DOC-20240428-WA0034.

Superior Group Of Colleges
st
1 YEAR
CHEMISTRY
QUESTIONS
BANK
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CHAPTER 1
MCQS
Q.1. A Swedish chemist, J. Berzelius determined
(A) Atomic number (B) Ionic mass (C) Atomic mass (D) Molecular mass
Q.2. The radius of atoms is of the order
(A) 10–10 m (B) 2 10–10 m (C) 4 10–10 m (D) 5 10–10 m
Q.3. Masses of atoms range from kg
–23 –21 –19 –17
(A) 10 to 10 (B) 10 to 10 (C) 10–17 to 10–15 (D) 10–27 to 10–25
Q.4. Hemoglobin helps to carry from lungs to all parts of the body.
(A) Carbon dioxide (B) Water (C) Oxygen (D) Nitrogen
Q.5. Each molecule of haemoglobin is 68,000 times heavier than atom
(A) Oxygen (B) Chlorine (C) Hydrogen (D) Nitrogen
Q.6. How many times haemoglobin is heavier than hydrogen atom?
(A) 10000 (B) 48000
(C) 68000 (D) 58000
Q.7. The number of +ve charges present on an ion depends upon
(A) The number of electrons gained by the atom
(B) The number of electrons lost by the atom
(C) The number of protons lost by the atom
(D) The number of protons gained by the atom
Q.8. Atomic mass unit is of the mass of one carbon atom
1 1 1 1
(A) th (B) th (C) th (D) th
10 6 12 16
Q.9. How many unstable radioactive isotopes have been produced through artificial
disintegration?
(A) 280 (B) 300 (C) 40 (D) 154
Q.10. Out of 280 isotopes that occur in nature, have even mass numbers and
even atomic numbers.
(A) 144 (B) 154 (C) 164 (D) 174
Q.11. Number of isotopes of palladium are
(A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) 11
Q.12. Bromine has isotopes
(A) 2 (B) 6 (C) 4 (D) 8
Q.13. Cadmium has isotopes
(A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 4 (D) 9
Q.14. O, Mg, Si, Ca and Fe form nearly % of the earth’s crust.
(A) 50 (B) 60 (C) 70 (D) 80
Q.15. The substance whose analysis for the separation of isotopes is required, is converted
into
(A) Solid state (B) Liquid state (C) Plasma (D) Vapor state
Q.16. Height of the peak in the mass spectrum show
(A) Number of isotopes (B) Mass number
(C) Relative abundance (D) Number of protons
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Q.17. Pressure of vapours in ionization chamber in mass spectrometer is

(A) 103torr (B) Around 10-3 torr
(C) Around 10 torr (D) Around 10-5 torr
-7
Q.18. Which of the following compounds has highest %age of oxygen by weight?
(A) CH3OH (B) HCOOH (C) C2H5OH (D) H2O
Q.19. Formula mass of MgSO4 is gram / mole
(A) 240 (B) 120 (C) 300 (D) 154
Q.20. Empirical formula of glucose is
(A) CH (B) CHO (C) CHO2 (D) CH2O
Q.21. Molecular formula is equal to
(A) n × empirical formula (B) n × compound formula
(C) n× atomic formula (D) n × structural formula
Q.22. One mole of SO2 contains oxygen atoms
(A) 6.02×1023 (B) 12.04×1023 (C) 1 mole (D) 3 mole
Q.23. Isotopes differ in
(A) Properties which depend upon mass
(B) Arrangement of electrons in orbitals
(C) Chemical properties
(D) The extent to which they may be affected in electromagnetic field
Q.24. Which of the following statement is the most appropriate?
(A) Isotopes with even atomic masses are comparatively abundant
(B) Isotopes with odd atomic masses are comparatively abundant
(C) Isotopes with even atomic masses and even atomic numbers are comparatively
abundant
(D) Isotopes with even atomic masses and odd atomic numbers are comparatively
abundant
Q.25. Many elements have fractional atomic masses. This is because
(A) The mass of the atom is itself functional
(B) Atomic masses are average masses of isobars
(C) Atomic masses are average masses of isotopes
(D) Atomic masses are average masses of isotopes proportional to their relative
abundance
Q.26. The mass of one mole of electron is
(A) 1.008 mg (B) 0.55 mg (C) 0.184 mg (D) 1.673 mg
Q.27. The number of moles of CO2 which contain 8 g of oxygen
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.50 (C) 1.0 (D) 1.50
Q.28. 27 g of Al will react completely with how much mass of O2 to produce Al2O3?
(A) 8 g of oxygen (B) 16 g of oxygen (C) 32 g of oxygen (D) 24 g of oxygen
Q.29. The largest number of molecules are present in
(A) 3.6 g of H2O (B) 4.6 g of C2H5OH (C) 2.8 g of CO (D) 5.4 g of N2O5
Q.30. Number of molecules in 18g water is
(A) 6.02 × 1023 (B) 9 × 6.02 × 1023
(C) 0.5 × 6.02x1023 (D) 18 × 9 × 6.02 × 1023
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Q.31. Number of atoms of phosphorous in one mole of AlPO4

(A) 6.02×1023 (B) 3× 6.02×1023 (C) 0.5× 6.02×1023 (D) 4 × 6.02×1023
Q.32. The number of moles of CO2 which contains 16 g of oxygen
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.50 (C) 1.0 (D) 1.50
Q.33. One mole of SO2 contains
(A) 6.02 1023 atoms of oxygen (B) 18.1 1023 molecules of SO2
(C) 6.02 1023 atoms of sulphur (D) 4 gram atoms of SO2
Q.34. The volume occupied by 1.4 g of N2 at STP is
(A) 2.24 dm3 (B) 22.4 dm3 (C) 1.12 dm3 (D) 112 cm3
Q.35. A limiting reactant is the one which
(A) Is taken in lesser quantity in grams as compared to other reactants
(B) Is taken in lesser quantity in volumes as compared to other reactants
(C) Gives the maximum amount of the product which is required
(D) Gives the minimum amount of the product under consideration
SHORT QUESTIONS
Q.1. Why we use relative atomic mass unit?
Q.2. Define relative atomic mass. Give its value in grams.
Q.3. Define isotopes.
Q.4. Define and explain the molecular ion?
Q.5. Why isotopes have different physical but same chemical properties?
Q.6. What is the function of electrometer and electric field in mass spectrometer?
Q.7. What is the function of magnetic field and ionization chamber in mass spectrometer?
Q.8. Define mass spectrum.
Q.9. What is mass spectrometer?
Q.10. Name six methods used to determine atomic masses other than mass spectrometer.
Q.11. What is the justification of two strong peaks in mass spectrum for bromine while for
iodine only one peak at 127 amu is indicated?
Q.12. Calculate mass in grams of 2.74 moles of KMnO4.
Q.13. Differentiate between empirical and molecular formula.
Q.14. Define mole and Avogadro number.
Q.15. How many molecules of water are there in 24g ice?
Q.16. One mole of H2O has two moles of bonds, three moles of atoms, ten moles of electrons
and twenty eight moles of the total fundamental particles present in it.
Q.17. Many chemical reactions taking place in our surrounding involve the limiting reactant.
Q.18. How many molecules of water are there in 27 g ice?
Q.19. Justify that 23 g of sodium and 39 g of potassium have equal number of atoms.
Q.20. What is stoichiometry?
Q.21. Write down assumptions of stoichiometry.
Q.22. What is molar volume?
Q.23. Concept of limiting reactant is not applicable to the reversible reactions. Explain it.
Q.24. Why actual yield is less than theoretical yield?
Q.25. Define yield. How efficiency of reaction is measured?
Q.26. 23 grams of sodium and 238 grams of uranium have equal number of atoms in them.
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Q.27. Mg atom is twice heavier than that of carbon atom.

Q.28. 180 g of glucose and 342 g of sucrose have the same number of molecules but different
number of atoms present in them.
Q.29. 4.9 g of H2SO4 when completely ionized in water have equal number of positive and
negative charges but the number of positively charged ions is twice the number of
negatively charged ions.
Q.30. One mg of K2CrO4 has thrice the number of ions than the number of formula units when
ionized in water.
Q.31. Two grams of H2, 16 g of CH4 and 44 g of CO2 occupy separately the volumes of 22.414
dm3, although the sizes and masses of molecules of these gases are very different from
each other.
Q.32. Calculate moles of O atoms in 9.00 g of Mg(NO3)2.
Q.33. Calculate moles of Cl atoms in 0.822 g C2H4Cl2.
Q.34. Law of conservation of mass has to be obeyed during stoichiometric calculations.
Q.35. No individual neon atom in the sample of the element has a mass of 20.18 amu.
Q.36. One mole of H2SO4 should completely react with two moles of NaOH. How does
Avogadro’s number help to explain it?
Q.37. N2 and CO have the same number of electrons, protons and neutrons.
LONG QUESTIONS
Q.1. What is mass spectrometer? How this technique is used to determine the atomic masses
and the number of isotopes of an elements.
Q.2. What is combustion analysis? How this technique is used to determine the percentage of
hydrogen, carbon and oxygen in an organic compound?
Q.3. What ate isotopes? How do you deduce the fractional atomic masses of elements from the
relative isotopic abundance? Give one example.
Q.4. Define the followings giving one example of each.
(i) Avogadro’s number
(ii) Gram atom
(iii) Gram ion
(iv) Percentage yield
Q.5. Define the followings giving one example of each:
(i) Isotope
(ii) Empirical formula
(iii) Gram atoms
(iv) Actual yield
Q.6. Write the steps used for the determination of empirical formula of a compound.
Q.7. What is limiting reagent? How can you determine it? Explain it with chemical reaction.
Q.8. Ascorbic acid (vitamin C) contains 40.92% carbon, 4.58% hydrogen and 54.5% of
oxygen by mass. What is the empirical formula of the ascorbic acid?
Q.9. A sample of liquid consisting of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen was subjected to
combustion analysis. 0.5439 grams of the compound gave 1.039 grams of CO 2 and
0.6369 grams of H2O. Determine the empirical formula of the compound.
Q.10. The combustion analysis of an organic compound shows it to contain 65.44% carbon,
5.50% hydrogen and 29.06% oxygen. What is the empirical formula of the compound if
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the molar mass of this compound is 110.15 g mole-1? Calculate the molecular formula of
the compound.
Q.11. 10.0 g of H3PO4 has been dissolved in excess of water to dissociate it completely into
ions.
Calculate:
(a) Number of molecules in 10.0 g of H3PO4
(b) Number of positive and negative ions in case of complete dissociation in water
(c) Masses of individual ions
(d) Number of positive and negative charges dispersed in the solution
Q.12. A well-known ideal gas is enclosed in a container having volume 500 cm3 at S.T.P. Its
mass comes out to be 0.72g. What is the molar mass of this gas?
Q.13. Calculate the number of grams of K2SO4 and water produced when 14 g of KOH is reacted
with excess of H2SO4. Also calculate the number of molecule of water produced.
Q.14. Mg metal reacts with HCl to give H2 gas. What is the minimum volume of HCl solution
(27% by weight) required to produce 12.1 g of H2? The density of HCl solution is 1.14 g
cm–3.
Q.15. NH3 gas can be prepared by heating together two solids NH4Cl and Ca(OH)2. If a mixture
containing 100 g of each solid is heated, then Calculate the number of grams of NH 3
produced. Also Calculate the excess amount of reagent left unreacted.
Q.16. When limestone (CaCO3) is roasted, quicklime (CaO) is produced according to the
following reaction.
CaCO 3 ——→ CaO + CO 2
The actual yield of CaO is 2.5 kg, when 4.5 kg of limestone is roasted. What is the
percentage yield of this reaction?
Q.17. Ethylene glycol is used in automobile antifreeze. It has 38.7% carbon, 9.7% hydrogen and
51.6% oxygen. Its molar mass is 62.1 grams mol–1. Determine its empirical formula.
Q.18. Serotenin (Molecular Mass = 176 g.mol–1) is a compound that conduct nerve impulses in
brain and muscles. It contains 68.2% C, 6.86% H, 15.09% N, and 9.08% O. What is its
molecular formula?
Q.19. An unknown metal M reacts with S to form a compound with a formula M 2S3. If 3.12 g
of M react with exactly 2.88 g of sulphur, what is the name of metal M and compound
M2S3?
Q.20. Calculate the number of gram of Al2S3, which can be prepared by the reaction of 20 g of
Al and 30 g of sulphur. How much the non-limiting reactant is in excess?
Q.21. A mixture of two liquids, hydrazine (N2H4) and N2O4 are used as a fuel in rockets. They
produce N2 and water vapours. How many grams of N2 gas will be formed by reacting
100 g of N2H4 and 200 g of N2O4?
2N2H4(l) + N2O4(l)`——→ 3N2(g) + 4H2O(g)
Q.22. Silicon carbide (SiC) is an important ceramic material. It is produced by allowing sand
(SiO2) to react with carbon at high temperature.
SiO2 + 3C ——→SiC + 2CO
When 100 kg sand is reacted with excess of carbon, 51.4 kg of SiC is produced. What is
the percentage yield of SiC?
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CHAPTER 2
MCQS
Q.1. Chemical analysis in which all the elements in the compound are identified
(A) quantitative analysis (B) gravimetric analysis
(C) qualitative analysis (D) none
Q.2. Rate of filtration can be increased by using
(A) chromatographic tank (B) desiccator
(C) cold finger (D) suction flask
Q.3. Chemical characterization of a compound include
(A) Qualitative analysis (B) Quantitative analysis
(C) Both A and B (D) None of the above
Q.4. Complete quantitative determination generally consists of
(A) 1 step (B) 2 steps (C) 3 steps (D) 4 steps
Q.5. A filtration process could be very time consuming if it were not aided by a gentle
suction which is developed
(A) If the paper covers the funnel up to its circumferences
(B) If the paper has got small sized pores in it
(C) If the stem of the funnel is large so that it dips into the filtrate
(D) If the paper fits tightly
Q.6. Filtration is a technique employed for
(A) Mixing (B) Drying (C) Separation (D) Crystallization
Q.7. Funnel should be large enough so that its rim should extend above the top
circumference of the paper for about
(A) 1–2 µm (B) 1–2 mm (C) 1–2 cm (D) 1–2 m
Q.8. A fluted filter paper gives faster filtration due to
(A) Increased pore size (B) Increased porosity
(C) Increased surface area (D) Increased adsorption
Q.9. Gooch crucible is used for
(A) Sublimation (B) Filtration (C) Extraction (D) Crystallization
Q.10. Sintered crucible is made of
(A) Metal (B) Wood (C) Plastic (D) Glass
Q.11. Separation of insoluble particles from liquids using a filter medium is called
(A) Extraction (B) Distillation (C) Sublimation (D) Filtration
Q.12. On cooling hot saturated solution makes the solution
(A) Dilute (B) Unsaturated (C) Opaque (D) Supersaturated
Q.13. During the process of crystallization, the hot saturated solution
(A) Is cooled very slowly to get large sized crystals.
(B) Is cooled at a moderate rate to get medium sized crystals.
(C) Is evaporated to get the crystals of the product.
(D) Is mixed with an immiscible liquid to get the pure crystals of the product
Q.14. Solvent used for crystallization should dissolve a large amount of substance at its
(A) Boiling point (B) Freezing point
(C) Standard state (D) Transition temperature
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Q.15. Drying is safely done using

(A) Vacuum pump (B) Filter paper
(C) Vacuum desiccator (D) Solubilizing agents
Q.16. The drying agent used in desiccator is
(A) AlCl3 (B) CaCl2 (C) AgCl (D) NH4Cl
Q.17. Which is used to decolorize crystallized substance?

(A) silica (B) alumina
(C) phosphorous pentoxide (D) animal charcoal
Q.18. Which of the following is used in desiccators as drying agent?
(A) CaCl2 (B) Silica gel
(C) P2O5 (D) All of the above
Q.19. Which of the following substances undergoes sublimation at ordinary condition?
(A) Iodine (B) Sodium chloride (C) Petrol (D) Benzene
Q.20. Which of the following is an example of substances purified by sublimation
(A) Benzoic acid (B) Naphthalene
(C) Ammonium chloride (D) All of the above
Q.21. The process in which solid on heating is changed directly into gas and gas on cooling
is changed into solid?
(A) filtration (B) sublimation (C) crystallization (D) solvent extraction
Q.22. Which of the following will not undergo sublimation?
(A) iodine (B) ammonium chloride
(C) benzene (D) benzoic acid
Q.23. Which of the following is purified by sublimation?
(A) benzoic acid (B) naphthalene
(C) ammonium chloride (D) all
Q.24. Which of the following substance cannot be obtained by sublimation?
(A) ammonium chloride (B) naphthalene
(C) potash alum (D) camphor
Q.25. Which of the method is used to obtain iodine present in water?
(A) filtration (B) sublimation
(C) crystallization (D) solvent extraction
Q.26. The most common solvent used in solvent extraction is
(A) diethyl ether (B) ethanol (C) rectified spirit (D) acetone
Q.27. The most common laboratory example of solvent extraction is
(A) Ether extraction (B) Preparation of tinctures
(C) Percolation (D) Counter-current extraction
Q.28. Solvent extraction is an equilibrium process and it is controlled by
(A) Law of mass action (B) The amount of solvent used
(C) Distribution law (D) The amount of solute
Q.29. Solvent extraction method is particularly useful technique for separation when the
product to be separated is
(A) Non-volatile or thermally unstable (B) Volatile or thermally stable
(C) Non-volatile or thermally stable (D) Volatile or thermally unstable
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Q.30. The comparative rates at which the solutes move in paper chromatography, depends
on
(A) The size of paper used (B) Rf values of solutes
(C) Temperature of the experiment (D) Size of the chromatographic tank used
Q.31. Paper chromatography is a type of chromatography
(A) Absorption (B) Adsorption (C) Sorption (D) Partition
Q.32. The mobile phase in paper chromatography is usually
(A) Solid (B) Aqueous
(C) Organic liquid (D) Gaseous solute
Q.33. In paper chromatography, stationary phase may be
(A) solid (B) liquid (C) gas (D) May be B or C
Q.34. The chromatography in which stationary phase is solid
(A) partition (B) absorption (C) adsorption (D) none
Q.35. In chromatography, the point at which solvent rises maximum
(A) chromatogram (B) solvent front (C) retardation factor (D) base line
SHORT QUESTIONS
Q.1. Describe major steps involved in quantitative analysis.
Q.2. The rate of filtration can be increased by using fluted filter paper. Why?
Q.3. How do you know about Gooch crucible and sintered glass crucible?
Q.4. What is the basic principle of crystallization?
Q.5. In solvent extraction technique, why repeated extractions using small portions of solvent
are more efficient than using a single extraction but larger volume of solvent?
Q.6. What is the principle of chromatography?
Q.7. Why sintered glass crucible is preferred over Gooch crucible?
Q.8. How will you decolorize the crude product?
Q.9. Name some solvents used in crystallization.
Q.10. Mention major steps involved in crystallization.
Q.11. How crystallized product can be dried?
Q.12. Why is there a need to crystallize crude product?
Q.13. Define sublimation with two examples.
Q.14. How naphthalene can be purified?
Q.15. How mixture of NH4C l and NaCl can be separated?
Q.16. State distribution law or partition law.
Q.17. Define solvent extraction. Which law controls it?
Q.18. Differentiate between adsorption and partition chromatography. What is Rf value? Why it
has no units?
Q.19. Define chromatography. Describe importance of chromatography.
Q.20. Write four properties of a good solvent.
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CHAPTER 3
MCQS
Q.1. The pressure of air that can support 760 mmHg column at sea level is called
(A) One mmHg (B) One torr (C) One atmosphere (D) 760 atm
Q.2. Which one unit of pressure is commonly used in engineering work?
(A) torr (B) Psi (C) atm (D) mmHg
Q.3. S.I unit of pressure is
(A) torr (B) Nm-2 (C) mm Hg (D) psi
Q.4. Mathematically Boyle’s law is shown as
(A) PT = K (B) VT = K (C) P/T = K (D) PV = K
Q.5. According to which law, pressure and volume are variables while temperature is
constant?
(A) Boyle’s law (B) Charles’ law (C) Avogadro’s law (D) Dalton’s law
1
Q.6. When graph is plotted between V on x-axis and P on y-axis, which one is obtained?
(A) Straight line parallel to x-axis (B) Straight line parallel to y-axis
(C) Curve (D) Straight line starting from origin
Q.7. Pressure remaining constant at which temperature, the volume of a gas will become
twice of what it is at 0 C
(A) 546 C (B) 200 C (C) 546 K (D) 273 K
3
Q.8. Number of molecules in one dm of water is close to
6.02 12.04 18
(A) 1023 (B) 1023 (C) 1023 (D) 55 .6 6.02 10 23
22.4 22.4 22.4
Q.9. Pressure remaining constant, at which temperature volume of gas becomes zero of
what it is at 0 ºC?
(A) 546 ºC (B) 200 ºC (C) 0 K (D) -273 K
Q.10. If absolute temperature of a gas is doubled and the pressure is reduced to one-half,
the volume of the gas will
(A) Remain unchanged (B) Increase four times
(C) Reduce to ¼ (D) Be doubled
Q.11. Formula used for the conversion of °F into °C is
(A) F = 9 ( C) + 32 (B) F = 9 ( C) – 32 (C) F = 5 ( C) + 32 (D) F = 5 ( C) – 32
5 5 9 9
Q.12. How should the conditions be changed to prevent the volume of a given gas from
expanding when its mass is increased:
(A) Temperature is lowered and pressure is increased
(B) Temperature is increased and pressure is lowered
(C) Temperature and pressure both are lowered
(D) Temperature and pressure both are increased
Q.13. The density of gas will be maximum at
(A) 10 atm, 0 ºC (B) 10 atm, 200 ºC (C) 5 atm, 100 ºC (D) 1 atm, 273 ºC
Q.14. The density of gas can be determined by formula
(A) d = PM/RT (B) d = RT/PM (C) d = PMR/T (D) d = PMT/R
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Q.15. The molar volume of CO2 is maximum at

(A) STP (B) 127 C and 1 atm
(C) 0 C and 2 atm (D) 273 C and 2 atm
Q.16. Which of the following will have the same number of molecules at STP
(A) 280 cm3 of CO2 and 280 cm3 of N2O (B) 11.2 dm3 of O2 and 32 g of O2
3
(C) 44 g of CO2 and 11.2 dm of CO (D) 28 g of N2 and 5.6 dm3 of O2
Q.17. Mass of 22.4 dm3 nitrogen gas at STP
(A) 28 g (B) 2.8 g (C) 14 g (D) 1.4 g
Q.18. Equal masses of methane and oxygen are mixed in an empty container at 25 C. The
fraction of total pressure exerted by oxygen is
(A) 1/3 (B) 8/9 (C) 1/9 (D) 16/17
Q.19. Partial pressure of oxygen (in torr) in lungs is
(A) 150 (B) 116 (C) 159 (D) 1
Q.20. The partial pressure of hydrogen in flask containing 2 g H2 and 16 g O2 is
(A) 1/4 (B) 2/3 (C) 1/6 (D) 1/8
Q.21. What pressure is being experienced by diver after every 100 feet depth in sea
(A) 1 atm (B) 2 atm (C) 3 atm (D) 4 atm
Q.22. The spreading of molecules through fine hole is due to
(A) Osmosis (B) Diffusion (C) Effusion (D) None of them
Q.23. According to Graham’s law of diffusion, the rate of diffusion of H2 and O2 gases has
the ratio
(A) 1:6 (B) 1:4 (C) 4:1 (D) 2:1
Q.24. Which gas has lowest diffusion rate?
(A) O2 (B) N2 (C) H2 (D) He
Q.25. The spreading of fragrance of a rose or a scent is due to
(A) Effusion (B) Diffusion (C) Density (D) osmosis
Q.26. The order of diffusion of gases NH3, SO2, Cl2 and CO2 is
(A) NH3> SO2>Cl2 >CO2 (B) NH3> CO2>Cl2 >SO2
(C) NH3>Cl2> SO2>CO2 (D) NH3> CO2>SO2>Cl2
Q.27. Root mean square velocity of gas is proportional to
(A) molecular weight of gas (B) square root of temperature
(C) absolute temperature (D) reciprocal of molecular weight of gas
Q.28. Critical temperature of a gas
(A) depends upon critical pressure (B) Does not depend upon nature of gas
(C) is higher than inversion temperature (D) is lower than inversion temperature
Q.29. Gases deviate from ideal behavior at high pressure. Which of the following is
correct for non-ideality
(A) At high pressure, the gas molecules move in one direction only
(B) At high pressure, the collisions between the gas molecules are increased manifold
(C) At high pressure, the volume of the gas becomes insignificant
(D) At high pressure, the intermolecular attraction becomes significant
Q.30. The deviation of a gas from ideal behavior is maximum at
(A) –10 C and 5.0 atm (B) –10 C and 2.0 atm
(C) 100 C and 2.0 atm (D) 0 C and 2.0 atm
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Q.31. A real gas obeying Van der Waals’ equation will resemble ideal gas if
(A) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ are large (B) Both a and b are small
(C) ‘a’ is small and ‘b’ is large (D) ‘a’ is large and ‘b’ is small
Q.32. Which is correct unit of b in Van der Waals equation?
(A) dm3atm mol-1 (B) dm6atm mol-2 (C) Nm4mol-2 (D) dm3mol-1
Q.33. Plasma is a conductor of electricity
(A) bad (B) poor (C) good (D) none
SHORT QUESTIONS
Q.1. Define pressure. Give its SI units.
Q.2. State Boyle’s law. Give its two mathematical forms.
Q.3. What is absolute zero? Justify that volume of one mole of gas becomes zero theoretically
at –273.16 C.
Q.4. Give quantitative definition of Charles’s law.
Q.5. A gas occupies 100 dm3 at 283 K. What will be its volume at -273 C (0K) at constant
pressure.
Q.6. Calculate the value of gas constant R in SI units.
Q.7. Calculate the value of gas constant R at STP.
Q.8. What is Avogadro’s law of gases?
Q.9. How Dalton’s law is applicable to respiration process? (Applications of Dalton’s law)
Q.10. Define partial pressure. State Dalton’s law of partial pressure. Give example.
Q.11. Differentiate between diffusion and effusion.
Q.12. List four postulates of kinetic molecular theory.
Q.13. What is Joule-Thomson effect?
Q.14. What is the effect of pressure and temperature on density?
Q.15. Can we determine the molecular mass of an unknown gas if we know the pressure,
temperature and volume along with the mass of a gas?
Q.16. How do you justify from general gas equation that increase in temperature or decrease of
pressure decreases the density of the gas?
Q.17. Do you think that 1 mole of H2 and 1 mole of NH3 at 0 C and 1 atm pressure will have
Avogadro’s number of particles: If not, why?
Q.18. Dalton’s law of partial pressures is only obeyed by those gases, which don’t have
attractive forces among themselves. Explain it.
Q.19. Derive Boyle’s law from kinetic equation of gases.
Q.20. Derive Charles law from kinetic equation of gases.
Q.21. The plot of PV versus P is a straight line at constant temperature and with a fixed number
of moles of an ideal gas. Justify
Q.22. Define critical temperature and critical pressure with example.
Q.23. Water vapours don’t behave ideally at 273K. Justify.
Q.24. H2 and He are ideal at room temperature but SO2 and Cl2 are non-ideal. Justify
Q.25. Why SO2 is comparatively non-ideal at 273K but behaves ideally at 373K?
Q.26. How kinetic energy of molecules of a gas becomes zero at -273°C?
Q.27. Write units of a and b (Van der Waals constants).
Q.28. What are characteristics of plasma?
Page | 12
Q.29. What are future horizons of plasma?

Q.30. What do you mean by natural plasma and artificial plasma?
Q.31. Write down four applications of plasma.
Q.32. What are isotherms? What happens to the positions of isotherms when they are plotted at
high temperature for a particular gas?
Q.33. Why do we get a straight line when pressures exerted on a gas are plotted against inverse
of volumes? This straight line changes its position in the graph by varying the
temperature. Justify it.
Q.34. Justify that 1 cm3 of H2 and 1 cm3 of CH4 at STP will have same number of molecules,
when one molecule of CH4 is 8 times heavier than that of hydrogen.
LONG QUESTIONS
Q.1. State Boyle’s law and give its graphical explanation.
Q.2. State and explain Dalton’s law of partial pressure. Give its three applications.
Q.3. State Graham’s Law of diffusion and verify this law by an experiment.
Q.4. Derive Van der Waal equation for real gases.
Q.5. State and explain general equation.
Q.6. What is an ideal gas constant “R” calculates its value in different units?
Q.7. What is absolute zero? How it is derived from Charles’s law.
Q.8. Derive following gas laws from kinetic equation
(i) Boyle’s Law
(ii) Graham’s law of diffusion
(iii) Charles’s law
(iv) Avogadro’s law
Q.9. What is Joule Thomson effect? Describe Linde’s method of liquefaction.
Q.10. 250 cm3 of hydrogen is cooled from 127 ºC to –27 ºC by maintaining the pressure
constant. Calculate the new volume of gas at low temperature.
Q.11. A sample of nitrogen gas is enclosed in a vessel of volume 380 cm3 at 120 ºC and
pressure of 101325 Nm–2. This gas is transferred to a 10 dm3 flask and cooled to 27 ºC.
Calculate the pressure in Nm–2 exerted by the gas at 27 ºC.
Q.12. Calculate the density of CH4 gas at 0 ºC and 1 atmospheric pressure. What will happen to
the density if temperature is increased to 27 ºC or the pressure is increased to 2
atmospheres at 0 ºC?
Q.13. Calculate the mass of 1 dm3 of NH3 gas at 30 ºC and 1000 mm Hg pressure, considering
that NH3 is behaving ideal.
Q.14. There is a mixture of hydrogen, helium and methane occupying a vessel of volume 13 dm3
at 37 ºC and pressure of 1 atmosphere. The masses of H2 and He are 0.8 g and 0.12 g
respectively. Calculate the partial pressure in mm Hg of each gas in the mixture.
Q.15. 250 cm3 of the sample of hydrogen effuses four times as rapidly as 250 cm3 of an
unknown gas. Calculate the molar mass of unknown gas.
Q.16. One mole of methane is maintained at 300 K. Its volume is 250 cm3. Calculate the
pressure exerted by the gas under the following conditions;
• When the gas is ideal
• When the gas is non-ideal
a = 2.253 atm dm6 mol–2
Page | 13
b = 0.0428 dm3 mol–1

Q.17. A sample of krypton (noble gas) with a volume of 6.25 dm3 and a pressure of 765 torr
and a temperature of 20 °C is expanded to a volume of 9.55 dm3 and a pressure of 375
torr. What will be its final temperature in °C?
Q.18. Working at a vacuum line a chemist isolated a gas in weighing bulb with a volume of 255
cm3 at a temperature of 25 ºC and under a pressure in the bulb of 10.0 torr. The gas weighed
12.1 mg. What is the molecular mass of this gas?
Q.19. What pressure is exerted by a mixture of 2.00 g of H2 and 8.00 g of N2 at 273 K in a 10
dm3 vessel?
Q.20. The relative densities of two gases A and B are 1:1.5. Find out the volume of B, which
will diffuse in the same time in which 150 dm3 of A will diffuse?
Q.21. Calculate the number of molecules and the number of atoms in given amounts of each
gas (a) 20 cm3 of CH4 at 0 ºC and pressure of 700 mm of mercury
(b) 1 cm3 of NH3 at 100 ºC and pressure of 1.5 atm
Q.22. Calculate the masses of 1020 molecules each of H2, O2 and CO2 at STP. What will happen
to the masses of the gases when the temperature of these gases is increased by 100 ºC and
the pressure is decreased by 100 torr?
Page | 14
CHAPTER 4
MCQS
Q.1. The positive end of one molecule attracts the negative end of the other molecule and
these electrostatic forces of attraction are called
(A) Dipole-dipole forces (B) Ion-dipole force
(C) Dipole-induced dipole forces (D) London dispersive forces
Q.2. Forces, which are present between ions and water molecules are
(A) dipole-dipole forces (B) dipole-induced dipole forces
(C) ion-dipole forces
(D) instantaneous dipole-induced dipole forces
Q.3. Polarization is measure of extent of distortion
(A) qualitative (B) quantitative (C) systematic (D) None
Q.4. London dispersive forces are significant for
(A) polar molecules (B) ionic solids
(C) non-polar molecules (D) metals
Q.5. The boiling points of higher alkanes are greater than those of lower alkanes due to
following reasons
(A) Higher alkanes have greater number of atoms
(B) higher alkanes have low polarizability
(C) higher alkanes have strong hydrogen bonding (D) all
Q.6. Liquid is
(A) methane (B) propane (C) hexane (D) ethane
Q.7. London dispersion forces are the only forces present among them
(A) Molecules of water in liquid state
(B) Atoms of helium in gaseous state at high temperature
(C) Molecules of solid iodine
(D) Molecules of hydrogen chloride gas
Q.8. What is the physical state of hexane?
(A) Gas (B) Liquid (C) Solid (D) Plasma
Q.9. Acetone and chloroform are soluble in each other due to
(A) Intermolecular hydrogen bonding (B) Ion-dipole interaction
(C) Instantaneous dipoles (D) All of the above
Q.10. What is the physical state of H2S and H2Se at room temperature?
(A) Gas, gas (B) Liquid, gas (C) Liquid, liquid (D) Gas, liquid
Q.11. How many times the strength of hydrogen bond is less than that of covalent bond?
(A) Ten time (B) Twelve times (C) Twenty times (D) Forty times
Q.12. NH3 shows maximum boiling point among the hydrides of Vth A group element due
to
(A) Very small size of nitrogen
(B) Lone pair of electrons present on nitrogen
(C) Enhanced electronegative character of nitrogen
(D) Pyramidal structure of NH3
Page | 15
Q.13. When water freezes at 0 °C, its density decreases due to

(A) Cubic structure of ice
(B) Empty spaces present in the structure of ice
(C) Change of bond lengths
(D) Change of bond angles
Q.14. Which one of the following has low acidic strength?
(A) HCl (B) HBr (C) HI (D) HF
Q.15. Volume of ice increases than liquid water by
(A) 9% (B) 74% (C) 17% (D) 44%
Q.16. When two ice cubes are pressed on each other to form one cube. Which type of
forces will hold these cubes?
(A) ionic bond (B) coordinate covalent bond
(C) covalent bond (D) hydrogen bonding
Q.17. Hydrogen bonding is maximum in
(A) HF (B) HBr (C) HCl (D) HI
Q.18. HF is weakest among halogen acids due to
(A) Strong polar bond between H2 and F2 (B) hydrogen bonding
(C) electronegativity of fluorine (D) small size of fluorine
Q.19. Exothermic process is
(A) evaporation (B) boiling (C) sublimation (D) respiration
Q.20. Rate of change of vapour pressure with temperature is studied by
(A) kinetic equation (B) Arrhenius equation
(C) Vander Waal equation (D) Clausius-Clapeyron equation
Q.21. On which one of the following vapour pressure does not depend
(A) Amount of liquid (B) Volume of container(C) Surface area of liquid (D) All of them
Q.22. What is the vapor pressure of chloroform at 20ºC?
(A) 580 torr (B) 442.2 torr (C) 170 torr (D) 87 torr
Q.23. Vapour pressure is affected by
(A) temperature (B) amount of liquid
(C) surface area (D) size of container
Q.24. Liquids evaporate at every temperature. When temperature becomes constant for
liquid, then
(A) rate of evaporation is greater than rate of condensation
(B) rate of evaporation is less than rate of condensation
(C) rate of evaporation is equal to rate of condensation
(D) It depends upon nature of liquid.
Q.25. In order to mention the boiling point of water at 110 °C, the external pressure
should be
(A) Between 760 torr and 1200 torr (B) Between 200 torr and 760 torr
(C) Between 765 torr (D) Any value of pressure
Q.26. Which one of the following has lowest boiling point?
(A) Ethane (B) Propane (C) Methane (D) Butane
Q.27. What is the vapor pressure of water at 120ºC?
(A) 1.089 torr (B) 1189 torr (C) 1284 torr (D) 1489 torr
Page | 16
Q.28. The normal boiling point of liquid

(A) is the temperature at which liquid and vapours are in equilibrium
(B) varies with temperature
(C) is the temperature at which vapour pressure becomes equal to external pressure
(D) is directly proportional to molecular weight of substance
Q.29. Distillation of liquid under reduced pressure is called
(A) steam distillation (B) vacuum distillation
(C) fractional distillation (D) destructive distillation
Q.30. Heat change for one mole of solid during conversion into liquid is called
(A) molar heat of fusion (B) molar heat of sublimation
(C) molar heat of vaporization (D) enthalpy change
Q.31. Amorphous solids
(A) Have sharp melting point
(B) Undergo clean cleavage when cut with knife
(C) Have perfect arrangement of atoms
(D) Can possesses small regions of orderly arrangement of atoms
Q.32. Which of the following is a pseudo solid?
(A) CaF2 (B) Glass (C) NaCl (D) All
Q.33. Glass, plastics, rubber and glue are examples of
(A) Crystalline solids (B) Amorphous solids (C) Both A&B (D) True solids
Q.34. The repetition of faces, angles or edges when a crystal is rotated by 360o along its axis is
called:
(A) Anisotropy (B) Habit of a crystal (C) Symmetry (D) Isomorphism
Q.35. What temperature is required to convert grey tin into white tin?
(A) 13.2 ºC (B) 95.5 ºC (C) 59.9 ºC (D) 32.1 ºC
Q.36. How many crystal systems are there?
(A) 230 (B) 14 (C) 7 (D) 13
Q.37. CuSO4, 5H2O is the example of
(A) Triclinic crystal (B) Hexagonal crystal
(C) Monoclinic crystal (D) Cubic crystal
Q.38. Which one of the system has all the three equal axes of equal length and at right end
to one another?
(A) Tetragonal system (B) Monoclinic system
(C) Cubic system (D) Triclinic system
Q.39. The transition temperature of tin is
(A) 95.5 ºC (B) 13.2 ºC (C) 128 ºC (D) 0 ºC
Q.40. How many allotropic forms are present in carbon?
(A) two (B) three (C) four (D) five
Q.41. K2SO4 and K2CrO4 are isomorphous solids and exist in
(A) cubic form (B) orthorhombic form (C) trigonal form (D) tetragonal form
Q.42. Existence of compound in more than one crystalline form is called
(A) isomorphism (B) allotropy (C) anisotropy (D) polymorphism
Q.43. a = b = c and α = β = γ crystal is
(A) cubic (B) needle (C) orthorhombic (D) trigonal
Page | 17
Q.44. A crystal system in which all the axis and angles are unequal
(A) tetragonal (B) monoclinic (C) triclinic (D) cubic
Q.45. The axis (unit cell length) for copper is
(A) a = b ≠ c (B) a =b = c (C) a ≠ b ≠ c (D) a ≠ b = c
Q.46. Example of hexagonal system is?
(A) Diamond (B) graphite (C) NaCl (D) Sulphur
Q.47. Ionic solids are characterized by
(A) Low melting points (B) Good conductivity in solid state
(C) High vapor pressures (D) Solubility in polar solvents
Q.48. Which one of the following is the lattice energy of NaCl?
(A) – 833 kJ/mole (B) – 895 kJ/mole (C) – 787 kJ/mole (D) –690 kJ/mole
Q.49. Which one of the solids is also called atomic solid?
(A) Ionic solids (B) Covalent solids (C) Metallic solids (D) Molecular solids
Q.50. What is the bond angle in diamond?
(A) 104.5o (B) 106.5o (C) 109.5o (D) 180o
Q.51. Diamond is a bad conductor because
(A) It has a tight structure
(B) It has a high density
(C) There is no free electron present in the crystal of diamond to conduct electricity.
(D) Is transparent to light
Q.52. Coordination number of Na+1 in NaCl is
(A) two (B) four (C) six (D) eight
Q.53. Ionic solids do not conduct electric current because
(A) ions do not have translatory motion
(B) free electrons are less
(C) coordination number of ions is very high
(D) strong covalent bonds are present in their structure.
Q.54. LiF is a crystalline substance and has
(A) ionic crystals (B) molecular crystals
(C) covalent crystals (D) metallic crystals
Q.55. Crystal of diamond is
(A) ionic (B) molecular (C) covalent (D) metallic
Q.56. The carbon atom of diamond is
(A) sp hybridized (B) sp3 hybridized (C) sp2hybridized
(D) dsp2 hybridized
Q.57. The molecules of CO2 in dry ice form the
(A) Ionic crystals (B) Covalent crystals
(C) Molecular crystals(D) Any type of crystal
Q.58. What is the bond distance between I-I bond in gaseous state?
(A) 266.6 pm (B) 271.5 pm (C) 281.9 pm (D) 280.5 pm
Q.59. Which of the following does not form molecular crystal?
(A) sugar (B) iodine (C) ice (D) graphite
Q.60. The arrangement ABC, ABC … is referred as
(A) Cubic close packing (B) Octahedral close packing
(C) Hexagonal close packing (D) Tetrahedral close packing
Page | 18
SHORT QUESTIONS
Q.1. What are dipole-dipole forces?
Q.2. What are London dispersive forces?
Q.3. Define hydrogen bonding.
Q.4. Why HF is weaker acid than HI?
Q.5. H2S is gas while H2O is liquid? Justify
Q.6. Why ice floats on water? (Why ice has less density than water?)
Q.7. Why water has higher boiling point than HF?
Q.8. Define evaporation. Name the factors affecting evaporation.
Q.9. What are the factors affecting vapour pressure?
Q.10. Define vapour pressure.
Q.11. How meat is cooked readily in pressure cooker?
Q.12. Define boiling point. How it depends upon external pressure?
Q.13. Define molar heat of vaporization with one example.
Q.14. Define molar heat of fusion.
Q.15. Define molar heat of sublimation.
Q.16. Write four applications of liquid crystals.
Q.17. Define liquid crystal with example.
Q.18. How liquid crystals are important in medical field?
Q.19. Define symmetry. What are elements of symmetry?
Q.20. Describe isomorphism with two examples.
Q.21. What is polymorphism? Give two examples.
Q.22. Define allotropy with two examples.
Q.23. Describe transition temperature with examples.
Q.24. What is difference between crystalline and amorphous solids?
Q.25. Define lattice energy. Give example.
Q.26. Write two properties of covalent crystals.
Q.27. Why molecular solids are softer that ionic solids?
Q.28. What is electron pool theory or electron gas theory?
Q.29. What is metallic luster?
Q.30. What are Debye forces (dipole-induced dipole forces)?
Q.31. What are the advantages of vacuum distillation?
Q.32. Why the metals are malleable and ductile?
Q.33. Evaporation causes cooling.
Q.34. Evaporation takes place at all temperatures.
Q.35. Boiling needs a constant supply of heat. Why?
Q.36. Earthenware vessels keep water cool.
Q.37. One feels sense of cooling under the fan after bath.
Q.38. The boiling point of water is different at Murree Hills and at Mount Everest.
Q.39. Heat of sublimation of iodine is very high.
Q.40. Diamond is hard and electrical insulator.
Q.41. What is anisotropy? Give one example
Q.42. The electrical conductivity of the metals decreases by increasing temperature.
Q.43. Ionic crystals don’t conduct electricity in the solid state.
Q.44. Ionic crystals are highly brittle.
Page | 19
LONG QUESTIONS
Q.1. Write a note on the factors affecting the strength of London forces.
Q.2. Define vapour pressure. How vapour pressure is measured by monomeric method?
Q.3. What are liquid crystal Write three uses of liquid crystals in daily life.
Q.4. Define hydrogen bonding Explain role of hydrogen bonding in food and biological
materials.
Q.5. What are the intermolecular forces? Name the four types of these forces and explain only
one.
Q.6. Define hydrogen bonding. How does it explain the indicated properties? (i) Structure of
Ice (ii) Solubility hydrogen bonded molecules.
Q.7. Explain electron gas theory of metals. Explain conductivity and shiny surface of metals
according to this theory.
Q.8. What is electron pool theory regarding to metallic solids? Also give its four properties.
Q.9. Define boiling point. What is the effect of external pressure on boiling point of a
substance? Give example
Q.10. What are metallic solid? Write three properties of metallic solids.
Q.11. What are covalent solids? Discuss the structure of diamond.
Q.12. What are molecular solids? Explain properties of molecular solids.
Q.13. What are ionic solids? Describe their important properties.
Page | 20
CHAPTER 5
MCQS
Q.1. What type of fluorescence is produced when cathode rays strike on the walls of glass
tube?
(A) Yellow (B) Orange (C) Pink (D) Greenish
Q.2. Who discovered positive rays?
(A) J. J. Thomson (B) Chadwick (C) E. Goldstein (D) Rutherford
Q.3. Cathode rays were named as electrons by
(A) Thomson (B) Stoney (C) Perrin (D) William Crook
Q.4. The mass of proton (neutron) is …….times more than electron
(A) 1840 (B) 1836 (C) 1832 (D) 1828
Q.5. The nature of positive rays depend on
(A) The nature of electrode (B) The nature of discharge tube
(C) The nature of residual gas (D) All of the above
Q.6. The charge on proton is
(A) 1.6022 × 10-19 C (B) 1.6022 × 1019 C (C) 1.6022 × 10-11 C (D) 1.6022 × 1011 C
Q.7. When one beta particle (β) is emitted from the nucleus of an atom, its
(A) Atomic number increases by one (B) Atomic number decreases by one
(C) Atomic mass increases by one (D) Atomic mass decreases by one
Q.8. 1 Å= ?
(A) 10-10 m (B) 10-11 m (C) 10-12 m (D) 10-13 m
Q.9. With which speed fast neutrons move?
(A) 1.2 Mev (B) 2 Mev (C) 0.2 Mev (D) 2.02 Mev
Q.10. Neutron was discovered by
(A) Chadwick (B) Goldstein (C) Thomson (D) Rutherford
Q.11. A fast neutron ejects particles from the nucleus of nitrogen atom
(A) α (B) β (C) y (D) X-ray
Q.12. Rutherford’s model of atom failed because:
(A) The atom did not have a nucleus and electrons
(B) It did not account for the attraction between protons and neutrons
(C) It did not account for the stability of the atom
(D) There is actually no space between the nucleus and the electrons.
Q.13. The velocity of photon is
(A) Independent of its wavelength (B) Depends on its wavelength
(C) Equal to square of its amplitude (D) Depends on its source
Q.14. The wave number of the light emitted by a certain source is 2×106m–1. The
wavelength of this light will be
(A) 500 nm (B) 500 m
(C) 200 nm (D) 5 × 107m
Q.15. is the number of wave passing through a point per second.
(A) Frequency (B) Displacement (C) Wavelength (D) None of them
Page | 21
Q.16. Which one of the following is Planck’s equation?
h
(A) E = hv (B) E = mc2 (C) λ = (D) None of them
mc
Q.17. The frequency of X-rays having wavelength of 4 Å is
(A) 1.33 × 1018 Hz (B) 7.5 × 1017 Hz (C) 2 × 1018 Hz (D) 2.6 × 1010 Hz
Q.18. Bohr’s model of atom is contradicted by
(A) Planck’s quantum theory (B) Pauli’s exclusion theory
(C) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle (D) All of the above.
Q.19. Paschen series is obtained when electron in an orbit jumps from higher energy level
to
(A) 1st level (B) 2nd level (C) 3rd level (D) 4th level
Q.20. Splitting of spectral lines when atoms are subjected to strong electric field is called
(A) Zeeman effect (B) Stark effect
(C) Photoelectric effect (D) Compton effect
Q.21. What is the wavelength of visible spectrum?
(A) 400 to 750 nm (B) 300 to 950 nm (C) 900 to 950 nm (D) 300 to 700 nm
Q.22. Who did an experiment to verify the wave nature of moving electron?
(A) Davisson (B) Germer (C) Both A and B (D) de Broglie
Q.23. Which equation correctly represents Heisenberg principle
(A) ∆x.∆P = h/4π (B) ∆x.∆P ≥ h/4π (C) ∆x.∆P > h/4π (D) ∆x.∆P ≤ h/4π
Q.24. d-subshell consists of
(A) 3 orbitals (B) 5 orbitals (C) 7 orbital (D) 1 orbital
Q.25. After filling 4f, the entering electron goes to
(A) 4d (B) 6s (C) 6p (D) 5d
Q.26. Quantum number values for 6d orbitals are
(A) n=6, l=2 (B) n=5, l=2 (C) n=6, l=1 (D) n=6, l=3
Q.27. How many electrons are there in f-subshell?
(A) 2 (B) 6 (C) 10 (D) 14
Q.28. Which of the following elements contain 20 electrons, 20 protons and 20 neutrons?
(A) Magnesium (B) Calcium (C) Sodium (D) Carbon
Q.29. What is the electronic configuration of Beryllium?
(A) 1s2, 2s2 (B) 1s2, 2s1 (C) 1s2, 2s2, 2p1 (D) 1s2, 2s1, 2p2
Q.30. In the ground state of an atom, the electron is present
(A) In the nucleus (B) In the second shell
(C) Nearest to the nucleus (D) Farthest from the nucleus
Q.31. Quantum number values for 2p orbitals are
(A) n=2, l=1 (B) n=1, l=2 (C) n=1, l=0 (D) n=2, l=0
Q.32. Orbital having same energy is called
(A) Hybrid orbital (B) Valence orbital (C) Degenerate orbital(D) d-orbital
Q.33. When 6d orbital is complete, the entering electron goes into
(A) 7f (B) 7s (C) 7p (D) 7d
Q.34. Maximum number of unpaired electrons are present in
(A) Fe =26 (B) Ni = 28 (C) Na= 11 (D) Cr =24
Q.35. The ion which is isoelectronic with CO is
(A) CN-1 (B) O2+ (C) O2-1 (D) N2+
Page | 22
SHORT QUESTIONS
Q.1. Justify that cathode rays are material particles with negative charge.
Q.2. Show that cathode rays have momentum.
Q.3. How will you prove that cathode rays travel in straight line?
Q.4. Give any four properties of positive rays.
Q.5. What is the reason of production of positive rays? (How positive rays are produced?)
Q.6. The e/m values of +ve rays depend upon nature of gas. Justify.
Q.7. What are products of decay of neutron?
Q.8. Calculate mass of an electron from e/m value.
Q.9. What are drawbacks of Rutherford’s atomic model?
Q.10. Define wave number. Give its units.
Q.11. Give two postulates of Planck’s quantum theory.
Q.12. Give two postulates of Bohr’s atomic model.
Q.13. What are defects of Bohr’s atomic model?
Q.14. Differentiate between continuous and line spectrum.
Q.15. Differentiate between atomic emission and atomic absorption spectrum.
Q.16. What is Zeeman Effect?
Q.17. What is stark effect?
Q.18. State Moseley’s law.
Q.19. What is the importance of Moseley’s law?
Q.20. Describe Heisenberg uncertainty principle.
Q.21. State Hund’s rule.
Q.22. Give electronic configuration of elements with atomic numbers 21, 29, 19, 37, 26, 57, 24,
17, 7, 15, 11, 35 and 55.
Q.23. State Pauli-Exclusion principle.
Q.24. State Auf bau principle.
Q.25. What is (n+l) rule?
Q.26. Why is it necessary to decrease the pressure in the discharge tube to get the cathode rays?
Q.27. Whichever gas is used in the discharge tube the cathode rays remains the same. Why?
Q.28. Why e/m value of the cathode rays is just equal to that of electron?
Q.29. Why the positive rays are also called canal rays? Give its reason.
LONG QUESTIONS
Q.1. What is cathode rays tube? Describe properties of cathode rays.
Q.2. How proton was discovered by discharge tube? OR what are positive rays? Give their
properties.
Q.3. Explain oil drop experiment for determining the charge of electron.
Q.4. What is Rutherford atomic model? Give its main points and two defects.
Q.5. Give the postulates of Bohr’s atomic model.
Q.6. Derive the equation for the radius of nth orbit hydrogen atom using Bohr’s model.
Q.7. Write the defects of Bohr’s atomic model.
Q.8. What is neutron? How was it discovered? Give its two properties.
Q.9. What is spectrum? Differentiate between line spectrum and continuous spectrum. Also
explain types of line spectrum.
Page | 23
Q.10. Write detail note on x-rays.

Q.11. Derive the formula for calculating energy of an electron in the nth orbit using Bohr’s
atomic model.
Q.12. What are quantum numbers? Write a note on Azimuthal and magnetic quantum numbers?
Q.13. Draw the shapes of s, p and d orbitals.
Q.14. Explain dual nature of electron by De-Broglie equation.
Q.15. What are quantum numbers? Describe significance of any two quantum numbers.
Page | 24
CHAPTER 6
MCQS
Q.1. Chemical bonding occurs when
(A) Energy is absorbed (B) Attraction equalized repulsion
(C) Repulsion overcomes attraction (D) Attraction overcomes repulsion
Q.2. Which of the following is different from the rest?
(A) Ionic bond (B) Covalent bond
(C) Co-ordinate covalent bond (D) Hydrogen bond
Q.3. Which of the following molecule obey octet rule?
(A) SF6 (B) BCl3 (C) BF3 (D) NH3
Q.4. Noble gases are the least reactive because of their
(A) Gaseous nature (B) Electronic configuration
(C) Atomic sizes (D) Nuclear charge
Q.5. Which of the following compounds is formed according to octet rule
(A) PF5 (B) HF (C) BCl3 (D) SF6
Q.6. Value of first ionization energy of Mg is
(A) 1450 kJ/mol (B) 738 kJ/mol (C) -349 kJ/mol (D) -500 kJ/mol
Q.7. Which of the following has highest ionization energy?
(A) O (B) Be (C) C (D) F
Q.8. Which of the following molecule is polar?
(A) CCl4 (B) HCl (C) BF3 (D) CO2
+ –
Q.9. An ionic compound A B is most likely to be formed when
(A) The ionization energy of A is high and electron affinity of B is low.
(B) The ionization energy of A is low and electron affinity of B is high.
(C) Both the ionization energy of A and electron affinity of B are high.
(D) Both the ionization energy of A and electron affinity of B are low.
Q.10. Ionic bonds are
(A) Directional (B) Non-directional (C) Non-polar (D) Unidirectional
Q.11. Coordinate covalent bond is present in
(A) NaCl (B) NH4Cl (C) AlCl3 (D) HCl
Q.12. Which theory explains that the pairs of electrons around the central atom lie at a
maximum distance so that they experience minimum repulsion?
(A) VSEPR theory (B) VB theory (C) MO theory (D) Lewis theory
Q.13. Which of the following has a planar triangular geometry?
(A) NH3 (B) H2O (C)CO2 (D) C2H4
Q.14. SO3 molecule is
(A) Pyramidal (B) Trigonal (C) Tetrahedral (D) Linear
Q.15. The shape of SnCl2 molecule is
(A) Linear (B) Angular (C) Trigonal planar (D) Tetrahedral
Q.16. The geometry of SO2 molecule is
(A) Linear (B) Angular (C) Trigonal planar (D) Tetrahedral
Q.17. H–O–H bond angle in water is
(A) 90o (B) 109.5o (C) 120o (D) 104.5o
Page | 25
Q.18. Ethylene molecule contains

(A) 2σ and 2π bonds (B) 5σand 1π bonds (C) 3σ and 2π bonds (D) 4σand 2π bond
Q.19. The electronic configuration of ‘C’ in its ground state is:
(A) 1s2 2s2 2p1x 2p1y 2p1z (B) 1s2 2s2 2p1x 2p1y 2p0z
2 1 1 1 1
(C) 1s 2s 2p x 2p y 2p z (D) 1s2 2s2 2p2x 2p2y 2p2z
Q.20. Electronic configuration of an atom is 1S2 2S2 2P4. The number of unpaired
electrons in the atom is
(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 6
Q.21. The number of bonds in nitrogen molecule is
(A) One σ and one π (B) One σ and two π (C) Three σ only (D) Two σ and one π
Q.22. The number of bonds in oxygen molecule is
(A) two sigma (B) one sigma and one pi
(C) two pi (D) none
2
Q.23. The angle in sp hybridization is
(A) 109.5º (B) 180º (C) 107.5º (D) 120º
Q.24. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding bonding molecular
orbitals
(A) Bonding molecular orbitals possess less energy than atomic orbitals from which they are
formed.
(B) Bonding molecular orbitals have low electron density between the two nuclei.
(C) Every electron in the bonding molecular orbitals contributes to the attraction between
atoms.
(D) Bonding molecular orbitals are formed when the electron waves undergo constructive
interference.
Q.25. Which of the following species molecules has unpaired electrons in anti-bonding
molecular orbitals
(A) O2+2 (B) N2–2 (C) B2 (D) F2
Q.26. Bond order of N2 according to MO theory is
(A) zero (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
Q.27. Highest bond order is of
(A) O2-1 (B) O2+2 (C) O2-2 (D) O2+1
Q.28. Average bond enthalpy of H-H bond is
(A) 463 kJ mol–1 (B) 436 kJ mol–1 (C) 336 kJ mol–1 (D) 346 kJ mol–1
Q.29. Which of the following does not have dipole moment?
(A) ClO2 (B) CO2 (C) NO2 (D) SO2
Q.30. Which of the following molecules has zero dipole moment?
(A) NH3 (B) CHCl3 (C) H2O (D) BF3
Q.31. Dipole moment of H2O is
(A) 0.95 D (B) 1.85 D (C) 1.61 D (D) 0.12 D
Q.32. Which of the hydrogen halides has a high percentage of ionic character?
(A) HCl (B) HBr (C) HF (D) HI
Q.33. Which of the following has zero dipole moment?
(A) CH3Cl (B) HCl (C) H2 (D) H2S
Page | 26
Q.34. Stronger the dipole, greater is

(A) Bond length (B) Bond energy (C) Bond strength (D) Both B and C
Q.35. Most ionic compounds are soluble in
(A) Benzene (B) Chloroform (C) Ether (D) Water
SHORT QUESTIONS
Q.1. What is octet rule? Give two examples of compounds which deviate from it.
Q.2. π–bonds are more diffused than σ- bonds.
Q.3. Bond distance is the compromise distance between two atoms.
Q.4. Define atomic radius. How it varies in periods and groups?
Q.5. Radius of an atom cannot be determined precisely. Write two reasons.
Q.6. Why size of cation is smaller than parent atom?
Q.7. Size of anion is greater than parent atom. Why?
Q.8. Define covalent radius with example.
Q.9. Define ionic radius.
Q.10. What are the factors affecting ionization energy?
Q.11. How ionization energy varies in periods and groups?
Q.12. Define ionization energy with example.
Q.13. 2nd ionization energy is greater than 1st.Why?
Q.14. Define electron affinity with example.
Q.15. Why 2nd electron affinity is shown with positive sign?
Q.16. What are the factors affecting electron affinity?
Q.17. How electron affinity varies in periods and groups?
Q.18. Why electron affinity of fluorine is smaller than chlorine?
Q.19. Define electronegativity with example.
Q.20. How electronegativity varies in periods and groups?
Q.21. How electronegativity difference decides nature of bond?
Q.22. There is no bond 100 % ionic in chemistry. Justify.
Q.23. Why ionic bonds are stronger than covalent bonds?
Q.24. Define polar and non-polar covalent bond.
Q.25. Write down two postulates of VSEPR theory? What is shape of BF3 on the basis of
VSEPR theory?
Q.26. Why CO2 and CS2 have linear structure?
Q.27. Why lone pair occupies more space than bond pair?
Q.28. Explain the structure of NH3 molecule on the basis of VSEPR theory.
Q.29. Differentiate between sigma and π-bond.
Q.30. What is the necessary condition for bond formation according to VBT?
Q.31. Why π-bond is weaker bond than sigma bond? Or why sigma bond is stronger than π-
bond?
Q.32. Define bond order. What is bond order of O2+2 and N2?
Q.33. Why MOT is superior to VBT?
Q.34. He2 molecule is not formed, why? (How MOT explains that helium is monoatomic)
Q.35. Define bond energy with example and Give two factors.
Q.36. Define bond length with example.
Q.37. Define dipole moment. Give its units.
Page | 27
LONG QUESTIONS
Q.1. Define ionization energy. On what factors it depends? explain its trends .
Q.2. Define electron affinity. One what factors its depends? Explain its trends.
Q.3. Define covalent bond. Discuss its type with suitable examples.
Q.4. What is electrovalent bond? What conditions are necessary for formation of bond? Give
two examples.
Q.5. Define coordinate covalent bond. Give three examples.
Q.6. Define electronegativity. Discuss trend of electronegativity in periodic table. How does it
affect the bond strength?
Q.7. Explain paramagnetic nature of O2 according to molecular are orbital theory.
Q.8. What is sp3 hybridization? Explain the structure of CH4 according to hybridization
theory.
Q.9. Explain structure of the following molecules according to VSEPR theory. (i) BeCl2 (ii)
BF3
Q.10. Explain N2 molecule according to molecular orbits theory and calculate bond order.
Q.11. Define dipole moment. Give its various units. How would you justify with the help of
dipole moment value that CO2 is linear and H2O is angular molecule?
Q.12. Write postulates of VSEPR theory. Explain structure of CH4 with reference to VSEPR
theory.
Q.13. Define hybridization? Explain the structure of ethene on the basis of sp2 hybridization in
detail. Give two examples.
Q.14. What is hybridization? Explain the structure of ethyne on the basis of sp-hybridization.
Q.15. Explain valence bond theory (VBT) with examples showing the overlapping of different
orbitals.
Page | 28
CHAPTER 7
MCQS
Q.1. If an endothermic reaction is allowed to take place very rapidly in the air, the
temperature of the surrounding air:
(A) Remains constant (B) Increases
(C) Decreases (D) Remain unchanged
Q.2. In endothermic reactions, the heat content of the:
(A) Products is more than that of reactants (B) Reactants is more than that of products
(C) Both A and B (D) Reactants and products are equal
Q.3. Whenever a reaction is endothermic, it means that
(A) heat is transferred from system to surrounding
(B) heat is transferred from surrounding to system
(C) heat content of reactants is greater than products
(D) both A and C
Q.4. Calorie is equivalent to
(A) 0.4184 J (B) 41.84 J (C) 4.184 J (D) 418.4 J
Q.5. Spontaneous reactions are
(A) reversible (B) irreversible (C) non-irreversible (D) none
Q.6. A spontaneous change is
(A) Exothermic (B) Endothermic
(C) Associated with decrease in entropy (D) Associated with decrease in free energy
Q.7. Which of the following is not spontaneous process?
(A) Burning of coal (B) Condensation of steam
(C) Melting of ice (D) Oxidation of nitrogen
Q.8. is a macroscopic property of a system which has some definite values for
initial and final states and which is independent of path followed that brings about a
change:
(A) State function (B) Chemical reactivity
(C) Rate of a reaction (D) Heat
Q.9. Which of the following is not a state function?
(A) Internal energy (B) Enthalpy (C) Entropy (D) Reaction rate
Q.10. Which is not a state function?
(A) enthalpy (B) work (C) pressure (D) temperature
Q.11. Work done by a system is given by
P V
(A) w = P V (B) w = – P V (C) w = – (D) w = P
V
Q.12. If the work done by a system is of pressure volume types and the system absorbs
heat from the surroundings, the energy change E is given by:
(A) E = P V – q (B) E = q + w (C) E = q.P V (D) E = q – P V
Page | 29
Q.13. Which of the following statements is contrary to the first law of thermodynamics?
(A) Energy can neither be created nor destroyed
(B) One form of energy can be transferred into an equivalent amount of other kinds of
energy
(C) In an adiabatic process, the work done is independent of its path
(D) Continuous production of mechanical work without supplying an equivalent amount
of heat is possible
Q.14. At constant volume, qv is equal to
(A) ∆H (B) ∆H (C) ∆E (D) ∆V
Q.15. For any system, the difference between internal energy and enthalpy can be
expressed as
(A) CP (B) PV (C) CV (D) RT
Q.16. ∆H = ∆E for
(A) liquids and solids (B) liquids and gases (C) gases and solids (D) none of these
Q.17. The state function which describes internal energy and product of pressure volume
work together is
(A) free energy (B) work (C) enthalpy (D) internal energy
Q.18. The standard heat changes occur at
(A) 25 ºC and 2atm (B) 298 K and 1atm
(C) 25 ºC and 1mmHg (D) 273 K and 1atm
Q.19. The change in heat energy of a chemical reaction at constant temperature and
pressure is called
(A) Enthalpy change (B) Bond energy
(C) Heat of sublimation (D) Internal energy change
Q.20. For a given process, the heat changes at constant pressure (qp) and at a constant
volume (qv) are related to each other as
(A) qp = qv (B) qp< qv
(C) qp> qv (D) qp = qv/2
Q.21. Standard enthalpy changes are measured at
(A) 298 ºC (B) 273 ºC (C) 298 K (D) 298ºF
Q.22. Enthalpy change occurring when the number of moles of reactants as indicated by
the balanced equation react together to give the products at 298K and 1 atm is
called
(A) Negative enthalpy change (B) Positive enthalpy change
(C) Heat of formation (D) Standard enthalpy change
Q.23. Standard enthalpy of atomization of hydrogen is
(A) 218 kJ mol–1 (B) 393.3 kJ mol–1 (C) – 57.4 kJ mol–1 (D) 281 kJ mol–1
Q.24. When 1 mole H+ react with 1 mole OH– to form 1 mole H2O, the enthalpy change is
referred to as
(A) Standard enthalpy of atomization (B) Standard enthalpy of neutralization
(C) Standard enthalpy of reaction (D) Standard enthalpy of formation
Q.25. Enthalpy of neutralization of NaOH by HCl is
(A) – 218 kJ mol–1 (B) – 57.4 kJ mol–1 (C) – 393.3 kJ mol–1 (D) – 574.4 kJ mol–1
Page | 30
Q.26. For the reaction NaOH + HCl NaCl + H2O, the change in enthalpy is
called
(A) Heat of reaction (B) Heat of formation
(C) Heat of neutralization (D) Heat of combustion
Q.27. Enthalpy of neutralization of all the strong acids and strong bases has the same
value because:
(A) Neutralization leads to the formation of salt and water
(B) Strong acids and bases are ionic substances
(C) Acids always give rise to H+ ions and bases always furnish OH– ions
(D) The net chemical change involve the combination of H+ and OH– ions to form water
Q.28. Enthalpy change when 1 mole of compound is burnt in excess supply of oxygen is
(A) heat of solution (B) heat of sublimation
(C) heat of combustion (D) heat of neutralization
Q.29. The enthalpies of elements in their standard states are
(A) always positive (B) always negative (C) unity (D) zero
Q.30. Enthalpy change for the reaction
C2H5OH + 3O2 2CO2 + 3H2O is called enthalpy of
(A) enthalpy of neutralization (B) enthalpy of atomization
(C) enthalpy of combustion (D) enthalpy of formation
Q.31. Enthalpy change for the reaction
1Cl2 Cl ∆H = 121kJ/mol is called
2
(A) enthalpy of neutralization (B) enthalpy of atomization
(C) enthalpy of combustion (D) enthalpy of formation
Q.32. In bomb calorimeter, the reactions are carried out at
(A) constant volume (B) variable volume (C) constant pressure (D) both A and C
Q.33. The net heat change in a chemical reaction is same whether it is brought about in
two or more different ways in one or several steps. It is known as
(A) Henry’s law (B) Joule’s principle
(C) Hess’s law (D) Law of conservation of energy
Q.34. Born-Haber cycle is best application of --------- law
(A) Hess’s (B) Boyle’s (C) Daktib’s (D) Graham’s
Q.35. Which correctly represents lattice energy of compound, XY
(A) X + Y XY (B) X(g) + Y(g) XY
(C) X+1(g) + Y-1(g) XY(s) (D) X(g) + Y(g) XY(s)
SHORT QUESTIONS
Q.1. Differentiate between exothermic and endothermic reactions.
Q.2. Differentiate between spontaneous and non-spontaneous reactions.
Q.3. Define system and surrounding.
Q.4. Define state and state function.
Q.5. What is internal energy? Prove that ∆E = qv
Q.6. State 1st law of thermodynamics.
Q.7. Define enthalpy. Give its equation.
Q.8. What is the comparison of ∆H and ∆E. or State why ∆H ≈ ∆E in a case of liquids and
solids.
Page | 31
Q.9. Define enthalpy of formation.

Q.10. What is enthalpy of neutralization?
OR
Why enthalpy of neutralization of strong acids and bases is always -57.4 kJ/mol?
Q.11. Define enthalpy of atomization.
Q.12. What is standard enthalpy of combustion?
Q.13. Define standard enthalpy of solution.
Q.14. How do we determine H in the laboratory for food, fuel etc?
Q.15. Prove that ∆H = qp
Q.16. How enthalpy of reaction can be determined by glass calorimeter?
Q.17. State Hess’s law of constant heat summation.
Q.18. Define lattice energy. Give example.
Q.19. Explain that burning of a candle is a spontaneous process.
Q.20. Is it true that non-spontaneous process never happens in the universe? Explain it.
Q.21. What is a thermochemical equation? Give three examples. What information do they
convey?
Q.22. Why is it necessary to mention the physical states of reactants and products in a thermo-
chemical reaction? Apply Hess’s law to justify your answer.
LONG QUESTIONS
Q.1. State and explain first law of thermodynamic. How does it explain that qp=∆H?
Q.2. Define enthalpy of combustion. How bomb calorimeter is used to determine the enthalpy
of combustion.
Q.3. Define enthalpy of neutralization. How glass calorimeter is used to determine the
enthalpy of neutralization.
Q.4. State and explain Hess’s law of constant heat summation with some suitable examples.
Q.5. What is Born Haber cycle? How it is used to determine the Lattice energy of sodium
chloride.
Q.6. When 2.00 moles of H2 and 1.00 mole of O2 at 100 ºC and 1 bar pressure react to
produce 2.00 moles of gaseous water, 484.5 kJ of energy is evolved. What are (a) ∆H and
(b) ∆E for the production of one mole of H2O (g)?
Q.7. Neutralization of 100 cm3 of 0.5 M NaOH at 25 ºC with 100 cm3 of 0.5 M HCl at 25
ºC raised the temperature of the reaction mixture to 28.5 ºC. Find the enthalpy of
neutralization. Specific heat of water = 4.2 J g–1 K–1.
Q.8. If 10.16 g of graphite is burnt in a bomb calorimeter and the temperature rise recorded is
3.87 K. Calculate enthalpy of combustion of graphite if heat capacity of the calorimeter
(bomb, water, etc.) is 86.92 kJ K–1 mol–1.
Q.9. 50 cm3 of 1.0 M HCl is mixed with 50 cm3 of 1.00 M NaOH in a glass calorimeter.
The temperature of the resultant mixture increases from 21.0 to 27.5 °C. Assume
that calorimeter losses of heat are negligible. Calculate the enthalpy change mol–1
for the reactions. The density of solution to be considered is 1 g.cm–3 and specific
heat is
4.18 J.g–1K.
Page | 32
Q.10. Hydrazine N2H4 is rocket fuel. It burns in O2 to give N2 and H2O.

N2H4(l) + O2(g) ———→ N2(g) + 2H2O(g)
1.00 g of N2H4 is burnt in a bomb calorimeter. An increase in temperature 3.51 °C is
recorded. The heat capacity of calorimeter is 5.5 kJ K–1. Calculate the quantity of heat
evolved. Also calculate the heat of combustion of 1 mole of N2H4.
Q.11. Octane C8H18 is a motor fuel 1.80 g of a sample of octane is burned in a bomb
calorimeter having heat capacity 11.66 kJ K–1. The temperature of the calorimeter
increases from 21.36°C to 28.78°C. Calculate the heat of combustion for 1 g of octane.
Also calculate the heat for 1 mole of octane.
Page | 33
CHAPTER 8
MCQS
[product]
Q.1. If ratio is less than Kc, it implies
[reactant]
(A) Less product is required to attain chemical equilibrium
(B) More product is required to attain chemical equilibrium
(C) More reactant is required to attain chemical equilibrium
(D) None of them
Q.2. For which system does the equilibrium constant, Kc has units of (concentration)–1?
(A) N2+3H2 2NH3 (B) H2+I2 2HI
(C) 2NO2 N2O4 (D) 2HF H2+F2
Q.3. When Kc is very small, equilibrium position is
(A) towards left (B) towards right (C) remains unchanged (D) none
Q.4. The unit of “Kc” for the reaction is
N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g)
-3
(A) mol. dm (B) no units (C) mol-2. dm+6 (D) dm3.mol-1
Q.5. For 2SO2 + O2 2SO3
(A) KC = Kp (B) Kp < Kc (C) Kp > Kc (D) Kc = Kn
Q.6. Consider a reaction CD + D CD2, which is correct relationship
(A) Kp = Kc (RT)-1 (B) Kp = Kc (RT)1 (C) Kp = Kc (RT)-2 (D) Kp = Kc (RT)2
Q.7. KC for reaction between nitrogen and hydrogen to yield ammonia is
x2 x2 4x2v2 4x2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(a – x)(b – x) v(a – x) (a – x)(b – 3x)3 (a – x)(v)
Q.8. The relationship between Kc and Kp can be represented as
(A) KP = Kc (RT) (B) Kp = Kc (RT)n (C) Kc = Kp(RT) ∆n (D) Kp = Kc (RT)∆n
Q.9. If the equilibrium constant is very large, it indicates
(A) The reaction is almost complete
(B) That, reaction does not proceed appreciably in forward direction
(C) That reaction will proceed in reverse direction
(D) Reactants are stable
Q.10. The reaction of CO with steam produces CO2 and H2, and is an exothermic reaction.
For this reaction, which condition will be suitable?
(A) A decrease in temperature (B) An increase in temperature
(C) Increase in pressure (D) Decrease in pressure
Q.11. Which of the following statements is not true about the effect of catalyst on a
reversible chemical reaction?
(A) A catalyst does not affect the equilibrium position of reaction
(B) It increases rate of both forward and back word reactions
(C) It reduces the time to attain the state of equilibrium
(D) It changes enthalpy of reaction
Page | 34
Q.12. Which statement about the following equilibrium is correct?

2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) 2SO3 (g) H = –188.3kJ mol–1
(A) The value of Kp falls with a rise in temperature
(B) The value of Kp falls with increasing pressures.
(C) Adding V2O5 catalyst increase the equilibrium yield of sulphur trioxide
(D) The value of Kp is equal to Kc
Q.13. Total amount of ammonia produced in the world annually is
(A) 110 million tons (B) 110 billion tons (C) 110 trillion tons (D) none
Q.14. Catalyst used for the preparation of ammonia from nitrogen and hydrogen is
(A) Fe (B) Ni (C) Pt (D) V2O5
Q.15. The nature of milk is
(A) acidic (B) basic (C) normal (D) neutral
Q.16. pH of solution is 9, solution will be
(A) weak acid (B) strong acid (C) weak base (D) strong base
Q.17. The pOH of solution is 4. The H+1 concentration (mol/dm3) is
(A) 4 (B) 10-10 (C) 0.4 (D) 4 ×10-10
Q.18. pH of milk is 6.5, its pOH will be
(A) 14 (B) 7 (C) 7.5 (D) none of these
Q.19. When temperature in increased form 0 ºC to 100 ºC, Kw of water increases
(A) 100 times (B) 10 times (C) 75 times (D) 7.5times
Q.20. The molarity of pure water is
(A) 7 M (B) 22.4 M (C) 55.5 M (D) 14 M
Q.21. The value of Kw depends upon
(A) Amount of water used (B) Temperature (C) Pressure (D) Concentration
Q.22. The maximum value of pH is at 25 ºC
(A) 21 (B) 27 (C) 14 (D) 17
Q.23. Usually, the soft drinks have pH = 3, they will be
(A) Basic in nature (B) Acidic in nature (C) Neutral (D) None of them
Q.24. Higher value of Ka of an acid indicates that
(A) It is very strong acid (B) It is very weak acid
(C) It is weak acid (D) None of them
Q.25. If Ka of an acid is less than 10–3, it indicates that
(A) Acid is moderately strong (B) Acid is strong
(C) Acid is weak (D) Acid is very strong
Q.26. Conjugate base of a very weak acid is relatively
(A) A very strong acid (B) A very strong base
(C) A very weak acid (D) A very weak base
Q.27. Which of the following relation is true?
1
(A) Ka α Kb (B) Ka α (C) pka α pkb (D) Ka = Kb
Kb
Q.28. Ka and kb of conjugate acid and base are related with kw as
(A) Ka× Kb=kw (B) Ka + Kb=Kw (C) ka –Kb = Kw (D) Ka =Kw
Kb
Page | 35
Q.29. The suppression of solubility of weak acid or base by adding one of its ions is called
(A) law of mass action (B) Le-Chatelier’s principle
(C) Hess’s law (D) common ion effect
Q.30. Sodium chloride can be purified by passing
(A) Chlorine gas (B) Oxygen gas
(C) Hydrogen chloride gas (D) Potassium hypochlorite
Q.31. The solutions which resist the change in their pH are called
(A) Chemical solutions (B) Saturated solutions
(C) Isotonic solutions (D) Buffer solutions
Q.32. pH of a buffer solution having 0.01M CH3COONa and 0.1M CH3COOH (pKa =
4.74) is:
(A) 4. 74 (B) 3.74 (C) 5.74 (D) Zero
–3 –3
Q.33. The pH of 10 mol dm of an aqueous solution of H2SO4 is:
(A) 3.0 (B) 2.7 (C) 2.0 (D) 1.5
Q.34. The solubility product of AgCl is 2.0 10–10 mol2 dm–6. The maximum concentration
of Ag+ ions in the solution is:
(A) 2.0 × 10-10 mol/dm3 (B) 1.41 × 10-5 mol/dm3
-10 3
(C) 1.0 × 10 mol/dm (D) 4.0 × 10-20 mol/dm3
Q.35. An excess of aqueous silver nitrate is added to aqueous barium chloride and
precipitate is removed by filtration. What are the main ions in the filtrate?
(A) Ag+ and NO3– only (B) Ag+ and Ba2+ and NO3–
(C) Ba2+ and NO3– only (D) Ba2+ and NO3– and Cl
SHORT QUESTIONS
Q.1. Differentiate between reversible and irreversible reactions.
Q.2. Reversible reactions attain the position of equilibrium which is dynamic in nature and not
static. Explain it.
Q.3. State law of mass action.
Q.4. Why equilibrium constant value has its units for some of reversible reactions but has no
units for some other reactions?
Q.5. How kp and kc are related?
Q.6. Give two applications of Kc.
Q.7. State Le-Chatelier principle.
Q.8. How catalyst changes equilibrium?
Q.9. In some reactions, direction of reaction can be changed by changing pressure. Justify.
Q.10. In what way yield of ammonia can be increased in Haber process?
Q.11. What are optimum conditions in following industrial reactions to get good yield?
N2 + 3H2 2NH3
2SO2 + O2 2SO3
Q.12. What is effect of change in pressure on ammonia synthesis?
Q.13. What is the effect of increase of temperature on the yield of the product for the reaction?
SO2(g) + 1/2O2(g)⇌SO3(g) + Heat.
Q.14. Why scale of pH and pOH was designed? How pH and pOH are related to each other?
Q.15. What is the nature of solution if
i. pH is greater than 7 ii. pH is less than 7 iii. pH is 12
Page | 36
Q.16. What is the nature of solution if

i. pH is 8
ii. pH is 3
Q.17. What is ionic roduct of water? How its value changes with temperature?
Q.18. What is ionization constant of acids?
Q.19. What is common ion effect? (How is NaCl purified by common ion effect?)
Q.20. What is the effect of common ion on solubility?
Q.21. Define buffers.
Q.22. How acidic and basic buffers are prepared or classify buffers?
Q.23. What is Henderson equation for acids and buffers?
Q.24. Define buffer capacity.
Q.25. Why we need buffer solutions?
Q.26. How can you determine ksp from solubility? (application of solubility product)
Q.27. The change of temperature disturbs the equilibrium position and the equilibrium constant
of reaction.
Q.28. The solubility of glucose in water is increased by increasing the temperature.
Q.29. What happens when Na2CrO4 is added to saturated solution of PbCrO4?
Q.30. Define Lowery-Bronsted concept of acids and bases.
Q.31. Define pH and pOH.
Q.32. Calculate the pH of 10-4 mole dm-3 of Ba(OH)2.
Q.33. Calculate the pH of 10-4 mole dm-3 of HCl.
LONG QUESTIONS
Q.1. State and explain “Law of mass action” with some general equation.
Q.2. Write a note on synthesis of ammonia gas by Haber’s process keeping in mind those
applications of chemical equilibrium in industry.
Q.3. State Le-Chatelier’s principle. Describe the effect of change in temperature, pressure and
concentration on equilibrium by this principle.
Q.4. What is ionic product of water? How this concept is used to establish the pH scale.
Q.5. What are buffers? What is composition of buffers? Derive Henderson equation for
calculation of pH of buffers.
Q.6. State and explain common ion effect. Give at least two examples.
Q.7. N2(g) and H2(g) combine to give NH3(g). The value of Kc in this reaction at 500 ºC is 6.0
10–2. Calculate the value of Kp for the reaction.
Q.8. What is the percentage of ionization of acetic acid in a solution in which 0.1 moles of it
has been dissolved pre dm3 of the solution. Ka = 1.8 10–5.
Q.9. Calculate the pH of buffer solution in which 0.11 molar CH3COONa and 0.09 molar
acetic acid solutions are present. Ka for CH3COOH is 1.8 10–5.
Q.10. The solubility of PbF2 at 25 ºC is 0.64 g dm–3. Calculate Ksp of PbF2.
Q.11. Ca(OH)2 is a sparingly soluble compound. Its solubility product is 6.5 10–6. Calculate
the solubility of Ca(OH)2.
Q.12. Benzoic acid, C6H5COOH is a weak mono-basic acid (Ka = 6.4 10–5 mol dm–3). What
is the pH of a solution containing 7.2 g of sodium benzoate in one dm3 of 0.02 mole dm–3
benzoic acid?
Page | 37
Q.13. The solubility of CaF2 in water at 25 ºC is found to be 2.05 10–4 mol dm–3. What is the
value of Ksp at this temperature?
Q.14. The solubility product of Ag2CrO4 is 2.6 10–2 at 25 °C. Calculate the solubility of the
compound.
Page | 38
CHAPTER 9
MCQS
Q.1. Every sample of matter with uniform properties and a fixed composition is called
(A) Solution (B) Binary solute (C) Uniform state (D) Phase
Q.2. Solutions containing relatively lower concentration of solute is called
(A) Concentrated solution (B) Hypertonic solution
(C) Isotonic solution (D) Dilute solution
Q.3. A solution of glucose is 10% (W/V). The volume in which 1 g mole of it is dissolved
will be
(A) 1 dm3 (B) 1.8 dm3 (C) 200 cm3 (D) 900 cm3
Q.4. Molarity of pure water is
(A) 1 (B) 18 (C) 55.5 (D) 6
Q.5. The number of moles of solutes dissolved in 1 kg of the solvent is called
(A) Molarity (B) Molality (C) Normality (D) Mole fraction
Q.6. The mole fraction of each component in a solution having 92 g of alcohol, 96g of
methyl alcohol and 90g of water:
(A) 0.5, 0.2, 0.3 (B) 0.2, 0.3, 0.5 (C) 0.20, 0.5, 0.3 (D) 0.30, 0.5, 0.2
–3
Q.7. Sea water has 5.65 10 g of dissolved oxygen in 1 kg of water, what is the
concentration of oxygen in sea water?
(A) 5.65 10–3 ppm (B) 5.65 ppm (C) 5.56 ppm (D) 6.56 ppm
Q.8. Butter and cheese are examples of solutions of
(A) solid in liquid (B) liquid in liquid (C) liquid in solid (D) solid in solid
Q.9. Which of the following pair of liquids is not completely miscible
(A) water/ alcohol (B) phenol/water
(C) cyclohexane/benzene (D) alcohol/ ether
Q.10. Which of the following pairs of liquids is an example of completely miscible liquid?
(A) Phenol – water (B) Triethylamine – water
(C) Alcohol – ether (D) Nicotine - water
Q.11. The temperature at which two conjugate solutions completely merge into each other
is called
(A) Critical solution temperature (B) Upper Consulate temperature
(C) Lower consulate temperature (D) Critical temperature
Q.12. A solution which obeys Raoult’s law is called:
(A) Real solution (B) Non-ideal solution (C) Ideal solution (D) None of them
Q.13. 18 g glucose is dissolved in 90 g of water. The relative lowering of vapour pressure is
equal to
(A) 1/5 (B) 5.1 (C) 1/51 (D) 6
Q.14. Correct mathematical expression of Raoult’s law is
(A) P=P°X1 (B) P°=PX1 (C) P°=PX2 (D) P=P°X2
Q.15. Relative lowering of vapour pressure is
(A) Mole fraction of solute (B) Mole fraction of solvent
(C) Molarity (D) Molality
Page | 39
Q.16. An aqueous solution of ethanol in water has vapour pressure

(A) Equal to that of water (B) Equal to that of ethanol
(C) More than that of water (D) Less than that of water
Q.17. An aqueous solution of methanol in water has vapour pressure
(A) Equal to that of water (B) Equal to that of methanol
(C) More than that of water (D) Less than that of water
Q.18. Colligative properties are the properties of
(A) Dilute solution which behave as nearly ideal solutions
(B) Concentrated solutions which behave as nearly non- ideal solutions
(C) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
(D) Neither ‘A’ nor ‘B’
Q.19. Which of the following properties is not a colligative property of solution?
(A) Elevation of boiling point (B) Depression of freezing point
(C) Osmotic pressure (D) Vapour pressure
Q.20. Which of the following equations is correct for the determination of elevation of boiling
point?
(A) Tb = kb m (B) Tb = kb / m (C) Tb = m / kb (D) Tb = m
Q.21. An azeotropic mixture of two liquids boils at a lower temperature than either of
them when
(A) It is saturated.
(B) It shows positive deviation from Raoult's law
(C) It shows negative deviation from Raoult's law
(D) It is metastable.
Q.22. Benzene-ether can form
(A) ideal solution (B) non-ideal solution (C) buffer solution (D) none of these
Q.23. Azeotropic mixture showing positive deviation can be distilled at ………boiling
point
(A) maximum (B) constant (C) minimum (D) none
Q.24. In azeotropic mixture showing positive deviation from Raoult's law, the volume of
the mixture is:
(A) Slightly more than the total volume of the components
(B) Slightly less than the total volume of the components
(C) Equal to the total volume of the components
(D) None of these
Q.25. Which of the following solutions has the highest boiling point?
(A) 5.85 percent solution of sodium chloride (B) 18.0 percent solution of glucose
(C) 6.0 percent solution of urea (D) All have the same boiling points
Q.26. Two solutions of NaCl and KCl are prepared separately by dissolving same amount
of the solute in water. Which of the following statements is true for these solutions?
(A) KCl solution will have higher boiling point than NaCl solution
(B) Both the solutions have different boiling points
(C) KCl and NaCl solutions possess same vapour pressure
(D) KCl solution possesses lower freezing point than NaCl solution
Page | 40
Q.27. The molal boiling constant is the ratio of the elevation in boiling point to
(A) Molarity (B) Molality
(C) Mole fraction of solvent (D) Mole fraction of solute
Q.28. Which is Colligative property?
(A) boiling point (B) freezing point
(C) lowering of vapour pressure (D) all
Q.29. Melting point of ice can be lowered by adding
(A) NaCl (B) LiCl (C) AgCl (D) BeCl2
Q.30. Boiling point of solution is independent of
(A) concentration of solution (B) nature of solvent
(C) amount of solution (D) external pressure
Q.31. An antifreeze used in radiator of automobile is
(A) glycerol (B) ethylene glycol (C) glyoxal (D) oxalic acid
Q.32. Molal boiling point constant depends upon
(A) nature of solute (B) vapour pressure of solution
(C) nature of solvent (D) all
Q.33. Depression in freezing point is directly proportional to
(A) molarity of solution (B) molarity of solvent
(C) molality of solution (D) molality of solvent
Q.34. Water of crystallization in CuSO4 are
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
Q.35. In CuSO4 5H2O, water molecules are attached with Cu+2 are
(A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four
SHORT QUESTIONS
Q.1. Calculate %age by weight of sodium chloride when 2 g of it is dissolved in 20 g water.
Q.2. Define molarity and molar solution.
Q.3. Define molality.
Q.4. Why molal solution is more dilute than molar solution?
Q.5. What is ppm?
Q.6. Calculate molality of glucose when 5 g of it is dissolved in 250 cm3 of water.
Q.7. How will you prepare 5% w/v urea solution in water?
Q.8. What do you mean by mole fraction of solution?
Q.9. What is conjugate solution?
Q.10. What is upper consulate temperature?
Q.11. Differentiate between ideal and non-ideal solution.
Q.12. State Raoult’s law in two different ways.
Q.13. What is azeotropic mixture?
Q.14. Solubility of NaCl does not increase with increase in temperature. Why?
Q.15. What are colligative properties?
Q.16. Describe ebullioscopic constant with one example.
Q.17. What is cryoscopic constant (molal freezing point constant)?
Q.18. Why colligative properties are called so?
Q.19. Why ethylene glycol is added to radiator of automobile?
Q.20. Give two applications of colligative properties.
Q.21. Define hydration and hydrolysis.
Page | 41
Q.22. What are hydrates? How they are produced?

Q.23. What is water of crystallization? Give two examples.
Q.24. Aqueous solution of CH3COONa is basic in nature. Why?
Q.25. Why aqueous solution of KCl (NaCl) is neutral in nature?
Q.26. Explain why CuSO4 give acidic solution when put in water?
Q.27. Explain why Na2CO3give basic solution when put in water?
Q.28. Why aqueous solution of NH4Cl is acidic in nature?
Q.29. The concentration in terms of molality is independent of temperature but molarity
depends upon temperature.
Q.30. The sum of mole fractions of all the components is always equal to unity for any solution.
Q.31. Relative lowering of vapor pressure is independent of the temperature.
Q.32. Colligative properties are obeyed when the solute is non–electrolyte, and also when the
solutions are dilute.
Q.33. The total volume of the solution by mixing 100 cm3 of water with 100 cm3 of alcohol
may not be equal to 200 cm3. Justify it.
Q.34. Non-ideal solutions do not obey the Raoult’s law.
Q.35. Boiling points of the solvents increase due to the presence of solutes.
Q.36. Freezing points are depressed due to the presence of solutes.
Q.37. Beckmann thermometer is used to note the depression in freezing point.
Q.38. In summer the antifreeze solutions protect the liquid of the radiator from boiling over.
Q.39. NaCl and KNO3 are used to lower the melting point of ice.
LONG QUESTIONS
Q.1. State and explain Raoult’s law in three forms.
Q.2. What is boiling point elevation? Describe a method to determine the boiling point
elevation of a solution.
Q.3. Define colligative properties. How lowering of vapour pressure is used to determine the
molecular mass of solutes.
Q.4. What is depression in freezing point? How this concept is used to determine the molar
mass of solute (graphically and mathematically).
Q.5. What are azeotropic mixtures? Explain then with the help of graphs.
Q.6. The hydrochloric acid available in the laboratory is 36 % (w/w). The density of HCl
solution is 1.19 g /mole. Determine the molarity of HCl solutions.
Q.7. 9.2 molar HClO4 is available from market. The density of this solution is 1.54 g cm–3.
What is the percentage by weight of HClO4?
Q.8. The vapour pressure of water at 30 ºC is 28.4 torr. Calculate the vapor pressure of a
solution containing 70 g of cane sugar (C12H22O11) in 1000 g of water at the same
temperature. Also calculate the lowering of vapour pressure.
Q.9. Pure benzene has a vapour pressure of 122.0 torr at 32 °C. When 20 g of a non-volatile
solute were dissolved in 300 g of benzene, a vapour pressure of 120 torr was observed.
Calculate the molecular mass of the solute. The molecular mass of benzene is 78.1 g/mol.
Q.10. The boiling point of water is 99.724 ºC. To a sample of 600 g of water are added 24.0 g
of a solute having molecular mass of 58 g mol–1, to form a solution. Calculate the boiling
point of the solution.
Page | 42
Q.11. The freezing point of pure camphor is 178.4 °C. Find the freezing point of a solution
containing 2.0 g of a non-volatile compound, having molecular mass 140, in 40 g of
camphor. The molal freezing point of camphor is 37.7 °C kg mol–1.
Q.12. 5 g of NaCl is dissolved in 1000 g of water. The density of resulting solution is 0.997
g/cm3. Calculate molality, molarity and mole fraction of this solution. Assume that
the volume of the solution is equal to that of solvent.
Q.13. 4.675 g of a compound with empirical formula C3H3O was dissolved in 212.5 g of pure
benzene. The freezing point of solution was found 1.02K less than that of pure benzene.
The molal freezing point constant of benzene is 5.1K. Calculate (i) the relative molar
mass and (ii) the molecular formula of the compound.
Q.14. The boiling point of a solution containing 0.2 g of a substance A in 20.0 g of ether
(molar mass = 74) is 0.17 K higher than that of pure ether. Calculate the molar mass A.
Molal boiling point constant of ether is 2.16 K.
Q.15. 3 g a non-volatile, non-electrolyte solute ‘X’ are dissolved in 50 g of ether (molar mass
= 74) at 293 K. The vapor pressure of ether falls from 442 torr to 426 torr under these
conditions. Calculate the molar mass of solute ‘X’.
Page | 43
CHAPTER 10
MCQS
Q.1. The branch of chemistry concerned with inter-conversion of chemical and electrical
energy is called:
(A) Stoichiometry (B) Chemical kinetics (C) Electrochemistry (D) Electronics
Q.2. Reduction takes place at
(A) anode (B) cathode (C) both (D) none
Q.3. In the reaction 2Fe+ 3Cl2 2FeCl3
(A) Fe is reduced (B) Cl2 is oxidized (C) Fe is oxidized (D) none
Q.4. Loss of electrons is called
(A) oxidation (B) reduction (C) hydration (D) dehydration
Q.5. Which of the following is correct about reaction given below?
CuO + H2 Cu + H2O
(A) CuO acts as oxidizing agent (B) CuO acts as an acid
(C) CuO acts as dehydrating agent (D) CuO acts as reducing agent
Q.6. Oxidation state of oxygen in H2O2 is
(A) +1 (B) -1 (C) +2 (D) -2
Q.7. Oxidation state of oxygen in OF2 is
(A) +2 (B) +1 (C) -2 (D) -1
Q.8. Metallic conduction involves flow of:
(A) Protons (B) Positrons (C) Electrons (D) Neutrons
Q.9. Sum of oxidation numbers of atoms of the elements making up an ionic species is
equal to:
(A) Zero (B) Charge of the ion
(C) Charge of the counter ion (D) None of the above
Q.10. The oxidation number of hydrogen in its diatomic state is:
(A) Zero (B)+ 1 (C)– 1 (D)+ 2
Q.11. Oxidation number of Cl in Ca(ClO3)2 is
(A) +3 (B) +5 (C) +1 (D) -1
Q.12. Oxidation state of fluorine in OF2 is
(A) +2 (B) +1 (C) -2 (D) -1
Q.13. Oxidation state of oxygen in KO2 is
(A) -2 (B) -1 (C) +2 (D) -1/2
Q.14. Electrolysis of molten PbBr2 yields Pb:
(A) At anode (B) At cathode
(C) At liquid-atmosphere interface (D) In solution
Q.15. Impure copper can be made pure by taking it as
(A) anode (B) cathode
(C) sometimes anode sometimes cathode (D) none
Q.16. Which process is used for extraction of Al
(A) Thermite process (B) Castner-Kellner process
(C) Hall-Beroult process (D) Combustion process
Page | 44
Q.17. If a strip of Zn is dipped in a solution of CuSO4

(A) Zn will be deposited (B) Cu will be displaced
(C) Both Zn and Cu get precipitated (D) No reaction takes places
Q.18. The galvanic cell which cannot be recharged are
(A) primary cell (B) secondary cell (C) tertiary cell (D) diffused cell
Q.19. The cathodic reaction in the electrolysis of dil. H2SO4 with Pt electrodes
(A) Reduction (B) Oxidation
(C) Both oxidation and reduction (D) Neither oxidation or reduction
Q.20. Which of the following statements is not correct about Galvanic cell?
(A) Anode is negatively charged (B) Reduction occurs at anode
(C) Cathode is positively charged (D) Reduction occurs at cathode
Q.21. If the salt bridge is not used between two half cells, then the voltage
(A) Decreases rapidly (B) Decreases slowly (C) Does not change (D) Drops to zero
Q.22. The salt bridge of zinc-copper cell contains an aqueous solution of:
(A) KCl (B) KOH (C) ZnSO4 (D) CuSO4
Q.23. The potential set up when an electrode is in contact with 1M solution of its own ions
at 298 K is known as:
(A) Absolute potential (B) Standard electrode potential
(C) Standard reduction potential (D) Standard reduction potential
Q.24. Stronger the oxidizing agent, greater is the
(A) Oxidation potential (B) Reduction potential
(C) Redox potential (D) emf of cell
Q.25. If a strip of Cu metal is placed in a solution of FeSO4
(A) Cu will be precipitated out (B) Fe is precipitated out
(C) Cu and Fe both dissolve (D) No reaction take place
Q.26. A galvanic cell that cannot be recharged is called:
(A) Electrolytic cell (B) Photo cell (C) Primary cell (D) Secondary cell
Q.27. The cathode of a fully charged lead accumulator is:
(A) Lead oxide (B) Lead chloride (C) Tetraethyl lead (D) Lead
Q.28. During lead accumulator discharging, the concentration of acid falls, decreasing
its density to:
(A) 1.5 g cm–3 (B) 1.15 g cm–3 (C) 1.25 g cm–3 (D) 1.05 g cm–3
Q.29. The metallic lead plate in lead accumulator acts as:
(A) Electrolyte (B) Anode (C) Cathode (D) Solvent
Q.30. A single lead cell provides volts
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8
Q.31. Zinc and manganese dioxide are used as reactants in:
(A) Lead accumulator (B) Alkaline battery (C) Watch cell (D) Fuel cell
Q.32. At the cathode of alkaline battery, MnO2 is reduced to:
(A) MnO (B) Mn2O3 (C) Mn(OH)2 (D) MnSO4
Q.33. The cathode of silver oxide battery is:
(A) Ag2O (B) Ag (C) Zn (D) Zn(OH)2
Q.34. The voltage of silver oxide battery is same as produced by:
(A) Lead accumulator (B) Fuel cell (C) Alkaline battery (D) Ni-Cd cell
Page | 45
Q.35. The electrolyte used in fuel cells is

(A) aqueous NaCl (B) molten NaCl (C) KOH (D) NaNO3
SHORT QUESTIONS
Q.1. Define oxidation state. Determine the oxidation number of phosphorus in H3PO4.
Q.2. Define electrochemistry and electrolysis.
Q.3. Differentiate between voltaic and electrolytic cell.
Q.4. Find out oxidation number of Mn in KMnO4, MnO2, Cr in Cr2O72- and S in SO4-2.
Q.5. Differentiate between oxidation and reduction.
Q.6. Find out oxidation number of Cr in Cr2O72-, K2Cr2O7, K2Cr2O7, CrCl3 and Cr2O3.
Q.7. Differentiate between metallic and electrolytic conduction.
Q.8. What are the products of electrolysis of fused sodium chloride?
Q.9. How anodized Al can be prepared?
Q.10. What are the products of electrolysis of aqueous sodium chloride?
Q.11. How can we say that voltaic cell is reversible cell?
Q.12. Define electrode potential and standard electrode potential.
Q.13. What is meant by standard hydrogen electrode?
Q.14. What is electrochemical series?
Q.15. How emf can be calculated from electrochemical series?
Q.16. How does electrochemical series tell us the distinction between the oxidizing and
reducing agents?
Q.17. Zn acts as anode when connected to Cu but acts as cathode when connected to Al. Justify.
Q.18. Why Zn can displace hydrogen from dilute solution of acids but Cu cannot?
Q.19. Differentiate between primary and secondary cell.
Q.20. A porous plate or a salt bridge is not required in lead storage cell.
Q.21. The standard oxidation potential of Zn is 0.76 V and its reduction potential is –0.76 V.
Q.22. Na and K can displace hydrogen from acids but Pt, Pd and Cu cannot.
Q.23. SHE acts as anode when connected with Cu electrode but as cathode with Zn electrode.
Q.24. Lead accumulator is a chargeable battery.
Q.25. What are electrode reactions of dry cell (alkaline battery)?
Q.26. What are the electrode reactions of silver oxide battery?
Q.27. Impure Cu can be purified by electrolytic process.
Q.28. A salt bridge maintains the electrical neutrality in the cell.
LONG QUESTIONS
Q.1. What is oxidation state? Write down the rules for assigning oxidation state.
Q.2. Balance the equation by oxidation number method.
K2Cr2O7+HCl⟶KCl+CrCl2+Cl2+H2O
Cu+HNO3⟶Cu(NO3)2+NO2+H2O
MnO2+HCl⟶MnCl2+Cl2+H2O
Br2+NaOH⟶NaBr+NaBrO2+H2O
NaCl+H2SO4+MnO4⟶Na2SO4+MnSO4+H2O+Cl2
Q.3. Balance the equation by ion electron method.
MnO4-1 +Cl-⟶Cl2+Mn2+
Page | 46
Q.4. Explain the electrolysis of (i) concentrated aqueous solution of NaCl (ii) Molten solution
of PbBr2
Q.5. Write a note (i) NICAD cell (ii) Silver oxide battery
Q.6. Define electrode potential. Describe the construction of voltaic cell and reaction
occurring in the cell.
Q.7. Write down the industrial applications of electrolysis.
Q.8. Discuss the working and chemistry of alkaline battery and fuel cell.
Q.9. What is electrochemical series? Write any three applications of electrochemical series.
Q.10. Describe the construction and working of standard hydrogen electrode (SHE).
Q.11. What is lead storage battery? Explain its discharging and re-charging.
Q.12. Explain a note on fuel cells.
Q.13. Describe the Galvanic cell explaining the functions of electrodes and salt bridge.
Page | 47
CHAPTER 11
MCQS
Q.1. The rate of reaction
(A) Increases as the reaction proceeds
(B) Decreases as the reaction proceeds
(C) Remains the same as the reaction proceeds
(D) May decrease or increase as the reaction proceeds
Q.2. Rate of a reaction is expressed in units of:
(A) mol dm–3 sec–1 (B) mol dm–3 (C) mol dm–3 N–1 (D) mol dm–3 sec–2
Q.3. The reaction rate for gaseous reactions is expressed in units of:
(A) gram sec–1 (B) mol dm–3 sec–1 (C) 1 sec–1 (D) atm sec–1
Q.4. Taking the concentration of the reactants equal to unity, the reaction rate becomes
equal to:
(A) Unity (B) Infinity
(C) Specific rate constant (D) Equilibrium constant
Q.5. The specific rate constant is the constant, when concentrations of reactants are
(A) two (B) three (C) unity (D) zero
Q.6. Hydrolysis of t-butyl bromide is a
(A) Zero order reaction (B) First order reaction
(C) Pseudo first order reaction (D) Second order reaction
Q.7. Half-life of second order reaction is inversely proportional to
(A) Initial concentration of reactants (B) Final concentration of reactants
(C) Initial concentration of products (D) Final concentration of products
Q.8. In zero order reaction, rate of reaction is independent of
(A) concentration (B) temperature (C) pressure (D) none
Q.9. Which of the following is correct statement about order of reaction?
(A) order of reaction can be determined by experiment
(B) second order of reaction is always bimolecular
(C) order of reaction must be positive integer
(D) order of reaction increases with increase in temperature
Q.10. Specific rate constant dimensionally becomes equal to the reaction rate when the
reaction is of:
(A) Zero order (B) First order (C) 2nd order (D) 3rd order
Q.11. The sum of the exponents to which the concentrations in rate equation are raised, is
called:
(A) Order of the reaction (B) Velocity of the reaction
(C) Molecularity of the reaction (D) Reaction status
Q.12. The order of the reaction:
NO2 + CO → NO + CO2
(A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Zero
Q.13. The order of the reaction forming CCl4 from chloroform is:
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 1.5 (D) 2
Page | 48
Q.14. The order of the reaction, for which the rate law is given by k [H2] [Br2]1/2, is:
3
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 2.4 (D)
2
Q.15. In zero order reaction, the rate is independent of
(A) Temperature of reaction (B) Concentration of reactants
(C) Concentration of products (D) None of these
Q.16. Order of a reaction can be determined by:
(A) Differential method (B) Half-life method
(C) Method of large excess (D) All of the above
Q.17. The unit of rate constant is the same as that of the rate of reaction in
(A) First order reaction (B) Second order reaction
(C) Zero order reaction (D) Third order reaction
Q.18. If the rate equation of reaction 2A + B Products is, rate = k [A]2 [B],
and A is present in large excess then order of reaction is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) Pseudo first order
Q.19. Which of the following reaction types has a half-life period independent of the initial
concentration of the reactants?
(A) First order reactions (B) 2nd order reactions
(C) 3rd order reactions (D) 4th order reaction
Q.20. A compound decomposes with a half-life of 8 seconds and half-life is independent of
concentration. How much time is consumed to convert concentration of 1/16 th of
original concentration?
(A) 32 s (B) 24 s (C) 40 s (D) 14 s
Q.21. After three half-lives of reaction, the %age fraction of amount left is
(A) 25% (B) 12.5% (C) 50% (D) 75%
Q.22. The slowest step of a reaction is called:
(A) Rate determining step (B) Initial step
(C) Propagation step (D) Terminating step
Q.23. When a reaction proceeds in sequence of steps, the overall rate is determined by
(A) fastest step (B) slowest step
(C) molecularity of all steps (D) order of all steps
Q.24. The gaseous reaction 2A + B →A2B takes place in two steps: (A) A + B → AB
which is slow step, and (b) AB + A→ A2B which is a fast step. The
rate of the reaction is given by:
(A) k[A]2 (B) k[A] [B] (C) k[A]2[B] (D) k[A] [B]2
Q.25. The rate of reaction can be increased by all except
(A) increasing concentration of reactants (B) Increasing activation energy
(C) increasing temperature (D) using catalyst
Q.26. If energy of activated complex lies close to energy of reactants, it means that
reaction is
(A) fast (B) endothermic (C) slow (D) reaction will not take place
Q.27. The slope of Arrhenius equation can be represented as
–Ea –Ea –Ea
(A) RT (B) 2.30 3RT (C) 2.30 3R + log A (D) –Ea
2.30 3R
Page | 49
Q.28. With increases of 10 ºC temperature, the rate of reaction doubles. This increase in
rate of reaction is due to:
(A) Decrease in activation energy of reaction
(B) Decrease in the number of collisions between reactant molecules
(C) Increase in activation energy of reactants
(D) Increase in number of effective collisions
Q.29. For each 10 °C rise in temperature, the reaction rate gets approximately:
(A) Double (B) Triple (C) Half (D) One fourth
Q.30. A catalyst lowers the energy of activation for a reaction by:
(A) Increasing average kinetic energy of reactant species
(B) Altering the reaction thermodynamics
(C) Providing alternative reaction pathway
(D) Enhancing collision frequency
Q.31. If the product of the reaction itself acts as a catalyst for the reaction, the
phenomenon is called:
(A) Homocatalysis (B) Autocatalysis (C) Product catalysis (D) Catalysis
Q.32. A substance which makes the catalyst more effective
(A) inhibitor (B) retarder (C) promoter (D) autocatalyst
Q.33. HCOOH H2O + CO catalyst in this reaction is
(A) Al (B) Al2O3 (C) Cu (D) Pt
Q.34. Concentrated sugar solution can be hydrolyzed by an enzyme
(A) urease (B) zymase (C) invertase (D) none
Q.35. Glucose is converted into ethanol by the enzyme:
(A) Lipase (B) Zymase (C) Sucrase (D) Urease
SHORT QUESTIONS
Q.1. Define chemical kinetics.
Q.2. Define rate of reaction. Write down its units?
Q.3. Name four physical methods to determine rate.
Q.4. Differentiate between average and instantaneous rate.
Q.5. What is specific rate constant (velocity constant)?
Q.6. How a catalyst is specific in its action?
Q.7. Define order of reaction.
Q.8. Differentiate between order of reaction and molecularity.
Q.9. What is half-life period?
Q.10. How the reactions of fractional order can be studied by the method of half-life period?
Q.11. Define energy of activation. How is it affected by temperature?
Q.12. What is transition state?
Q.13. How is rate of reaction affected by surface area?
Q.14. How does increase of temperature increases rate of reaction?
Q.15. The order of a reaction may be in fractions. Justify with the help to an example.
Q.16. What is catalysis?
Q.17. Differentiate between homogeneous and heterogeneous catalysis.
Q.18. Does physical state of catalyst change in chemical reaction?
Q.19. How does a catalyst affect reversible chemical reaction?
Q.20. Define activation of catalyst.
Page | 50
Q.21. Define autocatalyst.

Q.22. What is a negative catalyst?
Q.23. Write down two characteristics of catalyst.
Q.24. Give two properties of enzyme.
Q.25. The radioactive decay is always first order reaction.
Q.26. Define first order reaction with example.
Q.27. Define pseudo first order reaction with example.
Q.28. The sum of the coefficients of a balanced chemical equation is not necessarily important
to give the order of a reaction.
Q.29. A finely divided catalyst may prove more effective.
Q.30. What is catalytic poisoning? Give two examples.
Q.31. How half-life method is used to find the order of reaction?
Q.32. What is rate determining step?
Q.33. What is zero order reaction? Give one example.
LONG QUESTIONS
Q.1. What is half-life period? How half-life method is used to determine the order of reaction?
Q.2. Explain collision theory and energy of activation for exothermic an endothermic
reactions.
Q.3. Explain the factors on which rate of reaction depends.
Q.4. Differentiate between homogenous and heterogeneous catalysis.
Q.5. Write down the four important characters of catalysis.
Q.6. What is order reaction? Explain first order, pseudo first order, second order and third
order with one suitable example of each.
Q.7. Explain the effect of temperature on reaction rate. Also describe reaction with the help of
Arrhenius equation.
Q.8. What are enzymes? Mention the characteristic if enzymes catalysis.
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