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IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS:
(2) This test paper consists of 90 questions. Each subject (MPC) has 30 questions. The maximum marks
are 300.
(3) This question paper contains Three Parts. Part-A is Mathematics, Part-B is Physics and Part-C is.
Chemistry Each part has only two sections: Section-A and Section-B.
(6) Section – A : (01-20) / (31-50) / (61-80) contains 20 multiple choice questions (MCQs) which have
only one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.
(7) Section – B: (21-30) / (51-60) / (81-90) contains 10 Numerical value based questions. The answer to
each question should be rounded off to the nearest integer. Each question carries +4 marks for
correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (09-04-2024)-Evening
MATHEMATICS
SECTION - A 2. The sum of the coefficient of x2/3 and x–2/5 in the
9
1
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 binomial expansion of x 2/3 + x −2/5 is
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices 2
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (1) 63/16 (2) 21/4
Choose the correct answer: (3) 69/16 (4) 19/4
Answer (2)
3
( /2) (sin(2t 1/3 ) + cos(t 1/3 ))dt
3
lim x is equal to x −2/5
r
(x )
9−r
1. Sol. Tr +1 = 9Cr 2/3
2
x→ 2
2 x − 2
2 −2 r
1 3 (9−r )+
= 9Cr x 5
92 32 2r
(1) (2) 16 r
8 2 1 6− 15
= 9Cr x
2r
52 112
(3) (4)
9 10 16r 2
For coefficient of x2/3 6− =
Answer (1) 15 3
90 – 16r = 10
3
( /2) (sin(2t 1/3 ) + cos(t 1/3 ))dt r=5
3
Sol. lim x
2 16r −2
x→ For coefficient of x–2/5 6 − =
−
2
2 x 15 5
90 – 16r = –6
Using Newton Leibniz theorem
r=6
2
sin 2 2 0 − sin(2 x ) 3 x + cos 2 0 − cos x 3 x
2
Sum of coefficient of x2/3 & x–2/5
= lim
x→
1 9 1
− = 9C5 + C6 6
2
2
2 x
5
2 2
−3 x 2 sin 2 x − 3 x 2 cos x 0 9! 1 9! 1 21
= lim 0 form = + 6! 3! 6 = 4
x→
2
2 x −
5! 4! 25 2
2
3. The area (in square units) of the region enclosed by
−6 x sin2x − 6 x cos 2x − 6 x cos x + 3 x sin x
2 2
the ellipse x2 + 3y2 = 18 in the first quadrant below
= lim
x→ 2
the line y = x is
2
3
2 2 (1) 3 + (2) 3 + 1
6 + 3 4
= 4 4
2 3
(3) 3 (4) 3 −
4
9 2
= Answer (3)
8
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (09-04-2024)-Evening
Put n = 9
Sol.
P11 − 2P10 − 3P9 = 0
4. Let be the roots of the equation 5. Let a = 2iˆ + jˆ + kˆ , b = −iˆ + kˆ , c = ˆj − kˆ , where
x 2 − 2 x − 3 = 0 . Let Pn = n − n , n . Then and are integers and = –6. Let the values of
the ordered pair (, ), for which the area of the
(11 3 − 10 2)P10 + (11 2 + 10)P11 − 11P12 is equal
parallelogram of diagonals a + b and b + c is
to
21
(1) 10 3P9 (2) 11 2P9 , be (1, 1) and (2, 2). Then 12 + 12 − 22
2
is equal to
(3) 10 2P9 (4) 11 3P9
(1) 19 (2) 17
Answer (1) (3) 24 (4) 21
Sol. x − 2 x − 3 = 0
2
Answer (1)
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (09-04-2024)-Evening
2
=
1
42 + 4 + ( + )2 35 = 14 r
2
35 5
21 r = = 10
Which is given 14 2
2
42 + 4 + ( + )2 = 21 Statement I is incorrect
( + )2 + 42 = 17 Statement II is correct
2 + 52 + 2 = 17
3
2 + 52 = 29 (i.e., cos2A + cos2B + cos2C − )
2
(, ) {(3,2),( −3, −2),( −3,2),(3, −2)}
Proof: (OA + OB + OC ) 0 ...(1)
= –6
2 2 2
(, ) {( −3,2),(3, −2)} and OA = OB = OC = R 2 ...(2)
12 + 12 − 22
Now, using (1), we get
= 9 + 4 – (–6) = 19 2 2 2
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (09-04-2024)-Evening
( x − 1)2 ( y − 1)
2
Sol. E : + =1 3 2 + 22 = 3(5)2 + 2(75) = 225
100 75
3/4 −1 1− x
Eccentricity of ellipse, eE = 1 −
b2 10. The integral 1/4 cos 2cot 1+ x
dx is equal to
a2
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (09-04-2024)-Evening
3 dy
1− x2 = 3y
4
1− x
Sol. cos 2cot −1 dx
dx
1+ x
1 Again differentiate
4
2x
x = cos2 1 − x 2 y − y = 3y
2 1− x2
dx = (–2sin2d)
Take limit as and ( 1− x )
(1 − x )2 y − xy = 3y 2
So value of 3 y ( 1 − x ) at x =
1 2
−2 cos 2 sin2d
2
= sin 4d
3
3
1− x
e
2
( 1− x )
sin−1 x 2
3
− cos 4
= 9e 6 = 9e 2
=
4 12. If the variance of the frequency distribution
( )
1 3/4 x c 2c 3c 4c 5c 6c
=− 2 (x2 ) − 1
4 1/4 f 2 1 1 1 1 1
( )
1 3/4
=− 2x 2 − 1 Is 160, then the value of c is
4 1/4
(1) 6 (2) 7
1 18 2
=− − 1− + 1 (3) 5 (4) 8
4 16 16
Answer (2)
1
=− Sol. xi f(xi) x(f(x) x2f(x)
4
C 2 2C 2C2
−1 1
11. If loge y = 3 sin x, then (1 – x2)y – xy at x =
2 2C 1 2C 4C2
is equal to
3C 1 3C 9C2
/6 /2
(1) 3e (2) 3e
4C 1 4C 16C2
(3) 9e/6 (4) 9e/2
5C 1 5C 25C2
Answer (4)
6C 1 6C 36C2
Sol. loge y = 3 sin−1 x
2 = E ( x 2 ) − E ( x ) , f ( x i ) = 7
3 sin−1 x
y =e
E ( x ) = x f ( x ) = 22C
dy −1 3
= e3 sin x
dx E ( x 2 ) = x 2f ( x ) = 92C 2
1− x2
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (09-04-2024)-Evening
92C 2 22C
2
1 3
2 = 160 = − 14. Let B =
5
and A be a 2 × 2 matrix such that
7 7 1
C = 7 but C N AB–1 = A–1. If BCB–1 = A and C4 + C2 + I = O, then
2 – is equal to
C=7
(1) 16 (2) 8
13. Let the range of the function
(3) 2 (4) 10
1
f (x) = ,x be [a, b]. If and Answer (4)
2 + sin3 x + cos3 x
are respectively the A.M. and the G.M. of a and b, 1 3
Sol. B =
1 5
then is equal to
AB–1 = A–1
(1) 2 (2) A2 = B
(3) (4) 2 Also, BCB–1 = A
Answer (1) C = B–1AB
1 C4 = (B–1AB)(B–1AB)(B–1AB)(B–1AB)
Sol. F ( x ) = ,x
2 + sin3 x + cos3 x = B–1A4B
sin3 x + cos3 x − 2, 2 = B–1B2B
C4 = B2
2 + sin3 x + cos3 x 2 − 2, 2 + 2
Also, C2 = (B–1AB)(B–1AB)
1 1 1 = B–1A2B
,
2 + sin3 x + cos3 x 2 + 2 2 − 2 = B–1BB
1 1 C2 = B
a= , b=
2+ 2 2− 2 C4 + C2+ I = 0
1 1 B2 + B + I = 0
+
a+b 2+ 2 2− 2
= = 1 3 1 3 4 18
2 2 B2 = =
4 1 5 1 5 6 28
= =1
2 2 4 18 1 3 0 0 0
6 28 + 1 5 + 0 = 0 0
1 1
= ab =
2+ 2 2− 2 4++=0
1 1 and 18 + 3 = 0
= =
2 2 = –6
=2
= 2
2 – = 10
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (09-04-2024)-Evening
loge ( x + )
2
Sol. x 2 + 1 dx
a3
−1 a3 r 3n = 9747
1− r 3
= 9747 …(ii)
n =0
( )
2 2
= x loge x + x 2 + 1 −
x x
−1
(
−1 x + x + 1
2
)
1 +
dx
x2 + 1 (1 − r ) = (57)
3 3
= 19
(1 − r )3 9747
2
( )
= 2log2 2 + 5 + loge ( 2 −1 − ) x
dx (1 − r ) (1 + r + r 2 )
−1 x +1 2
= 19
(1 − r )3
( )( )
2
2 − 1 − x 2 + 1
2
= loge 2 + 5
−1 18r2 – 39r + 18 = 0
2 3
9 + 4 5 r = , (rejected)
= loge − 5+ 2 3 2
1 + 2
a = 19
9 + 4 5 a + 18r
= 2 − 5 + loge
1 + 2 = 19 + 12 = 31
18. Two vertices of a triangle ABC are A(3, –1) and
16. If an unbiased dice is rolled thrice, then the
B(–2, 3), and its orthocentre is P(1, 1). If the
probability of getting a greater number in the ith roll
than the number obtained in the (i – 1)th roll, coordinates of the point C are (, ) and the centre
i = 2, 3, is equal to of the of the circle circumscribing the triangle PAB
is (h, k), then the value of ( + ) + 2(h + k) equals
(1) 1/54 (2) 5/54
(1) 5 (2) 51
(3) 2/54 (4) 3/54
(3) 15 (4) 81
Answer (2)
Answer (1)
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (09-04-2024)-Evening
2 x x
Sol. mPA = = −1
−2
Sol. 1 − ( y (t ))2 dt = y (t )dt
0 0
mBC = 1
Differentiating both side
1 − ( y ( x ))2 = y ( x )
2
dy
+y =1
2
dx
y2 + y2 = 1
2y y + 2yy = 0
y + y = 0
BC : y = x + 5 y + y + 1 = 1
0
2 −2
mBP = = 20. Consider the line L passing through the points
−3 3 (1, 2, 3) and (2, 3, 5). The distance of the point
3 11 11 19
mAC = 3 , 3 , 3 from the line L along the line
2
3 11 3 x − 11 3 y − 11 3z − 19
AC : y = x− 2y = 3x –11 = = is equal to
2 2 2 1 2
C : (21, 26) (1) 4 (2) 6
(3) 5 (4) 3
Let the circumcentre be (h, k)
Answer (4)
(h –1)2 + (k – 1)2 = (h + 2)2 + (k – 3)2 …(i)
x −1 y − 2 z − 3
(h –1)2 + (k – 1)2 = (h – 3)2 + (k + 1)2 …(ii) Sol. L : = = =
1 1 2
Solving (i) and (ii) 11 11 19
x− y− z−
−19 −23 Measured along L2 : 3 = 3 = 3 =
h= ,k = 2 1 2
2 2
3 3 3
+ + 2(h + k)
Any point on L1 : ( + 1, + 2, 2 + 3)
= 21 + 26 – 19 – 23
2 11 11 2 19
Any point on L2 + , + , +
=2+3=5 3 3 3 3 3 3
x x
19. Let 0 1 − ( y (t ))2 dt = y (t )dt ,
0
0 x 3, y 0, y (0) = 0 . Then at x = 2, y + y + 1
is equal to
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 2 (4) 1/ 2
Answer (1)
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (09-04-2024)-Evening
Now 22. The square of the distance of the image of the point
2 11 x −1 y z − 2
+1= + (6, 1, 5) in the line = = , from the origin
3 3 3 2 4
is ______
11
+2= + Answer (62)
3 3
= −3
2
=
3 Sol.
5 8 13
Point on L = , ,
3 3 3
2 2 2
11 5 8 11 19 13
d = − + − + − PA = (3 − 5)iˆ + (2 − 1) ˆj + (4 − 3)kˆ
3 3 3 3 3 3
(3 – 5)3 + (2 – 1)2 + (4 – 3)4 = 0
d = 4 + 1+ 4
9 – 15 + 4 – 2 + 16 – 12 = 0
d=3 29 = 29
SECTION - B =1
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section A(4, 2, 6)
contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to
P : mirror image of P
each question should be rounded-off to the nearest
integer. P (2, 3, 7)
(OP)2 = 4 + 9 + 49
21. Let the inverse trigonometric functions take
= 62
principal values. The number of real solutions of the
2 2 −5 20
equation 2 sin−1 x + 3 cos−1 x = , is _______ 23. Consider the matrices: A= ,B=
5 3 m m
Answer (0) x
and X = . Let the set of all m, for which the
2 y
Sol. 2sin−1 x + 3cos−1 x = system of equations AX = B has a negative solution
5
(i.e., x < 0 and y < 0), be the interval (a, b). Then
2
+ cos−1 x = b
8 A dm is equal to ______
2 5 a
2 Answer (450)
cos−1 x = −
5 2 Sol. AX = B
− 2x – 5y = 20
cos−1 x =
10 3x + my = m
Which is not possible as cos–1x[0, ] 20 + 5 y
3 + my = m
No solution 2
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (09-04-2024)-Evening
30 +
15
y + my = m (a, c ) ( 3, 8 ) , (4, 6), (5, 4), (6, 2), (7, 0)
2
3!
15 ways 5 × 3 – 1
y + m = m − 30 2!
2
= 15 – 1 = 14
m − 30 15
y= 0 m − , 30 Case III
15
+m 2 All digits are distinct
2
a + b + c = 14
2x − 20
Similarly : 3 x + m =m without losing generality a > b > c
5
(9, 5, 0), (9, 4, 1), (9, 3, 2)
2mx 20m (8, 6, 0), (8, 5, 1), (8, 4, 2)
3x + − =m
5 5 (a, b, c )
(7, 6, 1), (7, 5, 2), (7, 4, 3)
15 x + 2mx 25m (6, 5, 3)
= 5m x =
5 15 + 2m
8 × 3! + 2(3! –2!) = 48 + 8 = 56
25m 15
x0 0 m − , 0 = 0 + 14 + 56 = 70
15 + 2m 2
1 1 1
25. If + + .... +
15 +1 + 2 + 1012
m − , 0
2 1 1 1 1 1
− + + + ... + = , then
15 2·1 4·3 6·5 2024·2023 2024
a=− , b=0
2 is equal to ______
0 Answer (1011)
8 (2m + 15)dm = 450
1 1 1
−
15 Sol. + + ... + −
2 +1 + 2 + 2012
24. The number of integers, between 100 and 1000 1 1 1 1 1
having the sum of their digits equals to 14, is ____ 2 21 + 4 3 + ... + 2024 2023 = 2024
Answer (70) 1012
1 1012
1 1
Sol. Number in this range will be 3-digit number. 2r (2r − 1) = 2r − 1 − 2r
r =1 r =1
N = abc such that a + b + c = 14
1 1 1 1 1
= 1 − + − + ... + −
Also, a 1, a, b, c 0, 1, 2, ...9 2 3 4 2023 2024
Case I 1 1 1
= 1 + + + .... +
All 3-digit same 3 5 2023
3a = 14 not possible
1 1 1 1
− + + + .... +
Case II 2 4 6 2024
Exactly 2 digit same:
1 1 1 1 1 1
= 1 + + ... + − 1 + + + ... +
2a + c = 14
3 2023 2 2 3 1012
- 11 -
JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (09-04-2024)-Evening
= 1011
f ( x ) = − cos 4 x( p 2 − 6 p + 8) + 2(2 − p ) x + 7 x + = 2 x =
For circle chord with (2t2, 4t) as mid point
f ( x ) = 4 sin 4 x( p 2 − 6 p + 8) + 2(2 − p ) 0
T = S1
2(2 − p ) + −4( p2 − 6 p + 8), 4( p2 − 6 p + 8)
xx1 + yy1 − 4 = x12 + y12 − 4
- 12 -
JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (09-04-2024)-Evening
28. For a differentiable function 30. Let A, B and C be three points on the parabola
y2 = 6x and let the line segment AB meet the line
f : → , suppose f (x) = 3f(x) + , where ,
L through C parallel to the x-axis at the point D. Let
f(0) = 1 and lim f ( x ) = 7 . Then 9f (–loge3) is M and N respectively be the feet of the
x →−
perpendiculars from A and B on L. Then
equal to ____.
2
Answer (61) AM · BN
is equal to _______
CD
Sol. f ( x ) = 3f ( x ) +
Answer (36)
dy
= dx Sol. Equation of AB
3y +
y (t1 + t2 ) = 2 x + 2at1t 2
1
ln (3 y + ) = x + C
3
1
y (0) = 1 C = ln (3 + )
3
1 3y +
ln =x
3 3 +
y=
1
3
( )
(3 + )e3 x − = f ( x )
lim f ( x ) = 7 = −21
x →−
f ( x ) = 7 − 6e3 x
B = {x: (x, y) A}. Then the number of one-one CD = | a(t1t3 + t 2t3 − t1t3 ) − at32 |
functions from A to B is equal to
AM = | 2at1 − 2at3 |
Answer (24)
BN = | 2at3 − 2at 2 |
Sol. A = ( x, y );2 x + 3 y = 23, x, y N
2 2
AM BN 4a2 (t1 − t 3 )(t3 − t2 )
A = (1, 7), (4, 5), (7, 3), (10, 1) CD =
a(t t + t t − t t − t 2 )
13 2 3 13 3
B = x : ( x, y ) A
2
4a2 (t − t )(t − t )
B = 1, 4, 7, 10
= 1 3 3 2
a(t1 − t3 )(t2 − t3 )
So, total number of one-one functions from A to B 2
3
is 4! = 24 = 16a2 = 16 = 36
2
- 13 -
JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (09-04-2024)-Evening
PHYSICS
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 shown in the figure. The device is
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
n=2 [ML2 T −2 ]
= = [ML2 T −1 ]
[T −1 ]
Number of lines = 2C2 = 1
- 14 -
JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (09-04-2024)-Evening
35. Two cars are travelling towards each other at speed 37. The excess pressure inside a soap bubble is thrice
of 20 m s–1 each. When the cars are 300 m apart, the excess pressure inside a second soap bubble.
both the drivers apply brakes and the cars retard at The ratio between the volume of the first and the
the rate of 2 m s–2. The distance between them
second bubble is
when they come to rest is
(1) 1 : 81 (2) 1 : 3
(1) 25 m (2) 200 m
(3) 1 : 9 (4) 1 : 27
(3) 100 m (4) 50 m
Answer (4)
Answer (3)
Sol. v2 – u2 = 2aS 4T
Sol. P =
r
0 – (20)2 = 2(–2)S
P1 r2
S = 100 = =3
P2 r1
Snet = 2S = 200
r2 = 3r2
d = 300 – Snet
= 100 m 4 3
and, V = r
3
36. The following figure represents two biconvex
lenses L1 and L2 having focal length 10 cm and V1 1
=
V2 27
15 cm respectively. The distance between L1 and
L2 is 38.
L1L2 = f1 + f2 for A = 0, B = 1, Y = 1
= 10 + 15 = 25 cm for A = 1, B = 0, Y = 1
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (09-04-2024)-Evening
39. The magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic wave 41. A square loop of side 15 cm being moved towards
is right at a constant speed of 2 cm/s shown in figure.
The front edge enters the 50 cm wide magnetic field
By = (3.5 × 10–7) sin(1.5 × 103x + 0.5 × 1011t)T. The at t = 0. The value of induced emf in the loop at
corresponding electric field will be t = 10 s will be
None of the options are correct. magnetic field B , moving perpendicular to B . The
ratio of the radius rd of deutron path to the radius rp
40. UV light of 4.13 eV is incident on a photosensitive of the proton path is
metal surface having work function 3.13 eV. The
(1) 2 :1 (2) 1 : 2
maximum kinetic energy of ejected photoelectrons
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 1: 2
will be
Answer (1)
(1) 1 eV (2) 3.13 eV
mv
(3) 4.13 eV (4) 7.26 eV Sol. r =
Bq
Answer (1) and mv = 2km
Sol. KEmax = h – 0 r m
= 4.13 – 3.13 rd
= 2
rp
= 1 eV
- 16 -
JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (09-04-2024)-Evening
- 17 -
JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (09-04-2024)-Evening
46. A 1 kg mass is suspended from the ceiling by a rope 47. The effective resistance between A and B, if
resistance of each resistor is R, will be
of length 4m. A horizontal force ‘F’ is applied at the
mid point of the rope so that the rope makes an
angle of 45° with respect to the vertical axis as
shown in figure. The magnitude of F is
5R 4R
(1) (2)
3 3
8R 2
(3) (4) R
3 3
Answer (3)
Sol. Removing the resistors along the line of symmetry
2R
Req = R + +R
3
8R
=
3
48. A real gas within a closed chamber at 27°C
1
(1) N undergoes the cyclic process as shown in figure.
10 2 The gas obeys PV3 = RT equation for the path
(2) 10 N A to B. The net work done in the complete cycle is
(assuming R = 8 J/mol K)
10
(3) N
2
(4) 1 N
Answer (2)
Sol. T1 cos45 = F
and, T1 sin45 = mg
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (09-04-2024)-Evening
2s
and t =
a
a1
t2 = t1
5q 4q a2
(1) (2)
0 0
3
3q q =t
(3) (4) 2
0 0
=3
Answer (2)
q 52. At room temperature (27°C), the resistance of a
Sol. = en
0 heating element is 50 . The temperature
- 19 -
JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (09-04-2024)-Evening
Sol. R = R0 (1 + T) ( )
55. An electric field E = 2 xiˆ NC –1 exists in space. A
62 = 50 (1 + 2.4 × 10–4 T) cube of side 2 m is placed in the space as per figure
0.24 = 2.4 × 10–4 T given below. The electric flux through the cube is
2
T = 1000 ________ Nm /C.
T = 1000 + 27
= 1027 °C
2
53. A force (3x + 2x – 5) N displaces a body from
x = 2 m to x = 4 m. Work done by this force is
_______ J.
Answer (58)
2
= 7 44
22
= 28
- 20 -
JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (09-04-2024)-Evening
V0
Sol. i= =1
2Z
P = i2R = 1 × 4 = 4 W
- 21 -
JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (09-04-2024)-Evening
CHEMISTRY
Cm2
Ka =
(1) (2) (
mo mo − m )
Ka m
o2
− Ka m
o
m = Cm2
- 22 -
JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (09-04-2024)-Evening
64. The electronic configuration of Einsteinium is : 67. The correct stability order of the following
(Given atomic number of Einsteinium = 99) resonance structures of CH3 – CH = CH – CHO is
3 stereocentres (2)
Total Stereoisomerism = 23 = 8
66. The incorrect statement about Glucose is : (3)
(1) Glucose is soluble in water because of having
aldehyde functional group
(4)
(2) Glucose is an aldohexose
(3) Glucose is one of the monomer unit in sucrose
Answer (4)
(4) Glucose remains in multiple in isomeric form in
its aqueous solution Sol.
Answer (1)
Sol. The reason glucose dissolves readily in water is
because it has lots of polar hydroxyl groups which
can H-bond with water and not because of
aldehyde functional group.
The incorrect statement is (1)
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (09-04-2024)-Evening
69. Match List I with List II 70. Match List I with List II
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (09-04-2024)-Evening
Sol. Aldehydes reacts with Tollen’s reagent to form a (C) Br (III) [He] 2s2 2p3
silver mirror aldehydes themselves are oxidised to
carboxylate ions and silver nitrate is reduced to (D) Kr (IV) [Ar] 3d10 4s2 4p6
block silver metal. Choose the correct answer from the options given
R– CHO + [Ag(NH3 )2+ OH– –
→ RCOO + Ag +NH
4
below:
(1) (A) – (III), (B) – (II), (C) – (I), (D) – (IV)
Formaldehyde and benzaldehyde gives silver
mirror with ammoniacal silver nitrate as they (2) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)
contain an aldehyde group. Formic acid has the (3) (A) – (I), (B) – (IV), (C) – (III), (D) – (II)
aldehydic H along with –COOH group it also gives (4) (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)
silver mirror with ammoniacal silver nitrate. Acetone Answer (1)
does not exhibit silver mirror test as they do not Sol. Element Electronic configuration
contain an aldehyde group. (A) N (Z = 7) (III) [He]2s22p3
72. The candela is the luminous intensity, in a given (B) S (Z = 16) (II) [Ne]3s23p4
direction, of a source that emits monochromatic (C) Br (Z = 35) (I) [Ar]3d104s24p5
radiation of frequency ‘A’ × 1012 hertz and that has (D) Kr (Z = 36) (IV) [Ar]3d104s24p6
1
a radiant intensity in that direction of watt per 74. Match List-I with List-II
'B '
steradian. List-I List-II
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (09-04-2024)-Evening
75. For a sparingly soluble salt AB2, the equilibrium Choose the correct answer from the options given
concentrations of A2+ ions and B– ions are 1.2 × below:
10–4 M and 0.24 × 10–3 M, respectively. The (1) (A) – (II), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (I)
solubility product of AB2 is
(2) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)
(1) 0.069 × 10–12 (2) 6.91 × 10–12
(3) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)
(3) 0.276 × 10–12 (4) 27.65 × 10–12
(4) (A) – (III), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (II)
Answer (2)
Answer (2)
2+ –
Sol. For AB2 A + 2B
Sol. Leclanche cell is the dry cell. It consists of a zinc
container that acts as anode and cathode is a
Ksp = [A2+] [B–]
carbon rod.
= (1.2 × 10–4) (0.24 × 10–3)2
The electrode reactions are:
= 0.0691 × 10–10
Anode: Zn(s) → Zn2+ + 2e–
Ksp = 6.91 × 10–12
Cathode: MnO2 + NH4+ + e– → MnO ( OH) + NH3
76. The correct increasing order for bond angles
among BF3, PF3 and CIF3 is Nickel-cadmium cell is rechargeable. Galvanic cells
(1) ClF3 < PF3 < BF3 (2) PF3 < BF3 < ClF3 that are designed to convert the energy of
combustion of fuels like hydrogen, methane etc
(3) BF3 < PF3 < ClF3 (4) BF3 = PF3 < ClF3
directly into electrical energy are called fuel cells.
Answer (1) Mercury cell is suitable for low current devices like
Sol. BF3 is trigonal planar with an angle of 120°, PF3 has hearing ards.
a lone pair of electrons. The angle here is around 78. The incorrect statements regarding ethyne is
96°. ClF3 has 2 lone pairs of electrons and has a
(1) The corbon – carbon bonds in ethyne is weaker
bond angle of 90°- it is T-shaped.
than that in ethene
77. Match List-I with List-II
(2) Both carbons are sp hybridised
List-I List-I (3) The C – C bond in ethyne is shorter than that in
(Cell) (Use/Property/Reaction) ethane
(A) Leclanc (I) Converts energy of (4) Ethyne is linear
he Cell combustion into Answer (1)
electrical energy
Sol. In Ethyne HC CH, both carbons are sp hybridised
(B) Ni -Cd (II) Does not involve any ion and carbon – carbon bonds in ethyne are shorter
cell in solution and is used in (~ 120 pm) than that in ethene (~133 pm) and the
hearing aids strength of C C bond (bond enthalpy ~823 kJ
mol–1) is more than those of C = C bond (bond
(C) Fuel cell (III) Rechargeable
enthalpy ~681 kJ mol–1). Electron cloud between
(D) Mercury (IV) Reaction at anode two carbon atoms in cylindrically symmetrical about
cell Zn → Z + 2e–
2+ the internuclear axis. Thus, ethyne is a linear
molecule.
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (09-04-2024)-Evening
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (09-04-2024)-Evening
h At t = 0 pi 0 0
x mv =
4 t = 23 s pi – p 2p p pTotal = 200 torr
h t = very 0 2pi pi pTotal = 300 torr
v =
4 m x long time
2pi + pi = 300 pi = 100 torr
6.626 10−34
v =
4 3.14 (10−15 ) 9.1 10−31 Now, for first order reaction
2.303 p
v = 0.0579 1012 ms−1 k= log i
t pi – p
or v = 58 109 ms−1
For t = 23 s
84. A transition metal ‘M’ among Sc, Ti, V, Cr, Mn and 2.303 2pi
Fe has the highest second ionisation enthalpy. The k= log
23 3pi – 300
spin-only magnetic moment value of M+ ion is
2.303
_____ BM (Near Integer) k= log2 = 0.0301
23
(Given atomic number Sc : 21, Ti : 22, V : 23, Cr :
24, Mn : 25, Fe : 26) k = 3.01 × 10–2 s–1
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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (09-04-2024)-Evening
86. Total number of electrons present in (*) molecular 88. Consider the following test for a group-IV cation.
orbitals of O2, O 2+ and O 2– is________. M2+ + H2S → A (Black precipitate) + byproduct
❑ ❑ ❑
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