20 ĐỀ ÔN THPTQG

ĐỀ SỐ 01
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. serves B. hopes C. likes D. writes
Question 2: A. substantial B. initiate C. particular D. attention
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from
the other threeinthepositionofprimarystressineachofthefollowingquestions
Question 3: A. express B. effort C. employ D. reduce
Question 4: A. preference B. attraction C. advantage D. infinitive
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 5: The passengers, tired after a very long trip, was relaxing in every available
seat in the airport lobby.
A. the B. very C. was relaxing D. available
Question 6: If we had more time last week, we would certainly have finished the project on
time.
A. had B. certainly C. the D. on time
Question 7: Sleeping, resting, and to drink fruit juice are the best ways to care for a cold.
A. sleeping B. to drink C. juice D. best ways
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the following questions.
Question 8: I’d like to see that football match because I once this year.
A. haven’t seen B. don’t see C. weren’t seeing D. didn’t see
Question 9: They always kept on good with their next-door neighbors for
the children’s sake.
A. will B. friendship C. terms D. relations
Question 10: Some candidates failed the oral examination because they didn’t have
enough
.
A. confide B. confident C. confidential D. confidence
Question 11: Our new coach is popular the whole team.
A. for B. to C. by D. with
Question 12: Don’t go too fast! I can’t up with you.
A. keep B. go C. walk D. run

Question 13: I have no idea where .
A. has she got that information B. she got that information

C. did she get that information D. that information has she got
Question 14: That’s story I have ever heard.
A. a ridiculous B. the ridiculous

C. the more ridiculous D. the most ridiculous
Question 15: We bought some .
A. German lovely old glasses B. German old lovely glasses

C. lovely old German glasses D. old lovely German glasses
Question 16: non-verbal language is important aspect of interpersonal
communication.
A. The - a B. ø – an C. A – the D. The - ø
Question 17: Their apartment looks nice. In fact, it’s .
A. extremely comfortable B. extreme comfortably

C. extreme comfortable D. extremely comfortably
Question 18: My teacher is one of the people .
A. I look up to them B. whom look up to

C. I look up to D. to who I look up to
Question 19: In my company, the director deputy usually the responsibility for
organizing meetings and conferences.
A. makes B. gets C. becomes D. takes
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the followingexchanges.
Question 20: “Would you mind turning down the TV? I’m working!”
“ .”
A. Yes, I’m working, too. B. Not at all. I’ll do it now.
C. Thank you. I’m pleased. D. No, I wouldn’t be working.
Question 21: “Please, lock the door carefully before you leave the
room.” “ .”
A. I won’t tell you when I do it. B. I’m thinking of selling the house.
C. That’s for sure. D. I’m sorry. I did it last night.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s )in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Mr. Gerstein was particularly taken aback to hear that sleeping problems are
often linked to physical problems.
A. surprised B. intended C. determined D. relieved
Question 23: I shouldn’t go outside without a raincoat because it’s raining cats and dogs.
A. it’s just started to rain B. it’s raining very heavily
C. it’s going to rain D. it’s drizzling
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: I could only propose a partial solution to the crisis in the company.
A. half B. halfway C. effective D. complete
Question 25: Inadequate supply of oxygen to the blood can cause death within minutes.
A. Sufficient B. Nonexistent C. Rich D. Useful
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest
in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26: You ought to make up your mind now.
A. It is high time you made up your mind. B. Making up your mind is necessary.
C. It is possible to make up your mind. D. You should have made up your mind.
Question 27: “No, no, you really must stay a bit longer!” said the boys.
A. The boys denied my staying a bit longer.
B. The boys refused to let me stay a bit longer.
C. The boys didn’t agree to let stay a bit longer.
D. The boys insisted on my staying a bit longer.
Question 28: My uncle didn’t recognize me until I spoke.
A. My uncle recognized me not until I spoke

B. Only when my uncle recognized me did I speak
C. Not until I spoke did my uncle recognize me
D. When I spoke, my uncle didn’t recognize me
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: I picked up my book. I found that the cover had been torn
A. When picking up my book, the cover had been torn
B. On picking up my book, I saw that the cover had been torn
C. The cover had been torn when my book picked up
D. Picked up, the book was torn
Question 30: Home schooling is apparently very successful. Many people still believe in the
benefits of traditional schooling
A. Because home schooling is apparently very successful, many people still believe in the
benefits of traditional schooling
B. As long as home schooling is apparently very successful, many people still believe in
the benefits of traditional schooling
C. Even though home schooling is apparently very successful, many people still believe in
D. In spite of home schooling is apparently very successful, many people still believe in
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correctwordorphrasethatbestfitseachofthenumberedblanksfrom 31 to 35.
ENGLISH AROUND THE WORLD
Teaching English as a foreign language can be a great way to travel around the world
and earn money at the same time. However, some graduates actually like the idea of
(31) a career in teaching English, and there are numerous courses at various
(32) , from the basic certificates to the diploma or even the master’s.
To find the right course, a good place to start is TEFL.com – an Internet site with lots
of relevant information and helpful (33) including a full list of places in the UL
offering courses. The site also offers assistance to qualified graduates (34) finding
work.
When deciding on a course, the best thing to do is to look at what your needs are. If
you want a career in teaching English, then definitely find one designed for that
(35) , such as an MA or diploma; but if you want to travel around the world, then do
a shorter course that will supply you with teaching skills.
Question 31: A. tracking B. chasing C. hunting D. following
Question 32: A. levels B. categories C. groups D. classes
Question 33: A. opinion B. suggestion C. advice D. idea
Question 34: A. to B. for C. at D. in
Question 35: A. function B. use C. aim D. purpose
indicate the correct answertoeachofthequestionsfrom 36 to 42.
Most people think that lions only come from Africa. This is understandable because
in fact most lions do come from there but this has not always been the case. If we went back
ten thousand years. we would find that there were lions roaming vast sections of the globe.
However no, unfortunately only a very small section of the lion’s former habitat remains.
Asiatic lions are sub-species of African lions. It is almost a hundred thousand years
since the Asiatic lions split off and developed as a sub-species. At one time the Asiatic lion
was living as far west as Greece and they were found from there, but in a band that spreads
east through various countries of the Middle East, all the way to India. In museums now, you
can see Greek coins that have clear images of the Asiatic lion on them. Most of them are
dated at around 500 B.C. However, Europe saw its last Asiatic lions roaming free to thousand
years ago. Over the next nineteen hundred years the numbers of Asiatic lions in the other
areas declined steadily, but it was only in the nineteenth century that they disappeared from
everywhere but in India.
The Gir Wildlife Sanctuary in India was established especially to protect the Asiatic
lion. There are now around three hundred Asiatic lions in India and almost all of them are in
this sanctuary. However, despite living in a sanctuary, which makes them safe from hunters,
they still face a number of problems that threaten their survival. One of these is the ever-
present danger of disease. This is what killed more than a third of Africa’s Serengeti lions in
1994, and people are fearful that something similar could happen in the Gir Sanctuary and
kill off many of the Asiatic lions there.
India’s lions are particular vulnerable because they have a limited gene pool. The
reason for this is interesting – it is because all of them are descended from a few dozen lions
that were saved by a prince who took a particular interest in them. He was very healthy, and
he managed to protect them otherwise they would probably have died out completely.
When you see the Asiatic lion in India, what you sense is enormous vitality. They are very
impressive animals and you would never guess that they this vulnerability when you look at
them.
Question 36: According to the passage, ten thousand years ago, .
A. lions did not live in small forests
B. lions came mainly from Afric
C. lions roamed much more than nowadays
D. there were much more lion habitats than nowadays
Question 37: The phrase “split off” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to .
A. spotted animals B. divided
C. developed into different species D. changed the original species

Question 38: The word “vulnerable” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to .
A. weak B. careless C. cautious D. easily protected

Question 39: The Asiatic lion .
A. was looking for food mainly in the Middle East

B. was searching for food in a wide range of countries
C. was searching for food mainly in India and Africa
D was looking for food mainly in India.
Question 40: According to the author, the Gir Wildlife Sanctuary
A. protects the Asiatic lion from hunters and diseases
B. cannot reduce the Asiatic lion’s risk of catching diseases
C. can make the Asiatic lion become weak
D. is among many places where the Asiatic lion is well protected
Question 41: The author refers to all of the following as characteristics of the Asiatic lion
EXCEPT that .
A. strong B. vulnerable C. vital D. impressive
Question 42: The passage is written to .
A. persuade readers to protect the Asiatic lions

B. explain why the Gir Sanctuary is the best habitat for the Asiatic lions
C. describe the developmental history of the Gir Sanctuary
D. provide an overview of the existence of the Asiatic lions
indicate the correctanswertoeachofthequestionsfrom 43 to 50.
If you enjoy water sports, Hawaii is the place for you. You can go swimming all year
round in the warm water. You can go sport fishing from the shore or from a boat. If you like
boats, you can go sailing, canoeing, or windsurfing. Or, you can also try some other water
sports that are especially popular in Hawaii: surfing, snorkeling and scuba diving.
Surfing is a sport which started in Hawaii many years ago. The Hawaiians called it
“he’e nalu”, which means “to slide on a wave”. If you want to try surfing, you need, first of
all, to be a good swimmer. You also have to have an excellent sense of balance. You must
swim out from the beach with your surfboard under your arm. When you get to where the
waves begin to break, you wait for a calm moment. Then you try to stand up on the board.
The wave will begin to rise under you. You must try to steer the board with your feet so you
stay on top of the wave. The important thing is to keep your balance and not fall down. If you
can manage this, you will have an exciting ride all the way in to the shore.
Scuba diving and snorkeling are two ways to get a close look at the beauty lying
below the surface of the ocean. The waters off the Hawaiian Islands are clean, clear and
warm. They contain hundreds of kinds of colorful fish. The undersea world is made even
more colorful by the coral reefs of red, gold, white and light purple. Among these reefs there
may be larger fish or sea turtles.
Scuba diving allows you to see the most interesting undersea sights. “Scuba” means
“Self- contained Underwater Breathing Apparatus”, that is, equipment for breathing and
swimming around far under water. In Hawaii, you can take special courses to learn how to
scuba dive. After the courses, you can get a certificate that will allow you to dive alone.
Since it can be dangerous, proper instruction and great care are always necessary when you
are scuba diving.
If you are adventurous, you might try snorkeling instead of scuba diving. Less
equipment is needed, just a face mask, a breathing tube (snorkel) and flippers for your feet. It
only takes a few minutes to learn how to snorkel. Although you cannot dive deep into the
water, you can swim with your face below the surface. Breathing through the tube, you float
on the surface, and keep yourself moving with your flippers. Even from the surface like this,
there will be plenty of color and beauty to see.
Question 43: The passage is about .
A. water sports around the world B. surfing

C. tourist activities in Hawaii D. water sports in Hawaii
Question 44: You can infer from the passage that .
A. water sports are all expensive

B. you need to take a course for all water sports.
C. everyone can find a way to enjoy sports in the water
D. swimming in Hawaii can be dangerous
Question 45: According to the passage, surfing .
A. began as a sport in 1943 B. was invented by the native Hawaiians

C. requires expensive equipment D. is very dangerous
Question 46: The water around the Hawaiian Islands is
A. often quite cold B. full of colorful things to see

C. usually very dark D. full of dangerous fish
Question 47: The word “this” in the second paragraph refers to
A. standing on the board

B. keeping balanced and not falling down
C. an exciting ride
D. staying on top of the wave
Question 48: According to the passage, scuba diving
A. is an ancient Hawaiian water sport

B. requires special equipment and training
C. is the only way to see the fish underwater
D. requires good balance
Question 49: The word “proper” in paragraph 4 refers to
A. enthusiastic B. informative C. appropriate D. short and clear

Question 50: Which statement is supported by the information in the passage?
A. Snorkeling involves breathing through the tube, floating on the surface and moving
with flippers
B. Snorkeling requires more expensive equipment than scuba diving
C. Snorkeling is for adventurous people
D. Snorkeling was invented in ancient times
Đáp án
1-A 2-C 3-B 4-A 5-C 6-A 7-B 8-A 9-C 10-D
11-D 12-A 13-B 14-D 15-C 16-B 17-A 18-C 19-D 20-B
21-C 22-A 23-B 24-D 25-A 26-A 27-D 28-C 29-B 30-C
31-B 32-A 33-B 34-D 35-D 36-D 37-C 38-A 39-B 40-B
41-A 42-D 43-D 44-C 45-B 46-B 47-B 48-B 49-C 50-A
ĐỀ SỐ 02
Question 1: A. wanted B. developed C. needed D. included
Question 2: A. fare B. black C. match D. calcium
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other threeinthepositionofprimarystressineachofthefollowingquestions.
Question 3: A. parallel B. society C. enormous D. Australia
Question 4: A. weather B. flower C. human D. canteen
Question 5: Despite the time of the year, yesterday’s temperature was enough hot to turn on
the air conditioning
A. despite B. yesterday’s C. enough hot D. to turn on
Question 6: This concert is more worse than I expected it to be
A. this B. is C. more worse D. to be
Question 7: As I was driving south I could see that the old road was rebuilding
A. driving B. see C. that D. was rebuilding
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each
of the following questions.
Question 8: When she returned home from work, she a bath
A. takes B. took C. has taken D. was taking
Question 9: It is important to have someone you can in.
A. talk B. speak C. know D. confide
Question 10: He was lucky to escape from the accident with only injuries.
A. minor B. serious C. important D. major
Question 11: You clean the windows. The window-cleaner is coming tomorrow.
A. don’t have B. must C. mustn’t D. needn’t
Question 12: Would you rather live in town or in country?
A. a – a B. a – the C. the – a D. the – the
Question 13: Our teacher would like

A. that we practicing our pronunciation B. we to practice our pronunciation
C. us to practice our pronunciation D. us practicing our pronunciation
Question 14: Jane often remembered to her mother before she died
A. to talk B. talk C. talked D. talking
Question 15: They will be able to walk across the river
A. if the ice will be thick enough B. unless the ice is thick enough
C. if the ice is thick enough D. when the ice will be thick enough
Question 16: I don’t care money. Money can’t buy happiness
A. about B. with C. in D. at
Question 17: The Giant Panda has been on thev_ of extinction for many years
A. border B. verge C. margin D. rim
Question 18: What I like best of him is his
A. dependence B. dependable C. independence D. dependency
Question 19: He leaves work early to his daughter up from school

A. pick B. put C. take D. collect
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response
to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: “Hello, I’d like to speak to Mr. Green, please.”
“ .”
A. I’m afraid I don’t know B. I’m sorry. I’ll call again later
C. Sorry. Can you take a message? D. Sure, I’ll put you through
Question 21: “It’s going to rain.”
“ .”
A. I hope not so B. I don’t hope either C. I don’t hope so D. I hope not
Question 22: The use of lasers in surgery has become relatively commonplace in recent
years
A. absolutely B. relevantly C. comparatively D. almost
Question 23: The US Congress office is adjacent to the Capitol building

A. far from B. behind C. next to D. within
Question 24: “I’m sorry, madam. This is the fixed price and there is no discount.”
A. negotiable B. discounted C. unchanged D. discussed
Question 25: In common with many mothers, she feels torn between her family and her
work.
A. In association with B. In imitation of C. Ignoring D. Unlike
Question 26: He knew little about the world nature
A. He had a little knowledge about the world nature

B. He had little knowledge of the world nature
C. He knew little knowledge according to the world nature
D. He rarely knew of the little world nature
Question 27: I can’t agree with you more
A. I absolutely agree with you

B. I absolutely can’t agree with you
C. I partly agree with you
D. We have completely different ideas.
Question 28: We prefer going by train because we can enjoy the sight.
A. We would like to go by train, or we will enjoy the sight.
B. We enjoy the sight although we go by train
C. We prefer going by train to enjoying the sight
D. We would like to go by train so that we can enjoy the sight.
Question 29: We cut down many forests. The Earth becomes hot
A. The more forests we cut down, the hotter the Earth becomes
B. The more we cut down forests, the hotter the Earth becomes
C. The more forests we cut down, the Earth becomes hotter
D. The more we cut down forests, the Earth becomes hotter
Question 30: A thermometer is an instrument. We use it to measure the temperature
A. We use it to measure the temperature which is a thermometer.
B. A thermometer is an instrument which is used to measure the temperature
C. We use thermometer which measure the temperature
D. A thermometer is an instrument which we use it to measure the temperature
indicate the correctwordorphrasethatbestfitseachofthenumberedblanksfrom 31 to 35.
British parents are always complaining that their children spend too much time glued
to the TV and do not have enough time on other activities (31) sports and reading.
A survey recently (32) _ on people’s viewing habits does not approve this. It shows
that young people in Britain spend on average 23 hours a week in front of the television,
(33) works out at over three hours a day.
(34) is surprising, however, is the fact that the average adult watches even
more: an incredible 28 hours a week. We (35) to have become a nation of addicts.
Just about every household in the country has a television set and over half have two or
more. According to the survey, people nowadays don’t just watch television sitting in their
living-rooms, they watch it in the kitchen and in bed as well
Question 31: A. such B. like C. as D. alike
Question 32: A. investigated B. researched C. carried out D. carried
Question 33: A. that B. which C. this D. it
Question 34: A. What B. It C. The thing D. This
Question 35: A. seem B. ought C. used D. would like
Most people go to a doctor in their own town or suburbs. But people in the Australian
outback can’t get to a doctor quickly. The nearest doctor is sometimes hundreds of
kilometers away so they have to call him on a two-way radio. This special doctor is called
the “flying doctor”. He visits sick people by plane.
When someone is sick, the doctor has to fly to the person’s home. His plane lands on
a flat piece of ground near the person’s house. Sometimes the doctor has to take the patient
to hospital. Flying doctors take about 8,600 people to hospital each year.
However, most of the time the person isn’t very sick, and the doctor doesn’t have to
visit. He can give advice on the radio from the office at the flying doctor center. He can tell
the patient to use some medicine from a special medicine chest. There is one of these chests
in every home in the outback. Each bottle, tube and packet in the chest has a number. The
doctor often says something like this, “Take two tablets from bottle number 5 every four
hours.”
A man called John Flynn started the Royal Flying Doctor service in 1927. He had
only one plane. Today there are 14 flying-doctor centers, 29 planes, 14 full-time doctors and
several part- time doctors, nurses and dentists.
Question 36: The flying doctors mentioned in this article treat their patients
A. in clinics B. by old methods C. over great distances D. by telepathy
Question 37: Which happens first?
A. The doctor flies to the sick person’s home

B. The sick person or his family calls the doctor on a two-way radio
C. The plane lands near the patient’s house
D. The doctor treats the sick person on a two-way radio
Question 38: The word “outback” mostly means
A. a large field of the Aborigines

B. an isolated island
C. a vast and remote area
D. a far-off forest
Question 39: The word “chest” in this context probably means
A. a body part B. a machine C. a remote control D. a small box

Question 40: When a patient needs a special examination, the doctor has to
A. take him/her to a special holy place
B. fly him/her to a military clinic
C. give him/her all kinds of medicine
D. fly to the patient’s place
Question 41: All of the following statements are true EXCEPT
A. None of the doctor at the center work full-time

B. Every home in the outback has a chest
C. Sometimes the doctor has to take the patient to hospital
D. The doctor gives prescription using specific numbers for each kind of medicine
Question 42: The writer of this passage shows a/an attitude to the flying- doctor
service.
A. critical B. supportive C. curious D. indifferent
The food we eat seems to have profound effects on our health. Although science has
made enormous steps in making food more fit to eat, it has, at the same time, made many
foods unfit to eat. Some research has shown that perhaps 80% of all human illnesses are
related to diet and 40% of cancer is related to the diet as well, especially cancer of the colon.
People of different cultures are more prone to contract certain illnesses because of the
characteristic foods they consume.
That food is related to illness is not a new discovery. In 1945, government
researchers realized that nitrates and nitrites (commonly used to preserve color in meats) as
well as other food additives caused cancer. Yet, these carcinogenic additives remain on our
food, and it becomes more difficult all the time to know which ingredients on the packaging
labels of processed food are healthful or harmful.
The additives that we eat are not all so direct. Farmers often give penicillin to cattle
and poultry, and because of this, penicillin has been found in the milk of treated cows.
Sometimes similar drugs are administered to animals not for medicinal purposes, but for
financial reasons. The farmers are simply trying to fatten the animals in order to obtain a
higher price on the market. Although the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has tried
repeatedly to control these producers, the practices continue.
A healthy diet is directly related to good health. Often we are unaware of detrimental
substances we ingest. Sometimes well-meaning farmers or others who do not realize the
consequences add these substances to food without their knowledge
Question 43: How has science done a disservice to people?
A. Because of science, disease caused by contaminated food has been virtually

eradicated
B. It has caused a lack of information concerning the value of food
C. As a result of scientific intervention, some potentially harmful substances have been added
to our food
D. The scientists have preserved the color of meats, but not of vegetables
Question 44: According to the passage, what are nitrates used for?
A. They preserve flavor in package foods
B. They are the objects of research
C. They preserve the color of meats
D. They cause the animals to become fatter
Question 45: The word “fit” is closest in meaning to
A. athletic B. suitable C. tasty D. adaptable
Question 46: The word “these” in paragraph 2 refers to
A. meats B. colors C. researchers D. nitrates and nitrites
Question 47: The word “carcinogenic” is closest in meaning to
A. trouble-making B. color-retaining C. money-making D. cancer-causing

Question 48: All the following statements are true EXCEPT
A. Drugs are always given to animals for medical reasons

B. Some of the additives in our food are added to the food itself and some are given to the
living animals
C. Researchers have known about the potential hazards of food additives for more than 45
years
D. Food may cause 40% of the cancer in the world
Question 49: The word “additives” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
A. added substances B. dangerous substances

C. natural substances D. toxic substances
Question 50: What is the best title for this passage?
A. Harmful and harmless substances in food

B. The food you eat can affect your health
C. Improving health through a natural diet
D. Avoiding injurious substances in food
THE END
Đáp án
1- B 2-A 3-A 4-D 5-C 6-C 7-D 8-B 9-D 10-A

11-D 12-D 13-C 14-D 15-C 16-A 17-B 18-C 19-A 20-D
21-D 22-C 23-A 24-A 25-D 26-B 27-A 28-D 29-A 30-B
31-B 32-C 33-B 34-A 35-A 36-C 37-B 38-C 39-D 40-D
41-A 42-B 43-C 44-C 45-B 46-D 47-D 48-A 49-A 50-C
ĐỀ SỐ 03
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. chorus B. children C. changeable D. chore
Question 2: A. entrance B. circus C. official D. certain
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
threeinthepositionofprimarystressineachofthefollowingquestions.
Question 3: A. technique B. advance C. challenge D. attempt
Question 4: A. interview B. essential C. comfortable D. industry
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 5: By measuring the color of a star, astronomers can tell how hot is it.
A. measuring B. the C. how D. is it
Question 6: The next host for the SEA Games is Laos. It is Laos’ the first time as the host for the
biannual- games
A. the next B. it is C. the first D. the host
Question 7: After teaching English in Vietnam for ten years, Nicolas decided to buy a house and
spending the rest of his life there
A. teaching B. to buy C. spending D. rest of his
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 8: Jack chess before, so I showed him what to do
A. didn’t play B. hadn’t played C. hadn’t been played D. wasn’t playing

Question 9: When his alarm went off, he shut it off and slept for 15 minutes
A. another B. others C. the others D. other
Question 10: Please your cigarette. I am going to get choked
A. cut down B. blow out C. put aside D. put out
Question 11: Factories are not allowed to pump their industrial into the sea
A. garbage B. litter C. waste D. rubbish
Question 12: I must go to the dentist and
A. get my teeth to take care of B. take care of my teeth

C. my teeth be taken care of D. get my teeth taken care of
Question 13: “What would you do in my place?”
“ Were treated like that, I would complain to the manager.”
A. I to had been B. I to be C. I have been D. to I be
Question 14: Hair colour is characteristics to use in identifying people
A. one of the most obvious that art B. obviously one of the most
C. one of the most obvious D. most obvious one of
Question 15: Not until a monkey is several years old to exhibit signs of
independence from his mother
A. does it begin B. beginning C. and begin D. it begins
Question 16: As a child, I had an friend called Polly
A. image B. imagine C. imaginative D. imaginary
Question 17: Dick moustache, but he doesn’t any more. He shaved it off because his wife
didn’t like it
A. got used to have B. is used to have C. used to have D. used to having
Question 18: Neither the students nor their lecturer English in the classroom
A. use B. uses C. are using D. have used
Question 19: Jenny is an early riser and she doesn’t object the trip before 7 a.m
A. to starting B. against starting C. to have to start D. to start
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: “Can I have a look at that pullover, please?”
“ .”
A. Sorry, it is out of stock B. Which one? This one?

C. It’s much cheaper D. Can I help you?
Question 21: “Thanks for helping me with my homework, John.”
“ .”
A. Don’t mention it B. Please, don’t blame yourself
. C. No harm done D. I don’t mean so.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: In most countries, compulsory military service does not apply to women
A. mandatory B. beneficial C. constructive D. superior
Question 23: : Every time he opens his mouth, he immediately regrets what he said. He’s always
putting his foot in his mouth
A. speaking indirectly B. saying something upsetting
C. doing things in the wrong order D. talking too much
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to theunderlinedword(s)ineachofthefollowingquestions.
Question 24: Because Jack defaulted on his loan, the bank took him to court
A. was paid much money B. paid in full

C. had a bad personality D. failed to pay
Question 25: The US troops are using much more sophisticated weapons in the Far East
A. expensive B. complicated
C. difficult to operate D. simple and easy to use

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26: “Why I haven’t thought of this before?” Tony said to himself.
A. Tony advised himself not to have thought of that before
B. Tony suggested himself not thinking of that before
C. Tony said that why he hasn’t thought of that before
D. Tony wondered why he hadn’t thought of that before.
Question 27: She is the most intelligent woman I have ever met
A. I have never met a more intelligent woman than her

B. She is not as intelligent as the women I have ever met
C. I have ever met such an intelligent woman
D. She is more intelligent than I am
Question 28: She broke down the moment she heard the news
A. She was broken for a moment when she heard the news
B. She broke her leg when hearing the news
C. On hearing the news, she broke down
D. When she heard the news, she was sick.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 29: The basketball team knew they lost the match. They soon started to blame each other.
A. Hardly had the basketball team known they lost the match when they started to blame each
other.
B. No sooner had the basketball team started to blame each other than they knew they lost the
match
C. As soon as they blamed each other, the basketball team knew they lost the match
D. Not only did the basketball team lose the match but they blamed each other as well.
Question 30: We chose to find a place for the night. We found the bad weather very inconvenient.
A. Bad weather was approaching, so we started to look for a place to stay.
B. The bad weather prevented us from driving any further
C. Seeing that the bad weather had set in, we decided to find somewhere to spend the night
D. Because the climate was so severe, we were worried about what we'd do at night
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correctwordorphrasethatbestfitseachofthenumberedblanksfrom 31 to 35.
NOISE POLLUTION
Noise is more than a mere nuisance. At certain levels and durations of exposure, it can
cause physical damage to the eardrum, and (31) in temporary or permanent hearing loss.
In addition to causing hearing loss, (32) noise exposure can also (33) blood
pressure and pulse rate, cause irritability, anxiety, and mental fatigue, and interfere with sleep,
recreation, and personal communication. Noise pollution is, therefore, (34 importance in
the workplace and in the community.
Noise effects can be (35) by a number of techniques, for example, increasing the
distance or blocking the path between the noise source and the recipient, reducing noise level at the
source, and protecting recipients with earplugs or earmuffs
Question 31: A. bring B. result C. create D. affect
Question 32: A. exceedingly B. excess C. excessively D. excessive
Question 33: A. enlarge B. maximize C. raise D. rise
Question 34: A. for B. of C. at D. within
Question 35: A. minimized B. created C. brought D. done
correctanswertoeachofthequestionsfrom 36 to 42.
As heart disease continues to be the number-one killer in the United States, researchers
have become increasingly interested in identifying the potential risk factors that trigger heart
attacks. High-fat diets and “life in the fast lane” have long been known to contribute to 5 the high
incidence of heart failure. But according to new studies, the list of risk factors may be significantly
longer and quite surprising.
Heart failure, for example, appears to have seasonal and temporal 10 patterns. A
higher percentage of heart attacks occur in cold weather, and more people experience heart failure
on Monday than on any other day of the week. In addition, people are more susceptible to heart
attacks in the first few hours after waking. Cardiologists first observed this morning phenomenon
in the mid-1980, and have since 15 discovered a number of possible causes. An early-morning rise
in blood pressure, heart rate, and concentration of heart stimulating hormones, plus a reduction of
blood flow to the heart, may all contribute to the higher incidence of heart attacks between the
hours of 8:00 A.M. and 10:00 A.M.
In other studies, both birthdays and bachelorhood have been implicated as risk factors.
Statistics reveal that heart attack rates increase significantly for both females and males in the few
days immediately preceding and following their birthdays. And unmarried men are more 25 at risk
for heart attacks than their married counterparts. Though stress is thought to be linked in some way
to all of the aforementioned risk factors, intense research continues in the hope of further
comprehending why and how heart failure is triggered
Question 36: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. risk factors in heart attacks

B. seasonal and temporal patterns of heart attacks
C. cardiology in the 1980s
D. diet and stress as factors in heart attacks
Question 37: In paragraph 1, the word “potential” could best be re-placed by which of the
following?
A. harmful B. primary C. unknown D. possible
Question 38: The word “trigger” as used in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to which of the
following?
A. involve B. affect C. cause D. encounter
Question 39: The phrase “susceptible to” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by .
A. aware of B. affected by C. accustomed D. prone to
Question 40: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT a possible cause of many
heart attacks?
A. decreased blood flow to the heart B. increased blood presure
C. lower heart rate D. increase in hormones
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT cited as a possible risk factor?
A. Having a birthday B. Getting married
C. Rating fatty foods D. Being under stress
Question 42: Which of the following does the passage infer?
A. We now fully understand how risk factors trigger heart attacks

B. We recently began to study how risk factors trigger heart attacks
C. We have not identified many risk factors associated with heart attacks
D. We do not fully understand how risk factors trigger heart attacks
correctanswertoeachofthequestionsfrom 43 to 50.
Aging is the process of growing old. It occurs eventually in every living thing provided, of
course, that an illness or accident does not kill it prematurely. The most familiar outward signs of
aging may be seen in old people, such as the graying of the hair and the wrinkling of the skin. Signs
of aging in a pet dog or cat include loss of playfulness and energy, a decline in hearing and
eyesight, or even a slight graying of the coat. Plants age too, but the signs are much harder to detect.
Most body parts grow bigger and stronger, and function more efficiently during childhood. They
reach their peak at the time of maturity, or early adulthood. After that, they begin to decline. Bones,
for example, gradually become lighter and more brittle. In the aged, the joints between the bones
also become rigid and more inflexible. This can make moving very painful.
All the major organs of the body show signs of aging. The brain, for example, works less
efficiently, and even gets smaller in size. Thinking processes of all sorts are slowed down. Old
people often have trouble in remembering recent events.
One of the most serious changes of old age occurs in the arteries, the blood vessels that lead from
the heart. They become thickened and constricted, allowing less blood to flow to the rest of body.
This condition accounts, directly or indirectly, for many of the diseases of the aged. It may,
forexample, result in heart attack.
Aging is not a uniform process. Different parts of the body wear out at different rates. There
are great differences among people in their rate of aging. Even the cells of the body differ in the
way they age. The majority of cells are capable of reproducing themselves many times during the
course of a lifetime. Nerve cells and muscle fibers can never be replaced once they wear out.
Gerontologists - scientists who study the process of aging-believe this wearing out of the
body is controlled by a built-in biological time-clock. They are trying to discover how this clock
works so that they can slow down the process. This could give man a longer life and a great number
of productive years.
Question 43: What is the main idea of the first paragraph?
A. Signs of aging are easier to detect in animals than in plants

B. Aging occurs in every living thing after it has reached maturity
C. Not all signs of aging are visible
D. The outward signs of aging may be seen in old people
Question 44: What does the word “it” in paragraph 1 refer to?
A. aging B. a living thing C. an illness D. an accident
Question 45: When does the human body begin to lose vigor and the ability to function efficiently?
A. Soon after reaching adulthood B. During childhood
C. Early adulthood D. In old age
Question 46: What happens to memorization when the brain begins to age?
A. It works less B. It becomes forgetful
C. It declines D. It slows down
Question 47: The word “brittle” in paragraph 2 means
A. soft and easily bent B. hard and endurable

C. hard but easily broken D. rigid and inflexible
Question 48: According to the passage, what condition is responsible for many of the diseases of
the old?
A. The arteries have become thickened and constricted
B. The blood vessels lead from the heart
C. The brain gets smaller in size
D. Bones become lighter and brittle
Question 49: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. All living things grow old
B. Aging is unavoidable in any living things
C. Plants show less signs of aging than any other living things
D. Most body parts wear out during the course of a lifetime
Question 50: What is the main idea of the last paragraph?
A. Gerontologists have controlled the process of aging

B. Gerontologists are working hard to help people live longer and more healthily
C. Gerontologists are trying to give people an eternal life
D. Gerontologists are now able to slow down the process of aging
.................THE END.................
Đáp án
1-A 2-C 3-C 4-B 5-D 6-C 7-C 8-B 9-A 10-D
11-C 12-D 13-B 14-C 15-A 16-D 17-C 18-B 19-A 20-B
21-A 22-A 23-B 24-B 25-D 26-D 27-A 28-C 29-A 30-C
31-B 32-D 33-C 34-B 35-A 36-A 37-D 38-C 39-D 40-C
41-B 42-D 43-B 44-B 45-A 46-C 47-C 48-A 49-C 50-B
ĐỀ SỐ 04
Question 1: A. kidney B. knowledge C. killer D. kite
Question 2: A. ought B. brought C. fought D. drought
the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. problem B. village C. police D. worker
Question 4: A. effectiveness B. satisfaction C. curriculum D. appropriate
Question 5: Although it was the first time Vietnam hosted so a big sports event, the Games
were a great success.
A. although B. the first time C. so D. were
Question 6: Do not start a book unless you can see from the first few pages that it is one you
can easy read and understand.
A. unless B. from C. it is one D. easy
Question 7: One of the most important measures to be taken to promote the develop of a
country is to constantly carry out economic reforms.
A. measures B. develop C. constantly D. carry out
Question 8: One of the men was lying on the ground after down by a piece of rock
A. knocking B. being knocked C. knocking him D. was knocked
Question 9: The number of working women in China from 49% in 1980 to nearly
65% today
A. has been increasing B. has increased

C. is increasing D. have increased
Question 10: My uncle took photography when he retired from work
A. after B. over C. up D. on
Question 11: Helen is traveling to Germany tomorrow on her first working trip and she is
very excited it
A. for B. against C. about D. with
Question 12: These people for the most successful company in the town
A. are seeming to work B. seem working
C. seem to be working D. are seem to be working
Question 13: This job working very long hours
A. includes B. consists C. involves D. contains
Question 14: When he was 20, he developed for the personal computer
A. the world first computer’s language
B. the computer language for the first world
C. the world’s first computer language
D. the first world’s computer language
Question 15: When I came, the salesperson was to the customers how to use a
new kind of washing machines.
A. demonstrating B. proving C. exposing D. teaching
Question 16: my parents gave me the fish tank
A. It was on my birthday when B. It was my birthday on that

C. It was my birthday that D. It was on my birthday that
Question 17: This is the most difficult job I’ve ever had to do
A. by heart B. by chance C. by far D. by myself

Question 18: It is great to watch sportsmen in their national costumes into the
stadium
A. marching B. marched C. having marched D. to march
Question 19: Don’t worry. He’ll do the job as as possible
A. economizing B. economic C. uneconomically D. economically

Question 20: “How would you like your tea?”
“ .”
A. Yes, please. Thanks B. With milk, please
C. Thank you very much D. It’s fantastic. Thank you
Question 21: “Don’t forget to drop me a line when you settle
down.” “Trust me, .”
A. I will. I’ll keep you in touch B. I won’t. I’ll keep you posted
C. I don’t. I’ll keep you in touch D. I drop you a line when I settle dow
Question 22: Setting off on an expedition without thorough preparation and with inadequate
equipment is tempting fate
A. taking a risk B. going round in circles
C. losing heart D. having panic
Question 23: Peter didn’t mean to be disrespectful to his teacher. He just couldn’t control his
temper.
‘ A. showing lack of trust B. showing nervousness
C. showing impolite behaviour D. showing lack of attention
Question 24: Nancy concurred with her boss about the new direction the company was
taking
A. disagreed B. agreed C. surrendered D. confessed
Question 25: “We strongly believe that he’s innocent of the crime. We do not think that he
did it.”
A. clean B. guilty C. faultless D. crimeless
Question 26: He cannot practice scuba diving because he has a weak heart
A. The fact that he has a weak heart cannot stop him practicing scuba diving.
B. Scuba diving makes him suffer from having a weak heart
C. The reason why he cannot practice scuba diving is that he has a weak heart
D. He has a weak heart but he continues to practice scuba diving
Question 27: People believe that neither side wanted war
A. Neither side is believed to have wanted war

B. Neither side is responsible for the outbreak of war
C. War is believed to be wanted by either side
D. It is believed that war broke out from both sides
Question 28: Although she is intelligent, she doesn’t do well at school
A. In spite of intelligent, she doesn’t do well at school
B. Despite being intelligent, she doesn’t do well at school
C. Even though her intelligence, she doesn’t do well at school
D. In spite the fact that she is intelligent, she doesn’t do well at school
Question 29: The student next to me kept chewing gum. That bothered me a lot
A. The students next to me kept chewing gum, that bothered me a lot.
B. The students next to me kept chewing gum, which bothered me a lot.
C. The students next to me kept chewing gum, bothering me a lot.
D. The students next to me kept chewing gum bothered me a lot
Question 30: I write to my friends overseas regularly. I don’t want to lose touch with them
A. It is important for me to send letters to my friends abroad to keep them up to date on
events in my life
B. I keep in touch with my friends in foreign countries by writing to them from time to
time
C. My friends try not to lose contact with me by writing very often
D. In order to not lose touch with my friends abroad, I write to them on a regular basis
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
ORESUND BRIDGE
Imagine driving along a bridge that is so long that you can't even see the other end.
The Oresund Bridge, one of the longest bridges in the world, (31) so far ahead into
the distance that you can't even tell where the blue of the water (32) the blue of the
sky.
The Oresund Bridge is an amazing example of modern engineering design that links
the Scandinavian countries of Denmark and Sweden. It is 8 kilometers long and was (33)
in July 2000. It crosses the Flinte Channel, the chilly waterway (34) the
two countries.
At one stage the bridge turns into a tunnel under the sea. This tunnel is also a record
breaker in its own right as it is the longest road and rail tunnel in the world. The engineers
built an artificial island near the Danish coast that (35) support part of the bridge
structure, as well as being the point at which the road disappears underground, before coming
out in Copenhagen, the capital of Denmark.
Question 31: A. travels B. leans C. stretches D. pulls
Question 32: A. comes B. meets C. lines D. starts
Question 33: A. done B. ended C. brought D. completed
Question 34: A. splitting B. cutting C. breaking D. separating
Question 35: A. helps B. aids C. attempts D. tries
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Mickey Mantle was one of the greatest baseball players of all time. He played for the
New York Yankees in their years of glory. From the time Mantle began to play professionally
in 1951 to his last year in 1968, baseball was the most popular game in the United States. For
many people, Mantle symbolized the hope, prosperity, and confidence of America at that
time.
Mantle was a fast and powerful player, a “switch-hitter” who could bat both right-
handed and left-handed. He won game after game, one World Series championship after
another, for his team. He was a wonderful athlete, but this alone cannot explain America’s
fascination with him.
Perhaps it was because he was a handsome, red-haired country boy, the son of a poor
miner from Oklahoma. His career, from the lead mines of the West to the heights of success
and fame, was a fairy-tale version of the American dream. Or perhaps it was because
America always loves a “natural”: a person who wins without seeming to try, whose talent
appears to come from an inner grace. That was Mickey Mantle.
But like many celebrities, Mickey Mantle had a private life that was full of problems.
He played without complaint despite constant pain from injuries. He lived to fulfill his
father’s dreams and drank to forget his father’s early death.
It was a terrible addiction that finally destroyed his body. It gave him cirrhosis of the
liver and accelerated the advance of liver cancer. Even when Mickey Mantle had turned
away from his old life and warned young people not to follow his example, the destructive
process could not be stopped. Despite a liver transplant operation that had all those who loved
and admired him hoping for a recovery, Mickey Mantle died of cancer at the age of 63
Question 36: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Mickey Mantle as the greatest baseball player of all time
B. Mickey Mantle’s success and private life full of problems
C. Mickey Mantle and his career as a baseball player
D. Mickey Mantle and the history of baseball
Question 37: According to the passage, Mantle could
A. hit the ball to score from a long distance

B. bat better with his left hand than with his right hand
C. hit with the bat on either side of his body
D. give the most powerful hit in his team
Question 38: The word “this” as used in paragraph 2 refers to
A. Mantle’s being a fast and powerful player

B. Mantle’s being a wonderful athlete
C. Mantle’s being fascinated by many people
D. Mantle’s being a “switch-hitter”
Question 39: The author uses the word “But” in paragraph 4 to
A. change the topic of the passage

B. give an argument in favor of Mantle’s success and fame
C. explain how Mantle got into trouble
D. give an example of the trouble in Mantle’s private life
Question 40: The word “accelerated” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to
A. worsened B. bettered C. delayed D. quickened
Question 41: We can see from paragraph 5 that after his father’s death, Mantle
A. played even better
B. forgot his father’s dream
C. . led a happier life
D. suffered a lot of pain
Question 42: Which of the following is mentioned as the main cause of the destruction of
Mantle’s body?
A. His loneliness B. His way of life
C. His liver transplant operation D. His own dream
Humans have struggled against weeds since the beginnings of agriculture. Marring our
gardens is one of the milder effects of weeds - any plants that thrive where they are
unwanted. They clog waterways, destroy wildlife habitats, and impede farming. Their spread
eliminates grazing areas and accounts for one-third of all crop loss. They compete for
sunlight, nutrients, and water with useful plants.
The global need for weed control had been answered mainly by the chemical industry. Its
herbicides are effective and sometimes necessary, but some pose serious problems,
particularly if misused. Toxic compounds threaten animal and public health when they
accumulate in food plants, groundwater, and drinking water. They also harm workers who
apply them.
In recent years, the chemical industry has introduced several herbicides that are more
ecologically sound. Yet new chemicals alone cannot solve the world's weed problems.
Hence, scientists are exploring the innate weed-killing powers of living organisms, primarily
insects and microorganisms.
The biological agents now in use are environmentally benign and are harmless to humans.
They can be chosen for their ability to attack selected targets and leave crops and other plants
untouched. In contrast, some of the most effective chemicals kill virtually all the plants they
come in contact with, sparing only those that are naturally resistant or have been genetically
modified for resistance. Furthermore, a number of biological agents can be administered only
once, after which no added applications are needed. Chemicals typically must be used several
times per growing season.
Question 43: With what topic does this passage primarily deal?
A. The importance of the chemical industry

B. The dangers of toxic chemicals
C. A proposal to ban the use of all herbicides
D. Advantages of biological agents over chemical ones
Question 44: The word "Marring" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to_
A. spoiling B. planting C. dividing D. replacing
Question 45: Which of the following terms does the author define in the first paragraph?
A. weeds B. nutrients C. wildlife habitats D. grazing area
Question 46: Which of the following statements about the use of chemical agents as
herbicides would the author most likely agree?
A. It is safe but inefficient

B. It is occasionally required
C. It should be increased
D. It has become more dangerous recently
Question 47: Which of the following is NOT given as an advantage of using biological
agents over chemical herbicides?
A. They are safer for workers
B. They are less likely to destroy desirable plants
C. They are more easily available
D. They do not have to be used as often
Question 48: The word "innate" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
A. effective B. organic C. natural D. active
Question 49: According to the passage, biological agents mainly consist of

A. herbicides B. useful plants
C. weeds D. insects and microorganisms
Question 50: Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?
A. A general idea is introduced and several specific examples are given
B. Two possible causes of a phenomenon are compared
C. A problem is described and possible solutions are discussed
D. A recommendation is analyzed and rejected
…….THE END……..
Đáp án
1-B 2-D 3-C 4-B 5-C 6-D 7-B 8-B 9-B 10-C
11-C 12-C 13-C 14-C 15-A 16-D 17-C 18-A 19-D 20-B
21-A 22-A 23-C 24-A 25-B 26-C 27-A 28-B 29-B 30-B
31-C 32-B 33-D 34-D 35-A 36-B 37-C 38-B 39-D 40-D
41-D 42-B 43-D 44-A 45-A 46-B 47-C 48-C 49-A 50-A
ĐỀ SỐ 05
Question 1: A. complete B. command C. common D. community
Question 2: A. smooth B. path C. month D. depth
Question 3: A. enter B. enlarge C. enhance D. ensure
Question 4: A. bachelor B. chemistry C. compliment D. refugee
Question 5: For most of their history, especially since the 1860’s New York City has been
undergoing major population changes
A. their B. especially
C. the 1860’s D. has been undergoing
Question 6: If the maid comes today, please have her washed all of my shirts
A. if B. comes C. washed D. all of
Question 7: Many young people lack skills, good education, and financial to settle in the
urbanareas where many jobs are found.
A. lack B. financial C. urbanareas D. are found
Question 8: I found the lecture about environment very
A. informing B. informative C. informational D. informant
Question 9: All the boys are good at cooking, but is as good as the girls
A. either B. neither C. every D. none
Question 10: You should concentrate what the interviewer is saying and make a
real effort to answer all the questions
A. to B. at C. on D. in
Question 11: They at each other for more than one minute without blinking.
A. stared B. winked C. watched D. glanced
Question 12: It is essential that he . His illness seems worse
A. needed operating B. need to operate C. need an operation D. needs an operate

Question 13: “Don’t stay up late any longer, ?”
A. do you B. won’t you C. will you D. should you
Question 14: Jane wasn’t in when I arrived. I supposed she I was coming
A. must have forgotten B. must forget
C. may forget D. can’t have forgotten
Question 15: I _on this project for many consecutive days without success
A. had been working B. had worked C. have been working D. have been
worked Question 16: appears considerably larger at the horizon than it does overhead is
merely an illusion.
A. The Moon which B. The Moon C. When the Moon D. That the Moon
Question 17: All the ideas were good, but Michael the best plan of all
A. came up B. came up with C. got on with D. put on
Question 18: she could not say anything
A. Therefore upset was she that B. However upset was she that
C. So upset was she that D. So upset was that
Question 19: Tony and Toby have a lot in with each other
A. common B. competition C. regard D. similar
complete each of the followingexchanges.
Question 20: “Is it alright if I use your bike?”
“ .”
A. Please accept it with my best wishes B. Sorry, no, I won’t do it
C. I don’t want to use your bike D. Sure, go ahead
Question 21: “I think listening to music while learning is good.”
“ .”
A. Sorry, but I’m not in agreement with you B. I’m sorry I couldn’t agree more
C. Me neither D. I don’t agree. You can say that again
Question 22: Some people think their abilities have limitations, but with encouragement
they can perform much better than expected.
A. possibilities B. certainties C. boundaries D. promises
Question 23: It is vital to recognize that emotions trigger physiological reactions – and vice
versa
A. activate B. blunt C. mask D. encounter
Question 24: Mr. Jones is a man of affability
A. caution B. passion C. warmth D. hostility
Question 25: This is a difficult topic. Please, explain it in plain language
A. easy B. complicated C. different D. detailed
Question 26: You are in this mess right now because you didn’t listen to my advice in the
first place
A. If you had listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t have been in this mess
right now
B. If you listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t be in this mess right now
C. If you listen to my advice in the first place, you will not be in this mess right now
D. If you had listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t be in this mess right
now
Question 27: “I was not there at the time”, he said
A. He denied to have been there at the time

B. He denied to be there at the time
C. He denied having been there at the time
D. He denied that he hadn’t been there at the time
Question 28: It’s no use asking her for help
A. There’s no point in asking her for help

B. It’s not worth asking her for help
C. It’s no good to ask her for help
D. We have no trouble asking her for help
Question 29: No member in the team came to his birthday party. But Julia did come
A. Every member in the team came to his birthday party
B. Not only did Julia come to his birthday party but also other members did
C. Julia was the only member in the team to come to his birthday party
D. Julia was one of the members who came to his birthday party
Question 30: I had never seen her before. However, I recognized her from a photograph
A. Although I had never seen her before, I recognized her from a photograph
B. I recognized her from a photograph before I had never seen her
C. Although I had never seen her before but I recognized her from a photograph
D. After I had seen her, I recognized her from a photograph
the correctword orphrase that best fits each ofthenumberedblanks from 31 to 35.
The United States has many different types of families. While most American
families are traditional, (31) a father, a mother and one or more children, 22 percent
of all American families in 1998 were headed by one parent, usually a woman. In a few
families in the United States, there are no children. These (32) couples may believe
that they would not make good parents; they may want freedom from responsibilities of
childbearing; or, perhaps they (33) physically able to have children. Other families
in the United States have one adult who is a stepparent. A stepmother or stepfather is a person
who joins a family by marrying a father or a mother.
Americans (34) and accept these different types of families. In the United
States people have right to privacy and Americans do not believe in telling other Americans
what type of family group they must belong to. They respect each other’s choices regarding
family groups. Families are very important (35) Americans.
Question 31: A. making of B. consisting of C. including of D. containing
Question 32: A. childish B. childlike C. childless D. childhood
Question 33: A. are not B. can not C. could not D. were not
Question 34: A. tolerate B. refuse C. remember D. remind
Question 35: A. for B. with C. on D. to
Perhaps it was his own lack of adequate schooling that inspired Horace Mann to work
so hard for the important reforms in education that he accomplished. While he was still a boy,
his father and older brother died, and he became responsible for supporting his family. Like
most of the children in his town, he attended school only two or three months a year. Later,
with the help of several teachers, he was able to study law and became a member of the
Massachusetts bar, but he never forgot those early struggles.
While serving in Massachusetts legislature, he signed a historic education bill that set
up a state board of education. Without regret, he gave up his successful legal practice and
political career to become the frst secretary of the board. There he exercised an enormous
influence during the critical period of reconstruction that brought into existence the American
graded elementary school as substitute for the older distinct school system. Under his
leadership, the curriculum was restructured, the school year was increased to a minimum of
six months, and mandatory schooling was extended to age sixteen. Other important reforms
included the establishment of state normal schools for teacher training, institutes for in-
service teacher education, and lyceums for adult education. He was also instrument in
improving salaries for eachers and creating school libraries.
Mann’s ideas about school reform were developed and distributed in twelve annual
reports to the state of Massachusetts that he wrote during his tenure as secretary of education.
Considered quite radical at the time, the Massachusetts reforms later served as a model for
the nation. Mann was recognized as the father of public education
Question 36: Which of the following titles would best express the main topic of the passage?
A. The Father of American Public Education
B. Philosophy of Education
C. The Massachusetts State Board of Education.
D. Politics of Educational Institutions
Question 37: Which of the following describes Horace Mann’s early life ?
A. He attended school six months a year
B. He had to study alone, without help
C. He supported his family after his father died
D. He was an only child
Question 38: The word “struggles” in line 5 could best be replaced by
A. valuable experiences B. happy situations

C. influential people D. difficult times
Question 39: The word “regret” in line 7 could best be replaced by
A. consideration B. feeling sorry C. limitation D. acceptance

Question 40: What did Horace Mann advocate ?
A. The state board school system B. The district school system

C. The substitute school system D. The graded school system
Question 41: The word “mandatory” in line 10 is closest in meaning to
A. required B. equal C. excellent D. basic

Question 42: How were Mann’s educational reforms distributed ?
A. In twelve annual reports to the state of Massachusetts

B. In reports that he wrote for national distribution
C. In speeches that he made throughout the country
D. In books that could be found in school libraries
Psychologist have debated a long time about whether a child’s upbringing can give it
the ability to do outstandingly well. Some think that it is impossible to develop genius and
say that it is simply something a person is born with. Others, however , argue that the
potential for great achievement can be develop. The truth lies somewhere between these two
extremes. It seems very obvious that being born with the right qualities from gifted parents
will increase a child’s ability to do well. However, this ability will be fully realized only with
the right upbringing and opportunities. As one psychologist says, “ To have a fast car, you
need both a good engine and fuel.’’ Scientists have recently assessed intelligence,
achievement, and ability in 50 sets of identical twins that were separated shortly birth and
brought up by different parents. They found that achievement was based on intelligence, and
later influenced by the child’s environment. One case involving very intelligent twins was
quoted. One of the twins received a normal upbringing, and performed well. The other twin,
however, was brought up by extremely supportive parents and given every possible
opportunity to develop its abilities. That twin, thought starting out with the same degree of
intelligence as the other, performed even better. This case reflects the general principle of
intelligence and ability. The more favorable the environment, the more a child’s intelligence
and ability are developed.
However, there is no link between intelligence and socioeconomic level of a child’s
family. In other words, it does not matter how poor or how rich a family is , as this does not
affect the intelligence. Gifted people can not be created by supportive parents, but they can
be developed by them. One professor of music said that outstanding musicians usually started
two or three years earlier than ordinary performers, often because their parents had
recognized their ability. These musicians then needed at least ten years’ hard work and
training in order to reach the level they were capable of attaining. People who want to have
very gifted children are given the following advice:
- Marry an intelligent person.
- Allow children to follow their own interests rather than the interests of the parents.
- Start a child’s education early but avoid pushing the child too hard.
- Encourage children to play; for example, playing with musical instrument is
essential for a child who wants to become an outstanding musician.
Question 43: The upbringing of highly intelligent children requires .
A. an expensive education B. good musical instruments
C. parental support and encouragement D. wealthy and loving parents
Question 44: The word “others” used in the first paragraph refers to
A. other people B. other scientists C. other children D. other geniuses

Question 45: When scientists studied intelligence and ability in twins, they found that
A. ability depends mainly on intelligence and chievement

B. intelligence and development are irrelevant to ability
C. ability depends both on intelligence and environment
D. different twins generally have different levels of ability
Question 46: Scientists chose twins for their study because
A. each twin has the same environment as his/her twin

B. they are born into the same family, hence the same upbringing
C. they have the same economic background and hence the same opportunities
D. they have the same genetic background, usually with similar intelligence
Question 47: How were great musicians different from ordinary musicians in their
development?
A. Their ability was realized at an early stage and then nurtured
B. They practice playing their instruments for many years
C. They concentrated on music to the exclusion of the other areas
D. They were exceptionally intelligent and artistic
Question 48: The writer advises that gifted children should be allowed to follow
A. Their own interests
B. Their parents’ interests
C. Only their interests in musical instruments
D. Only their interests in computer games
Question 49: When encourage their gifted children, parents should avoid
A. Pushing their children too hard
B. letting them play their own way
C. Permitting them to follow their own interests
D. Starting their education at an early age
Question 50: The remark: “ to have a fast car, you need both a good engine and fuel’’ in the
passage means that in order to become a genius,
A. You need to have good heath and good nourishment
B. You need intelligence and you need to develop it
C. You should try to move quickly and efficiently
D. You must nourish your brain and train your muscles hard
Đáp án
1-C 2-A 3-A 4-D 5-A 6-C 7-B 8-B 9-D 10-C
11-A 12-C 13-C 14-A 15-C 16-D 17-B 18-C 19-A 20-D
21-A 22-C 23-A 24-D 25-B 26-D 27-C 28-A 29-C 30-A
31-B 32-C 33-A 34-A 35-A 36-A 37-C 38-D 39-B 40-D
41-A 42-A 43-C 44-B 45-C 46-D 47-A 48-A 49-A 50-B
ĐỀ SỐ 05
Question 1: A. frustrate B. furious C. punctual D. rubbish
Question 2: A. leisure B. pressure C. treasure D. pleasure
Question 3: A. response B. relate C. rescue D. rehearse
Question 4: A. national B. beautiful C. chemical D. disaster
Question 5: I like lying on the beach, so I always spend my holiday to sunbathe

A. lyinh B. on the beach C. always D. to sunbathe
Question 6: We do not know of how the general employment situation is likely to develop in
the future.
A. do not B. of how
C. employment situation D. likely to develop

Question 7: A lot of discoveries have made in the fields of chemistry and physics.
A. a lot of B. have made C. in D. fields of
Question 8: The building work is still on schedule a problem in digging the foundation
A. due to B. despite C. so as D. only if
Question 9: It is very difficult to the exact meaning of an idiom in a foreign

language
A. convert B. convey C. exchange D. transfer
Question 10: By the time I return to my country, I away from home for more than
three years
A. will have been B. will be C. have been D. was
Question 11: The water is . You can’t drink it
A. pollution B. pollutant C. polluted D. polluting

Question 12: My boss is going on vacation next month, she’ll be away from the
office for about four weeks
A. in other words B. for instance C. on the other hand D. such as
Question 13: Have you got a light? My cigarette’s gone
A. by B. away C. off D. out
Question 14: When he returned home, I found the door
A. unlocking B. unlocked C. to be unlocked D. have unlocked
Question 15: I had no sooner lit the barbecue
A. than it started to rain B. as it started to rained

C. while it started raining D. that it started raining
Question 16: Several of my friends are reporters
A. newspaper’s B. newspapers’ C. newspapers D. newspaper
Question 17: Are you satisfied your record?
A. at B. from C. with D. for
Question 18: Do you know ?
A. what wrong was it with B. what’s wrong with it

C. what wrong is it with D. what wrong was with it
Question 19: Zika poses an international emergency, according to the World Health
Organization.
A. not any longer B. any more C. no longer D. not any more
to complete each of the followingexchanges.
Question 20: “You’re late again, Michael.”

“ .”
A. Never mind. I stayed up too late last night B. I’m sorry. The traffic was terrible
C. It’s OK. Thanks for telling me D. That’s alright. It’s my fault anyway
Question 21: “Do you want to join us for a cup of coffee after work?”
“ .”
A. Sounds good, but I can do it myself
B. Sorry, but I have to finish my presentation for tomorrow
C. No problem. What’s wrong with the coffee?
D. Thanks. You can make it
meaning to theunderlinedword(s)ineachofthefollowingquestions.
Question 22: The ostrich egg is the largest egg of any non-extinct bird, while the smallest
egg is the egg of the hummingbird.
A. living B. dead C. flying D. vanished
Question 23: The shop assistant was totally bewildered by the customer's behavior
A. disgusted B. upset C. angry D. puzzled
meaning to theunderlinedword(s)ineachofthefollowingquestions
Question 24: I clearly remember talking to him in a chance meeting last summer
A. deliberate B. unplanned C. accidental D. unintentional
Question 25: We offer a speedy and secure service of transfering money in less than 24
hours
A. uninterested B. unsure C. slow D. open
Question 26: Large cars use more gas than smaller ones
A. If you own a small car, it uses more gas.

B. The smaller the car, the more gas it uses
C. The larger the car, the more gas it uses
D. Large cars don’t use as much gas as smaller ones
Question 27: Mary is crazy about her new puppy
A. Mary’s new puppy drives her crazy B. Marry really likes her new puppy
C. Mary’s new puppy is crazy D. Mary has a crazy dog
Question 28: Did you happen to run into George last week?
A. Was it a week ago that you last saw George?

B. Where do you think George was all last week?
C. Have you got any idea what happened to George last week?
D. Did you, by any chance, see George last week?
Question 29: Nam defeated the former champion in three sets. He finally won the inter-
school table tennis championship
A. Having defeated the former champion in the inter-school table tennis, Nam did not
hold the title of champion
B. Although Nam defeated the former champion in three sets, he did not win the title of
inter-school table tennis champion
C. Having defeated the former champion in three sets, Nam won the inter-school table
tennis championship
D. Being defeated by the former champion, Nam lost the chance to play the final game of
inter-school table tennis champion
Question 30: She wrote the text. She selected the illustration as well
A. She not only wrote the text but also selected the illustration.
B. The text she wrote was not as good as the illustration she selected
C. In order to select the illustration, she had to write the text
D. If she had written the text, she would have selected the illustration
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to
35
Nowadays people are more aware that wildlife all over the world is in (31) .
Many species of animals are threatened, and could easily become (32) if we do not
make an effort to protect them. There are many reasons for this. In some cases animals are
hunted for their fur or for other valuable parts of their bodies. Some birds, such as parrots, are
caught (33) , and sold as pets. For many animals and birds, the problem is that their
habitatsthe place where they live-is disappearing. More land is used for farm, for houses and
industry, and there are fewer open spaces than there once were. Farmers use powerful
chemicals to help them grow better crops, but these chemicals pollute the environment and
(34) wildlife. The most successful animals on Earth, human beings, will soon be
the only ones (35) unless we can solve this problem.
Question 31: A. threat B. problem C. danger D. vanishing
Question 32: A. disappeared B. vanished C. extinct D. empty
Question 33: A. for life B. alive C. lively D. for living
Question 34: A. spoil B. wound C. wrong D. harm
Question 35: A. left B. over C. staying D. survived
Although speech is the most advanced form of communication, there are many ways
of communicating without using speech. Signals, signs, symbols, and gestures may be found
in every known culture. The basic function of signal is to impinge upon the environment in
such a way that it attracts attention, as, for example, the dots and dashes of a telegraph circuit.
Coded to refer to speech, the potential for communication is very great. Less adaptable to the
codification of words, signs also contain meaning in and of themselves. A stop sign or a
barber pole conveys meaning quickly and conveniently.
Symbols are more difficult to describe than either signals or signs because of their
intricate relationship with the receiver’s cultural perceptions. In some cultures, applauding in
a theater provides performers with an auditory symbol of approval. Gestures such as waving
and handshaking also communicate certain cultural messages.
Although signals, signs, symbols, and gestures are very useful, they do have a major
disadvantage in communication. They usually do not allow ideas to be shared without the
sender being directly adjacent to the receiver. Without an exchange of ideas, interaction
comes to a halt. As a result, means of communication intended to be used for long distances
and extended periods must be based upon speech. To radio, television, and the telephone, one
must add fax, paging systems, electronic mail, and the Internet, and no one doubts but that
there are more means of communication on the horizon.
Question 36: Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?
A. Gestures B. Signs and signals C. Speech D. Communication
Question 37: According to this passage, what is a signal?
A. A form of communication that interrupts the environment

B. The most difficult form of communication to describe
C. A form of communication which may be used across long distances
D. The form of communication most related to cultural perception
Question 38: The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to
A. way B. environment C. function D. signal
Question 39: The word “intricate” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by_
A. inefficient B. complicated C. historical D. uncertain
Question 40: Applauding was cited as an example of
A. a signal B. a sign C. a gesture D. a symbol
Question 41: Why were the telephone, radio, and television invented?
A. Because people were unable to understand signs, signals, and symbols
B. Because people believed that signs, signals, and symbols were obsolete
C. Because people wanted to communicate across long distances
D. Because people wanted new forms of communication
Question 42: It may be concluded from this passage that .
A. Only some cultures have signs, signals, and symbols

B. Signs, signals, symbols, and gestures are forms of communication
C. Symbols are very easy to define and interrupt
D. Waving and handshaking are not related to culture
Smallpox was the first widespread disease to be eliminated by human intervention.
Known as a highly contagious viral disease, it broke out in Europe, causing the deaths of
millions of people until the vaccination was invented by Edward Jenner around 1800. In
many nations, it was a terror, a fatal disease until very recently. Its victims suffer high fever,
vomiting and painful, itchy, pustules that left scars. In villages and cities all over the world,
people were worried about suffering smallpox.
In May, 1966, the World Health Organization (WHO), an agency of the United
Nations was authorized to initiate a global campaign to eradicate smallpox. The goal was to
eliminate the disease in one decade. At the time, the disease posed a serious threat to people
in more than thirty nations. Because similar projects for malaria and yellow fever had failed,
few believed that smallpox could actually be eradicated but eleven years after the initial
organization of the campaign, no cases were reported in the field.
The strategy was not only to provide mass vaccinations but also to isolate patients
with active smallpox in order to contain the spread of the disease and to break the chain of
human transmission. Rewards for reporting smallpox assisted in motivating the public to aid
health workers. One by one, each small-pox victim was sought out, removed from contact
with others and treated. At the same time, the entire village where the victim had lived was
vaccinated.
By April of 1978 WHO officials announced that they had isolated the last known case
of the disease but health workers continued to search for new cases for additional years to be
completely sure. In May, 1980, a formal statement was made to the global community.
Today smallpox is no longer a threat to humanity. Routine vaccinations have been stopped
worldwide
Question 43: Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. The eradication of smallpox B. The World Health Organization
C. Infectious disease D. Smallpox vaccinations
Question 44: The word “contagious” is closest in meaning to .
A. courteous B. arresting C. numerous D. catching
Question 45: The global community considered the smallpox
A. a minor illness B. a deadly illness C. a mental illness D. a rare illness

Question 46: The word “threat” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by_
A. risk B. debate C. announce D. bother
Question 47: According to the passage, what way was used to eliminate the spread of
smallpox?
A. Vaccination of entire villages B. Treatment of individual victims
C. Isolation of victims and mass vaccinations D. Extensive reporting of outbreaks
Question 48: How was the public motivated to help the health workers?
A. By educating them
B. By rewarding them for reporting smallpox cases
C. By isolating them from others
D. By giving them vaccinations
Question 49: Which one of the statements doesn’t refer to smallpox?
A. Previous project had failed
B. People are no longer vaccinated for it
C. The WHO set up a worldwide campaign to eradicate the disease
D. It was a fatal threat
Question 50: It can be inferred from the passage that
A. yellow fever have been reported this year

B. no new cases of smallpox have been reported this year
C. smallpox victims no longer die when they contact the disease
D. smallpox is not transmitted from one person to another
Đáp án
1-B 2-B 3-C 4-D 5-D 6-B 7-B 8-B 9-B 10-A
11-C 12-A 13-D 14-B 15-A 16-B 17-C 18-D 19-C 20-B
21-B 22-A 23-D 24-A 25-B 26-C 27-B 28-D 29-C 30-A
31-C 32-C 33-B 34-D 35-A 36-D 37-A 38-D 39-B 40-D
41-C 42-B 43-A 44-D 45-B 46-A 47-C 48-B 49-A 50-B
ĐỀ SỐ 07
Question 1: A. species B. specify C. spectrum D. special
Question 2: A. wrong B. wrist C. windy D. two
other threeinthepositionofprimarystress in eachofthefollowingquestions.
Question 3: A. religious B. librarian C. commercial D. Japanese
Question 4: A. technology B. activity C. experience D. presentation
Question 5: It would be much better if everyone were charge for the amount of rubbish one
produced.
A. much better B. were C. amount D. one
Question 6: Finished her household chores, Mary decided to do some shopping
A. finished B. household chores C. to do D. shopping
Question 7: Not long after Galileo’s time, Sir Isaac Newton invented another kind of
telescope which he used mirrors instead of lenses.
A. not long after B. another kind of C. which he used D. intead
Question 8: This surface rough but it smooth
A. feels/touches B. appears/tastes C. sees/smells D. looks/feels

Question 9: with the size of the whole Earth, the highest mountains do not seem
high at all
A. Compare them B. If you compare C. When compared D. A comparison
Question 10: I’m sure that you can recognize her at the station; she a red raincoat
A. will be wearing B. will have been wearing
C. is going to wear D. will have worn
Question 11: This dictionary includes a few animations
A. electricity B. electric C. electronic D. electrical
Question 12: When exactly did the war between two countries?
A. go off B. set in C. call off D. break out

Question 13: Maria Sharapova became the first Russian a Wimbledon single title.
A. to win B. that was winning C. who wins D. which won
Question 14: His of safety regulations really can’t be ignored any longer
A. inattention B. disregard C. carelessness D. unfamiliarity
Question 15: the first time I met Tom was at college
A. As much as I remember B. As far as I remember

C. As well as I remember D. As soon as I remember
Question 16: Very people went to the show but it still started on time
A. much B. a few C. little D. few
Question 17: “I would rather you me the truth right now.”
A. told B. tell C. said D. say
Question 18: Do you know that wine is made grapes?
A. out of B. of C. from D. with
Question 19: Heavy snowfalls made planes to land or take off
A. it impossible B. impossible for C. impossible D. it impossible for

Question 20: “Make yourself at home.”
“ ”
A. Not at all. Don’t mention it. B. Yes. Can I help you?
C. That’s very kind. Thank you D. Thanks! Same to you
Question 21: “I got 8.0/9.0 for the IELTS test!” “ .”
A. Good for you. Thank you B. It’s OK. I’m proud of you
C. You can do it D. Well done, son! I’m very proud of you
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to theunderlinedword(s)ineachofthefollowingquestions.
Question 22: I could see the finish line and thought I was home and dry
A. hopeless B. hopeful C. unsuccessful D. successful
Question 23: Tourists today flock to see the two falls that actually constitute Niagara falls
A. come without knowing what they will see B. come in large numbers
C. come out of boredom D. come by plane
Question 24: Her father likes the cabbage rare
A. over-boiled B. precious C. scarce D. scare
Question 25: My cousin tends to look on the bright side in any circumstance
A. be optimistic B. be pessimistic C. be confident D. be smart

Question 26: My cousin was named after his grandfather.
A. They named his grandfather before they named him

B. My cousin’s grandfather gave him a name.
C. My cousin has the same name as his grandfather’s
D. My cousin was renamed as requested by his grandfather
Question 27: To some people, the sinking of the Titanic was the captain's fault
A. To some people, the captain was to blame for the sinking of the Titanic
B. Some people were blamed for the sinking of the Titanic
C. The Titanic sank due to the captain’s fault
D. Some people put the blame to the captain about the sinking of the Titanic
Question 28: It’s likely that John will be late for the meeting.
A. John likes the meeting although he can be late

B. John is probably late for the meeting
C. The meeting is likely to be late because of John
D. John is often late for the meeting, so we don’t like it
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 29: Most scientists know him well. However, very few ordinary people have heard
of him.
A. He is the only scientist that is not known to the general public
B. Not only scientists but also the general public know him as a big name
C. Although he is well known to scientists, he is little known to the general public
D. Many ordinary people know him better than most scientists do
Question 30: I think my hair looks fine. My mother believes it needs a little more brushing
A. Not only do I think my hair looks fine, but my mother also believes it needs a little
more brushing
B. I think my hair looks so fine that my mother believes it needs a little more brushing
C. I think my hair looks fine, but my mother believes it needs a little more brushing
D. Either my mother believes it needs a little more brushing or I think my hair looks fine
indicate the correct wordorphrasethatbestfitseachofthenumberedblanksfrom 31 to 35.
The first question we might ask is: What can you learn in college that will help you in
being an employee? The schools teach a (31) many things of value to the future
accountant, doctor or electrician. Do they also teach anything of value to the future
employee? The answer is: “Yes - they teach the one thing that it is perhaps most valuable for
the future employee to know. But very few students bother (32) it. This one
basic skill is the ability to organize and express ideas in writing and in speaking. This means
that your success as an employee will depend on your ability to communicate with people
and to (33) your own thoughts and ideas to them so they will (34)
understand what you are driving at and be persuaded.
Of course, skill in expression is not enough (35) itself. You must have
something to say in the first place. The effectiveness of your job depends as much on your
ability to make other people understand your work as it does on the quality of the work itself.
Question 31: A. large B. great C. far D. lots
Question 32: A. to learning B. with learning C. to learn D. learn
Question 33: A. interpret B. give out C. transfer D. present
Question 34: A. both B. not C. as well D. either
Question 35: A. on B. for C. by D. in
indicate the correct answer to each of thequestionsfrom 36 to 42.
The Census Counts!
Every ten years there is a national census to count the number of people. The census
counts the number of people in each area, the number of men and women, their ages, their
profession, their family size and status. The census is the only way to count everyone. Its
results are used by a great many people and are available to everyone. The census is useful; it
helps to work out present and future needs for housing by seeing how many people are
housed now, or the sizes and ages of their families. In addition, the size of annual grants
made by the Government to public services depends largely on the numbers and needs of
people in the area provided by the census. Furthermore, the census shows how many people
have moved from one area to another and how the number of the local work force is
changing.
The census is taken in order to provide the figures about the nation as a whole. It does
not give information about any named person, family or household. Therefore, names and
addresses are needed on the forms but they are not fed into the computer. After the census,
the forms with the names on are locked away and will not be released to anyone outside the
Census Office for 100 years. The answers people give on their census forms will be treated in
strict confidence. Everyone working on the census is sworn to secrecy and can be sued if he
or she improperly reveals information
Question 36: Which of the following does the census not take interest in?
A. How many houses you have B. How old you are
C. What your job is D. How big your family is
Question 37: Census results
A. are not used for anyone B. are kept in secret forever

C. can be used for everyone D. are used by no one
Question 38: How the size of grants to local services is based on information from the
census?
A. completely B. very much C. a little D. not at all
Question 39: Which of the following statement is NOT true?
A. There are names and age on the census forms

B. The census reveals everyone’s personal information
C. People must supply personal information
D. The census information is stored in a computer
Question 40: Which of the following is true about the information of names and addresses in
the census?
A. It is stored in the computer for 100 years.
B. It is not usually correct
C. It will not be seen by anyone.
D. It will be made public after 100 years
Question 41: The word “sued” in the last sentence is closest in meaning to_
A. legally sewn B. legally sound C. legally punished D. legally fine

Question 42: The word “counts” in the title means
A. is important B. the counting C. accounting D. to count people

Quite different from storm surges are the giant sea waves called tsunamis, which
derive their name from the Japanese expression for “high water in a harbor.” These waves are
also referred to by the general public as tidal waves, although they have relatively little to do
with tides. Scientists often referred to them as seismic sea waves, far more appropriate in that
they do result from undersea seismic activity.
Tsunamis are caused when the sea bottom suddenly moves, during an underwater
earthquake or volcano for example, and the water above the moving earth is suddenly
displaced. This sudden shift of water sets off a series of waves. These waves can travel great
distances at speeds close to 700 kilometers per hour. In the open ocean, tsunamis have little
noticeable amplitude, often no more than one or two meters. It is when they hit the shallow
waters near the coast that they increase in height, possibly up to 40 meters.
Tsunamis often occur in the Pacific because the Pacific is an area of heavy seismic
activity. Two areas of the Pacific well accustomed to the threat of tsunamis are Japan and
Hawaii. Because the seismic activity that causes tsunamis in Japan often occurs on the ocean
bottom quite close to the islands, the tsunamis that hit Japan often come with little warning
and can, therefore, prove disastrous. Most of the tsunamis that hit the Hawaiian Islands,
however, originate thousands of miles away near the coast of Alaska, so these tsunamis have
a much greater distance to travel and the inhabitants of Hawaii generally have time for
warning of their imminent arrival.
Tsunamis are certainly not limited to Japan and Hawaii. In 1755, Europe experienced
a calamitous tsunami, when movement along the fault lines near the Azores caused a massive
tsunami to sweep onto the Portuguese coast and flood the heavily populated area around
Lisbon. The greatest tsunami on record occurred on the other side of the world in 1883 when
the Krakatoa volcano underwent a massive explosion, sending waves more than 30 meters
high onto nearby Indonesian islands; the tsunami from this volcano actually traveled around
the world and was witnessed as far away as the English Channel
Question 43: The paragraph preceding this passage most probably discusses?
A. underwater earthquakes B. storm surges
C. tides D. tidal waves
Question 44: According to the passage, all of the following are true about tidal waves
EXCEPT that
A. they are caused by sudden changes in high and low tides
B. this terminology is not used by the scientific community
C. they are the same as tsunamis
D. they refer to the same phenomenon as seismic sea waves
Question 45: It can be inferred from the passage that tsunamis
A. cause severe damage in the middle of the ocean

B. generally reach heights greater than 40 meters
C. are far more dangerous on the coast than in the open ocean
D. are often identified by ships on the ocean
Question 46: A main difference between tsunamis in Japan and in Hawaii is that tsunamis in
Japan are more likely to
A. come from greater distances B. originate in Alaska
C. be less of a problem D. arrive without warning
Question 47: The possessive “their” in paragraph 3 refers to
A. the Hawaiian Islands B. thousands of miles

C. these tsunamis D. the inhabitants of Hawaii
Question 48: A “calamitous” tsunami, in paragraph 4, is one that is
A. at fault B. disastrous C. extremely calm D. expected

Question 49: From the expression “on record” in the last paragraph, it can be inferred that
the tsunami that accompanied the Krakatoa volcano
A. was not as strong as the tsunami in Lisbon
B. might not be the greatest tsunami ever
C. was filmed as it was happening
D. occurred before efficient records were kept
Question 50: The passage suggests that the tsunami resulting from the Krakatoa volcano
A. was far more destructive close to the source than far away
B. resulted in little damage
C. was unobserved outside of the Indonesian islands
D. caused volcanic explosions in the English Channel
Đáp án
1-A 2-C 3-D 4-D 5-D 6-A 7-C 8-D 9-C 10-A
11-C 12-D 13-A 14-B 15-B 16-D 17-A 18-C 19-D 20-C
21-D 22-D 23-B 24-A 25-B 26-C 27-A 28-B 29-C 30-C
31-B 32-C 33-D 34-A 35-C 36-A 37-C 38-B 39-B 40-D
41-C 42-A 43-B 44-A 45-C 46-D 47-C 48-B 49-B 50-Á
Đề số 08
Question 1: A. interview B. minute C. question D. suitable
Question 2: A. garbage B. subtle C. climbing D. debtor
173576 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs
from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. unselfish B. sympathy C. quality D. principle
Question 4: A. introduce B. entertain C. successfu D. millionaire
Question 5: What I love most about the book that was the close-knit friendship of the three
friends.
A. What B. about C. that was D.close-knit friendship
Question 6: However well my sister made at school, she never seems to be satisfied with the
results.
A. However B. made C. to be satisfied D. the results
Question 7: Some studies show that young babies prefer the smell of milk to those of other
liquids.
A. young babies B. smell C. smell D. other liquids
Question 8: Tom was accused some top secret document.
A. to steal B. of having stolen C. for stealing D. to have stolen

Question 9: Sometimes wears people out and is worse than the lack of sleep
itself
A. to sleep the desire B. the desire to sleep C. to desire to sleep is D. The desire to sleep
wh
Question 10: We were late because we had some car problems. By the time we
to the station, Susan for us for more than two hours. A
A. are getting/had waited B. got/waited
C. had got/had waited D. got/ had been waiting
Question 11: Preparing for a job interview can be very .
A. stress B. stressful C. stressed D. stressing
Question 12: but for his help yesterday?

A. What did you do B. How would you do C. What would you have done D. How had
you done
Question 13: Don’t worry, we will have to wait a little longer because I’m sure he will
soon.
A. turn up B. turn in C. turn into D. turn down
Question 14: I tried every key in turn but not fitted.
A. none B. each C. any D. one
Question 15: She complains noisily about everything she doesn’t like. She is the type of
person who is always .
A. making a fuss B. doing a fuss C. creating a fuss D. giving a fuss
Question 16: That cannot be a true story. He it up.
A. can have made B. must have made C. would have made D. should have made
Question 17: They asked me in London then.
A. is my brother working B. was my brother working

C. if my brother was working D. if my brother is working
Question 18: She blamed
me not explaining the lesson
her carefully.
A. on – for – to B. for – on – for C. ø – about – for D. ø – for – to
Question 19: It me more than an hour to download your photos you uploaded to
your Facebook sites.
A. took B. gave C. sent D. forwarded
Question 20: “ .”
“ I have a terrible headache.”

A. What’s the problem to you? B. What’s the matter with you?
C. What happens with you? D. What causes you?
Question 21: Teacher: “ John, you’ve written a much better essay this time.”
John: “ .”
A. Writing? Why? B. You’re welcome.
C. Thank you. It’s really encouraging. D. What did you say? I’m so shy.
Question 22: It is common practice to look at the person you are talking to.
A. exercise B. policy C. skill D. habit
Question 23: Our new teacher has a good sense of humor.
A. ability to amuse people B. ability to frighten people

C. responsibility D. commitment
Question 24: Strongly advocating health foods, Jane doesn’t eat any chocolate.
A. supporting B. impugning C. advising D. denying
Question 25: I’m sorry I can’t come out this weekend – I’m up to my ears in work.
A. very busy B. very bored C. very scared D. very idle
Question 26: Scarcely had he got out of the house when it started raining.
A. He got out of the house after it started raining.
B. He had no sooner got out of the house when it started raining.
C. He was getting out of the house when it started raining.
D. It started raining right after he got out of the house.
Question 27: Most students are aware of the importance of English.
A. Not every student is aware of the importance of English.
B. Not a single student is unaware of the importance of English.
C. All students are aware of the importance of English.
D. Almost all students are aware of the importance of English.
Question 28: The airport taxes are included in the ticket price.
A. You need to pay for ticket and airport taxes.

B. The ticket is included in the airport taxes.
C. The ticket price covers the airport taxes.
D. The airport taxes and ticket price should be paid separately.
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: We didn’t want to spend a lot of money. We stayed in a cheap hotel.
A. In spite of spending a lot of money, we stayed in a cheap hotel.
B. Rather than spending a lot of money, we stayed in a cheap hotel.
C. We stayed in a cheap hotel, but we had to spend a lot of money.
D. We didn’t stay in a cheap hotel as we had a lot of money to spend.
Question 30: Everyone expected Clement‟s party to be a disaster. It was exactly the
opposite.
A. Clement didn’t expect his party to go badly, but everybody else did.
B. Completely contrary to everyone’s expectations, Clement’s party was really good.
C. The expectation was that Clement‟s party wouldn’t be successful, and it wasn’t.
D. Just as everyone had predicted, Clement’s party was not a disaster.
35.
Public awareness of the value of recycling materials such (31) plastic,
paper, and glass is increasing daily in all corners of the globe. In some countries these efforts
are being (32) by the local governments and in others, by individuals.
Participation in these programs is at an all-time high. In the small town of Truro in eastern
Massachusetts, for example, space in the local landfill has run out; therefore, residents have
had to think of new ways to (33) of their trash. With no room for items such as
newspaper, bottles, and old lumber at the land fill, local residents have come up with many
(34) programs to recycle and/ or reuse what was once thought of as only trash.
For instance, yard waste such as leaves and grass which used to be thrown in the landfill is
now broken down and made into compost used by local people as fertilizer in their gardens.
In addition, (35) plastics, newspapers, bottles and cans are sold to a recycling
company, thereby bringing in revenue for the town.
Question 31: A. like B. with C. alike D. as
Question 32: A. initiated B. introduced C. participated D. brought
Question 33: A. disapprove B. dispose C. discard D. throw
Question 34: A. improved B. reforming C. innovative D. progressive
Question 35: A. reproductive B. circulating C. recyclable D. wasted
Homing pigeons are placed in a training program from about the time they are twenty-
eight days of age. They are taught to enter the loft through a trap and to exercise above and
around the loft, and gradually they are taken away for short distances in wicker baskets and
released. They are then expected to find their way home in the shortest possible time.
In their training flights or in actual races, the birds are taken to prearranged distant
points and released to find their way back to their own lofts. Once the birds are liberated,
their owners, who are standing by at the home lofts, anxiously watch the sky for the return
of their entries. Since time is of the essence, the speed with which the birds can be induced to
enter the loft trap may make the difference between gaining a win or a second place.
The head of a homing pigeon is comparatively small, but its brain is one quarter larger
than that of the ordinary pigeon. The homing pigeon is very intelligent and will persevere to
the point of stubbornness; some have been known to fly a hundred miles off course to avoid a
storm.
Some homing pigeon experts claim that this bird is gifted with a form of built-in radar
that helps it find its own loft after hours of flight, for hidden under the head feathers are two
very sensitive ears, while the sharp, prominent eyes can see great distances in daytime.
Why do homing pigeons fly home? They are not unique in this inherent skill: it is
found in most migratory birds, in bees, ants, toads, and even turtles, which have been known
to travel hundreds of miles to return to their homes. But in the animal world, the homing
pigeon alone can be trusted with its freedom and trained to carry out the missions that people
demand.
Question 36: What is the purpose of the passage?
A. To convince the reader to buy a homing pigeon.

B. To inform the reader about homing pigeons and their training.
C. To protect homing pigeons against the threat of extinction.
D. To encourage the owners of homing pigeons to set the birds free.
Question 37: According to the passage, what happens to homing pigeons when they are
about a month old?
A. They are kept in a trap. B. They enter their first race.
C. They begin a training program. D. They get their wings clipped and
marked. Question 38: In paragraph 2, when the author states that the owners "anxiously
watch the sky" there is the implication that the owners .
A. want their pigeon to win the race B. are sending radar signals to their pigeons
C.do not know whether the race began on time D. do not trust the rules set down by the
judges
Question 39: According to the passage, what is the difference between a homing pigeon and
an ordinary one?
A. The span of the wings B. The shape of the eyes
C. The texture of the feathers D. The size of the brain
Question 40: The author mentions all of the following at tributes that enable a homing
pigeon to return home EXCEPT .
A. instinct B. air sacs C. sensitive ears D. good eyes
Question 41: In the fourth paragraph, the pronoun "it" refers to which of the following?
A. Radar B. Bird C. Loft D. Form
Question 42: Why does the author mention bees, ants, toads, and turtles in the last
paragraph?
A. To describe some unusual kinds of pets.
B. To measure distances traveled by various animals.
C. To compare their home-finding abilities with those of homing pigeons.
D. To interest the reader in learning about other animals.
the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
ACADEMICS AREN’T THE PROBLEM
Studies about how students use their time might shed light on whether they face
increased academic and financial pressures compared with earlier eras.
The data show that full-time students in all types of colleges study much less now than
they did a generation ago - a full 10 hours a week less. Students are also receiving significantly
higher grades. So it appears that academic pressures are, in fact, considerably lower than they
used to be. The time-use data don‟t suggest that students feel greater financial pressures, either.
When the time savings and lower opportunity costs are factored in, college appears less
expensive for most students than it was in the 1960s. And though there are now more full-time
students working for pay while in college, they study less even when paid work choices are held
constant.
In other words, full-time students do not appear to be studying less in order to work
more. They appear to be studying less and spending the extra time on leisure activities or fun. It
seems hard to imagine that students feeling increased financial pressures would respond by
taking more leisure.
Based on how students are spending their time then, it doesn‟t look as though academic
or financial pressures are greater now than a generation ago. The time-use data don‟t speak
directly to social pressures, and it may well be that these have become more intense lately.
In one recent set of data, students reported spending more than 23 hours per week either
socializing with friends or playing on the computer for fun. Social activities, in person or on
computer, would seem to have become the major focus of campus life. It is hard to tell what
kinds of pressures would be associated with this change.
Question 43: Research studies have shown that pressures put on students nowadays are
.
A. much greater than the past B. not greater than the past
C. getting ever greater D. more diversified
Question 44: Which of the following is used by the author as the proof of academic pressures
being lower than before?
A. More students work while in college B. Students get higher grades
C. Students study less D. Both B & C
Question 45: All factors considered, college now seems .
A. even more expensive B. more costly

C. less expensive D. much more expensive
Question 46: According to the author, the fact that more full-time students are working for
pay .
A. is not an indication of pressures
B. shows that students are financially pressured
C. does not change students‟ campus life
D. indicates that students are academically pressured
Question 47: The author finds it hard to point out .
A. the cause to students‟ financial pressure

B. what is associated with the change in students‟ campus life
C. how students‟ campus life becomes subject to academic pressure
D. how the background of students‟ campus life is built
Question 48: The word “focus” in the last paragraph can be replaced with_ .
A. headline B. biggest importance C. primary theme D. central activity

Question 49: According to the author, the fact that students have more time for leisure is a
proof that .
A. financial pressure on students is not a problem
B. they are active with extra-curricular activities
C. academic work disinterests them
D. they cannot find extra jobs
Question 50: The word “Academics” in the title mostly means
A. college students and tutors B. professors and research students

C. students‟ workload in college D. graduate students‟ workload
Đáp án
1-C 2-A 3-A 4-C 5-C 6-B 7-C 8-B 9-B 10-D
11-B 12-C 13-A 14-D 15-A 16-B 17-C 18-D 19-A 20-B
21-C 22-D 23-A 24-B 25-D 26-D 27-A 28-C 29-B 30-B
31-D 32-A 33-B 34-C 35-C 36-B 37-C 38-A 39-B 40-B
41-B 42-C 43-B 44-D 45-C 46-A 47-B 48-D 49-A 50-C
ĐỀ 09
Question 1: A. exhibition B. childhood C. holiday D. hilarious
Question 2: A. tough B. rough C. enough D. through
Question 3: A. gorilla B. panda C. parrot D. leopard
Question 4: A. considerate B. photographer C. community D. residental
Question 5: The Earth is the only planet with a large number of oxygen in its atmosphere.
A. the B. a large number C. oxygen D. its
Question 6: Robert Frost was not well known as a poet until he reached the forties.
A. as B. a poet C. reached D. the
Question 7: A five-thousand-dollars reward was offered for the capture of the escaped
criminals.
A. a B. dollars C. offered D. for the cature of
Question 8: We cleaned up the room as soon as the guests .
A. had left B. have left C. left D. were leaving
Question 9: “How tall is Ralph?”
“He’s than you are.”

A. slightly taller B. slight tall C. slightly tall D. slight taller
Question 10: Nowadays, most developed countries have brought malaria
control.
A. in B. below C. to D. under
Question 11: Due to fuel prices, the company has decided to add a surcharge to all
deliveries.
A. rise B. arisen C. rose D. rising
Question 12: Let me please my memory before I get down to answering the questions.
A. resume B. ease C. awake D. refresh
Question 13: Our teacher told us that if we don’t the environment, our
grandchildren may not even be able to carry on living.
A. look into B. look out for C. look after D. look for
Question 14: Have you seen today’s paper? It _ they’ve caught those million-pound
bank robbers.
A. writes B. says C. tells D. talks about
Question 15: If a person wants to get a tube of toothpaste, he will probably go to

.
A. the greengrocer’s B. the barber’s C. the dentist’s D. the chemist’s
Question 16: Mr. Hamilton recently found a sister who was thought thirty
years ago.
A. to have been killed B. to have killing C. to have killed D. to have been killing
Question 17: It was we met Mr. Brown in Tokyo.
A. before many years ago B. since many years ago when

C. many years ago that D. for many years since
Question 18: Mary wondered her father looked like now, after so many years
away.
A. whose B. how C. that D. what
Question 19: The town we are living is noisy and crowded.
A. in where B. which C. at which D. where
Question 20: “The test result will be released at 9 a.m tomorrow.”
“Will it? .”
A. Can I wait for it? B. Could it wait? C. Yes, please. D. I can’t wait!
Question 21: “ I don’t think I can do this.”
“ .”
A. Oh, come on. Give it a try. B. Yeah, it’s not easy.
C. No, I hope not. D. Sure, no way!
Question 22: For a decade, that scientist has studied centenarians, looking for genes that
contribute to longevity.
A. people who live to be 100 or older B. people who are vegetarians
C. people who want to be fruitarians D. people who are extraordinary
Question 23: We went away on holiday last week but it rained day in, day out.
A. every other day B. every single day C. every second day D. every two days
Question 24: Because she usually behaves in a very weird way, people think that she’s rather
strange.
A. usual B. average C. conventional D. standard
Question 25: I’m really feeling under the weather today; I have a terrible cold.
A. diseased B. indisposed C. ailing D. well
Question 26: “You have just got a promotion, haven’t you? Congratulations!” Peter said to
his friend.
A. Peter dream of getting promotion.
B. Peter told his friend if his friend getting a promotion.
C. Peter asked his friend on getting a promotion.
D. Peter congratulated his friend on getting a promotion.
Question 27: He couldn’t retake the exam because he missed too many lessons.
A. He would retake the exam if he didn’t miss too many lessons.
B. He could have retaken the exam if he hadn’t missed too many lessons.
C. If he missed too many lessons, he wouldn’t retake the exam.
D. If he had missed too many lessons, he wouldn’t have retaken the exam.
Question 28: Start at once or you will be late.
A. Unless you start immediately, you won’t be late.

B. You would be late if you didn’t start at once.
C. If you don’t start immediately, you will be late.
D. If you started at once, you wouldn’t be late.
Question 29: James did not come. He did not call either.
A. James did not come, so he did not call. B. James did not come and he did not call, too.
C. James did not came but he called afterwards. D. James neither came nor called.
Question 30: They couldn’t think of anything better to do. They decided to baby-sit for the
family.
A. As long as they couldn’t think of anything better to do, they decided to baby-sit for the
family.
B. They couldn’t think of anything better to do, yet they decided to baby-sit for the family.
C. Since they couldn’t think of anything better to do, they decided to baby-sit for the family.
D. As soon as they couldn’t think of anything better to do, they decided to baby-sit for the
family.
35.
Just as more English is being taught in primary schools worldwide, so there are a
growing number of language schools in English-speaking countries that are (31)
courses for younger learners. In Britain most young learners' courses are (32) to
11-year-olds and upwards, with a few that cater for children as young as seven. But what is a
sensible age to start sending children abroad to study? (33) , even adult learners
find the experience of travelling to a strange country and encountering people who speak an
incomprehensible language challenging?
A great deal depends on how a child has been (34) up. For example, if
they have been exposed to new things and have already started to learn independence, then
they are likely to prosper. Further on, children who have previously travelled abroad with
their parents are usually more prepared for a study (35) in an English-speaking
country on their own than those who have not.
Question 31: A. granting B. setting C. offering D. studying
Question 32: A. open B. fit C. suit D. access
Question 33: A. At last B. At the end C. After all D. Finally
Question 34: A. turned B. bought C. put D. grown
Question 35: A. travel B. journey C. voyage D. trip
Thanksgiving is celebrated in the US on the fourth Thursday in November. For many
Americans it is the most important holiday apart from Christmas. Schools, offices and most
businesses close for Thanksgiving, and many people make the whole weekend a vacation.
Thanksgiving is associated with the time when Europeans first came to North
America. In 1620 the ship the Mayflowers arrived, bringing about 150 people who today are
usually called Pilgrims. They arrived at the beginning of a very hard winter and could not
find enough to eat, so many of them died. But in the following summer Native Americans
showed them what foods were safe to eat, so that they could save food for the next winter.
They held a big celebration to thank God and the Native Americans for the fact that they had
survived.
Today people celebrate Thanksgiving to remember these early days. The most
important part of the celebration is a traditional dinner with foods that come from North
America. The meal includes turkey, sweet potatoes (also called yams) and cranberries, which
are made into a kind of sauce or jelly. The turkey is filled with stuffing or dressing, and many
families have their own special recipe. Dessert is pumpkin made into a pie.
On Thanksgiving there are special television programs and sports events. In New
York there is the Macy's Thanksgiving Day Parade, when a long line of people wearing fancy
costumes march through the streets with large balloons in the shape of imaginary characters.
Thanksgiving is considered the beginning of the Christmas period, and the next day many
people go out to shop for Christmas presents.
Question 36: What is the purpose of the passage?
A. To compare how Thanksgiving was celebrated in the past and today.

B. To give an overview of a popular celebration in the US.
C. To explain the existence of a celebration in the US.
D. To introduce a Native American culture.
Question 37: In the United States, Thanksgiving is .
A. a religious celebration held by Christians only.

B. celebrated as a public holiday.
C. more important than Christmas.
D. apart from Christmas.
Question 38: According to the passage, Pilgrims are .
A. people who traveled to America by ships

B. trips that religious people make to a holy place
C. people who left their home and went to live in North America in 1620s
D. Native Americans who live in North America
Question 39: All of the following statements are mentioned EXCEPT .
A. People celebrate Thanksgiving to thank God.
B. People usually have traditional dinners on Thanksgiving.
C. There are lots of entertainments on Thanksgiving.
D. People go to churches for religious services on Thanksgiving.
Question 40: Which of the following statements is not TRUE about Thanksgiving ?
A. turkey, yams and pumpkin pies are served.
B. people join in the Macy's Thanksgiving Day Parade.
C. people wear colored costumes marching through the streets.
D. people go out to shop for Christmas presents.
Question 41: In the second paragraph, the pronoun "them" refers to which of the following?
A. Pilgrims B. the Mayflowers C. Native Americans D. Schools
Question 42: Which of the following is NOT true?
A. In the US, Thanksgiving is not a national holiday; it's a religious holiday.

B. Christmas comes less than a month after Thanksgiving.
C. Thanksgiving was originally celebrated by the first Europeans in North America to thank
God for their survival.
D. The Macy's Thanksgiving Day Parade is colorful and exciting.
A rather surprising geographical feature of Antarctica is that a huge freshwater lake, one
of the world’s largest and deepest, lies hidden there under four kilometers of ice. Now known as
Lake Vostok, this huge body of water is located under the ice block that comprises Antarctica.
The lake is able to exist in its unfrozen state beneath this block of ice because its waters are
warmed by geothermal heat from the earth’s core. The thick glacier above Lake Vostok actually
insulates it from the frigid temperatures on the surface.
The lake was first discovered in the 1970s while a research team was conducting an aerial
survey of the area. Radio waves from the survey equipment penetrated the ice and revealed a
body of water of indeterminate size. It was not until much more recently that data collected by
satellite made scientists aware of the tremendous size of the lake; the satellite-borne radar
detected an extremely flat region where the ice remains level because it is floating on the water
of the lake.
The discovery of such a huge freshwater lake trapped under Antarctica is of interest to
the scientific community because of the potential that the lake contains ancient microbes that
have survived for thousands of years, unaffected by factors such as nuclear fallout and elevated
ultraviolet light that have affected organisms in more exposed areas. The downside of the
discovery, however, lies in the difficulty of conducting research on the lake in such a harsh
climate and in the problems associated with obtaining uncontaminated samples from the lake
without actually exposing the lake to contamination. Scientists are looking for possible ways to
accomplish this.
Question 43: The word “hidden” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to .
A. undrinkable B. untouched C. unexploitable D. undiscovered
Question 44: What is true of Lake Vostok?
A. It is completely frozen. B. It is saltwater lake.

C. It is beneath a thick slab of ice. D. It is heated by the sun.
Question 45: Which of the following is closest in meaning to “frigid” in paragraph 1?
A. extremely cold B. easily broken C. quite harsh D. lukewarm

Question 46: All of the following are true about the 1970 survey of Antarctica EXCEPT that
it .
A. was conducted by air B. made use of radio waves
C. could not determine the lake’s exact size D. was controlled by a satellite
Question 47: It can be inferred from the passage that the ice would not be flat if .
A. there were no lake underneath B. the lake were not so big
C. Antarctica were not so cold D. radio waves were not used
Question 48: The word “microbes” in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by which of the
following?
A. Pieces of dust B. Tiny bubbles C. Tiny organisms D. Rays of light
Question 49: Lake Vostok is potentially important to scientists because it .
A. can be studied using radio waves B. may contain uncontaminated microbes
C. may have elevated levels of ultraviolet light D. has already been contaminated
Question 50: The purpose of the passage is to .
A. explain how Lake Vostok was discovered

B. provide satellite data concerning Antarctica
C. discuss future plans for Lake Vostok
D. present an unexpected aspect of Antarctica’s geography
Đáp án
1-A 2-D 3-A 4-D 5-B 6-D 7-B 8-C 9-A 10-D
11-D 12-D 13-C 14-B 15-D 16-A 17-C 18-D 19-D 20-D
21-A 22-A 23-B 24-C 25-D 26-D 27-B 28-C 29-D 30-C
31-C 32-A 33-C 34-B 35-D 36-B 37-B 38-C 39-D 40-D
41-A 42-A 43-B 44-C 45-A 46-D 47-A 48-C 49-B 50-D
ĐỀ 10
Question 1: A. superstar B. harvest C. particular D. part
Question 2: A. sword B. swim C. swallow D. sweet
Question 3: A. compulsory B. biography C. curriculum D. admirable
Question 4: A. difficult B. simplicity C. discovery D. commodity
Question 5: She is among the few who wants to quit smoking instead of cutting down.
A. among B. wants C. smoking D. cutting down
Question 6: We felt asleep at the meeting because the speaker had such a monotonous voice.
A. felt B. asleep C. because D.such a monotonous
Question 7: The development of transistors made possible it to reduce the size of many
electronic devices.
A. development of B. possible it C. of many D. electronic devices
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 8: How long ago the Civil War?
A. was B. happened C. occurred D. took place

Question 9: I‟m afraid very few people know about the concert and almost no one will
come. If only the posters on time.
A. were hanging B. were hung C. were hanged D. had been hung
Question 10: Jimmy sent his mother a of flowers for her birthday.
A. bar B. bunch C. pack D. packet
Question 11: The boy with his two friends the cherry tree now.
A. has been splitting B. have split C. is splitting

D. are splitting
Question 12: Susan cannot stand looking at the rat, touching it.
A. even so B. as far as C. what it D. let alone
Question 13: I‟d rather in the field than at home.

A. to work/to stay B. working/staying C. work/stay D. worked/stayed
Question 14: My plans to travel around the world have through because I
couldn‟t save enough money.
A. fallen B. dropped C. given D. put
Question 15: “I thought you bought a new fountain pen last week?” “Yes, I did but I left it at
home. Can I borrow for a moment?”
A. the one of you B. one of yours C. one pen of you D. the one of your pen
Question 16: There are only a few minutes left, and the students is writing
.
A. with a pressure B. under the pressure C. to pressure D. under pressure
Question 17: A little farther down the street .
A. is the inn I used to stay at B. there is an inn where I used to stay in

C. the inn is the place where I used to stay D. is there an inn in which I used to stay
Question 18: Remember to appreciate what your friends do for you. You shouldn‟t take
them .
A. as a rule B. as usual C. out of habit D. for granted
Question 19: No one saw Jim came in. He came in without .
A. anybody saw him B. anybody sees him C. being seen D. been seen
Question 20: “I wonder if you could help me?”
“ ”
A. No, what is it? B. Really? How nice. C. Don‟t mention it. D. I‟ll do my best.
What‟s the problem?
Question 21: “ Don‟t stay anywhere near the railway station at night. It‟s dangerous.”
“ .”
A. Ok. That will do. B. They won‟t like it, I bet.
C. I definitely won‟t. Thank you. D. Where on Earth have you been?
Question 22: The activists were accused of contaminating the minds of our young people.
A. providing healthy ideas B. nurturing
C. harming D. keeping in the dark
Question 23: As a newspaper reporter she always wants to get information at first hand.
A. quickly B. slowly C. easily D. directly
Question 24: There are several different kinds of faults in reading which are usually more
exaggerated with foreign learners.
A. overestimated B. understated C. overemphasized D. undertaken
Question 25: We left New York when I was six, so my recollections of it are rather faint.
A. explicable B. unintelligible C. clear D. ambiguous
Question 26: What he did came as no surprise to me.
A. He told me that he was not surprised. B. His behaviour surprised me.

C. I was not surprised by his actions. D. He was surprised when I came.
Question 27: You are all welcome to take any food you like.
A. Any food welcome to take if you like.

B. Please help yourself to any food that you like.
C.You don‟t have to pay for any food that you like.
D. It‟s my pleasure to take any food you like.
Question 28: The firemen were in time to save the people but not the house.
A. The house was saved but the people were lost.
B.The people were saved and so was the house.
C. Both the people and the house were lost in the fire.
D.The people were saved but the house was lost.
Question 29: They are my two sisters. They aren‟t teachers like me.
A. They are my two sisters, both of those are teachers like me.
B. They are my two sisters, neither of whom are teachers like me.
C. Unlike me, neither of my two sisters aren‟t teachers.
D. They are my two sisters who neither are teachers like me.
Question 30: The human brain is ten times the size of a baboon‟s. It weighs about 1,400
grams.
A. The size of human brain is ten times that of a baboon‟s which is about 1,400 grams
weigh.
B. The size of a baboon‟s brain is 1,400 grams, ten times that of the human one.
C. The human brain, which weighs about 1,400 grams, is ten times the size of a baboon’s.
D. The weight of a baboon‟s brain is 1,400 grams, ten-fold than that of the human one.
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
Last year thieves broke into a Scottish stately home and stole only one thing: a rhino horn
trophy, which at 1.5 meters was the longest in the world. Meanwhile, in China, pharmaceutical
factories have been building up (31) of antiques made from rhino horn, for the sole
purpose of smashing them to powder to make the (32) ingredient of many of their
medicines. And in Zimbabwe, 34 poachers died in 1990 in the search for the black rhino.
Recently, conservationists met to (33) a campaign to persuade countries
where rhino horn is still part of the traditional medicine to switch to substitutes. The biggest
threat to the survival of the rhinoceros is the refusal of certain countries to enforce a ban on
domestic trading in rhino horn.
The rhino horn is included in many doses for disorders raging from fevers to nosebleeds.
Horn, like fingernails, is made of keratin and has no proven medicinal (34) .
Traditional substitutes, such as horn from buffalo or antelope, are regarded as second best.
The battle is thought to be winnable. But it may be harder than the battle against the trade
in ivory, for there is a (35) between the two commodities. Ivory is a luxury; rhino
horn, people believe, could save the life of their child.
Question 31: A. bundles B. collections C. amounts D. groups
Question 32: A. real B. actual C. essential D. true
Question 33: A. design B. plan C. programme D. form
Question 34: A. capacity B. property C. control D. powers
Question 35: A. variation B. comparison C. variety D. difference
Beads were probably the first durable ornaments humans possessed, and the intimate
relationship they had with their owners is reflected in the fact that beads are among the most
common items found in ancient archaeological sites. In the past, as today, men, women, and
children adorned themselves with beads. In some cultures still, certain beads are often worn
from birth until death, and then are buried with their owners for the afterlife. Abrasion due to
daily wear alters the surface features of beads, and if they are buried for long, the effects of
corrosion can further change their appearance. Thus, interest is imparted to the bead both by
use and the effects of time.
Besides their wearability, either as jewelry or incorporated into articles of attire, beads
possess the desirable characteristics of every collectible, they are durable, portable, available
in infinite variety, and often valuable in their original cultural context as well as in today's
market. Pleasing to look at and touch, beads come in shapes, colors, and materials that almost
compel one to handle them and to sort them.
Beads are miniature bundles of secrets waiting to be revealed: their history,
manufacture, cultural context, economic role, and ornamental use are all points of
information one hopes to unravel. Even the most mundane beads may have traveled great
distances and been exposed to many human experiences. The bead researcher must gather
information from many diverse fields. In addition to having to be a generalist while
specializing in what may seem to be a narrow field, the researcher is faced with the problem
of primary materials that have little or no documentation. Many ancient beads that are of
ethnographic interest have often been separated from their original cultural context.
The special attractions of beads contribute to the uniqueness of bead research. While
often regarded as the "small change of civilizations", beads are a part of every culture, and
they can often be used to date archaeological sites and to designate the degree of mercantile,
technological, and cultural sophistication.
Question 36: What is the main subject of the passage?
A. Materials used in making beads B. How beads are made

C. The reasons for studying beads D. Different types of beads
Question 37: The word "adorned" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to_ .
A. protected B. decorated C. purchased D. enjoyed
Question 38: All of the following are given as characteristics of collectible objects EXCEPT
.
A. durability B. portability C. value D. scarcity
Question 39: According to the passage, all of the following are factors that make people
want to touch beads EXCEPT the .
A. shape B. color C. material D. odor
Question 40: The word "mundane" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to .
A. carved B. ordinary C. beautiful D. heavy
Question 41: It is difficult to trace the history of certain ancient beads because they
.
A. are small in size
B. have been buried underground
C. have been moved from their original locations
D. are frequently lost
Question 42: Knowledge of the history of some beads may be useful in the studies done by
which of the following _ .
A. Anthropologists B. Agricultural experts C. Medical researchers D. Economists
Milpa Alta is a region of twelve villages and towns to the south of Mexico City. In Milpa
Alta, traditions are still very important and one of the most famous traditional events is a
community meal. It takes place every Christmas and is called La Rejunta. More than a meal, it’s
a feast, where about sixty thousand tamales and fifteen thousand litres of hot chocolate are made
and consumed. Tamales are made from corn. They are typical of the region: the name Milpa
Alta means “High cornfield”. The feast is offered to the people who go on the long walk to El
Señor de Chalma about 80 kilometers away. It’s an important event on the religious calendar for
local people and as many as 20,000 people take part.
The planning and organisation of La Rejunta takes the whole year. Every year, different
people are given the job of majordomo, which means they’re responsible for organising the
meal. There’s a waiting list for the opportunity to do this and currently the next available year is
2046. This year’s majordomos are Virginia Meza Torres and her husband Fermín Lara Jiménez,
who put their names on the list 14 years ago.
One year before the meal, men go to the forest and collect wood that they store near the
home of the majordomo. It has to be dry when it’s used to make the cooking fires. Local farmers
grow most of the corn, meat and vegetables that are needed as ingredients. In the week before the
feast, hundreds of volunteers arrive to help with the preparation and the cooking. No instant or
ready-made foods are allowed. Amazingly, everyone seems to know what they have to do. On
the day of the feast, the majordomos and others have stayed up all night cooking. Fermin is in
charge of the numbers – making sure there are enough tamales for everyone.
For the people of Milpa Alta, eating together is one of their most important traditions.
One woman, Josefina García Jiménez, explains that sitting together at the table is like a glue that
keeps people together. It feels like I am passing down a tradition, and when they are adults, they
will remember what I have done. Here we have time to cook, time to think about the ingredients,
time to show our kids through cooking that we love them. ‟ The time that everybody stays at the
table after the meal has finished is just as important as the food. They talk, tell stories and laugh
together. At Christmas, La Rejunta is a giant version of a family meal.
Question 43: What is the article about?
A. daily life in Mexico B. farming in Milpa Alta

C. Mexican cuisine D. traditions in Mexico
Question 44: In Milpa Alta, eating with other people is .
A. difficult B. important C. unusual D. abstained
Question 45: What’s unusual about La Rejunta?
A. A huge amount of food is made. B. The event lasts for many days.
C. The ingredients are very unusual. D. The preparation only takes a few days.
Question 46: What do the majordomos do?
A. cook the food for La Rejunta B. grow food for La Rejunta

C. organise La Rejunta D. collect wood for La Rejunta
Question 47: According to the article, which statement is true?
A. Not many people want to be majordomos.

B. People wait a long time to be majordomos.
C. Virginia Meza Torres has been a majordomo for 14 years.
D. A majordomo has the right to spend the night sleeping on the day of the feast.
Question 48: According to the third paragraph, which sentence is true?
A. After the meal, people do the dishes together.
B. It takes a week to organise La Rejunta.
C. The majordomos do everything themselves.
D. All the food for the meal is from the local area.
Question 49: Fermin .
A. cooks the tamales. B. counts the amount of food.

C. tells the volunteers what to do. D. makes plan for the next La Rejunta.
Question 50: According to the last paragraph, the important thing about family meals is
.
A. being together B. the cook C. the food D. the ingredients
Đáp án
1-C 2-A 3-D 4-A 5-B 6-A 7-B 8-A 9-D 10-B
11-C 12-D 13-C 14-A 15-B 16-D 17-A 18-D 19-C 20-D
21-C 22-C 23-D 24-B 25-C 26-B 27-B 28-D 29-B 30-C
31-B 32-C 33-B 34-D 35-D 36-C 37-B 38-D 39-D 40-B
41-C 42-A 43-D 44-B 45-A 46-C 47-B 48-D 49-B 50-A
ĐỀ 11
Question 1: A. yield B. community C. misty D. nursery
Question 2: A. milk B. yolk C. walk D. folk
the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions
Question 3: A. genuine B. kangaroo C. generous D. fortunate
Question 4: A. technique B. regional C. satellite D. interesting
Question 5: Slightly over half of the population of El Paso, Texas, says both English and
Spanish.
A. Slightly B. half C. polulation D. says
Question 6: During the Middle Ages, handwriting notices kept groups of nobles informed of
important events.
A. During B. handwriting C. kept D. informed of
Question 7: Those who had already purchased tickets were instructed to go to gate first
immediately.
A. Those B.had already purchasedC. first D. immediately
Question 8: I feel terrible, I didn’t sleep last night.
A. a jot B. a wink C. an inch D. an eye
Question 9: I’m going to market all efforts to win a gold medal in for your
help and concern.
A. return B. mind C. allowances D. memory
Question 10: The manager charged her irresponsibility and dishonesty.

A. for B. on C. about D. with
Question 11: I the newspaper now. You can take it.
A. have been reading B. will read C. am reading D. have read

Question 12: stay the night if it’s too difficult to get home.
A. By all means B. In all C. At all costs D. On the whole

Question 13: The you gain from taking part in our club is the ease of mind.
A. profit B. improvement C. benefit D. advantage
Question 14: The growth of two-income families in the United States of people
moving to a new social class.
A. has resulted in millions B. resulting in millions
C. results of millions D. million of results
Question 15: The woman when the police told her that her son had died.
A. got over B. fell apart C. looked up D. broke down
Question 16: He couldn’t move the table. He had to get someone him.
A. helping B. help C. to help D. helped
Question 17: On being told about her sack, .
A. her boss felt sorry for Mary B. Mary was shocked

C. Mary’s face turned pale D. All are correct
Question 18: Now, don’t tell anyone else what I have just told you. Remember it is
.
A. confidential B. confident C. confidence D. confidant
Question 19: He bought three shirts; one for him and for his children.
A. others B. the other C. another D. the others
Question 20: “I’m so upset. Everyone seems to betray
me.” “ ”
A. Relax. It’s not that bad B. Yeah. I think you can do it.
C. Oh, I’m sorry D. Don’t apologize them.
Question 21: “Let me pay for the meal. It’s my turn to shout”
“ ”
A. You’d better shout louder in case that they can’t hear you
B. Don’t turn back like that. They may see you.
C. Certainly not! I will pay.
D. How often do you eat out?
Question 22: Thanks to the invention of microscope, biologists can now gain insights into
the nature of the human cell.
A. deep understanding B. in-depth studies
C. spectacular sightings D. far-sighted views
Question 23: To get the best deal on a new car, you need to know what a car is really worth.
A. get the highest quality B. pay the lowest price

C. save the most amount of petrol D. reach the fastest agreement
Question 24: My friend and his soccer coach are incompatible. They are always arguing.
A. too different to work together B. almost exactly the same type

C. really disliking each other D. getting on very well
Question 25: People sometimes choose partners who compensate for their own
shortcomings.
A. disadvantages B. benefits C. flaws D. strengths
Question 26: There is nothing new in the use of herbs and spices.
A. Herbs and spices have been used for a long time.
B. The use of herbs and spices is no longer difficult.
C.People used to use herbs and spices as a source of medicine.
D.People are no longer interested in using herbs and spices.
Question 27: It’s undeniable that the Internet plays a vital role in our life nowadays.
A. Nowadays our life without the Internet is deniable.
B. The Internet’s vital role is denied in our modern life
C.That the Internet is important to modern life is obvious.
D.The Internet is hardly undeniable in our life nowadays.
Question 28: If they eat fast food too frequently, they will soon have their waistline
increased.
A. When eating fast food, people would loosen their waistline.
B. Fast food eaters will soon have their waistline fastened.
C.Eating fast food makes people get fat quickly.
D.People should loosen their belt when they eat fast.
Question 29: He wore glasses and a false beard. He wanted nobody to recognize him.
A. He wore glasses and a false beard lest anybody could recognize him.
B. He wore glasses and a false beard, and so nobody could recognize him.
C. So as not to meet anyone who recognize him, he wore glasses and a false beard.
D. He could avoid being recognized because he wore glasses and a false beard.
Question 30: He has retired. He watches football every afternoon on cable TV.
A. Although he’s retired, he watches football every afternoon on cable
B. Now that he’s retired, he watches football every afternoon on cable TV
C. When he’s retired, he watches football every afternoon on cable TV
D. He’s retired, so that he watches football every afternoon on cable TV.
35.
The Indonesian capital, with a population of over 10 million, has been named the
most packed city on the planet. Its greater metropolitan area, (31) as
Jabodetabek, is the second largest in the world.
From 21 to 25 November, the Guardian Cities team will be in Jakarta for a live week
of (32) reporting and special events all about the issues shaping the city. As a
key part of this week, we’d love to hear from local residents about local life and how it’s
changing – for better (33) worse – as well as aspiration for Jakarta’s future
From huge street protests earlier this month against Jakarta’s Christian governor
Ahok’s alleged blashpheny in his comments about the Qur’an, to the president’s
spokenperson saying there is “no room” for LBGT people in Indonesia and plans to ban gay
networking apps like Grindr, have you witnessed social division in the city, or experienced
discrimination yourself?
Is the city rapid development – including the proliferation of shopping malls and a
huge land reclamation project to help (34) a growing population a positive or
negative thing in your view?
If you live or work in Jakarta, we’d love to hear from you. From traffic and urban
development to community and culture, what are the best and worst things about life in the
city? What would make Jakarta better, and what changes are most (35) needed?
Question 31: A. admiited B. known C. revealed D. published
Question 32: A. in-depth B. deep C. depth D. in-deep
Question 33: A. and B. to C. then D. or
Question 34: A. house B. protect C. store D. contain
Question 35: A. urgent B. urgency C. urgently D. in urgent
Certain birds are, more often than not, considered bad luck, or even a sign of
impending death. For example, all over the world, both crows and ravens have some
connection to war, and death. In early times, crows and ravens were thought to accompany
the gods of war, or be signs of the god’s approaching arrival. This idea later changed. Crows
in particular were thought to be harbingers of ill fortune or, in some cases, guides to the
afterlife. Woe be it to the person who saw a single crow or raven flying overhead, for this was
most certainly a portent of death in the near future.
Interestingly, though potentially bad luck for people individually, the raven is
considered to be good luck for the crown of England. So much so, in fact, that a “raven
master” is, even today, an actual government position in London. He takes care of the ravens
there and also clips their wings, ensuring that these birds can never fly far from the seat of the
British government. This way, the kingdom will never fall to ill fortune.
Another bird that is thought to play a part in forecasting the fortunes of people is the
swallow. Depending on how and when it is seen, the swallow can be a harbinger of either
good or ill fortune. Perhaps inspired the swallow’s red-brown breast, Christian people
initially related the swallow to the death of Jesus Christ. Thus, people who saw a swallow fly
through their house considered it a portent of death. Later, however, farmers began to
consider swallows signs of good fortune. Any barn that has swallows living in it is sure to be
blessed in the following year. Farmers also have to beware of killing a swallow; that would
be certain to end any good luck they might have had.
Though many people think these superstitions are old wives’ tales, there is actually
some evidence to support them. For example, crows and ravens, being scavengers, appear at
the aftermath of battles. Thus, large numbers of crows and ravens could be good indications
of war in an area. As well, swallows feed on insects that can cause infections in cattle. Thus,
a farmer who has many swallows in his barn may actually have healthier animals on his farm.
Therefore, the next time you feel inclined to laugh at an old wives’ tale, maybe you had
better find out if there is any truth to it first!.
Question 36: What is the main idea of this reading?
A. Birds bring bad luck.

B. Don’t look a crow in the eye
C. There are many superstitions surrounding birds.
D. Birds are important to English people.
Question 37: Which birds are considered harbingers of bad luck?
A. Crows B. Swallows C. Ravens D. All of the above
Question 38: The word "portent" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to
.
A. sign B. coming C. symbol D. destruction
Question 39: Which is NOT true, according to the reading?
A. Some superstitions are based on reality.

B. Seeing a swallow is a sign of war and death in the future.
C. Ravens bring good luck for the country of England.
D. Crows eat dead animals.
Question 40: The word "old wives’ tales" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
.
A. stories told by housewives in the past
B. old beliefs which have been proved to be scientifically true
C. folk beliefs passed down from generation to generation without any reason of science
D. folk tales about wives that were passed on to people in a spoken form
Question 41: How might a farmer attempt to prevent bad luck?
A. Catch a raven B. Keep his windows open

C. Follow a crow D. Avoid harming a swallow
Question 42: Swallows help keep cattle in barns healthier by _.
A. eating infected skin B. consuming insects

C. singing D. making cows happier
A newborn baby can see, hear and feel. By the age of five, a child can talk, ride a bike
and invent imaginary friends. How does this development happen? We don’t understand the way
language, thinking and planning develop very well. Now scientists are using new technology to
‘see’ into children’s brains. And they are discovering new information about the way a baby’s
brain develops.
A study in 2010 showed that the experiences a child has in their first few years affect the
development of the brain. It showed that children who received more attention often had higher
IQs. The brain of a newborn baby has nearly a hundred billion neurons. This is the same number
as an adult‟s brain. As they grow, a baby receives information through the senses of sight,
hearing, smell, taste and touch. This information creates connections between different parts of
the brain. At the age of three, there are a hundred trillion connections.
One experiment looked at images of babies’ brains while they were listening to different
sounds. The sounds were in different sequences. For example, one sequence was mu-ba-ba. This
is the pattern ‘A- B-B’. Another sequence was mu-ba-ge. This is the pattern ‘A-B-C’. The
images showed that the part of the brain responsible for speech was more active during ‘A-B-B’
patterns. This shows that babies can tell the difference between different patterns. This
experiment is interesting because sequences of words are important to grammar and meaning.
Compare two sentences with the same words in a different order: “John killed the bear” is very
different from ‘The bear killed John’. So babies are starting to learn grammatical rules from the
beginning of life.
Researchers also know that babies need to hear a lot of language in order to understand
grammar rules. But there is a big difference between listening to television, audio books or the
internet, and interacting with people. One study compared two groups of nine-month-old
American babies. One group watched videos of Mandarin Chinese sounds. In the other group,
people spoke the same sounds to the babies. The test results showed that the second group could
recognise different sounds, however the first group learned nothing.
The scientist, Patricia Kuhl, said this result was very surprising. It suggests that social
experience is essential to successful brain development in babies.
Question 43: The purpose of the article is to .
A. explain new studies into the development of babies‟ brains.

B. describe how a new-born baby‟s brain works.
C. compare the brains of adults and children.
D. prove that nowadays babies are more intelligent than in the past.
Question 44: According to the first paragraph .
A. most aspects of child development are understood quite well.

B. some five-year-olds have imaginary friends.
C. children use technology more these days.
D. technology has been used in children‟s brain surgery.
Question 45: Which statement is supported by the second paragraph?
A. Adult brains have more neurons than new-n ai ain
B. Babies and three-year-olds have the same number of neurons.
C. Early experiences have an effect on brain development.
D. The connections between parts of the brain stay the same as a child grows up.
Question 46: According to the second paragraph, which of the following can affect IQ?
A. being with adults a lot B. connecting with other babies
C. paying attention to a baby D. having access to information as early as
possible
Question 47: It can be inferred from the passage that .
A. A pattern like ‘A-B-C’ is easier to understand

B. Babies’ brains cannot recognise different sound patterns
C. It’s not known which area of a baby’s brain processesspeech.
D. Children can actually learn grammatical rules in their very early age.
Question 48: According to the article, which statement is true?
A. Experiments focusing on language have given researchers new information.

B. Children who hear different languages develop differently.
C. The development of language is the easiest thing to study in babies.
D. Babies are able to understand grammar rules of a language only in specific period.
Question 49: What did the study described in the last paragraph do?
A. compare the effects of different languages
B. divide babies into two groups with different treatment
C. investigate if babies can learn Chinese
D. teach babies foreign languages through listening to videos.
Question 50: What is the main conclusion from the study described in the last paragraph?
A. Babies can understand television at the age of nine months.
B. Social interaction has a big influence on the brain.
C. Watching videos is a good way to develop a child’s brain
D. Mandarin Chinese is not too hard to be learned for American babies.
Đáp án
1-A 2-A 3-B 4-A 5-D 6-B 7-C 8-B 9-A 10-D
11-D 12-A 13-C 14-A 15-D 16-C 17-B 18-A 19-D 20-A
21-C 22-A 23-B 24-D 25-D 26-A 27-C 28-C 29-A 30-B
31-B 32-A 33-D 34-A 35-C 36-C 37-D 38-A 39-B 40-C
41-D 42-B 43-A 44-B 45-C 46-C 47-D 48-A 49-B 50-B
ĐỀ 12
Question 1: A. chopstick B. pork C. moderate D. common
Question 2: A. sign B. resign C. foreign D. signature
Question 3: A. company B. employment C. atmosphere D. miracle
Question 4: A. attitude B. infamous C. envelop D. regularly
Question 5: The woman of whom the red car is parked in front of the bank is a famous pop
star.
A. of whom the B. parked C. in front of the bank D. famous pop star
Question 6: Being that he was a good swimmer, John managed to rescue the child.
A. that he was B. swimmer C. rescue D. child
Question 7: Each of the beautiful cars in the shop was quickly sold to their owner.
A. Each of B. cars C. quickly D. their
Question 8: Three pounds of butter in this recipe.
A. needs B. is needed C. need D. are needed

Question 9: The new law threatened to many people of the most elementary
freedom.
A. deprive B. deceive C. snatch D. depress
Question 10: She will be ill .
A. If she not take a few days rest B. provided she takes a few days rest
C. unless she takes a few days rest D. in case she takes a few days rest
Question 11: It’s that Mary couldn’t finish it alone.
A. so difficult a work B. such difficult a work

C. so difficult a job D. such difficult a job
Question 12: ? Your eyes are red.
A. Did you cry B. Have you been cried

C. Were you crying D. Have you been crying
Question 13: When Tet holiday comes, Vietnamese people often feel inclined to
their houses.
A. do up B. do in C. do over D. do through
Question 14: These plants are popular and you can see them anywhere.
A. hardly B. nearly C. at most D. almost
Question 15: She demanded that she allowed to meet her son in prison.
A. was B. were C. be D. would be
Question 16: To protect hackers, security experts advise longer passwords

combinations of upper and lowercase, as well as numbers.
A. on – between B. against – with C. from – to D. about – inside
Question 17: She built a high wall around her garden .
A. to enable people not taking her fruit B. so that her fruit would be stolen
C. to prevent her fruit from being stolen D. in order that her fruit not be stolen
Question 18: “She was great, wasn’t she?” “Absolutely, I can recall the last time I heard her
such an inspiring speech.
A. has been delivering B. to deliver
C. to be delivering D. deliver
Question 19: I promise not to disturb you. I’ll just sit here and I’ll be as quiet as
.
A. sheep B. fish C. mouse D. dog
Question 20: “Do you mind if I watch TV late tonight?”
“ ”
A. I’d rather not. I have to get up early tomorrow.

B. Please, don’t. I can’t sleep with a TV on.
C. Yes. You can watch it as long as you want.
D. Yes, you mind. I also want to watch the football match tonight.
Question 21: “ How about coming to my English class tonight?”
“ .”
A. Sounds like fun! What time? B. English is my favourite subject.
C. Don’t worry. Thanks. D. Thanks. But what’s the problem?
Question 22: Linda is very amiable and gregarious. She makes friends with whoever she
meets.
A. introvert B. optimistic C. irritated D. sociable
Question 23: Jane is very upset. I’d like you to try and smooth things over if you can.
A. tidy the place up for her B. calm her down

C. tell her to go D. hide the truth from her
Question 24: 3 year-olds enjoy some make-believe games and are able to play out little
stories such as bath the doll, then feed it and put it to bed.
A. imagining that something is real B. forming a religious belief
C. role-playing D. relating to something real
Question 25: I think it’s time we did away with the obsolete policies.
A. maintained B. wiped out C. abolished D. looked out
Question 26: Astronomy greatly interests him.
A. He takes a keen interest in astronomy. B.He finds astronomy very interested.

C.He is very interesting in astronomy. D.Astronomy is the subject he enjoys the
most.
Question 27: It was such a touching book that almost half of the readers cried.
A. Half of the readers almost cried for the touching book.
B.Almost half of the readers touched the book and cried.
C.Nearly half of the readers found the book touching.
D.Nearly half of the readers cried because of the moving
book.
Question 28: The doctor was supposed to tell the patient about the operation procedures.
A. The procedures of the operation were told to the patient by the doctor as supposed.
B.Although the doctor should inform the patient of the procedures of the operation, he didn’t.
C.The doctor is going to advise the patient of the operation.
D.The patient supposes that the doctor will tell him about the procedures of the operation.
Question 29: Who served the royalty in the palaces? People often say the Hakka did.
A. People often say the Hakka were those who served the royalty in the palaces.
B.It is often said who served the royalty were the Hakka in the palaces.
C.People often say that the Hakka knew who served the royalty in the
palaces. D.The Hakka often said to those who served the royalty in the
palaces.
Question 30: My father complained frequently. He seldom blamed anything on his children.
A. My father complained as frequently as he blame things on his children.
B.My father complained more frequently than did he blame anything on his children.
C.My father complained frequently but seldom blamed anything on his children.
D.My father never ever complained or blamed anything on his children.
35.
Television has changed the lifestyle of people in every industrialized country in the
world. In the United States, where sociologists have studied the effects, some interesting
observations have been made. TV, although not essential, has become a(n) (31) part
of most people’s lives. It has become a baby- sitter, an initiator of conversations, a major
transmitter of culture, and a keeper of traditions. Yet when what can be seen on TV in one
day is critically analyzed, it becomes evident that TV is not a teacher but a sustainer. The
poor quality of programs does not elevate people into greater (32) , but rather
maintains and encourages the status quo. The (33) reason for the lack of quality
in American TV is related to both the history of TV development and the economics of TV.
TV in American began with the radio. Radio companies and their sponsors first experimented
with TV. Therefore, the close relationship, which the advertisers had with radio programs,
become the system for American TV. Sponsors not only pay money for time within
programs, but many actually produced the programs. Thus, (34) from the capitalistic,
profit- oriented sector of American society, TV is primarily concerned with reflecting and
attracting society (35) _ than innovating and experimenting with new ideas.
Advertisers want to attract the largest viewing audience possible; to do so requires that the
programs be entertaining rather than challenging. TV in America today remains, to a large
extent, with the same organization and standards as it had thirty years ago. The hope for some
evolution and true achievement toward improving society will require a change in the entire
system.
Question 31: A. integral B. mixed C. fractional D. superior
Question 32: A.preconception B. knowledge C.understanding D. feeling
Question 33: A. adequate B. unknown C. inexplicable D. primary
Question 34: A. going B. leaving C. coming D. getting
Question 35: A. more B. rather C. less D. better
Are organically grown foods the best food choices? The advantages claimed for such
foods over conventionally grown and marketed food products are now being debated.
Advocates of organic foods – a term whose meaning varies greatly – frequently proclaim that
such products are safer and more nutritious than others.
The growing interest of consumers in the safety and nutritional quality of the typical
North American diet is a welcome development. However, much of this interest has been
sparked by sweeping claims that the food supply is unsafe or inadequate in meeting
nutritional needs. Although most of these claims are not supported by scientific evidence, the
preponderance of written material advancing such claims makes it difficult for the general
public to separate fact from fiction. As a result, claims that eating a diet consisting entirely of
organically grown foods prevents or cures disease or provides other benefits to health have
become widely publicized and form the basis for folklore.
Almost daily the public is besieged by claims for "no-aging" diets, new vitamins, and
other wonder foods. There are numerous unsubstantiated reports that natural vitamins are
superior to synthetic ones, that fertilized eggs are nutritionally superior to unfertilized eggs,
that untreated grains are better than fumigated grains, and the like.
One thing that most organically grown food products seem to have in common is that
they cost more than conventionally grown foods. But in many cases consumers are misled if
they believe organic foods can maintain health and provide better nutritional quality than
conventionally grown foods. So there is real cause for concern if consumers, particularly
those with limited incomes, distrust the regular food supply and buy only expensive organic
foods instead.
Question 36: The word "others" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to .
A. advantages B. advocates C. organic foods D. products

Question 37: The "welcome development" mentioned in paragraph 2 is an increase
in .
A. interest in food safety and nutrition among North Americans

B. the nutritional quality of the typical North American diet
C. the amount of healthy food grown in North America
D. the number of consumers in North America
Question 38: According to the first paragraph, which of the following is true about the term
"organic foods"?
A. It is accepted by most nutritionists. B. It has been used only in recent years.
C. It has no fixed meaning. D. It is seldom used by consumers.
Question 39: The word "unsubstantiated" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
.
A. unbelievable B. uncontested C. upopular D. unverified
Question 40: The author implies that there is cause for concern if consumers with limited
incomes buy organic foods instead of conventionally grown foods because
.
A. many organic foods are actually less nutritious than similar conventionally grown
foods
B. organic foods can be more expensive but are often no better than conventionally grown
foods
C. conventionally grown foods are more readily available than organic foods
D. too many farmers will stop using conventional methods to grow food crops
Question 41: According to the last paragraph, consumers who believe that organic foods are
better than conventionally grown foods are often .
A. careless B. mistaken C. thrifty D. wealthy
Question 42: What is the author's attitude toward the claims made by advocates of health
foods?
A. Very enthusiastic B. Somewhat favorable
C. Neutral D. Skeptical
Sometimes the road to the future leads through the past. Such was the case for Americans
Scott and Brennan Olson, who used an old idea to launch a hot new trend in sports: inline roller
skating.
In 1979, these siblings found a pair of antique roller skates while checking out bargains at
a used sporting-goods store. The skates they found had four wheels in a single row instead of the
traditional parallel pairs of wheels in front and back. This single row of wheels intrigued the
Olsons. They were avid hockey players, and they immediately noticed the similarity between the
inline wheels and the long, single blade found on the bottom of ice skates. Could these unusual
skates somehow be used to practice hockey off the ice?
The Olsons set about trying to modify the design of the antique skates that they had
found. First they tested out the antique skates to see how well they worked. From those tests,
they tried to come up with ways to improve the old design. One improvement involved using
special materials to make the skates stronger and easier to steer. The Olsons also added reliable
brakes to their inline skates. In 1980, the Olsons founded a company called Rollerblade to make
and sell their “new” invention. Sales skyrocketed, and soon millions of people worldwide were
“rollerblading,” as inline skating was mistakenly called.
At first, inline skating was recreational. People enjoyed skating in parks and on streets,
and some even danced on skates at giant roller discos. Today, inline “group skates” are popular
all over the world. In cities such as San Francisco, Paris, and Berlin, as many as 20,000 skaters
might meet on a free day and skate together through the streets. Many people see inline skating
as a great way to exercise and socialize.
By the mid-1990s, inline skating had become more than just a recreational sport. It had
developed into several competitive sports. One of the most popular, even today, is aggressive
skating. This involves performing tricks and jumping over objects such as boxes, ramps, and
rails. Other kinds of competitive skating include speed skating, artistic skating, downhill racing,
and skating marathons.
So, what about hockey? Well, the Olsons achieved their goal. Inline hockey leagues
sprang up almost immediately. Then in 1999, inline hockey joined the lineup at the Pan-
American Games. There are rumors that inline skating may even become part of the Summer
Olympics someday.
Question 43: What is the main idea of this reading?
A. Why inline skating is popular B. The history of inline skating competitions

C. How inline skating developed D. The story of Scott and Brennan Olson
Question 44: According to the reading, what is true about the Olsons’?
A. They wanted to make a new invention.
B. They did not succeed with their original goal.
C. They were motivated because they loved a sport.
D. They were not very good businessmen.
Question 45: The word "intrigued" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to .
A. acknowledged B. piqued curiosity C. took aback D. crashed

Question 46: What was a problem with the early inline skates?
A. They were too heavy. B. They were uncomfortable.

C. They were not easy to stop. D. They were made of expensive metal
Question 47: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as a
benefit of inline skating?
A. socializing B. entertaining C. exercising D. self-motivating
Question 48: The word "sprang up" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning
to .
A. developed B. was invented C. constrained D. introduced
Question 49: What is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. At first, only hockey players were interested in the Olsons’ skates.

B. The Olsons started a new company.
C. In the 1980s, most people called inline skates rollerblades.
D. Rollerblades became very popular almost from the beginning.
Question 50: What can be inferred about the antique inline skates found by the Olsons?
A. They were not widely sold. B. They were used mainly by Europeans.
C. They were more popular than bicycles. D. They were used by hockey players in the
summer.
Đáp án
1-B 2-D 3-B 4-C 5-A 6-A 7-D 8-B 9-A 10-C
11-C 12-D 13-A 14-D 15-C 16-B 17-C 18-D 19-C 20-B
21-A 22-D 23-B 24-D 25-A 26-A 27-D 28-B 29-A 30-C
31-A 32-C 33-D 34-C 35-B 36-D 37-A 38-C 39-D 40-B
41-B 42-D 43-C 44-C 45-B 46-C 47-D 48-A 49-A 50-A
ĐỀ 13
Question 1: A. low B. comb C. tomb D. row
Question 2: A. choir B. chocolate C. choleta D. stomach
Question 3: A. manner B. surface C. mailbox D. mature
Question 4: A. fascimile B. punctuality C. recipent D. appreciate
Question 5: In my judgement, I think Hem is the best physicist among the scientists of the
SEA region.
A. I think B. the best C. among D. the SEA region
Question 6: Many people have found the monotonous buzzing of the vuvuzela in the 2010-
World-Cup matches so annoyed.
A. Many B. monotonous C. 2010-World-Cup D. so annoyed
Question 7: Life insurance, before available only to young, healthy persons, can now be
obtained for old people and even for pets.
A. before B. only to C. be D. even
Question 8: Can you make yourself in French?
A. understand B. understood C. understanding D. to understand

Question 9: Although , he has been to more than 30 countries in the world
and gained a lot of experience.
A. his young age B. young C. been young D. he was young
Question 10: Are you sure Britain is a wheat- country?
A. produced B. product C. producing D. production
Question 11: I can’t walk in these high-heeled boots. I keep .
A. falling off B. falling back C. falling over D. falling out

Question 12: In my family, my sister and I take turn .
A. doing the washing B. to do the washing C. doing the washer D. both A & B are
correct
Question 13: A: “Do you have a copy of The Last Leaf?”
B: “You are luck. I have just one copy left.”

A. of B. with C. in D. at
Question 14: A: “When will we meet: at 7:30 or 8:00?”
B: “I don’t mind. is convenient for me.”

A. Either time B. Neither of them C. Both time D. Neither time
Question 15: Like everyone else, Sue has her of course but on the whole ,
she’s quite satisfied with life.
A. odds and ends B. safe and sound C. ins and outs D. ups and downs
Question 16: In water polo, a player is ejected after committing five personal
.
A. mistakes B. faults C. fouls D. errors
Question 17: Recent evidence makes it possible for the investigatiors to conclude that
.
A. some paintings by Rembrandt to be faked
B. some paintings by Rembrandt were faked
C. some paintings by Rembrandt must be faked
D. Rembrandt was attributed to some paintings
Question 18: You need to walk gently after the doctor removes the cast off because it
for your broken leg to learn how to walk again.
A. takes time B. costs time C. time-consuming D. saves time
Question 19: Our project was successful its practicality.
A. on behalf of B. with a view to C. regardless of D. in terms of Mark

the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
Question 20: “My mother is very good at cooking.”

“ ”
A. She must be very proud of it. B. Do you enjoy it?

C. How long has she been cooking? D. You must have good taste!
Question 21: “How do you do?”
“ .”
A. How are you? B. How do you do? C. I’m doing well. D. I’m a teacher.
Question 22: Some studies have shown a strong association between pesticide and certain
diseases.
A. cooperation B. collaboration C. consequence D. connection

Question 23: Although they hold similar political views, their religious beliefs present a
striking contrast.
A. minor comparison B. interesting resemblance

C. significant discrepancy D. complete coincidence
Question 24: The research, contrary to common belief, revealed some rather unexpected
results.
A. impressive B. predictable C. surprising D. positive
Question 25: I tried to patch things up after the argument, but they wouldn't speak to me.
A. fall out with B. make up with C. spice up D. straighten out

Question 26: Peter had very little money but managed to make ends meet.
A. Peter could hardly live on little money.
B. Having little money, Peter couldn’t make ends meet.
C. Peter found it hard to live on very little money.
D. Peter got by on very little money.
Question 27: “You’d better apologize for being late,” said my mother.
A. My mother advised me to apologize for being late.
B. My mother suggested me to apologize for being late.
C. My mother suggested apologizing for being late.
D. My mother warned me to apologize for being late.
Question 28: The friends promised to stand by each other through thick and thin.
A. The friends promised to stand together all their life.
B. The friends promised to work together in spite of all difficulties.
C. The friends promised to be faithful to each other whatever happened.
D. The friends promised to hold on together if at all feasible.
Question 29: He felt too ill. He was unable to get up.
A. He was such that ill that he was unable to get up.
B. He felt too ill because he was unable to get up.
C. He was ill, as the matter of fact, he was unable to get up.
D. He was so ill that he was unable to get up.
Question 30: Priya seems to be a workaholic. She spent the holiday in her office finishing
the report.
A. Since Priya looks like a workaholic, she spent the holiday in her office finishing the
report.
B. Priya seems to be a workaholic; nevertheless, she spent the holiday in her office
finishing the report.
C. Priya seems to be a workaholic; in fact, she spent the holiday in her office finishing the
report.
D. Being a workaholic, Priya spent the holiday in her office finishing the report.
35.
The 15th Asian Games took place from December 1 through December 15, 2006, in
Doha, Capital of Qatar. More than 10,000 athletes, who (31) _ 45 countries and
regions, took part in 39 sports and 424 events of the Games, the most important event in Asia.
Some new events such as chess and triathlon were also included in the Games.
The 15th Asian Games was organized at 34 sporting (32) _, including
Khalifa Stadium, which hosted the opening and closing ceremonies. The Opening Ceremony
of the 15th Asian Games, Doha 2006, at Khalifa Stadium, was the most (33)
opening of any Games with 50,000 people to get into Khalifa Stadium and more than one
billion television viewers. The Doha Asian Games Organizing Committee (DAGOC) wanted
to ensure that everybody who saw the ceremony would have a memory for life as suggested
in the (34) "The Games of Your Life." The 15th Asian Games was a successful
sporting event that all (35) would never forget.
Question 31: A. symbolized B. represented C. expressed D. typified
Question 32: A. events B. facilities C. venues D. teams
Question 33: A. spectacular B. formal C. colorful D. elaborate
Question 34: A. portrait B. banner C. streamer D. slogan
Question 35: A. attendances B. attendees C. attendants D. attenders
Imagine the busy streets of New York City, an enormous place with millions of
people. Every day, the streets are congested with people going about their daily lives. Now
imagine a small robot in the middle of all of those people rolling down a busy sidewalk. Most
people would not even notice the teninch smiling robot, called a Tweenbot, rolling along the
street. This strange machine may interest some people, while others would ignore it
completely. A researcher interested in studying how helpful people really are uses such
robots in her experiments that take place on the streets of New York.
The Tweenbots experiment is the idea and creation of Kacie Kinzer. Kinzer’s idea
was to make a robot that could navigate the city and reach its destination only if it was aided
by pedestrians. Tweenbots rely on the kindness of warm-hearted strangers. Made simply of
cardboard, wheels, and a device to turn the wheels, the Tweenbots face many dangers on the
city streets. They could be run over by cars or smashed by careless kids. Kinzer thought her
little robots might even be seen as some kind of terrorist device. The only real protection a
Tweenbot has is its friendly smile. In addition to that, each of Kinzer’s robots is fitted with a
flag that displays instructions for the robot’s destination. The only way these robots will
reach their final point is if someone lends them a hand. Tweenbots are essentially a social
experiment aimed at providing people a chance to show how caring they are.
On a daily basis, people in New York City are often in a hurry to get around.
However, the Tweenbots, through their inability to look after themselves, took people out of
their normal routines. The people who noticed the helpless little robots were actually
interested in helping the Tweenbots find their way home. Tweenbots move at a constant
speed and can only go in a straight line. If one was to get stuck, or was going in the wrong
direction, it would be up to strangers to free it or turn it in the right direction. Surprisingly, no
Tweenbot was lost or damaged, and each one arrived at its target in good condition. In fact,
most people treated the robot in a gentle manner, and some even treated it as though it were a
small living being.
Even if you were in a rush to go somewhere, would you stop and help a Tweenbot
successfully reach its destination?
Question 36: What is this reading about?
A. A place to buy robots B. A new kind of toy

C. An experiment D. An interesting idea for the future
Question 37: What is a Tweenbot?
A. A person from New York City B. A ten-inch smiling robot
C. A pedestrian D. A terrorist device
Question 38: The word "congested" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
.
A. flocked B. secluded C. stuffed D. crowded
Question 39: How did a Tweenbot get to its final destination?
A. With the help of other Tweenbots B. With the help of kind pedestrians on the
street
C. With the help of Kacie Kinzer D. With the help of other robots in New
York City
Question 40: The word "is fitted with" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
.
A. is armed with B. is embedded with
C. is supplied with D. is assembled with
Question 41: Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
A. Most Tweenbots arrived at their destination damaged or broken.

B. Most people treated the Tweenbots in a gentle manner.
C. Tweenbots could not navigate the city on their own.
D. Tweenbots move at a constant speed and can only go in a straight line.
Question 42: What can be inferred about the Tweenbot?
A. They were useful for research. B. They were ignored by most people.
C. They were helpful for pedestrians. D. They did not work as planned.
By the mid-nineteenth century, the term "icebox" had entered the American language,
but ice was still only beginning to affect the diet of ordinary citizens in the United States. The
ice trade grew with the growth of cities. Ice was used in hotels, taverns, and hospitals, and by
some forward-looking city dealers in fresh meat, fresh fish, and butter. After the Civil War
(1860-1865), as ice was used to refrigerate freight cars, it also came into household use. Even
before 1880, half the ice sold in New York, Philadelphia, and Baltimore, and one-third of that
sold in Boston and Chicago, went to families for their own use. This had become possible
because a new household convenience, the icebox, a precursor of the modern refrigerator, had
been invented.
Making an efficient icebox was not as easy as we might now suppose. In the early
nineteenth century, the knowledge of the physics of heat, which was essential to a science of
refrigeration, was rudimentary. The common-sense notion that the best icebox was one that
prevented the ice from melting was of course mistaken, for it was the melting of the ice that
performed the cooling. Nevertheless, early efforts to economize ice included wrapping the ice
in blankets, which kept the ice from doing its job. Not until near the end of the nineteenth
century did inventors achieve the nice balance of insulation and circulation needed for an
efficient icebox.
But as early as 1803, an ingenious Maryland farmer, Thomas Moore, had been on the
right track. He owned a farm about twenty miles outside the city of Washington, for which
the village of Georgetown was the market center. When he used an icebox of his own design
to transport his butter to market, he found that customers would pass up the rapidly melting
stuff in the tubs of his competitors to pay a premium price for his butter, still fresh and hard
in neat, one-pound bricks. One advantage of his icebox, Moore explained, was that farmers
would no longer have to travel to market at night in order to keep their produce cool.
Question 43: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The influence of ice on the diet B. The development of refrigeration

C. The transportation of goods to market D. Sources of ice in the nineteenth century
Question 44: According to the passage, when did the word "icebox" become part of the
language of the United States?
A. In 1803 B. Sometime before 1850
C. During the Civil War D. 1950s
Question 45: The author mentions “fish” in the first paragraph because
.
A. many fish dealers also sold ice.
B. fish was shipped in refrigerated freight cars.
C. fish dealers were among the early commercial users of ice.
D. fish was not part of the ordinary person's diet before the invention of the icebox.
Question 46: According to the passage, which of the following was an obstacle to the
development of the icebox?
A. Competition among the owners of refrigerated freight cars
B. The lack of a network for the distribution of ice
C. The use of insufficient insulation
D. Inadequate understanding of physics
Question 47: The word "rudimentary" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
.
A. undeveloped B. growing C. necessary D. uninteresting
Question 48: The author describes Thomas Moore as having been "on the right track" to
indicate that .
A. the road to the market passed close to Moore's farm
B. Moore was an honest merchant
C. Moore was a prosperous farmer
D. Moore's design was fairly successful
Question 49: According to the passage, Moore's icebox allowed him to .
A. charge more for his butter B. travel to market at night
C. manufacture butter more quickly D. produce ice all year round
Question 50: The "produce" mentioned in the last paragraph could include
.
A. iceboxes B. butter C. ice D. markets
Đáp án
1-C 2-B 3-D 4-B 5-A 6-D 7-A 8-B 9-B 10-C
11-C 12-B 13-C 14-A 15-D 16-C 17-B 18-A 19-D 20-A
21-B 22-D 23-C 24-B 25-A 26-D 27-A 28-C 29-D 30-C
31-B 32-C 33-A 34-D 35-B 36-C 37-B 38-D 39-B 40-D
41-A 42-A 43-B 44-B 45-C 46-D 47-A 48-D 49-A 50-B
ĐỀ SỐ 14
Question 1: A. suitable B. biscuit C. guilty D. building
Question 2: A. chooses B. houses C. rises D. horses
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answersheet to indicate the word that differsfrom the
Question 3: A. fertilizer B. intensify C. ambiguous D. courageous
Question 4: A. interrupt B. mausoleum C. herbicide D. submarine
Question 5: Even though the extremely bad weather in the mountains, the climbers decided
not to cancel their climb .
A. Even though B. extremely C. not to cancel D. climb
Question 6: Bill was about average in performance in comparison with other students in his
class.
A. about average B. in C. with other students D. his
Question 7: When I got home, Irene was lying in bed thinking about what a wonderful time
she’s had.
A. got B. was lying C. thinking D. she’s had
Question 8: He’d hardly finished doing his homework when you arrived, ?
A. didn’t he B. had he C. would he D. hadn’t he
Question 9: The time has now come when it will be necessary to making a
plan.
A. see through B. see over C. see about D. see into
Question 10: A: “Why don’t we go to the cinema?” B: ―It’s too late. The film by
now.
A. will be started B. will be starting C. will have started D. has started
Question 11: : Don’t put David in charge of arranging the theater trip; he’s too
.
A. organized B. disorganized C. organizing D. well organized
Question 12: The play was not what we had expected.
A. just B. absolutely C. at all D. very
Question 13: She listened so attentively that not a word .
A. she had missed B. she missed C. she didn’t miss D. did she miss
Question 14: A: ―Did you have to do a lot of preparation for the meeting?
B: ― with the board, I reviewed all the proposals again.
A. Until I was meeting B. Prior to meeting
C. By the time I met D.Subsequently meeting
Question 15: The matter was so delicate that none of the ministers knew how to
it
A. manipulate B. deal C. affect D. handle
Question 16: that Emily Dickinson wrote, two were given titles and seven
were published during her lifetime.
A. Of the 1800 poems B. There were 1800 poems
C. Because the 1800 poems D. The 1800 poems
Question 17: Would you be my letters while I am away?
A. too good as to forward B. so good as to forward

C. as good as to forward D. so good as forwarding
Question 18: I must have a word _ Jack about timekeeping; this is the third
time this week he’s been late.
A. with B. for C. from D. toward
Question 19: Don’t worry! Our new product will keep your bathroom clean and .
A. odourless B. odour C. odourful D. odourlessly
Question 20: “More peas?”
“ ”
A. Help yourself to them. B. My honor.
C. No, that’ll do. Thank you. D. No more available.
Question 21: “Thank you for driving me home tonight.”
“ ”
A. Forget about it. I didn’t mean so. B. I highly appreciate what you did
C. It doesn’t matter anyway D. It’s nothing.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answersheet to indicate the word(s)CLOSEST in
meaning to theunderlinedword(s)ineachofthefollowingquestions.
Question 22: He is an honest man. You can rely on him to do a good job.
A. count on B. take in C. base on D. put up with
Question 23: The school orchestra played so many wrong notes that I had trouble keeping a
straight face.
A. try not to show that you are unhappy B. protect yourself from being embarrassed
C. do your best not to smile or laugh D. show dislike or disgust
Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the followingquestions
Question 24: Moving all the heavy cinder blocks by hand from the driveway to the backyard
seemed like an onerous task.
A. easy B. tedious C. interesting D. demanding
Question 25: I can’t understand why she did that. It really doesn’t add up.
A. makes the wrong addition B. doesn’t make sense
C. seem reasonable D. is not mathematics
Question 26: In order to stay open, the charity shop needs at least four helpers.
A. Four helpers are needed because the charity shop stays open.
B. No fewer than four helpers can enable the charity shop to stay open.
C. Staying open means that the charity shop has the maximum of four helpers.
D. The charity shop needs more than four helpers to stay open.
Question 27: There is no doubt that the tickets will be more expensive next month.
A. Next month the tickets will undoubtedly be not as cheap as they are now.
B. It is doubtful about the tickets’ price next month.
C. The tickets are not bound to be more expensive next month.
D. Next month maybe they will increase the price of the tickets.
Question 28: James could have been a classical musician if he’d continued his cello lessons.
A. It was only because James stopped taking lessons on the cello that he was unable to
become a classical musician.
B. Originally, James had wanted to become a classical musician, and so he took cello lessons
for a time.
C. It was the cello lessons that he took for a long time that enabled James to become a
classical musician.
D. James never became a classical musician, but he did continue taking cello lessons
nonetheless.
Question 29: He felt very tired. However, he was determined to continue to climb up the
mountain.
A. He felt so tired that he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
B. Feeling very tired, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
C. As a result of his tiredness, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
D. Tired as he might feel, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
Question 30: Access to the library computer facilities is open to all students
A. Computers in the library are not used for students.
B. Students can freely assess the library computer service.
C. Students are not allowed to use library computers.
D. The library computer facilities are accessible to students
the correctword or phrase that bestfits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to35.
It isn’t difficult to imagine how increases in international commerce and in the
movement of people—two defining features of globalization—might influence health. More
goods go more places today than at any (31) in history. More people travel
farther, more frequently, and come in contact with more people and goods, than at any point
in history.
This increased movement of both goods and people increases opportunities for the
spread of disease around the world. And it’s not just goods and services that can travel across
oceans and state borders—so can diseases like AIDS, malaria, or tuberculosis. The
(32) of BSE, or ―mad cow disease,‖ in several European countries is only
one example of (33) trade can promote the spread of dangerous diseases.
Mosquitoes that carry malaria have been found aboard planes thousands of miles from their
primary habitats, and (34) seafood carrying cholera bacteria have been shipped
from Latin America to the United States and Europe.
But just as globalization increases the frequency and ease (35) which
diseases can move around the world, it also can improve access to the medicines, medical
information, and training that can help treat or cure these diseases.
Question 31: A. spot B. end C. point D. position
Question 32: A. outbreak B. disruption C. corruption D. suspension
Question 33: A. what B. how C. which D. when
Question 34: A. diseased B. treated C. infectious D. infected
Question 35: A. with B. for C. from D. by
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42
Leisure activity isn’t just for fun, says a University of Florida psychologist who has
developed a scale that classifies hobbies and avocations based on needs they satisfy in
people. The scale can help people find more personal fulfillment by giving them insight into
what they really like and by helping them to find substitutes when they can’t pursue their
favorite activities.
“The surprising thing is that activities you might think are very different have similar
effects on people” said Howard E.A. Tinsley, a UF psychology professor who developed the
measurement. ―Probably no one would consider acting to have the same characteristics as
roller-skating or playing baseball, but men and women who act as a hobby report feeling an
intense sense of belonging to a group, much the same way others do in playing sports.
And activities providing the strongest sense of competition are not sports, but card,
arcade and computer games, he found.
Tinsley, whose research on leisure has been published in several journals, is
scheduled this spring to present some of the findings in Milwaukee at a conference of the
Society for Vocational Psychology.
Based on surveys with more than 3,000 people about the satisfactions they get from
various hobbies, Tinsley obtained numerical scores for values such as “challenge” and
“hedonism”, and grouped some 82 leisure activities into 11 categories. For example, dining
out and watching movies fall into the “sensual enjoyment” category, playing soccer and
attending sports clubs meetings satisfy participants’ desires for a sense of “belongingness”
and coin collecting and baking fulfill their need for “creativity”.
“With so many people in jobs they don’t care for, leisure is a prized aspect of people’s
lives,” Tinsley said. “Yet it’s not something psychologists really study. Economists tell us
how much money people spend skiing, but nobody explains what it is about skiing that is
really appealing to people or how one activity relates to another, perhaps in unexpected
ways.”
“Fishing, generally considered more of an outdoor or recreational activity, for
example, is a form of self-expression like quilting or stamp collecting, because it gives
people the opportunity to express themselves by doing something completely different from
their daily routine,”he said.
Question 36: The word "substitutes" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
.
A. delight B. revenge C. replacement D. attraction
Question 37: Which of the following is NOT true?
A. Both acting and roller-skating give people a feeling of being a part of a team.
B. Collecting things satisfied people’s desire for making things.
C. Fishing allows you to show the type of person you are.
D. Researchers already know why a hobby attracts a person.
Question 38: Which of the following is not mentioned as a category in Tinsley’s scale?
A. hedonism B. belongingness C. initiative D. sensual enjoyment
Question 39: Taking part in sports gives you .
A. the strongest desire to win B. a need for creativity

C. the chance to express your feelings D. a sense of being part of a team
Question 40: The word "it" in the last paragraph refers to .
A. fishing B. activity C. self-expression D. stamp collecting

Question 41: Which sentence best summarizes the passage?
A. Leisure activity and sport are totally different.

B. A person’s personality is expressed via his hobbies.
C. Leisure activities satisfy people’s particular desires.
D. Sports affect a person’s personality.
Question 42: The findings in the passage by Howard E.A.Tinsley are somewhat
A. funny B. surprising C. predictable D. useless
Archaeological records - paintings, drawings and carvings of humans engaged in
activities involving the use of hands - indicate that humans have been predominantly right-
handed for more than 5,000 years. In ancient Egyptian artwork, for example, the right hand is
depicted as the dominant one in about 90 percent of the examples. Fracture or wear patterns on
tools also indicate that a majority of ancient people were right-handed. Cro-Magnon cave
paintings some 27,000 years old commonly show outlines of human hands made by placing one
hand against the cave wall and applying paint with the other. Children today make similar
outlines of their hands with crayons on paper. With few exceptions, left hands of CroMagnons
are displayed on cave walls, indicating that the paintings were usually done by right-handers.
Anthropological evidence pushes the record of handedness in early human ancestors back
to at least 1.4 million years ago. One important line of evidence comes from flaking patterns of
stone cores used in tool making: implements flaked with a clockwise motion (indicating a right-
handed toolmaker) can be distinguished from those flaked with a counter-clockwise rotation
(indicating a left-handed toolmaker).
Even scratches found on fossil human teeth offer clues. Ancient humans are thought to
have cut meat into strips by holding it between their teeth and slicing it with stone knives, as do
the present-day Inuit. Occasionally the knives slip and leave scratches on the users' teeth.
Scratches made with a left-to-right stroke direction (by right-handers) are more common than
scratches in the opposite direction (made by lefthanders).
Still other evidence comes from cranial morphology: scientists think that physical
differences between the right and left sides of the interior of the skull indicate subtle physical
differences between the two sides of the brain. The variation between the hemispheres
corresponds to which side of the body is used to perform specific activities. Such studies, as well
as studies of tool use, indicate that right- or leftsided dominance is not exclusive to modern
Homo sapiens. Population of Neanderthals, such as Homo erectus and Homo Habilis, seem to
have been predominantly right-handed, as we are.
Question 43: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Human ancestors became predominantly right-handed when they began to use tools.
B. It is difficult to interpret the significance of anthropological evidence concerning tool use.
C. Humans and their ancestors have been predominantly right-handed for over a million
years.
D. Human ancestors were more skilled at using both hands than modern humans.
Question 44: The word "other" in the first paragraph refers to .
A. outline B. hand C. wall D. paint
Question 45: What does the author say about Cro-Magnon paintings of hands?
A. Some are not very old. B. It is unusual to see such paintings.
C. Many were made by children. D. The artists were mostly right-handed
Question 46: When compared with implements "flaked with a counter-clockwise rotation”, it
can be inferred that "implements flaked with a clock-wise motion" are .
A. more common B. larger C. more sophisticated D. older
Question 47: The fact that the Inuit cut meat by holding it between their teeth is significant
because .
A. . the relationship between handedness and scratches on fossil human teeth can be
verified
B. it emphasizes the differences between contemporary humans and their ancestors
C. the scratch patterns produced by stone knives vary significantly from patterns produced by
modern knives
D. it demonstrates that ancient humans were not skilled at using tools
Question 48: Why does the author mention Homo erectus and Home Habilis in the last
paragraph?
A. To contrast them with modern humans
B. To explain when human ancestors began to make tools
C. To show that early humans were also predominantly right handed
D. To prove that the population of Neanderthals was very large
Question 49: All of the follows are mentioned as types of evidence concerning handedness
EXCEPT .
A. ancient artwork B. asymmetrical skulls
C. studies of tool use D. fossilized hand bones
Question 50: Which of the following conclusions is suggested by the evidence from cranial
morphology?
A. Differences in the hemispheres of the brain probably came about relatively recently.
B. There may be a link between handedness and differences in the brain's hemispheres
C. Left-handedness was somewhat more common among Neanderthals
D.Variation between the brain hemispheres was not evident in the skulls of Home Erectus and
Home Habilis.
Đáp án
1-A 2-D 3-A 4-C 5-A 6-C 7-D 8-B 9-C 10-C
11-B 12-C 13-D 14-B 15-D 16-A 17-B 18-A 19-A 20-C
21-D 22-A 23-C 24-A 25-C 26-B 27-A 28-A 29-D 30-D
31-C 32-A 33-B 34-D 35-A 36-C 37-D 38-C 39-D 40-A
41-C 42-B 43-C 44-B 45-D 46-A 47-A 48-C 49-D 50-B
ĐỀ SỐ 15
Question 1: A. aboard B. keyboard C. cupboard D. overboard
Question 2: A. coached B. needed C. wanted D. beloved
the other three in the position of primary stress sine achofthefollowingquestions.
Question 3: A. struggle B. enlarge C. occur D. survive
Question 4: A. predominance B. environment C. technology D. superstition
superstition needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 5: I like the fresh air and green trees of the village which I spent my vacation last
year.
A. the fresh B. green trees C. which D. vacation
Question 6: In the early 1900's, Pennsylvania's industries grew rapidly, a growth sometimes
accompanied by disputes labor .
A. industries B. growth sometimes C. accompanied D. disputes labor
Question 7: Some people often say that using cars is not as convenient than using
motorbikes.
A. often say B. using cars C. than D. using motorbikes
Question 8: “It’s about time you your homework, Mary.”
A. must do B. do C. did D. will do

Question 9: In our team, no person John could finish this tough task in such a short
time.
A. outside B. other than C. including D. rather than
Question 10: he got top marks at high school, he never went to university.
A. Although B. Despite C. Meanwhile D. Nevertheless
Question 11: Connecticut was the fifth of the original thirteen states the Constitution
of the United States.
A. to ratify B. ratify C. ratified D. have ratified
Question 12: His honesty is ; nobody can doubt it.

A. in question B. beside the question C. without question D. out of the question
Question 13: The Moon is much closer to Earth , and thus it had greater influence on
the tides.
A. but the Sun is B. where the Sun is C. than is the Sun D. unlike the Sun
Question 14: The government was finally _ by a minor scandal.
A. put back B. brought down C. pulled down D. taken down
Question 15: Having traveled to different parts of our country, .
A. we have learned a lot about interesting lifestyles and customs
B. we are seeing a lot of interesting lifestyles and customs
C. many interesting lifestyles and customs have been learned by us
D. much has been learned about interesting lifestyles and customs
Question 16: We expressed the missing child would be found alive.
A. the hope for B. the hope which C. as we hoped D. the hope that
Question 17: I with my aunt when I am on holiday in Ho Chi Minh City next month.
A. will have been staying B. will have stayed
C. stay D. will be staying
Question 18: Nowadays, with the help of the computer, teachers have developed a
approach to teaching.
A. multilingual B. multilateral C. multiple-choice D. multimedia
Question 19: He died lung cancer last month, leaving his wife in great shock.
A. for B. by C. of D. in
Question 20: Ann: “Do you need any help?”
Kate: “ .”
A. That’s fine by me B. No, thanks. I can manage

C. I haven’t got a clue D. That’s all for now
Question 21: Tom: “Can I have another cup of tea?”
Christy: “ .”
A. Be yourself. B. Do it yourself. C. Allow yourself. D. Help yourself. Mark
the letter A, B, C, or D on your answersheet to indicate the word(s)CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the followingquestions.
Question 22: Just like hearing infants who start first with simple syllable babbling, then put
more syllables together to sound like real sentences and questions, deaf babies follow the
same pattern.
A. able to hear B. obedient to parents
C. physically abnormal D. hard of hearing
Question 23: Dozens of applicants showed up for the vacant position, but only a handful of
them were shortlisted for the interview
A. small number B. hand C. class D. small amount
A. an active society B. an inactive society C. a physical society D. a working society

Question 25: She is a very generous old woman. She has given most of her wealth to a
charity organization.
A. mean B. amicable C. kind D. hospitable
Question 26: There is no question of changing my mind about resigning.
A. Nobody knows about my decision on resigning.
B. They asked me no question about resigning.
C. I should have changed my mind about resigning.
D. I certainly won’t change my mind about resigning.
Question 27: I forgot to lock the door before leaving.
A. I remembered that I left the door locked before going out.

B. I didn’t remember whether I locked the door before leaving.
C. I left without remembering to lock the door.
D. I locked the door before leaving, but I forgot about it.
Question 28: When there is so much traffic on the roads, it is sometimes quicker to walk than
to go by car.
A.During rush hours, walking gives me much more pleasure than driving in the heavy traffic.
B. It is faster to walk than to drive in the heavy traffic at certain time of the day.
C. The traffic is always so heavy that you’d better walk to work; it’s quicker.
D. There is so much traffic these days that it is more pleasant to walk than to drive
Question 29: People should not throw rubbish in the park. People should not cut down the
trees in the park.
A. People should both cut down the trees and throw rubbish in the park.
B. People should neither throw rubbish nor cut down the trees in the park.
C. People should throw rubbish and cut down the trees in the park.
D. People should either throw rubbish or cut down the trees in the park.
Question 30: The team reached the top of the mountain. The team spent a night there.
A. The team had not only reached the top of the mountain, but they spend a night there as
well.
B. Not only did the team reach the top of the mountain but they also spent a night there.
C. only did the team reach the top of the mountain but they also spent a night there as well.
D. The team both reach the top of the mountain but they also spent a night there.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answersheet to indicate
the correctword orphrase that bestfits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
In a world where 2 billion people live in homes that don't have light bulbs, technology
holds the key (31)_ _ banishing poverty. Even the simplest technologies can transform lives
and save money. Vaccines, crops, computers and sources of solar energy can all reduce poverty
in developing countries. For example, cheap oral-rehydration therapy developed in Bangladesh
has dramatically cut the death (32) from childhood diarrhoea.
But even when such technologies exist, the depressing fact is that we can’t make them
cheap enough for those who most need them. Solar panels, batteries and light bulbs are still
beyond the purse of many, but where they have been installed they change lives. A decent light
in the evening gives children more time for homework and extends the productive day for adults.
Kenya has a thriving solar industry and six years ago Kenyan pioneers also started connecting
schools to the Internet via radio links. These people were fortunate in being able to afford
solar panels, radios and old computers. How much bigger would the impact be if these
things (33) and priced specifically for poor people?
Multinationals must become part of the solution, because (34) they own around 60
per cent of the world's technology, they seldom make products for poor customers. Of 1,223 new
drugs marketed worldwide from 1975 to 1996, for example, just 13 were for tropical diseases.
People think those enterprises should do more to provide vital products such as medicines
at different prices around the world to suit (35) people can afford. Alternatively, they
could pay a percentage of their profit towards research and development for the poor.
(Adapted from “The Price is Wrong” in “Focus on IELTS Foundations” by Sue
O’Connell, Pearson Longman, 2006)
Question 31: A. to B. at C. with D. for

Question 32: A. amount B. penalty C. toll D. number
Question 33: A. havebeenmade B. were made C. are made D. made
Question 34: A. unless B. however C. when D. while
Question 35: A. which B. what C. where D. that
In 1826, a Frenchman named Niépce needed pictures for his business. He was not a
good artist, so he invented a very simple camera. He put it in a window of his house and took
a picture of his yard. That was the first photograph.
The next important date in the history of photography was 1837. That year, Daguerre,
another Frenchman, took a picture of his studio. He used a new kind of camera and a
different process. In his pictures, you could see everything clearly, even the smallest details.
This kind of photograph was called a daguerreotype.
Soon, other people began to use Daguerre's process. Travelers brought back
daguerreotypes from all around the world. People photographed famous buildings, cities, and
mountains.
In about 1840, the process was improved. Then photographers could take pictures of
people and moving things. The process was not simple and photographers had to carry lots of
film and processing equipment. However, this did not stop photographers, especially in the
United States. After 1840, daguerreotype artists were popular in most cities.
Matthew Brady was one well-known American photographer. He took many portraits
of famous people. The portraits were unusual because they were lifelike and full of
personality. Brady was also the first person to take pictures of a war. His 1862 Civil War
pictures showed dead soldiers and ruined cities. They made the war seem more real and more
terrible.
In the 1880s, new inventions began to change photography. Photographers could buy
film readymade in rolls, instead of having to make the film themselves. Also, they did not
have to process the film immediately. They could bring it back to their studios and develop it
later. They did not have to carry lots of equipment. And finally, the invention of the small
handheld camera made photography less expensive.
With a small camera, anyone could be a photographer. People began to use cameras
just for fun. They took pictures of their families, friends, and favorite places. They called
these pictures "snapshots".
Documentary photographs became popular in newspapers in the 1890s. Soon
magazines and books also used them. These pictures showed true events and people. They
were much more real than drawings.
Some people began to think of photography as a form of art. They thought that
photography could do more than show the real world. It could also show ideas and feelings,
like other art forms. From “Reading Power” by Beatrice S. Mikulecky and Linda Jeffries
Question 36: Daguerre took a picture of his studio with .
A. a new kind of camera B. a very simple camera
C. special equipment D. an electronic camera
Question 37: The word “this” in the passage refers to .
A. carrying of lots of film and processing equipment

B. stopping of photographers from taking photos
C. fact that daguerreotype artists were popular in most cities
D. taking of pictures of people and moving things
Question 38: The word “ruined” in the passage is closest in meaning to “_ ”.
A. poorly-painted B. heavily-polluted C. terribly spoiled D. badly damaged

Question 39: The latest invention mentioned in the passage is the invention of .
A. . handheld cameras B. processing equipment
C. daguerreotypes D. rolls of film
Question 40: The word “handheld” in the passage is closest in meaning to “ ”.
A. handling manually B. held by hand

C. controlling hands D. operated by hand
Question 41: As mentioned in the passage, photography can _.
A. print old pictures B. convey ideas and feelings

C. show the underworld D. replace drawings
Question 42: Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?
A. Different Steps in Film Processing B. Story of Photography
C. Photography and Painting D. Story of Famous Photographers
Architecture is the practice of building design and its resulting products; customary usage
refers only to those designs and structures that are culturally significant. Architecture is to
building as literature is to the printed word. Vitruvius, a 1st-century BC Roman, wrote
encyclopedically about architecture, and the English poet Sir Henry Wotton was quoting him in
his charmingly phrased dictum: “Well building hath three conditions: Commoditie, Firmenes,
and Delight.” More prosaically, one would say today that architecture must satisfy its intended
uses, must be technically sound, and must convey aesthetic meaning. But the best buildings are
often so well constructed that they outlast their original use. They then survive not only as
beautiful objects, but as documents of the history of cultures, achievements in architecture that
testify to the nature of the society that produced them. These achievements are never wholly the
work of individuals. Architecture is a social art.
Architectural form is inevitably influenced by the technologies applied, but building
technology is conservative and knowledge about it is cumulative. Precast concrete, for instance,
has not rendered brick obsolete. Although design and construction have become highly
sophisticated and are often computer directed, this complex apparatus rests on preindustrial
traditions inherited from millennia during which most structures were lived in by the people who
erected them. The technical demands on building remain the elemental ones – to exclude
enemies, to circumvent gravity, and to avoid discomforts caused by an excess of heat or cold or
by the intrusion of rain, wind, or vermin. This is no trivial assignment even with the best modern
technology.
The availability of suitable materials fostered the crafts to exploit them and influenced the
shapes of buildings. Large areas of the world were once forested, and their inhabitants developed
carpentry. Although it has become relatively scarce, timber remains an important building
material.
Many kinds of stone lend themselves to building. Stone and marble were chosen for
important monuments because they are incombustible and can be expected to endure. Stone is
also a sculptural material; stone architecture was often integral with stone sculpture. The use of
stone has declined, however, because a number of other materials are more amenable to
industrial use and assembly.
Some regions lack both timber and stone; their peoples used the earth itself, tamping
certain mixtures into walls or forming them into bricks to be dried in the sun. Later they baked
these substances in kilns, producing a range of bricks and tiles with greater durability.
(Extracted from Microsoft® Encarta® 2009 Encyclopedia – DVD Version)
Question 43: According to the passage, the term “architecture” is normally used to refer to
the designs and structures that have .
A. religious significance B. social importance

C. technical importance D. cultural significance
Question 44: Which of the following is NOT considered an essential characteristic of
architecture according to the passage?
A. Strength B. Utility C. Economy D. Beauty
Question 45: When well-constructed buildings exist longer than their original use, they serve
as .
A. monuments to ancient time heroes B. museums and exhibition galleries
C. witnesses to major ancient wars D. witnesses to their historical times
Question 46: The author uses the phrase “social art” in the first paragraph to emphasise that
architecture is an .
A. art that belongs to a society B. art that is very much socialised
C. achievement of many people D. achievement of many sociologists
Question 47: According to the passage, knowledge about building technology .
A. is always influenced by a wide range of technological applications
B. has experienced complete changes for generations
C. is based on modern technologies rather than traditions
D. includes the experience gained from generation to generation.
Question 48: The word “obsolete” in paragraph 2 mostly means .
A. out of date B. out of place C. out of order D. out of hand

Question 49: According to the passage, stone and marble were used for buildings of
historical importance because they .
A. make structures look more attractive B. are inflammable and endurable
C. give warmth and comfort to their owners D. are non-flammable and last long
Question 50: According to the passage, today stone has been used less as a building material
because .
A. there have been other more suitable materials for industrial use
B. stone architecture is essential to the number of stone sculptures
C. it has less influence on the shapes of buildings and sculptures
D. it has become relatively scarce and more difficult to exploit
Đáp án
1-C 2-A 3-A 4-D 5-C 6-D 7-C 8-C 9-B 10-A
11-A 12-C 13-C 14-B 15-A 16-D 17-D 18-D 19-C 20-B
21-D 22-A 23-A 24-B 25-A 26-D 27-C 28-B 29-B 30-B
31-A 32-C 33-B 34-D 35-B 36-A 37-A 38-D 39-A 40-B
41-B 42-B 43-D 44-C 45-D 46-C 47-D 48-A 49-D 50-A
ĐỀ SỐ 14
Question 1: A. work B. pork C. force D. form
Question 2: A. breathe B. bathe C. theater D. clothes
Question 3: A. release B. offer C. amaze D. believe
Question 4: A. tradition B. memory C. socialise D. animal
Question 5: These exercises look easy, but they are very relatively difficult for us.
A. These exercises B. easy C. very relatively D. for
Question 6: It was not until the end of prehistoric times that the first wheeled
vehicles appearing .
A. until the end B. prehistoric C. the first D. appearing
Question 7: As the old one, this new copier can perform its functions in half the time.
A. As B. can perform C. its functions D. in half the time
Question 8: Communities in remote areas are extremely to famine if crops fail.

A. helpless B. disappointed C. vulnerable D. defenseless
Question 9: I could hear voices but I couldn’t what they were saying.
A. bring about B. make out C. try out D. turn up
Question 10: Do you remember to help us when we were in difficulty?

A. to offer B. once offering C. you offer D. being offered
Question 11: You can use my car you drive carefully.
A. though B. as though C. as long as D. lest
Question 12: A large number of workmen _ because of the economic recession.

A. have laid down B. has laid aside C. have been laid off D. has been laid out
Question 13: “What if the earth stopped moving?”
A. happened B. would happen C. happens D. will happen

Question 14: He wasn't attending the lecture properly and missed most of .
A. things said by the teacher B. that the teacher said
C. which the teacher said D. what the teacher said
Question 15: He's sometimes bad-tempered but he's a good fellow .
A. at heart B. by heart C. with heart D. in heart
Question 16: : I'll give this dictionary to wants to have it.
A. anyone B. whatever C. everyone D. whoever

Question 17: Due to ever more spreading poaching, there a dramatic decline in the
number of elephants over the last decade
A. has been B. is C. was D. had been
Question 18: People don’t like the way he shows off, ?
A. don’t they B. do they C. does he D. doesn’t he

Question 19: The language centre offers courses of various levels, such as elementary,
intermediate and .
A. advance B. advancement C. advanced D. advancing
Question 20: Thanh: “Lan’s the best singer in our school.” Nadia: “ ”
A. Yes, tell me about it! B. . I can’t agree with you more!
C. That’s OK! D. Yes, please.
Question 21: : Mai: “Do you want another serving of chicken soup?”
Scott: “ .”
A. No way B. No comment C. No thanks D. No longer
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s)CLOSEST in

Question 22: Within a week on display at the exhibition, the painting was hailed as a
masterpiece.
A. a large work of art B. an expensive work of art
C. an excellent work of art D. a down-to-earth work of art
Question 23: These were the people who advocated using force to stop school violence.
A. publicly said B. publicly supported

C. strongly condemned D. openly criticized
Question 24: Vietnam’s admission to the World Trade Organisation (WTO) has promoted
its trade relations with other countries.

A. balanced B. restricted C. expanded D. boosted
Question 25: The consequences of the typhoon were disastrous due to the lack of
precautionary measures.
A. physical B. severe C. beneficial D. damaging
Question 26: Thanks to the efforts of environmentalists, people are becoming better aware of
the problems of endangered species.
A. Environmentalists are expressing their gratitude towards people who are better aware of
the problems of endangered species.
B. People owe their growing awareness of the problems of endangered species to the efforts
of environmentalists.
C. People have no idea about the problems of endangered species in spite of the efforts of
environmentalists.
D. Environmentalists are doing their best to make people aware of the problems of
endangered species.
Question 27: Peter’s main subject at university is electronics.
A. The university lets Peter major in electronics.

B. Electronics is among the subjects that Peter likes.
C. Peter thinks electronics is a special subject.
D. Peter majors in electronics at university.
Question 28: I could not get the job because I did not speak English well.
A. I would have spoken English well if I could get that job.
B. I wish I had got the job so that I could speak English well.
C. Despite my poor English, I was successful in the job.
D. I failed to get the job because of my poor English.
Question 29: The demand was so great. They had to reprint the book immediately.
A. They demanded that the book be reprinted immediately.
B. So great was the demand that they had to reprint the book immediately.
C. The book would be reprinted immediately since the demand was great.
D. They demanded to reprint the book immediately.
Question 30: He did not work hard. He failed the exam.
A. Even though he failed the exam, he didn’t work hard.
B. Unless he had worked hard, he would have failed the exam.
C. If he had worked hard, he would have passed the exam.
D. However hard he worked, he failed the exam.
indicate the correct word or phrase that bestfits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to35.
In addition to the challenge to be excellent, American schools have been facing novel
problems. They must (31) with an influx of immigrant children, many of whom speak
little or no English. They must respond to demands that the curriculum reflect the various
cultures of all children. Schools must make sure that students develop basic skills for the job
market, and they must consider the needs of nontraditional students, such as teenage mothers.
Schools are (32) these problems in ways that reflect the diversity of the US
educational system. They are hiring or training large numbers of teachers of English as a
second language and, in some communities, setting up bilingual schools. They are opening up
the traditional European-centered curriculum to embrace material from African, Asian, and
other cultures.
Schools are also teaching cognitive skills to the (33) 40 percent of American
students who do not go on to higher education. In the (34) of a recent report by the
Commission on Achieving Necessary Skills, “A strong back, the willingness to work, and a
high school diploma were once all that was necessary to (35) a start in America. They
are no longer. A well- developed mind, a continued willingness to learn and the ability to put
knowledge to work are the new keys to the future of our young people, the success of our
business, and the economic well-being of the nation.”
(Extracted from InfoUSA – CD Version)
Question 31: A. do B. stay C. fight D. cope

Question 32: A. addressing B. delivering C. distributing D. discharging
Question 33: A. slightly B. mostly C. fairly D. nearly
Question 34: A. minds B. directions C. words D. ways
Question 35: A. make B. take C. get D. bring
The ability to conduct electricity is one of the key properties of a metal. Other solid
materials such as silicon can conduct electricity but only effectively at certain temperatures.
Also, some substances such as salt (sodium chloride) can conduct when molten or when
dissolved in water. The ability of metals to conduct electricity is due to how their atoms bond
together. In order to bond together the metal atoms lose at least one of their outermost
electrons. This leaves the metal atoms with a positive charge and they are now strictly ions.
The lost electrons are free to move in what is known as a sea of electrons. Since the electrons
are negatively charged they attract the ions and this is what keeps the structure together.
An electric current is a flow of charge and since the electrons in the sea of electrons are
free to move they can be made to flow in one direction when a source of electrical energy
such as a battery is connected to the metal. Hence we have an electric current flowing
through the wire, and this is what makes metals such good conductors of electricity. The only
other common solid conducting material that pencil users are likely to encounter is graphite
(what the „lead’ of a pencil is made from). Graphite is a form of carbon and again the carbon
atoms bond in such a way that there is a sea of electrons that can be made to flow as an
electric current. Likewise, if we have an ionic substance like salt we can make the electrically
charged ions flow to create a current but only when those ions are free to move, either when
the substance is a liquid or dissolved in water. In its solid state an ionic substance like salt
cannot conduct electricity as its charged ions cannot flow.
Electrical insulators are substances that cannot conduct electricity well either, because
they contain no charged particles or any charged particles they might contain do not flow
easily. Water itself is a poor conductor of electricity as it does not contain a significant
amount of fully charged particles (the ends of a water molecule are partly charged but overall
the molecule is neutral). However, most water we encounter does contain dissolved charged
particles, so it will be more conductive than pure water. Many of the problems that occur
when touching electrical devices with wet hands result from the ever-present salt that is left
on our skin through perspiration and it dissolves in the water to make it more conductive.
By Helena Gillespie and Rob Gillespie. Science for Primary School Teachers. OUP
Question 36: According to the passage, a metal can conduct electricity due to .
A. the way its atoms bond together B. the absence of free electrons
C. its atoms with a positive charge D. the loss of one electron in the core of its
atoms
Question 37: The word “outermost” in paragraph 1 mostly means .
A. the heaviest B. furthest from the inside

C. nearest to the inside D. the lightest
Question 38: Salt in its solid state is not able to conduct electricity because .
A. . its charged ions can flow easily B. it cannot create any charged ions
C. it has free electrons D. its charged ions are not free to move
Question 39: Water is a poor conductor because it contains .
A. only a positive electric charge B. only a small amount of fully charged particles
C. only a negative electric charge D. no positive or negative electric charge
Question 40: We can have problems when touching electrical devices with wet hands
because .
A. the water itself is a good conductor of electricity
B. the water contains too many neutral molecules
C. the water containing no charged particles makes it more conductive
D. the water dissolves the salt on our skin and becomes more conductive
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Graphite is a common solid substance that can conduct electricity.
B. Salt can conduct electricity when it is molten or dissolved.
C. Pure water is much more conductive than most water we encounter every day.
D. Some materials are more conductive than others.
A. Electrical Insulators B. Electrical Energy
C. Electrical Conductivity D. Electrical Devices
Most journeys in Britain and the US are made by road. Some of these are made on public
transport but most are by private car.
In Britain many people rely on their cars for daily local activities, e.g. getting to work,
doing the shopping, and visiting friends. People living in urban areas may use buses, trains or, in
London, the Underground, to get to city centres, mainly because traffic is often heavy and it is
difficult to find anywhere to park a car. Some places in the country may have a bus only two or
three times a week so people living there have no choice but to rely on their cars.
In the US large cities have good public transportation systems. The El railroad in Chicago
and the underground systems of New York, Boston, San Francisco and Washington, DC are
heavily used. Elsewhere, most Americans prefer to use their cars. Families often have two cars
and, outside major cities, have to drive fairly long distances to schools, offices, shops, banks, etc.
Many college and even high-school students have their own cars.
Long-distance travel in Britain is also mainly by road, though railways link most towns
and cities. Most places are linked by motorways or other fast roads and many people prefer to
drive at their own convenience rather than use a train, even though they may get stuck in a
traffic jam. Long-distance coach/bus services are usually a cheaper alternative to trains, but they
take longer and may be less comfortable. Some long-distance travel, especially that undertaken
for business reasons, may be by air. There are regular flights between regional airports, as well
as to and from London. A lot of freight is also distributed by road, though heavier items and raw
materials often go by rail.
In the US much long-distance travel is by air. America has two main long-distance bus
companies, Greyhound and Trailways. Amtrak, the national network, provides rail services for
passengers. Private railway companies such as Union Pacific now carry only freight, though in
fact over 70% of freight goes by road.
The main problems associated with road transport in both Britain and the US are traffic
congestion and pollution. It is predicted that the number of cars on British roads will increase by
a third within a few years, making both these problems worse. The British government would
like more people to use public transport, but so far they have had little success in persuading
people to give up their cars or to share rides with neighbours. Most people say that public
transport is simply not good enough. Americans too have resisted government requests to share
cars because it is less convenient and restricts their freedom. Petrol/gasoline is relatively cheap in
the US and outside the major cities public transport is bad, so they see no reason to use their cars
less.
(Extracted from Oxford Guide to British and American Culture, Oxford University Press,
2000)
Question 43: According to the passage, people in London may prefer the Underground to
their own cars due to .
A. heavy traffic B. cheap tickets C. long distances D. air pollution
Question 44: It is mentioned in paragraph 3 that the public transportation systems in the US
are good in .
A. large cities B. large states C. some states D. all cities
Question 45: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Few college students in the US have their own cars.
B. The underground systems are popular in some major US cities.
C. Most Americans prefer to drive their cars outside large cities.
D. Families in the US often have more than one car.
Question 46: The phrase “at their own convenience” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
.
A. at an early time and nearby place B. at the fastest time and nearest place
C. at the latest time and nearest place D. at an appropriate time and place
Question 47: Which of the following is true about transport in Britain?
A. Trains are usually cheaper than long-distance coach services.
B. There are no regular flights between regional airports.
C. Heavier items and raw materials are often transported by train.
D. Long-distance travel in Britain is only by road.
Question 48: It is stated in the passage that the major problems of road transport in Britain
and the US are .
A. speeding and bad roads B. drink-driving and traffic jams
C. traffic jams and pollution D. accidents and pollution
Question 49: According to the passage, people in Britain refuse public transport because
.
A. they think it is not good enough B. they see no reason to use their cars less
C. petrol is relatively cheap in Britain D. they like to share rides with neighbours
Question 50: The word “they” in the last sentence of the passage can best be replaced by
.
A. major cities B. Americans C. the government D. neighbours
Đáp án
1-A 2-C 3-B 4-A 5-C 6-D 7-A 8-C 9-B 10-B
11-C 12-C 13-B 14-D 15-A 16-D 17-A 18-B 19-C 20-B
21-C 22-C 23-B 24-B 25-C 26-B 27-D 28-D 29-B 30-C
31-D 32-A 33-D 34-C 35-A 36-A 37-B 38-D 39-B 40-D
41-C 42-C 43-A 44-A 45-A 46-D 47-C 48-C 49-A 50-B
ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH – SỐ 17
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose
underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following
questions.
Question 1: A. visible B. decision C. disease D. design
Question 2: A. chin B. chaos C. child D. charge
the other threein theposition ofprimarystressin each ofthefollowingquestions.
Question 3: A. rubbish B. career C. actor D. cocktail
Question 4: A. biology B. inaccurate C. ability D. interactive
Question 5: Our astronauts chosen for fly spacecraft were selected from military test pilots.
A. chosen for fly B. spacecraft C. were D. pilots
Question 6: Looking from afar, the village resembles a small green spot dotted with tiny
fireballs.
A. Looking B. resembles C. green spot D. with
Question 7: There was a very interesting news on the radio this morning about the
earthquake in Italy.
A. There was B. a C. on D. about
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the following questions.
Question 8: They live on a busy road. a lot of noise from traffic.

A. There must have B. It must have been C. There must be D. It must be
Question 9: They have demanded that all copies of the book .
A. being destroyed B. be destroyed C. to be destroyed D. would be destroyed
Question 10: make a good impression on her.
A. Only by doing so can I B. Only so doing can I

C. Only by so doing I can D. Only by doing so I can
Question 11: No matter how angry he was, he would never to violence.
A. refuse B. resort C. resist D. resolve
Question 12: He came a lot of criticism for the remarks he made in a television
interview.
A. in for B. over C. out of D. off
Question 13: The water supply of our home city has failed to average purity
requirements.
A. see B. meet C. own D. hold
Question 14: I would join that running competition .
A. when I was 5 years older B. if I were 5 years younger

C. if it would happen 5 years ago D. unless I were 5 years younger
Question 15: my personal qualities, I have experience of working in a multi-national
company for three years.
A. Beside B. In addition C. Instead of D. Apart from
Question 16: It is _ work of art that everyone wants to have a look at it.
A. such an unusual B. such unusual a C. a so unusual D. so an unusual
Question 17: During our stay in Venice, we bought a bottle.
A. glass lovely perfume B. lovely glass perfume

C. lovely perfume glass D. glass perfume lovely
Question 18: Don’t worry! He’ll do the job as as possible.
A. economical B. economically C. uneconomically D. beautifully

Question 19: Books and magazines around made his room very untidy.
A. that lie B. laying C. which lied D. lying
190014 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most
suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: Lora: “Do you mind if I turn on the fan?”

Maria: “ ”
A. Not for me B. Not at all C. Never mind D. Not enough
Question 21: Lucy: “You look really nice in that red sweater!”
Sue: “ .”
A. I’m afraid so. B. How dare you? C. Don’t mention it. D. Thank you.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSESTin
meaning to theunderlinedword(s) in each ofthefollowingquestions.
Question 22: Sand is found in abundance on the seashore and is often blown inland to form
sand hills and dunes.
A. at random B. at high tide C. in dry mounds D. in great quantities
Question 23: The situation seems to be changing minute by minute.
A. very rapidly B. time after time C. from time to time D. again and again
Mark the letterA, B, C, orD on youranswersheetto indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaningto theunderlinedword(s) in each ofthefollowingquestions.
Question 24: Her thoughtless comments made him very angry.
A. honest B. kind C. pleasant D. thoughtful

Question 25: A chronic lack of sleep may make us irritable and reduces our motivation to
work.
A. uncomfortable B. responsive C. calm D.
miserable Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26: Soil erosion is a result of forests being cut down carelessly.
A. That forests are being cut down carelessly results from soil erosion.
B. Soil erosion contributes to forests being cut down carelessly.
C. Soil erosion results in forests being cut down carelessly.
D. That forests are being cut down carelessly leads to soil erosion.
Question 27: “I will not leave until I see the manager,” said the customer.
A. The customer was persuaded to see the manager before leaving.
B. The customer said he would leave before he saw the manager.
C. The customer refused to leave until he saw the manager.
D. The customer decided to leave because he did not see the manager.
Question 28: She prefers going to the library to staying at home.
A. She would rather go to the library than stay at home.
B. She likes nothing better than going to the library.
C. She does not like either going to the library or staying at home.
D. She stays at home instead of going to the library.
Question 29: Laura didn’t come to the conference. This made me annoyed.
A. Laura didn’t come to the conference, that made me annoyed.
B. That Laura didn’t come to the conference made me annoyed.
C. Laura didn’t come to the conference which made me annoyed.
D. Laura didn’t come to the conference when this made me annoyed.
Question 30: His speech was boring. Everyone got up and left.
A. He got up and left because everyone was talking.

B. No one stayed to listen to him because his speech was so boring.
C. Every one stood up so that they could hear his speech.
D. His speech was interesting enough for everyone to listen.
Read the following passage andmark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correctwordorphrase thatbestfits each ofthenumberedblanks from 31 to 35.
A trend that has emerged recently is the sharing of childcare (31) _
between husband and wife. Young couples will try to arrange their work schedules so that
they work opposite hours or shifts in order that one parent is always home with the children.
Since childcare is expensive, this saves money for the young couple trying to establish
themselves and provide a secure environment for the family. Husband and wife may also
share household chores. Some fathers are just as capable as mothers at cooking dinner,
changing and bathing the baby, and doing the laundry.
In some cases, the woman’s salary is for family (32) and the father
becomes the “househusband." These cases are still fairly rare. One positive trend, however, is
that fathers seem to be spending more time with their children. In a recent survey, 41% of the
children sampled said they spend equal time with their mothers and fathers. “This is one of
our most significant cultural changes,” says Dr. Leon Hoffman, who co-directs the Parent
Child Center at the New York Psychoanalytic Society. In practice, for over 30 years,
Hoffman has found "a very dramatic difference in the involvement of the father in everything
from care-taking to general decision (33) around kids' lives.”
Another factor has recently been added to the childcare formula. The number of
people who work from home nearly full-time rose 23% from the last decade. The (34)
of technology - computers, faxes, teleconferencing - has made it easier for
at- home workers to be constantly in touch.
Question 31: A. abilities B. possibilities C. techniques D. esponsibilities
Question 32: A. payment B. expenses C. fares D. fees
Question 33: A. making B. creating C. holding D. giving
Question 34: A. accessible B. accessibly C. access D. accessibility
Question 35: A. well-being B. security C. comfort D. interests
indicate the correctanswerto each ofthe questions from 36 to 42.
If parents bring up a child with the sole aim of turning the child into a genius, they will cause
a disaster. According to several leading educational psychologists, this is one of the biggest
mistakes which ambitious parents make. Generally, the child will be only too aware of what
his parents expect, and will fail. Unrealistic parental expectations can cause great damage to
children.
However, if parents are not too unrealistic about what they expect their children to do, but are
ambitious in a sensible way, the child may succeed in doing very well — especially if the
parents are very supportive of their child. Michael Collins is very lucky. He is crazy about
music, and his parents help him a lot by taking him to concerts and arranging private piano
and violin lessons for him. They even drive him 50 kilometers twice a week for violin
lessons. Michael's mother knows very little about music, but his father plays the trumpet in a
large orchestra. However, he never makes Michael enter music competitions if he is
unwilling.
Winston Smith, Michael's friend, however, is not so lucky. Both his parents are successful
musicians, and they set too high a standard for Winston. They want their son to be as
successful as they are and so they enter him for every piano competition held. They are very
unhappy when he does not win. Winston is always afraid that he will disappoint his parents
and now he always seems quiet and unhappy.
Question 36: One of the serious mistakes parents can make is to .
A. push their child into trying too much B. help their child to become a genius
C. make their child become a musician D. neglect their child's education
Question 37: Parents' ambition for their children is not wrong if they .
A. force their children into achieving success B. themselves have been very successful
C. understand and help their children sensibly D. arrange private lessons for their children
Question 38: Who have criticized the methods of some ambitious parents?
A. Successful musicians. B. Unrealistic parents.
C. Their children. D. Educational psychologists
Question 39: Michael Collins is fortunate in that .
A. his father is a musician B. his parents are quite rich

C. his mother knows little about music D. his parents help him in a sensible way
Question 40: The phrase "crazy about" in the passage mostly means .
A. "surprised at" B. "extremely interested in"
C. "completely unaware of" D. "confused about"
Question 41: The word "They" in the passage refers to .
A. concerts B. violin lessons C. parents in general D. Winston’s parents

Question 42: The two examples given in the passage illustrate the principle that .
A. Successful parents always have intelligent children.
B. Successful parents often have unsuccessful children.
C. Parents should let the child develop in the way he wants.
D. Parents should spend more money on the child’s education.
190053 Read the following passage andmark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correctanswerto each ofthe questions from 43 to 50.
In addition to their military role, the forts of the nineteenth century provided numerous other
benefits for the American West. The establishment of these posts opened new roads and
provided for the protection of daring adventurers and expeditions as well as established
settlers. Forts also served as bases where enterprising entrepreneurs could bring commerce to
the West, providing supplies and refreshments to soldiers as well as to pioneers. Posts like
Fort Laramie provided supplies for wagon trains traveling the natural highways toward new
frontiers. Some posts became stations for the pony express; still others, such as Fort Davis,
were stagecoach stops for weary travelers. All of these functions, of course, suggest that the
contributions of the forts to the civilization and development of the West extended beyond
patrol duty.
Through the establishment of military posts, yet other contributions were made to the
development of western culture. Many posts maintained libraries or reading rooms, and some
– for example, Fort Davis had schools. Post chapels provided a setting for religious services
and weddings. Throughout the wilderness, post bands provided entertainment and boosted
morale. During the last part of the nineteenth century, to reduce expenses, gardening was
encouraged at the forts, thus making experimental agriculture another activity of the military.
The military stationed at the various forts also played a role in civilian life by assisting in
maintaining order, and civilian officials often called on the army for protection.
Certainly, among other significant contributions the army made to the improvement of the
conditions of life was the investigation of the relationships among health, climate, and
architecture. From the earliest colonial times throughout the nineteenth century, disease
ranked as the foremost problem in defense. It slowed construction of forts and inhibited their
military functions. Official documents from many regions contained innumerable reports of
sickness that virtually incapacitated entire garrisons. In response to the problems, detailed
observations of architecture and climate and their relationships to the frequency of the
occurrence of various diseases were recorded at various posts across the nation by military
surgeons.
Question 43: Which of the following statements best expresses the main idea of the passage?
A. By the nineteenth century, forts were no longer used by the military.
B. Surgeons at forts could not prevent outbreaks of disease.
C. Forts were important to the development of the American West.
D. Life in nineteenth-century forts was very rough.
Question 44: Which of the following would a traveler be LEAST likely to obtain at Fort
Laramie?
A. Fresh water B. Food C. Formal clothing D. Lodging
Question 45: The word “boosted” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _ .
A. influenced B. established C. raised D. maintained

Question 46: Which of the following is the most likely inference about the decision to
promote gardening at forts?
A. It was expensive to import produce from far away.
B. Food brought in from outside was often spoiled
C. Gardening was a way to occupy otherwise idle soldiers.
D. The soil near the forts was very fertile.
Question 47: According to the passage, which of the following posed the biggest obstacle to
the development of military forts?
A. Insufficient shelter B. Shortage of materials
C. Attacks by wild animals D. Illness
Question 48: The word “inhibited” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to .
A. involved B. exploited C. united D. hindered
Question 49: How did the military assist in the investigation of health problems?
A. By registering annual birth and death rates
B. By experiments with different building materials
C. By maintaining records of diseases and potential causes
D. By monitoring the soldiers’ diets
Question 50: The author organizes the discussion of forts by .
A. describing their locations B. comparing their sizes

C. explaining their damage to the environment D. listing their contributions to western life
THE END
ĐÁP ÁN
1- B 2- B 3- B 4- D 5- A 6- A 7- B 8- C 9- B 10- A
11- B 12- A 13- B 14- B 15- D 16- A 17- B 18- B 19- D 20- B
21- D 22- D 23- A 24- D 25- C 26- D 27- C 28- A 29- B 30- B
31- D 32- B 33- A 34- D 35- A 36- A 37- C 38- D 39- D 40- B
41- D 42- C 43- C 44- C 45- C 46- A 47- D 48- D 49- C 50- D
ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - SỐ 18
KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
Question 1: A. believes B. parents C. things D. girls
Question 2: A. education B. repetition C. pronunciation D. question
the other threeinthepositionofprimarystressineachofthefollowingquestions.
Question 3: A. future B. prospect C. guidance D. involve
Question 4: A. mechanism B. minority C. eradicate D. alternative
Question 5: In spite of the heavy rain, all we enjoyed the excursion.

A. In spite of B. heavy C. all we D. excursion
Question 6: A dolphin can communicate with other by making distinctive sounds.
A. communicate B. other C. making D. sounds
Question 7: Opened the letter from her boyfriend, she felt extremely excited.
A. Opened B. from C. felt D. excited
Question 8: She was angry that she could not say a word.
A. so B. too much C. so many D. such
Question 9: Susan, remember to apply this sun cream two hours.

A. some B. several C. every D. each
Question 10: Neither Tom nor his brothers willing to help their mother with the
housework.
A. are B. was C. has been D. is
Question 11: Spain has won the championship, is not surprising.
A. that B. how C. which D. what
Question 12: I’d rather you to the English-speaking club with me this Sunday.
A. will come B. came C. come D. to come
Question 13: Instead of staying around the house all day, you should be out there looking
a job.
A. for B. after C. into D. at
Question 14: How long ago to learn French?
A. have you started B. were you starting C. would you start D. did you start
Question 15: No sooner my car than the alarm went off.
A. the thief had touched B. had the thief touched

C. touched the thief D. the thief touched
Question 16: She passed the National High School Graduation Exam with colours.
A. bright B. flying C. red D. true
Question 17: This carpet really needs . Can you do it for me, son?
A. being cleaned B. cleaned C. clean D. cleaning
Question 18: I hope you will notice of what I am going to tell you.
A. gain B. keep C. get D. take
Question 19: He gave his job in order to go back to university.
A. up B. in C. away D. out
Question 20: Jack: “What’s wrong with you?”
Jill: “ .”
A. Thank you very much B. I’m having a slight headache
C. No, I don’t care D. Yes, I was tired yesterday
Question 21: Sarah: “Oh my God, I’ve missed my bus.”
Christ: “ . Another will come here in ten minutes.”

A. I hope so B. Don’t mention it C. Don’t worry D. Thank you
Question 22: A special exhibition of Indian art will be opened at the National Museum next
month.
A. painting B. programme C. music D. show
Question 23: Traffic began to flow normally again after the accident.
A. with the same speed B. in the usual or ordinary way

C. strangely and irregularly D. repeatedly in different modes
Mark the letter A, B, C, orD on youranswersheetto indicate the word(s) OPPOSITEin
Question 24: That afternoon at the railway station I was surprised and made happy by the
unexpected arrival of Miss Margaret and her mother, from Oakland.
A. presumed B. supposed C. informed D. anticipated
Question 25: Population growth rates vary among regions and even among countries within
the same region.
A. restrain B. stay unchanged C. remain unstable D. fluctuate
Question 26: “May I see your passport, Mrs Scott?” said the customs officer.
A. The customs officer asked to see Mrs Scott’s passport.
B. The customs officer suggested seeing Mrs Scott’s passport.
C. The customs officer asked Mrs Scott to see his passport.
D. The customs officer promised to show Mrs Scott his passport.
Question 27: My friend finds driving on the left difficult.
A. My friend didn’t use to drive on the left.

B. My friend used to drive on the left.
C. My friend isn’t used to driving on the left.
D. My friend didn’t get used to driving on the left.
Question 28: I think it is more enjoyable to play a sport than to watch it on TV.
A. In my view, playing a sport is as enjoyable as watching it on TV.
B. As far as I know, more people watch a sport on TV than they play it.
C. In my opinion, to play a sport is more enjoyable than to watch it on TV.
D. I think watching a sport on TV is more enjoyable than playing it.
Question 29: We can get a wonderful meal at a restaurant. I know it.
A. We can get a wonderful meal which I know at a restaurant.
B. I know a restaurant at where we can get a wonderful meal.
C. The restaurant which I know is where we get a wonderful meal.
D. I know a restaurant where we can get a wonderful meal.
Question 30: He had just entered the house. The police arrested him at once.
A. Hardly that he had entered the house when the police arrested him.
B. No sooner had he entered the house than the police arrested him.
C. Immediately had he entered the house when the police arrested him.
D. The police immediately arrested him as soon as he’s just entered the house.
indicate the correctwordorphrase thatbestfits each ofthenumberedblanks from 31 to 35.
Rural America is diverse in many ways. As we have seen, no one industry dominates
the rural economy, no single pattern of population decline or (31) exists for all rural
areas, and no statement about improvements and gaps in well-being holds true for all rural
people.
Many of these differences are regional in nature. That is, rural areas within a
particular geographic region of the country often tend to be similar (32) each other
and different from areas in another region. Some industries, for example, are (33)
with different regions – logging and sawmills in the Pacific Northwest and New England,
manufacturing in the Southeast and Midwest, and farming in the Great Plains. Persistent
poverty also has a regional pattern, concentrated primarily in the Southeast. Other differences
follow no regional pattern. Areas that rely heavily on the services industry are located
throughout rural America, as are rural areas that have little access to advanced
telecommunications services. Many of these differences, regional and non-regional, are the
result of a (34) of factors including the availability of natural resources; distance from
and access to major metropolitan areas and the information and services found there;
transportation and shipping facilities; political history and structure; and the racial, ethnic,
and (35) makeup of the population.
Adapted from “Understanding Rural America”, InfoUSA
Question 31: A. grow B. growth C. growing D. grown

Question 32: A. of B. with C. to D. from
Question 33: A. added B. associated C. compared D. related
Question 34: A. cooperation B. connection C. link D. combination
Question 35: A. cultured B. culturally C. cultural D. culture
indicate the correctanswerto each ofthe questions from 36to 42.
In my experience, freshmen today are different from those I knew when I started as a
counselor and professor 25 years ago. College has always been demanding both academically
and socially. But students now are less mature and often not ready for the responsibility of
being in college.
It is really too easy to point the finger at parents who protect their children from life’s
obstacles. Parents, who handle every difficulty and every other responsibility for their
children from writing admission essays to picking college courses, certainly may contribute
to their children’s lack of coping strategies. But we can look even more broadly to the social
trends of today.
How many people do you know who are on medication to prevent anxiety or
depression? The number of students who arrive at college already medicated for unwanted
emotions has increased dramatically in the past 10 years. We, as a society, don’t want to
“feel” anything unpleasant and we certainly don’t want our children to “suffer”.
The resulting problem is that by not experiencing negative emotions, one does not
learn the necessary skills to tolerate and negotiate adversity. As a psychologist, I am well
aware of the fact that some individuals suffer from depression and anxiety and can benefit
from treatment, but I question the growing number of medicated adolescents today.
Our world is more stressful in general because of the current economic and political
realities, but I don’t believe that the college experience itself is more intense today than that
of the past 10 years. What I do think is that many students are often not prepared to be young
“adults” with all the responsibilities of life. What does this mean for college faculty and staff?
We are required to assist in the basic parenting of these students - the student who complains
that her professor didn’t remind her of the due date for an assignment that was clearly listed
on the syllabus and the student who cheats on an assignment in spite of careful instructions
about plagiarism.
As college professors, we have to explain what it means to be an independent college
student before we can even begin to teach. As parents and teachers we should expect young
people to meet challenges. To encourage them in this direction, we have to step back and let
them fail and pick themselves up and move forward. This approach needs to begin at an early
age so that college can actually be a passage to independent adulthood.
(Adapted from “Students are different now” by Linda Bips. New York Times, October
11, 2010
Question 36: According to the writer, students’ difficulties to cope with college life are
partly due to .
A. the lack of financial support B. the over-parenting from parents
C. the absence of parents' protection D. the lack of parental support
Question 37: The phrase "on medication" in paragraph 3 is similar in meaning to
A. receiving medical treatment B. suffering anxiety or depression

C. doing medical research D. studying medicine at college
Question 38: Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage?
A. The college experience itself is more intense today than that of the past 10 years.
B. Our world is more stressful because of the current economic and political situation.
C. College faculty and staff are required to help in the parenting of problematic students.
D. Our society certainly doesn't want our children to experience unpleasant things.
Question 39: The word "them" in the last paragraph refers to .
A. college professors B. young people C. teachers D. parents

Question 40: Students who are not well-prepared to be young “adults” with all the
responsibilities of life will need .
A. to be assigned more housework from adults
B. to be given more social responsibilities
C. to be encouraged to meet challenges
D. daily coaching from their teachers
Question 41: According to the writer, failure in life and less support from parents will
.
A. defeat students from the very beginning
B. help students to learn to stand on their own feet
C. discourage students and let them down forever
D. allow students to learn the first lesson in their lives
Question 42: What is probably the writer's attitude in the passage?
A. Indifferent B. Praising C. Critical D. Humorous
Most of us know a little about how babies learn to talk. From the time infants are
born, they hear language because their parents talk to them all the time. Between the ages of
seven and ten months, most infants begin to make sounds. They repeat the same sounds over
and over again. This is called babbling. When babies babble, they are practicing their
language.
What happens, though, to children who cannot hear? How do deaf children learn to
communicate? Recently, doctors have learned that deaf babies babble with their hands. Laura
Ann Petitto, a psychologist, observed three hearing infants with English-speaking parents and
two deaf infants with deaf parents using American Sign Language (ASL) to communicate.
Dr. Petitto studied the babies three times: at 10, 12, and 14 months. During this time,
children really begin to develop their language skills.
After watching and videotaping the children for several hundred hours, the
psychologist and her assistants made many important observations. For example, they saw
that the hearing children made varied motions with their hands. However, there appeared to
be no pattern to these motions. The deaf babies also made different movements with their
hands, but these movements were more consistent and deliberate. The deaf babies seemed to
make the same hand movements over and over again. During the four-month period, the deaf
babies' hand motions started to resemble some basic hand-shapes used in ASL. The children
also seemed to prefer certain hand-shapes.
Hearing infants start first with simple syllable babbling, then put more syllables
together to sound like real sentences and questions. Apparently, deaf babies follow this same
pattern, too. First, they repeat simple hand- shapes. Next, they form some simple hand signs
and use these movements together to resemble ASL sentences.
Linguists believe that our ability for language is innate. In other words, humans are
born with the capacity for language: It does not matter if we are physically able to speak or
not. Language can be expressed in different ways - for instance, by speech or by sign. Dr.
Petitto believes this theory and wants to prove it. She plans to study hearing children who
have one deaf parent and one hearing parent. She wants to see what happens when babies
have the opportunity to learn both sign language and speech. Does the human brain prefer
speech? Some of these studies of hearing babies who have one deaf parent and one hearing
parent show that the babies babble equally with their hands and their voices. They also
produce their first words, both spoken and signed, at about the same time. More studies in the
future may prove that the sign system of the deaf is the physical equivalent of speech.
Adapted from “Issues for Today” by Lorraine C. Smith and Nancy Nici Mare
Question 43: According to paragraph 1, babies begin to babble .
A. at their first moment after birth

B. at their first experience of language
C. when they are more than 6 months old
D. when they first hear their parents talk to them
Question 44: The phrase “the babies” in paragraph 2 refers to in the study.
A. the hearing infants B. the deaf infants

C. the hearing and deaf infants D. the disabled infants
Question 45: The writer mentions “American Sign Language (ASL)” in paragraph 2 as a
language
A. used by the deaf to communicate B. especially formed by infants
C. used among psychologists D. widely used by American children
Question 46: The word “resemble” in paragraph 3 refers to .
A. making initial movements B. studying funny movements

C. creating strange movements D. producing similar movements
Question 47: It is stated in paragraph 3 that both the deaf and the hearing children made
movements with their hands, but .
A. only the hearing children made different movements
B. the deaf children made less consistent hand movements
C. the hearing children only repeated the same hand motions
D. only the deaf children repeated the same hand motions
Question 48: According to paragraph 4, hearing infants learn to talk first by .
A. hand-shapes B. babbling C. hand motions D. eye movements
Question 49: It is mentioned in the last paragraph that Dr. Petitto plans to study .
A. what happens when babies have the opportunity to learn both speech and sign language
B. whether all children speak and make motions with their hands at the same time
C. the assumption that the human brain prefers sign language to speech
D. whether the sign system of the deaf is the physical equivalent of speech
A. Education for Deaf Children B. How do Children Master Language?
C. Language: Is It Always Spoken? D. American Sign Language
THE END
Đáp án
1-B 2-D 3-D 4-A 5-C 6-B 7-A 8-A 9-C 10-A
11-C 12-B 13-A 14-D 15-B 16-B 17-D 18-D 19-A 20-B
21-C 22-D 23-B 24-D 25-B 26-A 27-C 28-C 29-D 30-B
31-B 32-C 33-B 34-D 35-C 36-B 37-A 38-A 39-B 40-C
41-B 42-C 43-C 44-C 45-A 46-D 47-A 48-B 49-A 50-B
ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - SỐ 19
KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
Question 1: A. established B. reserved C. designed D. organized
Question 2: A. danger B. educate C. strange D. applicant
Question 3: A. moment B. event C. cancer D. offer
Question 4: A. participate B. psychology C. ability D. temporary
Question 5: The office furniture that was ordered last month have just arrived, but we‟re not
sure whether the manager will like it.
A. was ordered B. have just arrived C. whether D. will like
Question 6: The first national known male singers of popular music appeared
during the 1920s.
A. The B. national C. of D. appeared
Question 7: Dreaming, like all other mental processes, it is a product of the brain and its
activity.
A. like all B. it is C. of the brain D. its activity
Question 8: My supervisor is angry with me. I didn't do all the work I __ last week.
A. should have done B. may have done C. need to have done D. must have done
Question 9: She is very absent-minded: she her cellphone three times!
A. has lost B. loses C. was losing D. had lost
Question 10: Whenever he had an important decision to make, he a cigar to calm his
nerves.
A. would light B. would be lighting C. would have lit D. had lit
Question 11: He always the crossword in the newspaper before breakfast.
A. writes B. makes C. works D. does
Question 12: Not until the end of the 19th century become a scientific discipline.
A. plant breeding has B. did plant breeding
C. plant breeding had D. has plant breeding
Question 13: "How can you live in this messy room? Go and it up at once."
A. dust B. sweep C. tidy D. do
Question 14: This factory produced motorbikes in 2008 as in the year 2006.
A. twice as many B. as twice as many C. as twice many D. as many as twice
Question 15: Preparing for a job interview can be very .
A. stress B. stressful C. stressed D. stressing

Question 16: In many big cities, people have to up with noise, overcrowding and bad
air.
A. keep B. catch C. face D. put
Question 17: Had she worked harder last summer, she .
A. wouldn't have been sacked B. wouldn't have sacked

C. wouldn't sack D. wouldn't be sacked
Question 18: Nobody‟s got to stay late this evening, ?
A. is it B. have they C. isn’t it D. don’t they
Question 19: With hard work and study, you can the goals you set for yourself.
A. establish B. succeed C. achieve D. increase
Question 20: - "Our team has just won the last football match."
-" "
A. Good idea. Thanks for the news. B. Yes. I guess it's very good.
C. Well, that's very surprising! D. Yes, it's our pleasure.
Question 21: - "I can't speak English well enough to apply for that post."
-" ."
A. Me neither B. Me too C. Me either D. Me also
Question 22: Other experiments were undertaken in Europe and America, but the arc light
eventually proved impractical because it burned out too quickly.
A. funded B. discovered C. failed D. carried out
Question 23: He surprised me in a later conversation by mentioning he was taking steps to
remedy the problem.
A. understand B. improve C. face D. encounter
Mark the letter A, B, C, orD on youranswersheetto indicate the word(s) OPPOSITEin

Question 24: I take my hat off to all those people who worked hard to get the contract.
A. admire B. congratulate C. treasure D. disregard
Question 25: This flat is a far cry from the house they had before.
A. be completely different B. be exactly the same

C. be better than D. be worse than
Question 26: “It’s not true! I have never been arrested.”
A. Harry denied ever having been arrested.

B. Harry denied not having been arrested.
C. Harry said that it was not true to have been arrested.
D. Harry refused having been arrested.
Question 27: There’s no point in phoning Caroline – she’s away.
A. Don’t waste your time if you phone Caroline.

B. It would be a waste of time phoning Caroline.
C. Don’t save your time to phone Caroline because she’s away.
D. It isn’t a waste of time to phone Caroline.
Question 28: Under no circumstances should you press both buttons at once.
A. Neither of the buttons shouldn’t be pressed at once under any circumstances.
B. Both buttons should’t be pressed at once under no circumstances.
C. You should not press both buttons at once under any circumstances.
D. Pressing both buttons at once should be performed under any circumstances.
Question 29: We couldn’t squeeze through the door. It was very narrow.
A. We couldn’t squeeze through the door, which it was very narrow.
B. Since the door was very narrow, that we couldn’t squeeze through it.
C. The door was so narrow for us to squeeze through.
D. So narrow was the door that we couldn’t squeeze through.
Question 30: You must read the instructions. You won’t know how to use this machine
without reading them.
A. Reading the instructions, so you will know how to use this machine.
B. Without reading the instructions, the use of this machine won’t be known.
C. Unless you read the instructions, you won’t know how to use this machine.
D. You will know how to use this machine unless you read the instructions
35.
In the United States and Canada, it is very important to (31) a person directly in the
eyes when you are having a conversation with him or her. If you look down or to the side
when the (32) person is talking, that person will think that you are not interested in
what he or she is saying. This, of course, is not polite. If you look down or to the side when
you are talking, it might (33) that you are not honest. However, people who are
speaking will sometimes look away for (34) seconds when they are thinking or trying
to find the right word. But they always turn immediately back to look the listener directly in
the eyes. These social "rules" are (35) for two men, two women, a man and a woman,
or an adult and a child.
Question 31: A. talk B. notice C. get D. look
Question 32: A. others B. another C. one D. other
Question 33: A. seem B. become C. turn D. come
Question 34: A. a little B. a few C. little D. few
Question 35: A. like B. the same C. likely D. such as
indicate the correctanswerto each ofthe questions from 36to 41.
The Ring of Fire is an enormous chain of volcanoes all around the Pacific Ocean. The ring
goes from New Zealand up to Asia and across the ocean to Alaska. From Alaska, the ring
continues southward along the coast of both North and South America. More than seventy-
five percent of the world's volcanoes are located in this ring. Scientists are interested in
studying the Ring of Fire because they can observe plate tectonics at work there. In 1912, a
German scientist, Alfred Wegener, came up with the first theory of land movement. Wegener
said continents are made up of lighter rocks resting on heavier material. Similar to the way
large things move while floating on water, Wegener suggested that the positions of the
continents were not fixed, but that they moved slightly. Later, scientists discovered most of
Wegener's ideas were right on the mark. They then developed the theory called plate
tectonics. According to plate tectonics, the surface of the Earth consists of a number of
enormous plates or sections of rock, each about eighty kilometers thick. The plates float and
slowly move at speeds between one to ten centimeters every year. That is about the rate your
fingernails grow! Within the Ring of Fire, new material for the Earth's plates is constantly
being created as hot liquid rock called magma flows from the center of the Earth up to the
ocean floor. All the existing plates on the Earth's surface have to move slightly to make room
for the new material. As plates move both away from and toward each other, they run into
each other. When they hit each other, one plate might move under another. This process is
called subduction. Subduction frequently causes earthquakes. It may also result in the bottom
plate melting due to the extreme temperatures under the top plate. The magma created in this
process can rise to the Earth's surface and come out through volcanoes, as can be seen along
the Ring of Fire.
Question 36: What is the main focus of this reading?
A. The most active volcanoes found in the Ring of Fire

B. The location of the Ring of Fire
C. How the plates on the Earth‟s surface move in different ways
D. How plate tectonics, volcanoes, and earthquakes are related
Question 37: The word “fixed” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to .
A. not changing B. unstable C. moving D. floating
Question 38: According to the reading, which is true about the Ring of Fire?
A. All of the volcanoes along the ring are active.
B. Most of the volcanoes on Earth are part of the ring.
C. The ring gets bigger each year.
D. The ring was discovered in the 20th century.
Question 39: What does “subduction” mean in this reading?
A. Rocks moving under volcanoes B. Erupting liquid rock

C. The theory of moving plates D. Movement of a plate under another
Question 40: What is NOT a result of shifting tectonic plates?
A. Earthquakes B. Extreme temperatures inside the Earth

C. Volcanoes D. Subduction
Question 41: Which question is NOT answered in the reading?
A. How fast do tectonic plates move? B. How thick are the plates in tectonic theory?
C. What is the most active volcano today? D. Where is the Ring of Fire?
On a winter night last June, José Antonio Tuki, a 30-year-old artist on Easter Island, sat on
Anakena beach and stared at the enormous human statues there – the moai. The statues are
from four feet tall to 33 feet tall. Some weigh more than 80 tons. They were carved a long
time ago, with stone tools, and then they were
moved up to 11 miles to the beach. Tuki stares at their faces and he feels a connection. ‘This
is something that was produced by my ancestors’, he says. ‘How did they do it?’
The first Polynesians arrived at Rapa Nui (Easter Island), probably by canoe, hundreds of
years ago. The island is 2,150 miles west of South America and 1,300 miles east of its nearest
inhabited neighbour, Pitcairn. Nowadays 12 flights arrive every week from Chile, Peru and
Tahiti. In 2011, 50,000 tourists – ten times the
island’s population – flew to Easter Island. Almost all of the jobs on Easter Island depend on
tourism. And the tourists go there for only one thing: the moai. People around the world
became curious about the statues after the Norwegian adventurer Thor Heyerdahl made
Easter Island famous, and there are different theories about how the statues were moved to
the beach. Many researchers think the statues were pulled along the ground using ropes and
wood. Pulitzer Prize winner Jared Diamond has suggested that many people were needed to
build and move the
moai. As a result, the island’s trees were cut down for wood and to create farming land. This
open land was
fragile and it was soon eroded by the strong winds, so it was very difficult to grow food. The
situation was an early example of an ecological disaster, according to Diamond. On the other
hand, archaeologists Terry Hunt of the University of Hawaii and Carl Lipo of California State
University Long Beach have a more positive view of the island’s history. They suggest that
the inhabitants actually pioneered a type of sustainable farming – they built thousands of
circular stone walls, called manavai, and grew food inside them. And their theory about how
the moai were moved is that they were ‘walked’ along using a system of only ropes and a few
people.
As José Tuki contemplates these enormous statues, he doesn’t mind that there are no definite
answers about the history of his island. ‘I want to know the truth,’ he says, ‘but maybe
knowing everything would take its power away’.
Question 42: The Easter Island statues _.
A. are new constructions to attract tourists.

B. aren’t completely understood by archaeologists
C. were destroyed by the islanders.
D. were made by José Antonio Tuki.
Question 43: On Easter Island today, the statues .
A. are very important for the island’s economy.

B. have lost their significance.
C. are abandoned.
D. are regarded as a problem.
Question 44: The people of Easter Island today _ .
A. are isolated from the modern world.

B. are often unemployed.
C. are very rich.
D. depend on foreign visitors.
Question 45: Studying the moai .
A. can tell us about the people who lived on the island.

B. is important to the farmers on Easter Island.
C. helps us to understand the art of José Tuki.
D. is not important to the people on Easter Island.
Question 46: The moai .
A. are statues of animals. B. are all the same size.

C. were made by José Tuki‟s ancestors. D. are small human statues.
Question 47: Jared Diamond thinks that .
A. the forest resources on Easter Island were poor.

B. there were never any forests on Easter Island.
C. the people on Easter Island used to be very poor.
D. it became difficult to grow food after the forests were cut down.
Question 48: Hunt and Lipo‟s theory about the movement of the statues involves using
.
A. wood and stone. B. ropes and people. C. wood and ropes. D. ropes and stone.
Question 49: The word “fragile” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _ .
A. easily broken B. firm C. hard D. dry
Question 50: The story of the moai can teach us lessons about .
A. our interaction with the environment. B. the role of art in society.

C. island communities. D. ecological disasters
Đáp án
1- A 2- D 3- B 4- D 5- B 6- B 7- B 8- A 9- A 10- A
11- D 12- B 13- C 14- A 15- B 16- D 17- A 18- B 19- C 20- C
21- A 22- D 23- B 24- D 25- B 26- A 27- B 28- C 29- D 30- C
31- D 32- D 33- A 34- B 35- B 36- D 37- A 38- B 39- D 40- B
41- C 42- B 43- A 44- D 45- A 46- C 47- D 48- B 49- A 50- A
ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - ĐỀ SỐ 20 KỲ THI
TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút ( không kể thời gian phát đề)
Question 1: A. gesture B. surgery C. engine D. regard
Question 2: A. flour B. pour C. hour D. sour
Question 3: A. possession B. politics C. refusal D. decision
Question 4: A. development B. preservative C. congratulate D. preferential
Question 5: My mother doesn’t care how much does the washing machine cost because she
is going to buy it anyway.
A. doesn’t care B. does the washing machine cost
C. because D. to buy
Question 6: Nora hardly never misses an opportunity to play in the tennis tournaments.
A. hardly never B. an C. to play D. in
Question 7: Both Mr. and Mrs. Smith are explaining children the rules of the game.
A. Both B. Mr. and Mrs. Smith
C. are D. children the rules of the game

Question 8: I this letter around for days without looking at it.
A. am carrying B. will be carrying C. carry D. have been carrying
Question 9: It was not until she had arrived home remembered her appointment with
the doctor.
A. that she B. and she C. she D. when she had
Question 10: I accidentally Mike when I was crossing a street downtown yesterday.
A. kept an eye on B. caught sight of C. lost touch with D. paid attention to
Question 11: entering the hall, he found everyone waiting for him.
A. With B. On C. At D. During
Question 12: I would really your help with this assignment.
A. respect B. take C. appreciate D. than
Question 13: The price of fruit has increased recently, the price of vegetables has
gone down.
A. otherwise B. whether C. whereas D. when
Question 14: I am considering my job. Can you recommend a good company?

A. to move B. changing C. to change D. moving
Question 15: Can you keep calm for a moment? You noise in class!
A. are always made B. always make C. have always made D. are always making
Question 16: These measures have been taken with a to increasing the company's
profits.
A. goal B. view C. reason D. reason
Question 17: Anyone scholastic record is above average can apply for the
scholarship.
A. who has B. whose C. with D. has
Question 18: You feel so because there's nothing you can do to make the child
better.
A. unhelpful B. helpless C. thoughtful D. helpful
Question 19: The manager had his secretary the report for him.
A. to have typed B. typed C. type D. to type
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response or
question to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: Janet: "Do you feel like going to the cinema this evening?"
Susan: " ."
A. I don't agree, I'm afraid. B. You‟re welcome.
C. I feel very bored. D. That would be great.
Question 21: A: “ detective stories?”
B: “In my opinion, they are very good for teenagers.”

A. What do you think about B. Are you fond of
C. How about D. What do people feel about
Question 22: We now can instantly flick a lighter or strike a match to make a flame. But it
was not long ago that there were no such things as matches or lighters.
A. a device that uses electricity, oil or gas to produce light
B. a small device that produces a flame for lighting cigarettes, etc.
C. the energy from the sun, a lamp, etc. that makes it possible to see things
D. a hot bright stream of burning gas that comes from something that is on fire
Question 23: The downside of this approach is that it is difficult to measure its efficacy.
A. negative aspect B. positive aspect C. advantage D. strength

Question 24: Don‟t take it as a piece of cake, hiking is very tiring task.
A. something that is easy to do B. something that is very challenging to do

C. something that is rewarding to do D. something that is dangerous to do
Question 25: Her husband, who had died three years previously, had left her well-off.
A. wealthy B. miserable C. better off D. penniless
Question 26: We were all surprised when she suddenly came back.
A. All of us found it surprising that she suddenly came back.

B. The fact that we were surprised made her come back.
C. All of us were amazing to see her come back.
D. She was surprised, coming back suddenly.
Question 27: Because she was irritated by her husband’s lack of punctuality, she left him.
A. Irritating with her husband’s lack of punctuality, she left him.
B. Being irritating by her husband’s lack of punctuality, she left him.
C. She left her husband because of her irritation with his lack of punctuality.
D. Irritated by her husband, she punctually left him.
Question 28: I can’t help feeling worried about Tom.
A. I find it impossible not to worry about Tom.

B. I don‟t worry about Tom.
C. I can do nothing to help Tom.
D. I cannot help Tom stop worrying.
Question 29: Put your coat on. You will get cold.
A. You will not get cold unless you put your coat on.
B. Put your coat on, otherwise you will get cold.
C. It is not until you put your coat on that you will get cold.
D. You not only put your coat on but also get cold.
Question 30: Flora was alone again in her tiny room. She couldn’t help crying a little.
A. Flora couldn’t help crying a little as to be alone again in her tiny room.
B. Flora couldn’t help crying a little during being alone in her tiny room.
C. Alone again in her tiny room, Flora couldn’t help crying a little.
D. Being alone again in her tiny room, and then Flora couldn’t help crying a little.
35.
Everyone wants to reduce pollution. But the pollution problem is (31) complicated as
it is serious. It is complicated because much pollution is caused by things that benefit people.
(32) , exhaust from automobiles causes a large percentage of air pollution. But
the automobile provides transportation for millions of people.
Factories discharge much (33) the material that pollutes the air and water, but
factories give employment to a large number of people.
Thus, to end or greatly reduce pollution immediately, people would have to stop using many
things that benefit them. Most of the people do not want to do that, of course. But pollution
can be (34) reduced in several ways.
Scientists and engineers can work to find ways to lessen the amount of pollution that such
things as automobiles and factories cause. Governments can pass and enforce laws that
(35) businesses and traffic to stop, or to cut down on certain polluting activities.
Question 31: A. as B. more C. less D. like
Question 32: A. specific B. for example C. such as D. like
Question 33: A. about B. for C. of D. with
Question 34: A. carefully B. unexpectedly C. gradually D. little
Question 35: A. forbid B. prevent C. request D. require
Sylvia Earle is one of the world's most famous marine scientists and a National Geographic
Explorer-inResidence. She loves to go diving in the ocean. She has spent a lot of her life both
in and under the waves. Earle has led more than a hundred expeditions and she set a record
for solo diving in 1,000-metre deep water. In total, she has spent more than 7,000 hours
underwater.
Earle describes the first time she went to the ocean: ‘I was three years old and I got knocked
over by a wave. The ocean certainly got my attention! It wasn’t frightening, it was thrilling.
And since then I have been fascinated by life in the ocean.’
In the past, Earle was the chief scientist of the National Oceanic and Atmospheric
Administration in the USA. Now one of her jobs is with Google Earth’s Ocean. Earle’s
special focus is on developing a global network of areas on the land and in the ocean. This
network will protect and support the living systems that are important to the planet. She
explains why this is important: ‘When I first went to the Gulf of Mexico in the 1950s, the sea
looked like a blue infinity. It seemed to be too large and too wild to be damaged by the action
of people. Then, in a few decades, not thousands of years, the blue wilderness of my
childhood disappeared. By the end of the 20th century, about 90 percent of the sharks, tuna,
turtles, whales and many other large creatures had disappeared from the Gulf. They had been
there for millions of years.’
Some people don’t understand why the ocean is so important to life on Earth. Earle explains
that ‘the ocean is the foundation of our life support system. The ocean is alive. The living
things in the ocean generate oxygen and take up carbon. If we don‟t have the ocean, we don’t
have a planet that works.’
The Gulf of Mexico has had many problems, especially after the Deepwater Horizon Oil
disaster of 2010, but Earle says, ‘In 2003 I found positive signs in clear, deep water far from
the mouth of the Mississippi River. It was full of life. Large areas of the Gulf are not
damaged. Protecting the most important places will be good for the future of the Gulf and for
all of us’
Question 36: Sylvia Earle is a scientist who .
A. has done some unconventional things in her professional life.

B. has followed the traditional path of women in science.
C. has identified many new species of marine plants and animals.
D. currently works with the American government.
Question 37: Which of the statements about Sylvia Earle is NOT true?
A. She’s an experienced expedition leader.
B. She holds a record for the longest time under water.
C. She does one of her favorite activities in her work.
D. The work that she is currently doing is based all over the world.
Question 38: What started Earle’s interest in the ocean?
A. a National Geographic explorer B. a childhood experience

C. her love of diving D. her fear of the waves
Question 39: The word “thrilling” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to .
A. exciting and enjoyable B. tiring

C. horrible D. scary
Question 40: What percentage of animal life had disappeared from the Gulf of Mexico by
the year 2000?
A. 20 percent B. 50 percent C. 90 percent D. 70 percent
Question 41: How does the article illustrate specific problems in the marine environment?
A. by describing the situation in the Gulf of Mexico
B. through a history of Earle’s work in different organisations
C. by giving details of what Earle plans to do
D. by giving examples of the problem in various
Question 42: Which of these statements describes one of the main points of the article?
A. The marine environment is a key part of all life on Earth.
B. The oceans provide us with unlimited resources.
C. The sea is one of the most exciting places for science at the moment.
D. It is impossible to protect marine areas.
indicate the correct questions from 43 to 50.
The city of Detroit, in the USA, was once compared to Paris. It had a broad river, smart
streets and historically important architecture. Then, in the 20th century, it became ‘Motor
City’. For a time, most of the world’s cars were made here. There was regular work and a
good salary in the motor industry. A worker at one of the car factories could own a home,
plus a boat, maybe even a holiday cottage. Some say America’s middle class was born in
Detroit – new highways certainly made it easy for workers to move from the city centre to the
suburbs in the 1950s. But in the early years of the 21st century, Detroit became America’s
poorest big city.
In less than five decades the once lively Motor City lost more than half its population. It
became known as a city that was failing, full of ruined buildings, extensive poverty and
crime. Newspapers and magazines told stories of derelict homes and empty streets.
Photographers went to Detroit to record the strange beauty of buildings and city blocks where
nature was taking over again. What went wrong in Detroit?
The city is now 69th among US cities for the number of people per square mile. The
population fell for several reasons. Partly, it was because people moved to the suburbs in the
1950s. Then there were the shocking riots in 1967, which scared more people away from the
city. Then there was the dramatic fall in car manufacture as companies like General Motors
and Chrysler faced huge difficulties. And finally, in 2008, came the global financial crisis.
Many of Detroit’s people are poor – half of the city’s families live on less than 25,000 dollars
a year.
In 2013, the city did something unusual: it declared itself bankrupt. It was the largest city
bankruptcy in US history, at approximately 18-20 billion dollars. Now that the city is free of
debt, it has money to do some of what needs to be done. It has replaced about 40,000
streetlights so that places feel safer. The police arrive in answer to calls in less than 20
minutes now, instead of the hour it used to take. And about a hundred empty houses are
demolished each week to make space for new buildings. With the nation’s biggest city
bankruptcy behind it, Detroit is also attracting investors and young adventurers. The New
Economy Initiative gave grants of 10,000 dollars to each of 30 new small businesses. It
seems that every week a new business opens in Detroit – grocery stores, juice bars, coffee
shops, even bicycle makers. Finally, the city is working again.
Question 43: The city of Detroit .
A. has experienced many changes.

B. is like European city in many ways.
C. it’s one of the richest places in the USA.
D. is not able to recover from its past problems.
Question 44: What was Detroit known as at the start of the 21st century?
A. the Paris of America B. Motor City
C. the poorest city in America D. the richest city in the world
Question 45: According to the second paragraph, what interested journalists in Detroit?
A. the empty places B. the number of poor people
C. problems of old people D. small buildings
Question 46: The word “ruined” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _ .
A. be in bad condition B. be in good condition

C. be in dry condition D. be in humid condition
Question 47: How many reasons are given for people leaving Detroit?
A. three B. four C. five D. six
Question 48: Bankruptcy meant that .
A. $20 billion was given back to Detroit. B. Detroit could start again.
C. Everything was free in Detroit. D. Detroit was heavily in debt
Question 49: Which statement is true?
A. 30 businesses received money to help them develop.

B. About 30 businesses open every week now in Detroit.
C. There have been 30 new business ideas in Detroit.
D. $30 thousand was given to each of the new small business.
Question 50: Detroit .
A. is having more problems than ever before.

B. seems to have a better future ahead.
C. will have to suffer more before things improve.
D. can never be better.
Đáp án
1- D 2- B 3- B 4- D 5- B 6- A 7- D 8- D 9- A 10- B
11- B 12- C 13- C 14- B 15- D 16- B 17- B 18- B 19- C 20- D
21- A 22- B 23- A 24- B 25- D 26- A 27- C 28- A 29- B 30- C
31- A 32- B 33- C 34- C 35- D 36- A 37- B 38- B 39- A 40- C
41- A 42- A 43- A 44- C 45- A 46- A 47- B 48- B 49- A 50- B

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Question 11: Our new coach is popular the whole team.

Question 12: Don’t go too fast! I can’t up with you.

A. keep B. go C. walk D. run

A. has she got that information B. she got that information

A. a ridiculous B. the ridiculous

A. German lovely old glasses B. German old lovely glasses

Question 17: Their apartment looks nice. In fact, it’s .

A. extremely comfortable B. extreme comfortably

A. I look up to them B. whom look up to

A. My uncle recognized me not until I spoke

A. spotted animals B. divided

C. developed into different species D. changed the original species

A. weak B. careless C. cautious D. easily protected

A. was looking for food mainly in the Middle East

Question 42: The passage is written to .

A. persuade readers to protect the Asiatic lions

A. water sports around the world B. surfing

A. water sports are all expensive

A. began as a sport in 1943 B. was invented by the native Hawaiians

A. often quite cold B. full of colorful things to see

A. standing on the board

A. is an ancient Hawaiian water sport

A. enthusiastic B. informative C. appropriate D. short and clear

Question 8: When she returned home from work, she a bath

A. takes B. took C. has taken D. was taking

Question 9: It is important to have someone you can in.

A. talk B. speak C. know D. confide

Question 12: Would you rather live in town or in country?

A. a – a B. a – the C. the – a D. the – the

Question 13: Our teacher would like

Question 15: They will be able to walk across the river

Question 18: What I like best of him is his

A. dependence B. dependable C. independence D. dependency

Question 19: He leaves work early to his daughter up from school

Question 23: The US Congress office is adjacent to the Capitol building

A. He had a little knowledge about the world nature

A. I absolutely agree with you

A. The doctor flies to the sick person’s home

A. a large field of the Aborigines

A. a body part B. a machine C. a remote control D. a small box

A. None of the doctor at the center work full-time

A. Because of science, disease caused by contaminated food has been virtually

A. athletic B. suitable C. tasty D. adaptable

Question 46: The word “these” in paragraph 2 refers to

A. meats B. colors C. researchers D. nitrates and nitrites

Question 47: The word “carcinogenic” is closest in meaning to

A. trouble-making B. color-retaining C. money-making D. cancer-causing

A. Drugs are always given to animals for medical reasons

A. added substances B. dangerous substances

A. Harmful and harmless substances in food

1- B 2-A 3-A 4-D 5-C 6-C 7-D 8-B 9-D 10-A

A. didn’t play B. hadn’t played C. hadn’t been played D. wasn’t playing

Question 10: Please your cigarette. I am going to get choked

A. cut down B. blow out C. put aside D. put out

Question 12: I must go to the dentist and

A. get my teeth to take care of B. take care of my teeth

Question 16: As a child, I had an friend called Polly

A. image B. imagine C. imaginative D. imaginary

A. Sorry, it is out of stock B. Which one? This one?

A. was paid much money B. paid in full

C. difficult to operate D. simple and easy to use

A. I have never met a more intelligent woman than her

A. risk factors in heart attacks