SOLUTION - JEE SHIKHAR TEST #09 (Main)

XII & DRP ALL BATCHES_ (22/12/2023)

PHYSICS
SECTION-A
1. Ans. (3)

In the light of the above statements, choose the

correct answer from the options given below.
(1) A is false but R is true
(2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
Ans. (1)

Sol. Potential of a conducting sphere is

KQ
V (Solid as well as hollow)
R
V1 = V2 and R1 = R2
 Q1 = Q2
3. As shown in the figure, a long straight conductor

with semicircular arc of radius m is carrying
10
current I = 3A. The magnitude of the magnetic
field. at the center O of the arc is:
(The permeability of the vacuum = 4× 10–7 NA–2)

O
I = 3A I = 3A
(1) 6T (2) 1T
(3) 4T (4) 3T
2. Given below are two statements : One is labelled
Ans. (4)
as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : Two metallic spheres are charged to
0 I
the same potential. One of them is hollow and Sol. BC     (B at centre of circular arc)
4 R
another is solid, and both have the same radii.
Solid sphere will have lower charge than the 0 I 4  107  3
= 
4R 
hollow one. 4
10
Reason R : Capacitance of metallic spheres
= 3 × 10–6 T = 3T
depend on the radii of spheres.

1
4. A coil is placed in magnetic field such that plane of
coil is perpendicular to the direction of magnetic
field. The magnetic flux through a coil can be
changed:
A. By changing the magnitude of the magnetic
field within the coil.
B. By changing the area of coil within the
magnetic field.
C. By changing the angle between the direction of
magnetic field and the plane of the coil.
D. By reversing the magnetic field direction
abruptly without changing its magnitude.
6. For a body projected at an angle with the
horizontal from the ground, choose the correct
statement.
(1) Gravitational potential energy is maximum at
the highest point.
(2) The horizontal component of velocity is zero at
highest point.
(3) The vertical component of momentum is
maximum at the highest point.
(4) The kinetic energy (K.E.) is zero at the highest
point of projectile motion.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the Ans. (1)

options given below:
(1) A and B only (2) A, B and C only Sol. At highest point
(3) A, B and D only (4) A and C only Vy = 0
Ans. (2) Vx = ux = u cos 
Ug = mgh, it is maximum at Hmax.
Sol.   .A 7. Two objects A and B are placed at 15 cm and 25
= BA cos  cm from the pole in front of a concave mirror
Most suitable ans is 2 [Otherwise ABCD] having radius of curvature 40 cm. The distance
between images formed by the mirror is:
5. Ans. (2) (1) 40 cm (2) 60 cm
(3) 160 cm (4) 100 cm
Ans. (3)

Sol.
X

by mirror formula
1 1 1
 
v u f
1 1 1
 
v1 15  20 

1 1 1
 
v1 20 15

3  4

60

2
 v1 = 60 cm D E

1 1 1 Sol.
  C F
v 2  25   20 

1 1 1
  B
v 2 20 25 A

5  4 1 Suppose resistance of each arm is r, then r = R/n

 
100 100
R1R 2
R eq( AB) 
v2 = – 100 cm R1  R 2
d = 60 + 100 = 160 cm r  n  1 r
8. The Young's modulus of a steel wire of length 6 m r   n  1 r
2 11 2
and cross-sectional area 3 mm , is 2 × 11 N/m .
r  n  1 r
The wire is suspended from its support on a given 
nr
planet. A block of mass 4 kg is attached to the free n 1
 r
end of the wire. The acceleration due to gravity on n
1 
 n  1 R
the planet is of its value on the earth. The
4 n2
elongation of wire is (Take g on the earth = 10 10. As shown in the figure a block of mass 10 kg lying
on a horizontal surface is pulled by a force F acting
m/s2):
at an angle 30°, with horizontal. For s = 0.25, the
(1) 1 cm (2) 1 mm
block will just start to move for the value of F:
(3) 0.1 mm (4) 0.1 cm
[Given g = 10 ms–2]
Ans. (3) F
Sol. Tension (F) = mg
30°
10
 4  10N
4 (1) 33.3 N (2) 25.2 N
FL (3) 20 N (4) 35.7 N
L 
AY Ans. (2)
10  6

3  10 6  2  1011 F

= 10–4 m = 0.1 mm 10 kg
30°

9. Equivalent resistance between the adjacent corners Sol.

of a regular n-sided polygon of uniform wire of N = Mg – F Sin 30°
resistance R would be: F F 200  F
 mg   100  
2 2 2
 n  1 R  n  1 R F Cos 30° = N
(1) (2)
n 2
 2n  1 
F  200  F 
3  0.25   
n R2
 n  1 R 2  2 
(3) (4)
n 1 n
4 3F  200  F
Ans. (1)
200
F  25.22
4 3 1
3
11. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as 13. Choose the correct length (L) versus square of time
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. period (T2) graph for a simple pendulum executing
Assertion A : For measuring the potential simple harmonic motion.

difference across a resistance of 600 , the T2

voltmeter with resistance 1000 will be preferred (1)
over voltmeter with resistance 4000.
Reason R : Voltmeter with higher resistance will O L

draw smaller current than voltmeter with lower

T2
resistance.
(2)
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
O L
below.
(1) A is not correct but R is correct
T2
(2) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
(3)
explanation of A
(3) Both A and R are correct but R is not the O L

correct explanation of A
(4) A is correct but R is not correct T2

Ans. (1) (4)

O L
Sol. Error of voltmeter decreases with increase in its
resistance. Ans. (3)
12. Choose the correct statement about Zener diode:
(1) It works as a voltage regulator in reverse bias Sol. T  2
g
and behaves like simple pn junction diode in
forward bias. 4 2
T2  
g
(2) It works as a voltage regulator in both forward
and reverse bias. T2  

(3) It works a voltage regulator only in forward
bias.
(4) It works as a voltage regulator in forward bias
and behaves like simple pn junction diode in
reverse bias.
Ans. (1)
Sol. Woks as voltage regulator in reverse bias and as
14. The escape velocities of two planets A and B are in
the ratio 1 : 2. If the ratio of their radii respectively
is 1 : 3, then the ratio of acceleration due to gravity
of planet A to the acceleration of gravity of planet
B will be:
4 3
(1) (2)
3 2
2 3
(3) (4)
3 4

simple P-n junction in forward bias. Ans. (4)

4
 4 16. Figures (a), (b), (c) and (d) show variation of force
2G R3
2GM 3 with time.
Sol. Ve    C .R
R R
F(N)
Ve1 R1 1 1
  0.5
Ve 2 R2 2 2

R12 1 1
 
R 22 2 4

R1 1 0 Fig(a) 1.0 t(s)


R2 3 F(N)

4
G R3   0.5
GM 3
g 2  C.R
R R2

g1 1R1 1 R 22 R1
  
g 2 2 R 2 4 R12 R 2 0 Fig(b) 2.0 t(s)

1 R2 3 F(N)
  
4 R1 4 0.75

15. An electron of a hydrogen like atom, having Z = 4,

jumps from 4th energy state to 2nd energy state, The
energy released in this process, will be: 0 Fig(c) 1.0 t(s)
(Given Rch = 13.6 eV) F(N)
Where R = Rydberg constant
0.5
c = Speed of light in vacuum
h = Planck's constant
(1) 13.6 eV
0 Fig(d) 2.0 t(s)
(2) 10.5 eV
The impulse is highest in figure.
(3) 3.4 eV
(1) Fig (c) (2) Fig (b)
(4) 40.8 eV
(3) Fig (a) (4) Fig (d)
Ans. (4)
Ans. (2)

1 1 Sol. Impulse = Area under F = t curve

Sol.    Z2  2  2  eV
2 4  1 1
(a)  1  0.5  N.s
2 4
1 1 
 13.6  (4)2    eV.
 4 16  (b) 0.5 × 2 = 1 N.s (maximum)
1 3
 13.6 4  1 eV (c)  1  0.75  N.s
2 8
= 13.6 × 3 = 40.8 eV 1 1
(d)  2  0.5  N.s
2 2

5
17. If the velocity of light c, universal gravitational 19. The ratio of average electric energy density and
constant G and planck's constant h are chosen as total average energy density of electromagnetic
fundamental quantities. The dimensions of mass in wave is:
the new system is: (1) 2 (2) 1
 1 1  1
(1) h 2 c 2 G1  (2)  h1c1G 1  (3) 3 (4)
2
 
Ans. (4)
 1 1 1   1 1 1 
(3) h 2 c 2 G 2  (4) h 2 c 2 G 2 
   
1
Ans. (4) Sol. < uE > = < uB > = < utotal >
2

uE 1
Sol. Say dimensional formale of mass is Hx Cy Gz So 
u total 2
M1 = (ML2T–1)x (LT–1) (M–1L3T–2)Z
20. The threshold frequency of metal is f0. When the
M1L0T0 = Mx – z L2x + y + 3z T–x–y–2z
light of frequency 2f0 is incident on the metal plate,
on comparing both side
x–z=1 the maximum velocity of photoelectron is .

2 x + y + 3z = 0 When the frequency of incident radiation is

– x – y – 2z = 0 increased to 5f. the maximum velocity of
On solving above equations we get
photoelectrons emitted is . The ratio of  to 
1 1 1
x y z is:
2 2 2
18. For three low density gases A, B, C pressure 1 1 1 1
(1)  (2) 
2 2 2 8
versus temperature graphs are plotted while
keeping them at constant volume, as shown in the 1 1  1
(3)  (4) 1 
figure. 2 16 2 4
P(atm) Gas A Ans. (1)
Gas B
Gas C
Temperature (°C)
K 0°C Sol. Kmax = hf – hf0

The temperature corresponding to the point 'K' is: For f = 2f0

(1) –273°C (2) –100°C 1
m V12 = 2 h f0 – h f0 = h f0
(3) –373°C (4) –40°C 2
Ans. (1) For f = 5 f0
1
m V22 = 5 h f0 – h f0 = 4h f0
Sol. For isochoric process 2
P R V1 1
 n  cons tan t 
T V V2 2
nR
P  t  273 
V
If P = 0  t = – 273°C
6
 SECTION-B
21. For a train engine moving with speed of 20 ms–1.
Sol.
the driver must apply brakes at a distance of 500 m
before the station for the train to come to rest at the
I = Icm + Md2
station. If the brakes were applied at half of this
MR 2
distance, the train engine would cross the station   MR 2
2
x ms . The value of x is ______
–1
with speed
3
(Assuming same retardation is produced by brakes)  MR 2
2
Ans. (200) x=3
24. Nucleus a having Z = 17 and equal number of
Sol. u = 20 m/s, S1 = 500 m, v = 0 protons and neutrons has 1.2 MeV binding energy
By third equation of mation per nucleon.
4 Another nucleus B of Z = 12 has total 26 nucleons
0 = (20)2 – 2a. 500  a = m / s2
10 and 1.8 MeV binding energy per nucleons.
u = 20 m/s, S2 = 250 m, v = ? The difference of binding energy of B and A will
2 2
v = (20) – 2a. 250 be ____MeV.
= v  200m / s Ans. (6)

x = 200
Sol. For A mass number = 34
22. A force F = (5 + 3y2) acts on a particle in the y-
Total binding energy = 1.2 × 34 = 40.8 MeV
direction, where F is newton and y is in meter. The
For B mass number = 26
work done by the force during a displacement from
total binding energy = 1.8 × 26 MeV
y = 2m to y = 5m is ______j.
= 46.8 MeV
Ans. (132)
Difference of BE = 6 MeV
25. A square shaped coil of area 70 cm2 having 600
Sol. F = 5 + 3y2
turns rotates in a magnetic field of 0.4 wbm–2,
5


W   5  3y 2 dy  about an axis which is parallel to one of the side of
2 the coil and perpendicular to the direction of field.
5
 3y3  If the coil completes 500 revolution in a minute,
 5y  
 3 2 the instantaneous emf when the plane of the coil is
inclined at 60° with the field, will be ____ V.
= 132 J
22
23. Moment of inertia of a dise of mass M and radius (Take   )
7
MR 2
'R' about any of its diameter is . The moment Ans. (44)
4
of inertia of this disc about an axis normal to the
Sol. N = 600, A = 70 × 10–4 m2, B = 0.4T
disc and passing through a point on its edge will
500  2 100
x   rad / s
be, MR2. The value of x is _____. 60 6
2
E= NAB sint t is angle b/w A & B
Ans. (3) 100  1
= 600 × 70 × 10–4 × 0.4 × 
6 2
= 44 V
7
26. A block is fastened to a horizontal spring. The 10V 20V 20V
O
block is pulled to a distance x = 10 cm from its 10 
Sol. 10V
equilibrium position (at x = 0) on a frictionless 20V
10  
surface from rest. The energy of the block at x = 5
cm is 0.25 J. The spring constant of the spring is 10V  10 0V
–1
____Nm .
20  10
Ans. (50) I1  I2   1A
10

I3 = 1A
x 0 = 10cm
I1  I3
Sol. 2
I2
1 2
Ui  kx 0
2 28. As shown in the figure, in Young's double slit

Ki = 0 experiment, a thin plate of thickness t = 10 m and

refractive index is inserted infront of slit

S1. The experiment is conducted in air (= 1)

2
1 x 
Uf  k  0  and uses a monochromatic light of wavelength
2  2

Kf = 0.25 J  = 500 nm. Due to the insertion of the plate,

1 2 1 x2 central maxima is shifted by a distance of x0. 0 is

kx 0  0  k 0  0.25
2 2 4 the fringe-width before the insertion of the plate.
1 3 1
k x 20  The value of the x is_____.
2 4 4

1 3 200
t
k  1 k  N/m S1
2 100 3 
P
= 67 N/m
S2
I1  I3
27. In the given circuit the value of is:
I2 Ans. (4)
10 V 20 V

10 
I1 t    1
10  Sol. Fringe shift = B
I2 

10  106 1.2  1
13 10   B
5  10 7
Ans. (2)
10 –5  0.2
 4
5  10 7

8
29. A cubical volume is bounded by the surfaces 30. The surface of water in a water tank of cross
x = 0, x = a, y = 0, y = a, z = 0, z = a. The electric section area 750 cm2 on the top of a house is h m.
ˆ Where
field in the region is given by E  E0 x i.
above the tap level. The speed of water coming out
E0 = 4 × 104 NC–1 m–1. If a = 2 cm, the charge
contained in the cubical volume is Q × 10–14C. The through the tap of cross section area 500 mm2 is

value of Q is____. dh
30 cm/s. At that instant, is x × 10–3 m/s. The
Take 0 = 9 × 10 –12 2 2
C /Nm ) dt

Ans. (288) value of x will be_____.

y
Ans. (2)
B
C
A Sol. A1V1 = A2 V2
x

Sol. D 750 × 10–4 V1 = 500 × 10–6 × 0.3

E  E0 xiˆ 500  3  10 3
V1  m/s
750
net  ABCD  E0a.a2

q en = 2 × 10–3 m/s
 E0 a 3
0 dh
 2  10 –3 m / s
qen = E0 0 a3 dt

= 4 × 104 × 9 × 10–12 × 8 × 10–

6
= 288 × 10–14 C
Q = 288

9
 SOLUTION - JEE SHIKHAR TEST #09 (Main)
XII & DRP ALL BATCHES_ (22/12/2023)
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 34. The graph which represents the following reaction
31. In a reaction, is :
OH OH OCOCH 3
OH 
COOCH 3 COOH COOH (C6 H 5 )3 C  Cl 
Pyridine (C 6 H 5 )3 C  OH
‘Y’ ‘X’

reagents ‘X’ and ‘Y’ respectively are : rate rate

(1) (CH3CO)2O/H+ and CH3OH/H+,  (1) (2)
(2) (CH3CO)2O/H+ and (CH3CO)2O/H+
(3) CH3OH/H+,  and CH3OH/H+,  [(C6 H5) 3C–Cl] –
[OH ]
(4) CH3OH/H+  and (CH3CO)2O/H+
Ans. (1) rate rate
(3) (4)
O

OH OH O–C–CH 3
+ COOH COOH
COOCH 3 CH 3OH/H
[(C H ) C–Cl]
+
(CH 3CO)2O/H
[Pyridine]
Sol.
32. The correct order of bond enthalpy (kJ mol–1) is :
(1) Si – Si > C – C > Sn – Sn > Ge – Ge
Sol. (It is SN1 reaction so rate of reaction depends on
(2) Si – Si > C – C > Ge – Ge > Sn – Sn
the concentration of alkyl halide only.
(3) C – C > Si – Si > Sn – Sn > Ge – Ge
(4) C – C > Si – Si > Ge – Ge > Sn – Sn 35. Ans. (1)
Ans. (4)

Sol. (Bond enthalpy order

C – C > Si – Si > Ge – Ge > Sn – Sn)
33. All structures given below are of vitamin C. Most
stable of them is :
OH
(1) HO O
O
(2)
H
OH OH

(3) (4)

Ans. (1)

Sol. H-bonding stabilised vitamin C

6 5 3
 36. The complex cation which has two isomers is : 39. Which element is not present in Nessler’s reagent ?
(1) [Co(H2O)6]3+ (2) [Co(NH3)5Cl]2+ (1) Mercury
(3) [Co(NH3)5NO2]2+ (4) [Co(NH3)5Cl]+
(2) Potassium
Ans. (3)
(3) Iodine
2+
Sol. ([Co(NH3)5NO2] (4) Oxygen
Two linkage isomers possible
Ans. (4)
NO2  Ambidentate ligand
37. Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Sulphanilic acid gives esterification test Sol. (Nessler’s Reagent  K2[HgI4]
for carboxyl group. 40. Given below are two statements : one is labelled
Statement II : Sulphanilic acid gives red colour in
Lassigne’s test for extra element detection. as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
In the light of the above statements, choose the Reason (R).
most appropriate answer from the options given Assertion (A) : -halocarboxylic acid on reaction
below :
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is with dil. NH3 gives good yield of -amino
incorrect. carboxylic acid whereas the yield of amines is very
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. low when prepared from alkyl halides.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II Reason (R) : Amino acids exist in zwitter ion form
is correct. in aqueous medium.
Ans. (4) In the light of the above statements, choose the
O correct answer from the options given below :
= =

H2N – – S – OH
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
Sol.
correct explanation of (A).
Sulphanilic acid O
Does not show esterification test. (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
Presence of both sulphur and nitrogen give red correct explanation of (A).
colour in Lassigne’s test. (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
38. Ans. (3)
Ans. (1)

41. Ans. (3)

2
42. The structures of major products A, B and C in the 43. Given below are two statements : one is labelled
following reaction are sequence. as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
O Reason (R).
NaHSO3, dil. HCl LiAlH4
H NaCN, H2O
[A] [B] Assertion (A) : Cu2+ in water is more stable than
Cu+.
HCl/H2O
[C] Reason (R) : Enthalpy of hydration for Cu2+ is


(1) A =
OH CN
, much less than that of Cu+.
H In the light of the above statements, choose the
HO CHO correct answer from the options given below :
B= (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
H
, correct explanation of (A).
HO CO2H
C= (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
H (3) (1) is not correct but (R) is correct.
OSO3Na (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
(2) A = ,
correct explanation of (A).
H
Ans. (1)
OH
B=
H Sol. 2Cu+  Cu2+ + Cu
,
Cl The stability of Cu2+(aq) rather than Cu+(aq), is due
C= to the much more negative hydH of Cu2+(aq) than
H Cu+(aq), which more than compensates for the
HO SO3H second ionisation enthalpy of Cu.
(3) A = ,
H 44. Ans. (3)

B= OH
,
HO SO2Cl
C=
H
HO CN
(4) A = ,
H
HO NH2
B=
H
,
HO CO2H
C=
H

Ans. (4)
45. Ans. (3)
OH OH
CN CH2 – NH2
LiAlH4

H H
(A) (B)
Sol.
HO
COOH
HCl + H2O

H

3
 48. The effect of addition of helium gas to the
46. Ans. (3)
PCI5 (g) reaction
following in equilibrium
PCl3 (g) Cl2 (g) state, is :
PCI5 (g) PCl3 (g)  Cl2 (g)
(1) the equilibrium will shift in the forward
direction and more of Cl2 and PCl3 gases will be
produced.
(2) the equilibrium will go backward due to
suppression of dissociation of PCl5.
(3) helium will deactivate PCl5 and reaction will
stop.
(4) addition of helium will not affect the
equilibrium.

Ans. (1)

Sol. PCI5 (g) PCl3 (g)  Cl2 (g)

(Case 1 : At constant P – volume will increase so

reaction will shift in forward direction then answer
will be A
Case 2 : At constant volume no change in active
mass so reaction will not shift in any direction then
answer will be D.

49. For electron gain enthalpies of the elements

denoted as egH, the incorrect option is :
(1) egH (Cl) <egH (F)
(2) egH (Se) <egH (S)
47. Which one of the following sets of ions represents
a collection of isoelectronic species? (3) egH (I) <egH (At)

(Given : Atomic Number : F :9 , Cl : 17, Na = 11, (4) egH (Te) <egH (Po)

Mg = 12, Al = 13, K = 19, Ca = 20, Sc = 21) Ans. (2)

(1) (Li+ , Na+ , Mg2+ , Ca2+
(2) (Ba2+ , Sr2+ , K+ , Ca2+ Sol. (1) egH (Cl) <egH (F)
(3) (N3– , O2– , F– , S2– (–345) (– 328) Correct
+ – 2+
(4) (K , Cl , Ca , Sc 3+
(2) egH (Se) <egH (S)
Ans. (4) (–195) (– 200) Incorrect
(3) egH (I) <egH (At)
K  Cl1 Ca 2  Sc 3 (–295) (– 270) Correct
Sol.
18 18 18 18 (4) egH (Te) <egH (Po)
(–190) (– 183) Correct

4
50. O–O bond length in H2O2 is X than the O–O bond 52. Ans. (1)
length in F2O2. The O – H bond length in H2O2 is
Y than that of the O–F bond in F2O2.
Choose the correct option for X and Y from the
given below.
(1) X – shorter, Y – shorter
(2) X – shorter, Y – longer
(3) X – longer, Y – longer
(4) X – longer, Y - shorter
Ans. (4)

Sol. According to bent rule more electronegative atom

occupy less s-characters so bond length increases. 53. Ans. (144)
O – H bond will be short than O – F bond due to
small size of H than F.

SECTION-B
51. 0.3 g of ethane undergoes combustion at 27°C in a
bomb calorimeter. The temperature of calorimeter
system (including the water) is found to rise by
0.5°C. The heat evolved during combustion of
ethane at constant pressure is ________kJ mol–1.
(Nearest integer)
[Given : The heat capacity of the
calorimeter system is 20 kJ K–1, R = 8.3 JK–1
54. A B
mol–1.
Assume ideal gas behaviour. The above reaction is of zero order. Half life of
Atomic mass of C and H are 12 and 1 g mol–1 this reaction is 50 min. The time taken for the
respectively] concentration of A to reduce to one-fourth of its
Ans. (1006)
initial value is________min.
Sol. (Bomb calorimeter  const volume
(Nearest integer)
Heat released
By combustion of 1 mole Ans. (75)
20  0.5
C2H6 (U) = –  30 = –1000 kJ
0.3
Sol. Assume reaction starts with 1 mole A
C2H6(g) + 7/2 O2(g)  2CO2(g) + 3H2O(l)
a 1
ng = 2 – (2 + 7/2) = - (7/2) ( t1/2  ,K 
2k 2  50
H = U + nRT For 75% completion
= – 1000 – 7/2 × 8.3 × 300 kJ a
a  kt
= – 1000 – 6.225 4
= – 1006 kJ 3 a 3 100
So heat released = 1006 kJ mol-1 t    75
4k 4 a

5
55. 20% of acetic acid is dissociated when its 5 g is [Given : Ksp(AgBr) = 4.9×10–13 at 298K
added to 500 mL of water. The depression in
freezing point of such water is _______ × 10–3 °C.  0Ag  6  103 Sm 2 mol –1
Atomic mass of C, H and O are 12, 1 and 16 a.m.u.
respectively.
 0Br   8  103 Sm2 mol –1
[Given : Molal depression constant and density of
water are 1.86 K kg mol–1 and 1 g cm–3
respectively.  0NO  7  103 Sm2 mol –1 ]
3

Ans. (14)
Ans. (372)
Sol. i = 1 + (n – 1) 
(i = 1 + 0.2 (2 – 1) = 1.2 Sol. [Ag+] = 10–5

Tf = i Kf m  NO3   10 –5
5  1000
Tf = 1.2 × 1.86 ×
60  500 Ksp
 Br     4.9  10 –8
tf = 3.72  Ag  
Tf = 372 × 10-2
k
m 
1000  M

For Ag+

56. The molality of a 10% (v/v) solution of di-bromine K Ag 

6  103 
solution in CCl4 (carbon tetrachloride) is 'x'. x 1000  10 –5

________ × 10–2 M. (Nearest integer) KAg+ = 6 × 10–5

[Given : molar mass of Br2 = 160 g mol–1  6000×10–8
atomic mass of C = 12 g mol–1
for Br–
atomic mass of Cl = 35.5 g mol–1
K Br 
–3 8  103 
density of dibromine = 3.2 g cm 1000  4.9  10 –8
density of CCl4 = 1.6 g cm–3] KBr– = 39.2 × 10–8
Ans. (139)
for NO3

K NO
Sol. (10 ml solute in 90 ml solvent 7  103  3

1000  10 –5
mass of solute = 10 × 3.2 = 32g
mass of solvent = 90 × 1.6g K NO  7  10 –5
32  1000
3

m= = 1.388
160  90  1.6 = 7000 × 10–8
-2
m = 138.8 × 10 = 139
Conductivity of solution
57. 1×10–5 M AgNO3 is added to 1 L of saturated
solution of AgBr. The conductivity of this solution  (6000 + 7000 + 39.2) × 10–8

at 298 K is ______×10–8 S m–1.  13039. 2 × 10–8 S m–1

6
58. Testosterone, which is a steroidal hormone, has the 60. Ans. (85)
following structure.
OH
CH3

CH3

O Testosterone

The total number of asymmetric carbon atom/s in

testosterone is ______

Ans. (6)

OH
CH3
*
*
CH3
* *
*
*

O
Sol. Testosterone

59. The spin only magnetic moment of [Mn(H2O)6]2+

complexes is _______B.M. (Nearest integer)

(Given : Atomic no. of Mn is 25)

Ans. ( 5 OR 6)

Sol. ([Mn(H2O)6]2+
Mn2+ = 3d5
µ  5(5  2)  5.91BM

7
 SOLUTION - JEE SHIKHAR TEST #09 (Main)
XII & DRP ALL BATCHES_ (22/12/2023)
MATHEMATICS
SECTION-A ïì æ1 - x ö æ 1 - x2 ö ïü
62. Let S= íx Î R : 0 < x < 1and 2 tan -1 ç ÷ = cos-1 ç 2 ÷ý . If
2 îï è1 + x ø è1 + x ø þï
¥
2n + 3n + 4
61. The sum å
n= 1 ( 2n ) !
is equal to : n(S) denotes the number of elements in S then :
1
11e 7 (1) n(S) = 2 and only one element in S is less then .
(1) + 2
2 2e
1
13e 5 (2) n(S) = 1 and the element in S is more than .
(2) + -4 2
4 4e
1
11e 7 (3) n(S) = 1 and the element in S is less than .
(3) + -4 2
2 2e
(4) n(S) = 0
13e 5
(4) + Ans. (3)
4 4e
Ans. (2)

Sol. 0 < x < 1

-1 æ 1 - x ö
2
æ1 - x ö
¥
2n 2 + 3n + 4 2 tan -1 ç ÷ = cos ç 2 ÷
Sol. å
n =1 ( 2n ) ! è1 + x ø è1 + x ø

1 ¥ 2n ( 2n - 1 ) + 8n + 8 æ pö
tan -1 x = q Î ç 0, ÷ \ x = tan q
å
2 n =1 (2n ) ! è 4ø

1 ¥ 1 ¥
1 ¥
1 æ æp öö
2 tan -1 ç tan ç - q ÷ ÷ = cos -1 (cos 2q)
å
2 n =1 ( 2n - 2 ) !
+ 2ån =1 ( 2n - 1 ) !
+4 å
n =1 ( 2n ) ! è è4 øø
1 1 1 æp ö p p
e =1 +1 + + + + ..... 2 ç - q ÷ = 2q \ 4q = \q =
2! 3! 4 ! è4 ø 2 8
1 1 1 p
e-1 = 1 - 1 + - + + ..... x = tan \ x = 2 - 1 ; 0.414
2! 3! 4 ! 8
æ 1ö æ 1 1 ö r r
ç e + e ÷ = 2 ç1 + 2! + 4 ! + ....... ÷ 63. Let a = 2iˆ - 7jˆ + 5kˆ , b = iˆ + kˆ and
è ø è ø
r r
1 æ 1 1 ö c = iˆ + 2jˆ - 3kˆ be three given vectors. If r is a
e- = ç1 + + + ..... ÷
e è 3! 5! ø r r r r r r
vector such that r ´ a = c ´ a and r g b = 0 , then
Now r
r is equal to :
1æ ¥ 1 ö ¥
1 ¥
1
çç å ÷÷ + 2å + 4å 11
2 è n =1 ( 2n - 2 ) ! ø n =1 ( 2n - 1 ) ! n =1 ( 2n ) ! (1) 2
7
é 1ù é 1ù æ 1 ö
e+ ú êe - e ú çe+ e -2÷ 11
1ê e (2)
= ê ú +2ê ú + 4ç ÷ 7
2ê 2 ú ê 2 ú çç 2 ÷÷
ëê úû êë úû è ø 11
(3) 2
æ 1ö 5
çe + e ÷
= è ø + e - 1 + 2e + 2 - 4 914
(4) 7
4 e e
13 5 Ans. (1)
= e+ -4
4 4e

1
 r
Sol. a = 2iˆ - 7jˆ + 5kˆ 65. Two dice are thrown independently. Let A be the
r event that the number appeared on the 1st die is less
b = iˆ + kˆ than the number appeared on the 2nd die, B be the
r
c = iˆ + 2jˆ - 3kˆ event that the number appeared on the 1st die is
r r r r r r r
r ´ a = c ´ a Þ (r - c ) ´ a = 0 even and that on the second die is odd, and C be
r r r the event that the number appeared on the 1st die is
\ r = c + la
odd and that on the 2nd is even. Then
r r r r r r
r . b = 0 Þ c .b + l b . a = 0 (1) the number of favourable cases of the event
2 (A È B) Ç C is 6
–2 + l(7) = 0 Þ l =
7 (2) A and B are mutually exchusive
r
r r 2a 1
\r =c +
7 7
(
= 11iˆ - 11kˆ ) (3) The number of favourable cases of the events
A, B and C are 15, 6 and 6 respectively
r 11 2 (4) B and C are independent
|r|=
7 Ans. (1)
1é 1 3ù
64. If A = ê ú , then : Sol. A : no. on 1st die < no. on 2nd die
2 êë- 3 1 úû
A : no. on 1st die = even & no. of 2nd die = odd
(1) A30 – A25 = 2I
C : no. on 1st die = odd & no. on 2nd die = even
(2) A30 + A25 + A = I
n(A) = 5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 15
(3) A30 + A25 – A = I
n(B) = 9
(4) A30 = A25
n(C) = 9
Ans. (3)
n((A È B) Ç C) = (A Ç C) È (B Ç C)
= (3 + 2 + 1) + 0 = 6.
1é 1 3ù
66.
Sol. A= ê ú Ans. (3)
2 êë- 3 1 úû

é cos 60° sin 60° ù

A=ê ú
ë - sin 60° cos60º û
é cos a sin a ù p
If A= ê ú Here a=
ë - sin a cos a û 3
é cos a sin a ù é cos a sin a ù
A2 = ê úê ú
ë - sin a cos a û ë- sin a cos a û
é cos 2a sin 2a ù
=ê ú
ë - sin 2a cos 2a û
é cos30a sin 30a ù
A 30 = ê ú
ë - sin 30a cos 30a û
é1 0 ù
A 30 = ê ú=I
ë0 1 û
é 1 3ù
é cos 25a sin 25a ù ê 2 ú
2 ú
A 25 =ê ú =ê
ë - sin 25a cos25a û ê - 3 1 ú
ê ú
ë 2 2 û
A25 = A
A25 – A = 0

2
67. The number of integral values of k, for which one 69. Ans. (1)
root of the equation 2x2 – 8x + k = 0 lies in the
interval (1, 2) and its other root lies in the interval
(2, 3), is :
(1) 2
(2) 0
(3) 1
(4) 3
Ans. (3)

Sol. 2x2 – 8x + k = 0

2
1 3
f(1) . f(2) < 0 & f(2) . f(3) < 0
(k – 6) (k – 8) < 0 & (k – 8) (k – 6) < 0
k Î (6, 8) k Î (6, 8)
integral value of k = 7
68. Let f : R – {0, 1} ® R be a function such that
æ 1 ö
f (x) + f ç ÷ = 1 + x . Then f(2) is equal to :
è1 - x ø
9
(1)
2
9
(2)
4
7
(3)
4
7
(4) 70. Let a, b be two real numbers such that ab < 0. If
3
1 + ai
Ans. (2) the complex number is of unit modulus and
b+i
a + ib lies on the circle |z – 1| = |2z|, then a possible
æ 1 ö
Sol. f(x) + f ç ÷ =1+x 1 + [a ]
è1 - x ø value of , where [t] is greatest integer
4b
x = 2 Þ f(2) + f(–1) = 3 (1)
function, is :
æ1ö
x = –1 Þ f(–1) + f ç ÷ = 0 (2) (1) -
1
è2ø 2
1 æ1 ö 3 (2) –1
x= Þ f ç ÷ + f (2) = (3)
2 è2ø 2 (3) 1
9 1
(1) + (3) – (2) Þ 2f(2) = (4)
2 2
9 Ans. (1)
\ f (2) =
4

3
 1 + ai 72. Let P(S) denote the power set of S={1,2,3, ..., 10}.
Sol. ab < 0 =1
b+i Define the relations R1 and R2 on P(S) as AR1B if
|1+ ai| = |b + i| (A Ç Bc) È (B Ç Ac) = Æ and AR2B if A È Bc =
a2 + 1 = b2 + 1 Þ a = ± b Þ b = – a as ab < 0 B È Ac, " A, B Î P(S). Then :
(a, b) lies on |z – 1| = |2z| (1) both R1 and R2 are equivalence relations
|a + ib –1| = 2|a + ib| (2) only R1 is an equivalence relation
(a – 1)2 + b2 = 4(a2 + b2) (3) only R2 is an equivalence relation
(a – 1)2 = a2 = 4(2a2) (4) both R1 and R2 are not equivalence relations
1 – 2a = 6a2 Þ 6a2 + 2a – 1 = 0 Ans. (1)
-2 ± 28 -1 ± 7
a= = Sol. S = {1, 2, 3, ……10}
12 6
P(S) = power set of S
7 -1 1- 7 r r
a= &b= AR, B Þ (A Ç B) È (A Ç B) = f
6 6
[a] = 0 R1 is reflexive, symmetric
For transitive
1 + [a] 6 æ1 + 7 ö r r
\ = = -ç
ç 4 ÷÷ (A Ç B) È (A Ç B) = f ; {a} = f = {b} A = B
4b 4 1- 7 ( è )ø r r
(B Ç C) È (B Ç C) = f \ B = C
or [a] = 0
\ A = C equivalence.
-1 - 7
Similarly it is not matching with a = A B
6
a c b
No answer is matching.
71. The sum of the abosolute maximum and minimum d
r r
values of the function f(x) = |x2 – 5x + 6| – 3x + 2 R2 º A È B = A È B
in the interval [–1, 3] is equal to :
R2 ® Reflexive , symmetric
(1) 10
for transitive
(2) 12
A B
(3) 13
a c b
(4) 24
Ans. (1) d
r r
A È B = A È B Þ {a, c, d} = {b, c, d}
Sol. f(x) = |x2 – 5x + 6|– 3x + 2 {a} = {b} \ A = B
r r
ì x - 8x + 8 ; x Î [ -1,2]
2
B ÈC = B ÈC Þ B = C
f(x) = í 2
r r
î-x + 2x - 4 ; x Î [2,3] \A=C \ A È C = A È C \ Equivalence
73. The area of the region given by
{(x, y) : xy £ 8, 1, £ y £ x } is :
2

max = 17
13 14
min = – 17 (1) 8 loge2 – (2) 16 loge2 –
3 3
7 7
–1 2 3 (3) 8 loge2 + (4) 16 loge2 +
6 3
Ans. (2)
–4

–7

4
Sol. p p
4 x+
The value of the integral ò
2 4 dx is :
xy £ 8 1£y£x 75.
p 2 - cos 2x
2 -
4
y=x
p2
(1)
y = 8/x 6

p2
(2)
12 8 12 3

p2
2 8
(3)
æ8 ö
ò (x )
3 3
Area = 2
- 1 dx + ò ç - 1 ÷ dx
2èx ø
1
p2
2 (4)
æ x3 ö 6 3
= ç ÷ + 8 ( l n x )2 - ( x )1
8 8

è 3 ø1 Ans. (4)
7
= + 8 ( 2l n 2 ) - 7
3
14 p p
= 16 ln2 – 4 x+
3 Sol. I= ò 4 dx (1)
-p 2 - cos2x
74. Let ax = exp(xbyg) be the solution of the 4
2 2
differential equation 2x y dy – (1 – xy ) dx = 0,
x®–x
x > 0, y(2) = loge 2 . Then a + b – g equals :
p p
(1) 1 4 -x +
I= ò 4 dx (2)
(2) –1 2 - cos2x
-p
(3) 0 4

(4) 3 (1) + (2)

Ans. (1) )
p p
4
b g
2I = ò 2 dx
Sol. ax = ex .y

-p 2 - cos 2x
dy 4
2x 2 y = 1 - x . y2 y2 = t
dx p
dt p 4
dx
x2 = 1 - xt I= .2ò dx
dx 4 0 2 - cos 2x
dt t 1
+ = 2 I.F. = elnx = x p
dx x x
I=
p
.2 ò
4
(
1 + tan2 x dx )
1
t(x) = ò 2 .x dx
x
(
4 0 2 1 + tan 2 x - 1 - tan 2 x ) ( )
y2 . x = lnx + C p
1
dt
I= ò
4 0 3t 2 + 1
\ 2. ln2 = ln2 + C

\ C = ln2 p
Þ I= tan -1 3
2 3
Hence, xy2 = ln2x
2 p2
\ 2x = ex .y I=
6 3
Hence a = 2, b = 1, g = 2
5
76. Let 9 = x1 < x2 < …< x7 be in an A.P. with common a 1 1
difference d. If the standard deviation of x1, x2 …, Sol. 1 a 1 =0
1 1 a
x7 is 4 and the mean is x , then x + x6 is equal to :
a (a2 – 1) –1(a – 1) + 1(1 – a) = 0
æ 1 ö
(1) 18 ç 1 + ÷ a3 – 3 a + 2 = 0
è 3ø
a2 (a – 1) + a (a – 1) –2(a – 1) = 0
(2) 34
(a – 1) (a2 + a – 2) = 0
æ 8 ö a = 1, a = – 2, 1
(3) 2 ç 9 + ÷
è 7ø For a = 1, b = 1
(4) 25 x + y + z = 1ü
ý infinite solution
Ans. (2) x + y + z = bþ
For a = 2, b = 1
D=4
Sol. 9 = x1 < x2 < …….< x7
1 1 1
9, 9 + d, 9 + 2d, ………9 + 6d = 3 -1 -1 1
D1 = 1 2 1 Þx=
=1 4
0, d, 2d, …….6d 1 1 2
21d 2 1 1
x new = = 3d
7 1
D2 = 1 1 1 = 2 - 1 = 1 Þy=
4
1 2 1 1 2
16 =
7
( )
0 + 12 + ....... + 6 2 d 2 - 9d 2
2 1 1
1
1 æ 6 ´ 7 ´ 13 ö 2 2 D3 = 1 2 1 = 2 - 1 = 1 Þz=
= ç ÷ d - 9d 4
7è 6 ø 1 1 1

16 = 4d2 For a = 2 Þ unique solution

r r
d2 = 4 78. Let a = 5iˆ - ˆj - 3kˆ and b = ˆi + 3jˆ + 5kˆ be two
vectors. Then which one of the following
d=2
statements is TRUE?
x + x 6 = 6 + 9 + 10 + 9 r r 17
(1) Projection of a on b is and the direction of the pr
77. For the system of linear equations ax + y + z = 1, 35
r r -17
x + ay + z = 1, x + y + az = b , which one of the (2) Projection of a on b is and the direction of the pr
35
following statements is NOT correct ? r
r 17
(3) Projection of a on b is and the direction of
(1) It has infinitely many solutions if a=2 and b = –1 35
(2) It has no solution if a = – 2 and b = 1 the projection vector is opposite to the direction
r
3 of b
(3) x + y + z = if a = 2 and b = 1 r
4 r -17
(4) Projection of a on b is and the direction of
35
(4) It has infinitely many solutions if a=1 and b=1 the projection vector is opposite to the direction
r
Ans. (1) of b
Ans. (1)

6
 r
Sol. a = 5iˆ - ˆj - 3kˆ Sol. y¢ = xx
r y¢ = xx (1 + lnx)
b = iˆ - 3jˆ + 5kˆ

r 5 - 3 - 15 -13 1
a . bˆ = =- y² = xx (1 + lnx)2 + xx .
35 35 x

79. Let P(x0, y0) be the point on the hyperbola 3x2 – 4y2 y² (2) = 4(1 + ln2)2 + 2
= 36, which is nearest to the line 3x + 2y = 1. Then
y¢ (2) = 4(1 + ln2)
2 (y0 – x0) is equal to :
(1) –3 y² (2) – 2y¢(2) = 4(1 + ln2)2 + 2 – 8(1 + ln2)

(2) 9
= 4(1 + ln2) [1 + ln2 – 2] + 2
(3) –9
(4) 3 = 4(ln2)2 – 1) + 2

Ans. (3)
= 4(ln2)2 – 2
2 2
Sol. 3x – 4y = 36
3x + 2y = 1 SECTION-B

3 81. The total number of six digit numbers, formed

m=-
2 using the digits 4, 5, 9 only and divisible by 6, is
sec q 3 ______.
m=+
12 .tan q
Ans. (81)
3 1 -3
Þ ´ =
12 sin q 2
6!
Sol. Taking single digit ® 444444 =1
1 6!
sin q = -
3
Taking two digit ®
(4, 5) 444555 (4, 9) 444999
( 12 .sec q, 3 tan q )
5! 5!
= 10 = 10
3!2! 3!2!
æ 3 1 ö æ 6 -3 ö
çç 12 . , -3 ´ ÷÷ Þ ç , ÷ Taking three digit
è 2 2 ø è 2 2ø
5!
4, 5, 9, 4, 4, 4 Þ = 20
80. x
If y(x) = x , x > 0, then y’’(2) – 2y’(2) is equal 3!
to :
5!
4, 5, 9, 5, 5, 5 Þ =5
(1) 8 loge2 – 2 4!
(2) 4 loge2 + 2 5!
4, 5, 9, 9, 9, 9 Þ =5
(3) 4 (loge2) – 2 2
4!

(4) 4 (loge2)2 + 2 5!
4, 5, 9, 4, 5, 9 Þ = 30
2!2!
Ans. (3)
Total = 81

7
82. Number of integral solutions to the equation 84. If the x-intercept of a focal chord of the parabola
2
x + y + z = 21, where x ³ 1, y ³ 3, z ³ 4, is equal to y = 8x + 4y + 4 is 3, then the length of this chord
is equal to ______.
______.
Ans. (16)
Ans. (105)
Allen Ans. (16)
Sol. y2 = 8x + 4y + 4
15 ´ 14 (y – 2)2 = 8(x + 1)
= 105
15
Sol. C2 =
2 y2 = 4ax
a = 2, X = x + 1, Y = y – 2
83. The line x = 8 is the directrix of the ellipse
focus (1, 2)
x 2 y2 y – 2 = m (x – 1)
E : 2 + 2 = 1 with the corresponding focus
a b Put (3, 0) in the above line
(2, 0). If the tangent to E at the point P in the first m=–1

(
quadrant passes through the point 0, 4 3 and ) Length of focal chord = 16
p
5cos x (1 + cos x cos3x + cos 2 x + cos 3 x cos3x ) dx kp
If ,
intersects the x-axis at Q, then (3PQ)2 is equal to 85.
ò
0
1 + 5cos x
=
16
______. then k is equal to ______.
Ans. (39) Ans. (13)

Sol
a
Sol. = 8 ……….(1) ae = 2 …….(2) p
e 5cos x (1 + cos x cos3x + cos2 x + cos3 x cos3x)
I= ò dx
1 + 5cos x
2 0
8e = p
e 5- cos x (1 + cos x cos3x + cos2 x + cos3 x cos3x)
I=ò dx
1 1 0 1 + 5- cos x
e2 = Þe=
4 2 p
2I = ò (1 + cos x cos 3x + cos 2 x + cos 3 x cos 3x)dx
a=4 0

2 2 2 p
b = a (1 – e ) 2
2I = 2 ò (1 + cos x cos 3x + cos2 x + cos3 x cos 3x)dx
æ3ö
= 16 ç ÷ = 12 0
è4ø p
2
x cos q y sin q I = ò (1 + sin x( - sin 3x) + sin 2 x - sin 3 x sin 3x)dx
+ =1
4 2 3 0

p
1 2
sin q = 2I = ò (3 + cos 4x + cos3 x cos3x - sin 3 x sin 3x)dx
2
0

q = 30° p
2
æ cos 3x + 3 cos x ö æ 3sin x - sin 3x ö
2I = ò 3 + cos 4x + ç ÷ cos3x - sin 3x ç ÷ dx
(
P 2 3, 3 ) 0 è
p
4 ø è 4 ø

2
æ 1 3 ö
æ 8 ö 2I = ò ç 3 + cos 4x + + cos 4x ÷ dx
Qç ,0 ÷ 0è 4 4 ø
è 3 ø p
2
(3PQ) = 39 13 p 7 æ sin 4x ö 2 13p
2I = ´ + ç ÷ Þ I=
4 2 4 è 4 ø0 16

8
86. Let the sixth term in the binomial expansion of 88. The sum of the common terms of the following

( 2log 2 (10 - 3x ) + 2( )
m
5 x -2 ) log2 3
, in the increasing three arithmetic progressions.

3, 7, 11, 15, …………, 399,

powers of 2( x-2 ) log2 3 , be 21. If the binomial
coefficients of the second, third and fourth terms in 2, 5, 8, 11,………….., 359 and
the expansion are respectively the first, third and
2, 7, 12, 17,……., 197, is equal to
fifth terms of an A.P., then the sum of the squares
of all possible values of x is ______. ______.

Ans. (4) Ans. (321)

Sol. 3, 7, 11, 15, …………, 399 d1 = 4

m-5
Sol. T6 = m C5 10 - 3x ( ) 2
(
. 3x -2 = 21 ) ….(1) 2, 5, 8, 11,………….., 359 d2 = 3
m
C1 , m C2 , m C3 are in A.P. 2, 7, 12, 17,……., 197 d3 = 5
m m m
2. C2 = C1 + C3
LCM (d1, d2, d3) = 60
Solving for m, we get
m = 2(rejected), 7 Common terms are 47, 107, 167
Put in equation (1)
Sum = 321
3x
= 21
x
21 . (10 –3 )
9 89. Ans. (5376)
3x = 30 ,32
x = 0, 2
90. Ans. (3)
Sum of the squares of all possible values of x = 4
87. If the term without x in the expansion of
22
æ 23 a ö
çx + 3 ÷ is 7315, then |a| is equal to ______.
è x ø

Ans. (1)

22 - r
æ 2ö
. ( a ) ,x -3r
22 r
Sol. Tr +1 = Cr . ç x 3 ÷
è ø
44 2r
- - 3r
(a)
22 r
= Cr .x 3 3

44 11r
=
3 3
r=4
22
C4 .a 4 = 7315
22 ´ 21 ´ 20 ´ 19 4
.a = 7315
24
a=1