JEE SHIKHAR TEST # 12

(Main)
This booklet contains 14 printed pages

XII/Dropper-
SUBJECT : MATHEMATICS, PHYSICS & CHEMISTRY
ALL
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
11.06.2023
Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet.

Important Instructions:
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Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully.
3. The Test is of 3 hours duration.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
5. There are three parts in the question paper A, B & C consisting of Physics, Chemistry & Mathematics having
30 questions of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for correct response.
Section 1 contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONLY ONE Option is correct. All questions are compulsory.
Section 2 contains 10 integer type questions, out of which 5 questions are compulsory.
6. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No. 5 for correct response of each question. 1/4 (one
fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score
will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.
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wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per instruction 6 above.
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 r r
MATHEMATICS 5. Let a= 2i$ + 3j$ + 4k,
$ b= 2i$ – 2$j – 2k$ and
SECTION-A r r
c = -$i + 4$j + 3k$ . If d is a vector perpendicular to
2

Let 5f ( x ) + 4f æç ö÷ =
1 1 r r rr r r2
1. + 3, x > 0 . Then 18ò f ( x ) dx
è xø x 1
both b and c and a.d = 18, Then a ´ d is equal

is equal to: to
(1) 10 loge 2 – 6 (2) 10 loge 2 + 6 (1) 640 (2) 760
(3) 5 loge 2 + 3 (4) 5 loge 2 – 3 (3) 680 (4) 720

2. A pair of dice is thrown 5 times. For each throw, a

total of 5 is considered a success. If the probability
k
of at least 4 successes is ,then k is equal to 6. The straight lines l1 and l2 pass through the origin
311
and trisect the line segment of the line L: 9x + 5y =
(1) 82
45 between the axes. If m1 and m2 are the slopes of
(2) 123 the lines l1 and l2,then the point of intersection of
the line y = (m1 + m2)x with L lies on
(3) 164
(1) 6x + y = 10

(4) 75 (2) 6x– y = 15

(3) y –x = 5
(4) y –2x = 5
3. If 2n
C3 : C3 = 10 :1 , then the ratio
n

(n 2
)(
+ 3n : n 2 – 3n + 4 is)
(1) 35: 16 (2) 65:37
(3) 27:11 (4) 2:1
7. The set of values of k for which the circle
C : 4x 2 + 4y 2 -12x + 8y + k = 0 lies inside the

4. If the ratio of the fifth term from the begining to æ 1ö

fourth quadrant and the point ç 1, - ÷ lies on or
the fifth term from the end in the expansion of è 3ø

æ4 1 ö
n inside the circle C is :
çè 2 + 4 ÷ø is 6 :1 , then the third term from the
3 (A) An empty set

beginning is: æ 95 ù
(B) ç 6, ú
è 9û
(1) 60 2
é 80 ö
(2) 60 3 (C) ê ,10 ÷
ë9 ø
(3) 30 2
æ 92 ù
(D) ç 9, ú
(4) 30 3 è 9û

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8. The sum of the first 20 terms of the series 5 +11 + 12. The shortest distance between the lines
19+ 29 + 41 + ... is x - 3 y - 2 z -1 x+ 3 y- 6 z-5
= = and = = is :
(1) 3450 (2) 3250 2 3 -1 2 1 3
(3) 3420 (4) 3520 18 22
(A) (B)
5 3 5
46
(C) (D) 6 3
9. The mean and variance of a set of 15 numbers are 3 5

12 and 14 respectively. The mean and variance of

13. If a1 , a 2 , a 3 .... and b1 , b 2 , b 3 .... are A.P. and
another set of 15 numbers are 14 and s 2

respectively. If the variance of all the 30 numbers a1 = 2, a10 = 3, a1 b1 =1 = a10 b10 then a 4 b 4 is equal to

in the two sets is 13, then s 2 is equal to

35
(A)
(1) 9 (2) 12 27
(3) 11 (4) 10
(B) 1

27
(C)
28
10. Let A = [aij]2×2 where aij ≠ 0 for all i, j and A2 = I.
Let a be the sum of all diagonal elements of A and 28
(D)
27
b = |A|, then 3a2 + 4b2 is equal to
(1) 7 14. The sum of all the roots of the equation
(2) 14 x 2 - 8x + 15 – 2x + 7 = 0 is:
(3) 3
(1) 9 + 3
(4) 4
(2) 11 + 3
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
(3) 9 – 3
Allen Ans. (4)
(4) 11– 3
Let I ( x ) =
(
x 2 x sec2 x + tan x )dx . If I(0) =
11. ò ( x tan x + 1) 2
0 the I Official Ans. by NTA (1)
Allen Ans. (1)
æ pö Let a1, a2, a3. ...an be n positive consecutive terms
çè ÷ø is equal to 15.
4
of an arithmetic progression. If d > 0 is its common
(1) log e
( x + 4) 2 -
p2 difference, then
16 4 ( p + 4)
dæ 1 1 1 ö
( x + 4) 2
p2 lim ç + + ......... + ÷
(2) log e +
n ®¥ n è a1 + a 2 a 2 + a3 a n -1 + a n ø
16 4 ( p + 4)
(1) 1

(3) log e
( x + 4) 2

-
p2
(2) d
32 4 ( p + 4)
1
(3)
(4) log e
( x + 4) 2

+
p2 d
32 4 ( p + 4) (4) 0

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16. If the system of equations 20. Let A = { x Î ¡ : [ x + 3] + [ x + 4] £ 3} ,
x + y + az = b
ìï x æ
¥
3 ö
x -3
üï
2x + 5y + 2z = 6 B = í x Î ¡ : 3 ç å r ÷ < 3-3x ý , where [t]
ïî è r =1 10 ø ïþ
x + 2y + 3z = 3
has infinitely many solutions, then 2a + 3b is equal denotes greatest integer function. Then,

to (1) A Ç B = f

(1) 23 (2) 28 (2) A = B

(3) 25 (4) 20 (3) B Ì C, A ¹ B
(4) A Ì B, A ¹ B

dy
17. If 2xy + 3yx = 20, then at (2, 2) is equal to
dx
SECTION – B:
æ 3 + log e 8 ö æ 2 + log e 8 ö
(1) - ç (2) - ç ÷ (One Integer Value Correct Type)
è 2 + log 4 ÷ø
e è 3 + log e 4 ø
This section contains 10 questions, out of which
æ 3 + log 16 ö æ 3 + log 4 ö
(3) - ç e
(4) - ç e
5 question are compulsory. Each question, when
è 4 + log e 8 ÷ø è 2 + log e 8 ÷ø
worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).

18. One vertex of a rectangular parallelopiped is at the 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

origin O and the lengths of its edges along x, y and A B C D AB AC AD BC BD CD
z axes are 3, 4 and 5 units respectively. Let P be
the vertex (3, 4, 5). Then the shortest distance
between the diagonal OP and an edge parallel to z SECTION-B
axis, not passing through O or P is: 21. Let a ΢ and [t] be the greatest integer < t. Then
12 12
(1) (2) the number of points, where the function f(x) = [a
5 5 5
+ 13 sin x], x ∈ (0, ) is not differentiable, is ____
12
(3) 12 5 (4)
5

22. A circle passing through the point P ( a, b ) in the

19. Let the position vectors of the points A, B, C and D first quadrant touches the two coordinate axes at
be 5i$ + 5j$ + 2l k,
$ $i + 2j$ + 3k,
$ - 2i$ + l$j + 4k$ and the points A and B. The point P is above the line
AB. The point Q on the line segment AB is the
-$i + 5j$ + 6k$ . Let the set S = { l Ρ : The points A,
foot of perpendicular from P on AB. If PQ is equal
B, C and D are coplanar}. Then å ( l + 2) is equal
2

lÎS to 11 units, then the value of ab is______

to
(1) 41 (2) 25
37 23. The number of ways of giving 20 distinct oranges
(3) 13 (4)
2 to 3 children such that each child gets atleast one
orange is_________

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24. If the area of the region 29. Let the abscissae of the two points P and Q be
the roots of 2x2 – rx + p = 0 and the ordinates
S= {( x, y) : 2y - y 2
}
£ x 2 £ 2y, x ³ y is equal to
of P and Q be the roots of x2 – sx – q = 0. If
n+2 p the equation of the circle described on PQ as
- , then the natural number n is equal to diameter is 2(x2 + y2) – 11x – 14y – 22 = 0,
n +1 n -1
then 2r + s – 2q + p is equal to
________

25. Let the point (p, p + 1) lie inside the region 30. Let the tangent to the curve x2 + 2x – 4y + 9 = 0 at
the point P(1, 3) on it meet the y-axis at A. Let the
E= {( x, y) : 3 - x £ y £ 9 - x2 , 0 }
£ x £ 3 If the line passing through P and parallel to the line x –
set of all values of p is the interval (a, b). then b 2 3y = 6 meet the parabola y2 = 4x at B. If B lies on
+ b – a 2 is equal to _________ the line 2x – 3y = 8. then (AB)2 is equal to

26. Let y = y(x) be a solution of the differential

equation (xcos x)dy + (xysinx + ycos x – l)dx = 0,
p p æ pö
0< x< . If y ç ÷ = 3 , then
2 3 è 3ø

p æ pö æ pö
y" ç ÷ + 2y ' ç ÷ is equal to ______
6 è 6ø è 6ø

27. The coefficient of x18 in the expansion of

15
æ 4 1ö
çè x - 3 ÷ø is _____
x

28. Let A= {1, 2, 3, 4,.....10} and B = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4}.

The number of elements in the relation R = {(a, b)
∈ A × A: 2(a – b)2 + 3(a – b) ∈ B} is______

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 PHYSICS
SECTION-A 35. A source supplies heat to a system at the rate of
31. For the plane electromagnetic wave given by 1000 W. If the system performs work at a rate of
E = E0 sin (t – kx) and B = B0 sin (t – kx), the 200 W. The rate at which internal energy of the
ratio of average electric energy density to average system increases
magnetic energy density is (1) 1200 W (2) 600 W
(1) 1 (2) 1/2 (3) 500 W (4) 800 W
(3) 2 (4) 4

36. A particle is moving with constant speed in a

32. Name the logic gate equivalent to the diagram circular path. When the particle turns by an angle
attached 90°, the ratio of instantaneous velocity to its
average velocity is  : x 2. The value of x will be
(1) 2 (2) 5
(3) 1 (4) 7

(1) OR (2) NOR 37. A small block of mass 100 g is tied to a spring of
(3) NAND (4) AND spring constant 7.5 N/m and length 20 cm. The
other end of spring is fixed at a particular point A.
If the block moves in a circular path on a smooth
horizontal surface with constant angular velocity
5 rad/s about point A, then tension in the spring is
(1) 1.5 N (2) 0.75 N
(3) 0.25 N (4) 0.50 N
33. A small ball of mass M and density  is dropped in
a viscous liquid of density 0. After some time, the
ball falls with a constant velocity. What is the
viscous force on the ball ?
38. A monochromatic light wave with wavelength 1
    
(1) F  Mg 1  0  (2) F  Mg 1   and frequency v1 in air enters another medium. If
   0  the angle of incidence and angle of refraction at the
   interface are 45° and 30° respectively, then the
(3) F  Mg 1  0  (4) F  Mg(1  0 )
  wavelength 2 and frequency v2 of the refracted
wave are :
1
(1) 2  1 , 2  21 (2) 2  1 , 2  1
34. The number of air molecules per cm3 increased 2
from 3 × 1019 to 12 × 1019. The ratio of collision 1
(3) 2  21 , 2  1 (4) 2  1 , 2  1
frequency of air molecules before and after the 2
increase in number respectively is
(1) 1.25 (2) 0.25
(3) 0.75 (4) 0.50

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39. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : When a body is projected at an
angle 45°, it’s range is maximum.
Reason R : For maximum range, the value of
sin2 should be equal to one.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the
correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are correct R is the correct
explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true
42. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : Earth has atmosphere whereas moon
doesn’t have any atmosphere.
Reason R : The escape velocity on moon is very
small as compared to that on earth.
In the light of the above statement, choose the
correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A is true but R is false
(2) A is false but R is true
(3) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the
correct explanation of A
(4) Both A and R are correct and R is correct
explanation of A
43. For a uniformly charged thin spherical shell, the
electric potential (V) radially away from the center
(O) of shell can be graphically represented as

40. Two resistances are given as R1  (10  0.5)

and R 2  (15  0.5) . The percentage error in the

(1)
measurement of equivalent resistance when they
are connected in parallel is
(1) 6.33 (2) 2.33
(3) 4.33 (4) 5.33
(2)

41. A planet has double the mass of the earth. Its

average density is equal to the that of the earth. An
(3)
object weighing W on earth will weigh on that
planet :
(1) 22/3 W
(2) W
(4)
1/3
(3) 2 W
(4) 2 W

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44. The resistivity () of semiconductor varies with 48. A mass m is attached to two springs as shown in
temperature. Which of the following curve figure. The spring constants of two springs are K1
represents the correct behaviour and K2. For the frictionless surface, the time period
of oscillation of mass m is

(1) (2)

1 K1  K 2 1 K1  K 2
(1) (2)
2 m 2 m
m m
(3)
2  (4)
2 
(3) (4)
K1  K 2 K1  K 2

49. The induced emf can be produced in a coil by

A. moving the coil with uniform speed inside
magnetic field
45. The kinetic energy of an electron, -particle and a
B. moving the coil with non-uniform speed inside
proton are given as 4K, 2K and K respectively. The uniform magnetic field
de-Broglie wavelength associated with electron C. rotating the coil inside the uniform magnetic
(e) -particle () and the proton (p) are as field
follows : D. changing the area of the coil inside the uniform
(1)  = p < e magnetic field
(2)  > p > e Choose the correct answer from the options given
(3)  < p < e below:
(4)  = p > e (1) B and D only
(2) B and C only
46. A body of mass m is projected with velocity ve in (3) A and C only
vertically upward direction from the surface of the (4) C and D only
earth into space. It is given that v e is escape
velocity and  < 1. If air resistance is considered to
50. A long straight wire of circular cross-section
the negligible, then the maximum height from the
(radius a) is carrying steady current I. The current I
centre of earth, to which the body can go, will be
is uniformly distributed across this cross-section.
(R : radius of earth)
The magnetic field is
R R R 2R (1) Zero in the region r < a and inversely
(A) (B) (C) (D)
1  2 1 – 2 1–  1 – 2 proportional to r in the region r > a
(2) Inversely proportional to r in the region r < a
47. The energy levels of an hydrogen atom are shown and uniform throughout in the region r > a
below. The transition corresponding to emission of (3) Directly proportional to r in the region r < a and
shortest wavelength is inversely proportional to r in the region r > a
(4) Uniform in the region r < a and inversely
proportional to distance r from the axis, in the
region r > a

(1) C (2) D
(3) B (4) A
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 SECTION – B:
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 10 questions, out of which
5 question are compulsory. Each question, when
worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).
54. Two identical circular wires of radius 20 cm and
carrying current 2 A are placed in perpendicular
planes as shown in figure. The net magnetic field
at the centre of the circular wire is _______ × 10–8
T. (Take  = 3.14)

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
A B C D AB AC AD BC BD CD

SECTION-B
51. A pole is vertically submerged in swimming pool,
such that it gives a length of shadow 2.15 m within
water when sunlight is incident at an angle of 30° 55. A person driving car at a constant speed of 15 m/s
with the surface of water. If swimming pool is is approaching a vertical wall. The person notices a
filled to a height of 1.5 m, then the height of the
change of 40 Hz in the frequency of his car’s horn
pole above the water surface in centimetres is
(nw = 4/3) ________ . upon reflection from the wall. The frequency of

horn is ________ Hz.

(Given : Speed of sound : 330 m/s)

52. The length of a metallic wire is increased by 20%

and its area of cross section is reduced by 4%. The
percentage change in resistance of the metallic 56. The radius of fifth orbit of the Li++ is ____ × 10–12
wire is _______ .
m.Take : radius of hydrogen atom = 0.51Å

53. A particle of mass 10 g moves in a straight line 57. A steel rod has a radius of 20 mm and a length of
with retardation 2x, where x is the displacement in
SI units. Its loss of kinetic energy for above 2.0 m. A force of 62.8 kN stretches it along its
n length. Young’s modulus of steel is 2.0 × 1011
displacement is   J. The value of n will be
10
x N/m2. The longitudinal strain produced in the wire
_______ .
is ______ × 10–5

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58. An ideal transformer with purely resistive load 60. A parallel plate capacitor with plate area A and
plate separation d is filled with a dielectric material
operates at 12 kV on the primary side. It supplies
of dielectric constant K = 4. The thickness of the
electrical energy to a number of nearby houses at
dielectric material is x, where x < d.
120 V. The average rate of energy consumption in

the houses served by the transformer is 60 kW. The

value of resistive load (Rs) required in the

secondary circuit will be ______ m. Let C1 and C 2 be the capacitance of the system for
1 2d
59. Two identical solid spheres each of mass 2 kg and x  d and x  , respectively. If C1 = 2F the
3 3
radii 10 cm are fixed at the ends of a light rod. The value of C2 is ______ F

separation between the centres of the spheres is

40 cm. The moment of inertia of the system about

an axis perpendicular to the rod passing through its

middle point is _______ × 10–3 kg-m2

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 CHEMISTRY 65. The difference between electron gain enthalpies
will be maximum between:
SECTION-A
(1) Ne and F
61. Consider the reaction
(2) Ne and Cl
4HNO3(l) + 3KCl(s)  Cl2(g) + NOCl(g) + (3) Ar and Cl
2H2O(g) + 3KNO3(s) (4) Ar and F
The amount of HNO3 required to produce 110.0 g 66. Match List I with List II
of KNO3 is : List I List II
(Given : Atomic masses of H, O, N and K are 1, Enzymatic reaction Enzyme

16, 14 and 39, respectively.) A Sucrose  Glucose and I. Zymase

(A) 32.2 g (B) 69.4 g Fructose

B Glucoseethyl alcohol and II. Pepsin
(C) 91.5 g (D) 162.5 g
CO2
C Starch  Maltose III. Invertase
62. Match List I with List II
D Proteins  Amino acids IV. Diastase
List I List II
Element detected Reagent used/ Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Product formed (1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
A Nitrogen I. Na2[Fe(CN)5 NO] (2) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
B Sulphur II. AgNO3 (3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
C Phosphorous III. Fe4[Fe (CN)6]3 (4) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
D Halogen IV. (NH4)2 MoO4
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III 67. C(s) + O2(g)  CO2(g) + 400 kJ
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III 1
C(s) + O2(g)  CO(g) + 100 kJ
2
(3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
When coal of purity 60% is allowed to burn in
(4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
presence of insufficient oxygen, 60% of carbon is
converted into 'CO' and the remaining is converted
63. The standard electrode potential of M+/M in into 'CO2'.
The heat generated when 0.6 kg of coal is burnt is
aqueous solution does not depend on ______.
(1) Ionisation of a solid metal atom (A) 1600 kJ (B) 3200 kJ
(2) Sublimation of a solid metal (C) 4400 kJ (D) 6600 kJ
(3) Ionisation of a gaseous metal atom
(4) Hydration of a gaseous metal ion

64. Given below are the quantum numbers for 4

electrons. 68. 200 mL of 0.01 M HCl is mixed with 400 mL of
A. n = 3, l = 2, m1 = 1, ms = +1/2
B. n = 4, l = 1, m1 = 0, ms = +1/2 0.01M H2SO4. The pH of the mixture is ____.
C. n = 4, l = 2, m1 = –2, ms = –1/2
D. n = 3, l = 1, m1 = –1, ms = +1/2 (A) 1.14 (B) 1.78

The correct order of increasing energy is : (C) 2.34 (D) 3.02

(A) D < B < A < C (B) D < A < B < C
(C) B < D < A < C (D) B < D < C < A
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69. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as 71. Match List I with List II
assertion and the other is labelled as reason .
Assertion: Loss of electron from hydrogen atom List I List II
–3
results in nucles of ~1.5 × 10 pm size. Name of reaction Reagent used
+
Reason: Proton (H ) always exists in combined A Hell-Volhard- I. NaOH + I2
form Zelinsky reaction
In the light of the above statements, choose the B Iodoform reaction II. (i) CrO2Cl2,CS2(ii) H2O
most appropriate answer from the options given C III. (i) Br2/red phosphorus
Etard reaction
below: (ii) H2O
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct D Gatterman-Koch IV. CO, HCl, anhyd. A1C13
explanation of A reaction
(2) A is correct but R is not correct Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(3) A is not correct but R is correct (1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(4) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
correct explanation of A. (3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

70.
72. The major products A and B from the following
reactions are:
H

B
LiAl H4
 N 
Br2 / AcOH
A
O
Compound P is neutral. Q gives effervescence with
NaHCO3 while R reacts with Hinsbergs reagent to H
H
give solid soluble in NaOH. Compound P is Br
N
(1) A = N
B=
O
Br Br O , OH
N
(1)
CH3
H
H
N
O (2) A = N
B=
(2) N Br O
, OH

H3C H
H
Br
N NH2
O
(3) A = B=
(3) C N H Br Br O ,
H

H H
O
N N
(4) N CH3 (4) A = B=
H Br O
,

CatalyseREduventures (India) Pvt. Ltd. 11

73. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as 76. Match List I with List II
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. List I List II
Assertion A: The spin only magnetic moment Oxide Type of Bond
value for [Fe(CN)6]3– is 1.74 BM, whereas for A N2O4 I. 1N = O bond
[Fe(H2O)6]3+ is 5.92 BM. B NO2 II. 1N – O – N bond
Reason R : In both complexes, Fe is present in +3 C N2O5 III. 1N – N bond
oxidation state. D N2O IV. 1N = N / N ≡ N bond
In the light of the above statements, choose the Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
correct answer from the options given below: (1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct (2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
explanation of A (3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(2) A is false but R is true (4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A

77. Strong reducing and oxidizing agents among the

following, respectively, are
(1) Ce4+ and Eu2+ (2) Ce4+ and Tb4+
(3) Ce3+ and Ce4+ (4) Eu2+ and Ce4+
74. Match List I with List II
List I Vitamin List II Deficiency disease
A Vitamin A I. Beri-Beri
B Thiamine II. Cheilosis
C Ascorbic acid III. Xeropthalmia
D Riboflavin IV. Scurvy 78. The major product formed in the following
Choose the correct answer from the options given reaction is
below:
CONH2
(1) A-IV, B-II,C-III, D-I (2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I 
Br2 /NaOH


(3) A-IV, B-I,C-III, D-II (4) A-III,B-I,C-IV, D-II COOCH3

O
(1)
O
75. Which of the following options are correct for the
reaction
O
2[Au(CN)2]–(aq) + Zn(s) 2Au(s)+ [Zn(CN)4]2–(aq) (2) O
A. Redox reaction O

B. Displacement reaction
C. Decomposition reaction
D. Combination reaction (3) NH

O
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(1) A and B only (2) A only O

(4) NH
(3) C and D only (4) A and D only O

CatalyseREduventures (India) Pvt. Ltd. 12

79. For a concentrated solution of a weak electrolyte 83. Consider the graph of Gibbs free energy G vs
(Keq= equilibrium constant) A2B3 of concentration Extent of reaction. The number of statement/s from
‘c’, the degree of dissociation "' is
the following which are true with respect to points
1 1
 K eq  5
 K eq  5
(a), (b) and (c) is……………..
(1)  4  (2)  5 
 108c   6c 
1 1
 K 5  K 5
(3)  eq4  (4)  eq2 
 5c   25c 

80. For the reaction:

RCH2 Br  I  
Acetone
RCH2 I Br 
A. Reaction is spontaneous at (a) and (b)
major
B. Reaction is at equilibrium at point (b) and non-
The correct statement is :
(1) The transition state formed in the above spontaneous at point (c)
reaction is less polar than the localised anion. C. Reaction is spontaneous at (a) and non-
(2) The reaction can occur in acetic acid also.
spontaneous at (c)
(3) The solvent used in the reaction solvates the
ions formed in rate determining step. D. Reaction is non-spontaneous at (a) and (b)
(4) Br– can act as competing nucleophile.

SECTION – B: 84. Mass of Urea (NH2CONH2) required to be

(One Integer Value Correct Type) dissolved in 1000 g of water to reduce the vapour
This section contains 10 questions, out of which pressure of water by 25% is……g.
5 question are compulsory. Each question, when
Given: Molar mass of N. C. O and H are 14. 12.
worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
16 and 1 2 mol–1 respectively.
(both inclusive).

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
A B C D AB AC AD BC BD CD

85. The value of log K for the reaction A⇋ B at 298 K

SECTION-B is …….
81. The wavelength of an electron of kinetic energy Given: ∆H0 = – 54.07 kJ mol–1
4.50 × 10–29J is…… × 10–5 m. ∆S° = 10 JK–1 mol–1
Given : mass of electron is 9 × 10–31 kg, h =6.6 × (Take 2.303 × 8.314 × 298 = 5705)
10–34 J s

82. Number of bromo derivatives obtained on treating

ethane with excess of Br2, in diffused sunlight is…

CatalyseREduventures (India) Pvt. Ltd. 13

86. The number of species from the following which 89. If 5 moles of BaCl2 is mixed with 2 moles of

have square pyramidal structure is Na3PO4, the maximum number of moles of

PF5, BrF4– , IF5; BrF5, XeOF4, ICl4– Ba3(PO4)2 formed is………….

87. Number of ambidentate ligands in a representative 90. In ammonium-phosphomolybdate, the oxidation

metal complex [M(en)(SCN)4] is state of Mo is + ………………

[en = ethylenediamine]

88. Sum of oxidation state (magnitude) and

coordination number of cobalt in Na[Co(bpy)Cl4]
is__.

(Given bpy = )
N N

CatalyseREduventures (India) Pvt. Ltd. 14

Read the following instructions carefully :
1. The candidates should fill in the required particulars on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet (Side-1) with Blue/Black
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