Bo de on Tuyen Sinh 10

BỘ ĐỀ ÔN TUYỂN SINH 10 NĂM HỌC 2023-2024
(Compiled by teacher Tran Hong Canh from Le Ngoc Han Junior High School)
TEST 1
A. PHẦN CHUNG (bắt buộc cho cả 2 chương trình: Từ câu 1 đến câu 24): (6.0 điểm)
Questions 1-2: Pick out the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from
the others: (0.5 point)
Question 1. A. called B. crowded C. excited D. wanted
Question 2. A. do B. go C. no D. so
Questions 3-4: Pick out the word that has the primary stress that differs from the other
three: (0.5 point)
Question 3. A. machine B. money C. student D. water
Question 4. A. begin B. enjoy C. happen D. return
Questions 5-6: Pick out the word that is of the different topic (or part of speech) from the
others: (0.5 point)
Question 5. A. apple B. banana C. lemon D. weather
Question 6. A. busy B. city C. easy D. lazy
Questions 7-18: Pick out ONE best option to complete each of the following sentences: (3.0
points)
Question 7. Teacher: ______
Student: I am fine, thank you. And you?
A. How are you? B. How old are you? C. Where are you? D. Who are you?
Question 8. Look! Miss World is very _.
A. beauty B. beautiful C. beautify D. beautifully
Question 9. Excuse me? Can you English?
A. speech B. speak C. speaking D. spoken
Question 10. The ________ language in Vietnam is Vietnamese.
A. nation B. national C. nationally D. nationality
Question 11. London is a large city. Its ________ is smaller than Tokyo or Shanghai.
A. populate B. popular C. populous D. population
Question 12. Hoa can her parents.
A. visit B. visits C. visiting D. visited
Question 13. The book _______ I like is on the table.
A. who B. whom C. which D. where
Question 14. Yesterday they _.
A. arrive B. arrives C. arriving D. arrived
Question 15. The bus collects us 5 o’clock.
A. at B. in C. on D. with
Question 16. He said he ________ because it was too noisy.
A. can’t concentrate B. couldn’t concentrate
C. don’t concentrate D. does not concentrate
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Question 17. The first TV picture ________ in 1926, wasn’t it?
A. produced B. didn’t produce C. was produced D. wasn’t produced
Question 18. Man: What time is it?
Woman: ________ .
A. I am here B. It’s six o’clock C. No, thanks D. That’s all right
Questions 19-24: Read the passage below then pick out ONE best option (A, B, C or D): (1.5
points)
In the UK we each use about two hundred metal food and drink cans every year. Metal cans are
popular because they are convenient, easy to store and unbreakable. But when you have finished
with a can what do you do with it? Do you throw it away and forget all about it?
Probably! But behind the scenes there are people whose job it is to make sure that the metal is never
wasted. In fact, recycling or re-using metal cans is so successful that every day of the year more
than five million cans start new lives in new metal products.
After you have thrown away your can, what happens? Well, first of all it is collected by the men
who empty your dustbin each week and taken to a landfill, together with all the other household
rubbish. Then the rubbish is stored and the metal cans are taken separately to a special factory
where they find their way back into your home in the form of knives and forks, garden equipment
and, of course, food and drink cans. So the next time you open your soft drink just remember where
your can may have been!
(English Reading comprehension MCQs, Giao duc Publishing House)
Question 19. Why does the writer write this passage?

A. To let us know about the UK. B. To describe the metal factory.
C. To provide some information. D. To describe street cleaners.
Question 20. What is the passage mainly about?
A. What happens to old cans? B. How metal is made.
C. How rubbish is collected. D. How the soft drink industry works.
Question 21. How do we know that re-using metal cans is very successful?
A. Every person uses 5000 cans a year.
B. Over 5,000,000 cans are recycled daily.
C. All cans and tins are now made from metal.
D. It reduces the amount of waste to collect.
Question 22. Which is closest in meaning to “rubbish” in the last paragraph?
A. food B. equipment C. garbage D. water
Question 23. After being taken to the landfill, empty metal cans ______
A. are turned into high quality metal.
B. are washed and sent back to our homes.
C. are separated from rubbish and sent to a special factory to be recycled.
D. are made into knives, forks and garden equipment.
Question 24. According to the passage, what is our attitude to old cans?
A. We are not interested in what happens to them.
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B. We are making things difficult for the dustbin men.
C. We could help by sending them to the factory.
D. We should be more careful where we throw them.
B. PHẦN RIÊNG (Tự chọn): (4.0 điểm) - Thí sinh chọn 1 trong 2 chương trình (Thí sinh chọn
hệ 7 năm làm tiếp từ câu 25 đến câu 40; Thí sinh chọn hệ 10 năm làm tiếp từ câu 41 đến câu 56.
Lưu ý: Bài làm cả 2 chương trình sẽ không được chấm.)
I. CHƯƠNG TRÌNH HỆ 7 NĂM: (Thí sinh chọn hệ 7 năm làm tiếp từ câu 25 đến câu
40. Lưu ý: Bài làm cả 2 chương trình sẽ không được chấm.)
Questions 25-32: Pickout ONE best option (A, B, C or D) to fill ineach numbered blank,
completing the meaning of the passage: (2.0 points)
Lan’s Malaysian pen (25) __________ is Razali Maryam. Maryam is from Kuala Lumpur,
Malaysia. She tells Lan a lot about her country.
Malaysia is one of the (26) __________ of ASEAN. It is divided into two regions, known as West
Malaysia and East Malaysia. They are separated by about 640 km of the sea and together comprise
an area of 329,758 sq km. Malaysia enjoys tropical climate. The Malaysian unit of currency is the
ringgit, consisting (27) 100 sen.
The capital of Malaysia is Kuala Lumpur and it is also (28) __________ city in the country. The
population in 2001 was over 22 million. Islam is the country’s official religion. In addition, there
are (29) __________ religions such as Buddhism and Hinduism. The official
(30) __________ is Bahasa Malaysia (also known simply as Malay) English, Chinese, and Tamil
are also widely spoken. The language of instruction for primary school children is Bahasa
Malaysia, Chinese, or Tamil. Bahasa Malaysia is the (31) __________ language of instruction in
all secondary schools, (32) __________ some students may continue learning in Chinese or
Tamil. And English is a compulsory second language.
(English 9, 7-year Curric, p.9, 10, Giao duc Publishing House)
Question 25. A. ball B. case C. pal D. point
Question 26. A. cities B. countries C. towns D. villages
Question 27. A. at B. for C. in D. of
Question 28. A. large B. larger C. the as large D. the largest
Question 29. A. another B. other C. others D. the others
Question 30. A. dress B. food C. language D. school
Question 31. A. alien B. primary C. strong D. wide
Question 32. A. although B. because C. so D. when
Questions 33-36: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions: (1.0 point)
Question 33. I think he suggests to take showers to save water.
A B C D
Question 34. I say if it rains this evening, I wouldn’t go out.
A B C D
Question 35. Tomorrow they finished the work and will leave the city.
A B C D
Question 36. If you have a dream to fly into space, your dream may come truly some day.
A B C D
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Questions 37-38: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence
that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions: (0.5 point)
Question 37. It is raining so I can’t go to the beach.
A. It is raining because I can’t go to the beach.
B. It is raining although I can’t go to the beach.
C. I can’t go to the beach so it is raining.
D. I can’t go to the beach because it is raining.
Question 38. They grow rice in tropical countries, don’t they?
A. Rice is grown in tropical countries, don’t they?
B. Rice is grown in tropical countries, do they?
C. Rice is grown in tropical countries, isn’t it?
D. Rice is grown in tropical countries, is it?
that best completes each of the following questions: (0.5 point)
Question 39. Now she wishes she _.
A. can pass the exam B. will pass the exam
C. could pass the exam D. pass the exam
Question 40. That’s wonderful. I’m pleased _.
A. with you are working hard B. to that you are working hard
C. that you are working hard D. that you to work hard
_____________________(HẾT PHẦN LÀM BÀI CỦA HỆ 7 NĂM)__________________
II. CHƯƠNG TRÌNH HỆ 10 NĂM: (Thí sinh chọn hệ 10 năm làm tiếp từ câu 41 đến câu 56.
Questions 41-48: Pickout ONE best option (A, B, C or D) to fill ineach numbered blank,
London is one of the largest (41) __________in the world. Its population is a lot smaller
(42) __________Tokyo or Shanghai, but it is by far the most popular tourist destination. London is
probably most famous (43) __________its museums, galleries, palaces, and other sights, but it also
includes a wider range of peoples, cultures, and religions than many
(44) __________ places. People used to say that it was the dirtiest city too, (45) it
is now much cleaner than it was. To the surprise of many people, it now has some of the best
restaurants in Europe too. For some people, this makes London (46) __________ city in Europe.
Singapore is a small city-state in Southern Asia. It is a lovely place to visit. The
(47) __________are quite close to each other, so travelling between them is convenient. The food
here is varied – all kinds of Asian food. The outdoor food markets are fun and affordable. You order
your food, and it is cooked right before you. Then you go and eat it at a table outside. It’s a great
way to meet people. But what I like most about Singapore is that it is
(48) __________– Chinese, Malay, Indian, European, and Vietnamese. For me, that’s the best thing
about Singapore.
(English 9 – 10-year Curric, p.20, 21, Giao duc Publishing House)
Question 41. A. cities B. countries C. towns D. villages
Question 42. A. as B. by C. than D. to
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Question 43. A. for B. in C. of D. with
Question 44. A. another B. other C. others D. the others
Question 45. A. because B. but C. so D. when
Question 46. A. as exciting B. the more exciting
C. most exciting D. the most exciting
Question 47. A. attract B. attractive C. attractively D. attractions
Question 48. A. local B. multicultural C. personal D. technical
Questions 49-52: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined
part that needs correction in each of the following questions: (1.0 point)
Question 49. I think he suggests to recycle things such as bags, cans, and bottles.
A B C D
Question 50. I say if she had an IELTS certificate, she will get the job now.
A B C D
Question 51. Tomorrow they finished the work and will leave the city.
A B C D
Question 52. The salad is simple but delicious with the parts: prawns, celery, onions,
A B C
lemon, salt and pepper.
D
that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions (0.5 point)
Question 53. I don’t know what I should wear.
A. I don’t know what to wear. B. I don’t know what wear.
C. I don’t know what wearing. D. I don’t know what should wear.
Question 54. People have reported that Thien Duong is the longest cave in Vietnam.
A. People report that Thien Duong has been the longest cave in Vietnam.
B. People reported that Thien Duong has been the longest cave in Vietnam.
C. It is reported that Thien Duong is the longest cave in Vietnam.
D. It has been reported that Thien Duong is the longest cave in Vietnam.
that best completes each of the following questions (0.5 point)
Question 55. Now I wish there _.
A. be 4 seasons in my area B. are 4 seasons in my area
C. will be 4 seasons in my area D. were 4 seasons in my area
Question 56. They were pleased _.
A. with the traffic problem had been solved
B. to that the traffic problem had been solved
C. that the traffic problem had been solved
D. that the traffic problem to have been solved
…………………………………………………………………………………………..
TEST 2
I. PHẦN CHUNG (bắt buộc cho cả 2 chương trình: Từ câu 1 đến câu 24): (6.0 points)
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Questions 1-2: Pick out the word that has the underlined syllable pronounced differently
from the others: (0.5 point)
Question 1. A. boys B. groups C. rooms D. words
Question 2. A. second B. sorry C. sunny D. sugar
Questions 3-4: Pick out the word that has the main stressed syllable pronounced differently
Question 3. A. country B. music C. police D. woman
Question 4. A. begin B. follow C. happen D. visit
others: (0.5 point)
Question 5. A. city B. language C. region D. village
Question 6. A. differ B. letter C. offer D. wander
Questions 7-18: Pick out ONE best option to complete each of the following sentences:
(3.0 points)
Question 7. Teacher: ______ Student: I am 14 years old.
A. How are you? B. How old are you? C. Where are you? D. Who are you?
Question 8. A place of interest is a ________and famous place in the countryside.
A. beauty B. beautiful C. beautify D. beautifully
Question 9. What is the best ______ in Singapore?
A. attraction B. attract C. attractive D. attracted
Question 10. Noise ________ comes from the traffic and from construction sites.
A. pollute B. polluted C. pollution D. pollutedly
Question 11. Ann is interested ________ history.

A. about B. for C. in D. to
Question 12. The roads ________ and we are stuck in a traffic jam.
A. crowd B. crowding C. are crowded D. crowds
Question 13. In my class, English _______ by Mr. Bean.
A. teaching B. taught C. is teaching D. is taught
Question 14. People ________ the city of London a long time ago.
A. is building B. builds C. built D. will have
Question 15. Young men can get jobs ________ after leaving schools.
A. ease B. easy C. easily D. uneasy
Question 16. ________ the sun was shining, it wasn’t very warm.
A. Although B. Because C. So D. That
Question 17. My parents told me that ________ the following day.
A. we will visit you B. we will visit me C. they will visit you D. they would visit me
Question 18. Man: I am sorry.
Woman: ________ .
A. I am here B. Yes, please C. No, thanks D. That’s all right
Questions 19-24: Read the passage below then pick out ONE best option (A, B, C or D) to
complete each of the following sentences: (1.5 points)
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“How can I learn English well?” This is a question many students ask. In my opinion, the most
effective way is to learn lessons by heart. If you can recite the text and write it out, you’ve learned
it fairly well. And if you can tell, in your own words, what the lesson says you’re a very successful
learner indeed. Your English will be quite perfect.
This is a difficult task. However, if you try to learn by heart only part of each lesson, you’ll find it
not half so hard as you might have thought.
Learning this way, you will make rapid progress. Of course, writing is also necessary. It helps you
a lot on your way to success in English.
What is equally important is to feel the language. You should be able to laugh at jokes and be
shocked at bad news. When using English, try to forget your mother tongue. Instead of helping you,
your own language gets in your way. So, never try to see English through translation.
(English Reading comprehension MCQs, Giao duc Publishing House)
Question 19. According to the writer, the most effective way in learning English is ______ .
A. to practice speaking, writing and feeling it
B. to forget your own native language
C. to translate everything into his own language
D. to copy the English words and grammar rules
Question 20. In “What is equally important is to feel the language.”, “To feel the language”
means ______ .
A. to get knowledge of English by touching
B. to be able to read and write English
C. to translate English into your own by imagining
D. to experience the rich meaning of the language
Question 21. In “You should be able to laugh at jokes and be shocked at bad news.”, “jokes”
means ______.
A. clothing shows B. funny stories C. love songs D. sad news
Question 22. In “When using English, try to forget your mother tongue.”, “mother tongue”
means ______.
A. lovely Mum B. part of the mouth C. foreign language D. first language
Question 23. When using English, try to ______.
A. see English through translation B. forget your mother tongue
C. think in your own language D. translate English into your own
Question 24. What is the best title for the passage?
A. English cities B. English culture C. English learning D. English people
II. PHẦN RIÊNG (Tự chọn): (4.0 points) - Thí sinh chọn 1 trong 2 chương trình (Thí sinh
chọn hệ 7 năm làm tiếp từ câu 25 đến câu 40; Thí sinh chọn hệ 10 năm làm tiếp từ câu 41 đến
câu 56. Lưu ý: Bài làm cả 2 chương trình sẽ không được chấm.)
A. CHƯƠNG TRÌNH HỆ 7 NĂM: (Thí sinh chọn hệ 7 năm làm tiếp từ câu 25 đến câu 40.
Questions 25-32: Pick out ONE best option (A, B, C or D) to fill in each numbered blank,
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For centuries, poets, writers and musicians (25) __________ the ao dai in poems, novels and songs.
The ao dai is the traditional (26) __________ of Vietnamese women. It consists of a long silk tunic
that is slit on the sides and worn over loose pants. Traditionally, it was frequently worn by both men
and women. The design and material used for men were (27) __________ from those used
for women. Nowadays, women usually (28) __________ it, especially on special occasions.
However, many Vietnamese women today often prefer to wear modern clothing at work, (29)
__________ it is more convenient.
Now fashion (30) __________ want to change the traditional ao dai. Some have printed lines of
poetry on the ao dai, so they look modern and very fashionable. Other designers have taken
inspiration from Vietnam’s ethnic minorities. They have visited villages and studied traditional
designs and symbols (31) __________ suns, stars, crosses, and stripes. They have added these
patterns to the ao dai, so Vietnamese women can continue to wear the unique dress, which is now
(32) __________ traditional and fashionable.
(English 9, 7-year Curric, p.13, 14, Giao duc Publishing House)
Question 25. A. mention B. is mentioning C. have mentioned D. are mentioning
Question 26. A. coat B. dress C. shirt D. skirt
Question 27. A. alike B. different C. same D. unlike
Question 28. A. report B. tell C. wear D. work
Question 29. A. because B. but C. though D. unless
Question 30. A. doctors B. designers C. engineers D. workers
Question 31. A. because of B. in spite of C. so that D. such as
Question 32. A. as B. both C. either D. or
Questions 33 36: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
Question 33. In fact, Sue and Peter don’t like news, does it?
A B C D
Question 34. She asked me that I lived.
A B C D
Question 35. My Mum dislikes to watch sports but my Dad does.
A B C D
Question 36. I wish I am tall enough to get a job in the police.
A B C D
that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions: (0.5 point)
Question 37. You must do this exercise carefully.
A. You must be done this exercise carefully. B. You can be done this exercise carefully.
C. This exercise must be done carefully. D. This exercise must do carefully.
Question 38. She said, “This birthday cake is delicious.”
A. She said if the birthday cake was delicious.
B. She said that the birthday cake was delicious.
C. She said what the birthday cake was delicious.
D. She said where the birthday cake was delicious.
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Question 39. If you want to get good grades, you ______.
A. study hard B. must study hard
C. cannot study hard D. don’t study hard
Question 40. I give you my telephone number ______.
A. so you can call me B. although you can call me
C. to you call me D. that you to call me
______________________(Hết phần làm bài của hệ 7 năm)_________________________
B. CHƯƠNG TRÌNH HỆ 10 NĂM: (Thí sinh chọn hệ 10 năm làm tiếp từ câu 41 đến câu 56.
Living in a city has a (41) __________ of drawbacks. Firstly, there is the problem of traffic jams
and traffic accidents. The increase in population and the increasing number of vehicles have caused
many accidents (42) __________ every day. Secondly, air pollution negatively affects people’s
health, and it also has a bad influence on the environment. More and more city dwellers (43)
__________ from coughing or breathing problems. Thirdly, the city is (44) __________, even at
night. Noise pollution comes from the traffic and from construction sites. Buildings are always being
knocked down and rebuilt. These factors contribute to making city life more (45) __________ for
its residents.
London is one of (46) __________ cities in the world. Its population is a lot smaller than Tokyo or
Shanghai, but it is by far the most popular tourist attraction. London is probably most famous for its
museums, galleries, palaces, and other sights, but it also includes a wider range of peoples, cultures,
and religions than many (47) __________ places. People used to say that it was the dirtiest city too,
(48) __________ it is now much cleaner than it was. To the surprise of many people, it now has
some of the best restaurants in Europe too. For some people, this makes London the most exciting
city in Europe.
Question 41. A. amount B. few C. lots D. number
Question 42. A. happen B. happening C. to happen D. happened
Question 43. A. have B. like C. suffer D. wait
Question 44. A. cool B. noisy C. quiet D. silent
Question 45. A. difficult B. easy C. good D. well
Question 46. A. as large B. so large C. larger D. the largest
Question 47. A. another B. other C. others D. the other
Question 48. A. and B. but C. or D. when
Question 49. The city has recently set out a library in the West Suburb.
A B C D
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Question 50. I suggest recycle things such as bags, cans and bottles to save the earth.
A B C D
Question 51. If I were you, I will get some sleep.
A B C D
Question 52. I wish I can learn more about other people’s traditions.
A B C D
that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions (0.5 point)
Question 53. “Where can I get those traditional crafts?” Nick wondered.
A. Nick wondered where to get the traditional crafts.
B. Nick asked I to get the traditional crafts.
C. Nick asked where she got the traditional crafts.
D. Nick wondered me to get the traditional crafts.
Question 54. People say she works 16 hours a day.
A. People say to work 16 hours a day. B. People say they work for her 16 hours a day.
C. It is said that she works 16 hours a day. D. It is said that to work 16 hours a day.
that best completes each of the following questions (0.5 point)
Question 55. Tuberculosis – TB ______ .
A. uses to kill a lot of people B. use to kill a lot of people
C. used to kill a lot of people D. used to killing a lot of people
Question 56. Rickshaws are ______.
A. quicker taxis B. quicker as taxis
C. quicker than taxis D. as quick than taxis
-------------------------------------------------- HẾT ----------------------------------------------
TEST 3
Questions 1-2: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word
whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following
questions: (0.5 pt)
Question 1. A. called B. lived C. printed D. stayed
Question 2. A. ear B. hear C. wear D. year
Questions 3-4: Pick out the word that has the main stressed syllable pronounced differently
Question 3. A. arrive B. begin C. return D. visit
Question 4. A. busy B. final C. polite D. useful
others: (0.5 point)
Question 5. A. humor B. neighbor C. visitor D. sailor
Question 6. A. forest B. pond C. river D. sea
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Questions 7-18: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions: (3.0 pts)
Question 7. STUDENT 1: “How about doing something to save energy?”
STUDENT 2: “______ ”
A. You can do it. B. Great! Let’s do that. C. I’ll be there! D. Yes, thanks.
Question 8. There is ______ for people to believe in the existence of UFOs.
A. atmosphere B. evidence C. idea D. plan
Question 9. The baby laughed ______ as she played with her toys.
A. happy B. happiness C. happily D. unhappy
Question 10. Family members who live ______ try to be together at Tet.
A. another B. apart C. alive D. aware
Question 11. In many countries, people crowd the streets to watch colorful ______ on
National Day.
A. generations B. parades C. parties D. populations
Question 12. Areas around the Mekong Delta can ______ clouds during the day.
A. expect B. hope C. look D. think
Question 13. Ba cannot fly like a bird. He wishes he______ up in the sky.
A. flies B. can fly C. will fly D. could fly
Question 14. You have read this article on the website, ______?
A. do you B. don’t you C. have you D. haven’t you
Question 15. She dislikes ______ advertisements on TV but her brother does.
A. watch B. to watch C. watching D. to be watched
Question 16. Neil Armstrong, ______ first walked on the moon, lived in the USA.
A. who B. which C. whom D. whose
Question 17. She asked me______ I liked pop music.
A. if B. or not C. that D. who
Question 18. STUDENT 1: “Happy Birthday to you!”
STUDENT 2: “______”
A. Thank you. B. I’m very happy!
C. Happy Birthday to me! D. That’s all right.
Questions 19-24: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer
sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions: (1.5 pts)
Linguists believe that early men used many gestures to communicate with one another. This,
it is thought, was man’s first form of communication and the only one he had used for a long period
of time. Even today we use some sign language: for example, we shake our head to indicate yes or
no, we point and we wave and so on.
The first spoken words may have been early man’s attempt to copy the sounds made by
animals. Then he may have developed sounds of his own. Gradually, man may have repeated certain
sounds so often that they became familiar and understandable to others. Once spoken language had
begun, perhaps man invented new words as he needed them to express himself verbally or to name
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new objects. The next stage is that man came to write down what he spoke. In this way we can
imagine language growing.
By using words, parents were able to teach them to their children. The children in turn
probably made up new words. Each generation, therefore, in the development of language, knew
more words than the generation before it. Language is still growing and changing. Can you think of
some words that you use today that were not used by your parents or grandparents when they were
children?
(Adapted from Preliminary English Test, Cambridge University Press)
Question 19. What is the best tittle for the passage?
A. Language growing B. Early man’s language
C. Spoken language D. Written language
Question 20. According to linguists, man’s first form of communication was ______.
A. a long period B. points and numbers C. sign language D. thoughts
Question 21. According to Paragraph 2, which of the following might describe the
development of language?
A. Spoken language - animal sounds - man’s sounds - written language
B. Animal sounds - spoken language - man’s sounds - written language
C. Written language - spoken language - animal sounds - man’s sounds
D. Animal sounds - man’s sounds - spoken language - written language
Question 22. verbally in Paragraph 2 means ______.
A. with sounds B. with pictures C. with words D. with actions
Question 23. According to Paragraph 3, the number of words of the generation after is
______ that of words of the one before it.
A. fewer than B. less than C. greater than D. as many as
Question 24. This reading passage may be taken out from ______.
A. an advertisement B. a fashion program
C. a letter of complaint D. a language magazine
Questions 25-32: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your
answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered
blanks: (2.0 pts)
Earthquakes: Ninety percent of earthquakes occur around the Pacific Rim, which is
known as the ‘Ring of Fire’. In 1995, a huge earthquake (25) ______ the city of Kobe in Japan. A
large number of people were killed when homes, office blocks and highways collapsed.
Tidal waves: Tidal waves are the (26) ______ of an abrupt shift in the underwater movement
of the Earth. In the 1960s, a huge tidal wave hit Anchorage, Alaska. The tidal wave travelled (27)
______ Alaska to California!
Typhoons: When a tropical storm (28) ______ 120 kilometres per hour, it is called a
hurricane in North and South America, a cyclone in Australia, and a typhoon in Asia. The word
‘typhoon’ comes from Chinese: tai means ‘big’ and feng means ‘wind’, so the word ‘typhoon’
means ‘big wind’.
12
Volcanoes: We can usually predict (29) ______ a volcano will erupt. Mount Pinatubo, which
is a volcano in the Philippines, erupted in 1991. It was the world’s largest volcanic eruption in more
than 50 years. Hundreds of people died, but thousands were saved (30) ______ scientists had warned
them about the eruption.
Tornadoes: Tornadoes are funnel-shaped storms which pass overland (31) ______ a
thunderstorm. They can suck up anything that is in their path. In Italy in 1981, a tornado lifted a
baby, who was (32) ______ in its baby carriage, into the air and put it down safely 100 meters away!
(Extract from English 9, p. 78, 79 - Giáo dục Publishing House)
Question 25. A. arrived B. came C. saved D. struck
Question 26. A. cause B. purpose C. reason D. result
Question 27. A. between B. for C. from D. through
Question 28. A. develops B. reaches C. sets D. uses
Question 29. A. which B. who C. whose D. when
Question 30. A. although B. because C. however D. therefore
Question 31. A. below B. beside C. into D. within
Question 32. A. asleep B. sleep C. slept D. to sleep
Questions 33 36: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
Question 33. Yesterday I have bought a new pair of jeans, which are a product
A B C
by Gucci.
D
Question 34. I would strongly suggest that your company tells your drivers to
A B C D
clear up all the trash before leaving.
Question 35. If I meet an alien from outer space, I would invite him or her to
A B C
. my home and talk.
D
Question 36. Pleased to meet you. Let me to introduce myself.
A B C D
that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions: (0.5 pt)
Question 37. She said, “I am having a wonderful time here.”
A. She said I am having a wonderful time here.
B. She said she is having a wonderful time here.
C. She said that she is having a wonderful time there.
D. She said that she was having a wonderful time there.
Question 38. They are going to build a new bridge in the area.
A. A new bridge is built by them in the area.
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B. A new bridge is going to build by them in the area.
C. A new bridge is going to be built in the area.
D. A new bridge has been built in the area.
that best completes each of the following questions: (0.5 pt)
Question 39. Wearing uniforms encourages students______.
A. proud of their school because the uniforms bear their school name
B. be proud of their school because the uniforms bear their school name
C. to be proud of their school because the uniforms bear their school name
D. being proud of their school because the uniforms bear their school name
Question 40. I am disappointed that ______ .
A. you not phoning to tell me B. your not phoning to tell me
C. you not phoned to tell me D. you didn’t phone to tell me
---------------------------------------------------- HẾT --------------------------------------------
14
TEST 4
I. PHẦN CHUNG - BẮT BUỘC (6.0 pts)

Choose the word that is of different TOPIC or PART OF SPEECH from the others in each
of the frollowing the following questions (0.5 pt).
Question 1: A. plumber B. writer C. farmer D.sweater
Question 2: A. quickly B. widely C. sadly D. friendly
Choose the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
PRONUNCIATION in each of the following questions (0.5 pt).
Question 3: A. talked B. washed C. passed D.collected
Question 4: A. seat B. heat C. great D. meat
Choose the word whose STRESS differs from the other three in each of the following
questions (0.5pt).
Question 5: A. develop B. primary C. countryside D.optional
Question 6: A. divide B. mountain C. apply D. prevent
Read the passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions (1.5 pts).
LIFE BEYOND EARTH
Is there intelligent life on other planets? For years, scientists said "no" or "we don't
know". But today this is changing. Seth Shostak and Alexandra Barnett are astronomers.
They believe intelligent life exists somewhere in the universe. They also think we will soon
contact these beings.
Why do Shostak and Barnett think intelligent life exists on other planets? The first
reason is time. Scientists believe the universe is about 12 billion years old. This is too long,
say Shostak and Barnett, for only one planet in the entire universe to have intelligent life.
The second reasin is the size - the universe is huge. Tools like the Hubble Telescope "have
shown that the Hubble Telescope "have shown that there are at least 100 billion galaxies,"
says Shostak. And our galaxy, the Milky Way has at least 100 billion stars. Some planets
circling these stars might be similar to Earth.
Until recently, it was difficult to search for signs of intelligent life in the universe. But
now, powerful telescopes enable scientists to identify smaller planets - the size of other solar
systems. These planets might have intelligent life.
Have beings from space already visited Earth? Probably not, says Shostak. The
distance between planets is too great. Despite this, intelligent beings might eventually contact
us using other methods, such as radio signals. In fact, they may be trying to communicate
with us now, but we don't have the right tools to receive their messages. But this is changing,
says Shostak. By 2025, we could make contact with other life forms in our universe.
(Extracted from Reading Explorer 1, Cengage Learning National Geographic)
Question 7: What is the main purpose of this reading passage?
A. to show how telescopes work B. to explain the beliefs of two scientists
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C. to explain how life started on Earth D. to describe what life on other planets might look
like
Question 8: What would be a good title for the second paragraph?
A. The Age and Size of the Universe B. Earth: The Only Planet with Intelligent Life
C. Our Galaxy: The Milky Way D. Why Intelligent Life Might Exist
Question 9: Why was it harder to look for signs of intelligent life in in the universe in the
past?
A. Planets used to be farther apart. B. We did not have the right tools.
C. We could only see smaller planets from Earth. D. These lives might not exist then.
Question 10: According to Shostak, what might prevent beings from space visiting our
Earth
A. the great distance B. the radio signals
C. the unread messages D. our planet size
Question 11: In the last paragraph, what does "life forms" refer to?
A. planets B. radio signals C. intelligent beings D. messages
Question 12: Which of the following adjectives best describes the tone of the writer in this
passage?
A. pessimistic B. disbelieving C. hopeful D. critical
Choose the best answer to complete each of the following questions (3.0 pts).
Question 13: In some ways, I think life for the people in my country is…….. now than 100
years ago.
A. best B. more good C. the best D. better
Question 14: "What aspect of learning English do you find most difficult?", the examiner
asked Paul.
A. The examiner asked Paul what aspect of learning English you found most difficult.
B. The examiner asked Paul what aspect of learning English did you find most difficult.
C. The examiner asked Paul what aspect of learning English did he find most difficult.
D. The examiner asked Paul what aspect of learning English he found most difficult.
Question 15: Ninety percent of earthquakes occur around the Pacific Rim, _______ is
known as the "Ring of Fire".
A. who B. where C. whose D. which
Question 16: Nhat An was absent from class yesterday _______ she was sick all day long.
A. because B. however C. although D. therefore
Question 17: I'm really looking forward____________ my holiday with my family this
weekend.
A. to B. at C. in D. for
Question 18: "If you were able to take a space trip, what_____________to get ready for
the trip?
A. do you do B. would you do C. will you do D. had you done
16
Question 19: I'm feeling more_______________about the future now when I realize the
English exam is so easy.
A. Relaxing B. relaxation C. relaxed D. relax
Question 20. - Gia Han: "We're going to Galaxy Cinema to watch the Movie The Girl
from Yesterday next weekend."
- Minh Thu: "_________"
A. You're so beautiful! B. What's wrong?
C. Congratulations! D. Really?
Question 21: I really love Tien Giang province and I wish I______________more time to
get to know all about your beautiful hometown.
A. had B. have C. can have D. will have
Question 22: In the 18th century, jean cloth___________completely from cotton and
workers then loved wearing it a lot.
A. was making B. was made C. has made D. made
Question 23: We're going to see some old friends. We_____________for five years.
A. won't meet B. aren't meeting C. weren't meeting D. haven't met
Question 24: We were all hungry, so she suggested_____________dinner earlier than
usual.
A. having B. have C. to have D. had to have
II. PHẦN RIÊNG - TỰ CHỌN (4.0 pts)
Hướng dẫn phần riêng - tự chọn
- Thí sinh chi được chọn 1 trong 2 chương trình: A. CHƯƠNG TRÌNH HIỆN
HÀNH hoặc B. CHƯƠNG TRÌNH MỚI
- Thí sinh ghi rõ trên giấy làm bài rồi mới bắt đầu làm bài.
- Ví dụ: II. PHẦN RIÊNG – TỰ CHỌN: B. CHƯƠNG TRÌNH MỚI.
- Phần riêng – tự chọn sẽ không được chấm điểm nếu thí sinh làm cả 2 chương trình.
A. CHƯƠNG TRÌNH HIỆN HÀNH (4.0 pts)
EARTHQUAKES
Every year there are over 150,000 earthquakes around the world. Many are very small
and people don't notice them. Others, like the ones in Haiti in 2010. or Japan in 2011, cause
term damage and can (25)__________whole towns and cities.
Scientists study the Earth and know (26)________earthquakes are likely to happen.
Some countries have a much (27)__________risk than others. Japan has on average 1,500
earthquakes every year. In Britain there are 140. The earthquakes in Britain are usually
very small and don't cause damage to people's houses. In Japan there are much bigger
earthquakes, and many modern buildings are specially built (28)__________they don't get
damaged.
17
One biggest problem with earthquakes is that we don't know when they are going to
happen. Scientists can't (29)___________us the date or the time. If we could predict
earthquakes, we could (30)_______for them and we could save lives by moving people away
from the earthquake area.
In the future things may be different. however. In the 1970s, scientists, noticed
something (31)___________about the behaviour of animals. In the winter of 1974 lots of
snakes woke up from their winter sleep and came out into the cold. Then there were
(32)________ earthquakes in the north of China. In January the following year, people
around the city of Haicheng noticed that lots of farm animals such as cows and horses were
nervous and refused to go into buildings at night. In February there was a large earthquake
in that area.
(Extracted from Solutions 2nd Pre-intermediate Testbook, Oxford University Press)
Question 25: A. forecast B. destroy C.prevent D. warn
Question 26: A. that B. whose C. what D. where
Question 27: A. deeper B. higher C. taller D. longer
Question 28: A. so that B. even though C. therefore D. because
Question 29: A. say B. ask C. tell D. talk
Question 30: A. save B. look C. prepare D. check
Question 31: A. interests B. interested C. Interesting D. interest
Question 32: A. a lot B. several C. any D. much
33. Would you like to take a adventure tour to the Arctic?
A B C D
34. Do you remember the day where we first met, darling?
A B C D
35. If I have a lot of money, I would buy a new car.
A B C D
36. English has borrowed many words who come from other languages.
A B C D
Questions 37-38: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions: (0.5 point)
37. Yuri Gagarin flew into space and then Neil Armstrong walked on the moon.
A. Neil Armstrong had walked on the moon before Yuri Gagarin flew into space.
B. Neil Armstrong had walked on the moon after Yuri Gagarin flew into space.
C. Yuri Gagarin flew into space before Neil Armstrong had walked on the moon.
D. Yuri Gagarin had flown into space before Neil Armstrong walked on the moon.
38. I met the girl in the library. I've told you about this girl.
A. I met the girl in the library where I’ve told you about.
B. I met the girl whom I’ve told you about in the library.
18
C. I met the girl about who I’ve told you about in the library.
D. I met the girl that I’ve told you about her in the library.
sentence that best completes each of the following questions: (0.5 point)
39. There’s a shop ________________ .
A. where you can buy English books and CDs. B. which you can buy English books
and CDs.
C. in which you can buy English books and CDs. D. A & C are correct
40. The girl_________________.
A. whose father is my English teacher is reasonably good in English
B. whom father is my English teacher is reasonably good at English
C. whose father is my English teacher is reasonably good at English
D. whom father is my English teacher is reasonably good in English
…………………………………………...HẾT…………………………………………
TEST 5
I. PHẦN CHUNG (bắt buộc): (6.0 points)
Question 1-2: Pick out the word that has the underlined syllable pronounced
differently from the others: (0.5 point)
1. A. beds B. groups C. jams D. skills
2. A. bulb B. cut C. put D. shut
Question 3-4: Pick out the word that has the main stressed syllable pronounced
differently from the others: (0.5 point)
3. A. climate B. language C. machine D. wonder
4. A. history B. interest C. museum D. uniform
Question 5-6: Pick out the word that is of the different topic (or part of speech) from
5. A. beef B. egg C. meat D. rice
6. A. tourist B. traveler C. villager D. visitor
Question 7-18: Pick out ONE best option to complete each of the following sentences:
(3.0 points)
7. I am very interested ______ mathematics.
A. at B. about C. in D. on
8. The people ______ called yesterday want to buy the house.
A. what B. who C. whom D. whose
9. Rowling wrote Harry Potter, ______ ?
A. did they B. didn’t they C. did she D. didn’t she
10. I ______ for them even if they ______ me twice my current salary.
19
A. will work – paid B. wouldn’t work – pay
C. work – will pay D. wouldn’t work – paid
11. We are glad ______ .
A. you to gain the scholarship B. that you gain the scholarship
C. that you to gain the scholarship D. to that you gain the scholarship
12. I wish I ______ a bit taller now so I can apply for the job.
A. am B. will be C. were D. had been
13. Paul Mauriat plays the piano. He is a ______ .
A. music B. musical C. musically D. musician
14. John: Excuse me?
Mary: ______
A. Yes? B. No. C. Yes, please. D. No, thanks.
15. She'll be coming tonight ______I don't know exactly when.
A. although B. because C. unless D. when
16. We stopped ______ bought some fruit.
A. and B. but C. or D. so
17. The electric light bulb ______ by Edison in 1879.
A. invented B. is invented C. was invented D. has invented
18. “I’ll take a cooking class before I go to college,” said Jack.
A. Jack said that before he goes to college he’ll take a cooking class.
B. Jack told that before he went to college he’d take a cooking class.
C. Jack said that I’d take a cooking class before I went to college.
D. Jack said that he’d take a cooking class before he went to college.
Question 19-24: Read the passage below then pick out ONE best option (A, B, C or D)
to complete each of the following sentences: (1.5 points)
Sydney was founded as a British colony in 1788. Sydney was the first everlasting European
settlement in Australia and today it is the country’s largest city area, with about 4 million
residents. Sydney is the seat of state government as the capital of New South Wales,
Australia’s most populous and economically important state. The city is an active cultural
center with a varied economy focused on service industries, tourism, manufacturing, and
international commerce. Its port is one of the leading centers of intercontinental trade in the
Asia-Pacific region. Sydney is located on Australia’s southeastern coast at Port Jackson, a
large, sheltered, deep-water inlet of the Tasman Sea.
Sydney is well-known for its Opera House. The Sydney Opera House is the centerpiece of
the city’s places for live performances of ballet, opera, and classical music. The Australian
Opera, Australian Ballet, and Sydney Dance companies regularly stage performances there.
Moreover, the place often hosts internationally touring performances. Sydney also has many
places for musical theater, drama, and popular music. The Sydney Theatre Company is one
20
of many successful theater companies in the city. Sydney is also home to the internationally
praised Australian Chamber Orchestra and Sydney Symphony Orchestra.
The cultural life of Sydney is exciting and varied, reflecting the multicultural nature of the
city. Many festivals, parades, and outdoor concerts cheer up the city streets in the summer
months. Annual events include the Sydney Festival in January and February, the Gay and
Lesbian Mardi Gras in March, the Royal Easter Show in April, and the multicultural festival
Carnivale in September and October. Sydney has also become world renowned for its street
parties and fireworks on New Year’s Eve and on Australia Day, celebrated on Sydney’s
founding date, January 26.
(Microsoft ® Encarta ® 2009. © 1993-2008 Microsoft Corporation. All rights reserved.)
19. According to the first paragraph, the following are true of Sydney EXCEPT ______
A. It was set up in the 18th century.
B. Europe had it as the first settlement in Australia.
C. Today it has a population of nearly 4 million people.
D. Now Sydney is the capital of Australia.
20. The word intercontinental in the first paragraph could be best replaced with ______
A. between continents B. into continents
C. out of continents D. within continents
21. According to the second paragraph, which of the following is TRUE of the Sydney
Opera House?
A. This building makes Sydney famous.
B. This place hosts live modern music programs.
C. Plays are not performed here.
D. International film festivals are held here.
22. In the last paragraph, the word ‘annual’ means ______ .
A. daily B. weekly C. monthly D. yearly
23. From the passage, it can be inferred that Sydney was established ______ .
A. in January, 1788 B. in April, 1789
C. in October, 1790 D. on New Year’s Eve, 1791
24. What is the best title for the passage?
A. Sydney in people’s views
B. History of Sydney
C. The Sydney Opera House
D. Sydney’s Cultural life
II. PHẦN RIÊNG (Tự chọn): (4.0 points)
(Thí sinh chọn 1 trong 2 chương trình: chương trình hiện hành hoặc chương trình mới. Ghi
rõ lên giấy làm bài rồi mới làm bài. Ví dụ: II. PHẦN RIÊNG (Tự chọn):
(4.0 points): CHƯƠNG TRÌNH MỚI. Lưu ý: Phần tự chọn sẽ không được chấm nếu thí
sinh làm cả 2 chương trình.)
21
A. CHƯƠNG TRÌNH HIỆN HÀNH:
1. Trắc nghiệm đọc hiểu:
Question 25-32: Pick out ONE best option (A, B, C or D) to fill in each numbered
blank, completing the meaning of the passage: (2.0 points)
Before the (25) __________ of newspapers, town criers would go through city streets
ringing a bell. They shouted the latest news as they were walking.
In Vietnam people love reading newspapers and magazines. The Tuoi Tre is one of the (26)
__________ newspapers and is widely read by young and old alike.
Thanks to television people can get the latest information and enjoy interesting programs in
an inexpensive and convenient way. Nowadays, viewers can watch a (27) __________ of
local and international programs on different channels.
The next stage in the development of television is interactive TV. Viewers are able to ask
questions about the show (28) __________ their remote controls.
The Internet has (29) __________ developed and become part of our everyday life. People
find the Internet useful. People use the Internet for many purposes. Some access the Internet
to look for information, some surf the web for entertainment and (30) __________ rely on
the Internet as a means of education.
The mass media plays an important (31) __________ in collecting and passing on
information. The information may be local, national or international. It can cover a wide
range of topics, from news and weather to entertainment. News stories contain information
about politics, the economy and such international affairs (32) __________ wars or natural
disasters.
(Adapted from English 9, P.40, Giao duc Publishing House)
25. A. invent B. inventor C. invention D. inventory

26. A. most popular B. more popular C. least popular D. less popular
27. A. amount B. deal C. plenty D. variety
28. A. and use B. by using C. to use D. of using
29. A. carefully B. immediately C. fortunately D. increasingly
30. A. other B. others C. the other D. another
31. A. duty B. role C. task D. work
32. A. as B. because of C. in spite of D. so that
33. She can learn to become a good cook if she try hard.
22
A B C D
34. If you finish your English homework, you could watch TV
A B C D
35. Breakfast is the first meal of the day, so it’s very important eat nutritious thing
A B C D
36. Don’t worry about the cost. Our prices are very expensive.
A B C D
the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions: (0.5 point)
37. Hurry up or you can’t catch the bus
A. If you hurry up, you can’t catch the bus
B. If you don’t hurry up, you can catch the bus
C. If you don’t hurry up, you can’t catch the bus
D. If you hurry up, you could catch the bus
38. Unless there is covid-19, we will go on a trip to Korea.
A. If there is covid-19, we will go on a trip to Korea.
B. If there isn’t covid-19, we will go on a trip to Korea.
C. If there wasn’t covid-19, we would go on a trip to Korea.
D. If there weren’t covid-19, we would go on a trip to Korea
sentence that best completes each of the following questions: (0.5 point)
39. If he wants ________________.
A. to eat the vegetables raw, he must wash them carefully
B. eating the vegetables raw, he must wash them carefully
C. to eat the vegetables raw, he would wash them carefully
D. eating the vegetables raw, he would wash them carefully
40. If I were you, I _________________.
A. will spend more time improving my pronunciation.
B. would spend more time to improve my pronunciation.
C. would spend more time improving my pronunciation.
D. will spend more time to improve my pronunciation.
----------------------------------------------------- HẾT -----------------------------------------------
TEST 6
Questions 1-2: Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others
(0.5 pt)
1. A. rocket B. dialect C. telescope D. tender
2. A. operate B. grate C. variety D. application
Questions 3-4:Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others (0.5
pt)
3. A. mistake B. accent C. shallot D. attach
4. A. astronomy B. affordable C. habitable D. simplicity
23
Questions 5- 6: Choose the word that is of different topic or part of speech from the others ( 0.5 pt)
5. A. peel B. fluent C. steam D. garnish
6. A. tour B. holiday C. universe D. trip
Questions 7-18: Choose ONE best option (A, B, C or D) to complete the sentences (3.0 pts)
7. You should ………the beef for an hour if you want your grandparents to have it.
A. stew B. spread C. roast D. whisk
8. With a ……….. you can have a great experience watching the stars.
A. rocket B. satellite C. meteorite D. telescope
9. We read about an astronaut ……….. travelled into space in 1961.
A. who B. which C. whose D. whom
10. The motorway was blocked because there had been a …………..
A. pile-up B. mix-up C. touchdown D. swimming pool
11.My father ……….. already ………the dinner when we came home.
A. has…cooked B. had…cooked C. did…cook D. was … cooking
12. Slice a ………. of garlic, then add some honey.
A. loaf B. pinch C. bunch D. clove
13. A(n) ……………. is a person who supports the family with the money he/she earns.
A. breadwinner B. astronaut C. caver D. tour guide
14. Neil Armstrong landed on …………. moon in 1969.
A. an B. a C. the D. Φ
15. On the ISS astronauts have to …………. themselves so they don’t float around.
A. orbit B. attach C. experience D. train
16. Because of the bad weather, there were no ……….. from the airport this morning.
A. stopovers B. check-outs C. take-offs D. jet lags
17. Have you made ……….. your mind about where to go on holiday?
A. of B. in C. up D. from
18. If she ………. English so often, her English wouldn’t be so rusty.
A. doesn’t use B. didn’t use C. uses D. used
Questions 19-26: Choose ONE best option (A, B, C or D) to fill in each of the numbered blanks,
completing the meaning of the passage (2.0 pts)
Teacher: Welcome to English Club. Today, I’m going to do a quick quiz to check your knowledge of
the English…(19)….. Question one: Is English the language …(20)… is spoken as a first
language by most people in the world?
Duong: Of course, it is.
Teacher: Incorrect. Chinese is. Question two: Does English have the …(21)… vocabulary?
Vy: Yes, with approximately 500,000 words and 300,000 technical terms.
Teacher: Yes, spot on! This is due to the …(22)… of the English language. English has …(23)…
words from many other languages.
Duong: Yeah, if there weren’t so many words, it …(24)… be easier for us to master it.
Teacher: Ha ha … But the …(25)… of form makes English easy to learn. Many English words have been
simplified over the centuries. Question three: Who can tell me at least three varieties
…(26)… English?
Mai: American English, Australian English and …. er, yes, Indian English.
19. A. language B. speaking country C. people D. class
20. A. which B. who C. whom D. X
21. A. fastest B. largest C. cheapest D. easiest
22. A. height B. length C. fluency D. openness
24
23. A. imitatedB. translated C. borrowed D. guessed
24. A. can B. would C. will D. should
25. A. simple B. simply C. simplicity D. simplify
26. A. with B. of C. about D. in
Questions 27-32: Read the passage then pick out ONE best option (A, B, C or D) to answer each
question (1.5 pts)
In November 2014, Viet Nam’s first astronaut Pham Tuan and Christer Fuglesang, Sweden’s first
astronaut, shared their space mission memories in a meeting in Ho Chi Minh City.
Talking to Tuoi Tre newspaper, the two astronauts said they enjoyed floating around in the
weightless environment. ‘From above, Earth didn’t look as big as we had thought,’ Fuglesang, who first
flew into space in 2006, recalled. ‘No boundaries on Earth can be seen from space,’ he added. ‘I think we
should cooperate to take care of our planet like astronauts help each other in space.’
Pham Tuan described his first meal on Earth after the trip as ‘very delicious’. He said it was a great
feeling since astronauts do not have fresh food in space. He recounted how his family had helped him. ‘We
felt very lonely travelling in space, so hearing the voices of our relatives brought a lot of happiness to us.’
Both astronauts agreed that to realise a dream needs effort, but the chance to fly to space is equal
for everyone, whether they are from Viet Nam, Sweden, or any other country. Fuglesang said teamwork and
social skills are very important for an astronaut as the job requires people to work harmoniously together.
He also suggested people learn more foreign languages to better collaborate with their teammates.
27. The place where Pham Tuan and Fuglesang met each other in 2014 was in ……………..
A. Viet Nam B. Sweden C. space D. a spacecraft
28. When looking at Earth from space, Fuglesang found that …………….
A. he wasn’t floating in the weightless environment.
B. every boundary on Earth can be seen from space.
C. Earth didn’t look as big as he had thought.
D. we shouldn’t cooperate to take care of our planet.
29. Pham Tuan described his first meal on Earth after the trip as “very delicious”.
A. terrible B. affordable C. tasty D. varied
30. To make Pham Tuan happy when he was in space, his family ……….
A. cooked delicious meals for him.
B. talked to him.
C. brought him fresh food.
D. shared his space mission memories with other people.
31. What do the two astronauts think about the chance to fly into space?_They think……..
A. it’s equal for everyone.
B. everyone needs to have a dream.
C. astronauts should help each other in space.
D. astronauts must come from Vietnam or Sweden.
32. The skills which Fuglesang thinks are important for an astronaut are………………..
A. teamwork B. social skills C. foreign languages D. All are correct.
Questions 33-34: Mark the letter (A, B, C or D) that is closest in meaning to the sentences (0.5 pt)
33. Last year I visited a small town. They filmed The Little Girl there.
A. Last year I visited a small town which they filmed The Little Girl.
B. Last year I visited a small town in which they filmed The Little Girl there.
C. Last year I visited a small town where they filmed The Little Girl.
D. Last year I visited a small town where they filmed The Little Girl there.
34. I learned a few words of English on holiday.
25
A. I picked up a few words of English on my holiday.
B. I was fluent in English thanks to my holiday in England.
C. A few words of English were learned by my holiday.
D. I was rusty in learning English on my holiday.
Questions 35-36: Choose the correct option among A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences:
(0.5 pt)
35. I don’t feel confident at interviews because my English is not very good.
I would be confident at interviews if ………………
A. my English is good. B. my English isn’t good.
C. my English wasn’t good. D. my English were good.
36. Astronomy is ……
A. the science that studies the universe and its objects such as the moon, the sun, planets, and stars.
B. a person who has been trained to work in space.
C. the state of weightlessness.
D. the height of something above the sea.
Questions 37-40: Choose the underlined part that needs correcting (1.0 pt)
37. Could we meet in the café when we saw each other last time?
A B C D
38. If you ate healthy food tonight, you can have a bar of chocolate tomorrow.
A B C D
39. Look! This head of grapes is so delicious.
A B C D
40. Before I turned ten, I had been already collected lots of books about the universe.
A B C D
……………………………………………………. HẾT ……………………………………………………
TEST 7
Questions 1-12: Pick out ONE best option to complete each of the following sentences: (3.0 points)
1. Many English words have been _______ over the centuries to make it easy to learn.
A. simplify B. simple C. simplified D. simplicity
2. Mike comes from a city is located in the southern part of England.
A. where B. who C. when D. that
3. Does it take long time to get to _______ city centre?
A. the – a B. a – a C. a – the D. the – the
4. When you place food over boiling water to cook, it means you ______ it.
A. roast B. steam C. fry D. grill
5. Nam: What do we need to make a pizza?
Ba: Oh, that’s a pizza base, some cheese, some bacon, an ____, and an apple.
A. pork B. chicken C. eggs D. onion
6. At this time it may not be easy to find accommodation with_______ prices.
A. affordable B. reasonable C. expensive D. Both A and B
7. The recipe says you should add a _______ of celery to the soup.
A. head B. stick C. pinch D. tablespoon
8. Every time my sister flies to America, she suffers from ________ for a few days.
A. jet lag B. pile-up C. touchdown D. mix-up
9. They could understand our conversation if they some English.
A. knew B. would know C. will know D. know
26
10. Nam: I can wash the spring onions if you like, Mom.
Mom: .
A. Right B. No, you can’t C. Yes, I do D. Please do
11. If you eat a lot of fruit, you health problems.
A. will never have B. would have C. had D. have
12. My brother is going on a business _______ to Nha Trang next Thursday.
A. tour B. journey C. trip D. traveling
Questions 13-14: Pick out the word that has the underlined syllable pronounced differently from the
others: (0.5 point)
13. A. delicious B. lemon C. pepper D. vegetable
14. A. simmer B. garnish C. whisk D. slice
Questions 15-16: Pick out the word that is of the different topic (or part of speech) from the others:
(0.5 point)
15. A. pinch B. bunch C. clove D. heading
16. A. ginger B. garlic C. pepper D. bacon
Questions 17-18: Pick out the word that has the main stressed syllable pronounced differently from
17. A. safari B. breathtaking C. traveller D. sightseeing
18. A. excursion B. pyramid C. imperial D. vacation
Questions 19-26: Pick out ONE best option (A, B, C or D) to fill in each numbered blank, completing
the meaning of the passage: (2.0 points)
English has become a global language thanks to its establishment as a mother (19) …… in all continents of
the world. The English language mainly owes its dominant status in the world to two factors. The first is the
export of the language, which began in the 17th century, with the first settlement in North America. The
(20) …… was the great growth of population in the United States, which was assisted by massive
immigration in the 19th and 20th centuries.
Nowadays, more and (21) …… people around the world are learning English as a second language and the
way that they study it is changing. In some countries, English (22) …… schools have been built to create
all-English environments for English learners. In these ‘English communities’, learners do all their school
subjects and everyday activities, such as ordering food at the canteen, (23) …… English.
However, these new English speakers are not only learning the English language but they are (24) ……
changing it. There are hundreds of types of English in the world today, such as ‘Singlish’, a mix of English,
Malay, Mandarin, etc or ‘Hinglish’, the Indian mix of English and Hindi. New words are being (25) ……
every day all over the world due to the free admissions of words from other languages and the easy creation
of (26) …… and derivatives.
19. A. tongue B. land C. nation D. language
20. A. second B. others C. another D. one
21. A. less B. more C. few D. a lot
22. A. teaching B. immersion C. primary D. learning
23. A. by B. at C. in D. from
24. A. only B. still C. also D. often
25. A. make B. form C. create D. invented
26. A. addition B. found C. match D. compounds
Questions 27-32: Read the passage below then pick out ONE best option (A, B, C or D): (1.5 points)
Son Doong Cave has become more famous after the American Broadcasting Company (ABC)
aired a live programme featuring its magnificence on ‘Good Morning America’ in May 2015.
27
Located in Quang Binh Province, Son Doong Cave was discovered by a local man named Ho
Khanh in 1991, and became known internationally in 2009 thanks to British cavers, led by Howard
Limbert. The cave was formed about 2 to 5 million years ago by river water eroding away the limestone
underneath the mountain. It contains some of the tallest known stalagmites in the world - up to 70 metres
tall. The cave is more than 200 metres wide, 150 metres high, and nearly 9 kilometres long, with caverns
big enough to fit an entire street inside them. Son Doong Cave is recognised as the largest cave in the
world by BCRA (British Cave Research Association) and selected as one of the most beautiful on earth by
the BBC (British Broadcasting Corporation).
In August 2013, the first tourist group explored the cave on a guided tour. Permits are now required
to access the cave and are made available on a limited basis. Only 500 permits were issued for the 2015
season, which runs from February to August. After August, heavy rains cause river levels to rise and make
the cave largely inaccessible.
27. What is the best title for the passage?

A. Son Doong, the largest cave in the world
B. Son Doong, its magnificence in the morning
C. Son Doong Cave and British Cave Research Association
D. Quang Binh Province and its beautiful caves
28. When was Son Doong Cave discovered?
A. in 2009 B. in 1991 C. in 2015 D. in 2013
29. How long is the cave?
A. 70 metres. B. Nearly 9 kilometres.
C. 200 metres. D. About 2 to 5 million years ago.
30. When can tourists explore the cave?
A. After August . B. In August 2013.
C. In 2015. D. From February to August.
31. The word ‘inaccessible’ in the passage probably means ______.
A. should not be accessed B. need to be careful
C. may be flooded D. cannot be reached
32. We can infer from the passage that ______.
A. there is a street inside Son Doong Cave
B. the cave is always covered with rain water
C. few tourists want to come to the cave
D. tourists need permission to explore the cave
33. This is the IELTS practice test book which I have told you about it.
A B C D
34. We couldn't speak fluent English if we don't use it in everyday conversations.
A B C D
35. Remember not to skip the breakfast because it’s the most important meal.
A B C D
36. I don't know the reason when he went to Australia instead of Britain to study English.
A B C D
37. The TV programme I watched last night ………………………….
28
A. it was very long
B. it was about the history of Asian countries
C. that discussed the tourism industry in Viet Nam
D. was very interesting
38. I moved to a new school …………………….…..
A. you can buy English books and CDs
B. they come from other countries
C. where English is taught by native speakers
D. and we are having an English lesson this evening
Questions 39-40: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is
closest in meaning to each of the following questions: (0.5 point)
39. You don't have an English certificate, so you cannot enroll in this course.
A. You can enroll in this course if you had an English certificate.
B. You could enroll in this course if you had an English certificate.
C. If you have an English certificate, you could enroll in this course.
D. If you hadn’t an English certificate, you couldn’t enroll in this course.
40. My sister hasn’t decided where to go on holiday.
A. My sister doesn’t mind about where to go on holiday.
B. My sister hasn’t made up her mind about where to go on holiday.
C. My sister hasn’t a decision about where to go on holiday.
D. My sister hasn’t minded about where to go on holiday.
………………………………………………….. HẾT ……………………………………..…….

TEST 8
I. Choose the word whose underline part is pronounced differently from the others (0,5pt)
1. A. land B. galaxy C. attach D. astronaut
2. A. telescope B. microgravity C. cooperate D. rocket
II. Choose the word which is different from the others (0,5pt)
1. A. sector B. vision C. content D. tailor
2. A. require B. decide C. burden D. provide
III. Choose the word that has the different topic ( or part of speech ) from the others ( 0,5pt)
1. A. important B. applicant C. attendant D. participant
2. A. evaluator B. facilitator C. sector D. provider
IV. Choose the best option to complete the sentences (3,5pt)
7. Have you heard of Kepler- 186f? It’s a planet ………………. is similar in size to Earth.
A. who B. where C. when D. which
8. On the ISS astronauts have to …………. themselves so they don’t float around.
A. explore B. attach C. float D. train
9. ……….. is the closest planet to the Sun .
A. Mars B. Venus C. Jupiter D. Mercury
10. Have you ever …………… weightlessness?
A. trained B. experienced C. orbited D. launched
11. Would like …………. To become an astronaut?
A. being trained B. to be trained C. be trained D. are trained
12. With a ………….. you can have a great experience watching the stars.
A. spaceship B. telescope C. meteorite D. rocket
29
13. A/An ………….. is a vehicle, with people inside, used for travel in space.
A. rocket B. spacecraft C. satellite D. aircraft
14. ………………. Is a program of space flight.
A. Mission B. Astronomy C. Altitude D. Training
15. What……you……. if you took a space trip?
A. will- bring B. would – brought C. would – bring D. will- brought
16. In the near future, paper books …………. with e-books.
A. will replace B. will be replacing C. will be replaced D. will replaced
17. The bus 6.30, ……………… I often take to school, was late today.
A. that B. whose C. which D. why
18. Every school has to ………… how well their students are doing .
A. evaluate B. be evaluated C. evaluator D. evaluation
!9. This syllabus is quite theoretical. I want to see something more ………..
A. interesting B hands-on C. practice D. virtual
20. This is lovely place is called Nowy Swiat, ……….. means New World.
A who B. which C. where D. that
V. Read the passage carefully and choose the best option: ( 1 pt )
In November 2014, Viet Nam’s first astronaut Pham Tuan and Christer Fuglesang, Sweden’s first
astronaut, shared their space mission memories in a meeting in Ho Chi Minh City.
Talking to Tuoi Tre newspaper, the two astronauts said they enjoyed floating around in the
weightless environment. ‘From above, Earth didn’t look as big as we had thought,’ Fuglesang, who first
flew into space in 2006, recalled. ‘No boundaries on Earth can be seen from space,’ he added. ‘I
think we should cooperate to take care of our planet like astronauts help each other in space.’
Pham Tuan described his first meal on Earth after the trip as ‘very delicious’. He said it was a great feeling
since astronauts do not have fresh food in space. He recounted how his family had helped him, ‘We felt
very lonely travelling in space, so hearing the voices of our relatives brought a lot of happiness to
us.’
Both astronauts agreed that to realise a dream needs effort, but the chance to fly to space is equal
for everyone, whether they are from Viet Nam, Sweden, or any other country. Fuglesang said teamwork
and social skills are very important for an astronaut as the job requires people to work harmoniously
together. He also suggested people learn more foreign languages to better collaborate with their
teammates.
21. Pham Tuan and Fuglesang first flew into space in November, 2014.
A. True B. False
22. In Pham Tuan’s opinion, from outer space, Earth did not look as big as we thought.
A. True B. False
23. Pham Tuan did not enjoy the food aboard the spacecraft because ……………
A. It was delicious. B. It was expensive C. It was great. D. It was not fresh.
24. Both Pham Tuan and Fuglesang had the same idea that……………….
A. Only people from Vietnam and Sweden can fly to space.
B. People who need efforts can fly to space.
C. Everyone can fly to space.
D. Only wealthy people can fly to space.
VI. Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to complete the passage:
30
Developing countries have …(25)…..enormous changes in their societies, and the most fascinating
one, no doubt, is the ever increasing involvement of women in …(26)…and employment. More and more
women in these countries …(27)…..university, getting higher education degrees, and going out to work.
They are no longer content with …(28)….at home, in the sole role of a housewife. This …(29)…change
will greatly aﬀect the socio-economic picture of these countries.
With more women going out to work, the financial burden of the male ‘breadwinners’ in the family will
….(30)….. However, along with this, they will no longer be the dominant figures, the sole decision-makers,
and will learn …(31)…..the housework. This change will certainly be advantageous for children. They will
get more aﬀection and care from their fathers. They will also learn to be more …(32)…since both parents
will work.
25. A .witnesses B. to witness C. been witnessed D. witnessed
26. A. leisure B. education C. tourism D. healthy
27. A. are entering B. will be entering C. entered D. had entered
28. A. stay B. to stay C. staying D. stayed
29. A. dramatic B. unusual C. financial D. virtual
30. A. reduce B. to be reduce C. be ruducing D. be reduce
31. A. to make B. to share C. to apply D. independently
32. A. dependent B. dependently C. independent D. independently
VII. Choose the sentence that has the closest meaning with the given one
33. Many tourists visit Liverpool. Liverpool is the home of The Beatles.
A. Many tourists visit Liverpool, that is the home of The Beatles.
B. Many tourists visit Liverpool, which is the home of The Beatles.
C. Many tourists visit Liverpool, where is the home of The Beatles.
D. Many tourists visit Liverpool, which it is the home of The Beatles.
34. They will build more flyovers to reduce traffic in the city.
A. More flyovers will build to reduce traffic in the city.
B. More flyovers will be build to reduce traffic in the city.
C. More flyovers will be built to reduce traffic in the city.
D. More flyovers will be building to reduce traffic in the city.
35. In the future, fathers may be externally employed or stay at home to do the housework.
A. In the future, fathers may work full-time or stay at home to do the housework.
B. In the future, fathers may go out to work or stay at home to do the housework.
C. In the future, fathers may do extra work or stay at home to do the house work.
D. In the future, fathers may be freely employed or stay at home to do the housework.
36. I learned a few words of English on holidays.
A. I picked up a few words of English on holidays.
B. I looked up a few words of English on holidays.
C. I got up a few words of English on holidays.
D. I took up a few words of English on holidays.
VIII. Choose the words or phrases that are not correct in the standard English (1,0pt).
37. Viet Nam which I was born is a beautiful country in the southeast of Asia.
A B C D
38. If she could take a space trip, she has to be in good physical conditions.
A B C D
39. They cancelled the football match therefore the bad weather
A B C D
40. Before 1990, people went around by simple transports or on foot.
31
A B C D
……………………………………………….... HẾT ………………………………………….….

TEST 9
Question 1-2: Choose the word that is pronounced differently from the others (0.5pt)
1. A. accent B. factor C. anniversary D. variety
2. A. explore B. checkout C. tender D. flexible
Question 3-4: Choose the word whose main stress is placed differently from the others: (0.5pt)
3. A. immersion B. dominance C. dialect D. stimulate
4. A. official B. exotic C. imperial D. versatile
Question 5-6: Choose the word that doesn’t belong in each list: (0.5pt)
5. A. chop B. curry C. dip D. slice
6. A. the UK B. the USA C. the Thames D. the Netherland
Question 7-18: Pick out ONE best option (A, B, C, or D) to complete each sentence: (3pts)
7. Perhaps the three most popular ice cream _____ are vanilla, chocolate and strawberry.
A. offers B. flavours C. brands D. ingredients
8. The girl ______ father is my English teacher is reasonably good at English.
A. whose B. who C. which D. whom
9. Is there ____ apple juice in the fridge, Quang?
A. any B. some C. an D. a
10. Can I have a pizza, a dozen eggs and a ____ of lemonade, please?
A. piece B. bottle C. tub D. jar
11. What do you think of public transport in Ha Noi?
A. Ø – Ø B. a – a C. a – Ø D. the – Ø
12. It’s an important part of your cultural identity to keep your in speaking English.
A. vocabulary B. skill C. accent D. language
13. Are you someone who can read and write well in English but cannot speak ______?
A. fluency B. a fluency C. fluent D. fluently
14. Mike comes from a city is located in the southern part of England.
A. when B. whom C. which D. who
15. Reading is the best way to your vocabulary in any language.
A. raise B. improve C. put up D. increase
16. You usually vegetables like onion. It means that you cut them into many small pieces.
A. grate B. chop C. sprinkle D. whisk
17. If she comes to England, it will be a good ______ for her to improve her English.
A. opportunity B. advantage C. experience D. possibility
18. Children always want to know the reason things are as they are.
A. which B. who C. whom D. why
Question 19-26: Pick out ONE best option (A, B, C or D) to complete the following passage: (2pts)
English has become a global language thanks (19) _________ its establishment as a mother tongue in all
continents of the world. The English language mainly owes its dominant status in the world to (20)
________factors. The first is the export of the language, (21) ________ began in the 17th century, with (22)
________ first settlement in North America. The second was the great growth of population in the United
States, which was assisted by massive (23) ________ in the 19th and 20th centuries. Nowadays, (24) ________
people around the world are learning English as a second language and the way that they study it is changing.
In some countries, English immersion schools (25) ________ to create all-English environments for English
learners. In these ‘English communities', learners do all their school subjects and everyday activities, such as
(26) ________ food at the canteen, in English.
19. A. in B. as C. for D. to
32
20. A. two B. three C. four D. five
21. A. when B. which C. where D. who
22. A. a B. the C. an D. any
23. A. immigrant B. immigrate C. immigration D. immigrating
24. A. many and many B. many and more C. more and much D. more and more
25. A. has been built B. have built C. have been built D. built
26. A. ordering B. giving C. asking D. geting
Question 27-32: Read the text then pick out ONE best option (A, B, C or D) to answer each question:
(1.5pts)
Son Doong Cave has become more famous after the American Broadcasting Company (ABC) aired a
live programme featuring its magnificence on “Good Morning America” in May 2015.
Located in Quang Binh Province, Son Doong Cave was discovereed by a local man named Ho Khanh
in 1991, and became known internationally in 2009 thanks to British cavers, led by Howard Limbert. The cave
was formed about 2 to 5 million years ago by river water eroding away the limestone underneath the mountain.
It contains some of the tallest known stalagmites in the world-up to 70 metres tall. The cave is more than 200
metres wide, 150 metres high, and nearly 9 kilometres long, with caverns big enough to fit an entire street
inside them. Son Doong Cave is recognised as the largest cave in the world by BCRA (British Cave Research
Association) and selected as one of the most beautiful on earth by the BBC (British Broadcasting Corporation).
In August 2013, the first tourist group explored the cave on a guided tour. Permits are now required to
access the cave and are made available on a limited basis. Only 500 permits were issued for the 2015 season,
which runs from February to August. After August, heavy rains cause river levels to rise and make the cave
largely inaccessible.
27. Who discovered Son Doong Cave? - It was discovered by _________.
A. the American Broadcasting Company (ABC) B. a local man named Ho Khanh
C. one of British cavers Howard Limbert D. British Cave Research Association (BCRA)
28. Son Doong Cave was first explored by a group of tourists in .
A. 1991 B. 2013 C. 2015 D. 2009
29. The word ‘inaccessible’ in the passage probably means __________.
A. should not be accessed B. need to be careful
C. cannot be reached D. may be flooded
30. Thanks to _____, Son Doong Cave became known internationally.
A. ABC B. BCRA C. BBC D. British cavers
31. From the passage, we know that ___________.
A. tourists need permission to explore the cave. B. the cave is always covered with rain water
C. few tourists want to come to the cave D. there is a street inside Son Doong Cave
32. Which sentence is Not True?
A. Son Doong Cave is in Quang Binh Province.
B. It was formed about 2 to 5 thousand years ago.
C. It is recognised as the largest caves in the world.
D. It is one of the most beautiful cave on earth.
Question 33-36: Choose the underlined part A, B, C, or D that needs correcting: (1pt)
33. Don’t put too much garlic in the salad; two bunches are enough.
A B C D
34. I don’t like eat out because it isn’t easy to find a restaurant which has good food and service.
A B C D
35. The Tuoi Tre is a daily newspaper that is widely read by both teenagers with adults.
A B C D
36. My friend George, whom arrived late, was not permitted to enter the class.
A B C D
33
Question 37-38: Choose the option (A, B, C, or D) that best completes each of the following questions:
(0.5pt)
37. India is the country ___________ .
A. where he spent the early years of his life. B. in which he spent the early years of his life.
C. which he spent the early years of his life. D. Both A and B are correct.
38. If Lan had time, __________ .
A. she read many English books. B. she will read many English books.
C. she reads many English books. D. she would read many English books.
Question 39-40: Choose the sentence (A, B, C, or D) that is closest in meaning to the previous one:(0.5pt)
39. His father gave him a new bike on his birthday.
A. His father gave him a new bike as a birthday present.
B. He bought a new bike from his father on his birthday.
C. His father lent him a new bike on his birthday.
D. He got him a new bike for his father on his birthday.
40. When did you start learning English?
A. How long have you been learnt English? B. How long is it since you started learning English?
C. How much time did you learning English? D. A and B are correct
………………………………………………….HẾT ……………………………………………
TEST 10
Part 1
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions from 1 to 2
Question 1:
A. recipes B. prawns C.salads D.ingredients
Question 2:
A. challenged B. reduced C. performed D. employed
Part2
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions from 3 to 4
Question 3:
A. unacceptable B. individual C. characteristic D. irresponsible
Question 4:
A. tailor B. vision C demand D.figure
Part 3
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is of the topic or
part of speech different from the other three in each of the following questions from 5 to 6
Question 5:
A. spacecraft B. satellite C. museum D. rocket
Question 6:
A. reading B. shopping C. speaking D. listening
Part 4
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions from 7 to 18
Question 7: It is predicted that human will fly to Mars……………..a discovery mission
34
A. For B. under C. with D. on
Question 8: Microgravity is the condition……….people or objects appear to be weightless
A. which B. where C. whose D. in which
Question 9: ………water doesn’t flow in a zero- gravity environment, the astronauts cannot wash their
hands under a faucet
A. When B. Although C. Since D. If
Question 10: Mars might have been ……….. between 3.8 and 3.1 billion years ago
A. habitat B. habitual C. habitable D. habitation
Question 11: The man sitting next to me on the plane……….very nervous because he……..before
A. was- never flew B. had been- didn’t fly
C. had been- hadn’t flown D. was- had never flown
Question 12: Edwin Hubble was the astronomer for……….the Hubble Space telescope is named
A. that B. which C. Whom D. who
Question 13: I ‘m very careful about what I eat so it’s only…………………I eat fast food
A. over the moon B. once in a blue moon C. out of this world D. the sky’s the limit
Question 14: Education system changes will………… over the next few years
A. take control B. take time C. take place D. take part
Question 15: “ Do you think we will travel to Mars in 15 years?”
“……………..But there’s positive signs”
A. sounds intereseting! B. I am not so sure
C . It’s wonderful D. Yes, Why not?
Question 16: Young women today have jobs, so they have no longer economically
dependent………….thrir husbands
A. in B. from C. with D. On
Question 17: There have been no manned mission to the moon’s surface………..1972
A. in B. since C. for D. from
Question 18: There are now countless ………… orbiting the earth for telecommunications, and other
purposes
A. satellites B. rockets C. Telescopes D. spacecrafts
Part 5
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions 19 to 24
The education system of the 21st century has changed radically with the intergration of the
technology in every sector. At the same time. The students are more matured than the previous time. Now
, in the twenty-first century education depend on Thinking Skills, Interpersonal Skills, Information Media,
Technological Skills as well as Life Skliis. Especially, the education of the present time emphasizes on life
and career skills. Now there has no value for rote learning. In general, It needs to meet the industry need.
To clarify, the teaching will be effective when a student can use the lesson outside of the classroom
For changing the globalizing world, the role of the teachers is essential to inprove the sustainable
education. At the same time, inspiring and guiding the students in increasing employability skills with the
digital tools is the prerequisite for a teacher. Thus a teacher in the twenty-first century will be a digital
teacher. Teachers are not the facilitator for learning of the students only, and now they are responsible for
training the students foe increasing employabilaty skills, expanding the mind, growing digital citizenship,
Citical thinking, and creativity as well as sustainable learning. Thus, the winning of the students is the
win of the teachers
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With the passage of the time and intergration of technology in every sector, the teacher’s role has
changed a lot. They need to enrich some skills to develop their students. Otherwise, the students will not
get the lesson, and it will increase the rate of educated unemployed in the digital era
Question 19: What is the topic of the passage?
A. The impact of teachers on student achievement
B. The decline of traditional educational system
C. The role of education in the 21st century
D. The changing role of teachers in 21st century schooling
Question 20: According to passage, the teachers of 21st century………..
A. can take their lessons outside of the classroom
B. must help their students develop employability skills.
C. need to find ways to improve digital citizenship skills
D. should pay more attention to new digital tools
Question 21: What is the rote learning?
A. An educational method that centers on big-picture ideas
B. A collaborative learning approach based on group work
C. A teaching approach based on practical activities
D. A memorization technique based on repetition
Question 22: The word “it” in the first paragraph refers to………….
A. rote learning B. technology C. education D. teaching
Question 23: According to the first passage, technology in the 21 century………..
st
A. has transformed education B. enhances students’ perfomance

C. is making students more matured D. has changed life and career skills
Question 24: The phrase “critical thinking” in the second paragraph means..................
A. the analysis and evaluation of an issue to form a judgment
B. the ability to think about things that are not actually present
C. a method of solving problems by using your imagination
D. a thought without actual study of the fact
Part 6
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 32
The International Space Station ( ISS) is a large spacecraft which was launched in 1998. It orbits the
earth and is the place where astronauts live and conduct research in a microgravity(25)…..
Below is about a day in the life of an astronaut abroad the International Space Station
Astronauts sleep in sleeping bags. The microgravity makes them (26)…..They have to attach themselves
so they don’t float around
Hair is washed with a “rinseless” shampoo that does not need water. For toothbrushing, a small
(27)…..of water is used with toothpaste and then swallowed
The crew spend their day doing science experiments. They also carry out checks for the maintenance of
the station. The Mission Control Center on Earth (28)…..their operations
The astronauts eat various foods(29)…..fruits, nuts, chicken, beef, seafood, brownies, salt and pepper
(in liquid form), etc. Drinks include coffee, tea, and fruit juice (all packaged). Foods can be heated up or
keep cool with special machines
A popular pastime while orbiting Earth is(30)…..looking out of the windows to admire its beauty. In
their free time, astronauts exercise, watch movies, play music, read books, play cards, and talk to their
families.
36
How are astronauts trained? Anyone can apply to train as an astronaut as long as they have a bachelor’s
degree in science, mathematics or engineering, experience as a jet pilot, and are(31)…..If they get accepted,
there are several phases of training. The first phase requires them to pass a swimming test in a flight suit.
They take parabolic flights that produce weightlessness. They also learn about various spaceship systems.
In the second phase, they are trained to operate spacecraft systems and deal with emergencies. The training
often(32)…..in a water tank laboratory so that trainees become familiar with crew activities in simulated
microgravity in order to perform spacewalks
Question 25:
A. environment B. sky C. area D. society
Question 26:
A. weighty B. weight C. weightless D. overweight
Question 27:
A. number B. group C. sum D. amount
Question 28:
A. prevents B. warns C. avoids D. supports
Question 29:
A. because of B. such as C. as for D. in spite of
Question 30:
A. simpler B. simply C. simplicity D. simple
Question 31:
A. in good health B. in good mood C. in ill health D. in bad shape
Question 32:
A. look after B. takes place C. arrives at D. cares for
Part 7
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions from 33 to 36
Question 33: What buildings are being demolish to make way for the development?
A buildings. B. being demolish C. for D. development
Question 34: Martin was chosen because she is a good administrator who gets along for
everyone busy schedules
A. was chosen B. administrator C. who D. for
Question 35: Last year, 16% of the EU population (75 million people people) suffered with
material and social deprivation
A. million B. deprivation C. with D. of
Question 36: In terms of GDP rankings, New York is the most second wealthiest city in the
World
A terms. B. rankings C. most second D. wealthiest
Part 8
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions from 37 to 38
Question 37: We went to the beach because it was a beautiful day
A. It was such an beautiful day that we went to the beach
B. It was such a beautiful day that we went to the beach.
C. It was such a beautiful that we went to the beach
D. It was such a beautiful that we go to the beach.
Question 38: You should ride your bike carefully, or you may have an accident.
A. If you didn’t ride your car carefully, you may have an accident
37
B. If you ride your car carefully, you may have an accident
C. If you don’t ride your car carefully, you may have an accident
D. If you don’t ride your car carefully, you could have an accident
Part 9
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following questions from 39 to 40
Question 39: …………………., she refused to tell him

A. Although she knew the answer, she refused to tell him
B. In spite knowing the answer, she refused to tell him
C. Despite knewing the answer, she refused to tell him
D. In spite of knewing the answer, she refused to tell him
Question 40: Mai suggests that........................ .
A. We should go work by bus to save energy
B. We should go to work by bus to save energy
C. We go to work by bus to save energy
D. going to work by bus to save energy
……………………………………………………….HẾT…………………………………………………..
TEST 11
PART 1
Question 1: My grandfather is the………..oldest artisan in the village; Ngoc’s grandfather is the oldest
A. most B. second C. first D. one
Question 2: He doesn’t know how he should operate this machine.
A. how to operate B. when to start C. what to do D. how to make
Question 3: Choose one word or phrase which needs the correction
If I meet an alien from outer space, I would invite him or her to my home and talk
A B C D
Question 4: A place of interest is a…………….and famous place in the countryside
A. beautiful B. beautify C. beauty D. beautifully
Pleased to meet you. Let me to introduce myself.
A B C D
Question 6: In the past, the ao dai…………by both men and women
A. wears B. was worn C. wore D. was wearing
Question 7: She turned…………. The new job in New York because she didn’t want to move
A. on B. down C. up D. off
Question 8: Ann is interested………… history
A. in B. to C. about D. for
Question 9: What is the best ……… in Singapore/
A. attract B. attractive C. attraction D. attracted
Question 10: Noise ……………. Comes from the traffic and from construction sites
A. pollutedly B. polluted C. pollution D. pollute
Question 11: The pagoda is in a beautiful……………, close to the sea
A. setting B. space C tower D. set
Question 12: If you want to get good grades, you…………..
38
A. don’t study hard B. study hard C. must study hard D. cannot study hard
Yesterday I have bought a new pair of jeans, which are a product
A B C
by Gucci.
D
Question 14: …………Vietnamese food yet?
A. Do you eat B. will you eat C. Are you eating D. Have you eaten?
I would strongly suggest that your company tells your drivers to clear up trash
A B C D
Question 16: There are some reasons why is essential to people’s success.
A. risk take B. risk taking C. take risk D. taking risk
PART 2
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks
Living in a city has a (17)_____ drawbacks. Firstly, there is the problem of traffic jams and traffic
accidents. The increase in population and the increasing number of vehicles have caused many accidents
(18)_____ __________ every day. Secondly, air pollution negatively affects people’s health, and it also has
a bad influence on the environment. More and more city dwellers (19)_____ __________ from coughing or
breathing problems. Thirdly, the city is (20)_____ __________, even at night. Noise pollution comes from
the traffic and from construction sites. Buildings are always being knocked down and rebuilt. These factors
contribute to making city life more (21)_____ for its residents.
London is one of (22)_____ cities in the world. Its population is a lot smaller than Tokyo or Shanghai, but
it is by far the most popular tourist attraction. London is probably most famous for its museums, galleries,
palaces, and other sights, but it also includes a wider range of peoples, cultures, and religions than many
(23)____ places. People used to say that it was the dirtiest city too, (24)_____ it is now much cleaner than
it was. To the surprise of many people, it now has some of the best restaurants in Europe too. For some
people, this makes London the most exciting city in Europe.
Question 17:
A. amount B. lots C. few D. number
Question 18:
A. happening B. to happen C. happen D. happened
Question 19:
A. like B. wait C. have D. suffer
Question 20:
A. noisy B. cool C. silent D. quiet
Question 21:
A. easy B. well C. good D. difficult
Question 22:
A. so large B. the largest C. as large D. larger
Question 23:
A. the other B. another C. other D. others
Question 24:
A. when B. but C. or D. and
PART 3
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correct answer to each of the questions
Unlike life in the countryside which is often considered to be simple and traditional, life in the city is
modern and complicated. People, from different regions, move to the cities in the hope of having a better
life for them and their children. The inhabitants in city work as secretaries, businessmen, teachers,
government workers, factory workers and even street vendors or construction workers.
The high cost of living requires city dwellers, especially someone with low income, to work harder or
to take a part-time job. For many people, an ordinary day starts as usual by getting up in the early morning
to do exercise in public parks, preparing for a full day of working and studying, then travelling along
crowded boulevards or narrow streets filled with motor scooters and returning home after a busy day. They
usually live in large houses, or high-rise apartment blocks or even in a small rental room equipped with
modern facilities, like the Internet, telephone, television, and so on. Industrialization and modernization
as well as global integration have big impact on lifestyle in the cities. The most noticeable impact is the
Western style of clothes. The “ao dai” – Vietnamese traditional clothes are no longer regularly worn in
Vietnamese women’s daily life. Instead, jeans, T-shirts and fashionable clothes are widely preferred.
Question 25: The most important reason why people move to the city is that…………….
A. to take part-time jobs B. to look for a complicate life
C. to look for a better life D. to have busy days
Question 26: We can infer from the passage that …………….
A. most of the urban dwellers have low income.
B. people do morning exercise in public parks because they have much free time
C. people leave the countryside because life there is simple.
D. there is a big gap between the rich and the poor in the city.
Question 27: The “ao dai” – Vietnamese traditional clothes ................ in Vietnamese women’s daily life.
A. are no longer regularly worn B. are regularly worn
C. are never worn D. never wear
Question 28: .Industrialization and modernization may lead to …………….
A. the fact that women no longer wear ao dai. B. global integration.
C. some changes in lifestyles. D. the disappearance of Western-styled clothes.
Question 29: The word impact in paragraph 2 is closet in meaning to ……………
A. situation B. force C. action D. Effect
Question 30: ccording to the passage, the city life can offer city dwellers all of the following things
EXCEPT ………..
A. friendly communication with neighbors B. modern facilities
C. a variety of jobs in different fields D. the Internet
PART 4
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions from 31 to 32
Question 31: A. boys B. groups C. rooms D. words
Question 32:
A. stayed B. lived C. printed D. called
PHẦN 5
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the
Question 33:
A. resident B. indicator C. convenience D. vehicle
40
Question 34:
A. experience B. neighbourhood C. emotional D. emergency
PART 6
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the word that is of the topic or part of speech different from the other three in each of the
Question 35:
A. town B. village C. weather D. city
Question 36:
A. crowded B. crowded C. museum D. Cosmopolitan
PART 7
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions from 37 to 38
Question 37: “Where can I get those traditional crafts?” Nick wondered.
A. Nick asked I to get the traditional crafts. B. Nick wondered me to get the traditional crafts.
D. Nick wondered where to get the traditional
C. Nick asked where she got the traditional crafts.
crafts.
Question 38: People say she works 16 hours a day.
A. It is said that she works 16 hours a day.
B. People say to work 16 hours a day.
C. It is said that to work 16 hours a day.
D. People say they work for her 16 hours a day.
PART 8
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following questions from 39 to 40
Question 39: Tuberculosis – TB ______ .
A. used to killing a lot of people B. uses to kill a lot of people
C. use to kill a lot of people D. used to kill a lot of people
Question 40: Rickshaws are ______.
A. quicker as taxis B. as quick than taxis C. quicker than taxis D. quicker taxis
……………………………………………….. HẾT ……………………………….……….
TEST 12
others: (0.5 pt)
1. A. attraction B. artisan C. frame D. handicraft
2. A. thread B. treat C. pleasure D. deadline
Questions 3-4: Pick out the word that has the main stressed syllable pronounced differently from the
others: (0.5 pt)
3. A. famous B. village C. workshop D. bamboo
4. A. generation B. communicate C. historical D. environment
(0.5 pt)
5. A. dweller B. customer C. villager D. embroider
6. A. bronze B. clay C. iron D. gold
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7. Let me know when you come to Hoi An and I’ll _________.
A. take you out B. bring you around
C. show you around D. cheer you up
8. Mary was very unhappy last week, but she has __________ now.
A. cheered up B. made out C. believed in D. came up
9. This place is so ________ with the non-stop flow of customers to come and enjoy Pho
A. delicious B. convenient C. popular D. exciting
10. Hanoi also offers a night life as exciting as ______ in Ho Chi Minh city
A. it B. Which C. What D. that
11. Linda is taking extra lessons __________ to what she missed while she was sick
A. take back B. keep up with
C. get on well with D. look forward to
12. The Imperial Citadel of Thang Long is a complex that _______ royal places and monuments
A. consist of B. consists of C. consist on D. Consists on
13. The teacher suggested that the students _______ all their homework before going to bed.
A. must finish B. finish C. finished D. should finish
14. I wish he ______ to me more often
A. writes B. wrote C. have written D. is writing
15. A postman comes once a day to _________ from the post box
A. bring B. collect C. take D. get
16. The children in my home village used to go _____, even in winter. Now they all have shoes.
A. Bare-footed B. Played around C. Playing around D. On foot
17. The Imperial Citadel of Thang Long is a _______ that consists of royal palaces and monuments.
A. Structure B. Fortress C. Complex D. limestone
18. The farmers in my home village ______ rice home on trucks. They used buffalo-driven carts.
A. didn’t used to transport B. Didn’t used transport
C. didn’t use to transport D. used to transport
Questions 19-26: Pick out ONE best option (A, B, C, or D) to fill in each numbered blank, completing
Listed as a World Heritage Site in 1999, Hoi An is the (19) …………..……. main port of Viet Nam dating
back to the 16th century. Today, most of its historic (20)………………….... have been preserved as
landmarks. There are many things you can do there. For example, you can walk down the streets, (21)
…………….……… by the atmosphere of times gone by. You should (22).................. the town during the
full moon, when the shop owners (23)……….. the lights and decorate the streets with candle (24)………..
You can also take a sampan ride down the Song Do River, hunting traces of foreign traders (25)………….
the Japanese, Chinese, and Dutch who made Hoi An a centre of (26) ………………..……..in old Viet Nam.
19. A. former B. form C. older D. elder
20. A. structure B. building C.structures D. buildings
21. A. around B. round C.surround D. surrounded
22. A. visit B. visiting C. to visit D. be visited
23. A. turn off B. turned off C. turning off D. turns off
24. A. lantern B. lanterns C. lanternt D. lanterned
25. A. such B. as C. such as D. such that
42
26. A. cultural B. culture C. tradition D. traditional
Questions 27-32: Read the passage below then pick out ONE best option (A, B, C, or D) to complete
each of the following sentences: (1.5 points)
British teenagers spend most of their time at school. Students in Britain can leave school at sixteen
(grade 11). This is also the age when most students take their first important exams, the GCSE (General
Certificate of Secondary Education). Most teens take between 5-10 subjects, which means a lot of
studying. They are spending more time on homework than teenagers ever before. Forget watching TV,
teenagers in Britain now spend 2-3 hours on homework after school.
Visit almost any school in Britain and the first thing you’ll notice is the school uniform. Although
school uniform has its advantages, when they are 15 or 16, most teenagers are tired of wearing it. When
there is more than one school in a town, school uniforms can highlight differences between schools. In
London there are many cases of bullying and fighting between pupils from different schools.
In Britain, some teens judge you by the shirt or trainers you are wearing. 40% of British teenagers
believe it’s important to wear designer labels. If you want to follow the crowd, you need to wear trendy
labels. Teenage feet in Britain wear fashionable trainers and the more expensive, the better.
27. What do most teenagers in Britain prefer to wear?
A. expensive uniforms B. economical trainers
C. trendy labels D. fashionable hats
28. The word ‘highlight’ in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. emphasize B. decrease C. confuse D. remark
29. Most students in Britain take the GCSE when ___________.
A. they are 16 years old B. they begin grade 12
C. they are 11 years old D. they finish grade 10
30. According to the passage, which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Most 16-year-old students in Britain don’t like school uniform.
B. Students in Britain can take 8 subjects at the GCSE.
C. Most British teenagers spend 2-3 hours watching TV after school.
D. Many British teenagers judge their friends by their shirts or trainers.
31. What is the first thing you’ll notice when you visit almost any school in Britain?
A. the school gate B. the school uniform
C. the school logo D. the school playground
32. This passage is about_______________________.
A. school in Britain B. students in Britain
C. the school gate D. the school uniform
closest in meaning to each of the following questions: (0.5 pt)
33. “ I’m working in a restaurant now .”, she said.
A. She said that she was working in a restaurant now.
B. She said that she is working in a restaurant then.
C. She said that she was working in a restaurant then.
D. She said that she were working in a restaurant then.
34. There are many celebrations in Vietnam but I like the Tet holiday best.
A. Although there are many celebrations in Vietnam but I like the Tet holiday best.
B. Although lots of celebrations in Vietnam but I like the Tet holiday best.
C. Although there are many celebrations in Vietnam the Tet holiday is I like.
D. Although there are many celebrations in Vietnam, I like the Tet holiday best.
43
Questions 35-38: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part
that needs correction in each of the following questions: (1.0 pt)
35. The children were frightening by the thunder and lightning.
A B C D
36. Two people got hurt in the accident and were took to the hospital by an ambulance.
A B C D
37. She said that the support service will be set up the next year.
A B C D
38. Sarah wondered if to attend the life skills workshop that weekend.
A B C D
Questions 39-40: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that
best completes each of the following questions: (0.5 pt)
39. “I’m sorry, we don’t have your size”. - “ __________________”
A. I’ll take it B. I hope so C. What a pity! D. I don’t like it.
40. “I’ll make some sandwiches for lunch.” - “______________”
A. Is there some for you? B. What is it made of?
C. I really don’t mind D. Would you like some help?
…………………………………………….... HẾT ………………………………….……….
TEST 13
Questions 1-6: Read the passage below then pick out ONE best option (A, B, C or D) to complete
Perfume Pagoda is a religious site as well as being a great sight-seeing spot in Viet Nam. It is
situated in Huong Son Commune, My Duc District, Ha Noi. It is a vast complex of Buddhist temples and
shrines, including Den Trinh (Presentation Shrine) and Thien Tru (Heaven Kitchen) Pagoda, in the
limestone Huong Tich mountains. The centre of this complex is the Perfume Temple, also called Chua
Trong (Inner Temple), located in Huong Tich Cavern. It is thought that the first temple was built on the
current site of Thien Tru in the 15th century during the reign of Le Thanh Tong. Over the years some of its
structures which were in ruins have been restored or replaced.
Many Vietnamese works of literature, both old and modern, have made Perfume Pagoda their focus. It has
also provided backdrops for many famous paintings. Its beauty has been used as a theme of many famous
songs and a topic of lyric poetry. Nowadays during its festival (from the middle of January to the middle
of March on the lunar calendar), Perfume Pagoda attracts large numbers of pilgrims from all over Viet
Nam.
1. Which of the following words is closest in meaning with the word situated in line 2?
A. belonged to B. related to C. located D. put
2. Where is the Perfume Pagoda? - It is in ……………………………….
A. Hue B. Huong River C. Ho Chi Minh city D. Ha Noi
3. What does the complex of the Perfume Pagoda include?
A. Perfume Temple B. Heaven Kitchen Pagoda
C. Presentation Shrine D. All are correct.
4. When was the first temple built?
A. on the current site of Thien Tru B. in the 15th century
C. by Le Thanh Tong D. after the reign of Le Thanh Tong
5. What has been used as a theme of many famous songs?
A. works of literature B. famous paintings
44
C. lyric poetry D. the beauty of Perfume Pagoda
6. Who visits the Perfume Pagoda during its religious festival?
A. painters B. pilgrims C. poets D. musicians
Ha Noi had its first tramways in 1900. The tram system was a major (7) ………of transport in the city for
nine decades and thus the image of the tram and its clanging sounds have gone deep into the hearts and (8)
……… of Hanoians. Since it was convenient and cheap to get (9) ……… the city and to the suburban
areas by tram, the system was very popular. However, due to the population boom and the need for a
wider road system, the last rail track was (10) …..…..
Now, after more than 20 years, the population of Ha Noi has (11) …….… from about two million people
to more than six million people; therefore, the number of vehicles on the roads has increased (12)…….… .
To meet the increasing travel demands, Ha Noi is launching its first skytrain system, connecting Cat Linh
and Ha Dong. The system (13)……… to begin operations by 2016, with initial four-compartment
skytrains. (14) ………., a new rail system project including around eight kilometres of skytrain rail and
four kilometres of subway rail, connecting Ha Noi Central Station and Nhon, has also been under
construction and is expected to be completed in a few years.
7. A. means B. mean C. way of D. measure
8. A. head B. minds C. brain D. eyes
9. A. up B. on with C. around D. along
10. A. built B. rebuilt C. repaired D. removed
11. A. increase B. go up C. rise D. risen
12. A. gradual B. slightly C. dramatically D. little
13. A. expected B. is expected C. is expect D. expects
14. A. However B. Although C. Addition D. Furthermore
15. My grandparents …………… in an extended family.
A. used to live B. use to lived C. used to lived D. used to living
16. The government must deal ………… the preservation of traditional craft villages.
A. to B. of C. up with D. with
17. Many children in our village are still ……….. They can't read or write.
A. creative B. illiterate C. unhealthy D. traditional
18. We were greatly …….… at the news of their safe return.
A. relieved B. relief C. relievable D. relieve
19. This cliff i s ……..… than we thought.
A. dangerous B. dangerouser C. more dangerous D. much dangerous
20. BA: How was your trip to Vietnam after 10 years?
NICK: …………………..
A. Amazing! I couldn’t believe how much it has changed!
B. No, I can’t tell you.
C. Thank you for asking me.
D. 10 years? It’s 11 years.
21. She continued talking about her trip although everyone found it tiring.
A. went on B. came across C. looked forward to D. went over
22. When we arrived at the station, the train ……………
A. has gone B. would go C. went D. had gone
45
23. Thanks to the ……… , pedestrians can be much safer.
A. flyovers B. elevated walkways C. tunnels D. skytrains
24. LAN: In the past, marriages used to be arranged by parents.
MAI: ……………………………….
A. That’s OK. B. I suppose it was.
C. That’s cool! D. Really? I can’t imagine that.
25. There has been a ………. increase in high-rise buildings over the last five years.
A. consider B. considerable C. considerably D. considered
26. Mary said that she ………… visit the Royal Citadel the following day.
A. can B. will C. would D. should
(0.5 point)
27. A. cooperative B. obedient C. collect D. tolerant
28. A. tram B. skytrain C. subway D. elevate
Questions 29-30: Pick out the word that has the main stressed syllable pronounced differently from
29. A. affordable B. development C. facility D. populous
30. A. cooperative B. anniversary C. illiteracy D. considerable
others: (0.5 point)
31. A. depressed B. thatched C. astonished D. satisfied
32. A. embroider B. preserve C. metro D. emergency
33. It has reported that many man-made wonders have been damaged.
A B C D
34. My family members don’t know where should go this summer vacation.
A B C D
35. All of us are astonished that life in the countryside to improve a lot.
A B C D
36. My cousin wishes she can spend her vacation in Ha Long Bay.
A B C D
37. To prevent global warming, …………………………
A. we should reduce smoke and exhaust fumes
B. I suggest reducing smoke and exhaust fumes
C. I suggest we should reduce smoke and exhaust fumes
D. All are correct.
38. It was kind of her …………………………
A. she helped me solve the math problem. C. to solve the math problem.
B. to donate rice and money to the poor. D. All are correct.
closest in meaning to each of the following questions: (0.5 point)
39. Keeping the environment clean is important.
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A. It’s important that keeping the environment clean.
B. It’s important to keep the environment clean.
C. To keeping the environment clean is important.
D. To keep clean the environment important.
40. “ Do you need any help with this assignment?” the teacher said to me.
A. The teacher asked me do you need any help with this assignment.
B. The teacher told me if you needed any help with this assignment.
C. The teacher asked me if I needed any help with that assignment.
D. The teacher asked me whether I need any help with that assignment.
………………………………………………... HẾT …………………………………………
TEST 14
others: (0.5 points)
Question 1. A. recipe B. celery C. pepper D. reserve
Question 2. A. loved B. washed C. tried D. used
others: (0.5 points)
Question 3. A. tourism B. stopover C. marinate D. component
Question 4. A. abroad B. afford C. accent D. depend
(0.5 points)
Question 5. A. deposit B. client C. tutor D. astronaut
Question 6. A. lasagne B. curry C. garnish D. steak pie
Question 7. Moderation doesn't mean the foods you love.
A. to eliminate B. eliminating C. to prevent D. preventing
Question 8. Studies suggest only when you are most active and giving your digestive system a
long break each day.
A. to eat B. being eaten C. eating D. being eating
Question 9. Your body uses calcium to build healthy bones and teeth, them strong as you age.
A. remain B. care C. continue D. keep
Question 10. If you eat too quickly, you may not attention to whether your hunger is satisfied.
A. pay B. take C. keep D. show
Question 11. Common eating habits that can lead to are: eating too fast, eating when not hungry,
eating while standing up, and skipping meals.
A. gain weight B. weight gain C. put on weight D. be heavy
Question 12. Keeping a for a few days will help you discover your bad eating habits.
A. diary B. personal C. food diary D. report
Question 13. You may have had certain eating habits for so long that you do not they are
unhealthy.
A. recognize B. realize C. understand D. tell
Question 14. If children don’t play sports, they sleepy and tired.
A. would feel B. will feel C. would have felt D. had felt
Question 15. If parents don’t cook at home, their children more fast food.
A. have B. would have C. may have D. had had
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Question 16. Travelling to Ba Mun Island in Quang Ninh, tourists can explore on their own, following
some natural on the island.
A. trails B. marks C. roads D. stretches
Question 17. In Binh Ba Island (Lobster Island), there are many beautiful beaches with white sand, clear
water, blue sky, which is for those who love nature and calmness.
A. available B. famous C. good D. suitable
Question 18. Con Dao has not only prisons but also natural landscapes.
A. surprising B. shocking C. stunning D. extreme
Free and Easy
In the past, getting recipes and cooking tips was a complicated process. A person had to go to the
store and buy a cook book, or get recipes from friends. Fortunately, the Internet has changed all that.
Now, if you want to find a recipe for lasagne or Cobb salad, you just search online. It couldn’t be simpler.
Cooking blogs are a great source of information because they are free and there are so many of them.
They are also nice because they give all different kinds of ideas. The problems with blogs is that because
we don’t know who is writing them, we need to use with caution. When you are looking at a new blog,
you don’t know if the writer knows what he or she is talking about.
We’d like to introduce two popular cooking blogs. The first is called Smitten Kitchen. This website
is run by a family living in New York City. It focuses on food that doesn’t require many ingredients. If
you want to make food that is simple but wonderful, then this is the site for you. It offers hundreds and
hundreds of recipes, divided into categories. You will be amazed at how many there are.
Wednesday Chef is another great cooking blog. It is run by a writer who lives in Berlin. This blog also
offers many recipes, along with recommendations for great restaurants in Berlin, and advice for people
who want to start their own blogs. Wednesday Chef has great pictures of its food, as well as interesting
pictures of Berlin. The blog got its name because in the past, newspapers published their food articles on
Wednesdays.
There are a lot of cooking blogs on the Internet, and most of them are pretty good. Go online and
check some of them out. You might be surprised at how much they can help you improve your cooking.
Question 19. How did Wednesday Chef get, its name?
A. The writer only posts recipes on Wednesdays.
B. The writer only cooks on Wednesdays.
C. The writer was born on a Wednesday.
D. Newspapers used to publish food articles on Wednesdays.
Question 20. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of cooking blogs?
A. There are many of them. B. Everyone who writes them is an expert.
C. They are free. D. They give a lot of different ideas.
Question 21. Who runs the blog Smitten Kitchen?
A. A family in New York. B. A woman in New York.
C. A family in Berlin. D. A woman in Berlin.
Question 22. What does the passage say about Smitten Kitchen?
A. It only gives recipes on Italian food.
B. It focuses on simple recipes.
C. It only offers a few recipes.
D. Most of the food on that blog is hard to make.
Question 23. Why should we be careful when we are looking at new blogs?
A. We don’t know who the writers are.
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B. Most new blogs are terrible.
C. The recipes on new blogs are usually hard to make.
D. They charge you some fees to get the recipes.
Question 24. The word “surprised” in the last paragraph could be best replaces with______.
A. strong B. tolerant C. important D. astonished
I think there are some ways (25)………. fit. Firstly, we should eat healthily. Don’t eat too much fast
food. Some people have a big (26) …………and a soft drink for lunch. It isn’t a good idea (27)………….
that meal doesn’t include any vegetables. Instead, if they want to have a quick (28)…………. lunch, they
should buy some avocado sushi. (29)………..Secondly, we shouldn’t (30) ……….food. We should
steam it. Steamed dishes don’t use (31)…… fat. If you like, you can also (32) ……… lean meat with
vegetables. It’s healthy and nutritious.
Question 25: A. to keep B. keeping C. kept D. is kept
Question 26: A. cake B. hamburger C. meal D. dish
Question 27: A. so B. and C. because D. however
Question 28: A. health B. healthily C. healthful D. healthy
Question 29: A. but B besides C. secondly D. second
Question 30: A. mix B. deep-fry C. boil D. steam
Question 31: A. any B. the C. some D. a
Question 32: A. eat B. stew C. grill D. bake
the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions: (1.0 pt)
Question 33. Don’t put too much garlic in the salad; two bunches are enough.
A B C D
Question 34. If you did more exercise, your muscles will be stronger.
A B C D
Question 35. Remember not to skip the breakfast because it’s the most important meal.
A B C D
Question 36. I don’t like to eat out because it isn’t easy to find a restaurant which have
A B C
good food and service.
D
closest in meaning to each of the following questions: (0.5 pt)
Question 37. There are many celebrations in Vietnam but I like the Tet holiday best.
A. Although there are many celebrations in Vietnam but I like the Tet holiday best.
B. Although lots of celebrations in Vietnam but I like the Tet holiday best.
C. Although there are many celebrations in Vietnam the Tet holiday is I like.
D. Although there are many celebrations in Vietnam, I like the Tet holiday best.
Question 38. They live in a house ______.
A. which roof could collapse at any time
B. whose roof could collapse at any time
C. where roof could collapse at any time
D. that roof could collapse at any time
that best completes each of the following questions: (0.5 pt)
49
Question 39. He asked me _____________ .
A. if I had B. why do I want this job
C. that I might have a new job D. how old I was
Question 40. My TV is broken. I wish it ______ soon.
A. would be repaired B. is repaired
C. was repaired D. will be repaired
……………………………………………………HẾT……………………………………………
TEST 15
others. (0.5 point)
Question 1: A. slice B. marinate C. sprinkle D. whisk
Question 2: A. recipes B. prawns C. salads D. ingredients
others: (0.5 point).
Question 3: A. arrangement B. nutrition C. versatile D. responsible
Question 4: A. unacceptable B. individual C. characteristic D. vegetarian
Questions 5-6: Pick out the word that is of the different topic (or part of speech) from the others.(0.5
point).
Question 5: A. curry B. celery C. cabbage D. spinach
Question 6: A. lacquerware B. pottery C. lantern D. instrument
Questions 7-18: Pick out ONE best option to complete each of the following sentences. (3.0 points).
Question 7: Can you ………..the butter on this slice of bread for me?
A. sprinkle B. spread C. grate D. bake
Question 8: Peel the carrot and ………it into small pieces.
A. drop B. marinate C. whisk D. steam
Question 9: You …….feel more energized if you reduce your salt intake.
A. should B. can C. must D. would
Question 10: She added a potato to her overly salty soup……make it less salty.
A. so that B. as a result of C. in order to D. so as not to
Question 11: We don’t have ….. bananas, and we don’t have….fruit juice.
A. many –much B. lot of – much C. much –many D. much – a lot
Question 12: There isn’t …..butter in the kitchen.
A. some B. any C. little D. few
Question 13: If we like spicy food , you ..... try curry
A. can B. could C. should D. will
Question 14: Recipes tell me to add one or two ……..of celery to a soup or stew.
A. cloves B. slice C. bunches D. sticks
Question 15: Do you have ……. Cereal? – Sure, there’s …….in the fridge.
A. any/lots B. any/lots of C. some/a lot D. any/ a lot
Question 16: The recipe says you should add one or two…… of celery to the soup.
A. sticks B. stick C. sticking D. to stick
Question 17: Eating lots of fruits and vegetables can ….. your risk for heart disease.
A. increase B. reduce C. harm D. well
Question 18: Do you know a good recipe………apple pie.
A. for B. off C. into D. at
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each of the following sentences. (1.5 points).
Japanese people are famous for their well-balanced and healthy diet. That is the main reason for
their longevity.
Typically, a Japanese meal consists of rice, miso soup, the main dish(es) and pickles. Rice is the
staple and plays a central part in people’s eating habits. Japanese rice is sticky and nutritious, so when
combined with the main dishes and the soup, they make a complete meal. The portions of each dish are
individually served.
The most important characteristic of their eating habits is they like raw food and do not use sauces
with a strong flavour. Two typical examples are sashimi and sushi. The Japanese make sashimi simply by
cutting fresh fish. Then they serve it with a dipping sauce made from soy sauce and spicy Japanese
horseradish (wasabi). Sushi is similar. The cooked, vinegared rice can be combined with raw fish, prawn,
avocado, cucumber or egg. Sushi is usually served with soy sauce and pickled ginger.
It is said that the Japanese eat with their eyes. Therefore, the arrangement of dishes is another
significant feature of their eating habits. If you join a Japanese meal, you may be excited to see how the
colourful dishes are arranged according to a traditional pattern. In addition, there are plates and bowls of
different sizes and designs. They are carefully presented to match the food they carry.
Question 19: Typically, a Japanese meal consists of …........
A. rice, miso soup.
B. the main dishes and pickles.
C. rice, miso soup, the main dish(es) and pickles.
D. the main dishes.
Question 20: Japanese rice is sticky and nutritious, so when combined with the main dishes and the
soup……………………
A. they make a complete meal.
B. they make a delicious meal.
C. they make a healthy meal.
D. they make a nutritious meal.
Question 21: The most important characteristic of their eating habits…………………
A. are they like raw food and do not use sauces with a strong flavor.
B. is they like raw food and do not use sauces with a strong flavor.
C. to be they like raw food and do not use sauces with a strong flavor.
D. is everyone likes raw food and do not use sauces with a strong flavor.
Question 22: The cooked, vinegared rice can …………………….
A. combine with raw fish, prawn, avocado, cucumber or egg.
B. combined with raw fish, prawn, avocado, cucumber or egg.
C. be combine with raw fish, prawn, avocado, cucumber or egg.
D. be combined with raw fish, prawn, avocado, cucumber or egg.
Question 23: It is said that the Japanese eat……………..
A. with their eyes.
B. with their hands.
C. with their mouth.
D. with their sticks.
Questions 24: You may …………………………. according to a traditional pattern.
A. be excited see how the colourful dishes are arranged
A. be excited to see how the colourful dishes are arranged
C. be excited to see how the colour dishes are arranged
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D. be excited to see how the colourful dishes are arrange
Questions 25-32: Pick out ONE best option (A, B, C or D) to fill in each numbered blanks,
completing the meaning of the passage. (2.0 points).
Well, I think there are (25)………. ways to keep fit. Firstly, we should eat healthily. Don’t eat too
much fast food. Some people have a big (26) …………and a soft drink for lunch. It isn’t a good idea
(27)…………. that meal doesn’t include any vegetables. Instead, if they want to have a quick (28)………….
lunch, they should buy some avocado sushi. (29)………..Secondly, we shouldn’t (30) ……….food. We
should steam it. Steamed dishes don’t use (31)…… fat. If you like, you can also (32) ……… lean meat with
vegetables. It’s healthy and nutritious.
Question 25: A. some B. lot of C. lots D. much
Question 26: A. cake B. hamburger C. meal D. dish
Question 27: A.so B. and C. because D. however
Question 28: A. health B. healthily C. healthful D. healthy
Question 29: A. but B besides C. secondly D. second
Question 30: A. mix B. deep-fry C. boil D. steam
Question 31: A. any B. the C. some D. a
Question 32: A. eat B. stew C. grill D. bake
Questions 33-36: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. (1.0pt).
Question 33: Many teenage girls used unhealth eating habits like fasting, or skipping
A B C
meals to control their weight.
D
Question 34: If you like spicy food, you shouldn’t try curry.
A B C D
Question 35: Breakfast is the first meal of the day, so it’s very importance to eat
A B C
nutritious things
D
Question 36: Especial in the summertime, people often serve salad as a starter.
A B C D
closest in meaning to each of the following questions. (0.5pt).
Question 37:.The doctors suggest they should eat …….. apples.
A. lot of B. lots of C. a lot D. lots
Question 38: I will make steak pie for dinner. “………………..”
A. I’d love to. B. You’re right. C. please, do it. D. Great! I can’t wait.
that best completes each of the following questions.(0.5pt)
Question 39: I think you should stop smoking.
A. If I am you, I will stop smoking.
B. If I were you, I will stop smoking.
C. If I were you, I would stop smoking.
D. If I had been you, I would stop smoking.
Question 40: Which is not true about a healthy diet?
A. Eating a variety of foods in proper amounts.
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B. Make starchy foods the basic of most meal.
C. Eating plenty of fruit and vegetable.
D. Limit consumption of milk and dairy products.
………………………………………………….. HẾT …………………………………….……….

TEST 16
QUESTION 1-2 : Pick out the word that has the main stressed syllable different from
the others (0.5pt)
A B C D
1 - unique improve favorite remote
2 - interesting convenient energy company
QUESTION 3-4 : Pick out the word that has the underlined syllable pronounced
differrently from the others ( 0.5pt )
A B C D
3 - honor happen hair house
4 - sign singular design mausoleum
QUESTION 5-6 : Pick out the word that is of different topic ( or part of speech ) from the others
(0.5pt )
A B C D
5 - candidate council designer examination
6 - information violence commercial limitation
QUESTION 7-18 :Pick out the best option ( A, B , C or D ) to complete the following sentences ( 3.0
pts )
7- Nam wishes he _________ Thanh some money for her to buy a new book .
A. could lend B. lend C. will lend D. has lent
8- I was very ________ by the beauty of Ha Long Bay.
A. corresponded B. comprised C. interested D. impressed
th
9- In the 18 century, jean cloth __________ completely from cotton .
A. is made B. has made C. was made D.was making
10- He used to work on a ship . He was a(n) _______ .
A. poet B. artist C. designer D. sailor
11- _______ night , the sky is full of beautiful stars .
A. in B. on C. between D. at
12- Mai _______ going for a picnic, but no one else wanted to.
A. promised B .suggested C. offered D. said
13- How much time do you spend _______ the web a day ?
A. surfing B. to surf C. surf D. surfed
14- Most of the villagers depend on farming for ________.
A. production B. payment C. spending D. .income
15- I’m disappointed _______ people have spoiled this area.
A.t hat B. when C. if D. how
16- You should have a(n) _______ check your motorbike regularly .
A .electrician B. carpenter C. mechanic D. plumber
17- Tom enjoys _________ strange stamps .
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A.to collect B. collect C. collecting D. collected
18- Solar energy is a clean ______ source of power for the future.
A. natural B. joyful C. dangerous D. expensive
QUESTION 19-24 : Read the passage below then pick out ONE best option ( A, B , C or D ) to
complete each of the following sentences ( 1.5pts )
Floods are the most common and widespread of all natural disasters . Most communities can
experience some kind of flooding after pouring rains, heavy thunderstorms or winter snow thaws .
Floods can be slow or fast rising but generally develop over a period of days . Dam failures are
potentially the worst flood events . When a dam fails , a gigantic quantity of water is suddenly let
loose downstream , destroying anything in its path .
Flood water can be extremely dangerous . The force of six inches swiftly moving water can
knock people off their feet . The best protection during a flood is to leave the area and go to shelter on a
higher ground .
Flash floods usually result from intense storms dropping large amount of rain within a brief
period. Flash floods occur with little or no warning and can reach full peak in only a few minutes . Flash
flood water moves at very fast speeds and can roll boulders , tear out trees , destroy buildings and bridges .
Walls of water can reach heights of 10 to 20 feet and generally are accompanied by a deadly cargo of
debris . The best response to any signs of flash flooding is to move immediately and quickly to higher
ground .
19. Floods often occur________
A. when the weather is fine C. after heavy rains or thunderstorms
B. before it rains D. after drizzles
20. Which of the following statements is not true?
A. Floods usually develop over a period of days .
B. Flood water is not dangerous because it moves very slowly.
C. Flood water can destroy anything in its path.
D. When a dam fails, floods happen immediately.
21. The best solution to a happening flood is __________
A. staying at the flood area until it stops. B. finding the shelter in that area.
C. leaving the area after it finishes D. leaving the area for a shelter on a higher ground
22. A flash flood __________
A. can reach full peak in a short period of time
B. results from an intense storm dropping little amount of rain
C. occurs very slowly D. is often carefully warned before.
23. Which word in the passage has the closest meaning to the word “ hurricane”
A. failure B. storm C. quantity D. disaster
24. Flash flood water __________
A. can destroy buildings and bridges C. rarely tears out trees
B. moves at slow speeds D. can be up to between 30 and 40 feet high
QUESTION 25-32 : Fill in each numbered blank with ONE word chosen from the list ( A , B , C
or D ) below to complete the meaning of the passage ( 2.0pts )
In 1973, a 75-ton space station called was launched by the USA . Three crews of three
____(25 ) _____were sent to Skylab , but at the end of 1974 , it was abandoned . Skylab stayed in ____
(26) ____until 1979 . Then it fell out of its ____ ( 27 ) ____ and headed towards the Earth . A lot of space
station burnt up when it entered the atmosphere. But not all of it was _____( 28 )______. Large pieces
were scattered across the Indian ____ ( 29 ) ____. Australia was hit ____ ( 30 ) _____ some fragments .
54
Fortunately, ____( 31 ) _____ was hurt. A lot of the pieces were found by Australian farmers . The pieces
were ____( 32 ) _____ for very high prices.
A B C D
25 - viewers astronauts tourists reporters
26 - earth sun space plane
27- way direction place orbit
28 - destroyed saved kept created
29 - Country Continent Water Ocean
30 - with by for to
31 - something anyone nothing nobody
32- chosen sold found done
that needs correction in each of the following questions: (1.0 p)
33. Mrs. Lan never listens to music on the radio, doesn’t she?
A B C D
34. Harry promised doing the job very carefully.
A B C D
35. You should get the plumber make sure that there are no cracks in the pipes.
A B C D
36. He arrived in Singapore in Monday evening.
A B C D
Question 37-40: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is
closest in meaning to each of the following questions: (1pt)
37. May I open the window?
A. Do you mind opening the window?
B. Would you mind opening the window?
C. Do you mind if I opening the window?
D. Would you mind if I opened the window?
38. He told her about the book. He liked it best.
A. He told her about the book which he liked it best.
B. He told her about the book which he liked best.
C. He told her about the book whom he liked best.
D. He told her about the book whose he liked best.
39. “I’m working in a restaurant now.”, she said
A. She said that she was working in a restaurant now.
B. She said that she is working in a restaurant then.
C. She said that she was working in a restaurant then.
D. She said that she were working in a restaurant then.
40. He is sorry. He can’t speak English well.
A. He wishes he spoke English well.
B. He wishes he could speak English well.
C. He wishes he speaks English well.
D. He wishes he could spoke English well.
………………………………………………….. HẾT ……………………………………………….
TEST 17
55
Questions 1-2: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose
underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions: (0.5
point)
1. A. promised B. raised C. surprised D. pleased
2. A. produce B. huge C. cure D. lunar
Questions 3-4: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs
from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions: (0.5 point)
3. A. refreshment B. politeness C. heavily D. prohibit
4. A. charity B. celebrate C. generous D. until
Questions 5-6: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is of the
topic or part of speech different from the others in each of the following questions: (0.5 point)
5. A. designer B. inventor C. wander D. traveller
6. A. widely B. costly C. silly D. lovely
Questions 7-18: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the following questions: (3.0 points)
7. The final examination was held ________ June 12, 2006.
A. in B. on C. at D. to
8. You have read this article on the website, ___________?
A. don’t you B. aren’t you C. didn’t you D. haven’t you
9. Flowers should _______ in warm places.
A. be keep B. kept C. be kept D. be keeping
10. They went on working ______ it started to rain.
A. though B. because C. but D. despite
11. Study harder _____________.
A. if you will fail the exam B. and you would fail the exam
C. unless you fail the exam D. or you will fail the exam
12. The girl wishes she ______ in Hue for the festival next week.
A. had stayed B. was staying C. stay D. could stay
13. He read this article on the website last night, _______?
A. doesn’t he B. didn’t he C. did he D. hasn’t he
14. The weather forecast says it may rain, so I’ll bring a raincoat ……………
A. instead of B. in spite C. just in case D. just in time
15. If Ba were rich, he ________ around the world.
A. should travel B. traveled C. could travel D. must travel
16. On the way to school, Long often stops ________ a newspaper.
A. to buy B. buy C. buying D. bought
17. The cooker ______ is displayed at Nguyen Kim Supermarket looks modern.
A. why B. who C. which D. whose
18. If we keep our environment clean, we ………. a happier and happier life.
A. would live B. live C. will live D. lived
Questions 19-24: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions: (1.5 points)
The killer sea waves known as tsunamis are so quiet in their approach from a far, so seemingly
harmless, that until recently their history has been one of the surprise attacks. Out in the middle of the
ocean, the distance between tsunami wave crest can be 100 miles and the height of the waves no more than
three feet: Mariners can ride and suspect nothing. At the shoreline, the first sign is often an ebbing of the
56
waters that leaves fish stranded and slapping on the bottom. However, this is not a retreat but rather a
gathering of forces. When the great waves finally do strike, they rear up and batter harbor and coast,
inflicting death and damage.
These seismic sea waves – or tidal waves, as they are sometimes called – bear no relation to the moon
or tides. And the word “tsunami”, Japanese for “harbor wave”, relates to their destination rather than their
origin. The causes are various: undersea or coastal earthquake, deep ocean avalanches, or volcanism.
Whatever the cause, the wave motion starts with a sudden jolt like a whack from a giant paddle that
displaces the water. And the greater the undersea whack, the greater the tsunami’s devastating power.
In 1983, Krakatoa volcano in the East Indies erupted, and the entire island collapsed in 820 feet of
water. A tsunami of tremendous force ricocheted around Java and Sumatra, killing 36,000 people with
walls that reached 115 feet in height.
In 1946 a tsunamis struck first near Alaska and then, without warning, hit the Hawaiian Islands, killing
159 people and inflicting millions of dollars of damage. This led to the creation of the Tsunami Warning
System, whose nerve centre in Honolulu keeps a round-the clock vigil with the aid of new technology. If
seismic sea waves are confirmed by the Honolulu center, warnings are transmitted within a few hours to
all threatened Pacific points. While tsunami damage remains unavoidable. Lives lost today are more likely
to be in the tens than in the thousands. Tsunamis have been deprived of their most deadly sting-surprise.
19. The other name of tsunamis is______________.
A. a great wave B. tides C. the killer sea wave D. the killer sea waves
20. According to the passage, seismic sea waves __________.
A. originate far from the place where they strike.
B. are easily detected by fishermen.
C. Are named “tsunami” for the origin of the wave in the harbor.
D. Are called tidal waves because of their relation to the moon.
21. According to the passage, all of the following are possible causes for seismic sea waves
EXCEPT______.
A. earthquakes near a coastline B. tides
C. avalanches under water D. volcanoes
22. The phrase “a round-the clock vigil” could best replaced by which of the following?
A. A good account. B. A constant watch
C. A careful record D. An open time
23. According to the passage, the tsunami Warning System was created because of ________.
A. the availability of new technology
B. the nervous state of people in Honolulu
C. the occurrence of the 1946 tsunami
D. the loss of millions of lives
24. The author’s main point in the passage is that ______.
A. there is little possibility of avoiding tidal waves once they are in motion
B. seismic sea waves today are carefully monitored and cause less damage than in the past.
C. tsunami can do little damage when they strike
D. we need better equipment to track the movements of tsunamis
to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks: (2.0 points)
Friends
To many people, their friends are the most important in their life. Really good friends always __(25)__
joys and sorrows with you and never turn their backs on you. Your best friends may be someone you have
known all your life or someone you have grown __(26)__ with.
57
There are all sorts of thing that can __(27)__ about this special relationship. It may be the result of
enjoying the same activities and __(28)__ experiences. Most of us have met someone that we have
immediately felt __(29)__ with as if we had known them for ages. However, it really takes you years to get
to know someone well __(30)__ to consider your best friend.
To the majority of us, this is someone we trust completely and __(31)__ understands us better than
anyone else. It’s the person you can __(32)__ him or her your most intimate secrets.
(25). A. share B. give C. spend D. have
(26). A. through B. on C. in D. up
(27). A. bring B. cause C. result D. provide
(28). A. getting B. keeping C. sharing D. putting
(29). A. relax B. relaxed C. relaxing D. relaxation
(30). A. too B. enough C. so D. such
(31). A. whom B. which C. who D. whose
(32). A. say B. talk C. tell D. speak
that needs correction in each of the following questions: (1.0 point)
33. If we go on to litter, the environment will become seriously polluted.
A B C D
34. Tet is a festival which it occurs in late January or early February.
A B C D
35. The students laughed happy when they saw the monkeys eating bananas.
A B C D
36. I lost my key and I looked up it but I couldn’t see it
A B C D
closest in meaning to each of the following questions (0.5 point)
37. I am sorry for having broken your vase of flowers yesterday.
A. I am sorry because I break your vase of flowers yesterday.
B. I have broken your vase of flowers yesterday, so I am sorry.
C. I am sorry that I broke your vase of flowers yesterday.
D. I am sorry in order to break your vase of flowers yesterday.
38. He suggests turning off water and electricity after use.
A. I think we must turning off water and electricity after use.
B. He suggests we should turn off water and electricity after use
C. He suggests that water and electricity should turn off after use
D. He suggests that we must turn off water and electricity after use
best completes each of the following questions: (0.5 point)
39. The dog kept……..around in circles.
A. run B. to run C. continue to run D. running
40. Student A: Congratulations! Student B:…………….
A. well done B. That’s great C. You’re welcome D. It’s very nice of you to say so.
……………………………………………….. HẾT ………………………..……………….
TEST 18
58
point)
1. A. conserved B. amazed C. compared D. replaced
2. A. consumer B. designer C. resource D. sample
3. A. priority B. support C. academic D. improve
4. A. appliance B. ultimately C. region D. evidence
5. A. sailor B. pilot C. plumber D. embroider
6. A. considerate B. university C. dormitory D. academy
7. My daughter was born in Dalat ______ May the third 2002
A. on B. at C. for D. in
8. What ______ of learning English you found most difficult.
A. aspect B. difficulty C. program D. course
9. We decide not to go out for having dinner ______ there is food in the refrigerator.
A. because B. so C. because of D. though
10. Articles and reports in ______ have talked a lot about UFO appearance recently.
A. internet B. newspaper C. radio D. television
11. If he ______me some money now, I ______ him so much.
A. gave /thank B. gives/will thank C. gave /would thank D. gave/can thank
12. It’s very hot today. Please ______the air conditioner.
A. Turn off B. turn up C. turn on D. turn down
13. All of my students wish they _____ a lot of good marks in the next examination.
A. Can get B. got C. will get D. would get
14. I don’t know the name of the alien _______ comes from outer space.
A. whom B. which C. who D. where
15. _____are the persons who would go through city streets and shouted the lasted news.
A. criers B. activists. C. slaves. D. designers.
16. My teacher suggests that these tests ______again regularly at home every day.
A. should do B. to do C. should be done D. doing
17. Her father disliked drinking coffee at night last year,______ ?
A. didn’t he B. did he C. didn’t she D. did she
18.______ , also known as tsunamis , occurs when there is an earthquake under the sea .
A. Storms B. Tidal waves C. Hurricanes D. Volcanoes
Scientists say that something very serious is happening to the Earth. It will begin to get warmer in
the 1990s. There will be major changes in climate during the next century. Coastal water will have a
higher temperature. This will have a serious effect on agriculture. In northern areas, the growing season
will be ten days longer by the year 2000. However, in warmer areas, it will be too dry. The amount of
water could decrease by fifty percent. This would cause a large decrease in agricultural production.
59
World temperatures could increase two degrees centigrade by the year 2040. However, the increase
could be three times as great in the Arctic and Antarctic regions. This could cause the ice sheets to melt
and raise the level of the oceans by one to two meters. Many coastal cities would be underwater.
Why is this happening? There is too much carbon dioxide (CO2) in the air. When oil gas and coal
burn, they create large amounts of carbon dioxide. We send five billion tons of carbon dioxide into the
atmosphere every year. The amount will double in fifty years. This carbon dioxide lets sunlight enter the
Earth’s atmosphere and heat the Earth. However, it does not let as much heat leave the atmosphere and
enter space. It is like a “blanket”. The heat can pass from the sun through the blanket to warm the Earth.
The heat stays there and cannot escape through the blanket again.
Scientists call this the greenhouse effect. A greenhouse is a building for growing plants. It is made
of glass or clear plastic. These scientists say we must start planning now. We need to do research so that
we can predict what will happen. We must conserve coal, oil and gas.
19. In the 21st century, the earth’s climate …
A. will get colder B. will get warmer
C. will not change D. will change but not much
20. The increase in the Earth’s temperature will affect …
A. forest fire B. human life
C. marine life D. agriculture
21. By the year 2040, the temperature in the Arctic and Antarctic regions could increase about …
A. 5 degrees centigrade B. 3 degrees centigrade
C. 6 degrees centigrade D. 1 degree centigrade
22. What’s the main idea of the passage ?
A. the change of temperature
B. the ocean level could be higher
C. There is something happening to the Earth seriously
D. No problem happens to the Earth
23. What does the word “It” in the third paragraph refer to?
A. The sunlight B. The melting of ice sheets
C. Large amount of carbon dioxide D. The atmosphere
24. “Greenhouse effect” means …
A. a building for growing plants B. the events that the Earth gets warmer by carbon dioxide
C. a building that is painted in green D. the building where we store coal, oil and gas
Living in a city has a (25)______ of drawbacks. Firstly, there is the (26)______ of traffic jams
and traffic accidents. The increase (27)______ population and the increasing number of vehicles have
caused many accidents to happen every day. Secondly, air pollution (28)______ affects people’s health,
and it also has a bad (29)______ in the environment. More and more city dwellers (30)______ from
coughing or breathing problems. Thirdly, the city is noisy, even at night. Noise pollution (31)______
comes from the traffic and from construction sites have annoyed to people for several years. Buildings are
always being knocked down and rebuilt. These (32)______ contribute to making city life more difficult
for its residents.
25 . A. lots B. great deal C. many D. number
26 . A. building B. atmosphere C. problem D. environment
27 . A. in B. at C. on D. from
28 . A. negative B. negatively C. negation D. negativeness
29 . A. effect B. influence C category D. air
60
30 . A. suffer B. differ C. recover D. embroider
31 . A. whom B. whose C. which D. who
32 . A. problems B. factors C. events D. lives
33. Our neighbor whom name is Nam will move to England next week
A B C D
34. Robert enjoys festival in Viet Nam despite he doesn’t understand Vietnamese culture
A B C D
35. What about use public buses instead of motorbikes to reduce exhaust fume?
A B C D
36. When students live in dormitories, they get used to wash their own clothes.
A B C D
37.Mrs.Robinson is excited to go to Da Lat this weekend.
A. Mrs.Robinson is excited that she go to Da Lat this weekend.
B. Mrs.Robinson is excited that to go to Da Lat this weekend.
C. Mrs.Robinson is excited that she going to Da Lat this weekend.
D. Mrs.Robinson is excited that she will go to Da Lat this weekend.
38. Don’t go on litering or our environment will become seriously polluted.
A. Our environment won’t become seriously polluted if we go on litering.
B. Our environment will become seriously polluted if we went on litering.
C. Our environment become seriously polluted if we will go on litering.
D. Our environment will become seriously polluted if we go on litering.
39. “Congratulate you on winning the first prize” “______________”
A. You’re welcome. C. It doesn’t matter.
B. You’re happy. D. Thanks. That’s very kind of you.
40. She told him, “Do you enjoy your staying here?”
 She asked him…
A. she enjoyed her staying here. B. she enjoyed his staying there.
C. if he enjoyed his staying there ? D. if he enjoyed his staying there.
………………………………………..…….. HẾT ………………………..…………….
TEST 19
point)
1. A. bills B. cracks C. tins D. consumers
2. A. clean B. reason C. ocean D. beach
3. A. prevent B. solar C. sticky D. earthquake
61
4. A. charity B. cyclone C. meteor D. parade
5. A. Easter B. Passover C. Pacific D. Mid-fall festival
6. A. lively B. extremely C. slowly D. sadly
7. I think putting garbage bins in the streets will prevent people ...................... littering .
A. from B. at C. for D. by
8. The children laughed ............... when they were watching a comic.
A. unhappy B. happy C. happily D. happiness
9. My father is the man, ……………., respected by all family members.
A. whom B. who C. which D. whose
10. I………… you a plane if I …………… a billionaire now.
A. buy-will be B. will buy-am C. bought-would be D. would buy-were
11. I’m ………………… that you can’t come there .
A. disappoint B. disappointed C. disappointing D. to disappointed
12. I am surprised ………….. the air here is so fresh..
A. that B. if C. as D. because
13. In Asia , a strong tropical storm ia called a .................
A. cyclone B. hurricane C. typhoon D.tornado
14. HCM City will…………….. temperatures between 26 C and 30 C tomorrow.
0 0
A. arrive B. occur C. achieve D. experience

15. UFO means………… flying object.
A. unit B. unidentified C. unknown D. useful
16. We had to cancel the game, ................... it was raining hard.
A. because B. and C. or D. so
17. I’ve ............. my glasses everywhere but I can’t find them anywhere.
A. looked at B. looked in C. looked for D. looked up
18. Lan is very poor, but she studies vey well.
A. Though Lan is very poor, but she studies vey well.
B. Lan is very poor, and she studies vey well.
C. Lan is very poor, so she studies vey well.
D. Lan is very poor, however she studies vey well.
Thomas Edison was born in Milan, Ohio, in 1847. His family moved to Port Huron,
Michigan, when he was seven years old. Surprisingly, he attended school for only two months. His
mother, a former teacher, taught him a few things, but Thomas was mostly self-educated. His natural
curiosity led him to start experimenting at a young age. Thomas Edison lit up the world with his invention
of the electric light. Although the electric light was the most useful, it was not his only invention. He also
invented the record player, the motion picture camera, and over 1,200 other things. About every two weeks
he created something new. He worked 16 out of every 24 hours. Sometimes he worked so intensely that
his wife had to remind him to sleep and eat.
Thomas Edison died in 1931, in West Orange, New Jersey. He left numerous inventions that
improved the quality of life all over the world.
19. Thomas Edison was ______________.
62
A. a discoverer B. a teacher C. an explorer D. an inventor
20. In 1854 Edison’s family ______________.
A. moved to Port Huron, Michigan B. bought a new house in Milan, Ohio
C. decided to settle in Milan, Ohio D. sent him to a school in New Jersey
21. The word “self-educated” in the passage mostly means ______________.
A. “having been well taught” B. “having had good schooling”
C. “having taught himself” D. “having had a high education”
22. How often did he create something new ? ______________
A. every week. B. every three weeks.
C. every half a month D. every two months
23. Edison died at the age of ______________.
A. 76 B. 84 C. 47 D. 74
24. Which of following statements is NOT true about Edison? ______________
A. He invented the motion picture camera. B. He worked very hard.
C. He made numerous inventions. D. He didn’t go to school at all.
to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks: (2p)
The problem of ..........(25)..........or energy always causes serious matter, even leads to wars. Let’s
look out our windows. During the day, the ..........(26)..........gives out light and heats energy. At night, our
streets and houses become colourful with electric lamps. ..........(27).......... gasoline, our cars could not
even ..........(28).......... . Everything needs energy. Energy can be found in a ..........(29).......... of different
forms. However, gasoline is ..........(30).......... important form. Due to gasoline, many Arabic
..........(31).......... such as Kuweit, Quatar, or Iran become richer. There used to be wars so as to control
gasoline ..........(32)..........
A B C D
25 oil gasoline power control
26 moon sun star sky
27 Unless If not But Without
28 start run begin move
29 lots number amount digit
30 the best the better the more the most
31 countries areas cities worlds
32 shops supplies resources places
33. I suggest to have a separate basket for wastepaper.
A B C D
34. She is exciting that a lot of her friends will come to her party.
A B C D
35. I like the book which Tom told me to read it.

A B C D
36. In this city, there are too much exhaust fume in the air.
A B C D
37. I think we should out different kinds of waste in different baskets.
63
A. I suggest putting different kinds of waste in different baskets.
B. I suggest to have put different kinds of waste in different baskets.
C. I suggest that we shall put different kinds of waste in different baskets.
D. I suggest puting different kinds of waste in different baskets.
38. My brother plays the guitar well.
A. My brother is well the guitar player. B. My brother is the well played guitarist.
C. My brother is a good guitar player. D. My brother is good play guitarist.
39. Ba: That’s a great picture, Hoa.
Hoa:………………
A. No problem B. It’s nice of you to say so.
C. You’re welcome D. That’s right
40. “My father couldn’t fix the TV set.” “………………… send for a repairman?”.
A. Let’s B. Could you C. I suggest D. Why don’t you
……………………………………………….. HẾT……………….…………………….
TEST 20
point)
1. A. pollution B. plumber C. funnel D. thunderstorm
2. A. environment B. appliance C. distinguish D. highlands
3. A. evidence B. priority C. considerate D. effective
4. A. faucet B. sewage C. sticky D. receive
5. A. regularly B. silly C. ultimately D .recently
6. A. pesticide B. garbage C. treasure D. dynamite
7.If the sea water continues to be polluted, many fish species …………… extinct.
A. become B. becomes C. would become D. will become
8.Our electricity bill is…………… We can’t pay them.
A. generous B. enormous C. humorous D. ancient
9.Last summer vacation, we spent our holiday in Hue, …………. is a beautiful city.
A. which B. where C. that D. who
10.………….. means a very strong wind that goes quickly around in a circle.
A. Earthquake B. Tidal wave C. Tornado D. Typhoon
11.If I …………… an alien from outer space, I would invite him to my home.
A. met B. meet C. have met D. would meet
12.Many tourists enjoy festivals in Viet Nam …………… they do not understand Vietnamese culture very
much.
A. despite B. though C. because D. and
64
13.We are …………….. that people have destroyed this beach.
A. happy B. excited C. disappointed D. pleased
14.Keep your neighborhood …………… or you will not have an ideal place to live.
A. unpolluted B. polluted C. cleanly D. dirty
15.The teachers suggested ………………. garbage bins around the school yard.
A. puting B. put C. puts D. putting
16.The volume on TV is low. Can you turn it ……………, dear?
A. down B. on C. up D. off
17.Tom failed the Math test. …………….., he has to do it again.
A. However B. Therefore C. So D. Because
18.Areas around the Hong Delta will …………….. clouds tomorrow.
A. collapse B. erupt C. damage D. expect
Maybe you recycle cans, glass, paper and metal. Did you know that nature recycles, too? One of the
things nature recycles is water. Water goes from the ocean, lakes and rivers into the air. Water falls from the air
as rain or snow. Rain and snow eventually find their way back to the ocean. Nature’s recycling process for
water is called the water cycle. The water cycle has four stages: storage, evaporation, precipitation and run-off.
Water on Earth gets stored in oceans, lakes, rivers, ice and even underground. Water goes from storage into the
atmosphere by a process called evaporation. When water evaporates, it changes from a liquid into a gas, called
water vapor. Water vapor goes up into the atmosphere. Water returns to Earth as precipitation in rain or snow
by changing into drops of water when the air gets cold enough. Clouds are collections of water droplets. Most
precipitation falls into the oceans and goes right back into storage.
Water that falls on land always flows from higher places to lower ones - This flow is called run-off.
Water from land flows into streams. Streams join together to make rivers and eventually the water flows into
storage in the ocean, then the water cycle starts all over again.
19. What can nature recycle ?
A. Cans, glass, paper and metal B. Ocean C. Lakes and rivers D. Water
20. In recycling, where does water go from ?
A. From rivers, lakes to oceans B. From oceans to lakes
C. From the ocean into lakes, rivers and ponds D. From oceans, lakes and rivers into the air
21. What is nature’s recycling process for water called ?
A. Water cycle B. Waterfall C. Run-off D. Water vapor
22. In what way, does water go from storage into the atmosphere ?
A. By a process called precipitation B. By a process called evaporation
C. By tornadoes D. By moving of air
23. When water evaporates, how does it change ?
A. From the air as rain or snow B. From water vapor up into the atmosphere
C. From a gas into a liquid called water vapor D. From a liquid into a gas called water vapor
24. How does water form and return to Earth ?
A. Water boils and evaporates into the air
B. Water ice melts into water and runs off on land
C. Water vapor precipitates into droplets and then they fall
D. Water freezes to clouds and water droplets and falls to Earth
65
A space exploration is a space travel to discover the nature of the universe beyond the Earth. Since
ancient times, people have dreamed of leaving their home . . .(25) . . . to explore other worlds. In the later
half of the 20th century, that dream became true. The space . . .(26). . . began with the . . .(27). . . of the
first artificial satellites in 1957. in 1961, a human first went into space. Since then. . . .(28). . . have
traveled into space for greater lengths of time and even lived in space . . (29) . . . for more than a year. Two
dozen people have visited flown around the Moon or walked on its surface. . . .(30) . . .explorers have
visited where humans could not come. Spacecraft . . .(31). . . have supplied a lot of . . .(32). . . discoveries
about the solar system, the Milky Way Galaxy, and the universe; and they have given humanity a new
perspective on the Earth and its neighbors in space.
25. A. star B. space C. universe D. planet
26. A. duration B. age C. times D. period
27. A. launch B. arrival C. coming D. going
28. A. astronauts B. scientists C. pilots D. inventors
29. A. pauses B. places C. stations D. plants
30. A. Machine B. Robot C. Engine D. Equipment
31. A. studies B. learns C. investigates D. examines
32. A. scientist B. science C. scientism D. scientific
33.The planet where is closest to the Earth is Venus.
A B C D
34.Jim could see the main part of the show because he came to the show late.
A B C D
35.I suggest we should took a shower instead of a bath to save water.

A B C D
36.This football player has worked very hardly to win the match.
A B C D
37. Why don’t we recycle waste paper to save trees in the forests?
A. We must recycle waste paper to save trees in the forests.
B. How about recycle waste paper to save trees in the forests?
C. Let’s recycle waste paper to save trees in the forests?
D. Shall we recycle waste paper to save trees in the forests?
38.They made too many mistakes in their papers, so they failed their last exam.
A. They made too many mistakes in their papers as they failed their last exam.
B. Although they made too many mistakes in their papers, they failed their last exam.
C. They failed their last exam because of making too many mistakes in their papers.
D. They made too many mistakes in their papers, but they passed their last exam.
39.Hoa has lost her new calculator. She has ……............. it everywhere and she can’t find it anywhere.
A. looked after B. looked for C. turned on D. turned off
40.We produce too much garbage every day. We can reduce it by ______ .
A. reusing and recycling bottles and cans. B. planting more trees along the streets.
C. using public buses instead of motorbikes. D. taking showers
66
…………………………………………….…….. HẾT ……………………………..………….
67
68

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BỘ ĐỀ ÔN TUYỂN SINH 10 NĂM HỌC 2023-2024

Question 19. Why does the writer write this passage?

Question 11. Ann is interested ________ history.

-------------------------------------------------- HẾT ----------------------------------------------

I. PHẦN CHUNG - BẮT BUỘC (6.0 pts)

25. A. invent B. inventor C. invention D. inventory

27. What is the best title for the passage?

………………………………………………….. HẾT ……………………………………..…….

……………………………………………….... HẾT ………………………………………….….

A. has transformed education B. enhances students’ perfomance

Question 39: …………………., she refused to tell him

……………………………………………….. HẾT ……………………………….……….

………………………………………………….. HẾT …………………………………….……….

………………………………………………….. HẾT ……………………………………………….

……………………………………………….. HẾT ………………………..……………….

………………………………………..…….. HẾT ………………………..…………….

A. arrive B. occur C. achieve D. experience

35. I like the book which Tom told me to read it.

35.I suggest we should took a shower instead of a bath to save water.

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