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SECOND SEMESTER TEST 2013-2014

I/ Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.
1. A. endangered B. destroyed C. damaged D. provided
2. A. protect B. commercial C. construction D. climate

II/ Choose the word that has the stress differently from that of the others.
3. A. apply B. reduce C. offer D. begin
4. A. national B. translation C. production D. pollution

III/ Choose the best answer among A, B, C or D that best completes each sentence.
5. Tom has a bike, _______________ he always walks to school.
A. so B. however C. although D. but
6. They told me he had _________________ a gold medal in wushu.
A. scored B. won C. gained D. got
7. The organization was __________ in 1950 in the USA.
A. set off B. made out D. made off D. set up
8. It is difficult to look _____________ children well.
A. up B. for C. after D. into
9. - X: “What’s the matter with you?” “_________”. Y: “ _________________”.
A. I’m fine, thanks. And you? B. I’ve got a headache
C. Are you free? D. That’s OK.
10. After Mary_______ her degree, she intends to work in her father’s company.
A. will finish B. is finishing C. finishes D. will have finished
11 – X: “Let’s go to the cinema.” – Y: “ ____________________”.
A. I’d love to. B. Yes, let’s.
C. Oh, I’m very busy. D. No, thanks.
12. It was such a great book that I couldn’t put it ___________.
A. on B. off C. out D. down
13. All the accounts ______________ by the computer.
A. can be done B. do C. can done D. did
14. _____________ you study for these exams, _____________ you will do.
A. The more/ the more B. The harder/ the more
C. The harder/ the better D. The more/ the harder
15. We ___________ out for a walk after we __________ our dinner.
A. had gone/ had B. went/ had had C. went/ would have D. went/ have had
16. When my brother ______, we will have a party.
A. arrive B. will arrive C. arrives D. arrived
17. When we reached the top of the hill, it was getting _______________.
A. darkest B. the darker and darker C. the darkest D. darker and darker
18. You are having a sore throat. You had better ____________ to the doctor.
A. go B. to go C. going D. went
19. Bring your umbrella. It ________ rain later today.
A. must B. has to C. might D. should
20. You ________ wash the car. I just had it done yesterday.
A. mustn’t B. needn’t C. may not D. can’t
21. One of my teeth ____________ by the doctor yesterday morning.
A. was pulled B. pulled C. is pulled D. pulls
22. Despite her undoubted ability at tennis, she never became the _________ of the local tennis club.
A. partner B. championship C. title D. member
23. The 25 Sea Games will be held in Laos. It is Laos’ first time as the ________ for the games.
th

A. host B. competitor C. supporter D. participant


24. They had to delay their trip because of the bad weather.
A. get through B. put off C. go on D. give up
25. The children appear _______________ about the trip.
A. to excite B. exciting C. to be excited D. being excited
IV. Error recognition

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26. The flight was delayed, but we had time to have something to eat.
A B C D
27. We haven’t got much time; we needn’t hurry for the last bus home.
A B C D
28. We are going to visit our grandparents when we will finish our final exams.
A B C D
29. He studied very hard, so he passed the exam easy.
A B C D
30. Do not start a book unless you can see from the first little pages that it is one you easily read and understand.
A B C D
V. GAP - FILLING
Books are written to (31) _________ knowledge and good books enrich the mind. By putting ourselves under
the influence of superior mind, we improve our mental powers. Through good books we learn that people
everywhere (32) _________ the same, in all ages and in all classes. This knowledge improves our love of others
and helps us to live in (33) _________ with them. We also understand that the world was made (34) _________
for man alone but for every creature that can feel hunger and thirst, (35) _________ and cold.
31. A. describe B. provide C. buy D. change
32. A. was B. were C. are D. is
33. A. peace B. peaceful C. peacefully D. peaceable
34. A. enough B. not only C. due to D. despite
35. A. warm B. warmer C. warmth D. warmly

VI. READING
Water polo is a challenging water sport played between two teams that try to throw a ball into the opponents’
goal. A team consists of six field players and one goalkeeper. The goal of the game resembles that of soccer; to
score as many goals as possible, each goal being worth one point. A perfect water polo athlete can be best
described as having the over-arm accuracy of a baseball pitcher, the vertical leap of a volleyball player, the
toughness of a rugby player, the endurance of a cross-country runner, and the strategy of a chess player. The
goalkeeper, who guards a goal measuring three meters by 90cm, is the only player who is allowed to touch the
bottom of the pool.
The players have to wear costumes and swimming caps. The caps are used to protect the players’ ears from
water. The home team usually wears white caps, the visiting team wears blue ones and the goalies wear red caps
with the number 1 in white.
36. In water polo when the game starts, each team consists of ________ people playing.
A. four B. five C. six D. seven
37. Which of the following is NOT similar to water polo ?
A. football B. chess C. weightlifting D. volleyball
38. Who is allowed to touch the bottom of the pool ?
A. goalies B. no one C. players D. coaches
39. Why do the players have to wear swimming caps while playing water polo ?
A. to identify which teams are playing.
B. to protect their skins from the sun.
C. to protect their head from attack.
D. to be more fashionable.
40. The word “costumes” in the second paragraph has the closest meaning to___________.
A. shoes B. swimming suits C. caps D. glasses

VII. WORD FORM


41. The local government has worked hard on the (PREVENT) ___prevention__ of the infectious disease.
42. His lecture was so (INFORMATION) ___informative__ that a lot of students want to record it.
43. I could never play team sports – I lack the ( COMPETE) ___competitive___ spirit.
44. They are concerned about the (CONSERVE)___conservation___ of the natural environment.
45. This college has a long tradition of (ATHLETE) ______athletic____ excellence.

VIII. TRANSFORMATION: Rewrite the following sentences, beginning with the given words/ phrases
46. He did military service, then he went to university.
After he had done military service, he went to university.

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47. As I get older, I want to travel less.
The older I get, the less I want to travel.
48. They elected her president of the club.
She was elected president of the club.
49. Perhaps the others are looking for us now.
The others might be looking for us now.
50. When the fog got thicker, the search was cancelled.
The search was called off when the fog got thicker.

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SECOND SEMESTER TEST 2014-2015

I. Pronunciation: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the
others:
1: A. gold B. region C. organize D. game
2: A. south B. young C. won D. country
3: A. title B. organize C. spirit D. surprising

II. Stress: Choose the word whose stress pattern is placed differently from the others:
4: A. limit B. legal C. women D. deny
5: A. cultural B. movement C. society D. history

III. Vocabulary – Structure – Speaking:


6: Would you like to have dinner with me?
A. Yes, I’d love to. B. Yes, it is. C. Yes, so do I. D. I’m very happy.
7: In some Asian countries women are undervalued and they never have the same _____ as men.
A. limit B. status C. formality D. basis
8: Of course you can come to the party. _________.
A. The more the merrier B. The more and the merrier
C. The more and more merrier D. The more and merrier
9: When the lights _________, we couldn’t see anything.
A. went on B. turned on C. turned off D. went out
10: When Henry ____ home after a hard day at work, his children ___.
A. arrived/ slept B. arrived/ were sleeping
C. was arriving/ slept D. had arrived/ were sleeping
11: A __________ problem, feeling or belief is difficult to change because its causes have been there for a long
time.
A. intellectual B. significant C. deep-seated D. dependent
12: You need more exercise, you should ________ golf.
A. take up B. give up C. carry out D. look over
13: It was very kind ______ him _______ help me with English.
A. for/ to B. to/ for C. of/ to D. to/ to
14: You have to move this box to make room_____ the new TV set.
A. with B. for C. of D. to
15: Birth control methods have ______ women from the endless cycle of childbearing and rearing.
A. freedom B. free C. freely D. freed
16: I am grateful ______ you _______ your assistance.
A. for/ to B. with/ for C. to/ about D. to/ for
17: The company is trying to create a young ______ image.
A. energetic B. energetically C. energize D. energy
18: I’m taking my end-of-term examination tomorrow.
A. Good luck. B. Good day. C. Good time. D. Good chance.
19: The case has been ______ studied.
A. intense B. intensity C. intensive D. intensively
20: As I get older, I want to travel less.
A. I’m getting older and older, so I don’t want to travel more.
B. The more I get old, the less I want to travel.
C. I don’t want to travel because of my old age.
D. The older I get, the less I want to travel.
21: It is against the law to ______ on the basis of sex, age, marital status, or race.
A. believe B. discriminate C. gain D. suit
22: The woman ______whom you gave place on the bus this morning is my aunt.
A. with B. for C. no preposition D. to
23: Waiter! I’d like the menu, please.
A. Yes, thank you. B. Here you are, sir. C. Here they are, sir. D. Here are you, sir.
24: On arriving home I found that she_____ just a few minutes before.
A. had left B. left C. was leaving D. leaves

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25: Excuse me! Where is the nearest post office?
A. Never mind. B. I’m afraid not. C. Thanks a lot. D. It’s just behind you.

IV. Error recognition:


26: Only people have good command of English will be invited to the interview.
A B C D
27: Not many people realize that apples have been cultivating for over 3,000 years.
A B C D
28: Robert spent three sleepless nights to try to solve the problem.
A B C D
29: Had I known you were in hospital, I had come to visit you.
A B C D
30: The bored students yawned while listening to the bored professor.
A B C D

V. Gap-filling:
The Asia- Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) organization (31) ____ of 18 Pacific Rim countries. They
are responsible (32) ___ the production of about 80% of the world’s computers and high technological
components. The countries of the organization, (33) ___ have a small administrative headquarter, include
Brunei, Canada, Chile, China, Indonesia, Japan, Malaysia, Mexico, New Zealand, Papua New Guinea, the
Philippines, Singapore, South Korea, Taiwan, Thailand and the United States. APEC was (34) ___ in 1989 to
promote free trade and economic (35) ____ of the member nations. The heads of state of the member nations
met in 1993 and in 1996 trade officials had annual meetings.
31: A. includes B. consists C. holds D. compounds
32: A. with B. of C. on D. for
33: A. that B. which C. where D. whose
34: A. formed B. discovered C. taken D. found
35: A. transmission B. contribution C. integration D. communication

VI. Reading:
Aerobic exercise can help you lose weight. It can help you stay at a healthy weight. Aerobic exercise
burns calories. A calorie is a unit of measurement. It measures the amount of energy in foods. It measures the
amount of energy your body uses. When you take in the same number of calories that you burn every day, your
weight stays the same. If you take in more calories than you burn, you gain weight. If you take in fewer calories
than you burn, you lose weight. Regular exercise helps you burn calories. Strength training may also help with
weight control. Lifting weights burns calories. Lifting weights also makes more muscle in your body. Muscles
burn more calories than fat.
Stretching exercises can make your body more flexible. There are stretches for your arms, legs, neck,
and trunk. Many people do slow exercises and stretches called yoga to make their bodies more flexible. A
physical education teacher can show you how to do stretches. You should do warm-up stretches before you do
aerobic or aerobic exercises. You should do cool-down stretches when you have finished exercising. Warm-up
and cool-down stretches can help prevent muscle injuries.
36: Your weight will be the same
A. by doing aerobic exercise.
B. when the number of calories you take in every day is burnt.
C. by lifting weights.
D. when you measure the amount of energy in foods every day.
37: You put on weight
A. when you take in fewer calories than you burn.
B. when you take in more calories than you burn.
C. by doing regularly exercise to burn calories.
D. unless you do exercise regularly.
38: Strength training like lifting weights may help with weight control because
A. weights are always able to lift
B. it makes fat burn calories.
C. it burns calories by making more muscles.
D. you are too tired to take in calories.
39: Yoga, which makes your bodies more flexible, is

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A. only for people who need weight control.
B. warm-up stretches.
C. included in weight lifting.
D. slow exercises and stretches.
40: Warm-up and cool-down stretches
A. prevent muscles from burning calories.
B. should be done if you want to avoid muscle injuries.
C. help you finish exercising feeling better.
D. are needed before you do aerobic exercise.

VII. Writing:
Discuss whether you agree or disagree with the statement: “Married women should not go to work”.
(120 words)

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SECOND SEMESTER TEST 2015-2016

SECTION A: (8 POINTS)
I. Error recognition:
1. I didn’t hear the phone ring; I must be in the garden at the time.
A B C D
2. Only people have good command of English will be invited to the interview.
A B C D
3. Canoeing is the activity of paddle a canoe for the purpose of recreation, sport, or transportation.
A B C D
4. Robert spent three sleepless nights to try to solve the problem.
A B C D
5. John’s get a pay raise will make him happy.
A B C D

II. Stress: Choose the word whose stress pattern is placed differently from the others:
6. A. deny B. legal C. women D. limit
7. A. ability B. significant C. political D. sympathetic

III. Vocabulary – Structure – Speaking:


8. Why are you angry _______ me? Did I do something wrong?
A. by B. with C. about D. to
9. It was very nice ______ her to drive me to the airport.
A. at B. with C. of D. to
10. _____ you study for these exams, ______ you will do.
A. The harder/ the better B. The more/ the more
C. The harder/ the more D. The more/ the harder
11. In many parts of the world, crop failure means ______, which leads to the death of many people each year.
A. drought B. desert C. famine D. shortcoming
12. Mrs Pike is a feminist, who ______ that women should be offered the same job opportunities as men.
A. varies B. advocates C. leads D. votes
13. There used to be widespread ____ against women doctors.
A. discriminated B. discriminating C. discriminatory D. discrimination
14. Before last night, I _______ Dane for years.
A. didn’t see B. haven’t seen C. hadn’t seen D. wasn’t seen
15. I visit a new country every year. By the time I’m 60 I _____ all the most interesting countries in the world.
A. visit B. will visit C. have visited D. will have visited
16. I have lost touch __________ Mary for two years.
A. of B. from C. with D. to
17. The company is trying to create a young ______ image.
A. energy B. energetic C. energize D. energetically
18. The case has been ______ studied.
A. intense B. intensive C. intensity D. intensively
19. Vaccine supplies started to run dry as the flu outbreak reached ______ proportions.
A. epidemic B. disaster C. deadly D. falling
20. The sudden resignation of the financial director put the company in a very ______ position.
A. weak B. unsteady C. vulnerable D. collapsed
21. The faster we finish, _______
A. the sooner can we leave B. the sooner we can leave
C. we can leave sooner and sooner D. we can leave the sooner
22. Of course you can come to the party. _________.
A. The more the merrier B. The more and the merrier
C. The more and merrier D. The more and more merrier
23. Would you like to have dinner with me?
A. Yes, so do I. B. Yes, I’d love to. C. Yes, it is. D. I’m very happy.
24. How did the home team play in the last match?
A. Pretty much. B. Not at all. C. Yes, please. D. Pretty well, I think.

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25. Which animal is your favourite pet?
A. Cats are patient. B. Fish eat little.
C. Parrots are expensive. D. Dogs always make good pets.
26. The bomb __________ in the garage, fortunately no one hurt.
A. went out B. put out C. went off D. put out
27. The organization was ________ in 1950 in the USA.
A. set off B. made out C. made off D. set up

IV. Pronunciation: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the
others:
28. A. vulnerable B. suffering C. volunteer D. struggle
29. A. title B. spirit C. organize D. surprising
30. A. gold B. game C. organize D. region

V. Gap-filling:
The World Health Organization (WHO) is a specialized agency of (31) _________ United Nations that
acts as a coordinating authority on international public health. (32) _______ on 7 April, 1948, and headquartered
in Geneva, Switzerland, the agency inherited the mandate and resources of its predecessor, the Health
Organization.
The WHO’s constitution states that its (33)__________ is “the attainment by all people of the highest
possible level of health.” Its major task is to combat diseases, especially key infectious diseases, and to promote
the general health of the people of the world. The WHO also sponsors programs to prevent and treat serious
(34)_________ such as SARS, malaria, and AIDS. The WHO supports the development and distribution of safe
and effective vaccines, pharmaceutical diagnostics, and drugs. After over 2 decades of fighting smallpox, the
WHO declared in 1980 that the disease had been eradicated – the first disease in history to be eliminated
(35)________ human effort.
31. A. a B. the C. an D. no article
32. A. Found B. Organized C. Established D. Held
33. A. strategy B. project C. objective D. demand
34. A. disasters B. catastrophes C. sufferings D. epidemics
35. A. by B. at C. for D. from

VI. Reading:
A trend in women’s change in attitude to work and home life roles has launched because more and more
women begin to feel the stress and exhaustion when they play multiple roles.
The image for women of the 1950s was the domesticated housewife and mother who cooked, cleaned and
sewed. The vogue woman of today is proud while possessing the role as career woman and mother, wife, and
domestic organizer. Yet, the main thing that has really changed for the modern woman is the fact that her
workout has doubled from the duality of her role. The effects of this duality are being felt through stress, and
unfairness.
A recent study has shown that 68% of women see a conflict between working and raising a family. It is no
wonder since large amounts of stress stem from a woman’s professional career in collaboration with her role as
housekeeper and mother. A study in 1997 by the Canadian Review of Sociology and Anthropology said, “Stress
appears to be strongly related to being employed outside the home and is more strongly felt by women working
more hours, especially those working full-time.” The 2001 U.S. Current Population Survey found that many
women wished to have fewer office hours. More and more women wanted to cut work hours because they found
it difficult to take care of household responsibilities while maintaining a career. The Female Lifestyle Survey
of Great Britain 2004 found that 86% of full time working women did most of the housework and 77% did most
of the child rearing, which made them quite exhausted.
36. Being both a career woman and domestic organizer makes women ___________________.
A. happy and independent B. proud and exciting
C. stressed and exhausted D. vogue and wonderful
37. According to the passage, which statement is not TRUE?
A. There have been several studies and surveys on women and their roles
B. Many women realize a conflict between working and raising a family
C. Stress stems from a woman’s professional career and her roles as a housekeeper and mother
D. All women can do well with their roles both at home and at work
38. The writer _____________.

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A. described the situations that working women suffered from stress and exhaustion
B. advised women to quit their jobs and stay at home for childrearing
C. conducted several surveys on women and their work
D. objected to the fact that women worked outside the home
39. According to the result of a survey mentioned in the passage, many women ________.
A. did not want to join social activities
B. wanted to have more work hours
C. did not want to do housework anymore
D. wanted to have fewer work hours
40. The passage is about ____________.
A. women’s stress caused by her children
B. women’s exhaustion caused by her boss
C. women’s difficulties when they have to work both outside and at home
D. women’s preference of multiple roles

SECTION B: (2 POINTS)
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before
it. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
1. I live in the town not far from the capital.
→ The town in WHICH I LIVE IS NOT FAR FROM THE CAPITAL.
2. Nobody does it better than you.
→ There isn’t ANYBODY THAT DOES IT BETTER THAN/ AS WELL AS YOU.
3. I first met him when I was a student.
→ I have known HIM SINCE I WAS A STUDENT.
4. “I dislike it when people criticize me unfairly,’ he said.
→ He objected to BEING CRITICIZED UNFAIRLY.
5. I have lost interest in going to the same places all the time.
→ I am fed up WITH GOING TO THE SAME PLACES ALL THE TIME.

II. In about 120 words, write a paragraph about “The benefits students get from their taking part in
extra-curricular activities at school.” Write your paragraph on your answer sheet. (1.5 POINTS)
1. Bố cục (0.4)
2. Nội dung phù hợp chủ đề – phát triển ý có lập luận, dẫn chứng, có từ liên kết và đủ số lượng
từ (0.55)
3. Sử dụng từ phù hợp chủ đề - từ vựng đa dạng, phù hợp văn viết và đa dạng về cấu trúc ngữ
pháp (0.3)
4. Ngữ pháp – dấu câu – chính tả (0.25)

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SECOND SEMESTER TEST 2016-2017

PART 1: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS


I. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from that of the others.
1: A. agency B. society C. official D. civilian
2: A. cross B. soldier C. propose D. almost

II. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose stress pattern is placed
differently from that of the others.
3: A. status B. argue C. basis D. against
4: A. belief B. consider C. employment D. natural

III. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
5: It is against the law to ________ on the basis of sex, age, martial status, or race.
A. believe B. suit C. discriminate D. gain
6: “Would you mind turning down your stereo?’’ - “______________”
A. I’m really sorry! I’m not paying attention.
B. Yes, I do.
C. Oh! I’m sorry! I didn’t realize that.
D. No, I don’t.
7: Sports ________ are available in our school gymnasium.
A. facilities B. instruments C. appliances D. tools
8: You need more exercise, you should ________ golf.
A. give up B. take up C. look over D. carry out
9: In our modern time, the _______ of women has shifted from homemaker to outside worker.
A. right B. period C. pay D. role
10: The children are very excited _______ going on holiday.
A. for B. with C. on D. about
11: The college is ________ host to a group of visiting Russian scientists.
A. playing B. doing C. making D. holding
12: - Alice: “What shall we do this weekend?”
- Carol: “________________________”
A. I went out for dinner. B. Oh, that’s good.
C. Let’s go out for dinner. D. No problem.
13: You will see him when he ______ here tomorrow.
A. has come B. will come C. come D. comes
14: _______ you study for these exams, _________ you will do.
A. The more/ the more B. The harder/ the more
C. The harder/ the better D. The more/ the harder

IV. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
15: Married (A) customs differ(B) greatly (C) from society to society(D).
16: I found my new (A) contact lenses strangely (B) at first, but I got used (C) to them in the end(D).

V. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
17: The rains of 1993 causing the Missouri river to overflow resulted in one of the worst floods of the 20th
century.
A. lessened B. caused C. stopped D. overcame
18: The tiny irrigation channels were everywhere and along some of them the water was running.
A. supplying water B. cleaning with water
C. washing out with water D. flushing out with water

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VI. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
19: They protested about the inhumane treatment of the prisoners.
A. vicious B. callous C. warm-hearted D. cold-blooded
20: They have not made any effort to integrate with the local community.
A. cooperate B. separate C. connect D. put together

VII. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blank.
Human rights are those rights that each person is (21)_____ to simply because he or she is a human
being. The concept of human rights is (22)_____ on the idea that each person has worth and dignity, and thus
deserves certain basic freedom. The laws and court systems of most nations are designed to protect human
rights. But (23)_____ systems are not always effective, and many fail to acknowledge certain human rights.
Today, international standards help to ensure human rights (24)_____ national governments do not. Most of the
international laws that define and guarantee human rights were developed by the United Nations (UN), an
organization (25)_____ to worldwide peace and security. Almost every independent country in the world
belongs to the UN. Thus, the UN joins most of the world into an international community.
21: A. entitled B. tied C. related D. connected
22: A. found B. based C. built D. located
23: A. international B. national C. multinational D. nationalized
24: A. while B. since C. so D. because
25: A. dedicates B. dedicated C. dedication D. dedicating

VIII. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blank.
Who talk more - men or women? Most people believe that women talk more. However, linguist Deborah
Tannen, who has studied the communication style of men and women, says that this is a stereotype. According
to Tannen, women are more verbal - talk more - in private situations, where they use conversation as the "glue"
to hold relationships together. But, she says, men talk more in public situations, where they use conversation to
exchange information and gain status. Tannen points out that we can see these differences even in children.
Little girls often play with one "best friend", their play includes a lot of conversation. Little boys often play
games in groups; their play usually involves more doing than talking. In school, girls are often better at verbal
skills, boys are often better at mathematics.
A recent study at Emory University helps to shed light on the roots of this difference. Researchers studied
conversation between children aged 3-6 and their parents. They found evidence that parents talk very differently
to their son than they do to their daughters. The startling conclusion was that parents use more language with
their girls. Specifically, when parents talk with their daughters, they use more descriptive language and more
details. There is also far more talk about emotions, especially sadness, with daughters than with sons.
26: Which sentence best expresses the main idea of the first paragraph?
A. Little girls and little boys have different ways of playing.
B. Women talk more in private, and men talk more in public.
C. Women talk more than men.
D. It’s stereotype that women talk more than men.
27: Which sentence best expresses the main idea of the second paragraph?
A. Study at Emory University helps explain the differences between communication styles of boys and
girls.
B. Emory University found that parents talk more with their daughters than with their sons.
C. Parents do not talk much about sadness with their sons.
D. Researchers have studied the conversations of children and their parents.
28: Which of the following statements can be inferred from the second paragraph?
A. Girls have more practice discussing sadness than boys do.
B. Boys don’t like to be with their parents as much as girls do.
C. Parents don’t enjoy talking with their sons as much as with their daughters.
D. A recent study found that parents talk differently to their sons and daughters.
29: Which of the following statements is TRUE about the passage?
A. Parents use more language to talk with their daughters.
B. Boys don’t like showing their emotions.
C. Parents give more love to their daughters than their sons.

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D. Girls are thought to be more talkative than boys.
30: Which word could best replace "startling"?
A. annoying B. surprising C. beginning D. interesting
31: Which word is similar in meaning to "glue" in the first paragraph?
A. rope B. game C. means D. sticky substance
32: Which of the following phrases best explains the meaning of the word "verbal"?
A. being very talkative B. deriving from verbs
C. connected with the use of spoken language D. using very loud noise

IX. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
It is estimated that over 99 percent of all species that ever existed have become extinct. What causes
extinction? When a species is no longer adapted to a changed environment, it may perish. The exact causes of
a species’ death vary from situation to situation. Rapid ecological change may render an environment hostile to
a species. For example, temperatures may change and a species may not be able to adapt. Food resources may
be affected by environmental changes, which will then cause problems for a species requiring these resources.
Other species may become better adapted to an environment, resulting in competition and, ultimately, in the
death of a species.
The fossil record reveals that extinction has occurred throughout the history of Earth. Recent analyses have
also revealed that on some occasions many species became extinct at the same time – a mass extinction. One of
the best-known examples of mass extinction occurred 65 million years ago with the demise of dinosaurs and
many other forms of life. Perhaps the largest mass extinction was the one that occurred 225 million years ago,
when approximately 95 percent of all species died. Mass extinctions can be caused by a relatively rapid change
in the environment and can be worsened by the close interrelationship of many species. If, for example,
something was to happen to destroy much of the plankton in the oceans, then the oxygen content of Earth
would drop, affection even organisms not living in the oceans. Such a change would probably lead to a mass
extinction.
One interesting, and controversial, finding is that extinctions during the past 250 million years have tended
to be more intense every 26 million years. This periodic extinction might be due to intersection of the Earth’s
orbit with a cloud of comets, but this theory is purely speculative. Some researchers have also speculated that
extinction may often be random. That is, certain species may be eliminated and others may survive for no
particular reason. A species’ survival may have nothing to do with its ability or inability to adapt. If so, some of
evolutionary history may reflect a sequence of essentially random events.
33: The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to
A. environment B. extinction C. 99 percent D. species
34: The word “ultimately” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A. exceptionally B. Unfortunately C. eventually D. dramatically
35: What does the author say in paragraph 1 regarding most species in Earth’s history?
A. They have been able to adapt to ecological changes.
B. They have remained basically unchanged from their original forms.
C. They are no longer in existence.
D. They have caused rapid change in the environment.
36: Which is NOT mentioned in paragraph 1 as resulting from rapid ecological change?
A. Temperature changes B. Competition among species
C. Availability of food resources D. Introduction of new species
37: The word “demise” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
A. change B. help C. recovery D. death
38: Why is “plankton” mentioned in paragraph 2?
A. To emphasize the importance of food resources in preventing mass extinction
B. To illustrate a comparison between organisms living on the land and those in the ocean
C. To point out that certain species could never become extinct
D. To demonstrate the interdependence of different species
39: According to paragraph 2, evidence from fossils suggests that
A. there has been only one mass extinction in Earth’s history.
B. extinctions on Earth have generally been massive.
C. extinction of species has occurred from time to time throughout Earth’s history.
D. dinosaurs became extinct much earlier than scientists originally believed.
40: In paragraph 3, the author makes which of the following statements about a species’ survival?

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A. It may depend on random events.
B. It reflects the interrelationship of many species.
C. It does not vary greatly from species to species
D. It is associated with astronomical conditions.

Part 2: WRITING
I. Word form
1. They’re concerned about the _____conservation_____ of the natural environment. (conserve)
2. Finally, the committee could reach an ____agreement______. (agree)
3. My piano playing has improved ____significantly_______ since I’ve had a new teacher. (significant)
4. He’s still ____financially_____ dependent on his parents. (finance)
5. He could never play team sports as he lacked the ____competitive___ spirit. (compete)

II. Transformation
1. They told me to wait outside.
-> I was told to wait outside.
2. How long did it take them to build this bridge?
-> How long did they spend building this bridge?
3. We understood the lesson well when we listened to him attentively.
-> The more attentively we listened to him, the better we understood the lesson.
4. The children were swimming for hours. The water was cold.
-> Cold as the water was, the children were swimming for hours.
5. He got down to writing the letter as soon as he returned from his walk.
-> He had no sooner returned from his walk than he got down to writing the letter.

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SECOND SEMESTER TEST 2017-2018

A. MULTIPLE CHOICE
*Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.
1. A. promised B. relieved C. solved D. lived
2. A. weather B. therefore C. depth D. these

* Choose the word whose stress pattern is placed differently from that of the others.
3. A. product B. postpone C. purpose D. stable
4. A. impression B. improvement C. equipment D. childbearing

* Choose the answer that best completes each sentence.


5. The 22nd Southeast Asian Games were the first big sports event Vietnam ________________.
A. owned B. hosted C. presented D. led
6. Our football team successfully _________ the Championship.
A. held B. received C. defended D. gained
7. Every citizen can enjoy the same ____________ to vote, to gain education and to work.
A. right B. way C. authority D. equality
8. In many parts of the world, crop failure means ________, which leads to death of many people each year.
A. drought B. flood C. desert D. famine
9. - A: "Excuse me! Can I book a ticket for London?" - Y: " __________________."
A. Hurry up B. Never mind C. Certainly D. With pleasure
10. - A: "Is Tom thirsty?" - B: " ___________. If so, he will tell you."
A. I beg your pardon B. I don’t think so C. Yes, of course D. Let’s have a look
11. Maria ______________ at the party after most of the guests had gone home.
A. turned up B. came up C. set off D. stayed up
12. The farmer locked the barn door after his horse ________________.
A. had been stolen B. is stolen C. will be stolen D. has been stolen
13. Generally, the more an artist is known, ___________ he or she makes.
A. more and more money B. the less
C. more money D. the more money
14. It’s dangerous to travel across the desert; people __________ always travel in groups.
A. so B. but C. however D. therefore

*Choose the underlined part that needs to be corrected.


15. The possibility that many animals may become extinction is terrible.
A B C D
16. There is nothing more annoying than interrupting when you are speaking.
A B C D

*Choose the words or phrases that have the CLOSEST meaning with the underlined words or phrases.
17. An international medical conference initiated by Davison resulted in the birth of the League of Red Cross
Societies in 1991.
A. helped B. started C. treated D. dedicated
18. The cyclone has caused many thousands of deaths.
A. resulted in B. resulted from C. brought in D. carried out

*Choose the words or phrases that have the OPPOSITE meaning with the underlined words or phrases.
19. There have been significant changes in women’s lives since the women’s liberation movement.
A. important B. essential C. necessary D. trivial
20. The news was greeted with enthusiasm by those at the meeting.
A. excitement B. disinterest C. keenness D. emotionless

* Choose the word or phrase that best fits the blank space.
The 23rd Southeast Asian Games (also (21)____________ as the 2005 SEAG) were held in the Philippines
from November 27th to December 5th in 2005. The games were (22)_________ by the eleven nations of
Southeast Asia.

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This was the first time that the opening and closing ceremonies were held in a large open field, (23)_____
the fact that Manila has many stadiums and/or arenas. The organization decided to hold the games at an open
space to accommodate the large number of participants and (24)______________.
As a result, the 2005 SEAG ranks as having the largest audience having reached 200,000 people during
the opening and closing ceremonies.
These games were also noted for having the most number of delegates in the history of the SEA Games.
(25)_________ the end, all participating countries received medals.
21. A. known B. considered C. regarded D. used
22. A. participated B. taken place C. carried out D. carried on
23. A. because of B. though C. despite D. due to
24. A. viewers B. witnesses C. observers D. spectators
25. A. By B. At C. On D. In

*Read the passage and choose the best answer to each question below.
Since the end of the Second World War, Frenchwomen have gradually acquired the right to lead their
lives as they think fit: the right to vote in 1944, the right to use contraception (1967) and to abortion (1975) or
the possibility of pursuing a profession without having to ask for their husband’s permission (1965).
In 1954, women accounted for approximately one third of the working population. Today they account
for nearly half of it (47,9%) and nearly all women aged between 15 and 49 (80%) are gainfully employed. Their
professional activity diminishes in accordance with the number of children and the presence of young children.
Eight out of ten women work in service sector and there are more women than men in part-time employment
(one woman in three works part-time, eight part-time workers out of ten are women). Unlike the other western
European countries, the employment of women has not led to a drop in the birthrate. They have acquired the
same rights as men, even if a lot remains to be done with regard to equal pay, equality in the political sphere
and access to high-level jobs.
Today women have access to all jobs, even those traditionally considered as a male preserve, but it is still
harder for them to attain the highest position in the hierarchy. They are however more affected by unemployment
than men, regardless of their socio-professional category. In 2002, the unemployment figures for men and
women are 8% and 10% respectively. 25% of unskilled women and 19% of unskilled men were job-seekers.

26. When did French women acquire the right to use contraception?
A. 1975 B. 1944 C. 1965 D. 1967
27. According to the passage how many percent of French women work in the service sector?
A. 8% B. 80% C. 10% D. 1%
28. According to the passage, which of the statements below is true about unemployment?
A. It affects more women than men.
B. It affects more men than women.
C. 10% of unskilled men were jobless in 2002.
D. 19% of unskilled women were seeking for jobs in 2002.
29. The word "approximately" could be best replaced by which of the following?
A. only B. merely C. roughly D. thoroughly
30. According to the passage, which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Today French women account for nearly half of the working population.
B. More women than men work part-time.
C. The greater the number of employed women, the lower the birth rate in French.
D. It is still hard for women to hold the highest positions in the hierarchy.
31. The word "unskilled" could be best replaced by which of the following?
A. expert B. incompetent C. experienced D. professional
32. It may be inferred from the passage that ___________.
A. Women didn’t have the right to vote until they were allowed to pursue their own career.
B. Today women still have no access to high-level jobs.
C. Today even highly-educated women can’t achieve a position of leadership.
D. The gender pay gap hasn’t been eliminated yet.

*Read the passage and choose the best answer to each question below.
The ASEAN University Network (AUN) is an arrangement between 30 universities in the ten ASEAN
countries. The AUN is composed of a Board of Trustees (BOT), the participating universities, and the AUN

15
Secretariat. The Board of Trustees consists of one representative from each of the ASEAN Member Countries,
the Secretary-General of ASEAN, the Chairman of the ASEAN subcommittee on Education (ASCOE) and the
Executive Director of the AUN. The BOT has the task of formulating policies, approving project proposals, the
allocation of budgets and coordinating implementation activities. The board makes decisions on these activities
on the basis of consensus.
The participating universities have the task of implementing the AUN programmes and activities. When
AUN was founded in 1995, it consisted of thirteen universities from seven countries. Due to the inclusion of
Myanmar, Laos and Cambodia in ASEAN, the network grew to 21 members. Although numerous applications
for membership have been received, it was decided to only admit universities from the new member countries.
Non members from the region however, are invited as observers on a regular basis.
The AUN Secretariat is involved in the planning, organization, monitoring and evaluation of AUN activities
and also in the development of new ideas and the acquisition of funding. The permanent office of the Secretariat
was established in 2000 and is located on the campus of Chulalongkorn University in Bangkok. The operating
costs of the secretariat are (at least until 2005) allocated by the Thai Government.
The financing of AUN activities comes from either cost sharing between the participating universities or from
the external ‘dialogue partners’ of ASEAN. The dialogue partners are EU, China, South Korea, Japan. India,
and Russia. The meetings within the AUN Framework are financed by the hosts and travel expenses by the
(universities of the) participants, or by universities from the richer countries for the poorer countries.

33. What is the passage about?


A. How to get funds for The ASEAN University Network.
B. The universities which participate in The ASEAN University Network.
C. What The ASEAN University Network is and how it works.
D. the role of Board of Trustees in ASEAN.
34. When AUN was founded, the number of universities involved is
A. 30 B. 15 C. 7 D. 13
35. Which of the following is responsible for providing budgets for projects?
A. The universities B. The Secretariat C. The dialogue partners D. BOT
36. The development of new ideas is carried out by
A. BOT B. Secretariat
C. the universities D. the dialogue partners
37. Where is the office of the Secretariat located?
A. in Thailand B. in Myanmar C. in Korea D. in Malaysia
38. Which of the following is unlikely to fund the AUN activities?
A. the rich countries B. the participating universities
C. the Thai government D. external partners
39. Which country is not listed as an external dialogue partners?
A. Japan B. South Korea C. Singapore D. Russia
40. What does the phrase "on a regular basis" mean?
A. regularly B. basically C. ordinarily D. always

B. WRITING
*Give the correct form of the words in the brackets.
41. There used to be widespread .............discrimination.......... against women doctors. (DISCRIMINATE)
42. Dolphins are a ........protected........ species. It’s illegal to harm or kill them. (PROTECT)
43. The .......competition....... for university places is greater than ever this year. (COMPETE)
44. He always ..........treats........ her with great courtesy. (TREATMENT)
45. EU members are allowed to travel ..........freely.... between member states. (FREE)

* Rewrite the following sentences, beginning with the given words or phrases.
46. The students may use dictionaries during the test.
-> Dictionaries MAY BE USED (BY THE STUDENTS) DURING THE TEST.
47. Mary is not as careful as her brother.
-> Mary's brother is more CAREFUL THAN SHE (IS) /HER.
48. Joe had left when I got to his home.
-> Before I GOT TO HIS/ JOE'S HOME, HE/ JOE (HAD) LEFT.
49. She looks like her father.
-> She takes AFTER HER FATHER.

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50. If she stays in England a long time, her English will be very good.
-> The longer SHE STAYS IN ENGLAND, THE BETTER HER ENGLISH WILL BE.

THE END OF THE BOOK

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