JEE SHIKHAR TEST # 18

(Main)
This booklet contains 13 printed pages

XII/Dropper-
SUBJECT : MATHEMATICS, PHYSICS & CHEMISTRY
ALL
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11.06.2023
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4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
5. There are three parts in the question paper A, B & C consisting of Physics, Chemistry & Mathematics having
30 questions of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for correct response.
Section 1 contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONLY ONE Option is correct. All questions are compulsory.
Section 2 contains 10 integer type questions, out of which 5 questions are compulsory.
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 MATHEMATICS
SECTION-A 4. If vertex of a parabola is (2, – 1) and the equation
1. Let f be a continuous function satisfying of its directrix is 4x – 3y = 21, then the length of
its latus rectum is
t2
æ p2 ö
ò ( f(x) + x ) dx=
2 4 3
t , " t > 0 . Then fç ÷ is (A) 2 (B) 8
0
3 è 4ø
(C) 12 (D) 16
equal to :
æ p3 ö
(1) p ç 1 - ÷
è 16 ø

æ p2 ö
(2) -p 2 ç 1 + ÷
è 16 ø 5. Let A = {2, 3, 4} and B = {8, 9, 12}. Then the
number of elements in the relation
æ p3 ö
(3) -p ç 1 + ÷ R = {((a1, b1), (a2, b2)) Î (A × B, A × B) : a1
è 16 ø
divides b2 and a2 divides b1} is :
æ p 2ö
(1) 36 (2) 12
(4) p 2 ç 1 - ÷
è 16 ø (3) 18 (4) 24

2. Eight persons are to be transported from city A to é5! 6! 7!ù

1 ê
city B in three cars of different makes. If each car 6. If A = 6! 7! 8!úú , then adj(adj(2A)) is
5!6!7! ê
can accommodate at most three persons, then the êë7! 8! 9!úû
number of ways, in which they can be transported, equal to :
is: (1) 28 (2) 212
(1) 3360 (2) 1680
(3) 220 (4) 216
(3) 560 (4) 1120

7. Let A be the point (1, 2) and B be any point on the

3. For, a, b, g , d Υ , if
curve x2 + y2 = 16 . If the centre of the locus of the
æ æ x ö2x æ e ö 2x ö 1æxö
bx
1æ e ö
dx
point P, which divides the line segment AB in the
ò ç çè e ÷ø çè x ÷ø ÷ e
ç + ÷ log x dx =
a
ç ÷
è e ø
-
g
ç ÷ +C,
èxø
è ø ratio 3 : 2 is the point C (a, b), then the length of
¥
1 the line segment AC is
Where e = å and C is constant of integration,
n = 0 n! (1)
6 5
(2)
4 5
5 5
then a + 2b + 3g – 4d is equal to:
(1) 1 (2) –4 2 5 3 5
(3) (4)
(3) –8 (4) 4 5 5

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 ® ® ®
8. Let a die be rolled n times. Let the probability of 11. Let a= 2iˆ + 7ˆj - kˆ , b = 3iˆ + 5kˆ and c = ˆi - ˆj + 2kˆ .
getting odd numbers seven times be equal to the ®
Let d be a vector which is perpendicular to both
probability of getting odd numbers nine times. If
( )
® ® ® ® ® ®
the probability of getting even numbers twice is a and b , and c × d = 12 . Then - ˆi + ˆj - kˆ × ( c ´ d )
k is equal to
, then k is equal to :
215 (1) 48
(1) 30 (2) 42
(2) 90 (3) 44
(3) 15 (4) 24
(4) 60

12. If Sn = 4 + 11 + 21 + 34 + 50 + ….. to n terms,

9. Let g(x) = f(x) + f(1 - x) and f ¢¢ (x) > 0, x Î(0,1) . 1
then (S29 - S9 ) is equal to
If g is decreasing in the interval (0, a) and 60
increasing in the interval (a, 1), then (1) 226
1   1  (2) 220
tan 1  2   tan 1    tan 1   is equal to:
    (3) 223
3p (4) 227
(1)
2
(2) p
5p
(3) 13. If the points P and Q are respectively the
4
3p circumcenter and the orthocentre of a DABC, then
(4) ® ® ®
4 PA + PB+ PC is equal to
uuur
(1) 2QP
uuur
(2) QP
uuur
10. Let a circle of radius 4 be concentric to the ellipse (3) 2PQ
uuur
15x 2 + 19y 2 = 285 . Then the common tangents are (4) PQ
inclined to the minor axis of the ellipse at the
angle.
p 14. Let a and b be the roots of the equation
(1)
4
x2 + (2i − 1) = 0. Then, the value of |a8 + b8| is
p
(2)
3 equal to :
p (A) 50
(3)
12
(B) 250
p
(4)
6 (C) 1250

(D) 1500

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 ì æ p pö 2 2 ü 19. Let the number (22)2022 + (2022)22 leave the
15. Let S = í x Îç - , ÷ : 91- tan x + 9 tan x = 10 ý and
î è 2 2ø þ remainder a when divided by 3 and b when
divided by 7. Then (a2 + b2) is equal to
æ xö 1
b = å tan ç ÷ , then (b - 14)2 is equal to
2

x Îs
è 3ø 6 (1) 10
(1) 32 (2) 8 (2) 5
(3) 64 (4) 16 (3) 20
(4) 13

20. Let m be the mean and s be the standard deviation

16. If the coefficients of x and x2 in (1 + x)p (1 – x)q
of the distribution
are 4 and –5 respectively, then 2p + 3q is equal to
(1) 63 (2) 69
(3) 66 (4) 60 xi 0 1 2 3 4 5
2 2 2
fi k + 2 2k k -1 k -1 k +1 k - 3

where å fi = 62. if [x] denotes the greatest integer

x 6-y z+8 £ x, then [m2 + s2] is equal
17. Let the line = = intersect the lines
1 2 5 (1) 8
x-5 y-7 z+2 x+3 3-y z -6 (2) 7
= = and = = at
4 3 1 6 3 1 (3) 6
the points A and B respectively. Then the distance (4) 9
of the mid-point of the line segment AB from the
plane 2x – 2y + z = 14 is
10
(1) 4 (2)
3 SECTION-B
11 21. Let the equations of two adjacent sides of a
(3) 3 (4)
3 parallelogram ABCD be 2x – 3y = –23 and 5x + 4y
= 23. If the equation of its one diagonal AC is 3x +
7y = 23 and the distance of A from the other
diagonal is d, then 50 d2 is equal to _____ .
ì 2z - 3i ü
18. Let S = íz = x + iy : is a real number ý .
î 4z + 2i þ
22. Let S be the set of values of l, for which the
Then which of the following is NOT correct? system of equations
1
(1) y + x 2 + y 2 ¹ -
4 6lx – 3y + 3z = 4l2,
(2) x = 0 2x + 6ly + 4z = 1,
æ 1ö 
3x + 2y + 3lz = l has no solution. Then 12 |  |
(3) (x, y) = ç 0, - ÷ is equal to ________ S
è 2ø
æ 1ö æ 1 ö
(4) y Î ç -¥, - ÷ È ç - , ¥ ÷
è 2ø è 2 ø

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23. The number of elements in the set 27. If the domain of the function
S  {  4, 4 : ) sec -1 æçè
f ( x=
2x ö
is [ a, b) È ( g , d ] , then
÷
5x + 3 ø
3cos2 2  6cos 2  6cos 2 10cos 2   5  0} 3a + 10 ( b + g ) + 21d is equal to ________ .
is ________. Official Ans. by NTA (24)
Allen Ans. (24)

28. The sum of all the four-digit numbers that can be

formed using all the digits 2, 1, 2, 3 is equal to
24. Let quadratic curve passing through the point
_______ .
(–1, 0) and touching the line y = x at (1, 1) be y = f(x).
p
Then the x-intercept of the normal to the curve at the 29. In the figure, q1 + q2 = and 3 ( BE ) = 4 ( AB) .
2
point (a, a + 1) in the first quadrant is _____ .
q2
If the area of DCAB is 2 3 - 3 unit2, when is
q1
the largest, then the perimeter (in unit) of DCED is
25. Let the tangent at any point P on a curve passing equal to ___________.
E
æ 1 ö
through the points (1, 1) and ç ,100÷ , intersect
è 10 ø
positive x-axis and y-axis at the points A and B
respectively. If PA : PB = 1 : k and y = y(x) is the
dy q1
k C
solution of the differential equation e dx = kx + , D
2
y(0) = k, then 4y(1) – 5loge3 is equal to ______ .
Official Ans. by NTA (6) q1
Allen Ans. (5) (answer is coming 4+ln3) A B

26. Suppose a1, a2, 2, a3, a4 be in an arithmetico-

30. If the area of the region {( x, y) : x 2
- 2 £ y £ x is }
geometric progression. If the common ratio of the A, then 6A + 16 2 is equal to _________ . )
corresponding geometric progression is 2 and the
sum of all 5 terms of the arithmetico-geometric SECTION – B:
49 (One Integer Value Correct Type)
progression is , then a4 is equal to ________ .
2 This section contains 10 questions, out of which
Official Ans. by NTA (16) 5 question are compulsory. Each question, when
Allen Ans. (16) worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
A B C D AB AC AD BC BD CD

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 PHYSICS
SECTION-A 34. In an experiment with Vernier callipers of least
31. A person travels x distance with velocity v1 and count 0.1 mm, when two jaws are joined together
the zero of Vernier scale lies right to the zero of
then x distance with velocity v2 in the same
the main scale and 6th division of Vernier scale
direction. The average velocity of the person is v, coincides with the main scale division. While
then the relation between v, v1 and v2 will be : measuring the diameter of a spherical bob, the zero
of vernier scale lies in between 3.2 cm and 3.3 cm
(1) v = v1 + v 2 marks, and 4th division of vernier scale coincides
v1 + v 2 with the main scale division. The diameter of bob
(2) v = is measured as :
2
(1) 3.18 cm
2 1 1 (2) 3.25 cm
(3) = +
v v1 v 2 (3) 3.26 cm
(4) 3.22 cm
1 1 1
(4) = +
v v1 v 2

32. Two identical metallic spheres A and B when 35. Given below are two statements:
placed at certain distance in air repel each other Statement I: For diamagnetic substance,
with a force of F. Another identical uncharged –1 £ c < 0 , where c is the magnetic
sphere C is first placed in contact with A and then susceptibility.
in contact with B and finally placed at midpoint Statement II: Diamagnetic substances when
placed in an external magnetic field, tend to move
between spheres A and B. The force experienced
from stronger to weaker part of the field.
by sphere C will be : In the light of the above statements, choose the
(A) 3F/2 (B) 3F/4 correct answer from the options given below.
(C) F (D) 2F (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
true.
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
false.
36. The distance between two plates of a capacitor is d
33. A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of oxygen and and its capacitance is C1, when air is the medium
between the plates. If a metal sheet of thickness
4 moles of neon at temperature T. Neglecting all
2d
and of same area as plate is introduced
vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the 3
system will be : between the plates, the capacitance of the capacitor
C
(1) 8 RT becomes C2. The ratio 2 is:
C1
(2) 16 RT
(1) 2 : 1
(3) 4 RT (2) 4 : 1
(4) 11 RT (3) 3 : 1
(4) 1 : 1

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37. Given below are two statements: 40.
Statement I: Rotation of the earth shows effect on
the value of acceleration due to gravity (g).
Statement II: The effect of rotation of the earth on
the value of ‘g’ at the equator is minimum and that
at the pole is maximum.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below.
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
41.
(2) Statement I is true but Statement II are false.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
38. The time period of a satellite, revolving above
earth’s surface at a height equal to R will be
(Given g = p2 m/s2, R = radius of earth)
The amplitude of magnetic field in an
electromagnetic wave propagating along y-axis is
6.0 × 10–7 T. The maximum value of electric field
in the electromagnetic wave is:
(1) 5 × 1014 Vm–1
(2) 180 Vm–1
(3) 2 × 1015 Vm–1
(4) 6.0 × 10–7 Vm–1
A gas is compressed adiabatically, which one of
the following statement is NOT true.
(1) There is no heat supplied to the system
(2) The temperature of the gas increases
(3) The change in the internal energy is equal to
the work done on the gas.
(4) There is no change in the internal energy

42. The ratio of intensities at two points P and Q on

(1) 4R
the screen in a Young’s double slit experiment
(2) 8R where phase difference between two wave of same
(3) 32R amplitude are p/3 and p/2, respectively are

(4) 2R
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 3 : 1
(3) 3 : 2 (4) 2 :3

39. Given below are two statements: one is labelled

as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason
R. Assertion A: An electric fan continues to rotate
for some time after the current is switched off.
Reason R: Fan continuous to rotate due to inertia
of motion.
In the light of above statements, choose the most
43. The variation of stopping potential (V0) as a
function of the frequency (v) of the incident light
for a metal is shown in figure. The work function
of the surface is
Stopping Potential (V0) volt

3
appropriate answer from the options given below.
(1) A is correct but R is not correct. 2

(2) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct

1
explanation of A.
(3) A is not correct but R is correct.
(4) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
v(×1014 Hz)
correct explanation of A.
(1) 18.6 eV (2) 2.98 eV
(3) 2.07 eV (4) 1.36 eV

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44. For a periodic motion represented by the equation 49. If each diode has a forward bias resistance of 25 W
Y = sin wt + cos wt in the below circuit,
The amplitude of the motion is
(1) 0.5 (2) 2
(3) 1 (4) 2

45. In a metallic conductor, under the effect of applied

electric field, the free electrons of the conductor
(1) drift from higher potential to lower potential.
(2) move in the curved paths from lower potential
to higher potential Which of the following options is correct:
(3) move with the uniform velocity throughout
I3 I2
from lower potential to higher potential (1) =1 (2) =1
I4 I3
(4) move in the straight line paths in the same
direction I1 I1
(3) =1 (4) =2
I2 I2

46. Young’s moduli of the material of wires A and B

are in the ratio of 1 : 4, while its area of cross
sections are in the ratio of 1 : 3. If the same amount 50. A bar magnet is released from rest along the axis
of load is applied to both the wires, the amount of of a very long vertical copper tube. After some
elongation produced in the wires A and B will be time the magnet will
in the ratio of
(1) Move down with almost constant speed
[Assume length of wires A and B are same]
(2) Oscillate inside the tube
(1) 36 : 1 (2) 12 : 1
(3) 1 : 36 (4) 1 : 12 (3) Move down with an acceleration greater than g
(4) Move down with an acceleration equal to g

47. Two projectiles are projected at 30° and 60° with

the horizontal with the same speed. The ratio of the
maximum height attained by the two projectiles SECTION-B
respectively is: 51. A square loop of side 2.0 cm is placed inside a
(1) 2 : 3 (2) 3 :1 long solenoid that has 50 turns per centimetre and
(3) 1 : 3 (4) 1 : 3 carries a sinusoidally varying current of amplitude
2.5 A and angular frequency 700 rad s–1. The
48. An object of mass 1 kg is taken to a height from
central axes of the loop and solenoid coincide. The
the surface of earth which is equal to three times
amplitude of the emf induced in the loop is
the radius of earth. The gain in potential energy of
x × 10–4 V. The value of x is__________
the object will be 22
(Take, p = )
–2
[If, g=10ms and radius of earth = 6400 km] 7

(A) 48 MJ (B) 24 MJ
(C) 36 MJ (D) 12 MJ

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52. A rectangular block of mass 5 kg attached to a
horizontal spiral spring executes simple harmonic
motion of amplitude 1 m and time period 3.14 s.
The maximum force exerted by spring on block
is______N.
53. If 917 Å be the lowest wavelength of Lyman series
then the lowest wavelength of Balmer series will
be________Å.
54. Figure below shows a liquid being pushed out of
the tube by a piston having area of cross section
2.0 cm2. The area of cross section at the outlet is
10 mm2. If the piston is pushed at a speed of 4
cm s –1, the speed of outgoing fluid is________cm
s–1.
55. A straight wire carrying a current of 14 A is bent
into a semicircular are of radius 2.2 cm as shown
in the figure. The magnetic field produced by the
current at the centre (O) of the arc. is_____×10–4T
O electron = 9 × 10–31 kg.
56. A point object, ‘O’ is placed in front of two thin
symmetrical coaxial convex lenses L1 and L2 with
focal length 24 cm and 9 cm respectively. The
distance between two lenses is 10 cm and the
object is placed 6 cm away from lens L1 as shown
in the figure. The distance between the object and
the image formed by the system of two lenses
is______cm.
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57. A rectangular parallelopiped is measured as
1 cm × 1 cm × 100 cm. If its specific resistance is
3 × 10–7 Wm, then the resistance between its two
opposite rectangular faces will be______×–7 W.
58. A force of -P k̂ acts on the origin of the coordinate
system. The torque about the point
 2,  3 is  
P aiˆ  bjˆ , the ratio of
___ is ___
a x
The value of x is
b 2
59. If the maximum load carried by an elevator is
1400 kg (600 kg – Passenger + 800 kg – elevator),
which is moving up with a uniform speed of 3 ms–1
and the frictional force acting on it is 2000 N, then
the maximum power used by the motor
is______kW (g = 10 m/s2).
60. An electron revolves around an infinite cylindrical
wire having uniform linear change density
2 × 10–8 Cm–1 in circular path under the influence
of attractive electrostatic field as shown in the
figure. The velocity of electron with which it is
revolving is_____ × 106 ms–1. Given mass of
8
 64. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
61. Incorrect method of preparation for alcohols from Assertion A: 3.1500g of hydrated oxalic acid
the following is: dissolved in water to make 250.0 mL solution will
(1) Ozonolysis of alkene.
result in 0.1 M oxalic acid solution.
(2) Reaction of Ketone with RMgBr followed by
Reason R: Molar mass of hydrated oxalic acid is
hydrolysis.
(3) Hydroboration–oxidation of alkene. 126 g mol–1.
(4) Reaction of alkyl halide with aqueous NaOH. In the light of the above statements, chose the

correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
O explanation of A.
O
i) DIBAL-H, Toluene, –78°C (2) A is false but R is true.
"P"
62. ii) H3O
+
(Major Product)
(3) A is true but R is false.

The product "P" in the above reaction is : (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct

COOH explanation of A.
(1)

OH

(2) CHO

O
65. Given below are two statements :
O–C–H
(3) Statement I : The E° value of Ce4+ / Ce3+ is
+1.74 V.

CHO Statement II : Ce is more stable in Ce4+ state than

(4)
Ce3+ state.

63. Match List-I with List-II : In the light of the above statements, choose the
List-I List-II most appropriate answer from the options given
Industrial process Application below :
(a) Haber's process (i) HNO3 synthesis (1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(b) Ostwald's process (ii) Aluminium (2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
extraction correct
(c) Contact process (iii) NH3 synthesis
(3) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(d) Hall-Heroult process (iv) H2SO4 synthesis
Choose the correct answer from the options (4) Statement I is correct but statement II is
given below : incorrect
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

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66. In the reaction give below: 69. The decreasing order of hydride affinity for
O following carbocations is:
H2NC (i) LiAlH4 +
'X' CH2=CH–C–CH3
(ii) H3 O+ A.
O CH3
The product ‘X’ is: +
C6H5–C–C6H5
B.
C6H5
(1) H2N +
OH C. H3C–C–CH3
OH CH3
+
(2) H2N C
D.
OH
OH
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(3) H2N below:
OH (1) A, C, B, D (2) C, A, B, D
OH (3) C, A, D, B (4) A, C, D, B

(4) H2N 70. Assertion A : Enol form of

acetone [CH3COCH3] exists in < 0.1% quantity.
OH
However, the enol form of acetyl
acetone [CH3COCH2OCCH3] exists in
67. Which among the following pairs of Vitamins approximately 15 % quantity.
Reason R : enol form of acetyl acetone is stabilized
is stored in our body relatively for longer by intramolecular hydrogen bonding, which is
not possible in enol form of acetone.
duration ?
(1) Thiamine and Vitamin A Choose the correct statement :
(1) A is false but R is true
(2) Vitamin A and Vitamin D (2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(3) Thiamine and Ascorbic acid explanation of A
(3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(4) Ascorbic acid and Vitamin D explanation of A
(4) A is true but R is false

71. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as

68. Which of the following is Lindlar catalyst ?
(1) Zinc chloride and HCl
(2) Cold dilute solution of KMnO4
(3) Sodium and Liquid NH3
(4) Partially deactivated palladised charcoal
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R :
Assertion A : The H–O–H bond angle in water
molecule is 104.5o.
Reason R : The lone pair – lone pair repulsion of
electrons is higher than the bond pair - bond pair
repulsion.
(1) A is false but R is true
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct
explanation of A

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72. In chromotography technique, the purification of 75. The major product ‘P’ formed in the given reaction
compound is independent of : is:
(1) Mobility or flow of solvent system
(2) Solubility of the compound
(3) Length of the column or TLC Plate
(4) Physical state of the pure compound
(1)

73. The correct order of the number of unpaired

electrons in the given complexes is
(2)
A. [Fe(CN)6 ]3 

B. [FeF6 ]3 
(3)
C. [CoF6 ]3 
D. [Cr(oxalate)3]3–
E. [Ni(CO)4]
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below: (4)
(1) A < E < D < C < B
(2) E < A < D < C < B
(3) E < A < B < D < C
(4) A < E < C < B < D

76. Match List I with List II

74. The correct order for acidity of the following

hydroxyl compound is: List I List II
A. CH3OH Complex Crystal Field
B. (CH3)3COH splitting energy (0)
C. A. [Ti(H2O)6]2+ I. –1.2
2+
B. [V(H2O)6] II. –0.6
D.
C. [Mn(H2O)6]3+ III. 0
E. D. [Fe(H2O)6]3+ IV –0.8
Choose the correct answer from the options given
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
below:
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(1) E > C > D > A > B
(2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(2) D > E > C > A > B
(3) C > E > D > B > A (3) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

(4) E > D > C > B > A (4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

CatalyseREduventures (India) Pvt. Ltd. 11

77. H3C OH 80. Which of the following reaction DOES NOT
20% H PO involve Hoffmann Bromamide degradation ?
3 4 "A" ,
358 K (Major Product)
O
CH2–C–NH2 CH2–NH2
H3C Cl (1) Br2, NaOH

(CH3)3 CO–K+ "B" ,

(Major Product) CN NH2
i) KOH, H2 O
(2) ii) Br2, NaOH
The product "A" and "B" formed in above
reactions are : O
CH2 CH2 CH2–C–CH3
i) Br2, NaOH/H
+
CH2–NH2
(1) A- (3)
B- ii) NH3/D
iii) LiAlH4/H2O

CH3 CH3 O
NH2
(2) A- B- Cl
(4) i) NH3, NaOH
CH3 CH2 ii) Br2, NaOH

(3) A- B-

CH2 CH3 SECTION-B

(4) A- B- 81. A(g) 2B(g)  C(g)
For the given reaction, if the initial pressure is 450
78. Match List–I with List–II. mm Hg and the pressure at time t is 720 mm Hg at
a constant temperature T and constant volume V.
List – I List –II
The fraction of A(g) decomposed under these
A. 16g of CH4(g) I. Weighs 28 g conditions is x × 10–1. The value of x is
60.2×1023 ______
B. 1g of H2(g) II.
electrons
C. 1 mole of N2(g) III. Weighs 32g
0.5 mol of Occupies 11.4 L 82. In alkaline medium, the reduction of permanganate
D. IV. anion involves a gain of ____________ electrons.
SO2(g) volume at STP
Choose the correct answer from the options given
83. The number of endothermic process/es from the
below:
following is _________
(1) A–I, B–III, C–II, D–IV A. I2(g)  2I(g)
(2) A–II, B–III, C–IV, D–I B. HCl(g)  H(g) + Cl(g)
(3) A–II, B–IV, C–III, D–I C. H2O(l)  H2O(g)
(4) A–II, B–IV, C–I, D–III D. C(s) + O2(g)  CO2(g)
E. Dissolution of ammonium chloride in water
79. The correct order of metallic character is:
(1) Be > Ca > K (2) Ca > K > Be
(3) K > Ca > Be (4) K > Be > Ca
CatalyseREduventures (India) Pvt. Ltd. 12
84. The number of molecules from the following 89. The specific conductance of 0.0025 M acetic acid
which contain only two lone pair of electrons is is 5 × 10–5 S cm–1 at a certain temperature. The

_________ dissociation constant of acetic acid is _______ ×

H2O, N2, CO, XeF4, NH3, NO, CO2, F2 10–7.

Consider limiting molar conductivity of

85. The difference in the oxidation state of Xe between CH3COOH as 400 S cm2 mol–1

the oxidised product of Xe formed on complete

hydrolysis of XeF4 and XeF4 is ________
90. The number of incorrect statement/s from the
following is __________
86. 3
An aqueous solution of volume 300 cm contains
A. The successive half lives of zero order reactions
0.63 g of protein. The osmotic pressure of the
solution at 300 K is 1.29 mbar. The molar mass of decreases with time.

the protein is ___________ g mol–1 B. A substance appearing as reactant in the

Given : R = 0.083 L bar K–1mol–1 chemical equation may not affect the rate of
reaction
C. Order and molecularity of a chemical reaction
87. For a metal ion, the calculated magnetic moment is
can be a fractional number
4.90 BM. This metal ion has __________ number
D. The rate constant units of zero and second order
of unpaired electrons.
reaction are mol L–1 s–1 and mol–1 Ls–1 respectively

SECTION – B:
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 10 questions, out of which
5 question are compulsory. Each question, when
worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
n+1
88. –17
1.47×10 J (both inclusive).

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
n A B C D AB AC AD BC BD CD
th 2+
The electron in the n orbit of Li is excited to
(n + 1) orbit using the radiation of energy
1.47 × 10–17J (as shown in the diagram). The value
of n is _______ .

Given RH = 2.18 × 10–18J

CatalyseREduventures (India) Pvt. Ltd. 13

ROUGH WORK
Read the following instructions carefully :
1. The candidates should fill in the required particulars on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet (Side-1) with Blue/Black
Ball Point Pen.
2. For writing/marking particulars on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet, use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only.
3. The candidates should not write their Roll Numbers anywhere else (except in the specified space) on the Test
Booklet/Answer Sheet.
4. Out of four options given for each question, only one option is the correct answer.
5. For each incorrect response, one-fourth (1/4) of the total marks allotted to the question would be deducted from the
total score. No deduction from the total score, however, will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the
Answer Sheet.
6. Handle the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet with care, as under no circumstances (except for discrepancy in Test
Booklet Code and Answer Sheet Code), another set will be provided.
7. The candidates are not allowed to do any rough work or writing work on the Answer Sheet. All calculations/writing
work are to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet itself, marked ‘Space for Rough
Work’. This space is given at the bottom of each.

8. On completion of the test, the candidates must hand over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
9. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit Card to the invigilator.
10. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, should leave his/her seat.
11. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on
duty and sign the Attendance Sheet again. Cases where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet a second
time will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case. The
candidates are also required to put their left hand THUMB impression in the space provided in the
Attendance Sheet.
12. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator and any Electronic Item like mobile phone, pager etc. is prohibited.
13. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the CatalyseR with regard to their conduct in the
Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the CatalyseR.
14. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
15. Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile
phone, electronic device or any other material except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room.