StudyIQ EPFO Mock Test 4

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Mock Test -4
1. Which one of the following is the synonyms of the word written in Bold in the Sentence,
“Marx had predicted the failure and eventual overthrow of capitalism because of what he
regarded as its inherent contradiction?”
A. respected
B. valued
C. related
D. thought
Correct Ans.D
“Rationalism has been defined as the mental attitude which unreservedly accepts the
supremacy of reason?”
A. Conditionally
B. fully
C. partially
D. collectively
Correct Ans. B
“the growing complexity of society of society due to technology development and the
slackness of social norms?”
A. rigidity
B. vigorous
C. sluggishness
D. business
Correct Ans. A
4. Which one of the following is the Antonyms of the word written in Bold in the Sentence,
“There is resistance from the medical establishment which sees them as little more than the
licensed quackery?”
A. Opposition
B. agreement
C. repulsion
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D. acceptance
Correct Ans. D
“It was a settled belief in our country that the US began to stress the issue of signing the
CTBT.”
A. dislocated
B. unprecedented
C. unfounded
D. stabilized
Correct Ans. C
“A market that was supposed to be stagnating with no public offering from the
manufacturing sector in the first quarter of the fiscal year?”
A. developing
B. redundant
C. overworking
D. fixed
Correct Ans. A
7. Fill up the blanks with suitable prepositions from the alternatives given.
“He didn’t lend me the newspaper because he was going……..it”.
A. over
B. through
C. about
D. to
Correct Ans. B
“We usually give our sentence the old cloths we cast…………………. ”.
A. off
B. aside
C. away
D. to
Correct Ans. C
“In view of the heavy loss suffered by the company, the shareholders were requested to
bear………………….”
A. in
B. over
C. with
D. Out
Correct Ans. C
10. Four alternatives are given under sentence, you are required to select the most suitable
alternative to fill in the blanks to make it meaningful.
“There are several ways of………….the price at which a product can be marketed.”
A. arriving
B. thinking
C. determining
D. noticing
Correct Ans. C
“Every candidate has to poll a minimum number of votes in order to avoid …………of his security.”
A. penalty
B. cancellation
C. forfeiture
D. loss
Correct Ans. C
“Although they are not rich, they always wear…………..clothes.”
A. respectful
B. respective
C. respectable
D. respected
Correct Ans. C
13. Four alternative are given. You are required to choose the correct meaning of the Idioms given in
the sentence.
“Manoj had to look high and low before he could find the scooter Key.”
A. nowhere
B. always
C. everywhere
D. somewhere
Correct Ans. C
the sentence.
“She rejected the proposal of marriage point blank.”
A. directly
B. Pointedly
C. absurdly
D. briefly
Correct Ans. A
the sentence.
“You may rush from pillar to post, but you stand no chance of getting what you want without a
bribe.”
A. be very busy
B. rush in all directions and suffer much harassment
C. go to all post boxes and post offices
D. go to many offices and post letters
Correct Ans. B
16. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in it, the error if any, will be one part of
the sentence. The number of that part is the Answer.
“The Ministry of Labour conducts its basic survey on trade unions each year gathering information
with all trade unions as of June 30.”
A. The ministry of Labour conducts its basic survey

B. on trade union each year
C. gathering information with all
D. labour unions as of June 30
Correct Ans. C
“We are trying to find out the root cause of this recurring problem for the last four days.”
A. We are trying to
B. find out the root cause
C. of this recurring problem
D. for the last four days
Correct Ans. A
“I fully aware that my boss is one of those who is totally dedicated to work and proper discipline.”
A. I am fully aware that
B. my boss is one of those
C. who is totally dedicated
D. to work and proper discipline
Correct Ans. C
19. Out of the four alternative, Choose the one which can be substituted for the give sentence.
“An Excessive fear of confined spaces”
A. Hydrophobia
B. Bathophobia
C. Cyrophobia
D. Claustophobia
Correct Ans. D
20. Out of the four alternative, Choose the one which can be substituted for the give sentence.
“A person who is long experienced or practiced in an activity/capacity”
A. Vulnerable
B. Veteran
C. Versatile
D. Venerable
Correct Ans. B
21. Paharia revolt happened in:-

a. Kaimur hills
b. Someshwar hills
c. Rajmahal hills
d. Chotanagpur hills
Answer:- (c)
Explanation
Paharia people were native of the Rajmahal hills of today’s Santhal Pargana. They revolted against
the policy of Britishers to settle Santhal people on their land. They fought against both the Santhals
and English East India Company. This all happened in the 1795-1860 period.
22. Who among the following was the commander of armies which defeated Tipu Sultan in the
battle of Seringapatam and Napoleon in the battle of Waterloo?
a. Lord Cornwallis
b. Arthur Wellesley
c. Richard Wellesley
d. Robert Clive
Answer:- (b)
Explanation
Arthur Wellesley was the commander of the armies that defeated both Tipu Sultan (in 1799) and
Napoleon (in 1805). He was the brother of Governor-General Richard Wellesley and later also served
as the Prime Minister of Great Britain.
23. Vernacular Press Act introduced in the Viceroyship of___.

a. Lord Ripon
b. Lord Lytton
c. Lord Dufferin
d. Lord Linlithgow
Answer:- (b)
Explanation
The Vernacular Press Act was introduced in 1878 during the viceroyship of Lord Lytton to gag the
Indian languages newspapers. It was an assault on press freedom. Many newspapers were forced to
shut down and newspapers such as Amrita Bazar Patrika switched from the Bengali language to the
English language to escape from this act.
24. Who founded the “Naujawan Bharat Sabha”?

a. Chandrashekhar Azad
b. Sachindra Nath Sanyal
c. Ram Prashad Bismil
d. Bhagat Singh
Answer:- (d)
Explanation
Naujawan Bharat Sabha was founded by Bhagat Singh in March 1926. This organization was mainly
focussed on propagating revolutionary ideas and reforms in religious and agrarian reforms.
25. Indian National Army was able to conquer which part of the Indian territory?
a. Assam
b. Bengal
c. Manipur
d. Andaman and Nicobar Island
Answer:- (d)
Explanation
Indian National Army or Azad Hind Fauz was able to conquer Andaman and Nicobar Island in 1943
during the Second World War. Subhash Chandra Bose renamed Andaman as Shaheed Dweep and
Nicobar as Swaraj Dweep.
26. Whom did Mahatma Gandhi accept as his political ‘guru’?

a. Rabindranath Tagore
b. Madan Mohan Malviya
c. Dada Bhai Naoroji
d. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
Answer:- (d)
Explanation
The political guru of Gandhiji was Gopal Krishna Gokhale. On Gokhale’s advice, Mahatma Gandhi
roamed various parts of India to understand the country and people better. The spiritual guru of
Mahatma Gandhi was Srimad Rajchandra. He was a Jain poet, philosopher, and scholar.
27. Aruna Asaf Ali was connected with which one of the following movements as a woman
organiser of underground activity?
a. Civil Disobedience Movement
b. Non-Cooperation
c. Quit India Movement
d. Swadeshi Movement
Answer:- (c)
Explanation
During her time in hiding, Aruna Asaf Ali used underground radio, pamphlets and magazines (such as
Inquilab) to continue the struggle of the Quit India movement. She is best remembered for hoisting
the Indian National Congress flag at the Gowalia Tank Maidan in Bombay.
28. The fortnightly ‘Bahishkrit Bharat’ was started by:-

a. E.V. Ramaswamy Naikar ‘Periyar’
b. Jyotiba Phule
c. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
d. Raja Rammohan Roy
Answer:- (c)
Explanation
On 3rd April 1927, Ambedkar launched his second Marathi fortnightly, ‘Bahiskrit Bharat’, which
remained in publication till 1929.
29. A Provisional Government of India with Raja Mahendra Pratap as its President was established
during the First World War in:-
a. Germany
b. Italy
c. Turkey
d. Afghanistan
Answer:- (d)
Explanation
A Provisional Government of India with Raja Mahendra Pratap as its President was established
during the First World War in Afghanistan. The provisional government of India was established in
Kabul on 1st December, 1915 with the support from central powers.
30. Which of the following events happened during the Viceroyship of Lord Curzon?
1. Adoption of Indian Universities Act
2. Francis Younghusband’s Mission to Tibet
3. Transfer of capital from Calcutta to Delhi
4. Establishment of Muslim League
Select the correct answer using the code given below:-

a. 2, 3, and 4 only
b. 1, 2, and 4 only
c. 1 and 2 only
d. 3 and 4 only
Answer:- (c)
Explanation
Lord Curzon was the Viceroy of India from 1899 to 1905.
 Indian Universities Act was passed in 1904 and the expedition of Francis Younghusband also
took place in 1904 during Lord Curzon rule.
 Muslim League was founded in 1906 during Lord Minto’s rule while the capital was shifted
to Delhi from Calcutta in 1911 during the viceroyship of Lord Hardinge.
31. Which of the following statements/s is/are wrong with respect to ‘Battle of Buxar’?
a. English East India Company was led by Hector Munro
b. It was fought on 23rd October 1764
c. Combined army of Mir Kasim, Shuja-ud-Daulah, and Mughal Emperor Farrukhshiyar was
defeated
d. Treaty of Allahabad was signed after the end of the war
Answer:- (c)
Explanation
All statements are correct except (c). Combined army of Mir Kasim, Shuja-ud-Daulah, and Mughal
Emperor Shah Alam-II was defeated by the English East India Company.
32. Which of the following princely states was/were not annexed under the doctrine of lapse by
the Britishers?
a. Sindh
b. Satara
c. Sambalpur
d. Jhansi
Answer:- (a)
Explanation
Sindh was forced to accept the subsidiary alliance but later it was made a part of the British empire
in 1843 and Charles Napier appointed its first governor.
33. Which act provided for the separation of Burma from India?
a. Government of India Act, 1919
b. Government of India Act, 1935
c. Indian Council Act, 1909
d. Indian Independence Act, 1947
Answer:- (b)
Explanation
Burma was separated from India in 1937 under the provisions of the Government of India Act, 1935.
This was done as per the recommendation of Simon Commission.
34. Which of the following events happened first?

a. Vellore Mutiny
b. Paika Rebellion
c. Santhal Rebellion
d. Ramosi Uprising
Answer:- (a)
Explanation
Movement/Revolt Year when happened
1. Vellore Mutiny 1806
2. Paika Rebellion 1817-18
3. Santhal Rebellion 1855-56
4. Ramosi Uprising 1826-29
35. Which movement is also known as the ‘Dilli Chalo Movement’?

a. Quit India Movement
b. Salt Satyagraha
c. Individual Satyagraha
d. Khilafat Movement
Answer:- (c)
Explanation
Individual Satyagraha is also known as the ‘Dilli Chalo Movement’.
36. With reference to the ‘Chief Vigilance Commissioner’, consider the following statements:-
1. Commission was set up on the recommendation of the K. Santhanam Committee.
2. Union Home Minister is the part of the committee which recommends the name of ‘Chief
Vigilance Commissioner’ to the President.
3. Chief Vigilance Commissioner remains in his office till the pleasure of the President.
4. Chief Vigilance Commissioner is appointed for a period of four years or 65 years of age,
whichever is earlier.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1, 2, and 4
b. 1, 2, and 3
c. 2, 3, and 4
d. 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer:- (a)
Explanation
Sanjay Kothari appointed as Central Vigilance Commissioner by President.
About ‘Chief Vigilance Commissioner’ (CVC):-

 It is the apex vigilance institution created via executive resolution (based on the
recommendations of Santhanam committee) in 1964 but was conferred with statutory
status in 2003.
 It submits its report to the President of India.
 The Commission was set up on the recommendation of the K.Santhanam Committee on
Prevention of Corruption. Hence statement (1) is correct.
Composition:-
 Consists of central vigilance commissioner along with 2 vigilance commissioners.
Appointment:-
They are appointed by the President of India on the recommendations of a committee consisting of
Prime Minister, Union Home Minister and Leader of the Opposition in Lok Sabha (if there is no LoP
then the leader of the single largest Opposition party in the Lok Sabha). Hence statement (2) is also
correct.
Term:-
Their term is 4 years or 65 years, whichever is earlier. Hence statement (4) is also correct.
Removal:-
The Central Vigilance Commissioner or any Vigilance Commissioner can be removed from his office
only by order of the President on the ground of proved misbehavior or incapacity after the Supreme
Court, on a reference made to it by the President, has, on inquiry, reported that the Central
Vigilance Commissioner or any Vigilance Commissioner, as the case may be, ought to be removed.
Hence statement (3) is not correct.
37. With reference to the ‘Delimitation Commission’, consider the following statements:-
1. It is a permanent body and is headed by the Chief Election Commissioner.
2. Its orders have the force of law and they can be challenged only before the Supreme Court
of India.

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer:- (d)
Explanation
Delimitation literally means the process of fixing limits or boundaries of territorial constituencies in a
state that has a legislative body.
 According to the Delimitation Commission Act, 2002, the Delimitation Commission
appointed by the Centre has to have three members:-
1. A serving or retired judge of the Supreme Court as the chairperson. Hence statement (1) is
not correct.
2. The Chief Election Commissioner or Election Commissioner nominated by the CEC,
3. The State Election Commissioner as ex-officio members.
 The Delimitation Commission is so powerful that it's orders have the force of law and they
cannot be challenged before any court. Hence statement (2) is also not correct.
38. ‘Principle of Absolute Liability’ is the part of which of the following articles of the Constitution
of India?
a. Article 21
b. Article 25
c. Article 19
d. Article 14
Answer:- (a)
Explanation
The National Green Tribunal's order in the Visakhapatnam gas tragedy found LG Polymers prima
facie liable under the 19th century English law, Principle of “strict liability”, which was made
redundant in India by the Supreme Court in 1986. But some lawyers are of the opinion that the term
absolute liability principle should have been used instead.
 The Supreme Court, while deciding the Oleum gas leak case of Delhi in 1986, found strict
liability woefully inadequate to protect citizens’ rights in an industrialised economy like India
and replaced it with the ‘absolute liability principle’.
 Under the absolute liability principle, the apex court held that a company in a hazardous
industry cannot claim any exemption.
1. It has to mandatorily pay compensation, whether or not the disaster was caused by its
negligence. The court said a hazardous enterprise has an “absolute non-delegable duty to
the community”.
2. The principle of absolute liability is part of Article 21 (right to life).
39. Consider the following statements regarding the National Disaster Management Authority:-
1. It is an authority created through an act of parliament.
2. It came into being after the 2004 Indian Ocean Tsunami.
3. It is headed by the Minister of Home Affairs.

a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 1, 2, and 3
Answer:- (a)
Explanation
 Need for a dedicated response authority was felt after the devastation of Indian Ocean
Tsunami. So on 23 December 2005, the Government of India enacted the Disaster
Management Act, which envisaged the creation of National Disaster Management Authority
(NDMA). Hence both statements (1) and (2) are correct.
 It is headed by the Prime Minister. State Disaster Management Authorities (SDMAs) headed
by respective Chief Ministers, to spearhead and implement a holistic and integrated
approach to Disaster Management in India. Hence statement (3) is not correct.
40. Consider the following statements, regarding Cabinet Committees:-

1. They are extra-constitutional bodies.
2. They are set up by the President according to the exigencies of the time and requirements of
the situation.

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer:- (a)
Explanation
Recently eight key cabinet committees were reconstituted by the central government.
Among these eight committees two new committees were also set up- one on investment and
growth and another on employment and skill development.
About Cabinet Committees:-

 These are extra-constitutional bodies and by the Governments of India under the
Transaction of Business Rules, 1961. Hence statement (1) is correct.
 These committees are set up by the Prime Minister according to the exigencies of the time
and requirements of the situation. Hence their number, nomenclature, and composition
varies from time to time. Hence statement (2) is not correct.
 Classification- There are two types of cabinet committees viz (1) standing (which is
permanent in nature) and (2) ad hoc (temporary in nature).
 Function- These committees are created to reduce the enormous workload of the Cabinet.
They also help in depth examination of policy issues and effective coordination.
 Head of the Committee- Most of these committees headed by the Prime Minister.
Sometimes other Cabinet Ministers also act as their Chairman.
41. Consider the following statements regarding the Minor Forest Produce (MFP):-
1. MFP includes all non-timber forest produce of plant origin.
2. MFP is defined under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
3. Minimum Support Price for various MFP is recommended by the Ministry of Environment,
Forest and Climate Change.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 3 only
d. 1 only
Answer:- (d)
 Minor Forest Produce (MFP) includes all non-timber forest produce of plant origin and
includes bamboo, canes, fodder, leaves, gums, waxes, dyes, resins and many forms of food
including nuts, wild fruits, Honey, Lac, Tusser etc. Hence statement (1) is correct.
 MFP is defined under The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers
(Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, which is also known as the Forests Rights Act (FRA).
Hence statement (2) is not correct.
 Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India (TRIFED) which comes under
the Ministry of Tribal Affairs is the nodal agency that recommends the Minimum Support
Price (MSP) for MFP to ensure more disposable income for tribals. Hence statement (3) is
also not correct.
42. A service can be made a ‘Public Utility Service’ by using the provisions of which of the
following acts?
a. Trade Disputes and Trade Unions Act, 1927
b. Essential Services Maintenance Act, 1968
c. Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
d. Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946
Answer:- (c)
Explanation
Recently, ‘Banking industry’ has been declared as a ‘Public Utility Service’ for six months (till
October 21) under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 (IDA) by the Ministry of Labour and
Employment
 Those businesses undertakings that engage in supplying essential goods and/or services of
the daily necessity for the general public are called Public Utility Services.
 The Government can declare any industry mentioned in the First Schedule of IDA to be a
'public utility service' for a period of six months by issuing a notification if it satisfies that
public emergency or the public interest so requires.
 This can be done by using the powers provided in Section 2 (n) of the IDA.
43. Which of the following sector(s) is/are prohibited to receive Foreign Direct Investment in
India?
1. Chit Funds
2. Gambling and betting
3. Railway Operations
4. Nidhi Company
5. Real estate business
6. Trading in Transferable Development Rights (TDRs)

a. 1, 2 and 4 only
b. 1, 2, 4 and 6 only
c. 1, 2, 5 and 6 only
d. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6
Answer:- (d)
Explanation
Sectors in which FDI is prohibited:-
 Lottery businesses
 Gambling and betting
 Chit funds
 Nidhi Company
 Trading in Transferable Development Rights (TDRs)
 Real estate business excluding construction and REITs
 Manufacturing of cigars, cheroots, cigarillos and cigarettes etc
 Sectors not open to private sector investment such as atomic energy, railway operations etc.
44. Which of the following currencies is/are used to calculate the value of the Special Drawing
Rights by the International Monetary Fund?
1. US Dollar
2. Turkish Lira
3. Euro
4. Renminbi
5. British Pound
6. South African Rand
7. Yen

a. 1, 3, 4, 5 and 7 only
b. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 only
c. 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, and 7 only
d. 1, 3, 5, and 7 only
Answer:- (a)
Explanation
Special drawing rights (SDR) refer to an international type of monetary reserve currency created by
the International Monetary Fund (IMF) in 1969 that operates as a supplement to the existing money
reserves of member countries.
 The SDR serves as the unit of account of the IMF and some other international organizations.
 The SDR basket of currencies includes the U.S. Dollar, Euro, Japanese Yen, British Pound
and the Chinese Renminbi.
 The SDR currency value is calculated daily and the valuation basket is reviewed and adjusted
every five years.
45. With reference to the ‘Ways and Means Advances’, consider the following statements:-
1. It enables the Central and State governments to borrow money from the Central Bank for a
temporary period.
2. Interest is charged at the existing repo rate under this scheme.

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer:- (c)
Explanation
 ‘Ways and Means Advances’ (WMA) is a temporary liquidity arrangement with the central
bank, which enables the Centre and States to borrow money up to 90 days from the RBI to
tide over their liquidity mismatch.
 This scheme was introduced in 1997 and to meet mismatches in the receipts and payments
of the government.
 The government can avail of immediate cash from the RBI, if required. But it has to return
the amount within 90 days. Interest is charged at the existing repo rate.
 If the WMA exceeds 90 days, it would be treated as an overdraft (the interest rate on
overdrafts is 2 % points more than the repo rate).
46. Which of the following agencies/organisations has started the ‘Operation Twist’?
a. Securities and Exchange Board of India
b. Reserve Bank of India
c. Department of Revenue
d. Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
Answer:- (b)
Explanation
'Operation Twist' is Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) simultaneous selling of short-term securities and
buying of long term securities through open market operations (OMO). Under this mechanism, the
short-term securities are transitioned into long-term securities.
47. With respect to ‘Krishi Kalyan Abhiyan’, consider the following statements:-
1. This abhiyan is being launched by the Union Ministry of Rural Development.
2. This abhiyan is implemented throughout the country in villages with more than 10,000
population.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are INCORRECT?

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer:- (c)
Explanation
The Krishi Kalyan Abhiyan (KKA) is being implemented in 112 Aspirational districts of the country.
About Krishi Kalyan Abhiyan:-

 It was launched in 2018 under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare. Hence
statement (1) is incorrect.
 Krishi Kalyan Abhiyaan will be undertaken in 25 Villages with more than 1000 population
each in Aspirational Districts identified in consultation with the Ministry of Rural
Development as per directions of NITI Ayog. Hence statement (2) is also incorrect.
 In districts where the number of villages (with more than 1000 population) is less than 25, all
villages will be covered.
 The overall coordination and implementation in the 25 villages of a district is being done by
Krishi Vigyan Kendra of that district.
48. With respect to the ‘Swamitva Yojana’, consider the following statements:-
1. This scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj.
2. The scheme aims to revolutionise residential property record maintenance all over rural
India.
3. The agricultural land in villages will be measured using drones to create a non-disputable
record.
Which of the statements given above is/are INCORRECT?

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
Answer:- (c)
Explanation
On Panchayati Raj Diwas (April 24th), the Prime Minister of India launched ‘Swamitva Yojana’ or
Ownership Scheme to map residential land ownership in the rural sector using modern technology
like the use of drones.
About ‘Swamitva Yojana’ :-

 The scheme is piloted by the Ministry Panchayati Raj. Hence statement (1) is correct.
 The residential land in villages will be measured using drones to create a non-disputable
record. Hence statement (2) is correct but statement (3) is not correct.
 Property cards for every property in the village will be prepared by states using accurate
measurements delivered by drone-mapping. These cards will be given to property owners
and will be recognised by the land revenue records department.
49. ‘Special 301 Report’ has been released by which of the following:-
a. World Trade Organisation
b. World Economic Forum
c. World Bank
d. United States Trade Representatives
Answer:- (d)
Explanation
 The Office of United States Trade Representatives (USTR) released its annual ‘Special 301
Report’ on adequacy and effectiveness of trading partners’ protection of intellectual
property (IP) rights.
 India continues to be on the ‘Priority Watch List’ for lack of adequate IP rights protection.
50. Consider the following statements regarding the ‘CHAMPIONS portal’:-

1. It is a Technology driven Control Room-Cum-Management Information System.
2. It has been launched by the Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises.

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer:- (a)
Explanation
 ‘CHAMPIONS’ portal has been launched recently by the Ministry of Micro, Small and
Medium Enterprises. Hence statement (2) is not correct.
 It is a Technology driven Control Room-Cum-Management Information System. Hence
statement (1) is correct.
 CHAMPIONS stands for Creation and Harmonious Application of Modern Processes for
Increasing the Output and National Strength.
 It utilises modern ICT tools such as telephone, internet and video conference, and aims to
assist Indian MSMEs to march into big league as National and Global CHAMPIONS.
 It aims to make the smaller units big by providing them various facilities such as solving their
grievances, encouraging, supporting, helping and hand holding.
51. India’s first observatory for mammals has been established in which state?
a. Gujarat
b. Bihar
c. Karnataka
d. Madhya Pradesh
Answer:- (b)
Explanation
The Bihar government is setting up India’s first observatory for the mammals in Bhagalpur district at
the Vikramshila Gangetic Dolphin Sanctuary.
 The observatory is being built on the Sultanganj Aguwani Ghat bridge over the Ganga river.
52. ‘One Country, Two Systems’ often seen in the news with reference to which country?
a. Israel
b. Ethiopia
c. South Korea
d. China
Answer:- (d)
Explanation
‘One Country, Two Systems’ refers to the provision between the Peoples’ Republic of China and
Hong Kong.
 It is a constitutional principle of the People's Republic of China describing the governance of
Hong Kong and Macau since they became Special Administrative Regions (SARs) of China in
1997 and 1999 respectively.
 It was formulated in the early 1980s by Deng Xiaoping during negotiations with the United
Kingdom over Hong Kong. He suggested that there would be only one China, but that these
regions could retain their own economic and administrative systems, while the rest of
Mainland China uses communism with Chinese characteristics system.
 Under the principle, each of the two regions could continue to have its own governmental
system, legal, economic and financial affairs, including trade relations with foreign countries,
all of which are independent from those of the Mainland.
53. Consider the following criteria:-

1. Population in 2011
2. Tax effort
3. Income distance
4. Demographic performance
5. Forest and ecology
With reference to the criteria mentioned above, while determining the share of one state in the
divisible pool of taxes, which of the following is the correct ascending order described by the 15th
Finance Commission?
a. 2-1-4-5-3
b. 2-4-5-1-3
c. 5-2-4-1-3
d. 2-5-4-1-3
Answer:- (d)
Explanation
The government on May 11, 2020 had released Rs 6,195.08 crore to 14 states as the second equated
monthly instalment of the Post Devolution Revenue Deficit Grant as recommended by the 15th
Finance Commission. This would provide them additional resources during the Corona crisis.
 The 15th Finance Commission used the following criteria while determining the share of
states:-
1. 45% for the income distance.
2. 15% for the population in 2011
3. 15% for the area
4. 10% for forest and ecology
5. 12.5% for demographic performance, and
6. 2.5% for tax effort.
 For 2020-21, the Commission has recommended a total devolution of Rs 8,55,176 crore to
the states, which is 41% of the divisible pool of taxes. This is 1% lower than the percentage
recommended by the 14th Finance Commission.
54. The government has launched ‘Production Linked Incentive’ scheme to boost:-
a. Manufacturing of light combat helicopters
b. Indigenous development of COVID-19 vaccine
c. Manufacturing of electronics
d. Manufacturing of high-speed trains
Answer:- (c)
Explanation
The government has launched three incentive schemes with a total outlay of about ₹48,000 crore to
boost large-scale manufacturing of electronics in India.
The schemes are:-

1. Production Linked Incentive:- This is aimed at mobile phone manufacturing and specified
electronic components.
2. Scheme for Promotion of Manufacturing of Electronic Components and Semiconductors

(SPECS):- It will provide financial incentive of 25% on capital expenditure for the identified
list of electronic goods, i.e. electronic components, semiconductor/display fabrication units,
Assembly, Test, Marking and Packaging (ATMP) units, specialized sub-assemblies and capital
goods for manufacture of aforesaid goods.
3. Modified Electronics Manufacturing Clusters (EMC 2.0) Scheme:- It will provide support for
creation of world class infrastructure along with common facilities and amenities, including
Ready Built Factory (RBF) sheds / Plug and Play facilities for attracting major global
electronics manufacturers, along with their supply chains.
55. Which of the following parameters is not used in the National Institutional Ranking Framework
(NIRF) to rank institutes?
a. Peer Perception
b. Foreign students and faculty
c. Outreach and Inclusivity
d. Research and Professional Practices
Answer:- (b)
Explanation
National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) was started in 2015. It is used for ranking
institutions of higher education in different categories and domains of knowledge.
Parameters used for ranking institutions:-

1. Teaching, Learning and Resources.
2. Research and Professional Practices.
3. Graduation Outcomes.
4. Outreach and Inclusivity.
5. Peer Perception.
56. Income tax demand, disputed by a company is: -

a. Current Liability
b. Long term Liability
c. Contingent Liability
d. None of these
Answer: - (c)
Explanation: -
Contingent Liability
Contingent liabilities are defined as those potential liabilities that may occur in a future date
as a result of an uncertain event which is beyond the control of the business. A contingent
liability will only record in the balance sheet when the probability of its occurrence is certain,
and the extent of such liability can be determined.
In other words, contingent liabilities are those obligations that will arise in future due to
certain events that took place in the past or will be taking place in the future.
Example: - Outstanding lawsuits, debts, demand arise by the income tax department against
the disputed cases etc.
57. Return inwards are deducted from: -

a. Return outwards
b. Purchases
c. Sales
d. Closing Stock
Answer: - (c)
Explanation: -
Return Inwards: -
Return inward implies goods that are returned by the customer of a business entity. In other
words, it also be termed as Sales Return. Thus, return inwards are deducted from the Sales
of the business entity to ascertained the amount of net sales.
58. Sales = ______________+ Gross Profit.

a. Opening Stock
b. Cost of Goods Sold
c. Purchases
d. None of these
Answer: - (b)
Explanation: -
Cost of goods sold: -
The cost of goods sold is the costs of goods or products sold during a specific period of time
by the entity to its customers. The cost here refers to costs or expenses that attributable
directly to the goods or products that the entity sold which include the cost of direct labour,
direct materials and direct overheads.
Gross profit is the profit a company makes after deducting the costs associated with making
and selling its products, or the costs associated with providing its services.
To calculate the Gross Profit, we used following equation: -

Gross Profit = Sales – Cost of Goods Sold (COGS)
59. Work-in-process is shown in the balance sheet under which head?

a. Share Capital
b. Fixed Assets
c. Current Liability
d. Current Assets
Answer: - (d)
Explanation: -
Work-in-process
A Work-in-process (WIP) is the cost of unfurnished goods in the manufacturing process
including labour, raw materials and overheads. A WIP is different from a finished good which
refers to a product that is ready to sold to the customer. Work-in-process (WIP) are
considered to be a Current Assets on the balance sheet.
60. Which of the following account will be credited, if bought goods on credit from Mr. Ram?
a. Mr. Ram’s Account
b. Purchases Account
c. Sales Account
d. Cash Account
Answer: - (a)
Explanation: -
Purchases Account Dr. (Debit)
To Ram Account Cr. (Credit)
61. Interest on loan paid by business is an example of: -

a. Income
b. Asset
c. Return outward
d. Revenue Expense
Answer: - (d)
Explanation: -
Interest on loan paid by business is an example of Revenue Expenses.
A Revenue Expenditure is a cost that is charged to expense as soon as the cost is incurred.
These are the short termed expenses used in the current period or typically within one year.
These expense includes the expenses required to meet the ongoing operation cost of
running a business.
62. Which of the following is (are) type(s) of Public Limited Companies?

a. Listed Companies
b. Private Limited Companies
c. Non Listed Companies
d. Both Listed and Non Listed Companies
Answer: - (d)
Explanation: -
Public Limited Companies: -
Public Limited companies (PLC) that has offered shares of stock to the general public. The
buyers of those shares have limited liability. Listed companies and Non listed companies are
the types of public limited companies.
63. The charter of a company which defines the limitations and powers of the company is
called
a. Statutory Report
b. Articles of Association
c. Reserve Bank of India
d. The Memorandum of Association
Answer: - (d)
Explanation: -
The memorandum of association of a company is the charter and defines the limitation of
the power of the company established under Companies Act. It states the objects for which
the company is formed. It contains the rights, privileges and powers of the company.
64. Which of the following capital taken up by the general public?

a. Issued Capital
b. Reserve Capital
c. Subscribed Capital
d. Authorized Capital
Answer: - (a)
Explanation: -
Issued Capital
Issued capital is taken up by the general public. Such capital can be offered to the public at a
later date. It is that part of subscribed capital, which is called by the company to pay on
shares allotted. It is not necessary for the company to call for the entire amount on shares
subscribed for by shareholders.
65. Which of the following items of balance sheet are useful in evaluating a company’s
liquidity?
a. Current liabilities and current assets
b. Current liabilities and plant and equipment
c. Current Assets and other assets
d. Current liabilities and other assets
Answer: - (a)
Explanation: -
The current ratio (also known as working capital ratio) measures the liquidity of a
company and is calculated by dividing its current assets by its current liabilities. The term
current refers to short-term assets or liabilities that are consumed (assets) and paid off
(liabilities) is less than one year.
Current liabilities and current assets items of balance sheet are useful in evaluating a
company's liquidity.
66. Shares of which amount is paid by public are called shares: -

a. Paid Up
b. Bonus Shares
c. Authorized
d. All of the above
Answer: - (a)
Explanation: -
Paid-up capital is the amount of money a company has received from shareholders in
exchange for shares of stock. Paid-up capital is created when a company sells its shares on
the primary market directly to investors. Paid-up Shares is paid by public to the company.
67. Which of the following is non-profit organization?

a. Partnership
b. Limited company
c. Trust
d. Sole proprietorship
Answer: - (c)
Explanation: -
A not-profit organization does not earn any profits for its owners. Instead, the organization
donates the money it receives to help fund the organization’s objectives and goals. A not-
for-profit might also use received donations to stay up and running.
Trust is the non-profit organization. As the main the objective of the Trust is established to
help in the social welfare activities without having the motive to profit earning.
68. Commercial Accounting is based on

a. Cash basis of book keeping
b. Double entry book keeping
c. Single entry book keeping
d. Both double and single entry book keeping
Answer: - (b)
Explanation: -
Commercial Accounting: -
Commercial accounting is based on Double entry book keeping. Commercial accounting is
something about providing right information to right people on right time. In commercial
accounting, the system is maintained by the business organizations.
Objective of commercial accounting is to figure out the profit and loss of the organization
and to know the financial position of the business.
69. In which of the following interim dividend is treated?

a. In profit and loss appropriation account

b. In profit and loss account
c. In trading account
d. On the asset side of the balance sheet
Answer: - (a)
Explanation: -
In profit and loss appropriation account interim dividend is treated. An interim dividend is
a dividend payment made before a company's annual general meeting (AGM) and the
release of final financial statements.
In other words, An interim dividend is a distribution to shareholders that has been both
declared and paid before a company has determined its full-year earnings.
Such dividends are frequently distributed to the holders of a company's common stock on
either a quarterly or semi-annual basis.
70. Which of the following documents contains rules and regulations for internal management
of the business?
a. Prospectus
b. Articles of Association
c. Statutory Declaration
d. Memorandum of Association
Answer: - (b)
Explanation: -
Articles of association contains rules and regulations for internal management of the
business. Articles of Association is a document which prescribes the rules and bye-laws for
the general management of the company and for the attainment of its object as given in the
memorandum.
Basic Science
71. Social security schemes cover which of the following benefits?

A) Health Insurance and Medical Benefit
B) Disability Benefit
C) Maternity Benefit
D) All of the above
Ans: D
Explanation - The social security system of India is composed of a number of schemes and
programs .The social security system controlled by the government in India applies to only a
small portion of the population. In India, social security schemes includes not just an
insurance payment of premiums into government funds , but also some employer
obligations. The social security schemes cover the following types of social insurances:
 Health Insurance and Medical Benefit

 Disability Benefit
 Maternity Benefit
 Pension
 Gratuity
72.The preservation of which of the following is the primary purpose of employee safety
programme ?
A. Emotional health
B. Physical health
C. Mental health
D. All of the above
Ans:D
Explanation - Employee safety programmes can minimize the loss and damage caused to persons
and property by eliminating the risk of industrial accidents,can result in cost savings, increased
productivity and can also help maintain harmonious relations with workers. In order to make
effective safety plans, thorough analysis of workplace conditions helps to determine the level of
protection required. It is also an effective tool in retaining the existing and attracting new talent from
the industry. Some of the workplace safety programs that are implemented by organizations to
ensure physical and mental safety of the workers are as follows:
A. Safety Policy: It contains a declaration of the employer’s intent towards the safety of
employees and means to realize it. It includes causes, extent and remedies for accidents at
workplace. The policy specifies the company’s goals and responsibilities and caveats and sanctions
for failing to fulfill them.
B. Mental Health Services: To reduce the risk of mental breakdowns because of tension,
pressure and depression and mental illness, employees are provided a mental health service . Such
services include psychiatric counseling, co-operation and consultation with specialists, mental
health education etc.
C. Employee Assistance Programs: Deals with stress-related problems of the employee. Helps
in diagnosis, treatment, screening and prevention of both work and non-work related problems.
D. Fitness Programs: The most common programs are physical fitness, exercise, nutrition,
smoking and drinking cessation, diet control , work-related stress management.
73.Certified Standing orders under the Industrial Employment (Standing orders) Act, 1946 shall come
into operation from-
A. On expiry of 30 days from the date on which standing order was certified.
B. On expiry of 90 days from the date on which standing order was certified.
C. On expiry of 60 days from the date on which standing order was certified
D. None of the above.
Ans. A
EXPLANATION- As per the Industrial Employment (Standing orders) Act, 1946 , section 7 talks
about date of operation of standing orders. It describes that Standing orders shall, unless an appeal
is preferred under section 6, come into operation on the expiry of thirty days from the date on which
authenticated copies thereof are sent. If an appeal is preferred, on the expiry of seven days from
the date on which copies of the order of the appellate authority are sent .
74.In which language is the text of Standing Order posted on notice boards?
A. Only English
B. Language as understood by workmen
C. English and a language as understood by workmen
D. None of the above
Ans. C)
Explanation - Section 9 in The Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 talks about
posting of standing orders. The text of the standing orders as finally certified under this Act shall be
prominently posted by the employer in English and in the language understood by the majority of
his workmen on special boards to be maintained for the purpose at or near the entrance through
which the majority of the workmen enter the industrial establishment and in all departments
thereof where the workmen are employed. state amendment Maharashtra: Gujarat.
75.Minimum no. of members required to be employed in an establshment for the applicability of

Provident Fund Act ?
A. 20
B.30
C.40
D. All of these
Ans. A
Explanation - 20 or more is the current threshold for applicability of EPF Act . The Ministry of
Labour and Employment gave a statement in response to some reports that claimed the
government may bring the applicability threshold of EPF Act down from 20 to 10 or more
employees.
76.The Chairman and members of central board constituted under EPF are appointed by-
A. State Government
B. Central Government
C. Supreme Court
D. None of the above
Ans. B
Explanation- The EPFO acts as the enforcement agency to implement the EPF & MP Act . The
Central Board of Trustees is a Statutory Board constituted by the Central Government . It consists of
a Chairman, a Vice Chairman, 5 Central Government Representatives, 15 State Government
Representatives, 10 Employees' Representatives, 10 Employers, Representatives with Central P.F
Commissioner and the Member Secretary to the Board. A Executive Committee is constituted from
among the members of the CBT to assist the Central Board in Administrative matters. The officials
are appointed for efficient administration of the Act and Schemes. The commissioners of the
organisation are vested with vast powers like levy of damages, attachment and auction of a
defaulter's property, prosecution , arrest and detention of defaulters in civil prison, search and
seizure of records etc.
77.Under which of the following act, statutory minimum wage is fixed?

A. Minimum Wages Act, 1948
B. Payment of Wages, 1936
C. Equal Renumeration Act, 1976
D. All of these
Ans. A
Explanation - The Minimum Wages Act was passed in 1948. It gave jurisdiction to both the Central
government and State government to fix wages. The act is statutory but legally non-binding. When
wages paid are below the minimum wage rate, it amounts to forced labour. Wage boards are
constituted to review the industry's capacity to pay and fix minimum wages so that they at least
covers all requirements of a family of shelter, clothing, education, medical assistance, and
entertainment. According to law, wage rates in scheduled employments differ across states, sectors,
skills, regions and occupations because of difference in costs of living, regional industries capacity to
pay, consumption patterns, etc. So, there is no single uniform minimum wage rate across the
country .
78.The facilities available outside the organization for employee welfare are called
a. Extra-mural facilities
b. Intra-mural facilities
c. Extravagance
d. None of the above
Ans:a
Explanation- . On the basis of location, the types of welfare services are as follows:
Intramural- These are provided within the organization like Canteen , Rest rooms ,Crèches ,
Uniform, Drinking water , Washing and bathing facilities, fencing and covering of machines , Good
layout of machinery and Fire extinguishers, pension, provident fund, fringe benefits etc.
Extramural - Child welfare , Leave travel facilities ,Interest free loans ,Workers cooperative
stores , Vocational guidance etc.These are provided outside the organization like Housing,
Education
79. Choose which of the following theories have the basic assumption, “An inclination to
do something good for others can influence the employers to undertake welfare
facilities”.
a) Policing theory
b) Religious theory
c) Appeasement theory
d) None of the above
Ans:a
Explanation - The Policing Theory of Labour Welfare theory is based on the assumption that
Human Beings are very selfish. He always tries for his own benefits even on the cost of
others welfare. It is based on the contention that a minimum standard of welfare is
necessary for workers. It says that without compulsion, supervision and punishment,
employers won’t provide even the barest minimum of welfare facilities for workers. Since,
owners and managers of industrial undertakings get many opportunities for exploitation of
labour the state needs to intervene to provide a minimum standard of welfare to the
working class.
80. The term Sabbatical is connected with

a) Maternity leave
b) Paid leave for study
c) Quarantine leave
d) All of the above
Ans. b
Explanation - A sabbatical is a period of paid or unpaid leave that is granted to an employee so that
they may study or travel. The advantage of sabbaticals is that the employee takes time to engage in
another type of personal or professional pursuit not for the sake of relaxation.
81. Which of the following are benefits of getting regular and prompt wages?
a) Better productivity
b) Better living conditions of workers
c) Entertainment Facilities
d) Industrial harmony
Ans: d
Explanation - The Ministry of Labour and Employment is responsible for laying down policies in
respect of labour matters including regulation of wages. The implementation of the policies in
regard to this matter is the responsibility of the State Governments subject to control and direction
of the Central Govt. except in where the labour employed in Railways, Mines, Oilfields, Banking and
Insurance Companies having branches in more than one State, major Ports and Central Government.
The main benefit of giving regular and prompt wages is to promote harmonious relations between
labour and management, to regulate wages and other conditions of work in the central sphere and
for improving industrial relations, with regard to units in which the Central Government is the
appropriate Government.
82. If an employer denies that an employee was working for him and the employee alleges it. Who
has to prove this fact?
a) Employee
b) Employer
c) Authority and employer
d)Authority.
Ans: a
Explanation- If an employer denies that an employee was working for him and the employee alleges
it, the employee has to prove this fact.
83. Which of the following entrepreneurs are not provided financial support by Stand Up India
Scheme?
a)Belonging to Scheduled Caste
b)Belonging to Scheduled Tribe
c) Women
d) Rural youth
Ans. d)
Explanation- Stand-Up India Scheme is a scheme to provide funds to women

entrepreneurs and people belonging to SC/ST category of the society. It was introduced
by the Government of India to provide credit services mainly to SC/ST category people.
Its primary purpose is to help banks in offering loans between Rs. 10 lakh and Rs. 1 crore
to at least one SC/ST applicant and one women entrepreneur per bank branch so that
they could set-up their own enterprise.
84. Choose the social security scheme run by the National Health Authority?
a) PM Jan Arogya Yojna

b) PM Kusum
c) PM Jan Dhan Yojna
d) None of the above
Ans. a)
Explanation - Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana is a programme of the
Government of India which aims to provide free access to healthcare for 50 crore people in the
country. The people who use the program access their own primary care services from a family
doctor. If anyone needs additional care, then this programme provides free secondary health care
for special treatment for those who need it and tertiary health care for those requiring
hospitalization. It is a part of the Indian government's National Health Policy.The Ministry of Health
and Family Welfare launched it in September, 2018. It is the world's largest government sponsored
healthcare program. It is a poverty alleviation programme for people with low income in India.
85. Which of the following is the objective of flagship scheme of the Government of India i.e.
Ayushman Bharat Scheme?
a. Universal Health Coverage
b. Universal Insurance Coverage
c. Universal Employment Coverage
d. All of the above
Ans. a)
Explanation-
On September 23, 2018, the Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched Ayushman Bharat,
world's largest government-funded healthcare scheme.The objective of this scheme is to
reduce health expenditure, improve access to quality health care, and reduce out of pocket
healthcare expenditures of poor and vulnerable families .One of the salient features of the
scheme is that it provides a cover of Rs. 5 lakhs per family per year for secondary and
tertiary care hospitalization across India in public and private empanelled hospitals.
86. Which of the following is a mode of negotiation between employers and a group of employees
whose aim is to reach agreements to regulate working salaries, working conditions, benefits,
rights for workers and other aspects of compensation?
a. Conciliation and adjudication
b. Collective Bargaining
c. Workers Participation in Management
d. All of these
Ans. b)
Explanation- Collective bargaining is a process of negotiation between employers and a group
of employees aimed to reach agreements to regulate working salaries, working conditions,
benefits, workers' compensation and rights for workers. employees are commonly represented
by trade union representatives to which the employees belong. The agreements reached by
these negotiations are about working hours, training, health and safety,etc. A collective
agreement is a labour contract between an employer and trade unions. The parties often refer
this negotiation as a collective bargaining agreement (CBA) or as a collective employment
agreement (CEA).
87. Which of the following is the process by which labour and management establish upper and
lower wage limits within which a final settlement is made.
a)Walton and McKersie Theory
b)Bargaining Range Theory
c) Chamberlain Model
d) Hicks Bargaining Model
Ans.b)
Explanation- Bargaining range theory was given by late Professor A.C. Pigou.It explains the process
by which labour and management establish upper and lower wage limits within which a final
settlement is made. The upper limit of the Union represents its ideal wage. Management will offer a
wage that is well below that acceptable to the union.The two extremes i.e. the union and
management teams will normally proceed through a series of proposals and counter proposals. The
union will gradually reduce its wage demands while the employer will raise its wages offer .As per
this theory, the bargaining skills and strengths of the union and management negotiators will
determine the exact settlement point will depend on the.
88. As per New Industrial Relation Code, 2002 ,how many days notice has to be given before
strike?
a)14 days
b)60 days
c) 30 days
d) 5 days
Ans. b)
Explanation-The Code requires a person to serve a notice within 60 days before conducting strike or
lock-out to the other party and does not allow strikes or lock-outs within 14 days of such notice or
before the expiry of the date specified in the notice.
89. When the people involved in the process comprehend unlikable results from their interactions
with the environment, it is specifically called
a) time stress
b) anticipatory stress
c) positive stress
d) negative stress
Ans: b .
Explanation - Anticipatory stress means stress that is experience concerning the future. It can be
focused on a specific event, for example an upcoming presentation that you're going to give. It can
also be vague and undefined, like an overall sense of dread about the future, or a worry about
anything that can go wrong. It can result from a lack of confidence.
90.Which of the following is a scientific and systematic effort to modify the characteristics of an
employee's job?
a) Mentoring
b) Time-out
c) Job redesign
d) Employee empowerment
Ans:c
Explanation- Job redesign means restructuring the elements i.e. tasks, duties and responsibilities of
a specific job in order to make it more inspiring for the employees or workers. This entire process
contains revising, analyzing, altering, reforming the job-related content in order to increase the
variety of functions to motivate employees . It also makes them feel as an important asset of the
organization. Its main objective is to place the right person at the right job and to get the maximum
output by increasing their satisfaction level.
91. Consider the following:-

Classification of Biofuels Example
1. First generation biofuels : Starch
2. Third generation biofuels : Genetically modified (GM) algae
3. Second generation biofuels : Animal fats
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

a. 2 and 3
b. 1 only
c. 1 and 3
d. 3 only
Answer:- (b)
Explanation
World Biofuel Day was observed on 10th August to create awareness about the importance of non-
fossil fuels as an alternative to conventional fossil fuels.
About Biofuel:-
 These are liquid/ solid or gaseous fuels produced from biomass resources and are used in
place of, or in addition to, diesel, petrol or other fossil fuels for transport, stationary,
portable and other applications.
Classification of Biofuels:-
1. First generation biofuels:- It refers to the fuels that have been derived from sources like
starch, sugar, animal fats and vegetable oil.
2. Second generation biofuels:- These are produced from non-food crops, such as cellulosic
biofuels and waste biomass (stalks of wheat and corn, and wood). Examples include
advanced biofuels like biohydrogen, biomethanol.
3. Third generation biofuels:- These are produced from microorganisms like algae.
4. Fourth-Generation biofuels:- It uses genetically modified (GM) algae to enhance biofuel
production.
92. The surface of a lake is frozen in severe winter, but the water at its bottom is still liquid. What
is the reason?
a. Ice is a bad conductor of heat
b. Since the surface of the lake is at the same temperature as the air, no heat is lost
c. The density of water is maximum at 4 °C
d. None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct
Answer:- (c)
Explanation
Frozen water or ice is lighter than liquid water. It's because water has got anomalous expansion. It
starts expanding at 4℃. So when water freezes, it starts floating and comes up to the surface and
hence liquid cold water remains below the layer of the ice surface.
93. Fruits stored in a cold chamber exhibit longer storage life because:-
a. Exposure to sunlight is prevented
b. Concentration dioxide in the is increased of carbon environment
c. Rate of respiration is decreased
d. There is an increase in humidity
Answer:- (c)
Explanation
Fruits and vegetables continue their metabolic activity after harvest. Metabolic Activity is manifested
by respiration. Reduction of temperature is an effective means of reducing the rate of respiration.
94. Consider the following kinds of organisms:-

1. Bat
2. Bee
3. Bird
Which of the above is/are pollinating agent/agents?

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer:- (d)
Explanation
Bat, bees, and birds are important pollinating agents. They sit on the flowers and suck their juice. In
the sucking process, pollens attach to their legs and the other parts of the body. When they sit on
the next flower these attached pollens fall on them and thus completing the process of pollination.
95. Photosynthesis occurs in:-

a. Nucleus
b. Mitochondria
c. Chloroplast
d. Peroxisome
Answer:- (c)
Explanation
Photosynthesis occurs in particular cells called Mesophyll cells. These cells contain the chloroplast.
96. The high tide in the ocean is caused by:-

a. Earthquake
b. Sun
c. Stars
d. Moon
Answer:- (d)
Explanation
High tide in the ocean is caused by the gravitational pull of the Moon which is effectively 3 times
larger than the Sun’s pull due to less distance.
97. The blood group of universal donor is:-

a. A
b. AB
c. O
d. D
Answer:- (c)
Explanation
O negative blood was considered as the universal blood donor type. This implied that anyone
regardless of blood type could receive type O negative blood without risking a transfusion reaction.
98. When a man eats meat of goat or sheep, then he is a:-

a. Primary consumer
b. Secondary consumer
c. Tertiary consumer
d. Producer
Answer:- (b)
Explanation
Within an ecological food chain, consumers are categorised into three groups:- (1) Primary, (2)
Secondary, (3) the tertiary consumers. Primary consumers are usually herbivores, feeding on plants
and fungus. Secondary consumers, on the other hand, are mainly carnivores, and prey on other
animals.
99. Quartz crystals used in clocks are:-

a. Sodium Silicate
b. Silicon Dioxide
c. Germanium Oxide
d. Titanium Dioxide
Answer:- (b)
Explanation
Quartz crystals used in clocks are mainly made of Silicon Dioxide. Its chemical formula is SiO .
2
100. To protect broken bones, plaster of Paris is used. It is:-

a. Slaked Lime
b. Calcium Carbonate
c. Calcium Oxide
d. Gypsum
Answer:- (d)
Explanation
Plaster of Paris is used to combine the broken bones. It is obtained by heating the gypsum at 373 K.
101. Which of the following devices is used to carry digital data on analog lines?
a. Modem
b. Multiplexer
c. Modulator
d. Demodulator
Answer:- (a)
Explanation
Modem is used for carrying digital data on analog lines.
102. Cache memory is located at?

a. Monitor
b. USB
c. CPU
d. None Of the above
Answer:- (C)
Explanation
Cache memory is located at the Central Processing Unit (CPU).
103. Which of the following technologies has been used by the National Highway Authority of
India (NHAI) for toll collection under Fastag?
a. Near Field Communication (NFC)
b. Bluetooth
c. Internet of Things (IoT)
d. Radio Frequency Identification (RFID)
Answer:- (d)
Explanation
RFID has been used by NHAI for toll collection at its highway. RFID can detect signal
from the 10 meter range.
104. USB stands for:-

a. Unique Serial Bus
b. Unique Support Bus
c. Universal Support Bus
d. Universal Serial Bus
Answer:- (d)
Explanation
The Full form of USB is Universal Serial Bus. Universal Serial Bus (USB) is an industry standard used to
define the connectors, cables and communication protocols used in a bus for communication,
connection and power supply between computers, laptops, and electronic devices.
105. Junk email is also called:-

a. Spoof
b. Trash
c. Spam
d. None
Answer:- (c)
Explanation
Junk emails are also called spam. Messages that have been in spam for more than 30 days will be
deleted automatically.
106. A Train overtakes two persons walking along a railway track. The first one walks at 6km/hr. the
other one walks at 7.2km/hr. the train overtook them in 9 sec and 9.5 sec respectively. What is the
speed of the train if both the persons are walking in the same direction as that of the train?
A. 36
B. 28.8
C. 45
D. None of these
Correct Ans. B
Speed of first person = 6× = m/s
Speed of 2nd person = 7.2× = 2m/s
Let the speed of the train = X m/s

Now,
(X— ) × 9 = (X-2) × 9.5
Or, 9x-15 = 9.5x -19
0.5x = 4, X=8m/s
Therefore Speed of the train = 8× = 28.8 km/h
107. A and B can do a piece of work in 20 days while B and C can do the same piece of work in 30
days and C and A in 24 days. They all worked together for 10 days when C and A left the job. How
many more days will be taken to finish the work?
A. 12 days
B. 36 days
C. 54 days
D. 18 days
Correct Ans. D
2 (A+B+C)’s 1 day work = + + = =
(A+B+C)’s 1 day work =
Work done by (A+B+C) in 10 days = =
Remaining work = 1- = part of work
Now B’s 1 day work = - =
Now work will be done by B in = 48 × = 18 days
108. If the average marks of three batches of 42,45 and 50 students respectively is 55, 46 and 54
then find the average marks of all the students.
A. 47.1
B. 46.1
C. 45.2
D. 43.1
Correct Ans. D
× × ×
Required Average = == == =43.1
109. Mohit father was 42 years of age when he was born while hismother was 38 years old when his
brother 3 years younger than he was born. What is the difference between the ages of her parents?
A. 7 years
B. 8 years
C. 6 years
D. None of these
Correct Ans. A
Mother’s age when Mohit brother was born =38 years
Father’s age when Mohit was born = 42+3 = 45 years
Req difference = 45-38 = 7 years
110. Pulses worth Rs. 140 per kg and Rs. 155 per kg are mixed with a third party in the ratio of 1:1:2
if the mixture is worth Rs. 167.5 per kg, the price of third variety per kg will be?
A. 169.5
B. 197.5
C. 187.5
D. 177.5
Correct Ans. C
Since first and 2nd variety of pulses are mixed now price = = 147.5
So the mixture is formed by mixing two variety first = 147.5 and second = X per kg in the ratio of 2:2
.ie 1:1 we have to find the value of X.
147.5 X
167.5
X-167.5 20
.
Then , =1
Or X-167.5 = 20 or, X = 187.5
111. Manoj started a business by investing Rs 80,000 after six months, Sanjay joined him with a
capital of Rs. 90,000, after 3 years, they earned a profit of Rs 21,700 what was Sanjay’s share in the
profit?
A. 11,200
B. 12,500
C. 13,200
D. 10,500
Correct Ans. D
Manoj’s share ratio = 80,000× 36 ∶ 90,000 × 30 = 16: 15
Sanjay share in profit = 21,700× = 10,500

112. A took a certain loan from a bank at a rate of 6% per annum. A lent the same amount to B at
10% interest. If at the end of four years, A earned of profit Rs. 640 from the deal then what was the
original sum?
A. 4500
B. 4000
C. 3250
D. 3700
Correct Ans. B
Let original sum = X

× ×
SI =
× × × ×
Then, - = 640
After solve X = 4000
113. Manoj and Nitesh enter into a partnership with their capital in the ratio of 5:11, at end of the
10th monthNiteshwithdraw his capital. If they receive the profits in the ratio of 10:11 then find how
long is Manoj’s capital used.
A. 19 months
B. 12 months
C. 15 months
D. 20 months
Correct Ans. D
Let Manoj’s Capital was invested for X month

×
Then, ×
=
Or, 55X = 11× 10 × 10
Or, X = 20 months
114. What should come in place of Question mark (?) in the following Question?
6 𝑜𝑓 266 + 630 = 7985−? −5200
A. 755
B. 645
C. 445
D. 555
Correct Ans. C
ATQ, 𝑜𝑓 266 + 630 = 7985−? −5200
Or, 1710+630 = 2785 – X
X= 2785-2340 = 445
115. In 30 litres of milk and water, water is only 20%. How many litres of water should be added to it
to increase the percentage of water to 60%?
A. 24 litres
B. 6 litres
C. 20 litres
D. 30 litres
Correct Ans. D
Let X litre water be added.
Then =
After solving it X = = 30 litres
116. If 21 men can do a piece of work in 25 days working 10 hours a day, then how many men are
required to complete the work in 15 days by working 7 hours per day?
A. 45 men
B. 47 men
C. 50 men
D. 54 men
Correct Ans. C
× ×
From Formulae = M× 𝐷 × 𝐻 = 𝑊 = ×
= 50 men
117. Three pipes A, B and C working together can fill a cistern in 11 hrs. After working at it together
for 3 hours, B is closed, and A and C filled it in 16 more hours. B alone can fill the cistern in
A. 22 hours
B. 20 hours
C. 16 hours
D. 32 hours
Correct Ans. A
A+B+C can fill a cistern in 11 hrs
In three hours (A+B+C) can fill 3/11 part of cistern

Remaining part = (1- ) part of the cistern can filled by tap A and C in 16 hrs.
×
Cistern Can be filled by A and C in hrs = 22 hrs
In one hour Cistern B alone can fill = - =
Now B alone can fill the Cistern in 22 hrs.
118. The cost price of a table and a chair together is Rs. 690. If the table costs 30% more than the
chair, then find the cost price of the table and the chair respectively.
A. Rs. 390 & 300
B. Rs. 300 & 390
C. Rs. 200 & 230
D. Rs. 400 & 600
Correct Ans. B
Let the cost price of a chair be X
The cost price of a table =X × =
ATQ, X+ =690
After solve X = 300
So cost price of chair = 300
The cost price of a table = 690-300 = 390
119. Of the three number, the first is twice the second and the second is thrice the third. If the
average of three numbers is 30 then the largest number is?
A. 50
B. 9
C. 54
D. 58
Correct Ans. B
Let the third number is X
Second number = 3X
First number = 6X
ATQ, = 30
X= 9
120. Suraj losses 13% of his money and after spending 65%of the remaining he is left with Rs 1522.5
How much money did he has in the beginning?
A. 6000
B. 6525
C. 7500
D. 5000
Correct Ans. D
Let Suraj had in the beginning = X
ATQ., X × X = 1522.5
X = 5000

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“He didn’t lend me the newspaper because he was going……..it”.

“We usually give our sentence the old cloths we cast…………………. ”.

“Although they are not rich, they always wear…………..clothes.”

“She rejected the proposal of marriage point blank.”

B. rush in all directions and suffer much harassment

C. go to all post boxes and post offices

D. go to many offices and post letters

A. The ministry of Labour conducts its basic survey

B. on trade union each year

C. gathering information with all

D. labour unions as of June 30

B. find out the root cause

C. of this recurring problem

D. for the last four days

A. I am fully aware that

B. my boss is one of those

C. who is totally dedicated

D. to work and proper discipline

“An Excessive fear of confined spaces”

“A person who is long experienced or practiced in an activity/capacity”

21. Paharia revolt happened in:-

23. Vernacular Press Act introduced in the Viceroyship of___.

24. Who founded the “Naujawan Bharat Sabha”?

26. Whom did Mahatma Gandhi accept as his political ‘guru’?

28. The fortnightly ‘Bahishkrit Bharat’ was started by:-

Select the correct answer using the code given below:-

34. Which of the following events happened first?

35. Which movement is also known as the ‘Dilli Chalo Movement’?

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

About ‘Chief Vigilance Commissioner’ (CVC):-

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

40. Consider the following statements, regarding Cabinet Committees:-

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

About Cabinet Committees:-

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

Select the correct answer using the code given below:-

Select the correct answer using the code given below:-

Select the correct answer using the code given below:-

Which of the above statement(s) is/are INCORRECT?

About Krishi Kalyan Abhiyan:-

Which of the statements given above is/are INCORRECT?

About ‘Swamitva Yojana’ :-

50. Consider the following statements regarding the ‘CHAMPIONS portal’:-

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

53. Consider the following criteria:-

The schemes are:-

2. Scheme for Promotion of Manufacturing of Electronic Components and Semiconductors

Parameters used for ranking institutions:-

56. Income tax demand, disputed by a company is: -

57. Return inwards are deducted from: -

58. Sales = ______________+ Gross Profit.

To calculate the Gross Profit, we used following equation: -

59. Work-in-process is shown in the balance sheet under which head?

61. Interest on loan paid by business is an example of: -

62. Which of the following is (are) type(s) of Public Limited Companies?

64. Which of the following capital taken up by the general public?

66. Shares of which amount is paid by public are called shares: -

67. Which of the following is non-profit organization?

68. Commercial Accounting is based on

69. In which of the following interim dividend is treated?

a. In profit and loss appropriation account

71. Social security schemes cover which of the following benefits?