3rd Quarter PHYSICAL SCIENCE Exam

3rd Periodic Exam
PHYSICAL SCIENCE G11
Name:______________________________________ Score:___________
I. Multiple Choice: (Direction: Write your answer before each item/number.)
1. Which of the following is a correct arrangement or sequence of the stages of Big-Bang Theory?
a. Singularity, nucleosynthesis, inflation, recombination, Big bang
b. Inflation, nucleosynthesis, singularity, recombination big bang
c. Recombination, inflation, Big Bang, singularity, nucleosynthesis
Given the composition of each nucleus ( D=p +,1n T=1p+,2n 3He=2p+,2n7Be=4p+, 3n7Li=3p+,4n ) complete the
nucleosynthesis reactions for item 2-6.
2. P+ + n___________+ y
a. 4He b. D c. P+
+
3. 3He + D______+ P
a. 4 He b. n c. P+
4
4. 7LI+________________2 He
a. 3He, 4 He b. P+ c. 4He
+
5. _______ + D T + p
a. n b. D c. 3He
7
6. ___ + ___ Be + y
a. D b. 4He c. 3He, 4He
7. Which of the following processes is likely to generate the heaviest element?
a. CNO cycle b. r-process c. triple-alpha process d. Big Bang nucleosynthesis
8. If an element is used up by a star in fusion, it is sometimes called “burning” even though no actual combustion
occurs. Which of the following processes is likely to involve “carbon burning”?
a. alpha ladder b. CNO cycle c. triple-alpha process d. s-process
9. He used the redshift of light from galaxies to calculate the velocities and distances of these galaxies from the
Earth then his calculations supported the theory that the universe is expanding.
a. Edwin Hubble b. Robert Wilson c. Ernest Rutherford d. Henry Moseley
10. A British scientist, did experiments on mixtures of gases and was concluded that all matter is composed of
spherical atoms, which cannot be broken down into smaller pieces.
a. John Dalton b. Joseph John Thomson c. James Chadwick
11. The quantum mechanical model of the atom states that a nucleus is surrounded by a cloud of electrons
called_______
a. orbitals b. gravity c. subshell
12. Empedocles proposed that all four – air, fire, water, and earth, are the primordial substances. He called them
a. roots. B. elements c. octahedron
13. means having dipoles, a positive and a negative end and molecules can be polar or nonpolar.
a. non polar b. polarity c. polaroid
14. Oxygen is more electronegative than carbon. Therefore, the C—O bonds are
a. polaroid b. polar c. non polar
15. Oxygen is more electronegative than sulfur. Therefore, the S—O bonds are.
pg. 1
God is saying you today: My child you are worrying too much. Remember who I am. There is nothing too hard for me.
You may not see it, but I have everything planned out for you. Trust me!
a. polaroid b. polar c. non polar
II definition of terms: for the following items (16-27) briefly define each terms.
16. Fusion=
17. Stellar nucleosynthesis=
18. Proton-proton chain reaction=
19.Triple alpha process nucleosynthesis=
20. Alpha ladder=
21. CNO cycle=
22. Main-sequence star=
23. Red giant=
24. Supernova explosion=
25. Supernova=
26. R-process=
27. S-process=
III. Concept Map: Complete the diagram by filling in missing terms.
Stellar fusion or nucleosynthesis Supernova nucleosynthesis
Occurs in Occurs in
28. 29. 30.

Which evolve into which eventually end up into
Which form Elements

primarily through
Which form He
primarily through
Triple Alpha
process
32. 34.
31.
33.
CNO cycle
IV. Modified TRUE/FALSE: If the statement is true, write True. Else, replace the underlined portion with the correct word
or phrase. (2pts each).
_____36. A star gets lighter as time goes on.

_____38. Most of the heaviest elements were formed in main-sequence stars.
_____40. The heavy elements in a star are found in its core.
_____42. In stellar nucleosynthesis, heavier elements are formed from combining lighter ones.
V. Match the contribution in Column A to the person in Column B by writing the letter beside the number:
Column A Column B
A) Dmitri Mendeleev
43.) Definition of chemical element
B) Joseph Proust
44.) Concept of corpuscles
C) John Dalton
45.) Law of Multiple Proportions
D) Robert Boyle
46.) Some elements are found as molecules
E) Antoine Lavoisier
47) Law of Definite Proportions
F) Joseph Gay-Lussac
48-50: give/discuss some importance of active ingredients in household and personal product.
pg. 2
3rd Periodic Exam
Science G-10
Name:______________________________________ Score:___________
I. Multiple choice: choose the letter of the best answer and write it before each number.
1. Which part of the nervous system sent the message coming from the brain?
a. Motor neurons b. sensory neurons c. nerve cells
2. An organ that controls your emotions, thoughts and every movement you make?
a. Brain b. spinal cord c. neurons
3. It is made of the brain and spinal cord?
a. CNS B.PNS c.ANS
4. Messages carried throughout the body by nerves.
a. Nerve impulse b. sense organ c. motor neurons
5. Which is the only place on the arm where nerve is not protected?
a. Elbow b. wrist c.ankle
6. The part of the nervous system that connects the brain to the rest of the nervous system.
a. Spinal cord b.motor neuron c. sensory neuron
7. About how many neurons are in the human brain?
a. 100 billion b. 1 million c. 1 thousand
8. About how many neurons are in the spinal cord?
a. 1 billion b. 100 million c. 1 thousand
9. How long is the longest axon in the world?
a. Around 15 ft b. around 20 ft c. 30 ft
10. Messages are sent across the synapses by a special chemical called:
a. Neurotransmitter b. synapse c.cell body
11. What type of nerve cells are found only within the central nervous system?
a. Motor neuron b. sensory neuron c. associative neuron
12. The hypothalamus of the brain controls the following functions EXCEPT:
a. Emotions b. body temperature c. speech
13. Which sensory association is most closely associated with taste?
a. Hearing b. sight c. smell
14. It is a system composing of different glands that secrete different types of hormones.
a. Endocrine system b. nervous system c. reproductive system
15. Secretes more progesterone and estrogen to promote pregnancy
a. Adrenal gland b. ovaries c. thymus gland
pg. 3
II. For item 16-20: use the choices below:
a. Cerebrum b. cerebellum c. brainstem d. vertebrae
16. Controls your balance/ posture
17. Connects the brain to the spinal cord
18. Nerve inside it controls heartbeat, breathing, blood pressure
19. Bones that protect the nerve in the spinal cord
20. Responsible for thinking
For item 21-35: choose the correct word from the box below and write it on the space provided
before the number.
Iodine insufficiency Hormones Cushing’s syndrome goiter
cretinism dwarfism Gigantism pituitary gland
target cells low High exocrine
Pancreas endocrine glands Secreted enzymes phosphate

magnesium glucagon insulin
21. When our blood glucose is low the pancreas secretes________________________.

22. When our blood glucose is high, the pancreas secretes _______________________.
23. PTH cause the small intestine to absorb more calcium, ______________________,and
24. ___________________________.
25. What does PTH cause the bones to release?
26. What did pancreas do in digestion?
27. A ductless organ that releases hormones directly into the bloodstream?
28. What organ regulates glucose in blood.
29. It release products (enzymes) into ducts like sweat, tears & digestive juice.
30. When we eat, our blood glucose level is __________________________.
31. In between meals, our blood glucose level___________________________.
32. It does have specific receptors for specific hormones.
33. Known as the “Master Gland” because it controls the other endocrine glands?
34. Too much secretion of growth hormones result to___________________________.
35. Too little secretion of growth hormone result to____________________________.
36. Thyroid hormone insufficiency in infancy result to __________________________.
37. Thyroid hormone hypo secretion results to ____________________________.
38. Hypersecretion of glucocorticoids results to _____________________________.
39. A chemical product that deliver messages to the body?
40. Endocrine disorder such as goiter is due to ____________________________.
III. Identification:
41. Also known as “soma”?
42. It brings information to the cell body.
43. Taking information away from the cell body?
pg. 4
44. It has the ability to carry signals or impulses.
45. It controls thoughts, emotions, learning and many body functions carried by the neurons.
46. The average length of a menstrual cycle is?
47. This part of the female reproductive organ thickens to prepare for the attachment of fertilized
egg.
48. If no fertilization of eggs occurs, the cells of the thickened uterus breaks off and leave the
vagina as____________________________.
49. It is the length of time between application of stimulus and detection of a response.
50. It produces sperm cell.
51. Deposits sperm cells into the vagina during mating.
52. The passage of sperm cell from testes to urethra.
IV. (2 pts each)Give the general function of a.) nervous System B. Reproductive system
pg. 5
3rd Periodic Exam
Science G-9
Name:______________________________________ Score:___________
I. Multiple Choice: choose the best letter that correspond to the correct answer and write it before
the number.
1. Which characteristic of magma mainly determine its explosiveness?
a. Color b. temperature c. silica content
2. Which of the following characteristic of volcano depends on its emission?
a. Location b. size c. shape
3. Which of the following are active volcanoes?
I. Mayon a. I and II
II. Taal b. II and III
III. Kanlaon c. I, II and III
4. It is a natural opening in in the surface of the Earth where molten rocks, hot gases, smoke and ash are
ejected.
a. Fragments b. volcano c. magma
5. Volcanoes are classified according to
a. Record of eruption and shape of volcanic form
b. Composition of magma
c. Silica content
6. A volcano that has erupted within the last 600 yrs and are documented by man or those that erupted
10,000 yrs ago based on analysis of datable materials.
a. Active volcano b. inactive volcano c. strato volcano
7. Loose fragments of solidified lava is called
a. Cinder b. slope c. viscosity
8. A volcanoes that shows no record of eruption?
a. Active volcano b. inactive volcano c. lose volcano
9. Lava is differ in their rate of flow due to:
a. Temperature b. their viscosity c. silica content
10. Which is an example of stratovolcano?
a. Mayon b. Pinatubo c. Taal
11. What will take place when the pressure exceeds the strength of the overlying rock?
a. Lava flows b. explosion c. fracturing occurs
12. Magma inside the volcano has high temperature, As the magma continuously heated, it goes up and
bubbles are developed. If these bubbles are trapped and expand, what will take place?
pg. 6
a. Changes on its slope can be observed
b. The volcano cools and begin to harden
c. Molten material swell resulting to increase in pressure
13. A funnel-shaped opening at the top of a volcano is known as;
a. Cone b. calders c. crater
14. Taal volcano in Batangas is an example of
a. Hydrothermal volcanic eruption
b. Phreatomagmatic
c. Plinian
15. Irazu Volcano in Costa Rica is an Example of
a. Strombolian b. Vulcanian c. Phreatic
16. Pinatubo volcano in Zambales is a:
a. Plinian type of eruption b. trombolian c. vulcanian
17. Which of the following can cause global warming?
a. Increase of the amount of rainfall
b. Increase amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
c. Rising of warm air in the atmosphere
18. City Balor is surrounded by bodies of water and has a moderate climate. It is located near the equator.
What will most likely affect the climate of the city?
a. Latitude and altitude b. latitude, altitude and topography c. latitude only
19. When an area is farther from the equator, the air temperature is lower resulting in:
a. Warm climate b. cold climate c. greater sun rays
20. When the place is closer to the equator, the air temperature is higher which results in:
a. Greater sun rays b. cold climate c. warm climate
21. The soil __________________ heat faster than water.
a. Released b. carry c. absorbs
22. During daytime, the air above the sea is:
a. Colder than the air above the land
b. Warmer than the air above the land to sea
c. Making temperature on land higher
23. During night time, warm air would flow from sea to land, making the temperature on land become:
a. Higher b. colder c. moderate
24. Due to the tilting and the shape of the earth, places from the equator receive less amount of heat. How
much is the tilt of the earth axis?
a. 32.6 degree b. 23.5 degree c. 25.3 degree
25. Why are the coldest places on Earth found near the poles?
a. They are near the equator
pg. 7
b. They receive less amount of heat
c. They are in moderate elevations
26. The decrease in air temperature is due to:
a. increase in air pressure b. decrease in air pressure c. none of the above
27. Which part of the Earth receive most of the sun rays?
a. North Pole b. South Pole c. equator
28. Why do some areas that are far from bodies of water have extreme climate?
a. Bec. Warm air flows from land to sea
b. Bec. during daytime, the air above sea is colder than air above the air
c. Bec. there is no bodies of water that will moderate the change in temperature in the location.
29. What happens to water vapor as it rises over a mountain.
a. It forms rain shadow b. it will rain c.it condenses to form cloud
30. Which side of the mountain experiences high temperature?
a. Leeward side b. Windward side c. rain shadow
31. Which side of the mountain experiences low temperature?
a. Windward side b. leeward side c. rain shadow
32. Why rain shadow is seldom found here in the Philippines?
a. Bec our country is surrounded by bodies of water
b. Bec of the local wind that brings rains
c. Bec moist wind comes from the sea
33. Philippines has two local wind system such as Amihan and Habagat, these local winds bring:
a. Typhoon in certain part of the country
b. Precipitation in every part of the country
c. Low temperature in the country
34. Formation of clouds in the mountain is caused by:
a. Rise in air pressure b. condensation of water vapor c. rise in temperature
35. A places that have high elevation have_________________.
a. Higher air temperature b. lower air temp. c. moderate temp.
36. Which side of the mountain often receives the most precipitation?
a. Peak b. leeward side c. windward side
37. It refers to the atmospheric condition of a place over a long period of time.
a. Topography b. weather c. climate
38. Why does cloud formation disappear as the air moves slowly towards the leeward side of a mountain?
a. There is too much water vapor
b. The temperature becomes lower
c. The amount of water is not enough
39. Why do mountain climbers bring thick jackets when they go up the mountain?
pg. 8
a. Altitude decreases as the temperature increases
b. Temperature decreases as the altitude increases
c. Temperature increases as the altitude increases
40. During summer, many people visit Baguio because of cold weather. What do you think makes baguio
cold?
a. Latitude b. altitude c. topography
II. Define or describe the following given term:
1. Geothermal=
2. Summit=
3. Viscosity=
4. Altitude=
5. Temperature=
III. Answer the following question briefly:

1. Why is Philippine considered a home to many volcanoes?
2. By what process can a volcanic eruption affect temperature around the world?
3. How is energy from volcanoes tapped as a source of electricity?
4. Give 3 positive effect and 3 negative effect of volcanic eruptions?
pg. 9
3rd Periodic Exam
Science G-7
Name:______________________________________ Score:___________
I Multiple choice: choose the letter that corresponds to the best answer and write it before each number.
1. Distance is the total length of the actual path travelled by the object, regardless of the direction of the
movement. Therefore, distance is a ______________.
a. Scalar quantity b. vector quantity c. displacement
2. It is the shortest path between the initial and final position of an object.
3. It is a vector quantity because it takes into consideration the direction travelled.
4. How far did the dog travel? If we consider the distance travelled: = distance from the dog to the bone
(3) + distance between the bone and the dog house (3 m + 5)?
a. 8 meters b. 11 meters c. 10 meters
5. When you ask someone, “how fast can you run?”, you are actually asking a person about his________
a. Velocity b. speed c. distance
6. It is the rate at which distance is covered.
a. Velocity b. speed c. time
7. In a car, a speedometer indicates the speed of a moving vehicle at a particular instant. This is called:
a. Instantaneous speed b. average speed c. velocity
8. it is the total distance travelled by an object divided by the total time of travel.
a. Average speed b. speed and velocity c. displacement time
9. To fully describe the velocity of an object, both the magnitude and the direction must be included.
Which of the following statement below shows a correct example?
a. The car’s velocity is 20 km/hr, east
b. The car is moving 20 km/hr
c. The car travelled at a distance of 4 m/hr, north
10. If an object is moving at a constant speed and in a constant direction, then it has a ______________.
a. Acceleration b. constant velocity c. average time
11. Is it possible for an object to move at a constant speed while velocity is changing?
a. Yes b. No c. must be in constant velocity.
12. It is a quantity that has a magnitude with a unit (of measure).
a. Scalar quantity b. vector quantity c. magnitude
13. It has the measure or numerical value of a given quantity.
a. Scalar quantity b. vector quantity c. magnitude
14. Lisa is sitting very still on a chair. But James claims that Lisa is actually moving. James is true if the point
of reference is the __________.
a. Chair b. Earth c. Sun
15. A toy when whirled has a uniform speed and moved in a circular path. Which of the following
assumptions is/are TRUE?
a. I b. II c. I&II
16. Mechanical waves transport energy from one place to another through:
a. Alternately vibrating particles of the medium
b. Vibrating particles and traveling particles
c. Particles traveling with the wave.
17. Energy from the sun reaches the earth through________.
a. Infrared waves b. ultraviolet waves c. electromagnetic waves
18. What will happen as the frequency of a wave increases and its speed remains constant?
a. The wavelength increases b. the wavelength decreases c. the amplitude increase
pg. 10
19. How does the frequency of infrared (IR) compare with the frequency of ultraviolet (UV) waves?
a. Infrared waves have lower frequency than ultraviolet waves
b. Infrared waves have higher frequency than ultraviolet waves
c. Infrared waves have the same frequency as the ultraviolet waves
20. Waves are cause by a source of vibration and waves can set objects into motion. The statement is:
a. True b. False c. partly true
21. UV waves have higher energy and frequency compared to visible lights.
22. Mechanical waves like water, sound, earthquakes and waves in a stretched string propagate through a
medium.
23. Electromagnetic waves such as radio waves, visible light, and gamma rays, do not require a medium
for their passage.
24. Which of the following objects will produce sound?
a. Soft objects b. radio stations c. vibrating objects.
25. Which of the following best describes a high frequency sound? It has_________
a. Low pitch b. high pitch c. A&B
26. Compared to a thin string of the same length and tightness, a thick string produces sounds of ________
a. The same pitch b. lower pitch c. higher pitch
27. A sound waves is__________
a. Longitudinal wave b. transverse wave c. shock wave
28. Which of the following is NOT capable of transmitting sound?
a. Air b. seawater c. vacuum
29. Which of the following would most likely transmit sound best?
a. Steel in cabinet b. Air in your classroom c. water in the swimming pool
30. Sound waves are produced through___________ of molecules.
a. Refraction b. compression c. both A & B
31. A loud speaker in front of the room produces sound waves that pass thru the room towards you
causing the air molecules in their path to:
a. Move toward you in waves
b. Vibrate vertically up and down
c. Vibrate both vertically and horizontally
32. A satellite explodes in the outer space and can be seen quickly from a spaceship in lunar orbit but the
explosion cannot be heard, because___________
a. There is no air on the moon
b. Light travels faster than sound
c. The light is reflected around the moon.
33. Which of the following is TRUE about the speed in a vacuum of these colors of light?
a. All colors of light have equal speeds in a vacuum
b. All colors of light have varying speeds in vacuum
c. Violet light has the highest speed while red light has the lowest speed.
34. Which of the following is a proof that light travels in a straight line?
a. Formation of shadows
b. Formation of clouds
c. Formation of rainbows
35. Conduction is Heat transfer through ….
a. Solid b. liquid c. gas
36. Convection is heat transfer through…..
a. Gases & liquids b. without touching c. solid
37. Radiation is heat transfer …..
a. Without touching b. Solids c. Liquids and Gases
*for item 38-42 identify the correct method of heat transfer.
38. hot air balloon
pg. 11
a. convection b. conduction c. radiation
39. Sun
40. A cup of tea
41. a frying pan
42. a kettle
43. Heat can be transferred in three ways through:
a. conduction, convection and radiation
b. conviction, convection and radiation
c. constriction, radiation and conviction
44. What is the word given to preventing heat transfer?
a. insulation b. convection c. electron
* item 45-53 Encircle all example of conductors and Mark a big X in all the sample illustration of insulators.
pg. 12
3rd Periodic Exam
Science G-8
Name:______________________________________ Score:___________
I. Multiple choice: choose the letter that correspond to the correct answer and write it before the
number.
1. Matter is composed of:
a. Atoms b. molecules c.atoms and molecules
2. Matter can be in the form of:
a. Solid and liquid b. liquid and gas c. solid, liquid and gas
3. Matter can be classified into:
a. Atoms and molecules b. substance and mixture c. elements and compounds
4. Substance and mixture can be distinguished by their;
a. Sub macroscopic composition b. macroscopic properties c. microscopic composition
5. Compounds and elements may either be:
a. Charges and nucleus b. atom and molecules c. substances and mixture
6. Matter sub-microscopic composition have the basic unit called:
a. Mixture b. element c. atom
7. Atom may combine to form:
a. Molecules b. ions c. nucleus
8. An atoms may lose or gain its:
a. Electrons b. charge c. element
9. An atom is almost empty space but is composed of three basic parts which are:
a. Protons, neutrons, & electrons
b. Charge, no charge & ions
c. Compounds, elements and mixture
10. Protons and electrons are:
a. May not be equal in numbers as neutrons
b. Equal in number in a neutral atom
c. Differentiate elements forming ion
11. A protons may not be equal in number as the:
a. Electrons b. neutrons c. ions
12. It is regarded as the smallest, basic unit of matter?
a. Elements b. atom c. compound
13. While the number of proton is fixed for an atom of an element, the number of neurons may:
a. Equal to the number of protons b. fixed c. vary
14. Atoms having the same number of protons but different number of neutrons are reffered as:
a. Atomic mass b. particles c. isotopes
15. An atom has equal number of protons and electrons, this make the atom as:
a. Determined by its mass b. vary in properties c. neutral
16. Protons and neutrons are relatively heavier than electrons, they compose the nucleus and collectively
called as:
a. Nucleons b. Atom c. charges
17. A properties of matter observed without changing the substance into another substance.
a. Physical properties b. chemical properties c. gaseous properties
18. A properties of matter that undergoes a change in its composition is known as:
a. Chemical properties b. physical properties c. gaseous properties
19. A substances that are made up of only one type of atoms is called
a. Compound b. elements c. energy
20. All elements and compounds are classified as
pg. 13
a. Solution b. pure substance c. properties
21. It is an area around the nucleus?
a. Atoms b. electron cloud c. charge
22. Why does neutron doesn’t alter the charge of the atom?
a. Bec. neutron has no charge
b. Bec. atoms are too small to be measured
c. Bec. the number of neutron identify what kind of atom it is.
23. Which of the following is an example of physical change?
a. Rusting of color b. charring marshmallow c. cutting of paper
24. It is the physical change of a solid to a liquid by the addition of energy as heat?
a. Freezing b. condensation c. melting
25. It is the change of state in which a liquid becomes a solid as heat is removed?
a. Evaporization b. sublimation c. freezing
26. It is the change of substance from a liquid to gas?
a. Evaporization b. condensation c. sublimation
27. The change of state from a gas to a liquid?
a. Condensation b. freezing c. sublimation
28. The process in which solid changes directly into gas?
a. Sublimation b. evaporization c. melting
29. The charge an electron have is:
a. (+) charge b. (-) charge c. neutral
30. The charge a proton have is:
a. (+) charge b. (-) charge c. neutral
II. Matching type: Match Column A with Column B. write the letter of the correct answer before the
number.
A B
31. Democritus a. gold foil experiment
32. Dalton b. electron is negative
33. JJ Thomson c. electron
34. Milikan d. atomic theory
35. Rutherford e. atom
f. Empty space atom
III. True or False: Particles Nature of Matters: Write T before the number if the statement is correct and F if
otherwise.
36. Solid liquid and gases are made up of tiny particles which are too small to observe with the unaided
eye.
37. The particle move and collide with each other and with the walls of the container.
38. There are forces that act between the particles.
39. Liquids are not easy to compress as gases.
40. Gases can expand to fill up its container.
41. Liquid takes the shape of their container but do not expand to fill them up.
42. During vaporization, water molecules evaporated only from the bottom of the liquid.
43. In closed container, the water in the gaseous state (vapor) accumulate above the liquid.
44. The volume of water in a beaker will decrease if water will be kept for less than 10 minutes because of
rapid vaporization of water.
pg. 14
45. As a water is heated and the temperature of the water rises, the molecules gain more kinetic energy &
move faster.
III. The following are examples of matter: for item 46-50 justify the given samples why they are
considered matter.
46. Leaves=
47. Stone=
48. Water=
49. Sugar granules=
50. Air inside ball=
IV. Fill the table with the correct information to differentiate the 3 physical states of matter.
DIFFERENCES AMONG THE THREE PHASES OF MATTER
SOLID LIQUID GAS
51. 52. 53.
54. 55. 56
57. 58. 59.
60. 61. 62.
pg. 15
Health 9
Name:______________________________________ Score:___________
I. Matching Type: match the definition or description in Column A to its corresponding word in
column B. write the letter of the best answer before the number.
Column A Column B
1. An immediate care given to an injured person before a physician arrives. A. gentle
2. One of the objective of first aider. B. sprain
3. A characteristics of a good first aider. C. wound
4. The first step in assessing an emergency situation. D. dressing
5. Done for an unconscious victim. E. puncture
6. A piece of sterile cloth used to cover a wound. F. save life.
7. Used to stop bleeding and immobilize fracture. G. bandage
8. A break in the continuity of the tissue of the body. H. first aid
9. A kind of open wound. i. respectful
10. Used to transport an unconscious victim. J. blanket
k. survey the scene
II. Essay: Answer the questions briefly.
11. Why is it important to follow proper techniques and procedures during or in giving first aid?
12. To whom can you apply your knowledge and skills in first aid?
13. To which situation can this saying “prevention is better than cure” be applied?
14. Injuries happen at any time. What should we do to prevent unintentional injuries?
15. When do we use primary survey on the victim?
16. What are the Roles of First Aid?
17. What are the objectives of First Aid?
pg. 16
3rd Periodic Exam
DRRR G-11
Name:______________________________________ Score:___________
I. Multiple Choice:
Directions: Choose the LETTER of the word or phrase that best answers each question and write it on the
space provided before the number
1. A calamitous event that brings destruction to human life, environment and other materials elements
a. Disaster b. hazard c. vulnerability
2. Is a phenomenon that posses’ threat to people, structure or economic assets
a. hazard b. disaster c. calamity
3. is a natural event or process which affects people causing loss of life or injury, economic damage, disruption to
peoples’ lives or environmental degradation?
a. Natural hazard b. natural phenomena c. natural disaster
4. When does a natural event becomes a hazard?
a. When it has the potential for causing injury to life, property and environment
b. When the probable destructive agent, the hazard, hits a vulnerable populated area
c. When a community structure or geographic area is to be damaged or disrupted by the impact of a particular
hazard.
5. When does a hazard becomes a disaster?
a. A disaster happens when the probable destructive agent, the hazard, hits a vulnerable populated area
b. When it has the potential for causing injury to life, property and environment
c. When a community structure or geographic area is to be damaged or disrupted by the impact of a particular
hazard.
6. Natural hazards are part and parcel of the Philippine environment, but disasters happen because human
settlements, infrastructures, people and economic activities are placed where hazards happen. This statement
is:
a. Partially correct b. true c. partially incorrect
7. What is disaster risk?
a. The quantity of exposure of the elements at risk (lives & properties
b. Refers to the expectation value of deaths, injuries, and property losses that would be caused by a hazard
c. A condition involving mass casualty and/or major damages to property, disruption of means of livelihoods,
roads and normal way of life of people in the affected areas as a result of the occurrence of natural or
human-induced hazard
8. Level of vulnerability and exposure can be reduced by:
a. Keeping people and property to hazards
b. Relocation must come hand in hand with mitigation and prevention measures
c. People remain in places previously hit by a disaster thinking that after a large magnitude event occurs comes
a period that is safe from another event
9. Why do some people resistive to relocation?
a. People tend to accept reality
b. People tend to turn a blind eye
c. People think for free relief
10. Refers to the total population living in the affected area for each event
a. Disaster b. exposure c. vulnerability
11. A characteristics and circumstances of a community, system or asset that makes it susceptible to the damaging
effects of hazard
a. Capacity b. exposure c. vulnerability
12. Combination of strengths and resources available within a community, society or organization that can reduce
the level of risk or effects of disaster
a. Exposure b. vulnerability c. capacity
pg. 17
13. Which is not a characteristic of a community that make it capable of coping and recovering from the damaging
effects of hazard
a. Exposure b. vulnerability c. capacity
14. It is the susceptibility of the individuals, communities, businesses, and governments to absorb or cushion the
effects of a hazard event
a. Utility lifelines b. industrial and high potential loss facilities c. economic vulnerability
15. It refers as result from earth’s natural processes
a. Quasi-natural hazard b. human induced hazard c. natural hazard
16. A hazard result from the interaction of natural processes and human activities
17. A hazard result from human activities
18. Which is NOT an example of geologic hazard?
a. Rapid sediment movement b. volcanic eruption c. rapid glacier advance
19. Which is NOT an example of hydrological hazard?
a. Impacts with space objects b. wave action c. Drought
20. Which is NOT an example of atmospheric hazard?
a. Excessive rainfall b. epidemic c. extreme temperature
21. Which is NOT an example of biological hazard?
a. Pest infestation b. epidemic in animals c. accidental release of toxic chemicals
22. Which is NOT an example of man-made hazard?
a. Subsidence b. transport accidents c. computer virus
23. Earthquake occur within the Philippine Archipelago every now and then mainly because the country is situated
along two major tectonic plates of the world the:
a. Australian plate, pacific plate b. Eurasian plate, pacific plate c. Indian plate, pacific plate
24. An average of earthquakes recorded per day in Philippines
a. 50 b. 30 c. 20
25. Felt earthquakes per year in the country
a. 100 b. 150 c. 200
26. Total number of destructive earthquakes in the country for past 400 years?
a. 70 b. 90 c. 100
27. How many are considered active volcanoes in the Philippines (with recorded eruption or lates eruption <10000
yrs)?
a. 30 b. 27 c. 23
28. How many are potentially active volcanoes?
a. 26 b. 32 c. 36
29. How about inactive volcanoes?
a. 188 c. 278 c. 368
30. How are earthquake vibrations generated?
a. Ground ruptures/faults that have reached the surface
b. Subduction of two plates
c. Most natural earthquakes are caused by sudden slippage along fault zone.
II. TRUE/FALSE: in the following statement below, write A if the statement is true and B if otherwise. Write
the letter of your best answer before each number. . . strictly follow directions otherwise you will be given
deduction points.
31. Ground shaking per se cannot harm.
32. Stability of building contents must be ensured to prevent injuries and fatalities
33. Understanding earthquakes is critical in building designs
34. Ground ruptures are earthquake faults that have reached the surface
35. Ground ruptures are earthquake faults that have reached the surface
36. Mt. Pinatubo eruption on June 1991 is the biggest volcanic eruption of the century where 800 are dead; P 10.06
B damage
37. Hydro meteorological hazards are processes which involve the interaction of the atmosphere, bodies of water,
and land which pose threat to lives and human property.
38. Flooding is worse during tropical depressions and tropical storms
39. Fire is the perceptible phase of burning or combustion, which is the chemical reaction between oxygen, fuel and
heat
pg. 18
40. Arson is an unlawful act of burning buildings, vehicles, farmlands, and other properties.
III. Enumerate/Give what is ask in the following:
41-44: meaning of PASS in using a fire extinguisher
45-50: 6 steps to SAFETY
51-55: the 3 A’s and its function
pg. 19

3rd Quarter PHYSICAL SCIENCE Exam

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3rd Quarter PHYSICAL SCIENCE Exam

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3rd Periodic Exam

PHYSICAL SCIENCE G11

a. alpha ladder b. CNO cycle c. triple-alpha process d. s-process

a. Edwin Hubble b. Robert Wilson c. Ernest Rutherford d. Henry Moseley

a. John Dalton b. Joseph John Thomson c. James Chadwick

a. orbitals b. gravity c. subshell

a. non polar b. polarity c. polaroid

a. polaroid b. polar c. non polar

Stellar fusion or nucleosynthesis Supernova nucleosynthesis

28. 29. 30.

Which form Elements

_____36. A star gets lighter as time goes on.

Pancreas endocrine glands Secreted enzymes phosphate

21. When our blood glucose is low the pancreas secretes________________________.

III. Answer the following question briefly:

SOLID LIQUID GAS

51. 52. 53.

57. 58. 59.

60. 61. 62.

15. When do we use primary survey on the victim?

16. What are the Roles of First Aid?

17. What are the objectives of First Aid?

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