MARKETING MANAGEMENT QUIZ QUESTIONS – COMPILED

Q1. The last or fifth step in the marketing planning process is

a) Merging the marketing plans into organizational plans

b) Developing separate objectives, programmes, and strategies for each function
c) Designing the marketing system
d) Setting marketing objectives and policies
e) Drawing detailed plans for each function

Q2. Choose the appropriate term for “measurement and evaluation of target market and its characteristics”.

a) Market analysis
b) Marketing myopia
c) Distribution analysis
d) Product/service determination

Q3. Which of the following is one of the functions of marketing that is concerned with transferring of products to the
customer points?

a) Sales planning b) Sales promotion c) Sales operations d) Physical distribution

Q4. Identify the method where firms base their price on the average price of the product in the industry or prices
charged by competitors.

a) Value pricing b) Going rate pricing c) Sealed bid pricing d) Odd pricing

Q5. In which section of a standard marketing plan, a marketer can use scenario analysis to explain the likely
behaviour of the market?

a) Executive summary and table of contents

b) Market assumptions
c) Marketing objectives and goals
d) Market overview

Q6. Choose the four pillars of a marketing concept.

a) Target market, Customer needs, Integrated marketing, Profitability

b) Target product, Customer needs, Reducing costs, Profitability
c) Target market, Customer needs, Reducing costs, Profitability
d) Target market, Customer needs, Integrated marketing, Reducing costs

Q7. Identify the four primary categories of consumer markets.

a) Consumer aspirations, Expectations, Tastes, and Economic utility

b) Consumer products, Food and beverage products, Retail products, and Transportation products
c) Consumer demand, Needs, Wants, and Satisfaction
d) Consumer demand, Needs, Wants, and Relationship

Q8. Identify the concept where the basic proposition of this concept is that customers will choose products and
services that are widely available and are of low cost.

a) Selling concept b) Product concept c) Production concept d) Marketing concept

Q9. State whether the given statement is true or false.

People, Process, Plan, and Physical evidence are the traditional 4Ps of the marketing mix.

a) True b) False

Q10. Which among the following is the tangible part of a service?

a) Process b) Physical evidence c) People d) Promotion

Q11. Choose the type of marketing information that is generated at regular intervals such as monthly sales reports;
the stock statements, the trial balance, and so on.

a) Customized information
b) Recurrent information
c) Monitoring information
d) Technical information

Q12. Identify the FALSE statement about MIS:

a) Management-oriented – MIS provides information that supports the management in the organization for
making marginal costing decisions only.
b) Management directed – By management-directed MIS we mean that it should be directed by the
management because it is the management who specifies their needs and requirements more effectively
than anyone else.
c) Sub-system concept – MIS should be broken down into smaller divisions or subsystems so that more
attention and insight is paid to each sub-system.
d) Common data flow – As data is gathered by a system analyst from its source only once, the integration of
different subsystems will lead to a common data flow. This will further help in avoiding duplicity and
redundancy in data collection, storage, and processing.

Q13. ________ should be market oriented and defined in terms of ________

a) Strategic plans; company needs

b) Annual plans; product needs
c) Mission statements; customers' needs
d) Objectives; competitors' threats

Q14. The method by which primary data is collected from all the members of population is called _______________.

a) Experiment b) Observation c) Census d) Survey

Q15. Data that is freshly gathered for a specific purpose is called _______________.

a) Syndicated data b) Behavioral data c) Primary data d) Secondary data

Q16. Market research is an organized effort to gather information about __________or__________.

a) Market, Marketing
b) Mind, Media
c) Marketing, Behavior
d) Market, Consumer

Q17. State whether True or False.

1.Secondary data is the original data derived from a new research study and collected at source, as opposed to
previously published material.
2. Primary data is the data already gathered for one use that is then utilised for another purpose.

a) 1- False,2- True
b) 1-True,2- True
c) 1-False,2-False
d) 1-True,2-False

Q18. ___________________ has defined a marketing information system as "A structured, interacting complex of
persons, machines, and procedures designed to generate an orderly flow of pertinent information, collected from
both intra and extra firm sources for use as the basis for decision-making in specified responsibility area of marketing
management."

a) James A b) Philip Kotler c) BCG Keller d) Kotlet and Keller

Q19. Identify the stage in the business cycle where the weakening of both consumer confidence and consumer
spending happens.

a) Recession b) Depression c) Recovery d) Prosperity

Q20. What is secondary data?

a) data that has already been published

b) data gathered from interview
c) data gathered from observation research
d) extra data

Q21. Imagine you are conducting a SWOT analysis for a British manufacturer who exports to Thailand. If the Thai
currency becomes unstable, which category would you place that in for your analysis?

a) Opportunity b) Threat c) Strength d) Weakness

Q22. Which among the following is the correct explanation of cluster or area sampling?

a) The researcher chooses the most accessible population as per his convenience.
b) Every member of the identified population has an equal chance of selection.
c) The entire population is divided into mutually exclusive groups on geographic basis so that the researcher
can draw samples from each area.
d) The entire population is divided into number of stratum (exclusive groups) and random samples are drawn
from each one of the stratums.

Q23. Which of the following is NOT a component of the company’s macro environment?

a) Demographic environment
b) Company environment
c) Technological environment
d) Social and cultural environment

Q24. Small business houses cannot afford marketing research because of the_______________.

a) Limitation of money
b) Limitation of time
c) Limitation of skill
d) All of these

Q25. ___________ are independent business units that carry the company products and services to the customers.

a) Competitors b) Intermediaries c) Sought public d) Suppliers

Q26. In a marketing survey an ideal sample must be such that it represents adequately the ___________.

a) Whole segment
b) Whole population
c) Whole market
d) None of the above

Q27. Which among the following has the highest influence on the marketing decisions as it affects the purchasing
power of the consumer?

a) Technological environment
b) Natural environment
c) Social and cultural environment
d) Economic environment
Q28. Identify the subsystem of MIS for collecting and collating data.

a) Marketing research system

b) Internal record system
c) Marketing intelligence system
d) Analytical marketing system

Q29. ___________________ consists of people, equipment, and procedures to gather, sort, analyze, evaluate, and
distribute needed, timely, and accurate information to marketing decision makers.

a) Marketing Surveillance System

b) Marketing Intelligence System
c) Marketing Database
d) Marketing Information System

Q30. State whether True or False.

1. Macro environment is smaller than the micro environment.

2. The components of the micro environment cannot be controlled.

a) 1- False,2- True
b) 1-False,2-False
c) 1-True,2- True
d) 1-True,2-False

Q31. Identify the type of buying decision behaviour according to Henry Assael Model where consumers are highly
involved in a purchase and aware of significant differences among brands.

a) Complex buying behaviour

b) Variety-seeking buying
c) Habitual buying behaviour
d) Dissonance-reducing

Q32. Ultimately, managerial discretion and judgment determine which markets are selected and targeted and which
others are ignored. In order for market segmentation to be effective, all segments must be:

a) Distinct, Accessible, Measurable and Popular.

b) Distinct, Accessible, Measurable and Profitable.
c) Desperate, Accessible, Many, and Profitable.
d) Distinct, Artistic, Measurable and Profitable.

Q33. _______________ are used in the positioning process to illustrate differing attributes of a selection of brands.

a) SIC code.
b) Product features.
c) Perceptual maps.
d) Organizational characteristics.

Q34. The tangible goods for which a consumer wants to compare quality, price and perhaps style in several stores
before making a purchase are called: _______________.

a) Speciality goods
b) Shopping goods
c) Fast Moving Consumer Goods
d) Unsought goods

Q35. The buying process starts when the buyer recognizes a _____

a) Shop or Market b) Product or Service c) Need or Problem d) Money or Status

Q36. Which among the following departments play the role as negotiation experts, who dominate in straight re-buy,
and have a high influence on negotiations done under uncertain environmental conditions?

a) Research and development

b) Purchase department
c) Marketing department
d) Production and operations

Q37. The process of accepting new product ideas by individual customers is popularly known as _________ process.

a) Innovation b) Adoption c) Diffusion d) Trial

Q38. _______ involves no decision-making at all.

a) Limited Consumer decision making

b) Extended Consumer decision making
c) Habitual Consumer decision making
d) All of these

Q39. State whether the given statement is True/False.

A clearly defined segment must react to changes in any of the elements of the marketing mix.

a) True b) False

Q40. Choose the correct definition of a ‘target market’.

a) A set of buyers sharing common needs or characteristics that the company decides to serve.
b) A process of dividing a potential market into distinct sub-markets of consumers with common needs and
characteristics.
c) A process that helps the marketers to develop an appropriate offer for each identified segment.
d) A process of creating an image of goods and services in the consumers’ mind.

Q41. People in the organisation who have the power to prevent sellers or information from reaching the members of
buying centres are called _________.

a) Buyers b) Users c) Gatekeepers d) Approvers

Q42. Choose the four major components of Howard-Sheth model.

a) Problem recognition, Information search, Choice, and Outcomes

b) Input variables, Output variables, Hypothetical constructs, and Exogenous variables
c) Input variables, Output variables, Exogenous variables, and Outcomes
d) Input variables, Output variables, Problem recognition, and Information search

Q43. State whether the given statements are True/False.

a) In the case of psychographic segmentation, the market is divided based on purchase decision and product or brand
usage made by consumers.

b) In mass marketing strategy, the marketing manager decides to enter a select market segment instead of all the
available market segments.

a) a-False, b-True
b) a-True, b-True
c) a-True, b-False
d) a-False, b-False
Q44. To segment consumer good and service markets we use market information we have collected classified as
segmentation bases. These bases include profile, behavioural, and psychological criteria. Examples of profile criteria
include: ______________________.

a) media usage, transaction history, age, and geographic.

b) occupation, income, product usage, and lifestyle (psychographics).
c) gender, age, occupation, life stage, and benefits sought criteria.
d) demographic, life stage, geographic, and geo-demographic criteria

Q45. ______ is example of Psychographic segmentation

a) Nature of work b) Family size c) VALS d) Demographic

Q46. Identify the last step in the process of market segmentation.

a) Mass marketing strategy

b) Target market selection
c) Profile the segments
d) Evaluate the segments

Q47. When goods and services are purchased for use in the production or assembling of products that are sold and
supplied to others is known as ___________

a) Consumer Buyer Behaviour

b) Business Buyer Behaviour
c) Secondary Buyer Behaviour
d) Individual Buyer Behaviour

Q48. This type of consumer buys without much analysis or information: - ______________.

a) Loyalty style of shopping

b) Shopping as a fun
c) Impulsive style
d) Pleasure-oriented activity

Q49. Second stage in the Consumer Decision Making model is ________

a) Need
b) Purchase
c) Information Search
d) Evaluation of alternatives

Q50. The purpose of segmentation is to:

a) Help the marketers to develop an appropriate offer for each identified segment.
b) Create a reasonably large segment to be a profitable target.
c) Have a better understanding of the competitive situation in each of the segments.
d) Measure the changing behavioural pattern of consumers.

Q51. Identify the level of the product in which the associated services and cues help the product to deliver beyond
the expectation level of the consumer.

a) Augmented product layer

b) Core layer
c) Basic product layer
d) Expected product layer
Q52. State whether the given statement is True/False.

If an existing brand name is used for a new product category, then the existing brand is called the parent brand or
master brand.

a) True b) False

Q53. The ability to identify a brand under different conditions is known as __________.

a) Brand association b) Brand preference c) Brand equity d) Brand awareness

Q54. State whether the given statements are Tue/False.

a. Components of brand position are brand loyalty, brand awareness, and perceived quality.
b. A brand name can be classified as descriptive, suggestive, and free-standing brand name.

a) a-True, b-False
b) a-False, b-True
c) a-True, b-True
d) a-False, b-False

Q55. __________ decision involves a set of decisions to add or to maintain the number of brand elements to its
product portfolio.

a) Brand association b) Brand sponsorship c) Brand development d) Brand evaluation

Q56. The total number of products that a company market is called __________.

a) Product mix b) Brand loyalty c) Brand association d) Brand positioning

Q57. A set of products sold under the same brand name is called as __________.

a) Brand mix
b) Corporate umbrella branding
c) Brand line
d) Family branding

Q58. The first stage of the new product development is __________.

a) Product testing
b) Idea generation
c) Commercialisation
d) Product formulation

Q59. Choose the correct explanation for Brand equity.

a) Descriptive features which are used to characterise a product or service.

b) A set of decisions to add or to maintain the number of brand elements to its product portfolio.
c) Added value that the consumer assigns to the products and services.
d) Situation in which consumers repeatedly prefer and continue to purchase the same brand within a product
or service category.

Q60. Choose the level of product hierarchy: A group of products within a product class, which shows resemblance
due to functional similarity, is sold to the same customer group and marketed through the same channels.

a) Product line b) Brand c) Product family d) Product type

Q61. Merchandise offered at a lower cost or free as an incentive to purchase a particular product.

a) Free trials b) Refund c) Patronage awards d) Premiums

Q62. Identify the certificates entitling the owner of the certificate to a stated saving on the purchase of a particular
item.

a) Refunds b) Catalogues c) Patronage awards d) Coupons

Q63. Before setting its prices, Avon conducted a market research study to learn what consumers would pay. Avon
appears to be using which type of pricing method?

a) Target-profit pricing
b) Going-rate pricing
c) Cost-Plus pricing
d) Value-based pricing

Q64. Which product is suited for market skimming pricing?

a) A newly introduced product

b) A product with short life span
c) A product facing too much competition
d) An innovative product with high demand

Q65. State whether the given statements are True/False.

a. An intensive distribution channel strategy limits the availability of products to a few carefully selected outlets in
each market area.
b. Analysing and understanding the target market is the first step in selecting marketing channels.

a) a- True, b-False
b) a-True, b-True
c) a- False, b-False
d) a- False, b-True

Q66. Two or more complementary products offered together at a single price is known as __________________.

a) Transfer pricing
b) Full cost pricing
c) Going rate pricing
d) Bundle pricing

Q67. Select the advertisement used in any medium that tries to stimulate sales directly.

a) Public services advertising

b) Interactive advertising
c) Business-to-business advertising
d) Direct response advertising

Q68. Which of the following is a profit-oriented pricing objective?

a) Increase market share

b) Creating an image of business
c) Be more competitive
d) Getting return on investment

Q69. State whether the given statement is True/False.

Publicity is defined as the non-personal stimulation of demand for a product, service, or business unit.

a) True b) False
Q70. Of the following, which statement would NOT support a market-skimming policy for a new product?

a) Competitors can enter the market easily.

b) The product's quality and image support its higher price
c) Enough buyers want the products at that price.
d) Competitors are not able to undercut the high price.

Q71. Which is the first step in a typical channel design decision?

a) Establishing channel objectives

b) Analysing customer’s desired service output levels
c) Evaluating the major alternatives
d) Identifying major channel alternatives

Q72. In recent years, ________ has/have been growing fast. This includes selling to final consumers through direct
mail, catalogues, telephone, and the Internet.

a) shopping centres
b) non-store retailing
c) specialty stores
d) superstores

Q73. A group of people with whom the company or organisation has to interact in creating and delivering value is:

a) Sales promotion b) Publicity c) Advertising d) Public relation

Q74. Which of the following elements of the promotion mix involves making personal connections with customers
for the purpose of making sales?

a) Publicity b) E-commerce c) Advertising d) Personal selling

Q75. When a company sets out to analyse, plan, implement, and control sales force activities, the company is
undertaking __________________.

a) sales force management

b) sales design
c) co-op selling and advertising
d) group sales efforts

Q76. ____________ includes all the activities involved in selling products or services directly to final consumers for
their personal, non-business use.

a) Retailing b) Wholesaling c) Brokering d) Franchising

Q77. ________ advertising becomes more important as competition increases. The company's objective is to build
selective demand.

a) Informative b) Reminder-oriented c) POP Promotion d) Persuasive

Q78. Identify the method, where the price is set to cover costs (materials, labour, and overhead) and predetermined
percentage or profit.

a) Mark-up pricing
b) Break-even pricing
c) Marginal cost pricing
d) Cost-plus pricing

Q79. Choose the overhead costs that do not vary with the production or sales level.

a) Sunk cost b) Direct cost c) Variable cost d) Fixed cost

Q80. ________ factors affect international marketing decisions.

a) Social b) Economical c) Political d) Political, economical & social

Q81. CRM is a business philosophy that aims at maximizing ____________ in the long run.

a) Organization value b) Business value c) Software value d) Customer value

Q82. Which of the following is a strategic alliance where two or more parties, usually businesses, form a partnership
to share markets, intellectual property, assets, knowledge, and profits?

a) Direct investment
b) Franchising
c) Joint venture
d) Contract manufacturing

Q83. _________________refers to the selling of the products below the cost of production or at below the ongoing
price in the market.

a) Countertrade b) Cheap pricing c) Gate pricing d) Dumping

Q84. Which of the following types of marketing are generally aimed at retaining customers and enhancing their
loyalty?

a) Co-marketing
b) Individual marketing
c) Continuity marketing
d) Sales marketing

Q85. The objective of data mining is to detect _________________relationships among data.

a) Application b) Customer c) Vendor d) Hidden

Q86. An interactive system of marketing, which uses one or more advertising media to affect a measurable response
and transaction at any location.

a) Direct marketing b) Publicity c) Sales promotion d) Advertising

Q87. Identify the branding where the corporate name is used as the lead name for all their products.

a) Range b) Corporate umbrella c) Family d) Individual

Q88. Identify the process of deciding how to allocate sales time among prospects and existing customers.

a) Targeting b) Prospecting c) Approach d) Pre-approach

Q89. Which among the following is NOT a reason behind losing customers by organisations?

a) Pricing b) Customer service c) Customer attention d) Product quality

Q90. A successful CRM increases production and profit throughout the _________________.

a) customer life cycle

b) organization life cycle
c) business life cycle
d) system life cycle
Q91. Marketing aimed at a single market in which the firm faces a single set of competitive, economic, and market
issues and deal with customers defined by a geographic boundary is referred to as:

a) Multi-regional marketing
b) Domestic marketing
c) Export marketing
d) Multinational marketing

Q92. Extension of marketing activities across the globe is called as _________________.

a) International Business
b) International Marketing
c) Borderless Marketing
d) Universal Marketing

Q93. Enhance Customer Relationship Management started in _________________.

a) 1980 b) 1970 c) 1990 d) 1985

Q94. EPRG stands for _________.

a) Ethnographic, Polygraphic, Regiographic or Geographic orientation

b) Ethical, Political, Regional or Geographical orientation
c) Ethical, Political, Regional or Geometrical orientation
d) Ethnocentric, Polycentric, Regiocentric or Geocentric orientation

Q95. Identify the animated ad that pops up on the computer screen while downloading a website.

a) Classified ad b) Ad banner c) Ad button d) Interstitial

Q96. State whether the given statements are True/False.

a. When the offerings of different organisations are differentiated, competitive parity exists.
b. Buyer-seller relationships are not affected by commercial transactions.

a) a-False, b-False
b) a-True, b-False
c) a-False, b-True
d) a-True, b-True

Q97. Process of managing information about customers to maximize loyalty is said to be ______________.

a) Customer relationship management

b) Retailer’s management
c) Supplier management
d) Company relationship management

Q98. State whether the given statement is True/False.

Personal selling is an activity that involves face-to-face interaction with the customers wherein there is a quick
response and personal confrontation.

a) True b) False

Q99. State whether the given statement is True/False.

MIS does not help in managerial functions?

a) True b) False

Q100. What type of MIS obtains information from scanning of external sources?

a) External information b) Recurrent information c) Monitoring information

Q101. Purchase and payment cycle system is an example of _____________.

a) Internal records system

b) Marketing research system
c) Marketing intelligence system

Q102. What type of buying behaviour involves products that are expensive, bought frequently, risky, and highly self-
expressive?

a) Complex buying behaviour

b) Variety seeking buying behaviour
c) Dissonance reducing buying behaviour

Q103. Which of these psychological factors influence the consumer behaviour?

a) Personality b) Perception c) Mood

Q104. Which is the third step in business buying process?

a) Problem recognition b) Supplier identification c) Supplier evaluation

Q105. At which layer do marketers differentiate their offer on the basis of product features and services to satisfy
the customer?

a) Core layer b) Basic product layer c) Potential product layer

Q106. __________________ is used to facilitate product identification by presenting the brand with a distinct graphic
design.

a) Labelling b) Packaging c) Advertising

Q107. In which of the following pricing approaches is the promised value proposition delivered to the target
customers without fail?

a) Competition-based b) Perceived-value c) Sealed-bid

Q108. Which of the following pricing is set to cover costs such as material, labour, and overheads?

a) Mark-up price
b) Cost-plus or Full-cost pricing
c) Break-even pricing

Q109. Products that require the use of ancillary products are produced by certain companies, is an example of which
pricing strategy?

a) Optional Features Pricing

b) Captive Product Pricing
c) By-Product Pricing

Q110. Identify a function of intermediaries from the following options:

a) Carrying inventory b) Collecting payments c) Conducting market research

Q111. Freight-absorption pricing is a part of which of the following-pricing options?

a) Geographic pricing options

b) Predatory pricing
c) Psychological Pricing

Q112. Identify the element that managers examine as they define channel strategies.

a) Market factor b) Material factor c) Consumer factor

Q113. Which channel strategy limits availability of products to a few carefully selected outlets in a given market area?

a) Intensive distribution strategy

b) Exclusive distribution strategy
c) Selective distribution strategy

Q114. What are the key functional issues with logistics management?

a) Material management and physical distribution

b) Physical supply and material management
c) Product packaging and physical distribution

Q115. Retailing is the process of planning and executing the conception and distribution of goods.

a) True b) False

Q116. The pricing strategy lineates the pricing objectives in terms of its role in the overall marketing strategy of the
firm.

A) True b) False

Q117. Psychological continuity refers to a consistent attitude towards the firm and its ________________.

a) Market b) Product c) Brand

Q118. Identify a function of producers from the below options:

a) Customer support b) Bulk breaking c) Customer service

Q119. Companies identify their competitors in the market and ____________ their marketing communication
spending.

a) Estimate b) Benchmark c) Understand

Q120. What is the fifth step in the communication development process?

a) Selecting channels of communication

b) Selecting message source
c) Designing message

Q121. Can you identify a consumer promotion tool from these given options?

a) Coupons b) Fee merchandise c) Speciality advertising

Q122. Online advertisements are a form of _____________.

a) Email b) Advertising specialities c) Interactive advertising

Q123. When digital payment application BHIM was launched by the government, all the media outlets carried out
the news free of cost. Is this an example of commercially significant news?

a) Yes b) No

Q124. In which of the personal selling approaches, does the sales executive define the problem of the customer,
generate the alternative solution, and evaluate them?

a) Problem solving selling

b) Need satisfaction selling
c) Personal Confrontation
Q125. Which of the following can be classified as an emerging role of sales managers?

a) Determining sales force objectives and goals

b) Selecting, recruiting, and training sales force
c) Integration of technology with sales function

Q126. Which of the following is a type of logical resistance?

a) Preference for established brands

b) Apathy
c) Certain companies

Q127. Which of the following is a type of training programme that organizations use to train their staff?

a) Previous relevant work experience

b) Business schools
c) Self-learning

Q128. Which of the following can direct mail help in?

a) Introduce salespeople
b) Promote other forms of advertising
c) Announce a product’s introduction

Q129. Getting calls from customer service representatives post serving of products is an example of relationship
management.

a) True b) False

Q130. CRM is defined as an alignment of strategy, processes, and ___________ to manage customers and all
customer-facing departments and partners.

a) Technology b) Business c) Sales

Q131. Your credit card company gives you cashback offers reward points for each purchase using the card. Which
type of CRM programme does this fall?

a) Continuity marketing b) Individual marketing c) Co-marketing

Q132. During festivals companies offer discounts on their products. What are such strategies called?

a) Special promotion campaign

b) Customer-specific approach
c) Customer win-back programmes

Q133. Customer attention is one of the least important factors for a customer not to deal with an organization.

a) True b) False

Q134. A customer is using prepaid mobile service. He wants to use mobile internet packs at frequent intervals. CRM
enables the company to offer new internet services as per his requirement.

A) True b) False

Q135. Rural marketing should be considered as _____________.

a) A bonus b) An investment c) An expense

Q136. Identify a characteristic of service from the following options.

a) Responsiveness b) Perishability c) Assurance

Q137. Regular mails received from e-commerce companies regarding big day sales or offers on products is a form
online marketing.

a) True b) False

Q138. Identify the type of human elements involves in the social aspect of marketing from the following options?

a) Behavioural pattern b) Regional price c) Brand

Q139. Which of the following are stakeholders in international marketing?

a) Employees b) Society c) Manufacturers

Q140. Franchising is a process that establishes a working agreement between two companies.

a) True b) False

Q141. What type of marketing involves marketing activities beyond its domestic market or from its base market?

a) Domestic marketing b) Export marketing c) Multi-regional marketing

Q142. Which of the following is a factor in favour of international product standardization?

a) Functional requirements
b) Consumer mobility
c) Psychological premium

Q143. Identify the means of international promotion from the following options.

a) Local newspapers b) Direct mailing c) Sales promotion

Q144. Which is one of the most difficult challenges in brand management?

a) Range branding b) Brand piracy c) umbrella branding

Q145. Which of the following are factors that influence the perception of customers about the quality of a brand?

a) Business history b) Regulatory mechanisms c) Promotional messages

Q146. Which of the following is a price factor that affects international pricing?

a) Average unit price realised for exports

b) Confidence in the quality of goods
c) Willingness to pay a very high price
 MARKETING MANAGEMENT QUIZ – ANSWER KEY

Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7 Q8 Q9 Q10 Q11 Q12 Q13 Q14 Q15 Q16 Q17

A A C B D A B C B B B A C C C D C
Q18 Q19 Q20 Q21 Q22 Q23 Q24 Q25 Q26 Q27 Q28 Q29 Q30 Q31 Q32 Q33 Q34
A A A B C B A B B D C D B A B C B
Q35 Q36 Q37 Q38 Q39 Q40 Q41 Q42 Q43 Q44 Q45 Q46 Q47 Q48 Q49 Q50 Q51
C B B C A A C B D D C B B C C D A
Q52 Q53 Q54 Q55 Q56 Q57 Q58 Q59 Q60 Q61 Q62 Q63 Q64 Q65 Q66 Q67 Q68
A D B C A C B C A D D D A D D D D
Q69 Q70 Q71 Q72 Q73 Q74 Q75 Q76 Q77 Q78 Q79 Q80 Q81 Q82 Q83 Q84 Q85
A A B B D D A A D D D D D C D C D
Q86 Q87 Q88 Q89 Q90 Q91 Q92 Q93 Q94 Q95 Q96 Q97 Q98 Q99 Q100 Q101 Q102
A B A A A B B C D D A A A B C A A
Q103 Q104 Q105 Q106 Q107 Q108 Q109 Q110 Q111 Q112 Q113 Q114 Q115 Q116 Q117 Q118 Q119
B B C A B B B B A A C A B B C A B
Q120 Q121 Q122 Q123 Q124 Q125 Q126 Q127 Q128 Q129 Q130 Q131 Q132 Q133 Q134 Q135 Q136
B A C A A C C B B A A A A B A B B
Q137 Q138 Q139 Q140 Q141 Q142 Q143 Q144 Q145 Q146
A A A, B B B B B, C B C A