1
NEET - 2019 Paper
Held on May 5, 2019
Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 720
PHYSICS
1. +6V
0 R
A 0 LED (Y)
R 4. In a double slit experiment, when
0
B 1
The correct Boolean operation
represented by the circuit
diagram drawn is :
(1) AND (2) OR
(3) NAND (4) NOR
2. A hollow metal sphere of radius
R is uniformly charged. The
electric field due to the sphere at
a distance r from the centre :
(1) increases as r increases for r
< R and for r > R
(2) zero as r increases for r < R,
decreases as r increases for
r>R
(3) zero as r increases for r < R,
increases as r increases for
r>R
(4) decreases as r increases for
r < R and for r > R
3. At a point A on the earth’s surface
the angle of dip, d = +25°. At a
point B on the earth’s surface the
angle of dip, d = –25°. We can
interpret that:
(1) A and B are both located in
the northern hemisphere.
(2) A is located in the southern
hemisphere and B is located
in the northern hemisphere.
(3) A is located in the northern
hemisphere and B is located
in the southern hemisphere.
(4) A and B are both located in
the southern hemisphere.
light of wavelength 400 nm was
used, the angular width of the
first minima formed on a screen
placed 1 m away, was found to
be 0.2°. What will be the angular
width of the first minima, if the
entire experimental apparatus is
immersed in water? (mwater = 4/3)
(1) 0.266° (2) 0.15°
(3) 0.05° (4) 0.1°
5. Six similar bulbs are connected
as shown in the figure with a
DC source of emf E, and zero
internal resistance.
The ratio of power consumption
by the bulbs when (i) all are
glowing and (ii) in the situation
when two from section A and one
from section B are glowing, will
be:
A B
E
(1) 4 : 9 (2) 9 : 4
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 1
 2
6. In which of the following 10 W i1 10 W i1
processes, heat is neither
10 W
absorbed nor released by V1 a A1 V2 A2
system ?
(1) isothermal (2) adiabatic
(3) isobaric (4) isochoric10 V 10 V
7. A cylindrical conductor of radius
Circuit 1 Circuit 2
R is carrying a constant current. (1) V2 > V1 and i1 = i2
The plot of the magnitude of
(2) V1 = V2 and i1 > i2
the magnetic field, B with the
(3) V1 = V2 and i1 = i2
distance, d, from the centre
(4) V2 > V1 and i1 > i2
of the conductor, is correctly
9. Which colour of the light has the
represented by the figure :
longest wavelength ?
B (1) red (2) blue
(1) (3) green (4) violet
10. Increase in temperature of a gas
filled in a container would lead to:
R d (1) increase in its mass
(2) increase in its kinetic energy
B (3) decrease in its pressure
(4) decrease in intermolecular
(2) distance
11. The radius of circle, the period
of revolution, initial position and
R d
sense of revolution are indicated
B in the fig.
y
(3) P(t = 0)

T=4s
R d
B x
3m
(4)

R d
y - projection of the radius vector
of rotating particle P is :
8. In the circuits shown below, the (1) y (t) = –3 cos2pt, where
readings of the voltmeters and y in m
the ammeters will be :
10 W i1 W
(2)
10 i1 = 4 sin Ê pt ˆ , where
y(t) ÁË ˜¯
y in m 2
10 W
V1 A1 V2 A Ê 3pt ˆ
(3) y(t) 2= 3 cos Á , where
y in m Ë 2 ˜¯
Ê pt ˆ
10 V (4)
10 V y(t) = 3 cos Á ˜ , where
Circuit 1 Circuit 2 y in m
Ë 2¯

12. Average velocity of a particle
executing SHM in one complete
vibration is:
Aw
(1) (2) Aw
2
Aw 2
(3) (4) zero
2 17. In an experiment, the percen-
13. A solid cylinder of mass 2 kg
and radius 4 cm is rotating about
its axis at the rate of 3 rpm. The
torque required to stop after 2p
revolutions is :
(1) 2 ¥ 10–6 N m
(2) 2 ¥ l0–3 N m
(3) 12 ¥ l0–4 N m
(4) 2 ¥ 106 N m
14. A block of mass 10 kg is in
contact against the inner wall
of a hollow cylindrical drum of
radius 1 m. The coefficient of
friction between the block and
the inner wall of the cylinder
is 0.1. The minimum angular
velocity needed for the cylinder
to keep the block stationary
when the cylinder is vertical and
rotating about its axis, will be :
(g = 10 m/s2)
10
(1) 10 rad/s (2) rad/s
2p
(3) 10 rad/s (4) 10 p rad/s
15. The speed of a swimmer in
still water is 20 m/s. The speed
of river water is 10 m/s and is
flowing due east. If he is standing
on the south bank and wishes to
cross the river along the shortest
path, the angle at which he should
make his strokes w.r.t. north is
given by :
(1) 30°west (2) 0°
(3) 60° west (4) 45° west
16. A 800 turn coil of effective area
0.05 m2 is kept perpendicular to a
magnetic field 5 ¥ 10–5 T. When
3
the plane of the coil is rotated by
90° around any of its coplanar
axis in 0.1 s, the emf induced in
the coil will be :
(1) 2 V (2) 0.2 V
(3) 2 ¥ l0–3 V (4) 0.02 V
tage of error occurred in the
measurement of physical
quantities A, B, C an D are 1%,
2%, 3% and 4% respectively.
Then the maximum percentage of
error in the measurement X, where
A 2 B1/ 2
X = 1/ 3 3 will be :
C D
Ê 3ˆ
(1) ÁË ˜¯ % (2) 16%
13
(3) –10% (4) 10%
18. The displacement of a particle
executing simple harmonic
motion is given by y = A0 + A
sinwt + B coswt.
Then the amplitude of its
oscillation is given by :
(1) A 0 + A 2 + B2
(2) A 2 + B2
(3) A 02 + (A + B) 2
(4) A+B
19. An electron is accelerated
through a potential difference
of 10,000 V. Its de Broglie
wavelength is, (nearly):
(me = 9 ¥ 10–31 kg)
(1) 12.2 ¥ 10–13 m
(2) 12.2 ¥ 10–12 m
(3) 12.2 ¥ 10–14 m
(4) 12.2 nm
20. A mass m is attached to a thin
wire and whirled in a vertical
circle. The wire is most likely to
break when:

(1) the mass is at the highest
point
(2) the wire is horizontal
(3) the mass is at the lowest
point
(4) inclined at an angle of 60°
from vertical
21. Two particles A and B are moving
in uniform circular motion in
concentric circles of radii rA
and rB with speed uA and uB
respectively. Their time period of
rotation is the same. The ratio of
angular speed of A to that of B
will be :
(1) rA : rB (2) uA : uB
(3) rB : rA (4) 1 : 1
22. A copper rod of 88 cm and an
aluminium rod of unknown
length have their increase in
length independent of increase
in temperature. The length of
aluminium rod is :
(aCu = 1.7 ¥ 10–5 K–1 and aA1
= 2.2 ¥ l0–5K–1)
(1) 6.8 cm (2) 113.9 cm
(3) 88 cm (4) 68 cm
23. Ionized hydrogen atoms and
a-particles with same momenta
enters perpendicular to a constant
magnetic field, B. The ratio of
their radii of their paths rH : ra
will be :
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
24. When a block of mass M is
suspended by a long wire of
length L, the length of the wire
becomes (L + l). The elastic
potential energy stored in the
extended wire is :
(1) Mgl (2) MgL
1 1
(3) Mgl (4) MgL
2 2
25. For a p-type semiconductor,
which of the following statements
is true ?
4
(1) Electrons are the majority
carriers and trivalent atoms
are the dopants.
(2) Holes are the majority
carriers and trivalent atoms
are the dopants.
(3) Holes are the majority
carriers and pentavalent
atoms are the dopants.
(4) Electrons are the majority
carriers and pentavalent
atoms are the dopants.
26. The work done to raise a mass m
from the surface of the earth to
a height h, which is equal to the
radius of the earth, is :
(1) mgR (2) 2 mgR
1 3
(3) mgR (4) mgR
2 2
27. In total internal reflection when
the angle of incidence is equal
to the critical angle for the pair
of media in contact, what will be
angle of refraction ?
(1) 180°
(2) 0°
(3) equal to angle of incidence
(4) 90°
28. Two point charges A and B,
having charges +Q and –Q
respectively, are placed at certain
distance apart and force acting
between them is F. If 25% charge
of A is transferred to B, then force
between the charges becomes :
9F
(1) F (2)
16
16F 4F
(3) (4)
9 3
29. a-particle consists of:
(1) 2 protons and 2 neutrons
only
(2) 2 electrons, 2 protons and 2
neutrons
(3) 2 electrons and 4 protons
only
(4) 2 protons only

30. Body A of mass 4m moving with
speed u collides with another
body B of mass 2m, at rest. The
collision is head on and elastic
in nature. After the collision the
fraction of energy lost by the
colliding body A is :
1 8 4 5
(1) (2) (3) (4) 36. When an object is shot from the
9 9 9 9
31. A body weighs 200 N on the
surface of the earth. How much
will it weigh half way down to
the centre of the earth ?
(1) 150 N (2) 200 N
(3) 250 N (4) 100 N
32. Pick the wrong answer in the
context with rainbow.
(1) When the light rays undergo
two internal reflections in
a water drop, a secondary
rainbow is formed.
(2) The order of colours is
reversed in the secondary
rainbow.
(3) An observer can see a
rainbow when his front is
towards the sun.
(4) Rainbow is a combined effect
of dispersion, refraction and
reflection of sunlight.
33. A force F = 20 + 10y acts on a
particle in y-direction where F is
in newton and y in meter. Work
done by this force to move the
particle from y = 0 to y = 1 m is :
(1) 30 J (2) 5 J
(3) 25 J (4) 20 J
34. A disc of radius 2 m and mass
100 kg rolls on a horizontal floor.
Its centre of mass has speed of 20
cm/s. How much work is needed
to stop it ?
(1) 3 J (2) 30 kJ
(3) 2 J (4) 1J
35. A small hole of area of cross-
section 2 mm2 is present near
the bottom of a fully filled open
5
tank of height 2 m. Taking
g = 10 m/s2, the rate of flow
of water through the open hole
would be nearly:
(1) 12.6 ¥ 10–6 m3/s
(2) 8.9 ¥ 10–6m3/s
(3) 2.23 ¥ 10–6 m3/s
(4) 6.4 ¥ 10–6 m3/s
bottom of a long smooth inclined
plane kept at an angle 60° with
horizontal, it can travel a distance
x1 along the plane. But when the
inclination is decreased to 30°
and the same object is shot with
the same velocity, it can travel x2
distance. Then x1 : x2 will be :
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 :1
(3) 1 : 3 (4) 1 : 2 3
37. A parallel plate capacitor of
capacitance 20 mF is being
charged by a voltage source
whose potential is changing at
the rate of 3 V/s. The conduction
current through the connecting
wires, and the displacement
current through the plates of the
capacitor, would be, respectively:
(1) zero, 60 mA
(2) 60 mA, 60 mA
(3) 60 mA, zero
(4) zero, zero
38. The unit of thermal conductivity
is :
(1) J m K–l (2) J m–1 K–1
(3) W m K –1
(4) W m–l K–1
39. Which of the following acts as a
circuit protection device ?
(1) conductor (2) inductor
(3) switch (4) fuse
40. A soap bubble, having radius of
1 mm, is blown from a detergent
solution having a surface tension
of 2.5 ¥ 10–2 N/m. The pressure
inside the bubble equals at a
point Z0 below the free surface
of water in a container. Taking

g = 10 m/s2, density of water =
103 kg/m3, the value of Z0 is :
(1) 100 cm (2) 10 cm
(3) 1 cm (4) 0.5 cm
41. The total energy of an electron
in an atom in an orbit is –3.4 eV.
Its kinetic and potential energies
are, respectively:
(1) –3.4 eV, –3.4 eV
(2) –3.4 eV, –6.8 eV
(3) 3.4 eV, –6.8 eV
(4) 3.4 eV, 3.4 eV
42. Two similar thin equi-convex
lenses, of focal length f each, are
kept coaxially in contact with
each other such that the focal
length of the combination is F1.
When the space between the
two lenses is filled with glycerin
(which has the same refractive
index (m = 1.5) as that of glass)
then the equivalent focal length
is F2. The ratio F1 : F2 will be :
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 3 (4) 3 : 4
43. Two parallel infinite line charges
with linear charge densities
+ l C/m and –l C/m are placed
at a distance of 2R in free space.
What is the electric field mid-way
between the two line charges?
(1) zero
2l
(2) N/C
p Œ0 R
l 48. Which of the following is an
(3)
p Œ0 R
N/C
l (1) Sr(OH)2
(4) N/C
2pe 0 R
44. In which of the following
devices, the eddy current effect
is not used ?
(1) induction furnace
(2) magnetic braking in train
(3) electromagnet
(4) electric heater
6
45. A particle moving with velocity
V is acted by three forces shown
by the vector triangle PQR. The
velocity of the particle will :
P
R Q
(1) increase
(2) decrease
(3) remain constant
(4) change according to the
smallest force QR
CHEMISTRY
46. For the second period elements
the correct increasing order of
first ionisation enthalpy is :
(1) Li < Be < B < C < N < O < F
< Ne
(2) Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F
< Ne
(3) Li < B < Be < C < N < O < F
< Ne
(4) Li < Be < B < C < O < N < F
< Ne
47. The method used to remove
temporary hardness of water is:
(1) Calgon’s method
(2) Clark’s method
(3) Ion-exchange method
(4) Synthetic resins method
amphoteric hydroxide ?
(2) Ca(OH)2
(3) Mg(OH)2
(4) Be(OH)2
49. Among the following, the narrow
spectrum antibiotic is:
(1) penicillin G
(2) ampicillin
(3) amoxycillin
(4) chloramphenicol

50. Which mixture of the solutions
will lead to the formation of
negatively charged colloidal
[AgI]I– sol. ?
(1) 50 mL of 1 M AgNO3
+ 50 mL of 1.5 M KI
(2) 50 mL of 1 M AgNO3
+ 50 mL of 2 M KI
(3) 50 mL of 2 M AgNO3
+ 50 mL of 1.5 M KI
(4) 50 mL of 0.1 M AgNO3
+ 50 mL of 0.l M KI
51. Conjugate base for Brönsted
acids H2O and HF are :
(1) OH– and H2F+, respectively
(2) H3O+ and F–, respectively
(3) OH– and F–, respectively
(4) H3O+ and H2F+, respectively
52. The number of sigma (s) and pi
(p) bonds in pent-2-en-4-yne is:
(1) 10 s bonds and 3 p bonds
(2) 8 s bonds and 5 p bonds
(3) 11 s bonds and 2 p bonds
(4) 13 s bonds and no p bond
53. The correct structure of
tribromooctaoxide is:
O (2) methane
O O
=
7
(1) 0.5 ¥ 10–15
(2) 0.25 ¥ 10–10
(3) 0.125 ¥ 10–15
(4) 0.5 ¥ 10–10
55. The correct order of the basic
strength of methyl substituted
amines in aqueous solution is :
(1) (CH3)2NH>CH3NH2 > (CH3)3N
(2) (CH3)3N>CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH
(3) (CH3)3N> (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2
(4) CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH>(CH3)3N
56. For a cell involving one electron
E cell = 0.59 V at 298 K, the
equilibrium constant for the cell
reaction is :
 2.303RT
Given that = 0.059 V
 F

at T = 298 K

(1) 1.0 ¥ 102 (2) 1.0 ¥ l05
(3) 1.0 ¥ l010 (4) 1.0 × l030
57. Among the following, the one
that is not a green house gas is:
(1) nitrous oxide

(3) ozone
= =

= =

(1) O = Br – Br – Br = O
(4) sulphur dioxide
=

O O
O 58. The mixture that forms maximum
O boiling azeotrope is:
O O
=

(1) Water + Nitric acid

= =

= =

–
(2) O = Br – Br – Br = O
– (2) Ethanol + Water
O O– O (3) Acetone + Carbon disulphide
O (4) Heptane + Octane
O O–
59. Which one is malachite from the
=
=

(3) O = Br – Br – Br = O
–
following ?
(1) CuFeS2
=

–
O O O–
(2) Cu(OH)2
O– (3) Fe3O4
O O
(4) CuCO3.Cu(OH)2
= =

= =

(4) O = Br – Br – Br = O–
60. Match the following:
O O– O (a) Pure (i) Chlorine
54. pH of a saturated solution of nitrogen
Ca(OH)2 is 9. The solubility (b) Haber (ii) Sulphuric
product (Ksp) of Ca(OH)2 is: process acid
 8
(c) Contact (iii) Ammonia O
proces
(d) Deacon’s (iv) Sodium
process azide or (2) NH
Barium azide
Which of the following is the
correct option ? O
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) COOH
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (3)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
61. Which is the correct thermal NH2
stability order for H2E (E = O, S,
Se, Te and Po) ? NH2
(1) H2S < H2O < H2Se < H2Te <
H2Po (4)
(2) H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te <
H2PO NH2
(3) H2Po < H2Te < H2Se < H2S < 64. The compound that is most
H2O difficult to protonate is :
(4) H2Se < H2Te < H2Po < H2O <
H2S O
62. Identify the incorrect statement (1) H H
related to PCI5 from the O
following: (2) H3C H
(1) Three equatorial P – Cl O
bonds make an angle of 120° (3) H3C CH3
with each other O
(2) Two axial P – Cl bonds make (4) Ph H
an angle of 180∞ with each
65. The manganate and permanganate
other
(3) Axial P – Cl bonds are longer ions are tetrahedral, due to:
than equatorial P – Cl bonds (1) The p-bonding involves
(4) PC15 molecule is non- overlap of p-orbitals of
reactive oxygen with d-orbitals of
63. The major product of the manganese
following reaction is : (2) There is no p-bonding
COOH
strong heating (3) The p-bonding involves
+ NH3 
overlap of p-orbital of
oxygen with p-orbitals of
COOH
COOH manganese
(4) The p-bonding involves
(1) overlap of d-orbital of
oxygen with d-orbitals of
CONH2
manganese
 H3C – C – O – O – H

(2)

9
66. The most suitable reagent for the CH3
following conversion, is:
H3C – C º C – CH3 O – O – CH


CH3
(3)

H3C CH3
CH3 – O – O – H

H H HC
CH3
cis -2-butene
(4)
(1) Na/liquid NH3
(2) H2, Pd/C, quinoline
68. If the rate constant for a first
(3) Zn/HCl
order reaction is k, the time (t)
(4) Hg2+/H+, H2O required for the completion of
99% of the reaction is given by :
67. The structure of intermediate A (1) t = 0.693/k
in the following reaction, is: (2) t = 6.909/k
CH3 (3) t = 4.606/k
CH (4) t = 2.303/k
CH3 69. Which of the following reactions
O +
are disproportionation reaction?
2
 H
A  (a) 2Cu+ Æ Cu2+ + Cu0
Ho 2
(b) 3MnO42– + H+ Æ 2MnO–4
+ MnO2 + 2H2O
CH3 CH3
∆
CH CH OH OH
(c) 2KMnO–4  → K2MnO4
CH3 CH3 O O + MnO2 + O2
O2 +
O2 + (d) 2MnO–4 + 3Mn2+ + 2H2O Æ
AH A H+ H3C CH+3 H3C CH35MnO2 + 4H≈
H2O H2O
Select the correct option from
the following:
CH3 CH3
(1) (a) and (b) only
O CH O CH (2) (a), (b) and (c)
CH3 CH3
(3) (a), (c) and (d)
(1) (1) (4) (a) and (d) only
70. In which case change in entropy
is negative ?
CH3
CH3 (1) Evaporation of water
H3C – C – O – O – H (2) Expansion of a gas at
H3C – C – O – O – H constant temperature
(2) (3) Sublimation of solid to gas
(2) (4) 2H(g) Æ H2(g)

CH3
O – O – CH

71. The biodegradable polymer is:
(1) nylon-6, 6
(2) nylon 2-nylon 6
(3) nylon-6
(4) Buna-S
72. A gas at 350 K and 15 bar has
molar volume 20 percent smaller
than that for an ideal gas under
the same conditions. The correct
option about the gas and its
compressibility factor (Z) is:
(1) Z > 1 and attractive forces
are dominant
(2) Z > 1 and repulsive forces
are dominant
(3) Z < 1 and attractive forces
are dominant
(4) Z < 1 and repulsive forces
are dominant
73. A compound is formed by cation
C and anion A. The anions form
hexagonal close packed (hcp)
lattice and the cations occupy
75% of octahedral voids. The
formula of the compound is:
(1) C2A3 (2) C3A2
(3) C3A4 (4) C4A3
74. Enzymes that utilize ATP in
phosphate transfer require an
alkaline earth metal (M) as the
cofactor. M is:
(1) Be (2) Mg
(3) Ca (4) Sr
75. 4d, 5p, 5f and 6p orbitals
are arranged in the order of
decreasing energy. The correct
option is:
(1) 5f > 6p > 5p > 4d
(2) 6p > 5f > 5p > 4d
(3) 6p > 5f > 4d > 5p
(4) 5f > 6p > 4d > 5p
76. For the cell reaction
2Fe3+(aq) + 2I – (aq) Æ 2Fe2+ (aq)
+ I2(aq)
E°cells 0.24 V at 298 K. The
standard Gibbs energy (D, G°) of
the cell reaction is:
[Given that Faraday constant F =
96500 C mol–1]
10
(1) –46.32 kJ mol–1
(2) –23.16 kJ mol–1
(3) 46.32 kJ mol–1
(4) 23.16 kJ mol–1
77. For an ideal solution, the correct
option is:
(1) Dmix S = 0 at constant T and P
(2) Dmix V π 0 at constant T and P
(3) Dmix H = 0 at constant T and P
(4) Dmix G = 0 at constant T and P
78. The non-essential amino acid
among the following is:
(1) valine (2) leucine
(3) alanine (4) lysine
79. What is the correct electronic
configuration of the central atom
in K4[Fe(CN)6] based on crystal
field theory ?
(1) t 42g eg2 (2) t 62g e0g
(3) e3 t 32 (4) e 4 t 22
80. Which of the following is
incorrect statement?
(1) PbF4 is covalent in nature
(2) SiCl4 is easily hydrolysed
(3) GeX4 (X = F, Cl, Br, I) is
more stable than GeX2
(4) SnF4 is ionic in nature
81. Match the Xenon compounds
in Column-I with its structure
in Column-II and assign the
correct code:
Column-I Column-II
(a) XeF4 (i) pyramidal
(b) XeF6 (ii) square planar
(c) XeOF4 (iii) distorted
octahedral
(d) XeO3 (iv) square
pyramidal
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
82. An alkene “A” on reaction with
O3 and Zn – H2O gives propanone
and ethanal in equimolar ratio.
 11
Addition of HCl to alkene “A” + Cu2Cl2
gives “B” as the major product. (1) N2 Cl–  Cl +
The structure of product “B” is: + Cu Cl
2 2
CH3 N2Cl–  Cl + N2

–
(1) Cl – CH2 – CH2 – CH AlCl
(2) 3
+ Cl2  Cl + H

–
CH3
AlCl
3
CH2Cl + Cl2  Cl + HCl
Cl Cl
–
(2) H3C – CH2 – CH – CH3
UV light
(3) + Cl2  Cl C
CH3 Cl Cl
–

(3) H3C – CH2 – C – CH3 Cl Cl

UV light
–

+ Cl2  Cl Cl
Cl
CH3 Cl Cl
–

Heat
(4) H3C – CH – CH CH2OH + HCl 
(4)
–

Cl CH3
CH2Cl + H2O
83. For the chemical reaction
N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g) 86. Which of the following diatomic
the gas is correct option is: molecular species has only p
bonds according to Molecular
1 d [H 2 ] 1 d [ NH3 ]
(1) - =- Orbital Theory ?
3 dt 2 dt (1) O2 (2) N2
d [N2 ] d [ NH3 ] (3) C2 (4) Be2
(2) - =2
87. Which of the following species is
dt dt
not stable ?
d [ N 2 ] 1 d [ NH3 ]
(3) - = (1) [SiF6]2– (2) [GeCl6]2–
dt 2 dt (3) [Sn(OH)6] (4) [SiCl6]2–
2–

d [H 2 ] d [ NH3 ] 88. Which will make basic buffer ?

(4) 3 =2
dt dt
84. Under isothermal condition,
a gas at 300 K expands front
0.1 L to 0.25 L against a constant
external pressure of 2 bar. The
work done by the gas is [Given
that 1 L bar = 100 J]
(1) –30 J (2) 5 kJ
(3) 25 J (4) 30 J
85. Among the following, the
reaction that proceeds through an
electrophilic substitution, is:
(1) 50 mL of 0.1 M NaOH + 25
mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH
(2) 100 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH
+ 100 mL of 0.l M NaOH
(3) 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl + 200
mL of 0.1 M NH4OH
(4) 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl + 100
mL of 0.1 M NaOH
89. Which of the following series
of transitions in the spectrum of
hydrogen atom falls in visible
region ?

(1) Lyman series
(2) Balmer series
(3) Paschen series
(4) Brackett series
90. The number of moles of
hydrogen molecule required to
produce 20 moles of ammonia
through Haber’ s process is:
(1) 10 (2) 20
(3) 30 (4) 40
BIOLOGY
91. Conversion of glucose to glucose-
6-phosphate, the first irreversible
reaction of glycolysis, is catalysed
by:
(1) Aldolase
(2) Hexokinase
(3) Enolase
(4) Phosphofructokinase
92. What is the site of perception
of photoperiod necessary for
induction of flowering in plants ?
(1) Lateral buds (2) Pulvinus
(3) Shoot apex (4) Leaves
93. Which of the following is true
for Golden rice?
(1) It is vitamin A enriched, with
a gene from daffodil.
(2) It is pest resistant, with a gene
from Bacillus thuringiensis.
(3) It is drought tolerant,
developed using Agrobac-
terium vector.
(4) It has yellow grains, because
of a gene introduced from a
primitive variety of rice.
94. Identify the correct pair rep-
resenting the causative agent
of typhoid fever and the confir-
matory test for typhoid.
(1) Plasmodium vivax / UTI test
(2) Streptococcus pneumoniae /
Widal test
12
(3) Salmonella typhi / Anthrone
test
(4) Salmonella typhi / Widal test
95. Colostrum, the yellowish fluid,
secreted by mother during the
initial days of lactation is very
essential to impart immunity to
the newborn infants because it
contains:
(1) Natural killer cells
(2) Monocytes
(3) Macrophages
(4) Immunoglobulin A
96. It takes very long time for
pineapple plants to produce
flowers. Which combination
of hormones can be applied to
artificially induce flowering in
pineapple plants throughout the
year to increase yield?
(1) Auxin and Ethylene
(2) Gibberellin and Cytokinin
(3) Gibberellin and Abscisic
acid
(4) Cytokinin and Abscisic acid
97. DNA precipitation out of a
mixture of biomolecules can be
achieved by treatment with:
(1) Isopropanol
(2) Chilled ethanol
(3) Methanol at room
temperature
(4) Chilled chloroform
98. What triggers activation of
protoxin to active Bt toxin of
Bacillus thuringiensis in boll
worm?
(1) Body temperature
(2) Moist surface of midgut
(3) Alkaline pH of gut
(4) Acidic pH of stomach
99. The frequency of recombination
between gene pairs on the same
chromosome as a measure of
the distance between genes was
explained by:
(1) T.H. Morgan
 13
(2) Gregor J. Mendel (b) Glisson’s (ii) Duodenum
(3) Alfred Sturtevant capsule
(4) Sutton Boveri (c) Islets of (iii) Small intestine
100. Which of the following is the Langerhans
most important cause for animals (d) Brunner’s (iv) Liver
and plants being driven to glands
extinction? Select the correct option from
(1) Habitat loss and the following:
fragmentation (a) (b) (c) (d)
(2) Drought and floods (1) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(3) Economic exploitation (2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(4) Alien species invasion (3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
101. Identify the cells whose secretion (4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
protects the lining of gastro- 104. Cells in G0 phase :
intestinal tract from various (1) exit the cell cycle
enzymes. (2) enter the cell cycle
(1) Chief cells (3) suspend the cell cycle
(2) Goblet cells (4) terminate the cell cycle
(3) Oxyntic cells 105. The Earth Summit held in Rio de
(4) Duodenal cells Janeiro in 1992 was called:
102. Match the Column-I with (1) to reduce CO2 emissions and
Column-II. global warming.
Column-I Column-II (2) for conservation of
(a) P-wave (i) Depolari- biodiversity and sustainable
sation of utilisation of its benefits.
ventricles (3) to assess threat posed to
(b) QRS (ii) Repolari- native species by invasive
complex sation weed species.
of ventricles (4) for immediate steps to
(c) T - wave (iii) Coronary discontinue use of CFCs that
ischemia were damaging the ozone
(d) Reduction in (iv) Depolarisation layer.
the size of of atria 106. Which of the following
T-wave glucose transporters is insulin-
(v) Repolarisation dependent?
of atria (1) GLUT I (2) GLUT II
Select the correct option. (3) GLUT III (4) GLUT IV
(a) (b) (c) (d) 107. Which of the statements given
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) below is not true about formation
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (v) of annual rings in trees?
(3) (ii) (i) (v) (iii) (1) Annual ring is a combination
(4) (ii) (iii) (v) (iv) of spring wood and autumn
103. Match the following structures wood produced in a year.
with their respective location in (2) Differential activity of
organs: cambium causes light and
(a) Crypts of (i) Pancreas dark bands of tissue - early
Lieberkuhn and late wood respectively.

(3) Activity of cambium
depends upon variation in
climate.
(4) Annual rings are not pro-
minent in trees of temperate
region.
108. Match the following hormones
with the respective disease:
(a) Insulin (i) Addison’s
disease
(b) Thyroxine (ii) Diabetes
insipidus
(c) Corticoids (iii) Acromegaly
(d) Growth (iv) Goitre
hormone (v) Diabetes
mellitus
Select the correct option.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (v) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(3) (v) (iv) (i) (iii)
(4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
109. In some plants, the female gamete
develops into embryo without
fertilisation. This phenomenon is
known as :
(1) Autogamy
(2) Parthenocarpy
(3) Syngamy
(4) Parthenogenesis
110. Which of the following ecolo-
gical pyramids is generally
inverted?
(1) Pyramid of numbers in
grassland
(2) Pyramid of energy
(3) Pyramid of biomass in a
forest
(4) Pyramid of biomass in a sea
111. Extrusion of second polar body
from egg nucleus occurs:
(1) after entry of sperm but
before fertilisation
(2) after fertilisation
(3) before entry of sperm into
ovum
(4) simultaneously with first
cleavage
14
112. Pinus seed cannot germinate
and establish without fungal
association. This is because:
(1) its embryo is immature.
(2) it has obligate association
with mycorrhizae.
(3) it has very hard seed coat.
(4) its seeds contain inhibitors
that prevent germination.
113. Which of the following factors is
responsible for the formation of
concentrated urine ?
(1) Low levels of antidiuretic
hormone.
(2) Maintaining hyperosmolarity
towards inner medullary
interstitium in the kidneys.
(3) Secretion of erythropoietin by
juxtaglomerular complex.
(4) Hydrostatic pressure during
glomerular filtration.
114. In Antirrhinum (Snapdragon),
a red flower was crossed with a
white flower and in F1 generation,
pink flowers were obtained.
When pink flowers were selfed,
the F2 generation showed white,
red and pink flowers. Choose
the incorrect statement from the
following:
(1) This experiment does not
follow the principle of
dominance.
(2) Pink colour in F1 is due to
incomplete dominance.
1
(3) Ratio of F2 is (Red):
4
2 1
(Pink): (White)
4 4
(4) Law of Segregation does not
apply in this experiment.
115. Which part of the brain is
responsible for thermoregulation?
(1) Cerebrum
(2) Hypothalamus
(3) Corpus callosum
(4) Medulla oblongata

116. Which of the following sexually
transmitted diseases is not
completely curable?
(1) Gonorrhoea
(2) Genital warts
(3) Genital herpes
(4) Chlamydiasis
117. Respiratory Quotient (RQ) value
of tripalmitin is:
(1) 0.9 (2) 0.7
(3) 0.07 (4) 0.09
118. Select the correct group of
biocontrol agents.
(1) Bacillus thuringiensis,
Tobacco mosaic virus,
Aphids
(2) Trichoderma, Baculovirus,
Bacillus thuringiensis
(3) Oscillatoria, Rhizobium,
Trichoderma
(4) Nostoc, Azospirillium,
Nucleopolyhedrovirus
119. Which one of the following
statements regarding post-
fertilisation development in
flowering plants is incorrect?
(1) Ovary develops into fruit.
(2) Zygote develops into
embryo.
(3) Central cell develops into
endosperm.
(4) Ovules develop into embryo
sac.
120. Concanavalin A is:
(1) an alkaloid
(2) an essential oil
(3) a lectin
(4) a pigment
121. Match the following organisms
with the products they produce:
(a) Lactobacillus (i) Cheese
(b) Saccharomyces (ii) Curd recessive genes that reduce
cerevisiae
(c) Aspergillus (iii) Citric acid
niger
(d) Acetobacter (iv) Bread
aceti
(v) Acetic acid
15
Select the correct option.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iv) (v) (iii)
(2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (v)
(3) (iii) (iv) (v) (i)
(4) (ii) (i) (iii) (v)
122. Consider the following
statements:
(A) Coenzyme or metal ion that
is tightly bound to enzyme
protein is called prosthetic
group.
(B) A complete catalytic active
enzyme with its bound
prosthetic group is called
apoenzyme.
Select the correct option.
(1) Both (A) and (B) are true.
(2) (A) is true but (B) is false.
(3) Both (A) and (B) are false.
(4) (A) is false but (B) is true.
123. The correct sequence of phases
of cell cycle is:
(1) M → G1 → G2 → S
(2) G1 → G2 → S → M
(3) S → G1 → G2 → M
(4) G1 → S → G2 → M
124. Thiobacillus is a group of
bacteria helpful in carrying out:
(1) Nitrogen fixation
(2) Chemoautotrophic fixation
(3) Nitrification
(4) Denitrification
125. Select the incorrect statement.
(1) Inbreeding increases
homozygosity.
(2) Inbreeding is essential to
evolve purelines in any
animal.
(3) Inbreeding selects harmful
fertility and productivity.
(4) Inbreeding helps in
accumulation of superior
genes and elimination of
undesirable genes.

126. What map unit (Centimorgan)
is adopted in the construction of
genetic maps?
(1) A unit of distance between
two expressed genes,
representing 10% cross over.
(2) A unit of distance between
two expressed genes,
representing 100% cross
over.
(3) A unit of distance between
genes on chromosomes,
representing 1% cross over.
(4) A unit of distance between
genes on chromosomes,
representing 50% cross over
127. Which one of the following is not
a method of in situ conservation
of biodiversity?
(1) Biosphere Reserve
(2) Wildlife Sanctuary
(3) Botanical Garden
(4) Sacred Grove
128. Placentation, in which ovules
develop on the inner wall of the
ovary or in peripheral part, is:
(1) Basal
(2) Axile
(3) Parietal
(4) Free central
129. Due to increasing air-borne
allergens and pollutants,
many people in urban areas
are suffering from respiratory
disorder causing wheezing due
to:
(1) benign growth on mucous
lining of nasal cavity.
(2) inflammation of bronchi and
bronchioles.
(3) proliferation of fibrous
tissues and damage of the
alveolar walls.
(4) reduction in the secretion of
surfactants by pneumocytes.
130. Which of the following
statements is correct?
16
(1) Cornea is an external,
transparent and protective
proteinacious covering of
the eye-ball.
(2) Cornea consists of dense
connective tissue of elastin
and can repair itself.
(3) Cornea is convex,
transparent layer which is
highly vascularised.
(4) Cornea consists of dense
matrix of collagen and is the
most sensitive portion of the
eye.
131. Purines found both in DNA and
RNA are:
(1) Adenine and thymine
(2) Adenine and guanine
(3) Guanine and cytosine
(4) Cytosine and thymine
132. Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs)
refers to:
(1) Genes expressed as RNA
(2) Polypeptide expression
(3) DNA polymorphism
(4) Novel DNA sequences
133. Phloem in gymnosperms lacks:
(1) Albuminous cells and sieve
cells
(2) Sieve tubes only
(3) Companion cells only
(4) Both sieve tubes and
companion cells
134. What is the genetic disorder
in which an individual has an
overall masculine development
gynaecomastia, and is sterile?
(1) Turner’s syndrome
(2) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(3) Edward syndrome
(4) Down’s syndrome
135. Grass leaves curl inwards during
very dry weather. Select the most
appropriate reason from the
following:
(1) Closure of stomata
(2) Flaccidity of bulliform cells

(3) Shrinkage of air spaces in
spongy mesophyll
(4) Tyloses in vessels
136. Consider following features:
(a) Organ system level of
organisation
(b) Bilateral symmetry
(c) True coelomates with
segmentation of body
Select the correct option of
animal groups which possess all
the above characteristics.
(1) Annelida, Arthropoda and
Chordata
(2) Annelida, Arthropoda and
Mollusca
(3) Arthropoda, Mollusca and
Chordata
(4) Annelida, Mollusca and
Chordata
137. Under which of the following
conditions will there be no
change in the reading frame of
following mRNA ?
5´ AACAGCGGUGCUAUU 3´
(1) Insertion of G at 5th position
(2) Deletion of G from 5th
position
(3) Insertion of A and G at 4th
and 5th positions respectively
(4) Deletion of GGU from 7th,
8th and 9th positions
138. Select the correct option:
(1) 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs
articulate directly with the
sternum.
(2) 11th and 12th pairs of ribs are
connected to the sternum
with the help of hyaline
cartilage.
(3) Each rib is a flat thin bone
and all the ribs are connected
dorsally to the thoracic
vertebrae and ventrally to the
sternum.
(4) There are seven pairs of
vertebrosternal, three pairs
of vertebrochondral and two
pairs of vertebral ribs.
17
139. The shorter and longer arms of a
submetacentric chromosome are
referred to as:
(1) s-arm and l-arm respectively
(2) p-arm and q-arm respectively
(3) q-arm and p-arm respectively
(4) m-arm and n-arm
respectively
140. Xylem translocates:
(1) Water only
(2) Water and mineral salts only
(3) Water, mineral salts and
some organic nitrogen only
(4) Water, mineral salts, some
organic nitrogen and
hormones
141. Persistent nucellus in the seed is
known as:
(1) Chalaza (2) Perisperm
(3) Hilum (4) Tegmen
142. Match Column-I with
Column-II.
Column-I Column-II
(a) Saprophyte (i) Symbiotic
association
of fungi with
plant roots
(b) Parasite (ii) Decomposition
of dead organic
materials
(c) Lichens (iii) Living on
living
plants or
animals
(d) Mycorrhiza (iv) Symbiotic
association of
algae and fungi
Choose the correct answer from
the options given below:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

143. Which of the following can be
used as a biocontrol agent in the
treatment of plant disease?
(1) Trichoderma
(2) Chlorella
(3) Anabaena
(4) Lactobacillus
144. What would be the heart rate of
a person if the cardiac output is 5
L, blood volume in the ventricles
at the end of diastole is 100 mL
and at the end of ventricular
systole is 50 mL?
(1) 50 beats per minute
(2) 75 beats per minute
(3) 100 beats per minute
(4) 125 beats per minute
145. Which of the following Protocols
did aim for reducing emission
of chlorofluorocarbons into the
atmosphere?
(1) Montreal Protocol
(2) Kyoto Protocol
(3) Gothenburg Protocol
(4) Geneva Protocol
146. Polyblend, a fine powder of
recycled modified plastic, has
proved to be a good material for:
(1) making plastic sacks
(2) use as a fertiliser
(3) construction of roads
(4) making tubes and pipes (2) Theodore Schwann
147. Which of the following contrace-
ptive methods do involve a role
of hormone?
(1) Lactational amenorrhea,
Pills, Emergency
contraceptives
(2) Barrier method, Lactational
amenorrhea, Pills
(3) CuT, Pills, Emergency
contraceptives
(4) Pills, Emergency
contraceptives, Barrier
methods
148. Drug called ‘Heroin’ is synthe-
sised by :
18
(1) methylation of morphine
(2) acetylation of morphine
(3) glycosylation of morphine
(4) nitration of morphine
149. Which of the following pairs of
gases is mainly responsible for
green house effect?
(1) Ozone and Ammonia
(2) Oxygen and Nitrogen
(3) Nitrogen and Sulphur
dioxide
(4) Carbon dioxide and Methane
150. Which of the following muscular
disorders is inherited?
(1) Tetany
(2) Muscular dystrophy
(3) Myasthenia gravis
(4) Botulism
151. Which one of the following
equipments is essentially
required for growing microbes
on a large scale, for industrial
production of enzymes?
(1) BOD incubator
(2) Sludge digester
(3) Industrial oven
(4) Bioreactor
152. The concept of “Omnis cellula-e
cellula” regarding cell division
was first proposed by:
(1) Rudolf Virchow
(3) Schleiden
(4) Aristotle
153. What is the fate of the male gametes
discharged in the synergid?
(1) One fuses with the egg,
other(s) degenerate(s) in the
synergid.
(2) All fuse with the egg.
(3) One fuses with the egg,
other(s) fuse(s) with synergid
nucleus.
(4) One fuses with the egg and
other fuses with central cell
nuclei.

154. How does steroid hormone
influence the cellular activities?
(1) Changing the permeability
of the cell membrane.
(2) Binding to DNA and forming
a gene-hormone complex.
(3) Activating cyclic AMP
located on the cell
membrane.
(4) Using aquaporin channels as
second messenger.
155. Which of the following pair
of organelles does not contain
DNA?
(1) Mitochondria and
Lysosomes
(2) Chloroplast and Vacuoles
(3) Lysosomes and Vacuoles
(4) Nuclear envelope and
Mitochondria
156. A gene locus has two alleles A,
a. If the frequency of dominant
allele A is 0.4, then what will be
the frequency of homozygous
dominant, heterozygous and
homozygous recessive individuals
in the population ?
(1) 0.36 (AA); 0.48 (Aa);
0.16 (aa)
(2) 0.16 (AA); 0.24 (Aa);
0.36 (aa)
(3) 0.16 (AA); 0.48 (Aa);
0.36 (aa)
(4) 0.16 (AA); 0.36 (Aa);
0.48 (aa)
157. Match the following organisms with
their respective characteristics:
(a) Pila (i) Flame cells
(b) Bombyx (ii) Comb
plates
(c) Pleurobrachia (iii) Radula
(d) Taenia (iv) Malpighian
tubules
Select the correct option from
the following:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
19
158. Which of the following is a
commercial blood cholesterol
lowering agent?
(1) Cyclosporin A
(2) Statin
(3) Streptokinase
(4) Lipases
159. Variations caused by mutation, as
proposed by Hugo de Vries, are:
(1) random and directional
(2) random and directionless
(3) small and directional
(4) small and directionless
160. Select the incorrect statement.
(1) Male fruit fly is
heterogametic.
(2) In male grasshoppers, 50%
of sperms have no sex-
chromosome.
(3) In domesticated fowls, sex
of progeny depends on the
type of sperm rather than
egg.
(4) Human males have one, of
their sex-chromosome much
shorter than the other.
161. Which of the following immune
responses is responsible for
rejection of kidney graft?
(1) Auto-immune response
(2) Humoral immune response
(3) Inflammatory immune
response
(4) Cell-mediated immune
response
162. From evolutionary point of
view, retention of the female
gametophyte with developing
young embryo on the parent
sporophyte for some time, is first
observed in:
(1) Liverworts
(2) Mosses
(3) Pteridophytes
(4) Gymnosperms
163. Select the correct sequence of
organs in the alimentary canal of
cockroach starting from mouth:

(1) Pharynx → Oesophagus →
Crop → Gizzard → Ileum
→ Colon → Rectum
(2) Pharynx → Oesophagus →
Gizzard → Crop → Ileum
→ Colon → Rectum
(3) Pharynx → Oesophagus →
Gizzard → Ileum → Crop
→ Colon → Rectum
(4) Pharynx → Oesophagus →
Ileum → Crop → Gizzard
→ Colon → Rectum
164. Which of the following statements
regarding mitochondria is
incorrect?
(1) Outer membrane is
permeable to monomers
of carbohydrates, fats and
proteins.
(2) Enzymes of electron
transport are embedded in
outer membrane.
(3) Inner membrane is
convoluted with infoldings.
(4) Mitochondrial matrix
contains single circular
DNA molecule and
ribosomes.
165. Which of the following state-
ments is not correct?
(1) Lysosomes have numerous
hydrolytic enzymes.
(2) The hydrolytic enzymes of
lysosomes are active under
acidic pH.
(3) Lysosomes are membrane
bound structures.
(4) Lysosomes are formed by
the process of packaging in
the endoplasmic reticulum.
166. Which of the following features
of genetic code does allow
bacteria to produce human
insulin by recombinant DNA
technology?
(1) Genetic code is not
ambiguous
20
(2) Genetic code is redundant
(3) Genetic code is nearly
universal
(4) Genetic code is specific
167. Tidal volume and Expiratory
reserve volume of an athlete
is 500 mL and 1000 mL
respectively. What will be
his Expiratory capacity if the
residual volume is 1200 mL?
(1) 1500 mL (2) 1700 mL
(3) 2200 mL (4) 2700 mL
168. Match the following genes of the
Lac operon with their respective
products:
(a) i gene (i) b-galactosidase
(b) z gene (ii) Permease
(c) a gene (iii) Repressor
(d) y gene (iv) Transacetylase
Select the correct option.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(2) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
169. Use of an artificial kidney during
hemodialysis may result in:
(a) Nitrogenous waste build-up
in the body.
(b) Non-elimination of excess
potassium ions.
(c) Reduced absorption of
calcium ions from gastro-
intestinal tract.
(d) Reduced RBC production.
Which of the following options is
the most appropriate?
(1) (a) and (b) are correct
(2) (b) and (c) are correct
(3) (c) and (d) are correct
(4) (a) and (d) are correct
170. Match the hominids with their
correct brain size:
(a) Homo habilis (i) 900 cc
(b) Homo (ii) 1350 cc
neanderthalensis
(c) Homo erectus (iii) 650-800 cc
(d) Homo sapiens (iv) 1400 cc

Select the correct option.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
171. Select the hormone-releasing
Intra-Uterine Devices.
(1) Vaults, LNG-20
(2) Multiload 375, Progestasert
(3) Progestasert, LNG-20
(4) Lippes Loop, Multiload 375
172. Select the correct sequence for
transport of sperm cells in male
reproductive system
(1) Testis → Epididymis →
Vasa efferentia → Rete testis
→ Inguinal canal → Urethra
(2) Seminiferous tubules →
Rete testis → Vasa efferentia
→ Epididymis → Vas
deferens → Ejaculatory
duct → Urethra → Urethral
meatus
(3) Seminiferous tubules → Vasa
efferentia → Epididymis →
Inguinal canal → Urethra
(4) Testis → Epididymis → Vasa
efferentia → Vas deferens →
Ejaculatory duct → Inguinal
canal → Urethra → Urethral
meatus
173. What is the direction of
movement of sugars in phloem?
(1) Non-multidirectional
(2) Upward
(3) Downward
(4) Bi-directional
174. Which of the following state-
ments is incorrect?
(1) Viroids lack a protein coat.
(2) Viruses are obligate
parasites.
(3) Infective constituent in
viruses is the protein coat.
(4) Prions consist of abnormally
folded proteins.
21
175. The ciliated epithelial cells are
required to move particles or
mucus in a specific direction. In
humans, these cells are mainly
present in:
(1) Bile duct and bronchioles
(2) Fallopian tubes and
pancreatic duct
(3) Eustachian tube and salivary
duct
(4) Bronchioles and fallopian
tubes
176. Which of the following state-
ments is incorrect?
(1) Morels and truffles are edible
delicacies.
(2) Claviceps is a source of
many alkaloids and LSD.
(3) Conidia are produced exoge-
nously and ascospores endo-
genously.
(4) Yeasts have filamentous
bodies with long thread-like
hyphae.
177. Which of these following
methods is the most suitable for
disposal of nuclear waste?
(1) Shoot the waste into space.
(2) Bury the waste under
Antarctic ice-cover.
(3) Dump the waste within
rocks under deep ocean.
(4) Bury the waste within rocks
deep below the Earth’s
surface.
178. Following statements describe
the characteristics of the enzyme
Restriction Endonuclease. Identify
the incorrect statement.
(1) The enzyme cuts DNA
molecule at identified
position within the DNA.
(2) The enzyme binds DNA at
specific sites and cuts only
one of the two strands.
(3) The enzyme cuts the sugar-
phosphate backbone at
specific sites on each strand.

(4) The enzyme recognizes a
specific palindromic nucle-
otide sequence in the DNA.
179. In a species, the weight of
newborn ranges from 2 to 5 kg.
97% of the newborn with an
average weight between 3 to 3.3
kg survive whereas 99% of the
infants born with weights from 2
to 2.5 kg or 4.5 to 5 kg die. Which
type of selection process is
taking place?
ANSWER KEYS
NEET 2019 Paper
1 (3) 21 (4) 41 (3) 61 (3) 81
2 (2) 22 (4) 42 (2) 62 (4) 82
3 (3) 23 (1) 43 (3) 63 (2) 83
4 (2) 24 (3) 44 (4) 64 (4) 84
5 (2) 25 (2) 45 (3) 65 (1) 85
6 (2) 26 (3) 46 (2) 66 (2) 86
7 (3) 27 (4) 47 (2) 67 (2) 87
8 (3) 28 (2) 48 (4) 68 (3) 88
9 (1) 29 (1) 49 (1) 69 (1) 89
10 (2) 30 (2) 50 (2) 70 (4) 90
11 (4) 31 (4) 51 (3) 71 (2) 91
12 (4) 32 (3) 52 (1) 72 (3) 92
13 (1) 33 (3) 53 (1) 73 (3) 93
14 (3) 34 (1) 54 (1) 74 (2) 94
15 (1) 35 (1) 55 (1) 75 (1) 95
16 (4) 36 (3) 56 (3) 76 (1) 96
17 (2) 37 (2) 57 (4) 77 (3) 97
18 (2) 38 (4) 58 (1) 78 (3) 98
19 (2) 39 (4) 59 (4) 79 (2) 99
20 (3) 40 (3) 60 (4) 80 (1) 100 (1) 120 (3) 140 (4) 160 (3) 180 (2)
22
(1) Directional selection
(2) Stabilising selection
(3) Disruptive selection
(4) Cyclical selection
180. Select the correctly written
scientific name of Mango which
was first described by Carolus
Linnaeus:
(1) Mangifera indica Car. Linn.
(2) Mangifera indica Linn.
(3) Mangifera indica
(4) Mangifera Indica
(2) 101 (2) 121 (2) 141 (2) 161 (4)
(3) 102 (1) 122 (2) 142 (4) 162 (3)
(3) 103 (3) 123 (4) 143 (1) 163 (1)
(1) 104 (1) 124 (4) 144 (3) 164 (2)
(2) 105 (2) 125 (3) 145 (1) 165 (4)
(3) 106 (4) 126 (3) 146 (3) 166 (3)
(1) 107 (4) 127 (3) 147 (1) 167 (1)
(3) 108 (3) 128 (3) 148 (2) 168 (3)
(2) 109 (4) 129 (2) 149 (4) 169 (3)
(3) 110 (4) 130 (4) 150 (2) 170 (3)
(2) 111 (1) 131 (2) 151 (4) 171 (3)
(3) 112 (2) 132 (1) 152 (1) 172 (2)
(1) 113 (2) 133 (4) 153 (4) 173 (4)
(4) 114 (4) 134 (2) 154 (2) 174 (3)
(4) 115 (2) 135 (2) 155 (3) 175 (4)
(1) 116 (3) 136 (1) 156 (3) 176 (4)
(2) 117 (2) 137 (4) 157 (2) 177 (4)
(3) 118 (2) 138 (4) 158 (2) 178 (2)
(3) 119 (4) 139 (2) 159 (2) 179 (2)
 23

HINTS & SOLUTION

PHYSICS   q en
By Gauss’s law, ò E0·dS = (Q qen = Q)
1. (3) From the given logic circuit, LED will ε0
glow, when voltage across LED is high. Q E
∴ E 0 4πr 2 =
Truth Table ε0

1
A B Y ∴ E0 ∝ 1
r2   E0 ∝
0 0 1 r2
Ein = 0
0 1 1 Boolean expression Y = A.B
r
1 0 1 O r<R R r>R
1 1 0 r=R
3. (3) As we know that the angle of dip is the
i.e.,circuit represents NAND gate.
angle between earth’s resultant magnetic
2. (2) Charge Q will be distributed over the field from horizontal.
surface of hollow metal sphere. BH B
V B
δ = (+)ve
(i) For r < R (inside)
δ = (–)ve
[At a point inside the hollow sphere] B BH
+
+ Q BV

R
+ At equator, dip is zero. At Northern
r hemisphere, dip is positive. At southern
+ +
C hemisphere, dip is negative.
4. (2) For double slit experiment angular fringe
+ + β
+ width θ0 =
D
  q en Angular fringe width (in water)
By Gauss’s law, ò
 Ein ·dS = ε0 = 0 β θ
θw = = 0
As enclosed charge is = 0 D

So, Ein = 0 the electric field inside the hollow 0.2°
= = 0.15°
sphere is always zero.  4 
 
(ii) For r > R (outside)  3 

[At a point outside hollow sphere] 5. (2) When all bulbs are glowing
R i/3 R i/3
+ +
+
r
R i/3 R i/3
+ R +
+
+ + R i/3 R i/3

E
 24
R R 2R For II circuit,
nd

R eq = + =
3 3 3 10
V2 = i 2 × 10 = × 10 = 10 volt
E 2
3E 2 10
=
Power (P ) = …(i) 10V
i
R eq 2R V1 = V2 and, i= 1 i= 2 = 1A
10Ω
When two from section A and one from section
9. (1) lRed > lGreen > lBlue > lViolet. Red has the
B are glowing, then
longest wavelength.
i/2 R
F
R i 10. (2) U = nRT
2
As U ∝ T
i/2 R \ Increase in temperature would lead to the
increase in kinetic energy of gas.
11. (4) At t = 0, y = 3, which is maximum

E displacement so equation will be cosine
R 3R function.
R eq = +R= y
2 2
Pt=0
2E 2
Power (Pf) = …(ii) T=4s
3R
Dividing equation (i) by (ii) we get x
Pi 3E 2 3R
= = 9:4
Pf 2R 2E 2
2π 2π π
ω
= = = rad/s ( ∵ T = 4 s)
6. (2) In adiabatic process, there is no exchange T 4 2
of heat, with the surroundings. π
=y a cos ωt ⇒= y 3cos t
2
7. (3) Inside (d < R)
Magnetic field inside conductor 12. (4) Displacement of the particle in one
B = Kd ..... (i) complete vibration is zero, so, average velocity
in one complete vibration will be
This is straight line passing through origin
Displacement yf −yi
At surface (d = R) 
= = = 0
Time interval T
µ 1
B= 0 13. (1) According to the Work-energy theorem,
2π d d
Maximum at surface =
W
1
2
(
I ωf2 − ωi2 )
Outside (d > R)
Given that,
µ 1 B
B= 0 q = 2p revolution/minute
2 π d
O R d q = 2p × 2p = 4p2 rad
1
or B ∝ ∴ Hyperbolic 2π
d ωi = 3 × rad / s
60
8. (3) Resistance for ideal voltmeter = ∞
Resistance for ideal ammeter = 0 wf = 0 rad/s
For Ist circuit, Putting the values of wf and wi we get
10
V1 = i1 × 10 = × 10 = 10 volt
10
⇒ – τθ=
1 1 2 2
(
× mr 0 – ωi2
2 2
)

 25
2 16. (4) Given :

1 1
2 2
( 
× × 2 × 4 × 10 –2  –3 × 
 )
2π 
60 
Magnetic field B = 5 × 10–5 T
⇒ –τ= Number of turns in coil N = 800
4π 2
⇒ t = 2 × 10–6 N-m Area of coil A = 0.05 m2
14. (3) Given mass of block, m = 10 kg; radius Time taken to rotate = Dt = 0.1 s
of cylindrical drum, r = 1m; coefficient of Initial angle q1 = 0°
friction between the block and the inner
Final angle q2 = 90°
wall of the cylinder µ = 0.1;
Change in magnetic flux Df
Minimum angular velocity wmin
= NBA cos 90° – BA cos 0°
For equilibrium of the block limiting
= – NBA
friction
= – 800 × 5 × 10–5 × 0.05
f L ≥ mg = –2 × 10–2 weber
⇒ µN ≥ mg θ = −
∆φ −( −)2 × 10 −3 Wb
= = 0.02 V
⇒ µ rω2 ≥ mg ∆t 0.1 s
[Note : This is average emf induced]
fL
Hrere, N = mrw2 mrω2
N A 2 B1 2
g 17. (2) Given, x =
or, m ≥
mg C1 3D3
rµ ∆x ∆A 1 ∆B
% error, × 100= 2 × 100 + ×
g x A 2 B
or, ω min = 1 ∆C ∆D
rµ 100 + × 100 + 3 × 100
3 C D
10
∴=
ω min = 10 rad/s 1 1
0.1 × 1 = 2 × 1% + × 2% + × 3% + 3 × 4%
2 3
15. (1) Velocity of swimmer w.r.t. river VSR = 20 = 2% + 1% + 1% + 12% = 16%
m/s
18. (2) B
Velocity of river w.r.t. ground VRG = 10 m/s
N A 2 + B2
VRG
VSG
W E
VSR θ
A
Given equation
S
   y = A0 + A sin wt + B sin wt
V= SG VSR + V RG
Now assume (y – A0) = g

V RG 10 y – A0 = Asin wt + B sin wt
=sin θ  ⇒= sin θ
VSR 20 g = A sin wt + B cos wt
1
⇒ sin θ= ∴ θ= 30° west
= A 2 + B2 sin (wt + f)
2
which is S.H.M.
i.e.,to cross the river along the shortest A
path, swimmer should make his strokes 30° where cos f =
west. A 2 + B2
 26
B Since, change in length is independent of
and sin f = temperature
A 2 + B2
\ aCulCu = aAllAl
so, resultant amplitude
⇒ 1.7 × 10–5 × 88 cm = 2.2 × 10–5 × lAl
2 2
=
A +B 1.7 × 88
= ⇒ lAl = 68 cm
19. (2) de-Broglie wavelength of electron 2.2
mv P
12.27 12.27 × 10 –10 23. (1) Radius of the path = r = qB = qB
=λ = Å = 12.27 × 10 –12 m
V 10000 p
For H+ion, rH = H
eB
mv 2 mv 2 For a particle
20. (3) T − mg = [centripetal force = ]
r r pα
rα =
mv 2 2eB
⇒ T = mg + p
r
rH eB
= [as given pH = pa = p]
rα p
2eB
rH 2
⇒ r =1
α
r
24. (3) Here,
T
Kx 0 = Mg
L
v
where K = force constant
1
mg DE = Kx 02
2 
As the velocity is maximum at lowest point so
tension is maximum at the lowest position of 1 Mg
= × x 02
mass, so the chance of breaking is maximum. 2 x0

21. (4) Let TA and TB are the time periods of 1
= Mgx 0 Mg
particle A and B respectively. According to 2
question,  r B Stored elastic potential energy in extended
TA = TB = T 1
If wA and wB are their rA wire, = 2 Mg [here x0 = l]
angular speeds, then 25. (2) In p-type semiconductor, trivalent
impurities are added to intrinsic
2π 2π semiconductor, which creates holes
=ωA =
and ωB
TA TB which are majority charge carriers.

ω T T 26. (3) Mass to be raised = m
∴ A =B == 1:1
ω B TA T

h=R
22. (4) l’Cu = lCu (1 + aCu DT)
R
DlCu = lCu aCu DT
l’Al = lAl (1 + aAl DT)
DlAl = lAl aAl DT

 27
Potential energy at the surface of the earth 1 1
= m1v12 + m 2 v 22
−GMm 2 2
Usurface =
R For elastic collision
Potential energy at a height from the 2m1u1
surface of the earth h = R v2 =
m1 + m 2
U height = −GMm as u2 = 0; u1 = u
2R m1 = 4m and m2 = 2m
According to work-energy theorem, work 4
done = change in PE so, v2 = u
3
\ W = Uheight – Usurface  4 2
1
× 2m × u
−GMm  GMm  ∆K E 2  3 
⇒ −−  =
2R  R  KE 1
× 4m × u2
GMm gR 2 m mgR 2
= = =
2R 2R 2
(
∵ GM = gR 2 ) 1
× 2×
16
27. (4) For total internal reflection when i = ic, =2 9 =8
1
then ×4 9
2
31. (4) Acceleration due to gravity at a depth d
90° from surface of earth
 d
g ' = g 1 – R  ...(i)
ic
R
Here, d =
2
refracted ray grazes with the surface. That g
means the angle of refraction r = 90°. \ g ' =
2
28. (2) We know that, Multiplying by mass ‘m’ on both sides of
equation (i) we get
kQ 2 A B
F= 2 +Q –Q  d (∵ W = mg)
r r W′ = W 1 – 
R
If 25% of charges of A transfer to B then
= 200 1 – =
R  200
= 100 N
q A =Q − =
Q 3Q Q −3Q
and q B =−Q + =  2R  2
4 4 4 4 32. (3) Rainbow will be observed only when the
qA qB sun is at the back side of observer.
r
kq q 33. (3) Work done by variable force
F1 = A2 B yf yf = 1
r
k
 3Q 
2 Work done,
= W ∫ Fdy ⇒ ∫ F.dy
  9 kQ 9F yi y= 0
4
⇒ F= 1 2
= = where, F = 20 + 10 y
r 16 r 2 16
1
29. (1) a-particle is nucleus of helium He++ which
has two protons and two neutrons.
\=
W ∫ ( 20 + 10y) dy
0
30. (2) m1u1 + m2u2 = m1v1 + m2v2 1
 10y 2 
1 1 =20y +  = 25 J
Also, m1u12 + m 2 u 22  2 
2 2 0
 28
34. (1) Work done to stop the disc = change in 37. (2) Given, capacitance of capacitor C = 20 µF
total kinetic energy of disc = 20 × 10–6 F
Final KE = 0  dV 
Rate of change of potential  = 3 v/s
Initial KE = Translational K.E. + Rotational  dt 
K.E. ∵ q = CV
dq dV
= 1 mv 2 + 1 lω2 or, =C
2 2 dt dt
2 2 or, iC = 20 × 10–6 ×3 = 60 × 10–6 A = 60 µA
1 2 1 mR  v
= mv + × × 
2 2 2  R As we know that iD = iC = 60 µA
1 1 3 [Alternate solution : we know that id = ic and
= mv 2 + mv 2 = mv 2
2 4 4 the displacement current has finite value
3 when p.d across capacitor is changing. So,
= × 100 × (20 × 10–2)2 = 3J (1), (3) and (4) are eliminated. Hence (2)]
4
|DKE| = 3J 38. (4) In steady state, the amount of heat flowing
from one face to the other face in time dt is
35. (1) Volumetric flow rate of liquid
given by
= au
Q = a 2gh kA(T1 −T2 )dt

H=

⇒ dH = kA DT (k = coefficient of
dt 
2m thermal conductivity)
dH
∴ k =
−6 2 A dt ∆ T
= 2 × 10 m × 2 × 10 × 2 m/s Unit of k = Wm–1 K–1
= 2 × 2 × 3.14 × 10–6 m3/s 39. (4) Fuse is an safety device that operates
= 12.56 × 10–6 m3/s to provide over current protection of an
= 12.6 × 10–6 m3/s electrical circuit. A fuse is mainly a metal
wire that melts when too much current
36. (3) When object shot from inclined plane kept
flows through it due to low melting point
at 60° and velocity say u, then distance
and protects electric appliances.
travel
40. (3) Pressure inside the soap bubble
u2 4T
x1 = = P0 +
2g sin 60° R
u
60°
And pressure at a point below the surface
g sin 60° of water = rgZ0 + P0
[where P0 = atmospheric pressure]
When object shot from inclined plane kept
at 30° and same velocity u, then distance By equating these pressure we get,
travel 4T
P0 + = P0 + ρgZ0
u2 u R
x2 = 30°
2g sin 30 ° 4T
Z0 =
u2
g sin 30° R ×ρg

x1 2g sin 60° sin 30° 1× 2 4× 2.5×10−2
∴ = = = = 1: 3 Z0 = m
x2 u 2 sin 60° 2 × 3 10−3 ×1000×10

2g sin 30° Z0 = 1 cm
 29
41. (3)
According to Bohr’s model of H-atom, the Electric field due to line charge (2)
relation between kinetic energy, potential  (2) (1)
λ ˆ
energy and total energy E2 = iN/C + –
2πε 0 R + E1 –
P.E. + –
=
K.E. =
TE    + –
2 E = E + E E
net 1 2 + R 2 –

so, K.E. = – (T.E.) + –

λ ˆ λ ˆ + –
\ K.E. = 3.4 eV = i+ i + –
2πε 0 R 2πε 0 R

and P.E. = 2 (T.E)
X
⇒ P.E. = – 6.8 eV λ
= îN/C
42. (2) πε 0 R
 
[Note : Both E1 and E are in the same
2
direction.]
44. (4) An electric heater works on the principle
of Joule’s heating effect and it does not
involve Eddy currents.
45. (3) As three forces are forming closed loop in
same order, so net force is zero.
Equivalent focal length in air  P
i.e., Fnet = 0 
1 1 1 2 
= + = dv
F1 f f f or m =0
dt
f
⇒ F1 = ...(i) \ Velocity of the particle,
2 
When glycerin is filled inside, it behaves v = constant R
Q
like a concave lens of focal length (–f )
f f CHEMISTRY
46. (2) Consider the stability of electronic
configuration after loss of one electron.

47. (2) In Clark’s method calculated amount

of lime is added to hard water for the
removal of temporary hardness.
Glass (1.5) Glass (1.5) Ca(HCO3)2 + Ca(OH)2 → 2CaCO3 Ø + 2H2O
glycerine (1.5)
Mg(HCO3)2+2Ca(OH)2→2aCO3+Mg(OH)2Ø+2H2O
1 1 1 1
∴ =+ – 48. (4) Amphoteric hydroxide means it can react
F2 f f f
with both acid and base.
⇒ F2 = f ...(ii) Be ( OH ) + 2HCl  → BeCl2 + 2H 2O
2
Dividing (i) by (ii), we get
Be ( OH )2 + 2NaOH 
→ Na 2  Be ( OH )4 
F1 1
= 49. (1) Narrow spectrum antibiotics are used for
F2 2
the specific infection when the causative
43. (3) Electric field due to line charge (1) organism is known. Penicillin G is narrow
 λ ˆ spectrum antibiotic used to treat infections
E1 = iN/C caused by susceptible bacteria.
2πε 0 R

 30
Ksp = [Ca ] [OH ]2+ – 2
50. (2) AgNO3 + KI 
→ AgI + KNO3
Negatively  10−5 
charged colloid =   × (10−5 )2
 2 
 
A solution of AgNO3 and KI will form a
negatively charged colloidal sol, [AgI]I–, = 0.5 × 10–15
only when KI is present in excess (i.e., KI 55. (1) Account for the inductive effect, solvation
behaves as a solvent). effect (H-bonding.) and steric hinderance
for basic character in aqueous solutions
Millimole of KI is maximum in option (2)
(50 × 2 = 100) (CH3)2 NH > CH3 NH2 > (CH3)3 N
51. (3) When a proton is removed from an acid, ° =
2.303RT
56. (3) E cell log K
we obtain its conjugate base. nF
° = 0.59 V ,
Given : E cell
H 2O   H + + OH −
n=1
 H + + F−
HF 
0.059
52. (1) One double bond and one triple bond 0.59 = log K
1
means 3π bonds ∴ option (1)
0.59
H H = log K
1 2 3 4 5 0.059
H–C–C– –C– C ––
–C–H 10 = log K
K = 1010
 
H H
Pent-2-en-4-yne 57. (4) Green house gases present in the
Earth’s atmosphere are water vapours,
53. (1) O
O O carbondioxide, methane, nitrous oxide
O +6 +4 +6 O and ozone. Sulphurdioxide is not a green
Br Br Br
house gas.
O
58. (1) The solutions which show a large
O
O
Br3O8 negative deviation from Raoult’s law
form maximum boiling azeotrope. Nitric
3x – (2 × 8) = 0 acid and water forms a maximum boiling
3x – 16 = 0 azeotrope with a boiling point of 393.5 K
3x = 16 59. (4) Malachite is a copper carbonate hydroxide
16 mineral with the formula CuCO3.Cu(OH)2.
x= 60. (4) Pure nitrogen
3 Sodium azide or
Barium azide
Fractional oxidation state is the average
oxidation state of the element. Haber process Ammonia
Contact process Sulphuric acid
6 + 4 + 6 16
= Deacon’s process Chlorine
3 3
61. (3) On going down the group, bond
 Ca 2+ + 2OH −
54. (1) Ca(OH)2  dissociation enthalpy of the hydrides
pH = 9, pOH = 14 – 9 = 5 of oxygen family decreases. Therefore,
thermal stability also decreases.
[OH–] = 10–5
−5
62. (4) PCl5 is very reactive due to the presence
Ca 2+  = 10 of weak axial bonds. It is used in the
  2 synthesis of various organic compounds.
 31
COOH 2.303
63. (2) + NH3  t= log 102
k
COOH
+ 4.606
COONH4 CONH2 t=
∆ k

→
COONH4
+ −2H 2O
CONH2 69. (1) In a disproportionation reaction, one
species undergoes both oxidation and
O
reduction.
Strong C Reduction
Heating
 NH + 2+
–NH3 C 2 Cu  Cu + Cu°
Oxidation
O
:

:O–H Reduction
+6 +7 +4
64. (4) In lone pair of e–s present on 2– +
3MnO4 + 4H  2MnO4 + MnO2 + 2H2O
–

Oxidation

oxygen atom is involved in delocalisation. 70. (4) In 2H(g) → H2(g), no. of species
Therefore, it is most difficult to protonate decreases, therefore entropy decreases.
the phenol amongst the given compounds, 71. (2) Nylon 2-nylon 6 is a biodegradable
due to less availability of e–s. polymer.
65. (1) O O–
PV
72. (3) Compressibility factor, Z =
Mn Mn nRT
Given: At 350 K and 15 bar,
O – O– O molar volume < volume of ideal gas
O O O
Manganate ion Permanganate ion ∴ Z < 1
66. (2) Alkynes can be reduced to cis-alkenes Therefore, attractive forces are dominant
with the use of Lindlar’s catalyst and the gas can be compressed easily.
CH3 CH3 73. (3) Oh void (C) : HCP (A)
–

CH
CH3 H3C–C– O–O–H 75
No of ions ⇒ 6 × : 6
67. (2) 100
O

2→
3 : 1

Cumene 4
Cumene
hydroperoxide 3 : 4 C3A4
OH O
|| 74. (2) Enzyme that utilise ATP in phosphate
H+ transfer require an alkaline earth metal
→ + H3C CH3
(M) Mg as the cofactor.
H 2O
n+l
68. (3) For a first order reaction,
75. (1) 5f 5+3=8
2.303 [A]o
t= log 6p 6+1=7
k [A]
for 99% completion of the reaction, 5p 5+1=6
2.303 100 4d 4+2=6
t= log
k 100 − 99 5f > 6p > 5p > 4d
 32
76. (1) ∆G = –nFE° 84. (1) W = – Pext (V2 – V1) (Irreversible
= –2 × 96500 × 0.24 = – 46320 J/mol isothermal expansion)
= – 46.32 kJ/mol = –2 (0.25 – 0.1)
= – 2 (0.15)
77. (3) ∆Hmix is zero at constant T and P.
= – 0.3 L bar
78. (3) Alanine is non-essential amino acid.
= – 0.3 × 100 J
79. (2) K 4  Fe ( CN )  4− 
→ 4K + + [Fe(CN) 6 ]4− = – 30 J
 6
x–6=–4 85. (2) (i) AlCl3 + Cl – Cl → [AlCl4]– + Cl+
x=+2 
Electrophile
Fe: 4s2 3d6 Cl
Fe2+ : 3d6
(ii) +
eg + Cl 
t2g
In spherical field
In the presence of
86. (3) Only π bond is present in C2 molecule.
s1s2 s*1s2 s2s2 s*2s2 p2p2x = p2p2y
–
6CN (strong field ligand)

80. (1) PbF4 is ionic in nature 87. (1) [SlCl6]2– does not exist because six large
chloride ions cannot be accommodated
81. (2) XeF4 XeF6
around Si4+ due its small size.
..
F ..
F
F F F 88. (3) Basic Buffer is made up of weak base &
Xe Xe its salt.
HCl + NH4OH → NH4Cl + H2O
F .. F F F
F Initial 10 m mol 20 m mol 0
Square planar Distorted octahedral Final 0 10 m mol 10 m mol
XeOF4 XeO3 89. (2) Balmer series
O .. 90. (3) N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3
F F
3
Xe Xe 1 Mol NH3 =
mol H2
2
F .. F O O 3
O 20 mol NH3 = × 20 mol H2 = 30 mol H2
2
Square pyramidal Pyramidal
\ 30 moles of H2 are required.
82. (3)
CH3 BIOLOGY

CH3 – C –– CH – CH3 91. (2) Glycolysis is the anaerobic enzymatic
 conversion of glucose to lactate or
HC

3
O O
 pyruvate, resulting in energy stored in the
l

 H2
 Zn/ 
CH3 form of ATP, as occurs in muscle.
O

  The two irreversible steps in Glycolysis are:
CH3 – C – CH3 CH3 – C – CH2 – CH3
 (i) Conversion of glucose to glucose
+
Cl 6-phosphate, catalysed by hexokinase.
CH3CHO
It is the first step of activation phase
of glycolysis.
 2NH3 (g)
83. (3) N 2 (g) + 3H 2 (g) 
(ii) Conversion of fructose 6-phosphate
− d [ N 2 ] −1 d [ H 2 ] 1 d [ NH3 ] to fructose 1,6 biphosphate catalysed
= =
dt 3 dt 2 dt by phosphofructokinase-1.

92. (3) During flowering, photoperiodic stimulus
is perceived by leaves of plants.
93. (1) Golden rice is a form of rice with
biosynthesis of beta-carotene (a form
of vitamin A) which gives its golden or
yellow colouring. It is considered a type
of genetically modified rice (GMO) and a
fortified food that is produced to combat a
vitamin A deficiency in areas where this
vitamin is scarce.
It was in the late 1990s that two European
scientists developed Golden Rice after
inserting beta carotene-enriched rice gene
from daffodil to rice.
94. (4) Typhoid is a bacterial infection that can lead
to a high fever, diarrhoea, and vomiting.
It is caused by the bacteria Salmonella
typhimurium (S. typhi). Typhoid is
diagnosed by Widal test. This test was
developed by Georges Ferdinand Widal
in 1896 and helps to detect presence of
salmonella antibodies in a patient’s serum.
95. (4) Colostrum, as a thin yellowish milk, is the
first secretion for a few days after childbirth.
Colostrum serves as an immune system
enhancer to the new born infants. It contains
immune cells, high protein and protective
antibody (such as IgA) content. IgA help
protect the mucous membranes in the throat,
lungs, and intestines of the infant.
96. (1) A pineapple plant flowers only once, and
produces one pineapple. Then it dies. But
before it dies it also produces offspring.
Auxin and ethylene can be applied to
artificially induce flowering in pine apple
to increase yield throughout the year.
Applied auxin mimic the action of ethylene
by stimulating ethylene formation, and
that ethylene, not auxin, causes pineapples
to flower. Ethylene initiates flowering and
synchronising fruit-set in pineapples.
97. (2) During the isolation of desired gene, chilled
ethanol is used for the precipitation of
DNA. Ethanol is used in DNA extraction to
force the DNA to precipitate in a solution.
In order to collect a DNA sample, cells
33
are broken down through agitation, and
then mixed with water, salt and ethanol to
create an aqueous solution. Ethanol along
with salt work to prevent the DNA from
dissolving into the water, instead causing it
to precipitate out so it can be separated and
extracted using a centrifuge.
98. (3) Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is a Gram
positive, spore-forming bacterium that
synthesises parasporal crystalline inclusions
containing Cry and Cyt proteins, some of
which are toxic against a wide range of
insect orders (for example, moth larva that
attacks the fruiting bodies of certain crop),
nematodes and human-cancer cells.
These toxins are produced in inactive
protoxins form but become activated
when dissolve in the high alkaline pH of
insect gut. Once ingested by insects, these
crystals are solubilised in the midgut, the
toxins are then proteolytically activated
by midgut proteases and bind to specific
receptors located in the insect cell
membrane, leading to cell disruption and
insect death.
99. (3) Alfred Henry Sturtevant discovered the
linkage of genes and constructed the first
genetic map of a chromosome in 1913.
He explained chromosome mapping by
devising a method to assess recombination
frequency and infer the relative positions
and distances of linked genes on a
chromosome based on the average number
of crossovers between them during meiosis.
100. (1) Habitat loss and fragmentation are
the most important cause for animals
and plants being driven to extinction.
Habitats of various organisms are
altered or destroyed by uncontrolled and
unsustainable human activities (such as
deforestation, slash and burn agriculture,
mining, and urbanisation). This will lead
to breaking up of the habitat into small
pieces, which effect the movement of
migratory animals and also, decrease the
genetic exchange between populations
leading to a declination of species.

101. (2) Goblet cells secretes mucus. It is secreted
along entire digestive tract where it
lubricates food and lining, coats lining and
protects it from mechanical digestion from
acid and digestive enzymes.
102. (1) Electrocardiogram is a diagnostic tool,
used to assess the electrical and muscular
functions of the heart. It consists of
waveform components which indicate
electrical events during one heart beat.
These waveforms are labelled P, Q, R, S,
T and U.
• P wave indicates atrial depolarisation
i.e. that the atria are contracting,
pumping blood into the ventricles.
• The QRS complex represents ventricular
depolarisation and contraction.
• T wave is upwards waveform
representing ventricular repolarisation.
The normal T wave is slightly
asymmetric with a steeper downward
slope. Reduction in the size of T wave
represents insufficient supply of oxygen
i.e. coronary ischemia. Coronary
ischemia is an intermediate condition in
coronary artery disease during which the
heart tissue is slowly or suddenly starved
of oxygen and other nutrients.
103. (3) Crypts of Lieberkuhn are tubular glands
that lie between the finger-like projections
of the inner surface of the small intestine.
Glisson’s capsule is a layer of connective
tissue present in liver. Islets of langerhans
constitute the endocrine portion of pancreas
and are responsible for the production and
release of hormones that regulate glucose
levels. Brunner’s glands are found in
submucosa of duodenum and protect the
intestinal walls from gastric juices.
104. (1) G0 or resting phase is a non-growing state
distinct from interphase. It is a period
in the cell cycle in which cells exist in
a quiescent state. It is viewed as either
an extended G1 phase, where the cell is
neither dividing nor preparing to divide,
or a distinct quiescent stage that occurs
outside of the cell cycle.
34
105. (2) Earth Summit (Rio Summit)-1992, called
upon all nations to take appropriate
measures for conservation of biodiversity
and sustainable utilisation of its benefits.
106. (4) GLUT1 and GLUT4 are glucose transport
proteins which facilitate glucose transport
into insulin-sensitive cells. GLUT1
is insulin-independent and is widely
distributed in different tissues. GLUT4 is
insulin-dependent and is responsible for the
majority of glucose transport into muscle
and adipose cells in anabolic conditions.
107. (4) Growth rings are formed by the seasonal
activity of cambium. In plants of temperate
regions, cambium is more active in spring
(less lignin deposition in xylem) and less
active in autumn (more lignin deposition in
xylem) seasons. In temperate regions climatic
conditions are not uniform throughout the
year. However in tropics climatic conditions
are uniform throughout the year.
108. (3) Insulin is a pancreatic hormone, secreted
from alpha cells of islets of Langerhans.
Its deficiency leads to diabetes mellitus
(characterised by high blood sugar levels
over a prolonged period).
Thyroxine is an iodine containing
hormone, secreted by the thyroid gland.
It plays an important role in regulating
the body’s metabolic rate, heart and
digestive function, muscle control, brain
development and bone maintenance. Hyper
secretion or hyposecretion of thyroxine
can be associated with enlargement of
thyroid gland called goitre.
Deficiency of corticoids (cortisol and
aldosterone) secreted from adrenal gland
(cortex region) leads to Addison’s disease.
Cortisol regulates the body’s reaction to
stressful situations. Aldosterone helps
with sodium and potassium regulation.
The adrenal cortex also produces sex
hormones (androgens).
Acromegaly is an abnormal growth
of the hands, feet, and face, caused by
overproduction of growth hormone by the
pituitary gland.

109. (4) The phenomenon in which female gamete
develops into embryo without getting
fused with male gamete (fertilisation) is
called parthenogenesis.
Autogamy is a form of self-fertilisation
in which fission of the cell nucleus
occurs without division of the cell, the
two pronuclei so formed reuniting to
form the synkaryon. Parthenocarpy is the
production of fruit without fertilisation
of an egg in the ovary. Synkaryon is a
nucleus formed by the fusion of two pre-
existing nuclei.
110. (4) Ecological pyramid is a graphical
representation that illustrates the flow of
energy through different forms of life in an
ecosystem. It is generally inverted in case
of pyramid of biomass in a sea because
the biomass of the fishes is more than the
phytoplanktons (producers).
Features of pyramid of biomass in a sea:
• Food chain in ocean - Phytoplankton →
zooplankton → predatory fish
• The biomass of consumers (zooplankton)
is greater than phytoplankton (the
producer) because of their small size
and low weight. The predatory fish is
much larger than zooplankton.
• The producers of ocean or aquatic
ecosystem are phytoplankton and they
have short life span and turn over and
have lower mass than zooplankton.
• The biomass of tropic level is depends
on the longevity of member.
111. (1) Extrusion of second polar body from egg
nucleus occurs after entry of sperm into the
secondary oocyte but before fertilisation.
The entry of sperm into the ovum induces
completion of the meiotic division of the
secondary oocyte. Entry of sperm causes
breakdown of metaphase promoting factor
(MPF) and turns on anaphase promoting
complex (APC).
112. (2) Fungus associated with roots of Pinus
increases minerals & water absorption
35
for the plant by increasing surface area
and in turn fungus gets food from plant.
Therefore, mycorrhizal association is
obligatory for Pinus seed germination.
113. (2) Loop of Henle along with vasa rectae plays
an important role in the concentration
of urine. The proximity between loop of
Henle and vasa recta as well as counter
current in them help in maintaining an
increasing osmolarity towards the inner
medullary interstitium. This mechanism
helps to maintain a concentration gradient
in medullary interstitium so human urine is
nearly four times concentrated than initial
filtrate formed. The urine concentrating
mechanism plays a fundamental role in
regulating water and sodium excretion.
114. (4) Genes for flower colour in snapdragon
shows incomplete dominance which is
an exception of Mendel’s first principle
(i.e. Law of dominance), whereas Law
of segregation is universally applicable.
Incomplete dominance is a process when
a dominant allele, or form of a gene,
does not completely mask the effects of
a recessive allele, and the organism’s
resulting physical appearance shows a
blending of both alleles.
115. (2) Hypothalamus (a region of the forebrain)
is the thermoregulatory centre of brain. It
coordinates both the autonomic nervous
system and the activity of the pituitary,
controlling body temperature, thirst,
hunger, and other homeostatic systems, and
involved in sleep and emotional activity.
116. (3) Genital herpes is caused by two types
of viruses- herpes simplex virus type 1
(HSV-1) and herpes simplex virus type 2
(HSV-2). At present there is no cure for
type-II-herpes simplex virus. Other non
curable STIs are hepatitis-B and HIV.
117. (2) Respiratory quotient may be defined as a
ratio indicating the relation of the volume
of carbon dioxide given off in respiration
to that of the oxygen consumed.

Respiratory Quotient
(RQ)
Amount of CO 2 released
= with its bound prosthetic group is called
Amount of CO 2consumed
2(C51H98O6 ) + 145O2 → 102CO2 + 98H 2O
Tripalmitin + Energy
102CO 2
=RQ = 0.7
145O 2
118. (2) Biocontrol agents are those natural
organisms like parasitism, predation and
other mechanisms which play an important
role in controlling the plant pests like
nematodes weeds, insects, and mites and
helps in maintaining and balancing the plant
species along with their natural enemies.
Fungus Trichoderma, Baculoviruses
(NPV) and Bacillus thuringiensis are used
as biocontrol agents.
Rhizobium, Nostoc, Azospirillum and
Oscillatoria are used as biofertilisers,
whereas TMV is a pathogen and aphids
are pests that harm crop plants.
119. (4) Post-fertilisation is a series of events that
takes place after fertilisation. Following
are the post-fertilisation changes in
flowering plants:
• Ovule → Seed
• Ovary → Fruit
• Zygote → Embryo
• Central cell → Endosperm
120. (3) Concanavalin A is a secondary metabolite,
e.g. lectin. Lectin is a mannose/glucose-
binding protein isolated from Jack beans
(Canavalia ensiformis). They are not
antibodies and do not originate in an
immune system but bind specifically to
carbohydrate-containing receptors on cell
surfaces (as of red blood cells).
121. (2) Microbes are used in production of several
household and industrial products –
• Lactobacillus – Production of curd
• Saccharomyces cerevisiae – Bread
making
• Aspergillus niger – Citric acid
production
• Acetobacter aceti – Acetic acid
36
122. (2) Coenzyme or metal ion that is tightly bound
to enzyme protein is called prosthetic
group. A complete catalytic active enzyme
holoenzyme
A protein that forms an active enzyme
system by combination with a coenzyme
and determines the specificity of this
system for a substrate is called apoenzyme.
123. (4) Cell cycle is the complete series of events
from one cell division to the next. The
correct sequence of phases of cell cycle is
G1 → S → G2 → M.
124. (4) Thiobacillus denitrificans cause
denitrification i.e., conversion of oxides of
nitrogen to free N2.
125. (3) Inbreeding exposes harmful recessive
genes that are eliminated by selection.
It also helps in accumulation of superior
genes and elimination of less desirable
genes. Therefore this is selection at each
step & which increase the productivity of
inbred population. Close and continued
inbreeding usually reduces fertility and
even productivity.
126. (3) 1 map unit represent 1% cross over. Map
unit is used to measure genetic distance.
This genetic distance is based on average
number of cross over frequency.
127. (3) Botanical garden is an ex - situ conservation
(offsite conservation) method to conserve
biodiversity.
128. (3) In parietal placentation the ovules develop
on the inner wall of ovary or in peripheral
part and number of placentae corresponds
to the number of carpels. It occurs in
bicarpellary or multicarpellary but
unilocular ovary, e.g. mustard, Argemone
etc.
Parietal placentation

129. (2) Asthma (an allergic condition) is a
difficulty in breathing causing wheezing
due to inflammation of bronchi and
bronchioles. It can be due to increasing
air born allergens and pollutants. Many
people in urban areas are suffering from
this respiratory disorder.
130. (4) Cornea is the transparent part of the eye that
covers the front portion of the eye. It covers
the pupil (the opening at the centre of the
eye), iris (the coloured part of the eye), and
anterior chamber (the fluid-filled inside of
the eye). Its main function is to refract, or
bend, light. Cornea consists of dense matrix
of collagen and corneal epithelium. It is the
most sensitive part of eye.
131. (2) Purines, a heterocyclic compound, such
as adenine and guanine are found both in
DNA and RNA.
132. (1) Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) are
DNA sequences (genes) that are expressed
as mRNA for protein synthesis. These are
used in human Genome Project.
133. (4) Phloem, a complex tissue, is found in
highly organised plants (“higher plants”)
and characterised by the possession
of certain specialised cells, the sieve
elements, and which functions as the
major channel of rapid conduction of
sugars over fairly long distances in the
plant body. In addition to sieve elements, it
always contains parenchyma cells, usually
of more than one type, and frequently
includes sclerenchyma cells.
Phloem in gymnosperms lacks both sieve
tube and companion cells.
134. (2) Klinefelter’s syndrome is a condition in
which one or more extra X chromosomes
are present in a male. Individuals with
Klinefelter’s syndrome have trisomy of
sex chromosome as 44 + XXY (47). They
are characterised by overall masculine
development, gynaecomastia (enlarged
breast) and are sterile.
135. (2) Bulliform cells are large, bubble-shaped
epidermal cells that occur in groups on
the upper surface of the leaves of many
37
grasses. These cells become flaccid due to
water loss. Loss of turgor pressure in these
cells causes leaves to “roll up” during
water stress.
136. (1) Organ system of organisation, bilateral
symmetry and true coelomates with
segmented body are found in annelid,
arthropoda and chordates.
In mollusca , the body is unsegmented.
137. (4) There will be no change in reading frame
of m-RNA by deletion of GGU from 7th,
8th, and 9th position.
138. (4) There are 12 pairs of ribs in human body.
First seven pairs are attached to the
sternum ventrally with the help of hyaline
carlilage, also called as true ribs. These are
called vertebrosternal ribs. The next three
pairs (8th, 9th and 10th) do not articulate
directly with the sternum, also called
vertebrochondral (false) ribs . The last two
pairs (11th and 12th) are the free floating ribs
because they are not connected ventrally.
139. (2) Each chromosome has two arms, labeled
p (the shorter of the two) and q (the
longer). In submetacentric chromosome,
the centromere slightly away from the
middle of the chromosome resulting into
one shorter arm and one longer arm.
140. (4) Xylem is a type of complex tissue . it
translocates water, mineral salts, organic
nitrogen and hormones.
141. (2) In some seeds like black pepper and beet,
the ramnents of nucellus are persistant,
this persistant nucellus is called perisperm.
It is present in the seeds in the form of a
layer of nutritive tissue .
142. (4) Saprophytes are organisms which live
on dead organic matter and help in their
decomposition.
Parasites is an organisms that live in or
on other living plants and animals and
dependent on them for their food.

Lichens represent a type of symbiotic
association of algae and fungi, in which,
both of them dependent on each other for
their food and shelter.
Mycorrhiza is also a type of symbiotic
association of fungi and plant roots, e.g.,
Cycas coralloid root.
143. (1) Trichoderma is a very effective biological
mean for plant disease management
especially the soil born. It is a free-living
fungus which is common in soil and root
ecosystems. It reduces growth, survival or
infections caused by pathogens by different
mechanisms like competition, antibiosis,
mycoparasitism, hyphal interactions, and
enzyme secretion.
144. (3) Cardiac output is the product of the heart
rate (HR), or the number of heart beats per
minute (bpm),and the stroke volume (SV),
which is the volume of blood pumped
from the ventricle per beat; thus,
Cardiac output = stroke volume × Heart
rate
As per the given information,
Cardiac output = 5L or 5000 ml
Blood volume in ventricles at the end of
diastole = 100 ml
Blood volume in ventricles at the end of
systole = 50 ml
\ Stroke volume = 100 – 50
= 50 ml.
So,
5000 ml = 50 ml × Heart rate
So,
Heart rate = 100 beats per minute.
145. (1) The Montreal Protocol on substances that
deplete the Ozone Layer (the Montreal
Protocol) is an international agreement
made in 1987. It was designed to stop
the production and import of ozone
depleting substances (chlorofluorocarbons
and reduce their concentration in the
atmosphere to help protect the earth’s
ozone layer.
38
146. (3) Mr. Ahmed Khan, Managing Director of KK
Plastic Waste Management has discovered
a solution to utilise the waste plastic for
the construction of roads. His company
developed a technology which turns the
plastic waste into a polyblend which can
be used in laying of roads. Polyblend is
developed and mixed with bitumen.
When bitumen is mixed with Plastic/
Polymer coated aggregate a portion of
bitumen diffuses through the polymer
layer & binds with aggregate. During this
process 3-D internal cross linked network
structure are formed which results into
stronger bonding.
Therefore this blend is much effctive for
laying roads. The cost for construction of
the road is slightly high but it would be
compensated by the durability and echo
friendly properties.
147. (1) In lactational amenorrhea, pills and
emergency contraceptives methods, there
is the involvement of hormones.
Lactational amenorrhea (absence of
menstruation) is based on the fact that
ovulation and therefore the cycle do
not occur during the period of intense
lactation following parturition. Prolactin
is the major hormone responsible for milk
production and is present in sufficient
quantities in almost all women to allow the
establishment of normal lactation.
Emergency contraception methods include
emergency contraception pills (ECP),
intrauterine device, e.g., LNG-20
(Levonor- gestrel) and ulipristal acetate.
CuT and barrier method do not involve
any hormonal role.
148. (2) Heroin is synthesised by acetylation of
morphine.
Heroin, commonly called smack and is
chemically diacetylmorphine is made from
the resin of poppy (Papaver somniferum)
plants. Milky, sap-like opium is first
removed from the pod of the poppy flower.
This opium is refined to make morphine,

then further refined into different forms
of heroin. The synthesis of heroin is a
simple one step acetylation reaction, and
typically is performed by the addition of a
large excess of acetic anhydride directly to
morphine followed by heating the resulting
solution to, or near, boiling. Generally
the final product is isolated by treating
the cooled reaction mixture with sodium
carbonate and collecting the heroin base
by filtration.
149. (4) Gases, responsible for Green house effect
are carbon dioxide and methane.
A green house gas is a gas that absorbs and
emits radiant energy within the thermal
infrared range. Greenhouse gases cause the
greenhouse effect. The primary greenhouse
gases in Earth’s atmosphere are water
vapour, carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous
oxide and ozone. Without greenhouse gases,
the average temperature of Earth’s surface
would be about −18 °C (0 °F), rather than
the present average of 15 °C (59 °F).
150. (2) Muscular dystrophy is a inheritable
disease that gradually cause the muscles to
weaken, leading to an increasing level of
disability.
Tetany, Myasthenia gravis and Botulism
are not inheritable diseases.
151. (4) To produce enzyme in large quantity,
equipment required are bioreactors.
Large scale production involves use of
bioreactors.
152. (1) Concept of “Omnis cellula-e cellula”
regarding cell division was proposed by
Rudolph Virchow.
153. (4) In flowering plants, out of the two male
gametes discharged in synergids, one
fuses with the egg and other fuses with the
secondary or definitive nucleus present in
central cell.
Egg (n) + 1st male gamete (n) → Zygote
(2n)
Secondary nucleus (2n) + 2nd male gamete
(n) → Endosperm Nucleus(3n)
(central cell nuclei)
39
154. (2) Steroid hormones pass through the plasma
membrane of a target cell and adhere
to intracellular receptors residing in the
cytoplasm or in the nucleus. In the nucleus,
the hormone-receptor complex binds to a
DNA sequence, called a hormone response
element , which triggers gene transcription
and translation.
155. (3) Lysosomes and vacuoles do not contain
DNA.
156. (3) Frequency of dominant allele (p) = 0.4
Frequency of recessive allele (q) = 1 – 0.4
= 0.6
Frequency of homozygous dominant
individuals (AA)
= p2 = (0.4)2 = 0.16(AA)
Frequency of heterozygous individuals
(Aa)
= 2pq = 2(0.4)(0.6) = 0.48(Aa)
Frequency of homozygous recessive
individuals (aa)
= q2 = (0.6)2 = 0.36(aa)
157. (2) (a) Pila is a member of mollusc. The
mouth contains a rasping organ for
feeding called radula.
(b) Bombyx is an arthropod. In Bombyx
excretion takes place through
malpighian tubules.
(c) Pleurobrachia is a ctenophore. The
body bears eight external rows of
ciliated comb plates, which help in
locomotion.
(d) Taenia is a platyhelminth. In it
specialised cells, called flame cells are
present which help in osmoregulation
and excretion.
158. (2) Statins are drugs that can lower blood
cholesterol.
It is obtained from a yeast (Fungi) called
Monascus purpureus.
They work by blocking a substance, body
needs to make cholesterol.
159. (2) According to Hugo de Vries, mutations
are random and directionless.
Hugo deVries believed that mutation
caused speciation and hence called it
saltation (single step large mutation).

160. (3) In birds female heterogamety is found thus
sex of progeny depends on the types of
egg rather than the type of sperms of birds
(fowls).
161. (4) Transplant rejection occurs when
transplanted tissue is rejected by the
recipient’s immune system, which
destroys the transplanted tissue. The body
is able to differentiate self and nonself
and the cell-mediated response, which is
responsible for graft rejection.
162. (3) In Pteridophyte, megaspore is retained for
some time in female gametophyte, however
the permanent retention is required for
seed formation in Gymnosperms. That’s
why Pteridophytes exhibit precursor to
seed habit only.
163. (1) The correct sequence of organs in the
alimentary canal of cockroach starting
from mouth is :
Pharynx → Oesophagus → Crop →
Gizzard → Ileum → Colon → Rectum
164. (2) In mitochondria, enzymes for electron
transport are present in the inner membrane.
165. (4) Lysosomes are membrane bound
structures, contained numerous hydrolytic
enzymes which are active under acidic pH.
Lysosomes are formed by budding from
the Golgi complex. Lysosome enzymes
are made by proteins from the endoplasmic
reticulum.
166. (3) In recombinant DNA technology bacteria
are able to produce human insulin, used
to treat diabetes because genetic code is
nearly universal.
167. (1) Expiratory capacity is the total volume of
air that a person can expireafter a normal
inspiration. this includes tidal volume and
expirtory reserve volume (TV + ERV).
Tidal volume of an athelete = 500 ml
Expiratory reserve volume of an athelete =
1000 ml
40
Expiratory capacity = TV + ERV
= 500 + 1000
= 1500 ml
168. (3) Lac operon consist of one regulatory genes (i
gene) and three structural genes (z, y, and a).
• i gene codes for Repressor.
• z gene codes for Beta-galactosidase.
• y gene codes for Permease.
• a gene codes for Transacetylase.
169. (3) Statements (c) and (d) are correct.
Dialysis is a procedure that is a substitute
for many of the normal functions of the
kidney.
(a) It remove waste, salt and extra water
to prevent them from building up in
the body.
(b) It keep a safe level of certain
chemicals in your blood, such as
potassium, sodium and bicarbonate
helping to control blood pressure.
(c) There will be reduced absorption of
calcium ions from gastrointestinal
tract.
(d) RBC production will be reduced, due
to reduced erythropoietin hormone.
170. (3) The correct match of hominids and their
brain sizes are:
Homo habilis − 650-800 cc
Homo neanderthalensis −1400 cc
Homo erectus −900 cc
Homo sapiens − 1350 cc
171. (3) Progestasert and LNG-20 are hormone
releasing IUDs (Intra Uterine Devices).
These are the devices which are used in
birth control by making uterus unsuitable
for implantation and the cervix hostile to
sperms.
172. (2) The correct sequence for transport of
sperm cells in male reproductive system
is:
Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis →
Vasa efferentia→ Epididymis →Vas
deferens →Ejaculatory duct → Urethra →
Urethral meatus

173. (4) The direction of movement of sugar in
phloem is bi-directional.
The Pressure Flow Hypothesis, also known
as the Mass Flow Hypothesis, is the best-
supported theory to explain the movement of
sap through the phloem. It was proposed by
Ernst Munch, a German plant physiologist
in 1930. A high concentration of organic
substances, particularly sugar, inside cells of
the phloem at a source, such as a leaf, creates
a diffusion gradient (osmotic gradient) that
draws water into the cells from the adjacent
xylem. This creates turgor pressure, also
known as hydrostatic pressure, in the
phloem. Movement of phloem sap occurs
by bulk flow (mass flow) from sugar sources
to sugar sinks. The movement in phloem is
bidirectional, whereas, in xylem cells, it is
unidirectional (upward). Because of this
multi-directional flow, coupled with the fact
that sap cannot move with ease between
adjacent sieve-tubes, it is not unusual for
sap in adjacent sieve-tubes to be flowing in
opposite directions.
174. (3) Infective constituent in viruses is either
DNA or RNA, not protein. The simplest
form consist of two basic components:
nucleic acid (single- or double-stranded
RNA or DNA) and a protein coat, the
capsid, which functions as a shell to
protect the viral genome from nucleases
and which during infection attaches the
virion to specific receptors exposed on the
prospective host cell.
175. (4) In humans, ciliated columnar epithelium is
present in bronchioles and fallopian tubes.
Their function is to move particles or mucus
in a specific direction over the epithelium.
176. (4) Yeast is an unicellular sac fungi. It lacks
filamentous structure or hyphae.
177. (4) It has been recommended that storage of
nuclear waste after sufficient pre treatment,
should be done in suitably shielded
containers and buried within the rocks deep
below the earth’s surface (500 m deep).
41
178. (2) A restriction enzyme or restriction
endonuclease is an enzyme that cleaves
DNA into fragments at or near specific
recognition sites within molecules known
as restriction sites. Restriction enzymes
are one class of the broader endonuclease
group of enzymes. Each restriction
endonuclease functions by inspecting
the length of a DNA sequence. Once it
finds its specific recognition sequence,
it will bind to the DNA and cut each of
the two strands of the double helix at
specific points in their sugar phosphate
backbone. These enzymes predictably cut
both strands because the sequences they
recognize are palindromic. That is the
recognition sequences of identical bases
on both DNA strands.
179. (2) Stabilising selection is a type of natural
selection in which the population mean
stabilises on a particular non-extreme
trait value. This is thought to be the most
common mechanism of action for natural
selection because most traits do not appear
to change drastically over time. The result
of stabilising is the over-representation in
a specific trait. For example, human birth
weight, the number of eggs a bird lays, and
the density of cactus spines.
The given data shows stabilising selection
as most of the newborn having average
weight between 3 to 3.3 kg survive and
babies with less and more weight have low
survival rate.
180. (2) According to rules of binomial
nomenclature, correctly written scientific
name of mango is Mangifera indica Linn.
This system of nomenclature was given
by Carl Linnaeus. The scientific name of
mango is given as Mangifera indica Linn.
Mangifera indicates the ‘genus’ while
indica represents a particular species or
‘specific epithet’ and Linn indicates the
Biologist Linnaeus who first described the
species of mango.