StudyIQ EPFO Mock Test 3

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Mock Test 3
1. Which one of the following is the synonyms of the word written in Capital letters in the
Sentence, “The embankments also need to be reinforced? In many places, they are just
made of mud and sand easily breached by a little gush of water”?
(a) strengthened
(b) Re-examined
(c) Replaced
(d) Reconstructed
Correct Ans. A
Sentence, “we return to the subject of floods again since nature’s fury seems still
Unabated”?
(a) unsympathetic
(b) unaltered
(c) Unparalleled
(d) Uncompromising
Correct Ans. D
Sentence, “Economic growth continuous to be strong in places where it has been buoyant
for several years and is finally picking up in places.”?
(a) drawing
(b) haphazard
(c) upbeat
(d) extravagant
Correct Ans. C
4. Which one of the following is the Antonyms of the word written in Capital letters in the
Sentence, “while he thought all their money was safely sitting in a bank, the value of stocks
plunged by almost 75%”?
(a) fell
(b) increased
(c) dropped
(d) appeared
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Correct Ans. B
Sentence, “In japan, corporate profits have climbed for four straight years and consumer
spending is rising brisklyon the back of declining unemployment?”
(a) vigorously
(b) efficiently
(c) slowly
(d) insignificantly
Correct Ans. C
Sentence, “Regulators are now tentatively stepping over a long standing divide between
enforcing basic rules and playing a part in business decisions.”?
(a) definite
(b) confident
(c) provisional
(d) cautious
Correct Ans. B
7. Which one of the following parts of the sentence “Manager have a lot to worry about, but
what are their greatest concerns.has an error?
(a) Manager have a lot

(b) To worry about,
(c) No error
(d) Their greatest concerns
Correct Ans. C
8. Which one of the following parts of the sentence “When business leaders fail to decide
and act wisely, their companies’ suffers.” has an error?
(a) When business leaders

(b) Fail to decide
(c) And act wisely,
(d) Their companies suffers

Correct Ans. D
9. Which one of the following parts of the sentence “we are often blindly to the many forces
that create and sustain our behaviours.” has an error?
(a) We are often blindly to

(b) The many forces
(c) That create and
(d) Sustain and behaviours
Correct Ans. A
10. Which one of the following parts of the sentence, “The transit system’s underground
tunnels and stations will be constructed next heritage structures” has an error?
(a) The transit system’s underground

(b) Tunnels and stations will
(c) Be constructed
(d) Next heritage structures.
Correct Ans. D
11. Which one of the following parts of the sentence “The fight among rival candidates
between the medium of catchy slogans has started. Has an error?
(a) The fight among
(b) Rival candidates between the medium
(c)Of catchy slogans
(d) Has started
Correct Ans. B
12. Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make
sentence meaningfully complete.
“He objected to the proposal because it was founded……………….on a principal and

also……..………was at times.”
(a) Faulty, desirable

(b) Imperative, reasonable
(c) Wrong, inconvenient

(d) Sound, acceptable
Correct Ans. C
13. 12. Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make
“The criterion for……………..a player should be based on his recent performance; but
fortunately, the journalist are………….to be carried away by earlier successes.
(a) Condemning, satisfying

(b) Judging, prone
(c) Revealing, reluctant
(d) Eager, acclaiming
Correct Ans. B
14. Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make
“You will see signs of……………everywhere, which speak well for the……………of these people.”
(a) Decoration, senses

(b) Clear, debris
(c) Beauty, careful
(d) Sacrificed, after
Correct Ans. D
15. From the choices given below each sentences, pick out the one which can substitute the
bold word/group of word correctly, without changing the meaning of the sentence.
“He claims that his proposal is preferable than that of any other employee.”
(a) Preferable than for

(b) Preferable for than
(c) Preferable more than that of
(d) Preferable to that of
Correct Ans. D
“Every one of us must have experienced how people have to put up with a good deal of
discomfort while travelling.”
(a) Have to be put with a good deal of

(b) Preferable for than
(c) Preferable more than that of
(d) No Errors
Correct Ans. D
“Our business firms were full aware of the problems they were going to face on the
threshold of the year 2000.”
(a) Have been full aware of

(b) Were fully aware of
(c) Had been fully aware at
(d) Were fully aware into
Correct Ans. B
18. In the following question, out of the four alternative choose the one which can be
substituted for the given words/sentences.
“One who offers his service on his own free will?”
(a) Worker
(b) Slave
(c) Volunteer
(d) Servant
Correct Ans. C
“A professional soldier hired to serve in a foreign army.”
(a) Mercenary
(b) Liquidator
(c) Venal
(d) Hireling
Correct Ans. A
“One who is always doubting.”
(a) Sceptic
(b) Deist
(c) Rationalist
(d) Positivist
Correct Ans. A
21. Before becoming the king of Magadha, Ashoka was the Governor of:-
a. Taxila
b. Ujjain
c. Kamarupa
d. Gandhara
Answer:- (b)
Explanation
As a prince, Ashoka was given the governorship of Ujjain and Taxila by his father Bindusara. He was
the Governor of Ujjain before becoming the king of Magadha.
22. Silver coin Tanka and copper coin Jital were introduced by which ruler of Delhi Sultanate?
a. Qutubuddin Aibak
b. Mohammad- bin Tughlaq
c. Razia Sultan
d. Iltutmish
Answer:- (d)
Explanation
Iltutmish is considered the real founder of Delhi Sultanate. He introduced reforms in civil
administration and the army. He issued the silver coin Tanka and copper coin Jital.
23. Resolutions on Fundamental Rights and National Economic Program were passed in which
session of Indian National Congress?
a. Lahore Session of 1929
b. Bombay Session of 1934
c. Tripuri Session of 1939
d. Karachi Session of 1931
Answer:- (d)
Explanation
The 1931 session of the INC was held in Karachi under the Presidency of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel. In
this session resolutions on Fundamental Rights and National Economic Program wear passed.
24. Consider the following:-

Kingdoms Capital
1. Sharqi - Hisar
2. Mewar - Chittorgarh
3. Malwa - Ahmednagar
Which of the above is/are correctly matched?

a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3
c. 2 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
Answer:- (c)
Explanation
 Jaunpur (in eastern Uttar Pradesh) served as the capital city of Sharqi rulers. Hence pair (1)
not correctly matched.
 Chittorgarh and Udaipur were historical capitals of Mewar kingdom. Hence pair (2) is
correctly matched.
 Malwa kingdom had their capital at Mandu. Hence pair (3) is also not matched.
25. For what reason Mahatma Gandhi had been accorded the title of ‘Kaisar-i-Hind’ by the British
government?
a. For working for the removal of indentured labour
b. For founding Indian Ambulance Corps during Boer wars
c. For raising the issues of indigo farmers of Champaran
d. For supporting British war efforts in the First World War
Answer:- (b)
Explanation
The Boer war was fought between Dutch-Africaans and British settlers in South Africa between
1899-1902. Britishers were defeated in this war. To help the wounded, Mahatma Gandhi founded
the Indian Ambulance Corps. For his service during the Boers War Mahatma Gandhi was bestowed
with the title of 'Kaisar-i-Hind'.
26. Consider the following:-

Organization Founder
1. The Indian League - Surendranath Banerjee

2. The East India Association - Dadabhai Naoroji
3. Indian National Association - Sisir Kumar Ghosh
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 2 only
d. 3 only
Answer:- (c)
Explanation
 The Indian League was started in 1875 by Sisir Kumar Ghosh with the object of stimulating
the sense of nationalism amongst the people and encouraging political education.
 The East India Association was organized by Dadabhai Naoroji in 1886 in London to discuss
the Indian question and influence public men in England to promote Indian welfare.
 Indian National Association was founded by Surendranath Banerjee in 1876. The objectives
of this Association were "promoting by every legitimate means the political, intellectual and
material advancement of the people".
 Hence only pair (2) is correctly matched.
27. Consider the following statements regarding ‘‘Kumarasambhava’:-

1. It was written by Bhavbhuti.
2. It describes the birth of Lord Kartikeya.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer:- (b)
Explanation
1. ‘Kumarasambhava’ was authored by Kalidasa.
2. It describes the story behind the birth of Kumara (Lord Kartikeya), son of Lord Shiva and
Goddess Parvati.
28. The Mughals borrowed the celebration of ‘Nauroz’ from:-

a. Armenians
b. Turks
c. Mongols
d. Persians
Answer:- (d)
Explanation
1. Third Mughal Emperor Akbar started celebrating other religions and cultures festivals in his
court.
2. He allowed the celebration of the Persian New Year called ‘Nauroz’ in his court.
3. Nauroz falls around the 21st March or Vernal equinox. Zoroastrians or Parsis in India also
celebrate Nauroz.
29. Consider the following statements regarding Lal Ded:-

1. She was the 14th century Shiva mystic saint.
2. She hailed from Bengal.
3. Her style of mystic poetry is called vatsun or Vakhs.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

a. 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1 and 3 only
Answer:- (a)
Explanation
1. Lal Ded was the 14th century Shiva mystic saint.
2. She hails from Kashmir. Her full name was ‘Lalleshwari’ or ‘Laila Arifa’.
3. Her message meant for the redemption of the individual soul.
4. She was the creator of the style of mystic poetry called vatsun or Vakhs, literally "speech"
(Voice).
30. Justice Party Movement was started by?

a. B. R. Ambedkar and Pandita Ramabai
b. C.N. Mudaliyar, T.M. Nair and P. Tyagaraja Chetti
c. E. V. Ramaswami Naikar and Narayana Guru
d. V.R. Shinde and Mahatma Gandhi
Answer:- (b)
Explanation
The Justice Party Movement was started by C.N. Mudaliyar, T.M. Nair and P. Tyagaraja Chetti
On November 20, 1916 in Madras Presidency. It was mainly focussed on opposition to the
Brahmanical set up of society and their dominance.
31. ‘Sahib’, ‘Sindh’, and ‘Sultan’ were:-

a. Name of ships during British India
b. First three steam locomotives of India
c. Mascots of first Asian Games
d. None of the above
Answer:- (b)
Explanation
1. The first passenger train in India ran between Bomaby and Thane on 16th April, 1853.
2. The 14-carriage train has been hauled by three stream locomotives:- Sahib, Sindh, and
Sultan.
32. Consider the following statements:-

1. Britishers established their first Madrasa in Delhi.
2. It was founded by Governor-General Lord Wellesly.

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer:- (d)
Explanation
1. Calcutta Madrasa was the earliest of the state-managed educational institutions under the
British rule in India.
2. It was founded by the then Governor-General Warren Hastings in October 1780.

1. The Kanpur Conspiracy Case was against the labour union leaders.
2. The Meerut Conspiracy Case was against leaders of Communist movement.

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer:- (d)
Explanation
1. The Kanpur Conspiracy Case(1924) was against leaders of Communist movement. Some
newly turned communists named MN Roy, Muzaffar Ahamed, SA Dange, Shaukat Usmani,
Nalini Gupta, and Gulam Hussain were caught by the British Government and were tried for
conspiring against the government.
2. The Meerut Conspiracy Case (1929) was against the rise of Communism in India. 31 labour
leaders including three Englishmen were arrested on the charge of conspiracy in this case.
34. In the Hunter Commission report, special emphasis was laid on the development of:-
a. Primary education
b. Higher education
c. Girls education
d. Technical education
Answer:- (a)
Explanation
Hunter Commission report laid special emphasis on the development of primary education. Hunter
commission was a landmark commission appointed by Viceroy Lord Ripon with objectives to look
into the complaints of the non-implementation of the Wood’s Despatch of 1854.
35. Which of the following leaders participated in all three Round Table Conferences?
a. Mahatma Gandhi
b. Tej Bahadur Sapru
c. Madan Mohan Malviya
d. Sarojini Naidu
Answer:- (b)
Explanation
1. B.R. Ambedkar and Tej Bahadur Sapru were the main leaders who took part in all three
Round Table Conference (RTC).
2. Mahatma Gandhi participated only in the Second RTC in 1931 on Congress’ behalf.
3. Sarojini Naidu also participated in Second RTC on Indian Women’s behalf in 1931.
4. Madan Mohan Malviya was a delegate at the Second RTC.
36. Slogan of ‘Liberty, Equality and Fraternity’ was given by which of the following revolutions?
a. Bolshevik revolution
b. American revolution
c. French revolution
d. Glorious revolution
Answer:- (c)
Explanation
The ideals of equality are established by French revolutionaries with the slogan of ‘Liberty,
Equality and Fraternity’.
37. What type of equality is/are mentioned in the Constitution of India?

1. Political
2. Status
3. Opportunity
Select the correct answer using the code given below:-

a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 1, 2, and 3
Answer:- (b)
Explanation
The preamble of the Constitution of India talks about the”...Equality of status and of opportunity...”.
These are the ideals of the French revolution of 1789.
38. Which of the following implies in the just distribution?

1. Abolition of untouchability
2. Giving extra time to visually impaired students in exams
3. Sharing of river water between India and Bangladesh
4. Providing special security to VIPs through taxpayers money

a. 1, 2, and 3
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 3 and 4
d. All of the above
Answer:- (a)
Explanation
Along with ensuring laws and policies that treat individuals in a fair manner, Social justice also
concerns the just distribution of goods and services, whether it is between nations or between
different groups and individuals within a society.
 Abolition of untouchability, provision of extra time for visually impaired students in an exam
and sharing of river water between two countries are examples of just distribution.
 However providing special security to VIPs from taxpayers' money does not fall under the
just distribution.
39. Who among the following believed that that only conflict could facilitate the growth of
Civilisation?
a. Friedrich Nietzsche
b. Otto Von Bismarck
c. Napoleon
d. WInston Churchill
Answer:- (a)
Explanation
The nineteenth century German philosopher Friedrich Nietzsche was one of those who glorified war.
Nietzsche did not value peace because he believed that only conflict could facilitate the growth of
civilisation.
40. Which of the following leaders of India was/were in favour of a strong relationship of India
with the United States?
1. B R Ambedkar
2. Deen Dayal Upadhyaya
3. C Rajagopalachari

a. 1, 2, and 3
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3
d. 3 only
Answer:- (a)
Explanation
There were parties and groups in the country that believed that India should be more friendly with
the bloc led by the US because that bloc claimed to be pro-democracy. Among those who thought
on these lines were leaders like Dr Ambedkar. Some political parties, which were opposed to
communism, also wanted India to follow a pro-US foreign policy. These included the Bharatiya Jan
Sangh and later the Swatantra Party. Deen Dayal Upadhyaya and C. Rajagopalachari were members
of Bharatiya Jan Sangh and Swatantra Party respectively.
41. With reference to ‘Nutrient Based Subsidy’, consider the following statements:-
1. All fertilizers are covered under this subsidy.
2. Subsidy is fixed as per nutrients (in per kg) in the fertilizer and leaves the determination of
price to suppliers.
Which of the statements is/are correct?

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer:- (b)
Explanation
Nutrient Based Subsidy was introduced in 2010 with the objective to promote balanced use of
fertilizers and to limit fertilizer subsidy of the government. Idea was to fix subsidies as per nutrients
(in per Kg ) in the fertilizer and leave the determination of price to suppliers. Hence statement (2) is
correct.
Urea is not covered under the scheme while Phosphorus (P) and Potassium (K) are decontrolled.
Hence statement (1) is not correct.
42. Which of the following factors is not taken into consideration for the calculation of Minimum
Support Prices by the Commission of Agriculture Cost and Prices?
a. International price trends
b. Implication on consumer
c. Inter crop parity
d. Land rent
Answer:- (d)
Explanation
Factors taken into consideration by CACP for fixing MSP include:
 Demand and supply
 Cost of production (A2 + FL method)
 Price trends in the market, both domestic and international
 Inter-crop price parity
 Terms of trade between agriculture and non-agriculture
 A minimum of 50% as the margin over cost of production
 Likely implications of MSP on consumers of that product.
43. Which of the following is/are possible impact/s of Direct Benefit Transfer?
1. Increase in inflation
2. Increase in fiscal savings
3. Decline in leakages
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:-

a. 1 Only
b. 2 and 3 Only
c. 1 and 3 Only
d. 1, 2, and 3
Answer:- (b)
Explanation
Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) is likely to have multiple benefits
 DBT will curb this expenditure by around 15%, which is a conservative estimate of current
leakages. This can save the government around 50,000 crore, which can be used more
efficiently for developmental purposes. Hence statement (2) is correct.
 DBT will put subsidies directly into the bank accounts of beneficiaries. This will discourage
discretionary expenditure. Hence statement (1) is incorrect.
 It is common knowledge that subsidized fertilizer is diverted to industrial use from the
agricultural sector, kerosene is mixed in diesel and PDS food is leaked in black markets. In
short, the subsidy regime has nurtured a mammoth corrupt ecosystem and black economy
in India. When DBT is implemented everything will be sold on market prices by the
government. Hence statement (3) is also correct.
44. Relative Poverty refers to:-

a. Bankruptcy
b. Trade cycles
c. Minimum needs of life
d. Economic inequalities
Answer:- (d)
Explanation
Relative Poverty refers to economic inequalities. It measures the difference of income between rich
and poor. Gini coefficient is used to measure economic inequality.
45. Which of the following payment instruments introduced by the banks is known as ‘Plastic
Money’?
a. Bearer Cheques
b. Credit Cards
c. Demand Drafts
d. Gift Cheques
Answer:- (b)
Explanation
Credit Cards and debit cards are known as ‘Plastic Money’ or cashless cash.
46. Which among the following schemes/missions provide for subsidized seeds to Indian farmers?
1. Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana
2. Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana
3. Macro Management Agriculture
4. National Food Security Mission

a. 1, 2 and 4 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1, 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 3 and 4 only
Answer:- (d)
Explanation
Schemes that provide for subsidized seeds are:- (1) Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana, (2) Integrated
Scheme on Oilseeds, Pulses, Oil Palm and Maize, (3) Macro Management Agriculture, (4) National
Food Security Mission, (5) Technology Mission on Cotton, (6) Hybrid Rice Seed Production.
47. With reference to Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana, consider the following statements:-
1. It is a Central Sector Scheme under the Ministry of Rural Development.
2. Promotion of micro-irrigation in the form of drips, sprinklers, pivots, rain-guns in farms is
one of the main objectives of this scheme.
3. It also focuses on amalgamating traditional water storage methods and practices with new
technology.

a. 2 and 3 only
b. 1, 2, and 3
c. 2 only
d. 1 only
Answer:- (c)
Explanation
Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme (Core Scheme) launched in
2015. The share for Centre- States is in the ratio of 75:25 per cent and in the case of north-eastern
region and hilly states it will be 90:10. Hence statement (1) is incorrect.
Under it’s ‘More Crop Per Drop’ objective, focus is laid on the Promotion of micro-irrigation in the
form of drips, sprinklers, pivots, rain-guns in farms. Hence statement (2) is correct.
Creating and rejuvenating various traditional water storage systems at feasible locations is this
scheme’s one of the objectives. Hence statement (3) is also incorrect.
48. With regard to the Kisan Credit Card Scheme consider the following statements:-
1. Farmers don’t have to give any collateral or mortgage anything for any amount of credit.
2. NABARD monitors this scheme in respect of all institutional lenders
3. Only persons engaged in farm activities are eligible for credit under this scheme.

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 only
c. 1, 2 and 3 only
d. None
Answer:- (d)
Explanation
All the statements are incorrect.
The Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme was prepared by National Bank for Agriculture and Rural
Development (NABARD) on the recommendation of R.V. Gupta committee in 1998-99 to fulfil the
financial requirements of the farmers at various stages of farming through institutional credit.
 In case of credit limit above Rs. 1 lakh, beneficiary has to pledge the crops or pledge his land as
mortgage. Hence statement (1) is incorrect.
 NABARD monitors the scheme in terms of the Cooperative Banks & RRBs and RBI in respect of
Commercial Banks. Hence statement (2) is also incorrect.
 Small and Marginal farmers, sharecroppers, lessee and tenant farmers and self-help groups
(SHGs) or Joint Liability Groups (JLGs)are eligible to get the benefits of the KCC Scheme. Hence
statement (3) is also incorrect.
49. Consider the following statements with regard to e-National Agriculture Market (e-NAM):-
1. The e-NAM Portal offers a single-window service for all Agricultural Produce Market
Committees related information and services.
2. Small Farmers Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC) is the lead agency for implementing e-NAM
under the aegis of the Ministry of Consumer Affairs. Food and Public Distribution.
3. e-NAM is a parallel marketing structure and a device to create a national network of physical
mandis which can be accessed online.

a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1 only
Answer:- (d)
Explanation
 e-NAM is an online trading platform for agricultural commodities in India. The market
facilitates farmers, traders and buyers with online trading in commodities. It is a pan-India
electronic trading portal which nets the prevailing Agricultural Produce Market Committees
(APMC) Mandis for making a united national market for agricultural commodities. It was
launched in April 2016. Hence statement (1) is correct.
 Small Farmers Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC) is the lead agency for implementing e-NAM
under the aegis of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. Hence statement (2) is
incorrect.
 e-NAM is not a parallel marketing structure but rather a device to create a national network
of physical mandis which can be accessed online. It seeks to leverage the physical
infrastructure of the mandis through an online trading portal, enabling buyers situated even
outside the Mandi/ State to participate in trading at the local level. Hence statement (3) is
also incorrect.
50. With reference to the ‘Doubling of Farmers Income’, consider the following statements:-
1. Year 2025 is set as the deadline to achieve this target.
2. According to the Ministry of Agriculture, public investment must grow 16.8% annually to
achieve this target.
Which of the above statements are correct:-

a. 1 Only
b. 2 Only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer:- (b)
Explanation
 Year 2022 is set as the deadline to achieve the target of doubling farmers’ income. Hence
statement (1) is not correct.
 According to the ministry of agriculture, public investment must grow 16.8% annually, up
from around 10%, to achieve the target of doubling farmer incomes. Hence statement (2) is
correct.
51. With reference to ‘Plea Bargaining’ in India, consider the following statements:-
1. It was introduced in Criminal Procedure in 2006.
2. In India it can be initiated only by the accused;
3. Cases where offence is committed against a woman cannot be disposed of through plea
bargaining.

a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
Answer:- (d)
Explanation
Recently, many members of the Tablighi Jamaat belonging to different countries have obtained
release from court cases in recent days by means of plea bargaining.
About ‘Plea bargaining’:-

 It refers to a person charged with a criminal offence negotiating with the prosecution for a
lesser punishment than what is provided in law by pleading guilty to a less serious offence.
 It primarily involves pretrial negotiations between the accused and the prosecutor. It may
involve bargaining on the charge or in the quantum of sentence.
 In India, it was introduced in 2006 as part of a set of amendments to the CrPC as Chapter
XXI-A, containing Sections 265A to 265L. Hence statement (1) is correct.
 In India, a plea bargaining process can be initiated only by the accused. Hence statement (2)
is also correct.
 Cases for which the practice is allowed are limited:-
1. Only someone who has been charged sheeted for an offence that does not attract the death
sentence, life sentence or a prison term above seven years can make use of the scheme
under Chapter XXI-A.
2. It is also applicable to private complaints of which a criminal court has taken cognisance.
3. It is not available for those that involve offences affecting the “socio-economic conditions”
of the country, or committed against a woman or a child below the age of 14. Hence
statement (3) is also correct.
52. ‘Gender Social Norms Index’ has been released by which of the following?
a. United Nations Women
b. World Economic Forum
c. Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development
d. United Nations Development Programme
Answer:- (d)
Explanation
‘Gender Social Norms Index’ has been released by the United Nations Development Programme
(UNDP).
 It is a social norms index which captures how social beliefs can obstruct gender equality
along four dimensions: political, educational, economic and physical integrity.
 It reflects how prevalent are biases from social norms in these dimensions as well as how are
they evolving.
53. With reference to Nagorno Karabakh recently seen in the news which of the following
statements is NOT correct?
a. It is situated in the south Ural mountains.
b. It is internationally recognised as part of Azerbaijan.
c. It is an ethnically Armenian dominated region.
d. It used to be part of the former USSR.
Answer:- (a)
Explanation
A war ensued between Armenia and Azerbaijan over the control of Nagorno Karabakh region.
About Nagorno Karabakh:-

 It is situated in the south Caucasus mountain range. Hence option (a) is not correct.
 It is a disputed territory between Azerbaijan and Armenia but internationally it is recognized
as part of Azerbaijan.
 It is ethnically an Armenian majority region and used to be part of Armenia but was
transferred to Azerbaijan when both Armenia and Azerbaijan were part of the former USSR.
54. ‘Oaxaca Khadi’ is woven in which of the following countries?

a. Myanmar
b. India
c. Bhutan
d. Mexico
Answer- (d)
Explanation
Recently in his monthly radio broadcast programme ‘Mann Ki Baat’, the PM mentioned about
‘Oaxaca Khadi’.
About ‘Oaxaca Khadi’:-

 It is a type of khadi being woven in Oaxaca, a place in Mexico.
 Khadi reached this place after a local resident became influenced by a film on Mahatma
Gandhi.
55. With reference to the National Productivity Council, consider the following statements:-
1. It has been established by the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution.
2. It undertakes Independent Third-Party Audits of Food Business Operators including Food
Storage Warehouses.

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer:- (b)
Explanation
Recently, the National Productivity Council has been granted accreditation conforming to ISO
17020:2012 by National Accreditation Board for Certification Body (NABCB), Quality Council of India
(QCI) for undertaking inspection and audit work in the area of Food Safety Audit and Scientific
Storage of Agricultural Products.
About the National Productivity Council:-

 It was established in 1958 under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry as an autonomous,
multipartite, non-profit organization. Hence statement (1) is not correct.
 This accreditation will enable it to undertake Independent Third-Party Audits of Food
Business Operators including Food Storage Warehouses as per Food Safety and Standards
(Food Safety Auditing) Regulations, 2018 of FSSAI as well as inspections of Warehouses as
per Warehousing Development and Regulatory Authority (WDRA) Rules, 2017. Hence
statement (2) is correct.
56. The first step in accounting process is: -

a. Identification
b. Measurement
c. Recording
d. Classification
Answer: - (a)
Explanation: -
Accounting Process
The process of recording financial transactions pertaining to a business is called Accounting
Process
Following are the steps of accounting process: -

1. Identification of the financial transactions and events: - Accounting records only those
transactions and events which are of financial nature. So, first of all, such transactions
and events are identified.
2. Measuring the transactions: - Accounting measures the transactions and events in
terms of money which are considered as a common unit.
3. Recording of transactions: - Accounting involves recording the financial transactions in
appropriate books of accounts such as Journal or Subsidiary Books.
4. Classifying the transactions: - Transactions recorded in the books of original entry-
Journal or Subsidiary Books are classified and grouped according to nature and posted in
separate accounts known as Ledger Account
5. Summarizing the transactions: - It involves presenting the classified data in a manner
and in the form of statements, which are understandable by the users. It includes Trial
Balance, Trading Account, Profit and Loss Account and Balance Sheet.
6. Analyzing and interpreting financial data: - Results of the business are analyzed and
interpreted so that users of financial statements can make a meaningful and sound
judgment.
7. Communicating the financial data or reports to the users: - Communication the
financial data to the users on time is the final step of accounting so that they can make
appropriate decisions.
57. In India, the accounting standard board was set up in which year: -
a. 1956
b. 1932
c. 1977
d. 1972
Answer: - (c)
Explanation: -
Accounting Standard Board: - On 21 April, 1977, the Institute of Chartered Accountants of
st
India (ICAI) as the premier accounting body in our country, set up “Accounting Standard
Board (ASB)” to synchronize the diverse accounting policies and practice prevalent in our
country. The prime duty of ASB is to formulate the accounting standards for India.
58. Meaning of credibility of going concern is: -

a. Continuing of business
b. Closing of business
c. Opening of business
d. None of these
Answer: - (a)
Explanation: -
Going Concern principle of Accounting: -
The concept of going concern assumes that a business firm would continue and carry out its
operations for a foreseeable future. There is no intention to close down the business, not
any necessity to scale down its business activities. The business firm will ot dissolve until it is
required by the law.
59. The first book of original entry is_______________.

a. Trial Balance
b. Journal
c. Ledger
d. None of these
Answer: - (b)
Explanation: -
The first book of original entry usually refers to the accounting journal. In this, you can
record any business transaction that occurs at a firm initially. Keeping in mind the double
entry system of accounting, the information in these books is summarized and then posted
into a general ledger.
60. Full form of GAAP: -

a. Generally Accepted Accounting Prudence
b. Generally Accounting Accepted Principles
c. Generally Accepted Accounting Principles
d. Journal Accepted Accounting Principles
Answer: - (c)
Explanation: -
Generally accepted accounting principles, or GAAP, are a set of rules that encompass the
details, complexities, and legalities of business and corporate accounting. The financial
Accounting Standards Board (FASB) uses GAAP as the foundation for its comprehensive set
of approved accounting methods and practices.
61. Income Tax is the example of which type of tax: -

a. Indirect Tax
b. Direct Tax
c. Both Indirect and Direct Tax
Answer: - (b)
Explanation: -
Tax: -
A tax is a compulsory financial charge or some other type of levy imposed on a taxpayer (an
individual or legal entity) by a government organization in order to fund government
spending and various public expenditures.
These taxes are further divided into two types: -
1. Direct Tax: - As the name suggest, are taxes that are directly paid to the government by
the taxpayer. It is a tax applied on individuals and organizations directly by the
government. Example: - Income Tax, Wealth tax, Corporate Tax, Property tax etc.
2. Indirect Tax: - Theses taxes are basically taxes that can be passed on to another entity or
individual. They are usually imposed on a manufacturer or supplier who then passes on
the tax to the customer. Example: - Goods and Services Tax (GST), Custom Duty, Anti-
Dumping Tax, Service Tax, Sales Tax etc.
62. The basis of recording transaction is: -

a. Order Form
b. Vouchers
c. Quotation List
d. Profit
Answer: - (b)
Explanation: -
A Voucher is a form that includes all of the supporting documents showing the money owed
and any payments to a supplier or vendor for an outstanding balance. The basis of recording
transaction is Vouchers.
63. The entry which affects cash and bank column of a triple column cash-book as: -
a. Compound Entry
b. Journal Entry
c. Contra Entry
d. None of these
Answer: - (c)
Explanation: -
Contra Entry
Contra Entry refers to transactions involving both cash and bank account. Both debit aspect
and credit aspect of a transaction get reflected in the cash book. In other words, any entry
which affects both cash and bank accounts is called contra entry. Example: - Cash received
from debtors and deposited into bank.
64. A note sent by buyer on return of goods is: -

a. Return Note
b. Credit Note
c. Debit Note
d. All of the above
Answer: - (c)
Explanation: -
Debit Note
A debit Note is a document used by a vendor to inform the buyer of current debt
obligations, or a document created by a buyer when returning goods received on credit. The
debit note can provide the information regarding an upcoming invoice or serve as a
reminder for funds currently due.
65. The next step after preparation of ledger is the preparation of: -
a. Final accounts
b. Trial Balance
c. Balance Sheet
d. Cash Flow Statement
Answer: - (b)
Explanation: -
After preparation of ledgers, the next step is preparation of trial balance. After reparation
of ledger accounts, all the balances of ledger accounts are transferred to trial balance and it
should have matched. The trial balance checks the arithmetic accuracy of the books of
accounts.
66. A seller on receipt of returned goods sends note to the party who return the goods, the
note is called: -
a. Return Note
b. Credit Note
c. Refund Note
d. Debit Note
Answer: - (b)
Explanation: -
Credit Note: -
A credit note is prepared, when a party is to be given a credit for reasons other than credit
purchase. When goods are received back from a customer, a credit note is sent to him. It is a
document sent by a seller to the buyer. In other words, it is a note prepared by vendor to
the purchaser, notifying that a credit has been made to their account against the goods
returned by the buyer.
67. The trial balance is prepared for: -

a. Locating error of principle
b. Locating clerical errors
c. Locating error of omission
d. All of the above
Answer: - (b)
Explanation: -
Trial balance is prepared in the statement form which shows debit balances and credit
balances of all accounts in the ledger, therefore it is called as a “Statement of Balance”.
“Trial balance is a statement, prepared with the debit and credit balances of ledger
accounts to test the arithmetical accuracy or Locating Clerical errors of the books”
68. The transactions involved both cash and bank account is called _________.
a. Contra Entry
b. Bank Entry
c. Cash Entry
d. Both b) and c)
Answer: - (a)
Explanation: -
A contra entry is recorded when the debit and credit affect the same parent account and
resulting in a net zero effect to the account. These are transactions that are recorded
between cash and bank accounts.
69. If repairs of Rs. 20,000/- is done on machinery, then which account will be debited?
a. Wages Account
b. Repairs Account
c. Capital Account
d. Machinery Account
Answer: - (b)
Explanation: -
When amount is spent on repairs of existing fixed assets, it is treated as revenue
expenditure and is debited to the Repairs Account.
The entry for this entry is: -
Repairs Account Dr. Rs. 20,000/-
To Cash Account Rs. 20,000/-
70. Amount spent on increasing the seating capacity in cinema hall is: -
a. Revenue Expenditure
b. Capital Expenditure
c. Deferred Revenue Expenditure
Answer: - (b)
Explanation: -
Any amount spends to buy, maintain, or improves the working tenure of the Fixed Assets is
called Capital Expenditure.
So, amount spent on increasing the seating capacity in cinema hall is Capital Expenditure.
71. Choose the correct statement among the following regarding Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli
Har Ghar Yojana-
A. Implementing authority of this scheme by Ministry of Power.
B. Provide subsidy on equipment such as wires ,transformers and meters.
C. Power connection to be provided in both rural and urban areas of the country .
D. All of the above.
Ans. D
Explanation - The P.M. Shri Narendra Modi launched the Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar
Yojana - Saubhagya, in New Delhi in 2017. The total outlay of the project is Rs. 16, 320 crore
whereas the Gross Budgetary Support is Rs. 12,320 crore. The States and Union Territories were
given the target to complete the works of household electrification by the 31 Dec, 2018.
It’s aim was to achieve universal household electrification in the country by providing energy access
and electricity connections to all remaining un- electrified households in rural as well as urban areas
. The electricity connection includes drawing a service cable , installing energy meter etc.
72. National Pension Scheme is governed and administered by which of the following agency?
A. LIC (Life Insurance Corporation)
B. EPFO( Employee Provident Fund Organization)
C. PFRDA(Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority)
D. None of the above.
Ans. A
Explanaton- Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) set up under PFRDA
Act, 2013 regulates and administers the National Pension System. NPS Architecture is administered
by involving intermediaries appointed by the PFRDA which are Trustee Bank, Points of Presence,
Pension Funds, Custodian, Central Record keeping Agency (CRA), Annuity Service Providers ,National
Pension System Trust. NPS requires a unique Permanent Retirement Account Number to be
generated for individual subscriber and maintained by the Central Record keeping Agency.
NPS offers two types of accounts in which the contributions accumulate over a period of time till
retirement grows with market linked returns. NPS offers different models to suit the different types
of users. These include the Government model for the Central and State Government Employees,
the Corporate Model, The All Citizens Model.
73. Which of the following is a feature of UMANG app?

A. Application for New-age Governance.
B) Various services accessible through single Mobile Application, easy to remember single Toll Free
number and short code .
C) Easy discoverability of services, easy manageability and standardisation of service delivery.
D) All of these
Ans. D
Explanation- Unified Mobile Application for New-Age Governance is an initiative under the Digital
India program whose aim is to develop a common, unified platform and mobile app to facilitate a
single point of access to all government services. It is designed to act as a master application, which
will integrate major government services like Agriculture, Education, Health, Housing among
others. It will help users to access e-Government services from the central Government, the State
Governments, local bodies and their agencies.
'Mobile first' strategy to bring governance on the figure tips of individuals. It is developed and
operated by National e-Governance Division, Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
Its main objective is to abridge inconvenience faced by users in managing multiple mobile apps and
provide a one-stop-solution to avail government services. It acts as an enabler and facilitator in
developing overall mobile based service delivery ecosystem in India and providing easy access for
individuals to various services via single Mobile Application, easy to remember short code and
single Toll Free number and also easy discoverability of services, easy manageability and
standardisation of service delivery.
74. Which of the following is the aim of NIDHI which is umbrella program by Department of
Science and Technology ?
A. Ideas and innovations in start-ups
B. Scientific research in nanotechnology
C. Research in telemedicine
Ans. A
Explanation- National Initiative for Developing and Harnessing Innovations program was launched
by the Department of Science and Technology under which programmes for setting up of
incubators, accelerators, seed fund, and ‘Proof of concept’ grant for innovators and entrepreneurs
have been launched.
Under this program, Promoting and Accelerating Young and Aspiring innovators & Startups i.e.
PRAYAS programme has been started.In this, Technology Business Incubators (TBI) are supported
with PRAYAS grant to support innovators and entrepreneurs with grants for developing prototypes
and ‘Proof of Concept’.
75. The main aim of GATI programme under Department of Science and technology is-
A. Advancing Gender Equity in Science, Technology and Higher Education in India.
B. Increasing FDI in Scientific Research and Development in India.
C. Speed up scientific research and innovation.
Ans.A
Explanation- The Department of Science and Technology supports a project named Gender
Advancement for Transforming Institutions .It is a programme for gender equality in science and
technology in India. Here, work will be carried out in mission mode at NAAC, in close cooperation
with DST Knowledge Involvement in Research Advancement through Nurturing Division and British
Council. It was announced on 28 February 2020, the National Science Day. It aims to create an
environment for equal participation of women in science, technology, engineering, medicine and
mathematics disciplines (STEMM) at all levels, so as to solve deep-rooted problems.
76. Which of the following is not true about Kisan Vikas Patra?
A. You will get the sum guaranteed inspite of any market fluctuation.
B. Safe mode of investment and not subject to market risks.
C. The maturity period for Kisan Vikas Patra is 100 months .
D. India Post introduced it.
Ans. C
Explanation-The Kisan Vikas Patra was introduced as a small saving certificate scheme in 1988. The
main objective is to encourage long-term financial discipline in people. According to the latest
update, the tenure for the scheme is now 124 months (10 years & 4 months) if certificate is
purchased between 1 April 2020 and 30 June 2020. The minimum investment is Rs. 1000 and there is
no upper limit .
77. Which of the following not eligible to invest in NPS(National Pension Scheme)?
A. Indian Citizen ( Resident )
B. Overseas Citizen
C. Indian Citizen (Non-resident)
D. Person of Indian Origin
Ans D
Explanation- Any Indian citizen between the age of 18-60 can open an NPS account. It is
administered and regulated by the Pension Fund Regulatory Authority of India (PFRDA). The NPS
matures at the age of 60 but can be extended until the age of 70. Hindu Undivided Family and
Persons of Indian Origin are not eligible to subscribe for NPS.
78. Which of the following schemes is managed by PFRDA(Pension Fund Regulatory and
Development Authority)?
A. Atal Pension Yojana
B. Pradhan Mantri Gareeb Kalyan Yojana
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Explanation - The Atal Pension Yojana (APY) was launched on 9 May, 2015.Its main objective is to
create a universal social security system for all Indians. It is made especially for the poor, the under-
privileged and the workers in the unorganised sector. APY is administered by Pension Fund
Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA). This scheme is to ensure that no Indian citizen
worries about any illness, accidents or diseases in old age, giving a sense of security. In private
organizations that does not provide pension benefit , the employees can also apply for this scheme.
79. Which of the following is not true about Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojna?
A. Easy access to financial services such as Remittance, Credit, Insurance,etc. to poor and
needy section of our society.
B. Zero balance account can be opened by individuals.
C. Charges will be levied on the individual to open an account.
Ans. C
Explanation- Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana is a government scheme launched in August 2014 .
The main objective of this program is to provide easy access to financial services to poor and needy
section of our society such as Remittance, Credit, Insurance, Pension, Savings and Deposit Accounts
etc . It provides financial services and products to individuals who don’t have access to a bank
account. Here, no minimum balance is required to be maintained , transfer of money is made
simple and Zero balance account can also be opened by individuals. In case ,individuals would like to
have access to the cheque facility,minimum balance has to be maintained. Under PMJDY scheme, no
charges will be levied on the individual to open an account.
80.The main objective of initiative named KIRAN is-

A. Opportunities to women scientist who had a break in career due to family reasons.
B. Opportunities to women scientist working in project in collaboration with foreign labs.
C. Opportunities to women scientist working on important projects in nanotechnology.
D. All of these.
Ans. A
Explanation- One of the initiatives started by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) is
the Knowledge Involvement in Research Advancement through Nurturing (KIRAN) Scheme . It
provides various career opportunities to women scientists and technologists and to bring gender
parity in the Science & Technology sector by inducting more women talent in the research &
development domain through various programmes .Fellowship is provided by this scheme to
support women of the age group 27 to 57 years for continuing higher education in Science
and Technology after a break in career.
81. Which of the following schemes has been designed to give incentive to employers for
generation of new employment, where Government of India will be paying the full employer's
contribution towards EPS & EPF?
A. Pradhan Mantri Rojgar Protsahan Yojana

B. Pradhan Mantri Yuva Scheme
C. Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojna
Ans. A
Explanation - The Pradhan Mantri Rojgar Protsahan Yojana Plan is a Scheme that has been designed
by the Government of India to give incentives to employers for generation of new employment. Here,
the Government of India will be paying the full employer's contribution towards EPF & EPS . Earlier
,this benefit was applicable for employer's contribution towards EPS on for the new employment.
82. Which of the following are the benefits of The Pradhan Mantri Rojgar Protsahan Yojana
Plan ?
1. Employers increasing employment base of workers for incentive.

2. Many workers will find jobs.
3. These workers will have access to social security benefits .
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1, 2, 3
Ans. C
Explanation-The Pradhan Mantri Rojgar Protsahan Yojana Plan has a dual benefit. First benefit is
that the employer is getting incentive for increasing the employment base of workers . Second
benefit is that a large number of workers will find jobs and these workers will have access to social
security benefits of the organized sector .
83. Which of the following is objective of Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojna ?
A. Enable and mobilize a large number of youths to take up industry designed quality skill training,
become employable and earn their livelihood.
B. Decrease productivity of the existing workforce
C. Discourage standardisation of the Certification process
D. All of the above
Ans. A
Explanation- Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) was launched in 2015 to encourage and
promote skill development in the country .It aimed at providing free short duration skill training to
youth and it also incentivized it by providing monetary rewards to youth . The main aim behind it was
to boost both industry and employability of youths. It was designed to benefit 10 million youths over
the period of four years I.e. from 2016 to 2020.
The main objectives are as follows-
1. To encourage youths to take up industry designed quality skill training and earn their livelihood.
2.Increase productivity of the existing workforce.
3.Align skill training with the actual needs of the country.
84. Which of the following scheme has been launched to rehabilitate women of different
circumstances so that they can lead their life with dignity?
A. Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana

B. Swadhar Greh Scheme
C. Jan Sampark program
Ans. B
Explanation - The Ministry of Women and Child Development implemented the Swadhar Greh
Scheme. It helps the women victims who need institutional support for rehabilitation for leading life
with dignity. This schemes talks about providing women shelter, food, clothing, health, economic
and social security. As per this scheme, Swadhar Greh will be set up in every district with capacity of
30 women .
The objectives are as follows -
A. To provide shelter, food, clothing, medical treatment and care of the women in distress
B. To help them regain their emotional strength .
C. To provide them with legal aid
D. To rehabilitate them economically and emotionally.
85. Which of the following is a feature of Mahila Shakti Kendra Scheme?

A. To empower rural women through community participation.
B. Set up across 115 most backward districts of the country to reach out to rural women.
C. Facilitate health, nutrition, employment, digital literacy skill development, etc.
D. All of the above.
Ans. D
Explanation- A new scheme has been implemented by the Government of India namely Mahila
Shakti Kendra Scheme to empower rural women through community participation. This scheme was
a result of the expansion of the schemes implemented by the Ministry of Women and Child Development
under the scheme “Mission for Protection and Empowerment for Women”. This scheme is made to
work at various levels . Community engagement through College Student Volunteers are to play an
instrumental role in awareness generation for government schemes as well as social issues. District
Level Centre for Women has also been envisaged for 640 districts which serves as a link between
village, block and state level in facilitating Beti Bachao Beti Padhao scheme at the district level.
86. Choose the correct statements about Deen Dayal Antyodaya Yojana -
1.Employment through Skill Training and Placement Social Mobilization and Institution
Development .
2.Subsidy to urban poor
3.Cost of construction of shelters for rural homeless is fully funded under the Scheme.
4.Launched under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation (HUPA)
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 4
Ans . D
Explanation . Deen Dayal Antyodaya Yojana was launched under the Ministry of Housing and
Urban Poverty Alleviation (HUPA). The aim of this scheme was to help the urban poor folks by
enhancing sustainable livelihood opportunities through skill development. Rs.500 crore has been
provisioned by GOI for the scheme.
This scheme is combination of the National Urban Livelihoods Mission (NULM) and National Rural
Livelihoods Mission (NRLM). Rashtriya Shahri Aajeevika Mission is its Hindi name. As per this
scheme, urban areas extends the coverage to all the 4041 statutory cities and towns,
It has the primary objective of reducing poverty and vulnerability of the urban poor households by
giving them opportunity of gaining self employment and skilled wage employment opportunities. It
also has the aim of providing the shelter equipped with essential services to the urban homeless. It
provides an interest subsidy of 5% - 7% for group enterprises with a loan limit of up to Rs.10 lakh
and individual micro-enterprises with a loan of up to 2 lakh to urban poor.
87. Which of the following are the features of UMANG app?

1. Developed to drive Mobile Governance by Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
and National e-Governance Division in India.
2. Platform for all Indian Citizens to access pan India e-Gov services.
3. Single language app.
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 3 only
D. All of the above
Ans. B.
Explanation- Unified Mobile Application for New-age Governance is developed by Ministry of
Electronics and Information Technology and National e-Governance Division to drive Mobile
Governance in India. It provides a single platform for all Indian Citizens to access pan India e-Gov
services. It is a multi- lingual multi- service app that can be downloaded from google play store.
Major EPFO services can be accessed.
88.Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation launched WhatsApp based helpline-cum-grievance
redressal mechanism under which of the following initiative?
A. NIRMAN
B. NIRBADH
C. NISCHAY
D. NIRVAAN
Ans. B
Explanation- Nirbadh Initiative is the new grievance redressal mechanism using Whatsapp by EPFO.
Because of this , registration of grievances/queries on social media and on EPFO’s online grievance
resolution portal has decreased by a significant number . It has been given in addition to the various
means of other grievance redressal forums which include web based EPFiGMS portal, CPGRAMS,
social media pages and a 24x7 call centre.
89.Which of the following organisations has received Platinum Partner Award for highest
transactions on UMANG App ?
A. Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation

B. Staff Selection Commission
C. Digilocker
Ans .A
Explanation- Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) received the Platinum Partner Award
for registering more than 25 lakh transactions on UMANG app. An accessible and affordable
solution was needed to reach out to crores of socio-economically disadvantaged sections EPFO
subscribers.After considering the massive usage of internet-based devices like smartphones, tablets
and desktops, the EPFO decided to use the potential of UMANG app to enable easy access to its
services even for the subscribers living in remotest of locations.
90.Which of the following is false for Employees Deposit Linked Insurance Scheme ?
A. Insurance cover provided by the EPFO for private sector salaried employees.
B. Applies to all organisations registered under the Employees Provident Fund and
Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952.
C. This scheme doesn’t work in combination with EPF and EPS.
Ans. C
Explanation- Employees Deposit Linked Insurance Scheme or EDLI is an insurance cover
provided by the Employees Provident Fund Organisation for private sector salaried
employees. In this, the registered nominee receives a lump-sum payment on the death of
the person insured. It applies to all organisations registered under the Employees Provident
Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952 and such organisations must subscribe to this
scheme and offer life insurance benefits to its employees. It works in combination with EPF
and EPS.
Basic Science
91. The noble gas not present in the air is:-
a. Helium
b. Neon
c. Argon
d. Radon
Answer:- (d)
Explanation
Radon is a radioactive element and its nucleus is unstable. Noble gases are inert in nature.
92. Evolution proceeds on account of:-

a. Fossils
b. Struggle for existence
c. Adaptation through generations
d. Inheritance
Answer:- (b)
Explanation
According to Darwin's theory of natural selection on evolution, evolution is the gradual genetic
change of living organisms over time due to ecological pressure they experience.
93. Which of the following flora is found in the tundra biome?

a. Thorny shrubs
b. Cactus
c. Lichen
d. Oak
Answer:- (c)
Explanation
 Lichens are one of the main species of tundra biomes.
 Lichens live in a symbiotic relationship with different organisms.
94. With reference to the Nitrogen Cycle, the conversion of ammonia into nitrates takes place in
which of the following processes?
a. Nitrification
b. Ammonification
c. Denitrification
Answer:- (b)
Explanation
Ammonification is the process of ammonia formation carried out by organisms. The ammonia may
skip to the atmosphere or to be retained in the soil and is sometimes oxidized to nitrates.

1. Mitochondria is considered as suicide bag of cell.
2. Mitochondria also act as the powerhouse of cell.

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer:- (b)
Explanation
 Lysosome is considered as suicide bag of cell as it brust and consume cell when it become
dead. Hence statement (1) is not correct.
 Mitochondria is the powerhouse of cell. It provides energy to a cell in the form of Adenosine
Triphosphate (ATP). Hence statement (2) is correct.
96. Globin in haemoglobin is a________ compound.

a. Iron
b. Lipid
c. Protein
d. Omega acid
Answer:- (c)
Explanation
Globin is a proteinous compound. With haeme it is extremely capable of combining with oxygen and
carbon dioxide.

1. The electrode which is attached to the positive terminal of the battery is called cathode.
2. Process of oxidation occurs at the anode.

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer:- (b)
Explanation
 During the process of electrolysis positive charge is attached to anode. Hence statement (1)
is not correct.
 Process of oxidation occurs at the anode. Hence statement (2) is correct.
98. A dynamo converts:-

a. Kinetic energy into mechanical energy
b. Chemical energy into heat energy
c. Mechanical energy into electrical energy
d. Mechanical energy into kinetic energy
Answer:- (c)
Explanation
A dynamo is a device that converts mechanical energy into electrical energy.
99. Which of the following is/are examples of “In-Situ Bioremediation”:-

1. Biopiles
2. Bioaugmentation
3. Phytoremediation
4. Bioventing

a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 4
c. 3 and 4
d. 1 and 4
Answer:- (b)
Explanation
 Bioaugmentation and bioventing are examples of in-situ bioremediation.
 Bioventing:- In this process, oxygen is supplied to contaminated soil to stimulate growth of
indigenous bacteria. It Can be used where contamination is deep under the surface. It can
degrade fuel residuals, VOCs etc.
 Bioaugmentation:- Under this method, Microorganisms are imported to a contaminated
site.
100. Who among the following discovered X-Rays?

a. Alfred Nobel
b. Michael Faraday
c. Wilhelm Roentgen
d. Max Planck
Answer:- (c)
Explanation
X-Rays were discovered by German scientist Wilhelm Roentgen in 1895.
101. . Which of the following is used to read a HTML page and render it?
a) Web browser
b) Web server
c) Web matrix
d) Web network
Answer: a
Explanation: A web browser (commonly referred to as a browser) is a software application for
retrieving, presenting and traversing information resources on the World Wide Web. A web
server process, store and display output to client as per their request. Web matrix is a
discontinued cloud-connected website builder and HTML editor for Windows.
102. The software designed to perform a specific task:

a) Synchronous Software
b) Package Software
c) Application Software
d) System Software
Answer: c
Explanation: Software refers to a collection of programs. Software designed to do a specific task
are referred to as the application software. Eg: Inventory management, banking, etc.
103. OSS stands for:

a) Open System Service
b) Open Source Software
c) Open System Software
d) Open Synchronized Software
Answer: b
Explanation: OSS stands for open source software. OSS allows any user to download, view, modify
and redistribute the software. Also, the user can fix bugs according to needs.
104. Which of the following is not an operating system?

a. Windows
b. Oracle
c. Linux
d. DOS
Answer: (c) Oracle
Explanation: Oracle is an RDBMS (Relational Database Management System). It is
known as Oracle Database, Oracle DB, or Oracle Only. The first database for enterprise
grid computing is the Oracle database.
105. A device which is used to boost the signal between two cable segments or
wireless access points is
a) Booster
b) Repeater
c) Switch
d) Router
Answer: c
Explanation: The correct term for such a device is a Repeater.
106. There is 75% increase in amount in 5 years at simple interest what will be the compound
interest of Rs 40000 after 2 years at the same rate?
(a) Rs. 25800
(b) Rs. 32250
(c) Rs. 12900
(d) Rs. 19350
Correct Ans (c)

Let Principal (P) = 100
SI = 75, Time = 5 years
SI = P×R×T100
107. Rahul took a certain amount of money loan form a bank at @6%p.a. Rahul lent the same
amount to Rozi at 10% p.a. If at the end of the year, Rahul earned a profit of Rs. 640 form the deal
when what was the original sum?
A. 4500
B. 4000
C. 3250
D. 3700
Correct Ans (B)
Let Sum X,
SI = P×R×T100
Then, SI = x×10×4100-x×6×4100 =640
Or 40x-24x = 640×100
16x = 640×100
X = 4000
108. The ratio of the present ages of A to B is 7:4 after 2 years ago their ages will be in the ratio of
5:3 what will be the ratio of A’s after 5 years to B’s age now?
A. 31:13
B. 33:16
C. 19:14
D. 12:17
Correct Ans. B
Let the present Age of A’s = 7x
Let the present Age of B’s = 4x
After 2 years, 7x+24x+2=53
21x+6 = 20x+10 x=4
Now 5 years after
A’s age = 7x+5 = 74+5
B’s age = 4x = 44 =16
Required ratio = 33:16
109. The average weight of boys in a class is 52 kg while that of girls is 46 kg. The average weight of
the whole class is 48 kg. what is the ratio of the number of boys to that of girls in the class?
A. 1:2
B. 2:3
C. 5:3
D. 7:4
Correct Ans. A
Boys girls
52 46
48
2 : 4
Boys : girls = 1:2
110. 20 man can complete a piece of work in 15days. After 5 days from the start of the work, some
men left. If the remaining work was completed by the remaining men in 1623days, how many men
left after 5 days from the start of the work?
A. 10
B. 9
C. 11
D.8
Correct Ans. D
Total work = 20×15=300 Unit

Now, 5 days work of 20 men = 20×5=100 unit
Remaining work = 300-100 = 200 unit

Let X man done remaining work
Then, (20-x) ×503 = 200
Or, 1000-5x = 600, 50x= 400
X= 8 men
111. A shopkeeper marks an item 30% above the cost price and give 20% discount to a customer. If
the customer pay Rs. 858 for the item, then what is the cost price?
A. 850
B. 887
C. 825
D. 975
Correct Ans. C
Let the cost price = 100
MP = 130
SP = 13080100 = 104
Now, 104 = 858

Now 100 = 858104×100 = 825
112. In a mixture of 81 litres, the ratio of milk to water is 5:4 if the ratio of milk to water is to be 1:2
the amount of water that should be added is
A. 60 litres
B. 54 litres
C. 27 litres
D. 81 litres
Correct Ans. B
Mitxture water
5/9 0
1/3
1/3 2/9
Ratio of mixture to water = 3:2

Now, 3 = 81
So 2 = 813×2 = 54 litres
113. 16 men alone can complete a piece of work in 12 days, 8 women alone can complete the same
piece of work in 48 days and 20 children alone can complete the piece of work in 24 days. In how
many days can 10 men, 12 women and 16 children together complete the same piece of work?
A. 767 days
B. 914 days
C. 1214 days
D. 847 days
Correct Ans. D
16M×12= 20C×24
1M = 52 C
Again, 8×48 = 20C×24
1W = 54 C
20 Children can do the work in 24 days
(1052 +1254+16) = 56 children can do
Work = 24×2056 days = 607 days =8 47 days
114. A rectangular field has its length and breadth in the ratio of 5:4 A man riding a bicycle
completes one lap of this field along its perimeter at a speed of 10.8 km/hr in 4 minutes and 36
seconds. What is the area of the field?
A. 42320 sq.m
B. 41650 sq.m
C. 43540 sq.m
D. 43420 sq.m
Correct Ans. A
4 min 36 sec = 4×60+36=276 sec
The perimeter of rectangular field = 108003600× 276 = 828 meteres
Perimeter of Rectangular = 2(l+b) = 2(5+4) = 28
Or, 18 = 828
Length = 5 = 82818× 5 = 230 meters
Breadth = 4 = 82818× 4 = 184 meters
Now Area = 230×184=42320 sq.m
115. The Area of a square is 1444 sq.cm. what is the ratio of the perimeter of the square to that of a
rectangle if the length of the rectangle is thrice the side of the square and the breadth is 18m less
than the side of the square
A. 38:47
B. 47:38
C. 62:39
D. 38:67
Correct Ans. D
Side of the square = 1444 = 38m
Length of rectangle = 383 = 114
Breadth of rectangle = 38-18 = 20m
Req. ratio = Perimeter of squarePerimeter of rectangle = 4×38 2(114+20) = 38 67 = 38:67
116. The profit earned by selling an article for Rs. 660 is triple what was earned when the same
article was sold for Rs. 400 What should be selling price of the article, if it is sold at 30% profit?
A. 279
B. 351
C. 382
D. 404
Correct Ans. B
Let profit X on Rs. 400

Then profit becomes triple on Rs. 660
Now, 660-3x = 400-x
X= 130
CP = 400-130 = 270
SP of article at 30% profit 270×130100 = 351
117. The cost of a paint is Rs. 70 per kg. One kg of paint covers 30 square feet. How much will it cost
to paint outer sides of a cube of each side 10 feet?
A. 1290
B. 1350
C. 1470
D. 1400
Correct Ans D.
Total surface area of a cube = 6a2 = 6.102 =600

Required paint = 60030 =20kg
Total cost = 2070 =1400
118. Rajdhani express crosses stationary Shatabdi express in 47 sec and a pole in 22 sec at the same
speed. The length of Rajdhani express is 484 meters. What is the length of Shatabdi express?
A. 642m
B. 550m
C. 597m
D. 460m
Correct Ans. B
Speed of Rajdhani Express = 48422 = 22m/s
Let the length of Shatabdi Express = X
Then, 484+X22 = 47
Now X= 4722-484 =1034-484 = 550m
119. A rectangular plot has a concrete path running in the middle of the plot. The rest of the plot is
used as a lawn which has an area of 296.5 sq.m. If the width of the path is 7.5m and the length of
the path is greater than its breadth by 3m, what is the area of rectangular plot?
A. 347.25
B. 375.25
C. 414.90
D. 364.75
Correct Ans. B
Width of path = 7.5
Length = 7.5+3 = 10.5
Area of path = 7.510.5 = 78.75 sq.m
Area of rectangular plot = 296.5+78.75 =375.25 sq.m
120. Pipe A and Pipe B can fill a tank in 10 hrs. and 6 hrs. Respectively. After a certain time of, Pipe A
was closed. It took a total of 4 hours to fill the tank completely. For how many hours did pipe A
work?
A. 223 hrs
B. 323 hrs
C. 313 hrs
C. 413 hrs
Correct Ans. C
Let the pipe A open for X hrs
Then x10+46 = 1
Or x10 = 1-23 = 13 hrs
X = 103 = 313 hrs

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(a) Manager have a lot

(a) When business leaders

(d) Their companies suffers

(a) We are often blindly to

(a) The transit system’s underground

(a) The fight among

(b) Rival candidates between the medium

(c)Of catchy slogans

(d) Has started

“He objected to the proposal because it was founded……………….on a principal and

(a) Faulty, desirable

(c) Wrong, inconvenient

(a) Condemning, satisfying

(a) Decoration, senses

(a) Preferable than for

(a) Have to be put with a good deal of

(a) Have been full aware of

“One who offers his service on his own free will?”

“A professional soldier hired to serve in a foreign army.”

“One who is always doubting.”

24. Consider the following:-

Which of the above is/are correctly matched?

26. Consider the following:-

1. The Indian League - Surendranath Banerjee

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

27. Consider the following statements regarding ‘‘Kumarasambhava’:-

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

28. The Mughals borrowed the celebration of ‘Nauroz’ from:-

29. Consider the following statements regarding Lal Ded:-

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

30. Justice Party Movement was started by?

31. ‘Sahib’, ‘Sindh’, and ‘Sultan’ were:-

d. None of the above

32. Consider the following statements:-

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

33. Consider the following statements:-

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

37. What type of equality is/are mentioned in the Constitution of India?

Select the correct answer using the code given below:-

38. Which of the following implies in the just distribution?

Select the correct answer using the code given below:-

Select the correct answer using the code given below:-

Which of the statements is/are correct?

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:-

44. Relative Poverty refers to:-

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:-

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:-

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:-

Which of the above statements are correct:-

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

About ‘Plea bargaining’:-

About Nagorno Karabakh:-

54. ‘Oaxaca Khadi’ is woven in which of the following countries?

About ‘Oaxaca Khadi’:-

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

About the National Productivity Council:-

56. The first step in accounting process is: -

Following are the steps of accounting process: -

58. Meaning of credibility of going concern is: -

59. The first book of original entry is_______________.

60. Full form of GAAP: -

61. Income Tax is the example of which type of tax: -