Test-2 (Code-B) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024

MM:720 TEST -2 Time:3 Hrs, 20 Min.

[PHYSICS]
Choose the correct answer:
SECTION-A
1. The Current sensitivity of a moving coil
galvanometer be increased by decreasing
can
(1) Number of turns in the coil (3
(2) Area of coil
(3) Magnetic field inside the galvanometer
(4) Torsional constant
Two straight parallel wires carying current in the B
opposite direction
(1) Repel each other
(2) Attract each other
(4)
(3) Do not exert any force on each other
(4) Either repel or attract each olher
3 A long straight cylindrical wire having radius of
cross-section 'a' carries a constant current along its 4
For a short bar magnet, the ratio of magnitude of
length. The current is distributed uniformly across magnetic field at axial and equatorial positions
this cross-section. The variation of magnetic field
with distance r from its axis is shown by respectively at the same distance, is
AB (1) 1:2
(2) 2:1
(3) 1:1
(1) (4) 1:4

If at a place 1 and o2 are the apparent angles of dip

in two vertical planes which are right angles to each
B other and 8 is the true angle of dip at that place, then
the relation which holds true is
(1) tanÏ = tan1 + tano2

(2) (2) sins = tano1 + tanoz

(3) cot?S = cot?1 + cot2
(4) tan²8 = tan1 + tan°2

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 All Inda Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-2 (Code-B)

6. An inductor of self-inductance 1.5 His connected in 10 A Current carrying wire is placed in the same plane
series with a resistance of 10 S2 and a battery of as a square ioop made of conducting wire as shown
2 V. The energy stored by the inductor in steady in the figure. If the current in the straight wire is
state will be increasing in the given direction, then the direction
(1) 0.003J of current induced in the loop is
(2) 0.03J
(3) 0.3 J
(4) 0.15.
7 Which of the following quantity has same dimension
as of time? (Symbols have their usual meanings)
(1) LR
(1) No current is induced
(2)
(2) Anticlockwise
R
(3) (3) Clockwise
C
(4) LCR (4) First anticlockwise then clockwise
8. 11 in the given figure, a conducting rod MN is sliding
The magnetic flux associated through a coil of
resistance R changes by an amount A in a time At. on the conducting rails with constant velocity v in
The total quantity of electric charge Q that passes region of perpendicular uniform magnetic fieid B
through it in time At is independent of The force to be applied on rod to maintain the
(1) At (2) A4 constant velocity is
M
(3) R (4) Both R and At
9 Three inductors are connected as shown. The
effective inductance of the network is (ignore mutual
inductance)
2 H 3H
00000
(1) Bv
00000
4 H R

9
H
(2)8'y2
( 20 R
(2) 9 H
2B'v
(3) H (3
R
9
8''v
(4) H (4)
R

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 Test-2 (Code-B) All Inda Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024
12. The variation of magnetic flux linked with a circuit 14. Self-inductance of a long solenoid of length l, area
with time is shown below. The variation of induced
of cross-section A and number of turns per unit
emf in the circuit with time is shown by
length n is

(1) Hgn'A? (2) Hon'A

(3) HgnA' (4) HonA²,2
15. The magnetic flux linked with a coil (in weber) is
given by the equation = 2 + 5t + 2. The enf
induced in the coil at t= 2 s will be (Here t is time in
(1)
second)
(1) 10 V (2) 13 V

(3) 9 V (4) 15 V
16. When magnetising field (H) of 5 A/m is applied to a
(2) material, the net magnetic field inside it becomes
0.8 T. The permeability of the material is
(1) 0.3 (2) 0.64

(3) 0.16 (4) 0.5

17. A dip circle is placed in a plane which is
(3)
perpendicular to the magnetic meridian at that
place. The magnetic needle of the dip circle will
align
(1) Vertically
(2) Horizontally
(4)
(3) At 45° w.r.t. horizontal
(4) Along any direction
13 At the given instant, 2 A current is flowing in the 18. A magnet of magnetic moment 25i Am² is placed
circuit towards right and is increasing at the rate
3 A/s. The potential difference (VA - Va) is along the x-axis in a magnetic field B-(i +2j)T.
2H
The torque acting on the magnet is
A
3 V (1) 25k Nm (2) Zero
(1) 13 V (2) 10 V
(4) -13 V (3) 50kNm (4) 25/5 Nm
(3) -16 V
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 Test-2 (Code-B)
All India Aakash Test Series for
NEET-2024
ACurrent is flowing in a Conductor from east to wont
20 cm 24
19 Two points A and B are located at distance The direction of the magnetic tield just below the
and 30 cm from the centre of a short bar magnet on conductor is
A and
its axial line. The ratio of magnetic induction at (1) Towards west
Bis (2) Towards east
(1) 2:3 (2) 3:2 (3) Towards south
(3) 9:4 (4) 27:8 (4) Towards north
20. Intensity of magnetisation is given as
(1) Pole strength per unit mass 25. If a charged particle is projected an angle of
30° with the direction of uniform
(2) Pole strength per unit volume magnetic field, then
the trajectory of the particle will be
(3) Magnetic moment per unit mass
(1) Straight line (2) Parabola
(4) Magnetic moment per unit volume
(3) Helix
21 A bar magnet of magnetic moment i is placed in a (4) Circle
26 A conducting wire in the form of sine curve is
uniform magnetic field B. The torque experienced placed
by the magnet is in x-y plane in a uniform magnetic field directed
along positive x-axis as shown in the figure. The net
(1) HB (2) i-8 force on the wire due to the magnetic field is
(3) üxB (4) Bxi
22. Two long parallel wires carrying currents are
a L.
arranged as shown in figure. The force per unit
length applied by wire (1) on wire (2) is

10 A 45A
-a

e5 cm
(1) (2) (1) 2bBo (2) bBoi
(1) 5 x 104 N/m (2)) 4 x 10-4 N/m
(3) 2aBoi (4) Zero
(3) 1 x 10 N/m (4) 2 * 104 N/m
27. A particle with charge 6.4 x 10-19 C travels in a
23. Agalvanometer has a resistance of 10 and a current circular orbit with radius 4 mm due to the force
of 2 mA is needed to give a full-scale deflection. The
exerted on it by a perpendicular magnetic feld of
resistance needed to convert this galvanometer into magnitude 1.6 T. The magnitude of linear
an ammeter of 0.2 A range will be nearty
momentum of the particle is (in kg ms)
(1) 0.3 (2) 0.1 2 (2) 11 x 10-22
(1) 21 x 10 22
(3) 1 Q (4) 52 (4) 41 x 10-22
(3) 41 x10-19
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 Test-2 (Code-B) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2034
28. A square frame of side a' placed in X-y plane has 32. A constant current lo is flowing in a finite wire as
current i flowing init, in anticlockwise direction. A shown in figure. The magnetic field produced by it
uniform magnetic field B=(2i +3)) exists in the al point P is
region, the magnitude of torque acting on the frame is
(1) 5ia (2) V13ia
(3) V7ia² (4) Zero
29 A wire of length is used to form a circular coil of
8,
2 turns. The magnetic field at its centre for a current
iis equal to (1) o' (sin, +sine,) (2) (sin0, +sint,)

(1) (2) 21 (3) '0(cose, +cos.,) (4)

4x 2r
(cose, +cose,)
(3) (4) 33. Aproton and an a-particle are moving on straight
4/
30 A thin walled pipe of infinite length carries a current parallel paths with same velocity. They enter a
along its length, then region of uniform magnetic field perpendicular to the
(1) The magnetic field is different at different points velocity and both start moving on circular paths. If
inside the pipe Rp and R represent the radius of curvature of patth
(2) The magnetic field is non-zero and same at all followed by proton and a-particle respectively. then
points inside the pipe (1) R, = 2RP (2) R = Re
(3) The magnetic field at any point inside the pipe is (3) 2R. = Rp (4) R, = 4Re
zero
34 A magnetic dipole is kept in a unifom magnetic fieid
(4) The magnetic field is zero only on the axis of the
pipe at an angle 60° with the field. It wil experience
(1) A force only
31. The magnetic field lines due to a bar magnet are
correctly shown in (2) A torque only
31 Aforce as well as a torque
(4) Neither a force nor a torque

35 A chargeq=-2 uC has an instantaneous velocity

v-(2i -4j+- 3k)× 10° ms in an uniform

magnetic field 8=(5i2j-2k*10 T The

force (in mN) on the charge at this instant is
(3) (1) (4i +38j +48k) (2) (4i -38, +484)
(3) (2i 19j +24k) (4) (3i 19j +24X)
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 Test-2 (Code P
All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024
SECTION-B 40 Anroton enters a region of uniform magnetic field
perpendicularty with veloCity v and start revovine
36 Asemi-circular wire ADC and straight conductor AOC
are carrying current ias shown and are kept in a with time period T. If the proton enters the same feld
uniform magnetic field B perpendicular to the plane of nerpendicularly with velocity 2v, then the time period
will be
the wire frame, then net force on the wire frame will be of revolution
(1) 2T (2) T
B&
(3) - (4) 4T

41
The ful scale deflection current of a moving coil
(2) 2Bir galvanometer is 2 mA. If it is to be converted into a
(1) Zero
(3) 4Bir (4) Bir voltmeter of 10 V range, then the value of resistance
37. The value of time constant for the L-R circuit given which should be connected in series with it will be
in the figure beloW.S, is (consider the resistance of galvanometer to be
negligible)
(1) 100 2 (2) 1000n

(3) 5000 2 (4) 500 2

42. Two points P and Q are located on the axis of
Circular Current carrying coil (radius R) at distance R
(1)2 (2) LR and 2R respectively from the centre of the coil. The
ratio of magnetic field at point P and Q respectively is
(4) (R+ )L
25 125
(2) V8
38. Two long solenoid coils of equal cross-sectional
area A, having ratio of their length in the ratio 2: 5
and ratio of number of turns per unit length equal to 8 16
1:3 respectively. The ratio of self-inductance of two (3) 5 (4) 25
43, When a conducting wire is moved towards
solenoids is
current fiows
(1)
4
(2)
45
positive x-axis on a fixed wire rails, a
of applied
25 8 in clockwise direction. The direction
2 25 uniform magnetic field is
(9) 4
39 Amagnetic needle of magnetic moment Mis making
an angie of 45° with the direction of uniform
magnetic field B. The torque needed to maintain the
needle in this position will be
MB (1) Towards positive x-axis
(1) (2) MB (2) Towards positive y-axis
V2
MB (3) Towards positive z-axis
(3) 2 (4) 2MB (4) Towards negative z-axis

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 Test-2 (Code-B) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024
44. Two coils Aand B are placed close to each other 48. Magnetic field at the centre Cof circular arc due to
have a mutual inductance of5 mH. The current the given systern of current carrying wire as shown
flowing through coil A is given by, i=f- 21 whera i in the figure, is
is in A and t is in s. The magnitude of induced emf
in coil Bat t= 4 s will be
11
(1) 10 mV (2) 20 mV
(3) 30 mV (4) 40 mV (2)
45 A conducting rod AC of length d is rotated about its
end A with an angular velocity o in presence of
uniform magnetic fieid Bdirected perpendicular to the
plane as shown in figure. The value of VA- V is (3)
BO
Ho' Hg 7 1
(2) r6
Bod² Bod (3) Ho7,1) (4) Ho!7 1
(1) (2) 2r6 4r6
2

(3) Bod (4) -Bod 49 When a charged particle enters a region where only
46 Curie temperature is the temperature above which uniform magnetic field is present, then
(1) Speed of the particle must remain constant
(1) Paramagnetic material becomes diamagnetic
(2) Speed of the particle must increase
(2) Paramagnetic material becomes ferromagnetic
(3) Ferromagnetic material becomes diamagnetic (3) Speed of the particle must decrease

(4) Ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic (4) Speed of the particle may increase or decrease
50. The current which flows through the battery in the
47 Two identical thin b¡r magnets each of length L and
given circuit as soon as the switch is closed will be
pole strength m are placed at right angle to each
other as shown in the fiqure. Net magnetic moment
of the system is

>
N (1) V (2)
R 2R
(1) 2mlL (2) V2mlL 2V
(3) (4) Zero
(3) V3ml. (4) mL R

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 Al Inda Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-2 (Code-B)

[CHEMISTRY]
SECTION-A 54. Given below are the two statements
51 Given below are the two statements Statement I: Sulphur dioxide is a colourless gas
Statement I: Rhombic sulphur transforms to which is highly soluble in water
monocinic sulphur when heated above 369 K. Statement I: Sulphur dioxide reacts with
Statement Il: Rhombic sulphur is readily soluble in chlorine in the presence of charcoal to give thionyl
water. chloride.
In light of the above statements choOse the correct
In light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer
answer.
(1) Both statement I and statement Il are correct (1) Both staternent I and statement Il are correct
(2) Statement I is correct but statement I| is
incorrect (2) Both statement I and statement Il are incorrect
(3) Both statement I and statement |l are incorrect (3) Statement I is incorrect but statement Il is correct
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement is (4) Statement I is correct but statement Il is incorrect
Correct 55 Which of the given reactions will liberate ammonia
52 Aqueous silver nitrate on reaction with phosphinic gas?
acid gives (a) NHaC| + NaNO, ’
(1) Ag. NO; and HaPO3
(b) NH4NO
(2) Ag:0. N; and HPO:
(c) (NHa)2SO4 + NaOH ’
(3) Ag. HNO, and H,PO:
(4) Agz0. NO and HsPOa (d) NHACI + Ca(OH)2 ’
53. Consider the following statements (1) (a). (b) and (c) only
(a) Reducing property of H2S is more than H;Se. (2) (c) and (d) only

(b) SOz is reducing while TeOz is an oxidising (3) (a) and (c) only
agent (4) (a). (b). (c) and (d)
(c) H2S is more acidic in nature than H,0 56 Correct order of acid1c strength of the given
Compounds is
The correct statements are
(1) HOCI > HCIO; > HCIO3
(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (b) and (c) only
(2) HCIO; > HCIO, > HOCI
HCIO, > HCIO: > HOCI
(3) (a). (b) and (c)
(4) (a) and (c) only (4) HCIO, > HOCI > HOCIO.

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 Test-2 (Code-B) Al Inda Aakash Test Series for NEET2024

57. The gas evolved on the reaction of aqua reg1a with 61. Most common oxidation states of nickel and
platinum is vanadium respectively are
(1) NO2 (1) +2 and +2 (2) +2 and +5
(3) +4 and +5 (4) +4 and +4
(2) NO
(3) N;O 62. Least stable Cu' halide among the following is
(4) N2 (1) Fluoride
58 Correct order of negative electron gain enthalpy of (2) Chioride
the given elements is Bromide
(1) |> Br > Cl>F (4) lodide

(2) F > C| > Br >| 63 Orthophosphorous acid on heating gives

(3) CI >F> Br >| (1) HaP0, and H4P,O

(4) Cl >F>|>Br (2) PH and HPO

(3) H5PO; and HgPOA
59 Consider the folowing statements
(4) PHs and HaP:0
Manganate ion is purple in colour.
64 Correct order of basiC strength of the given
(b) Manganate ion is tetrahedral in shape and Compounds is
paramagnetic in nature
(1) SbH > AsHs > PH) > NH
(c) Electrolytic OxIdation of Mn, in alkaline
(2) NH3 > AsH,> SbH,> PH,
medium gives MnO,
(3) AsH > NH, > PHs > SbH:
The correct statements are
(4) NH, > PH > AsHy > SbH:
(1) (a) and (b) only
65. Consider the following statements
(2) (b) and (c) only (a) In case of nitrogen, all oxidation states from +1
(3) (a). (b) and (c) to +4 tend to disproportionate in acid solution
(4) (a) and (c) only Nitrogen is restricted to a maximum covalency
colour in of 4.
60 The pair of ions which does not show
aqueous medium is (c) Nitrogen has unique ability to form pr-pr
multiple bonds with itself.
(1) Ni2 and Cu*
The correct statements are
(2) Mn?* and V2
(a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
(3) Sc* and Ti
(a). (b) and (c) (a) and (C) only
(4) Co? and Cr?
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 NEET-2024 Test-2 ICodeB
AH tuda Aakash Test Seues for

Out of the following statements, the incorrect one

, Wbich of the following statements are correct abod
66 70 interstitial compounds?
(1) K:Cr:0: is used as a primary standard in
non-stoichiometric
volumetric analysis (a) They are usually
(2) MnaO is covalent in nature (b) They are chemically very reactive
(3) Aquated Zn is colourless (C) They retain metallic conductivity
KCr:0, oxidises sulphides
(4) Acidified to
(d) They are very hard.
thiosulphate
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only
67. ldentify (X) in the following reaction (2) (a) and (d) only
Mn² +S,o; +H,0 X)+sO +H (3) (a), (c) and (d) only
(1) MnO, (2) MnO? (4) (a). (b) and (d) only
(3) Mn203 (4) MnOz 71. Copper and zinC on reaction with dilute nitrc acid
S8. Negative hydration enthalpy of which of the given respectively give which gases?
ions is highest? (1) NO and N2O (2) NO and N2
(1) Ni* (2) Ti? (3) NO and NO2 (4) NO and NO2
(3) Co?* (4) V2* 72. Match the name of the acids given in Column I with
69. Match the following characteristics given in List-I formula given in Column I.
with respective metal given in List-ll and choose the
Correct option. Column Column I
List-l List-I| a. Pyrophosphoric acid (0) HPO2
(a) The lanthanoid which
() Np b. Pyrophosphorous acid (ii HaP:0
exhibits +4 oxidation state
in oxides C Orthophosphorous acid (ii) HaP:Os
(b) The actinoid which
(i No d Hypophosphorous acid (iv) H3PO
exhibits +7 oxidation state
The correct match is
(c) The lanthanoid having (i) Nd
[Xej4f76s configuration (1) a(ii). b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(d) The actinoid having f4 (2) a(ii), b(iü), c(iv), d(i)
(iv) (3) a(ii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
configuration
(1) a(i). b(ii), c{iv), d) (4) a(iv), b(), c(0), d(ii)
(2) a(ii). bliv), c(i)., d(ü) 73. The species which is not formed on the complete
(3) a(ii). b(i), c(iv), d(i) hydrolysis of XeFz is
(4) a(i), b(ü), c(iv), d(i) (1) Xe (2) HF
(3) O: (4) XeOzF2
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 Test-2 (Code-B) All India Aahash Test Series for NEET-2124

74. Given below are two statements 80. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Noble gases are sparingly soluble in Statement-4: In transition elements the variability of
water
OXidation states arises due to incomplete filling of d
electron orbitals.
Statenent ll: All noble gases have positive
gain enthalpy Statement-ll: In p-block the lower oxidation states
the correct are favoured by the heavier members, the opposite
In light of the above statements, choose is true in the groups of d-block.
answer.
In the light of above slatements, choose the most
(1) Statement l is correct but statement Il is incorrect
appropriate answer from the oplion given below:
(2) Statement l is incorrect but statement Il is correct (1) Both statement I and statement ll are incorrect
(3) Both statement Iand statement ll are incorrec (2) Both statement Iand statement Il are correct
(4) Both statement I and statement ll are correct Ii correct but statement I| is
(3) Statement
75 CIFs on hydrolysis gives incorrect
(1) HF and HOCI (2) HOF and HOCIO incorrect but statement ll is
Statement I is
(3) HOF and HOCIO; (4) HF and HOCIO: correct

76. Chlorine on reaction with cold and dilute NaOH 81. Number of mole(s) of KMnO required to oxidise 1.5
gives moles of C,O ion in acidic medium is
(1) NaCIO; and NaOCI (2) NaCIO: and NaOCI
(1) 0.6 (2) 1.2
(3) NaCi and NaCIO (4) NaCI and NaOCI
(3) 2 (4) 5
77 In Haber's process of manufaclure of ammonia, the Match List-l with List-l.
catalyst and promoter used respectively are
(1) Platinised asbestos and Molybdenum List-! List-|
(2) Vanadium pentoxide and Platinum a Coinage metals () MnO:
(3) Copper chloride and Platinum
b Used in dry cell (iü) TiCl4
(4) Finely divided iron and Molybdenum
of V2 ion is
78 Spin only magnetic moment value c A catalyst used to (ii) Nickel
(1) 1.73 BM (2) 2.84 BM manufacture polythene complexes
(4) 4.90 BM (iv) Group 11
(3) 3.87 BM d Used in polymerisation
is
79 Ceriumn belongs to 4f series. Its atomic number of alkynes elements
58. Which of the following is the correct electronic
Select the correct option
Configuration of cerium?
(2) [Xe) 4f 5d'6? (1) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(i), b(i), civ). d(ii)
(1) [Xe] 4f 5d6s!
(4) (Xel) 4f 5d (3) a(iv), b(i). c(u). d(ii) (4) a(iv), b(iü). c(i), d(i)
(3) (Xe] 4f 6s
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 Test-2 (Code-B)
Al India Aakash
Test Series for NEET-2024

[BOTANY]
SECTION-A 106 WVhat is the use of radioactive DNA probe in the
first utilized by
technique DNA fingerprinting?
101. The term 'linkage' was
Mendel (1) Separation of DNA fragments
(1) Gregor Johann
(2) Hugo de Vries
(2) Extraction of DNA fragments
(3) It makes X-ray film
Carl Correns
(4) T.H. Morgan (4) To identify the specific DNA sequence
102. Transition type of gene mutalion can be seen when 107. Study the folowing tRNA molecules related with
(1) G is replaced by T (2) C is replaced by T their anti-codon pairing with respective codon.
(3) A is replaced by C (4) T is replaced by G Which type(s) of t-RNA is/are impossible?
103. The Okazaki fragments
(1) Are polymerized in the 3' to 5 direction
(2) Are discontinuously synthesised on the strand
with polarity 3' 5
(3) Are joined by ligase enzyme
AAA AUC
(4) Are formed during transcription AUU
UAA UAC

104. Select the correct option A

(1) Only A
Direction of RNA Direction of reading
synthesis (2) Both AandC
of the template DNA
strand (3) Both A and B
(1) 5 ’3 5’3
(4) Only B
(2) 3'’5 3 ’5 108. The distance between genes A and B is
(3) 5'> 3' 3’5 3 map units, between B and Cis 10 map units and
(4) 3'’5 5' ’ 3 betweenC and A is 7 map units, the order of the
genes in a linkage map constructed the abOve
105. What would happen if a mutation occurs in 25t data would perhaps be
codon (ie. - UAC to UAG) of a gene encoding a
(1) A, B,C (2) A, C, B
polypeptide chain of 50 amino acids?
(1) A (3) B, C, A (4) B, A, C
polypeptide of 24 amino acids will be formed
(2) A polypeptide of 50 anino acids will be formed 109. A dihybrid plant with genotype TtRr on self
pollination, produced 400 offsprings with 9 types of
(3) Two polypeptides of 24 and 25 amino acids will genotype. How many seeds will have genotype TtRr?
be formed
(1) 200 (2) 100
(4) A polypeptide of 49 amino acids will be
formed (3) 50 (4) 150
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 Test-2 (Code-B)
All India
Aakash Test Series for
NEET-2024
110. How many genetically different types of gametes will 116. pink
A
be produced by a female Drosophila having snapdragon flower is crossed to a white
following arrangement of genes on sex
snapdragon flower. What is the probability of getting
a red snapdragon?
chromosome?
(1) 1 (2) 1/2
(3) 1/4 (4) Zero
117. Females and males are
heterogametic in (0)_ and
(ü)_ respectively.
(1) 2 (2) 4 (i)
(3) 1 (4) 8 (1) Grasshopper Birds
(2) Birds
111. What is wrong about RNA and protein synthesis? Grasshopper
(1) Only one strand of DNA acts as template for (3) Drosophila Butterflies
mRNA synthesis (4) Moth Birds
(2) DNA polymerase mediates mRNA synthesis 118. Match the name of scientist given in column I with
(3) mRNA passes into cytoplasm and gets attached their respective study material in column Il and
to small ribosomal subunit choose the correct combination from the options
qiven.
(4) tRNAs bring amino acids one by one
112. Which of the following will be a colour-blind female? Column I Column ll
(1) XY (2) X°X° (Scientists) (Experimental
(3) X°X (4) XX material)
113. The gene which show codominance a F. Griffith |() Drosophila
(1) Has one allele dominant over other Meselson and Stahl (ii) Bacteriophage
(2) Are recessive to each other
C Hersheyy and Chase (iiü) Pneumococcus
(3) Express their both alleles in heterozygous
Condition T.H. Morgan (iv) E coli

(4) Are tightly linked (1) a(i), b(ii), c(i). d(iv)

114. Who amongst the following scientists rediscovered (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(i)
Mendel's work?
(3) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(2) W. Bateson
(1) T.H. Morgan (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(ii), d(i)
(3) E. Strasburger (4) Erich von Tschermak
119. A nucleoside does not contain
115. Cystic fibrosis is caused by (1) Nitrogenous base
(1) Recessive autosomal allele
(2)) Ribose sugar
(2)) Dominant autosomal allele
(3) Recessive sex-linked allele (3) Deoxy ribose sugar

(4) Dominant sex-linked allele (4) Phosphate group

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lactose' serves as a Sbe 126, Mutations in keep on accumulating
120 In lac operon, 'inducer generation after generation and form the basis of
for enzyme population,
DNA polyrmorphism in
(1) Transacetylase option.
Fill in the blank with correct
(2) Permease sequences
(1) Coding DNA
(3) B-galactosidase (2) Transcribed mRNA sequences
(4) Transcriptase sequences
(3) Expressed DNA
of the following
121. RNA polymerase binds to which prokaryotes? (4) Non-coding DNA sequences
factors to terminate transcription in
127. Henking observed that in few insects, 50% of the
(1) alpha (2) sigma snerm received a specific nuclear structure. He
(3) rho (4) gamma named this structure as
122. In a double stranded DNA (1) Barr body (2) Z-chromosome
(1) There is 2:1 ratio between purines and (3) X-body (4) Y-body
pyrimidines 128. Read the following stalements
(2) Pitch of the helix is 2 nm
(a) All the daughters will show disorder, if father
(3) Both strands run anti-parallel to each other possesses the same
(4) The ends of each strand have same polarity (b) Does not transmit to son, if mother does not
exhibit disorder
123. Taylor and his colleagues performed experiments
on Vicia faba using Both the above stated features will be applicable for
(1) Tritiated cytidine (1) X-linked dominant gene
(2) Tritiated thymidine (2) Y-linked dominant gene
(3) Radioactive phosphorus (3) AutoSomal dominant gene
(4) Radioactive sufur (4) X-linked recessive gene
124. Condition of a karyotype 2n-1 is called 129. Given below is a pedigree showing inheritance of
(1) Trisomy (2) Polyploidy myotonic dystrophy (M) and the dark ones are
affected individuals.
(3) Euploidy (4) Monosomy
125. The phenomenon in which the presence of one
allele of a gene supresses the expression of another
allele of same gene is known as
(1) Epistasis
(2) Dominance
The possible genotype of person A is
(3) Incormplete dominance
(1) MM (2) Mm
(4) Co-dominance
(3) X"Y (4) mm
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 Test-2 (Code-B) All India Aakash Test Series for
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the
130. Consider the following statements and select 135. In chicks, sex is
determined by
option which include all the correct one(s) only. (1) Size and number of ovum
nucleus
(a) Transiation and transcription occur in (2) Sex chromosomes of father
in eukaryotes. (3) Sex chromosomes of mother
(b) The process of splicing represents the (4) Size of the ovum to be fertilized
dominance of RNA-Worid.
SECTION-B
(c) The split gene arrangement cannot be found in
monocistronic structural genes. 136. Charging of tRNA
(1) Alla, b &c (2) Only b (1) Does not require energy
(3) Onlya &b (4) Onlyb &c (2) Is also called transamination
131. The methodology where the blnd approach for
sequencing the whole genome of an organism (3) Is catalysed by ribozyme
(4) Links tRNA with amino acid
followed by assigning different regions in the
sequence with function is called 137. Sickle cell anaemia is due to mutation in
(1) Gene mapping (1) Gene controlling B-chain of haemoglobin
(2) Expressed sequence tags (2) HBA1 gene
(3) Sequence annotation (3) HBA2 gene
(4) Bioinformatics
(4) a-globin chain gene
132 In prokaryotes, DNA replication is
(1) Semi-conservative in nature 138. A physicist, ö), argued that genetic code is a
combination of_(ü)_ nucleotides
(2) Not catalysed by DNA polymerase
(3) Independent frorm DNA-lemplate Choose the correct option for (i) and (ü).
(4) Catalysed by ribozymes (iü)
133. 100 E. coli cells with N dsDNA are incubated in Har Gobind Khorana 2
N nucleotides. After 40 (1)
medium containing
minutes, how many coli cells will have DNA totally (2) Meselson 3
free from tN? 3
(2) 80 cells
(3) George Gamow
(1) 200 cells
(4) 400 cells (4) Nirenberg 3
(3) 100 celis
134. Inflated pod trait is dominant over constricted pod 139. Read the following stalements and choose the set
inflated pod plant
Uan in garden pea. HeterozygoUs of the
of correct statements.
is crossed with constricted pod plant. Which (a) A typical nucleosome contains 200 bp of DNA
following is most possibie ratio among the following helix.
in Fi generation?
(b) Histone octamer does not contain H1 protein
(1) 302 inflated : 102 constricted
(2) 210 inflated: 95 constricted (c) Euchromatin is transcriptionally inactive
(3) 103 inflated:99 constricted (1) (b) &(c) (2) (a) & (b)
(4) 103 inflated :315 constricted (3) (a) & (c) (4) (b) only
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Test-2 (Code-B)
140 IM the length of a DNA molecule is 1.12 metres, what 44A Erom the following, identify he correct combination
will be the approximate number of base paire? of salient features of genetic code
(1) 33 10 bp (2) 3.3 x 10° bp
(3) 6.6 x 10° bp (4) 6.6 *10 bp (1) Degenerate, non-overlapping. commaless
141. Given below are two statements (2) Universal, degenerate, over-lapping
Statement I: Mendel studied fourteen pairs of (3) Contiguous, over-lapping, degenerate
characters in pea plants and proposed the lawS of (4) Universal, non-degenerate, discontinuous
Inheritance.
145. The average rate of polymerization of DNA in E coli
Statement Il: Characters examined by Mendel in S
his experiment on pea plants were seed shape and
colour, flower colour and position, pod shape and (1) 3000 base pair/second
colour and stem height. (2) 1000 base pair/second
In the light of the above statements, (3) 2000 base
choose the pair/second
correct answer from the option given below:
(4) 4000 base pairisecond
(1) Both statement I and statement Il are correct
(2) Both statement I and 146. Which of the following activities can be
statement il are incorrect performed
(3) Statement I is correct but statement Il is by enzyme DNA dependent RNA polymerase in a
incorrect prokaryote?
(4) Statement Il is correct but statement I is
incorrect
142 Find the correct match (a) Polymerisation of deoxyribonucleotide
(1) Aminoacylation of rRNA First phase of
(b) Unwinding of DNA helix
translation (c) Synthesis in 5 3 direction
(2) Deoxynucleotide monophosphate (d) Joining of Okazaki fragments
Substrate during DNA replication
(e) Ribosomal RNA synthesis
(3) 23S ribosomal RNA ’ Peptidyl transferase in
80S ribosome (1) (a) and (c)
(4) Polynucleotide phosphorylase ’ Template (2) (b). (d) and (e)
independent synthesis (3) (c) and (d)
143. Which of the following represents normal parents (4) (b). (c) and (e)
with 2 unaffected children?
147. DNA fingerprintinginvolves identfying differences
(1) (2) in some specific regions in DNA sequence, called
(1) Repetitive DNA (2) Coding DNA
(3) Mutated DNA
(4) Template DNA

(3
148. The distance between two consecutive base pairs
4) accord1ng to Watson and Crck model of DNA is
(1) 0 34 mm (2) 0.34 nm
(3) 34 nm (4) 34 mm
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149. A disorder caused by non-disiunction in sex 150. Select the incorrect
chromosome is (1)
statement
Transformation experiments were conducted by
(1) Down's syndrome Griffith
(2) Punnett square was developed by a German
(2) Klinefelter's syndrome
scientist
(3) Haemophilia (3) Altman found DNA to be acidic in nature
(4) Sickle cell anemia (4) Meselson and Stahl proved semi-conservative
mode of replication

[ZoOLOGY]
SECTION-A 154. Consider the given lisl.
151. Neanderthal man differs from modern Homo a. Zygote formed by in-vitro fertilisation
sapiens in
b. Sperm can be directly injected into ovum
(1) Having higher cranial capacity
C. Embryos with more than 8 blastomeres are
(2) Having lower cranial capacity transferred into uterus
(3) Having erecl posture d. Ovurn collected from a donor is transferred into
fallopian tube of another female
(4) Being a hominid
152. Consider How many of the above features islare incorrect
the following statements W.r.t.
w.r.l test-tube baby programme?
evolutionary history of vertebrates
(1) Two (2) Three
(a) Coelacanth was caught in South Africa in 1938
(3) Four (4) One
(b) About 65 mya, dinosaurs suddenly disappeared
from the earth. 155. According to the 2011census report, what was the
population growth rate of India?
(c) Snakes evolved from therapsids.
(1) More than 50/1000'year
Select the option with correct statement(s)
(2) More than 150/1000/year
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (a) and (c) only
(3) Less than 201000/year
(3) (a). (b) and (c) (4) (c) only (4) More than 20/1000 year
153. Cho0se the odd one wr.t. analogous structures 156. Pouched mammals in Australia survived and
(1) Flippers of penguins and dolphins flourished because of
(2) Wings of birds and butterfly (1) Large body size

(3) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbila (2) Lack of competition from any other mammal
(4) Sweet potato (stem modification) and potato (3) Many varieties on the same island
(root modification) (4) Divergent evolution
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correctiy explains Darwin's
157. Select the correct
match w.r.t. origin and 4e2 Which of the lollowing
of man
evolution theory?
organs
(1) Dryopithecus More man-ike (1) Use and disUse of
adapt well
(2) Nature selects organisms which can
(2) Australopithecines Fossils in an environment.
discovered in directioniess
13) Mutations are random and
Java
IA) Embryos pass through the adult slages of other
Arose in Africa animals,
(3) Homo sapens
Lived near east 1e2 in 1953, S.L. Miller created electric discharge in a
(4) Homo erectus and central Asia closed flask containing 'A, 'B, NH3 and water
vapour at 800"C and observed the formation of C
158. Ail of f the following are ancestors of mammals
except
Identify 'A. Band C' respectively and select the
(1) Sauropsids correct option from the options given below.
(2) Therapsids
(1) CH), H0 and lipids
(3) PelycOsaurs (4) Synapsids
159. Select the incorrect feature w.r.t. stabilising
(2) CH, O; and polysaccharides
(3) CHs, Hz and amino acids
selection
(1) Peak gets higher and narrowver in the (4) CH, Oz and amino acids
distribution curve. 164. In a population of 1000 individuals, 160 have
(2) It can lead to stabilisation. attached earlobes, which is a recessive character.
(3) More individuals may acquire Calculate the number of individuals who are
peripheral
character value, heterozygous.
(4) More individuals acquire mean character value. (1) 320 (2) 480
160. Select the odd one w.r.t. saltation. (3) 360 (4) 240
(1) Single step 165, AlIl of the following are the possible ill-effects of
change
(2) Cause of speciation contraceptives on the woman's body. except
(3) Large mutation (1) Nausea
(4) Gradual evolution (2) Abdominal pain
161. In England, after industrialisation, there were (3) Still births
more
dark-winged moths than white-winged moths. This (4) Breakthrough bleeding
was due to industrial smoke and soot. 166. Which of the following does not occur in case of
This illustrates an example of vasectomy?
(1) Natural selection (1) There is no sperm in semen
(2) Co-evolution
(2) No sperm occurs in seminiferous tubules
(3) Adaptive radiation
(3) Sperms mature in epididymis
(4) Corivergent evolution
(4) Vas deferens is cut and tied

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167. A couple, who is facing infertility issues, where the 2. Select the incorrect match wrt contraceptive
bul the
male partner has a very low sperm count, methods
female is reproductively normal, will be preferably (1) Hormone releasing IUD- LNG-20
suggested which of the following ARTS?
(2) Barrier method- Nirodh
(1) ZIFT (2) GIFT (3) Surgical method- Tubectomy
(3) Al (4) IUT (4) Oral contraceptive pill - Progestasert
168. The similarity in Cu7 and Multiload 375 is that both 173. Whichof the folowing animals evolved into the first
amphibians that lived on both land and water?
(1) Increase fertilising capacity of sperms
(2) Inhibit menstruation
(1) Lobefins
(2) lchthyosaurs
(3) Make the cervix hostile to sperms (3) Salamanders
(4) Suppress sperm motility (4) Mammals
169. Select the incorrect statement 174. The cranial capacity of Homo habiis was
(1) RTIs can lead to ectopic pregnancy. (1) 1400 cc
(2) Emergency contraceptives are effective if taken 1350 cc
within 72 hours of coitus. 650-800 cc

(3) Estrogen alone or in combination with (4) 900 cc

progestogen can be used by females as 175 Invertebrates were formed and active by the time of
injections or implants. (1) 4 bya
(4) IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms within (2) 500 mya
the uterus. (3) 620 mya
170. According to MTP (Amendment) act, 2017, a (4) 700 mya
pregnancy may be terminated on certain rounds
176. A population will not exist in Hardy-Weinberg
within the first weeks of pregnancy on the equilibrium, if all of the following are present, except
opinion of one registered medical practitioner (1) Gene migration
Choose the correct optiorn to fill in the blank. (2) Mutation
(1) 12-24 (2) 12 (3) Genetic drift
(3) 24- 36 (4) 36 48 (4) Random mating
171. The probable reasons for population explosion 177. Who believed mutation caused speciation and
include all of the following, except termed it as saltation?
(1) Rapid decline in birth rate (1) Lamarck
(2) Decline in MMR (2) Pasteur
(3) Deline in IMR (3) Danwin
(4) Increase in number of people in reproducible age (4) Hugo de Vries
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Test Series or
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and cheetahs are
178. Forelimbs of bats the 1A4 Oral contraceptive pills for fernales Drevent
result/example of conception by inhibiting/preventing all of the
(1) Convergent evolution following, except

(2) Homologous organs (1) Inplantation

(3) Analogous organs (2) Ovulation
(4) Anthropogenic action (3) Entry of sperms through cerix
prop0sed that the
179 Which of the following scientists (4) Spermiation
pre-existing
first form of Iife could have come from 185 The fluid taken for the analysis of foetal ceils r
non-iving organiC molecules?
amniocentesis, s
(1) Oparin (1) Maternal blood
(2) SL. Miller (2) Foetal blood
(3) Thomas Malthus (3) Amniotic fluid
(4) Ernst Haeckel (4) CSF of foetus
180 Firs! non-cellular forms of life appeared
SECTION-B
approx1mately how many years ago?
186. According to Darwin, variations are anc
(1) 20 billion
(2) 3 bilion
Select the correct option to fill the blanks
(3) 4 million
respectively
(4) 4.5 billion (1) Random and directional
181 The ART in which embryos with more than 8 (2) Small and directional
biastomeres are transferred into the uterus, is called
(3) Small and directionless
(1) ZIFT (2) IUT (4) Random and directionless
(3) IU1 (4) GIFT
182 A procedure in which sperm is directly injected into 187. Assertion (A): According to Pasteur, ife comes
the ovum, is called
only from pre-existing life
(1) Artificial inserninaion Reason (R): Louis Pasteur demonstrated that in a
pre-sterilised flask, new organisms arose from killed
(2) ICSI yeast
(3) GIFT
In the light of above statements seiect the corect
(4) ZIFT
option.
183 One of the most WIdely accepted methods of (1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) s not the
Contracepton n India S correct explanation of (A)
(1) Use of IUDs (2) Botth (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(2) Cotus interruptus explanation of (A)
(3) Lactational arnenorrhoea
(3) (A) is true (R) Is false
(4) Use of vaults
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
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188 Match column I with column I| (3) Australopithecines Homo oroctus
Column I
Column l Neanderthal man Modern Homo sapiens
Life out of
came (4) Ramapithecus Homo habilis
Theory of
decaying and rotting Australopithecines - Modern Homo sapiens
special
creatio malerials 191. The ncorrect leature w.r.t Saheli s that it
Cosmzoc () Earth is about 4000 (1) Prevents implantation
theory vears old (2) Does not have any effect on ovulation
Theory of Lite came from pre
(3) Is to be used only within 72 hours of coitus
chemical existing non-living
evolution organic molecules (4) Developed at CDRI, Lucknow
192 One could be free of venereal diseases by all of the
1 Theory of (iV) Units of life called
spontaleous spores were
options given below, except
generation transterred trom (1) Avoid sex with multiple partners
different planets to (2) Avoid use of condoms during coitus
the earth
(3) Avoid sex with unknown partners
Choose the correct optio. (4) Going to a qualified doctor in case of doubt
(1)a), b(v), c). do) (2) au). båv), ci), di) 193 Select the mismatch w.r.t. contraceptive methods
3) a(v)., b(i), c). dii) (4) ai) b), c(iv), d)
(1) CuT -Copper releasing IUD
189 Consider the given features
(2) Diaphragms - Barrier method
a Earty herbivore
(3) Coitus interruptus - Surgical method
b Long necked
c Long tail (4) Lactational amenorrhea - Natural method
d Walked with four legs 194. Consider the given statements.
e Absence of horn and spikes Statement A: Some of the land reptiles went back
The above features are correct w r.t which of the into water to evolve into fish-ike reptiles probably
following dinosaurs? 200 mya.
(1) Brachiosaurus (2) Stegosaurus Statement B: Whales and dolphins are the only
(3) Tyrannosaurus (4) Tnceratops aquatic mammals.
190 Select the correct sequence of ongin of modern Choose the correct option.
Homo sapienS
(1) Only statement A is incorrect
(1) Homo erectus Homo habilis
(2) Only statement A is correct
Australopithecines » Modern Homo sapiens
(3) Both statements A and B are correct
(2) Australopithecines Dryop1thecus
Homo erectus Moden Homo sapiens (4) Both statemnents A and B are incorrect
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