FORM NUMBER

NTSE (STAGE-I)
SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)
(ACADEMIC SESSION 2020-2021)

MOCK TEST # 3 DATE : 16-01-2021

PLEASE READ THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY

1. Duration of Test is 2 Hour and Questions Paper Contains 100 Questions. Total marks are 100.

2. Answers are to be given on a separate OMR sheet.

3. There are 100 questions in this test. All are compulsory. The question numbers 1 to 40 belong to Science, 41 to 60 pertain
to Mathematics and 61 to 100 are on Social Science subjects. 120 minutes are alloted for Science, Mathematics and Social
Science.
4. Please follow the instructions given on the OMR sheet for marking the answers.
5. Mark your answers for questions 1–100 on the OMR sheet by darkening the circles.
6. If you do not know the answer to any question, do not waste time on it and pass on to the next one. Time permitting, you can
come back to the questions, which you have left in the first instance and attempt them.
7. Rough work can be done anywhere in the booklet but not on the OMR sheet/loose paper.
8. Please return the Test-Booklet and OMR sheet to the invigilator after the test.

9. Each correct answer carry one mark.

10. There is no negative marking.

Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation

Useful Data:
1 amu = 1.66 × 10–27 kg R = 0.082 L-atm K–1 mol–1
h = 6.626 × 10–34 J s NA = 6.022 × 1023
me = 9.1 × 10–31 kg e = 1.6 × 10–19 C
c = 3.0 × 108 m s–1 F = 96500 C mol–1
RH = 2.18 × 10–18 J 4pÎ0 = 1.00 × 10–10 C2 N–1 m–1
Atomic No. : H=1, He=2, Li=3, Be=4, B=5, C=6, N=7, O=8, F=9, Na=11, Mg=12, Al = 13, Si = 14,
P = 15, S = 16, Cl = 17, Ar =18, K=19, Ca=20,Cr=24, Mn=25, Fe=26, Co=27, Ni=28, Cu=29, Zn=30, As=33,
Br = 35, Ag = 47, Sn = 50, Ti = 22,I = 53, Xe = 54, Ba = 56, Pb = 82,
U = 92.
Atomic masses: H =1, He=4, Li=7, Be=9, B=11, C=12, N=14, O=16, F=19, Na=23, Mg=24, Al=27, Si=28, P=31, S=32,
Cl=35.5, K=39, Ca=40, Cr=52, Mn=55, Fe=56, Co=59, Ni=58.7, Cu=63.5,
Zn = 65.4, As = 75, Br = 80, Ag = 108, Sn = 118.7, I = 127, Xe = 131, Ba = 137, Pb = 207,
U = 238.
 NTSE (STAGE-I) 16.01.2021
mechanical influence
PHYSICS
(4) All the above are true
5. The change in the value of ‘g’ at a height ‘h’ above
the earth’s surface is the same as that at a depth
1. When a magnet is moved with its north polarity ‘d’. h; d are very small as compared to the radius
towards a coil placed in a closed circuit, then the of earth. The relation between ‘d’ and ‘h’ will be:
nearer face of the coil shows (1) h = d (2) h = 2d
d
(3) h = (4) h = d
2

A light beam of frequency 5 ´ 10 Hz has

4
6.
N wavelength 4000Å in a medium of refractive
index m . Then the value of ‘ m ’is:
(1) 1.68 (2) 1.60
(1) South polarity (3) 1.42 (4) 1.5
(2) North polarity 7. The velocity of sound in any gas depends upon the
sound
(3) No polarity
(1) Wave length only
(4) North polarity if magnet is moved towards the
coil and south polarity if coil is moved towards (2) Intensity only
the magnet (3) Amplitude and frequency
2. If a bus accelerates from rest for time t1, at a (4) Density and elasticity
constant rate ' a ' and then retards at contant rate 8. A current of 6A enters one corner ‘P’ of an
' b ' for time t2 and comes to rest, then t1/t2 = equilateral triangle PQR having 3 wires of resistance
2W each and leaves by the corner R. Then the
a b+a currents i1 and i2 are:
(1) (2)
b+a 2
6A
b+a b
(3) (4) P
a a
i1 2W
3. In the given circuit, the calculate potential difference i2
2W
between A and B is

Q 2W R
4V 4V 4V (1) 2A;4A (2) 4A; 2A
(3) 1A; 2A (4) 2A; 3A
9. Under which of the following conditions will a
convex mirror of focal length ‘f’ produce an image
A B that is erect, diminished and virtual?
2W 4W (1) Only when 2f > u > f
(2) Only when u = f
(1) 4A (2) 6V
(3) Only when u < f
(3) 7V (4) 3V
(4) Always
4. Work is always done on a body when:
(1) a force acts on it
(2) It moves through a certain distance
(3) It experiences an change in energy through a

SAT Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation 3

 NTSE (STAGE-I) 16.01.2021
10. The ratio of distances covered by a freely falling
particle, starting from rest, in the first, second, third, u+v
.....nth seconds of its motion: 4f
(4)
(1) 1:2:3.....:n u (or) v
2f
(2) 1:3:5.....(2n–1)
(3) 12 : 22 : 32....n 2 CHEMISTRY
14. For the redox reaction,
(4) 12 : 32 : 52 :....: ( 2n - 1)
2

MnO 4- + C 2 O 24 - + H + ® Mn 2 + + CO 2 + H 2 O the
11. A false balance has equal arms. An object weighs
correct coefficients of the reactants for the
W1 when placed in one pan and W2 when placed in
balanced reaction are respectively
the other pan. The true weight ‘W’ of the object is:
MnO-4 ,C2 O42 - , H+ :
W1 + W2
(1) (2) W1 W2 (1) 2, 5, 16 (2) 16, 3, 12
2
(3) 15, 16, 12 (4) 2, 16, 5
W12 + W22 W1 - W2 15. IUPAC name of
(3) (4)
2 2
12. A small bar of some magnetic material is placed in
an external magnetic field. The bar get magnetized
such that the magnetic lines of induction so produced (1) 2, 2–diethyl pentane
have been shown. The material is:
(2) 3,3–diethyl pentane
(3) 1, 1-dimethyl, 2, 2–diethyl propane
(4) 2, 2-dimethyl, 1, 1–dimethyl propane
N S 16. Match the List I and List II and select the correct
answer using the code given below the lists:
List I List II
(1) Paramagnetic substance (i) Cn H 2n (A) alcohols, ethers
(2) Diamagnetic substance
(ii) C n H 2n - 2 (B) alkenes, cycloalkanes
(3) Ferro magnetic substance
(4) Non–magnetic substance (iii) C n H 2n + 2 O (C) aldehydes, ketones
13. For a convex lens, if real image is formed the graph (iv) C n H 2n O (D) alkynes, alkadienes
between (u+v) and u (or) v is as follows:
(1) i - A,ii - B,iii - C,iv - D
u+v
(2) i - D,ii - C,iii - B,iv - A
4f
(1) (3) i - B,ii - D,iii - A,iv - C
u (or) v
2f (4) i - C,ii - A,iii - D,iv - B
u+v 17. The IUPAC name of
4f CH 3 O
(2)
u (or) v | ||
2f is:
CH3 - C - C - CH 2 - CH 2 OH
u+v
(1) 1–hydroxy–4–methylpentan–3–one
4f
(3) (2) 2–methyl–5–hydroxypentan–3–one
u (or) v (3) 4–methyl–3–oxopentan–1–ol
2f
(4) hexan–1–ol–3–one
4 Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation SAT
TEST # 1
 NTSE (STAGE-I) 16.01.2021
18. Which species are oxidised and reduced in the 24. The increasing order of the ionic radii of the given
reaction? isoelectronic species is–
+ -2 +2 -
FeC2 O 4 + KMnO4 ® Fe3+ + CO 2 + Mn 2+ (1) S-2 ,Cl - ,Ca +2 , K + (2) K ,S , Ca , Cl
(1) Oxidised: Fe, C; Reduced:Mn +2 + -
(3) Ca , K , Cl ,S
-2 - +2 +
(4) Cl , Ca < K ,S
-2

(2) Oxidised: Fe, Reduced:Mn 25. Which of the following is wrongly matched?
(3) Reduced: Fe, Mn; Oxidised:C
(1) Malachite CuCO 3 .Cu ( OH ) 2
(4) Reduced: C; Oxidised:Mn, Fe
19. Equal volumes of three acid solutions of pH 3, 4 (2) Chalcopyrite CuFeS2
and 5 are mixed in a vessel. What will be the H+ (3) Copper glance Cu2S
ion concentration in the mixture? (4) Azurite Cu2O
-3 -3
(1) 3.7 ´ 10 M (2) 1.11´ 10 M 26. The reactivities of iron, magnesium, sodium and Zinc
-4 -4
towards water are in the following order
(3) 1.11´ 10 M (4) 3.77 ´ 10 M
(1) Fe > Mg > Na > Zn (2) Zn > Na > Mg > Fe
20. If equal volumes of two solutions of pH = 4 and
pH = 10 are mixed. The pH of resultant solution is (3) Na > Mg > Zn > Fe (4) Mg > Na > Fe > Zn
(1) Acidic (2) Basic
(3) Neutral (4) None of these
BIOLOGY
21. How many moles of P4 can be produced by reaction
of 0.10 moles Ca 5 ( PO 4 )3 F, 0.36 moles SiO2 and 27. What does liver secrete?
0.90 moles C according to the following reaction? (1) Insulin (2) Bile
4Ca 5 ( PO 4 )3 F + 18SiO 2 + 30C ® (3) Gastric Juice (4) Muscus
28. Which of the following does not belong to simple
3P4 + 2CaF2 + 18CaSiO 3 + 30CO tissues in plants?
(1) 0.060 (2) 0.030 (1) Parenchyma (2) Collenchyma
(3) 0.045 (4) 0.075 (3) Sclerenchyma (4) Meristematic
22. Match List I with List II and select the correct 29. The functions of sieve tubes are controlled by the
answer using codes given below in the lists: (1) Nucleus of parenchyma cells
List I List II (2) Nucleus of lateral meristem
I. Cyanide process A. Ultrapure Ge (3) Nucleus of companion cells
II. Floatation process B. Pine oil (4) Nucleus
III. Electrolytic reduction C. Extraction of Al 30. Glycoproteins and glycolipids are synthesized in
IV. Zone refining D. Extraction of Au (1) Mitochondria (2) Golgi apparatus
(1) I - C,II - A, III - D,IV - B (3) Nucleus (4) Ribosomes
(2) I - D, II - B, III - C, IV - A 31. In S–phase the DNA content changes from–––to–
– amount respectively
(3) I - C,II - B,III - D, IV - A
(1) 4C to 2C (2) 2C to 3C
(4) I - D, II - A, III - C,IV - B (3) 2C to 4C (4) C to 4C
23. If there were 10 periods in the periodic table then 32. Number of carbons in the primary CO2 fixation
how many elements would this period can maximum product of calvin cycle is:
comprise of (1) 2 (2) 3
(1) 50 (2) 72 (3) 4 (4) 5
(3) 32 (4) 98

SAT Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation 5

 NTSE (STAGE-I) 16.01.2021
33. The given figure shows the diagrammatic
representation of a section of chloroplast. Few parts
A B C
are marked as A, B, C, D and E.
Utricleand Crista
A (1) Sacculus
sacculus ampullaris
B Crista Utricleand
C ( 2) Organsof corti
ampullaris sacculus
D
Utricleand Crista
E ( 3) Organsof corti
sacculus ampullaris
combination of which parts is responsible for Utricleand Crista
trapping the light energy and synthesis of glucose ( 4) Organsof corti
sacculus ampullaris
(1) B and C (2) A and D
(3) C and E (4) B, C and E
37. Which of the following is not a correct match of
34. Match the following and select the appropriate
hormone and function
option
(1) LH–Production of testosterone by the testes
Column I Column II
(2) Prolactin– Milk production in the mammary
(A) Gibberellic acid (i) Apical dominance
glands
(B) Ethylene (ii) Bolting
(3) FSH–Development of graafian follicle
(C) ABA (iii) Senescence
(4) Oxytocin– Relax the uterine muscles
(D) Auxin (iv) Ripening of fruits
38. Fruit production without fertilization is called?
(1) Parthenogenesis (2) Parthenocarpy
A B C D
(3) Polyembryony (4) Amphimixis
(1) (i) ( iv ) ( ii ) ( iii )
39. How many kinds of gametes can be produced by
( 2) ( ii ) ( iii ) ( iv ) (i)
ABCDe
( 3) ( iv ) ( ii ) (i) ( iii ) an individual of genotype
a bCde
( 4) ( ii ) ( iv ) ( iii ) (i)
(1) 32 (2) 4
35. Glucose, amino acids and 75% water are reabsorbed (3) 2 (4) 8
in 40. Which of the following crosses will produce 1 : 1
(1) PCT (2) DCT phenotypic ratio
(3) Collecting duct (4) Loop of Henle (1) AaBb X aabb (2) AaBB X aaBB
36. Read the table carefully and choose the correct (3) aabb X aabb (4) AABB X aabb
answer
MATHEMATICS
Static balance A
Dynamic balance B
41. In the figure shown, DABC and DDEF are
Hearing C equilateral triangles. If circumradius of DABC is R
and side of DDEF is x, then x(in terms of R) is

D
B C
E F

6 Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation SAT

TEST # 1
 NTSE (STAGE-I) 16.01.2021
45. The first term of an A.P of consecutive integers is
æ 15 - 3 ö æ 15 + 3 ö
(1) R çç ÷÷ (2) R çç ÷÷ p2+1. The sum of (2p+1) terms of this series can
è 4 ø è 4 ø be expressed as

( p + 1) (2) ( 2p + 1)( p + 1)
2 2
æ 12 - 10 ö æ 12 + 10 ö (1)
(3) R çç ÷÷ (4) R çç ÷÷
3 3
è ø è ø ( p + 1) (4) p3 + ( p + 1)
3 3
(3)
42. In the figure shown, there are two circles with 46. When the natural numbers 1,2,3, .....500,501,502
centers at A &B with their radius 2cm & 1cm are written, then the digit 3 is used n times in this
respectively. Points A&B lie on the diameter JK of way. Then n is
a bigger circle. These two smaller circles touches
(1) 198 (2) 199
each other and the bigger circle as shown. Then
the radius of the circle which touches all the three (3) 200 (4) 201
circles is 47. If there are three numbers a, b, c such that LCM(a,
b, c) = 24, HCF(a, b)=6, HCF(b, c)=2, HCF(a, c)
=4 and HCF(a, b, c) =2, then the product of three
r=? numbers a, b, c is
(1) 248 (2) 576
(3) 678 (4) 512
J A B K 48. The points (a, b), (c, d) and
æ ma + nc mb + nd ö
r=1 ç , ÷ forms––––––
r=2 è m+n m+n ø
(1) Isosceles triangle (2) Equilateral triangle
1 (3) Right-angled triangle (4) Colinear points
(1) (2) 3 49. In the figure shown, O is the centre of the circle.
2
The perimeter of the shaded region( q is in degree)
6 5
(3) (4)
7 6 B
43. If it is known that the roots of the equation C
x + 3x - 4044118x - 12132362x
5 4 3 2

-12132363x - 20112 = 0
q
are all integers; then the number of distinct roots of r A
O
the equation is:
(1) 2 (2) 5
(3) 3 (4) 4 æ pq ö
44. If the equation (1) r ç tan q + sec q + + 1÷
è 180 ø
x 2 + 2 ( m - 2 ) x + ( m 2 - 3m + 3 ) = 0 ;
æ pq ö
1 > m ³ -1 has two distinct real roots a and b , (2) r ç tan q + sec q + - 1÷
è 180 ø
ma 2 mb 2
then the maximum value of + is æ pq ö
1- a 1- b (3) r ç tan q + sec q - + 1÷
è 180 ø
(1) 20 (2) 10
(3) 8 (4) 12 æ pq ö
(4) r ç tan q + sec q - - 1÷
è 180 ø

SAT Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation 7

 NTSE (STAGE-I) 16.01.2021
50. Eight unbiased coins are tossed simultaneously. The 55. If a sec q + b tan q = 1 and a 2 sec 2 q - b 2 tan 2 q = 5 ,
probability of getting atmost 6 heads is
then a 2 b2 + 4a 2 is
247 1
(1) (2) 9
256 6 (1) 9b
2
(2)
a2
5 249
(3) (4) 2
6 256 (3) - (4) 9
b
51. If h, s, v be the height, curved surface area and
volume of a right circular cone respectively, then 4
56. In the figure shown, tan q = and AB = 4, then the
( 3prh 3
+ 9v 2 - s 2 h 2 ) is equal to 3
value of AC is
(1) 0 (2) p
C
v 36
(3) (4)
sh h
52. The volume of a cube is numerically equal to the
sum of its edges. If two such cubes are joined side
by side, then the total surface area of the cuboid
thus formed(in square units) is q
B 4 A
(1) 120 (2) 72
(3) 66 (4) 112 16
(1) 5 (2)
53. In the figure shown, P is any point in the interior of 3
a square ABCD such that PA:PB:PC = 1:2:3. then
20
ÐAPB is (3) (4) 4 2
3
D C 57. In the figure shown, AB = BC = CD = DE =
EF=FG=GH, x=70º, then y is

P
G
E
A B x=70º
C
y
(1) 60º (2) 135º
(3) 120º (4) 90º A
B D F H
54. A square is inscribed inside a 3–4–5 triangle as
shown. The area of this square is (1) 5º (2) 10º
(3) 15º (4) 20º
58. The numbers 3, 4 and 6 denote the area of
5 DBFE, DDFC and DBFC respectively, the area of
4 quadrilateral ADFE is
A
3

3600 2500
(1) (2)
1369 1089 E F D
3600 2500 3 4
(3) (4) 6
1089 1369
B C
(1) 10 (2) 8
(3) 9.5 (4) 18
8 Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation SAT
TEST # 1
 NTSE (STAGE-I) 16.01.2021

x y z 66. Choose the incorrect statement in context to minto–

59. The solution of the equations = = ; Morley reformation Act, 1909
4 3 2
(1) The total number of central legislative council
7x + 8y + 5z = 62 is members was increased to 60 from 16
(1) {4,3,2} (2) {2,3,4} (2) The number of regional council members
decreased
(3) {3, 4,2} (4) {4, 2,3} (3) Representation of the regional council through
60. To construct a triangle similar to a given DABC with election was allowed for the first time
its sides 8/5 of the corresponding sides of DABC , (4) Separate electorate college for Muslims was
created
draw a ray BX such that ÐCBX is an acute angle
and X is on the opposite side of A with respect to 67. Who was the British Governor General during 4th
BC. The minimum number of points to be located Anglo–Mysore war?
at equal distances on ray BX is (1) Lord Cornwallis
(1) 5 (2) 8 (2) Lord warren Hastings
(3) 13 (4) 3 (3) Lord Wellesley
(4) Lord Dalhousie
68. Which of the following native states was the first
SOCIAL SCIENCE to introduce military training based on the European
model?
61. Assertion: The differences among the maratha (1) Punjab (2) Mysore
chieftains was the reason for 2nd Anglo–Maratha (3) Golconda (4) Kashmir
war.
69. When did Junagadh join Indian Federation?
Reason: The army of Holkar defeated the army
of Scindia and the Peshwa (1) 1914 (2) 1948
(3) 1949 (4) 1950
(1) A&R are true, R explains A
70. In which of the following session of Muslim league,
(2) A& R are true, R doesn’t explain A
“Two–nation Theory” was propounded?
(3) A is true, R is false
(1) Lahore Session. 1940
(4) A is false, R is true
(2) Bombay Session, 1915
62. Which treaty ended the first anglo maratha war?
(3) Delhi session, 1918
(1) The treaty of Paris (2) The treaty of madras
(4) Calcutta Session, 1917
(3) The treaty of salbai (4) The treaty of Bassein
71. Assertion: Entrepreneurs serve as the “Spark
63. Which was the first state of to enter subsidiary plug” in the economy’s engine activating and
alliance? stimulating all dynamic activities for the economic
(1) Gwalior (2) Maratha progress of a nation
(3) Hyderabad (4) Poona Reason: Entrepreneurs occupy a central position
64. Arrange the following events in chronological order. in market economy
(1) Lahore agreement (1) A&R are true, R explains A
(2) British broke the continous friendship pact and (2) A& R are true, R doesn’t explain A
war between the British and Punjab (3) A is true, R is false
(3) Subsidiary alliance was brought into effect (4) A is false, R is true
(4) Ranjit singh died 72. Which is the first Indian company to be listed on
(1) a, b, c, d (2) c, d, b, a NASDAQ?
(3) a, b, d, c (4) b, c, d, a (1) Reliance (2) Wipro
65. Who led the British army at Battle of Buxar in 1764? (3) Infosys (4) Amul
(1) Robet Clive (2) Hector Munro
(3) Dalhousie (4) Lord Wellesley
SAT Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation 9
 NTSE (STAGE-I) 16.01.2021
73. Which among the following developed India’s first 81. Where in India the first Biosphere reserve came
hospital group, “The Apollo Hospitals” into existence in 1986.
(1) Dr. Pratap Reddy (2) Naresh Goyal (1) B.R.Hills (2) Uttrakhand
(3) Kiran Mazumdar Shah (4) Azim Premji (3) Nilgiri Hills (4) Assam
74. Which day is celebrated as the world consumer’s 82. Which Forests are mainly found in the deltas of
day? rivers?
(1) 8 March (2) 10 March (1) Mountain Forests
(3) 13 March (4) 15 March (2) Scrub Forests & Grassland
75. In the case of compensation of 5 lakhs, the (3) The Tropical deciduous forests
complaint has to be submitted to the––––– (4) Mangrove forests
(1) District forum 83. Find out the incorrect characteristics of the tropical
(2) The state commission evergreen forests
(3) The national commission (1) They are found on the western slopes of
(4) Consumer forum western ghats and NE hills
76. What is the latitudinal extent of India? (2) Heavy rainfall exceeding 250cm per annum
(3) Trees shed their leaves at the same time
(1) 8°4' N to 37°6' N (2) 6°4' N to37°6' N
(4) Also known as “Monsoon Forests”
(3) 7°4' N to36°7 ' N (4) 8°4' N to39°6' N
(1) 1 only (2) 3 & 4
77. Match the following (3) All of these (4) None of these
(1) Mount Everest (a) 1772mts 84. Match the following
(2) Anaimudi (b) 2695mts (i) Dandeli (a) Assam
(3) Kanchanjunga (c) 8848mts (ii) Manas (b) Telangana
(4) Guru Shikhar (d) 8559 mts (iii) Annamulai & (c) Karnataka
(1) 1–c, 2–b, 3–d, 4–a (2) 1–c, 2–b, 3–a, 4–d Madumalai
(3) 1–b, 2–a, 3–d, 4–c (4) 1–d, 2–b, 3–c, 4–a (iv) Nagarjuna sagar (d) Tamil Nadu
78. Which is the oldest fold mountain lies to the North– (1) i–c, ii–a, iii–d, iv–b (2) i–a, ii–c, iii–d, iv–b
West?
(3) i–c, ii–d, iii–a, iv–b (4) i–c, ii–d, iii–b, iv–a
(1) The Aravalli range (2) The stapura range
85. Which city in Karnataka is known as Sugar city?
(3) The Vindhya range (4) Mahendragiri
(1) Bagalkot (2) Mangalore
79. Choose the incorrect statement in context to
(3) Hassan (4) Mandya
Peninsular Plateau
86. In which year the untouchability crimes act was
(a) Rich in minerals, thick forests and Bio–diversity
implemented?
(b) Covered with black soils
(1) 1955 (2) 1956
(c) Birth place of many south Indian rivers
(3) 1957 (4) 1958
(d) Known for hill stations like kulu
87. Match the following
(1) a & b (2) Only d
(i) Article 17, 46 (a) Scheduled reservation
(3) Only c (4) None of these
for SC&ST in politics
80. Who established Bahamani kingdom?
(ii) Article 29 (b) Declares education
(1) Alauddin Hasan Gangu Bahaman Shah facilities
(2) Firoz Bahaman shah (iii) Article 25 (c) Rights to all people to
(3) Adil Bahaman khan enter public temples
(4) Ibrahim Bahaman Khan (iv) Article 330, 332 (d) Prohibits any
discrimination
among the Indian
citizens
10 Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation SAT
TEST # 1
 NTSE (STAGE-I) 16.01.2021
(1) i–d, ii–b,iii–c, iv–a (2) i–d, ii–b,iii–a, iv–c 96. What does infant mortality indicate?
(3) i–b, ii–c,iii–a, iv–d (4) i–d, ii–c,iii–b, iv–a (1) Literate population at the age of 7
88. Statement I: The unorganised sector of work is (2) The number of children that die before the age
that sector where legal provisions do not completely of one as a proportion of 1000 live children
govern (3) The total number of children attending the school
Statement II: Most of the laborers in this sector (4) The number of children born in a year
earn daily wages 97. Choose the incorrect feature of the Panchayat Raj
(1) Statement I is true, Statement II false System
(2) Statement I is false, Statement II true (1) A three–tier structure of district taluk and
village panchayats
(3) Both are true
(2) Direct and periodic elections
(4) Both are false
(3) Reservation of seats only for women
89. Who is the leader of Narmada Bachao Andolan?
(4) Provision for executive support staff
(1) Sunderlal Bahuguna (2) Medha Patkar
98. The ratio of the deposits, which the banks have to
(3) Pandurang Hegde (4) Kusma Sorab
keep with themselves is called–––
90. When the child Marriage prevention act(amended)
(1) SLR (2) CRR
came into effect?
(3) Reporate (4) Reverse Reporate
(1) 2004 (2) 2005
99. What is the narrow money?
(3) 2006 (4) 2007
(1) M1= currency notes and coins + net demand
91. Choose the correct statement in context to Arms
deposits held in commercial bank
race
(2) M2 = M1 + savings deposits with post office
(i) After 1963, USA and USSR have entered into
savings banks
many bilateral agreements to stop the arms race
(3) M3 = M1 + net time deposits of commercial
(ii) Disarmament is the only direct process to bring
banks
down arms race
(4) M4 = M3 + Total deposits with post office
(iii) India advocates disarmament
saving banks
(iv) PTBT, CTBT, SALT are some agreement
(1) Only 1 (2) 1 & 2
entered by USA and China
(3) Only 3 (4) 3 & 4
(1) i, ii, iii (2) iii, iv
100. The excess of governments expenditure over its
(3) Only iv (4) None of these
revenue receipts and non–dept capital receipts is
92. Where is the headquarters of SAARC? known as–––
(1) Kathamandu (2) Manila (1) Fiscal Deficit (2) Revenue Deficit
(3) Dhaka (4) Jakarta (3) Primary Deficit (4) Budget Deficit
93. Which of the followings are called Bretton woods
Twins?
(1) IMF & IBRD (2) IMF & WTO
(3) IBRD & WTO (4) None of the above
94. Which article of Indian constitution directs to adopt
foreign policy?
(1) Article 50 (2) Article 51
(3) Article 52 (4) Article 53
95. Which is not related to our foreign policy?
(1) World cooperation (2) World peace
(3) Racial equality (4) Colonialism

SAT Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation 11

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK