​ PMDC MCQS BOOK

CHEMISTRY MCQS BOOK 2024

ETEA, UHS, DOW
SZABMU, BMU
REGARD MCQS STUDY CORNER
MDCAT-STUFF
CHAPTER WISE MCQS WITH KEY
ACCORDING TO PMDC SALYBUS

___________________
FUNDAMENTAL CONCEPT OF CHEMISTRY
Introduction to Fundamental Concepts Of Chemistry
Q. 1 Which of the following is not macromolecule?
A. Haemoglobin
B. Lipoprotein
C. Maltose
D. Cellulose
Q.2 Which set represents pure compounds only
A. Air, Alloy, Table salt.
B. Glucose, Sucrose, water gas
C. Milk, aspartame, serotenin
D. None
Q.3 Haemoglobin molecule istimes then heavier Hz
A. 10, 000 B. 68, 000
C. 1000 D. 34,000
Q.4 Which of the following elements has maximum number of
isotopes?
A. Ca. B. Pd
C. Cd D. Sn
Q.5 Fractional atomic masses can be calculated from
A. Number of peaks
B. Relative abundance of isotopes
C. Number of isotopes
D. Average mass of isotopes
Q. 6 CN-1 is iso-electronic with
A. H2O B. CO
C. CO2 D. NH.
Q. 7 Which of the following statement is wrong about isotopes?
A. They possess different mass number
B. They possess same chemical properties
C. They possess different physical properties
D. They possess different position in the periodic table
Q. 8 Bromine has two isotopes having relative abundance as
and the average atomic mass of bromine is about
A. 81 B. 79
C. 80 D. 80.5
Q. 9 Which one of the following has maximum number of
isotopes?
A. Na B. Cd
C. S D. Ni
Q. 10 An atom of carbon is twelve times heavier than atom
A. H. B. Ne C. He. D.Li

Q. 11 How many numbers of electrons are present in 4.2g of

azide ion?
A. 2.1 NA B. 2.2 NA
C. 21 NA D. 22 NA
Q. 12 If we take same mass of following elements, largest
number of atoms will be in
A. Fe (56) B. Ca (40)
C. Ni (59) D. Mn (55)
Q. 13 The number of moles of CH4 which contains 3.0g of
Carbon
A. 1.0. B. 0.75
C. 0.5. D. 0.25
Q. 14 4g H: reacts with 32.0g O2 to produce water. Which of the
following statements is correct?
A. H2-limiting reactant
B. O2-non-limiting reactant
C. 2.0 mole water is produced
D. I mole water is produced
Q. 15 2.8g of N: molecule contains number of chemical bonds
A. 6.02 x 1022
B. 1.204 x 1023
C. 1.8 x 1023
D. 1.8 ? 1022
Q. 16 The number of moles of KMnO4 that contain 1 mole of
oxygen
A. 2 moles
B. 0.5 moles
C. 0.25 moles
D. 1.5 moles
Q. 17 1 mole of CH:OH and C:HsOH have equal number
A. C-Atoms
B. H-atoms
C. O-Atoms
D. Electrons
Q. 18 The number of hydrogen atoms in 36 g of NH4+1 is
approximately
A. 2NA B. 6NA
C. 4NA. D. 8NA
Q. 19 A sample of 100cm3 of dilute H2SO4 contains 0.1 moles of
acid. What is hydrogen ion concentration in the solution per
dm3?
A. 2 moles B. 0.50 moles
C. 0.25 moles D. 1 mole
Q. 20 The number of oxygen atoms contained in 1000 g of water
is
A. 6.02 x 1023 B. 3.3410 x 1025
C. 6.692 x 1025 D. 55.5
Q. 21 Eight grams of methane occupies volume at STP
A. 22.4 dm3 B. 2.24 dm3
C. 1.12 dm3 D. 11.2 dm3
Q. 22 The number of molecules in 89.6 dm3 of a gas at 0?C and 1
atm pressure is?
A. 6.02?1023
B. 1.806?1024
C. 1.204?1024
D. 2.408x 1024
Q. 23 15 gram of a gas occupies 11.2 dm3 at S.T.P, the gas
A. CO B. NO
C. CO2 D. N.O
Q. 24 Which one is incorrect relation at STP?
A. 6g of carbon = 3.01 1023 atoms
B. 11.2 dm3 of CO2 - 3.01 1023 molecules
C. 49 g of H2SO4 = 4 moles of atoms
D. 1 mole of sucrose--45moles of atoms
Q. 25 If a piece of copper weighs 0.635g how many atoms does it
contain (Cu = 63.5 amu)
A. 6.023 x 1021
B. 6.02 x 1022
C. 6.023 x 1023
D. 6.02 ? 1024

Q. 26 Avogadro's number is the number of molecules present in

A. 11.2 dm3 at STP
B. 22400 cm3 at STP
C. 1000 cm3 at STP
D. 1 cm3 at STP

Q. 27 What volume is occupied by a mixture of 0.5g H2, 16g O2

and 7.0g Nz
A. 2.24 dm3
B. 22.4 dm3
C. 0.224 dm3
D. 11.2 dm

Q. 28 Which of the following will weigh more?

A, 10g Pe
B. 1.6 g atom of N
C. 2 x 1023 atoms of C
D. 11.2 dm3 of O2 at STP

Q. 29 2.24 dm3 of CO: gas at S.T.P has mass

A. 28g. B. 2.8g
C. 44g. D. 4.4g

Q. 30 Block of metals Mg, Al, Fe, Zn of each mass 100g. The

maximum number of atoms are present in a block of metal.
A. Mg B. Al
C. Zn. D. Fe

Q. 31 Which of the following term is not used for ionic

compounds?
A. Formula unit
B. Empirical formula
C. Molecular formula
D. Formula Mass

Q. 32 A compound with empirical formula CHO: and molecular

mass 90g / mole. The molecular formula of a compound is
A. C6H1206
B. (COOH)2
C. C12H22011
D. HCOOH

Q. 33 An acid with molecular mass 104 contains 34.6%C, 3.85% H

and rest is O the molecular formula of acid is
A. C3H404
B. C2H204
C. C2H2O
D. C2HO2

34 Elemental analysis is performed to determine

A. Molar mass of the compound
B. Structural formula of a compound
C. Empirical formula of a compound
D. Mass of halogen present in a compound

Q.35 CH2O is the empirical formula of

A. C12H2O11
B. CH2(OH)CH2(OH)
C. CH3. CH(OH). COOH
D. CH,CH

Q. 36 An unknown compound has empirical formula CH30. Its

molar mass is 62g/mole. The compound may be (write
formulas)
A. CH2(OH)CH(OH)CH2(OH)
B. CH3COOH3
C. CH2(OH)CH2(OH)
D. C2HsOH
Q. 37 While determine molecular formula, the simple multiple
'n' is not unity for
A. H2O. B. H2O2
C. C12H22011 D. CO2

Q. 38 A compound contains 50% S and 50% O by mass. The

empirical formula of compound is
A. SO2 B. S2O3
C. SO3 D. SO

Q. 39 A compound with empirical formula CHO2 and molecular

mass 90g / mole. The molecular formula of the compound is
A. C6H1206
B. (COOH)2 C.
C12H22011
D. HCOOH

ANSWER KEY
1C. 2D. 3D. 4D. 5B.
6B. 7D. 8C. 9B. 10A.
11B. 12B. 13D. 14C.
15C. 16C. 17C. 18D.
19A. 20B. 21D. 22D.
23B. 24C. 25A. 26B.
27B. 28B. 29D. 30A.
31C. 32B. 33A. 34C.
35C. 36C. 37B. 38A. 39B.

________________
S AND P BLOCK ELEMENT
1. The group 1 elements are named as alkali metals because
A. Their oxides are basic
B. Their oxide and hydroxides are water soluble
C. Both a & b
D. They are found in the earth

2. The word Alkali means

A. Base
B. Basic salt
C. Ashes
D. Spirit

3. The formula of Chile saltpetre is

A. NaNO3
B. CaCO3
C. Ba (NO3)2
D. NH4Cl

4. The elements which are very abundant in earth crust are

A. Si & AI
B. Ca & Mg
C. B & AI
D. All

5. The oxides of beryllium BeO is

A. Acidic
B. Basic
C. Amphoteric
D. Neutral

6. Which element is necessary for normal leaf development?

A. Si
B. Ba
C. Mg
D. Ca

7. Li is different from its family members due to

A. Small size
B. High charge density
C. Less electropositivity
D. All of the above

8. Carbonates of lithium are not stable like that of sodium due

to
A. Low electronegativity
B. Low electropositivity
C. Low charge density
D. Not known yet

9. Nitrates of which pair of elements gives different products

on thermal decomposition?
A. Na K
B. Mg Ca
C. Li Na
D. Li Ca

10. Which one of the following is not an alkali metal?

A. Francium
B. Caesium
C. Rubidium
D. Radium

11. Which of the following sulphates is not soluble in water?

A. Sodium sulphate
B. Potassium sulphate
C. Zinc sulphate
D. Barium sulphate

12. The element caesium bears resemblance with

A. Ca
B. Cr
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above

13. The ore CaSO4.H2O has the general name

A. Gypsum
B. Dolomite
C. Calcite
D. Plaster of Paris
14. Downs cell is used to prepare
A. Sodium carbonate
B. Sodium bicarbonate
C. Sodium metal
D. Sodium hydroxide

15. Which element is produced at the cathode during the

electrolysis of brine in Nelson’s cell?
A. H2
B. Na
C. CO2
D. O2

16. Ammonia may be prepared by heating ammonium chloride

with
A. Water
B. NaCl
C. Aqueous sodium hydroxide
D. H2SO4

17. Calcium carbide is prepared by heating lime with coke at

A. 2500°C
B. 2600°C
C. 2700°C
D. 2800°C

18. Crystals of Na2CO3. 10H2O when exposed to air

A. Lose water and remain solid
B. Gain water and remain solid
C. Gain water and become liquid
D. Remains unchanged

19. Which one of the following substances conduct electricity

by the movement of ions?
A. Graphite
B. Copper
C. Molten sodium chloride
D. Mercury

20. Which one of the following gives the white precipitate with
an aqueous solution of BaCO2?
A. NaHCO3
B. NaNO3
C. Na2CO3
D. Na2CrO4

___________________
TRANSMISSION ELEMENT
1. Newland classified the number of elements in the increasing
order of their atomic mass is
(A) 62
(B) 64
(C) 66
(D) 68
Answer. A ,

2. Mendeleev’s periodic table has number of groups and

number of periods
(A) 6, 7
(B) 8, 7
(C) 8, 12
(D) 7, 8
Answer. C

3. Uniqueness of Mendeleev’s periodic table is that

(A) Atomic mass of element
(B) Classified elements into 12 periods
(C) Placed Na, K with Ca and Mg
(D) He left empty spaces for undiscovered elements
Answer. D

4. Which is the drawback of Mendeleev’s periodic table?

(A) He placed alkali metal with alkaline earth metal
(B) He could not specify the position of isotopes
(C) He could not explain the structure of atom
(D) Both a and b
Answer. D

5. For which of the element, separate group was not mentioned

in the Mendeleef’s
periodic table?
(A) IV A (
(B) VIII A
C) VI A
(D) II A
Answer . B

6. Which of the scientist experimentally proved that element

should be arranged in the
periodic table on the basis of atomic numbers and not on the
basis of atomic mass
(A) Mendeleeve
(B) Newland
(C) Dobereiner
(D) Mosley
Answer. D

7. f-block elements are also called

(A) Outer transition element earth elements
(B) Inner transition elements
(C) Alkaline
(D) Coinage metal
Answer. B

8. Keeping in view the size of atoms, which order is the correct

one:
(A) Mg > Sr
(B) Ba > Mg
(C) Lu > Ce
(D) Cl > I
Answer. B

9. Which of the elements has comparatively greater reduction

in size
(A) Lanthanide series
(B) Actinide series
(C) Chalcogen
(D) Halogen
Answer. A

10. Which statement is incorrect

(A) Size of the positive ion is smaller than its parent atom
(B) Size of the negative ion is greater than its parent atom
(C) In positive ion, number of proton exceed the number of
electrons
(D) In negative ion, number of proton exceed the number of
electrons
Answer. C

11. Which of the species is not isoelectromic others

(A) F-1
(B) N-3
(C) O-2
(D) C-3
Answer. D

12. Which has highest value of ionization energy

(A) He
(B) N
(C) O
(D) F
Answer A

13. Which element has greater 1st ionization energy?

(A) Lithium
(B) Sodium
(C) Beryllium
(D) Boron
Answer . C

14. Which element is the most electro positive in periodic

table?
(A) Barium
(B) Calcium
(C) Potassium
(D) Cesium
Answer. D

15. Which of the following elements has greatest value of first

ionization energy
(A) N
(B) O
(C) C
(D) B
Answer. A

16. Which halogen has greatest value of electron affinity

(A) F
(B) C1
(C) Br
(D) I
Answer. B

17. Ionization energy is the index to the metallic character. The

elements which have
(A) Low energy – metal energy – non metal
(B) Intermediate - metalloid
(C) High ionization
(D) All of the above
Answer. A

18. Which is correct statement?

(A) 1st electron affinity value is always negative
(B) Term electro negativity is associated with molecule
(C) Electron affinity is associated with atom
(D) All of the above
Answer. D

19. The melting point and boiling point is highest for

(A) N2
(B) Be
(C) C
(D) Na
Answer. D
20. Which of the element is the best conductor of electricity?
(A) Zn
(B) Fe
(C) Cu
(D) Ca
Answer. C

21. The melting point is highest for:

(A) Ca
(B) S
(C) Be
(D) Ba
Answer. C

22. The 1st I.E energies of Na, Mg, Al and S are in the order:
(A) Na > Mg > Al > Si
(B) Na < Mg > Al < Si
(C) Na > Mg > Al < Si
(D) Na < Mg < Al < Si
Answer. D

23. Which of the following have similar properties?

(A) 13, 31
(B) 11, 20
(C) 12, 10
(D) 21, 33
Answer. A
24. The highest ionization energy is shown by:
(A) Alkaline earth metal
(B) Halogens
(C) Noble gases
(D) Transition elements
Answer. C

25. On descending a group, electropositive character of

elements:
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remain same
(D) None
Answer. A

26. In a period, the alkali metals have:

(A) Highest ionization energy
(B) Largest atomic radii
(C) Highest density
(D) Highest electronegativity
Answer . B

27. Which of the following has the largest ionic radius?

(A) Be2+
(B) Mg2+
(C) Ca2+
(D) Sr2+
Answer. D
28. Which of the following has first two electron affinities zero?
(A) Na
(B) N
(C) C
(D) None
Answer. D

29. Which one of the following properties is common to Li, Na

and K?
(A) All the elements form hydride
(B) High 2nd I.P
(C) High ionic radius
(D) High electronegativity
Answer. B

30. Which of the following is correct order for the decreasing

1st I.E energy?
(A) C > B > Be > Li
(B) C > Be > B > Li
(C) B > C > Be > Li
(D) Be > Li > B > C
Answer. B

31. Which of the period consists of all types of elements?

(A) 2nd and 3rd
(B) 4th and 5th
(C) 6th and 7th
(D) All period
Answer. C

32. Which of the following element possess greatest value of

electronegativity when
combined with hydrogen?
(A) Be
(B) Na
(C) C
(D) Cl
Answer. D

33. The decrease in atomic sizes is not much prominent across

rows containing elements of:
(A) s-block
(B) p-block
(C) d-block
(D) f-block
Answer. A

34. Which of the following will form largest ion with noble gas
electronic configuration?
(A) Al
(B) K
(C) P
(D) S
Answer. C

35. 7th period of the periodic table contains normal elements:

(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 8
Answer. A

36Which of the following properties increases up to the middle

of the period and then
decreases?
(A) Ionization energy
(B) Melting and boiling point
(C) Atomic radii
(D) Atomic volume
Answer. B

___________________
HYDROCARBON
1. Which condition can be used for hydrogenation of ethene:
A. Pt/Pd, 250C, 1 atm
B. Ni, 2500C, 1-5 atm
C. Raney Ni, 1000C, 3 atm
D. All of these
Answer. D

2. Ethyne on treatment with HBr finally give:

A. 1, 2-dibromoethane
B. 1, 1-dibromoethane
C. 1,2-dibromoethene
D. 1,1-dibromoethene
Answer. B

03. Most stable carbocation is:

A. Tertiar
B. Primary
C.Secondary
D. Methyl
Answer. A

04. 2-Bromobutane reacts with alcoholic KOH to give:

A. 1-Butene
B. 1-Butanol
C. 2-Butene
D. 2-Butanol
Answer. C

05. Baeyer's reagent is:

A. 1% Cold alkaline KMnO4
B. 1% hot acidified potassium dichromate
C. (R)3Al and TiCl4
D. Liquid ammonia
Answer. A

06. Alkenes undergo:

A. Addition polymerization
B. Condensation polymerization
C. Addition elimination polymerization

D. Both "B" and " 𝐶 "

Answer. A

07. Polymerization of ethene to polyethene takes place in the

presence of:
A. C2H5 4Pb
B. CH3 4 Pb and TiCl4
C. Al C2H5 3 and TiCl4
D. Zn/HCl
Answer. C

08. Propagation of free radical mechanism takes place by the:

A. Reaction of free radical with free radical
B. Formation of two free radicals
C. Consumption as well as production of another free radical
D. Reaction between two molecules
Answer. C

09. Dehydration of alcohols with conc. H2SO4 at 180∘C gives:

A. Ethers
B. Esters
C. Alkenes
D. Alkyl halides
Answer. C
10. Dehydrohalogenation of RX occurs in the presence of:
A. An alcoholic base
B. An alcoholic acid
C. An alcoholic salt
D. An alcoholic Grignard reagent
Answer. A

11. Which of the following is not used for the dehydration of

alcohols:
A. P4O10
B. HNO3
C. H2SO4
D. H3PO4
Answer. B

12. Which of the following test can be used for distinguishing

an alkane
and an alkene
A. Bromine water test
B. Hydroxylation
C. Ozonolysis
D. Both "A" and "B"
Answer. D

13. Hydroxylation of alkenes produce

A. Diols
B. Vicinal diols
C. Geminal diols
D. Mono-ols
Answer. B

14. In addition of HCl to CH3CH = CH2, which one will be added

first:
A. Cl+
B. Cl−1
C. H+

D. H∘
Answer. C

15. Which of the following is most reactive to give electrophilic

addition
reactions
A. Alkane
B. Alkene
C. Benzene
D. Alkyne
Answer . B

16. Acetone is prepared by the hydration of

A. Ethyne
B. Propyne
C. Ethane
D. Propane
Answer. B
17. Which of the following compound reacts with sodium to
yield
hydrogen gas
A. CH3 − CH3
B. CH3 − CH = CH2
C. CH ≡ CH
D. CH3 − C ≡ C − CH3
Answer. C

18. Ethene on polymerization, give the product polyethene, this

reaction may be called as
A. Addition
B. Substitution
C. Condensation
D. Pyrolysis
Answer. A

19. Order of reactivity of hydrogen halide with alkenes is

A. HBr > HI > HCl
B. HF > HI > HCl
C. HI > HBr > HF
D. HI > HBr > HCl
Answer. D

20. Which of the following reactions is used for the production

of
alcohols on industrial scale
A. Hydrohalogenation of alkenes
B. Hydration of alkenes
C. Hydroxylation of alkenes
D. Hydrogenation of alkenes
Answer. B

21. A gas decolorizes alkaline KMnO4 solution but does not give
any
PPT with ammonical AgNO3
A. Methane
B. Ethylene
C. Ethane
D. None of the above
Answer. B

22. In the reaction sequence:H3C-CH2-CH2-Br+AlcKOH⟶

Product D will be
A. Mixture of methanol and ethanol
B. 2-propanol
C. I-Propanol
D. Propanoic acid
Answer. B

23. Ethyne molecule is formed when two carbon atoms joined

together
to form a sigma bond only
A. sp-s overlap
B. sp-sp overlap
C. sp2-sp2 overlap
D. 2py-2py overlap
Answer. B

24. In the nitration of benzene with conc. HNO3 + conc. H2SO4,

the active
species involved is known as:
A. Nitrite ion
B. Nitrate ion
C. Nitrosonium ion
D. Nitronium ion
Answer. D

25. Which of the following is produced by the action of CH3Cl

on
benzene in presence of AlCl3 followed by oxidation in the
presence
of acidified KMnO4
A. Toluene
B. o-Xylene
C. m-Xylene
D. Benzoic acid
Answer . D

26. The C − C bond length in benzene is:

A. Less than alkyne
B. More than alkane
C.Less than alkane
D. Less than alkene
Answer. C

27. Most reactive compound among the following:

A. Benzene
B. Benzoic acid
C. Nitrobenzene
D. Ethyl benzene
Answer. D

28. Which group deactivates the benzene ring?

A. −NH2
B. −CHO
C. −OR
D. −OH
Answer. D

29. The major product of nitration of benzoic acid:

A. 3-Nitrobenzoic acid
B. 4-Nitrobenzoic acid
C. 2-Nitrobenzoic acid
D. 2,4-Dinitrobenzoic acid
Answer. A

30. How many 𝜋 electrons are there in benzene to form

delocalized
electronic cloud?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 8
D. 6
Answer. D

31. Benzoic acid is the only oxidation product along with

formation

H2O and CO2, of an organic compound 𝐴, when 𝐴 is treated

with

acidified potassium dichromate, 𝐴 is

A. Ethyl benzene
B. Benzoyl halide
C. Aniline
D. Benzophenone
Answer. A

32. Which of the following compound react slower than

benzene in
electrophilic substitution reaction:
A. Nitrobenzene
B. Phenol
C. Aniline
D. Toluene
Answer. A

33. Among the following, which one has electron withdrawing

effect:
A. −NH2
B. - CHO
C. −N CH3 2
D. −I
Answer. B

34. Total number of hybrid orbitals of all the carbon atoms in

benzene
are:
A. 3
B. 6
C. 12
D. 18
Answer. D

___________________
ALKYL HALIDE
1. What will be the products when reactants are alcohol &
thionyl chloride in the presence of pyridine?
A. RCl+S+HCl
B. RCI+SO2+HCl
C. RCl+SO2+H2O
D. RCl+S+H2O
Answer: Option B

2. Which C-X bond has the highest bond energy per mole?
A. C-F
B. C-Cl
C. C-Br
D. C-I
Answer: Option A

3. Which alkyl halide has the highest reactivity for a particular

alkyl group?
A. R-F
B. R-Cl
C. R-Br
D. R-I
Answer: Option D

4. Ethyl chloride with nascent hydrogen produces

A. Methane
B. Ethane
C. Propane
D. Butane
Answer: Option B

5. Which one is not a nucleophile?

A. C2H5O-
B. SCN-
C. NH3
D. H3C+
Answer: Option D

6. The number of molecules taking part in the rate determining

step is called
A. Order of reaction
B. Rate of reaction
C. The mole of a reaction
D. The extent of a reaction
Answer: Option A

7. During SN2 mechanism carbon atom changes its state of

hybridization as
A. sp→sp2
B. sp2→sp3
C. sp3→sp
D. sp3→sp2
Answer: Option D

8. What will be the order of reaction of a reaction whose rate

can be expressed as R = K [A] [B]?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: Option C

9. Which one among the following is not a good leaving group?

A. HSO4
B. CI-
C. OH-
D. Br-
Answer: Option C
10. What is the order of kinetics in the SN1 mechanism?
A. Zero
B. First
C. Second
D. Third
Answer: Option B

11. Which alkyl halide out of the following may follow both SN1
and SN2 mechanism?
A. CH3-X
B. (CH3)3 C-CH2 – X
C. (CH3)2 CH – X
D. (CH3)3 C – X
Answer: Option C

12. In elimination reactions of alkyl halide which site is more

susceptible for the attack of base
A. – carbon
B. – chlorine
C. – oxygen
D. – hydrogen
Answer: Option D

13. When two moles of ethyl chloride react with two moles of
sodium in the presence of ether what will be formed?
A. 2 moles of ethane
B. 1 mole of ethane
C. 2 moles of butane
D. 1 mole of butane
Answer: Option D

14. The ether used in Wurtz synthesis is

A. Acidic
B. Basic
C. Aqueous
D. Dry
Answer: Option D

15. When CO2 is made to react with ethyl magnesium iodide

followed by acid hydrolysis the product formed is
A. Propane
B. Propanoic acid
C. Propanal
D. Propanol
Answer: Option B

16. The Grignard reagent is reactive due to

A. The presence of a halogen atom
B. The presence of magnesium atom
C. The polarity of the C-Mg bond
D. All
Answer: Option C

17. The SN2 reaction can be best carried out with

A. Primary alkyl halide
B. Secondary alkyl halide
C. Tertiary alkyl halide
D. All
Answer: Option A

18. Elimination bimolecular reactions involve

A. First order kinetics
B. Second order kinetics
C. Third order kinetics
D. Zero order kinetics
Answer: Option B

19. For which mechanisms the first step involved is the same?
A. E1 + E2
B. E2 + SN2
C. E1 and SN1
D. SN1 and SN2
Answer: Option C

20. The rate of E1 reaction depends upon

A. Tthe concentration of substrate
B. The concentration of nucleophile
C. The concentration of substrate as well as the nucleophile
D. Base the concentration of substrate as well as a nucleophile
Answer: Option A

21. Alkyl halides are considered to be very reactive compounds

towards nucleophile because
A. They have an electrophilic carbon
B. They have an electrophilic carbon & a good leaving group
C. They have an electrophilic carbon & a bad leaving group
D. They have a nucleophilic carbon & a good leaving group
Answer: Option B

22. Which one of the following species is not an electrophile?

A. NH3
B. Br+
C. H+
D. BF3
Answer: Option A

23. Which one of the following reactants will be required to

form straight chain alcohol by using Grignard reagent
A. Formaldehyde
B. Ketone
C. Ethylene epoxide
D. Both A & C
Answer: Option D

24. Which one of the following alcohols will be formed when

ethyl magnesium bromide reacts with acetone?
A. Primary alcohol
B. Secondary alcohol
C. Tertiary alcohol
D. Dihydric alcohol
Answer: Option C
25. Which one of the following molecules does not form alcohol
when reacts with Grignard reagent?
A. Formaldehyde
B. Acetaldehyde
C. Propanone
D. Carbon dioxide
Answer: Option D

26. In primary alkyl halides, the halogen atom is attached to a

carbon which is further attached to how many carbon atoms
A. 2
B. 3
C. 1
D. 4
Answer: Option C

27. Ethylene epoxide treated with Grignard reagent followed by

acid hydrolysis yield
A. Primary alcohol
B. Secondary alcohol
C. Tertiary alcohol
D. Dihydric alcohol
Answer: Option A

28. The best method of preparation of alkyl halides is a reaction

of the alcohol with
A. Zn / HCI
B. SOCl2 / Pyridine
C. PCI3
D. PCI5
Answer: Option B

29. Alkyl halides undergo a type of reaction

A. Nucleophilic substitution
B. Nucleophilic Addition
C. Elimination
D. Both A & C
Answer: Option D

30. 50% inversion of configuration of molecules take place in a

A. E1 – reaction
B. E2 – reaction
C. SN1 – reaction
D. SN2 – reaction
Answer: Option C

__________________
ALCOHOL AND PHENOLE

1. Which alcohol is most acidic?

A) Methanol
B) Isopropyl alcohol
C) Ethanol
D) t-butyl alcohol
Answer. A
2. Ethanol can be distinguished from methanol by the use of
A) Tollen’s reagent
B) l2 + NaOH
C) Fehling’s solution
D) AgNO3(aq)
Answer. B

3. Number of isomers represented by molecular formula

C4H10O is
A) 3
B) 4
C) 7
D) 10
Answer. B

4. The order of reactivity of alcohols towards halogen acid is

A) Primary > secondary > tertiary
B) Tertiary > secondary > primary
C) Primary = secondary = tertiary
D) Primary > secondary > tertiary
Answer. B

5. On treatment with Lucas reagent, there is appearance of an

oily layer at once. This is a
A) Primary alcohol
B) Tertiary alcohol
C) Secondary alcohol
D) Isobutyl alcohol
Answer. B

6. Ethyl iodide on treatment with dry Ag2O will yield

A) Ethyl alcohol
B) Ethyl methyl ether
C) Diethyl ether
D) Ethylene
Answer. C
7. Methanol and ethanol are soluble in water due to
A) Their acidic character
B) Dissociation in water
C) Hydrogen bonding
D) Alkyl groups
Answer. C

8. When CH3Mgl is to react with acetone and the addition

product is hydrolysed we get
A) Primary alcohol
B) Tertiary alcohol
C) Secondary alcohol
D) and aldehyde
Answer. B

9. Which of the following type of alcohol is prepared from

inorganic source
A) Methanol
B) 1-propenol
C) Ethanol
D) 1-butanol
Answer. A

10. Which of the following types of enzymes is required to

convert starch into maltose
A) Invertase
B) Diastase
C) Zymase
D) Lipase
Answer. B

11. 100% alcohol is called

A) Rectified spirit
B) Power alcohol
C) Absolute alcohol
D) Methylated spirit
Answer. C
12. Which of the following has more acidic character
A) Phenol
B) Acetic acid
C) Acetylene
D) Water
Answer. B

13. Which compound will have the maximum repulsion with

H2O
A) C6H6
B) C2H6O
C) C2H5OH
D) CH3OH
Answer. A

14. Which compound is called a universal solvent?

A) H2O
B) C2H5OH
C) CH3OH
D) CH3OH3
Answer. A

15. Consider the following structure CH2-CH2-CH2-OH

|
CH3

A) n-Butyl alcohol
B) sec-Butyl alcohol
C) iso-Butyl alcohol
D) ter-Butyl alcohol
Answer. A

16. Ethyl alcohol is made unfit for drinking by adding:

A) Methanol
B) Acetone
C) Pyridine
D) All of the above
Answer. D

17. Aldehydes after catalytic reduction change to.

(A) Po alcohol
(B) So alcohol
(C) To alcohol
(D) Po and So alcohol
Answer. A

18. Which of the following alcohol is commonly used as anti-

freeze:
(A) Methanol
(B) Ethanol
(C) Ethylene glycol
(D) propylene glycol
Answer. C

19. Which of the following will have the highest boiling point:
(A) Methanal
(B) Ethanal
(C) Propanal
(D) 2-hexanone
Answer. D

20. 95% ethanol is called:

(A) Absolute alcohol
(B) Rectified spirit
(C) Methylated spirit
(D) Wood spirit
Answer. B

21. Isopropyl alcohol an oxidation forms:

(A) Acetaldehyde
(B) Acetone
(C) Propanoic acid
(D) Propane
22. Methyl alcohol can be distinguished from ethyl alcohol by:
(A) Action of Cl2
(B) Action of NH3
(C) Dissolving in water
(D) Iodofom test

23. What will be the product formed when 2-methyl-2-propanol

reacts with
K2Cr2O7/H2SO4?
(A) Propanone
(B) 2-methyl propanone
(C) 2-methyl propene
(D) 2-methyl propanal

24. The conjugate base of which of the following is most stable:

(A) Phenol
(B) Acetic acid
(C) Formic acid
(D) Ethanol

25. ROH + RCOOH

H2SO4
RCOOR + H2O
The order of reactivity of alcohols in the above case is:
(A) Ter-alcohol > Sec-alcohol > Primary alcohol
(B) Primary alcohol > Sec-alcohol > Ter-alcohol
(C) CH3OH > Primary alcohol > Ter-alcohol > Sec-alcohol
(D) Sec-alcohol > Primary alcohol > Ter-alcohol

26. Which of the following give iodofom test?

(A) CH3OH
(B) C2H5OH
(C) Methanal
(D) 1-propanol
27. Ethanol can be converted to ethanoic acid by:
(A) Hydrogenation
(B) Oxidation
(C) Fermentation
(D) Hydration

28. Which of the following is more reactive when O H bond

breaks?
(A) P alcohol (B) T alcohol
(C) S alcohol (D) Cannot be predicted
29. Which of the following is the weakest acid?
(A) Phenol (B) Alcohol
(C) Carboxylic acid (D) Water

30. Ka of phenol at normal temperature is:

(A) 1014
(B) Less than that of alcohol
(C) More than carbonic acid
(D) Less than carboxylic acids
31. What is structure of alcohol which on reaction with
K2Cr2O7 and H2SO4 gives COH?
(A)CHOHCH3
(B)CH2CH2OH
(C)CH2OH
(D)CCH3CH3OH

32. Treatment of propene with cold concentrated H2SO4

followed by boiling water forms:
(A) Propyne
(B) 1-propanol
(C) Propanal
(D) 2-propanol

33. The alcohol which does not give a stable compound on

dehydration is:
(A) Ethyl alcohol
(B) Methyl alcohol
(C) n-propyl alcohol
(D) n-butyl alcohol

34. The dehydration of alcohol in the presence of Con(C) H2SO4

at 170oC involves:
(A) Free radical intermediate
(B) A carbonium ion intermediate
(C) Addition of OH-ion
(D) A carbanion intermediate

35. The reaction of phenol with conc. HNO3 gives:

(A) Picric acid
(B) Benzoic acid
(C) Adipic acid
(D) Salicylic acid

36. By reacting phenol with bromine water, the product

obtained is:
(A) O-bromophenol
(B) m- bromophenol
(C) p- bromophenol
(D) 2, 4, 6-tribromophenol

37. Electrophilic substitution in phenol generally occurs at:

(A) o- and p-position
(B) m-position
(C) o-position only
(D) p-position only

38. Alcohol is an organic compound that reacts with an acid to

give
(A) an ester
(B) an amine
(C) salt
(D) an aldehyde
39. Phenol can be distinguished from benzene by:
(A) Nitration
(B) Sulphonation
(C) Hydrogenation
(D) Bromination

40. 2-butene on treatment with cold Con(C) H2SO4will produce

(A) 1-Butanol
(B) Butanoic acid
(C) Butanone
(D) 2-Butanol

ANSWER KEY
1A 11 C 21 B 31 C
2 B. 12 B 22 D 32 D
3 B. 13 A. 23 C 33 B
4 B. 14 A. 24 C 34 B
5 B. 15 A 25 B 35 A
6C 16 D 26 B 36 D
7 C. 17 A. 27 B 37 A
8B 18 C 28 A. 38 A
9A 19 D 29 B 39 D
10 B 20 B 30 D. 40 D

__________________
CARBOXYLIC ACID
1. The mains reason for a large number of compounds is unique
property of
(A) Isomerism
(B) Catenation
(C) Homologous series
(D) Complexity of organic compound
Answer. B

2. Which is not organic in nature

(A) Na2CO3
(B) Formic acid
(C) CH3COOH
(D) CO(NH2)2
Answer. A

3. Friederick Wohler rejected vital force theory by artificially

synthesizing urea as a result
of heating of
(A) Ammonium nitrate
(B) Ammonium chloride
(C) Ammonium sulphate
(D) Ammonium cyanate
Answer. D

4. Which type of coal has maximum percent of carbon?

(A) Peat
(B) Lignite
(C) Bituminous
(D) Anthracite
Answer. D

5. Which is truce for organic compound

(A) Petroleum is combination of two Greek words petra and
oleum
(B) It is formed by decomposition of living organism
(C) It has non renewable energy
(D) All of above
Answer. D

6. Which property is only shown by organic compound?

(A) Isomosphism
(B) Polymorphism
(C) Isomerism
(D) Fast rate of reaction
Answer. C

7. Nucleophilicity order is correctly represented by:

(A) CH3- < NH2- < OH- < F-

(B) CH3- ≃ NH2- >OH- ≃ F-

(C) CH3- > NH2- > OH- > F-
(D) NH2-< F- < OH- < CH3-
Answer. C

8. Which technique is used to separate various fractions from

petroleum?
(A) Dry distillation
(B) Fractional distillation
(C) Vaccum distillation
(D) Destructive distillation
Answer. B
9. Which term is used to convert higher alkane into lower
alkane / alkene
(A) Pyrolysis
(B) Catalysis
(C) Hydrolysis
(D) Electrolysis
Answer. A

10. Which type of cracking is used to produce gasoline of higher

octane number?
(A) Thermal cracking
(B) Catalytic cracking
(C) Steam cracking
(D) All of these
Answer. B

11. Main application of cracking is

(A) To increase production of gasoline petrol
(B) To produce low boiling hydrocarbons
(C) To produce petrochemicals
(D) All of these
Answer. D

12. Which process is used to improve quality of petrol

(A) Cracking
(B) Reforming
(C) Anealing
(D) Pickling
Answer. B

13. Which method is used for improving octane number of

gasoline?
(A) Isomerisation
(B) reforming
(C) aromatization
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Answer. D

14. The homocyclic compound which contain a ring of three or

more carbon atoms and
resembling aliphatic compound are called
(A) Alicyclic
(B) Hetrocyclic
(C) Acyclic
(D) Aromatic
Answer. A

15. Which heterocyclic compound has six membered ring?

(A) Pyridine
(B) Furan
(C) Pyrole
(D) Thiophene
Answer. A

16. Which is amino functional group

(A) –CN
(B) –NH2
(C) C = NH
(D) –C = NH2
Answer. B

17. Which is mercapto functional group?

(A) –SH
(B) –OH
( C) –COOH
(D) –CHO
Answer. A

18. C4H4O i.e., is:

(A) Pyridine
(B) Furan
(C) Thiophene
(D) Pyrrol
Answer. B

19. The octane number is 100% in petroleum:

(A) Neo-octane
(B) Neo-pentane
(C) n-Hexane
(D) Iso-octane
Answer. D

20. Carbon atom of HCHO (methanol, formaldehyde) is:

(A) sp hybridized
(B) Sp3 hybridized
(C) sp2 hybridized
(D) Not hybridized
Answer. C

21. Which of the following is not heterocyclic compound?

(A) Furan
(C) Thiophene
(B) Pyridine
(D) Aniline
Answer. D

22. The compound which is not isomeric with diethyl ether:

(A) n-propyl-methyl ether
(B) 1-butanol
(C) 2-butanone
(D) 2-methyl-2-propanol
Answer. C

23. Heteroatom in Furan:

(A) N
(B) O
(C) N
(D) S
Answer. B

24. Glucose and fructose are:

(A) Cis-trans isomers
(B) Metamers
(C) Chain isomers
(D) Functional group isomers
Answer. D

25. Hexane has number of chain isomers:

(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7
Answer. B

26. These are geometrical isomers:

(A) Maleic acid and maleic anhydride
(B) Maleic acid and fumaric acid
(C) Ethylene dichloride and 1,2-dichloroethene
(D) None of these
Answer. B

27. All the following compounds have benzene ring in their

fused form except:
(A) Phenanthrene
(B) Diphenylmethane
(C) Naphthalene
(D) Anthracene
Answer. B
28. Cir-trans isomers can be differentiated by:
(A) Melting point
(B) Boiling point
(C) Dipole moment
(D) All of these
Answer. D

29. Urea has the functional group:

(A) Amine
(B) Carboxylic acid
(C) Ether
(D) Acid amide
Answer. D

30. Tautomerism can also to called:

(A) Chain isomerism
(B) Metamerism
(C) Prototropism
(D) Geometrical isomerism
Answer. C

31. Benzene is:

(A) Alicyclic
(B) Aliphatic
(C) Aromatic
(D) Heterocyclic
Answer. C
32. Cracking gives gasoline:
(A) 10%
(B) 20%
(C) 30%
(D) More than 50%
Answer. B

__________________
GASES
1. Kinetic interpretation of temperature was done by Clausius
with the help of kinetic gas
equation. According to him, temperature is the measure of
_____in case of liquids and gases
is:
a. Average vibrational kinetic energy
b. Average translational kinetic energy
c. Average rotational kinetic energy
d. Both a and b

2. 8. 2.016 g of hydrogen gas will occupy the volume of ______ at

the closest approach in the gaseous
state:
a. 133 cm3
b. 266 cm3
c. 22414 cm3
d. 24000 cm3

3. Kinetic interpretation of temperature suggests that a change

in temperature has results the
change in:
a. Direction of motion of particles
b. Intensity of motion of molecules
c. Behaviour of molecules
d. Shape of molecules

4. A gas that does not obey gas law and kinetic molecular
theory is called non ideal gas. At which
conditions the gas shows such non ideal behavior.
a. Low temperature
b. High pressure
c. High temperature
d. Both a and b

5. Which of the following is an ideal gas?

a. Nitrogen
b. Carbon dioxide
c. Helium
d. None of these

6. The least value of ‘a’ for H2 is due to its:

a. More polar character
b. Small size
c. Non-polar character
d. Both b and c

7. General gas equation needs corrections for gas deviate from

ideal behavior
a. Mass correction
b. Volume correction
c. Pressure correction
d. Both b and c

8. The following may be resulted because of non ideal behavior

a. Intermolecular attraction
b. Finite volume
c. Infinite volume
d. Both a and b
9. Which of the following temperature favour more ideal
behavior of gases
a. 273K
b. 373K
c. 473K
d. 573K

10. Units of excluded volume b exhibited by non ideal gas at

STP
a. volume/mol
b. dm3/mole
c. m3/mole
d. all of the above

11. Among the given non ideal gases which of the following has
least value for coefficient of attraction
“a”
a. Hydrogen
b. Oxygen
c. Nitrogen
d. Carbon dioxide

12. The value of excluded volume “b” for hydrogen gas is

a. 0.0266 dm3
b. 0.0318 dm3
c. 0.0391 dm3
d. 0.0428 dm3

13. Which of the following has more ability to diffuse?

a. Carbon dioxide gas
b. Red ink
c. Ice vapours
d. Hydrogen gas

14. Which of the following has more ability to diffuse?

a. Carbon dioxide gas
b. Red ink
c. Ice vapours
d. Hydrogen gas

15. The pressure of air that can support 760 mmHg column at
sea level, is called:
a. Standard pressure
b. Atmospheric pressure
c. Sea level pressure
d. All of these

16. The most widely used unit in Engineering work which is

equivalent to one atm
a. 1.47 psi
b. 14.7 psi
c. 17.4 psi
d. 17psi

17. The SI unit of pressure is usually expressed in terms of

a. Nm2
b. torr
c. N/m2
d. atm

18. Intermolecular forces are the cohesive forces of attraction

by which molecules cling to each
other. The strength of these forces in gases are
a. Strong
b. Stonger
c. Weak
d. Moderate

19. The human body temperature is 98.6 0F. In centigrade it is

a. 320C
b. 370C
c. 320C
d. 31 0C
20. Robert Boyle investigated the behavior of gases
experimentally to explain which of the
following relationships
a. Volume is proportional to pressure at constant temperature
b. Volume is directly proportional to temperature at constant
pressure
c. Volume is inversely proportional to pressure at constant
temperature
d. Volume is proportional to no of moles at constant P and T

ANSWER KEY
1. b 2. c 3. b 4. d 5. d
6. d 7. d. 8. d. 9. d. 10. b
11a 12a 13. b 14d. 15. d
16 b. 17c. 18c 19b 20c

__________________

SOLID
1. If we provide very high amount of heat to a liquid its boiling
point will
A. increase
B. remains constant
C. decrease
D. there will be no boiling

2. Crystallites are present in

A. crystalline solids
B. amorphous solids
C. liquid crystals
D. all of the above

3. A solid may be made up of

A. Atoms
B. Ions
C. Molecules
D. A, B and C

4. A malleable solid is one which can be

A. Converted into wires
B. Converted into thin sheets
C. Melted easily
D. All of the above

5. Amorphous substances posses

A. No definite geometry
B. No definite heat of fusion
C. No sharp melting points
D. All of the above

6. Crystalline solids can be identified easily from their

A. Sharp melting point
B. Definite geometry
C. Transition temperature
D. Colour
7. Boiling points of hydrocarbons increase with the increase in
number of carbon atoms. It is mainly due to
A. More strength of H-bonding
B. More strength of London forces
C. Less polarizability
D. All of the above

8. Ice is ___________ crystal

A. Metallic
B. Molecular
C. Covalent
D. Ionic

9. Select a pair of compounds which are isomorphic in nature.

A. NaCI and KNO3
B. MgO and NaF
C. KNO3 and MgO
D. NaF and CaCO3

10. The viscosity of solids is

A. Infinite
B. Negligible
C. Medium
D. No concept of viscosity in solid

11. a=b=c, α=β=γ=90º is a representation of crystal system

A. Monoclinic
B. Triclinic
C. Hexagonal
D. Trigonal

12. The phenomenon in which a compound exists in two or

more crystalline forms is called
A. Isomorphism
B. Polymorphism
C. Anisotropy
D. Allotropy

13. Which solids are called true solids?

A. Metallic
B. Amorphous
C. Crystalline
D. Vitreous

14. Buckyballs is an allotropic form of

A. Sulphur
B. Carbon
C. Silica
D. Tin

15. The number amino acid units for each turn of the helix on
average are
A. 21
B. 23
C. 25
D. 27
16. Isomorphic substances have
A. Same physical and chemical properties
B. Same physical and different chemical properties
C. Different physical and same chemical properties
D. Different physical and chemical properties

17. If a physical and chemical change takes place at a constant

pressure then the heat change during the process is called
A. Heat of transition
B. Heat of fusion
C. Enthalpy change
D. All of above

18. The pressure during the molar heat of fusion is kept

A. 0 atmosphere
B. one atmosphere
C. 2 atmosphere
D. 10 atmosphere

19. The amount of heat absorbed when one mole of a liquid is

changed into gas at its boiling point is
A. The molar heat of sublimation
B. The molar heat of fusion
C. The molar heat of vaporization
D. Latent heat of that liquid

20. All the enthalpy changes are

A. Negative
B. Positive
C. May or may .

ANSWER KEY
2b. 3d. 4b. 5c.
6a. 7b. 8b. 9b. 10a.
11b. 12b. 13c. 14b. 15d.
16d. 17c. 18b. 19c. 20c.

___________________
ATOMIC STRUCTURE
1. Which statement is incorrect?
(A) Second ionization energy is higher than first ionization
energy
(B) Third ionization energy is lower than fourth ionization
energy
(C) First ionization energy is lower than third ionization
energy
(D) Fourth ionization energy is greater than fifth ionization
energy

2. Ionization energy does not depend upon one of the following

factor
A) atomic number
B) nuclear force
C) shielding effect
D) mass number

3. The maximum number of electrons in a sub-shell with l = 3 is:

(A) 6
(B) 14
(C) 10
(D) 18

4. Quantum number values for 2p orbitals are:

(A) n = 2, l = 1
(B) n = 1, l = 0
(C) n = 1, l = 2
(D) n = 2, l = 0

5. When 6d orbital is complete, entering electron goes into:

(A) 7f
(B) 7p
(C) 7s
(D) 7d

6. Total number of d-electrons in an atom of atomic number 26

is:
(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 5
(D) 7
7. The ionization energy value of hydrogen
(A) -1313 kJ/mol
(B) -1313 kJ/mol/n2
(C) 1313 kJ/mol
(D) 496 kJ/mol

8. Which of the following species has greatest number of

electrons in the valence shell
(A) H1-
(B) B
(C) F1-
(D) N

9. Which of the following species has fundamental particles in

order e > n > pCompare the lightest isotopes
(A) N3-
(B) O2-
(C) Cl1-
(D) P3-

10. The highest ionization energy is shown by a group elements

(A) Alkali metals
(B) Halogens
(C) Alkaline earth metals
(D) Noble gases

11. The iso-electronic species amongst the followings are

(A) Ne, K1+, F1-
(B) Ar, K1+, F1-
(C) Ar, K1+, Cl1-
(D) He, H1-, Li

12. For particular subshell, the maximum value of ionization

energy is shown when
electron is present in
(A) s
(B) d
(C) p
(D) f

13. The ionization energy is maximum for

(A) O
(B) C
(C) B
(D) N

14. The particle that shows minimum response in the applied

electric field
(A) Electron
(B) Neutron
(C) Proton
(D) positron

15. The order of subshells with respect to the relative energies

(A) s > p > d > f
(B) s > f > p > d
(C) s < p < d < f
(D) s < p < f < d

16. Which of the following is correct with respect to the

application of principle?
(A) Hund’s rule = electron in subshells
(B) Auf-bau principle = electrons in orbital
(C) Pauli’s exclusion principle = spin of electrons in one orbital
(D) n + l = electrons in orbitals

17. Electron is lighter than a neutron by how many times

(A) 1836
(B) 1700
(C) 1840
(D) 1800

18. The orbital which is farthest to the nucleus is:

(A) f
(B) d
(C) p
(D) s

19. The electronic configuration of an element in trivalent state

is [18Ar], 4s2, 3d4. This electronic configuration of represents
an element
(A) Cr
(B) Mn
(C) Al
(D) Co
20. By comparing the lightest isotopes, indicate one which is
odd with respect to neutrons
(A) N
(B) O
(C) C
(D) H

ANSWER KEY
1D 2D 3B 4 A 5 B. 6 B 7 C. 8 C 9 D 10 D
11 C 12 A 13 D 14 B 15 C 16 C 17 C 18 A 19 D 20 D

__________________
CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM

1. Kc value does not depend on all the factors except

A) Pressure
B) constant at constant temperature
C) Catalyst
D) Temperature

2. Which of the following is correct statement about “Kc”

A) May or may not have a units
B) Thermodynamic property
C) depend upon equilibrium concentrations
D) All of the above
3. In which of the following reactions, Kc has moles–2 dm+6 unit
A) N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2 NH3(g)
B) PCl5(g)⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
C) CH3COOH+ C2H5OH ⇌ CH3COOC2H5 + H2O
D) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2 SO3(g)

4. The pH of a solution is 5. To this solution sufficient acid was

added and is pH decreases to 2. The increase in hydrogen ions
concentration is:
(a) 100 times
(b) 1000 times
(c) 3 time
(d) 10 time

5. Oxidation of SO2 by O2 is exothermic reaction. The yield of

SO3will be maximum if
A) Temperature is increased and pressure is kept constant
B) Temperature is reduced and pressure is increased
C) Both temperature and pressure are increased
D) Both temperature and pressure are decreased

6. What will be the direction of reversible reaction when one of

the product of the
reaction is removed?
(a) Forward direction
(b) Backward direction
(c) The reaction is stopped
(d) At equilibrium

7. The precipitation occurs if the ionic conc. is:

(a) Less than Ksp
(b) More than Ksp
(c) Equal to Ksp
(d) is present in any amount

8. Which is correct about common ion effect

A) Best application of Le-Chatlier’s principle
B) It is the effect of increase in concentration of product in
form of common ion
C) Always in reverse direction
D) All of these

9. A salt “X” is dissolved in water of PH = 7 the resulting

solution becomes alkaline in
nature. The salt “X” is made of:
(a) Strong acid and strong base
(b) Strong acid and weak base
(c) Weak acid and strong base
(d) Weak acid and weak base

10. Given that pKa of acetic acid is 4.7, what is pH of solution of

0.1M acetic acid and 0.01
sodium acetate is
A) 3.7
B) 4.7
C) 5.7
D) 2.7

11. The pH of 10 – 3 mol.dm – 3 of an aqueous solution of H2SO4

is
A) 3.0
B) 2.7
C) 2.0
D) 1.5

12. For a reaction A + B C + D when we start with 2 moles of each

A and B, Kc =
25. What will be the value of Kc? If we start with 1 mole of each
A and B.
(a) 25
(b) 5
(c) 12.5
(d) 50
13. Best buffer is prepared by taking
A) Equal conc. of salt and acid
B) More conc. of salt than acid
C) More conc. of acid than salt
D) Any of these

14. Which of the followings are the applications of Ksp

A) Determination of Ksp from solubility
B) Determination of solubility from Ksp
C) saturation for a given solute in solution
D) All of these

15. In which of the following reactions, the increases in

pressure moves the reaction in
the forward direction
A) H2 + I2⇌ 2HI
B) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2 SO3
C) PCl5(g)⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
D) N2 + O2⇌ 2NO

16. Strength of an acid is directly related to the value of:

(A) pKa
(B) Ka
(C) pH
(D) Kw

17. The value of pKw at 25oC is:

(A) 1014
(B) 14
(C) 10–14
(D) 7

18. Almost forward reaction is complete when:

(A) KC is very large
(B) Moderate KC value
(C) KC is very small
(D) None of these
19. The pH value of 0.001 M HCl solution in water is:
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) Zero

20. pOH of human blood is:

(A) 7.0
(B) 7.85
(C) 7.35
(D) 6.65

21. To prepare a buffer with pH close to 9.0, you could use a

mixture of:
(a) NH4OH and NH4Cl
(b) CH3COOH and CH3COONa
(c) HNO2 and NaNO2
(d) NaHCO3 + H2CO3

22. Which of the following efforts will change Kc for the

reaction?
PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2 + Heat
(a) Adding catalyst
(b) Decreasing pressure
(c) Increasing Cl2
(d) Increasing heat

23. Value of Kc for the given reaction is 50 at 700 K: H2(g) + I2(g)

2HI(g) When the equilibrium concentration of both reactants is
0.5 M each, the value of Kp under same condition will be:
(a) 125
(b) 50
(c) 75
(d) 100
24. Which of the following salt solution will have pH more than
(7)?
(a) NH4Cl
(b) CH3COONa
(c) CuSO4
(d) BaCl2

25. Which one of the following solutions have zero pH?

(a) 0.5 M HCl
(b) 0.5 M H2SO4
(c) 0.1 M HNO3
(d) 0.5 M CH3COOH

26. What happens if pressure is applied to the equilibrium Ice

Water?
(a) More amount of water is formed
(b) More amount of ice is formed
(c) Water changes to vapours
(d) No change

27. The molar solubility of Ca(OH)2 in water in term of its Ksp

can be written as:
(a) S = (Ksp)1/2
(b) S = (Ksp)1/3
(c) S = (Ksp/4)1/3
(d) S = (Ksp/6)1/3

28. Which of the following is wrong statement?

(a) Strong acid has weak conjugate base
(b) Weak acid has weak conjugate base
(c) Ka is inversely proportional to Kb
(d) Ka is inversely proportional to pKa

29. If molar conc. of HCl solution is 0.001 M then pOH of

solution is:
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 11
(d) 10

30. Dissociation of H2S in water is suppressed by the addition of

HCl because:
(a) H2S weaker acid than HCl
(b) H2S is stronger acid than HCl
(c) HCl reacts chemically with H2S
(d) Size of H2S smaller than HCl

ANSWER KEY
1D 2 D. 3 A 4 B 5B
6A 7B 8D 9C 10 C
11 B. 12 A. 13 A. 14 D. 15 B
16 B 17 B. 18 A. 19 A. 20 C
21 A. 22 D 23 B 24 B 25 B
26 A 27 C 28 B 29 C 30 B

___________________
KINETIC REACTION

1. Reaction kinetics deals with

A) mechanism of reaction
B) Rate of reaction
C) factors affecting rate of reaction
D) All of these

2. Which of the following factors affect rate of reaction?

A) concentration
B) catalyst
C) surface area
D) all of the above

3. Unit of rate of reaction

A) moldm–3sec–1
B) sec–1
C) mol– dm+3 sec–1
D) mol–dm–3sec+1

4. In which of the following techniques, rate of reaction is

directly related with number of ions
A) spectrometry
B) dilatometric method
C) conductometric method
D) refractrometrc method

5. Which of the following affect specific rate constant

A) concentration
B) catalyst
C) temperature
(D) Surface area

6. If the temperature of the reaction is increased from 0oC to

50oC how many times rate
will increase?
(A) 5 times
(B) 2 times
(C) 10 times
(D) 32 times

7. Which statement is correct about order of reaction?

A) order of reaction can be 0,1,2, or 3
B) Order of reaction can be related with rate law
C) Order of reaction tells us about mechanism of reaction
D) all of above
8. If the rate of decay of a radioactive isotopes decreases from
200 cpm to 25 cpm after 24 hours, what is its half life?
(A) 3 hours
(B) 4 hours
(C) 6 hours
(D) 8 hours

9. Which statement is correct

A) activation energy of exothermic reaction is smaller one
B) activation energy of endothermic reaction is greater one
C) activation energy for exothermic reaction for forward and
reverse direction is different
D) all of above

10. Which of the equation is used to determine activation

energy
A) Henderson equation
B) Van der Waal equation
C) Arrhenius equation
D) general gas equation

11. If for a reaction, half-life period is independent of the

concentration of the reactants,
then the reaction is:
(A) 3rd order
(B) 2nd order
(C) Zero order
(D) None

12. The % age of reactant left behind after four half time of
chemical reactions one hour:
(A) 3.125%
(B) 12.5%
(C) 6.25%
(D) 25%

13. If the rate of decay of radio-active isotope decreases from

200 cpm to 25 cpm after 24
hours. What is its half life:
(A) 3 hours
(B) 6 hours
(C) 4 hours
(D) 8 hours

14. In a multistep reaction, the slowest step is:

(A) Mechanism step
(B) Enthalpy determing step
(C) Rate determing step
(D) None of above

15. The rate of reaction between two specific time intervals is

called:
(A) Rate of reaction
(B) Instantaneous rate
(C) Average rate
(D) None of these

16. Which of the following statement is true?

(A) In the beginning instantaneous rate is smaller than average
rate
B) In the beginning average rate is smaller than instantaneous
rate
(C) At the end instantaneous rate is greater than the average
rate
(D) All

17. The unit of the rate constant is the same as the of the rate of
reaction is:
(A) 1st order reaction
(B) Zero order reaction
(C) 2nd order reaction
(D) 3rd order reaction

18. The rate equation for a reaction is Rate = K[A], what are the
units of K:
(A) s–1
(B) mol.dm–3.s–1
(C) mol.dm–3
(D) mol–1. dm3.s–1

19. The half life of zero order reaction is:

(A) Proportional to initial concentration of reactants
(B) Independent of initial concentration of reactants
(C) Inversely proportional to initial concentration of reactants
(D) None of these

20. The unit of rate constant “K” is mol–1

.dm3.sec–1for a chemical reaction the order of reaction is:
(A) 0
(C) 1
(B) 2
(D) 3

21. The rate of reaction:

(A) Increases as the reaction proceeds
B) Decreases as the reaction proceeds
(C) Remains the same as the reaction proceeds
(D) May decrease or increase as the reaction proceeds

22. The order of reaction can be measured by:

(A) Dilatometric method
(B) Electrical conductivity method
(C) Half life method
(D) Absorption of radiation

23. Collision theory explain:

(A) Rate of reaction
(B) Order of reaction
(C) Moleculerity of reaction
(D) All of these
ANSWER KEY
1D 11 C 21 A
2D 12.C 22 B
3A 13 D. 23 C
4 C. 14 C
5 C. 15 C
6D 16 D
7D 17 B
8D 18 A
9D 19 A
10 C 20 B

___________________
CHEMICAL BONDING

1. Chemical property of element depends upon

A) Atomic number
B) Mass number
C) Electron configuration
D) All of these

2. Which of the following element can follow extended octet

rule?
A) Lithium
B) Nitrogen
C) Fluorine
D) Phosphorus

3. Which of the statement is incorrect?

A) Bond length of H2 is 75.4 pm
B) Energy released in the formation of H2 is 436.45kJ mol – 1
C) When bond length is less than 75.4 pm, energy of molecules
decreases
D) When bond length is less than 75.4 pm, energy of molecules
increases

4. Which of the following show isomorphism and

polymorphism
A) Ionic compound p
B) Covalent compound
C) Ionic bond
D) None of these

5. Which of the bond is directional

A) Ionic bond
B) Covalent bond
C) Coordinate covalent bond
D) both b and c

6. Which of the molecules show bent shaped structure?

A) CCl4
B) BF3
C) NH3
D) H2O

7. Which has greater bond angle

A) HgCl2
B) BF3
C) NH3
D) H2O

8. Which group of element form ionic bond

A) I and II A with VI and VIIA
B) IIA with VA
C) II and IV A with VI and VII A
D) IIA with VA
9. Why is the molecule of BC𝒍𝟑 planar, whereas the molecule of
𝑷𝑯𝟑 is pyramidal?
(A) The boron atom has no lone pair in valence shell
(B) The boron atom in BC𝑙3has six electrons in its valency shell,
whereas the phosphorus atom
in 𝑃𝐻3 has eight.
(C) The repulsion between chlorine atoms is greater than that
between hydrogen atoms.
(D) The covalent radius of phosphorus is greater than that of
boron.

10. An ionic compound A+ B

– is most likely to be formed when .
A) The ionization energy of ‘A’ is high and electron affinity of ‘B’
is low
B) The ionization energy of ‘A’ is low and electron affinity of ‘B’
is high
C) Both ionization energy of ‘A’ and electron affinity of ‘B’ is
high
D) Both ionization energy of ‘A’ and electron affinity of ‘B’ is low

11. Amongst the following compounds which has greatest ionic

character in it
A) HCl
B) HF
C) H2
D) H2O

12. Which of the statement is correct about the shape of NH3

molecule
A) Square planer
B) Pyramidal
C) Angular
D) Tetrahedral

13. An ionic compound will dissolve in water only if

A) Hydration energy is high and lattice energy is low
B) Hydration energy is low and lattice energy is high
C) Hydration energy and lattice energy both are high
D) Hydration and lattice energy both are low

14. Which one is not the absolute term of the element:

(A) Ionization energy
(B) Electronegativity
(C) Electron affinity
(D) Atomic size

15. Which has the minimum bond angle:

(A) H2O
(B) NH3
(C) H2S
(D) NF3

16. Which of the following molecule has zero dipole moment:

(A) ClO2
(B) NO2
(C) CS2
(D) SO2

17. Which of the following contain co-ordinate covalent bond:

(A) BaCl2
(B) CsCl
(C) NH4
(D) H2O

18. A molecule with two bond pairs and two lone pairs will have
geometry:
(A) Tetrahedral
(B) Bent
(C) Trional plannar
(D) Trigonal pyramidal

19. Which of the following molecule have zero dipole moment:

(A) NH3
(B) H2O
(C) BF3
(D) CH4

20. Bond energy depends upon the following factors execpt:

(A) Bond length
(B) Sizes of the bonded atoms
(C) Electronegativity
(D) Atomic number of atoms

21. Which of the following bonds is present in NH4Cl?

(A) Ionic bond
(C) Co-ordinate covalent bond
(B) Covalent bond
(D) All the above

22. In which molecule, all atoms are coplanar?

(A) CH4
(B) BF3
(C) NH3
(D) PH3

21. Which of the following bonds is present in NH4Cl?

(A) Ionic bond
(C) Co-ordinate covalent bond
(B) Covalent bond
(D) All the above

24. A specie that represents all the types of chemical bonds:

(A) H3O+
(B) NaBH4
(C) CuSO4
(D) (COOH)2.2H2O

25. Maximum bond angle can be reduced by replacing the ‘H’ in

SbH3 with:
(A) O
(B) F
(C) Cl
(D) N

26. How many sigma bond’s are present in HCN molecule?

(A )2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5

27. 92 bond angle is present in:

(A) CH4
(B) H2O
(C) NH3
(D) H2S

28. Formation of covalent bond is:

(A) Thermodynamic approach
(B) Quantum mechanics approach
(C) Kinetic approach
(D) All above

30. Bond length is minimum in:

(A) HCl
(B) NH3
(C) H2O
(D) HF
31. If ∆𝑬𝑵 of two bonded atom is equal to 1.7 then bond is:
(A) Polar covalent
(B) 100% covalent
(C) 100% ionic
(D) 50% ionic and 50% covalent

32. The charge of a cation M is +2 and on anion A is -3. The

compound formed has the formula:
(A) 𝑀2𝐴
(B) 𝑀𝐴2
(C) 𝑀3𝐴2
(D) 𝑀2𝐴3

33. Lateral overlapping is expected in:

(A) 𝜎- bond
(B) 𝜋 - bond
(C) Ionic bond
(D) Metallic bond

34. The geometry of the molecule will be regular if central atom

is surrounded by:
(A) Lone pairs only
(B) Bond pairs only
(C) Both lone and bond pairs
(D) All given

35. 𝑯𝟐𝑺 has similar geometry with:

(A) SnCl2
(B) CS2
(C) 𝐶𝑂2
(D) 𝐻2𝑂

36. Benzene –hexane pair is soluble in:

(A) 𝐻2𝑂
(B) 𝐶2𝐻5𝑂𝐻
(C) 𝐶𝐻𝐶𝑙3
(D) 𝐶𝐶𝑙4

37. If bond energies of c to c bonds is in the order c ≡c > c = c > c

– c their bond length are in the order.
(A) c ≡c > c = c > c – c
(B) c= c > c ≡ c > c- c
(C) c− c > c = c > c ≡c
(D) c= c > c - c > c ≡ c

ANSWER KEY
1 C. 2 D. 3C 4A 5D
6D 7A 8 A 9 A 10 B
11 B 12 B 13 A. 14 C 15 C
16 C 17 C 18 B 19 C. 20 D
21 D. 22 B. 23 D 24B 25 B
26 A 27 D 28 A 29 A 30 D

___________________
ELECTROCHEMISTRY

1. If an endothermic reaction takes rapidly in a container,

temperature of the
surrounding
A) Increases
B) Decreases
C) Remains constant
D) Difficult to predict
Answer. B

2. If internal energy of a system increases than which of the

following change may take place?
A) State of the system may change
B) Chemical reaction may take place
C) Temperature of the system may rise
D) All of the above
Answer. D

3. Which of the enthalpy change is always positive

A) Heat of solution
B) Heat of neutralization
C) Heat of combustion
D) Heat of atomization
Answer. D

4. Bomb calorimeter is used to determine

A) Heat of neutralization
B) Heat of combustion
C) Heat of solution
D) Heat of formation
Answer. B

5. Hess’s law is used to calculate

A) Heat of combustion
B) Lattice energy
C) Heat of formation
D) All of above
Answer. D

6. Calorie is equal to
A) 0.4184J
B) 41.84J
C) 4.184J
D) 418.4J
Answer. C

7. Which is contrary to 1st law of thermodynamics

A) Energy can never be produced
B) Energy can neither be formed nor destroyed
C) In an adiabatic process, work done is independent of its path
D) continuous production of work without supply of an
equivalent amount of energy
Answer. D

8. Born Haber cycle is application of

A) Law of mass action
B) Hess’s law
C) Rate law
D) Equilibrium law
Answer. B

9. Neutralization of strong acid with strong base is

A) Non-spontaneous reaction
B) Spontaneous and endothermic
C) Spontaneous and exothermic reaction
D) Non-spontaneous endothermic reaction
Answer. C

10. In the formation of 1 mole of a compound from its element,

the standard enthalpy
change is called
A) Internal energy change
B) Enthalpy of formation
C) Enthalpy of neutralization
D) None of these
Answer. B

11. The enthalpy of an element in standard states is:

(A) 1 KJ–mol–1
(B) 298 KJ–mol–1
(C) Zero
(D) None of these
Answer. C

12. The conditions for standard enthalpy change is:

(A) 1 atm and 273 K
(B) 1 atm and 0 K
(C) 1 atm and 298 K
(D) 1 atm and –273oC
Answer. C

13. In thermochemistry force displacement work is replaced

by:
(A) Pressure volume work
(B) Temperature volume work
(C) Pressure temperature work
(D) None of these
Answer. A

14. The smallest unit of heat energy is:

(A) Calorie
(B) Erg
(C) Joule
(D) Kilo Joule
Answer. B

15. A chemical change occurs when:

(A) A shirt is ironed
(B) Milk sours
(C) Perfume evaporates
(D)Electricity pass through copper wire
Answer. B

16. Which of the following is not state function?

(A) Internal energy
(B) Work
(C) Gibb’s free energy
(D) Enthalpy
Answer. B

17. If more bonds are broken than the bonds formed, the
reaction will be:
(A) Exothermic
(B) Endothermic
(C) Both
(D) None
Answer. B

18. If heat is being given to system (reaction taking place in a

solution) then qp is related
to qv as:
(A) qp > qv
(B) qp < qv
(C) qp = qv.
(D) not comparable ∆Hn for the reaction:
Answer. C

19. Which statement is correct for galvanic cell:

(A) Anode = negative
(B) electrons enter the cell = anode
(C) Cathode = negative
(D) reduction occurs at anode
Answer. A

20. Which is inert electrode?

A) Zn B) Pt
C) Pb D) Cd
Answer. B

21. During electrolysis of dilution KNO3, which of them is

collected at anode?
A) H2 B) O2
C) K D) N2
Answer. B

22. Which is electrolytic cell?

A) Down’s cell
B) Dry alkaline cell
C) Silver oxide
D) Nickle cadmium cell
Answer. A

23. In which of the type of cell, electric current is consumed?

A) Fuel cell
B) Lead storage cell
C) Silver oxide cell
D) Nelson’s cell
Answer. D
24. A substance conducts electricity both when solid and in
molten state:
(A) An alloy
(B) Metal oxide
(C) A salt
(D) A hydrocarbon
Answer. B

25. The function of SHE when connected to zinc is:

(A) Anode
(B) Cathode
(C) Electrolyte
(D) None of these
Answer. B

__________________
THERMOCHEMISTRY
1. Which one is not a state function
A. Internal energy
B. Enthalpy
C. Gibbs free energy
D. Work

2. If the ΔH value is less than zero than reaction will be

A. Exothermic
B. Endothermic
C. May or may not be Exothermic or Endothermic
D. None of these
3. If the internal energy of the system is increased
A. Change in state of the system is increased
B. The temperature of the system may rise
C. The chemical reaction may take place
D. All

4. Which is true for a spontaneous endothermic process?

A. ΔH<0
B. ΔG<0
C. ΔS<0
D. ΔG>0

5. A reaction has values of ΔH and ΔS which are both positive.

The reaction
A. Is spontaneous
B. Spontaneity is temperature dependent
C. Has an increasing free energy
D. Is non-spontaneous

6. ________________ is study about energy of a chemical system

A. Thermochemistry
B. Thermodynamics
C. Chemical kinetics
D. Stoichiometry

7. The environment in which a system is studied is

A. State function
B. Phase
C. Surrounding
D. State

8. Unit of heat in the SI system is

A. J
B. KCaL
C. Cal
D. GJ

9. Anything which depends upon the initial and final state of a

system is
A. Environment
B. Surrounding
C. State function
D. Enthalpy

10. The total energy of a system is

A. P.E + K.E
B. P.E + heat energy
C. K.E + heat energy
D. P.E + mechanical energy

11. Mathematical form of first law of thermodynamics is

A. ΔH=qp
B. ΔE = q + W
C. ΔE = q x v
D. All of the above
12. Reaction in which heat evolves is called
A. Endothermic
B. Spontaneous
C. Non-spontaneous
D. Exothermic

13. CuSO4 + Zn>>ZnSO4+Cu is

A. Spontaneous reaction
B. Non-spontaneous reaction
C. Endothermic
D. Exothermic

14. Pumping of water uphill is

A. Spontaneous process
B. Non-spontaneous process
C. Irreversible process
D. Reversible process

15. State function the macroscopic property of system depends

upon
A. Path of reaction
B. Initial state
C. Final state
D. Initial and final state

16. Which one of the following is a state function?

A. Pressure
B. Temperature
C. Enthalpy
D. All of the above

17. When enthalpy of reactants is higher than the product then

the reaction will be
A. Endothermic
B. Spontaneous
C. Non-spontaneous
D. Exothermic

18. Enthalpy of a reaction can be measured by

A. Glass calorimeter
B. Manometer
C. Barometer
D. Thermometer

19. Enthalpy of combustion for food fuel and other compounds

can be measured accurately by
A. Glass calorimeter
B. Bomb calorimeter
C. Thermometer
D. Manometer

20. The lattice energy of NaCl is

A. +787 KJ/mole
B. 787 J/mole
C. 780 KJ/mole
D. 790 KJ/mole
___________________

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MCQS PREPARED BY M. ZAHID

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