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Mock Test 5

1. Which one of the following is the synonyms of the word written in Bold in the Sentence,
“the assumption that a student faring poorly at the pre-boards will REPLICATE this at the
boards is faulty?”
A. enhance
B. repeat
C. perform
D. achieve
Correct Ans. B
2. Which one of the following is the synonyms of the word written in Bold in the Sentence,
“The challenge to management is to find and administer alternative forms of incentive which
will INDUCE employees to improve work performance?”
A. appreciate
B. stimulate
C. exhibit
D. inflate
Correct Ans. B
3. Which one of the following is the synonyms of the word written in Bold in the Sentence,
“India’s leading national banks have posted a net profit rise or more than 40% over the last
quarter amid global TURMOIL?”
A. danger
B. shock
C. sadness
D. chaos
Correct Ans. D
4. Which one of the following is the Antonyms of the word written in Bold in the Sentence,
“increasing employee earnings by means other than increased labour productivity
JEOPARDIZES the firm’s competitive strength in the market?”

A. safeguards
B. endangers
C. projects
D. devalues
Correct Ans. A
5. Which one of the following is the Antonyms of the word written in Bold in the Sentence,
“farmers especially in developing countries face many problems such as lack of
infrastructure, poor and unstable market access, VOLATILE input and output etc.?”
A. never ending
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B. meagre
C. stable
D. irreversible
Correct Ans. C
6. Which one of the following is the Antonyms of the word written in Bold in the Sentence,
“The biggest problems are structural food producers, hampered by land restrictions, ARCHAIC
retail networks and bad infrastructure, fail to meet extra demand from consumers?”
A. simple
B. modern
C. lively
D. ancient
Correct Ans. B

7. Complete the sentences with appropriate phrasal verbs.

“The inflation rate has…..…… in recent months indicates that the government isn't following
a reliable economic policy”.
A. put forward
B. come down with
C. given off
D. gone up
Correct Ans. D
8. Complete the sentences with appropriate phrasal verbs.
If it weren't for the loan I got from the bank, it would have been impossible for me to ---- my
own business.
A. Set up
B. Cross out
C. drop off
D. take down
Correct Ans. A
9. Which of the phrases given below should replace the phrase given in the sentence to
make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct?
What we have been doing was from humanity point of view.
A. had done being
B. have done is
C. have done were
D. have been doing were
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Correct Ans. B
10. Which of the phrases given below should replace the phrase given in the sentence to
make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct?
The newly-wed couple was shocked when it was observed that many people who had been
invited missing.
A. were invited
B. had been invited were
C. had invited were
D. had been invited had been
Correct Ans. B
11. Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank in sentence to
make the sentence meaningfully complete.
We should involve all our colleagues in …………….important decisions.
A. instigating
B. deciding
C. pioneering
D. making
Correct Ans. D
12. Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank in sentence to
make the sentence meaningfully complete.
For such a…………….task, there should be some special task force.
A. trivial
B. gigantic
C. definite
D. simple
Correct Ans. B
13. Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank in sentence to
make the sentence meaningfully complete.
If you…………yourself with the culture of that area, you will be able to enjoy life there.
A. Know
B. see
C. familiarize
D. imbibe
Correct Ans. C
14. In the following question an idiomatic expression and its possible meaning are given.
Find out the correct meaning of the idiomatic expression.
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The green-eyed monster

A. The creature of the sea
B. An animal with green eyes
C. Personal jealousy
D. to get into trouble
Correct Ans. C
15 In the following question an idiomatic expression and its possible meaning are given. Find
out the correct meaning of the idiomatic expression.
To end in smoke
A. To die of cancer caused by smoking
B. To end without providing any practical result
C. To die in a burning house chocked with smoke
D. To risk everything in a single venture
Correct Ans. B
16. In the following question an idiomatic expression and its possible meaning are given.
Find out the correct meaning of the idiomatic expression.
A wet blanket
A. A man who is always drunk
B. A wife who is cold to her husband
C. To wear black and white clothes
D. A person who ends enjoyable activity
Correct Ans. D
17. Complete the sentences with the correct question tags.
You wouldn't like to invite my Dad, ________
A. Will it?
B. Won’t they?
C. wouldn’t they?
D. Will they?
Correct Ans. B

18. Complete the sentences with the correct question tags.

You wouldn't like to invite my Dad, ________

A. did you?
B. Would you?
C. won’t you?
D. Will you?
Correct Ans. B
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19. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in it, the error if any, will be one
part of the sentence. The number of that part is the Answer.
The construction work has caused severe inconvenience to the two dozen families live in
this locality.
A. The construction work has
B. caused severe inconvenience
C. to the two dozen
D. families live in this locality.
Correct Ans. D

20. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in it, the error if any, will be one
part of the sentence. The number of that part is the Answer.
On account of their forward thinking leaders of Bostwana have managed to raise over one
million citizen out of poverty.
A. On account of their forward thinking
B. leaders of Bostwana have managed
C. to raise over one million
D. citizen out of poverty
Correct Ans. A

21. With reference to the British Indian Association, consider the following
statements:-
1. It was founded by associates of Raja Rammohan Roy.
2. Establishment of a separate legislature of a popular character is one of the demands
put forward by this association to the British Indian Government.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:- (b)

Explanation
 British Indian Association was formed in 1851 by merging the Landholders’ Society
and the Bengal British India Society. The Bangabhasa Prakasika Sabha was founded
by the associates of Raja Rammohan Roy in 1836. Hence statement (1) is not
correct.
 British Indian Association demanded to include some of their suggestions in the
renewed Charter of the Company which also include establishment of a separate
legislature of a popular character, separation of executive from judicial functions,
reduction in salaries of higher officers, and abolition of slat duty, abkari and stamp
duties. Hence statement (2) is correct.
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22. He was the first Indian to be a member of the British Parliament, conducted an
empirical experiment to determine poverty line, and also published an Anglo-Gujarati
newspaper for reforms in his community. Who was he?
a. Pherozshah Mehta
b. Dinshaw Wacha
c. Dadabhai Naoroji
d. Shyamji Krishna Verma

Answer:- (c)

Explanation
 Dadabhai Naoroji was the first Indian to become a member of the British Parliament.
He was a member of the House of Commons between 1892-1895.
 In his book “Poverty and Unbritish Rule in India”, Dadabhai Naoroji provided an
empirical formula to determine the poverty line. He fixed the poverty line at Rs 16 Rs
35 per capita per year on the basis of the cost of a subsistence or minimum basic
diet (rice or flour, dal, mutton, vegetables, ghee, vegetable oil, and salt).
 Dadabhai also published an Anglo-Gujarati newspaper called ‘Rast Goftar’ for the
propagation of true teachings of Parsi religion and reforms in Parsi religion.

23. Consider the following statements:-

1. Tilak, Lajpat Rai, Bipin Chandra Pal and Aurobindo Ghosh were in favour of turning
the Swadeshi Movement into a full fledged political mass struggle with the goal of
attaining swaraj.
2. Attainment of ‘Swaraj’ was declared as the main goal of the Indian National Congress
for the first time in the Calcutta session of 1906.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:- (c)

Explanation
After the announcement of the partition of Bengal in 1905, the anti-partition and Swadeshi
Movement of Bengal was started.
 Extremist nationalists led by Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Lala Lajpat Rai, Bipin Chandra Pal
and Aurobindo Ghosh were in favour of turning the Swadeshi Movement into a full
fledged political mass struggle with the goal of attaining swaraj. They also wanted the
movement to be taken outside Bengal to other parts of the country. Hence
statement (1) is correct.
 In the Calcutta session of 1906 under the presidentship of Dadabhai Naoroji, it was
declared that the goal of the Indian National Congress was ‘self-government or
swaraj like the United Kingdom or the colonies’. Hence statement (2) is also
correct.

24. In which session of Indian National Congress Rajkumar Shukla requested

Mahatma Gandhi to look into the problems of the Indigo planter of Champaran?
a. Calcutta Session of 1917
b. Lucknow Session of 1916
c. Gaya Session of 1922
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d. Bombay Session of 191

Answer:- (b)

Explanation
 The 1916 session of Indian National Congress was held in Lucknow.
 It was a very important session as here in this session Rajkumar Shukla, a poor
peasant from Champaran invited Mahatma Gandhi to look into the problems of Indigo
farmers who were exploited through the Tinkathia system.
 Also, the Lucknow session(1916) was famous for:-
o Extremists readmission to Congress,
o Joint demands under Lucknow Pact by Muslim League and Congress and
o the Congress acceptance of Muslim League‘s position of separate electorates
which ultimately culminated in the partition of India.

25. Who is regarded as “The Mother of Indian Revolution”

a. Annie Besant
b. Snehlata Wadekar
c. Sarojini Naidu
d. Madam Bhikaji Rustam Cama

Answer:- (d)

Explanation
Madam Bhikaji Cama is known as “The Mother of Indian Revolution.

 She had contributed immensely in the Indian freedom struggle on foreign soils.
 She also designed the early versions of Indian flag.
 She was the first Indian who hoisted Indian flag on forign soil in the Second
International in Stuttgart, Germany in 1907.

26. Who organised the “Khudai khidmatgar” in 1929 ?

a. Abdul Gaffar Khan
b. Ali Brothers
c. Ansari Brothers
d. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

Answer:- (a)

Explanation
 Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan organised the Pashtuns of North-West Frontier
Province(NWFP)(now in Pakistan) into “Khudai Khidmatgar” meaning “servants of
God” in 1929.
 This was a nonviolent resistance movement against British Indian government.
 Members of this movement were also known as “Red Shirt”.

27. The post of Indian High Commission was created by which Act?
a. The Indian Council Act,1909
b. The Government of India Act, 1919
c. The Government of India Act, 1935
d. The Indian Independence Act, 1947

Answer:- (b)
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Explanation
The post of Indian High Commission was created by The Government of India Act, 1919
 The Government of India Act, 1919 was also known as Montagu- Chelmsford
reforms.
 It was passed to expand participation of Indians in the government of India.
 Establishment of Indian High Commission was one of the provisions of this act.
 William Stevenson Mayer was the first Indian High Commissioner and Sir Dadiba
Mewanji Dalal was the first Indian origin person to hold this office.

28. Mahatma Gandhi presided over which Session of Indian National Congress ?
a. 1922
b. 1924
c. 1928
d. 1930

Answer:- (b)

Explanation
 Mahatma Gandhi presided over the 1924 session of Indian National Congress held in
Belgaum.
 This is the first and last time Mahatma Gandhi was made President of Indian National
Congress.

29. The Carnatic war was fought between:-

a. English and Nizams
b. French and Nizams
c. Tipu Sultan and Marathas
d. English and French

Answer:- (d)

Explanation
 The Karnatak Wars (also called the Carnatic Wars) were a series of military conflicts
in the middle of the 18th century in India.
 The conflicts involved numerous nominally independent rulers and their vassals,
struggles for succession and territory, and included a diplomatic and military struggle
between the French and English.
 They mainly fought on the territories in India which were dominated by the Nizam of
Hyderabad up to the Godavari delta.

30. Alluri Sitaram Raju led which of the following tribal revolts against Britishers?
a. Chenchus revolt
b. Oraons revolt
c. Bhils revolt
d. Koyas/Rampas revolt

Answer:- (d)

Explanation
Alluri Sitaram Raju led a revolt against the British Government in 1922. It was a tribal revolt
against the denial of the traditional rights of Koyas tribal people of Godavari Agency of
Madras Presidency.

31. Which one of the following Satyagrahas was not led by Mahatma Gandhi?
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a. Quit India Movement

b. Non-Cooperation Movement
c. Kheda Movement
d. Bardoli Satyagraha

Answer:- (d)

Explanation
Bardoli Satyagraha was led by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel in 1928. This satyagraha was
started due to an increase in land revenue by 22%.

32. The Brahma Samaj is based on the principle of:-

a. Monotheism
b. Atheism
c. Polytheism
d. Brahminism

Answer:- (a)

Explanation
 The Brahma Samaj was based on the principle of Monotheism.
 It was a socio-religious movement founded in Calcutta in 1828 by Raja Ram Mohan
Roy.

33. Who of the following is responsible for the revival of Vedas?

a. Swami Dayanand Saraswati
b. Swami Vivekanand
c. Gopal Ganesh Agarkar
d. Mahadev Govind Ranade

Answer:- (a)

Explanation
 Swami Dayanand Saraswati was credited for the revival of Vedas.
 He founded the Arya Samaj in 1875 in Bombay (now Mumbai) to propagate the
teachings and thoughts that were prevalent in Vedic time.
 He talked about the infallibility of the Vedas and gave the slogan of “Back to the
Vedas” (“Vedo ki aur lauto”).
 Dayanand Anglo-Vedic School (DAV) was also started by Arya Samaj.

34. Where was the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association founded in 1928?
a. Lahore
b. Kanpur
c. Delhi
d. Lucknow

Answer:- (c)

Explanation
The Hindustan Socialist Republican Association was established in 1928 at Feroze Shah
Kotla in Delhi by Chandrashekhar Azad, Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev and others.

35. Who among the following Pakistani Nationals was awarded the ‘Bharat Ratna’ by
the Indian Government?
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a. Abdul Sattar Edhi

b. Imran Khan
c. A. Q. Khan
d. Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan

Answer:- (d)

Explanation
Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan was bestowed with India’s highest civilian award in 1987. He is
the only Pakistani national to be awarded ‘Bharat Ratna’. He was known as ‘Frontier
Gandhi’.

36. As per Article 142 of the Constitution of India, who is empowered to enforce the
decrees of the Supreme court?
a. The Parliament
b. The President
c. The Governor
d. The Prime minister

Answer:- (b)

Explanation
 As the final court of appeal of the country, the Supreme Court takes up appeals
primarily against verdicts of the high courts of various states of the Union and other
courts and tribunals. It safeguards the fundamental rights of citizens and settles
disputes between various governments in the country.
 The law declared by the Supreme Court becomes binding on all courts within India
and also by the union and state governments.
 As per Article 142, it is the duty of the president to enforce the decrees of the
Supreme Court.

37. Which of the following personalities were not the part of Constituent Assembly of
India?
a. Mohammad Ali Jinnah
b. Dr. B R Ambedkar
c. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
d. Maulana Hasrat Mohani

Answer:- (a)

Explanation
Most of the prominent leaders were part of the Constituent Assembly of India when it was
formed except two tall leaders – Mahatma Gandhi and Mohammad Ali Jinnah.

38. The Objective Resolution in the Assembly was moved by:-

a. Motilal Nehru
b. M N Roy
c. Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
d. Jawaharlal Nehru

Answer:- (d)

Explanation
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Objective resolution was moved by Jawaharlal Nehru in 1946 it laid down the basic
principles and the ideas on which the Indian constitution has to be made by the assembly. It
was the objective resolution that gave institutional expression to the fundamental
commitments that are equality, sovereignty and liberty.

39. The State Finance Commission is a:-

a. Legal body
b. Non-statutory body
c. Constitutional body
d. Extra-constitutional body

Answer:- (c)

Explanation
The State Finance Commission is a Constitutional body. It is under Article 243-I of the
Constitution to review the financial position of Panchayati raj institutions and urban local
bodies. It is appointed by each government at regular intervals of five years.

40. Arrange the following states in increasing orders of Lok Sabha constituencies
they have:-
1. Rajasthan
2. Kerala
3. Madhya Pradesh
4. Odisha

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:-

a. 2-1-3-4
b. 4-2-1-3
c. 2-4-1-3
d. 2-4-3-1

Answer:- (c)

Explanation
State Lok Sabha Seats
Rajasthan 25
Kerala 20
Madhya Pradesh 29
Odisha 21

41. Who is the chairman of the 15th Finance Commission?

a. Nandan Nilekani
b. Nand Kishor Singh
c. Viral Acharya
d. Vijay Kelkar

Answer:- (b)

Explanation
Nand Kishor Singh or N.K. Singh is chairman of the 15th Finance Commission. The 15th
Finance Commission was constituted in November 2017.

42. The Economic Survey of Government of India is prepared by:-

a. Department of Economic Affairs
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b. Chief Economic Advisor to the Government of India

c. Reserve Bank of India
d. Finance Commission

Answer:- (b)

Explanation
The Chief Economic Advisor to the Government of India prepares the Economic Survey.

43. Inequality of income in a nation can be measured by:-

a. Engel Curve
b. Gini Coefficient
c. Phillips Curve
d. Laffer Curve

Answer:- (b)

Explanation
Gini Coefficient is used as a gauge of economic inequality, measuring income distribution or,
less commonly, wealth distribution among a population. The coefficient ranges from 0 (or
0%) to 1 (or 100%), with 0 representing perfect equality and 1 representing perfect
inequality.

44. Gross Happiness Index was first released by which country?

a. Norway
b. Singapore
c. Haiti
d. Bhutan

Answer:- (d)

Explanation
To measure the well being of its people Bhutan came with a new concept of Gross
Happiness Index. Bhutanese government emphasizes harmony with nature and traditional
values.

45. Which of the following committees was/were not concerned with the estimation of
poverty in India?
a. Narasimham Committee
b. Lakdawala Committee
c. Rangarajan Committee
d. Alagh Committee

Answer:- (a)

Explanation
Narasimham Committee was related to the banking sector reforms. Other three committees
were formed to estimate poverty in India.

46. “Utkarsh 2022” recently seen in the news is related to which of the following?
a. A vision document for development of Urban infrastructure
b. A policy roadmap for improving girl’s education and skills
c. A road map to improve regulation and supervision of RBI
d. A vision document to promote sustainable development
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Answer:- (c)

Explanation:-
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has finalised a three-year roadmap, named Utkarsh 2022
to improve regulation and supervision, among other functions of the central bank. Utkarsh
2022 is a medium-term strategy in line with the global central banks’ plan to strengthen the
regulatory and supervisory mechanism. This specifically includes the central bank’s
proactive role to avoid any other IL&FS debt default issue in future.

47. Consider the following statements regarding ‘eSanjeevani’:-

1. It is a telemedicine service platform of the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare.
2. It is developed by C-DAC.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:- (c)

Explanation:-
‘eSanjeevani’ is a telemedicine service platform of the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare. It
is developed by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (CDAC) Mohali. C-
DAC is the premier R&D organisation of the Ministry of Electronics and Information
Technology for carrying out R&D in IT, Electronics and associated areas.

48. Papum Reserve Forest, a major hornbill habitat of the country, is located in which
state?
a. Tamil Nadu
b. Kerala
c. Nagaland
d. Arunachal Pradesh

Answer:- (d)

Explanation:-
A study has reported a high rate of deforestation in the Papum reserve forest, a major
hornbill habitat in Arunachal Pradesh. Papum Reserve Forest is an Important Bird and
Biodiversity Areas in Arunachal Pradesh which forms part of the Eastern Himalayas
Endemic Bird Area. It is a nesting habitat of three species of the large, colourful fruit-eating
hornbills: Great, Wreathed and Oriental Pied.

49. Mount Sinabung is a stratovolcano which was recently erupted after nearly 400
years of inactivity. It is located on which Indonesian island?
a. Sumatra
b. Java
c. Sulawesi
d. East Kalimantan

Answer:- (a)

Explanation:-
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Indonesia’s Mount Sinabung volcano recently erupted sending a column of ash and smoke
more than 16,000 feet into the air. The volcano became active in 2010, erupting after nearly
400 years of inactivity. It is located on Sumatra island.

50. In which of the following contexts, the Istanbul Convention was recently seen in
the news?
a. Convention on the conservation of Central Asian migratory bird flyway
b. Preventing and combating violence against women and domestic violence
c. Protection of wetlands of international importance
d. Protection of children and cooperation in respect of inter-country adoption

Answer:- (b)

Explanation:-
The Council of Europe Convention on preventing and combating violence against women
and domestic violence, better known as the Istanbul Convention, is a human rights treaty of
the Council of Europe against violence against women and domestic violence.

51. “FAME-II” Scheme is sometimes seen in the news in the context of:-
a. Sustainable development
b. Covid-19 vaccine development
c. E-waste management
d. Electric Vehicles

Answer:- (d)

Explanation:-
FAME (Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of Hybrid and Electric Vehicles) India is a part of
the National Electric Mobility Mission Plan. Main thrust of FAME is to encourage faster
adoption of electric and hybrid vehicles by offering upfront Incentive on purchase of Electric
vehicles. Two phases of the scheme – Phase I: started in 2015 and was completed on 31st
March, 2019 and Phase II: started from April, 2019, will be completed by 31st March, 2022.
Fame India Scheme has four focus areas – Technology development, Demand Creation,
Pilot Projects, and Charging Infrastructure.

52. With reference to ‘dwarf planet Ceres’, consider the following statements:-
1. It is the largest celestial object in the asteroid belt between Mars and Jupiter.
2. Recently scientists have found the evidence of water on this dwarf planet.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Neither 1 nor 2
d. Both 1 and 2

Answer:- (d)

Explanation
Recently, scientists at NASA said that their data suggest the presence of an underground
ocean of salty water on the dwarf planet Ceres. Hence statement (2) is correct.

About Ceres:-
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 It is a dwarf planet and it is the largest celestial object in the asteroid belt between
Mars and Jupiter. Hence statement (1) is correct.
 It has a diameter of about 950 km, which is more than one-fourth of Earth’s moon.
 It has 92 km wide crater named Occator located in Ceres’ northern hemisphere.
 The waterbody on Ceres is said to have formed by an impact approximately 22
million years ago.
 The scientists have given Ceres the status of an “ocean world” as it has a big
reservoir of salty water underneath its frigid surface.
 This has led to an increased interest of scientists that the dwarf planet maybe
habitable or has the potential to be.

53. With reference to ‘Student Entrepreneurship Programme’, consider the following

statements:-
1. It aims to serve as a catalyst and help accelerate the entrepreneurial journey of the
young innovators.
2. It has been launched by Atal Innovation Mission (AIM), NITI Aayog, in collaboration
with Dell Technologies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:- (c)

Explanation
Recently, Atal Innovation Mission (AIM), NITI Aayog, in collaboration with Dell Technologies
has launched Student Entrepreneurship Programme 2.0 (SEP 2.0) for young innovators of
Atal Tinkering Labs. Hence statement (2) is correct.

About Student Entrepreneurship Programme (SEP):-

 It aims to serve as a catalyst and help accelerate the entrepreneurial journey of the
young innovators in creating a new innovative India. Hence statement (1) is
correct.
 SEP 1.0 was launched in January 2019.
 it will allow student innovators to work closely with Dell volunteers.
 Students will receive mentor support, prototyping and testing support, end user
feedback, intellectual property registration, processes, manufacturing support as well
as the launch support of the product in the market.

54. Which of the following has released the ‘Business Confidence Index’?
a. NITI Aayog
b. National Council of Applied Economic Research
c. World Economic Forum
d. Reserve Bank of India

Answer:- (b)

Explanation
Recently, the National Council of Applied Economic Research (NCAER) has released the
Business Confidence Index (BCI).

About Business Confidence Index:-

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 It tracks the business sentiments of around 600 Indian companies to compute the
composite index.
 This business confidence indicator provides information on future developments.

55. ‘The Passing of Shah Jahan’, Fairyland illustration’, and ‘Shiva drinking world
poison’ are famous paintings of which of the following?
a. Raja Ravi Verma
b. Ram Kinkar Baij
c. Nandlal Bose
d. Abnindranath Tagore

Answer:- (d)

Explanation
The National Gallery of Modern Art has decided organize the virtual tour titled “The Great
Maestro: Abanindranath Tagore”, to commemorate his 150th Birth Anniversary.

About Abanindranath Tagore:-

 He was the nephew of Rabindranath Tagore and was one of the most prominent
artists of Bengal school of art in India.
 He was the first major supporter of swadeshi values in Indian art.

Contribution:-
 He first created the ‘Indian Society of Oriental Art’ and later went on to establish
Bengal school of art.
 He believed that Indian art and its art forms gave importance to spirituality as
opposed to the West which stressed on materialism, thus rejecting it.
 His idea of modernizing Mughal and Rajput paintings eventually gave rise to modern
Indian painting, which took birth at his Bengal school of art.
 Most of his works revolved around Hindu philosophy.
 In his later works, Abanindranath started integrating Chinese and Japanese
calligraphic traditions into his style
 Famous paintings are:-
1. Bharat Mata
2. Shiva drinking world poison
3. The Passing of Shah Jahan (1900)
4. My Mother (1912–13)
5. Fairyland illustration (1913)
6. Journey’s End (circa1913).
 Some of his books like ‘BudoAngla’, ‘KhirerPutul’ and ‘Rajkahini’ are best examples
of Bengali children’s literature.

56. In which of the following condition, a company will have positive working capital?
a. If Capital Assets > Current Liabilities
b. Current Liabilities
c. IF Current Assets = Current Liabilities
d. Current Assets

Answer: - (a)

Explanation: -
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If Current Assets > Current Liabilities, a company will have positive working capital.
When a company has more current assets than current liabilities, it has positive
working capital. Having enough working capital ensures that a company can fully
cover its short-term liabilities as they come due in the next twelve months. It shows
the company’s financial strength.

57. Debenture is also named as: -

a. Equity
b. Share
c. Bond
d. Reserve

Answer: - (c)

Explanation: -
Debenture is also named as Bond. Therefore, all debentures are bonds, but not all
bonds are debentures. Whenever a bond is unsecured, it can be referred to as a
debenture.
Debenture: - Debentures are a debt instrument used by companies and government
to issue the loan. Companies use debentures when they need to borrow the money
at a fixed rate of interest for its expansion. Secured and Unsecured, Registered and
Bearer, Convertible and Non-Convertible, First and Second are
four types of Debentures.
Bond: - A bond is a fixed income instrument that represents a loan made by an
investor to a borrower i.e. corporate or government.

58. ___________ will be credited if goods are given as charity.

a. Cash
b. Charity
c. Sales
d. Purchases

Answer: - (d)

Explanation: -
Purchases will be credited if goods are given as charity. When accounting
for goods given as charity, purchases are reduced with the exact cost of
goods contributed. The amount is reduced from purchases in the trading account.

59. Authorized Share Capital is also known as: -

a. Called Up Capital
b. Registered Capital
c. Paid Up Capital
d. Issued Capital

Answer: - (b)

Explanation: -
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Authorized share capital is also known as Registered capital. The authorized

capital of a company is the maximum amount of share capital that the company is
authorized by its constitutional documents to issue to shareholders.

60. The person who signs Articles and Memorandum of the Company and contribute
in the initial share capital of the company are called: -
a. Managers
b. Shareholders
c. Directors
d. Subscribers

Answer: - (d)

Explanation: -
Subscribers: - A subscriber is a person who pays to receive a product or service, for
example a magazine or website.
The persons who sign Articles and Memorandum of the company and contribute in
the initial share capital of the company are called Subscribers.

61. Double Entry Accounting System includes: -

a. Cash accounting only
b. Accrual accounting only
c. Both cash and accrual accounting
d. None of the above

Answer: - (c)

Explanation: -
Double Entry System of accounting deals with either two or more accounts for every
business transaction. For example, a person enters a transaction of borrowing money
from the bank. So, this will increase the assets for cash balance account and
simultaneously the liability for loan payable account will also increase.
It’s a fundamental concept encompassing accounting and book-keeping in present times.
Every financial transaction has an equal and opposite effect in at least two different
accounts.

Equation can be: ASSETS = LIABILITIES + EQUITY

62. The estimate value at which an asset is expected to be sold after the end of its
useful life is called: -

a. Scrap Value
b. Residual Value
c. Salvage Value
d. All of the above

Answer: - (d)
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Explanation: -
The estimated value at which an asset is expected to be sold after the end of its
useful life is called Residual value, Salvage value and Scrap value.

63. A debit balance in the bank statement indicates: -

a. Bank Overdraft
b. Cash at bank
c. Over payment to Creditors
d. Cash in hand

Answer: - (a)

Explanation: -
A debit balance in the bank statement indicates Bank overdraft. Overdrafts are where
the bank account becomes negative and the businesses in effect have borrowed
from the bank.

64. Net Profit = Gross Profit - ________

a. Product Cost
b. Direct Cost
c. Operating Expenses
d. Deferred Expenses

Answer: - (c)

Explanation: -
Net profit reflects the amount of money you are left with after having paid all your
allowable business expenses. This figure is calculated by
Net Profit = Gross Profit – Operating Expenses

Gross profit is the amount of money you are left with after deducting the cost of
goods sold from revenue.

Operating Expenses: - Operating expenses are expenses a business incurs in order

to keep it running, such as staff wages and office supplies. Operating expenses do
not include cost of goods sold (materials, direct labour, manufacturing overhead) or
capital expenditures (larger expenses such as buildings or machines).

65. Money spent to acquire or upgrade physical assets is known as: -

a. Capital Expense
b. Administrative Expense
c. Operating Expense
d. Revenue Expense

Answer: - (a)

Explanation: -
Capital Expenses: - is an expense a business incurs to create a benefit in the future.
These are the funds used by a company for the purchase, improvement or maintenance
of long-term assets to improve the efficiency or capacity of the company.
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66. Salaries paid in advance should be shown on: -

a. Liability side of the Balance Sheet
b. Asset side of the Balance sheet
c. Credit side of the Trading Account
d. All of the above

Answer: - (b)

Explanation: -
Salaries paid in advance should be shown on Asset side of the Balance sheet. An
advance paid is recorded as a current asset in the company's balance sheet.

67. Outsider’s Claim against the assets of the business is called: -

a. Capital
b. Expense
c. Liability
d. Income

Answer: - (c)

Explanation: -
Outsider's claim against the assets of the business is called Liability. Liabilities are
defined as a company's legal financial debts or obligations that arise during the
course of business operations.

68. An Expenditure whose benefit is finished or enjoyed immediately is called _________.

a. An expense
b. Liability
c. Income
d. Cost

Answer: - (a)

Explanation: -
An expenditure whose benefit is finished or enjoyed immediately is called Expense.
An expense is the cost of operations that a company incurs to generate revenue.

69. A company’s merchandise, raw materials, finished, unfinished products which

have not yet been sold is known as___________.
a. Inventory
b. Sales
c. Work in progress
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d. Purchases

Answer: - (a)

Explanation: -
Inventory is something a business acquires with the intention of selling. Inventory can
be bought wholesale and sold at retail, or inventory can be raw materials and
component parts that are crafted into a product that's sold to customers.

A company's merchandise, raw materials, finished and unfinished products

which have not yet been sold is known as Inventory.

70. The assets which have the limited useful life are termed as: -
a. Limited Assets
b. Unlimited Assets
c. Depreciable Assets
d. None of the above

Answer: - (c)

Explanation: -
The assets which have a limited useful life are termed as Depreciable assets.
The assets which are held by a business for the production and supply of goods and
services, expected to be used for more than an accounting year and have a limited
useful life are known as Depreciable Assets.

71.The Factories Act, 1948 imposes statutory obligation on the Railway

Administrations to provide and maintain canteens in Railway Establishments if
the number of persons employed are more than ?
a. 250
b. 150
c. 100
d. 500

Ans:a
Explanation- As per Section 46 of The Factories Act, 1948 , the State Government may
make rules requiring that in any specified factory wherein more than two hundred and fifty
workers are ordinarily employed, a canteen or canteens shall be provided and maintained
by the occupier for the use of the workers.

72. With whom lies the responsibility of maintaining employee health and
safety ?
a. Government
b. Employers
c. Employees
d. All of the above

Ans:d
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Explanation - The health and safety programs for employees should be a major
priority for management because they increase productivity, and reduce costs and
save lives. These programs should stress on employees and an overall wellness
component . In order to maintain a safe and healthy work place, workers and
supervisors must be taught to keep a health and safety mind set. Though
employers are required to design and maintain safe and healthy systems of work, It
is the duty of the employees to behave in a certain manner that safeguards their
own health and that of co-workers.

Legislation applies to both employers and employees. In India, with the birth of the
“Regulation and Employment Act” of 1948, employers were required to provide
a environment to work satisfactory . The purpose of Safety, Health, and Welfare at
Work Act of 2005 clarifies and enhances the responsibilities of employers, the
self-employed, employees and other parties in relation to safety and health at work.
It also gives measures and specifies penalties for breach of these occupational
safety and health laws.

73.As per the Factories Act, 1948 , how many minimum numbers of employees
are required for Ambulance Room ?
a. 400
b. 350
c. 500
d. 450

Ans. c)
Explanation - Section 45 of the Factories Act, 1948
First-aid appliances.—
(1) There shall in every factory be provided and maintained so as to be readily
accessible during all working hours first-aid boxes or cupboards equipped with
the prescribed contents, and the number of such boxes or cupboards to be
provided and maintained shall not be less than one for every one hundred and
fifty workers ordinarily employed at any one time in the factory.
(2) Nothing except the prescribed contents shall be kept in a first-aid box or
cupboard.
(3) Each first-aid box or cupboard shall be kept in the charge of a separate
responsible person who holds a certificate in first-aid treatment recognised by
the State Government and who shall always be readily available during the
working hours of the factory.
4. In every factory wherein more than five hundred workers are ordinarily
employed] there shall be provided and maintained an ambulance room of the
prescribed size, containing the prescribed equipment and in the charge of such
medical and nursing staff as may be prescribed and those facilities shall always
be made readily available during the working hours of the factory.
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74.As per the Payment of wages Act., 1936 payment of wages of

establishments employing not more than 1000 employees shall be paid within
of the wage month.
a. 7'" day
b. 10''' day
c) 15'" day
d) 2'" day
Ans:a
Explanation - Payment of Wages Act, 1936 regulates the payment of wages to certain classes of
people employed in industry . It guarantees payment of wages on time and without any deductions
except if authorized under the Act. This Act provides for payment of wages, fixation of wage period,
time and mode of payments of wages, permissible deduction etc. This Act does not apply to persons
whose wage is Rs. 10000 or more per month. Wages needs to be paid before the expiry of the
7th day after the last day of the wage period, where there are less than 1000 workers employed and
in rest case on the 10th day.

75.As per which of the following theory, employee welfare is an investment

which would multiply and return to the employers in some other forms?
a. Benevolence theory
b. Policing theory
c. Appeasement theory
d. Religious theory
Ans:d

Explanation-The religion theory has two connotations, i.e., the investment and atonement
aspects. The investment aspect means that the fruits of today’s deeds will be reaped
tomorrow so any action whether good or bad. is therefore treated as an investment. Because
of this belief, some employers tend to plan and organise creches and canteens. The
atonement aspect means that the present disabilities of a person are the result of the sins
committed previously by him or her and now undertake to do good deeds to compensate for
his or her sins.

76. According to Minimum Wages Act , an Adult means a person who has
completed a certain age ,
a. Sixteen years
b. Fifteen years
c. Eighteen years
d. Nineteen years

Ans:c
Explanation- Section 2(a) in The Minimum Wages Act, 1948, adolescent means a person
who has completed his fourteenth year of age but has not completed his eighteenth year.
Here, adult means a person who has completed his eighteenth year of age.

77. A factory’s occupier of every factory having employed how many

workers shall plant and maintain trees within the premises of the factory?
a. 100 workers
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b. 500 Workers
c. 200 Workers
d. 150 Workers

Ans:a
Explanation- According to section 2(n) of Factories Act, 1948, "occupier" of a factory
means the person, who has ultimate control over the affairs of the factory. The Duties of the
occupier as given in Section7A ensures the health, safety and welfare of all workers while
they are at work in the factory,plant and maintain trees within the premises of the factory is
number of workers more than 100 workers, to provide and maintain the plant and systems
of work in the factory that are safe and without risk to health of the workers etc.

78. Who have been appointed as ”Occupiers” of the respective units in case of
Railway Production Unit according to the provisions of the Factories Act 1948?
a. Chief Mechanical Engineers
b. Chief Personnel Officers
c. General Managers
d. None of the above

Ans: a
Explanation-According to section 2(n) of Factories Act, 1948, "occupier" of a factory
means the person, who has ultimate control over the affairs of the factory. The Chief
Mechanical Engineers of Railway Production Units have been appointed as
“Occupiers” of the respective units in terms of the provisions of the Factories
Act, 1948.

78. Section 59 (1) of the Factories Act, 1948 describes that the overtime to the
staff should be calculated on which basis ?
a. A daily basis
b)A daily basis or weekly basis, whichever is the prevalent practice
c)A daily basis or weekly basis, whichever is more favorable to the employee
d)A weekly basis

Ans: c
Explanation- Section 59(1) in The Factories Act, 1948
1. Where a worker works in a factory for more than nine hours in any day or for more
than forty-eight hours in any week, he shall, in respect of overtime work, be entitled
to wages at the rate of twice his ordinary rate of wages.
2. For the purposes of sub-section (1), “ordinary rate of wages” means the basic wages
plus such allowances, including the cash equivalent of the advantage accruing through
the concessional sale to workers of foodgrains and other articles, as the worker is for
the time being entitled to, but does not include a bonus and wages for overtime work.
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79. When did the labour or industrial problems increased after major industries
came into existence followed by technology of mass production ?
a. 20th century
b. 21th century
c. 19st century
d. 18th century

Ans: a
Explanation- In the beginning of 20 century,the labour or industrial problems increased after major
th

industries came into existence followed by technology of mass production.

80.Which of the following theory has its essence in making peace with employees by
fulfilling all their needs without any resistance ?
a)Policing theory
b)Appeasement theory
c) Religious theory
d) Benevolence theory

Ans. b)
Explanation-According to the Appeasement theory, the labour groups are becoming more
militant . They are conscious of their rights and privileges more nowadays so their demand
for higher wages and better standards can not be ignored.

81.How many Minimum number of employees are required to provide for cooling
water during hot weather by the organization?
a. 250
b. 300
c. 150
d. 100

Ans: b
Explanation- According to Section 18 in The Factories Act, 1948

(1) In every factory effective arrangements shall be made to provide and maintain at
suitable points conveniently situated for all workers employed therein a sufficient supply of
wholesome drinking water.

(2) All such points shall be legibly marked “drinking water” in a language understood by a
majority of the workers employed in the factory, and no such point shall be situated within
six metres of any washing place, urinal, latrine, spittoon, open drain carrying sullage or
effluent or any other source of contamination] unless a shorter distance is approved in
writing by the Chief Inspector.

(3) In every factory wherein more than two hundred and fifty workers are ordinarily
employed, provision shall be made for cool drinking water during hot weather by effective
means and for distribution thereof.
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(4) In respect of all factories or any class or description of factories the State Government
may make rules for securing compliance with the provisions of sub-sections (1), (2) and (3)
and for the examination by prescribed authorities of the supply and distribution of drinking
water in factories.

82. Which of the following theory assumes that an inclination to do something

good for others can influence the employers to undertake welfare facilities?
a)Policing theory
b)The Public Relations Theory
c) Religious theory
d) Benevolence theory

Ans. d)

Explanation- According to the theory of Benevolence, any good work is considered as

“Investment”. The acts of welfare are treated either as an investment or an atonement. For a
man, his own welfare is the primarily concern only while the welfare of others is secondary
concern.

83. What are the welfare facilities done for employees outside the organization
called ?

a)Intra-mural facilities
b)Extravagance
c)Extra-mural facilities
d)None of the above
Ans. c

Explanation - The welfare services are divided into 2 group i.e.within the precincts and outside
the establishment.

Intramural: Welfare amenities within the precincts of the establishment for example latrines and
urinals;rest shelters and canteens, washing and bathing facilities; crèches, arrangements for
drinking water etc.

Extramural: Welfare amenities outside the establishment for example maternity

benefits,provident fund and rehabilitation, social insurance measures including gratuity,
pension, medical facilities including programmes for physical fitness and efficiency.

84. Which of the following theory is also know as Efficiency theory?

a. The Functional Theory

b. The Public Relations Theory
c. Trusteeship Theory
d. The Philanthropic Theory

Ans. a)
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e. Explanation-The Functional Theory is also called Efficiency Theory. As per this theory,
welfare work is used to secure, preserve and develop the efficiency and productivity of
labour. If an employer takes good care of his workers, it will make them more efficient and
thus step up production. At the end, this all depends on a healthy collaboration between
union and management and their mutual concern for the growth and development of the
organization.

85. The State Governments as per ESI scheme, contribute 1/8th of the expenditure
of medical benefit within a per capita ceiling of --------- per Insured Person per annum.

A. Rs.1500/-
B. Rs.1000/-
C. Rs.850/-
D. Rs.15000/-

Answer A

Explanation- ESI Scheme is a Social Security Scheme which is a self financing health
insurance scheme. The contributions here are raised from covered employees and their
employers as a fixed percentage of wages.Employees earning upto Rs.176/- a day are
exempted need not give their share of contribution. The State Governments, contribute
1/8th of the expenditure of medical benefit within a per capita ceiling of Rs. 1500/- per
Insured Person per annum. Any additional expenditure by the State Governments, over and
above the ceiling is borne by the State Governments concerned.

86. What is the Minimum wage limit for Physically Disabled Persons for availing
ESIC(Employees' State Insurance Corporation ) Benefits ?

A. Rs.25000/-
B. Rs.150000/-
C. Rs.15000/-
D. Rs.20000/-

Answer- A

Explanation- Under ESI scheme, all employees of a covered unit, whose monthly
incomes does not exceed Rs. 21,000 per month, are eligible to avail benefits Employees
earning daily average wage up to Rs. 176 are exempted from ESIC contribution.The ceiling
for persons with Disabilities is Rs. 25,000/- per month.

87. Which of the following theory of labour welfare is also known as Placating theory?

a. The Public Relations Theory

b. Trusteeship Theory
c. The Philanthropic Theory
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d. Appeasement theory

Ans. d)
Explanation-The Appeasement theory is also as Placating Theory which says that the
labour groups are becoming more militant . They are conscious of their rights and privileges
more nowadays so their demand for higher wages and better standards can not be
ignored.They pacify by way of friendly gestures but sincerity can lack in these programs.

88. Choose among the following the Labour Legislation which provides
comprehensive benefits to industrial workers in India?
A. Employees’ State Insurance Act
B. Maternity Benefit Act
C. Employee Provident Funds Act
D. None of the above

Answer -A
Explanation - The Employees State Insurance Act of 1948 is an act whose objective is to
give to employees of factories and establishment , maternity relief, financial relief in cases of
sickness, disablement and for providing medical benefits . It is also applicable to non-
seasonal factories that are using power and employing 10 or more employees, and also to
non- power factories employing 20 or more employees.

89. Choose the benefit which has not been provided under the Employee’s State
Insurance Act, 1948?
A. Children’s Allowance
B. Disablement Benefit
C. Sickness Benefit
D. All of the above

Answer- A
Explanation-
The Employees State Insurance Act of 1948 is an act whose objective is to give to
employees of factories and establishment , maternity relief, financial relief in cases of
sickness, disablement and for providing medical benefits . It is also applicable to non-
seasonal factories that are using power and employing 10 or more employees, and also to
non- power factories employing 20 or more employees.

90. As per the ESI Act, 1948 after absence in how many meetings a member of the
Corporation, Standing Committee or the Medical Council shall cease to be a member
of the body ?
A. Three consecutive meetings
B. Four meetings intermittently
C. Two consecutive meetings
D. Five consecutive meetings

Answer A
Explanation-Section 12 in The Employees' State Insurance Act, 1948
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(1) A member of the Corporation, the Standing Committee or the Medical Benefit Council
shall cease to be a member of that body if he fails to attend three consecutive meetings
thereof: Provided that the Corporation, the Standing Committee or the Medical Benefit
Council, as the case may be, may, subject to rules made by the Central Government in this
behalf, restore him to membership.

(2) Where in the opinion of the Central Government any person [appointed] or elected to
represent employers, employees or the medical profession or the Corporation, the
Standing Committee or the Medical Benefit Council, as the case may be, has ceased to
represent such employers, employees or the medical profession, the Central Government
may, by notification in the Official Gazette declare that with effect from such date as may
be specified therein such person shall cease to be a member of the Corporation, the
Standing Committee or the Medical Benefit Council, as the case may be.]

Basic Science
91. Lymph flows from tissue towards ______ in lymph vessels.
a. Lungs
b. Kidneys
c. Brain
d. Heart

Answer:- (d)

Explanation
Lymph flows only in one direction from tissue towards heart in lymph vessels.

92. Which of the following can sublimate?

a. Alcohol
b. Ammonium Chloride
c. Benzene
d. Methyl Alcohol

Answer:- (b)

Explanation
Sublimation is a process of conversion of a solid into vapor without passing through the
liquid state. Ammonium Chloride, Camphor, Naphthalene, and Iodine are an example of
sublimes.

93. Bats find their prey using:-

a. Infrasonic waves
b. Gravitational waves
c. Thermal images
d. Echolocation

Answer:- (d)

Explanation
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Bats use echolocation to find their prey. The bat emits ultrasonic waves with very high
frequencies. Their sounds are reflected in the environment, hitting various objects and
returning to the bat as echoes.

94. Which of the following vitamins is known as ‘Ergocalciferol’?

a. Vitamin D2
b. Vitamin D3
c. Vitamin B12
d. Vitamin B6

Answer:- (a)

Explanation
‘Ergocalciferol’ is also known as Vitamin D2.

95. The substance found in more than the 80% of cell is:-
a. Protein
b. Fat
c. Mineral
d. Water

Answer:- (d)

Explanation
An average adult body contains 40 liter of water it provides for cell functions, the decrease in
our daily intake affects the efficiency of cell activity.

96. The electrode which is attached to the positive terminal of battery is called:-
a. Cathode
b. Anode
c. Electrolytes
d. Ampere

Answer:- (b)

Explanation
During the process of electrolysis positive charge is attached to anode. Process of oxidation
occurs at the anode.

97. ‘Lux’ is the SI unit of:-

a. Wavelength
b. Intensity of illumination
c. Magnetic flux
d. Angular velocity

Answer:- (b)

Explanation
‘Lux’ is the SI unit of intensity of illumination. Its symbol is ‘lx’.

98. The value of gravitational ‘g’ is maximum at:-

a. Tropic of cancer
b. Poles
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c. Equator
d. Equal at all places

Answer:- (b)

Explanation
The value of the gravitational ‘g’ is maximum at the two poles. Value of ‘g’ decreases or
increases with height or depth from earth’s surface.

99. The value of 40 degrees Celsius in Fahrenheit scale is:-

a. 104 °F
b. 100 °F
c. 102 °F
d. 75 °F
Answer:- (a)

Explanation
Formula for the conversion of temperature from Celsius to Fahrenheit is:-
F = 9/5 C + 32
Thus,
=(40°C × 9/5) + 32
= 104°F

100. Frequency is measured in:-

a. Hertz
b. Meter/ second
c. Radian
d. Watt

Answer:- (a)

Explanation
Frequency is defined as the number of waves that pass a fixed point in unit time; also, the
number of cycles or vibrations undergone during one unit of time by a body in periodic
motion. It is measured in Hertz.

101. Which of the following is not a browser?

a. Safari
b. Google
c. Opera
d. Internet explorer

Ans:- (b)

Explanation
Google is no browser, it is a search engine which is mostly used in the world.

102. India’s super computer “PARAM” is developed by which organisation.

a. Centre for scientific and industrial research.
b. Centre for development of advanced computing.
c. Department of Electronics and Information Technology, Govt of India.
d. Infosys, India.

Ans:- (b)
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Explanation
PARAM is India's “first supercomputer”. It was indigenously built by the Centre for
Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC).

103. Which of the following is not a social media platform?

a. DuckDuckGo
b. Facebook
c. Twitter
d. Instagram

Answer:- (a)

Explanation
DuckDuckGo is a search engine. Rest three are the example of social media sites.

104. Which of the following technologies will you likely see in laptop computers?
a. Voice output systems
b. Output controls
c. Computer output microfilm
d. Liquid crystal display

Answer:- (d)

Explanation
Laptop computers use Liquid Crystal Display or LCD.

105. Which of the following is an example of software?

a. Printer
b. Exel
c. Mouse
d. UPS

Answer:- (b)

Explanation
Excel is an example of software. The rest three are hardware.

106. Manoj Purchased 320/- per kg of rice at 17.60 per kg. And mixed it with 160/- per kg. of rice
purchased at 16.40/- per kg. He wants to earn a profit of Rs. 9.45 by selling it. What should be the
selling price of the mixture per kg.?

A. 25

B. 26.65

C. 28.45

D. 25.65

Correct Ans. B
× . × .
Cost price of rice per kg. = =
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= = 17.2

After adding profit 9.45 sell price is = 17.2+9.45 = 26.65

107. A merchant marked the price of an article 25% above the cost price and allowed two successive
discounts of 15% and 24% respectively to a particular customer. As a result, he incurred a loss of Rs.
539. At what price did he sell the item to the customer?

A. 2000

B. 2261

C. 2250

D. 2500

Correct Ans. B

Let the cost price of article = 100

Marked price = 125

Loss = 100 - 125× × = 100-80.75 = 19.25

If 19.25 Loss CP is 100

When loss is 539 , CP = .

× 100 =2800

Now Selling price = 2800-539 = 2261

108. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 16 minutes and 24 minutes respectively. If both the pipes
are opened simultaneously, after how much time should pipe X be closed so that the tank is full in
21 minutes.

A. 5 minutes

B. 2 minutes

C. 6 minutes

D. 8 minutes

Correct Ans. B

Pipes A Should be Closed after = (1- ) × 16 = × 16 = 2 minutes

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109. Satyam received Rs. 12000 as Diwali Bonus. He invested a part of its at 6% per annum and the
remaining at 5% pr annum simple interest. The total interest earned by him in 4 years is Rs. 2580 the
sum invested at 6% per annum is-

A. 4500

B. 5000

C. 7500

D. 5500

Correct Ans. A

Let Satyam invested Rs = X, other part = (12000-X)

× × ( )× ×
ATQ, + = 2580

Or, = 2580

x=4500

110. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following question?

45%of 180 + ?% of 160 = 50% of 274

A. 35

B. 55

C. 25

D. 45

Correct Ans. A

?× = × 274 - 45× 1.8 = 137 − 81 = 56

?== .
= 35

111. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following question?

430% of 650 + (?) of 4.5 – 20% of 2220 = 7292

A. 1298

B. 1098
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C. 1089

D. 1198

Correct Ans. B

(?) Of 4.5 = 7292-2795 = 4941

(?) = .
= = 1098

112. A, B and C can do a piece of work in 12 days, 16 days and 20 days respectively. They work
together. After finishing the work they get Rs. 3525 if the wages are divided in proportion of the
work done by them, find the share of A’s.

A. 1800

B. 1200

C. 1250

D. 1500

Correct Ans. D

A’s one day work =

B’s one day work =

C’s one day work =

Ratio of efficiency = A: B: C = : : = 20:15:12

Now A’s Share = × 20 = 1500

113. The area of a circle is increased by 22cm. its radius is increased by 1 cm. The original radius of
the circle is

A. 6 Cm

B. 3.2 Cm

C. 3 Cm

D. 3.5 Cm

Correct Ans. C
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Let Radius = r

Π((1 + r) - Π(r) = 22

Π{(1 + r) - (r) } = 22

Or, (2r+1)(1) = 22

2r+1 = 7, r = 3 Cm

114. The perimeter of the base of a right circular cone is 8 cm. if the Height of the cone is

21 Cm, then the Volume is-

A. 108 Π 𝐶𝑚

B. 𝐶𝑚

C. 112 Π 𝐶𝑚

B. 𝐶𝑚

Correct Ans. B

Perimeter of Base = 2Πr (given)

r= . cm , h = 21 cm

Volume = Πr h = Π × × 21 = 𝐶𝑚

115. The base radii of two cylinder are in the ratio of 2:3 and their heights are in the ratio of 5:3 the
ratio of their Volume is –

A. 27:20

B. 20:27

C. 9:4

D. 4:9

Correct Ans. B

Now, =

= (given)
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Now = = × =

116. Two trains running in opposite direction cross a man standing on the platform in 36 sec and 24
sec respectively and they cross each other in 30 sec. What is the ratio of their speed?

A. 2:1

B. 4:3

C. 3:2

D. 1:1

Correct Ans. D

Let the speed of train is X m/sec and Y m/sec respectively

Now Length of first train is =36x m

Length of second train is = 24y m

Or, = 30

After solving it, =

117. Manoj’s age is three times the sum of the ages of his two sons. Two years ago, his age was six
years less than four times the sum of the ages of his sons. What is the present age of Manoj’s.

A. 36 years

B. 43 years

C. 41 years

D. 39 years

Correct Ans. A

Let the sum of Manoj’s son = x years

Then Manoj’s age = 3x

Again 4(x-2)-6 = 3x-2

X = 12 years

Present age of Manoj’s = 3x =3× 12 = 36 years

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118. The average of series of 20 number is 80. The difference between the largest number and the
smallest number is 132. If the largest and smallest number are excluded from the series, the average
becomes 78. What is the largest number of the original series?

A. 68

B. 132

C. 138

D. 164

Correct Ans. D

Sum of the smallest and largest number = 20× 80 − 18 × 78 = 196

Difference of smallest and largest number = 132

Largest Number = = 164

119. Aslam bought 16 goats at 4200 per goat. He sold 11 of them at 4800 each while 2 of them died.
What should be the selling price of the remaining goats if he wants to earn a profit of 900 on the
whole transaction?

A. 5150

B. 5300

C. 5100

D. 5250

Correct Ans. C

Total CP = 16× 4200 = 67200

Total SP = 67200+900 = 68100

SP of 11 goats = 4800× 11 = 52800

SP of remaining of 3 goats = 68100-52800 = 15300

SP of 1 goats = = 5100
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120. A boat takes 7.5 hours to travel downstream from point A to point B and come back to Point A
upstream, if the velocity of the stream is 3km/hr and the speed of the boat is still water is 5km/hr.
What is the distance between A and B.

A. 10 km

B. 12 km

C. 14 km

D. 15 km

Correct Ans. B

Let the distance = X

Then, + = 7.5

+ = 7.5

5X = 7.5× 8 , 𝑠𝑜, 𝑋 =12 Km