Paper Set

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME

IIT - JEE (M+A) : 2021

(Academic Session : 2019 - 2020)
B
CLASS : NURTURE (XI) (PHASE - I)
TEST PATTERN : JEE -MAINS DATE : 01 - 05 - 2019
Time : 3 Hours INTERNAL TEST - 1 Maximum Marks : 360

Student's Form No. : ..................................................................... Batch : ..........................................

Student's Name : .........................................................................................................................................
INSTRUCTIONS
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
A. General:
1. This Question Paper contains 90 questions.
2. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
3. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed.
4. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately.
5. Do not Tamper/ mutilate the ORS or this booklet.
6. Do not break the seals of the question - paper booklet before instructed to do so by the invigilators.
7. How to fill response on OMR (Assuming answer is (1)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Correct Method
Wrong Method
B. Filling the top-half of the ORS:
8. Write your ALLEN Form Number, Student's Name, Father's Name and Class with pen in appropriate boxes. Do not write these any where else.
9. Darken the appropriate bubbles on ORS with blue / black ball point pen only.
C. Question paper format and Marking scheme:
10. The question paper consists of 3 PARTS.
(i) Part-I : consists of 30 questions of Physics. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct
answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases minus one (–1) mark will be awarded.
(ii) Part-II : consists of 30 questions of Chemistry. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the
correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases minus one (–1) mark will be awarded.
(iii) Part-III: consists of 30 questions of Maths. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct
answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened.In all other cases minus one (–1) mark will be awarded.
11. Question paper code given on Top right corner must be written and bubbled on OMR (Answer Sheet)

C
For Example: A B C A B C
 IIT-JEE (M+A) NURTURE COURSE (PHASE - I)

INTERNAL TEST - 1 DATE : 01 - 05 - 2019

SYLLABUS

PHYSICS : Mathematical Tools (Upto Area Under Curve)

CHEMISTRY : Atomic Structure

MATHS : Basic Mathematics

.
.
 Nurture Course/Phase-I/INTERNAL TEST - 1/01-05-2019/PAPER SET - B
PART A - PHYSICS
1. If radius of a sphere is increasing at the rate 2 m/s. 6. Find value of cosec (315o).
Then rate of change of surface area of a sphere
1
(in m2/s) if radius is r = 1 m . (1) - 2 (2) -
2
(1) 8p (2) 16p
(3) – 1 (4) 1
(3) 10p (4) 12p
7. Divide 40 in two parts so that their product is
2p maximum.
2. òqdq=
p
(1) 10, 30 (2) 15, 25
(3) 20, 20 (4) 5, 35
3p 2 q2
ò xe
x2
(1) (2) 8. dx =
2 2
2 2

q2 4p2 (1) ex + c (2) 2ex + c

(3) +c (4)
2 3 2

2 x2 ex
(3) 2x e + c (4) +c
3. Find minimum value of y if y = x 2 - 4x + 8 2
(1) 1 (2) 2 1 1 1
(3) 3 (4) 4 9. Find 1 + + + + .....upto ¥.
2 4 8
4
æ pö (1) 1 (2) 2
4. ò èç sin 6 ÷ødx =
0
(3) 3 (4) 4

10. Approximate value of (0.99) =

4
æpö æ2ö
(1) 4cos ç ÷ (2) cos ç ÷ - 1 (1) 1.04 (2) 0.90
è6ø è3ø
(3) 2 (4) -1 (3) 0.96 (4) 0.92
11. Find sin15°
5. 2x 2 - 4x + 9 = 0 . Find product of roots
9 2 2 3 +1
(1) 2 (2) (1) (2)
2 3 -1 2 2

-9 2 2 3 -1
(3) – 2 (4) (3) (4)
2 3 +1 2 2

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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 Target : IIT-JEE (M+A) 2019-20/01-05-2019/PAPER SET - B

dy
12. Distance between two points (8, -4 ) and (0,a ) is 10. 16. x 2 y + 2x = y2 , find
dx
All the values are in the same unit of length. Find the
positive value of a. (1 + xy) 2 + xy
(1) 2y - x 2 (2) y - x 2
(1) 10 (2) 2
(3) 4 (4) 6
2 (1 + xy) 2 + 2xy
13. f ( x ) = y = x 2 + 1 , find f éë f {f (1)}ùû . (3)
2y - x 2
(4) y - x2
(1) 26 (2) 2 17. Find S = 12 + 22 + 32 + ............112
(3) 24 (4) 5
(1) 506 (2) 504
dy (3) 501 (4) 503
14. If y = ln ( tan x ) , then
dx 18. Find slope of given line
(1) 2sec 2x (2) 2co sec 2x y
(3) sec 2x (4) co sec 2x
(0, 8)
15. Find average value of y in x = 0 to 6

y x
(4, 0)
4
(1) –1 (2) –2
4 6 (3) –3 (4) –4
x
19. Find distance between the points ( 0, -1, 2) and
–2
(0,2,6) .
(1) 4 2 (2) 6
2 -2
(1) (2) (3) 3 2 (4) 5
3 3
20. Find slope of y = x 2 - 3x + 4 at x = -1
2 4
(3) (4) (1) –1 (2) – 5
5 3
(3) –3 (4) –4

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 Nurture Course/Phase-I/INTERNAL TEST - 1/01-05-2019/PAPER SET - B

21. A particle moves along the curve 12y = x 3 . Which 26. If log 2 + log 3 = log X , then value of X is
coordinate changes at faster rate at x = 10 ? (1) 6 (2) 12
(1) x – coordinate (3) 18 (4) 5
(2) y – coordinate
dy
(3) Both x and y – coordinate change by same 27. If x = a cos t, y = b sin t then equals:
dx
amount
(4) Path of particle is parabola b b
(1) cot t (2) - cot t
a a
3
22. cos q = . Find tan q if q lies in IVth quadrant a a
5
(3) t an t (4) - t an t
b b
4 -4 4 -4
(1) (2) (3) (4) 28. If surface area of a cube is changing at a rate of
5 5 3 3
5m2/s, find the rate of change of body diagonal at
23. Find approximate value of tan (3o).
the moment when side length is 1 m.
(1) 3° (2) 3 rad
(1) 5 m/s (2) 5 3 m/s
p
(3) (4) 0°
60 5 5
(3) 3 m/s (4) m/s
4 4 3
ò x (x )
-3
24. 2
+ 2 dx
29. Determine the average value of y = 2x + 3 in the
1 2 interval 0 £ x £ 1.
(1) ln x - +c (2) lnx - +c
x2 x2 (1) 1 (2) 2
2 1 -2 (3) 3 (4) 4
(3) lnx + +c (4) + +c 30. Find minimum values of y:
x2 x x2
2 2 2 y = 3 sin x - 4 cos x
25. Find S = 2 - + - + .........¥
3 9 27 (1) 5 (2) –5
(3) 0 (4) –4
3
(1) 3 (2)
2

3
(3) (4) 2
4

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 Target : IIT-JEE (M+A) 2019-20/01-05-2019/PAPER SET - B

PART B - CHEMISTRY
31. Which of the following atomic orbitals is not directed 35. Difference between nth and (n + 1)th Bohr’s radius
along the axis ? of H-atom is equal to its (n – 1)th Bohr’s radius. The
(1) px (2) d x 2 - y2 value of n is
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) d xy (4) d z2 (3) 3 (4) 4
32. Which one of the following sets correctly represents 36. Magnetic moment of Mnx+ is 15 then the value of
paramagnetic property of ions ?
x is
(1) Cu +2 > V +2 > Cr +2 > Mn +2 (1) 1 (2) 2
(2) Cu +2 > Cr +2 > V +2 > Mn +2 (3) 3 (4) 4
37. Light of wavelength l shines on a metal surface
(3) Cu +2 < V +2 < Cr +2 < Mn +2
with intensity x and the metal emits y electrons per
(4) V+2 < Cu +2 < Cr +2 < Mn +2 second of average energy z. What will happen to y
and z if x is doubled ?
33. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
(1) y will be doubled and z will become half
(1) Quantum numbers n, l, m and ms needed to
(2) y will remain same and z will be doubled
describe an electron in an atom completely
(3) Both y and z will be doubled
(2) Quantum numbers n, l, m and s are obtained
by solving the Schrodinger wave equation (4) y will be doubled but z will remain same
(3) A subshell in an atom can be designated with 38. Any d-orbital can accomodate upto
two quantum numbers n and l (1) 10 electrons (2) 5 electrons
(4) The maximum value of l is equal to n – 1 and (3) 2 electrons (4) 6 electrons
that of m is ± l 39. Number of visible lines when an electron returns from
5th orbit to ground state in H-spectrum.
34. If E1, E2 and E3 represent respectively the kinetic
energies of an electron, an alpha particle and a proton (1) 5 (2) 4
each having same de Broglie wavelengths then (3) 3 (4) 10
(1) E1 > E3 > E2 (2) E2 > E3 > E1 40. The number of radial nodes, nodal planes for an orbital
(3) E1 > E2 > E3 (4) E1 = E2 = E3 with n = 4, l = 1, is
(1) 3, 1 (2) 2, 1
(3) 2, 0 (4) 4, 0

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 Nurture Course/Phase-I/INTERNAL TEST - 1/01-05-2019/PAPER SET - B

41. Two particles A and B are in motion. If the wavelength 46. What transition of Li+2 spectrum will have same
associated with particle A is 5 ´ 10-8 m, calculate wavelength as that of second line of Balmer series
the wavelength associated with particle B if its in He+ spectrum ? (n1 ® n 2 )
momentum is half of A. (1) 6 ® 4 (2) 3 ® 1
(1) 10–9 m (2) 10–10 m
(3) 3 ® 6 (4) 4 ® 6
(3) 10–8 m (4) 10–7 m
42. Which of the following statement(s) is correct about 47. In a collection of H-atoms, all the electrons jump
angular nodes ? from 4th excited state to ground level finally (directly
(or) indirectly) without emitting any line in Balmer
(1) They are independent from the radial wave
series. The number of possible different radiations is
function
(1) 10 (2) 8
(2) They are directional in nature
(3) 7 (4) 6
(3) The number of angular nodes of orbital is equal
to azimuthal quantum number 48. Which of the following curves represent the speed
of electron in a H-atom as a function of principle
(4) All are correct
quantum number (n) ?
43. Number of electrons of manganese with magnetic
quantum number value “0” are (Mn = 25)
(1) 1 (2) 8 (3) 12 (4) 13 vn vn
44. Consider the following statements. (1) (2)
Identify correct statement.
n n
(1) Electron density in XY plane in 3d x 2 - y2 orbital
is zero
(2) Electron density in XY plane in 3d z2 orbital vn vn
is zero (3) (4)
(3) 2s orbital has only one spherical node
n n
(4) For 2pz orbital yz is the nodal plane
45. In an atom the order of increasing energy of electrons 49. The ionization energy of H-atom is x kJ. The energy
with quantum numbers. required for the electron to jump form
(i) n = 4, l = 1 (ii) n = 4, l = 0 n = 2 to n = 3 will be
36x
(iii) n = 3, l = 2 (iv) n = 3, l = 1 (1) 5x (2)
5
(1) iii < i < iv < ii (2) ii < iv < i < iii
5x 9x
(3) i < iii < ii < iv (4) iv < ii < iii < i (3) (4)
36 4
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 Target : IIT-JEE (M+A) 2019-20/01-05-2019/PAPER SET - B
50. Angular momentum of an electron in hydrogen atom 56. Photo electric emission is observed from a surface
is proportional to for frequencies n1 and n2 ; the KE in two cases
1 are in the ratio 1 : k then the threshold frequency
(1) r (2)
r n0 is given by

1 n2 - n1 kn1 - n2
(3) r2 (4) (1) (2)
r k -1 k -1
51. The kinetic energy of an electron in the second Bohr
kn2 - n1 n2 - n1
orbit of a hydrogen atom is [a 0 is Bohr radius] (3) (4)
k -1 k
h h2 57. When a hydrogen atom emits a photon of energy
(1) 4p 2 ma 2 (2) 16p 2 ma 2
0 0 12.1 eV, the orbital angular momentum changes by

h2 h2 h 3h h 2h
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(3)
32p 2 ma 20 (4) 64p 2 ma 2 2p 2p p p
0

52. Which of the following is the energy of a possible e

58. The ratio of cathode rays is X unit, when
excited state of H-atom ? m
hydrogen is filled in the discharge tube. What will be
(1) + 13.6 eV (2) – 6.8 eV
its value when deuterium (D2) is filled in it ?
(3) – 3.4 eV (4) + 6.8 eV
53. Consider the ground state of Cr atom (z = 24). The X
(1) X-unit (2) unit
number of electrons with the azimuthal quantum 2
numbers l = 1 and 2 are respectively.
X
(1) 16 and 5 (2) 12 and 5 (3) 2X unit (4) unit
4
(3) 16 and 4 (4) 12 and 4
59. An electron has a speed of 40 ms–1 accurate up to
54. The wave mechanical model of atom is based upon 99.99%. What is the uncertainty in its location?
(1) de-Broglie concept of dual character of matter
(1) 1.45 ´ 10-2 m (2) 3.2 ´ 10-2 m
(2) Heisenbergs uncertainty principle
(3) Schrodinger wave equation (3) 2.2 ´ 10-2 m (4) 5.5 ´ 10-2 m
(4) All the above 60. When speed of electron increases, the specific charge
55. Select the pair of ions which have same electronic (1) Decreases (2) Increases
configuration ?
(3) Remains same (4) Cannot predict
(1) Cr+3, Fe3+ (2) Fe3+, Mn2+
(3) Fe+3, Co+3 (4) Se3+, Cr+3
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 Nurture Course/Phase-I/INTERNAL TEST - 1/01-05-2019/PAPER SET - B
PART C - MATHEMATICS
61. The fractional form of 3.14 is 64. If n = odd integer, then the value of
n n
æ 1+ i ö æ 1- i ö
(1)
22
7
(2)
311
99
çè ÷ +ç
1- iø è1+ iø
÷ ( where i = -1 )
312 310 (1) 0 (2) -2i n
(3) (4)
99 99 (3) i (4) 2in
62. Number of cyphers after decimal before a significant 65. The number of real roots of the equation
-100
æ 5ö 2
x - 5 x + 6 = 0 is
figure comes in ç ÷ is :
è 3ø
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
given (log10 5 = 0.6990 & log10 3 = 0.4771) 66. Find number of values of x which satisfy
(1) 21 (2) 22
( )
log 3 11 + 3x = 2
(3) 23 (4) 24
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 0 (4) 4
63. x + 1 + 2x - 3 = 3x - 2 67. The value of
then values of x satisfying the given equation are 1 1 1 1
+ + + ...... +
(1) [ -1, ¥] 2 +1 3+ 2 4+ 3 100 + 99

(1) 8 (2) 9
æ 3ù
(2) x Î ç - ¥, ú (3) 8.5 (4) 10
è 2û
( x - 1)( x + 1)( x - 2 ) (e3 x - 1)
2

é 3ù 68. If £0 , then the

(3) ê -1, ú x (3 - x ) ( x - 1) ( x + 3)
3 2
ë 2û
complete solution set of values of x is
é3 ö
(4) x Î( -¥, -1] È ê , ¥÷ø (1) ( -¥, -3) È (3, ¥)
ë2
(2) ( -¥, -3) È [ -1,1) È (3, ¥) È {2} - {0}

(3) ( -¥, -3) È ( -1,1) È ( 3, ¥ )

(4) ( -¥, -1) È (3, ¥)

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69. Given that x + x - 6 is a factor of

2
1 1
73. If x - = 25 - 3
2

2x 4 + x 3 - ax 2 + bx + a + b - 1 . Then find the value x -8

3
x -8
of a, b So number of real solutions of the given equations
(1) a = 5, b = 6 are
(2) a = 16, b = 3
(1) 0 (2) 2
(3) a = 3, b = 16 (4) a = 7, b = 9
(3) 5 (4) 3
70. The sum of the roots of the equation,
74. If 2x = 4z = 8z and xyz = 288
x + 2x - 3 - 4 = 0 is
2

1 1 1
then value of + + is
(1) –2 (2) 2 2x 4y 8z
(3) - 2 (4) 2 11 11
(1) (2)
71. If x is a solution of the equation 48 24

æ 1ö 11 11
2x + 1 - 2x - 1 = 1, ç x ³ ÷ , then 4x 2 - 1 is (3) (4)
è 2ø 8 96
equal to
3 1 75. log 1 10 + log 4 625 - log 1 5 is equal to
(1) (2) 2 2
4 2
(3) 2 (4) 2 2 (1) 2 (2) log 2 5
72. Complete set of real values of x for which (3) 1 (4) log 2 25

( )
log 2x -3 x 2 - 5x - 6 is defined is 76. The value of [p ] - [-e ] is where [.] denotes greatest
integer function.
æ3 ö
(1) çè , ¥ø÷ (2) ( 6,¥) (1) 5 (2) 6
2
(3) 7 (4) 8
æ3 ö æ3 ö 78. The value of x which satisfies the equation
(3) çè ,6ø÷ (4) çè ,2ø÷ È ( 2,6)
2 2 x 2 - 7x + 12 < x - 4 is
(1) x < 2 (2) x > 4
(3) 2 < x < 4 (4) 3 < x < 5

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 Nurture Course/Phase-I/INTERNAL TEST - 1/01-05-2019/PAPER SET - B

79. 3log4 5 + 4log5 3 - 5log 4 3 - 3log5 4 is 84. P(x) is a polynomial of degree 5 with leading co-
efficient unity such that
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) –1 p(1) = 1, p (2) = 4, p (3) = 9, p (4) = 16, p (5) = 25
80. The complete set of values of x, satisfying the given So, value of p (6) is
relation (1) 6 (2) 156
5x + 8 (3) 120 (4) 36
< 2 are 85. The sum of all real values of x satisfying the equation:
4-x
( x -1)( x 2 + 5x - 50)
(1) x Î( -¥,0) È ( 4, ¥) (2) x Î( 0,4) 2 = 1 is
(1) 16 (2) 14
(3) x Î[0, 4) (4) x Î( 4, ¥) (3) –4 (4) –5
81. Given that log10 2 = 0.30103 so number of digits in 86. If x = 3 - 4i , then the value of x 2 - 6x + 35 is

the number ( 2000)

2000
is (1) 0 (2) 10
(3) 5 (4) 15
(1) 6601 (2) 6602
(3) 6603 (4) 6604 1 1
87. If x + = 2 , then value of x3 + 3 is equal
82. The sum of all the solution of the equation x x
(1) 0 (2) 1
2log10 x - log10 ( 2x - 75) = 2
(3) 2 (4) 3
(1) 30 (2) 350 88. The values of x satisfying the equation
(3) 75 (4) 200
83. If p(x) be a quadratic polynomial such that 3x - 10 > 6 - x are
p(0) =1. If p(x) leaves remainder 4 when divided
(1) x Î( 4,6]
by x – 1 and it leaves remainder 6 when divided
by x + 1, then (2) x Î( -¥, 4) È (6, ¥ )
(1) p ( 2) = 13 (2) p ( 2) = 15
(3) x Î( -¥,4)
(3) p ( 2) = 17 (4) p ( 2) = 19
(4) x Î(8, ¥)

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89. If x = log5 (1000) , y = log 7 2058 , then 90. If p, q, r are real & distinct numbers, then the value
(1) x > y
of
( p - q )3 + (q - r)3 + (r - p)3 is
(2) x < y ( p - q )( q - r )( r - p)
(3) x = y (1) 1 (2) pqr
(4) Cannot be compared (3) 2 (4) 3

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