and remove all bugs. Permanent
bugs that defy eradication are often referred to ironically
as ‘features’.
Default: A setting or value automatically assigned to a
computer program or device in the absence of a choice
made by the user.
Defrag: This term is used for maintenance of systems, it
reduces the fragmentation of system. This organizes the
data or contents of mass storage device (such as storage
devices).
Desktop Publishing (DTP): An application for laying out
text, graphics and pictures in order to produce a profes-
sional-looking publication.
Diacritic: When added to a letter, it gives it a special
phonetic value. This indicates a particular pronunciation
of the words.
Digital: It is ‘based on numbers’. The modern com-
puter is a typical example of digital technology, so are
CD-ROMs, DVD-ROMs, audio CDs and video DVDs, on
which numbers are coded as a string of tiny pits pressed
into a p
­ lastic disc.
Directory: A group of files and subdirectories grouped
together for organizational purposes. The term is used
synonymously with folder.
Discussion list: An electronic discussion list, also known
as a forum, is a way of sharing emails with the members
of a group of people with a common interest.
Dithering: This technique of combining dots of primary
colours is used to give the appearance of an intermediate
colour.
Dpi: Dots per inch.
DVD: Digital Video Disc or Digital Versatile Disc.
Dynamic Microphone: It is used when a learner has to
record his/her own voice.
Encryption: A system of coding that helps prevent access
to private information on computer networks or on
the web.
Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
(EBCDIC): This is a binary code for alphabetic and
M08_MADAN 04_65901_C08.indd 33
8.33
numeric characters that IBM developed for its larger
operating systems.
Executable: This describes a program which has been
converted (compiled) into binary machine code. If you
double-click an executable program name in Windows
Explorer, then it will immediately execute itself, that is,
run. Executables usually have the extension .exe or .com.
Extension: In computer jargon, an extension is an optional
addition. Usually, it consists of a dot plus three or four let-
ters to the name of a file. The extension to the filename
helps the computer (and the user) recognize what type of
file it is and what it may contain, for example, .doc is a
Word document file, .exe is a computer program, .jpg or
.jpeg is a picture file and .htm or .html is a web page file.
Favorites: A facility within the Internet Explorer browser
that allows to keep a record of web pages that you have
visited and may like to visit again. These are also known as
bookmarks.
Feedback: Feedback is an automatic response from a
computer, which may take the form of text, image, audio,
video or any combination of these, to a learner’s input.
Finger: This command allows the display of the contents
of the files that are associated with a particular user iden-
tifier at a particular internet site.
Firewall: A firewall is a software package that sits between
your computer and your internet connection, keeping an
eye on the traffic going to and fro. Otherwise hackers can
use them to their benefits.
Firewire: It allows a person to transfer video recordings
from one device to another in a fast manner, that is, from
a camcorder to a computer, using a special cable.
Firmware: It is a software that has been written to a
(read-only memory (ROM) chip by the manufacturers.
Flame: When we use discussion list, forum or blog, Flame
is used to describe a language that is rude, sarcastic or
condescending.
Flash Drive: A portable storage device. Its storage capac-
ity is impressive.
Fuzzy Matching: A matching technique which is used in
programs when allowances have to be made for inaccura-
cies in spelling on the part of the learner.
Gap Filler: It consists of two parts: (i) a teacher’s program
which allows him/her to input a text, and then specify
words, parts of words or phrases that are to disappear, and
(ii) a student’s program which enables the learner to inter-
act with the computer by filling in the gaps.
Geek: A term to describe someone obsessed with comput-
ers and who uses them at every opportunity in his/her
free time, mainly for ‘social’ purposes.
Generic Software/application: They may be used in
many areas, but are not specifically for use in a specific
subject area, for example, a word processor (Word),
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 8.34
spreadsheet package (Excel), presentation software
(PowerPoint) and database package (Access).
GIF: Graphic Interchange Format. It is a file format used
for storing simple graphics.
Gopher: This is an application-layer protocol that pro-
vides the ability to extract and view Web documents
stored on remote Web servers. Gopher was conceived in
1991 as one of the Internet’s first data/file access proto-
cols to run on top of a TCP/IP network. This is equivalent
to FTP.
This is linked with ‘Veronica’ that stands for Very Easy
Rodent Oriented Netwide Index to computer archives. It
helps in the searching for the text.
Graphical user Interface (GUI): It consists of graphi-
cal elements known as icons and allows the user to run
programs and also to carry out other operations. Icon is a
small symbol or picture used in a GUI.
Hacker: A person who spends time to gain access to
information stored on other people’s computers all
around the world. Some hackers are harmless and some
harm others.
HF (High Frequency): ‘High frequency’ is the desig-
nated term for the range of radio waves between 3 and
30 MHz.
Host: It refers to a computer that provides services to
other computers that are linked to it through a local net-
work or through the internet.
Hub: A common connection point for networked comput-
ers and other devices. Hubs are used to connect devices in
a local area network (LAN).
Hypermedia: It is an extension of hypertext that inte-
grates audio, video and graphics with text (like multi-
media). Hypermedia is an extension to what is known as
hypertext. Information bits are stored in the form of sig-
nals in hypermedia. Internet is the best example of use
of hypermedia. It is the ability to open new Web pages by
clicking text links on a Web browser.
Hypertext: It is a technology that links text in one part of
a document with its related text in other part of the docu-
ment or in other documents. A user can quickly find the
related text by clicking on the appropriate keyword, key
phrase, icon or button.
Integrated Chips (ICs): This IC is a set of electronic
circuits on one small flat piece (or “chip”) of semiconductor
material, that is usually made up of silicon.
Interactive Whiteboard (IWB): It is a touch-sensitive
projection screen that allows the teacher to control a com-
puter directly by touching the screen, that is, the white-
board, rather than using a keyboard or a mouse.
Internet Relay Chat (IRC): This service allows each par-
ticipant’s contribution to be displayed on the screens to all
others taking part in the conversation.
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Chapter 8
Integrated Learning System (ILS): It is a computer-
driven system of learning in which the content is pre-
sented in tutorial format and which monitors and records
the progress of the learner.
Intelligent CALL (ICALL): It mimics human intelligence.
Interactive Whiteboard (IWB): It is a touch-sensitive
projection screen that allows the teacher to control a com-
puter directly by touching the screen, that is, whiteboard,
rather than using a keyboard or mouse.
Interface: It is a connection between two systems. It can
be hardware or software. It may take the form of a plug,
cable or socket or all the three.
iPod: It is the name of a portable (mobile) media player
designed and marketed by Apple.
Java: It is a programming language invented by Sun
Microsystems that is specifically designed for writing
programs that can be downloaded to one’s computer
through the internet and immediately executed. Java is a
programming language designed for programs or applets
used through the internet.
JPEG (Joint Photographic Experts Group): It is a
format for storing complex graphics in a compressed
form.
LCD: Liquid crystal display is a type of flat panel computer
display screen.
Learning Object: It is capable of being reused in a vari-
ety of applications and may be described as a Reusable
Learning Object (RLO).
Learning Platform: A term used to describe the software
and systems that are used to deliver e-learning. Sometimes
it is virtual learning environment (VLE) and sometimes
managed learning environment (MLE).
Leased Line: Also known as a private circuit, it is a dedicated
communications link between two sites. It is separate from
the public telephone network and reserved exclusively for
the use of the owner, usually at a fixed tariff regardless of
usage levels.
Link Rot: It describes the tendency of hypertext links
from one website to another to die as other sites cease to
exist or remove or restructure their web pages.
Linux: A Unix-type operating system, which is similar to
Windows and the Apple Mac operating system.
Lurker: It is mainly used in connection with a ­discussion
list, forum or blog. This term describes someone who pre-
fers to read other people’s messages rather than posting
his/her own views.
Machine-assisted Translation (MAT): It assists us in the
process of translating natural language.
Mashup: A mashup is a web page that brings together
data from two or more web services and combines it into
a new application with added functionality.
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 Information and Communication Technology (ICT)
Maze: The maze is divided into action mazes and text
mazes that have been used by language teachers for many
years for reading and comprehension activities and to
stimulate conversation in the classroom.
Menu: A list of options from which a computer user makes
a selection in order to determine the course of events in a
program. Menu bar helps in it.
Microblogging: It is an approach to blogging in which
very short texts are posted and contains snippets of infor-
mation about events, websites and other sources.
MicroSD: This is smaller variant of Secure Digital (SD).
It is used in certain cellphones, PDAs, and smaller lighter
devices. An adopter is to be used for its working.
MLAT: Modern Language Aptitude Testing.
MLE: Managed learning environment.
Moblog: A contraction of mobile and blog.
Moodle: Moodle is an open source software, which means
it is free to download, use, modify and even distribute.
MOO: Multi-User Domain Object Oriented.
MP3: A file format for storing high-quality audio files.
MP4: There are two basic types, namely, MP4 Advanced
Audio Codin (AAC g) and MP4 Advanced Video Coding
(AVC).
MPEG or MPG: Motion Picture Expert Group.
Multimedia: The integration of two or more types of
information (text, images, audio, video, animation, etc.)
in a single application.
Multitasking: This is the execution of more than one pro-
gram, apparently at the same time, on a computer.
Narrowband: A term used to describe a slow-speed con-
nection to the internet, normally via a modem and less
than or equal to 64 kbps.
Natural Language Processing (NLP): A general term
used to describe the use of computers to process informa-
tion expressed in natural human languages.
Navigation: This describes the process of finding your
way, that is, navigating, around a series of menus within a
computer program or finding your way around the World
Wide Web by means of a browser.
Netbook: A netbook is a small, lightweight computer that is
smaller than a laptop computer, with a long battery life and
ideal for travelling with. Netbook computers have built-in
Wi-Fi and are optimized for browsing the web and email.
Netiquette: Etiquette on the internet is a code of behaviour
for people communicating by email via the internet.
Netizen: It is a term used to describe someone who uses
network resources.
Netscape: An early web browser, which first appeared in
1994, shortly after the World Wide Web went public.
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8.35
Ning: A platform that enables you to create your own
social network.
Online Learning: The use of the internet to follow a
course that usually results in the award of a diploma or
certificate.
Open Source: It is used to describe a software that is pro-
vided free of charge along with the original source code
used to create it, so that anyone can modify, improve and
work in ways that reflect one’s own preferences. Moodle is
a typical example of an open source software.
Open and Integrated Learning System (OILS): A vari-
ant of Integrated Learning System. The word Open means
extra dimension.
Optical Character Recognition: Optical character recog-
nition (OCR) software is used in conjunction with a scan-
ner to convert printed text into a digital format.
Pathname: The pathname of a file on a computer specifies
exactly its position on disc and it consists of at least three
parts: (i) drive letter, (ii) directory and (iii) filename, for
example, c:\windows\user.exe.
PDA: Personal digital assistant.
PDF: It is Portable Document Format, a file type created
by Adobe that allows fully formatted documents to be
transmitted across the internet and viewed on any com-
puter that has Adobe Acrobat Reader software.
Personal Digital Assistant (PDA): It is a handheld device
that combines computing, audio communication, brows-
ing and networking features and serves as an organizer
for personal information.
Phishing: An illicit attempt to trick individuals into handing
over personal, confidential information. Phishing requests
often seem legitimate. For example, they carry an official-
looking logo of a known service like VISA and may be perpe-
trated by phone, email or the internet.
Pixel: A Pixel is a contraction of picture element. Every
online graphic consists of a bunch of tiny coloured squares
working together to form an image. In a way, online graphics
emulate a painting technique called ‘Pointillism’.
Platform: Often used as an alternative term for a com-
puter system, including both the hardware and the soft-
ware. Platform-independent software means that the
software can be run on any computer.
Pointing Device: It is a device which allows to control the
position of the cursor on a computer screen by physical
manipulation of the device in different directions.
Podcast: The term podcast takes its name from a combi-
nation of iPod and broadcasting. Podcasts can simply be
downloaded to a computer and played using a standard
media player program.
Pop-up: It is a small window that appears within a pro-
gram or over a web page to deliver additional informa-
tion. Pop-ups on the web can be annoying as they are
often used for unwanted advertising material.
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 8.36
Portable Network Graphics (PNG): This is a graphics
format that is specifically designed for use on WWW. PNG
compresses images without any loss of quality, even for
high resolution images. This is assumed to be better than
JPG.
Portal: It is a web page, website or service that acts as a link
or entrance to other websites on the internet. Typically, a
portal includes an annotated catalogue of websites and
may also include a search engine, email facilities, a forum
and other services.
Presentation, Practice and Production (PPP): A long-
established approach to language teaching, consisting of
three main phases: (i) presentation phase, (ii) practice
phase and (iii) production phase.
Public Domain: It is a material that is copyright free,
whose copyright has expired or which cannot be copy-
righted. Many people think that because something is on
the web, it must be in the public domain. This is not so. A
work is in the public domain only if it is explicitly stated
to be so.
PVP: Portable Video Player.
QR Code: Quick Response code. It is a two-dimensional
barcode that can store a variety of different types of infor-
mation, such as a text, a website URL, a telephone num-
ber, an SMS message and an email address.
Relative Link: A term used mainly by web authors. In an
HTML document, a relative link indicates the location of
a file relative to the document, whereas an absolute link
specifies the full URL.
Repurpose: To reuse content in a different way from that
which was originally intended.
Response Analysis: A feature of CALL programs whereby
the computer attempts to diagnose the nature of errors
the learner makes and to branch to remedial exercises.
Rip: To extract or copy data from one format to another.
Root Directory: The topmost directory in the directory hier-
archy, from which all other directories are descended.
RSS: It is a development in the internet technology that
enables the users to subscribe to websites that change or
add content regularly, for example, news sites (such as the
BBC) and sites containing blogs, Nings, podcasts and Wikis.
RSS makes use of software that presents new ­additions.
RTF: Rich Text Format is an alternative way of storing a
document created by a word processor.
Sampling: This term refers to taking the value of a wave-
form (e.g. a sound wave or video signal).
Scanning: This is a reading technique that is used when
you want to find specific information quickly. We quickly
move our eyes through the text to locate specific word or
a phrase or ideas. It’s similar to looking up the dictionary
for a specific word or looking for information in reference
book.
M08_MADAN 04_65901_C08.indd 36
Chapter 8
Scroll: To move up and down or from side to side through
a document or a window to view or access all of its
­contents.
Search Engine: A search facility provided at a number of
sites on the World Wide Web.
Semantic Web: The Semantic Web allows the user to
search the web in a more sophisticated way.
Server: A computer which provides services to other com-
puters, which are known as clients.
Server: It is a computer which provides services to other
computers and is known as clients.
Setup Program: A program that enables the user to set
up a program.
Shockwave Player: Software developed by Adobe that
helps in containing interactive multimedia materials to be
played on the web.
Skimming: This is the process of reading only main ideas
within a document to get an overall impression of the con-
tent. It is applied when we are confronted with a lot to
read within a limited time.
Silicon chip: An encased piece of extremely pure ­silicon
on to which electronic circuits are etched.
Simultaneous Peripheral Operations Online (SPOOL):
With this, the output is not directly sent to the printer. It
is first transferred to an intermediary storage medium
such as a disk file. The output can then be stored in
separate files and printed at a later stage depending on
the availability of time and storage.
Smartphone: These include mobile phones that primarily
run on the ‘Android’ and ‘iOS’ (of Apple) operating systems.
They include any open operating system that has a software
development kit available to developers where native
APIs are used to write applications. They have cameras
for recording, many video and audio functions. They run
various applications. Example is Apple’s iPhone.
Smiley: In email messages, a facial expression con-
structed sideways (for the lateral-minded) with standard
characters is called a smiley. It is also referred to as an
emoticon (emotions with icons).
Social Media: It is a term used to describe a variety of
Web 2.0 applications that enable people to share images,
audio recordings and video recordings through the web
and also initiate discussions about them.
Social Networking: It is a term applied to a type of web-
site where people can seek other people who share their
interests, find out what is going on in their areas of inter-
est and share information with one another.
Spam: These are unsolicited email advertisements, which
are the internet equivalent of junk mail.
Spambot: A spambot program is designed to collect email
addresses from the internet in order to build mailing lists
for sending spam.
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 Information and Communication Technology (ICT)
Splog: The splog site creator (i.e. a splogger) begins by
finding a subject that attracts a lot of visitors. Then, the
splogger sets up a blog that plagiarizes content from other
sites dealing with this subject. Splogs may consist of hun-
dreds of blogs with plagiarized content, containing mul-
tiple links to selected websites.
Spyware: It is a term that may be used synonymously
with adware but implies more sinister motives on the part
of the person who has dumped it onto your computer,
for example, with a view to steal private information
such as bank account numbers, credit card numbers and
passwords.
SVGA: Super Video Graphics Adaptor. This is used to con-
trol the output on a computer display screen.
Tablet Computer: A tablet computer is a compact por-
table computer that makes use of a touchscreen instead of
a keyboard for typing and running applications. Apple’s
iPad is a typical example of a tablet computer.
Tagging: This has become very common in last few
years as a result of widespread use of social media. This
helps in sharing images, audio recordings, video record-
ings, website references and so on. They are also used in
HTML, to define how the on-screen text is rendered by
the browser.
Tags and Attributes: An HTML tag is indicated by open-
ing () brackets. Each tag contains various attributes,
depending on the tag used.
Tandem Learning (Buddy Learning): It is a form of
learning in which two language learners pair up in order
to learn each other’s language. This may take place face-
to-face or through the internet and includes using virtual
worlds, such as second life.
Task-based Learning (TBL): An approach to learning in
which the learner acquires knowledge of the subject that
is being studied by focusing on a specified task.
TELL: Technology-Enhanced Language Learning.
Telnet: A program which allows you to log in to a remote
host computer and carry out the same commands as if you
were using a terminal at the host site.
Text File: It is a data file consisting entirely of printable
ASCII characters, that is, plain unformatted text. Text
files often have a .txt extension after the filename (e.g.,
readme.txt) and their contents can be viewed using
programs such as Windows Notepad. This file can also be
used for ‘authoring packages’ such as Fun with Text.
Thumbnail: This is a small picture (miniature version)
that links to a larger image. This is a graphic. Thumbnail
graphics are hyperlinked to larger versions of the graphic.
After we master the art of resizing and cropping images,
we are ready to use thumbnails. This is specifically used in
YouTube.com.
Thuraya IP+: These are portable terminals which pro-
vide internet connectivity and voice communications in
M08_MADAN 04_65901_C08.indd 37
8.37
remote locations, using satellite connections. They are
similar to BGAN in many respects.
TIFF or TIF: Tag Image File Format.
Toolbar: A toolbar is a kind of menu bar. It is mostly
located at the top of a computer screen that contains icons
for the most commonly used commands in an application,
for example, in a word processor or browser.
Total cloze: An activity in which a complete text is
reduced to sets of blanks.
Touchscreen: A display screen which enables a com-
puter system to react to the touch of a finger, for example,
smartphones and tablet computers.
Traditional Knowledge Digital Library (TKDL): Set up in
2001, this is an Indian digital knowledge repository of the
traditional knowledge, especially about medicinal plants
and formulations used in Indian systems of medicine.
Trainspotter: A colloquial term that is often used to
describe someone who is fascinated by the technology of
computers but not particularly interested in their appli-
cations.
Trojan: Usually, malicious programs that install them-
selves or run surreptitiously on a victim’s machine.
Troll: A troll intentionally posts derogatory or provocative
messages in an online community such as a discussion list,
forum and blog to bait other users into responding.
Unicode: The Unicode Worldwide Character Standard is
a character coding system designed to support the inter-
change, processing and display of the written texts of the
diverse languages of the modern world.
Universal Serial Bus (USB): It is a means of connecting a
wide range of devices, such as digital cameras, camcord-
ers, iPods, mobile phones, scanners and printers, through
a cable to a computer.
Unix: An operating system widely used on large com-
puter systems in institutions on which many web servers
are hosted. A PC version of Unix is called Linux. It has
become popular as an alternative to Windows.
URL: Uniform Resource Locator. It is also known as a web
address. A URL contains the location of a resource on the
internet.
Vector Graphic: It is a method of creating graphic
images on a computer. It tells to draw lines in particular
positions.
Very High Frequency (VHF): ‘VHF’ is the designated
term for the range of radio waves between 30 and 300
MHz. VHF radio covers short distances, extendable
through VHF repeaters.
Video Memory: The dynamic memory available for the
computer’s display screen. The greater the amount of
memory, the greater is the possible colour depth and reso-
lution of the display.
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 8.38
Video Conferencing: A computer-based communication
system that allows a group of computer users at
different locations to conduct a virtual conference in
which the participants can see and hear one another
as if they were in the same room participating in a real
conference.
Virtual Learning Environment (VLE): A VLE is a web-
based package designed to help teachers create online
courses, together with facilities for teacher–learner com-
munication and peer-to-peer communication.
Virtual Private Network (VPN): A VPN allows remote
offices or users to enjoy secure access to their organiza-
tion’s network using the internet or other public telecom-
munications systems.
Virtual Reality: The simulation of an environment by
presentation of 3D moving images and associated sounds,
giving the user the impression of being able to move
around with the simulated environment.
Very-small-aperture Terminal (VSAT): Typically, 1.8–
3.8 m in diameter, a VSAT is a fixed satellite communica-
tion system or earth station with an antenna that accesses
satellites to provide internet connectivity in remote
­locations.
Vlogs (or video blogs): Vlogs are akin to blogs, these are
simply the video versions of blogs. We share video content
in vlogs and educate people accordingly.
Vodcast: It is the short form for video podcast. This pod-
cast incorporates video as well as audio features.
Voice Over Internet Protocol (VoIP): It is an audio
communication using the internet instead of telephones.
It is another name for internet telephony. Skype and
Ventrilo are the examples of VoIP.
VRML: Virtual Reality Mark-up Language allows the dis-
play of 3D images.
VSAT Calling: The UNHCR maintains a global VSAT
network that allows cost-effective voice communication
between offices from HQ to the field as well as between
field offices.
W3C: It is the abbreviation for World Wide Web
Consortium, an international non-profit organization
that acts as a resource centre for the World Wide Web, and
is active in setting technical standards.
Website: It is an area on the WWW where an organization
or individual stores a collection of pages of material such
as the web pages. The pages are usually interlinked with
one another and with other websites. Every website has a
unique web address or URL.
Web Whacking: This involves saving entire websites for
offline use.
M08_MADAN 04_65901_C08.indd 38
Chapter 8
Webmail: A facility for creating, sending and receiving
messages through the internet.
WebQuest: A webQuest is a task-oriented activity. Here,
the learner draws on material from different websites in
order to achieve a specific goal.
Webserver: A computer or a software package running
on a computer that delivers, that is, server, web pages to
its clients.
Wiki: It is a website or a similar online resource which
allows anyone to set up a resource in which the content
can be created collectively. It allows anyone who views
the Wiki to add or to edit the existing content. Wiki also
refers to the software used to create such website.
Wikipedia: It is the best known example of a Wiki. It is a
collaboratively written encyclopaedia.
Windows: The name of a range of several different graph-
ical user interface (GUI) operating systems produced by
the Microsoft Corporation.
Wireless Application Protocol (WAP): WAP is basically
a technical standard for accessing information over a
mobile wireless network. A WAP browser is a web browser
for mobile devices such as mobile phones that uses this
protocol.
Wizard: This software guides us about step-by-step
through a complex task. For example, configuring a printer
to output data in a special format.
WMA: Windows Media Audio.
WorldCALL: It is basically the worldwide umbrella asso-
ciation of CALL associations (http://www.worldcall.org). It
helps the countries that are currently not derserving in the
applications of ICT.
World Wide Web Consortium (W3C): It is an interna-
tional non-profit organization which acts as a resource
centre for the WWW and is active in setting technical
standards.
eXtensible Markup Language (XML): This specification
is as per demand from the WWW Consortium (W3C). It
allows web designers to create their own language for
displaying documents on the web.
Zip: ZIP is an archive file format that supports lossless data
compression. A ZIP file may contain one or more files or
directories that may have been compressed. It was invented
in 1989. Examples are WinZip or WinRar. Zipped files are
recognized by the extension .zip or .rar (for files created by
WinRar) and they have to be unzipped before they can be
used, again using proprietary programs.
Zip Drive: A type of disc drive that accepts portable zip
disks. Zip drives themselves are also portable and can be
connected to almost any computer.
23/12/22 7:38 PM
 Information and Communication Technology (ICT)
A s s e s s Yo u r L e a r n i n g
ICT BasICs
1. ICT stands for
(a) Information and communication technology
(b) Information-controlled technology
(c) Information-capable technology
(d) None of the above
2. Which of the following is the appropriate definition
for information technology?
(a) Information technology refers to the use of hard-
ware and software for processing information.
(b) Information technology refers to the use of hardware
and software for distribution of useful information.
(c) Information technology refers to the use of hard-
ware and software for storage, retrieval, process-
ing and distributing information of many kinds.
(d) Information technology refers to the use of prin-
ciples of physical sciences and social sciences for
processing of information of many kinds.
3. Which of the following is also termed multimedia
education?
(a) ICT-supported education
(b) ICT-enabled education
(c) ICT education
(d) None of the above
4. Read the following two statements. [Jan 2017]
I: Information and Communication Technology
(ICT) is considered as a subset of Information
Technology (IT).
II: The ‘right to use’ a piece of software is termed as
copyright.
Which of the above mentioned statement(s) is/are
correct?
(a) Both I and II (b) Neither I nor II
(c) II only (d) I only
5. As per UNESCO, which of the following can be taken
as the sequence of ‘understanding ICT in Education’?
(a) Policy Understanding, Policy Application, Policy
Innovation
(b) Policy Application, Policy Understanding, Policy
Innovation
(c) Policy Innovation, Policy Application, Policy
Understanding
(d) Policy Innovation, Policy Understanding, Policy
Application
6. Assertion (A): Information and Communication
Technology (ICT) can complement, enrich and trans-
form education for the betterment of society.
Reason (R): There are many ways technology
can facilitate universal access to education, bridge
learning divides, support the development of teach-
ers, enhance the quality and relevance of learning,
M08_MADAN 04_65901_C08.indd 39
8.39
strengthen inclusion, and improve education admin-
istration and governance.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct
statements, and Reason (R) is the correct expla-
nation of the Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct
statements, but Reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of the Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is incor-
rect statement.
(d) Assertion (A) is incorrect, but Reason (R) is cor-
rect statement.
7. Assertion (A): In this everchanging technologically
advanced world, educators must cope with the inven-
tions and advancements to cater to the students of
this generation.
Reason (R): With the help of ICT, individuals can
generate awareness amongst students apart from
augmenting their knowledge level in different aspects.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but
Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
8. NPTEL stands for
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
(a) National Programme on Technology Enhanced
Learning
(b) National Programme on Technology Enabled
Learning
(c) National Programme on Technology Enhanced
Lessons
(d) National Programme on Technology Embedded
Learning
9. The ERNET stands for
(a) Engineering and Research Network
(b) External and Regulated Network
(c) Educational and Research Network
(d) None of the above
10. At which of the following institutions is ERNET used
to connect computers?
(a) IISCs
(b) IITs
(c) National Centre for Software Technology
(d) All of the above
11.Which of the following technologies is mostly used by
a teacher in virtual education?
(a) Course management applications
(b) Multimedia resources
(c) The internet
(d) Video conferencing
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 8.40
12. Which of the following statements are correct?
1. The combination of computing, telecommunica-
tion and media in a digital atmosphere is referred
to as convergence.
2. A dialogue between a human being and a com-
puter program that occurs simultaneously in vari-
ous forms is described as ‘interactivity’.
3. The attitude is counted as the most important
component of ICT.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3
13. Which of the following open source e-learning plat-
forms has been developed by IIT Kanpur?
(a) e-Gyan (b) e-Saraswati
(c) Brihaspati (d) None of the above
14. Recording a television programme on a VCR is an
example of
(a) Time shifting (b) Content reference
(c) Mechanical clarity (d) Media synchronization
15. Which of the following is/are the main challenge/s in
ICT adoption in Indian universities?
(a) Lack of technological readiness
(b) Poor implementation of ICT initiatives
(c) Linguistic barrier
(d) All of the above
16. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
[2020]
Assertion (A): Machine Learning requires good qual-
ity and sufficient data to train and test the algorithm.
Reason (R): For correct classification, good quality
data which is free from noise, and sufficient data is
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
required for training and testing of the algorithm.
In light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct
explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is not correct
(d) A is not correct but R is correct
17. TKDL stands for
(a) Traditional Knack Digital Library
(b) Traditional Knowledge Digital Library
(c) Transfer Knowledge Desktop Literature
(d) Transfer Knowledge Digital Library
18. Statement 1: Asynchronous communication means
‘out of sync’ that is ‘not in real-time’.
Statement 1: The examples of asynchronous com-
munication are Discussion Forums, Blogs, e-Groups,
Wikipedia (Knowledge base), Google (search engine)
and Mobile SMS, MMS and Podcasting.
(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct.
(b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are not correct.
(c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is not correct.
(d) Statement 1 is not correct but Statement 2 is correct.
M08_MADAN 04_65901_C08.indd 40
Chapter 8
19. Which of the following statements are true?
1. Sending and receiving messages/signals occurring
at the same time is denoted by synchronous.
2. Video conferencing is an example of synchronous
technologies.
3. Education through CD is asynchronous.
4. Digital divide is the term used in the context of
differentiation in the use of IT/ICT in developed
and developing nations, and also in urban and
rural India.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
20. Which of the following statements are true in the con-
text of hypermedia database?
1. Information bits are stored in the form of signals
2. Internet is the best example of use of hypermedia
3. Hypermedia is an extension to what is known as
hypertext.
4. It is the ability to open new Web pages by clicking
text links on a Web browser.
(a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
21. Communication bandwidth that has the highest
capacity and used by microwave, cable and fibre
optics lines is known as
(a) Hyperlink (b) Broadband
(c) Bus width (d) Carrier wave
22. Symbols A–F are used in which one of the following?
 [Dec 2014]
(a) Binary number system
(b) Decimal number system
(c) Hexadecimal number system
(d) Octal number system
23. The concept of connect intelligence is derived from
(a) Virtual reality
(b) Fuzzy logic
(c) Bluetooth technology
(d) Value-added networks
24. The function of mass communication of applying
­information regarding the processes, issues, events
and societal developments is known as
(a) Content supply (b) Surveillance
(c) Gratification (d) Correlation
25. Which of the following statements are true in the con-
text of ICT?
1. Online learning
2. Learning through the use of EDUSAT
3. Web-based learning
4. Asynchronous and synchronous media
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 , 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
26. Information that is a combination of graphics, text,
sound, video and animation is called
(a) Multiprogramme (b) Multifacet
(c) Multimedia (d) Multiprocess
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 Information and Communication Technology (ICT)
27. Which of the following institutions launched a knowl-
edge repository e-Gyankosh in 2005 that aims at stor-
ing and preserving digital learning resources?
(a) IIT Kanpur
(b) IGNOU
(c) Allahabad University
(d) Delhi University
28. The institution promoted by the Department of IT to
provide communication infrastructure and services to
academic research institutions in India is
(a) INFLIBNET (b) UGC
(c) ERNET (d) None of the above
29. The bouquet of FM radio channels which broadcast
programmes contributed by institutions such as
IGNOU and IITs is
(a) Gyan Vani (b) Gyan Darshan
(c) EDUSAT (d) None of the above
30. Which of the following institutions has been working
in the direction to develop a Virtual Technical Univer-
sity in India?
(a) IGNOU (b) UGC
(c) NMCEIT (d) AICTE
31. The joint initiative of the IITs and IISc to provide
­e-learning through online web and video courses in
many streams, specifically engineering in the country,
by providing free online courseware is
(a) National Programme on Technology Enhanced
Learning
(b) AICTENET
(c) NMCEIT
(d) None of the above
32. The terms gif, jpg, bmp, png are used as extensions for
files which store [December 2014]
(a) audio data (b) image data
(c) video data (d) text data
33. ‘A-VIEW’, the software that has been developed under
the NMEICT, is basically developed for
(a) Teacher’s training (b) Technical training
(c) Students’ training (d) All of the above
34. Web 2.0 tools have made traditional learning more
social and personalized. Which of the following can
be referred to as Web 2.0 tools?
(a) Blogs and Wikis
(b) Podcasts and mashups
(c) Social networking communities
(d) All of the above
35. Which of the following is a characteristic of Web 2.0
applications? [January 2017]
(a) Multiple users schedule their time to use Web 2.0
applications one by one.
(b) Web 2.0 applications are focused on the ability
for people to collaborate and share information
online.
(c) Web 2.0 applications provide users with content
rather than facilitating users to create it.
(d) Web 2.0 applications use only static pages.
M08_MADAN 04_65901_C08.indd 41
8.41
36. Which of the following statements are true in context
of Web 3.0 that is taken as the latest phase in social
learning?
1. This is freer for users, from a behavioural perspective.
2. There is higher individual focus, and user
engagement.
3. There is more of customization
4. Blockchains and NFTs are connected with Web 3.0.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
37. Which of the following services can help students to
access computer files from remote locations through
mobile phones?
(a) Facebook (b) Renren
(c) Soonr (d) Twitter
38. Satellite communication works through
(a) Transponder (b) Radar
(c) TV (d) Fibre optics cable
39. Assertion (A): The leading agencies should strengthen
their leading role in Artificial Intelligence (AI) in
education, as a global laboratory of ideas, standard
setter, policy advisor and capacity builder.
Reason (R): The deployment of Artificial Intelligence
(AI) technologies in education should be purposed to
enhance human capacities and to protect human rights
for effective human-machine collaboration in life,
learning and work, and for sustainable development.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct
statements, and Reason (R) is the correct
explanation of the Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct
statements, but Reason (R) is not the correct
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
explanation of the Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is incorrect
statement.
(d) Assertion (A) is incorrect, but Reason (R) is
correct statement.
40. Consider the following statements
Statement 1: Non Fungible Tokens (NFTs) are unique
cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain and
cannot be replicated.
Statement 2. Non Fungible Tokens (NFTs) can
represent real-world items such as artwork and
real estate. ‘Tokenizing’ these real-world tangible
assets makes buying, selling, and trading them more
efficient while reducing the probability of fraud.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct
statements, and Reason (R) is the correct
explanation of the Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct
statements, but Reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of the Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is incorrect
statement.
(d) Assertion (A) is incorrect, but Reason (R) is
correct statement.
23/12/22 7:38 PM
 8.42 Chapter 8

Computer Terms
41. A computer consists of 48. Select the option that includes the file formats suitable
(a) A central processing unit for distributing sound files across the internet.
(b) A memory  [Dec 2019]
(c) Input and output unit (a) wmv, mp4, wma, mp3
(d) All of the above (b) avi, midi, wav, mp3
42. A typical modern computer uses (c) avi, mov, wmv, mp3
(a) LSI chips (d) midi, wav, wma, mp3
(b) Vacuum tubes 49. Group of instructions to direct the functioning of a
(c) Valves ­computer is called
(d) All of the above (a) Storage (b) Memory
43. Which of the following is/are the correct statement/s? (c) Program (d) Byte
(a) Computers can be used for diagnosing the diffi- 50. The main component of first-generation computers
culty of a student in learning a subject. was
(b) Psychological testing can be done with the help of (a) Transistors
a computer, provided that a software is available. (b) Vacuum tubes and valves
(c) A set of instructions is called a programme. (c) Integrated circuits
(d) All of the above (d) None of the above
44. Which of the following statements is not correct? 51. FORTRAN is the acronym for
(a) Computer is capable of processing only digital (a) File translation
signal. (b) Format translation
(b) Computer is capable of analysing both quantita- (c) Formula translation
tive and qualitative data. (d) Floppy translation
(c) Appropriate software is required for processing
52. In analogue computer
the data.
(a) Input is first converted to digital form
(d) Computer is capable of processing digital as well
(b) Input is never converted to digital form
as analogue signals.
(c) Output is displayed in digital form
45. Which of the following statements are correct? (d) All of the above
1. Virus improves the speed of processing informa-
tion in the computer. 53. A hybrid computer
2. Virus is a part of software. (a) Resembles a digital computer
(b) Resembles an analogue computer
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

3. Computer is an electrical machine.

4. Computer can think on its own due to AI.
5. Computer can hold data for any length of time.
(a) 2, 3, 4 and 5 (b) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(c) 3, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 3 and 5
46. Which of the following is the appropriate definition of
a computer? [December 2006]
(a) Computer is a machine that can process
information.
(b) Computer is an electronic device that can store,
retrieve and quickly process both quantitative and
qualitative data accurately.
(c) Computer is an electronic device that can store,
retrieve and quickly process only quantitative
data.
(d) Computer is an electronic device that can
store, retrieve and quickly process only quali-
tative data.
47. Which one the following pairs least matches in respect
of computer? (June 2019)
(a) 1 Giga Byte : (1024)8 bits
(b) CRT : Cathode Ray Tube
(c) ROM : Rapid Online Memory
(d) CPU : Central Processing Unit
(c) Resembles both a digital and an analogue computer
(d) None of the above
54. In the latest generation of computers, the instruc­tions
are executed
(a) Parallelly only
(b) Sequentially only
(c) Both sequentially and parallelly
(d) All of the above
55. The data storage hierarchy consists of  (November
2017)
(a) Bytes, bits, fields, records, files and databases.
(b) Bits, bytes, fields, records, files and databases.
(c) Bits, bytes, records, fields, files and databases.
(d) Bits, bytes, fields, files, records and databases.
56. Select the option that shows the storage devices in
order of capacity from lowest to highest. [Jun 2019]
(a) CD-ROM, DVD-ROM, Blu-ray
(b) Blu-ray, CD- ROM, DVD-ROM
(c) CD-ROM, Blu-ray, DVD-ROM
(d) CD-ROM, DVD-ROM, Blu-ray
57. The hexadecimal number system consists of the
symbols
(a) 0–7 (b) 0–9, A–F
(c) 0–7, A–F (d) None of the above

M08_MADAN 04_65901_C08.indd 42 23/12/22 7:38 PM

 Information and Communication Technology (ICT)
58. The binary equivalent of (−15)10 is (two’s complement
system is used)
(a) 11110001 (b) 11110000
(c) 10001111 (d) None of the above
59. 1 GB is equal to
(a) 230 bits (b) 230 bytes
(c) 220 bits (d) 220 bytes
60. Which of the following statements are true?
1. All computers, big, medium or small, must have
ALU, Control Unit and Primary Storage.
2. A byte consists of eight bits.
3. A nibble consists of four bits.
4. A bit is the smallest unit of computer memory.
5. Bit is a binary digit meaning that it can take the
value of either 1 or 0.
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 3, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 2, 3 , 4 and 5 (d) 2, 3 and 4
61. Which of the following is flash memory?
(a) RAM (b) EEPROM
(c) PROM (d) EPROM
62. Which of the following is/are example/s of operating
systems?
   I. Unix/BSD
II. GNU/Linux
III. Windows
IV. Mac OS: Mac OS X
(a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV
(c) I, III and IV (d) All of the above
63. Statement 1: The system software designed to help in
analyzing, monitoring, configuring, optimizing set-
tings and maintaining the computer is known as util-
ity software.
Statement 2: The general term used for the software
that can be copied and used without payment to the
author(s), although there may be some restrictions
on distribution, is called as Freeware.
Codes:
(a) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true
(b) Both statements 1 and 2 are false
(c) Statements 1 is true and statement 2 is false
(d) Statements 1 is false and statement 2 is true
64. The silicon chips used for data processing are called
(a) RAM chips (b) ROM chips
(c) Microprocessors (d) PROM chips
65. The metal disks that are permanently housed in
sealed and contamination-free containers are called
(a) Hard disks (b) Floppy disks
(c) Winchester disks (d) Flexible disks
66. All modern computers operate on
(a) Information (b) Floppies
(c) Data (d) Word
67. Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Instructions and memory address are represented
by binary codes.
M08_MADAN 04_65901_C08.indd 43
8.43
2. The size of computers was very large in first gen-
eration due to vacuum tubes and punch cards.
3. Microprocessors as switching devices are for
fourth generation of computers.
4. Integrated chips were used in third generation
computers.
(a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
68. UNIVAC is
(a) Universal automatic computer
(b) Universal array computer
(c) Unique automatic computer
(d) Unvalued automatic computer
69. Which of the following programming languages is
widely used in computer science, engineering and
also business?
(a) COBOL (b) FORTRAN
(c) PASCAL (d) LISP
70. Which of the following can be termed a the first super
computer of India?
(a) PARAM 8000 (b) PARAM Yuva
(c) PARAM Padma (d) PARAM Brahma
71. The following fastest super computer was installed
under National Supercomputing Mission (NSM) at
the Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru in January
2022. It runs on CentOS 7.x, has 4 petabytes of stor-
age and a peak computing power of 3.3 Petaflops.
(a) PARAM Pravega (b) PARAM Sanganak
(c) PARAM Shivay (d) PARAM Siddhi-AI
72. PARAM is a series of supercomputers designed and
assembled by the Centre for Development of Advanced
Computing (C-DAC) under Ministry of Electronics
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
and Information Technology (MeITY). PARAM
means “supreme” in the Sanskrit language, whilst
also creating an acronym for “PARAllel Machine. The
C-DAC is headquartered in
(a) Pune
(b) Bengaluru
(c) Chennai
(d) SAS Nagar, Mohali
73. Normally, these computers are used in banking,
­airlines, railways, etc., for their applications. They can
accommodate more than 1000 workstations simulta-
neously and can process data at a very high speed and
can support concurrent programmes. These are
(a) Mainframe computers
(b) Microcomputers
(c) Workstations
(d) Supercomputers
74. Which of the following is used for manufacturing
chips?
(a) Bus (b) Control unit
(c) Semiconductors (d) (a) and (b) only
75. Which of the following correctly lists the types of
the computer memory from highest to lowest speed?
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23/12/22 7:38 PM
 8.44 Chapter 8

(i) Secondary storage (a) Both statements 1 and 2 are right

(ii) Main memory (RAM) (b) Statement 1 and Statement 2 are incorrect.
(iii)Cache memory (c) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.
(iv) CPU registers (d) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.
Codes: 83. ALU stands for
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (a) Arithmetic logic unit
(b) (iv), (iii), (i), (ii) (b) Array logic unit
(c) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i) (c) Application logic unit
(d) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i) (d) None of the above
76. Which of the following can be taken as the exact 84. The ALU of a computer responds to the commands
sequence for the flow of data in a computer? ­coming from
(a) Cache – CPU – Memory (a) Primary memory (b) Control section
(b) Cache – Memory – CPU (c) External memory (d) Cache memory
(c) CPU – Cache – Memory 85. It contains buttons and menus that provide quick
(d) CPU – Memory – Cache access to commonly used commands. It is a
(a) Menu bar (b) Toolbar
77. Pick the correct statements (c) Window (d) None of the above
1. The source programme is written in high language.
2. The set of computer programs that manage the 86. Which of the following statements are correct?
hardware/software of a computer is called oper- 1. The type of keys Ctrl, Shift and Alt are termed as
ating system. Modifier Keys.
3. A software that converts a program from assem- 2. ALU, Logical operations, Input output operations
bly language to machine language is called a and Data Manipulation are functions of CPU.
assembler. 3. The instructions for starting the computer are set
4. A software which converts a high-level language up on Read-only memory chip.
program to machine language in one go is called (a) 2 and 3
compiler. (b) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (c) 1 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4 (d). 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 87. The ALU of a computer normally contains a number of
(d) 1, 2 and 3 high-speed storage elements called
78. A computer program that translates one program (a) Semiconductor memory
instructions at a time into machine language is called (b) Registers
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

a/an (c) Hard disks

(a) Interpreter (b) CPU
(c) Compiler (d) Simulator
79. A small or intelligent device is so called because it
­contains within it a
(a) Computer (b) Microcomputer
(c) Programmable (d) Sensor
80. Which of the following statements are true?
1. Hard disk memory has the highest capacity.
2. Central processing unit performs read or write
operations directly with RAM.
3. An algorithm is basically the logical flow of a
program.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
81. A collection of 8 bits is called
(a) Byte (b) Word
(c) File (d) Folder
82. Which of the following statement/s is/are true?
Statement 1: CPU is the brain of a computer.
Statement 2: CPU consist of control unit , logic unit
and primary storage.
(d) Magnetic disk
88. A factor which would strongly influence a business
­person to adopt a computer is its
(a) Accuracy (b) Reliability
(c) Speed (d) All of the above
89. The keyboard of a computer is encoded in
(a) Baudot code (b) ASCII code
(c) BCDIC code (d) EBCDIC code
90. EBCDIC stands for
(a) Extended Binary-Coded Decimal Interchange
Code
(b) Extended Bit Code Decimal Interchange Code
(c) Extended Bit Case Decimal Interchange Code
(d) Extended Binary Case Decimal Interchange
Code
91. EBCDIC can code up to how many different characters?
(a) 256 (b) 16
(c) 32 (d) 64
92. If the binary equivalent of the decimal number 53 is
110101, then the binary equivalent of the decimal
number 50 is given by
(a) 110011 (b) 110010
(c) 110001 (d) 110100

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 Information and Communication Technology (ICT) 8.45

93. ASCII stands for
(a) American Stable Code for International
Interchange
(b) American Standard Case for Institutional
Interchange
(c) American Standard Code for Infor­ mation
Interchange
(d) American Standard Code for Inter­ change
Information
94. CD ROM stands for
(a) Computer Disk Read-only Memory
(b) Compact Disk Read-over Memory
(c) Compact Disk Read-only Memory
(d) Computer Disk Read-over Memory
95. SIMM is
(a) Serial in Memory Module
(b) Serial Input Memory Module
(c) Synchronous In Memory Module
(d) Synchronous Input Memory Module
96. Which of the following is not an example of primary
memory?
(a) RAM (b) ROM
(c) Cache memory (d) Magnetic tape
97. Which of the following statements are true?
Statement 1: Data can be saved on backing storage
medium known as Computer Disk rewritable.
Statement 2: Process of copying files to a CD-ROM is
known as Burning.
(a) Both statement are wrong
(b) Both statements are right
(c) Statement 1 is right but statement 2 is wrong
(d) Statement 1 is wrong but statement 2 is right.
Statement 2:The Internal Memory or Primary Mem-
ory comprises of main memory, cache memory and
CPU registers which are directly accessible by the
processor.
(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct.
(b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are not
correct.
(c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is not
correct.
(d) Statement 1 is not correct but Statement 2 is
correct.
103. Which of the following statements are true in con-
text of memory hierarchy?
1. As we move from top to bottom in the hierarchy,
the capacity increases.
2. As we move from top to bottom in the hierarchy,
the access time increases.
3. One of the most significant ways to increase sys-
tem performance is minimizing how far down
the memory hierarchy one has to go to manipu-
late data.
4. As we move from bottom to top in the hierarchy,
the cost per bit increases that means that Internal
Memory is costlier than External Memory.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
104. The act of retrieving existing data from the memory
is called
(a) Read-out (b) Read from
(c) Read (d) All of the above
105. RAM is used as short memory as it is

A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
98. RAM means (a) Expensive (b) Small capacity
(a) Random access memory (c) Programmable (d) Volatile
(b) Rigid cccess memory 106. The computer memory used for temporary storage
(c) Rapid access memory of data and program is called
(d) Revolving access memory (a) ROM (b) RAM
99. Microprocessing is made for (c) EROM (d) EPROM
(a) Computer (b) Digital system 107. The memory which is programmed at the time of its
(c) Calculator (d) Electronic goods manufacturing is
100. Which is the largest unit of storage among the (a) ROM (b) RAM
­following? (c) PROM (d) EPROM
(a) Terabyte (b) Megabyte 108. Which of the following is a secondary mem­ ory
(c) Kilobyte (d) Gigabyte device?
101. In comparison to secondary storage, primary (a) CPU (b) ALU
storage is (c) Floppy diskette (d) None of the above
(a) Slower and less expensive 109. The most important advantage of a video disk is
(b) Faster and more expensive (a) Compactness (b) Potential capacity
(c) Faster and less expensive (c) Durability (d) Cost-effectiveness
(d) Slower and more expensive 110. Floppy disks which are made from flexible plastic
102. Which of the following statements is / are true? material are also called
Statement 1:The External Memory or Second- (a) Hard disks (b) High-density disks
ary Memory comprises of Magnetic Disk, Opti- (c) Diskettes (d) Templates
cal Disk, Magnetic Tape i.e. peripheral storage 111. What is the latest write-once optical storage media?
devices which are accessible by the processor via (a) Digital paper (b) Magneto-optical disk
I/O Module. (c) WORM disk (d) CD-ROM disk

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 8.46 Chapter 8

112. Regarding a VDU, which of the following statements Choose the correct answer from the options given
is more correct? below:
(a) It is an output device. (a) (C), (A), (D), (B)
(b) It is an input device. (b) (C), (A), (B), (D)
(c) It is a peripheral device. (c) (A), (C), (D), (B)
(d) It is a hardware item. (d) (A), (C), (B), (D)
113. The two main memory types are 122. Which of the following statements are true in con-
(a) Primary and secondary text of memory hierarchy?
(b) Random and sequential 1. Memories are made up of registers.
(c) ROM and RAM 2. Memory locations are identified using Address.
(d) All of the above 3. The total number of bits a memory can store is its
114. Which of the following will happen when data is capacity.
entered into a memory location? 4. A storage element is called a Cell.
(a) It will add to the content of the location. 5. The data in a memory are stored and retrieved
(b) It will change the address of the memory by the process called writing and reading
location. respectively.
(c) It will erase the previous content. (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) It will not be fruitful if there is already some data (b) 2, 3 and 4
at the location. (c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
115. A storage area used to store data to compensate for (d) 1, 2 and 4
the difference in speed at which the different units 123. Which of the following statements are true about
can handle data is RAM?
(a) Memory (b) Buffer 1. RAM is also called read-write memory or the main
(c) Accumulator (d) Address memory or the primary memory.
116. Which of the following memories allow simultane- 2. The programs and data that the CPU requires
ous read and write operations? during the execution of a program are stored in
(a) ROM (b) RAM RAM.
(c) EPROM (d) None of the above 3. RAM is a volatile memory as the data is lost when
the power is turned off.
117. Which of the following memories has the shortest 4. RAM is classified into two types- SRAM and DRAM
access times?
(a) Cache memory (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(b) Magnetic bubble memory (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

(c) Magnetic core memory 124. Which of the following statements are true about
(d) RAM ROM?
118. To locate a data item for storage is 1. ROM stores the most crucial information that is
(a) Field (b) Feed essential to operate the system such as the pro-
(c) Database (d) Fetch gram required to boot the computer.
2. ROM is used in embedded systems where the pro-
119. The magnetic storage chip used to provide non-vol- gramming does not need any change.
atile direct access storage of data and that has no 3. ROM is not volatile as it always retains its data.
moving parts is known as 4. ROM is used in calculators and peripheral devices.
(a) Magnetic core memory 5. ROM is classified into four types which are MROM,
(b) Magnetic tape memory PROM, EPROM, and EEPROM.
(c) Magnetic disk memory (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) Magnetic bubble memory (b) 2, 3 and 4
120. OCR stands for (c) 1, 2 and 4
(a) Operational Character Reader (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(b) Optical Character Reader 125. Which of the following statements are true in con-
(c) Only Character Reader text of cache memory?
(d) None of the above 1. Cache memory is used to reduce the average time
121. Identify the correct order of the following computer to access data from the Main memory.
storage capacities ranked from largest to smallest 2. Cache memory is costlier than main memory or
capacity. [2021] disk memory but economical than CPU registers.
(A) 100 GBytes 3. Cache memory is an extremely fast memory type
(B) 10 000 000 000 Bytes that acts as a buffer between RAM and CPU.
(C) 1 TBytes (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(D) 1000000 KBytes (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3

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 Information and Communication Technology (ICT) 8.47

126. Consider the following statements 134. MSI stands for

Statement 1: The memory devices used for primary (a) Medium-Scale Integrated Circuits
memory or main memory or internal memory are (b) Medium-System Integrated Circuits
semiconductor memories. (c) Medium-Scale Intelligent Circuit
Statement 2: The secondary memory or auxiliary (d) Medium-System Intelligent Circuit
devices are magnetic and optical memories. 135. WAN stands for
(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct. (a) WAP Area Network
(b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are not (b) Wide Area Network
correct. (c) Wide Array Net
(c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is not (d) Wireless Area Network
correct. 136. Choose the correct options
(d) Statement 1 is not correct but Statement 2 is 1. MICR stands for Magnetic Ink Character Reader.
correct. 2. OCR is used for directly image printed text.
127. Which of the following statements are true? 3. Out put quality of printer is measured by dot per
1. The primary memory is more economical than inch.
the secondary memory. 4. Laser printer is very commonly used for desktop
2. The memory that is capable of storing high vol- publishing.
ume data is referred to secondary memory. Options
3. Secondary memory is slower than the primary (a) 1, 2, and 4 (b) 1, 3, and 4
memory. (c) 1, 2, 3, and 4 (d) 1, 2, and 3
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 137. An output device that uses words or messages
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3 recorded on a magnetic medium to produce audio
128. Which of the following stores the program to initially response is
boot the computer and only allows Reading? (a) Magnetic tape
(a) RAM (b) Voice response unit
(b) ROM (c) Voice recognition unit
(c) RAM and ROM (d) Voice band
(c) Peripheral memory 138. An error in the software or hardware is called a bug.
129. Which of the following is called as the flash memory? What is the alternative computer jargon for it?
(a) Static RAM (a) Leech (b) Squid
(b) Dynamic RAM (c) Slug (d) Glitch
(c) EEPROM 139. Errors in computer program are called

A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
(d) CD – ROM (a) Follies (b) Mistakes
130. Which of the following is a way to access secondary (c) Bugs (d) Spam
memory? 140. Modern computers are very reliable but they are not
(a) Random access memory (a) Fast (b) Powerful
(b) Action method (c) Infallible (d) Cheap
(c) Transfer method 141. Personal computers use a number of chips mounted
(d) Density method on a main circuit board. What is the common name
131. A CD-RW disk for such boards?
(a) Has faster access than other disks (a) Daughter board (b) Motherboard
(b) Is a type of optical disk (c) Father board (d) Dashboard
(c) Can be written only once 142. What is meant by a dedicated computer?
(d) Can be erased and rewritten (a) Which is used by one person only
132. EEPROM stands for (b) Which is assigned one and only one task
(a) Electrically Erasable Programmable Read-only (c) Which uses one kind of software
Memory (d) Which is meant for application software
(b) Easily Erasable Programmable Read-only 143. The system unit of a personal computer typically
Memory ­contains all of the following except
(c) Electronic Erasable Programmable Read-only (a) Microprocessor (b) Disk controller
Memory (c) Serial interface (d) Modem
(d) None of the above 144. Programs designed to perform specific tasks are
133. VGA denotes known as
(a) Video Graphics Array (a) System software
(b) Visual Graphics Array (b) Application software
(c) Volatile Graphics Array (c) Utility programs
(d) Video Graphics Adapter (d) Operating system

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 8.48 Chapter 8

145. The time during which a job is processed by the (a) Dynamic disk exchange
­computer is (b) Dodgy data exchange
(a) Delay time (b) Real time (c) Dogmatic data exchange
(c) Execution time (d) Down time (d) Dynamic data exchange
146. An approach that permits the computer to work on 157. An application program that helps the user to change
­several programs instead of one is any number and immediately see the result of that
(a) Online thesaurus change is
(b) Multiprogramming (a) Desktop publishing program
(c) Overlapped processing (b) Database
(d) Outline processor (c) Spreadsheet
147. The term gigabyte refers to (d) All of the above
(a) 1024 bytes (b) 1024 kilobytes 158. CAD stands for
(c) 1024 megabytes (d) 1024 gigabytes (a) Computer-Aided Design
148. The device that provides information which is sent (b) Computer Algorithm for Design
to the CPU is termed (c) Computer Application in Design
(a) Input (b) Output (d) All of the above
(c) CPU (d) Memory 159. Which of the following is required when more than
149. The type of media with varying capacities that is one person use a central computer at the same time?
used in the storage subsystem in a microcomputer is (a) Terminal (b) Light pen
(a) Memory or video (c) Digitizer (d) Mouse
(b) Magnetic or optical 160. Which of the following is used only for data entry
(c) Optical or memory and storage, and never for processing?
(d) Video or magnetic (a) Mouse
150. Which is considered a direct entry input device? (b) Dumb terminal
(a) Optical scanner (b) Mouse and digitizer (c) Microcomputer
(c) Light pen (d) All of the above (d) Dedicated data entry system
151. The computer code for interchange of information 161. Which of the following will be required to produce
between terminals is high-quality graphics?
(a) ASCII (b) BCD (a) RGB monitor (b) Plotter
(c) EBCDIC (d) All of the above (c) Inkjet printer (d) Laser printer
152. On the keyboard of a computer, each character has 162. Magnetic tapes can serve as
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

an ASCII value which stands for (a) Secondary storage media

(a) American Stock Code for Information (b) Output media
Interchange (c) Input media
(b) American Standard Code for Infor­ mation (d) All of the above
Interchange
(c) African Standard Code for Information Interchange 163. If in a computer, 16 bits are used to specify address in
(d) Adaptable Standard Code for Infor­ mation a RAM, then the number of addresses will be
Interchange (a) 216 (b) 65,536
(c) 64k (d) Any of the above
153. Which part of the CPU performs calculations and
makes decisions? 164. The two major types of computer chips are
(a) Arithmetic logic unit (a) External memory chip
(b) Alternating logic unit (b) Primary memory chip
(c) Alternate local unit (c) Microprocessor chip
(d) American logic unit (d) Both (b) and (c)
165. What is the responsibility of the logical unit in the
154. Dpi stands for
CPU of a computer?
(a) Dots per inch (b) Digits per unit
(a) To produce result
(c) Dots pixel inch (d) Diagrams per inch
(b) To compare numbers
155. The process of laying out a document with texts, (c) To control the flow of information
­graphics, headlines and photographs is involved in (d) To do mathematical works
(a) Deck top publishing 166. The secondary storage devices can only store data
(b) Desktop printing but they cannot perform
(c) Desktop publishing (a) Arithmetic operations
(d) Deck top printing (b) Logical operation
156. The transfer of data from one application to another (c) Fetch operations
line is known as (d) Either of the above

M08_MADAN 04_65901_C08.indd 48 23/12/22 7:38 PM

 Information and Communication Technology (ICT)
167. Which of the printers used in conjunction with
­computers uses dry ink powder?
(a) Daisy wheel printer (b) Line printer
(c) Laser printer (d) Thermal printer
168. Which of the following produces the best quality
graphics reproduction?
(a) Laser printer (b) Inkjet printer
(c) Plotter (d) Dot matrix printer
169. A 32-bit microprocessor has a word length equal to
(a) 2 bytes (b) 32 bytes
(c) 4 bytes (d) 8 bytes
170. An error in computer data is called
(a) Chip (b) Bug
(c) CPU (d) Storage device
171. A set of information that defines the status of
resources allocated to a process is
(a) Process control (b) ALU
(c) Register unit (d) Process description
172. Any method for controlling access to or use of mem-
ory is known as
(a) Memory map
(b) Memory protection
(c) Memory management
(d) Memory instruction
173. The accounting software Tally was developed by
(a) HCL (b) TCS
(c) Infosys (d) Wipro
174. The file extension of Excel spreadsheet is
(a) .doc (b) .txt
(c) .xls (d) .ppt
175. The XML stands for
(a) Extensible Markup Language
(b) External Makeup Language
(c) External Markup Logic
(d) External Magnitude Language
176. The standard size of IP address is
(a) 16 bits (b) 32 bits
(c) 48 bits (d) 64 bits
The Internet and Email
187. What is the ‘Internet’?
(a) A hardware networking technique
(b) World Wide Web
(c) Computers that are all linked together in a
network
(d) None of the above
188. Line access and avoidance of collision are main func-
tions of
(a) CPU
(b) Monitor
(c) Network protocols
(d) Wide Area Networks
M08_MADAN 04_65901_C08.indd 49
8.49
177. Multimedia is basically a/an
(a) Animation feature
(b) Programming language
(c) Technology
(d) All of the above
178. What do you need to put your web pages on the
WWW?
(a) A connection to the internet
(b) A web browser
(c) A web server
(d) All of the above
179. Which is the largest unit of storage among the
following?
(a) Terabyte (b) Megabyte
(c) Kilobyte (d) Gigabyte
180. Which of the following is not a linear data structure?
(a) Array (b) Binary tree
(c) Queue (d) Stack
181. Which of the following is not a network device?
(a) Router (b) Switch
(c) Hub (d) CPU
182. Which of the following represents the binary equiva-
lent of the decimal number 23?
(a) 01011 (b) 10111
(c) 10011 (d) None of the above
183. Computers on the internet are identified by
(a) Email address (b) Street address
(c) IP address (d) None of the above
184. An example of asynchronous medium is
(a) Radio (b) Television
(c) Film (d) Newspaper
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
185. A message beneath a message is labelled as
(a) Embedded text (b) Internal text
(c) Intertext (d) Subtext
186. In analogue mass communication, stories are
(a) Static (b) Dynamic
(c) Interactive (d) Exploratory
189. In web search, finding a large number of documents
with very little relevant information is termed
(a) Poor recall
(b) Web crawl
(c) Poor precision rate
(d) Poor web response
190. Use of an ordinary telephone as an internet appli-
ance is called
(a) Voice net (b) Voice telephone
(c) Voice line (d) Voice portal
191. Using websites to pour out one’s grievances is called
(a) Cyberventing (b) Cyber ranting
(c) Web hate (d) Web plea
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 8.50
192. Which of the following is the appropriate format of
URL of email?
(a) www_mail.com (b) www@mail.com
(c) WWW@mail.com (d) www.mail.com
193. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Modem is a software.
(b) Modem helps in stabilizing the voltage.
(c) Modem is an operating system.
(d) Modem converts analogue signals into digital
and vice versa.
194. The term WWW represents
(a) Who What And Where
(b) Weird Wide Web
(c) Word Wide Web
(d) World Wide Web
195. HTML is basically used to design
(a) Web page (b) Website
(c) Graphics (d) Tables and frames
196. Which of the following protocols manages the assem-
bling of a message or file into smaller packets that
are transmitted over the internet and received by a
layer that reassembles the packets into the original
message, and also handles the address part of each
packet so that it gets to the right destination?
(a) HTTP (b) TCP/IP
(c) FTP (d) All of the above
197. A set of guidelines or standards that establish the
­format in which files can be transmitted from one
computer to another is
(a) TCP (b) IP
(c) FTP (d) All of the above
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
198. The protocol used specifically for exchange of
emails is
(a) SMTP (b) TCP
(c) IP (d) None of the above
199. SMTP stands for
(a) Simplest Mail Transfer Protocol
(b) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
(c) Sample Mail Transfer Protocol
(d) Separate Mail Transfer Protocol
200. Given the following email fields, which of the
email addresses will ‘swami’ be able to see when he
receives the message? [July 2018]
To ... ram@test.com
Cc ... raj@test.com; ravi@test.com
Bcc ... swami@test.com; rama@test.com
(a) ram@test.com
(b) ram@test.com; raj@test.com; ravi@test.com
(c) ram@test.com; rama@test.com
(d) ram@test.com; rama@test.com; raj@test.com;
ravi@test.com
201. A word in a web page that when clicked opens
another ­document is
(a) Anchor (b) URL
(c) Hyperlink (d) Reference
M08_MADAN 04_65901_C08.indd 50
Chapter 8
202. Which of the following identifies a specific web page
and its computer on the web?
(a) Website (b) Website address
(c) URL (d) Domain name
203. Which of the following terms applies to all the web
pages for Amazon.com?
(a) Top-level domain (b) Website
(c) Website address (d) Web domain
204. Given below are two statements—one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R). [Dec 2019]
Assertion (A): The internet is a collection of inter-
connected computer networks that are linked by
transmission medium such as copper wires, fiber-
optic cables, wireless connections, etc.
Reason (R): World Wide Web is a collection of inter-
connected documents.
From the above two statements, choose the correct
answer.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the cor-
rect explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
205. Given below are two statements—one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R). [Dec 2019]
Assertion (A): The internet is a collection of inter-
connected computer networks that are linked by
transmission medium such as copper wires, fiber-
optic cables, wireless connections, etc.
Reason (R): World Wide Web is a collection of inter-
connected documents.
From the above two statements, choose the correct
answer.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the cor-
rect explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
206. Look at the following statements.
Statement 1: The language used for creating Web
pages is HTML (Hyper Text Markup Language).
Statement 2: All web pages are linked with each
other with the help of Hyperlink and hypermedia.
(a) Statement 1 and statement 2 are true
(b) Statements 1 and 2 are false
(c) Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false
(d) Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true
207. Which of the following is ‘web server’?
(a) Apache
(b) yahoo
(c) Google Chrome
(d) Baidu
23/12/22 7:38 PM
 Information and Communication Technology (ICT)
208. Firewalls are used to protect a communication net-
work against
(a) Unauthorized attacks (b) Virus attacks
(c) Data-driven attacks (d) Fire attacks
209. Which of the following ISP is free of cost?
(a) CompuServe (b) AOL
(c) NetZero (d) None of the above
210. Which of the following is virtual reality website?
(a) First Life (b) Second Life
(c) Gyan Life (d) None of the above
211. Which of the following refers to an educational
­website that allows its members to add or change its
information?
(a) Educational or .edu
(b) Social networking site
(c) Wiki
(d) Web 2.0
212. If you want to create a broadcast that can be down-
loaded from the internet, then what would you create?
(a) iBroadcast (b) eShow
(c) Podcast (d) iCast
213. Video transmission over the internet that looks like
delayed livecasting is called
(a) Virtual video (b) Direct broadcast
(c) Video shift (d) Real-time video
214. It is a very high-speed data transmission line that
provides networking facilities to relatively small
but high-speed internet service providers (includ-
ing commercial, educational, military, government
establishments) all around the world. It is known
as
(a) Pathway
(b) Backbone
(c) Communication system
(d) Routers
215. What type of telecommunication hardware allows
you to access the web?
(a) Browser (b) Modem
(c) FTP (d) IRC
216. VoIP technology converts voice calls from
(a) Analogue to digital (b) Digital to analogue
(c) It depends (d) None of the above
217. What is the domain originally meant for non-profita-
ble organizations?
(a) .gov (b) .org
(c) .net (d) .in
218. Which of the following is an internet connection
option?
(a) Dial-up connection
(b) Digital subscriber line
(c) Broadband
(d) All of the above
219. Which of the following is not related to information
security on the internet?
(a) Data encryption (b) Watermarking
(c) Data hiding (d) Information retrieval
M08_MADAN 04_65901_C08.indd 51
8.51
220. Bit stands for
(a) Binary information term
(b) Binary tree
(c) Binary digit
(d) Bivariate theory
221. Which of the following is not a linear data structure?
(a) Array (b) Binary tree
(c) Queue (d) CPU
222. A compiler is used to convert the following to object
code which can be executed.
(a) High-level language
(b) Low-level language
(c) Assembly language
(d) Natural language
223. Which of the following is not a network device?
(a) Router (b) Switch
(c) Hub (d) CPU
224. What is the full form of HTTP?
(a) Hypertext Transmission Protocol
(b) Hypertext Transfer Protocol
(c) Hyperterminal Transport Protocol
(d) Hyperterminal Transfer Protocol
225. The protocol dealing with transfer of hypertext
between two or more computers is
(a) HTML (b) FTP
(c) HTTP (d) TCP
226. IRC stands for
(a) Internet-Related Chat
(b) Internet Relay Chat
(c) Internet-Related Content
(d) None of the above
227. Which of the following are types of internet
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
connections?
(a) SLIP (b) DIAS
(c) PPP (d) All of the above
228. Internet’s initial development was supported by
(a) ARPANET (b) Bill Rogers
(c) Bill Gates (d) Microsoft
229. The Internet Explorer was invented and released
by
(a) Microsoft (b) WIPRO
(c) Sun Microsystems (d) Infosys
230. Gopher protocol is used to
(a) Distributing documents through the internet
(b) Searching documents through the internet
(c) Retrieving documents through the internet
(d) All of the above
231. World Wide Web was proposed by
(a) Bill Gates (b) ARPANET
(c) Tim Berners-Lee (d) Bill Rogers
232. What are the uses of the internet?
(a) Communication
(b) Information retrieval
(c) Presentation of information
(d) All of the above
23/12/22 7:38 PM
 8.52 Chapter 8

233. .edu domain is used for (c) Hypertext Markup Language

(a) Educational institutions (d) HoT MeaL
(b) The internet infrastructure and service providers 246. A machine that links two networks using two differ-
(c) International organizations ent protocols is known as
(d) None of the above (a) Gateway (b) Protocol way
234. What is the full form of URL? (c) E-way (d) Gate
(a) Uniform Resource Library 247. Email is an abbreviation of
(b) Uniform Resource Locator (a) Electronic mail (b) Extra mail
(c) United Resource Library (c) Enhanced mail (d) None of the above
(d) United Resource Locators 248. ISP is an acronym of
235. The main advantages of an email is/are (a) Internal Service Provider
(a) Speed (b) Cost (b) Internet Service Procedure
(c) Record keeping (d) All of the above (c) Internet Service Provider
236. WWW provides standardized access to (d) Instant Service Protocol
(a) Gopher (b) Telnet 249. Web server is a software for
(c) FTP (d) All of the above (a) Analysing web traffic
237. Which of the following is not an internet browser? (b) Serving web page on user’s request
(a) Netscape Navigator (c) Crawling the web
(b) Chrome (d) Unix operating system
(c) Drupal 250. FTP stands for
(d) Opera (a) Full Text Processing
238. What is the World Wide Web? (b) File Transfer Program
(a) A computer game (c) File Transfer Process
(b) A software program (d) File Transfer Protocol
(c) Part of the internet that enables information 251. Telnet is
­sharing through interconnected pages (a) A telephone network
(d) Another name for the internet (b) A teller network
239. Which of the following is a search engine? (c) Standard Internet Protocol for remote login
(a) Macromedia Flash (d) Dialup program
(b) Google 252. LAN is the acronym for
(c) Netscape (a) Local Area Network
(d) Librarians’ Index to the Internet (b) Logical Area Network
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

240. What is a URL? (c) Last Area Network

(a) A computer software program (d) None of the above
(b) A type of UFO 253. The term used to connect a number of computers
(c) Address of a document or page on the WWW. within the same location or in close proximity is
(d) An acronym for unlimited resources for learning (a) LAN (b) WAN
241. http://www.classzone.com is an example of what? (c) PAN (d) All of the above
(a) URL (b) Access code 254. Ethernet is a family of protocols used in
(c) Directory (d) Server (a) LAN (b) Internet
242. What is a browser? (c) Extranet (d) None of the above
(a) An HTML system 255. MAN is a network of computers located at different
(b) A server sites within a large fixed area, such as a city. It stands
(c) Application software for accessing and viewing for
web pages (a) Metropolitan Area Network
(d) None of the above (b) Manual Area Network
243. A chat program that allows people to communicate (c) Marginal Area Network
through the internet in real time is known as (d) Maximum Area Network
(a) Distant messaging (b) Instant messaging 256. A computer network in which some of the links
(c) Chatting room (d) All of the above between the nodes are carried by open connections
244. The first page of a website is called the or virtual circuits in some larger network, such as an
(a) Home page (b) Index internet, instead of physical wires is a
(c) Menu bar (d) None of the above (a) Virtual private network
245. HTML is an acronym of (b) Virtual public network
(a) High Tech Markup Language (c) Virtual private net
(b) How To Markup Language (d) Virtual public net

M08_MADAN 04_65901_C08.indd 52 23/12/22 7:38 PM

 Information and Communication Technology (ICT)
257. The type of computer networking accessible to
computers that are not physically part of an organi-
zation’s own private network but are also not acces-
sible to the general public is
(a) Internet (b) Intranet
(c) Extranet (d) None of the above
258. The name of the protocol that supports linking from
one web page to another page is
(a) HTML (b) IP
(c) HTTP (d) FTP
259. The first part of a complete URL that is required to
access the web resource is
(a) Address (b) Name
(c) Location (d) Protocol
260. An address for a specific document found on the web
is termed
(a) HTTP (b) URL
(c) ISP (d) None of the above
261. Which of the following organizes the web into
categories?
(a) Search engine (b) Encyclopaedia
(c) Archive (d) Directory
262. A large number of computers in a wide geographical
area can be efficiently connected using
(a) Twisted pair lines
(b) Coaxial cables
(c) Communications satellites
(d) All of the above
263. A computer network allows sharing of resources.
The software resources exist in the form of files of
data, which needs to be moved between two specific
computer systems for the purpose of sharing
(a) Address for communication
(b) A secure means for moving data in the form of
electronic signals
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Either (a) or (b)
264. The hardware and software combinations that con-
nect devices running different native protocols are
known as
(a) Protocols (b) Models
(c) Gateways (d) Ports
265. USB stands for
(a) United Serial Bus
(b) Universal Serial By-Pass
(c) Universal Serial Bus
(d) Universal System Bus
266. Which of the following denotes the internet hard-
ware requirements?
   I. Modem
  II. Hub
III. Bridge
IV. Router
V. Gateway
(a) I, II and III (b) I, III, IV and V
(c) I, IV and V (d) I, II, III, IV and V
M08_MADAN 04_65901_C08.indd 53
8.53
267. Network-based email was initially exchan­ged on the
(a) ARPANET (b) SMTP
(c) TCP/IP (d) None of the above
268. The type of digital telephone service used for trans-
ferring large chunks of data to and from the internet
without a modem is
(a) ISDN (b) MSDN
(c) TSDN (d) None of the above
269. The term/protocol used for open wireless technol-
ogy for data exchange over short distances is
(a) ISDN (b) Bluetooth
(c) Wi-Fi (d) None of the above
270. ISDN stands for
(a) Integrated Services Digital Network
(b) Intelligent Services Digital Network
(c) Individual Services Digital Network
(d) Image Services Digital Network
271. Wired Ethernet is basically
(a) ADSL (b) ISDN
(c) Broadband (d) Internet
272. The software that permits a user with a click of mouse
to locate, display and download text, video, audio
and graphics stored in a host computer on the web is a
(a) Web browser (b) Domain
(c) URL (d) None of the above
273. Which of the following are web browsers?
   I. Internet Explorer
II. Mozilla Firefox
III. Opera
IV. Safari
(a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV
(c) 1, III and IV (d) All of the above
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
274. Which of the following domain name extension is
used for gateways and administrative hosts?
(a) .gov (b) .mil
(c) .net (d) .org
275. .com, .org and .net are popular as
(a) Top-level domains
(b) Tax-level domains
(c) Terrific-level domains
(d) None of the above
276. The unique numerical address of a computer on
the internet (expressed as four sets of numbers and
maximum three digits each, separated by dots, such
as 150.237.176.24) is termed
(a) Internet Protocol address
(b) URL
(c) ISP
(d) None of the above
277. The term used for a search tool that sends user
requests to several other search engines and/or
databases and aggregates the results into a single
list or displays them according to their source is
(a) Metasearch engine
(b) Google
(c) Moodle
(d) None of the above
23/12/22 7:38 PM
 8.54
278. An internet email message consists of
   I. Message envelope
II. Message header
III. Message body
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I and III
(d) All of the above
279. Which of the following symbols is in email addresses
to separate the username from the ISP?
(a) $ (b) @
(c) % (d) *
280. The size of the IPv4 is
(a) 16 bits (b) 32 bits
(c) 64 bits (d) 128 bits
281. Which of the following can be used to send emails to
a large group at one time?
(a) LISTSERV (b) Group
(c) Groupware (d) Mail server
282. Which of the following lines gives an overview of
­message while sending an email?
(a) To (b) Subject
(c) Contents (d) CC
283. Unsolicited commercial email is usually referred
to as
(a) Junk (b) Hoaxes
(c) Spam (d) Hypertext
284. Which of the following is used by news servers to
­distribute documents to readers?
(a) Network News Transfer Protocol (NNTP)
(b) Hypertext Transfer Protocol
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
(c) File Transfer Protocol
(d) None of the above
285. To search FTP archives in a file, the tool used is
(a) Gophe (b) Jughead
(c) Archie (d) Jalopy
286. Which of the following is often referred to as ‘the CB
of the internet’?
(a) IRC (b) FTP
(c) Email (d) HTTP
287. Which of the following monitors postings and
enforces the site’s rules in context of discussion
groups?
(a) Judge (b) Sysop
(c) Narrator (d) Censor
M08_MADAN 04_65901_C08.indd 54
Chapter 8
288. A message with replies in a newsgroup is often
called a
(a) List (b) Thread
(c) Comment (d) Post
289. S/MIME in the internet technology stands for
(a) Secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension
(b) Secure Multimedia Internet Mail Extension
(c) Simple Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension
(d) Simple Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension
290. A small text file that a web server stores on a user
hard drive when the user visits certain websites is
called
(a) Cookie (b) History
(c) Logjam (d) None of the above
291. Which of the following software allows users to surf
the internet?
(a) Search engine (b) Internet service provider
(c) Multimedia (d) Browser
292. Twitter is a/an
(a) Program
(b) Micro bloging site
(c) (a) and (b) both
(d) None of these
293. Given below are two statements: [2021]
Statement I : Search Engines are websites that help a
user to search for information on the worldwide web
(www).
Statement II: For any search term, Search Engines
provide the exact same results to all the users.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
corrrect answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
294. In which year, was community radio started in India?
(a) 2001 (b) 2002
(c) 2003 (d) 2004
295. The file extension of MS Window sound file is
(a) .m (b) .c
(c) .wav (d) None of the above
296. RFID is an acronym for [Dec 2018]
(a) Roaming Frequency Identification
(b) Radio Frequency Identification
(c) Runtime Frequency Identification
(d) Remote Frequency Identification
23/12/22 7:38 PM
 Information and Communication Technology (ICT) 8.55

Answer Keys

ICT Basics
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (b)
21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (b) 25. (c) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (a) 30. (d)
31. (a) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34. (d) 35. (b) 36. (a) 37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (a)
Computer Terms
41. (d) 42. (a) 43. (d) 44. (d) 45. (b) 46. (b) 47. (c) 48. (d) 49. (c) 50. (b)
51. (c) 52. (b) 53. (c) 54. (c) 55. (b) 56. (a) 57. (b) 58. (a) 59. (b) 60. (c)
61. (b) 62. (d) 63. (a) 64. (c) 65. (a) 66. (c) 67. (d) 68. (a) 69. (c) 70. (a)
71. (a) 72. (a) 73. (a) 74. (c) 75. (c) 76. (c) 77. (c) 78. (a) 79. (d) 80. (b)
81. (a) 82. (a) 83. (a) 84. (b) 85. (b) 86. (b) 87. (b) 88. (d) 89. (b) 90. (d)
91. (a) 92. (b) 93. (c) 94. (c) 95. (a) 96. (d) 97. (b) 98. (a) 99. (a) 100. (a)
101. (b) 102. (a) 103. (c) 104. (d) 105. (d) 106. (b) 107. (a) 108. (c) 109. (b) 110. (c)
111. (d) 112. (c) 113. (c) 114. (c) 115. (b) 116. (b) 117. (a) 118. (d) 119. (d) 120. (b)
121. (b) 122. (c) 123. (c) 124. (d) 125. (a) 126. (a) 127. (b) 128. (b) 129. (c) 130. (a)
131. (d) 132. (a) 133. (a) 134. (a) 135. (b) 136. (c) 137. (a) 138. (d) 139. (c) 140. (c)
141. (b) 142. (b) 143. (d) 144. (b) 145. (c) 146. (c) 147. (c) 148. (a) 149. (b) 150. (d)
151. (a) 152. (b) 153. (a) 154. (a) 155. (c) 156. (d) 157. (c) 158. (a) 159. (a) 160. (b)
161. (b) 162. (d) 163. (b) 164. (d) 165. (b) 166. (d) 167. (c) 168. (c) 169. (c) 170. (b)
171. (d) 172. (b) 173. (b) 174. (c) 175. (a) 176. (b) 177. (c) 178. (d) 179. (a) 180. (b)
181. (d) 182. (b) 183. (c) 184. (d) 185. (d) 186. (a)
The Internet and Email
187. (c) 188. (c) 189. (a) 190. (c) 191. (a) 192. (b) 193. (d) 194. (d) 195. (a) 196. (b)
197. (c) 198. (a) 199. (b) 200. (b) 201. (c) 202. (d) 203. (b) 204. (b) 205. (b) 206. (a)
207. (a) 208. (a) 209. (c) 210. (b) 211. (c) 212. (c) 213. (d) 214. (b) 215. (b) 216. (a)
217. (b) 218. (d) 219. (d) 220. (b) 221. (b) 222. (a) 223. (d) 224. (b) 225. (c) 226. (b)
227. (d) 228. (a) 229. (a) 230. (d) 231. (d) 232. (d) 233. (a) 234. (b) 235. (d) 236. (d)

A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
237. (c) 238. (c) 239. (b) 240. (c) 241. (a) 242. (c) 243. (b) 244. (a) 245. (c) 246. (a)
247. (a) 248. (c) 249. (b) 250. (d) 251. (a) 252. (a) 253. (a) 254. (a) 255. (a) 256. (a)
257. (b) 258. (c) 259. (d) 260. (b) 261. (d) 262. (c) 263. (c) 264. (c) 265. (c) 266. (d)
267. (a) 268. (a) 269. (b) 270. (a) 271. (b) 272. (a) 273. (d) 274. (c) 275. (a) 276. (a)
277. (a) 278. (d) 279. (b) 280. (b) 281. (c) 282. (b) 283. (c) 284. (a) 285. (b) 286. (a)
287. (b) 288. (b) 289. (a) 290. (a) 291. (d) 292. (b) 293. (c) 294. (b) 295. (c) 296. (b)

M08_MADAN 04_65901_C08.indd 55 23/12/22 7:38 PM

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M08_MADAN 04_65901_C08.indd 56 23/12/22 7:38 PM

 CHAPTER People,
9 Development and
Environment

01 The Concept of People

02 Development and Environment: Millennium

Development and Sustainable Development Goals

03 Human and Environment Interaction:

Anthropogenic Activities and Their
Impacts on Environment

04 Environmental issues: Local,

LEARNING Regional and Global; Air Pollution,
Water Pollution, Soil Pollution,
OBJECTIvES Noise Pollution, Waste (Solid,
Liquid, Biomedical, Hazardous,
Electronic), Climate Change and
its Socio-economic and Political
Dimensions

05 Impact of Pollutants on Human Health

06 Natural and Energy Resources:

Solar, Wind, Soil, Hydro, Geothermal,
Biomass, Nuclear and Forests

07 Natural Hazards and Disasters: Mitigation Strategies

Environmental Protection Act (1986), National Action Plan on
Climate Change, International agreements/efforts—Montreal
08 Protocol, Rio Summit, Convention on Biodiversity, Kyoto Protocol,
Paris Agreement, International Solar Alliance

M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 1 23/12/22 8:00 PM

 9.2
People and Environment
“Mother Earth” is a common expression in a number of coun-
tries and regions, Population is a near-permanent group of
interbreeding individuals of a species found in space or geo-
graphical area at a particular point in time. It is called a local
population or deme. Metapopulation is a complex of local
populations connected by dispersing individuals.
The main factors affecting population are as follows:
1. Natality (birth rate)
2. Mortality (death rate)
3. Population dispersal (emigration, immigration and
migration)
4. Age distribution (pre-reproductive, reproductive and
post-reproductive)
5. Population growth rate
6. Carrying resources on earth such as food, water,
space etc. are expressed through carrying capacity.
Population density is the number of individuals divided
by space (such as per square kilometre).
The term environment is derived from the French
word environner. It means ‘to surround’. According to
the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, environment
includes all the physical and biological surroundings
of an organism and their interactions. Environment is
defined as the sum of water, air and land, and the inter-
relationships that exist among them and with human
beings, other living organisms and materials.
The flora, fauna, microorganisms and the man-made
structures in our surroundings have a bidirectional interac-
tion with us, either directly or indirectly. The totality of all
these components and their interactions constitute the envi-
ronment. Air, water and land constitute our environment
and influence us directly. We too exert an influence on our
environment due to overuse or overexploitation of resources
or due to discharge of pollutants in air, water and land.
In the context of relation between people and environ-
ment, the following concepts have developed:
1. Environmental Determinism: It means that envi-
ronment has been determined by culture and nature.
It developed in nineteenth-century Europe, a belief
that environment determines how a culture develops.
For example, white European nations believed that
people from warmer climates were lazier because
they did not have to work as hard to survive.
2. Environmental Possibilism: It developed in the first
half of the twentieth century. It is the belief that the
environment puts limits on people, but it does not deter-
mine how they will behave. This can be further linked
with ‘anthropocene’ age and ‘anthropogenic’ activities
also where man plays greater role for the development
of self and society. These have been discussed further.
Ecology
The term ecology was coined by Ernst Haeckel in 1869.
Ecology deals with the study of organisms in their natural
home.
M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 2
Chapter 9
Ecology is the scientific study of the relations that liv-
ing organisms have with respect to one another, their nat-
ural environments and ecosystems.
It is present at three levels, which are as follows:
1. The individual organism (how individuals are affected
by the environment and how they, in turn, affect the
environment)
2. The population
3. The community
Ecology is defined as the study of ecosystems.
Ecological Footprint: Ecological footprint measures
human consumption of natural resources in comparison
to the earth’s ecological capacity to regenerate them.
Calculation of ecological footprint takes into account our
consumption habits at both (i) micro (individual) level
and (ii) macro (area or nation) level. The objective of
its calculation is also to educate people about the need
to change our consumption behaviour to make it more
sustainable. Ecological footprint is measured in global
hectares (gha).
SpecieS and community
The organisms in this world can be divided into different
species; just as human beings are a species, so are roses
and neem trees.
A species is a set of organisms that resemble each other
in certain features. The members of a species living together
and interacting with each other are called a population.
The members of a population live within a given area.
Autoceology and Synecology: Autecology is the study
of individual organisms / species, while synecology is the
study of group of organisms of different species.
Species Diversity
• It is an important attribute of the biotic community,
which is determined by the total number of species
and their relative abundance.
• Greater species diversity indicates a higher number of
niches and greater stability of the community.
Keystone Species
• It is a species that has a significant and dispropor-
tionately large influence on community structure and
characteristics.
• It has often considerably low abundance and biomass
as compared to dominant species.
Critical Link Species
• These are species that play an important role in sup-
porting network species as pollinators, dispersal
agents, absorption or circulation of nutrients, etc.
Mycorrhizal fungi help vascular plants in obtaining
inorganic nutrients from soil and organic residues.
Community
A community is an assemblage of all the interacting popula-
tions of different species in a geographical area. It is a com-
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 People, Development and Environment
plex interacting network of plants, animals and microorgan-
isms. Each population has a defined role in the community.
Stopover
Population consists of:
(a) Organisms in a species that are capable of repro-
ducing among themselves
(b) Different species that can interbreed
(c) Collective members of a species living and inter-
acting across the biosphere
(d) Some organisms that may not belong to any species
The correct option is (c).
Ecosystem
Ecosystem was defined by Arthur Tansley in 1935.
Ecosystem is a self-regulating community of living organ-
isms (populations of species), interacting with each other
and their non-living, physical environment, for example,
forest ecosystem and ocean ecosystem (Fig. 9.1). Even a
clump of bushes can be an ecosystem. All ecosystems on
the planet are interconnected and interdependent, and
together, they make up the biosphere.
There is also an exchange of matter and energy with the
physical environment. In an open ecosystem, there is free
exchange of energy and matter with the outside world. In
a closed ecosystem, there is no or very limited exchange.
Ecosystems show large variations in their size, struc-
ture, composition and so on. However, all the ecosystems
are characterized by certain basic structural and func-
tional features which are common. There can be differ-
ent types of ecosystems, such as forest ecosystem, marine
ecosystem and desert ecosystem.
The composition and organization of communities and
physical components decide the structure of an ecosys-
tem. Thus, ecosystems have basically two types of compo-
nents, namely, biotic and abiotic.
FunctionS oF ecoSyStem
Every ecosystem performs the following important
functions:
1. It has different food chains and food webs. Food chain
is the sequence of eating and being eaten.
A food chain is the simplest path that energy takes
through an ecosystem. Energy enters from the sun.
Grass Grasshopper
Hawk
Grass Grass Hawk Hawk
Grasshopper Frog Snake Grass
Grasshopper Grasshopper
Frog Snake
Frog Snake
Figure 9.1 Ecosystem
M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 3
9.3
Each level in the transfer of energy is a trophic level.
Organisms at each level use energy in cellular respira-
tion and heat loss and store the rest.
Food chains are generally found to be interlinked and
interwoven as a network and hence known as a food
web. There are several options of eating and being
eaten in a food web. Hence, these are more stable.
2. There is unidirectional flow of energy. It flows from the
sun and then after capture by primary producers (green
plants), it flows through the food chain or the food web.
3. Materials (nutrients) in an ecosystem move in a cyclic
manner. The cycling of nutrients takes place between
biotic and abiotic (water, light, wind, soil, humidity,
minerals and gases) components.
4. Every ecosystem functions to produce and sustain
some primary production (plant biomass) and sec-
ondary production (animal biomass).
5. Every ecosystem regulates and maintains itself. This
self-regulation or control system is known as cyber-
netic system.
Ecotone
An ecotone is the transitional area of vegetation between
two different plant communities, such as forest and grass-
land. The influence of the two bordering communities on
each other is known as the edge effect.
Ecological Succession: In ecological succession, ecosystems
tend to change over a period due to seasonal environmental
changes. The changes may be man made (anthropogenic) or
natural. Some changes may take decades.
trophic LeveLS and ecoLogicaL pyramidS
The concept of ecological pyramid was developed by
Charles Elton. All ecological pyramids begin with produc-
ers like plants at the bottom and proceed through various
trophic levels such as herbivores (consume plants) and car-
nivores (consume herbivores) (Fig. 9.2).
Ecological pyramids show how energy flows through
ecosystems. The base of the pyramid is composed of
species called autotrophs, the primary producers of the
ecosystem. All other organisms in the ecosystem are
consumers called heterotrophs, which either directly
Solar energy
ers
consum
Tertiary arnivores)
a rg e c
(l
Frog Snake mers
consu s)
ndary
Seco ll carnivo
re
(sma
ary )
Prim erbivores
Hawk cons
ume rs (h
ucers
Prod t)
(plan
Figure 9.2 Ecological Pyramid
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 9.4
Tertiary
consumers
10 kcal
Secondary
consumers
100 kcal Energy ‘lost’
Primary
consumers
1000 kcal
Producers
10,000 kcal Energy transferred
Figure 9.3 Energy Pyramid
or indirectly depend on the primary producers for food
energy.
There are three types of ecological pyramids and they
are as follows:
1. Pyramid of Energy: In this pyramid, at each trophic
level only a small proportion of energy (approxi-
mately 10%) is transferred to the next level. This is
called ‘10% rule’. This pyramid describes the over-
all nature of the ecosystem. The energy pyramid is
always upright and vertical as shown in Figure 9.3.
The higher the organism is on the trophic pyramid,
the lower the amount of available energy. For exam-
ple, plants and other autotrophs (primary produc-
ers) convert only a fraction of the enormous amount
of solar energy they have access to into food energy.
2. Pyramid of Numbers: This depicts the relation in terms
of the number of producers, herbivores and carnivores
at their successive trophic levels. They can be of three
types—upright, partly upright and inverted.
3. Pyramid of Biomass: In this pyramid, there is a grad-
ual decrease in the biomass from the producers to the
higher trophic levels. They show the mass and can be
upright and inverted.
Concept Box
Eutrophication describes the biological effects of an
increase in the concentration of nutrients. These ‘nutri-
ents’ are essential for growth. Eutrophication is mostly
caused by increase in the availability of nitrogen and
phosphorus in the form of nitrate and phosphate in soil
and water.
Phytoplankton communities in water columns
reflect growth pattern. There can be some alterations
in concentrations of plant nutrients that may create
different trophic levels mentioned as follows:
1. Oligotrophic: ‘Low in nutrients’ (oxygen-rich bot-
tom supports cold water fish such as trout)
M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 4
Chapter 9
2. Mesotrophic: ‘With intermediate nutrient
concentration’
3. Eutrophic: ‘High in nutrients’ (they result in
supra-optimum growth of plants)
4. Nypertrophic: ‘Very high in nutrients’
Dystrophic means water bodies rich in undecom-
posed organic matter, for example, bogs and marshy
lakes.
Algal blooms are very low in the oligotrophic level.
Oligotrophic Mesotrophic Eutrophic Hypereutrophic
Biosphere
There are different types of ecosystems around us, which
involve living organisms and non-living things. If we com-
bine all the ecosystems present on the earth, it is called a
biosphere.
Biomes
The terrestrial portion of the biosphere is divided into
biomes. They usually have distinct climates and life forms
adapted to that climate. Deserts, grasslands, tropical for-
ests and rain forests are the main examples of biomes.
Habitat
The area or natural environment in which an organism or
population normally lives is called a habitat (Fig. 9.4).
A habitat is made up of two types of factors:
1. Physical factors such as soil, moisture, temperature
and light
2. Biotic factors such as availability of food and preda-
tors
Cohabitat is when organisms of different species live
together.
Microhabitat is when particular organism(s) live in
a small and specific part(s) of a habitat. A habitat is not
always a geographical area.
Stopover
Permafrost is the defining characteristic of which
biome?
(a) Taiga
(b) Tundra
(c) Grassland
(d) Desert
The correct option is (b).
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 People, Development and Environment 9.5

The part of Biosphere

Biosphere the earth
that contains
all ecosystems
Large region
Biome with same
plant life and
climate
Community Hawk, snake, bison, prairie dog,
Eco- and its grass, stream, rocks, air
system non-living
surroundings
Populations Hawk, snake, bison, prairie dog, grass
Community that live
together in
a defined area
Group of
Population organisms of
one type that live
in the same area
Bison herd
Individual
Organism
living thing

Bison
Figure 9.4 Habitat

Four Spheres of Earth Mesosphere

The area near the surface of the earth can be divided into
four interconnected geospheres:
1. Lithosphere (soil): It is solid, inorganic and composed
of minerals.
2. Hydrosphere (water): It consists of oceans, rivers,
lakes and moisture. Oceans consist of 97% of the total
water and fresh water is only 3%.
3. Biosphere (life): It consists of all living organisms. Life is
present 3 m below the ground and up to 30 m above the
ground. It is present in the top 200 m of oceans and seas.
4. Atmosphere (air): The atmosphere can be described
as a layer of gases surrounding the earth. These gasses
are oxygen, carbon dioxide, nitrogen, argon and other
gases. Another component of atmosphere which is of
great importance is the water vapour.
Atmospheric Layers
Troposphere
The troposphere starts at the earth’s surface and extends
8–14.5 km high. This part of the atmosphere is the densest.
Almost all weather is in this region.
Stratosphere
The stratosphere starts just above the troposphere and
extends to 50 km high. The ozone layer, which absorbs and
scatters the solar ultraviolet (UV) radiation, is in this layer.
The mesosphere starts just above the stratosphere and
extends to 85 km high. Meteors burn up in this layer.
Thermosphere
The thermosphere starts just above the mesosphere and
extends to 600 km high. Aurora and satellites occur in
this layer.
Ionosphere
The ionosphere is an abundant layer of electrons and
ionized atoms and molecules that stretches from about
48 km above the surface to the edge of space at about
965 km, overlapping into the mesosphere and thermo-
sphere. This dynamic region grows and shrinks based
on solar conditions and divides further into the sub-
regions: D, E and F, based on what wavelength of solar
radiation is absorbed. The ­ionosphere is a critical link in
the chain of sun–earth interactions. This region is what
makes radio communications possible.
Exosphere
This is the upper limit of our atmosphere. It extends from
the top of the thermosphere up to 10,000 km.
This layer also absorbs heat that is reflected back from
the ground in a process called the greenhouse effect.
‘Shooting stars’ also occur in this layer.

M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 5 04/01/23 4:52 PM

 9.6
Figure 9.5 Layers of Atmosphere
Stopover
In which of the following layers of the atmosphere is
ozone (O3) gas present?
(a) Stratosphere
(b) Mesosphere
(c) Troposphere
(d) None of the above
The correct option is (a).
Human Development and
Environment
Human development refers to the biological and psycholog-
ical changes that occur in human beings between birth and
the end of adolescent period as an individual progresses
from dependency to increasing autonomy. The key princi-
ple of sustainable development underlying all others is the
integration of environmental, social and economic concerns
into all aspects of decision making.
There are four areas in which we grow:
1. Physical
2. Psychological and cognitive
3. Social and emotional
4. Sexuality and gender identity
We use different methods, such as longitudinal method,
cross-sectional method, sequential and time lag method,
for development purpose. There are always some obsta-
cles to apply the research methods because human beings
as samples are not perfect representatives. There are many
variations within human beings.
Sustainable development is development that meets
the needs of the present without compromising the ability
of future generations to meet their own needs. It contains
two key concepts:
1. The concept of needs
M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 6
Chapter 9
2. The idea of limitations imposed by technology and
social factors
Sustainable development presupposes the existence of
space and time.
The concept of human development was largely devel-
oped by the United Nations Development Programme in
the 1990s.
Human development is defined as a process of enlarg-
ing people’s choices. If these choices are available, other
opportunities will become accessible.
The term ‘human development’ refers to the process of
widening people’s choices and ensuring well-being. Thus,
human development has two sides as follows:
1. Formation of human capabilities, such as improved
health, knowledge and skill
2. To make use of acquired capabilities for productive
purposes, leisure and being active in cultural, social
and political affairs
The major elements in the concept of human develop-
ment are as follows:
1. Productivity: Full participation in the process of
income generation and employment
2. Equity: Equal opportunities for people
3. Sustainability: Physical, human and environment
capital for present and future generations
4. Empowerment: Full participation of people in the
decisions and processes that shape their lives
un conceptS oF human deveLopment–hdi
We get the basic idea of HDI from the given image. The
HDI for the countries of the world is scored and ranked
on a scale of 0 to 1.0, with 1.0 being the highest human
development. HDI is divided into four levels:
1. Very High Human Development (0.8-1.0)
2. High Human Development (0.7-0.79)
3. Moderate Human Development (0.55-.70) and
4. Low Human Development (below 0.55)
The first HDI was published in 1990.
On the basis of information released on December
2020, India is ranked 131st out of 189 countries in the
United Nations Human Development Index (UN-HDI),
which is two places less than last year, although this
year India’s The HDI value has increased from 0.642 to
0.645. Norway topped the HDI index followed by Ireland,
Switzerland, Hong Kong and Iceland. Somalia ranked
lowest.
The Life expectancy of Indians at birth in 2019 was
69.7 years while Bangladesh has a life expectancy of 72.6
years and Pakistan 67.3 years.
The United Nations Development Program (UNDP)
for the first time introduced a new metric to reflect each
country’s per capita carbon emissions and the impact of
its physical footprint, the amount of fossil fuels, metals
and other resources needed to make up the consumable
material. This gives us a clear assessment.
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 People, Development and Environment
Figure 9.6 Human Development Index
I nequality -adjusted Human Development
Index (IHDI)
The difference between the IHDI and the HDI is the human
development cost of inequality, also termed loss to human
development due to inequality. The IHDI informs poli-
cies towards inequality reduction and it leads to a better
understanding of inequalities across population and their
contribution to the overall human development cost.
G ender Development Index (GDI)
The GDI measures gender gaps in human development
achievements by accounting for disparities between
women and men in three basic dimensions of human
development, health, knowledge and living standards,
using the same component indicators as in the HDI. It is
the ratio of the HDIs calculated separately for females and
males using the same methodology as in the HDI.
G ender Inequality Index (GII)
The GII is an inequality index. It shows the loss in poten-
tial human development due to disparity between female
and male achievements in three dimensions:
1. Reproductive health
2. Empowerment
3. Economic status
Overall, the GII reflects how women are disadvantaged in
these dimensions.
The GII ranges between 0 and 1. Higher GII values indi-
cate higher inequalities and thus higher loss to human
development. There is no country with perfect gender
equality. All countries suffer some loss in achievements in
key aspects of human development when gender inequal-
ity is taken into account. The GII is similar in method to
the IHDI.
M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 7
9.7
Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI)
The MPI is a very versatile methodology that can be readily
adjusted to incorporate alternative ­indicators, cut-offs and
weights that might be appropriate in regional, national or
subnational contexts. There are currently two broad cat-
egories of MPI measures–(a) Global MPI and (b) Regional
or National MPIs.
Millennium Development and Sustainable
Development Goals
Today, people, nations and economies are more connected
than ever, and so are the global development issues we
are facing. These issues span borders and straddle social,
economic and environmental realms.
Some important aspects are as follows:
1. 1798: Known for his work on population growth,
Thomas Robert Malthus argued that, left unchecked,
a population will outgrow its resources. There are two
ways to ‘check’ a population:
(a) preventive checks, such as the moral restraint of
postponing marriage
(b) positive checks, such as famine, disease and
warfare
2. 1968: Garrett James Hardin warned of the dangers
of human overpopulation. He wrote ‘The Tragedy
of Commons’—it is about the damage that innocent
actions by individuals can inflict on environment.
3. Club of Rome: It is a global think-tank for welfare of
masses—linked to sustainable development.
4. 1972: Club of Rome published ‘Limits to Growth’ .
5. 1972: UN Conference on the Human Env­ironment,
also called Stockholm Conference, was conducted.
6. 1983: The UN created the Brundtland Commission.
7. 1984: Brundtland Commission report was published.
8. 1987: Our Common Future was published.
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 9.8
9. During Rio Earth Summit in 1992, Agenda 21 was
adopted as a comprehensive plan of action to build a
global part for sustainable development to improve
human lives and protect the environment.
10. The Millennium Development Goals were started in
2000 which focused on three areas with the intent to
increase living standards - Human capital, infrastruc-
ture and human rights. They are collectively called as
‘Goal Eight’, under the name of ‘Global Partnership for
Development’. There were 21 targets and 60 measurable
‘health indicators’ and ‘economic indicators’.
11. There was reaffirmation of Sustainable Development
and Plan of Implementation in Johannesburg declara-
tion at World Summit in 2002.
12. The motto of ‘The Future We Want’ was adopted at UN
Conference on Sustainable Development (Rio+20) in
Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, in June 2012.
13. In 2013, the General Assembly set up a 3 ­ 0-member
open working group to develop a proposal on the
Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) that led to UN’s
General Assembly’s post-2015 development agenda.
14. 2015 was a landmark year for multilateralism and
international policy shaping, with the adoption of
several major agreements:
(a) Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction
(March 2015)
(b) Addis Ababa Action Agenda on Financing for
Development (July 2015)
(c) Transforming our world (the 2030 Agenda for
Sustainable Development with its 17 SDGs was
adopted at the UN Sustainable Development
Summit in New York on September 2015)
(d) Paris Agreement on Climate Change (December
2015)
Millennium Development and
Sustainable Development Goals
(MDGS and SDGs)
MDGs are eight goals that were to be achieved by the year
2015. They were announced in September 2000 to fight
against poverty, hunger, disease, illiteracy, environmental
degradation and discrimination against women. MDGs
focused on three areas to increase living standards -
Human capital, infrastructure and human rights. These
‘MDG Eight’ were the following.
1. Eradicate poverty and hunger
2. Achieve universal primary education
3. Promote gender equality and empower women
4. Reduce child mortality
5. Improve maternal health
6. Combat HIV/AIDS, malaria and other diseases
7. Ensure environmental sustainability
8. Develop a global partnership for development.
At the end of MDGs, we shifted our goals towards SDGs.
We need to go for a comparison so that we can understand
the shift mechanism better though basics are same.
M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 8
Chapter 9
A comparison of MDGS and SDGs: After the comple-
tion of MDGs, we needed to progress to the next step that
were called Sustainable Development Goals. The number
of goals in MDGs are 8, the number of targets is 21 and
number of indicators is 60. The same for SDGs are 17,
169 and 232 respectively. The main differences between
MDGs and SDGs have been mentioned below.
1. Zero Goals: The target in the MDGs was to reach half-
way, but the SDGs have been designed for completing
the job. The goals are supposed to achieve zero level,
for examples, zero hunger or zero preventable child
deaths.
2. Universal Goals: The strategy employed in case of
MDGs was more of ‘rich donors aiding recipients’ nature.
Many nations such as China, India, Brazil and African
progressed. The problems of inequalities also existed in
the developed nations. Thus, we should not focus only
on rising inequalities between rich and poor countries
only. The SDGs cover the targets for all nations.
3. Being Comprehensive and Inclusive: The SDGs
have better coverage than the MDGs with respect to
gender and people’s participation at all levels. The
MDGs had been formulated in a top-down manner,
while the SDGs have been prepared through much
better consultations among nations. There is segre-
gation of goals in SDGs. For example, Hunger and
Poverty have been put as two separate goals in SDGs.
They were put together in MDGs.
   The goals under 4, 5 and 6 can be linked with Goal 6
of SDGs. Similarly Goals 7 to 15 on SDGs can be linked
with Goal 7 of MDG. We can see to these while discussing.
4. Funding: The MDGs depended upon the aid from
rich developed nations. But SDGs focus on ‘sustain-
ability’ aspect. SDGs also look for inclusive economic
development and revenue generation capabilities so
that nations can deal with their social challenges in a
better manner.
5. Peace Building: Peace is an essential element in a
society to prosper and grow socially as well as eco-
nomically. The SDGs have peace as a goal, whereas
MDGs have not focused upon it.
6. Data Revolution: Monitoring, evaluation and
accountability are better in case of SDGs in com-
parison to MDGs for income, age, race, ethnicity and
migratory status, disability, geographic location and
other characteristics relevant in national contexts.
7. Quality Education: MDGs were confined to achieve
universal primary education. SDGs are concerned
with quality of education and higher aspects. There
are better indicators to address the issues.
Nature of Sustainable Development
Goals (SDGs)
Sustainable development means that the needs of the
present without compromising the ability of future
generations to meet their own needs. Thus, it built
on ‘The Future We Want’ resolution. SDG is officially
known as ‘Transforming our world: the 2030 Agenda for
Sustainable Development.’
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 People, Development and Environment
According to UNDP ‘SDGs also known as the Global
Goals, were adopted by the UN in 2015 as a universal call
to action to end poverty, protect the planet, and ensure
that by 2030 all people enjoy peace and prosperity.
We are living in a ‘anthropocene age’ that can be called
as ‘human driven age’ that puts extreme pressure on
resources and natural cycles of earth. Examples of this
include submerging of islands and mass migrations.
India’s approach - India’s philosophy is based ‘Vasudhaiva
Katumbhkam’ (olq/kSo dqVEq cde~)–whole of society, it aims to
engage all the stakeholders, and ‘leave no one behind’.
National Institution for Transforming India (NITI
Aayog) prepares a National Review Report that is
submitted to UN. It has been called the “Decade for Action”.
India is the first nation to formulate an ‘SDG India Index’,
and has developed a robust ‘SDG Localisation Model’. SDG
India Index provides us the overall progress of our nation
on the social, economic and environmental status of the
nation. It covers 13 out of 17 SDGs (leaving out Goals 12,
13, 14 and 17). There are 62 National Indicators.
The goals are reflected in social, economic and politi-
cal agenda of government. They are linked with ‘Directive
Principles of State Policy’ as well as various other policies
and budgets.
Thus, in the following SDG goals, we have taken exam-
ples from Indian perspective.
SDG 1: No Poverty–End poverty in all its forms every­
where by 2030: Bringing the level of poverty to ‘Zero’ is the
most daunting task.
Govt has taken a multi-pronged strategy to remove pov-
erty from vulnerable sections of the society by developing
infrastructure, services, assets, skills, protective measures,
etc.
Social Protection and Safety Nets: The example is
Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee
Act (MNREGA) that allows for 100 days of work in a year
per family.
The goals of Sustainable Development are access to
basic services. We need access to nutrition, healthcare,
drinking water, sanitation, affordable housing, electricity,
clean cooking, roads and utilities. The financial inclusion
is also included in it that provides banking, credit,
insurance and pension. Government is providing schemes
such as Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana; and Pradhan
Mantri Gareeb Kalyan Yojana.
Strengthening Livelihood Opportunities and Skilling
Ecosystem: Agriculture provides employment to almost
half of our population. Schemes such as Pradhan Mantri
Fasal Bima Yojana (Prime Minister Crop Insurance
Scheme) and Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana
(Prime Minister Irrigation Scheme) help in this. We need
to develop ‘ecosystem’ for more productive employment.
We need continuous monitoring for rapid urbanisation,
gender equality, education, employment, etc.
India could pull the last 10% of its population out of
extreme poverty well within last one decade. India is no
longer a ‘poster boy of poverty’ as per World Bank findings
M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 9
9.9
in April 2022, with extremely poor people have been
halved in number.
(a) The limit for deciding poverty is below $1.9 on
the Purchasing Power Parity.
(b) The Tendulkar Committee was set up in 2009 and
C Rangarajan Committee in 2012 for defining
poverty limits.
SDG 2: Zero Hunger – End hunger, achieve food security,
improve nutrition and promote sustainable agriculture
Legal entitlements: 40% of child deaths occur due to
under-nutrition in India. So, domestic food production, its
imports and its access to population is important. There
are food security measures (legal entitlements) under
National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013. Antyodaya
Anna Yojana (AAY) for is meant for eradication of hunger.
Nutrition Security: These are through Pradhan Mantri
Matru Vandana Yojana and the Scheme for Adolescent Girls.
Agricultural Productivity: Doubling the income of farm-
ers through improved crop productivity, livestock produc-
tivity, increased cropping intensity, crop diversification,
better prices; and non-farm occupations. Government has
also started ` 500 cr Accelerator Funds for Agri startups in
October 2022.
Monitoring: The nutritional requirements of women,
their stunted growth and anaemia can be monitored
in situations such as adaptive climate and sustainable
agriculture.
Global Hunger Index Report 2022 placed India at 107th posi-
tion among 121 nations, though India rejected this report.
SDG 3: Good Health and Well-being – Ensure healthy
lives and promote well being for all at all ages
India is the largest provider of vaccines and drugs as
we could see during COVID19 situation. India started
National Health Policy, 2017.
Important Govt Schemes: For Universal and Affordable
Healthcare, government has started ‘Ayushman Bharat’
(National Health Protection Scheme) in 2018 that is an
inclusive health care without any cost that covers poor
sections of the society.
Pradhan Mantri Jan Aarogya Yojana is cashless health-
care scheme to provide benefits to 100 million vulnerable
families. Government provides INR 5 lakhs per family per
year in such conditions.
Doctor Patient Ratio: Government aims to set this ratio
to 1:1000. The current such ratio is 1:1456. Government is
opening a number of AIIMS, medical colleges, and primary
health centres so as to improve the basic infrastructure.
In context of Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR),
Government wants to reach a target of 70 by 2030. As
per data available in March 2022–there are 7 states
achieving this target of 70 which are led by Kerala (30),
Maharashtra (38), Telangana (56).
India has seen a decline in all communicable and
non-communicable diseases like polio (zero patients),
Malaria, Tuberculosis and Lymphatic Filariasis.
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 9.10
SDG 4: Quality Education—Ensure inclusive equitable
quality education and promote lifelong learning
opportunities for all
‘Leaving no one behind’ is the main agenda. Human
capital is required so that all children are able to get sec-
ondary education.
For early education, there are schemes such as National
Early Childhood Care and Education Policy (2013),
Anganwadi Centres and Integrated Child Development
Services Scheme.
Education was made a Fundamental Right under The
Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education
(RTE) Act, 2009 for children up to 14 years.
The government scheme Pradhan Mantri Kaushal
Vikas Yojana is meant for better livelihood.
New Education Policy, 2020 aims to achieve ‘Functional
Literacy and Numeracy Goals’ by 2026–27. The key aspect
areas are NEP Child, NEP Teacher and NEP School. Some
of the important points are as follows.
(a) States have been asked to ensure 100% Gross
Enrollment Ratio (GER) by 2030.
(b) There should be introduction of School Preparation
Module (Vidya Pravesh) for every Grade 1 child
from 2022–23.
(c) Early Childhood Care and Education, and a bilin-
gual teaching approach was suggested as soon as
possible.
National Intellectual Property Awareness Mission indi-
cates a knowledge based economy.
SDG 5: Gender Equality – Achieve gender equality and
empower all women and girls
MNREGA (2005) specifies that women must comprise
of 33 per cent of the beneficiaries of gainful employment.
Deen Dayal Antyodaya Yojana (National Rural
Livelihoods Mission), specifically for building up women
skills. Self-Help Groups (with specific help from National
Bank on Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
are also important for women. In ‘Pradhan Mantri Jan-
Dhan Yojana’ 54% of those accounts are of women.
The ‘Beti Bachao Beti Padhao’ (Save and Educate Girl
Child) in 2015 for better women education and check the
drop out rate of girls from education system.
Govt has launched 75 Digital Banking Units in October
2022 to enhance financial inclusion.
SDG 6: Clean Water and Sanitation – Ensure availability
and sustainable management of water and sanitation
for all
India has 4 per cent of the world’s fresh water
resources, while we have to support 17 per cent of world’s
population. Many children under 5 years of age die due
to water-borne diseases. All villages, Gram Panchayats,
Districts, States and UTs declared themselves ‘open-
defecation free’ (ODF) by 2 October 2019, that coincides
with the 150th birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi.
Government was able to construct over 100 million toilets
in rural India by that date.
A unified Ministry of Jal Shakti is working for Safe and
Affordable Drinking Water for all. Government started
M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 10
Chapter 9
a campaign ‘Jal Shakti Abhiyan’ for water conservation,
rain water harvesting and renovation of water bodies.
Central Water Commission has designed multi pronged
strategy to deal with ground and surface water issues.
Under National Perspective Plan, 30 river links (16
under Peninsular Component and 14 under Himalayan
Component) have been identified. Ken-Betwa Link proj-
ect is the first such project to have been implemented.
Swachh Bharat Mission aims at constructing 109
million household and community toilets for ‘sanitation
and hygiene for all’.
SDG 7: Affordable and Clean Energy—Ensure access
to affordable, reliable, sustainable and modern energy
for all
This aims at universal access to electricity and clean
cooking fuel. Government wants to enhance energy
efficiency through Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEEE)
that was launched on March 1, 2002 under Energy
Conservation Act, 2001. Our energy mix is well diversified
now, with inclusion of more of solar, wind, hydro and
waste-to-energy conversion. Our renewable energy
installed capacity has almost doubled in last one decade.
There is Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana –
Saubhagya that aims at providing electricity to each house.
There are concepts such as Clean Energy-Cooking
Energy, Concept of Sustainable Development Energy
Efficiency. Government played an important role in
designing and implementing International Solar Alliance
(ISA) with France.
SDG 8: Decent Work and Economic Growth – Promote
sustained, inclusive and sustainable economic growth,
full and productive employment and decent work for all
India has the third largest entrepreneurship ecosystem
in the world due to the following:
1. Funding Small Enterprises: ‘Start-up India’ schemes.
Micro Units Development and Refinance Scheme
(MUDRA) scheme provides financial support to small
and micro enterprise sector.
2. Structural Reforms: The examples are ‘The
Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code’, ‘Goods and
Services Tax Act’ etc. The main objective is to make
our economy more competitive. Our Ease of Doing
Business rankings have improved.
SDG 9: Industry, Innovation and Infrastructure—
Build resilient infrastructure, promote inclusive and
sustainable industrialisation; and foster innovation:
India is a very vast nation. India has launched the
‘Bharatmala’ Pariyojna that intends to build roads
through corridors and feeder routes. These corridors
are efficient in improving national and international
connectivity. Govt is setting up many sector wise
regulators for better development.
SDG 10: Reduced Inequities–reduce inequality within
and among countries: India needs to remove inequality in
all dimensions in areas of income, gender, social, political
and economic through MNREGA, Aadhar etc. Such schemes
23/12/22 8:01 PM
 People, Development and Environment
are linked with our banking system. We need to decrease
dropout rates in schools. Concepts such as Gross Enrolment
Ration (GER), Gender Disparity Index (GPI) help in the
process. Then, programmes such as Beti Bachao, Beti
Padhao; Support to Training and Employment Programme
for Women (STEP), ‘Deendayal Disabled Rehabilitation
Scheme for persons with disabilities’ help us a lot.
Indian banking system has helped in the creation of
Self-Help Groups (SHGs) for Financial Inclusion.
SDG 11: Sustainable Cities and Communities–Make
cities and human settlements inclusive, safe, resilient
and sustainable
Government promotes inclusive and sustainable urban-
isation that also calls for participatory, integrated and sus-
tainable human settlement.
Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana (urban housing),
National Urban Transport, Smart Cities Mission help us a
lot. The schemes such as Swachh Survekshan propel cities
towards ‘Round The Clock Action’ so that we are able to
achieve ‘Sampurn Swachhata’.
SDG 12: Responsible Consumption and Production
—Ensure sustainable consumption and production
patterns
This covers resource use efficiency, green employment,
equitable access to basic services and better quality of life
are integral to sustainable consumption and production.
The relevant examples for India are Sustainable
Food Systems, Soil Health Cards, National Mission on
Sustainable Agriculture, National Resource Efficiency
Policy, LEED (Leadership in Energy and Environmental
Design), Green Rating for Habitat Assessment (GRIHA),
and Energy Conservation Building Code (ECBC).
For ‘waste management’, India has adopted a sustain-
able development framework based on ‘precaution’ and
‘polluter pays’ principles (discussed later in this unit).
SDG 13: Climate Action – Take urgent action to combat
climate change and its impacts
As an active participant in international efforts, India
needs less of total carbon emissions (India is at rank
three now) and justified per capita emissions to keep
world temperature increase below 2 degrees centigrade.
We need to do better on disaster resilience, green tech-
nologies and meeting energy needs. At Glasgow meet in
2021, we committed to take renewable energy consump-
tion to 50% of the total energy.
SDG 14–Life below Water – Conserve and sustainably
use the oceans, seas and marine resources for
sustainable development:
India regularly monitors possible pollution by oil, sea cargo,
sewage and garbage, as well as air pollution by ships etc.
SDG 15: Life on Land: We want to protect, restore and
promote sustainable use of terrestrial ecosystems, man-
age forests, ensure diversification of life etc. There is need
for better conservation, development and management
of forests. Afforestation can be done through natural and
artificial regeneration. The government is also making
M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 11
9.11
efforts on wetlands, water bodies, protecting wildlife,
combating desertification and conserving biodiversity.
SDG 16: Peace, Justice and Strong Institutions
India is working towards reducing violence, access to
justice, accountable and transparent institutions, and
also for inclusive societies (which includes all sections of
society) for sustainable development.
SDG 17: Partnerships for the Goals
India has developed global and local partnerships
(for cooperative federalism) to strengthen the means of
implementation and revitalisation for sustainable devel-
opment. The domestic resource mobilisation, improving
public expenditure, promoting entrepreneurship and pri-
vate sector, strengthening the south-south cooperation,
coalition-based approach are crucial.
SDG Scorecard: The 2022 SDG Index is topped by
Finland, followed by three Nordic countries–Denmark,
Sweden and Norway.
India, with a rank of 121 and at a score of 66 out of 100
stands behind Bhutan, Sri Lanka, Nepal and Bangladesh.
India stands better than Pakistan that is on 125th rank.
Among states, Kerala ranks first that is followed by
Tamil Nadu and Himachal Pradesh, both at second posi-
tion. The third position is shared by Goa, Karnataka,
Andhra Pradesh and Uttarakhand. Bihar is at the bottom
of the list at a rank of 16 with a score of 52.
Among UTs, Chandigarh ranks first, followed by Delhi,
Lakshadweep and Puducherry for the second place and
the Andaman and Nicobar Islands for the third position.
India faces major challenges in achieving 11 of the
17 SDGs. The SDG 8 is the most challenging for us.
Stopover
Which of the following are priority areas in relation to
the Sustainable Development Goals?
(a) No poverty
(b) Zero hunger
(c) Reducing urbanization
(d) Peace, justice and strong institutions
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(a) (i), (ii), (iii)
(b) (i), (iii), (iv)
(c) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(d) (i), (ii), (iv)
The correct option is (d).
Human and Environment Interaction:
A nthropogenic A ctivities and their Impacts
on E nvironment
There are basically two types of activities:
1. Natural: Occur in the natural manner
2. Anthropogenic: Basically man-made activities
23/12/22 8:01 PM
 9.12
Anthropogenic: Basically man-made activities. The present
age can be termed as anthropocene age.
1. The main objective is to improve human living con-
ditions with human efforts. Once they reach a point,
they can start causing harm to the human life.
2. The related energy consumption and technical evolu-
tion cause pollution.
The life on this planet emerged 3000 million years ago in
the form of single cell organisms. With evolution of life,
their was increase in oxygen (and CO2) levels. Ozone levels
also increased that acts as protective layer against solar UV
rays. Increase in the levels carbon dioxide and other gases
and pollutants is the result of anthropogenic activities.
Industrialization and urbanization were the major causes
for increase in pollution. The changes were spatial (local
to global) and temporal (short term to long term).
The Main Impacts on T raditional T ype of
Agriculture
The major impacts on agriculture are deforestation, soil
erosion, depletion of nutrients, etc. There have been both
positive and negative effects on environment in order to
increase production.
The main problems are:
1. Micronutrient imbalance—in the form nitrogen,
phosphorus and potassium.
2. Nitrate pollution—leaching deep into the soil and
contaminating groundwater; when the concentration
exceeds 25 mg/L, they cause blue baby syndrome or
methaemoglobinaemia.
3. Eutrophication—excessive use of N and P fertilizers
in agriculture, leading to algal blooms.
There can be pesticide-related problems, which include her-
bicides, insecticides, fungicides, biocides, etc. Pesticides can
also be classified as inorganic, synthetic or biological (biope-
sticides), although the distinction can sometimes blur.
Waterlogging (over-irrigation of croplands) and salin-
ity (increased concentration of soluble salts in the soil)
are other major issues.
I mpact of Housing-Related A nthropogenic
A ctivities on Environment
High-tech buildings reduce the overall cost. The excessive
use of building materials, such as solvents, finishes and
cleansers, for maintenance and protection may cause ‘sick
building syndrome’. The mining and manufacturing of
metals may be carcinogenic (cancer causing).
Some insulating materials made from chlorofluorocar-
bon (CFCs) and their safe recovery add to global warming.
The indoor air pollution is a major source of pub-
lic exposure to air pollutants and has potential to cause
chronic health problems.
1. Formaldehyde (specifically in modern buildings):
Pressed wood products use adhesives that contain
urea-formaldehyde (UF) resins. Formaldehyde
M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 12
Chapter 9
is also present in tobacco smoke, natural gas and
kerosene.
2. Benzene is a solvent used in petrol, ink, oil, paint, plastic
and rubber. Trichloroethylene is used in metal degreas-
ers, dry cleaning solvents, inks, paints, lacquers, var-
nishes and adhesives. Ozone is produced from copying
machines. Fumes are produced from cleaning solvents.
3. The use of air conditioning system may lead to growth of
disease causing bacteria in air ducts and filters.
4. The inhalation of asbestos can cause fibrotic lung dis-
ease (asbestosis), changes in the lining of the chest
cavity (pleura) and mesothelioma.
5. Cockroach droppings may cause allergic asthma.
Effects of Anthropogenic Mining Activities
on E nvironment
The environmental effects of mining depend on factors
such as ore quality, mining procedures, local hydrologi-
cal conditions and development stage of resource.
The mining is mainly of two types—land dredging
(digging a hole in land) and river dredging.
River dredging involves moving along a river on a plat-
form or boat.
Mining is the main cause of deforestation. The harm-
ful chemicals, such as cyanide, mercury or methyl mer-
cury, may be used in the extraction of minerals.
The following damages may also be caused by
mining (Fig. 9.7):
• Devegetation and Defacing of Landscape can occur.
• There may be subsidence of land tilting of build­
ings, example, cracks in houses, etc.
• Groundwater Contamination: Sulphur is the
main element that gets converted into sulphuric
acid, which makes the water acidic. Some heavy
metals also get leached into the ground­water and
contaminate it by posing health hazards.
• Surface Water Pollution: Acidic water is detrimen-
tal to many forms of aquatic life. Sometimes, radioac-
tive substances such as uranium also contaminate the
water bodies.
• Air pollution: It has been discussed separately.
• Occupational Health Hazards: Miners may suffer
from asbestosis, ­silicosis, black lung disease, etc.
Effects of T ransportation A ctivities on
E nvironment
Gases: The activities of the transport industry release sev-
eral million tons of gases each year into the atmosphere.
These include lead (Pb), carbon monoxide (CO), ­carbon
dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4), nitrogen oxides (NOx),
nitrous oxide (N2O), chloro-fluoro carbons (CFCs) per-
fluorocarbons (PFCs), heavy metals (zinc, chrome, cop-
per and cadmium) and particulate matters (ash, dust).
1. Nitrous oxide depletes the stratospheric ozone (O3)
layer, which naturally screens the earth’s surface from
UV radiation.
2. CO, CO2 and CH4 participate in greenhouse effect.
23/12/22 8:01 PM
 People, Development and Environment 9.13

The severe cold

regions such as the
Arctic Ocean areas
warm up to become
more habitable
Shifting of climatic
More clashing Tornadoes and
patterns changes the wind
of warm and cold hurricane-type storms
directions and patterns
fronts to cause more will increase in inten-
violent weather sity and damage

More warmed water

circulation results in more
Global Retention of more
rains; rainfall patterns also
heat in atmosphere re-
change. warming impact
sulting in more winds

The intensity of flash
floods will increase
The high-temperature
regions lose soil mois-
ture and it may cause
decrease in agricultural
productivity

Low regions of the earth,

e.g. India, Indonesia, Florida
Melting of glaciers Higher sea levels
in the USA, Belgium, get
more and more rains

Figure 9.7 Impact of Anthropogenic Activities

CO, NO2, SO2 and NOx and O2 cause acid rain. Acid Water Freshwater Inland and marine
precipitation affects construction, reduces agricultural shortage water pollution
crop yields and causes forest decline.
Flora and fauna Deforestation Loss of genetic
Noise: Long-term exposure to noise levels above 75 dB
and fuelwood diversity and loss
­seriously hampers human hearing and affects both physi-
shortage of cropland
cal and psychological well-being.
The issues may emanate from the local level, regional
Environmental Issues level and global level. The 1972 UN World Conference
Ideally, there should be common focus, ‘a common future’ on the Human Environment held at Stockholm also
or ‘global sharing’ concept. The structural inequalities in highlighted the differences in the points of view of the
the global economic system are responsible for the hin- developed and the developing countries regarding
drance in realizing the issue of sustainable development development and environment. The same kind of issues
in totality. emerged in the Rio Summit as well. The issues can be
In case we look at the aspects of developing and developed divided into three levels listed as follows:
nations, the situation given in Table 9.1 may emerge. 1. Local Issues: These relate to issues, such as water
shortage in certain areas, soil erosion of some local
Table 9.1  nvironmental Concerns of the
E forests, different pollution level in the same city and
Developed and Developing Countries landslides. They need to be tackled at the local level.
2. Regional Issues: Some regional issues have been
Environmental Developing Developed mentioned as follows:
Aspect Countries Countries (a) Desertification and droughts
Air Air pollution in Air pollution, (b) Floods and soil erosion
major cities global warming, (c) Rise in sea level, beach erosion, saltwater intru-
ozone depletion sion resulting in increased salinity, floods and
flood damages, threats to coastal wetlands and
Land and soil Soil erosion, Soil loss, solid threats to agriculture
desertification waste disposal (d) Deforestation
and loss of and changing 3. Global Issues: The global issues that have to be
arable land land use addressed are as follows:

M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 13 23/12/22 8:01 PM

 9.14 Chapter 9

(a) Climate Change and Global Warming: These Air Pollution

include increasing drought and desertification, crop Greenhouse gas (GHG) concept has been discussed later.
failures, melting of the polar ice caps, coastal flood-
ing, displacement of major vegetation regimes,
coral mortality, change in ocean behaviour, natural Earth’s
disasters, infectious diseases, degradation of eco- Atmosphere Percentage Greenhouse Gas
systems, scarcity of food supply and rise in sea level. Nitrogen 78.08 No
(b) North–South Divide: This ‘North’ world has just
over 20% of the world population but consumes Oxygen 20.95 No
80% of the world’s energy. On the other hand, the
Water 0–4 Yes
‘South’ comprising the developing nations of the
world is still struggling to provide the basic needs, Argon 0.93 No
such as food, water, shelter, clothing, basic educa-
tion and health for its population. Carbon dioxide 0.039 Yes
Biodiversity: This includes loss of diversity of life
(c)  Neon 0.0018 No
including both flora and fauna.
Helium 0.0005 No
G eopolitics of Climate Change
Methane 0.00017 Yes
Developed Nations: Industrially and historically, they
are the biggest emitters of CO2. They are also part of Hydrogen 0.00005 No
‘Common But Differentiated Principle’ (CBDP); they need
to provide technological access to developing for their Nitrous oxide 0.00003 Yes
economic development in a sustainable manner. Ozone 0.000004 Yes
Developing Nations: It is blamed that these nations are
developing economically and technologically but still burn World Health Organization defines air pollution as the
fuel inefficiently. Nations such as China, India and Brazil presence of materials in the air that are harmful to the living
have developed during recent times, and so their contri- beings once they cross their threshold concentration levels.
bution to emission levels is also very high. They are also The foreign bodies, gases and so on act as air pollutants. Air
accused for the same. The UN Environment Programme pollution is the most extensive and worst form of pollution
in 2002 highlighted Asian brown cloud (later named as (Table 9.2).
Atmospheric Brown Cloud due to shift patterns); it has Types of Air Pollution
many smog-like features. There has been an increase in
population, shifts in rainfall patterns, etc. There are two types of air pollutants, primary and sec-
If we specifically focus on India, Green India Mission ondary.
has taken up the following projects. Primary Pollutants
1. Green Highway Policy: 1,40,000-km-long ‘tree line’ Primary pollutants enter the atmosphere directly from the
along both sides of national highways—1% of the source. Some important primary pollutants are as ­follows:
project cost to be earmarked for plantations
2. Namami Gange: Plantation along rivers 1. Suspended particulate matter (SPM)
3. Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management 2. Oxides of carbon
and Planning Authority (CAMPA): Allocation of $6 3. Hydrocarbons (methane)
billion to states 4. Sulphur oxides (SOx)
4. Provisions under REDD (Reducing Emissions from 5. Nitrogen oxides (NOx)
Deforestation and Forest Degradation) Plus, National 6. CFCs
Agroforestry Policy (NAP), Joint Forest Management, etc. 7. Lead
5. Finance Commission incentives for creation of Secondary Pollutants
carbon sinks: The Union Government attaches 7.5% Secondary pollutants are not directly emitted from sources.
weightage attached by the Union Government to These pollutants are formed as a result of chemical reac-
‘area under forests’ to states. tions between the primary pollutants and certain atmos-
pheric constituents in the presence of sunlight. Sulphates,
Pollution and its Types nitrates and organic particles can be transported over large
distances, such as hundreds and even thousands of kilome-
An undesirable change in the physical, chemical and
tres. Some important secondary pollutants are as follows:
biological characteristics of the environment, especially
air, water and land, that may adversely affect human 1. Sulphur Trioxide: It is a compound formed when
population and the wildlife, industrial processes and sulphur dioxide reacts with oxygen. It combines with
cultural assets (building and monuments) is called water to form sulphuric acid.
pollution. The agents that pollute the environment or 2. Smog Formation: Smog is an odd combination of
cause pollution are called pollutants. smoke and fog. The effect of smog is maximum just

M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 14 23/12/22 8:01 PM

 People, Development and Environment 9.15

Table 9.2 Major Air Pollution–Related Chemical Substances

Pollutants Source Pathological Effect on Human Beings
Ozone Vehicular exhaust—this “bad” ozone is not Lung function—aggravation of asthma,
(ground level) emitted directly into air; it is created by chemical emphysema and chronic bronchitis
reactions between nitrogen oxides and volatile
organic compounds in the presence of sunlight
Lead Leaded petrol (used as anti-knocking agent) Central nervous system, interference with
development of RBCs
Sulphur dioxide Thermal power plant and industries Severe respiratory problem, reduces
exchange of gases from lung surface
Nitrogen oxides Thermal power plant Heart and lung problems, bronchitis,
asthma and also carcinogenic issues
Carbon monoxide Incomplete combustion of fossil fuel, wood Reduces oxygen-carrying capacity of blood,
stoves and cigarette smoke breathing problems
Hydrogen sulphide Oil refineries and chemical industries Nausea, irritation of eyes and throat
Hydrogen cyanide Blast furnace, fumigation and chemical industry Headache, dry throat, indistinct vision and
dysfunction of nerve cells
Ammonia Fertilizer industry, dye-making, bleaching and Acidification of water bodies at a high level
explosives
Phosgene Chemical and dye-making industry Pulmonary oedema
Volatile organic Vaporize easily and some examples are gasoline, Smog formation
compounds benzene
Arsenic Arsenic soldering Damages red blood cells and kidneys, and
causes jaundice
Suspended Incinerators and basically manufacturing Emphysema, respiratory system problems—
Particulate Matter processes asthma, chronic bronchitis
(SPM)*
Some of the pollutants fall under categories of both air and water pollutants, such as heavy metal cadmium.
* SPM includes soot, smoke, dust, fibres, pesticides, metals (such as mercury, lead and copper), dust mites and pollen.

before sunrise as smog particles are entrapped in cold

air and are unable to rise. Two types of smog are prev-
alent as per records:
(a) Sulphurous or London Smog: London was
affected from this smog long time ago in 1952,
hence this kind of smog was named as London
smog. It is also termed ‘reducing smog’ as its
mixture of components is chemically reducing
in nature. This is due to the presence of sulphur
dioxide in air. It is more prevalent during the
morning hours of winter season when the rela-
tive humidity is high and air near the ground is
also cooler. London smog causes throat irritation
and difficulty in breathing.
(b) Photochemical or Los Angeles Smog: This type
of smog is caused by the presence of oxides of
nitrogen in the atmosphere, formed as a result of
vehicular exhaust. It is formed due to chemical
reactions involving ozone, nitrogen oxide, hydro-
carbons and peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN) in the
Air Pollution and Aerosols
• Aerosols: They are stable suspensions of solid or
liquid particles in air. Aerosols affect the weather
conditions by blocking solar radiations. Deposition
of aerosols on leaves affects the process of photo-
synthesis.
• Mist: It refers to aerosols consisting of liquid drop-
lets.
• Dust: It refers to aerosols consisting of solid parti-
cles.
• Fume: It refers to aerosols consisting of hot vapours
of metals.
• Smoke is also an aerosol, which is a mixture of liq-
uid and solid particles as a result of burning.
• Plume: It is a geometrical form of smoke.
• Smog is the mixture of smoke and fog (­discussed
separately).

M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 15 23/12/22 8:01 PM

 9.16
presence of sunlight. This phenomenon mainly
occurs during warm sunny days as sunlight is
required to carry out photochemical reaction
in seasons when the sky is clear. Photochemical
smog consists of brown hazy fumes. It irritates
the eyes and lungs, and causes cracking of rub-
ber and extensive damage to plant life.
(c) Ground-level Ozone: Tropospheric or ground-
level ozone is formed from photochemical reac-
tion between two major classes of air pollutants,
such as volatile organic compounds (VOCs) and
nitrogen oxides.
3. Acid Rain: Acid rain is caused by a chemical reaction
that begins when compounds such as sulphur dioxide
and nitrogen oxides are released into the air. These sub-
stances can rise very high into the atmosphere, where
they mix and react with water, oxygen and other chem-
icals to form more acidic pollutants known as acid rain.
Effects of Acid Rain
1. Acid rain has many ecological effects, but none is
greater than its impact on lakes, streams, wetlands
and other aquatic environments. It makes water
acidic and causes it to absorb aluminium.
2. Acid rain also damages forests, especially those at
higher elevations. It erodes the soil of essential nutri-
ents and releases aluminium in the soil, which makes
it hard for trees to take up water.
3. Leaves, trees and plants are less able to withstand
the effects of acid rain combined with other environ-
mental stressors such as cold temperatures, insects
and disease. The pollutants may also inhibit the trees’
ability to reproduce.
G overnment I nitiatives to C ontrol
Air Pollution
The following are the major government initiatives to
monitor air pollution:
1. National Air Quality Monitoring Programme
2. National Ambient Air Quality Standards
3. System of Air Quality and Weather Forecasting
1. National Air Quality Monitoring Pro­gramme: The
Central Pollution Control Board is executing a nation-
wide programme of ambient air quality monitor-
ing known as National Air Quality Monitoring Pro-
gramme (NAMP).
  The National Air Quality Index (NAQI) was launched
on 17 October 2014 to disseminate information on air
quality in an easily understandable form for the general
public. The measurement of air quality is based on the
pollutants mentioned as follows:
(a) PM10—particulate matter (size less than 10 µm)
(b) PM2.5—particulate matter (size less than 2.5 μm)
(c) NO2
(d) SO2
(e) CO
(f) Ozone
(g) Ammonia
M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 16
Chapter 9
(h) Lead
PM1 particles are 1 μm or less in diameter. They are
35–50% of PM2.5 in number. They penetrate deep
into the lungs and bloodstream. They cause cardio-
vascular diseases.
  The unit of measurements in case of pollutants
mentioned above is microgram per cubic metre except
in the case of CO, for which it is milligram.
  The AQI is classified along with one of the follow-
ing six categories:
(a) Good (0–50)
(b) Satisfactory (51–100)
(c) Moderately polluted (101–200)
(d) Poor (201–300)
(e) Very poor (301–400)
(f) Severe (401–500)
The formulation of the index was an initiative under
Swachh Bharat Mission (Cleanliness Mission) based
on the recommendations of IIT Kanpur and the expert
group formed in this regard.
2. National Ambient Air Quality Standards: These ambi-
ent air quality standards are specified separately in India
for around 12 pollutants, including the 8 that constitute
the NAQI. The additional four pollutants are arsenic,
nickel, benzene and benzopyrene. PM2.5 is particularly
dangerous and can cause adverse health effects owing
to its greater penetrability into the human respiratory
system and eventual accumulation in human organs
and blood. PM concentrations are higher in winter sea-
son and are lower during monsoon months.
  SO2 levels are within the prescribed National
Ambient Air Quality Standards in residential areas of
all the cities. Decreasing trend may be due to various
interventions that have taken place in recent years,
such as reduction of sulphur in diesel, use of cleaner
fuel such as compressed natural gas (CNG) in Delhi
and implementation of Bharat Stage III emission
norms. In addition, there has been a change in the use
of domestic fuel from coal to LPG, which may have
contributed to reduction in ambient levels of SO2.
  NO2 levels are within the prescribed National
Ambient Air Quality Standards in residential areas
of most cities. Measures to reduce NO2 include ban-
ning of old vehicles, better traffic management, etc.
Despite an increase in the number of vehicles, CO
levels have reduced during the last few years. The
decrease may be attributed to measures such as con-
version of diesel-run three-wheelers to CNG.
3. System of Air Quality and Weather Forecasting:
The Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) has intro-
duced a major national initiative, ‘System of Air Qual-
ity and Weather Forecasting and Research’ known as
‘SAFAR’, for greater metropolitan cities of India, to
provide location-specific information on air quality
in near real time and its forecast 1–3 days in advance
for the first time in India. It has been combined with
the early warning system on weather parameters. The
SAFAR system is developed by the Indian Institute of
Tropical Meteorology, Pune.
23/12/22 8:01 PM
 People, Development and Environment 9.17

WHO has its own standards. Across the globe, most of • The policy is modelled on the pattern of Euro norms.
the emissions that reach the atmosphere come from coal • Emission norms were introduced such as Bharat I, II,
(43%) followed by oil (33%). III, IV, V and VI in a phased manner, though Bharat V
skipped later.
Indoor Air Pollution • With effect from February 2000, lead has been phased
The major reasons for indoor air pollution are inefficient out of automobile fuel.
burning of inferior fuels during cooking or heating, such
as cow dung, agricultural residue, and coal and fuelwood, Advantages of BS-VI Norms
along with poor ventilation systems inside the house • The central government mandated that vehicle
(Fig. 9.8). The problem aggravates during winters when makers must manufacture, sell and register only BS-VI
the doors and windows of the houses, especially in rural (BS6) vehicles from April 1, 2020.
areas, are kept shut. The smokeless chulhas were intro- • In BS-VI fuel, the volume of PM 2.5 ranges from
duced as a solution to the problem of indoor air pollution. 20 to 40 μg/m3, whereas in BS-IV fuel it is up to 120
However, they could not make much impact. μg/m3.
• BS-VI fuel will bring down sulphur content by five
Bharat Stage (BS) Norms times from the current BS-IV levels. It has 10 ppm of
• Bharat stage (BS) emission standards are laid down sulphur as against 50 ppm in BS-IV.
by the government to regulate the output of air pol- • Sulphur in the fuel contributes to fine particulate matter
lutants from internal combustion engine and spark- emissions. High sulphur content in the fuel also leads to
ignition engine equipment, including motor vehicles. corrosion and wear of the automobile engine.
National Auto Fuel policy was announced offi- • With BS-VI fuel, for every 1 km, a car will emit 80% less
cially in 2003. The road map for the implementation particulate matter and nearly 70% less nitrogen oxide.
of the BS norms was laid out until 2010. • Air pollutants in BS-VI fuel are much less as compared
• The Auto Fuel Policy was suggested by the expert to in BS-IV fuel.
committee headed by Dr R. A. Mashelkar.
• There were recommendations on auto fuel’s quality and Main Methods of Controlling Gaseous Pollutants
vehicular emission norms applicable to whole of India. 1. Combustion: This technique is used for controlling
• It recommended introduction of low-sulphur diesel, those air pollutants that are in the form of organic
unleaded petrol and low-benzene gasoline in a phased gases or vapours. Here, the organic air pollutants are
manner. subjected to flame combustion technique (catalytic
• It recommended promotion of alternative fuels such combustion). The organic pollutants are converted
as CNG. into less harmful products and water vapour.
2. Absorption: Absorption is a process in which a sub-
stance penetrates another substance such as scrub-
bers. The gaseous pollutants are passed through
absorbing material such as scrubbers. These scrub-
bers contain a liquid absorbent. This liquid absorbent
removes the pollutants present in gaseous effluents.
Indoor Thus, the air coming into scrubber is free from pollut-
Air Quality ants and it is discharged into atmosphere.
3. Adsorption: Adsorption is a process in which a sub-
90% of our lives 2– More pollution stance sticks to the surface of another substance
spent indoors 5x indoors than (called absorbent). The gaseous effluents are passed
outdoors through porous solid absorbent kept in a container.
The gaseous pollutants stick to the surface of the
porous material and clean air passes through. The
organic and inorganic constituents of gaseous efflu-
Common Indoor Air Pollutants
ents are trapped at the interface of the solid adsorbent
Airborne Indoor Household Ozone Carbon and physical and physical adsorbent.
particles formaldehyde odours and from outdoor dioxide
from diesel from building gases air (ground- from people Mechanical Methods: Some other methods to control
exhaust, materials, from activities level ozone exhaling and particulate air pollutants are as follows:
dust, smoke furniture, such as is harmful to cooking
and other cooking and painting, breathe)
1. Fabric Filters: In this technique, gaseous emission
sources smoking cooking and containing dust, soot and fly ash is passed through
smoking porous fabric filters made of fabric (cloth-woven or
filled fabric). The particles of pollutants get trapped
in this fabric and are collected in the filter and
the gases free from the pollutant particles are dis-
Figure 9.8 Indoor Air Quality charged.

M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 17 23/12/22 8:01 PM

 9.18 Chapter 9

For your Information

Dust, Trucks, Two-Wheelers

Beat Cars as Delhi Air Killers
Road dust is the top contributor to the high level of participate matter, also called particle
pollution or PM, in Delhi followed by vehicular emissions, cooking and industry or power plants,
finds a study by IIT Kanpur. Trucks are the worst polluters among vehicles. Here is a snapshot.
WHAT’S PUSHING VEHICLES POLLUTING* THE MOST ...
UP DELHI’S PM
2.5 LEVELS .... 18%
Two-wheelers
22% ¤
Power plant/large
Industry 14–15%
Passenger cars
22% ♦
Domestic cooking
24–25%
25–36%* Trucks
Vehicles *PM 2.5

35% POLLUTING CAUSED

Road dust BY SECONDARY
PARTICULATE MATTER ...
¤ Excluding road dust
Figures may not add up to 100% as
they are average of range estimates
♦ 5–10% through wood/biomass-
60% 40%
Power plants, Vehicular
based cooking excluding road dust cooking, all emissions
* Average 25%, 35–36% in peak other sources
time and in certain areas

Figure 9.9 Urban Pollution Origins

2. Mechanical Devices: There are many mechanical
devices that clean the air of pollutants either (i) due
to gravity in which the particles settle down by gravi-
tational force or (ii) by sudden change in the direc-
tion of gas flow in which particles separate out due to
greater momentum.
3. Electrostatic precipitators: In this technique, a
gas or air stream containing aerosols in the form
of dust, mist or fumes is passed between the two
electrodes of the electrostatic precipitator. During
this process, the aerosol particles get precipitated
on the electrodes.
The following methods also help:
1. Domestic Measures: At domestic level, burning
of wood and dung cakes can be replaced by use of
cleaner fuel and biogas (formed by the decomposition
of animal and plant wastes in a biogas plant).
2. Transportation Measures: Pooling of transport or
use of public transport, use of unleaded petrol and
CNG, regular tuning and servicing of the engines,
and switching off the engine at red lights or when not
in use.
3. Following measures can reduce industrial pollution:
installation of tall chimneys and installation of
devices that do not allow pollutants to be released in
the environment so easily, such as filters, electrostatic
precipitators and scrubbers.
Oxygen Depletion in Water Bodies
High levels of organic waste increase the rate of decom-
position by bacteria, which use oxygen for this process.
This causes a drop in dissolved oxygen in water. In other
words, the biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) of water
increases. A high BOD indicates a low level of dissolved
oxygen in water. This destruction leads to the destruction
of sensitive organisms, such as phytoplankton, molluscs
and fish.
Chemical oxygen demand (COD) is the amount of
oxygen required to break down the organic material via
‘oxidation’.
Biomagnification
The accumulation of a toxic chemical in the bodies
of organisms as we move from producers to primary

M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 18 23/12/22 8:01 PM

 People, Development and Environment
consumers to secondary consumers, etc., is called
biomagnification. It occurs when a chemical becomes
more and more concentrated as we move up the
food chain. This is specifically true in case of non-
biodegradable chemicals or pollutants. The classic
example is DDT. It is first eaten by planktons, then by
small fish and then by big fish. The fish are eaten by
birds and so on. At each level, its concentration goes
up. The consumption of DDT by birds causes thinning
of their eggs, which rupture prematurely during their
warming and babies die a premature death. The process
of biomagnification is also called bioaccumulation.
Bioaccumulation
This is the gradual accumulation of substances, such as
pesticides or other chemicals, in an organism. For example,
car emission chemicals build up in birds and other animals.
Similarly, the mercury is built up in fish.
Eutrophication
The inorganic nutrients in the run-off from agricultural
fields reaching a water body increase the nutrient content
of the water body. These nutrients causes the profuse
growth of algae (algal bloom) in it. This growth eventually
causes the death of small fish and organisms in them.
Methane (CH4)
Methane is a hydrocarbon that is a primary component of
natural gas. Methane is emitted from anthropogenic and
natural sources.
Anthropogenic (human-influenced) emission sources
include landfills, oil and natural gas systems, agri-
cultural activities (such as rice cultivation), coal min-
ing (coal bed methane), combustion of stationary and
mobile, wastewater treatment, and some industrial pro-
cesses. Methanogens are bacteria in animals that breaks
down plant based organic matter in their digestive sys-
tem such as cows and thus they produce methane. The
melting of permafrost regions in arctic oceans also helps
in release of methane. The release of methane gas itself
is exacerbated by global warming, that again adds to
global warming.
Methane is the second most abundant anthropogenic
GHG after carbon dioxide. Methane is 25 times more
potent in comparison to carbon dioxide in trapping heat
in atmosphere. The methane levels have more than dou-
bled in last two decades.
Methane is thus a powerful greenhouse gas, and it is
short-lived compared to carbon dioxide. If we are able
to achieve substantial reductions in methane emissions,
this can help in reduction of global warming in future.
China, USA, Russia, India, Brazil, Indonesia are the
major methane emitters.
The presence of methane gas on other planetary bod-
ies as our moon, Saturn’s moon, Mars etc. may indicate
microbial life or some volcanic activity there.
M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 19
9.19
Stopover
1. The common features between NO2, SO2, CO and SPM
is that all of them
(a) Are classified as primary pollutants
(b) Are classified as secondary pollutants
(c) Have equal role in causing acid rain
(d) Are greenhouse gases
The correct option is (a).
2. Sulphur dioxide is mainly released from
(a) Cars and trucks
(b) Photochemical reactions
(c) Factories
(d) None of the above
The correct option is (a).
W ater Pollution and its Causes
Water is an important resource. Water is the basis of life and
it makes up to 60–95% of the total weight of any function-
ing living cell.
Water is the most scarce and the most valuable
commodity available to us. Earth is proudly called as
‘Water Planet’. The 68.7% of the fresh water on earth is
found in icecaps and glaciers, 30.1% is found in ground
water. The fresh water is only 1.2%. This 1.2% can be
further split into ground ice and permafrost (69.7%),
lakes (20.9%) and rest into soil moisture, rivers, living
creatures etc. Thus, over more than 99 % earth’s water
is unusable by humans and many other forms of life. It
is amazing to see that water supports all terrestrial, as
well as aquatic, life on our planet is actually so scarce.
(Fig 9.10).
The amount of water is not diminishing, but the
demand for it is steadily increasing. In addition, the
amount of water that is clean and drinkable is steadily
decreasing because of pollution (Fig. 9.11).
Waterfall falling near a river’s ‘headwaters’ (the source
of river–origins) flows downhill due to gravity through a
‘watershed’.
Urban areas, obviously, have a greater need for water
beyond the basics for drinking and sanitation. But over-
population in undeveloped countries means that many
people do not even get the basics.
The sector-wise breakup of water withdrawal in India
is as follows:
1. Agriculture and livestock—91%
2. Municipalities—7%
3. Industry—2%
Pollution of water affects drinking water, lakes, rivers and
oceans all over the world.
Water pollution is the presence of harmful sub-
stances in a water body and thus, it makes water unfit for
intended use.
23/12/22 8:01 PM
 9.20 Chapter 9

Distribution of Earth’s Water

Surface water
Saline and other
ground- freshwater Atmosphere water
Freshwater 2.5% 1.3%
water 0.22%
0.93% Biological water
0.22%
Saline
lakes
0.07% Groundwater Rivers 0.46%
30.1% Lakes Swamps and
20.1% marshes
2.53%
Soil
moisture
3.52%

Oceans
96.5%
Glaciers
and
ice caps Ice and
68.6% snow
73.1%

Total global Freshwater Surface water and

water other freshwater
Figure 9.10 Water Bodies on Earth
Source: Igor Shiklomanov’s Chapter “World Fresh water resources” in Peter H. Gleick (1993), Water in Crisis: A Guide to world’s
Fresh Water resources.

Types of Water Pollution

According to the sources of pollution, there are two types Water Flow
of water pollution,

1. Point Source Pollution

The discharge of harmful substances by specific sources
into a water body leads to point source pollution. Sediments Acid water
Industrial wastewater and hot water from ­thermal power Crop dusting
from mine
plants cause point source pollution.
The major sources of this type of water pollution are Industrial
as follows: wastes

1. Industrial Wastewater: Both small and large indus- Barnyard

trial units produce wastewater, which has a variety wastes
of organic and inorganic pollutants. This is the major Oil pollution
Fertilizer
reason for river pollution in India. runout
2. Hot Water: Industries such as thermal power plants
and oil refineries use water as coolant. When this
water is discharged into the water body, its temper-
ature is higher by 15°C. The warmer temperature Sewage treatment plant Nuclear reactor
decreases the solubility of oxygen and increases the
metabolism of fish. This changes the ecological bal-
ance of the river. Figure 9.11 Water Pollution Due to Human Activities

M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 20 23/12/22 8:01 PM

 People, Development and Environment
2. Non-point Source Pollution
The discharge of pollutants into a water body from large
areas leads to non-point source pollution. Construction
run off and acid rain cause non-point pollution.
Non-point source pollution is caused by the following
pollutants:
1. Municipal Wastewater: It is mainly from domestic
sources such as kitchen and toilet. This is the major
reason for river pollution in India.
2. Surface Run-off: The practices followed in agricul-
ture affect groundwater quality. Intensive cultiva-
tion causes fertilizers and pesticides to seep into
the groundwater, in a process known as leaching.
Irrigation run-off from agricultural fields causes high
nitrate content in groundwater. The problem is aggra-
vated if industries are located in that area.
3. Oil Spills: An oil spill is the accidental discharge of
petroleum into oceans or estuaries, leading to the pol-
lution of the marine ­ecosystem. Oil spills are caused
due to capsized oil tankers or offshore oil mining and
oil explorations.
Effect of Water Pollution on Human Life
Water contamination due to domestic sewage containing
pathogens, such as viruses, bacteria, parasitic protozoa
and worms, can cause diseases, such as jaundice, chol-
era, typhoid and amoebiasis. This type of contamination
renders water unfit for drinking, bathing, swimming and
even irrigation.
Contamination of Water by Heavy Metals
Heavy metals are commonly defined as those having a
specific density of more than 5 g/cm3. The main threats
to human health from heavy metals are associated
with exposure to lead, cadmium, mercury and arsenic
(a ­metalloid). Heavy metal contamination of water bod-
ies and groundwater due to industrial wastewater affects
health in a number of ways. Industrial effluents contain-
ing lead, fluorides, nitrates and arsenic pose a grave dan-
ger to human beings.
1. Mercury: Mercury compounds in wastewater are
converted by bacterial action into extremely toxic
methyl mercury. Fish accumulate this poison in their
bodies, and the consumption of such fish can cause
numbness of limbs, lips and tongue, deafness, blurring
of vision and mental derangement. This syndrome is
called Minamata disease since it was first noticed in
Japan in the 1950s, where people developed it after
consuming fish from the Minamata Bay. It can also
cause gingivitis.
2. Pesticides: Organophosphates and carbonates present
in pesticides that get washed off into water bodies dam-
age the nervous system and can cause cancer.
3. Fluoride: Excess fluoride can cause yellowing of
teeth and damage to the spinal cord.
4. Nitrates: Drinking water contaminated with
nitrates can prove fatal, especially to infants feed-
ing on formula milk made with this water. Nitrates
M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 21
9.21
restrict the amount of oxygen that reaches the brain,
causing blue baby syndrome. Haemoglobin in blood
carries oxygen from the lungs or gills to the rest of
the body. Normally 1–2% of a person’s haemoglo-
bin is methaemoglobin. A higher percentage due to
nitrates or nitrites can cause health problems known
as methaemoglobinaemia.
5. Chromium: Chromium is a mineral that aids in the
body’s ability to use insulin to convert carbohydrates
to energy. It is used in many industries also.
  Naturally occurring trivalent chromium is essential
for good health.
  Hexavalent chromium does not occur naturally but
is produced by certain industries.
  It is the most toxic form of chromium. It causes lung
cancer on continuous exposure.
  Breathing chromium dust is the main route for
exposure to it.
  Plants also absorb chromium and it can be passed
on to those who eat the plants.
  Even contact with such contaminated soil can result
in exposure to chromium.
6. Arsenic: Earlier it was used as an insecticide, roden-
ticide, for wood preservation and for medical prepa-
ration. It has many industrial applications. Different
fungi and microorganisms convert arsenic to dimethyl
arsenic in water, which gets detected in natural water,
bird egg shells, sea shells and human urine. Arsenic
poisoning through water can cause damage to the
liver, nervous system disorders, vascular disease, skin
cancer (dermatitis) and bronchitis.
7. Cadmium: Cadmium compounds are mainly used in
rechargeable nickel–cadmium batteries. Cadmium is
also used in making fusible alloys, electroplating and
as control rods in nuclear reactors.
  Cigarette smoking is a major source of cadmium
exposure. In non-smokers, food is the most impor-
tant source of cadmium exposure. It damages the
heart, liver, lungs and reproductive organs, and also
causes kidney damage. The itai-itai disease in Japan
was due to cadmium pollution, where it caused bone
defects and fractures.
8. Cyanide: It is used in extraction of gold and silver
metals, metal painting and pesticides. Its consump-
tion leads to nausea and death.
9. Manganese: It is abundant in nature. Higher concen-
tration of manganese causes cramps, tremors, halluci-
nations, manganic pneumonia and renal degeneration.
10. Iron: The excessive presence of iron in human body
can aggravate thalassaemia that is basically a genetic
disorder. This has an adverse impact on red blood cor-
puscle (RBC) count and haemoglobin. Water bodies
also become foul due to abundance of iron-oxidizing
microbes.
Effect of Water Pollution on Marine Life
Marine oil spill is also a type of water pollutant and has
direct impact on marine life. It is the accidental release of
petroleum products into the ocean or coastal waters.
23/12/22 8:01 PM
 9.22 Chapter 9

1. Tanker Spills: Even small amounts of oil spread Soil and Causes for its Pollution
across large areas of water prevent oxygen in the air Soil is a thin covering over the land consisting of a mix-
from dissolving in water, thus making it difficult for ture of minerals, organic ­materials (carbon compounds,
organisms to breathe. generally derived from organisms), living organisms, air
2. Oil Coating: Oil coating results in poisoning of and water.
marine birds such as seagull. The oil coating reduces Mature soil is arranged into a series of zones called soil
their body temperature and makes it impossible for horizons (Table 9.3).
them to survive the cold temperature of the ocean. The following factors affect the formation of soil:

W ater A vailability in I ndia 1. Parent materials

2. Topography
According to Indian Council for Agriculture Research 3. Climate
(ICAR) the per capita annual water availability has 4. Organisms
declined to 1,508 cubic meter in 2014 from 5,177 cubic 5. Time
meter in 1951.
The per capita availability of water is estimated to Different types of soils vary in the following ways:
decline further to 1,465 cubic meter by 2025 and 1,235
1. Clay: Very fine particles
cubic meter by 2050. If it declines further to around
2. Silt: Fine particles
1,000-1,100 cubic meter, then India could be declared as
3. Sand: Medium-sized particles
water-stressed country,
4. Gravel: Coarse particles
Namami Gange: We can name ‘Namami Gange’ scheme
The following are the different causes of soil
here that was started in 2014. (Sikkim was given the sta-
pollution:
tus of ‘Fully Organic State’ in the year 2016). There is
scheme on interlinking of rivers to ensure equitable dis- 1. Industrial Waste: This includes heavy metals and
tribution of water. toxic chemicals.
2. Municipal and Medical Wastes: Some wastes are
Ramsar Wetlands in I ndia non-biodegradable.
A Ramsar wetland is a wetland placed under protec- 3. Radioactive Wastes also Cause Soil Pollution.
tion due to its international and ecological significance. 4. Agrochemicals: These include pesticides, weedicides
The policies governing the protection of the wetlands and excess inorganic fertilizers.
were discussed during the Ramsar Convention held on 5. Opencast Mining: Digging the earth’s surface for
February 2, 1971 in Iran under the auspices of UNESCO. extraction of mineral ores degrades the top soil of
India adds 10 more wetlands designated as Ramsar sites earth.
to make total 64 sites covering an area of 12,50,361 ha 6. e-Waste: Used computers, mobile phones, TV, etc.,
in the country in August 2022. The 10 new sites include: simply dumped into landfills. Since these are of toxic
Six (6) sites in Tamil Nadu and One (1) each in Goa, nature, they affect the quality of soil. The toxins may
Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha. leach from landfills and also spoil the groundwater.
Two Lakshadweep islands, Thundi and Kadamat gets 7. Pesticides and Fertilizers: Temperature, light and
‘Blue Flag’ certification due to better management by carbon dioxide levels affect photosynthesis. Farmers
Govt. use fertilizers, pesticides and biological control

Stopover Table 9.3 Layers of Soil

Assertion (A): Methaemoglobinaemia is a condition

in which blood is not able to carry and deliver enough Layer Description
oxygen to the body. O-Horizon Freshly fallen leaves, twigs, animal waste,
Reason (R): Consuming drinking water with high
fungi and so on.
nitrate level may cause methaemoglobinaemia.
A-Horizon Partially decomposed organic matter
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(humus) and some inorganic mineral
below: particles.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A). B-Horizon It is also called subsoil, where it has less
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct organic matter and fewer organisms than
explanation of (A). A-horizon soil.
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. C-Horizon Helps to determine the pH of soil and
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. determines the soil’s rate of water
The correct option is (a). absorption and retention.

M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 22 23/12/22 8:01 PM

 People, Development and Environment
to increase crop yields. Excessive use of fertilizers
reduces the population of soil-borne organisms, the
crumb structure of the soil and productivity of the
soil. This can cause problem of waterlogging. The plant
roots cannot respire due to excess water in soil profile.
Nitrogen is lost from waterlogged soils due to leaching
and denitrification (degassing). Denitrification leads to
the gaseous loss of nitrous oxide (N2O) into the atmo-
sphere, which is the major GHG, and adds to the phe-
nomenon of global warming.
8. Other Pollutants: Many air pollutants (acid rain)
and water pollutants ultimately become a part of soil
pollution.
Soil Degradation
Ideally, it may take thousands of years to make an inch
of good-quality soil that consists of silicates, organic
material, humus, clay, etc. Soil needs a dynamic eco-
system. For example, nitrogen is the major gas in the
­atmosphere; it is absorbed in the form of nitrates, which
are carried out by nitrifying bacteria present in the soil.
Soil exchanges gases with the environment. Here, the
soil breaks down the organic wastes and recycles the
nutrients back to the plants.
We can look at the following points:
1. Soil ecosystem is disturbed by deforestation.
2. The use of heavy machinery results in soil compaction
or pressing, which reduces the porosity of soil and
also its water-holding capacity.
3. Sewage water is used to irrigate the fields, or s­ ewage
sledge is used as a fertilizer, which increases heavy
metal content in the soil.
4. With intensification of agriculture as a result of Green
Revolution, the same type of crop is raised again and
again, which deprives the soil of a particular type of
nutrient. To prevent this, crop rotation should be fol-
lowed as a regular process.
  High-yielding varieties of food grains demand use
of more water and fertilizers.
5. Use of water with high salt content to raise crops may
result in high salinity of soil. Salt makes the layer at
the top impermeable, which does not allow water to
seep into the soil and thus, it results in the problem of
waterlogging.
6. Excessive use of pesticides and fertilizers to increase
land productivity also degrades the quality of soil and
ultimately these fertilizers and pesticides enter our
ecological system.
7. The overexploitation of groundwater results in the fall
of the water table and ultimately in desertification.
Alluvial Soil
• Formed as a result of flooding of plain areas, especially
in lower courses of rivers
• Basically sedimentary rocks, and are very fertile
• Usually lack humus and nitrogen, but rich in potassium
• Suitable to grow paddy, sugarcane and so on
Example: Indo-Gangetic Plains.
M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 23
9.23
Red Soil
• Rich in iron and hence, it is red in colour
• formed as a result of breakdown of igneous and meta-
morphic rocks
• Found in areas of India with low rainfall, such as in
Madhya Pradesh, South Karnataka, Maharashtra and
Rajasthan
• Suitable for crops such as red gram, groundnut and cas-
tor seed
Laterite Soil
• Formed from a mixture of clay and red soil and also
due to leaching process
• Rich in minerals, such as aluminium and iron
• Found in hot and wet tropical areas
• Has very low fertility and becomes hard when
exposed to air, so it is used as a building material
• suitable for crops such as coffee, coconut and
cashew
Regur Soil
• It is also known as black soil or cotton soil and found
in the Deccan trap.
• It is rich in nutrients, such as calcium, potassium and
magnesium, but has poor nitrogen content.
• It is appropriate for growing crops, such as cotton,
tobacco, oil seeds and maize. Other varieties of soil
are desert soil (coarse or sandy texture) and moun-
tain soil, formed from deposition of organic matter
from woodlands and forests.
Noise Pollution
Noise pollution may be defined as environmental noise
that causes physiological or psychological damage if the
volume is high or exposure is prolonged. Noise is defined
as unwanted sound, where it is an irritant and a source of
stress. The hair cells in the ear are damaged to an extent
that cannot be repaired or replaced. The intensity or
loudness of sound is felt in the form of pressure waves and
affects our eardrums. Just like any other form of pollution,
noise pollution too has serious impact on the working of
our vital organs. The noise pollution can impact the body
in terms of elevated blood pressure, reduced cognitive
(thinking) working and chronic stress.
Sound is measured in decibel (dB), named after
Graham Bell, who also invented the telephone.
1. Noise is measured not on a linear scale but a logarith-
mic scale.
2. The threshold of hearing is assigned a sound level of
0 decibel, that corresponds to an intensity of 1. 10–12
Watts/m2.
3. A sound that is 10 times more intense is assigned a
sound level of 10 dB.
4. A change from 40 to 80 dB represents a 10,000-fold
increase in loudness.
5. A modified scale decibel-A takes into account the
pitch as well. Noise pollution is measured in decibels
in 1 pico watt per m2.
23/12/22 8:01 PM
 9.24 Chapter 9

Sound power is measured in watts (joules per second). Noise affects the heart rate, peripheral circulation and
As per Environment Protection Rules, 1999, the permit- breathing patterns. Persistent noisy environment can
ted noise level is 125 dB. cause irritability, headache and sleeplessness by decreas-
ing productivity.
Permissible Limitations of Noise in India
The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) has laid down Radioactive Pollution
the permissible noise levels in India for different areas. Radiation is defined as the transmission of energy in the
Noise pollution rules have defined the acceptable level of form of waves through space or a material medium. It is
noise in different zones for both daytime and night time. of two kinds, namely, ionizing and non-ionizing. Ionizing
1. In industrial areas, the permissible limit is 75 dB for radiation or high-energy radiation such as X-rays or
daytime and 70 dB at night. gamma rays can alter DNA and can be harmful.
2. In commercial areas, it is 65 dB and 55 dB, while in Non-ionizing radiation is low-energy radiation as emit-
residential areas it is 55 dB and 45 dB during daytime ted by mobile phones or radio towers and tends to gener-
and night, respectively. ate heat.
3. Additionally, state governments have declared ‘silent Radiation can be natural or can arise from human
zones’ which includes areas that lie within 100 meters activities. Most radiation exposure is from natural
of the premises of schools, colleges, hospitals and sources, such as rocks, earth’s crust and cosmic, among
courts. The permissible noise limit in this zone is 50 other sources. Radon is the most prominent example of
dB during the day and 40 dB during the night. natural radiation. Human activities typically account for
up to 20% of radiation exposure on an average.
Effects of Noise Pollution on Human Health
Radiation particularly associated with nuclear medi-
WHO has included noise as one of the most hazardous cine and the use of nuclear energy, along with X-rays, is
factors that affect living conditions in crowded cities. ‘ionizing’ radiation, which means that the radiation has
sufficient energy to interact with matter, especially the
Hearing Loss
human body, and produce ions.
The intensity, frequency and duration of noise have a
proportionate impact on our body. The threshold of Effects of Radioactive Pollution
human hearing is 0 dB. Persistent exposure to intensity
Some of the UV radiations from the sun are considered as
of noise in the range of 71–85 dB or even below can cause
ionizing radiation and provide a starting point while consid-
­permanent loss of hearing. When noise level reaches
ering its effects. UV from sunlight is important in producing
around 130 dB, it can even cause physical pain.
vitamin D in humans, but too much exposure causes sun-
Masking burn and, potentially, skin cancer. The skin tissue gets dam-
aged and the damage to DNA (through mutation) could not
It is the inability to hear important environmental cues
be repaired properly and hence, over time, cancer develops
and animal signals.
and could be fatal. The depletion of ozone layer may increase
our exposure to UV rays and thus, it causes skin cancer.
Table 9.4 Permissible Sound Levels
Genetic abnormalities occur in children of parents who
Area Day (dB) Night (dB) had significant exposure to radiation.
Industrial 75 65
Stopover
Commercial 65 55
Which of the statement/s about peroxyacyl nitrates

Residential 50 45 (PAN) is/are true?
(a) They are secondary pollutants
Silence zones 50 40 (b) They are produced when hydrocarbon radical
reacts with nitrogen oxide
Table 9.5 Typical Average Decibel Levels (c) They cause respiratory diseases in human beings
(d) All of the above
Source dBA The correct option is (d).
Threshold of hearing 0
Quiet whisper 30
Normal conversation 60 Environmental Waste
Loud singing 75 The Directive Principles of State Policy (Article 47) in
the Indian Constitution asks for the protection of envi-
Automobile 80 ronment by the state. The Ministry of Environment and
Forests (MoEF) works for the implementation of India’s
Jet plane 130
Hazardous Wastes Rules.

M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 24 23/12/22 8:01 PM

 People, Development and Environment
According to the Environment Protection Act, 1990,
waste is defined as ‘any substance which constitutes a
scrap material, or an effluent or other unwanted surplus
substance arising from application of any process’.
With rapid urbanization, industrialization and an
explosion in population in India, waste management will
be a key challenge for state governments and local munic-
ipal bodies in the twenty-first century.
The waste is usually of the following types:
1. Biodegradable Waste: It is degraded through micro-
bial activity. The main examples are food residue and
human excreta.
2. Non-biodegradable Waste: It does not degrade. The
main examples are petroleum, plastic and glasses.
3. Biomedical: Usually, the leftovers from medicine,
such as needle, syringe and body parts, are counted
as biomedical wastes.
4. e-Waste: Computer parts, batteries and CFL bulbs are
some of the main examples.
Sources of Waste
1. Domestic Waste: Polythene, bottles, food, cotton, etc.
2. Industrial Waste: It originates from industrial activi-
ties and is divided into the following:
(a) Food Processing: Organic wastes, pathogens
(b) Paper Industry: Chlorine, sulphur dioxide,
methyl mercaptan
(c) Textile Industry: From boiling and processing of
fibres
(d) Petroleum: Inorganic sulphur, hydrocarbons,
organic acids, etc.
(e) Chemical: Phosphorus, fluorine, silica, etc.
(f) Metal: Copper, lead, chromium, cadmium
(g) Cement: Particulate matter, dust
(h) Nuclear Reactor: Radioactive wastes such as
plutonium
(i) Agricultural Waste: Fertilizer, crop residue, pes-
ticides, fumigants
(j) Radioactive Waste: X-ray machines, nuclear
plants, laboratories, etc.
(k) Municipal Waste: Waste produced by public
offices, parks, shops, etc.
Solid W aste
Solid waste is basically a solid or semi-solid domestic waste,
sanitary waste, commercial waste, institutional waste, etc.
‘Swachh Bharat Abhiyan’ (Clean India Mission) was
started on 2 October 2014 to deal with issues related
to waste management, cleanliness and sanitation on a
national level.
Only 68% of the garbage generated in the country is col-
lected, of which 28% is treated by municipal authorities.
Untapped waste can generate more than 30,000 of
TPD of combustible waste. The amount of waste that is
generated, if collected and treated well, can be effectively
used to generate energy.
The World Health Organization says that 22 types of
diseases can be prevented or controlled by improving
M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 25
9.25
solid waste management in India. Hence, the casual atti-
tude towards waste management should change.
Now, we can look at various options to deal with waste
management.
Solid Waste Management
After the collection of municipal waste from households,
there are three ways of disposal by municipal authorities:
1. Composting Units: It is the cycle of sustainable
nutrient reuse by turning waste into valuable organic
input. It helps to improve soil vitality, root growth and
soil moisture retention. The main objective is to col-
lect only organic waste.
2. Biomethanation produces biogas.
3. Heat energy is recovered in the form of dry fuels from
combustible fractions.
The composting units can further be categorized into
the following:
1. Aerobic Composting: The bacterial conversion of
organics present in solids under the presence of air
under hot and moist conditions is called composting,
where the final product is called compost (humus)
that is used as fertilizer, and is non-odorous and free
of pathogens. The waste volume can be reduced to
50–85%. The composting methods may use either
manual or mechanical means.
2. Vermicomposting: It is basically the joint action of
earthworms and aerobic microorganisms. The worm
cast is a fine, odourless and granular product. This
product can be used as a biofertilizer in agriculture.
3. Anaerobic Digestion: If the organic waste is buried
in pits under partially anaerobic conditions, then it
will be acted upon by anaerobic microorganisms. The
methane and carbon dioxide are released and the
leftover organic residue is good manure. It is slower
than aerobic composting and it occurs naturally in
landfills. It may lead to energy recovery through bio-
gas generation that has 55–60% methane and can be
used directly as a fuel for power generation.
This is not that attractive in India due to high moisture and
organic content and low calorific value of the wastes. The
Lucknow biomethanation plant in 1990 failed because it
was designed to handle only wet segregated waste but
had to cope with mixed waste.
There is a need to provide appropriate incentives and
regulatory framework needs to be provided.
There are other schemes as well to deal with solid
wastes and they are discussed as follows:
1. Incineration: Incineration process can reduce the orig-
inal volume of combustible solid waste by 80–90%.
(a) Incineration involves the combustion of organic
substances contained in waste materials.
(b) Incineration can be described as ‘thermal treat-
ment’.
(c) Incineration of waste materials converts the waste
into ash, flue gas and heat.
23/12/22 8:01 PM
 9.26 Chapter 9

2. Pyrolysis: Here, solid is converted into liquid state The Kasturirangan Report by erstwhile Planning
and liquid is converted into gas. These products Commission highlights the need for an integrated
of treatment can then be used for production of approach that means 5 R’s:
energy.
1. Reduce
3. Landfill: It is burying off the waste in vacant loca-
2. Reuse
tions around the cities that should be covered with
3. Recover
soil to prevent contamination. Suitable trees should
4. Recycle
be planted to hold the soil (of shallow roots). Landfill
5. Remanufacture
may result in the release of poisonous gases, secretion
of toxic liquid and destruction of vegetation. It emphasizes setting up of two approaches for waste
4. Methanogenesisor: It is biomethanation, that is, management:
the formation of methane by microbes known as
methanogens. The main objective is to produce an 1. Centralized: For incineration, gasification, pyrolysis
improved solid fuel or pellets from solid waste. 2. Decentralized: For biomethanation, vermicomposting
5. Recycling is done for plastic, paper, glass, rubber, fer-
rous and non-ferrous metals.
6. Rag Picking: It is mostly done in formal sector. It is Concept Box
manual process and cannot be scaled up so easily. Effects of Plastic Waste
7. Leachate: A major problem arising from landfills
• The plastics, right from their manufacture to their
is the discharge of leachate that moves into the sur-
disposal, are a major problem to the environment.
rounding soil, groundwater or surface water and
• They can lead to reproductive problems.
could lead to severe pollution problems.
• The land becomes ugly and unhygienic.
8. Sensitization of citizens as well as government
• Plastics can choke drains.
authorities, community participation and involvement
• They deteriorate soil fertility. They remain in the
of NGOs. Littering should be prohibited.
soil for years. They disturb the soil microbe activity.
9. Bioremediation: It is the use of living organisms,
• Dioxin (a persistent organic pollutant) is a highly
primarily microorganisms, to degrade environmen-
carcinogenic and toxic by-product of the manufac-
tal contaminants into less toxic forms. For example,
turing process. This chemical is believed to be passed
Pseudomonas bacterium can decompose synthetic
on through breast milk to the nursing infant. PVC
pesticides. Here, the pollutants can be treated on
releases dioxin and also furan into the atmosphere.
site and thus, exposure risks are reduced for per-
• Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic
sonnel.
Pollutants (2004) is an international environmen-
tal treaty.
Segregation and Community Participation are the key
factors. Plastic bags have been banned in a number of
big cities. Liquid WaSte
Waste management can be done in two ways: The liquid wastes are wastewater, fats, oils or grease, used
oil, liquids, solids, gases or sludges and hazardous house-
1. Waste reduction
hold liquids that are hazardous or potentially harmful to
2. Recycling
human health or the environment.
The Government of India had notified the Municipal The composition of liquid waste depends on its source.
Solid Waste (Management and Handling) Rules in 2000, The three main sources are following:
thereby making it mandatory for all urban local bodies
1. Residential: Domestic sewage is called black water
in the country to engage in collection, segregation, sec-
that contains excreta and grey matter.
ondary storage in covered bins, transportation in covered
2. Commercial: Fats and oil from restaurants and cafes
vehicles, processing through composting or waste-to-
may be removed using a grease trap.
energy technologies and disposal of rejects in engineered/
3. Industrial Areas: The composition of industrial
sanitary landfills.
wastewater depends on the type of industry, the raw
Some of the major issues concerning solid waste man-
materials used and the processes undertaken. The
agement are as follows:
wastewaters from facilities that make food products
1. Absence of Segregation of waste at source will not be harmful to humans, but those from other
2. Lack of Financing industries may contain a variety of chemical com-
3. Lack of Technical Expertise and appropriate institu- pounds, some of which may be hazardous (and there-
tional arrangement fore potentially harmful). Industrial wastewaters
4. Lack of Willingness which contain hazardous substances must be treated,
and the substances removed before the wastewater is
The indifference of citizens, lack of community partici- discharged to the environment.
pation and sewage management plan are some impor-
tant issues. Storm water is also a source of liquid waste.

M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 26 23/12/22 8:01 PM

 People, Development and Environment
Characteristics of Liquid Wastes
Liquid wastes can be described according to their physi-
cal, chemical and biological characteristics.
Physical Characteristics of Liquid Wastes
1. Solids: There may be settleable solids (at bottom of con-
tainer) or suspended solids (carried along in flow of liq-
uids). They can be measured by filtering out.
2. Temperature: Wastewaters are generally warmer
than the ambient temperature.
3. Odour: Wastewaters can have an odour, usually due
to generation of gases as a result of biodegradation in
the wastewater. Biodegradation is the breaking down
(decomposition) of organic substances by bacteria
and other microorganisms.
Chemical Characteristics of Liquid W astes
Organic Matter
We have already discussed biochemical oxygen demand
(BOD). BOD tests may take up to 5 days. Chemical oxygen
demand (COD) test may take up only 2 hours. COD tends
to give higher results than BOD because the chemical pro-
cess can oxidize more material than the biological process.
Inorganic Material
Wastewater also contains inorganic chemicals. For exam-
ple, ammonia (NH3) is present in human and animal
Wastewater Treatment Methods
Physical Chemical
Precipitation Adsorption
Screening Mixing Flocculation Floatation
Figure 9.12 Wastewater Treatment Methods
M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 27
9.27
excreta. Ammonia is broken down in the environment
by natural processes and on release into a river, it is con-
verted by the action of bacteria to nitrate (NO3), which is
less harmful. Other examples of inorganic chemicals in
­wastewaters are chloride (from salt), phosphates (from
chemical fertilizers and human wastes) and metal com-
pounds (from mining operations).
Biological Characteristics of Liquid Wastes
Liquid wastes contain many different types of bacte-
ria and other microorganisms originating from human
wastes and other sources. Many of these bacteria are
beneficial and are responsible for the biodegradation
of organic components of the wastes; others may be
pathogenic.
In the context of quantity of organic matter in a liq-
uid waste, we can refer to Biological Oxygen Demand
(BOD) that is an important measure of its polluting
potential.
We can use the following methods to deal with the liq-
uid wastes.
Methods to Deal with Liquid W aste
Treatment of Sewage
The sewage can be treated by a modern technique involv-
ing three steps—primary treatment, secondary treatment
and tertiary treatment (Fig. 9.12).
Biological
Aerobic Anaerobic
Disinfection
Filtration Sedimentation Gas Transfer
23/12/22 8:01 PM
 9.28
Primary treatment: The main objective is to separate the
solids. The primary treatment involves physical removal
of particles from the sewage through filtration and sedi-
mentation. The neutralized sewage may still contains
many pathogens and organic matter. This treatment can
be termed as ‘mechanical treatment’.
Secondary Treatment: These neutralized effluents are
passed through a reactor called sludge. In this reactor,
the anaerobic bacteria degrade the biodegradable mate-
rial into neutralized effluents. In this process, the foul
odour and methane are released and the sewage is con-
verted into clean water. This water is sent to aeration
tanks where air and bacteria are added to it. This process
is called biological or secondary treatment. Thus, we can
see that it is a biological treatment. Primary treatment is
physical treatment.
Tertiary Treatment: This treatment is a disinfecting pro-
cess where final traces of disinfecting bacteria and other
dissolved organic solids are removed. Then, the chlorina-
tion, evaporation and exchange absorption methods are
employed to obtain clean water.
Water Treatment Methods–Another Category
In this categorization, we use physical, chemical and
biological methods, we have focused on their definitions
only.
Physical Methods
1. Screening: This is a wastewater pre-treatment. It
intends to prevent coarse solids, such as plastics, rags
and other trash, from entering a sewage system or
treatment plant.
2. Coagulation/Mixing: Following screening, the
coagulant must be added to the raw water and perfectly
distributed into the liquid, this is known as coagulation.
Such uniformity of chemical treatment is reached
through rapid agitation or mixing. Coagulation results
from adding salts or iron or aluminum to the water.
3. Flocculation: Flocculation allows for the destabilized
particles to agglomerate into larger particles that can
be removed by gravity through sedimentation or they
may float to the surface (flotation). A floc is created,
that’s why this step gets the name of flocculation. This
can then be more easily removed from the liquid.
4. Flotation: This is a separation technique that employs
the use of gas bubbles as a transport medium.
Suspended particulate matter (SPM) that is hydro-
phobic (such as oil or fats that lack affinity for water)
attaches to the bubbles. They move away from gravity,
in a direction towards the aqueous solution surface.
5. Filtration: Flirtation is the process in which solid
particles in a liquid are removed by the use of a filter
medium (having different pore sizes) that allows the
fluid to pass through while retaining the solid particles.
6. Sedimentation: This is a physical water treatment
process using gravity to remove suspended solids
from water.
M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 28
Chapter 9
7. Gas Transfer: This is required in water treatment
plants to dissolve chlorine gas or ozone. This can also
be used to remove unwanted volatile chemicals such
as carbon tetrachloride, chloroform, bromoform etc.
from water.
Chemical Methods
1. Precipitation: This is considered to be the most
effective method for the removal of heavy metals
from wastewater. It is widely employed in industries
since it is relatively inexpensive and easy to oper-
ate. The traditional chemical precipitation processes
include the use of hydroxide precipitation and sulfide
precipitation.
2. Adsorption: A solid is used in this process to remove
a soluble substance from the water. Adsorption is
applied for the removal of dissolved impurities. The
most common process is application of activated car-
bon for removal of organic substances.
3. Disinfection: Once the water is filtered, water treat-
ment plants may add one or more chemical disin-
fectants (such as chlorine, chloramine, or chlorine
dioxide) to kill any remaining parasites, bacteria, or
viruses.
Biological Treatment
1. Aerobic treatment: This treatment of wastewater
means use of oxygen that breaks down organic com-
pounds. Oxygen is continuously mixed into the waste-
water or sewage by a mechanical aeration device,
such as an air blower or compressor.
2. Anaerobic treatment: This is a proven and energy-
efficient method for treating industrial wastewater.
The bacteria (biomass) are used in sewage treatment.
They reduce the volume of sludge. The methane gas is
produced in the process.
Polychlorinated Biphenyls (PCBs)
PCBs are heavy, syrupy hydrocarbons. They are non con-
ductors of electricity, water-insoluble, and are extremely
stable in high temperature conditions. They are used to
manufacture many electrical components.
PCBs were banned in 1979, after being linked with can-
cer and developmental problems in humans. They have
an affinity for fat, so they can stay longer to accumulate
in living organisms. They become more dangerous while
moving up the food chain.
They occur in warehouses, landfills, and even rivers,
uncontrolled or abandoned hazardous wastes still
remained. A Superfund Program was created by the
Environmental Protection Agency to control them.
Biomedical W aste Management (BMW)
It is the waste produced during diagnosis, treatment or
immunization of human or animal research activities,
pertaining thereto or the production or testing of biologi-
cal or health camps.
The three basic principles of such good practice are
3Rs, reduce, recycle and reuse. It aims at avoiding the
23/12/22 8:01 PM
 People, Development and Environment
generation of waste or recovering as much waste as pos-
sible rather than disposing. Hence, the waste should be
tackled at the source rather than ‘end-of-pipe approach’.
Usually 10–25% of BMW is hazardous, and the remain-
ing 75–95% is non-hazardous.
WHO came with a ‘The Blue Book’ in 1999 that sug-
gested newer methods for safe disposal of BMW. The book
was revised in 2014.
There are three international agreements and conven-
tions which are particularly pertinent in biomedical waste
management:
1. Basel Convention on Hazardous Waste: The most
inclusive global environmental treaty on hazardous
and other wastes
2. Stockholm Convention (2006): This convention is
on persistent organic pollutants (POPs). These chem-
icals are formed by medical waste incinerators and
other combustion processes.
3. Minamata Convention on Mercury (2014): ­Phasing
out of certain medical equipment in healthcare ser-
vices, including mercury-containing medical items,
such as thermometers and blood pressure devices
Biomedical Waste (Management & Handling) Rules,
1998, notified under the Environment (Protection) Act,
1986, require segregation according to colour code and
treatment and disposal.
Hazardous Waste
It means any waste which by reason of any of its physi-
cal, chemical, reactive, toxic, flammable, explosive or cor-
rosive characteristics causes danger or is likely to cause
danger to health or environment, whether alone or when
in contact with other wastes or substances.
Hazardous substances mostly contain the following
contaminants:
1. Components of Electronic Waste: Cadmium and
lead and PVC sheathing on cables
2. Household Chemicals: Bleach, oven cleaners, tur-
pentine and paints
3. Products Incorporating Nanoparticles: Zinc and
titanium oxide in sunscreen, cosmetics, skin gel, etc.
4. Commercial and Industrial Waste Stream:
Chemicals and heavy metal
5. Construction and Demolition Waste Stream: Asbestos
6. Outside those waste streams, biosolids, particularly
sewage sludge
There is comprehensive legal and regulatory framework in
place in India to deal with such issues, which include a lack
of financial resources, a shortage of staff, a lack of stand-
ardized protocols and a lack of legal authority.
Electronic Waste
The electronic goods are classified under three major
heads
1. White goods—household appliances
2. Brown goods—TVs, camcorders
M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 29
9.29
3. Grey goods—Computers, printers, fax machines,
scanners etc.
The e-Waste (Management) Amendment rules were
enacted in 2018.
The composition of electronic waste is well diversified.
It falls under ‘hazardous’ and ‘non-hazardous’ catego-
ries. Producers and consumers of electronic goods have
a responsibility under the E-waste (Management and
Handling) Rules, 2011, to ensure proper disposal. Now
the E-waste (Management) Rules, 2016, provide several
options to manufacturers, such as collection of a refund-
able deposit and paying for the return of goods to meet
the requirements of law.
Global E-Waste Monitor was set up in 2017 by UN
University. 82% of our e-waste comes through personal
devices. Only 1.5% of e-waste generated in India gets
recycled.
The vast majority of illegal e-waste ends up in landfills,
incinerators and ill-equipped recycling facilities, which
have been described as ‘toxic time bombs’.
There is a short life span of electronic products. The
availability of choices, affordability of products, chang-
ing pace of life, rapid urbanization and increased pur-
chasing capacity of the middle class have all contributed
to the growth of the electrical and consumer durable
industry. The most potent risks of electronic wastes in
India are the following:
1. Environmental: Toxic metals, such as lead, cadmium,
mercury, arsenic, chromium, PCBs and CFC, can cause
soil, pollution and air pollution in the form of fumes
due to burning (dioxins and furans).
2. Health Concerns: For general population as well as
well as for those who handle it.
3. Electronic waste often ends up in landfills in India.
There are potential assets that must be recovered, for
example, aluminium, copper, platinum, gold, silver and
palladium.
Electronic waste rules were notified by the Ministry
of Environment Friendliness in 2011 for proper manage-
ment and handling. The concept of Extended Producers
Responsibility (EPR) has been enshrined in these rules.
Electronic waste recycling can be undertaken only in
facilities authorized and registered with State Pollution
Control Boards/Pollution Control Committee (PCC). The
wastes generated are required to be sold to a registered or
authorized recycler or re-processor having environmen-
tally sound facilities.
However, there are some limitations of electronic waste
rules. There are no take-back targets for manufacturers
and hence, there is no clear responsibility. There are no
guidelines to set up an electronic waste collection system.
The current law does not provide for any plan to rehabili-
tate those involved in informal recycling.
Among the eight largest e-waste-generating states,
Maharashtra ranks first followed by Tamil Nadu (second),
Andhra Pradesh (third), Uttar Pradesh (fourth), Delhi
(fifth), Gujarat (sixth), Karnataka (seventh) and West
Bengal (eighth).
23/12/22 8:01 PM
 9.30 Chapter 9

Table 9.6 Electronic Waste Elements

Materials Recycling (%) Location Effects
Lead 5 Acid battery, CRT Kidney failure, central and peripheral
nervous systems, damage to the
reproductive systems;
Cadmium 0 Battery, CRT, housing Long-term cumulative poison, Bone
disease;
Mercury 0 Batteries, switches, Chronic damage to brain, liver
housing damage, damage to the central and
peripheral nervous systems as well as
the foetus;
Chromium VI 0 Decorative hardener, DNA damage, lung cancer;
corrosion protection
agents
Plastic 20 Computer mouldings, Generates dioxins and furans.
cablings
Source: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/

Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016 Climate Change and Global

To increase the thickness of plastic carry bags from 40
to 50 micron and stipulation of 50 micron thickness for
plastic sheets is likely to increase the cost by about 20
%. Hence, the tendency to provide free carry bags will
come down and collection by the waste-pickers also
increase to some extent. The options on reuse of plastic
in various applications namely, road construction,
waste to oil, waste to energy will enhance the recycling
of plastic.
Ban on Single Use of Plastic, 2022: India has banned
manufacture, import, stocking, distribution, sale and
use of identified single use plastic items, which have low
utility and high littering potential, all across the country
from July 1, 2022.
The carry bags made of virgin or recycled plastic, shall
not be less than 75 microns in thickness till 31st December
2022 and after that 120 micron.
Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR): This is the
responsibility of a producer for the environmentally sound
management of the product until the end of its life.
Stopover
Match the following in the context of waste
management:
(a) Incineration: Uncontrolled combustion process
(b) Autoclaving: Low-heat thermal process
(c) Microwaving: Radiation frequency
(d) Shredding: Cutting into smaller blocks and
disinfection
The correct option is (a).
Warming
Climate change is the most important issue of the twenty-
first century with potential direct adverse impact on global
economy and civilization (Fig. 9.13). It is a long-term
change in the average weather patterns. It may occur over a
period of time, which may range from a decade to millions
of years. Climate change may be limited to a specific region
or may occur across the whole world.
Palaeoclimatology is the study of climatic changes
taken on a scale of the entire history of the earth. It makes
use of data from ice sheets, tree rings, sediments, corals,
shells and rocks.
Global warming is the progressive increase in the aver-
age temperature of the earth’s near-surface air and oceans
during the last few decades and its likely continuation in
future as well. This is mainly due to the emission of heat-
retaining GHGs into the atmosphere, which results from
human activities, such as burning of fossil fuel and defor-
estation. One of its main effects is a shift in the global
weather patterns, referred to as climate change. Here, it is
important to mention that global warming is closely asso-
ciated with climate change and both terms may be used
interchangeably.
Causes of Climate Change
They can be divided into two types of factors, natural and
anthropogenic.
Natural Causes
The main natural factors are as follows:
1. Continental Drift: Almost all continents on the globe
appear to fit with each other like the parts of a jigsaw

M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 30 23/12/22 8:01 PM

 People, Development and Environment 9.31

Socio-economic Systems Environmental Systems

• Population growth • Loss of Habitat and Biodiversity
EFFECTS
• Globalization • Natural resource degradation
• Economic conditions • Land-use changes
• Chemical-based industry GHG • Loss of environmental quality
• Commercial exploitation emission • Loss of ecosystem services
• Energy intensiveness • Loss of assimilative capacity
Natural charge Climate
Increased in
change
hazards and
Natural hazards extreme events
Disaster impacts
Increased demand for DISASTER
(damages and
relief and recovery losses)

Increased in
vulnerability of land
and community

Figure 9.13 Causes of Climate Change

puzzle. Continents were formed when parts of a large
landmass called Pangaea began drifting apart gradu-
ally around 200 million years ago. There are many
similarities between plant and animal fossils and
rocks on the two continents.
2. Volcanoes: Large volumes of SO2, water vapour, dust
and ash are thrown out into the atmosphere during
volcanic eruption. SO2 can reach the upper levels of
atmosphere (called stratosphere) where it combines
with water to form tiny droplets of sulphuric acid.
These small droplets and dust particles reflect sunlight
and partially block the incoming rays of the sun, lead-
ing to cooling in the lower levels of atmosphere (tro-
posphere). Winds in the stratosphere carry the aero-
sols rapidly around the globe in either an easterly or
a westerly direction. This gives some idea of cooling,
which is brought about for a few years after a major
volcanic eruption.
3. Earth’s Tilt: The earth makes one revolution around
the sun in 365 days. It is tilted at an angle of 23.5°
to the perpendicular plane of its orbit, which causes
seasonal variations. Furthermore, the earth’s orbit is
somewhat elliptical, which means that the distance
between the earth and the sun varies during the
course of a year.
4. Ocean Currents: Oceans cover about 71% of the earth
and absorb about twice as much of the sun’s radia-
tion as the atmosphere. Ocean currents transfer vast
amounts of heat across the planet, which causes tem-
perature difference and climatic changes.
Anthropogenic Causes (Human Causes)
Beyond a point, human activities and consumption
styles are considered as human interference in nature.
Urbanization and industrialization have been powered by
fossil fuels and, thus, contribute to global warming and
climate change. All our gadgets run on electricity, which
is generated mainly from thermal power plants that fur-
ther run on fossil fuels (coal).
Effects of Climate Change and G lobal
W arming
Cyclonic Storms
Both the intensity and the frequency of tropical storms
have increased in the past decade. They are caused by
evaporation of water from oceans. Coriolis effect causes
the storms to spin and a hurricane is declared when this
spinning mass of storms attains a wind speed greater than
119 km/h.
An ice storm is a particular weather event in which pre-
cipitation occurs as ice due to atmospheric conditions.
Loss of Biodiversity
The most dramatic impact is the loss of habitat for m
­ illions
of species.
1. Seventy per cent of earth’s land animals and plants live
in forests, and many cannot survive the loss of their
natural habitat. Deforestation results in the decline of
biodiversity and in the extinction of many species.
2. Forests support biodiversity, providing habitat for
wildlife. Moreover, forests foster medicinal conser-
vation. With forest biotopes being an irreplaceable
source of new drugs (such as taxol), deforestation can
destroy genetic variations (such as crop resistance)
irretrievably.
3. It was only during Earth Summit in 1992 that these
figures came out, which equates to 50,000 species
a year.

M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 31 23/12/22 8:01 PM

 9.32
Sea-level Rise and Small Islands
The role of oceans in global warming is very complex. They
serve as a sink for CO2, taking up much that would oth-
erwise remain in the atmosphere, but increased levels of
CO2 have led to the acidification of oceans. Furthermore,
as the ocean temperature rises, their ability to absorb
excess CO2 decreases. Global warming is projected to
have a number of effects on the oceans. The ongoing
effects include rising sea levels due to thermal expansion
and melting of ­glaciers and ice sheets, the warming of the
ocean surface leading to increased temperature stratifica-
tion. Other possible effects include large-scale changes in
oceanic circulation.
Bleaching of Coral Reefs
Coral reefs are a collection of biological communi-
ties forming one of the most diverse ecosystems of the
world (termed rain forests of the oceans). Corals are
important for a variety of reasons, and some of these
are as follows:
1. They provide habitat for a variety of organisms.
2. They prevent erosion of soil on beaches.
3. They function as a carbon sink (help in absorption of
CO2).
They are found in shallow coastal areas of tropical and
sub-tropical regions, where light can penetrate for syn-
thesis of food. They feed on small fish and live in colo-
nies, where each coral is called a polyp. They enjoy a
symbiotic relationship with algae. The increase in sea
temperature, salinity of water, increased UV radiation
and so on will result in decreased photosynthesis activ-
ity, and this in turn leads to loss of algae. Ultimately, the
reefs become dead and lose their colour. This is called
coral bleaching.
Melting of polar ice and migration of fish are other
effects of climate change on marine life.
Runaway Climate Changes and T ipping Point
Runaway climate change is what happens when global
warming becomes self-sustaining and beyond the con-
trol of human beings. This may upset the normal sys-
tem of checks and balances that keep the climate in
equilibrium.
A global warming spiral kicks in if the following pos-
sibilities occur:
1. The Environment Absorbs less CO2: About 50% of our
current emissions are absorbed by the ­environment, that
is, roughly half of that by the oceans and the other half by
the plants on land. The uptake of CO2 by the environment
may already be in decline.
2. Reflection of Sunlight Drops: As snow covers in the
form of glaciers are retreating (meaning that they
are shrinking in terms of geographical extent), dark
grounds and darker water are exposed, which absorb
less sunlight and this has caused further increase in
global warming.
M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 32
Chapter 9
3. Emission of CO2 and Methane: More CO2 and meth-
ane are emitted from nature. Soils, forests, peat, seas,
organic deposits in permafrost and methane clath-
rates all emit some amount of CO2 and methane. As
the environment warms, natural emissions increase.
Tipping point is a small amount of warming that may
set off unstoppable and irreversible changes. The best
example is the melting of ice caps. Once the temperature
goes up by certain degrees, all ice caps may melt (even
though complete melting of ice at the Arctic and Antarctic
may take thousands of years). The tipping point in many
scientists’ view is a 2°C rise in temperature. The European
Union has adopted that as the maximum limit that man-
kind can risk. Beyond that point, there is a possibility of
runaway climate change.
Key Developments in the Context of Climate
Change and G lobal Warming
1. 1824: Jean Baptiste Joseph Fourier was the first to
describe that without the presence of GHGs, the earth
would have been cooler by 33°C. When radiations
from the sun enter the earth’s atmosphere, they are
of short wavelength, and when emitted by the earth,
they are of longer wavelength. GHGs do not allow
these radiations to escape into the outer atmosphere
and hence, they are reflected back to the earth. This
causes the heating of the earth.
2. 1896: Svante Arrhenius claimed that fossil fuel com-
bustion may eventually result in enhanced global
warming. As much as 25% of CO2 emissions are nat-
urally absorbed by the oceans, and another 25% are
absorbed by the biosphere, such as trees, plants and
soil. It is evident that 50% of CO2 emissions are not
absorbed by nature and accumulate in the atmosphere.
3. 1950: The World Meteorological Organization
(WMO) was set up in Geneva to promote interna-
tional exchange of weather reports and other weather-
related services.
4. 1950s and 1960s: Aerosol pollution called smog
became a serious local problem in many cities, caus-
ing dimming and fall in temperature to such an extent
that many scientists talked about the return of the Ice
Age. The phenomenon of London Smog in 1954 is a
prominent example.
5. 1958: Keeling curve is a graph that has been show-
ing the variations in the concentration of atmospheric
CO2. It is based on continuous measurements taken at
the Mauna Loa Observatory in Hawaii.
6. Roger Randall Dougan Revelle suggested that the
earth’s oceans would absorb excess CO2 generated by
humanity at a much slower rate, thereby contributing
to the greenhouse effect and global warming. Revelle
factor is a measure of resistance to the absorption of
atmospheric CO2 by ocean surface layer due to differ-
ent factors.
7. 1972: UN Conference on Human Environment (also
called as Stockholm Conference) was held.
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 People, Development and Environment 9.33

Concept Box
Greenhouse Gases
‘Climate change is real. There is strong evidence that significant global warm-
ing is occurring’.
The greenhouse effect is a natural phenomenon. Without the greenhouse
effect, the earth would have been much colder at –18°C. With it, the aver-
age temperature of our earth is 14°C. Greenhouse gases act like a blanket for Sunlight
the earth. This blanket is found in the troposphere layer of the atmosphere.
Greenhouse gases are very picky about which kind of radiation they will
absorb. Some heat
The whole process begins when the shortwave solar radiations reach the escapes
earth and heat it up. The earth then radiates long-wave or infrared radiation into space
back into the space. This infrared radiation heats the atmosphere and some Greenhouse
of it is trapped by the greenhouse gases. These radiations come back to the gases trap
earth. Thus, our atmosphere warms up in the process (Fig. 9.14). some heat
As a result of anthropogenic activities, the amount of greenhouse gases
has only increased since the 1850s, and resulted in an increase in tempera-
Atmosphere
ture that is harmful to us.
The Global Warming Potential (GWP) was developed to allow compari-
sons of the global warming impacts of different gases. Specifically, it is a
Earth’s surface
measure of how much energy the emissions of 1 ton of a gas will absorb over
a given period of time, relative to the emissions of 1 ton of carbon dioxide
(CO2). The larger the GWP, the more a given gas warms the earth compared Figure 9.14 Green House Effect
to CO2 over that time period. The GWP tentatively depends on the mass of
a gas.

Global Warming
Gas Source Share of Global Emissions Potential
Carbon dioxide Fossil fuels, deforestation, Total—76.7%, with 56.6% 1
degradation of soils, land from fossil fuel use
clearing
Methane Agricultural activities, energy 14.3% 21
production, waste
Nitrous oxide Agricultural activities—fertilizer 7.9% 310
use, fossil fuel combustion
Hydrofluorocarbons Used as replacements for 1.1% 140–11,700
ozone-depleting substances
Perfluorocarbons 6500–9200
Sulphur hexafluoride Used in some industrial Very less 23,900
processes and in electric
equipment
Nitrogen trifluoride During production of electronic Very less 17,200
components, fluorinated
compounds, high- energy lasers

M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 33 23/12/22 8:01 PM

 9.34 Chapter 9

Table 9.7 CO2 Emissions by Nations

Country Percentage Share in CO2 Emissions per
Global Annual Emissions Capita (tons/person)
World 100 4.9
China 28.6 7.1
United States 15.1 16.4
European Union 10.9 7.4
India 5.7 1.6
Russia 5.1 12.4
Japan 3.8 10.4
Source: Press Information Bureau (PIB).

Fossil fuel
supply Waste
Buildings 5% 3%
8% Power supply
21%

Transport
13%

Industry
Agriculture 19%
14%

Forestry
17%
Sources of GHG Emissions

8. 1975: Wallace S. Broecker was the first to use the
term ‘global warming’.
9. 1979: The first World Climate Conference took place
in Geneva.
10. 1983: The UN’s World Commission on Environment
and Development was set up to discuss sustainable
development. It was later named the Brundtland
Commission.
11. 1988: The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate
Change (IPCC) was set by the WMO and UNEP to
assess the risk of human-induced climatic changes
and its impact, and to suggest alternatives solutions.
It comes with ‘Assessment Reports’ (ARs). The IPCC
shared the Nobel Peace Prize 2007 with the for-
mer US Vice President Al Gore who also wrote ‘An
Inconvenient Truth’ about climatic changes and global
warming.
12. 1992: The United Nations Framework Convention
on Climate Change (UNFCCC) was set up in 1992
during Rio Summit. It is an international environ-
mental treaty produced at the UN Conference on
Environment and Development (UNCED; also known
as the Earth Summit) held in Rio de Janeiro (Brazil)
in June 1992. Its objective is to stabilize GHG concen-
trations in the atmosphere at a level that would pre-
vent dangerous anthropogenic interference with cli-
mate system. The UNFCCC was opened for signature
in May 1992; it entered into force on 21 March 1994.
Agenda 21 is an action plan of the UN related to sus-
tainable development and was an outcome of the
Earth Summit. It is a comprehensive blueprint of the
actions that need to be taken globally, nationally and
locally by organizations of the UN, governments and
major groups in every area in which humans directly
affect the environment.

M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 34 23/12/22 8:01 PM

 People, Development and Environment
Note: Carbon Footprint is judged with energy emissions
from energy sector (68%), agriculture (19.6%), indus-
trial process (6%), Land Use Change (3.8%) and Forestry
(1.9%).
Global warming is now 400 parts per million (ppm) in
comparison to 280 ppm in pre industrial era. Forests are
major carbon sinks (almost 45%).
Stopover
1. Sea level arises primarily as a result of
(a) Heavy rainfall
(b) Melting of glaciers
(c) Submarine volcanism
(d) Seafloor spreading
The correct option is (a).
2. Which of the following gases has the highest global
warming potential?
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Methane
(c) Chlorofluorocarbon
(d) Sulphfur hexafluoride
The correct option is (d).
Our Natural Resources
In the beginning of chapter, we discussed about environ-
mental determinism and environmental possibilism. They
reflect how the energy pattern has shifted.
Rapid I ndustrialization, Urbanization and
I ncrease in Population
All our gadgets run on electricity, generated mainly from
thermal power plants, which further run on fossil fuels
(coal). Manufacturing industries are primarily located
in urban areas, which create jobs, and people move from
rural areas to the cities over the years. This process is con-
tinuing even today.
During the twentieth century, world population
increased by 4.5 times, from 1.5 to 7.6 billion, but urban
population grew 13 times from 225 million to 3.4 bil-
lion, or 47% of the total population. By 2030, the figures
are likely to increase to 4.9 billion or 60%. Urban areas
cover just 3–4% of the world’s land surface and accom-
modate half of the world’s population but consume
around 80% of the global energy supply and, thus, emit
the bulk of GHGs.
Transport vehicles also run mainly on petrol or d ­ iesel,
both of which are fossil fuels. Out of consumer cult, plas-
tics, timber and other natural resources are being used in
a big way.
Availability of T echnology
Increase in sophistication of technology enables quick
and efficient extraction of natural resources. For example,
rates of deforestation have increased greatly due to elec-
tric saws.
M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 35
9.35
Intensive A gricultural Practices
To meet the food requirements of large population, more
and more land has been brought under cultivation.
Culture of Consumerism
Excessive demand leads to a mad scramble for resources
and conflicts.
Non -equitable Distribution of Resources
The raw material for finished goods is available in
underdeveloped or developing nations. To earn foreign
exchange and taxes, the governments allow the exploita-
tion of resources, however, without a long-term approach
to replenish them or mitigate the after -effects.
Natural resources around us provide a variety of
sources of energy. During the Stone Age, it was wood.
During the Iron Age, we had coal. In the modern age, we
have petroleum and natural gas. In the near future, solar
and geothermal energy may dominate the scene.
Good sources of energy should have the following
qualities:
• Optimum heat production per unit of volume/mass
used
• Easy to transport
• Least polluting
• Cost-effective
Our Energy Resources
Energy is the capacity to do work. It is the basic require-
ment for a living being, machine and matter to move, func-
tion or perform any kind of work. The whole development
of civilization is based on the availability of energy. Energy
is present in different forms and it has been further modi-
fied from time to time to suit the requirements of mankind.
The common forms of energy are as follows:
1. Mechanical energy of a body is the energy it possesses
by virtue of its motion or its position. When a body
is in motion, it possesses kinetic energy. Potential
energy is the energy possessed by a body due to its
position. For example, energy stored in a compressed
spring is an example of potential energy.
2. Thermal energy is the energy a substance or system
has in relation to its temperature, that is, the energy
of moving or vibrating molecules.
3. Chemical energy is stored in the form of molecular
bonds.
4. Nuclear energy is the mass converted into energy.
5. There can be a few other forms of energy, such as radi-
ant energy or light energy.
Law of Conservation of Energy
The total amount of energy in the universe remains con-
stant. It changes from one form to another. For example,
when water is stored in a dam at a height, it possesses
potential energy. However, when water falls through the
turbine, it possesses kinetic energy.
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 9.36
Energy Scenario in India
Electricity Act was enacted in the year 2003. Its objective
is to introduce competition so as to protect consumer’s
interests and provide power for all.
The contribution of different sectors in installed
generation capacity as per June, 2022 data–Central Sector
(24.6%), State Sector (26%) and private sector (49.5%).
As per September 2022 report, the contribution of
different sources in energy production is divided into
three parts:
Fossil Fuels (basically thermal–total 57.8%):
Coal–50
Lignite–1.6
Gas–6.1
Diesel–0.1
Non-Fossil Fuels (42.2%)
Hydro–11.5
Wind–10.2
Solar–14.9
Bio Mass/Cogen–2.5
Waste to energy–0.1
Small Hydropower–1.2
Nuclear Energy–1.7%
Overall, India is the third-largest producer and
second-largest consumer of electricity worldwide, with
an installed power capacity of 401.01 GW as of April 30,
2022. 100% FDI allowed in the power sector has boosted
FDI inflow in this sector.
Primary Energy and Secondary Energy
Primary energy form is directly found in nature, such as
coal and sunlight. This energy can be renewable or non-
renewable. When primary energy form is converted into
some convenient form of energy, it is known as secondary
energy. For example, coal or sunlight is converted into
electrical energy, which can be consumed in homes or
industry.
N on -renewable Energy Sources
A non-renewable resource is a natural resource that can-
not be reproduced, grown, generated or used on a scale
which can sustain its consumption rate. However, once it
is depleted, there is no more available for future needs.
Resources that are consumed much faster than nature can
create them are also considered as non-renewable. They
basically consist of fossil fuels.
Fossil Fuels
Fossil fuels consist of oil and coal. They are preferred
for the following main reasons:
1. They have a high calorific value.
2. The technology is available to exploit these resources.
The market is well developed for trading of the fossil
fuels. Our conventional infrastructure and transport sys-
tems, which are fitted with combustion engines, remain
prominent throughout the globe.
M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 36
Chapter 9
The main disadvantages of using fossil fuels are in
terms of harm to the environment:
1. Global Warming: The SO2 and CO2 produced during
the burning of fossil fuels contribute towards global
warming and acid rains.
2. Health Hazards: Fly ash and other particulate matter
cause health hazards, such as asthma and tuberculosis.
3. Oil Spills: They are a threat to marine life and our
ecosystem.
Eventually, in the future, fossil-based resources will be
expensive to harvest, and humanity will need to shift its
reliance to other sources of energy.
As fossil fuels are non-renewable and thus finite, they
will eventually run out of stock, or they will become too
expensive or too environmentally damaging to retrieve. In
contrast, many types of renewable energy resources, such
as wind and solar energy, are constantly replenished and
will never run out. At present, the main energy sources
used by humans are non-renewable fossil fuels as they
meet 80% of our energy needs.
Petroleum Oil
Oil occurs in rock formations in the earth, which before
getting processed in refineries is called crude oil, a mixture
of hydrocarbons. It is processed by fractional distillation
and transported to points of consumption.
The petroleum exploitation impact environmental in
a bad manner. The extraction, refining and burning of
petroleum fuels all release large quantities of greenhouse
gases, so petroleum is one of the major contributors to
climate change.
Ethanol
Ethanol (ethyl alcohol) is one of a group of chemical
compounds (alcohols). It contains a hydroxyl group
(OH) bonded to a carbon atom. Ethanol is produced
through the fermentation of agricultural products such
as sugarcane, corn, and manioc, among others. Most
ethanol is produced from sugarcane, mainly in Brazil. In
USA, ethanol is made from corn.
Ethanol is used as a high-octane fuel in vehicles. Currently
10% of ethanol is allowed in petrol, the government may
enhance it to 20%, depending upon availability conditions
of ethanol. Govt has set the target of year 2025 to do the
same. This may require some changes in the engine also.
Coal
Coal is a black or brown carbonaceous sedimentary rock
formed by combustion of partially decomposed plant material.
It takes millions of years to form from decayed plants. The pro-
cess of formation of coal is termed coalification.
Coal provides 30.3% of global primary energy needs and
generates 42% of the world’s electricity. In India, 70–80%
of electricity is produced by burning coal. The amount of
energy in coal is expressed in British Thermal Units per
pound (a BTU is the amount of heat required to raise the
temperature of 1 lb of water by 1°F). Higher the carbon
content in coal, higher is its calorific value and its quality.
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 People, Development and Environment
The grading of coal is done on the basis of the carbon
contents:
1. Peat: Peat is not a typical variety of coal. The ­carbon
content is 50–60%. Under conditions of temperature
and pressure, it converts into lignite, bituminous
and subsequently anthracite. The carbon contents
increase in subsequent stages.
2. Lignite or Brown Coal: It contains 70% carbon and
is found in geologically young mines and is the lowest
rank of coal with a high moisture content.
3. Bituminous Coal: It is also termed soft coal and it
contains around 80% carbon.
4. Anthracite coal: The burning of anthracite coal gives
very little smoke.
When bituminous coal is heated at extremely high
temperature, the residual matter is called coke. Different
types of coal have different uses. Steam coal, also known
as thermal coal, is mainly used in power generation.
Coking coal, known as metallurgical coal, is mainly used
in steel production. It is composed primarily of carbon
and hydrocarbons. Its extraction causes environmental
hazards. Air pollution (mainly SPM) due to burning of
coal causes respiratory problems.
Coal bed Methane (CBM): This is a unconventional
source of natural gas. This is now considered as an
alternative source for augmenting India’s energy resource
that is the fifth largest proven coal reserves in the world.
Thus, there are significant prospects for exploration and
exploitation of CBM.
Thermal power stations produce waste in the form
of fly ash. Large dumps are required to dump this waste
material. Burning coal causes smog, soot, acid rain, global
warming and toxic air emissions.
Coal is the most abundantly available fossil fuel, which at
the current rate of consumption may last up to 200 years.
China, the USA, India, Australia and Indonesia are the five
major coal producers in the world. Coal deposits in India
belong to the Gondwana age. Nearly three-fourths of coal
deposits are situated in Damodar Valley.
An unconventional form of gas formed during coalifi-
cation process and found on the internal surfaces of coal
is called ‘coal bed methane’.
Natural Gas
1. Natural gas mainly comprises methane, butane,
ethane and propane, and it has a very high calorific
value.
2. Some of the organic material was changed by heat
and pressure into oil and coal, while natural gas was
trapped within the earth’s crust.
3. It was formed from decaying plants and animals, mil-
lions of years ago.
Natural gas hydrates: They occur naturally in ice like
combination of natural gas and water found in oceans
and polar regions. Their reserves are found to be far larger
than the volume of all known conventional gas resources.
They occur in marine sediments on continental shelf
M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 37
9.37
margins. Gas hydrate resources in India are estimated at
1,894 trillion cubic meters and these deposits occur in
Western, Eastern and Andaman offshore areas.
Compressed Natural Gas and Piped Natural Gas
[CNG (transport) and PNG (domestic)]
CNG is one of the cleanest and most environment friendly
fuel as compared to other fuels used by automotive
vehicles. The level of vehicular emissions is significantly
lower in case of CNG when compared to liquid fuels like
Diesel and Petrol. Natural gas when compressed becomes
CNG to use as fuel in automobiles.
The same gas is also piped to household kitchens and
industries for cooking and other purposes, then called as
PNG. Both are refined natural gas with methane being the
primary constituent.
Their molecular structure is compact that prevents
the formation of Ozone (O3) in the troposphere. CNG is
lighter than and narrow range of ignition. It is cheaper
than conventional fuel.
Renewable Energy Resources
Most renewable energy comes either directly or indirectly
from the sun. Sunlight, or solar energy, can be used directly
for heating and lighting homes and other buildings, for
generating electricity and for hot water heating, solar
cooling and a variety of commercial and industrial uses.
The sun’s heat also drives the winds, whose energy is cap-
tured with wind turbines. Then, the winds and the sun’s heat
cause the water to evaporate. When this water vapour turns
into rain or snow and flows downhill into rivers or streams,
its energy can be captured using hydroelectric power.s
According to government sources, 60% of India’s
total power capacity will come from renewable sources
by 2030. This ambitious target will help India offer the
global community a 35 % reduction in the GHG emission
intensity of its economy below 2005 levels by 2030 as
part of its Intended Nationally Determined Contributions
(INDCs) under the Paris Agreement.
As per Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE)
Report 2021, the share of wind energy is 40.8% in energy
production from renewable energy sources.
MNRE has set a target of achieving 127 GW by RE. That
can be split into 114 from Solar, 67 from wind and rest
from others. There is a plan to set up 5000 bio gas plants
in India by 2023. There is plan to increase RE electricity
supply to 175 GW and 450 GW by 2030. 49% of electricity
supply will be generated by RE by the year 2040.
The achievement of SDGs has been linked with RE
energy production. Five SDGs are highly linked (with a
score of 3 out of 3) with RE production and three SDGs are
moderately associated (with a score of 2 out of 3). Four
SDGs are least linked and five SDGs are not concerned.
Solar Energy
Solar energy is the ultimate source of energy for almost all
living organisms. It is the heat and light energy produced
as a result of nuclear fusion and fission reactions taking
place inside the sun (Fig. 9.15).
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 9.38
Grid
Battery
AC
(optional)
Meter and Inverter
Fuse box (DC to AC)
DC
Home appliances
Figure 9.15 Typical Grid-Connected PV Solar System
The producers produce food by photosynthesis. Energy
from the sun is responsible for all the weather phenomena
in nature, such as the wind, storms, rain and sea waves.
Now, scientists are devising methods to make optimum
use of solar energy in routine lives in the form of solar
cooker, water heater and solar cells, which can be used in
multiple devices. Many advanced nations have come up
with concepts such as energy-efficient green buildings.
A solar power system is a set-up that generates electric-
ity by utilizing the solar energy system. A typical solar sys-
tem consists of the following:
1. Solar panels (which absorb sunlight)
2. Inverter (which converts DC into AC)
3. Mounting structure (which hold the panels in place)
4. Batteries (to store the extra power generated)
5. Grid box
6. Balance of systems (wires, nuts, etc.)
A solar system comes in various sizes such as 1, 3, 5,
and 10 kW.
Advantages
1. Solar energy is a readily available, inexhaustible,
clean, uninterrupted and continuous source of energy.
2. Solar devices can be installed in remote, inaccessible
areas, such as small villages in interior regions, for-
ests, deserts, mountains, off-shore platforms and
remote oceanic islands.
3. It is possible to produce solar energy in large quanti-
ties across many regions in the world, especially tropi-
cal regions.
Limitations
1. It can be produced in tropical and sub-tropical areas
only and that too in specific seasons.
2. Technology is still expensive and involves a high
installation cost.
3. It is difficult to store and run heavy machines.
4. Solar panels consume land, as power generation per
square unit is low.
M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 38
Chapter 9
5. Silicon used in the production of solar photovoltaic
(SPV) cells is a pollutant.
6. Hybrid solar cell battery is made up of three
electrodes–the first electrode is the mesh solar panel
(solar cells), the second is of a thin sheet of porous
carbon and third one is a sheet of lithium metal.
National Solar Mission: The National Solar Mission is
one of the eight missions set up by the National Action
Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) that was released on
30 June 2008.
The government stepped up India’s solar power capac-
ity target under the Jawaharlal Nehru National Solar
Mission (JNNSM) by five times, reaching 1,00,000 MW
by 2022. The new targets were approved in June 2015.
The 100-GW target itself is divided into two parts:
1. Forty gigawatts through rooftop
2. Sixty gigawatts through large- and medium-scale
grid-connected solar power projects
With this ambitious target, India will become one of
the largest green energy producers in the world, surpass-
ing several developed countries.
The following are the main factors for increase in pop-
ularity of solar power:
1. Improvements in technology
2. Scaling up production capacities
3. Cost competitiveness
Wind Energy
Wind energy possesses some kinetic energy due to its high
speed. It can produce mechanical or electrical energy by
using windmills. Wind is a result of solar energy, as heat-
ing of land results in the movement of air. Wind energy
has been used for hundreds of years for sailing, grinding
grains and irrigation. Wind energy systems convert kinetic
energy of winds to other forms of energy or to generate
electric power. Windmills for water pumping have been
installed in many countries, particularly in the rural areas.
To generate electricity on a large scale, a number of
windmills are set up over a large area called a wind energy
farm. Such areas need a wind speed of 15 kmph.
Advantages
1. Inexhaustible source of energy
2. No pollution and emission of GHGs
3. Possibility of large-scale production
4. Scope of direct use as mechanical energy
5. Can use land around wind turbines for other pur-
poses, for example, farming
Limitations
1. Storage is expensive during peak production time.
2. Winds are uncertain and unpredictable.
3. The visual aesthetic impact is not good.
4. Large open areas are required for setting up wind farms.
5. Noise pollution occurs.
6. There is a possible threat to wildlife.
7. Maintenance cost is high.
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 People, Development and Environment
More Data about Renewable Energy
1. According to MNRE data, Rajasthan, Karnataka,
Gujarat, Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh are the
five top states in solar power generation in 2021.
2. China, USA, Japan, India and Germany are the top
five nations for solar power generation in the year
2021.
3. Located in Jodhpur, Rajasthan, Bhadla Solar Park
is the world’s largest solar park located in India.
Pavagada Solar Park (Karnataka), Kurnool Ultra
Mega Solar Park (Andhra Pradesh), NP Kunta
(Andhra Pradesh) and Rewa Ultra Mega Solar
(Madhya Pradesh) follow as other major four solar
power plants in India. They will generate mini-
mum of 10 MW of power.
4. A floating solar power plant is going to be built in
Madhya Pradesh’s Khandwa.
5. Over 800 biomass power and bagasse / non-
bagasse cogeneration projects aggregating to
10205.61 MW capacity have been installed in the
country for feeding power to the grid.
Gujarat, Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu and Madhya
Pradesh are the five top states in terms of Wind Power
Potential. India ranked fourth behind China, the US and
Germany in wind power. India ranked third globally for
total renewable power capacity additions with 15.4 GW
in 2021, following only China (136 GW) and the US (43
GW).
The Netherlands is called ‘the land of windmills’.
Major Renewable Energy Institutes in India
1. National Institute of Solar Energy, Gurgaon
2. National Institute of Wind Energy, Chennai
3. SSS National Institute for Renewable Energy,
Kapurthala (Punjab)
4. Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency,
New Delhi
5. Solar Energy Corporation of India, New Delhi
In 2014, the scenario was Fossil Fuels were 69.5%, Hydro
was 16.1%, Nuclear was 1.9% and Renewable was 12.5%.
Thus, we can see that gap been coal and solar has been
narrowing over a period of time.
The contribution of solar and wind energy in select
Indian states in their total energy production dur-
ing 2020 –21 is given as: Karnataka (29%), Rajasthan
(20%), Tamil Nadu (18%), Andhra Pradesh (16%) and
Gujarat (14%).
Hydroelectric Power
1. It is electricity generated using the force of running
water falling from a height. The water may be stored
M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 39
9.39
in the form of dams. Potential energy is converted into
kinetic energy.
2. It is the second largest source of electricity.
3. It is heavily dependent on rainfall and melting of
snow in the mountainous regions.
4. It entails heavy investment for construction of dams,
but per unit cost of electricity is low.
Risk factors include the following:
1. As a huge water body is created, the release
during heavy rainfall may cause floods and loss of
biodiversity.
2. Dams impede the migration of fish along the river. The
silt pile-up may threaten the structure and decrease
the life of the dam.
Geothermal Energy
Geothermal energy is thermal energy, which is generated
through the natural hot springs.
The core of the earth is very hot and so it is possible
to make use of this geothermal energy. These are areas
where water and steam gush out in the form of hot springs
and geysers, which may be used to run turbines to pro-
duce electricity.
The various methods used to produce geothermal
energy are the following:
1. Dry steam power plant
2. Flash cycle plant
3. Binary cycle power plants
Presently in India geothermal energy installed capacity
is mostly experimental; however, the potential capacity is
more than 10,000 MW.
There are seven geothermal provinces in India: the
Himalayas, Sohana, West coast, Cambay, Son–Narmada–
Tapi (SONATA), Godavari and Mahanadi.
Biomass
Organic matter that makes up the plants is known as bio-
mass. Biomass is derived from sources such as b­ y-products
of the timber industry, agricultural crops, forest waste,
household waste and municipal waste dumps. It can be
used to produce electricity, transportation fuels or chemi-
cals. The use of biomass for any of these purposes is called
bioenergy.
Combustion, Gasification, Anaerobic Digestion and
Pyrolysis are the main techniques used for production of
energy from biomass.
Advantages
1. It is a renewable, cost-effective and less polluting
source of energy.
2. It provides manure for agriculture and gardens.
3. There is tremendous potential to generate biogas
energy.
4. Growing biomass crops use carbon dioxide and pro-
duce oxygen.
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 9.40
Limitations
1. Initial cost of construction of biogas plant is high.
2. Continuous supply of biomass is required to generate
biomass energy.
3. Storage and transportation is difficult.
4. Many food crops such as corn and wheat are being
diverted to make ethanol, which may lead to high
food inflation.
Biofuel
Bio-fuels are produced from animal waste, algae, and
industrial and agricultural waste. Biofuels are renewable
liquid or gaseous fuels made from living organisms or the
wastes that they produce. Bioethanol and biodiesel are the
two main types of biofuel that are currently ­commercially
produced. This oil is extracted and mixed with diesel and
is used as fuel. Bioethanol is produced from sugar beet,
sugarcane and corn. The biofuels are divided into two cat-
egories.
First-generation or Traditional Biofuels
Another source of biofuels is oil extracted from the seeds
of plants such as Jatropha and Pongamia, which have good
calorific value. They are less sustainable as they have an
adverse impact on the supply of food for the human popu-
lation and, hence, are less preferred. Food prices increase
as a result.
Second- and Third-generation Biofuels
They are generated from non-food crops. Mi­crobes play a
key role in the development of these biofuels. They are more
sustainable than first-generation biofuels, as they produce
higher yields, reduce GHG production and do not compete
with crops grown for food. Example is oil extracted from
seeds of plants, such as Jatropha and Pongamia, which
have good calorific value.
In the beginning of 2013, it was recommended that
5% ethanol blending is mandatory for petrol, whereas
in 2007, it was recommended to be as low as 10% by the
Group of Ministers.
Shale Gas
Shale gas refers to natural gas that is trapped within shale
formations. Shales are fine-grained sedimentary rocks
that can be rich sources of petroleum and natural gas.
Over the past decade, the combination of horizontal drill-
ing and hydraulic fracturing has allowed access to large
volumes of shale gas that were previously uneconomical
to produce. The production of natural gas from shale for-
mations has rejuvenated the natural gas industry in the
United States.
Biogas
1. Bacterial action is introduced in digesters with sewage
of human beings and animals (animal dung).
2. The decomposition of sewage produces methane,
which is used for cooking and fuel.
M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 40
Chapter 9
3. The leftover matter called slurry is used as manure in
agriculture fields.
Biomass fuels used in India account for about one-third
of the total fuel used in the country, being the most impor-
tant fuel used in over 90% of the rural households and
about 15% of the urban households.
Biomass can be used in briquette form, which is used
directly as fuel instead of coal in the traditional chulhas
and furnaces. Alternatively, gasifiers convert solid fuel
into a more convenient-to-use gaseous form of fuel called
producer gas.
Hydrogen
1. It is the most abundant element on the earth and has
the highest calorific value.
2. It does not occur naturally as a gas.
3. As it is highly reactive, it combines with other ­elements
such as oxygen to form water.
4. Once separated from other elements, hydrogen can
be burned as a fuel or converted into electricity.
5. As it burns completely, it does not result in atmo-
spheric pollution and in greenhouse effect.
Fuel Cells
Fuel cells use hydrogen as a fuel. They convert the chemi-
cal energy of a fuel directly and efficiently into electricity
and heat. Thus, they are electrochemical devices. There
is no combustion as in the case of fossil fuels. Hydrogen
or a mixture of compounds containing hydrogen is used
as a fuel. It consists of two electrodes, with electrolyte in
between. Oxygen passes over one electrode and hydrogen
over the other and they react electrochemically to gener-
ate electricity, water and heat.
The fuel cells have been used in space flights as well.
Electric vehicles using fuel cells for their energy require-
ments are the best options available to dramatically
reduce urban air pollution. Not all renewable energy
resources come from the sun.
A hybrid car is a petrol- and electricity-driven vehicle–a
car starting with petrol engine and switching to electric
motor at low speed.
Renewable Power Capacity (Ministry of
Non-Renewable Energy) as of 31 March 2018
Total Installed 2022 Target
Source Capacity (MW) (MW)
Wind power 34,046 60,000
Solar power 21,651 1,00,000
Biomass power 8701 10,000
Waste-to-power 138
Small hydropower 4486 5000
Total 69,022 1,75,000
Source: Ministry of Non-renewable Energy.
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 People, Development and Environment
N uclear Energy
Earlier, we discussed about the law of conservation of
energy in which energy can be changed from one form
into another. The source of nuclear energy is the mass
of the nucleus and energy generated during a nuclear
reaction is due to conversion of mass into energy
(Einstein’s theory). The energy produced is given by e =
mc2, where m is the mass and c is the speed of light. This
equation was developed by Einstein. There are two ways
to obtain nuclear energy:
1. Nuclear Fission Reaction: The nucleus of a heavy
radioactive element, such as uranium, plutonium or
thorium, splits up into smaller nuclei when bombarded
with low-energy neutrons. A huge amount of heat is
generated in this process. At this point, carbon dioxide
in gas form is pumped into the reactors with uranium,
removing heat from the system. The gas turns very hot
and this heat is used to convert water into steam. The
steam created from this process drives the turbines,
which in turn drive the generators that produce nuclear
energy.
2. Nuclear Fusion Reaction: It involves the combina-
tion or fusion of two light elements, such as hydro-
gen, to form a heavier element, resulting in the
release of uncontrollable energy inside it. Thus, it
cannot be used to generate electricity and cannot be
commercialized as is the case with fission reaction.
Sun’s energy is generated by nuclear fusion reaction.
The heat and light that we receive from the sun is
all due to the continuous fusion reactions going on
inside it.
The nuclear power reactor that creates all these reac-
tions is controlled through rods of boron, known as con-
trol rods. These boron rods absorb the neutrons. The rods
are lowered into the reactor to absorb neutrons and slow
down the process of fission. To generate more power, the
rods are raised again to allow even more neutrons to crash
into the atoms of uranium.
Advantages
1. Nuclear energy is more cost-effective when compared
to coal.
2. It does not use as much fuel in the process.
3. It produces less waste and does not produce c­ arbon
dioxide or smoke. Thus, nuclear energy does not con-
tribute to environmental hazards or greenhouse effect.
4. Nuclear power stations are usually very compact
when compared to the thermal stations. Although the
initial capital cost of building a nuclear plant is high,
the maintenance and running costs are relatively low.
Limitations
Creating nuclear energy is a complex chemical process
that can be very dangerous.
1. There is a great deal of radiation danger associated
with nuclear energy. It is capable of causing genetic
disorders.
M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 41
9.41
2. Storage of nuclear wastes can lead to disastrous
effects if not disposed or stored in a proper manner.
3. Though uranium stock seems to be abundant, it may
exhaust one day. That will make nuclear power plants
obsolete.
4. Radioactive minerals are unevenly distributed around
the world and are found in limited quantities.
5. Starting a nuclear plant requires huge capital invest-
ment and advanced technology.
6. There have been instances of proliferation of nuclear
technology.
The three major nuclear accidents were as follows:
1. Three Miles (1979, USA)
2. Chernobyl (1987, Ukraine)
3. Fukushima (2011, Japan–caused by a tsunami)
Germany declared that it would close all its power plants.
France produces maximum percentage of its electricity
from nuclear power.
Nuclear Fuels–Indian Scenario
There are 22 operational nuclear power reactors in India
with total installed capacity of 6780 MW as per informa-
tion available in October 2021.
India has more of Thorium reserves rather than
Uranium reserves. So, such kind of technology itself is a
challenge. Thorium-232 itself does not split and release
energy.
India’s three stage nuclear power generation had
been generated to use India’s vast thorium-232 reserves.
Thorium, somehow, can not be used as a fuel in natural
state, it is needed to be converted into ‘fissile’ state after
some reactions.
1. During first stage, Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors
will be used to produce energy from natural uranium,
and Plutonium (Pu) - 239 will also be produced.
2. During second stage, indigenous Fast Breeder Reac-
tor Technology (FBRT) will be used to produce more
Plutonium.
3. During third stage, Plutonium obtained from second
stage will be used to produce more energy with its
reaction with Thorium-232. During process, another
fissile material U-233 will also be produced.
Stopover
1. In which of the following fuel sources are, the tech-
nologies such as horizontal drilling and hydraulic
fracturing used?
(a) Coal bed methane
(b) Shale gas
(c) Biogas
(d) All of the above
The correct option is (b).
2. Which of the following is considered better for dump-
ing of nuclear waste?
23/12/22 8:01 PM
 9.42
(a) Salt mines
(b) Landfills
(c) Forests
(d) Oceans
The correct option is (a). This has become a very chal-
lenging task.
3. Which state in India ranks first in renewable energy
capacity?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Gujarat
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Tamil Nadu
The correct option is (a).
4. Which of the following nuclear accidents can be
termed the latest one in our history?
(a) Fukushima Daiichi, Japan
(b) Chernobyl, Ukraine
(c) Three Mile Island, Middletown, Pennsylvania, USA
(d) None of the above
The correct option is (a).
Hint: Happened in 2011, while (b) and (c) are the
years 1986 and 1978.
Our Forest Resources
Deforestation is clearing the earth’s forests on a mas-
sive scale, resulting in damage to the quality of land. The
world’s rain forests will completely vanish in about hun-
dred years at the current rate of deforestation.
Expansion of Agriculture
The major direct cause of deforestation is agriculture,
with subsistence farming responsible for 48% of defor-
estation, commercial agriculture for 32% and fuelwood
for 5%.
Shifting Cultivation
Shifting cultivation is practiced in Assam and Madagascar
(Indian Ocean) for subsistence farming.
Shifting cultivation has occurred due to poor fertility
of soil. In this cultivation, a small patch of tropical forests
is cleared, and vegetation is destroyed and burned. Crops
are grown as long as the soil is productive, after which
the cultivation is abandoned and cultivations move on to
a fresh patch of land.
Timber Harvesting
Logging (for the world’s wood and paper products) is
responsible for 14% of deforestation. Countries such as
Myanmar, Malaysia, Indonesia, Brazil, Argentina and
many African countries are examples.
Extension of Cultivation on Hill Slopes
This is termed contour farming. Although agriculture has
always been concentrated on planes and floors of valleys,
M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 42
Chapter 9
farming on narrow flat steps cut one after another across
the slope or terrace is an age old practice. There are many
medicinal plants, which should better be raised in hilly
areas.
Wildfires
Not all deforestation is intentional. Some are caused by a
combination of human and natural factors, such as wild-
fires and subsequent overgrazing, which may prevent the
growth of young trees. However, in the last decade, the
intensity and frequency of wildfires has increased due to
global warming.
Negative Effects of Deforestation on the
E nvironment
Globalization is viewed as another root cause of defor-
estation. The degradation of the forest ­ecosystems has
been traced to economic incentives that make forest
conversion appear more profitable than forest conser-
vation. The forest cover, which helps in absorbing GHG,
has shrunk from 4.7 billion ha in 1949 to 714.9 million
ha in 2015.
Climate Change
Less trees absorb less carbon dioxide that results in higher
release of GHGs and thus global warming.
Plants help in removing carbon dioxide from the
atmosphere during the process of photosynthesis and
release oxygen back into the atmosphere during normal
respiration. Actively growing trees help better in this
situation. The decay and burning of wood release much
of this stored carbon back into atmosphere.
Forests are effective as carbon sinks or biodiversity
reserves.
Reduced Moisture Content in the Environment
Forest soils are moist, but without protection from sun-
blocking tree cover, they quickly dry out. Trees also help
perpetuate the water cycle by returning water vapour
back into the atmosphere. Without trees to fill these
roles, many former forest lands can quickly become bar-
ren deserts.
Effects of Deforestation on Water Cycle
Deforestation changes the quantity of water on surface, in
soil or in the atmosphere. This in turn changes the erosion
rates and the availability of water, either for ecosystem
functions or for human services.
Decrease in Water Precipitation
Trees extract groundwater through their roots and release
it into the atmosphere. When trees are removed, there will
not be any evaporation, resulting in a much drier climate.
Thus, trees help in perpetuating the water cycle by return-
ing water vapour back into the atmosphere. Without
trees, it would result in reduced rainfall and many former
forest lands would quickly become barren deserts. Forest
23/12/22 8:01 PM
 People, Development and Environment
cover brings down the temperature of the area, which is
crucial for rainfall.
Soil Erosion
Tree roots bind soil together, and if the soil is sufficiently
shallow, they act to keep the soil in place by binding with
the underlying bedrock. Tree removal on steep slopes
with shallow soil increases the risk of landslides, which
threatens the people living nearby. The quicker transport
of surface water results in flash floods and more local-
ized floods than those which would occur with the forest
cover.
Deforestation generally increases the rate of soil ero-
sion by increasing the amount of run-off and reducing
the protection of soil from tree litter. Yellow River is an
example. Its yellow colour is caused by the downstream
carriage of loess and causes flooding in its lower reaches
(hence, the river’s nickname China’s sorrow).
Desertification: Desertification and deforestation are
linked closely. Desertification is a systemic phenomenon
resulting from excessive felling of trees. It is the degra-
dation of land in any dryland. Dryland ecosystems are
fragile and can rarely sustain the increased pressures that
result from intense population growth.
The following factors also matter:
1. There may be over-cultivation of desert lands. It
causes nutrients in the soil to be depleted faster.
Improper irrigation practices result in salinated soils
and depletion of aquifers.
2. Vegetation plays a major role in determining the bio-
logical composition of soil. The soil erosion and water
run-off decrease with increased vegetation cover.
3. Forests cause precipitation and maintain humidity of an
area. Air humidity not only results in less penetration of
solar heat to ground during the day but also checks heat
escape to outer atmosphere during the night. Thus, for-
ests tend to provide seasonal stability to the terrain.
4. As a result of deforestation, there is higher wind
velocity, which increases the rate of soil erosion.
N atural Resources—Our Mineral A ssets
India is rich in metallic minerals of ferrous groups, such
as iron, manganese, chromite and titanium. However,
petroleum and some non-ferrous minerals, such as cop-
per, lead, zinc, tin and graphite, are not adequate.
Iron
Iron ores have been categorized into three grades,
namely (i) haematite, also known as red ore, which
contains up to 68% iron, (ii) magnetite (60%, known as
black ore) and (iii) lignite, containing between 35% and
50% iron.
Pure iron is soft, but it is hardened due to metallurgi-
cal processes. A certain proportion of carbon is required
in ferrous to make it steel. Chromite is essential for the
manufacture of stainless steel and high-temperature
alloys.
M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 43
9.43
India has deposits of high-grade iron ore, that is, haem-
atite and magnetite. It is the second largest producer of
iron ore after Brazil. The mineral is found mainly in
Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Goa,
Maharashtra and Karnataka. In Goa, there are open cast
iron ore mines, which are mechanized.
Bauxite
Bauxite is an aluminium ore. Aluminium is used in manu-
facturing of aeroplanes, electrical gadgets and so on. India
is the third largest producer of bauxite in the world. The
major bauxite-producing areas are Jharkhand, Odisha,
Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Maharashtra
and Tamil Nadu.
Mica
India is the largest producer and exporter of mica in the
world. Mica deposits mainly occur in Bihar, Jharkhand,
Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan. It is used in manufactur-
ing electrical fittings.
Copper
It is a ductile metal with very high thermal and electri-
cal conductivity. Pure copper is soft and malleable.
It is mainly produced in Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh,
Jharkhand, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
Manganese
India is the third largest producer of manganese after
Russia and South Africa. India’s manganese deposits lie
in Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha,
Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
Limestone
Limestone with high silica content is used in the manufac-
ture of white cement. Major limestone-producing states
in India are Bihar, Jharkhand, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh,
Chhattisgarh, Rajasthan, Gujarat and Tamil Nadu.
Gold
Kolar in Karnataka has deposits of gold in India. These
mines are among the deepest in the world, which makes
mining of this ore a very expensive process.
Salt
It is obtained from seas, lakes and rocks. India is one of
the world’s leading producers and exporters of salt.
Coal
Coal is used as a raw material in the chemical and fer-
tilizer industries. It is found in two regions, namely, in
(i) Gondwana and (ii) extra-peninsular areas, such as
Assam and other north-east states. There are high lignite
reserves in Tamil Nadu.
Petroleum
Petroleum exists in anticlines and fault traps. In India, it is
found in sedimentary rocks.
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 9.44 Chapter 9

Uranium and Thorium making it impossible to predict. Seismology is the study

Uranium is embedded in igneous and metamorphic rocks of earthquakes and seismic waves that move through and
in Bihar (Jaduguda in Singhbhum district of Bihar), around the earth.
Rajasthan and Andhra Pradesh.
The USA, Australia and India have particularly large Causes of Earthquake
reserves of thorium. In India, thorium is found in mona-
Earth’s crust is not a single piece but consists of portions
zite sands across the coasts of Kerala.
called plates, which vary in size from a few hundreds to
thousands of kilometres. According to the theory of plate
tectonics, when these plates contact each other, stress
Natural Hazards and Mitigation arises in the crust. The plates may pull away from each
other, push against each other or slide sideways. If plates
A hazard may be defined as a dangerous condition or get locked together, they are unable to move. It results in
event, which threatens or has the potential for causing stress in areas around the plate boundaries, called faults.
injury to life or damage to property or the environment. When this reaches a maximum point, the fault rupture
The main classification has been given here. Then few generates vibration called seismic waves, which radiates
natural hazards have been discussed. in all directions from the focus (Figures 9.17 and 9.18). To
put simply, the focus can also be defined as underground
origin of an earthquake.
National Hazard Main Events
Geophysical • Earthquake Seismic Waves
• Volcano
• Tsunami
Hydrological • Flood Seismic
• Landslides Waves
• Wave Action
Meteorological • C yclone, Storm Surge, Body Waves Surface Waves
– Hazard caused by Tornado, Convective Storm,
short-lived, micro- Extra-tropical Storm, Wind
to meso-scale • Cold Wave, Derecho
extreme weather • Extreme Temperature, Fog, Longitudinal Transverse Rayleigh Love
and atmospheric Frost, Freeze, Hail, Heat wave (P Waves) (S Waves) Waves Waves
conditions • Lightning, Heavy Rain
• Sand Storm, Dust Storm Figure 9.16 Earthquake: Causes
• Snow, Ice, Winter Storm,
Blizzard
Climatological •  rought
D These are waves of energy that travel through the earth’s
– Unusual, • Extreme hot/cold conditions layers and there are two main types of seismic waves
extreme weather • Forest/Wildfire Fires (Fig. 9.18):
conditions • Glacial Lake Outburst 1. Body waves
– Intra-seasonal • Subsidence 2. Surface waves
to multi-decadal
(long-term)
climate variability
Biological • E pidemics: Viral, bacterial,
Surface
– Exposure to parasitic, fungal or prion
waves
germs and toxic infections
substances • Insect infestations
• Animal stampedes Body
waves
The human society is also vulnerable to Chemical,
Biological, Radiological and Nuclear (CBRN) disasters.
Earth

Earthquake
It is the sudden shaking of the earth’s crust. The impact of
an earthquake is sudden and there is hardly any warning, Figure 9.17 Body Waves and Surface Waves

M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 44 23/12/22 8:01 PM

 People, Development and Environment
Earth’s surface
P-wave
Into earth
“front”
Earthquake S-wave
“front”
Figure 9.18  (Primary) Waves and S (Secondary)
P is the most seismically active region, while zone II is
Waves
Body Waves
These are called body waves as they pass through the
body of the earth, and they are further categorized as fol-
lows (Fig. 9.18):
1. Primary or compressional waves, also popularly
known as P waves
2. Secondary or transverse waves, also popularly known
as S waves
Primary waves travel faster than secondary waves. Thus,
they are the first to reach the seismograph stations.
Surface Waves
They travel along the earth’s crust and vibrate the ground
horizontally and vertically. They are more dangerous
than body waves and can destroy buildings and highways
which come in their path. Their amplitude decreases with
increasing depth into the earth. These are further catego-
rized as (i) Love waves and (ii) Rayleigh waves.
Love waves move the ground from side to side.
Confined to the surface of the crust, Love waves produce
an entirely horizontal motion.
Rayleigh moves the ground up and down and side-to-
side. Love waves are faster than Rayleigh waves.
Earthquakes can be shallow (less than 60 km), medium
(60–300 km) and deep (300–600 km). Shallow-focus
earthquakes are the most damaging because of their prox-
imity to the surface.
Measurement of Intensity of Earthquakes
There are mainly two techniques available to measure
the intensity of earthquakes, and they are as follows:
1. Richter Scale: An earthquake’s magnitude or
amount of energy released is determined by the use
of a seismograph, which is an instrument that con-
tinuously records ground vibrations. An earthquake
with a magnitude 7.5 on the Richter scale releases 30
times more energy than the one with 6.5 magnitude
and will also have a shaking amplitude of 10 times
higher. Similarly, an earthquake that measures 5.0
on the Richter scale has a shaking amplitude 10 times
larger than one that measures 4.0 and corresponds
to a 30 times larger release of energy. An earthquake
of magnitude 3 is the smallest that is normally felt by
humans.
M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 45
9.45
2. Modified Mercalli Scale: It expresses the intensity
of an earthquake’s effect on people, structure and the
earth’s surface on a scale from I to XII.
The Bureau of Indian Standards, based on the past
seismic history, grouped the country into four seis-
mic zones, viz, Zone II, III, IV and V. Of these, zone V
the least.
The Modified Mercalli (MM) intensity, which
measures the impact of the earthquakes on the surface
of the earth, broadly associated with various zones, is
as follows:
Seismic Zone Intensity MM scale
II (low-intensity zone) VI (or less)
III (moderate-intensity zone) VII
IV (severe-intensity zone) VIII
V (very-severe–intensity zone) IX (and above)
Zone V comprises the entire north-eastern India,
parts of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh,
Uttaranchal, Rann of Kutch in Gujarat, parts of North
Bihar, and Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
Zone IV covers the remaining parts of Jammu and
Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh, union territory of
Delhi, Sikkim, northern parts of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar
and West Bengal, parts of Gujarat and small portions
of Maharashtra near the west coast, and Rajasthan.
Zone III comprises Kerala, Goa, Lakshadweep
islands, remaining parts of Uttar Pradesh, Gujarat
and West Bengal, and parts of Punjab, Rajasthan,
Madhya Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh,
Maharashtra, Orissa, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu
and Karnataka.
Zone II covers the remaining parts of the country.
Mitigation of Earthquakes
Planning
The Bureau of Indian Standards has published certain
building codes and guidelines for safe construction of
buildings against earthquakes. Before the buildings are
constructed, the ­building plans have to be checked by the
­municipality, according to the rules laid down by the law.
Public Education
Educating the public on causes and characteristics of an
earthquake and preparedness measures helps to a certain
extent in mitigating the natural disaster.
Engineered Structures
Buildings need to be designed and constructed as per
the laws to withstand ground shaking. Architectural and
engineering inputs need to be put together to improve
building design and construction practices. The soil type
needs to be analysed before construction.
23/12/22 8:01 PM
 9.46 Chapter 9

Stopover Crater Main vent

Earthquakes are produced during

(a) Plastic failure within the mantle Secondary
(b) Brittle failure during faulting vent
(c) Mushrooming during folding
(d) None of the above
The correct option is (b).

Tsunami Magma chamber

The term tsunami has been derived from a Japanese term
Tsu meaning harbour and nami meaning waves.
A tsunami is a series of ocean waves with very long
wavelengths (typically hundreds of kilometres) caused by
large-scale disturbances of the ocean, such as the follow-
ing (Fig. 9.19):
1. Earthquakes
2. Landslides
3. Volcanic eruptions
4. Explosions
5. Meteorites
These disturbances can either be from below (e.g.
underwater earthquakes with large vertical displace-
ments and submarine landslides) or from above (e.g.
meteorite impacts).
Tsunamis can have wavelengths ranging from 10 to
500 km and wave periods of up to an hour. As a result of
their long wavelengths, tsunamis act as shallow-water
waves. A wave becomes a shallow-water wave when the
wavelength is very large compared to the water depth.
Tsunamis may reach a maximum vertical height onshore
above sea level, often called a run-up height, of tens of
metres.
Tsunamis can result in massive destruction when they
arrive onshore, and they can cause severe coastal erosion,
which is the wearing away of coastal land or beaches. The
power of water can wash away vegetation, making it hard
to establish the shoreline. As tsunamis are triggered by
sudden events, there may be little time to warn coastal
residents of their arrival.
This fact became evident in March 2011 when Japan
was struck by a large tsunami that was triggered by a
9.0 magnitude earthquake, which damaged several
2. Large waves
form and
move at up to 800
km/h (500 mph)
3. Waves slow in shallower
coastal area, but increase in height
1. Earthquake changes shape of
sea floor causing displacement of water
Figure 9.19 Tsunami: Causes
Figure 9.20 Structure of a Volcano
nuclear power plant reactors and that resulted in mas-
sive radioactive pollution. The tsunami that originated
in the Indian Ocean caused massive damage in Indonesia
and India.
Volcanoes
A volcano is an opening or rupture in the earth’s surface or
crust (Fig. 9.20). Pyroclastic flows happen basically when
extremely hot gases, ash, sulphur, steam and other mate-
rials of more than 1000°C rapidly flow down the flank of a
volcano (more than 700 km/h) during an eruption.
Volcanoes are generally found where tectonic plates
diverge or converge. Subduction zones are places where
two plates, usually an oceanic plate and a continental plate,
collide; this is the case with earthquakes as well. Volcanoes
tend to exist along the edges of tectonic plates, which are
massive rock slabs that make up the earth’s surface. About
90% of all volcanoes exist within the ‘Ring of Fire’ along the
edges of the Pacific Ocean.
Eruption of volcanoes away from the subduction zone
is referred to as mantle plumes, also known as ‘hotspots’.
These are columns taking out magma from the deep inte-
rior of the earth.
Erupting volcanoes can pose many hazards. Volcanic
ash can be a threat to aircraft, especially jet aircrafts.
Large eruptions can affect temperature as ash and
droplets of sulphuric acid obscure the sun and cool the
earth’s lower atmosphere or troposphere.
Cyclone
Cyclone is a region of low atmospheric pressure sur-
rounded by high atmospheric pressure, resulting in swirl-
ing atmospheric disturbances, accompanied by powerful
winds blowing in an anticlockwise direction in the north-
ern hemisphere and in a clockwise direction in the south-
ern hemisphere. It occurs mainly in the tropical and tem-
perate regions of the world. Cyclones are called by various
names in different parts of the world. Cyclones in India
are moderate in nature. Some of the general features of a
typical cyclone are as follows:
1. Strong winds
2. Exceptional rain
3. Storm surge

M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 46 23/12/22 8:01 PM

 People, Development and Environment
Cyclones are called by different names:
1. Typhoons and Hurricanes: Caribbean and Gulf of
Mexico
2. Tropical Cyclones: India
3. Willie: Australia
4. Tornadoes: South America
Damage by Cyclones
India faces more cyclones on its eastern coast (Bay of
Bengal) than on western coast due to direction of wind,
more rains and water. The state of Odisha suffers the most
due to cyclones. There are five categories of cyclones.
Under Category 5, cyclone speed can go up to 252 km/h.
They cause extensive damage to infrastructure and
buildings. There will be heavy rains and flooding. There
can be outbreak of malaria, diarrhoea, etc.
Mitigation of Cyclones
Green belt plantation along the coastal line in a scientific,
interweaving pattern can reduce the effects of a hazard.
Providing a cover through green belt sustains less dam-
age. Forests act as a wide buffer zone against strong
winds and flash floods. The roots of the plants and trees
keep the soil intact and prevent erosion and slow run-off
to prevent or lessen flooding.
Cyclones in India
The WMO maintains rotating lists of names which
are appropriate for each tropical cyclone basin. If a
cyclone is particularly deadly or costly, then its name
is retired and replaced by another one.
Major Cyclones
• Sitrang: 2022 • Gaja: 2018
• Amphan: 2020 • Ockhi: 2017
(super cyclone) • Vardah: 2016
• Nisarga: 2020 • Hudhud: 2014
• Gati: 2020 • Phailin: 2013
• Nivar: 2020 • Helen: 2013
• Burevi: 2020 • Nilam: 2012
• Fani: 2019 • Phyan: 2009
The depressions ARAB-01,BOB-02,ARB-03, BOB-03
arose in Arabian sea in 2020.
Odisha Cyclone in 1999 had been the strongest one.
Vayu, Hikaa, Kyarr, Maha, Bulbul and Pawan have
been other cyclones in the sequence in year 2019. The
four of them—Vayu, Hikka, Kyarr and Maha—originated
in the Arabian Sea that is the maximum number over
many decades.
Flood
Flood is a state of high water level along a river channel
or on the coast that leads to inundation of land that is not
M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 47
9.47
usually submerged. There are different types of floods,
namely, flash flood, riverine flood and urban flood.
Flash Floods
These are rapid inland floods due to intense rainfall. A flash
flood describes sudden flooding within a short duration. In
sloped terrains, the water flows rapidly with a high destruc-
tion potential. In flat terrains, the rainwater cannot infiltrate
into the ground or run off (due to small slope) as quickly as
it falls. Flash floods are typically associated with thunder-
storms. A flash flood can occur at virtually any place.
Causes of Flash Floods
1. Heavy rainfall in a short span of time
2. Heavy siltation of the river bed, which reduces the
water-carrying capacity of the rivers or stream
3. Blockage in the drains, which leads to flooding of
the area
4. Landslides blocking the flow of the stream
5. Construction of dams and reservoirs
6. In areas prone to cyclone, strong winds accompanied
by heavy downpour along with storm surge
The understanding of the concept of catabatic (also
termed katabatic) and anabatic winds can help ­further
to understand the phenomenon of flash floods. The term
catabatic wind is used for downslope winds flowing from
high elevations of mountains, plateaus and hills, down
their slopes to the valleys or planes below. This happens
during the night time. The concept of anabatic winds is
just opposite to that of catabatic winds; they flow up the
hill, specifically during the daytime. The catabatic winds
cause the occurrence of flash floods.
Cloudbursts
A cloudburst is an extreme amount of precipitation
sometimes with hail and thunder, which normally lasts
no longer than a few minutes but is capable of creating
flood conditions. Colloquially, the term cloudburst may
be used to describe any sudden heavy, brief and usually
unforecasted rainfall.
Heavy rainfall, flash floods, landslides and cloudbursts
in June 2013 caused havoc in Uttarakhand, causing death
of thousands of people.
Drought
Drought is either the absence of rainfall or its deficiency
from its normal pattern in a region for an extended period
of time, leading to general suffering in the society. It is an
interplay between the demand that people place on natu-
ral supply of water and the natural event that provides
water in a given geographical region. The state of Kerala,
which receives more than 3000 mm of rainfall every year,
was declared drought affected in the past as it was insuffi-
cient to have two good crops. The more the imbalance in
supply, the higher is the drought. The following explains
this general definition further:
1. It is the slow onset of disaster and it is difficult to
demarcate the time of its onset and the end.
23/12/22 8:01 PM
 9.48
2. It is any unusual dry period that results in a shortage
of useful water.
Although drought is basically caused by rainfall deficit,
which is a meteorological phenomenon, it manifests into dif-
ferent spheres because of various vulnerability factors asso-
ciated with it. Some of these factors are induced by humans.
Although drought is a natural disaster, its effects are
made worst in developing countries due to overpopulation,
overgrazing, deforestation, soil erosion, excessive use of
ground water and surface water for growing crops and loss
of biodiversity. The four types of droughts are as follows:
1. Meteorological Drought: It is simply the absence or
deficit of rainfall. It is the least severe form of drought
and is identified by sunny days and hot weather.
2. Hydrological Drought: It leads to reduction of nat-
ural stream flows or groundwater levels plus stored
water supplies. The main impact is on the water
resource systems.
3. Agricultural Drought: This form of drought occurs
when moisture level in the soil is insufficient to
maintain average crop yields. The initial conse-
quences are reduced seasonal output of crops and
other related production. An extreme agricultural
drought can lead to a famine, which is prolonged
shortage of food in a restricted region, causing wide-
spread disease and death from starvation.
4. Socio­economic Drought: It correlates the supply
and demand of goods and services with the three
above-mentioned types of drought.
W iLdFire
A wildfire is any uncontrolled fire in combustible vegeta-
tion that occurs in the countryside or a wilderness area. It
differs from other fires by its extensive size, the speed at
which it can spread out from its original source, its poten-
tial to change directions unexpectedly and its ability to
jump gaps, such as roads, rivers and fire breaks.
LandSLideS
The term landslide includes all varieties of mass movement of
hill slopes and can be defined as the downward and outward
movement of slope-forming materials composed of rocks,
soils, artificial fills or a combination of all these materials
along surfaces of separation by falling, sliding and flowing,
either slowly or quickly from one place to another. Although
landslides are primarily associated with mountainous ter-
rains, these can also occur in areas where activities such
as surface excavation for highways, buildings and open-pit
mines take place. Landslides take place in conjunction with
earthquakes, floods and volcanoes. At times, prolonged rain-
fall causing landslides may block the flow of a river for quite
some time. The formation of river blocks can cause havoc to
the settlements downstream on their bursting.
Causes of Landslides
1. Geologically Weak Material: Weakness in the com-
position and structure of rock or soil
2. Erosion: Erosion of slope top due to cutting down of
vegetation and construction of roads
M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 48
Chapter 9
3. Intense rainfall: Intense rainfalls, heavy melting of
snow in the hilly terrains
4. Human excavation: Mining, deforestation and
irrigation
5. Earthquake
6. Volcanic eruption
nationaL diSaSter management
Pre- Disaster
Disaster
Response
Preparedness
Post-
Mitigation: Disaster
Prevention
& Risk
Reduction Recovery
Figure 9.21 National Disaster Management
National Disaster Management Act, 2005
The overall coordination of disaster management vests with
the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). The Cabinet Committee
on Security (CCS—with PM as its member) and the National
Crisis Management Committee (NCMC) are the key commit-
tees involved in the top-level decision-making with regard to
disaster management. The NDMA is the lead agency respon-
sible for the preparation of DM plans and the execution of
DM functions at the national level (Fig. 9.22).
The High Power Committee on Disaster Management
in 2001 suggested the following levels for disaster
management:
1. Level L0: The period of normalcy, it should be uti-
lized for disaster risk reduction.
2. Level L1: The level of disaster that can be managed
within the capabilities and resources at the district
level. However, the state authorities will remain in
readiness to provide assistance if needed.
3. Level L2: This signifies the disaster situations
that require assistance and active mobilization of
resources at the state level and deployment of state
-level agencies for disaster management. The central
agencies must remain vigilant for immediate deploy-
ment if required by the state.
4. Level L3: This corresponds to a nearly catastrophic
situation or a very large-scale disaster that over-
whelms the state and district authorities.
Mitigation and adaptation
• Mitigation: addresses the root cause of climate
change (emissions)
• Adaptation: addresses the impacts of climate
change
23/12/22 8:01 PM
 People, Development and Environment 9.49

Overall Coordination:
Ministry of Home Affairs
Designated
Nodal Ministries
(Disaster-
Top-Level Decision-Making specific) National Disaster
Management
Authority
National (NDMA)
Cabinet
Crisis
Committee
Management
on
Committee
Security
(NCMC) National
(CCS)
Executive
Committee
(NEC)

Armed Forces National National

and Institute of Disaster
State Central Armed Disaster Response
Governments/ Police Forces Management Force
Union (CAPF) (NIDM) (NDRF)
Territories
Figure 9.22 National Disaster Management Institutional Mechanism

significantly decrease the losses of life, livelihoods,

Greenhouse gas concentrations and assets—economic, physical, social, cultural and
environmental—by maximizing the ability to cope
with disasters at all levels of administration as well as
Long-term among all communities’.
Effect • As mentioned in Sendai Framework, it has five the-
Climate change
matic areas for actions:
– Understanding risk
– Inter-agency coordination
– Investing in DRR—structural measures
Impacts – Investing in DRR—non-structural measures
Short- – Capacity development
term
Responses Effect Environment Protection Act (1986)
India is one of the few countries in the world where
‘environment’ finds an explicit mention in the constitu-
Mitigation Adaptation tion itself. Though it is not guaranteed as the status of a
fundamental right, it has been recognized as an integral
component of the ‘right to life’ by the higher judiciary in
The NDMP was enacted in the year 2016. It has been judicial decisions.
aligned broadly with the goals and priorities set out in
1. Factories Act, 1948: This Act aims at providing infor-
the Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction. The
mation on hazardous processes taking place inside
NDMP is a dynamic document in the sense that it will
the factory to its workers, local residents and govern-
be periodically improved keeping up with the emerging
ment officials.
global best practices and knowledge bases in disaster
2. Insecticides Act, 1968: It aims to regulate import,
management.
manufacture, sale, transport, distribution and the
• The vision of the plan is to ‘make India disaster resil- use of insecticides to prevent risk to human and
ient, achieve substantial disaster risk reduction, and animal life.

M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 49 23/12/22 8:01 PM

 9.50
3. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act,
1974: This act defines what water pollution is and
determines its penalties.
4. Air (Prosecution and Control of Pollution) Act,
1981: This act controls and regulates emissions from
automobiles and industrial plants.
5. The Forest Conservation Act, 1980: It mainly pro-
hibits the state governments from declaring any
reserve forest as non-reserve without approval of the
central authority.
6. The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: It aims to provide
necessary protection against serious threat to wildlife
(both animals and birds) by the expansion and advance-
ment of agriculture, industry and urbanization.
The Indian Board of Wildlife was set up in 1952.
Various projects have been launched for the protection of
endangered species, such as lions (1972), tigers (1973),
crocodiles (1974) and brown-antlered deer (1981). India
became a party to the Convention of International Trade in
Endangered Species of Fauna and Flora (CITES) in 1976.
India also started a national component of the United
Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization’s
(UNESCO) Man and Biosphere (MAB) programme in 1971.
The Central Pollution Control Board was set up in 1974
as an implementing agency of the Water Act. Later, it also
took on the implementation of the Air Act of 1981. The
CPCB is a statutory body attached to the MoEF.
In 1980, a separate Department of Environment was
constituted with a mandate to plan, promote and coor-
dinate programmes relating to the environment. A full-
fledged MoEF was established in 1985 to oversee the
environmental protection measures at the national level.
The National Environment Appellate Authority (NEAA)
was set up in 1997.
A new institutional set-up is envisaged for conserva-
tion issues under the Biodiversity Act of 2002, compris-
ing a National Biodiversity Authority, State Biodiversity
Boards and Biodiversity Management Committees.
• The genesis of the Environment (Protection) Act,
1986, is in Article 48A (Directive Principle of State
Policy) and Article 51A(g) (Fundamental Duty) of the
Indian Constitution.
• There is a directive given to the state as one of the
Directive Principles of State Policy regarding the
protection and improvement of the environment.
Article 48A states ‘The State shall endeavour to protect and
improve the environment and to safeguard the f­orests and
wildlife of the country’.
• The Environment Protection Act of 1986 (EPA)
came into force soon after the Bhopal Gas Tragedy
and is considered an umbrella legislation as it filled
many lacunae in the existing legislations.
• The EPA is also an umbrella act because it provides
the framework to the central government to make
the coordination between different states as well
as the central authorities using different acts, such as
Water Act.
M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 50
Chapter 9
• The main emphasis is given to ‘environment’, defined
to include water, air and land, and the inter-rela-
tionships which exist among water, air and land and
human beings and other living creatures, plants,
microorganisms and property.
• It defines environmental pollution as ‘hazardous
substances’ including any substance or preparation,
which may cause harm to human beings, other living
creatures, plants, microorganisms, property or the
environment.
The main provisions of this act are given as follows:
1. The Act empowers the centre to ‘take all such mea-
sures as it deems necessary’.
2. By virtue of this Act, the central government has armed
itself with considerable powers such as coordination of
action by state, planning and execution of nationwide
programmes, laying down environmental quality
standards, restrictions on the location of India’s and
authority to issue direct orders.
3. The Act explicitly prohibits discharges of environ-
mental pollutants in excess of prescribed regulatory
standards.
4. There is also a specific prohibition against handling
hazardous substances except those in compliance
with regulatory procedures and standards.
5. The Act provides provision for penalties. For each fail-
ure or contravention, the punishment includes a prison
term for up to 5 years or fine up to `1 lakh, or both.
6. The Act imposed an additional fine of up to `5000 for
every day of continuing violation.
7. If a failure or contravention occurs for more than
1 year, the offender may be punished with imprison-
ment, which may be extended to 7 years.
8. Section 19 provides that any person, in addition to
authorized government officials, may file a complaint
with a court alleging an offence under the Act.
9. This ‘Citizens’ Suit’ provision requires that the per-
son has to give a notice of not less than 60 days
of the alleged offence of pollution to the central
­government.
The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC)
is the apex body constituted in the MoEF under ‘Rules
for Manufacture, Use, Import, Export and Storage of
Hazardous Microorganisms/Genetically Engineered
Organisms or Cells, 1989’, under the EPA 1986. The dif-
ferent genetic engineering committees are also set up
under the Act. Presently they are six in number.
Stopover
1. The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee is con-
stituted under the
(a) Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006
(b) Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration
and Protection) Act, 1999
(c) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
(d) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
The correct option is (c).
23/12/22 8:01 PM
 People, Development and Environment
2. Which of the following gases are considered for the
calculation of ‘Air Quality Index’?
1. Carbon dioxide
2. Carbon monoxide
3. Nitrogen dioxide
4. Sulphur dioxide
5. Methane
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
The correct option is (b).
India’s National Action Plan On
Climate Change (NAPCC)
National Action Plan on Climate Change was launched in
2008 by the Prime Minister’s Council on Climate Change.
The following are the main principles of the NAPCC:
1. The use of technologies for inclusive and sustainable
development.
2. Inclusion of Local governments, public–private part-
nerships and civil society action.
3. Better understanding of climate change, adapta-
tion and mitigation, energy efficiency and natural
resource conservation.
4. Linked with national growth.
5. Devising efficient and cost-effective strategies for
demand-side management.
6. Welcoming international cooperation approach.
The eight missions have been discussed first. Thereafter
National Mission on Seabuckthorn, National Mission
on Bio-energy, National Mission on Hydrogen, National
Mission on Ammonia have been discussed.
N ational Solar Mission (NSM)
This was started in January 2010, with the objective
of establishing India as a global leader in solar energy,
by creating the policy conditions for solar technology
diffusion across the country as quickly as possible.
The initial target of NSM was to install 20 GW solar power
by 2022, that was later upscaled to 100 GW in early 2015.
The Mission adopts a three-phase approach, Phase 1
(up to 2012–13), Phase 2 (2013–17) and Phase 3 (2017–
22). India wants to set up an enabling environment for
solar technology penetration in the country both at a cen-
tralized and decentralized level.
N ational Mission for Enhanced E nergy
E fficiency (NMEEE)
This mission was started in 2011.
This aims to strengthen the market for energy effi-
ciency by creating useful regulatory and policy regime
and has envisaged fostering innovative and sustainable
business models to the energy efficiency sector.
M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 51
9.51
NMEEE has four initiatives:
• Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT)
• Market Transformation for Energy Efficiency (MTEE)
• Energy Efficiency Financing Platform (EEFP)
• Framework for Energy Efficient Economic Develop-
ment (FEEED)
National Mission on Sustainable Habitat
(NMSH)
This was approved in June 2010. The key deliverables of
the Mission include:
• The development of standards for robust development
strategies and addressing climate change related con-
cerns
• The preparation of city development plans that
address adaptation and mitigation concerns
• The development of plans which take care of long-
term, energy efficient and cost effective transport
planning
• Capacity building for undertaking activities relevant
to the Mission
National Water Mission (NWM)
This mission helps to conserve water, minimize wastage
and ensure more equitable distribution both across and
within states. We need to have assessment of the water
related issues. The Mission wants to increase the water
use efficiency by 20 per cent through regulatory mecha-
nisms with differential entitlements and pricing. The
water needs of urban areas are to be taken care of through
recycling of waste water. New technologies should be
adopted such as for low temperature desalination tech-
nologies that allow for the use of ocean water.
National Mission for sustaining the
Himalayan Eco -system (NMSHE)
This particular mission sets the goal to prevent melting
of the Himalayan glaciers and to protect biodiversity in
the Himalayan region. There should be Wildlife conser-
vation and protection. We need four capacities - Human
and knowledge capacities, Institutional capacities, Policy
based governance, and self-learning.
National Mission for a Green I ndia
This mission was made a Centrally Sponsored Scheme.
Greening is meant to enhance ecosystem services such as
carbon sequestration (carbon sinks) and storage (in forests
and other ecosystems), hydrological services and biodiver-
sity; as well as other provisioning services such as fuel, fod-
der, small timber and non- timber forest products (NTFPs).
National Mission for Sustainable
Agriculture (NMSA)
NMSA was implemented in the year 2014-15. This
intends to make agriculture more productive, sustainable,
23/12/22 8:01 PM
 9.52
remunerative and climate resilient. Government wants to
promote location specific integrated /composite farming
systems; soil and moisture conservation measures; com-
prehensive soil health management; efficient water man-
agement practices and mainstreaming rain-fed technolo-
gies. There are practices such as
1. Farm Water Management (FWM)
2. Per Drop More Crop (PDMC) that is component of
Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY)
3. Soil Health Management (SHM) that aims at promot-
ing Integrated Nutrient Management (INM) through
judicious use of chemical fertilizers including second-
ary and micro nutrients, along with organic manures
and bio-fertilizers.
N ational Mission on Strategic Knowledge
for C limate C hange (NMSKCC)
This mission seeks to build a vibrant and dynamic
knowledge system that would inform and support
national action for responding effectively to the objective
of ecologically sustainable development.
The additional missions have been discussed below.
N ational Mission on Sea Buckthorn
The sea buckthorn plant is popularly known as Leh
Berries, as well as ‘Wonder Plant’ and ‘Ladakh Gold’. It has
the following properties:
1. It has numerous medicinal and nutritional properties,
and it also helps in soil conservation and nitrogen
­fixation.
2. It is hardy, drought resistant and tolerant to extreme
temperatures, from –43ºC to +40ºC.
3. The plant has an extensive root system, which can fix
atmospheric nitrogen, making it ideal for controlling
soil erosion and preventing desertification.
The MoEF and DRDO have launched a major national
initiative for sea buckthorn cultivation in the high-­
altitude, cold desert ecosystems. The initiative is one
of many conservation measures for fragile high-altitude
­ecosystems.
This initiative is a part of Sub-Mission on Cold Desert
Ecosystems under the Green India Mission, which is a
part of the NAPCC.
N ational Bio-Energy Mission
The union government is in the process of preparing a
National Bio-Energy Mission to boost power generation
from biomass, a renewable energy source abundantly
available in India.
This national mission will aim at improving energy
efficiency in traditional biomass-consuming industries
that seek to develop a bio-energy city project and provide
logistics support to biomass processing units.
It also proposes a GIS-based National Biomass
Resource Atlas to map potential biomass regions in the
country. According to the estimates, biomass from agro
M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 52
Chapter 9
and agro-industrial residue can potentially generate
25,000 MW of power in India.
National Hydrogen Mission and Ammonia
Mission
This mission was started in August, 2021. The main objec-
tive is to make India self-reliant in energy production by
the year 2047 (when India completes 100 years of inde-
pendence).
Green hydrogen can be made by splitting water mol-
ecules into oxygen and water. India has set a target of 5
million tonnes of green hydrogen by 2030. Hydrogen and
Ammonia are envisaged to be the future fuels of India to
replace fossil fuels.
Pure hydrogen and hydrogen mixed with natural gas
(HYTHANE) have been used effectively to power automo-
biles. Hydrogen can be obtained from water, natural gas,
coal, sewage, coal gas etc.
Hydrogen has high energy content. This can be used
either directly in IC engines or through fuel cells for
production of motive power and electricity. There is no
pollutant gas emission such as CO2 in Hydrogen powered
vehicles, this will reduce global warming trends.
The one limitation of hydrogen is that it has negative
net energy. It means it takes more energy to produce than
it contains.
Green Ammonia is a chemical that is used mainly
in the manufacture of nitrogenous fertilizers, ‘carbon-
neutral’ fertilizer products, thus food value chain is
decarbonised. This has the potential as a future climate-
neutral shipping fuel. This can be put to other uses too,
such as to run engines.
The green ammonia can be made by using hydrogen
from water electrolysis and nitrogen separated from the
air. Then they are fed into the Haber process.
Green ammonia production helps in making renew-
able energy sources such as hydro-electric, solar power or
wind turbines.
Indian Network on Climate
Change Assessment and NATCOM
It was launched by the Ministry of Environment and
Forest in an effort to promote domestic research on cli-
mate change. The reports are prepared by the Indian
Network for Climate Change Assessment (INCCA). India’s
NATCOM has been initiated in 2002 that is funded by the
Global Environment Facility (GEF).
Montreal Protocol
This protocol was finalised in 1987. This agreement
protects the stratospheric ozone layer by phasing out
the production and consumption of ozone depleting
substances (ODS). This protocol called for an action to
phase out the production and consumption of ODS, such
as CFCs and halons.
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 People, Development and Environment
The stratospheric ozone layer filters out harmful UV
radiation. This radiation can increase prevalence of skin
cancer and cataracts; reduced agricultural productivity
and also cause the disruption of marine ecosystems.
Kigali Agreement: Kigali is the capital of Rwanda. In
2016, there was an amendment to Montreal Protocol.
The Kigali Amendment aims for the phase-down of hydro-
fluorocarbons (HFCs) by cutting their production and
consumption. Given their zero impact on the depletion of
the ozone layer, HFCs are currently used as replacements
of hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs) and chlorofluoro-
carbons (CFCs), however they are powerful greenhouse
gases. This their phaseout can result in reducing global
warming. The goal is to achieve over 80% reduction in
HFC consumption by 2047. The impact of the amendment
will avoid up to 0.5 °C increase in global temperature by
the end of the century.
Rio Summit
Climate change is real. The UNCED started a conference
Earth Summit that was held at Rio de Janeiro, Brazil,
in the year 1992. The main objective was to reconcile
worldwide economic development with protection of
the environment. This Rio Summit was the largest gath-
ering of world leaders. There were many treaties and
other documents signed at the c­ onference:
1. The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) is a
binding treaty that requires nations to take invento-
ries of their plants and wild animals and protect their
endangered species.
2. The UNFCCC or Global Warming Convention is a
binding treaty that requires nations to reduce their
emission of carbon dioxide, methane and other
GHG, though the treaty had not set any binding tar-
gets for emission reductions. Such targets were set in
Kyoto Protocol (1997). The Paris Agreement on cli-
mate change issues was signed in 2015 (Fig. 9.23).
3. The Declaration on Environment and Development,
or Rio Declaration, laid down 27 broad, non-
binding principles for environmentally sound devel-
opment. Agenda 21 outlined the global strategies for
cleaning up the environment and encouraging envi-
ronmentally sound development.
4. There was non-binding Statement of Principles on
Forests for tropical region.
There were some disputes during the Earth Summit
between the wealthy industrialized nations of the North
and the poorer developing countries of the South.
In general, the countries of the South were reluc-
tant to hamper their economic growth with the envi-
ronmental restrictions urged upon them by the North
unless they received increased Northern financial aid,
which they claimed would help make environmentally
sound growth possible. Every year a meeting is held in
the form of Conference of the Parties (COP).
Benchmarking is the setting up of emission reduction
commitment as measured against a particular base year.
M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 53
9.53
Conferences of the Parties
Since the UNFCCC entered into force, parties have been
meeting annually in COPs to assess the progress in dealing
with climatic changes. The meeting is held every year from
the last week of November to the first week of December.
Convention on Biological Diversity
Biodiversity is the variety of plant and animal life that
exists in a particular habitat or world, that includes
animals, plants, fungi, and even microorganisms like
bacteria that make up our natural world. Each of these
species and organisms work together in ecosystems, like
an intricate web, to maintain balance and support life.
UN Environment Protection conducted a meeting of Ad
Hoc Meeting of Experts on biodiversity in 1988. Further
changes were made during Nairobi Conference in 1992
which was a part of sustainable development.
The overall objective of CBD is to ensure sustainable
future, thus it has great concern for human beings. CBD
covers biodiversity at all levels: ecosystems, species and
genetic resources.
CBD was opened for signature in 1992 at the Earth
Summit in Rio de Janeiro, and entering into force in
December 1993.
The convention establishes three main goals:
1. Conservation of biological diversity
2. Sustainable use of its components
3. Fair and equitable sharing of the benefits from the use
of genetic resources
The first CBD was conducted in 1994 in Bahamas.
Biological diversity is often understood in terms of the
wide variety of plants, animals and microorganisms. So
far, about 1.75 million species have been identified, which
are mostly small creatures such as insects. Scientists
reckon that there are actually about 13 million species,
though estimates range from 3 million to 100 million.
Biodiversity also includes genetic differences within
each species. It includes chromosomes, genes and DNA.
1. Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety to the Convention
on Biological Diversity is an international treaty
governing the movements of living modified organ-
isms (LMOs) resulting from modern biotechnology
from one country to another. It was adopted on 29
January 2000 as a supplementary agreement to the
CBD and entered into force on 11 September 2003.
2. Nagoya Protocol: The protocol was adopted in 2010
in Nagoya, Japan. This protocol aims at sharing the
benefits arising from the utilization of genetic resources
in a fair and equitable way, including appropriate
access to genetic resources and appropriate transfer of
relevant technologies.
The Aichi Biodiversity Targets Task Force (ABTTF)
was established to provide a platform for agencies and
organizations to coordinate their activities in support
of implementation of the Strategic Plan for Biodiversity
2011–20.
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 9.54
Zero Extinction, Birdlife, CBD, Convention on Migratory
Species, CITES, Food and Agriculture Organization, Global
Environment Facility, The Nature Conservancy, Ramsar
Convention, International Union for Conservation of Nature
and Natural Resources (IUCN) and UNEP are the different
agencies working with the ABTTF.
CBD is now held once in 2 years. The 2018 UN
Biodiversity Conference was held at Sharm El-Sheikh,
Egypt. There was a meeting of CBD in Hyderabad in 2012.
There was face-to-face meeting for COP 15 in Kunming,
China in April-May 2022.
Kyoto Protocol
The Kyoto Protocol was concluded in 1997 during the third
COP, Japan. The main goal was to fight global warming
by reducing GHG concentrations in the atmosphere to ‘a
level that would prevent dangerous anthropogenic inter-
ference with the climate system’. It established the legally
binding obligations for developed countries to reduce their
GHG emissions. The Kyoto Protocol aimed to cut emis-
sions of GHG across the developed world by about 5% by
2012 compared with 1990 levels. India ratified the Kyoto
Protocol in 2002.
The Kyoto Protocol came into force in February 2005.
The USA never ratified the Kyoto Protocol.
Common But Differentiated Responsibilities (CBDR):
The major feature of this protocol is that it sets binding
targets on industrialised nations including the European
Union. Protocol is based on the principle of common
but differentiated responsibilities (CBDR). The issue
is common for all nations, but it puts the obligation to
reduce current emissions on developed countries on the
basis that they are historically responsible for the cur-
rent levels of GHG in the atmosphere.
CBDR divides countries into two categories:
1. The biggest polluting developed nations such as United
States, United Kingdom, France, Japan and Russia that
have a record of polluting the earth (these countries
must accept certain binding limits on GHG emissions;
under CBDR, they can help in it)
2. Developing nations such as China, India and Brazil
that have been polluting since 1950s
Depending on CBDR, the countries were divided into
Annexe I Nations: developed nations and economies
in transition such as Australia USA, UK, France etc. The
overall aim of targeted reduction of 8% in emission gases
was redistributed among such 43 nations.
Annexe II Nations: Annex II is a subset of Annex I. They
are required to provide financial and technical support
to the EITs (economies in transition) and developing
countries to assist them in reducing their greenhouse gas
emissions.
Non-Annexe II Nations: These nations don’t have any
binding commitments but must take care of carbon emis-
sions. Examples are developing nations such as China,
India, Indonesia etc.
M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 54
Chapter 9
Non-annexure and observer nations.
We need to keep in mind the following three
mechanisms:
1. Clean Development Mechanism (CDM)
2. Emission Trading (cap and trade) (emissions trading
allows nations to sell unused emission units to coun-
tries that have exceeded their targets).
3. Joint Implementation (JI)
In market mechanism, carbon trading and carbon credits.
Under the Kyoto Protocol, there are two commitment
periods:
1. 2008–12
2. 2013–20
Some important COPs
COP 1 - Berlin (Germany) in 1995: First meeting commit-
ment for subsidiary for scientific and technological advice.
COP 3 - Kyoto Japan in 1997 - Kyoto Protocol annexe 1
for binding commitments from developed nations.
COP 8 - New Delhi in 2002 - this called for transfer of
technologies to developing nations to minimize the
impact of climate change on developing nations.
COP 11 - Montreal (Canada) in 2005 - ‘Montreal Action
Plan’ - to extend the life of Kyoto Protocol beyond 2012.
COP 13 - Bali (Indonesia) in 2007: This talked about
in 2007 talked about financial mechanism, going beyond
the existing Global Environmental Facility.
COP 14 - Poznan (Poland) in 2008 to launch the
‘Adaptation Fund’ under the Kyoto Protocol.
COP 15 - Copenhagen (Denmark) in 2009 included the
goal of ‘limiting the maximum global average tempera-
ture increase to no more than 2 degrees Celsius above
preindustrial levels, subject to a review in 2015’.
COP 16 - Cancún (Mexico) COP in 2010 - this asked to
lower that maximum of 2 degree centigrade to 1.5 degrees
in the near future’. It established ‘Green Climate Fund’.
COP 17 - Durban (Denmark) in 2015 - progressed for
creation of Green Climate Fund (GCF) of 100 billion dol-
lars to help poor countries to adopt to climate change.
COP 18 - Doha Commitments in 2012: The Kyoto
Protocol was extended till 2020.
COP 19 was held in Warsaw (Poland) in 2013, COP 20 in
Lima (Peru) in 2014.
COP 21 - Paris (France) - 2015 - this COP resulted in
Paris agreement that has been discussed separately.
Intended Nationally Determined Contribution (INDCs)
were declared subsequently by different nations.
COP 22 was held in Marrakech (Morocco) in 2016, COP
23 in Bonn (Germany) in 2017 and COP 24 in Katowice
(Poland) in 2018.
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 People, Development and Environment
COP 25 was held in Chile with logistical support from
Spain in 2019.
COP 26 was held in Glasgow, Scotland (UK) in November
2021. The new Indian commitments have been discussed
separately.
COP 27: The meeting was held in Sharm El-Sheikh in
November 2022. This COP expresses support to Glasgow’s
COP efforts. There was emergence of ‘Loss and Damage’
concept to see the compensation of the most vulnerable
countries for their losses due to climate-related disasters.
‘Loss and Damage’ refers to impacts of climate change that
cannot be avoided either by mitigation (cutting green-
house gas emissions) or adaptation (modifying practices
to buffer against climate change impacts). The benefits of
adaptation accrues at locally and not at a global level. The
developing nations demand that at least 50% of funds
should be directed towards adaptation process.
Few General Updates:
1. IPCC reports and Climate Vulnerability Index (CVI)
identify India as one of the world’s HOTSPOT.
2. IPCC says that 32-132 millions people to move to extreme
poverty in the next decade due to climate action.
3. Sixth Assessment Report of the IPCC talks about
prompt action.
4. Towards mitigation, India has added 100 GW of
renewable energy (excluding hydro) by 2021. The
total target by 2030 is 450 GW.
5. An additional 3 million hectares have been added
over last ten years. By 2030, India aims at 26 million
hectares. There will be additional carbon sink of 2.5
to 3 billion tonnes.
6. India will produce 5 million tonnes of ‘Green Hydrogen’.
7. FAME (Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of Hybrid
and Electric Vehicles) was started in India in 2019.
8. Govt aims to adopt 100% electrification of Indian
Railways by 2024 and NET Zero by 2030.
9. There will blending of 20% Ethanol in petrol (EBP)
by 2025.
10. PanchAmrit in India talks about electrification using
RE energy sources, Production Linked Incentive
schemes etc.
11. IPCC says that between 2030-50, developing nations
need between $127 and $295 billion annually for
adaptation.
12. There is talk about additional 3 degree centigrades by
end of this century. India needs $1 trillion to $10 tril-
lion till 2070 for NET ZERO emissions.
PM-KUSUM (Pradhan Mantri–Kisan Urja Suraksha
evm Utthan Mahabhiyaan): This was launched in 2019.
The main objective is to obtain 40% energy consumption
from renewable energy sources.
India’s Commitments at 26th COP Meet in Glasgow
1. To get 500 GW Non-fossil energy capacity by 2030.
2. 50 % of its energy requirements from renewable
energy by 2030.
M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 55
9.55
3. The reduction of total projected carbon emissions by
one billion tonnes from now to 2030.
4. The reduction of the carbon intensity of the economy
by 45 per cent by 2030, over 2005 levels.
5. To achieve the target of net zero emissions by 2070.
Carbon T rading
The Kyoto Protocol suggested two ways to reduce pollu-
tion. This shortfall was to be measured in units of carbon
credits. One carbon unit is equal to one ton of carbon.
The first of these methods was that rich countries invest
money in the clean development mechanism or buy car-
bon credits from the market. This means that if compa-
nies in developed countries cannot reduce greenhouse
gas emissions on their own, then buy carbon credits from
developing countries such as India and China.
Carbon credits (or carbon offsets) can be acquired
through afforestation, renewable energy, CO2 sequestra-
tion, methane capture, buying from an exchange (carbon
credits trading), etc.
Carbon Sink
A carbon sink is a natural or artificial storage process in
which carbon is stored in the form of compounds of car-
bon for an indefinite period of time.
The process by which carbon is separated from atmo-
spheric CO2 is called carbon sequestration. The importance
of carbon sinks has increased after the Kyoto Protocol.
Carbon sinks are divided into two categories:
1. Natural Carbon Sink
In the process of photosynthesis by plants, atmo-
spheric CO2 is converted into carbohydrate and CO2 is
also absorbed by the oceans.
2. Artificial Carbon Sink
1. Landfills   2. Carbon Capture and Storage
Carbon Sequestration
Carbon sequestration is a method of capturing atmospheric
carbon dioxide (CO2) and storing it for a long time. This
method has the following aspects:
1. Taking CO2 directly from emission sources such as
factory chimneys and storing them underground.
2. Taking up and storing carbon directly from the
atmosphere.
3. Naturally occurring carbon cycle.
Stopover
1. By which year does India hope to reach Net Zero,
according to its commitments at the COP 26 held at
Glasgow in 2021?
(a) 2030
(b) 2050
(c) 2070
(d) 2100
The correct answer is (c).
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 9.56
2. Which of the following statements regarding ‘Green
Climate Fund’ is/are correct?
1. It is intended to assist the developing countries
in adaptation and mitigation practices to counter
climate change.
2. It is founded under the aegis of UNEP, OECD,
Asian Development Bank and World Bank
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
The correct option is (a).
Paris Agreement
The framework under Paris Agreement is given as under.
1. Technology framework
2. Capacity-building framework
3. Transparency framework
The Kyoto Protocol is set to expire in 2020. The Paris
Agreement deals with what should be done in this decade
and coming decade. The text of the agreement includes
a provision requiring developed countries to send $100
billion annually to their developing counterparts begin-
ning in 2020. That figure will be a ‘floor’ that is expected
to increase with time.
On 5 October 2016, the threshold for entry into force
of the Paris Agreement was achieved.
During earlier deals for climate change, there were
­targets set by the UNFCCC that the COP was not able to
adhere to. So a new mechanism was set in place to deal
with such situation.
In 2015, the Paris Agreement was signed as an inter-
national agreement with an aim to reduce global GHG
and thus, it deals with the climate change. There are
29 articles in the agreement. The main aim of the Paris
Agreement is to keep the global temperature rise this
century well below 2°C above the pre-industrial level.
There have to be efforts to limit the temperature increase
even further to 1.5°C. In French, the Paris Agreement is
known as L’accord de Paris.
It talks about limiting the amount of GHG emitted
by human activity to the same levels that trees, soil and
oceans can absorb naturally, beginning at some point
between 2050 and 2100. It also mentions the need to
review each country’s contribution to cutting emissions
every 5 years so they scale up to the challenge.
The rich nations should help poorer nations by pro-
viding ‘climate finance’ to adapt to climate change and
switch to renewable energy.
The Paris Agreement has a ‘bottom-up’ structure. The
agreement is binding in some elements such as reporting
requirements, while leaving other aspects of the deal such
as the setting of emissions targets for any individual coun-
try as non-binding.
The Paris Agreement comes under the broad umbrella
of the UNFCCC. The UNFCCC is a convention held in 1992
M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 56
Chapter 9
to combat climate change. The Kyoto Protocol (1997)
was another major international commitment under the
UNFCCC.
Intended Nationally Determined
Contributions (INDCs)
The Paris Agreement requires all parties to put forward
their best efforts ‘voluntarily’ through ‘INDCs’ and also to
strengthen these efforts in the years ahead.
India’s Intended Nationally Determined
Contribution: At a Glance
The INDC proposals are on the following:
• (a) Sustainable Lifestyles, (b) Cleaner economic
development, (c) Reducing emission intensity of
gross domestic product (GDP), (d) Increasing the
share of non–fossil fuel–based electricity, (e) Enhanc-
ing carbon sink (forest), (f) Adaptation, (g) Mobiliz-
ing finance, (h) Technology transfer and capacity
Some of the salient points of the INDC are as follows:
• To put forward and further propagate a healthy and
sustainable way of living based on traditions and val-
ues of conservation and moderation
• To adopt a climate-friendly and a cleaner path than
the one followed hitherto by others at corresponding
level of economic development
• To reduce the emissions intensity of its GDP by
33–35% by 2030 from the 2005 level
• To achieve about 40% cumulative electric power
installed capacity from non–fossil fuel–based energy
resources by 2030, with the help of transfer of tech-
nology and low-cost international finance, including
Green Climate Fund
• To create an additional carbon sink of 2.5–3 billion
tons of CO2 equivalent through additional forest and
tree cover by 2030
• To better adapt to climate change by enhancing
investments in development programmes in sec-
tors vulnerable to climate change, particularly
agriculture, water resources, Himalayan region,
coastal regions, health and disaster management
• To mobilize domestic and new and additional funds
from developed countries to implement the above
mitigation and adaptation actions in view of the
resource required and the resource gap
• To build capacities, create domestic framework and
international architecture for quick diffusion of
cutting-edge climate technology in India and for joint
collaborative R&D for such future technologies
International Solar Alliance (ISA)
At COP 21, as part of its INDC, India had committed to
achieving 40% of its installed electricity capacity from non-
fossil energy sources by 2030. The country has achieved
this target in November 2021 itself.
The ISA consists of 121 countries. It consists many of
those countries that are located between the Tropic of
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 People, Development and Environment 9.57

TARGETS FOR PARIS AGREEMENT

India China USA EU (28)

Emission Emission intensity of Absolute Absolute
intensity of GDP GDP 60–65% below emissions emissions
33–35% below 2005 levels by 2030. 26–28% 40%
2005 levels by Peak emissions below below
2030, power around 2030. Non- 2005 1990
capacity to be fossil fuel to be 20% levels by levels by
40% non-fossil of primary energy 2025 2030
fuel-based consumption by 2030

Figure 9.23 Targets for Paris Agreement

Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn. These countries are

located at the shortest distance from the sun, and that is
why solar energy is available in these quantities through-
out the year. The ISA has set a target of 1 TW of solar
energy by 2030.
The French Development Agency will allocate
€300 million to developing solar energy over the next
5 years in order to finance the initial projects.
The following are the main objectives of the ISA:
1. The purpose of the ISA is to bring such countries
(which are located between the Tropics of Cancer and
Capricorn) on a platform that supports clean energy,
sustainable environment, clean public transport and
clean climate.
2. This alliance wants to overcome the obstacles in the
way of promoting solar energy.
3. The ISA will promote the development and use of
solar energy in order to provide energy security to
present and future generations. Its goal is to generate
1 TW (1000 GW) of solar power by 2030.
4. The establishment of the ISA will motivate other
countries of the world to increase the production
and consumption of solar energy for sustainable
development.
i ndia ’ S contribution in i nternationaL SoLar
aLLiance
The ISA has its secretariat in India. It will increase the
stature of India at the international level. Our stated
objective is ‘India aims to produce 100 gigawatt solar
energy (which will be one­tenth of ISA’s target) by
2022’. India will produce 175 GW of electricity from
renewable sources.
The Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency
(IREDA) and Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI)
announced contribution of US$ 1 million each to the ISA
corpus fund.
India has kept a target of 450 GW of power genera-
tion capacity would come from renewables like solar and
wind by 2030. Besides 60 GW would come from hydro-
electric power.
Stopover
In which of the following cities has the headquarter of
the International Solar Alliance been set up?
(a) Gurugram
(b) New Delhi
(c) Bengaluru
(d) Chennai
The correct option is (a).
Natural Resources—Biodiversity
Biodiversity is the number of living organisms (both
plants and animals) present in an ecosystem. Any loss
in species in the food chain means breaking a link in the
chain, which in turn affects all those who benefit from
the chain. The diversity can be divided as follows:
1. Genetic Diversity: It refers to variation of genes in
species that are from a single population.
2. Species Diversity: It is the most basic way to keep an
account of biodiversity as it includes all forms of life,
from single-cell organisms, such as amoeba and virus,
to multicellular organisms, such as plants and animals.
3. Ecosystem Diversity: It differentiates between dif-
ferent habitats, ecological processes and ecosystems
in which the species exist. This can be a forest ecosys-
tem, marine ecosystem, desert ecosystem and so on.
4. Endemic Species: Endemic species are likely to
develop on biologically isolated areas such as islands.
Due to their geographical isolation, endemics can
easily become endangered or extinct if their habitat
changes, not only due to human actions but also due
to the introduction of new organisms. The opposite of
endemic species is cosmopolitan species.
India is one of the richest countries in the world in terms
of biodiversity. Due to anthropogenic activities, many spe-
cies have lost their habitat and even become extinct. The
IUCN has categorized wild flora and fauna into eight cate-
gories (known as the Red List). This includes the following:
1. Extinct
2. Extinct in wild

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 9.58 Chapter 9

3. Critically endangered conServation oF biodiverSity

4. Endangered
5. Vulnerable
6. Lower-risk
7. Data-deficient
8. Not evaluated
Schedule I of Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, defines
endangered species in a formal manner. So far, 38 species
of birds, 18 of amphibians and reptiles, and 81 of mam-
mals have been labelled as endangered. There are 47 criti-
cally endangered species in India.
bioLogicaL hotSpotS in i ndia
A biodiversity hotspot is a biogeographical region with a
significant reservoir of biodiversity that is under threat
from humans. India is home to 7.31% species of fauna
and 10.78% species of flora. Among the 34 hotspots
of the world, 2 are located in India and then extend-
ing to the neighbouring countries. These are Eastern
Himalayas and Western Ghats (and Sri Lanka). Eastern
Himalayas is home to 163 globally threatened spe-
cies including Asian elephants, one-horned rhinoceros
(Rhinoceros unicornis), wild water buffalos and panthers
and tigers. Earlier, Eastern Himalayas was clubbed with
Indo-Burma biodiversity hotspot. The Agasthyamalai
Hills in Western Ghats is home to the highest level of
plant biodiversity.
The process of conservation can be divided into two types:
1. In Situ Conservation: When conservation is attempted
at the natural habitat of the species, by creating
national parks, sanctuaries and biosphere reserves, it
is called in situ conservation.
2. Ex Situ Conservation: This is done in case of com-
plete degradation of natural habitat. The endan-
gered species is kept under total human supervision,
such as in zoos, botanical gardens and seed banks.
Manas National Park has been declared a world heri-
tage site. The other world heritage sites (natural) in
India are Kaziranga National Park (Assam), Manas
Wildlife Sanctuary (Assam), Keoladeo National Park
(Rajasthan), Sundarbans National Park (West Bengal)
and Nanda Devi National Park (Uttar Pradesh). These
world heritage sites are recognized by UNESCO.
There are 27 tiger reserves in India under Project
Tiger. Other prominent reserves are Bandipur
(Karnataka), Corbett (Uttaranchal), Kanha (Madhya
Pradesh), Ranthambore and Sariska (Rajasthan) and
Sundarbans (West Bengal).
bioSphere reServeS
Biosphere reserves protect larger areas of natural habitat in
comparison to national parks or animal sanctuaries. They

Concept Box
concept oF t hreatened SpecieS
Threatened species (T)
These species are likely to become extinct if immediate steps are not taken to ensure that they have proper food,
proper habitat, and protection from predators and exotic species so that they are able to realize their biotic potential.
A record of threatened species of plants and animals is maintained by the International Union for Conservation
of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN), Morges, Switzerland. It is called the Red Data Book. For conservation
purpose, the following four criteria have been used for this categorization:
1. Distribution: Present, past, continuous or discontinuous distribution, area and degree of decline, if available
2. Population: Decline in population in course of time
3. Natural habitat: Abundance and quality
4. Importance: Potential value and biology of the species (the IUCN has identified four categories of threatened
species)
Endangered species (E)
These are threatened species or taxa that are in danger of extinction if the current causal factors continue to operate.
Examples: Lion-tailed macaque (Macaca silenus) and Asiatic wild ass (Asinus hemionus Khur).
Vulnerable species (V)
Vulnerable species or taxa have sufficient population at present, but at the same time, they deplete fast (hence,
depleted species), so they are likely to enter the category of endangered species if the factors bringing about deple-
tion are allowed to continue.
Examples: Golden langur (Presbytis geei) and leopard cat (Felis bengalensis).
Rare species (R)
The populations of species or taxa are small, either localized or thinly scattered.
Examples: Hawaiian monk seal (Monachus schauinslandi) and slow loris (Nycticebus coucang).

M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 58 23/12/22 8:01 PM

 People, Development and Environment 9.59

Table 9.8 List of Biosphere Reserves of India as per Man and Biosphere (MAB) List
S. No. Year Name State Type Key Fauna
1 2008 Great Rann of Kutch Gujarat Desert Indian wild ass
2 1989 Gulf of Mannar Tamil Nadu Coasts Dugong or sea cow
3 1989 Sundarbans West Bengal Gangetic Delta Royal Bengal tiger
4 2009 Cold Desert Himachal Pradesh Western Himalayas Snow leopard
5 1988 Nanda Devi Uttarakhand Western Himalayas NA
6 1986 Nilgiri Biosphere Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Western Ghats Nilgiri tahr, lion-tailed
Reserve Karnataka macaque
7 1998 Dihang-Dibang Arunachal Pradesh Eastern Himalaya NA
8 1999 Pachmarhi Madhya Pradesh Semi-arid Giant squirrel, flying
Biosphere Reserve squirrel
9 2010 Seshachalam Hills Andhra Pradesh Eastern Ghats NA
10 1994 Simlipal Odisha Deccan Peninsula Gaur, Royal Bengal
tiger, sild elephant
11 2005 Achanakmar- Madhya Pradesh, Maikal Hills NA
Amarkantak Chhattisgarh
12 1989 Manas Assam East Himalayas Golden langur, red panda
13 2000 Khangchendzonga Sikkim East Himalayas Snow leopard, red panda
14 2001 Agasthyamalai Kerala, Tamil Nadu Western Ghats Nilgiri tahr, elephants
Biosphere Reserve
15 1989 Great Nicobar Andaman and Nicobar Islands Saltwater crocodile
Biosphere Reserve Islands
16 1988 Nokrek Meghalaya East Himalayas Red panda
17 1997 Dibru-Saikhowa Assam East Himalayas Golden langur
18 2011 Panna Madhya Pradesh Ken river Tiger, chital, chinkara,
sambhar and sloth bear
1. Twelve (given in bold) of the eighteen biosphere reserves given above are a part of the World Network of Biosphere Reserves,
based on the UNESCO Man and the Biosphere (MAB) Programme list.
2. Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve has been added in World Network of Biosphere Reserves (UNESCO’s MAB) in March 2016.
Source: wikipedia.com.

are the areas of t­errestrial and coastal ecosystems that
promote the conservation of biodiversity with its sustainable
use. UNESCO’s MAB was launched in 1971. There are
over 500 biosphere reserves across the globe in more
than 100 countries. National parks, wildlife sanctuaries,
conservation reserves and community reserves are the four
types of protected areas under the Wildlife Protection Act,
1972. Biosphere reserves are considered akin to national
parks and they are usually larger than national parks. The
primary criteria for the selection of biosphere reserves are
effective protection and minimally disturbed core area. The
secondary criteria include the following:
1. Having rare and endangered species
2. Diversity of soil and microclimatic conditions
3. Preservation of tribal and rural life
As on 1 April 2016, the total number of biosphere
reserves in India is 18. Ten of these are a part of UNESCO’s
MAB Programme list (Table 9.9).
Biosphere reserves are large areas of biodiversity where
flora and fauna are protected. They roughly correspond to
IUCN Category V Protected areas. The Indian government
has established 18 Biosphere Reserves of India, which
protect larger areas of natural habitat (as compared to a
national park or wildlife sanctuary).
Biosphere reserves of India often include one or more
national parks or sanctuaries, along with buffer zones that
are open to some economic uses. Protection is granted not
only to the flora and fauna of the protected region but
also to the human communities who inhabit these regions
and their ways of life.

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 9.60 Chapter 9

Concept Box
Important Legislations and Terms Relating to Environment, Pollution, Forests and Wildlife
1. National Green Tribunal (NGT): The tribunal was set on 18 October 2010 under the NGT Act, 2010, for effec-
tive and expeditious disposal of cases related to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other
natural resources. It is a specialized body equipped with the necessary expertise to handle environmental dis-
putes involving multidisciplinary issues.
2. Environment Impact Assessment (EIA): It is a widely recognized study to assess the environmental impact of
development projects. It is basically a cost–benefit analysis in the context of the environment. Environmental risk
assessment (ERA) is a fact-finding stage, in which EIA indicates the potential hazards. In India, the Department
of Environment and National Council of Environmental Planning (NCEP) have adopted a preliminary procedure
to prepare EIA.
3. Precautionary Principle: The precautionary principle is a moral and political principle, which aims to prevent
any action that can cause damage to the public or society at large. For example, the Supreme Court of India
ordered the shifting of industries outside Delhi a few years back. In the Earth Summit held at Rio de Janeiro in
1992, a precautionary approach was codified for the first time at a global level, to protect the environment in the
form of Principle 15 of Agenda 21. It emphasizes that every state should apply the principle according to its capa-
bilities, and lack of full scientific knowledge should not be used as a reason for not taking action. This is necessary
to check the possibility of any irreversible damage to the environment. There are two popular terms associated
with precautionary principle:
(a) Polluter Pays Principle (PPP): This idea first originated in the Organization for Economic Cooperation and
Development, in which pollution control costs are to be financed by the polluter alone.
(b) Beneficiary Pays Principle (BPP): It suggests that funding for environmental improvement should be
obtained from its beneficiaries. This method of financing would generate larger revenue for the government
as the rich are willing and capable of paying more for environmental enrichment. Imposing carbon tax is an
example.
4. ISO 14000: After the success of ISO 9000 Quality Management System, which focuses on continual improve-
ment of the processes and quality of goods and services, the International Organization for Standardization
(ISO) introduced ISO 14000 series of Environmental Management System in 1996. It specifically deals with
environmental aspects of processes in products and services.
Few Important International Conventions on Environment and Biodiversity
Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), 1973: The objec-
tive is to control international commercial trade in endangered species or products derived from them.
Carbon space refers to the amount of carbon that can be released into the atmosphere by 2100 so that the rise in
global temperature can be capped at 2°C. It is set at 1000 gigatons of carbon dioxide equivalent (GtCO2eq).
Basel Convention, 1989: The main aim is to minimize transboundary movement of hazardous wastes.
Nagoya Protocol: It is a supplementary agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity. The Nagoya Protocol
on Access and Benefit Sharing (ABS) was adopted on 29 October 2010 in Nagoya, Japan.
Stockholm Convention: It was adopted in 2001 and enforced in 2004. It deals with reducing and eliminating the
production and use of persistent organic pollutants.
Ramsar Convention: It was signed in the Iranian city of Ramsar in 1971 and enforced in 1975. It deals with conser-
vation and use of wetlands.
A Snap Shot of Main Environmental Movements in India
Chipko Movement: It was started in 1973 in Chamoli District of Uttarakhand. It entailed embracing trees on seeing
an axe coming near the tree to cut it. Its main leader was Shri Sunderlal Bahuguna.
Appiko Movement: It was started in 1983 in the villages of Western Ghats in Uttar Kannada region of Karnataka.
The main purpose was to prevent commercial felling of trees. It became a symbol for people’s power for their rights
of natural resources with regard to the state.
Tehri Dam Movement: This movement was spearheaded by Baba Amte against the submergence of land by con-
struction of dams and population displacement among other environmental concerns. It started in the 1970s and
continued until a decade ago.
Save Silent Valley Movement: It was started in Palakkad district of Kerala in 1973 to save the Silent Valley Reserve
Forest from being flooded by a hydroelectric project. The valley was declared as Silent Valley National Park in 1985.

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 People, Development and Environment 9.61

Narmada Bachao Andolan: It was launched to protect the population from the adverse effects of Narmada Valley
Project, that is two megaprojects, Sardar Sarovar Project and Narmada Sagar Project in Madhya Pradesh. This inter-
state project involving Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra and Gujarat has been constructed on the Narmada River. Its
main leader is Medha Patkar. The main issues involved were related to displacement of population and submerging
of forest land.
Taj Trapezium Zone: Sulphur dioxide gas released by Mathura Oil Refinery and other industries (combined with
oxygen and moisture to form sulphuric acid) caused extensive damage to the Taj marbles. It corroded the marble and
formed fungus, also referred to as ‘marble cancer’.
Key Institutions for Environment in India
1. Bombay Natural History Society, Mumbai
2. World Wide Fund for Nature-India, New Delhi
3. Centre for Science and Environment, New Delhi
4. CPR Environmental Education Centre, Chennai
5. Centre for Environment Education (CEE), Ahmedabad
6. The Botanical Survey of India (BSI), Kolkata
7. Zoological Survey of India (ZSI), Kolkata
8. National Environment Engineering Research Institute, Nagpur

Important Days Linked with Environment

Dates Important Days Dates Important Days

30 January World Leprosy Day 27 June International Diabetes Day
2 February World Wetlands Day 11 July World Population Day
25 February World Sustainable Energy Day 28 July World Nature Conservation Day
20 March World Sparrow Day 29 July World Tiger Day
21 March World Forestry Day 6 August Hiroshima Day
22 March World Water Day 10 August World Biofuel Day
22 April World Earth Day 3 October World Nature Day
25 April World Malaria Day 4 October World Animal Day
31 May World No Tobacco Day 2 December World Pollution Prevention Day
5 June World Environment Day 14 December World Energy Day
8 June World Oceans Day 29 December International Biodiversity Day

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 9.62
A s s e s s Yo u r L e a r n i n g
CONCEPT OF PEOPLE, MDG, SDG, HuMAN-ENvIRONMENT INTERACTION
1. A population consists of a group of organisms
(a) of the same species living in a specific geographic
area that have the potential to interbreed.
(b) residing in a particular geographic area.
(c) living in a specific geographic locale.
(d) of the same species.
2. The conservation of environment requires
(a) Maintenance of biodiversity
(b) Maintenance of gaseous and material cycles
(c) Maintenance of ecological order and natural balance
(d) All of the above
3. Assertion (A): Microenvironment refers to the imme-
diate local surrounding of the organism and macro
environment refers to all the physical and biotic con-
ditions that surround the organism externally.
Reason (R): Environment refers to both abiotic (phys-
ical or non-living) and biotic (living) environment.
Which of the following is the correct answer?
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
4. Statement 1: In the study of man–environment inter-
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
action, the statement of Miss Semple that ‘the humans
are slowly the product of their environment’ is a fact.
Statement 2: A habitat is a particular area inhabited
by plants and animals.
Which of the above statements are true?
(a) Both statements 1 and 2 are true
(b) Only statement 1 is true
(c) Only statement 2 is true
(d) Neither statement 1 nor statement 2 is true.
5. Statement I: The concept of Environmental
Determinism says that environment is determined by
culture and nature.
Statement II: Environmental possibilism believes
that the environment puts limits on people, but it
does not determine how they will behave. Thus, it
can be linked with ‘anthropocene’ age and ‘anthropo-
genic’ activities.
(a) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true
(b) Only statement 1 is true
(c) Only statement 2 is true
(d) Neither statement 1 nor statement 2 is true
6. Statement 1: Autecology that is also known as popu-
lation ecology, is the study of individual organism or
individual species.
M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 62
Chapter 9
Statement 2: Synecology is the study of group of
organisms of different species which are associated
together as a unit in form of a community.
(a) Both statement 1 and 2 are true
(b) Only statement 1 is true
(c) Only statement 2 is true
(d) Neither statement 1 nor statement 2 is true
7. Which of the following are the main features of Earth
Hour?
1. This is organized by World Wildlife Fund.
2. This intends to diversify people to take action on
environmental issues and protect the planet.
3. This was started as the lights were switched off for
a fixed duration in Sydney, Australia in 2007.
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) 1 and 3 are correct
(c) 2 and 3 are correct
(d) All of the above
8. Assertion (A): In a given area, the maximum population
size of the species that the environment can sustain is
called the carrying capacity.
Reason (R): As a population grows in an area, a
population may experience the effects of increased
densities.
Which of the following is the correct answer?
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
9. Assertion (A): As a result of biomagnification, the
secondary consumers will be the most toxic.
Reason (R): The contaminants in biomagnification
may be heavy metals such as mercury, arsenic, pesti-
cides such as polychlorinated biphenyls and DDT.
Which of the following is the correct answer?
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
10. Assertion (A): ‘Ecosystem processes’ are basically
the transfers of energy and materials from one pool
to another which are known to ‘take place at a wide
range of scales’.
Reason (R): An ecosystem consists of all the organ-
isms and the abiotic pools linked with physical envi-
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 People, Development and Environment
ronment with which they interact. The biotic and
abiotic components are linked together through
nutrient cycles and energy flows.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
11. Assertion (A): Autotrophic plants are considered as
producers in a food chain using light, water, carbon
dioxide, or other chemicals.
Reason (R): Autotrophs make use of energy from the
sun to convert water from the soil and carbon dioxide
from the air into a nutrient called glucose.
Which of the following is the correct answer?
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
12. Assertion (A): In the analysis of man–environment
relationship, the man has to watch and assess the situ-
ation and then go ahead with resource utilization
Reason (R): This mainly includes anthropogenic
activities which mean increased concentration of CO2
in the air and thus includes burning of fossil fuels,
deforestation, land-use changes, livestock produc-
tion, waste management, industrial processes, etc.
Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
13. Match the following:
List I List II
A. Troposphere I. Dust particles
B. Stratosphere II. Ozone layer
C. Ionosphere III. Meteors
D. Exosphere IV. Aurora
Codes:
(a) A–I, B–II, C–III, D–IV
(b) A–II, B–I, C–III, D–IV
(c) A–IV, B–II, C–III, D–I
(d) None of the above
14. Statement I: Pyramid of energy is always upright.
This is because during energy transfer between adja-
cent trophic levels, energy is lost in the form of heat.
M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 63
9.63
Statement II: Pyramid of biomass is inverted since
primary producers make up less biomass than pri-
mary consumers. The inverted pyramid of biomass is
seen in a lake or pond ecosystem, as the phytoplank-
ton is less as compared to the small herbivorous fish.
Which of the above statements are true?
(a) Statements 1 and 2 are true
(b) Only statement 1 is true
(c) Only statement 2 is true
(d) Both statements are false.
15. Statement I: Bioaccumulation takes place in a single
organism over the span of its life, resulting in a higher
concentration in older individuals.
Statement II: Biomagnification takes place as chemi-
cals transfer from lower trophic levels to higher tro-
phic levels within a food web, resulting in a higher
concentration at higher trophic levels.
Which of the above statements are true?
(a) Statements 1 and 2 are true
(b) Only statement 1 is true
(c) Only statement 2 is true
(d) Both statements are false.
16. Assertion (A): Cloudy nights are warmer compared
to clear nights (without clouds) during winters.
Reason (R): Clouds permit cold waves from the sky
reaching the earth
Which of the following is the correct answer?
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
17. Assertion (A): The heat is trapped close to Earth’s
surface by mostly natural occurring gases such as
carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide, and water
vapors and synthetic fluorinated gases.
Reason (R): These gases make a sort of blanket
around the Earth, keeping the planet warmer than it
would be without them.
Which of the following is the correct answer?
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
18. Statement 1: Carbon sink is a process or mechanism
that removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.
Statement 2: Oceans are the natural resources are
the main carbon sinks they absorb up to half of the
carbon dioxide due to Phytoplankton.
Statement 3: The largest sink (pollutant receptor) of
the planet is hydrosphere.
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 9.64
(a) Statements 1, 2 and 3 are true
(b) Only statements 1 and 2 are true
(c) Only statements 2 and 3 are true
(d) Only statements 1 and 3 are true
19. Identify the gas from the statements given below:
1. A powerful greenhouse gas is released that accel-
erates the phenomenon of climate change.
2. Wetlands are the largest natural source of that
atmospheric gas in the world.
(a) Carbon dioxide (b) Methane
(c) Water vapours (d) Nitrous oxide
20. Assertion (A): Ocean acidification and negative
impact on corals, algae, shellfish is caused due to
excess of carbon dioxide in sea water.
Reason (R): The natural carbon sinks have a maxi-
mum limit of carbon dioxide absorption.
Which of the following is the correct answer?
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
21. What is the definition of sustainable development?
(a) The growth that satisfies current demands with-
out jeopardising future generations’ ability to ful-
fil their own needs.
(b) Conserve mineral wealth and explore alternative
energy sources while decreasing pollution and
environmental impact.
(c) It is the process of creating land and building proj-
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
ects in such a way that they have a lower environ-
mental effect by enabling them to produce fuel-
efficient self-sufficiency patterns.
(d) All of the above
22. Statement I: The area that matches the most under
‘Sustainable Development Goals’ and ‘Millennium
Development Goals’ is environment.
Statement II: The agenda for sustainable develop-
ment was settled in the year 2012 in UN Conference
through ‘The Future We Want’.
Which of the above statements are true?
(a) Statements 1 and 2 are true
(b) Only statement 1 is true
(c) Only statement 2 is true
(d) Both statements are false.
23. Sustainable development will NOT aim at:
(a) Social economic development which optimizes
the economic and societal benefits available in
the present, without spoiling the likely potential
for similar benefits in the future.
(b) Reasonable and equitable distributed level of eco-
nomic well-being that can be perpetuated continually.
(c) Development that meets the need of the present
without compromising the ability of future gen-
eration to meet their own needs.
M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 64
Chapter 9
(d) Maximizing the present-day benefits through
increased resource consumption.
24. Assertion (A): The Sustainable Development goals
are ‘more universal’ in nature in comparison to Mil-
lennium Development Goals.
Reason (R): The achievement of goals under Sustain-
able Development Goals is no more the case of ‘rich
donors aiding recipients’.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
25. Assertion (A): The goals are supposed to achieve
zero level, for examples, zero hunger or zero prevent-
able child deaths.
Reason (R): The target in the MDGs was to reach
halfway, but the SDGs have been designed for com-
pleting the job.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
26. Statement I: Sustainable development is aimed at
ensuring quality of life to present and future generations.
Statement II: ‘Leave no one behind’ and ‘Endeav-
our to reach the furthest behind first’ are the pledges
(agenda) for ‘Sustainable Goals’.
Which of the above statements are true?
(a) Both statements 1 and 2 are true
(b) Only statement 1 is true
(c) Only statement 2 is true
(d) Both statements are false
27. Which of the following UN commission is responsi-
ble for reviewing progress in the implementation of
Agenda 21 and the Rio Declaration on Environment
and Development?
(a) United Nation Disarmament Commission
(b) United Nations Statistical Commission
(c) United Nations Commission on Sustainable
Development
(d) United Nations Commission on Human Rights
28. NITI Aayog has released the 2019 Sustainable
Development Goals—India Index. The index
evaluates the progress of states and union territories
on social, economic and environmental parameters.
Which of the following states has received the first
rank in 2022?
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Goa
(c) Jammu and Kashmir
(d) Kerala
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 People, Development and Environment 9.65

29. Which of the following statements are true in context that are in terms of zone and their chemical character.
of reports by UNEP in March 2022?
1. India is now behind all south Asian nations except List I List II
Pakistan. (Zone) (Chemical Character)
2. Among states Kerala, Tamil Nadu (along with A. Atmosphere I. Inert gases
Himachal Pradesh) and Goa are the three states
in SDG category. B. Biosphere II. Salt, freshwater, snow
3. Among Union Territories, Chandigarh was ranked and ice
first, followed by Delhi (along with Lakshadweep C. Hydrosphere III. Organic substances
and Puducherry) for the second and Andaman
and Nicobar Islands with third place. D. Lithosphere IV. Light silicates
4. SDG India Index provides us the overall progress
of our nation on the social, economic and envi- Codes:
ronmental status of the nation. (a) A–II, B–III, C–I, D–IV
Codes: (b) A–I, B–III, C–II, D–IV
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (c) A–II, B–I, C–III, D–IV
(b) 2, 3 and 4 (d) A–IV, B–II, C–III, D–I
(c) 1 and 4 34. The earth is often struck by solar eruptions, which
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 comprise energetic particles that are hurled away
30. As per data available in November 2022, which of the from the sun into space. Which of the following state-
following are the correct statements in Maternal Mor- ments reflect the effect on the earth?
tality Rate (MMR)? 1. When these eruptions interact with the magnetic field,
1. MMR refers to deaths of pregnant women or they cause beautiful auroras.
within 42 days of termination of pregnancy 2. They break down radio communication and power
depending upon certain factors. It is calculated supplies.
on per lakh live births cases. 3. They do not affect life support system on the earth.
2. MMR has declined from to 97 during 2018-20,
Codes:
from 103 in 2017-2019 and 130 in 2014-2016.
3. Kerala is the top-ranking state with 19. (a) 1 only
4. West Bengal is the least ranking state with 195. (b) 1 and 2 only
Codes: (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
31. PM-KUSUM Scheme is linked with which of the fol-
lowing Ministry of Government of India?
(a) Ministry of Women and Child Development
(b) Ministry of Education
(c) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
(d) Ministry of Home Affairs
32. Assertion (A): According to IIT-Bombay studies–The
smog holes are fog burn-off taking place in the middle
of morning hours. The temperature within cities is
warmer than surrounding rural areas.
Reason (R): The holes as big as cities are the result of
urban island effect.
Which of the following is the correct answer?
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
33. The structure of the earth’s system affects the environ-
ment in a very complex manner. Match List I with List II
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
35. Statement 1: Beginning from the surface of the earth,
the layers of atmosphere are troposphere, strato-
sphere, ionosphere, exosphere.
Statement 2: Troposphere is the most dynamic layer
of the atmosphere in terms of climatic and weather
conditions.
Statement 3: The ozone gas is present in the strato-
sphere only.
Which of the following statements are true?
(a) Only statements 1 and 2 are true
(b) Only statements 2 and 3 are true
(c) Only statements 1 and 3 are true
(d) Statements 1, 2 and 3 are true.
36. Which of the following statement is true in context of
an ecosystem ?
1. The transition area between two biomes is called
an ecotone.
2. The species which are indigenous to an area are
known as endemic species.
3. The species which are restricted to the transition
area of ecotone and don’t move into either of the
biomes are called as edge species.
4. The species which play a significant role in the func-
tioning of an ecosystem are called keystone species.

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 9.66
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
37. Which of the following fluorinated gases has been
added as the seventh greenhouse gas by the United
Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change?
(a) Hydrofluorocarbons
(b) Perfluorocarbons
(c) Sulphur hexafluoride
(d) Nitrogen trifluoride
38. Consider the following statements in context of com-
parison of Coal Bed Methane and shale gas?
1. Coal bed methane is the PURE methane gas
extracted from coal streams, while shale gas is a
mixture of propane and butane only that can be
extracted from fine grained sedimentary rocks.
2. In India, abundant coal bed methane sources exist
but, so far, no shale gas has been found.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(b) 1 is correct while 2 is incorrect
(c) 1 is incorrect while 2 is correct
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct.
39. Which of the following statements are true in context
of Coalbed Methane (CBM)?
1. CBM is an unconventional source of natural gas
that is now considered as an alternative source for
augmenting India’s energy resource.
2. India has the fifth largest proven coal reserves in
the world and thus holds significant prospects for
exploration and exploitation of CBM.
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
3. The Gondwana sediments of eastern India host
the bulk of India’s coal reserves and all the cur-
rent CBM producing blocks.
(a) Only statements 1 and 2 are true
(b) Only statements 2 and 3 are true
(c) Only statements 1 and 3 are true
(d) Statements 1, 2 and 3 are true
40. The Emissions Gap Report 2022 finds that the world
must cut emissions by the following percentage to
avoid global catastrophe.
(a) 10% (b) 20%
(c) 25% (d) 45%
Pollution, Pollutants and Waste Management
44. The balance in oxygen level is maintained by
(a) Photosynthesis and cellular respiration
(b) Industrial emissions of gases
(c) Release of ozone in upper atmosphere
(d) Photochemical smog
45. Which of the following is a non-vehicular pollutant?
(a) Carbon Monoxide
(b) Chlorofluorocarbon
M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 66
Chapter 9
41. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
(Day) (Context)
A. World Earth Day 1. August 10
B. World Population Day 2. June 5
C. World Environment Day 3. July 11
D. World Biofuel Day 4. April 22
Codes:
(a) A – 4, B – 2, C – 3, D – 1
(b) A – 1, B – 3, C – 2, D – 4
(c) A – 4, B – 3, C – 2, D – 1
(d) A – 4, B – 1 C – 2, D – 3
42. Which of the following statements is true in context of
wetlands?
1. A wetland is a distinct ecosystem that is flooded
by water, either permanently or seasonally, where
oxygen-free processes prevail. A wetland has
the characteristic vegetation of aquatic plants,
adapted to the unique hydric soil.
2. February 2 is celebrated as International Wetlands
Day as the Ramsar Convention was signed on
February 2, 1971.
3. India adds 11 more wetlands to the list of Ramsar
sites to making a total of 100 such sites in India.
4. Wetlands are the largest natural source of methane.
This produces 78% of natural methane emissions.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
43. Which of the following statements is true/ are in con-
text of climate change and global warming?
1. An increase in sea level due to melting of glaciers
and polar ice would indicate a warming in the
average global temperature.
2. The smog that had occurred in London in
December 1952 was called as ‘sulfurous’ smog.
3. Mauna Loa in Hawaii in USA is famous for continuous
monitoring of atmospheric CO2 levels since 1957.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
(c) Suspended Particulate Matter
(d) Sulphur dioxide
46. Identify the rank of nations which emit highest car-
bon dioxide pollution in an increasing order.
(a) India, China, USA
(b) Japan, India, China
(c) India, USA, China
(d) USA, India, China
23/12/22 8:01 PM
 People, Development and Environment 9.67

47. Palau and Qatar are the nations with highest PER 52. Match List-I with List-II for chemical gases and their
CAPITA carbon dioxide emissions. Identify the list impact.
of such nations from the following in an increasing
order. List-I List-II
(a) USA, Russia, Japan, China and India A. Carbon 1. Produced from automobile
(b) India, China, Japan, Russia and USA dioxide engines and their reaction
(c) China, USA, Japan, Russia and India makes photochemical smog.
(d) India, China, USA, Japan and Russia
B. Sulphur 2. Dangerous to human beings at
48. The rank of Greenhouse Gas emissions at a global dioxide high concentrations. They are
level in the decreasing order is responsible for acid rain.
(a) Carbon dioxide, Methane, Sulphur dioxide and
Flourinated gases C. Sulphur 3. Burning of sulphur containing
(b) Flourinated gases, Carbon dioxide, Nitrous oxide, oxide compounds of fossil fuels in
Methane vehicles.
(c) Carbon dioxide, Methane, Nitrous oxide and D. Nitrogen 4. Fossil fuel burning and
Flourinated gases oxide deforestation.
(d) Methane, Nitrous oxide, Carbon dioxide and
Flourinated gases
Codes:
49. Which of the following shows the distribution of
greenhouse gas emissions in India sector wise? (a) A – 1, B – 3, C -2, D – 4
(b) A – 4, B – 2, C -3, D – 1
(c) A – 4, B – 3, C -2, D – 1
List-I List-II (d) A – 1, B – 2, C - 3, D – 4
(Sector) (%age) 53. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about
the methane as a green house gas ?
A. Electricity /Heat 1. 9
(a) Methane is the second most abundant anthropo-
B. Agriculture 2. 21 genic GHG after carbon dioxide
(b) Methane accounts for about 20 percent of global
C. Manufacturing/construction 3. 17
emissions.
D. Transportation 4. 37 (c) Methane is 25 times more potent then carbon
dioxide at trapping heat in the atmosphere
(d) All of the above
(a) A – 1, B – 2, C -3, D – 4

(b) A – 4, B – 2, C -3, D – 1
(c) A – 4, B – 2, C -3, D – 1
(d) A – 2, B – 4, C -3, D – 1
50. The main difference between primary air pollutants
and secondary air pollutants is
(a) Primary pollutants are released directly into
the atmosphere, while the secondary pollut-
ants are formed by chemical reactions in the
atmosphere.
(b) The best example of primary air pollutants is
Carbon dioxide released from burning of coal.
(c) The best example of secondary air pollutant is
Ozone produced in photochemical smog.
(d) All of the above
51. Which of the following statements is/are true about CO2?
(a) CO2 is the most common greenhouse gas that
accounts for about 76% of greenhouse gases.
(b) CO2 is basically a trace gas.
(c) 90% of CO2 comes from the burning of fossil fuels,
namely coal, oil, and natural gas.
(d) All of the above
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
54. Which of the following greenhouse gases is entirely
anthropogenic in origin?
(a) Water vapour
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Chlorofluorocarbons
(d) Methane
55. Normally, temperature decreases with increase in ele-
vation, that is called as normal lapse rate. In cities, suf-
fering from smog such as Delhi, the situation may be
reversed and the normal lapse rate is inverted. Thus, a
temperature inversion is a condition when the air
(a) Near the ground is lighter
(b) Near the ground is cooler than air at the higher
altitudes
(c) Near the ground is hotter than that at higher
altitudes
(d) None of the above
56. The most relevant effect of particulate matter in air on
human health is [November 2020]
(a) Impaired blood formation
(b) Aggravation of respiratory disease
(c) Chest tightness
(d) Headache and rise in blood pressure level

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 9.68 Chapter 9

57. Cigarette smoking is considered to be more pollut- 63. Statement 1: The nitrogen oxides, sulphur oxides
ant than air pollution. Which of the following are the and carbon oxides are primary air pollutants that con-
main factors? tribute to acid deposition.
(a) Cigarette smoking causes cardiovascular disease, Statement 2: Atmospheric pollutants are mainly
cancer, chronic lung disease, diabetes etc. present in Troposphere and lower stratosphere
(b) Cigarette smoking pollutes the system with nico-
tine, nickel, cadmium, heavy metals, plastics and Statement 3: Persistent pollutants remain in environ-
other pollutants. ment for a long time such as pesticides, plastics and
(c) People who do not smoke but are exposed to nuclear waste while non persistent pollutants break
second hand smoke at home or at work increase into simple products such as garbage.
their risk of developing heart disease by 25–30%. (a) Only statements 1 and 2 are true
Second hand smoke is already contaminated. (b) Only statements 2 and 3 are true
(d) All of the above (c) Only statements 1 and 3 are true
58. The most dominant source of benzene emissions in (d) Statement 1, 2 and 3 are true
ambient air is [December 2019] 64. Match the following:
(a) Cement industry
(b) Cigarettes List I List II
(c) Car exhausts (Metal) (Effects)
(d) Paints and varnish A. Chromium I. Thalassaemia
59. An organization or entity receives one carbon credit if
B. Arsenic II. Itai-itai
it is able to avoid emission of
(a) One ton of carbon dioxide or its equivalent C. Cadmium III. Dermatitis
(b) One ton of any greenhouse gas
(c) One ton of hydrocarbon emissions D. Iron IV. Carcinogen
(d) One ton of carbon monoxide Codes:
60. Match List-I with List-II. [October 2020] (a) A–IV, B–III, C–II, D–I
List-I List-II (b) A–IV, B–II, C–III, D–I
(Emitted (Environmental Impact) (c) A–I, B–III, C–II, D–IV
Pollutants) (d) A–I, B–II, C–III, D–IV
65. Statement 1: Industries generating hazardous waste
A. Carbon dioxide I. Formation of acid rain are classified as red.
B. Carbon monoxide II. Toxic and are Statement 2: Intake of lead that is also known anti
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

carcinogenic knocking agent (tetraethyl) may primarily cause

damage to the brain.
C. Nitrogen oxide III. Toxic and can cause
respiratory diseases Statement 3: The chemical responsible for blue baby
syndrome, that is caused by restricted supply of oxy-
D. Benzene and IV. Contribution to global gen to the brain, is linked to nitrates.
hydrocarbons warming as a GHG (a) Only statements 1 and 2 are true
Codes: (b) Only statements 2 and 3 are true
(a) A – IV, B – III, C – I, D- II (c) Only statements 1 and 3 are true
(b) A – IV, B – II, C – I, D- III (d) Statement 1, 2 and 3 are true
(c) A – IV, B – II, C – III, D- I 66. Arrange List II in proper sequence so as to match it
(d) A – I, B – II, C – III, D- IV with List I and choose the correct answer from the
61. Using coal, natural gas or oil for electricity, heat or code given below.  [December 2004]
transportation releases CO2 into the atmosphere. The List I List II
daily CO2 emissions make up the (Activity) (Noise Level [dB])
(a) Carbon footprint
A. Hearing I. 30
(b) Carbon dating
(c) Carbon credit B. Whispering II. 1
(d) None of the above
C. Interference with sleep III. 60
62. With the absorption and decomposition of CO2 in
ocean water beyond desired level, there will be D. Normal talk IV. 30–50
(a) Decrease in temperature
(b) Increase in salinity Codes:
(c) Growth of phytoplanktons (a) A–I, B–II, C–III, D–IV
(d) Rise in sea level (b) A–II, B–I, C–IV, D–III

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 People, Development and Environment 9.69

(c) A–IV, B–II, C–III, D–I 74. The small amount of warming that may set off unstop-
(d) A–III, B–I, C–II, D–IV pable and irreversible changes is termed
67. Global warming during winter becomes more pro- (a) Tipping point (b) Inflection point
nounced at the (c) Turning point (d) None of the above
(a) Equator (b) Poles 75. Which of the following is not considered a greenhouse
(c) Tropic of Cancer (d) Tropic of Capricorn gas?
(a) Methane
68. Statement I: The main pollutant of the Indian coastal (b) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
water is industrial effluents. (c) Hydrogen
Statement II: Tamil Nadu coastal belt has drinking (d) Ozone
water problems due to seepage of sea water. 76. The atmosphere is mainly heated by the
Which of the above statements are true? (a) Short wave solar radiation
(a) Statements 1 and 2 are true (b) Long wave terrestrial radiation
(b) Only statement 1 is true (c) Reflected solar radiation
(c) Only statement 2 is true (d) Scattered solar radiation
(d) Both statements are false 77. Statement I: An aerosol is a suspension of fine solid
69. Arrange List II in proper sequence so as to match it particles or liquid droplets in air or another gas.
with List I and choose the correct answer from the Statement II: Aerosols can be natural or anthropogenic.
code given below. Which of the above statements are true?
List I List II (a) Both statements 1 and 2 are true
(Water Quality) (pH Value) (b) Only statement 1 is true
(c) Only statement 2 is true
A. Neutral I. 5 (d) Both statements are false
B. Moderately acidic II. 7 78. Which of the following features are true about Per-
oxyacyl Nitrate (PAN)?
C. Alkaline III. 4 1. PANs are secondary pollutants
D. Injurious IV. 8 2. PANs are produced when hydrocarbon radical
reacts with nitrogen oxide
Codes: 3. PANs cause respiratory diseases in human beings
(a) A–II, B–III, C–I, D–IV 4. PAN causes irritation to the eyes
(b) A–I, B–III, C–I, D–IV Codes:
(c) A–II, B–I, C–IV, D–III

(d) A–III, B–I, C–II, D–IV
70. Bog is a wetland that receives water from
(a) Nearby water bodies (b) Melting
(c) Rainfall only (d) Sea only
71. Which of the following creatures is termed as the rain
forest of ocean?
(a) Algae (b) Blue whale
(c) Coral reef (d) Mangrove
72. Which of the following creatures is responsible for the
phenomena of ‘red tide’?
(a) Coral reef (b) Algae
(c) Red drum (d) Crocodile
73. Permafrost melt is the main reason for release of a
greenhouse methane gas. In which part of the world
is it melting the most?
(a) Himalayan region
(b) Arctic region
(c) Antarctic region
(d) British Columbia
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are true
(b) 2 and 3 are true
(c) 1 and 3 are true
(d) Only 1 is true
79. In case of fuel, what will be the major difference
between BS-IV and BS-VI?
(a) Sulphur (b) Mercury
(c) Methane (d) Carbon
80. Statement 1: The aquatic organisms depend on the
oxygen present in water or dissolved oxygen (DO) for
their respiratory needs that mainly depends upon on
water temperature, the quantity of sediment etc.
Statement 2: Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is the
amount of oxygen which is consumed by bacteria while
decomposing organic matter under aerobic conditions.
Statement 3: Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) is the
amount of oxygen required for the chemical oxidation
of total organic matter in water.
Which of the above statements are true?
(a) Only statements 1 and 2 are true
(b) Only statement 2 and 3 are true
(d) Only statement 1 and 3 are true
(a) All the statements 1, 2 and 3 are true

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 9.70
81. Match List I with List II.
List I List II
(Disease) (Cause)
A. Osteoporosis I. Fluorine
B. Leukaemia II. Sr-90
C. Lung cancer III. Benzopyrene
Codes:
(a) A–I, B–III, C–II (b) A–III, B–I, C–II
(c) A–I, B–II, C–III (d) A–III, B–II, C–I
82. Which of the following statements is / are true?
(a) The decibel (dB) is the unit used to measure the
intensity of a sound.
(b) The smallest audible sound (near total silence) is
0 dB. A sound 10 times more powerful is 10 dB
but a sound 100 times more powerful than 0 dB is
20 dB, and 1,000 times more powerful is 30 dB.
(c) Any sound above 85 dB can cause hearing loss,
and the loss is related both to the power of the
sound as well as the length of exposure.
(d) All of the above statements are true.
83. Consider the following statements are true in context
of ozone gas:
1. Chloro Flouoro Carbons release free radical of
halogens which reacts with ozone. This results in
depletion of ozone layer and cause health prob-
lems, food and water security.
2. Surface ozone is formed in transport sector
when heat and sunlight cause chemical reactions
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
between oxides of nitrogen (NOX) and Volatile
Organic Compounds (VOC).
3. The ozone produced in transport sector is bad and
stratospheric is protective in nature.
4. Many adverse effects of high UV exposure have
been avoided thanks to the Montreal Protocol.
Codes:
(a) Statements 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
(b) Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
(c) Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
(d) Statements 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
84. Assertion (A): Methaemoglobinaemia is a condition
in which blood is not able to carry and deliver enough
oxygen to the body. (June 2019)
Reason (R): Consuming drinking water with high
nitrate level may cause methaemoglobinaemia.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 70
Chapter 9
85. Which of the following methods can be used to
increase the supply of usable, good-quality water?
(a) Chlorination (b) Metallurgy
(c) Cloud seeding (d) None of the above
86. Ozone is considered as a secondary air pollutant
because it
(a) Is in the upper layers of the atmosphere
(b) Is formed by chemical reactions in atmosphere
(c) Is produced in industry
(d) Has a secondary role in causing pollution
87. Which of the following statements are true in context
of photochemical smog?
1. The photochemical smog is formed from reactions
occurring between secondary air pollutants and
sunlight.
2. The oxides of nitrogen are the main pollutants
released by burning of diesel fuel that results in
photochemical smog.
3. All hydrocarbons, except methane contribute to
the production of Photochemical smog.
4. This smog is typically worse in the summer as there is
more solar energy to drive photochemical reactions.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
88. Which of the following statements are true?
1. Carbon dioxide and methane are similar in terms
of contribution to global warming.
2. Burning fossil fuels at high temperatures is the
main source of pollutants of nitrogen oxides, sul-
phur oxides and carbon oxides.
3. Petrol is mainly responsible for release of lead into
the environment.
(a) 1 ad 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
89. Assertion (A): Sulphur dioxide is a major pollutant
causing acid rain. Removal of sulphur from coal can
help in reducing air pollution.
Reason (R): Air pollution is an increasing problem in
developing countries due to burning of more coal to
produce electricity, changing lifestyles, unavailability
of environment-friendly technologies.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
90. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
Emission of gas Impact on health
A. Carbon 1. Endocrine and immune
monoxide system
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 People, Development and Environment 9.71

B. Nitrogen 2. Pulmonary oedema carbon emissions is

oxide (a) Global warming
(b) Ecological balance
C. Pesticides 3. Affects oxygen carrying (c) Greenhouse effect
capacity to different parts (d) Desertification
of body. 95. Which of the following are the reasons/factors for
D. Phosgene 4. Heart problems, respiratory exposure to benzene pollution?
irritation, bronchitis 1. Automobile exhaust
asthma, carcinogenic issues 2. Tobacco smoke
3. Wood burning
Codes: 4. Using varnished wooden furniture
5. Using products made of polyurethane
(a) A – 3, B – 4, C – 1, D – 2
(b) A – 2, B – 4, C – 1, D – 3 Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(c) A – 3, B – 1, C – 4, D – 2 (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) A – 4, B – 3, C – 2, D – 1 (b) 2 and 4 only
91. Match List-I with List-II. (c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
List-I List-II 96. Assertion (A): Eutrophication is basically flow of
Emission of gas Impact on health nutrient material from land into water bodies. These
A. Ammonia 1. Central Nervous System, materials run off from our farms and cities into rivers,
RBC development lakes, and coastal waters through acid rains and air
born pollutants.
B. Sulphur 2. Severe respiratory Reason (R): These nutrient sources are called non-
dioxide problems, reduce exchange point because they involve widely dispersed activities.
of gases from lung surface They are difficult to be measured and thus regulated
C. Arsenic 3. Damages RBCs and and they vary with the seasons and the weather.
kidneys; causes jaundice (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
D. Lead 4. Acidification of Water (b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
bodies at a high level explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
Codes: (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
(a) A – 2, B – 4, C – 1, D – 3 97. Which of the following statement/s is/are true?
(b) A – 3, B – 1, C – 4, D – 2
(c) A – 4, B – 2, C – 3, D – 1 Statement 1: Coarse (bigger) particles, called PM10,
(d) A – 4, B – 3, C – 2, D – 1 can irritate your eyes, nose, and throat. Dust from
roads, farms, dry riverbeds, construction sites, and
92. Consider the following statements: mines are types of PM10.
1. Decibels is the unit of measurement of noise pollution.
Statement II: Fine (smaller) particles, called PM2.5,
2. A change from 40 to 80 dB is exactly double in are more dangerous because they can get into the
loudness. deep parts of your lungs — or even into your blood.
3. Zero decibel is the ‘threshold point’ for hearing.
(a) Both statements I and II are true.
4. A jet plane is one of the highest decibel sources of (b) Statement I is true.
noise. (c) Statement II is true.
Which of the above statements are true? (d) Neither statement I nor statement II is true.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 98. Given below are two statements. One is labelled as
(b) 2 and 3 Assertion (a) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
(c) 1, 3 and 4  [November 2020]
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Assertion (A): Carbon monoxide (CO) is a serious
93. With which of following kinds of pollution is the term asphyxiant; even a short exposure may have fatal
‘green muffler’ associated? health issues.
(a) Water pollution Reason (R): Haemoglobin present in the blood
(b) Air pollution has greater affinity towards carbon monoxide than
(c) Nuclear pollution oxygen.
(d) Noise pollution
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
94. A natural phenomenon that becomes harmful due to explanation of (A).

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 9.72 Chapter 9

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct 103. Match List-I with List-II in context of water diseases.
explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. List I List II
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. A. Cholera (due 1. Spreads by the faecal-
99. Which of the following statements is NOT true? to bacteria oral route, jaundice and
(a) Water suitable for drinking is called as potable called as ‘vibrio chances of acute liver
water. cholerae’) failure
(b) All sources of water such as the oceans, lakes,
river and underground water together constitute B. Amoebiasis 2. Large intestine and
the hydrosphere. (Traveller’s liver. symptoms include
(c) Of the total fresh water, 69% is available in gla- Diarrhoea) diarrhoea with blood
ciers, 30% underground and less than 1% is and mucus.
located in lakes and rivers. C. Hepatitis A 3. Small intestinal disease
(d) On the planet Earth, the fresh water available - symptoms include
for use amounts is around 4% of the total water diarrhoea and vomiting
found.
100. Statement 1: Radioactive substances is the example Codes:
of non-biodegradable waste that has the potential of (a) A – 1, B – 2, C – 3
polluting the earth to dangerous levels of toxicity if (b) A – 2, B – 1, C – 3
not handled properly. (c) A – 3, B – 2, C –1
Statement 2: Oil spill is an example of non-point (d) A – 3, B – 1, C – 2
source of water pollution. 104. Which of the following statements is not a method of
Codes: purifying water?
(a) Both statements 1 and 2 are true. (a) Reverse osmosis
(b) Only statement 1 is true (b) UV radiation
(c) Only statement 2 is true (c) Distillation
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 is true. (d) Evaporation from a water body
101. Assertion (A): Water logging and soil salinity are 105. Freshwater achieves its greatest density at
the problems that come up when the irrigation is (a) – 4°C (b) 0°C
done without proper drainage of water. (c) 4°C (d) – 2.5°C
Reason (R): Improper drainage leads to water log- 106. Statement 1: The presence of high algal content in
ging in the soil. The salt gets deposited as thin crust on water indicates that the water is acidic.
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

the soil surface and starts collecting at the roots of the
plants. This salinity affects the growth of the plants.
(a) Both (a) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(b) Both (a) and (R) are true but (R) is not the cor-
rect explanation of (A).
(c) (a) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (a) is false, but (R) is true.
102. Assertion (A): Hygroscopic and combined water
are of no use to plants.
107. Assertion (A): Fluorosis is a condition that results
Reason (R): Some water in the soil forms an
extremely thin tightly held film around the soil par-
ticles. It is called hygroscopic water. In the soil, a
small portion of soil water is chemically bound with
soil materials. It is called combined water.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the cor-
rect explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
108. The safe permissible limits of sulphate and chloride
Statement 2: Cyanobacteria has been accepted as
a major indicator of eutrophication in freshwater
as their blooms are common in waters affected by
nutrient concentration.
Which of the above statement is/are true?
(a) Both statements 1 and 2 are true
(b) Only statement 1 is true
(c) Only statement 2 is true
(d) Neither statement 1 nor statement 2 is true
in white or brown speckles on your teeth.
Reason (R): Fluorosis is caused by overexposure to
fluoride in the early years of life, when your perma-
nent teeth are developing and fluoride concentra-
tion in water exceeds 1.5 mg/l or so.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
in domestic water supplies, respectively, are

M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 72 23/12/22 8:01 PM

 People, Development and Environment
(a) 400 mg/l and 1000 mg/l
(b) 200 mg/l and 800 mg/l
(c) 800 mg/l and 400 mg/l
(d) 500 mg/l and 500 mg/l
109. Which of the following statements are true in con-
text of acid rain?
(a) Acid rain is formed by the combination of chemical
air pollutants with atmospheric water droplets.
(b) Acid rain once seeped into ground can dissolve
nutrients such as magnesium and calcium, that
are required by trees to stay healthy. The release
of Aluminium into the soil makes it difficult for
trees to take up water.
(c) The normal rain has the pH value between 5.0
and 5.5. The acid rain takes this value to the lower
values of 4 or even less. There is no soil alkalinity.
(d) All of the above
110. Assertion (A): India is water stressed nation as this
inhabits 17.1% of the World Population but water
availability is only 4% of world water.
Reason (R): The increased water demand in the cit-
ies can be better met by adoption of conservation
measures.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
111. What is the name of substance whose accumulation
in pelicans of Lake Michigan led to the formation of
thin shells of their eggs?
(a) CFC (b) PAN
(c) DDT (d) PAC
112. Assertion (A): In a lake polluted with pesticides, the
big fish will contain the maximum amounts of pesti-
cides as a result of biomagnification.
Reason (R): Biomagnification is the process in which
a harmful chemical enters the food chain and gets
concentrated at each level in the food chain.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
113. The use of which of the following fuels can help in
the reduction of air pollution?
(a) Petrol (b) Diesel
(c) CNG (d) Coal
114. Which of the following organisms is the main indica-
tor for sulphur dioxide and nitrogen pollution?
(a) Blue green algae
(b) Lichens
(c) E. coli
(d) None of the above
M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 73
9.73
115. Petrol engines release gaseous oxides of
(a) Sulphur (b) Nitrogen
(c) Phosphorous (d) Carbon
116. The Agent Orange is covered under the Stockholm
Convention. This toxic was sprayed by the US forces
during Vietnam War to destroy the forest cover.
Which of the following chemicals is being referred to
in the above statement?
(a) Dioxin (b) Asbestos
(c) Benzene (d) All of the above
117. The best extinguisher for flammable materials that
takes away the oxygen element of the fire triangle is
(a) Water (b) SO2
(c) CO2 (d) CO
118. Which of the following is not one of the prime health
risks associated with greater UV radiation through the
atmosphere due to depletion of stratospheric ozone?
(a) Increased skin cancer
(b) Reduced immune system
(c) Increased liver cancer
(d) Damage to eyes
119. Unburnt carbon particles cause
(a) Cardiac problem
(b) Respiratory problems
(c) Throat problems
(d) Skin infection
120. Statement 1: Maximum soot is released from ther-
mal power plants.
Statement 2: The plume rise in a coal-based power
plant depends on buoyancy, atmospheric stability
and momentum of exhaust gases.
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
(a) Only statement 1 is true
(b) Only statement 2 is true
(c) Neither 1 nor 2 is true
(d) Statements 1 and 2 are true
121. Which of the following is not one of the major environ-
ment problems resulting from human interference in
the nitrogen cycle?
(a) Global warming due to release of nitrous oxide
(b) Acid rain
(c) Eutrophication
(d) Ozone depletion
122. Which of the following statements are correct in the
context of carbon monoxide emissions?
1. They are mainly due to incomplete combustion of fuel.
2. They are more evident in petrol engine.
3. Long-term exposure can cause nausea.
Codes
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
123. Which of the following body parts is most likely to be
affected by nuclear radiation during the early stages
of exposure?
(a) Skin (b) Bones
(c) Bone marrow (d) None of the above
23/12/22 8:01 PM
 9.74 Chapter 9

124. Which of the following terms is used to describe 131. Silicosis is caused in the
the phenomenon of removing carbon dioxide from (a) Textile industry (b) Sugar industry
nature by carbon sinks (natural or artificial)? (c) Stone crushers (d) All of the above
(a) Decomposition (b) Biosequestration
(c) Emission trading (d) None of the above 132. Sewage consists primarily of
1. Water and also contains less than one part of solid
125. Which of the following terms is used to reflect the matter per thousand parts of water.
potential of a greenhouse gas to cause global warming? 2. The solids, can be in the form of either dissolved
(a) Warming potent solids or suspended solids.
(b) Warming potential 3. Normal mixture of solid and gas
(c) Global warming potential 4. Gaseous waste
(d) None of the above
Codes:
126. Which of the following statements are true in the
context of particulate matter? (a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
1. It is basically a mist, more prevalent during winter (c) 1 and 2
weather. (d) 3 and 4
2. It is more prevalent in diesel engine vehicles.
3. Long-term exposure can harm respiratory track 133. Sustainable waste management is achieved through
and lung functions. A. Training people for required technologies
B. Development of Institutional Framework
Codes: C. Online purchasing
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 D.Formulating laws, policies and rules
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 E. Developing community-based partnerships
127. Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) C and D
List I List II (b) A, B and E
(Act) (Year) (c) B, C, D and E
A . Water (Prevention and I. 1974 (d) A, B, D and E
Control of Pollution) 134. The duration for which usable compost generation is
B. Air (Prosecution and Control II. 1981 3 to 6 months?
of Pollution) (a) Vermicomposting
C. Wildlife Protection Act III. 1972 (b) Semi-automatic waste converter
(c) Pit composting
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

D. Environment Protection Act IV. 1986 (d) Automatic waste converter

Codes: 135. High hazard waste may contain [December 2020]
(a) A–I, B–II, C–III, D–IV (a) Pathogens
(b) A–I, B–III, C–II, D–IV (b) Radioactive waste
(c) A–IV, B–II, C–III, D–I (c) Non reactive
(d) A–IV, B–III, C–II, D–I (d) Corrosive
128. Which of the following elements is deposited into 136. Municipal Solid Waste is so linked with our routine
aquatic and terrestrial ecosystem when used in life, it mainly consists of
intensive agriculture practices? (i) Households waste
(ii) Sanitation residue
(a) Nitrogen (b) Phosphorus
(iii)Waste from Street
(c) Sulphur (d) None of these
(iv) Construction linked material and debris
129. Discharge of industrial wastewater causes all of the
following except Choose the correct answer from the code below.
(a) Depletion of dissolved oxygen (a) (i),(ii) and (iii)
(b) Destruction of aquatic life (b) (i) and (ii)
(c) Change in climate (c) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(d) Impairment of biological activity (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
130. Which of the following is not recommended for man- 137. Landfill Gas is a natural byproduct of the decomposi-
agement of plastic waste? tion of organic material in landfills. This gas consists of
(a) Incineration (a) Almost 50 percent methane as the primary
(b) Deep burial component
(c) Autoclave/hydroclave (b) Almost 50 percent carbon dioxide
(d) All of the above (c) A small amount of non-methane organic compounds
(d) All of the above

M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 74 23/12/22 8:01 PM

 People, Development and Environment 9.75

138. Which of the following are true about floatation (c) 1 and 3
method for waste management? (d) 1 and 2
A. This is a water treatment process that clarifies 144. Match the columns.
wastewaters or other waters by the removal of
suspended matter such as oil or solids. Treatment of Brief description
B. The removal is achieved by dissolving air in the liquid waste
water or wastewater under pressure and then A. Primary 1. Sludge–the use of
releasing the air at atmospheric pressure in a Treatment anaerobic bacteria to
flotation tank basin. degrade the biodegradable
C. Flotation is a separation technique that employs
the use of gas bubbles as a transport medium. B. Secondary 2. Disinfecting process for
(a) A, B and C (b) B and C Treatment removal of bacteria and any
(c) A and C (d) A and B dissolved organic solids
139. Which of the following termed is used for waste C. Tertiary 3. To separate the solids
management by oxidation, burning or thermal treat- Treatment
ment of the waste?
(a) Floatation (b) Sledging Codes:
(c) Composting (d) Incineration (a) A – 3, B – 2, C – 1
140. Biogas is a mixture of methane, CO2 and small quan- (b) A – 3, B – 1, C – 2
tities of other gases produced by anaerobic digestion (c) A – 2, B – 3, C – 1
of organic matter in an oxygen-free environment. (d) A – 1, B – 2, C –3
This is called as 145. Vermicomposting is a method of composting that
(a) Pelletization involves
(b) Bio Methanation
(a) Silkworms (b) Earthworms
(c) Pyrolysis
(c) Bacteria (d) None of these
(d) Leachate
146. Which of the following pairs of health problem and
141. This is a waste to energy recovery method. This is the
its causing pollutant is not correctly matched?
process of chemically decomposing organic materi-
als such as plastics and rubber at elevated tempera- (a) Nervous system—adrin
ture in the absence of oxygen. Which of the following (b) Neurological disorders—pesticides
terms is being referred here? (c) Loss of consciousness—oxides of nitrogen
(d) Skin cancer—PAN
(a) Pelletization

A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
(b) Bio Methanation 147. What are the three main components of the water
(c) Pyrolysis cycle?
(d) Leachate (a) Evaporation, sublimation, solidification
142. Assertion (A): The best way to dispose plant waste (b) Evaporation, condensation, precipitation
is composting (c) Rain, snow, sleet
(d) Liquid, solid, gas
Reason (R): The process of converting wet waste
into manure is called as composting. 148. Solid waste treatment by pyrolysis refers to
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct (a) Heating in the absence of air
explanation of (A). (b) No heating
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct (c) Heating in the presence of air
explanation of (A). (d) Treating with chemicals before heating
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. 149. Which of the following results in bioaccumulation
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. and contamination of food chains?
143. Which of the following statements are true in con- (a) Pesticides
text of sludge in waste-water treatment? (b) Polychlorinated biphenyls
1. Sludge management is one of the easiest tasks of (c) PAN
wastewater treatment plants. (d) All of the above
2. There is high water content and poor dewaterabil- 150. Pollutants in the soil can be broken by
ity in sludge management. microorganisms.
3. There are usually strict regulations for sludge
reuse or disposal. This process is called
Codes: (a) Probiotics
(b) Bioremediation
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Bioaugmentation
(b) 2 and 3 (d) None of the above

M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 75 23/12/22 8:01 PM

 9.76 Chapter 9

151. Match the following: Codes:

List I List II (a) A – 1, B – 2, C – 4, D – 3
(Disease) (Causes) (b) A – 4, B – 1, C – 2, D – 3
(c) A – 1, B – 4, C – 2, D – 3
A. Black foot I. Arsenic (d) A – 1, B – 4, C – 3, D – 2
B. Pulmonary oedema II. Nitrogen oxides 157. Stockholm Convention is a global treaty to protect
environment and human health from
C. Hay fever III. Allergy (a) Greenhouse gases
Codes: (b) Persistent organic pollutants
(c) Hospital-acquired Infections
(a) A–II, B–I, C–III (d) None of the above
(b) A–I, B–II, C–III
(c) A–III, B-II, C–I 158. The pesticide directly affecting the nervous system is
(d) A–II, B–III, C–I (a) DDT
152. Which of the following is considered as the common (b) Aldrin
indicator organism of water pollution? (c) Organic phosphates
(d) None of the above
(a) Coral reefs
(b) Plasmodium 159. The process of dumping solid waste in a scientifically
(c) Escherichia coli designated land area is called
(d) None of the above (a) Dumping (b) Waste disposal
153. The process of conversion of solid waste into organic (c) Sanitary landfill (d) None of the above
fertilizers by making use of microorganisms, such as 160. Consider the following statements:
bacteria and fungi, is called 1. The main source of water pollution is sewage
(a) Disposal water.
(b) Remediation 2. Microorganisms ultimately causes oxygen deple-
(c) Composting tion in water bodies.
(d) None of the above 3. Cholera is a water-borne disease.
154. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct in Which of the above are true?
context of artificial rain? (a) 1 and 2
(a) Artificial rain is called as cloud seeding. (b) 2 and 3
(b) Artificial rain precipitates the clouds. (c) 1 and 3
(c) The most common chemicals used for artificial
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

(d) 1, 2 and 3
rain are silver iodide, potassium iodide and dry ice.
(d) All the above 161. Assertion (A): Animal dung is biodegradable
155. Which of the following pairs regarding typical com- Reason (R): The best solution to get rid of non-bio-
position of hospitals wastes is incorrect? degradable waste such as Nylon is recycling.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
Type of waste %age explanation of (A).
(a) Plastics 9–12 (b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(b) Metals 1–2 (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(c) Ceramic 8–10
162. Biodegradable bags are the bags that are capable of
(d) Biodegradable 35–40 being decomposed by bacteria or other living organ-
isms. They are basically made of
156. Match List-I with List-II in context of medical waste. (a) Normal plastic
List-I (Types) List-II (Examples) (b) Synthetic fibres
(c) Starch
A. Infectious 1. body parts, medical (d) Petroleum
devices 163. With reference to Neem tree, consider the following
B. Pathological 2. needles and syringes statements:
1. Neem oil can be used as a pesticide to control
C. Cutter-driller 3. radioactive materials
the proliferation of some species of insects and
D. Miscellaneous 4. diagnostic samples, mites
blood, chemicals 2. Neem seeds are used in the manufacture of biofu-
els and hospital detergents

M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 76 23/12/22 8:01 PM

 People, Development and Environment
3. Neem oil has applications in the pharmaceutical
industry
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Exploitation of Natural and Energy Resources
165. Which of the following statements are true?
Statement 1: The major source of energy in a food
chain originates from the sun.
Statement 2: Solar energy is created by nuclear
fusion that takes place in the sun. Fusion occurs
when protons of hydrogen atoms violently collide in
the sun’s core and fuse to create a helium atom.
Statement 3: The infrared, visible, and UV waves that
reach the Earth take part in a process of warming the
planet and making life possible is called as ‘green-
house effect.’
(a) Statement 1, 2 and 3 are true
(b) Only statements 1 and 2 are true
(c) Only statements 2 and 3 are true
(d) Only statements 1 and 3 are true
166. The energy source that eventually runs out of stock
is known as
(a) Renewable resource
(b) Non-renewable resource
(c) Primary resource
(d) Secondary resource
167. What is the total number of states and UTs in India
which have more than 33% geographical area under
forest cover?
(a) 17 (b) 20
(c) 11 (d) 7?
168. Which of the following is considered as the best
quality of coal?
(a) Peat (b) Lignite
(c) Bituminous (d) Anthracite
169. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true as
per September 2022 report, the contribution of dif-
ferent sources in energy production?
(a) The sector wise distribution of fossil fuels used in
energy production is in the order of coal, lignite,
gas and diesel.
(b) The sector wise distribution of non-fossil fuels
used in energy production is in the order of hydro,
wind, solar and biomass.
(c) The energy production by nuclear sector is 1.7%.
(d) All of the above
170. Deforestation leads to an increase in atmospheric
carbon dioxide because
M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 77
9.77
164. The United Nations World Water Development
Report is UN-Water’s flagship report on water and
sanitation issues. Which of the following is the UN
theme for the World Water Day 2022 that is cele-
brated on March 22?
(a) Leaving No One Behind
(b) Better Water, Better Jobs
(c) Water and Climate Change
(d) Groundwater - Making the Invisible Visible
(a) Decaying trees release carbon dioxide.
(b) Living trees remove carbon dioxide from the
atmosphere via photosynthesis.
(c) Burning wood releases carbon dioxide into the
atmosphere.
(d) All of the above
171. Assertion (A): Deforestation during the recent
decade has led to climate change, soil erosion, land
slide, loss of biodiversity.
Reason (R): The maximum loss of forest lands in
India is caused by agriculture due to increasing pop-
ulations, increased requirement of food production.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
172. The tallest trees in the world are found in the
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
(a) Equatorial region
(b) Temperate region
(c) Monsoon region
(d) Mediterranean region
173. Which of the following statements are correct in
context of forest cover as per Forest Survey of India
Report released in 2022?
1. The total forest cover in India is 21.71% of the
total geographical area. India has added 1,540
square km of forest cover from 2019 to 2021.
2. The three top states for most forest cover areas
are Madhya Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh and
Chhattisgarh.
3. The three top states/UTs with the most forest
cover percentage of their geographical area are
Lakshadweep, Mizoram and Andaman & Nicobar
Islands.
4. The three states with an increase in their areas
from 2019 to 2021 are Andhra Pradesh, Telangana
and Odisha.
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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 9.78
174. Match the following:
List I List II
(Type of Coal) (Carbon Content)
A. Peat I. 50–60%
B. Lignite (brown) II. 70%
C. Bituminous III. 80%
D. Anthracite IV. 90–95%
Codes:
(a) A–I, B–II, C–III, D–IV
(b) A–I, B–III, C–II, D–IV
(c) A–IV, B–II, C–III, D–I
(d) A–IV, B–III, C–II, D–I
175. As per the government aims, there will blending of
following percentage in Ethanol in petrol (EBP) by
2025
(a) 10% (b) 20%
(c) 25% (d) 30%
176. Consider the following statements for renewable
energy.
(a) Towards mitigation measures, India has added
100 GW of renewable energy that excludes hydro
power.
(b) The renewed and increased total target for renew-
able energy of India by 2030 is 500 GW.
(c) By 2030, India wants to achieve target of 40% of
total energy by renewable energy.
(d) All of the above
177. As per reports from Ministry of New and Renewable
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
Energy in September 2022, which of the following
statements are correct in context of India?
1.India is the world’s third largest producer of renew-
able energy.
2. At COP–21 in Paris in 2015, India committed to a
40% share of power generation from non-fossil
fuel sources. We have achieved this target a dec-
ade ahead of the 2030 timeline.
3. India’s massive UJALA LED bulb campaign is reduc-
ing emissions by 40 million tonnes annually.
4. Over 800 biomass power and bagasse/non-bagasse
cogeneration projects have been installed in India
for feeding power to the grid.
Codes:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
178. Bitumen is obtained from
(a) Forests and plants (b) Kerosene oil
(c) Crude oil (d) Underground mines
179. The largest soil group of India is
(a) Red soil (b) Black soil
(c) Sandy soil (d) Mountain soil
M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 78
Chapter 9
180. Assertion (A): India despite having large amount of
coal reserves, have to import coal from Indonesia,
Australia, Russia, South Africa, etc., which account
for over 80 percent of India’s coal imports.
Reason (R): A large part of Indian coal reserve is sim-
ilar to Gondwana coal. It is of low calorific value and
high ash content.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
181. Which of the following is the top state in producing
solar energy as per data available in January 2022
whose total capacity increased by 10,000 MW?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Karnataka
(d) Tamil Naidu
182. Why the solar energy has become popular source of
energy in India during recent times?
(a) Some states in India have continuous solar
radiation.
(b) The per unit power cost in India has come down as
the investment cost has also come down.
(c) The government provides financial and physical
help to the solar power producers.
(d) All of the above
183. Consider the following statements in context of wind
energy.
(a) The country currently has the fourth highest wind
installed capacity in the world with total installed
capacity of 39.25 GW (as on 31st March 2021).
(b) The Government, through National Institute of
Wind Energy, has installed over 800 wind-moni-
toring stations all over country.
(c) As per data available made available by Ministry
of New and Renewable Energy, Tamil Nadu,
Gujarat, Karnataka, Maharashtra and Rajasthan
are the top five states in wind energy production.
(d) All of the above
184. Thermal power generation in India is carried out by
burning
(a) Natural gas (b) Coal
(c) Oil (d) All of the above
185. Assertion (A): Calorific value is basically about fuel
efficiency. The fuel efficiency is measured by calo-
rific value.
Reason (R): Calorific value is the amount of heat
energy present in food or fuel and which is deter-
mined by the complete combustion of specified quan-
tity at constant pressure and in normal conditions.
The unit of calorific value is kilojoule per kilogram.
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 People, Development and Environment 9.79

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct 194. Regur soil refers to
explanation of (A). (a) Black cotton soil (b) Laterite soil
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct (c) Desert soil (d) Alluvial soil
explanation of (A).
195. The soil’s fertility can be increased by growing more
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. (a) Food grains
(b) Leguminous plants
186. Which of the following causes the least pollution
(c) Fibre crops
when burnt?
(d) None of the above
(a) Petrol (b) Diesel
196. Which of the following soils is very hard to cultivate?
(c) Coal (d) Natural gas
(a) Alluvial soil (b) Red soil
187. With the help of photosynthesis, plants convert solar
(c) Cotton soil (d) Sandy soil
energy into
197. Which of the following statements is true about lat-
(a) Chemical energy (b) Mechanical energy
erite soils?
(c) Kinetic energy (d) Nuclear energy
(a) They are formed as a result of leaching.
188. Which of the following statements about the biogas
(b) They are rich in minerals such as aluminium and
is true?
iron.
1. Biogas is a renewable gas. (c) They are found in hot and wet tropical areas.
2. Biogas is produced as a result of anaerobic breakdown (d) All of the above
and fermentation of raw materials such as agricul-
198. Which of the following layers of soil determines its
tural waste, manure, municipal waste, plant mate-
pH value and also its rate of water absorption and
rial, sewage, green waste and food waste.
3. The main constituent of biogas is methane, car- retention?
bon dioxide and hydrogen sulphide. (a) O-horizon (b) A-horizon
(a) 1 and 3 (c) B-horizon (d) C-horizon
(b) 1 and 2 199. Which of the following is measured by the
(c) 2 and 3 porometer?
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) Soil fertility (b) Soil salinity
189. The biggest freshwater lake in India is (c) Soil acidity (d) All of the above
(a) Wular Lake (b) Sukhna Lake 200. Which of the following states has forests rich in
(c) Dal Lake (d) Loktak Lake sandalwood?
190. What is the correct order where you would find (a) Andhra Pradesh

A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
stream deposits starting at the headwaters and going (b) Karnataka
towards the mouth across the course of the river? (c) Kerala
(a) Gravel, sand, silt (d) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Sand, silt, gravel 201. Soils in the Mahanadi Delta are less fertile than those
(c) Silt, sand, grave in the Godavari Delta because of
(d) None of the above
(a) Erosion of top soil by annual floods
191. The majority of earth’s water is in the form of (b) Inundation of land by sea water
(a) Oceans (c) Traditional agriculture practices
(b) Atmosphere (d) The derivation of alluvial soil from red soil
(c) Freshwater lakes and glaciers hinterland
(d) Rivers 202. In India, oil is mostly found in
192. The largest thorium reserves in the world are in (a) Anticlines and fault traps
(a) India (b) USA (b) Sedimentary rocks
(c) Australia (d) None of the above (c) Igneous rocks
193. Which of the following statements is not true? (d) None of the above
(a) Uranium is the most widely used fuel by nuclear 203. CNG stands for
power plants for nuclear fission. Nuclear power (a) Compressed natural gasoline
plants use a certain type of uranium—U-235—as (b) Compressed natural gas
fuel because its atoms are easily split apart. (c) Compressed nitrogen gas
(b) The nuclear fuel used in the fast breeder reactor is (d) Calibrated natural gas
thorium. 204. Which of the following are saltwater wetlands?
(c) Thorium is much more abundant in nature than
uranium. (a) Marsh lands (b) Bogs
(d) Thorium is not safer and efficient to mine than (c) Fish ponds (d) Estuaries
uranium.

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 9.80 Chapter 9

205. Statement 1: Hydroelectric power is a renewable (a) Wetland

energy source that is produced with the help of (b) Enteric digestion
dams. (c) Fuel gases
Statement 2: Hydroelectric power does not contrib- (d) Permafrost
ute to global warming. 214. Which of the following statements are true in con-
(a) Both statements 1 and 2 are true. text of methane?
(b) Only statement 1 is true. 1. Methane is a hydrocarbon that is a primary gas as
(c) Only statement 2 is true. well as a greenhouse gas.
(d) Neither statement 1 nor statement 2 is true. 2. Methane is emitted from a variety of anthropo-
206. On which principle does a hydroelectric power plant genic and natural sources.
work? 3. Methane is 25 times less potent as carbon dioxide
at trapping heat in the atmosphere.
(a) Law of conservation of energy (a) 1 and 2
(b) The conversion of potential energy into kinetic (b) 1 and 3
energy (c) 1, 2 and 3
(c) The conversion of mechanical energy into electri- (d) 2 and 3
cal energy
(d) All of the above 215. Which of the following is a renewable source of
energy?
207. Biodiesel is produced in India presently from
(a) Uranium (b) Petroleum
(a) Calotropis (b) Catharanthus (c) Coal (d) Biomass
(c) Jatropha (d) Delonix
216. Which of the following elements is used in the mak-
208. For harnessing ocean thermal energy, the tempera- ing of solar cells?
ture difference between water at the surface and
water at depths up to 2 km should be more than (a) Platinum (b) Carbon
(c) Silicon (d) Silver
(a) 5°C (b) 10°C
(c) 15°C (d) 20°C 217. The metal used in a solar panel is
209. Which of the following is not a biomass energy (a) Gold (b) Copper
source? (c) Silver (d) Nickel
(a) Wood (b) Gobar gas 218. Which of the following is a renewable resource?
(c) Nuclear energy (d) Biogas (a) Natural gas (b) Petroleum
210. The production of nuclear energy (c) Groundwater (d) Coal
219. Which of the chemical substances released into the
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

(a) Follows Einstein’s principle of conversion of mass

into energy
(b) Is not ultimately derived from the sun’s energy
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
211. Which of the following is the list of nations in
decreasing order in harnessing wind energy?
(a) USA, Germany, India, Japan and Spain
(b) China, USA, Germany, India and Spain
(c) USA, Germany, China, India and Spain
(d) China, USA, Denmark, Germany and India
212. Which of the following statements are true about
shale gas?
(a) Shale gas is basically entrapped in sedimentary
rocks.
(b) The technology of hydraulic fracturing or fracking
is used in shale gas exploitation.
(c) USA is the major producer of shale gas.
(d) All of the above
213. The largest natural sources for methane can be iden-
tified as which emit the gas from microorganisms
(bacteria) that decompose organic materials in the
absence of oxygen. The source is
environment while burning of fossil fuels can lead to
acid rain?
(a) Oxides of sulphur (b) Oxides of carbon
(c) Oxides of nitrogen (d) All of the above
220. Which of the following is not a biomass source?
(a) Gobar gas (b) Coal
(c) Wood (d) Nuclear energy
221. The energy which is not derived from the sun is
(a) Biomass (b) Fossil fuels
(c) Nuclear energy (d) Geothermal energy
222. Harmful radiation emitted by the sun is
(a) Visible (b) Infrared
(c) Ultraviolet (d) Radio waves
223. Fuel formed under the earth’s surface by the decom-
position of organic matter is called
(a) Fossil fuel
(b) Inorganic fuel
(c) Biogas
(d) None of the above

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 People, Development and Environment
224. The main constituent of LPG is
(a) Methane (b) Butane
(c) Hydrogen (d) Propane
225. The main constituent of Compressed Natural Gas is
(a) Methane (b) Butane
(c) Ethane (d) Propane
226. Which of the following is not a renewable source of
energy?
(a) Solar energy (b) Natural gas
(c) Wind energy (d) Ocean tidal energy
227. Exposure to which of the following radiations can
cause skin problem?
(a) Infrared (b) Ultraviolet
(c) Gamma rays (d) None of the above
228. Which of following gases has the highest calorific
value?
(a) Butane (b) Methane
(c) Ethane (d) Hydrogen
Natural Disasters and Their Mitigation
233. Which of the following is not an example of natural
disaster?
(a) Tsunami (b) Heat waves
(c) Nuclear accident (d) Epidemic
234. Which of the following statement/s is/are true in
context of earthquake and tsunami?
1. The earthquake is mainly caused due to collision
of tectonic plates
2. The immediate energy source for earthquakes is
stored elastic energy in bent rock
3. Tsunami means series of waves. It is basically a
strong earthquake or landslide in the sea.
4. Japan is known for its frequent earthquakes
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
235. Which of the following statements are true in con-
text of an earthquake?
1. The amount of ground displacement in an earth-
quake is called as the slip.
2. The point where a movement that triggers an
earthquake is called as Focus.
3. The sequence that correctly lists the different
arrivals from first to last is P waves ... S waves ...
Surface waves
Codes:
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 81
9.81
229. A solar cell converts
(a) Heat energy into electrical energy
(b) Solar energy into electrical energy
(c) Heat energy into light energy
(d) Solar energy into light energy
230. Which of the following sources of energy makes use
of floating generators for its exploitation?
(a) Tidal energy (b) Wave energy
(c) Wind energy (d) OTEC power plant
231. Which of the following terms is used for the mol-
ten material mixed with gases in the mantle of the
earth?
(a) Litho (b) Lava
(c) Geyser (d) Magma
232. The production of electricity from waste material is
called
(a) Pyrolysis (b) Landfill
(c) Dumping (d) None of the above
236. Each increase of one unit on the scale represents a
10-fold increase in the magnitude of an earthquake
on Richter scale. In other words, numbers on the
Richter scale are proportional to the common (base
10) logarithms of maximum wave amplitudes. If we
compare energy level of two earthquakes measuring
4.0 and 5.0, how many more times of energy will be
released by the earthquake measuring 5.0 in com-
parison to an earthquake measuring 4.0?
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
(a) 10 times
(b) 100 times
(c) 1.25 times
(d) 31 times
237. An earthquake is rated as ‘major’ if its magnitude in
Richter Scale is in the range of [December 2018]
(a) 4.0–4.9 (b) 6.0–6.9
(c) 7.0–7.9 (d) 5.0–5.9
238. Which of the following statements are true?
1. The three seismograph stations are needed to locate
the epicentre of an earthquake.
2. The ninety percent of earthquakes occurring at plate
boundaries.
3. Body waves consist of P and S waves
4. In general, the most destructive earthquake waves are
the surface waves
codes:
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
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 9.82 Chapter 9

239. El Niño and La Niña are responsible for producing (a) Primary waves
(a) Changes of opposite direction in global (b) Secondary waves
temperature (c) Surface waves
(b) Precipitation patterns (d) None of the above
(c) Both (a) and (b) 245. Which of the following regions is in the way of high-
(d) None of the above risk zone of earthquakes?
240. Flood is a natural hazard that affects the Indian peo- (a) Central Indian Highland
ple in a big way. The flood is (b) Coastal region
(c) Himalayan region
(a) The building up of large quantities of water (d) Indian desert
(b) Any obstruction in the water flow
(c) Rise in groundwater level 246. The most recurring natural hazard in India is
(d) None of the above (a) Earthquakes (b) Floods
(c) Landslides (d) Volcanoes
241. Which of the following statements are true in con-
text of volcanic eruptions? 247. For which of the following phenomenon is solar
energy primarily responsible?
1. There is explosion or emission of lava, ashes and (a) Precipitation
toxic gases in volcanic eruptions. (b) Wind
2. There is extremely high temperature and pressure (c) Erosion of earth materials
that causes the rock to melt and become liquid (d) All of the above
rock or magma. When a large body of magma has
formed, it rises through the denser rock layers 248. Which of the following can serve as a reliable safety
toward Earth’s surface. hedge against coastal calamities?
3. Pacific Ocean on earth is known as ‘Ring of Fire’ (a) Coral reefs
as it has the earth’s most active volcanoes. (b) Mangroves
4. The most significant volcanic eruptions have been (c) Both (a) and (b)
felt in the form of change in weather. (d) None of the above
codes: 249. The term used in the context of landslides and basi-
cally the downslope movement of materials under
(a) 2, 3 and 4 the influence of gravity is
(b) 1, 2 and 3 (a) Mass wasting
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) Mass tracking
(d) 1, 3 and 4 (c) Mass transfer
242. Which of the following tropical cyclone can be (d) None of the above
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

termed as the super cyclonic storm that originated 250. The point at which a fault first ruptures in the earth
in area of West Bengal, Odisha, Bangladesh, Sri during earthquake is called
Lanka, Bhutan in May 2020 and caught the speed of (a) Hypocentre
240 Kms per hour? (b) Epicentre
(a) Nisarga (b) Gati (c) Mouth
(c) Amphan (d) Nivar (d) None of the above
243. Match List I with List II. 251. A flash flood differs from a normal flood
(a) By sudden increase in the level of water
List I List II (b) As it is likely to cause much more damage
A. Rio Summit 1 1997 (c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
B. Johannesburg Earth Summit 2 1972
252. Which of the following is an effective protection
C. Kyoto Protocol 3 1992 against cyclones and tsunamis?
(a) Shrimp farms
D. Stockholm Conference 4 2002 (b) Building walls
(c) Mangrove forests
Codes: (d) None of the above
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2 253. Tidal energy is also a potential renewable energy
(b) 1 2 3 4 resource. Which of the following is the main cause
(c) 4 3 2 1 for the formation of tidal waves?
(d) 2 1 4 3 (a) Gravitational pull of the moon
(b) Gravitational pull of the sun
244. The earthquake waves that have transverse move- (c) Gravitational pull of the sun and the moon
ments are known as (d) None of the above

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 People, Development and Environment 9.83

254. Which of the following is a method to prevent flood? Codes:

(a) Levees (a) A–I, B–II, C–III, D–IV
(b) Winding streams (b) A–II, B–I, C–III, D–IV
(c) Efficient sewage systems (c) A–IV, B–II, C–III, D–I
(d) All of the above (d) None of the above
255. Richter scale measures 257. What should you do to prepare for a hurricane?
(a) The number of deaths (a) Prepare a safety route.
(b) The size of its epicentre (b) Arrange for emergency food and water.
(c) The energy released by an earthquake (c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) The body wave count (d) None of the above
256. The almost identical basic phenomenon is known by 258. The main cause(s) that tsunami waves lose some of
different names across countries in the world. its energy as they get closer to the shore is
Match the following: (a) There is lesser depth/room for the tsunami
(b) Buildings on the beach
List I List II
(c) Friction and turbulence from the beach
(Phenomenon) (Country)
(d) None of the above
A. Cyclone I. India 259. The main effect of volcanic eruptions is
B. Hurricane II. USA (a) Flying of ash contents
(b) Mud slides
C. Typhoon III. China (c) Low temperatures on the earth’s surface
D. Willy willy IV. Australia (d) All of the above

Biodiversity and Miscellaneous

260. Biodiversity is described as 264. The Great Indian Bustard bird is found in
(a) The range of different species in an environment (a) Thar Desert of Rajasthan
(b) The seasonal and daily changes in an environment (b) Coastal regions of India
(c) The way species differ from one another (c) Malabar coast
(d) The influence of physical factors on an (d) Delta regions
environment 265. Turpentine oil used in the manufacture of medicines
261. How an organism is suited to live in a particular is obtained from

A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
place is called (a) Acacia (b) Chir pin
(a) Competition (b) Adaptation (c) Sunflower (d) None of the above
(c) Addition (d) Participation 266. The main characteristic of biodiversity hotspots is/are
262. Which of the following is termed the Tiger State? (a) Threat from human beings
(a) Rajasthan (b) Biogeographical region with a specified percent-
(b) Gujarat age of endemic species
(c) Madhya Pradesh (c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Jammu and Kashmir (d) Neither (a) nor (b)
263. Match the following: 267. The Sagarmatha National Park has been established
to preserve the ecosystem of which mountain peak?
List I List II (a) Kanchenjunga (b) Mount Everest
(National Parks) (States) (c) Annapurna (d) Dholavira
A. Periyar I. Orissa 268. The species which are especially likely to develop on
biologically isolated areas such as islands are called
B. Nandankanan II. Kerala
(a) Endemic species
C. Corbett National Park III. Rajasthan (b) Extinct
(c) Wild
D. Sariska Tiger Reserve IV. Uttarakhand
(d) None of the above
Codes: 269. The great Indian rhino has its natural home in
(a) A–II, B–III, C–IV, D–III (a) Kaziranga National Park
(b) A–I, B–II, C–IV, D–III (b) Corbett National Park
(c) A–III, B–II, C–I, D–IV (c) Sunderbans
(d) A–I, B–II, C–III, D–IV (d) Kanha National Park

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 9.84 Chapter 9

270. The loss of an entire animal species is referred to as D. Nanda Devi National IV. Uttar
(a) Distinction Park Pradesh
(b) Annihilation
(c) Genocide Codes:
(d) Extinction (a) A–I, B–II, C–III, D–IV
271. Match the following: (b) A–I, B–III, C–II, D–IV
(c) A–IV, B–II, C–III, D–I
List I List II (d) A–IV, B–III, C–II, D–I
A. Ozone depletion I. Basel Convention 278. MAB stands for
(a) Man and Biome
B. CO2 reduction II. Kyoto Protocol
(b) Man and Biodiversity
C. Sustainable III. Rio Summit (c) Man and Biosphere
development (d) Man and Biosciences
D. Hazardous waste IV. Montreal Protocol 279. How many biological hotspots are located in India?
(a) 1 (b) 2
Codes: (c) 3 (d) 4
(a) A–IV, B–II, C–III, D–I 280. IUCN stands for
(b) A–IV, B–III, C–II, D–I (a) International Union for Conservation of Nature
(c) A–I, B–II, C–III, D–IV and Natural Resources
(d) A–I, B–III, C–II, D–IV (b) Indian Union for Conservation of Nature and
272. The Lion Tail Macaque is endemic to Natural Resources
(a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands (c) Integrated Union for Conservation of Nature and
(b) Lakshadweep Natural Resources
(c) Nilgiris (d) None of the above
(d) Arunachal Pradesh 281. Eighty per cent of the crocodiles in the world are
273. Which of the following states has maximum of man- found in India. In which of the following states is the
grove cover in India? number of crocodile sanctuaries the highest?
(a) Goa (a) Goa (b) Odisha
(b) West Bengal (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Tamil Nadu
(c) Orissa 282. Launched in 2005, Indian Rhino Vision 2020 is an
(d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands ambitious effort to attain a wild population of at
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

274. Dachigam Sanctuary is associated with conservation least 3000 greater one-horned rhinos.
of Which of the following states in India has the maxi-
(a) Hangul (b) Tiger mum number of ‘one-horned rhinos’?
(c) Lion (d) Rhinoceros (a) Mizoram (b) Assam
275. The most efficient method of biodegradable urban (c) West Bengal (d) Arunachal Pradesh
solid waste management is 283. What does mean “Agenda 21”?
(a) Landfills (b) Pelletization (a) It’s an agreement between 20 developing coun-
(c) Gasification (d) Composting tries of the world on climate change.
276. Wild water buffalo or Asian Buffalo or Indian Buffalo (b) It’s a free trade agreement between 7 developed
is mostly found in countries of the world.
(c) Agenda 21 is a non-binding, voluntarily imple-
(a) Eastern Himalayas (b) Western Ghats mented action plan of the United Nations with
(c) Aravali Hills (d) Satpura Range regard to sustainable development.
277. Match the following: (d) None of the above
284. Minamata Convention on Mercury is a global treaty
List I List II
to protect human health and the environment from
(Sanctuary) (State)
the adverse effects of mercury and its compounds. In
A. Kaziranga National Park I. Assam which of the following years was it signed?
B. Keolado National Park II. Rajasthan (a) 2006
(b) 2013
C. Sunderbans National III. West Bengal (c) 2016
Park (d) 2019

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 People, Development and Environment
285. Which of the following regions has the greatest
biodiversity?
(a) Tropical rain forests
(b) Arctic region
(c) Sub-tropical region
(d) None of the above
286. Which national park is situated at the highest alti-
tude in the country?
Miscellaneous Questions
288. Which of the following is/are the collaborative pro-
gram of Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and
Forest Degradation (UN-REDD)?
(a) Food and Agricultural Organization
(b) United Nations Development Programme
(c) United Nations Environment Programme
(d) All of the above
289. The Indian government has established around 18
biosphere reserves in India. Ten of 18 biosphere
reserves are a part of the World Network of Bio-
sphere Reserves, based on the UNESCO’s Man and
the Biosphere (MAB) Programme list. The latest was
added in the year 2016. Which one was that?
(a) Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve
(b) Seshachalam Hills
(c) Achanakmar-Amarkantak Biosphere Reserve
(d) Great Nicobar
290. Which of the following organizations has categorized
wild flora and fauna into eight categories (known as
Red List), such as extinct, critically endangered and
endangered?
(a) International Union for Conservation of Nature
and Natural Resources
(b) UNESCO
(c) Conference on Biodiversity
(d) Kyoto Protocol
291. Which of the following objectives of REDD+?
(a) Carbon stocks
(b) Causes of forest degradation
(c) Major carbon sinks
(d) All of the above
292. In which year did India announce a National Action
Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC)?
(a) 2008 (b) 2005
(c) 2003 (d) 1998
293. Which of the following is/are the main policy mea-
sures of Hydrogen Mission/Ammonia Mission?
(a) Green hydrogen and green ammonia are envis-
aged to be the future fuels to replace fossil fuels.
(b) This renewable energy (RE) measure will be the
basic ingredient in making green hydrogen to
help international commitments for clean energy.
(c) India aims to become self-reliant in energy by
2047 with help from Hydrogen Mission.
(d) All of the above
M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 85
9.85
(a) Corbett National Park
(b) Hemis National Park
(c) Silent Valley National Park
(d) Dachigam National Park
287. The endangered largest living lemur Idri idri is an
inhabitant of
(a) Nepal (b) Pakistan
(c) Madagascar (d) USA
294. Consider the following statements in context of
organic farming.
1. Organic food is supposed to be better for human
health as it is grown without the use of artificial
fertilizers and pesticides.
2. Fossil fertilizers are used instead of chemical fer-
tilizers and organic fertilizers are used instead of
insecticides during organic farming.
3. Sikkim is recognised as the “world’s first organic
state” by the World Book of Records London.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
295. Which of the following are the main outcomes of Rio
Summit that was held in 1992?
1. Rio Declaration encouraged people to Think
global, Act local
2. Agenda 21 is a non-binding action plan of the
United Nations with regard to sustainable
development.
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
3. The Earth Summit led to the establishment of
the Convention on Biological Diversity, and
the United Nations Framework Convention on
Climate Change (UNFCCC).
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
296. Which of the following organizations has promoted
Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest
Degradation (REDD+)?
(a) International Union for Conservation of Nature
(b) United Nations
(c) World Bank
(d) International Monetary Fund
297. The Government of India submitted its Intended
Nationally Determined Contribution (INDC) targets
to United Nations Framework Convention on Cli-
mate Change.
Which of the following statements is true in this
context?
1. To reduce the emissions intensity of its GDP by
33–35% by 2030 from the 2005 level.
2. To achieve about 40% cumulative electric power
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 9.86
installed capacity from non–fossil fuel–based
energy resources by 2030.
3. To create an additional carbon sink of 2.5–3 bil-
lion tons of CO2 equivalent through additional
forest and tree cover by 2030.
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only
298. In which of the following launched an initiative
‘Clean Air, Better Life’ in the year 2016?
(a) Niti Ayog and CII
(b) Niti Ayog and UNEP
(c) Central pollution control board
(d) UNESCO and WWF
299. Which of the following statement/s is/are true in
context of Mission Bhagirath?
(a) Mission Bhagirath is to interlink Bhagirathi River
with Krishna River.
(b) Mission Bhagirath is a safe drinking water for
every household. Under the Telangana Drinking
Water Supply Project, a mammoth 1.30 lakh km
stretch of pipelines would be laid to quench the
thirst of Telangana towns and villages apart from
providing water for the industrial needs.
(c) Both a and b
(d) Neither a nor b
300. Which of the following statements is/are true
(a) The world’s largest producer of rare earth metals,
which are used mainly in electronics industry, is
China.
(b) Taiwan makes 65% of the world’s semiconductors
and almost 90% of the advanced chips.
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
(c) Afghanistan has an estimated 1.4 million tonnes
of rare earth minerals including lithium (used in
batteries), uranium (used for nuclear fuel).
(d) All of the above
301. Which of the following statements are linked with
Net Zero Target which were stated by India at COP-
26 meeting at Glasgow?
(a) Net Zero is referred to as carbon neutrality. At this
stage country’s emissions are compensated by the
absorption and removal of greenhouse gases from
the atmosphere.
(b) The absorption of the emissions can be increased
by creating more carbon sinks, carbon capture
and afforestation.
M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 86
Chapter 9
(c) India has promised to cut its emissions to net zero
by 2070.
(d) All of the above
302. Which of the following statements are true in context
of COP27 meeting held at Sharm el-Sheikh (Egypt)
in November 2022?
(a) The concept of ‘loss and damage’ from climate-
induced disasters was accepted that is impor-
tant for small island states and other vulnerable
nations.
(b) Mitigation was discussed to keep global tempera-
tures below 2 degrees Celsius.
(c) India wanted to include a commitment to phase
down all fossil fuels (and not just coal).
(d) All of the above
303. Government wants to achieve the target of 100%
electrification of Indian Railways and its NET Zero
target by the following years, respectively.
(a) 2024 and 2030
(b) 2030 and 2070
(c) both by 2047
(d) both by 2030
304. Global Methane Pledge that is an US-EU led effort to
cut methane emissions by 2030 was announced dur-
ing Glasgow 26 COP Meet. The 100 nations signing
the pledge want to cut methane emissions by
(a) 20%
(b) 30%
(c) 45%
(d) 100%
305. Which of the following statements about Central
Bank Digital Currency that can be linked to SDGs are
true?
1. December 1, 2022 onwards, e `-R will be the digi-
tal legal tender currency.
2. It will be in the same denominations as that of
current paper currency and coins.
3. The transactions will be person to person and per-
son to merchant with the help of QR codes.
4. The first phase is to be implemented by SBI, ICICI
Bank, Yes Bank and IDFC Bank in select cities.
codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
23/12/22 8:01 PM
 People, Development and Environment 9.87

Answer Keys

Concept of People, MDG, SDG, Human-Environment Interaction

1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (a)
11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (a)
21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (a) 25. (a) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (d) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (b) 37. (d) 38. (d) 39. (d) 40. (d)
41. (c) 42. (c) 43. (c)
Pollution, Pollutants and Waste Management
44. (a) 45. (b) 46. (c) 47. (b) 48. (c) 49. (c) 50. (d) 51. (d) 52. (c) 53. (d)
54. (c) 55. (b) 56. (b) 57. (d) 58. (c) 59. (a) 60. (a) 61. (a) 62. (c) 63. (d)
64. (a) 65. (d) 66. (a) 67. (d) 68. (a) 69. (c) 70. (a) 71. (c) 72. (b) 73. (b)
74. (a) 75. (c) 76. (b) 77. (a) 78. (a) 79. (a) 80. (d) 81. (c) 82. (d) 83. (d)
84. (a) 85. (c) 86. (b) 87. (c) 88. (d) 89. (a) 90. (a) 91. (c) 92. (c) 93. (d)
94. (c) 95. (a) 96. (a) 97. (a) 98. (a) 99. (d) 100. (a) 101. (a) 102. (a) 103. (c)
104. (b) 105. (c) 106. (a) 107. (a) 108. (a) 109. (d) 110. (a) 111. (c) 112. (a) 113. (c)
114. (b) 115. (b) 116. (a) 117. (c) 118. (c) 119. (b) 120. (d) 121. (d) 122. (b) 123. (c)
124. (b) 125. (c) 126. (b) 127. (a) 128. (a) 129. (c) 130. (a) 131. (c) 132. (c) 133. (d)
134. (c) 135. (a) 136. (d) 137. (d) 138. (a) 139. (d) 140. (b) 141. (c) 142. (a) 143. (b)
144. (b) 145. (b) 146. (d) 147. (b) 148. (a) 149. (a) 150. (b) 151. (b) 152. (c) 153. (c)
154. (a) 155. (d) 156. (c) 157. (b) 158. (b) 159. (b) 160. (d) 161. (b) 162. (c) 163. (c)
164. (d)
Exploitation of Natural and Energy Resources
165. (a) 166. (b) 167. (a) 168. (d) 169. (d) 170. (d) 171. (b) 172. (a) 173. (d) 174. (a)
175. (b) 176. (d) 177. (a) 178. (c) 179. (a) 180. (a) 181. (b) 182. (d) 183. (d) 184. (b)
185. (a) 186. (a) 187. (a) 188. (d) 189. (a) 190. (a) 191. (a) 192. (a) 193. (d) 194. (a)
195. (b) 196. (b) 197. (d) 198. (d) 199. (b) 200. (b) 201. (a) 202. (b) 203. (b) 204. (d)
205. (a) 206. (d) 207. (c) 208. (d) 209. (c) 210. (c) 211. (b) 212. (d) 213. (a) 214. (a)

A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
215. (a) 216. (d) 217. (d) 218. (c) 219. (d) 220. (d) 221. (d) 222. (c) 223. (a) 224. (b)
225. (a) 226. (b) 227. (b) 228. (d) 229. (d) 230. (b) 231. (d) 232. (a)
Natural Disasters and Their Mitigation
233. (c) 234. (c) 235. (c) 236. (d) 237. (c) 238. (c) 239. (c) 240. (a) 241. (c) 242. (c)
243. (a) 244. (b) 245. (c) 246. (d) 247. (b) 248. (b) 249. (a) 250. (a) 251. (c) 252. (c)
253. (c) 254. (d) 255. (c) 256. (a) 257. (c) 258. (a) 259. (a)
Biodiversity
260. (a) 261. (b) 262. (c) 263. (a) 264. (a) 265. (b) 266. (c) 267. (b) 268. (a) 269. (a)
270. (d) 271. (a) 272. (c) 273. (b) 274. (d) 275. (a) 276. (a) 277. (a) 278. (b) 279. (a)
280. (c) 281. (b) 282. (c) 283. (b) 284. (b) 285. (a) 286. (b) 287. (c)
Miscellaneous Questions
288. (d) 289. (a) 290. (a) 291. (d) 292. (a) 293. (d) 294. (d) 295. (d) 296. (a) 297. (c)
298. (a) 299. (c) 300. (d) 301. (d) 302. (d) 303. (a) 304. (b) 305. (d)

M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 87 23/12/22 8:01 PM

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M09_MADAN 07_65901_C09.indd 88 23/12/22 8:01 PM

 CHAPTER
Higher Education
10 System

01 Institutions of Higher Learning and Education in

Ancient India

02 Evolution of Higher Learning and

Research in Post-Independent India

LEARNING
03 Oriental, Conventional and
OBJECTIVES Non-conventional Learning
Programmes in India

04 Professional, Technical and Skill-Based

Education

05 Value Education and Environmental Education

06 Policies, Governance and Administration

M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 1 23/12/22 8:05 PM

 10.2
Education is the manifestation of the perfection
already in man.
— Swami Vivekananda
Introduction to Higher Education
In Chapter 1, we discussed that education is fundamental
for achieving full human potential, developing an equita-
ble and just society, and promoting national development.
We discussed about all important aspects of education.
On higher education, we stand at third position
after USA and China. We have highly favourable demo-
graphic dividend ratio that belongs to 15–59 years group.
Demographic dividend, as defined by the India has 62.5%
of its population in the age group of 15-59 years which is
ever increasing and will be at the peak around 2036 when
it will reach approximately 65%.
United Nations Population Fund (UNFPA), is “the eco-
nomic growth potential that can result from shifts in a
population’s age structure, mainly when the share of the
working-age population (15 to 64) is larger than the non-
working-age share of the population (14 and younger,
and 65 and older)”.
The rich heritage of ancient and eternal Indian knowl-
edge and thought has been a guiding light for New
Education Policy, 2020. The pursuit of knowledge (jnan
- Kku), wisdom (pragyaa - izKk), vkSj truth (satya - lR;) was
always considered in Indian thought and philosophy as
the highest human goal.
We are starting our discussion with ancient education
in this chapter.
i nstitutions oF higher learning and
education in ancient india
We owe a lot to Indians who taught us how to
count without which no worthwhile scientific dis-
covery could have made.
— Albert Einstein
‘Education during the Vedic age was a journey from mortality
to immortality, from chaos to spiritual bliss.’ India has a rich
and glorious history of pursuit of excellence in education.
The history of education in India is nearly 5000 years old.
Ancient scriptures known as Vedas formed the strong
foundations of Indian civilization. It was during this
period that the famed citadels of learning, the Nalanda
and the Vikramshila Universities, thrived, attracting seek-
ers of knowledge from far and wide. It was wholesome
personality arrangement.
In ancient education, there are a variety of authorita-
tive schools of thought. The explanations depend on her-
meneutic (the way of analysing).
As knowledge is objective and impersonal, so is the Vedic
education. So Vedic education is essentially secular in nature.
Let us have a look at the chronology.
M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 2
Chapter 10
Concept Box
3300 years of Indian Philosophy: 1500 BCe upto
1800 Ce
(a) Vedas and Upanishads (osn vkSj mifu’kn): bce 1500–
500: Vedic period (oSfnd dky)
(b) Jainism Buddhism, Bhagavad Gita, the Manu
Smriti (tSu /keZ, ckS) /keZ, Hkxon xhrk, euq Le`fr) 600–200
ce:, the rise of the orthodox darshanas during Epic
period
(c) Nagarjuna and the rise of Mahayana Buddhism
(ukxktqZu vkSj egk;ku ckS) /keZ dk mn;) — 200 ce, Sutra
period (lw= le; vof/k)
(d) Shankaracharya scholastic period and the rise of
Vedanta (“kadjkpk;Z “kSf{kd dky vkSj osnkar dk mn;): 600 ce
(e) Rise of other Vedantic schools: Visishtadvaita,
Dvaita (vU; osnakfrd fo|ky;ksa dk mn;, fof”k’Vk}Sr, }Sr
vkfn): post-900 ce
Sutra literature followed the Vedic literature. It
happened between 600 bc and 200 bce. There was perhaps
greater need of social conduct into existence. Patanjali’s
Yoga, Gautama’s Nyaya (U;k;), and Mimamsa Shastras
(eheaklk “kkL=) happened during this period. Sutra literature
can be identified with the Upanishad period. The Sutra
period was identical to that of the Upanishad period.
The word Veda is derived from the word ‘Vid’ which means
‘knowledge’. Veda is supposed to be boundless because
knowledge is boundless. The education in the ancient period
was influenced by religious, political or economic factors.
The division of education can be shown in Fig. 10.2.
The total configuration of ideals, practices and conduct
is called dharma (righteous path).
The knowledge was divided into two streams:
1. Para vidya ( ): The higher knowledge and the
spiritual wisdom. The supreme objective of any indi-
vidual duty was to achieve his/her expansion into the
Absolute God, a spark of the Divine. Education was to
help in this objective.
2. Apara vidya ( ): It deals with lower knowl-
edge and the secular sciences. We gain knowledge
about physical, materialistic and comfortable life
here.
objectiVes oF education in a ncient india
Prof. M. Achyutan mentioned the following three objec-
tives of education:
1. The acquisition of knowledge
2. Inculcation of social and religious duties
3. Promotion of character
In ancient system, ‘self realisation’ and moksha (eks{k -
salvation of life) were the ultimate objectives of education.
It means liberation from the cycle of death and rebirth
(samsara - lalkj). For this, attaining such a high level of
knowledge is required.
23/12/22 8:05 PM
 Higher Education System 10.3

Elementary Secondary Tertiary

education education education

Higher Vocational
education education and training

General Professional Traditional New and emeging

Science Engineering ITI/ITC/Polytechnic Travel and Tourism, Aviation

Major fields Commerce Medicine courses Hospitality, Retail
of study Arts Architecture It/Computer training

Figure 10.1

Other objectives of education have been stated as follows: 2. Education was identified as a process, leading to one’s
inner progression and self-fulfilment.
1. Education was a matter of individual concern. The
3. The teachers would implement the techniques, pro-
focus was on personality development of the students,
cedures and approaches so that contents could be
by taking into account inner and outer perspectives.
understood by the students.
4. The progression means training of his or her mind as
the instrument of acquiring knowledge. This knowl-
Indian Sources of Knowledge edge would improve the creative abilities.
5. The thinking principle was estimated higher than the
subject of thinking. Thus, the primary subject of edu-
cation was the mind itself.
6. Learners identified their duty with devotion to the
Darshan ideal of (Latin expression that means the highest
Vedas Smritis Puranas Gita or ultimate good) of mankind. Human soul was the
Shastras
• Poorv material world.
Mimansa
• RigVeda • Nyay
• YajurVeda Bhagwatam
• Vaisheshik
• SamVeda • Sankhya Vedangas
• AtharvVeda • Yog
• Uttar
Mimansa Itihas
(Brahma • Ramayan
Sutra) • Mahabharat Vyakarna: Nirukta:
Sanskrit Grammar Dictionary
Sanctions of
Vedas
• Sanhita Writings of Writings of
• Brahman Acharyas, Rasik, Bhakt,
Shiksha:
• Aranyak Jagadgurus Saints Chhanda:
How to pronounce
Upanishads Poetic Stanzas
Vedic mantras

Upved
Vedanga • Arthved
• Dhanurved Jyotishya: Kalpa Sutra:
• Gandharvaved Astrology, Types which give
• Ayurved Astronomy concise form of Vedic
religion
Figure 10.2 Indian Sources of Knowledge Figure 10.3 Parts of Vedangas

M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 3 23/12/22 8:05 PM

 10.4
7. Learners achieved Chitta Vritti Nirodh (fpÙk o`fÙk fujks/k%),
which is the control of mental activities connected
with the concrete world.
8. The doctrine of action (deZ) occupies a very significant
place.
9. Ancient Indian literature refers to vocational education
also—there were 64 professions or arts which include
weaving, dyeing, spinning, art of tanning leather,
manufacture of boats and chariots, the art of training
elephants and horses, the art of making jewels and so
on. Young men used to work as apprentices under a
trainer for a number of years and gained expertise in
their respective professions. Education was free and
provided with boarding and lodging by the trainer.
10. The word ‘rta’ in Vedic education has two meanings:
natural order and moral order.
11. Design of curriculum (what to teach) was very
important.
Figure 10.4 Ashrama and Sages Performing Yagya
Relation of Knowledge with Life
1. Books were not used as sources of learning. There was
oral transmission of knowledge, and listening to teachers
and meditation during Vedic education. At a later stage,
some text education and wider subjects were included.
Thus, acquiring academic knowledge, values, cultures,
norms, morals, principles and ethics was important.
2. The students would acquire practical knowledge of
the world and society. An attempt was made to make
the students capable of experiencing the Supreme
Truth themselves.
3. In the acquisition of education, students were required to
give up all the material wealth and comforts.
4. During the process of education, students used to stay
in gurukulas and ashrams (Fig. 10.4). They were gen-
erally located on the banks of the rivers or lakes so life
was usually tough.
5. The students would work for self-purpose and apply
skills and knowledge for the society.
We need to look at the following basic classification:
1. Revealed texts or Shruti ( ) (what is heard):
Four Vedas and 108 Upanishads come under the Surti
category.
M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 4
Chapter 10
2. Remembered texts or Smriti ( ) (what is remem-
bered): The Bhagavat Gita, 18 Puranas, Arthasastra,
Kama Sutra, Tantras and many others come under the
Smrti Category.
Education Process ( )
Two stages are important in the education process:
1. Vidyarambha ( ): Education would start at the
age of 5.
2. Upanayana ( ): Formal education ceremony, also
called sacred thread ceremony. In the new home of
Guru, a learner had a second birth and was called
Dvija (f+}t). Dvija means second birth. One birth is
by the father and mother, and the other birth is by
the spiritual master and Vedic knowledge. It would
start at the age between 8 and 12 years. A learner
would be called ‘Brahmacharin’. (czãpkfju - celibacy). A
Brahmacharin after finishing his education is eligible
to become a Grihasta (x`gLFk - a householder). ‘Brahm
Sangh (czã la?k)’ was the opportunity for students to
acquire higher knowledge. The boys practiced this cer-
emony at different ages according to their castes.
3. The students had to study in the Gurukul (xq#dqy) for
about 12 years. After that they were allowed to go home,
and the Guru gave them final instructions. This ritual
was called the Samavartan Sanskar (lekorZu laLdkj).
The society and state did not interfere at all or much with
payment of fees. There was concept of working hard by
learners in the form of ‘dignity of labour’. There was concept
of offering some acknowledgement, gift or thanks at the end
of education; that is called ‘gurudakshina’ (xq# nf{k.kk).
As per another perspective, the process of education
involved three basic stages:
1. Sravana ( ): It refers to acquiring knowledge of
‘shrutis’ by listening.
2. Manana ( ): Pupils think, analyse themselves
about what they heard, assimilate the lessons taught
by their teacher and make their own inferences.
3. Nididhyasana ( ): comprehension of truth
and applying it into real life. It is a kind of reflective
stage.
Vedas
Vedas are perhaps the oldest books written to guide the
mankind.
Each book has four major kinds of text—the Samhitas
(lafgrk–mantras and benedictions), the Aranyakas (vj.;d–
text on rituals, ceremonies, sacrifices and symbolic sac-
rifices), the Brahmanas (czãkul–commentaries on rituals,
ceremonies and sacrifices) and the Upanishads (texts dis-
cussing meditation, philosophy and spiritual knowledge).
The Vedas are written in Vedic Sanskrit.
The Vedic system refers to Vedas. It comprises the
following:
1. Six Vedangas (N% osnkax)
2. Six darshanas (N% n”kZu)
3. Purana (iqjk.k–bfrgkl)
23/12/22 8:05 PM
 Higher Education System
4. Tarkshastra (rdZ “kkL=)
5. Upnishad (mifu’kn)
Upanishads, Smritis and Puranas all acknowledge the
superiority of Vedas. The Vedas are four in number:
1. Rig Veda ( –the book of mantra): It is the earliest
work of all Indo-European languages. It is in the praise
of God. It comprises ‘Plain Living’ and ‘High Thinking’.
Gayatri mantram touches the highest point of knowl-
edge and sustains human souls to this day. The Rig Veda
is a collection of 1017 hymns, though thousands remain
unexplored. It mentions women Rais that is called Brah-
manavadinis to denote equality between the sexes in the
field of knowledge. In Rig Veda, a teacher is called rishi.
2. Sama Veda ( –the book of chant): The Sama
Veda is a collection of verses from the Rig Veda for
liturgical purposes. Liturgical is the participation of
people in the work of God.
3. Yajur Veda ( –the book of ritual): It is the col-
lection of prose mantras or yajurs (sacred incanta-
tions), though the duty of chanting the hymns on the
occasion of sacrifice was mainly undertaken by the
Hotri, the first order of priesthood.
Both Sama Veda and Yajur Veda have Gayatri Mantra
in them.
4. Atharva Veda ( –the book of spell): This Veda
is thoroughly secular in character containing a vivid
description of various arts and sciences.
Rig Veda is also called Rig Veda Samhitaa (samhitaa
means collection). The institutionalization of rituals
brought into effect two major changes;
Firstly, it brought into existence the gods, with their
respective powers.
Secondly, it gave rise to a priestly class.
During initial stages of education, memorization of
texts such as Vedas and dharamsastras would take place.
At a later stage, it would be grammar, logic, metaphysics,
etc. There were some allied subjects also.
Vedic education also included sutras and brahmanism.
The basic streams were the following:
1. Pure oral teaching—purely Vedic
2. Thinking —‘chintan’ (fparu)
The Brahman Sangh was the set-up through which meri-
torious students were given chance to explore their mind.
The primary subject of education was the mind itself.
Buddha used story telling to explain his point.
About Women Education
There was a high standard of learning for women also. In
house, they might learn music and dancing. They had to
undergo the Upanayana ceremony.
There were two types of educated women:
1. Sadyodwahas ( ): They were people who
pursued studies till their marriages.
2. Brahmavadinis ( ): They were people who did
not marry and pursued studies throughout their lives.
Women used to learn Vedas and Vedangas. Their
M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 5
10.5
involvement was more in reciting hymns which were
necessary for the Yajna (sacrifice) or other ritualistic
operations. Women sages were called Rishikas. The
scholarly women could be named Maitreyi and Gargi.
This phase marks another transition from the spirit
of Brahmanas to the spirit of the Upanishads. While the
Brahmanas are called Karma Kanda (deZ dk.M–karma is
another word for yajna) because of total emphasis on rituals,
the Upanishads came to be known as Jñãna Kanda because
here knowledge becomes primary. Since the shift involved
total change in attitude, it needed a link. This phase is called
Aranyanka (vj.;ad) because it became relevant when men
retired to forests due to old age. Why should old people
retire to forests? Surely, this is a provoking question. Forest
was the dwelling place for tribes. If old people retired to for-
ests, then it must be due to strong affinity to the place of
origin, which prompted them to choose so.
Hence, proper study of philosophy begins only from
the Upanishads. The Aranyakas constitute a phase in the
life of an individual.
Subjects in Vedic Education
It might take 12 years for a student to develop expertise in
one Veda and thereafter, it would be 12, 20, 36 years and
so on. A graduate was called snatka (Lukrd–graduate)and
the graduation ceremony was called smavartna (lekorZu).
Let us have a look at some other subjects:
1. Itihas (history)
2. Anviksiki [vkUohf{kdh–the science of inquiry/logic–it has
two types–atma (vkRek–soul) and hetu (gsrq–theory of
reasons)].
3. Mimamsa (interpretation)
4. Shilpashastra (f”kYi”kkL=–architecture)
5. Arthashastra (vFkZ”kkL=–polity)
6. Varta (okrkZ–agriculture, trade, commerce, animal
husbandry)
7. Dhanurvidya (/kuqfoZ|k–archery)
8. Krida (ØhM+k physical education—games, recreational
activities)
9. Vyayamaprakara (O;k;ke izdkj–exercises)
10. Dhanurvidya (archery for acquiring martial skills)
11. Yogasadhana (;ksxlk/kuk–training the mind and body)
12. Shastrartha (“kkL=kFkZ–learned debates)
Buddhist Education
Non-Vedic philosophy schools reject the authority of the
Upanishads, that is, Jains, Buddhists and Charvakas.
These are the nãstika schools.
Buddhism rejected the subjects leading to enrichment
of worldly life and stressed the renunciatory aspect of
education.
1. Lord Buddha realized the need of educating devotees
on a massive scale. Buddhist education started 2600
years ago. It was collective in the sense that it was
not based on caste system. The Brahmanism followed
monocratic policy. Vinaya is the ethical code of the
Buddha, the rules for monks and the moral advice to
lay people (Dhamma Vinaya–/kEe fou;).
23/12/22 8:05 PM
 10.6
2. Lord Buddha delivered his first sermon in the village
of Sarnath, near the city of Benares in Uttar Pradesh.
This event is known as turning of the Wheel of Law
(Dharma-Chakra-Pravartana /keZ pØ ifjorZu).
3. Lord Buddha asked his followers to avoid the worldly
extremes of indulgence. He suggested ‘middle path’
(Madhyam Marg) to follow. Everyone was responsible
for his/her own happiness in life, stressing on the indi-
vidualistic component of Buddhism. The concept of ‘beg-
ging’ by disciples was to take out ego from their minds.
They were forbidden to accept gold, silver or anything
precious; it was only for routine things, food, etc.
4. A child would start his education at the age of 8 years
after the Prabrajya or Pabbajja ceremony that was
open to all castes.
5. As Buddhism was based on democratic principles, it
expanded very fast and many monasteries and viha-
ras were established. At a later stage, many of these
monasteries had converted into full-fledged uni-
versities of international importance. The prospec-
tive Bhikkhus (Buddhist monks) and Bhikkhunis or
Upasikas (Buddhist nuns) were the main students.
6. The monks were organized into the Sangha for better
management.
7. Its contribution to the art and architecture of India
was notable. The stupas at Sanchi, Bharhut and Gaya
are wonderful pieces of architecture.
8. In the Vedic age the student was given education up
to 25 years of age and after that he was permitted
to go home and lead the life; in the Buddhist system
after having received education the student never
came back to his parents place for leading the life of
a householder. He remained a monk for good and cut
off his worldly relationships forever.
9. The Buddha’s teaching was oral; his teachings were
written down around 25 bce in Pali.
10. Other important Buddhist texts include Divyavadana,
Dipavamsa, Mahavamsa, Milind Panha, etc.
11. The subjects mentioned in the Jatakas are medicine,
Vashikaran Kam-Tantra, Tantra-Mantra, archery,
elephant taming, hunting, giving life to the dead, the
knowledge of the voices of various animals, search of
truth and Nirvana.
12. Some students who could not get mental satisfaction
even through higher studies used to go to the isolated
place of some monk and spent their lives in search of
truth and Nirvana.
13. Gradually gaining spiritual knowledge, they became
ascetics in their future life.
14. Lord Buddha suggested four noble truths (ariya-
sachchani–vfj;k lPpkfu) and Eightfold Path (astangika
marg–v’Vkafxdk ekxZ).
Four noble truths in Buddhism:
1. Dukkha ( ): Suffering is the essence of the
world.
2. Samudya ( ): Every suffering has a cause.
3. Nirodha ( ): Suffering could be extinguished.
4. Atthanga Magga ( ): It can be achieved by
following the Eight Fold Path.
M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 6
Chapter 10
Eightfold Path Principle ( ): The path
consists of various interconnected activities related to
knowledge, conduct and meditative practices:
1. Right view 5. Right livelihood
2. Right intention 6. Right mindfulness
3. Right speech 7. Right effort
4. Right action 8. Right concentration
The essence of Buddhism is the attainment of enlighten-
ment. There is no supreme god or deity in Buddhism.
The ultimate goal of Buddha’s teaching was the attain-
ment of nibbana which was not a place but an experience,
and could be attained in this life.
Buddha established a code of conduct called five pre-
cepts (pancasil) and suggested to refrain from them:
• Violence
• Stealing
• Sexual misconduct
• Lying or gossip
• Taking intoxicating substances, for example, drugs or
drinks
Buddhist Councils
In total, four major Buddhist councils were conducted.
The First Council (izFke ifj"kn] laxhfr ;k egklHkk) was held
in 483 bce in the Sattapani cave at Rajgriha. The teach-
ings of Buddha were divided into three Pitakas:
1. (a)  Vinaya Pitaka ( ): Rules of conduct
and discipline applicable to the monastic life of
the monks and nuns
(b) Sutta Pitaka ( ): The main teaching or
Dhamma of Buddha (it is divided into five Nikayas
or collections)
(c) Abhidamma Pitaka ( ): A philosoph-
ical analysis and systematization of the teaching
and the scholarly activity of the monks
2. The Second Council was conducted in Vaishali.
3. The Third Council was conducted in Pataliputra
under the patronage of Ashoka.
4. The Fourth Council was conducted at Kundalvana,
Kashmir.
Buddhism was divided into two sects, namely, Mahayan
and Hinayana.
1. Mahayana ( –Great Vehicle): It believes in
the higher order and idol worship of Buddha. It soon
spread in northern India and then to China, Korea,
Tibet and Japan. Zen is also a school of Mahayana.
2. Hinayana ( –Lesser Vehicle): Also known as
Abandoned Vehicle or Defective Vehicle. It believes in
the original teaching of Buddha or doctrine of elders.
Theravada is a Hinayana sect.
In fact, Buddhism is a way of ‘soft diplomacy’ that was
liberal than Vedic approach. It promoted the spread of
Indian culture to other parts of Asia.
Effective revitalization of the Nalanda University proj-
ect and encouragement of Buddhist studies in well-estab-
lished universities will bring international community at
a common platform.
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 Higher Education System
jainism
The art of writing was known very well in India. In Jainism,
works such as Samavaya Sutra (leo; lw=) and Pragnapara
Sutra (izkx.kijk lw=) with reference to 18 different scripts
are available. The former refer to 64 types of scripts and
the latter to about a dozen types of scripts. Chinese travel-
ler Hiuen Tsang says that children began by learning the
alphabets. Then they began the study of five subjects—
grammar, arts and crafts, medicine, logic and philosophy.
There are basically three essential aspects in Jainism
1. Anekantavada: This can be termed as ‘non–absolutism’.
Here, we assume that the objects have infinite modes
of existence, so only Kevalins can comprehend all
aspects of knowledge.
2. Syadavada: This is a theory of conditioned predication.
The objects and situations have a conditional point of
view, practically all of our judgements are conditional,
they depend upon the situation.
3. Nayavada: This has partial viewpoints which focus
on describing reality from different points of view.
Concept Box
Languages Used
1. Sanskrit during Vedic education
2. Prakrit during Jain education
3. Pali during Buddhist education
There were no caste restrictions during Buddhist and
Jain periods. That also impacted choice of language.
Sanskrit was used all the times.
Education during Mauryan Period
During the Mauryan and the post-Mauryan periods,
society progressed a lot. There was emergence of urban
life. The guilds of the merchants began to render an
imperative contribution in making provision of education.
The new areas of education were in metallurgy, mining,
carpentry, weaving and dyeing. There was focus on
architecture and astronomy. There was development
of medical sciences. Sushruta was famous for surgery.
Charaka Samhita (pjd lafgrk/lfEgrk) written by Charaka
was an accurate and comprehensive work on medicines.
Samhita is also used after Rigveda, Samveda, Yajurveda
and Atharvaveda (_Xosn, lkeosn, ;tqosZn vkSj vFkoZosn).
Education during Gupta Period
There was development of Jain and Buddhist systems of
education. The learning was imparted orally and later
literary texts came to be put into practice for acquisition of
education. The monasteries had libraries, where important
texts could be found. Students from other countries, such as
China and South-East Asia, came to the Buddhist monasteries
for education. The maintenance of the monasteries was
normally done by kings and the rich mercantile class.
Fa-Hien (Qk-fg;ku), a Chinese Buddhist monk, also
spent several years in the monastery at Pataliputra,
studying Buddhist religious books. Varanasi, Mathura,
M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 7
10.7
Ujjain and Nasik developed. The Nalanda University was
known all over Asia for its high standards of scholarship.
The subjects taught included Vedanta, philosophy, study
of the Puranas, epics, grammar, logic, astronomy, phi-
losophy, medicine and so forth. Sanskrit, the court lan-
guage, was the medium of instruction.
The Jains used Sanskrit literature such as ‘Adipurana’
(vkfniqjk.k) and ‘Yashatilaka’ (;'kfryd) for educational
purposes in the earlier phase. To enable the individuals to
obtain recognition of education, the medium was changed
to Prakrit and other regional languages such as Tamil and
Kannada. Books in the Jain and Buddhist libraries were
written on palm leaves that were tied together and were
known as granthas (xzaFk).
Gradually, Jainism and Buddhism lost royal patronage
and their monasteries started declining as centres of edu-
cation and learning. The ‘mathas’ supported by Brahmins
were institutes equivalent to Jain and Buddhist monaster-
ies. The functions and tasks implemented in the ‘mathas’
for educational purposes were like those of the ashrams.
Post-Gupta Period
During the reign of Harsha, art and education gained prom-
inence. He encouraged education at all levels. Education
was provided in temples and monasteries. For the acqui-
sition of higher education, the universities of Taxila,
Ujjain, Gaya and Nalanda gained prominence. In Nalanda,
Hiuen Tsang spent several years studying Buddhist scrip-
tures. The head of Nalanda University was Shilabhadra, a
renowned scholar. In the seventh and eighth centuries, the
colleges attached to the temples emerged as new centres
of learning. They provided Brahmanical education and the
medium of instruction was Sanskrit. Entry to these temple
colleges was open only for the upper castes.
Knowledge
Knowledge was imparted orally. The different methods
used were as follows:
1. Memorization
2. Critical analysis
3. Critical introspection
4. Story telling: Method mainly used by Lord Buddha
mainly to explain his doctrines
5. Question and answer method: For further probe
into the discussion
6. Hands-on method: For practical and professional
courses such as medical science
7. Seminars: Through debates and discussions
Stopover
1. Where and when was the Second Buddhist Council
held?
(a) Pataliputra in 250 bce
(b) Sri Lanka in the first century bce
(c) Vaishali in 383 bce
(d) Mandalay in 1871 ce
The correct option is (c).
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 10.8
2. We can know about the early Vedic period from
(a) Archaeological excavations
(b) The Rig Veda
(c) Jatak Katha
(d) Contemporary culture
The correct option is (b).
Types of Teachers
• Acharya ( ): A teacher to teach Vedas without
charging fee from the students
• Upadhyaya ( ): To earn his livelihood and
taught only a portion of the Veda or Vedangas
• Charakas ( ): Wandering scholars to visit the
nation for higher knowledge, usually regarded as pos-
sible source of knowledge by Satapatha Brahmana
(Hiuen Tsang gained the knowledge this way)
• Guru ( ): Used to lead a grihastha life by imparting
education and by maintaining his family
• Yaujanasatika ( ): Famous for their pro-
found scholarship, students from distant places would
visit them to seek education
• Shikshika ( ): Instruction in arts such as dancing
Educational Institutions
1. Gurukul ( ): This was the house of the teacher
who was a settled householder.
2. Parishads ( ): Here, the students usually settled
for higher education; Parishads originally used to
have 3 Brahmins. The number gradually increased,
and a Parishad even consisted of 20 Brahmins who
were well versed in philosophy, theology and law.
Sangam was also such a Parishad during the first
century ce in Tamilnadu; here some works were
submitted for criticism also. These gatherings were
patronized by kings.
3. Goshthi ( ): This conference was a national gath-
ering summoned by a great king in which represen-
tatives of various schools were invited to meet and
exchange their views.
4. Ashramas ( ): This hermitage was another cen-
tre where students from distant and different parts
of the country flocked together for learning around
famous sages and saints, for example, the ashrama
of Bharadwaj at Prayag. A full-fledged ashram a is
described as consisting of several departments such
as the following:
1. Agnisthana (vfXuLFkku): for fire worship and prayers
2. Brahmasthana (czãLFkku): for Vedas
3. Vishnusthana (fo".kqLFkku): for teaching Raja Niti,
Arthaniti, Vartta, etc.
5. Vidyapeetha ( ): This was an educational insti-
tution for spiritual aspects started by the great Acharya.
Sri Shankara started such institutions at Sringeri,
Kanchi, Dwarka, Puri and Badri.
6. Ghathikas ( ): Here, both the teachers and
the pupils met and discussed. The cultured scholars
would meet, discuss and clash also. In South India,
colleges called as ghathikas emerged from temples.
M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 8
Chapter 10
7. Agraharas ( ): They were settlements of Brahmins
in ­villages where they used to teach.
8. Mathas ( ): They were mainly for residing and
receiving religious and secular instructions. These
mathas belonged to both Shaiva and Vaishnava
sects and were normally attached to some temple
associations.
9. Brahmapuri ( ): It was a settlement of learned
Brahmins in towns and cities or in any selected area
for education purpose.
10. Vihara ( ): It was a Buddhist monastery where all
Buddhist preaching and philosophy were taught.
Main Educational Institutions of Higher
Education during A ncient India
Ancient Universities ( )
The universities of ancient India have a prouder history
than that of their counterparts in the ancient Western
world. At least one of them, viz., Taxila, flourished several
centuries before the universities of Alexandria, Athens
and Constantinople.
1. Taxila University ( )
• Taxila (Takshashila) was probably the first uni-
versity in the world. It flourished from 600 bce to
500 ce, in the kingdom of Gandhar. Takshashila
was thus the intellectual capital of India, a cen-
tral university that exercised suzerainty over the
world of letters in India.
• It was not a properly centralized university.
• The university was popular for Brahmanical and
Buddhist education. Taxila is also described in some
detail in the Buddhist Jãtaka tales (trkdk dFkk,a).
• The university taught 68 subjects such as Vedas,
languages, grammar, philosophy, medicine,
surgery, archery, politics, warfare, astronomy,
accounts, commerce, documentation, music,
dance and other performing arts, futurology, the
occult and mystical sciences, and complex math-
ematical calculations.
• The minimum entry age was 16 years. It attracted
students from Babylon, Greece, Syria and China.
• There was no exam system.
• Taxila was influenced by the Greek culture to an
extent.
• This university was well known for its specialized
training on the subject of Tantra (Tantrism).
• A wide range of subjects were taught by experi-
enced masters: Vedas, language, grammar, phi-
losophy, medicine, surgery, archery, politics,
warfare, astronomy, astrology, accounts, com-
merce, futurology, documentation, occult, music,
dance, etc.
The following were its main scholars:
(a) Kautilya ( ): The author of ‘Arthashastra’
(vFkZ'kkL=) on statecraft, economic policy and
military strategy, written in Sanskrit (Kautilya
is also identified as Vishnugupta and Chanakya;
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 Higher Education System
he was the teacher and guardian of Emperor
Chandragupta Maurya)
(b) Panini ( ): Grammarian for Sanskrit
(c) Charak ( ): Name associated with Charaka
Samhita, which was on ancient Indian medicine
that is ayurveda
(d) Vishnu Sharma ( ): Author and compiler
of the Panchtantra
2. Nalanda University ( )
A historian writes, ‘The University of Nalanda was the
educational center of international moral comparable
in the universalism of its thought, the wide range of
its studies, the international character of its commu-
nity to the greatest universities of modern time like
Oxford, Cambridge, Paris and Harvard.’
•  The ancient Nalanda University was located
near Rajgriha in Bihar; it has been the birth
place of Sariputta, a favourite disciple of Lord
Buddha, who was closely linked with Mahayana
(Fig. 10.5).
• The university was a Buddhist centre of learning
(Mahayana Vehicle) from 427 to 1197 ce. Its
campus was 1 mile in length and 0.5 mile in width.
• Sheelbhadra ('khyHknz) was the kulpati or chancellor
of the university. He had studied all Sutras and
Shastras books.
• There was Dwar Pandi, a teacher who was the
in-charge for admission to the university.
• The university was famous for 8 big halls named
smgrhma (lexze) and the 300 study chambers.
• It is stated that at one time there were 10,000
monks staying at Nalanda. Hien Tsang wrote in
his diary that 10,000 students and 200 profes-
sors were at the Nalanda University. Hiuen Tsang
came here in the seventh century ce.
• This university was also renowned for its cosmo-
politan and catholic character. It was famous for
its faculty of Logic.
• The admission criteria were tough. The entrance
examination was very difficult and the pass rate
was 3 out of every 10 students.
• The minimum age limit was 20 years for admis-
sion into the university.
• Many facilities were being offered free of cost.
• There were three methods of teaching, namely,
(i) verbal and explanatory, (ii)  lectures and
(iii) d
 ebates and discussions.
• It has boasted a massive library called Dharma
Gunj or Mountain of Knowledge. It had nine sto-
reys. The library had three departments known as
‘Ratna Sagar’, Ratnodavi and Ratnayanjak.
• The university had a towering observatory called
the Ambudharaavlehi for astronomical research.
• The university progressed a lot during Gupta
dynasty.
• In year 2010, a new Nalanda University was set
up in Bihar as a Central University with help from
Japan, China, Thailand, Laos, Singapore and
Australia by various manners.
M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 9
10.9
• Nalanda made unique contributions to the evolu-
tion, expansion and refinement of Indian culture.
• 
Bakhtiyar Khilji put the university towards
destruction by the end of the twelfth century ce.
Figure 10.5 Ancient Nalanda University
3. Valabhi University ( )
•  Vallabhi University was an important center of
Buddhist learning and championed the cause of
Hinayana Buddhism between 600 ce and 1400 ce.
Chinese travellers Hiuen Tsang and Itsing who
visited this university during the seventh century
describes it as a great centre of learning—as
glorious as Nalanda.
• This university was not just a centre of religious
education but other secular subjects such as
Arthashastra (economics), Niti Shastra (law) and
Chikitsa Sastra (medicine) were also taught here.
• Though this university championed the cause of
Hinayana Buddhism, Brahminical sciences were
also taught here.
• Valabhi was running in good financial position
till 755 ce but some portions were destroyed due
to Arab invasion. It still continued till the twelfth
century.
• Gunamati and Sthirmati (xq.kefr vkSj fLFkjefr) were the
two famous scholars graduating from this university.
• In September 2017, the Government of India had
plans to revive this university.
4. Vikramshila University ( –
800–1023 ce)
• Vikramshila Vihara or University (Buddhist mon-
astery) was set up by Emperor Dharampala of Pala
dynasty in the eighth century era in Bhagalpur
Northern on the banks of the river Ganges.
•  The buildings were well planned and
accommodative.
• The university was famous for religious teach-
ings. It actually represented Mahayana form of
Buddhism but important branches of Hinduism
were also taught. The courses taught in Hindu
institutions covered subjects such as the 14 Vidyas,
the 18 Silpas and the 64 arts which embrace all
the knowledge necessary for a householder.
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 10.10
• The admission was allowed to only those who
wanted to become monks.
• Vikramashila appears to have had a more clearly
delineated hierarchy than other mahaviharas, as
follows:
– Abbot (Adhyaks.a– v/;{k)
– Six gate protectors or gate scholars (Dvārapāla
or Dvārapan.d.ita }kjiky ;k }kj-iafMr), one each
for the Eastern, Western, First Central, Second
Central, Northern and Southern Gates
– Great scholars (Mahapandita–egkiafMr)
– Scholars (Pan.d.ita), roughly 108 in number
– Professors or teachers (Upādhyāya or Āchārya),
roughly 160 in number including pan.d.its
– Resident monks (bhiks.u–fHk{kq), roughly 1000 in
number
• The university was famous for its Tibet connection.
• The university was later organized into six col-
leges. The central building was called the Vigyan
Bhawan.
•  Mahasthavir was the highest authority of the
university, being known as the Kulpati of the
Gurukula.
• The main subjects of study were Vyakaran, Logic,
Philosophy, Tantra Shastra and Karamkanda.
• Tantra Shastra (ra= 'kkL=–Tantric Buddhism) gained
prominence – at a later stage.
• Degrees were conferred on the graduates and
post-graduates at the time of samavartana (con-
vocation) by the rulers of Bengal.
• The university was destroyed by Bakhtiyar Khilji
in 1203 ce.
• The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) has
chosen the ancient Vikramshila University in
Bhagalpur to conserve and develop on interna-
tional lines.
5. Odantapuri University ( ): This
university had been established long before the Kings
of Pala dynasty came into power in Magadha.
  Odantapuri could not attain that level of fame
and repute which either Nalanda or Vikramshila had
accomplished.
  Nearly 1000 monks and students resided and
received education there. The university attracted
students from Tibet also.
6. Jagaddala University ( ): Pal King,
Raja Ram Pal of Bengal constructed a monastery and
named it Jagaddala. It remained a centre of Buddhist
education for about 100 years. It was again destroyed
during the invasion in 1203 ce.
  In Jagaddala, there were many scholars notable
for their knowledge. The books were translated in
Tibetan language.
7. Mithila University ( ): In the
Upanishadic age, Mithila became a prominent seat of
Brahmanical education. It was named Videha (fonsg).
  It continued with its glory from Raja Janak up to
the Buddhist period. Later on, this place produced
devotees of Lord Krishna.
M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 10
Chapter 10
  Famous poets Vidyapati, who had written in Hindi,
and Jaideo, a prominent poet of Sanskrit literature,
were born here.
  From the twelfth to the fifteenth century, besides
literature and fine arts, scientific subjects were also
taught there.
• There was a Nyaya Shastra and Tarka Shastra.
• Gangesha Upadhyaya founded a school of New
Logic (Nvaya Nyaya–uO; U;k;).
• An epoch-making work named Tattva Chintamani
(rÙo fparkef.k) had been written.
Mithila produced a number of other scholars and lit-
erary celebrities.
Even up to Emperor Akbar, it continued to flourish as
an important centre of education and culture.
8. Nadia University ( ): Situated at the
confluence of Ganga and Jalangi rivers in Bengal, it was
formerly called Navadweep. Education in Nadia Univer-
sity was imparted at three centres, namely, Navadweep,
Shantipur and Gopaalpura.
• The lyrics of Gita Govind (xhr xksfoan) by Jaideva
reverberated here.
• A school of logic owed its existence to Raghunatha
Shiromani.
• Learning and efficiency in discussions was consid-
ered to be an essential qualification of a teacher of
this university.
9. Ujjain University ( ): It was famous
for its secular learning, including mathematics and
astronomy.
10. Salotgi ( ): It was an important centre of learn-
ing in Karnataka. It had 27 hostels for its students
who hailed from different provinces. This college was
richly endowed in 945 ce by Narayana, the minister
of Krishna III, with the revenues of houses, land and
levies on marriages and other ceremonies.
11. Ennayiram ( ) in Tamil Nadu provided free
boarding and tuition to 340 students. Other impor-
tant centre of learning in South India were Sringeri
and Kanchi.
Note: The universities at Takshashila, Nalanda, Valabhi,
Vikramshila, Odantapuri and Jagaddala developed in con-
nection with the viharas (mainly Buddhism). The univer-
sities at Benaras, Navadeep and Kanchi developed in con-
nection with temples and became centres of community
life in the places where they were situated.
Few of our ancient scholars
1. Maharishi Charaka ( ): Living time between
ad 150-200–100 bc)–editor of the medical treatise
Charaka Samhita (pjd lafgrk) that was composed by
Agnivesa (vfXuos'k) and later edited by Charaka (pjd).
This is part with Brhat-Trayi. Charaka was a contem-
porary of Kanishka
2. Sushruta ( ): Father of Surgery / Plastic Surgery.
His work is Sushruta Samhita (lqJr q lafgrk)
3. Vagbhata ( ): He composed Ashtanga Hridayam
Samhita (v"VkX³ân;lafgrk).
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 Higher Education System
4. Āryabha a ( ): Āryabha a belonged to
Patliputra, (5th century AD during Gupta Era). He
was an Indian mathematician and astronomer, and
the author of the Maha-Siddhanta. His great work on
Explanation of lunar eclipse and solar eclipse, rotation
of Earth on its axis, reflection of light by moon. He
invented zero. He referred to Algebra as Bijaganitam.
He calculated the most accurate value of pi. He also
worked on solar systems and calculated the length
of the solar year to 365.8586805 days. In his book
‘Aryabhattiyam’ (vk;ZHkÍh;e), he worked on suryasid-
hanta (lw;Zfl)akr), chakra yantra (pØ ;a=–disk instru-
ment), Gola yantra (xksy ;a=–type of armillery sphere)
and shadow instruments. Aryabhatta deduced that
earth is a rotating sphere. Lalla (yYyk) followed the
tradition of Aryabhata. He was well known because of
twelve instruments which he brought into practice.
5. Varahamihira ( ): Born in 505 in Ujjain.
He is the Indian philosopher, astronomer, and
mathematician who wrote the Pancha-siddhantika
(iap fl)kfUrdk–Five Treatises), a collection of Greek,
Egyptian, Roman, and Indian astronomy.
6. Bhaskaracharya ( ): The leading math-
ematician of the 12th century, who wrote the first
work with full and systematic use of the decimal num-
ber system. He found gravitational theory 500 years
before Isaac Newton.
6. Panini ( ): Dated between 6th and 4th century
BCE, Panini was a great Sanskrit philologist, gram-
marian. He made several discoveries in the field of
phonetics, phonology and morphology.
7. Pingala ( ): A great mathematician associated
with binary numbers (similar to current Morse code).
This indicates his deep understanding of arithme-
tic. He offered ideas about Fibonacci numbers and
Pascal’s triangle.
8. Brahmagupta ( 598–668 AD): He wrote on math-
ematics and astronomy in Brahamasphutasiddhanta
(czãLQqVfl)akr) in 628 AD where he discussed general
quadratic, square, square roots, cubes and cube roots of
an integer, fractions etc.
9. Bhaskara-I ( ): A 7th century Indian
mathematician–the first to write numbers in the Hindu
decimal system with a circle for the zero, and who gave
a unique and remarkable rational approximation of the
sine function in his commentary on Aryabhata’s work.
10. Vachaspati Misra ( –ad 840): Vachaspati
anticipated solid (co-ordinate) geometry eight centu-
ries before Descartes (ad 1644)
11. Chakrapani Datta ( , from Bengal): He
wrote Charaka Cheturanana, Sushruta Sahasranayana
and Mahamahopadhyaya (pjdk prqjkuu, lqJr q k vkSj
lgL=u;ue egkegksik/;k;). He made contributions towards
Sanskrit grammar, Nyaya QylQk. He compiled shabad-
chandrika ('kCnpfUnzdk) dictionary. His annotations on
Gauatama's Nyāya Sūtras are noteworthy.
12. Nāgārjuna ( ): He was an Indian metallurgist
and alchemist. He knew about extraction of mercury
and iron.
M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 11
10.11
Stopover
Which of the following universities is being referred
through the following statements?
(1) It was perhaps the oldest university in the world.
(2) There was no exam system.
(3) It has some impact of Greece culture.
(4) The students will enter the university at the age
of 16.
Identify the university.
(a) Vikramshila University
(b) Nalanda University
(c) Ujjain University
(d) Takshashila University
The correct option is (d).
Decline of A ncient Education
With continuous Islamic invasions, many education
centres were destroyed. Vedic system of education moved
to South. It was under the patronage of Vijayanagara
rulers that the Vedic savants Sayana and Madhava wrote
commentaries on the Vedas.
The Muslim ruler elite promoted urban education in
terms of libraries and literary societies. They founded
primary schools maktab (edrc) in which students
learned reading, writing and basic Islamic prayers, and
secondary schools (madrasas) to teach and train for
advanced language skills. Often attached to mosques,
Islamic schools were open to the poor but were gender
segregated, often only for boys. Muslim girls of affluent
families studied at home.
During Mughal era, Persian was the court language,
and elite boys could attend Persian schools to learn liter-
ature, history, ethics, law, administration and court pro-
tocol. More intimate settings for the spread of ideas were
the retreats (khanqah - [kudkg) of famous Sufis (Muslims
who professed mystic doctrines). Sanskrit academies
continued to teach young male Brahmans literature and
law; apprenticeship and commercial schools taught boys
the skills needed for business. Education for girls was an
exception rather than a rule.
Policies Perspective of Modern
Education
Let us look at the basic perspective of higher education in
India.
Keeping in view the nature and scope, there are varia-
tions between the definitions of an education policy. An
education policy may be defined as follows:
1. A process through which any society handles an edu-
cational problem, which includes a society’s expressed
intentions and official enactments as well as its con-
sistent patterns of activity and inactivity in the area of
education
Social problem → Government action → Impact
on society
23/12/22 8:05 PM
 10.12
Entrepreneurship
Productivity
PRIVATE
Increasing Spending
Higher
Education Tax Revenues
PUBLIC
R&D
FDI
GOVERNANCE
2. The process by which governments (society) translate
their educational vision into programmes and activi-
ties to deliver outcomes, that is, desired changes in
the real world
3. An explicit or implicit single decision or group of deci-
sions that may set out directives for guiding future
decisions, initiate or retard action, or guide imple-
mentation of previous decisions
Policy, therefore, is a course of action rather than the
everyday decisions or actions, perceived by analysts.
A framework of educational policy analysis involves a
process in which various stakeholders analyse, generate,
implement, assess and redesign policies. This is referred
to as educational policy cycle. It is defined as a tool used
in the analysis of a policy item development. It involves
the following steps:
1. Problem identification
2. Policy formation to deal with the identified problem
3. Decision-making targeting the identified problem
4. Implementation, that is, the realization of an applica-
tion, or execution of the plan
5. Analysis and evaluation of a policy to continue or ter-
minate
Evolution of Higher Learning and Research
in P ost -I ndependence I ndia
Modern education began in India under the British rule.
The three basic agents of modern education in India
were as follows:
1. British rule
2. Christian missionaries
3. Indian intellectuals and reformers
The company wanted some educated Indians who could
assist them in the administration of the land.
M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 12
Chapter 10
Specialization
JOBS
Economic
Growth
Sustained
Income
Growth
Poverty
Reduction
SOCIAL
DEVELOPMENT
SAFETY
The British also wanted to understand the local cus-
toms and laws well.
1. Warren Hastings established the Calcutta Madrassa
in 1781 for the teaching of Muslim law.
2. In 1791, a Sanskrit College was started in Varanasi by
Jonathan Duncan for the study of Hindu philosophy
and law system.
3. The Charter Act, 1813 was the first step towards edu-
cation being made an objective of the government.
There was some split in the government about the
nature of education, whether it should be traditional
or modern.
4. The oldest college was set up in Calcutta in 1817.
Later in 2010, it was converted into a university that
is called as Presidency University.
5. The oldest university that is still in operation is Senate
of Serampore College. It was set up in 1818. It got the
university status in 1829.
6. The present system of higher education can be
dated back to Mountstuart Elphinstone’s minutes
of 1823 which stressed on the need for establishing
schools for teaching English and European science
subjects.
7. Lord Macaulay in his minutes in 1835 advocated
“efforts to make natives of the country thoroughly
good English scholars”.
8. In 1835, under Lord William Bentick, it was decided
to introduce English as the medium of instructions in
India. The start was to be made among from upper
and middle classes students. Ultimately that policy
was to trickle down to the masses. That was called as
‘Infiltration Theory’. The main objective was to create
a class of Indians who Indian in colour and blood but
were to English in taste and affiliation.
9. In 1835, Elphinstone College (Bombay) and Calcutta
Medical College were founded.
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 Higher Education System
10. Sir Charles Wood’s Dispatch of 1854 that is also called
as “Magna Carta of English Education in India’ rec-
ommended to create a properly articulated scheme of
education from the primary school to the university.
It sought to encourage indigenous education and also
the creation of coherent policy of education.
11. Subsequently, the universities were set up in 1857.
(a) University of Calcutta.
(b) University of Bombay (now in Mumbai).
(c) University of Madras.
12. Indian Education Commission, also called as Hunter
Commission (1882–83) recommended the segrega-
tion of education into primary education and higher
education.
13. In 1902, Indian Universities Commission was set up
under Sir Thomas Raleigh to enquire into conditions
and prospects of setting up of universities in India. As
a result of its recommendations, Indian Universities
Act was passed in 1904.
14. In 1905, National Council of Education was set up
by Swadeshi nationalist leaders. Jadavpur University
was set also result of this effort. Sri Rabindranath
Tagore set up Shanti Niketan institutions in Bengal.
In 1921, Vishwa Bharti University by set by Tagore.
That central university is an ‘Institution of National
Importance’ now. It is the only university where Prime
Minister is the Chancellor.
15. In 1913, there was a resolution on education policy.
In 1917, Calcutta University Commission, that is also
called as Sadler Commission, suggested the separa-
tion of intermediate education from degree colleges.
Sadler Commission suggested to provide large amount
of autonomy to the teaching bodies of the universities.
16. The Morley-Minto Reforms had been introduced in
1919. In respect of education, it meant the transfer
of the constitutional authority to manage education,
not only to the provinces but to Indian ministers as
well. Some subjects were reserved, and some were
transferred. This system was part of ‘diarchy (or
dyarchy) system.
17. This commission had been the precursor to the
10 + 2 + 3 system and setting up of ‘Central Advisory
Board of Education’ (CABE). CABE is the oldest and
the most important advisory body of Government of
India in education was first established in 1920 and
dissolved in 1923 as a measure of economy. It was
revived in 1935 and has been in existence ever since.
  The government of India act made education as
provincial subject.
18. The Inter-University Board (later known as the
Association of Indian Universities) was established
in1925 to promote university activities, by sharing
information and cooperation in the field of education,
culture, sports and allied areas. It was represented by
the vice-chancellors.
19. Hartog Commission (1929) focused on quality and
standards of education. Sapru Committee (1934)
focused upon unemployment issue. Abbot Wood
report (1937) recommended English as a medium of
instruction at university level.
M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 13
10.13
20. Wardha Scheme of education (1937) Nai Talim or
basic education, at the recommendation of Mahatma
Gandhi.
21. Sargent Report (1944) also known as ‘Scheme of
Post war Educational Development in India’ recom-
mended setting up of University Grant Commission.
It has been discussed further also as it set precedence
for setting up of University Grant Committee.
  The education system under British rule set up
the modern education in India. After independence,
government of India changed the focus to meet the
expectations of people. They were still considered as
a basis for post-independence education system.
Stopover
Universities in the Presidency towns in India were
established in
(a) 1857 (b) 1858
(c) 1900 (d) 1909
The correct option is (a).
Modern Education after Independence
The Government of India took several initiatives to
improve and promote higher education in the country
after independence.
1. Government of India Act, 1935: This act did not
lead to any significant change, except that it put an
end to the inherently defective system of diarchy. For
the first time, a constitutional distinction was made
between the powers of the Centre (Federation, as it
was known in the 1935 Act) and those of the prov-
inces. Two lists of subjects were drawn up in this Act;
one enumerated central powers and the second the
provincial powers.
2. Sargent Report: Its official name was Central
Advisory Board of Education on Post-War Educational
Development in India. It was set up in 1944. This was
the first attempt to formulate a national system of
education in India. It recommended the formation
of a University Grants Committee, which was formed
in 1945 to oversee the work of the three central uni-
versities of Aligarh, Banaras and Delhi. In 1947, the
Committee was entrusted with the responsibility of
dealing with all the then existing universities. It rec-
ommended that the University Grants Committee be
reconstituted on the general model of the University
Grants Commission of the United Kingdom with
a full-time Chairman and other members to be
appointed from among educationists of repute.
3. University Education Commission: This was
appointed in 1948 under the Chairmanship of Dr S.
Radhakrishnan. He made an interim recommendation
to the government wherein he suggested that education
be made a concurrent subject while the Constitution
was under formation. This recommendation was not
accepted by the Constituent Assembly. However, a com-
promise was worked out; certain entries were inserted
which gave far-reaching powers to the Centre.
23/12/22 8:05 PM
 10.14
(a) Entry 63 dealt with the control of institutions
such as the National Library, Calcutta, and uni-
versities (now often called ‘central universities’)
such as Banaras, Aligarh and Delhi.
(b) Entry 64 dealt with institutions of scientific and
technical education—INI (IIT).
(c) Entry 65 dealt with agencies and institutions for
professional, vocational or technical training or
scientific or technical institutions could also be
established by the Centre.
(d) Entry 66 dealt with various issues regarding
higher education—specifically it is about coordi-
nation and determination of standards in institu-
tions for higher education or research or scien-
tific and technical institutions.
Here, it is worth noting that UGC, AICTE, Medical
Council of India (that became National Medical
Commission in 2019), Nursing Council of ICAR, Pharmacy
Council of India, Institute of Architects, Institute of
Accountancy, Bar Council of India, etc., were established
under Entry 66 perspective.
1. In 1952, the Union Government decided that all
cases pertaining to the allocation of grants-in-aid
from public funds to the central universities and
other universities and institutions of higher learning
might be referred to the UGC. Consequently, the UGC
was formally inaugurated by late Shri Maulana Abul
Kalam Azad, the then Minister of Education, Natural
Resources and Scientific Research on 28 December
1953.
2. The UGC, however, was formally established only in
November 1956 as a statutory body of the Government
of India through an Act of Parliament for the coordina-
tion, determination and maintenance of standards of
university education in India.
3. Mudaliar Commission (1952–1953)
It is also popular as the Secondary Education
Commission. It recommended introducing a three-
year secondary and a four-year higher education sys-
tem. It also advocated the setting up of multipurpose
schools and vocational training institutes.
4. Committee on Emotional Integration (1961)
It was set up under the chairmanship of Dr
Sampurnanand to study the role of educational pro-
grammes for the youth, in order to strengthen the
process of emotional integration.
5. Students should remember that in 1963, there was a
decision by the Gujarat University to make Gujarati
the sole medium of instruction and examination. But
it was taken back after a court decision.
6. Kothari Commission recommendations (1964–66)
have been discussed later in the chapter. Following
that, the NPE was announced in 1968.
7. The National Council for Teacher Education
(NCTE): It was set up in 1973 by a government reso-
lution as a national expert body to advise central and
state governments on all matters pertaining to teacher
education. The Council was made a statutory body by
an Act of Parliament in 1993.
M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 14
Chapter 10
8. Education Subject in Concurrent List (1976)
India has a federal set up and education is the con-
current responsibility of both the centre as well as
the states. Post-independence, education (includ-
ing university education) was the responsibility of
the states, while the centre was given the function of
coordination and determination of standards. How-
ever, in 1976, through Entry 25 (42nd Constitution
Amendment) in the concurrent list of the constitution
of India. The centre was also given the responsibilities
along with the states for all levels of education.
9. In 1978, there was publishing of ‘Development of
Higher Education: A Policy Framework approach.
10. The government set up the ‘National Commission on
Teachers (higher education) in 1984.
11. During the years the UGC has implemented the deci-
sions such as for setting up study centres or cells
for women studies in 1986 and ‘Career Orientation
to Education (Vocationalisation of Education)’ in
1994–95.
12. National Education Policy 1986 and Point of Action
1992
The main objective of the National Policy of Education
of 1986 and Programme of Action, 1992 was to estab-
lish a national system of education implies that all stu-
dents irrespective of castes; creed, sex, and religion have
access to education of a comparable quality. There was
due emphasis on primary and secondary education.
This policy came after when the education was
entered into concurrent list in the year 1976 through
42nd constitutional amendment. Most of our classic
government schemes such as Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan,
Mid Day Meal Scheme, Navodaya Vidyalayas (NVS
schools), Kendriya Vidyalayas (KV schools) and use of
IT in education were started under the NEP of 1986.
The NPE emphasized on enhancing and promoting
the vocationalisation of education adult, education,
education for the mentally and physically challenged
persons, non-formal education, open universities
and distance learning, rural university, early child-
care and education. Delinking degrees from job was
also one of the basic objectives of National Policy of
Education 1986.
13. Main points in Point of Action, 1992
• Guidelines given to new colleges for affiliation
• Committee set up to look into management pattern
of universities
• Steps initiated to conduct qualifying exam to
recruit university teachers
• The procedure to conduct qualifying exam (such as
NET / SET/JRF) was adopted.
• There was provision to set up management pattern
of universities
• Redesigning of courses
• UGC approved schemes for Academic Staff Colleges
• Performance appraisal for teachers finalized
• State Councils for higher education finalization
• Development of autonomous colleges
• Establishment of ‘State Councils of Higher Educa-
tion’ (SCHEs)
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 Higher Education System
14. The origin of NUEPA (earlier known as National
Institute of Educational Planning and Administration
[NIEPA]) is associated with the UNESCO’s Regional
Center for Educational Planners and Administration
started in 1960–61 for taking care of educational
needs of South Asia.
15. The focus of the NPE, 1986, was on development of
human resources.
I mportant Committees’ Reports
Gnanam Committee (1993)
It recommended flexibility and autonomy for ensur-
ing academic excellence and asked for restricting the
unchecked growth of deemed universities. It emphasized
the need for a National Commission on higher education
and research to regulate the quality of education and to
encourage research in university system.
Sam Pitroda Committee
It was established in 2007. It is also popularly known as the
National Knowledge Commission (NKC). It ­recommended
the restructuring of curricula to meet the demand for mul-
tidisciplinary professionals and c­riteria-based resource
allocation to ensure maintenance of standards and stra-
tegic preferences to promote excellence in higher educa-
tion. It supported the entry of foreign universities and also
favoured reducing the burden of affiliation of colleges on
universities. The NKC recommended increasing the num-
ber of universities to 1500 by 2015.
Yashpal Committee
It suggested scrapping of all higher education, regulatory
or monitoring bodies and the creation of a super-regu-
lator, that is, a seven-member Commission for Higher
Education and Research (CHER). State Higher Education
Councils would form the second tier of the system.
It also recommended that the deemed university sta-
tus be abandoned and that all deserving deemed varsi-
ties be either converted into full-fledged universities or
scrapped. The Committee stressed the need for more
attention to undergraduate programmes and a multidis-
ciplinary approach to learning. It also strongly recom-
mended reducing the burden of affiliation of colleges on
the universities and a GRE-like test be evolved for univer-
sity education.
The recommendations of the Yashpal Committee and
the NKC emanated from the realization that the fragmen-
tation of various fields of knowledge in higher education
led to inadequate growth of interdisciplinary learning.
Sharma Committee
Set up under Prof. M. M. Sharma, it deliberated on the
development of science and technology education in
India. The Committee suggested the establishment of
the Indian Institutes of Science Education and Research
(IISER). It also recommended the expansion of techni-
cal education, assuring quality and providing access and
affordability for technical education. The Committee also
recommended that `500 crore be spent on research in
basic sciences every year by the UGC.
M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 15
10.15
Dr Anil Kakodkar Committee
It was constituted to recommend strategies to improve
technical education in the country. It recommended
2% budget in every institution to be earmarked for
research.
K. B. Pawar Committee
Constituted by the UGC, the Committee recommended
four models of public–private partnership (PPP) in higher
education.
Education Commission
The Education Commission is also named as Kothari
commission. Daulat Singh Kothari, popularly known as
D. S. Kothari, was an outstanding scientist and a great
educationist. The report of this commission is called as
‘Educational and National Development’ report.
The four main themes of the commission were:
1. Increase in Productivity.
2. Promoting social and National Integration.
3. Educational and Modernization.
4. Developing social, moral and spiritual values.
The main recommendations have been given in the table.
‘Free and compulsory education’ for children between
6 to 14 years under the spirit of Article 45 of constitution
as per Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).
The establishment of Indian Education Service (IES).
The commission recommended that 6% of the national
income should be spent on education.
Work-experience and national service should become
integral part of education.
With a view to accelerate the growth of national econ-
omy, research, science and education should receive high
priority.
A small number of ‘cluster of centres’ to achieve high-
est possible standards in research and training were to be
set up.
Most of the recommendations of Kothari Commission
were reflected that has become the part of Education
Policy of 1968.
Three Languages System: The National Policy of
Education suggested for the study of “Hindi, English, and
modern Indian language (preferably one of the southern
languages) in the Hindi speaking states and Hindi, English,
and the Regional language in the non-Hindi speaking
States”. Tamil Nadu does not follow the three-language
formula prescribed by the first education policy in 1968.
Committees for Financing of Education
The following committees were set up for the financing of
education:
1. Punnayya Committee Report, 1992–93
2. Anandkrishnan Committee, 1999
3. Mahmood-ur Rahman Committee to formulate
revised fee structure in the central and deemed uni-
versities, 2000
4. Swaminathan Committee on resource mobilization by
technical and professional institutions, AICTE, 1991
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 10.16
New Education Policy, 2020 (NEP)
NEP is based on Draft National Education Policy, 2019.
Dr. K. Kasturirangan was the Chairperson for the purpose.
This policy intends to facilitate an inclusive, participatory
and holistic approach. There is a progressive shift towards
a more scientific approach to education.
The key objective is to develop cognitive development
as well as social and physical awareness stages of chil-
dren. The global education development agenda reflected
in the Goal 4 (SDG4) of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable
Development, adopted by India in 2015 - seeks to “ensure
inclusive and equitable quality education and promote
lifelong learning opportunities for all” by 2030. The
NEP 2020 aims at making “India a global knowledge
superpower”.
NEP is third education policy after 1968 and 1986.
The name of MHRD has been changed to the Ministry of
Education. This policy can be divided into four parts:
1. School education
2. Higher education
3. ‘Other Key Areas of Focus’ such as adult education,
promoting Indian languages and online education
4. ‘Making it Happen’ that discusses about policy’s
implementation
School Education
1. The objectives is the universalization of education
from preschool to secondary level with 100% GER
by 2030. About 2 crores out of school children will be
brought back into main stream under NEP 2020.
2. The current 10 + 2 system to be replaced by a new
5 + 3 + 3 + 4 curricular structure corresponding to
ages 3-8, 8-11, 11-14, and 14-18 years respectively.
3. The government shall constitute a ‘Gender-Inclusion
Fund’ to provide equitable and quality education to all
girls and transgender students.
4. Class 10 and 12 board examinations to be made
easier, to test core competencies rather than memo-
rised facts, with all students allowed to take the exam
twice.
5. There will be ‘National Mission on Foundational
Literacy and Numeracy by Ministry of Education’.
There should be no rigid separation between academic
streams, extracurricular, vocational streams in schools.
6. Vocational Education will start from Class 6 with
Internships.
7. Teaching up to at least Grade 5 to be in mother
tongue/regional language. No language will be
imposed on any student. Sanskrit to be offered at all
levels of school and higher education as an option for
students, including in the three-language formula.
8. Assessment reforms with 360 degrees Holistic
Progress Card, tracking Student Progress for achiev-
ing Learning Outcomes.
9. A new and comprehensive National Curriculum
Framework for Teacher Education (NCFTE) 2021,
will be formulated by the National Council for
M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 16
Chapter 10
Teacher Education (NCTE) in consultation with
NCERT.
10. By 2030, the minimum degree qualification for teach-
ing will be a 4-year integrated B.Ed. degree.
11. No child loses any opportunity to learn and excel
because of the circumstances of birth or back-
ground. There will be special focus on Socially and
Economically Disadvantaged Groups(SEDGs) which
include gender, socio-cultural, and geographical
identities and disabilities.
12. Recruitment of teachers will be through robust, trans-
parent processes. Promotions will be merit-based,
with a mechanism for multi-source periodic perfor-
mance appraisals and available progression paths
to become educational administrators or teacher
educators.
A common National Professional Standards for
Teachers (NPST) will be developed by the National
Council for Teacher Education by 2022, in consulta-
tion with NCERT, SCERTs, teachers and expert orga-
nizations from across levels and regions.
13. The schools will be organized into complexes or clus-
ters which will be the basic unit of governance and
ensure availability of all resources including infra-
structure, academic libraries and a strong profes-
sional teacher community.
14. There will be clear, separate systems for policy mak-
ing, regulation, operations and academic matters.
States/UTs will set up independent State School
Standards Authority (SSSA). SSSA, will be used
extensively for public oversight and accountability.
15. The SCERT will develop a School Quality Assessment
and Accreditation Framework (SQAAF) through con-
sultations with all stakeholders.
Higher Education
1. Holistic Undergraduate education with a flexible cur-
riculum can be of 3 or 4 years. There will be multiple
exit options and appropriate certification within this
period. For example, Certificate after 1 year, Advanced
Diploma after 2 years, Bachelor’s Degree after 3 years
and Bachelor’s with Research after 4 years.
2. All the courses at undergraduate, postgraduate
and PhD level will now be interdisciplinary. M. Phil
courses will be discontinued.
2. Academic Bank of Credits to be established to facili-
tate Transfer of Credits.
3. Multidisciplinary Education and Research Universities
(MERUs), at par with IITs, IIMs, to be set up as mod-
els of best multidisciplinary education of global stan-
dards in the country.
4. The National Research Foundation will be created as an
apex body for fostering a strong research culture and
building research capacity across higher education.
5. Higher Education Commission of India (HECI) will be
set up as a single umbrella body for the entire higher
education, excluding medical and legal education.
Public and private higher education institutions will
be governed by the same set of norms for regulation,
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 Higher Education System 10.17

accreditation and academic standards. HECI will be
have four independent verticals.
(a) National Higher Education Regulatory Council
(NHERC) for regulation
(b) General Education Council (GEC) for standard
setting
(c) Higher Education Grants Council (HEGC) for
funding
(d) National Accreditation Council (NAC) for
accreditation.
(e) HECI will function through faceless intervention
through technology, & will have powers to penal-
ise Higher Education Institutions which do not
conform to norms and standards.
6. There is plan to phase out affiliation of colleges system
in 15 years. There will be a stage-wise mechanism for
granting graded autonomy to the colleges in lieu of that.
7. GER in higher education to be raised to 50% by 2035.
3.5 crore seats to be added in higher education. The
current GER in higher education is 26.3%.
8. A new and comprehensive National Curriculum
Framework for Teacher Education, NCFTE 2021,
will be formulated by the NCTE in consultation with
NCERT (already in the process).
By 2030, the minimum degree qualification for teach-
ing will be a 4-year integrated B.Ed. degree.
Stringent action will be taken against substandard
stand-alone Teacher Education Institutions (TEIs).
9. All professional education will be an integral part of
the higher education system.
Stand-alone technical universities, health science uni-
versities, legal and agricultural universities etc will
aim to become multi-disciplinary institutions.
10. Centre and the States will work together to increase
the public investment in Education sector to reach
6% of GDP at the earliest. According to our Finance
Minister, the expenditure on education as a percent-
age of GDP was 2.8 % during 2019–20, and 3.1%
(estimated during 2021–22).
Other Changes:
1. An autonomous body, the National Educational the
Free Exchange Technology Forum (NETF), will be
created to provide a platform for of ideas on the use
of technology to enhance learning, assessment, plan-
ning, administration.
2. Nationals Assessment Centre- ‘PARAKH’ (Performance
Assessment, Review, and Analysis of Knowledge for
Holistic Development) has been created to assess the
students. It also paves the way for foreign universities
to set up campuses in India.
3. NEP emphasizes setting up of Gender Inclusion Fund
(GIF), Special Education Zones (SEZs) for disadvan-
taged regions and groups.
4. In ‘Virtual Labs’ existing e-learning platforms such as
DIKSHA, SWAYAM and SWAYAMPRABHA will also be

Existing Academic Structure New Academic Structure

New pedagogical and curricular structure
of school education (5+3+3+4): 3 years in
2 Years Anganwadi/pre-school and 12 years in
(Age 16-10) 4 Years School
Secondary

(Class 9 to 12)
(Age 14-18)

• Secondary Stage (4) multidisciplinary

study, greater critical thinking, flexibility
3 Years and student choice of subjects
Middle

(Class 6 to 8)
10 Years (Age 11-14)
• Middle Stage (3) experiential learning
(Age 6-16) in the sciences, mathematics, arts,
Foundational

3 Years social sciences, and humanities

(Class 3 to 5)
(Age 8-11)
• Preparatory Stage (3) play, discovery,
and activity-based and interactive
2 years classroom learning
(Class 1 & 2)
Preparatory

(Ages 6-8)
3 years • Foundational stage (5) multilevel,
(Anganwadi/ play/activity-based learning
pre-school/
Balvatika)
(Ages 3-6)

Figure 10.6 Transforming Curricular and Pedagogical Structure

Source: National Education Policy 2020, Ministry of Education, Govt. of India.

M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 17 23/12/22 8:05 PM

 10.18
leveraged for creating virtual labs so that all students
have equal access to quality practical and hands-on
experiment-based learning experience.
5. National Institute for Pali, Persian and Prakrit, Indian
Institute of Translation and Interpretation should be
set up. It also aims to increase the public investment
in the Education sector to reach 6% of GDP at the
earliest.
Currently, India spends around 4.6% of its total GDP
on education though the target set in 1968 and 1986 poli-
cies was 6%.
We need to consider these constitutional aspects:
1. Part IV of Indian Constitution, Article 45 and Article
39 (f) of Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP),
has a provision for state-funded as well as equitable
and accessible education.
2. The 42nd Amendment to the Constitution in 1976
that we discussed earlier.
3. The 86th Amendment in 2002 made education an
enforceable right under Article 21-A.
4. Right to Education (RTE) Act, 2009 aims to provide
primary education to all children aged 6 to 14 years
and enforces education as a Fundamental Right.
5. NEP mandates 25% reservation for disadvantaged
sections of the society where disadvantaged groups.
Stopover
1. According to National Education Policy 2020, by how
much percent the Gross Enrolment Ratio in higher
education to be raised by 2035?
(a) 25% (b) 30%
(c) 40% (d) 50%
The correct option is (d).
2. Under the chairmanship of which of the follow-
ing personalities Committee for Evolution of the
‘New Education Policy’ submitted its report in May
2016?
(a) Late Shri T.S.R Subramanian
(b) Dr K. Kasturirangan
(c) Rina Roy
(d) Shri Sanjay Dhotre
The correct option is (b).
3. In NEP 2020, the current 10+2 system to be replaced
by a new curricular structure. What is the new cur-
ricular structure?
(a) 3 + 4 + 4 + 5
(b) 5 + 3 + 3 + 4
(c) 4 + 3 + 3 + 5
(d) 5 + 4 + 3 + 3
The correct option is (b).
4. Consider the following statements.
1. Multiple Entry and Exit Points with appropriate
certification UG education can be of 3 or 4 years
with multiple exit options and appropriate certifi-
cation within this period.
M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 18
Chapter 10
2. Certificate after 1 year, Advanced Diploma after
2 years, Bachelor’s Degree after 3 years and
Bachelor’s with Research after 4 years.
3. HECI will be set up as a single overarching
umbrella body the for entire higher education,
excluding medical and legal education.
4. A National Mission for Mentoring will be estab-
lished, with a large pool of outstanding senior/
retired faculty.
Which of the above statements are true in context of
New Education Policy, 2020?
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) All of the above
The correct option is (d).
5. What is the likely time span during which colleges
will be given graded autonomy to give degrees?
(a) 10 years (b) 12 years
(c) 15 years (d) 20 years
The correct option is (c).
6. Which of the following has been the main objective of
new education policy 2020?
(a) Localization of education
(b) Top rated global universities to be facilitated to
come to India and top Indian Institutions to be
encouraged to go global
(c) Universalization of Education
(d) Both b and c
The correct option is (d).
7. Higher Education Commission of India (HECI) will be
set up as a single umbrella body for the entire higher
education, excluding medical and legal education.
Public and private higher education institutions will
be governed by the same set of norms for regulation,
accreditation and academic standards.
Which of the following independent verticals will be
looked after by HECI?
1. National Higher Education Regulatory Council
(NHERC) for regulation
2. General Education Council (GEC) for standard
setting
3. Higher Education Grants Council (HEGC) for funding
4. National Accreditation Council (NAC) for
accreditation.
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) All of the above
The correct option is (d).
8. Which of the following is/are the crucial points for
New Education Policy, 2020?
(a) Academic Bank of Credits to be established to
facilitate Transfer of Credits
(b) Multidisciplinary Education and Research
Universities (MERUs), at par with IITs, IIMs, to be
set up as models of best multidisciplinary educa-
tion of global standards in the country.
23/12/22 8:05 PM
 Higher Education System
(c) The National Research Foundation will be created
as an apex body for fostering a strong research
culture and building research capacity across
higher education.
(d) All of the above
The correct option is (d).
9. Consider the following points
(a) New Policy promotes Multilingualism in both
schools and higher education.
(b) National Institute for Pali, Persian and Prakrit ,
Indian Institute of Translation and Interpretation
to be set up.
(c) Teaching up to at least Grade 5 to be in mother
tongue/ regional language. No language will be
imposed on any student.
(d) All of the above
The correct option is (d).
10. Which of the following formal initiative is being
introduced in new education policy for assessment of
learners?
(a) Assessment reforms with 360 degree Holistic
Progress Card.
(b) Assessment reforms with Absolute Benchmarking
(c) Assessment reforms with Complete Rating
(d) Assessment reforms with complete success
The correct option is (a).
Orthodox, Conventional and
Non-conventional Education
There are basically four factors that help us to decide
which system to opt for and they are listed as follows:
1. Length of the programme
2. Technical access
Conventional Teaching
It is basically passive learning, in which the child listens
to the teacher and follows directions from the teacher
who sets the pace for instructions
Students provided with knowledge, skills and experience
Core competence—examples, facts, arguments and text,
a dedicated time and effort, the purpose is to master
defined skills and develop socially
There is constant peer contact
Group, individual, whole class
Verbal, visual and practical limited contact time
Control and assessment by teacher
Subject–object relations
M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 19
10.19
3. Cost comparison
4. Location restriction
Orthodox Education
Knowledge was passed on orally from one generation to
another as per orthodox education. Even now education
is being imparted in an orthodox manner.
Earlier in this chapter, we discussed about three steps:
1. ‘Sravana’ or ‘shrutis’
2. ‘Manana’
3. ‘Nidhyasana’
C. Rajgopalachari had said, ‘If there is honesty in India
today, any hospitality, any charity any aversion to evil, any
love to be good, it is due to whatever remains of the old
faith and the old culture.’ Tolerance, truth, Ahimsa, peace
and non-aggression are the hallmark of Indian culture.
With a rational mind, raising it from ignorance, one can
understand the greatness of Vedic literature.
Our ancient education system was mostly based on
orthodox system.
Conventional versus N on -Conventional
Education
We can try to understand the concepts of conventional
and non-conventional educations by differentiating
between them.
Non-conventional education basically deals with the
distance education and also with the concepts such as
online education. In this chapter, distance education has
been dealt with separately.
Regulatory and Policy Framework
Structure of Higher Education in India
Now again we shift to higher learning in post-inde-
pendence India. Education is in the Concurrent List,
Non-conventional Teaching
Active learning, in which students move freely, choosing
their own work and the pace at which it is being done.
Teacher, if any, may just be a facilitator
General development of students and mastering of
learning modules
Holistic development as it includes generalization of
law, theory, rule and concept. Cognitive, social and
psychological development of mind
There is limited peer contact
Teamwork and collective way of training
Problem statement, partial search and heuristic/
brainstorming methods
Self-control and self-assessment
Cooperation and collaboration
23/12/22 8:05 PM
 10.20 Chapter 10

where both the central and the state governments can

legislate. Apex-level Bodies
There are eight apex-level bodies (regulatory bodies/
regulatory FrameWork oF higher education research councils) under the Department of Higher
in i ndia Education, which are responsible for higher education
While the Centre coordinates and determines the stand- in India. These bodies can be broadly divided into
ards in higher and technical education, school educa- two categories: (i) regulatory bodies and (ii) research
tion is primarily the responsibility of the state. The key councils.
policy-making agencies for higher education are as fol-
lows (Fig. 10.7): regulatory bodies
1. Central Government: It lays down the NPE. It pro- There are three regulatory bodies—the UGC, All India
vides grants to the UGC and establishes central Council for Technical Education (AICTE) and Council
universities/institutions of national importance in of Architecture (COA)—to regulate higher education in
the country. It is also responsible for declaring an India.
educational institution as ‘Deemed-to-be university’
on the recommendations of the UGC.
2. State Government: Many states have also set up state Concept Box
councils and advisory boards to provide guidelines 1. The word ‘university’ is derived from the Latin
for proper functioning of higher education institu- word Universitas that means ‘a whole’.
tions in the states. State councils for higher education 2. University means a specialized association between
coordinate the roles of government, universities and students and teachers.
apex regulatory agencies in higher education within 3. Universities are the seats of higher learning from
the state. where the society gets its leaders in science, arts
3. CABE was set up for coordination and cooperation and various other fields of national life. University
between the union and the states in the field of educa- education aims at providing knowledge and wis-
tion, including policy-making. dom for developing personality.
4. The functions of the university mainly include the
following:
(a) Providing instruction
(b) Conducting research and postgraduate studies
Education as part of Concurrent (c) Giving affiliation and extension to the colleges
List provides equal power to the under it
central and State In India, university means a university established
governments in regulation
or incorporated by or under a central act, a provincial
act or a state act and includes any such institution as
may be recognized by the UGC in accordance with the
Central State regulations made under this Act.
government government Universities have degree-granting powers and are
responsible for conducting examinations.
They have autonomy in matters of fees and curricu-
MHRD and lum design. They also have affiliating powers for col-
other leges within a particular geographical region.
ministries Degree-granting colleges have autonomy in admis-
sions. However, they have to follow the fee, examina-
tion and curriculum standards of the university they
Regulatory
Departments/ are affiliated to.
bodies/
Accreditation councils of
professional
bodies: higher/
councils
NAAC, NBA technical uniVersity grants commission (ugc)
e.g.
education
UGC, AICTE) The UGC is a quasi-independent body. It was set up
to discharge the responsibility of coordinating and
maintaining standards in the fields of higher education.
More specifically, the UGC takes charge of the general
Higher education institutions higher education in Arts, Sciences, Commerce and
professional education which are under the multi-faculty
Figure 10.7 Higher Education Regulatory universities. The UGC governs universities in India and
Framework came into existence on 28 December 1953. It became a

M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 20 23/12/22 8:05 PM

 Higher Education System
statutory organization established by an act of Parliament
in 1956.
1. According to Section 12 of the UGC Act, the main
function of the UGC is coordination, determination
and maintenance of standards in universities.
2. It also disburses funds within the university educa-
tion system. Most importantly, it acts only as a recom-
mendatory body since it does not have any power to
establish or derecognize any university.
3. The UGC consists of the Chairman, Vice-Chairman
and 10 other members appointed by the central gov-
ernment. Secretary is the Executive Head. The UGC
functions from New Delhi as well as its six regional
offices located in Bengaluru, Bhopal, Guwahati,
Hyderabad, Kolkata and Pune.
4. The UGC also implements various schemes aimed
at improving the quality of higher education, such
as Universities with Potential for Excellence (UPE),
Colleges with Potential for Excellence (CPE), Centre
with Potential for Excellence and a Particular Area
(CPEPA), Special Assistance Programme (SAP) and
Basic Scientific Research (BSR).
5. Sir Shanti Swaroop Bhatnagar was the first Chairman
of the UGC. Dr M Jagadesh Kumar is the current
Chairman of the UGC.
Updation: UGC, AICTE and National Council of Teacher
Education (NCTE that was set up in 1995 under NCTE
Act, 1993) are to be merged to form Higher Education
Commission of India (HECI). This should work for
autonomy and multidisciplinary approach to education.
This will be in synchronisation with New Education
Policy (NEP-2020). All the courses approved by UGC,
AICTE and NCTE shall be mapped for their equiva-
lence under National Higher Education Qualification
Framework (NHEQF) which would make academic
mobility smoother, both vertically and laterally. This will
give multidisciplinary education and research a boost.
Categorization of Universities
Universities can be set up only through legislation or the
deemed route. The main constituents of universities or uni-
versity-level institutions at present are listed in Table 10.1.
Table 10.1
Universities Total Universities
Number under 12 (B)
State universities 460 267
Deemed-to-be universities 128 50
Central universities 54 54
Private universities 430 25
Total 1072 396
Source: ugc.ac.in as on November 25, 2022.
UGC provides financial assistance to eligible colleges
which are included under Section 2(f)* and declared fit to
M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 21
10.21
receive central assistance (UGC grant) under Section 12
(B)** of UGC Act, 1956 as per approved pattern of assis-
tance under various schemes.
Central Universities
A central university or a union university in India is
established by the Act of Parliament and is under the
purview of the Department of Higher Education in the
Ministry of Education (MoE). In general, universities in
India are recognized by the UGC, which draws its power
from the University Grants Commission Act, 1956.
1. There are 54 central universities under the purview
of the MoE. Out of them, 16 new central universities
were established in 2009 by an Act of Parliament,
namely, Central Universities Act, 2009.
2. IGNOU, New Delhi, is funded directly by MoE.
3. The President of India is the Visitor of all central uni-
versities. In that capacity, he/she nominates some
members to important committees of the university for
their effective functioning. He/she also exercises pow-
ers in various legal matters and relevant amendments.
The following universities are not under purview of
the UGC:
1. Central Agricultural University, Imphal, Manipur
2. Indira Gandhi National Open University, New Delhi
3. Indian Maritime University, Chennai
4. Nalanda University, Rajgir, District Nalanda, Bihar
5. South Asian University, Akbar Bhawan Campus in
Chanakyapuri, New Delhi
6. Rajiv Gandhi National Aviation University, Rae Bareli,
Uttar Pradesh
7. Rani LakshmiBhai Central Agricultural University,
NH-75, Near Pahuj Dam, Gwalior Road, Jhansi (Uttar
Pradesh)
8. Dr. Rajendra Prasad Central Agricultural University,
Pusa, Samastipur, Bihar
9. National Sports University, Koutruk, Manipur
The Indian National Defence University (INDU) is a
proposed university for defence sector by the Government
of India to be established at Binola in Gurgaon, Haryana.
The principal proposal was accepted by the Union Cabinet
in May 2010. The 66% of students will be drawn from the
armed forces and the rest from other government agen-
cies, police and civilians.
State Universities
A university established or incorporated by a Provincial
Act or by a State Act is called a state university.
The state universities are included in the List of 12(B)
of UGC Act, 1956, and are eligible for central assistance.
Although the development of state universities is the
primary concern of state governments, development
grants, including grants under special schemes, are pro-
vided to all eligible state universities. Such grants facili-
tate the creation, augmentation and upgradation of
infrastructural facilities that are not normally available
from the state government or other sources of funds.
23/12/22 8:05 PM
 10.22 Chapter 10

State Name of Central University

Andhra Pradesh Central University of Andhra Pradesh, Anantapuram
Central Tribal University of Andhra Pradesh, Vijayanagram
The National Sanskrit University, Tirupati
Assam University, Silchar
Assam
Tezpur University, Sonitpur
Arunachal Pradesh Rajiv Gandhi University, Itanagar
Central University of South Bihar, Gaya
Dr. Rajendra Prasad Central Agricultural University, Samastipur
Bihar
Mahatma Gandhi Central University, East Champaran
Nalanda University, Rajgir
Chhattisgarh Guru Ghasidas Vishwavidyalaya, Bilaspur, Chhattisgarh
Indira Gandhi National Open University
Jamia Millia Islamia
Jawaharlal Nehru University
Delhi South Asian University
University of Delhi
The Central Sanskrit University
Shri Lal Bahadur Shastri National Sanskrit University
Gujarat Central University of Gujarat, Gandhinagar
Haryana Central University of Haryana, Mahendergarh
Himachal Pradesh Central University of Himachal Pradesh, Dharamashala
Central University of Kashmir, Srinagar
Jammu and Kashmir
Central University of Jammu, Jammu
Jharkhand Central University of Jharkhand, Ranchi
Karnataka Central University of Karnataka, Gulbarga
Kerala Central University of Kerala
Dr. Harisingh Gour Vishwavidyalaya, Sagar
Madhya Pradesh
The Indira Gandhi National Tribal University, Amarkantak
Maharashtra Mahatma Gandhi Antarrashtriya Hindi Vishwavidyalaya, Wardha
Central Agricultural University, Imphal
Manipur Manipur University, Imphal
National Sports University, Koutruk
Mizoram Mizoram University
Meghalaya North Eastern Hill University, NEHU Campus, Shillong
Nagaland Nagaland University
Odisha Central University of Odisha, Koraput
Pondicherry Pondicherry University
Punjab Central University of Punjab, Bathinda
Rajasthan Central University of Rajasthan, Ajmer
Sikkim Sikkim University, Gangtok, Sikkim
Central University of Tamil Nadu, Thiruvarur
Tamil Nadu
Indian Maritime University, Chennai
English and Foreign Languages University, Osmania University Campus, Hyderabad
Telangana Maulana Azad National Urdu University, Hyderabad
University of Hyderabad, Hyderabad
(Continued)

M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 22 23/12/22 8:05 PM

 Higher Education System
State Name of Central University
Tripura Tripura University, Agartala
Uttarakhand Hemwati Nandan Bahuguna Garhwal University, Srinagar, Garhwal
Aligarh Muslim University, Aligarh
Babasaheb Bhimrao Ambedkar University, Lucknow
Banaras Hindu University, Varanasi
Uttar Pradesh
University of Allahabad, Allahabad
Rajiv Gandhi National Aviation University, Rae Bareli
Rani Lakshmi Bai Central Agricultural University, Jhansi
West Bengal Visva-Bharati, Shantiniketan
State universities dominate university education in
India as they account for almost half the universities and
also for 84% of total enrolment.
Private Universities
A university established through the state or central act
by a sponsoring body, namely, a society registered under
the Societies Registration Act, 1860, or any other corre-
sponding law for the time being in force, in a state or a
public trust or a company registered under Section 25 of
the Companies Act, 1956, is called a private ­university.
Private universities are competent to award degrees
as specified by the UGC under Section 22 of the UGC Act
with the approval of the statutory councils, wherever
required, through their main campus.
The first private university, set up in 1995, was the
Sikkim Manipal University of Health, Medical and
Technological Science, Gangtok.
Deemed-to-be University
A deemed-to-be university, commonly known as a
deemed university, refers to a high-performing institu-
tion, as declared by the central government under Section
3 of the UGC Act, 1956.
Deemed universities can be approved only by an exec-
utive order after the UGC’s recommendation. Although
they enjoy all the powers of a university, they do not have
the right to affiliate colleges.
1. The Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bengaluru, and
Indian Agricultural Research Institute, Delhi, were
the first two institutes to be granted a deemed status.
The IISc was granted the status in 1958, though it was
set up in the year 1908.
2. The Manipal Academy of Higher Education (MAHE)
was the first private institution to be declared a
deemed university in 1976.
The following institutions of higher learning are few
prominent examples of a deemed-to-be university:
1. National University of Educational Planning and
Administration (NUEPA), New Delhi
2. Rashtriya Sanskrit Sansthan, New Delhi
M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 23
10.23
3. Shri Lal Bahadur Shastri Rashtriya Sanskrit
Vidyapeetha, New Delhi
4. Rashtriya Sanskrit Vidyapeetha, Tirupati
5. National Dairy Research Institute, Karnal
6. Tata Institute of Fundamental Research, Mumbai
Kindly take note of the following points:
1. The top ranking states in terms of the total num-
ber of universities are Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh and
Tamil Nadu.
2. The 11th Five-Year Plan envisaged the establishment of
14 world class central universities (renamed as innova-
tive universities aiming at world-class standards).
3. The P. N. Tandon Committee in 2009 suggested black-
listing 44 deemed universities, saying that they lacked
the required quality.
4. In 2015, the UGC asked 10 deemed universities includ-
ing BITS Pilani to shut their off-campus centres.
5. In February 2016, the UGC amended its regulation
allowing private deemed universities to have up to
six off-campuses. This ceiling would not apply in case
of government-established and managed deemed
universities.
The central universities, deemed-to-be universi-
ties are largely funded by the federal government
and the funds are channelled through the UGC. The
institutions of national importance and the National
Open University are directly funded by the Central
government.
Stopover
In which of the following states has the 50th central
university been set up?
(a) Tripura (b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Telangana (d) Goa
The correct option is (c).
Meta University
During the 12th Plan, the UGC initiated a concept of Meta
University.
Meta Universities are basically
23/12/22 8:05 PM
 10.24
Concept Box
Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA)
RUSA was launched in 2013. It has been given approval
for its continuity by the Cabinet Committee on Economic
Affairs as Centrally Sponsored Scheme from April 2017
to March 2020. It aims at providing strategic funding to
eligible state higher educational institutions.
Funding
• The central funding to the states and UTs would be
norm based and outcome dependent. It is in the ratio
of 60:40 for general category states, 90:10 for spe-
cial category states and 100% for union territories.
• The funding would flow to the State Higher Edu-
cation Councils before reaching the identified
institutions.
• The funding to states would be done on the basis of
critical appraisal of State Higher Education Plans.
It would take into account each state’s strategy to
address issues of equity, access and excellence in
higher education.
Objectives
• RUSA would create new universities through
upgradation of existing autonomous colleges and
conversion of colleges in a cluster.
• It would create new model degree colleges and
new professional colleges, and provide infrastruc-
tural support to universities and colleges.
• The faculty needs and improvement programmes
are part of RUSA.
• A separate component to synergize vocational edu-
cation such as polytechnics with higher education
has also been included in RUSA.
• RUSA also supports reforming, restructuring and
building capacity of institutions in participating
states.
INI Acts—Year of Declaration
All India Institute of Medical Sciences (amendment)
Act, 2012
Institutes of Technology Act, 1961
National Institutes of Technology, 2007
Rajiv Gandhi Institute of Petroleum Technology Act, 2007
Indian Institutes of Information Technology Act, 2014
School of Planning and Architecture Act, 2014
National Institute of Design Act, 2014
Footwear Design and Development Institute Act, 2017
Indian Institute of Management Act, 2017
M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 24
Chapter 10
1. Second-generation universities
2. Free from physical boundary conditions and able to
operate in virtual space
3. Taking advantage of the innovation and flexibility
possible in some domains
The University of Delhi and Jamia Millia Islamia are
the first two universities of India to have adopted the con-
cept of Meta University. A 2-year joint degree programme
‘Master of Mathematics Education’ (equivalent to M.Sc.
Mathematics Education) started from 2015 session.
cluster innoVation centre (cic)
The CIC is a Government of India – funded institute estab-
lished under the aegis of the University of Delhi. It was
founded in 2011 and introduced innovation as a credit-
based course for the first time in India.
other higher leVel institutions
Inter-University Centres (IUCs)
The UGC has established autonomous IUCs within the
university system with an objective to provide common,
advanced, centralized facilities and services for univer-
sities, in order to offer the best expertise in each field to
teachers and researchers across the country.
At present, there are seven IUCs functioning within
the university system under Clause 12(ccc) of the UGC
Act:
1. Inter-University Accelerator Centre (IUAC), New
Delhi—the first one to be established in 1994
2. Inter-University Centre for Astronomy and Astro-
Physics (IUCAA), Pune
3. UGC-DAE Consortium for Scientific Research (UGC-
DAECSR), Indore
4. Information and Library Network (INFLIBNET),
Ahmedabad
5. Consortium for Educational Communication (CEC),
New Delhi
6. National Assessment and Accreditation Council
(NAAC), Bengaluru
7. Inter-University Centre for Teacher Education,
Kakinada
Association of Indian Universities (AIU)
• The AIU is a forum of administrators and academi-
cians of member universities to exchange views and
discuss matters of common concern.
• The idea originated during the Vice Chancellors’ Con-
ference at Shimla in 1924 that was convened by Lord
Reading. It got its present name in 1973.
• The members include traditional universities, open uni-
versities, professional universities, Institutes of National
Importance (INI) and deemed-to-be universities.
• There is a provision of granting associate membership
to universities of neighbouring countries.
• It brings out many useful publications such as Univer-
sities Handbook, research papers and a weekly journal
titled University News.
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 Higher Education System
Institutes of National Importance (INIs)
As the name indicates, such institutions enjoy the special
status of national importance.
INI status is conferred to a public institution of Indian
higher education by an Act of Parliament.
INI receive special recognition and funding from the
Government of India.
INIs can be sub-grouped under different specialized
sectors, namely, agricultural sciences, design, engineer-
ing, food processing, general, information technology,
language studies, management, medicine, pharmacy, sci-
ence and engineering, sciences and youth affairs.
The most of such INIs are the AIIMS, IITs, IIMs, IIITs
and NITs which have been discussed further also.
Indian Institutes of Science Education and Research
(IISERs); They are a group of premier public research
institutions in India. The institutes were established by the
Government of India through the Ministry of Education.
They provide collegiate education in basic sciences coupled
with research at the undergraduate level. The institutes
were formally established by the Parliament of India
through an amended act in 2010. Seven IISERs have been
established as IISERS at Pune, Kolkata, Mohali, Bhopal,
Thiruvananthapuram, Tirupati, and Berhampur. All
IISERs were declared as Institutes of National Importance
by the Parliament of India in 2012.
More examples:
1. All India Institutes of Medical Sciences, New Delhi
2. Indian Institute of Technology, Mumbai
3. Indian Institute of Management, Ahmedabad
4. Indian Institute of Food Processing Technology,
Thanjavur
5. Indian Statistical Institute, Kolkata
Let us have a look at the number of popular categories:
• IISER: 7
• AIIMS: 7
• IITs: 23
• NITs: 31
• IIMs: 20
• National Institute of Pharmaceutical Education and
Research (NIPER): 7
• School of Planning and Architecture (SPA): 3
• Indian Institute of Engineering and Technology (IIET): 1
• National Institute of Design: 1
There are some other institutions also. The total num-
ber of institutions is 141.
The IIITs are autonomous institutions offering tech-
nical education focused on the information technology
and communication studies. They have gained popularity
among students and are considered among the top col-
leges only after IITs and NITs.
However, there are a total of 25 IIITs in India, 5 of
which are listed as the INI while the others are set up on
the PPP model.
M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 25
10.25
Institutes of Eminence (IOE)
India lacks in international rankings. There are different
reasons for that. Over a period, the government has done
many efforts to supplement the gap.
The Institutes of Eminence scheme comes under the
Ministry of Education to project Indian institutes to get
global recognition. The selected institutes will enjoy com-
plete academic and administrative autonomy. The selec-
tion shall be made through challenge method mode by
the Empowered Expert Committee (EEC) constituted for
the purpose.
The ranking of institutions has been done by the UGC
as per the recommendations of QS-2020 World Rankings.
Objectives
• Excellence and innovation
• Specialization (distinctive contributions)
• Global rating
• Quality teaching and research
Criteria
Eligibility: Only higher education institutions currently
placed in the top 500 of global rankings or top 50 of the
National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) are eli-
gible to apply for the eminence tag.
The private IOE can also come up as greenfield ven-
tures, provided that the sponsoring organisation submits
a convincing perspective plan for 15 years. Private institu-
tions will not get any financial support, but they will be
entitled for more autonomy as a special category Deemed
University.
The greenfield institutions would get a period of 3
years to establish and operationalize the institution.
The UGC has nominated 20 institutions (10 public and
10 private institutions) for IOE in August 2019. The initial
rankings have 15 institutions each from public and pri-
vate sector.
The top three declared IOE from the public sector are
the following:
1. IIT Bombay (INI)
2. IIT Delhi (INI)
3. IISC, Bengaluru (deemed university)
The top three declared IOE from the private sector are
the following:
1. BITS Pilani, Rajasthan
2. MAHE
3. Jio Institute (Reliance Foundation, Maharashtra)—
greenfield project (yet to be started)
Nominations have been made on the recommenda-
tions of the EEC headed by N. Gopalaswami.
Implications
• Autonomy: Institutes with IOE tag will be given
greater autonomy and freedom to decide fees, course
durations and governance structures to enable them
to vault of the top global institutions. They would be
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 10.26 Chapter 10

able to admit foreign students and recruit faculty from

abroad. Concept Box
• Grant: The public institutions under IOE tag will
Classical Languages
receive a government grant of `1000 crore, while the
private institutions will not get any funding under the Sanskrit, Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam and
scheme. Odia are the six classical languages in India. Tamil was
the first language to be assigned the status of classical
language in 2004. Odia was the last one to be assigned
Stopover the status in February 2014, but it is the first language
Which of the following statements applies in the con- from the Indo-Aryan linguistic group to be assigned
text of institutions selected as Institute of Eminence? the status.
The Sahitya Academy’s Expert Committee gave the
1. The institute enjoys complete academic and
following four criteria for a classical language:
administrative autonomy.
2. The ranking of institutions has been done by the 1. There should be high antiquity of early texts/
UGC as per the recommendations of QS-2020 recorded history of over 1500–2000 years.
World Rankings. 2. There should be a body of ancient literature/texts
3. IIT Bombay is the first such institute from public that is considered a valuable heritage by genera-
sector. tions of speakers.
4. The private institute from greenfield category will 3. The literary tradition should be original and not
also get the financing benefit. borrowed from another speech community.
4. The classical language and literature should be dis-
Codes:
tinct from the modern and there may also be a dis-
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
continuity between the classical language and its
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
later forms of offshoots.
The correct option is (a).
The proposals are made by the Ministry of Culture.
Once a language is declared classical, it gets financial
Research Councils assistance for setting up a centre of excellence for the
1. Indian Council of Social Science Research (ICSSR), study of that language and also opens up an avenue for
New Delhi two major awards for scholars of eminence. Besides,
2. Indian Council of Philosophical Research (ICPR), the UGC can be requested to create to begin with at
New Delhi least in central universities a certain number of profes-
3. Centre for Studies in Civilizations, Project of History of sional chairs for classical languages for scholars of emi-
Indian Science, Philosophy and Culture (PHISPC) nence in that language.
4. Indian Council of Historical Research (ICHR), The fathers of the Constitution conferred Sanskrit
Guwahati special status by Article 351 as it was the primary
5. National Council of Rural Institutes (NCRI), Hyderabad source language for many languages including Hindi.
Five languages in the world, namely, Chinese, Sanskrit,
Arabic, Greek and Latin, have been assigned the status of
Language universities classical languages.
India has six language universities, out of which three
are deemed-to-be universities and three are central
universities. The deemed-to-be universities are for the
education
promotion of Sanskrit and the three central universities Subordinate Offices Under the Bureau of
are, one each, for the promotion of English and foreign Language Education
language, Hindi and Urdu.
The UGC is providing funds to the following language 1. Central Hindi Directorate, New Delhi, was set up
universities: in the year 1960 to develop Hindi as a link language
throughout India, in pursuance of Article 351 of the
1. Shri Lal Bahadur Shastri Rashtriya Sanskrit
Constitution of India. Its regional offices are located
Vidyapeetha, New Delhi
in Chennai, Kolkata, Hyderabad and Guwahati.
2. Rashtriya Sanskrit Vidyapeetha, Tirupati
2. Commission for Scientific and Technical
3. English and Foreign Languages University, Hyderabad
Terminology, New Delhi: It was constituted to evolve
4. Mahatma Gandhi Antarrashtriya Hindi
and define scientific and technical terms in Hindi and
Vishwavidyalaya, Wardha
in all Indian languages.
5. Maulana Azad National Urdu University, Hyderabad
3. Central Institute of Indian Languages (CIIL),
6. Rashtriya Sanskrit Sansthan, New Delhi
Mysore, was set up in 1969 to help in evolving and
FeW imPortant o FFices or a gencies in higher implementing the language policy of the Government
of India and to coordinate the development of Indian

M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 26 23/12/22 8:05 PM

 Higher Education System
languages by ­conducting research in areas of lan-
guage analysis, language pedagogy, language tech-
nology and language use in the society.
4. Regional Language Centres (RLC) located at
Bhubaneswar, Pune, Mysore, Patiala, Guwahati,
Solan and Lucknow work for the implementation of
the three-language formula of the government and
for the preparation of instructional materials.
5. National Testing Service (NTS) was approved by the
MHRD in 2006–07 and implemented by the Centre
of Testing and Evaluation (CT and E) under the CIIL,
Mysore.
6. Linguistic Data Consortium for Indian Languages
(LDC-IL): A central sector scheme was implemented by
the CIIL, Mysore, from the financial year 2007–2008.
7. National Translation Mission (NTM): On the basis
of recommendations of the NKC, the MHRD set up
the NTM with the main objective of functioning as a
clearinghouse for all translation activities, both theo-
retical and practical, in as many Indian languages as
possible. The CIIL, Mysore, is the nodal organization
for operation of the scheme.
8. National Book Trust was established in 1957 with the
objective of promoting a culture of reading in the soci-
ety by publishing good literature at affordable price in
all major Indian languages, including English, and by
undertaking book promotion activities, such as orga-
nization of seminars, workshops, book fairs and book
exhibitions in India and abroad.
Accreditation in Higher Education
Higher education sector ensures quality of the educa-
tional process with the help of accreditation agencies
established for the purpose.
National Assessment and Accreditation Council
NAAC is an autonomous body established in 1994 by the
UGC and has its headquarters in Bengaluru. It was estab-
lished as per recommen­dations of the NPE (1986).
The prime function of NAAC is to assess and accredit
institutions of higher learning, universities and col-
leges or their departments, schools, institutions, pro-
grammes, etc.
It regularly publishes manuals and promotion materi-
als for assessment and accreditation.
N ational Board of Accreditation (NBA)
Set up in 1994, the NBA is an autonomous body estab-
lished by the AICTE to conduct periodical evaluation of
technical courses offered in India. It has the authority to
recognize or derecognize institutions or programmes.
The accreditation process is not linked to funding.
Accreditation Board (AB)
The AB was set up by the Indian Council of Agricultural
Research (ICAR) in 1996 with a mandate to accredit
­agricultural institutions. Accreditation done by the AB is
generally valid for a period between 5 and 10 years and
M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 27
10.27
is linked to funding year-wise a number of institutions
accredited.
It is important to note that although accreditation is vol-
untary in India, some states, such as Karnataka and Tamil
Nadu, have made it mandatory, especially for professional
institutions. Despite this, only very few institutions are
accredited. In fact, only 36% of engineering and 10% of
management programmes have been accredited by the NBA.
The government is in the process of creating a single
independent body to regulate various aspects of higher
education. The same should be done at the earliest.
However, due care needs to be taken to ensure that it gets
adequate independence and autonomy.
Non-conventional Education
Open and Distance Learning
‘Distance education’ is basically part of ‘non-conventional’
education that has been discussed earlier.
According to the MHRD, Open and Distance Learning
(ODL) system is a system wherein teachers and learners
need not necessarily be present at either same place or
same time and is flexible in regard to modalities and tim-
ing of teaching and learning as also the admission criteria
without compromising necessary quality considerations.
Open learning is a philosophy. The lesser the restric-
tions, the higher the degree of openness. The distance
education is the mode used for translating it into reality.
Both are complementary to each other.
Distance learning refers to all the teaching and learn-
ing arrangements in which the learner and the teacher
are separated by space and time.
Transaction of the curriculum is effected by means of
self-study learning materials.
Technology also helps in it. Communication between
the institution, teacher and learners is mainly through
electronic media (telephone, interactive radio counselling,
teleconferencing, video conferencing, chat sessions, email,
website, etc.) and also through postal correspondence and
limited face-to-face contact sessions held at study centres.
The major objectives of the DE system are as follows:
1. To democratize higher education to large segments of
the population
2. To provide an innovative system of university-level
education
3. To provide an opportunity for upgradation of skills
and qualifications
4. To develop education as a lifelong activity to enable
people to update their knowledge
India has one of the largest DE systems in the world
after China.
There are the following types of institutions offering DE:
1. National Open University
2. State Open Universities
3. Distance Education Institutions (DEIs) at:
(a) Institutions of national importance
(b) Central universities
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 10.28
(c) State universities
(d) Deemed-to-be universities
(e) State Private Universities
4. DEIs at Stand-alone Institutions
(a) Professional associations
(b) Government institutions
(c) Private institutions
historical deVeloPments in distance
education in india
In 1962, the Delhi University started the ‘School of
Correspondence Courses and Continuing Education’.
Subsequently, the Education Commission (1964–66)
under the chairmanship of Dr D. S. Kothari also perceived
correspondence education as an answer to the increasing
pressure of numbers as well as the growing financial pres-
sures on the universities.
• The 1970s saw the growth and spread of the corre-
spondence education system in India through corre-
spondence courses.
• With increased growth and popularity, the govern-
ment introduced Open University System (OUS) in
the 1980s. The MHRD in its NPE, 1986, gave promi-
nence to an OU system as a means to ‘augment oppor-
tunities for higher education and as an instrument of
democratizing education’. Thus, the vision of OUS is
different from that of conventional universities.
• Dr. B.R. Ambedkar Open University was set up in
Hyderabad in 1982.
i ndira gandhi national o Pen uniVersity
IGNOU is a central university located in New Delhi, India.
IGNOU was founded to serve the Indian population by
means of distance and open education, providing quality
higher education opportunities to all segments of society.
It has a large number of programmes, ranging from purely
academic to technical, professional and vocational at vari-
ous levels.
IGNOU makes use of the information and communica-
tion technologies (ICTs) extensively for imparting educa-
tion. In addition to self-instructional printed materials,
the university utilizes audio/video programme tapes,
teleconferencing, Gyan Vani (FM Radio), Gyan Darshan
(educational TV channels) and computer networks for
imparting instructions. It also has ‛One Stop Education
Portal SAKSHAT’.
With active enrolment of over 4 million students,
IGNOU is the largest university in the world.
IGNOU hosts the Secretariats of the SAARC Consortium
on Open and Distance Learning (SACODiL) and the
Global Mega Universities Network (GMUNET), initially
supported by UNESCO.
IGNOU has started a decentralization process by set-
ting up five zones: north, south, east, west and north-east.
The 10% of the budget is spent on the north-east states.
Ultimately, IGNOU entered into a dual role—work-
ing as an Open University and also as a promoter and
M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 28
Chapter 10
coordinator of the Open and Distance Education system
in the country. The distance Education Council (DEC)
was set up by IGNOU in 1991 as a statutory mechanism
under the IGNOU Act. It became operational in February
1992.
In August 2010, the MHRD constituted a committee
under the chairmanship of Prof. Madhava Menon in the
context of regulation of standards of education imparted
through distance mode. The MHRD accepted the rec-
ommendations of Madhava Menon Committee for the
creation of a new regulatory body for ODL system, that
is, the Distance Education Council of India (DECI). The
Committee also recommended to shift the DEC of IGNOU
to the UGC. It was done in 2012.
Stopover
Which of the following is the biggest university in India?
(a) Indira Gandhi National Open University, New Delhi
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru University, New Delhi
(c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar University Open University,
Hyderabad
(d) Nalanda Open University, Patna
The correct option is (a).
Concept Box
Sakshat
This one-stop education portal was launched on 30
October 2006 to facilitate lifelong learning for stu-
dents, teachers and employees and for those in pur-
suit of knowledge free of cost. The content develop-
ment task for Sakshat was looked after by the Content
Advisory Committee (CAC). The National Knowledge
Network (NKN) interconnects all universities, librar-
ies, laboratories, hospitals and agricultural institutions
for sharing data and computing resources across the
country over a high-speed information network having
gigabyte capabilities.
state o Pen uniVersities
Presently, there are 13 State Open Universities in India,
which are single-mode institutions. This means that they
provide education only in the distance mode. These uni-
versities cater to people who are unable to pursue regular
courses due to various reasons. The list of total 14 univer-
sities is as follows:
1. Indira Gandhi Open University, Delhi
2. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar Open University, Hyderabad
3. Vardhman Mahaveer Open University, Kota, Rajasthan
4. Nalanda Open University, Patna, Bihar
5. Yashwantrao Chavan Maharashtra Open University,
Nashik, Maharashtra
6. Madhya Pradesh Bhoj Open University, Bhopal,
Madhya Pradesh
7. Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar Open University,
Ahmedabad, Gujarat
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 Higher Education System
8. Karnataka State Open University, Mysore, Karnataka
9. Netaji Subhas Open University, Kolkata
10. U.P. Rajarshi Tandon Open University, Allahabad
11. Tamil Nadu Open University, Chennai, Tamil Nadu
12. Pt. Sunderlal Sharma Open University, Bilaspur,
Chhattisgarh
13. Uttarakhand Open University, Haldwani, Uttarakhand
14. Krishna Kanta Handique State Open University,
Guwahati
Professional, Technical and Skill
development Education in India
There is a huge demand for professional, technical and
skill development education in the modern age of science
and technology. The new role for educational institutions
found it necessary to redefine its goal mainly related to
economic development and to ensure a place for India in
the community of prosperous nations.
Concept Box
Commonwealth of Learning (COL)
The COL is an intergovernmental organization estab-
lished by the Commonwealth countries in 1988 to
encourage development and sharing of open learn-
ing and distance education knowledge, resources and
technologies.
The COL was hosted in Canada by the Government
of Canada. The major voluntary contributors currently
are Canada, India, New Zealand, Nigeria, South Africa
and the United Kingdom, where each are entitled to
seats on the COL’s Board of Governors. The following
Indian organizations are partners of the COL for differ-
ent purposes:
1. Indira Gandhi National Open University
2. National Institute of Open Schooling
3. National Assessment and Accreditation Council
Profession
A profession is a vocation founded upon specialized
educational training, the purpose of which is to supply
counsel and service to others, for a direct and definite
compensation, wholly apart from expectation of other
business gain.
A profession arises when any trade or occupation
transforms itself through ‘the development of formal
qualifications based on education, apprenticeship, and
examinations, the emergence of regulatory bodies with
powers to admit and discipline members, and some
degree of monopoly rights.’
The need for professional education has only increased
with changing needs of society and economy.
M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 29
10.29
The professional regulatory bodies grant approval for
establishment of institutes and determine standards for
the same. Some of the specialized professional bodies are
as follows:
1. Medical Council of India
2. Dental Council of India
3. India Nursing Council
4. Council of Architecture
5. Bar Council of India
6. Pharmacy Council of India
7. Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR)
8. Rehabilitation Council of India
9. Central Council of Homeopathy
10. Central Council of Indian Medicine
11. Veterinary Council of India
Thus, a significant part of the Indian higher education
system is regulated. However, there are certain areas that
are not.
Technical Education
Technical education imparts knowledge of a specific trade,
craft or profession. It can meet the increasing demands
of expanding society and it is multiplying demands and
development.
To train our students/professionals in response to the
need of the time, our education system must be reor-
ganized to give it the necessary practical and technical
bias. The Government of India is also very keen for uni-
versal recognition of our education system, and because
of that, all universities are trying hard to get the NBA
accreditation.
We find that in a zeal to cope with the advancement
of science and technology, our technical education system
has become primarily skill-oriented and almost deficient
or casual in the education in human values.
technical education scenario in i ndia
In India, technical education covers programmes in engi-
neering, technology, management, architecture, town
planning, pharmacy, applied arts and crafts, and hotel
management and catering technology.
1. The first engineering college was established in Uttar
Pradesh in 1847 for training of civil engineers at Roor-
kee. It conferred diplomas that were considered to be
equivalent to degrees.
2. Three engineering colleges were opened by about
1856 in three presidencies, namely, Calcutta, Bombay
and Madras.
3. In Bengal, the leaders of the Swadeshi Movement tried
to start many institutions. However, only the College of
Engineering and Technology at Jadavpur survived.
4. Many technical courses were started at the University
of Banaras with great efforts put by Pandit Madan
Mohan Malviya (1917).
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 10.30
5. Many other courses were also started at the Bengal
Engineering College at Shibpur in the 1930s.
6. A number of engineering colleges were established
since 15 August 1947. It was due to the realization
that India had to become a great industrial country
and would require a large number of engineers than
could be supplied by the older institutions.
All India Council for T echnical Education
• 1943: The Technical Education Committee of the
CABE was constituted.
• 1944: The Sergeant Report was prepared.
• 1945: The AICTE was formed.
• 1986: As stipulated in the National Policy of Educa-
tion (1986), the AICTE was vested with the following:
• Statutory authority for planning, formulation and
maintenance of norms and standards
• Quality assurance through accreditation
• Funding in priority areas, monitoring and evaluation
• Maintaining parity of certification and awards
• The management of technical education in the
country
• 1987: The AICTE was setup. The purview of the
AICTE (the Council) covers programmes of technical
education including training and research in the fol-
lowing at different levels:
1. Engineering
2. Technology
3. Architecture
4. Town planning
5. Management
6. Pharmacy
7. Applied arts and crafts
8. Hotel management and catering technology, etc.
• The council discharges its functions through an exec-
utive committee.
• The AICTE is headquartered in New Delhi and has
regional offices at 10 places—Mumbai, Chennai,
Bengaluru, Bhopal, Chandigarh, Kanpur, Kolkata,
Hyderabad, Guwahati, and Thiruvanthapuram.
Council of A rchitecture
The COA was constituted by the Government of India
under the provisions of the Architects Act, 1972. The Act
provides for registration of architects and matters con-
nected therewith.
Ministry of Education F unded Institutions
- funded Institutions
Technical education system in the country is broadly
classified into three categories: (i) central government–
funded institutions, (ii) state-funded institutions and
(iii) self-financed institutions. The centrally funded
institution of technical and science education are as
follows.
I ndian Institute of T echnology (IIT)
The five initial IITs are the following:
M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 30
Chapter 10
1. IIT Kharagpur (1951)
2. IIT Bombay (set up in 1958 with help from the USSR
and UNESCO)
3. IIT Madras (1959)
4. IIT Delhi (1963)
5. IIT Guwahati (1994)
Eight new IITs in Patna, Jodhpur, Bhubaneswar,
Hyderabad, Gandhinagar, Indore, Mandi and Ropar were
set up in 2008.
According to the National Plan of Science and
Technology, five Centres of Advanced Study and Research
have been set up:
1. Energy studies: IIT Delhi
2. Material science: IIT Kanpur
3. Cryogenic engineering: Kharagpur
4. Ocean engineering: IIT Madras
5. Resource engineering: IIT Bombay
Indian Institutes of Management (IIM)
The IIMs are a group of 20 public, autonomous institutes of
management education and research in India. They primar-
ily offer postgraduate, doctoral and executive education
programmes. The establishment of IIMs was initiated by
Jawaharlal Nehru, the first Prime Minister of India, based
on the recommendation of the Planning Commission.
The following is the list of the first six IIMs:
• IIM Calcutta (with support from the MIT Sloan Insti-
tute of Management)—1961
• IIM Ahmedabad (with support from the Harvard
Business School)—1961
• IIM Bengaluru—1973
• IIM Lucknow—1984
• IIM Kozhikode—1996
• IIM Indore—1996
In the second and third generations of IIMs, six insti-
tutes each were opened.
As we discussed, they have been set up under different
acts of the Parliament. The Lok Sabha passed the IIM Bill
2017 to make IIMs the INI. It allows IIMs greater autonomy
and empowers them to grant degrees instead of diplomas.
Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru
The IISc, Bengaluru, was started in 1909 through the pio-
neering vision of J. N. Tata.
• The Institute has been engaged in higher learning
and advanced research in the fields of science and
engineering.
• The IISc was the first deemed university in India.
• Five more institutions devoted to science, education
and research have been set up as Indian Institutes
of Science Education and Research (IISER) broadly
on the pattern of the IISc at Kolkata, Pune, Mohali,
­Bhopal and Thiruvananthapuram.
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 Higher Education System
National Institutes of Technology
• On the recommendations of the erstwhile Planning
Commission in 1955, eight Regional Engineering Col-
leges (RECs; two each in east, west, north and south)
were set up in early 1960s.
• Gradually, the number of colleges increased to 17.
• In 2003, RECs were rechristened as NITs and taken
over as fully funded institutes of the central govern-
ment. They were granted a deemed university status.
• Over a period, the total number of NITs has increased
to 30.
Indian Institute of Information Technology
IIITs were specifically set up to meet the manpower
requirements of the IT sector. The central government
initially established four IIITs at Allahabad, Gwalior,
Jabalpur and Kanchipuram. These institutions are meant
to provide undergraduate as well as postgraduate educa-
tion. Presently, the total number of IIITs is 25.
List of IIITs
1. IIIT, Allahabad
2. Atal Bihari Vajpayee IIIT, Gwalior
3. Pandit Dwarka Prasad Mishra IIIT (Design and
Manufacturing), Jabalpur
4. IIIT (Design and Manufacturing), Kanchipuram
National Institute of Technical Teachers’ Training
and Research (NITTTRs)
Four NITTTRs located at Bhopal, Chandigarh, Chennai,
and Kolkata were established in the mid-1960s for the
training of polytechnic teachers to undertake activities in
the areas of education, planning and management.
Externally Aided Projects in Technical Education
1. Technical Education Quality Improvement Pro-
gramme (TEQIP): It was launched by the MHRD in
2002 to upscale and support the ongoing efforts in
improving the quality of technical education.
2. Technician Education Project-III: It was launched
with the help of the World Bank for the upgradation
of polytechnics in the country.
Skill Development in I ndia
Introduction skills and knowledge are the driving forces
of economic growth and social development in any coun-
try. India, at present, is recognized as one of the younger
nations in the world with over 50% of the population
under the age of 30 years. The census projection report
shows that the proportion of population in the work-
ing age group (15–59 years) is likely to increase from
approximately 58% in 2001 to more than 64% by 2021.
It is estimated that by about 2025, India will have 25%
of the world’s total workforce. Thus, we need to take
optimum benefit of 'demographic dividend'. Our train-
ing covers only 10% of the population that is very low in
comparison to 60-70% of developed nations.
M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 31
10.31
The main objectives of skill development in India are the
following:
1. To enhance the employability of youth
2. To maintain their competitiveness through provisions
of multi-entry multi-exit learning opportunities and
vertical mobility
3. To fill the gap between educated and employable
4. To reduce the dropout rate at the secondary level
Presently, the country faces a demand–supply mis-
match, as the economy needs more ‘skilled’ workforce
than that is available. We are well aware of the fact that
skills acquired during education are seldom applicable in
industry.
The Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepre­
neurship was created in 2014 to coordinate all skill devel-
opment efforts across the country.
National Skills Qualifications Framework (NSQF):
The Government of India launched the National
Vocational Education Qualification Framework (NVEQF)
which was later on assimilated into the NSQF.
Sector Skill Councils (SSCs): UGC launched this pro-
gramme in collaboration with Ministry of Education. This
involved Qualification Packs (QPs), National Occupational
Standards (NOSs) and assessment mechanisms in the
respective domains of trainees as per needs of the industry.
B.Voc. Degree Programme
The UGC launched another scheme of B.Voc. degree pro-
gramme to expand the scope of vocational education and
also to provide vertical mobility to the students admitted
into Community Colleges for diploma programmes to a
degree programme in the universities and colleges.
Kaushal: Further ‘Deen Dayal Upadhyay Centres
for Knowledge Acquisition and Upgradation of Skilled
Human Abilities and Livelihood (KAUSHAL)’ was also
incorporated.
Kaushal Kendras formulate courses at postgraduate
level keeping in mind the need of
1. Industry in specialized areas
2. Instructional design, curriculum design and con-
tents in the areas of skills development
3. Pedagogy, assessment for skills development educa-
tion and training
4. Trained faculty in the areas of skill development
5. Entrepreneurship
Since the above three provisions serve a common purpose,
they have been merged into a single scheme for providing
skill-based education under the National Qualification
Framework.
Skill India Initiative: This initiative aims to skill 40
crore people by 2022 through its ‘Skill India’ programme.
Various initiatives under this campaign are the
following:
• National Skill Development Mission
• National Policy for Skill Development and Entrepre-
neurship, 2015
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 10.32 Chapter 10

• Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY)— potentially called the CIHEC was established to promote
under the Ministry of Skill Development and and facilitate industry–higher education collaboration.
Entrepreneurship The Indian Institute of Entrepreneurship (IIE): This
• Skill Loan Scheme institute was established in the year 1993 in Guwahati.
• Rural India Skill This is an autonomous national institute with an aim to
undertake training, research and consultancy activities in
Global Initiative for Academic Network (GIAN): GIAN
small and micro-enterprises focusing on entrepreneurship
aims at tapping the talent pool of scientists and entre-
development.
preneurs, internationally, to encourage their engage-
National Institute for Entrepreneurship and Small
ment with the institutes of higher education in India so
Business Development (NIESBUD): It is a society under
as to augment the country’s existing academic resources,
the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
accelerate the pace of quality reform and elevate India’s
engaged in training, consultancy, research and publica-
scientific and technological capacity to global excellence.
tion, in order to promote entrepreneurship. The insti-
It is proposed to initiate the programme under collabora-
tute has been financially self-sufficient since 2007–08. It
tion with various countries.
is operating from an integrated campus in Noida, Uttar
Skills Assessment Matrix for Vocational
Pradesh.
Advancement of Youth (SAMVAY): SAMVAY is basi-
Community colleges: Skill development has been
cally a credit framework. It allows vertical and lat-
an integral part of education system in many nations
eral mobility within vocational education system and
such as USA, Germany, Canada, UK, Japan, China, etc.
between the current education systems. The strength
In India, idea of starting ‘community colleges’ started
of this framework is the seamless integration of pursuit
in 2012 many nations such as USA, Germany, Canada,
of academic knowledge and practical vocational skills.
UK, Japan, China, etc. At some places skill development
Efforts like these will improve the employability of our
starts at the school level while at other places, it starts
educated youth.
at the college level. More known among them are the
Unnat Bharat Abhiyan: Under this programme, the
community colleges. These colleges provide education
IIT, IISER and NIT adopt villages and develop appropriate
above the secondary level and below the degree level
rural technologies for sustainable development through
with appropriate skills keeping in view the needs of local
peoples’ participation. This will enable processes that
industry and community, thereby leading to gainful
connect institutes of higher education with local commu-
employment and option for horizontal and vertical
nities. Focus is on water management, organic farming,
mobility. While vertical mobility facilities movement
renewable energy, frugal technology, infrastructure and
to higher education and research, horizontal mobility
livelihood.
creates opportunity for entry into the employment
Ishan Uday—Scholarship Scheme for Students of
market with appropriate skills. There is also flexibility for
North–east Region: The UGC has launched a Special
further skill development.
Scholarship Scheme for students of the north-east region,
Skill India Mission—Recent Developments: In
Ishan Uday, from the academic session 2014–15.
2015, Prime Minister launched the ‘Skill India Mission’,
Ishan Vikas—Academic Exposure for North-Eastern
which was in accordance with his vision to help
Students: The programme has been launched with a
India become ‘Atmanirbhar’ (self-reliant). State Skill
plan to bring selected college and school students from
Development Missions and District Skill Committees
the north-eastern states into close contact with IITs, NITs
and successfully implement the Pradhan Mantri Kaushal
and IISERs during their vacation periods for academic
Vikas Yojana were envisaged for seven North East states
exposure.
in April 2022. The Technology Information, Forecasting
Saakshar Bharat—Adult Literacy and Pradhan
and Assessment Council (TIFAC) launched SAKSHAM
Mantri Jan Dhan Yojna: Centrally Sponsored Scheme
(Shramik Shakti Manch), a work portal for mapping
of Adult Education and Skill Development has a special
skills of ‘Shramiks’ (labour) in February, 2022. A pro-
focus on underprivileged groups. Four hundred and ten
gramme called as ‘Specified Skilled Worker’ (SSW) was
districts are covered under the programme.
launched in collaboration with Japan.
PRAGATI—Scholarships for Girl Child for Technical
India envisages to become a five trillion dollars econ-
Education: PRAGATI aims at providing encouragement
omy by 2025. We want to increase our exports to one tril-
and support to girl child to pursue technical education.
lion dollars by 2030.
Swami Vivekananda Scholarship for Single Girl
Child: The UGC has introduced the Swami Vivekananda
Scholarship for Single Girl Child for research in social sci-
ences with an aim to compensate direct costs of higher Value Education
education especially for such girls who happen to be the From a broader perspective, the aim of value education is
only girl child in their family. linked with the fundamental question of what education
Council for Industry and Higher Education itself is meant for:
Collaboration (CIHEC): This relates to creating linkages
between the industry and the academia. A nodal agency 1. Individual’s Perspective: To enable students to
achieve personal fulfilment for success in life and work

M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 32 23/12/22 8:05 PM

 Higher Education System
2. Societal Perspective: To prepare the youth to contrib-
ute to the society, nation and world
Plato wrote in The Republic, ‘The mark of an educated per-
son is the willingness to use one’s knowledge and skills to
solve the problems of society.’
Key Developments in Value Education
1. National Commission of Secondary Education
(1952–53) emphasized character-building as the
defining goal of education.
2. University Education Commission (1962) noted, ‘If
we exclude spiritual training in our institutions, we
would be untrue to our whole historical development.’
3. Education Commission of 1964–66 put the spotlight
on education and national development. Agreeing
with the Sri Prakasa Committee Report, 1959, it rec-
ommended direct moral instruction for which one or
two periods a week should be set aside in the school
time table.
4. NPE (1986) advocated turning education into a
forceful tool for the cultivation of social and moral
values. Education should foster universal and eternal
values, oriented towards the unity and integration of
our people.
5. NPE—Programme of Action (1992) tried to inte-
grate the various components of value education
into the curriculum at all stages of school education,
including the secondary stage.
6. Chavan’s Committee Report (1999) provided impe-
tus to resume work on value orientation of education.
7. The National Curriculum Framework for School
Education (2000) advanced a plea to integrate value
education into the curriculum.
8. National Curriculum Framework (2005) articu-
lates the need to reaffirm our commitment to the
concept of equality amidst diversity, mutual interde-
pendence of humans to promote values that foster
peace, humaneness and tolerance in a multicultural
society. The NCF, 2005, particularly emphasizes edu-
cation for peace as one of the national and global
concerns.
Main I ssues behind the Need for I mparting
Value Education
Tradition versus Modernity
Developing societies, such as India, face a conflict
between tradition and modernization. It is important to
make young learners develop attitudes where they do not
see everything in tradition as bad or everything in mod-
ernization as good. There are many things positive about
our traditional culture, which need to be appreciated and
understood, such as tolerance of dissonance, harmony
rather than control over environment, collectivism and
self-definition in a social context emphasizing modesty,
cooperation, duty, acceptance and so on.
M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 33
10.33
Globalization
Societies have become less and less mono-­ cultural.
Consequently, the pluricultural environment in which we
live now is more complex and multiple with different cul-
tures developing.
Diversity
Universality and diversity may seem incompatible, but
both have to coexist in a democratic and diverse society
such as ours.
Inclusivity
A healthy, happy society is one in which all its members
feel included.
Environment
The reckless exploitation of e­nvironment, depletion of
ozone layer, global warming, industrial pollution, deforest-
ation and soil erosion are few problems faced by humanity.
Exploding World of Science and Technology
How science and technology are used is a question of
values. Application of science and technology in a more
humane and rationale way is related to moral and ethical
responsibility.
Mass and Social Media
A major ubiquitous aspect of contemporary society is the
intrusion of mass media into day-to-day life of all societies.
The values and attitudes that get transmitted are rather con-
trary to the values desired by the family, society or school.
All India Survey on Higher Education (AISHE)
To portray the status of higher education in the country,
the MHRD has endeavoured to conduct an annual web-
based AISHE since 2010–11. The survey covers all the
institutions in the country engaged in imparting of higher
education. Data is being collected on several parameters
such as teachers, student enrolment, programmes, exam-
ination results, education finance and infrastructure.
Indicators of educational development such as Institution
Density, Gross Enrolment Ratio, Pupil–Teacher Ratio
(PTR), Gender Parity Index and Per Student Expenditure
are also calculated from the data collected through the
AISHE. These are useful in making informed policy deci-
sions and research for the development of education sector.
AISHE Report (2020–21)
• Institutions are categorized into three broad catego-
ries; university, college and stand-alone institutions.
• A total of 962 universities, 38,179 colleges and 9190
stand-alone institutions have responded during the
survey. A total of 298 universities are affiliating, that
is, having colleges.
• Sixteen of the universities are exclusively for
women—three in Rajasthan, two in Tamil Nadu and
one in many others.
• In addition to 1 Central Open University, 14 State
Open Universities and 1 State Private Open Univer-
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 10.34 Chapter 10

Concept Box
National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF)
The NIRF has been approved by the MHRD and was launched on 29 September 2015. The first list was released in
April 2016. This framework outlines a methodology to rank institutions across the country. The methodology draws
from the overall recommendations and broad understanding arrived at by the Core Committee set up by the MHRD
(now Ministry of Education), to identify the broad parameters for ranking various universities and institutions.
There are various agencies such as Times Higher Education World University Rankings (THER) and the
Quacquarelli Symonds (QS) ranking agencies to address various ranking parameters. Arizona State University, USA is
the top university in QS, with USA and UK are the most represented nations. India has 15 such institutuions in the QS
rankings, with IITB, IITD and IIS at the top three. India tried to supplement the gap with the introduction of the NIRF.

The following five parameters (weightages in parentheses) were broadly considered:

1. Teaching and learning (0.30)
2. Research and professional practices (0.30)
3. Graduation outcomes (0.20)
4. Outreach and inclusivity (0.10)
5. Perception (0.10)
The institutions were ranked by the National Bureau of Accreditation (NBA). All institutions were judged based
on self-disclosure of information.
Although the ranking frameworks are similar, the exact methodologies are domain specific. Ranking methods
have been worked out for the following categories:
India Ranking 2022: Top 100 in Overall
Name State Rank
Indian Institute of Technology Madras, Chennai Tamil Nadu 1
Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru Karnataka 2
Indian Institute of Technology Bombay, Mumbai Maharashtra 3

India Ranking 2022: Top 3 Universities

Name State Rank
Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru Karnataka 1
Jawaharlal Nehru University, New Delhi Delhi 2
Jamia Milia Islamia, New Delhi Delhi 3

India Ranking 2022: Top 3 in Engineering

Name State Rank
Indian Institute of Technology Madras, Chennai Tamil Nadu 1
Indian Institute of Technology Delhi, New Delhi Delhi 2
Indian Institute of Technology Bombay, Mumbai Maharashtra 3

India Ranking 2022: Top 3 Institutions (Management)

Name State Rank
Indian Institute of Management, Ahmedabad Gujarat 1
Indian Institute of Management, Bengaluru Karnataka 2
Indian Institute of Management, Kolkata West Bengal 3

(Continued)

M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 34 23/12/22 8:05 PM

 Higher Education System
India Ranking 2022: Top 5 Colleges
Name
Miranda House, Delhi
Hindu College, Delhi
Presidency College, Chennai
Loyola College, Chennai
Lady Shri Ram College for Women, New Delhi
sity, there are 110 dual-mode universities, which offer
education through distance mode also and the maxi-
mum, 13, of them are located in Tamil Nadu.
• Uttar Pradesh comes at number one with the high-
est student enrolment followed by Maharashtra and
Tamil Nadu.
• The maximum universities are from general, techni-
cal and agriculture & allied. There are 13 Sanskrit and
9 language universities.
• The top eight states in terms of highest number of
colleges are Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka,
Rajasthan, Haryana, Tamil Nadu, Gujarat and Mad-
hya Pradesh.
• Bengaluru Urban district tops in terms of the number
of colleges with 880 colleges followed by Jaipur with
566 colleges.
• College density, that is, the number of colleges per
lakh eligible population (population in the age group
18–23 years), varies from 7 in Bihar to 53 in Karna-
taka as compared to all India average of 28.
• Sixty-one per cent of colleges are located in rural
areas. Eleven per cent of colleges are exclusively for
females.
• Only 2.5% of colleges run Ph.D. programme and 34.9%
of colleges run post graduate level programmes.
• Females constitute 48.6% of the total enrolment. The
Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in higher education in
India is 26.3%, which is calculated for the age group
of 18–23 years. The GER for the male population is
26.3% and for females, it is 26.4%. For Scheduled
Castes, it is 23% and for Scheduled Tribes, it is 17.2%
as compared to the national GER of 26.3%.
• Distance enrolment constitutes about 10.62% of the
total enrolment.
• Maximum numbers of students are enrolled in B.A. pro-
gramme followed by B.Sc. and B.Com. programmes.
• At the undergraduate level, the highest number
(35.9%) of students are enrolled in Arts/Humanities/
Social Sciences courses followed by Science (16.5%),
Engineering and Technology (13.5%) and Commerce
(14.1%).
• At the Ph.D. level, the maximum students are enrolled
in Science stream that is followed by Engineering and
Technology. On the other hand, at the post graduate
M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 35
10.35
State Rank
Delhi 1
Delhi 2
Tamil Nadu 3
Tamil Nadu 4
Delhi 5
level, maximum students are enrolled in Social Sci-
ence stream and Management comes at number two.
• The share of Ph.D. students is highest in State Pub-
lic University (34.3%) followed by the INI, Deemed
University-Private and State Private University.
• The highest share of foreign students comes from
Nepal (26.88%) followed by Afghanistan, Bangla-
desh, Sudan and Bhutan.
• At the all-India level, there are merely 73 female
teachers per 100 male teachers.
• The PTR in universities and colleges is 29 if regular mode
of enrolment is considered, whereas PTR for universities
and its constituent units is 18 for the regular mode.
• At the post graduate level, MA pass number of stu-
dents is maximum followed by M.Sc. and MBA.
• At the Ph.D. level, the maximum number of student
out-turn is in Science stream followed by Engineering
and Technology. On the other hand, at the PG level, the
maximum student out-turn is observed in Social Sci-
ence and Management stream comes at number two.
Stopover
Which of the following can be termed the district for
maximum number of colleges in India?
(a) Jaipur (b) Bengaluru Urban
(c) New Delhi (d) Chennai
The correct option is (b).
Key Issues Facing Spread of Higher Education
in India
The National Policy on Higher Education translated
the vision of the Radhakrishnan Commission and the
Kothari Commission into an actionable policy by setting
five main goals for higher education, which are enumer-
ated as follows:
1. Access
2. Equity—fair access to the poor and the socially disad-
vantaged groups to higher education
3. Quality and excellence
4. Relevance
5. Value-based education
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 10.36
As per the UGC guidelines, student–teacher ratio should
be 30:1. However, in some of the states, the ratio is as
high as 100:1.
Despite having one of the largest higher education sys-
tems in the world, few Indian institutions have earned
global distinction. There is no Indian institute among the
world’s top 200.
G overnance and Administration
Governance signifies a change in the meaning of gov-
ernment, referring to a new process of governing; or a
changed condition of ordered rule; or the new method by
which society is governed.
Governance can be defined in the following ways:
• As the minimal state
• As corporate governance
• As the new public management
• As ‘good governance’
• As international interdependence
• As a socio-cybernetic system
• As networks
As governance has been put under higher education, we
are discussing some constitutional aspects (as the minimal
state) linked with higher education minimal aspects.
In the following paragraphs, we will focus on some
constitutional aspects of governance.
Governance of Higher Education
System
Earlier we discussed about UGC, universities, institutions
of national importance, NAAC, NBA etc. They are linked
with the governance aspect as well. Good governance
basically focuses on the process of governance, which is
dependent on a loop of dialogue between various formal
and informal institutions. We have already described
the policies and politics in Indian education under the
recommendations of various committees, history, new
education policy. There is a need to influence policies and
decisions related to public life through good governance.
The success of governance depends on the restructur-
ing of the government with a social objective, the revi-
talization of the non-government sectors. Political will,
regulatory and organizational flexibility are needed. We
need to critically examine whether policies are being
implemented efficiently and honestly by government
agencies and organizations which are responsible for per-
forming assigned tasks. Good governance requires mean-
ingful cooperation of various elements of civil society and
a multi-pronged strategy.
State, private sector and NGOs, especially community
based organizations should cooperate and coordinate
with each other to make good governance possible. Good
governance helps in development, it can bring change in
the society. It has a minimum state, a socio-cybernetic
systems, self-organized networks and some corporate
governance.
M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 36
Chapter 10
Organizational Structure of U niversities
Ancient education in India has been based on Vedanta,
Buddhism and Jainism, our university system was also
at its peak according to that time, due to which India has
also been called ‘Jagat Guru’. The Government of India
wants to keep at least some part of the ancient education
system in the present education system.
The present university system was originally inherited
from the British. We can look at the following points for
the sake of recall.
1. Many institutions such as Calcutta Madrasa (1781),
Asiatic Society of Bengal (1784), Banaras Sanskrit
College (1791), Fort William College (1800), Ser-
ampore College (1818) etc. were established.
2. Indian education was declared one of the duties of the
state by the British Parliament under Charter Act of
1813.
3. Then British education was given priority by ‘Minute
of Macaulay’ (1835).
4. Three universities were established in Bombay,
Calcutta and Madras in the year 1857 as per sugges-
tions by the Charles Wood Report. They were based
mainly on the University of London, which was our
role model. The University of Allahabad was estab-
lished in the year 1887, focused more on gradu-
ate studies and as a peripheral adjunct to centres of
advanced university education. The British govern-
ment used the university system as an instrument of
‘cultural colonization’.
5. British control over the Indian education system con-
tinued until the Government of India Act 1935. This
act transferred more power to the provincial politi-
cians and the ‘Indianisation’ of education started.
After Independence Scene: These happenings are in
continuity with before independence scenario. The goal
of higher education was not achieved till independence.
Till that point, higher education was meant for elite sec-
tions of society. Many changes were inevitable to fulfil the
aspirations of Indian public after independence.
Many new universities were set up for the sake of
expansion, many diverse courses were also added in
professional studies—IITs, BITS-Pilani, regional engineering
colleges and IIMs were set up as highly rated educational
institutions. National Institutes of Technology (NITs),
Indian Institutes of Science and Indian Institutes of Science
Education (IISc) and Research (IISERs) were developed.
The languages and humanities got importance until
the 1980s. In 1990s and 2000s new IITs and IIMs were
set up. Despite all the expansion of higher education, no
significant change was observed in the organizational
structure of the universities which most of the Indian
universities followed the principle of affiliation. They
intended to provide efficient governance for their
constituent and affiliated colleges. Thus, administrative
bodies, otherwise known as statutory bodies, have also
been constituted on similar principles. We will discuss
them in the following manner. In general, we can discuss
two types of universities.
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 Higher Education System
1. Unitary Universities: The examples are Banaras
Hindu University, Hyderabad University, Pondicherry
University. The teaching and research is conducted in a
single campus (sometimes with subsidiary campuses)
and there is a provision for both undergraduate and
postgraduate teaching, as also for research.
2. Affiliating Universities: This is mostly with state
universities. They have central campus on which there
are departments or schools that impart postgraduate
instruction and conduct research. They have a
variable number of colleges affiliated to them and
these may be distributed over a number of districts, in
accordance with the jurisdiction of the university.
The majority of Indian Universities are funded by
Central or State governments. Some of the deemed
universities are sponsored by private trusts. These
include Birla Institute of Technology and Science, Pilani,
Thapar University, Patiala etc. In few states, private
universities have been set up under Acts of Legislatures
such as Sikkim-Manipal University of Health, Media
and Technological Sciences in Sikkim and the Amity
University in Chattisgarh.
Colleges: The bulk of undergraduate teaching is done in
colleges. They are of two types—the constituent colleges
and the affiliated colleges.
1. Constituent Colleges (or Conducted Colleges):
These are established and managed by the University.
2. Affiliated Colleges: They are set-up and managed,
outside the university campus, either by the
government or by educational trusts. The power of
granting affiliation to a college usually vests with the
universities and this power is generally exercised in
consultation with the concerned government.
Source of Funding: The income of a university in India, is
derived from the following sources:
1. Grants from the Central Government
2. Grants from the State Governments
3. Contributions from students’ fees
4. Endowments, donations, etc.
5. Financial support from different specialised agencies
Types of Grants
It is always interesting to look into the types of grants
received by higher education institutions in the country.
The State government grant to the universities can be
grouped into three different heads:
1. Maintenance/Block Grants: These grants are meant
for the routine working of the institutions. This
head includes the salaries of the teaching and non-
teaching staff. These grants are determined by the
state governments for a specified period, they usually
increase as per changes in the costs. The quantum of
grants is based on the net deficit of the university,
depending upon demand for approved and rise in
costs.
M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 37
10.37
2. Non-recurring Grants: These grants are normally
used for buildings, equipment etc. In general, land for
a university is given by the State government.
3. Development Grants: These are meant for the new
schemes sponsored by the federal/state governments
and a university generally gets these grants on a
matching basis for various activities by the UGC.
The Central government provides grants to universi-
ties and colleges for general education, and are for the
development purposes, which are channelised through
the UGC. When the onus of providing grants shifts on to
states, they may start facing trouble.
Statutory Bodies of Universities
Every Indian university is governed by its various statutory
bodies. In the case of Central Universities, the Central
Government is represented by the nominees of the Central
Government and in the case of State Universities, the State
Government is represented by persons nominated by the State
Government in the Governing Bodies of these Universities.
The following bodies control Indian universities:
1. Court/Senate
2. Executive Council/Syndicate/Board of Management
3. Academic Council
4. Board of Studies
5. Finance Committee
6. Boards or Committees
Now, we shall discuss each of these bodies, their constitution
and functions as well as the powers vested by them for the
effective functioning of the university system.
1. University Court/Senate
These are the supreme governing bodies of the universities.
In case of Central Universities. It is known as Court, while
in State Universities it is known as Senate. Such a body
does not exist in the case of IGNOU. In general, each
Court/Senate of universities has about 100 or so members.
It consists of some ex-officio members, representatives
of various professions/industries, principals of affiliated
colleges, students, non-teaching staff, alumni and some
teachers, nominated members.
The main functions are as follows.
1. This supreme statutory body university has the power
to take all the major decisions.
2. It controls the budget of the University, considers the
annual report and passes resolutions thereon.
3. It reviews the Acts of the University and examines the
role of the principal bodies of the University.
4. It amends and repeals Acts as and when necessary.
5. It passes ordinances to establish new colleges and
maintain both new and old ones.
6. It also supervises the establishment of teaching and
administrative posts, and is responsible for awarding
degrees.
7. The Court/Senate may delegate its power to any
authority or any body of the University as it may
deem fit.
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 10.38
2. Executive Council/Syndicate/Board of Management
In central universities, the principal governing body is
known as the Executive Council; In state universities
it is called Syndicate/Executive Council or Board of
Management.
1. All the principal office bearers of the University are
ex-officio members of this body. It has representatives
from both the principals and faculty of alumni, as well
as government representatives. Some prominent per-
sons from the field of education are also nominated to
the council.
2. Manages and regulates the accounts, investments,
property, business of the University and all other
related administrative matters.
3. It passes ordinances for constituent colleges, and
these councils/syndicates/boards of management
finance, fund, oversee the effective management of
the respective colleges.
4. It also controls and maintains the Publications Divi-
sion and the University Press. They also have the
opportunity to hear and redress the grievances of the
employees of the University. Providing opportunities
for their entertainment also comes under their scope.
This body also has the power to delegate to the Committee
the right to consider certain matters of the University for
the effective and efficient management of the University.
3. Academic Council
All senior officers of the University including the Dean and
Head of the Department of Studies/ School are ex-officio
members of an Academic Council. Representation
for ex-officio membership is generally based on the
principle of rotation. In some universities, students also
get representation in this body. If a university has its
constituent affiliated colleges, the principals of these
colleges are also representatives of this body. The main
responsibility of the academic council of a university is to
make important decisions on the programs and courses to
be offered to the students. It also includes maintenance
of standards in instruction, examination, evaluation etc.
4. Board of Studies
Universities have study boards in various subjects. They
mainly consist of heads of various departments of the
university, heads of departments of affiliated colleges
and teachers and representatives of co-opted members.
In some universities students are also nominated as
members of the study boards of the faculties/schools.
The Board of Studies coordinates the teaching and
research work in the departments, appoints committees
to organize teaching and research work in the subjects;
Allows for courses of study, and takes an active part in
examinations and evaluation processes.
It promotes the research work of the Faculty/Schools
and forwards these reports on research to the Academic
Council. It also acts on subjects referred to by the Vice-
Chancellor, Executive Council/Syndicate or Academic
Council from time to time.
M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 38
Chapter 10
Quorum at a meeting of the Board of Studies shall be
5 members present in person.
5. Finance Committee
The Vice-Chancellor of the University is the ‘Ex-officio
Chairman of this Committee’. Generally, the members
of this committee include the Visitor/Vice Chancellor,
Government and the Executive Council/ Syndicate/
Management Board nominees.
The Finance Officer of the University is ordinarily the
Member Secretary of the Finance Committee, the Finance
Officer of the University in the capacity of Member
Secretary of the Finance Committee prepares the annual
accounts and places the same before the Finance Committee
for consideration and comments, and thereafter to the
Executive Council. Submits for approval of Senate/Board of
Management. The Finance Officer exercises general control
over the funds of the University and advises the Finance
Committee and the officials of the University on its financial
policies. He performs those functions which are assigned to
him by the Executive Council/Syndicate.
Subject to the control of the Executive Council/
Syndicate, the Finance Officer protects and manages the
assets, and oversees the investments, including trusts and
endowed assets, to further any purpose of the University.
The officer also sees that the limit fixed by the Finance
Committee on recurring and non-recurring expenditure
for a year does not exceed and all money is spent on
the purposes for which they were originally granted or
allotted.
6. Boards or Committees
The above statutory bodies of the University may appoint
boards or committees to deliberate on certain issues.
These boards or committees may have members from
the respective statutory bodies or from outside. The main
function of such a committee is to deliberate and make
recommendations on the matter entrusted to it, subject
to subsequent confirmation by the body appointing it.
It is clear from the above discussion that the statutory
bodies of the University have been entrusted with a broad
framework of responsibilities for its smooth functioning.
But there are some instances where these bodies exceed
the limits of authority assigned to them and do not take
any action in respect of subjects which fall within their
purview.
Organization Structure of U niversities
Its employees are responsible for the smooth functioning
of any organization. They are an important link between
the authorities of the society and the institution. In the
context of a university, it is even more encouraging to see
the hierarchy created by these functionaries. The follow-
ing sections form the formal pyramid of power structure
within a university system.
1 Chancellor of University: Normally, every university
in India has a chancellor. In the state universities that
is incorporated by an act of the legislative assembly,
23/12/22 8:05 PM
 Higher Education System
the governor of the state acts as the chancellor. In
Central Universities, the President of India is known
as the Visitor of the University. S/He appoints the
Chancellor of such Universities. The Chancellors of
Central Universities, whether elected or nominated
by the Central Government, are usually persons of
eminence or academic excellence.
There are two types of functions of Vice
Chancellors–statutory and non-statutory
(a) Statutory: The statutory functions are normally
laid down in the Act of the University. One of the
statutory functions of the Chancellor is to pre-
side over the meetings of the Court/Senate of the
University. S/He is vested with the power to nom-
inate senior officers. He is required to appoint the
Vice-Chancellor of the University, and to appoint
some of the members of the Court/Senate, the
Executive Council, the Academic Council, the
Teachers’ Selection Committee and the members
of the University.
(b) Non-statutory functions: These develop from
the culture and tradition of the country-society.
The Chancellor is empowered to intervene in mat-
ters of general administration of the Universities
as well as in academic matters, such as in offer-
ing courses, evaluation procedures, holidays and
other matters relating to the University, and also
matters relating to supervision etc.
2 Vice Chancellor: Vice Chancellor is the linchpin
of a university on all academic matters including
control and management of libraries, laboratories,
workshops, etc. He is the keeper of the conscience of
the University, as noted in the University Education
Commission Report 1948–49, and so has been said
by the Kothari Commission (1964–68) that he should
be committed to the scholarship and truth of the
University. needed. He is the key figure in the entire
university system. The success of the University
depends to a large extent on them, how effectively
and efficiently they discharge their responsibilities.
Here in the following statements the main functions
of the VC of a University are listed.
(a) Selection of the VC to the important statutory
bodies of the University like Senate/Court,
Executive Council/Syndicate/Management Board,
Academic Council, Planning Board, Finance
Committee, Selection Committee etc.
As committee chair, she presides over the meet-
ings, controls the proceedings and continuously
monitors the discussions at the meetings.
(b) As the executive head of a university, the VC is
responsible for the implementation of the deci-
sions taken by various statutory bodies. In this
context, the ability of the VC to run the University
efficiently and effectively is truly reflected.
(c) It is the duty of the VC to ensure that the provi-
sions of the Act, statutes, ordinances, regulations,
M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 39
10.39
and how the decisions taken thereunder are
implemented by the officers of the University.
(d) The VC has to convene the meetings of the statu-
tory bodies. He may, without being a member,
attend and address any meeting of the University
Body or Committee.
(e) Being the Head of Research and Ph.D., he has
to ensure the standard and priority areas of the
research efforts undertaken by the University.
(f) He presides over the committee constituted for
the selection of teachers and nominates the mem-
bers of the expert committees for the selection of
other academic and administrative personnel of
the University.
The task of the VC, as one might actually imagine, is not
so simple. He is the chief executive officer and principal
academic head of a university. He has to play his role
efficiently. He has to take constant guidance not only from
the university authorities but also from the teachers and
other concerned agencies outside the university.
The tenure of the VC is normally five years in central
universities and three years in state universities. They can
also be reappointed in state universities.
3. Pro Vice Chancellor–PVC
PVC/Rector is the second executive and administrative
officer in a university. In central universities, the PVC/
Rector is appointed by the Executive Council on the
recommendation of the VC and is selected from amongst
the senior professors of the University. He exercises such
powers and performs such duties as may be prescribed by
the laws of the University. In state universities, PVCs are
appointed from a panel of names recommended by the VC.
The office of the PVC/Rector is interrupted or co-terminus
with that of the VC. It should not exceed five years.
The PVC/Rector is expected to share the responsibil-
ity of the VC in such areas as the VC deems fit. He also
serves in the absence of the VC, when he is away from the
Headquarters on official business, or is on leave. Therefore,
the main function of the PVC/Rector is a kind of partnership
with the VC to make the entire operation of the University
system more effective.
4. Registrar
Registrar has traditionally been the permanent administra-
tive head of the university. This stability benefits the Vice-
Chancellor with a fixed tenure. The term of the Registrar
has been fixed at five years.
The Registrar is the ex-officio Secretary of the
Court/Senate and Executive Council/Syndicate of the
University. He is the custodian of the records, seal/seal of
the University and all other properties of the University
which the Executive Council/Syndicate entrusts for his
care. He has to sign all the contracts and agreements
made on behalf of the University.
Registrar should maintain correspondence with other
statutory bodies. He organizes the meetings of all the bod-
ies as per the advice of the Vice-Chancellor. The Registrar
is also responsible for the preparation of annual reports
23/12/22 8:05 PM
 10.40
on the activities of the University and other miscellaneous
subjects.
The functions and powers of the Registrar discussed
above are by no means exhaustive. It has been observed
that the more the Vice-Chancellor and the Registrar come
together, the greater is the power of the university system.
5. Dean of Faculty
The Dean is the head of the School’s Faculty of Studies.
In most universities in India, a faculty dean is appointed
by the vice-chancellor from amongst the professors of the
school, for a period of two years on the basis of seniority.
The Dean is responsible for the conduct and standards
of teaching and research in its faculty schools. He coordi-
nates and supervises these through the heads of depart-
ments. It is his responsibility to arrange the examination
of the University in respect of the students of his Faculty/
School as per the instructions given by the Academic
Council. He performs such other academic duties as may
be assigned by the Vice-Chancellor, the Executive Council,
the Syndicate or the Academic Council from time to time.
6. Head of Department
The head of a department or centre is appointed by the
Vice-Chancellor, on a rotation basis, for a period specified
in the statutes. He may be from amongst the professors
or readers of the department. He organizes and presides
over the meetings of the Department under the general
supervision of the Dean. He organizes teaching and
research work in the department, and is in charge of
maintaining discipline in the classroom, laboratories, etc.
He assigns the necessary duties to the teachers of the
department for the proper functioning of the depart-
ment. He plans, executes and monitors the working of his
department in the field of teaching, research and exten-
sion activities.
7. Other functionaries
In this category, we have included all other office
bearers of the University, who are responsible for both
administrative and academic subjects.
The most important among such office bearers are the
controller of examination, finance officer, deputy reg-
istrar and assistant registrar. Since the examination is
related to the university administration
An important and confidential matter, the position
of Controller of Examinations is very important to the
system. The credibility of the University rests to a large
extent on the successful conduct of examinations and
hence the role of Controller of Examinations is of utmost
importance.
Another important officer, who is usually appointed on
deputation from the Government, is the Finance Officer
of the University. He is generally trained in accounts and
advises the university authority on all financial matters.
Autonomy in Higher E ducation System
A UGC committee submitted a report titled ‘Towards
a New Educational Management’ in January 1990 on
alternative models of university management. Professor
M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 40
Chapter 10
A Gyanam was the chairman of this committee, in this
report important recommendations were made on various
aspects of university administration.
Deemed to be university level was also an effort
towards giving autonomy the following steps are neces-
sary to grant autonomy to the university.
1. Government control in universities should be reduced,
so as to strengthen the university’s capacity for auton-
omy and accountability and make academic decisions
based on merit.
2. New methods and procedures of financial regula-
tions should be devised and direct interference of
finance department in financial management of
universities should be prevented, which may also be
counterproductive.
3. Since colleges are the nutritional source of universities,
there are more than 1000 universities in India, and
there are more than 40,000 colleges, there is a great
need for better coordination in their functioning and
activities. The participation of the teaching faculty
should be ensured through a democratic process.
4. Complete transparency should be maintained in the
working of the executive/academic bodies of the
Universities and other Governing Councils. There is
an urgent need to review the University Acts in various
states and revise them in the light of new requirements
and challenges being faced by the universities. New
technologies of information and communication
should be used to achieve administrative efficiency.
5. Higher education should be developed as a basic
framework for the social and economic development
of the country.
6. Students’ participation in the field of university/col-
lege administration should be encouraged.
7. Political interference in the appointment of teachers
and administrators of the University should be com-
pletely stopped.
NITI Aayog
The NITI Aayog is a policy think-tank of government that
replaces the Planning Commission and aims to involve
the states in economic policy-making in India. It will be
providing strategic and technical advice to the central and
the state governments. The government had announced
the formation of NITI Aayog on 1 January 2015. It has the
following levels:
1. Prime Minister of India will be the Chairperson.
2. Governing Council comprises the Chief Ministers
of all the states and Lieutenant Governors of union
territories.
3. Regional Councils will be formed to address specific
issues and contingencies impacting more than one
state or a region. These will be formed for a specified
tenure.
4. Experts, specialists and practitioners with relevant
domain knowledge as special invitees will be nomi-
nated by the Prime Minister.
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 Higher Education System
Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005
Participation, transparency, legitimacy and responsive-
ness form the pillars of good governance. The concept of
good governance was applied in India through the pass-
ing of the RTI Act, 2005.
According to Thomas Jefferson, information is the
currency of democracy.
Article 19(1) of the Indian Constitution specifies that
the Right to Information (RTI) is a part of the fundamen-
tal rights.
It says that every citizen has freedom of speech and
expression. It was said that in the Indian democracy, people
are the masters which give them the right to know about
the functioning of the government. The RTI Act provides
machinery for exercising this fundamental right.
The motivation lies in international developments such
as the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)
and International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights
(1966).
As per the RTI Act, 2005, every citizen has the right to
receive a timely response from the government for any
information that is sought by him/her with respect to the
functioning of the government.
The main objectives of RTI are as follows:
1. To empower the citizens
2. To make government systems more transparent and
accountable
3. The prevent and eliminate corruption
4. To make democracy work better
5. For better vigilance on the instruments of governance
An RTI portal has been created by the Ministry of
Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions. It acts as a
gateway for obtaining information on the details of first
Appellate Authorities, Principle Information Officers, etc.,
in a computerized form that could be easily accessed.
A written or electronic request must be placed by a
person seeking information under the RTI Act. No rea-
son shall be sought from the person placing the request
except the contact details in case the authorities would
have to contact him/her. However, the authorities are not
obligated to provide any such information that is received
under confidence by a foreign government, cabinet
papers, information forbidden to be shared by the court of
law and information that could potentially hurt the sover-
eignty and integrity of India.
Features of the Act
1. Section 1(2): It extends to the whole of India.
2. Section 2(f): ‘Information’ means any material in any
form, including records, documents, memos, emails,
opinions, advices, press releases, circulars, orders, log-
books, contracts, reports, papers, samples, models and
data material held in any electronic form and informa-
tion relating to any private body which can be accessed
by a public authority under any other law for the time
being in force.
M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 41
10.41
3. Section 2(j): ‘Right to Information’ means the right
to information accessible under this Act which is held
by or under the control of any public authority and
includes the right to (i) inspection of work, documents
and records; (ii) taking notes, extracts or certified copies
of documents or records; (iii) taking certified samples of
material; and (iv) obtaining information in the form of
diskettes, floppies, tapes, video cassettes or in any other
electronic mode or through printouts where such infor-
mation is stored in a computer or in any other device.
‘Public authority’ means any authority or body or
institution of self-government established or consti-
tuted by government or non-government funded by
government.
Section 4 of the RTI Act requires suo motu disclosure
of information by each public authority. However,
such disclosures have remained less than satisfactory.
Section 8(1) mentions exemptions against furnishing
information under the RTI Act.
Section 8(2) provides for disclosure of information
exempted under the Official Secrets Act, 1923, if larger
public interest is served.
The Act also provides for appointment of Information
Commissioners at central and state levels. Public
authorities have designated some of its officers as Public
Information Officers. They are responsible to give informa-
tion to a person who seeks information under the RTI Act.
• Time period: In normal course, information to an
applicant should be supplied within 30 days from
the receipt of application by the public authority.
• If information sought concerns the life or liberty of
a person, it shall be supplied within 48 hours.
• The RTI Act, 2005, did not create a new bureaucracy
for implementing the law. Instead, it tasked and man-
dated officials in every office to change their attitude
and duty from one of secrecy to one of sharing and
openness. It strengthens participatory democracy and
ushering in people-centred governance.
• RTI empowers the poor and the weaker sections of
society to demand and get information about public
policies and actions, thereby leading to their welfare.
• The Official Secrets Act, 1923, provides that any gov-
ernment official can mark a document as confidential
so as to prevent its publication.
Lokpal and Lokayukta
• The Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013, provided for
the establishment of Lokpal for the Union and Lokay-
ukta for states.
• The main objective is to prevent corruption.
• These institutions are statutory bodies without any
constitutional status.
• They perform the function of an ‘ombudsman’ and
inquire into allegations of corruption against certain
public functionaries and for related matters.
• The term Lokpal and Lokayukta were coined by Dr L.
M. Singhvi.
23/12/22 8:05 PM
 10.42
• In 1809, the institution of ombudsman was inaugu-
rated officially in Sweden.
• Great Britain adopted the institution of the
ombudsman in 1967 under the Whyatt Report of
1961. It became the first large nation in the demo-
cratic world to have such a system.
• In 1966, Guyana became the first developing nation
to adopt the concept of the ombudsman.
• The concept of constitutional ombudsman was first
proposed by the then law minister Ashok Kumar
Sen in the Parliament in the early 1960s.
• In 1966, the First Administrative Reforms Commis-
sion recommended the setting up of two independ-
ent authorities—at the central and state levels.
• Starting 1968 till 2011, eight attempts were made to
pass the Bill, but all met with failure.
• In 2005, the Second Administrative Reforms Com-
mission chaired by Veerappa Moily recommended
that the office of Lokpal should be established with-
out delay.
• ‘India Against Corruption’ movement led by Anna
Hazare put pressure on the United Progressive Alli-
ance (UPA) government at the Centre and resulted in
the passing of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Bill, 2013,
in both the Houses of ‘Parliament. It received assent
from President on 1 January 2014 and came into
force on 16 January 2014.
N ational I nstitution for T ransforming India
• Planning has been in Indian psyche as our leaders came
under influence of the socialist clime of the erstwhile
USSR. The Planning Commission served as the plan-
ning vehicle for close to six decades with a focus on con-
trol and command approach.
• The Planning Commission was replaced by a new insti-
tution—NITI Aayog—on 1 January 2015 with emphasis
on ‘bottom-up’ approach to envisage the vision of Maxi-
mum Governance, Minimum Government, echoing the
spirit of ‘cooperative federalism’.
• The 65-year-old Planning Commission had become
a redundant organization. It was important in a com-
mand economy structure.
Administration
• Chairperson: Prime Minister
• Vice-Chairperson: To be appointed by the Prime
Minister
• Governing Council: Chief Ministers of all states and
Lieutenant Governors of union territories
• Regional Council: To address specific regional issues,
comprising Chief Ministers and Lieutenant Governors
chaired by the Prime Minister or his/her nominee
• Ad hoc membership: Two members in ex officio
capacity from leading research institutions on a rota-
tional basis
• Ex officio membership: Maximum four from the
Union Council of Ministers to be nominated by the
Prime Minister
M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 42
Chapter 10
• Chief Executive Officer: Appointed by the Prime
Minister for a fixed tenure, in rank of Secretary to the
Government of India
• Special invitees: Experts and specialists with domain
knowledge nominated by the Prime Minister
NITI Aayog Hubs
• Team India Hub acts as an interface between states
and the Centre.
• Knowledge and Innovation Hub builds the think-
tank acumen of the NITI Aayog.
• Three planned documents:
1. Three-year action agenda
2. Seven-year medium-term strategy paper
3. Fifteen-year vision document
Objectives
• Cooperative federalism and decentralization with
more involvement of states (India is a diversified
country and its states are in various phases of
economic development along with their own
strengths and weaknesses; in this context, a ‘one-
size-fits-all’ approach to economic planning is
obsolete; it cannot make India competitive in today’s
global economy)
• To formulate credible plans at the village level and
aggregate these progressively at higher levels of
government
• To ensure national interests in economic strategy and
policy
• To provide advice and encourage partnerships
between key stakeholders and national and interna-
tional like-minded think-tanks, as well as educational
and policy research institutions
• To create a knowledge, innovation and entrepreneur-
ial support system
• To maintain a state-of-the-art resource centre, be a
repository of research on good governance and best
practices in sustainable and equitable development
The Future
• Planning should be decentralized.
• Bureaucratic inertia needs to be shaken.
• The NITI Aayog is basically an ‘agent of change’;
it could contribute to the government’s agenda of
improving governance and implementing innovative
measures for better delivery of public services.
• The NITI Aayog continues to be representative of
efficient, transparent, innovative and accountable
governance system in the country with distinguished
work ethics.
NITI Aayog ’ s I ndia Innovation Index
Karnataka has bagged the top rank in NITI Aayog’s India
Innovation Index, 2022, which determines innovation
capacities and ecosystems at the sub-national level.
Manipur secured the lead in the Northeast and Hill States
23/12/22 8:05 PM
 Higher Education System 10.43

category, while Chandigarh was the top performer in the Good Governance Day is observed on the birth anni-
Union Territories and City States category. India wants versary of former Prime Minister Shri Atal Bihari Vajpayee
to be named among the top 25 nations in the Global (25 December). It was observed for the first time in 2014.
Innovation Index. This can be achieved through the The Index takes 10 sectors into consideration for GGI
following measures. rankings—agriculture and allied, commerce and indus-
tries, human resource development, public health, public
1. Increasing Gross Domestic Expenditure on R&D
infrastructure and utilities, economic governance, social
(GDERD)
welfare and development, judicial and public security,
2. Promoting private sector participation in R&D
environment and citizen-centric governance. Performance
3. Closing the gap between industry demand and what
in these sectors is measured on the basis of 50 indicators.
the country produces through its education systems.
Tamil Nadu topped the GGI among 18 big states in the
I nnovation Index country as per the Index in December 2019.
The table lists the score and ranking of 17 major States Topping the class
Rank State
in the third edition of NITI Aayog's India Innovation Among 18 big states in the coun-
Index. Karnataka ranked first followed by Telangana 1. Tamil Nadu try, Tamil Nadu put up a good
and Haryana while Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Bihar were all-round show, lagging only in
ranked at the bottom of the index. 2. Maharashtra
‘commerce and industries.’
3. Karnataka
State Score Rank
4. Chhattisgarh Parameter-wise Ranking
Karnataka 18.01 1 among Big States
5. Andhra
Telangana 17.66 2 Pradesh Public infrastructure 1
Haryana 16.35 3 6. Gujarat Judicial and public 1
security
Maharashtra 16.06 4 7. Haryana
Public health 2
Tamil Nadu 15.69 5 8. Kerala
Environment 3
9. Madhya
State Score Rank Pradesh Human resource 5
development
M.P. 12.74 13 10. West Bengal
Economic governance 5
Gujarat 12.41 14 11. Telangana
Social welfare and 7
Bihar 11.58 15 12. Rajasthan development
Odisha 11.42 16 13. Punjab Agriculture and allied 9
Chhattisgarh 10.97 17 14. Odisha Commerce and industries 14
Source: TheHindu.com dated July 21, 2022. 15. Bihar
*Ranking on citizen-centric
16. Goa ­governance was not available.
G ood G overnance I ndex (GGI) 17. Uttar Pradesh
The GGI was released by the Union Ministry of Personnel, 18. Jharkhand
Public Grievances and Pensions.

M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 43 23/12/22 8:05 PM

 10.44 Chapter 10

A s s e s s Yo u r L e a r n i n g

ANCIENT EduCATION
1. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): According to Mark Twain - India is the
cradle of the human race, the birthplace of human
speech, the mother of history, the grandmother of
legend, and the great grandmother of tradition. Our
most valuable and most instructive materials in the
history of man are treasured up in India only.
Reason (R): Rishis chanted the pious mantras for
peace and progress in society, vedas also called as
shrutis created the ecosystem that was carried for-
ward to ancient universities, with the result that India
had created a great heritage and society.
In the context of above two statements, choose the cor-
rect option.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
2. Which of the following statements are true in context
of ancient education system in India?
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
4. Which of the following statements are correct in con-
text of our education system?
1. The knowledge was considered sacred, and no fee
was charged. All members of the society donated
or contributed certain things in one form or the
other to the education system.
2. Learners identified their duties and devotion
towards the ideal of ‘sommum bonum’ that indi-
cates the highest values and priorities. The human
soul was assumed as the material world.
3. Learners achieved ‘chitta vritti nirodha’ which is
the control of mental activities connected with
the concrete world.
4. There was no relation of knowledge with life.
5. The word ‘rta’ in vedic education has the dual
meanings of natural order and moral order.
codes:
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 3, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
5. If we look at the six main subject areas such as pho-
netics, ritualistic knowledge, grammar, exegetics,
metrics and astronomy, these are called
(a) Vedangas (b) Darshanas

1. During and after Rigveda period, our ancient edu- (c) Pitakas (d) Upanishads
cation system evolved for the holistic develop- 6. The ‘sutra’ period during ancient education was
ment of the individual. assumed to be equal to
2. The values of humility, truthfulness, discipline, (a) Vedic period
self-reliance and respect for all creations were (b) Upnishad period
created during ancient education system. (c) Bhakti period
3. The teaching and learning during ancient educa- (d) Poorva Mimansa
tion followed the path towards self, family and
society. 7. The question is linked with the three basic three
stages of education during ancient era.
codes:
Match List I with List II.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3 Stage - List 1 Brief description – List II
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 A. Sravana 1. Comprehension of truth
and applying into real
3. In which of the following periods can Indian philoso-
life
phy be ordered in a sequence?
(a) Vedic period, Upanishadic period and post-Vedic B. Manana 2. Thinking, analysing
period and assimilation of the
(b) Upanishadic period, Vedic period and post-Vedic texts heard
period C. Nididhyasana 3. Acquiring knowledge of
(c) Vedic period, post-Vedic period and Upanishadic ‘shrutis’ by listening
period
(d) No such history of sequencing is available.

M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 44 23/12/22 8:05 PM

 Higher Education System 10.45

Codes: C. Sadyodwahas 3. Women education, till

(a) A – 2, B – 1, C – 3 they get married
(b) A – 3, B -2, C – 1
(c) A – 1, B -2, C - 3 D. Brahmvadinis 4. Women studying
(d) A – 3, B – 1, C – 2 throughout life –
8. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer women sages were
from the codes given below. called as rishikas.

Type of Veda - List 1 Brief description – List II Codes:

A. Rig veda 1. The book of spell (a) A – 1, B – 2, C – 3, D – 4
– roughly secular in (b) A – 4, B – 3, C – 2, D – 1
character, that is linked (c) A – 4, B – 3, C – 1, D – 2
with various arts and (d) A – 2, B – 4, C – 3, D – 1
sciences 11. Which of the following is/are true in context of ancient
B. Sama veda 2. The book of ritual education?
– collection of prose (a) Karam Kanda – with focus of rituals, mainly be
mantras or yajurs – Brahmins
mainly done by hotris (b) Jnana Kanda – with focus on knowledge
who is assumed to (c) Aranyanka – a link between the Brahmanas and
be the first order of the Upanishads, meant for better understanding
priesthood. of vedic literature.
(d) All of the above
C. Yajurveda 3. The book of chant 12. Which among the following is considered to be the
– collection of verses – oldest Veda?
for liturgical purpose (a) Sam Veda
that is participation of (b) Yajur Veda
people in the work of (c) Rig Veda
God. (d) Atharva Veda
D. Atharava veda 4. The book of mantra 13. Which is known as book of melodies and chants?
– praise of God, and (a) Rigveda
meant for plain living (b) Samveda
and high thinking (c) Atharvaveda

A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
Codes: (d) Yajurveda
(a) A – 1, B – 2, C – 3, D - 4 14. Which of the following statements are true in context
(b) A – 4, B – 3, C – 2, D – 1 of ancient education system in India?
(c) A – 4, B – 3, C – 1, D -2 1. The Jataka tales and the records of Chinese schol-
(d) A – 2, B -4, C – 3, D -1 ars Xuan Zang and I-Qing showed us that kings and
9. Ayurveda, which deals with indigenous system of society took active interest in promoting education.
medicine, could be traced to [October 2020] 2. The universities at Takshashila, Nalanda, Valabhi,
(a) Rigveda Vikramshila, Odantapuri and Jagaddala devel-
(b) Yajurveda oped in connection with the viharas.
(c) Atharvaveda 3. The universities at Benaras, Navadeep and Kanchi
(d) Samaveda developed in connection with temples and
became centres of community life in the places
10. The stages of education in ancient system were for-
where they were situated.
mally systematised.
Codes:
Match List I with List II.
(a) 1 and 2
Stages of Education (b) 2 and 3
in Ancient India – Brief description – List II (c) 1, 2 and 3
List I (d) 1 and 3
A. Vidyarambha 1. The initial stage of 15. Which of the following aspects are important in context
starting the education of pupils who studied at ancient Takshashila (Taxila)
University?
B. Upanayana 2. Formal education – with 1. Panini, the legendary Indian grammarian and
sacred thread ceremony, who authored Ashtadhyayi
called as dvija that 2. Jivaka, one of the most renowned physicians in
means second birth. ancient India

M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 45 23/12/22 8:05 PM

 10.46 Chapter 10

3. Chanakya, also known as Kautilya, a skilled expo- 3. This university supported the Vajrayana sect thrived
nent of statecraft and authored Arthashastra here.
Codes: 4. This university was famous for Tantric teachings.
(a) 1 and 2 Codes:
(b) 2 and 3 (a) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 (c) 1 and 3
16. Which of the following are the important aspects of (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
the ancient Nalanda University? 21. Which of the following are the important aspects of
1. This university was a centre of learning from the Valabhi university?
5th century CE to 12th century CE. 1. This university was located in Bihar state.
2. This university is located in present day Rajgir, 2. This university was famous for Hinayana Buddhism.
Bihar, India, Nalanda. 3. Heun Tsang, a Chinese scholar, paid a visit to this
3. This university has declared as the World Heritage university.
site by UNESCO. Codes:
4. The new Nalanda University is envisaged as a cen-
tre of inter-civilisational dialogue. (a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
Codes: (c) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 22. Which among the following schools of Hindu Philoso-
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 phy is considered as anti-ascetic and anti-mysticist?
(d) 1 and 3 (a) Vaisheshika
17. Consider the following statements in context of (b) Nyaya
library of the university. Identify the university. (c) Mimansa
1. The library of the university was known as Dharma (d) Samkhya
Gunj (Mountain of Truth) or Dharmagañja 23. According to scholar Sukumar Dutt, a vihara or uni-
(Treasury of Truth), that was intimately linked versity was linked with Abbot (Adhyakṣa), six gate
with the Buddhist knowledge. protectors (Dvārapāla or Dvārapaṇḍita), Great Schol-
2. The collection at this library collection comprised ars (Mahapaṇḍita), Great Teachers (Upādhyāya or
of hundreds of thousands of volumes. Āchārya) and Resident monks (bhikṣu) to name a few.
3. The library had three main buildings as high as The university was
nine stories tall, Ratnasagara (Sea of Jewels), (a) Vikramashila University
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

Ratnodadhi (Ocean of Jewel) (b) Vallabhi University

(a) Vikramshila University (c) Benaras University
(b) Nalanda University (d) Nalanda University
(c) Odantapuri University
(d) Kanchi University 24. What are the ‘tripitakas’?
(a) The three signs of life
18. Which of the following university was visited by the (b) Triratnas of Mahavira
Chinese scholars I-Qing and Xuan Zang in the 7th (c) Collection of the preachings of Buddha
century CE? (d) The place of birth of Mahatma Budh
(a) Nalanda university
(b) Takshashilla University 25. Which of the following educational institution was set
(c) Benaras University up by Kalinga rulers?
(d) Kanchi University (a) Pushpagiri Vihara and Lalitagiri in Odisha
(b) Nalanda University in Bihar
19. At which of the following universities, Xuan Zang (c) Takshshila University in Pakistan
studied Yogashastra? (d) Vallabhi University in Gujarat
(a) Nalanda university
(b) Takshashilla University 26. Which of the following university was founded by
(c) Benaras University Kumargupta (also called as Shakraditya) in the 5th
(d) Kanchi University century A.D?
(a) Vikramshila University
20. Which of the following are the important aspects of (b) Nalanda University
Vikramshila university? (c) Kanchi University
1. This university was established by the King (d) Benaras University
Dharmapala of the Pala dynasty.
2. The university was manly based on Buddhist 27. Which of the following modes of admission was prev-
teachings. alent in Nalanda University in ancient times?

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 Higher Education System 10.47

(a) Entrance examination Which among the above were Buddhist Mahaviharas
(b) Interview or Viharas?
(c) Good academic credentials (a) Only 1 and 2
(d) Peer discussion (b) Only 2 and 3
28. How many students were studying in the Nalanda (c) Only 1 and 3
University as mentioned by Hiuen Tsang? (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 8,000 (b) 10,000 36. Assertion (A): During the Maurya empire, the Indian
(c) 12,000 (d) 15,000 culture and way of life were deeply influenced by
29. Which of the following Chinese travellers found a Buddhism.
flourishing Nalanda University as a Buddhist centre of Reason (R): Buddhism appealed to people of lower
learning which, by then, had a worldwide reputation, castes because it emphasized individuals’ path to
and had an entrance system for getting admission? enlightenment and salvation, which could be attained
(a) Hiuen-Tsang in this life.
(b) Fi-Hien In the context of above two statements, choose the
(c) I-Tsing correct option.
(d) None of the above
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true and
30. Which of the following statements is true about Tak- Reason (R) is a correct explanation of Assertion
shshila (Taxila) University? (A).
1. The university was a centre of its own kind which is (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true but
frequently referred to as a seat of higher learning in Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of Assertion
Buddhist literature. (A).
2. The university was a Brahmanic intellectual cen- (c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
tre as well. (d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
3. The university is now located in Pakistan; it was
within the capital of Gandhara kingdom. 37. Set I and Set II have been mentioned in the context of
4. It was in the native land of Panini. Buddhist Education.
Codes: Noble Truth - Set I Brief Explanation - Set II
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) All of the above A. Dukkha 1. It can be achieved by
following the Eight Fold
31. What Nalanda University was to east India, which of Path
the following universities was to west India?
(a) Takshashila (b) Vallabhi B. Samudya 2. Suffering could be

A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
(c) Odontopuri (d) Maithili extinguished.
32. Which of the following universities was famous for its C. Nirodha 3. Every suffering has a
specialized training on the subject of Tantric Buddhism? cause
(a) Vikramashila University D. Atthanga 4. Suffering is the essence
(b) Nalanda University Magga of the world.
(c) Takshshila University
(d) Odontopuri University
Codes:
33. The education at which of the following universities
was spread over three places of Nawadweep, Shan- (a) A – 1, B -3, C -2, D -4
tipur and Gopalpura? (b) A – 4, B -3, C -1, D -2
(a) Ujjain University (c) A – 4, B -3, C -2, D -1
(b) Nadia University (d) A – 1, B -2, C -3, D -4
(c) Jagaddala University 38. Which of the following aspects are true in context of
(d) Vikramshila University Buddhist Education?
34. Many books of which of the following universities 1. This education focused on three major points, dis-
were translated into Tibetan language? cipline, meditation and wisdom, with wisdom as
(a) Ujjain University the goal through discipline and meditation.
(b) Nadia University 2. The three about clear idea of life are Tipitaka
(c) Jagaddala University which are further categorised as Sutta pitaka,
(d) Vikramshila University Vinaya pitaka and Abhidhamma pitaka.
3. During initial stages of a learner, the medium of
35. Consider the following: education was mother tongue, later it were Pali
1. Vikramshila and Prakrit. Sanskrit were included in the system
2. Odantapuri at a later stage.
3. Sompapuri 4. This education could never get the support of kings.

M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 47 23/12/22 8:05 PM

 10.48 Chapter 10

Codes: Statement II: Shvetambaras literally means ‘white

(a) 2, 3 and 4 clad’ which assert that complete nudity is not impor-
(b) 3 and 4 tant for salvation.
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (a) Both statements 1 and II are true.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only statement I is true.
(c) Only statement II is true.
39. Which of the following statements are true? (d) Neither statement 1 nor statement II is true.
1. Buddha means the enlightened one.
2. The first Buddhist council was held at Sattapani 44. Statement I: Mostly present in the South India, an
cave Rajgriha. Agrahara was a bigger institution, a whole settlement
3. Gautam Buddha attained Mahaparinirvana at of learned Brahmins, with its own powers of govern-
Kushinagar. ment and was maintained by generous donations
from the society.
Codes:
Statement II: In South of India, a Ghatika was a centre
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 of learning including religion and was small in size.
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 (a) Only Statement I is true
40. Ashoka called the third buddhist council at which of (b) Only Statement II is true
the following places? (c) Both Statements I and II are true
(a) Magadha (b) Pataliputra (d) Neither Statement I nor Statement II is true
(c) Burma (d) Therevada 45. Which of the following terms is used for Jain Temples?
41. Match the SET I with SET II in context of Jain (a) Basadis (b) Viharas
Philosophy (c) Matha (d) Tols
Jain Philosophy Brief description - Set II 46. Match the following:
Tenets - Set I 1. Bengal A. Tols
2. Western India B.Pathshalas
A. Anekantavada 1. This is partial viewpoints 3. Bihar C. Chatuspadis
that means the system of
describing reality from Set 1 – Name of Set II – Name of
different points of view. Region Ancient Institution
B. Syadavada 2. The objects and situations A. Bengal 1. Tols
a conditional point of
view – all judgements are
B. Western India 2. Pathshalas
conditional, they depend
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

upon the situation. C. Bihar 3. Chatuspadis

C. Nayavada 3. Non – absolutism, the Codes:
objects have infinite
modes of existence, (a) A - 1, B - 2, C - 3 (b) A - 2, B - 1, C - 3
so only kevalins can (c) A - 3, B - 2, C - 1 (d) A - 1, B - 3, C – 2
comprehend all aspects of 47. Which of the following did not recognize the Vedas?
knowledge. (a) Buddhists (b) Jains
(c) Materialists (d) All of the above
Codes: 48. Prakrit languages are related to Sanskrit but it dif-
(a) A – 2, B – 1, C – 3 fers from Sanskrit in many ways. When the Prakrit
(b) A – 3, B – 2, C – 1 languages were formalized by literary use, their vari-
(c) A – 1, B – 2, C – 3 ations from the conventional Vedic languages came to
(d) A – 3, B – 1, C – 2 be known as
42. Samyag Darshana (Right faith), Samyag Jnana (Right (a) Apabhramsha (b) Pali
knowledge) and Samyag Charitra (Right conduct) are (c) Persian (d) Hindi
called as triratna. These are the three pillars of 49. Consider the following statements:
(a) Budhhism ‘It means “going out”. The students after being
(b) Jainism admitted to a monastery had to renounce all their
(c) Vedic Education worldly and family relationships. After admission into
(d) Upanishad “Sangh”, they could remain as a monk. The age limit
43. Consider the following statements in context of Jain fi xed for the ceremony was 8 years’.
system. Which ceremony is being referred through above
Statements I: Diagambaras literally means ‘sky clad’ statements?
which emphasize on nudity, as it is the absolute pre- (a) Pabbajja (b) Upasampada
requisite to attain salvation. (c) Upanayana (d) Janeu

M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 48 23/12/22 8:05 PM

 Higher Education System 10.49

50. Which of the following languages is termed the Codes:

most suitable language for the computer software as (a) 1—A, 2—C, 3—B, 4—D
reported in Forbes magazine? (b) 1—D, 2—B, 3—C, 4—A
(a) English (b) Japanese (c) 1—D, 2—C, 3—B, 4—A
(c) Sanskrit (d) Roman (d) 1—D, 2—C, 3—A, 4—B
51. India invented the number system. Who among the 56. Kindly look at the following forms of ancient education:
following invented the ‘zero’?
1. Para vidya: Supreme or highest knowledge for
(a) Aryabhatta (b) Bhaskaracharya
self-realization or knowledge of the supreme self
(c) Budhayana (d) Sushrutha
2. Apara vidya: The lowest knowledge of the four
52. Which of the following nations is the main source Vedas, six Vedangas, etc.
nation of algebra, trigonometry and calculus?
(a) Only 1 is correct.
(a) India (b) Rome
(b) Only 2 is correct.
(c) USA (d) China
(c) Both 1 and 2 are correct.
53. 8. In which of the following specific languages are the (d) Both 1 and 2 are incorrect.
canonical texts such as Tipitaka of Theravada Bud-
57. Identify the university with the help from following
dhism maintained?
statements.
(a) Hindi (b) Pali
(c) Sanskrit (d) Ardhamagadhi 1. One of the largest international universities of India.
2. It was made responsible for the administrative
54. Match the following:
affairs of Nalanda University, specifically under
1. Acharya A. Teaching as a profession for livelihood
Pala Kings.
2. Charakas B. Teachers famous for their profound
3. This was one of the largest Buddhist universities.
scholarship
4. Tantarism was the major branch of learning there.
3. Yaujanasatika C. Wandering scholars in quest for
5. This university is known to us through multiple
higher knowledge
Tibetan sources.
4. Upadhyaya D. No charging fee from the pupils
(a) Taxila University
Codes: (b) Vaishali University
(a) 1—D, 2—C, 3—B, 4—A (c) Vikramshila University
(b) 1—A, 2—C, 3—B, 4—D (d) Odontapuri University
(c) 1—D, 2—B, 3—C, 4—A 58. Which among the following is considered to be the
(d) 1—D, 2—C, 3—A, 4—B official law book of the Guptas?
55. Match the following: (a) Manusmriti
1. Gurukul   A. Buddhist monastery (b) Parashara Smriti

A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
2. Parishads   B. A national gathering (c) Yajnavalkya Smriti
3. Goshti   C. Discussions and discourses (d) Vyasa Smriti
4. Vihara   D. Teacher was a settled householder

Basics of Modern Education, Institutions of Higher Education

59. Match Set 1 with Set II in context of steps taken by D. Saddler 4. The education being
British Government in context of spread of Education University made an objective of
sector. Commission, British government - Rs
1917 - 1919 one lakh were allocated
Step Taken Set – I Brief description Set – II for the purpose.
A. Charter Act, 1. To look into the
1813 performance of Codes:
Calcutta University (a) A – 1, B – 3, C – 2, D – 4
B. The English 2. Vernacular education, (b) A – 4, B – 2, C – 3, D – 1
Education Act, to set up three (c) A – 4, B – 3, C – 1, D – 2
1835 universities in (d) A – 4, B – 3, C – 2, D – 1
Presidency towns. 60. It is said that the present higher education system
has its origin in Mountstuart Elphinstone’s minutes,
C. Wood’s 3. Macaulay’s minutes -
which stressed on the need for establishing schools
Dispatch, 1854 to establish the need
for teaching English and European sciences. This
to impart English
reported was presented in the year
education to Indian
(a) 1823 (b) 1835
‘natives’.
(c) 1858 (d) 1861

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 10.50 Chapter 10

61. Inter-University Board was set up in 1925 to promote 70. Which of the following modality of higher education
university activities, by sharing information and is the example of evolution in the post-independence
cooperation in the field of education, culture, sports India? [October 2020]
and allied areas. Now, it is known as (a) Teacher education
(a) Association of Indian Universities (b) Technical education
(b) Central Advisory Board of Education (c) Legal Education
(c) Central Board of Secondary Education (d) Distance Education
(d) None of the above 71. Tertiary education includes
62. Regarding Wood’s Dispatch, which of the following (a) Primary and secondary education
statements are true? [2018] (b) Higher education
(c) Vocational education and training
1. Grants-in-Aid system was introduced. (d) Both (b)and (c)
2. Establishment of universities was recommended.
3. English as a medium of instruction at all levels of 72. The main governing body at the tertiary level of edu-
education was recommended. cation in India is
(a) NCERT (b) CBSE
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (c) AICTE (d) UGC
(a) 1 and 2 only 73. The government established the University Grants
(b) 2 and 3 only Commission by an Act of Parliament in the year
(c) 1 and 3 only (a) 1980 (b) 1948
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1950 (d) 1956
63. Which of the following is a precursor to 10 + 2 + 3? 74. Which of the following is the regulator of higher
(a) Saddler Commission education?
(b) Wood’s Dispatch (a) NCERT (b) AICTE
(c) Kothari Commission (c) UGC (d) Ministry of Education
(d) None of the above
75. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as
64. Which of the following committee’s recommended Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R).
setting up UGC and is also known as the University
Education Commission? Assertion (A): For General Development Assistance,
(a) Radhakrishnan Commission the assistance will be provided to only Government
(b) Mudaliar Commission and Government aided private colleges included under
(c) Wardha Commission Section 2(f) and declared eligible to receive central
(d) Kothari Commission assistance under Section 12B of the UGC Act, 1956.
Reason (R): The development of colleges is pro-
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

65. Which of the following documents is termed the

Magna Carta of English education in India? foundly influenced by three objectives which are
(a) Charles Wood’s Dispatch Access, Equity and Expansion.
(b) Macaulay minutes In the context of above two statements, choose the
(c) Mountstuart Elphinstone’s minutes correct option.
(d) Wardha system (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
66. In which of the following years were Presidency Uni-
Assertion (A).
versities of Calcutta, Bombay and Madras set up fol-
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true
lowing the recommendations of Wood’s Dispatch?
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
(a) 1854 (b) 1857
Assertion (A).
(c) 1858 (d) 1861
(c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
67. The University of Allahabad was founded in the year (d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
(a) 1887 (b) 1901
76. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as
(c) 1905 (d) 1911
Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R).
68. Which of the following institutions was set up in 1945
Assertion (A): In 1952, the Union Government decided
to look after the functioning of three central universi-
that all cases pertaining to the allocation of grants-in-
ties of Aligarh, Banaras and Delhi?
aid from public funds to the Central Universities and
(a) University Grants Commission
other Universities and Institutions of higher learning
(b) University Grants Committee
might be referred to the University Grants Commission.
(c) Inter-University Board
(d) Association of Indian Universities Reason (R): There was University Education Com-
mission (1948) under the Chairmanship of Dr. S
69. The Report of the Central Advisory Board of Educa-
Radhakrishnan to suggest for the present and future
tion on Post-War Educational Development in India is
needs of the education sector. It recommended that
also termed
the University Grants Committee be reconstituted on
(a) Sargent Report (b) Nehru Report
the general model of the University Grants Commis-
(c) Wardha Report (d) None of the above
sion of the United Kingdom.

M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 50 23/12/22 8:05 PM

 Higher Education System
In the context of above two statements, choose the
correct option.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
77. Which of the following statements are true in context
of University Grants Committee?
1. This committee was formed in 1945 to oversee the
work of the three Central Universities of Aligarh,
Banaras and Delhi.
2. In 1947, the Committee was entrusted with the
responsibility of dealing with all the then existing
Universities.
3. In 1952, the grants-in-aid function to was referred
to University Grants Commission and this institu-
tion was formally inaugurated in 1953.
4. UGC became a statutory based organisation by an
Act of Parliament in 1956.
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
78. The idea of Four Pillars of Education was suggested by
(a) UNICEF (b) UGC
(c) NCTE (d) UNESCO
79. The name of the plan to increase enrolment in the
higher education institutions is
(a) Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA)
(b) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
80. Which of the following agencies put forward the con-
cept of proactive university?
(a) UNDP (b) UNESCO
(c) AICTE (d) UGC
81. ‘Destiny of India is being shaped in her classroom.’
This is stated in
(a) National Policy on Education (1986)
(b) National Knowledge Commission (2005)
(c) Education Commission (1964–66)
(d) University Education Commission (1948–49)
82. CHEER stands for
(a) Children Enrichment Education through Radio
(b) Child Health Education Electronic Recording
(c) Children for Engineers and Energy Requirement
(d) None of the above
83. Educational TV was first introduced in India in the
year
(a) 1961 (b) 1959
(c) 1968 (d) 1965
M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 51
10.51
84. Which of the following are indicators of external
accountability for an institution of higher Learning
 [October 2020]
(A) Provision for professional development of teachers.
(B) Utilization pattern of library and technical resources.
(C) Relevance of courses to the societal needs
(D) Performance of students in public examinations
(E) Employment pattern of pass-out students.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) A, B, C only
(b) B, C, D only
(c) C, D, E only
(d) D, E, A only
85. The UGC has the unique distinction of being the only
grant-giving agency in the country which has been
vested with the two responsibilities of providing funds
and that of coordination, determination and mainte-
nance of standards in institutions of higher education.
Which of the following points are included under
UGC mandate:
1. Promoting and coordinating university education.
2. Determining and maintaining standards of teach-
ing, examination and research in universities.
3. Framing regulations on minimum standards of
education.
4. Monitoring developments in the field of collegiate
and university education; disbursing grants to the
universities and colleges.
5. Serving as a vital link between the Union and state
governments and institutions of higher learning.
6. Advising the Central and State governments on
the measures necessary for improvement of uni-
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
versity education.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 6
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(d) All of the above
86. Which section of the UGC Act provides for the promo-
tion and coordination of university education and for
the maintenance of standards of teaching, examina-
tion and research?
(a) Section 12 (b) Section 15
(c) Section 25 (d) Section 28
87. Which of the following commission’s report is titled
Education and National Development report?
(a) Radhakrishnan Commission
(b) Kothari Commission
(c) Mudaliar Commission
(d) None of the above
88. National Committee on 10 + 2 + 3 education struc-
ture set up in 1972 was headed by
(a) Dr P. D. Shukla (b) Dr D. S. Kothari
(c) Dr Radhakrishnan (d) None of the above
89. The following commissions were set up by the gov-
ernment or its agencies after independence. Arrange
the following in chronological order (in terms of their
occurrence):
23/12/22 8:05 PM
 10.52
I. University Education Commission
II. Secondary Education Commission
III. Education Commission
Codes:
(a) III, II and I (b) II, I and III
(c) I, II and III (d) I, III and II
90. Consider the following statements.
1. India has a federal set up and education is the con-
current responsibility of both the centre as well as
the states.
2. After independence, the education (including
university education) was the responsibility of
the states, while the centre was given the function
of coordination and determination of standards.
3. Through 42nd amendment In 1976, the education
was put in the concurrent list of the constitution
where the centre was given the responsibilities
along with the states for all levels of education.
Codes:
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1 and 2
91. The committee set up by the Ministry of Human
Resource Development (now Ministry of Education)
which recommended autonomy of IITs was headed by
(a) Prof. Anil Kakodkar (b) Prof. Yashpal
(c) Sam Pitroda (d) None of the above
92. A committee was set up in 1990 to review NPE (1986).
Its report titled ‘Towards an Enlightened and Humane
Society’ stated that system of higher education
encourages memorization of facts and regurgitation
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
rather than creativity. The head of the committee was
(a) Acharya Ramamurti (b) Prof. Yashpal
(c) Prof. M. M. Joshi (d) None of the above
93. Which of the following committees recommended the
setting up of National Commission for Higher Educa-
tion and Research (NCHER) for prescribed standards
of academic quality and defining policies for advance-
ment of knowledge in higher educational institutions?
(a) Sam Pitroda Committee
(b) Prof. Yashpal Committee
(c) M. M. Sharma Committee
(d) Gnanam Committee
94. Consider the following statements.
1. Active learning, in which students move freely,
choosing their own work and the pace at which
it is being done. Teacher, if any, may just be a
facilitator.
2. There is Holistic development as it includes gen-
eralization of law, theory, rule and concept.
Cognitive, social and psychological development
of mind.
3. There should be a problem statement, partial
search and heuristic/ brainstorming methods
Which type of teaching is being reflected in the above
statements.
M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 52
Chapter 10
Codes:
(a) Conventional teaching
(b) Non-conventional teaching
(c) Oriental teaching
(d) Ancient teaching
95. Chairman of UGC Committee appointed in 1969 for
the purpose of administrative legislation of the uni-
versities was
(a) Dr D. S. Kothari (b) Dr P. B. Gajendragadkar
(c) Prof. Yashpal (d) None of the above
96. Which of the following personalities who headed
Knowledge Commission and headed the committee-
recommended setting up of 1500 universities so as
to achieve the target gross enrolment of 30%?
(a) Dr D. S. Kothari (b) Sam Pitroda
(c) Prof. Yashpal (d) None of the above
97. Which of the following percentage figures was
recommended by both Kothari Commission and
National Policy that should be spent on education
(1986)?
(a) 4% of GDP (b) 5% of GDP
(c) 6% of GDP (d) None of the above
98. Which of the following state has the maximum num-
ber of central universities?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Telangana
(d) Rajasthan
99. Which of the following institutions or organizations
publishes the Universities Handbook?
(a) University Grants Commission
(b) Association of Indian Universities
(c) Inter-University Centres
(d) Central Advisory Board of Education
100. In which year was the Association of Indian Universi-
ties (AIU) originally set up?
(a) 1925 (b) 1945
(c) 1953 (d) None of the above
101. Which of the following authorities is not empowered
to bring a university into existence?
(a) State government (b) Central government
(c) UGC (d) None of the above
102. How many universities were set up under the Cen-
tral Universities Act, 2009?
(a) 12 (b) 16
(c) 40 (d) 43
103. The term open learning represents approaches that
focus on [November 2021]
A. Opening access to education and training provision
B. Freeing learners from the constraints of time
and place
C. Learning and evaluation without a specified
curriculum
D. Offering flexible learning opportunities to indi-
viduals and groups of learners
E. Making students free from any educational loads
23/12/22 8:05 PM
 Higher Education System 10.53

Choose the correct answer from the options given 112. Institutes of National Importance is an institution in
below: higher education that serves as a pivotal player in
(a) A, B and C only developing highly skilled personnel within the spec-
(b) A B and D only ified region of the country or state. This status can be
(c) A, B and E only conferred on them by
(d) B, Cand D only (a) University Grants Commission
(b) An Act of Parliament
104. Universities having central campus for imparting
(c) All Indian Council for Technical Education
education are called
(d) All of the above
(a) Central universities
(b) Deemed universities 113. Commonwealth of Learning (CoL) is the only official
(c) Residential universities Commonwealth agency located outside Britain. It is
(d) Open universities located in
(a) New Delhi, India
105. An Institution established by Act of Parliament and
(b) Vancouver, Canada
funded by the Government of India and that include
(c) Sydney, Australia
all the IITs, NITs and AIIMs institutes, is called as
(d) Islamabad, Pakistan
(a) Institution of National Importance
(b) Deemed university 114. Which of the following measures have been sug-
(c) Meta university gested by UGC for capacity-building in cluster insti-
(d) Central university tutions of higher education for faculty so that they
can teach, train and research in multi-disciplinary
106. Which of the following are ‘deemed to be university?
academic programmes?
 [November 2021]
A. NCERT (a) Annual Refresher Programme in Teaching (ARPIT)
B. NIEPA (b) Learning assessment tools
C. Jamia Hamdard (c) both a and b
D.Jamia Millia Islamia (d) None of the above
E. IIT 115. EHEI stands for
Choose the correct answer from the options given (a) Equity in Higher Education Institutions
below: (b) Equity in Higher Education Index
(c) Equality in Higher Education Index
(a) A and B only
(d) Equity in Hidden Education Income
(b) B and C only
(c) C and D only 116. API stands for
(d) D and E only (a) Academic Parameter Indicator

107. Which of the following agencies provides funding to
Indira Gandhi National Open University?
(a) University Grants Commission
(b) Ministry of Education
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
108. The university that telecasts interactive educational
programmes through its own channel is
(a) Dr B. R. Ambedkar Open University, Hyderabad
(b) IGNOU
(c) University of Pune
(d) Annamalai University
109. Which of the following pairs of authorities are at the
top of hierarchy in the case of a central university?
(a) Visitors and Chancellor
(b) Visitors and Vice Chancellor
(c) Chancellor and Vice Chancellor
(d) Vice President and Vice Chancellor
110. The state with most universities is
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan (d) Uttar Pradesh
111. The state with most deemed universities is
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Maharashtra (d) Karnataka
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
(b) Academic Performance Indicator
(c) Academic Paid Instalment
(d) None of the above
117. National Literacy Mission was launched with the
approval of the Cabinet as an independent and
autonomous wing of the Ministry of Education (then
MHRD) in the year
(a) 1996 (b) 1988
(c) 1999 (d) 2000
118. The main aim of National Council for Teacher Edu-
cation is
(a) To open college of education
(b) To promote research in education
(c) To maintain standards in colleges of education
(d) To provide grant to colleges of education
119. National Council of Educational Research and Train-
ing was established in
(a) 1961 (b) 1962
(c) 1963 (d) 1964
120. Which of the following organizations set up the
National Assessment and Accreditation Council?
(a) AICTE
(b) UGC
(c) Ministry of Education
(d) All of the above

M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 53 23/12/22 8:05 PM

 10.54 Chapter 10

121. National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) 129. In which of the following years was ‘The National
is headquartered in Policy of Education’ revised and a ‘Programme of
(a) New Delhi (b) Mumbai Action’ also attached to it?
(c) Hyderabad (d) Bengaluru (a) 1968 (b) 1976
122. NUEPA is mainly concerned with (c) 1986 (d) 1992
(a) Educational supervision 130. Which of the following days is celebrated as National
(b) Educational unity Education Day?
(c) Educational planning (a) 5 September (b) 2 October
(d) Educational evaluation (c) 11 November (d) 14 November
123. Which of the following statements are correct about 131. In order to achieve the 12th Five-Year Plan’s Inclu-
a Central university? [Jun 2014] sive and Qualitative Expansion of Higher Education,
1. Central university is established under an Act of the number of proposed women universities is
Parliament. (a) 10 (b) 15
2. The President of India acts as the visitor of the (c) 20 (d) 30
University. 132. Apart from few short-term programmes, academic
3. The President has the power to nominate some staff colleges set up for teachers’ training basically offer
members to the Executive Committee or the (a) Subject-specific refresher courses
Board of Management of the university. (b) General orientation programmes
4. The President occasionally presides over the (c) Both (a) and (b)
meetings of the Executive Committee or court. (d) None of the above
Select the correct answer from the codes given
below. 133. Which of the following institutes is/are funded by
central government?
Codes: (a) National Institute of Foundry and Forge
(a) 1, 2, and 4 Technology, Ranchi
(b) 1, 3, and 4 (b) North Eastern Regional Institute of Science and
(c) 1, 2 and 3 Technology, Itanagar
(d) 2, 3 and 4 (c) Sant Longowal Institute of Engineering and
124. The number of representatives of central government Technology, Longowal, Punjab
in UGC is (d) All of the above
(a) 9 (b) 2 134. The first committee to be constituted after inde-
(c) 6 (d) 3 pendence by the Government of India on Women’s
125. Which of the following agencies or institutions set up education was
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

the Accreditation Board (AB)? (a) Dr. Radhakrishnan Commission

(a) Indian Council of Agricultural Research (b) The Mudaliar Commission
(b) All India Council for Technical Education (c) The Shri Sri Prakasa Committee
(c) University Grants Commission (d) Dr. Durgabai Deshmukh Committee
(d) Ministry of Education 135. Which article of the Constitution provides for the
126. Higher Education institutions go through a rigorous rights of minorities to establish and administer the
process to validate that they meet stringent educa- institutions of their choice?
tional standards. This is known as (a) Article 21(1) (b) Article 30(1)
(a) Accreditation (c) Article 32 (d) None of the above
(b) Evaluation 136. In which of the following years was National Com-
(c) Assessment mission for Minorities Educational Institutions
(d) Test Marketing (NCMI) set up?
127. The National Board of Accreditation (NBA) was set (a) 2001 (b) 2003
up in the year 1987 by (c) 2004 (d) 2005
(a) AICTE 137. Which of the following is a specialized agency of UN
(b) UGC to deal with copyright and other intellectual prop-
(c) Ministry of Education erty rights?
(d) IGNOU (a) WIPO (b) GATS
128. Which of the following types of institutions come (c) GATT (d) None of the above
under the ambit of National Board of Accreditation 138. Which of the following universities has been assigned
(NBA)? [October 2020] the status of central university in 2013?
(a) Teacher education institutions (a) Panjab University
(b) Technical institutions (b) Osmania University
(c) Agriculture institutions (c) Nalanda University
(d) Medical institutions (d) Indira Gandhi National Tribal University

M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 54 23/12/22 8:05 PM

 Higher Education System 10.55

139. Rashtriya Sanskrit Vidyapeetha is located in 145. Assertion (A): Oriental education became impor-
(a) Tirupati (b) Chennai tant to evolve a method by which our ancient knowl-
(c) Hyderabad (d) Jaipur edge and system can be maintained, revived and
140. Which of the following are the basic guidelines for preserved.
declaring a language as ‘Classical’? Reason (R): The term orient mostly refers to eastern
1. High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history cultures where the parents, indigenous places of wor-
over a period of 1500-2000 years; ship, and local pathshalas play an important role.
2. A body of ancient literature/texts, which is con- In the context of above two statements, choose the
sidered a valuable heritage by generations of correct option.
speakers;
3. The literary tradition be original and not bor- (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
rowed from another speech community; true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
4. The classical language and literature being dis- Assertion (A).
tinct from modern, there may also be a discon- (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true
tinuity between the classical language and its but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
later forms or its offshoots Assertion (A).
(a) 2, 3 and 4 (c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
(c) 1, 3 and 4 146. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer
(d) 1, 2 and 3 from the codes given below.
141. Which of the following languages was assigned the
status of classical language in 2013? List I List II
(a) Sanskrit (b) Tamil A. National Council of Rural I. New Delhi
(c) Hindi (d) Malayalam Institutes
142. Which of the following institutions have been given B. Indian Council of H
­ istorical II. Hyderabad
the Central status under the Central Sanskrit Uni- Research
versities Bill, 2019?
(a) Rashtriya Sanskrit Sansthan, New Delhi C. Indian Council of III. Shimla
(b) Shri Lal Bahadur Shastri Rashtriya Sanskrit Philosophical Research
Vidyapeeth, New Delhi D. Indian Institute of IV. Bengaluru
(c) Rashtriya Sanskrit Vidyapeeth in Tirupati. Advanced Study
(d) All of the above
Codes:

A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
143. Which of the following statements are correct about
classical status of languages in India? (a) A—II, B—IV, C—I and D—III
1. Currently there are six languages that enjoy the (b) A—II, B—IV, C—III and D—I
‘Classical’ status in India, with Tamil being the (c) A—II, B—III, C—IV and D—I
first one in 2004 and Odia being the last one in (d) A—II, B—I, C—IV and D—III
2014.
2. All the Classical Languages are listed in the 147. Match List I with List II [November 2021]
Eighth Schedule of the Constitution. List I List II
3. The Ministry of Culture provides the guidelines
regarding Classical languages. A. NIEPAI I. Promotion of quality in
4. Sanskrit is not the part of the classical languages technical education
list. B. NAAC II. To promote research in social
Codes: sciences
(a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 C. AICTE III. Planning and management
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3 of education
144. Choose the oriental learning institutes in India from D. ICSSR IV. Accreditation of higher
the following: [December 2019] educational institutions
A. Asiatic society
B. Madras Sanskrit College Choose the correct answer from the options given
C. Tezpur University below:
D.Mythic Society
(a) A – III, B -IV, C – II, D - I
Choose the correct option: (b) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D -I
(a) A, B and D only (b) A, B and C only (c) A – III, B- IV, C -I, D -II
(c) A, C and D only (d) B, C and D only (d) A – IV, B – II, C -I, D -III

M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 55 23/12/22 8:05 PM

 10.56 Chapter 10

148. The term open learning represents approaches that (a) Distance Education Council (DEC)
focus on [November 2021] (b) National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE)
A. Opening access to education and training provision (c) National Council of Educational Research and
B. Freeing learners from the constraints of time and Training (NCERT)
place (d) National Assessment and Accreditation Council
C. Learning and evaluation without a specified (NAAC)
curriculum 156. Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology is located in
D. Offering flexible learning opportunities to indi- (a) Hyderabad (b) Chennai
viduals and groups of learners (c) Bengaluru (d) Ahmedabad
E. Making students free from any educational loads 157. Which of the following regulatory bodies does not
Choose the correct answer from the options given enjoy statutory status as a professional body?
below: (a) Bar Council of India
(a) A, B and C only (b) A B and D only (b) All India Council for Technical Education
(c) A, B and E only (d) B, Cand D only (c) Medical Council of India
(d) None of the above
149. CBCS is [November 2021]
(a) Criteria Based Choice System 158. Under which of the following constitutional amend-
(b) Choice Based Credit System ments was education transferred to the Concurrent List?
(c) Criteria Based Creditable Scores (a) 42nd (b) 73rd
(d) Credit Based Choice Scores (c) 74
th
(d) 101st
150. CBCS provides an opportunity for students to choose 159. UGC gets its funding from
courses from: [November 2021] (a) Central government only
(b) State governments
A. Core courses (c) Both central and state governments
B. Environmental education (d) None of the above
C. Elective courses
D.Computer courses 160. Which of the following universities in India has the
E. Ability enhancement courses Prime Minister as its Chancellor?
(a) Indira Gandhi National Open University
Choose the correct answer from the options given (b) Visva-Bharati University
below: (c) Indian Maritime University
(a) A, B and C (b) B, C and D (d) Indian Defence University
(c) C, D and E (d) A, C and E 161. Faculty Improvement Programme of UGC aims at
#ntaugc-netimportantquestions

151. In CBCS, Ability Enhancement Courses are of two
kinds. They are:  [November 2021]
A. Ability Enhancement Compulsory Courses
B. Skill Enhancement Compulsory Courses
C. Ability Enhancement Elective Courses
D.Skill Enhancement Elective Courses
E. Skill Enhancement Courses
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) A and B only (b) A and C only
(c) A and D only (d) A and E only
152. Which of the following project(s) is/are funded by
external agencies?
(a) Technical Education Quality Improvement
Programme
(b) Technician Education Project
(c) Colombo Plan Staff College, Manila
(d) All of the above
153. The South Asian University is located at
(a) New Delhi (b) Jaipur
(c) Kathmandu (d) Islamabad
154. The Vikram Sarabhai Space Research Centre is
located at
(a) Thiruvananthapuram (b) Sriharikota
(c) Pune (d) Bengaluru
155. Which of the following Councils has been disbanded
in 2013?
(a) Appointing additional faculty
(b) Making faculty research oriented
(c) Improving physical infrastructure
(d) None of the above
162. Mahatma Gandhi Antarrashtriya Hindi Vishwavidy-
alaya is located at
(a) New Delhi (b) Jaipur
(c) Porbandar (d) Wardha
163. CABE was set up in the year
(a) 1925 (b) 1857
(c) 1956 (d) 1992
164. IGNOU was set up in the year
(a) 1985 (b) 1988
(c) 1991 (d) 1992
165. In June 2013, Distance Education Council was taken
over by newly established Distance Education Bureau
to govern the distance education programmes in
India. Distance Education Bureau was established by
(a) UGC (b) Ministry of Education
(c) AICTE (d) IGNOU
166. There was conflict of interest between UGC and
IGNOU. According to court order, IGNOU cannot
guide other universities for running their Open and
Distance Learning courses through its
(a) Distance Education Council
(b) Distance Education Bureau

M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 56 23/12/22 8:05 PM

 Higher Education System 10.57

(c) Distance Education Branch (c) Harvard Business School

(d) None of the above (d) Delhi University
167. The Ministry of Human Resource Development, that 175. Which of the following is a private university? 
existed before Ministry of Education was created in  [November 2021]
the year (a) Anna University
(a) 1972 (b) 1980 (b) BITS Pilani
(c) 1985 (d) 1991 (c) Burdwan University
168. Which of the following personalities was the first (d) IIIT
Chairman of UGC? 176. Universities with NAAC ‘A’ Grade and 10 years of
(a) Dr Shanti Swaroop Bhatnagar standing can get financial support from UGC for
(b) Dr Manmohan Singh innovative teaching or educational programmes;
(c) Shri Humayun Kabir these universities are known as
(d) Shri C. D. Deshmukh (a) Meta Universities
169. According to University Grants Commission (Mini- (b) Innovation universities
mum Standards and Procedure for Award of Ph.D. (c) Central universities
Degree) Regulations, 2022, which of the following (d) None of the above
statements apply in the context of PhD degree? 177. In which of the following countries did the Hum-
1. The students ideally with four years of degree boldtian Concept of University Education originate?
course will be allowed to do PhD. (a) USA (b) Poland
2. Ph.D. programme shall be for a minimum dura- (c) France (d) Germany
tion of two years excluding course work, and a 178. The major concept underlying distance education is
maximum of six years. (a) Continuing education
3. Extension beyond the above limits will not be (b) Simplicity
beyond more than the two years. (c) Cost-effectiveness
4. Women candidates may be allowed a relaxa- (d) Objectivity
tion of two years for a Ph.D. in the maximum 179. The course content of a professional degree empha-
duration. sizes on
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (a) Acquiring skills and practical analysis
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 3 (b) Theory and research
170. The first open university in India was (c) Building concepts
(a) Andhra Pradesh Open University (d) None of the above

#ntaugc-netimportantquestions
(b) Indira Gandhi National Open University 180. The number of universities at the time of independ-
(c) Delhi University ence Was
(d) None of the above (a) 15 (b) 20
171. The first university in India to start correspondence (c) 28 (d) 35
course was 181. Networking of libraries through electronic media is
(a) Andhra Pradesh Open University called
(b) IGNOU (a) Inflibnet (b) Libinfnet
(c) Delhi University (c) The internet (d) HTML
(d) None of the above 182. The first virtual university of India came up in
172. The National Knowledge Commission, a high-level (a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Maharashtra
advisory body to the Prime Minister of India, with (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Tamil Nadu
the objective of transforming India into a knowledge 183. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer
society was set up in the year from the codes given below.
(a) 2005 (b) 2006
(c) 2007 (d) 2008 List I List II
173. The concept of a countrywide network for higher A. Vikram Sarabhai I. Thiruvananthapuram
education that would allow students the flexibility Space Research
to design their own curriculum and combine sub- Centre
jects of their choice is basically of
(a) Innovation university B. Centre for Cellular II. Hyderabad
(b) Meta university and Molecular
(c) Central university Biology
(d) Deemed university C. Indian Space III. Bengaluru
174. The concept of Meta University was first pro- Research
pounded by Organization
(a) Massachusetts Institute of Technology D. The Energy and IV. New Delhi
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru University Resources Institute

M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 57 23/12/22 8:05 PM

 10.58
Codes:
(a) A—I, B—II, C—III and D—IV
(b) A—I, B—III, C—II and D—IV
(c) A—III, B—II, C—I and D—IV
(d) A—III, B—I, C—II and D—IV
184. In which year was the NBA set up?
(a) 1991 (b) 1994
(c) 2001 (d) 2005
185. What does NIRF stand for? [November 2021]
(a) National Institute of Ranking Federation
(b) National Institute of Ranking Framework
(c) National institutional Ranking Framework
(d) National Institutional Ranking Federation
186. Which of the following statements are true in context
of National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF)?
1. NIRF has five parameters - Teaching, learning
& Resources, Research & Professional Practice,
Graduation Outcome, Outreach & Inclusivity
And Perception.
2. NIRF was approved by the MHRD and was in
September 2015.
3. The first results were published in 2016 where
ranking is a six monthly affair.
4. Accreditation gives absolute grade, ranking is
relative to the other institutions similarly placed
in context of NIRF.
Codes:
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
187. Which of the institutions has shown the top rank in
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
the category of ‘overall’ institutions in NIRF – 2022
list?
(a) Indian Institute of Technology Madras, Chennai
(b) Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru
(c) Indian Institute of Technology Bombay, Mumbai
(d) Indian Institute of Technology Delhi, New Delhi
187. Which is the ranking of the three top colleges in a
sequence in the category of ‘colleges’ in NIRF – 2022
list?
(a) Miranda House (Delhi), Hindu College (Delhi),
Presidency College (Chennai)
(b) Miranda House (Delhi), Hindu College (Delhi),
Loyola College (Chennai)
(c) Hindu College (Delhi), Miranda House (Delhi),
Presidency College (Chennai)
(d) Hindu College (Delhi), Loyola College
(Chennai), Presidency College (Chennai)
189. Which is the ranking of the three top universities in
a sequence in the category of ‘universities’ in NIRF
– 2022 list?
(a) Indian Institute of Science (Bengaluru),
Jawaharlal Nehru University (New Delhi),
Jamia Millia Islamia, (New Delhi)
M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 58
Chapter 10
(b) Jadavpur University (Kolkata), Jawaharlal
Nehru University (New Delhi), Jamia Millia
Islamia, (New Delhi)
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru University (New Delhi),
Indian Institute of Science (Bengaluru),
Jadavpur University (Kolkata)
(d) Indian Institute of Science (Bengaluru), Jamia
Millia Islamia, (New Delhi), Jadavpur University
(Kolkata)
190. Which is the ranking of the top research institute in
NIRF – 2022 list?
(a) Indian Institute of Technology Madras, Chennai
(b) Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru
(c) Indian Institute of Technology Bombay, Mumbai
(d) Indian Institute of Technology Delhi, New Delhi
191. Which is the ranking of the top management insti-
tute in NIRF – 2022 list?
(a) Indian Institute of Management Ahmedabad
(b) Indian Institute of Management Bangalore
(c) Indian Institute of Management Calcutta
(d) Indian Institute of Technology, Delhi
192. India has been attracting only a fraction of interna-
tional students because of [November 2021]
A. Lack of residential accommodation for foreign
students
B. Difficulties in recognition of international
qualification
C. Rigid admission process
D. Lack of enthusiasm among teachers
E. Lack of enthusiasm among students
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below
(a) A and B only
(b) B and C only
(c) Cand D only
(d) D and E only
193. Aligarh Muslim University was set up in the year
(a) 1857 (b) 1875
(c) 1905 (d) 1916
194. SITE means
(a) Satellite Instructional Television Experiment
(b) Satellite Informational Television Experiment
(c) Satellite Instructional Telecom Experiment
(d) Satellite Informational Telecom Experiment
195. Name of the research station on Antarctica set up by
India is
(a) Dakshin Gangotri
(b) Dakshin Ganga
(c) Dakshin Godawari
(d) None of the above
196. The foundation training of selected IAS officers is
conducted at
(a) LBS National Academy of Public Administration,
Mussoorie
(b) MG Institute of Public Administration, Chandigarh
(c) UPSC, New Delhi
(d) All state capitals
23/12/22 8:05 PM
 Higher Education System 10.59

197. The main objective of ‘National Mission on Teachers (c) Inter-University Accelerator Centre (formerly
and Training’ is to improve Nuclear Science Centre)
(a) Students’ enrolment (d) None of the above
(b) Quality of teaching 205. Which of the following was the first private institu-
(c) Women education tion to be granted the status of a deemed university
(d) All of the above in 1976?
198. PACER is the acronym for (a) Manipal Academy of Higher Education
(a) Professionals Action Committee for Educational (b) Symbiosis Institute, Pune
Reforms (c) Thapar University, Patiala
(b) Professionals Accreditation Committee for (d) Amity University, Noida
Educational Reforms 206. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer
(c) Professionals Action Committee for Educational from the codes given below.
Research
(d) None of the above List I List II
199. Mahila Samakhya was born out of the New Edu-
cation Policy of 1986, which stressed the need for A. Chinmaya ­International I. Delhi
an intervention to create gender equality through Foundation
women’s education. It was launched in the year B. The Oriental ­Institute II. Baroda
(a) 1989 (b) 1992 C. Academy of S
­ anskrit III. Melkote
(c) 1996 (d) 1998 Research (Karnataka)
200. Who was the chairman of University Education
Commission set up in 1948? D. Rashtriya Veda Vidya IV. Ernakulum
(a) Dr S. Radhakrishnan Pratishthan
(b) Dr D. S. Kothari
(c) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad Codes:
(d) C. D. Deshmukh (a) A—IV, B—II, C—III and D—I
201. University Education Commission recommended the (b) A—II, B—IV, C—III and D—I
setting up of UGC on the lines of University Grants (c) A—II, B—III, C—IV and D—I
Commission of (d) A—II, B—I, C—IV and D—III
(a) USA 207. Match List I with List II [November 2021]
(b) Great Britain
(c) Germany List I List II

A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
(d) USSR A. Indian Institute of
I. Noida, UP
202. Which of the following agencies or institutions pro- Advanced Studies
posed introduction of India Education Index (IEI) B. Indian Biological Sciences
for ranking institutes based on academic, research, II. Shimla,HP
and Research Institute
performance and other parameters?
(a) AICTE C. Indian Institute of Social
III. Bhopal, MP
(b) NAAC Sciences
(c) UGC Indian Institute of IV. Lucknow, UP
(d) IIT Delhi D. Sugarcane Research
203. The largest university in the world in terms of stu-
dent enrolment is Choose the correct answer from the options given
(a) Beijing University, Beijing, China below:
(b) Dr B. R. Ambedkar University Open University, (a) A – II, B -I, C – III, D - IV
Hyderabad (b) A – III, B – IV, C – II, D -I
(c) Indira Gandhi National Open University, New (c) A – IV, B- III, C -II, D -I
Delhi (d) A – I, B – IV, C -II, D -III
(d) None of the above 208. Through which of the following constitutional
204. The first Inter-University Centre which was estab- amendments was Article 21A inserted in the Consti-
lished by UGC in 1984 is tution to provide for free and compulsory education
(a) Inter-University Accelerator Centre (Nuclear to all children of age group between 6 and 14 years
Science Centre) as a fundamental right?
(b) Inter-University Centre for Astronomy and (a) 73rd (b) 74th
Astro-Physics (IUCAA) (c) 86th (d) None of the above

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 10.60 Chapter 10

209. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer 217. The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Edu-
from the codes given below. cation Act, also popular as Right to Education Act
(RTE Act), was enacted in the year
List I List II (a) 2008 (b) 2009
(Institutions) (Locations) (c) 2010 (d) 2011
A. National Law Institute I. Shimla 218. Right to Education Act (RTE) makes it mandatory to
provide free and compulsory education for children
B. Indian Institute of age group between
II. Bhopal
Advanced Studies (a) 6 and 14 years
C. National Judicial Academy III. Hyderabad (b) 6 and 12 years
D. National Savings Institute IV. Nagpur (c) 8 and 14 years
(d) None of the above
Codes: 219. The Right to Education Act came into force in the year
(a) A—III, B—II, C—IV and D—I (a) 2008 (b) 2009
(b) A—I, B—II, C—III and D—IV (c) 2010 (d) None of the above
(c) A—IV, B—III, C—I and D—II 220. Which of the following articles of Constitution states
(d) A—III, B—I, C—II and D—IV that the offi cial language of the union shall be Hindi
210. Indian Institute of Mass Communication is located in in Devanagari script?
(a) Ahmedabad (a) 343(1) (b) 356
(b) New Delhi (c) 75 (d) 351
(c) Hyderabad 221. The first language to have been assigned the status
(d) Jaipur of classical language in 2004 is
211. Indian National Defence University (INDU), India’s (a) Tamil (b) Sanskrit
first defence university, which was inaugurated on (c) Kannada (d) Malayalam
May 2013, is proposed to be located at 222. Odia has been assigned the status of classical lan-
(a) Rohtak guage in February 2014. With this, the number of
(b) Pune classical languages in India is
(c) Hyderabad (a) Three (b) Four
(d) Gurgaon (c) Five (d) Six
212. The Ministry of Education includes 223. Ninety-third Constitution Amendment Bill seeks
(a) Department of Elementary Education and (a) To grant statehood to Uttaranchal
Literacy (b) To make elementary education compulsory
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

(b) Department of Secondary Education and Higher
Education
(c) Department of Women and Child Development
(d) All of the above
213. The language which enjoys special status in Article
351 of the Constitution of India as the primary
source language for the development of the official
standard of Hindi is
(a) Sanskrit (b) Tamil
(c) Bhojpuri (d) Maithili
214. Which of the following is the official language(s) as
per Indian Constitution?
(a) Hindi
(b) English
(c) Hindi with English as an additional language
(d) No official language
215. The national language of India is
(a) Hindi
(b) English
(c) Both English and Hindi
(d) There is no national language
216. Which of the following High Courts gave the ruling
that India has no national language?
(a) Mumbai (b) Gujarat
(c) Lucknow (d) Patna
(c) To make army service mandatory
(d) None of the above
224. Which of the following parts of the Indian Constitution
enjoins upon the state to provide free and compulsory
education for children up to 14 years of age?
(a) Directive Principles of State Policy
(b) Fundamental rights
(c) Fundamental Duties
(d) Special provisions related to certain classes
225. Which statutory body of a University has the power
to accord formal approval to the programmes and
courses of studies? [October 2020]
(a) Senate
(b) Syndicate
(c) Academic Council
(d) Board of Studies
226. The education imported through institutions of
higher learning in India such as ‘Sanskrit Vidyapith’
is an example of [October 2020]
(a) Non-conventional learning Programmes
(b) Value Education Programmes
(c) Oriental learning Programmes
(d) Professional education programmes

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 Higher Education System 10.61

227. List I gives stages of development of values while List In the light of the above statements, choose the most
II their outcomes [October 2020] appropriate answer from the options given below
Match List I with List II (a) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct
(b) Both Statement l and Statement l are correct
List I (c) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(Stage of development List II (Outcomes) (d) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
of values
229. Statement I : The vice-chancellor of a University is an
A. Stage I I. Value Collection executive head who is vested with administrative as
through invitation well as academic responsibilities.
B. Stage II II. Inner evaluation Statement II: For a charismatic leadership attribute in
a vice chancellor both transactional as well as trans-
C. Stage III III. Value consolidation formational leadership competencies are needed.
D. Stage IV IV. Value clarification In the light of the above statements, choose the cor-
rect answer from the options given below:
Choose the correct answer from the options given (a) Both Statement I and Statement I are true
below. (b) Both Statement I and Statement I are false
(a) A – II, B - III, C – I, D - IV (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
(b) A – I, B – II, C – IV, D -III (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement I is true
(c) A – IV, B- I, C -III, D - II 230 Global Citizenship Education promotes
(d) A – III, B – IV, C -II, D -I  [November 2021]
228. Given below are two statements [November 2021] (a) Common international laws for global citizenship
Statement I: Policy action and implementation plans (b) Issues pertaining to citizenship across countries
require sound database systems at the regional level involving VISA
only. (c) International public relations
(d) More peaceful, tolerant, inclusive, secure and sus-
Statement II: The statistical system should ensure its
tainable societies
impeccability with data architecture, security, quality,
cleaning integration.

More Questions on New Education Policy

231. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as 2. This will replace 10+2 School Curricula with

A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G
Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R). 5+3+3+4 curricular structure.
Assertion (A): The National Education Policy, 2020 3. This policy aims to raise Gross Enrolment Ratio
envisions an education system rooted in Indian ethos in higher education from current 26.3% to 50 %
that contributes directly to transforming India, that by 2035.
is Bharat, sustainably into an equitable and vibrant 4. This policy is likely to increase the public invest-
knowledge society, by providing high-quality educa- ment in Education sector to 6% of GDP from cur-
tion to all, and thereby making India a global knowl- rent 4.6 percent.
edge superpower. (a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
Reason (R): The implementation of previous poli-
(c) Both 1 and 2
cies on education has focused largely on issues of
(d) All of the above
access and equity.
233. To translate this particular vision of NEP-2020, under
In the context of above two statements, choose the
the ‘Atmanirbhar Bharat’ programme, which of the
correct option.
following statements are linked to?
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of 1. National Initiative for Proficiency
Assertion (A). 2. NIPUN—Bharat
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true 3. The learning needs of nearly five crore children in
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of the age group of 3 to 11 years are to be achieved.
Assertion (A). 4. The mission is to take a holistic approach that
(c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false. includes all stakeholders.
(d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true. Codes:
232. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct in (a) 1, 2 and 3
context of New Education Policy (NEP), 2020? (b) 2 and 3
1. The recommendations of this NEP were made by (c) Both 1 and 2
former ISRO chief K Kasturirangan. (d) All of the above

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 10.62 Chapter 10

234. By which of the following year, the minimum degree 242. Which of the following statements of New Education
qualification for teaching is going to be a 4-year inte- Policy, 2020 are to be implemented for universalisa-
grated B. Ed degree? tion of education from pre-school to secondary level?
(a) 2021 (b) 2025 (a) 100 per cent Gross Enrolment Ratio in school
(c) 2028 (d) 2030 education by 2030
235. Which of the following agency is likely to be created (b) 50% Gross Enrolment Ratio in higher education
as an apex body for fostering a strong research cul- to 50 per cent by 2025.
ture and building research capacity across higher (c) Both a and b
education as per NEP 2020? (d) None of the above
(a) National Commission Foundation 243. A per NEP 2020, National Assessment Centre, PAR-
(b) HigherEducation Agency AKH will be set up as a standard-setting body. What
(c) National Research Foundation does letter ‘R’ stand for in PARAKH?
(d) Higher Education Commission (a) Revise
236. Which of the following agencies aims to use artifi- (b) Rational
cial Intelligence to make learning more personalized (c) Review
and customized as per the learner’s requirement (d) Revival
that even proposes to create national alliance with 244. What does letter ‘P’ stand for in NPST that finds men-
EdTech companies for a better learning experience? tion in NEP 2020?
(a) National Testing Agency (a) Primary
(b) National Testing Portal (b) Professional
(c) National Educational Alliance for Technology (c) Public
(d) National Educational Association for Technology (d) Probation
237. Which of the following agency regarding multiple 245. Which of the following number of new seats will be
entry and exit options in UG stream as per New Edu- added to Higher education institutions?
cation Policy, 2020 is not correctly matched? (a) 2.1 Crore
(a) Certificate after 1 year (b) 2.5 Crore
(b) Advanced Diploma after 2 years (c) 3.2 Crore
(c) Bachelor’s Degree after 3 years (d) 3.5 Crore
(d) Bachelor’s with Research after 5 years 246. Higher Education Commission of India (HECI) that
238 As per NEP 2020, teaching upto at least what grade will act as a single overarching umbrella body the for
to be in mother tongue/ regional language? entire higher education does not include which edu-
(a) Grade 3 cation sectors?
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

(b) Grade 5 (a) Medical and Legal education

(c) Grade 8 (b) Engineering and Management
(d) Grade 10 (c) Legal education and Engineering
239. National Curricular and Pedagogical Framework for (d) Management and Medical
Early Childhood Care and Education (NCPFECCE) 247. In how many years affiliation of colleges is to be
for children up to the age of 8 will be developed by phased out?
which organisation? (a) 10
(a) NITI Ayog (b) 12
(b) NCERT (c) 15
(c) AICTE (d) 20
(d) NCTE 248. Which of the following is the full form of NMM?
240. National Committee for the Integration of Voca- (a) National Mission for Mentoring
tional Education (NCIVE) will be set as per NEW (b) National Maritime Museum
Education Policy, 2020. Vocational education will (c) New Multidisciplinary Mission
start inschools from the which grade that will also (d) Net Market Makers
include internships? 249. In order to transform the regulatory system of
(a) Grade 3 Higher Education, the NEP proposes to set up HECI
(b) Grade 4 (Higher Education Commission of India). Which of
(c) Grade 5 the following are verticals of HECI?
(d) Grade 6  [November 2021]
241. Which of the following agency will develop National A. NHERC
Curricular Framework for School Education (NCFSE) B. NAS
2020–21? C. HEGC
(a) NCERT (b) AICTE D.NCIVE
(c) IITs and NITs (d) NCTE E. NAC

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 Higher Education System 10.63

Choose the correct answer from the options given synchronisation with New Education Policy
below: (NEP-2020).
(a) A, B and C only 3. Under HECI, all the courses approved by UGC,
(b) B, C and E only AICTE and NCTE shall be mapped for their
(c) A, C and E only equivalence under National Higher Education
(d) C, D and E only Qualification Framework (NHEQF) which
250. As per UGC sources, which of the following state- would make academic mobility smoother, both
ments are correct in context of Higher Education vertically and laterally.
Commission of India (HECI)? Codes:
1. UGC, AICTE and National Council of Teacher (a) 1 and 3
Education are to be merged to form HECI. (b) 2 and 3
2. HECI will work for autonomy and multidisci- (c) 1 and 2
plinary approach to education. This will be in (d) 1, 2 and 3

A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

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 10.64 Chapter 10

Answer Keys

Ancient Education
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (a)
11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (d)
21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (c) 25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (d)
31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (d) 36. (a) 37. (c) 38. (d) 39. (c) 40. (b)
41. (b) 42. (b) 43. (a) 44. (c) 45. (a) 46. (a) 47. (d) 48. (a) 49. (a) 50. (c)
51. (a) 52. (a) 53. (b) 54. (a) 55. (d) 56. (c) 57. (c) 58. (c)
Basics of Modern Education, Institutions of Higher Education
59. (d) 60. (a) 61. (a) 62. (a) 63. (a) 64. (a) 65. (a) 66. (b) 67. (a) 68. (b)
69. (a) 70. (d) 71. (d) 72. (d) 73. (d) 74. (c) 75. (a) 76. (a) 77. (d) 78. (d)
79. (a) 80. (b) 81. (c) 82. (a) 83. (c) 84. (c) 85. (d) 86. (a) 87. (b) 88. (a)
89. (c) 90. (b) 91. (a) 92. (a) 93. (b) 94. (b) 95. (b) 96. (b) 97. (c) 98. (a)
99. (b) 100. (a) 101. (c) 102. (b) 103. (b) 104. (b) 105. (a) 106. (b) 107. (b) 108. (b)
109. (a) 110. (c) 111. (a) 112. (b) 113. (b) 114. (c) 115. (b) 116. (b) 117. (b) 118. (c)
119. (a) 120. (b) 121. (d) 122. (c) 123. (c) 124. (b) 125. (a) 126. (a) 127. (a) 128. (b)
129. (d) 130. (c) 131. (c) 132. (c) 133. (d) 134. (d) 135. (b) 136. (c) 137. (a) 138. (c)
139. (a) 140. (b) 141. (d) 142. (d) 143. (d) 144. (a) 145. (a) 146. (a) 147. (c) 148. (b)
149. (b) 150. (d) 151. (d) 152. (b) 153. (a) 154. (a) 155. (a) 156. (a) 157. (d) 158. (a)
159. (a) 160. (b) 161. (b) 162. (d) 163. (a) 164. (a) 165. (a) 166. (a) 167. (c) 168. (a)
169. (a) 170. (a) 171. (c) 172. (a) 173. (a) 174. (a) 175. (b) 176. (b) 177. (d) 178. (a)
179. (a) 180. (b) 181. (a) 182. (b) 183. (a) 184. (b) 185. (c) 186. (c) 187. (a) 188. (a)
189. (a) 190. (b) 191. (a) 192. (a) 193. (b) 194. (a) 195. (a) 196. (a) 197. (b) 198. (a)
199. (a) 200. (a) 201. (b) 202. (b) 203. (c) 204. (c) 205. (a) 206. (a) 207. (a) 208. (c)
209. (d) 210. (b) 211. (d) 212. (d) 213. (a) 214. (c) 215. (d) 216. (b) 217. (b) 218. (a)
219. (c) 220. (d) 221. (a) 222. (d) 223. (b) 224. (a) 225. (c) 226. (c) 227. (b) 228. (a)
229. (a) 230. (d)
More Questions on New Education Policy
A S S E S S YO U R L E A R N I N G

231. (a) 232. (d) 233. (d) 234. (d) 235. (c) 236. (c) 237. (d) 238. (b) 239. (b) 240. (d)
241. (a) 242. (c) 243. (c) 244. (b) 245. (d) 246. (a) 247. (c) 248. (d) 249. (c) 250. (d)

M10_MADAN 07_65901_C10.indd 64 23/12/22 8:05 PM

 MOCK TEST

1. Consider the following statements in the context of Select your answer from the options given below:
curriculum? (1) (a)–(i); (b)–(iii); (c)–(ii); (d)–(iv)
Assertion (A): Curriculum is a complete plan for (2) (a)–(ii); (b)–(iv); (c)–(i); (d)–(iii)
implementation of educational aims. (3) (a)–(iii); (b)–(i); (c)–(ii); (d)–(iv)
Reason (R): Curriculum is the sum total of curricu- (4) (a)–(iii); (b)–(ii); (c)–(iv); (d)–(i)
lum core and syllabus. 5. In which of Collaborative Learning Approaches,
Codes: skills such as generation of ideas and creativity are
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct developed?
explanation of (A). (a) Brainstorming
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the (b) Task group
correct explanation of (A). (c) Inquiry group
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is false. (d) Tutorial group
(d) (A) is false but (R) is correct. 6. The researcher manipulates two or more independent
2. Which of the following learning objectives are true in variables (factors) simultaneously to observe their
the context of constructivist perspective? effects on the dependent variable. This design allows
(a) A concept has to be an integral whole and for the testing of two or more hypotheses in a single
thus, cannot be divided into different levels of project. This is called as:
learning. (a) Randomized Block Design
(b) Learning is a divergent process that occurs (b) Factorial Design
through various exposures. (c) Non-Randomized Design
(c) Learning objectives are contextual in nature. (d) Quasi-experimental Research
(d) Learning is a multidimensional process. 7. Consider the following statements:
Codes: 1. This step is probably the most critical part of the
(a) Only 1, 2, and 3 planning process.
(b) Only 2, 3, and 4 2. These stated research questions provide the basis
(c) Only 1, 3, and 4 for design and data analysis.
(d) All of the above. 3. This step guides the researcher’s decision as to
3. The ultimate objective of any teaching-learning process go for an experimental design or some other
is: orientation.
(a) To develop a flexible curriculum setting system. These three statements reflect which of the
(b) To help learners learn to become autonomous following?
learners. (a) Literature survey
(c) To equip learners with degrees and diplomas. (b) Research design
(d) To help learners find any job in the organizations. (c) Hypotheses
4. Below given are two columns. Column–A lists meth- (d) Deciding about research topic.
ods of teaching and Column–B lists the focus of a 8. During research process, which of the following
method. type/s of error/s is/are associated with biasedness?
(a) Sampling Error.
Column–A Column–B (b) Non-sampling Error.
MOCK TEST
(a) Lecture method (i) Dynamic, proactive (c) Both (a) and (b).
method of teaching (d) Cannot be ascertained at all.
(b) Demonstration (ii) Experience-based 9. The important pre-requisites of a research in sciences,
method learning social sciences, and humanities are:
(c) Heuristic method (iii) Imparting large (a) Laboratory skills, records, supervisor, and topic.
amount of knowledge (b) Supervisor, topic, critical analysis, and patience.
(d) Differentiated (iv) The student has to (c) Archives, supervisor, topic, and flexibility in
instruction solve own problem by thinking.
unaided efforts (d) Topic, supervisor, good temperament, and pre-
conceived notions.

Z01_MADAN 07_65901_Mock Test.indd 1 23/12/22 4:38 PM

 M.2 MOCK TEST

10. The final result of a research study will be more accu-
rate if the sample drawn is:
(a) Taken randomly
(b) Fixed by quota
(c) Representative of population
(d) Purposive
Read the following passage carefully and answer
the following questions:
China does not have free elections. It has reality tel-
evision instead. The latest such show even has the
flavour of a political contest: the competitors are all
high-ranking officials. It has been a big hit.
Since May the programme ‘Sights of Shanxi’ has
been airing live every Friday on a channel in the north-
ern province of that time. In the show, local cities bid
to play host to a tourism development conference.
The contestants have to tell four judges why there
city is such a great place, in front of a studio audi-
ence of 100 people and a panel of experts. The judges
grill the contestants who advance or fall according to
votes cast by the audience in the studio, the judges,
and internet users.
What makes this special is that for the first time
local bigwigs are not just speaking in public, which
is rare enough, but competing against one another
and being judged by ordinary folk, which is unheard
of. One tourism official from Shanxi told a newspa-
per that ‘in the past all we had to do was hand in a
report, but because it is on TV, the process now had
to be taken more ­seriously.’
Top officials have to be involved. Of the eleven con-
testants, three are municipal communist party bosses,
five are city mayors, and three are vice mayors.
For most of them, it has been their first experience
to live cameras. They have taken to it like natural. The
mayor of Yangquan city learnt a bit of English to spice
up his bid. ‘Seeing is believing’, he said. ‘The open and
inclusive Yangquan people welcome you to come.’
The party chief of Yucheng suffered a slipped disc,
but soldiered on, rehearsing her speech flat on her
back. The Deputy Mayor of Linfen handed out virtual
reality glasses to the judges as part of his pitch and it
worked, he won his round.
Viewers love seeing judges take officials to task,
‘you would do better to tell us just one or two things
instead of so many that we forget them’ said one
MOCK TEST
some reality hosts will, one day, make the great leap
into nationwide politics, perhaps even running for
Presidency.
11. According to the passage which of the following state-
ments is/are false?
(a) The party chief of Yucheng participated in one of
the shows with a slipped disc.
(b) The traditional occupation of the people of Shanxi
province is coal mining.
(c) Presidential elections in China are held through
reality television.
Codes:
(a) Only (A)and( B)
(b) Only (B) and (C)
(c) Only (A) and (C)
(d) All (A), (B), and(C)
12. According to the author, what is/are the reason(s) for
launching such a TV show on Shanxi?
(A) The government intends to ensure that its officials
are on their toes all the time.
(B) The government intends to curb corruption in
Shanxi province.
(C) The government intends to develop the region’s
struggling economy.
Codes:
(a) Only A and B
(b) Only B and C
(c) Only A and C
(d) A, B, and C
13. According to the author, how have the bigwigs of
Shanxi reacted to this TV show?
(a) They have refused to appear on the show.
(b) They have taken this challenge head-on.
(c) They have staged protests, as such a show gives a
lot of power to the masses.
(d) They have punished the judges by grilling them
on Live cameras.
14. Which of the following is a suitable title for the
passage?
(a) Sights of Shanghai.
(b) The communist style of functioning.
(c) Tourism in Shanxi.
(d) A Development strategy for Shanxi.
15. Which of the following is the central idea of passage?
(a) The style of Chinese Governance has changed
over the past few years.

judge. ‘What did you mean by your slogan?’ asked (b) Use of innovative governance to promote and
another. ‘I did not get it.’ develop tourism in the Shanxi province.
(c) The Shanxi province is currently in a very bad
So far 8.3 million people have voted online. The
shape economically.
government itself is partly responsible for the show’s
(d) ‘Sights of Shanxi’ is the first reality show on televi-
success and has good reason to be encouraging the
sion in China.
people. Shanxi’s economy has been struggling;
tourism is its favoured way of diversifying away 16. Which of the following terms is closely
from its traditional coal mining business. In other related to feedback?
words, appealing to an audience actually helps its (a) Brainstorming (b) Heuristics
broader aims. Perhaps, the idea will catch on and (c) Cybernetics (d) None of the above.

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 MOCK TEST M.3

17. Which of the following can be termed as the ‘context’ (c) 9.09 per cent
of communication? (d) No decrease or increase in percentage terms.
(a) An interference with message reception. 26. Statements:
(b) Effective communication. I. Some mangoes are not red.
(c) Verbal and non-verbal responses to messages. II. All red are raw.
(d) A physical and psychological environment for III. Some raw are mangoes.
conversation. Conclusions:
18. A person is more likely to use eye contact while: I. Some mangoes are not raw.
(a) Listening II. Some red are not mangoes.
(b) Uninterested in communication. III. All raw are red.
(c) Speaking (a) Only Conclusion I follows
(d) Interpreting (b) Only Conclusions II and III follow
19. Which of the following can help the most in enhanc- (c) Only Conclusions I and III follow
ing the effectiveness of active listening? (d) No conclusion follows
(a) Developing apathy with the sender. 27. Amongst the following propositions, two are related
(b) Developing a system to minimize the noise in the in such a way that they cannot both be true, but
area. can be false. Select the code that states those two
(c) Paying attention to the body language of the propositions.
sender. Propositions:
(d) Developing empathy with the communicator. (a) Every student is attentive.
20. The main assumption of ‘primacy effect’ in the process (b) Some students are attentive.
of communication is: (c) Students are never attentive.
(a) The most important piece of information is always (d) Some students are not attentive.
that comes first. Codes:
(b) The most important piece of information comes in (a) (i) and (ii)
the last. (b) (i) and (iii)
(c) The degree of importance depends upon the (c) (ii) and (iii)
situation. (d) (iii) and (iv)
(d) All pieces of information carry the same weight. 28. Which of the following statements are correct?
21. Complete the series: (a) When the form of an argument is correct, it is
139 135 128 116 97? called a valid argument.
(a) 63 (b) 66 (b) While evaluating an argument, one must consider
(c) 69 (d) 80 both the form and content.
22. A sum of money is to be divided amongst P, Q, and R (c) A sound argument is an argument where the form
in the ratio 2:3:7. If the total share of P and Q together is valid and the content part is also true.
is ` 1500 less than that of R, what is the share of P? (d) Good inductive arguments are said to be induc-
(a) ` 1500 (b) ` 1750 tively strong.
(c) ` 2000 (d) ` 2500 (a) 1, 2, and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4,
(c) 1, 3, and 4 (d) All of the above.
23. In a certain code language, ‘TOASTER’ is written as 29. Consider the following statement:
‘VQCRRCP’ and ‘RODENTS’ is written as ‘TQFDLRQ’. ‘I made low grades on my first tests in the subjects of
How will ‘PHANTOM’ be written in that code Math and Hindi. I must really be dumb.’
language?
(a) RJCMVQO (b) NFYORMK Which kind of fallacy is being committed in this
(c) RJCMRMK (d) NFYOVQO statement?
(a) Fallacy of converse accident.
24. P and Q are sisters, and R and S are brothers. P’s (b) Fallacy of ad populum.
daughter is R’s sister. What is Q’s relation to S? (c) The fallacy of false cause.
MOCK TEST
(a) Mother (d) The fallacy of ad ignorantiam.
(b) Grandmother
(c) Sister 30. Which of the following system of logic that forms one
(d) Aunt of the six principal schools of Hindu philosophy, and
in a wider sense it denotes Buddhist and Jaina logic as
25. When water is frozen to ice, its volume increases by well?
10 per cent. What is the decrease in percentage terms (a) Nyaya school
when it melts to water? (b) Mimamsa school
(a) 10.11 per cent (c) Yoga school
(b) 4 per cent (d) Sankhya school

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 M.4 MOCK TEST

Direction for Questions 31–35: Study the following table 39. A small picture that represents either a program or a
to answer the questions. shortcut on a computer screen is:
(a) A pointer (b) A logo
Item of Interest (c) A graphics (d) An icon
Expenditure/ Fuel and on
Year Salary Transport Bonus Loans Taxes 40. ADSL is a data communication technology that ena-
bles faster data transmission over telephone lines.
1998 288 98 3.00 23.4 83 ADSL stands for:
1999 342 112 2.52 32.5 108 (a) Accelerated Digital Subscriber Line.
(b) Accelerated Digitized Subscriber Line.
2000 324 101 3.84 41.6 74
(c) Analogous Digital Subscriber Line.
2001 336 133 3.38 36.4 88 (d) Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line.
2002 420 142 3.96 49.4 98 41. The two most common types of biofuels presently in
use are:
31. The ratio between the total expenditure on taxes for all (a) Ethanol and biodiesel.
the years and the total expenditure on Fuel and Trans- (b) Ethanol and biopetrol.
port for all the years, respectively, is approximately: (c) Methanol and biodiesel.
(a) 4:7 (b) 10:13 (d) Methanol and biopetrol.
(c) 15:18 (d) 5:8 42. Which of the following is not a raw material for the
32. The total expenditure of the Company over these production of biogas?
items during the year 2000 is: (a) Water hyacinth (b) Coal
(a) ` 544.44 Lakhs (b) ` 501.11 Lakhs (c) Algae (d) Grass
(c) ` 446.46 Lakhs (d) ` 478.87 Lakhs 43. Which of the following sources primarily causes Mer-
33. What is the average amount of interest per year which cury pollution?
the Company had to pay during this period? (a) CFL lamps (b) Aviation sector
(a) ` 32.43 lakhs (b) ` 33.72 lakhs (c) Polymers (d) Diesel engines
(c) ` 34.18 lakhs (d) ` 36.66 lakhs 44. The meaning of ‘Carbon Footprint’ is described by the
34. Total expenditure on all these items in 1998 was amount of:
approximately what per cent of the total expenditure (a) Carbon dioxide released into the atmosphere as a
in 2002? result of the activities of a particular individual,
(a) 62 per cent (b) 66 per cent organization, or community.
(c) 69 per cent (d) 71 per cent (b) Greenhouse gases emitted by industries contrib-
uting to global warming.
35. The total amount of bonus paid by the Company dur-
(c) Carbon emissions released by the burning of jet
ing the given period is approximately what per cent of
fuel.
the total amount of salary paid during this period?
(d) Increase in the carbon content of the atmosphere
(a) 0.1 per cent (b) 0.5 per cent
due to the felling of trees.
(c) 1 per cent (d) 1.25 per cent
45. Union Health Ministry launched National Strategic
36. A chat program that allows people to communicate
Plan for Malaria Elimination under which malaria
over the Internet in real time is called as:
will be ultimately eliminated from the country by the
(a) Distant Messaging
year:
(b) Instant Messaging
(a) 2030 (b) 2022
(c) Chatting room
(c) 2032 (d) 2025
(d) All of the above.
46. ‘Good Governance Index’ was released by the Minis-
37. Which of the following organizations have signed a
try of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions, on the
pact in February 2018 to integrate a course on ‘Digital
occasion of Good Governance Day on 25 December
Citizenship and Safety’ in Information and Technol-
2019. Which of the following states have achieved the
MOCK TEST

ogy curriculum?
first rank?
(a) NCERT and Google.
(a) Punjab (b) Kerala
(b) UGC and Google.
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) Goa
(c) NCERT and Microsoft.
(d) UGC and Microsoft. 47. Which of the following statements are true about
RUSA?
38. Which of the following dignitaries is the author of
(a) RUSA is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme launched
title ‘Exam Warriors’?
in 2013.
(a) Narender Modi (b) Ram Nath Kovind
(b) The aim of RUSA was to increase enrolment in
(c) Pranab Mukherji (d) Shashi Tharoor
higher education by 30 per cent.

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 MOCK TEST M.5

(c) RUSA primarily provides strategic funding to eli- (b) NIRF – Ranking of higher educational institutions
gible State higher educational institutions. across the world.
(d) All of the above. (c) GIAN – To attract the best foreign academics to
48. The first university in India to start correspondence Indian Universities of Excellence.
course was: (d) SWAYAM – Web portal to make MOOCs on all
(a) Andhra Pradesh Open University kinds of subjects.
(b) IGNOU 50. Which of the following is not provided in the
(c) Delhi University constitution?
(d) None of the above. (a) Election Commission
49. Which of the following statements are not matched (b) Finance Commission
correctly in the case of higher education? (c) NITI Ayog
(a) IMPRINT INDIA – Pan IIT and IISc joint initiative (d) University Grant Commission
for research to solve major engineering and tech-
nology challenges in select domains in India.

MOCK TEST

Answer Keys
1. (a)  2. (d)   3. (b)   4. (a) 5. (a)  6. (b)  7. (c)  8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (a)
21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (d) 25. (c) 26. (d) 27. (b)  28. (d) 29. (a) 30. (a)
31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (d) 34. (c) 35. (c) 36. (b) 37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (d) 40. (d)
41. (a) 42. (b) 43. (a) 44. (a) 45. (a) 46. (c) 47. (d) 48. (c) 49. (b) 50. (c)

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 M.6 MOCK TEST

Solution
5. (a): Alex Osborn developed the original approach
of brainstorming. He published it in his 1953 book,
‘Applied Imagination.’ Since then, researchers have
made many improvements to his original technique.
Brainstorming combines a relaxed, informal approach
to problem solving with lateral thinking. It encour-
ages people to come up with thoughts and ideas that
can, at first, seem a bit crazy. Some of these ideas can
be crafted into original, creative solutions to a prob-
lem, while others can spark even more ideas.
8. (c): Biasedness is associated with sampling and non-
sampling errors.
9. (b): These skills are generalized ones.
10. (c): The final results depend upon the analysis of data
that depends upon the quality of sampling. For accu-
racy of results, samples should be representative of
population.
16. (c): Cybernetics is closely related to the concept of
automatic control and also with physiology, particu-
larly the physiology of the nervous system. A ‘control-
ler’ might be the human brain, which receives signals
from a ‘monitor’ (the eyes) regarding the distance
between a reaching hand and an object to be picked
up. The information sent by the monitor to the con-
troller is called feedback, and on the basis of this feed-
back the controller might issue instructions to bring
the observed behaviour (the reaching of the hand)
closer to the desired behaviour (the picking up of
the object). It is used in computer sciences and other
areas as well.
21. (c): 139 – 4 = 135
135 – 7 (=4 + 3) = 128
128 – 12 (=7 + 5) = 116
116 – 19 (=12 +7) = 97
97 – 28 (=19+9) = 69
22. (a):
Assume that desired ratio is 2x, 3x, and 7x.
According to question:
7x – (2x + 3x) = ` 1500
Thus, x = ` 750 and share of P = 2 × 750 = ` 1500
23. (c):
T O A S T E R blended petrol. Ethanol and biodiesel represent the
+2 +2 +2 –1 –2 –2 –2
MOCK TEST
24. (d):
P and Q are sisters.
R and S are sons of P.
Therefore, Q is aunt of S.
25. (c): Required percentage = (10 /110) × 100 = 100/11
= 9.09 per cent
26. (d):
First statement is particular negative (O-Type)
Second Statement is Universal Affirmative (A –Type)
Third Statement is Particular Affirmative (I-Type)
Now,
All red are raw
Some raw are mangoes
A + I = No conclusion
So (d) is the right answer.
27. (b): We need to take help of ‘Square of opposition’.
As per definition in question statement, we need to
look at ‘contrary statements’, which should be univer-
sal positive (A) and universal negative (E). Thus, (b) is
the right answer.
31. (b): R  equired Ratio = (83 + 108 + 74 + 88 + 98)/(98
+ 112 + 101 + 133 + 142)
= 451/586 ≈ 1/1.3 = 10/13
33. (d): Average amount of interest paid by the company
during the given period
= ` [(23.4 + 32.5 + 41.6 + 36.4 + 49.4)/5] lakhs
= ` (183.3/5) lakhs = ` 36.66 lakhs.
34. (c): Required percentage
= [(288 + 98 + 3.00 + 23.4 + 83)/(420 + 142 +
3.96 + 49.4 + 98)] × 100 per cent
= (495.4/713.36 × 100) per cent ≈ 69.45 per cent
35. (c): Required percentage
= [(3.00 + 2.52 + 3.84 + 3.68 + 3.96)/(288 + 342
+ 324 + 336 + 420)] × 100 per cent
= (17/1710 × 100) per cent = 1 per cent
40. (d): ADSL is a type of Digital Subscriber Line technol-
ogy that enables faster data transmission over copper
telephone lines rather than a conventional voiceband
Modem can provide.
41. (a): Ethanol is blended with petrol that is also called
first generation of biofuel technology.

V Q C R R C P 43 (a): CFLs, like all fluorescent lamps, contain mercury

as a vapor inside the glass. Mercury (Hg) is a heavy
R O D E N T S metal that exists in several forms. Human contact
+2 +2 +2 –1 –2 –2 –2 with mercury, in any form, can produce toxic effects
if the dose is high enough.
T Q F D L R Q
50. (c): NITI Ayog was set up on 1 January 2015. It
Therefore,
replaced Planning Commission that was an extra con-
stitutional body that was not defined in the Constitu-
P H A N T O M tion of India.
+2 +2 +2 –1 –2 –2 –2
R J C M R M K

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 Previous Years’ Papers

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 NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 December 2019

INSTRUCTIONS To NTA-NET ASPIRANTS

Time Allowed: 1 hour  50 × 2 = 100 Marks

1. This paper consists of Fifty (50) objective type questions of Two (2) marks each.
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. Each item has four alternative responses marked (a), (b), (c), and (d). You have to darken the circle as indicated below
on the correct response against each item.
Example: a b c d where (c) is the correct response.
4. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Sheet given at the end of the book.
5. Read instructions provided with each question carefully.
6. There are no negative marks for incorrect answers.

Data Interpretation 3. In which of the following years was the total produc-
The following table presents the data on the number of tion of all the three types of vehicles 60,000?
vehicles of three different types (A, B, and C) produced (a) 2013
by a company during seven different years, that is, from (b) 2014
2012 to 2018. Based on the data in the table, answer the (c) 2015
questions from 1 to 5. (d) 2016
Year-wise Production of Three Types of Vehicles 4. The number of A type vehicles produced in the year
2014 was what per cent of the number of C type vehi-
Vehicle cles produced in the year 2016?
(a) ~33.33 per cent (b) ~66.67 per cent
A Type B Type C Type (c) 50 per cent (d) 15 per cent
Year
5. What has been the percentage increase of B Type vehi-
cles in the year 2017 over 2016 ?
2012 5000 20,000 15,000 (a) 10 per cent (b) 5 per cent
2013 15,000 10,000 22,500 (c) 20 per cent (d) 25 per cent
2014 10,000 15,000 30,000 6. Choose the person who has control over self, mode of
communication, and method of delivery in classroom
2015 17,500 15,000 23,000 from the following:
2016 25,000 20,000 15,000 (a) Student (b) Teacher
(c) Audience (d) Visitor
2017 13,000 25,000 20,000
7. Given below are two statements—one is labelled as
2018 30,000 35,000 25,000 Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
1. In how many years was the production of A type vehi- Assertion (A): Skill development is a key feature in
every individual’s life.
cles less than its average production over the given
years? Reason (R): An individual, who wants to get
employed, needs to possess good education only.
(a) 2 (b) 4
(c) 3 (d) 1 In the context of the above statements, choose the
correct option.
2. What was the average number of B type vehicles pro- (a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the ­correct
duced by the company over the years? explanation of (A).
(a) 20,000 (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the cor-
(b) 25,000 rect explanation of (A).
(c) 15,000 (c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) 30,000 (d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Z02_MADAN 07_65901_Z02.indd 3 23/12/22 4:39 PM

 Z.4
8. Which amongst the following is not the outcome of
grounded theory research?
(a) Concepts (b) Narratives
(c) Categories (d) Hypotheses
9. Given below are two statements—one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Government of India established
higher educational statutory bodies to ensure the
quality of education.
Reason (R): There are some educational institutions
in India that do not provide quality education.
In the context of the above statements, choose the
correct option.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the cor-
rect explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
10. Match List I with List II.
List I List II
(Digital Initative) (Purpose)
(a) UMANG   (i) G2B services
(b) BHIM (ii) Learning platform
(c) eBiz (iii) Unified Payment Interface
(d) SWAYAM (iv) Single point of access to
all government services.
Choose the correct option.
(a) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(b) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(c) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(d) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
11. Identify the correct statements from the following.
  (i) Sampling-related error is subsumed under the
category non-sampling error.
(ii) Sampling error does not occur in multistage clus-
ter sampling.
(iii)Inaccurate sampling frame and non-response are
examples of sampling-related error.
(iv) There is an inverse relation between heterogene-
ity of population and sampling error.
Choose the correct option.
(a) (i) and (iii) only (b) (i) and (iv) only
(c) (ii) and (iv) only (d) (ii) and (iii) only
12. How many national parks and wildlife sanctuaries
were there in India till March 2011?
(a) 8 and 421 only. (b) 10 and 75 only.
(c) 75 and 421 only. (d) 102 and 515 only.
13. Which amongst the following is NOT a component of
effective teaching?
(a) Questioning to check for the understanding of
students.
(b) Providing students with feedback.
(c) Being flexible about how long it takes to learn.
(d) Reactive mode of student’s behaviour.
Z02_MADAN 07_65901_Z02.indd 4
NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 December 2019
14. Which amongst the following factors does not
­contribute to assessment bias?
(a) When language of the test and the tester is
­different from the languages of the students.
(b) Answers that support middle class values.
(c) Its assessment procedures are flexible and diverse
to make disadvantaged students comfortable.
(d) Objective test for assessing abstract reasoning of
the student.
15. Choose two factors that do NOT affect the ­academic
performance of students adversely.
  (i) Low self-efficacy belief.
(ii) Belief in God.
(iii)Indifferent attitude towards politics.
(iv) Teacher’s low expectation from students.
Choose the correct option.
(a) (i) and (ii) only (b) (ii) and (iii) only
(c) (iii) and (iv) only (d) (ii) and (iv) only
16. By selling 70 pencils for `90, a person makes a loss
of 25 per cent. How many pencils should be sold for
`234 to gain a profit of 30 per cent?
(a) 95 (b) 100
(c) 105 (d) 110
17. Which of the following sequence represents the cor-
rect order of soil particles arranged in terms of parti-
cle size from the smallest to the largest?
(a) Gravel, Silt, Clay, and Sand.
(b) Silt, Clay, Gravel, and Sand.
(c) Clay, Silt, Sand, and Gravel.
(d) Silt, Clay, Sand, and Gravel.
18. Given below is a question followed by three
­statements. Identify the statements that are necessary
to answer the question.
Question: What is the percentage profit gained by a
vendor when he sells an article?
Statements:
  (i) He gives a 10 per cent discount on the marked
price.
(ii) He would have earned 25 per cent profit if he did
not give any discount.
(iii)The cost price of the article is `8000.
Choose the correct option.
(a) (i) and (ii) only
(b) (ii) and (iii) only
(c) (i) and (iii) only
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
19. Devdatta is fat and he does not eat during the day.
Therefore, Devdatta is eating during the night.
The above example in classical Indian school of logic
is a case of:
(a) Comparison (b) Implication
(c) Perception (d) Verbal testimony
20. In Social Sciences, a central issue is the question of
whether the social world can be studied using the
methods of natural sciences. This statement refers to
the issue of:
(a) Ontology (b) Axiology
(c) Epistemology (d) Etymology
23/12/22 4:39 PM
 NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 December 2019 Z.5

21. Out of a total of 10 students, the average weight 27. Match List I with List II.
of nine students is 60 kg. If the weight of the 10th
­student is nine kg more than the average weight of all List I List II
the 10 students, then the weight of the 10th ­student (a) Ontology   (i) Ideographic
would be:
(a) 61 kg (b) 69 kg (b) Epistemology (ii) Realism
(c) 70 kg (d) 71 kg
(c) Methodology (iii) Survey
22. Which of the following sets of letters would complete
the letters series, when they are placed sequentially? (d) Method (iv) Positivism
bb ___ b ___ ab ___ cbba ___ bcbb ___
(a) a c b a c (b) a c b b b Choose the correct option.
(c) c b b b a (d) a b b b c (a) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
(b) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
23. Identify the factors that do not contribute to the effec- (c) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
tiveness of teaching from the options given below. (d) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
  (i) Socioeconomic background of teacher.
(ii) Teacher’s skill in pleasing the students. 28. Consider the following statements with reference to
(iii)Teacher’s subject knowledge. the proposition ‘Some girls are not students’.
(iv) Teacher’s personal contact with students.   (i) Subject term students are distributed.
(ii) Predicate term girls are undistributed.
Choose the correct option.
(iii)Predicate term students are distributed.
(a) (i), (iii), and (iv)
(iv) Subject term girls are undistributed.
(b) (ii), (iii), and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii), and (iii) Choose the correct option.
(d) (i), (ii), and (iv) (a) Only (i) and (iii) are correct.
(b) Only (ii) and (iii) are correct.
24. Of the following options, select the advantage of feed- (c) Only (i) and (iv) are correct.
back in the process of communication. (d) Only (iii) and (iv) are correct.
(a) It is beneficial in understanding of the subject
matter. 29. Match List I with List II.
(b) It diagnoses the defects in receiver. List I List II
(c) It clarifies the communication. (Soil Order) (Description)
(d) It explores the defects in receiver.
25. Given below are two statements—one is labelled as (a) Histosols   (i) Soil order that includes soils
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). formed on volcanic ash
Assertion (A): A blog is a form of social media. (b) Andisols (ii) Soil order of cold regions
Reason (R): A blog allows anyone to communicate to including soils underlain by
a public audience. permafrost
In the light of the above statements, choose the cor-
rect option. (c) Gelisols (iii) Soil order consisting of soils of
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct dry climates
explanation of (A). (d) Aridisols (iv) Soil order consisting of soils
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is not the cor- with a thick upper layer of
rect explanation of (A). organic matter
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true. Choose the correct option.
26. Which of the following statements are true about a (a) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
fuel cell? (b) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
  (i) It is a device that uses electrochemical ­reactions (c) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii),(d)-(iv)
to produce electric current. (d) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(ii) It consists of a positive electrode and a n
­ egative 30. From the following, select the alternative features
electrode separated by an electrolyte. which make open universities as non-traditional
(iii)Just like batteries, it needs to be recharged with universities.
an electric current.
  (i) Innovative method of teaching and learning.
Choose the correct option from those given below.
(ii) Innovative method of admission, curriculum, and
(a) (i) and (ii) only
evaluation.
(b) (ii) and (iii) only
(c) (i) and (iii) only (iii)Modern communication techniques.
(d) (i), (ii), and (iii) (iv) Teacher’s friendly approaches.

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 Z.6 NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 December 2019

Choose the correct option. 36. Which of the following was not a Millennium Devel-
(a) (ii), (iii), and (iv) only opment Goals (MDG)?
(b) (i), (ii), and (iii) only (a) Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger.
(c) (i), (iii), and (iv) only (b) Improve maternal health.
(d) (i), (ii), and (iv) only (c) Ensure healthy lives and promote well-being for
31. Select the option that lists components for a cyber- all at all ages.
space address (URL) in the correct order from begin- (d) Ensure environmental sustainability.
ning to end. 37. Regarding e-governance, which of the following
(a) Protocol, domain name of the host, and path or file. statements is/are correct?
(b) Path or file, protocol, and domain name of the   (i) Decreasing transparency is an ICT enabled advan-
host. tage of e-governance.
(c) Protocol, path or file, and domain name of the host. (ii) E-governance is related to the implementation of
(d) Domain name of the host, protocol, and path ICT in the government processes and functions.
or file. (iii)Common Service Centres (CSCs) help in provid-
ing and using e-governance related services.
32. Match List I with List II. Choose the correct option.
List I List II (a) (i), (ii), and (iii)
(Historic Places) (Discipline) (b) (ii) and (iii) only
(c) (i) and (iii) only
(a) Taxila   (i) Astronomy (d) (i) and (ii) only
(b) Ujjain (ii) Buddhism 38. Which one of the following is signified by Udāharan.a
of Anumāna (inference) in Indian logic?
(c) Sarnath (iii) Art, Architecture and (a) Statement of reason.
Painting (b) Proposition to be proved.
(d) Ajanta (iv) Medicine (c) Conclusion proved.
(d) Universal proposition along with an instance.
Choose the correct option. 39. Which one of the following propositions is c­ ontrary to
(a) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) ‘All poets are dreamers’?
(b) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii) (a) Some poets are dreamers.
(c) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) (b) Some poets are not dreamers.
(d) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) (c) No poets are dreamers.
(d) No dreamers are poets.
33. In what ratio must a vendor mix two varieties of sugar
40. Which amongst the following is NOT related to quali-
worth `60 per kg and `78 per kg so that, by selling the
tative research?
mixture at `76.8 per kg, the vendor gains 20 per cent?
(a) Thematic analysis (b) Case study
(a) 7:4 (b) 7:2 (c) Discourse analysis (d) Survey method
(c) 5:3 (d) 5:2
41. As per the classical square of opposition, if ‘A’
34. Arrange the steps of research in the sequence in which ­proposition is given as true, then which one of the fol-
they are presented in the thesis. lowing is correct?
(a) Discussion, review of literature, result, c­ onceptual (a) ‘E’ proposition is false, ‘I’ proposition is true, and
framework, and problem. ‘O’ proposition is false.
(b) Review of literature, problem, conceptual frame- (b) ‘E’ proposition is true, ‘I’ proposition is true, and
work, result, and discussion. ‘O’ proposition is true.
(c) Problem, review of literature, conceptual frame- (c) ‘E’ proposition is false, ‘I’ proposition is false, and
work, result, and discussion. ‘O’ proposition is true.
(d) Problem, review of literature, conceptual frame- (d) ‘E’ proposition is true, ‘I’ proposition is false, and
work, discussion, and result. ‘O’ proposition is false.
35. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 42. Select the period in which India became a centre of
(i) Software is loaded into secondary storage from higher learning.
RAM and then it is executed by the CPU. (a) Gupta period (b) Buddha period
(ii) A search engine is a software system that is (c) Mughal period (d) British period
designed to search for information on the World
Wide Web. 43. Given below are two statements—one is labelled
Choose the correct option. as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
(a) Only (i) Reason (R).
(b) Only (ii) Assertion (A): Through online teaching, a large
(c) Both (i) and (ii) number of students can be taught by a very compe-
tent faculty.
(d) Neither (i) nor (ii)

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 NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 December 2019 Z.7

Reason (R): Online teaching helps students in devel- understanding, and knowledge that can help all the peo-
oping critical thinking more than the offline teaching ple of the world, including the most disadvantaged mem-
can do. bers of the world population. A comprehensive rejection
In the light of the above statements, choose the cor- of globalization can thus be powerfully counterproduc-
rect option. tive. There is a strong need to separate out the different
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct questions that appear merged in the rhetoric of the anti-
explanation of (A). globalization protests. The globalization of knowledge
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the cor- deserves particularly high profile recognition, despite all
rect explanation of (A). the good things that can be rightly said about the impor-
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false. tance of ‘local knowledge’.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true. Globalization is often seen in both journalistic dis-
44. Match List I with List II. cussions and in remarkably many academic writings, as
a process of Westernization. Indeed, some who take an
List I List II upbeat view of the phenomenon even sees it as a contri-
(Values) (Distinguishing Functions) bution of Western civilisation to the world.
(a) Sacrifice   (i) Working in a stipulated 46. According to the passage, which one of the following
time is not a well-defined concept?
(a) Multiculturalism (b) Identity
(b) Sincerity (ii) Confinement of individual (c) Globalization (d) Local knowledge
mind on action 47. As per the passage, a wholesale rejection of
(c) Self-control (iii) Showing love and affection ­globalization would result in affecting:
  (i) Global businesses
(d) Altruism (iv) Helping without selfish (ii) Movement of ideas.
motives (iii)Local knowledge systems.
Choose the correct option. Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
(a) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(a) (i) and (ii) only (b) (i) and (iii) only
(b) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(c) (iii) and (ii) only (d) (i), (ii), and (iii)
(c) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(d) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv) 48. According to the passage, which one of the following
is counterproductive?
45. Which of the following groups has the components of (a) Comprehensive support to globalization.
paralanguage communication? (b) Wholesale rejection of globalization.
(a) Voice, emphasis, and impression. (c) Comprehensive rejection of anti-globalization
(b) Social space, voice, and impression. protests.
(c) Voice, social space, and expression. (d) Recognition of local knowledge systems.
(d) Emphasis, social space, and voice.
49. The attempt of the author in the passage is:
Comprehension: (a) Unconditioned advocacy of globalization.
Read the following passage and answer the questions (b) Unconditioned rejection of globalization.
from 46 to 50. (c) Unconditioned rejection of local knowledge
Even though globalization is one of the most d
­ iscussed systems.
topics in the contemporary world, it is not altogether a (d) Unbiased evaluation of globalization.
well-defined concept. A multitude of global interactions 50. According to the passage, globalization is often per-
are put under the broad heading of globalization, vary- ceived by media and academia as:
ing from the expansion of cultural and scientific influ- (a) Supporting local knowledge systems.
ences across borders to the enlargement of economic (b) Detrimental to local knowledge systems.
and business relations throughout the world. A whole- (c) A process of Westernization.
sale rejection of globalization would not only go against (d) A process of facilitating global business.
global business, it would also cut out movements of ideas,

Answer Keys
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (c)
11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (c)
21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (c) 25. (a) 26. (a) 27. (d) 28. (d) 29. (a) 30. (b)
31. (a) 32. (d) 33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (b) 36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (d) 39. (c) 40. (d)
41. (a) 42. (a) 43. (c) 44. (b) 45. (a) 46. (c) 47. (a) 48. (b) 49. (d) 50. (c)

Z02_MADAN 07_65901_Z02.indd 7 23/12/22 4:39 PM

 Z.8 NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 December 2019

Solution
1. (b): Average production of A Type over the given year Narrative research is a separate type of qualitative
115500 research. It entails exploring the life of an individual.

= =16500 It is about studying one or more individuals. It pri-
7 marily uses interviews and documents.
In 2012, 2013, 2014, and 2017 production is less than 9. (a): Here, we can take an example of UGC that is a
average. statutory organization established by an Act of Par-
2. (a): Average number of B Type vehicles produced over liament in 1956 for the coordination, determination,
the year and maintenance of standard of university education.
= (20000 + 10000 + 15000 + 15000 They provide funding also.
+ 20000 + 25000 + 35000) / 7 The institutions have not been able to provide quality
education because of lack of resources and supervi-
140000
= = 20000 sion as their sheer number is very high. Government
7 has set up other institutions for their grading.
3. (d): Total production in 2016 10. (c): UMANG (Unified Mobile Application for New-age
= 25000 + 20000 + 15000 = 60000 Governance) is envisaged to make e-governance. It is
4. (b): Percentage of production of A Type over B Type developed by the Ministry of Electronics and Informa-
tion Technology (MeitY) and National e-Governance
10000 Division (NeGD) to drive Mobile Governance in India.

= × 100 = 66.67 per cent
15000 UMANG provides a single platform for all Indian citi-
5. (d): Percentage increase in 2017 zens to access pan-India e-Gov services ranging from
Central to Local Government bodies and other citi-
= (25000 – 20000) / 20000 × 100 = 25 per cent
zen-centric services.
6. (b): Teacher has control over self, mode of communi-
BHIM (BHARAT INTERFACE FOR MONEY) is an app
cation, and method of delivery in classroom. A teacher
that lets you make simple, easy, and quick payment
needs to be organized in classroom. They should have
transactions using unified payment Interface. You
control over mode of communication and method of
can make instant bank to bank payment and pay and
delivery to make students learn the concepts. They
collect money using just mobile number and virtual
should transmit genuine commitment.
payment address. National Payments Corporation of
7. (c): The Assertion (A) is true to settle his or her career in India (NPCI) is an umbrella organization for operat-
any job, profession, or any mode of entrepreneurship. ing retail payments and settlement systems in India
In Reason (R), we need to focus on the word ‘only’. eBiz: eBiz is being implemented by Infosys Technolo-
Education is required for job or entrepreneurship. That gies under the guidance and aegis of Department of
makes it false. Industrial Policy and Promotion, Ministry of Com-
8. (b): Grounded theory is a systematic methodology in merce, and Industry Govt. of India. The focus of eBiz
the social sciences involving the construction of theo- is to improve the business environment in the country
ries through methodical gathering and analysis of data. by reducing unnecessary delays in regulatory pro-
This research methodology uses inductive reasoning. cesses required to start and run business.
Research SWAYAM: MHRD has started a major and new initia-
question tive project called ‘Study Webs of Active Learning for
Young Aspiring Minds’ (SWAYAM). It is an integrated
platform and portal for online courses. This covers
Theoretical all higher education subjects and skill sector courses.
sampling The objective is to ensure that every student in our
country has access to the best quality higher educa-
Theoretical Data tion at the affordable cost.
saturation? collection
11. (a): We do not collect data from every member of pop-
ulation to save time and money. The negative impact is
Coding
sampling errors. They happen in any kind of research.
process In (i), we need to focus on the words ‘related’ and
‘subsumed’. Non-sampling error is ‘catch-all’ term.
(ii) Sampling error do occur in every kind of sampling
Constant
whether single stage or multistage.
comparision
(iii) Inaccurate sampling frame and non-response
should be right and ‘motivational’.
Grounded (iv) Rather, the more homogeneous is the population,
theory
less will be the sampling error.

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 NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 December 2019 Z.9

12. (d): For future questions, we should try to understand (ii) Belief in God – It is one’s personal issue.

the differences between ‘National Park’ and ‘Wildlife (iii) We may not be interested in politics, but it is

Sanctuary’. part of democracy. So some interest in politics
is desirable.
National Park Wildlife Sanctuary
(iv) Teacher’s low expectation from students is not

A national park is a Wildlife sanctuary is good for the confidence of a teacher himself or
more restricted area as not a very restricted herself.
compared to wildlife area. It is open to
sanctuary. Random access general public. 16. (c): Let SP of 70 pencils = ` 90
to people is not allowed. According to Question:
Tickets or permissions are Tickets or permissions 90 = CP × (100 – 25) / 100
required to enter into a are not required to visit CP = ` 120
national park. a wildlife sanctuary. In 2nd situation, for a SP of ` 234 and profit of 30 per
A national park has a A wildlife sanctuary cent, the CP is to be found first.
definite boundary. does not have a specific CP = 234 × 100 / 130 = ` 180
boundary. If number of pencils for ` 120 is 70, then for CP of
General public cannot General public cannot ` 180, the number of pencils should be one and half
use the park for collecting use the park for times, that is, 70 × 1.5 = 105
any materials like fruits, collecting any materials 17. (c): The size of soil particles gives texture to the soil.
firewood. like fruits, firewood. It also determines the amount of air and moisture that
Example: Jim Corbett Example: Krishna exist in the soil. They can be arranged in the following
national park (Gujarat) wildlife sanctuary manner, in terms of size.
(Andhra Pradesh) 1. Clay: Clay has the smallest particles. A particle
measures less than 0.002 mm. It feels sticky when
Source: meritnation.com wet. It absorbs water well and it is nutrient rich.
13. (d): Reactive mode of student’s behaviour is not a 2. Silt: Silt particles measures 0.06 to 0.002 mm.
component of effective teaching as reaction does take Silt’s particles are larger than clay particles, but
place during extreme situations. smaller than sand particles.
14. (c): Assessment bias unfairly penalizes students on 3. Sand: Sand particles measures 2.0 mm to
the basis of race, ethnicity, socioeconomic status, reli- 0.06 mm. Sand is the largest type of soil particle.
gion, etc. It allows quick drainage and plenty of airflow.
Here, we need to work on one assumption that every 4. Gravel: Gravel is a loose aggregation of rock frag-
learner is unique and some flexible mechanism may ments. Gravel is classified by particle size range
help. and includes size classes from granule to boulder
15. (b): size fragments.
(i) The concept of self-efficacy was given by Albert 18. (a): Let Marked price = ` 100
Bandura. Self-efficacy reflects confidence in the
ability to exert control over one’s own motivation, Discount = 10 per cent
behaviour, and social environment. Self-efficacy Then SP = ` 90
means looking into one’s potential. If no discount is offered then profit is 25 per cent. It
means SP is ` 100.
Experience
Thus CP = 100 × 100 / (100 + 25) = ` 80
We have to calculate only ‘percentage’ profit, so we do
not need the third statement.
Vicarious
experience 19. (b): Let us look at the complete example.
Self-efficacy
Behaviour and 1. Fat Devadatta does not eat during day time.
Performance 2. But, he does not lose weight.
Social
persuasion
These two contradictory statements are reconciled
with arthāpatti pramāa that he must be eating during
night. Arthāpatti pramāa is a Sanskrit term meaning
implication. Thus (b) is the right answer.
Physiological
feedback Self-efficacy impacts 20. (c):
behaviour and performance (a) Epistemology is the study of nature and scope of
knowledge and justified belief.

Z02_MADAN 07_65901_Z02.indd 9 23/12/22 4:39 PM

 Z.10 NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 December 2019

(b) Ontology is part of metaphysics, a branch of phi- Feedback

losophy that looks at the very nature of things,
their being, cause, or identity.
(c) Axiology is the branch of philosophy that con-
siders the nature of value and what kinds of
things have value. Axios means value.
(d) Etymology: The study of the origin of words and
the way in which their meanings have changed
throughout history.
21. (c): Let the avg. weight of 10 students = x
Then 10x = [(9 × 60 )] + (x + 9)
10x = 540 + x + 9
9x = 549
x = 61
Weight of the 10th student = x +9
= 61 + 9 = 70 kg.
22. (c): The series
bbc| bba |bbc|bba|bbc|bba
The pattern bbc, bba is repeated.
23. (d): We need to focus on objective criteria as teaching
is both art and science. Teachers are also trained for
the purpose.
Thus, subject knowledge matters.
24. (c): Feedback is essential in communication so as to
know whether the recipient has understood the mes-
sage in the same terms as intended by the sender and
whether he agrees to that message or not.
Feedback is essential for ‘effective communication’.
Sender Encoding Message Decoding Receiver
Noise
25. (a): Blogs as social media include vlogs, wall post-
ings, emails, instant messaging, music-sharing, crowd
sourcing, voice over IP, etc.
Blogs is an individualized approach to communicate
to public audience.
So both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and R is the correct expla-
nation of (A).
26. (a): A fuel cell is an electrochemical cell that con-
verts the chemical energy of a fuel (often hydrogen)
and an oxidizing agent (often oxygen) into electric-
ity through a pair of redox reactions. Fuel cells can
produce electricity continuously for as long as fuel
and oxygen are supplied. Every fuel cell has two elec-
trodes called, the anode and cathode.
27. (d): Ontological realism is a term best applied to theo-
ries that are realist regarding what there is.
Conceptual pragmatism is related to a philosopher
and logician Clarence Irving Lewis. The ‘epistemol-
ogy’ of conceptual ‘pragmatism’ was first formulated
in a book ‘Mind and the World Order: Outline of a
Theory of Knowledge’ in 1929.
An idiographic method focusses on individual cases
or events.

28. (d): The review of ‘categorical propositions’ can help.

Type Form Quantity Quality Distribution

Subject Predicate
A All S is P Universal Affirmative Distributed Undistributed
E No S is P Universal Negative Distributed Distributed
I Some S is P Particular Affirmative Undistributed Undistributed
O Some S is not P Particular Negative Undistributed Distributed

We need to look at statement – ‘Some girls are not stu-
dents’. This statement goes with Type ‘O’.
Here, the ‘girls’ is a subject as we are discussing her as
a person or thing, she does something.
Predicate means which tells something about the
subject.
29. (a): Here, we need to recall some definitions of ‘soil’.
30. (b): Here, non-traditional education means ‘Open and
Distance Learning’ (ODL). It always focus on ‘innova-
tive methods’ to reach out to prospective learners.
31. (a):
1. Protocol: Protocol is set of rules, with TCP/IP being
the most important one. The protocol declares how
your web browser should communicate with a
web serve when sending or fetching a web page or
document.
2. Domain name: A domain name is a unique refer-
ence that identifies a web site on the internet, for
example doepud.co.uk

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 NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 December 2019
3. Path: The path typically refers to a file or directory
on the web server, for example Directory file. Php.
Domain name
Path
https://deoput.co.uk/blog/anatomy-of-a-url
Protocol
32. (d)
33. (b): Sale price of 1 kg of the mixture = ` 76.8
Gain = 20 per cent
100
C.P. of 1 kg of the mixture = × ` 76.8
100 + 20
= `64
Applying the rule of allegation
Cost of 1 kg sugar of 1st variety Cost of 1 kg sugar of 2nd
variety
60 78
Mean Price
64
14 4 studies, each respondent is asked to respond to the
Thus, 14: 4 OR 7:2 is required answer.
34. (c): This is direct question of sequence of steps.
35. (b): (i) The sequence is loading of software from sec-
ondary storage into RAM and finally executed by CPU
(registers).
(ii) Give direct definition of search engine.
36. (C): The Eight millennium development Goals are:
1. To eradicate extreme poverty and hunger.
2. To achieve universal primary education.
3. To promote gender equality and empower women.
4. To reduce child mortality.
5. To improve maternal health.
6. To combat HIV/AIDS, malaria, and other diseases.
7. To ensure environmental sustainability
8. To develop a global partnership for development.
Thus ‘ensure healthy lives and promote well-being
for all at all ages’ was not a ‘Millennium Develop-
ment Goal’.
Z02_MADAN 07_65901_Z02.indd 11
Z.11
37. (b): (i) Increasing transparency is one of the main
advantages of e-governance. We usually talk about
‘Transparent Government’. RTI, good governance are
also parts of it.
38. (d): Anumana means the method by which knowl-
edge is derived from other knowledge. It is a univer-
sal proposition. Udāharan means instance as given in
option (d).
39. (c):
Every S is P No S is P
A Contraries E
Sub-alterns Contradictories Sub-alterns
I Sub-contraries O
Some S is P Some S is not P
‘All poets are dreamers’ is ‘A-Type’.
‘No poets are dreamers’ is ‘E-Type’.
Contraries are pair of propositions in which both can-
not be true, but both can be false. ‘A’ and ‘E’ are con-
trary statements.
40. (d): Quantitative research focusses more on the abil-
ity to complete statistical analysis. With quantitative
same questions. Surveys and questionnaires are the
most common techniques for collecting quantitative
data.
41. (a): We need to look at ‘square of opposition’ diagram
in question 39 to get the answer.
42. (a): During Gupta period, the focus was to patronize
the centers of higher education at Nalanda, Takshila,
Ujjain, Vikramshila and Vallabhi, etc. These centres
attracted scholars from all parts of India and from
several foreign countries.
43. (c): Assertion addresses the issues of ‘access to
education’.
In Reason, it is difficult to assess the difference
between online and offline for this.
44. (b): This is a direct question of words and their mean-
ings. They probably fall under the topic of languages.
45. (a): Paralanguage is the area of non-verbal com-
munication that emphasizes on body language and
voice nuances as means of expressing thoughts and
feelings.
23/12/22 4:39 PM
 N TA - U G C N E T / J R F P a p e r 1 2 0 2 0
1. Match List I with List II. E. Evaluation involving judgment using internal or
external standards.
List 1 List II Choose the correct answer from the options given
Research concepts Description below:
(A) Hypothesis    (I) It is statistical test (a) A, B and C only
that does not make (b) B, C and D only
assumptions about (c) C, D and E only
the parameters (d) B, D and E only
4. A teacher uses a question-answer session to ensure
(B) Sample   (II) Device using
desired learning outcomes in his/her classroom. In
which data are
this process, he/she offers the following type of com-
collected in
ment to a few answers given by a student:
research
“Yes, you are right, good’
(C) Research tool (III) A subset drawn This will be considered as an example of
from a larger set to (a) Positive feedback
represent it (b) Negative feedback
(D) Non-parametric (IV) A tentative (c) Confirmatory feedback
tests statement (d) Corrective feedback
indicating 5. Match List I with List II.
relationship
between two or List 1
more than two Behavioural
variables teaching List II
competencies Description
(A) Instructing    (I) Optimizing
Choose the correct answer from the options given ‘on task’ and
below: minimizing ‘off
(a) A -IV, B - III, C - II, D - I task’ activities
(b) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
(c) A - II, E - I, C - IV, D - III (B) Communicating   (II) Watching groups,
(d) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II behaviors and
2. In quantitative research paradigm, which of the fol- pace etc. and
lowing sampling methods are given preference? reacting quickly
A. Simple random sampling (C) Managing (III) Using methods
B. Stratified sampling and activities by
C. Quota sampling the teacher to
D. Snowball sampling promote learning
E. Systematic sampling (D) Monitoring (IV) Transmitting
Choose the correct answer from the options given thoughts and
below: ideas verbally and
(a) A, B and C only non-verbally
(b) A, B and E only
(c) B, C and D only Choose the correct answer from the options given
(d) C, D and E only below:
3. In the cognitive domain of teaching-learning objec- (a) A - I, B - II, C - III, D- IV
tives, which will be categorized as a higher type of (b) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
learning outcomes? (c) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
A. Knowledge and comprehension (d) A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III
B. Analysis of conceptual elements 6. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as
C. Application of acquired knowledge and skills Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
D. Synthesis involving the creative organization of Assertion (A): Evaluation is said to be formative
ideas when the intention is to identify scope and potential
for improvement of teaching-learning system.

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 NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 2020
Reason (R): The form of such evaluation is informal
and has to take place during instruction/teaching.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explana-
tion of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
7. In which research method manipulation of ‘independ-
ent variable’ and control of ‘extraneous variables’ are
neither possible nor desirable?
(a) Experimental method
(b) Ex post facto method
(c) Historical method
(d) Descriptive survey method
8. Identify those statements which describe the charac-
teristic features of qualitative research paradigm
A. Researchers tend to analyze their data inductively
B. The substantive research hypothesis is tested via
Null hypothesis
C. Data take the form of words or pictures
D. Actual settings are the direct source of data
E. It assumes that there are social facts with a single
objective reality. Choose the correct answer from
the options given below:
(a) A, B and C only
(b) A, B and E only
(c) B, C and E only
(d) A, C and D only
9. Given below are two statements
Statement I: Maximum performance tests are
designed to assess the upper limits of the examinees’
knowledge and ability.
Statement II: Typical response tests are designed
to measure specific behaviors and characteristics of
examinees.
In light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
10. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): A cross break is a numerical tabular
presentation of data usually in frequency or percent-
age form in which variables are cross-partitioned to
study relations between them.
Reason (R): The categories are set up according to
the research hypothesis.
In light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below
Z03_MADAN 07_65901_2020_Paper 1 LAW.indd 13
Z.13
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct
explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is not correct
(d) A is not correct but R is correct
Comprehension Passage (for question numbers 11–15)
Much is still unknown about human behavior. Unanswered
questions remain and further research is necessary.
Knowledge about motivation, leadership, behavior, and
change will continue to be of great concern to practi-
tioners of management for several reasons: It can help
improve the effective leadership of human resources; it
can help in preventing resistance to change, restriction to
output, and personnel disputes; and often it can lead to a
more productive organization. Our intention has been to
provide a conceptual framework that may be useful to you
in applying the conclusions of the behavior sciences. The
value that a framework of this kind has is not in changing
one’s knowledge, but in changing one’s behavior in work-
ing with people.
We have discussed three basic competencies in influenc-
ing: diagnosing - being able to understand and interpret
the situation you are attempting to influence; adapting -
being able to adapt your behavior and the resources you
control to the contingencies of the situation; and commu-
nicating - being able to put the message in such a way that
people can easily understand and accept it. Each of these
competencies is different and requires a different devel-
opmental approach. For example, diagnosing is cogni-
tive or of the mind in nature and requires thinking skills;
adapting is behavioral in nature and requires behavioral
practice; and communicating is process-oriented and
requires learning and interrelating the key steps in the
process. Because these three competencies require differ-
ent knowledge and skills, how do we continue the process
that we started with
The key to starting the process of changing behav-
ior is sharing what you have learned with other people
in your own organization. Two things occur when peo-
ple who work together all have a common language.
First, they are able to give each other feedback and
help in a very rational, unemotional way that effects
behavior.
Second, when followers start to realize that if their
manager is using situational leadership, it is not the man-
ager, but their behavior, that determines the leadership
style to be used with them.
11. What is the value outcome of applying a theoretical
framework of behavioral science?
(a) Changes in one’s own knowledge
(b) Change in one’s behavior while working with
others
(c) Not understandable human behavior
(d) Emergence of value-loaded framework
23/12/22 5:11 PM
 Z.14
12. What prompts a change in a person’s behavior?
(a) Leadership style
(b) Situational support to the managers
(c) Sharing of learning outcomes with others in the
organization
(d) Segregation of competencies
13. The inferences that can be drawn from the passage
are
A. Common language among people in an organiza-
tion will ensure unbiased feedback
B. People are known for fluctuating behavior
C. People’s behavior influences the leader
D. Emotions and human behavior are separate and
easily explicable. Choose the correct answer from
the options given below:
(a) A and B only
(b) B and C only
(c) C and D only
(d) A and C only
14. Which of the following prohibits resistance to change?
(a) Knowledge of leader behavior
(b) Removing restriction on output
(c) Personnel disputes
(d) Non-productive organization
15. Each of the basic competencies needs
(a) Exclusivity
(b) Situational contingency
(c) Inter-relation with others
(d) A different approach in acquiring it
16. Which of the following can be considered as psycho-
logical barriers to effective communication?
A. Descriptive message
B. Inattentiveness
C. Too much reliance on the written word
D. Limited retention
E. Logical organization
F. Flow of thought
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(a) A, B and C only
(b) B, C and D only
(c) C, D and E only
(d) D, E and F only
17. A motorist travels to a place 150 kms away at an aver-
age speed of 50 km / hour and returns at a speed of 30
km / hour. His average speed for the whole journey is
(a) 35 km/hour
(b) 37.5 km/hour
(c) 40 km/hour
(d) 42.5 km/hour
18. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Persuasive communication by a teacher
in the classroom is intended to make his/her version
of information acceptable to students.
Statement II: If it happens at the institutional level,
the purpose behind it is image building.
Z03_MADAN 07_65901_2020_Paper 1 LAW.indd 14
NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 2020
In light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
19. Match List I with List II.
List I
Type of List II
communication Characteristics
(A) Vertical    (I) Feedback oriented
(B) Horizontal   (II) Inter-personal
(C) Circular (III) Top-down
(D) Transactional (IV) Rumour-oriented
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(a) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
(b) A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I
(c) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
(d) A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III
20. In the following letter series, the next term is
BDF, EGI, HJL, …
(a) KMO
(b) JMP
(c) ILO
(d) KNO
21. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Different communities exist independ-
ent of one another but jointly somehow, they give an
idea of communitarian life of a society.
Statement II: Earth exists either through a blind
chance or through an inner necessity or through an
external cause.
In light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
22. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Human touch in communication ena-
bles students to become participatory.
Reason (R): In a technology-driven classroom envi-
ronment, the communicative role of a teacher is
secondary.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explana-
tion of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explanation of A
23/12/22 5:11 PM
 NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 2020 Z.15

(c) A is true but R is false In light of the above statements, choose the most
(d) A is false but R is true appropriate answer from the options given below:
23. Deduction proceeds from (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(a) Particular to universal (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(b) Universal to particular (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(c) Particular to particular (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(d) Universal to universal 30. Given below are two statements:
24. When communication meets the aims and objectives Statement I: All knowledge is a recollection. It is true
of classroom teaching, it becomes on a certain account.
(a) Extra-ordinary Statement II: All men by nature, desire understanding.
(b) Personal
(c) Functional In light of the above statements, choose the most
(d) Obligatory appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
25. A man is 30 years older than his son. Five years ago, (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
his age was 6 times the age of his son. The age of the (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
son is (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(a) 10 years
(b) 11 years Comprehension Passage (for question numbers
(c) 12 years 31–35)
(d) 15 years
Study the data given in the table and answer the ques-

26. Match List I and List II. tions that follow
List 1 List II The following table shows the monthly reporting of

(Concepts) (Schools) patients for different diseases to three hospitals in a city:
(A) Nirvana    (I) Sankhya Disease/ Hospital Hospital Hospital
(B) Nihshreyasa   (II) Jainism Hospital A B C

(C) Apavarga (III) Upanishads Heart Attack 320 240 360

(D) Moksha (IV) Buddhism Blood Sugar 650 1350 1950

Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(a) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
(b) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
(c) A - II, B - I, C - II, D - IV
(d) A - II B - IV, C - II, D - I
27. A sum of money earning compound interest annu-
ally doubles itself after 4 years. What is the rate of
interest?
(a) ~14%
(b) ~19%
(c) ~18%
(d) ~15%
28. What is the next term in the following series?
4, 12, 28, 52, _____
(a) 76
(b) 84
(c) 98
(d) 104
29. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: When I look deep into myself, I always
stumble with one perception or another. I can never
catch myself.
Statement II: Self is the logical presupposition of all
knowledge. Therefore, the concepts like substance
and person cannot be applied to it.
Blood Pressure 700 1400 2100
Kidney 210 420 630
Problems
31. What is the average number of patients for the least
reported disease?
(a) ~ 415.2 (b) ~ 325.4
(c) ~ 391.7 (d) ~ 306.6
32. What is the percentage increase in the total number of
patients from hospital A to hospital C?
(a) ~ 120 % (b) ~ 168.96
(c) ~ 141 % (d) ~ 145 %
33. What is the percentage of number of patients report-
ing for blood sugar compared to the total patients in
all three hospitals?
(a) ~ 25.90% (b) ~ 38.24 %
(c) ~ 39.42 % (d) ~ 35.12 %
34 What is the percentage increase in the number of
patients reporting heart attacks from hospital A to
hospital C?
(a) 12.5% (b) 13.2%
(c) 11.9% (d) 9.2 %
35. For patients reporting for kidney problems, what is
the ratio of the number of patients reporting at hospi-
tal A and those reporting at hospital C?
(a) 2:3 (b) 3:4
(c) 1:3 (d) 1:5

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 Z.16 NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 2020

36. Match List I with List II. 40. Match List I with List II.
List 1 List 1
Categories of Environmental
environmental List II Protocol/
education Examples of those Agreement/Action List II
objectives objectives Plan Provisions
(A) Environmental    (I) To help social groups (A) Montreal    (I) Integrated water
Awareness and individuals Protocol resource management
identify and solve (B) Paris Agreement   (II) Emissions trading
environmental
problems (C) Climate Action (III) Phasing out ozone-
Plan depleting substances
(B) Environmental   (II) To help social groups
Knowledge and individuals (D) Kyoto Protocol (IV) Intended Nationally
acquire a set of values Determined
for the environment Contributions
(C) Environmental (III) To help social groups
Attitude and individuals Choose the correct answer from the options given
acquire a sensitivity to below:
the total environment (a) A - III, B - II, C- I, D - IV
(b) A - II, B - III, C- I, D - IV
(D) Environmental (IV) To help social groups (c) A - II, B - IV, C - III, D - I
Skill and individuals gain a (d) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
variety of experience 41. The Chinese scholars, l-Qing and Xuan Zang visited
in environment ancient Nalanda University during
and its associated (a) 5th century ce
problems (b) 7th century ce
(c) 10th century ce
Choose the correct answer from the options given (d) 12th century ce
below:
42. Using a website to pour out one’s grievances is called
(a) A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV
(a) Cyber venting
(b) A - I, B - III, C - IV, D - II
(b) Web hate
(c) A - IV, B - II, C - I, D - III
(c) Web anger
(d) A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I
(d) Cyber abuse
37. Noise pollution is measured in decibels (dB) with ref-
43. Speed of Internet is measured in
erence to a standard sound intensity of the following
(a) GHz
magnitude
(b) Gbps
(a) 1 pico watt per m2
(b) 1 milliwatt per m2 (c) GB
(c) 1 nanowatt per m2 (d) dpi
(d) 1 microwatt per m2 44. Which of the following correctly lists computer mem-
38. In which year, the Union Government decided that all ory types from lowest to highest speed?
cases pertaining to the allocation of grants-in-aid from (a) Main Memory, Cache Memory, Secondary Storage
public funds to the Central Universities and other uni- (b) Cache Memory, Secondary Storage, Main Memory
versities and institutions of higher learning might be (c) Secondary Storage, Main Memory, Cache Memory
referred to the University Grants Commission? (d) Secondary Stage, Cache Memory, Main Memory
(a) 1952 45. What is the full form of the abbreviation GIF?
(b) 1953 (a) Graphics Interchange Format
(c) 1954 (b) Graphics Interchange File
(d) 1956 (c) Global Interchange Format
39. In a polluted urban area, which one of the following (d) Graphics Input Format
has the highest concentration (ppv) in photochemical 46. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as
smog? Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
(a) Ozone Assertion (A): Machine Learning requires good qual-
(b) PAN ity and sufficient data to train and test the algorithm.
(c) Hydrocarbons (without methane) Reason (R): For correct classification, good quality
(d) Carbon monoxide data which is free from noise, and sufficient data is
required for training and testing of the algorithm.

Z03_MADAN 07_65901_2020_Paper 1 LAW.indd 16 23/12/22 5:11 PM

 NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 2020 Z.17

In light of the above statements, choose the most

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
appropriate answer from the options given below: (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
explanation of A (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct 49. According to the International Commission on Educa-
explanation of A tion for the Twenty-first Century headed by Jacques
(c) A is correct but R is not correct Delors, which of the following main tensions will be
(d) A is not correct but R is correct witnessed during the 21st century;
47. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as A. The tension between the global and the local
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): B. The tension between tradition and modernity
C. The tension between the spiritual and the material
Assertion (A): Lakes are considered to be more sus- D. The tension between the poor and the rich
ceptible to pollution than rivers E. The tension between the developed and the devel-
Reason (R): Water in lakes may take decade(s) to be oping societies
replaced Choose the correct answer from the options given
In light of the above statements, choose the most below:
appropriate answer from the options given below (a) A, B and C only
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct (b) B, C and D only
explanation of A (c) C, D and E only
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct (d) A, D and E only
explanation of A 50. Thermal reactors produce energy by fission of the fol-
(c) A is correct but R is not correct lowing nuclear fuels
(d) A is not correct but R is correct A. Uranium-235 (235U)
48. Given below are two statements B. Uranium-233 (233U)
C. Uranium-238 (238U)
Statement I: Universities are established by Central/ D. Thorium-232 (232Th)
State Act under 2(f) of the UGC Act, 1956. E. Plutonium-239 (239Pu)
Statement II: Deemed to be University is declared Choose the correct answer from the options given
by a Notification of the Central Government, on the below:
advice of the UGC, under section 3 of the UGC Act, (a) A, B, C and E only
1956. (b) A, B, C, D and E
In light of the above statements, choose the most (c) A, B, D and E only
appropriate answer from the options given below: (d) A, B and E only

Answer Keys
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (a)
11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (a)
21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (c) 25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (a)
31. (d) 32. (b) 33. (b) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (d) 37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (d)
41. (b) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (a) 46. (a) 47. (a) 48. (a) 49. (a) 50. (d)

Z03_MADAN 07_65901_2020_Paper 1 LAW.indd 17 23/12/22 5:11 PM

 Z.18
Solution
1. (a)
These concepts are important in research process.
(a) Hypothesis testing in statistics is a way for the
researcher to test the results of a survey or experi-
ment to see, whether we can have meaningful
results.
(b) A sample refers to a smaller, manageable version
of a larger group. It is a subset containing the
characteristics of a larger population. Samples
are used in statistical testing when population
sizes are too large for the test to include all pos-
sible members or observations.
(c) Anything that becomes a means of collecting
information for your study is called a research tool
or a research instrument. For example, observa-
tion forms, interview schedules, questionnaires,
and interview guides are all classified as research
tools.
(d) A non-parametric test (also called as distribu-
tion free test) does not assume anything about
the underlying distribution. We should use non-­
parametric tests only if you have to know that
assumptions like about normal distribution are
being violated.
2. (b)
Random means every member has equal chance of
being elected as member of sample. Probability sam-
pling means that every member of the population
has a chance of being selected. It is more scientific
approach. It is mainly used in quantitative research.
These sampling means are preferred as they help in
being unbiased and objective.
3. (d)
B denotes ‘analysis’ of conceptual elements.
D denotes ‘synthesis’ for creating innovative ideas.
E asks for linking with internal or external standards.
As per choices, (d) seems to be the best answer that
‘reflective’ outcomes.
4. (a)
The following can be identified as the factors which
contributes towards positive feedback:
It should be educative in nature.
It should be given in a timely manner.
Be sensitive to the individual needs of the student.
It should reference a skill or specific knowledge.
Feedback should be given to keep students ‘on tar-
get’ for achievement.
There should be scope for one-on-one conference
to make it more effective.
5. (c) Answer is clear from the question itself.
6. (a) Answer is clear from the question itself.
Formal evaluations are often informal and ungraded.
Their aim is to provide both the students and teacher
Z03_MADAN 07_65901_2020_Paper 1 LAW.indd 18
NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 2020
with a gauge of where their level of understanding
is at the current moment, and enable the teacher to
adjust accordingly to meet the emerging needs of the
class.
7. (b)
In Ex post facto study (or say after-the-fact research),
the investigation starts after the fact has occurred
without interference from the researcher. Here, the
groups with qualities that already exist are compared
on some dependent variable. The assignment of sub-
jects to different groups is based on whichever vari-
able is of interest to the researchers.
8. (d)
Qualitative research methods mostly use open-ended
techniques (such as interviews), to collect data. They
may use non-statistical techniques to analyze the
data.
The first statement uses the word ‘inductively’ that is
mostly used in qualitative research. The third state-
ment reflects use of words or pictures and not exactly
the quantitative data. The fifth statement reflects that
data is better collected in ‘natural settings’.
9. (a)
Cronbach (1949/1960) classified personnel selection
tests into two broad categories, tests of maximum
and tests of typical performance. The distinguish-
ing feature of maximum performance tests is that
they seek to assess how much or how well people
can perform at their best. Hence, candidates are
encouraged to do well in order to earn the best score
they can.
On the other hand, ‘Tests of typical performance’
assess how the ability of a job candidate is evident on
a day-to-day basis.
In short, these two types of tests assess what the can-
didate chooses to do. Hence, they assess a candidate’s
motivation rather than his or her ability.
10. (a)
To describe a single categorical variable, we use fre-
quency tables. To describe the relationship between
two categorical variables, we use a special type of
table called a cross-tabulation (or crosstab). In a
cross-tabulation, the categories of one variable deter-
mine the rows of the table, and the categories of the
other variable determine the columns. The cells of the
table contain the number of times that a particular
combination of categories occurred.
The table dimensions are reported as as R × C, where
R is the number of categories for the row variable, and
C is the number of categories for the column variable.
Tables of dimensions 2 × 2, 3 × 3, 4 × 4, etc., are
called as square crosstabs.
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 NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 2020
Do you drink coffee?
Basis for
Comparison No Yes Total
Gender Male 13 33 46
       Female 13 32 45
Total 26 65 91
11. (b) Answer is available in the main passage itself.
12. (c) Answer is available in the main passage itself.
13. (d) Answer is available in the main passage itself.
14. (a) Answer is available in the main passage itself.
15. (d) Answer is available in the main passage itself.
16. (b) Answer is available in the main passage itself.
There are four psychological barriers. These barriers
are perception, homeostasis, conformity and com-
mitment, and personality factors. There is selective
perception. This is when the person only chooses to
remember certain details about the change. They can-
not look beyond the negative to see all the positives a
change could make. Perception also is a barrier when
the change agent may act in a way that someone in
the organization may perceive as inappropriate.
Homeostasis simply wants to stay in an environment
where it is comfortable. The key to this barrier is to
understand what the organization is going through at
each stage of the change and maintaining a certain
level of comfort as much as possible for the people
affected.
17. (b)
Average speed = Total Distance / Total Time
Total distance = 2 × 150 = 300 kms
Time required during first phase = 150 / 50 = 3 hours
Time required during second phase = 150 / 30 =
5 hours
Total time taken = 3 + 5 = 8 hours
Thus, average speed = 300 / 8 = 37.5 kms / hour
Alternatively, this question can be solved directly with
harmonic mean.
For the journey where there are equal distances, the
average speed can be calculated with help of har-
monic mean. (For example, from Chandigarh, Karnal
is exactly at middle point while moving to Delhi. Thus,
there are two equal distances. In the second option,
moving from Chandigarh to Karnal and then coming
back constitutes two ‘equal phases’ of journey).
Harmonic mean / Average speed
= 2 / [(1/x + 1/y)] where x and y are two speeds
= 2 / [1/50 + 1/30]
= 2 / [ (3 + 5) / 150]
= (2 × 150) / 8 = 37.5 kms per hour
Here, total distance is not required while finding
solution.
Z03_MADAN 07_65901_2020_Paper 1 LAW.indd 19
Z.19
18. (a)
The basic style of communication should remain the
same. Persuasive communication is a form of commu-
nication that involves the act of convincing or guiding
listeners or readers towards the adoption of certain
attitudes, actions, and ideas through emotional or
rational means. Persuasive skills include emotional
intelligence, active listening, interpersonal skills,
negotiation, logic and reasoning, etc.
19. (c)
Vertical communication occurs across different
hierarchies in social institutions such as family or
management.
Horizontal communication means communication
between the members at the same level. Grapevine
communication (sort of informal also) may be a part
of it.
Circular means ‘effective’ communication that needs
some feedback mechanism.
Transactional Model of communication is the
exchange of messages between sender and receiver
where each take turns to send or receive messages. The
model is mostly used for interpersonal communica-
tion. Some times, as the element of feedback is there,
it is also called as circular model of communication.
20. (a)
There is skipping of one alphabet.
B+2=D
D+2=F
Then, for the first alphabet of second letter series, the
letter between D and F is placed.
Thus, fourth series is KMO.
21. (a)
1. The human life should exist in independent but
diversified forms in the society.
2. The earth intends to provide an integrating oppor-
tunity for all.
22. (c)
The concept of human shared including the micro-
dynamics of participation is always crucial at impor-
tant stages. The teacher as a facilitator is challenged
by a range of social contingencies.
The role of a teacher is to share understanding in an
innovative manner, so the role of a teacher is never
secondary.
23. (b)
Deduction means moving from universal to par-
ticular. Deduction is basically scientific approach to
do research as well. It can be identified more with
positivism.
24. (c)
Functional communication is the means by which an
individual spontaneously and independently commu-
nicates his/her wants and needs and socializes with
23/12/22 5:11 PM
 Z.20 NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 2020

others. This communication can occur through a vari- The second is about Greek maxim – ‘know thyself’.
ety of forms, including speech, picture exchange, ges- That is to know yourself is to know the world.
tures, sign language and assistive devices. 30. (a)
25. (b) Statement I: Knowledge is a recollection of facts.
Let the age of son = X years Competencies are the person’s knowledge and behav-
The age of father = X + 30 years iours that lead them to be successful in a job.
ATQ, five years ago Statement II: Understanding is achieved through
X + 30 – 5 = 6(X – 5) effective communication.
X + 25 = 6X – 30 Thus, both statements are true.
OR 25 + 30 = 6X – X; 31. (d)
5X = 55 The heart attack is the least reported disease if we do
X = 55/5 = 11 years the total of all.
26. (a) The average number of heart attacks =
The words in question, reflect the ultimate goals in (320 + 240 + 360) / 3 = 920 / 3 = 306.67
life though there is a lot of semblance in these words.
32. (b)
(i) Nihsreyasa (fu%Js;le~) is the quest for oneself. It is
the search of innate adhyatmikity within oneself. Total number of patients in hospital A = 320 + 650 +
It is said to be the highest goal of mankind. 700 + 210 = 1880
(ii) Nirvana (fuokZ.k) is the goal of the Buddhist path. Total number of patients in hospital C = 360 + 1950
The literal meaning of the term is “blowing out” + 2100 + 630 = 5040
or “quenching”. Nirvana is the ultimate spiritual Increase in number = 5040 – 1880 = 3160
goal in Buddhism and marks the soteriological
release from rebirths in samsãra. Percentage increase in number = 3160 / 1880 × 100
(iii) The word apavarga means “liberation.” Pavarga = 168.96 %
means “material existence.” In material exist- 33. (b)
ence, one always works very hard but is ulti- We need to add number of patients in hospital B to
mately baffled. One then dies and has to accept those of A and C that have already been calculated.
another body to work very hard again. This is the Total number of patients in hospital B = 240 + 1350
cycle of material existence. Apavarga means just + 1400 + 420 = 3410
the opposite.
(iv) Moksha is the ultimate spiritual liberation. Total of numbers in hospitals A, B and C = 1880 +
3410 + 5040 = 10330
27. (b)
Let the principal amount = ` 1 Total number of blood sugar patients in all hospitals
Time period = 4 years = 650 + 1350 + 1950 = 3950
Amount = ` 2, Then Compound Interest = 2 – 1 = ` 1 Required percentage = 3950 / 10330 × 100
1 = 1(1+R/100)4 – 1 = 38.24 %
2 = (1+R/100)4 34. (a)
21/4 = 1 + R/100 Required percentage = (360 – 320) / 320 × 100
1.189 = 1 + R/100 = 40 / 320 × 100 = 12.5%
1.1892 – 1 = R/100
35. (c)
0.1892 × 100 = R
Required ratio = 210 : 630 = 1:3
R = 18.92 % (apprx)
Thus, 19% seems to be the best possible answer. 36. (d)
28. (b) The following are basically qualitative concepts about
1² + 3 = 4 environment:
3² + 3 = 12 1. Environmental awareness means being aware
5² + 3 = 28 about general issues of natural environment.
7² + 3 = 52 We need to make choices that benefit the earth,
9² + 3 = 84 rather than hurt it.
Thus, the answer is 84. 2. Environmental knowledge is the information
about environment and the ability to under-
29. (a)
stand and evaluate its impact on society and the
Human beings are conscious not only of the world environment.
around them but also of themselves: their activities, 3. Environmental attitudes are a psychological ten-
their bodies, and their mental lives. Thus, they are dency expressed by evaluative responses to the
self-conscious or self-aware. Self-consciousness can natural environment with some degree of favor
be understood as an awareness of oneself. or disfavor.

Z03_MADAN 07_65901_2020_Paper 1 LAW.indd 20 23/12/22 5:11 PM

 NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 2020
4. Environmental skills refer to the knowledge,
abilities, values and attitude required to live in,
develop and support a society which reduces the
impact of human activity on the environment.
37. (a)
For sound intensity (the power of the sound waves
per unit of area), 0 decibels is equal to 1 pico watt per
square meter. This corresponds approximately to the
faintest sound that can be detected by a person who
has good hearing. A quiet room has a normal sound
intensity of around 40 decibels, ten thousand times
louder than the faintest perceptible sound, and a
thunderclap may have an intensity of 120 decibels, a
trillion times louder than the faintest sound.
38. (a)
Let us look at the evolution of UGC over the period
that might be important for other questions as well.
1. The present system of higher education dates back
to Mountstuart Elphinstone’s minutes of 1823.
2. Sir Charles Wood’s Dispatch of 1854, famously
known as the ‘Magna Carta of English Education
in India` suggested the formulation of a coher-
ent policy of education. Subsequently, the uni-
versities of Calcutta, Bombay (now Mumbai) and
Madras were set up in 1857, followed by the uni-
versity of Allahabad in 1887.
The Inter-University Board (later known as the Asso-
ciation of Indian Universities) was established in
1925 to promote university activities, by sharing
information and cooperation in the field of education,
culture, sports and allied areas.
In 1944, the Sargeant Report recommended the for-
mation of a University Grants Committee, that was
formed in 1945 to oversee the work of the three
Central Universities of Aligarh, Banarasand Delhi.
In 1947, the Committee was entrusted with the
responsibility of dealing with all the then existing
Universities.
In 1948, a report under the Chairmanship of Dr. S
Radhakrishnan recommended that the University
Grants Committee be reconstituted on the general
model of the University Grants Commission of the
United Kingdom.
In 1952, the Union Government decided that all cases
pertaining to the allocation of grants-in-aid from pub-
lic funds to the Central Universities and other Uni-
versities and Institutions of higher learning might be
referred to the UGC. Consequently, University Grants
Commission (UGC) was formally inaugurated on 28
December 1953.
UGC was formally established only in November
1956 as a statutory body of the Government of India
through an Act of Parliament for the coordination,
determination and maintenance of standards of uni-
versity education in India.
Z03_MADAN 07_65901_2020_Paper 1 LAW.indd 21
Z.21
UGC has decentralized its operations by setting up
six regional centres at Pune, Hyderabad, Kolkata,
­Bhopal, Guwahati and Bangalore with head office in
New Delhi.
39. (a)
Photochemical smogs are formed by the action of sun-
light on oxides of nitrogen, and the subsequent reac-
tions with hydrocarbons. Photochemical smogs were
first identified in Los Angeles in the mid-1940s. These
smogs act as bronchial irritants and can also irritate
the eyes. Among the pollutants involved in photo-
chemical smogs are ozone, nitrogen dioxide and per-
oxyacyl nitrate (PAN).
40. (d)
1. Montreal Protocol (1987) on Substances that
deplete the ozone layer were finalized to control
the consumption and production of anthropo-
genic ozone-depleting substances (ODSs) and
some hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs). September 16
is celebrated as World Ozone Day. A UN study
‘Scientific Assessment of Ozone Depletion: 2018’,
has shown that the ozone layer is recovering at a
rate of 1-3% per decade. The stratospheric ozone
layer protects life on earth from harmful UV
radiation.
2. Paris Agreement is a legally binding interna-
tional treaty on climate change. It was adopted by
196 Parties at COP 21 in Paris, on 12 December
2015 and entered into force on 4 November 2016.
Its goal is to limit global warming to well below
2, preferably to 1.5 degrees Celsius, compared
to pre-industrial levels. Intended Nationally
Determined Contributions are (intended) reduc-
tions in greenhouse gas emissions declared by dif-
ferent nations so that they are more serious about
them.
3. National Action Plan for Climate Change: It is
a Government of India’s programme launched in
2008 to mitigate and adapt to the adverse impact
of climate change. The action plan was launched
in 2008 with eight sub-missions. Two missions
were added later. These missions can be seen in
Unit 9.
4. Kyoto Protocol: It is an international agree-
ment that aimed to reduce carbon dioxide (CO2)
emissions and the presence of greenhouse gases
(GHG) in the atmosphere. It speaks about ‘com-
mon but differentiated responsibilities’. This pro-
tocol required that industrialized nations needed
to lessen the amount of their CO2 emissions to
a previous year level. It was signed in 1997 as
a part of UNFCCC, and was to be implemented
from 2005. The Kyoto Protocol applies to the six
greenhouse gases listed in Annex A: ­carbon diox-
ide (CO2), Methane (CH4), nitrous oxide (N2O),
hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), perfluorocarbons
(PFCs), and sulfur hexafluoride (SF6).
23/12/22 5:11 PM
 Z.22 NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 2020

41. (b)
Additional Information:
Xuanzang (also popular as Hiuen Tsang), born in 602 L1 cache, or primary cache, is extremely fast but

A.D was the celebrated Chinese traveler. He has been relatively small, and is usually embedded in the
described therefore as the “Prince of Pilgrims.” processor chip as CPU cache. Level 3 (L3) cache is
His visited India during the reign of Harshavardhana. specialized memory developed to improve the per-
India is much indebted to this Chinese traveler for the formance of L1 and L2. L1 or L2 can be significantly
valuable accounts he left behind with many details faster than L3, though L3 is usually double the speed
of political, religious, economic, social conditions of of DRAM.
those days. The biography of Hiuen Tsang, written by 45. (a)
another Chinese, is also another valuable source for
Indian history. He remained at the Nalanda Univer- GIF is an image file format commonly used for images
sity for about five years. on the web and sprites in software programs. Unlike
the JPEG image format, GIFs use lossless compression
42. (a) that does not degrade the quality of the image.
Cyber-venting is the act of bad-mouthing about one’s 46. (a)
employer, senior executives, colleagues, etc. with the
intention of letting off the steam, using websites and Machine learning is a type of artificial intelligence
making such comments public for all to see them. that allows software applications to become more
accurate at predicting outcomes without being
43. (b) explicitly programmed to do so. Machine learning
GHz: Clock speed is the rate at which a processor exe- algorithms use historical data as input to predict
cutes a task and that is measured in Gigahertz (GHz). new output values.
A 2.6-Ghz processor, therefore, can run 2.6 billion 47. (a)
instructions in a second, while a 2.3-Ghz processor
can run 2.3 billion instructions per second. The ‘trophic status’ of lakes is the central concept
in the management of lakes. It describes the rela-
Gbps: GigaBits or GigaBytes per Second - One bil- tionship between nutrient status of a lake and the
lion bits or bytes per second. Gbps is a measurement growth of organic matter in the lake. Eutrophica-
of peripheral data transfer or network transmission tion is the process of change from one trophic state
speed. The correct abbreviation is “b” for bits and “B” to a higher trophic state by the addition of nutrient.
for bytes; however, “b” and “B” are often interchanged. Agriculture is a major factor in eutrophication of
GB: a unit of information equal to 1000 megabytes surface waters.
or 109 (1,000,000,000) bytes. This is gigabyte. A unit 48. (a)
for measuring computer memory. megabyte, MB, M
- a unit of information equal to 1000 kilobytes or 106 The evolution of UGC has been discussed in question
(1,000,000) bytes. number 38.
dpi (dots per inch): It is a measure of the resolution 49. (a)
of a printed document or digital scan. The higher the Jacques Delors worked on potential conflict situa-
dot density, the higher the resolution of the print or tions in the world. He played an important role in
scan. Typically, dpi is the measure of the number of coming out with the work “Learning: The Treasure
dots that can be placed in a line across one inch, or Within”. It posits an education that favours the emer-
2.54 centimeters. gence of the individual talents of each, preparing
44. (c) people for life as citizens, family and community
members, and also economic agents. Its image of

a successful education system is one built on four
Smaller, L0:
pillars:
faster and
costlier
registers

L1: on-chip L1
} CPU registers hold words retrieved
from L1 cache 1. Learning to know
2. Learning to do
}
(per byte) cache (SRAM) L1 cache holds cache lines retrieved
storage
off-chip L2 from the L2 cache memory 3. Learning to be
}
devices L2:
cache (SRAM) L2 cache holds cache line 4. Learning to live together
retrieved from main memory
L3:
main memory
50. (d)
}
Larger, (DRAM)
Main memory holds disk
slower, and blocks retrieved from The most of nuclear reactors use enriched uranium
cheaper
(per byte) L4: local secondary storage
local disks
(U-235) or reprocessed plutonium (Pu-239) as fuel

} (in the Uranium-Plutonium cycle), and only a hand-

(local disks)
storage Local disks hold files
devices retrieved from disks on ful have used thorium.
remote network servers
remote secondary storage
L5:
(distributed file systems, Web servers) Thorium itself will not split and release energy. Rather,
when it is exposed to neutrons, it will undergo a series

Z03_MADAN 07_65901_2020_Paper 1 LAW.indd 22 23/12/22 5:11 PM

 NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 2020
of nuclear reactions until it eventually emerges as an
isotope of uranium called U-233, which will readily
split and release energy next time it absorbs a neutron.
Thorium is therefore called fertile, whereas U-233 is
called fissile. China and India both have substantial
reserves of Thorium-bearing minerals and not as
Z03_MADAN 07_65901_2020_Paper 1 LAW.indd 23
Z.23
much Uranium. India has the world’s third largest
reserves of thorium. As discussed, thorium cannot
be used as a fuel in its natural state. It needs to be
converted into its usable “fissile” form after a series of
reactions.
23/12/22 5:11 PM
 NTA-UGC NET/JRF
Paper 1 2021 - Set 1
INSTRUCTIONS To NTA-NET ASPIRANTS
Time Allowed: 1 hour  50 × 2 = 100 Marks

1. This paper consists of Fifty (50) objective type questions of Two (2) marks each.
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. Each item has four alternative responses marked (a), (b), (c) and (d). You have to darken the circle as indicated below
on the correct response against each item.
Example: a b c d where (c) is the correct response.
4. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Sheet given at the end of the book.
5. Read instructions provided with each question carefully.
6. There are no negative marks for incorrect answers.

Information for Question 1 to 5: 4. Which year has the maximum exports?

Study the table carefully and answer the questions that (a) 2017 (b) 2018
follow: (c) 2019 (d) 2020
In the following table, total Exports and Imports of 5
5. Find out the difference between the average export
countries over 4 years (in Rs Crore) is given. Study the
and average import for the country P.
table carefully and answer the given questions. (I-import,
(a) 7.25 (b) 7.75
E-export)
(c) 8.25 (d) 8.50
Year 2017 2018 2019 2020 6. The number of characters in 8 bit ASCII code (Ameri-
Country I E I E I E I E can Standard Code for Information Interchange) is
P 25 30 24 32 28 36 22 32
(a) 128 (b) 256
(c) 512 (d) 64
Q 28 26 26 31 29 37 26 34
7. Match List I with List II:
R 24 32 28 25 32 36 28 34
S 22 28 18 28 16 21 23 32 List I List II
T 26 31 16 33 12 23 21 28 Steps in Inference Statements
A. Thesis (Pratijña) I. Because of smoke
1. Find out the ratio of export done by country S and T
during 2017-2020. B. Reason (Hetu) II. Wherever there is smoke,
(a) 109/115 (b) 111/115 there is fire, as in the kitchen
(c) 108/117 (d) 107/117 C. Example III. The mountain has fire
(Udaharan. a)
2. Which country has the maximum percentage of
profit increase from 2019 to 2020? (Profit = Export D. Application IV. The mountain also has
(Upanaya) smoke accompanied by fire,
- Import)
like the kitchen
(a) P (b) Q
(c) R (d) S Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV
3. Which year has the minimum average import?
(b) A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV
(a) 2017 (b) 2018
(c) A - III, B - II, C - I, D - IV
(c) 2019 (d) 2020
(d) A - III, B - IV, C - II, D – I

Z04_MADAN 07_65901_2021 paper.indd 24 23/12/22 5:13 PM

 NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 2021 - Set 1
8. Given below are two statements
Statement I: Exploration is particularly useful when
researchers lack a clear idea of the problems they will
meet during the study.
Statement II: Through exploration, researchers
develop concepts more clearly, establish priorities,
develop operational definitions, and improve the final
research design.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(c) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(d) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
9. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: According to Naiyayikas, the fallacy of
Savyabhicara occurs when the middle term leads to
different opposite conclusions.
Reason R: When the middle term is irregular, it is dis-
tributively not related to the major term.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below:
(a) A is false but R is true
(b) A is true but R is false
(c) Both A and R are true and R is the correct expla-
nation of A
(d) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explanation of A
10. In order to transform the regulatory system of Higher
Education, the NEP proposes to set up HECI (Higher
Education Commission of India). Which of the follow-
ing are verticals of HECI?
A. NHERC
B. NAS
C. HEGC
D. NCIVE
E. NAC
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(a) A, B and C only
(b) A, C and E only
(c) B, C and E only
(d) C, D and E only
11. United Nations Environmental Program (UNEP) was
the result of deliberations held during
(a) Earth Summit at Rio de Janeiro in 1992
(b) Human Environmental Conference at Stockholm
in 1972
(c) Kyoto Protocol 1997
(d) Montreal Protocol 1987
Z04_MADAN 07_65901_2021 paper.indd 25
Z.25
12. Which one of the following is an important character-
istic of the researchers involved in qualitative study?
(a) Enthusiasm (b) Non-partisan
(c) Reflexivity (d) Transparency
13. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: In classroom communication, teachers
should acknowledge and take into account students’
views.
Reason R: In a classroom, the probability of mes-
sage reception can be enhanced by establishing a
viewpoint.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below
(a) A is false but R is true
(b) A is true but R is false
(c) Both A and R are true and R is the correct expla-
nation of A
(d) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explanation of A
14. If ‘All men are mortal’ is given as True, then which of
the following options can be validly inferred from it?
A. ‘No men is mortal’ is False
B. ‘Some men are mortal’ is True
C. ‘Some men are not mortal’ is True
D. ‘Some men are not mortal’ is False
E. ‘Some men are mortal’ is False
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(a) A, B and D only
(b) A, B and C only
(c) A, B, C and D only
(d) B, C, D and E only
15. INFLIBNET Centre, which is an autonomous Inter-
University Centre of the University Grants Commis-
sion, maintains
(a) e-Gyankosh (b) e-Pathshala
(c) Shodhganga (d) Swayam Prabha
16. Given below are two statements regarding the Router
Statement I: It enables data packets to be routed
between different networks. Statement II: It works in
the Data Link Layer.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(c) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(d) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
17. Survey research is based on which of the following?
(a) Constructivism (b) Hermeneutics
(c) Interpretivism (d) Positivism
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 Z.26 NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 2021 - Set 1

18. The number of Sustainable Development Goals is 26. Which region of brain is involved in our ability to
(a) 13 (b) 15 learn new information, particularly if it is verbal?
(c) 17 (d) 19 (a) Cerebrum (b) Hippocampus
19. Global Citizenship Education promotes (c) Pons (d) Thalamus
(a) Common international laws for global citizenship 27. Match List I with List II
(b) International public relations
List I List II
(c) Issues pertaining to citizenship across countries
involving VISA A. Indian Institute of Advanced Study I. Noida, UP
(d) More peaceful, tolerant, inclusive, secure and B. Indian Biological Sciences and II. Shimla, HP
sustainable societies Research Institute

20. Marshall Mcluhan’s name is associated with the C. Indian Institute of Soil Science III. Bhopal, MP
assertion: D. I ndian Institute of Sugarcane IV. Lucknow, UP
(a) A message is a message Research
(b) The medium is the message Choose the correct answer from the options given

(c) The message determines the medium accurately below:
(d) The message is the medium (a) A - I, B - IV, C - II, D - III
21. How many terms are there in the series 168, 175, 182, (b) A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV
____, 266? (c) A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I
(a) 13 (b) 14 (d) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D – I
(c) 15 (d) 16 28. A total of 324 coins of 20 paise and 25 paise make a
22. Which of the following fractions is the smallest? sum of `71. The number of 20 paise coins is
(a) 11/16 (b) 29/40 (a) 124 (b) 125
(c) 5/8 (d) 65/80 (c) 144 (d) 200
23. Which among the following are non-parametric 29. Given below are two statements
statistics? Statement I: Policy action and implementation plans
A. t-test require sound database systems at the regional level
B. F-test only.
C. Spearman’s rank order correlation Statement II: The statistical system should ensure its
D. Mann-Whitney-Wilcoxon test impeccability with data architecture, security, quality,
E. Kendall coefficient of concordance cleaning and integration.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
In light of the above statements, choose the most
below: appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B and C only (b) B, C and D only (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(c) B, D and E only (d) C, D and E only (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
24. Identify the fallacy committed in the argument:
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Some birds are not beautiful creatures. All dogs are
beautiful creatures. 30. Match List I with List II
Therefore, no dogs are birds. List I List II
(a) Fallacy of Exclusive Premises
I/O device Data transfer rate
(b) Fallacy of the Illicit Process of Major Term
A. Disk I. 50 bps
(c) Fallacy of the Illicit Process of Minor Term
(d) Fallacy of the Undistributed Middle Term B. Mouse II. 1 Mbps
C. Laser printer III. 120 bps
25. The communication among persons working at differ-
ent levels who have no direct reporting relationship is D. Keyboard IV. 100 Mbps
called: Choose the correct answer from the options given

(a) Diagonal communication below:
(b) Horizontal communication (a) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
(c) Intrapersonal communication (b) A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV
(d) Upward communication (c) A - IV, B - II, C - I, D - III
(d) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D – I

Z04_MADAN 07_65901_2021 paper.indd 26 23/12/22 5:13 PM

 NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 2021 - Set 1
31. Which one of the following is an example of a techno-
logical barrier in communication?
(a) Complexity of ideas
(b) Low bandwidth of internet
(c) Personal attitude towards technology
(d) Physical locations of communicators
32. Given below are two statements
Statement I: The compound interest on `280 for 18
months at 10 % per annum is `44.3. Statement II: At
5.6 % rate of simple interest, a certain sum will be
doubled in 15 years
In light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(c) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(d) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
33. The Post Office protocol is
(a) Protocol used for sending emails
(b) Protocol used for transfer of files from one com-
puter to another computer
(c) Protocol used to handle email attachments
(d) Protocol used when receiving emails from the
email server
34. CBCS is
(a) Choice Based Credit System
(b) Credit Based Choice Scores
(c) Criteria Based Choice System
(d) Criteria Based Creditable Scores
35. mooKIT platform uses, an open source content man-
agement system.
(a) DRUPAL (b) JOOMLA
(c) Moodle (d) SAKAI
36. Following are some statements regarding File Trans-
fer Protocol (FTP). Choose the correct statements
A. It is used to access the world wide web (www)
B. It is used to download data from file servers
C. It is used for very small files
D. Files are transferred from one device to another
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(a) A and B only (b) A and C only
(c) B and C only (d) B and D only
37. According to Urie Bronfenbrenner’s biological model
of human development, microsystem constitutes
____________.
A. Immediate family
B. School
C. Beliefs
D. Customs
E. Neighbourhood
Z04_MADAN 07_65901_2021 paper.indd 27
Z.27
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(a) A, B and E only (b) A, B and C only
(c) A, C and E only (d) C, D and E only
38. Given below are two statements
Statement I: Small amount of atmospheric Nitrogen
dioxide NO2 is produced from polluting sources
Statement II: Most of the atmospheric NO2 is produced
due to photochemical reactions in the atmosphere
In light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
39. The average of ten number is 7. If each number is mul-
tiplied by 11, then the average of the new set of num-
bers is:
(a) 72 (b) 77
(c) 78 (d) 82
40. Which of the following water borne diseases may be
caused by virus, bacteria and protozoa?
(a) Cholera (b) Diarrhea
(c) Hepatitis (d) Typhoid
41. Given below are two statements
Statement I: According to Piaget, the ability to solve
conservation problems depends on having an under-
standing of three basic aspects of reasoning: identity,
compensation, and reversibility.
Statement II: The stage of classification does not
depend on a student’s ability to focus on a single
characteristic of objects in a set and group the objects
according to that characteristic.
In light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
42. Some of the types of hypothesis are as follows:
A. Descriptive
B. Null
C. Confounding
D. Intervening
E. Explanatory (Causal)
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(a) A, B and D only (b) A, B and E only
(c) A, B and C only (d) B, C and D only
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 Z.28 NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 2021 - Set 1

43. ________ messages have more or less same meaning
for the audience.
(a) Abstract (b) Complex
(c) Connotative (d) Denotative
44. Given below are two statements
Statement I: Truth and Falsehood are predicates of
Arguments Statement II: Validity and Invalidity are
predicates of Statements
In light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
45. Which of the following state has maximum installed
wind power as per MNRE’s latest report?
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Karnataka
(c) Maharashtra (d) Tamil Nadu
Read the passage carefully and answer the questions
46-50:
Leadership studies are an emergent discipline, and the
concept of leadership will continue to change. Leadership
lore is defined as an influence relationship among lead-
ers and followers who want real change and outcomes
that reflect their shared purpose. Leadership involves
influence. It occurs among people; those people who
intentionally desire significant changes, and the changes
reflect purpose shared by the leaders and their followers.
Influence means that the relationship among people
is not passive; however, also part of this definition is that
influence is multidirectional. It does not use orders or
threats to make somebody do something. The basic cul-
tural values in America make it easiest to think of leader-
ship as something a leader does to a follower. However,
leadership has an effect in both directions. In most orga-
nizations, superiors influence subordinates, but subordi-
nates also influence superiors. The people involved in the
relationship want real and important changes- leadership
involves creating change, not maintaining what normally
happens. In addition, the changes sought are not dictated
by leaders, but reflect purposes that leaders and followers
share. Moreover, change is toward an outcome that the
leaders and follower both want; a desired future or shared
purpose that motivates them toward this more preferable
outcome. An important aspect of leadership is influencing
others to come together around a common vision. Thus,
leadership involves the influence of people to bring about
change toward a desirable future.
46. What is the main theme of this passage?
(a) Argument about leadership
(b) Explanation of leadership construct
(c) Models of leadership
(d) Pros and cons of leadership
47. The concept of leadership discussed in this passage is
(a) Exceptional (b) Horizontal
(c) Individualistic (d) Verticle-topdown
48. “Leadership studies are an emerging discipline”,
means:
(a) Leadership studies are a valid field of research
(b) Leadership studies are an established field
(c) Leadership studies is an elaborate field
(d) Leadership studies is an evolving domain of
scholarship
49. What should be the outcome of leadership actions?
(a) Movement towards common vision of the leader
and the followers
(b) Movement towards the vision of the leader
(c) Movement towards the vision of the majority
(d) Strengthening of the authority of leaders
50. What variables are used for defining leadership?
(a) Power to affect relationship and desire for change
in the true sense of the team
(b) Power to change and control
(c) Power to effect and desire for mandated change
(d) Power to get things done quickly by influence

Answer Keys
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (b)

11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (d) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (b)

21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (b) 25. (a) 26. (a, b, d) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (d)

31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (d) 34. (a) 35. (a) 36. (d) 37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (b)

41. (c) 42. (b) 43. (c) 44. (b) 45. (d) 46. (b) 47. (b) 48. (d) 49. (a) 50. (a)

* There may be aberrations in 1-2 questions due to wrong framing of questions, being too subjective or they are data oriented but dates or years are
not mentioned.

Z04_MADAN 07_65901_2021 paper.indd 28 23/12/22 5:13 PM

 NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 2021 - Set 1 Z.29

Hints and Solutions

Questions 1 to 5 are from Data Interpretation The total imports during different years are:

1. (a) Imports during 2017 = 25 + 28 + 24 + 22 + 26 =

125
Exports by country S during 2017–2020 = 28 + 28 +
21 + 32 = 109 Imports during 2018 = 24 + 26 + 28 + 18 + 16 =

Exports by country T during 2017–2020 = 31 + 33 + 112
23 + 28 = 115 Imports during 2019 = 28 + 29 + 32 + 16 + 12 =

Thus, required ratio of exports between S and T = 117
109 / 115 Imports during 2020 = 22 + 26 + 28 + 23 + 21 =
2. (d) 120
As per question, the profit percentage increase by dif-
Thus, the minimum average imports were in the year
ferent countries between 2019 and 2020 is to be cal- 2018. Thus, the answer is (b).
culated first. 4. (d)
For Country P As every figure is to be divided by 5 (number of years)
to calculate average exports, we may get the answer
Profit in 2019 = 36 – 28 = 8
directly by total as well, and thus save time.
Profit in 2020 = 32 – 22 = 10
The total exports during different years are:

Percentage increase = (10 – 8) / 8 × 100 = 2 / 8 × 100
Exports during 2017 = 30 + 26 + 32 + 28 + 31 =

= 25%
147
For Country Q
Exports during 2018 = 32 + 31 + 25 + 28 + 33 =

Profit in 2019 = 37 – 29 = 8 149
Profit in 2020 = 34 – 26 = 8 Export during 2019 = 36 + 37 + 36 + 21 + 23 = 153

Percentage increase = (8– 8) / 8 × 100 = 0 / 8 × 100 Export during 2020 = 32 + 34 + 34 + 32 + 28 = 160

= 0%
The maximum average exports were in the year 2020.

For Country R
Thus, the answer is (d).
Profit in 2019 = 36 – 32 = 4
5. (b)
Profit in 2020 = 34 – 28 = 6
The average exports by country P = 30 + 32 + 36 +
Percentage increase = (6 – 4) / 4 × 100 = 2 / 4 × 100
32 = 130 / 4 = 32.5
= 50% The average imports by country P = 25 + 24 + 28 +
As per question, the profit percentage increase by dif-
22 = 99 / 4 = 24.75
ferent countries between 2019 and 2020
Difference = 32.5 – 24.75 = 7.75
For Country S 6. (b) ICT
Profit in 2019 = 21 – 16 = 5
ASCII Code:
Profit in 2020 = 32 – 23 = 9
Computers work in binary code. Information is coded
Percentage increase = (9 – 5) /5 × 100 = 4 / 5 × 100
using 0s and 1s. Each 0 or 1 is called a bit. In the early
= 80% years of computer development, different computer
For Country T companies applied the binary system in their own
way.
Profit in 2019 = 23 – 12 = 11
Eventually, a set of standards was developed. Com-
Profit in 2020 = 28 – 21 = 7 puter manufactures agreed to use one code called
Percentage increase = (7 – 11) / 11 × 100 = Reduction the ASCII (American Standard Code for Information
Thus, country S has shown the maximum increase in profit. Interchange). ASCII is an 8-bit code. That is, it uses
3. (b) eight bits to represent a letter or a punctuation mark.
Eight bits are called a byte. A binary code with eight
As every figure is to be divided by 5 (number of years) digits, such as 1101 11012, can be stored in one byte
to calculate average imports, we may get the answer of computer memory.
directly by total as well, and thus save time.

Z04_MADAN 07_65901_2021 paper.indd 29 23/12/22 5:13 PM

 Z.30
7. (b) Logical Reasoning
The knowledge through has been classified into
1. svartha – for oneself – one’s own inferential knowl-
edge, through linking it with major and minor premises.
2. parartha – through justification of middle term –
inferential knowledge for another.
3. Pararthanumana – If the motive is for demon-
strating the truth of the conclusion to others it is called
as Pararthanumana. Here, conclusion is arrived at
through justification of the middle term that leads to
it. A man having inferred the existence of fire in a hill
lays it down as a thesis and proves it as a conclusion
following from the major and minor premises and
their combination into a third premise. The latter has
a five membered syllogism viz., pratijna, hetu, udaha-
rana, upanaya and nigamana.
1st member – Pratijna (preposition) — the hill is fiery
2nd member – Hetu (reason) — because of smoke
3rd member – Udaharana (example) — wherever
smoke exists, fire also exists as in kitchen.
4th member – Upanaya (application / subsumptive
correlative) — there is smoke on the hill.
5th member – Nigamana (conclusion) — Hence, the
hill is fiery
Apart from above five, the few of the old Naiyayikas
speaks of other five members of syllogism:
• Jijnasa — on the desire to know the truth.
• Samsaya — doubt about real nature of a thing.
• Shakyaprapti — the capacity of the pramanas to
lead to true knowledge.
• Prayojana — the purpose of making an inference
• Samshaya vyudasa — the removal of all doubts the
truth of an inference.
Though Vatsyayana disagreed with the first five and
stated them as irrelevant.
8. (b) Research Aptitude
Statement II is the solution for Statement I. For this
purpose, we conduct exploratory study that is more
useful in qualitative research.
In Statement II, there is list of steps in exploratory study.
Research is a continuous process that needs improve-
ment with the passage of time, thus it is non–
exhaustive. Exploratory research mostly deals with
qualitative data. Most of the researchers work on
existing theories or formulations and build on them.
Some researchers are motivated to work on a problem
that has not been studied very clearly to establish pri-
orities, develop operational definitions and improv-
ing the final research design.
Z04_MADAN 07_65901_2021 paper.indd 30
NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 2021 - Set 1
Much time is spent on exploring the problem so
that better insights are built for the future. It usually
doesn’t lead to a conclusive result. It starts on a gen-
eral idea and we try to specify the related issues with
the topic of the research.
Exploratory research is inexpensive, highly interactive
and open–ended in nature. There is usually no prior
relevant information available from past researchers.
Since there is no standard for carrying out explor-
atory research, it is usually flexible and scattered.
9. (c) Logical Reasoning
This question pertains to irregular behaviour of ‘Mid-
dle Term’. We can solve other questions, linked directly
with Indian philosophy as in the following manner.
The fallacies in Anumana that can be termed as hetv-
abhasha may occur due to the following:
(i) Asiddha: This fallacy occurs due to unproved
hetu. It is also called as Paksadharmata.
(a) Ashrayasiddha: If Paksha (minor term) itself is
unreal, then there cannot be locus of the hetu. For
example, The sky–lotus is fragrant, because it is a
lotus like any other lotus.
(b) Svarupasiddha: It is not possible that Hetu exist in
paksa. For example, sound is a quality, because it is visible.
(c) Vyapyatvasiddha: This is termed as ‘conditional
hetu’. For example, ‘wherever there is fire, there is
smoke’. The presence of smoke is because of wet fuel.
(ii) Savyabhichara: This is termed as the fallacy of
irregular hetu.
(a) Sadharana: Here, the hetu is considered too
wide. It is present in both sapaksa and vipaksa. ‘The
hill has fire because it is knowable’.
(b) Asadharana: Here, the hetu is considered too
narrow. It is present only in the Paksha. It is not pres-
ent in the Sapaksa and in the Vipaksha. For example,
‘sound is eternal because it is audible’.
(c) Anupasamhari:
(iii) Satpratipaksa: In this case, one hetu is contra-
dicted by another hetu. In case, both have equal force,
then nothing should follow. For example, ‘sound
is eternal, because it is audible’, and ‘sound is non–
eternal, because it is produced’. The word, ‘audible’
is counterbalanced by ‘produced’. Here, ‘audible’ and
‘produced’ carry the equal force.
(iv) Badhita: Here, the another proof (as defined by
perception) definitely contradicts and disproves the
middle term (hetu). For example, ‘fire is cold because
it is a substance’.
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 NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 2021 - Set 1
(v) Viruddha: Here, the virudha, instead of proving
something it is proving the opposite. For example,
‘sound is eternal because it is produced’.
10. (b) Higher Education System
New Education Policy, 2020 proposes a single regula-
tor for higher education institutions across the coun-
try, that will be called as Higher Education Council of
India (HECI). It will have four verticals for its various
roles.
(i) National Higher Education Regulatory Coun-
cil (NHERC): It will function as the common, single
point regulator for the higher education sector includ-
ing teacher education. It however excludes medical
and legal education.
(ii) National Accreditation Council (NAC) – a
‘meta–accrediting body’): It will be based primarily on
basic norms, public self–disclosure, good governance,
and outcomes. It will be carried out by independent
accrediting institutions supervised and overseen by
NAC.
(iii) Higher Education Grants Council (HEGC): It
will look into funding and financing of colleges and
universities.
(iv) General Education Council (GEC): It will frame
expected learning outcomes for higher education
programmes, also referred to as ‘graduate attributes’.
GEC will formulate a National Higher Education
Qualification Framework (NHEQF).
11. (b) People, Development and Environment
Here, we have taken a broad view to deal with future
questions. Since 1972, United Nations Environment
Programme (UNEP) has been the global authority
to set the environmental agenda, the concept of ‘sus-
tainable development’ for future generations and an
authoritative advocate for the global environment.
UNEP is headquartered in Nairobi, Kenya. It has 193
Member States and representatives from civil society,
businesses, etc. through the UN Environment Assem-
bly, the world’s highest–level decision–making body
on the environment.
UNEP’s Medium–Term Strategy (MTS) articulates its
role in delivering the promises of the ‘2030 Agenda
for Sustainable Development and the United Nations
Conference on Sustainable Development (Rio+20)
as well as its outcome document, “The Future We
Want.”
Through its campaigns, particularly ‘World Environ-
ment Day’ (June 5), UNEP raises awareness and advo-
cates for effective environmental action. The Day was
established in 1972 by the UN at ‘Stockholm Con-
ference on the Human Environment’ (5–16 June,
1972). This day is connected with the launch of
Z04_MADAN 07_65901_2021 paper.indd 31
Z.31
‘UN Decade on Ecosystem Restoration 2021–2030’.
A step further, UNEP can be further linked with
UN Framework Convention on Climate Change
(UNFCCC), Conference of Parties (COPs), Kyoto Pro-
tocol, Paris Agreement and COP26 Glasgow meeting
asking for Zero Emissions. World seems to have set
Year 2050 as the target year for Zero Emissions and
India has set Year 2070 for its own emissions during
Glasgow COP26 Meeting.
12. (c) Research Aptitude
Reflexivity: Research should be classified as a “Mis-
sion’, the researchers get in this mission and their own
personalities become part of it. Conducting qualitative
research, such as fieldwork, changes a researcher in
many ways. Through reflexivity, researchers acknowl-
edge the changes brought about in themselves as a
result of the research process and how these changes
have affected the research process. Thus, this reflexiv-
ity is an iterative and empowering process. Reflexiv-
ity should be recognized as a significant part of the
research findings. Thus, it is an analytic attention to
the researcher’s role in qualitative research”, it is both
a concept and a process. As a concept, it refers to a
certain level of consciousness.
There are the few basic principles in the linked quali-
tative research:
(i) Feminist principle
(ii) Rights–based research: the respect of human
rights of participants during the research process.
(iii) Participatory research principles: It recognizes
that people have expert knowledge and deep insight
into their own lives and communities.
13. (c) Communication / Teaching Aptitude
This question is linked with feedback in the classroom
to make it effective communication. A teacher should
be proficient in all four modes of communication – lis-
tening, speaking, reading, and writing – and should
know how to utilize this proficiency effectively in an
educational institute environment. Being able to do
this has been proven to impact the success students
achieve in their academic lives, as well as the teach-
er’s own career success.
14. (a) Logical Reasoning
If ‘all men are mortal’ is true, then ….
To deal with such questions, we need to take help
from ‘square of opposition’.
Contradictories: Contradictory propositions cannot
be simultaneously true and false. If one is true, the
other is necessarily false and vice versa. That is, if ‘A’
is true, then ‘O’ is false; ‘E’ is false.
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 Z.32 NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 2021 - Set 1

Every S is P No S is P 4. e–ShodhSindhu – Consortium for Higher Educa-

A Contraries E tion e–Resources
5. ShodhShuddhi – Provides Plagiarism Detection
Software to Institutions
Subalterns Contradictories Subalterns
6. IRINS – Research Information Management Sys-
tem for Institutions
7. Vidya–Mitra – Integrated e–Content Portal
8. Vidwan – Expert Database & National Researcher
I Subcontraries O Network
Some S is P Some S is not P
9. e–PG Pathshala – an initiative of the Ministry of
Contrary: When two universal propositions differ Education under its National Mission on Education
only in quality. By definition, both opposite propo- through ICT (NME–ICT) being executed by UGC.
sitions can be both false and true at the same time.
10. e–Pathya: It is one the verticals of e–PG Pathshala
If one of them is true, the other must necessarily be
which is software driven course / content package
false. If one is false, the other may be true or false.
that facilitates students pursuing higher education
That is, if ‘E’ is true, then ‘A’ is true; ‘I’ is false
(PG level) in distance learning as well as campus
Sub–contraries: Contrasting propositions can be learning mode. it also facilitates offline access.
true simultaneously, but they cannot be false at the
11. e–Adhyayan (e–Books): e–Adhyayan is a plat-
same time. If one of them is true, the other may be
form to provide 700+ e–Books for the Post–Gradu-
true or false, but if one of them is false, the other must
ate Courses. All the e–Books are derived from e–PG
be true. That is, if ‘I’ is true, then ‘E’ is true; ‘O’ is true.
Pathshala courses. It also facilitates play–list of video
Sub – alternation: When two prepositions differ only content.
in quantity (one is universal and the other is special),
12. UGC–MOOCs: It is one of vertical to produce
such an opposition is said to be sub – alternation.
course on Post Graduate subjects in SWAYAM (Online
These propositions may be simultaneously true or
Courses, a Ministry of Education initiative). UGC
simultaneously false. That is, if ‘O’ is true, then ‘E’ is
is one of the national coordinator of SWAYAM, and
false; ‘I’ is true
INFLIBNET is technical partner for UGC–MOOCs.
Thus, if ‘all men are mortal’ is true, then we can validly
16. (d) Information and Communication Technology (ICT)
infer that No men are mortal is false’(Contrary). Some
men are mortal is true (Sub – alteration) and ‘Some Routers are networking devices. They are responsible
men are not mortal’ (contradictory proposition). for receiving, analysing, and forwarding data pack-
ets among the connected computer networks. On the
15. (c) Information and Communication Technology (ICT)
arrival of a data packet, the router inspects the des-
INFLIBNET – It is abbreviation of Information and tination address, consults its routing tables to decide
Library Network Centre. It is an Autonomous Inter– the optimal route and then transfers the packet along
University Centre (IUC) of UGC. It is located in this route.
Gandhinagar, Gujarat. It is a major National Pro-
A router can be used both in LANs (Local Area Net-
gramme initiated by the UGC in March 1991 as a
works) and WANs (Wide Area Networks). Routers are
project under the IUCAA, it became an independent
more expensive than other networking devices like
Inter–University Centre in June 1996. INFLIBNET is
hubs,bridges and switches. Routers are manufactured
involved in modernizing university libraries in India
by some popular companies such as Cisco, D–Link,
using the state–of–art technologies for the optimum
HP, Nortel etc.
utilisation of information. INFLIBNET is set out to be
a major player in promoting scholarly communication A router is a layer 3 or network layer device in OSI
among academicians and researchers in India. Model while data link layer works in the layer 2 of OSI
Model. Data link layer is responsible for maintaining
The following institutions and projects are linked
the data link between two hosts or nodes.
with it.
17. (d) Research Aptitude
1. Shodhganga – A Reservoir of Indian Theses
Survey Research
2. INDCAT – Online Union Catalogue of Indian
Universities Survey research a research method involving the use
of standardized questionnaires or interviews to collect
3. SOUL – State–of–art Integrated Library Manage-
data about people and their preferences, thoughts,
ment System

Z04_MADAN 07_65901_2021 paper.indd 32 23/12/22 5:13 PM

 NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 2021 - Set 1
and behaviors in a systematic manner. As surveys are
used to collect data from a predefined subject(s), they
have been counted under ‘positivism’ approach.
The survey as a formal research method was pio-
neered in the 1930–40s by sociologist Paul Lazarsfeld
to examine the effects of the radio on political opin-
ion formation of the United States. This method has
since become a very popular method for quantitative
research in the social sciences.
The survey method can be used for descriptive,
exploratory, or explanatory research.
Survey research has several inherent strengths com-
pared to other research methods due to following
reasons.
(i) Survey is an excellent vehicle to measure a wide
variety of data – people’s preferences (politi-
cal orientation), traits (self–esteem), attitudes
(toward immigrants), beliefs (about a new law),
behaviors (smoking), or factual information
(income).
(ii) It is ideally suited for remotely collecting data
about a population. For example, a large nation
such as India or its state UP, MP, Maharashtra
that can be covered using mail–in, electronic
mail, or telephone surveys. Researches can use
well planned sampling to ensure that the popula-
tion is adequately represented in a small sample.
(iii) Interviews may be the only way of reaching cer-
tain population groups such as the homeless or
illegal immigrants for which there is no sampling
frame available.
(iv) 
Survey research is economical in terms of
researcher time, effort and cost than most other
methods such as experimental research and case
research.
At the same time, survey research also has some
unique disadvantages. It is subject to a large number
of biases such as non–response bias, sampling bias,
social desirability bias, and recall bias, etc.
Depending on data collection techniques, survey
research can be divided into two broad categories:
(i) Questionnaire surveys – mail–in, group–admin-
istered, or online surveys), and
(ii) Interview surveys – personal, telephone, or
focus group interviews (These have been dis-
cussed in detail in second unit of Pearson title for
NTA–NET exam).
Constructing a survey questionnaire (or interview-
ing) is an art. For the benefit of research students,
the following responses to structured questions have
been suggested.
Z04_MADAN 07_65901_2021 paper.indd 33
Z.33
(i) Dichotomous response – responses such as true/
false, yes/no, or agree/disagree. Is MSP required for
crops – Yes / No
(ii) Nominal response – more than two unordered
options. What is your industry of employment: manu-
facturing / supply chain / consumer services / retail /
education.
(iii) Ordinal response – more than two ordered
options. What is your highest level of education: high
school / college degree / graduate studies/ PG / PhD.
(iv) Interval–level response – When respondents
are presented with a 5–point or 7–point Likert scale,
semantic differential scale, or Guttman scale etc.
(v) Continuous response – When respondents enter
a continuous (ratio–scaled) value with a meaning-
ful zero point, such as their age or tenure in a firm.
These responses generally tend to be of the fill–in–the
blanks type.
The survey questions should be stated in a very sim-
ple language, preferably in active voice, and without
complicated words or jargon so that they are clearly
understandable by a typical respondent. Questions
must not be biased and too much detailed.
Double–barreled questions are those that can have
multiple answers. For example, are you satisfied with
the hardware and software provided for your work?
Question should not be presumptuous such as on
taxes – too high or too low. Avoid questions with
built–in presumptions.
‘Question sequencing’ should be proper, such as
questions should flow logically from one to the next.
Role of interviewer should be motivational for respon-
dents. They should make a good questionnaire.
Just pausing and waiting (without going into the
next question) may suggest to respondents that the
interviewer is waiting for more detailed response. It is
called as ‘silent probe’.
The interviewer can try the psychotherapist’s trick
of repeating what the respondent said is called as
‘Reflection’.
Five common biases in survey research are non–
response bias, sampling bias (excluding some peo-
ple who don’t have some resources such as mobile
phone), social desirability bias (avoid negative opin-
ions), recall bias (subjects’ motivation, memory, and
ability to respond). Common method bias refers to
the amount of spurious covariance shared between
independent and dependent variables that are mea-
sured at the same point in time such as in a cross–
sectional survey, using the same instrument, such as
a questionnaire.
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 Z.34
18. (c) People, Development and Environment
Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)
SDGs, also known as the Global Goals, were adopted
by the United Nations in 2015 as a universal call to
action to end poverty, protect the planet, and ensure
that by 2030 all people enjoy peace and prosperity.
The 17 SDGs are integrated—they recognize that
action in one area will affect outcomes in others, and
that development must balance social, economic and
environmental sustainability.
GOAL 1: NO POVERTY
GOAL 2: ZERO HUNGER
GOAL 3: GOOD HEALTH AND WELL–BEING
GOAL 4: QUALITY EDUCATION
GOAL 5: GENDER EQUALITY
GOAL 6: CLEAN WATER AND SANITATION
GOAL 7: AFFORDABLE AND CLEAN ENERGY
GOAL 8: DECENT WORK AND ECONOMIC GROWTH
GOAL 9: INDUSTRY, INNOVATION AND
INFRASTRUCTURE
GOAL 10: REDUCED INEQUALITIES
GOAL 11: SUSTAINABLE CITIES AND COMMUNITIES
GOAL 12: RESPONSIBLE CONSUMPTION AND
PRODUCTION
GOAL 13: CLIMATE ACTION
GOAL 14: LIFE BELOW WATER
GOAL 15: LIFE ON LAND
GOAL 16: PEACE, JUSTICE AND STRONG
INSTITUTIONS
GOAL 17: PARTNERSHIPS FOR THE GOALS
19. (d) Higher Education System
Global Citizenship Education: Topics and learning
objectives, should be counted as the first pedagogical
guidance from UNESCO on global citizenship educa-
tion. With such education, young people are able to
solve problems, make decisions, think critically, com-
municate ideas effectively and work well with others.
This not only helps them personally and education-
ally, but eventually professionally as well. Thus, a
global education in the classroom is paramount.
20. (b) Communication
‘The medium is the message’ is an expression coined
by Canadian educator Marshall McLuhan that is often
interpreted to mean that the “media” used to commu-
nicate information have a significant impact on the
messages they deliver. The form of a message (print,
visual, musical, etc.) determines the ways in which
Z04_MADAN 07_65901_2021 paper.indd 34
NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 2021 - Set 1
that message will be perceived. Modern electronic
communications (including radio, television, films,
and computers) would have far–reaching sociologi-
cal, aesthetic, and philosophical consequences, to the
point of actually altering the ways in which we experi-
ence the world.
21. (c) Mathematical Reasoning and Aptitude
We can solve this question, by counting all the items
with the difference d (i.e 175 – 168 = 182 – 175)
Or by using the following formula of Arithmetic
Progression
an = 266, a = 168 and d = 7
Formula: an = a + (n – 1)d
266 = 168 + (n–1)7
n–1 = (266 – 168) / 7 = 98 / 7 = 14
n = 14 + 1 = 15
Thus, (c) is the correct answer.
22. (c) Mathematical Reasoning and Aptitude
The highest denominator in options is 80. We will
make every fraction equal to 80.
11/16 × 5/5 = 55/80
29/40 × 2/2 = 58/80
5/8 = 5/8 × 10/10 = 50 / 80
65/80 – no change required.
Now every fraction has 80 as denominator, we need to
compare only numerators to compare.
Thus 5/8 is the smallest fraction.
23. (d) Research Aptitude
Non–parametric (and Parametric tests): First, we
need to look at some basic difference between para-
metric and non–parametric tests.
In parametric tests, the parameters are assumed and
the population distribution is always known. To cal-
culate the central tendency, a mean value is used.
In such tests, we assume normal distribution curve
(bell shaped curve). For example, if we were to mea-
sure the height of people (in a population), we take
some sample, we would see a typical bell–shaped
curve. This distribution is also called the Gaussian
distribution.
In statistics, nonparametric tests are methods of sta-
tistical analysis that do not require a distribution to
meet the required assumptions to be analyzed (espe-
cially if the data is not normally distributed). Due
to this reason, they are sometimes referred to as
distribution–free tests.
Parametric tests are generally more powerful than the
non–parametric tests, where smaller sample sizes are
required in parametric tests.
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 NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 2021 - Set 1
Types Of Non–Parametric Tests
• 1 Sample Sign Test
• 1 Sample Wilcoxon Signed Rank Test
• Friedman Test
• Goodman Kruska’s Gamma
• Kruskal–Wallis Test
• The Mann–Kendall Trend Test
• Mann–Whitney Test
• Mood’s Median Test
• Spearman Rank Correlation
24. (b) Logical Reasoning
Exclusive premise: The fallacy of exclusive premises
is a syllogistic fallacy committed in a categorical syl-
logism that is invalid because both of its premises are
negative.
Illicit major: Illicit major is a formal fallacy commit-
ted in a categorical syllogism that is invalid because
its major term is undistributed in the major premise
but distributed in the conclusion.
Premise Type Distributed
Some birds are ‘O’ type Only predicate
not beautiful (Particular
creatures. negative)
Therefore, no dogs E type (Universal Both subject
are birds. negative) and predicate
Thus, in premises 1 some birds (major term / subject)
are undistributed. In the conclusion dogs (subject)
and the birds (predicate) both are distributed.
Undistributed middle: The fallacy of the undistrib-
uted middle is a formal fallacy that is committed
when the middle term in a categorical syllogism is not
distributed in either the minor premise or the major
premise. It is thus a syllogistic fallacy.
Illicit minor: the fallacy of illicit minor term is undis-
tributed in the premise but is distributed in the con-
clusion (but not vice – versa).
25. (a) Communication
Diagonal communication: The communication
among the persons at different levels who have no
direct relationship is called diagonal relationship.
This communication is effective as hierarchical bind-
ings are removed and there is a free flow of informa-
tion, cutting across different positions.
Horizontal communication: communication with
people at the same level in a hierarchy of peers and
colleagues is termed as horizontal communication.
This may combine both formal and informal
communication.
Z04_MADAN 07_65901_2021 paper.indd 35
Z.35
Intrapersonal communication: it is a communica-
tion within an individual almost all the times, such as
talking to oneself, listening to oneself and relating to
oneself. It includes individual reflection, meditation,
contemplation and praying to God.
Upward communication: This communication is the
process of information flowing from the lower levels
of a hierarchy to the upper levels. It is the process by
which lower–level company employees can directly
communicate with upper management to provide
feedback, complaints or suggestions regarding the
day–to–day operations of the company.
26. (a, b, d) People, Development and Environment
Cerebrum: Cerebrum, the largest and uppermost
portion of the brain. The cerebrum consists of the
cerebral hemispheres and accounts for two–thirds of
the total weight of the brain.
Hippocampus: It is a small, curved formation in the
brain that plays an important role in the limbic sys-
tem. It is involved in the formation of new memories
and is also associated with learning and emotions.
Pons: It is a portion of the hindbrain that connects the
cerebral cortex with the medulla oblongata. It also
serves as a communications and coordination centre
between the two hemispheres of the brain.
Thalamus: The thalamus functions as a relay
station in which sensory pathways of the spinal cord
and brainstem form synapses on their way to the cere-
bral cortex. Specific locations in the thalamus are
related to specific areas on the body surface and in the
cerebral cortex.
27. (b) Higher Education System
Indian Institute of Advance Study (IIAS): This
research institute is based in Shimla. It was set up by
the Ministry of Education in 1964 and it started func-
tioning in 1965.
Indian Biological Science and Research Institute
(IBRI): It is located in Noida, UP. IBRI is run by the
academicians from different technological fields
such as Pharmaceutics, Biotechnology, Bioinformat-
ics, Information Technology and Mathematics. The
mandate of IBRI is to undertake research and training
from basics to industrial level in biosciences domains.
Indian Institute of Soil Science (IISS): This i­ nstitute
is linked with ICAR (Indian Council of Agriculture
Research). ICAR–IISS was established in 1988 at
­Bhopal with a mandate of “Enhancing Soil Productiv-
ity with Minimum Environmental Degradation”. IISS
has emerged as a leader in basic and strategic research
on soils in the country.
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 Z.36
Indian Institute of Sugarcane Research (IISR):
IISR was established in Lucknow in 1952. It deals with
basic issues linked with sugarcane. In 1954, its work-
ing was taken care of by Government, then in 1969, it
was transferred to ICAR, New Delhi alongwith other
central agricultural research institutes.
28. (d) Mathematical Reasoning and Aptitude
Let number of 20 paise coins = X
Then number of 25 paise coins = 324 – X
Total value = X (20/100) + (324 –X) 25/100 = ` 71
X / 5 + (324 – X)/4 = ` 71
X = 200
Thus, the number of 20 paise coins is 200.
29. (c) Higher Education system
This question is linked with good governance, so
linked with public. Data (statistics) and ICT are also
going to be part of it. There seems to be some aberra-
tion in statement II.
30. (d) Information and Communication Technology
This is a direct question of matching.
31. (b) Communication
Technological barrier: low bandwidth of internet is
example of technological barrier.
Psychological barrier: Complexity of ideas and per-
sonal attitude towards technology is an example psy-
chological barrier.
Geographical barriers: physical locations of com-
municators is a geographical barrier.
Semantic barrier: communication barriers related to
language and the meaning of the words.
32. (a) Mathematical Reasoning and Aptitude
Statement I
Amount = 280 (1+10/100)(1+5/100)
= 280(11/10)(21/20) = ` 323.4
Compound Interest = Amount – Principal
= 323.4 – 280 = ` 43.4
The given answer is ` 44.3.
Statement II
This question is based on simple interest, so interest
will be ` 5.6 on ` 100 every annum. In 15 years, total
SI will be 15 × 5.6 = ` 84. Thus, amount will not be
doubled, but much less than that.
Thus, both statements are not correct.
33. (d) Information and Communication Technology
In computing, the Post Office Protocol is an applica-
tion–layer Internet standard protocol used by e–mail
clients to retrieve e–mail from a mail server. POP ver-
sion 3 is the version in common use.
Z04_MADAN 07_65901_2021 paper.indd 36
NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 2021 - Set 1
The Post Office Protocol provides access via an Inter-
net Protocol (IP) network for a user client application
to a mailbox (maildrop) maintained on a mail server.
Thus, the protocol used when receiving emails from
the email server.
34. (a) Higher Education System
CBCS stands for the choice–based credit system.
CBCS grading systems surpass the ‘conventional per-
centage’ and grading means to evaluate a student’s
academic skills. CBCS follows a more standardised
way of assessment and examination management.
CBCS software grading system is uniform across all
educational institutes. It follows the semester pattern
and not the annual examination pattern.
UGC also follows a 10–point grading system, with 0
being absent/fail and 10 being outstanding.
Evaluation in choice Based Credit System in
Higher Education
Letter Grades Grade Points
O (Outstanding) 10
A+ (Excellent) 9
A (Very Good) 8
B+ (Good) 7
B (Above Average) 6
C (Average) 5
P (Pass) 4
F (Fail) or Absent (AB) 0
35. (a) Teaching Aptitude/ ICT
DRUPAL: Drupal is a free software package that
allows an individual or a community of users to easily
publish, manage and organize a wide variety of con-
tent on a website.
Drupal is used by mooKIT platform for open source
content management system.
JOOMLA: This uses to build, organize, manage and
publish content for websites, blogs, Intranets and
mobile applications.
Moodle: Moodle is a free and open–source learning
management system (LMS) written in PHP and dis-
tributed under GNU (General Public licence). Moo-
dle is used for blended learning, distance education,
flipped classroom and other e–learning projects in
schools, universities, workplaces and other sectors
SAKAI: Sakai is a free, community source, educa-
tional software platform designed to support teach-
ing, research and collaboration. Systems of this type
are also known as Course Management Systems
(CMS), Learning Management Systems (LMS), or Vir-
tual Learning Environments (VLE).
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 NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 2021 - Set 1
36. (d) Information and Communication Technology
File Transfer Protocol (FTP): FTP is a standard com-
munication protocol used for the transfer of computer
files from a server to a client on a computer network.
FTP is built on a client–server model architecture
using separate control and data connections between
the client and the server. FTP users may authenticate
themselves with a clear–text sign–in protocol, nor-
mally in the form of a username and password. FTP
is often secured with SSL/TLS (FTPS) or replaced
with SSH File Transfer Protocol (SFTP) for secure
transmission.
37. (a) People, Development and Environment
According to Urie Bronfenbrenner’s biological model
of human development, microsystem constitutes
immediate family, schools and neighbourhood.
38. (a) People, Development and Environment
Statement I: small amount of atmospheric Nitrogen
dioxide is produced from polluting sources.
NO₂ is an intermediate in the industrial synthesis of
nitric acid. It is largely used in the production of fer-
tilisers also. At higher temperatures it is a reddish–
brown gas. It can be fatal if inhaled in large quantity.
Statement II: Most of the atmospheric NO2 is
produced due to photochemical reactions in the
atmosphere.
Nitrogen dioxide, NO2, present in air is known to be
photochemically active due to the presence of an
unpaired electron. NO2 molecule reaches a higher
level of energy when it absorbs a photon of light with
energy, which converts the ground state molecule to
electronically excited state molecule. NO2, Ozone and
PAN show photochemical reactions and photochemi-
cal smog is formed.
39.(b) Mathematical Reasoning and Aptitude
If each averaged number, X, is multiplied by an
another number, Y, then new average will be multipli-
cation of those numbers, that is X.Y. Thus, answer to
this question will be 7×11 = 77.
40. (b) People, Development and Environment
Diarrhoea is a type of waterborne disease which is
caused by virus, bacteria and protozoa. The main
symptoms of diarrhea are frequent loose, watery
stools and a pressing urge to have a bowel movement.
The most common causes of acute and persistent
diarrhea are infections, travelers’ diarrhea, and side
effects of medicines. Many viruses cause diarrhea,
including norovirus link and rotavirus link. Viral gas-
troenteritis is a common cause of acute diarrhea.
41. (c) Teaching Aptitude
According to Piaget, the ability to solve conservation
Z04_MADAN 07_65901_2021 paper.indd 37
Z.37
problems depends on having an understanding of
three basic aspects of reasoning: identity, compensa-
tion and reversibility.
Jean Piaget mentioned the following stages for cogni-
tive development:
(i) Sensory Period (0–2 years)
(ii) Pre – operational period (2–7 years)
(iii) Concrete operational period (7 – 11 years)
(iv) Formal operation period (11 – 15 years)
The stage of classification depends on students’ abil-
ity to focus on a single characteristic of objects in a set
and group of objects according to that characteristic.
Thus, statement II is incorrect.
42. (b) Research Aptitude
Descriptive Hypothesis: This contains only one
variable so it is called a univariate hypothesis. This
typically states the existence, size, form or distribu-
tion of some variable. It describes the situation or col-
lects the data, the same as it has happened without
adding our own assumptions as a researcher.
Null Hypothesis: the null hypothesis (often denoted
H₀) is that two possibilities are the same. The null
hypothesis is that the observed difference is due to
chance alone. Using statistical tests, it is possible to cal-
culate the likelihood that the null hypothesis is true.
Explanatory Hypothesis: This hypothesis guides the
cause and effect relationship between two variables.
For example, when salaries increase, then spending
on food items also increase.
Intervening and confounding variables add to the
impact of independent variables on dependent
variables.
43. (c) Logical Reasoning
The denotative meaning of a word is simply the
commonly accepted meaning or the definition that
you would find if you were to look up that word in a
dictionary.
Typically, the connotative meaning of a word has
more of an emotional association and is more likely
to trigger an emotional response than the denotative
meaning.
44. (b) Logical Reasoning
Truth and falsehood are predicates of a statement and
validity and invalidity are predicates of an argument.
45. (d)
46. (b)
47. (b)
48. (d)
49. (a)
50. (a)
23/12/22 5:13 PM
 NTA-UGC NET/JRF
Paper 1 2021 - Set 2
INSTRUCTIONS To NTA-NET ASPIRANTS
Time Allowed: 1 hour  50 × 2 = 100 Marks

1. This paper consists of Fifty (50) objective type questions of Two (2) marks each.
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. Each item has four alternative responses marked (a), (b), (c) and (d). You have to darken the circle as indicated below
on the correct response against each item.
Example: a b c d where (c) is the correct response.
4. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Sheet given at the end of the book.
5. Read instructions provided with each question carefully.
6. There are no negative marks for incorrect answers.

Information for Question 1 to 5: 4. Find out the average number of students who quali-
Study the given table carefully and answer the questions fied in 2020 (from all states).
that follow. (a) 84550 (b) 84580
Number (N) of candidates (in lakhs) appearing for (c) 85375 (d) 86770
a University Entrance examination from four different
states (A, B, C, D) and the percentage (P) of candidates 5. Find out the difference between the total number of
clearing the same over the years are provided in the table students who qualified in 2017 and the total number
below: of students who qualified in 2018 (from all states):
(a) 31750 (b) 31880
State A B C D
(c) 32220 (d) 32340
Year N P(%) N P(%) N P(%) N P(%)
6. The characteristics of a normal distribution curve are:
2016 2.31 32 1.64 42 2.60 46 3.3 29 A. It reflects an asymmetrical distribution
2017 2.02 44 1.72 41 2.45 36 3.1 32 B. It is bell-shaped
2018 1.98 39 2.02 37 2.20 33 2.9 31 C. It does not show standard deviations
2019 1.85 28 2.10 43 2.50 42 2.7 34 D. The mean, mode and median coincide at the cen-
2020 2.20 33 1.90 46 2.55 30 3.0 35 tre of the distribution
E. The curve is based on an infinite number of
1. Find out the average number of non-qualified candi- observations
dates in 2019 (from all states).
Choose the correct answer from the options given

(a) 135320 (b) 137270
below:
(c) 139870 (d) 144025 (a) A, B and C only
2. In which year did the highest number of candidates (b) B, C and D only
clear the entrance exam from State B? (c) B, D and E only
(a) 2016 (b) 2018 (d) C, D and E only
(c) 2019 (d) 2020
7. In India, according to Niti Ayog’s SDG Index (2019-
3. Find out the total number of students who have 2020), which is the best performing state on SDG-9
cleared the entrance exam from 2016 to 2020 in State (Industry, Innovation and Infrastructure)
A. (a) Gujarat (b) Karnataka
(a) 355460 (b) 358660 (c) Kerala (d) Telangana
(c) 360890 (d) 364420

Z04_MADAN 07_65901_2021 paper.indd 38 23/12/22 5:13 PM

 NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 2021 - Set 2 Z.39

8. Which of the following statements are true? In light of the above statements, choose the most

A. Simplex data transmission is in two-directions appropriate answer from the options given below
only (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
B. Half-duplex data transmission is in both direc- (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
tions but not at the same time (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
C. Full-duplex data transmission is in both direc- (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
tions simultaneously
D. Serial data transmission is when data is sent, 8 bit 12. An extraneous variable is also known as
at a time, over a single wire (a) Artifact
E. Parallel data transmission is when one bit of data (b) Contiguous factor
is sent down over a single wire (c) Dependent variable
(d) Intervener
Choose the correct answer from the options given

below: 13. Identify the correct sequence of wind energy poten-
(a) A, B and C only (b) B and C only tial at 100m above ground level in decreasing order.
(c) C and D only (d) C, D and E only A. Karnataka
B. Andhra Pradesh
9. Match List I with List II:
C. Gujarat
List I List II D. Tamil Nadu
Types of Design Characteristics E. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
A. S
 olomon Four Group I. It is a cross-sectional design Choose the correct answer from the options given

Design below
B. P
 ost-test only Control II. Contains an additional (a) A > B > C > E > D
Group Design set of control and (b) C > A > B > D > E
experimental groups
(c) C > E > B > D > A
C. One-shot Case Study III. Omits the pre-tested
(d) D > C > A > B > E
groups altogether
D. Correlational Design IV. Observation of a single
14. What is the World Wide Web (www)?
group at one point of time (a) Collection of webpages stored on websites
to observe the change (b) Hypertext processor
(c) Interconnected networks
Choose the correct answer from the options given

below: (d) Web browser
(a) A -I , B -II , C -III , D -IV 15. University of the ancient period which has been
(b) A -II , B -III , C -IV , D -I declared by UNESCO as a heritage site is:
(c) A -III , B -IV , C -I , D -II A. Mithila B. Vallabhi
(d) A -IV , B -I , C -II , D -III C. Pushpagiri D. Takshashila
E. Nalanda
10. Given below are two statements
Statement I: The number 89325324 is divisible by 66. Choose the correct answer from the options given

below:
Statement II: The set of natural numbers is also called (a) A and B only (b) B and C only
the set of whole numbers.
(c) C and D only (d) D and E only
In light of the above statements, choose the correct
16. Which of the following types of power plants provide
answer from the options given below:
electricity consistently running 24 hrs per day, 7 days
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
a week?
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(a) Geothermal (b) Hydro
(c) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(c) Solar (d) Wind
(d) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
17. Name the fallacy committed in the argument below:
11. Given below are two statements:
“All men who understand women are potentially per-
Statement I: Personal competencies determine how fect husbands.
we manage ourselves
All potentially perfect husbands are men of infinite
Statement II: Social competencies determine how we patience.
handle relationships

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 Z.40 NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 2021 - Set 2

Therefore, some men of infinite patience are men who

23. Given below are two statements
understand women.” Statement I: DVDs use a single spiral ‘track’ to store
(a) Exclusive premises data working from the centre to the edge.
(b) Existential fallacy
Statement II: DVDs are Read-only devices
(c) Illicit major
In light of the above statements, choose the correct
(d) Undistributed middle
answer from the options given below
18. Match List I with List II: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
List I List II (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(c) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
A. Lay down standards of legal education I. NCTE
(d) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
B. Maintaining the quality of technical II. AICTE
education 24. If the selling price of `24 results in a discount of 20%
on the list price, what selling price would result in a
C. Maintenance of standards in teacher III. NMC
education
30% discount on list price?
(a) 18 (b) 20
D. Access to quality and affordable medical IV. BCI
(c) 21 (d) 27
education
25. Pick the correct option to represent the given
Choose the correct answer from the options given
argument
below: All artists are egoists
(a) A -I , B -II , C -IV , D -III
Some artists are paupers
(b) A -II , B -III , C -IV , D -I
Therefore, some paupers are egoists
(c) A -III , B -IV , C -I , D -II
(d) A -IV , B -II , C -I , D -III Choose the correct answer from the options given

below
19. What is Ethernet? (a) A II - I figure (b) A II - II figure
(a) A collision-detection protocol (c) A II - III figure (d) A II - IV figure
(b) A protocol used by many wired LAN’s
26. Which of the following statements are correct?
(c) A protocol used for address translation
A. If A’s speed is more than B’s speed, then to travel
(d) A security protocol
the same distance, A will take more time than B
20. The satellite used for the transmission and telecast of B. Two speeds, 1500 m/min and 90 km/hr are equal
SWAYAMPRABHA is called C. By walking at a speed of 18 km/hr, the distance
(a) EDUSAT Satellite covered in 2 minutes and 30 seconds is 750
(b) GSAT-15 Satellite meters
(c) GSAT-3 Satellite
Choose the correct answer from the options given

(d) SP-EDU-15 Satellite below:
21. Which of the following are Central Universities? (a) A and B only (b) A and C only
A. Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar Open University (c) B and C only (d) C only
B. Jamia Millia Islamia 27. Which of the following are advantages of observation
C. Panjab University as a tool of data collection?
D. Punjabi University A. Observation takes place only in natural settings
E. University of Mumbai B. Observation methods demand the active partici-
Choose the correct answer from the options given
pation of subjects in the programme
below: C. Observations are known for directness
(a) A and B only (b) B and C only D. Artificiality can be minimised in observational
(c) C and D only (d) C and E only studies
22. What is the name for the technique which uses images E. Recording devices can be used in observational
that are often more evocative than words, and more studies for accuracy
precise and potent in triggering a wide range of asso- Choose the correct answer from the options given

ciations and thinking? below:
(a) Brainstorming (b) Mind-mapping (a) A, B and C only (b) A, B and E only
(c) Story boarding (d) Synectics (c) B, C and D only (d) C, D and E only

Z04_MADAN 07_65901_2021 paper.indd 40 23/12/22 5:13 PM

 NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 2021 - Set 2 Z.41

28. In agricultural regions, groundwater can have signifi- (c) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
cant concentrations of which pollutant? (d) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(a) Cadmium (b) Lead 34. The first education commission in Independant India
(c) Nitrate (d) Selenium is:
29. Which of the following Green House bases were the (a) National Knowledge Commission
target gases whose emission was to be covered under (b) Secondary Education Commission
the first commitment period of the Kyoto protocol? (c) The Education Commission
A. SO2 B. CO2 (d) University Education Commission
C. N2O D. NH3
35. The dynamics of classroom interaction can be effec-
E. CH4 tively managed through
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(a) Interpreting perceived meanings
below: (b) Language complexity
(a) A, B and C only (b) A, B, C and D only (c) Repetitive symbolism
(c) B, C and E only (d) B, C, D and E only (d) Verbosity
30. Match List I with List II 36. Match List I with List II
List I List II List I List II
A. System Software I. Library Management System A. If ‘A’ is True I. ‘E’ is True; ‘O’ is True
B. Application Software II. Firewall B. If ‘E’ is True II. ‘O’ is False; ‘E’ is False
C. Security Software III. Compiler C. If ‘I’ is False III. ‘A’ is False; ‘I’ is False
D. Embedded Software IV. Automatic fridge D. If ‘O’ is False IV. ‘E’ is False; ‘I’ is True
Choose the correct answer from the options given
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

below: (a) A -I , B -II , C -III , D -IV
(a) A -I , B -III , C -IV , D -II (b) A -II , B -III , C -I , D -IV
(b) A -II , B -IV , C -I , D -III (c) A -III , B -I , C -II , D -IV
(c) A -III , B -I , C -II , D -IV (d) A -IV , B -II , C -III, D-I
(d) A -III , B -IV , C -I , D -II
37. Which of the following are myths about
31. Which of the following are in the “Six Thinking Hats communication?
System”, a form of parallel thinking? A. Good communicators are born, not made
A. Brown Hat B. White Hat B. Stage fright is not a communication apprehension
C. Violet Hat D. Red Hat C. Communication skills have nothing to do with
E. Black Hat relationships
Choose the correct answer from the options given
D. Communication has its own barriers
below: E. Practice leads to the right habits of
(a) A, B and C only (b) B, C and D only communication
(c) B, D and E only (d) C, D and E only Choose the correct answer from the options given

32. How tall is a tree that is 6 meters shorter than a wall below:
that is seven times higher than the tree? (a) A, B and C only (b) A, D and E only
(a) 1 meters (b) 1.25 meters (c) B, C and D only (d) C, D and E only
(c) 2 meters (d) 7 meters 38. Match List I with List II
33. Given below are two statements:
List I List II
Statement I: One’s perceptions and beliefs are the
A. Ashrayasiddha I. Sound is eternal because it is
basis of generalisation in communication.
visible
Statement II: Generalisations of the environment
B. Svarupasiddha II. All real are momentory; sound
develop through experiences. is real; sound is momentory
In light of the above statements, choose the correct C. Vyapyatvasiddha III. All objects are eternal because
answer from the options given below: they are knowable
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
D. Anupasamhari IV. Sky lotus is fragrant because it
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are true belongs to the class of lotus

Z04_MADAN 07_65901_2021 paper.indd 41 23/12/22 5:13 PM

 Z.42 NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 2021 - Set 2

Choose the correct answer from the options given

(a) A -I , B -III , C -II , D -IV
below: (b) A -II , B -IV , C -I , D -III
(a) A -I , B -III , C -II , D -IV (c) A -III , B -II , C -IV , D -I
(b) A -II , B -IV , C -I , D -III (d) A -IV , B -I , C -III , D -II
(c) A -III , B -II , C -IV , D -I 43. Match List I with List II
(d) A -IV , B -I , C -II , D -III
List I List II
39. The middle term of the inference is related to the
major term neither as a cause nor as an effect but Elements Description
because they are uniformly related to each other in of Effective
our experience, is known as Communication
(a) Pakshdharmata A. Common frame I. Communications with people of
(b) Purvavat of reference similar background
(c) Samanyatodrshta B. Congruence II. Use of understandable
(d) Sheshavat language
C. Language III. Messages of common interest
40. Given below are two statements:
relevance between encoder and decoder
Statement I: A variable measured at the nominal level
D. Compatible IV. C
 ompatibility between the
can be used in higher-level statistics if it is converted environment receiver and the sender
into another form.
Choose the correct answer from the options given

Statement II: The result of the conversion process is
below:
called dummy variable.
(a) A -I , B -II , C -III , D -IV
In light of the above statements, choose the correct (b) A -II , B -III , C -IV , D -I
answer from the options given below:
(c) A -III , B -IV , C -I , D -II
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(d) A -IV , B -III , C -II , D -I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(c) Statement I is false but Statement II is true 44. What number comes next in this sequence?
(d) Statement I is true but Statement II is false 6, 4, 2.5, 1.5, ?
(a) 0.5 (b) -0.5
41. According to Robbins et al, the sequence of barriers to
(c) 1 (d) -1
effective communication in an organisation is
A. Language 45. Gender Parity Index in higher education in India is:
B. Emotions (a) 0.98 (b) 0.99
C. Selective perception (c) 1.1 (d) 1
D. Information load Read the given passage and answer the questions
E. Filtering 46-50:
Choose the correct answer from the options given
Despite the fact that social security programmes in India
below: are not responses to structural adjustment but have a long
(a) A, B, D, E, C (b) B, C, D, A, E history of their own. Social expenditure in India is never-
(c) D, A, E, C, B (d) E, C, D, B, A theless particularly vulnerable to budget cuts. The social
sector is a major spending area of the government, com-
42. Match List I with List II: prising poverty reduction interventions, health, educa-
List I List II tion, nutrition, social assistance and social welfare. Most
departments of government are in some way responsible
Thinking Hat System Concepts and Ideas
for spending under this broad head.
A. White Hat I. Judgement and caution-the The sector is highly divisible, thus facilitating incre-
logical negative mental and piecemeal reductions in real expenditure. It
B. Red Hat II. Data gathering-facts, figures, has a weak political constituency, dominated by techni-
information needs and gaps cal-expert persons, which the mass of evaluative research
C. Black Hat III. Provocations, alternatives that has historically been critical of state interventionism
and creativity-proposals has further weakened.
D. Green Hat IV. Intuition and emotions Such work has been put to uses other than those origi-
nally intended - not to reform the sector but as justifica-
Choose the correct answer from the options given

tion to abolish major components of it entirely. However,
below:

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 NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 2021 - Set 2 Z.43

since 1991, social sector expenditure has not declined as
much as had been anticipated. Despite, or because of, its
departmental pervasiveness, it is an extremely-perhaps
uncuttable-low proportion of GNP: 2.4 per cent as com-
pared with 6.5 per cent in Malaysia, 12.2 per cent in
Botswana and 15-25 per cent in OECD countries. Even
though social sector expenditure is also flawed by spatial
patchiness, conflicting time trends in expenditure levels
and composition and patterns specific to each component
of welfare, cuts have been widely resisted and certain
Indian states have increased their current debt in order to
protect social expenditure. There is, fortunately, and nec-
essarily, speculative literature predicting, sometimes with
illustrations drawn from elsewhere, the likely outcomes
of cuts in various types of social expenditure. But it is far
too early for these to be evidence of the actual impact on
social welfare is a long-term project of several decades.
46 The government spending on poverty reduction pro-
grammes suffers from
(a) Down-sized expenditure in real terms
(b) High demand from prospective beneficiaries
(c) Several social welfare programmes competing for
funds
(d) Too many divisible allocations
47. Social security programmes in India encounter the
issue of
(a) Direct implementation
(b) Increased government intervention
(c) Indirect implementation
(d) Structural rearrangement
48. The social sector in India is experiencing
(a) A vast amount of speculative literature
(b) Change in composition and patterns of social
welfare
(c) Increased current debt account by certain states
to protect their social security measures
(d) Upward revision of budget allocations in a few
specific areas
49. The expert evaluation reports are used to
(a) Justify banishing the social security system
(b) Reform the social welfare sector
(c) Strengthen the political constituency of social
security
(d) Support the government spending on social
sector
50. The gist of the passage is that
(a) In actuality, diversification funds to areas other
than social welfare are justifiable
(b) The social security system in India should be
strengthened
(c) The social welfare system must be abandoned
(d) There is no evidence as to the utility of social wel-
fare measures in India

Answer Keys
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (d)
11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (d) 20. (b)
21. (*) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (d) 25. (c) 26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (c)
31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (d) 35. (a) 36. (b) 37. (a) 38. (d) 39. (c) 40. (b)
41. (d) 42. (b) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (d) 46. (a) 47. (d) 48. (c) 49. (a) 50. (b)

*Note: These answers are likely to be challengeable as per the official answer key provided by UGC.

Z04_MADAN 07_65901_2021 paper.indd 43 23/12/22 5:13 PM

 Z.44
Hints and Solutions
1. (d)
Non-qualified candidates (%) = 100 – Number of
qualified candidates
State-wise number of non-qualified candidates in
the year 2019
State A = 185000 × (100 – 28) /100 = 185000 ×
72/100 = 133200
State B = 210000 × (100 – 43) /100 = 210000 ×
57/100 = 119700
State C = 250000 × (100 – 42) /100 = 250000 ×
58/100 = 145000
State D = 270000 × (100 – 34)/100 = 270000 ×
66/100 = 178200
Total non-qualified candidates = 133200 + 119700
+ 145000 + 178200 = 576200
Total non-qualified candidates
Required Average =
Given number of states
576200
=
= 144025
4 State B = 202000 × 37/100 = 74740
2. (c)
Number of qualified candidates from State B dur-
ing the given years
Year 2016 = 164000 × 42/100 = 68880
Year 2017 = 172000 × 41/100 = 70520
Year 2018 = 202000 × 37/100 = 74740
Year 2019 = 210000 × 43/100 = 90300
Year 2020 = 190000 × 46/100 = 87400
Thus, in the year 2019, the highest number of candi-
dates cleared the entrance exam from State B.
3. (c)
Number of qualified candidates from State A dur-
ing the given years
Year 2016 = 231000 × 32/100 = 73920
Year 2017 = 202000 × 44/100 = 88880
Year 2018 = 198000 × 39/100 = 77220
Year 2019 = 185000 × 28/100 = 51800
Year 2020 = 220000 × 33/100 = 72600
Total number of qualified candidates during the years
2016 to 2020 = 73920 + 88880 +77220 +51800
+72600 = 364420
4. (c)
Number of qualified candidates from all the states
during the year 2020
State A = 220000 × 33/100 = 72600
Z04_MADAN 07_65901_2021 paper.indd 44
NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 2021 - Set 2
State B = 190000 × 46/100 = 87400
State C = 255000 × 30/100 = 76500
State D = 300000 × 35/100 = 105000
The average number of candidates = (72600 + 87400
+ 76500 + 105000)/4 = 341500/4 = 85375
5. (d)
Number of qualified candidates from all states
during the year 2017
State A = 20000 × 44/100 = 88880
State B = 172000 × 41/100 = 70520
State C = 245000 × 36/100 = 88200
State D = 310000 × 32/100 = 99200
Thus, the total candidates = 88880 + 70520 + 88200
+ 99200 = 346800
Number of qualified candidates from all states
during the year 2018
State A = 198000 × 39/100 = 77220
State C = 220000 × 33/100 = 72600
State D = 290000 × 31/100 = 89900
Thus, the total candidates = 72220 + 74740 + 72600
+ 89900 = 314460
Thus, difference = 346800 – 314460 = 32340
6. (b) Research Aptitude
The normal distribution curve is mostly used in
hypothesis testing in research. There are basically two
types of hypothesis—Null hypothesis and Alternative
hypothesis. The null hypothesis is generally consid-
ered to be the ‘accepted fact’ that there is no differ-
ence between dependent and independent variables
or else we may assume that the population parameter
and the sample statistic. The null hypothesis is often
an initial claim that is based on previous analysis or
special knowledge. The null hypothesis is considered
the opposite of the alternative hypothesis.
Researchers also come up with an alternative hypoth-
esis that they think explains a phenomenon. Research-
ers try to reject or disprove the null hypothesis by
means of sampling, so that the alternative hypothesis
is accepted as true. For this work, researchers also
take the help of confidence level / level of signifi-
cance, which can be 1%, 5% or 10%. The area under
the entire normal distribution curve is 1, or is 100 per-
cent. The Z-table or T-table helps by telling us what
percentage is under the curve at a particular point.
23/12/22 5:13 PM
 NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 2021 - Set 2
Mean = Median = Mode
Symmetrical sides
Asymptotic tail
The characteristics of the normal distribution curve
are given as under:
1. It is bell shaped curve and symmetrical in its
appearance.
2. The height of normal distribution curve is at its
maximum at the mean. Hence the mean, mode and
median coincide at the centre of the distribution.
3. The curve is a based on an infinite number of
observations.
4. Since, there is only one maximum point, the nor-
mal curve is unimodal, i.e., has only one mode.
5. The first and third quarter are equidistant from
mean.
7. (*) People development and environment
In India according to NITI Ayog’s SDG Index Gujarat
and the Kerala is the best performing state on SDG 9
(Industry, Innovation and Infrastructure).
SDG India Index is an index prepare by the NITI Ayog
to measure the progress of the country and that of
individual states based on the United Nations initi-
ated Sustainable Development Goals (SDG). The pur-
pose the NITI Ayog index is to estimate the progress
of Indian states and UTs through a single measurable
index that would serve as a policy tool and initiate
action at the state level.
Here, we may talk about Good Governance Index –
2021 as well, under which Gujarat is at the first place.
Maharashtra is at second place and Goa at third place.
Gujarat has excelled in economic administration,
human resource development, public infrastructure
and facilities, social welfare and development and
judicial and public security.
8. (b) Information and Communication Technology
1. Simplex data transmission: Simplex is the data
transmission mode in which the data can flow
only in one direction, i.e., the communication is
unidirectional.
10. (d) Mathematical Aptitude and Reasoning
2. Half duplex data transmission: Half duplex data
transmission is transmission in both directions but
not at the same time.
Z04_MADAN 07_65901_2021 paper.indd 45
Z.45
3. Full duplex data transmission: Full duplex
data transmission occurs in both directions
simultaneously.
4. Serial data transmission: Serial Transmission is
a form of signal transmission that sends informa-
tion one bit at a time over a single data channel.
Serial interfaces are generally used to connect
data communications equipment (DCE) such as
modems to data terminal equipment (DTE) such
as computers and terminals and for connecting a
DCE to a DTE.
5. Parallel data transmission: In parallel transmis-
sion (e.g., 8 bits) each bit uses a separate wire to
transfer data on a parallel link, a separate line is
used as a clock signal. This serves to inform the
receiver when data is available.
9. (b) Research Aptitude
Solomon four group design: It is a research design
that attempts to take into account the influence of
pretesting on subsequent post-test results. Some
research design includes a pre-test, which is taken
before exposure to a treatment and a post-test which
is administered after exposure to a treatment.
The post-test only control design: It is a research
design in which there are at least two groups, one of
which does not receive a treatment or intervention
and data are collected on the outcome measure after
the treatment. The group does not receive the treat-
ment of interest is the control group.
The main features of post-test are as follows:
• This type of design has two randomly assigned
groups an experimental group and a control group.
• Neither group is pretested before implementing the
treatment.
• The treatment is applied only to the experimental
group.
One-shot case study: It is difficult to draw conclu-
sions as there is no typical cause and effect relation-
ship between the intervention and the outcome.
Correlational design: As the name indicates,
the purpose of correlational studies is to explore
whether there is any relationship or interdepend-
ence between two variables or characteristics and
to ascertain the degree of such relationships. The
value of correlational research is to discover rela-
tionships among different phenomena with a view
to predict and in some situations control their
occurrence.
The number 89325324 is divisible by 66. This is a
direct question. Thus, statement I is true.
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 Z.46 NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 2021 - Set 2

The set of natural numbers is not same as the set of

the whole numbers. The difference between natural
numbers and whole numbers is as follows:
Natural numbers include all the positive integers from
1 till infinity (∞) and are also used for counting pur-
pose. The set of natural numbers is represented by the
letter ‘N’. 0 is not a natural number.
N = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10… and so on }
the dependent variable changes in relation to a varia-
tion in the independent variable.
If an extraneous variable is the real reason for an
outcome instead of the independent variables, then
it is also known as a confounding variable because it
has confused or confounded the relationship, we are
interested in.
Smoking Coronary heart disease

Whole numbers include all the natural numbers and

(Assumed cause) (Assumed effect)
the number 0. In other words, all natural numbers are Independent variable Dependent variable
whole numbers, but all whole numbers are not natu-
ral numbers. Affect the relationship

Whole Numbers = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 7, 8, 9...}

• The age of the person
• The extent of his/her smoking
• The duration of smoking
• The extent of daily exercise, etc.
Whole numbers Extraneous variables
(0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6......)
Relationship between Independent, Dependent and Extraneous Variables

13. (b) People, Development and Environment

The country currently has the fourth highest wind

installed capacity in the world with total installed
Natural numbers capacity of 39.25 GW (as on 31st March 2021) and
(1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6......) has generated around 60.149 billion units during
2020–21.

Potential of Wind Energy in India
The Government, through National Institute of Wind

Energy (NIWE), has installed over 800 wind-moni-
11. (a) Teaching Aptitude toring stations all over the country and issued wind
Competencies refer to skills or knowledge that led to
potential maps at 50m, 80m, 100m and 120m above
superior performance. ground level. The recent assessment indicates a gross
wind power potential of 302 GW in the country at 100
Personal competencies determine how we manage
metres and 695.50 GW at 120 metres above ground
ourselves while the social competencies determine level. Most of this potential exists in seven windy
how we handle relationships. Thus, both the state- states given below:
ments are correct.
Wind Energy Wind
12. (a) Research Aptitude S.
State Potential Potential at
No.
Extraneous variable: An extraneous variable is also
(1000 m GW) 120 m (GW)
known as artifact. In real life situations, there can be 1. Gujarat 84.43 142.56
many factors or variables that may affect the outcome. 2. Rajasthan 18.77 127.75
These variables are termed as extraneous variables.
3. Maharashtra 45.39 98.21
Extraneous variables are also affecting the dependent
variable, although these are not manipulated by the 4. Tamil Nadu 33.79 68.75
researcher. 5. Madhya 10.48 15.40
Pradesh
They may mask the relationship between independ-

ent variable and dependent variable. Extraneous 6. Karnataka 55.85 124.15
variable may directly affect the dependent variable or 7. Andhra 44.22 74.90
may combine with the independent variable to pro- Pradesh
duce an affect.
Thus, the correct sequence of wind energy potential

Therefore, extraneous variables must be controlled so
at 100 m above ground level in decreasing order are
that the experimenter can determine whether or not as:

Z04_MADAN 07_65901_2021 paper.indd 46 23/12/22 5:13 PM

 NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 2021 - Set 2
Gujarat > Karnataka> Andhra Pradesh > Tamil Nadu
> Andaman and Nicobar Islands
14. (a) Information and Communication Technology
World Wide Web: It is the component of the Internet
that combines audio, video and graphics with text is
also called the web or simply the WWW. It is a subset
of the Internet and is a collection of documents and
application residing on the internet and is a collection
of documents and applications residing on the Inter-
net servers around the world. Thus, the World Wide
Web (WWW) is the collection of webpages stored on
websites.
Hypertext Preprocessor (PHP): PHP is a popular
scripting language, used to create attractive, user-
friendly and interactive web pages. PHP is open-
source which means it is well documented and can be
easily downloaded for free from the web. It was cre-
ated in the year 1994 by Rasmus Lerdorf.
Interconnected network: It is a set of computer
nodes, including, but not limited to, personal comput-
ers, mobile devices, and physical or virtual servers,
which are linked together to facilitate the transmis-
sion of data between users.
Web Browser: Web browser is an application software
to access the World Wide Web. When a user requests a
web page from a particular website, the web browser
fetches the required content from the web server and
then it displays the page on the user’s device.
Web browsers are used on a wide variety of devices,
including desktops, laptops, tablets, and smart-
phones. The most used browser is Google Chrome,
with 65% of the global market share, followed by
Safari at 18%.
A web browser is not the same as a search engine. A
search engine is a website that provides links to other
websites. However, in order to connect to a website’s
server and display its web pages, the user must have a
web browser installed in the system.
15. (d) Higher Education System
UNESCO World Heritage Sites are called special
places that are selected by the World Heritage Sites
Committee. The purpose of this program is to select
and preserve such sites of the world which are impor-
tant to humanity from the point of view of world cul-
ture. For example, forest area, mountain, lake, desert,
monument, university, building, city, etc.
Each heritage site is the property of the particular
country in which the site is located. It is also in the
interest of the international community to preserve
them for future generations and for the benefit of
humanity. In this way, the responsibility of their pro-
tection rests with the whole world community.
Z04_MADAN 07_65901_2021 paper.indd 47
Z.47
In certain circumstances, financial assistance is also
given to such places by this committee. So far (as of
July 2021) about 1154 sites have been declared as
World Heritage Sites all over the world which includes
897 cultural, 218 natural, 39 mixed and 138 other
sites.
The ancient Taxila and Nalanda University have been
declared as heritage sites by UNESCO.
Nalanda: Nalanda Mahavihar is a world heritage site
that is 98 km away from Patna. Nalanda stands out
as the most ancient university of the Indian subcon-
tinent. It engaged in the organised transmission of
knowledge interrupted period of 800 years. The his-
torical development of the site testifies the develop-
ment of Buddhism into a religion and the flourishing
of monastic and educational traditions.
Takshashila: Takshashila (or Taxila) was an ancient
Indian educational centre that was founded in
1000 BCE. This produced some illustrious historical
personalities:
(a) Kautilya who wrote Arthashastra
(b) Panini- the compiler of ‘Ashtadhyayi’ the Sanskrit
grammar
(c) Charaka the great Ayurvedic healer (author of
Charak Smhita)
(d) Jivaka who once treated Buddha.
But there was not much formal (or centralized) sys-
tem of education in Takshashila. It did not award
degrees to its students. The education system there
was flexible, and was customizable towards students.
The faculty here worked with complete autonomy,
forming their own school of learning with their spe-
cific set of rules and manner.
The manner of functioning of Takshashila differed
drastically from Nalanda University that was more
structured than Taxila.
By some accounts, the University of Ancient Taxila
was considered to be one of the earliest universities in
the world.
Pushpagiri: This vihar (or set of monuments) was
an ancient Buddhist mahavihara. It is also termed as
monastic complex located atop Langudi Hill in Jajpur
district of Odisha. The visit of Xuanzang to Pushpagiri
vihar indicates that it was an important Buddhist site
in ancient India. Like Nalanda, Vikramashila, Odanta-
puri, Takshashila and Vallabhi, it was a major ancient
centre of learning. It progressed between 3rd and
11th centuries CE.
Valabhi: The Valabhi University was an important
centre of Buddhist learning. It championed the cause
of Hinayana Buddhism between 600 ce and 1200 ce.
23/12/22 5:13 PM
 Z.48
Valabhi was the capital of the Maitraka empire during
the period 480–775 ce.
Mithila: Ancient Mithila University was famous for
Nyaya Shastra and logical sciences.
16. (a) People, Development Environment
Geothermal power plants provide electricity con-
sistently running 24 hours per day, 7 days a week,
regardless of weather conditions. The power output
of a geothermal power plant is highly predictable and
stable. The disadvantages of geothermal power plant
location is restricted and also runs the risk of trig-
gering earthquakes. This is due to alterations in the
Earth’s structure as a result of constant digging.
Nuclear power is the only energy source that deliv-
ers carbon-free, reliable energy 24 hours a day. Along
with wind, solar, and energy storage, nuclear has a
vital role in our carbon-free future.
It is a Carbon-Free Energy. We can get 24/7/365 days.
The advantages include:
• Nuclear energy is carbon-free.
• Nuclear energy is reliable.
• Nuclear energy is powerful.
17. (b) Logical Reasoning
Existential fallacy: In modern times, presupposition
that a class has members is seen as unacceptable.
In 1905, Bertrand Russell wrote an essay entitled,
‘The Existential Import of Proposition’, in which he
called this Boolean approach ‘Peano’s interpreta-
tion’. In an existential fallacy, we presuppose that a
class has members even when we are not explicitly
told so, that is, we assume that the class has existen-
tial import.
Exclusive premise: The fallacy of exclusive premises
is a syllogistic fallacy committed in a categorical syl-
logism that is invalid because both of its premises are
19. (d) Information and Communication Technology
negative.
Illicit major: Illicit major is a formal fallacy commit-
ted in a categorical syllogism that is invalid because
its major term is undistributed in the major premise
but distributed in the conclusion.
Undistributed middle: The fallacy of the undistrib-
uted middle is a formal fallacy that is committed
when the middle term in a categorical syllogism is not
distributed in either the minor premise or the major
premise. It is thus a syllogistic fallacy.
18. (d) Higher Education System
BCI: The Bar Council of India is a statutory body
established under the section 4 of Advocates Act
(1961) that regulates the legal practice and legal
education in India. It prescribes standards of profes-
Z04_MADAN 07_65901_2021 paper.indd 48
NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 2021 - Set 2
sional conduct, etiquettes, and exercises disciplinary
jurisdiction over the bar. It also sets standards for
legal education and grants recognition to universi-
ties whose degree in law will serve as a qualification
for students to enrol themselves as advocates upon
graduation.
NCTE: The National Council for Teacher Educa-
tion, in its previous status since 1973, was an advi-
sory body for the Central and State Governments on
all matters pertaining to teacher education, with its
Secretariat in the Department of Teacher Education
of the National Council of Educational Research and
Training (NCERT). The National Council for Teacher
Education as a statutory body that came into exist-
ence in pursuance of the National Council for Teacher
Education Act, 1993 on the 17th August, 1995. The
main objective of the NCTE is to achieve planned and
coordinated development of the teacher education
system throughout the country, the regulation and
proper maintenance of Norms and Standards in the
teacher education system and for matters connected
therewith.
AICTE: All India Council for Technical Education
(AICTE) was set up in November 1945 as a national
– level Apex Advisory body to conduct a survey on
the facilities available for technical education and to
promote development in the country in a coordinated
and integrated manner.
NMC: National Medical Commission (NMC) is an
Indian regulatory body of 33 members which regu-
lates medical education and medical professionals.
It replaced the Medical Council of India on 25 Sep-
tember 2020. The Commission grants recognition of
medical qualifications, gives accreditation to medical
schools, grants registration to medical practitioners,
monitors medical practice and assesses the medical
infrastructure in India.
Ethernet: Ethernet is a family of wired computer net-
working technologies commonly used in Local Area Net-
works (LAN), Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) and
Wide Area Networks (WAN). It was commercially intro-
duced in 1980S. Systems communicating over Ethernet
divide a stream of data into shorter pieces called frames.
Each frame contains source and destination addresses,
and error checking data so that damaged frames can be
detected and discarded; most often, higher-layer proto-
cols trigger retransmission of lost frames.
Ethernet is widely used in homes and industry, and
interworks well with Wi-Fi technologies. The Inter-
net Protocol is commonly carried over Ethernet, and
hence, it is considered one of the key technologies
that make up the Internet.
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 NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 2021 - Set 2
20. (b) Higher Education System
SAWAYAM PRABHA satellite: The SWAYAM
PRABHA is a group of 34 DTH channels devoted to
telecasting high-quality educational programmes
across the country on 24 × 7 basis using the GSAT-15
satellite. Every day, there will be new content for at
least (4) hours which would be repeated 5 more times
in a day, allowing the students to choose the time of
their convenience. The channels are up linked from
BISAG, Gandhinagar. The contents are provided by
NPTEL, IITs, UGC, CEC, IGNOU, etc. The INFLIBNET
Centre maintains the web portal.
21. (*) Higher Education System
Central university: Central universities or union uni-
versities in India are established by an Act of Parlia-
ment and are under the purview of the Department of
Higher Education in MoE. In general, universities in
India are recognised by UGC, which draws its power
from the UGC Act 1956.
As of 31 March 2021, the list of central universities
published by the UGC includes 54 central universi-
ties. E.g., Jamia Milia Islamia is a central university.
State universities: State universities are run by the
respective state government of the states and union
territories of India, and are usually established by a
local legislative assembly act. Panjab university is
considered both central and state university.
Deemed universities: The Governor of the State is
the chancellor of deemed universities. The status of
a deemed to be university allows full autonomy in
courses, syllabus, admissions and fees. According to
the new norms in January, 2019, applicant institu-
tion must be in operation for at least 20 years, have
100 teachers and 2,000 students, a minimum teacher-
student ratio of 1:20 to get deemed university status.
One-third of the students should be pursuing research
or post-graduate courses.
Private universities: Private universities are
approved by the UGC. They can grant degrees but are
not allowed to have off-campus affiliated colleges.
Autonomous institutes: Apart from the above uni-
versities, other institutions are granted the permis-
sion to autonomously award degrees. These institutes
do not affiliate colleges and are not officially called
universities but autonomous organisations or auton-
omous institutes. They fall under the administrative
control of the Department of Higher Education, MoE.
These organisations include the Indian Institutes of
Technology, the National Institutes of Technology, the
Indian Institutes of Science Education and Research,
the Indian Institutes of Engineering Science and
Technology, the Indian Institutes of Management, the
Z04_MADAN 07_65901_2021 paper.indd 49
Z.49
National Law Schools, the All-India Institute of Medi-
cal Science, and other autonomous institutes.
22. (b) Information and Communication Technology
Mind mapping: A mind map is a diagram used to visu-
ally organize information. A mind map is hierarchical
and shows relationships among pieces of the whole. It
is often created around a single concept, drawn as an
image in the centre of a blank page, to which associ-
ated representations of ideas such as images, words
and parts of words are added. Major ideas are con-
nected directly to the central concept, and other ideas
branch out from those major ideas.
Thus, mind mapping is the technique which uses
images that are often more evocative than words and
are precise and potent in triggering a wide range of
associations and thinking patterns.
23. (d) Information and Communication Technology
Digital Versatile Disc (DVD): DVD is a digital opti-
cal disc data storage format invented and developed
in 1995 and released in late 1996. Currently allowing
up to 17.08 GB of storage, the medium can store any
kind of digital data and was widely used for software
and other computer files as well as video programmes
watched using DVD player. DVD offers higher storage
capacity than compact discs while having the same
dimensions.
There were several formats developed for recording
video on optical discs before the DVD. Optical record-
ing technology was invented by David Paul Gregg and
James Russell in 1963 and was first patented in 1968.
Thus, DVDs use a single spiral track to store data
working from the centre to the edge.
24. (d) Mathematical Aptitude and Reasoning
The discount offered on the article = 20%
SP = ` 24
We can calculate the CP
24 × (100 + 20)/100 = ` 30
If 30% discount is offered, then
SP = 30 × (100–30)/ 100 = 30 × 70 / 100 = ` 21
25. (c) Logical Reasoning
Mood: Mood depends the type of propositions (A, E,
I or O). The mood of a syllogism is determined by the
‘quantity’ and ‘quality’ of the three propositions.
Figure: The figure of a categorical syllogism is deter-
mined by ‘middle term’. It is a number which corre-
sponds to the placement of two middle terms.
Figure 1: When the middle term is on the left in
Premise 1 and on the right of Premise 2.
Figure 2: When the middle term is on the right in
both premises.
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 Z.50
Figure 3: When the middle term is on the left in both
premises.
Figure 4: When the middle term is on the right in
Premise 1 and on the left of Premise 2.
26. (c) Mathematical Aptitude and Reasoning
(a) If the speed of A is more than that of B, then to
travel the same distance, A will take less time
than B.
(b) In this statement, the speed is given in different
units. We need to convert km/hr to metre/ minute.
Thus, 90 km/h = 90000 m / 60 min = 1500 m / min
Thus, it can be concluded that the two speeds 1500
m/min and 90 km/h are equal. Hence, statement B is
true.
(c) Speed = 18 km/h = 18 × 5/18 = 5 m/s
Time = 2 min 30 sec = 150 sec
Distance = Speed / Time
= 5 × 150 = 750 m
Thus, traveling at the speed of 18 km/h, the distance
covered in 2 min and 30 sec is 750 m. Hence, state-
ment C is true.
27. (d) Information and Communication Technology
The advantages of observation as a tool of data collec-
tion are:
1. Observations are known for directness.
2. Artificiality can be minimised in observation
studies.
3. Recording devices can be used in observational
studies for accuracy.
28. (c) People, Development and Environment
In agricultural areas, groundwater can contain sig-
nificant concentration of the nitrate pollutant. When
pollutants released on the Earth’s surface enter the
groundwater, it leads to groundwater pollution. Pol-
lution can result from workplace sanitation systems,
landfills, waste from wastewater treatment plants,
sewer leaks, petrol filling stations, or overuse of ferti-
lizers in agriculture. Therefore, groundwater in agri-
cultural areas can contain significant amounts of the
nitrate pollutant.
Cadmium: Cadmium is a chemical element with the
symbol Cd and atomic number 48.
Lead: Lead is a naturally occurring toxic metal found
in the Earth’s crust. Its widespread use has resulted
in widespread environmental pollution, human expo-
sure and public health problems in many parts of the
world.
Selenium: Selenium is a toxic element and its high
concentration is not only harmful to the environment
Z04_MADAN 07_65901_2021 paper.indd 50
NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 2021 - Set 2
but also to human health. It causes thyroid disorders,
viral infections, preeclampsia (high blood pressure),
swelling, etc.
29. (c) People, Development and Environment
Greenhouse gases are atmospheric gases that absorb
and emit radiation within the thermal infrared range,
thereby, contributing to the greenhouse effect and
global climate change. Many different greenhouse gases
are produced as a result of human activities, including:
1. Carbon dioxide (CO2)
2. Methane (CH4)
3. Nitrous Oxide (N2O)
4. Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs)
Perfluorinated compounds:
5. Sulphur Hexafluoride (SF6)
6. Nitrogen trifluoride (NF3)
7. Perfluorocarbons (PFCs)
8. Fluorinated Ether (HFE)
9. Per-Flouro Poly Ether (PFPE)
10. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
11. Hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFC)
Even water is a GHG.
At the Rio Earth Summit in 1992, international nego-
tiators adopted the United Nations Framework Con-
vention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). UNFCCC aims
to prevent dangerous human interference with the
climate system by stabilizing atmospheric concentra-
tions of GHGs at safe levels. The UNFCCC itself has not
set any mandatory limits on GHG emissions for indi-
vidual countries and has no enforcement mechanism.
Instead, the UNFCCC provides updates (the ‘protocol’)
that set mandatory emissions limits. The Kyoto Proto-
col was adopted in 1997 and came into force in 2005. It
set GHG emission reduction targets for a set of industri-
alized countries. These targets have been implemented
in the emission reduction commitment period with the
first period from 2008 to 2012 and the second period
from 2013 to 2020. More than 190 countries have rati-
fied the UNFCCC and its Kyoto Protocol.
The Kyoto Protocol aims to cut GHG emissions in the
developed world by about 5% by 2012 compared to
1990 levels. In India, the Kyoto Protocol was imple-
mented in February 2005. Kyoto Protocol applies to
6 greenhouse gases; Carbon dioxide (CO2), meth-
ane (CH4), nitrous oxide (N2O), hydrofluorocarbons
(HFCs), perfluorocarbons (PFCs), sulphur hexafluor-
ide (SF6). The seventh gas nitrogen trifluoride (NF3)
was added at a later stage.
The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
(IPCC) has been assisting the UNFCCC in setting
national goals to develop a scientific summary of
the climate system and the physical basis of climate
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 NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 2021 - Set 2 Z.51

change. This summary is updated from time to time Green Hat 1. Creative • New ideas
and published in the IPCC Assessment Report. The • Different perspective
Sixth Report (AR6) was published in the year 2021. • Lateral thinking
The IPCC - AR establishes values for the Global Warm- Blue Hat 2. Process • Cool and calm
ing Potential of various green gases. GWP values • Control
describe the radiative effect of a given unit of GHG • Organisation and
relative to (in comparison to) one unit of CO2. process
According to the latest development, the world has
set the year 2050 as the threshold for achieving the Thus, the white hat, red hat and black hat are a form
Zero Emissions target. of parallel thinking in the six-thinking hat system.
30. (c) Information and Communication Technology 32. (a) Mathematical Aptitude and Reasoning
System software: System software provides the basic This is a direct question. It can be solved easily by rea-
functions for computer usage and helps to run the soning method.
computer hardware and system. Compiler is a type of
system software. They convert the source code into
another computer language called object code.
Application software: It helps the user to perform
singular and multiple tasks. Library management sys-
7m
tem is an application software.
Security software: Security software is any type of
software that secures and protects a computer, net-
work or any computing-enabled device. It manages
access control, provides data protection to our PC.
Firewall is an example of security software. 1m

Embedded software: Embedded software is a piece Let the height of tree = X meters
of software that is embedded in hardware or non-PC
Height of wall = 7X
devices. It is written specifically for the particular
hardware that it runs on and usually has processing 7X – 1 X = 6 meters
and memory constraints because of the device’s lim- 6 X = 6 meters
ited computing capabilities. Automatic fridge is an X = 1 meter
example of embedded software.
33. (b) Communication
31. (c) Research Aptitude
One’s perception and beliefs are the basis of generali-
The ‘Six Thinking Hats’ were described by Dr. Edward sation in communication.
Bono. These provide a means of effective thinking
Generalisations of the environment develop through
for parallel thinking groups in a broad and cohesive
experience.
manner.
Thus, both the statements are true.
In this, different hats are used as metaphors for each
direction. 34. (d) Higher Education System
Six Thinking Hats Soon after Independence, the University Education
Commission was set up in 1948 under the Chair-
White Hat 1. Information • Facts manship of Dr. S Radhakrishnan “to report on Indian
• Figures university education and suggest improvements and
• Data
extensions that might be desirable to suit the present
Red Hat 2. Emotion • Gut feel and future needs and aspirations of the country”.
• Intuitions
35. (a) Teaching Aptitude
• How it makes you feel
The dynamic of classroom interaction can be effectively
Black Hat 1. Negative • Why it can’t be done
• What’s hard
managed through interpreting perceived meanings.
• What won’t work Effective teaching: teaching is a planned activity and
Yellow Hat 2. Positive • Hope effective teaching depends on the following factors:
• The bright side (a) How clearly the students understand what they
• Why it will work are expected to learn?

Z04_MADAN 07_65901_2021 paper.indd 51 23/12/22 5:13 PM

 Z.52
(b) How accurately their learning can be measured?
Thus, the dynamics of interactions in the classroom
can be effectively restricted to the interpretation of
understood meanings.
36. (b) Logical Reasoning
Contradictories: This is a relationship between two
propositions having the same subject matter, but dif-
fering in both quality and quantity. Under this prop-
osition A - O and E - I are included. Contradictory
propositions cannot be simultaneously true and false.
If one is true, the other is necessarily false and vice
versa. That is, if ‘A’ is true, then ‘O’ is false; ‘E’ is false.
Contrary: When two universal propositions differ
only in quality. By definition, both opposite propo-
sitions can be both false and true at the same time.
If one of them is true, the other must necessarily be
false. If one is false, the other may be true or false.
That is, if ‘E’ is true, then ‘A’ is true; ‘I’ is false.
Sub-contraries: When two particular propositions
differ only in quality, the opposites are said to be
sub-contraries. Contrasting propositions can be true
simultaneously, but they cannot be false at the same
time. If one of them is true, the other may be true or
false, but if one of them is false, the other must be
true. That is, if ‘I’ is true, then ‘E’ is true; ‘O’ is true.
Sub-alternation: When two prepositions differ only in
quantity (one is universal and the other is special), such
an opposition is said to be subordinate. These proposi-
tions may be simultaneously true or simultaneously
false. That is, if ‘O’ is true, then ‘E’ is false; ‘I’ is true.
Every S is P No S is P
A Contraries E
Subalterns Contradictories Subalterns
I Subcontraries O (i) svartha (one’s own inferential knowledge) and
Some S is P Some S is not P
37. (a) communication
These are myths about communications:
• Good communicators are born, not made.
• Stage fright is not a communication apprehension.
• Communication skills have nothing to do with
relationships.
38. (d) Logical Reasoning
The name ‘Asidha’ is attached with first three. This is
the fallacy of the unproved middle. The middle term
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NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 2021 - Set 2
must be present in the minor term (pakshadharmata).
If it is not, it is unproved. It is of three kinds.
A. Ashraya asidha: The minor term is the locus of the
middle term. If the minor term is unreal, the middle
term cannot be present in it. For example,’ the sky-
lotus is fragrant, because it is a lotus, like the lotus of
a lake’.
B. Svarupa asidha: Here the minor term is not
unreal. But the middle term cannot be its very nature
be present in the minor term. For example, ‘sound is
a quality, because it is visible’. Here, visibility cannot
belong to sound which is audible.
C. Vyapyatva asidha: Here, Vyapti is conditional
(sopadhika). We cannot say,’ wherever there is fire
there is smoke’. Fire smokes only when it is associated
with wet fuel. A red-hot iron ball or clear fire does not
smoke. Hence, ‘Association with wet fuel’ is a condi-
tion necessary to the aforesaid vyapti. Being condi-
tioned, the middle term becomes fallacious if we say:
‘The hill has smoke because it has fire’.
39. (c) Logical Reasoning
A. Puravavat inference (a prior): Vatsyayana gives
two types of interpretations to purvavat. It is an infer-
ence in which the effect is inferred from the cause.
The inference of rain seeing a cloud is the example
given.
B. Sheshavat inference (a posterior): Here we infer
the unperceived cause from a perceived effect.
For example, when we see a river in flood and infer
that there was heavy rain. It is case of Sheshavat
inference.
C. Samanyatodrista inference (commonly
seen): Samanyatodrista refers to the inference
based on merely experience. Seeing the Sun in the
East in the morning, in the middle in the afternoon
and in the west at evening twilight, the movement
is inferred.
Psychologically, it has been classified into:
(ii) parartha (inferential knowledge of another).
D. Anupsamhari: All matter is eternal, because it is
knowable.
Thus, if the cause of the inference is related to the
end, neither as a cause nor as an action, but they are
equally related to each other in our experience, it is
said to be generalisable.
40. (b) Research Aptitude
The nominal scale is also called the classification
scale. It allows variables to be measured in one, two,
and three subcategories according to their diversity.
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 NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 2021 - Set 2
For example, gender can be classified into two subcat-
egories, male and female. A variable measured at the
nominal level can be used in higher–level statistics if
it is converted into another form.
The result of the conversion process is called dummy
variable.
41. (d) Communication
According to Robbins et. al, the sequence of barriers
to effective communication in an organisation is:
Filtering > Selective perception > Information load
> language > Emotions.
Filtering: Filtering prevents the members of an organ-
ization from getting a complete picture of a situation.
The main objective here is to manage the reactions
of a person. During upward communication, people
filter out bad news more. To maximize your chances
of sending and receiving effective communication, it’s
helpful to deliver a message in a variety of ways and
get information from multiple sources.
Selective perception: Selective perception refers to
the filtering of what we see and hear according to our
needs. This process is often unconscious. We are bom-
barded every day with a plethora of stimuli of infor-
mation, whether we want them or not. That’s why we
choose the information we need. ‘Selective perception’
is a time-saving measure. This is an essential tool in a
complex culture, but it can also lead to mistakes.
Information load: Every type of message reaches us
in different ways every day. Some messages are social,
some in the form of advertising, some are commercial,
such as e-mail, memos, and voice mail, Conversations
with colleagues. There are other personal messages
too, i.e., messages and conversations from our loved
ones and friends. Dealing with all this becomes a
very difficult task at times. This state of imbalance is
known as information overload.
Emotions: An effective communication requires a
sender and a receiver. They should be free to talk
and listen to each other. There could be poten-
tial differences of opinion or personality between
them. Both of them may have to separate them-
selves from the flow of emotions if they want to
achieve the goal of communicating clearly. A
receiver who is emotionally upset ignores or dis-
torts what the sender is saying. A sender who is
emotionally upset may be unable to effectively
present thoughts or feelings.
Words may have different meanings to different peo-
ple, or they may not mean anything to another per-
son. This is called semantics.
Language Complexity: Effective communication is
clear, factual and goal-oriented. This is also respect-
Z04_MADAN 07_65901_2021 paper.indd 53
Z.53
able. Referring to a person by an adjective (a brain,
a diabetic) reduces the person to that one trait. Lan-
guage that provokes or stereotypes a person poisons
the communication process. Language that insults
an individual (or group) on the basis of age, eth-
nicity, sexual preference, and vulgarity should be
avoided.
Organizational barriers: These barriers develop
when an organization evolves. They can be attributed
to the following conditions.
1. Size of organization
2. Physical distance between employees
3. Specialization of jobs and activities
4. Organizational culture, which impacts freedom
and trust
5. Organizational rules and regulations
6. Power structure in the organization
7. Complexity in organizational structure
8. Inadequate facilities and opportunities
9. Lack of cooperation between seniors and
subordinates.
42. (b) Research Aptitude
Refer explanation for question 31.
White hat: data gathering – facts, figures, informa-
tion needs and gaps.
Red hat: intuition and emotions.
Black hat: judgement and caution the logical negative.
Green hat: provocations, alternatives and creativity
– proposals.
43. (d) Communication
Elements of effective communication are:
Common frame of reference: Compatibility between
the receiver and the sender. For example, common
language develops better understanding between the
sender and receiver of the message and makes com-
munication more effective.
Congruence: Messages of common interest between
encoder and decoder.
Language relevance: Use of understandable language.
Compatible environment: Communications with
people of similar background.
44. (c) Mathematical Aptitude and Reasoning
The series follows a difference pattern of –2, –1.5, –1,
–0.5, and so on.
6 4 2.5 1.5 1
−2 −1.5 −1 −0.5
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 Z.54
45. (d) Higher Education System
If we define Gender Parity Index (GPI) in terms of
Gross Enrolment Ratio then it shows the ratio for girls
(or women) to boys (or men) enrolled in educational
institutions. In higher education, it measures the
female to male ratio enrolled. It is a measure of rela-
tive access to education. If the GPI is less than 1, girls
are more disadvantaged than boys in terms of access
to the institution. If both are equal then both sexes
have the same relative access. A GPI is greater than 1
indicates greater relative accessibility of girls.
The Gender Parity Index (GPI) in higher education
is calculated for the age group of 18–23 years. This
ratio reflects progress towards gender equality. It also
serves as an important indicator of women’s empow-
erment in society. The data provides state-wise gen-
der equality index for all categories including SC and
ST.
The All India Survey on Higher Education for the
year 2019–20, released in June 2021, showed that
India experienced a significant improvement in GPI.
With due care, UGC has implemented schemes such
as ‘Post Graduate Indira Gandhi Scholarship Scheme
for Single Girl Child’ and Government of India ‘Beti
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NTA-UGC NET/JRF Paper 1 2021 - Set 2
Bachao Beti Padhao’ which have profound impact on
education and society and gender inclusion. Student
enrolment increased by 11.4% in the last five years,
i.e., from 2015–16 to 2019–20.
There has been an increase of 18.2% in female enrol-
ment in higher education during this period. The
government has focused more on girls’ education,
women empowerment and empowerment of socially
backward classes. There has been an increase in the
population of women, scheduled castes and sched-
uled tribes in higher education.
The GPI in higher education in the 2019–20 report
is 1.01, which reflects an improvement in relative
access to higher education for women in the eligible
age group when compared to men, as opposed to 1.00
in 2018–19.
Questions 46–50 are taken from Comprehension
passage:
46. (a)
47. (d)
48. (c)
49. (a)
50. (b)
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