22/01/2024 Code-A

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005,

Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 Practice test for RM AIATS-3 Code A Time : 180 Min.

Topics Covered :
Physics:
Mechanical Properties of Fluids
Gravitation
Mechanical Properties of Solids
System of Particles and Rotational Motion
Units and Measurements
Chemistry:
Thermodynamics
Redox Reactions
Electrochemistry
Equilibrium
The s-Block Elements
Botany:
Plant Kingdom
Anatomy of Flowering Plants
Zoology:
Chemical Coordination and Integration
Locomotion and Movement
Neural Control and Coordination
Excretory Products and their Elimination

Physics

1. For a soap bubble of radius R if the inside 2. The potential energy of a planet in an
pressure is P0 . What will be the outside elliptical orbit about the sun at point P, Q and
pressure? R are UP, UQ and UR respectively. S is the
(1) 2T position of sun. Then
P0 +
R

(2) 4T
P0 +
R

(3) 4T
P0 −
R

(4) P0 −
2T

R
(1) UP > UR > UQ
(2) UQ > UP > UR
(3) UQ > UR > UP
(4) UQ = UP = UR

1
Practice test for RM AIATS-3 Code A

3. Kepler’s second law regarding constancy of 8. A : Modulus of rigidity of an ideal liquid is

areal velocity of a planet is a consequence zero.
of law of conservation of R : Stress is a vector quantity.
(1) Mass (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
(2) Energy the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
(3) Angular momentum
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
(4) Linear momentum
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
4. Breaking stress of a steel wire of radius 1 (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
mm and length 1 m is 1012 N/m2 . Breaking is false
stress of another steel wire of radius 2 mm (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
and length 0.5 m will be statements
(1) 4 × 1012 N/m2
(2) 1012 N/m2 9. A force F makes the length of wire, 1.001
(3) 2.5 × 1011 N/m2 times the original length of wire of cross-
section A. The Young’s modulus of material
(4) 2 × 1012 N/m2 of wire is
(1) F
A

5. A body having volume V and density ρ is (2) 100F

attached to the bottom of a container as A

shown. Density of the liquid is d(>ρ). (3) 500F

Container has a constant upward A

acceleration a. Tension in the string is (4) 1000F

10. If ‘g’ is the acceleration due to gravity on the

surface of earth then value of acceleration
R
(1) V[dg – ρ(g + a)] due to gravity at height from the surface of
2

(2) V(g + a) (d – ρ) earth is (where R is the radius of earth)

(3) V(d – ρ)g (1) g
(4) V(a – g)(d + ρ) (2) 2g
3

(3) 4g

6. If angular velocity of disc depends on angle 9

rotated θ as ω = θ2 + 2θ + 1 (where ω is in
g
(4)
rad/s and θ is in rad), then its angular 2

acceleration at θ = 1 rad is
(1) 12 rad/s2 11. Moment of inertia of a uniform cylinder of
mass M and radius R about its geometric
(2) 16 rad/s2
axis is
(3) 10 rad/s2 (1) 1 M R2
2
(4) 4 rad/s2
(2) 1
MR
2

(3) MR2
7. Two identical heavy spheres of masses 102
kg and each of radius 10 cm have a (4) 3 M R2
2
separation 100 cm between their centres.
The gravitational potential at the midpoint of
line joining their centres is 12. A constant torque acting on a uniform
(1) –6 × 10–4 J/kg spherical wheel changes its angular
momentum from a0 kgm2 /s to 5a0 kgm2 /s in
(2) –2.67 × 10–8 J/kg
3 second uniformly, the magnitude of this
(3) –8.1 × 10–7 J/kg torque is (where a0 is constant)
a0
(4) –4.9 × 10–4 J/kg (1) N-m
3

(2) 4a0
N-m
3

(3) 2a0 N-m

(4) a0 N-m

2
Practice test for RM AIATS-3 Code A

13. The apparent acceleration due to gravity at a 19. With what angular velocity the earth should
latitude of 30°, if ω is the angular speed of spin in order that a body lying at 60° latitude
earth, gP is the acceleration due to gravity at may become weightless? [R : Radius of
poles and Re is the radius of earth earth, g : acceleration due to gravity on the
surface of the earth]
(1) g – ω2 R
P e (1) 1
−−
g
√
(2) gP – 0.75 Re ω2 2 R

−−
(3) g – 0.5 R ω2 (2) 2g
P e √
R

(4) gP −−
(3) g
2√
R

−
−−
14. A satellite of earth is moved from one stable (4) g
√
circular orbit to a farther stable circular orbit. 2R

Which of the following quantities will

increase?
20. Three equal drops of water each of radius r
(1) Linear orbital speed
are falling through air with a steady velocity
(2) Gravitational potential energy 4 cm/s. The drops combine to form a big
(3) Centripetal acceleration drop. The terminal velocity of big drop will
(4) Gravitational force be
(1) 2

8(2) cm/s
3

15. If hypothetically, radius of earth increases by (2) 2

a factor of 3, then by what factor its density 16(2) 3

cm/s
should change to keep value of g same? (3) 2

(assume mass unchanged) 4(3) 3

cm/s
(1) 1 (4) 32 cm/s
9

(2) 9
21. The Young's modulus of a wire of length L
(3) 3
and radius r is Y, if the length reduced to
(4) 1 L
3 and radius r , then its Young's modulus
4 4

will be
16. An object falls freely from infinite height on (1) Y/2
some planet having same density as that of (2) Y
earth but radius of planet is double as (3) 2Y
compared to earth. The speed of the object
at which it will collide with planet is (Take (4) 4Y
escape speed on earth's surface 11.2 km/s)
(1) 11.2 km/s 22. A body has a weight 20 kgf on the earth
(2) 22.4 km/s surface. The mass of the body on the surface
g
earth
(3) 5.6 km/s of moon is (Take gmoon = )
6

(4) 44.8 km/s (1) 10 kg

(2) 20 kg
17. The surface tension of soap solution is 0.03 (3) 3.33 kg
N/m. The work done in blowing of a soap (4) 6.67 kg
bubble of surface area 50 cm2 is
(1) 1.5 × 10–4 J
23. A : Strain is unitless quantity.
(2) 3.0 × 10–4 J R : Strain is equivalent to force.
(3) 30 × 10–4 J (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of
(4) 15 × 10–4 J the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
18. Three spherical balls of masses 1 kg, 2 kg the reason is not the correct
and 3 kg are placed at the corners of an explanation of the assertion
equilateral triangle of side 1 m. The (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
magnitude of net gravitational force exerted is false
by 2 kg and 3 kg masses on 1 kg mass is (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
(1) 19G statements
(2) √− −
17 G
−−
(3) √19 G

(4) G

√17

3
Practice test for RM AIATS-3 Code A

24. The theorem of perpendicular axes for
moment of inertia is applicable for
(1) Planar bodies
(2) 3-dimensional bodies
(3) Both 3-dimensional and planar bodies
(4) Both 3-dimensional and linear bodies
28. The gravitational field strength E due to a
uniform solid sphere of radius R varies with
distance r from the centre as
(1)

25. A : Steel is more elastic than rubber. (2)

R : When same deforming force is applied,
steel deforms more than rubber.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but (3)
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false (4)
statements

26. A : The slope of stress-strain graph within

proportionality limits is equal to modulus of
elasticity.
R : Hooke's law is valid after elastic limit. 29. The following four wires of length L and
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and radius r are made of same material. Which of
the reason is the correct explanation of these will have smallest elongation when
the assertion same force is applied?
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but (1) L = 100 cm , r = 1 mm
the reason is not the correct (2) L = 50 cm , r = 2 mm
explanation of the assertion
(3) L = 300 cm , r = 1 mm
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
(4) L = 200 cm , r = 3 mm
is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements 30. ge and gp respectively denote the
acceleration due to gravity on the surface of
earth and on another planet whose mass is
27. Weight of body decreases by 0.25% when same as that of the earth and radius is twice
taken to depth h below earth surface. The that of the earth, then
weight of body, when taken to height h from
earth surface (1) g = g e

p
4

(1) Decreases by 0.25% (2) gp = 4ge

(2) Increases by 0.25% (3) ge
gp =
(3) Increases by 0.5% 2

(4) Decreases by 0.5% (4) gp = ge

31. A planet is orbiting in an elliptical orbit

around the Sun. If K, U, E and L stands for
kinetic energy, gravitational potential energy,
total mechanical energy and magnitude of
angular momentum about sun respectively,
then select the correct statement
(1) K remains conserved
(2) U is always positive
(3) E is always negative
(4) L remains conserved but its direction
changes continuously

4
Practice test for RM AIATS-3 Code A

32. The radius of gyration of a uniform solid 36. A wheel initially at rest, starts rotating with a
sphere of radius r about a tangential axis is uniform angular acceleration. The wheel
(1)
−−
5
rotates through an angle θ1 in first second
√ r
3 and through an additional angle θ2 in next
θ2
(2) 2
r two second. The value of is
3 θ1

−
−
(3) 2 (1) 8
√ r
5
(2) 4
−
−
(4) 7 (3) 1
√ r
5 4

(4) 1

33. The pressure in a liquid at two points in the

same horizontal plane are equal. Consider 37. Three liquids of densities ρ1 , ρ2 and ρ3 (with
an elevator accelerating upward and a car
accelerating on horizontal road. The above ρ1 > ρ2 > ρ3 ), having the same value of
statement is correct in surface tension T, rise to the same height in
three identical capillaries. The angles of
(1) The car only
contact θ1 , θ2 and θ3 obey
(2) The elevator only π
(1) > θ1 > θ2 > θ3 ≥ 0
(3) Both of them 2
π

(4) Neither of them (2) π > θ1 > θ2 > θ3 >

2
π
(3) 0 ≤ θ1 < θ2 < θ3 <
2

34. A uniform ring of mass 2.0 kg and radius 0.5 (4) π

< θ1 < θ2 < θ3 < π
m is initially at rest on a horizontal 2

frictionless surface. Four forces of equal

magnitude F = 1.0 N are applied
simultaneously along the four sides of a
square ABCD with its vertices on the
perimeter of the ring as shown in figure.
Angular acceleration of the ring at the shown
instant is
38. A rod is slipping against vertical wall and
horizontal floor as shown in the figure. For
what value of angle θ, speed of end B is
twice the speed of end A?

(1) sin–1 (2)

(2) cot–1 (2)

(1) 2 rad s–2 (3) cos–1 (2)

(2) 1 rad s–2 (4) tan–1 (2)
–
(3) 3√2 rad s
−2

(4) – −2
39. The increase in the potential energy of the
2√2 rad s
body with mass m if the body is taken at the
height h which is equal to radius of the earth
35. A ball is dropped from height h = Re above (1) mgR
earth surface. The speed with which ball (2) 2mgR
strikes the surface of earth is (3) mgR
− −−
(1) gR e
2
√
2 (4) mgR

−−−−− 4
(2) 3
√ gRe
2

(3) −−− 40. For a satellite revolving in an elliptical orbit

√gRe
around the Earth.
−−−−
(4) √2gRe (1) The linear momentum of satellite
remains constant in magnitude.
(2) The angular momentum of satellite
about centre of earth is variable.
(3) The acceleration of the satellite is
directed towards the centre of earth.
(4) Total mechanical energy of satellite
varies periodically with time.

5
Practice test for RM AIATS-3 Code A

41. If force of gravitation varies as

1
, 44. 9.8 2
F ∝
4
r
A disc of moment of inertia 2
kg m is
π
where r is the distance of separation rotating. If the frequency of rotation changes
between the planet and satellite, then from 240 rpm to 120 rpm, then the work
square of time period of revolution of done is [approximately]
satellite is (1) 235 J
(1) Directly proportional to r5 (2) 470 J
(2) Directly proportional to r1/5 (3) 588 J
(3) Inversely proportional to r2 (4) 294 J
(4) Inversely proportional to r3
45. Two discs of moment of inertia I1 and I2 are
rotating with angular velocities ω1 and ω2 in
42. A frame is made by joining two uniform rods
each of mass m and length ℓ as shown in the same direction around the same axis. If
figure. Coordinates of centre of mass is one disc is placed on second disc gently,
then the final angular velocity of combination
is
(1) I ω −I ω
1 1 2 2

I1 −I2

(2) I1 ω1 +I2 ω2

I1 −I2

(3) I1 ω1 +I2 ω2

I1 +I2

(4) I1 ω1 −I2 ω2

(1) ℓ ℓ
I1 +I2
( , )
2 2

(2) ℓ ℓ
( , )
3 3

(3) ℓ ℓ
( , )
2 3

(4) ℓ ℓ
( , )
4 4

43. A body weighs 680 N on the surface of

earth. What is gravitational force on it due to
earth at a height equal to radius of earth?
(1) 340 N
(2) 170 N
(3) 295 N
(4) 68 N

Chemistry

46. The heat evolved by the combustion of 1.6 g 47. For the reaction 2A(g) + 3B(g) → 2C(g), if
o
methane gas is (ΔHC of methane is –x kJ ΔH° and ΔS° for reaction are –27.43 kJ and
mol–1 ) –50 JK–1 respectively at 25°C then ΔG° for
(1) 10 x kJ the reaction is
(1) –12.53 kJ
(2) x
kJ
100 (2) –18.55 kJ
(3) x
kJ (3) –92.3 kJ
10

(4) 100 x kJ (4) –42.3 kJ

6
Practice test for RM AIATS-3 Code A

48. The reaction of 54. Under isothermal condition, a gas at 300 K

N2 ( g) + 3H2 ( g) ⇌ 2NH3 ( g) expands from 1 L to 4 L against a constant
is at equilibrium. Now the reaction mixture is external pressure of 2 atm. The heat
compressed to half of its original volume absorbed by the gas is (1 L atm ≅ 100 J)
then choose the correct option. (1) 100 J
(1) Equilibrium constant of the reaction will (2) 200 J
change (3) 300 J
(2) Ammonia will dissociate back into N2 (4) 600 J
and H2
(3) More of ammonia will be formed 55. Consider the equilibrium constants for the
(4) Reaction will shift in backward direction following reactions
to regain its equilibrium state A + 2B ⇌ C; K1
2C ⇌ F2 + 2E; K2
49. The work done in an open vessel at 400 K, The equilibrium constant (K) for the reaction
1
when 0.56 g iron reacts with dilute HCl is A +2B ⇌ F + E will be
2 2

(1) 8 cal (1) K1 K2

(2) 12 cal (2) −
−−
K1 √K2
(3) 16 cal
(3) K1

(4) 4 cal √K2

(4) K1

50. The metal which will not liberate H2 gas K2

when treated with dilute HCl solution is

(1) Zn 56. The correct increasing order of oxidation
(2) Mg state of Cl is
(3) Cu (1) Cl2 < HClO < ClO2 < ClO3
(4) Al (2) HClO < Cl2 < ClO2 < ClO3
(3) ClO3 < ClO2 < HClO < Cl2
51. For the reaction, A(g) + B2 (g) → AB2 (g) (4) ClO2 < ClO3 < Cl2 < HClO
ΔS = 120 JK–1 mol–1 , ΔH = 55 kJ/mol
respectively. Reaction will be spontaneous
at 57. In which of the following processes, entropy
(1) 450 K increases?
(2) 505 K (1) Boiling of egg

(3) 405 K (2) Stretching of rubber

(4) 420 K (3) Freezing of water
(4) Condensation of water vapour

52. If 2L gas at a pressure of 5 atm expanded to

5 L volume against constant pressure, than 58. Minimum oxidation state shown by nitrogen
value of enthalpy change when internal is in
energy change is 5 L atm, is (1) NH3
(1) 10 L atm (2) N2
(2) 15 L atm (3) N3 H
(3) 20 L atm
(4) N2 O
(4) 25 L atm

59. If the heat of combustion of C (graphite) is –

53. When a catalyst is added to equilibrium then 400 kJ/mol, then the heat released upon the
(1) Catalyst affects the activation energy of formation of 88 g of CO2 from C (graphite) is
both the forward and backward
reaction equally (1) 800 kJ

(2) Catalyst changes equilibrium constant (2) 300 kJ

(3) Catalyst changes energy of reactant (3) 600 kJ
molecules (4) 1500 kJ
(4) Catalyst changes energy of product
molecules

7
Practice test for RM AIATS-3 Code A

60. The solubility of a salt A2 B in pure water will 67. The amount of heat measured for a reaction
be (Ksp of A2 B = 1.08 × 10–16 ) in a bomb calorimeter generally gives
(1) ΔH
(1) 3 × 10–6 mol L–1
(2) ΔE
(2) 2 × 10–8 mol L–1
(3) ΔG
(3) 4 × 10–12 mol L–1 (4) PΔV
(4) 3 × 10–18 mol L–1
68. Consider the following data.
61. The oxidation state of sulphur in SO2 , H2 S, C(graphite) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g); ΔH = –393.5
H2 SO4 and H2 SO5 is respectively kJ
1
H2 (g) + O2 (g) → H2 O(l); ΔH = −286.2
(1) +2, –2, +6, +8 2

(2) +4, –2, +6, +8 kJ

C2 H4 (g) + 3O2 (g) → 2CO2 (g) + 2H2 O(l); ΔH
(3) +4, –2, +6, +6
= –1410.8 kJ
(4) +4, 0, +6, +6 Using the given data, the enthalpy of
formation of ethylene (in kJ) will be
62. Which of the following is incorrect for a cyclic (1) 76.7
process? (2) 38.2
(1) ΔH = 0 (3) 51.4
(2) ΔS = 0 (4) 43.4
(3) ΔU = 0
(4) W = 0 69. Standard molar enthalpy of formation at 298
K is zero for
63. The dissociation energy of CH4 (g) is 360 (1) Br2 (l)
kcal mol–1 and that of C2 H6 (g) is 620 (2) Smonoclinic
kcal/mol. The C–C bond energy is (3) H2 O(l)
(1) 260 kcal/mol (4) O3 (g)
(2) 180 kcal/mol
(3) 130 kcal/mol
70. For which of the following reactions, KP >
(4) 80 kcal/mol
KC?
(1) 2NO(g) ⇌ N2 (g) + O2 (g)
64. Molar heat capacity of an adiabatic process
is (2) 2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) ⇌ 2SO3 (g)
(1) Zero (3) PCl5 (g) ⇌ PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g)
(2) Infinite (4) 3O2 (g) ⇌ 2O3 (g)
(3) 8.314
(4) 1 71. 100 ml, 0.1 M acetic acid solution is mixed
with 50 ml, 0.1 M NaOH solution. The pH of
the mixture will be [pKa of acetic acid = 4.76]
65. If Kw = 10–12 at a temperature t°C then pH of
(1) 5.76
pure water at t°C is
(1) 1 (2) 4.25
(2) 6 (3) 5.25
(3) 7 (4) 4.76
(4) 12
72. Which of the following solution will have pH
value close to 1.0?
66. If at 2 atm of external pressure decrease in
(1) 75 ml of M HCl + 25 ml of M NaOH
volume of a system irreversibly from 5 L to 2 5 5
L then work done is (2) 55 ml of M M
HCl + 45 ml of NaOH
(1) Zero 10 10

(2) 6 L-atm (3) 10 ml of M

HCl + 90 ml of
M
NaOH
10 10

(3) 5 L-atm (4) 100 ml of M M

HCl + 100 ml of NaOH
(4) –6 L-atm 10 10

8
Practice test for RM AIATS-3 Code A

73. Oxidation number of oxygen in O2 F2 is 79. The possible oxidation states of two chlorine
(1) +2 atoms in bleaching powder (CaOCl2 ) are
(2) –2 (1) –1, +1
(3) +1 (2) 0, 0
(4) –1 (3) –1, –1
(4) –1, 0
74. A : Ionic product of water (Kw) increases with
increase of temperature. 80. P4 + 3NaOH + 3H2 O → PH3 + 3NaH2 PO2
R : The degree of ionization of water The equivalent mass of P4 in the above
increases with increase of temperature. reaction is (M = Molecular weight of P4 )
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
(1) M

the reason is the correct explanation of 3

the assertion (2) M

(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but 12

the reason is not the correct (3) 3M

2
explanation of the assertion
(4) M
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false 81. Which of the following is incorrect regarding
statements isothermal expansion of an ideal gas?
(1) ΔH =0

75. Among the following, select the salt of (2) q = 0

highest solubility (3) ΔU = 0
Given [Ksp (NiS) > Ksp (MnS) > Ksp (ZnS) > (4) ΔT = 0
Ksp (CdS)]
(1) NiS 82. Which among the following is an extensive
(2) ZnS property?
(3) MnS (1) Temperature
(4) CdS (2) Pressure
(3) Density
76. If equal volume of two solution of strong (4) Entropy
acids having pH 2 and 3 are mixed then pH
of resulting solution is [log (5.5) = 0.74]
83. Standard reduction potential for Zn2+/Zn
(1) 2.26
couple is –0.76 V and that for Mg2+/Mg is –
(2) 2.74 2.36 V. These two couples in their standard
(3) 3.2 state are connected to make a cell. The cell
(4) 1.2 potential will be
(1) 3.12 V
77. In the balanced chemical reaction (2) –3.12 V
IO
−
3
−
+ xI
+
+ yH ⟶ zH2 O + wI2 (3) 1.6 V
x, y and z respectively corresponds to (4) –1.8 V
(1) 5, 3 and 6
(2) 3, 5 and 6 84. Bond energy of H – H, I – I and H – I are x, y
(3) 5, 6 and 5 and z J/mol respectively. The ΔH for the
reaction (in J/mol)
(4) 5, 6 and 3

H2 ( g) + I2 ( g) → 2Hl(g) is
78. Nitrogen atom exhibits more than one
(1) x + y – 2 z
oxidation state in
(2) 2z – x – y
(1) NH4 NO3
(3) 2x + 2y – z
(2) N2 H4
(4) 2z + x + y
(3) N2 O5
(4) N2 O4 85. The number of acidic protons in H3 PO3 are
(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 0

9
Practice test for RM AIATS-3 Code A

86. Conjugate base of HSO− is 89. Which of the following factor will shift the
4
given equilibrium in forward direction?
(1) H2 SO4 + −
AgCl(s) ⇌ Ag (aq) + Cl (aq)
(2) SO3
(1) Addition of aqueous NaCl
(3) SO
2−
(2) Addition of aqueous NH3
4

(4) HSO
−
3
(3) Addition of aqueous AgNO3
(4) Addition of solid AgCl
87. Two sparingly soluble salts AB2 and XY
have same Ksp . Compare the solubility of 90. The solubility of CdS in 0.2 M Na2 S solution
two salts. would be (Ksp of CdS is 8.0 × 10–27 )
(1) XY is more soluble (1) 2 × 10–27 mol L–1
(2) AB2 is more soluble
(2) 4 × 10–26 mol L–1
(3) Both have same solubility
(3) 4 × 10–27 mol L–1
(4) XY is 10 times more soluble than AB2
(4) 4 × 10–14 mol L–1

88. For the reaction,

CO(g) + H2 O(g) ⇌ CO2 ( g) + H2 ( g) ,
at a given temperature, the equilibrium
amount of CO2 (g) can be increased by
(1) Adding an inert gas at constant
pressure
(2) Adding an inert gas at constant volume
(3) Decreasing the volume of the container
(4) Increasing the amount of CO(g)

Botany

91. Secondary meristem out of these is 94. In gymnosperms, transfer of pollen grains is
(1) Root apical meristem carried out by
(2) Intercalary meristem (1) Insects
(3) Interfascicular meristem (2) Birds
(4) Intrafascicular meristem (3) Water current
(4) Air current
92. In angiosperms, female gametophyte
present inside ovule is called 95. Mark the incorrect statement about Cycas.
(1) Egg apparatus (1) Cycas has unbranched stem
(2) Endosperm (2) It has both sex organs on the same
(3) Embryo sac plant
(4) PEN (3) Coralloid roots are associated with N2
fixing bacteria
(4) It is heterosporous
93. A : In phloem, sieve tube elements are
associated with the companion cells.
R : Phloem elements, sieve tubes and
companion cells are dead and thick walled
structures.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements

10
Practice test for RM AIATS-3 Code A

96. Match column-I carrying terms with their 101. The anatomy of monocot root is similar to the
unique features present in column-II and dicot root in many aspects, except
select the correct option. (1) Presence of epidermis
Column I Column II (2) Radial vascular bundles
Uses chemical (3) Exarch primary xylem
Numerical
a. (i) constituents of
taxonomy (4) Large well developed pith
plants
Uses chromosome
b. Cytotaxonomy (ii) number, structure 102. The vascular bundle shown in the diagram
and behaviour is present in
Assumes that
organisms
c. Chemotaxonomy (iii) belonging to same
taxa have a
common ancestor
Based on all
Phylogenetic
possible
d. system of (iv)
observable
classification
characteristics

(1) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii) (1) Dicot leaf

(2) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii) (2) Monocot stem
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (3) Dicot root
(4) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (4) Dicot stem

97. Select the structure not found in isobilateral
leaf.
(1) Bulliform cells
(2) Palisade mesophyll
(3) Conjoint vascular bundle
(4) Stoma on upper surface
98. A feature which is common between sieve
tube element and vessel element is
(1) Thick secondary walls
(2) Being dead at maturity
(3) Being enucleate at maturity
(4) Providing mechanical support
103. Read the following statements and select
the correct option
Assertion (A): In gymnosperms, the male
and the female gametophytes do not have
an independent free living existence.
Reason (R): In gymnosperms, the male and
female gametophytes remain within the
sporangia retained on the sporophytes.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is
not correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is
correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct

104. Wolffia is included in angiosperms because

99. Lens shaped openings found in the stem of
most woody trees are (1) Its seeds are not protected by seed
coat
(1) Called stomata
(2) Its seeds are enclosed in fruits
(2) Involved in gaseous exchange in
monocot plants (3) It produces two types of spores
(3) Formed by activity of phellogen (4) It exhibits autotrophic mode of nutrition
(4) Surrounded by subsidiary cells
105. Double fertilization is
100. The plant which lacks archegonia is (1) Fusion of two male gametes with one
egg
(1) Salvinia
(2) Fusion of one male gamete with two
(2) Cycas polar nuclei
(3) Cedrus (3) Syngamy and triple fusion
(4) Wolffia (4) Syngamy and true fertilisation

11
Practice test for RM AIATS-3 Code A

106. The vegetative cells of members of brown 111. Find the mismatched pair.
algae have a cellulosic wall usually covered (1) Vessels : Not found in most of the
on the outside by a gelatinous coating of gymnosperms
(1) Agar (2) Tracheids : Dead and without
(2) Carrageen protoplasm
(3) Algin (3) Xylem fibre : Living and thin walled
(4) Funori (4) Xylem parenchyma : Stores tannins

107. Select the incorrect match. 112. Which of the following events in
(1) Agar – Gracilaria Pteridophytes is a precursor to the seed
habit and considered an important step in
Brown evolution?
(2) Carrageen –
algae
(1) Haplontic life cycle
Food Supplement by
(3) – Spirulina (2) Independent sporophyte
space travellers
(4) Peat – Sphagnum (3) Heterospory
(4) Similar kind of spores
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
113. A : Bulliform cells help in rolling of
(3) (3)
dorsiventral leaves.
(4) (4) R : Bulliform cells are small, empty
colourless cells located on adaxial surface.
108. Companion cells are specialised (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
(1) Parenchymatous cells the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
(2) Collenchymatous cells
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
(3) Sclerenchymatous cells the reason is not the correct
(4) Sclerenchymatous fibres explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
109. Choose the option that correctly is false
differentiates between protoxylem and (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
metaxylem. statements
Protoxylem Metaxylem
Type of primary Type of secondary 114. Identify the incorrect difference between
(1) dicot and monocot leaf.
xylem xylem
First formed Later formed Dicot leaf Monocot leaf
(2)
primary xylem primary xylem Not
Differentiated
Always found Always found differentiated
into palisade
(3) towards pith in towards periphery in (1) Mesophyll into palisade
and spongy
plants plants and spongy
parenchyma
parenchyma
(4) It is living tissue It is dead tissue
More Equal on
(1) (1) (2) Stomata on lower upper and lower
(2) (2) epidermis epidermis
(3) (3) Vascular
(4) (4) (3) Open Close
bundle
Type
110. The scientist(s) who gave artificial system of (4) Dorsiventral Isobilateral
of leaf
classification is/are
(1) (1)
(1) Joseph Dalton Hooker
(2) (2)
(2) George Bentham
(3) (3)
(3) Aristotle and Linnaeus
(4) (4)
(4) Engler and Prantl

115. Secondary xylem is formed by

(1) Apical meristem
(2) Vascular cambial ring
(3) Intercalary meristem
(4) Extra-stelar cambium

12
Practice test for RM AIATS-3 Code A

116. Choose the option that correctly 121. How many of the following features is/are
differentiates between protoxylem and associated with mosses.
metaxylem. (a) Haploid plant body
Protoxylem Metaxylem (b) Non-jacketed sex organs
(c) Unicellular rhizoids
(1) Type of primary Type of secondary (d) Zygote undergoes meiosis
xylem xylem (1) One
(2) First formed Appear in later (2) Two
xylem stage of plants life
(3) Three
(3) Always found Always found (4) Four
towards pith in towards periphery in
plants plants
(4) It is living tissue It is dead tissue 122. The food is stored as floridean starch in
(1) Ectocarpus
(1) (1)
(2) Polysiphonia
(2) (2)
(3) Chara
(3) (3)
(4) Spirullina
(4) (4)

123. Select the statement incorrect for plants

117. How many of the following are incorrectly showing diplontic life cycle.
matched?
(1) All plants showing this life cycle
(a) Porphyra – chlorophyll a and d produce seeds & fruits
(b) Dictyota – Fucoxanthin (2) Some algae also exhibit this life cycle
(c) Ulothrix – Mannitol pattern
(d) Sargassum – Laminarin (3) None of the bryophyte show such life
cycle
(1) (a)
(4) In these plants meiosis occurs during
(2) (b) gametogenesis
(3) (c)
(4) (d)
124. Stele is constituted by all given tissues,
expect
118. Select the feature which is not present inred (1) Vascular bundles
algae (2) Endodermis
(1) Biflagellated zoospores (3) Pericycle
(2) Floridean starch as stored food (4) Medulla
(3) Complex post fertilisation development
(4) Polysulphated esters in cell wall
125. What is the ploidy level of primary
endosperm nucleus (PEN) in a typical
119. Which of the given plants produces seeds flowering plant?
but lacks fruits? (1) 3N
(1) Equisetum (2) N
(2) Maize (3) 2N
(3) Dryopteris (4) 4N
(4) Pinus
126. The tallest gymnosperm is
120. Select the mismatched pair (1) Eucalyptus
(1) Parenchyma – Thin cellulosic cell wall (2) Pinus
(2) Tracheids – Absent in gymnosperms (3) Sequoia
(3) Vessels – Lack protoplasm at maturity (4) Ginkgo
(4) Xylem fibres – Obliterated central
lumen
127. Chlorophyll bearing simple, thalloid,
autotrophic and largely aquatic organisms
have been classified into three classes
mainly on the basis of
(1) Cell type and cell wall composition
(2) Types of pigments and type of stored
food
(3) Cell wall composition and nutrition
(4) Habitat and body organisation

13
Practice test for RM AIATS-3 Code A

128. Red algae show resemblance with 132. Select the plant which has vascular tissues
cyanobacteria in having but lacks seeds.
(1) Chlorophyll-a (1) Pteris
(2) Flagellation (2) Riccia
(3) Motile male gametes (3) Cycas
(4) Gas vacuoles (4) Cedrus

129. In conifers, ovules are borne on A which 133. Pinus

¯
¯¯¯¯¯ (1) Is a dioecious plant
may be clustered to form the B .
¯
¯¯¯¯¯
(2) Has unbranched stem
(1) A - megasporophylls, B - female cone (3) Has symbiotic association of fungi with
(2) A - megasporophylls, B - male cone its roots
(3) A - microsporophylls, B - female cone (4) Does not form female strobili
(4) A - microsporophylls, B - male cone
134. Since ______ form dense mats over the soil
130. Choose the correct statement for they reduce the impact of falling rain and
gymnosperm prevent soil erosion
(1) Male gametophytes are highly reduced (1) Mosses
(2) Sporophyte is nonphotosynthetic and (2) Algae
depends on gametophyte (3) Seed plants
(3) Fruits are enclosed within ovary (4) Ferns
(4) Embryo sac represents its female
gametophyte 135. A : Stomata regulate the process of
transpiration and gaseous exchange.
131. A : Bryophytes are called as amphibians of R : Stomata are structures present in the
the plant kingdom. hypodermis of leaves.
R : Bryophytes can live in soil but are (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
dependent on water for sexual reproduction. the reason is the correct explanation of
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the assertion
the reason is the correct explanation of (2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the assertion the reason is not the correct
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but explanation of the assertion
the reason is not the correct (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
explanation of the assertion is false
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
is false statements
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements

Zoology

136. Red muscle fibres differ from white muscle 137. Receptors which are present immediately
fibres due to below the epidermis and receive the
(1) Presence of myofibrils stimulus of gentle pressure are known as
(2) Presence of large quantity of (1) Krause bulb
myoglobin (2) Pacinian corpuscle
(3) Absence of mitochondria (3) Golgi-Mazzoni organ
(4) Presence of large amount of (4) Meissner's corpuscle
sarcoplasmic reticulum

14
Practice test for RM AIATS-3 Code A

138. Select the option which is an incorrect 143. A : All synovial joints are diarthroses.
statement. R : All synovial joints contain a fibrous
(1) Thigh muscle fibres are striated and membrane.
voluntary (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
(2) Iris is composed of involuntary smooth the reason is the correct explanation of
muscle fibres the assertion
(3) Biceps of upper arm are striped muscle (2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
fibres the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
(4) Heart wall is constituted by involuntary
and unstriated muscle fibres (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
139. White muscle fibres differ from red muscle statements
fibres as
(1) Former have actin and myosin as
contractile proteins 144. Choose the incorrect match.
(2) Latter have troponin as calcium binding Column I Column II
proteins (Bone involved) (Type of joint)
(3) Former are richer in myoglobin than Between atlas and
A. – Hinge joint
latter axis
(4) Latter contain plenty of mitochondria for Between adjacent Cartilaginous
B. –
aerobic respiration vertebrae joint
C. Between carpals – Gliding joint
140. Choose the correct match. Parietal and temporal
D. – Fibrous joint
(1) Origin of neural tissue – Ectoderm bone
(2) Ions essential for exocytosis of (1) A
neurotransmitters – Sodium (2) B
(3) Production of stimulus – Multipolar (3) C
neurons (4) D
(4) Relaying impulses from CNS to
skeletal muscles – Autonomic neural
system 145. Which of the following is not a part of
nephron?
(1) Glomerulus
141. Complete the following analogy
(2) PCT
Cockroach : Malpighian tubules : : Prawn :
____ (3) DCT
Choose the correct option. (4) Collecting duct
(1) Protonephridia
(2) Green glands 146. Which of the following is the incorrect
(3) Nephridia description of pelvic girdle?
(4) Flame cells (1) It consists of two coxal bones
(2) Socket acetabulam interacts with head
of femur through ball and socket joint
142. Match Column I with Column II w.r.t different
animals and their excretory (3) Its two halves meet dorsally to form
structures/organs pubic symphysis
(4) It is the site for articulation of thigh bone
Column I Column II
a. Pheretima (i) Green glands 147. All of the following features are similar in
b. Amphioxus (ii) Malpighian tubules cortical and juxtamedullary nephrons,
except
c. Cockroach (iii) Protonephridia (1) Presence of renal corpuscles
d. Prawn (iv) Nephridia (2) Presence of peritubular capillaries
(3) Length of loop of Henle
Choose the correct option
(4) Type of epithelium in PCT
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)

15
Practice test for RM AIATS-3 Code A

148. Which among the following is not a part of 154. Human urine is mostly acidic because
renal tubule? (1) H+ ions are actively secreted into the
(1) Bowman’s capsule filtrate
(2) Glomerulus (2) Urea in urine causes acidity
(3) PCT (3) Plasma proteins present in it are acidic
(4) Loop of Henle (4) Calcium and chloride exchange in
glomerulus generates acidity
149. Lobe of cerebral hemisphere that helps in
decoding and interpretation of sound is 155. Which of the following organism is
(1) Frontal ammonotelic?
(2) Parietal (1) Mammals
(3) Temporal (2) Reptiles
(4) Occipital (3) Land Snails
(4) Most bony fishes
150. Which among the following is chiefly
responsible for maintaining electrochemical 156. In humans, scapula is a triangular bone of
ionic gradient i.e. resting potential across pectoral girdle situated in the dorsal part of
axolemma? the thorax in between the
(1) Na+/K+ ATPase (1) 2nd and 7th ribs
(2) Voltage gated Na+ channels (2) 5th and 8th ribs
+
(3) Voltage gated K channels (3) 4th and 9th ribs
(4) Leaky channels for K+ (4) 7th and 10th ribs

151. Excessive stimulation of vagus nerve may 157. ADH is released by posterior pituitary gland
lead to when there is
(1) Irregular function of kidney (1) Fall in osmolarity of blood in body
(2) Movement of tongue (2) Increase in blood fluid volume in body
(3) Peptic ulcers (3) Excessive loss of fluid from body
(4) Lack of digestion of protein, lipids and (4) An increase GFR
carbohydrates

158. Choose the incorrect match for the structure

152. Juxtaglomerular apparatus is a sensitive found in sarcomere.
region which is mainly formed by cellular (1) ‘M’ line – Thin fibrous membrane in
modification in __A__ and __B__ at the centre of H zone
location of their contact
Select the option which fill the blanks (2) ‘H’ zone – Region in centre of ‘I’ band
correctly. (3) ‘A’ band – Comprises of myosin and
A B actin
(4) ‘Z’-disc – Separates one sarcomere
(1) DCT Afferent arteriole from the next
(2) DCT PCT
159. The biological clock in higher vertebrates is
(3) PCT Afferent arteriole regulated by secretions of
(4) PCT Efferent arteriole (1) Pituitary gland
(2) Cerebral cortex
(1) (1)
(3) Hypothalamus
(2) (2)
(4) Adrenal medulla
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
160. Cerebrospinal fluid formed in choroid plexes
of brain ventricles. CSF leave the cavity at
153. Some glands in human body serve as the _______ ventricle and enters into
accessory excretory organs. Which of the subarachnoid space.
following is generally not included in the (1) First
above?
(2) Second
(1) Pancreatic gland
(3) Third
(2) Sebaceous glands
(4) Fourth
(3) Sweat glands
(4) Liver

16
Practice test for RM AIATS-3 Code A

161. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. PCT 168. Photopic and coloured vision are attributed
(1) Sodium is actively absorbed in PCT but to presence of
there is no secretion of any ion through (1) Bipolar cells
this segment (2) Rods
(2) It forms brush-border appearance (3) Ganglionic cells
towards luminal surface due to
presence of microvilli (4) Cones
(3) Maximum water is reabsorbed in PCT
even in presence of ADH 169. Read the following statements A & B and
(4) Osmolarity of glomerular filtrate in PCT choose the correct option.
is nearly equal to osmolarity of blood Statement A : The production, secretion
plasma and ejection of milk by mammary gland
require the synergistic effect of estrogens,
progesterone, prolactin and oxytocin.
162. Which of the following is not a characteristic Statement B : Steroid hormones are slower
of skeletal muscle fibres? but long lasting in responses as compared
(1) Excitability to the lipid insoluble hormones.
(2) Autonomic regulation (1) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect
(3) Contractility (2) Statement A is incorrect but B is correct
(4) Extensibility (3) Both statements are correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect
163. Choose the odd one w.r.t. secretion of H+
ions 170. Select the technique useful for studying
(1) PCT brain functions.
(1) Electromyogram
(2) Loop of Henle
(2) Electrocardiogram
(3) DCT
(3) Electroencephalogram
(4) CD
(4) Kinesiogram

164. Treatment through cholinesterase inhibitors

is possible in anti-immune disorder called 171. All of the following are components of knee
jerk reflex, except
(1) Myocardial infarction
(1) Receptor
(2) Myasthenia gravis
(2) Afferent neuron
(3) Muscular dystrophy
(3) Motor end plate
(4) Rheumatoid arthritis
(4) Interneuron

165. Nerve impulse is another term used for

172. GFR in a healthy individual is approximately
(1) Resting potential
(1) 125 mL / minute
(2) Hyperpolarisation
(2) 180 mL / minute
(3) Action potential
(3) 125 L / day
(4) Repolarisation
(4) 18 L / day

166. Which part of the human ear plays no role in

hearing but helps in equalising the pressure 173. Choose the mismatch.
on either sides of the ear drum? (1) Uremia – High level of urea in blood
(1) Ear ossicles (2) Glomerulonephritis – Inflammation of
(2) Eustachian tube glomeruli of kidney
(3) Crista ampullaris (3) Hemodialysis – Blood drained from a
convenient vein
(4) Organ of Corti
(4) Renal calculi – Insoluble mass of
crystallised salts in kidney
167. Choose the correct option to complete the
analogy.
Antennal glands : Prawns : : Malpighian 174. The dorsal portion of the midbrain consist of
tubules : ________ four round lobes, these are collectively
called
(1) Pheretima
(1) Amygdala
(2) Culex
(2) Corpora quadrigemina
(3) Amphioxus
(3) Cerebellum
(4) Planaria
(4) Medulla oblongata

17
Practice test for RM AIATS-3 Code A

175. A : Extensor muscles in human back do not 178. In kidneys, extensions of cortex in between
get fatigued easily. medullary pyramids are called
R : They contain red muscle fibres which (1) Ducts of Bellini
store myoglobin that releases oxygen during
(2) Columns of Bertini
strenuous conditions.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and (3) Vasa recta
the reason is the correct explanation of (4) Malpighian body
the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but 179. The part of the human brain which is called
the reason is not the correct the “seat of intelligence” is
explanation of the assertion (1) Cerebellum
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason (2) Medulla oblongata
is false
(3) Hypothalamus
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements (4) Cerebrum

176. Flame cells or protonephridia are found in 180. The substance that does not pass through
blood brain barrier is
(1) Flatworms like Planaria only
(1) Glucose
(2) Planaria, rotifers and all molluscs
(2) Dopamine
(3) Planaria, rotifers and cephalochordates
like Amphioxus (3) Creatine
(4) Planaria, Rotifers, cephalochordates (4) L–dopa
and gnathostomes

177. Eustachian tube

(1) Controls respiration and gastric
secretions
(2) Controls body temperature
(3) Equalizes air pressure on either sides
of tympanic membrane
(4) Controls urge for eating and drinking

18