Revision Material For Level 1 & 2 Learners

NKANGALA
EMALAHLENI 1
GRADE 12
LIFE SCIENCES
LEARNERS
REVISION MATERIAL
PAPER 1:REPRODUCTION & HUMAN RESPONSE

PAPER 2: GENETICS AND INHERITANCE & EVOLUTION
19 AUGUST 2023
This manual has 99 pages
Copyright reserved Please turn over

Compiled by A. van Deventer
REPRODUCTION OLD EXAM QUESTIONS

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which ONE of the following statements is CORRECT for

oogenesis in humans?
A One diploid mature ovum is formed

B One haploid mature ovum is formed
C Four diploid mature ova are formed
D Four haploid mature ova are formed
2. The vagina …
A transports urine to the outside.

B is the place where the foetus develops.
C produces progesterone.
D acts as a birth canal.
3. The list below gives the characteristics of some young birds

immediately after hatching.
(i) Eyes are open

(ii) Can move around
(iii) Cannot feed themselves
(iv) No feathers
Which ONE of the following combinations represents the

characteristics of precocial development?
A (ii) and (iii) only

B (iii) and (iv) only
C (i) and (ii) only
D (ii) and (iv) only
4. The function of the epididymis is to …
A produce semen.
B transport sperm to the urethra.
C produce sperm.
D store sperm until maturation.
5. An acrosome has …
A mitochondria to produce energy for the movement of sperm.

B a chromatin network that carries genes.
C enzymes needed to penetrate the ovum.
D a tail to facilitate the movement of sperm.
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6. Ovulation is stimulated by an increase in the levels of …
A progesterone.
B LH.
C FSH.
D oestrogen.
7. Oogenesis takes place in the …
A uterus.
B ovary.
C cervix.
D vagina.
8. The structure in the amniotic egg that removes waste products:
A Yolk sac
B Chorion
C Amnion
D Allantois
9. Which structures secrete progesterone during pregnancy?
A Adrenal gland and corpus luteum

B Corpus luteum and placenta
C Thyroid gland and Graafian follicle
D Pituitary gland and Graafian follicle
10. Which ONE of the following involves the development of the young inside the
uterus of the mother and where it receives nutrients through the placenta?
A Ovipary
B Vivipary
C Ovovivipary
D Amniotic egg
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11. Below is a list of terms relating to reproduction:
(i) Precocial development

(ii) Altricial development
(iii) Amniotic egg
(iv) Parental care
Which of the terms above refer to strategies used by birds that

incubate their eggs in a nest and feed their young until they are
able to fly?
A (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

B (i), (iii) and (iv) only
C (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
D (i), (ii) and (iii) only
12. Which of the following are hormones that directly stimulate the development
of the endometrium?
A FSH and LH
B Progesterone and oestrogen
C FSH and progesterone
D LH and oestrogen
13. A function of the placenta is to …
A transport waste from mother to foetus.

B form the chorion.
C secrete progesterone.
D secrete the fluid that surrounds the foetus
14. An advantage of internal fertilisation is that …

A sperm and ova are protected within the female's body.
B there is better parental care.
C more gametes will be produced.
D the foetus receives food directly from the mother.
15. The part of the female reproductive system where fertilisation takes place is
called the …
A vagina.
B ovary.
C Fallopian tube.
D cervix.
16. Contraceptive pills which prevent pregnancy are likely to contain …

A high levels of FSH and progesterone.
B high levels of LH and oestrogen.
C high levels of only FSH.
D high levels of only progesterone.
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PROVIDE THE CORRECT TERM
1. The structure in a sperm that contains enzymes

2. The site of fertilisation in the human female
3. The inner layer of the uterus that thickens during the menstrual cycle
4. A hollow ball of cells that forms during embryonic development
5. The period of development of secondary sexual characteristics in
humans
6. The release of an ovum from the ovary
7. The period of development of the foetus in the uterus
8. The type of development in birds where the young are able to independently
move and feed themselves after hatching
9. The extra-embryonic membrane that is responsible for the excretion of waste
in an amniotic egg
10. Tubules in the testes where spermatogenesis occurs
11. A part of the male reproductive system used to transfer semen to the female
12. The structure that the Graafian follicle develops into after ovulation
13. The hormone that stimulates puberty in females
14. A hormone that stimulates ovulation in humans
15. The blood vessel that transports deoxygenated blood from the foetus towards
the placenta
16. The membrane that, together with the endometrium, forms the placenta
17. The type of egg produced by reptiles that has extra-embryonic membranes
18. A hollow ball of cells formed from the zygote
19. A type of fertilisation in which the nucleus of a sperm fuses with the nucleus of
an ovum outside the body of the female
COLUMN I AND COLUMN II
COLUMN I COLUMN II
1. The young develops and is A: Ovipary
nourished in an amniotic egg that B: Vivipary
is retained in the mother’s body
2. A reproductive strategy in A: Altricial development
vertebrates where internal B: Precocial development
fertilisation occurs
3. Unfertilised eggs are released A: Asexual reproduction
from the female's body B: External fertilisation
4. Nutrition provided by the egg A: Ovipary
B: Ovovivipary
5. Reproductive strategy in birds A: Precocial
where hatchlings are helpless B: Altricial
and unable to move and feed
themselves
6. Type of reproduction in A: Vivipary
vertebrates where the foetus is B: Ovovivipary
attached to and develops inside
the uterus
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LONGER QUESTIONS
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18
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20
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RESPONDING TO THE ENVIRONMENT (HUMANS)

OLD EXAM QUESTIONS
MULTIPLE CHOICE
17. The part of the brain that is responsible for higher thought processes is the …
A cerebellum.
B medulla oblongata.
C hypothalamus.
D cerebrum.
18. The central nervous system is made up of the …

A cranial and spinal nerves.
B brain and spinal cord.
C sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves.
D autonomic and peripheral nervous systems.
19. Which ONE of the following is the dark-coloured layer of the eye, which is rich
in blood vessels?
A Conjunctiva
B Sclera
C Cornea
D Choroid
20. Which ONE of the following parts of the eye contains the photoreceptors?
A Retina
B Iris
C Sclera
D Vitreous humour
21. Which structures in the eye are responsible for the refraction of light?
A Pupil and iris
B Blind spot and yellow spot
C Cornea and lens
D Sclera and suspensory ligaments
22. Which ONE of the following occurs when you look up from reading a book on
a clear, sunny day to focus on a mountain more than 100 metres away?
A Radial muscles of the iris contract.
B Pupil becomes dilated.
C Ciliary muscles relax.
D Lens becomes more convex.
23. Which ONE of the following pathways represents a reflex arc?

A Muscle →Spinal cord → Brain
B Effectors →Spinal cord → Receptor
C Receptor → Spinal cord → Brain
D Receptor → Spinal cord → Muscle
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24. A function of the medulla oblongata is to …

A control higher thought processes.
B regulate blood glucose levels.
C regulate breathing.
D inhibit voluntary movement.
25. A disorder of the brain that is characterised by memory loss and confusion
is…
A Alzheimer's disease.
B haemophilia.
C multiple sclerosis.
D Down syndrome.
26. Which ONE of the following is a part of the ear where grommets are inserted?
A Oval window
B Semi-circular canal
C Tympanic membrane
D Pinna
27. Depth perception refers to the ability to judge distance.

An investigation was carried out to determine the effect of using one eye only or both
eyes on depth perception.
Participants were asked to thread a needle as a test of depth perception. The
number of attempts needed to successfully thread the needle was counted when
using one eye only and then when using both eyes.
The results of the investigation are provided in the table below.
The results of this investigation show that …

A binocular vision reduces depth perception.
B using one eye only increases depth perception.
C the number of eyes used has no effect on depth perception.
D binocular vision increases depth perception.
28. Which ONE of the following refers to a part of the nervous system
that is involved in the regulation of body temperature?
A Corpus callosum
B Cerebellum
C Hypothalamus
D Spinal cord
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29. The vibrations on the tympanic membrane are transferred to the …

A ossicles and then the oval window.
B oval window and then the ossicles.
C ossicles and then the round window.
D cochlea and then the ossicles.
30. The nerve impulse in the axon of a sensory neuron is transmitted …

A towards the dendrite of the sensory neuron.
B towards the cell body of the sensory neuron.
C away from the effector organ.
D away from the cell body.
31. Which part of the ear converts pressure waves into nerve impulses?
A Auditory nerve
B Organ of Corti
C Eustachian tube
D Auditory canal
32. A person can feel pain in his legs but cannot move his legs.
This is a result of damage to the …
A sensory neuron.
B sensory and motor neuron.
C motor neuron.
D sensory and interneuron.
33. Colour vision is difficult at night, because under dim light conditions ...
A rods are not stimulated.
B the pupil dilates.
C cones are not stimulated.
D the lens cannot change shape.
34. The table below shows the speed at which impulses are transmitted through
different types of nerve fibres, A, B, C and D.
Which ONE of the following is the best interpretation of the

information in the table above?
A Nerve fibre A is found in patients suffering from multiple sclerosis.
B The speed of transmission of impulses is not important for the survival of an
individual.
C The greater the diameter of the nerve fibre, the greater the speed of
transmission.
D Nerve fibre D is found in patients suffering from Alzheimer's disease.
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35. A function of the iris of the eye is to …

A refract light to form a clear image.
B control the amount of light that enters the eye.
C convert the light stimuli into impulses.
D prevent reflection of light within the eye.
36. Diagram A and diagram B below represent the same part of the same human
eye under different conditions.
Which diagram, with a corresponding reason, represents a person looking at an

object 10 metres away?
A Diagram A because the suspensory ligaments are taut/tight and the lens is
less convex
B Diagram A because the lens is more convex and the suspensory ligaments
are slack
C Diagram B because the lens is more convex and the suspensory ligaments
are slack
D Diagram B because the suspensory ligaments are taut/tight and the lens is
less convex
37. Which part of the eye absorbs excess light?

A Retina
B Blind spot
C Choroid
D Optic nerve
38. Which part controls the amount of light entering the eye?
A Cornea
B Iris
C Choroid
D Lens
39. Which ONE of the following is CORRECT with regard to astigmatism?

A Light cannot pass through the cornea
B Light cannot pass through the lens
C Refraction of light rays by the cornea is uneven
D The lens cannot become more rounded
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40. Which ONE of the following shows the correct sequence of an impulse from
the receptor in a simple reflex arc?
41. Nocturnal animals have the ability to see clearly in the dark.
They have …
A bigger eyes.
B more rods in the retina.
C more cones in the retina.
D no blind spot.
42. A list of the functions of the brain is provided below:

(i) Interprets sensation
(ii) Regulates involuntary actions
(iii) Controls higher thought processes
(iv) Controls voluntary actions
Which ONE of the following combinations are the functions of the

cerebrum?
A (ii) and (iii) only
B (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
C (i), (iii) and (iv) only
D (i) and (ii) only
43. Barotrauma is a common condition that occurs when pressure builds up in the
middle ear. This causes the tympanic membrane to bulge. It is most common
among deep-sea divers. Divers are advised against diving when they have a
middle-ear infection because the …
A auditory canal cannot equalise the pressure in the middle ear.
B Eustachian tube is blocked and air cannot enter the middle ear.
C tympanic membrane is hardened and cannot pass the vibrations onto the
middle ear.
D ossicles are fused together and cannot vibrate freely in the middle ear
44. Grommets are used in the treatment of …

A deafness.
B blindness.
C middle-ear infection.
D multiple sclerosis.
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45. The ability of the lens of the eye to change its shape when viewing an object
that is near or far is called …
A binocular vision.
B accommodation.
C pupillary mechanism.
D refraction of light rays.
46. Which ONE of the following is the visual defect that results from the uneven
curvature of the cornea?
A Cataracts
B Long-sightedness
C Short-sightedness
D Astigmatism
47. The receptor(s) involved in maintaining balance is/are the …

A organ of Corti only.
B maculae only.
C maculae and cristae only.
D organ of Corti, maculae and cristae.
48. Which of the following structures are involved in maintaining balance when
there is a change in the direction of movement of the body?
A Semi-circular canals and cerebellum
B Eustachian tube and cerebellum
C Semi-circular canals and cerebrum
D Eustachian tube and cerebrum
49. Which of the following structures are protected by the meninges?

A Spinal cord and receptors
B Spinal cord and brain
C Brain and effectors
D Effectors and receptors
50. During a reflex action, impulses enter the spinal cord by means of a/an …
A sensory neuron through the ventral root of the spinal nerve.
B sensory neuron through the dorsal root of the spinal nerve.
C interneuron through the ventral root of the spinal nerve.
D interneuron through the dorsal root of the spinal nerve.
51. A structure in the eye that contains a high concentration of blood vessels and
provides oxygen and nutrients to the retina is the …
A sclera.
B choroid.
C conjunctiva.
D lens.
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52. The cornea and the lens are both

A opaque.
B transparent.
C elastic.
D inelastic.
53. The diagram below represents a visual defect.
Which ONE of the following is the correct treatment of the visual

defect shown above?
A Glasses with biconvex lenses
B Glasses with biconcave lenses
C Surgery to replace the cornea
D Surgery to replace the retina
54. A list of some components of the nervous system is provided below.

(i) Brain
(ii) Cranial nerves
(iii) Spinal nerves
(iv) Spinal cord
Which ONE of the following combinations applies to the central nervous system?

B (i) and (iv) only
C (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
D (iii) and (iv) only
55. Which one of the following is the part of the eye with the highest
concentration of cones?
A Cornea
B Lens
C Yellow spot
D Iris
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56. Which one of the following best describes the events of accommodation when
a person is viewing an object that is less than 6m away?
QUESTIONS 41 AND 42 ARE BASED ON THE DIAGRAM OF THE NEURON

BELOW.
57. The axon is represented by structure…

A 1.
B 2.
C 3.
D 4.
58. Which labelled part affects the speed of impulse transmission?

A 1.
B 2.
C 3.
D 4.
20. A disorder of the eye caused by the curvature of the lens or cornea being
uneven, resulting in distorted images
21. The structure that connects the left and right hemispheres of the brain,
allowing communication between them
22. The nerve that carries impulses from the retina to the brain
23. Collective name for the membranes that protect the brain and spinal cord
24. The part of the nervous system made up of cranial and spinal nerves
25. The part of the brain that receives impulses from the maculae
26. The dark pigmented layer of the eye
27. The structure that connects the left and right hemispheres of the brain
28. The part of the brain that controls body temperature
29. Receptors that provide information about the position of the head
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30. The part of the brain that regulates breathing

31. The branch of the autonomic nervous system that restores an increased heart
rate back to normal
32. A functional gap between two consecutive neurons
33. A structure in the ear that absorbs excess pressure waves from the inner ear
34. A visual defect caused by the uneven curvature of the cornea
35. A disease characterised by the degeneration of brain cells and memory loss
36. The type of vision where both eyes are used to focus on an object
37. The part of the skull that protects the brain
38. The visual defect characterised by a cloudy lens
39. The part of the brain that controls body temperature
40. A branch of the nervous system that is made up of spinal and cranial nerves
41. The area of the retina that contains the highest concentration of cones
COLUMN I COLUMN II
7. Condition affecting the cornea of A: Astigmatism
the eye B: Cataract
8. The functional connection between two A: Receptor
consecutive neurons B: Synapse
9. The part of a neuron that speeds up the A: Myelin sheath
transmission of an impulse B: Axon
10. A component of the peripheral A: Cranial nerves
nervous system B: Spinal cord
11. A disorder of the nervous system A: Goitre
characterised by the degeneration of the brain cells B: Alzheimer’s disease
12. The part of the brain that connects the left A: Corpus luteum
and the right hemispheres B: Corpus callosum
13. The liquid found in front of the lens in the eye A: Vitreous humor
B: Aqueous humor
14. The functional connection between two A: Synapse
consecutive neurons B: Effector
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LONGER QUESTIONS
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PAPER 2
EVOLUTION OLD EXAM QUESTIONS

MULTIPLE CHOICE
59. Charles Darwin based the theory of evolution through natural selection on
many observations.
Which ONE of his observations is represented in the diagram

above?
A Limited environmental resources
B Populations remain stable over time
C Individuals within a population may vary widely
D Only the fittest will survive
60. Antibiotic resistance in bacteria is an example of evolution in

present times.
Which ONE of the following is a CORRECT explanation for this

evolution?
A The bacteria acquire resistance to the antibiotic by being
exposed to it.
B There is variation in the bacteria and the resistant bacteria
survive.
C The greater the number of bacteria, the higher the resistance.
D The greater the number of bacteria, the lower the resistance.
61. Three related species, X, Y and Z, share a common ancestor.

Species Y and Z share the MOST RECENT common ancestor.
Which phylogenetic tree most accurately represents their

evolutionary relationship?
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62. Which ONE of the following is a reproductive isolating mechanism?

A Breeding at different times of the year
B Same pollinators for different species of plants
C Absence of a geographic barrier
D Cloning
63. Which ONE of the following is a mechanism of reproductive isolation?

A Extinction
B Breeding at different times of the year
C Mutation
D Independent assortment
64. Who formulated the law of use and disuse?

A Lee Berger
B Rosalind Franklin
C Gregor Mendel
D Jean Baptiste de Lamarck
65. Which ONE of the following features is found in BOTH humans and African
apes?
A Short upper arms
B Claws instead of nails
C Opposable thumbs
D Small brain
66. Scientists made an observation that some species of butterfly are more
numerous during wet summers than dry summers. In order to investigate this,
the next step would be to …
A record the results.
B state a hypothesis.
C measure the results.
D draw a conclusion.
67. Which ONE of the following is the CORRECT definition of a species? A group
of …
A similar organisms that live in the same habitat at the same time
B similar organisms that have the same chromosome number
C organisms that are similar in size, shape and colour
D similar organisms that are able to interbreed to produce fertile
Offspring
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68. Study the diagram below.
Which present-day finch is LEAST related to all the others?

A Woodpecker finch
B Large tree finch
C Mangrove finch
D Vegetarian tree finch
69. Depth What is the scientific name of the fossil, Mrs Ples?
A Homo erectus
B Homo habilis
C Australopithecus africanus
D Australopithecus afarensis
70. Which ONE of the following is a structural feature of a bipedal organism?

A Long, narrow pelvis
B Short, wide pelvis
C C-shaped vertebral column
D Longer arms
QUESTIONS 13 AND 14 ARE BASED ON THE TIMELINE BELOW

SHOWING THE POSSIBLE EVOLUTION OF SOME HOMINIDS.
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71. Which species inhabited the Earth for the longest period of time?
A Australopithecus afarensis
B Homo erectus
C Homo habilis
D Homo sapiens
72. How many years ago did the genus Homo first appear?
A 2,2 mya
B 2,0 mya
C 1,6 mya
D 0,2 mya
73. The list below describes some evolutionary events.

(i) Each population undergoes natural selection differently and
independently.
(ii) There is no gene flow between the two populations.
(iii) A population becomes separated.
(iv) A geographical barrier forms.
(v) The two populations become different phenotypically and
genotypically.
Which ONE of the following combinations gives the CORRECT sequence of these
events?
74. The diagram below shows the fertility of the offspring produced
when three populations of mice, X, Y and Z, interbreed.
Which ONE of the following statements is CORRECT?
A All three populations are of the same species.

B Populations X and Z are of the same species, but populations
X and Y are different species.
C Populations Y and Z are different species, but populations X
and Y are of the same species.
D Populations X and Y are different species, but populations Y
and Z are of the same species.
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75. Which ONE of the following characteristics applies to bipedal

organisms?
A A more backwards position of the foramen magnum
B A short, narrow pelvis
C A long, wide pelvis
D An S-shaped spine
76. Which ONE of the following statements about biodiversity is CORRECT?

A Speciation increases biodiversity.
B Biodiversity is the number of organisms in a population.
C Extinction increases biodiversity.
D Speciation and extinction have no effect on biodiversity
77. Thando and Mary gave the four characteristics below about
themselves.
Which statements describe the characteristics of discontinuous

variation?
A P, Q and S only
B P, R and S only
C Q, R and S only
D P, Q, R, and S
78. The graphs below show the effect of two antibiotics, P and Q, on two different
species of bacteria, R and S.
What conclusion can be drawn from the graphs?

A Bacteria R is less resistant to antibiotic P than Q.
B Bacteria R is more resistant to antibiotic P than Q.
C Antibiotic Q is equally effective on bacteria R and S.
D Antibiotic P is equally effective on bacteria R and S.
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79. Variation within a species is introduced through …

A random mating and asexual reproduction.
B mitosis and random fertilisation.
C random mating and random fertilisation.
D mitosis and meiosis.
80. African apes and humans are similar. Both have …

A small jaws and well-developed brow ridges.
B opposable thumbs and bare fingertips.
C gaps between their teeth and eyes in front.
D an upright posture and a cranial ridge.
81. The diagram below shows Tiktaalik roseae, a fish that may be the ancestor of
the first organisms to live on land.
According to Lamarck, this species of fish may have evolved the

ability to 'walk' on land by …
A undergoing natural genetic mutations which caused the fins to

develop into legs.
B the process of natural selection.
C passing on the acquired characteristic of fins to their offspring.
D stretching its fins and using them for 'walking'.
82. Which ONE of the following scientists discovered fossils of Homo sapiens and
Ardipithecus sp?
A Raymond Dart
B Lee Berger
C Louis Leakey
D Tim White
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83. The diagram below compares characteristics of wild sunflowers with

sunflowers that have been artificially selected.
Which ONE of the following characteristics was found undesirable

by humans?
A Number of branches and leaf area
B Plant height and leaf area
C Plant height and flower diameter
D Plant height and number of branches
84. Punctuated equilibrium suggests the following:

A Evolution is always a slow and gradual process.
B Natural selection does not explain evolution.
C New species can appear quickly, over a relatively short period
of time.
D Artificial selection is the only mechanism that causes evolution
85. A group of students observed that the long-term use of antibiotics

results in the decreased control of bacterial infections.
From this observation the students stated that:
Antibiotic resistance in bacteria is caused by the long-term use of
antibiotics.
This statement is a/an …

A theory.
B aim.
C hypothesis.
D conclusion.
86. Evidence of hominid cultural evolution can be found in the fossil record. This
evidence would include the …
A position of the attachment of the spine to the head.
B length of the upper limbs compared to the length of the lower
limbs.
C number of teeth present in the skull.
D presence of stone tools.
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87. The scientist who discovered the fossil 'Karabo' (A. sediba):
A Robert Brown
B Lee Berger
C Raymond Dart
D Ronald Clarke
88. Which ONE of the following is a source of variation that occurs during normal
meiosis?
A Random mating
B Random arrangement of chromosomes
C Chromosomal mutations
D Cloning
89. Which ONE of the following is an example of discontinuous variation in

humans?
A Height
B Heart rate
C Gender
D Weight
90. Which ONE of the following is CORRECT for speciation through geographic
isolation?
A The populations undergo phenotypic changes only.
B Each population undergoes natural selection independently.
C The conditions on each side of the geographic barrier are the
same.
D The new species formed are genotypically the same as the
original species.
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42. An upright posture and walking only on two legs

43. Study of fossils
44. The present-day distribution of living organisms across the continents
45. Family to which humans belong
46. Type of variation within a population in which there is a range of intermediate
phenotypes
47. A diagrammatic representation of possible evolutionary relationships amongst
species
48. Similar structures in different species that show modification by descent
49. The type of evidence for human evolution that includes tool-making
50. The process whereby new species are formed
51. The opening in the base of the skull through which the spinal cord passes
52. The type of variation in a population with no intermediate phenotypes
53. A diagram representing possible evolutionary relationships between species
54. Similar structures in different organisms indicating descent with modification
55. Large, pointed teeth in African apes that are used for tearing food
56. The part of the skull that houses the brain
57. Having a protruding jaw
58. The theory that describes evolution as consisting of long periods of little/no
change alternating with short periods of rapid change
59. The breeding of plants and animals by humans for desired characteristics
60. The process of change in the characteristics of biological species over time
61. Similar structures that are inherited from a common ancestor and are modified
for different functions
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COLUMN I COLUMN II
15. Feature of chimpanzee skulls A: Prognathism
B: Forward position of foramen
magnum
16. Similarity between humans and African A: Opposable thumb
apes B: A short and wide pelvis
17. Discovered the fossil called 'Little Foot' A: Raymond Dart
B: Ron Clarke
18. Law of inheritance of acquired A: Darwinism
characteristics B: Modification by descent
19. Humans select the characteristics A: Artificial selection
when breeding organisms B: Natural selection
20. A testable statement that may be A: Theory
accepted or rejected B: Law
21. Evidence of evolution A: Modification by descent B:
Fossil record
22. Jaw of African apes A: No spaces between teeth
B: Large canines
23. Long and narrow pelvis A: African apes
B: Humans
24. Variation in human height A: Continuous
B: Discontinuous
25. Mechanisms of reproductive A: Species-specific courtship
isolation behaviour
B: Breeding at different times of
the year
26. Fossils found in South Africa A: Little Foot
B: Taung Child
27. Proposed the ‘law of use and disuse’ A: Eldredge
B: Gould
28. Type of evolution characterised by A: Artificial selection
long periods of little or no change B: Punctuated equilibrium
alternating with short periods of rapid
change
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LONGER QUESTIONS
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GENETICS AND INHERITANCE OLD EXAM

QUESTIONS
MULTIPLE CHOICE
91. The genotype for an individual with blood group A is …

A IAIA only.
B IAIA or ii.
C IAi only.
D IAIA or IAi.
92. Study the statements about alleles below:

(i) Alternate forms of a gene are called alleles.
(ii) There is always only two alleles for a given characteristic.
(iii) The alleles for a particular characteristic are given in a genotype.
(iv) Alleles are found at corresponding positions on homologous
chromosomes.
Which combination of statements is CORRECT?

B (i), (iii) and (iv) only
C (i), (ii) and (iv) only
D (ii) and (iv) only
QUESTIONS 3 TO 5 ARE BASED ON THE DIAGRAM BELOW.
The diagram shows one pair of homologous chromosomes found in each of

four fruit flies. The alleles for antenna shape (normal or abnormal) and body
pattern (with stripes or without stripes) are indicated on the chromosomes.
74
93. Which fly is homozygous for antennae shape and heterozygous for body
pattern?
A Fly 4
B Fly 3
C Fly 2
D Fly 1
94. What is the genotype of Fly 3?

A NnSS
B NNSs
C NnSs
D NNss
95. Which ONE of the following will represent the possible gametes for Fly 4?
A Ns, NS
B NS
C nS
D Ns, ns
96. A genetic cross where both alleles of a gene are equally dominant
is an example of …
A codominance.
B a dihybrid cross.
C incomplete dominance.
D complete dominance.
97. The principles of inheritance were first outlined by …

A Gregor Mendel.
B Charles Darwin.
C Robert Broom.
D Watson and Crick.
QUESTIONS 8 AND 9 ARE BASED ON THE GENETIC CROSS BELOW.
Two rose plants with pink flowers were crossed and it was found that although
most of the offspring had pink flowers, some had red and some had white
flowers.
98. If 152 plants were produced in the F1-generation, how many of

these plants were expected to have pink flowers?
A 38
B 114
C 76
D 152
75
99. Breeders prefer to produce red roses. If the allele for red is R and
the allele for white is W, which ONE of the following crosses would
give the highest proportion of red roses?
A RR x WW
B RW x RW
C WW x RW
D RR x RW
100. A pedigree diagram shows …

A how organisms evolve.
B the inheritance of characteristics over many generations.
C sex-linked characteristics only.
D the number of children in a family only.
101. A red flowering plant is crossed with a white flowering plant. All the
offspring have pink flowers. When the two pink flowering plants are crossed,
the next generation of flowering plants will have flowers that are …
A pink only.
B red only.
C white only.
D pink, red and white.
102. What is the percentage chance of a woman having a female child?

A 25%
B 100%
C 50%
D 75%
103. If a recessive allele on the X-chromosome is passed on to the offspring

it is an example of …
A sex-linked inheritance.
B incomplete dominance.
C multiple alleles.
D co-dominance
104. Scientists made an observation that some species of butterfly are more
numerous during wet summers than dry summers. In order to investigate this,
the next step would be to …
A record the results.
B state a hypothesis.
C measure the results.
D draw a conclusion.
76
QUESTIONS 15 AND 16 REFER TO THE DIAGRAM BELOW SHOWING THE

INHERITANCE OF HAEMOPHILIA IN A FAMILY.
105. Which ONE of the combinations in the table below is CORRECT for
BOTH individuals 1 and 5?
106. What is the percentage chance that individuals 3 and 4 would have a
child with haemophilia?
A 100%
B 75%
C 25%
D 0%
107. A mother has blood group B and a father has blood group O. They
have three biological children and an adopted child. The blood groups of all
the children are represented in the table below.
Which child is adopted?

A Nobuhle
B William
C Milly
D Patrick
77
QUESTIONS 18 AND 19 ARE BASED ON THE INFORMATION BELOW.
108. What is the possible genotype for a black rabbit with narrow ears?
A BbEe
B bbee
C BBEe
D Bbee
109. What is the possible genotype of gametes produced by a white rabbit

with narrow ears?
A bbee
B be
C BE, Be, bE and be
D bE and be
110. Which ONE of the following is the genotype of a person with

haemophilia?
A XHXh
B XHY
C XHXH
D XhY
111. A child has blood group AB and her mother's blood group is A.
We can reasonably conclude that the …
A mother's genotype is IAi.
B child's genotype is IAIB and the mother's genotype is ii.
C father's genotype is IAIB or IBIB or IBi.
D father's genotype is IAIB and the mother's genotype is ii.
112. Refer to a list of Mendel's laws below:

(i) Law of dominance
(ii) Principle of independent assortment
(iii) Principle of segregation
A scientist crossed a red-eyed fruit fly with a white-eyed fruit fly and
all the F1 offspring were red-eyed.
Which of the laws of Mendel can be used to explain this result?

A (i), (ii) and (iii)
B (iii) only
C (i) and (iii) only
D (ii) and (iii) only
78
113. A homozygous purple flowering plant (P) is crossed with a pink

flowering plant (p) to produce the F1-generation. One of the F1-plants is
crossed with the pink flowering parent to produce the F2-generation.
Which ONE of the following is the CORRECT phenotypic ratio of the F2-
generation?
A 1 purple : 1 pink
B 1 purple : 3 pink
C 3 purple : 1 pink
D 1 purple : 2 pink
114. An individual is heterozygous for a harmful recessive allele but is

unaffected by it.
Which ONE of the following best represents the genetic composition of this
individual?
A Two dominant normal alleles
B One harmful recessive allele and one harmful dominant allele
C One harmful recessive allele and one normal dominant allele
D One harmful dominant allele and one normal recessive allele
115. A person has the genotype IAi for blood type.
What is this person's blood group?

A A
B B
C O
D AB
116. For a particular characteristic, the offspring inherits …

A one allele from the mother and one allele from the father.
B both alleles from the father.
C both alleles from the mother.
D the alleles from either the mother or the father randomly.
62. The use of biological processes, organisms or systems to improve the quality
of human life
63. Genetic disorder resulting in the abnormal clotting of blood
64. The position of a gene on a chromosome
65. A diagram showing the inheritance of genetic disorders over many
generations
66. A breeding process used for the domestication of plants and animals
67. The breeding of organisms over many generations in order to achieve a
desirable phenotype
68. The process during which genetically identical organisms are formed using
biotechnology
79
69. The type of inheritance where none of the two alleles is dominant over the
other and an intermediate phenotype is produced
70. An individual having two non-identical alleles for a characteristic
71. All the genes that make up an organism
72. Two or more alternative forms of a gene at the same locus
73. Chromosomes involved in sex determination
74. The type of dominance where both alleles of a gene are expressed in the
phenotype in the heterozygous condition
COLUMN I COLUMN II
29. Inheritance of haemophilia A: Sex-linked inheritance
B: Complete dominance
30. Results in genetic variation A: Mitosis
B: Cloning
31. Humans select the A: Artificial selection
characteristics when breeding B: Natural selection
organisms
32. Type of inheritance where both A: Co-dominance
alleles are expressed equally in B: Complete dominance
the phenotype
33. A plant with white flowers that is A: Incomplete dominance
crossed with a plant with red B: Complete dominance
flowers and produces offspring
with pink flowers
34. The separation of alleles during A: Law of Dominance
gamete formation B: Principle of Segregation
80
LONGER QUESTIONS
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NKANGALA

PAPER 1:REPRODUCTION & HUMAN RESPONSE

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REPRODUCTION OLD EXAM QUESTIONS

1. Which ONE of the following statements is CORRECT for

A One diploid mature ovum is formed

A transports urine to the outside.

3. The list below gives the characteristics of some young birds

(i) Eyes are open

Which ONE of the following combinations represents the

A (ii) and (iii) only

4. The function of the epididymis is to …

A mitochondria to produce energy for the movement of sperm.

6. Ovulation is stimulated by an increase in the levels of …

7. Oogenesis takes place in the …

8. The structure in the amniotic egg that removes waste products:

9. Which structures secrete progesterone during pregnancy?

A Adrenal gland and corpus luteum

11. Below is a list of terms relating to reproduction:

(i) Precocial development

Which of the terms above refer to strategies used by birds that

A (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

13. A function of the placenta is to …

A transport waste from mother to foetus.

14. An advantage of internal fertilisation is that …

16. Contraceptive pills which prevent pregnancy are likely to contain …

PROVIDE THE CORRECT TERM

1. The structure in a sperm that contains enzymes

COLUMN I AND COLUMN II

RESPONDING TO THE ENVIRONMENT (HUMANS)

18. The central nervous system is made up of the …

23. Which ONE of the following pathways represents a reflex arc?

24. A function of the medulla oblongata is to …

27. Depth perception refers to the ability to judge distance.

The results of the investigation are provided in the table below.

The results of this investigation show that …

29. The vibrations on the tympanic membrane are transferred to the …

30. The nerve impulse in the axon of a sensory neuron is transmitted …

Which ONE of the following is the best interpretation of the

35. A function of the iris of the eye is to …

Which diagram, with a corresponding reason, represents a person looking at an

37. Which part of the eye absorbs excess light?

39. Which ONE of the following is CORRECT with regard to astigmatism?

42. A list of the functions of the brain is provided below:

Which ONE of the following combinations are the functions of the

44. Grommets are used in the treatment of …

47. The receptor(s) involved in maintaining balance is/are the …

49. Which of the following structures are protected by the meninges?

52. The cornea and the lens are both

53. The diagram below represents a visual defect.

Which ONE of the following is the correct treatment of the visual

54. A list of some components of the nervous system is provided below.

A (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

QUESTIONS 41 AND 42 ARE BASED ON THE DIAGRAM OF THE NEURON

57. The axon is represented by structure…

58. Which labelled part affects the speed of impulse transmission?

PROVIDE THE CORRECT TERM

30. The part of the brain that regulates breathing

COLUMN I AND COLUMN II

EVOLUTION OLD EXAM QUESTIONS

Which ONE of his observations is represented in the diagram

60. Antibiotic resistance in bacteria is an example of evolution in