PRELIMS TEST SERIES

2023
`

BYJU’S EXAM PREP ALL INDIA

PRELIMS TEST SERIES – 2023
Test Booklet Series

A
TEST BOOKLET
TEST CODE: GENERAL STUDIES
UPSC-Mock-01 PAPER–I

Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU
SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED
PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. You have to enter your Roll Number on the test

Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT
write anything else on the Test Booklet.

3. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English and
Hindi. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which
you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct
response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE
response for each item. More than one response will be treated as wrong answer.

4. All items carry equal marks.

5. Penalty for wrong answers:

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE
IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for
which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks
assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even
if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as
above to those questions.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no
penalty for that question.

1 | UPSC-MOCK-01
`
1. With reference to ‘Currency Practices
Monitoring List (Currency Manipulators
Watchlist)’, which was recently seen in the
news, consider the following statements:
1. It is published by the U. S Department
of The Treasury.
2. India has never been placed in this
monitoring list.
3. Inclusion in the list will immediately
attract penalties and sanctions.
How many of the statements given above
are incorrect?
(a) None of the statements
(b) Only one statement
(c) Only two statements
(d) All three statements
2. Consider the following statements with
regards to Elections in India:
1. Use of Electronic Voting Machines
(EVM) completely eliminates the
possibility of casting 'Invalid Votes'.
2. During elections no Minister including
the Prime Minister is allowed to
combine their official visit with
electioneering work, under the
provisions of Model Code of Conduct.
3. The first two General elections in India
after Independence were held
simultaneously along with all the state
assemblies.
4. Representation of People Act 1951
gives power to Election Commission of
India (ECI) to deregister a political
party for electoral offences defined in
the act.
How many statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) Only one statement
(b) Only two statements
(c) Only three statements
(d) All four statements
3. Consider the following:
1. Aadhaar
2. e-Sign
3. Unified Payment Interface
4. Digilocker
How many of the above Applications
Programming Interface (APIs) are included
in the India stack?
(a) Only one API
(b) Only two APIs
(c) Only three APIs
(d) All four APIs
2 | UPSC-MOCK-01
1. हाल ही में चचाा में रही 'मुद्रा हेरफेर निगरािी सूची
(Currency manupulators Watchlist)' के
संदर्ा में, निम्ननलखित कथि ं पर निचार कीनिए:
1. इसे अमेररकी ट्र े िरी निर्ाग द्वारा प्रकानित
नकया िाता है ।
2. र्ारत क कर्ी र्ी इस निगरािी सूची में िहीं
रिा गया है ।
3. सूची में िानमल ह िे पर तुरंत दं ड और प्रनतबंध
लग िाएं गे।
उपर्युक्त कथन ों में से ककतने गलत हैं ?
(a) क ई कथन नह ों
(b) केवल एक कथन
(c) केवल द कथन
(d) सभ त न ों कथन
2. भारत में चयनाव ों के सोंबोंध में कनम्नकलखित कथन ों पर
कवचार क किएः
1. इलेक्ट्रॉकनक व क ों ग मश न (EVM) का उपर् ग
'अमान्य व ' डालने क सोंभावना क पूर तरह
से समाप्त कर दे ता है ।
2. चयनाव के दौरान प्रधानमोंत्र सकहत ककस भ मोंत्र
क आदशु आचार सोंकहता के प्रावधान ों के तहत
अपन आकधकाररक र्ात्रा क चयनाव कार्ु के
साथ ि ड़ने क अनयमकत नह ों है ।
3. स्वतोंत्रता के बाद भारत में पहले द आम चयनाव
सभ राज्य कवधानसभाओों के साथ एक साथ हुए
थे।
4. िनप्रकतकनकधत्व अकधकनर्म 1951 भारत के
कनवाु चन आर् ग क अकधकनर्म में पररभाकित
चयनाव अपराध ों के कलए एक रािन कतक दल
क अपोंि कृत करने क शखक्त दे ता है ।
उपर्युक्त कथन ों में से ककतने सह है /हैं ?
(a) केवल एक कथन
(b) केवल द कथन
(c) केवल त न कथन
(d) चार ों कथन
3. निम्ननलखित पर निचार कीनिए:
1. आधार
2. ई-हस्ताक्षर
3. यूनिफाइड पेमेंट् इं ट्रफेस
4. नडनिलॉकर
उपर क्त में से ककतने एप्ल केशन प्र ग्राकमोंग इों रफेस
(APIs) इों कडर्ा स्टै क में शाकमल हैं ?
(a) केवल एक API
(b) केवल द API
(c) केवल त न API
(d) सभ चार API
`

4. Consider the following: 4. निम्ननलखित पर निचार कीनिए:

1. Russia 1. रूस
2. Armenia
3. Uzbekistan 2. आमेनिया
4. Belarus 3. उज़्बेनकस्ताि
5. Kazakhstan 4. बेलारूस
Which of the countries given above are 5. किानकस्ताि
members of both the Collective Security
Treaty Organization and Shanghai उपर्युक्त दे श ों में से कौन से दे श सामूकहक सयरक्षा
Cooperation Organisation? सोंकध सोंगठन और शोंघाई सहर् ग सोंगठन द न ों के
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only सदस्य हैं ?
(b) 1 and 5 only (a) केवल 1, 2, 3 और 4
(c) 1, 3 and 5 only (b) केवल 1 और 5
(d) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) केवल 1, 3 और 5
5. With reference to translation of Sanskrit (d) केवल 2, 3, 4 और 5
works to Persian under the Mughal
emperor Akbar, consider the following 5. मुगल सम्राट् अकबर के अधीि संस्कृत कायों के
statements: फारसी में अिुिाद के संदर्ा में, निम्ननलखित कथि ं
1. The first Sanskrit book to be translated पर निचार कीनिए:
from Sanskrit to Persian under Akbar
was Sukasaptati. 1. अकबर के अधीि संस्कृत से फारसी में
2. Ramayana was translated into Persian अिुिानदत ह िे िाली पहली संस्कृत पुस्तक
as Razmnama under the reign of Akbar सुकसप्तती थी।
by Badauni. 2. बदायूं द्वारा अकबर के िासिकाल में रामायण
Which of the statements given above is/are का फारसी में रज़्मिामा के रूप में अिुिाद
correct? नकया गया था।
(a) 1 only
उपयुाक्त कथि ं में से कौि-सा/से सही है /हैं ?
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) केिल 1
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) केिल 2
(c) 1 और 2 द ि ं
6. With reference to the recently released
(d) ि त 1, ि ही 2
Global Gender Report 2022 which includes
the Gender Gap Index, which one of the
following statements is correct? 6. हाल ह में िार ग्ल बल िेंडर ररप ु 2022, किसमें
(a) As per the report, the time required by िेंडर गैप इों डेक्स शाकमल है , के सोंदभु में कनम्नकलखित
the world to achieve gender parity has कथन ों में से कौन सा सह है ?
consistently reduced over the last (a) ररप ु के अनयसार कवश्व क लैंकगक समानता के
decade. लक्ष्य क हाकसल करने के कलए आवश्यक समर्
(b) The ranking of India has improved as
में कपछले एक दशक से लगातार कम आई है ।
compared to the previous edition of the
Gender Gap Index. (b) िेंडर गैप इों डेक्स के कपछले सोंस्करण क तयलना
(c) India has performed better than all its में भारत क रैं ककोंग में सयधार हुआ है ।
neighbours in the present Gender Gap (c) वतुमान िेंडर गैप इों डेक्स में भारत का अपने
Index. सभ पड़ स दे श ों से बेहतर प्रदशुन है ।
(d) As per the index, India is among the (d) इों डेक्स के अनयसार, भारत रािन कतक
bottom 10 countries in terms of
सशखक्तकरण के मामले में न चे के 10 दे श ों में
political empowerment.
शाकमल है ।

3 | UPSC-MOCK-01
`

7. Consider the following statements with 7. हररकेन के सोंदभु में कनम्नकलखित कथन ों पर कवचार
reference to Hurricanes: क किए:
1. Hurricanes are formed along a front 1. मध्य अक्षाोंश ों में समयद्र के उष्ण िल के ऊपर
over warm ocean water in mid- वाताग्र के साथ हररकेन का कनमाु ण ह ता है ।
latitudes.
2. पहले से मौिूद उच्च-स्तर र्-चक्रवात
2. A pre-existing high-level-cyclonic
circulation favours the formation and पररसोंचरण हररकेन के कनमाु ण और उसक
intensification of Hurricanes. त व्रता के अनयकूल ह ता है ।
3. Hurricane dissipates on reaching the 3. नम क आपूकतु बोंद ह िाने के कारण धरातल
land due to moisture supply cut off. पर पहुों चने पर हररकेन समाप्त ह िाता है ।
Which of the statements given above is/are कनम्नकलखित कू का प्रर् ग कर सह उत्तर का चर्न
correct? क किए:
(a) 1 only
(a) केवल 1
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only (b) केवल 2 और 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) केवल 3
(d) 1, 2 और 3
8. Which of the following are the possible
impacts of rising bond yield?
1. Repayment of public debt will become 8. कनम्नकलखित में से कौन से बढ़ते बॉन्ड र् ल्ड के
costlier. सोंभाकवत प्रभाव हैं ?
2. Capital flow into the equity market will 1. सावुिकनक ऋण क अदार्ग महों ग ह
increase. िाएग ।
3. It shows an inflationary tendency in 2. इखि बािार में पूोंि प्रवाह में वृखि ह ग ।
the market. 3. र्ह बािार में मयद्रास्फ कत क प्रवृकत्त क दशाु ता
4. The net profit margins of the
है ।
companies may be reduced.
How many of the statements given above 4. कोंपकनर् ों का शयि मयनाफा कम ह सकता है ।
is/are correct? उपर्युक्त कथन ों में से ककतने/ककतने सह हैं/हैं ?
(a) Only one statement. (a) केवल एक कथन।
(b) Only two statements. (b) केवल द कथन।
(c) Only three statements.
(c) केवल त न कथन।
(d) All four statements.
(d) चार ों कथन
9. Which of the following belongs to the
category of Volatile Organic Compounds 9. निम्ननलखित में से कौि से िाष्पिील काबानिक
(VOCs)? यौनगक ं (VOCs) की श्रेणी से संबंनधत हैं ?
1. By-products produced by chlorination
1. िल उपचार में क्ल रीिीकरण द्वारा उत्पानदत
in water treatment
2. A compound of carbon such as carbon उप त्पाद
monoxide and carbon dioxide 2. काबाि का एक यौनगक िैसे काबाि
3. Industrial solvents such as म ि ऑक्साइड और काबाि डाइऑक्साइड
trichloroethylene 3. औद्य नगक निलायक िैसे ट्र ाइक्ल र इनथलीि
4. Benzene
4. बेंिीि
5. Toluene
Select the correct answer using the codes 5. ट्ॉल्यूि
given below: निम्ननलखित कूट् का प्रय ग कर सही उत्तर का चयि
(a) 2, 4 and 5 only कीनिए:
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) केिल 2, 4 और 5
(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
(b) केिल 2 और 3
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(c) केिल 1, 3, 4 और 5
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 और 5

4 | UPSC-MOCK-01
`
10. Which one of the following statements best
describes the term ‘Nord Stream’ recently
seen in the news?
(a) It is a coalition of Scandinavian
Countries for defending against
possible Russian aggression.
(b) It is a natural gas pipeline connecting
Russia to Germany.
(c) It is an underground canal system
developed by Nordic countries to
avoid frozen winters
(d) It is a free trade agreement pact
between Nordic nations.
11. With reference to the history of medieval
India, the term "munhiyans" refers to
which one of the following?
(a) Officer to control market
(b) Cloth market
(c) Secret spies
(d) Minister of War
12. Consider the following statements with
reference to the SHRESHTA scheme, which
was recently seen in the news:
1. It provides scholarships for higher
education for students who belong to
the Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribe
category.
2. The beneficiaries of the scheme will be
selected through an entrance test
conducted by the National Testing
Agency.
3. There is no income criteria for the
scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
5 | UPSC-MOCK-01
10. निम्ननलखित में से कौि सा कथि हाल ही में समाचार ं
में दे िे गए 'िॉडा स्ट्र ीम' िब्द का सबसे अच्छा िणाि
करता है ?
(a) यह संर्ानित रूसी आक्रमण से बचाि के नलए
स्कैंनडिेनियाई दे ि ं का गठबंधि है ।
(b) यह रूस क िमािी से ि ड़िे िाली एक
प्राकृनतक गैस पाइपलाइि है ।
(c) यह िमा दे िे िाली सनदा य ं से बचिे के नलए
िॉनडा क दे ि ं द्वारा निकनसत एक र्ूनमगत िहर
प्रणाली है
(d) यह िॉनडा क दे ि ं के बीच एक मुक्त व्यापार
समझौता है ।
11. मध्यकालीि र्ारत के इनतहास के संदर्ा में,
"मुखियाि" िब्द निम्ननलखित में से नकस एक क
संदनर्ात करता है ?
(a) बािार क नियंनित करिे के नलए अनधकारी
(b) कपड़ा बािार
(c) गुप्त िासूस
(d) युद्ध मंिी
12. हाल ही में चचाा में रही श्रेष्ठ य ििा के संदर्ा में
निम्ननलखित कथि ं पर निचार कीनिए:
1. यह अिुसूनचत िानत/अिुसूनचत िििानत िगा
के छाि ं के नलए उच्च निक्षा हे तु छाििृनत्त प्रदाि
करती है ।
2. य ििा के लार्ानथाय ं का चयि राष्ट्रीय परीक्षण
एिेंसी द्वारा आय नित प्रिेि परीक्षा के माध्यम
से नकया िाएगा।
3. य ििा के नलए क ई आय मािदं ड िहीं है ।
उपयुाक्त कथि ं में से कौि-सा/से सही है /हैं ?
(a) केिल 1 और 2
(b) 1, 2 और 3
(c) केिल 2
(d) केिल 1 और 3
`

13. With reference to “Immersive 13. "इमकसुव तकन क "ों के सोंदभु में, कनम्नकलखित कथन ों
Technologies”, consider the following पर कवचार क किए:
statements: 1. सोंवकधुत वास्तकवकता (AR) में आभास
1. In Augmented Reality (AR), virtual िानकार और वस्तयएों वास्तकवक दय कनर्ा पर मढ़े
information and objects are overlaid on
िाते हैं ।
the real world.
2. Virtual Reality (VR) involves the user 2. आभास वास्तकवकता (VR) में उपर् गकताु क
being fully immersed in a simulated एक अनयरूकपत कडकि ल वातावरण में पूर तरह
digital environment. से कनमखित ककर्ा िाना शाकमल है ।
3. Metaverse is an example of mixed 3. मे ावसु कमकित वास्तकवकता का एक उदाहरण
reality. है ।
How many of the statements given above उपर्युक्त कथन ों में से ककतने सह हैं ?
are correct?
(a) इन में से क ई नह ों
(a) None of the statements
(b) Only one statement (b) केवल एक कथन
(c) Only two statements (c) केवल द कथन
(d) All three statements (d) त न ों कथन

14. Which of the following statements is/are

correct with reference to conviction of a 14. ककस कवधार्क क न्यार्ालर् द्वारा द िकसखि के
Legislator by court? सोंदभु में कनम्नकलखित कथन ों में से कौन-सा/से सह
1. Automatic disqualification of the है /हैं ?
sitting Legislator convicted in a 1. ककस आपराकधक मामले में द ि ठहराए गए
criminal case is subject to ककस मौिूदा कवधार्क क स्वत: अर् ग्यता
speakers/chairman's discretion. स्प कर/अध्यक्ष के कववेकाध न अध न है ।
2. The Election Commission of India, 2. िन प्रकतकनकधत्व अकधकनर्म 1951 के तहत
under the Representation of the People भारत के चयनाव आर् ग क चयनाव लड़ने के
Act 1951, has the authority to reduce
मामले में द ि ठहराए गए व्यखक्त क अर् ग्यता
the period of disqualification of a
person convicted in a case for क अवकध क कम करने का अधिकार है ।
contesting election. कनम्नकलखित कू का प्रर् ग कर सह उत्तर का चर्न
Select the correct answer from the codes क किए:
given below:
(a) केवल 1
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) केवल 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1 और 2 द न ों
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) न त 1, न ह 2

6 | UPSC-MOCK-01
`
15. Which one of the following statements is
correct with reference to the ‘Shoonya’
Campaign that was recently in the news?
(a) It is a zero-pollution e-mobility
campaign launched with a joint
collaboration between India and the
World Health Organization.
(b) The campaign aims to accelerate the
adoption of electric vehicles (EVs) in
the rural delivery segment.
(c) It intends to reduce air pollution by
promoting the use of electric vehicles
for ride-hailing and deliveries.
(d) Its objective is to create consumer
awareness about the benefits of clean
cooking solutions.
16. Consider the following statements:
1. Maharashtra has more coal reserves
than Madhya Pradesh.
2. Lignite is the medium grade of coal
having the highest heating capacity.
3. Bituminous coal is found in Jharkhand,
Odisha, West Bengal, Chhattisgarh and
Madhya Pradesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
17. With reference to the proposals of Cripps
Mission, consider the following statements:
1. The Indian Union would be free to
decide its relations with the
Commonwealth and other
international bodies.
2. Members of the Constitutional
Assembly would be partly elected
through direct election and partly
nominated by the Governor General.
3. Muslim league didn’t criticise the idea
of a single Indian Union but had
objections on the creation of a
Constituent Assembly.
4. The decision on secession was to be
taken by a resolution in the Legislature
by a 50 per cent majority.
How many of the statements given above
is/are incorrect?
(a) Only one statement
(b) Only two statements
(c) Only three statements
(d) All four statements
7 | UPSC-MOCK-01
15. हाल ही में चचाा में रहे 'िून्य' अनर्याि के संदर्ा में
निम्ननलखित कथि ं में से कौि सा सही है ?
(a) यह र्ारत और निश्व स्वास्थ्य संगठि के संयुक्त
सहय ग से िुरू नकया गया एक िून्य-प्रदू षण ई-
गनतिीलता अनर्याि है ।
(b) अनर्याि का उद्दे श्य ग्रामीण नितरण िंड में
इलेखरर क िाहि ं (EVs) क अपिािे में तेिी
लािा है ।
(c) इसका उद्दे श्य राइड-हे नलंग और नडलीिरी के
नलए इलेखरर क िाहि ं के उपय ग क बढािा
दे कर िायु प्रदू षण क कम करिा है ।
(d) इसका उद्दे श्य स्वच्छ िािा पकािे के समाधाि ं
के लार् ं के बारे में उपर् क्ता िागरूकता पैदा
करिा है ।
16. निम्ननलखित कथि ं पर निचार कीनिए:
1. महाराष्ट्र में मध्य प्रदे श से अकधक क र्ला भोंडार
है ।
2. नलग्नाइट् उच्चतम ताप क्षमता िाला मध्यम श्रेणी
का क यला है ।
3. नबट्ु नमिस क यला झारिंड, ओनडिा, पनिम
बंगाल, छत्तीसगढ और मध्य प्रदे ि में पाया िाता
है ।
उपयुाक्त कथि ं में से कौि-सा/से सही है /हैं ?
(a) केिल 1 और 2
(b) केिल 3
(c) केिल 1
(d) 1, 2 और 3
17. नक्रप्स नमिि के प्रस्ताि ं के संदर्ा में निम्ननलखित
कथि ं पर निचार कीनिएः
1. र्ारतीय संघ राष्ट्रमंडल तथा अन्य अंतरराष्ट्रीय
निकाय ं के साथ अपिे संबंध ं क तय करिे के
नलए स्वतंि ह गा।
2. संनिधाि सर्ा के सदस्य आं निक रूप से प्रत्यक्ष
चुिाि के माध्यम से चुिे िाएं गे और आं निक
रूप से गििार ििरल द्वारा िानमत नकए िाएं गे।
3. मुखिम लीग िे एक र्ारतीय संघ के निचार की
आल चिा िहीं की थी, लेनकि उसे संनिधाि
सर्ा के निमाा ण पर आपनत्त थी।
4. अलगाि पर निणाय निधानयका में 50 प्रनतित
बहुमत से एक प्रस्ताि द्वारा नलया िािा था।
उपर्युक्त कथन ों में से ककतने कथन गलत है /हैं ?
(a) केवल एक कथन
(b) केवल द कथन
(c) केवल त न कथन
(d) सभ चार ों कथन
`

18. Consider the following statements with 18. बॉन्ड' की अिधारणा के संदर्ा में निम्ननलखित कथि ं
reference to the concept of ‘bonds’: पर निचार कीनिए:
1. A situation of ‘negative bond yield’ is
1. आनथाक चक्र के मंदी के चरण के दौराि
observed during the recessionary
'िकारात्मक बां ड प्राखप्त' की खथथनत दे िी िाती
phase of economic cycle
2. Additional Tier 1 (AT1) bonds are the है
most secure type of bonds. 2. अनतररक्त नट्यर 1 (AT1) बां ड सबसे सुरनक्षत
3. Sovereign Blue Bond is issued to प्रकार के बां ड हैं।
support investments in healthy oceans 3. सॉिरे ि ब्लू बॉन्ड स्वथथ महासागर ं और िीली
and blue economies अथाव्यिथथाओं में नििेि का समथाि करिे के
How many of the statements given above नलए िारी नकया गया है
are incorrect?
उपर्युक्त कथन ों में से ककतने गलत हैं ?
(a) None of the statements
(b) Only one statement (a) एक भ कथन नह ों
(c) Only two statements (b) केवल एक कथन
(d) All three statements (c) केवल द कथन
(d) सभ त न ों कथन
19. Consider the following pairs:

19. निम्ननलखित युग् ं पर निचार कीनिएः

S.No. Peak Mountain
Ranges
क्रम संख्या चोटी पर्वत शंखला
1. Nanda Devi Himadri
1. िंदा दे िी नहमाद्री
2. Deo Tibba Pir Panjal Range
2. दे ि नट्ब्बा पीर पंिाल श्रेणी
3. Nanga Garhwal
Parbat Himalaya
3. िंगा पिात गढिाल नहमालय

How many pairs given above is/are

उपर्युक्त ककतने र्यग्म सह सयमेकलत है /हैं ?
correctly matched?
(a) None of the pairs (a) एक भ र्यग्म नह ों
(b) Only one pair (b) केवल एक र्यग्म
(c) Only two pairs (c) केवल द र्यग्म
(d) All three pairs
(d) सभ त न ों र्यग्म
20. Consider the following statements with
reference to “Serverless Computing”: 20. "सवुर रकहत कोंप्यूक ों ग" के सोंदभु में कनम्नकलखित
1. It is a cloud application development कथन ों पर कवचार क किए:
and execution model which does not 1. र्ह क्लाउड अनयप्रर् ग कवकास और कनष्पादन
use any servers. मॉडल है ि ककस भ सवुर का उपर् ग नह ों
2. The cloud provider provisions the करता है
infrastructure needed to run an
2. क्लाउड प्रदाता एखप्लकेशन क ड क चलाने के
application code.
Which of the statements given above are कलए आवश्यक बयकनर्ाद ढाों चे का प्रावधान
correct? करता है ।
(a) 1 only उपर्युक्त कथन ों में से कौन-से सह हैं ?
(b) 2 only (a) केवल 1
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) केवल 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 1 और 2 द न ों
(d) न त 1, न ह 2

8 | UPSC-MOCK-01
`
21. With reference to Mauryan pillars of
Ashoka and Achaemenian pillars, which
one of the following statements is
incorrect?
(a) Mauryan pillars are similar to
Achaemenian pillars as both are
constructed in pieces.
(b) While the Ashokan pillars were
independently erected, the
Achaemenian pillars were generally
attached to state buildings.
(c) The presence of Kharosthi on some
Ashokan pillar inscriptions shows
influence of Achaemenian practice.
(d) The pillar edicts of Ashoka with their
bell-shaped capitals resemble the
victory pillars of the Achaemenid
emperors found in Persepolis.
22. Which one of the following statements is
correct with reference to Kuril islands,
sometimes mentioned in the news?
(a) It is an Island controlled by China and
disputed between China and Japan.
(b) The Island is situated between the Sea
of Japan and the Pacific Ocean.
(c) It is a group of disputed islands
between Russia and Japan.
(d) USA’s Andersen Air Force Base is
located in Kuril Islands to check
Russian and Chinese aggression in the
Pacific Ocean.
23. Consider the following statements with
reference to ‘Targeted Long Term Repo
Operation (TLRO)’:
1. Liquidity availed under this can be
used by the banks to invest in
instruments with a maturity of 3 years.
2. It will reduce the liquidity in the
corporate bond market
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
9 | UPSC-MOCK-01
21. अि क के मौया स्तंर् ं और अक्खमिी स्तंर् ं के संदर्ा
में, निम्ननलखित कथि ं में से कौि सा गलत है ?
(a) मौया स्तंर् अक्खमिी स्तंर् ं के समाि हैं क् नं क
द ि ं का निमाा ण ट्ु कड़ ं में नकया गया है ।
(b) िबनक अि क के स्तंर् स्वतंि रूप से बिाए गए
थे, अक्खमिी स्तंर् आम तौर पर राज्य र्िि ं से
िुड़े ह ते थे।
(c) कुछ अि क स्तंर् निलालेि ं पर िर ष्ठी की
उपखथथनत अक्खमिी प्रथा के प्रर्ाि क दिाा ती
है ।
(d) अि क के स्तंर् निलालेि उिकी घंट्ी के
आकार की रािधानिय ं के साथ पसेप नलस में
पाए गए अक्खमिी सम्राट् ं के नििय स्तंर् ं से
नमलते िुलते हैं ।
22. कर्ी-कर्ी चचाा में रहिे िाले कुरील द्वीप ं के संदर्ा
में निम्ननलखित में से कौि सा कथि सही है ?
(a) यह चीि द्वारा नियंनित एक द्वीप है और चीि
और िापाि के बीच नििानदत है।
(b) यह द्वीप िापाि सागर और प्रिांत महासागर के
बीच खथथत है ।
(c) यह रूस और िापाि के बीच नििानदत द्वीप ं का
एक समूह है ।
(d) प्रिां त महासागर में रूसी और चीिी आक्रमण
क र किे के नलए संयुक्त राज्य अमेररका का
एं डरसि एयर फ सा बेस कुरील द्वीप समूह में
खथथत है ।
23. 'ट्ागेट्ेड लॉन्ग ट्मा रे प ऑपरे िि (TLRO)' के संदर्ा
में निम्ननलखित कथि ं पर निचार कीनिए:
1. इसके तहत ल गई तरलता का इस्तेमाल बैंक 3
साल क पररपिता वाले कलित ों में कनवेश करने
के कलए कर सकते हैं ।
2. इससे कॉरप रे बॉन्ड बािार में तरलता कम
हग।
उपर्युक्त कथन ों में से कौन-सा/से सह है /हैं ?
(a) केिल 1
(b) केिल 2
(c) 1 और 2 द ि ं
(d) ि त 1, ि ही 2
`
24. Consider the following statements with
reference to isotherms:
1. The isotherm deviates to the north over
the ocean in the northern hemisphere
during the month of January.
2. The isotherms generally run parallel to
the latitude in the southern hemisphere
during the month of July.
3. The isotherms diverge towards the
north in Europe during the month of
January.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
25. Which of the following statements are the
exclusive powers of the Rajya Sabha?
1. Rajya Sabha alone can initiate a move
for the removal of the Vice President of
India.
2. A resolution for the discontinuance of
the national emergency can be passed
only by the Rajya Sabha.
3. Rajya Sabha can authorise the
Parliament to make a law on a subject
enumerated in the State List.
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
10 | UPSC-MOCK-01
24. समताप रे िाओं (isotherms) के संदर्ा में
निम्ननलखित कथि ं पर निचार कीनिए:
1. समताप रे िाओं (isotherms) का निचलि
िििरी के महीिे में उत्तरी ग लाधा में समुद्र के
ऊपर उत्तर की ओर ह िाता है ।
2. ये आमतौर पर िुलाई के महीिे में दनक्षणी
ग लाधा में अक्षांि के समािां तर चलती हैं ।
3. समताप रे िाएं (isotherms) िििरी के महीिे
में यूर प में उत्तर की ओर झुक िाती हैं ।
उपर्युक्त कथन ों में से कौन-सा/से सह है /हैं ?
(a) केिल 1
(b) केिल 1 और 2
(c) केिल 2 और 3
(d) केिल 3
25. निम्ननलखित में से कौि से कथि राज्य सर्ा की
निनिष्ट् िखक्तयााँ हैं ?
1. केवल राज्यसभा द्वारा ह भारत के उपराष्ट्रपकत
क उसके पद से ह ाने के कलए प्रस्ताव पेश
ककर्ा िा सकता है ।
2. राष्ट्र र् आपातकाल क समाप्त करने का प्रस्ताव
केवल राज्य सभा द्वारा ह पाररत ककर्ा िा
सकता है ।
3. राज्य सूच में शाकमल ककस कविर् पर कानून
बनाने के कलए राज्यसभा सोंसद क अकधकृत
कर सकत है ।
निम्ननलखित कूट् का प्रय ग कर सही उत्तर का चयि
कीनिए:
(a) केिल 1 और 2
(b) केिल 2 और 3
(c) केिल 1 और 3
(d) 1, 2 और 3
`

26. Consider the following statements with 26. संगम काल के संदर्ा में निम्ननलखित कथि ं पर निचार
reference to Sangam age: कीनिए:
1. Sangam poems are devoid of any
1. संगम कनिताओं में मनहला बुिकर ं का क ई
reference to women weavers.
संदर्ा िहीं है ।
2. The love poems of sangam age linked
emotional themes with different 2. संगम काल की प्रेम कनिताओं िे र्ाििात्मक
landscapes each having different निषय ं क अलग-अलग पररदृश्य ं से ि ड़ा,
names. नििमें से प्रत्येक के अलग-अलग िाम थे।
3. Although social classification was 3. यद्यनप संगम कनिय ं क सामानिक िगीकरण
known to sangam poets, there was no की िािकारी थी, लेनकि उि ि ं े ब्राह्मण ं का
mention of brahmanas.
उल्लेि िहीं नकया है ।
Which of the statements given above is/are
incorrect? उपयुाक्त कथि ं में से कौि-सा/से गलत है /हैं ?
(a) 1 and 3 only (a) केिल 1 और 3
(b) 2 only (b) केिल 2
(c) 3 only
(c) केिल 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 और 3

27. Which of the following are the possible
applications of transgenic animals?
1. Study of diseases
2. Production of biological products
3. Testing the safety of Vaccines and
drugs
4. Chemical safety testing
5. Studying normal physiology and
development
6. Xenotransplantation for humans
7. Increasing the meat production in
animal husbandry
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
(b) 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only
(c) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
27. कनम्नकलखित में से कौन र ाों सिेकनक ि व ों के सोंभाकवत
अनयप्रर् ग हैं ?
1. र ग ों का अध्यर्न
2. िैकवक उत्पाद ों का उत्पादन।
3. क ों और दवाओों क सयरक्षा का पर क्षण।
4. रासार्कनक सयरक्षा पर क्षण
5. सामान्य शर र कक्रर्ा कवज्ञान और कवकास का
अध्यर्न
6. मानव के कलए जेन र ाों सप्लाों े शन
7. पशयपालन में माों स उत्पादन बढ़ाना
कनम्नकलखित कू का प्रर् ग कर सह उत्तर का चर्न
क किए:
(a) केवल 1, 2, 4 और 5
(b) केवल 2, 3, 5, 6 और 7
(c) केवल 1, 3, 4, 6 और 7
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 और 7

11 | UPSC-MOCK-01
`

28. Consider the following statements with 28. हाल ह में चचाु में रहे इथेनॉल सखििण के सोंदभु में
reference to the Ethanol Blending, recently कनम्नकलखित कथन ों पर कवचार क किए:
in the news: 1. पहल प ढ़ के इथेनॉल के उत्पादन के कलए
1. Bamboo and woody biomass are the बाों स और लकड़ के बार् मास स्र त हैं ।
sources for the production of first
2. पहल प ढ़ के इथेनॉल के उत्पादन के कलए
generation ethanol.
2. Producing first generation ethanol त सर प ढ़ के इथेनॉल क तयलना में कम भूिल
requires lesser ground water िपत क आवश्यकता ह त है।
consumption than the third generation 3. इथेनॉल कमकित पे र ल के उपर् ग से काबुन
ethanol. म न ऑक्साइड और नाइ र स ऑक्साइड द न ों
3. Usage of ethanol blended petrol can के उत्सिुन में काफ कम आ सकत है ।
lead to substantial reduction in 4. भारत सरकार के इथेनॉल कमकित
emissions of both Carbon Monoxide पे र ल कार्ुक्रम (EBP) में भारत के कवदे श मयद्रा
and Nitrous Oxide.
भोंडार क बचाने क क्षमता है ।
4. The Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP)
Programme of Government of India उपर्युक्त कथन ों में से ककतने सह है /हैं ?
holds potential in saving India’s (a) केवल एक कथन
foreign exchange reserves. (b) केवल द कथन
How many statements given above is/are
(c) केवल त न कथन
correct?
(a) Only one statement (d) चार ों कथन
(b) Only two statements
(c) Only three statements 29. 'ऑपरे िि निस्ट्' के संदर्ा में निम्ननलखित कथि ं पर
(d) All four statements निचार कीनिए:
1. आरबीआई अल्पकानलक प्रनतर्ूनतयााँ िरीदता
29. Consider the following statements with
है ।
reference to ‘Operation Twist’:
1. RBI buys short term securities 2. आरबीआई अल्पकानलक प्रनतर्ूनतयााँ बेचता है।
2. RBI sells short term securities 3. यह लंबी अिनध के नििेि क प्र त्सानहत करिे
3. It helps in incentivising long term में सहायता करता है ।
investment उपर्युक्त कथन ों में से ककतने सह हैं ?
How many statements given above are
(a) एक भ कथन नह ों
correct?
(a) None of the statements (b) केवल एक कथन
(b) Only one statement (c) केवल द कथन
(c) Only two statements (d) सभ त न ों कथन
(d) All three statements

30. With reference to the atmospheric layers, 30. वार्यमोंडल र् परत ों के सोंदभु में , कनम्नकलखित कथन ों
consider the following statements: पर कवचार क किए:
1. All clouds that are generated by 1. मौसम िकनत सभ बादल क्ष भमोंडल र् परत में
weather are found in the tropospheric पाए िाते हैं ।
layer. 2. समताप मोंडल सवाु कधक घना वार्यमोंडल र् परत
2. The stratosphere is the densest है ।
atmospheric layer.
3. पृथ्व क प्रणाल के भ तर सवाु कधक ठों डा स्थान
3. The coldest place within the earth's
मध्यमोंडल र् परत के ऊपर कहस्से में पार्ा
system is found at the top of the
िाता है ।
mesospheric layer.
4. The thermospheric layer is free of clouds 4. तापमोंडल र् (Thermospheric) परत बादल ों
and water vapour. और िल वाष्प से मयक्त है ।
How many statements given above are उपर्युक्त कथन ों में से ककतने गलत हैं ?
incorrect? (a) केवल एक कथन
(a) Only one statement
(b) केवल द कथन
(b) Only two statements
(c) Only three statements (c) केवल त न कथन
(d) All four statements (d) सभ चार ों कथन

12 | UPSC-MOCK-01
`

31. Which one of the following is correct with 31. नलखिड नमरर ट्े लीस्क प के संदर्ा में निम्ननलखित
reference to Liquid Mirror Telescopes? कथि ं में से कौि सा सही है ?
(a) It is highly flexible and can be steered
(a) यह अत्यनधक लचीला है और इसे आसािी से
in multiple directions with ease.
कई नदिाओं में चलाया िा सकता है ।
(b) Building Liquid Mirror Telescope is
costlier than conventional telescopes. (b) नलखिड नमरर ट्े लीस्क प बिािा पारं पररक
(c) Liquid mirror telescopes work on the ट्े लीस्क प बिािे की तुलिा में महं गा है ।
principle of combining gravity and (c) नलखिड नमरर ट्े नलस्क प गुरुत्वाकषाण और
centrifugal force. अपकेन्द्रीय बल के संय िि के नसद्धां त पर काया
(d) It requires low density fluid hence करते हैं ।
mercury cannot be used.
(d) इसमें कम घित्व िाले द्रि की आिश्यकता ह ती
है इसनलए पारा का उपय ग िहीं नकया िा
32. Consider the following statements with
reference to the Montreal Protocol: सकता है ।
1. India has been a party to the Montreal
Protocol since its inception. 32. मॉखरर यल प्र ट् कॉल के संदर्ा में निम्ननलखित कथि ं
2. Both developing and developed पर निचार कीनिए:
countries have binding and time- 1. र्ारत मॉखरर यल प्र ट् कॉल की थथापिा के समय
targeted commitments under the
से ही इस प्र ट् कॉल का एक पक्षकार रहा है ।
agreement.
3. At present, India has successfully 2. इस समझौते के तहत निकासिील और
phased out Methyl Bromide and निकनसत द ि ं दे ि ं की बाध्यकारी और समय-
Methyl Chloroform in compliance with लनक्षत प्रनतबद्धताएं हैं ।
the Montreal Protocol. 3. ितामाि में, र्ारत िे मॉखरर यल प्र ट् कॉल के
Which of the statements given above अिुपालि में नमथाइल ब्र माइड और नमथाइल
is/are correct? क्ल र फॉमा क चरणबद्ध तरीके से समाप्त कर
(a) 1 only नदया है ।।
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only उपयुाक्त कथि ं में से कौि-सा/से सही है /हैं ?
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) केिल 1
(b) केिल 2 और 3
33. With reference to schools of Buddhism, (c) केिल 1 और 3
which of the following are the sub-schools
of Buddhism? (d) 1, 2 और 3
1. Madhyamaka
2. Sautrantika 33. बौद्ध धमा की िािाओं के संदर्ा में, निम्ननलखित में से
3. Terapanthi कौि बौद्ध धमा की उप-िािाएं हैं ?
4. Sthaviravadins
1. माध्यनमक
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below: 2. सौिाखिक
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only 3. तेरापंथी
(b) 1 and 4 only 4. थथानिरिादी
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
निम्ननलखित कूट् का प्रय ग कर सही उत्तर का चयि
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
कीनिए:
(a) केिल 1, 2 और 3
(b) केिल 1 और 4
(c) केिल 1, 2 और 4
(d) केिल 2, 3 और 4

13 | UPSC-MOCK-01
`

34. The “Enhancing Climate Resilience of 34. हाल ही में चचाा में रहे "इिै खसंग क्लाइमेट्
India's Coastal Communities” project, ररनिनलएं स ऑफ इं नडयाि क स्ट्ल कम्यूनिट्ीि"
which was recently in the news, is funded पररय ििा निम्ननलखित में से नकसके द्वारा नित्तप नषत
by which one of the following? है ?
(a) Climate Works Foundation
(b) Green Climate Fund (a) क्लाइमेट् िक्सा फाउं डेिि
(c) Global Environment Facility (b) ग्रीि क्लाइमेट् फंड
(d) World Bank (c) ग्ल बल एििायरिमेंट् फैनसनलट्ी
(d) निश्व बैंक
35. Consider the following statements with
reference to “dostarlimab”, which was
recently seen in news: 35. हाल ही में चचाा में रहे "ड स्ट्रनलमैब
1. These are monoclonal antibodies. (Dostarlimab)" के संदर्ा में निम्ननलखित कथि ं पर
2. It suppresses T-cell activities. निचार कीनिए:
3. It is an immunotherapy drug which 1. ये म ि क्ल िल एं ट्ीबॉडी हैं ।
was found to have the potential to cure
2. यह ट्ी-क निका (T-Cell) गनतनिनधय ं क
rectal cancer.
Which of the statements given above is/are अिरुद्ध करता है ।
correct? 3. यह एक इम्यूि थेरेपी दिा है निसमें मलािय
(a) 1 and 2 only संबंधी कैंसर क ठीक करिे की क्षमता पाई गई
(b) 1, 2 and 3 है ।
(c) 3 only उपयुाक्त कथि ं में से कौि-सा/से सही है /हैं ?
(d) 1 and 3 only
(a) केिल 1 और 2
36. Which of the following steps is/are likely (b) 1, 2 और 3
to be taken by the government to (c) केिल 3
internationalise Indian Rupee? (d) केिल 1 और 3
1. Achieving full convertibility of capital
account
2. Issuing Masala Bonds 36. भारत र् रुपर्े का अोंतराु ष्ट्र र्करण करने के कलए
3. Revaluation of the Currency सरकार द्वारा कनम्नकलखित में से कौन सा/से कदम
Select the correct answer using the codes उठाए िाने क सोंभावना है ?
given below: 1. पूोंि िाते क पूणु पररवतुन र्ता प्राप्त करना
(a) 1 and 2 only 2. मसाला बाों ड िार करना
(b) 1 only 3. मयद्रा का पयनमूुल्ाों कन
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 कनम्नकलखित कू का प्रर् ग कर सह उत्तर चयकनए:
(a) केवल 1 और 2
(b) केवल 1
(c) केवल 2 और 3
(d) 1, 2 और 3

14 | UPSC-MOCK-01
`
37. Consider the following statements
regarding ‘La Niña’ which was seen
recently in the news:
1. It is known to have a negative
correlation with the North-East
monsoon or retreating monsoon.
2. It has been associated with the recent
prolonged heat waves in summer in
India.
3. It is associated with above-normal sea
surface temperatures in the eastern and
central Pacific Oceans.
4. In general, it is considered harmful to
the Indian economy.
How many statements given above are
correct?
(a) Only one Statement
(b) Only two Statements
(c) Only three Statements
(d) All four Statements
38. Which of the following options is incorrect
with respect to “History of Coinage”in
India?
(a) In Vedas, there is a mention of gold
coins in the form of 'Nishkas' and
‘Suvarnas'.
(b) Razia Sultana issued coins in the name
of Abbasid caliph along with her name
and title.
(c) Gold Mohurs were first introduced in
India in the 17th century by Jahangir.
(d) The Kushanas issued gold coins with
high-sounding titles like the ‘Lord of
the Whole World’.
39. With reference to the promulgation of the
ordinance, consider the following
statements:
1. The power of the President and
Governor to promulgate an ordinance
is subject to legislative control.
2. An ordinance restricting the freedom
of trade and commerce within a state
cannot be made by the Governor
without instructions from the
President.
3. The power to issue ordinances is
derived from the doctrine of separation
of power.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
15 | UPSC-MOCK-01
37. हाल ह में चचाु में रहे 'ला न ना' के सोंबोंध में
कनम्नकलखित कथन ों पर कवचार क किए:
1. इसका उत्तर-पूवी मानसून र्ा प छे ह ने वाले
मानसून के साथ नकारात्मक सोंबोंध माना िाता
है ।
2. र्ह भारत में गकमुर् ों में हाल ह में द घुकाल न
ग्र ष्म लहर ों से ियड़ा हुआ है ।
3. र्ह पूवी तथा मध्य प्रशाों त महासागर ों में सामान्य
से अकधक समयद्र सतह के तापमान से ियड़ा हुआ
है ।
4. सामान्य तौर पर इसे भारत र् अथुव्यवस्था के
कलए हाकनकारक माना िाता है ।
उपर्युक्त कथन ों में से ककतने सह हैं ?
(a) केवल एक कथन
(b) केवल द कथन
(c) केवल त न कथन
(d) सभ चार कथन
38. र्ारत में "नसक् ं के इनतहास" के संबंध में
निम्ननलखित में से कौि सा निकल्प गलत है ?
(a) िेद ं में 'निष्क' और 'सुिणा' के रूप में स िे के
नसक् ं का उल्लेि है ।
(b) रनिया सुल्ताि िे अपिे िाम और उपानध के
साथ अब्बासी िलीफा के िाम से नसक्े िारी
नकए।
(c) र्ारत में पहली बार 17िीं िताब्दी में िहां गीर
द्वारा 'स्वणा मुहर' की िुरुआत की गई थी।
(d) कुषाण ं द्वारा 'संपूणा निश्व के स्वामी' िैसे
अत्यनधक आडं बरपूणा िीषाक ं िाले स िे के
नसक्े िारी नकए।
39. अध्यादे श क घ िणा के सोंदभु में, कनम्नकलखित कथन ों
पर कवचार क किए:
1. अध्यादे श िार करने क राष्ट्रपकत तथा
राज्यपाल क शखक्त कवधार् कनर्ोंत्रण के अध न
है ।
2. ककस राज्य के भ तर व्यापार और वाकणज्य क
स्वतोंत्रता क प्रकतबोंकधत करने वाला अध्यादे श
राष्ट्रपकत के कनदे श के कबना राज्यपाल द्वारा नह ों
बनार्ा िा सकता है ।
3. अध्यादे श िार करने क शखक्त सत्ता के
पृथक्करण के कसिाों त से ल गई है ।
उपर्युक्त कथन ों में से कौन-सा/से सह है /हैं ?
(a) केवल 1 और 2
(b) केवल 1
(c) केवल 2 और 3
(d) 1, 2 और 3
`

40. Consider the following statements:
1. A hawkish monetary policy of the
central bank will likely lead to
appreciation of its domestic currency.
2. A hike in interest rate by the US
Federal Reserve could lead to the
depreciation of the Indian rupee.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
41. Consider the following statements with
reference to India’s international trade:
1. In the last five years, the value of India-
china trade has consistently increased.
2. Singapore has emerged as the top
sourcing nation in Foreign Direct
Investment (FDI) equity flows into
India in the Financial Year 2021-22.
3. India has been the largest recipient of
Japanese Official Development
Assistance Loans since 2003.
4. Currently, Bangladesh is India’s
largest trading partner in the South
Asian region.
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
40. निम्ननलखित कथि ं पर निचार कीनिए:
1. केंद्र र् बैंक क आक्रामक मौकद्रक न कत
(hawkish monetary policy) से इसके घरे लू
मयद्रा के अकभमूल्न क सोंभावना ह त है ।
2. अमेररकी फेडरल ररििा द्वारा ब्याि दर में
बढ तरी से र्ारतीय रुपये का मूल्यह्रास ह
सकता है ।
उपयुाक्त कथि ं में से कौि-सा/से सही है /हैं ?
(a) केिल 1
(b) केिल 2
(c) 1 और 2 द ि ं
(d) ि त 1, ि ही 2
41. र्ारत के अंतरााष्ट्रीय व्यापार के संदर्ा में निम्ननलखित
कथि ं पर निचार कीनिए:
1. नपछले पां च िषों में, र्ारत-चीि व्यापार में
लगातार िृखद्ध हुई है ।
2. नित्तीय िषा 2021-22 में नसंगापुर प्रत्यक्ष निदे िी
नििेि (FDI) इखिट्ी प्रिाह में र्ारत में िीषा
गंतव्य राष्ट्र के रूप में उर्रा है।
3. र्ारत 2003 से िापाि के आनधकाररक निकास
सहायता ऋण का सबसे बड़ा प्राप्तकताा रहा है ।
4. ितामाि में, बां ग्लादे ि दनक्षण एनियाई क्षेि में
र्ारत का सबसे बड़ा व्यापाररक र्ागीदार है ।
उपयुाक्त कथि ं में से कौि-से सही हैं ?
(a) केिल 1 और 2
(b) केिल 1, 3 और 4
(c) केिल 2, 3 और 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 और 4

42. हाइडर िन ईोंधन सेल के सोंदभु में कनम्नकलखित कथन ों

42. Consider the following statements with पर कवचार क किए:
reference to hydrogen fuel cells: 1. र्े कलकथर्म-आर्न बै र क तयलना में अकधक
1. They are more cost effective than लागत प्रभाव हैं।
Lithium-ion batteries. 2. इन सेल ों में िल एक उप त्पाद है।
2. Water is a byproduct in these cells.
3. बै र से चलने वाले इलेखक्ट्र क वाहन ों क तयलना
3. Refuelling hydrogen fuel cell based
में हाइडर िन ईोंधन सेल से चलने वाले इलेखक्ट्र क
electric vehicles is more time
consuming than battery powered वाहन ों में ईोंधन भरने में अकधक समर् लगता है ।
electric vehicles. उपर्युक्त कथन ों में से कौन-सा/से सह है /हैं ?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) केवल 2
correct? (b) 1, 2 और 3
(a) 2 only
(c) केवल 3
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 only (d) केवल 1 और 3
(d) 1 and 3 only

16 | UPSC-MOCK-01
`
43. Consider the following statements with
reference to the Battery Waste
Management Rules, 2022, that was recently
in the news:
1. It supersedes the Battery (Management
and Handling) Regulations 2001.
2. According to the rules, battery
importers are not responsible for
recycling used batteries.
3. At present, only automotive and
industrial batteries are covered under
the rules.
4. According to the rules, producers of
batteries can’t engage other entities for
the recycling of waste batteries.
Which of the statements given above are
incorrect?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
44. With reference to the Freedom of Religion
under the Indian Constitution, consider the
following statements:
1. Unlike the religious freedom of an
individual, the right to freedom of
religion of a group is subject to the
other fundamental rights enshrined in
Part III of the Constitution.
2. The doctrine of ‘essential religious
practices’, that is used to determine
practices essential to a religion, is
applicable to both Article 25 and 26.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
17 | UPSC-MOCK-01
43. हाल ही में चचाा में रहे बैट्री अपनिष्ट् प्रबंधि नियम,
2022, के संदर्ा में निम्ननलखित कथि ं पर निचार
कीनिए:
1. ये बैट्री (प्रबंधि और हैं डनलंग) निनियम 2001
का थथाि लेगा।
2. नियम ं के अिुसार, बैट्री आयातक इस्तेमाल
की गई बैट्ररय ं के पुिचाक्रण के नलए निम्मेदार
िहीं हैं ।
3. ितामाि में केिल म ट्र िाहि तथा औद्य नगक
बैट्ररयां ही नियम ं के दायरे में आती हैं ।
4. नियम ं के अिुसार, बैट्री के निमाा ता बेकार
बैट्ररय ं के ििीिीकरण के नलए अन्य संथथाओं
क िानमल िहीं कर सकते हैं ।
उपयुाक्त कथि ं में से कौि-से गलत हैं ?
(a) केिल 1 और 4
(b) केिल 2 और 3
(c) केिल 1, 2 और 3
(d) केिल 2, 3 और 4
44. भारत र् सोंकवधान के अोंतगुत धमु क स्वतोंत्रता के
सोंदभु में, कनम्नकलखित कथन ों पर कवचार क किए:
1. ककस व्यखक्त क धाकमुक स्वतोंत्रता के कवपर त,
ककस समूह क धाकमुक स्वतोंत्रता का अकधकार
सोंकवधान के भाग III में कनकहत अन्य मौकलक
अकधकार ों के अध न है ।
2. 'आवश्यक धाकमुक प्रथाओों' का कसिाों त,
किसका उपर् ग ककस धमु के कलए आवश्यक
प्रथाओों क कनधाु ररत करने के कलए ककर्ा िाता
है , अनयच्छेद 25 और 26 द न ों पर लागू ह ता है ।
उपर्युक्त कथन ों में से कौन-सा/से सह है /हैं ?
(a) केवल 1
(b) केवल 2
(c) 1 और 2 द न ों
(d) न त 1, न ह 2
`

45. With reference to the Indian economy, 45. र्ारतीय अथाव्यिथथा के संदर्ा में निम्ननलखित कथि ं
consider the following statements: पर निचार कीनिएः
1. Depreciation of rupee will increase the
1. रुपये के अिमूल्यि से कच्चे माल की आयात
import cost of raw materials.
लागत बढे गी।
2. Appreciation leads to increased
incentives for the exporters while 2. अनर्मूल्यि नियाा त करते समय नियाा तक ं के
exporting. नलए प्र त्साहि में िृखद्ध करती है ।
3. If the rupee is rapidly appreciating, RBI 3. अगर रुपया के मूल्य में तीव्र अनर्मूल्यि ह रहा
may buy dollars in the market. है , त आरबीआई बािार में डॉलर िरीद सकता
Which of the statements given above are है ।
correct?
उपयाक्त कथि ं में से कौि-से सही हैं ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (a) केिल 1 और 2
(c) 2 and 3 only (b) केिल 1 और 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) केिल 2 और 3
(d) 1, 2 और 3
46. Which of the following types of nitrogen-
fixing bacteria has its characteristics
correctly matched in the given table? 46. निम्ननलखित में से नकस प्रकार के िाइट्र िि
खथथरीकरण िीिाणु की नििेषताएाँ दी गई तानलका में
S.No. Nitrogen- Characteristics सुमेनलत हैं ?
fixing bacteria
क्रम नाइटर ोजन- वर्शेषताएँ
1. Rhizobium It improves संख्या स्थिरीकरण
access to other बैक्टीररया
nutrients and
boosts the 1. राइि नबयम यह अन्य प षक तत्व ं
crop’s तक पहुं च में सुधार
resistance to
करता है और
pathogens,
र गज़िक ,ं कीट् ं और
pests, and
अिैनिक प्रर्ाि के प्रनत
abiotic stresses
फसल के प्रनतर ध क
2. Frankia It fixes बढाता है ।
atmospheric
Nitrogen by 2. फ़्रैंनकया यह रुट् ि ड्यूलेिि
root nodulation द्वारा िायुमंडलीय
िाइट्र िि का
3. Anabaena It is a free-living खथथरीकरण करता है ।
Azolla Nitrogen-fixing
bacteria 3. अिाबेिा यह एक मुक्त िीिी
अज़ ला िाइट्र िि-खथथरीकरण
Select the correct answer using the codes बैरीररया है ।
given below:
(a) 1 only निम्ननलखित कूट् का प्रय ग कर सही उत्तर का चयि
(b) 1 and 2 only कीनिए:
(c) 2 and 3 only
(a) केिल 1
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) केिल 1 और 2
(c) केिल 2 और 3
(d) 1, 2 और 3

18 | UPSC-MOCK-01
`

47. Regarding famous literary work 47. प्रनसद्ध सानहखत्यक कृनत 'अमुक्तमाल्यद' के संबंध में
‘Amuktamalyada', consider the following निम्ननलखित कथि ं पर निचार कीनिएः
statements:
1. यह कृष्णदे िराय द्वारा नलखित तनमल सानहत्य
1. It is a masterpiece of Tamil literature
की उत्कृष्ट् कृनत है ।
written by Krishnadevaraya.
2. It is dedicated to Lord Shiva. 2. यह र्गिाि निि क समनपात है।
3. The work favours the tradition of 3. कृनत दिाि के अन्य मत ं की तुलिा में
Visishtadvaita philosophy over other निनिष्ट्ाद्वै त दिाि की परं परा का समथाि करता
schools of philosophy. है ।
Which of the statements given above are
उपयुाक्त कथि ं में से कौि-से गलत हैं ?
incorrect?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) केिल 1 और 2
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) केिल 2 और 3
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) केिल 1 और 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 और 3
48. With reference to the expenditure made by
an organisation or a company, which of the 48. नकसी संगठि या कंपिी द्वारा नकए गए व्यय के संदर्ा
following statements is/are correct? में, निम्ननलखित में से कौि सा/से कथि सही है/हैं ?
1. Interest payment against the earlier 1. पहले के उधार ं के बदले ब्याि र्ुगताि क
borrowings is considered to be revenue रािस्व व्यय मािा िाता है ।
expenditure.
2. िेति एिं अन्य र्त्त ं का र्ुगताि रािस्व व्यय में
2. Payment of salaries and other
allowances will be included under सखम्मनलत नकया िायेगा।
revenue expenditure. उपयुाक्त कथि ं में से कौि-सा/से सही है /हैं ?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) केिल 1
correct? (b) केिल 2
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (c) 1 और 2 द ि ं
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) ि त 1, ि ही 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
49. र्ारत में हाथी संरक्षण के संदर्ा में निम्ननलखित कथि ं
49. Consider the following statements with पर निचार कीनिए:
reference to Elephant conservation in
India: 1. निश्व के सर्ी िंगली एनियाई हानथय ं में से आधे
1. More than half of all wild Asian से अनधक र्ारत में पाए िाते हैं ।
elephants in the world are found in 2. नसंगफि एलीफेंट् ररििा र्ारत में अनधसूनचत
India. पहला एलीफेंट् ररििा था।
2. Singphan Elephant Reserve was the 3. ितामाि में, र्ारत में एलीफेंट् ररििा 11 राज्य ं में
first Elephant reserve notified in India. फैले हुए हैं ।
3. At present, the Elephant Reserves in
India are spread over 11 states. उपयुाक्त कथि ं में से कौि-सा/से सही है /हैं ?
Which of the statements given above (a) केिल 1
is/are correct? (b) केिल 1 और 2
(a) 1 only (c) केिल 2 और 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 और 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

19 | UPSC-MOCK-01
`
50. Which one of the following best explains
the ‘Click chemistry’, recently seen in the
news?
(a) It is associated with the directed
evolution of enzymes.
(b) It involves creating new molecules in a
more efficient manner.
(c) It involves high-resolution structure
determination of biomolecules in
solution.
(d) It is a branch of chemistry which
studies molecules with controllable
movements.
51. Consider the following statements:
1. Cold ocean currents have an effect on
desert formation in coastal regions of
the tropical and subtropical continents.
2. Oyashio Current and California
Current are warm ocean currents.
3. The Growth of planktons is favoured
by the mixing of warm and cold
currents.
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
52. Consider the following statements with
reference to Transnistria, that was recently
in the news:
1. It is located in the east of Ukraine.
2. It is not a member of the North Atlantic
Treaty Organisation (NATO).
3. It is not a member of the European
Union.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
20 | UPSC-MOCK-01
50. निम्ननलखित में से कौि सा हाल ही में समाचार ं में रहे
'खक्लक केनमस्ट्र ी' की सट्ीक व्याख्या करता है ?
(a) यह एं िाइम ं के निदे नित निकास से िुड़ा है ।
(b) इसमें अनधक कुिल तरीके से िए अणु का
बििा िानमल है।
(c) इसमें घ ल में िैि-अणुओं का उच्च-ररज़ॉल्यूिि
संरचिा निधाा रण िानमल है ।
(d) यह रसायि निज्ञाि की एक िािा है ि नियंनित
गनत के साथ अणुओं का अध्ययि करती है ।
51. निम्ननलखित कथि ं पर निचार नकनिए:
1. िीत महासागरीय धाराओं का उष्णकनट्बंधीय
और उप ष्णकनट्बंधीय महाद्वीप ं के तट्ीय क्षेि ं
में रे नगस्ताि के निमाा ण पर प्रर्ाि पड़ता है ।
2. ओयानिय धारा और कैनलफ निाया धारा गमा
महासागरीय धाराएाँ हैं ।
3. प्लिक ं की िृखद्ध गमा और ठं डी धाराओं के
नमश्रण से ह ती है।
उपयुाक्त कथि ं में से कौि सा/से सही है /हैं ?
(a) केिल 1 और 3
(b) केिल 2 और 3
(c) केिल 2
(d) 1, 2 और 3
52. हाल ही में चचाा में रहे ट्र ां सनिखस्ट्र या के संदर्ा में
निम्ननलखित कथि ं पर निचार कीनिए:
1. यह यूक्रेि के पूिा में खथथत है ।
2. यह उत्तरी अट्लां नट्क संनध संगठि (NATO)
का सदस्य िहीं है ।
3. यह यूर पीय संघ का सदस्य िहीं है ।
उपयुाक्त कथि ं में से कौि-सा/से सही है /हैं ?
(a) केिल 1
(b) केिल 1 और 3
(c) केिल 2 और 3
(d) 1, 2 और 3
`
53. With reference to the Dhara Mustard
Hybrid-11 (DMH-11), recently in the news,
consider the following statements:
1. Unlike Bt Cotton, DMH-11 is not a
transgenic crop.
2. DMH-11 has an acquired trait of self
pollination, which is not found in the
existing mustard varieties in India.
3. Usage of the DMH-11 crop
commercially may help in addressing
India’s merchandise trade deficit.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
54. Consider the following statements with
reference to ‘Contempt of Court’:
1. Supreme court, High courts and
District courts are authorised to issue
contempt notices.
2. Contempt of court is a ground to
impose reasonable restrictions on the
exercise of the freedom of speech and
expression.
3. In the case of the Supreme Court, the
Attorney General’s consent is
mandatory when a private citizen
wants to initiate a case of contempt of
court against a person.
How many statements given above are
correct?
(a) None of the statements
(b) Only one statement
(c) Only two statements
(d) All three statements
21 | UPSC-MOCK-01
53. हाल ह में चचाु में रहे धारा सरस ों हाइकिड-11
(DMH-11) के सोंदभु में कनम्नकलखित कथन ों पर
कवचार क किएः
1. ब कपास के कवपर त, DMH-11 एक
र ाों सिेकनक फसल नह ों है ।
2. ड एमएच-11 में स्वपरागण का एक अकिुत गयण
है , ि भारत में सरस ों क मौिूदा ककस् ों में नह ों
पार्ा िाता है ।
3. वाकणखज्यक रूप से DMH-11 फसल का
उपर् ग भारत के व्यापाररक व्यापार घा े क
दू र करने में सहार्ता कर सकता है ।
उपर्युक्त कथन ों में से कौन-सा/से सह है /हैं ?
(a) केवल 1 और 2
(b) केवल 2
(c) केवल 1 और 3
(d) केवल 3
54. 'न्यायालय की अिमाििा' के संदर्ा में निम्ननलखित
कथि ं पर निचार कीनिए:
1. सिोच्च न्यायालय, उच्च न्यायालय और निला
न्यायालय अिमाििा ि नट्स िारी करिे के नलए
अनधकृत हैं ।
2. न्यायालय की अिमाििा र्ाषण और
अनर्व्यखक्त की स्वतंिता के अनधकार के प्रय ग
पर युखक्तयुक्त प्रनतबंध लगािे का आधार है ।
3. सिोच्च न्यायालय के मामले में, िब एक नििी
िागररक (Private Citizen) नकसी व्यखक्त के
निरुद्ध न्यायालय की अिमाििा का मामला
िुरू करिा चाहता है , त महान्यायिादी की
सहमनत अनििाया है ।
उपर्युक्त कथन ों में से ककतने सह हैं ?
(a) एक भ कथन नह ों
(b) केवल एक कथन
(c) केवल द कथन
(d) सभ त न ों कथन
`

55. Consider the following statements with 55. 'िेििल पेमेंट् कॉरप रे िि ऑफ इं नडया' के संदर्ा में
reference to ‘National Payment निम्ननलखित कथि ं पर निचार कीनिए:
Corporation of India’:
1. इसे 'गैर लार्कारी' कंपिी के रूप में निगनमत
1. It is incorporated as a ‘Not for Profit’
नकया गया है ।
company
2. NACH is an app incorporated by NPCI 2. NPCI द्वारा NACH ऐप का निकास नकया गया
to make simple and quick transactions है निसके माध्यम से यूनिफाइड पेमेंट् इं ट्रफेस
using Unified Payment Interface (UPI) (UPI) का उपय ग करके सरल और त्वररत
1. 3. NPCI along with other लेिदे ि नकया िा सकता है ।
institutions launched a digital voucher 3. NPCI िे अन्य संथथाि ं के साथ नमलकर एक
known as e-RUPI. नडनिट्ल िाउचर लॉन्च नकया निसे e-RUPI के
Which of the statements given above is/are
िाम से िािा िाता है ।
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only उपयुाक्त कथि ं में से कौि-सा/से सही है /हैं ?
(b) 1 and 3 only (a) केिल 1 और 2
(c) 3 only (b) केिल 1 और 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) केिल 3
56. With reference to the Ghadr Party, consider (d) 1, 2 और 3
the following statements:
1. The Ghadr party was established with 56. ग़दर पाट्ी के संदर्ा में निम्ननलखित कथि ं पर निचार
its headquarters ‘Yugantar Ashram’ at कीनिएः
San Francisco in the United States of
1. गदर पाट्ी की थथापिा संयुक्त राज्य अमेररका
America.
के सैि फ्ां नसस्क में की गई थी निसके
2. One of the reasons for its establishment
was the clash of interest between मुख्यालय का िाम 'युगां तर आश्रम' था।
American and Indian labour. 2. इसकी थथापिा का एक कारण अमेररकी और
Which of the statements given above is/are र्ारतीय श्रनमक ं के बीच नहत ं का ट्कराि था।
correct? उपयुाक्त कथि ं में से कौि-सा/से सही है /हैं ?
(a) 1 only
(a) केिल 1
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) केिल 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1 और 2 द ि ं
(d) ि त 1, ि ही 2
57. With reference to the United Nations
Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the
following statements: 57. समुद्री कािूि पर संयुक्त राष्ट्र अनर्समय के संदर्ा में,
1. The sovereignty of a Coastal State निम्ननलखित कथि ं पर निचार कीनिए:
extends to the air space over the 1. एक तट्ीय राज्य की संप्रर्ुता प्रादे निक समुद्र के
territorial sea as well as to its seabed साथ-साथ उसके समुद्र तल और अध र्ूनम तक
and subsoil. के हिाई क्षेि तक निस्तृत है ।
2. It does not have a provision for the
2. इसमें प्रादे निक िल में युद्धप त ं के संचालि
management of warships in territorial
संबंधी प्रािधाि िहीं है ।
waters.
3. The territorial sea extends beyond 24 3. प्रादे निक समुद्र उस आधार रे िा से 24 समुद्री
nautical miles from the baselines from मील से आगे तक निस्तृत क्षेि है िहााँ से
which the breadth of the territorial sea प्रादे निक समुद्र की चौड़ाई मापी िाती है ।
is measured. उपयुाक्त कथि ं में से कौि-से गलत हैं ?
Which of the statements given above are
(a) केिल 1 और 2
incorrect?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) केिल 2 और 3
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) केिल 1 और 3
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 और 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

22 | UPSC-MOCK-01
`

58. Consider the following statements 58. "िाों म कयोंि कवतरण (QKD)" के सोंदभु में,
regarding “Quantum Key Distribution कनम्नकलखित कथन ों पर कवचार क किए:
(QKD)”: 1. इसमें डे ा के एखरक्रप्शन के कलए बाइनर क ड
1. It uses binary codes for encryption of का उपर् ग ककर्ा िाता है ।
data.
2. र्कद क ई त सरा पक्ष सोंचार कलोंक पर कछपकर
2. It can detect if a third party tries to
eavesdrop on a communication link. बातें सयनने का प्रर्ास करता है , त र्ह उसका
3. ISRO has achieved free space पता लगा सकता है ।
Quantum satellite communication. 3. इसर ने मयक्त अोंतररक्ष िाों म उपग्रह सोंचार
Which of the above given statements is/are हाकसल कर कलर्ा है ।
correct? उपर्युक्त कथन ों में से कौन सा/से सह है /हैं ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) केवल 1 और 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) केवल 2
(d) 2 and 3 only (c) केवल 1 और 3
(d) केवल 2 और
59. Consider the following statements with
reference to mass movements:
1. Weathering is a prerequisite for mass 59. िृहत संचलि के संदर्ा में निम्ननलखित कथि ं पर
movements. निचार कीनिए:
2. Mass movements are aided by glaciers, 1. िृहत संचलि के नलए अपक्षय एक पूिाापेक्षा है ।
gravity and running water. 2. वृहत सोंचलन में कहमनद, गयरुत्वाकिुण और
3. Although there is a migration of बहता पान सहार्क ह ता है ।
materials from one location to another,
3. यद्यनप पदाथों का एक थथाि से दू सरे थथाि पर
mass movements are not equivalent to
erosion. खिसकाि ह ता है, तथानप िृहत संचलि
Which of the statements given above is/are अपरदि के समतुल्य िहीं ह ता है ।
correct? उपयुाक्त कथि ं में से कौि-सा/से सही है /हैं ?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) केिल 1 और 2
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) केिल 2 और 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 only (c) 1, 2 और 3
(d) केिल 3
60. Which one of the following has recently
launched the Green Fins Hub, a global
60. निम्ननलखित में से नकसके द्वारा हाल ही में थथायी
digital platform for sustainable marine
समुद्री पयाट्ि के नलए एक िैनश्वक नडनिट्ल प्लेट्फॉमा
tourism?
'ग्रीि नफस हब' लॉन्च नकया है ?
(a) Global Environment Facility (GEF)
(b) United Nations Environmental (a) ग्ल बल एििायरिमेंट् फैनसनलट्ी (GEF)
Programme (UNEP) (b) संयुक्त राष्ट्र पयाािरण कायाक्रम (UNEP)
(c) Intergovernmental Panel on Climate (c) िलिायु पररिताि पर अंतर सरकारी पैिल
Change (IPCC) (IPCC)
(d) The International Union for
Conservation of Nature (IUCN) (d) प्रकृनत संरक्षण के नलए अंतराा ष्ट्रीय संघ (IUCN)

23 | UPSC-MOCK-01
`

61. Consider the following statements with 61. हाल ही में चचाा में रहे िीर घाट्ी (Ziro Valley) के
reference to the Ziro valley, that was संदर्ा में निम्ननलखित कथि ं पर निचार करें कीनिए:
recently in the news:
1. इसे िषा 2021 में यूिेस्क के निश्व धर हर थथल
1. It was designated as a UNESCO World
के रूप में िानमत नकया गया था।
Heritage site in the year 2021.
2. The kiwis that grow in Arunachal 2. अरुणाचल प्रदे ि की िीर घाट्ी (ziro Valley)
Pradesh's Ziro Valley are India’s first में उगिे िाला कीिी र्ारत का प्रथम प्रमानणत
certified organic fruit. िैनिक फल है ।
Which of the statements given above is/are उपयुाक्त कथि ं में से कौि-सा/से गलत है /हैं ?
incorrect?
(a) केिल 1
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) केिल 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1 और 2 द ि ं
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) ि त 1, ि ही 2

62. With reference to the Konark Sun Temple,

62. क णाकु सूर्ु मोंकदर के सोंदभु में कनम्नकलखित कथन ों
consider the following statements:
1. The Sun temple at Konark belongs to पर कवचार क किएः
the Vesara School of Indian temple 1. क णाकु का सूर्ु मोंकदर भारत र् मोंकदर
architecture. स्थापत्यकला के वेसर शैल से सोंबोंकधत है ।
2. It was built under the reign of King 2. र्ह पूवी गोंग रािवोंश के रािा नरकसोंहदे व प्रथम
Narasimhadeva I of the Eastern Ganga के शासनकाल में बनार्ा गर्ा था।
Dynasty. 3. मोंकदर क छत पर गहरे काले रों ग के कनशान के
3. It is also referred as Black Pagoda due कारण इसे ब्लैक पैग डा भ कहा िाता है ।
to the darkish impression of the roof of उपर्युक्त कथन ों में से कौन-सा/से सह है /हैं ?
the temple. (a) केवल 1 और 2
Which of the statements given above is/are (b) केवल 2 और 3
correct?
(c) केवल 2
(a) 1 and 2 only
(d) केवल 1 और 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only 63. "इों सयकलन" के सोंदभु में कनम्नकलखित कथन ों पर कवचार
क किए:
63. Consider the following statements related 1. मधयमेह के इलाि के कलए पशय और मानव
to “Insulin”: इों सयकलन द न ों का उपर् ग दवा के रूप में ककर्ा
1. Both Animal and Human insulin is िाता है ।
used as medication for treatment of 2. इों सयकलन सोंवेदनश लता कितन अकधक ह ग ,
Diabetes.
रक्त शकुरा का स्तर उतना ह अकधक ह गा।
2. Higher the insulin sensitivity higher
the blood glucose level. 3. अल्पार्य मधयमेह में इों सयकलन प्रकतर ध का पररणाम
3. Insulin resistance results in juvenile ह ता है ।
diabetes. उपर्युक्त कथन ों में से कौन-सा/से गलत है/हैं ?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) केवल 1
incorrect? (b) केवल 1 और 2
(a) 1 only
(c) केवल 1 और 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) केवल 2 और 3
(d) 2 and 3 only

24 | UPSC-MOCK-01
`

64. Which one of the following would violate
the Basic Structure of the Indian
Constitution?
(a) Keeping election disputes involving
the Speaker outside the jurisdiction of
all Courts.
(b) Suspension of enforcement of Article
19 during external emergency under
article 352.
(c) Reorganising of all States and Union
territories in India.
(d) Empowering the District Courts with
Writ jurisdiction.
65. Which of the following contains all beaches
conferred with the Blue Flag Certification
in India?
(a) Kovalam Beach, Eden Beach,
Chowpatty Beach
(b) Golden Beach, Kovalam Beach,
Kappad Beach
(c) Rushikonda Beach, Chowpatty Beach,
Eden Beach
(d) Juhu Beach, Rushikonda Beach,
Kovalam Beach
66. Consider the following statements with
reference to Non-Convertible Debentures:
1. Non Convertible debentures offer a
higher rate of return compared to
convertible debentures.
2. They are insured by Deposit Insurance
and Credit Guarantee Corporation.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
64. कनम्नकलखित में से कौन भारत र् सोंकवधान के मूल
ढाों चे का उल्लोंघन करता है ?
(a) अध्यक्ष से ियड़े चयनाव कववाद ों क सभ
न्यार्ालर् ों के अकधकार क्षेत्र से बाहर रिना।
(b) अनयच्छेद 352 के तहत बाह्य आपातकाल के
दौरान अनयच्छेद 19 के प्रवतुन का कनलोंबन।
(c) भारत में सभ राज्य ों और केंद्र शाकसत प्रदे श ों
का पयनगुठन।
(d) किला न्यार्ालर् ों क रर क्षेत्राकधकार के साथ
सशक्त बनाना।
65. निम्ननलखित में से नकस निकल्प में र्ारत में ब्लू फ्लैग
प्रमाणि से सम्मानित सर्ी समुद्र तट् िानमल हैं ?
(a) क िलम बीच, ईडि बीच, चौपाट्ी बीच
(b) ग ल्डि बीच, क िलम बीच, कप्पड बीच
(c) रुनिक ड
ं ा बीच, चौपाट्ी बीच, ईडि बीच
(d) िुहू बीच, रुनिक ड
ं ा बीच, क िलम बीच
66. गैर-पररितािीय नडबेंचर के संदर्ा में, निम्ननलखित
कथि ं पर निचार कीनिए:
1. पररितािीय नडबेंचर की तुलिा में गैर पररितािीय
नडबेंचर पर नमलिे िाले ररट्िा की दर उच्च ह ती
है ।
2. नडपॉनिट् इं श्य रें स एं ड क्रेनडट् गारं ट्ी
कॉरप रे िि द्वारा ये बीनमत ह ते हैं ।
उपयुाक्त कथि ं में से कौि-सा/से सही है /हैं ?
(a) केिल 1
(b) केिल 2
(c) 1 और 2 द ि ं
(d) ि त 1, ि ही 2

25 | UPSC-MOCK-01
`

67. Consider the following statements related
to Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV),
recently in the news:
1. Its propellant systems are an exact
replica of the Polar Satellite Launch
Vehicle.
2. Due to its small size, it can only launch
one satellite at a time.
3. It has much lower turnaround time
compared to other launch Vehicles.
4. It can launch vehicles in Low Earth
orbit only.
How many statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) Only one statement
(b) Only two statements
(c) Only three statements
(d) All four statements
67. हाल ह में चचाु में रहे लघय उपग्रह प्रक्षेपण र्ान
(SSLV) से सोंबोंकधत कनम्नकलखित कथन ों पर कवचार
क किए:
1. इसक प्रण दक प्रणाकलर्ाों ध्रयव र् उपग्रह
प्रक्षेपण र्ान क स क प्रकतकृकत है ।
2. अपने छ े आकार के कारण र्ह एक समर् में
केवल एक ह उपग्रह क प्रक्षेकपत कर सकता
है ।
3. अन्य प्रक्षेपण र्ान ों क तयलना में इसका
नुअराउों ड समर् बहुत कम है ।
4. र्ह केवल कनम्न-भू कक्षाओों में ह र्ान ों क
प्रक्षेकपत कर सकता है ।
उपर्युक्त ककतने कथन सह है /हैं ?
(a) केवल एक कथन
(b) केवल द कथन
(c) केवल त न कथन
(d) सभ चार ों कथन

68. Consider the following Pairs:

68. निम्ननलखित युग् ं पर निचार कीनिए:
Sl. King Dynasty
No. क्रम संख्या राजा राजर्ंश

1. Aditya I Pallavas 1. आनदत्य I पल्लि

2. Harjaravarman Salamba 2. हरिारािमाि सलम्बा

3. Dantidurga Rashtrakutas
3. दखिदु गा राष्ट्रकूट्
4. Vatsaraja Pratihara
4. ित्सराि प्रनतहार
How many pairs given above are correctly
matched? उपयुाक्त युग् ं में से नकतिे सुमेनलत हैं ?
(a) One pair only (a) केिल एक युग्
(b) Two pairs only
(c) Three pairs only (b) केिल द युग्
(d) All four pairs (c) केिल तीि युग्
(d) सर्ी चार युग्

26 | UPSC-MOCK-01
`

69. Consider the following pairs: 69. निम्ननलखित युग् ं पर निचार कीनिए:

Sl. Regions sometimes Country क्रम कभी-कभी दे श

No. mentioned in news संख्या समाचारों में
उस्िस्खत क्षेत्र
1. Kutupalong- Myanmar
Balukhali refugee 1. कुट्ु पल ग
ं -बालूिली म्यां मार
camp
िरणाथी निनिर
2. Port of Odessa Ukraine
2. ओडे सा बंदरगाह यूक्रेि
3. Butembo Democratic
Republic of 3. बुट्ेम्ब कां ग
Congo ल कतां निक
गणराज्य
4. Nusantara Indonesia
4. िुसंतरा इं ड िेनिया
Which of the pairs given above are
correctly matched?
(a) 2, 3 and 4 only उपयुाक्त युग् ं में से कौि-से सुमेनलत हैं ?
(b) 3 and 4 only (a) केिल 2, 3 और 4
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) केिल 3 और 4
(d) 2 and 4 only
(c) केिल 1 और 3
70. With reference to Lithium, consider the (d) केिल 2 और 4
following statements:
1. Lithium has wide applications in 70. कलकथर्म के सोंदभु में कनम्नकलखित कथन ों पर कवचार
batteries, nuclear and photovoltaic क किएः
industries.
1. बै र , परमाणय और फ व खिक उद्य ग ों िैसे
2. India’s first ever Lithium deposit was
क्षेत्र में कलकथर्म का व्यापक अनयप्रर् ग है ।
found in Karnataka.
3. Australia is home to the world’s largest 2. र्ारत का पहला नलनथयम र्ंडार किाा ट्क में
Lithium reserves. पाया गया था।
4. Lithium-rich stars burn Helium in their 3. ऑस्ट्र े नलया में दु निया का सबसे बड़े नलनथयम
core. र्ंडार है ।
Which of the statements given above are
4. नलनथयम से र्रपूर तारे अपिे क र में हीनलयम
correct?
क िला (उपय ग) करते हैं ।
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only उपयुाक्त कथि ं में से कौि-से सही हैं ?
(c) 3 and 4 only (a) केिल 1 और 2
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) केिल 1, 2 और 4
(c) केिल 3 और 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 और 4

27 | UPSC-MOCK-01
`
71. Consider the following statements with
reference to Open Network for Digital
Commerce (ONDC):
1. It will act as a hosting platform for e-
commerce activities.
2. Under ONDC, both the buyer and
seller have to use the same platform or
application to do a business
transaction.
3. All digital commerce applications can
voluntarily choose to adopt to ONDC.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
72. In the context of Asian Palm Oil Alliance
(APOA), recently seen in the news,
consider the following statements:
1. It is an initiative of apex edible oil
industry associations of countries
including India and China.
2. The alliance works toward reducing
member countries' dependency on
imports of palm oil.
3. Indonesia and Malaysia are the world's
biggest exporters of palm oil.
4. Asia accounts for more than fifty
percent of the global palm oil
consumption.
How many statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) Only one statement
(b) Only two statements
(c) Only three statements
(d) All four statements
73. Consider the following statements with
reference to Tiger conservation in India:
1. At present, India has more than 70% of
the world's wild tiger population.
2. Currently, all the tiger reserves in India
have the Conservation Assured Tiger
Standards (CA|TS) certification.
3. At present, the Anamalai tiger reserve
has the highest tiger density among
India’s tiger reserves.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
28 | UPSC-MOCK-01
71. कडकि ल कॉमसु के कलर्े ओपन ने वकु (ONDC)
के सोंदभु में, कनम्नकलखित कथन ों पर कवचार क किए:
1. र्ह ई-कॉमसु गकतकवकधर् ों के कलर्े एक ह खस्टों ग
प्ले फॉमु के रूप में कार्ु करे गा।
2. ONDC के अोंतगुत, क्रेता और कवक्रेता द न ों क
व्यापाररक लेनदे न करने के कलर्े एक ह
प्ले फॉमु र्ा एखप्लकेशन का उपर् ग करना
ह ता है ।
3. सभ कडकि ल कॉमसु एखप्लकेशन स्वेच्छा से
ONDC क अपनाने का कवकल्प चयन सकते हैं ।
उपर्युक्त कथन ों में से कौन-सा/से सह है /हैं ?
(a) केवल 1 और 2
(b) 1, 2 और 3
(c) केवल 3
(d) केवल 1 और 3
72. हाल ह में चचाु में रहे एकशर्न पाम ऑर्ल गठबोंधन
(APOA) के सोंदभु में, कनम्नकलखित कथन ों पर कवचार
क किए:
1. र्ह भारत और च न सकहत दे श ों के श िु िाद्य
तेल उद्य ग सोंघ ों क एक पहल है।
2. र्ह गठबोंधन पाम ऑर्ल (ताड़ के तेल) के
आर्ात पर सदस्य दे श ों क कनभुरता क कम
करने क कदशा में काम करता है।
3. इों ड नेकशर्ा और मलेकशर्ा ताड़ के तेल के
दय कनर्ा के सबसे बड़े कनर्ाु तक हैं।
4. वैकश्वक स्तर पर ताड़ के तेल क िपत में एकशर्ा
क कहस्सेदार 50 प्रकतशत से अकधक है ।
उपर्युक्त कथन ों में से कौन सा/से सह हैं /हैं ?
(a) केवल एक कथन
(b) केवल द कथन
(c) केवल त न कथन
(d) सभ चार ों कथन
73. र्ारत में बाघ संरक्षण के संदर्ा में, निम्ननलखित कथि ं
पर निचार कीनिए:
1. ितामाि में, र्ारत में दु निया की 70% से अनधक
िंगली बाघ आबादी है ।
2. ितामाि में, र्ारत के सर्ी बाघ अर्यारण् ं में
संरक्षण सुनिनित बाघ मािक (CA|TS)
प्रमाणि है ।
3. ितामाि में, अिामलाई बाघ अर्यारण् में र्ारत
के बाघ अर्यारण् ं में सबसे अनधक बाघ घित्व
है ।
उपयुाक्त कथि ं में से कौि-सा/से सही है /हैं ?
(a) केिल 1
(b) केिल 1 और 2
(c) केिल 2 और 3
(d) 1, 2 और 3
`
74. With reference to India’s updated
Nationally Determined Contribution
(NDC), recently in the news, consider the
following statements:
1. The updated NDC added sector-
specific mitigation commitments to
India's NDC targets.
2. India's updated NDC is expected to be
implemented between 2021 and 2030.
3. According to her latest NDC, India is
now committed to reducing its GDP
emissions intensity by 45% by 2030
from 2005 levels.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
75. Which one of the following policy
measures are likely to be taken by the
government to control inflation?
(a) Increasing the income tax rates.
(b) Monetising the debt of the
government
(c) Increasing transfer payments
(d) Removing stock limits on essential
goods.
76. With reference to the Anti-defection law,
consider the following statements:
1. A Member of Legislative Assembly
(MLA), holding a position in another
political party without resigning from
his/her existing party, will be exempt
from the purview of anti-defection law.
2. In the absence of the Speaker, the
Deputy Speaker is empowered to
conduct the disqualification
proceedings under the law.
3. The Supreme Court of India can
remove a minister against whom a
disqualification petition is pending,
under Article 142 of the Indian
Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
29 | UPSC-MOCK-01
74. हाल ही में समाचार ं में रहे र्ारत के अद्यनतत राष्ट्रीय
स्तर पर निधाा ररत य गदाि (NDC) के संदर्ा में,
निम्ननलखित कथि ं पर निचार कीनिए:
1. अद्यनतत एिडीसी िे र्ारत के एिडीसी लक्ष् ं के
नलये क्षेि-निनिष्ट् िमि प्रनतबद्धताओं क ि ड़ा।
2. र्ारत का अद्यनतत एिडीसी िषा 2021 से 2030
के बीच लागू ह िे की उम्मीद है ।
3. उिके ििीितम एिडीसी के अिुसार, र्ारत
अब िषा 2005 के स्तर से 2030 तक अपिी
िीडीपी उत्सिाि तीव्रता क 45% तक कम
करिे के नलए प्रनतबद्ध है ।
उपयुाक्त कथि ं में से कौि-सा/से सही है /हैं ?
(a) केिल 1 और 3
(b) केिल 2
(c) केिल 2 और 3
(d) 1, 2 और 3
75. मुद्रास्फीनत क नियंनित करिे के नलए सरकार द्वारा
निम्ननलखित में से कौि-सा िीनतगत उपाय नकए िािे
की संर्ाििा है ?
(a) आयकर की दर ं में िृखद्ध
(b) सरकार के कज़ा का मुद्रीकरण
(c) थथािां तरण र्ुगताि बढािा
(d) आिश्यक िस्तुओं पर र्ंडारण की सीमा क
हट्ािा।
76. दलबदल कवर ध कानून के सोंदभु में कनम्नकलखित
कथन ों पर कवचार क किएः
1. एक कवधान सभा सदस्य (MLA), ि अपन
मौिूदा पा ी से इस्त फा कदए कबना ककस अन्य
रािन कतक दल में पद धारण करता है , क
दलबदल कवर ध कानून के दार्रे से छू द
िाएग ।
2. अध्यक्ष क अनयपखस्थकत में , उपाध्यक्ष क कानून
के तहत अर् ग्यता कार्ुवाह करने का
अकधकार है ।
3. भारत र् सोंकवधान के अनयच्छेद 142 के तहत
भारत का सवोच्च न्यार्ालर् ऐसे मोंत्र क पद से
ह ा सकता है किसके खिलाफ अर् ग्यता
र्ाकचका लोंकबत ह ।
उपर्युक्त कथन ों में से कौन-सा/से सह है /हैं ?
(a) केवल 1 और 2
(b) केवल 2
(c) केवल 1 और 3
(d) केवल 2 और 3
`

77. Which of the following can be the 77. 'चािल के प्रत्यक्ष बीिार पण' निनध के निम्ननलखित में
advantages of the ‘Direct Seeding of Rice’ से कौि-से लार् ह सकते हैं ?
method?
1. फसल पररपिता अिनध में कमी
1. Early crop maturity
2. Conservation of soil moisture 2. मृदा की िमी का संरक्षण
3. Reduced water consumption 3. पािी की िपत में कमी
4. Reduction in methane emissions 4. मीथेि उत्सिाि में कमी
Select the correct answer using the codes
निम्ननलखित कूट् का प्रय ग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए:
given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (a) केिल 1, 2 और 3
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) केिल 2 और 3
(c) 1 and 4 only (c) केिल 1 और 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 और 4
78. Consider the following:
1. East Asia Summit 78. निम्ननलखित पर निचार कीनिए:
2. I2U2 1. पूिी एनिया नििर सम्मेलि
3. Coffee Club 2. I2U2
4. The Partners in the Blue Pacific
3. कॉफी क्लब
India is a member of which of the
groupings given above? 4. द पाट्ा िसा इि द ब्लू पैनसनफक
(a) 1 and 2 only र्ारत उपयुाक्त समूह ं में से नकसका सदस्य है ?
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only (a) केिल 1 और 2
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) केिल 1, 2 और 3
(c) केिल 2 और 3
79. Consider the following statements with (d) केिल 1, 3 और 4
reference to “Nanosponges”:
1. It consists of a polymeric nanoparticle
79. "िैि स्पंि" (स्पंि कण) के संदर्ा में, निम्ननलखित
core.
2. It is biodegradable and is stable at high कथि ं पर निचार कीनिए:
temperatures. 1. इसमें एक बहुलकीय िैि कण क र ह ता है ।
3. It is used in targeted drug delivery. 2. यह िैि-निम्नीकरणीय है और उच्च तापमाि पर
Which of the statements given above is/are थथायी ह ता है ।
correct?
3. इसका उपय ग लनक्षत दिा नितरण में नकया
(a) 1 and 2 only
िाता है ।
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 only उपयुाक्त कथि ं में से कौि-सा/से सही है /हैं ?
(d) 1 and 3 only (a) केिल 1 और 2
(b) 1, 2 और 3
(c) केिल 3
(d) केिल 1 और 3

30 | UPSC-MOCK-01
`
80. Which one of the following statements is
incorrect with reference to the Galápagos
Islands, recently seen in the news?
(a) The Galápagos Islands are influenced
by the equatorial ocean current.
(b) It is designated as a UNESCO World
Heritage Site.
(c) The group of islands has no recognized
active volcano.
(d) The island group is influenced by the
climatic phenomena of El Niño.
81. Consider the following statements:
1. In India, the combined non-
agricultural methane annual emission
is less than the annual agricultural
emission of methane.
2. Reduction in methane emission is one
of the strategies of climate change
adaptation.
3. Global Methane Pledge is an initiative
of UNFCCC to collectively reduce
methane emissions by at least 30%
below 2020 levels by 2030.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
82. Consider the following statements with
reference to the Central Bank Digital
Currency (CBDC) as proposed by the
Reserve Bank of India (RBI):
1. It can be exchanged one-to-one at par
with the fiat currency.
2. A bank account is essential to hold the
CBDC.
3. CBDC wholesale (CBDC-W) is
restricted to financial institutions.
How many of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) None of the statements
(b) Only one statement
(c) Only two statements
(d) All three statements
31 | UPSC-MOCK-01
80. हाल ही में चचाा में रहे गैलापाग स द्वीप समूह के संदर्ा
में, निम्ननलखित कथि ं में से कौि-सा गलत है ?
(a) गैलापाग स द्वीप समूह निषुितीय महासागरीय
धारा से प्रर्ानित हैं ।
(b) इसे यूिेस्क की निश्व धर हर थथल के रूप में
िानमत नकया गया है ।
(c) इस द्वीप समूह में क ई मान्यता प्राप्त सनक्रय
ज्वालामुिी िहीं है ।
(d) द्वीप समूह अल िीि िलिायु घट्िा से प्रर्ानित
है ।
81. कनम्नकलखित कथन ों पर कवचार क किए:
1. भारत में, सोंर्यक्त गैर-कृकि म थेन वाकिुक
उत्सिुन, म थेन के वाकिुक कृकि उत्सिुन से
कम है ।
2. म थेन उत्सिुन में कम , िलवार्य पररवतुन
अनयकूलन रणन कतर् ों में से एक है ।
3. ग्ल बल म थेन प्लेि र्ूएनएफस स स
(UNFCCC) क एक पहल है ि सामूकहक रूप
से 2030 तक 2020 के स्तर से कम से कम
30% न चे म थेन उत्सिुन क कम करने के
कलए है ।
उपर्युक्त कथन ों में से कौन-सा/से सह है /हैं ?
(a) केवल 1 और 2
(b) केवल 2
(c) केवल 3
(d) 1, 2 और 3
82. र्ारतीय ररििा बैंक (RBI) द्वारा प्रस्तानित केंद्रीय बैंक
नडनिट्ल मुद्रा (CBDC) के संदर्ा में निम्ननलखित
कथि ं पर निचार कीनिए:
1. इसे नफएट् मुद्रा के बराबर समाि पररमाण में
निनिमय नकया िा सकता है ।
2. सीबीडीसी रििे के नलए एक बैंक िाता
आिश्यक है ।
3. सीबीडीसी थ क (CBDC-W) नित्तीय संथथाि ं
तक ही सीनमत है ।
उपर्युक्त कथन ों में से ककतने सह है /हैं ?
(a) एक भ कथन नह ों
(b) केवल एक कथन
(c) केवल द कथन
(d) सभ त न ों कथन
`
83. Consider the following statements with
reference to the Lodi empire in India:
1. Sultan Bahlol Lodi used to call his
fellow Afghan nobles ‘masnad-i ali’
and never sat on the throne in front of
them.
2. During the rule of Sultan Ibrahim Lodi,
Vasco da Gama landed in India.
3. Babur defeated Sultan Sikandar Lodi at
the Battle of Panipat in 1526 CE.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
84. Consider the following statements with
reference to the Shanghai Cooperation
Organization (SCO) recently seen in the
news:
1. Recently, Iran and Afghanistan have
been added as permanent members of
the Organization.
2. Executive Committee of the Regional
Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) is
headquatered in Beijing.
3. Tirupati was declared as first-ever SCO
Tourism and Cultural Capital for 2022-
2023 at Samarkand Summit.
4. India will hold the presidency of the
grouping for a year until September
2023 and will also host the 2023 SCO
summit.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 4 only
32 | UPSC-MOCK-01
83. र्ारत में ल दी साम्राज्य के संदर्ा में निम्ननलखित
कथि ं पर निचार कीनिए:
1. सुल्ताि बहल ल ल दी अपिे साथी अफगाि
रईस ं क 'मसिद-ए अली' कहकर बुलाता था
और उिके सामिे कर्ी गद्दी पर िहीं बैठता था।
2. सुल्ताि इब्रानहम ल दी के िासि के दौराि,
िास्क डी गामा र्ारत आया था।
3. 1526 ई. में पािीपत के युद्ध में बाबर िे सुल्ताि
नसकंदर ल दी क हराया।
उपयुाक्त कथि ं में से कौि-सा/से सही है /हैं ?
(a) केिल 1
(b) केिल 1 और 2
(c) केिल 3
(d) 1, 2 और 3
84. हाल ही में चचाा में रहे िंघाई सहय ग संगठि (SCO)
के संदर्ा में निम्ननलखित कथि ं पर निचार कीनिए:
1. हाल ही में, ईराि और अफगानिस्ताि क
संगठि के थथायी सदस्य ं के रूप में िानमल
नकया गया है ।
2. क्षेिीय आतंकिाद निर धी संरचिा (RATS) की
कायाकारी सनमनत का मुख्यालय बीनिंग में है ।
3. समरकंद नििर सम्मेलि में नतरुपनत क 2022-
2023 के नलए पहली बार एससीओ पयाट्ि और
सां स्कृनतक रािधािी घ नषत नकया गया था।
4. र्ारत नसतंबर 2023 तक एक साल के नलए
समूह की अध्यक्षता करे गा और 2023 एससीओ
नििर सम्मेलि की मेिबािी र्ी करे गा।
उपयुाक्त कथि ं में से कौि-सा/से सही है /हैं ?
(a) केिल 1, 2 और 4
(b) केिल 2 और 3
(c) केिल 1, 2 और 3
(d) केिल 4
`

85. "CAR-T cell therapy is touted as a 85. "CAR-T सेल थेरेप क कैंसर र कगर् ों के कलए एक
revolutionary treatment for Cancer क्राों कतकार उपचार के रूप में िाना िाता है । र्ह
patients'. It is related to- सोंबोंकधत है :
(a) Radiation Therapy (a) रे कडएशन थेरेप से
(b) Surgical Therapy
(b) सकिुकल थेरेप से
(c) Hormone Therapy
(d) Immunotherapy (c) हामोन थेरेप से
(d) इम्यून थेरेप से
86. Which of the following statements are
correct with reference to the powers of
86. संनिधाि की छठी अिुसूची के तहत निला पररषद ं
District Councils under the Sixth Schedule
की िखक्तय ं के संदर्ा में निम्ननलखित कथि ं में से
of the Constitution?
कौि सा सही है ?
1. Making of laws related to land and
forests. 1. र्ूनम और िि ं से संबंनधत कािूि बिािा।
2. Constitution of courts for trial of cases 2. िििानतय ं के बीच मामल ं की सुििाई के नलए
between the tribes. न्यायालय ं का गठि करिा।
3. Making regulations for the control of
3. गैर-आनदिानसय ं द्वारा उधार दे िे और व्यापार
money lending and trading by non-
करिे पर नियंिण के नलए नियम बिािा।
tribals.
4. Collection of land revenue. 4. र्ू-रािस्व की िसूली।
Select the correct answer using the codes निम्ननलखित कूट् का प्रय ग कर सही उत्तर का चयि
given below: कीनिए:
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) केिल 1 और 2
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) केिल 2, 3 और 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) केिल 1, 3 और 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 और 4
87. Which of the following schemes comes
under ‘NABARD Sponsored Schemes’:
87. निम्ननलखित में से कौि सी य ििा 'िाबाडा प्राय नित
1. Producers Organisation Development
Fund य ििाओं' के अंतगात आती है:
2. Watershed Development Programme 1. उत्पादक संगठि निकास क ष
3. Tribal Development Programme 2. िाट्रिेड निकास कायाक्रम
4. Micro Enterprise Development 3. िििातीय निकास कायाक्रम
Programme
Select the correct answer using the codes 4. सूक्ष्म उद्यम निकास कायाक्रम
given below: निम्ननलखित कूट् का प्रय ग कर सही उत्तर का चयि
(a) 1 and 2 only कीनिए:
(b) 2 only (a) केिल 1 और 2
(c) 3 and 4 only
(b) केिल 2
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) केिल 3 और 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 और 4

33 | UPSC-MOCK-01
`
88. With reference to Indian history, consider
the following statements:
1. The Dutch captured Nagapatam from
the Britishers and made it their main
stronghold in South India.
2. The Portuguese captured Salsette and
Bassein from the Marathas.
3. The Britishers received Bombay as a
dowry from the Portuguese when King
Charles II married the Portuguese
princess Catherine.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
89. “This type of climate is characterised by
hot, rainy seasons and cool, dry seasons.
The prevailing winds of the region are
trade winds. The diurnal range of
temperature is extreme in this type of
climate. The vegetation is characterised by
tall grass and short trees. The terms
‘parkland’ or ‘bush-veld’ is used to
describe the landscape of the region.”
Which one of the following climate types is
described in the above given passage?
(a) Tropical Marine Climate
(b) Warm Temperate Western Margin
Climate
(c) Cool Temperate Western Margin
Climate
(d) The Savanna Climate
90. Which one of the following statements is
correct with reference to the Export
Oriented Units (EOU) scheme, mentioned
in the Foreign Trade Policy of India?
(a) Supplies to EOU are exempt from
Goods and Services Tax (GST).
(b) EOUs are not permitted to engage in
sales in the Domestic Tariff Area.
(c) EOUs are set up exclusively for export
of goods and not services.
(d) 100% Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)
investment through automatic route is
permitted in EOUs
34 | UPSC-MOCK-01
88. र्ारतीय इनतहास के संदर्ा में निम्ननलखित कथि ं पर
निचार कीनिएः
1. डच ं िे अंग्रेि ं से िागपट्टम छीि नलया और इसे
दनक्षण र्ारत में अपिा मुख्य गढ बिा नलया।
2. पुतागानलय ं िे मराठ ं से सालसेट् और बेनसि
छीि नलया।
3. अंग्रेि ं िे बॉम्बे क पुतागानलय ं से दहे ि के रूप
में प्राप्त नकया िब रािा चार्ल्ा नद्वतीय िे
पुतागाली रािकुमारी कैथरीि से िादी की।
उपयुाक्त कथि ं में से कौि-सा/से सही है /हैं ?
(a) केिल 1
(b) केिल 2 और 3
(c) 1, 2 और 3
(d) केिल 3
89. "इस प्रकार की िलिायु की नििेषता उष्ण, बरसाती
मौसम तथा िीत, िुष्क मौसम है। क्षेि की प्रचनलत
पििें व्यापाररक पििें हैं । इस प्रकार की िलिायु में
दै निक तापमाि का परास चरम पर ह ता है । ििस्पनत
की नििेषता लंबी घास और छ ट्े पेड़ हैं । क्षेि के र्ू-
दृश्य का िणाि करिे के नलए 'पाकालैंड' या 'बुि-िेल्ड'
िब्द का प्रय ग नकया िाता है ।"
उपयुाक्त पररच्छे द में निम्ननलखित में से नकस प्रकार
की िलिायु का िणाि नकया गया है ?
(a) उष्णकनट्बंधीय समुद्री िलिायु
(b) उष्ण िीत ष्ण पनिमी सीमां त िलिायु
(c) िीत िीत ष्ण पनिमी सीमां त िलिायु
(d) सिािा िलिायु
90. र्ारत की निदे ि व्यापार िीनत में उखल्लखित नियाा त
उन्मुि इकाई (ईओयू) य ििा के संदर्ा में
निम्ननलखित कथि ं में से कौि सा सही है ?
(a) ईओयू क की िािे िाली आपूनता क िस्तु एिं
सेिा कर (िीएसट्ी) से छूट् प्राप्त है ।
(b) ईओयू क घरे लू प्रिुल्क क्षेि में नबक्री करिे की
अिुमनत िहीं है ।
(c) ईओयू नििेष रूप से िस्तुओं के नियाा त के नलए
थथानपत नकए िाते हैं ि नक सेिाओं के नलए।
(d) ईओयू में स्वत: मागा के माध्यम से 100% प्रत्यक्ष
निदे िी नििेि (एफडीआई) प्राप्त करिे की
अिुमनत है ।
`
91. Which one of the following statements is
incorrect with reference to the ‘Project
Cheetah’?
(a) This is the world's first intercontinental
translocation project for large wild
carnivores.
(b) It is a kind of project in which a species
is being restored in the country by
bringing it from another country.
(c) Under the project, the subspecies of
Cheetah which is being introduced
back into the country are African
Cheetah.
(d) The cheetah reintroduction in India is
being overseen by the Animal Welfare
Board of India.
92. “India adopted Quasi-federalism that
made the Union government and State
governments interdependent on each other
(latter more vis-a-vis the former).” Which
of the following can be considered as the
reasons for the same?
1. Partition of India and safeguarding the
integrity of the nation
2. Need of a national civic identity
3. Vision of building a welfare state
4. Alleviation of inter-regional economic
inequality
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
35 | UPSC-MOCK-01
91. 'प्र िेर चीता' के संदर्ा में निम्ननलखित कथि ं में से
कौि सा गलत है ?
(a) यह बड़े िंगली मां साहाररय ं के नलए दु निया की
पहली अंतरमहाद्वीपीय थथािािरण पररय ििा
है ।
(b) यह एक प्रकार की पररय ििा है निसमें नकसी
प्रिानत क दू सरे दे ि से लाकर दे ि में
पुिथथाा नपत नकया िा रहा है ।
(c) पररय ििा के तहत, चीता की उप-प्रिानतयां
नििें दे ि में िापस लाया िा रहा है , िे अफ्ीकी
चीता हैं ।
(d) र्ारत में चीत ं के पुिरुत्पादि की निगरािी
र्ारतीय पिु कल्याण ब डा द्वारा की िा रही है ।
92. "भारत ने अधु-सोंघवाद क अपनार्ा किसने केंद्र
सरकार और राज्य सरकार ों क एक-दू सरे पर कनभुर
बना कदर्ा (केंद्र सरकार क तयलना में राज्य सरकार
अकधक)।" कनम्नकलखित में से ककसे इसके कारण ों के
रूप में माना िा सकता है ?
1. भारत का कवभािन और राष्ट्र क अिोंडता क
रक्षा करना
2. राष्ट्र र् नागररक पहचान क आवश्यकता
3. कल्ाणकार राज्य के कनमाु ण का सपना
4. अोंतर-क्षेत्र र् आकथुक असमानता का उन्मूलन
कनम्नकलखित कू का प्रर् ग कर सह उत्तर का चर्न
क किए:
(a) केवल 1 और 4
(b) केवल 2 और 3
(c) केवल 3 और 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 और 4
`

93. With reference to the Lothal site of Indus
Valley Civilisation (IVC), recently in the
news, consider the following statements:
1. It is the westernmost IVC site in India
located along the river Sabarmati in
Gujarat.
2. Also known as ‘Manchester of Indus
Valley Civilisation’ because it had rich
cotton producing areas and the world's
earliest known dock which facilitated
trade.
3. Metal objects found at Lothal suggest
that IVC people had knowledge of iron
smelting.
4. It is the only Indus Valley Civilisation
site where rice cultivation was
prevalent.
How many statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) Only one statement
(b) Only two statements
(c) Only three statements
(d) All four statements
93. हाल ह में चचाु में रहे कसोंधय घा सभ्यता (IVC) के
स्थल ल थल के सोंदभु में कनम्नकलखित कथन ों पर
कवचार क किएः
1. र्ह गयिरात में साबरमत नद के ककनारे खस्थत
भारत का पकिमतम कसोंधय घा सभ्यता स्थल है ।
2. इसे 'कसोंधय घा सभ्यता के मैनचेस्टर' के रूप में
भ िाना िाता है क् कों क इसमें समृि कपास
उत्पादक क्षेत्र और दय कनर्ा का सबसे पयराना ज्ञात
ग द बाड़ा था ि व्यापार क सयकवधा प्रदान
करत था।
3. ल थल में कमल धातय क वस्तयओों से पता चलता
है कक कसोंधय घा सभ्यता के ल ग ों क ल हा
गलाने का ज्ञान था।
4. र्ह एकमात्र कसोंधय घा सभ्यता स्थल है िहाों
चावल क िेत प्रचकलत थ ।
उपर्युक्त कथन ों में से ककतने सह है /हैं ?
(a) केवल एक कथन
(b) केवल द कथन
(c) केवल त न कथन
(d) चार ों कथन

94. Consider the following statements with 94. हाल ह में चचाु में रहे सोंर्यक्त राष्ट्र िलवार्य पररवतुन
reference to the Conference of Parties ढाों चागत सिेलन (UNFCCC) के पक्षकार ों के
(COP) to the UN Framework Convention सिेलन (COP) के सोंदभु में कनम्नकलखित कथन ों पर
on Climate Change (UNFCCC), which was कवचार क किए:
recently in news:
1. The COP is the supreme decision- 1. COP, UNFCCC के तहत कनणुर् लेने वाला
making body of the UNFCCC. सवोच्च कनकार् है ।
2. No region can be the host of COP for 2. क ई भ दे श लगातार द विों तक COP क
two consecutive years. मेिबान नह ों कर सकता है ।
3. The COP Presidency of the UNFCCC 3. UNFCCC के COP अध्यक्षता का चक्रण केवल
rotates among the five recognized UN पााँ च मान्यता प्राप्त सोंर्यक्त राष्ट्र क्षेत्र ों के ब च
regions only. ह ता है ।
4. Till date, India has hosted the COP
UNFCCC only twice. 4. आि तक, भारत ने केवल द बार COP
How many statements given above is/are UNFCCC क मेिबान क है ।
correct? उपर्युक्त कथन ों में से ककतने हैं /सह हैं ?
(a) Only one Statement (a) केवल एक कथन
(b) Only two Statements (b) केवल द कथन
(c) Only three Statements
(d) All four Statements (c) केवल त न कथन
(d) सभ चार ों कथन

36 | UPSC-MOCK-01
`

95. With reference to the Monkeypox disease,
which was recently in the news, consider
the following statements:
1. According to the World Health
Organisation (WHO), cases occur close
to tropical rainforests inhabited by
animals that carry the virus.
2. The symptoms of Monkeypox are
similar to Smallpox.
3. There is no proven treatment for
Monkeypox yet.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
95. मोंक पॉक्स र ग, ि हाल ह में चचाु में रहा, के सोंदभु
में कनम्नकलखित कथन ों पर कवचार क किएः
1. कवश्व स्वास्थ्य सोंगठन (WHO) के अनयसार, र ग
से सोंबोंकधत मामले उष्णकक बोंध र् विाु वन ों के
आसपास से सामने आए हैं िहााँ रहने वाले
िानवर ों में र ग के वार्रस पाए िाते हैं ।
2. मोंक पॉक्स के लक्षण स्ालपॉक्स के समान ह
ह ते हैं ।
3. मोंक पॉक्स का अभ तक क ई प्रमाकणत इलाि
नह ों है ।
उपर्युक्त कथन ों में से कौन-सा/से सह है /हैं ?
(a) केवल 1
(b) केवल 1 और 2
(c) केवल 2 और 3
(d) 1, 2 और 3

96. Consider the following statements with

reference to Goods and Services Tax (GST): 96. िस्तु एिं सेिा कर (GST) के संदर्ा में निम्ननलखित
1. The Goods and Service Tax Appellate कथि ं पर निचार कीनिए:
Tribunal (GSTAT) was constituted by 1. िीएसट्ी कािूि ं के तहत नििाद ं क हल करिे
the GST council for resolving disputes के नलए िीएसट्ी पररषद द्वारा माल और सेिा
under GST laws. कर अपीलीय न्यायानधकरण (GSTAT) का
2. The turnover threshold limit for
गठि नकया गया था।
registering for GST is uniform across
all states in India. 2. र्ारत के सर्ी राज्य ं में िीएसट्ी के नलए
3. E-commerce suppliers can register पंिीकरण की ट्िाओिर सीमा एक समाि है ।
under the composition scheme of GST. 3. ई-कॉमसा आपूनताकताा िीएसट्ी की कंप नििि
4. Crypto activities are taxable under स्कीम के तहत पंिीकरण करा सकते हैं ।
GST. 4. नक्रप्ट गनतनिनधयां िीएसट्ी के तहत कर य ग्य
Which of the statements given above are हैं ।
incorrect?
(a) 1 and 2 only उपयुाक्त कथि ं में से कौि-से गलत हैं ?
(b) 3 and 4 only (a) केिल 1 और 2
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) केिल 3 और 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 2, 3 और 4
97. Which of the following statements (d) केिल 1, 2 और 4
correctly represents the life and teachings
of Kabir? 97. निम्ननलखित में से कौि सा कथि कबीर के िीिि
1. Salvation could be obtained through और निक्षाओं क सही ढं ग से दिाा ता है ?
devotion towards God.
1. र्गिाि की र्खक्त से ही म क्ष की प्राखप्त ह ती है ।
2. His beliefs and ideas were reflected in
the dohas (Sakhi) composed and 2. उिके निश्वास और निचार उिके द्वारा रनचत
written by him. और नलखित द ह ं (सिी) में पररलनक्षत ह ते थे।
3. The major part of his work is included 3. उिके काम का प्रमुि नहस्सा गुरु ग्रंथ सानहब में
in Guru Grantha Sahib. िानमल है ।
Which of the statements given above is/are उपयुाक्त कथि ं में से कौि-सा/से सही है /हैं ?
correct?
(a) 1 only (a) केिल 1
(b) 2 only (b) केिल 2
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) केिल 1 और 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 और 3

37 | UPSC-MOCK-01
`

98. Consider the following statements: 98. निम्ननलखित कथि ं पर निचार कीनिएः
1. India does not have formal diplomatic 1. र्ारत के ताइिाि के साथ अर्ी औपचाररक
ties with Taiwan yet, as it follows the
राििनयक संबंध िहीं हैं , क् नं क यह एकल-चीि
One-China policy.
िीनत का अिुसरण करता है ।
2. India has an office in Taipei for
diplomatic functions. 2. राििनयक कायों के नलए र्ारत का ताइपे में एक
3. Taiwan and Hong Kong are part of कायाा लय है ।
China's “one country, two systems”. 3. ताइिाि और हांगकां ग चीि के "एक दे ि, द
Which of the statements given above are व्यिथथा" का नहस्सा हैं ।
correct?
उपयुाक्त कथि ं में से कौि-से सही हैं ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (a) केिल 1 और 2
(c) 2 and 3 only (b) केिल 1 और 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) केिल 2 और 3
(d) 1, 2 और 3
99. Consider the following statements:
1. A country can provide unlimited green
box subsidies. 99. निम्ननलखित कथि ं पर निचार कीनिएः
2. Minimum Support Price (MSP) 1. एक दे ि असीनमत ग्रीि बॉक्स सखिडी प्रदाि
provided in India belongs to amber box कर सकता है ।
subsidies.
2. र्ारत में प्रदाि नकया गया न्यूितम समथाि मूल्य
3. Subsidies which are tied to programs
(MSP) एम्बर बॉक्स सखिडी के अंतगात आता
which limit production are blue box
subsidies. है ।
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. सखिडी ि उि कायाक्रम ं से िुड़ी ह ती है ि
correct? उत्पादि क सीनमत करते हैं िे ब्लू बॉक्स
(a) 1 and 2 only सखिडी हैं ।
(b) 2 only उपयुाक्त कथि ं में से कौि-सा/से सही है /हैं ?
(c) 1 and 3 only
(a) केिल 1 और 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) केिल 2
100. Which of the following provisions are (c) केिल 1 और 3
introduced in India under the Government (d) 1, 2 और 3
of India Act of 1919?
1. Secretary of State for India to be paid
out of the British exchequer 100.1919 के र्ारत सरकार अनधनियम के तहत र्ारत में
2. Dyarchy at the Centre निम्ननलखित में से कौि से प्रािधाि नकए गए थे?
3. Introduction of Bicameralism at the 1. र्ारत के राज्य सनचि क नब्रनट्ि रािक ष से
Centre र्ुगताि नकया िािा
4. Separate electorates for women
2. केंद्र में द्वै ध िासि
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below: 3. केंद्र में नद्वसदििाद का प्रारं र्
(a) 1 and 4 only 4. मनहलाओं के नलए अलग नििाा चक मंडल
(b) 1 and 3 only निम्ननलखित कूट् का प्रय ग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए:
(c) 2 and 4 only
(a) केिल 1 और 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) केिल 1 और 3
(c) केिल 2 और 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 और 4

38 | UPSC-MOCK-01
प्रारंिभक परीक्षा टेस्ट सीरीज 2023
PRELIMS TEST SERIES
2023
 `
ALL INDIA PRELIMS TEST SERIES – 2023
TEST CODE: UPSC-MOCK-01
ANSWER KEY
1. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Currency manipulation is a policy used by
some countries to artificially devalue their
currency and gain unfair advantage in
global trade. ‘Currency Practices
Monitoring List (Currency Manipulators
Watchlist)’ is a semi-annual report
published by the U.S. Department of
Treasury. If an economy meets two of the
three criterias in the Trade Facilitation and
Trade Enforcement Act of 2015, it will be
placed in the monitoring list. These
criterias are:
1. A significant bilateral trade surplus
with the US: Treasury assesses that
economies with a bilateral goods and
services surplus of at least $15 billion
have a “significant” surplus.
2. A material current account surplus:
Treasury assesses current account
surpluses of at least 3% of GDP
3. Engaged in persistent one-sided
intervention in the foreign exchange
market: When the net purchase of
foreign currency conducted in the last
8 out of 12 months, totalling at least 2%
of an economy’s GDP
Statement 1 is correct: Currency
Manipulators Watch List includes those
countries which the U.S. Department of
Treasury believes it is engaged in ‘unfair
currency practices’, to take advantage of
global trade.
Statement 2 is incorrect: China, Japan,
South Korea, Germany, Italy, India,
Malaysia, Singapore, Thailand, Taiwan,
Vietnam and Mexico are included in this
monitoring list. India satisfies two out of
three criteria namely, Trade Surplus and
Persistent One-Sided Intervention. This is
not the first time when India is included in
the list.
1 | UPSC-MOCK-01
Statement 3 is incorrect: Including in the
monitoring list will not attract any
immediate penalty or sanctions, but there
will be increased pressure on RBI to cut
down intervention. Trade Facilitation and
Trade Enforcement Act of 2015 provides
for the possible imposition of penalties if,
within one year of commencement of
enhanced bilateral engagement (with the
countries in the discussion), the Secretary
of US Treasury determines that a country
“has failed to adopt appropriate policies to
correct the undervaluation and surpluses”
that triggered the enhanced analysis and
enhanced bilateral engagement.
2. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Regular, free and fair elections in India
have earned her the reputation of a
successful democracy. Article 324 gives
complete control to the Election
Commission of India over the elections
both at Center and State levels which is
also reiterated by many Judicial
pronouncements with regards to power of
ECI.
Statement 1 is correct: The biggest
advantage of the (Electronic Voting
Machines) EVMs is the ‘complete
elimination’ of invalid votes which were a
big issue during ballot paper elections.
Election manipulation was rampant using
this invalid vote tool by some corrupt
electoral officers.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Prime Minister
has been exempted by the Election
Commission of India (ECI) from the Model
Code of Conduct (MCC) requirement that
the Ministers shall not combine their
official visit with electioneering work. This
issue of the Prime Minister being allowed
to combine these works has been in the
news for controversies.
 `
Statement 3 is correct: The idea of One
Nation-One Election (ONOE) is not new to
India. The first four elections (1952, 1957,
1962 and 1967) were in fact simultaneous
elections where elections were conducted
for the LokSabha and the state assemblies
simultaneously.
Statement 4 is incorrect: RPA 1951 in its
section 10 (a) allows for the
disqualification of candidates and does
not allow deregistration of political
parties for indulging in corrupt practices
defined in the Section 8a in the act. This is
a long pending demand of ECI for
electoral reforms but has not yet been
incorporated in the Act.
3. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Indiastack is a set of open Applications
Programming Interface (APIs) which
enables integration of mobile applications
with data stored and provided by the
government. It makes a user base of a
billion people available through its API. It
has multiple applications across sectors
ranging from financial services, healthcare
and education.
The components of this collection are
owned and maintained by different
agencies.
• Aadhaar products such as e-auth and
e-KYC are owned by the Unique ID
Authority of India.
o E-auth or e-authentication helps
Unique Identification Authority of
India and aadhar holders to carry
on verification and authentication
process over email and phone.
o e-KYC or Electronic Know Your
Customer is a remote and
paperless process for document
verification.
• eSign is a technology specification
which is maintained by the Ministry of
Communications and Information
Technology.
o eSIgn or Electronic signature is an
online signature service which
replaces the need for physical
signature for verification.
2 | UPSC-MOCK-01
• Digilocker is owned by the Ministry of
Electronics and Information
Technology.
o It aims to provide a Digital wallet
to every citizen so that all lifelong
documents such as education
record, health record etc can be
accessed digitally anywhere.
• UPI is owned by the National
Payments Corporation of India.
o Unified Payments Interface (UPI)
is a system that powers multiple
bank accounts into a single mobile
application to provide certain
banking services to customers.
• The Account Aggregator framework is
regulated by RBI and its technology
standards and owned by ReBIT.
o An Account Aggregator (AA)
helps an individual securely and
digitally access and share
information from one financial
institution to any other regulated
financial institution.
Following APIs are important
components of India stack:
• Aadhaar Authentication
• e-KYC documents
• eSign
• Digital Locker (DigiLocker)
• Unified Payment Interface (UPI)
Hence point 1, point 2, point 3 and point 4
are correct.
4. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Option (b) is correct: Collective Security
Treaty Organization (CSTO) is a military
grouping of six erstwhile Union of Soviet
Socialist Republics (USSR) countries. Its
members include Armenia, Belarus,
Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, and
Tajikistan. It was signed in 1992 and came
into existence in 1994. Earlier, Uzbekistan
was a founding member of CSTO but
Uzbekistan withdrew from the alliance in
2012.
 `
6.
Figure: Collective Security Treaty
Organization (CSTO)
Source: https://www.globalsecurity.org/
Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO)
is a Eurasian Political, Economic and
Military organisation. Currently SCO has 8
permanent members: China, Kazakhstan,
Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Tajikistan,
Uzbekistan, India, Pakistan (with Iran soon
to join).
5. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Along with the establishment of Ibadat
Khana, Akbar also established his
translation bureau Maktab Khana in
Fatehpur Sikri. A large number of Sanskrit
texts were translated to Persian. Akbar’s
translation project probably began in 1575-
1576 with the arrival of Shaikh Bhawan, a
Brahman convert, to Akbar’s court.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The first Sanskrit
book to be translated from Sanskrit to
Persian was Sukasaptati (Tales of a
Parrot). The Persian translation known as
Tutinama, literally implying “Tales of a
Parrot”, is a collection of 52 stories in
Persian authored by Ziya' al-Din
Nakhshabi. It was translated around the
14th century, well before Akbar’s reign.
The earliest works translated from
Sanskrit under Akbar, with the help of
Shaikh Bhawan, by Haji Ibrahim
Sirhindi, was Atharva Veda (Bed
Atharban) sometime before 1583.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Razmnama is the
translation of Mahabharata. Akbar tasked
Badauni with the translation which was
later completed by Mulla Shri, Naqib Khan
and Sultan Haji Thanesari. Ramayana was
translated into Persian under the reign of
Akbar by Badauni. Nizam Panipati
translated Yogavasistha (a treatise on
Vedantic philosophy) as an appendix to
Ramayana and dedicated it to Prince
Salim.
3 | UPSC-MOCK-01
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Global Gender Report 2022 which
includes the Gender Gap Index was
released recently. It is released by the
World Economic Forum (WEF).
Option (a) is incorrect: As per the Global
Gender Report 2022, the time required by
the world to achieve gender parity did not
reduce consistently over the last decade. It
has been reduced by four years as
compared to the 2021 edition of the report.
As per the report, it will now take 132
years to reach gender parity. The time
required to achieve gender parity has
increased due to the generational loss
between 2020 and 2021. The trends
leading up to 2020 showed that the gender
gap was set to close within 100 years.
Option (b) is correct: The ranking of India
has improved as compared to the previous
edition of the Gender Gap Index. India
ranks 135th in 2022 while it ranked 140th in
2021.
Option (c) is incorrect: India has
not performed better than its neighbours
in the present Gender Gap Index (2022).
India ranks behind Bangladesh (71), Nepal
(96), Sri Lanka (110), Maldives (117) and
Bhutan (126).
Option (d) is incorrect: As per the index,
India is among the top 50 (not bottom 10)
countries in terms of political
empowerment.
Figure: India’s performance at the
Gender Gap Index 2022
Source: The Hindu
 `

Hint for Solving: The consideration of the
effect of COVID 19 pandemic will help in
eliminating option (a). Option (c) and (d)
are extreme and careful observation can
help in eliminating them also.
7. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Hurricanes, typhoons, and cyclones are all
the same type of storms, but have different
names based on where they form. In the
Indian Ocean, they are referred to as
cyclones, in the Atlantic as hurricanes, in
the Western Pacific and the South China
Sea as typhoons, and in western Australia
as willy-willies.
2. Mature stage: The storm intensifies
due to the constant influx of moisture
from the sea. The air rises in ferocious
thunderstorms as a tropical storm
builds and has a tendency to spread
out horizontally at the tropopause
level. Air spreads out, creating positive
pressure at very high altitudes, which
quickens the downward motion of air.
3. Dissipation stage: On reaching the
land, the moisture supply is cut off
and hence eventually the storm
dissipates. The place where a tropical
cyclone crosses the coast is called the
landfall of the cyclone.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Hurricanes are

violent storms that develop over tropical
oceans before moving ashore and wreaking
havoc on a huge scale with their high
winds, torrential rain, and storm surges.
They originate and intensify over warm
tropical oceans near the Equator.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The conditions

favourable for the formation and
intensification of Hurricanes are:
1. Large sea surface with a temperature
higher than 27° C;
2. Presence of the Coriolis force;
3. Small variations in the vertical wind
speed; Figure: Vertical section of the Hurricane
4. A pre-existing weak low-pressure Source: NCERT
area or low-level cyclonic circulation;
5. Upper divergence above the sea level 8. Answer: (c)
system
Explanation:
Statement 3 is correct: Stages of formation
Recently, the benchmark 10-year Indian
of Hurricanes/cyclones-
government bond yield ended at a high of
1. Formation stage: When a low-pressure
7.433%
region develops in the tropics, winds
from the high-pressure surrounding
region rush to fill the low-pressure
region. However, due to Coriolis force
winds start rotating in an anticlockwise
direction in the Northern hemisphere
and clockwise in the Southern
hemisphere. In the process, warm and
moist air over the ocean rises upward
from near the surface forming
cumulonimbus clouds. Condensation
of cumulonimbus clouds over the Figure: 10-year Indian government bond
ocean surface provides the necessary yield
energy for the formation of cyclones. Source: economictimes.indiatimes.com

4 | UPSC-MOCK-01
 `
Statement 1 is correct: With an increase in
bond yield, interest rates will also
increase which makes the cost of
borrowing higher and the government will
have to pay more as a return to investors.
Statement 2 is incorrect: A rise in bond
yield would make investments in bonds
more attractive for investors. Investments
in bonds are considered relatively less risky
debt. This will reduce the fund flow into
equities and also results in the outflow of
funds from equities.
Statement 3 is correct: The bond market is
a great predictor of inflation and the
direction of the economy. A steep rise in
the bond yield reflects the growth and
inflation mix in the economy.
Statement 4 is correct: An increase in
interest rates in the economy will raise the
cost of borrowing for companies and
impact their net profit margins.
What Is Bond Yield?
• Bond yield is the effective rate of
return that a bond earns. The rate of
return of a bond is not fixed, but it
changes with the price of the bond.
• The Price and Bond yield are
inversely related , as the price of a
bond goes up its yield goes down.
Figure: Bond Yield
Source: Investopedia
5 | UPSC-MOCK-01
9. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Volatile organic compounds (VOCs) are
defined by the U.S. Environmental
Protection Agency (EPA) as “any
compound of carbon other than carbon
monoxide, carbon dioxide, carbonic acid,
metal carbides or carbonates, and
ammonium carbonate, that participate in
atmospheric photochemical reactions. ”
VOCs have a high vapor pressure and low
water solubility.
Common examples of VOCs that may be
present in our daily lives are:
Point 1 is correct: VOCs are obtained as the
by-products produced by chlorination in
water treatment, such as chloroform. Also,
these are often components of petroleum
fuels, hydraulic fluids, paint thinners, and
dry cleaning agents.
Point 2 is incorrect: VOCs are any
compound of carbon other than carbon
monoxide, carbon dioxide, carbonic acid,
metal carbides or carbonates, and
ammonium carbonate.
Point 3 is correct: The industrial solvent
trichloroethylene is considered a VOC
because it evaporates easily into the air. It
was mainly used for degreasing
manufactured metal parts.
Point 4 is correct: Benzene belongs to the
class of chemicals called VOC as it
evaporates into the air. Benzene is
produced from coal and petroleum sources
and is found in gasoline.
Point 5 is correct: Toluene belongs to the
group of chemicals of VOCs, which can be
released as a gas into indoor air at room
temperature. Toluene is a clear, colourless
liquid that occurs naturally in crude oil and
in the tolu tree and is produced in the
process of making gasoline and other fuels
from crude oil.
 `
10. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Nord Stream is the longest subsea gas
pipeline. The 1,224 km-long lines run
under the Baltic Sea. The pipeline connects
St. Petersburg in Russia and Lubmin in
Eastern Germany and has a combined
capacity of 55 billion cubic meters (bcm).
The Nord Stream pipelines have been at the
center of geopolitical tensions in recent
days as Russia cut gas supplies to Europe
in suspected retaliation against Western
sanctions following its invasion of Ukraine.
This leads to the looming energy crisis in
the European Union.
Figure: Nord stream
Source: www.bbc.com
12. Answer: (c)
Hence, Option (b) is correct.
11. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Since Alauddin Khlji wanted to maintain a
large army, he therefore lowered and fixed
the price of the commodities of daily use.
To control the prices, Alauddin initiated
many market reforms.
Option (a) is incorrect: Alauddin Khilji
established four separate markets in Delhi,
one for grain; another for cloth, sugar,
dried fruits, butter and oil; a third for
horses, slaves and cattle; and a fourth for
miscellaneous commodities. Each market
was under the control of a high officer
called Shahna-i-Mandi.
6 | UPSC-MOCK-01
Option (b) is incorrect: To control the
prices, Alauddin set up three different
markets for different commodities in Delhi.
These markets were the grain market
(Mandi), cloth market (Sarai Adl) and the
market for horses, slaves, cattles, etc.
Option (c) is correct: Alauddin received
daily reports of the market from two other
independent sources, barid (intelligence
officer) and munhiyans (secret
spies). There were secret agents called
munhiyans who sent reports to the Sultan
regarding the functioning of these
markets.
Option (d) is incorrect: During Balban’s
reign, Firoz had been the warden of the
marches in the north-west and fought
many successful battles against the
Mongols. He was called to Delhi as Ariz-i-
Mumalikh (Minister of War).
Additional Information:
• In CE 1290, Firoz murdered Kaimur
and seized the throne. A group of Khilji
nobles led by him established the Khilji
dynasty. As per some scholars, this
event can be termed as the ‘dynastic
revolution’ of CE 1290. Due to this, the
so called ‘Slave dynasty’ came to an
end with the advent of Khilji dynasty
as Firoz ascended the throne under the
title of Jalaluddin Khilji.
Explanation:
The Government has recently launched a
scheme called Scheme for residential
education for students in High school in
Targeted Areas (SHRESHTA) with the
intention of providing quality education to
students who belong to the category of
Scheduled Caste (SC). The scheme was
introduced by the Ministry of Social Justice
& Empowerment.
Statement 1 is incorrect: SHRESHTA is
indeed a scholarship program. However, it
is not a scheme for providing higher
education. Instead, it is provided to school
students who belong to the SC category
from class 9 to class 12.
 `
It is a scheme that provides quality
education to meritorious SC students in
CBSE-affiliated reputed residential schools
across the country. The government bears
the entire cost of school fees and residential
charges.
Statement 2 is correct: The National
Testing Agency (NTA) conducts an
entrance test called National Entrance Test
for SHRESHTA (NETS) to select
meritorious candidates.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The scheme
targets the marginalized sections within
the SC community and therefore there is an
income criterion for availing benefits under
the scheme. Those students whose parental
annual income is up to Rs.2.5 Lakh are
eligible for the scheme.
13. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Immersive technologies are those
technologies which merge the physical
world with the digital world and generate
distinct experience in the process.
Statement 1 is correct: Augmented reality
is projection of virtual information or
objects in the real world. It acts as a bridge
between real-world and computer
generated technology to provide an
immersive detailed view with the help of
either data, text or videos.
Statement 2 is correct: Virtual reality is
immersion into a simulated digital
environment via the usage of particular
gadgets such as virtual boxes , virtual
spectacles. Users can wear gadgets such as
a head mounted display and can have an
experience of a world created by the VR
developers. For instance, a user can
experience walking through space or
swimming underwater using these gadgets
under virtual reality.
Statement 3 is correct: The metaverse is a
form of mixed reality. It combines
augmented reality, virtual reality and
artificial intelligence among other
technologies to produce an immersive and
interactive environment.
7 | UPSC-MOCK-01
Metaverse: It is a digital realm parallel to
the physical realm which people can access
through various gadgets such as VR-
headsets to interact and communicate with
others.
14. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Section 8 of the Representation of the
People Act (RPA), 1951, contains
provisions for disqualification of members
of the house on account of conviction in
certain cases.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Section 8 (3) of
The Representation of the People Act,
1951 states that a person convicted of an
offence and sentenced to imprisonment for
not less than two years shall be disqualified
from the date of such conviction. Further,
the Speaker/Chairman of the house does
not have any discretion with respect to
automatic disqualification.
Statement 2 is correct: Under Section 11 of
the Representation of the People Act 1951,
the Election Commission of India (ECI)
may record reasons and either remove, or
reduce the period of, a person’s
disqualification. The ECI had reduced the
period of disqualification for Sikkim Chief
Minister P.S. Tamang, who had served a
one-year sentence for corruption.
15. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Shoonya campaign has recently
completed its one year and is an initiative
to promote pollution-free delivery vehicles
through consumer-industry collaboration.
Option (a) is incorrect: The Shoonya
Campaign was launched in 2021 by NITI
Aayog in partnership with Rocky
Mountain Institute (RMI) India.
Option (b) is incorrect: The campaign aims
to accelerate the adoption of electric
vehicles (EVs) in the urban delivery
segment.
 `

Option (c) is correct: Shoonya is a Table source: MoSPI Energy statistics

consumer awareness campaign to reduce India report 2022
air pollution by promoting the use of
electric vehicles (EVs) for ride-hailing and Statement 2 is incorrect: Lignite is the
deliveries. The campaign includes 130 lowest grade coal with the least carbon
industry partners including ride-hailing, content. It has a low heating value. It is
delivery and EV companies. found in the regions of Rajasthan, Tamil
Nadu and Jammu & Kashmir.
Option (d) is incorrect: It aims to create
consumer awareness of the benefits of Statement 3 is correct: Bituminous is a
zero-pollution delivery. medium grade of coal having high heating
capacity. It is the most commonly used
16. Answer: (b) type of coal for electricity generation in
India. Most bituminous coal is found in
Explanation: Jharkhand, Odisha, West Bengal,
Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh.
Coal is a readily combustible, black or
brownish-black sedimentary rock, 17. Answer: (c)
predominantly made of carbon.
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Madhya Pradesh
estimated coal reserves are more than Cripps Mission was sent in March 1942 to
Maharashtra. seek Indian support for the 2nd World War.
The following table shows the state-wise This mission was headed by Stafford
estimated coal reserves in India: Cripps who was a left-wing Labourite, and
a supporter of the Indian national
State Coal Reserves movement.
(in billion
metric tonnes) Statement 1 is correct: Cripps mission
Andhra Pradesh 2.247 proposed that an Indian Union with a
dominion status would be set up which
Arunachal Pradesh 0.09 will have complete freedom to decide its
relations with the Commonwealth and
Assam 0.525 other international bodies.

Bihar 3.464 Statement 2 is incorrect: As per the

proposals of Cripps mission, the members
Chhattisgarh 73.424
of the Constituent Assembly would be
Jharkhand 86.217 partly elected by the provincial
assemblies through proportional
Madhya Pradesh 30.217 representation (indirect election) and
partly nominated by the princes. This
Maharashtra 12.936 Constituent Assembly would be convened
at the end of the war.
Meghalaya 0.576

Nagaland 0.446 Statement 3 is incorrect: These are some of

the objections raised by Muslim League to
Odisha 84.878 the Cripps proposals:
• Muslims League was opposed to the
Sikkim 0.101 proposal of a single Indian Union.
• Muslims League did not like the
Telangana 22.851
machinery for the creation of a
Uttar Pradesh 1.062 Constituent Assembly and the
procedure to decide on the accession of
West Bengal 33.092 provinces to the Union.

8 | UPSC-MOCK-01
 `
• In addition, the League raised the
objection that these proposals deny
Muslims the right to self-
determination and creates obstacles in
the creation of Pakistan.
Statement 4 is incorrect: In the Cripps
Proposals, the procedure of accession was
not well-defined. However, there was a
clear procedure to take decision on
secession. In case of secession, the
decision was to be taken by a resolution
in the legislature by a 60 per cent majority,
not 50 percent majority. If the support
happens to be less than 60 per cent of
the members then the decision was to be
taken by a plebiscite of adult males of that
province by a simple majority.
18. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Bonds are debt instruments issued by
governments and corporations to borrow
money from the market at a fixed or
floating rate of interest. Yield of a bond is
the effective return it earns.
Statement 1 is correct: A situation of
negative interest rate happens during the
recessionary phase of the economic cycle.
The expansionary monetary effort and
market forces have already brought the
interest down to its minimum level. It is to
promote spending and investment rather
than saving, in which case depositors will
lose value due to the negative interest
rates.
A situation of negative bond yield happens
in the recessionary phase of the economic
cycle and in such a situation, an investor
receives less money on maturity in
comparison to the original amount
invested. In another way we may say
that the investor has to pay to hold the
bond. Mostly Mutual funds, insurance
companies etc. buy negative yielding
bonds. This is to satisfy the regulatory
requirements and to diversify their
portfolio to minimise risks.
9 | UPSC-MOCK-01
Statement 2 is incorrect: AT1 bonds are
unsecured, perpetual bonds issued by
banks to increase their capital base to meet
the BASEL III norms. When a bank faces
severe losses and erosion of regulatory
capital (the amount of capital a bank or
other financial institution has to hold as
required by its financial regulator), RBI can
decide whether the bank has reached a
situation of non-viability. In such cases RBI
can activate ‘Point of Non-Viability
Trigger’ (PONV) and assume executive
powers of the bank. By doing so, RBI can
do whatever is required to get the bank on
track, including skipping paying coupons
on issued AT1 bonds or writing off AT1
bonds (without consulting with the
investors).
Statement 3 is correct: First blue bond was
launched by the Republic of Seychelles to
support sustainable marine and fisheries
projects. Sovereign Blue Bond is issued to
support investments in healthy oceans and
blue economies.
19. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The mountain ranges in India are the
Himalayas, Aravalli, Shivalik, Vindhya,
Eastern Ghats, Nilgiri, and Satpura. The
Himalayas is the world’s highest mountain
range home to all fourteen peaks over
8,000m including Everest and K2.
Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: Nanda Devi
is the second-highest mountain in India. It
is a major peak of the Garhwal Himalaya.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: The Pir Panjal
Range is a group of mountains in the Lesser
Himalayan region, running from east-
southeast to west-northwest across the
states of Himachal Pradesh and Jammu
and Kashmir. Deo Tibba (6,001 m) and
Indrasan (6,221 m) are two important peaks
at the eastern end of the mountain range.
Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Nanga
Parbat is part of the Greater Himalayas
range. It is one of the world’s tallest
mountains with a height of 8,126 metres.
Comparatively, the height of Nanda Devi is
7,817 metres.
 `

20. Answer: (b) Option (c) is correct: Kharosthi is Persian

style of writing which is derived from
Explanation: Aramaic script. Many of Ashoka’s
inscriptions found in north western India
Serverless computing is a cloud computing are written in Kharosthi that shows
application development and execution influence of Achaemenian practice on
model. Ashokan pillars.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Serverless does
not mean that 'no servers' are used. Servers
are used in serverless computing. However
the server is not visible to the developer
and he need not manage or interact with
them under the serverless computing.
22. Answer: (c)
Statement 2 is correct: Under serverless
computing, the cloud provider is
responsible for provisioning of the
infrastructure needed to run an application
code, scaling the infrastructure as per
demand and other routine infrastructure
management.
21. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The tradition of pillar construction is very
old and the pillar construction was popular
in the Achaemenian empire also. But,
Mauryan pillars are different as compared
to Achemenian pillars. Mauryan pillars are
monolithic in character. Sandstone is used
to build them which was extracted at
Chunar. The pillars are lustrous in texture
and do not have a base. The capital is joined
to the tapering end of the shaft with the
help of a cylindrical bolt. The capital is
inverted lotus shape. Abacus (platform) is
at the top which finally supports an animal
carved.
Option (d) is correct: The monolithic pillar
edicts of Asoka with their bell-shaped
capitals are similar to the victory pillars of
the Achaemenid emperors which have
been found in Persepolis.
Explanation:
Recently, Russia conducted drills on Kuril
islands claimed by Tokyo, days after
Moscow halted peace talks with Japan
because of its sanctions over Russia’s
invasion of Ukraine. Kuril Islands are a set
of four islands situated between the Sea of
Okhotsk and the Pacific Ocean near the
North of Japan's northernmost prefecture,
Hokkaido. Both Moscow and Tokyo claim
sovereignty over them though the islands
have been under Russian control since the
end of World War II. The Soviet Union had
seized the islands at the end of World War
II and by 1949 had expelled its Japanese
residents. Tokyo claims that the disputed
islands have been part of Japan since the
early 19th century.
USA’s Andersen Air Force Base is located
in Guam. Guam is located in the Western
Pacific Ocean.

Option (a) is incorrect: The Mauryan

pillars are rock cut pillars thus displaying
the carver’s skills, whereas the
Achaemenian pillars are constructed in
pieces by a mason.

Option (b) is correct: While the Ashokan

pillars were independently erected, the
Achaemenian pillars were generally
attached to state buildings.

Figure: Kuril Islands

Source: www.researchgate.net

Hence, Option (c) is correct.

10 | UPSC-MOCK-01
 `
23. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Under ‘Targeted Long Term Repo
Operation (TLRO)’, RBI provides long term
funds to banks at prevailing repo rate.
Banks must invest this fund in the
investment grade securities of specific
sectors (provided by RBI).‘Targeted Long
Term Repo Operation (TLRO)’ scheme is
made available on the basis of an on tap
system. Banks interested to avail funds
under this system may place requests and
RBI will aggregate all such requests and
will release funds every week.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Under ‘Targeted
Long Term Repo Operation (TLRO)’, RBI
provides long term capital at prevailing
repo rate to banks eligible under the
Liquidity Adjustment Facility (All
scheduled commercial banks and certain
Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) meeting
criteria set by RBI). Liquidity availed under
this scheme must be invested in investment
grade corporate bonds, commercial papers
and non-convertible debentures issued by
entities in specific sectors (agriculture, agri-
infra, secured retail, MSME,
pharmaceutical etc.). There is no restriction
on the maturities of the instruments which
can be invested in by the banks by availing
this facility.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Funds provided
to banks under ‘Targeted Long Term Repo
Operation (TLRO)’ must be invested in
corporate bonds, commercial paper and
non-convertible debentures issued by the
entities in specific sectors. And hence this
scheme will increase the availability of
funds in the corporate bond market.
24. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Isotherms are lines on a map
connecting places having an equal
temperature at a given point in time.
Isotherms are commonly used in
meteorology to show the temperature
distribution at the surface of the earth, or
on charts showing constant level or
pressure.
11 | UPSC-MOCK-01
Statement 1 is correct: The land area is
much larger in the Northern Hemisphere
than in the Southern Hemisphere. In
January, the isotherm diverges northward
over the ocean in the northern hemisphere.
Example: North Atlantic Ocean. The
presence of warm ocean currents, the Gulf
Stream, and the North Atlantic Drift makes
the North Atlantic warmer and bends the
isotherms northward.
Statement 2 is correct: In the southern
hemisphere, the influence of the sea is
strong. Here, isotherms are generally
parallel to latitude, and temperature
changes are more gradual than in the
northern hemisphere. The 20°C, 10°C, and
0°C isotherms are parallel to latitudes of
35°S, 45°S, and 60°S, respectively. In July
the isotherms generally run parallel to the
latitude.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The isotherm
diverges southward over the continent in
the northern hemisphere during the month
of January. Due to a sharp drop in the
temperature over land, the isotherms bend
southward over Europe.
25. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Rajya Sabha has been given four
exclusive powers that are not enjoyed by
the Lok Sabha.
Special Powers of Rajya Sabha
Statement 1 is correct: It alone can initiate
a move for the removal of the vice
president. In other words, a resolution for
the removal of the vice-president can be
introduced only in the Rajya Sabha and not
in the Lok Sabha (Article 67).
Statement 2 is incorrect: A resolution for
the discontinuance of the national
emergency can be passed only by the Lok
Sabha and not by the Rajya Sabha.
Statement 3 is correct: It can authorise the
Parliament to make a law on a subject
enumerated in the State List (Article 249).
 `
Other exclusive powers of Rajya Sabha:
1. It alone can authorise the Parliament to
create new All-India Services common
to both the Centre and states (Article
312).
2. If a proclamation is issued by the
President for imposing national
emergency or president’s rule or
financial emergency at a time when the
Lok Sabha has been dissolved or the
dissolution of the Lok Sabha takes
place within the period allowed for its
approval, then the proclamation can
remain effective even if it is approved
by the Rajya Sabha alone.
26. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Early classical Tamil literature, which is
also called ‘Sangam’ literature has
preserved its original dravidian character.
The word Sangam means “fraternity”.
Sangam literature comprises mainly two
schools of poets, aham (subjective love
poems), and puram (objective, public
poetry and heroic).
• Aham deals purely with the subjective
emotions of the lover.
• Puram deals with all kinds of
emotions, mainly the valour and glory
of kings, and about good and evil.
It was during this time Tamil grammar
Tolkappiyam was written to understand
Tamil poetry. Five landscapes or types of
love are indicated by Tolkappiyam which
also outlines their symbolic conventions.
The Sangam classics, consisting of 18
works (eight anthologies of lyrics and ten
long poems), are well known for their
directness of expression. Most of these
anthologies are of the 3rd century BCE.
Statement 1 is correct: Historians like
Vijaya Ramaswamy observed many
references to women and work in Sangam
poems. The poems mention women
engaged in following activities:
• Agricultural activities such as planting
paddy seeds and weeding.
• Tasks such as the husking and
winnowing of paddy were performed
entirely by women.
12 | UPSC-MOCK-01
• Young girls kept watch over the
agricultural fields and drove away
birds and animals. Women were
involved in cattle rearing and dairy
farming.
• The terms ayichchiyar, kovichchiyar,
and idaichchiyar were used for
shepherdesses.
• As today, also in early historical times,
spinning was done almost entirely by
women. Sangam texts refer to women
spinners as parutti pentukal.
However, there are no references to
women weavers.
Statement 2 is correct: Sangam literature
reflects a society which celebrated war and
love. There are beautiful love (akam)
poems that speak of the love between man
and woman. The love poems use an
interesting convention of associating
themes with different landscapes known
as tinai, each named after a flower. As
shown below the poems use vivid imagery
and often rely on understatement and
suggestion to convey deep emotion.
• The kurinchi or mountain landscape
was associated with the union of
lovers,
• The palai (arid terrain) with
separation,
• The mullai (pastoral region) with
patient waiting,
• The neytal (seashore) with pining,
• And the marutam (riverine tracts) with
sulking.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The social
classification of varna was known to
Sangam poets. There is mention of the
• Arashar (kings)
• Vaishiyar (traders)
• And Velalar (farmers)
• The Brahmanas are also mentioned,
some of them closely associated with
the courts of kings and patronized by
ruling elites. They are described as
performing yajnas, including ones on
the battlefield, to ensure victory. In the
Pathira Pattu, the sage Kapila advises
kings that they should give important
jobs such as those of advisers to
Brahmanas. However, the four-fold
varna classification had little
application to ancient Tamil society.
The jati system was not a feature of this
society either.
 `
27. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Transgenic animals are those animals
which have had their DNA manipulated to
possess and express a foreign gene.
Recombinant DNA technology is used for
this purpose. It involves either the
combining of DNA from different genomes
or the insertion of foreign DNA into a
genome.
Point 1 is correct: Transgenic animals can
be specially made to serve as models for
human diseases and such models make
investigation of new treatments for those
diseases possible. There are transgenic
models for several diseases such as cystic
fibrosis, cancer, Alzheimer and rheumatoid
arthritis.
Pont 2 is correct: Different biological
products can be produced through
transgenic animals by introducing the
portion of DNA (or genes) which codes for
those products. For instance Rosie, which
was the first transgenic cow, produced
human protein-enriched milk.
Point 3 is correct: The safety of vaccines
have to be tested before they are used on
humans. Transgenic mice, transgenic
monkeys etc are used for this purpose.
Point 4 is correct: Transgenic animals can
be made more sensitive to toxic substances
compared to non-transgenic animals by
inserting the gene for the same. They can
then be exposed to chemicals and the
effects can be studied.
Point 5 is correct: Transgenic animals can
be designed to study how genes influence
normal functions of the body and its
development.
Point 6 is correct: Xenotransplantation
involves cross species transplantation of
organs. Recently a heart taken from
genetically engineered pigs was
transplanted into a man.
Point 7 is correct: Genetic engineering can
be used to develop new strains of livestock.
It can be used for increasing the meat or
muscle growth in animals.
13 | UPSC-MOCK-01
28. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Recently, the Prime Minister of India said
that India has reached the target of 10 per
cent sugarcane-extracted Ethanol Blending
with petrol earlier of its schedule. The
government also intends to advance the
target of 20 per cent blending by five years,
to accomplish by 2025.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The ethanol
produced from molasses is first-generation
ethanol or 1G. Raw materials for 1G
bioethanol production are corn seeds and
sugarcane. Apart from molasses, ethanol
can be derived from materials such as rice
straw, wheat straw, corn cobs, corn stover,
bagasse, bamboo and woody biomass,
which are considered as second-generation
ethanol sources or 2G. Algae grown in
wastewater, sewage or salt water can be
used to produce bioethanol, which is
considered as third-generation ethanol or
3G.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Sugarcane is the
cheapest source of ethanol. A litre of
ethanol to be produced from sugar requires
2,860 litres of water. However, the 3rd
generation of ethanol does not require
water used for human
consumption. Since 1G ethanol is
produced from feedstocks such as cereals
(rice, wheat, barley, corn & sorghum),
sugarcane, sugar beet, etc, the groundwater
consumption is more in its production than
in production of 3G ethanol which is
produced using algae.
Statement 3 is incorrect: As ethanol
supports complete combustion, higher
reductions in carbon monoxide and carbon
dioxide emissions have been reported.
However, it does not substantially reduce
the emission of another key pollutant i.e.
nitrous oxide as it depends upon
vehicle/engine type and engine operating
conditions.
 `
Statement 4 is correct: The Government of
India has launched the Ethanol Blended
Petrol (EBP) Programme to mix ethanol
with petrol to reduce the consumption of
fossil fuel. As per NITI Aayog, Ethanol
Blending can help in bringing down
India’s share of oil imports (almost 85%)
on which a considerable amount of foreign
exchange is spent. A successful ethanol
blending programme can save $4 billion
per annum for India.
29. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Operation twist is an open market
operation conducted by the central bank of
the country (RBI) inorder to incentivise
long term investment.
Statement 1 is incorrect: As part of
‘Operation Twist’ simultaneous purchase
and sale of securities are done. Securities of
long term nature are purchased and this
increases their bond price and bond yield
reduces subsequently. All this helps in
reducing the interest rate in the market.
Statement 2 is correct: As part of
‘Operation Twist’ simultaneous purchase
and sale of securities are done. Securities of
short term nature are sold and long term
securities are purchased.
Statement 3 is correct: As part of
simultaneous purchase and sale of
securities, bond yield of long term
securities decreases which helps in
lowering of market interest rate. This way
long term interest rates become low and
affordable.
30. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Earth’s atmosphere has five major layers
from lowest to highest that are
namely troposphere, stratosphere,
mesosphere, thermosphere, and
exosphere.
14 | UPSC-MOCK-01
Option (a) is incorrect: Most of the earth’s
clouds and most types of clouds are found
in the troposphere, and also almost all
weather occurs within this layer. The
stratosphere is very dry air and contains
little water vapour. Because of this, few
clouds are found in this layer also.
Option (b) is incorrect: The troposphere is
the densest atmospheric layer, compressed
by the weight of the rest of the atmosphere
above it.
Option (c) is correct: The mesosphere is
about 50 to 80 kilometres above the surface
and becomes progressively colder with
increasing altitude. The top of this layer is
the coldest place found within the Earth
system, with an average temperature of
about minus 85 degrees Celsius (minus 120
degrees Fahrenheit).
Option (d) is correct: The thermospheric
layer is located between about 80 and 700
kilometres above Earth’s surface. In this
layer, temperatures increase with altitude
due to the very low density of molecules
found here. The thermospheric layer is free
of clouds and water vapour.
31. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
A liquid Mirror Telescope is a telescope
which uses reflective liquids as mirrors.
Recently, India has set up its first-ever
'liquid mirror telescope' at Devasthal
Observatory in Uttarakhand. It is the
largest International Liquid Mirror
Telescope (ILMT) of Asia and has been
installed at a height 2,450 metres.
Option (a) is incorrect: The key difference
between the liquid mirror telescope and the
conventional telescope is that the former is
stationary whereas the latter can be steered
to the point of interest. Hence Liquid
Mirror Telescopes are not that flexible.
Option (b) is incorrect: Liquid mirror
telescopes are lighter and less time-
consuming to construct. They can be built
for just a fraction of the cost of a
conventional glass telescope mirror.
 `
Option (c) is correct: When a bowl of
reflective liquid mercury is rotated, the
combination of gravity and centrifugal
force pushes the liquid into a perfect
parabolic shape, exactly like a conventional
telescope mirror.
Option (d) is incorrect: The telescope
works on the principle of balancing gravity
and inertia. Hence, Mercury, due to its high
density, is often used in these telescopes.
Mercury is used In ILMT also.
32. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Montreal Protocol on Substances that
Deplete the Ozone Layer is a multilateral
environmental agreement that regulates
the production and consumption of
nearly 100 man-made chemicals called
ozone-depleting substances (ODS).
• When these chemicals are released into
the atmosphere, they destroy the
stratospheric ozone layer, the earth's
protective shield that protects people
and the environment from the sun's
harmful ultraviolet rays.
• The Montreal Protocol was adopted in
September 1987.
Statement 1 is incorrect: India has been a
party to the Montreal Protocol since June
1992 and has successfully implemented
projects and activities to phase out ozone-
depleting substances in accordance with
the Montreal Protocol and its phase-out
plan.
Statement 2 is correct: The Montreal
Protocol gradually reduces the
consumption and production of various
ozone-depleting substances (ODS) on
different schedules in developed and
developing countries.
• Developing and developed countries
have equal but differentiated
responsibilities, but most importantly,
both groups of countries have binding,
time-targeted and measurable
commitments.
15 | UPSC-MOCK-01
Statement 3 is correct: India has phased
out chlorofluorocarbons, carbon
tetrachloride, halons, methyl bromide,
and methyl chloroform for controlled use
on 1 January 2010 in accordance with the
Montreal Protocol timeline.
• Hydrochlorofluorocarbons are
currently being phased out under the
accelerated schedule of the Montreal
Protocol.
33. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Buddhism got divided into various sects
and subsects due to differences in opinion.
Option 1 is correct: Madhyamaka School is
a school under Mahayana Buddhism. It is
based on Sunyata Doctrine which was
founded by Nagarjuna in 2nd - 3rd century
CE. The central idea lies in the fact that all
things or phenomena (dharmas) are empty
(sunya) of nature, substance or the essence
(svabhava). Chandrakirti was a great
scholar of this school.
Option 2 is correct: Sautrantika school
belongs to Buddhism. The word
‘Sautrantika’ is derived from the term
‘sutranta’ meaning scripture. This school is
based on ‘Sutta pitaka’. This school came
up against the naive realism and pluralism
of Vaibhasikas.
Main teachers of this school are:
• Kumaralat, a contemporary of
Nagarjuna.
• Srilabha or Srilata
• Yasomitra and Harivarman who wrote
the book Tattvasiddhi (Proof of the
Truth).
• Vasubandhu
Option 3 is incorrect: Terapanthi is a sub-
sect under Digambara and Svetambara
schools of Jainism. Digambara Terapanthis
worship the idols with ashta-dravya. On
the other hand, Svetambara Terapanthis
pray to their saints instead of worshipping
the idol in a temple.
 `

Option 4 is correct: Sthaviravadins were a 35. Answer: (d)

group of followers belonging to an early
school of Buddhism who followed the Explanation:
‘Way of the Elders’ and hence named
Sthaviravadins. After 100 years of the death A recent study conducted by the doctors of
of Budhha the first division in Buddhism Memorial Sloan Kettering Cancer Centre in
took place at the second council at Vaishali. New York claimed to cure rectal cancer
As a result of this division the through immunotherapy using
Acariyavadins (followers of the traditional dostarlimab.
teaching) split away from the
Sthaviravadins. Statement 1 is correct: Antibodies are
proteins which stick to a specific protein
34. Answer: (b) known as antigen and ultimately cause the
destruction of the cell containing the
Explanation: antigen. Monoclonal antibodies are man
made proteins which can act like the
The six-year project 'Enhancing Climate antibodies. Dostarlimab is a monoclonal
Resilience of India’s Coastal antibody.
Communities’ (2019-2024) is being
implemented by the Ministry of Statement 2 is incorrect: Dostarlimb can be
Environment, Forest and Climate Change, used for blocking the PD1. PD1 is a protein
Government of India with United Nations which suppresses T-cell activity. Blocking
Development Programme (UNDP) PD1 results in release of T Cells which can
support to improve the climate resilience of destroy the cancerous cells.
the most vulnerable population in the
coastal regions of India. Statement 3 is correct: Dostarlimab was
found to have the potential to cure rectal
Option (b) is correct: The Green Climate cancer by the scientists of Memorial Sloan
Fund (GCF) funded project on “ Kettering Cancer Centre in New York.
“Enhancing Climate Resilience of India's
Coastal Communities” and is being
implemented by the Ministry of
Environment, Forest and Climate Change
and the three states of Andhra Pradesh,
Maharashtra, and Odisha, with UNDP as
the Accredited Entity.
• The project supports the Government
of India to make vulnerable coastal
areas more resilient to climate change.
• The goals of the project are:
o Conducted coastal vulnerability
assessments in 13 coastal states to
support ecosystem planning and
community-based adaptation
responses.
o Protection and restoration of
coastal ecosystems to enhance Figure: PD1 blockade
Source: Indian Express
ecological resilience in the three
targeted states
o Strengthening governance and
institutional frameworks for
climate-resilient management of
coastal areas in all 13 coastal states
of India.

16 | UPSC-MOCK-01
 `
36. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
A currency can be called
internationalised if :
• Banks, residents, firms etc hold it for
financial security.
• It is used for international
transactions. etc
The Government and the Centre have
recently taken certain efforts to
internationalise Rupee. Important
features of an international currency are:
• Stability
• Availability
• Liquidity
Point 1 is correct: Capital account
convertibility is no restriction on
conversion of the domestic currency into a
foreign currency. It enables a resident to
acquire any foreign asset or on conversion
of a foreign currency to the domestic
currency and enables a non-resident to
acquire a domestic asset. Achieving full
convertibility of capital account ensures
liquidity of Indian Rupee. It is therefore an
essential requirement for internationalising
Rupee.
Point 2 is correct: Masala Bonds are Rupee
denominated bonds. More Issuance of
masala bond will lead to increase in
availability of rupee in international
market and will also help in
internationalising Rupee by familiarising it
among the international investors.
Point 3 is incorrect: Revaluation (opposite
of devaluation) is an upward adjustment of
a country's official exchange rate relative to
a chosen baseline such as wage rates, the
price of gold, or a foreign currency. Active
revaluation of currency by the central bank
will negatively affect the currency stability.
Currency stability is a prerequisite for a
currency to be international.
17 | UPSC-MOCK-01
37. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Recently prolonged heat waves were seen
in the summer of 2022 in the Indian
subcontinent. La Nina which means ‘little
girl’ in Spanish is a geographical event
when water temperature in the Eastern
Pacific gets colder than normal. It is
opposite of El Nino which is associated
with warmer than normal water
temperatures in the eastern pacific.
Statement 1 is correct: We all know that a
La Niña event is known to enhance the
South-West monsoon rainfall in India but it
has a negative correlation with the North-
East monsoon or retreating monsoon
because of the following reasons as per
meteorologists:
• Low-pressure areas,
• Depressions or cyclones form
relatively north to their normal
position during a La Nina year.
Statement 2 is correct: This year in 2022,
La Nina was one of the reasons for the
long spell of heat waves from March to
April in North, West and Central India.
Reasons:
• Western disturbances bring rain and
halt the rising temperatures of Summer
in the Indian subcontinent's north and
western region.
• Western disturbances need a
significant difference in temperature
between Europe and the latitudes over
India to travel to India.
o According to experts related to the
Ministry of Earth Sciences, Partly
due to La Nina, this temperature
difference was absent and so the
western disturbances that came to
India were weak with hardly any
rain which led to prolonged heat
waves.
Statement 3 is incorrect: La Nina, unlike El
Nino, is associated with below-normal sea
surface temperatures in the eastern and
central Pacific Oceans.
 `
Statement 4 is incorrect: In general, La-
Nina is considered beneficial to the Indian
economy by meteorologists because it
creates wetter monsoons and colder
winters leading to good Kharif and rabi
crops.
38. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Recently, A new book named Suvarna
Mohur: India's Glorious History
Illustrated through Rare Coins" written
by Arun Ramamurthy traces the history of
India's numismatics through 133 rare coins.
Coins were first minted in India sometime
around 600 BCE.
It is being said that the development of
Indian coinage was inspired by trade with
Persia, however, the mode of
manufacturing of the coins was
indigenous.
Option (a) is correct: India is home to
some of the oldest coins in the world. Even
in the Vedas, there is a mention of gold
coins in the form of 'Nishkas' and
‘Suvarnas'.
Option (b) is correct: Razia Sultana (13th
Century CE) was the first lady empress of
India. She also issued coins like her father
Iltutmish in the name of Abbasid caliph Al-
Mustansim along with her name and title.
Option (c) is incorrect: Gold Mohurs were
first introduced in India in the 16th
century by Sher Shah Suri, not by
Jahangir in the 17th Century. However, as
per the author, Jahangir also minted
gigantic gold coins with a diameter of 21
cm which weighed about 12 kg and used to
be gifted to visiting foreign dignitaries.
Option (d) is correct: The founder of the
Kushana dynasty was Kujula Kadphises or
Kadphises I. He occupied the Kabul valley
and issued coins in his name. His son Wima
Kadphises or Kadphises II conquered the
whole of northwestern India as far as
Mathura. He issued gold coins with high-
sounding titles like the ‘Lord of the Whole
World’. He was a devotee of Lord Shiva
18 | UPSC-MOCK-01
39. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Article 123 of the Indian Constitution
grants the President certain law making
powers to promulgate Ordinances when
both or either of the two Houses of
Parliament is not in session and hence it is
not possible to enact laws in the
Parliament. Similar power to promulgate
ordinance has been given to the Governor
of an Indian state under Article 213 of the
Indian Constitution.
Statement 1 is correct: The Supreme Court
of India in Krishna Kumar Singh & Anr vs
State Of Bihar & Ors stated that
“Consistent with the principle of
legislative supremacy, the power to
promulgate ordinances is subject to
legislative control. The President and the
Governor act on the aid and advice of the
Council of Ministers which owes collective
responsibility to the legislature.” It is
mandatory to lay an ordinance before
Parliament or the state legislature because
the legislature has to determine the need
for, expediency to promulgate an
ordinance; whether the ordinance needs to
be approved or disapproved; and whether
an Act incorporating the provisions of the
ordinance should be amended or enacted
without any amendments.
Statement 2 is correct: The Governor
cannot make an ordinance without the
instructions from the President in a case
where a bill containing the same
provisions would have required the
previous sanction of the President for its
introduction into the state legislature. A
bill imposing restrictions on freedom of
trade and commerce can be introduced in
the legislature only with the previous
sanction of the President (Article 304 of the
Indian Constitution).
Statement 3 is incorrect: The power to
make law lies with the legislature so, the
power of the executive to make ordinances
stands against the principle of Separation
of Powers. The independence of the
legislature stands at the risk of being
curtailed since even the executive in this
situation makes laws. That is why
ordinance-making power is not parallel to
the law-making power of the legislature.
 `
40. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Depreciation of the domestic currency
occurs when its value falls in the
international FOREX market. It occurs
automatically through the intervention of
market forces of demand and supply.
Statement 1 is correct: Hawkish monetary
policy is the tight monetary policy in which
interest rates are kept higher to contain
inflation. These higher interest rates will
result in capital inflow and hence domestic
currency will appreciate.
Statement 2 is correct: A hike in interest
rate by the US Federal Reserve will lead to
capital outflow from India. As the dollar
gets stronger in comparison to the Indian
rupee, the rupee will depreciate.
41. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Based on the
information from the table given below, we
can infer India China trade has fluctuated
between the period 2016-2022. In 2017 and
2018, bilateral trade registered robust two-
digit growth. The total bilateral trade
witnessed a reduction of 5.64% year on
year in 2020 to reach US $ 87.65 billion.
Figure: India-China bilateral trade
Source: eoibeijing.gov.in
Statement 2 is correct: According to the
UNCTAD World Investment Report
(WIR) 2022, Singapore has emerged as the
top sourcing nation of Foreign Direct
Investment(FDI) with a contribution of
27.01 per cent, followed by the USA at 17.94
per cent.
19 | UPSC-MOCK-01
Statement 3 is correct: India has been the
top recipient of the Japanese
government's financial aid under the
Official Development Assistance (ODA)
since 2003. Japan's ODA to India started in
1958, and over 6,978 billion Japanese Yen
(approximately INR 4,10,493 Crore) in
ODA loans have been committed to India
for more than 310 public projects across
various sectors.
Statement 4 is correct: According to an
analysis by the Department of Commerce,
Bangladesh has become the largest
trading partner of India in the South
Asian region, followed by Nepal, Sri
Lanka, Pakistan, Bhutan, Afghanistan and
Maldives.
42. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
First indigenously developed Hydrogen
fuel cell bus was recently launched by the
Union minister of state for Science and
Technology. In hydrogen fuel cells
hydrogen is fed into the anode whereas air
is fed into the cathode.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The cost for a unit
of power from hydrogen fuel cells is
currently greater than other energy
sources, including Lithium-ion batteries.
Statement 2 is correct: When hydrogen is
supplied into the anode, the catalyst
present in the anode will separate the
protons and electrons from the hydrogen
molecule. The electrons will then pass
through the external circuit resulting in the
creation of an electric current. The protons
on the other hand pass through the
electrolyte into the cathode. It will then
combine with the oxygen supplied at the
cathode to produce water and heat.
Hence Water is a byproduct in these cells
Statement 3 is incorrect: Refuelling is
highly time consuming in battery powered
electric vehicles. It may take hours to
charge such a vehicle even by using the
latest technology. However, hydrogen can
be refilled in a fuel cell vehicle in a matter
of minutes.
 `
43. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Battery Waste Management Rules,
2022 was recently published by the
Ministry of Environment, Forest and
Climate Change, Government of India in
order to ensure environmentally sound
management of waste batteries.
Statement 1 is correct: The Battery Waste
Management Rules, 2022 will replace
Batteries (Management and Handling)
Rules, 2001.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Battery Waste
Management Rules, 2022 operates under
the concept of Extended Producer
Responsibility (EPR) and mandates the
battery manufacturers (including
importers) to collect and
recycle/recondition used or waste
batteries and use of recovered materials
from wastes into new batteries.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Battery Waste
Management Rules, 2022 cover all types of
batteries, viz. Electric Vehicle batteries,
portable batteries, automotive batteries,
and industrial batteries.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Under the rules,
to meet the EPR obligations, producers
may engage themselves or authorise any
other entity for the collection, recycling,
or refurbishment of waste batteries.
44. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Right to freedom of religion is mentioned
in the Indian Constitution under Articles
25-28.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution
of India recognises the right to religious
freedom of both individuals and groups
under Articles 25 and 26 respectively. This
right is not absolute and is subject to the
limitations of public order, morality, and
health. However, a crucial textual
difference lies between individual and
group rights to religious freedom. Article
25, which guarantees the freedom of
conscience and religion to individuals, has
been explicitly made subject to other
20 | UPSC-MOCK-01
fundamental rights enshrined in Part III
of the Constitution whereas Article
26 contains no such restrictions and is
only limited with respect to public order,
morality, and health.
Statement 2 is correct: The ‘doctrine of
essential religious practices’ was
propounded by the Supreme Court of
India in the Shirur Mutt case in 1954. As
per the doctrine, only those practices
which are essential part of a religion
would be constitutionally protected. As
per the court “what constitutes the
essential part of a religion is primarily to
be ascertained with reference to the
doctrines of that religion itself”. This
doctrine is applicable to both Article 25 and
26 of the Constitution.
In Sardar Sarup Singh v State of Punjab
(1959), the Supreme Court of India upheld
the constitutionality of section 148-B of
Sikh Gurdwaras Act, 1925, stating that no
authoritative texts have been produced to
show that direct election by the entire
Sikh Community to the Gurdwara
Committees in charge of the management
was essential to the religion itself. The
petitioners had argued that section 148-B
infringes Article 26(b) of the Constitution,
which grants every religious denomination
the right to manage its own affairs in
matters of religion, for it does not allow for
direct elections of members of the Board by
the Sikh Community.
45. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
In the floating exchange rate system,
‘Depreciation’ is the loss in value of a
country’s currency in comparison to
another foreign currency. Whereas
‘Appreciation’ leads to a situation wherein
the currency of one country strengthens
with respect to another foreign currency.
These changes in exchange rate occur
automatically through the intervention of
market forces of demand and supply.
 `
Statement 1 is correct: In depreciation,
domestic currency weakens against the
foreign currency, and hence more domestic
currency will be required to get a foreign
currency exchanged. Hence the import cost
of raw material increases.
Statement 2 is incorrect: In appreciation,
domestic currency strengthens against the
foreign currency, and hence will fetch less
amount of domestic currency in exchange
for foreign currency. This will hamper the
interest of the exporters.
Statement 3 is correct: A rapid
appreciation or depreciation is not good for
the economy. Hence when the rupee
appreciates rapidly, to stabilise the
exchange rate RBI intervenes by
purchasing dollars from the market.
46. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Nitrogen fixation is a chemical process that
converts atmospheric nitrogen into
ammonia that is consumed by organisms.
Nitrogen fixation basically converts
atmospheric nitrogen into a form that
plants can use.
Pair 1 is correctly matched: Rhizobium
improves access to other nutrients and
boosts the crop’s resistance to pathogens,
pests, and abiotic stresses.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: Like
Rhizobium, Frankia fixes atmospheric
Nitrogen by root nodulation. Root
nodules are swelling of the roots of
legumes, such as peas or clover, that
contain bacteria of the genus Rhizobium or
Frankia, which are able to fix nitrogen.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Free-living N-
fixing bacteria are a source of Nitrogen in
crops. For example, rice growers add
aquatic Azolla ferns to their fields as a
fertiliser. Azolla serves as a habitat for
Anabaena Azolla (a cyanobacterial type)
known for its N-fixing properties.
21 | UPSC-MOCK-01
47. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Amuktamalyada is considered to be the
masterpiece of Telugu literature that
narrates the story of considered a
masterpiece in Telugu literature, the epic
poem, ‘Amuktamalyada' that tells the well-
known story of the daughter of
Periazhwar, Goda Devi, who used to wear
the garlands that were intended for Lord
Ranganatha before they were offered to the
deity, and hence the name
‘AmuktaMalyaDa' — one who wears and
gives away garlands.
Statement 1 is incorrect: It is a masterpiece
of Telugu literature not Tamil literature. It
was written by Krishnadevaraya.
Statement 2 is incorrect: It is dedicated to
Lord Venkateswara (form of Lord
Vishnu). He sings in praise of Lord and his
divine weapon and pays respect to the
saint of Vaishnavism-Azhwars.
Statement 3 is correct: The work favours
the tradition of Visishtadvaita philosophy
and speaks against other schools of
philosophy.
48. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Expenditure incurred by an organisation
are categorised into capital expenditure
and Revenue expenditure. Capital
expenditures are incurred by an
organisation for long-term benefits. These
expenditures serve the purpose of adding
onto the existing capacity of the long-term
asset by increasing new assets to the
organisation.
Revenue expenditure is the expenditure
incurred by an organisation to manage the
day-to-day functions of a business such as
inventory, rent, electricity, insurance,
employee wages, stationery, postage, and
taxes. These expenditures neither help in
the creation of assets nor in reducing the
liabilities of a business. These expenditures
are repetitive in nature and essential for the
daily operations of the organisation.
 `
Statement 1 is correct: Interest payment
against the borrowings of the organisation
occur periodically and year after year, it is
included in the revenue expenditure
account.
Statement 2 is correct: As payment of
salary and other allowances occur
regularly and doesn’t create any tangible
assets, it is included under revenue
expenditure of the organisation.
49. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The elephant (Elephas maximus) is the
largest land mammal in India.
• Asian elephants are thought to have
inhabited a wide range from the Tigris
River in eastern West Asia to the
Euphrates River, Persia, the Indian
subcontinent, Sri Lanka, Java, Sumatra,
South Asia including Borneo,
Southeast Asia, and China in the
north.
• However, they are currently restricted
to the Indian subcontinent, Southeast
Asia, and some Asian islands (Sri
Lanka, Indonesia, Malaysia).
Statement 1 is correct: More than half of all
wild Asian elephants are found in India.
With over 60% of wild Asian elephants
inhabiting India, the last elephant census
in 2017 recorded a population of 29,964
elephants.
Statement 2 is incorrect: By August 2022,
India had 31 Elephant Reserves (ERs).
• In the last 3 years, Dandeli Elephant
Reserve has been notified by the state
of Karnataka, Singphan Elephant
Reserve by Nagaland (30th ER and
not the first) and Lemru Elephant
Reserve in Chhattisgarh. The
Singhbhum Elephant Reserve
(Jharkhand) is the first Elephant
Reserve of the country, which was
created in 2001 under the Project
Elephant.
Statement 3 is incorrect: At present, the
total area under Elephant Reserves in India
is about 76,508 sq km across 14 states of the
country.
22 | UPSC-MOCK-01
50. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Chemists Carolyn Bertozzi, Morten Meldal
and Barry Sharpless were recently
awarded the nobel prize for chemistry for
their contributions to click chemistry and
bioorthogonal chemistry. Click chemistry
is a new approach of creating complex
molecules in laboratories with greater
efficiency and less wastage. According to
this approach, one must look for starting
molecules that easily react with each other
while trying to produce any particular
compound or a complex molecule.
Hence option (b) is correct whereas option
(a), option (c) and option (d) are incorrect.
51. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Ocean currents are movements of surface
water. Like atmospheric circulation, ocean
currents help to redistribute energy across
the earth.
Statement 1 is correct: Cold ocean currents
have a direct effect on desert formation in
west coast regions of the tropical and
subtropical continents. There is fog and
most of the areas are arid due to desiccating
effects (loss of moisture).
Statement 2 is incorrect: Oyashio Current
is a cold western boundary current in the
North Pacific. It originates in the Bering Sea
and flows south-west to meet the Kuroshio
Current east of northern Japan. The
California Current is a cold Pacific Ocean
current that moves southwards along the
western coast of North America.
Statement 3 is correct: The mixing of warm
and cold currents help to replenish the
oxygen and favor the growth of planktons,
the primary food for fish population. The
best fishing grounds of the world exist
mainly in these mixing zones.
 `
52. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Transnistria Republic, formerly known
as the Pridnestrovie Moldova Republic
(PMR), is an unrecognised state located on
a narrow strip of land between the Dniester
River and the border between Moldova
and Ukraine.
• Recently, Transnistria was in the news
amidst the two-month-long war
between Russia and Ukraine.
Figure: Transnistria
Source: TRT World
Statement 1 is incorrect: Transnistria is
bordered by Romania to the west and
Ukraine to the north, east, and south.
Statement 2 is correct: Transnistria is not a
member of the North Atlantic Treaty
Organisation (NATO).
Statement 3 is correct: Transnistria is not a
member of the European Union.
54. Answer: (c)
53. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Recently, the Genetic Engineering
Appraisal Committee (GEAC), the apex
regulator of genetically modified plants
and food products in India, has approved
the environmental release of Dhara
Mustard Hybrid-11 (DMH-11), a
genetically-engineered variant of mustard.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Both Bt Cotton
and DMH-11 are transgenic crops because
they use foreign genes from a different
species. DMH-11 is an outcome of a cross
between two varieties: Varuna and Early
Heera-2. The crossing was done after
introducing genes from two soil bacterium
called barnase and barstar. DMH-11 (11
23 | UPSC-MOCK-01
refers to the number of generations after
which desirable traits manifest) has better
yield and is also fertile. Bt cotton refers to
transgenic cotton which contains
endotoxin protein inducing genes from
soil bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis.
Statement 2 is incorrect: There are several
mustard varieties in India and they are
self-pollinating i.e. its flowers have both
female (pistil) and male (stamen)
reproductive organs. DMH-11 has been
developed by turning off this self-
pollinating trait to enable hybridisation
(crossing two genetically dissimilar plant
varieties that can even be from the same
species) and then restoring the trait.
Statement 3 is correct: India imports
around 55-60% of its domestic edible-oil
requirement. In 2020-21, around 13.3
million tonnes of edible oil were imported
at a cost of ₹1.17 lakh crore according to the
National Academy of Agricultural
Sciences. This is primarily due to low
productivity. Edible oils like palm,
soybean and sunflower are imported by
India in large quantities however,
mustard oil is not imported. Hence, usage
of DMH-11 commercially can lead to a
rise in its domestic production and will
check the need to import other edible oils,
helping in addressing the trade deficit
through increased consumption of this
variety of oil.
Explanation:
Contempt of Court has been defined as any
conduct which tends to disrespect or
overlook the authority of Law and Order.
The Contempt of Court Act, 1971, defines
the power of courts to punish for their
contempt and regulates their procedure. It
seeks to protect judicial institutions from
any kind of disobedience towards judges,
or obstruction in the implementation of
their directives, or comments and actions
that exhibit disrespect.
 `
Statement 1 is incorrect: The
expression contempt of court has not been
defined by the Constitution. Although:
Article 129 grants the Supreme Court the
power to punish for contempt of itself.
Article 142(2) enables the Supreme Court to
investigate and punish any person for its
contempt.
Article 215 grants every High Court the
power to punish for contempt of itself.
The Delhi High Court has recently said
that,"Subordinate courts cannot assume
jurisdiction and issue show cause notice
as to why contempt proceedings be not
initiated; they can only make a reference
to the High Court.
Statement 2 is correct: The State can
impose reasonable restrictions on the
exercise of the freedom of speech and
expression on the grounds of sovereignty
and integrity of India, security of the state,
friendly relations with foreign states,
public order, decency or morality,
contempt of court, defamation, and
incitement to an offence.
Statement 3 is correct: The Attorney
General’s consent is mandatory when a
private citizen wants to initiate a case of
contempt of court against a person. Before
such a plea can be filed, the Attorney
General must sign off on the complaint,
determining if it requires the attention of
the court at all. If the AG denies consent,
the matter all but ends.
55. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
National Payment Corporation of India
(NPCI) is an umbrella organisation for
prompting retail payments and settlement
systems.
Statement 1 is correct: NPCI was
incorporated as a ‘Not for Profit’ company
under the provisions of Section 25 of
Companies Act 1956 (now Section 8 of
Companies Act 2013). It is an initiative of
the Reserve Bank of India and Indian
Bank’s Association. NPCI is focused on the
usage of technology for bringing
innovation into the payment and
settlement ecosystem.
24 | UPSC-MOCK-01
Statement 2 is incorrect: ‘National
Automated Clearing House (NACH)’ was
implemented by NPCI and it is a web
based solution which facilitates the
interbank, high volume and high
frequency transactions for banks, other
financial institutions, government etc.
NACH can be used to make bulk
transactions like subsidy, salary etc.
Statement 3 is correct: National Payments
Corporation of India (NPCI) in association
with National Health Authority (NHA),
Department of Financial Services (DFS),
Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
(MoHFW), and partner banks introduced
an innovative digital solution known as e-
RUPI. e-RUPI is a pre-paid digital voucher
(SMS or QR code) received by the
beneficiary, who can avail specific services
from the service providers who accept it. e-
RUPI mechanism consists of 4 entities such
as service sponsor, Bank, Beneficiary and
Service provider. This revolutionary
ecosystem is used by the government for
various welfare payments.
56. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Ghadar Party was led by the
revolutionary group which was organised
around a weekly newspaper ‘The Ghadr’.
It was a revolutionary group made up
of mainly ex-soldiers and peasants who
had migrated from the Punjab to the USA
and Canada in search of better
employment opportunities.
Statement 1 is correct: The headquarters of
the Ghadr Party ‘Yugantar Ashram’ was
located at San Francisco and had branches
along the US coast and in the Far East. The
headquarters had its own Press and a
weekly paper, the Ghadr, was published.
The publication of the Ghadr weekly
started in November 1913 and the party
itself came to be known by that name.
 `

Statement 2 is correct: The origin of the
Ghadr Party can be attributed to several
factors both external and internal. The
discrimination against Indians in Canada
and the United States and the clash of
interest between American and Indian
labour were two major reasons.
57. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Article 17 under this Convention provides
for ships of all States, whether coastal or
land-locked, to enjoy the right of innocent
passage through the territorial sea.
Innocent passage: Passage is innocent so
long as it is not prejudicial to the peace,
good order or security of the coastal State.
Such passage shall take place in conformity
with this Convention and with other rules
of international law.

The United Nations Convention on the Statement 3 is incorrect: UNCLOS defines

Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) is an Territorial sea and Contiguous zone.
international agreement that establishes a
legal framework for all marine & maritime Every State has the right to establish the
activities and the management of marine breadth of its Territorial sea up to a limit
natural resources. not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured
from baselines determined in accordance
Statement 1 is correct: According to Article with this Convention.
2 under section 1 of the United Nations
Convention on the Law of the The Contiguous zone may not extend
Sea (UNCLOS), the sovereignty of a beyond 24 nautical miles from the
coastal State extends, beyond its land baselines from which the breadth of the
territory and internal waters and, in the territorial sea is measured.
case of an archipelagic State, its
archipelagic waters, to an adjacent belt of
sea, described as the territorial sea.
Additionally, sovereignty extends to the air
space over the territorial sea as well as to its
seabed and subsoil.

Statement 2 is incorrect: UNCLOS’s

Subsection C of Section 3 gives a detailed
provision regarding warships. As per it,
"warship" means a ship belonging to the
armed forces of a State bearing the external
marks distinguishing such ships of its Figure: Maritime zones under UNCLOS
nationality, under the command of an Source: iilss.net
officer duly commissioned by the
government of the State and whose name
appears in the appropriate service list or its
equivalent, and manned by a crew which is
under regular armed forces discipline. It
further mentions in Article 30 that, if any
warship does not comply with the laws and
regulations of the coastal State concerning
passage through the territorial sea and
disregards any request for compliance
therewith which is made to it, the coastal
State may require it to leave the territorial
sea immediately.

25 | UPSC-MOCK-01
 `
58. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Quantum Key Distribution is a secure
communications technology through
which two parties can share random secret
keys known only to them and can be used
to encrypt or decrypt messages. It is based
on the principle of Quantum mechanism. It
is the most common technology present in
the field of quantum communication.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Quantum
communication is based on transmission of
quantum bits or Qubits which represents
multiple combinations of 1 and 0
simultaneously. Hence, they do not use
binary codes for encryption of data.
Statement 2 is correct: Quantum
cryptography cannot prevent
eavesdropping, but it can detect it because
eavesdropping affects the quantum state of
the information carriers and results in an
abnormal error rate making it detectable by
the legitimate users.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Recently, Indian
Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has
successfully demonstrated free-space
Quantum Communication. However, only
over a distance of 300 m. It has yet to
achieve Quantum satellite
communication.
59. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Mass movements are transport and
accumulation processes that occur on both
gentle and steep slopes, mostly due to
gravitational forces. As a result of mass
movements, landscapes are levelled and
formed.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Weathering is not
a prerequisite for mass movements, but it
aids mass movements. It is an in-situ
process, i.e., very little or no motion of
material takes place during weathering.
Mechanical disintegration and chemical
decomposition of rocks through the
various elements of weather and climate is
defined as weathering.
26 | UPSC-MOCK-01
Statement 2 is incorrect: Mass movements
are aided by gravity and no geomorphic
agents like running water, wind, waves,
glaciers participate in the process. Mass
movements are very active on weathered
slopes rather than over unweathered
materials. Therefore, weathering aids in
mass movement.
Statement 3 is correct: Mass movements do
not come under erosion even though there
is a shift of materials from one place to
another. Mass movement takes place under
the direct influence of gravity and not ice,
water or air. The debris may carry air, ice
or water and not the other way around.
Whereas erosion agents like running water,
glaciers, groundwater, waves and wind
remove and transport it to other places.
60. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Green Fins Hub is developed by the
Reef-World Foundation in collaboration
with the United Nations Environment
Program (UNEP) to address key
sustainability challenges in the marine
conservation tourism industry.
• It is the first-ever global marine
tourism industry platform, enabling
operators to leverage proven solutions,
track year-on-year improvements, and
communicate with communities and
customers to bring simplicity into their
daily practices.
Option (b) is correct: The United Nations
Environment Program (UNEP), together
with the Reef-World Foundation, launched
the Green Fins Hub to give a major boost to
sustainable marine tourism.
61. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Ziro Valley is a popular tourist destination
in the central part of Arunachal
Pradesh. Ziro is famous for its natural
beauty and hills and is located on the
Apatani Plateau.
 `
Statement 1 is incorrect: At present, it is
included in the Tentative List of
UNESCO’s World Heritage Site and has
not been designated as a UNESCO World
Heritage site yet.
Statement 2 is correct: Kiwis from Ziro
Valley in the Lower Subansiri area are
India’s first certified organic fruit and with
this Arunachal Pradesh became the first
state in the country to have organic
certification for kiwi.
• The organic certification was provided
by the Mission Organic Value Chain
Development for the Northeast
Region (MOVCD-NER), a program
for the northeast states of the central
government's Ministry of Agriculture
and Farmer Welfare.
62. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Recently, Archaeological Survey of India
(ASI) has started working on a roadmap to
safely remove sand from the interiors of
Odisha’s Sun Temple.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Konarak Sun
temple belongs to Kalinga school of
temple architecture which is a subset of
Nagara style of architecture. The Nagara
style is characterised by a square ground
plan, containing a sanctuary and assembly
hall (mandapa). In terms of elevation, there
is a huge curvilinear tower (shikhara),
inclining inwards and capped.
Statement 2 is correct: The Sun temple at
Konark was built under the reign of
Narasimhadeva I of the Eastern Ganga
Dynasty (CE 1238-1264) of the 13th century
Eastern Ganga dynasty of Odisha.
Statement 3 is correct: Some experts are of
the opinion that the Sun Temple was built
in the sea, giving an impression of the Sun
God emerging out of the water at day
break. The European sailors referred to the
temple as ‘Black Pagoda’ because of the
darkish impression of the roof of the
temple. It served as an important landmark
for the sailors navigating through the Bay
of Bengal in those days.
27 | UPSC-MOCK-01
63. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
It has been a century since the discovery of
insulin by Sir Frederick G Banting, Charles
H Best and JJR Macleod at the University of
Toronto in 1921.
• Insulin is a hormone produced inside
pancreas. Insulin has many functions
including regulating the blood glucose
level in the body. Hence, the irregular
level of insulin can result in diabetes.
o When the body is not able to
produce insulin or is able to
produce very low amounts of
insulin it results in Type-1 diabetes
which is also known as juvenile
diabetes.
▪ When the body is not able to
reciprocate to the Level of
insulin produced in the
pancreas it results in Type 2
diabetes.
o Type 2 diabetes can happen due to
high insulin or low insulin being
produced in the body
Statement 1 is correct: Both animal as well
as human insulin can be used as treatment
of diabetes. Till 1980 animal insulin was
used for diabetes treatment, but now
human insulin and human analogue
insulin has replaced them majorly.
However, animal insulin is still used by
many patients.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Higher insulin
sensitivity means the body is well
reciprocating to the level of insulin
produced by pancreas. Hence, the insulin
can effectively regulate the blood glucose
level and will not result in high blood
glucose level.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Juvenile diabetes
is also known as Type-1 diabetes Results
from no insulin or very low insulin
produced by pancreas. However, Insulin
resistance is caused due to the body not
reciprocating the level of insulin produced
by pancreas and results in Type-2 diabetes
or adult diabetes.
 `
64. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Doctrine of Basic Structure is a judicial
innovation by the Supreme Court of India
in Kesavananda Bharati case. The Basic
structure doctrine refers to those essential
features of the Constitution which cannot
be amended by the Parliament.
Option (a) is correct: In the Indira Nehru
Gandhi case (1975) the Supreme Court
invalidated a provision of the 39th
Amendment Act (1975) which kept the
election disputes involving the Prime
Minister and the Speaker of Lok Sabha
outside the jurisdiction of all courts. The
court said that this provision was beyond
the amending power of Parliament as it
affected the basic structure of the
constitution.
Option (b) is incorrect: According to
Article 358, when a proclamation of
national emergency is made on the ground
of war or external aggression (External
emergency), the six Fundamental Rights
under Article 19 are automatically
suspended. The suspension itself does not
violate the basic structure of the
Constitution as the provision has been
added to meet unforeseen circumstances
during a national emergency.
Option (c) is incorrect: The Constitution
does not guarantee the present existence of
states and union territories. Further,
territorial integrity of any state is not a part
of the basic structure of the Constitution.
Option (d) is incorrect: Parliament has
power under Article 32 to empower any
other court with writ jurisdiction. At
present, only the Supreme Court and High
Courts have writ jurisdiction. This does
not violate the basic structure.
28 | UPSC-MOCK-01
65. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Blue Flag Tag or Blue Flag Certification
is one of the most widely recognized
voluntary ecolabels in the world.
Awarded to beach, marina and
sustainable boat tourism providers. This
accreditation is awarded by the Denmark-
based non-profit Foundation for
Environmental Education or FEE and is
awarded annually to beaches and marinas
in FEE member countries.
Option (b) is correct: Indian Beaches that
have been conferred with internationally
recognized Blue Flag Certification are:
1. Shivrajpur, Devbhumi Dwarka
District, Gujarat
2. Ghoghla (Diu) Dadara Nagar Haveli
and Daman & Diu
3. Padubidri, Udupi District, Karnataka
4. Kasarkod, Karwar District, Karnataka
5. Kappad, Kozhikode District, Kerala
6. Kovalam, Kanchipuram District,
Tamil Nadu
7. Eden, Puducherry District, Puducherry
8. Rushikonda, Visakhapatnam District,
Andhra Pradesh
9. Golden, Puri District, Odisha
10. Radhanagar (Havelock), Andaman &
Nicobar Islands
66. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Debentures are debt instruments which are
similar to bonds. However, the key
difference between bonds and debentures
is that bonds are secured whereas
debentures are not secured. Debentures are
backed by the full faith and credit of
issuers.
Non-convertible debentures are those
debentures which cannot be converted to
shares or equities.
Statement 1 is correct: Non Convertible
debentures do offer a higher rate of return
compared to convertible debentures. This
is to compensate for the drawback of non-
convertibility.
 `
Statement 2 is incorrect: Non convertible
debentures are not insured under Deposit
Insurance and Credit Guarantee
Corporation (DICGC).
68. Answer: (c)
DICGC was established through the
Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee
Corporation Act, 1961' (DICGC Act). It
insures both principal and interest up to a
maximum of rupees five lakhs.
67. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
ISRO has developed a small satellite launch
vehicle (SSLV) to cater the launch of up to
500 kg satellites to Low Earth Orbits on
‘launch-on-demand’ basis. Recently, an
ISRO mission failed to place the satellites in
their required orbits.
The aim of developing the vehicle:
• Providing on demand, Low cost, less
infrastructure needing service to
commercial satellite developers.
Features
• 2m diameter x 34m long
• Lift off mass: ~120T
• Three Solid propulsion stages
• Liquid module as terminal stage
PAYLOAD CAPABILITY
• Single/Multi Satellites - Nano, Micro
and Mini satellites
• Single Satellite up to 500 kg in 500km
planar orbit
• Multiple satellites ranging from 10 kg
to 300kg into 500km Planar Orbit
Statement 1 is incorrect: It has three stages
powered by solid fuel whereas liquid
propellants are used in the Polar Satellite
Launch Vehicle (PSLV).
Statement 2 is incorrect: It has the
capability of launching multiple satellites
or single satellites. It can launch nano,
micro and mini satellites in a single go.
Statement 3 is correct: It has low
turnaround time compared to other launch
vehicle including Polar Satellite Launch
Vehicle (PSLV)
29 | UPSC-MOCK-01
Statement 4 is correct: SSLV is capable of
launching satellites into 500 KM planar
Low Earth orbit only.
Explanation:
Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: Aditya I was
the Successor of Vijayalaya who founded
the Chola Dynasty. His military
achievements are significant in the
expansion of the Chola kingdom. At the
battle of Shripurambiyam, he allied with
the Pallavas and defeated Pandyas Later
in 893 CE, he defeated and killed his
Pallava overlord Aparajita thus bringing
Tondaimandalam (southern Tamil
country) under his Control.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: Pala controlled
the territory of Assam (also known as
Kamrupa or Pragjyotisha) until a local
ruler Harjaravarman declared
independence from the Palas in 800 CE. He
is credited for establishing the Salamba
dynasty having capital at Haruppeshvara
on the banks of river Brahmaputra.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Dantidurga
was the feudatory of the Chalukya king,
Kirtivarman II, who later founded the
Rashtrakuta dynasty. He had helped his
father-in-law, the Pallava King
Nandivarmana to regain Kanchi from the
Chalukyas and also defeated the Gurjaras
of Malwa, and the rulers of Kalinga,
Kosala and Srisailam.
Pair 4 is correctly matched: Vatsaraja was
the successor of Nagabhata I of Pratihara
Dynasty. He extended his rule over a large
part of North India and made Kannauj (in
present western Uttar Pradesh) his capital.
His policy of expansion brought him into
conflict with Pala King Dharmapala, and
also the Rashtrakuta king Dhruva. This
led to the beginning of the ‘tripartite
struggle’.
 `

69. Answer: (a)

Explanation:

Pair 1 is incorrect: Rohingya Muslims had

fled Myanmar since August 25, 2017, when
the country’s army began a brutal
campaign of violence against the
community. The mass carnage was
described by the United Nations as having
all the “hallmarks of genocide”. The vast
majority of the population that escaped
across the border into Bangladesh were
accommodated in the Kutupalong-
Balukhali refugee camps in Cox’s Bazar
district.
Figure: Odessa
Source: economist.comE

Pair 3 is correct: Two Border Security Force

(BSF) personnel, who were part of the UN
Peacekeeping Mission in the Democratic
Republic of Congo, were among five
people killed during a protest in an eastern
town of Butembo near the border with
Uganda on 26th July 2022.

Figure: refugee camps

Source: Mercycops.org
Pair 2 is correct: United Nations and
Turkey brokered the deal that ensured that
Ukraine could export food grains during
the Russia-Ukraine conflict. In this regard,
the first ship carrying Ukrainian grain has
set off from the Port of Odessa. The Sierra
Leone-flagged cargo ship Razoni left
Odessa carrying over 26,000 tons of corn
destined for Lebanon.
Figure: DRC
Source: fews.net
Pair 4 is correct: Indonesia’s Parliament
approved a bill to relocate the country’s
capital from Jakarta to a new city to be built
on the island of Borneo, named as
Nusantara. The decision followed growing
concerns about the long-term sustainability
of Jakarta.

Figure: Indonesia
Source: Indian Experss

30 | UPSC-MOCK-01
 `
70. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Lithium is a soft, white silvery alkali metal.
Under standard conditions, it is the lightest
metal and the lightest solid element.
Statement 1 is correct: Lithium is widely
used in batteries, ceramics, glass,
lubricants, refrigeration, nuclear, and
photovoltaic industries. With the
continuous development of computers,
digital cameras, mobile phones, mobile
power tools and other electronic products,
the battery industry has become the largest
consumption area of lithium.
Statement 2 is correct: In 2021, the
Department of Atomic Energy discovered
the country’s first lithium reserve of 1600
tonnes in Mandya, Karnataka.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Bolivia is home
to the world’s biggest lithium reserves,
followed by Argentina and Chile.
Statement 4 is correct: Scientists have
found for the first time that all the lithium-
rich stars are burning helium in their core.
71. Answer: (c)
72. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Open Network for Digital Commerce
(ONDC) is an initiative of Government of
India which intends to ensure large scale
democratisation of digital commerce in
India..
Figure: Three Pillars of ONDC
Source: ONDC Strategy Paper
31 | UPSC-MOCK-01
Statement 1 is incorrect:.ONDC cannot be
called a super aggregator application or a
hosting platform. Instead it is basically an
open network which is led by the market
and the community. Hence, it will not act
as a hosting platform for e-commerce
activities.
Statement 2 is incorrect: ONDC does not
follow a platform centric digital
commerce model in which both the buyer
and seller have to use the same platform or
application to do a business
transaction. Any compatible application of
their choice can be used by the buyers and
sellers to exchange information and carry
out transactions
Statement 3 is correct: It facilitates the
existing digital commerce apps and
platforms to voluntarily choose to adopt
and be a part of the ONDC network.
Source: ONDC Strategy Paper
Explanation:
During the Global oil Summit in Agra in
September 2022, the Asian Palm Oil
Alliance (APOA) was launched. Its goals
are to gain more negotiating leverage for
countries that import palm oil and
maintain imports.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Asian Palm Oil
Alliance (APOA) has been formed by apex
edible oil trade associations from five palm
oil importing countries in South Asia –
India, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh
and Nepal.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The objective to
create APOA is to increase collecting
bargaining power and make imports
sustainable, so the alliance works toward
making imports sustainable rather than
reducing dependency on palm oil import.
The alliance would aim to change the
stigma associated with palm oil and
promote it as a high quality, affordable,
 `
and healthy vegetable oil. It aims to
protect the commercial and economic
interests of palm oil-consuming nations
and will endeavour to increase palm oil
consumption in member nations.
Statement 3 is correct: Indonesia and
Malaysia are the biggest palm oil exporters
in the world, while other oils such as soya
and sunflower oil are exported by
Argentina, Brazil, Ukraine and Russia.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Around 40% of
the world's palm oil is consumed in Asia,
whereas just 12% is traded in Europe. The
two countries that export the most palm oil
worldwide are Indonesia and Malaysia.
With 15% of the world's imports, India is
Asia's top importer of palm oil, followed by
China (9%), Pakistan (4%) and Bangladesh
(2%).
73. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Wild tigers are found in India, Nepal,
China, Russia, Bhutan, Myanmar,
Cambodia, Laos, Vietnam, Thailand,
Sumatra (Indonesia), and Malaysia. In
India, forests have been demarcated as
Tiger reserves, National Parks, and
Wildlife Sanctuaries, also known as
Protected Areas for the better management
of tiger habitats.
Statement 1 is correct: As per the Ministry
of Environment, Forest and Climate
Change, India has 52 tiger sanctuaries
spread over 18 states and is home to
approximately 75% of the world's wild
tiger population.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Conservation
Assured Tiger Standards (CA|TS) are
global certification standards for tiger
conservation. As of August 2022, 17 Tiger
Reserves in India have got CA|TS
international accreditation.
Statement 3 is incorrect: At present, Jim
Corbett National Park in Uttarakhand
reports the highest concentration of tiger
reserves in India with 14 tigers per 100
square kilometres, followed by Kaziranga
National Park, Nagarhole and Orang
Tiger Reserve in Assam.
32 | UPSC-MOCK-01
74. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
NDCs, or Nationally Determined
Contribution , are climate action plans to
reduce emissions and adapt to climate
impacts. NDCs set targets for countries to
reduce greenhouse gas emissions that
contribute to climate change and to adapt
to the impacts of climate change. Each
country party to the Paris Agreement must
prepare an NDC and update it every five
years.
Statement 1 is incorrect: India's NDCs do
not bind India to sector-specific mitigation
commitments or actions.
Statement 2 is correct: The updated NDC
provides a framework for India's clean
energy transition for the period 2021-2030.
India's updated NDC will be implemented
for the period 2021-2030 with appropriate
support from States and Union Territories
through programs and plans of relevant
ministries/departments.
Statement 3 is correct: According to the
updated NDC, India now aims to reduce
its GDP emissions intensity by 45% from
2005 levels and achieve about 50% of its
cumulative installed power capacity from
non-fossil fuel-based energy sources by
2030.
75. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Inflation can be defined as the increase in
prices of goods and services over a period
of time. Fiscal policy measures involve
using government spending and taxation
to influence the economy.
Option (a) is correct: Increasing income
tax can reduce the demand as it decreases
personal disposable income. Reduced
demand can help in controlling inflation.
Option (b) is incorrect: Monetisation of
debt involves the central bank purchasing
government bonds to finance the spending
needs of the government. This results in
increasing the money supply, which in turn
leads to further inflation.
 `
Option (c) is incorrect: Increased transfer
payments can have a positive effect on
aggregate demand which in turn may
further fuel inflation.
Option (d) is incorrect: Removing stock
limits on essential goods may lead to the
stocking and profiteering of these goods
which in turn results in increased demand
and a further increase in prices.
76. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
In order to curb defection, the anti-
defection law was brought through the
52nd Amendment Act of 1985. This
amendment is known as anti-defection
law. The aim is to bring political stability
and demand accountability from the
legislatures.
Statement 1 is incorrect: In Ravi S Naik vs
Union of India, 1994, the Supreme Court of
India had held that voluntarily giving up
membership does not necessarily mean
that the legislator needs to formally
resign, and that it can be inferred from the
member’s conduct as well. Hence, if an
MLA does not tender a formal resignation
from their party, but stands for election
from another party, or takes up a position
in another party, that would also amount
to voluntarily giving up their membership,
and be grounds for disqualification.
Statement 2 is correct: Article 180 of the
Indian Constitution gives the Deputy
Speaker the power to conduct the duties of
the Speaker when the Speaker's chair is
vacant. This also includes the power to
conduct disqualification proceedings
under the Tenth schedule.
Statement 3 is correct: In 2020, the
Supreme Court of India had removed the
Manipur Minister from the state cabinet
and restrained him “from entering the
Legislative Assembly till further orders” by
invoking the court’s extraordinary powers
under Article 142 of the Constitution.
Disqualification petitions against the
minister were pending before the Speaker
since 2017.
33 | UPSC-MOCK-01
77. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Direct Seed Rice (DSR) is a technique of
planting the seeds directly in the field
instead of transplanting from the nursery.
Point 1 is correct: In this technique the rice
crops matures 10-15 days earlier in
comparison to the conventional method.
Point 2 is correct: Before DSR is carried out
the land is covered with the surface mulch
which in turn helps in conservation of soil
moisture. Further this technique is based
on the zero till method, which helps in
controlling loss of moisture.
Point 3 is correct: The conventional
method requires the field to be flooded
before the rice is transplanted from the
nursery. DSR technique helps in
overcoming these limitations. Under this
technique the plant is directly planted in
the field and thus requires less amount of
water. It thus helps in reducing water
requirements. This technique is expected to
conserve water by 35-40 %.
Point 4 is correct: The main advantage of
this technique is that it helps in reduction
of methane emission, since fewer amounts
of water are used in the initial phase. But,
another disadvantage is that it enhances
the emission of Nitrogen dioxide.
78. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Option 1 is correct: The East Asia Summit
(EAS) has 18 members - the ten ASEAN
countries (Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia,
Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, the Philippines,
Singapore, Thailand, Vietnam) along with
Australia, China, India, Japan, New
Zealand, the Republic of Korea, Russia and
the United States.
Option 2 is correct: I2U2 stands for India,
Israel, the UAE, and the US, and is also
referred to as the ‘West Asian Quad’.
Option 3 is incorrect: An informal "Coffee
Club", comprising 40 member states, has
been instrumental in holding back reforms
to the United Nations Security Council.
 `

Most of the members of the club are
middle-sized states who oppose bigger
regional powers grabbing permanent seats
in the UN Security Council.
The Important countries of the club include
Italy, Spain, Australia, Canada, South
Korea, Argentina and Pakistan. While
Italy and Spain are opposed to Germany's
bid for Security Council's permanent
membership, Pakistan is opposed to India's
bid. India is not a member.
Statement 3 is correct: Nanosponges are
used in targeted drug delivery. The core
can be loaded with drugs and an
entrapping agent can be used for ensuring
the slow release of drugs at the target
locations. Apart from targeted drug
delivery, they can also be used for
improved drug delivery by helping
improve the physical properties of
medications(e.g. solubility).

Option 4 is incorrect: The United

Kingdom, Australia, New Zealand, the
United States and Japan announced the
creation of a new cooperation format – The
Partners in the Blue Pacific (PBP) – an
inclusive and informal mechanism to more Figure: Targeted drug delivery using
effectively and efficiently support the goals nano spondes
of the region’s small island nations. It aims Source: Science direct
to enhance cooperation in the fields of - 80. Answer: (c)
climate crisis, connectivity and
transportation, maritime security and Explanation:
protection, health, prosperity, and
education. Recently, the mountain in the Galapagos
Islands has erupted, spewing lava and
plumes across the Pacific Ocean, according
79. Answer: (b) to Ecuador's Institute of Geophysics.
• Galapagos Islands is an island group of
Explanation:
the eastern Pacific Ocean,
Nano sponges were recently found to have administratively a province of
the ability to inhibit the infectivity of Ecuador, South America.
viruses like the SARS-CoV-2 virus. These
are nanomaterials with a wide range of
applications ranging from targeted drug
delivery to pollution control.

Statement 1 is correct: Nanosponges are

tiny mesh like structures which have a
polymeric nanoparticle core. Polymeric
nanoparticles are particles within the size
range from 1 to 1000 nm which can be filled
with active compounds, such as a drug.
The compound can be entrapped within or
surface-adsorbed onto it. If a structure such
as Nanosponges uses it as a core then it is Figure: Galapagos Islands
known as polymeric nanoparticle core. Source: Britannica

Statement 2 is correct: They are Option (a) is correct: The islands are
biodegradable which gives it an advantage protected from the warming of the Pacific
in targeted drug delivery. A nano sponge Ocean by a cold, eastward equatorial
filled with a drug degrades gradually in the ocean current.
body thereby releasing the drug at the
targeted location. In addition they are
stable at higher temperatures.

34 | UPSC-MOCK-01
 `

Option (b) is correct: UNESCO designated

the Galapagos Islands as a World Heritage
Site in 1978 and the Galapagos National
Park as a Biosphere Reserve in 1984. In late
2001, UNESCO expanded its World
Heritage designation to include the
Galapagos Marine Reserve.

Option (c) is incorrect: The Galapagos

Islands are made up of lava mountains and
are dotted with periodically active shield
volcanoes.

Option (d) is correct: The Galapagos island

is situated at the confluence of 3 major
eastern Pacific currents and is influenced
by climatic phenomena such as El Niño.
In El Niño years, when ocean currents and
trade winds weaken, the entire Galapagos
food chain is affected, and many species
face mass starvation and extinction.

81. Answer: (c)

Explanation:

Recently the Global Methane, Climate and

Clean Air Forum 2022 was held in
Washington, DC in September 2022 which
discussed the methane emissions
reductions regarding the Global Methane
Pledge.

Statement 1 is incorrect: According to the

International Energy agency's recent
Methane Tracker, in 2021 India was the
second-highest emitter of methane globally
after China. In India the Agriculture
emissions of methane are more than the
combined emission of all other sectors like
energy, waste and others. As shown below
in the images from IEA, the contribution
of agricultural emission of methane in
India is 19.5 mt but other sources
combined just contribute 12.3 mt (Waste-
6.3 and Energy-5.2 and others .8).

35 | UPSC-MOCK-01
 `
83. Answer: (a)
All Figures: Emitters of methane with
breakdown by sector, 2021
Source: IEA
Statement 2 is incorrect: Reduction of
emissions of methane-like gases which
increase global warming and climate
change do help to tackle climate change but
these practices do not come under the
category of Adaptations but they are under
the category of climate change mitigation
techniques.
Statement 3 is correct: The recently
launched Global Methane Pledge at COP
26 of the United Nations Framework
Convention on Climate Change to
collectively reduce methane emissions by
at least 30% below 2020 levels by 2030.
82. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The government of India in the budget
which was presented in the Parliament in
February 2022 had announced the launch
of ‘digital rupee’, which is a Central Bank
Digital Currency (CBDC).
Statement 1 is correct: According to the
Reserve Bank of India (RBI), CBDC is a
legal tender issued by it in digital form. It
can be hence exchanged one-to-one at par
with the fiat currency as it is the same as the
sovereign currency.
36 | UPSC-MOCK-01
Statement 2 is incorrect: Holders of CBDC
need not necessarily have a bank account.
CBDC is a liability of the central bank and
not the commercial banks and is designed
to work outside the banking system. This
feature is considered to help in financial
inclusion.
Statement 3 is correct: CBDC can broadly
be classified into CBDC general purpose
(retail)(CBDC-R) and CBDC wholesale
(CBDC-W) depending on the functions
performed and usage. CBDC-R can be used
by all private sector, non-financial
consumers and businesses. CBDC-W is
designed for restricted access by financial
institutions.
Explanation:
The Lodi dynasty came to power under
Sultan Bahlol Lodi. The Lodis were the last
ruling family of the Sultanate period and
the first to be headed by Afghans.
Statement 1 is correct: Sultan Bahlol Lodi
used to call his fellow Afghan nobles
‘masnad-i ali’ and never sat on the throne
in front of them. To placate Afghan nobles,
Bahlol Lodhi publicly declared that he
considered himself one of the Afghan peers
and not the king. The Afghan monarchy
was primarily ‘tribal’ in nature. For them,
the King was ‘first among equals’.
Statement 2 is incorrect: After the death of
Bahlol Lodhi, Sikandar Lodhi (AD 1489–
1517) ascended the throne. Sikandar Lodhi
showed little tolerance towards the non-
mulsims. He re-imposed jaziya on non-
mulsims. Sikandar Lodhi, in whose reign
Vasco da Gama landed in India, was the
most powerful of the Lodhi rulers.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Babur defeated
Sultan Ibrahim Lodi (not Sikandar Lodi)
at the Battle of Panipat in 1526 CE.
 `

84. Answer: (d) 85. Answer: (d)

Explanation: Explanation:

The Shanghai Cooperation Organization
(SCO), a Eurasian political, economic and
security forum was founded in 2001.
Recently the 22nd Meeting of the Council
of Heads of State of the Shanghai
Cooperation Organisation (SCO) took
place in Samarkand, Uzbekistan.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Iran has signed a
memorandum of commitments to join the
Shanghai Cooperation Organization
(SCO), and will attend the 2023 summit as
a permanent member. However
Afghanistan is not a permanent member
yet, it has observer status.
In CAR T-cell therapy the T cells which are
collected from the patients are genetically
engineered to produce proteins called
chimeric antigen receptors, or CARs on
their surface. The CARs are known to have
the capability to identify and bind to
specific proteins or antigens which are on
the surface of cancer cells. This ultimately
leads to destruction of the cancer cells.
Hence, it involves immunotherapy in
which a person's immune system is
programmed to fight on its own.

Statement 2 is incorrect: SCO has two

Permanent Bodies - (i) SCO Secretariat in
Beijing and (ii) Executive Committee of the
Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS)
in Tashkent. The Chairmanship of SCO is
by rotation for a year by Member States.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Varanasi was

declared as first-ever SCO Tourism and
Cultural Capital for 2022-2023 at
Samarkand Summit. lt will promote
tourism, cultural and humanitarian
exchanges between India and the SCO Figure: CAR T-cell Therapy
member Countries. It also underlines Source: cancer.gov
India’s ancient civilizational links with
Member States of SCO, especially the Hence option (d) is correct whereas option
Central Asian Republics. (a), option (b) and option (c) are incorrect.

Statement 4 is correct: The rotational

presidency of the Shanghai Cooperation
Organization has been handed over to
India in Samarkand, Uzbekistan. Delhi will
hold the presidency of the grouping for a
year until September 2023. And next year,
India will host the SCO summit.
86. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Constitution, under Sixth Schedule,
contains special provisions for the
administration of tribal areas in the four
northeastern states of Assam, Meghalaya,
Tripura and Mizoram. Each autonomous
district has a district council consisting of
30 members.

37 | UPSC-MOCK-01
 `
Powers of District Council under sixth
schedule:
statement 1 is correct:The district councils
administer the areas under their
jurisdiction. They can make laws on
certain specified matters like land,
forests, canal water, shifting cultivation,
village administration, inheritance of
property, marriage and divorce, social
customs and so on. But all such laws
require the assent of the Governor.
Statement 2 is correct: The district councils
within their territorial jurisdictions can
constitute village councils or courts for
trial of suits and cases between the tribes.
They hear appeals from them. The
jurisdiction of the High Court over these
suits and cases is specified by the
Governor.
Statement 3 is correct: The district council
can establish, construct or manage primary
schools, dispensaries, markets, ferries,
fisheries, roads and so on in the district. It
can also make regulations for the control
of money lending and trading by non-
tribals. But, such regulations require the
assent of the Governor.
87. Answer: (d)
88. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
National Bank for Agriculture and Rural
Development (NABARD) was established
as a statutory body by an act of Parliament
on 12 July 1982. It is a Development Bank,
which has the mandate of providing and
regulating credit for the promotion of
agriculture, small-scale industries etc. and
other allied economic activities in rural
areas. The activities of NABARD are
steered with a view of promoting
integrated rural development and securing
the prosperity of rural areas.
Statement 1 is correct: NABARD has taken
an initiative for supporting producer
organizations (POs), adopting a flexible
approach to meet the needs of producers.
In order to give a special focus, the
“Producers Organization Development
Fund'' (PODF) was set up, with an initial
corpus of Rs. 50 crore.
38 | UPSC-MOCK-01
Statement 2 is correct: Watershed
Development Fund (WDF) under
Watershed Development Programme was
created in 1999-00 in the National Bank for
Agriculture and Rural Development
(NABARD) with broad objectives of
unification of a multiplicity of watershed
development programmes into a single
national initiative through the involvement
of village level institutions and Project
Facilitating Agencies (PFAs).
Statement 3 is correct: NABARD created a
Tribal Development Fund (TDF) under
Tribal Development Programme with a
corpus of Rs. 50 crore, out of its profits for
2003-04. All projects under TDF are
implemented by partnering with State
Governments, the Government of India,
NGOs and Corporates.
Statement 4 is correct: Since 2006
NABARD has been supporting need-based
skill development programmes under
Micro Enterprise Development
Programme (MEDPs) for SHGs. MEDPs
are on-location skill development training
programmes which attempt to bridge the
skill deficits or facilitate the optimization of
production activities already pursued by
the SHG members.
Explanation:
Europe of the 15th century was gripped by
the spirit of the Renaissance with its call for
exploration. Europeans had also developed
the art of ship-building and had made
advances in the domain of navigation.
There was an eagerness among Europeans
to explore unknown corners of the East
which led to their entry and settlement into
India.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Dutch established
their factory in Masulipatnam (in Andhra)
in 1605. Besides, they established several
trading centres in different parts of India
and started becoming a direct threat to the
Portuguese ambitions. Dutch captured
Nagapatam near Madras (Chennai) from
the Portuguese, not from Britishers and
made it their main stronghold in South
India.
 `
Statement 2 is incorrect: The decline of the
Portuguese in India was brought about by
several factors and the political factor was
one among them. The rise of the turbulent
Marathas as the immediate neighbours of
Portuguese led to the loss of Salsette and
Bassein from the Portuguese to the
Marathas.
Statement 3 is correct: In the early years,
the East India company was struggling in
making their footprint on the Indian lands
but the changing situation helped them
and turned things in their favour. For
instance, Bombay had been gifted to King
Charles II by the King of Portugal as
dowry when Charles married the
Portuguese princess Catherine in 1662.
The received gift (Bombay) was lent to East
India Company on an annual payment of
ten pounds.
89. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
There exists different climatic zones across
the world. Each zone has its own climatic
characteristics, natural vegetation, crops,
animals and human activities.
Option (a) is incorrect: Tropical Marine
Climate is experienced along the eastern
coasts of tropical lands. It has a rainfall
tendency towards summer maximum
without any distinct dry period. There is
no month without any rainfall.
Option (b) is incorrect: Warm Temperate
Western Margin Climate is entirely
confined to the western portion of
continental masses between 30 degree and
45 degree north and south of the equator.
Shifting of wind belts is the basic cause of
this climate. Westerlies are the prevailing
winds of the region during the winters.
Option (c) is incorrect: Cool Temperate
Western Margin Climate is under the
permanent influence of the westerlies all
round the year. It has adequate rainfall
throughout the year with a tendency
towards winter maximum. The natural
vegetation of this climatic type is
deciduous forest.
39 | UPSC-MOCK-01
Option (d) is correct: The Savanna Climate
is characterised by alternate hot, rainy
seasons and cool, dry seasons. The diurnal
range of temperature is extreme in the
Savanna type of climate. The prevailing
winds of the region are the trade winds
which bring rain to the coastal areas. The
landscape is typified by tall grass and short
trees. The terms ‘parkland’ or ‘bush-veld’
is used to describe the landscape of the
region. Trees have broad trunks with
water-storing devices to survive through
prolonged drought e.g. baobabs and bottle
trees.
90. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Export Oriented Units (EOU) Scheme is a
scheme which finds mention in the Foreign
Trade Policy of India and was introduced
to promote exports in India.
Option(a) is incorrect: All the provisions
of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Act
are applicable to EOU. Supplies to or from
EOU are not exempted from GST.
However, the Input Tax Credit of the GST
paid by its supplier can be taken by the
EOU.
Option(b) is incorrect: A certain portion of
the goods and services produced in the
EOU can be sold in the Domestic Tariff
Area (DTA).
Option(c) is incorrect: Both Goods and
services are exported from EOUs.
Option(d) is correct: EOUs have the
permission to have up to 100% Foreign
Direct Investment (FDI) investment
through an automatic route.
 `
91. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The ‘Project Cheetah’ was recently in the
news after a total of eight cheetahs were
translocated from Namibia to Madhya
Pradesh’s Kuno National Park. Out of the
eight Cheetahs there are five female and
three male Cheetahs.
Option (a) is correct: Project Cheetah,
which is the world's first inter-continental
large wild carnivore translocation project.
Option (b) is correct: ‘Project Cheetah’ is a
one-of-a-kind project in which a species is
being restored in the country by bringing
it from out of the country (from South
Africa / Namibia).
Option (c) is correct: Under the project, the
subspecies of Cheetah which got extinct in
India was Asiatic Cheetah (Acinonyx
jubatus venaticus) and the subspecies
being introduced back in the country is
African Cheetah (Acinonyx jubatus
jubatus).
Option (d) is incorrect: The wild Asiatic
cheetah was declared extinct from India in
1952. However, the project cheetah was
approved by the Supreme Court of India
in January 2020 as a pilot programme to
reintroduce the species to India. As per the
SC direction, the cheetah reintroduction in
India is being overseen by the National
Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA).
92. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
93. Answer: (b)
Quasi-federalism refers to the centralised
federalism where the Union Government
has more powers than the constituent
units. The requirement for quasi federal
polity during Independence had many
reasons.
Point 1 is correct: Both Jawaharlal Nehru
and J.B. Kripalani in the constituent
assembly before partition, spoke in favour
of maximum autonomy to the States and
regarded centralisation to be at odds with
liberty. However, after the Partition a
40 | UPSC-MOCK-01
revised stand was unanimously taken in
favour of a strong Union with residuary
powers and weaker States, to safeguard the
integrity of the nation by the Union Powers
Committee of the Constituent Assembly,.
Point 2 is correct: As argued by Professor
Katharine Adeney, the second reason for
centralised federalism pivoted towards
forging a national civic identity instead of
immediate caste and linguistic identities.
According to Dr. Madhav Khosla both
Nehru and Ambedkar believed that a
centralised federal structure would
reduce prevalent trends of social
dominance, help fight poverty better and
therefore yield liberating outcomes.
Point 3 is correct: Another reason for
adopting quasi-federal structure was
related to the objective of building a
welfare state. In a decentralised federal
setup, redistributive policies could be
structurally scuttled by organised (small
and dominant) groups. Instead, a
centralised federal set-up can prevent
such issues and further a universal rights-
based system.
Point 4 is correct: The alleviation of inter-
regional economic inequality was also one
of the primary reasons for the adoption of
a quasi-federal structure. The Union
government with its resources is better
positioned to address the issues related to
inter-regional economic inequality. For
instance, Article 280 empowers the
President to constitute a Finance
Commission, which in turn delves into the
resource distribution among the states and
between states and the centre.
Explanation:
Recently, the Prime Minister of India
reviewed the construction of the National
Maritime Heritage Complex (NMHC) site
at Lothal in Gujarat. On this occasion, the
Prime Minister highlighted the importance
of Lothal as a major trading centre of the
Indus Valley Civilisation. According to
him, it was a symbol of India’s maritime
power and prosperity.
 `
Statement 1 is incorrect: Lothal is one of
the southernmost sites of the Indus Valley
Civilization (IVC) and is located between
the river Sabarmati and its tributary
Bhogavo in Saurashtra in Gujarat. It is not
the westernmost IVC site in India (refer
map below). Sites in India such as
Dholavira are further to the west of
Lothal.
Figure: Some Indus Valley Civilisation
sites
Source: NCERT (Class XII, Themes I)
Statement 2 is correct: Lothal is also known
as the ‘Manchester of Indus Valley
Civilisation’, it was known for its rich
cotton producing areas. According to the
Archaeological Survey of India (ASI),
Lothal had the world’s earliest known
dock which connected the city to an ancient
course of the Sabarmati river, hence
facilitating trade. It is believed that the
port city had been built in 2200 BCE.
Statement 3 is correct: Metal objects found
at Lothal suggest that IVC people had
knowledge of iron smelting. Two metal
objects excavated at Lothal contain 39.1
percent and 66.1 per cent iron. As per
experts, the latter is an iron object. It
suggests that Harappans (people of IVC)
had some knowledge of iron smelting.
Statement 4 is incorrect: It is not the only
Indus Valley Civilisation site where rice
cultivation was prevalent. Rice has also
been found at Harappa, Kalibangan and
Rangpur.
Hint for solving: Statement 1 can be
guessed from the knowledge of
Geography. Statement 2 is based on current
affairs (Lothal was in the news). Statement
4 is an extreme statement and with basic
knowledge of IVC, can be eliminated.
41 | UPSC-MOCK-01
94. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
In November 2022, the Government of the
Arab Republic of Egypt will host the 27th
Conference of the Parties to the UNFCCC
(COP 27).
Statement 1 is correct: The COP is the
highest decision-making body of the
UNFCCC. The COP will be attended by
representatives of all States Parties to the
Convention.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The rotation cycle
for the host of the COP UNFCCC is not
strictly adhered to as the 1st and 2nd COPs
were held in Western Europe (Berlin and
Geneva), as were the 5th and 6th (Bonn and
The Hague).
Statement 3 is correct: The COP
presidency rotates between five recognized
UN regions: Africa, Asia, Latin America
and the Caribbean, Central and Eastern
Europe and Western Europe and Others.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Till date, India has
hosted the COP UNFCCC only once. COP
8, held in New Delhi from 23 October to 1
November 2002, adopted the Delhi
Ministerial Declaration, inter alia, on
technology transfer by developed
countries and the impact of climate
change on developing countries.
95. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The UK Health Security Agency (UKHSA)
has recently confirmed that two
individuals have been diagnosed with the
monkeypox virus in London.
Statement 1 is correct: Monkeypox is a
zoonosis, that is, a disease that is
transmitted from infected animals to
humans. According to the World Health
Organisation (WHO), cases occur close to
tropical rainforests inhabited by animals
that carry the virus. Monkeypox virus
infection has been detected in squirrels,
Gambian pouched rats, dormice, and
some species of monkeys.
 `

Statement 2 is correct: The symptoms of

States Turnover Turnover
Monkeypox, though less severe, are
Limits for Limit for
similar to Smallpox. According to the US
Goods Services
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
(CDC), Monkeypox causes fever at the Normal Rs. 40 lakh Rs.20 lakh
beginning along with headache, muscle Category
aches, back ache, and exhaustion. It also States
causes the lymph nodes to swell
(lymphadenopathy), which smallpox does Special Rs. 20 lakh Rs.10 lakh
not. The Monkeypox virus is an Category
orthopoxvirus, which is a genus of viruses States
that also includes the variola virus, which
causes smallpox, and vaccinia virus, which
was used in the smallpox vaccine. Similarly a service provider in normal
category states needs to register if their
Statement 3 is correct: There is no safe, aggregate turnover exceeds (for normal
proven treatment for Monkeypox yet. The category states) and (for special category
World Health Organisation (WHO) states)
recommends supportive treatment
depending on the symptoms. Monkeypox Statement 3 is correct: The GST council
does not spread easily between people had recently permitted the E-commerce
and the overall risk to the general public is suppliers to register under the
very low. composition scheme of GST. The
composition scheme was introduced with
96. Answer: (d) the intention of simplifying the tax and
reducing compliance costs for small
Explanation: taxpayers. A person who opt to pay under
the composition scheme can pay tax at a
Goods and Services Tax (GST) is an indirect prescribed percentage of his turnover
tax which was introduced in India by every quarter.
replacing a host of other indirect taxes.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The government
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Central has plans to bring crypto assets and crypto
Goods and Service Tax Act, 2017 (CGST activities under GST, however, it is not yet
Act) in Section 109 mandates the implemented as of October 2022.
constitution of a Goods and Service Tax
Appellate Tribunal (GSTAT) and its The government had earlier announced a
Benches. The GSTAT is to be the 1% Tax Deducted at Source (TDS) and a
specialised appellate authority for 30% tax on income from cryptos and other
resolving disputes under the GST laws. digital assets.
However, the GST council has not yet
constituted GSTAT even after five years 97. Answer: (c)
of GST as of October 2022.
Explanation:
The GST council had recently constituted a
six-member Group of Ministers (GoM) Recently, the President of India
chaired by deputy chief minister of inaugurated the Sant Kabir Academy and
Haryana Dushyant Chautala to create a Research Centre and Swadesh Darshan
framework for GSTAT. Yojana. Sant Kabir was born in the city of
Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh and brought up
Statement 2 is incorrect: The special by a Muslim couple who were weavers by
category states have a turnover limit which profession. He was a proponent of the
is different from other states. The turnover “Nirgun stream” of the Bhakti Movement
limits for special category states and who lived during the 15th century CE.
normal category states are illustrated in the
table below.

42 | UPSC-MOCK-01
 `
Statement 1 is correct: According to Sant
Kabir, salvation can be attained only
through bhakti, intense love or devotion to
God.
Statement 2 is incorrect: All the verses of
Sant Kabir were composed by him orally in
Vernacular language as he was assumed to
be illiterate. His ideas were compiled in a
text called Bijak.
Statement 3 is correct: The major part of his
work was collected by Guru Arjan Dev, the
fifth Sikh guru, and incorporated into Guru
Grantha Sahib.
98. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
United States House Speaker Nancy Pelosi
visited Taiwan recently. In response to
it, Beijing began the largest-ever military
exercise encircling Taiwan in retaliation to
Pelosi’s visit.
Statement 1 is correct: India was one of the
first countries to recognise Beijing's 'one-
China principle' - that Taiwan is an
inalienable part of China. Though in the
recent past relations between India and
China have suffered due to clashes on their
Himalayan border, India has maintained
the status quo. Thus, India does not have
formal diplomatic ties with Taiwan,
because of its recognition of One-China
policy.
Statement 2 is correct: While following the
One-China policy, India has an office in
Taipei for diplomatic functions (India-
Taipei Association) is headed by a senior
diplomat. Taiwan has the Taipei Economic
and Cultural Center (TECC) in New Delhi.
Both were established in 1995.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The idea of “one
country, two systems” originated in 1979
(proposed by Deng Xiaoping), when China
offered to allow Taiwan to keep its
economic and social systems, government,
and even military in return for
acknowledging that it was part of the
People’s Republic. The policy meant the
regions could have different economic and
political systems from that of mainland
43 | UPSC-MOCK-01
China, while being part of the People’s
Republic of China. However, Taiwan
rejected that proposal.
Hongkong and one country two systems:
Hong Kong was leased to the British
Government in 1898 for 99 years by the
Qing dynasty of China which allowed the
British to take control of the islands
surrounding Hong Kong, known as New
Territories. It was promised that the islands
would be returned to China after the expiry
of the lease, in 1997.
In the 1980s, China initiated talks with
Britain for the transfer of the territory. In
talks, Beijing promised to respect the
region's autonomy under the One Country
Two Systems proposal. On December 19,
1984, China and the United Kingdom
signed the Sino-British Joint Declaration in
Beijing, which set the terms for the
autonomy and the legal, economic and
governmental systems for Hong Kong post
1997.
Today, the one country two system
applies to the Hong Kong and Macau
Special Administrative Regions.
99. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Agreement on Agriculture (AoA) is based
on three pillars namely,
• Only upto reasonable level of Domestic
Support
• Enhance Market Access
• Phase out export subsidies
Subsidies provided by the government to
the farmers in food, fertilisers, power etc.
are considered to be domestic support. For
ensuring that only upto reasonable level of
domestic support is provided, AoA
classifies subsidies as Abber Box, Blue Box
and Green Box subsidies.
Statement 1 is correct: Green box subsidies
are subsidies which do not distort trade
and are given by the government in order
to compensate for deficiency in the
agricultural environment. E.g payment for
lack of access to research, lack of training
etc.
Green Box subsidies are permitted under
AoA and there are no limits for the same.
 `

Statement 2 is correct: Minimum Support Option 4 is incorrect: The principles of

Price (MSP) provided in India belongs to ‘separate electorates’ and ‘weightage’ were
amber box subsidies. further extended to depressed classes,
Amber Box subsidies are considered to be women and labour under Government of
trade distorting in nature. Hence there is a India Act, 1935.
limit on countries in providing these
subsidies. For developed countries the
subsidy limit is 5% of the value of
agricultural production whereas for
developing countries it is 10%.

Statement 3 is correct: Blue box subsidies

are subsidies which set limits on
production by means of quotas. Hence
subsidies which are tied to programs which
limit production are blue box subsidies.
They are considered to be less distorting.

100. Answer: (b)

Explanation:

The Government of India Act of 1919,

popularly known as the Montague-
Chelmsford Reforms, was enacted by the
Secretary of State for India, Edwin Samuel
Montagu, and the Viceroy of India, Lord
Chelmsford.

Option 1 is correct: On the home

government (in Britain) front, the
Government of India Act, 1919 made an
important change— the Secretary of State
for India was henceforth to be paid out of
the British exchequer.

Option 2 is incorrect: The Government of

India Act, 1919 introduced Dyarchy in the
provinces, which was a substantial step
towards transfer of power to the Indian
people. Under the 1935 Act, Dyarchy was
abolished from the province and was
introduced at centre.

Option 3 is correct: Under the Government

of India Act, 1919, the Indian Legislative
Council at the Centre was replaced by a
bicameral system consisting of a Council
of State (Upper House) and a Legislative
Assembly (Lower House).

44 | UPSC-MOCK-01
 Incredible results year after year!

2013 2014 2015 2016 2017 2018 2019 2020 2021

62 out of 82 out of 162 out of 215 out of 236 out of 183 out of 165 out of 281 out of 188 out of
1228 vacancies 1364 vacancies 1164 vacancies 1209 vacancies 1058 vacancies 812 vacancies 829 vacancies 761 vacancies 685 vacancies

To book a FREE COUNSELLING SESSION with our IAS Mentors call: 9241333666
Visit https://byjus.com/ias/ for more details

byjus.com

Awards

VCCIRCLE
AWA R D S

Education Company Business Standard Google Play’s ‘Best Self Improvement’

Of The Year 2016, 2018 Start-up of the year 2017 App in India – 2016

Google Design Deloitte Technology Fast 50 India

Award 2018
and Fast 500 Asia Award Year
2012, 2013, 2014, 2015, 2016, 2017
NASSCOM Design4India Design
Award 2018 for the ‘Best Design’
Express IT Awards for IT newsmaker
Mobile Category – 2018
of the year 2017