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FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2023

(Held On Wednesday 01st February, 2023) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM

PHYSICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION


SECTION-A In the light of the above statements, choose the
1. A Carnot engine operating between two reservoirs correct answer from the options given below.
1 (1) A is false but R is true
has efficiency . When the temperature of cold
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(2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
1
reservoir raised by x, its efficiency decreases to . explanation of A
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(3) A is true but R is false
The value of x, if the temperature of hot reservoir
(4) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
is 99° C, will be:
explanation of A

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(1) 16.5 K (2) 33 K
(3) 66 K (4) 62 K Official Ans. by NTA (1)
Official Ans. by NTA (4) Allen Ans. (1)
Allen Ans. (4) Sol. Potential of a conducting sphere is
Sol. TH = 99°C = 99 + 273 KQ
V (Solid as well as hollow)
= 372 K. R
TC 1 V1 = V2 and R1 = R2
1 
TH 3  Q1 = Q2
TC 2 2 3. As shown in the figure, a long straight conductor
 ___(1)  TC =  372
TH 3 3 
with semicircular arc of radius m is carrying
= 2 × 124 = 248 K 10
TC  X 1 current I = 3A. The magnitude of the magnetic
1 
TH 6 field. at the center O of the arc is:
5 TC  X (The permeability of the vacuum = 4× 10–7 NA–2)

6 TH
5 248  X

6 372 I = 3A
O
I = 3A
248 + X = 5 × 62 (1) 6T (2) 1T
X = 310 – 248 = 62K
(3) 4T (4) 3T
2. Given below are two statements : One is labelled
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Allen Ans. (4)
Assertion A : Two metallic spheres are charged to
0 I
the same potential. One of them is hollow and Sol. BC     (B at centre of circular arc)
4 R
another is solid, and both have the same radii.
Solid sphere will have lower charge than the 0 I 4  107  3
= 
4R 
hollow one. 4
10
Reason R : Capacitance of metallic spheres
= 3 × 10–6 T = 3T
depend on the radii of spheres.

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4. A coil is placed in magnetic field such that plane of 6. For a body projected at an angle with the
coil is perpendicular to the direction of magnetic horizontal from the ground, choose the correct
field. The magnetic flux through a coil can be statement.
changed: (1) Gravitational potential energy is maximum at
A. By changing the magnitude of the magnetic the highest point.
field within the coil.
(2) The horizontal component of velocity is zero at
B. By changing the area of coil within the
highest point.
magnetic field.
(3) The vertical component of momentum is
C. By changing the angle between the direction of
maximum at the highest point.
magnetic field and the plane of the coil.
(4) The kinetic energy (K.E.) is zero at the highest
D. By reversing the magnetic field direction
abruptly without changing its magnitude. point of projectile motion.
Official Ans. by NTA (1)

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Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below: Allen Ans. (1)
(1) A and B only (2) A, B and C only Sol. At highest point
(3) A, B and D only (4) A and C only Vy = 0
Official Ans. by NTA (2) Vx = ux = u cos 
Allen Ans. (2) Ug = mgh, it is maximum at Hmax.
Sol.   .A 7. Two objects A and B are placed at 15 cm and 25
= BA cos  cm from the pole in front of a concave mirror
Most suitable ans is 2 [Otherwise ABCD] having radius of curvature 40 cm. The distance
5. In an amplitude modulation, a modulating signal between images formed by the mirror is:
having amplitude of X V is superimposed with a (1) 40 cm (2) 60 cm
carrier signal of amplitude Y V in first case. Then, (3) 160 cm (4) 100 cm
in second case, the same modulating signal is
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
superimposed with different carrier signal of
Allen Ans. (3)
amplitude 2Y V. The ratio of modulation index in
the two case respectively will be:
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 1 Sol.
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 4 : 1 X

Official Ans. by NTA (3)


Allen Ans. (3)
by mirror formula
Sol. Modulating Index
1 1 1
A  
 m v u f
Ac
1 1 1
 
1 
X v1 15  20 
Y
1 1 1
X  
2  v1 20 15
2Y
1 2 3  4
 
2 1 60

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v1 = 60 cm D E

1 1 1 Sol.
  C F
v 2  25   20 

1 1 1
  B
v 2 20 25 A

5  4 1 Suppose resistance of each arm is r, then r = R/n


 
100 100
R1R 2
R eq( AB) 
v2 = – 100 cm R1  R 2
d = 60 + 100 = 160 cm r  n  1 r
8. The Young's modulus of a steel wire of length 6 m r   n  1 r
2 11 2
and cross-sectional area 3 mm , is 2 × 11 N/m .
r  n  1 r
The wire is suspended from its support on a given 

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nr
planet. A block of mass 4 kg is attached to the free n 1
 r
end of the wire. The acceleration due to gravity on n
1 
 n  1 R
the planet is of its value on the earth. The
4 n2
elongation of wire is (Take g on the earth = 10 10. As shown in the figure a block of mass 10 kg lying
on a horizontal surface is pulled by a force F acting
m/s2):
at an angle 30°, with horizontal. For s = 0.25, the
(1) 1 cm (2) 1 mm
block will just start to move for the value of F:
(3) 0.1 mm (4) 0.1 cm
[Given g = 10 ms–2]
Official Ans. by NTA (3) F
Allen Ans. (3)
Sol. Tension (F) = mg 30°
10
 4  10N
4 (1) 33.3 N (2) 25.2 N
FL (3) 20 N (4) 35.7 N
L 
AY Official Ans. by NTA (2)
10  6 Allen Ans. (2)

3  10 6  2  1011 F

= 10–4 m = 0.1 mm 10 kg
30°

9. Equivalent resistance between the adjacent corners Sol.


of a regular n-sided polygon of uniform wire of N = Mg – F Sin 30°
resistance R would be: F F 200  F
 mg   100  
2 2 2
 n  1 R  n  1 R F Cos 30° = N
(1) (2)
n 2
 2n  1 
F  200  F 
3  0.25   
n R2
 n  1 R 2  2 
(3) (4)
n 1 n
4 3F  200  F
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
200
Allen Ans. (1) F  25.22
4 3 1
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11. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as 13. Choose the correct length (L) versus square of time
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. period (T2) graph for a simple pendulum executing
Assertion A : For measuring the potential simple harmonic motion.

difference across a resistance of 600 , the T2


voltmeter with resistance 1000 will be preferred (1)
over voltmeter with resistance 4000.
Reason R : Voltmeter with higher resistance will O L

draw smaller current than voltmeter with lower


T2
resistance.
(2)
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
O L

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below.
(1) A is not correct but R is correct
T2
(2) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
(3)
explanation of A
(3) Both A and R are correct but R is not the O L

correct explanation of A
(4) A is correct but R is not correct T2

Official Ans. by NTA (1) (4)


Allen Ans. (1)
O L
Sol. Error of voltmeter decreases with increase in its
resistance. Official Ans. by NTA (3)
12. Choose the correct statement about Zener diode: Allen Ans. (3)
(1) It works as a voltage regulator in reverse bias Sol. T  2
g
and behaves like simple pn junction diode in
forward bias. 4 2
T2  
g
(2) It works as a voltage regulator in both forward
and reverse bias. T2  

(3) It works a voltage regulator only in forward 14. The escape velocities of two planets A and B are in
bias. the ratio 1 : 2. If the ratio of their radii respectively
is 1 : 3, then the ratio of acceleration due to gravity
(4) It works as a voltage regulator in forward bias
of planet A to the acceleration of gravity of planet
and behaves like simple pn junction diode in
B will be:
reverse bias.
4 3
(1) (2)
Official Ans. by NTA (1) 3 2
Allen Ans. (1) 2 3
(3) (4)
Sol. Woks as voltage regulator in reverse bias and as 3 4

simple P-n junction in forward bias. Official Ans. by NTA (4)


Allen Ans. (4)

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4 16. Figures (a), (b), (c) and (d) show variation of force
2G R3
2GM 3 with time.
Sol. Ve    C .R
R R
F(N)
Ve1 R1 1 1
  0.5
Ve 2 R2 2 2

R12 1 1
 
R 22 2 4

R1 1 0 Fig(a) 1.0 t(s)



R2 3 F(N)

4
G R3   0.5
GM 3
g 2  C.R

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R R2

g1 1R1 1 R 22 R1
  
g 2 2 R 2 4 R12 R 2 0 Fig(b) 2.0 t(s)

1 R2 3 F(N)
  
4 R1 4 0.75

15. An electron of a hydrogen like atom, having Z = 4,


jumps from 4th energy state to 2nd energy state, The
energy released in this process, will be: 0 Fig(c) 1.0 t(s)
(Given Rch = 13.6 eV) F(N)
Where R = Rydberg constant
0.5
c = Speed of light in vacuum
h = Planck's constant
(1) 13.6 eV
0 Fig(d) 2.0 t(s)
(2) 10.5 eV
The impulse is highest in figure.
(3) 3.4 eV
(1) Fig (c) (2) Fig (b)
(4) 40.8 eV
(3) Fig (a) (4) Fig (d)
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Allen Ans. (4) Allen Ans. (2)
1 1 Sol. Impulse = Area under F = t curve
Sol.    Z2  2  2  eV
2 4  1 1
(a)  1  0.5  N.s
2 4
1 1 
 13.6  (4)2    eV.
 4 16  (b) 0.5 × 2 = 1 N.s (maximum)
1 3
 13.6 4  1 eV (c)  1  0.75  N.s
2 8
= 13.6 × 3 = 40.8 eV 1 1
(d)  2  0.5  N.s
2 2

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17. If the velocity of light c, universal gravitational 19. The ratio of average electric energy density and
constant G and planck's constant h are chosen as total average energy density of electromagnetic
fundamental quantities. The dimensions of mass in wave is:
the new system is: (1) 2 (2) 1
 1 1  1
(1) h 2 c 2 G1  (2)  h1c1G 1  (3) 3 (4)
2
 
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
 1 1 1   1 1 1 
(3) h 2 c 2 G 2  (4) h 2 c 2 G 2  Allen Ans. (4)
   
1
Official Ans. by NTA (4) Sol. < uE > = < uB > = < utotal >
2
Allen Ans. (4)
uE 1
Sol. Say dimensional formale of mass is Hx Cy Gz So 
u total 2

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M1 = (ML2T–1)x (LT–1) (M–1L3T–2)Z
20. The threshold frequency of metal is f0. When the
M1L0T0 = Mx – z L2x + y + 3z T–x–y–2z
light of frequency 2f0 is incident on the metal plate,
on comparing both side
x–z=1 the maximum velocity of photoelectron is .

2 x + y + 3z = 0 When the frequency of incident radiation is


– x – y – 2z = 0 increased to 5f. the maximum velocity of
On solving above equations we get
photoelectrons emitted is . The ratio of  to 
1 1 1
x y z is:
2 2 2
18. For three low density gases A, B, C pressure 1 1 1 1
(1)  (2) 
2 2 2 8
versus temperature graphs are plotted while
keeping them at constant volume, as shown in the 1 1  1
(3)  (4) 1 
figure. 2 16 2 4
P(atm) Gas A Official Ans. by NTA (1)
Gas B
Gas C Allen Ans. (1)
Temperature (°C)
K 0°C Sol. Kmax = hf – hf0

The temperature corresponding to the point 'K' is: For f = 2f0


(1) –273°C (2) –100°C 1
m V12 = 2 h f0 – h f0 = h f0
(3) –373°C (4) –40°C 2
Official Ans. by NTA (1) For f = 5 f0
Allen Ans. (1) 1
m V22 = 5 h f0 – h f0 = 4h f0
Sol. For isochoric process 2
P R V1 1
 n  cons tan t 
T V V2 2
nR
P  t  273 
V
If P = 0  t = – 273°C
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SECTION-B
21. For a train engine moving with speed of 20 ms–1.
Sol.
the driver must apply brakes at a distance of 500 m
before the station for the train to come to rest at the
station. If the brakes were applied at half of this I = Icm + Md2

distance, the train engine would cross the station MR 2


  MR 2
2
with speed x ms–1. The value of x is ______
3
(Assuming same retardation is produced by brakes)  MR 2
2
Official Ans. by NTA (200) x=3
Allen Ans. (200) 24. Nucleus a having Z = 17 and equal number of
Sol. u = 20 m/s, S1 = 500 m, v = 0 protons and neutrons has 1.2 MeV binding energy
By third equation of mation per nucleon.

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4 Another nucleus B of Z = 12 has total 26 nucleons
0 = (20)2 – 2a. 500  a = m / s2
10 and 1.8 MeV binding energy per nucleons.
u = 20 m/s, S2 = 250 m, v = ? The difference of binding energy of B and A will
2 2
v = (20) – 2a. 250 be ____MeV.
= v  200m / s Official Ans. by NTA (6)

x = 200 Allen Ans. (6)


Sol. For A mass number = 34
22. A force F = (5 + 3y2) acts on a particle in the y-
Total binding energy = 1.2 × 34 = 40.8 MeV
direction, where F is newton and y is in meter. The
For B mass number = 26
work done by the force during a displacement from
total binding energy = 1.8 × 26 MeV
y = 2m to y = 5m is ______j.
= 46.8 MeV
Official Ans. by NTA (132)
Difference of BE = 6 MeV
Allen Ans. (132)
25. A square shaped coil of area 70 cm2 having 600
Sol. F = 5 + 3y2
turns rotates in a magnetic field of 0.4 wbm–2,
5


W   5  3y 2 dy  about an axis which is parallel to one of the side of
2 the coil and perpendicular to the direction of field.
5
 3y3  If the coil completes 500 revolution in a minute,
 5y  
3 2 the instantaneous emf when the plane of the coil is

inclined at 60° with the field, will be ____ V.
= 132 J
22
23. Moment of inertia of a dise of mass M and radius (Take   )
7
MR 2
'R' about any of its diameter is . The moment Official Ans. by NTA (44)
4
Allen Ans. (44)
of inertia of this disc about an axis normal to the
Sol. N = 600, A = 70 × 10–4 m2, B = 0.4T
disc and passing through a point on its edge will
500  2 100
x   rad / s
be, MR2. The value of x is _____. 60 6
2
E= NAB sint t is angle b/w A & B
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
100  1
Allen Ans. (3) = 600 × 70 × 10–4 × 0.4 × 
6 2
= 44 V
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26. A block is fastened to a horizontal spring. The 10V 20V 20V
O
block is pulled to a distance x = 10 cm from its 10 
Sol. 10V
equilibrium position (at x = 0) on a frictionless 20V
10  
surface from rest. The energy of the block at x = 5
cm is 0.25 J. The spring constant of the spring is 10V  10 0V
–1
____Nm .
20  10
Official Ans. by NTA (50) I1  I2   1A
10
Allen Ans. (67)
I3 = 1A
x 0 = 10cm
I1  I3
Sol. 2
I2

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1 2
Ui  kx 0
2 28. As shown in the figure, in Young's double slit

Ki = 0 experiment, a thin plate of thickness t = 10 m and

refractive index is inserted infront of slit

S1. The experiment is conducted in air (= 1)


2
1 x 
Uf  k  0  and uses a monochromatic light of wavelength
2  2

Kf = 0.25 J  = 500 nm. Due to the insertion of the plate,

1 2 1 x2 central maxima is shifted by a distance of x0. 0 is


kx 0  0  k 0  0.25
2 2 4 the fringe-width before the insertion of the plate.
1 3 1
k x 20  The value of the x is_____.
2 4 4
t
1 3 200
k  1 k  N/m S1
2 100 3 
P
= 67 N/m
S2
I1  I3
27. In the given circuit the value of is:
I2 Official Ans. by NTA (4)
10 V 20 V Allen Ans. (4)
10 
I1 t    1
10  Sol. Fringe shift = B
I2 

10  106 1.2  1
13 10   B
5  10 7
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
10 –5  0.2
Allen Ans. (2)  4
5  10 7

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29. A cubical volume is bounded by the surfaces 30. The surface of water in a water tank of cross
x = 0, x = a, y = 0, y = a, z = 0, z = a. The electric
section area 750 cm2 on the top of a house is h m.
ˆ Where
field in the region is given by E  E0 x i.
above the tap level. The speed of water coming out
4 –1 –1
E0 = 4 × 10 NC m . If a = 2 cm, the charge
through the tap of cross section area 500 mm2 is
contained in the cubical volume is Q × 10–14C. The
value of Q is____. dh
30 cm/s. At that instant, is x × 10–3 m/s. The
Take 0 = 9 × 10–12 C2/Nm2) dt

Official Ans. by NTA (288) value of x will be_____.


Allen Ans. (288)
y
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
B
Allen Ans. (2)
C

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A Sol. A1V1 = A2 V2
x

Sol. D 750 × 10–4 V1 = 500 × 10–6 × 0.3

E  E0 xiˆ 500  3  10 3
V1  m/s
750
net  ABCD  E0a.a2

q en = 2 × 10–3 m/s
 E0 a 3
0 dh
 2  10 –3 m / s
qen = E0 0 a3 dt

= 4 × 104 × 9 × 10–12 × 8 × 10–6


= 288 × 10–14 C
Q = 288
Ans. 288

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FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2023
(Held On Wednesday 01st February, 2023) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM

CHEMISTRY TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION


SECTION-A 34. The graph which represents the following reaction
31. In a reaction, is :
OH OH OCOCH 3
OH 
COOCH 3 COOH COOH (C6 H 5 )3 C  Cl 
Pyridine (C 6 H 5 )3 C  OH
‘Y’ ‘X’

reagents ‘X’ and ‘Y’ respectively are : rate rate


(1) (CH3CO)2O/H+ and CH3OH/H+,  (1) (2)
(2) (CH3CO)2O/H+ and (CH3CO)2O/H+
(3) CH3OH/H+,  and CH3OH/H+,  [(C6 H5) 3C–Cl] –
[OH ]
(4) CH3OH/H+  and (CH3CO)2O/H+

®
Official Ans. by NTA (1) rate rate
Allen Ans. (1) (3) (4)
O

OH OH O–C–CH 3
+ COOH COOH
COOCH 3 CH 3OH/H
[(C6 H5) 3C–Cl]
+
(CH 3CO)2O/H
[Pyridine]
Sol.
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
32. The correct order of bond enthalpy (kJ mol–1) is :
Allen Ans. (3)
(1) Si – Si > C – C > Sn – Sn > Ge – Ge
Sol. (It is SN1 reaction so rate of reaction depends on
(2) Si – Si > C – C > Ge – Ge > Sn – Sn
the concentration of alkyl halide only.
(3) C – C > Si – Si > Sn – Sn > Ge – Ge
(4) C – C > Si – Si > Ge – Ge > Sn – Sn 35. ‘X’ is : HF
+ X
Official Ans. by NTA (4)  Major product
Allen Ans. (4)
Sol. (Bond enthalpy order
C – C > Si – Si > Ge – Ge > Sn – Sn)
33. All structures given below are of vitamin C. Most (1) (2)
stable of them is :
OH
(1) HO O
O
(2)
H
OH OH
(3) (4)

(3) (4)
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
Allen Ans. (1)
Official Ans. by NTA (1) Sol.
Allen Ans. (1)
Sol. H-bonding stabilised vitamin C

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36. The complex cation which has two isomers is : 39. Which element is not present in Nessler’s reagent ?
(1) [Co(H2O)6]3+ (2) [Co(NH3)5Cl]2+ (1) Mercury
(3) [Co(NH3)5NO2]2+ (4) [Co(NH3)5Cl]+
(2) Potassium
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
Allen Ans. (3) (3) Iodine
Sol. ([Co(NH3)5NO2]2+ (4) Oxygen
Two linkage isomers possible
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
NO2  Ambidentate ligand
37. Given below are two statements : Allen Ans. (4)
Statement I : Sulphanilic acid gives esterification Sol. (Nessler’s Reagent  K2[HgI4]
test for carboxyl group.
40. Given below are two statements : one is labelled
Statement II : Sulphanilic acid gives red colour in
Lassigne’s test for extra element detection. as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
In the light of the above statements, choose the Reason (R).
most appropriate answer from the options given
Assertion (A) : -halocarboxylic acid on reaction

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below :
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is with dil. NH3 gives good yield of -amino
incorrect. carboxylic acid whereas the yield of amines is very
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
low when prepared from alkyl halides.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is Reason (R) : Amino acids exist in zwitter ion form
correct. in aqueous medium.
Official Ans. by NTA (4) In the light of the above statements, choose the
Allen Ans. (4)
O correct answer from the options given below :
= =

H2N – – S – OH
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
Sol.
correct explanation of (A).
Sulphanilic acid O
Does not show esterification test. (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
Presence of both sulphur and nitrogen give red correct explanation of (A).
colour in Lassigne’s test. (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
38. Given below are two statements : one is labelled
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R). Official Ans. by NTA (1)
Assertion (A) : Gypsum is used for making Allen Ans. (2)
fireproof wall boards.
41. The industrial activity held least responsible for
Reason (R) : Gypsum is unstable at high
temperatures. global warming is :
In the light of the above statements, choose the (1) manufacturing of cement
correct answer from the options given below :
(2) steel manufacturing
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A). (3) Electricity generation in thermal power plants.
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct. (4) Industrial production of urea
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct. Official Ans. by NTA (4)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
Allen Ans. (4)
correct explanation of (A).
Official Ans. by NTA (1) Sol. In urea production NH3 and CO2 consumed so least
Allen Ans. (1) responsible for global warming.
Sol. (Gypsum is used for making fireproof wall boards.

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42. The structures of major products A, B and C in the 43. Given below are two statements : one is labelled
following reaction are sequence. as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
O Reason (R).
NaHSO3, dil. HCl LiAlH4
H NaCN, H2O
[A] [B] Assertion (A) : Cu2+ in water is more stable than
Cu+.
HCl/H2O
[C] Reason (R) : Enthalpy of hydration for Cu2+ is

(1) A =
OH CN
, much less than that of Cu+.
H In the light of the above statements, choose the
HO CHO correct answer from the options given below :
B= (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
H
, correct explanation of (A).
HO CO2H
C= (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
H (3) (1) is not correct but (R) is correct.

®
OSO3Na (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
(2) A = ,
correct explanation of (A).
H
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
OH
Allen Ans. (1)
B=
H Sol. 2Cu+  Cu2+ + Cu
,
Cl The stability of Cu2+(aq) rather than Cu+(aq), is due
C= to the much more negative hydH of Cu2+(aq) than
H Cu+(aq), which more than compensates for the
HO SO3H second ionisation enthalpy of Cu.
(3) A = ,
H 44. The starting material for convenient preparation of
deuterated hydrogen peroxide (D2O2) in laboratory
B= OH
, is:
HO SO2Cl (1) K2S2O8 (2) 2-ethylanthraquinol
C= (3) BaO2 (4) BaO
H
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
HO CN
(4) A = , Allen Ans. (1)
H
Sol. (K2S2O8(s) + 2D2O(l)  2KDSO4(aq.) + D2O2
HO NH2 45. In figure, a straight line is given for Freundrich
B=
H 1
, Adsorption (y = 3x + 2.505). The value of and
HO CO2H n
C= log K are respectively.
H
Y
Official Ans. by NTA (4) x
log m I
Allen Ans. (4) n
OH OH
CN CH2 – NH2
LiAlH4
log K
H H
(A) (B) log P X
Sol.
HO (1) 0.3 and log 2.505 (2) 0.3 and 0.7033
COOH
HCl + H2O
(3) 3 and 2.505 (4) 3 and 0.7033

H
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
Allen Ans. (3)
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x 48. The effect of addition of helium gas to the
Sol.  Kp1/ n
m following reaction in equilibrium state, is :
x 1
log  log k  log P
m n PCI5 (g) PCl3 (g)  Cl2 (g)
1 (1) the equilibrium will shift in the forward
Y = 3x + 2.505,  3 , log K = 2.505)
n direction and more of Cl2 and PCl3 gases will be
46. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
produced.
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(2) the equilibrium will go backward due to
(R).
suppression of dissociation of PCl5.
Assertion (A) : An aqueous solution of KOH
(3) helium will deactivate PCl5 and reaction will
when for volumetric analysis, its concentration
stop.
should be checked before the use.
(4) addition of helium will not affect the
Reason (R) : On aging, KOH solution absorbs

®
equilibrium.
atmospheric CO2.
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
In the light of the above statements, choose the
Allen Ans. (A & D)
correct answer from the options given below.
Sol. PCI5 (g) PCl3 (g)  Cl2 (g)
(1) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(Case 1 : At constant P – volume will increase so
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
reaction will shift in forward direction then answer
correct explanation of (A)
will be A
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
Case 2 : At constant volume no change in active
correct explanation of (A)
mass so reaction will not shift in any direction then
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
answer will be D.
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
49. For electron gain enthalpies of the elements
Allen Ans. (3)
denoted as egH, the incorrect option is :
Sol. KOH absorb CO2
(1) egH (Cl) <egH (F)
So its concentration should be checked.
(2) egH (Se) <egH (S)
47. Which one of the following sets of ions represents
a collection of isoelectronic species? (3) egH (I) <egH (At)

(Given : Atomic Number : F :9 , Cl : 17, Na = 11, (4) egH (Te) <egH (Po)

Mg = 12, Al = 13, K = 19, Ca = 20, Sc = 21) Official Ans. by NTA (2)


(1) (Li+ , Na+ , Mg2+ , Ca2+ Allen Ans. (2)
(2) (Ba2+ , Sr2+ , K+ , Ca2+ Sol. (1) egH (Cl) <egH (F)
(3) (N3– , O2– , F– , S2– (–345) (– 328) Correct
+ – 2+
(4) (K , Cl , Ca , Sc 3+
(2) egH (Se) <egH (S)
Official Ans. by NTA (4) (–195) (– 200) Incorrect
Allen Ans. (4) (3) egH (I) <egH (At)
K  Cl1 Ca 2  Sc 3 (–295) (– 270) Correct
Sol.
18 18 18 18 (4) egH (Te) <egH (Po)
(–190) (– 183) Correct

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50. O–O bond length in H2O2 is X than the O–O bond 52. Among following compounds, the number of those
length in F2O2. The O – H bond length in H2O2 is present in copper matte is_________.
Y than that of the O–F bond in F2O2.
A. CuCO3
Choose the correct option for X and Y from the
given below. B. Cu2S
(1) X – shorter, Y – shorter
C. Cu2O
(2) X – shorter, Y – longer
(3) X – longer, Y – longer D. FeO
(4) X – longer, Y - shorter Official Ans. by NTA (3)
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
Allen Ans. (1)
Allen Ans. (4)
Sol. According to bent rule more electronegative atom Sol. FeS and Cu2S, present in copper matte.
occupy less s-characters so bond length increases. 53. Among the following, the number of tranquilizer/s

®
O – H bond will be short than O – F bond due to is/are_________.
small size of H than F.
A. Chloroliazepoxide

SECTION-B B. Veronal
51. 0.3 g of ethane undergoes combustion at 27°C in a C. Valium
bomb calorimeter. The temperature of calorimeter
D. Salvarsan
system (including the water) is found to rise by
0.5°C. The heat evolved during combustion of Official Ans. by NTA (3)
ethane at constant pressure is ________kJ mol–1.
Allen Ans. (3)
(Nearest integer)
Sol. (chlorodiazepoxide, Veronal, Valium is
[Given : The heat capacity of the calorimeter
tranquilizer where as salvarsan is antibiotic.
system is 20 kJ K–1, R = 8.3 JK–1 mol–1.
54. A B
Assume ideal gas behaviour.
Atomic mass of C and H are 12 and 1 g mol–1 The above reaction is of zero order. Half life of
respectively] this reaction is 50 min. The time taken for the
Official Ans. by NTA (1006) concentration of A to reduce to one-fourth of its
Allen Ans. (1006) initial value is________min.
Sol. (Bomb calorimeter  const volume
(Nearest integer)
Heat released
By combustion of 1 mole Official Ans. by NTA (75)
20  0.5 Allen Ans. (75)
C2H6 (U) = –  30 = –1000 kJ
0.3
Sol. Assume reaction starts with 1 mole A
C2H6(g) + 7/2 O2(g)  2CO2(g) + 3H2O(l)
a 1
ng = 2 – (2 + 7/2) = - (7/2) ( t1/2  ,K 
2k 2  50
H = U + nRT For 75% completion
= – 1000 – 7/2 × 8.3 × 300 kJ a
a  kt
= – 1000 – 6.225 4
= – 1006 kJ 3 a 3 100
So heat released = 1006 kJ mol-1 t    75
4k 4 a

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55. 20% of acetic acid is dissociated when its 5 g is [Given : Ksp(AgBr) = 4.9×10–13 at 298K
added to 500 mL of water. The depression in
 0Ag  6  103 Sm 2 mol –1
freezing point of such water is _______ × 10–3 °C.
Atomic mass of C, H and O are 12, 1 and 16 a.m.u.  0Br   8  103 Sm2 mol –1

respectively.
 0NO  7  103 Sm2 mol –1 ]
3
[Given : Molal depression constant and density of
water are 1.86 K kg mol–1 and 1 g cm–3 Official Ans. by NTA (14)

respectively. Allen Ans. (Bonus)

Official Ans. by NTA (372) Sol. [Ag+] = 10–5

Allen Ans. (372)  NO3   10 –5

®
Sol. i = 1 + (n – 1) 
Ksp
(i = 1 + 0.2 (2 – 1) = 1.2  Br     4.9  10 –8
 Ag  
Tf = i Kf m
5  1000
Tf = 1.2 × 1.86 × k
60  500 m 
1000  M
tf = 3.72
Tf = 372 × 10-2 For Ag+

56. The molality of a 10% (v/v) solution of di-bromine K Ag 


6  103 
solution in CCl4 (carbon tetrachloride) is 'x'. x = 1000  10 –5
________ × 10–2 M. (Nearest integer) KAg+ = 6 × 10–5
[Given : molar mass of Br2 = 160 g mol–1
 6000×10–8
atomic mass of C = 12 g mol–1
for Br–
–1
atomic mass of Cl = 35.5 g mol
K Br 
–3 8  103 
density of dibromine = 3.2 g cm 1000  4.9  10 –8
density of CCl4 = 1.6 g cm–3] KBr– = 39.2 × 10–8
Official Ans. by NTA (139)
for NO3
Allen Ans. (139)
K NO
Sol. (10 ml solute in 90 ml solvent 7  103  3

1000  10 –5
mass of solute = 10 × 3.2 = 32g
mass of solvent = 90 × 1.6g K NO  7  10 –5
32  1000
3

m= = 1.388
160  90  1.6 = 7000 × 10–8
-2
m = 138.8 × 10 = 139
Conductivity of solution
57. 1×10–5 M AgNO3 is added to 1 L of saturated
solution of AgBr. The conductivity of this solution  (6000 + 7000 + 39.2) × 10–8

at 298 K is ______×10–8 S m–1.  13039. 2 × 10–8 S m–1

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58. Testosterone, which is a steroidal hormone, has the 60. A metal M crystallizes into two lattices :- face
following structure. centred cubic (fcc) and body centred cubic (bcc)
OH with unit cell edge length of 2.0 and 2.5 Å
CH3
respectively. The ratio of densities of lattices fcc to
CH3
bcc for the metal M is _______.

(Nearest integer)
O Testosterone
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
The total number of asymmetric carbon atom/s in
Allen Ans. (4)
testosterone is ______
Z M
Sol. d
Official Ans. by NTA (6) NAa3
4  Mw

®
Allen Ans. (6)
d FCC N A  (2)3
OH   3.90
CH3 d BCC 2  Mw
* N A  (2.5)3
*
CH3
* *
*
*

O
Sol. Testosterone

59. The spin only magnetic moment of [Mn(H2O)6]2+


complexes is _______B.M. (Nearest integer)

(Given : Atomic no. of Mn is 25)

Official Ans. by NTA (6)

Allen Ans. (6)


Sol. ([Mn(H2O)6]2+
Mn2+ = 3d5
µ  5(5  2)  5.91BM

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Final JEE-Main Exam January, 2023/01-02-2023/Evening Session

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2023


(Held On Wednesday 01st February, 2023) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM

MATHEMATICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION


SECTION-A ìï æ1 - x ö -1 æ 1 - x
2
ö üï
62. Let S= íx Î R : 0 < x < 1and 2 tan -1 ç ÷= cos ç 1 + x2 ÷ý . If
îï è 1 + x ø è ø þï
2n 2 + 3n + 4
¥
61. The sum å is equal to :
n= 1 ( 2n ) ! n(S) denotes the number of elements in S then :
1
11e 7 (1) n(S) = 2 and only one element in S is less then .
(1) + 2
2 2e
1
13e 5 (2) n(S) = 1 and the element in S is more than .
(2) + -4 2
4 4e
1
11e 7 (3) n(S) = 1 and the element in S is less than .
(3) + -4 2
2 2e

®
(4) n(S) = 0
13e 5
(4) + Official Ans. by NTA (3)
4 4e
Allen Ans. (3)
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Sol. 0 < x < 1
Allen Ans. (2)
-1 æ 1 - x ö
2
æ1 - x ö
¥
2n 2 + 3n + 4 2 tan -1 ç ÷ = cos ç 2 ÷
Sol. å
n =1 ( 2n ) ! è1 + x ø è1 + x ø

1 ¥ 2n ( 2n - 1 ) + 8n + 8 æ pö
tan -1 x = q Î ç 0, ÷ \ x = tan q
å
2 n =1 (2n ) ! è 4ø

1 ¥ 1 ¥
1 ¥
1 æ æp öö
2 tan -1 ç tan ç - q ÷ ÷ = cos -1 (cos 2q)
å
2 n =1 ( 2n - 2 ) !
+ 2ån =1 ( 2n - 1 ) !
+4 å
n =1 ( 2n ) ! è è4 øø
1 1 1 æp ö p p
e =1 +1 + + + + ..... 2 ç - q ÷ = 2q \ 4q = \q =
2! 3! 4 ! è4 ø 2 8
1 1 1 p
e-1 = 1 - 1 + - + + ..... x = tan \ x = 2 - 1 ; 0.414
2! 3! 4 ! 8
æ 1ö æ 1 1 ö r r
ç e + e ÷ = 2 ç1 + 2! + 4 ! + ....... ÷ 63. Let a = 2iˆ - 7jˆ + 5kˆ , b = iˆ + kˆ and
è ø è ø
r r
1 æ 1 1 ö c = iˆ + 2jˆ - 3kˆ be three given vectors. If r is a
e- = ç1 + + + ..... ÷
e è 3! 5! ø r r r r r r
vector such that r ´ a = c ´ a and r g b = 0 , then
Now r
r is equal to :
1æ ¥ 1 ö ¥
1 ¥
1
çç å ÷÷ + 2å + 4å 11
2 è n =1 ( 2n - 2 ) ! ø n =1 ( 2n - 1 ) ! n =1 ( 2n ) ! (1) 2
7
é 1ù é 1ù æ 1 ö
e+ ú êe - e ú çe+ e -2÷ 11
1ê e (2)
= ê ú +2ê ú + 4ç ÷ 7
2ê 2 ú ê 2 ú çç 2 ÷÷
ëê úû êë úû è ø 11
(3) 2
æ 1ö 5
çe + e ÷
= è ø + e - 1 + 2e + 2 - 4 914
(4)
4 e e 7
13 5 Official Ans. by NTA (1)
= e+ -4
4 4e Allen Ans. (1)

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Final JEE-Main Exam January, 2023/01-02-2023/Evening Session
r
Sol. a = 2iˆ - 7jˆ + 5kˆ 65. Two dice are thrown independently. Let A be the
r event that the number appeared on the 1st die is less
b = iˆ + kˆ than the number appeared on the 2nd die, B be the
r
c = iˆ + 2jˆ - 3kˆ event that the number appeared on the 1st die is
r r r r r r r
r ´ a = c ´ a Þ (r - c ) ´ a = 0 even and that on the second die is odd, and C be
r r r the event that the number appeared on the 1st die is
\ r = c + la
odd and that on the 2nd is even. Then
r r r r r r
r . b = 0 Þ c .b + l b . a = 0 (1) the number of favourable cases of the event
2 (A È B) Ç C is 6
–2 + l(7) = 0 Þ l =
7 (2) A and B are mutually exchusive
r
r r 2a 1
\r =c +
7 7
(
= 11iˆ - 11kˆ ) (3) The number of favourable cases of the events
A, B and C are 15, 6 and 6 respectively
r 11 2 (4) B and C are independent
|r|=
7 Official Ans. by NTA (1)

®
1é 1 3ù Allen Ans. (1)
64. If A = ê ú , then : Sol. A : no. on 1st die < no. on 2nd die
2 êë- 3 1 úû
A : no. on 1st die = even & no. of 2nd die = odd
(1) A30 – A25 = 2I
C : no. on 1st die = odd & no. on 2nd die = even
(2) A30 + A25 + A = I
n(A) = 5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 15
(3) A30 + A25 – A = I
n(B) = 9
(4) A30 = A25
n(C) = 9
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
n((A È B) Ç C) = (A Ç C) È (B Ç C)
Allen Ans. (3)
= (3 + 2 + 1) + 0 = 6.
1é 1 3ù Which of the following statements is a tautology ?
Sol. A= ê ú 66.
2 êë- 3 1 úû (1) p ® (p L ( p ® q))
é cos 60° sin 60° ù (2) (p L q) ® (~ (p) ® q))
A=ê ú
ë - sin 60° cos60º û (3) (p L (p ® q)) ® ~ q

é cos a sin a ù p (4) p V (p L q)


If A= ê ú Here a= Official Ans. by NTA (2)
ë - sin a cos a û 3
Allen Ans. (2)
2é cos a sin a ù é cos a sin a ù
A =ê úê ú Sol. (i) p ® (p L(p ® q))
ë - sin a cos a û ë- sin a cos a û
(~p) V ( p L (~p V q))
é cos 2a sin 2a ù (~p) V (f V (p L q))
=ê ú
ë - sin 2a cos 2a û ~p V (p L q) = (~p V p) L (~p V q)
é cos30a sin 30a ù = ~p V q
A 30 = ê ú
ë - sin 30a cos 30a û (ii) (p L q) ® (~p ® q)
é1 0 ù ~(p L q) V (p V q) = t
A 30 = ê ú=I
ë0 1 û {a, b, d}V {a, b, c} = V
Tautology
é 1 3ù
é cos 25a sin 25a ù ê 2 ú
2 ú
(iii) (p L (p ® q)) ® ~ q
A 25 =ê ú =ê ~(p L (~p V q)) V ~ q = ~ (p L q) V ~ q = ~p V ~q
ë - sin 25a cos25a û ê - 3 1 ú
ê ú Not tantology
ë 2 2 û
A25 = A (iv) p V (p L q) = p
A25 – A = 0 Not tautology.

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Final JEE-Main Exam January, 2023/01-02-2023/Evening Session
67. The number of integral values of k, for which one 69. Let the plane P pass through the intersection of the
root of the equation 2x2 – 8x + k = 0 lies in the planes 2x + 3y – z = 2 and x + 2y + 3z = 6, and be
interval (1, 2) and its other root lies in the interval perpendicular to the plane 2x + y – z + 1 = 0. If d
(2, 3), is : is the distance of P from the point (–7, 1, 1), then
(1) 2 d2 is equal to :
(2) 0 250
(1)
(3) 1 83
(4) 3 15
(2)
Official Ans. by NTA (3) 53
Allen Ans. (3) 25
2 (3)
Sol. 2x – 8x + k = 0 83
250
2 (4)
82
1 3

®
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
f(1) . f(2) < 0 & f(2) . f(3) < 0 Allen Ans. (1)
(k – 6) (k – 8) < 0 & (k – 8) (k – 6) < 0 Sol. P º P1 + lP2 = 0
k Î (6, 8) k Î (6, 8) (2 + l) x + (3 + 2l) y + (3l – 1)z – 2 – 6l = 0
r r
integral value of k = 7 Plane P is perpendicular to P3 \ n.n3 = 0
68. Let f : R – {0, 1} ® R be a function such that
2(l + 2) + (2 l + 3) – (3 l – 1) = 0
æ 1 ö l=–8
f (x) + f ç ÷ = 1 + x . Then f(2) is equal to :
è1 - x ø
P º –6x – 13y – 25z + 46 = 0
9 6x + 13y + 25z – 46 = 0
(1)
2 Dist from (–7, 1, 1)
9
(2) -42 + 13 + 25 - 46 50
4 d= =
36 + 169 + 625 830
7
(3) 50 ´ 50 250
4 d2 = =
830 83
7
(4) 70. Let a, b be two real numbers such that ab < 0. If
3
1 + ai
Official Ans. by NTA (2) the complex number is of unit modulus and
b+i
Allen Ans. (2)
a + ib lies on the circle |z – 1| = |2z|, then a possible
æ 1 ö
Sol. f(x) + f ç ÷ =1+x 1 + [a ]
è1 - x ø value of , where [t] is greatest integer
4b
x = 2 Þ f(2) + f(–1) = 3 (1)
function, is :
æ1ö
x = –1 Þ f(–1) + f ç ÷ = 0 (2) (1) -
1
è2ø 2
1 æ1 ö 3 (2) –1
x= Þ f ç ÷ + f (2) = (3)
2 è2ø 2 (3) 1
9 1
(1) + (3) – (2) Þ 2f(2) = (4)
2 2
9 Official Ans. by NTA (1)
\ f (2) = Allen Ans. (Bonus)
4

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Final JEE-Main Exam January, 2023/01-02-2023/Evening Session
1 + ai 72. Let P(S) denote the power set of S={1,2,3, ..., 10}.
Sol. ab < 0 =1
b+i Define the relations R1 and R2 on P(S) as AR1B if
|1+ ai| = |b + i| (A Ç Bc) È (B Ç Ac) = Æ and AR2B if A È Bc =
a2 + 1 = b2 + 1 Þ a = ± b Þ b = – a as ab < 0 B È Ac, " A, B Î P(S). Then :
(a, b) lies on |z – 1| = |2z| (1) both R1 and R2 are equivalence relations
|a + ib –1| = 2|a + ib| (2) only R1 is an equivalence relation
(a – 1)2 + b2 = 4(a2 + b2) (3) only R2 is an equivalence relation
(a – 1)2 = a2 = 4(2a2) (4) both R1 and R2 are not equivalence relations
1 – 2a = 6a2 Þ 6a2 + 2a – 1 = 0 Official Ans. by NTA (1)
Allen Ans. (1)
-2 ± 28 -1 ± 7
a= = Sol. S = {1, 2, 3, ……10}
12 6
P(S) = power set of S
7 -1 1- 7 r r
a= &b= AR, B Þ (A Ç B) È (A Ç B) = f
6 6

®
[a] = 0 R1 is reflexive, symmetric
For transitive
1 + [a] 6 æ1 + 7 ö r r
\ = = -ç
ç 4 ÷÷ (A Ç B) È (A Ç B) = f ; {a} = f = {b} A = B
4b 4 1- 7 ( è )ø r r
(B Ç C) È (B Ç C) = f \ B = C
or [a] = 0
\ A = C equivalence.
-1 - 7
Similarly it is not matching with a = A B
6
a c b
No answer is matching.
71. The sum of the abosolute maximum and minimum d
r r
values of the function f(x) = |x2 – 5x + 6| – 3x + 2 R2 º A È B = A È B
in the interval [–1, 3] is equal to :
R2 ® Reflexive , symmetric
(1) 10
for transitive
(2) 12
A B
(3) 13
a c b
(4) 24
Official Ans. by NTA (1) d
r r
Allen Ans. (1) A È B = A È B Þ {a, c, d} = {b, c, d}
Sol. f(x) = |x2 – 5x + 6|– 3x + 2 {a} = {b} \ A = B
r r
ì x - 8x + 8 ; x Î [ -1,2]
2
B ÈC = B ÈC Þ B = C
f(x) = í 2
r r
î-x + 2x - 4 ; x Î [2,3] \A=C \ A È C = A È C \ Equivalence
73. The area of the region given by
{(x, y) : xy £ 8, 1, £ y £ x } is :
2

max = 17
13 14
min = – 17 (1) 8 loge2 – (2) 16 loge2 –
3 3
7 7
–1 2 3 (3) 8 loge2 + (4) 16 loge2 +
6 3
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
–4
Allen Ans. (2)

–7

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Final JEE-Main Exam January, 2023/01-02-2023/Evening Session
Sol. p p
4 x+
The value of the integral ò
2 4 dx is :
xy £ 8 1£y£x 75.
p 2 - cos 2x
2 -
4
y=x
p2
(1)
y = 8/x 6

p2
(2)
12 8 12 3

p2
2 8
(3)
æ8 ö
ò (x )
3 3
Area = 2
- 1 dx + ò ç - 1 ÷ dx
2èx ø
1
p2
2 (4)
æ x3 ö 6 3
= ç ÷ + 8 ( l n x )2 - ( x )1
8 8

®
è 3 ø1 Official Ans. by NTA (4)
7
= + 8 ( 2l n 2 ) - 7 Allen Ans. (4)
3
14 p p
= 16 ln2 – 4 x+
3 Sol. I= ò 4 dx (1)
-p 2 - cos2x
74. Let ax = exp(xbyg) be the solution of the 4
2 2
differential equation 2x y dy – (1 – xy ) dx = 0,
x®–x
x > 0, y(2) = loge 2 . Then a + b – g equals :
p p
(1) 1 4 -x +
I= ò 4 dx (2)
(2) –1 2 - cos2x
-p
(3) 0 4

(4) 3 (1) + (2)


Official Ans. by NTA (1)
Allen Ans. (1) p p
4
b g
2I = ò 2 dx
Sol. ax = ex .y

-p 2 - cos 2x
dy 4
2x 2 y = 1 - x . y2 y2 = t
dx p
dt p 4
dx
x2 = 1 - xt I= .2ò dx
dx 4 0 2 - cos 2x
dt t 1
+ = 2 I.F. = elnx = x p
dx x x
I=
p
.2 ò
4
(
1 + tan2 x dx )
1
t(x) = ò 2 .x dx
x
(
4 0 2 1 + tan 2 x - 1 - tan 2 x ) ( )
y2 . x = lnx + C p
1
dt
I= ò
4 0 3t 2 + 1
\ 2. ln2 = ln2 + C

\ C = ln2 p
Þ I= tan -1 3
2 3
Hence, xy2 = ln2x
2 p2
\ 2x = ex .y I=
6 3
Hence a = 2, b = 1, g = 2
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76. Let 9 = x1 < x2 < …< x7 be in an A.P. with common a 1 1
difference d. If the standard deviation of x1, x2 …, Sol. 1 a 1 =0
1 1 a
x7 is 4 and the mean is x , then x + x6 is equal to :
a (a2 – 1) –1(a – 1) + 1(1 – a) = 0
æ 1 ö
(1) 18 ç 1 + ÷ a3 – 3 a + 2 = 0
è 3ø
a2 (a – 1) + a (a – 1) –2(a – 1) = 0
(2) 34
(a – 1) (a2 + a – 2) = 0
æ 8 ö a = 1, a = – 2, 1
(3) 2 ç 9 + ÷
è 7ø For a = 1, b = 1
(4) 25 x + y + z = 1ü
ý infinite solution
Official Ans. by NTA (2) x + y + z = bþ

Allen Ans. (2) For a = 2, b = 1

®
D=4
Sol. 9 = x1 < x2 < …….< x7
1 1 1
9, 9 + d, 9 + 2d, ………9 + 6d = 3 -1 -1 1
D1 = 1 2 1 Þx=
=1 4
0, d, 2d, …….6d 1 1 2
21d 2 1 1
x new = = 3d
7 1
D2 = 1 1 1 = 2 - 1 = 1 Þy=
4
1 2 1 1 2
16 =
7
( )
0 + 12 + ....... + 6 2 d 2 - 9d 2
2 1 1
1
1 æ 6 ´ 7 ´ 13 ö 2 2 D3 = 1 2 1 = 2 - 1 = 1 Þz=
= ç ÷ d - 9d 4
7è 6 ø 1 1 1

16 = 4d2 For a = 2 Þ unique solution


r r
d2 = 4 78. Let a = 5iˆ - ˆj - 3kˆ and b = ˆi + 3jˆ + 5kˆ be two
vectors. Then which one of the following
d=2
statements is TRUE?
x + x 6 = 6 + 9 + 10 + 9 r r 17
(1) Projection of a on b is and the direction of the pr
77. For the system of linear equations ax + y + z = 1, 35
r r -17
x + ay + z = 1, x + y + az = b , which one of the (2) Projection of a on b is and the direction of the pr
35
following statements is NOT correct ? r
r 17
(3) Projection of a on b is and the direction of
(1) It has infinitely many solutions if a=2 and b = –1 35
(2) It has no solution if a = – 2 and b = 1 the projection vector is opposite to the direction
r
3 of b
(3) x + y + z = if a = 2 and b = 1 r
4 r -17
(4) Projection of a on b is and the direction of
35
(4) It has infinitely many solutions if a=1 and b=1
the projection vector is opposite to the direction
Official Ans. by NTA (1) r
of b
Allen Ans. (1) Official Ans. by NTA (1)
Allen Ans. (Bonus)

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r
Sol. a = 5iˆ - ˆj - 3kˆ Sol. y¢ = xx
r y¢ = xx (1 + lnx)
b = iˆ - 3jˆ + 5kˆ

r 5 - 3 - 15 -13 1
a . bˆ = =- y² = xx (1 + lnx)2 + xx .
35 35 x

79. Let P(x0, y0) be the point on the hyperbola 3x2 – 4y2 y² (2) = 4(1 + ln2)2 + 2
= 36, which is nearest to the line 3x + 2y = 1. Then
y¢ (2) = 4(1 + ln2)
2 (y0 – x0) is equal to :
(1) –3 y² (2) – 2y¢(2) = 4(1 + ln2)2 + 2 – 8(1 + ln2)

(2) 9
= 4(1 + ln2) [1 + ln2 – 2] + 2
(3) –9

®
(4) 3 = 4(ln2)2 – 1) + 2

Official Ans. by NTA (3)


= 4(ln2)2 – 2
Allen Ans. (3)
Sol. 3x2 – 4y2 = 36 3x + 2y = 1 SECTION-B

3 81. The total number of six digit numbers, formed


m=-
2 using the digits 4, 5, 9 only and divisible by 6, is
sec q 3 ______.
m=+
12 .tan q
Official Ans. by NTA (81)
3 1 -3
Þ ´ = Allen Ans. (81)
12 sin q 2
6!
Sol. Taking single digit ® 444444 =1
1 6!
sin q = -
3
Taking two digit ®
(4, 5) 444555 (4, 9) 444999
( 12 .sec q, 3 tan q )
5! 5!
= 10 = 10
3!2! 3!2!
æ 3 1 ö æ 6 -3 ö
çç 12 . , -3 ´ ÷÷ Þ ç , ÷ Taking three digit
è 2 2 ø è 2 2ø
5!
4, 5, 9, 4, 4, 4 Þ = 20
80. x
If y(x) = x , x > 0, then y’’(2) – 2y’(2) is equal to : 3!

(1) 8 loge2 – 2 5!
4, 5, 9, 5, 5, 5 Þ =5
4!
(2) 4 loge2 + 2
(3) 4 (loge2)2 – 2 5!
4, 5, 9, 9, 9, 9 Þ =5
4!
(4) 4 (loge2)2 + 2
5!
Official Ans. by NTA (3) 4, 5, 9, 4, 5, 9 Þ = 30
2!2!
Allen Ans. (3)
Total = 81

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82. Number of integral solutions to the equation 84. If the x-intercept of a focal chord of the parabola
x + y + z = 21, where x ³ 1, y ³ 3, z ³ 4, is equal to y2 = 8x + 4y + 4 is 3, then the length of this chord
is equal to ______.
______.
Official Ans. by NTA (16)
Official Ans. by NTA (105)
Allen Ans. (16)
Allen Ans. (105) Sol. y2 = 8x + 4y + 4
15 ´ 14 (y – 2)2 = 8(x + 1)
= 105
15
Sol. C2 =
2 y2 = 4ax
a = 2, X = x + 1, Y = y – 2
83. The line x = 8 is the directrix of the ellipse
focus (1, 2)
x 2 y2 y – 2 = m (x – 1)
E : 2 + 2 = 1 with the corresponding focus
a b Put (3, 0) in the above line
(2, 0). If the tangent to E at the point P in the first m=–1

®
(
quadrant passes through the point 0, 4 3 and ) Length of focal chord = 16
p
5cos x (1 + cos x cos3x + cos 2 x + cos 3 x cos3x ) dx kp
If ,
intersects the x-axis at Q, then (3PQ)2 is equal to 85.
ò
0
1 + 5cos x
=
16
______. then k is equal to ______.
Official Ans. by NTA (39) Official Ans. by NTA (26)

Allen Ans. (39) Allen Ans. (13)


Sol
a
Sol. = 8 ……….(1) ae = 2 …….(2) p
e 5cos x (1 + cos x cos3x + cos2 x + cos3 x cos3x)
I= ò dx
1 + 5cos x
2 0
8e = p
e 5- cos x (1 + cos x cos3x + cos2 x + cos3 x cos3x)
I=ò dx
1 1 0 1 + 5- cos x
e2 = Þe=
4 2 p
2I = ò (1 + cos x cos 3x + cos 2 x + cos 3 x cos 3x)dx
a=4 0

2 2 2 p
b = a (1 – e ) 2
2I = 2 ò (1 + cos x cos 3x + cos2 x + cos3 x cos 3x)dx
æ3ö
= 16 ç ÷ = 12 0
è4ø p
2
x cos q y sin q I = ò (1 + sin x( - sin 3x) + sin 2 x - sin 3 x sin 3x)dx
+ =1
4 2 3 0

p
1 2
sin q = 2I = ò (3 + cos 4x + cos3 x cos3x - sin 3 x sin 3x)dx
2
0

q = 30° p
2
æ cos 3x + 3 cos x ö æ 3sin x - sin 3x ö
2I = ò 3 + cos 4x + ç ÷ cos3x - sin 3x ç ÷ dx
(
P 2 3, 3 ) 0 è
p
4 ø è 4 ø

2
æ 1 3 ö
æ 8 ö 2I = ò ç 3 + cos 4x + + cos 4x ÷ dx
Qç ,0 ÷ 0è 4 4 ø
è 3 ø p
2
(3PQ) = 39 13 p 7 æ sin 4x ö 2 13p
2I = ´ + ç ÷ Þ I=
4 2 4 è 4 ø0 16

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Final JEE-Main Exam January, 2023/01-02-2023/Evening Session
86. Let the sixth term in the binomial expansion of 88. The sum of the common terms of the following

( 2log 2 (10 - 3x ) + 2( )
m
5 x -2 ) log2 3
, in the increasing three arithmetic progressions.

3, 7, 11, 15, …………, 399,


powers of 2( x -2 ) log 2 3 , be 21. If the binomial
coefficients of the second, third and fourth terms in 2, 5, 8, 11,………….., 359 and
the expansion are respectively the first, third and
2, 7, 12, 17,……., 197, is equal to ______.
fifth terms of an A.P., then the sum of the squares
of all possible values of x is ______. Official Ans. by NTA (321)

Official Ans. by NTA (4) Allen Ans. (321)

Allen Ans. (4) Sol. 3, 7, 11, 15, …………, 399 d1 = 4


m-5

( ) ( )

®
Sol. T6 = m C5 10 - 3x 2
. 3x -2 = 21 ….(1) 2, 5, 8, 11,………….., 359 d2 = 3
m
C1 , m C2 , m C3 are in A.P. 2, 7, 12, 17,……., 197 d3 = 5
m m m
2. C2 = C1 + C3
LCM (d1, d2, d3) = 60
Solving for m, we get
m = 2(rejected), 7 Common terms are 47, 107, 167
Put in equation (1)
Sum = 321
3x
= 21
x
21 . (10 –3 )
9 89. Let ax + by + yz = 1 be the equation of a plane
3x = 30 ,32
passing through the point (3, –2, 5) and
x = 0, 2
Sum of the squares of all possible values of x = 4 perpendicular to the line joining the points (1, 2, 3)
87. If the term without x in the expansion of and (–2, 3, 5). Then the value of aby is equal to
22
æ 23 a ö ______.
çx + 3 ÷ is 7315, then |a| is equal to ______.
è x ø
Official Ans. by NTA (6)
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
Allen Ans. (Bonus)
Allen Ans. (1)
Sol. Given Equation is not equation of plane as yz is
22 - r
æ 2ö
. ( a ) ,x -3r
r
Sol. Tr +1 = 22Cr . ç x 3 ÷ present. If we consider y is g then answer would be 6.
è ø
44 2r
- - 3r Normal vector of plane = 3iˆ - ˆj - 2kˆ
(a)
22 r
= Cr .x 3 3

44 11r Plane : 3x – y – 2z + l = 0
=
3 3
Point (3, –2, 5) satisfies the plane
r=4
22
C4 .a 4 = 7315 l = –1
22 ´ 21 ´ 20 ´ 19 4 3x – y – 2z = 1
.a = 7315
24
a=1 aby = 6

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Final JEE-Main Exam January, 2023/01-02-2023/Evening Session
90. The point of intersection C of the plane
8x + y + 2z = 0 and the line joining the points
A(–3, –6, 1) and B(2, 4, –3) divides the line
segment AB internally in the ratio k : 1. If a, b, c
(|a|, |b|, |c| are coprime) are the direction ratios of
the perpendicular from the point C on the line
1- x y + 4 z + 2
= = , then |a + b + c| is equal to
1 2 3
______.

Official Ans. by NTA (10)

Allen Ans. (10)

®
Sol. Plane : 8x + y + 2z = 0
x-2 y-4 z+3
Given line AB : = = =l
5 10 -4
Any point on line (5l + 2, 10l + 4, –4l – 3)
Point of intersection of line and plane
8(5l + 2) + 10l + 4 – 8l – 6 = 0
1
l=-
3
æ1 2 5ö
Cç , ,- ÷
è3 3 3ø
x -1 y + 4 z + 2
L: = = =m
-1 2 3
C

L D(– m+1, 2m–4, 3m–2)


uuur æ 2ö æ 14 ö æ 1ö
CD = ç -m + ÷ iˆ + ç 2m - ÷ ˆj + ç 3m - ÷ kˆ
è 3ø è 3 ø è 3ø
æ 2ö æ 14 ö æ 1ö
ç -m + 3 ÷ ( -1 ) + ç 2m - 3 ÷ 2 + ç 3m - 3 ÷ 3 = 0
è ø è ø è ø
11
m=
14
uuur -5 -130 85
CD = , ,
42 42 42
Direction ratios ® (–1, –26, 17)
|a + b + c| = 10

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