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IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS:
(2) The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
(3) There are three parts in the question paper consisting of Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry
having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each part (subject) has two sections.
(i) Section-A: This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct
answer. Each question carries 4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
(ii) Section-B: This section contains 10 questions. In Section-B, attempt any five questions out
of 10. The answer to each of the questions is a numerical value. Each question carries 4 marks
for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer. For Section-B, the answer should be
-1-
JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Morning
MATHEMATICS
SECTION - A ( – 4) ( – 2) = 0
42022 f (0) = 0
4. Fractional part of the number is equal to
15
5
So x = is local maxima point
8 4 6
(1) (2)
15 15
5 5 3 1
Maximum value of f ( x ) = f = + +
(3)
14
(4)
1 6 6 2 3
15 15
5 + 2 + 3 3
Answer (4) =
6
42022 6. The negation of the statement ( ( A (B C ) )
Sol.
15
( A B )) A is
4 4 (mod 15)
(1) equivalent to ~ C
42 1 (mod 15)
(2) equivalent to B ~ C
2022
4 1 (mod 15) (3) a fallacy
5.
1
max x − 2sin x cos x + sin3 x = Sol. ( A (B C )) ( A B ) A
0 x 3
+2−3 3
(
~ ~ ( A (B C )) ( A B ) A)
(1) (2)
6
( A (B C )) ~ ( A B ) A
5 + 2 + 3 3
(3) 0 (4) =A
6
Negation of statement = ~A
Answer (4)
7. For x , two real valued functions f ( x ) and g ( x )
Sol. f ( x ) = 1 − 2cos 2 x + cos3 x
are such that, g ( x ) = x + 1 and
f ( x ) = 4 sin 2 x − 3 sin3 x
fog ( x ) = x + 3 − x . Then f (0) is equal to
f ( x ) = 0
(1) 1 (2) 5
( 2
)
1 − 2 2cos x − 1 + 4cos x − 3cos x = 0 3
(3) 0 (4) –3
Sol. f ( g ( x ) ) = x + 3 − x
– 3 3
cos x = , ,1
2 2 f ( )
x +1 = x + 3 − x
5
x= , ,0 Put x +1= t
6 6
x = t −1
5
f = −2 3 − 3 0
6 x = (t – 1)2
(1) 7220 b 1
− = − b =1
(2) 7360 2 2
12 15 + 11c + c − 17 2
Si = 2r + (12 − 1)( 2r − 1) = 6 ( 2r + 22r − 11) =
2 147 3
= 6(24r – 11)
|12c – 2| = 14
10 10
10
Sr = 6 ( 24r − 11) = 6 24 − 11 + 240 − 11 c = – 1,
4
r =1 r =1 2
3
= 30 (242) = 7260
c=–1 (c )
9. Let the equation of plane passing through the line
of intersection of the planes x + 2y + az = 2 and a + b 3 +1
= = −4
c −1
x − y + z = 3 be 5 x − 11y + bz = 6a − 1 . For c ,
if the distance of this plane from the point (a, −c, c ) 10. Let PQ be a focal chord of the parabola y 2 = 36 x
1 −1 = 8i − 5 j + 18kˆ
t = 3, , − 3,
3 3
2
Since ordinate of P is +ve d = 64 + 25 + 324
1 = 413
t = 3 or
3
Option (4) is correct.
−80 37
Required line : y − 9 = ( x − 21) (1)
16
60
4x + 3y = 111 15
(2)
(–3, 43) does not lie on line 16
(2) 423 3 1
P (H ) = , P (T ) =
4 4
(3) 313
(4) 413 Since coin is tossed till either 1H or 3T occurs. So,
Sol. d b = cb Xi 1 2 3
(d − c ) b = 0 P(Xi)
3
4
1 3
4 4
1 1 1 1 1 3
+
4 4 4 4 4 4
d − c = b ( d c as c a = b ) Mean = 1
3
+ 2
3
+ 3
1
4 16 16
d = c + b
21
=
a d = 24 (given) 16
Sol. 3f ( x ) + 2f = – 10
13. The area of the region enclosed by the curve 1 1
...(i)
f ( x ) = max sin x, cos x, − x and the x x
x-axis is 1
x→
x
(1) 2 2 ( 2 +1 ) 1
3f + 2f ( x ) = x – 10 ...(ii)
(2) 4 x
1
5f = –48 – 2
4
1
f = –10
4
1
f (3) + f = 13
4
(
15. Let the tangent and normal at the point 3 3, 1 on )
x2 y2
–3 /4 – /2 the ellipse 1 meet the y-axis at the
sin xdx + sin xdx + cos x dx 36 4
– /4 –3 /4 points A and B respectively. Let the circle C be
drawn taking AB as a diameter and the line
/4
+
x 2 5 intersect C at the points P and Q. If the
cos x dx
– /2 tangents at the points P and Q on the circle
intersect at the point (, ), then 2 – 2 is equal to
1 1 1 1
– 1 + 1+ + –1 + + +1 (1) 61 (2) 60
2 2 2 2
304 314
(3) (4)
2 2 5 5
2+ +2– =4
2 2
Answer (3)
14. For the differentiable function f : − 0 − , let
x2 y 2
Sol. + =1
1 1 1 36 4
3f ( x ) + 2f = − 10 , then f (3) + f is
x x 4
3 3x y
T: + =1
equal to 36 4
33 3x y
(1) (2) 7 T: + =1
5 12 4
29 x–3 3 y –1
(3) (4) 13 N: =
5 1
3 3
Answer (4) 36 4
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Morning
12 x – 36 3 Sol. 2x + 4y + 2az = b
= 4y – 4
3 x + 2y + 3z = 4
2x – 5y + 2z = 8
3 x – 9 3 = 3y – 3
2 4 2a
N : 3 x – 3y = 8 3 = 1 2 3 = −18 ( a − 3 )
A(0, 4) B(0, –8) 2 −5 2
C: x2 + (y – 4)(y + 8) = 0 b 2 4
Line x = 2 5 3 = 4 1 2 = 9 (b − 8)
8 2 −5
20 + y2 + 4y – 32 = 0
y2 + 4y – 12 = 0 If a = 3 and b = 8 we’ll have infinite solution
T: xx1 + yy1 + 2y + 2y1 – 32 = 0 17. The distance of the point (–1, 2, 3) from the plane
T1 : 2 5 x – 6 y + 2y – 12 – 32 = 0 ( )
r iˆ − 2 ˆj + 3kˆ = 10 parallel to the line of the shortest
2 5 x – 4 y = 44 (
distance between the lines r = iˆ − jˆ + 2iˆ + kˆ ) ( )
T1 : 5 x – 2y = 22 ...(i) ( ) (
and r = 2iˆ − ˆj + µ iˆ − ˆj + kˆ is )
T2 : 2 5 x + 2y + 2y + 4 – 32 = 0 (1) 3 6 (2) 2 5
2 5 x + 4 y = 28 (3) 2 6 (4) 3 5
Answer (3)
T2 : 5 x + 2y = 14 ...(ii)
Sol. Line of shortest distance is parallel to
From (i) & (ii)
iˆ jˆ kˆ
=
18
= –2 2 0 1 = iˆ − jˆ − 2kˆ
5 1 −1 1
304
2 – 2 = Line passing through A(–1, 2, 3) and having
5 direction ratio (1, –1, –2) is
16. For the system of linear equations x +1 y − 2 z − 3
= = =
2x + 4y + 2az = b 1 −1 −2
x + 2y + 3z = 4 Let the line intersect the plane at P
2x – 5y + 2z = 8 P ( − 1, − + 2, − 2 + 3 )
which of the following is NOT correct? P lies on the plane x – 2y + 3z = 10
(1) It has unique solution if a = b = 6 ( − 1) − 2 ( − + 2 ) + 3 ( −2 + 3 ) = 10
(2) It has infinitely many solutions if a = 3, b = 6
= −2
(3) It has infinitely many solutions if a = 3, b = 8
P ( −3, 4, 7 )
(4) It has unique solution if a = b = 8
Answer (2) AP = 4 + 4 + 16 = 2 6
-7-
JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Morning
a = x2 + 2
6
18. e3 x + 6e2x + 11e x + 6 dx =
0 y = x 2 + 2 is decreasing x ( − , − 2)
32 Case II : −2 x 1
(1) loge
27
−x2 + x + x + 2 + a = 0
512
(2) loge
81 a = x 2 − 2x − 2
256 y = x 2 − 2 x − 2 is decreasing x [ −2, 1)
(3) loge
81
Case III : x 1
64
(4) loge
27 x2 − x + x + 2 + a = 0
Answer (1) a = − ( x 2 + 2)
1
Sol. Let e x = t x = ln t , dx = dt y = − ( x 2 + 2) is decreasing x [1, )
t
Exactly one real root x R
6
I= dt
1 (
t t + 1)( t + 2 )( t + 3 ) 20. Let y = y1 (x) and y = y2 (x) be the solution curves of
dy
1 3 3 1 the differential equation = y + 7 with initial
= t − t + 1 + t + 2 − t + 3 dt dx
1
conditions y1(0) = 0 and y2(0) =1 respectively. Then
= ln ( t ) − 3ln t + 1 + 3ln t + 2 − ln ( t + 3 ) the curves y = y1(x) and y = y2(x) intersect at
1
(1) no point
t (t + 2)
3
= ln
(2) two points
( t + 3 )( t + 1)3
1
(3) one point
3 3
32 (4) infinite number of points
= − ln = ln
4 23 27
Answer (1)
19. The set of all a IR for which the equation dy dy
Sol. = y +7 = dx
x x − 1 + x + 2 + a = 0 has exactly one real root, is dx y +7
ln | y + 7 | = x + c
(1) ( −6, )
y + 7 = k .e x
(2) ( −, )
(3) ( −6, − 3 ) y = k .ex − 7
Sol. x | x − 1| + | x + 2 | + a = 0 y 2 ( x ) = 8e x − 7
Case I : x − 2 y1( x ) = y 2 ( x ) 8e x − 7 = 7e x − 7
-8-
JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Morning
SECTION - B (4m – 1)2 = 25 – 16m2
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section 4m2 – m – 3
contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five
−3
questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a m1 = 1, m2 =
4
NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
correct numerical value (in decimal notation, 3
| m1 | = 1, | m2 | =
truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place; 4
e.g., 06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using 17
Equation of tangents with slopes 1 &
the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in 9
the place designated to enter the answer.
y=x–3 …(I)
21. The number of seven digit positive integers formed
3
using the digits 1, 2, 3 and 4 only and sum of the y= x−4 …(II)
4
digits equal to 12 is _______.
(I) & (II) Q (–4, –7)
Answer (413)
P (4, 1)
Sol. x1 + x2 + x3 + ....x7 = 12
(PQ)2 = 82 + 82 = 128
Number of solutions
16
= Coefficient of x12 in ( x1 + x 2 + x 3 + x 4 )7 (I) = 3, (II) =
3
= Coefficient of x5 in (1 + x + x 2 + x 3 )7
(PQ )2 128
= =8
16
= Coefficient of x5 in (1 − x 4 )7 (1 − x )− 7 3
3
= Coefficient of x5 in (1 − 7 x 4 )(1 − x )−7
23. Let a = 3iˆ + jˆ – kˆ and c = 2iˆ – 3 jˆ + 3kˆ. If b is a
7+r −1Cr · x r
2
= Coefficient of x5 in (1 − 7 x 4 ) vector such that a = b c and b = 50 , then
r =0
2
= C5 − 7 7C1
11
72 – b + c is equal to _______.
= 462 − 49 = 413
Answer (66)
22. Let m1 and m2 be the slopes of the tangents drawn
Sol. | a | = | b c |
from the point P(4, 1) to the hyperbola
y 2 x2 = 11 = | b | . 22.sin
H: – = 1. If Q is the point from which the
25 16
1
tangents drawn to H have slopes |m1| and |m2| and sin =
10
they make positive intercepts and on the
99
( PQ )2 or cos =
x-axis, then is equal to _______. 10
2 99
Answer (8) 72 − b + c = 72 − 50 + 22 + 2 5 2. 22
10
Sol. Tangent : y = mx + 25 − 16m 2
2 5 2 11•
3
= 72 − 72 +
Passes through (4, 1). 10
1 = 4m + 25 − 16m 2 = |66| = 66
-9-
JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Morning
Answer (15) x 2 + y 2 − 2x − 4y + 4 = 0
5 5 8 k1 = −2, k2 = 4, = 4
x− y− 2−
3 = 3 = 3 = −2( −1)
Sol. which intersects −2y + 4 x + 4 = 0
1 −2 1 6
(x, y, z) = (2, 1, 3) 2 14
at (0, 2) and ,
5 5
PQ = 13
30( AB )2 = 24
42 + 32 + ( − 3)2 = 169
27. Let be the constant term in the binomial
− 3 = 12 n
6
= 15 expansion of x –
3 , n 15 . If the sum of the
x2
25. The sum to 20 terms of the series
coefficients of the remaining terms in the expansion
22 – 3 + 24 – 5 + 26 – …… is equal to
2 2 2 2 2
n −r –3 r
( 8r )
10
2 2 = (–6)r nCr x 2 x 2
= − 4r − 4r − 1
r =1 n = 4r for constant term so n is divisible by 4.
( 4r 2 − 4r − 1)
10 n
= n
C n ( −6) 4 =
r =1 4
Answer (24) = 36
- 10 -
JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Morning
x +1 x
x
t t2
28. If S = x : sin–1 – sin–1 = , S2 ( x ) =
7
x + 2 + dt
2 2 4 12 2 2
x + 2x + 2 x +1 0
7x x 2 x3
(
) ((
is
)) = + +
then
sin x 2 + x + 5 2 – cos x 2 + x + 5 12 2 3
xS
1
equal to ________. 7x x 2 x3 11
C3 = 1 − + + dx =
12 2 3 24
Answer (4) 0
61 11
x +1 x Now, S2 (3) + 6·C3 = + 6· = 18
Sol. sin−1 = + sin−1 4 24
2 4
x +x+2 x2 + 1
30. Let the mean of the data
x +1 1 1 x
= +
x2 + x + 2 2 x2 + 1 2 x2 + 1 x 1 3 5 7 9
Frequency (f ) 4 24 28 8
x +1 x +1
=
2
x +x+2 2 x2 + 1 be 5. If m and 2 are respectively the mean
4 + 72 + 28 5 + 7 + 72
sin( x 2 + x + 5) 2 − cos( x 2 + x + 5) = 4 Sol.
64 +
=5
nS
x
= 16
29. Let for x , S0 ( x ) = x, Sk ( x ) = Ck x + k Sk –1(t ) dt ,
0 fi = 80
fi xi − 5
1
where C0 = 1, Ck = 1– Sk –1( x ) dx, k = 1, 2,3 ,... Then M.D =
0 fi
S2 (3) + 6C3 is equal to ________. 4 + 4 + 24 2 + 0 + 16 2 + 8 4
=
80
Answer (18)
8
Sol. S0(x) = x, C0 = 1 =
5
x
x x2
S1( x ) =
x
2
+ 1· t dt = +
2 2 2 =
fi xi − 5
0 fi
1
1 4 + 16 + 24 4 + 0 + 16 4 + 8 16 22
C1 = 1 − xdx = = =
2 80 5
0
1 3 3 16
x x2 7 = =8
C2 = 1 − + dx = m+ 2 8 22
2
2 12 +
0 5 5
- 11 -
JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Morning
PHYSICS
(1) PB < PC < PD < PA
SECTION - A
(2) PC < PD < PA < PB
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20
(3) PC < PB < PA < PD
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (4) PA < PB < PC < PD
Answer (3)
Choose the correct answer:
31. A disc is rolling without slipping on a surface. The 3R
Sol. RA =
radius of the disc is R. At t = 0, the top most point 2
on the disc is A as shown in figure. When the disc 2R
RB =
completes half of its rotation, the displacement of 3
point A from its initial position is
R
RC =
3
RD = 3R
⇒ PD > PA > PB > PC [ P = I2Reff]
⇒ Displacement =
of A (2R )2 + ( πR )2 2GM
Sol. Vesc =
R
= R π2 + 4 ′
Vesc 9
⇒ = = 1.5
32. Different combination of 3 resistors of equal Vesc 4
resistance R are shown in the figures. The
increasing order for power dissipation is: ′ = 16.8 km/s
⇒ Vesc
238 234
34. 92 A →90 B + 24 D + Q
(A)
In the given nuclear reaction, the approximate
amount of energy released will be:
238
[Given, mass=
of 92 A 238.05079 × 931.5 MeV/c 2 ,
(B) 234
mass
= of 90 B 234.04363 × 931.5 MeV/c 2 ,
- 12 -
JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Morning
Sol. φ = (∆m)·c2 37. Which graph represents the difference between
= 4.56 × 10–3 × 931.5 MeV total energy and potential energy of a particle
executing SHM vs it's distance from mean position?
= 4.24 MeV
35. The difference between threshold wavelengths for
two metal surfaces A and B having work function
φA = 9 eV and φB = 4.5 eV in nm is: (1)
{Given, hc = 1242 eV nm}
(1) 540 (2) 276
(3) 264 (4) 138
Answer (4)
hc
Sol. = φ (2)
λ
hc
⇒ λ=
φ
1242 1242
⇒=λ − nm
4.5 9
(3)
1242
= nm
9
= 138 nm
36. Two trains 'A' and 'B' of length 'l' and '4l' are
travelling into a tunnel of length 'L' in parallel tracks
from opposite directions with velocities 108 km/h
(4)
and 72 km/h, respectively. If train 'A' take 35s less
time than train 'B' to cross the tunnel then, length 'L'
of tunnel is:
(Given L = 60 l)
(1) 1200 m Answer (2)
(2) 900 m Sol. T – U = k
(3) 1800 m 1 1
⇒ T −U = mv 2 = mω2 ( A2 − x 2 )
(4) 2700 m 2 2
Answer (3) 38. The rms speed of oxygen molecule in a vessel at
1
l +L 5 2
Sol. ∆t A =
VA particular temperature is 1 + ν , where ν is the
x
4l + L average speed of the molecule. The value of x will
∆tB =
VB be:
4l + L l + L 22
⇒ − 35
= (take π = )
20 30 7
(1) 27
64l 61l
⇒ − 35
=
(2) 8
20 30
35 × 600 (3) 28
=
⇒ l = 30 m
700 (4) 4
⇒ L = 1800 m Answer (3)
- 13 -
JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Morning
3RT d 1 1
Sol. v rms = Sol. Total shift = 1− + 1−
M 2 n1 n2
8RT d 1 1
v avg = ⇒ Apparent depth = d − 2− −
πM 2 n1 n2
v rms 3π 3 22 d (n1 + n2 )
⇒ = =× =
v avg 8 8 7 2n1n2
(4) 4 dK dm 2dv
⇒ = +
Answer (1) K m v
d ( n1 + n2 ) dP dP
(2) =
Sol. B –= –V
2n1n2 dV /V dV
dn1n2 d a
(3) = –V
2 ( n1 + n2 ) dV V 3
dn1n2 –3a
= –V 4
(4) V
( 1 + n2 )
n
3a
Answer (2) = = 3P
V3
- 14 -
JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Morning
Sol. A decelerating charged particle can result in a time.
varying magnetic field by emitting radiation.
- 15 -
JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Morning
Sol. Y = (A′ ⋅ B) ′ = 6 Ns
= A + B′ SECTION - B
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
⇒ Option 1.
contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five
47. Two charges of each magnitude 0.01 C and
questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a
separated by a distance of 0.4 mm constitute an
electric dipole. If the dipole is placed in an uniform NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
electric field ‘ E ’ of 10 dyne/C making 30° angle with
truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place;
E , the magnitude of torque acting on dipole is: e.g., 06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using
(1) 4.0 × 10–10 Nm (2) 1.0 × 10–8 Nm the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in
(3) 1.5 × 10–9 Nm (4) 2.0 × 10–10 Nm the place designated to enter the answer.
Answer (4) 51. A potential V0 is applied across a uniform wire of
resistance R. The power dissipation is P1. The wire
Sol. τ = p × E
is then cut into two equal halves and a potential of
1 V0 is applied across the length of each half. The
= 0.01 × 0.4 × 10–3 × 10 × 10–5 × Nm total power dissipation across two wires is P2. The
2
ratio of P2 : P1 is x :1 . The value of x is _______.
= 2 × 10–10 Nm
Answer (16)
48. Two bodies are having kinetic energies in the ratio
16 : 9. If they have same linear momentum, the ratio V02
Sol. P1 =
of their masses respectively is: R
(1) 3 : 4 (2) 9 : 16 V02
P=
2 2 4P1
×=
(3) 16 : 9 (4) 4 : 3 R/2
Answer (2) P2
⇒ =4 ⇒ x = 16
p 2 P1
Sol. K =
2m
K 16 m′ m 9 52. In the given figure, an inductor and resistor are
⇒ = = ⇒ =
K′ 9 m m′ 16 connected in series with a battery of emf E volt.
49. Which of the following Maxwell’s equation is valid Ea
J/s represents the maximum rate at which the
for time varying conditions but not valid for static 2b
conditions: energy is stored in the magnetic field (inductor).
b
(1) ∫ B ⋅ dl =µ0I (2) ∫ E ⋅ dl =0 The numerical value of will be _______.
a
∂φ
(3) ∫ ⋅ dA =
D Q (4) ∫ ⋅ dI =
E – B
∂t
Answer (4)
Sol. Equation 4 is used for time-varying conditions.
- 16 -
JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Morning
Answer (25) 1
Sol. KE =
2
(
k A2 − x 2 )
E
Sol.
= i 1 − e −Rt / L
R 1 1
⇒ 200 = × 10 x × 0.42 ×
2 4
1 1 E2 2
Einduction =Li 2 =L 2 1 − e −Rt / L =x (let)
2 2 R 400 × 4
10 x
⇒= = 104
0.16
dx R E 2L
⇒ = 2 1 − e −Rt / L ⋅ e −Rt / L ⋅ ⋅
dt L 2R 2 ⇒ x=4
dx E 2 −1 −2 E2
⇒ = 2 − 2 =
dt max . R 4R
⇒ a = 2 and b = 2R = 50
b
⇒ = 25
a
53. The elastic potential energy stored in a steel wire of Answer (3)
length 20 m stretched through 2 cm is 80 J. The
cross sectional area of the wire is _______ mm2. RC
Sol. Power gain = β2 ⋅
(Given, y = 2.0 × 1011 Nm–2) RB
Answer (40)
2
10 × 10−3 1
Sol. Potential energy = =
−6
× 1000
100 × 10 10
1
= × stress × strain × volume
2 ⇒ x=3
2
1 2 / 100 56. The radius of 2nd orbit of He+ of Bohr’s model is r1
= ×Y × × A × 20
2 20 and that of fourth orbit of Be3+ is represented as r2.
r2
1 1 Now the ratio is x : 1. The value of x is
⇒ 80 = × Y × 6 × A × 20 r1
2 10
_________.
160 × 106
⇒ A= m2 Answer (2)
20 × 2 × 1011
= 4 × 10–5 m2 = 40 mm2 n2
Sol. r = r0
Z
54. At a given point of time the value of displacement
of a simple harmonic oscillator is given as
42
y = A cos(30°). If amplitude is 40 cm and kinetic r2
⇒= 4
= 2
energy at that time is 200 J, the value of force r1 22
constant 1.0 × 10x Nm–1. The value of x is _______.
2
Answer (4)
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Morning
57. When a resistance of 5 Ω is shunted with a moving 59. A solid sphere is rolling on a horizontal plane
coil galvanometer, it shows a full scale deflection without slipping. If the ratio of angular momentum
for a current of 250 mA, however when 1050 Ω about axis of rotation of the sphere to the total
resistance is connected with it in series, it gives full energy of moving sphere is π : 22 then, the value of
scale deflection for 25 volt. The resistance of its angular speed will be ____________ rad/s.
galvanometer is ____________ Ω.
Answer (4)
Answer (50)
2
5 5 MR 2 ω
Sol. ( iG=
)max = imax × 250 mA Sol.
L ICM ω 5
5 + RG 5 + RG = =
E 1 12 7
Mv 2 + · MR 2 ω2 MR 2 ω2
Also, 25
= ( iG )max [RG + 1050] 2 25 10
5 1 π 4 1
⇒ 25 = × [RG + 1050 ] ⇒ =·
5 + RG 4 22 7 ω
Answer (6)
Sol.
4y
w.r.t. fish: Separation = x +
σ 1 2λ σ λ σ 3
EP = − = − =
2ε0 4πε0 3 2ε0 6ε0 6ε 0
π d 4y
⇒ x + 3 =−12
dt
σ 1 2λ σ λ σ
EQ = − = − =
2ε0 4πε0 4 2ε0 8ε0 4ε 0 4 dy
π ⇒ ⋅ =−12 + 8 =−4
3 dt
EP 2
⇒ = ⇒a= 6 dy
EQ 3 ⇒ = –3 m/s
dt
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Morning
CHEMISTRY
63. In which of the following processes, the bond order
SECTION - A
increases and paramagnetic character changes to
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 diamagnetic one?
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices
(1) O2 → O2+
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
(2) O2 → O22−
Choose the correct answer:
61. Match the following (3) NO → NO+
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Morning
D − ( + ) − Glyceraldehyde ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ 68. Be(OH)2 reacts with Sr(OH)2 to yield an ionic salt.
i)HCN
66. +
→
ii)H2O/H Choose the incorrect option related to this reaction
iii)HNO3 from the following
The products formed in the above reaction are (1) Both Sr and Be elements are present in the
(1) One optically active and one meso product ionic salt
(2) Two optically inactive products (2) Be is tetrahedrally coordinated in the ionic salt
(3) Two optically active products (3) The element Be is present in the cationic part
(4) One optically inactive and one meso product of the ionic salt
Answer (1) (4) The reaction is an example of acid-base
neutralization reaction
Sol.
Answer (3)
Sol. Be(OH)2 + Sr (OH)2 ⎯⎯→ Sr +2[Be (OH)4 ]−2
As Be is present in anionic part.
69. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Permutit process is more efficient
compared to the synthetic resin method for the
softening of water.
Statement II: Synthetic resin method results in the
formation of soluble sodium salts.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:
67. (1) Both the statements I and II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
‘A’ is correct
(1) (3) Both the statements I and II are correct
(4) Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect
Answer (1)
(2) Sol. I. Synthetic resin is more efficient as cations as
well as anions responsible for removal of
permanent hardness.
II. In synthetic resin method, cations and anions
are removed in the form of ppt.
(3)
Hence, both statements are incorrect.
70. In the reaction given below
(4)
Answer (1)
Sol.
‘B’ is:
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Answer (4)
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Morning
Sol. Eu has a configuration of 4f76s2 & Yb has a
configuration of 4f146s2
Sol.
Hence, both have high 3rd ionisation energy due to
help filled & fully filled configuration respectively.
74. Which one of the following is most likely a
mismatch?
(1) Zinc - Liquation
(2) Copper - Electrolysis
(3) Nickel - Mond process
(4) Titanium - van Arkel Method
Answer (1)
Sol. zinc is not refined using liquation.
Distillation is used instead.
75. 2-Methyl propyl bromide reacts with C2H5 O – and
gives ‘A’ whereas on reaction with C2H5OH it gives
‘B’. The mechanism followed in these reactions and
the products ‘A’ and ‘B’ respectively are:
71. What happens when a lyophilic sol is added to a
(1) SN2, A = iso-butyl ethyl ether; SN1, B = tert-butyl
lyophobic sol?
ethyl ether
(1) Film of lyophilic sol is formed over lyophobic sol
(2) SN1, A = tert-butyl ethyl ether; SN1, B = 2-butyl
(2) Lyophilic sol is dispersed in lyophobic sol ethyl ether
(3) Film of lyophobic sol is formed over lyophilic sol (3) SN2, A = 2-butyl ethyl ether; SN2, B = iso-butyl
(4) Lyophobic sol is coagulated ethyl ether
Answer (1) (4) SN1, A = tert-butyl ethyl ether; SN2, B = iso-butyl
Sol. Film of lyophilic sol is formed over lyophobic sol as ethyl ether
lyophilic sol acts as a protective colloid. Answer (1)
Sol. A is incorrect (|Heg| → Cl > F) (1) Ring expansion can go upto seven membered
B is correct (ionisation energy decreases down the rings
group). (2) Finally both rings will become six membered
C is incorrect (As E.N. has fixed value on Pauling each.
scale). (3) Finally both rings will become five membered
D is incorrect as NO is a neutral oxide. each.
Hence, A, C and D are incorrect. (4) Only A will become 6 membered.
77. The radical which mainly causes ozone depletion in Answer (2)
the presence of UV radiations is : Sol.
(1) CI• (2) NO•
•
(1)
(2)
(3)
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Morning
81. A certain quantity of real gas occupies a volume of 84. t87.5 is the time required for the reaction to undergo
0.15 dm3 at 100 atm and 500 K when its 87.5% completion and t50 is the time required for the
compressibility factor is 1.07. Its volume at 300 atm reaction to undergo 50% completion. The relation
and 300 K (When its compressibility factor is 1.4) is between t87.5 and t50 for a first order reaction is
____ × 10–4 dm3 (Nearest integer) t87.5 = x × t50
Answer (392) The value of x is _________ . (Nearest integer)
Answer (3)
Z PV T
Sol. 1 = 1 1 2
Z2 T1 P2 V2 Sol. 87.5% consumption means 3 half lives.
So, X = 3
1.07 100 0.15 300
=
1.4 500 300 V2 85. An organic compound gives 0.220 g of CO2 and
0.126 g of H2O on complete combustion. If the % of
V2 = 0.03925 dm3 carbon is 24 then the % of hydrogen is _________
× 10–1. (Nearest integer)
392 10−4 dm3
Answer (56)
82. 25.0 mL of 0.050 M Ba(NO3)2 is mixed with 25.0 mL
of 0.020 M NaF. Ksp of BaF2 is 0.5 × 10–6 at 298 K. 0.220
Sol. Mass of C = 12 = 0.06 g
The ratio of [Ba2+] [F–]2 and Ksp is _____ . 44
0.126
Answer (5) Mass of H = 2 = 0.014 g
18
1.25
Sol. [Ba+2 ] = 24
50 Given (y) = 0.06
100
0.5
[F− ] = y=
6
=
1
50 24 4
1.25 0.5 0.5 = 0.014 4 100
Qsp = [Ba+2 ][F– ]2 =
50 50 50 = 5.6 = 56 × 10–1
86. A metal surface of 100 cm2 area has to be coated
Ksp = 0.5 10−6
with nickel layer of thickness 0.001 mm. A current
of 2 A was passed through a solution of Ni(NO 3)2
Qsp
=5 for ‘x’ seconds to coat the desired layer. The value
K sp
of x is _________. (Nearest integer)
83. KMnO4 is titrated with ferrous ammonium sulphate (Ni (density of Nickel) is 10 g mL–1, Molar mass of
hexahydrate in presence of dilute H2SO4. Number Nickel is 60 g mol–1 F = 96500 C mol–1)
of water molecules produced for 2 molecules of Answer (16)
KMnO4 is ______
Sol.Millimoles of Ni coated
Answer (68) (2x)100
=
96500 2
Sol. 8H+ + MnO4 – + 5 Fe+2 ⎯⎯→ 5 Fe +3 + Mn+2 + 4 H2O
10x
=
For 2 moles of MnO4–, 8 moles of H2O are released 965
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Morning
60x k
Volume = 10 –3 cm3 = k + − 2k
965 2
= 100 × 10–4 3k
= − 2k
x = 0.1608 103 2
−k
161 –200 =
2
87. For the given reaction
k = 400 = B.E. of A 2 (in kJ / mol)
10 1
Molarity of Ca(OH)2 = = M
20 2
1
20 = 10 M
2
Molarity of H2SO4 = 1 M
90. Solution of 12 g of non-electrolyte (A) prepared by
dissolving it in 1000 mL of water exerts the same
(Total 4 products are possible through 3° carbocation)
osmotic pressure as that of 0.05 M glucose solution
88. A2 + B2 → 2AB. Hf = –200 kJ mol–1 at the same temperature. The empirical formula of
A is CH2O. The molecular mass of A is _______ g.
AB, A2 and B2 are diatomic molecules. If the bond (Nearest integer)
enthalpies of A2, B2 and AB are in the ratio
Answer (240)
1 : 0.5 : 1, then the bond enthalpy of A2 is ________
kJ mol–1 (Nearest integer) Sol. Osmotic pressure of A = O.P. of glucose
Answer (400) 12
= 0.05
Sol. A 2 + B2 ⎯⎯→ 2AB, Hf = –200 kJmol –1 M (1)
12
B.E. of A 2 : B2 : AB = k :
k
:k M= 100
2 5
❑ ❑ ❑
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