Best 1000 Current Affairs Questions For Ibps RRB Mains

Best 1000 Current Affairs Questions for IBPS RRB Mains 2023
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S. No Topics Page No
1. April 03
2. May 84
3. June 175
4. July 261
5. August 343
April • The Competition Act, 2002 was amended by the

1. Consider the following statement regarding Competition (Amendment) Act, 2007 and again by the
Competition (Amendment) Bill, 2023. Which of the Competition (Amendment) Act, 2009.
following statement is incorrect? • The Competition Commission of India (CCI) is the
A. The Lok Sabha passed The Competition (Amendment) chief national competition regulator in India. It is a
Bill, 2022 to amend The Competition Act of 2002. statutory body within the Ministry of Corporate Affairs
B. The Bill proposes to reduce the timeline for the CCI to and is responsible for enforcing the Competition Act,
pass an order on such transactions from 180 days to 150 2002 to promote competition and prevent activities that
days. have an appreciable adverse effect on competition in
C. The Bill seeks to amend the Competition Act, 2002, to India. The commission was established in 2003.
regulate mergers and acquisitions based on the value of • The Bill seeks to amend the Competition Act, 2002,
transactions as value of more than Rs 2,000 crore will to regulate mergers and acquisitions based on the value
require CCI’s approval. of transactions. Deals with transaction value of more
D. The law also mandates that firms penalised by the than Rs 2,000 crore will require CCI’s approval.
Competition Commission of India (CCI) must fork out at • The Bill proposes to reduce the timeline for the CCI to
least 25% of the penalties levied on them,for their pass an order on such transactions from 210 days to 150
appeals to be heard by an appellate tribunal. days.
E. Bill has also provided for appointment of Director • The Bill expands the scope of entities that can be
General (Investigation) by the CCI earlier it was directly adjudged to be a part of anti-competitive agreements.
appointed by the Central Government. Currently, enterprises or persons engaged in similar
Answer: B businesses can be held to be a part of anti-competitive
• The Lok Sabha passed The Competition agreements. The Bill expands this to also include
(Amendment) Bill, 2022 to amend The Competition Act of enterprises or persons who are not engaged in similar
2002. businesses.
• The Competition Act, 2002was enacted by the • The amended law also mandates that firms
Parliament of India and governs Indian competition law. penalised by the Competition Commission of India (CCI)
must fork out at least 25% of the penalties levied on
them, for their appeals to be heard by an appellate
tribunal.
• The definition of turnover under the law has also different stages of school education, it is felt important
been enlarged to mean “global turnover from all to take feedback from this NCF-School Education (SE).
products and services of a contravening enterprise”. • The National Steering Committee under the
• Moreover, the CCI will have to frame a “prima facie chairmanship of K. Kasturirangan was set up by the
opinion” within a time-period of 30 days from the receipt Ministry to undertake and develop NCFs.
of such notice, failing which the combination shall be • The pre-draft version of National Curriculum
considered as deemed approved. Framework for School Education covers the framework
• The other noteworthy features of the proposed law of curriculum for age groups 3 to 18 years.
—which was passed by Rajya Sabha through a voice • The pre-draft says that for Grade 10 certification,
vote —include introduction of a settlement and students will have to take two essential courses from
commitment framework so as to ensure faster market humanities, maths and computing, vocational education,
correction; introduction of concept of deal value physical education, arts education, social science, science
threshold for notifying mergers and acquisitions to and interdisciplinary areas.
address killer acquisitions in the digital market and • In Grade 11 and 12, students will be offered choice-
introduction of “leniency plus’ regime. based courses in the same disciplines for more rigorous
• Leniency plus regime is basically a new cartel engagement.
detecting tool that would encourage companies already • Arts education will include music, dance, theatre,
under investigation for one cartel to report other cartels sculpture, painting, set design, scriptwriting, while inter-
unknown to the competition regulator. disciplinary areas will include knowledge of India,
• This Bill was passed by Lok Sabha last week after traditions and practices of Indian knowledge systems.
Sitharaman moved as many as 13 official amendments in • For Class 11 and 12, Modular Board Exams will be
the lower house. offered as opposed to a single exam at the end of the
• Bill has also provided for appointment of Director year and final result will be based on cumulative result of
General (Investigation) by the CCI. Hitherto, the DG each exam.
(Investigation) was directly appointed by the Central • It focuses on the importance of questioning by giving
Government. examples of the Upanishads, and includes examples from
Katha Upanishad. It terms debates between Adisankara
2. In April as per report Ministry of Education has and Mandana Misra as legendary.
released a pre-draft version of National Curriculum • For the framework of the social science curriculum, it
Framework (NCF) for School Education. emphasises on understanding and appreciating the
The pre-draft version of National Curriculum Framework feeling of Indianess, ‘bhartiyata’, by valuing the rich
for School Education covers the framework of curriculum cultural heritage and tradition of the country.
for age groups ______years. • The pre-draft recommends learning about Ayurveda
A. 0 to 5 years and yoga.
B. 1 to 10 years • The middle-school history curriculum includes the
C. 3 to 18 years emergence of large empires in the context of Greek and
D. 5 to 18 years Magadh geographies.
E. 10 to 18 years • It also recommends teaching concepts of Buddhism,
Answer: C Jainism and Vedic and Confucian philosophies.
• The Ministry of Education has released a pre-draft
version of National Curriculum Framework (NCF) for 3. Recently as per draft of National Curriculum
School Education and has sought feedback from various Framework (NCF) students should attend school for five
stakeholders, including students, parents, teachers, and a half days a week with Saturdays as a half-day of
teacher educators, experts, scholars and professionals. study amounting to total of __________ hours of
• In view of the diverse needs of students, multiple instruction time per week.
pedagogic approaches, learning-teaching material at the A. 26 hours
B. 29 hours
C. 31 hours statemnet is incorrect?
D. 32 hours A. It was the 3rd edition of India Justice Report (IJR).
E. 25 hours B. Karnataka emerged at the top among the 18 large
Answer: B and mid-sized States with populations of over one crore.
• The draft National Curriculum Framework (NCF) C. It assesses the capacity of 4 core pillars of the justice
suggests that students should attend school for five and system:Police, Prisons, Judiciary and Legal aid across all
a half days a week, with Saturdays as a half-day of 36 states and UTs.
study. D. Sikkim led the list of Seven Small States having a
• This amounts to 29 hours of instruction time per population of less than one crore, followed by Arunachal
week. Pradesh. Goa ranked seventh, the lowest.
• The framework also recommends that class periods E. All of the above are correct
should be 40 minutes for preparatory and middle school Answer: E
stages, and 50 minutes for Class 9 onwards. • India Justice Report is a first of its kind national
• The previous NCF, as released in 2005, gave schools periodic reporting initiated by Tata Trusts in 2019 to rank
more leeway in timetabling the school day and academic the capacity of all 36 states and UTs to deliver justice.
year. • It analyses 4 core pillars of the justice system (Police,
• It only insisted that the school day be at least six Prisons, Judiciary and Legal aid) through the prism of
hours and class time at least 45 minutes. budgets, human resources, workload, diversity,
• By contrast, the new draft NCF provides a specific infrastructure, etc.
framework for the school day and academic year. • The India Justice Report 2022 is the 3rd edition,
• The document, which is now open for comments which also assesses the capacity of the 25 State Human
from the public, suggests the academic year should Rights Commissions in the country separately.
consist of 180 school days or 34 weeks across all stages • Karnataka has moved to first place among the 18
of education. major and mid-sized states with populations of over one
• At the Preparatory and Middle stages, all weekdays crore in terms of justice delivery, which includes the
are to begin with an assembly for 25 minutes. Each police, judiciary, prisons, and legal aid.
period is to last for 40 minutes. Some subjects will • Tamil Nadu came in second place, with Telangana
require a block period- class time is then extended to 80 coming in third. Uttar Pradesh is ranked 18th, which is
minutes. The transition time for students to prepare for the lowest.
the next class is 5 minutes. A 15 minute snack break and • Sikkim led the list of Seven Small States having a
45 minute lunch break are built into the timetable. On population of less than one crore, followed by Arunachal
Saturdays, there are no assemblies and lunch is 30 Pradesh. Goa ranked seventh, the lowest.
minutes. • The High Courts of Kerala and Odisha have the
• Secondary Stage : Class 9 onwards, the weekday will highest case clearance rates — 156% and 131%,
also begin with a 25 minute assembly. Class time is respectively — while the High Courts of Rajasthan (65%)
however 50 minutes; block periods are hence 100 and Bombay (72%), respectively, have the lowest.
minutes. The transition time for students to prepare for • As of December 2022, the High Courts were
the next class is 5 minutes. No time has been allocated operating with just 778 judges, despite a sanctioned
for a snack break, but lunch has been extended to 55 strength of 1,108.
minutes. On Saturdays, there are no assemblies and • The subordinate courts were reported to be
lunch is 30 minutes. operating with 19,288 judges, despite a sanctioned
• The NCF also forms the basis of changes that will be strength of 24,631 judges.
brought about in school textbooks and will influence the • Tripura is the only State where the CCR in district
pattern of teaching and assessment in classrooms. courts remained above 100%.
4. Consider the following statement regarding India 5. Consider the following statement regarding Stand Up
Justice Report (IJR) 2022. Which of the following India Scheme. Which of the following statement is
incorrect? E. Telangana
A. Stand Up India Scheme completed Eight years.
B. It was launched on 5th April 2016 to promote Answer: A
entrepreneurship among women, Scheduled Castes (SC) • The Ministry of Electronics and Information
& Scheduled Tribes (ST) Technology (MeitY) approved the setting up of an
C. Its tenure has been extended up to the year 2025. electronics manufacturing cluster project at Kotur and
D. Women and SC/ST entrepreneurs above 18 years of Belur industrial area in Karnataka’s Dharwad district.
age are eligible for the scheme. • This Rs 180-crore worth of electronics manufacturing
E. All of the above are correct cluster is expected to create over 18,000 jobs.
Answer: A • According to the ministry of Electronics and IT, the
• Stand Up India Scheme completed seven years. project, which is being set up at Kotur-Balur Industrial
• Union Finance Minister said that under the Stand Up Area in the Dharwad District of Karnataka under EMC 2.0
India Scheme loans worth Rs 40,600 has been sanctioned scheme, is expected to catalyse investments to the tune
so far. of over Rs 1,500 crore soon. Nine companies, including
• More than 1.8 lakh women and SC and ST start-ups, have already committed to making
entrepreneurs have received loans of more than Rs investments of Rs 340 crore with an employment
40,600 crore. potential of 2,500 people.
• Out of the total beneficiaries, 80 per cent are • The Centre has already approved a common facility
women. centre (CFC) for the development of an advanced testing
• Stand Up India Scheme has created an ecosystem facility in Mysore, Karnataka that will meet the various
that helps in setting up green field enterprises. It helped testing requirement of the industry.
enterprises in getting loans from bank branches of all • The Modified Electronics Manufacturing Cluster
Scheduled Commercial Banks. (EMC 2.0) scheme was introduced on 1st April 2020 with
• The Stand Up India scheme is based on the third an objective to create world class infrastructure along
pillar of the National Mission for Financial Inclusion - with common testing facilities, including ready built
"Funding the Unfunded". factory sheds/plug and play infrastructure for attracting
• The scheme ensured the availability of credit flow to anchor unit along with their supply chain to set up their
SC/ST and women entrepreneurs. manufacturing/production facility in the country.
• It was launched on 5th April 2016 to promote • Under the Scheme, three electronics manufacturing
entrepreneurship among women, Scheduled Castes (SC) clusters over an area of 1,337 acres with the project cost
& Scheduled Tribes (ST) of Rs 1,903 crore, including Central financial assistance of
• Its tenure has been extended up to the year 2025. Rs 889 crore have been approved with a projected
• It facilitates bank loans between Rs.10 lakh and investment target of Rs 20,910 crore.
Rs.100 lakh to at least one Scheduled Caste/ Scheduled
7. Recently as per report shared by the GI
Tribe borrower and at least one woman borrower per
bank branch of Scheduled Commercial Banks. Registry_________ has topped the list of States in the
• Women and SC/ST entrepreneurs above 18 years of country with the most number of products securing the
Geographical Indication (GI) tag in FY23.
age are eligible for the scheme.
A. Karnataka
6. In March as per report Ministry of Electronics and B. Uttar Pradesh
Information Technology (MeitY) approved the setting up C. Kerala
of an electronics manufacturing cluster project in which D. Tamil Nadu
of the following state? E. Odisha
A. Karnataka Answer: C
B. Odisha • Kerala achieved the first rank in the GI tag list in
FY23.
C. Uttar Pradesh
D. Madhya Pradesh
• Attappady Aattukombu Avara (beans), Attappady • It will be made with the exact specifications of Laser
Thuvara (red gram), Onattukara Ellu (sesame), Interferometer Gravitational-wave \Observatories (LIGO)
Kanthaloor Vattavada Veluthuli (garlic), and in Louisiana and Washington in the U.S.
Kodungallur Pottuvellari (snap melon) were selected for • The LIGO-India project is a collaboration between a
GI tag. consortium of Indian research institutions and the U.S.
• Mithila Makhana (aquatic fox nut) from Bihar was observatories and other international partners.
chosen for GI recognition. • It will be built by the Department of Atomic Energy
• Alibag white onion from Maharashtra was selected and the Department of Science and Technology, with a
for GI recognition. memorandum of understanding (MoU) with the National
• Other products selected for GI tag are Tandur Science Foundation, the US, along with several national
Redgram from Telangana, Ladakh Raktsey Karpo Apricot and international research and academic institutions.
from Ladakh, and Gamosa handicrafts from Assam. • LIGO-India is a collaboration between the LIGO
• Between April 2022 and March 2023, 12 products Laboratory (operated by Caltech and MIT in the US) and
were chosen for GI tag. Two of them were from overseas. three Institutes in India: the Raja Ramanna Center for
• Brandy De Jerez from Spain and Provolone Advanced Technology (RRCAT, in Indore), the Institute
Valpadana from Italy received GI tag. for Plasma Research (IPR in Ahmedabad), and the Inter-
• In FY22, 50 products from domestic and overseas University Centre for Astronomy and Astrophysics
markets were chosen for GI tag. Uttar Pradesh topped (IUCAA, in Pune).
the list with seven GI tags. • This project has been approved by the Indian
• Handcraft products such as Chunar Glaze Pottery, government in 2016.
Banaras Zardozi, Mirzapur Pital Bartan, Banaras Wood • The LIGO is a giant L-shaped instrument in which
Carving, Banaras Hand Block Print, Rataul Mango, and each arm of the ‘L’ shape is 4km long.
Mau saree were chosen for the GI tag from Uttar • Researchers use this instrument to detect, record,
Pradesh. and study gravitational waves.
• Kanniyakumari Clove, wood carving from
Kallakurichi, Karuppur Kalamkari paintings, and 9. As of March 2023 Energy Efficiency Services Limited
Narsinghapettai Nagaswaram (a wind instrument) were has installed __________ Cr. LED Street Lights across 29
selected from Tamil Nadu between 2021-22. States/UTs
A. 1.14 Cr
8. In April as per report Union Cabinet approved a project B. 1.30 Cr
to build an advanced gravitational-wave detector in C. 1.34 Cr
___________ at an estimated cost of Rs 2,600 crore. D. 1.28 Cr
A. Gujarat E. 1.42 Cr
B. Maharashtra Answer: D
C. Uttar Pradesh • The Hon’ble Prime Minister on 5th January, 2015
D. Tamil Nadu launched Street Lighting National Programme (SLNP),
E. Karnataka which is being implemented by Energy Efficiency Services
Answer: B Limited (EESL), a joint venture company of Public Sector
• The Union Cabinet approved a project to build an Undertakings (PSUs) of Ministry of Power to replace
advanced gravitational-wave detector in Maharashtra at conventional Street Lights with smart and energy
an estimated cost of Rs 2,600 crore. efficient LED Street Lights across India.
• LIGO-India is scheduled to begin its scientific • Street Light National Programme (SLNP) is a
operation from 2030. voluntary programme. Under the programme, EESL had
• LIGO India will be the fifth detector after Virgo of set an objective of converting an estimated number of
Italy and KAGRA of Japan. 1.34 crores existing conventional Street Lights across all
Urban Local Bodies (ULBs)/Gram Panchayats (GPs) of the
country with energy efficient LED Street Lights in 5 years.
• For the same, EESL enters into agreement with • This will help in improving the quality of life of
ULBs/GPs directly or through the concerned State/UT people living in identified border villages.
Governments before replacement of Street Lights is • Shri Amit Shah also inaugurated nine Micro Hydel
taken up by EESL. Projects of Arunachal Pradesh government constructed
• Being a voluntary programme, no specific targets under the “Golden Jubilee Border Illumination
have been set for SLNP. Programme” in Kibithoo, on April 10, 2023. These
• Till date, EESL has installed more than 1.28 Cr. LED electricity projects will empower people living in border
Street Lights across 29 States/UTs villages.
10. Consider the following statement regarding Vibrant 11. In March as per report Punjab and _________ High
Villages Programme (VVP). Which of the following Court became the first court in India to have used Chat
statement is incorrect? GPT technology (artificial intelligence) to decide on the
A. Amit Shah launched the ‘Vibrant Villages Programme’ bail plea of an accused and it rejected the petition.
in Kibithoo, a border village in Anjaw district of A. Himachal Pradesh
Arunachal Pradesh. B. Haryana
B. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme for the Financial C. Delhi
Years 2022-23 to 2025-26 with financial allocation of Rs. D. Uttarakhand
4800 Crore. E. Gujarat
C. Under the scheme, holistic developmental works are Answer: B
to be undertaken in northern bordering villages. • The Punjab Haryana High Court became the first
D. In the first phase, 662 villages have been identified for court in India to have used Chat GPT technology
priority on coverage, which includes 455 villages in (artificial intelligence) to decide on the bail plea of an
Arunachal Pradesh. accused and it rejected the petition.
E. All of the above are correct • The bench led by Anoop Chitkara sought the
Answer: E response of Chat GPT (Artificial Intelligence) while
• Union Home Minister and Minister of Cooperation hearing the bail application of an accused arrested in
Shri Amit Shah launched the ‘Vibrant Villages June 2020 for alleged rioting, criminal intimidation,
Programme’ in Kibithoo, a border village in Anjaw murder and criminal conspiracy.
district of Arunachal Pradesh on April 10, 2023. • Justice Chitkara assessed the reply received from
• Under the leadership of Prime Minister Shri Chat GPT and rejected the bail plea of the accused on the
Narendra Modi, the Government of India has approved basis of his experiences and decisions given earlier.
the ‘Vibrant Villages Programme’ (VVP) with central • ChatGPT (Generative Pre-trained Transformer) is a
components of Rs.4800 crore including Rs.2500 crore chatbot launched by OpenAI in November 2022. It is built
exclusively for road connectivity for the Financial Years on top of OpenAI's GPT-3 family of large language
2022-23 to 2025-26. models.
• VVP is a centrally sponsored scheme under which • It is a type of artificial intelligence that can
2967 villages in 46 blocks of 19 districts abutting understand and generate natural language text.
northern border in the states of Arunachal Pradesh, • It is trained on large amounts of text data and uses
Sikkim, Uttarakhand & Himachal Pradesh and UT of an algorithm called a transformer to learn how to
Ladakh have been identified for comprehensive generate text that is similar to human conversation.
development.
• In the first phase, 662 villages have been identified 12. Consider the following statement regarding Pradhan
for priority on coverage, which includes 455 villages in Mantri MUDRA Yojana. Which of the following
Arunachal Pradesh. statement is incorrect?
• Under the scheme, holistic developmental works are A. The PMMY was launched on April 08, 2015.
to be undertaken in northern bordering villages. B. Since the launch of the scheme, as of March 24, 2023,
about ₹23.2-lakh-crore has been sanctioned in 40.82
crore loan accounts. C. UN HIV/AIDS Program Coordinating Board (UNAIDS)
C. About 68 per cent of accounts under the scheme D. Only A and B
belong to women entrepreneurs and 51 per cent of E. All of the above
accounts belong to entrepreneurs of SC/ST and OBC Answer: E
categories. • The United Nations Economic and Social Council
D. The scheme aims to facilitate easy collateral-free (ECOSOC) has elected India as member to the UN
micro credit of up to ₹10 lakh to non-corporate, non- Statistical Commission, the Commission on Narcotic
farm small and micro entrepreneurs for income Drugs, and the UN HIV/AIDS Program Coordinating
generating activities. Board (UNAIDS).
E. All of the above are correct • All three are important subsidiary bodies of the
Answer: E Economic and Social Council of the United Nations.
• The Ministry of Finance said that around 41 crore • The Drug Prevention Commission monitors the
loans amounting to ₹23.2-lakh-crore were sanctioned implementation of international drug control treaties.
under the Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana (PMMY) in the • The United Nations AIDS Program Coordinating
last eight years of existence of the scheme. The PMMY Board provides strategic guidelines for the prevention of
was launched on April 08, 2015. HIV/AIDS.
• Since the launch of the scheme, as of March 24, • The Statistics Commission is the apex body
2023, about ₹23.2-lakh-crore has been sanctioned in overseeing international statistical activities and is
40.82 crore loan accounts. responsible for setting standards in this field.
• About 68 per cent of accounts under the scheme • India has been elected to the highest statistical body
belong to women entrepreneurs and 51 per cent of of the United Nations for a term of 4 years, which will
accounts belong to entrepreneurs of SC/ST and OBC start from 1 January 2024.
categories. • India was last elected a member of this commission
• The scheme aims to facilitate easy collateral-free in 2004.
micro credit of up to ₹10 lakh to non-corporate, non- • India won a landslide victory in the concluded United
farm small and micro entrepreneurs for income Nations Statistical Commission election by securing 46
generating activities. out of 53 votes, leaving behind rivals South Korea (23),
• The loans under PMMY are provided by banks, non- China (19) and the UAE (15).
banking financial companies (NBFCs), micro finance • United Nations Statistical Commission is the apex
institutions (MFIs) and other financial intermediaries. body of the global statistical system which brings
• The Finance Ministry’s statement highlighted that together the chief statisticians of the member states
the scheme aims to fulfill one of the three pillars of the around the world.
financial inclusion—‘Funding the Unfunded’. Other two • It was established in 1947.
pillars are ‘Banking the Unbanked’ and ‘Securing the • It is the highest decision-making body for
Unsecured’. international statistical activities, responsible for the
• Under the scheme, the loans have been divided into creation of concepts and methodologies, as well as their
three categories based on the need for finance and stage national and international implementation.
in maturity of the business. • The commission consists of 24 member countries of
• These are Shishu (loans up to ₹50,000), Kishore the United Nations elected on the basis of equal
(loans above ₹50,000 and up to ₹5 lakh), and Tarun geographic distribution by the United Nations Economic
(loans above ₹5 lakh and up to ₹10 lakh). and Social Council.
13. In April as per report United Nations Economic and 14. In April as per report UK signed a join trade pact with
Social Council (ECOSOC) has elected India as member of __________ Asia and Pacific nations to boost UK exports
the ______________. by cutting tariffs on goods such as cheese, cars,
A. UN Statistical Commission chocolate, machinery, gin and whisky.
B. Commission on Narcotic Drugs A. 15
B. 11 • It is given to the most eminent persons of Poland and
C. 18 the highest-ranking representatives of foreign countries.
D. 16 • This award was officially instituted on 1 November
E. 20 1705 by Augustus II the Strong, King of Poland.
Answer: B • Zelenski also met with the Prime Minister of Poland
• A deal has been signed by UK to join trade pact with Mateusz Morawiecki before attending a Polish-Ukrainian
11 Asia and Pacific nations. economic forum.
• Three years after it officially left the European Union,
the UK has signed a deal to join a trade agreement with 16. In April as per report Chinese government unilaterally
11 countries in Asia and the Pacific. renamed ____________ places in Arunachal Pradesh and
• The deal to join the group would boost UK exports by claimed it as South Tibet.
cutting tariffs on goods such as cheese, cars, chocolate, A. 15
machinery, gin and whisky. B. 11
• However, the government's own estimates suggest C. 16
that being in the bloc would only increase the size of the D. 18
UK economy by 0.08 per cent. E. 20
• In 2018, the Comprehensive and Progressive Answer: B
Agreement for Trans-Pacific Partnership (CPTPP) was • The Chinese government unilaterally renamed 11
established and which includes countries like Australia, places in Arunachal Pradesh and claimed it as South
Brunei, Canada, Chile, Japan, Malaysia, Mexico, New Tibet.
Zealand, Peru, Singapore and Vietnam. • It is the third time, China has unilaterally renamed
• Membership of the CPTPP lowers restrictions on places in Arunachal Pradesh. The first two such lists were
trade between member countries and lowers tariffs. released in 2018 and 2021.
• The agreement is expected to be formally signed by • China also released a map which shows parts of
the end of the year following final approval from Arunachal Pradesh inside the southern Tibetan region.
Parliament and 11 member states. • The Chinese Ministry of Civil Affairs even included a
• The 11 members together generate about 13 per town close to the Arunachal Pradesh capital of Itanagar
cent of the world's income and Britain has become the in the map.
first European country to join after 21 months of • The 11 places named include five mountain peaks,
negotiations. two more populated areas, two land areas and two
rivers.
15. In April as per report __________received the highest • The claimed geographical area is controlled and
honour of Poland. administered by India.
A. Vladimir Putin • The released map shows much of Arunachal Pradesh
B. Narendra Modi as Zangnan, in the south of the Tibetan Autonomous
C. Volodymyr Zelensky Region.
D. Joe Bidden • India rejected China’s decision of renaming 11 places
E. None of the above in Arunachal Pradesh and said that Arunachal Pradesh
Answer: C will always remain an integral part of India.
• Volodymyr Zelensky has been awarded Poland's • India shares 3488 Km border with China.
highest award, the Order of the White Eagle. • Ladakh, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim and
• He has received the award for his service to security, Arunachal Pradesh shares a border with China.
resilience and the defense of human rights. • The Indo-Tibetan Border Police Force (ITBP) is the
• Polish President Andrzej Duda presented the award Border Guarding Force at Indo-China Border.
to Volodymyr Zelensky.
• The Order of the White Eagle is the oldest and 17. In April as per report ________ has appointed Reza
highest decoration of Poland. Ameri as UAE ambassador for the first time since 2016.
A. India • Infertility is a disease of the male or female
B. Iran reproductive system, defined by the failure to achieve a
C. Iraq pregnancy after 12 months or more of regular
D. Pakistan unprotected sexual intercourse.
E. Ukraine • The World Health Organization is a specialized
Answer: B agency of the United Nations responsible for
• Iran appointed UAE ambassador for the first time international public health. Headquartered in Geneva,
since 2016. Switzerland was established on 7 April 1948.
• Iran appointed Reza Ameri as its ambassador to the
UAE. 19. In April as per report Finland became the
• He has served as the Director General of the Iranian ________member of North Atlantic Treaty Organization
expatriates' office in the Foreign Ministry. (NATO).
• In March 2023, as per the China-brokered deal Saudi A. 35th
Arabia and Iran had agreed to resume diplomatic B. 31st
relations between them. C. 29th
• Saudi Arabia, Iran and China have also expressed D. 30th
their desire to exert all efforts for enhancing regional E. 32nd
and international peace and security. Answer: B
• The UAE and Iran relations were degraded in • Finland becomes the 31st member of NATO on 4th
January 2016 after Iranian protesters stormed the Saudi April, in a historic strategic shift provoked by Moscow's
embassy in Tehran following Riyadh's execution of a war on Ukraine, which doubles the US-led alliance's
prominent Shiite cleric. border with Russia.
• The hostility between Iran and Saudi Arabia had • The Finnish flag was raised at Nato headquarters in
increased instability and insecurity in the Gulf region. Brussels, to mark Russia's western neighbour becoming
• UAE and Iran have business ties stretching back from the 31st member of the Western alliance.
more than a century. • Finnish President Sauli Niinisto and the US Secretary
of State joined Nato ministers for a joining ceremony.
18. Recently as per report by WHO around __________% • Joining NATO places Finland under the alliance's
of the adult population are affected by infertility in Article Five, the collective defence pledge that an attack
world. on one member "shall be considered an attack against
A. 18.9 % them all".
B. 17.5 % • NATO was set up in 1949 by the US, Canada, and
C. 23.4 % several western European nations to ensure their
D. 12.6 % collective security against the Soviet Union. It was the
E. 8.7 % US’s first peacetime military alliance outside the western
Answer: B hemisphere.
• Large numbers of people are affected by infertility in • Thirty countries are currently members of NATO,
their lifetime, according to a new report published by which is headquartered in Brussels, Belgium. The
WHO. headquarters of the Allied Command Operations is near
• Around 17.5% of the adult population – roughly 1 in Mons, also in Belgium.
6 worldwide – experience infertility, showing the urgent • Finland Capital: Helsinki, Currency: Euro.
need to increase access to affordable, high-quality
fertility care for those in need. 20. Consider the following statement regarding April
• Lifetime prevalence was 17.8% in high-income Monetary Policy Committee review. Which of the
countries and 16.5% in low- and middle-income following statement is incorrect?
countries. A. Monetary Policy Committee has kept the repo rate
unchanged at 6.50%.
B. GDP will be 6.9% in the current financial year. National Bank Rs 5,340 crore, Canara Bank Rs 4,558
C. RBI governor said real GDP growth is expected to have crore and Bank of Baroda Rs 3,904 crore.
been 7% in FY23. • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has revealed plans to
D. Retail inflation will moderate to 5.2% in FY2023-24. establish a centralised portal to facilitate access to
E. Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) would remain information regarding unclaimed deposits by depositors
unchanged at 6.25%. or their beneficiaries across various banks.
Answer: B
• Monetary Policy Committee has kept the repo rate 22. In April as per report Global trade in goods is likely to
unchanged at 6.50%. grow by __________per cent in 2023.
• Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) has unanimously A. 1. 7 %
decided to keep the repo rate unchanged. B. 2.7 %
• The RBI governor said real GDP growth is expected C. 5.8 %
to have been 7% in FY23. D. 3.2 %
• It is expected that GDP will be 6.5% in the current E. 4.1 %
financial year. Answer: A
• It is expected that retail inflation will moderate to • On 5 April, the World Trade Organization (WTO) said
5.2% in FY2023-24. that global merchandise trade volume is expected to
• Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) would remain grow by 1.7% in 2023, compared to an earlier estimate
unchanged at 6.25%. of 1% in October.
• The marginal standing facility (MSF) rate and bank • But it is lower from growth of 2.7% in 2022.
rate would remain at 6.75%. •
• In the last 11 months, MPC has raised the repo rate • The trade are expected to be 'subpar' due to a
by 250 bps from May 2022. number of factors, including the Russia-Ukraine conflict,
• Next meeting of the monetary policy committee extremely high inflation, tighter monetary policy and
scheduled for June 6-8. financial uncertainty.
• The trade growth is below than 12-year average of
21. Recently as of February 2023 ____________crore 2.6%. In 2024, Trade growth is expected to touch 3.2%.
unclaimed deposits were transferred to the Reserve Bank • However, the estimate is uncertain as much will
by public sector banks (PSBs) in respect of deposits which depend on how the conflict between Russia and Ukraine
have not been operated for 10 years or more. ends.
A. Rs 45,012 crore • As far as India is concerned, its share in global
B. Rs 25,012 crore merchandise trade is 1.8 per cent, which ranks 18th.
C. Rs 35,012 crore • In the financial year 2022-23, India is expected to
D. Rs 15,012 crore witness nearly 6% YoY growth in merchandise trade to
E. Rs 55,012 crore $447 billion.
Answer: C • In terms of imports, the share of India is 2.8% with
• As per information available with the RBI, as of the the ninth rank.
end of February 2023, the total amount of unclaimed • Among the world's leading exporters and importers
deposits transferred to RBI by PSBs in respect of deposits of commercial services like transportation, travel,
which have not been operated for 10 years or more was commercial services, computer services, among others,
Rs 35,012 crore India's share was 4.4 per cent in exports and 4 per cent in
• These unclaimed deposits belong to 10.24 crore imports.
accounts transferred to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) • India ranked seventh in terms of exports and eighth
as of the end of February 2023. in terms of imports of commercial services.
• State Bank of India (SBI) tops the chart of unclaimed • Over recent years, China ranked as the largest
deposits worth Rs 8,086 crore followed by Punjab tourism outbound market and spender.
• The World Trade Organization is an factors.

intergovernmental organization that regulates and A. 6.8 %
facilitates international trade. B. 6.4 %
• Founded: 1 January 1995, Headquarters: Geneva, C. 7.0 %
Switzerland. D. 5.8 %
E. 5.6 %
23. In April as per report World Bank lowered India's Answer: B
FY24 economic growth forecast to ___________% from • The Asian Development Bank (ADB) slashed its India
its December estimate of 6.6%, citing a slowdown in growth forecast for FY24 to 6.4 per cent from 7.2 per
consumption and challenging external conditions. cent estimated earlier, citing risks arising from global
A. 6.2 % and domestic factors.
B. 6. 3% • For FY23, ADB pared down its growth forecast to 6.8
C. 5.9 % per cent from 7 per cent estimated earlier.
D. 6.0 % • ADB said private consumption will be the main driver
E. 5.7 % of growth and the large domestic consumption base will
Answer: B mitigate the impact of a global slowdown.
• The World Bank has lowered its forecast for India's • ADB is a regional development bank established on
economic growth in the current fiscal year that started 19th December 1966.
on April 1 to 6.3% from 6.6%. • Headquarters: Manila, Philippines.
• Asia's third-largest economy recorded year-on-year • Members: 68 members, 49 from within Asia.
growth of 4.4 per cent in October-December, down from
11.2 per cent a year back and 6.3 per cent in the 25. Recently in April as per government report India's
preceding quarter. direct tax collection stood at __________ crore in the
• The World Bank estimated last fiscal year's growth financial year FY23.
at 6.9%. A. ₹14.61 crore
• It projected the current account deficit to narrow to B. ₹15.61 crore
2.1% of gross domestic product for the current fiscal year C. ₹16.61 crore
from an estimated 3% in the previous year, on the back D. ₹17.61 crore
of robust service exports and a narrowing merchandise E. ₹18.61 crore
trade deficit. Answer: C
• The finance ministry's Economic Survey has projected • India recorded strong growth in direct tax collection
economic growth to be 6.5 per cent in the 2023-24 fiscal for the financial year FY23.
beginning April 2023, while the RBI has projected India's • The net collections stood at ₹16.61 crore in the said
economic growth to slow down to 6.4 per cent in FY24 fiscal, registering a growth of 17.63% YoY.
from 7 per cent in the previous fiscal. • Also, the collections have exceeded budgeted
• S&P Global Ratings recently kept its forecast for estimates by a whopping ₹2.41 lakh crore.
India's economic growth unchanged at 6 per cent in the • The country's direct tax collections stood at ₹14.12
fiscal year starting April 1, before rising to 6.9 per cent in lakh crore in the financial year FY22.
the following year. • For financial year FY23, the budgeted estimates (BE)
• In the quarterly economic update for Asia-Pacific, for direct tax stood at ₹14.20 lakh crore which were
S&P saw inflation rate easing to 5 per cent in 2023-24 revised and the Revised Estimates (RE) were fixed at
fiscal, from 6.8 per cent in the current financial year. Rs.16.50 lakh crore.
• That being said, the direct tax collections (net of the
24. In April as per report Asian Development Bank (ADB) refunds) have exceeded the BE by ₹2.41 lakh crore i.e. by
slashed its India growth forecast for FY24 to 16.97%. Meanwhile, it has exceeded the RE by 0.69%.
___________ per cent from 7.2 per cent estimated
earlier, citing risks arising from global and domestic 26. In April as per report Endeavor Group Holdings Inc,
which owns the Ultimate Fighting Championship (UFC) E. 2019
announced the acquisition of entertainment firm World Answer: B
Wrestling Entertainment Inc in a __________billion deal. • UPI processed 8.7 billion transactions in March 2023.
A. $7.3 billion • This was highest number since the inception of UPI.
B. $8.3 billion 8.7 billion transactions amounted to Rs 14.05 trillion.
C. $9.3 billion • As per NPCI data, UPI transactions in March 2023
D. $10.3 billion were 60% higher in volume terms from the year-ago
E. $12.3 billion period.
Answer: C • As per NPCI data, UPI transactions in March 2023
• Endeavor Group Holdings Inc, the parent of the were 46% higher in value terms from the year-ago
popular UFC mixed martial arts franchise will acquire period.
entertainment firm World Wrestling Entertainment Inc in • In March 2022, UPI had processed 5.4 billion
a deal valued at $9.3 billion. transactions. They amounted to Rs 9.6 trillion.
• World Wrestling Entertainment Inc will combine • UPI had processed 8 billion transactions for the first
with Endeavor Group-owned mixed martial arts time in January.
franchise UFC to form a new, publicly listed • It was launched in 2016. In three years, it reached
entertainment giant valued at about $21 billion. the milestone of processing a billion transactions a
• The deal unites two of the biggest names in month in October 2019.
wrestling and entertainment and caps a months-long • Unified Payments Interface (UPI) currently processes
sale process for WWE, overseen by its co-founder and about 30 crore transactions a day.
executive chairman Vince McMahon who returned to the • UPI is developed by National Payments Corporation
company’s board in January. of India (NPCI).
• McMahon will retain his role in the new company,
which will be majority owned by Endeavor with a 51% 28. As per data of Corporate Affairs Ministry (MCA)
stake, while WWE investors will own the rest. Hollywood Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) spending by
power broker and Endeavor CEO Ari Emanuel will take corporate India increased to ____________ in 2020-2021.
the helm at the merged entity. A. ₹24,955 crore
• Under the deal that a source said was internally B. ₹25,715 crore
referred to as Project Stunner, UFC and WWE will also C. ₹26,197 crore
contribute cash to the new company so it holds nearly D. ₹27,238 crore
$150 million. E. ₹28,416 crore
• The new company will be listed under ticker symbol Answer: B
“TKO” on the New York Stock Exchange. • Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) spending by
• McMahon had retired in July last year as the corporate India increased to ₹25,715 crore in 2020-2021.
company’s CEO and chair, following an investigation into • As per data of Corporate Affairs Ministry (MCA), this
his alleged misconduct. Co-CEO Stephanie McMahon, was higher than CSR spend of ₹24,955 crore in 2019-20
who single-handedly managed the mantle when her and ₹20,197 crore in 2018-19.
father exited, resigned a week after he returned in • In the Companies Act 2013, government does not
January. spend CSR fund.
• Allocation of CSR funds to the Government is not
27. In March as per report UPI processed 8.7 billion allowed.
transactions, which was highest number since the • Companies shall file details of CSR expenditure
inception of UPI. In which year was UPI launched? annually in the MCA21 registry.
A. 2015
• The companies must file CSR details for financial
B. 2016 year 2021-22 on or before March 31, 2023.
C. 2017
D. 2018
• As per Section 135 of the Act, every company have to • The RBI has developed a software application,
do CSR if it is having net worth of ₹500 crore or more, or known as ‘APConnect’ for processing applications related
turnover of ₹1,000 crore or more, or net profit of ₹5 crore to licencing of Full-Fledged Money Changers (FFMCs),
or more during the immediately preceding financial year. non-bank Authorised Dealers (AD) Category-II,
• Such companies should spend at least 2% of the authorisation as Money Transfer Service Scheme (MTSS)
average net profits made over immediately preceding 3 Agent, renewal of existing licences/authorisations, for
financial years towards CSR. seeking approval and submission of various
statements/returns.
29. Recently India’s monthly GST collections stood at the • In this regard, RBI has directed them to register on
second highest ever in March 2023 at ____________ . the application within 3 months from the date of
A. 1.60 lakh crore circular.
B. 1.56 lakh crore • On receipt of confirmation from the Regional Office
C. 1.54 lakh crore of the Reserve Bank regarding generation of licence
D. 1.62 lakh crore through APConnect, the existing FFMCs/non-bank AD
E. 1.71 lakh crore Cat-II shall surrender their existing licence to the
Answer: A respective Regional Office of the Reserve Bank.
• India’s monthly GST collections stood at the second • Full Fledged Money Changer is a company that
highest ever in March 2023. carries out trading activities like forex currency after
• It increased 13% from a year earlier to 1.6 lakh crore prior approval from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
rupees. GST collection stood at 1.68 lakh crore in April These companies are sanctioned under the Foreign
2022. Money Exchange Act of 1999.
• Gross GST collection has crossed ₹1.5 lakh crore
mark for the fourth time in the current financial year. 31. Consider the following statement regarding Revised
• Total gross GST collection for FY23 was Rs 18.10 lakh Regulatory Framework for Urban Co-operative Banks
crore. Yearly collection exceeded revised estimate of Rs (UCBs) – Net Worth and Capital Adequacy. Which of the
17-lakh crore. following statement is incorrect?
• The gross revenues in 2022-23 were 22% higher than A. Tier 1 UCBs operating in a single district shall have
the last year. minimum net worth of ₹1 crore.
• GST collection for March 2023 are 13% higher than B. All other UCBs (of all tiers) shall have minimum net
the GST revenues in March 2022. worth of ₹5 crore.
• The average monthly gross GST collection for Q4 of C. Tier 1 UCBs shall maintain, as hitherto, a minimum
FY2022-23 has been ₹1.55 lakh crore against the average CRAR of 9 per cent of Risk Weighted Assets (RWAs) on an
monthly collection of ₹1.51 lakh crore, ₹1.46 lakh crore ongoing basis.
and ₹1.49 lakh crore in Q1, Q2 and Q3, respectively. D. Tier 2 to 4 UCBs shall maintain a minimum CRAR of 12
per cent of RWAs on an ongoing basis.
30. What is the name of the RBI software application E. The instructions has come into effect from April 1,
that has been developed for processing of application for 2023.
licencing of Full-Fledged Money Changers (FFMCs), non- Answer: A
bank Authorised Dealers (AD) Category-II, authorisation • The Reserve Bank of India has revised the regulatory
as Money Transfer Service Scheme (MTSS)? framework for urban co-operative banks (UCBs),
A. PRAVAH prescribing minimum net worth of ₹2 crore for Tier-1
B. APConnect banks and ₹5 crore for all other banks.
C. Utkarsh • UCBs shall have minimum net worth as under:
D. ANURODH • Tier 1 UCBs operating in a single district shall have
E. VIDHAAN minimum net worth of ₹2 crore.
Answer: B • All other UCBs (of all tiers) shall have minimum net
worth of ₹5 crore.
• UCBs which currently do not meet the minimum net • On February 23, 2023, the Reserve Bank of India
worth requirement, as above, shall achieve the minimum (RBI) issued a notification announcing the cessation of
net worth of ₹2 crore or ₹5 crore (as applicable) in a ADCB as a banking company under the Banking
phased manner. Regulation Act, 1949, which has been published in the
• Such UCBs shall achieve at least 50 per cent of the Gazette of India (Part III – Section 4) dated March 25 –
applicable minimum net worth on or before March 31, March 31, 2023. As a result, the ADCB would no longer
2026 and the entire stipulated minimum net worth on or be able to carry on banking business in India.
before March 31, 2028. • The RBI said that the “Abu Dhabi Commercial Bank
• UCBs shall maintain minimum CRAR as under: PJSC” has been excluded from the Second Schedule to the
• Tier 1 UCBs shall maintain, as hitherto, a minimum Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
CRAR of 9 per cent of Risk Weighted Assets (RWAs) on an • The Second Schedule to the Act lists the banks that
ongoing basis. are eligible to operate in India and outlines their
• Tier 2 to 4 UCBs shall maintain a minimum CRAR of respective regulatory requirements.
12 per cent of RWAs on an ongoing basis. • Now the ADCB will no longer be listed in the Second
• UCBs in Tier 2 to 4, which do not currently meet the Schedule, and therefore, will not be able to operate in
revised CRAR of 12 per cent of RWAs, shall achieve the India as a banking company.
same in a phased manner.
• Such UCBs shall achieve the CRAR of at least 10 per 33. As per RBI Master Circular Government of India has
cent by March 31, 2024, 11 per cent by March 31, 2025, forwarded a list of 121 minority concentration districts
and 12 per cent by March 31, 2026. having at least __________% minority population.
• The instructions come into effect from April 1, 2023. A. 25 %
• RBI also revises criteria for classifying UCBs as B. 20 %
Financially Sound and Well Managed. C. 30 %
• Tier-2 UCBs are banks with deposits more than ₹100 D. 40 %
crore and up to ₹1,000 crore; Tier-3 UCBs are banks with E. 15 %
deposits more than ₹1,000 crore and up to ₹10,000 crore; Answer: A
and Tier-4 UCBs are banks with deposits more than • In order to ensure that minority communities secure,
₹10,000 crore. in a fair and adequate measure, the benefits flowing
• Funds raised through Perpetual Debt Instruments from various Government sponsored schemes, Scheduled
included in Tier 1 capital and debt capital instruments Commercial Banks (referred to as ‘banks’ hereafter) are
included in Tier 2 capital should not be reckoned as part advised to ensure smooth flow of bank credit to minority
of net worth. communities.
• Government of India has forwarded a list of 121
32. In April as per report ________ has been excluded minority concentration districts having at least 25%
from the Second Schedule to the Reserve Bank of India minority population (Annexure I), excluding those
Act, 1934. States/UTs where minorities are in majority (Jammu &
A. Abu Dhabi Commercial Bank PJSC Kashmir, Punjab, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland and
B. American Express Banking Corporation Lakshadweep).
C. Australia and New Zealand Banking Group Ltd. • Accordingly, banks are advised to specially monitor
D. Barclays Bank Plc. the credit flow to minorities in these 121 districts
E. Bank of America thereby, ensuring that the minority communities receive
Answer: A a fair and equitable portion of the credit within the
• Abu Dhabi Commercial Bank PJSC (ADCB) is a leading overall target of the priority sector.
banking institution in the United Arab Emirates. • In terms of Reserve Bank's Master Direction on
• However, as of recent times, the bank has been Priority Sector Lending (PSL) dated September 04, 2020
undergoing some significant changes that will affect its (as updated from time to time), a target of 40 percent of
operations in India. Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) or Credit Equivalent
amount of Off-Balance Sheet Exposures (OBE), whichever • Further, the eligibility criteria under DRI, viz. size of
is higher, as on March 31 of the previous year, has been land holding should not exceed 1 acre of irrigated land
mandated for lending to the priority sector by domestic and 2.5 acres of unirrigated land, are not applicable to
Scheduled Commercial Banks and foreign banks. SCs/STs.
• For Small Finance Banks the target is 75% of their • Members of SCs/STs satisfying the income criteria of
Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC). the scheme can also avail of housing loan up to
• Within this, a sub-target of 12 per cent of ANBC or ₹20,000/- per beneficiary over and above the individual
Credit Equivalent amount of OBE, whichever is higher, as loan of ₹15,000/- available under the scheme.
on March 31 of the previous year, has been mandated • Credit Enhancement Guarantee Scheme for
for FY:2023-24 for lending to weaker sections which Scheduled Castes (CEGSSC): IFCI Ltd. has been designated
includes, among others, persons from minority as the Nodal Agency under the scheme, to issue the
communities. guarantee cover in favour of MLIs for financing SC
• The following communities have been notified as entrepreneurs.
minority communities by the Government of India, • Individual SC entrepreneurs/Registered Companies
Ministry of Minority Affairs: and Societies/Registered Partnership Firms/Sole
• (a) Sikhs Proprietorship firms having more than 51% shareholding
• (b) Muslims and management control for the previous 6 months by
• (c) Christians SC entrepreneurs/ promoters/ members are eligible for
• (d) Zoroastrians guarantee from IFCI Ltd. against the loans extended by
• (e) Buddhists MLIs.
• (f) Jains • The amount of guarantee cover under CEGSSC
• Each bank should set up a special cell having a Nodal ranges from a minimum of ₹0.15 cr to a maximum of
Officer holding the rank of Deputy General ₹5.00 cr.
Manager/Assistant General Manager or any other • The tenure of guarantee is up to a maximum of 7
similar rank, in order to ensure smooth flow of credit to years or repayment period, whichever is earlier.
minority communities.
35. A note of which a portion is missing or which is
34. As per RBI Master Circular Under the Differential composed of more than two pieces is which type of note?
Rate of Interest (DRI) Scheme, banks provide finance up A. Mutilated Notes
to __________ at a concessional rate of interest of 4 per B. Soiled Note
cent per annum to the weaker sections of the community C. Treasury notes
for engaging in productive and gainful activities. D. Structured notes
A. Rs 10000 E. Half Note
B. Rs 50000 Answer: A
C. Rs 20000 • A mutilated note is a note of which a portion is
D. Rs 15000 missing or which is composed of more than two pieces.
E. Rs 25000 • Mutilated notes shall be presented at any of the
Answer: D bank branches.
• Under the DRI Scheme, banks provide finance up to • The notes so presented shall be accepted, exchanged
₹15,000/- at a concessional rate of interest of 4 per cent and adjudicated in accordance with NRR, 2009.
per annum to the weaker sections of the community for • The branches shall take steps to see that the
engaging in productive and gainful activities. exchange facilities are not cornered by private money
• In order to ensure that persons belonging to SCs/STs changers or professional dealers of defective notes.
also derive adequate benefit under the DRI Scheme, • In order to facilitate quicker exchange facilities, the
banks have been advised to grant eligible borrowers definition of soiled note has been expanded.
belonging to SCs/STs such advances to the extent of not • A ‘soiled note’ means a note which has become dirty
less than 2/5th (40 percent) of total DRI advances. due to normal wear and tear and also includes a two
piece note pasted together wherein both the pieces • In the event of delay in reporting currency chest
presented belong to the same note and form the entire transactions, penal interest at the rate indicated in
note with no essential feature missing. paragraph 4 of this circular shall be levied on the amount
• These notes shall be accepted over bank counters in due from the chest holding bank for the period of delay.
payment of Government dues and for credit to accounts Penal interest shall be calculated on T+0 basis i.e. penal
of the public maintained with banks. interest shall be levied in respect of transactions not
• However, in no case, these notes shall be issued to reported by currency chests to the Issue Office on the
the public as re-issuable notes, and such notes shall be same business day within the time limit prescribed
deposited in currency chests for onward transmission to above.
RBI offices as soiled note remittances for further • Soiled note remittances to RBI shall not be shown as
processing. withdrawal by chest(s). In case such remittances to RBI
• Notes which have turned extremely brittle or are are wrongly reported as 'withdrawals', a penalty of
badly burnt, charred or inseparably stuck up together ₹50,000 shall be levied irrespective of the value of
and, therefore, cannot withstand normal handling, shall remittance and period of such wrong reporting.
not be accepted by the bank branches for exchange. • Penal interest shall be levied at the rate of 2% over
Instead, the holders shall be advised to tender these the prevailing Bank Rate for the period of delayed
notes to the Issue Office of Reserve Bank of India reporting/wrong reporting/inclusion of ineligible
concerned where they will be adjudicated under a amounts in chest balances.
Special Procedure.
37. As per RBI Master circular what is the incentive
36. Consider the following statement regarding Penal charged for exchange of soiled notes up to denomination
Provisions in reporting of transactions/ balances at of ₹50?
Currency Chests. Which of the following statement is A. ₹1 per packet
incorrect? B. ₹2 per packet
A. The minimum amount of deposit into / withdrawal C. ₹3 per packet
from currency chest shall be ₹1,00,000 D. ₹5 per packet
B. The currency chests shall invariably report all E. ₹8 per packet
transactions through CyM – CC portal on the same day Answer: B
by 7 pm. • Reserve Bank of India issues guidelines / instructions
C. Penal interest shall be levied at the rate of 2% over the for realising the objectives of Clean Note Policy as part of
prevailing Bank Rate currency management. With a view to furthering these
D. Only 1 and 2 objectives, the Bank has formulated a framework of
E. All of the above are correct incentives titled Currency Distribution and Exchange
Answer: E Scheme (CDES) to encourage all the bank branches to
• Reserve Bank of India issues guidelines / instructions provide better customer services to the members of
for realising the objectives of Clean Note Policy as part of public.
currency management. With a view to sustain these • The framework of incentives titled Currency
efforts and to ensure timely and accurate reporting of Distribution & Exchange Scheme (CDES) for bank
currency chest transactions, instructions on the subject branches including currency chests has been formulated
have been issued from time to time. to encourage all the bank branches to provide better
• The minimum amount of deposit into / withdrawal customer service to the members of public keeping in
from currency chest shall be ₹1,00,000 and thereafter, in view the objectives of Clean Note Policy.
multiples of ₹50,000. • As per the scheme, banks are eligible for the
• The currency chests shall invariably report all following financial incentives/service charges for setting
transactions through CyM – CC portal on the same day up requisite infrastructure and facilitating
by 7 pm. exchange/distribution of notes and coins:
• Opening of and maintaining currency chests at based prime (44 per cent) and near-prime (38 per cent)
centres having population of less than 1 lakh, in millennials.
underbanked states : Reimbursement of 50% of capital • Unforeseen medical and monthly expenses were the
expenditure subject to a ceiling of ₹50 lakh per currency top two reasons found for availing of short-term digital
chest (inclusive of all taxes). In the North Eastern region, credit followed by shopping, home renovation,
up to 100% of capital expenditure is eligible for education, among others, which reflects the need for
reimbursement subject to the ceiling of ₹50 lakh unsecured and accessible digital credit products.
(inclusive of all taxes). • Bengaluru led among cities for credit demand
• Exchange of soiled notes / adjudication of mutilated followed by Hyderabad, Pune, Ghaziabad, and
notes over the counter at bank branches: ₹2 per packet Gurugram. West Bengal, Punjab, Gujarat, Assam, and
for exchange of soiled notes up to denomination of ₹50 Kerala were the States from where millennials with the
• Distribution of coins : ₹65 per bag for distribution of highest bureau scores have availed credit.
coins. An additional incentive of ₹10/- per bag shall be • SIP (systematic investment plans) has emerged as
paid for coin distribution in rural and semi-urban areas the most popular option for online investors, accounting
on the submission of a Concurrent Auditor (CA) for 35 per cent of investing activities, digital gold for 18
certificate to this effect. per cent, tax-saving products for 15 per cent, goal-based
• Cash deposit by non-chest branches under Linkage investments for 10 per cent, real estate for 10 per cent
scheme with CCs: Large modern CCs- ₹8/- per 100 pieces and fixed deposits for 5 per cent.
• Other CCs - ₹5/- per 100 pieces • Mumbai-based CASHe is an AI-based, credit-led
• The incentives shall be paid on the soiled notes financial wellness platform focused on financial inclusion
actually received in the Issue Office of the RBI. by serving the underserved digital customers in India.
• Incentive shall be paid in respect of the adjudicated Since 2016, the company has disbursed loans worth
notes received along with the soiled note remittances or ₹7,000 crore to over nine lakh customers. It pegs the
sent separately by registered / insured post in a sealed market of underbanked urban millennials at 125 million.
cover to the RBI.
39. In April as per report ______________became the
38. Recently as per report by CASHe _________ is the new Vice-Chief of Naval Staff (VCNS).
second most preferred method of repaying digital loans. A. Sanjay Jasjit Singh
A. United Payments Interface B. Suraj Berry
B. e-NACH C. Atul Anand
C. Buy Now Pay Later D. Dinesh K. Tripathi
D. LazyPay E. None of the above
E. None of the above Answer: A
Answer: A • Vice-Admiral Sanjay Jasjit Singh became the new
• Customers chose United Payments Interface (UPI) as Vice-Chief of Naval Staff (VCNS) on April 2.
their second most preferred method of repaying digital • Sanjay Jasjit Singh succeeds S N Ghormade, who
loans, coming at 27 per cent, only after e-NACH which demitted office on March 31 after his superannuation.
was the preferred route for 36 per cent of the borrowers. • Sanjay Jasjit Singh was commissioned in 1986 in the
• Further, 84 per cent customers prefer taking a credit Executive Branch of the Navy.
line over personal loans (14 per cent) and BNPL (Buy Now • He was awarded the Nao Sena Medal in 2009, and
Pay Later 2 per cent), as per, the Financial Mood of the Ati Vishisht Seva Medal in 2020.
Millennials Report by financial services platform CASHe • Vice-Admiral Suraj Berry became the Chief of
for FY23. Personnel (COP) while Vice-Admiral Atul Anand took
• Satchetised loans of less than ₹10,000 are preferred over as the Director-General Naval Operations (DGNO).
by 49 per cent of millennials, the data showed adding • The post of COP was vacant after Vice-Adm Dinesh K.
that there is significant credit demand from bureau- Tripathi assumed the charge as the Flag Officer
Commanding-in-Chief (FOC-in-C) of the Western Naval improving upon the pensionary benefits of government
Command. employees covered under the National Pension System,
• V. Adm. Anand had joined into the Executive Branch keeping in view the fiscal implications and impact on
of the Navy. He served as the Flag Officer Commanding, overall budgetary space, so that fiscal prudence is
Maharashtra Naval Area. maintained to protect the common citizen.
• V. Adm. Berry is a specialist in gunnery and missile • The Committee may also co-opt any officer of the
warfare. He Joined the Indian Navy in 1987. Central Government as part of its deliberations
whenever such a need is felt by the Panel.
40. In April as per report Finance Ministry has set up a • However, no timeline has been specified for when
four-member committee under the chairmanship of the panel report needs to be submitted, a pension
__________ to suggest measures to improve the industry observer pointed
pensionary benefits of government employees covered
under the National Pension System (NPS). 41. Recently as per report Tata Power has re-appointed
A. Nishi Khare ________ as the company's Chief Executive Officer (CEO)
B. Amitabh Kant and Managing Director.
C. TV Somanathan A. Arun Verma
D. Bhupesh Sharma B. Praveer Sinha
E. None of the above C. Rahul Jaykar
Answer: C D. Prashant Verma
• The Finance Ministry has set up a four-member E. Rajnish Duggal
committee under the chairmanship of Finance Secretary Answer: B
TV Somanathan to suggest measures to improve the • Tata Power has re-appointed Praveer Sinha as the
pensionary benefits of government employees covered company's Chief Executive Officer (CEO) and Managing
under the National Pension System (NPS). Director.
• This move comes in the wake of Finance Minister • His re-appointment to the top post is for a period of
Nirmala Sitharaman’s announcement in Lok Sabha on four years from May 1, 2023, to April 30, 2027, subject to
March 24 that a committee under the Finance Secretary the approval of members of the company.
would be set up to look into the issue of pensions under • His present tenure as CEO and MD is scheduled to
the NPS with respect to government employees and conclude on April 30, 2023.
evolve an approach that addresses the needs of the • Tata Power is the largest power generation company
employees while maintaining fiscal prudence to protect in India aimed at providing uninterrupted power supply
the common citizen. from its various plants located across India.
• The other members of this committee, now
constituted by the Department of Expenditure in the 42. In April as per report National Green Tribunal (NGT)
Finance Ministry, are the Secretary, Department of has constituted a committee on the ₹72,000 crore Great
Personnel & Training, Ministry of Personnel, Public Nicobar Island project under the chairmanship of
Grievances &Pensions; Special Secretary (Pers), _________.
Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance; and A. Chairman, Pension Fund Regulatory & Development
Chairman,Pension Fund Regulatory & Development Authority
Authority (PFRDA). B. Secretary (Pers), Department of Expenditure
• The terms of reference of this panel are: C. Finance Secretary
• (i) Whether in the light of the existing framework D. Secretary, Department of Personnel & Training
and structure of the National Pension System, as E. Secretary, Ministry of Environment, Forest and
applicable to Government employees, any changes Climate Change
therein are warranted; Answer: E
• (II) If so, to suggest such measures as are • The eastern bench of the National Green Tribunal
appropriate to modify the same with a view to (NGT) has ordered a stay on the ₹72,000 crore Great
Nicobar Island project and constituted a committee to D. Hockey
revisit the environmental clearance granted by the E. Long Jump
Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change Answer: A
(MoEF&CC). • Lance Reddick, a prolific actor who gained fame
• A High-Powered Committee (HPC) headed by the playing a police commander on the Baltimore crime
Secretary, MoEF&CC has been asked to submit its drama “The Wire” and later had prominent roles in the
proceedings within two months. “John Wick” movie franchise and the Amazon series
• The Great Nicobar Island (GNI) is a mega project to “Bosch,” passed away.
be implemented at the southern end of the Andaman
and Nicobar islands. 45. Recently passed away Salim Durani was related to
• The project includes an international container which of the following field?
transshipment terminal, an international airport, A. Cricket
township development, and a 450 MVA gas and solar B. Football
based power plant over an extent of 16,610 hectares in C. Long Jump
the island. D. Hockey
• The Galathea bay in the island is a nesting ground E. Badminton
for birds and the project area is part of Coastal Answer: A
Regulation Zones-IA and IB. • Salim Durani, one of the early stars of Indian cricket,
passed away at the age of 88 on 2 April.
43. Every year on __________ International Day of Sport • A flamboyant all-rounder in the 1960s and 70s,
for Development and Peace is celebrated to Durani played 29 Tests for India from 1960 to 1973.
acknowledge the significance of sports and physical • He scored 1,202 runs at the average of 25.04,
activity in our personal lives. including one century (104 against the West Indies in
A. 7th April 1962) and seven fifties.
B. 10th April • As a left-arm spinner, he took 75 wickets at an
C. 6th April average of 35.42.
D. 8th April • He was born in Kabul, Afghanistan in 1934.
E. 12th April • He was known for hitting sixes on audience demand.
Answer: C • Durani was the first cricket player to get the Arjuna
• The International Day of Sport for Development and Award, which was then the country's highest sporting
Peace (IDSDP) takes place on April 6 and is observed to honour, in the early 1960s.
celebrate the role of sports and physical activity in our • At a BCCI award ceremony in Mumbai in May 2011,
individual lives and communities across the globe. he was also given the CK Nayudu Lifetime Achievement
• The theme for the International Day of Sport for Award by the Indian Cricket Board.
Development and Peace for this year is “Scoring for
People and the Planet.” The theme is applicable for 46. In April as per report ___________ has been
celebrations of this event across the globe. awarded the 2023 International Prize in Statistics, which
• In its 67th session, the United Nations general is statistics' equivalent of the Nobel Prize.
Assembly adopted resolution on August 23, 2013 by A. Bimal Julka
which it proclaimed April 6 as the International Day of B. Neerja Kumari
Sport for Development and Peace. C. Calyampudi Radhakrishna Rao
D. Neeti Mohan
44. Recently passed away Lance Reddick was related to E. Rajesh Kumar
which of the following field? Answer: C
A. Actor • The Indian-American statistician Calyampudi
B. Football Radhakrishna Rao has been awarded the 2023
C. Cricket
International Prize in Statistics, which is statistics’ • Claire Polosak is the first female umpire to stand in a
equivalent of the Nobel Prize. men's international cricket in 2019 between Oman and
• It was established in 2016 and is awarded once every Namibia.
two years to an individual or team “for major
achievements using statistics to advance science, 48. What is the name of the Indian woman weightlifter
technology and human welfare. who has been banned for 4 years for failing a dope test?
• Rao’s groundbreaking paper, ‘Information and A. Kunjarani Devi
accuracy attainable in the estimation of statistical B. Renu Bala Chanu
parameters’, was published in 1945 in the Bulletin of the C. Sanjita Chanu
Calcutta Mathematical Society, a journal that is D. Santoshi Matsa
otherwise not well known to the statistics community. E. Chanu Saikhom Mirabai
The paper was subsequently included in the book Answer: C
Breakthroughs in Statistics, 1890-1990. • Sanjita Chanu is a two-time Commonwealth Games
• Rao will receive the prize, which comes with an champion. She won gold medals at the 2014 and 2018
$80,000 award, in July at the biennial International Commonwealth Games.
Statistical Institute World Statistics Congress at Ottawa • She tested positive for a banned drug, drostanolone.
in Canada. • She was tested at the time of the National Games
• Apart from being conferred with the Padma Bhusan 2022 held in Gujarat in September-October.
in 1968 and Padma Vibhushan in 2001, Rao received the • Drostanolone is an anabolic–androgenic steroid. It is
SS Bhatnagar prize in 1963 and was elected a fellow of banned by the World Anti-doping Agency (WADA).
the Royal Society in 1967. He also received the Wilks • It is used to treat advanced inoperable cases of
Medal of the American Statistical Association in 1979 breast cancer in women. Athletes often misuse it as a
and US National Medal of Science in 2002. performance enhancer.
• In 2018, International Weightlifting Federation (IWF)
47. In April as per report ___________ became the first banned her.
woman on-field umpire in a full-member men's T-20 • At that time, she tested positive for the anabolic
match. steroid testosterone.
A. Sarah Glenn • However, IWF dropped doping charges against
B. Lina Mudgul Sanjita Chanu in 2020.
C. Maddy Green • In 2022, India’s Tokyo Olympians Shivpal Singh,
D. Kim Cotton Kamalpreet Kaur, and Dhanalakshmi Sekar were caught
E. Tina Madrith in the doping net.
Answer: D • NADA was formed in 2005 under Societies
• New Zealand’s Kim Cotton becomes first woman on- Registration Act 1860.
field umpire in full-member men's international cricket. • It is responsible for promoting, coordinating, and
• Kim Cotton became the first-ever female umpire to monitoring the doping control program in India.
stand in a men`s international cricket match.
• Kim Cotton achieved this feat in the second T20I 49. Recently in April which among the following won the
match between New Zealand (NZ) and Sri Lanka (SL) at Australian GP?
the University Oval in Dunedin. A. Max Verstappen
• She is a New Zealand cricket umpire. She was born in B. Lance Stroll
Auckland. C. Carlos Sainz
• She was named as one of the 12 on-field umpires for D. Lewis Hamilton
the 2018 ICC Women's World Twenty20. E. Fernando Alonso
• She was also named as one of the on-field umpires Answer: A
for the 2022 Women's Cricket World Cup in New Zealand. • Red Bull's Max Verstappen has claimed his first
• She has umpired in 16 women's ODIs and 44 T20Is. Australian Grand Prix in remarkable circumstances in a
chaotic Formula 1 race filled with drama from the green E. Mark Zuckerberg
light to the checkered flag. Answer: A
• Although Red Bull's first triumph in Melbourne since • Shah Rukh Khan the man that gave Bollywood its
2011 was expected, the carnage that unfolded in the biggest hit "Pathaan' since the industry seemed to have
latter stages of the race at Albert Park made it an been suffering in box office collections in the post-covid
extremely hard-fought triumph. era, has now ranked highest in TIME 100 Reader Poll.
• Seven-time world champion Lewis Hamilton, who • Shah Rukh Khan, 57, topped the list of most
drove superbly in his Mercedes, finished second, while influential people around the world, for TIME magazine's
Aston Martin's Fernando Alonso filled the third spot on 100th edition of the list. Shah Rukh Khan received 4
the podium. percent of the 1.2 million votes cast by readers in the
2023 TIME100 poll.
50. In April as per report 5 Indian Cricketers have • Notably, Shah Rukh Khan has an estimated net
received the Honorary Life Membership of the worth of ₹627 million ($770 million), making him the
Marylebone Cricket Club (MCC) whom among the richest actor in Asia and fourth richest actor all over the
following is not in the list? world.
A. MS Dhoni • In January 2023, defeating fellow immensely famous
B. Yuvraj Singh and cult actors like Tom Cruise, Jackie Chan, and George
C. Mithali Raj Clooney, Shah Rukh Khan took the fourth position in the
D. Suresh Raina list of eight richest actors of the world released by World
E. Smriti Mandhana of Statistics.
Answer: E • The list that also featured Elon Musk, Lionel Messi,
• Legendary Indian cricketers MS Dhoni, Yuvraj Singh, Prince Harry, Meta CEO Mark Zuckerberg, Meghan
Mithali Raj, Suresh Raina and Jhulan Goswami have Markle saw the Bollywood legend top the list. The actors
received the Honorary Life Membership of the ranked above the likes of Oscar-winning actor Michelle
Marylebone Cricket Club (MCC). Yeoh, athlete Serena Williams, Meta CEO Mark
• Over the years, MCC has awarded Honorary Life Zuckerberg and Brazilian President Luiz Inacio Lula da
Membership to some of the greatest cricketers. Silva.
• MCC revealed the names of five Indian icons, who • Lionel Messi, whose stellar performance during the
have been bestowed with the Honorary Life Membership Qatar FIFA World Cup 2022 brought him and the
of the Club. Argentine team the much coveted trophy, secured the
• Former Indian pacer Jhulan, who called time on her fifth spot. Messi got with 1.8% of the votes.
iconic international career at Lord’s last year, is featured • In second place are the Iranian women who are
in the star-studded list of Indian players recognised with protesting for their rights. They garnered 3% of the
Honorary Life Membership. Jhulan is the leading wicket- votes. The women also won the magazine’s 2022 Person
taker in Women’s One Day Internationals (ODIs) history. of the Year reader poll.
• Starring in the honoured MCC list, former India • In third place, with 2% of the votes, were the
skipper Dhoni, legendary all-rounder Yuvraj and ex-India healthcare workers who’ve been at the frontlines of the
batter Raina have also received life membership of the pandemic since 2020.
club. • Further, Prince Harry and Meghan Markle took the
fourth spot, with each of them getting 1.9% of the votes.
51. In April as per report ___________topped the list of Harry made headlines around the world earlier this year
most influential people around the world, for TIME after he released his memoir Spare.
magazine's 100th edition of the list. • The 2023 TIME100 list will be released on 13 April.
A. Shah Rukh Khan
B. Elon Musk 52. In April as per Airports Council International (ACI) list
C. Lionel Messi __________ has become the ninth busiest airport in the
D. Prince Harry world in 2022.
A. Goa International Airport • Reid Wiseman will be the commander of the Mission
B. Chhatrapati Shivaji International Airport and Victor Glover will be the pilot of the mission.
C. Chennai International Airport • Christina Koch and Canada's Jeremy Hansen will
D. Cochin International Airport work as mission specialists.
E. Indira Gandhi International Airport • NASA has tested its new human space exploration
Answer: E capabilities including the Space Launch System (SLS)
• According to Airports Council International (ACI) list, rocket, Orion spacecraft, and all associated ground
Delhi Airport with more than 5.94 crore passenger traffic systems.
has become the ninth busiest airport in the world in • Artemis II mission is a mission to explore more areas
2022. of moon.
• Hartsfield-Jackson Atlanta International Airport has • The 10-day Artemis II mission will test the agency's
topped the list with 93.7 million passengers. powerful Space Launch System rocket as well as the life-
• Dallas Fort Worth Airport and Chicago O'Hare support systems aboard the Orion spacecraft.
Airport are in the second and third positions respectively. • Artemis II is expected to reach a point more than
• Dubai Airport is in the fifth spot with 66.1 million 230,000 miles (370,000 km) away from the Earth.
passenger traffic. • It will be launched from the Kennedy Space Center in
• Delhi’s Indira Gandhi International Airport (IGIA) is Florida using the SLS rocket.
the only airport in the top 10 list from South and South
East Asia. 54. In April as per report ___________ edition of the
• Delhi Airport was ranked 13th in 2021 and 17th in annual Indian-Sri Lanka Bilateral Maritime exercise
2019. Delhi International Airport Ltd (DIAL) manages SLINEX-2023 is set to take place in Colombo.
Indira Gandhi International Airport. A. 7th
• The top 10 airports in the total passenger traffic B. 10th
represent 10 per cent of the global traffic. C. 13th
• The global passenger traffic in 2022 reached near to D. 18th
7 billion, with an increase of 53.5 per cent from 2021. E. 16th
Answer: B
53. Consider the following statement regarding Artemis • SLINEX-2023 is the 10th edition of the annual Indian-
II Moon Mission. Which of the following statement is Sri Lanka Bilateral Maritime exercise.
incorrect? • It is being carried out in 2 phases of three days each.
A. NASA announced a four-member team of astronauts The two phases are the Harbour Phase and Sea Phase.
for the Artemis II Moon Mission. • INS Kiltan and INS Savitri are representing the Indian
B. Christina Koch is set to become the first woman to fly Navy. SLNS Vijayabahu and SLNS Samudra are
to the Moon. representing Sri Lanka Navy.
C. Victor Glover is the first black person man to take part • The Indian Navy Chetak helicopter and Dornier
in a lunar mission. Maritime Patrol Aircraft along with Sri Lanka Air Force
D. Only 1 and 3 Dornier and BEL 412 helicopters would also take part in
E. All of the above are correct the exercise.
Answer: E • The Special Forces of the two navies will also take
• NASA announced a four-member team of astronauts part in the exercise.
for the Artemis II Moon Mission. • The aim of SLINEX-2023 is to enhance inter-
• The team has three American and one Canadian operability, improve mutual understanding and
astronaut. exchange best practices in multi-faceted Maritime
• Christina Koch is set to become the first woman to fly operations between both navies.
to the Moon. Victor Glover is the first black person man • The ninth edition of Exercise SLINEX was conducted
to take part in a lunar mission. in Visakhapatnam in March 2022.
55. Consider the following statement regarding Indian • LIGO (Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave
Space Policy 2023. Which of the following statement is Observatory) is a planned advanced gravitational-wave
incorrect? observatory (meant to detect and track cosmic
A. Its aims to boost the role of the country's Department gravitational waves) as part of the worldwide network,
of Space and give greater participation to research, which received the Indian Government's in-principle
academia, startups and industry. approval in 2016.
B. The number of startups in ISRO has reached 150 within • It will be built by the Department of Atomic Energy
three years of the opening up of the space sector for (DAE), Department of Science and Technology (DST),
private participation Government of India, with a MoU with the National
C. At present, in the space sector, FDI up to 100 per cent Science Foundation (NSF), USA, etc.
is permitted only through the government route in the • There were only two LIGO observatories in the
field of satellite-establishment and operations. world, both of them in the US and the Indian observatory
D. The Cabinet also approved setting up of LIGO (Laser is scheduled to be completed by 2030.
Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory) at
Maharashtra’s Hingoli. 56. In April as per report NASA launched device named
E. All of the above are correct __________to monitor air pollution across North
Answer: E America from space.
• Three years after opening up the space sector to A. IGNO
private players, the Union Cabinet on Security (chaired B. TEMPO
by the PM) approved the Indian Space Policy 2023. C. DAGGER
• The Cabinet also approved setting up of LIGO (Laser D. TRIGGER
Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory) at E. None of the above
Maharashtra’s Hingoli. Answer: B
• Its aims to boost the role of the country's • NASA launches device TEMPO to monitor air
Department of Space and give greater participation to pollution across North America from space.
research, academia, startups and industry. • The Tropospheric Emissions: Monitoring of Pollution
• The policy sets out the roles and responsibilities of (TEMPO) instrument was launched by NASA in a Falcon 9
organizations such as the ISRO, NewSpace India Limited rocket.
and private sector companies. • The instrument will measure pollution and air quality
• The number of startups in ISRO has reached 150 across greater North America on an hourly basis during
within three years of the opening up of the space sector the daytime.
for private participation on the initiative of the Prime • Existing pollution-monitoring satellites are in low
Minister. Earth orbit (LEO), but TEMPO will be hosted in
• The Indian Space Policy 2023 is expected to provide a geostationary orbit.
framework for the country's space sector for the next • TEMPO will allow scientists to monitor air pollutants
decade. and their emission sources from space more
• At present, in the space sector, FDI up to 100 per cent comprehensively than before.
is permitted only through the government route in the • TEMPO will be part of a constellation of instruments
field of satellite-establishment and operations. measuring air quality over the Northern Hemisphere
• The Indian National Space Promotion and which includes the European Space Agency's Sentinel-4
Authorization Center (IN-SPACe) being the regulatory (under development) and South Korea's Geostationary
and promotional body for space activities was involved Environment Monitoring Spectrometer.
in the revision of the FDI policy which is currently under
consideration of the government. 57. In April as per report President Droupadi Murmu has
• The specific role of IN-SPACe for channelizing FDI will become the ___________ President to take part in a
evolve after approval of revised FDI policy by the sortie in Sukhoi-30 MKI.
Government. A. Second
B. Third • The project at Cambridge Layout in Ulsoor is being
C. Fourth implemented by Larsen & Toubro, which has experience
D. Fifth in constructing 3D-printed buildings.
E. First • The first 3D-printed post office will be located at the
Answer: B Cambridge Layout in Halasuru, Bengaluru.
• President Droupadi Murmu flew on her maiden • The 1,100 sqft building is expected to cost 30-40 per
sortie in a fighter aircraft from Tezpur air base in Assam. cent less than conventional buildings because of the
• Group Captain Naveen Kumar Tiwari, the technological intervention. The post office is being built
Commanding Officer of the 106th Squadron, flew her in a at a cost of Rs 23 lakh.
Sukhoi-30 MKI that took off from the Indian Air Force • The department has also engaged a technical expert
base. from IIT-Madras to monitor the building construction.
• Murmu is the third president after APJ Abdul Kalam
and Pratibha Patil to fly a sortie in a fighter aircraft. Her 59. What is the name of the exercise in which Indian
predecessors, however, had taken their rides from Pune Rafale combat aircraft are likely to participate which is
air base. being hosted by France involving many of its NATO and
• The President’s flight covered a distance of other important allies?
approximately 250 kilometers and included several A. Falcon Strike
maneuvers, such as rolls, loops, and dives. B. Orion
• Former President Pratibha Patil flew in the Sukhoi-30 C. Black Pearl
MKI in 2009. D. Diamond Pearl
• President Murmu’s maiden sortie came at a time E. Golden Strike
when she is on a three-day visit to Assam. On April 7, the Answer: B
President inaugurated the Gaj Utsav-2023 at the • In a first, Indian Rafale combat aircraft are likely to
Kaziranga National Park and attended a program to participate in a multinational wargame codenamed
celebrate 75 years of the Gauhati High Court in Orion which is being hosted by France involving many of
Guwahati. She also flagged off the Mount Kanchenjunga its NATO and other important allies.
Expedition 2023 during the visit. • The aircraft likely to take part in the exercise are
• The Sukhoi 30 MKI is a twin-engine, multirole fighter likely to be from the Western Air Command of the force
jet designed by Russia’s Sukhoi and built under license by which has the Golden Arrows squadron as part of it.
India’s Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL). • The exercise is taking place in France with the
• It is one of the most advanced fighters in the Indian Russia-Ikroane war in the backdrop where NATO led by
Air Force’s arsenal and has been in service since 2002. US is opposing the Russian moves against Ukraine.
• The Rafales of the IAF have earlier participated in
58. Consider the following statement regarding country’s wargames with foreign countries which took place
first 3D-printed post office. Which of the following within India including the ones with French Air Force in
statement is correct? Jodhpur codenamed Desert Knight.
A. The country’s first 3D-printed post office is ready to • The French Air Force would be taking part in the
come up in the capital of Karnataka, Bengaluru wargames with its NATO and other allies with their
B. The first 3D-printed post office will be located at the Rafale and Mirage-2000 fighter aircraft.
Cambridge Layout in Halasuru, Bengaluru.
C. It is being implemented by Larsen & Toubro 60. Consider the following statement regarding India's
D. The post office is being built at a cost of Rs 23 lakh. tallest Ambedkar statue. Which of the following
E. All of the above are correct statement is correct?
Answer: E A. Telangana Chief Minister will unveil a 125-feet-tall
• Bengaluru will soon have India’s first post office statue of Dr B R Ambedkar on the banks of Hussainsagar,
constructed using 3D printing technology. marking the latter’s 132nd birth anniversary.
B. It has an overall height of 175 feet, including a 50 feet
high circular base resembling the edifice of the Parliament E. Indian Council for Cultural Relations
of India.
C. It was designed by renowned sculptors Ram Vanji Sutar Answer: E
and his son Anil Ram Sutar of Ram Sutar Art Creations in • Recently, the Indian Council for Cultural Relations
Noida, Uttar Pradesh. (ICCR) has envisaged a special project called ‘The
D. Only 1 and 3 Language Friendship Bridge’ to expand India’s cultural
E. All of the above are correct footprint in nations with whom it has historical ties.
Answer: E • India is planning to create a pool of experts in
• Telangana Chief Minister will unveil a 125-feet-tall languages spoken in countries like Myanmar, Sri Lanka,
statue of Dr B R Ambedkar on the banks of Hussainsagar, Uzbekistan and Indonesia to facilitate better people-to-
marking the latter’s 132nd birth anniversary. people exchanges.
• On the banks of Hussainsagar near the new • It plans to train five to 10 people in the official
Secretariat complex in Hyderabad. languages of each of these countries.
• It is claimed to be the tallest statue in the country • As of now, the ICCR has zeroed in on 10 languages:
ever built for Dr B R Ambedkar. Kazakh, Uzbek, Bhutanese, Ghoti (spoken in Tibet),
• Height: It has an overall height of 175 feet, including Burmese, Khmer (spoken in Cambodia), Thai, Sinhalese
a 50 feet high circular base resembling the edifice of the and Bahasa (spoken in both Indonesia and Malaysia).
Parliament of India. • The Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR) was
• The statue weighs 474 tonnes. 360 tonnes of stainless founded in 1950 by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad.
steel was used for building the armature structure of the
statue. 62. In April as per report Election Commission of India has
• 114 tonnes of bronze was used for the casting of the given national party status to Aam Aadmi Party (AAP).
statue. Consider the following statement regarding Criteria for a
• It was designed by renowned sculptors Ram Vanji National Party Status, which of the following is correct?
Sutar and his son Anil Ram Sutar of Ram Sutar Art A. A party's candidates in a minimum of four states must
Creations in Noida, Uttar Pradesh, who also designed get at least 6 per cent of the total votes polled in each of
several monumental sculptures, including the world’s those states in the last national election
tallest statue — the Statue of Unity (597 feet) of Sardar B. Party should have won four seats in the Lok Sabha.
Vallabhbhai Patel in Gujarat. C. A party should win a minimum of 2 per cent of the total
• Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar is popularly known as seats in the Lok Sabha.
Babasaheb, meaning "respected father" in Marathi and D. A party is recognised as a "state party" in at least four
Hindi. states.
• In 1990, the Bharat Ratna was posthumously E. All of the above are correct
conferred upon Ambedkar. Answer: E
• In honour of Ambedkar, Indian Constitution Day • Election Commission of India has given national party
(National Law Day) is celebrated on 26 November. status to Aam Aadmi Party (AAP).
• It withdrew the national party status of the three
61. In April as per report __________has envisaged a parties.
special project called ‘The Language Friendship Bridge’ to • These parties are the All India Trinamool Congress
expand India’s cultural footprint in nations with whom it (AITC), Communist Party of India and Nationalist Congress
has historical ties. Party (NCP).
A. Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export • According to Election Commission, AAP has become a
Development Authority recognized state party in four states (Delhi, Punjab, Goa
B. National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing and Gujarat).
Federation of India • It has fulfilled the eligibility conditions for recognition
C. Indian Council of Agricultural Research as a national party.
D. Council of Scientific and Industrial Research
• Election Commission withdrew the state party status Answer: A

of All India Trinamool Congress in the States of Manipur • Tamil Nadu Governor RN Ravi approved a Bill to ban
and Arunachal Pradesh. online gambling, including online rummy and poker with
• It also withdrew state party status NCP in Goa, stakes.
Manipur and Meghalaya. • This will be a big blow to the nascent but fast-
• The state party status of the Communist Party of growing skill gaming sector. The E-Gaming Federation
India in West Bengal and Odisha has also been withdrawn said it is examining the legislation and would take
by the Election Commission. appropriate action in due course.
• Tipra Motha Party got recognition as a state party in • Last month, the Governor returned the Bill after 131
Tripura. days since it was passed in the Assembly. However, for
• Election Commission has granted recognition to Voice the second time, the Assembly passed it again and for
of the People Party as a state party in Meghalaya. Governor’s approval.
• It also granted recognition to Lok Janshakti Party • On September 26, 2022, the Tamil Nadu Cabinet
(Ram Vilas) as a state party in Nagaland. headed by Chief Minister MK Stalin approved an
• Bharat Rashtra Samithi has been de-recognised as a Ordinance to ban online gaming in the State. An
state party in Andhra Pradesh. It was formerly known as ordinance is promulgated after getting the Governor’s
Telangana Rashtra Samithi. consent.
• Rashtriya Lok Dal's state party status has been • The legislation passed by the Tamil Nadu legislature
withdrawn. State party recognitions of following parties incorrectly categorises Rummy and Poker as a game of
have also been withdrawn. chance.
• Pattali Makkal Katchi in Puducherry • The Indian gaming market is projected to grow from
• Revolutionary Socialist Party in West Bengal $2.2 billion currently to $7 billion by 2026. With three
• People’s Democratic Alliance in Manipur gaming unicorns, 400-plus gaming companies, 15,000-
• Mizoram People’s Conference in Mizoram plus gaming developers, and around 420 million gamers
• According to the Election Commission, any of these in the fray.
three conditions need to be met if a party is to be called a
64. Ministry of Panchayati Raj is celebrating National
"national party".
Panchayat Awards Week from _________.
• A party's candidates in a minimum of four states must
A. 17-21 April 2023
get at least 6 per cent of the total votes polled in each of
B. 16-22 April 2023
those states in the last national election. In addition to
C. 1-6 May 2023
this, it should have won four seats in the Lok Sabha.
D. 24-30 April 2023
• A party should win a minimum of 2 per cent of the
E. 25- 31 April 2023
total seats in the Lok Sabha. The party's candidates
Answer: A
should have been elected from not less than three states.
• President Droupadi Murmu inaugurated the five-day
• A party is recognised as a "state party" in at least
National Panchayat Awards Week.
four states.
• It began with the ‘National Conference on
Incentivization of Panchayats-cum-Award Ceremony’ in
63. In April as per report ____________approved a Bill to
New Delhi.
ban online gambling, including online rummy and poker
• Droupadi Murmu said that Villages are the basic units
with stakes.
to develop the entire country.
A. Odisha
• She distributed National Panchayat Awards to best-
B. Tamil Nadu
C. Telangana performing panchayats selected from across the country.
D. Uttar Pradesh • Ministry of Panchayati Raj is celebrating National
E. Karnataka Panchayat Awards Week from 17th April to 21st April
2023.
• The Theme of the National Panchayat Awards Week Answer: E

Celebrations is “Panchayaton ke Sankalpon ki Siddhi ka • PM Modi will inaugurate Northeast’s first AIIMS in
Utsav”. Guwahati.
• The various categories of the National Panchayat • In addition to AIIMS Guwahati, PM will dedicate three
Awards–2023 are: other medical colleges to the nation.
• Deen Dayal Upadhyay Panchayat Satat Vikas • He will also lay the foundation stone of the Assam
Puraskar Advanced Health Innovation Institute (AAHII).
• Nanaji Deshmukh Sarvottam Panchayat Satat Vikas • He will also dedicate to the nation and lay the
Puraskar foundation stone of various projects worth over Rs 3,400
• Gram Urja Swaraj Vishesh Panchayat Puraskar crore.
• Carbon Neutral Vishesh Panchayat Puraskar • PM Modi will formally launch the 'Aapke Dwar
• To further strengthen Gram Sabha for ensuring Ayushman' campaign in Assam.
participatory democracy and making empowered people • PM Modi laid the foundation stone of AIIMS
and accountable Panchayats, a new mobile application GS Guwahati in 2017. It is built at a cost of Rs 1,120 crore.
NIRNAY, National Initiative for Rural India to Navigate, • It has a capacity of 750 beds, including 30 AYUSH
InnovAte and Resolve PanchaYat decisions has been beds. It will have an annual capacity of 100 MBBS
developed to record and upload Gram Sabha proceedings students every year.
open for public view. • PM Modi will also inaugurate Nalbari Medical
• The app Gram Sabha NIRNAY would be launched on College, Nagaon Medical College and Kokrajhar Medical
this occasion by Shri Giriraj Singh, Hon’ble Union Minister College.
of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj. • PM Modi will lay the foundation stone of a bridge
• The recordings made through the GS NIRNAY app will over the Brahmaputra River connecting Palashbari and
provide a means of verification of facts where necessary Sualkuchi.
or in case of queries that may arise regarding the • PM Modi will also inaugurate a 500 Tons Per Day
resolutions undertaken during the Gram Sabha. (TPD) capacity methanol plant at Namrup in Dibrugarh.
• Best Gram Panchyats - Mullusoge (Karnataka), Ngopa • PM Modi will also lay the foundation stone of the
(Mizoram), MilakAmawti (Uttar Pradesh) project related to beautification of Rang Ghar in
• Best Block Panchyats - Hinjilicut (Odisha), Thimmapur Sivasagar.
(Telangana), Kumarghat Bac (Tripura)Best District • It was built by the Ahom king Swargadeo Pramatta
Panchyats - Ganjam (Odisha), Mulugu (Telangana), Dadar Singha in the 18th century.
and Nagar Haveli (Dadar and Nagar Haveli and Daman • PM Modi will also observe a huge Bihu dance. Artists
and Diu). from 31 districts of the state will participate in this
programme.
65. Consider the following statement regarding PM Modi • More than 10,000 Bihu artists will participate in the
visit to Assam. Which of the following statement is event and will attempt to create a new Guinness World
correct? Record in the category of world's largest Bihu dance
A. PM Modi inaugurated Northeast’s first AIIMS in performance at one place.
Guwahati. • The Prime Minister will also attend a function to mark
B. PM Modi formally launched the 'Aapke Dwar the Platinum Jubilee Celebrations of the Guwahati High
Ayushman' campaign in Assam. Court at Srimanta Sankardev Kalakshetra in Guwahati.
C. PM Modi will also inaugurate a 500 Tons Per Day (TPD) • The Prime Minister is also scheduled to dedicate five
capacity methanol plant at Namrup in Dibrugarh. railway projects to the nation. The railway projects that
D. PM Modi will also observe a huge Bihu dance that will will be inaugurated are as follows.
attempt to create a new Guinness World Record in the • Doubling of Digaru-Lumding section, Gauripur –
category of world's largest Bihu dance performance at Abhayapuri section, New Bongaigaon – Dhup Dhara
one place. section
E. All of the above are correct
• Electrification of Raninagar Jalpaiguri-Guwahati durable community assets in the areas of drinking water,
section primary education, public health, sanitation and roads in
• Electrification of Senchoa-Silghat Town and Senchoa- their constituencies.
Marabari section. • MPLAD is a Central Sector Scheme which was
announced in December 1993.
66. In April as per report by Ministry of Statistics and • Initially, the Scheme was under the control of the
Programme ___________ had the highest utilisation-to- Ministry of Rural Development and Planning. In October,
released fund ratio of MPLADS funds. 1994, the scheme was transferred to the Ministry of
A. Gujarat Statistics & Programme Implementation.
B. Maharashtra
C. Karnataka 67. According to the 5th cycle of Management
D. Uttar Pradesh Effectiveness Evaluation (MEE) carried out by the Centre
E. West Bengal __________Tiger Reserve is the country's best-maintained
Answer: A tiger reserve.
• In FY23, Gujarat had the highest utilisation-to- A. Ranipur Tiger Reserve
released fund ratio of MPLADS funds. B. Corbett Tiger Reserve
• While ₹66 crore was allocated to the state, it had C. Kaziranga Tiger Reserve
utilised ₹95.77 crore, 145.11 per cent. D. Ranthambore Tiger Reserve
• This is according to the data that the Ministry of E. Periyar Tiger Reserve
Statistics and Programme Implementation presented in Answer: E
the parliament on March 27, 2023. • The Periyar Tiger Reserve in Kerala is the country's
• The other major states with the highest utilisation-to- best-maintained tiger reserve, according to the 5th cycle
released fund ratio include Jharkhand, Karnataka, Kerala, of Management Effectiveness Evaluation (MEE) carried
West Bengal and Tamil Nadu. out by the Centre.
• MPLADS is a central government scheme under which • It was declared a Tiger Reserve in 1978.
MPs can recommend development programmes of • It gets its name from the River Periyar, which has its
expenditure of ₹5 crore every year in their constituencies. origin deep inside the reserve.
• Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha MPs can recommend • While Periyar reserve has obtained an MEE score of
projects here. The funds for the projects get transferred to 94.3%, it is followed closely by the Satpura Tiger Reserve
the respective local authorities here. in Madhya Pradesh, Bandipur in Karnataka and
• Data shows that funds received from the Centre by Nagarhole in Karnataka.
each State are proportional to the number of MPs that • The government has been using the MEE to assess
the State elects. tiger reserves across the country since its inception in
• For instance, Uttar Pradesh received ₹427.5 crore. The 2006.
State has 80 Lok Sabha MPs. The State has utilised 99 per • At present, the country has 998 Protected Areas –
cent of the funds that it received in FY23, as of March 27, including 106 National Parks, 567 Wildlife Sanctuaries,
2023. 105 Conservation Reserves and 220 Community Reserves
• Uttar Pradesh is followed by Maharashtra, Bihar and — covering 1,73,629 sq km or 5.28% of India’s
West Bengal. These States received ₹341.34 crore, geographical area.
₹219.95 crore, and ₹182.17 crore respectively. • Of these, 53 Tiger Reserves have been notified, which
• On the other hand, four union territories, serve as an additional layer of protection around PAs.
Lakshadweep, Chandigarh, Andaman and Nicobar Islands, • Of these 53 tiger reserves, however, only 51, covering
and Dadra and Nagar Haveli received no money in FY23. a total area of 73,765 sq km, which account for 2.3% of
Among states, Sikkim received the lowest amount of India’s land area were evaluated as two newly declared
money at ₹2 crore. tiger reserves, Ramgarh Visdhari and Ranipur, have not
• Under MPLADS MPs can recommend works of been included in the current cycle of MEE.
developmental nature with emphasis on the creation of
• In the 5th cycle, there are 12 Tiger Reserves that have • NTCA in collaboration with the Wildlife Institute of
scored 90% and above and therefore a new category of India (WII), has conducted a national assessment for the
‘Excellent’ has been added. "Status of Tigers, Co-predators, Prey and their Habitat"
• Twelve 12 tiger reserves have ranked in the every four years since then.
“Excellent” category, followed by 20 in the ‘Very Good’ • The first status assessment of 2006 was peer
category, 14 in the ‘Good’ category and 5 in the ‘Fair’ reviewed by the International Union for Conservation of
category. None of the country’s tiger reserves was graded Nature (IUCN).
as ‘Poor’. • Project Tiger is a tiger conservation programme
launched in April 1973 by the Government of India during
68. Consider the following statement regarding 5th cycle Prime Minister Indira Gandhi's tenure.
of the All India Tiger Estimation. Which of the following • The monitoring system M-STrIPES (Monitoring System
statement is incorrect? for Tigers - Intensive Protection and Ecological Status) - is
A. India's tiger population rose by 200 in the past four a software-based monitoring system developed (by NTCA
years from 2,967 tigers in 2018 to reach 3,167 in 2022. in 2010) to assist patrol and protect tiger habitats.
B. The tiger population has grown the most in the Shivalik
hills and Gangetic flood plains. 69. In April as per report ___________became the first
C. PM Modi also launched the International Big Cats state to adopt a water budget to address water scarcity in
Alliance (IBCA) to protect and conserve seven main big some areas.
cats Tiger, lion, leopard, snow leopard, puma, jaguar, and A. Odisha
cheetah. B. Telangana
D. As per report 75% of the world’s tiger population is in C. Karnataka
India. D. Kerala
E. All of the above are correct E. Tamil Nadu
Answer: E Answer: D
• PM Modi released the latest census data of the tigers • On 17 April, Chief Minister Pinarayi Vijayan released
in the country at Mysuru, Karnataka, on April 9. the Public Water Budget.
• According to data, in the year 2022, the number of • Kerala became the first state to adopt a water budget
tigers in the country was 3167. to address water scarcity in some areas.
• The number of tigers has increased by 200 in the last • In the first phase of the project, 94 Gram Panchayats
4 years. Earlier in 2018 this number was 2967. and 15 Block Panchayats will be covered.
• The figure of the number of tigers is released only at • CM also launched the third phase of the Ini Njan
an interval of every four years. Ozhukatte (Let me flow now) project, for the
• The number of tigers in the country was 2226 in 2014, rehabilitation of irrigation networks in the Western
1706 in 2010 and 1411 in 2006. Ghats.
• PM Modi has also released a commemorative coin to • In 2019, the idea of a water budget was first mooted
mark the completion of 50 years of Project Tiger and also by Kerala.
launched the International Big Cats Alliance (IBCA). • The budget gives data about the availability of water
• This IBCA includes countries where seven animals of at a particular place and its consumption on the basis of
the 'Marjar' species - tiger, lion, leopard, snow leopard, population in the area.
puma, jaguar and cheetah are found. • The Water Resources Development Management
• This organization will focus on the conservation and Center and the State Water Department prepared the
protection of these animals. budget.
• Currently, India is home to the most Asiatic elephants, • As part of the Ini Njan Ozukate project, the state has
single-horned rhinos, leopards, and tigers. recovered hundreds of water bodies and will use satellite
• 75% of the world’s tiger population was in India and data to assess the status of water bodies in 230-gram
that the country had seen a 75% growth in the population panchayats in its third phase.
of big cats over the last 10-12 years.
• During the first and second phases, about 7,290 km of B. 28

irrigation network was rejuvenated. C. 29
• Though the state has about 44 rivers and many other D. 31
water bodies, some parts face acute water shortage E. 20
during the summer season. Answer: C
• Twenty-nine of the 30 incumbent Chief Ministers are
70. Recently as per report government is planning to crorepatis with Andhra Pradesh's Jagan Mohan Reddy
rehaul the livestock insurance scheme and will launch a having the highest assets totalling ₹510 crore, according
comprehensive livestock insurance scheme just like Prime to poll affidavits analysed by the Association for
Minister Fasal Bima Yojana. Democratic Reforms (ADR).
At present __________% of India’s cattle population is • West Bengal Chief Minister Mamata Banerjee has the
insured. lowest total assets of about ₹15 lakh, the ADR said.
A. 5 % • The ADR and Election Watch (NEW) said they have
B. 1 % arrived at this conclusion after analysing the self-sworn
C. 3 % poll affidavits of all the 30 current Chief Ministers of
D. 2% States and union territories.
E. 4 % • There are 28 State Chief Ministers and two union
Answer: B territories — Delhi and Puducherry — also have Chief
• The government is planning to rehaul the livestock Ministers. The Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir
insurance scheme and will launch a comprehensive does not have a Chief Minister currently.
livestock insurance scheme just like Prime Minister Fasal • Out of the 30 CMs analysed, 29 (97 per cent) are
Bima Yojana. crorepatis with the average assets being ₹33.96 crore for
• At present, less than 1% of India’s cattle population is every CM.
insured and the average yearly premium is 4.5% of the • According to the ADR report, out of the 30 CMs, 13
insured amount. (43 per cent) have declared serious criminal cases
• Recently, a Parliamentary Standing Committee raised including those related to murder, attempt to murder,
concern in front of the Animal Husbandry Ministry for zero kidnapping and criminal intimidation. Serious criminal
insurance coverage of livestock in 2022-23. cases are non-bailable offences with over five years of
• According to the report of the panel, 174,061 animals imprisonment, the report said.
were insured in 2021-22 while not a single livestock • The top three Chief Ministers in terms of assets are
insurance was done in 2022-23. Andhra Pradesh's Jagan Mohan Reddy (over ₹510 crore),
• The central government is planning to launch the Arunanchal Pradesh's Pema Khandu (over ₹163 crore),
scheme before the 2024 Lok Sabha elections. and Odisha's Naveen Pattnaik (over ₹63 crore), according
• The government is considering waving premiums of to the ADR.
cattle rearers from Scheduled Caste (SC)-Scheduled Tribe • The three CMs with the lowest declared assets are —
(ST) communities. West Bengal's Mamata Banerjee (over ₹15 lakh), Kerala's
• The main focus of the revamped scheme will be to Pinarayi Vijayan (over ₹1 crore) and Haryana's Manohar
reduce the premium to attract more farmers to enroll in Lal (over ₹1 crore).
the insurance scheme.
• The current Centrally-sponsored livestock insurance 72. Consider the following statement regarding IMD
scheme is functional in 100 districts. It is managed by the predicted a normal monsoon despite El Nino. Which of the
respective State Livestock Development Boards. following statement is incorrect?
A. The India Meteorological Department (IMD) said that
71. Recently as per report by Association for Democratic rainfall will be 96% of the long-period average of 87 cm.
Reforms (ADR) ___________Chief Ministers are B. IMD has predicted that the monsoon will be “normal”
crorepatis. despite the possibility of El Nino conditions.
A. 25 C. During this year’s monsoon, Positive Pacific Ocean
Dipole conditions are likely to develop. • Bilateral trade between India and US was $80.51
D. Only 1 and 2 billion in 2020-21.
E. All of the above are correct • Exports to the US increased by 2.81% to $78.31 billion
Answer: C in 2022-23. Exports to the US were $76.18 billion in 2021-
• The India Meteorological Department (IMD) said that 22.
rainfall will be 96% of the long-period average of 87 cm. • Imports to the US grew by about 16% to $50.24
• It means that 83.5 cm of rainfall will be received from billion. In 2022-23, India had a trade surplus of $28 billion
June to September of this year. with the US.
• IMD has predicted that the monsoon will be “normal” • During 2022-23, India’s bilateral trade with China
despite the possibility of El Nino conditions. declined by about 1.5% to $113.83 billion as against
• The long-period average has been calculated based $115.42 billion in 2021-22.
on the data from 1971 to 2020. • Exports to China declined by approximately 28% to
• India has received normal to above-normal rainfall in $15.32 billion in 2022-23. Imports increased by 4.16% to
the last four years (2019 to 2022). $98.51 billion in the last fiscal.
• Northeast regions are expected to receive Normal to • China was India’s top trading partner from 2013-14
above-normal rainfall. till 2017-18. It was also India’s top trading partner in
• Rajasthan, Haryana, Uttarakhand, Maharashtra and 2020-21.
Gujarat are likely to receive Normal to below-normal • During 2022-23, the UAE was India‘s third largest
rainfall. trading partner with $76.16 billion.
• According to climatic models, El Nino conditions are • UAE was followed by Saudi Arabia ($52.72 billion)
likely to develop during the monsoon season of this year. and Singapore (USD 35.55 billion).
The effect of El Nino will be felt in the second half of the • India is the world’s 3rd largest consumer market.
season.
• El Nino conditions means that rainfall will be below 74. In April as per report __________became the first
than normal. country to approve the use of the Oxford malaria vaccine.
• IMD pointed out that two factors- Indian Ocean A. UK
Dipole and the snow-covered area over the northern B. Brazil
hemisphere and Eurasia can also influence the monsoon. C. Bangladesh
• During this year’s monsoon, Positive Indian Ocean D. India
Dipole conditions are likely to develop. E. Ghana
• The snow-covered area in the northern hemisphere Answer: E
will also be favourable for this year's monsoon. • Ghana became the first country to approve the use of
the Oxford malaria vaccine.
73. Recently as per report ____________became India’s • The Oxford malaria vaccine, developed in the UK, has
largest trading partner with $128.55 billion in received regulatory approval for use in Ghana.
FY23. • Ghana's Food and Drugs Authority has granted
A. UAE clearance for the use of R21/Matrix-M vaccine.
B. USA • The vaccine has exceeded the World Health
C. China Organization's efficacy target of 75%, will be given
D. Russia specifically to children aged 5–36 months who are at
E. Saudi Arabia highest risk of death from malaria.
Answer: B • According to the WHO, an estimated 619,000 people
• US became India’s largest trading partner in FY23. died from malaria in 2021, most of them were children in
Bilateral trade between both countries has increased by sub-Saharan Africa.
7.65% to $128.55 billion in 2022-23 as against $119.5 • Ghana, a country where malaria is both endemic and
billion in 2021-22 as per provisional data of the commerce perennial, has reported an estimated 5.3 million cases
ministry. and 12,500 estimated deaths due to the disease.
• Phase 3 testing of the vaccine is ongoing, but earlier in april 2023 in western australia?
trials have shown efficacy levels of 77%. A. Cyclone Ilsa
• The Serum Institute of India, a leading biotechnology B. Cyclone Hunda
company, has stated that it has the capacity to produce C. Cyclone Freddy
over 200 million doses of the R21 vaccine on an annual D. Cyclone Sitab
basis. E. Cyclone Sitrang
Answer: A
75. In April as per report 2023 Group of 7 (G7) Ministers’ • Cyclone Ilsa hit a remote stretch of coast in Western
Meeting on Climate, Energy and Environment was held on Australia near Port Hedland.
15-16 April in __________. • The speed of the wind was 218 kilometer per hour on
A. India Bedout Island just off the coast.
B. Japan • It is the strongest cyclone to hit the region in the last
C. Australia 14 years.
D. China • Australia uses a five-tier system to categorize
E. Nepal cyclones. Cyclone Ilsa has been kept in category three.
Answer: B • Cyclones are common on the west coast of Australia.
• The 2023 Group of 7 (G7) Ministers’ Meeting on Tropical Cyclone Monica was the strongest cyclone to hit
Climate, Energy and Environment was held on 15-16 April Australia.
in Sapporo, Japan. • A cyclone is a large air mass that rotates around a
• The meeting considered priority issues in the areas of strong center of low atmospheric pressure,
climate, energy, and the environment. counterclockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and
• Union Environment Minister Bhupender Yadav attend clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere.
the plenary session of the G7 minister's meeting.
• The Climate and Environment Ministers of the G7 77. Recently as per report ____________ has become the
have agreed on a joint statement to tackle global nature largest 'narco-state' in the world.
loss. A. Syria
• The G7 members committed to the effective B. Brazil
implementation of the Global Biodiversity Framework C. Singapore
(GBF). D. Maldives
• G7 ministers also agreed to dedicate a significant E. Argentina
amount of international climate finance to nature-based Answer: A
solutions. • Syria has become the largest 'narco-state' in the
• G7 members commit to quitting fossil fuels faster but world. The production and export of Captagon, which is
failed to agree on any new deadlines. Last year G7 also known as the "poor man's coke," has become a
pledged to largely end fossil fuel use in their electricity crucial source of economic sustenance for Syria.
sectors by 2035. • This highly addictive Captagon has become the
• G7 members agreed to reduce gas consumption and primary lifeline of the country's economy, generating over
increase electricity generation from renewable sources. 90% of its foreign exchange.
• The global goal of reaching net zero by 2050 required • "Narco-State" means a nation where a significant
enhanced emission descaling by developed countries. portion of the economy is dependent on the illegal trade
• As per the "Global Carbon Budget Report - 2022", in narcotic drugs.
China, the US and European Union are responsible for • Captagon's widespread presence and profitability in
more than half of the world's CO2 emissions. Syria has raised concerns about the devastating impact of
• The G-7 includes Canada, France, Germany, Italy, drug trafficking on the country's social fabric, health and
Japan, the United States and the United Kingdom. security.
• Captagon is a synthetic stimulant that combines
76. What is the name of the cyclone that made its landfall amphetamine and caffeine. Captagon was classified as an
illegal drug by the United Nations Office on Drugs and • India's annual Wholesale Price Index (WPI)-based
Crime (UNODC) in 2021. inflation declined to a 29-month low of 1.34 per cent in
• In 1961, Captagon was originally introduced by a March 2023 as input prices continued to moderate.
German pharmaceutical company for medical purposes. • This is the 10th straight month of decline in WPI-
• Later, Captagon was found to be highly addictive and based inflation.
harmful to mental and physical health, leading to its • The food index inflation eased to 2.32 per cent in
prohibition. March from 2.76 per cent in February.
• Captagon is a highly sought-after recreational drug • Recently, India's retail inflation cooled to below the
among young people in the Gulf countries, commonly Reserve Bank of India's upper tolerance level of 6 per cent
known as "party pills". for the first time in three months, to 5.66 per cent in
March supported by a favourable base and easing pent-
78. In April as per report ___________ signed a up demand.
memorandum of understanding with High Glory
Footwear, a subsidiary of Taiwan-based Pou Chen 80. As per National Securities Depository data
Corporation footwear maker for an investment of ₹2,302 ___________ is presently the second largest jurisdiction
crore in the state. for FPI flows in India behind the United States.
A. Odisha A. Mauritius
B. Tamil Nadu B. Maldives
C. Telangana C. Singapore
D. Karnataka D. England
E. Kerala E. Russia
Answer: B Answer: C
• The Tamil Nadu government signed a memorandum • Foreign capital flows into Indian capital markets from
of understanding with a well-known footwear maker for Mauritius fell the most sharply in FY23 as per National
an investment of ₹2,302 crore in the state. Securities Depository data.
• The MoU was signed with High Glory Footwear, a • Total assets under custody from Mauritius fell about
subsidiary of Taiwan-based Pou Chen Corporation, the 42% to Rs 6.66 trillion at the end of March 2023.
world's largest branded footwear manufacturer. • Total assets under custody (AUC) from Norway and
• It is the state government's nodal agency for Singapore saw a 13% and 5% increase, respectively during
investment promotion and single window facilitation. FY23.
• Manufacturing unit will come up at SIPCOT, • Singapore is presently the second largest jurisdiction
Ulundurpet in Kallakurichi. for FPI flows behind the United States.
• The investment has been attracted in the wake of the • Mauritius' ranking has fallen to 4 (from 2) at the end
government releasing a Footwear and Leather Products of 2021-22.
Policy 2022 in August last year. • Overall, foreign portfolio investor (FPI) AUC declined
4.44% in FY23.
79. India's annual Wholesale Price Index (WPI)-based • Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI): It is an investment
inflation declined to a _________ month low of 1.34 per in a foreign country's financial assets, either stocks or
cent in March 2023. bonds.
A. 23 month
B. 25 month 81. In April as per report ___________launched the
C. 29 month country's first-ever Real Estate Investment Trusts and
D. 27 month Infrastructure Investment Trusts index -- Nifty REITs and
E. 28 month InvITs Index.
Answer: C A. NSE Indices Ltd
B. ICICI Lombard General Insurance
C. SBI General Insurance
D. Tata AIG General Insurance • This will benefit farmers not only by making their jobs
E. Reliance General Insurance easier and more efficient, but it will also help to increase
Answer: A agricultural productivity and reduce food waste.
• NSE Indices Ltd, an arm of the National Stock
Exchange (NSE) launched the country's first-ever Real 83. Recently as per report gap between sanctioned and
Estate Investment Trusts and Infrastructure Investment disbursed under Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana (PMMY)
Trusts index -- Nifty REITs and InvITs Index. has declined to an all-time low level of ________% at end
• The index aims to track the performance of REITs and of FY23.
InvITs that are publicly listed and traded on the NSE. A. 1.35 %
• A real estate investment trust (REIT) or an B. 5.46 %
infrastructure investment trust (InvIT) is an investment C. 3.33 %
vehicle that owns revenue-generating real estate or D. 2.20 %
infrastructure assets. E. 1.12 %
• REITs invest in real estate projects, whereas InvITs Answer: A
invest in infrastructure projects with a long gestation • The gap between sanctioned and disbursed under
period. Through these trusts, investors get exposure to Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana (PMMY) has declined to
diversified regular income-generating real estate and an all-time low level of 1.35% at end of FY23.
infrastructure assets. • Earlier, the gap between sanctioned and disbursed
• The weights of securities within the index will be under PMMY stood at 2.2% and 3.3%.
based on their free-float market capitalisation, subject to • As on 31 March 2022, NPA (Non-Performing Assets) in
a security cap of 33 per cent each, and the aggregate MUDRA stood at 3.17%.
weight of the top three securities is capped at 72 per cent. • The NPA were more than 270 bps lower than overall
• The Nifty REITs and InvITs index has a base value of Gross NPA.
1,000 and the index will be reviewed and rebalanced on a • During FY23, sanctions were made amounting to
quarterly basis. ₹4.48-lakh crore.
• Out of this, ₹4.42-lakh crore were disbursed. This is
82. In April as per report _____________has become the 98.65% of the total sanctions.
first drone company to receive Agri Drone Subsidy for • As per Finance Ministry, about 41 crore loans
their agricultural drones. amounting to ₹23.2-lakh-crore were sanctioned under
A. Ninjakart PMMY in the last eight years.
B. Garuda Aerospace • Under the scheme, no collateral is required. Loans are
C. Shiprocket extended to eligible micro units under the scheme.
D. IG Drones • On April 8, the scheme completed eight years since its
E. Aestria Aerospace launch. It was launched on April 08, 2015.
Answer: B • According to Finance Minister, Nearly 68% of the
• Chennai-based drone start-up Garuda Aerospace has accounts under the scheme belong to women
become the first drone company to receive Agri Drone entrepreneurs.
Subsidy for their agricultural drones. • The aim of the scheme is to facilitate easy collateral-
• This subsidy is part of the Indian government’s efforts free micro credit of up to ₹10 lakh to non-corporate, non-
to promote the use of agricultural drones. Garuda Kisan farm small and micro entrepreneurs.
Drones were given to eight farmers under the Agri-drone • It aims to fulfil one of the three pillars of the financial
subsidy at an event held in Pune. inclusion — ‘Funding the Unfunded’.
• This subsidy is just one of many initiatives launched • ‘Banking the Unbanked’ and ‘Securing the Unsecured’
by the Union government to support the development of are other two pillars.
India’s drone industry. • Loans under PMMY are provided to diverse industries
to meet both term loan and working capital components.
84. Recently as per report Unified Payments Interface E. ₹5 crore
(UPI) was most preferred medium for digital payments in Answer: E
2022. It has a volume and value market share of ____in • The Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small
2022. Enterprises (CGTMSE) has upped the coverage ceiling
A. 85% under its Credit Guarantee Fund Scheme from ₹2 crore to
B. 84% ₹5 crore per borrower for credit facilities extended by
C. 83% lending institutions to Micro and Small Enterprises
D. 82% (MSEs).
E. 81% • CGTMSE, set up by the Government of India and SIDBI
Answer: B provide guarantee to enable MSEs access credit, reduction
• Most preferred medium for digital payments was in guarantee fee for loans up to ₹1 crore to bring down
Unified Payments Interface (UPI) in 2022. the cost of credit and doubled the threshold limit for
• UPI has a volume and value market share of 84% in waiver of legal action by lenders while invoking
2022. guarantee to ₹10 lakh per claim.
• Adoption of credit cards increased as per the India • The changes are effective April 1, comes when the
Digital Payments Annual Report for 2022 released by loan growth to the MSE segment slowed to 13.2 per cent
Worldline. year-on-year as on February 24, 2023 against 24 per cent
• There was a slowdown in debit card transactions in y-o-y as on February 25, 2022.
2022. • This move is expected to encourage the public and
• Debit and credit cards collectively accounted for 14% private sector banks, Member Financial Institutions and
of the transactions in terms of value and 7% of foreign banks to step up loans to MSEs.
transactions in terms of value. • As on February 24, 2023, the scheduled commercial
• The report said the volume and value of transactions banks’ credit to MSEs stood at ₹5,87,494 crore compared
via credit cards has grown steadily throughout the year. with ₹5,18,873 crore as on February 25, 2022.
• It is likely to increase because credit cards are now • The annual guarantee fee (AGF), which is generally
eligible for UPI transactions. passed on to the borrowers for loans upto ₹10 lakh has
• Within UPI, the most preferred payment modes been reduced to 0.37 per ceent (from 0.75 per cent) and
among consumers were Person-to-Merchant (P2M) and for loans above ₹10 lakh up to ₹50 lakh to 0.55 per cent
Person-to-Person (P2P). (from 1.10 per cent).
• State Bank of India and ICICI Bank were among the • The AGF for loans above ₹50 lakh up to ₹1 crore is
top five banks, both in terms of being a UPI remitter and 0.60 per cent; above ₹1 crore up to ₹2 crore (1.20 per
beneficiary bank. cent); and for loans above ₹2 crore up to ₹5 crore (1.35
• The other top UPI remitter banks in 2022 were HDFC per cent).
Bank, Bank of Baroda and Union Bank. • Earlier, there was a single slab of ₹50 lakh up to ₹2
• The other top UPI beneficiary banks were Paytm crore for which the AGF was 1.20 per cent.
Payments Bank, YES Bank and Axis Bank. • The credit guarantee scheme (CGS) assures a lender
that if an MSE unit that has availed itself of collateral-free
85. Recently as per report Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for credit facilities (fund-based and/or non-fund based) fails
Micro and Small Enterprises (CGTMSE) has upped the to discharge its liabilities, then the trust would make good
coverage ceiling under its Credit Guarantee Fund Scheme the loss to the tune of 75-85 per cent of the credit facility.
from ₹2 crore to ________ crore per borrower for credit
facilities extended by lending institutions to Micro and 86. Consider the following statement regarding RBI
Small Enterprises (MSEs). Framework for acceptance of Green Deposits of Regulated
A. ₹10 crore Entities (RE). Which of the following statement is
B. ₹15 crore incorrect?
C. ₹25 crore A. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently announced the
D. ₹20 crore framework for the acceptance of green deposits of
regulated entities (RE). independent Third-Party Verification/Assurance, which
B. t is intended to encourage regulated entities (usually shall be done on an annual basis.
banks and non-banking financial institutions) to offer • The REs, with the assistance of external firms, will
green deposits to customers. also annually assess the impact associated with the funds.
C. It will apply to all scheduled commercial banks,
including small finance banks and deposit-taking non- 87. Consider the following statement regarding Business
banking finance companies such as housing finance firms. Environment Rankings. Which of the following statement
D. The framework shall come into effect from 1 May, is incorrect
2023. A. Economist Intelligence Unit (EIU) has released the
E. The green deposits shall be denominated in Indian latest Business Environment Rankings (BER).
rupees only. B. In the latest Business Environment Rankings (BER),
Answer: D India’s rank has improved from 52nd to 46th position.
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently announced C. Out of the 17 economies in the Asian region, India has
the framework for the acceptance of green deposits of been ranked 10th for the 2023-27 forecast period.
regulated entities (RE). D. Singapore, Canada and Denmark will be the three
• It is intended to encourage regulated entities (usually countries with the best business environment over the
banks and non-banking financial institutions) to offer next five years.
green deposits to customers, protect the interest of the E. All of the above are correct
depositors, aid customers in achieving their sustainability Answer: E
agenda, address greenwashing concerns and help • India’s rank improved by six spots in the global
augment the flow of credit to green activities/projects. Business Environment Rankings.
• It will apply to all scheduled commercial banks, • The Economist Intelligence Unit (EIU) has released the
including small finance banks and deposit-taking non- latest Business Environment Rankings (BER).
banking finance companies such as housing finance firms. • Vietnam, Thailand, Belgium, Sweden, India and Costa
• The framework shall come into effect from June 1, Rica have shown the biggest improvements over the past
2023. year. Vietnam is the overall biggest mover which climbed
• The entities will issue green deposits as cumulative or 12 spots in the rankings.
non-cumulative deposits. • In the latest Business Environment Rankings (BER),
• On maturity, they can be renewed or withdrawn. India’s rank has improved from 52nd to 46th position.
• The green deposits shall be denominated in Indian • India’s rank has improved due to improved scores in
rupees only. parameters like technological readiness, political
• All conditions applicable to other public deposits will environment, and foreign investment.
also be applicable to green deposits. • Out of the 17 economies in the Asian region, India has
• The allocation of funds raised from green deposits will been ranked 10th for the 2023-27 forecast period. India
be based on the official Indian green taxonomy, which is was in 14th position in 2018-22.
yet to be finalised. • China, Bahrain, Chile and Slovakia showed the biggest
• However, as an interim measure, REs shall be fall in the rankings over the past year. China has fallen by
required to allocate the proceeds raised through green 11 spots in the latest rankings.
deposits in the categories such as Renewable energy, • According to the EIU’s latest business environment
Energy efficiency, Clean Transportation, Sustainable Rankings, Singapore, Canada and Denmark will be the
water and waste management etc. three countries with the best business environment over
• Nuclear power generation, direct waste incineration, the next five years.
landfill projects and hydropower plants larger than 25 • The United States and Switzerland are in the fourth
MW are among the uses that are prohibited using funds and fifth spot respectively.
raised via green deposits. • Business Environment Rankings measure the
• The allocation of funds raised through green deposits attractiveness of the business environment in 82 countries
by REs during a financial year shall be subject to an based on 91 indicators.
• As per the forecast, India’s working-age population goods in FY2022-23 increased 16.51 per cent to $714.24
will react to 100 million by 2030. billion.
• India’s regional BER ranking for infrastructure has • The top five export items exhibiting an increase in FY
improved to 10th for the 2023-27 period. 2022-23 included petroleum products (valued at $94.52
• India is in the top 10 in technological readiness due to billion), electronic goods (at $23.57 billion), rice,
a more conducive environment for e-commerce and the chemicals and drugs. In FY 2022-23, goods exports
enhancement of information technology-ready registered modest 6.03 per cent growth to $447.46 billion.
government services.
89. In April as per report SEBI placed a framework for
88. In April as per report Russia has moved up 16 ranks to upfront collection of funds from eligible issuers of debt
become the __________ largest import source for India in securities to build the Settlement Guarantee Fund of the
FY 2022-23, with a 369.4 per cent increase (year-on-year) Limited Purpose Clearing Corporation (LPCC).
to $46.33 billion. As per report new framework will come into force from
A. 3rd ___________.
B. 4th A. 1st December, 2023
C. 7th B. 1st April, 2023
D. 2nd C. 1st September, 2023
E. 1st D. 1st May, 2023
Answer: B E. 1st June, 2023
• Russia has moved up 16 ranks to become the fourth Answer: D
largest import source for India in FY 2022-23, with a 369.4 • Markets regulator SEBI placed a framework for
per cent increase (year-on-year) to $46.33 billion, upfront collection of funds from eligible issuers of debt
comprising primarily crude and petroleum products, securities to build the Settlement Guarantee Fund of the
while its share in India’s imports expanded to 6.5 per cent Limited Purpose Clearing Corporation (LPCC).
from 1.6 per cent in the previous fiscal. • The eligible issuers would be notified by the LPCC as
• China’s share in India’s exports in FY2022-23 shrunk per its risk management policy.
to 13.79 per cent from 15.43 per cent in the previous • LPCC is an entity established to undertake the activity
fiscal, but it retained its position as the top import source of clearing and settlement of repurchase agreement
for the country. transactions.
• India’s imports from China rose 4.16 per cent to • Under the framework, SEBI said that an amount of 0.5
$98.51 billion. basis points of the issuance value of debt securities per
• The top destinations for Indian exports in FY2022-23 annum based on the maturity of debt securities will be
included the US with exports valued at $78.31 billion, the collected by the stock exchanges and placed in an escrow
UAE at $31.33 billion, the Netherlands at $20.90 billion, account before the allotment of the debt securities.
China at $15.32 billion, Singapore at $11.95 billion, • This amount is applicable on a public issue or private
Bangladesh at $11.67 billion and the UK at $11.46 billion. placement of debt securities.
• The UAE was the second largest import source for • The stock exchanges would transfer the amounts so
India during FY2022-23 at $53.24 billion (growth of 18.75 collected to the bank account of the LPCC within one
per cent). India’s FTA with the UAE signed last fiscal is working day of the receipt of the amount and inform the
likely to have contributed to the rise, the source added. details of the same to the LPCC.
• It was followed by the US, which shipped goods worth • The new framework will come into force from May 1.
$50.24 billion to India in FY2022-23, posting an increase of • In its board meeting in September 2020, SEBI had
15.98 per cent over the previous fiscal. approved a proposal to facilitate the setting up of an
• The top five items showing import growth in FY2022- LPCC. The board had also decided that an amount of 0.5
23 included petroleum, crude & products (valued at basis points of the issuance value of debt securities per
$209.57 billion), coal, coke & briquettes, machinery, annum be collected upfront before the listing of such
transport equipment and iron & steel. The total import of
securities to build the Settlement Guarantee Fund of the Answer: C
LPCC. • India's imports in Financial Year 2023 (FY23) rose 16.5
• AMC Repo Clearing Limited (ARCL) has been granted per cent to $714 billion as against $613 billion in FY22
recognition as LPCC by SEBI. The Reserve Bank of India while exports saw a rise of 6% to $447 billion in FY23, up
(RBI) also gave necessary approvals to ARCL to function as from $442 billion in FY22.
a Clearing Corporation with a limited purpose and to offer • This was revealed by the data released by the
central counterparty services for repo transactions in debt Ministry of Commerce and Industry recently.
securities. • India’s CAD stood at $18.2 billion or 2.2 per cent of
GDP in the quarter ended December 2022.
90. In April as per report _____________has become the • Total goods exports in 2022-23 rose 6.03% to $447.46
first Private InvIT listed on the National Stock Exchange, billion.
after SEBI’s listing framework for non-listed InvITs came • In comparison to goods exports, services exports are
into force from June last. estimated to have grown by 26.79 per cent.
A. POWERGRID Infrastructure Investment Trust • Overall export of goods and services together scaled
B. National Highways Infra Trust "new heights" and has increased by 14 per cent to $770
C. IRB Infrastructure Trust billion in 2022-23.
D. India Infrastructure Trust • India’s exports is largely led by petroleum ($94
E. India Grid Trust billion), followed by electronic goods ($23 billion).
Answer: C • The other three India’s top five export items
• IRB Infrastructure Trust has become the first Private registered insignificant growth - Rice (up 1.5%), chemicals
InvIT listed on the National Stock Exchange, after SEBI’s (1%), and drugs and pharmaceuticals (0.8%).
listing framework for non-listed InvITs came into force • The USA remained India’s top export destination,
from June last. followed by UAE.
• The valuation of the trust units was determined based • Overall imports are expected to have surged to
on third-party evaluation and further endorsed by the $892.18 billion over the previous year.
Trust’s investors as well. • While petroleum imports jumped about 30% to nearly
• The value ascertained comes to around 16 times FY24 $210 billion in 2022-23, coal imports grew at a faster 57%
revenue, which will further keep appreciating with more to touch almost $50 billion.
projects coming in. • Gold imports, on the other hand, fell around 24% to
• MMK Toll Road Pvt. Ltd, an Investment Manager to $35 billion as global prices for the metal surged and the
the Trust, on March 22, approved the listing of Units of Rupee turned weaker.
the Trust on NSE.
• Virendra D. Mhaiskar, Chairman of the IRB 92. In April as per report __________to set up a joint
Infrastructure Trust, venture with US-based clean energy technology company
• IRB Infrastructure Developers Ltd, sponsors of IRB LanzaJet Inc for India's first green aviation fuel firm.
Infrastructure Trust, holds 51 per cent in the InvIT and the A. IOCL
rest is held by GIC affiliates. B. BPCL
C. NTPC
91. Recently as per data released by the Ministry of D. HPCL
Commerce and Industry India's imports in Financial Year E. NHPC
2023 (FY23) rose 16.5 per cent to __________ while Answer: A
exports saw a rise of 6% to _______billion in FY23. • Indian Oil Corporation is planning to set up a joint
A. $740 billion, $337 billion venture with US-based clean energy technology company
B. $722 billion, $432 billion LanzaJet Inc and multiple domestic airlines for production
C. $714 billion, $447 billion of sustainable aviation fuel (SAF).
D. $798 billion, $427billion
E. $705 billion, $501 billion
• Through the proposed venture, a plant will be set up • It is used up to 8 digit level.
to make SAF with alcohol-to-jet technology at IOCL's • HSN classification is widely used for taxation purposes
Panipat refinery in Haryana at a cost of Rs 3,000 crore. by helping to identify the rate of tax applicable to a
• The proposed plant will convert corn-based, cellulosic, specific product in a country that is under review. It can
or sugar-based ethanol into SAF, and would have an inital also be used in calculations that involve claiming benefits.
capacity to produce 85,000 tonne of fuel annually.
• SAF is a biofuel with properties similar to 94. In April as per report __________announced to raise
conventional jet fuel, but has a smaller carbon footprint. ₹50,000 crore via bonds in the next 12 months through
• In accordance with the devised structure of the new private placements.
company, IOCL will hold 50 percent stake while LanzaJet A. State Bank Of India
Inc will hold 25 percent, while the remaining 25 percent B. Bank Of Baroda
stake is reserved for airline companies, wherein multiple C. Punjab National Bank
airline companies could be offered between two to five D. HDFC Bank
percent stake. E. ICICI Bank
• The Central government has identified aviation as one Answer: D
of the primary sectors to reduce emission, and is involving • HDFC Bank, India's most valued lender said it plans to
airlines, airports and ground handlers to take forward raise ₹50,000 crore via bonds in the next 12 months
such initiatives. through private placements.
• Also, Niti Aayog has suggested GST at 5 percent on • The lender's board is expected to consider this
SAF and informed that the government could waive proposal at its meeting on April 15.
charges like passenger fees and user development fees • The bank proposes to raise funds by issuing Perpetual
(charged by airports) for SAF-operated flights. Debt Instruments (part of Additional Tier I capital), Tier II
Capital Bonds and Long-Term Bonds (Financing of
93. In April as per report Ministry of Railways has started Infrastructure and Affordable Housing) up to total
using Harmonised System of Nomenclature (HSN) codes amount of ₹50,000 crores over the period of next 12
for the classification of commodities in freight months through private placement mode.
transportation. • Public sector lender State Bank of India had said that
Harmonised System of Nomenclature is ___________digit it plans to raise $2 billion through offshore bonds and that
identification code. its board would consider this proposal on April 18.
A. 5
B. 9 95. In April as per report Government has set a
C. 14 __________ day timeline to report old invoices on e-
D. 17 invoice IRP (Invoice Registration Portal) for tax assessees
E. 6 having annual turnover of ₹100 crore or more.
Answer: E A. 7 days
• In a first-of-its-kind move, the Ministry of Railways B. 5 days
has started using Harmonised System of Nomenclature C. 10 days
(HSN) codes for the classification of commodities in D. 15 days
freight transportation. E. 30 days
• It is a six-digit identification code. Of the six digits, the Answer: A
first two denote the HS Chapter, the next two give the HS • The Government has set a seven-day timeline to
heading, and the last two give the HS subheading. report old invoices on e-invoice IRP (Invoice Registration
• Developed by the World Customs Organization Portal) for tax assessees having annual turnover of ₹100
(WCO). crore or more.
• Called the “universal economic language” for goods. • In order to provide sufficient time for taxpayers to
• It is a multipurpose international product comply with this requirement, which may require changes
nomenclature.
to systems, we propose to implement it from May 01 • According to the World Economic Outlook of IMF, the
onwards. Indian economy is projected to grow by 6.8 percent in the
• It clarified that to ensure timely compliance, financial year 2022-23.
taxpayers in this category will not be allowed to report • IMF projected that India’s headline retail inflation will
invoices older than 7 days on the date of reporting. ease to 4.9 percent in 2023-24 from 6.7 percent in the
• Restriction will only apply to the document type previous year.
invoice, and there will be no time restriction on reporting • The IMF also cut down the world economic growth
debit/credit notes. projection for 2023 by 10 basis points at 2.8 percent. The
• For example, if an invoice has a date of April 1, 2023, global economic growth is projected to be 3 per cent in
it cannot be reported after April 8, 2023. 2024.
• The validation system built into the invoice • Advanced economies' growth is expected to slow
registration portal will disallow the user from reporting from 2.7 percent in 2022 to 1.3 percent in 2023.
the invoice after the 7-day window. • Global headline inflation will decrease from 8.7
• Hence, it is essential for taxpayers to ensure that they percent in 2022 to 7 percent in 2023 due to lower
report the invoice within the 7-day window provided by commodity prices. Inflation is likely to decline more
the new time limit. slowly.
• The note further clarified that there will be no such
reporting restriction on taxpayers with an annual 97. In April as per report Canara Bank and NPCI Bharat
turnover of less than ₹100 crore, as of now. BillPay Ltd (NBBL) have announced the launch of cross-
• It may be noted that under GST law, e-invoicing for border inward bill payment services for Indians based in
business-to-business (B2B) transactions was made ___________.
mandatory for companies with a turnover of over ₹500 A. UAE
crore from October 1, 2020, which was then extended to B. Saudi Arabia
those with a turnover of over ₹100 crore, effective C. Oman
January 1, 2021. D. Singapore
• From April 1, 2021, companies with turnover of over E. Maldives
₹50 crore were generating B2B e-invoices, and the
threshold was brought down to ₹20 crore beginning April Answer: C
1, 2022. • Canara Bank and NPCI Bharat BillPay Ltd (NBBL) have
• From October 1, 2022, the level was further lowered announced the launch of cross-border inward bill
to ₹10 crore. Non-compliance could result in penalty. payment services for Indians based in Oman.
• NRIs can now leverage the robust platform offered by
96. In April as per report International Monetary Fund the Bharat Bill Payment System (BBPS) to make bill
(IMF) has cut down India’s economic growth forecast for payments on behalf of their families through the
the current financial year to ________ percent from its Musandam Exchange.
earlier estimate of 6.1 percent. • This initiative signifies a milestone for Canara Bank as
A. 7.1 % the first public sector bank in India to offer inbound cross-
B. 5.3 % border bill payments through BBPS.
C. 5.9 % • Musandam Exchange, managed by Canara Bank, is
D. 6.5 % also the first exchange house in Oman to go live on cross-
E. 7.4 % border inbound bill payments.
Answer: C • The cross-border bill payment service is already live in
• The International Monetary Fund (IMF) has cut down Kuwait, facilitating inbound remittances across utilities
India’s economic growth forecast for the current financial like electricity, water, mobile phone, gas, credit card bills,
year to 5.9 percent from its earlier estimate of 6.1 and more.
percent. • NRIs in Oman will now enjoy these benefits for the
first time, marking an important juncture in India's digital
payments journey, adding the service provides Indian headquartered bank launched the country's first voice
expatriates, who until now had to rely on conventional biometric authentication for logging into its mobile
methods to pay their domestic bills, with a much-needed banking app.
option. • The voice biometric service was developed by
Chennai-based deeptech start-up, Kaizen Secure Voiz Pvt
98. In April as per report ________has emerged as the Ltd, under the guidance of the 5G use case lab of the
second strongest tyre brand in the world according to the Institute for Development and Research in Banking
latest report by Brand Finance. Technology (IDRBT), an RBI established institution
A. Ceat Tyre focussed on research in banking technologies.
B. MRF Tyre • The bank has been at the forefront of many
C. JSW Tyre technology innovations and implementation, including
D. Apolo Tyre the first robot (Lakshmi) in the banking industry,
E. JK Tyre multilingual chatbots in the mobile banking app, the
Answer: B country's first wearable debit card in the form of a wrist
• MRF Limited has emerged as the second strongest watch and key chains, among others.
tyre brand in the world according to the latest report by • N Kamakodi, MD & CEO, City Union Bank.
Brand Finance on the Most Valuable and Strongest Tyre
Brands in the world. 100. What is the name of the India’s oldest billionaire as
• MRF has scored high in almost all parameters and is per Forbes list of the world’s wealthiest who passed away
also featured as the second fastest-growing Tyre Brand in recently in april?
the world. A. Keshub Mahindra
• MRF has scored 83.2 out of 100 in brand strength and B. Pallonji Shapoorji Mistry
was awarded a AAA- brand rating. C. Divya Gokulnath
• The report also featured MRF as the most valued D. Sunil Butolia
Indian tyre brand and scored high in the Sustainability E. Neha Narkhede
Perception Value and is the only Indian tyre manufacturer Answer: A
to be featured in the top 10. • Keshub Mahindra, uncle of Anand Mahindra and
• French company Michelin has been rated both the Chairman Emeritus of the Mahindra Group passed away.
most valuable and strongest tyre brand. • Keshub Mahindra, 99, is India’s oldest billionaire, as
• There are two Indian tyre companies in the Top 15 list per the recently published Forbes list of the world’s
of most valuable – MRF Tyres and Apollo Tyres. MRF wealthiest.
Tyres, ranked 13th, sees its brand value grow 3% to $0.3 • The chairman emeritus of Mahindra & Mahindra
billion and has seen a sizeable jump of 15 ranks in the group figures among the 169 other Indian billionaires who
latest industry ranking list. At No. 15 is Apollo Tyres with made it to the world’s richest list in 2023. With a net
a brand value of $0.6 billion. worth of $1.2 billion, Keshub had earlier lost his place on
the coveted list.
99. In April as per report _____________launched the • After joining M&M in 1947, Mahindra became the
country's first voice biometric authentication for logging chairman in 1963.
into its mobile banking app. • After serving as the Mahindra group chairman for 48
A. City Union Bank years, he retired in 2012 and passed on the baton to
B. Canara BanK nephew Anand Mahindra.
C. HDFC Bank • Mahindra was also the founder chairman of HUDCO
D. ICICI Bank (Housing and Urban Development Corporation Limited).
E. Bandhan Bank • In 1987, Mahindra was honored with the prestigious
Answer: A Chevalier de l'Ordre National de la Legion d'honneur by
• For City Union Bank (CUB) customers, their voice can the French Government.
now be their new password. The Kumbakonam-
101. International Day of Human Space Flight is the B. Nandini Gupta
annual celebration held on _________ to mark the C. Shreya Punja
anniversary of the first human space flight by Yuri D. Sarita Sharma
Gagarin. E. Kumari Aanchal
A. 11th April Answer: B
B. 12th April • Nandini Gupta of Rajasthan has won the coveted
C. 15th April Femina Miss India 2023 in a star studded colourful
D. 16th April competition here at Khuman Lampak stadium.
E. 14th April • Shreya Punja of Delhi has won the first runner up title
Answer: B while Thounaojam Strela Luwang of Manipur won the
• The International Day of Human Space Flight is second runner up title.
celebrated each year on April 12. • The most renowned pageant in India's 59th season
• The United Nations General Assembly in its concluded with a historic ceremony at Imphal, Manipur's
resolution on April 7, 2011, okayed April 12 as the Indoor Stadium, which made it the perfect location for the
International Day of Human Space Flight. mesmerising event.
• It was on April 12, 1961, that Yuri Gagarin, a Soviet
citizen, became the first human to travel into outer space. 104. In April as per report ____________ won the men’s
His journey marked the start of a new chapter in human singles trophy at the Orleans Masters Super 300
history, one that would open up endless possibilities for tournament.
exploration and discovery. A. PV Sindhu
B. Jawala Gutta
102. Recenty seen in news Jalabala Vaidya who passed C. Saina Nehawal
away was related to which of the following field? D. Ankita Raina
A. Social Worker E. Priyanshu Rajawat
B. Theatre Actor Answer: E
C. Singer • Priyanshu won the tournament by defeating
D. Cartoonist Denmark’s Magnus Johannesen in France on 09 April
E. Politician 2023.
Answer: B • This is the first Super-300 final for Priyanshu Rajawat.
• Jalabala Vaidya, the co-founder of Delhi's Akshara • Priyanshu was part of the India team that won the
Theatre, passed away at the age of 86 after battling with 2022 Thomas Cup.
respiratory ailments. • Priyanshu is the first Indian to win a singles title on
• Jalabala Vaidya started her career as a journalist. She Badminton World Federation (BWF) tour in 2023.
worked for various national newspapers and magazines. • Priyanshu Rajawat is an Indian badminton player
• She received various awards in her career such as the born in Madhya Pradesh.
Delhi government's Varisht Samman, Sangeet Natak • Orleans Masters Super 300 tournament took place in
Akademi's Tagore Award, Delhi Natya Sangh Award, etc. Orleans, France from 4 to 9 April 2023. It was the tenth
• Jalabala Vaidya's theatrical career started with "Full tournament of the 2023 BWF World Tour.
Circle" in 1968.
• She played roles in more than 20 plays including Full 105. In April as per report __________won the World
Circle, Larflarflarf, The Ramayana, Let’s Laugh Again, etc. Chess Armageddon Asia & Oceania event.
• She co-founded the Akshara National Classical A. Aravindh Chithambaram
Theatre in New Delhi with Sharman. B. R Praggnanandhaa
C. D Gukesh
103. In April as per report _____________ has won the D. Nihil Saran
coveted Femina Miss India 2023. E. None of the above
A. Thounaojam Strela Luwang
Answer: C E. 9
• Teenaged Indian Grandmaster D Gukesh stunned Answer: B
former world rapid champion Nodirbek Abdusattorov of • A total of seven medals have been won by Indian
Uzbekistan in the final to win the World Chess women wrestlers at the Asian Wrestling Championships
Armageddon Asia & Oceania event. held in Astana, Kazakhstan.
• Both Gukesh and Abdusattorov have earned a spot at • These include two silver and five bronze medals.
the Armageddon’s Grand Finale in September. • With this, India has secured the third position in the
• An Armageddon game is a variant of blitz chess to women's team rankings.
determine a winner after a series of drawn game. A • Antim Panghal has won silver in 53 kg weight
drawn game in the Armageddon is counted as a win for category and Nisha Dahiya in 68 kg weight category.
Black. • In the previous edition of this championship, India
had won 5 medals and finished fourth.
106. In April as per report Raj Subramaniam CEO of • Japan ranked first and China ranked second position
___________ has been presented with the prestigious in the women's team rankings.
Pravasi Bharatiya Samman, the highest civilian award • The 36th edition of the Asian Wrestling
given by India to persons of Indian origin and Indian Championships was held in Astana, Kazakhstan from April
diaspora. 9 to 14, 2023.
A. Cred
B. Mastercard 108. In April as per report ___________has launched the
C. FedEX Indigenous NavIC chip to reduce dependence on GPS.
D. Arton A. Elena Geo Systems
E. Visa B. Bajaj Electricals
Answer: C C. Centum Electronics
• Raj Subramaniam, the Indian-American CEO of global D. Bharat Electronics
transportation giant FedEx, has been presented with the E. None of the above
prestigious Pravasi Bharatiya Samman, the highest Answer: B
civilian award given by India to persons of Indian origin • Elena Geo Systems launched Indigenous NavIC chip to
and Indian diaspora. reduce dependence on GPS.
• Subramanian, 55, was presented with the award by • An Indigenous chip for the Navigation with Indian
India's Ambassador to the US Taranjit Singh Sandhu at a Constellation (NavIC) has been unveiled at the Defence
ceremony at the India House since he could not travel to Space Symposium.
India early this year to receive the award. • Chip has been formally handed over by Lt. Col. V.S.
• The other awardee, Darshan Singh Dhaliwal, was also Velan (retd.), founder and Chief Technology Officer of
present at the event. Elena Geo Systems, to Chief of Defence Staff (CDS)
• Subramanian is the president and CEO of FedEx General Anil Chauhan.
Corporation, one of the world's largest transportation • The chip has many cores that will fulfil the
companies. His international leadership experience and requirements of signal acquisition, regeneration,
keen business insights have contributed immensely to the processing and the output interface. It has been named
success of FedEx. the NavIC processor.
• This processor will help both the government and
107. Recently as per report Indian women wrestlers won a private sector to move their dependence on the Global
total of ________ medals at the Asian Wrestling Positioning System (GPS).
Championships held in Astana, Kazakhstan. • Around 10,000 chips will be manufactured in the first
A. 5 batch.
B. 7 • The company has been pursuing advanced
C. 8 technologies to manufacture these chips and modules.
D. 11
• The chips will enable high precision and accuracy for • The amphibious assault ship was built in Istanbul’s
all three types of applications such as navigation, Sedef Shipyard by a Turkish-Spanish consortium, based on
positioning and timing. the design of Spanish light aircraft carrier Juan Carlos I.
• Elena Geo Systems was incubated at IIT-Kharagpur in • Ankara’s original plan was to deploy F-35 B-model
2012. Now, it is a member of the Delhi-based Indian Space fighter jets, which can take off from shorter runways, on
Association (InSA). its largest warship.
• TCG Anadolu will be the world’s first amphibious
109. In April as per report _________countries have assault ship whose fleet is made up mostly of armed
launched a joint military exercise called “Balikatan”. drones once the plan is implemented.
A. US and Philippines
B. India and France 111. Consider the following statement regarding Pralay
C. Russia and China ballistic missiles. Which of the following statement is
D. UK and Japan correct?
E. India and Australia A. It is a quasi-ballistic surface-to-surface missile.
Answer: A B. The Pralay ballistic missile has a range of 150 km to 500
• US and the Philippines have launched joint military km.
exercise. C. It has been developed by the Defence Research and
• This is the largest joint military exercise launched by Development Organisation (DRDO).
the US and the Philippines. D. Only 1 and 3
• The annual drill will run till April 28. It will involve E. All of the above are correct
live-fire exercises, which include a boat-sinking rocket Answer: E
assault in the South China Sea and the Taiwan Strait. • India is planning to acquire 250 more Pralay ballistic
• The annual drill is called Balikatan. Balikatan is a missiles for strengthening the capabilities of forces on the
Tagalog (a language) term for shoulder-to-shoulder. northern borders.
• During the exercise, military helicopters will land on a • The proposal for 250 Pralay ballistic missiles is at an
Philippine island off the northern tip of the main island of advanced stage.
Luzon, approximately 300 kilometers from Taiwan. • The Indian Air Force would be the first to receive the
missile.
110. In April as per report ____________launched its first • The Pralay missile will now be mass-produced and it is
amphibious assault ship named TCG Anadolu to extend its expected to be ready for operational service shortly.
drone capabilities from land-based to naval operations. • The Pralay missile was successfully tested twice in
A. Australia December 2021.
B. Turkey • India is planning to acquire 250 more Pralay ballistic
C. Japan missiles for strengthening the capabilities of forces on the
D. France northern borders.
E. Netherland • The proposal for 250 Pralay ballistic missiles is at an
Answer: B advanced stage.
• Turkey launched its first amphibious assault ship • The Indian Air Force would be the first to receive the
aiming to extend its drone capabilities from land-based to missile.
naval operations amid increased regional tensions as war • The Pralay missile will now be mass-produced and it is
rages in Ukraine on the other side of the Black Sea. expected to be ready for operational service shortly.
• The TCG Anadolu can handle only light aircraft, The Pralay missile was successfully tested twice in
chiefly helicopters and jets that can take off from shorter December 2021.
runways. It is 232 meters long and 32 meters wide, and
can carry some 1,400 personnel – one battalion of soldiers 112. What is the name of the operation launched by India
– combat vehicles and support units to operate overseas. to bring back its citizens stranded in war-torn Sudan?
A. Operation Ganga
B. Operation Karma • In the next three years, playgrounds will be developed
C. Operation Kaveri in these local bodies. For the first phase, a list of 113
D. Operation Milap panchayats have been prepared.
E. Operation Dost • The estimated cost of developing a playground with a
Answer: C fitness center that can be used by people of all ages is 1
• ‘Operation Kaveri’ has been launched by India to crore, out of which the sports department will spend Rs 50
bring back its citizens stranded in war-torn Sudan. lakh.
• The Ministry of External Affairs has stated that two • The remaining amount will be collected from MLA
Indian Air Force C-130Js are ready in Jeddah as part of Fund, Local Body Fund, Corporate Social Responsibility
preparations to evacuate Indian nationals from Sudan. Fund and Public Private Partnership.
• INS Sumedha has also reached Port Sudan. • For the running and maintenance of the facilities,
• The mission is to bring over 3,000 Indians back. managing committees will be formed at the local level.
• For more than 10 days, Sudan has been witnessing
deadly fight between the country's army and a 114. Recently as per report by government more than
paramilitary group. ___________ percent of India’s inhabited villages have
• Presently, Sudanese airspace is closed for all foreign declared themselves ODF Plus.
aircraft and overland movement also has risks and A. 10 %
logistical challenges. B. 20 %
• The Hakki Pikki (bird catchers of Karnataka) are C. 30 %
caught up in a civil war in Sudan. D. 40 %
• The tribe is scattered across the capital Khartoum and E. 60 %
the Darfur region of West Sudan. Answer: D
• Their total number in the African country is likely to • The Union Minister for Jal Shakti, Shri Gajendra Singh
be around 300, including women and children. Shekhawat today lauded the achievement of a fivefold
• Of those, about 250 are in Khartoum, while 33 are in increase in ODF Plus villages in India under the Swachh
Darfur. Bharat Mission – Grameen, Phase – II, in just one year,
• The Hakki Pikki tribe is predominantly lived in the with more than 40 percent of India’s inhabited villages
western and southern regions of India, and their having declared themselves ODF Plus.
settlements are often situated near forested areas. • The Union Minister, addressing the media, asserted
• The Hakki Pikkis (in Kannada Hakki means 'bird' and that ODF Plus villages increased from 46,121 villages
Pikki means 'catchers') are a semi-nomadic tribe, (7.4%) in March 2022 to 2,38,973 villages (40.21%) in
traditionally of bird catchers and hunters. March 2023.
• On the performance of States, the 3 UTs’ of Andaman
113. Recently seen in news ‘One playground in one and Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Dadra and Nagar
panchayat’ is associated with which of the following state? Haveli and Daman and Diu were not only ODF Plus, but all
A. Maharashtra their villages were of the ODF Plus Model category.
B. Kerala • Top performing States were Telangana with 100%
C. Tamil Nadu ODF Plus villages followed by Tamil Nadu with 95.7% ODF
D. Uttar Pradesh plus villages and Karnataka with 93.7% ODF plus villages.
E. Punjab • As far as the North East States were concerned,
Answer: B Mizoram has moved from 6% ODF Plus villages in 2022 to
• One playground in one panchayat’ project 35% villages in 2023.
inaugurated by Kerala CM Pinarayi Vijayan on 19 April.
• It aims to promote sports culture in Kerala by building 115. In April as per report Union Cabinet recently
quality stadiums locally. approved the Cinematograph (Amendment) Bill 2023,
• Under the project, the work on the first playground which has provisions to curb the transmission of pirated
began at Kallikkad Panchayat in Thiruvananthapuram. film content on the Internet.
As per bill ________lakh penalty has been included for E. Garuda Aerospace
those engaged in piracy. Answer: C
A. 5 lakh • The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
B. 10 lakh formally published Indian Space Policy, 2023.
C. 20 lakh • The Indian Space Policy 2023 is a comprehensive set
D. 15 lakh of guidelines that outlines the roles and responsibilities of
E. 30 lakh different entities in the Indian space sector.
Answer: B • The policy aims to keep India at the cutting edge of
• The Union Cabinet recently approved the space research and development. ISRO, the Indian Space
Cinematograph (Amendment) Bill 2023, which has Research Organisation, has been tasked with focusing on
provisions to curb the transmission of pirated film content applied research, technology development, and human
on the Internet. spaceflight capabilities.
• It seeks to amend the Cinematograph Act 1952. • NewSpace India Limited (NSIL), has been assigned
• It has provisions for harsher punishment for film responsibilities for commercializing space technologies
piracy and the introduction of new-age categories for and platforms, as well as servicing space-based needs of
classifying films. users, whether Government entities or NGEs.
• It has provisions to classify films on the basis of age • By manufacturing, leasing, or procuring space
group instead of the current practice of rating them "U" components and assets, NSIL will operate on sound
(unrestricted public exhibition), "A" (restricted to adult commercial principles, furthering the growth of India's
audiences), and "UA" (unrestricted public exhibition space industry.
subject to parental guidance for children below the age of • IN-SPACe will serve as the interface between ISRO
12). and non-governmental entities.
• The amendments seek to add new classifications – • The Department of Space (DOS) will oversee the
‘UA-7+’, ‘UA-13+’, and ‘UA-16+’ in place for 12 years. implementation of the Indian Space Policy-2023, ensuring
• It also seeks to bring about uniformity in that stakeholders are suitably empowered to carry out
categorisation of films and content across platforms. their respective functions.
• Stricter Laws Against Piracy: • From international cooperation to sustainable space
• The Bill holds stricter punishment for those operations, DOS will play a pivotal role in the successful
responsible for piracy. This includes three years of execution of the policy.
imprisonment and a Rs 10 lakh penalty for those engaged • India has over 400 private space companies and ranks
in piracy. fifth globally in terms of the number of space companies.
• Once the Bill is released, the act of piracy will be
considered an offence legally and will include even 117. In April as per report India, Iran, and _________ have
transmitting pirated content punishable. formed a trilateral grouping to open up opportunities in
different areas for cooperation including energy,
116. In April as per report Indian Space Research transportation, trade, investment, and transportation.
Organisation (ISRO) formally published Indian Space A. Australia
Policy, 2023. B. Armenia
As per policy ____________has been assigned C. Japan
responsibilities for commercializing space technologies D. France
and platforms, as well as servicing space-based needs of E. Sri Lanka
users, whether Government entities or NGEs. Answer: B
A. ISRO • In a move aimed at strengthening regional
B. DRDO cooperation, India, Iran, and Armenia have formed a
C. NewSpace India Limited trilateral grouping.
D. Indian National Space Promotion and Authorization • This trilateral grouping is expected to open up
Center opportunities in different areas for cooperation including
energy, transportation, trade, investment, and • It has been developed by the National Informatics
transportation. Centre (NIC) in collaboration with the Union Ministry of
• The first-ever meeting focused on connectivity, Agriculture and Farmers Welfare on the theme of ‘Uttam
especially the International North-South Transport Beej – Samriddh Kisan.
Corridor (INSTC). • There will be a QR code under this system, through
• INSTC was initially signed by Iran, Russia, and India in which the seeds can be traced.
2002 and has since then expanded, and a freight corridor • It will ensure a quality assurance system, and identify
connecting which is expected to connect three countries the source of seed in the seed production chain.
— India, Iran, and Russia. • The system will consist of integrated 7 verticals of the
• The main aim of this corridor is to reduce time and seed chain - Research Organisation, Seed Certification,
costs in the movement of goods from Mumbai to Moscow. Seed Licensing, Seed Catalogue, Dealer to Farmer Sales,
Farmer Registration and Seed DBT.
118. In April as per report ______________passed bill Seeds with valid certification can only be sold by valid
allowing 12-hour work in factories. licensed dealers to centrally registered farmers who will
A. Karnataka receive a subsidy through DBT directly into their pre-
B. Tamil Nadu validated bank accounts.
C. Telangana
D. Maharashtra 120. In April as per report First Census of Water Bodies
E. Odisha has been conducted by Ministry of Jal Shakti in
Answer: B association with the 6th Minor Irrigation (MI) Census
• A few industry associations have welcomed the Tamil under the Centrally Sponsored Scheme “Irrigation
Nadu government’s passing of a bill in the State Assembly Census”.
to amend the Factories Act, 1948, to effect reforms in the As per report how much percent water bodies are in rural
daily working hours for workers in factories. areas?
• The proposed move will facilitate an increase in A. 97.1%
working hours for factory workers from 8 hours to 12 B. 74.8 %
hours. C. 81.5 %
Workers can now choose to work for 12-hour daily shifts D. 84.6 %
and they will be entitled to four-day work week, with three E. 87.8 %
days off. Answer: A
• The First Census of Water Bodies has been conducted
119. What is the name of the portal launched by Union in association with the 6th Minor Irrigation (MI) Census
Agriculture and Farmers Welfare Minister to deal with the under the Centrally Sponsored Scheme “Irrigation
challenges of seed production, quality seed identification Census”.
and seed certification? • In this census, 24,24,540 water bodies have been
A. Sathi Portal recorded out of which 97.1% (23,55,055) are in rural areas
B. Sakshi Portal and only 2.9% (69,485) are in urban areas.
C. Samriddhi Portal • 59.5% (14,42,993) of water bodies are ponds while
D. Samagam Portal 15.7% (3,81,805) of water bodies are tanks.
E. Samadhan Portal • West Bengal has the highest number of ponds &
Answer: A reservoirs while Andhra Pradesh has the highest number
• Recently, the Union Agriculture and Farmers Welfare of tanks.
Minister launched the SATHI Portal and Mobile App. • Tamil Nadu has the highest number of lakes and
• The Seed Traceability, Authentication and Holistic Maharashtra is the leading state in the water
Inventory (SATHI) portal is a Centralized Online System conservation scheme.
designed to deal with the challenges of seed production,
quality seed identification and seed certification.
• Maximum Water bodies are used in pisciculture, episode of Mann Ki Baat. In which year was Mann Ki Baat
followed by irrigation, groundwater recharge and programme started?
domestic/drinking purpose. A. 2014
• 13,38,735 water bodies are owned by private entities B. 2015
while 10,85,805 water bodies are under public ownership. C. 2016
• Out of the total water bodies, 78% (18,90,463) are D. 2017
man-made while 22% (5,34,077) are natural water bodies. E. 2018
• 12.7% (3,06,960) of all water bodies have storage Answer: A
capacities greater than 10,000 cubic metres, whereas 50% • New ₹100 commemorative coin will be released by
(12,12,283) have storage capacities between 1,000 to the government for the 100th episode of Mann Ki Baat.
10,000 cubic metres. • The coin will be in the denomination of ₹100. It will be
• 2,29,889 water bodies are covered in District circular, with a diameter of 44 millimetres and 200
Irrigation Plan/State Irrigation Plan. serrations.
• Its weight will be 35-gram. Coin’s metal composition
121. In April as per report __________ launched three will be a quaternary alloy, with silver having a share of
online initiatives — Pro-active Divyang Pension Service, 50%, copper 40%, nickel 5%, and zinc 5%.
‘Tau se pucho’ WhatsApp chatbot and an online room • The obverse face of the coin will bear the Lion Capitol
booking facility at PWD (B&R) rest houses. of Ashoka Pillar in the centre with the legend “Satyamev
A. Himachal Pradesh Jayate” inscribed below.
B. Haryana • The Lion Capitol will be flanked on the left periphery
C. Gujarat with the word “Bharat” in Devnagri script and on the right
D. Punjab periphery with the word “INDIA” in English.
E. Maharashtra • The coin’s reverse face will have the logo for the
Answer: B 100th Episode of Mann Ki Baat.
• The Haryana Chief Minister Manohar Lal Khattar • The logo will have an image of a microphone with
launched three online initiatives — Pro-active Divyang sound waves and year ‘2023’ written on it.
Pension Service, ‘Tau se pucho’ WhatsApp chatbot and an • ‘Mann Ki Baat 100’ in Devnagri and in English will be
online room booking facility at PWD (B&R) rest houses. written above and below of the microphone image,
• These initiatives have been launched under the state respectively.
government’s vision of paperless and transparent • Commemorative coins are not released for general
governance. circulation. They are considered legal tender. They can be
• WhatsApp Chatbot called ‘Tau Se Poochho’ along sourced from specified agencies.
with a web-based chatbot solution has been created by • The 100th episode will be broadcasted on 30 April.
the Haryana Parivar Pehchan Authority. Mann Ki Baat programme started on 3 October, 2014. It is
• ‘Tau Se Pucho’ bilingual chatbot is integrated with broadcast on the last Sunday of every month.
WhatsApp and is designed to give quick responses to the
queries raised by the citizens. 123. Recently as per data by Rural Development Ministry
• A Portal has been also launched for room booking at 26 states and union territories so far has adopted Unique
PWD (B&R) rest houses. Land Parcel Identification Number (ULPIN).
• Haryana government is committed to providing all ULPIN or Bhu-Aadhar is a _________digit identification
services to PWDs at their doorsteps. number accorded to a land parcel.
Persons with Disabilities (PwDs) will now get their A. 10
pensionary benefits at home. They don’t have to visit the B. 12
offices to get their benefits. C. 14
D. 17
122. Recently as per report new ₹100 commemorative E. 18
coin will be released by the government for the 100th
Answer: C • This round of UDAN focuses on Category-2 (20-80

• The Rural Development Ministry recently said that seats) and Category-3 (>80 seats).
ULPIN has been adopted by 26 states and union territories • The earlier stage length cap of 600 km is waived off
so far. and there is no restriction on the distance between the
• The ministry said that till now, 28 states and union origin and destination of the flight.
territories have adopted the National Generic Document • Viability gap funding (VGF) to be provided will be
Registration System for land records. capped at 600 km stage length for both Priority and Non-
• It is part of the Digital India Land Records Priority areas which was earlier capped at 500 km.
Modernization Programme (DILRMP). • No predetermined routes would be offered. Only
• Some states are also using ULPIN in SVAMITVA Network and Individual Route Proposal proposed by
(Survey of Villages Abadi and Mapping with Improvised airlines will be considered.
Technology in Village Areas) portal, according to the • The airlines would be required to submit an
latest data provided by the Land Resources Division of the action/business plan after 2 months from the issuance of
Department of Land Resources (DoLR). LoA wherein they submit their aircraft acquisition
• ULPIN or Bhu-Aadhar is a 14-digit identification plan/availability of aircraft, crew, slots, etc. at the time of
number accorded to a land parcel. the Technical Proposal.
• It would uniquely identify every surveyed parcel of • Exclusivity will be withdrawn if the average quarterly
land and prevent land fraud, especially in rural India, PLF is higher than 75% for four continuous quarters, to
where land records are outdated and disputed. prevent exploitation of the monopoly on a route.
• The identification is based on the longitude and • 25% of the Performance Guarantee to be encashed
latitude coordinates of the land parcel and depends on for each month of delay up to 4 months, to further
detailed surveys and geo-referenced cadastral maps. incentivize quick operationalization.
• ULPIN is a Single, Authoritative Source of Truth for • Airlines would be required to commence operations
information on any parcel of land or property to provide within 4 months of the award of the route. Earlier this
Integrated Land Services to the citizens as well as all deadline was 6 months.
stakeholders. • This new & stronger version of the scheme will raise
the momentum, connecting new routes, and bring us
124. In April as per report Ministry of Civil Aviation in closer to the target of operationalizing 1000 routes & 50
India has launched the 5th round of the Regional additional airports, heliports, and water aerodromes in
Connectivity Scheme (RCS) – Ude Desh Ka Aam Nagrik the near future. अब उड़े ग ा द़ेश का हर आम नागररक!”
(UDAN) to improve connectivity in remote and regional • It was launched as a Regional Connectivity Scheme
areas of the country. (RCS) under the Ministry of Civil Aviation in 2016, to
As per report what is the stage length cap of Viability gap provide affordable, economically viable and profitable air
funding (VGF)under UDAN 5.0? travel on regional routes to the common man even in
A. 300 km small towns.
B. 200 km
C. 500 km 125. In April as per report ______________initiative
D. 600 km received the Prime Minister's Award for Excellence in
E. 700 km Public Administration, 2022.
Answer: D A. UDAN
• Following the four successful rounds of bidding, the B. PM GatiShakti NMP
Ministry of Civil Aviation has launched the 5th round of C. Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
the Regional Connectivity Scheme (RCS) – Ude Desh Ka D. National Beekeeping & Honey Mission
Aam Nagrik (UDAN) to further enhance the connectivity E. Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana
to remote and regional areas of the country and achieve Answer: B
last mile connectivity.
• PM Gati Shakti national master plan initiative • Under the policy, an exemption has been provided
received the award for excellence in public from tax and registration fees for three years on the
administration. purchase of Electric Vehicles.
• Prime Minister Narendra Modi presented the award • The exemption will be valid for 5 years on the
for excellence in public administration to PM Gati Shakti purchase of Electric Vehicles manufactured in Uttar
national master plan initiative. Pradesh.
• This award is conferred for excellence in public • The state government has also relaxed the upper
administration for the effective implementation of maximum expenditure limit on the purchase of vehicles.
priority programmes. • The government has allowed the purchase of Electric
• This award was instituted to recognise the Vehicles through nomination without tender.
extraordinary and innovative work done by districts and • It has been decided by the UP government to give up
organisations of the central and state governments for to 100% exemption on road tax and registration fees for
people's welfare. three years to promote EVs in UP. Three years will be
• This initiative of Ministry of Commerce and Industry calculated from 14 October 2022.
has received the award in innovation category. • UP government’s exemptions will be separate from
• A GIS enabled national master plan digital platform the exemptions being granted by the central government.
has also been developed. • A 15% subsidy will be given on the factory price of the
• Data related to land records, ports, forest, schools, Electric Vehicle as per the government policy in UP.
railway stations, water bodies, telecom towers, and
highways are available on the portal of this initiative. 127. Consider the following statement regarding United
• PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan was launched in Nations Population Fund's World Population Report.
October 2021. Which of the following statement is correct?
• It was launched for the integrated and planned A. India will overtake China as the world's most populous
development of critical infrastructure projects to reduce nation by the middle of this year.
logistics costs. B. India's population is estimated to be 1.4286 billion by
• It will help in developing infrastructure in different mid-year of 2023, compared to 1.4257 billion for China.
fields including transport and productivity. C. The United States will be in third place with an
estimated population of 340 million by the end of June.
126. As per report __________ will become the first state D. The life expectancy at birth for women in India is 74
which will have 100 percent electric vehicles in years, in China it is 82 years.
government departments. E. All of the above are correct
A. Madhya Pradesh Answer: E
B. Delhi • India will overtake China as the world's most
C. Punjab populous nation by the middle of this year.
D. Uttar Pradesh • According to the United Nations Population Fund's
E. Karnataka World Population Report, India's population is estimated
Answer: D to be 1.4286 billion by mid-year of 2023, compared to
• Uttar Pradesh will become the first state which will 1.4257 billion for China.
have 100 percent electric vehicles in government • India’s population will be around 3 million more than
departments. its neighbour china.
• UP government has fixed a target to convert vehicles • The United States will be in third place with an
used in all government departments into Electric Vehicles estimated population of 340 million by the end of June.
in a phased manner by 2030. • China is ahead of India on most socio-economic
• UP government notified the Uttar Pradesh Electric parameters.
Vehicle Manufacturing and Mobility Policy 2022 on 14 • The average life expectancy for an Indian male was
October 2022 to encourage electric vehicles in the state. projected at 71.
• The life expectancy at birth for women in India is 74 • Stablecoins are cryptocurrencies without the
years, in China it is 82 years. volatility. Unlike cryptocurrencies, these coins are
• As per the International Monetary Fund, China's per generally pegged to a govt currency.
capita income is projected to be 5x India's ($2,601) in • The MiCA legislation will apply to ‘cryptoassets’,
2023. which have broadly been defined in the text.
• The total population of India was expected to be • As per this text, the regulation will apply not only to
1.388 billion in 2023 based on the 2011 census data, traditional cryptocurrencies like Bitcoin and Ethereum but
according to the report of the Technical Group on also to newer ones like stablecoins.
Population Projections under the Ministry of Health and • It will, however, not regulate digital assets that would
Family Welfare presented in July 2020. qualify as transferable securities and function like shares
• The youth population in the age group of 15-24 years or their equivalent and other crypto-assets that already
is expected to increase from 233 million in 2011 to 251 qualify as financial instruments under existing regulation.
million in 2021 and then decline to 229 million in 2036. • MiCA will also not regulate central bank digital
• Its proportion to the total population is expected to currencies issued by the European Central Bank and
fall from 19.3% in 2011 to 15.1% in 2036. digital assets issued by national central banks of EU
• It came to light that the world population reached 8 member countries.
billion on November 15, 2022. And now, it is predicted • India is yet to have a comprehensive regulatory
that by mid-2023, the global population will spike up to framework for cryptoassets. A draft legislation on the
8.045 Billion. same is reportedly in the works.
• Eight countries will account for half the projected • In the Union Budget for 2022, the Finance Ministry
growth in global population by 2050 imposed a 30% tax on income from the “transfer of any
• These countries are the Democratic Republic of virtual digital asset.”
Congo, Egypt, Ethiopia, India, Nigeria, Pakistan, the • In March 2023, the government placed all
Philippines and the United Republic of Tanzania. transactions involving virtual digital assets under the
United Nations Population Fund (UNFPA) is trust fund purview of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act
under the jurisdiction of the United Nations Development (PMLA).
Programme (UNDP).
129. In April as per report _______ country has approved
128. In April as per report which of the following has first abortion pill in a bid to promote reproductive rights.
approved the world’s first set of comprehensive rules A. Australia
called the Markets in Crypto Assets (MiCA) to bring B. Japan
largely unregulated cryptocurrency markets under the C. France
ambit of regulation by government authorities? D. Russia
A. World Bank E. China
B. International Monetary Fund Answer: B
C. India • Japan's health ministry has approved the country's
D. France first abortion pill in a bid to promote reproductive rights.
E. European Union • Earlier, the medication was not approved by Japan's
Answer: E Health Ministry, while abortion pills are widely available
• The European Parliament has approved the world’s in many countries across the globe.
first set of comprehensive rules to bring largely • The approval came from the Pharmaceutical Board of
unregulated cryptocurrency markets under the ambit of the health ministry after it approved the MeFeego Pack
regulation by government authorities. abortion pill.
• The regulation, called the Markets in Crypto Assets • The pill has been manufactured by British
(MiCA), will come into force after formal approval by pharmaceutical Linepharma.
member states. • Japan's abortion laws also allow women to have
abortions only with the consent of their partners – which
denied women the right to make decisions over their own wealthiest cities 2023. Which of the following statement
bodies. is incorrect?
• The drug consists of two types of pill, and can be used A. Singapore topped a new list of the world’s wealthiest
within nine weeks of pregnancy, according to Japanese cities in 2023.
public broadcaster NHK. B. It has been released by London-based consultancy
• The pill pack contains two types of medicines, Henley & Partners.
mifepristone and misoprostol, which have been included C. It was dominated by cities in the United States and
by the WHO in its list of essential medicines, shown to be China
safe and effective for people who are pregnant. D. Mumbai featured at 21 and topped among indian
cities.
130. In April as per report Asia-Pacific Leaders' Conference E. Bengaluru got a special mention as one of the fastest-
on _______ Elimination was organized in New Delhi on 24 growing cities in the Asia Pacific.
April. Answer: A
A. Dengue • New York City topped a new list of the world’s
B. Rabies wealthiest cities in 2023, with Japan’s Tokyo and Silicon
C. Malaria Valley’s Bay Area claiming the second and third spots.
D. AIDS • Mumbai featured at #21 while Delhi, Bengaluru,
E. COVID-19 Kolkata and Hyderabad too found a mention.
Answer: C • The list, compiled by London-based consultancy
• Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, as the Henley & Partners, ranked the cities by taking into
precursor of World Malaria Day, has organized Asia account the number of resident millionaires (rounded off
Pacific Leaders' Conference for Malaria Elimination in to the neared 1o0) as of December 31, 2022.
partnership with the Asia Pacific Leaders' Malaria Alliance • It was dominated by cities in the United States and
(APLMA) in New Delhi. China — not one European city featuring in the top 10,
• The conference was presided over by Dr. VK Paul, with the exception of London.
Member (Health), NITI Aayog. • The report included four US cities in the top 10- New
• The purpose of the conference is to reaffirm political York City, The Bay Area, Los Angeles and Chicago.
commitment to encourage action to eliminate malaria by • In terms of billionaires, California’s Bay Area won as
2030. 63 call the region surrounding Silicon Valley and San
• The conference provided a forum for leaders from the Francisco home. It was followed by New York, Beijing, Los
Asia Pacific region to discuss ongoing efforts towards Angeles and Shanghai.
malaria elimination and to reinvigorate national and • Bengaluru got a special mention as one of the fastest-
regional progress towards the goal of a malaria-free Asia growing cities in the Asia Pacific. The report said: “Also
Pacific region by 2030. known as the “Garden City” and the “Silicon Valley of
• The conference included tracking regional and India”, Bengaluru has a booming tech sector.”
national progress, leveraging research, innovation and • The World’s Wealthiest Cities Report 2023 covered 97
new technologies to accelerate progress in reaching at- cities across the world, using data from wealth
risk populations, and adopting the government's holistic intelligence firm, New World Wealth.
approach to ending the disease. Mumbai 21st, Delhi 36th, Bengaluru 60th, Kolkata 63rd
• Of the 11 countries that are part of the World Health and Hyderabad 65th.
Organisation's 'High Burden to High Impact' initiative,
only India has reported a decline in malaria cases during 132. Consider the following statement regarding Hurun’s
the peak of the COVID-19 pandemic. Global Unicorn Index 2023. Which of the following
• From 2015 to 2022, malaria cases have declined by statement is incorrect?
85.1 percent and deaths by 83.6 percent. A. India consolidated its top 3 spots with 58 unicorns.
B. US topped with 666 unicorns followed by China, which
131. Consider the following statement regarding world’s have 316 unicorns.
C. BYJU’s is the top-most unicorn in India, with a valuation with momentum in sectors driven by domestic
of $22 billion, followed by Swiggy and Dream11. consumption and export.
D. San Francisco retained the title of ‘World Unicorn • PE and VC investment declined 15-30% across most
Capital’ with 181 unicorns. regions.
E. All of the above are correct • Over 2,000 deals were transacted in 2022. Venture
Answer: A capital and growth equity accounted for almost 90% of
• India has retained its 3rd spot as the country with the deals.
highest number of unicorns worldwide after the US and • $1-billion investments slowed. Exits slowed to $24
China. With 68 new unicorns, India lags behind the US and billion from an all-time high of $36 billion in 2021.
China, which have 666 and 316 unicorns, respectively. • Traditional sectors dominated the share of exits
• India added 14 new unicorns since the pandemic greater than $100 million.
began. Despite the rise, none of the start-ups made it to • Healthcare and manufacturing showing the largest
the top 10. increase in exit value.
• According to the report, BYJU’s is the top-most
unicorn in India, with a valuation of $22 billion, followed 134. Recently RBI has permitted HDFC Bank to meet
by Swiggy and Dream11, valued at $8 billion each. priority sector lending norms after the merger with HDFC
• The report also mentioned that India and China in a gradual manner, up to three years.
produce more offshore unicorns than any other country. According to the current rules, a bank is required to lend
Founders from India co-founded 70 unicorns outside, __________% of the adjusted net bank credit to the
while China co-founded 32 outside of China, compared priority sectors such as agriculture and micro-enterprises.
with 316 in China. A. 10 %
• San Francisco retained the title of ‘World Unicorn B. 20 %
Capital’ with 181 unicorns, up 30. New York is in the C. 30 %
second spot with 126 unicorns, up 41. With 79 unicorns D. 40 %
Beijing was down 12 to the third position, followed by E. 50 %
Shanghai with 66. London with 42 unicorns was fifth, Answer: D
followed by Bengaluru and Shenzhen with 33 unicorns • RBI has permitted HDFC Bank to meet priority sector
each. lending norms after the merger with HDFC in a gradual
manner, up to three years.
133. Recently as per report by India Private Equity Report • The RBI stated that for the first year, the adjusted net
2023 of Bain & Company India accounts for ________ of bank credit could be determined by taking into account
private equity inflows into the Asia-Pacific. one-third of HDFC's existing loans as of the merger's
A. Two-Third effective date.
B. One-Fifth • Over the period of the following two years,
C. One Fourth consideration will be given equally to the remaining two-
D. One-Third thirds of the HDFC portfolio.
E. Two-Fourth • According to the current rules, a bank is required to
Answer: B lend 40% of the adjusted net bank credit to the priority
• India accounts for one-fifth of private equity inflows sectors such as agriculture and micro-enterprises.
into the Asia-Pacific. • However, HDFC Bank must comply with regulatory
• Private equity (PE) and venture capital (VC) inflows requirements like cash reserve ratio (CRR), statutory
into India reached beyond $61 billion in 2022. liquidity ratio (SLR) and liquidity coverage ratio (LCR) after
• India’s share of investments in the Asia-Pacific region the merger.
increased to a fifth from less than 15% a year ago. • The merger of HDFC Bank and HDFC was announced
• As per the India Private Equity Report 2023 of Bain & in April 2022.
Company, current year will be a one of cautious optimism
135. Recently as per the data released by RBI Indians
spent ________ billion on foreign travel in April-February shareholders on the last day of preceding quarter from
of FY23. the date of application before moving to the main board.
A. $11.51 billion • Effective from April 20, the applicant company should
B. $13.51 billion also have positive cash accruals (earnings before interest,
C. $14.51 billion depreciation and tax) from operations for each of the
D. $12.51 billion three financial years preceding the migration application.
E. $16.51 billion • In addition, the company should have positive PAT
Answer: D (profit after tax) in the immediate financial year of
• $12.51 billion spent by Indians on foreign travel in making the migration application to the exchange, NSE
April-February of FY23. said in a circular on April 20.
• This is an increase of 104% compared to the same • Moreover, the paid-up equity capital (amount
period of the last year as per the data released by RBI. received by the company from shareholders in exchange
• In April-February of FY2022, domestic travelers spent for shares of stock) of the applicant should not be less
$6.13 billion on international donations under the RBI’s than Rs 10 crores and the market capitalisation shouldn’t
LRS for resident individuals. be less than Rs 25 crores.
• Under the Liberalised Remittances Scheme (LRS),
Indian residents can remit up to $250,000 every financial 137. In April as per report _________has launched the
year. NOCS platform to provide reconciliation and settlement
• In February 2023, Indians spent $1.07 billion on services for transactions undertaken on the Open Network
overseas travel. This was 9.2% higher compared to for Digital Commerce (ONDC) network.
February 2022. A. Reserve Bank Of India
• In January 2023, Indians spent $1.49 billion on B. State Bank Of India
travelling to foreign destinations. C. Canara Bank
• Spending on international destinations fell by 28% in D. NPCI Bharat BillPay Ltd
February 2023. E. Paytm
• International travels formed close to 52% of the total Answer: D
outward remittances under LRS for resident individuals • NPCI Bharat BillPay Ltd (NBBL) has launched the NOCS
during April-February of fiscal 2023. platform to provide reconciliation and settlement services
for transactions undertaken on the Open Network for
136. In April as per report NSE released a new framework Digital Commerce (ONDC) network.
for companies seeking to migrate from its small and • The services, provided under the guidance of RBI, will
medium enterprises (SME) platform to the main board. serve as the foundation for the ONDC network and enable
The new guidelines require SMEs to list on the SME smooth, secure and timely transfer of funds to network
platform for at least three years along with a minimum participants.
net worth of ____________. • The NOCS platform is integrated with banks, fintechs
A. 10 cr and e-commerce players, and will soon go live with the
B. 20 cr first set of five banks on ONDC--AU Small Finance Bank,
C. 30 cr Axis Bank, HDFC Bank, IDFC First Bank, and YES Bank, it
D. 40 cr said in a release.
E. 50 cr • NBBL is also working closely with ONDC to bring other
Answer: E innovations to the ecosystem and launch more value-
• The National Stock Exchange of India (NSE) has added solutions for the customers, sellers and network
revised the eligibility criteria for SMEs looking to switch participants in the foreseeable future.
from its SME platform to the main board. • NBBL is a wholly-owned subsidiary of National
• The new guidelines require SMEs to list on the SME Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) which came into
platform for at least three years along with a minimum effect in April 2021. It operates the Bharat BillPay
net worth of Rs 50 crore and at least 1,000 public
platform which processes millions of transactions per capture important metrics that are reflective of
month and has over 20,000 billers. sustainable outcomes in companies.
• The ONDC platform was set up to facilitate the rapid • The BRSR core contains factors that are relevant to
adoption of e-commerce, and boost and strengthen the both the manufacturing and service sectors and are more
growth of startups in India by facilitating scalable and relevant especially in the Indian context, as attributes
cost-effective e-commerce through the open protocol. such as job creation and inclusive development are
considered.
138. Recently as per report Securities and Exchange Board • Besides, ESG disclosures and assurance (BRSR Core
of India (SEBI) issued regulatory framework for ESG only) should be introduced for the value chain of listed
disclosures by India Inc, investors, and rating agencies to entities, with certain thresholds that should be specified.
facilitate a balanced approach to ESG. • To start with, SEBI said these requirements of
As per guidelines initially top ___________ listed disclosure and assurance should be applicable to the top
companies will have to disclose and obtain a reasonable 250 listed entities (by market capitalisation), on a comply-
assurance on BRSR (Business Responsibility and or-explain basis from FY25 and FY26, respectively.
Sustainability Report) Core parameters from FY24 and • SEBI also mandated ESG schemes to invest at least 65
that will be gradually extended to the top 1,000 listed per cent of AUM in listed entities, where assurance on
entities by FY27. BRSR Core is undertaken.
A. 100
B. 200 139. As per report _____________ secured 1st rank on
C. 150 EASE Reforms Index for Q3 FY 2022-23 published by Indian
D. 250 Banks’ Association (IBA).
E. 300 A. State Bank Of India
Answer: C B. Union Bank Of India
• Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) came C. Punjab National Bank
out with a holistic regulatory framework for ESG D. Canara Bank
disclosures by India Inc, investors, and rating agencies to E. HDFC Bank
facilitate a balanced approach to ESG. Answer: B
• In order to enhance the reliability of ESG disclosures, • Union Bank of India, for the first time, secured 1st
the BRSR (Business Responsibility and Sustainability rank as per the report on EASE Reforms Index for Q3 FY
Report) Core should be introduced, which contains a 2022-23 published by Indian Banks’ Association (IBA).
limited set of key performance indicators (KPIs). • Enhanced Access & Service Excellence (EASE) is an
• According to SEBI, initially top 150 listed companies initiative by the DFS (GOI) as part of the PSB Reforms
will have to disclose and obtain a reasonable assurance Agenda and is currently under its fifth iteration which
on BRSR Core parameters from FY24 and that will be focuses on Enhanced Digital experience, Data – driven,
gradually extended to the top 1,000 listed entities by Integrated and Inclusive Banking.
FY27. • The performance of PSBs is measured on five themes
• The parametes are quantifiable under nine broad under EASE 5.0, in which, Union Bank of India has set the
themes — such as change in GHG footprint, change in benchmark under the four themes -- “Digitally - enabled
water footprint, investing in reducing its environmental customer offerings”, ‘Big data and analytics’, ‘Modern
footprint, embracing circularity (details related to waste Technology Capabilities’ and “Employee development and
management by the entity), enhancing employee well- Governance”.
being and safety, enabling gender diversity in business,
enabling inclusive development, and fairness in engaging 140. Consider the following statement regarding World
with customers and suppliers. Bank's Logistic Performance Index 2023. Which of the
• Under these themes, there are about 50 KPIs to following statement is correct?
facilitate comparability of the disclosures. The KPIs A. India's rank in the index of 139 countries has risen to
38 from 44 in 2018.
B. It was 7th edition of Connecting to Compete, the B. Morgan Stanley
Logistics Performance Index (LPI) report. C. Amazon
C. Singapore and Finland are the most efficient and D. Mastercard
highest-ranked LPI countries. E. HDFC Bank
D. Only 1 and 3 Answer: A
E. All of the above are correct • Tata Consultancy Services has emerged as the top
Answer: E company in a list, which showcases the best places to
• India has improved its ranking in the World Bank's work and grow careers, for 2023.
Logistic Performance Index 2023 by six places, owing to • TCS is followed by Amazon (2) and Morgan Stanley (3)
significant investments in both soft and hard in the ‘2023 Top Companies India’ list prepared by
infrastructure as well as technology, which has led to an LinkedIn.
improvement in the country's port performance. • There has been a shift from tech companies, which
• Singapore and Finland are the most efficient and dominated the list last year, with companies across
highest-ranked LPI countries. financial services, oil and gas, professional services,
• India’s ranking: According to the report, India's rank manufacturing and gaming featuring in this year’s list.
in the index of 139 countries has risen to 38 from 44 in • A vast majority of the companies, that is 10 out of 25
2018. companies are from the financial services/ banking/
• International shipments: In 2023, India's ranking for fintech space, including companies such as Macquarie
international shipments improved significantly, moving Group (5), HDFC Bank (11), Mastercard (12), and Yubi
up from 44 in 2018 to 22. (14).
• Logistics competence and equality: The country also • The 2023 Top Companies India list is based on
climbed four places to rank 48 in logistics competence and LinkedIn’s data to rank companies on eight pillars that
equality. have been shown to lead to career progression, including
• Timeline: In terms of timelines, India saw a significant ability to advance, skills growth, company stability,
improvement, moving up 17 places in the rankings. external opportunity, company affinity, gender diversity,
• Tracking and tracing: Additionally, India improved educational background and employee presence in the
three places in tracking and tracing, now ranking at 38. country.
• The LPI 2023 allows for comparisons across 139
countries. 142. Recently as per report Indians remitted ______
• The 2023 LPI for the first time measures the speed of billion under the RBI’s liberalised scheme in February
trade with indicators derived from big datasets tracking 2023.
shipments. A. $2.8 billion
• India’s logistics sector is estimated to account for B. $2.1 billion
about 14.4% of the GDP. The unorganized sector amounts C. $3.1 billion
to over 90% of the logistics sector. D. $1. billion
• The GOI proclaimed PM Gati Shakti’s initiative, a E. $2.5 billion
National Master Plan for multi-modal connectivity, in Answer: B
October 2021, which will lessen the logistics cost and work • Outward remittances in February under the Reserve
as an economic booster by 2024-25. Bank of India’s (RBI’s) liberalised remittance scheme (LRS)
fell 23 per cent over January, latest data released by the
• The 7th edition of Connecting to Compete, the
central bank, in its monthly bulletin, revealed.
Logistics Performance Index (LPI) report, comes after
three years amid the Covid-19 pandemic. • In February, Indians remitted $2.1 billion under the
RBI’s liberalised scheme. On a year-on-year (YoY) basis —
141. In April as per LinkedIn’s 2023 report __________ has aided by international travel — LRS jumped 15.24 per
emerged as the top company in a list which showcases the cent.
best places to work and grow careers, for 2023.
A. Tata Consultancy Services
• Further, in April 2022–February 2023, outward and Atomic Clocks for precision timing, communications
remittances under LRS stood at $24.18 billion, an all-time and navigation.
high. • Under this mission, Four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) will
• In FY22, remittances were a little over $19.61 billion be set up in top academic and National R&D institutes in
overseas under the LRS scheme. This is also an all-time the fields of Quantum Computing, Quantum
high. Communication, Quantum Sensing & Metrology and
• According to February data, international travel Quantum Materials & Devices.
constituted over 50 per cent of the entire outward • The T-Hubs will promote R&D in their respective field
remittances under the scheme. and will also focus on the generation of new knowledge
• According to the scheme, which was introduced in through basic and applied research.
2004, all resident individuals, including minors, are • This mission will also support the development of
allowed to freely remit up to $250,000 in a financial year. Single-photon sources/detectors and entangled photon
This is for any permissible current or capital account sources for quantum communications, sensing and
transaction or a combination of both. metrological applications.
• Initially, the scheme was introduced with a limit of • It will also help in the design and synthesis of
$25,000. The LRS limit has been revised in stages quantum materials such as superconductors, novel
consistent with the prevailing macro and micro economic semiconductor structures and topological materials for
conditions. the development of quantum devices.
• This mission aims to develop intermediate-sca
143. In April as per report National Quantum Mission quantum computers with 50-1000 physical qubits
(NQM) has been approved by the Union Cabinet to capablity.
accelerate scientific & industrial R&D for quantum • National Mission on Quantum Technologies &
technologies with a budget outlay of _________ Crores. Applications (NM-QTA) was announced in the 2020
A. Rs 5003.65 Crores budget.
B. Rs 4003.65 Crores • National Quantum Mission will be implemented by
C. Rs 3003.65 Crores the Department of Science & Technology (DST).
D. Rs 6003.65 Crores
E. Rs 7003.65 Crores 144. What is the name of the portal launched for
Answer: D digitising the fund flow architecture in the Members of
• Government approved National Quantum Mission Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS)?
with a budget outlay of Rs 6003.65 Crores. A. Shakti Portal
• On April 19, National Quantum Mission (NQM) has B. Sakshi Portal
been approved by the Union Cabinet to accelerate C. Samriddhi Portal
scientific & industrial R&D for quantum technologies. D. Samagam Portal
• National Quantum Mission will be implemented from E. Samadhan Portal
2023-24 to 2030-31. Answer: B
• The mission aims to nurture and develop scientific • Nearly two weeks after the launch of the Sakshi
and industrial R&D in the area of Quantum Technology portal for digitising the fund flow architecture in the
(QT) and create a vibrant and creative ecosystem related Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme
to it. (MPLADS), data provided by the Ministry of Statistics and
• It will help in Quantum Technology led economic Programme Implementation (MoSPI) in Parliament earlier
growth and will make India one of the leading countries in this month shows that more than a third of the Rs 3,965
the development of Quantum Technologies & crore budgeted under MPLADS for 2022-23 (FY23) remain
Applications (QTA). non-disbursed.
• This mission will help in the development of • MoSPI, informed that until March 30, only Rs 2,387
magnetometers with high sensitivity in atomic systems crore had been disbursed (60 per cent).
• Gujarat (35.7 per cent), Kerala (37.2 per cent), Tamil A. 31st
Nadu (38.9 per cent), Haryana (41.3 per cent), and B. 36th
Himachal Pradesh (48.6 per cent) have disbursed less than C. 22nd
half the amount sanctioned to their parliamentarians. D. 28th
• Under the MPLAD scheme, all elected and nominated E. 25th
members of both Houses of Parliament are provided with Answer: C
Rs 5 crore annually to recommend works of • Md. Sahabuddin took oath as the 22nd President of
developmental nature with emphasis on the creation of Bangladesh on 24th April 2023 in Dhaka.
durable community assets in their constituencies. • Md. Sahabuddin was administered the oath of office
by Parliament speaker Dr. Shirin Sharmin Chowdhury.
145. In April as per report Nasscom has appointed • Md. Sahabuddin took oath in presence of Prime
_______________________as its chairperson for 2023-24. Minister Sheikh Hasina, Chief Justice Hasan Foez Siddique
A. Arun Kumar Sinha and others.
B. Ajay Chouhan • Md. Sahabuddin is a veteran freedom fighter, jurist
C. Ramesh Chouhan and politician. His nickname is Chupu.
D. Anant Maheshwari • He took an active part in the 6-Point Movement in
E. Krishnan Ramanujam 1966, Bhutta (Maize) Movement in 1967 and Liberation
Answer: D War in 1971.
• Information technology (IT) industry body Nasscom • Its capital is Dhaka. Sheikh Hasina is its Prime
has appointed Anant Maheshwari, President, Microsoft Minister.
India as its chairperson for 2023-24.
• He takes on the new role from his previous role as 147. Every year on _________ National Panchayati Raj
Vice Chairperson succeeding Krishnan Ramanujam, Day (NPRD) is celebrated to commemorates the day on
President, Business and Technology Services, Tata which the 73rd Constitutional Amendment was passed in
Consultancy Services, who served as Chairperson for 2022- 1992.
23. A. 20th April
• It also announced the appointment of Rajesh B. 21st April
Nambiar, Chairman and Managing Director, Cognizant C. 22nd April
India as its Vice Chairperson for 2023-24. D. 23rd April
• In addition, Nasscom announced its new Executive E. 24th April
Council for 2023-2025. The new Executive Council will play Answer: E
a strategic role in enabling India’s tech sector to lead on • Every year on 24 April, National Panchayati Raj Day
the global stage through focused initiatives and (NPRD) is celebrated.
programmes. • It commemorates the day on which the 73rd
• The newly appointed leadership along with President Constitutional Amendment was passed in 1992.
Debjani Ghosh will spearhead the industry to carry out its • National Panchayati Raj Day was first declared in
wide array of objectives to achieve the tech industry’s 2010.
vision of $500 billion by 2030. • This day provides an opportunity for direct dialogue
• DescriptionThe National Association of Software and with Panchayat representatives from all over the country.
Service Companies is an Indian non-governmental trade • National Panchayati Raj Day (NPRD) is celebrated in
association and advocacy group, focused mainly on the Rewa on 24th April 2023 in collaboration with Ministry of
technology industry of India. Panchayati Raj and Government of Madhya Pradesh.
• Established in 1988, NASSCOM is a Nonprofit • NPRD has been celebrated as a major event as part of
organization. Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav (AKAM) – Samaaveshi Vikaas
(Inclusive Development) adopting Whole-of-the-
146. In April as per report Md. Sahabuddin took oath as Government approach.
the __________ President of Bangladesh.
• The Prime Minister was the chief guest at the national • In 2000, WIPO's member states agreed to
function organized at the Special Armed Forces Ground in commemorate World Intellectual Property Day on April
Rewa, Madhya Pradesh. 26.
• An integrated e-GramSwaraj and GeM portal were • This date marks the anniversary of the coming into
inaugurated by PM for public procurement at Panchayat existence of the WIPO Convention in 1970.
level. • World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) was
• The aim of eGramSwaraj and GeM integration is to established in 1967. The headquarters is located in
enable Panchayats to procure their goods and services Geneva, Switzerland.
through GeM by leveraging the eGramSwaraj platform.
• On this occasion, the Prime Minister handed over 149. In April as per report __________defeated Greece's
SVAMITVA Property Cards to the selected beneficiaries. Stefanos Tsitsipas and won the Barcelona Open on 23rd
• This marks the achievement of 1.25 crore property April 2023.
card distribution under the SVAMITVA scheme in the A. Novak Djokovic
country. B. Carlos Alcaraz
• PM Modi launched Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav (AKAM) C. Rafael Nadal
Campaign for theme “Inclusive Development” – D. Andy Murray
“SAMAAVESHI VIKAS” and also launched its dedicated E. Daniil Medvedev
website and Mobile App. Answer: B
• PM Modi conducted the ‘Griha Pravesh’ of more than • Spain's Carlos Alcaraz defeated Greece's Stefanos
4 lakh beneficiaries under Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana– Tsitsipas and won the Barcelona Open on 23rd April 2023.
Gramin (PMAY–G). • Alcaraz won his third ATP Tour title of the year and
• Presently, 4.11 lakh houses are ready for the Griha the ninth overall.
Pravesh programme. • Alcaraz won in Barcelona Open for the second
• On 24th April 2020, eGramSwaraj (eGS) was launched consecutive year.
on the occasion of National Panchayati Raj Day. • It was Tsitsipas's fourth consecutive loss to Alcaraz.
• On April 24, 2020, on the occasion of the National • Alcaraz was defeated by Jannik Sinner in the semi-
Panchayati Raj Day, SVAMITVA (Survey of Villages and finals of the Miami Open.
Mapping with Improvised Technology in Village Areas) is • In December, Alcaraz became the youngest year-end
a Central Sector Scheme launched by the Prime Minister. world number 1 since the ATP rankings began.
• 2023 Barcelona Open was a men's tennis tournament
148. Every year on ___________ World Intellectual played in Barcelona, Spain, from 17 to 23 April 2023. It
Property Day is observed with the aim of highlighting the was the 70th edition of the Barcelona Open.
importance of Intellectual Property (IP) and how it
encourages creativity and innovation. 150. In April as per report ISRO's Polar Satellite Launch
A. 21st April Vehicle successfully placed TeLEOS-2 of satellites
B. 23rd April ___________ into the intended orbit.
C. 26th April A. Argentina
D. 25th April B. Brazil
E. 22nd April C. Australia
Answer: C D. Japan
• Every year on April 26, World Intellectual Property E. Singapore
Day is observed. Answer: E
• The day is observed with the aim of highlighting the • ISRO's Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle successfully
importance of Intellectual Property (IP) and how it placed two Singapore satellites into the intended orbit.
encourages creativity and innovation. • The satellites are part of the order secured by
• The theme of World Intellectual Property Day 2023 is NewSpace India Ltd, the commercial arm of ISRO.
“Women and IP: Accelerating Innovation and Creativity”.
• At the end of a 22.5 hour countdown, the 44.4 metre • It is a snake-like robot that can move through rough
tall rocket lifted off majestically from the first launch pad terrain.
at the pre-fixed 2.19 pm at the Satish Dhawan Space • Its purpose is to examine the surface of Saturn's moon
Centre here, located about 135 km from Chennai. and determine whether life is present.
• The primary satellite TeLEOS-2 is a synthetic aperture • EELS allows for deeper exploration into areas that
radar satellite developed under partnership between were once unattainable.
Defence Science and Technology Agency (DSTA) • EELS uses first-of-a-kind rotating propulsion units that
representing the Government of Singapore and ST act as tracks, gripping mechanisms and propeller units
Engineering. underwater, enabling the robot to access a plume vent
• The 750 kg satellite will be launched into a Low Earth exit and follow it to its ocean source.
Orbit. • The sixth-largest moon of Saturn, Enceladus, has been
• It would be used to provide all-weather day and night found to have liquid water and the chemical components
coverage and is capable of imaging at one metre full necessary for organic molecules (carbon, hydrogen,
polarimetric resolution for Singapore. nitrogen, oxygen, and sulphur). NASA intends to send the
• The co-passenger satellite is Lumelite-4, co-developed robot there.
by the Institute for Infocomm Research and Satellite
TEchnology and Research Centre of the National 152. Recently as per report by Stockholm International
University of Singapore. Peace Research Institute (Sipri) India was the fourth
• It is an advanced 12U satellite developed for the biggest military spender in the world in 2022 with military
technological demonstration of the High-Performance spending of __________billion.
Space-borne VHF data Exchange System (VDES). A. $76.9 billion
• It is also the 16 th mission for ISRO using the PSLV B. $72.8 billion
Core Alone configuration. C. $81.4 billion
• This mission follows the successful deployment of the D. $84.5 billion
TeLEOS-1 satellite in a PSLV-C29 rocket along with five E. $88.9 billion
other satellites of Singapore in December 2015. Answer: C
• India, which has sharpened its focus on building its
151. As per report NASA is developing a snake-like robot defence capabilities and strengthening military
known as Exobiology Extant Life Surveyor (EELS) which is infrastructure along the China border, was the fourth
to be deployed on ________Moon In search of life. biggest military spender in the world in 2022 after the
A. Jupiter United States, China and Russia.
B. Saturn • Saudi Arabia was in fifth place. The five countries
C. Mars accounted for 63% of the world’s military spending.
D. Earth • The top three spenders in 2022 were the United
E. Venus States, China and Russia, who accounted for 56 percent of
Answer: B the world’s total share of military expenditure, as per the
• US space agency NASA, is developing a snake-like Swedish think tank's data.
robot known as Exobiology Extant Life Surveyor (EELS) • India’s military spending of $81.4 billion was the
which it says can boost space exploration through its fourth highest in the world. It was 6% more than in 2021
diverse adaptability to various terrains. and up by 47% from 2013.
• It is a mobile instrument platform conceived to • The report comes at a time when India and China
explore internal terrain structures, assess habitability and have been locked in a standoff along the Line of Actual
ultimately search for evidence of life. Control (LAC) in eastern Ladakh since May 2020, and
• It is designed to be adaptable to traverse ocean- negotiations are on to ease border tensions.
world-inspired terrain, fluidized media, enclosed • Total global military expenditure increased by 3.7% in
labyrinthian environments and liquids. 2022, hitting a new high of $2,240 billion, Sipri said while
highlighting that Russia’s invasion of Ukraine was a major • On April 20, 2023, the medal has been conferred on
driver of the growth in spending last year. Deepika by Indian Air Force Chief Air Chief Marshal VR
• China continues to spend more on defence than India. Chaudhari at an investiture ceremony held in New Delhi.
In 2022, China’s military spending reached $292 billion. • In August 2021, Deepika Mishra was deployed to
• In February, India set aside Rs. 5.93 lakh crore for conduct humanitarian assistance and disaster relief
defence spending in this year’s budget, including a capital operations in response to flash floods in northern Madhya
outlay of Rs.1.62 lakh crore for the military’s Pradesh.
modernisation, with the allocation almost 12% higher • She was the first and only responder to reach the
than that in last year’s budget estimates, and about 2% affected area and saved the lives of 47 people.
more compared to that in the revised estimates for 2022- • IAF chief presented the award to two IAF officers
23. were awarded Yudh Seva Medal, 13 officers, and air
• In another report published in March 2023, Sipri said warriors received Vayu Sena Medal (Gallantry), 13 officers
India’s arms imports fell 11% between 2013-17 and 2018- Vayu Sena Medal and 30 Vishisht Seva Medal.
22 but the country is still the world’s top importer of The IAF chief awarded a total of 58 personnel with
military hardware. That report came at a time when India gallantry awards, of which 57 are from the IAF and the
has sharpened its focus on achieving self-reliance in the remainder from the Indian army.
defence manufacturing sector.
• Also, India’s share of the global arms imports was the 154. Recently Information and Technology (IT) Ministry
highest during the last five years at 11%, followed by has made amendment which may allow platforms that
Saudi Arabia (9.6%), Qatar (6.4%), Australia (4.7%) and involve depositing money for winnings in games to avoid
China (4.7%), according to data published by Sipri that the ‘betting and gambling’ tag, if they are deemed
measures weapons imports over five-year periods. permissible by a self-regulatory body.
• The SIPRI is an independent international institute As per report ____________Self-regulatory body will be
dedicated to research into conflict, armaments, arms recognised for declaring online games permissible on the
control and disarmament. basis of whether games allow wagers.
• Established in 1966 at Stockholm, SIPRI provides data, A. 2
analysis and recommendations, based on open sources, to B. 3
policymakers, researchers, media and the interested C. 5
public. D. 7
E. 9
153. In April as per report ___________ made history by Answer: B
becoming the first female officer in the Indian Air Force to • The Information and Technology (IT) Ministry has
be honored with a gallantry award. made amendment which may allow platforms that
A. Geeta Rana involve depositing money for winnings to avoid the
B. Surekha Yadav ‘betting and gambling’ tag, if they are deemed
C. Akanksha Jaiswal permissible by a self-regulatory body.
D. Sania Mirza • Under this provision, three SRBs will be recognized
E. Deepika Mishra soon.
Answer: E • SROs will be responsible for declaring online games
• On 20 April, Wing Commander Deepika Mishra made permissible on the basis of whether games allow wagers.
history by becoming the first female officer in the Indian The SRO can declare online real money games as
Air Force to be honored with a gallantry award. permissible if it is satisfied that “the online real money
• In 2022, Deepika was among the awardees game does not involve wagering on any outcome”.
announced for the Vayu Seva Medal for Gallantry on • The government would be constrained to take
Independence Day. appropriate legal action against any non-compliance.
• The advisory has been issued to all media formats, in colocation with existing medical colleges established
including newspapers, television channels, and online since 2014.
news publishers. • The move will add approximately 15,700 nursing
• Here’s a list of the Top 10 Real Cash Games in India graduates every year and will further ensure quality,
are: affordable and equitable nursing education in the
• MPL, Ludo Empire, Zupee, Junglee Rummy, Dream 11, country, particularly in underserved districts.
Winzo, Paytm First Games, GAMEE, Rummy Circle and • The total financial implication of the move will be
GetMega. ₹1,570 crore. Uttar Pradesh will see the maximum
• The online gaming industry in India grew at a number of colleges (27) set up, while Rajasthan will have
compounded annual growth rate (CAGR) of 38% between 23 and Madhya Pradesh, 14.
2017-2020, as opposed to 8% in China and 10% in the US.
• The revenue of the Indian mobile gaming industry is 156. Recently as per report Prime Minister Shri Narendra
expected to reach $5 billion in 2025. Modi will participate in a programme to mark the 20
years of completion of the SWAGAT initiative in Gujarat.
155. In April as per report Union Cabinet gave its nod to What is the acronymn of second 'A' in SWAGAT initiative?
the National Medical Devices Policy, which is expected to A. Administrative
help the sector expand to _________ billion or over ₹4- B. Application
lakh crore by 2030. C. Amortization
A. $10 billion D. Annuity
B. $20 billion E. Account
C. $30 billion Answer: B
D. $40 billion • On 27th April, Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi will
E. $50 billion participate in a programme to mark the 20 years of
Answer: E completion of the SWAGAT initiative in Gujarat.
• The Union Cabinet gave its nod to the National • The state government of Gujarat is celebrating
Medical Devices Policy, which is expected to help the SWAGAT Saptah to celebrate the successful completion of
sector expand to $50 billion or over ₹4-lakh crore by 2030, 20-year of the initiative.
from its current size of around $11 billion or over ₹90,000 • SWAGAT (State Wide Attention on Grievances by
crore. Application of Technology) initiative was launched by
• It will also facilitate and guide the sector through a Narendra Modi in April 2003.
set of strategies that will cover six broad areas of policy • It is a first-of-its-kind tech-based grievance redressal
interventions — regulatory streamlining, enabling programme. The main aim of the programme is to bridge
infrastructure, facilitating R&D and innovation, attracting the gap between the citizens and the government by
investments, human resources development and brand using technology.
positioning & awareness creation. • It helps in solving day-to-day grievances in a quick,
• Presently, India’s share in the global medical devices efficient and time-bound manner.
market is estimated to be 1.5 per cent. The country also • SWAGAT became an effective tool to solve issues in a
meets 75 per cent of its device requirement through paperless, transparent and hassle-free manner.
imports. • State SWAGAT, District SWAGAT, Taluka SWAGAT
• The Centre has already initiated the implementation and Gram SWAGAT are the four components of the
of PLI scheme for medical devices and extended support in SWAGAT Online Programme.
setting up four medical devices parks in Himachal • The SWAGAT Online Programme has received various
Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and Uttar awards including the United Nations Public Service Award
Pradesh. in 2010.
• The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs also • The uniqueness of 'Swagat' is that it helps the
approved the establishment of 157 new nursing colleges common man to convey his grievances directly to the
Chief Minister.
• Under this programme, it is ensured that each • Officially notified in December last year, India’s first
applicant is informed about the decision. Proceedings of ‘dark sky reserve’ in Ladakh’s Hanle village is now ready
all applications are available online. and will be opened for the public soon.
• Spread over 1,073 sq km across a cluster of six
157. In April as per report __________state initative State hamlets in the Hanle cold desert region at an elevation of
Organ & Tissue Transplant Organisation (SOTTO) has won 4,500 metres above sea level, the reserve is among a few
Prime Minister's Award for Excellence in Public of its kind in the world that will offer a spectacular view of
Administration, 2022. the night sky.
A. Uttar Pradesh • Meanwhile, work is on in full swing to develop Benital
B. Karnataka in Uttarakhand as the first ‘astro village’ of India.
C. Gujarat • Located at an altitude of 2,600 metres above sea
D. Madhya Pradesh level, Benital, with its low light pollution and minimal
E. Odisha human activity, offers an undisturbed view of the night
Answer: C sky, making it an ideal location for a dark sky park.
• Gujarat’s innovative approach at creating a citizen • The department has estimated a total expense of Rs 5
centric comprehensive transplant ecosystem has led to crore for the project and submitted a report to the
the State Organ & Tissue Transplant Organisation administration. It has entrusted the Garhwal Mandal
(SOTTO), Gujarat getting selected for the Prime Minister's Vikas Nigam with the responsibility of developing Benital
Award for Excellence in Public Administration, 2022. as an astro-village.
• The award was conferred by the Prime Minister on
the Civil Services Day at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi. The 159. In April as per report PM modi laid foundation stone
award was received by Shahmeena Husain, Commissioner of India's first Digital Science Park at ___________.
(Health) during the event. A. Kochi
• While second award on an initiative taken for B. Hyderabad
Foundation Literacy and Numeracy in all 994 government C. Bengaluru
elementary schools of Mehsana district under project D. Chennai
PATHA (Problem Identification, Assessment & Diagnosis, E. Thiruvananthapuram
Teacher Training , Hand Holding in Remedies, Assessment Answer: E
of Impact) was received by Nagarajan M., Collector of • Prime Minister Narendra Modi laid the foundation
Mehsana. stone for India's first third generation Digital Science Park
• Gujarat has been a pioneer in laying down systems being developed by the Kerala government.
and procedures for transplants. • He said that the country is pursuing a development
• The state has set up the Gujarat University of model that lays as much emphasis on digital connectivity
Transplantation Sciences (GUTS) in 2015, which is the as on physical connectivity.
world’s first and only university for transplantation and • The Rs 1,515 crore Digital Science Park project will be
allied sciences. spread across an area of around 14 acres near Kerala
University of Digital Sciences Innovation and Technology.
158. Which of the following village is developed as the • The Kerala government has already allocated Rs 200
first ‘astro village’ of India? crore for the initial work on the park.
A. Hanoi
B. Mana 160. Recently as per report Central government
C. Kibtoo employees will now get _________ days special casual
D. Benital leave for organ donation.
E. Devasara A. 51 days
Answer: D B. 42 days
C. 36 days
D. 16 days
E. 19 days launched PRAYAG which is a Real Time Monitoring Centre
Answer: B for planning and monitoring of projects, river water
• Central government employees will now get 42 days quality.
special casual leave for organ donation. What is the acronym of 'P' in PRAYAG?
• An official memorandum (OM) issued by the A. Platform
Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT) said, B. Personal
“Organ removal from a donor is a major surgery, which C. Production
requires time for recovery, including both hospitalisation D. Preservation
and post-hospitalisation periods. E. Payment
• Presently, rules say maximum of 30 days can be Answer: A
granted as Special Casual Leave in any one calendar year. • Jal Shakti Ministry launched PRAYAG, a real-time
• The new mechanism has been made effective from monitoring centre for planning and monitoring of
the issue of OM, which is April 25, 2023. projects, river water quality, etc., during the 11th meeting
• These orders shall be applicable to Government of the Empowered Task Force of the National Mission for
employees appointed to the civil services and posts in Clean Ganga (NMCG)
connection with the affairs of the Union of India in terms • PRAYAG (Platform for Real-time Analysis of Yamuna,
of Rule 2 of the CCS (Leave) Rules, 1972. Ganga and their Tributaries) monitors various projects
• This means new leave will not be applicable for through various online dashboards such as Ganga Tarang
railway servants, members of the All India Services, Portal, Ganga Districts Performance Monitoring System,
persons in casual or daily-rated or part-time employment etc.
etc. • It is a Real-Time Monitoring Centre for planning and
monitoring projects, river water quality, etc.
161. Recently seen in news Pushkaralu festival a festival • Monitoring will be done through various online
of Telugu-speaking people was commenced in ________. dashboards such as Ganga Tarang Portal, Jajmau Plant
A. Hyderabad through Online Drone Data, PMT Tool Dashboard, Ganga
B. Kochi Districts Performance Monitoring System, etc.
C. Bhubneshwar • The Union Minister also released the comic series
D. Varanasi ‘Chacha Chaudhary ke Sath, Ganga ki Baat’.
E. Surat • The Minister on 5th January 2023 had launched the
Answer: D National Framework on Safe Reuse of Treated Water
• Kashi Telugu Sangam-Ganga Pushkara Aradhana prepared by NMCG. The framework acts as a guiding
addressed by PM Modi. document for framing state policies on reuse of treated
• On April 29, Kashi Telugu Sangam-Ganga Pushkara water.
Aradhana has been organized in Varanasi. • The Ministry of Culture informed that an action plan
• The daylong event, which was held at Mansarovar to hold ‘Ganga Sanskriti Yatra’ has been formulated. The
Ghat, highlighted the ancient civilisational ties between Yatra will pass through the States of Uttarakhand, UP,
Kashi, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana. Bihar and West Bengal. The proposed Yatra will start
• On the 22nd of April, Ganga Pushkaralu began in from Gangotri in Uttarakhand and terminate at Ganga
Varanasi and will continue till 3 May. Sagar in West Bengal, showcasing the cultural heritage of
• During the 12-day event, a large number of pilgrims Ganga at more than 100 different venues from Gangotri
from Andhra Pradesh and Telangana have reached to to Ganga Sagar.
Kashi to offer prayers to their ancestors.
• After every 12 years, this festival is celebrated. 163. In April as per report Amit Shah launched world’s
• This is the second event to be held in Varanasi in first nano-DAP.
recent times after the Kashi-Tamil Sangam. As per report Nano-DAP is jointly manufactured by
_________ in association with a private player
162. In April as per report Union Minister for Jal Shakti Coromandel.
A. Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative Answer: A
B. Central Research Institute for Dryland Agriculture • PM Narendra Modi remarked on the 100th episode of
C. Indian Agricultural Research Institute "Mann Ki Baat" that the broadcast filled the "emptiness"
D. Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export he felt after coming to Delhi in 2014, and that he
Development Authority connected with crores of Indians and never cut-off from
E. National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing people.
Federation of India • Mann Ki Baat was started on 3 October 2014.
Answer: A • The program has become a major pillar of the
• Union Home Minister Amit Shah launched IFFCO’s government's citizen-outreach programme, addressing
liquid nano Di-Ammonia Phosphate (DAP). multiple social groups such as women, youth and farmers.
• Commercially rolling out world’s first nano-DAP, • Apart from 22 Indian languages and 29 dialects,
approved by the government in March, Shah said it Mann Ki Baat is broadcast in 11 foreign languages
(introduction of nano variant of fertiliser) is a new including French, Chinese, Indonesian, Tibetan, Burmese,
beginning towards making India self reliant on fertiliser Balochi, Arabic, Pashtu, Farsi, Dari and Swahili.
as it will increase farm productivity without impacting the • Mann Ki Baat was broadcast by more than 500
soil health. broadcasting stations of All India Radio.
• Though a bottle (500 ml) of nano-DAP will be • IIM Rohtak found in a survey that 100 crore people
equivalent to one bag (50kg) of conventional DAP, the have heard Mann Ki Baat and claimed that 23 crore
price of nano (liquid) DAP has been kept at ₹600 per people regularly listen to Mann Ki Baat.
bottle (without subsidy) against ₹1,350/ bag (with • The government also released a commemorative coin
subsidy) for conventional DAP. of ₹100 to commemorate the telecast of the 100th
• Nano-DAP is jointly manufactured by Indian Farmers episode.
Fertiliser Cooperative (IFFCO) in association with a private • In the center of the obverse of the coin is the Lion
player Coromandel. Capital of the Ashoka Pillar, below which is written
• The minister said IFFCO’s nano-DAP will have 8 per 'Satyamev Jayate'.
cent nitrogen and 16 per cent phosphorus against 18 per
cent nitrogen and 46 per cent phosphorus than the 165. In April as per report Supreme Court modified its
conventional granular bag contains. order of maintaining eco sensitive zone around national
• The minister said IFFCO has got a patent for nano- parks or wildlife sanctuaries.
urea and nano-DAP for 20 years and will get a royalty of What is the minimum limit of eco-sensitive zone (ESZ)
20 per cent for the use of the products globally. around national parks or wildlife sanctuaries?
• IFFCO said it has set up manufacturing facilities for A. 1 Km
the production of nano DAP fertilisers at Kalol, Kandla in B. 2 Km
Gujarat and Paradeep in Odisha. C. 3 Km
• The production at Kalol Plant has already started, and D. 4 Km
this year about 5 crore bottles of nano-DAP (equivalent to E. 5 Km
2.5 mt) will be produced. Answer: A
• Supreme Court modified its order of maintaining eco
164. Recently 100th episode of his monthly radio sensitive zone around national parks or wildlife
programme 'Mann Ki Baat' addressed by PM Modi on 30 sanctuaries.
April. When was Mann Ki Baat started? • Supreme Court modified its June 2022 order of
A. 3 October 2014 maintaining a 1 km eco-sensitive zone (ESZ) around
B. 30 September 2014 national parks or wildlife sanctuaries.
C. 1 November 2014 • Supreme Court in its modified order removed a
D. 5 September 2014 complete ban on development and construction activities
E. 30 October 2014 within ESZs.
• SC said that the order of 2022 will not get applicable • At a joint press conference with President Yoon in
to ESZs for which draft or final notifications have been Washington on 26 April 2023, US President said the deal
issued or in the case of proposals pending with the will strengthen the allies’ cooperation in deterring a North
Ministry of Environment. Korean attack.
• The order has been issued by a bench of Justices B R • The deal will be called Washington Declaration.
Gavai, Vikram Nath and Sanjay Karol. • There are concerns of nuclear threats from North
• The bench said that eco-sensitive zones cannot be Korea as it carried out a record number of ballistic missile
uniform across the country. It has to be ‘protected area- tests.
specific’.
• The mandatory ESZ provision will not get applied to 167. What is the name of the world's first robotic check-in
the national parks and sanctuaries which are located on assistant which has been unveiled by Dubai-based airline
inter-state borders or share common boundaries. Emirates as its latest innovation?
• The new order maintains that no mining would be A. Shasha
allowed, either within national parks and sanctuaries or B. Sara
in a 1 km radius. C. Elly
• SC said that if no permanent construction is permitted D. Riva
for any purpose, a villager who is desirous to reconstruct E. Karlos
his house would not be permitted. Answer: B
• The earlier provision was preventing the State or the • The world's first robotic check-in assistant, named
Central Government from constructing roads and Sara, has been unveiled by Dubai-based airline Emirates
providing other facilities for villagers living in ESZs. as its latest innovation.
• Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZs): These act as a transition • The system is part of a new City Check-in and Travel
zone between areas of high protection and areas with Store that is set to launch in Dubai's Financial District.
lesser protection. The purpose of ESZs is to limit activities • Sara will utilize facial recognition technology to
for protecting wildlife. match customers' faces with their scanned passports,
provide check-in services, and assist them in finding the
166. In April as per report US President Joe Biden and the baggage claim area.
South Korean President have agreed on a landmark deal, • On 27 April, the facility was opened, allowing
which includes plans to deploy US nuclear-armed customers to drop off their luggage as early as 24 hours
submarines in South Korea. Who is the President of South and up to 4 hours before their flight, to arrive at the
Korea? airport at their leisure.
A. Moon Ba Koon • Passengers can check-in with the help of Emirates
B. Yoon Suk-Yeol agents at dedicated desks or with the help of Sara.
C. Kim Jong Un • Sara is also portable and can move around to help
D. Fumio Kishida those in need.
E. Myint Swe • The future iterations of the Sara will also have arms
Answer: B that can carry goods.
• US President Joe Biden and South Korean President • Along with the newly introduced check-in facility,
Yoon Suk-Yeol have agreed on a landmark deal. Emirates passengers holding valid boarding passes will be
• The deal includes plans to deploy US nuclear-armed granted free access to select lifestyle facilities at the ICD
submarines in South Korea. Brookfield Place, and will also receive exclusive discounts
• The US has also agreed to involve Seoul in its planning and special offers at various luxury stores, gyms, and
for the use of nuclear weapons in any conflict with North restaurants.
Korea.
• South Korea has agreed to not develop its own 168. Recently as per report third in-person Quad Summit
nuclear weapons. will be held in __________.
A. India
B. USA Innovation Council meeting in the presence of United
C. Australia Kingdom Minister George Freeman.
D. Japan • Dr Jitendra Singh is leading a high-level official Indian
E. UAE delegation of the Ministry of Science and Technology to
Answer: C the United Kingdom.
• Third in-person Quad Summit will be held in Australia • Dr Jitendra Singh informed his British counterpart
on May 24. that the UK has emerged as India’s second largest
• Australia will host the third in-person Quad Summit international research and innovation partner.
on May 24 in Sydney. • Dr Jitendra Singh invited Minister Freeman to the G20
• US President Joe Biden, Japanese PM Fumio Kishida, Research Ministers meeting in Mumbai on 6th July 2023.
and Prime Minister Narendra Modi will attend this
summit. 170. Recently as per report world’s second deepest blue
• The leaders will discuss how the Quad can work hole has been discovered in _________.
alongside partners and regional groupings including the A. Brazil
Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) and the B. Mexico
Pacific Islands Forum, to strengthen cooperation. C. France
• The main aim of the summit is to deepen cooperation D. Germany
in various fields such as critical and emerging E. Australia
technologies, high-quality infrastructure, global health, Answer: B
climate change, etc. • As per the latest development, scientists have
• The Quad or Quadrilateral Security Dialogue uncovered a massive sinkhole off the coast of the Yucatan
comprises India, the US, Japan and Australia. Peninsula in Mexico.
• Its main aim is to develop a strategy to keep the • The giant blue hole which is around 900 ft deep, has
critical sea routes free from any influence. been dubbed as the second deepest blue hole found on
• The first in-person meeting of Quad leaders was the planet.
hosted by US President Joe Biden in 2021. • The world’s deepest known deep hole was discovered
• It was formalised by former Japanese Prime Minister in the South China Sea in 2016, and is known as the
Shinzo Abe in 2007. Dragon Hole. As per the records, it’s more than 980 ft
deep.
169. Recently as per report India with __________ will • The Mexico blue hole has been named Taam Ja’,
create NET zero innovation virtual centre. which means ‘deep water’ in Mayan.
A. Japan • A blue hole is actually a massive underwater sinkhole,
B. Australia which is hundreds of metres long and spans across areas
C. UK that are bigger than cities and stands at a height of
D. Russia several skyscrapers.
E. Maldives
Answer: C 171. In April as per report ___________ has won Global
• India and the United Kingdom will create India-UK Gold Award by The Green Organization.
NET zero innovation virtual centre. A. Power Grid Corporation of India Ltd
• India-UK NET zero innovation virtual centre will B. Satluj Jal Vidyut Nigam Ltd
provide a platform for stakeholders of both countries to C. National Thermal Power Corporation
work together in different areas. D. Gas Authority of India Limited
• Some of these areas are the decarbonization of E. National Hydroelectric Power Corporation Ltd
manufacturing processes, transport systems, and green Answer: A
hydrogen as a renewable source. • Power Grid Corporation of India Ltd. (PGCIL) has won
• Science and Technology Minister Dr Jitendra Singh Global Gold Award by The Green Organization.
announced this while chairing the India-UK Science and
• The award was received by Dr. V. K. Singh, Director • In 2022, the Reserve Bank of Zimbabwe introduced
(Personnel), POWERGRID on behalf of the organization. gold coins as an alternative legal tender.
• The award provides a recognition of POWERGRID’s • The central bank is planning to launch digital tokens
CSR work in 10 villages of Jaipatna Block of Kalahandi alongside "mosi-o-tunya" gold coins.
District in Odisha.
• POWERGRID’s CSR work involved improving 173. Recently as per recent data four public sector general
Agriculture Productivity and Rural Livelihood through insurance companies -- New India Assurance, United India
watershed management, community participation and Insurance, Oriental Insurance, and National Insurance
better crop management practices in these villages. Company holds _____________ % the total general
• The Green World Awards 2023 function was held at insurance market share.
Miami in the USA on 24 April 2023. A. 40.56 %
• Power Grid Corporation of India Ltd. (PGCIL) is a B. 32.37 %
Maharatna CPSU of the Ministry of Power, Government of C. 25.56 %
India. D. 45.87 %
• It was incorporated on 23rd October 1989. It is E. 42.56 %
headquartered in Gurgaon. Answer: B
• Kandikuppa Sreekant is its chairman and MD. • The four public sector general insurance companies --
New India Assurance, United India Insurance, Oriental
172. Recently as per report Gold-pegged digital currency Insurance, and National Insurance Company -- have lost
will be launched by ____________. 800 basis points (bps) in market share in last five years to
A. Reserve Bank of Australia their private counterparts, the data from the Insurance
B. Reserve Bank of Ukraine Regulatory and Development Authority (Irdai) revealed.
C. Reserve Bank of Zimbabwe • In 2018-19, the four had a cumulative market share of
D. Reserve Bank of Russia 40.04 per cent, with New India Assurance having a market
E. Reserve Bank of China share of 14 per cent and United India Insurance with a
Answer: C market share of 9.63 per cent. But, gradually in the past
• A gold-pegged digital currency will be launched by five years, these state-backed firms have lost their market
Reserve Bank of Zimbabwe and legalize them in the share to private sector players, due to the declining health
country. of their business.
• It is believed that the move was taken by the • The latest data shows that at the end of FY23, the
government to stabilize the local currency after market share of these firms cumulatively declined to
continuous devaluation of the local currency against the 32.37 per cent -- a drop of 803 bps.
US dollar. • Among the four insurers, New India Assurance
• This initiative will allow the exchange of Zimbabwe witnessed a marginal fall in its market share, of just 64
Dollars with digital gold tokens and protect Zimbabweans bps, and maintained its position as the country’s leading
from currency volatility. general insurer. The other three, however, witnessed a
• Zimbabwe’s money trades at 1,001 ZWL against one considerable erosion in their market standing. Kolkata-
dollar and in Harare, it is exchanged for 1,750 ZWL. based National Insurance Company saw the most erosion
• Zimbabwe's annual consumer price inflation in March in market share of over 300 bps, followed by United India
2023 was approximately 87.6%. Insurance (276 bps), and Oriental Insurance (171 bps).
• Hyperinflation has plagued Zimbabwe's economy for • Except for New India Assurance, the state-owned
more than a decade. It devastated the country's currency, general insurance firms suffered huge losses and have
which has weakened sharply against the greenback since seen a depletion in their solvency margin, leaving limited
early 2022. room to focus on growth.
• From 2020, the use of foreign currencies including the • According to FY22 disclosures, Oriental Insurance
US dollar and the Chinese yuan has been allowed to the suffered a net loss of Rs 3,104 crore; United India
government. Insurance’s loss was to the tune of Rs 2,135 crore and
National Insurance Company’s losses mounted to Rs 1,664 country’s Gross Domestic Product on healthcare during
crore. Among the four state-owned insurers, only New the year 2019-20.
India Assurance reported a net profit of Rs 164.27 crore. A. 2.21 %
• Similarly, the solvency ratios of these three loss- B. 1.35 %
making firms are well below the required solvency margin C. 1.75 %
prescribed by the insurance regulator. According to D. 3.25 %
disclosures, Oriental Insurance’s solvency ratio stood at E. 1.50 %
0.15 per cent at the end of FY22; United India had a Answer: B
solvency ratio of 0.51 per cent, and National Insurance’s • The National Health Account Estimates 2019-20 have
was just 0.63 per cent. been released recently. There has been a consistent
• The insurance regulator mandates insurance increase in government spending.
companies to have a solvency ratio of 1.5. • The government spent 1.35% of the country’s Gross
Domestic Product (total value of the final goods and
174. Rewari Gati Shakti Cargo Terminal which is first services in a year indicative of a country’s economy) on
100% private-funded Gati Shakti terminal has been built healthcare during the year, bouncing back from a slight
in _______________. drop seen in 2018-19 as per the report.
A. Punjab • Money spent by people from their own pocket on
B. Haryana healthcare has been going down.
C. Uttarakhand • The share of Out-of-Pocket Expenditure (OOPE) in
D. Odisha total Health Expenditure (THE) declined from 62.6% to
E. Tamil Nadu 47.1%.
Answer: B • In per capita terms, GHE (Government Health
• The Dedicated Freight Corridor Corporation of India Expenditure) has doubled from Rs. 1,108 to Rs. 2,014
(DFCC) commenced operations on the Rewari Gati Shakti between 2014-15 to 2019-20.
Cargo Terminal (GCT) in public-private-partnership (PPP) • A major chunk of the government’s health spend was
mode. in the primary sector.
• This becomes the first operational GCT with complete • Out of the total spending by the government on
investment from a private player and zero revenue- healthcare in FY 2020, 55.9% went to primary care, 29.6%
sharing on account of the Indian Railways. went to secondary care, and 6.4% went to tertiary care.
• The National Health Account (NHA) estimates for
• The Rs 8-crore GCT in Haryana, built solely for India 2019-20 is the seventh consecutive NHA estimates
container traffic, along the edge of Line 10 of the New report prepared by NHSRC, designated as National Health
Rewari station on Western Dedicated Freight Corridor Accounts Technical Secretariat (NHATS) in 2014 by the
(DFC), will be operated by Pristine Mega Logistics Park, Union Health Ministry.
which got the project in a race against state-owned • The NHA estimates are prepared by using an
Container Corporation of India (Concor) and shipping accounting framework based on the internationally
major DP World. accepted standard of System of Health Accounts, 2011,
• The terminal has been made operational within 75 developed by the World Health Organization (WHO).
days of awarding of contract.
• The Gati Shakti Cargo Terminals (GCTs) are being 176. What is the name of the India’s first mobile BSL-3
developed by private players, and can be developed on laboratory?
non-Railway land or fully/partially on Railway land. A. Sampark
B. Rambaan
175. In April as per report Union Ministry of Health & C. Prayag
Family Welfare has launched National Health Accounts D. Kurma
(NHA) Estimates for India for 2019-20. E. Agasthi
As per report government spent _________% of the Answer: B
• India’s first mobile BSL-3 laboratory was displayed at launch ‘TruthGPT’.

the second G20 Health Working Group Meeting in Goa. A. Mark Zukerberg
• The made-in-India mobile clinic RAMBAAN (Rapid B. Elon Musk
Action Mobile BSL3+ Advanced Augmented Network) can C. Jeff Bezos
be used to reach remote regions to carry out testing. D. Sundai Picchai
• The GPS-enabled technology allows the bus to E. Bill Gates
transfer the test report instantly. Answer: B
• G20 countries can collaborate with common concerns. • Billionaire Elon Musk said he will launch an artificial
This bus can be a boon in tackling health situations. It is intelligence (AI) platform that he calls “TruthGPT” to
fully equipped. All chemical waste is treated so there’s no challenge the offerings from Microsoft and Google.
chance of any infection. • TruthGPT will be a truth seeker and will give truthful
• The lab is equipped with a -20 degree and a -80 answers to its users as opposed to the versions of
degree refrigerator, bio-safety cabinets, an automatic ChatGPT. Elon Musk put forward this option after he held
ribonucleic acid (RNA) extractor, and a real-time PCR a meeting with AI (Artificial Intelligence) experts and
machine. discussed the upcoming plans.
• India has two operational mobile laboratories, one at • This TruthGPT will try to acknowledge humans and
RMRC, Gorakhpur, catering to the northeastern part of the nature of the world around them.
the country. The southern and western areas have access • Musk co-founded OpenAI in 2015, but he stepped
to the laboratory at National Institute of Virology (NIV), down from the company’s board in 2018. In 2019, he left
Pune. OpenAI because he had to focus on Tesla and SpaceX.
177. Recently as per report IndusInd Bank is planning to

enter the insurance and mutual fund business. Where is 179. In April as per report ___________ and the National
the headquarter of IndusInd Bank? Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) are planning to set
A. Mumbai up an aggregator platform for eKYC (electronic know-
B. Pune your-customer).
C. Kolkata A. State Bank Of India
D. Thirsur B. Reserve Bank Of India
E. Bengaluru C. Unique Identification Authority of India
Answer: A D. Canara Bank
• IndusInd Bank is planning to move beyond its core E. Punjab National Bank
banking services. Answer: C
• It is also planning to enter into the broking business. • The Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI)
• The bank is likely to approach the Securities and and the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)
Exchange Board of India (SEBI), the Insurance Regulatory are planning to set up an aggregator platform for eKYC
and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) and other (electronic know-your-customer).
regulators to get the necessary licences. • Aadhaar-based eKYC is used for paperless verification
• IndusInd Bank is also planning to launch its own of a customer’s credentials for new mobile connections
digital bank ‘Indie’. and bank accounts.
• The bank is likely to complete the necessary approvals • The platform is expected to go online over the next
for the expansion plans in about 2 years. few months.
• It is headquartered in Mumbai. It was started in 1994.
• Sumant Kathpalia is its MD & CEO. Its tagline is We • The new platform will enable entities that are
make you feel richer. regulated by the RBI, Sebi or the insurance and pension
regulators to register on it.
• Once implemented, the platform is expected to help
178. Recently as per report _____________ announced to several non-banking finance companies (NBFCs) reach out
to consumers to offer loans apart from aiding fintech first general insurance company to accept RBI’s Central
players and insurance intermediaries. Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) e-Rupee (e₹) for premium
• UIDAI is a statutory authority established under the payments.
provisions of the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial A. Reliance General Insurance
and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016. B. Future Generali India Insurance Company
C. Aditya Birla General Insurance Company
180. In April as per report Securities and Exchange Board D. Bajaj Allianz General Insurance Company
of India (Sebi) issued new guidelines on advertisements E. Acko General Insurance Limited
for the registered investment advisers (IAs) and research Answer: A
analysts (RAs) under their respective regulations. • Reliance General Insurance has become the first
According to the guidelines advertisements by Investment general insurance company to accept RBI’s Central Bank
Advisers (IAs) and Research Analysts (RAs) should not Digital Currency (CBDC) e-Rupee (e₹) for premium
contain superlative terms such as__________. payments.
A. Best • The insurer has tied up with YES Bank to facilitate the
B. Number 1 collection of premiums in digital mode using the bank’s e-
C. Top Advisor rupee platform.
D. Leading • Customers who have an active e-rupee wallet with
E. All of the above any bank can scan Reliance General Insurance’s CBDC QR
Answer: E code to make easy, safe, instant, and green payments.
• Markets regulator Sebi came out with an • e-rupee is a digital token, equivalent to a banknote,
advertisement code for investment advisers and research and is legal tender or sovereign currency backed by the
analysts whereby they have been prohibited from issuing RBI. It removes all the issues of handling physical cash and
statements which may mislead investors as well as from offers the same anonymity as a banknote.
using superlative terms in their advertisements. • Moreover, since all transactions are done through an
• They have also been restrained from using complex RBI-regulated entity, it reduces banknote-related risks
language in an advertisement. such as anti-money laundering, the counterfeiting of
• According to the watchdog, advertisements by currency, etc, the company said in a release.
Investment Advisers (IAs) and Research Analysts (RAs) • Currently, Reliance General Insurance’s physical e-
should not contain superlative terms such as "best, No 1, rupee QR code is available at select branches for walk-in
top adviser/research analyst, leading". customers to scan and pay instantly.
• However, factual details of any award received by • It plans to make it available at all branches across the
them can be included. country, on its website, and on the Reliance Self-i app in
• The new code, aimed at further strengthgening the the next few months.
conduct of IAs and RAs, will come into force from May 1.
• Coming out with an exhaustive code, Sebi said that 182. In April as per report Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has
advertisements should not contain statements, which are aligned the Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS) for
false, misleading and based on assumptions, any International Financial Services Centres (IFSCs) set up
statement designed to exploit the lack of experience and under the International Financial Services Centres
knowledge of investors, Authority Act, 2019, with that for other foreign
• The advertisements should not also have any promise jurisdictions.
of assured return to investors, reference of past Under LRS remittance limit LRS allows Indian residents to
performances of IA and RA as well as use of Sebi logo. freely remit up to ________ per financial year for current
• Further, Sebi said that an advertisement issued by an or capital account transactions or a combination of both.
IA or a RA should contain their names, logo, office A. USD $200,000
address, registration numbers. B. USD $150,000
C. USD $50,000
181. In April as per report ___________ has become the D. USD $250,000
E. USD $350,000 • Jupiter is expected to play in longer tenure loans
Answer: D ranging from three to 24 months, with higher ticket sizes
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has aligned the of Rs 75,000 to Rs 1 lakh.
Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS) for International • Jitendra Gupta, founder of Bengaluru-based Amica
Financial Services Centres (IFSCs) set up under the Financial Technologies Ltd.
International Financial Services Centres Authority Act,
2019, with that for other foreign jurisdictions. 184. According to RBI data ___________has topped the
• RBI said resident Individuals may also open a Foreign list of States with highest market borrowings.
Currency Account (FCA) in IFSCs, for making the A. Karnataka
permissible investments under LRS. B. Tamil Nadu
• Thus, the condition of repatriating any funds lying idle C. Uttar Pradesh
in the account for a period up to 15 days from the date of D. Gujarat
its receipt is withdrawn with immediate effect. LRS for E. Maharahstra
IFSCs shall now be governed by the provisions of the
scheme as contained in the Master Direction on LRS. Answer: B
• LRS allows Indian residents to freely remit up to USD • For third year in a row, Tamil Nadu has topped the list
$250,000 per financial year for current or capital account of States with highest market borrowings.
transactions or a combination of both. Any remittance • According to RBI data, Tamil Nadu’s gross market
exceeding this limit requires prior permission from the borrowings through State Development Loans (SDLs)
RBI. stood at ₹68,000 crore during April-February FY23.
• Budget 2023 increased tax collection at source (TCS) • It was followed by Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra
for foreign remittances under LRS from 5% to 20%. with ₹51,860 crore and ₹50,000 crore in gross market
• This new rule will come into effect from July 1, 2023. borrowings, respectively.
• Tamil Nadu stood on top of the borrowing table in the
183. What is the name of the neobank which has secured previous two fiscals too.
a non-banking finance company (NBFC) licence from the • The State borrowed ₹87,977 crore in FY21 and
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in april 2023? ₹87,000 crore FY22. However, it is to be noted that for the
A. Cred full FY23, the State’s borrowings are likely to be slightly
B. Open lower in FY23 compared with the previous two fiscals.
C. Zerodha • However the State’s total debt as a percentage of
D. 5paisa GSDP (Gross State Domestic Product) is well within the
E. Jupiter limit set by Finance Commission.
Answer: E • However, not all States were able to clamp down on
• Neobanking startup Jupiter has secured a non- their borrowings. Borrowings of Andhra Pradesh, Haryana
banking finance company (NBFC) licence from the Reserve and Gujarat in the first eleven months of FY23 already
Bank of India (RBI), a development that will help it dole exceeded the full year’s borrowings in FY22.
out credit from its books. • According to RBI’s indicative borrowing calendar, 22
• Sequoia and Tiger Global backed-Jupiter intends to States and two Union Territories projected a market
capitalise the lending business with around Rs 100 crore borrowing of ₹1.99-lakh crore during April-June 2023.
and raise an additional Rs 100 crore in debt to fund the • States like Arunachal Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand,
NBFC’s credit operations. Karnataka, Manipur and Odisha have not indicated their
• The NBFC will be housed under Amica Finance, a participation in Q1FY24 borrowing auction.
separate entity.
• The NBFC licence will help the four-year-old fintech’s 185. Recently as per report Reserve Bank of India revised
revenue pipe and increase margins in lending. Further, it guidelines on Statutory Branch Audit of Public Sector
will be able to directly serve customers instead of working Banks.
as just a loan-service provider (LSP). As per new guidelines for FY 2022-23, statutory branch
audit of PSBs shall be carried out so as to cover a more autonomy to insurance companies to decide on the
minimum of ________% of all funded credit exposures of amount of commissions they want to shell out.
the bank. • Come April 1, the segmental limits on commissions
A. 60 % will be removed and the fees paid to intermediaries, such
B. 70 % as individual agents, corporate agents, etc., will be based
C. 80 % on the expense of management (EoM) limit.
D. 90 % • The limit has been specified under the Insurance
E. 50 % Regulatory and Development Authority of India (Expenses
Answer: B of Management of Insurers transacting Life insurance
• Reserve Bank of India has left it to the banks to decide business) Regulations, 2023 as amended from time to
the percentage of their branch business they want to get time.
audited from FY24. Auditors say this would severely • According to the central government’s gazette
impact their ability to properly assess the situation and notification, the total amount of commission payable
highlight the risks. under life insurance products, including health insurance
• For the current financial year, the RBI has drastically products offered by life insurers, should not exceed the
reduced the percentage of business of the branches that EoM limits.
can be audited. • The central government ratified the Insurance
• A recent circular from the RBI declared that the Regulatory and Development Authority of India (Expenses
statutory branch audit of the PSBs should be carried out of Management of Insurers transacting General or Health
to cover a minimum of 70 percent of the funded and non- Insurance business) Regulations, 2023.
funded business for FY23 and from FY24 they can decide • Accordingly, insurers carrying on general insurance
the percentage of business coverage they want audited. business can incur EoM, which is equivalent to 30 per cent
• Earlier, the audit coverage of any PSB branch was 90 of the gross written premium (GWP) in a financial year.
percent. For standalone health insurers, the limit has been set at
• The RBI has also specified that the PSB board can 35 per cent of GWP. This is in line with the draft circular
decide on selection of branches for audit purposes, which the regulator had floated a few months back.
would effectively mean that all branches will not be
covered under the audit. 187. Recently as per report which of the following country
• There are a total of 84,000 bank branches in India and has become the largest recipient of ADB loans in Asia?
RBI has said that each auditor can cover only 2 branches. A. India
B. Sri Lanka
186. Recently central government has cleared the C. Bangladesh
insurance regulator’s new regulations on payments of D. Pakistan
commissions for intermediaries. E. China
As per regulations insurers carrying on general insurance Answer: D
business can incur EoM to _____________ per cent of the • In 2022, Pakistan became the largest recipient of the
gross written premium (GWP) in a financial year. Asian Development Bank (ADB)-funded
A. 25 % programmes/projects.
B. 30 % • According to the ADB Annual Report 2022, Pakistan
C. 45 % received loans of USD 5.58 billion out of total loans of USD
D. 50 % 31.8 billion to 40 countries.
E. 20 % • Pakistan is facing a deep economic crisis and it
Answer: B received concessional funding of USD 2.67 billion from the
• The central government has cleared the insurance bank.
regulator’s new regulations on payments of commissions • The report has highlighted that Pakistan was also hit
for intermediaries, thus paving the way for providing by devastating floods that killed more than 1,700 people.
It has further worsened the economic situation.
• Afghanistan and Pakistan were severely impacted by • Bank tellers, cashiers and data entry clerks jobs are
rising food and energy prices. expected to decline the fastest.
• Drought and flash floods has increased food insecurity • As per the report, green transition, ESG standards and
in Afghanistan. It has increased the prices of staple items. localisation of supply chains will be the leading drivers of
• As per the report, ADB responded timely to emerging job growth.
and ongoing crises in the Asia and Pacific region. • It recommends that Governments and businesses
• Pakistan was one of the founding members of the should invest in the shift of jobs through education and
Asian Development Bank (ADB) in 1966. reskilling.
• ADB has provided loans to India to improve urban • Before 2027, around Six in 10 workers will require
transport. training but currently only half of employees have access
• Asian Development Bank is a regional development to adequate training opportunities.
bank established in 1966. Its headquarters is located in
Manila, Philippines. 189. In April as per report _________ buys First Republic
Bank as third major US bank fails in two months.
188. In April as per report World Economic Forum (WEF) A. J.P. Morgan Chase & Co
has released the Future of Jobs Report 2023. B. Bank of America
As per report ___________million Jobs will vanish by C. CitiGroup
2027. D. HSBC
A. 95 million E. CapitalOne
B. 83 million Answer: A
C. 87 million • United States regulators said First Republic Bank has
D. 91 million been seized and a deal agreed to sell the bank to
E. 75 million JPMorgan Chase & Co, in what is the third major U.S.
Answer: B institution to fail in two months.
• The World Economic Forum (WEF) has released the • The banking giant will take $173 billion of loans and
Future of Jobs Report 2023. about $30 billion of securities of First Republic Bank,
• In the report, data related to jobs in the next five including $92 billion of deposits.
years has been presented worldwide. • The California Department of Financial Protection and
• As per the report, around a quarter of jobs known will Innovation announced It had taken possession of First
get wiped out by 2027. Republic and the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation
• It shows that new 69 million jobs will be created by (FDIC) would act as its receiver.
2027 while 83 million will get eliminated. 14 million jobs • The rescue comes less than two months after Silicon
will get lost during this period. Valley Bank and Signature Bank failed amid a deposit
• This report is based on a survey conducted across 45 flight from U.S. lenders, forcing the Federal Reserve to
countries on 803 companies. step in with emergency measures to stabilize markets.
• 673 existing jobs in the companies have been Those failures came after crypto-focused Silvergate
considered for the study. voluntarily liquidated.
• The report suggests that the fastest-growing jobs will • The failed bank's 84 offices in eight states will reopen
be available for AI and machine learning specialists, as branches of JPMorgan Chase Bank.
sustainability specialists, business intelligence analysts • JPMorgan Chase & Co. is an American multinational
and information security specialists. financial services company headquartered in New York
• The job growth will be witnessed in the field of City and incorporated in Delaware. It is the largest bank in
education, agriculture and digital commerce. the United States and the world's largest bank by market
• Big data specialists, AI machine learning specialists capitalization.
and cybersecurity professionals are expected to grow on
average by 30% by 2027. 190. Recently as per report Elon Musk replaced the
historical Blue Bird logo of Web Twitter with a _________.
A. Willy Wonka • The current situation index rose by 2.2 points to 87 on
B. Pepe the Frog account of improved perceptions of the general economic
C. Shiba Inu Doge situation, employment, and household income.
D. Scumbag Steve • The overall outlook by households remained positive
E. Grumpy Cat despite some lower optimism in the previous edition.
Answer: C • The survey obtains current perceptions (vis-a-vis a
• On April 04, 2023 Elon Musk suddenly replaced the year ago) and one-year-ahead expectations on the
historical Blue Bird logo of Web Twitter with a Shiba Inu general economic situation, employment scenario, overall
Doge meme. price situation, and income and spending across 19 major
• It can be seen that earlier when a user suggested Mr cities of India.
Musk buy Twitter and change its logo, he took it seriously
and made big changes since then. 192. Recently Reserve Bank of India came out with
• As per the official reports, this 'Doge' meme dates detailed norms for outsourcing of IT services by banks,
back to an old Japanese resemblance also related to NBFCs and regulated financial sector entities to ensure
Cryptocurrency. that such arrangements do not undermine their
• The Twitter logo change is the latest upgradation responsibilities and obligations to customers.
brought up by CEO Elon Musk. It is one of the biggest As per report the norms will come into effect from
steps since he acquired the microblogging platform for a __________.
$44 billion deal made in November 2022. A. 1 June 2023
• This Doge meme originated from Dogecoin Blockchain B. 1 December 2023
and Cryptocurrency which was first created sarcastically C. 1 September 2023
in the year 2013. It became famous since then and it is D. 1 November 2023
originally a picture of Kabosu also known as the Shiba Inu E. 1 October 2023
dog with several multicoloured texts in the forefront of Answer: E
the picture. • Reserve Bank of India came out with detailed norms
• Dogecoin, a kind of cryptocurrency was designed by for outsourcing of IT services by banks, NBFCs and
two software engineers namely Billy Markus and Jackson regulated financial sector entities to ensure that such
Palmer. This experiment was to bring a payment arrangements do not undermine their responsibilities and
alternate system as merely a joke. Also, it is the first obligations to customers.
meme coin and is regarded as the first dog coin. • In its ‘Master Direction on Outsourcing of Information
Technology Services’, RBI said that Regulated Entities
191. As per RBI recently released bi-monthly consumer (REs) have been extensively leveraging IT and IT-enabled
confidence survey index rose by 2.2 points to __________ Services (ITeS) to support their business models, products
on account of improved perceptions of the general and services offered to their customers.
economic situation, employment, and household income. • n February last year, the central bank proposed the
A. 87 issuance of suitable regulatory guidelines on outsourcing
B. 75 of IT services with an aim to ensure effective management
C. 91 of attendant risks. Later, draft norms were issued.
D. 97 • According to RBI, the underlying principle of the
E. 68 directions is to ensure that outsourcing arrangements
Answer: A neither diminish REs’ ability to fulfil its obligations to
• In the recently released bi-monthly consumer customers nor impede effective supervision by the central
confidence survey, the RBI reveals increasing optimism bank.
around the overall macroeconomic conditions prevailing • With a view to provide REs adequate time to comply
in the economy. with the requirements, the norms will come into effect
from October 1, 2023.
• A RE shall take steps to ensure that the service • In a recent high-level Internal Governmental
provider employs the same high standard of care in Commission meeting (IRIGC-TEC), it was agreed to explore
performing the services as would have been employed by the opportunity of allowing acceptance of these cards.
the RE, if the same activity was not outsourced, the • The mutual acceptance of RuPay (India) and Mir cards
central bank said. (Russia) will help Indian and Russian citizens to make
• According to the central bank, a RE should not engage hassle-free payments in Indian rupees and Russian ruble
an IT service provider that would result in reputation of RE in their respective countries.
being compromised or weakened. • Besides, it was also agreed to look at adopting the
Russian financial messaging system, Services Bureau of
193. Recently seen in news Angry Birds game is backed by Financial Messaging System of the Bank of Russia, for
which of the following company? cross border payments.
A. Rovio Entertainment • Currently, overseas payments from India and vice
B. Tencent Holdings Limited versa are through the SWIFT network.
C. Sony Corporation • Recently, Prime Minister Narendra Modi and
D. Unity Software Singapore Prime Minister Lee Hsien Loong launched the
E. Epic Games cross-border connectivity between UPI and PayNow.
Answer: A • Linkage of India's Unified Payments Interface (UPI)
• Japan’s Sega Sammy Holdings Inc said on Monday it and Singapore's PayNow now allows people in the two
planned to acquire Finland’s Rovio Entertainment Oyj for countries to undertake faster and cost-efficient digital
706 million euros ($776 million) to spur its growth in the transfers.
fast-expanding global mobile gaming market. • The PayNow-UPI linkage is the world's first real-time
• Sega Sammy will offer 9.25 euros for each share of payment systems linkage to use a scalable cloud-based
the company behind the mobile game Angry Birds, a 19% infrastructure that can accommodate future increases in
premium over Friday’s closing price, in its tender offer bid the volume of remittance traffic.
set to be launched around May 8. • To begin with, the State Bank of India, Indian
• Acquiring Rovio will likely make it easier for Sega Overseas Bank, Indian Bank and ICICI Bank will facilitate
Sammy to expand in mobile gaming. both inward and outward remittances while Axis Bank
• Launched in 2009, Angry Birds quickly became a and DBS India will facilitate inward remittances.
global phenomenon. But the franchise started to lose • The UPI was launched in 2016, and since then it has
momentum by 2014. The popular game also set a world emerged as the most popular and preferred payment
record by becoming the first mobile game to be mode pioneering person-to-person and person-to-
downloaded 1 billion times. merchant transactions, accounting for 75 per cent of the
total digital payments.
194. Recently seen in news Mir cards is associated with • National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) was
which of the following country?
incorporated in 2008 as an umbrella organisation for
A. Russia operating retail payments and settlement systems in
B. Japan India.
C. France
D. Germany 195. Recently Appointments Committee of the Cabinet
E. UK (ACC) has approved the appointment of Siddhartha
Answer: A Mohanty, interim LIC Chairman, as regular Chairperson of
• India and Russia will explore the possibility of the state-controlled Life Insurance Corporation of India
accepting RuPay and Mir cards in each other’s country for (LIC) till __________.
hassle-free payments amid sanctions imposed by the A. 29th November, 2024.
West on Moscow. B. 29th Janaury, 2024.
C. 29th December, 2024.
D. 29th August, 2024.
E. 29th June, 2024. • Stella Rimington became the first woman to lead MI5
Answer: E in 1992 and was said to have inspired the casting of Judi
• The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) Dench in the role of "M", head of Britain's foreign
has approved the appointment of Siddhartha Mohanty, intelligence service known as MI6, in the James Bond
interim LIC Chairman, as regular Chairperson of the state- movies a couple of years later.
controlled Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) till
June 29, 2024. 197. In April as per report British government has
• Post this date, Mohanty will serve as Chief Executive appointed ________ as new Deputy Prime Minister.
Officer and Managing Director of insurance behemoth till A. Oliver Dowden
June 7, 2025, which is the date of his attaining the age of B. Eric Grafetti
62 years or until further orders, whichever is earlier, C. Dominic Raab
• The ACC has also approved the ex post facto D. Alex Chalk
entrustment of financial and administrative powers and E. Nick Clegg
functions of LIC Chairperson to Siddhartha Mohanty, Answer: A
Managing Director of LIC, in addition to his own duties for • Oliver Dowden, the UK Secretary of State in the
a period of three months with effect from March 14 this Cabinet Office, has been appointed as the country’s new
year or till regular Chairperson is appointed, whichever is Deputy Prime Minister.
earlier. • The decision came after the resignation of the former
• Mohanty began his career as a direct recruit officer UK Deputy Prime Minister Dominic Raab .
with the LIC in 1985 and has since held various senior • Raab resigned from the office of Deputy PM and the
positions within the insurance behemoth, gradually rising justice secretary following bullying allegations.
through the ranks. • Also, UK PM Rishi Sunak's office appointed Alex
• Mohanty had in mid March replaced MR Kumar as Chalk, who is serving as the Minister of State at Ministry
interim chairperson of LIC for a three-month period. of Defense, the new Secretary of State for Justice.
196. In April as per report __________ become first 198. In April as per report Kaur Singh passed away at the
woman to head the U.K.'s communications intelligence age of 74. He was a renowned _________.
agency. A. Boxer
A. Anne Keast-Butler B. Singer
B. Barbara Windsor C. Cricketer
C. Naomi Watts D. Writer
D. Kiera Knightly E. Actor
E. Cheryl Cole Answer:
Answer: A • Boxing champion Kaur Singh passed away at the age
• Britain named Anne Keast-Butler as the first female of 74 after multiple health problems.
director of its intelligence communications agency GCHQ, • He had won six gold medals in international
tasked with protecting the country from terrorists, cyber- competitions including medal in Asian Games in 1982.
criminals and malign foreign powers. • He is a recipient of many awards including the Arjuna
• She will take over the role in May, succeeding Jeremy Award in 1982 and Padma Shri in 1983. He won the
Fleming who is stepping down after a six-year tenure. Vishisht Seva Medal in 1988.
• She is currently deputy director general at Britain's • He represented India in the Los Angeles Olympics in
domestic intelligence agency, known as MI5. 1984
• GCHQ is Britain's main eavesdropping agency and has • He also took part in an exhibition match with the
a close relationship with the U.S. National Security Agency legendary Muhammad Ali in 1980.
as well as with counterparts in Canada, Australia and
New Zealand in a consortium called "Five Eyes". 199. World Book Day is observed on ____________ to
• highlight the importance of reading books.
A. 21st April won the 2023 TCS London Marathon.
B. 28th April A. Denmark
C. 23rd April B. Netherland
D. 25th April C. Jamaica
E. 27th April D. England
Answer: C E. Kenya
• World Book and Copyright Day 2023 also known as Answer: B
World Book Day. It is celebrated every year on April 23 to • Sifan Hassan won her debut marathon on 23rd April
highlight the importance of reading books. 2023.
• The World Book Capital for the year 2023 is in Accra, • She won the women’s title on debut. She is a Dutch
Ghana. middle-distance athlete.
• The day is celebrated by UNESCO and other related • She won the 2023 TCS London Marathon. She finished
organisations across the world to honour authors, and three seconds ahead of second-placed Alemu Megertu of
books, promote the art of reading, etc. Ethiopia. Kenya’s Jepchirchir finished third.
• UNESCO has selected 23rd April as World Book Day to • Hassan has won Olympic gold in the 5,000 and 10,000
pay tribute to great literary figures including William metres.
Shakespeare, Miguel Cervantes, and Inca Garcilaso de la • Kenya’s Kelvin Kiptum won the men’s title with record
Vega who died on this day. time.
• World Book Day 2023 theme is “Indigenous • Kelvin Kiptum finished nearly three minutes ahead of
Languages”. This theme highlights the rich cultural second-placed Geoffrey Kamworor.
heritage and the importance of native languages in • Kiptum ran the fastest-ever debut marathon in
literature and storytelling. Valencia last year.
200. Which of the following city has observed a unique 202. Recently as per report _______________has become
celestial event called ‘Zero Shadow Day’ on 25th April? the first Indian to complete the prestigious Golden Globe
A. Hyderabad Race.
B. Lucknow A. Sifan Hasan
C. Mirzapur B. Ritu Goswami
D. Bengaluru C. Irfan Khan
E. Pune D. Abhilash Tomy
Answer: D E. Abhishek Rathee
• Bengaluru observed a unique celestial event called Answer: D
‘Zero Shadow Day’ on 25th April. • Retired Indian Navy officer Commander Abhilash
• It happens because Earth’s rotation axis is tilted at an Tomy has become the first Indian to complete the
angle of roughly 23.5° to the axis of revolution around the prestigious Golden Globe Race.
Sun. • He finished second in the race which is a solo round-
• At Every point on Earth between the Tropic of Cancer the-world sailing race. He completed this race on April 29.
and the Tropic of Capricorn, there are two Zero Shadow • Kirsten Neuschaefer of South Africa was at number
Days a year. one. Kirsten crossed the finish line at Les Sables d'Olonne
• This phenomenon occurs when the Sun's declination in France on 27 April 2023. She became the first woman to
becomes equal to the latitude of the location. While this win a solo world sailing race.
happens only for a second, its effect can be seen for up to • 16 participants were involved in this race and which
two minutes. was started on September 4, 2022, from Les Sables-
• In 2021, Odisha's Bhubaneswar had witnessed a Zero d'Olonne in France.
Shadow Day. • Abhilash had earlier participated in the Golden Globe
Race in 2018.
201. In April as per report Sifan Hassan of __________
• The Golden Globe Race is known as the world's most • Twelve books written by Goa Governor P S
dangerous and exciting sailing race. Sreedharan Pillai, in English and Malayalam, are being
released in Delhi, Goa and Kerala in April and May.
203. In April as per report Ding Liren of China defeated Ian • With the release of these books, the Governor will
Nepomniachtchi of __________ to won the FIDE World have authored 200 books in over five decades of public
Championship 2023. life.
A. Russia • The books will be exhibited at specific centres after
B. Japan the release. The celebrations of completing 50 years of
C. USA amazing writing will be done in Kozhikode.
D. France • Goa Chief Minister Pramod Sawant will release two of
E. Germany these books in Kozhikode on April 28 and on May 2,
Answer: A Kerala Chief Minister Pinarayi Vijayan will release one of
• Grandmaster Ding Liren of China is the new world the books in Thiruvananthapuram.
champion after beating Russian grandmaster Ian
Nepomniachtchi in the final rapid tiebreak game of FIDE 205. Consider the following match the column regaring
World Championship 2023. Filmfare Awards 2023. Which of the following is matched
• Ding won the rapid chess playoff by 2.5 points to 1.5, incorrectly?
capitalizing on Nepomniachtchi's mistakes in time trouble A. Best Film - Gangubai Kathiawadi
in thefinal rapid clash, following a 7-7 tie after 14 thrilling B. Best Actor (leading role male) - Rajkummar Rao for
classical games. Badhaai Do
• Now China holds both the men's and women's world C. Best Actor (leading role female) - Alia Bhatt for
titles as Ju Wenjun, the current women's champion, is set Gangubai Kathiawadi
to defend her title against compatriot Lei Tingjie in July. D. Best Director - S. S. Rajamouli for RRR
• Grandmaster Ding takes the crown from five-time E. Best Film Critics - Badhaai Do
world champion Magnus Carlsen who defeated Answer: D
Nepomniachtchi in 2021 but announced in July he would • Gangubai Kathiawadi and Badhaai Do were among
not defend the title again this year. the big winners at the Filmfare Awards 2023.
• Carlsen had held the World Chess Championship title • On 28 April, the 68th Hyundai Filmfare Awards was
since 2013 and will remain the world's top-rated player. held at Jio Convention Centre, BKC, Mumbai.
Ding ranks third in the FIDE rating list behind • Gangubai Kathiawadi won 10 trophies including some
Nepomniachtchi. of the biggest awards.
• The International Chess Federation or World Chess • This 68th edition of the exciting Hyundai Filmfare
Federation, commonly referred to by its French acronym Awards is being organised with Maharashtra Tourism.
FIDE, is an international organization based in Lausanne, • Alia Bhatt was honoured with Best Actress Award for
Switzerland. President: Arkady Dvorkovich. her crime-drama film ‘Gangubai Kathiawadi’.
• Best Actor in a Leading Role (Male): Rajkummar Rao
204. In April as per report which state governer has for Badhaai Do
released 12 books authored by him in English and • Best Actor in a Leading Role (Female): Alia Bhatt for
Malayalam? Gangubai Kathiawadi
A. Goa • Best Actor (Critics'): Sanjay Mishra for Vadh
B. Kerala • Best Actress (Critics'): Bhumi Pednekar for Badhaai Do
C. Tamil Nadu and Tabu for Bhool Bhulaiyaa 2
D. Karnataka • Best Film: Gangubai Kathiawadi
E. Odisha • Best Film (Critics'): Badhaai Do
Answer: A
• Best Director: Sanjay Leela Bhansali for Gangubai
Kathiawadi.
206. In April as per report Satwiksairaj Rankireddy and • On 24 April, new data on global military spending has
Chirag Shetty achieved a historic milestone by becoming been published by the Stockholm International Peace
the first Indian men's doubles pair to win a gold medal at Research Institute (SIPRI).
the Badminton Asia Championships by defeating Ong Yew • Total global military spending in 2022 increase by 3.7%
Sin and Teo Ee Yi of ____________ in the final in Dubai. in real terms to a new high of $2240 billion and spending
A. Japan grew for the eighth consecutive year in 2022.
B. Malaysia • In the last 30 years, Military spending in Europe saw
C. China the fastest year-on-year increase.
D. Singapore • The United States, China and Russia were the three
E. England biggest spenders in 2022, accounting for 56% of the
Answer: B world's total spending.
• On 30 April, Satwiksairaj Rankireddy and Chirag • In 2022, Military expenditure by states in Central and
Shetty achieved a historic milestone by becoming the first Western Europe totalled $345 billion in 2022.
Indian men's doubles pair to win a gold medal at the • In real terms, spending by these states surpassed 1989
Badminton Asia Championships. spending for the first time since the Cold War was coming
• The Indian duo beat the eighth-seeded Malaysian pair to an end, and was 30% higher than in 2013.
of Ong Yew Sin and Teo Ee Yi in the final in Dubai. • Following Russia's invasion of Ukraine in February
• In 2022, the sixth seeded pair had also won a gold 2022, several countries drastically increased their military
medal at the Commonwealth Games and a bronze medal spending, while others announced plans to increase
at the World Championships. spending levels over a period of up to a decade.
• In this tournament, the previous best performance • Some of the fastest increases were seen in Finland
was a bronze medal win in 1971 by an Indian men's (+36%), Lithuania (+27%), Sweden (+12%) and Poland
doubles pair, Dipu Ghosh and Raman Ghosh. (+11%).
• Overall, this is India's second gold medal in this event. • In 2022, Russian military spending increased by an
• In 1965, Dinesh Khanna had won the men’s singles estimated 9.2% to about $86.4 billion.
gold in Lucknow after beating Thailand’s Sangob • This was equivalent to 4.1% of Russia's gross domestic
Rattanusorn. product (GDP) in 2022, up from 3.7% of GDP in 2021.
• The Championship is a tournament organized by the • In 2022, Ukraine's military spending reached $44.0
governing body Badminton Asia to choose the best billion, an increase of 640%.
badminton players in Asia. • This was the highest one-year increase in the country's
• In 1962, the tournament was started. military spending ever recorded in SIPRI data.
• The 2023 Championships was held from 25 to 30 April • In 2022, US military spending reached $877 billion,
2023 in Dubai, United Arab Emirates. accounting for 39% of total global military spending and
• The 2023 championships was the 40th edition of the more than three times the amount spent by China, the
Badminton Asia Championships. world's second-biggest spender.
• In 2022, US financial military aid to Ukraine totaled
207. According to new data by the Stockholm $19.9 billion, accounting for only 2.3% of total US military
International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI) global spending.
military spending in 2022 increase by 3.7% in real terms to • India's military expenditure of $81.4 billion was the
a new high of _________billion. fourth highest in the world. This was 6.0% more than in
A. $2568 billion 2021.
B. $3458 billion
• In 2022, military spending by Saudi Arabia, the fifth
C. $1589 billion biggest military spender, rose by 16 % to reach an
D. $2478 billion
estimated $75.0 billion, its first increase since 2018.
E. $2240 billion
• In 2022, Military spending by NATO members totalled
Answer: E $1232 billion, which was 0.9% higher than in 2021.
• The United Kingdom had the highest military • It is a state-of-the-art stealth frigate of the Indian
expenditure in Central and Western Europe at $68.5 Navy equipped with a versatile range of weapons.
billion, of which an estimated $2.5 billion (3.6%) was • Tarkash belongs to the Talwar class of guided missile
financial military aid to Ukraine. frigates. These are modified Krivak III class frigates built
by Russia.
208. What is the name of the first female pilot of the • It was built by the Yantar shipyard in Kaliningrad,
Indian Air Force to fly the Rafale combat aircraft? Russia.
A. Shivani Singh • It was commissioned into Indian Navy service on 9
B. Avni Chaturvedi November 2012 at Kaliningrad and joined the Western
C. Geeta Rana Naval Command on 27 December 2012.
D. Surekha Yadav
E. Sima Rai 210. Consider the following statement regarding ASEAN-
Answer: A India maritime exercise (AIME-2023). Which of the
• Shivangi Singh, the first female pilot of the Indian Air following statement is correct?
Force to fly the Rafale combat aircraft, is participating in A. AIME-2023 is the first time India has been involved in
the multinational Exercise Orion in France along with the exercises with the ASEAN .
IAF contingent. B. With AIME-2023, India becomes the 4th ASEAN
• Earlier this year, Squadron Leader Avni Chaturvedi dialogue partner, after Russia, China and the US, to hold
became the first woman fighter pilot to participate in an the ASEAN+1 maritime exercise.
international exercise when she went to Japan for the C. The maiden exercise will be conducted off the coast of
Dharma Guardian exercise. Singapore and will feature harbour and at-sea events off
• This is also the first time India has sent Rafale aircraft the coast of Singapore.
outside the country. D. INS Delhi, an indigenously built destroyer, and INS
• Commissioned in the IAF's second batch of women Satpura, a Shivalik-class, recently built modern stealth
fighter pilots in 2017, Shivangi Singh flew MiG-21 Bison frigate-- are part of the exercise.
aircraft before flying the Rafale. E. All of the above are correct
• Shivangi Singh's selection as a Rafale pilot followed a Answer: E
rigorous selection process, and she became the first • India recently sent two frontline warships to take part
woman fighter pilot to fly the Rafale in 2020. She hails in the first-ever ASEAN-India maritime exercise (AIME-
from Varanasi and is part of the IAF's Golden Arrows 2023).
squadron based in Ambala, Punjab. • AIME-2023 is the first time India has been involved in
exercises with the ASEAN though there have been
exercises with ASEAN nations separately.
209. In April as per report INS Tarkash from the Indian
• With AIME-2023, India becomes the 4th ASEAN
Navy reached Port Sudan to help in the evacuation of
stranded Indians as part of “Operation Kaveri”. dialogue partner, after Russia, China and the US, to hold
Which among the following best describes INS Tarkash? the ASEAN+1 maritime exercise.
A. It is a torpedo launch and recovery vessel • The maiden exercise will be conducted off the coast of
B. It is a diesel-electric submarine Singapore and will feature harbour and at-sea events off
C. It is a Talwar-class stealth frigate the coast of Singapore.
D. It is an offshore patrol vehicle • Two major Indian Navy warships-- the INS Delhi, an
E. All of the above indigenously built destroyer, and INS Satpura, a Shivalik-
Answer: C class, recently built modern stealth frigate-- are part of
• INS Tarkash from the Indian Navy recently reached the exercise.
Port Sudan to help in the evacuation of stranded Indians • Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) is a
as part of “Operation Kaveri”. regional intergovernmental organizationcomprising ten
Southeast Asian countries.
• It was established in 1967 with the signing of the E. Defence Research and Development Organisation
Bangkok declaration. Answer: D
• Members: Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore, • After a flight test of its new reusable Starship rocket
Thailand, Brunei, Laos, Myanmar, Cambodia and ended with the craft exploding into smoke and flames on
Vietnam. (April 20), the excited and celebratory reactions of the
commercial spacecraft manufacturing company SpaceX’s
employees seemed confusing.
211. In April as per report first Batch of five Women
• The test was the first for the spacecraft manufacturer’s
Officers has been commissioned into the Regiment of
Starship spacecraft (the carrier) and Super Heavy rocket
Artillery of the Indian Army. Which of the following is not
(the booster), collectively referred to as Starship.
one of them?
• Starship rocket is the world's most powerful rocket
A. Lt Mehak Saini
ever built.
B. Lt Sakshi Dubey
• The project comprises a rocket called Super Heavy
C. Lt Aditi Yadav
Rocket and a spacecraft attached to its top called the
D. Lt Pious Mudgil
Starship.
E. Lt Shruti Sharma
• Both systems are called Starship.
Answer: E
• For the first time, the Indian Army has inducted five • Starship is around 120 meters in height, with Super
women officers into its Regiment of Artillery. Heavy being 69 m tall and Starship being 50 m tall.
Starship represent a fully reusable transportation system
• Out of five, three women officers have been posted to
frontline formations along the Line of Actual Control (LAC) designed to carry both crew and cargo to Earth orbit, the
Moon, Mars, and beyond.
with China.
• Lt Mehak Saini, Lt Sakshi Dubey, Lt Aditi Yadav, Lt
Pious Mudgil and Lt Akanksha have joined the Army's May
artillery units after completing their training. 213. Recently as per report India’s first undersea twin
• Lt Saini has been commissioned into a SATA regiment tunnels in south Mumbai will soon be opened.
while Lt Dubey and Lt Yadav commissioned into field What is the total length of the tunnel?
regiments. A. 3.01 Km
• Lt Mudgil has been inducted into a medium regiment B. 3.56 Km
and Lt Akanksha has been inducted into a rocket C. 2.07 Km
regiment. D. 2.91 Km
• Out of the total of 186 Short Service Commissioned E. 4.25 Km
Officers, 121 men Cadets and 36 Women Cadets were Answer: C
inducted into various Arms and Services of the Indian • India’s first undersea twin tunnels in south Mumbai
Army. will soon be opened.
• The Regiment of Artillery has around 280 units. It • It is a 2.07-kilometer-long tunnel being built in
handles Bofors howitzers, Dhanush, M-777 howitzers and Mumbai, Maharashtra.
K-9 Vajra self-propelled guns. • The 2.07-km tunnels are a part of the Rs 12,721-crore
• In 2019, the Army began the process of inducting Mumbai Coastal Road Project (MCRP) being built by the
women into the military police. Brihanmumbai Municipal Corporation (BMC).
• The 10.58-kilometre Mumbai Coastal Road Project
(MCRP) connects Marine Drive to the Bandra-Worli Sea
212. Recently seen in news Starship Project is related to Link and during peak hours.
which of the following agency?4
• The project is expected to reduce the 45-minute
A. European Space Agency
commute from Girgaon to Worli to just 10 minutes.
B. National Aeronautics and Space Administration
• The project also highlights the usage of India’s
C. Indian Space Research Organisation
largest-ever tunnel boring machine (TBM) called Mavala.
D. SpaceX
This machine weighs over 1,700 tonnes and stands about • Eligibility: Persons in the age group of 18-70 years
12 meters tall. having an individual bank or a post office account are
entitled to enroll under the scheme.
214. Consider the following statement regarding • Benefits: Accidental death cum disability cover of Rs.2
Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana.Which of the lakh (Rs.1 lakh in case of partial disability) for death or
following statement is correct? disability due to an accident against a premium of
A. The Scheme completed 8 years of providing social Rs.20/- per annum.
security cover on 9 May,2023. • Achievements: As on 26.04.2023, the cumulative
B. It Provides life cover of Rs 2 lakhs in case of death of enrolments under the scheme have been more than
the insured, due to any reason. 34.18 crore and an amount of Rs. 2,302.26 crore has
C. Annual premium amount for this scheme is Rs. 436/- been paid for 1,15,951 claims.
per annum. Atal Pension Yojana (APY)
D. Only 1 and 3 • Background: The Atal Pension Yojana (APY) was
E. All of the above are correct launched to create a universal social security system for
Answer: E all Indians, especially the poor, the under-privileged and
• Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY), the workers in the unorganised sector. It is an initiative
Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) and Atal of the Government to provide financial security and
Pension Yojana (APY) completed 8 years of providing cover future exigencies for the people in the unorganised
social security cover. sector. APY is administered by Pension Fund Regulatory
• PMJJBY, PMSBY and APY were launched by Prime and Development Authority (PFRDA) under the overall
Minister Shri Narendra Modi on 9th May, 2015 from administrative and institutional architecture of the
Kolkata, West Bengal. National Pension System (NPS).
• The three schemes are dedicated to the welfare of the • Eligibility: APY is open to all bank account holders in
citizens, recognising the need for securing human life the age group of 18 to 40 years who are not income tax
from unforeseen eventualisation and financial payers and the contributions differ, based on pension
uncertainties. amount chosen.
Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY) • Benefits: Subscribers would receive the guaranteed
• Scheme: PMJJBY is a one-year life insurance scheme minimum monthly pension of Rs. 1000 or Rs. 2000 or Rs.
renewable from year to year offering coverage for death 3000 or Rs. 4000 or Rs. 5000 after the age of 60 years,
due to any reason. based on the contributions made by the subscriber after
• Eligibility: Persons in the age group of 18-50 years joining the scheme.
having an individual bank or a post office account are • Payment frequency: Subscribers can make
entitled to enroll under the scheme. People who join the contributions to APY on monthly/ quarterly / half-yearly
scheme before completing 50 years of age can continue basis.
to have the risk of life covered up to age of 55 years upon • Achievements: As on 27.04.2023 more than 5 crore
payment of regular premium. individuals have subscribed to the scheme.
• Benefits: Life cover of Rs. 2 Lakh in case of death due
to any reason against a premium of Rs. 436/- per annum. 215. In May as per report _____________has become
• Achievements: As on 26.04.2023, the cumulative first state, which has launched its own institutional
enrolments under the scheme have been more than ranking framework.
16.19 crore and an amount of Rs. 13,290.40 crore has A. Madhya Pradesh
been paid for 6,64,520 claims. B. Karnataka
Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) C. Kerala
• Scheme: PMSBY is a one-year accidental insurance D. Uttar Pradesh
scheme renewable from year to year offering coverage E. Tamil Nadu
for death or disability due to accident. Answer: C
• Kerala has become first state, which has launched its • DST ranked Karnataka, followed by Telangana, Tamil
own institutional ranking framework. Nadu, Maharashtra, and Haryana as high innovation
• Kerala Institutional Ranking Framework (KIRF) has states. Uttarakhand has the highest score among the hill
been launched by the Kerala State Higher Education states, while Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and
Council (KSHEC). The rankings will be issued annually. Diu has the highest score among the UTs.
• KIRF is based on the lines of the National Institute of • According to the report, which has carried out its
Ranking Framework (NIRF). survey across over 8,000 firms in 28 states and 6 Union
• Kerala is the first state to launch its own ranking Territories (UTs), covering manufacturing and related
system for higher education institutions. service sector and MSMEs, found that there is a need to
• NIRF was created in 2015 to assess higher education increase innovation in manufacturing.
institutions across India. • The report states that only 25.01 per cent of the 8,074
• KIRF will rank participating colleges and universities firms surveyed were considered innovative.
in the categories like overall, universities, colleges, • Telangana, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu had the
engineering, management, architecture, medical, dental, highest share of innovative firms at 46.18 per cent, 39.10
pharmacy, nursing, law, and teacher education. per cent and 31.90 per cent, respectively, among the
• KIRF will evaluate the higher educational institutions total manufacturing firms surveyed from the respective
based on components, which are also followed by NIRF. states.
These components are given below. • Odisha, Bihar, and Jharkhand reported the least share
• Teaching, Learning and Resources (TLR) of innovative firms at 12.78 per cent, 13.47 per cent and
• Knowledge Dissemination and Research Excellence 13.71 per cent, respectively.
(KDRE) • In 2019, the Department of Science and Technology
• Graduation Outcome (GO) decided to follow up with a second nationwide
• Outreach and Inclusivity (OI) innovation survey and assigned the innovation survey to
the United Nations Industrial Development Organization
216. According to the National Manufacturing (UNIDO), with a view to focus on manufacturing and
Innovation Survey (NMIS) 2021-22 _____________ has associated services spread across large, medium, small,
been ranked as the most “innovative” State. and micro-enterprises.
A. Telangana
B. Tamil Nadu 217. In May as per report Centre has decided to extend
C. Maharahstra the Smart Cities Mission deadline to ________.
D. Odisha A. December 2023
E. Karnataka B. June 2024
Answer: E C. December 2024
• The National Manufacturing Innovation Survey D. December 2025
(NMIS) 2021-22 has ranked Karnataka as the most E. June 2026
“innovative” State. Answer: B
• It is a joint study by the Department of Science and • The Centre has decided to extend the Smart Cities
Technology (DST) and the United Nations Industrial Mission deadline by one year, from June 2023 to June
Development Organization (UNIDO) 2024.
• It captured data related to types of innovations and • The flagship mission was launched on June 25, 2015
innovative measures taken by firms, including the • It involves the development of 100 cities into smart
process of innovation, access to finance, resources, and cities.
information for innovation etc. • The project aims to improve the quality of life for
• The first National Innovation Survey was held in 2011. people living in India and drive economic growth.
• In Overall Karnataka was followed by Dadra and • The Union Ministry of Urban Development is
Nagar Haveli, Daman and Diu, Telangana, and Tamil responsible for implementing the mission.
Nadu.
• Also, a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) in each state is A. Odisha

created, headed by the CEO; they look after the B. Maharashtra
implementation of the mission. C. Madhya Pradesh
• According to the officials, out of 100 cities, around 50 D. Karnataka
have completed close to 75 per cent of their projects and E. Uttar Pradesh
are on track to complete remaining works by June 2023. Answer: C
• The ministry said that the government has released • Archeologists have uncovered several archaeological
around Rs 38,000 crore to 100 cities. Combining this with treasures from the Bandhavgarh National Park in
state and urban local bodies releases, the cumulative Madhya Pradesh.
amount of funds released to cities stands at Rs 71,000 • They have discovered paintings, water bodies that are
crore. man-made, along with a few other pieces of evidence.
• Archeologists also got hold of a 1,500-year-old rock
218. In May as per report India’s Defence Minister painting, along with several man-made water bodies,
handed over two 'Made in India' platforms, a Fast Patrol which are believed to be no lesser than 1,800-2,000 years
Vessel and a Landing Craft Assault ship to ___________. old, from the national park in Madhya Pradesh.
A. Bangladesh • It is located in the Umaria district of Madhya
B. Mauritius Pradesh.It is spread over the Vindhya hills.
C. Maldives
D. Egypt 220. Recently as per report _____________ announced to
E. Croatia launch its own heat index next year to quantify heat
Answer: C hazard, generate impact-based heat wave alerts for
• In a demonstration of the nations' shared specific locations.
commitment to peace and security in the Indian Ocean A. India Meteorological Department
Region (IOR), India’s Defence Minister handed over two B. World Bank
'Made in India' platforms, a Fast Patrol Vessel and a C. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
Landing Craft Assault ship, to the Maldives National D. Asian Development Bank
Defence Forces. E. International Monetary Fund
• The Fast Patrol Vessel, capable of coastal and Answer: A
offshore surveillance at high speeds, was commissioned • India to launch its own heat index next year to
as the MNDF Coast Guard ship Huravee. President of quantify heat hazard, generate impact-based heat wave
Maldives Ibrahim Mohamed Solih and Defence Minister alerts for specific locations.
Ms Mariya Ahmed Didi were present on the occasion. • Heat index is a measure of how hot it feels when
• In August last year, both countries started the India- humidity is factored in along with the air temperature,
funded Greater Male connectivity project, billed as the and the figures were calculated using data from the
largest infrastructure initiative in the island nation. India Meteorological Department (IMD).
• Under the Greater Male Connectivity Project (GMCP) • It is also known as the apparent temperature.
project, a 6.74 km long bridge and causeway link will be • Along with temperature and humidity, it will
built to connect the capital city Male with adjoining integrate other parameters such as wind and duration of
islands of Villingli, Gulhifalhu, Thilafushi. exposure. It will be an effective indicator of heat stress
• The two sides already exchange high-level visits and for people.
there are mechanisms in place to deepen this • Heat hazard score will depict the severity in terms of
cooperation including several bilateral exercises like — numbers, such as on a scale of 1 to 10.
Ekuverin; Dosti; Ekatha. • The major difference between the heat index of the
• Capital: Malé, Currency: Maldivian Rufiyaa. US and India’s heat hazard score is that the latter also
considers other parameters that aggravate heat
219. Recently seen in news Bandhavgarh National Park is situations such as minimum temperature, wind and
situated in which of the following state? exposure duration.
• The IMD has predicted above-normal maximum • In turn, the selected incubators will provide startups
temperature and more heatwave days in eastern and with up to Rs 20 lakhs for validation of Proof of Concept,
central-eastern parts of the country in May. prototype development, and product trials to startups.
• Recently as per World Meteorological Organisation • Eligibility criteria for Startups:
(WMO) global mean temperature in 2022 was 1.15 • A startup recognized by DPIIT incorporated not more
degrees Celsius above the pre-industrial (1850-1900) than 2 years ago at the time of application.
average, making it the “fifth or sixth” warmest year on • Startup should not have received more than Rs 10
record despite the La Nina conditions. lakh of monetary support under any other Central or
• The India Meteorological Department is an agency of State Government scheme.
the Ministry of Earth Sciences of the Government of • Shareholding by Indian promoters in the startup
India. should be at least 51% at the time of application to the
• Founded: 15 January 1875, MD DG, Mrutyunjay incubator for the scheme.
Mohapatra.
222. In May as per report Coal Ministry announced to
221. Consider the following statement regarding Startup complete ____________ first mile connectivity projects
India Seed Fund Scheme. Which of the following with a capacity of handling 885 million tonnes per
statement is incorrect? annum (mtpa) by 2027.
A. It is a flagship scheme launched in April 2021 under A. 54
the Startup India B. 67
B. It is implemented for the period of 4 years with a C. 81
corpus of 611 crores. D. 91
C. Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal E. 70
Trade (DPIIT) is the nodal agency of the scheme. Answer: B
D. Only 1 and 2 • The Coal Ministry said that it will complete 67 first
E. All of the above are correct mile connectivity projects with a capacity of handling
Answer: B 885 million tonnes per annum (mtpa) by 2027.
• The government has allocated Rs 611 crore to • The Ministry of Coal takes up 67 FMC projects (59 –
incubators and out of that, Rs 61 crore was released to coal India (CIL), 5 - Singareni Collieries Company (SCCL) &
startups under the seed fund scheme so far. 3 – NLC India (NLCIL)) with a capacity to load 885 mtpa.
• In April 2021, the government launched the Startup • These projects will be completed by 2027.
India Seed Fund Scheme (SISFS) with a corpus of Rs 945 • In order to eliminate road transportation of coal in
crore. mines, the Ministry has developed a plan to improve the
• The corpus is divided over the next four years (till mechanised coal transportation and loading system
2025) for providing seed funding to eligible startups under FMC projects.
through eligible incubators across India. • The Ministry has set a target to generate 1.3 billion
• The fund aims to provide financial assistance to tonne coal in FY25 and 1.5 bt in FY30 to increase India’s
startups for proof of concept, prototype development, energy security and realise AatmaNirbhar Bharat by
product trials, market entry, and commercialisation. substituting domestically mined coal for imported coal.
• So far 165 incubators have been selected under the • India’s coal production hit a milestone of 892 mt
scheme and Rs 611 crore has been approved for them. during FY23, which is a Y-o-Y growth of 14.7 per cent.
• Nodal Department: Department for Promotion of • The power sector continued to be the largest
Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), under the Ministry of consumer of domestic coal, accounting for the total
Commerce & Industry. despatches of 737.9 MT during FY23, an increase of 9.1
• An Experts Advisory Committee (EAC) has been per cent Y-o-Y.
created by DPIIT to execute and monitor the SISFS.
• The EAC will select eligible incubators who will be 223. Recently as per report Uttar Pradesh government
provided grants of up to Rs 5 Crores each. plans to build 'Ramaland' on the lines of Disneyland at
which place? • It also showcases the combat capabilities of the Air
A. Kanpur Force.
B. Lucknow
C. Gorakhpur 225. In May as per report Centre has revised the
D. Mirzapur nutritional standards of meals at schools and
E. Ayodhya anganwadis under the e National Food Security Act
Answer: E (NFSA).
• The Uttar Pradesh government is planning to develop As per revised guidelines __________ categories have
a theme park ‘Ramaland’ modelled on Disneyland. been created for undernourished children aged between
• It will be developed to narrate the story of Lord Ram. six months to six years.
It will attract children and adults to showcase the story A. 3
of Ramayan. B. 2
• UP government is also planning to set up six C. 5
grandiose arched gateways at the roads leading from D. 4
other districts to Ayodhya. E. 7
• Each gateway complex will be named after the Answer: A
characters of Ramayana. • A decade after the National Food Security Act (NFSA)
• The proposed Ayodhya international airport will get was enacted, the Central government has revised the
completed by June 2023. nutritional standards of meals at schools and
• Under ‘Ayodhya Vision 2047’, the planned anganwadis.
transformation of Ayodhya is estimated to cost Rs 30,000 • The amendment has been done on the
crore. The expenditure will be jointly borne by the central recommendations of an inter-ministerial committee,
and the UP governments. which, in its draft report, had also recommended that
• Ayodhya Municipal Corporation and Indian Institute the serving of eggs as part of government food safety
of Management (IIM), Indore signed MoU to make programmes be also made mandatory.
Ayodhya an international tourist hub. • However, there are no restrictions on states and
Union Territories to add eggs and other items on the
224. In May as per report Defence Minister Rajnath menu of food safety programmes such as midday meals
Singh inaugurated Indian Air Force Heritage Centre at (now known as PM Poshan) at schools, or the Integrated
______________. Child Development Services (ICDS) scheme at
A. Chandigarh anganwadis that covers pre school children, along with
B. Chennai pregnant and lactating mothers.
C. Hyderabad • In its draft report, the inter-ministerial committee had
D. Bengaluru recommended “urgent action”, citing the possible impact
E. Lucknow of the Covid-19 pandemic in worsening the “silent crisis”
Answer: A of undernutrition.
• Defence Minister Rajnath Singh inaugurated Indian • Three new categories have been created for
Air Force Heritage Centre in Chandigarh. undernourished children aged between six months to six
• He also laid the foundation stone for the Centre for years.
Cyber Ops and Security. • The nutritional standards for some existing categories
• The Heritage Centre comprises artifacts, simulators such as lower primary classes, and upper primary classes
and interactive boards. have been revised.
• It highlights the various facets of operations in the • For instance, under the previous norms, every child in
Indian Air Force. lower primary classes was entitled to get 450 kilocalories
• It showcases the important role played by Air Force in (kcal) and 12 gm protein with midday meals.
humanitarian assistance and disaster relief.
• Now, the protein quantity has been hiked to 15-20 • India was positioned 169 in political indicators while
gms, while fat (18-21 gms) and carbohydrates (70 gms) it was 144 in legislative, 155 in economic, 143 in social
are part of the mix as well. indicators and 172 in the safety of journalists.
• Reporters without Borders (RSF) is an international
226. As per recently released World Press Freedom Index NGO whose self-proclaimed aim is to defend and
2023 which of the following neighbouring country is promote media freedom.
behind India in the list ? • Headquarters: Paris, France.
A. Sri Lanka
B. Pakistan 227. Bastille Day is the traditional military parade of
C. Bangladesh which of the following country?
D. Nepal A. France
E. Bhutan B. Germany
Answer: C C. Australia
• India has fallen 11 positions in the World Press D. Japan
Freedom Index 2023. E. Bangladesh
• On May 3, the 21st edition of World Press Freedom Answer: A
Index was released by Reporters Without Borders (RSF). • Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi has accepted
• According to the latest report released by global French President Emmanuel Macron's invitation to be
media watchdog RSF, India’s rank has slipped to 161 out the guest of honour at France's traditional military
of 180 countries in the 2023 World Press Freedom Index. parade held during Bastille day, on July 14th.
• In this index, the rank of India was 150 in 2022 and • An Indian armed forces contingent will take part in
142 in 2021. the parade alongside French forces.
• In comparison, Pakistan has fared better in terms of • Modi's visit will coincide with the 25th anniversary of
media freedom as it improved from last year's 157th the "strategic partnership" between France and India.
rank to 150th. • The Bastille Day military parade, also known as the
• In this index, Sri Lanka has also made a significant 14 July military parade, is a French military parade that
improvement, ranking 135 this year as compared to 146 has been held on the morning of 14 July each year in
in 2022. Paris since 1880.
• The Nordic trio of Norway, Ireland and Denmark • This day is marked as the National Day of France.
continue to hold the top three positions in press freedom
index. 228. In May as per report ___________ has unveiled new
• Vietnam, China and North Korea ranked in the methodology and improved safeguards, called “Business
bottom three. Ready”, for assessing the business climate in up to 180
• The World Press Freedom Index is based on five countries.
indicators including the Political indicator, Economic A. India Meteorological Department
indicator, Legislative indicator, Social indicator and the B. World Bank
Security indicator. C. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
• Press freedom in India has gone from “problematic” D. Asian Development Bank
to “very bad”, with the country slipping 11 ranks since E. International Monetary Fund
the 2022 report. Answer: B
• The World Press Freedom Index revealed that press • The World Bank has unveiled new methodology and
freedom in 31 is in a “very serious situation”. improved safeguards, called “Business Ready”, for
• Except for Bangladesh (163), Myanmar (173) and assessing the business climate in up to 180 countries.
China (179), all other neighbours have a better rank than • This was done after embarrassing revelations of data
India -- Bhutan (90), Nepal (95), Sri Lanka (135), Pakistan irregularities and favouritism toward China forced it to
(150), Afghanistan (152). cancel its flagship “Ease of Doing Business” rankings two
years ago.
• The ease of doing business index was an index Economic Zone Ltd sold which of the following port for
created by the World Bank Group, following the release $30 million?
of World Development Report 2002. A. Kandla Port
• In September 2021, the World Bank announced it was B. Myanmar Port
“discontinuing” its “Doing Business” report. C. Sittwe Port
• It cited the outcome of an investigation that found D. Marmagoa Port
the World Bank had changed the rankings under E. Port of Mudra
pressure of funding. Answer: B
• A pilot edition of the new replacement annual series • Adani Ports and Special Economic Zone Ltd (APSEZ)
called "Business Ready" will be published in the spring of has concluded the Myanmar Port sale for a total
2024. consideration of USD 30 million.
• It will cover an initial group of 54 economies in Asia, • In May 2022, APSEZ had announced signing of a Share
Latin America, Europe, the Middle East and Sub-Saharan Purchase Agreement (SPA) for the sale of its Myanmar
Africa. Port.
• More countries will be added in the next two years as • APSEZ, the largest port developer in India, is part of
the bank refines its methodology and ramps up the new the globally diversified Adani Group.
project. • Karan Adani, CEO and Whole-time Director, APSEZ
• The “Business Ready” project aims to help countries
attract investment and boost jobs and productivity to 231. What is the name of the Pakistan Foreign Minister
accelerate development who visited India to attend an SCO conference in Goa?
A. Bilawal Bhutto
229. In May as per report Arab League readmitted B. Shehbaz Sharif
__________ ending a more than decade-long suspension. C. Muhammad Asif
A. Russia D. Hina Rabbani Khar
B. Ukraine E. Sartaj Aziz
C. Afghanistan Answer: A
D. Syria • Bilawal Bhutto Zardari became the first Pakistani
E. Israel foreign minister to visit India in almost 12 years, flying
Answer: D into Goa to attend a Shanghai Cooperation Organisation
• The Arab League recently welcomed back Syria's (SCO) meet, though there were no indications of a
government, ending a more than decade-long bilateral meeting with his Indian counterpart.
suspension. • Bhutto travelled to Goa from Karachi and will attend
• Arab League, also called League of Arab States (LAS) the SCO foreign ministers’ meeting at Taj Exotica Resort.
is a regional organization of Arab states in the Middle • Hina Rabbani Khar, currently minister of state for
East and parts of Africa. foreign affairs, was the last Pakistani foreign minister to
• It was formed in Cairo on 22 March 1945.The travel to India in July 2011 for talks with her Indian
founding member states were Egypt, Syria, Lebanon, counterpart.
Iraq, Transjordan (now Jordan), Saudi Arabia, and • Recently, the meeting of the Foreign Ministers of the
Yemen. Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) took place in
• Currently it has 22 members including Palestine, Goa.
which the League regards as an independent state. • India is holding the chairmanship of the SCO for the
• Syria's participation has been suspended since year 2023.
November 2011, as a consequence of government • The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation is a
repression during the Syrian Civil War. permanent intergovernmental international
• Headquarters: Cairo, Egypt. organisation, established in 2001.
• 8 member states– China, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan,
230. In May as per report Adani Ports and Special Russia, Tajikistan, Uzbekistan, India, Pakistan.
• Iran will be the newest member (9th) of the SCO, E. Vistara

when it joins the forum in 2023 under the chairmanship Answer: B
of India. • Air Carrier Go First Airways filed application for
insolvency resolution proceedings in the National
232. In May as per report King Charles III becomes the Company Law Tribunal.
________ British monarch to be crowned as the monarch • The Wadia Group-owned air carrier Go First has taken
of UK in a ceremony held at Westminster Abbey in this decision due to a severe fund crunch.
London. • Go First has grounded 25 aircraft due to non-supply of
A. 45th engines by Pratt & Whitney (P&W).
B. 60th • The non-supply of engines from P&W resulted in an
C. 40th income loss of ₹10,800 crore.
D. 35th • Voluntary insolvency means that the company has
E. 26th accepted that its business has become insolvent. Under
Answer: C this process, the company accepts that it cannot pay
• The coronation of Charles III and his wife Camilla as debts and needs help from someone to sort it out.
king and queen took place on 6 May 2023 in • It has to be completed within 270 days after the date
London.Their coronation is the first of a British monarch of commencement of Voluntary Liquidation.
in the 21st century. • The voluntary insolvency process of a company
• The coronation took place in a ceremony which was proceeds after approval from shareholders and creditors.
attended by thousands of guests including foreign • After Jet Airways filed for bankruptcy in 2019, it is the
leaders. first major airline to collapse in India.
• Vice President Jagdeep Dhankhar represented India • The Director General of Civil Aviation has issued
at the ceremonial event. notice to Go First for the violation of Aircraft Rules 1937.
• In 1066, the monarch William the Conqueror invaded • In the arbitration, Go First has sought compensation
England with his army and was crowned here. of around ₹8,000 crores.
• Since then, 39 coronation ceremonies and 16 royal • Go First's grounded aircraft percentage has decreased
weddings have taken place in the cathedral. from 7% in December 2019 to 31% in December 2020 and
• On 08 September 2022, Charles acceded to the throne 50% in December 2022.
upon the death of his mother, Elizabeth II.
• Elizabeth II was queen from 1952 until her death in 234. Recently as per report GST revenue collection is the
2022. Her reign was the longest of any British monarch. highest ever at Rs 1.87 lakh crore for __________.
• Her reign was the longest verified reign of any female A. January 2023
head of state in history. B. February 2023
• Buckingham Palace is located in the city of C. March 2023
Westminster. It is the administrative headquarters of the D. April 2023
monarch of the United Kingdom. E. May 2023
• Monarchy is the oldest form of government in the Answer: D
United Kingdom. In a monarchy, a king or queen is Head • GST revenue collection is the highest ever at Rs 1.87
of State. lakh crore for April 2023.
• In the month of April, 2023, the gross GST revenue
233. In May as per report ___________Airways filed collected is Rs 1,87,035 crore.
application for insolvency resolution proceedings in the • It includes CGST Rs 38,440 crore, SGST Rs 47,412 crore,
National Company Law Tribunal. IGST Rs 89,158 crore (including Rs 34,972 crore collected
A. Sapice Jet on import of goods) and Cess Rs 12,025 crore (Rs 901
B. Go First crore collected on import of goods).
C. GoAir
D. IndiGo
• Amounts of Rs 37,959 crore and Rs 45,864 crore in • Also, the original delivery period/completion period
SGST and CGST from IGST have been settled by the mentioned in contract was between 19 February 2020
government. and 31 March 2022.
• The revenue for April 2023 is 12% higher than the GST • Claims can be processed only through Government e-
revenue for the same month the previous year. Marketplace.
• Gross GST collection for the first time has crossed the
Rs 1.75 lakh crore mark. 236. In May as per report government has fined
• On 20 April 2023, the highest ever tax collection was _________ crore to Okinawa Autotech and Hero Electric
done in a single day in this month. for violations of Phased Manufacturing Programme
(PMP) guidelines in compliance with the FAME
235. In May as per report Finance Ministry has launched certification in the subject period.
scheme Vivad Se Vishwas-I Scheme to provide relief to A. Rs 292 crore
__________. B. Rs 249 crore
A. MSMEs C. Rs 273 crore
B. Street Vendors D. Rs 256 crore
C. Startups E. Rs 265 crore
D. IT Companies Answer: B
E. All of the above • Amid ongoing investigation into misappropriation of
Answer: A subsidy under the Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of
• Ministry of Finance launches scheme “Vivad se (Hybrid &) Electric Vehicles in India (FAME) II, the Centre
Vishwas I-Relief to MSMEs”. issued recovery notices totalling Rs 249 crore to Hero
• As per the announcement made in Union Budget Electric and Okinawa Autotech (Okinawa), Business
2023-24, the government has launched the Vivad se Standard has learnt.
Vishwas Scheme for relief to MSMEs for COVID-19 • Hero Electric and Okinawa will need to repay Rs 133
period. crore and Rs 116 crore, respectively, to the central
• The scheme commenced on 17 April 2023 and the last government.
date for submission for claims is 30 June 2023. • Sohinder Gill, CEO, Hero Electric
• Under the scheme, the ministries will refund • Jeetender Sharma, MD and Founder, Okinawa
performance security, bid security and liquidated Autotech
damages forfeited/ deducted during the COVID-19 • Central government has launched 'Faster Adoption
pandemic. and Manufacturing of Electric Vehicles in India Phase II
• Under the scheme, the Ministry of Finance will give (FAME India Phase II)' for promotion of Electric Mobility
additional benefits to eligible MSMEs as given below: in the country.
• Refund of 95% of the performance security forfeited, • Total fund requirement for this scheme is Rs. 10,000
Bid security and Liquidated damages deducted. crores over three years from 2019-20 to 2021-22.
• Refund of 95% of Risk purchase amount realised. • The second phase of this scheme started in April 2019
• Revoking of debarment of a firm that has been and will continue till 31st March 2022. The Government
debarred only due to default in execution of such has decided to further extend Fame India Scheme Phase
contracts. II till 31st March 2024.
• No interest shall be paid on such refunded amount.
• The relief would be provided to those MSMEs which 237. In May as per report European Securities and
have registered as a Medium, Small or Micro Enterprise Markets Authority (ESMA) has derecognised _________
for any category of goods and services as per relevant Indian central counterparties (CCPs) from April 30, 2023.
scheme of Ministry of MSME on the date of claim by A. 6
supplier/contractor. B. 5
C. 8
D. 7
E. 9 • In IndusInd Bank too, FPIs have trimmed their
Answer: A exposure by 4 per cent to 42.16 per cent during this
• The European Securities and Markets Authority period.
(ESMA), the European Union (EU’s) financial markets • The FPIs stakes in India’s largest private sector bank
regulator has derecognised six Indian central HDFC Bank went down by 3 percent while their stake in
counterparties (CCPs) from April 30, 2023. Bandhan Bank and Kotak Mahindra Bank reduced by 2
• Central counterparties is a financial institution that per cent and 1 per cent, respectively.
perform two main functions as the intermediary in a • FPI shareholding in ICICI Bank remained unchanged at
market transaction Clearing and settlement for trades in 44 per cent in FY23.
foreign exchange, securities, options, and derivative • In FY23, FPIs pulled out ₹29,921 crore from the
contracts and Guarantee the terms of trade. banking and financial services sector. The sector was the
• The six CCPs derecognised are: third highest loser of FPI money in FY23 after IT Services
• The Clearing Corporation of India (CCIL), (₹51,138 crore) and Oil & Gas (₹37,674 crore).
• Indian Clearing Corporation Ltd (ICCL), • In the previous fiscal, FPIs increased their stakes in
• NSE Clearing Ltd (NSCCL), banks such Yes Bank (by 12 per cent), IDFC First Bank (6
• Multi Commodity Exchange Clearing (MCXCCL), percent) and Axis Bank (2 per cent).
• India International Clearing Corporation (IFSC) Ltd • FPIs’ holding in Yes Bank went up to 23.1 per cent as
(IICC) and of March 2023 from 10.97 per cent in March 2022.
• NSE IFSC Clearing Corporation Ltd (NICCL). • The spike in FPI holding in Yes Bank was on account of
• As per the European Market Infrastructure private equity majors Carlyle and Advent picking up a
Regulations (EMIR), a CCP in a third country (TC-CCPs) 9.99 per cent stake in Yes Bank for about ₹8,896 crore
can provide clearing services to European banks only if it during the December quarter.
is recognised by ESMA.
• The decision to derecognise Indian CCPs came due to 239. In April as per report _________launched its retail
‘no cooperation arrangements’ between ESMA and banking programme ‘Vishesh’ for customers in semi-
Indian regulators - the RBI, the SEBI and the urban and rural geographies.
International Financial Services Centres Authority A. ICICI Bank
(IFSCA). B. HDFC Bank
C. State Bank Of India
238. According to the latest shareholding data foreign D. Punjab National Bank
portfolio investors’ (FPIs’) reduced their stake in which of E. Bank Of Baroda
the following banks? Answer: B
A. Yes Bank • HDFC Bank launched its retail banking programme
B. IDFC First Bank ‘Vishesh’ for customers in semi-urban and rural
C. Axis Bank geographies wherein it plans to onboard around 1 lakh
D. RBL Bank new customers.
E. All of the above • As a part of this, the bank plans to add more branches
Answer: D and launch customised, tailor-made products and
• Foreign investors’ holdings in many of the private financial solutions for this market segment.
sector banks went down marginally in FY23 as they • HDFC Bank will look to add 675 branches in semi
pulled out nearly ₹30,000 crore from banking and urban and rural geographies in FY24 to take the total
financial services sector. number to nearly 5,000. As of March 31, 52 per cent of
• According to latest shareholding data, foreign the bank’s 7,821 branches are in rural and semi urban
portfolio investors’ (FPIs’) holding in RBL Bank went locations.
down by 4 per cent in the previous fiscal to 25 per cent as • Features of the programme include a dedicated
of March 2023 quarter. personal banker; facility extendable to 8 family
members; up to 50 per cent discount on processing fees
in gold loan and 50 per cent waiver on valuation (once a may be approved by equity shareholders of respective
year); and up to 50 per cent off on processing fees on companies on or after April 30.
construction equipment, tractors, personal, business,
auto and two-wheeler loans. 241. In May as per report a binding term sheet has been
• It also offers daily Hospicash benefits (up to 5 days), signed by Airtel and ___________ to combine operations
annual preventive health check-up up to Rs 3,000. in Sri Lanka.
• HDFC Bank is India's largest private sector bank. It is A. Hathway
India’s second largest lender after the State Bank of B. HSBC
India. C. DEN Networks
• It is headquartered in Mumbai. It was founded in D. Axiata
1994. The CEO of HDFC Bank is Sashidhar Jagdishan. E. Siti Networks
Answer: D
240. In May as per report __________has come out with • Dialog Axiata Plc, Axiata Group Berhadm and Bharti
new norms to retain the demerged entity of an index Airtel signed a binding term sheet to combine the
constituent in the respective index. operations of Bharti Airtel Lanka.
A. SEBI • Bharti Airtel Lanka is a wholly-owned subsidiary of
B. NSE Airtel.
C. RBI • Under the proposed transaction, Airtel will be granted
D. BSE a stake in Dialog, representing the fair value of Airtel
E. NABARD Lanka.
Answer: B • Upon the completion of the transactions, Airtel will
• The National Stock Exchange has come out with new accordingly be issued new shares in Dialog.
norms to retain the demerged entity of an index • The proposed transaction is subject to the execution
constituent in the respective index. of definitive agreements and the fulfilment of all closing
• A demerged company will remain part of the index, conditions, including regulatory and shareholder
only if the exchange has decided to conduct a Special approvals.
Pre-Open session (SPOS) for the spun-off entity. • Recently, Bharti Airtel has partnered with
• Additionally, the spun-off business/entity should be Bridgepointe Technologies under Global Channel
included in the index at constant price (which is the Partners Programme.
difference between the demerged company’s closing
price one day prior to ex-date of demerger and price 242. Recently as per report by Reserve Bank of India
derived during SPOS). India needs to spend an estimated _________ by 2030 to
• However, the spun-off business/entity, which is the adapt its various industries to be compliant with climate
newly listed entity, should be removed from the index change norms.
after three days. A. 88.8 trillion rupees
• In case, during the first two days if the spun-off B. 85.6 trillion rupees
business/entity hits the price band on both days, the C. 82.4 trillion rupees
exclusion date should be deferred by another three days, D. 91.5 trillion rupees
NSE said adding that post observing two consecutive E. 78.2 trillion rupees
days of the spun-off business/entity not hitting the price Answer: B
band, it should be removed after the third trading day. • India needs to spend an estimated 85.6 trillion rupees
• If SPOS is not conducted by the exchange, the ($1.05 trillion) by 2030 to adapt its various industries to
demerged company should be removed from the index be compliant with climate change norms, a report by the
one day ahead of the ex-date by making a suitable Reserve Bank of India.
replacement. • Report theme: Towards a Greener Cleaner India
• The change would be applicable to scheme of • The report is written by contributors from the
arrangement of all companies involving demerger which Department of Economic and Policy Research.
• India’s goal of achieving the net zero target by 2070 244. Recently as per data released by the Reserve Bank
would require-an accelerated reduction in the energy of India (RBI) India’s services exports shot up by a record
intensity of GDP by about 5% annually and a significant 26.6 per cent in 2022-23 (FY23) to _________.
improvement in its energy mix in favour of renewables to A. $345 billion
about 80% by 2070-71. B. $322 billion
• The green financing requirements in India could be at C. $356 billion
least 5% of GDP annually to address the infrastructure D. $372 billion
gap caused by climate events. E. $387 billion
• Results of a climate stress test reveal that public Answer: B
sector banks (PSBs) may be more vulnerable than private • According to data released by the Reserve Bank of
sector banks. Globally, however, the measurement of India (RBI) India’s services exports shot up by a record
climate-related financial risks remains a work in 26.6 per cent in 2022-23 (FY23) to $322 billion.
progress. • Services imports, on the other hand, grew 22.2 per
• Different sectors of the economy have different cent to $179.7 billion, leading to a services trade surplus
emission intensities, so it is advisable to not have a of $142.5 billion.
uniform climate mitigation strategy across sectors. • India’s services exports range from information
• Without any policy action, India’s carbon dioxide technology (IT) to services provided by doctors and
emission levels may rise to 3.9 gigatonnes by 2030, from nurses abroad.
2.7 gigatonnes in 2021. • The government has set a target of $2 trillion
combined exports of goods and services by 2030.
243. Recently as per report by Reserve Bank, India's • According to the World Trade Organization data for
green financing requirement is estimated to be at least 2021, India has a share of 4 per cent in global
________ per cent of GDP annually till 2030. commercial services exports and 3.52 per cent in global
A. 1.5 % commercial services imports.
B. 2.0 % • In merchandise trade, India has a share of 1.77 per
C. 2.5 % cent in world exports and 2.54 per cent in world imports.
D. 3.0 %
E. 4.5 % 245. Recently as per report by prepared by the Internet
Answer: C and Mobile Association of India (IAMAI) and KANTAR
• India's green financing requirement is estimated to be active internet base in India is expected to grow to
at least 2.5 per cent of GDP annually till 2030. __________ million by 2025.
• The country aims to achieve net zero emissions target A. 500 million
by 2070. B. 400 million
• The Reserve Bank of India's report on Currency and C. 600 million
Finance (RCF) for the year 2022-23 covers four major D. 700 million
dimensions of climate change to assess future challenges E. 900 million
to sustainable high growth in India. Answer: E
• The areas are the unprecedented scale and pace of • As many as 759 million Indians, around 52 per cent of
climate change; its macroeconomic effects; implications the country, access the internet at least once a month
for financial stability; and policy options to mitigate but a digital divide continues among states.
climate risks. • The number of active internet users in the country
• The country's goal of achieving the net zero target by grew by almost 10 per cent in 2022, according to the
2070 would require an accelerated reduction in the ‘Internet in India Report 2022’, jointly prepared by the
energy intensity of GDP by around 5 per cent annually Internet and Mobile Association of India (IAMAI) and
and a significant improvement in its energy-mix in favour KANTAR.
of renewables to around 80 per cent by 2070-71. • This is the first time that a majority of Indians have
become active internet users.
• The report estimates that India is likely to have • The planned launch of Fly91 comes in the backdrop of
around 900 million total active users by 2025. expansion of government's regional connectivity scheme.
• In urban India, internet penetration stands near 71 Last week, the government launched fifth round of the
per cent and the number of active users there grew some scheme known as Udan.
6 per cent in 2022. In rural India, internet penetration • Over 450 routes have been operationalised under the
jumped around 14 per cent over the previous year. scheme which connects unserved and underserved
• Currently, 399 million active internet users are in rural towns. Over 11.3 million passengers have flown in more
India and 360 million are from urban India. It is than 200,000 Udan flights since the scheme was
estimated that 56 per cent of all new internet users will launched in 2017, the ministry said in February.
be from rural India by 2025.
• The report also highlights a gender disparity in 247. In May as per report Union Ministry of Coal has set
internet usage: 54 per cent of users are male. However, it a target of ____________billion tonne (bt) coal
added that 57 per cent of all new users in 2022 were production by the end of the current fiscal year 2023-
females. Around 65 per cent of all new users to be added 2024.
by 2025 will likely be women. A. 1 billion tonne
• Bihar has the lowest internet penetration while Goa B. 2 billion tonne
has the highest internet penetration. C. 3 billion tonne
• Internet and Mobile Association of India is a not-for- D. 4 billion tonne
profit industry body representing the interests of online E. 5 billion tonne
and mobile value added services industry. Founded: Answer: A
2004, Headquarters: Mumbai. • The Union Ministry of Coal has set a 1-billion tonne
(bt) coal production target by the end of the current
246. What is the name of new airline that has been fiscal year, on the back of enhanced private coal mining.
approved by ministry of civil aviation to start its • Of the targeted 1 bt, national miner Coal India (CIL)
operation? will produce 780 million tonnes (mt), while privately
A. ValueJet owned captive and commercial mines will contribute 162
B. Pixxel mt, the balance by The Singareni Collieries Company.
C. Air March • India’s coal production has made new record of
D. SkyAir Mobility highest production during the month of April 2023
E. Fly 91 achieving 73.02 Million Tonne (MT) of coal.
Answer: E • India’s overall coal Production has seen a quantum
• Fly91, a regional start-up airline based in Goa, has jump to 893.08 MT in FY 2022-23 as compared to 728.72
received 'no objection' clearance (NOC) from the civil MT in FY 2018-2019 with a growth of about 22.6%.
aviation ministry to start operations. • To date, 133 coal mines with a peak-rated capacity of
• Fly91 aims to start flights in the October-December 515 mt have been awarded since 2015 to private
quarter. It is promoted by Harsha Raghavan, the former companies. Of these, 27 have commenced production.
Fairfax India head, and Manoj Chacko, executive vice • Among new initiatives, the Ministry of Coal is looking
president of suspended Kingfisher Airlines. to set up a ‘coal-trading platform’, for which CRISIL has
• Fly91 has selected ATR-72 aircraft for operations and been appointed as consultant.
intends to get 6-7 planes in the first year of operations. • The ministry said the projected asset monetisation
Thereafter, it plans to add an equal number of aircraft plan for FY24 was Rs 50,118 crore, of which CIL’s share
for the next five years. would be Rs 10,118 crore.
• Fly91 will have Goa as its headquarters and it is • In the previous fiscal year, the asset monetisation
looking for airports in North and West India as secondary target for the coal ministry was Rs 30,000 crore, of which
bases. it achieved Rs 24,626 crore. A majority of the
• The new airline will be based in Goa's second airport monetisation feat was through auction.
situated in Mopa in northern part of the state.
248. Recently government has set a target of limited to banks, cooperative banks, payment system
____________ million tonne (MT) for foodgrain providers, AIFIs as well as NBFCs intend to achieve the
production for the 2023-24 crop year (July-June). following:
A. 315 million tonne • To incorporate the recent amendments dated March
B. 328 million tonne 7, 2023, in the Prevention of Money-Laundering Act,
C. 332 million tonne 2002 (“PML Act”) and the Prevention of Money-
D. 336 million tonne Laundering (Maintenance of Records) Rules, 2005 (‘PML
E. 338 million tonne Rules’).
Answer: C • To align the KYC process with increasing use of non-
• The government has set a target of 332 million tonne face-to-face lending transactions.
(MT) for foodgrain production for the 2023-24 crop year • To incorporate instructions on the procedure for
(July-June), a 2.6% increase from the previous year. implementation of Section 12A of the Weapons of Mass
• According to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Destruction (WMD) and their Delivery Systems
Welfare, the goal includes the production of 29.25 MT of (Prohibition of Unlawful Activities) Act, 2005 (‘WMD Act,
pulses, 44 MT of oilseed, and 17 MT of millets, with 2005’).
strategies being developed in anticipation of El Nino's • The threshold for “Controlling ownership interest” for
impact. the purpose of determination of Beneficial Owner (BO)
• According to the government’s second advance has been revised to 10 percent for both companies and
estimates, foodgrains production in 2022-23 crop year trusts from earlier threshold of 25 percent and 15
ending June is pegged at 323.5 MT. percent, respectively.
• The agriculture sector's robust growth has led to a • Other Changes Introduced By The Amendments are:
4.6% average annual growth rate over the past six years, • Non-profit organisations: Regulated entities to ensure
contributing to the nation's overall economic growth. that the details of such customers are registered on the
DARPAN portal of NITI Aayog.
249. In May as per report Reserve Bank Of India • Definition of ‘Shell Bank’ has been amended to read
amended KYC norms to permit faceless KYC. as under - Shell bank means a bank that has no physical
As per new guidelines threshold for “Controlling presence in the country in which it is incorporated and
ownership interest” for the purpose of determination of licensed, and which is unaffiliated with a regulated
Beneficial Owner (BO) has been revised to _________ financial group that is subject to effective consolidated
percent for both companies and trusts. supervision. Physical presence means meaningful mind
A. 15 % and management located within a country. The
B. 20 % existence simply of a local agent or low-level staff does
C. 25 % not constitute physical presence.
D. 30 % • United Nations Security Council sanctions lists and
E. 10 % lists as available in the Schedules to the Prevention and
Answer: E Suppression of Terrorism (Implementation of Security
• Recognising the increasing trend towards faceless Council Resolutions) Order, shall be verified on a daily
lending, and the use of technology for customer due basis.
diligence, the RBI has made much-needed changes in the • Unique Customer Identification Code: Requirement to
KYC process, permitting lenders to avoid any of physical allot UCIC to all customers has been extended to all
interface with borrowers and rely on documents stored regulated entities.
in Digilocker or other e-documents.
• Requirement of ‘three days’ for the validity of the
• Amendments, immediately effective, were made to Aadhaar XML file / Aadhaar Secure QR Code and to
the Master Direction – Know Your Customer (KYC) undertake the video process has been amended to ‘three
Direction, 2016 vide a notification dated April 28, 2023. working days’.
• The amendments in the KYC Directions are applicable • Consequent upon the transfer of charge, the Central
to every entity regulated by the RBI, including but not [designated] Nodal Officer for the UAPA is the Additional
Secretary (CTCR), Ministry of Home Affairs in place of the buyer of gold (69 metric tonnes) during January-March
Joint Secretary. 2023.
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acquired about 10
250. Consider the following statement regarding latest tonnes of gold in the March quarter, placing it among
World Gold Council data. Which of the following the top five gold buyers in that period as central bank.
statement is incorrect?
A. The RBI’s gold reserves increased by 34.22 tonne year- 251. In May as per report government has deferred
on-year to reach a record 794.64 tonne at the end of imposition of a 7-day time limit for reporting old e-
March. invoices on the e-invoice portals for GST taxpayers with
B. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acquired about 10 tonnes an aggregate turnover of Rs100 crore or more which will
of gold in the March quarter. now come into effect on ____________.
C. Turkey added the most gold to its reserves last year — A. 1 December 2023
140.88 tonnes, taking its total reserves to 572 tonnes. B. 1 October 2023
D. India ranks ninth in total gold reserves in countries list C. 1 September 2023
and ranked fifth among the countries that added glitter D. 1 August 2023
to its reserves last fiscal. E. 1 January 2024
E. All of the above are correct Answer: D
Answer: E • The government has deferred by three months the
• In FY23, India added 34.22 tonnes of gold to its official imposition of a 7-day time limit for reporting old e-
reserves, according to the latest World Gold Council invoices on the e-invoice portals for GST taxpayers with
data. an aggregate turnover of Rs100 crore or more.
• This took the proportion of gold among India’s forex • The new rule was supposed to be implemented by 1
reserves to a five-year high of 8.06 per cent. May 2023.
• According to the RBI data, as of March 2023, India
had foreign reserves worth ₹46,06,680 crore. • However, given the operational difficulties faced by
• Of this, gold reserves amounted to ₹3,71,500 crore. the taxpayers, the GST authorities have decided to defer
• The WGC data show that as of March 2023, India it.
holds 794.6 tonnes of gold in its official reserves. • e-invoice is a system in which business-to-business
• Turkey added the most gold to its reserves last year (B2B) invoices are electronically authenticated by GST
— 140.88 tonnes, taking its total reserves to 572 tonnes. Network, the entity that provided the IT backbone for
• Turkey is followed by China, which added 120 tonnes the administration of GST.
and Singapore, which added 68.67 tonnes. • Under the e-invoicing system, an identification
• India stands fifth among the countries that added number is issued against every invoice by the Invoice
glitter to its reserves last fiscal. Registration Portal (IRP) to be managed by the GST
• When it comes to countries with the most official gold Network (GSTN).
reserves, India ranks ninth, as of March 2023. • Instead of 1 May, this obligation will now come into
• The US, the leader here, holds 8,133.46 tonnes of effect on 1 August 2023.
gold. It is, however, 0.01 tonnes lesser than how much it • This will not apply to credit or debit notes.
held in March 2022. • GST Network (GSTN) has opened its national e-
• Germany comes a distant next with 3,354.89 tonnes invoicing registration portal (IRP) to all taxpayers to use
of gold. for creating and sending electronic invoices to
• While IMF holds the next highest amount of official customers. Presently, only taxpayers with ₹10 or above
gold reserves, the next country in line is Italy with sales revenue per annum are mandated to use the
2,451.84 tonnes. governments e-invoicing system.
• The latest WGC report showed that Monetary • The aim will be to reach ₹5 per annum perhaps before
Authority of Singapore (MAS) was the largest single the end of 2023. A rumoured January 2023 cut to ₹5 per
annum failed to go ahead.
C. Singapore
252. In May as per report SEBI introduced Legal Entity D. South Korea
Identifier (LEI) system for issuers that have listed or E. Malaysia
planning to list non-convertible securities. Answer: A
The LEI is a ________digit number used to uniquely • Daikin India is now the second company operating in
identify parties to financial transactions worldwide. the cooling space to cross the USD 1 billion-milestone
A. 10 after the Tata group firm Voltas, which had reported a
B. 12 total income of Rs 9,667 crore for FY23.
C. 15 • Daikin India has a turnover of Rs 8,860 crore for the
D. 20 financial year ended on March 31, 2023.
E. 9 • The company, a wholly-owned subsidiary of Japan's
Answer: D Daikin Industries, a leading global manufacturer of
• Capital markets regulator SEBI introduced Legal commercial and residential air conditioning systems, has
Entity Identifier (LEI) system for issuers that have listed so far invested Rs 2,300 crore in India.
or planning to list non-convertible securities, securitised • Presently, Daikin India gets 70 per cent of its revenue
debt instruments and security receipts. from residential (room AC), 20 per cent from VRV
• Legal Entity Identifier, a unique global identifier for (variable refrigerant volume AC systems) used for large
legal entities participating in financial transactions, is offices, and the rest 10 per cent from commercial
designed to create a global reference data system that businesses such as projects etc.
uniquely identifies every legal entity, in any jurisdiction, • It is setting up its third unit in India at Sri City, Andhra
that is party to a financial transaction. Pradesh where it would manufacture air-conditioners
• It is a unique 20-character code to identify legally and crucial components such as compressors.
distinct entities that engage in financial transactions. • Daikin is the largest investor under the government's
• Presently, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) mandates non- Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme for the
individual borrowers having aggregate exposure of promotion of domestic manufacturing of air
above Rs 25 crore to obtain Legal Entity Identifier code. conditioners.
• The LEI has been introduced by the RBI in a phased
manner for participants in the over the counter (OTC) 254. In May as per report Finance Ministry has allowed
derivative and non-derivative markets as also for large __________ financial entities to verify the identity of
corporate borrowers. their customers via Aadhaar under the ambit of the
• In India, LEI can be obtained from Legal Entity money laundering law.
Identifier India Ltd. (LEIL), which is also recognised as an A. 23
issuer of LEI by the Reserve Bank under the Payment and B. 22
Settlement Systems Act, 2007. C. 25
• The regulator has asked depositories to map the Legal D. 30
Entity Identifier code to existing ISINs by September 30, E. 16
and map the Legal Entity Identifier code provided by the Answer: B
issuers with the ISIN at the time of activation of the ISIN • The Finance Ministry has allowed 22 financial
for future issuances. companies, including Amazon Pay (India) and Hero
FinCorp, to undertake Aadhaar-based authentication of
253. In May as per report Daikin India became the clients.
second company operating in the cooling space to cross • These 22 financial companies include Godrej Finance,
the USD 1 billion-milestone after the Tata group firm Amazon Pay (India) Pvt Ltd, Aditya Birla Housing
Voltas. Daikin Industries Ltd is comapny of which of the Finance, Tata Motors Finance Solution, IIFL Finance and
following country? Mahindra Rural Housing Finance Ltd.
A. Japan • The other modes of verification prescribed under the
B. China Money Laundering Act include offline verification under
the Aadhaar Act, use of a passport and any other different scenarios—conservative, higher demand,
officially valid document or modes of identification as higher hydro, and higher BESS cost assumptions.
may be notified by the central government, and the • In terms of generation, the report projects a rise of
client has a voluntary choice to opt for the mode of electricity generation from non-fossil fuels (counting in
verification. large hydro) from 25 per cent in 2022-23 to 44 per cent
• Section 11A of the Prevention of Money Laundering by 2030.
Act provides for verification of identity by reporting • In terms of capacity, non-fossil fuel-based sources
entities. would increase from 42 per cent now to 64 per cent, even
• The amendment is a part of a series of changes being as the total installed power capacity would rise to
undertaken in the money laundering law to plug 777GW by 2030, the report says.
loopholes ahead of India’s proposed assessment later • Between 2005 and 2022, per capita electricity
this year under the Financial Action Task Force (FATF), consumption doubled from 631 units to 1255 units in
the global money laundering and terrorist financing India, making it the third largest electricity market in the
watchdog. world.
• E-KYC (know your customer) carried out through OTP-
based Aadhaar authentication allows entities to offer a 256. Recently as per report World Bank’s executive board
limited set of services to their users. Such a KYC has to be elected Ajay Banga to a five-year term as ___________
renewed every year and the aggregate amount of term president.
loans sanctioned shall not exceed Rs 60,000 in a year. A. 13th
B. 14th
255. According to recently released data by Central C. 17th
Electricity Authority, Ministry of Power India is projected D. 20th
to have ________ GW of energy storage capacity along E. 19th
with 777GW of total installed power capacity by 2029- Answer: B
30. • Former Mastercard CEO and Indian origin Ajay Banga
A. 46 GW is set to become World Bank’s next President.
B. 49 GW • World Bank’s executive board elected Ajay Banga to a
C. 41 GW five-year term as president. The executive board has 25
D. 62 GW members.
E. 75 GW • United States President Joe Biden nominated Banga
Answer: C for the post in late February.
• India is projected to have 41 GW of energy storage • He was the only candidate to replace World Bank
capacity along with 777GW of total installed power chief David Malpass.
capacity by 2029-30, according to a Report on Optimal • 24 members of the World Bank’s executive board
Generation Mix for 2029-30, released by Central voted in Banga’s election. Russia abstained from voting.
Electricity Authority, Ministry of Power. • He is selected as the 14th President of the World Bank
• Based on the hourly dispatch studies and the for a five-year term beginning June 2, 2023.
“capacity mix obtained from Long term studies”, the • He was awarded the Padma Shri Award in 2016.
report says that India would need 41.65 GW/208.25 • The President of the World Bank Group is also the
GWh of Battery Energy Storage Systems (BESS) to meet Chair of the Board of Executive Directors of the IBRD
its electricity demand in 2029-30. (International Bank for Reconstruction and
• These numbers, however, are under the ‘base case Development).
scenario’, where the total fossil fuel and non-fossil fuel • The President of the World Bank Group is also ex
capacities are assumed to be 276 GW and 500 GW, officio chair of the Board of Directors of the IDA
respectively. (International Development Association), IFC
• The report has also studied installed capacities and (International Finance Corporation), and the MIGA
the corresponding BESS requirements under four (Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency).
• The President of the World Bank Group is also ex • His other books are The Small Voice of History and
officio chair of the Administrative Council of the Dominance without Hegemony: History and Power in
International Centre for Settlement of Investment Colonial India.
Disputes (ICSID).
259. World Athletics Day is celebrated every year on
257. In May as per report Accenture has appointed _________to make people aware of the importance of
____________ as India MD. fitness.
A. Ajay Vij A. 2nd May
B. Ajay Banga B. 3rd May
C. Rekha Menon C. 5th May
D. Sandeep Dutta D. 6th May
E. Anupriya Ghosh E. 7th May
Answer: A Answer: E
• Accenture has appointed Ajay Vij as Country • World Athletics Day is celebrated every year on 07
Managing Director, a newly created role, and Sandeep May to make people aware of the importance of fitness.
Dutta as the lead of its India Market Unit. • The theme for World Athletics Day 2023 is “Athletics
• Rekha M. Menon, Senior Managing Director and for All – A New Beginning”.
Chairperson for Accenture in India, would retire as of • World Athletics Day was for the first time celebrated
June 30 and primary responsibilities of the Chairperson in 1996.
would now be undertaken by the new appointees. • It was launched by Primo Nebiolo, best known as the
• Mr. Dutta, who was India Sales Lead, would now former President of the World Athletics.
serve as the company’s India business lead responsible • In 2019, the name was changed to World Athletics.
for driving business and operations in the domestic • World Athletics was founded in 1912 in Stockholm,
market, focusing on growth, market differentiation, and Sweden. It is headquartered in Monaco.
clients.
• Accenture plc is an Irish-American professional 260. World Asthma Day is celebrated every year on first
services company based in Dublin, specializing in ______of May to spread awareness about asthma
information technology services and consulting. disease and care around the world.
Headquarters: Dublin, Ireland. A. Sunday
B. Monday
258. Recently passed away Ranajit Guha was reowned C. Tuesday
_________. D. Thursday
A. Economist E. Friday
B. Actor Answer: C
C. Historian • World Asthma Day is observed on the first Tuesday of
D. Singer May (2nd May ) to spread awareness about asthma
E. Social Activist disease and care around the world.
Answer: C • Every year the event is organized by the Global
• Historian Ranajit Guha passed away at the age of Initiative for Asthma (GINA) to increase awareness about
100. the chronic respiratory disease asthma, its precautions,
• He died due to old age-related ailments at his prevention, and care around the world.
residence in Austria. • The Global Initiative for Asthma (GINA) has
• He played a key role in motivating young historians in designated “Asthma Care for All” as the theme for the
pursuing studies on the subaltern society. 2023 World Asthma Day.
• He was born in Barisal in present-day Bangladesh.
• 'Elementary Aspects of Peasant Insurgency in Colonial 261. Recently as per report _________ edition of the
India' is one of his well-known books. Khelo India University Games will take place from May
23 to June 3 in Uttar Pradesh. A. Cristiano Ronaldo
A. 3rd B. Canelo Alvarez
B. 4th C. LeBron James
C. 5th D. Lionel Messi
D. 2nd E. Kylian Mbappe
E. 6th Answer: A
Answer: A • Cristiano Ronaldo became the world's highest-paid
• Union Minister of Youth Affairs and Sports Anurag athlete after he signed a contract worth more than 200
Thakur and Uttar Pradesh Chief Minister Yogi Adityanath million euros ($219.98 million) with Saudi Arabian side
launched the Logo, jersey, mascot, torch and anthem of Al-Nassr.
the Khelo India University Games (KIUG) 2022 in • After leaving Manchester United, Cristiano Ronaldo
Lucknow recently. joined Saudi Football Club until 2025. His annual playing
• The 3rd edition of the Khelo India University Games salary has increased by $75 million.
will take place from May 23 to June 3. • Lionel Messi is in the second spot with $130 million
• Inspired by the ideology of Kaushal, Neeti and while Kylian Mbappe is in third spot with $120 million.
Dhairya, the games are slated from May 25 to June 3 in • LeBron James ($119.5 million) and Canelo Alvarez
various cities of Uttar Pradesh. ($110 million) are in the fourth and fifth spots
• The game’s mascot Jitu the Barasingha, the exotic respectively.
vibrant state animal who embodies “Garv se Gaurav" • According to the report, sports players are getting
was then unveiled by the Chief Minister himself. more money than ever because of Middle Eastern
• The official logo of the Khelo India University Games investment in golf and football.
2022 Uttar Pradesh represents the rich heritage of Uttar • The world's ten highest-paid athletes collectively got
Pradesh, India’s largest state. The logo is a $1.11 billion before taxes and agents' fees.
representation of the state’s rich traditional and
historical legacy which has been the foundation for its 263. Recently Indian duo Mairaj Ahmed Khan and
development in all aspects viz; education, infrastructure Ganemat Sekhon have won their maiden gold medals at
and sports. the ISSF World Cup Shotgun which is held in
• ‘Shakti’, the official torch of the Khelo India University ____________.
Games, Uttar Pradesh is a symbol of not only its heritage A. Serbia
and the spirit it embodies but also a living entity that is B. Egypt
brimming with energy. C. Saudi Arabia
• The opening ceremony is scheduled for May 25 at the D. UAE
Babu Banarasi Das University in Lucknow. E. USA
• The KIUG 2022 Games will be held in Varanasi, Noida Answer: B
and Gorakhpur, besides the state capital of Lucknow. • ISSF Shotgun World Cup: Mairaj Ahmed Khan and
• The Shooting competition will be organized in New Ganemat Sekhon won gold for India.
Delhi at the Dr. Karni Singh Shooting Range. • On 30 April, Indian duo Mairaj Ahmed Khan and
• For the First time, water sports such as Rowing will be Ganemat Sekhon have won their maiden gold medals at
a part of the Khelo India University Games. the ongoing ISSF World Cup Shotgun in Cairo, Egypt.
• Two indigenous Sports Disciplines namely • On the fourth day of the tournament, the Indian
Mallakhamb and Yogasana, were part of the last edition mixed doubles pair defeated Luis Raul Gallardo Oliveros
of the Khelo India University Games held in Karnataka and Gabriela Rodríguez 6-0 in the final of the skeet
and will also be part of this edition. mixed team event.
• Italy won the bronze through their crack pairing of
262. According to the Forbes' 2023 highest-paid athletes Simona Scoschetti and Gabriele Rossetti.
list ___________became the world's highest-paid
athlete.
• It was the second gold medal in the mixed team event • Brecel, 28, is just the fourth non-British winner at the
for young Indian shooter Ganemat Sekhon, as well as the Crucible and the first overseas player to triumph since
fourth senior World Cup medal. Neil Robertson in 2010.
• Veteran shooter Mairaj won his fifth senior ISSF • The International Billiards & Snooker Federation is an
medal after winning the gold. organisation that governs non-professional snooker and
English billiards around the world. The organisation is
264. Recently passed away Tori Bowie was related to headquartered in Doha, Qatar.
which of the following sports?
A. Football 266. In May as per report India’s Bindyarani Devi has
B. Cricket clinched a silver medal in the women’s ___________
C. Polo category at the Asian Weightlifting Championships 2023
D. Atheletics in Jinju, South Korea.
E. Hockey A. 49 Kg
Answer: D B. 55 Kg
• Former 100 metres world champion Tori Bowie has C. 69 Kg
died at the age of 32. D. 63 Kg
• The American was crowned world champion in 2017 E. 75 Kg
and won three Olympic medals at the Rio Games in 2016. Answer: B
• Bowie converted from the long jump in 2014 and had • In Weightlifting, India’s Bindyarani Devi has clinched
an immediate impact, becoming the fastest woman in a silver medal in the women’s 55kg category at the Asian
the world that year. Weightlifting Championships 2023 in Jinju, South Korea.
• At the Rio Olympics two years later, she prevented a • Sorokhaibam Bindyarani Devi registered a combined
Jamaican clean sweep of the medals when she finished lift of 194 kg to finish second on the podium.
second to Elaine Thompson in a time of 10.83sec with • China’s Chen Guan Ling won the gold medal with a
Shelly-Ann Fraser-Pryce third. combined lift of 204 kg.
• Bowie also won 200m bronze and anchored the US
4x100m relay quartet to gold at those Games. 267. In May as per report Napoli won their first Italian
• Bowie then re-entered the long jump and came fourth 'Serie A' title after ___________ years.
at the 2019 world championships. A. 30 years
B. 33 years
265. In May as per report ___________ has won his first C. 41 years
ever world title after beating Mark Selby 18-15 in an D. 45 years
enthralling World Championship finale at the Crucible. E. 25 years
A. Pankaj Advani Answer: B
B. Ronnie O’Sullivan • Napoli won their first Italian Serie A title in 33 years,
C. Judd Trump clinching the title with a 1-1 draw at Udinese.
D. Luca Brecel • The title is Napoli's third in Italy's top division and
E. Matthew Short their first since the legendary Argentine player Diego
Answer: D Maradona led them to championships in 1987 and 1990.
• Luca Brecel has won his first ever world title after • Napoli's home stadium was renamed in Maradona's
beating Mark Selby 18-15 in an enthralling World honour following his death in November 2020.
Championship finale at the Crucible.
• Brecel, 28, was made to wait for his crowning 268. In May as per report Neeraj Chopra defeated
moment, with Selby staging a superb fightback after his Grenada’s World champion Anderson Peters to win the
opponent moved to within two frames of victory. Diamond League season-opener in Doha with World-
leading throw of ___________.
A. 89.56m
B. 85.45 m Establishment (ADE), Bengaluru was involved in the
C. 88.93 m development of this container.
D. 88.67m • Regional Center for Military Airworthiness (RCMA),
E. 89.54 m Kanpur, headed by the Centre for Military Airworthiness
Answer: D & Certification (CEMILAC), Bengaluru has given the
• On 5 May, Olympic champion javelin thrower Neeraj crucial flight clearance certification.
Chopra started his Diamond League title with a
comfortable win in the season-opening leg in Doha. 270. What is the name of the first amphibious warfare
• In September 2022, the 25-year-old Chopra had won ship which was decommissioned after 36 years of service
the 2022 Diamond League Final trophy in Switzerland. to the nation on 6th May 2023?
• Chopra hit his straps on his first attempt with a world- A. INS Ela
leading throw of 88.67m, the fourth best effort of his B. INS Imphal
career. C. INS Magar
• Czech Republic's Vadlejch finished second and D. INS Brahmastra
Grenada's Peters finished third. E. INS Kurki
• With this victory, Neeraj has also achieved the world Answer: C
lead. • INS Magar, the first amphibious warfare ship, was
• Doha Diamond League is an annual one-day track and finally decommissioned after 36 years of service to the
field competition held at the Suhaim bin Hamad Stadium nation.
in Doha, Qatar. • The decommissioning ceremony of the INS Magar,
• It is part of the Diamond League, which is the top carrying the naval designation of Landing Ship Tank
level international circuit for the sport. (LST), Large (L) for its ability to carry tanks and other
weapons, was held at Southern Naval Command, Kochi,
269. In May as per report DRDO and Indian Navy on 6 May.
conducted successful maiden test trial of indigenous Air • The chief guest for the event was Chief of Army Staff
Droppable Container ‘ADC-150’ in ________. General Manoj Pande.
A. Odisha • On April 10, 2018, the ship changed its base port to
B. Goa Kochi from Vishakhapatnam for training sea officers,
C. Karnataka after decades of active operational deployment.
D. Uttar Pradesh • INS Magar was built by the Kolkata-based Garden
E. Maharashtra Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE) and was
Answer: B commissioned on July 15, 1987.
• DRDO and Indian Navy conducted successful maiden • INS Magar is 120 metres long and has a beam of 17.5
test trial of indigenous Air Droppable Container ‘ADC- metres. It was deployed for milestone operations like
150’. Operation Pawan to support Indian Peace Keeping Force
• The successful maiden test trial of ‘ADC-150’ has been in Sri Lanka.
conducted from IL 38SD aircraft off the coast of Goa. • INS Magar also served as Humanitarian Aid Disaster
• ADC-150, an indigenously designed and developed Air Response (HADR), the latest operation was the
Droppable Container, has a payload capacity of 150 kg. evacuation of Indians from Malé (capital of Maldives) in
• The trial was conducted to enhance the naval 2020 following the Covid pandemic.
operational logistics capabilities. • But, the most notable operation was in the wake of
• This would reduce the need for ships to come closer to the 2004 tsunami, in which the ship provided relief to
shore to obtain spares and stores. more than 1,300 survivors.
• Three DRDO laboratories - Naval Science &
Technological Laboratory (NSTL), Visakhapatnam; Aerial 271. Consider the following statement regarding 'Poshan
Delivery Research & Development Establishment Bhi, Padhai Bhi' scheme. Which of the following
(ADRDE), Agra and Aeronautical Development statement is incorrect?
A. Union Minister Smriti Irani launched the 'Poshan Bhi, • Through the changes introduced by the “Poshan bhi,
Padhai Bhi' scheme. Padhai bhi” ECCE policy, every child would be provided
B. The main aim of the 'Poshan Bhi, Padhai Bhi' scheme with at least two hours of high-quality pre-school
is to strengthen Early Childhood Care and Education instruction daily.
(ECCE). • All States will follow the national ECCE task force
C. The Ministry has allocated Rs 600 crore for the recommendations for a play-based, activity-based
training of Anganwadi Workers (AWW) to effectively learning pedagogy, targeted specifically at
implement ECCE. developmental milestones of 0-3-year-olds as well as 3-
D. The National Institute of Public Cooperation and Child 6-year-olds, including special support for Divyang
Development (NIPCCD) will provide the training for children.
anganwadi workers.
E. Through the changes introduced by the “Poshan bhi, 272. In May as per report ____________announced the
Padhai bhi” ECCE policy, every child would be provided Motor Vehicle Aggregator Scheme 2023, which is aimed
with at least three hours of high-quality pre-school at regulating cab aggregators and delivery service
instruction daily. providers.
Answer: E A. Delhi
• Union Minister Smriti Irani launched the 'Poshan Bhi, B. Maharashtra
Padhai Bhi' scheme. C. Punjab
• The main aim of the 'Poshan Bhi, Padhai Bhi' scheme D. Karnataka
is to strengthen Early Childhood Care and Education E. Uttar Pradesh
(ECCE). Answer: A
• 'Poshan Bhi, Padhai Bhi' scheme will help in making • The Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi
world's largest, universal, high-quality preschool (GNCTD) announced the Motor Vehicle Aggregator
network in India. Scheme 2023, which is aimed at regulating cab
• Its main target is the overall development of children aggregators and delivery service providers.
in every domain that is mentioned in the National • A draft of the scheme was approved by Delhi Chief
Curriculum Framework. Minister Arvind Kejriwal, which will now be sent to the
• It will help in the physical and motor development, Delhi LG.
cognitive development, and socio-emotional-ethical • This scheme prioritises the safety of passengers and
development of children. ensures timely grievance redressal, while also promoting
• EECE is the main component of Mission Saksham the use of electric vehicles (EVs) and reducing pollution
Anganwadi and Poshan 2.0 (Mission Poshan 2.0). levels in the city.
• Union Minister Smriti Irani said that the government • The scheme follows a ‘polluter pays’ principle, which
is trying to upgrade more than 117,000 mini-Anganwadi will make the per vehicle licence fee for a conventional
centers into full-fledged centres. vehicle significantly higher than an EV.
• 1.39 million operational Anganwadi centers across • The scheme will also mark a historic first for the
India are providing supplementary nutrition and early nation where a state government will be introducing a
care and education to around 80 million children. mandatory transition of commercial vehicles from
• The Ministry has allocated Rs 600 crore for the conventional vehicles to electric vehicles.
training of Anganwadi Workers (AWW) to effectively • The Aggregator and Delivery service provider shall
implement ECCE. also be mandated to switch to an all electric fleet by
• The National Institute of Public Cooperation and Child April 1, 2030.
Development (NIPCCD) will provide the training for • The scheme will make it mandatory for aggregators
anganwadi workers. to install a panic button and integration with 112 (Delhi
• The objective of the program is to transform Police) for emergencies.
anganwadi centers into not just nutrition hubs but also
education-imparting centers. 273. Recently in may as per report NCB has seized drugs
worth Rs 40,000 crore in a year under which operation? • In addition, UGC has launched two new portals:
A. Operation Samudrasafai 'UTSAH' and 'Professor of Practice'.
B. Operation Sarthi • The UGC will use the Undertaking Transformative
C. Operation Samudrasurksha Strategies and Actions in Higher Education (UTSAH)
D. Operation Samudragasti portal as a platform for providing detailed information
E. Operation Samudragupt about its initiatives for qualitative improvement in
Answer: E higher education.
• On May 13, the Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB) and • To get experienced professional experts in the
the Navy seized around 2,700 kg of narcotics worth Rs required area, the Professors of Practice (PoP) portal is
15,000 crore in the Arabian Sea off the coast of Kochi. designed to facilitate institutions.
• In 2022, Operation Samudragupt was launched to
stop drug smuggling through sea routes. 275. Recently as per report India has set a deadline of
• In February 2022, the first success of 'Operation _________ to establish green hydrogen bunkering and
Samudragupt' was achieved. refuelling facilities at all 12 major ports in the drive to
• In a joint operation by the NCB and the Indian Navy, cut its carbon footprint.
529 kg of hashish, 221 kg of methamphetamine, and 13 A. 2030
kg of heroin were seized in the deep sea off the coast of B. 2032
Gujarat, sourced from Baluchistan and Afghanistan. C. 2035
• In October 2022, during the second successful D. 2024
operation the team intercepted an Iranian boat off the E. 2025
coast of Kerala. Answer: C
• A total of 200 kg of high-grade heroin imported from • India has set a deadline of 2035 to establish green
Afghanistan was seized and six Iranian drug traffickers hydrogen bunkering and refuelling facilities at all 12
were apprehended. major ports in the drive to cut its carbon footprint.
• One of the world's biggest emitters of greenhouse
274. In May as per report a new user-friendly website gases, India aims to cut emissions to net zero by 2070,
and two portals- “UTSAH” and “Professor of Practice” and the shipping minister said three of its ports would
has been launched by which organization? initially have bunker facilities for green hydrogen and
A. National Council for Teacher Education ammonia.
B. Central Board of Secondary Education • The initial ports in the effort are to be Paradip in the
C. University Grants Commission east, Kandla in the west, and Tuticorin in the south.
D. National Council of Educational Research and • The new shipping guidelines require ports to satisfy at
Training least 60% of electricity needs through renewables by
E. All India Council for Technical Education 2030 and 90% by 2047.
Answer: C • Also, by 2030, all ports must achieve cuts of more
• On May 16, 2023, the University Grants Commission than a fifth in energy consumption on each tonne of
(UGC) has launched a newly designed website and portal cargo versus 2023.
to transform higher education in India. • Green belt area under port authority to be increased
• In order to support universities and colleges in by over 20% by 2030 and 33% by 2047 of the port area
focusing on providing the younger generation with a • To boost use of gas, the shipping ministry wants ports
high-quality education, the decision has been made to to set up at least one liquefied natural gas (LNG)
assist and facilitate these institutions. bunkering station by 2030 and electric vehicle charging
• The decision is aimed at enhancing the educational stations in and around port areas by 2025.
experience and ensuring that students get a high-quality
education that prepares them for the future. 276. In May as per report ____________has bagged
• To make more user friendly, informative and Sagar Shreshta Award of Ministry of Ports Shipping &
dynamic, UGC has redesigned the website. Waterways for best performance among all Indian Major
Ports for best turnaround time in non-container port • In the incremental category, Mormugao Port has
category, during the year 2022-23. been given another award for the best Ship Berth Day
A. Kandla Port Output.
B. MurmagaoPort • Kamarajar Port has been awarded for Best Pre-
C. ParadipPort Berthing Detention Time.
D. Kamarajar Port
E. Cochin Port 277. Who among the following is leading the Indian
Answer: E delegation at 76th Cannes Film Festival in France?
• On 10 May “Harit Sagar” the Green Port Guidelines A. Meenakshi Lekhi
2023 has been launched by Minister for Ports, Shipping B. Manushi Chillar
and Waterways Sarbananda Sonowal at a function in C. Deepika Podukone
New Delhi. D. Anurag Thakur
• The Guidelines envisage enhancing the ecosystem E. Dr L Murugan
performance in port development, operation and Answer: E
maintenance with the concept of 'working with nature' • The 76th Cannes Film Festival started on 16 May 2023
and minimizing the impact on the biotic components of in France.
the port ecosystem. • The festival officially started with the world premiere
• It covers key points of National Green Hydrogen of the Johnny Depp starring film Jeanne Du Barry.
Mission related to ports, development of green hydrogen • Minister of State for Information and Broadcasting Dr
facility, storage of LNG, harnessing of onshore wind L Murugan is leading the Indian delegation at the 12-day
energy etc. and provides opportunity for adoption of event.
Green Reporting Initiative (GRI) standard. • Filmmaker Guneet Monga of The Elephant
• Cochin Port has bagged Sagar Shreshta Award of Whisperers fame, Indian actresses Manushi Chillar, Esha
Ministry of Ports Shipping & Waterways for best Gupta and Manipuri actor Kangabam Tomba are
performance among all Indian Major Ports for best accompanying him.
turnaround time in non-container port category, during • Information and Broadcasting Minister Anurag
the year 2022-23. Thakur addressed the inaugural session through a video
• Union Minister for Ports, Shipping & Waterways message.
Sarbananda Sonowal has given the award to M. Beena, • India’s Cannes pavilion this year will be based on the
Chairperson, Cochin Port Authority at a function held in Saraswati Yantra, an abstract representation of Goddess
New Delhi. Saraswati, drawn from the ancient text of ‘Maha
• The award is in recognition of the excellent Upanishad’.
performance of Cochin Port in handling dry bulk and • The pavilion has been designed by the National
liquid bulk cargo vessels. Institute of Design, Ahmedabad, with the theme
• The Best Absolute Performance Award for the year “Showcasing India’s Creative Economy” to the global
2022-23 has been awarded to Deendayal Port, Kandla for community. The film festival will be held from May 16 to
handling the highest ever cargo of 137.56 MMT. May 27.
• Paradip Port has received the award for Best • Four Indian films have made it to the official selection
Performance shield on Ship Berth Day Output. in Cannes Film Festival – which include Kanu Behl’s Agra
• Kamarajar Port has been adjudged successful in pre- and Anurag Kashyap’s Kennedy.
berthing detention time. • Cannes Film Festival is an annual film festival. It is
• Cochin Port has been given the trophy for better held in Cannes, France. It is one of the "Big Three" major
performance in turn-around-time (non-container port). European film festivals.
• Best Incremental Performance Award was given to • It reviews new films of all genres, including
Paradip Port for achieving highest cargo growth rate of documentaries from all over the world.
16.56% last year.
278. In May as per report PM Modi laid the foundation
stone of Laser Interferometer Gravitational Wave set up with the aim of decarbonizing the Indian economy
Observatory – India (LIGO-India) in __________ of by pricing Green House Gas (GHG) emissions through the
Maharashtra. trading of Carbon Credit Certificates.
A. Vishakapatnam Which of the following ministries is developing a carbon
B. Dadra credit trading scheme?
C. Mumbai A. Bureau of Energy Efficiency
D. Wardha B. Ministry of Power
E. Hingoli C. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
Answer: E D. Only 2 and 3
• PM Modi laid the foundation stone of Laser E. All of the above
Interferometer Gravitational Wave Observatory – India Answer: E
(LIGO-India). • A national framework will be set up with the aim of
• The LIGO-India facility is being constructed in Hingoli decarbonizing the Indian economy by pricing Green
district in Maharashtra. House Gas (GHG) emissions through the trading of
• LIGO-India will be an advanced gravitational-wave Carbon Credit Certificates.
observatory to be located in India as part of a worldwide • For this purpose, the Bureau of Energy Efficiency,
network. Ministry of Power, Ministry of Environment, Forest and
• Two existing LIGO observatories in the United States Climate Change are jointly developing a carbon credit
detected gravitational waves for the first time in 2015. trading scheme.
• Since then, two more similar detectors have come • On 11 May, a 'Stakeholder Consultation on Accredited
onboard, one in Italy and the other in Japan. Carbon Verifiers under ICM' was organized in New Delhi.
• LIGO India would be the fifth node of this network, • The event was organized with participants from key
and possibly the last. stakeholders including Accredited Energy Auditors,
• The LIGO facility involves the construction of two 4- Carbon/Energy Verifiers, Sector Experts.
km long vacuum chambers in L-shape along with other • As India currently has an energy savings-based
structures. The facility is set to become operational by market mechanism, the new avatar Carbon Credit
2030. Trading Scheme will enhance energy transmission efforts
• It is set to become the largest scientific facility in with an enhanced scope that will cover potential energy
India. sectors in India.
• This facility will be capable of sensing gravitational • For these sectors, GHG emissions intensity
waves generated during the merger of massive benchmarks and targets will be developed, which will be
astrophysical objects such as black holes, and neutron aligned with India's emissions graph against climate
stars. targets.
• Rare Earth Permanent magnet Plant in • Carbon credits will be traded based on the
Visakhapatnam performance of this regional graph.
• The new magnet plant would produce rare earth • In addition, it is envisaged that a voluntary
magnets like Samarium-Cobalt and Neodymium-Iron- mechanism will concurrently develop to encourage GHG
Boron. reductions from non-obligatory areas.
• This plant has been built inside an existing facility of • India has been at the forefront of climate action to
Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) in meet climate goals through its ambitious Nationally
Visakhapatnam. Determined Contributions (NDCs).
• The National Hadron Beam Therapy Facility of Tata • The government is developing the ICM to facilitate
Memorial Centre, Navi Mumbai works to undertake the achievement of India's enhanced climate targets and
highly precise delivery of radiation to the tumour with to meet future targets.
minimal dose to the surrounding normal structures. • ICM will help achieve the NDC target of reducing the
emissions intensity of GDP by 45 percent by 2030 relative
279. Recently as per report a national framework will be
to 2005 levels by accelerating the transition to a low- • The Model Prison Act, 2023 may serve as a guiding
carbon economy. document for the States, and for adoption in their
jurisdiction.
280. In May as per report Congress has won the 2023 • Union Home Ministry had assigned the task of
Karnataka Assembly elections with the largest vote revision of the Prisons Act, 1894 to the Bureau of Police
share and seats after 34 years. Research and Development.
How many assembly seats are there in Karnataka • The Model Prison Act, 2023 focuses on vocational
Assembly? training and skill development of prisoners and their
A. 254 reintegration into society.
B. 284 • Salient features of the Model Prisons Act:
C. 264 • Provision for security assessment and segregation of
D. 224 prisoners and individual sentence planning
E. 244 • Grievance redressal, prison development board and
Answer: D attitudinal change towards prisoners
• Congress has won the 2023 Karnataka Assembly • Provision of separate accommodation for women
elections with the largest vote share and seats after 34
prisoners and transgender
years.
• Provision for using technology in prison
• Congress won 135 seats out of a total 224 Assembly administration to bring transparency in prison
seats and secured 42.88 per cent vote share. administration
• The election is the biggest victory for "any party in • The Bureau of Police Research and Development was
Karnataka" since 1989 during Veerendra Patil's rule, set up in 1970. It is headquartered in New Delhi. Balaji
when the Congress won 178 seats with a vote share of Srivastava is its current Director General.
43.76 percent.
• BJP won 66 seats, JD(S) won 19 seats, while four seats 282. In May as per report President of India recently
were won by others. conferred _____________ Gallantry awards during
• In 2018, the BJP had won 104 seats with a vote share Defence Investiture Ceremony (Phase-1) held in New
of 36.3%. Delhi .
• State elections are administered by the Election A. 44
Commission of India under the Article 324. B. 37
C. 41
281. In May as per report government had decided to D. 46
review and revise the outdated Prison Act __________ E. 32
framed in the colonial era and has finalized ‘Model Answer: B
Prisons Act, 2023’. • The President of India recently conferred 37 Gallantry
A. Prisons Act, 1844 awards, including eight Kirti Chakras and 29 Shaurya
B. Prisons Act, 1856 Chakras, during Defence Investiture Ceremony (Phase-1)
C. Prisons Act, 1845 held in New Delhi .
D. Prisons Act, 1899 • They have been instituted by the Government of India
E. Prisons Act, 1894 to honour the acts of bravery and sacrifice of the
Answer: E officers/personnel of the Armed Forces, other lawfully
• Union Home Ministry recently said that constituted Forces and civilians.
comprehensive ‘Model Prisons Act, 2023’ has been • These gallantry awards are announced twice a year -
finalized. first on the occasion of the Republic Day and then on the
• The government had earlier decided to review and occasion of the Independence Day.
revise the colonial-era outdated Prison Act in tune with • Three gallantry awards, namely Param Vir Chakra,
contemporary modern-day needs and correctional Maha Vir Chakra and Vir Chakra, were instituted by the
ideology. Government of India on 26th January, 1950.
• The order of precedence of these awards is the Param India achieved ODF Plus status under the Swachh Bharat
Vir Chakra, the Ashoka Chakra, the Mahavir Chakra, the Mission Gramin (SBM-G) Phase II.
Kirti Chakra, the Vir Chakra and the Shaurya Chakra. A. 30 %
• Persons recommended for the award shall not be B. 70 %
involved in any adverse report or should not have been C. 40 %
conveyed any displeasure or censure or given any D. 50 %
punishment in a court martial proceedings or through E. 60 %
administrative action. Answer: D
• 50% of Villages in India achieved ODF Plus status
283. Whom among the following has launched a mobile under the Swachh Bharat Mission Gramin (SBM-G) Phase
app called Meri LiFE (My life)? II.
A. Mansukh L. Mandaviya • According to the Ministry of Jal Shakti half of the
B. Bhupender Yadav villages in India have attained ODF Plus status under the
C. Virendra Kumar Swachh Bharat Mission Gramin (SBM-G) Phase II.
D. Rajnath Singh • More than 2.96 lakh villages have declared
E. Pralhad Joshi themselves ODF Plus.
Answer: B • India is on track to reach its SBM-G Phase II targets by
• A mobile app called Meri LiFE (My life) has been 2024-25.
launched by Environment, Forest, and Climate Change • Telangana, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, and Uttar
Minister Bhupender Yadav in New Delhi. Pradesh are top- performing states among big states.
• The app is inspired by the concept of LiFE envisioned • In small states, Goa and Sikkim are on the top in
by the Prime Minister at COP 26, which emphasizes on achieving ODF status.
conscious and deliberate use rather than mindless and • The central government has allocated a total of Rs.
wasteful consumption. 83,938 crore to Swachh Bharat Mission Grameen
• On October 20, 2022, the Prime Minister launched between 2014-15 and 2021-22.
Mission LIFE (Lifestyle for Environment) at Kevadia, • The SBM-G program has positively impacted the
Gujarat. health and well-being of millions across India.
• It focused on bringing about a change in the behavior • ODF plus village is defined as “A village which
of each individual through simple actions. sustains its ODF status and ensures solid and liquid
• The nodal ministry for implementation of Mission LIFE waste management and is visually clean”.
is the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate • Criteria for ODF Plus is given below:
Change. • All households in the village have access to a
• To further catalyze pan-India support and awareness functional toilet facility.
about LiFE, a month-long mass mobilization campaign is • All schools/ Panchyat Ghar/ Anganwadi centres
currently underway and will culminate on World should have access to the functional toilet.
Environment Day (5 June 2023). • The villages should have arrangements for Solid
• Two dedicated portals for LiFE have been developed waste management and liquid waste management.
by the Ministry, to create a structured reporting format • All public places have minimal litter, minimal
that can track the progress being made on LiFE. stagnant wastewater and no plastic waste dump.
• The Mission Life Portal is open access and can be used
to download 100+ creatives, videos and knowledge 285. Recently as per report ______________ became
materials. Kerala’s first fully insured ward.
• To upload event reports and capture the progress of A. Waynad
the mass mobilisation drive, the Meri LiFE Portal has B. Periyar
been developed for ministries and institutions. C. Kottam
D. Kalangummukal
284. Recently as per report ____________ %of Villages in E. Idduki
Answer: D • During the five-day-long camp ‘Seva for Sangha’, the

• Kalangummukal, Ward 32 of the Punalur Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) has also joined hands
municipality, is a nondescript rural part mostly with the organisers to set up medical camps.
populated by underprivileged families.
• It became Kerala’s first fully insured ward as 1,382 287. In May as per report 42nd ASEAN Summit has been
residents in the five to 70 age group will be eligible for started in which of the following country?
insurance coverage against accidental death and A. Israel
disability. B. UAE
• An initiative of ward councillor G. Jayaprakash, the C. Singapore
entire ward has an insurance coverage of over ₹13.82 D. Malaysia
crore under a plan provided by United India Insurance. E. Indonesia
• All permanent and temporary residents of the ward Answer: E
have been offered the financial safety net of insurance • 42nd ASEAN Summit formally started in Labuan Bajo
coverage, and the policies will be handed over to them town Indonesia.
by next week. • Indonesia’s President Joko Widodo urged unity and
• This is a first-of-its-kind initiative in the country, and economic integration for regional peace and
the councillor contributed half the amount required for development.
the premium from his honorarium. • The summit is expected to produce a roadmap for
• The rest of the amount was sponsored by St. Thomas Timor-Leste's full membership.
Senior Secondary School at Punalur, which came to • Last year, ASEAN countries agreed to include Timor-
around ₹2 lakh. Leste (East Timor) as the 11th member.
• Dependents of any policyholder will receive ₹1 lakh in • Timor-Leste's Prime Minister Taur Matan Ruak
case of accidental death, while those with permanent or attended the summit as Observer.
partial disabil ity will receive financial assistance up to a • The theme of this year’s summit is "ASEAN Matters:
maximum of ₹1 lakh based on the percentage of Epicentrum of Growth".
disability. • The East Asia Summit will be held on September 6-7 in
Jakarta.
286. Recently seen in news Monlam Chenm festival is • ASEAN was established on 8 August 1967. Its
associated with which of the following country? headquarters are in Jakarta, Indonesia.
A. Assam • Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia,
B. Manipur Myanmar, the Philippines, Singapore, Thailand and
C. Ladakh Vietnam are members of the ASEAN.
D. Mizoram
E. Nagaland 288. Recently seen in news International Religious
Answer: C Freedom Report is published by ____________.
• An annual five-day-long Festival, "Ladakh Monlam A. UNESCO
Chenmo," by Buddhist monks and nuns began in Leh for B. UNDP
world peace and happiness. C. U.S. Department of State
• It has resumed after three years of discontinuation D. UNICEF
due to Covid. It is being organized since 1991. E. World Bank
• It is being organised by the All Ladakh Gonpa Answer: C
Association. • India rejected the United States State Department's
• The "Seva for Sangha’ camp will be organized from report on religious freedom, describing it as motivated
May 11 to 16 at Leh in collaboration with the district and biased.
administration Leh. • US State Department 2022 Report on International
Religious Freedom remains based on misinformation and
flawed understanding.
• The report includes a chapter on India. It was released • It has been formed with the aim of creating a high-
on 15 May 2023. level coordination platform to deal with strategic
• The U.S. report on religious freedom had criticised challenges in alliances related to trade, reliable
Indian anti-conversion laws. technology and security.
• It referred to Hindus in Kashmir who claimed that the • On 15 May 2023, Union Minister Shri Piyush Goyal
government was not allowing them to leave the valley had a bilateral meeting with EVP Dombrowskis, followed
despite being targeted by radical Islamist militants. by Working Group-3 stakeholder consultations in the
• It mentioned the BJP approximately 28 times in its presence of business leaders from both EU and India.
description of purported hate crimes and statements • The WG3 meeting focused on trade, technology and
made by party leaders against minorities. resilient supply chains and was attended by six business
• It mentioned BJP state politician Haribhushan Thakur leaders from the EU and India.
Bachaul, P.C. George, former BJP Rajasthan legislator • Union Minister Piyush Goyal will attend the
Gyan Dev Ahuja and others. stakeholder event for Working Group 1 and 2 on 16 May.
• The report mentioned the Vishva Hindu Parishad 24 • Group 1 focuses on digital governance and
times and the Bajrang Dal seven times. connectivity, whereas, Group 2 deals with clean and
• It also mentioned Union Home Minister Amit Shah's green energy technologies.
public meeting in Hyderabad.
• The names of Mohammad Zubair, Bilkis Bano, and 290. In May as per report ________passed a legislation
Umar Khalid also appear in the report. seeking to explicitly ban caste discrimination, in a
• International Religious Freedom Report describes the historic move that would make America’s most populous
status of religious freedom in every country. The U.S. State also the country’s first to outlaw caste-based bias.
Department of State submits this annual report to the A. Georgetown
Congress. B. New York
C. California
289. Recently as per report _________edition of D. Washington
ministerial meeting of the India-EU Trade and E. Tokyo
Technology Council was held in Brussels, Belgium on 16 Answer: C
May 2023. • The California Senate has overwhelmingly passed a
A. 1st legislation seeking to explicitly ban caste discrimination
B. 2nd in a historic move that would make America’s most
C. 3rd populous state, also the country’s first, to outlaw caste-
D. 4th based bias.
E. 7th • State Senator Aisha Wahab, the first Muslim and
Answer: A Afghan American elected to the state legislature,
• On 16 May 2023, the first ministerial meeting of the introduced the Bill last month
India-EU Trade and Technology Council will be held in • Passed by 34-1 vote, the bill – SB403, would make
Brussels, Belgium. California the first US State to add caste as a protected
• Union Minister of External Affairs (EAM), Union category in its anti-discrimination laws.
Minister of State for Electronics & Information • Promoters of the bill, being led by non-profit Equality
Technology (Meity) and Shri Piyush Goyal, Minister of Lab, said that a similar bill is being introduced in the
Commerce & Industry will be present as co-chairs. State House of Representatives, before it can be sent to
• It will be co-chaired by Executive Vice President Mr. the Governor to be signed into a law.
Dombrovskis and Ms. Vestager from the EU side.
• PM Modi and President of the European Commission 291. According to a United Nations report ___________
Ms. Ursula von der Leyen had announced the formation topped the list of 10 counties that together account for
of TTC in April 2022 in New Delhi. 60 per cent of global maternal deaths, stillbirths and
newborn deaths.
A. Pakistan under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA)
B. India for certain activities.
C. China • This means that they will be responsible for violation
D. Japan of law.
E. France • As per the Finance Ministry’s notification, five
Answer: B categories of activities, when conducted in the course of
• According to a United Nations report, India is leading business on behalf of or for another person, are included
the list of 10 counties that together account for 60 per in the ambit of PMLA. These categories are given below:
cent of global maternal deaths, stillbirths and newborn • Acting as a formation agent of companies and limited
deaths, and 51 per cent of live births globally. liability partnerships
• This report has been released at the ongoing • Acting as (or arranging for another person to act as) a
‘International Maternal Newborn Health Conference’ director or secretary of a company, a partner of a firm or
(IMNHC 2023). a similar position in relation to other companies and
• As per the report, 4.5 million deaths — maternal limited liability partnerships
deaths (0.29 million), stillbirths (1.9 million) and • Providing a registered office, business address or
newborn deaths (2.3 million) occurred in 2020-21. accommodation, correspondence or administrative
• According to the first-ever joint Every Newborn action address for a company or a limited liability partnership
Plan (ENAP) and Ending Preventable Maternal Mortality or a trust
(EPMM) progress tracking report, global progress has • Acting as (or arranging for another person to act as) a
slowed in deaths of pregnant women, mothers and trustee of an express trust or performing the equivalent
babies in the last eight years. function for another type of trust
• The largest number of newborn and maternal deaths • Acting as (or arranging for another person to act as) a
has been witnessed in Sub-Saharan Africa and Central nominee shareholder for another person
and Southern Asia regions. • Intermediaries are not included in the new notified
• In 2020, 7,88,000 maternal deaths, stillbirths and categories. There are some exemptions. The exemptions
neonatal deaths occurred in India. are given below.
• India is followed by Nigeria, Pakistan, Democratic • Any activity that is carried out as part of any
Republic of the Congo, Ethiopia, Bangladesh and China. agreement of lease, sub-lease, tenancy or any other
• India is responsible for 17 per cent of global live births agreement or arrangement for the use of land or
which could be a factor for the large number of maternal building or any space and the consideration is subjected
deaths, stillbirths and neonatal deaths. to deduction of income-tax.
• Any activity that is carried out by an employee on
292. Recently as per report Prevention of Money behalf of his employer in the course of or in relation to
Laundering Act 2002 was amended to include whom his employment
among the following? • Any activity that is carried out by an advocate, a
A. Cost Accountant chartered accountant, cost accountant or company
B. Virtual Digital Asset secretary in practice, who is engaged in the formation of
C. Company Secretaries a company to the extent of filing a declaration as
D. Directors of the Company required by Company law
E. All of the above • Last week, practicing chartered accountants,
Answer: E company secretaries and cost accountants were
• Finance Ministry has included directors of a company categorized by the centre as a reporting entity for certain
as reporting entity under the PMLA for certain activities activities carried out by them on behalf of their clients.
carried out in the course of business.
• CAs, CS and cost accountants are now obligated under
• It has also included trustees of an express trust and PMLA to do know-your-client (KYC) norms of all clients
nominee shareholders of company as reporting entity engaging in the specified activities.
• Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 provides Answer: C

legal framework to combat money laundering. It came • EXIM (Export-Import) Bank will launch its GIFT City
into force with effect from July 1, 2005. subsidiary for trade finance by Q3 of current Financial
Year (FY24).
293. In May as per report Central Consumer Protection • The proposed subsidiary is set to be named India
Authority (CCPA) has issued orders against Amazon, EXIM Finserv IFSC Private Ltd.
Flipkart, Snapdeal, Shopclues, and Meesho for selling • In the starting, the subsidiary arm will focus on
______________________ on their platforms. international export factoring.
A. Pressure cookers • MD Harsha Bangari said that rupee-denominated
B. Gas cylinders trade is on the cards. Rupee facility for foreign trade is
C. Corrosive acids not available yet.
D. Car seat belt alarm stopper clips • EXIM Bank plans to raise $4 billion via overseas debt.
E. None of these • It plans to raise ₹40.000-45,000 crore in the domestic
Answer: D market in FY24, against ₹52,000 crore in FY23.
• CCPA has issued orders against five e-commerce • Export-Import Bank of India (Exim Bank) was
companies for selling car seat belt alarm stopper clips on established in 1982. Its headquarters are located in
their platforms. Mumbai.
• The names of these e-commerce companies are • It is wholly owned by the government of India and
Amazon, Flipkart, Snapdeal, Shopclues, and Meesho. was set up to finance, facilitate and promote India’s
• The Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) international trade.
passed orders against these five e-commerce platforms
for violation of consumer rights and unfair trade 295. In May as per report RBI announced banks will start
practice. a ‘100 Days 100 Pays’ campaign from ______________.
• In a letter to the Department of Consumer Affairs, A. 1st October, 2023
Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) B. 1st September, 2023
highlighted the issue of sale of car seat belt alarm C. 1st August, 2023
stopper clips. D. 1st July, 2023
• CCPA took cognizance of the matter and referred the E. 1st June, 2023
matter to DG Investigation (CCPA). Answer: E
• After the investigation report, CCPA directed the e- • RBI said banks will start a ‘100 Days 100 Pays’
commerce platforms to permanently delist all car seat campaign.
belt alarm stopper clips. • Under the campaign, the banks will trace and settle
• Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) was the top 100 unclaimed deposits of every bank in every
established with effect from 24th July 2020. It is district within 100 days.
headquartered in New Delhi. Nidhi Khare is current Chief • ‘100 Days 100 Pays’ campaign is a campaign for
Commissioner of CCPA. return of unclaimed deposits.
• The objective of CCPA is to promote, protect and • The banks will start the campaign from June 1, 2023.
enforce the rights of consumers as a class. • As of the end of February, RBI had Rs 35,012 crore of
unclaimed deposits transferred to it by Public Sector
294. In May as per report ____________announced that Banks. These deposits have not been operated for 10
it will launch its GIFT City subsidiary for trade finance by years or more.
Q3 of current Financial Year (FY24). • Last month, RBI had announced a Web portal to
A. Axis Bank enable search across multiple banks for possible
B. HDFC Bank unclaimed deposits based on user inputs.
C. EXIM Bank • Unclaimed deposits refer to balances in
D. ICICI Bank savings/current accounts which are not operated for 10
E. IDBI Bank years.
• They also refer to term deposits not claimed within 10 297. In May as per report Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has
years from date of maturity. announced its participation among ___________ other
• Banks transfer unclaimed deposits to the Depositor international regulators in first-ever Greenwashing
Education and Awareness (DEA) fund maintained by the TechSprint to combat greenwashing risks in financial
Reserve Bank of India. services.
• The list of unclaimed deposits is displayed by banks A. 12
on their website. B. 15
C. 17
296. In May as per report RBI said Financial Benchmarks D. 11
India Pvt. Ltd. (FBIL) will stop to publish Mumbai E. 13
Interbank Forward Outright Rate (MIFOR) after Answer: A
__________. • The Global Financial Innovation Network (GFIN) is
A. 30th May, 2023 organizing its first-ever Greenwashing TechSprint to
B. 30th June, 2023 combat greenwashing risks in financial services.
C. 30th July, 2023 • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has announced its
D. 30th August, 2023 participation among 12 other international regulators in
E. 30th September, 2023 this initiative to develop a tool that helps the market and
Answer: B regulators address the issue.
• RBI has emphasized on the need to take steps to • The central bank noted the number of investment
make sure a complete transition away from the London products marketed as ‘green’ was growing.
Interbank Offered Rate (LIBOR) from July 01, 2023. • Greenwashing risks in financial services refer to the
• RBI has advised the banks/Financial Institutions to practice of making exaggerated, misleading, or false
make sure that new transactions undertaken by them or claims about the environmental, social, and governance
their customers do not rely on or are not priced using the (ESG) characteristics of investment products or services.
US$ LIBOR or the MIFOR. • This is done to attract investors who are interested in
• RBI said Financial Benchmarks India Pvt. Ltd. (FBIL) sustainable or responsible investing, but can ultimately
will stop to publish Mumbai Interbank Forward Outright result in harm to the environment or society.
Rate (MIFOR) after June 30, 2023. • Global Financial Innovation Network (GFIN), an
• RBI has advised the banks/FIs to take all necessary international network of more than 50 regulatory
steps to make sure insertion of fallbacks at the earliest in agencies worldwide working together to support
all remaining legacy financial contracts that reference financial innovation in the best interests of consumers.
US$ LIBOR. • Formally launched in January 2019, GFIN seeks to
• RBI had issued an advisory on ‘Roadmap for LIBOR provide a more efficient way for firms to interact with
Transition’ in July 2021. regulators as they seek to develop, execute, and
• The banks/FIs were encouraged to carry out distribute new innovations.
transactions using widely accepted Alternative Reference • GFIN also creates a new framework for cooperation
Rate (ARR) by December 31, 2021. between financial services regulators on innovation-
• On 05 March 2021, the Financial Conduct Authority related topics as they share different experiences and
(FCA), UK has announced that LIBOR will either cease to approaches.
be provided by any administrator or no longer be a • Firms that are successful in their applications will
representative rate immediately after June 30, 2023, in proceed through to on-boarding which will take place on
the case of the remaining US dollar settings. June 1 and 2. This will provide firms with training on the
• Mumbai Interbank Forward Outright Rate (MIFOR) is Digital Sandbox and an in-depth overview of the
a benchmark rate that commercial banks use for TechSprint process.
financial contracts in India. It is published by Financial • The TechSprint will launch on June 5 and will run for 3
Benchmarks India Pvt. Ltd. months, ending with a showcase day in September 2023.
298. In May as per report KKR has sold the country's first • The government will spend around $1.2 billion to
and only renewable energy (RE) Infrastructure modernise the Semi-conductor Laboratory (SCL) in
Investment Trust (InvIT), Virescent Renewable Energy Mohali, a 30-year-old facility currently capable of
Trust (VRET) to India Grid Trust (IndiGrid) in producing 8-inch CMOS microchip wafers mostly used for
___________. the country’s strategic needs such as the space
A. Rs 4,000 crore programme.
B. Rs 8,000 crore • The planned modernisation and commercialisation of
C. Rs 6,000 crore the facility is a part of the government’s $10 billion India
D. Rs 7,000 crore Semiconductor Mission announced in 2021.
E. Rs 1,000 crore • The Union Cabinet approved the modernisation plan
Answer: A in July 2022, which includes an exploration of the
• Global private equity firm KKR has sold the country’s possibility of the Joint Venture (JV) of the Semi-
first and only renewable energy (RE) Infrastructure Conductor Laboratory (SCL) with one or more commercial
Inves-tment Trust (InvIT), Virescent Rene-wable Energy fab partners.
Trust (VRET) to India Grid Trust (IndiGrid). • However, the government has not provided a
• The deal size is estimated to be Rs 4,000 crore. projected timeline for the project.
• VRET said it signed definitive agreements with BSE- • According to a request for proposal floated by the
listed IndiGrid, country’s first and largest power Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
transmission InvIT, to buy all units of VRET along with its (MeitY), the planned upgrade aims to transform SCL into
investment and project managers. an entity with volume production and profitable assets.
• VRET has a portfolio of 16 operating solar projects • The fab, which started production in 1984 was
totaling 538 megawatt (Mw) capacity with an asset devastated by a factory fire in 1989 and has not fully
under management of Rs 4,121 crore as of March 31. recovered the capacity thereafter.
• VRET was launched in 2020 by Virescent • The government estimates the semiconductor market
Infra-structure, which is backed by KKR. In 2021, VRET in India to grow at a compounded annual growth rate of
became India’s first privately listed renewables-focused 22 per cent and reach Rs 9 trillion or 10 per cent of the
InvIT. global market by 2030. from Rs 1.25 trillion in 2020.
• Recently, it announced its sixth acquisition, which will
bring its total capacity to 563 Mw upon completion. 300. In May as per report Securities and exchange Board
• JP Morgan was hired in 2022 to run the sale process. of India has come out with a consultation paper to
• IndiGrid was set up in 2016 and sponsored by regulate platforms offering fractional ownership of real
investment company KKR and Vedanta group’s Sterlite estate assets.
Power. The minimum investment in these fractional ownership
• IndiGrid Investment Managers is the investment platforms (FOPs) ranges from ___________.
manager of the InvIT and is majority owned by Electron A. Rs 10 lakh to Rs 50 lakh
IM, an affiliate of the KKR Sponsor. B. Rs 20 lakh to Rs 25 lakh
C. Rs 50 lakh to Rs 2 Crore
299. In May as per report government announced that it D. Rs 10 lakh to Rs 25 lakh
will spend ____________ to modernise the Semi- E. Rs 1 lakh to Rs 25 lakh
conductor Laboratory (SCL) in Mohali. Answer: D
A. $1.9 billion • The Securities and exchange Board of India has come
B. $2.2 billion out with a consultation paper to regulate platforms
C. $3.7 billion offering fractional ownership of real estate assets.
D. $1.2 billion • Such fractional ownership of real estate assets is
E. $3.2 billion proposed to be brought as MSM REITs under Sebi (Real
Answer: D Estate Investment Trusts) Regulations, 2014.
• The regulator has invited comments by May 27.
• The previous two-three years have seen mushrooming A. USD 88 million

of web based platforms offering fractional ownership of B. USD 82 million
real estate assets. C. USD 85 million
• The minimum investment in these fractional D. USD 90 million
ownership platforms (FOPs) ranges from Rs 10 lakh to Rs E. USD 95 million
25 lakh. Answer: B
• The proposals say that any person or entity (including • The World Bank has approved a USD 82 million loan
FOPs) which facilitate or have facilitated fractional for adopting animal health management practices and
investment in real estate by any structure will have to to prevent endemic zoonotic diseases in India.
register with Sebi for operating as MSM REIT. • The loan has a maturity of 11.5 years with a grace
• A discussion paper is normally the first step ahead of period of 4.5 years.
formulating new rules by SEBI. • This will support India's One Health approach, which
• The regulator proposed that such platforms must be believes that people and animals are connected with
registered under Regulatory Framework for Micro, Small their shared environment.
and Medium REITs, where it should have separate • This new program will help in reducing the risks of
trustees, sponsors and investment managers. animal disease outbreaks.
• The sponsor and investment manager should have a • This program will improve disease surveillance and
net worth of 20 million rupees and 10 million rupees, veterinary services in the livestock and wildlife sectors.
respectively. • Under this program, at least 2.9 million livestock
• Globally such fractional ownership has been in farmers will get access to animal health services in
existence since 2015 in markets such as the United States Assam, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Odisha, and Madhya
and United Arab Emirates. Pradesh.
• Around 68 per cent of the workforce in India is
301. Recently India’s annual retail inflation eased to a depended on farming and remains in close contact with
19-month low of ___________in April from 5.66 per cent domestic animals and poultry.
the previous month. • Zoonotic diseases are caused by harmful germs like
A. 3.56 % viruses, bacteria, parasites, and fungi. It can transmit
B. 4.7% from animals to humans under natural conditions.
C. 2.91 % • Animal disease outbreaks has emerged as a global
D. 4.1 % concern after Covid-19.
E. 5.2 % • India has the largest livestock population in the world
Answer: B so the risk of Animal disease outbreaks is high.
• India’s annual retail inflation eased to a 19-month
low of 4.7% in April from 5.66 per cent the previous 303. Recently panel formed by the Ministry of Petroleum
month. and Natural Gas suggested that India should ban the use
• The retail inflation was below the Reserve Bank of of diesel-powered four-wheeler vehicles by __________.
India’s upper tolerance limit for the second straight A. 2025
month. B. 2030
• Reserve Bank of India has projected the CPI inflation C. 2027
at 5.2 per cent for FY2023-24, with 5.1 per cent in Q1, 5.4 D. 2032
per cent in Q2, 5.4 per cent in Q3, and 5.2 per cent in Q4, E. 2035
and risks evenly balanced. Answer: C
• A panel formed by the Ministry of Petroleum and
302. In May as per report World Bank has approved a Natural Gas suggested that India should ban the use of
____________ for adopting animal health management diesel-powered four-wheeler vehicles by 2027.
practices and to prevent endemic zoonotic diseases in
India.
• The Energy Transition Advisory Committee was financial stability, enhancing inter-regulatory
formed under the chairmanship of former oil secretary coordination and promoting financial sector
Tarun Kapoor. development.
• It recommends switching to electric and gas-fuelled • It is chaired by the Union Finance Minister of India.
vehicles in cities with more than a million people and • Its members include the heads of financial sector
polluted towns for reducing carbon emissions. Regulators (RBI, SEBI, PFRDA, IRDA & FMC) Finance
• India is one of the biggest emitters of greenhouse Secretary and/or Secretary, Department of Economic
gases. India has set a target to produce 40% of its Affairs, Secretary, Department of Financial Services, and
electricity from renewable benergy to achieve its net Chief Economic Adviser.
zero goal by 2070. • The Council can invite experts to its meeting if
• The panel suggested that no diesel buses should be required.
added to city transport from 2024 onwards. • A sub-committee of FSDC has also been set up under
• It recommends that no city bus should be added to the chairmanship of Governor RBI.
city transport after 2030 which is not electric. • It discusses and decides on a range of issues relating
• Diesel accounts for about two-fifths of refined fuel to financial sector development and stability, including
consumption in India, of which 80% is used in the substantive issues relating to inter-regulatory
transport sector. coordination.
• The committee recommends that from 2024, only
electric-powered city delivery vehicles should be eligible 305. In May as per report by finance ministry businesses
for new registrations. with a turnover of ₹5 crore or more will be required to
• It also suggests more use of railways and gas- adopt e-invoicing from __________
powered trucks for the movement of cargo. A. 1st January 2024
• India should consider building underground gas B. 1st August 2023
storage for two months equivalent demand. It suggested C. 1st December 2023
the use of depleted oil and gas fields, salt caverns and D. 1st October 2023
aquifers for building gas storage. E. 1st April 2024
Answer: B
304. Consider the following statement regarding • Businesses with turnover of over Rs 5 crore will have
Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC). to generate electronic or e-invoice for B2B transactions
Which of the following statement is incorrect? with effect from August 1.
A. Finance Minister recently chaired the 27th meeting of • Currently, businesses with turnover of Rs 10 crore and
the Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC). above are required to generate e-invoice for all B2B
B. It is an apex-level forum constituted by the transactions.
Government of India in December 2010. • The finance ministry through a notification dated May
C. It is chaired by the Union Finance Minister of India. 10 has notified a reduction in threshold for e-invoicing.
D. A sub-committee of FSDC has also been set up under Effective August 1, any taxpayer with turnover exceeding
the chairmanship of Governor RBI. Rs 5 crore should raise e-invoices for B2B supplies.
E. All of the above are correct • e-Invoicing or electronic invoicing system was
Answer: E introduced under the Goods and Services Tax (GST) law.
• Finance Minister recently chaired the 27th meeting of It applies to certain taxpayers registered under the GST
the Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC). law in phases.
• It is an apex-level forum constituted by the • Under Goods and Services Tax (GST) law, e-invoicing
Government of India in December 2010. for business-to-business (B2B) transactions was made
• FSDC is not a statutory body. No funds are separately mandatory for companies with turnover of over Rs 500
allocated to the council for undertaking its activities. crore from October 1, 2020, which was then extended to
• Its main objective is Strengthening and those with turnover of over Rs 100 crore effective
institutionalizing the mechanism for maintaining January 1, 2021.
• From April 1, 2021, companies with turnover of over E. October 2020

Rs 50 crore were generating B2B e-invoices, and the Answer: B
threshold was brought down to Rs 20 crore beginning • WPI inflation declined to minus 0.92% in April 2023. It
April 1, 2022. From October 1, 2022, the threshold was stood at 1.34% in March 2023 and 15.38% in April 2022.
further lowered to Rs 10 crore. • The WPI inflation has declined into negative for the
first time since July 2020.
306. According to the Commerce & Industry Ministry • The decline in prices of basic metals, food products,
percentage of India’s goods export has been fallen by mineral oils, textiles, non-food articles, chemical and
___________ % in April 2023? chemical products, rubber and plastic products, and
A. 11.3% paper products has mainly contributed to the decline in
B. 12.7% inflation in April 2023.
C. 13.5% • The Wholesale Price Index (WPI)-based inflation has
D. 14.7% been declining continuously for the last 11 months.
E. 15.9% • The month-over-month change in WPI for April 2023
Answer: B over March 2023 remained unchanged at 0.0%.
• India’s goods exports have fallen 12.7% in April 2023 • Earlier, Consumer Price Index (CPI)-based retail
to $34.66 billion according to the Commerce & Industry inflation declined to 18-month low level of 4.7% in April.
Ministry.
• Imports during the month have fallen 14% to $49.9 308. In May as per report Union Cabinet has approved
billion according to quick estimates released by the the second edition of the production linked incentive (PLI
government on 15 May 2023. 2.0) scheme for IT hardware with a __________ outlay
• Trade deficit have declined to $15.2 billion in April for a period of six years.
2023 from $18.4 billion in April 2022. A. ₹15,000-crore
• The decline in exports and imports is due to B. ₹22,000-crore
recessionary trends in some developed economies, effect C. ₹17,000-crore
of the Russia-Ukraine conflict and cooling down of D. ₹11,000-crore
commodity prices, especially petroleum prices. E. ₹18,000-crore
• Government has revised the export numbers for 2022- Answer: C
23 for goods and services upwards to $776 billion. This is • The Union Cabinet has approved the second edition of
$100 billion more than the previous fiscal. the production linked incentive (PLI 2.0) scheme for IT
• Goods exports for 2022-23 have increased from hardware with a ₹17,000-crore outlay.
$447.46 billion to $450 billion. • This should be weighed in the light of the previous PLI
• Services exports for 2022-23 have increased from schemes’ outcomes, which did not fully deliver on their
$320 billion to $325.44 billion. promises.
• India’s top export items in April 2023 were • The government expects the scheme will result in
engineering goods, petroleum products, gems and additional production worth ₹3.35-lakh crore and
jewellery, drugs and pharmaceuticals, and chemicals, investments of ₹2,430 crore during its duration.
while its top imports comprised petroleum, electronic Furthermore, it aims to create employment opportunities
goods, machinery, coal, and chemicals. for around 75,000 people within the next six years.
• The IT hardware industry is targeted to reach a
307. Recently WPI inflation in April 2023 has declined production of $24 billion by 2025-26, with exports
into negative to to minus 0.92% for the first time since anticipated to be in the range of $12-17 billion during the
____________. same period.
A. June 2020 • It will be implemented from July 1, with a cap on
B. July 2020 maximum incentives available to participating
C. August 2020 companies.
D. September 2020
• These concessions come at a time when global IT • The subsidy on P&K for the current kharif season is
players such as HP, Lenovo, Apple, Asus and Acer have much lower than about Rs 61,000 spent during last kharif
been in discussion with the government to shape IT PLI season.
2.0 more favourably. • Along with this, the government will spend another
• The government, in February 2021, approved the first Rs 70,000 crore on subsidy for urea which is the most
edition of the PLI scheme for IT hardware, with an outlay commonly used fertiliser.
of ₹7,350 crore, but it failed to evince enough interest • In total, the government will spend Rs 1.08 trillion
among investors. towards fertiliser subsidy in the summer season.
• The PLI 2.0 scheme comes with a more than double • For the 12 crore farmers in the country, each farmer
budgetary outlay, a longer tenure of six years (as gets Rs 21,223 as a subsidy for fertilizers.
opposed to four years earlier) and a more attractive • The government’s decision will have a positive impact
incentive package. of ensuring availability of P&K and other fertilizers to
• The incentive under the new scheme will be around 5 farmers at subsidized, affordable and reasonable prices
per cent and can go up to 8 per cent. during Kharif season.
• An assessment on claims and disbursements carried • The crops that are sown in the rainy season are called
out by the DPIIT shows that as of March 31, 2023, Kharif crops and it is also known as the summer or
disbursal of incentives are yet to begin for six sectors monsoon crop in India.
including textiles, white goods, automobiles, auto parts, • Kharif crops are usually sown with the beginning of
solar PV modules and ACC battery. the first rains in July, during the south-west monsoon
• Of the ₹2,874.71 crore disbursed under the overall season.
₹1.97-lakh crore PLI scheme launched in April 2020, as • The crops that are sown in the winter season are
much as ₹1,651 crore has gone to large scale electronics called Rabi crops and it is also known as the winter crop
manufacturing, including mobiles, followed by in India and Pakistan.
pharmaceuticals at ₹652 crore and food products at ₹486 • Rabi crops are usually sown in October or November.
crore with token amounts going to hardware, bulk drugs, • The Subsidy on P&K fertilizers is governed by Nutrient
medical devices, telecom products and drones. Based Subsidy Scheme under the Department of
Fertilizers since 2010.
309. In May as per report Union government has • Under the scheme, a fixed rate of subsidy (in Rs per kg
approved a subsidy of _________ for phosphatic and basis) is announced for nutrients namely Nitrogen (N),
potassic (P&K) fertilisers for the kharif 2023 season Phosphate (P), Potash (K) and Sulphur (S) by the
(April-September) under the nutrient-based subsidy government on an a nnual basis.
(NBS) mechanism.
A. Rs 42,000 crore 310. In May as per report SEBI has proposed to include
B. Rs 40,000 crore 10 different categories of entities including multi-State
C. Rs 36,000 crore co-operatives with _________crore networth under the
D. Rs 34,000 crore definition of qualified institutional investors for
E. Rs 38,000 crore investment in debt securities and further develop the
Answer: E debt market.
• The Union government has approved a subsidy of Rs A. ₹500 crore
38,000 crore for phosphatic and potassic (P&K) fertilisers B. ₹300 crore
for the kharif 2023 season (April-September) under the C. ₹100 crore
nutrient-based subsidy (NBS) mechanism. D. ₹200 crore
• The subsidy rates for the two fertilisers, which are E. ₹1000 crore
mostly imported, have been fixed after taking into Answer: A
consideration the fall in international prices. • Market regulator SEBI has proposed to include 10
different categories of entities including multi-State co-
operatives with ₹500-crore networth, NBFCs, housing
finance companies, pension funds, small finance banks, • The Government has amended rules under the
reinsurers and refinancing agencies such as MUDRA Foreign Exchange Management Act to bring in
under the definition of qualified institutional investors international credit card spends outside India under the
for investment in debt securities and further develop the Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS).
debt market. • As a result, the spending by international credit cards
• The other entities that would be recognised as QIB in will also attract a higher rate of Tax Collected at Source
debt market include regulatory authorities, autonomous at 20 per cent effective July 1.
bodies, authorities, boards or Commissions or agencies, • Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS) was brought out
authorities, organisations or entities established, owned by the RBI in 2004.
or controlled by the Central government or a State • It allows resident individuals to remit a certain
government and SEBI-regulated entities with net worth amount of money during a financial year to another
of over ₹500 crore. country for investment and expenditure.
• This apart, educational institutions, including • According to the prevailing regulations, resident
universities or higher educational institutions, or funds or individuals may remit up to $250,000 per financial year.
endowments of universities or higher educational • Resident Indians or people resident in India are
institutions recognised by State governments or Central allowed to transfer foreign currency under the foreign
government and Urban local body, municipality or any exchange regulations.
statutory body or board or corporation, authority, trust • The transfer of foreign currency outside India is
or agency established, special purpose vehicle notified by governed by the Foreign Exchange Management Act,
the Central government or State government would also 1999 (FEMA).
be recognised. • LRS restricts buying and selling of foreign exchange
• SEBI may also specify a minimum amount of abroad, or purchase of lottery tickets or sweep stakes,
investible surplus and furnish the same to the stock proscribed magazines and so on, or any items that are
exchange prior to commencing investments as a QIB. restricted under Schedule II of Foreign Exchange
• SEBI said it has been receiving representations that Management (Current Account Transactions) Rules,
the definition of the term ‘QIB’ be expanded in order to 2000.
increase the potential investor base for issuers of debt • The usage of an international credit card to make
securities and for further developing the debt markets. payments towards meeting expenses during a trip
• QIBs are large, sophisticated and informed investors abroad was not covered under the LRS.
who are considered suitable for making investments in • These spendings were excluded by way of Rule 7 of
the capital markets and have expertise in evaluating the Foreign Exchange Management (Current Account
investment opportunities and in managing risks. Transaction) Rules, 2000.
• Rule 7 has now been omitted, paving way for the
311. In May as per report Government has amended inclusion of such spendings under LRS.
rules under the Foreign Exchange Management Act to • Not only foreign tour packages but 20 per cent TCS
bring in international credit card spends outside India rule also applies on credit cards on international
under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS).
transactions.
According to the prevailing regulations, resident • This means even direct booking would come under
individuals may remit up to ___________ per financial
the ambit of 20 per cent TCS.
year.
• It will not apply on the payments for purchase of
A. $150,000
foreign goods/services from India.
B. $200,000
• The Budget had stated that on foreign outward
C. $100,000
remittance under LRS, other than for education and
D. $500,000
medical purposes, a TCS of 20 per cent will be applicable
E. $250,000
from July 1, 2023.
Answer: E
• Before this proposal, the TCS of 5 per cent was and works closely with governmental, intergovernmental
applicable on foreign outward remittances above Rs 7 and non-governmental partners.
lakh and 5 per cent without any threshold for overseas • The Director General-elect Pope, who began her
tour package. appointment as IOM’s Deputy Director General for
Management and Reform in September 2021, was
312. In May as per report SBI Funds Management has nominated by the United States of America. The
received RBI approval to increase stake in HDFC Bank to incumbent Director General Mr. António Vitorino was
________ per cent in six months. also a candidate in the election.
A. 7.51 % • The first woman to lead IOM, Ms. Pope will assume
B. 9.91 % the duties of Director General for a five-year term
C. 8.50 % beginning on 1 October 2023.
D. 5.21 %
• IOM was granted Permanent Observer status to the
E. 9.99 % UN General Assembly in 1992, and a cooperation
Answer: E agreement between IOM and the UN was signed in 1996.
• SBI Funds Management has received RBI approval to • With 175 member states, a further 8 states holding
increase stake in HDFC Bank to 9.99 per cent in six
observer status and offices in over 100 countries, IOM is
months.
dedicated to promoting humane and orderly migration
• The investment will be made as part of the mutual for the benefit of all. It does so by providing services and
fund schemes managed by SBI Funds Management. advice to governments and migrants. India is a member
• The approval was granted on an application made by of IOM.
SBI Funds Management to RBI.
• The fund house was advised by RBI to acquire the 314. In May as per report Larsen & Toubro announced
major shareholding in the bank by November 15. that ____________ has been appointed as chairman and
• Further, SBIFML must ensure that the aggregate managing director effective from October 1.
holding in the Bank remains below 10 per cent of the A. Sujoy Bose
paid-up share capital or voting rights of the Bank at all B. Kartik Sharma
times. C. Ak Naik
• HDFC Bank reported 21 per cent jump in March D. Dilip Kumar
quarter consolidated net profit to ₹12,594 crore on 30 E. SN Subrahmanyan
per cent increase in income at ₹57,159 crore. Answer: E
• Larsen & Toubro AM Naik will step down as non-
313. In May as per report _____________ has been executive Chairman of the group on September 30, 2023.
elected as next Director General of the International SN Subrahmanyan will be appointed chairman and
Organization for Migration. managing director of the company from October 1.
A. Stephen Fry • SN Subrahmanyan is presently the Chief Executive
B. Amy E.Pope Officer and Managing Director of Larsen & Toubro.
C. Rachel Hynes • AM Naik has been with L&T for more than 58 years
D. Jule Brand and is known as the architect of the transformation of
E. Leena Obherndrof the company into a global conglomerate with dominance
Answer: B in the sectors in which he operated.
• On Monday 15 May 2023, the Member States of the • Larsen & Toubro Ltd, commonly known as L&T, is an
International Organization for Migration, the United Indian multinational conglomerate company
Nations Migration Agency, elected Ms. Amy E. Pope as headquartered in Mumbai.
its next Director General during the 6th Special Session of
the IOM Council. 315. In May as per report __________was appointed as
• Established in 1951, IOM is the leading the new director of Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI).
intergovernmental organization in the field of migration A. Pankaj Amre
B. Praveen Sood Answer: D
C. Siddharth Verma • Twitter CEO Elon Musk said that Linda Yaccarino will
D. Kunal Chopra be the social media platform's next CEO.
E. Anil Joshi • Earlier, Twitter CEO Elon Musk announced that he has
Answer: B found a new CEO for Twitter, or X Corp. as it's now
• Karnataka DGP Praveen Sood was appointed as the called.
new director of Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI). • Although Twitter has taken much of Musk’s time
• Sood is a 1986-batch IPS officer from the Karnataka since its takeover, he still actively manages several other
cadre. businesses such as SpaceX and Neuralink. Musk recently
• He has been appointed to the CBI director's post for a formed an AI company called TruthGPT to take on
period of two years from the date of taking charge after OpenAI’s ChatGPT and Alphabet Inc’s Bard.
Subodh Kumar Jaiswal completes his tenure on May 25. • Twitter recently launched encrypted direct messages
• Sood is a 1986-batch IPS officer from the Karnataka (DMs) for users to communicate securely.
cadre. • The microblogging platform CEO Elon Musk warned
• His name was cleared in a meeting of a high-powered against its use saying, “Try it, but don’t trust it yet.”
committee comprising Prime Minister Narendra Modi, • This comes after Musk announced that Twitter will
Chief Justice of India DY Chandrachud and Leader of remove inactive accounts.
Opposition in Lok Sabha Adhir Ranjan Chowdhury. • Twitter is an American communications company
• The officer, who was scheduled to retire in 2024, will headquartered in San Francisco, California, USA.
now have a fixed two-year tenure. • It was founded in March 2006 by Jack Dorsey, Noah
• Praveen Sood hails from Himachal Pradesh. He Glass, Biz Stone and Evan Williams.
launched ‘Namma 100’. It is an emergency response
system for citizens in distress. 317. In May as per report _____________ has been
• He also played a role in launching the ‘Suraksha’ App appointed as the new Chairman of Union Public Service
and ‘Pink Hoyasala’ managed by women cops. Commission (UPSC).
• The IPS officer has also served as police advisor to the A. Manoj Soni
government of Mauritius. B. Mukesh Kumar
• His initiatives to use technology to better traffic C. Arvind Panghariya
management and provide efficient services to citizens D. Subrhamaniyam Swami
has earned him awards such as the National E- E. Rajesh Bindal
Governance Gold Award for "Most innovative use of Answer: A
technology for traffic management" in 2011 and the • Manoj Soni took the Oath of Office and Secrecy as
Prince Michael International Road safety Award in 2006. Chairman, Union Public Service Commission. The Oath
• The Central Bureau of Investigation is the premier has been administered by Smt. Smita Nagaraj, senior
investigating agency of India. It operates under the most Member of the Commission.
jurisdiction of the Ministry of Personnel, Public • He joined the Union Public Service Commission as full-
Grievances and Pensions. time member on 28 June 2017.
• Founded: 1 April 1963, Headquarters: New Delhi. • He was vice chancellor of the Dr. Babasaheb
Ambedkar Open University (BAOU) from August 1, 2009,
316. In May as per report Elon Musk named Linda to July 31, 2015, and was vice chancellor of the Maharaja
Yaccarino as the new Twitter CEO. She was the former Sayajirao University ( MSU) of Baroda from April 2005 to
head of advertising at __________. April 2008.
A. HBO Life • He is a recipient of the title "Honorary Mayor-
B. Meta President of the City of Baton Rouge" for his service. He
C. Google is the youngest-ever Vice Chancellor of India.
D. NBCUniversal • Union Public Service Commission is a Constitutional
E. Vodafone Idea Body under Articles 315-323 of the Indian Constitution.
• The chairman and other members of the Union Public scientists, engineers, and technologists towards nation
Service Commission (UPSC) are appointed by the building.
President of India. • National Technology Day is observed annually on
• The members of UPSC can hold office for a term of six May 11 in India.
years or till they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is • This day is observed to commemorate the significant
earlier. achievements and contributions made by Indian
scientists, engineers, and technologists towards nation
318. In May as per report __________ will be the first building.
woman to be appointed as the Chairman and Managing • The primary objective of National Technology Day is
Director (CMD) of the Power Finance Corporation (PFC). to promote scientific temper and inspire the younger
A. Kiran Mazumdar Shaw generation to pursue careers in STEM (science,
B. Reshma Kewalramani technology, engineering, and mathematics) fields.
C. Parminder Chopra • This year's theme is ‘School to Startups- Igniting
D. Leena Nair Young Minds to Innovate’.
E. Sonia Syngal
Answer: C 320. Recently All India Football Federation has decided
• The Public Enterprise Selection Board (PESB) has to observe as the ‘AIFF Grassroots Day’ in honour of
recommended the name of Parminder Chopra to succeed Indian football icon Pradip Kumar Banerjee?
as the next CMD of India’s largest NBFC by networth (all A. 21st June
reserves), Power Finance Corporation (PFC). B. 25th June
• Chopra will be the first woman to be appointed as the C. 23rd June
Chairman and Managing Director (CMD) of the D. 28th May
Maharatna company Power Finance Corporation. E. 15th June
• She has been with the company since 2005 and has Answer: C
been serving as the Director (Finance) and CFO since • The All India Football Federation has decided to
2020, as well as a member of the board of directors. observe 23 June as the ‘AIFF Grassroots Day’ in honour of
• Power Finance Corporation Ltd. is an Indian central Indian football icon Pradip Kumar Banerjee.
public sector undertaking under the ownership of the • Pradip Kumar Banerjee was the captain of the Indian
Ministry of Power, Government of India. Established in Football team in 1960 in Rome Olympics. He is popularly
1986, Headquarters: New Delhi. known as P.K.
• Pradip Kumar Banerjee played a key role in India’s
319. National Technology Day is observed annually historic gold medal in the 1962 Asian Games.
on___________ in India to commemorate the significant • Pradip Kumar Banerjee was part of FIFA first coaching
achievements and contributions made by Indian course in Japan under the German coach Dettmar
scientists, engineers, and technologists towards nation Cramer.
building. • He was a recipient of Padma Shri in 1990 and was
A. 8th May named Indian Footballer of the 20th Century by IFFHS.
B. 7th May • He was honoured with the FIFA Order of Merit, the
C. 11th May highest honour awarded by FIFA.
D. 10th May • He died on 20 March 2020 due to age-related issues in
E. 12th May Kolkata.
Answer: C • All India Football Federation (AIFF) is headquartered
• National Technology Day is observed annually on in New Delhi.
May 11 in India. • Kalyan Chaubey is the current president of the All
• This day is observed to commemorate the significant India Football Federation.
achievements and contributions made by Indian
321. World Telecommunication Day was recently
celebrated on ________ to help raise awareness of the
possibilities that the use of the Internet and other 322. What is the name of the Chairman of Hinduja Group
information and communication technologies (ICTs) who passed away recently in May?
A. 12th May A. Srichand Hinduja
B. 15th May B. Prem Hinduja
C. 17th May C. Sanjiv Hinduja
D. 18th May D. Rohan Hinduja
E. 20th May E. Kunal Hinduja
Answer: C Answer: A
• World Telecommunication Day was recently • Srichand Hinduja, co-chairman and patriarch of a
celebrated on May 17th to help raise awareness of the sprawling global business empire that produced one of
possibilities that the use of the Internet and other the world’s largest family fortunes passed away.
information and communication technologies (ICTs) can • Known as S.P., Hinduja was the eldest of four brothers
bring to societies and economies, as well as of ways to in control of Mumbai-based Hinduja Group.
bridge the digital divide. • Hinduja helped to expand his family’s holdings. The
• The theme of this year’s celebration was conglomerate acquired truck-maker Ashok Leyland Ltd
“Empowering the Least Developed Countries through and Gulf Oil International during the 1980s, and Hinduja
Information and Communication Technologies”. personally founded private banks based in Switzerland
• World Telecommunication Day has been celebrated and India the following decade.
annually on 17 May since 1969, marking the founding of • Srichand Parmanand Hinduja was born on November
International Telecommunication Union (ITU) and the 28, 1935, in British India’s Sindh province, now part of
signing of the first International Telegraph Convention in Pakistan.
1865.
• International Telecommunication Union (ITU) is the 323. Consider the following statement regarding Laureus
United Nations specialized agency for information and World Sports Awards. Which of the following statement
communication technologies. is incorrect?
• It has a membership of 193 countries and nearly 800 A. Lionel Messi won the World Sportsman of the Year
private sector entities and academic institutions. award
• Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland. B. Messi is the 1st athlete who has won individual and
• The World Telecom Day Convention has been team awards in the same year (2023).
inaugurated by Union Minister of State for C. This is Messi’s second individual title. He shared the
Communications Shri Devusingh Chauhan. Sportsman of the Year award with Formula 1 driver
• He inaugurated an exhibition showcasing innovations Lewis Hamilton in 2020.
in telecom by startups and released a commemorative D. Shelly-Ann Fraser-Pryce won the Sportswoman of the
postage stamp to mark 20 years of USOF. Year award.
• He also unveiled the USOF@India book and the Open
Ran (Radio Access Network) Test Bed Project. Answer: E
• From April 1st, 2002, Universal Service Obligation • Lionel Messi won the World Sportsman of the Year
Fund (USOF) was brought into force in India to provide award at Laureus World Sports Awards organized in
universal access and universal services to ICT, especially Paris.
in the rural and remote regions of the country. • Lionel Messi also received another award as part of
• In addition, DoT employees and best performing field team of the year for the victory of Argentina at the FIFA
units of DoT were felicitated for their contribution and World Cup last year.
outstanding work in the field of Telecom. • This is Messi’s second individual title. He shared the
• Best performance award for field unit of DoT was Sportsman of the Year award with Formula 1 driver
awarded to LSA Andhra Pradesh, CCA NE-II, and WMO, Lewis Hamilton in 2020.
IMS Chennai.
• Messi is the 1st athlete who has won individual and

team awards in the same year (2023). 325. In May as per report __________won the 2023
• Shelly-Ann Fraser-Pryce won the Sportswoman of the Pulitzer Prize award for international reporting for its
Year award. stories about Russia's invasion of Ukraine.
• Shelly-Ann Fraser-Pryce is a Jamaican sprinter who A. BBC
last year won 100-meter gold at the World Athletics B. New York Time
Championships for the fifth time. C. The Guardian
• Tennis player Carlos Alcaraz was given the D. Down To Earth
Breakthrough of the Year award. Alcaraz won the US E. Washington Post
Open last year as a teenager. Answer: B
• Laureus World Sports Awards were held in person in • The Associated Press won two Pulitzer Prizes,
Paris for the first time since 2020. They were held including the distinguished public service award, for its
virtually because of the coronavirus pandemic. Other coverage of the war in Ukraine, while the New York
winners of awards are given below. Times earned the international reporting honor for its
• World Team of the Year Award: Argentina Men’s stories about the Russian invasion.
Football Team • Washington Post reporter Caroline Kitchener won the
• World Comeback of the Year Award: Christian Eriksen national reporting prize for coverage of abortion in the
United States after the Supreme Court last year
• World Sportsperson of the Year with a Disability
Award: Catherine Debrunner overturned the landmark 1973 Roe v Wade ruling that
• World Action Sportsperson of the Year Award: Eileen had legalised the procedure nationwide.
Gu • The annual Pulitzer awards, first presented in 1917,
are the most celebrated honors in US journalism.
• Laureus Sport for Good Award: TeamUp
• The prizes are named for newspaper publisher Joseph
• Laureus World Sports Award is an annual award
Pulitzer, who died in 1911 and left money to create the
ceremony, which honours individuals and teams from the
awards and establish a journalism school at Columbia
sports world for their achievements.
University.
• It is presented by Laureus Sport for Good Foundation.
• The public service award, considered the most
It is often referred to as Oscar of sports.
prestigious, honored Associated Press journalists
324. Recently passed away legendary footballer Antonio Mstyslav Chernov, Evgeniy Maloletka, Vasilisa
"Tota" Carbajal was from which of the following Stepanenko and Lori Hinnant, who remained in the
country? Ukrainian town of Mariupol last spring as it came under
A. Brazil fire from Russian troops and documented the killing of
civilians.
B. Ukraine
C. Argentina • Pulitzer Prizes 2023 winners in Books, Drama and
D. Mexico Music:
E. Germany • Fiction - “Demon Copperhead” by Barbara Kingsolver
Answer: D (Harper) and “Trust” by Hernan Diaz (Riverhead Books)
• Former Mexico goalkeeper Antonio Carbajal, the first • Drama - “English” by Sanaz Toossi
footballer to play in five World Cups, has died at the age • Biography - “G-Man: J. Edgar Hoover and the Making
of 93. of the American Century” by Beverly Gage (Viking)
• 'Tota', as Carbajal was known, appeared in goal for • Memoir or Autobiography - “Stay True” by Hua Hsu
Mexico at the World Cups in Brazil 1950, Switzerland (Doubleday).
1954, Sweden 1958, Chile 1962 and England 1966, in
which he made 11 caps for his country. 326. In May as per report Army has decided that
• Carbajal held the record of playing in five World Cups brigadiers and above rank officers will have a common
for 32 years until 1998 when German midfielder Lothar uniform from __________ irrespective of their parent
Matthaus reached the mark. cadre and appointment.
A. 1st September 2023 • CORPAT help in building understanding and
B. 1st October 2023 improving interoperability between both navies.
C. 1st August 2023 • CORPAT gives an opportunity to facilitate instituting
D. 1st November 2023 measures to prevent and suppress unlawful activities like
E. 1st July 2023 fishing, drug trafficking, piracy and armed robbery.
Answer: C • It will enhance synergy for exchanging information
• The Army has decided that from August 1, officers of for the prevention of smuggling, and illegal immigration
the rank of Brigadier and above will have a common and for the conduct of Search and Rescue (SAR)
uniform irrespective of their different parent cadre and operations at sea.
appointment. • As part of the ‘SAGAR’ initiative, the Indian Navy is
• The decision was taken after detailed deliberations proactively engaging with the countries in the Indian
during the recently concluded Army Commanders' Ocean Region towards enhancing regional maritime
Conference. security.
• As part of the decision, headgear, shoulder rank • The 35th Indo-Thai CORPAT is another step towards
badges, gorget patches, belts and shoes of senior officers enhancing the bonds of friendship between India and
will be standardised. Thailand.
• There will be no change in the uniform worn by
officers of the rank of Colonel and below. 328. In May as per report Defence Minister Rajnath
• The Indian Army has decided to adopt this common Singh approved 4th Positive Indigenisation List (PIL) of
uniform to promote and strengthen common identity __________strategically-important sub-systems, spares,
and approach in service matters amongst senior and components, which will help the government avoid
leadership, beyond the boundaries of regimentation. imports worth ₹715 crore.
• The officers of brigadiers and above in the Indian A. 538
Army are those who have already commanded units or B. 928
battalions and are mostly posted at headquarters or C. 840
establishments where officers from all arms and services D. 1021
work together. E. 689
Answer: B
327. In May as per report Indian Navy and the Royal Thai • Defence Minister Rajnath Singh approved the 4th
Navy participated in the ___________ edition of India- Positive Indigenisation List (PIL) of 928 strategically-
Thailand Coordinated Patrol (Indo-Thai CORPAT). important sub-systems, spares, and components, which
A. 33rd will help the government avoid imports worth ₹715
B. 35th crore.
C. 37th • The items that figure in the PIL will only be procured
D. 39th from the indigenous industry after the timelines
E. 41st indicated in the list available on the Srijan portal.
Answer: B • In the list, Mumbai-based Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders
• Indian Navy and the Royal Thai Navy participated in Limited (MDL), a leading PSU shipyard, has decided to
the 35th edition of India-Thailand Coordinated Patrol buy a maximum of over 870 items.
(Indo-Thai CORPAT). • Similarly, HAL has 25 items, mostly for its HTT-40
• Indian Naval Ship (INS) Kesari and Thai Majesty’s Ship trainer aircraft, which will replace the Indian Air Force’s
(HTMS) Saiburi along with Maritime Patrol Aircraft from retired HPT-32 Deepak and the remaining are for
both navies participated in the CORPAT in the Andaman Sukhois-30MKIs and Jaguars.
Sea. • The DPSUs will undertake indigenisation of these
• The Indian Navy and the Royal Thai Navy have been items through different routes under the ‘Make’
organizing CORPAT bi-annually since 2005 along the category and in-house development through the
International Maritime Boundary Line (IMBL).
capabilities of MSMEs and private Indian industry, Answer: B
thereby providing impetus to the growth in economy. • The Union Health Ministry will screen and list 75
• The previous three Positive Indigenisation Lists, million people, diagnosed with hypertension and
published in December 2021, March 2022, and August diabetes on standard care by 2025 through primary
2022 respectively, contained 2,500 items for which the health care centres in the country.
country is no longer dependent on foreign manufacturers • The treatment that is accepted by medical experts for
or suppliers. Of another 1,238 items, 310 too have been a certain type of disease and that is widely used by
indigenised and the remaining will happen within the healthcare professionals is called standard care.
given timelines. • According to Dr VK Paul, Member (Health), NITI
Aayog, this will be the largest expansion of non-
329. Samudra Shakti is bilateral exercise between India communicable diseases (NCDs) in primary health care
and ___________. programme with a “community-based approach”.
A. Nepal • The Outcome Budget document of Union Budget
B. Sri Lanka 2023-2024 has for the first time introduced hypertension
C. Indonesia and diabetes treatment as output indicators reflecting
D. Bangladesh reflects the government’s commitment to scale-up
E. Mauritius hypertension and diabetes coverage services.
Answer: C • In addition to the 75-25 initiative, the Shashakt Portal
• Indian and Indonesian navies took part in the was launched for training of 40,000 primary health care
bilateral SAMUDRA SHAKTI-23 exercise. medical officers on Standard Treatment Workflow for
• INS Kavaratti is participating in the 4th edition of the NCDs.
India-Indonesia Bilateral exercise Samudra Shakti-23
from 14-19 May 2023. 331. Recently as per report Sengol will be installed by PM
• An Indian Navy Dornier Maritime Patrol aircraft and Modi in the new Parliament building at the inauguration
Chetak helicopter are also participating in the exercise. of the new Parliament House. This Sengol was accepted
• KRI Sultan Iskandar Muda, CN 235 Maritime Patrol by which of the following Prime Ministers of India?
Aircraft and AS565 Panther Helicopter are representing A. Jawaharlal Nehru
the Indonesian side. B. Lal Bahadur Shastri
• It will enhance interoperability, jointness and C. Rajiv Gandhi
cooperation between both the navies. D. Indira Gandhi
• Cross-deck visits, professional Interactions, Subject E. Chaudhary Charan Singh
Matter Expert Exchanges, and sports fixtures will be Answer: A
conducted in the Harbour phase. • Sengol will be installed by PM Modi in the new
• Weapon firing, Helicopter Operations, Anti-submarine Parliament building at the inauguration of the new
warfare & air defence exercises and boarding operations Parliament House.
will be conducted during the second phase. • On 28 May 2023, PM Modi will receive Sengol and
install it in the new Parliament House.
330. Recently as per report Union Health Ministry will • This Sengol was accepted by the first Prime Minister
screen and list __________ diagnosed with hypertension of India, Shri Jawaharlal Nehru at his residence on the
and diabetes on standard care by 2025 through primary night of 14th August, 1947.
health care centres in the country. • On the night of 14 August 1947, Jawaharlal Nehru
A. 70 million people received the 'Sengol' from the Adheenams (Priests) of the
B. 75 million people Thiruvaduthurai Adheenam (Mutt) in Tamil Nadu.
C. 80 million people • The same Sengol will be installed by the Prime
D. 85 million people Minister in the Lok Sabha. It will be a symbol of the
E. 90 million people Amrit Kaal.
• The Sengol is derived from the Tamil word “Semmai”, initially conceived between Iran and India (Porbandar)
meaning “Righteousness”. about a decade ago but failed to take off due to western
• The Nandi, with its unyielding gaze as the beholder of sanctions.
“Nyaya”, is hand-carved at its top. • It is promoted by the New Delhi based Siddho Mal
• The recipient of the Sengol has the “order” (“Aanai” Group, in Joint Venture with a UK-based Deepwater
in Tamil) to rule justly and fairly. Technology Company.
• First Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru received Sengol • SAGE is working with a Global Consortium of some of
from Lord Mountbatten to symbolically represent the the most reputed companies in the field of Deepwater
transfer of power from the British. The Sengol was later Pipelines, to create a Multi-Billion Dollar "Energy
kept in a museum in Allahabad. Corridor" that can transport gas from the Middle East to
• On the question of the ceremony to be followed to India, bypassing the land route through Pakistan.
symbolise the transfer of power from the British to the • In quest for India's Energy Security, South Asia Gas
Indians, Nehru consulted C. Rajagopalachari. Enterprise Pvt. Ltd. (SAGE) is undertaking a path-
• C. Rajagopalachari (the last Viceroy of India) breaking project, to build the Deepest Underwater
suggested the Chola model in which a high ruler Transnational Gas Pipeline.
sanctified and blessed the transfer of power from one • Also known as "Middle East to India Deepwater
king to another. Pipeline (MEIDP)", this will be a Gas Highway that will
• The handover of ‘sengol’ or sceptre from one king to connect the Gas Rich Gulf & Middle East regions to India,
his successor was the symbol used. for the transportation of Natural Gas to secure India’s
• Vummidi Bangaru Chetty, a famous jeweller in the Energy Needs.
Madras Presidency, crafted a golden scepter. • In addition, SAGE also plans to supply Natural Gas to
• The makers of the sengol are Vummidi Ethirajulu (96) Oman/ UAE on its Pipeline Route to India, and seeks to
and Vummidi Sudhakar (88). They are living in Chennai. further build Cooperative Relations with the friendly Gulf
• Thiruvaduthurai Adheenam is a five-hundred-year-old and Middle East countries.
Saivaite monastery.
333. Where will the World Food India 2023 be organized
332. What is the total length of the energy corridor between the 3rd and 5th November 2023?
connecting Middle East and India which is proposed by A. Surat
South Asia Gas Enterprise? B. Hyderabad
A. 1,000 km C. Chennai
B. 3,000 km D. New Delhi
C. 4,000 km E. Mumbai
D. 2,000 km Answer: D
E. 1,500 km • First Inter-Ministerial Committee Meeting held in New
Answer: D Delhi on 16th May 2023.
• South Asia Gas Enterprise (SAGE), an international • The meeting was held to apprise the officials of the
consortium of companies in deepwater pipeline projects, preparation made so far for World Food India 2023.
has sought the support of ministry of petroleum and • World Food India 2023 will be organized between the
others to develop an undersea gas pipeline from Gulf to 3rd and 5th November 2023 in New Delhi.
India. • It will be organised by the Ministry of Food Processing
• The proposed 2,000-km-long energy corridor Industries.
connecting Middle East and India, a $5 billion project, • The next meeting of the Inter-Ministerial Committee
can lead to an annual saving of about `7,000 crore in will be held in June 2023.
comparison with similar quantity of liquefied natural gas • This will be held to firm up concrete
(LNG) import. partnership/participation of different stakeholders.
• The undersea transnational gas pipeline project
Middle East-India Deepwater Pipeline (MEIDP) was
• The Investment Facilitation Cell (Invest India) and the E. 57 %

event partner (FICCI) were directed to coordinate with Answer: B
the ministries and departments. • India’s energy efficiency policies have not only led to
improvement in overall energy efficiency of Air-
334. In May as per report Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Conditioners but also accelerated the deployment of
Modi inaugurated the International Museum Expo 2023 highly Energy Efficient inverter technology.
in ___________. • As per the data from the Bureau of Energy Efficiency
A. Jaipur (BEE), Ministry of Power, for split Room Air-Conditioners
B. Jodhpur (RACs), the overall energy efficiency improvement is 43%
C. Bhopal for 1-Star and 61% for the 5-Star level.
D. Indore • On the other hand, the overall energy efficiency
E. New Delhi improvement for window RACs is 17% for 1-Star and 13%
Answer: E for 5-Star level.
• The Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi inaugurated • The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) launched the
the International Museum Expo 2023 at Pragati Maidan Star Labelling program for fixed-speed Room Air
in New Delhi. Conditioners (RACs) in 2006 as a voluntary initiative, and
• He also inaugurated a virtual walkthrough of the the program became mandatory in 2009.
upcoming National Museum at the North and South • BEE revised the energy performance thresholds
Blocks. (Minimum Energy Performance Standard-MEP) for RACs
• The International Museum Expo is being organized as covered under the program on a biennial basis from 2009
part of Azadi ka Amrit Mahotsav to celebrate the 47th - 2018.
International Museum Day with the theme of the year • In 2015, BEE launched a voluntary labelling program
‘Museums, Sustainability and Well Being’. for inverter RACs, and made the program mandatory in
• The International Museum Expo is being organized as January, 2018.
part of Azadi ka Amrit Mahotsav to celebrate the 47th
International Museum Day (IMD). The IMD theme for 336. In May as per report Union Education Ministry has
this year is ‘Museums, Sustainability and Well Being’. decided to discontinue _________ award.
• The Museum Expo is designed to initiate a holistic A. Shiksha Puraskar
conversation on Museums with museum professionals to B. Hinditar Bhashi Hindi Lekhak Puraskar
enable them to evolve as cultural centers that play a C. Santi Swarup Puraskar
pivotal role in India’s cultural diplomacy. D. Only A and B
• The Mascot of the International Museum Expo is a E. All of the above
contemporized version of the Dancing Girl made of wood Answer: D
in the Chennapatnam art style. • The Union Education Ministry has decided to
• The Prime Minister also unveiled the Mascot of the discontinue ‘Shiksha Puraskar’ and the ‘Hinditar Bhashi
International Museum Expo, the Graphic Novel – A Day Hindi Lekhak Puraskar’.
at the Museum, the Directory of Indian Museums, the • ‘Shiksha Puraskar’ was launched by the Central
Pocket Map of Kartavya Path, and Museum Cards. Government in 1992 to encourage original writings in
Hindi.
335. As per the data from the Bureau of Energy Efficiency • Five awards worth Rs 1 lakh are given every year
(BEE), Ministry of Power, for split Room Air-Conditioners under the ‘Shiksha Puraskar’.
(RACs), the overall energy efficiency improvement is • Writers from any part of India or publishers on their
__________% for 1-Star and 61% for the 5-Star level. behalf may submit their books for this award.
A. 41 % • Books originally written in Hindi by HIndi and non-
B. 43 % Hindi-speaking authors are considered for this award.
C. 51 %
D. 55 %
• The ‘Hinditar Bhashi Hindi Lekhak Puraskar’ was Answer: B

started to promote writings in Hindi by writers from non- • Union Minister of State for Electronics and
Hindi-speaking areas. Information Technology Shri Rajeev Chandrasekhar
• 19 awards of one lakh rupees every year are given launched the 3rd Semicon India Future Design roadshow
under this award. Its main objective is to encourage at IIT Delhi, with an aim to encourage innovation,
Hindi writers from Hindi-speaking areas. facilitate investment and catalyse the Startups
ecosystem in the semiconductor design and
337. In May as per report ___________conferred its manufacturing space.
highest civilian order, Grand Companion of the Order of • The primary objective of this initiative is to attract
Logohu (GCL), to Modi for his effort in the unity of pacific investments from across the world and help build a
Island countries. vibrant semiconductor design and manufacturing
A. Fiji ecosystem. PM Modi ji has announced Rs 76,000 crores
B. Papua New Guinea as outlay for semiconductor sector to fulfil the vision of
C. Maldives AtmaNirbhar Bharat.
D. Japan • Already there are 27 semicon startups and the
E. Australia number will soon go up to 100.
Answer: B • These include setting up an Indian Semiconductor
• Papua New Guinea conferred its highest civilian research center (ISRC) that will work in collaboration
order, Grand Companion of the Order of Logohu (GCL), to with top institutions like the IITs for coming up with
Modi for his effort in the unity of pacific Island countries. cutting edge semiconductor research.
• Fiji conferred Companion of the Order to PM Modi on • The MeitY has set up ChipIN Centre at C-DAC
the sidelines of the third Forum of India-Pacific Islands Bangalore to dedicate its services to semiconductor
Cooperation (FIPIC) summit. design community of the country. The facility acts as
• Fiji Prime Minister Sitiveni Rabuka conferred the one-stop centre to provide semiconductor design tools,
highest civilian honour of Fiji to PM Modi. fab access, virtual prototyping hardware lab access to
• PM Modi also received the “Ebakl Award” of Palau. fabless chip designers from Startups and Academia.
• PM Modi reached Papua New Guniea after attending • The MoU s exchanged between C-DAC Bangalore and
G7 Summit in Hiroshima, Japan. Ansys to nurture chip design using Ansys EDA tools
• PM Modi co-chaired the 3rd Forum of India-Pacific hosted at ChipIN Centre.
Islands Cooperation (FIPIC) Summit. • Renesas Electronics Corporation, a premier supplier of
• He also held his first bilateral meeting with Fiji Prime advanced semiconductor solutions, introduced an NB-IoT
Minister Sitiveni Rabuka in Port Moresby and reviewed (Narrowband Internet of Things) chipset specifically for
the development partnership between the two countries. the Indian market.
• PM Modi also reached Australia at the invitation of
Australian Prime Minister Anthony Albanese. 339. Recently as per report ___________has surpassed
Maharashtra in sugar production in the current season.
338. In May as per report Union Minister of State for A. Uttar Pradesh
Electronics and Information Technology Shri Rajeev B. Karnataka
Chandrasekhar launched the 3rd Semicon India Future C. Tamil Nadu
Design roadshow at IIT Delhi. D. Odisha
At present there are how many Semicon startups in E. Telangana
India? Answer: A
A. 25 • Uttar Pradesh has emerged as top sugar producer in
B. 27 the country, surpassing Maharashtra in the current
C. 29 season.
D. 31 • Despite operating with only 118 sugar mills this
E. 33 season, lower than the 210 mills operational in
Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh has managed to secure the • If central government fails to do so, it will be deemed
leading position in sugar production. that there are no objections. In such a case, the
• The state has produced a total of 107.29 lakh tonnes confirmation order will be issued.
of sugar (including 3.05 lakh tonnes of Khandsari) in the • If Registrar of Companies and Official Liquidator does
2022-23 season as compared to 105.30 lakh tonnes of not raise objections to a fast – track merger proposal
sugar produced by Maharashtra. within 30 days of filing of scheme, centre shall issue the
• UP has produced 2,348 lakh tonne of sugarcane as confirmation order within 15 days after the expiration of
against 1,413 lakh tonnes in Maharashtra, the 30 days.
• In the 2022-2023 season, the total sugarcane crushing • Earlier, 60 days was time prescribed only for referring
of sugar mills in Uttar Pradesh was 1,084.57 lakh tonnes, the matter to NCLT in case any objection was received.
while in Maharashtra it was 1,053 lakh tonnes. • Section 233 of the Companies Act, 2013 provides
• There are a total of 157 sugar mills in Uttar Pradesh, simple procedure for merger and amalgamation of
of which 118 are operational, while in Maharashtra, 210 certain companies.
of the 246 mills are operational. • This procedure is called Fast Track Merger. MCA
• In the current season, sugarcane was cultivated in notified Section 233 on 7 December 2016.
28.53 lakh hectares in Uttar Pradesh, which is more than • These companies include startups, small companies
any state in the country. In Maharashtra, half of it was and holding and subsidiary companies.
cultivated in 14.87 lakh hectares.
• The sugarcane crushing season runs from October to 341. In May as per report government has planned to set
June. up ___________ new cities in country to ease population
burden.
340. Recently as per report Central government has A. 7
reformed the merger approval process for start-ups B. 9
under the ‘fast track merger’ scheme. In which year was C. 8
this ‘fast track merger’ scheme introduced? D. 6
A. 2016 E. 5
B. 2017 Answer: C
C. 2018 • A plan to develop eight new cities to alleviate
D. 2019 population burden on the existing urban centres in the
E. 2020 country is under consideration.
Answer: A • The 15th Finance Commission in one of its reports had
• Central government has reformed the merger recommended that new cities should be developed.
approval process for start-ups under the ‘fast track • After the finance commission's recommendation, the
merger’ scheme. states sent proposals to the Central Government for 26
• Corporate Affairs Ministry (MCA) has amended the new cities, and after a scrutiny, eight new cities are
Corporate (Compromises, arrangements and being considered for development.
amalgamations) Rules. • The government will in due course announce
• It has introduced the concept of deemed approval. locations for the new cities and their development
This has been done to deal with the problem of timelines.
bureaucratic delays in corporate restructuring. • When a new city is developed, social and economic
• The ‘fast track merger’ scheme was introduced in activities will increase within a radius of at least 200 km.
2016. The new mechanism will be effective from 15 June.
• Under the deemed approval concept, confirmation 342. Recently as per report by Ministry of Ports, Shipping
order should be issued by the central government within and Waterways ___________ religious sites in Guwahati
60 days of receiving proposal in the fast track scheme. will be connected by waterways.
A. 7
B. 8
C. 9 • The portal aims to provide various reforms and
D. 12 services related to mobile connections and
E. 15 telecommunications.
Answer: A • It has been developed by C-DoT under the
• The Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways Department of Tele-communications (DoT) to prevent
(MOPSW) has made commitment to develop inland frauds such as identity theft, forged KYC, banking frauds
waterways. Seven religious sites in Guwahati will be etc.
connected by waterways. • The three reforms are being introduced as part of the
• In this sequence, an MoU was signed on May 19, 2023 portal's framework:
in Assam for a river-based tourism circuit being • CEIR (Central Equipment Identity Register): It enables
developed on the Brahmaputra River. the tracking and blocking of lost or stolen phones
• The MoU was signed between Inland Waterways anywhere in the country.
Authority of India (IWAI), Sagarmala Development • Know your mobile connections: It allows users to
Company Limited (SDCL), Assam Tourism Development check the number of mobile connections issued in their
Corporation Limited (ATDC) and Directorate of Inland name by logging in using their mobile number. This
Water Transport (DIWT). feature helps identify any unauthorized or unwanted
• The project is being developed under the Sagarmala connections, which can be blocked immediately.
program at an initial cost of 40-45 crores. • ASTR (Artificial Intelligence and Facial Recognition
• SDCL and IWAI will together contribute 55% of the powered Solution for Telecom SIM Subscriber
project cost while ATDC will bear the remaining cost. Verification): This AI-based technology facilitates mobile
• DIWT has agreed to allow the usage of Ghats near the connection analysis and includes features such as IMEI-
temples free of cost for this project. based phone theft information messaging to law
• This Sagarmala project will connect the historical enforcement agencies and the owner. It also enables
temples of Kamakhya, Pandunath, Ashwaklanta, Doul blocking of any number associated with a particular IMEI
Govinda, Umananda, Chakreshwar and Auniati Satra and the tracking of stolen mobile devices.
located in Guwahati. • The portal and its reforms aim to enhance
• The circuit will depart from Hanuman Ghat, Uzan transparency, security, and accountability in the telecom
Bazar and will complete its rounds connecting all the sector.
above-mentioned temples through waterways.
• The ferry service is expected to reduce the total travel 344. Consider the following statement regarding
time to less than 2 hours to complete one round trip. Strengthening Teaching-Learning and Results for States
(STARS) Project of India. Which of the following
343. Consider the following statement regarding Sanchar statement is correct?
Saathi portal.Which of the following statement is A. It is a centrally sponsored scheme launched with the
incorrect? financial support from the World Bank.
A. Union Minister of Communications recently launched B. It will be implemented in all North-Eastern States to
a citizen-centric Sanchar Saathi portal. improve school education system.
B. It has been developed by the Department of Tele- C. It became effective since 2021 for a period of five
communications (DoT) to prevent banking frauds. years i.e. up to FY: 2024-25.
C. It enables the tracking and blocking of lost or stolen D. Only 1 and 3
phones anywhere in the country. E. All of the above are correct
D. Only 1 and 3 Answer: D
E. All of the above are correct • Recently, Ministry of Education and World Bank
Answer: E organised a one of its kind workshop on School-to-Work
• The Union Minister of Communications recently Transition under the STARS Program in Mumbai.
launched a citizen-centric Sanchar Saathi portal.
• School-to-Work Transition workshop under the STARS Maharashtra and Vasco, Mormugao, and Canacona in
Program was co-chaired by Secretaries of School Goa.
Education and Skill Development and Entrepreneurship. • From a mere 7.5 lakh tons in 1950-51, India’s total
• Strengthening Teaching-Learning and Results for fish production has reached a record 162.48 lakh tons per
States (STARS) Project was approved by the Cabinet in annum in 2021-22, with a 10.34% growth in fish
October 2020 and to be implemented as a centrally production in 2021-22 in comparison to 2020-21.
sponsored scheme. • India is the 3rd largest fish producing country with
• It became effective since 2021 for a period of five about 8% share in global fish production.
years i.e. up to FY: 2024-25. • It stands 2nd in aquaculture production and one of
• STARS project would be implemented under the top cultured shrimps producing nation in the world,
Department of School Education and Literacy, Ministry of • From mere 28.23 lakh tons per annum in 2000-01, the
Education with the financial support of World Bank. inland fish production stood at 121. 21 lakh tons per
• It is being implemented in six identified States viz. annum in 2021-22, a staggering 400 percent increase.
Himachal Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Rajasthan, • “Sagar Parikrama” is an evolutionary journey
Madhya Pradesh and Kerala. These states will be envisaged in the sea across the coastal belt
supported for various interventions for improving the demonstrating solidarity with all fisher folk, fish farmers
quality of education. and concerned stakeholders as a spirit of 75th Azadi Ka
• It is carved out of Samagra Shiksha, with a focus on Amrit Mahotsav aiming to resolve the issues of the
those elements of the scheme that will most directly fishers and other stakeholders and facilitate their
support school education enhancement. economic upliftment through various fisheries schemes
• The overall focus and components of the STARS and programs being implemented by the Government of
project are aligned with the objectives of National India such as Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana
Education Policy (NEP) 2020 of Quality Based Learning (PMMSY) and KCC.
Outcomes.
• The STARS project also aims to focus on initiatives of 346. Recently as per report by the Ministry of Statistics
PM e-Vidya, Foundational Literacy and Numeracy and programme implementation
Mission and National Curricular and Pedagogical (MoSPI)___________saw the highest increase in gross
Framework for Early Childhood Care and Education as value of output (GVO) between 2011-12 to 2020-21.
part of the Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan. A. Livestock
B. Fishing and Aquaculture
345. Recently as per government report India is the 3rd C. Agriculture
largest fish producing country with about __________% D. Only 1 and 2
share in global fish production. E. All of the above
A. 7 % Answer: B
B. 8 % • A recent report by the Ministry of Statistics and
C. 12 % programme implementation (MoSPI) reiterates the
D. 16 % growing importance of the livestock and fishing sector in
E. 20 % India’s agriculture mix.
Answer: B • Livestock, fishing and aquaculture saw the highest
• Union Minister Parshottam Rupala launched the increase in gross value of output (GVO) between 2011-12
Sagar Parikrama Yatra Phase-V at Karanja (Raigad Dist.) to 2020-21.
on 17 May. • Livestock and fishing sector is dominated by private
• More than 6000 fishermen, fish farmers and other players and has little or no government intervention.
dignitaries participated in the program at Karanja • Share of GVA of agriculture and allied activities
(Raigad Dist.). (FY2021): it was 20.3 percent, and it was the highest in a
• The Sagar Parikrama fifth phase will be organized at decade in the country’s total GVA.
Raigad, Ratnagiri, and Sindhudurg Districts in
• It can be because of Covid when other sectors fared accelerates, the prospect of increasing temperatures is
poorly. increasing.
• The share of the crop sector dropped from 62.4 per • The global mean temperature in 2022 was 1.15
cent to 54.9 per cent in the total GVO between 2011-12 Celsius above the 1850-1900 average.
to 2020-21. • Paris Agreement’s objective is to hold global average
• Within the crop sector, fruits and vegetables account temperature increase to “well below 2°C above
for the highest share of GVO, followed by cereals. preindustrial levels and pursuing efforts to limit the
• Among the fruits, output was the highest for temperature increase to 1.5°C above pre-industrial
mangoes, followed by bananas. levels”.
• Among the vegetables, potato and tomato together
saw the highest production, accounting for about 14 per 348. According to Hanke’s Annual Misery Index (HAMI)
cent of the group. 2022 list of the world's most miserable countries
• West Bengal reported the highest output in fruits and _____________ has topped the list of world's most
vegetables in all these years (2011-12 to 2020-21). miserable country.
• The GVO of cereals, at 3.36 trillion, was the highest A. India
among all crop groups in 2011-12. B. Japan
• Uttar Pradesh (UP) recorded the highest output of C. Singapore
cereals in all the years (2011-12 to 2020-21). D. Zimbawae
E. Pakistan
347. According to the UN’s World Meteorological Answer: D
Organization (WMO) global temperatures are likely to • The Hanke’s Annual Misery Index (HAMI) 2022 list of
surpass 1.5 ° Celsius of warming by __________. the world's most miserable countries is out.
A. 2024 • As per the index, Zimbabwe has topped the list of
B. 2025 world's most miserable country.
C. 2028 • The index was formed after analyzing 157 countries
D. 2027 and the misery index is the sum of the year-end
E. 2030 unemployment, inflation, and bank-lending rates, minus
Answer: D the annual percentage change in real GDP per capita.
• According to the UN’s World Meteorological • Apart from Zimbabwe, other countries like Venezuela,
Organization (WMO), the combined effect of El Nino and Syria, Lebanon, Sudan took the top 5 spots in the list of
greenhouse gases will increase the temperature. World's most miserable counties in 2022.
• World Meteorological Organization said that global • Apart from Syria, the major contributing factor to
temperatures are likely to surpass 1.5 ° Celsius of misery of the top 5 countries is inflation while Syria was
warming by 2027. impacted by unemployment.
• It said that there is a 98- percent chance that at least • As per the list, India ranked at number 103 with
one of the next five years will set a new record of unemployment as the major contributing factor.
warmth. • It is important to note that World most happiest
• There is a 66% chance of temporarily exceeding of country Finland ranked at 109 in the world's most
temperature from 1.5°C in at least one year. miserable countries list, again with unemployment as
• The entire period of 2023-27 is likely to remain the the most contributing factor.
warmest ever on record. WMO said that a warming El • Pakistan which is currently grappling with economic
Niño is likely to develop in the coming months. and political crisis ranked at number 35 in the world's
• Global temperatures are expected to exceed the most miserable countries list, with inflation as the most
ambitious target set out in the Paris Climate Accord. contributing factor.
• Eight of the hottest years ever have been recorded • Of all the 157 countries analysed, Switzerland ranked
between 2015 and 2022. Now, as climate change at number 157 making it the least miserable of all the
countries. Other countries which are the least misearable
are Kuwait (156), Ireland (155), Japan (154), Malaysia • Prime Minister Anthony Albanese of Australia hosted
(153). the summit, which was earlier scheduled to be held in
Sydney, Australia.
• The leaders released Quad Leaders’ Vision Statement
349. In May as per report Ministry of Education and US – Enduring Partners for the Indo-Pacific”.
Department of State launched India-US Working Group • They announced Clean Energy Supply Chains
on__________. Initiative. This initiative would facilitate R&D and
A. Defence and Skill Development support the Indo-Pacific’s energy transition.
B. Sports and Skill Development • They also announced Quad Infrastructure Fellowships
C. National Skill Development Programme.
D. Manufacturing and Skill Development • Partnership for Cable Connectivity and Resilience was
E. Education and Skill Development also announced to leverage Quad’s collective expertise in
Answer: E the design, manufacturing, laying and maintenance of
• India-US Working Group on Education and Skill undersea cables
Development launched by the Ministry of Education and • They also announced Quad support for a small-scale
US Department of State on 22 May 2023. ORAN deployment in Palau, the first in the Pacific region.
• The aim of the Working Group is to enhance • Quad Investors’ Network has been launched. It is a
cooperation and collaboration between the India and US private sector-led platform to facilitate investments in
in the field of education and skill development. strategic technologies.
• US Assistant Secretary of State for the Bureau of • They welcomed the progress of the Indo-Pacific
South and Central Asian Affairs Donald Lu and Joint Partnership for Maritime Domain Awareness. This was
Secretary for International Cooperation in the Ministry of announced at the Summit held last year in Tokyo.
Education Neeta Prasad co-chaired the Working Group. • PM Modi invited Quad Leaders to India for the next
• The establishment of this Working Group was Quad Summit in 2024.
announced on the sidelines of the 2+2 Ministerial
Dialogue held between India and US in Washington DC 351. In May as per report Prime minister of India meets
on 11th April 2022. with Pacific Island nation leaders on sidelines of FIPIC
• This was the fourth annual U.S.-India 2+2 Ministerial Summit in Papua New Guinea.
Dialogue. Forum for India-Pacific Islands cooperation (FIPIC) is a
multinational grouping for cooperation between India
350. Recently as per report PM Modi participated in the and __________ Pacific Islands nations.
third Quad Leaders’ Summit at __________ on 20 May A. 12
2023. B. 13
A. Hiroshima C. 14
B. Melbourne D. 16
C. Sydney E. 18
D. Tokyo Answer: C
E. Canberra • Recently, Prime minister of India meets with Pacific
Answer: A Island nation leaders on sidelines of FIPIC Summit in
• PM Modi took part in the 3rd in-person Quad Leaders’ Papua New Guinea.
Summit in Hiroshima, Japan on 20 May 2023. • The third forum for India-Pacific islands co-operation
• Prime Minister Anthony Albanese of Australia, Prime (FIPIC Summit), which was held today at Port Moresby
Minister Fumio Kishida of Japan and President Joseph was jointly hosted with Papua New Guinea.
Biden of the United States of America also participated • Prime minister of India co- chaired the summit with
in the summit. PM of Papua New Guinea.
• The discussions encompassed various areas of ________ million in 2022.

cooperation, including commerce, technology, A. 2.0 million
healthcare, and climate change. B. 1.5 million
• Forum for India-Pacific Islands cooperation (FIPIC) is a C. 3.5 million
multinational grouping for cooperation between India D. 3.0 million
and 14 Pacific Islands nations. E. 2.5 million
• It include 14 islands named- Cook Islands, Fiji, Kiribati, Answer: E
Marshall Islands, Micronesia, Nauru, Niue, Samoa, • An analysis of data from the Geneva-based Internal
Solomon Islands, Palau, Papua New Guinea, Tonga, Displacement Monitoring Centre (IDMC) shows that
Tuvalu and Vanuatu. Internal displacement in India was 2.5 million in 2022.
• All Head of state/head of government of the above • The average displacement in the country in the last
countries met in Suva, Fiji in November 2014 for the first seven years has been over 3 million annually.
time where the annual summit was conceptualised. • This means that as many people as currently reside in
• The FIPIC initiative marks a serious effort to expand Bhopal are displaced by natural disasters every year in
India's engagement in the Pacific region. India.
• In 2015, FIPIC Trade Office at Federation of Indian • An internal displacement refers to each new forced
Chambers of Commerce & Industry (FICCI) to promote movement of persons within the borders of their country
Trade & Investment opportunities between India & recorded during the year because of a disaster.
Pacific Island Countries. • Natural disasters can include floods, epidemics and
weather-related phenomenon, which affect people’s
352. In May as per report Germany ability to continue in their place of residence.
announced__________ billion euro of military aid to • The number of such displaced people in India has
Ukraine, its biggest such package yet since Russia's ranged between 1.3-5 million in the last seven years, for
invasion, and pledged further support for Kyiv for as long which data was collated.
as necessary. • Floods triggered 90 per cent of the region’s disaster
A. 1.7 billion euro displacements in 2022. All countries recorded flood
B. 2.9 billion euro displacement, but Pakistan, India, and Bangladesh were
C. 2.2 billion euro the most affected.
D. 1.5 billion euro • The number of internally displaced people (IDPs)
E. 2.7 billion euro around the world reached 71 million as of the end of
Answer: E 2022, according to the recently published Global Report
• Germany announced 2.7 billion euro ($3.0 billion) of on Internal Replacement 2023.
military aid to Ukraine, its biggest such package yet since • It is released by the Norwegian Refugee Council’s
Russia's invasion, and pledged further support for Kyiv Internal Displacement Monitoring Centre (IDMC).
for as long as necessary. • Of the total disaster displacement, 98 per cent were
• The package will include 30 Leopard 1 tanks, 15 triggered by weather-related events like floods and
Gepard anti-aircraft tanks, over 200 reconnaissance storms.
drones and four Iris-T anti-aircraft systems. • India recorded the fourth largest disaster
• Germany was initially reluctant to provide heavy displacement, with 2.5 million displacements.
arms to Ukraine to help it counter Russia's invasion, • Pakistan had the highest number of disaster
fearing it might escalate the fight. But in January Berlin displacements in the world in 2022, at 8.16 million.
agreed to send Leopard tanks and said it would work
with allies to send more. 354. In May as per report ______________has adopted
• Capital: Berlin, Currency- Euro. India’s proposal to support the development and
adoption of the country’s digital public infrastructure
353. According to the Internal Displacement Monitoring (DPI).
Centre (IDMC) Internal displacement in India was A. G-7
B. G-20 Answer: B
C. Association of Southeast Asian Nations • Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has
D. South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation released a consultation paper on real estate investment
E. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation trusts (REITs) and infrastructure investment trusts
Answer: E (InvITs) that envisages giving special rights to unit-
• The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) has holders, looks at the roles of sponsors and also proposes
recently adopted India’s proposal to support the the concept of self-sponsored trusts.
development and adoption of the country’s digital public • With regard to unit-holders’ rights, there was demand
infrastructure (DPI). from industry players that unit-holders have the right to
• The proposal includes platforms such as Aadhaar, nominate directors on the boards of investment
United Payments Interface (UPI), and DigiLocker. managers of REITs and InvITs.
• It is a significant step towards a more digitally • There are two options in this. In one option,
connected and inclusive future for the region. nomination rights will be given to unit-holders with a
• DPIs are a set of shared digital building blocks certain percentage of units and above, on the board of
powered by interoperable open standards or the investment manager.
specifications. • Under the second option, there would be a ‘Unit-
• It helps mediate the flow of people, money and holders’ Council’ with nominees of unit-holders of REIT
information. and InvIT holding certain percentage of units and above.
• The flow of people through a digital ID System. • The threshold for a unit-holder to nominate a member
• The flow of money through a real-time fast payment on the board is 10 per cent. It has been proposed that
system. there would be at least three members on the unit-
• The flow of personal information through a consent- holders’ council.
based data sharing system to actualise the benefits of • Each member of the Unit-holder’s Council will have
DPIs and empower the citizen to control data. one vote for each 10 per cent stake. For example, a
• India, through India Stack became the first country to nominee of a 20 per cent unit-holder would have two
develop all three foundational DPIs. votes and the nominee of a 30 per cent unit-holder will
• Digital identity through Aadhar; real-time fast have three votes and so on. Alternatively, the unit-
payment through UPI and a platform to safely share holders holding 10 per cent or more of the units can
personal data- Account Aggregator built on the Data appoint one member on the Unit-holders’ Council per 10
Empowerment Protection Architecture or DEPA. per cent held.
• These layers interface with each other to create an • On the role of sponsors, the paper has proposed a
ecosystem that facilitates seamless public service maximum cap on locked-in units in value terms at all
delivery and allows businesses to design. times. The proposal is that for up to three years, 15 per
• Headquarters: Beijing, China, Founded: 15 June 2001. cent of the capital will be locked in; for three-five years,
5 per cent will be locked-in; 3 per cent for 5-10 years, 2
355. In May as per report Securities and Exchange Board per cent for 10-20 years and 1 per cent for over 20 years.
of India (SEBI) has released a consultation paper on REITs • The paper has also mooted the provision for a self-
and iInvITs that envisages giving special rights to unit- sponsored REIT or InvIT, capable of standing on its own.
holders, looks at the roles of sponsors and also proposes The eligibility criteria for a self-sponsored trust would be
the concept of self-sponsored trusts. that it has to be listed for at least five years, should have
As per guidelines threshold for a unit-holder to nominate made 12 distributions on a continuous basis, has a top
a member on the board is ________ per cent. credit rating for five years, has not breached maximum
A. 20 % leverage thresholds in the preceding five years and
B. 10 % meets the prescribed net worth criteria, among others.
C. 50%
D. 30 % 356. In May as per report United Nations Department of
E. 35 % Economic and Social Affairs (UNDESA) released a mid-
year update of its World Economic Situation and banknotes from circulation.
Prospects report. What is the current volume percent of 2000 Notes in
The report has projected that the Indian Economy is Circulation on March 31, 2023?
expected to grow by ________% in 2023 and ________% A. 12.56 %
in 2024. B. 10.8 %
A. 3.7%. 4.5 % C. 13.7 %
B. 5.2%, 6.5 % D. 09.6 %
C. 5.8%, 6.7 % E. 14.5 %
D. 6.2%, 5.2 % Answer: B
E. 6.7%, 5.8 % • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has decided to
Answer: C withdraw the Rs 2000 denomination banknotes from
• The United Nations Department of Economic and circulation.
Social Affairs (UNDESA) released a mid-year update of its • It asked all to exchange these notes by September 30,
World Economic Situation and Prospects report. 2023.
• The report has projected that the Indian Economy is • The Clean Note Policy seeks to give the public good-
expected to grow by 5.8% in 2023 and 6.7% in 2024. quality currency notes and coins with better security
• India will remain the fastest-growing major economy features, while soiled notes are withdrawn out of
in the world. India’s economic growth will be supported circulation.
by resilient domestic demand. • Clean Note Policy is a policy adopted by RBI to ensure
• India’s inflation is expected to decelerate to 5.5 availability of good quality banknotes to the members of
percent in 2023 due to a decrease in global commodity public.
prices and slower currency depreciation. • The RBI had earlier decided to withdraw from
• As per the report, the world economy is projected to circulation all banknotes issued prior to 2005 as they
grow by 2.3 per cent in 2023 and 2.5 percent in 2024. The have fewer security features as compared to banknotes
earlier forecast of world economic growth was 1.9 per printed after 2005.
cent for 2023. • However, the notes issued before 2005 continue to be
• The report highlights that the labour markets in the legal tender.
developed countries have shown remarkable resilience. • As per Section 22 of the RBI Act 1934, RBI has the sole
• Recently, Fitch Ratings said that India would be one of authority to issue banknotes in India.
the fastest-growing sovereigns around the world. It • RBI Act 1934 empowers RBI to issue all the banknotes
forecasted 6 per cent gross domestic product growth for except 1 Rs. note.
2023-24. • Every currency note, other than Rs. 1 rupee note,
bears on its face a promise from the Governor of RBI.
357. In May as per report Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has • The one rupee note, carries the name of India's
decided to withdraw the Rs 2000 denomination Finance Secretary.
banknotes from circulation. • Banknotes of ₹2,000 denomination were introduced
As per Section __________ of the RBI Act 1934, RBI has after₹1000 and ₹500 banknotes were demonetised on
the sole authority to issue banknotes in India. November 8, 2016.
A. Section 24 • Demonetisation is the process through which a
B. Section 26 nation's economic unit of exchange loses its legally
C. Section 28 enforceable validity.
D. Section 22 • It is a drastic intervention into the economy that
E. Section 20 involves removing the legal tender status of a currency.
Answer: D • Previous demonetisation - Demonetisation has been
implemented twice:
358. In May as per report Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has
decided to withdraw the Rs 2000 denomination
• In 1946, RBI demonetized 1000- and 10000-rupee D. Rs 1,04,649 crore

notes. E. Rs 1,05,649 crore
• In 1978, the government demonetized 1000-, 5000-, Answer: D
and 10000-rupee notes in order to curb the menace of • Public sector banks' cumulative profit crossed the Rs 1
black money. lakh crore-mark in the financial year ended March 2023,
• On November 8, 2016, PM Modi announced the with market leader State Bank of India (SBI) accounting
decision of the government to demonetise currency for nearly half of the total earnings.
notes of Rs 500 and Rs 1,000 in a bid to tackle corruption. • From posting a total net loss of Rs 85,390 crore in
• With fulfilment of that objective, printing of ₹2000 2017-18, the Public Sector Banks (PSBs) have come a long
banknotes was stopped in 2018-19. way as their profit touched Rs 1,04,649 crore in 2022-23,
• A majority of the ₹2000 denomination notes were according to an analysis of their financial results.
issued prior to March 2017 and are at the end of their • These 12 PSBs witnessed 57 per cent increase in total
estimated life-span of 4-5 years. profit compared to Rs 66,539.98 crore earned in 2021-22.
• The total value of these banknotes in circulation has • In percentage terms Pune-based Bank of
declined from ₹6.73 lakh crore at its peak of March 31, Maharashtra (BoM) had the highest net profit growth
2018 (37.3 per cent of Notes in Circulation) to ₹3.62 lakh with 126 per cent to Rs 2,602 crore, followed by UCO
crore, constituting only 10.8 per cent of Notes in with 100 per cent rise to Rs 1,862 crore and Bank of
Circulation on March 31, 2023. Baroda with 94 per cent increase to Rs 14,110 crore.
• The three segments which will be affected by this • However, in absolute term, SBI has reported an
move will be gold & jewellery, real estate and political annual profit of Rs 50,232 crore in 2022-23, showing an
parties. increase of 59 per cent over the preceding financial year.
• At a time only 10 notes of ₹2,000 can be exchanged. • Except for the Punjab National Bank (PNB), other
Anyone can come back again as the restriction is at a PSBs have reported impressive annual increases in their
time. profit after tax.
• The latest RBI decision impacts just about 11% of • PNB posted a 27 per cent decline in annual net profit
currency in circulation and therefore will probably from Rs 3,457 crore in 2021-22 to Rs 2,507 crore in the
trigger little chaos. year ended March 2023.
• The Rs 2000 note was introduced in November 2016 • The government has implemented a comprehensive
under Section 24(1) of The RBI Act, 1934 to meet the 4R strategy: Recognising NPAs transparently, Resolution
currency requirement of the economy after the legal and recovery, Recapitalising PSBs, and Reforms in the
tender status of Rs 500 and Rs 1000 notes was financial ecosystem.
withdrawn. • As part of the strategy, the government infused an
• Rs 2000 banknotes can be exchanged up to a limit of unprecedented Rs 3,10,997 crore to recapitalise PSBs
Rs 20,000 at a time. during the last five financial years -- from 2016-17 to
• A non-account holder of bank also can exchange Rs 2020-21.
2000 banknotes up to a limit of Rs 20,000 at a time at • In the latest March quarter or the fourth quarter of
any bank branch. 2022-23, the PSBs' profit cumulatively increased more
• The exchange of Rs 2000 banknotes can also be made than 95 per cent to Rs 34,483 crore.
through business correspondents up to a limit of Rs 4000
per day for an account holder. 360. In May as per report Insurance Regulatory and
Development Authority of India (IRDAI) announced
359. Recently as per report Public Sector Banks (PSBs) changes to the norms for 'surety bonds', to further the
cumulative profit stands at __________in the financial expansion of the surety insurance market.
year ended March 2023, As per a circular by the regulator, the solvency
A. Rs 1,01,649 crore requirement applicable for such products has been
B. Rs 1,02,649 crore lowered to ___________.
C. Rs 1,03,649 crore A. 2.5 times
B. 1.0 times end residential properties with appreciation of 5.5 per
C. 1.75 times cent.
D. 1.5 times • Real estate consultant Knight Frank India in its report
E. 1.25 times 'Prime Global Cities Index Q1 2023' said that Mumbai,
Answer: D Bengaluru and New Delhi have registered an increase in
• The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority average annual prices in January-March 2023.
of India (IRDAI) announced changes to the norms for • Mumbai moved up from the 38th rank in Q1 2022 to
'surety bonds', to further the expansion of the surety the 06th rank in Q1 2023 based on the annual growth in
insurance market. high-end or prime properties.
• As per a circular by the regulator, the solvency • Bengaluru and New Delhi also witnessed an upward
requirement applicable for such products has been movement in index ranking to 16th and 22nd ranks from
lowered from the previously prescribed 1.875 times to their previous 37th and 39th ranks, respectively.
control the level of 1.5 times. • Dubai clinched the top position globally with an
• Further, the prevailing 30 per cent exposure limit increase of 44.2 per cent in prime residential properties
applicable on each contract underwritten by an insurer, values.
has also been removed. • The Prime Global Cities Index is a valuation-based
• In January 2022, IRDAI had come out with a index tracking the movement of prime residential prices
framework for development of surety insurance business across 46 cities worldwide. The index tracks nominal
in the country and issued the 'IRDAI (Surety Insurance prices in local currency.
Contracts) Guidelines', which came into effect from April
1, 2022. 362. According to a report by property consultancy
• The PSU non-life insurance company New India Knight Frank number of ultra-high net worth individuals
Assurance became the second insurer to offer surety (UHNWIs) in India is expected to rise 58.4 per cent in the
bonds in India recently. Earlier, Bajaj Allianz General next five years from 12,069 in 2022 to 19,119
Insurance launched the country's first-ever surety bond in________.
insurance product in December 2022. A. 2025
• Surety bonds are a risk transfer tool for the Principal B. 2026
and shield the Principal from the losses that may arise in C. 2027
case the contractor fails to perform their contractual D. 2028
obligations. E. 2030
• Unlike a bank guarantee, the Surety Bond Insurance Answer: C
does not require large collateral from the contractor thus • According to report by property consultancy Knight
freeing up significant funds for the contractor, which Frank the number of ultra-high net worth individuals
they can utilize for the growth of the business. (UHNWIs) in India is expected to rise 58.4 per cent in the
next five years from 12,069 in 2022 to 19,119 in 2027.
361. In May as per report by Knight Frank Mumbai ranks • In its "The Wealth Report 2023", Knight Frank said
__________ among 46 cities globally in terms of annual that the number of Indian UHNWIs, with a net worth of
price growth of high-end residential properties with $30 million or above, fell 7.5 per cent in 2022 due to
appreciation of 5.5 per cent. economic slowdown, rate hikes, appreciation of the US
A. 3rd dollar and geopolitical uncertainties.
B. 6th • Globally, the number of UHNWIs fell 3.8 per cent in
C. 8th 2022 compared to 2021.
D. 7th • The report added that India's billionaire population is
E. 2nd expected to increase from 161 individuals in 2022 to 195
Answer: B individuals in 2027.
• According to Knight Frank Mumbai ranks 6th among • Moreover, the Indian high-net-worth-individual (HNI)
46 cities globally in terms of annual price growth of high- population, with assets of $1 million and more, will rise
107 per cent from 797,714 persons in 2022 to 1.65 million Answer: D
in 2027. • Payments through international debit or credit cards
• The report added that in the next five years, Asia is upto ₹7 lakh will not come under Liberalised Remittance
expected to witness a 40 per cent growth in the number Scheme (LRS).
of ultra-wealthy. • Finance Ministry clarified such payments will not
• By 2027, Asia will be home to 210,175 UHNWIs taking attract Tax Collected at Source (TCS).
over Europe and standing only second to the Americas. • Transactions through UPI and of more than ₹7 lakh by
• Interestingly, in 2022, West Asia saw the fastest Indians abroad will attract TCS.
growth in the number of UHNWIs. The United Arab • They will be treated at par with international credit or
Emirates (UAE) was the fastest-growing country in this debit cards.
regard, with an 18.1 per cent increase, bringing the • Under LRS, all resident individuals, including minors,
number of UHNWIs to 1,116. are permitted to freely remit up to $2,50,000 per fiscal
year for any permissible current or capital account
363. In May as per report ___________ bank has transaction or a combination of two.
emerged as the largest buyer on the Government e • Resident individuals are allowed to use foreign
Marketplace (GeM) portal in 2022-23. exchange facility up to the limit of $2,50,000 only.
A. State Bank of India • Corporates, partnership firms, HUF, Trusts etc. are not
B. Canara Bank eligible for the scheme.
C. Punjab National Bank • Ministry of Finance in consultation with the RBI has
D. Indian Overseas Bank omitted Rule 7 of FEM (CAT) Rules 2000.
E. Indian Bank • It has removed the relaxation given to the users of
Answer: B international credit cards for their transactions by a
• Canara Bank emerged as the largest buyer on the person when they are on overseas visit.
GeM portal in 2022-23. • The change brings overseas international credit card
• It made purchases of ₹592.82 crore from the GeM spending under the liberalised remittance scheme (LRS)
portal, according to the government data. of the RBI.
• The data showed SBI was slow in procuring goods and • The government announced that all international
services from the portal in 2022-23. credit card spending outside of India will be a part of
• Punjab National Bank was the second largest with LRS, which will attract a higher tax collected at source at
purchase of ₹164.57 crore. 20 per cent.
• It was followed by Indian Overseas Bank (₹159.82 • The new tax rate will come into effect from July 1,
crore), State Bank of India (₹158.22 crore), and Indian 2023.
Bank (₹111.59 crore).
• Government e Marketplace (GeM) portal was 365. In May as per report Tata Group Chairman N.
launched on 09 August 2016. It was launched for online Chandrasekaran received highest civilian award of which
purchasing of goods and services by all the ministries of the following countries?
and departments of the central government. A. Japan
B. Germany
364. Recently as per report Payments through C. US
international debit or credit cards upto __________ lakh D. UK
will not come under Liberalised Remittance Scheme E. France
(LRS). Answer: E
A. ₹6 lakh • N. Chandrasekaran received France's highest civilian
B. ₹5 lakh award Chevalier de la Legion d'honneur.
C. ₹4 lakh • N. Chandrasekaran (Natarajan Chandrasekaran) is
D. ₹7 lakh Tata Group Chairman.
E. ₹8 lakh
• He has received the award for his contribution to share of the digital payments market in India, with
strengthen the trade relationship between India and almost 863 crore transactions across the three of them.
France. • Phonepe has been and remains the top dog in the
• French Minister for Europe and Foreign Affairs space, with a 50.47 per cent market share in terms of
Catherine Colonna gave him the award on behalf of the transaction value. Google Pay stood at 22.69 per cent,
French President on May 16. while Paytm trailed in third place.
• Earlier this year, Air India had signed a deal with
Airbus to buy 250 aircraft from Airbus. 367. In May as per report government has cut the
• Air India is owned by Tata Group. Airbus is subsidy on electric two-wheelers in an effort to overhaul
headquartered in France. the financial incentives given to this growing industry.
• In December 2022, Tata Technologies inaugurated its As per report the subsidy would be reduced to ________
innovation centre in Toulouse, France. per kilowatt hour (kWh) effective 1 June from ₹15,000
• Chevalier de la Legion d'honneur is the highest civilian currently.
award given by France government. A. ₹8,000
• It was started by Napoleon Bonaparte in 1802. B. ₹12,000
C. ₹10,000
366. In May as per report Zomato has partnered with D. ₹13,000
__________ to launch its very own unified payments E. ₹9,000
interface (UPI) offering called Zomato UPI, for some of its Answer: C
users. • The government has cut the subsidy on electric two-
A. ICICI Bank wheelers in an effort to overhaul the financial incentives
B. HDFC Bank given to this growing industry.
C. Axis Bank • The heavy industries ministry announced that the
D. Punjab National Bank subsidy would be reduced to ₹10,000 per kilowatt hour
E. State Bank Of India (kWh) effective 1 June from ₹15,000 currently.
Answer: A • The lower subsidy would be applicable to all electric
• Food aggregator platform Zomato has partnered with two-wheelers registered on or after 1 June, the ministry
ICICI Bank to launch its very own unified payments said in a notification.
interface (UPI) offering called Zomato UPI, for some of its • Further, the cap on incentives for such vehicles has
users. been lowered to 15% of the ex-factory price of vehicles
• Using the new service, customers can pay for their from the earlier 40%.
orders directly through the Zomato app – by creating • But the total amount allocated toward providing
their own UPI ID – without being redirected to other incentives for these vehicles will be raised from the
payment gateways like Phonepe, Google Pay, or any current ₹2,000 crores.
other third-party app. • On 17 May, the ministry announced the impending
• Users will be able to make both, peer-to-peer, as well plan to lower the subsidy on electric two-wheelers.
as merchant payments using the service. • The FAME Scheme was launched in 2019 for a three-
• Currently, Zomato UPI has been rolled out to select year period. The scheme has now been extended until 31
users only. Further expansion of the service will hinge on March 2024.
the initial customer response. • The scheme provides incentives for electric vehicles in
• This isn’t Zomato’s first rodeo in the payments sphere. the segments of electric three-wheelers, electric four-
The Gurugram-based firm had, in November last year, wheelers, and electric buses. Privately owned registered
also rolled out the third iteration of its dining out electric two-wheelers are also eligible for subsidies.
program – Zomato Pay.
• According to data from the National Payments 368. According to research by SBI’s economic research
Corporation of India (NPCI), as of April 2023, the trio of department (ERD), rural and semi-urban areas are now
Phonepe, Google Pay and Paytm command a 97 per cent accounting for ______ of share in UPI value/ volume.
A. 30% • According to the RBI, gross FDI in FY23 declined from
B. 40% $84.8 billion in FY22 to $71 billion in FY23.
C. 50% • Net FDI also declined from $38.6 billion in FY22 to $28
D. 60% billion in FY23 according to an article titled ‘State of the
E. 70% Economy’ in latest monthly bulletin of RBI.
Answer: D • The highest decline in FDI inflows compared with the
• According to SBI’s report “Ecowrap”, a person now preceding year was recorded in manufacturing,
accesses an ATM eight times per year on average, down computer services and communication services.
from 16 times previously. • As per the article, US, Switzerland, and Mauritius
• As per the report, every one rupee increase in the were the major contributors towards the decline in
value of UPI transactions results in an 18 paisa decrease inflows.
in debit card transactions. • In 2022, in the semiconductor industry, India was the
• The observation is based on monthly time series data 2nd largest recipient of FDI ($26.2 billion). US was the
analysis for the period of April 2016 to April 2023. largest recipient of FDI ($33.8 billion).
• According to research by SBI’s economic research • In the semiconductor industry, China received only
department (ERD), cash withdrawal through debit cards $0.5 billion as FDI.
at ATMs has declined from November 2018. • The overall cost of ECB loans increased steeply by 5.16
• As per ERD’s research, rural and semi-urban areas are percentage points between March 2022 and March 2023.
now accounting for 60% of share in UPI value/ volume. • Net accretions to non-resident deposits rose from $3.2
• Top 15 States accounted for about 90% of share in UPI billion a year ago to $8 billion in 2022-23.
value/volume.
• As per Ecowrap, the most popular and preferred 370. Recently as per report RBI’s economic activity index
payment mode in India is UPI. It accounts for about 73% (EAI) has nowcast GDP growth for Q1 of FY24 at _____.
of the total digital payments. A. 7.5%
• According to ERD’s analysis, the volume of UPI B. 7.6%
transactions has increased from 1.8 crore in FY17 to C. 7.7%
8,375 crore in FY23. D. 7.8%
• The value of UPI transactions has increased from E. 7.9%
₹6,947 crore to ₹ 139-lakh crore during the FY17 to FY23. Answer: B
This is a jump of 2004 times. • RBI’s economic activity index (EAI) has nowcast GDP
• ERD said that CIC (currency in circulation) has declined growth for Q1 (April-June) FY24 at 7.6%.
to reach 12.4% of GDP in FY23. This is almost same level • This is against real GDP growth of 7.8% projected in
as 2015-16. the April 2023 Bi-monthly Monetary Policy Statement.
• As per ERD, the yearly growth in CIC has also declined • The nowcast GDP growth is based on partial data
from 16.6% in FY21 to 7.9% in FY23. available for April 2023.
• The nowcast GDP growth is based on assuming an
369. According to the RBI, gross FDI in FY23 declined by implied GDP growth of 5.1% for Q4 (January-March)
16.3% from $84.8 billion in FY22 to _______ billion in FY23.
FY23. • The index of supply chain pressure for India (ISPI)
A. $81 billion remained at levels below historical average since July
B. $75 billion 2022.
C. $71 billion • GDP growth in the first quarter of FY24 will be driven
D. $68 billion by private consumption. It will be supported by revival in
E. $57 billion rural demand.
Answer: C • Domestic service sector activity will be led by the
• Gross Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) inflows in FY23 rebound in contact-intensive services. It will be led by
declined 16.3%. resilience in construction activity.
115BBJ related to computation of tax on winnings from
371. In May as per report CBDT issued taxation online games.
guidelines for online gaming platforms. • The Bill has removed the minimum threshold of Rs
As per guidelines Online gaming platforms need not 10,000 for TDS while also allowing it to be calculated
deduct tax at source on winnings withdrawn by players if either at the end of the financial year or at the time of
the amount is less than ________ a month and meets user withdrawal, with effect from July 1, 2023.
certain rider. • Prior to this, gaming companies were required to
A. ₹200 / month deduct TDS at the rate of 0.1 percent for each winnings
B. ₹100 / month of over Rs 10,000 while gross winnings from online
C. ₹500 / month gaming were taxed at a flat rate of 30 percent.
D. ₹800 / month
E. ₹300 / month 372. In May as per report Tata Consultancy Services (TCS)
Answer: B has been awarded an advance purchase order worth
• Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) said in a set of ________ crore by the government-owned BSNL.
guidelines that Online gaming platforms need not deduct A. ₹16,000 crore
tax at source on winnings withdrawn by players if the B. ₹15,700 crore
amount is less than ₹100 a month and meets certain C. ₹14,000 crore
riders. D. ₹13,000 crore
• As per this, net winnings below ₹100 in a month will E. ₹12,000 crore
not be subject to tax deducted at source (TDS) at the Answer: B
time of withdrawal provided the tax liability will be • Tata Consultancy Services (TCS) announced that a
deducted when the net winnings withdrawn exceeds this consortium, headed by the prominent IT company, has
limit in the same or the subsequent month or at the end been awarded an advance purchase order worth more
of the fiscal year. than ₹15,000 crore by the government-owned BSNL.
• As per section 194BA of the Income Tax Act, online
gaming companies paying to any person any income by 373. Recently as per the annual complaints report for
way of winnings during the financial year, should deduct FY23 release by the Advertising Standards Council of
income-tax on the net winnings in his user account. India (ASCI)___________ has become the top violative
• If the money in the user account is used to buy an sector in terms of advertisement.
item in kind and given to user, then it is to be treated as A. Education
net winnings in cash and tax is to be deducted at source. B. Healthcare
• Where the net winnings are wholly in kind or partly in C. Real money gaming
cash, and partly in kind but the part in cash is not D. Tourism
sufficient to meet the liability of deduction of tax, the E. Both a and b
gaming company should ensure that tax has been paid in Answer: C
respect of the net winnings, before releasing the • Real money gaming has become the top violative
winnings. sector in terms of advertisement.
• The Union government has carved out a distinction • This sector was followed by education and healthcare,
between online skill-based games and other games such as per the annual complaints report for FY23 released
as lottery, puzzles and crossword puzzles through new recently by the Advertising Standards Council of India
clauses in the Income Tax Act as disclosed in the Finance (ASCI).
Bill on February 1, thereby providing much-needed • As per the report, there has been a sharp increase in
clarity to the nascent industry in terms of taxation over the number misleading ads featuring celebrities.
winnings on online gaming platforms. • 75% of violative ads were found on digital media.
• The finance bill has introduced two new sections - ASCI examined 7,928 ads across print, digital, and
Section 194BA that pertains to TDS (tax deducted at television in FY23.
source) on net winnings from online games and section
• This was an increase of about two-folds over the last 374. Recently State Bank of India reported an 83 per cent
two years. year-on-year (yoy) jump in its fourth quarter standalone
• TV and print advertisers were highly compliant, net profit at ________.
digital ads emerged as least compliant. A. ₹15,695 crore
• According to the report, real-money gaming industry B. ₹17,695 crore
overtook the education sector for the first time to C. ₹16,695 crore
become the most violative sector, moving from fifth to D. ₹18,695 crore
first place. E. ₹19,695 crore
• Real-money gaming sector also emerged as the least Answer: C
compliant with only 50% of ads being modified • State Bank of India reported an 83 per cent year-on-
voluntarily. year (yoy) jump in its fourth quarter standalone net
• Ads by Ticktok Skill Games Pvt Ltd featuring MS Dhoni profit at ₹16,695 crore, beating street expectations.
and Bhuvan Bam were found to be non-compliant. • This is the bank’s highest quarterly net profit even as
• Ads by Galactus Funware Technology featuring Virat its asset quality improved further.
Kohli and Jim Shrabh were also found to be non- • The bank had logged ₹14,205 crore net profit in the
compliant. preceding quarter. Broking firms were expecting the net
• Advertising Standards Council of India (ASCI) was profit of India’s largest bank to rise by about 66 per cent.
formed in 1985. It is a self-regulatory and non- • The bank’s board declared a dividend of ₹11.30 per
governmental organization. equity share (1130 per cent) for the financial year ended
• It is headquartered in Mumbai. Its chairman is N S March 31, 2023.
Rajan. • For the full year net profit has crossed the landmark
• The order is specifically for implementing a number of ₹50,000 crore (up 58.58 per cent yoy at
nationwide 4G network in India. ₹50,232 crore), which is the highest ever by any bank in
• This development takes place amidst Reliance Jio and India.
Bharti Airtel's ongoing efforts to expand their 5G • The bank’s gross NPA position improved to 2.78 per
infrastructure throughout the country. cent of gross advances against 3.14 per cent in the
• In preparation for the official launch of its 4G services, preceding quarter. This is the lowest level in more than
state-owned Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL) 10 years.
introduced pilot-mode 4G services in certain areas of
Punjab on April 22. 375. In May as per report __________has partnered with
Google to establish the Centre for Responsible Artificial
• The company has initiated live testing of its 4G
services across 135 tower sites, utilizing a domestically Intelligence (CeRAI), focusing on responsible AI research
and development.
developed telecom stack.
A. IIT Ropar
• Tejas Networks Limited, a part of the Tata Group,
B. IIT Bombay
announced on April 3 that it had secured an order valued
C. IIT Kanpur
at ₹696 crore from BSNL. The order pertains to the
D. IIT Madras
enhancement of BSNL's nationwide IP-MPLS based
E. IIT Delhi
Access and Aggregation Network (MAAN).
Answer: D
• Under the terms of the agreement, Tejas Networks
• The Indian Institute of Technology Madras (IIT
will provide, install, and commission over 13,000 of its
Madras) has partnered with Google to establish the
advanced 'TJ1400' series access and aggregation routers.
Centre for Responsible Artificial Intelligence (CeRAI),
• Tejas Networks, an Indian company specializing in
focusing on responsible AI research and development.
optical, broadband, and data networking products,
• As the inaugural platinum consortium member,
operates on a global scale.
Google has invested $1 million in this initiative.
• CeRAI aims to become a premier research centre at • Generally, institutions and high net worth individuals
both the national and international levels, dedicated to invest in AIF as it needs a high investment amount.
fundamental and applied research in Responsible AI. • Category I AIFs: They can invest in start-ups, early
• The center will prioritize the deployment of AI stage ventures, social ventures, SMEs and sectors which
systems within the Indian ecosystem, emphasizing the government or regulators consider as socially or
immediate impact. economically desirable.
• CeRAI was formally inaugurated on April 27, with the • They include venture capital funds like angel funds,
ceremony presided over by Rajeev Chandrasekhar, the SME Funds, social venture funds, infrastructure funds
Union Minister of State for Electronics and Information and such other AIFs as may be specified.
Technology.The startup mentorship and incubation • Category II AIFs: They are those which are not
organization, The Indus Entrepreneurs (TIE), will also be classified under Category I or Category III.
associated with CeRAI. • They do not undertake leverage or borrowing other
than to meet day-to-day operational requirements and
376. Consider the following statement regarding as permitted in the regulations.
Alternative Investment Funds. Which of the following • Various types of funds such as real estate funds, debt
statement is incorrect? funds, private equity funds, funds for distressed assets,
A. It is a special investment category that differs from etc. are registered as Category II AIFs.
conventional investment instruments. • Category III AIFs: They are funds which employ
B. AIF is any fund established in India which is a privately complex or diverse trading strategies and may employ
pooled investment vehicle that collects funds from leverage including through investment in listed or
sophisticated investors, both Indian or foreign, for unlisted derivatives hedge funds, PIPE Funds, etc. are
investing. registered as Category III AIFs.
C. These investment vehicles adhere to the SEBI • Category I and II AIFs are required to be close ended
(Alternative Investment Funds) Regulations, 2012. and have a minimum tenure of three years. Category III
D. Only 1 and 2 AIFs may be open ended or close ended.
Answer: E 377. Which of the following is not true about Sustainable
• The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), Aviation Fuel (SAF)?
recently proposed tightening rules for alternative A. It is a biomass-derived fuel for aircrafts.
investment funds by restricting their ability to borrow for B. It can be made by ethanol, Jatropha, algae, tallows,
investments. waste oils, palm oil, Babassu, and Camelina (bio-SPK).
• It is a special investment category that differs from C. It promotes reduction in emissions of greenhouse
conventional investment instruments. gases and but increases particulate matter.
• AIF is any fund established in India which is a D. India recently flew its first domestic commercial flight
privately pooled investment vehicle that collects funds on indigenous feedstock & SAF.
from sophisticated investors, both Indian or foreign, for E. All of the above are correct
investing. Answer: C
• It pools funds from investors and invests them under • India successfully flew its first commercial passenger
different categories of investments as specified by the flight using an indigenously produced Sustainable
SEBI for the benefit of investors. Aviation Fuel (SAF) blend.
• These investment vehicles adhere to the SEBI • India’s first commercial passenger flight with
(Alternative Investment Funds) Regulations, 2012. Sustainable Aviation Fuel flew from Pune to Delhi.
• AIFs can be formed as a company, Limited Liability • Air Asia flight with indigenously produced Sustainable
Partnership (LLP), trust, etc. Aviation Fuel (SAF) successfully flew from Pune to Delhi.
• It is an investment option for high rollers, including • Sustainable Aviation Fuel (SAF) was supplied by
domestic and foreign investors in India. Indian Oil Corporation Limited in association with a
private firm.
• He said that India is aiming to make mandate the use Commerce and Industry, established to promote the
of 1% Sustainable Aviation Fuel by 2025. cultivation, processing, and domestic trade as well as
• Sustainable Aviation Fuel (SAF) is a type of aviation export of tea from India.
fuel that is produced from renewable sources, unlike • Headquarters: Kolkata, Founded: 1 April 1954.
traditional fossil-based jet fuels. It is considered
sustainable because it has a significantly lower carbon 379. In May as per report advocate K V Viswanathan and
footprint and reduces greenhouse gas emissions Justice Prashant Kumar Mishra took oath as judges of
compared to conventional jet fuel. the Supreme Court on 19 May 2023.
• It can be derived from various feedstocks, such as As per report working strength of the Supreme Court is
plant oils, agricultural waste, forestry residues, and now equal to its sanctioned judge strength of _________.
municipal solid waste. A. 30
• SAF can reduce greenhouse gas emissions by up to B. 31
80% compared to conventional jet fuel. Also, it is C. 32
designed to be a drop-in replacement for conventional D. 33
jet fuel, meaning it can be used in existing aircraft E. 34
engines without requiring modifications. Answer: E
• It is a significant milestone in India’s efforts towards • Senior advocate K V Viswanathan and Justice
achieving net-zero emissions by 2070. India has set a Prashant Kumar Mishra took oath as judges of the
target of becoming energy self-reliant by 2047. Supreme Court on 19 May 2023.
• Their names were recommended on 16th May by the
378. In May as per report Tea Board announced Supreme Court Collegium headed by the Chief Justice.
formation of an 11 member committee under the • The working strength of the Supreme Court is now
chairmanship of _________ to study the reasons behind equal to its sanctioned judge strength of 34.
the deteriorating quality of green tea leaves and to • After the retirement of Justices Dinesh Maheshwari
suggest remedial measures to reverse that. and M R Shah, Supreme Court was working with 32
A. Executive director of the Tea Board’s office at Kochi judges.
B. Executive director of the Tea Board’s office at Kolkata • KV Viswanathan is the tenth lawyer who has directly
C. Executive director of the Tea Board’s office at been appointed from the Bar to the Supreme Court
Lucknow bench.
D. Executive director of the Tea Board’s office at • Justice Prashant Kumar Mishra was serving as the
Guwahati Chief Justice of the Andhra Pradesh High Court.
E. Executive director of the Tea Board’s office at Surat • Criteria for judge of the Supreme Court are as follows:
Answer: D A person must be a citizen of India.
• Tea Board announced formation of an 11-member • He/ She must have been a Judge of a High Court for at
committee to study the reasons behind the deteriorating least five years.
quality of green tea leaves and to suggest remedial • He should have been an advocate of a High Court for
measures to reverse that. at least 10 years.
• Headed by the executive director of the Tea Board’s
office at Guwahati, the panel will comprise 380. Recently as per report _________will take oath as
representatives of bought-leaf factories, estate factories the new Chief Minister of Karnataka.
and small tea growers. A. D K Shivakumar
• Tea Board also said that the panel will conduct a B. Siddaramaiah
threadbare examination of the causes of falling green C. BS Yadiyaruppa
leaf quality across the country and will submit its report D. VS Acharya
within three months. E. Suresh Angad
• The Tea Board of India is a state agency of the Answer: B
Government of India under the control of Ministry of
• Siddaramaiah will take oath as the new Chief

Minister of Karnataka on 20th May. 382. Every year on __________ Commonwealth Day is
• The Congress Legislative Party meeting was held in celebrated in India.
Bengaluru on 18 May 2023. It elected him as the new A. 18th May
legislative party leader. B. 19th May
• D K Shivakumar has been elected as the Deputy Chief C. 26th May
Minister. D. 24th May
• Siddaramaiah and D K Shivakumar met Governor E. 21st May
Thawarchand Gehlot to stake a claim for the Answer: D
Government. • Every year on 24 May, Commonwealth Day is
• The Congress had gained a majority in the May 10 celebrated in India.
Assembly election. • It is celebrated in countries of Africa, Asia, the
• The swearing-in ceremony will be held on May 20 Caribbean and Americas, the Pacific, and Europe.
afternoon. • The theme of Commonwealth Day 2023 is “Forging a
• The Governor will administer the oath of office to Sustainable and Peaceful Common Future."
Siddaramaiah as CM and D K Shivakumar as Deputy CM. • Commonwealth Day is celebrated to commemorate
• Siddaramaiah was also the Chief Minister of the birth anniversary of Queen Victoria born on 24 May
Karnataka from 2013 to 2018. 1819.
• He is only the second person to hold that office for a • Initially, it was celebrated as Empire Day, but in 1958
full five-year term. He won from the Varuna Assembly the name was changed to Commonwealth Day.
constituency in the 2023 elections. • Commonwealth Nations is a political organization of
56 countries.
381. In May as per report Robert E Lucas who passed
away won the Nobel Prize in __________ in 1995. 383. In May as per report Georgi Gospodinov and Angela
A. Peace Rodel won the 2023 International Booker Prize for
B. Economics ________________ novel.
C. Physics A. Impossible Object
D. Chemistry B. New World
E. Physiology and Medicine C. Tomb of Sand
Answer: B D. Time Shelter
• Noted American economist and Nobel laureate, E. The War of Games
Robert Emerson Lucas Jr. (Robert Lucas), professor of Answer: D
Economics at the University of Chicago (since 1975), • Georgi Gospodinov and Angela Rodel win the 2023
passed away at the age of 85. International Booker Prize for the novel ‘Time Shelter’.
• He won the Nobel Prize in Economic Science – • ‘Time Shelter’ became the first Bulgarian novel to win
officially known as “The Sveriges Riksbank Prize in the International Booker Prize.
Economic Sciences in Memory of Alfred Nobel” in 1995 • It is written by Georgi Gospodinov and has been
for his work on rational expectations and the efficacy of translated by Angela Rodel.
government intervention in the economy. • 'Time Shelter' is the story of a clinic where the past is
• Robert Lucas received the Nobel Prize in Economics in recreated in a way and each floor is shown as a different
1995 for having developed and applied the hypothesis of decade.
rational expectations, thereby transforming • Its purpose is to help people who are suffering from
macroeconomic analysis and deepening our dementia and have forgotten old things.
understanding of economic policy. • This Novel deals with the question that what happens
• He was elected to the American Academy of Arts and to us when our memories disappear.
Sciences in 1980, the National Academy of Sciences in • Gospodinov said that he is influenced by writers such
1981, and the American Philosophical Society in 1997. as Thomas Mann and Marcel Proust.
• In 2022, the Italian translation of Time Shelter won • The first edition of the Khelo India University Games
the Premio Strega Europeo prize. was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in 2020.
• Last year, Geetanjali Shree won the International • The main aim is to identify athletes in the age group
Booker Prize for the novel “Tomb of Sand”. of 18 to 25 years for the Olympics and the Asian Games.
• International Booker Prize was formerly known as the • Jain University, Karnataka secured first sport in the
Man Booker International Prize. 2022 edition of the Khelo India University Games.
• The prize is awarded for a book translated into
English. 385. In May as per report Vuppala Praneeth from
___________ has become the 82nd Grandmaster of
384. Consider the following statement regarding Khelo India.
India University games. Which of the following A. Tamil Nadu
statement is correct? B. West Bengal
A. Prime Minister Narendra Modi will be the chief guest C. Telangana
at the inaugural function of the Khelo India University D. Goa
games in Lucknow. E. Kerala
B. It is the third edition of the Khelo India University Answer: C
games. • V.Prraneeth became Telangana’s sixth and India’s
C. The mascot of the University Games is Jitu Barasingha. 82nd Grandmaster when he outwitted GM Hans
D. 'Shakti' is the official torch of Khelo India University Niemann of US in the penultimate round of Baku Open
Games, Uttar Pradesh. 2023.
E. All of the above are correct • The win against the top seed helped Prraneeth to
Answer: E cross ELO 2500 in the live ratings, 2500.5 to be exact
• On 25th May, Prime Minister Narendra Modi will be having already earned the third GM norm in the earlier
the chief guest at the inaugural function of the Khelo tournament.
India University games in Lucknow. It is the third edition • The 15-year-old Prraneeth earned his first GM-norm
of the Khelo India University games. at First Saturday GM March 2022 where he also became
• Union Sports Minister Anurag Thakur and the an IM and his second GM-norm at Biel MTO in July 2022.
Minister of State for Sports Nishith Pramanik will also • Nine months later, he earned his final GM-norm at
take part in the event. 2nd Chessable Sunway Formentera Open 2023.
• The inaugural function will be organized in the Babu • The first Indian Grandmaster was Viswanathan
Banarasi Das stadium. Anand, who held the title in 1988.
• On this occasion, many cultural programs will be also • Sayantan Das became India's 81st Grandmaster after
organized. More than 4,000 athletes in 21 sports disciple his victory at the International Festival des Jeux in
will participate in the event. Cannes, France.
• The KIUG 2022 Games will be held in Varanasi, Noida,
Lucknow and Gorakhpur. The mascot of the University 386. In May as per report Saturn outshines Jupiter with
Games is Jitu Barasingha. the planet with the most moons.
• 'Shakti' is the official torch of Khelo India University As of May how many moons does Saturn have?
Games, Uttar Pradesh. A. 142
• It is being organised by the Sports Authority of India B. 145
(SAI) and Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports in C. 156
association with the Association of Indian Universities, D. 136
the Indian Olympic Association and the National Sports E. 125
Federation. Answer: B
• Khelo India University Games is the largest university- • Planet Saturn has made a remarkable comeback to
level sports competition in India. reclaim the title of the “planet with the highest number
of moons”, surpassing Jupiter, which temporarily took • It has been constructed with technology transfer from
the lead in February with its 12 newly discovered moons. French firm Naval Group under a programme called
• A new study have unveiled an astonishing 62 new Project 75.
moons orbiting the ringed planet, bringing Saturn's
official count of natural satellites to a grand total of 145. 388. In May as per report India's AI Supercomputer
• In contrast, the International Astronomical Union ‘AIRAWAT’ has been ranked at ___________ in the world
(IAU) has confirmed Jupiter's moon count at 95. at the International Supercomputing Conference (ISC
• As reported by The Guardian, the newly discovered 2023) in Germany.
moons of Saturn have currently been designated with A. 35th
numbers and letters. B. 73rd
• In due course, these moons will be bestowed with C. 75th
names inspired by Gallic, Norse, and Canadian Inuit D. 58th
gods, following the established convention for Saturn's E. 103rd
moons. Answer: C
• Nasa upcoming Dragonfly mission, anticipated to be • Recently, India's AI Supercomputer ‘AIRAWAT’ has
launched in 2027, holds the promise of enabling close-up been ranked at No. 75 in the world at the International
observations of at least one of Saturn's smaller outer Supercomputing Conference (ISC 2023) in Germany.
moons. • The supercomputer has been named in the 61st
• Headquarters: Paris, France, Founded: 28 July 1919. edition of the Top 500 Global Supercomputing List
released recently.
387. Recently seen in news ‘INS Vaghsheer’ is • The AI supercomputer AIRAWAT’ is installed at C-DAC,
___________. Pune. The system is installed under National Program on
A. Nuclear-powered aircraft carrier AI by the Government of India.
B. It is a Kalvari-class submarine. • AIRAWAT's manufacturer is Netweb Technologies.
C. It is a Stealth destroyer. • Airawat PSAI, stands as India’s largest and fastest AI
D. It is Nuclear Submarine supercomputing system, with a remarkable speed of
E. It is Delhi Class Submarine 13,170 teraflops.
Answer: B • About Centre for Development of Advanced
• The sixth Scorpene Submarine of Project-75, Indian Computing (C-DAC) is a prominent R&D organization
Navy’s Kalvari class, ‘Vaghsheer’ recently commenced under the Ministry of Electronics and Information
her sea trials. Technology.
• INS Vagsheer (S26) is the sixth submarine of the first • It focuses on research and development in various
batch of six Kalvari-class submarines for the Indian Navy. domains, including information technology, electronics,
• It is named after the sand fish, a deadly deep-sea and supercomputing.
predator of the Indian Ocean. • It was established in the year 1988.
• It is designed by French naval defence and energy • It was set up to build Supercomputers in context of
group Naval Group and manufactured by Mazagon Dock denial of import of Supercomputers by USA.
Limited. • C-DAC build India’s first indigenously built
• It is designed to operate in all theatres of operation, supercomputer Param 8000 in 1991.
showcasing interoperability with other components of a • There are three other supercomputers in the To 500
Naval Task Force. list. These include:
• The Kalvari class is a class of diesel-electric attack • PARAM Siddhi-AI supercomputer ranked at No. 131
submarines based on the Scorpène-class submarine installed at Center for Development of Advanced
being built for the Indian Navy. Computing (C-DAC), Pune.
• The submarines are designed by French naval defence • Pratyush supercomputer ranked at No. 169 installed
and energy company DCNS and are being manufactured at the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology.
by Mazagon Dock Limited in Mumbai.
• Mihir supercomputer at No. 316 installed at the • The concerned establishment will have to deposit 25
National Centre for Medium Range Weather Forecasting. percent of the prescribed minimum stipend in the bank
• Frontier is the No. 1 system in the TOP500. This HPE account of the trainee.
Cray EX system is the first US system with a performance • After the training, the State Council for Vocational
exceeding one Exaflop/s. It is installed at the Oak Ridge Training (SCVT) certificate will be given by the Madhya
National Laboratory (ORNL) in Tennessee, USA, where it Pradesh State Skill Development and Employment
is operated for the Department of Energy (DOE). Generation Board (MPSSDEGB).
• Fugaku, the No. 2 system, is installed at the RIKEN • The Empowered Committee constituted under the
Center for Computational Science (R-CCS) in Kobe, Japan. chairmanship of the Chief Secretary will operate the
The LUMI system, another HPE Cray EX system installed at scheme.
EuroHPC center at CSC in Finland is the No. 3 with a
performance of 309. 390. In May as per report Kangra tea of Himachal Pradesh
has become the ___________ product of the country to get
389. Recently seen in news 'Mukhyamantri Seekho-Kamao registered with the European Union (EU) as a protected
Yojana’ has been launched by which of the following state? Geographical Indication (GI).
A. Uttar Pradesh A. 2
B. Madhya Pradesh B. 3
C. Odisha C. 4
D. Karnataka D. 5
E. Telangana E. 7
Answer: B Answer: A
• Madhya Pradesh government has issued orders to • Kangra tea of Himachal Pradesh has become the
start the ‘Mukhyamantri Seekho-Kamao Yojana’ (CM Learn second product after Basmati Rice of the country to get
and Earn Scheme) for unemployed youth. registered with the European Union (EU) as a protected
• The scheme has been launched to shape the future of Geographical Indication (GI), paving the way for the sale of
the unemployed youth of MP. the product in European countries.
• After registration of the youth in the scheme, they will • Among the states with GI tags Tamil Nadu has the
get a stipend of Rs 8,000 to 10,000 per month, as financial highest number of GI tags in the country followed by Uttar
assistance during the period of skill learning in various Pradesh. Tamil Nadu has 55 GI tagged goods while U.P has
establishments. 48 followed by Karnataka with 46. However U.P is first in
• Chouhan said that the scheme has been implemented terms of Handicrafts with 36 GI tags for craft category.
in the state by providing on-the-job training facilities and • The Geographical Indication Tag is a status given to a
at least one lakh youth will be provided training in various product belonging exclusively to a particular area. The
establishments. quality, reputation and any other characteristics of that
• State government officials said that the local residents particular product is generally attributed to the
of Madhya Pradesh, in the age group of 18 to 29 years, geographical origin of the product
whose educational qualification is 12th or ITI or higher, will • GI tag is given primarily to agricultural, natural and
be eligible in the scheme. The selected youth will be called manufactured-handicraft and industrial goods. The tag is
student trainees. valid for a period of 10 years after which it is renewed.
• Under the scheme, trainees who have passed class
12th will be given a stipend of Rs 8,000, ITI passed Rs 391. Recently as per report Government has launched a
8,500, diploma passed Rs 9,000 and graduates or those special commemorative coin of ________to mark the
with higher educational qualification will get Rs 10,000 per opening of the new Parliament building.
month. 75 per cent of stipend will be paid by DBT to the A. Rs 10 coin
trainee on behalf of the state government. B. Rs 1 coin
C. Rs 50 coin
D. Rs 100 coin
E. Rs 75 coin short films and release of a commemorative coin and
Answer: E stamp.
• Government will launch a special commemorative • Twenty opposition parties recently issued a joint
coin of Rs 75 to mark the opening of the new Parliament statement announcing a boycott of the inauguration of
building. India’s new Parliament building.
• A special commemorative of Rs 75 coin will be • The New Parliament House is the new building that
released on the occasion of the inauguration of the new will house the Parliament of India. It is a part of the Central
Parliament building. Vista Redevelopment Project which is undertaken to
• Rs 75 coin will be circular in shape with a diameter of revamp the Central Vista, which is the central
44 millimetres. It will have 200 serrations. administrative area of the Indian Government located near
• The face of the coin will have the Lion Capitol of the Raisana Hills, New Delhi.
Ashoka Pillar in the centre with 'Satyameva Jayate' • The idea of a new parliament house stemmed from
inscribed below it. the fear of stability of the existing Parliament building
• It will have 'Bharat' written in Devanagari script on which is around 100 years old.
the left and 'India' in English on the right. • The old parliament house was inaugurated on January
• It will be made up of a quaternary alloy with 50 per 1927 by Edwin Lutyens and Herbert Baker.
cent silver, 40 percent copper, 5 per cent nickel, and 5 per • The new Parliament, constructed on the lines of the
cent zinc. Central Vista buildings, is a triangular structure.
• On the other side of the coin, there will be a picture of • It is built over an area of 64,500 square metres.
Parliament House, above which will be written 'Sansad • It houses the Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha, the Central
Sankul' in Devanagari script and 'Parliament Complex' in Lounge and offices of constitutional authorities.
English below. • The Lok Sabha, based on the theme of the national
• This coin is not legal tender, it will be a bird 'peacock', will have a capacity of 888 seats.
commemorative coin. • The revamped Rajya Sabha hall, based on the theme
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is responsible for the of our national flower 'lotus', will have a capacity to seat
circulation of coins in India. 384 people.
• Under the Coinage Act, 1906, the central government • Bimal Patel is the chief architect of the building.
has the power of designing and minting of coins. • Tata Projects Limited is the contractor for the
construction of the new parliament building.
392. Consider the following statement regarding India’s • The total cost of the construction is ₹862 crores
New Parliament Building. Which of the following • A historical sceptre called “Sengol” would be placed at
statement is incorrect? an important spot in the new parliament building. Sengol
1. It is a part of the Central Vista Redevelopment Project holds historical importance in the legacy of the Indian
which is undertaken to revamp the Central Vista. Parliament. It was first given to the first Prime Minister of
2. The Lok Sabha, based on the theme of the national bird India, Jawaharlal Nehru when he took charge of the nation
'peacock', will have a capacity of 888 seats. after Independence.
3. The revamped Rajya Sabha hall, based on the theme of • It will have large committee rooms, with the latest
our national flower 'lotus', will have a capacity to seat 384 audio-visual systems.
people. • There will be 92 rooms for the use of the Council of
4. Bimal Patel is the chief architect of the building. Ministers.
5. Adani Projects Limited is the contractor for the • The new Parliament complex is also ‘divyang-friendly’.
construction of the new parliament building.
• With a focus on energy efficiency, the new complex is
Answer: E a “platinum-rated green building” and showcases India’s
• Prime Minister Narendra Modi will inaugurate the
“commitment towards sustainable development. It will
new Parliament building. The inauguration will include a feature rainwater harvesting and water recycling systems.
grand puja, installation of the Sengol, screening of two
393. In May as per report _____________ announced the • The Smart Cities Mission is an initiative of the Union
launch of the ‘Mo Ghara’ (My House) scheme to provide Housing and Urban Affairs Ministry that was launched by
financial assistance to people of states for completing or PM on June 25, 2015.
upgrading their houses. • Cities across the country were asked to submit
A. Odisha proposals for projects to improve municipal services and to
B. Tamil Nadu make their jurisdictions more liveable.
C. Karnataka • Between January 2016 and June 2018 (when the last
D. Uttar Pradesh city, Shillong, was chosen), the Ministry selected 100 cities
E. Madhya Pradesh for the Mission over five rounds.
Answer: A • As of May 1, a total of ₹38,400 crore was released for
• Odisha CM announced the launch of the ‘Mo Ghara’ the Smart Cities Mission.
(My House) scheme to provide financial assistance to • Out of this amount, ₹35,261 crore has already been
people of states for completing or upgrading their houses. utilized for various projects.
• This scheme will cover all such families who have been • Currently, only 22 out of the 100 designated cities
left out of the existing housing schemes. have successfully concluded all projects under the mission.
• Under this scheme, beneficiaries can get housing • A Smart City Advisory Forum (SCAF) is established at
loans up to Rs 3 lakh which can be repaid in 10 years the city level.
excluding one year moratorium period. • It advises and enables collaboration among various
• An individual can opt for one of the four slabs of loan stakeholders.
amount – Rs. 1 lakh, Rs. 1.5 lakh, Rs. 2 lakh and Rs. 3 lakh. • It consists of Member(s) of Parliament, Member(s) of
• The applications for availing loans will start from June the Legislative Assembly, Mayor, District Collector, local
15, 2023. youth, technical experts, other stakeholders, etc.
• The family living in a kutcha (thatched) house or one
pucca room with concrete roof are eligible for the scheme. 395. Recently as per report Northeast's first Vande Bharat
• Persons having a monthly income below ₹25,000 and Express will connect ____________.
availed housing assistance of ₹70,000 or below in the past A. Guwahati to New Jalpaiguri
would be considered eligible for this scheme. B. Dispur to New Jalpaiguri
• The state government will pay the highest ₹60,000 C. Guwahati to Kohima
subsidy for ₹3 lakh loan slab while vulnerable groups D. Shilong to Dispur
would get a subsidy of ₹70,000. E. Imphal to Shilong
• The Odisha government had promised to convert all Answer: A
left-out kutcha houses into pucca ones. • Northeast's first Vande Bharat Express will connect
Guwahati to New Jalpaiguri. It is the third Vande Bharat
394. Recently as per Union Urban Affairs Ministry 73% train of West Bengal.
work has been completed under Smart Cities Mission. • It will reduce the travel time to 5 hours and 30
When was Smart Cities Mission launched? minutes.
A. 25 June, 2014 • Prime Minister Narendra Modi also inaugurated
B. 25 June, 2015 Diesel Electric Multiple Unit and Mainline Electric Multiple
C. 25 June, 2016 Unit shed at Lumding in Assam.
D. 25 June, 2017 • He also dedicated 182 Route kilometers of newly
E. 25 June, 2018 electrified sections. It will open the door to running electric
Answer: B trains.
• The Union Urban Affairs Ministry announced that • Around 425 kilometers of railway tracks in Assam and
significant progress has been made under the Smart Cities Meghalaya have been electrified.
Mission, with more than 90% of the allocated funds being • Prime Minister also announced that all capital cities of
utilized and 73% of the projects already completed. the Northeast will be connected through a broad gauge
network.
• The Union ministry of education and national

396. According to the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES), assessment regulator PARAKH organised the first
India is set to dramatically scale up its super-computing workshop to brainstorm school assessments, examination
prowess and install an _______petaflop system over the practices and equivalence of boards across the country.
course of this year. • In India, currently there are around 60 school
A. 17-petaflop examination boards that are operating in different states
B. 16-petaflop and Union Territories.
C. 19-petaflop • The aim is to establish a unified framework that
D. 18-petaflop enables seamless transitions for students moving between
E. 15-petaflop different boards or regions.
Answer: D • National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 envisages a shift
• According to the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES), from summative assessment to regular and formative
India is set to dramatically scale up its super-computing assessment, which is more competency-based, promotes
prowess and install an 18-petaflop system over the course learning and development, and tests higher-order skills,
of this year. such as analysis, critical thinking, and conceptual clarity.
• The most important details are that India's most • In October 2020, the Union Cabinet approved setting
powerful supercomputers, Pratyush and Mihir, with a up of Performance Assessment, Review and Analysis of
combined capacity of 8 petaflops, are housed at the Indian Knowledge for Holistic Development (PARAKH).
Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM) and the National • PARAKH is developed to improve the monitoring,
Centre for Medium Range Weather Forecasting measuring and assessing activities in the Indian school
(NCMRWF). education system.
• These supercomputers were made operational in 2018 • It is a standard setting body autonomous organisation
at an investment of 438 crore and will be housed at the under the ministry of education that fulfils basic objectives
IITM and NCMRWF. of setting norms, standards and guidelines for student
• The Government of India has signed a deal with assessment and evaluation for all recognised school boards
France to procure high-performance computers worth of India.
4,500 crore by 2025. • PARAKH will formulate guidelines and recommend
• The new earth-sciences Ministry computers are likely appropriate tools for conducting such assessment, from the
to cost 900 crore and will improve resolution to 6*6 km, foundational stage to higher education (including for
meaning four times as many pixels can be used to entrance exams).
represent a given area.
• The fastest high-performance computing system in 398. In May as per report Ministry of Home Affairs
the world is currently the Frontier-Cray system at Oakridge released a new set of rules under the Special Protection
National Laboratory, with a peak speed of 1 exa-flop. Group Act, 1988.
SPG will have its headquarters in ___________.
397. In May as per report Union ministry of education and A. Bengaluru
national assessment regulator PARAKH organised the first B. New Delhi
workshop to brainstorm school assessments, examination C. Mumbai
practices and equivalence of boards across the country. D. Gurugram
What is the acronymn of letter 'P' in PARAKH? E. Hyderabad
A. Performance Answer: B
B. Producer • Ministry of Home Affairs released a new set of rules
C. Payment under the Special Protection Group Act, 1988 (34 of 1988).
D. Profit • Central government will appoint the officers of All
E. Public India Services to the SPG on deputation on the same terms
Answer: A and conditions as applicable to the officers of the
corresponding ranks in the central government.
• The SPG will have its headquarters in New Delhi. • The original Foucault’s pendulum, named after 19th
• Central government shall appoint its director at a century French physicist Leon Foucault, is a simple
level of not less than the additional director general of experiment to demonstrate earth’s rotation.
police from the Indian Police Service. • At the latitude of the Parliament, it takes 49 hours, 59
• Till now, it was headed by an officer of the rank of minutes, and 18 seconds for the pendulum to complete one
inspector general. rotation.
• Previously, the position was elevated to the rank of • It is a piece reflecting the spirit of Article 51A of the
additional director general. Indian Constitution, which enshrines every citizen “to
• However, there were no fixed rules for this so far. develop the scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of
• Other members of the SPG, excluding the All India inquiry and reform”.
services officers, shall be appointed on deputation for an • The first such pendulum: It was installed in 1991 at
initial period of six years. the Inter-University Centre for Astronomy and Astrophysics
• The members may be appointed for the second tenure (IUCAA) in Pune.
with the prior approval of the central government.
• The director has powers of general superintendence, 400. In May as per report Union Minister of State for
direction, command and control, supervision, training, Personnel, Public Grievances, Pensions, Dr Jitendra Singh
discipline, and administration of the SPG. addressed the India Defence Conclave 2023.
• Special Protection Group (SPG) was raised in 1985. It National Quantum Mission (NQM) has been approved by
provides proximate security to the Prime Minister of India, Union Cabinet at a total cost of over 6,000 crore rupees
former Prime Minister and their immediate family from __________.
members. A. 2024-25 to 2027-28
• Arun Kumar Sinha is its current Director. Its motto is B. 2023-24 to 2025-26
"Shauryam Samarpanam Surakshanam" (i.e. bravery, C. 2023-24 to 2029-30
devotion and protection). D. 2023-24 to 2030-31
E. 2024-25 to 2030-31
399. Recently as per report Foucault pendulum that rotates Answer: D
on its axis is suspended from the ceiling of the entrance • Union Minister of State for Personnel, Public
hall of the Constitution Hall of and has been laid on the Grievances, Pensions, Dr Jitendra Singh addressed the India
floor of India's new Parliament building. Defence Conclave 2023.
What is the height of the pendulum which is being dubbed • India Defence Conclave 2023 was organised by
as the largest such piece in India? ETGovernment on 26 May 2023 in New Delhi. BrahMos and
A. 15 m MIDHANI were its co-host partners.
B. 26 m • The conclave’s theme was “Propelling Self-Reliance in
C. 22 m Aerospace & Defence Sector”.
D. 20 m • Dr Jitendra Singh pointed out that the National
E. 28 m Quantum Mission (NQM) has been approved by Union
Answer: C Cabinet at a total cost of over 6,000 crore rupees from
• A Foucault pendulum that rotates on its axis is 2023-24 to 2030-31.
suspended from the ceiling of the entrance hall of the • He said the space has been opened for private
Constitution Hall of India's new Parliament building, participation leading to more than 105 StartUps in the
signifying the integration of the idea of India with the idea Space sector within just about three years.
of the cosmos. • He said five PSLVs are being domestically produced by
• Created by the National Council of Science Museum L&T and HAL.
(NCSM, Kolkata), the pendulum is being dubbed as the • Mishra Dhatu Nigam Limited (MIDHANI) is a PSU
largest such piece (22 m in height, and 36 kg in weight ) in under the administrative control of the Ministry of
India. Defence. It is the only producer of Titanium in India.
401. Which of the following country will host the annual C. 2025-2030
summit of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) in D. 2028-2040
the virtual format on July 4, 2023? E. 2030-2042
A. China Answer: A
B. India • National Electricity Plan (NEP) (Volume-1 Generation)
C. Pakistan has been notified by Central Electricity Authority for the
D. Kazakhstan period 2022-32.
E. Tajikistan • On 31 May, the plan document released through e-
Answer: B gazette includes review of last five years (2017-22),
• Ministry of External Affairs announced that India will detailed plan for next five years (2022-27) and prospective
host the annual summit of the Shanghai Cooperation plan for next five years (2027-32).
Organisation (SCO) in the virtual format on July 4, 2023. • As per 20th Electric Power Survey (EPS) demand for
• It will be held in the virtual format. electricity all India peak demand and electrical energy
• All the SCO Member States, China, Russia, requirement are estimated to be 277.2 GW and 1907.8 BU
Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Pakistan, Tajikistan and for 2026-27 and 366.4 GW and 2473.8 BU for 2031-32
Uzbekistan have been invited to attend the Summit. respectively.
• Iran, Belarus and Mongolia have been invited as • Energy requirement and peak demand include
Observer States. adoption of electric vehicles, installation of solar roof tops,
• The theme of the Summit is ‘Towards a SECURE SCO’. production of green hydrogen, impact of Saubhagya
The SECURE acronym stands for Security, Economy and scheme etc.
Trade, Connectivity, Unity, Respect for Sovereignty and • Based on the generation planning done under the
Territorial Integrity and Environment. scope of preparation of National Power Plan for 2022-27,
• India has set up new pillars of cooperation under its there is a possibility of installing 6,09,591 MW capacity for
Chairmanship - Startups and Innovation, Traditional 2026-27.
Medicine, Digital Inclusion, Youth Empowerment and • This includes 2,73,038 conventional capacity and
Shared Buddhist Heritage. 3,36,553 MW of renewable energy-based capacity as well
• The SCO was founded at a summit in Shanghai in 2001 as BESS (Battery Energy Storage System) capacity of 8,680
by the presidents of Russia, China, the Kyrgyz Republic, MW/ 34,720 Mega Watt-hour (MWh).
Kazakhstan, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan. • Potentially 9,00,422 MW capacity is estimated to be
• India and Pakistan became its permanent members in installed by the year 2031-32.
2017. • This includes 3,04,147 MW of conventional capacity
• The SCO is an influential economic and security bloc and 5,96,275 MW of renewable energy-based capacity as
and has emerged as one of the largest transregional well as BESS capacity of 47,244MW/236,220MWh.
international organisations. • This estimate of total capacity addition is in line with
• SCO has two Permanent Bodies - (i) SCO Secretariat in the country's target of achieving non-fossil based installed
Beijing (ii) Executive Committee of the Regional Anti- capacity of about 500 GW by the year 2029-30.
Terrorist Structure (RATS) in Tashkent. • The NEP envisages that the share of non-fossil-based
• The Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure serves to capacity is estimated to be 57.4 per cent by the end of
promote cooperation of member states against terrorism, 2026-27 and is expected to increase to 68.4 per cent by
separatism and extremism. 2031-32, from 42.5 per cent by April, 2023.
• The official working languages: Chinese and Russian. • The domestic coal requirement is estimated to be
866.4 million tonnes for the year 2026-27 and 1025.8
402. Recently as per report National Electricity Plan (NEP) million tonnes for the year 2031-32 and the estimated coal
(Volume-1 Generation) has been notified by Central import requirement for plants running on imported coal is
Electricity Authority for the period ________________. 28.9 MT.
A. 2022-2032 • A total of Rs 14,54,188 crore is estimated to be
B. 2023-2025 required for augmentation of production capacity during
the period 2022-2027 and Rs 19,06,406 crore for the period Answer: B
2027-2032. • The Prime Minister’s Citizen Assistance and Relief in
• As per Section 3(4) of the Electricity Act, 2003, the Emergency Situations Fund (PM CARES Fund) received Rs
Central Electricity Authority has been mandated to prepare 535.44 crore as foreign donations during the last three
a National Electricity Plan (NEP) under the National years, show the official records.
Electricity Policy and to notify such plan once in five years. • The records show that the PM CARE Fund received Rs
24.85 crore as interest income from its foreign contribution
403. Recently as per report Union government is ready to account in three financial years from 2019-20 to 2021-22.
launch a new flagship mission to strengthen schemes • It was created as a dedicated fund in March 2020 (and
aimed at empowering the socially and economically registered as a Public Charitable Trust), following the
backward Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes named COVID-19 pandemic in India.
PM Social Inclusion Mission for the Welfare of SCs and STs • The stated purpose of the fund is for combating,
(PMSIM) with total budget of ____________. containment and relief efforts against the coronavirus
A. Rs 1.5 trillion outbreak and similar emergency or distress situations in
B. Rs 3.5 trillion the future.
C. Rs 4.5 trillion • The fund is administered on an honorary basis by a
D. Rs 5.5 trillion Joint Secretary (Administration) in the Prime Minister’s
E. Rs 2.5 trillion Office (PMO) as Secretary to the fund.
Answer: E • The Prime Minister is the ex-officio Chairman of the
• The Union government is ready to launch a new PM CARES Fund.
flagship mission to strengthen schemes aimed at • The Minister of Defence, Minister of Home Affairs and
empowering the socially and economically backward Minister of Finance are ex-officio Trustees of the Fund.
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. • The Chairperson of the Board of Trustees (The Prime
• The scheme will help to improve skills and increase Minister) shall have the authority to appoint 3 trustees to
livelihood opportunities by ensuring better access to the Board of Trustees.
quality education. • The new mission is expected to bring about a major
• The mission has been named PM Social Inclusion change in the manner in which the amount meant for SC
Mission for the Welfare of SCs and STs (PMSIM). The and ST welfare is allocated and utilised.
scheme has a total budget of Rs 2.5 trillion which will be • To oversee the administrative mechanism of the
put to use to directly fund schemes that benefit individuals scheme, an additional secretary-level officer with a
belonging to marginalised communities. dedicated support staff will be appointed. The team will
• The scheme has been designed for villages with more monitor the physical and financial progress of the scheme
than 50 per cent SC and ST populations. regularly and report the developments to the NITI Aayog.
• The latest mission replaces two major programmes.
As things stand, the two programmes are run by 41 central International Report Banking & Economy
ministries and departments. 405. In May as per World Meteorological Organization
(WMO) report ____________ lakh people died in the India
404. Recently according to the official data Prime due to extreme weather, climate and water-related events
Minister’s Citizen Assistance and Relief in Emergency between 1970 and 2021.
Situations Fund (PM CARES Fund) received Rs A. 2.12 lakh
_________crore as foreign donations during the last three B. 1.38 lakh
years. C. 1.42 lakh
A. Rs 644 crore D. 3.71 lakh
B. Rs 535 crore E. 1.56 lakh
C. Rs 522 crore Answer: B
D. Rs 598 crore
E. Rs 564 crore
• Over 1.38 lakh people died in the country due to • The three Indians also include Shaber Taher Ali. He
extreme weather, climate and water-related events was employed in a civilian capacity with the U.N.
between 1970 and 2021. Assistance Mission for Iraq.
• It has been revealed in new findings by the World • Singh and Vishnoi were among five people killed
Meteorological Organisation (WMO). during an anti-UN protest in the Eastern city of Goma near
• As many as 573 disasters were reported in India Congo’s border with Uganda.
during the period. • While Singh hailed from Sikar, Vishnoi belonged to
• The event aims to initiate a high-level dialogue on Barmer.
accelerating and scaling-up action to ensure that the early • India first participated in a U.N. peacekeeping mission
warning services reach everyone globally by the end of in 1950.
2027. • Dag Hammarskjold Medal is the highest honour
• In Asia, around 9.84 lakh deaths incurring US$ 1.4 awarded to U.N. Peacekeepers.
trillion in economic losses took place during the period. • It is named after Dag Hammarskjöld, the second
Floods were the leading cause of the reported economic Secretary-General of the United Nations.
losses. • This year marks the 75th anniversary of the U.N.
• Globally, according to the report, there were 11, 778 Peacekeeping. The International Day of United Nations
reported disasters attributed to weather, climate and Peacekeepers is observed on May 29.
water extremes between 1970 and 2021. They caused
2,087,229 deaths and US$ 4.3 trillion in economic losses. 407. In May as per report __________announced plans for
• Flood-related disasters were the most prevalent. a $17 billion regional transportation project intended to
However, in terms of impact, tropical cyclones were the facilitate the flow of goods from Asia to Europe.
leading cause of both reported deaths and economic losses A. France
worldwide. B. Germany
• (WMO) is a specialized agency of the United Nations C. Iraq
established in 1950 as an intergovernmental body. D. Iran
• The World Meteorological Organisation (WMO) has E. Israel
193 Member States and 6 Member Territories. Answer: C
Headquarters- Geneva, Switzerland. • Iraq’s prime minister announced plans for a $17 billion
regional transportation project intended to facilitate the
406. In May as per report _____________Indian flow of goods from Asia to Europe.
peacekeepers has been awarded the Dag Hammarskjold • Iraqi Prime Minister Mohammed Shia al-Sudani said
Medal by the United Nations on May 25. the planned Development Road project would facilitate the
A. 2 movement of goods from the Gulf to Europe by way of the
B. 4 Grand Faw Port in Basra, in southern Iraq, which would be
C. 3 connected to Turkey, then to Europe, through a network of
D. 7 railways and highways.
E. 9 • The planned project, which would involve the
Answer: C construction of about 1,200 km (about 745 miles) of
• Three Indian peacekeepers awarded the Dag railways and highways, will be “an economic lifeline and a
Hammarskjold Medal by the United Nations on May 25. promising opportunity for the convergence of interests,
• The three Indians include Border Security Force (BSF) history, and cultures.
personnel Head Constables Shishupal Singh and Samwali • The project is expected to be completed by 2029.
Ram Vishnoi. • The Development Road project will link the Grand Faw
• They served with the Organisation Stabilisation Port in Iraq’s oil-rich south to Turkey, with plans for high-
Mission in the Democratic Republic of the Congo. speed trains, local industry connections, and potentially oil
and gas pipelines.
408. In May as per report Australian PM Anthony Albanese instrumentation on the slopes, noted that cloud cover on a
announced that Australia will open a new Consul-General rainy day was impeding views of the eruption.
in ________ as part of the efforts of the two countries to • In early 2021, an eruption of the volcano lasted
enhance bilateral ties. several weeks.
A. Bengaluru • Mount Etna is the highest Mediterranean island
B. New Delhi mountain.
C. Mumbai
D. Gurugram 410. According to the annual report by the US, India
E. Hyderabad emerged as the frontrunner when it came to international
Answer: A students going to the US, leaving behind __________.
• On 24 May, PM Anthony Albanese announced that A. France
Australia will now open a new Consul-General in Bengaluru B. Germany
in May as part of the efforts of the two countries to C. Japan
enhance bilateral ties. D. China
• The announcement of setting up a new consulate in E. Norway
Bengaluru has been announced after PM Modi said that Answer: D
India will open a consulate in Brisbane. • The number of Indian students who headed to the
• Albanese stated that the opening of the new United States saw a considerable increase in 2022, as per a
diplomatic mission in Bengaluru will help in connecting US Immigration and Customs Enforcement report.
India's businesses to fast-growing digital and innovation • India emerged as the frontrunner when it came to
ecosystem. international students going to the US, leaving behind
• In May, the opening of the Consulate General in China.
Bengaluru will be the fifth diplomatic mission in India.The • According to the annual report by the US, India sent
others are in New Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata. 64,300 students to America in 2022 while China’s number
• Currently, India has three consulates in Sydney, declined to 24,796.
Melbourne and Perth. • The report includes all international students enrolled
• Brisbane currently has an Honorary Consulate of in American schools and universities, from kindergarten to
India. grade 12.
• Both the leaders also exchanged MoUs on Mobility, • According to the Student and Exchange Visitor
Migration and Green Hydrogen Task Force. Program (SEVP), the number of international students
enrolled in kindergarten through grade 12 increased by 7.8
409. Recently seen in news Mount Etna is located in which per cent from 2021 to 2022 (3,887).
of the following country? • Among the US States, California hosted the largest
A. Iceland percentage of international students. It hosted 225,173
B. Ireland international students, which makes up 16.5 per cent of all
C. Italy international students in the US.
D. Indonesia • Seventy per cent of all international students in the
E. Israel United States are from Asia. A common trend of decline in
Answer: C students was seen in other Asian countries like Saudi
• Mount Etna has been erupting, spewing ash on Arabia, Kuwait and Malaysia, except India as compared to
Catania, eastern Sicily’s largest city, and forcing a the previous year.
shutdown of that city’s airport.
• Located on the east coast of Sicily in Italy, Mount Etna 411. According to the RBI Annual Report India’s GDP
is one of the world’s most active volcanoes. growth is projected at ___________% for FY24.
• Italy’s National Institute of Geophysics and A. 7.2 %
Volcanology, or INGV, which closely monitors Etna with B. 6.8 %
C. 7.8 %
D. 6.2 % • Lower inflation, business friendly policy reforms, and
E. 6.5 % favorable domestic growth outlook could help sustain
Answer: E buoyant FDI inflows.
• India’s GDP growth projected at 6.5% for FY24 as per • Inward remittances are expected to remain robust
RBI Annual Report. due to better growth prospects in the gulf nations.
• As per the Annual report of RBI for FY23, India’s • As a result, external vulnerability risks may ease
growth momentum is likely to be sustained in 2023-24 but further during 2023-24.
domestic economic activity is facing challenges from global • Indian economy has experienced macroeconomic and
outlook. financial stability during recurrent global shocks that
• Resilient domestic macroeconomic and financial reflects its sound macroeconomic policy environment and
conditions, expected dividends from past reforms and new innate resilience.
growth opportunities from global geo-economics shifts • RBI said that India has remained among the fastest
create an advantage for India. growing major economies of the world, contributing more
• The report cautioned that slowing global growth, than 12% to the global growth on average during last 5
prolonged geopolitical tensions and a possible rise in years.
financial market volatility followed by new stress events in • RBI also said that the medium term prospects have
the global financial system could negatively impact the been enlightened by the digital revolution, demographic
growth. dividend, policy initiatives to transform India to global
• The report emphasized the need to sustain structural manufacturing hub, a resurgence in service sector
reforms to improve medium term growth potential of competitiveness and favorable geo-economic positioning.
India.
• The cumulative increase in policy repo rate by 250 412. In May as per report _____________has launched a
basis points last year would guide the disinflationary multilingual chatbot ‘Jugalbandi’ for rural India.
process, along with supply side measures to address A. Google
transient demand-supply mismatch due to food and energy B. Indosys
shocks. C. Microsoft
• The headline inflation is projected to come down to D. IBM
5.2% in FY23-24 considering stable exchange rate and a E. TCS
normal monsoon. Answer: C
• The focus of Monetary policy would remain on • Microsoft launched a multilingual chatbot,
withdrawal of accommodation to ensure that inflation Jugalbandi, for rural India.
aligns with the target while supporting growth. • Jugalbandi, a multilingual chatbot powered by
• Realignment of global supply chains, transition to generative AI, has been designed to serve rural areas of
green energy and ongoing technological advancements India.
give a suitable environment for pick-up in investment • It has been developed in collaboration with AI4Bharat
activity and raising productivity. and IIT Madras.
• The robust balance sheets of corporates and banks, • The main objective of the collaboration is to break
along with high capacity utilization would help in language barriers and provide technology-driven solutions
strengthening the growth in private investment. through the Bhashini initiative.
• In external sector, Current Account Deficit (CAD) is • Its main aim is to provide personalized assistance by
expected to remain moderate owing to robust services understanding user queries in multiple languages.
exports and positive impact of moderation in commodity • Jugalbandi is a combination of AI models from
prices of imports. AI4Bharat and Microsoft Azure OpenAI Service which will
• With the ongoing global uncertainties, FPI flows may enable seamless conversations between users and the
remain volatile. chatbot.
• Jugalbandi will provide information regarding
numerous government schemes and welfare programs. It
will especially help those people who are unable to read, • Excluded entities include those registered with Sebi as
write, or understand English. Category-I FPI, Endowment Funds, Pension Funds and
• It will reduce the need to visit government service broad-based pooled investment vehicles, which are
centres and minimize the inconvenience of retrieving residents of 21 specified nations, including the US, UK,
missing documents. Australia, Germany and Spain, as per the notification.
• Jugalbandi will cover 22 official languages and around • The other nations mentioned in the notification are
20,000 government programs. Austria, Canada, Czech Republic, Belgium, Denmark,
• AI startup OpenNyAI is also involved in the Finland, Israel, Italy, Iceland, Japan, Korea, Russia,
development of this chatbot. Norway, New Zealand and Sweden.
• It is a tax levied on the capital raised via the issue of
413. According to RBI Data Scheduled commercial banks shares by unlisted companies if the share price of issued
(SCBs) reported a robust credit growth of __________ per shares is seen in excess of the fair market value of the
cent in FY23. company.
A. 12.3 • The excess funds raised at prices above fair value is
B. 11.6 treated as income, on which tax is levied.
C. 17.8 • Angel tax essentially derives its genesis from section
D. 16.9 56(2)(viib) of the Income Tax Act, 1961.
E. 15.4 • It is levied at a rate of 30.9% on net investments in
Answer: E excess of the fair market value to deter the generation and
• Scheduled commercial banks (SCBs) reported a robust use of unaccounted money through subscription of shares
credit growth of 15.4 per cent in FY23 against 9.7 per cent of a closely held company, at a value which is higher than
in FY22, powered by growth in personal loans, and loans to fair market value.
services sector and agriculture and allied activities. • In 2019, the Government announced an exemption
• Personal loans registered a growth of 20.6 per cent in from the Angel Tax for startups on fulfillment of certain
FY23 as compared with 12.6 per cent in the year ago conditions. These are,
period, primarily driven by ‘housing loans’, according to • The startup should be recognized by the Department
RBI data on sectoral deployment of bank credit. for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) as an
• RBI collected data from 40 select scheduled eligible startup.
commercial banks. • The aggregate amount of paid-up share capital and
• Credit growth to services sector accelerated to 19.8 share premium of the Startup cannot be more than ₹25
per cent in FY23 from 8.7 per cent in FY22, due to the crores. This amount does not include the money raised
improved credit offtake to ‘Non-Banking Financial from Non-Resident Indians (NRIs), Venture Capital Firms,
Companies (NBFCs)’ and ‘trade’. and specified companies.
• For angel investors, the amount of investment that
414. In May as per report Finance Ministry exempted exceeds the fair market value can be claimed for a 100%
investors from _________ countries from the levy of angel tax exemption. However, the investor must have a net
tax for non-resident investment in unlisted Indian startups. worth of ₹2 crores or an income of more than ₹25 Lakh in
A. 15 the past 3 fiscal years.
B. 17 • Previously, angel tax provisions were applicable only
C. 19 for investments received from resident investors.
D. 21 • However, Finance Bill 2023 has extended its
E. 11 applicability to non-resident investors as well.
Answer: D
• The Finance Ministry recently exempted investors 415. Recently as per report LIC posted a more than five-fold
from 21 countries from the levy of angel tax for non- jump in consolidated net profit to _________ crore for the
resident investment in unlisted Indian startups. fourth quarter ended March 2023.
A. ₹11,191 crore
B. ₹12,191 crore • Recently, the company also announced the launch of
C. ₹13,191 crore MyStylist, an AI-based stylist expert to provide customers
D. ₹14,191 crore with expert styling tips and vernacular search in 11
E. ₹15,191 crore languages on its platform.
Answer: C • Myntra is a major Indian fashion e-commerce
• Insurance behemoth LIC posted a more than five-fold company headquartered in Bengaluru, Karnataka, India.
jump in consolidated net profit to ₹13,191 crore for the The company was founded in 2007-2008 to sell
fourth quarter ended March 2023. personalized gift items. In May 2014, Myntra.com was
• However, the total income of the insurer during the acquired by Flipkart. CEO: Nandita Sinha.
March quarter declined to ₹2,01,022 crore from ₹2,15,487
crore in the same period of the previous fiscal. 417. As of April data by Reserve Bank of India __________
• For the entire financial year 2022-23, LIC registered a is the top credit card issuer in the country.
multi-fold rise in net profit to ₹36,997 crore from ₹4,125 A. State Bank Of India
crore in the preceding financial year. B. HDFC Bank
• The board of LIC has recommended a final dividend of C. ICICI Bank
₹3 per equity share with a face value of ₹10 each for the D. Punjab National Bank
year ended March 31, 2023. E. Canara Bank
• The solvency ratio - which measures an insurance Answer: B
company's cash flow in comparison to the amount it owes • As per data released by the Reserve Bank of India
as total life cover - increased to 1.87 per cent as of March Credit card spends fell to ₹1.33-lakh crore in April 2023.
31, 2023, against 1.85 per cent at the end of the preceding • As per the data, 61 per cent of the credit card spends
fiscal. during the month were for e-commerce payments, and 39
• Last year, the government raised ₹20,557 crore by per cent were for PoS (point-of-sale) transactions.
diluting its 3.5 per cent stake in the LIC through the initial • Most major issuers saw a decline of 1.4-5.4 per cent in
public offering (IPO), the country's biggest ever. spends during the month, barring HDFC Bank which saw a
• The government sold over 22.13 crore shares or a 3.5 marginal increase of 0.9 per cent to ₹37,957 crore — the
per cent stake in LIC through the IPO. The price band of the highest in the industry.
issue was ₹902-949 a share. • It was followed by State Bank of India which saw
credit cards spends worth ₹24,291 crore and ICICI Bank
416. In May as per report ___________ has rolled out worth ₹22,667 crore.
‘MyFashionGPT’, a search feature powered by ChatGPT. • The industry net added over 12 lakh credit cards in
A. Flipkart April, taking total cards-in-force to 8.7 crore, 1.4 per cent
B. Ajio Life higher on month. Credit cards-in-force as of March 31 had
C. Amazon stood at 8.5 crore, up 15.9 per cent for FY23.
D. Meesho • HDFC Bank led the increase in cards-in-force, adding
E. Myntra 3.4 lakh cards during April on a net basis, taking
Answer: E outstanding cards to 1.8 crore and retaining its spot as the
• Flipkart group-owned fashion commerce platform top credit card issuer in the country.
Myntra has rolled out ‘MyFashionGPT’, a search feature • It was followed by another private sector major Axis
powered by ChatGPT. Bank, which net added 1.4 lakh cards during the month
• The move aims to help shoppers with better product taking total cards to 1.2 crore cards. ICICI Bank, Kotak
discovery and drive engagement on the retailer’s app. Mahindra Bank and RBL Bank also saw net additions of
• Customers can essentially look up curated looks on over 1 lakh credit cards during the month.
the app, say by typing keywords such as “airport looks", • On the other hand, issuers such as Bank of Baroda,
and the system is designed to showcase a host of products HSBC, Standard Chartered Bank and Indian Bank saw a
including apparel, footwear, bags and sunglasses that decline in their credit cards-in-force.
consumers can choose from.
418. In May as per report Draft valuation rules for overseas shares. They will also reduce valuation disputes in angel
investments into startups under the ‘angel tax’ regime has tax levy.
been announced. • Angel tax (income tax at the rate of 30.6%) is levied
As per new rules ___________ % variation has been when shares are issued by an unlisted company to an
allowed over the value determined under these rules. investor at a price that is more than fair market value.
A. 10 % • It was previously imposed only on investments made
B. 20 % by a resident investor.
C. 30 % • In Budget 2023-24, it was proposed to extend angel
D. 40 % tax to non-resident investors also.
E. 50 %
Answer: A 419. According to the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS)
• Draft valuation rules for overseas investments into released by the National Statistical Office (NSO) India’s
startups under the ‘angel tax’ regime has been announced. urban unemployment rate has fallen to __________% in Q4
• The rules have been issued by the Central Board of of FY23.
Direct Taxes (CBDT). A. 6.2 %
• Five new valuation methods for calculating Angel Tax B. 7.1 %
under a new mechanism for non-resident investors in C. 7.2 %
startups have been proposed under the rules. D. 6.8 %
• The new mechanism will be effective from April 1, E. 7.8 %
2024. Answer: D
• Regulated investor entities from 21 countries and • India’s urban unemployment rate has fallen to 6.8% in
recognised startups will be immune from the new Q4 of FY23.
mechanism. New valuation methods are given below. • This is the lowest level in more than four years. It
• Comparable Company Multiple Method stagnated at 7.2% in the previous October-December
• Probability Weighted Expected Return Method quarter.
• Option Pricing Method • The decline in the rate reflects improvement in the
• Milestone Analysis Method labour market, according to the Periodic Labour Force
• Replacement Cost Method Survey (PLFS) released by the National Statistical Office
• These five new valuation methods will be separate (NSO).
from two methods already in use- Discounted Cash Flow • The unemployment rate in the current weekly status
(DCF) and Net Asset Value (NAV). (CWS) terms of all ages in the March quarter was the
• 10% variation has been allowed over the value lowest recorded in over four years.
determined under these rules. • NSO released India’s first quarterly urban
• As per the rule, the valuation report by the Merchant unemployment rate for the December quarter in 2018.
Banker would be acceptable if it is of a date not more than • The unemployment rate in urban areas was at the
90 days prior to the date of issue of shares subject to peak of 20.8% in the April-June quarter of FY21. It had
valuation. been on a continuous decline since then.
• Investment from angel investors belonging to • The unemployment rate in urban areas for male of
Singapore, Ireland, the Netherlands and Mauritius will not age 15 years and above for January – March 2023 was 6%.
be exempted under new angel tax mechanism. • In the previous (October – December 2022) quarter, it
• Entities from 21 specified countries will get was 6.5%. In April-June quarter of 2020-21, it was
exemption. DPIIT (Department for Promotion of estimated at 12.2%.
Investment and Internal Trade)-recognised start-ups will • The unemployment rate in urban areas for female of
get exemption from the new angel tax provision. age 15 years and above for January – March 2023 was
• The rules are expected to help by bringing greater 9.2%.
flexibility in determining the fair market value of unquoted
• In the previous (October – December 2022) quarter, it company at about $1.6 trillion, on par with Google-parent
was 9.6%. In April-June quarter of 2020-21, it was Alphabet.
estimated at 14.3%. • Nvidia Corporation is an American multinational
• Labour force participation rate (LFPR) marginally technology company incorporated in Delaware and based
increased from 48.2% in Q3FY23 to 48.5% in Q4FY23. in Santa Clara, California. CEO Jensen Huang.
• LFPR for females increased from 22.3% in Q3 to 22.7%
in Q4 and LFPR for males increased from 73.3% in Q3 to 421. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) became a net seller of US
73.5% in Q4. dollars in fiscal year 2023, after being a net purchaser for
• Many women found work in self-employed category, three consecutive years.
including unpaid helpers in household enterprises. Share of The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) sold _________ billion in
men in regular salaried jobs increased. the spot foreign exchange market.
• The worker-to-population ratio (WPR) increased by A. $27.89 billion
0.5 percentage points to 45.2% in Q4. B. $26.89 billion
• The female WPR was 20.6% and the male WPR was C. $24.52 billion
69.1%. D. $25.52 billion
• Worker Population Ratio (WPR) is the percentage of E. $23.45 billion
employed persons in the population. Answer: D
• Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) is the • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) became a net seller of
percentage of persons in labour force in the population. US dollars in fiscal year 2023, after being a net purchaser
This includes working or seeking or available for work. for three consecutive years.
• Unemployment Rate (UR) is the percentage of persons • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) sold $25.52 billion in
unemployed among the persons in the labour force. the spot foreign exchange market.
• The RBI sold dollars to reduce volatility in the rupee,
420. In May as per report ___________ breached the $1 which has been under pressure due to the Russia-Ukraine
trillion in market capitalization making it the first war and interest rate hikes by the US Federal Reserve.
chipmaker to join the trillion-dollar club. • The RBI sold the greenback to prop up the rupee,
A. Samsung Electronics Co., Ltd which had depreciated due to higher import bills and
B. Taiwan Semiconductor Manufacturing Company foreign investors pulling out money from the domestic
Limited market.
C. NVIDIA Corporation • Without the RBI's dollar sales, experts suggest the
D. Qualcomm Inc. rupee could have weakened further, potentially reaching
E. Intel Corp. 84-85 levels against the dollar.
Answer: C • The country's foreign exchange reserves decreased
• Nvidia Corp breached the $1 trillion in market from $606.475 billion to $578.449 billion during FY23. This
capitalization, making it the first chipmaker to join the was primarily due to valuation losses resulting from the
trillion-dollar club. appreciating US dollar and higher US bond yields.
• Taiwan Semiconductor Manufacturing Co Ltd is the
next largest chipmaker globally, valued at about $535 422. According to government data agricultural and
billion. processed food products rose by 9% to ________billion in
• Meta Platforms Inc, valued at about $670 billion as of 2022-23 as compared to FY22.
last close, clinched the trillion-dollar market capitalization A. $22.6 billion
milestone in 2021, while Apple Inc, Alphabet Inc, Microsoft B. $28.7 billion
Corp and Amazon.com Inc are the other U.S. companies C. $24.5 billion
that are part of the club. D. $29.4 billion
• Wall Street analysts called Nvidia’s forecast E. $26.3 billion
“unfathomable” and “cosmological”, hiking their price Answer: E
targets in droves. The highest price target valued the
• Exports of agricultural and processed food products • For domestic companies under the category of `20
rose by 9% to $26.3 billion in 2022-23 as compared to FY22, crore investments, the incentive ceiling is kept at Rs. 500
driven by a spike in shipment of rice, fruits and vegetables, crore.
livestock and dairy products. • In the revised PLI scheme for IT hardware, the
• The shipment of products under the agricultural and government has increased the total incentive outlay to
processed food products exports development authority over two times to Rs.16,939 crore.
(Apeda) basket surpassed the target of $23.56 billion for • It also increased the average incentive to 5% from 2%
FY23. for manufacturing products such as laptops, tablets, All-in-
• The increased realisation in rice exports has been One PCs, servers, ultra-small form factors, among others.
achieved despite India last year banning broken rice • Interested companies can apply under the new PLI
shipment and imposition of exports tax of 20% on white scheme for IT hardware from June 1. The application
rice. window will be open for a period of 45 days, which may be
• India has been the world’s largest exporter of rice in extended.
the last decade and currently has 45% share in global grain • Additionally, the scheme provides increased flexibility
trade. for making investments in subsequent years in case of a
• Fresh and processed fruits and vegetables reported shortfall, provision for additional incentives of 3-4% if the
export growth of 18.8% to $3.8 billion in the last fiscal companies use locally manufactured components such as
year. The shipment of cereals, preparations and processed integrated circuits (ICs) etc.
food products rose by 20% $4.3 billion in FY23. • The first version of the scheme, launched in March
2021 with an outlay of Rs. 7,350 crore, received a
423. Under a new hybrid model, global IT hardware lukewarm response from the companies. Only two
manufacturers will have the option to make investments of companies — Dell and Bhagwati — were able to meet FY22
either __________ crore over a period of six years or Rs. targets.
500 crore over the same period to claim incentives under • Of the projected investments of Rs. 2,500 crore, only
the revised IT production-linked incentive scheme. `123 crore-worth investments were received. In fact, in the
A. Rs 200 Cr revised scheme, the government has lowered the projected
B. Rs 250 Cr investments to Rs 2,430 crore.
C. Rs 100 Cr • According to the government, the domestic
D. Rs 300 Cr production of electronic items is expected to have reached
E. Rs 400 Cr `8.42 trillion in FY23 as compared to Rs. 6.40 trillion in
Answer: B FY22.
• Under a new hybrid model, global IT hardware
manufacturers will have the option to make investments of 424. In May as per report India has implemented
either `250 crore over a period of six years or Rs. 500 crore comprehensive revisions to the rules governing mergers
over the same period to claim incentives under the revised and acquisitions (M&As) in the startup space.
IT production-linked incentive scheme. The MCA has established a maximum time limit of
• Further, even domestic firms can opt for investing the ________ days for securing approval for mergers and
amount of Rs. 250 crore under the hybrid model. In the acquisitions in the startup space.
older PLI scheme, the threshold for investments by global A. 15 days
firms was Rs. 500 crore and for domestic firms `20 crore. B. 30 days
• The government released the guidelines for the new C. 20 days
scheme, which was approved by the Cabinet on May 17. D. 60 days
• The overall ceiling of incentives for global companies E. 40 days
is kept at Rs. 4,500 crore, whereas for companies (global or Answer: D
domestic) applying under the hybrid category the incentive • India has recently implemented comprehensive
ceiling is at Rs.2,250 crore. revisions to the rules governing mergers and acquisitions
(M&As) in the startup space.
• The government has announced that mergers and • Nvidia Corporation is an American multinational
acquisitions (M&As) involving startups and Micro, Small, technology company incorporated in Delaware and based
and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) will henceforth be in Santa Clara, California. CEO Jensen Huang.
cleared within 15 to 60 days To establish a more
advantageous environment for small enterprises. 426. According to a report by an international property
• The merger and acquisition approval procedure used consultant Knight Frank Mumbai has emerged as
to take months or even years, causing major delays and the_________ largest data centre market in the Asia-
uncertainty for businesses. Pacific region with a total capacity of 2337 MW.
• The move to speed up the merger and acquisition A. Second
procedure for startups and MSMEs is expected to foster B. Third
innovation, boost entrepreneurship, and ease the C. Fourth
expansion of these sectors. D. Fifth
• This will increase the overall competitiveness of the E. Sixth
Indian corporate ecosystem. The government plans to Answer: B
create specialised teams that will only examine M&A • With a total capacity of 2337 MW, Mumbai has
proposals involving startups and MSMEs in order to speed emerged as the third-largest data centre market in the
up the clearance procedure. Asia-Pacific region, according to a report by an
• These teams would comprise specialists from several international property consultant.
governing organisations, including the Ministry of • Mumbai is the only city representing India on the list,
Corporate Affairs and the Securities and Exchange Board of and its total capacity expansion has crossed the 2,000-MW
India (SEBI), to ensure that the proposals are thoroughly mark.
reviewed within the specified timeframe. • The study focused on nine rapidly emerging markets
in Asia Pacific Region- Bangkok, Hong Kong, Kuala Lumpur,
425. Recently as per report ___________ is closed to Mumbai, Seoul, Shanghai, Singapore, Sydney, and Tokyo.
become 1st Trillion-Dollar Chip Company. In an indication of their higher level of commissioning and
A. Samsung Electronics Co., Ltd demand, Shanghai, Tokyo, Sydney, Singapore, and Hong
B. Taiwan Semiconductor Manufacturing Company Kong have a high percentage of their capacity in the live
Limited segment.
C. NVIDIA Corporation • Data centre capacity in Bangkok rose nearly 30 per
D. Qualcomm Inc. cent since the beginning of 2023. Supply levels saw a big
E. Intel Corp. rise in Kuala Lumpur, with the expansion recorded in Q1
Answer: C 2023 constituting a third of the total supply added to the
• Nvidia Corp soared about 25% near a market value of market in all of 2022.
$1 trillion after its stellar forecast showed that Wall Street
has yet to price in the game-changing potential of AI 427. According to Grohe-Hurun Rich List 2023
spending. ____________ is the wealthiest Indian real estate
• The surge added to a more than twofold rise in the entrepreneur.
stock this year and was set to increase the chip designer's A. Rajiv Singh
value by about $190 billion to nearly $945 billion. That B. Jitendra Virwani
makes Nvidia twice the size of the second-most valuable C. Chandru Raheja & family
chip firm, Taiwan's TSMC. D. Mangal Prabhat Lodha & family
• Nvidia, the fifth-most valuable US company projected E. Niranjan Hiranandani
quarterly revenue more than 50% above the average Wall Answer: A
Street estimate and said it would have more supply of AI • DLF’s Rajiv Singh, is the wealthiest Indian real estate
chips in the second half to meet a surge in demand. entrepreneur, shows the Grohe-Hurun Rich List 2023. With
his Rs 59,030 crore fortune, 64-year-old Singh has retained
the coveted position for the second time in a row.
• Promoters of Mumbai-based Macrotech Developers • This has provided immediate respite to global Big
and Bangalore-headquartered RMZ have been positioned Techs including Google and Amazon who are facing anti-
at the second and third spots in the list in that order. trust cases against them.
• In the past five years, the wealth of Macrotech • The MCA has now specified May 18 as the date on
Developers owners Mangal Prabhat Lodha & family has which several notified provisions of the amendment law
risen 56% to touch Rs 42,270 crore in 2023. will come into effect.
• With its wealth of Rs 37,000 crore, RMZ owners Arjun • The penalty for false statements/ omissions has been
Menda & family have made it at the third position for the increased from ₹ 1 crore to 5 crore to strengthen CCI’s
first time. Chandru Raheja & family of K Raheja group, power in ensuring companies furnish true, full and
Niranjan Hiranandani of Hiranandani Communities and adequate disclosures in their submissions.
Jitendra Virwani of Embassy Office Parks are placed at the • Further, the process of filing appeals against CCI’s
4th, 5th and 6th positions, respectively. orders before the appellate tribunal has become more
• In its sixth edition, the Grohe-Hurun India Real Estate onerous as erring companies will have to necessarily pay
Rich List 2023 ranked 100 individuals from 67 companies 25 percent of the penalty amount in order for the appeal to
and 16 cities. be admitted for hearing.
• Western states of Maharashtra and Gujarat account • However, some of the other major substantive
for 40% of the cumulative wealth of the list, followed by provisions, such as, deal value threshold, settlement and
the southern region states of Karnataka, Telangana, Tamil commitment mechanism, leniency plus regime and penalty
Nadu and Andhra Pradesh with 34%. based on global turnover are yet to be made effective, as
• Northern region states Delhi, Haryana and Punjab are they require corresponding regulations to be issued by the
the closest third with a 25% share. CCI.
• The report's findings also suggest that no new Indian • The MCA has also now notified the provision requiring
real estate billionaire emerged last year. Currently, India the CCI to engage with stakeholders while drafting
has 13 real estate billi onaires. This is much lower than 105 regulations, to ensure transparency.
in China and 32 in the USA.
429. In May as per report ___________became the fourth
428. In May as per report Central governemnt notified largest fast-moving consumer goods (FMCG) company by
several provisions of the Competition (amendment) Act market capitalisation (m-cap) trade after overtaking
2023. Britannia Industries.
As per guidelines penalty for false statements/ omissions A. Varun Beverages
has been increased from ₹ 1 crore to _________ crore to B. Emami Ltd
strengthen CCI’s power in ensuring companies furnish true, C. Dabur India
full and adequate disclosures in their submissions. D. Goderej Consumers
A. 2 cr E. Marico Ltd
B. 3 cr Answer: A
C. 4 cr • Varun Beverages became the fourth largest fast-
D. 5 cr moving consumer goods (FMCG) company by market
E. 10 cr capitalisation (m-cap) briefly after overtaking Britannia
Answer: D Industries.
• The Centre notified several provisions of the • It now follows Hindustan Unilever, ITC, and Nestle
Competition (amendment) Act 2023, which received India among India's most valued FMCG companies.
Presidential assent on April 11. • The second-largest bottling company in the world for
• However, the Centre has withheld the notification of PepsiCo's beverages achieved this feat just two weeks after
the provisions of the amended law which empowered the it crossed Rs 1 lakh crore in market capitalisation.
fair trade regulator to impose hefty penalties on erring • As of 28th May, Varun Beverages has a market
enterprises for their anti-competitive conduct. capitalisation of Rs 1.11 lakh crore, which is Rs 25 crore
higher than Britania.
• Motilal Oswal, who has a buy rating on Varun Appointment News

Beverages, raised its calendar year 2023 / 2024 earnings 431. In May as per report _________has been appointed as
estimate by 6 percent and 3 percent after factoring in the member of Advisory Committee to the President of the
better-than-expected realisations and margin. 28th Session of the Conference of the Parties (COP28) to
• The 1995-incorporated company entered the INR One the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate
Lakh crore club on May 10, making it the 48th in the Change (UNFCCC).
overall market ranking according to BSE data. The A. Gautam Adani
company produces and distributes carbonated drinks, B. Ratan Tata
juices, and packaged drinking water in India and six other C. Mukesh Ambani
countries. A few of PepsiCo's brands manufactured under D. Bhupedra Yadav
them are Pepsi, Slice, Sting, Mirinda, Mountain Dew, E. Ashwini Singhal
Seven-Up, Nimbooz, and Aquafina. Answer: C
• Billionaire Mukesh Ambani has been appointed as the
430. The fiscal deficit of the government decreased from member of Advisory Committee to the President of the
6.71% of GDP to __________ of GDP in 2022–23. 28th Session of the Conference of the Parties (COP28) to
A. 6.2 % the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate
B. 6.4 % Change (UNFCCC).
C. 5.8 % • Ambani, the Chairman and Managing Director of
D. 6.0 % Reliance Industries joined the likes of other important
E. 5.6 % global leaders on the COP28 Advisory Council such as Larry
Answer: B Fink, Chairman and CEO of BlackRock, Olafur Grimsson,
• The fiscal deficit of the government decreased from Chairman of Arctic Circle (Former President of Iceland),
6.71% of GDP to 6.4% of GDP in 2022–23. Laurent Fabius, President of COP21 / Paris Agreement,
• In the Union Budget, the government had said it aims Former Prime Minister of France, Francesco La Camera,
to further reduce the fiscal deficit to 5.9% of gross domestic Director General, International Renewable Energy Agency
product (GDP) during the current fiscal year 2023-24. (IRENA), Bob Dudley, Chair of the Oil & Gas Climate
• Unveiling the government's revenue-expenditure Initiative (OGCI), former CEO of BP.
figures for 2022-23, the CGA said the fiscal deficit in • Besides Sunita Narain, Director General, Centre for
absolute terms stood at ₹17,33,131 crore (provisional), Science and Environment, Ambani is the only Indian who
slightly less than the amount estimated in the Revised has been appointed on the Advisory Committee to the
Estimates (RE) in the budget. President of COP28.
• The government received ₹24.56 lakh crore (101% of • The COP28 UAE Advisory Committee brings together
total receipts relating to RE 2022-23) during 2022-23. climate experts from six continents.
• This includes ₹20.97 lakh crore tax revenue (net from • The 31 members of the Committee, who represent
the Centre), ₹2.86 lakh crore non-tax revenue and ₹72,187 policy, industry, energy, finance, civil society, youth, and
crore non-debt capital receipts. humanitarian and 65 percent of whom are from the Global
• The Centre's total expenditure was ₹41.89 lakh crore South, will provide guidance and counsel to the COP
(100% of the corresponding RE 2022-23), of which ₹34.52 Presidency in the run-up to COP28 and beyond.
lakh crore was on the revenue account and ₹7.36 lakh • In January 2023, the UNFCCC Secretariat announced
crore on the capital account. Sultan Ahmed Al Jaber, Minister of Industry and Advanced
• Of the total revenue expenditure, Rs 9.28 lakh crore Technology and UAE Special Envoy for Climate Change, as
was in the form of interest payments and Rs 5.31 lakh the COP 28 President-Designate.
crore in the form of major subsidies. • The United Arab Emirates (UAE) has been chosen to
• The revenue deficit for the fiscal year ending March host the 28th Conference of Parties (COP 28) to the UNFCCC
2023 was 3.9% of GDP while the effective revenue deficit (United Nations Framework Convention on Climate
was 2.8% of GDP. Change) from November 30 to December 12, 2023. It will
take place at Dubai Expo City.
A. Alper Gezeravaci
432. Recently as per report Girish Chandra Murmu, the B. Valle Recep Tayyip
Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG), has been C. Margherita Della Valle
re-elected as External Auditor of the World Health D. Nick Reed
Organization (WHO), Geneva for a period of E. Chris Forhmos
_____________. Answer: C
A. 2023-2025 • Margherita Della Valle has been interim CEO of
B. 2024-2027 Vodafone Group since Nick Read stepped down in
C. 2025-2028 December 2022. Today, Vodafone Group announced that
D. 2024-2028 Della Valle has been named as permanent Chief Executive.
E. 2023-2027 • The company, which spans Europe and Africa, said it
Answer: B had conducted a rigorous internal and external search
• Girish Chandra Murmu, the Comptroller and Auditor before choosing the insider who has been chief financial
General of India (CAG), has been re-elected as External officer since 2018.
Auditor of the World Health Organization (WHO), Geneva • Vodafone Group is a British multinational
for a four-year term from 2024 to 2027. telecommunications company headquartered in London,
• CAG is already holding this position in WHO since United Kingdom.
2019 for a four-year term from 2019 to 2023. • The company was founded in 1984 as Racal Telecom,
• This is the second major international audit a subsidiary of Racal Electronics, and was later acquired by
assignment for the CAG this year following his selection for the telecommunications firm, Hutchison Whampoa, in
the post of External Auditor (2024-2027) of International 1991.
Labour Organization (ILO) in Geneva earlier this year in • The company was then renamed to Vodafone Group
March 2023. in 1997 and went public the same year, with an initial
• The present election was held in the Seventy-sixth public offering (IPO) on the London Stock Exchange.
World Health Assembly in Geneva, where the CAG of India
was re-elected with an overwhelming majority (114 out of 434. In May as per report Recep Tayyip Erdogan has won
156 votes) in the first round of voting itself. the presidential election of which of the following country?
• CAG’s appointment is a recognition of its standing A. Iceland
among the international community as well as its B. Ireland
professionalism, high standards, global audit experience C. Italy
and strong national credentials. D. Turkiye
• Besides WHO, the Comptroller and Auditor General of E. Myanmar
India is currently the External Auditor of Food and Answer: D
Agriculture Organization (2020-2025), International Atomic • President Recep Tayyip Erdogan has won Turkey's
Energy Agency (2022-2027), Organization for Prohibition of presidential election by defeating opposition leader Kemal
Chemical Weapons (2021-2023) and Inter Parliamentary Kilicdaroglu.
Union (2020-2022). • Erdogan was declared the winner with 52.14% of the
• CAG is a Member of the United Nations (UN) Panel of vote, according to the preliminary official results released
External Auditors. He is also a member of the Governing by Turkey's Supreme Election Council (YSK) on May 28 with
Boards of International Organization of Supreme Audit 99.43% of the votes counted.
Institutions (INTOSAI) and ASOSAI. CAG chairs the INTOSAI • The opposition leader Kilicdaroglu received 47.86%.
Knowledge Sharing Committee, its Working Group on IT • Its capital is Ankara. Its currency is Turkish lira.
Audit, and the Compliance Audit Sub-Committee.
435. What is the name of the African-American woman
433. Recently as per report __________ has been rock-and-roll artist who was known as "Queen of Rock 'n'
appointed interim CEO of Vodafone Group since Nick Read Roll" passed away?
stepped down in December 2022. A. Toni Kolf
B. Rima Kristen Answer: B
C. Heath Baerthikfe • Every year on May 29, International Day of UN
D. Tina Turner Peacekeepers is celebrated.
E. Katherie Webster • It is celebrated to honour the contributions of both
Answer: D uniformed and civilian people to peacekeeping.
• Tina Turner, popularly known as the 'Queen of Rock • This year marked 75 years of UN peacekeeping.
'n' Roll, passed away on 24 May at the age of 83, following • For 75 years, UN peacekeepers have worked to save
a long-term illness. and transform lives in the world's most fragile political and
• Turner was the first woman, as well as the first Black security situations.
artist, to appear on the cover of Rolling Stone. • The theme of the International Day of UN
• She was first inducted into the Rock Hall in 1991 as Peacekeepers 2023 is “Peace begins with me”.
part of Ike and Tina Turner. Later, in 2021, she was • UNGA passed a resolution to designate 29 May as the
inducted into the hall of fame for the second time, credited International Day of UN Peacekeepers to mark the
as a solo artist. establishment of the first UN Peacekeeping mission in
• Tina Turner has won 12 Grammy awards, including a 1948.
Grammy Lifetime Achievement Award, and has released 10 • India has played a vital role in United Nations
studio albums. peacekeeping operations. In 1960, it sent doctors and
nurses to Congo, and in 2008, it sent an all-female team to
436. Recently UN General Assembly has adopted a Liberia.
resolution to designate __________ every year as World • Peacekeepers who died in 2022 were posthumously
Sustainable Transport Day. awarded the Dag Hammarskjold Medal.
A. 21st October
B. 26th November 438. In May as per report India has won the NSC-CAVA
C. 23rd September Women’s Volleyball Challenge Cup title held in _________.
D. 25th December A. Imphal
E. 31st July B. Kathmandu
Answer: B C. Belgrade
• The UN General Assembly has adopted a resolution to D. Tokyo
designate November 26 every year as World Sustainable E. New York
Transport Day. Answer: B
• The resolution invites all stakeholders to mark World • India has won the NSC-CAVA Women’s Volleyball
Sustainable Transport Day by means of education and the Challenge Cup title.
holding of events aimed at enhancing the knowledge of • NSC-CAVA Women’s Volleyball Challenge Cup was
the public on sustainable transport issues. held in Kathmandu.
• United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) is one of • India defeated Kazakhstan in the final at the National
the six principal organs of the United Nations. Sports Council’s Covered Hall in Tripureshwor, Kathmandu
• It is composed of all 193 member states of the UN, on 28 May 2023 and won the title.
with each country having one vote. • Nepal Volleyball Association has organised the event.
National Sports Council supported it. Eight nations
437. Every year on __________ International Day of UN participated in it.
Peacekeepers is celebrated to honour the contributions of • In the competition, Kazakhstan became the runner-
both uniformed and civilian people to peacekeeping. up. Nepal came third.
A. 26th May • Uzbekistan came fourth. Sri Lanka came fifth.
B. 29th May • Kyrgyzstan, Maldives and Bangladesh came sixth,
C. 28th May seventh, and eighth, respectively.
D. 27th May
E. 25th May 439. Consider the following statement regarding Cannes
Film Festival. Which of the following statement is Answer: D
incorrect? • On 29 May, Chennai Super Kings won their 5th IPL
1. 76th edition of the Cannes Film Festival concluded on title by defeating defending champions Gujarat Titans by 5
27th May 2023. wickets at the Narendra Modi Stadium in Ahmedabad.
2. French director Justine Triet’s Anatomy of a Fall won the • The 2023 Indian Premier League was the 16th edition
Palme d'Or. of the IPL.
3. She is the third woman to win the top prize at the • Chasing a revised target of 171 in 15 overs against
Cannes Film Festival. Gujarat Titans, Chennai Super Kings achieved the target
4. Only 1 and 2 with the loss of 5 wickets on the last ball of the final over.
5. All of the above are correct • The Player of the Match was given to Devon Conway
Answer: E and Player of the Series was given to Shubman Gill.
• 76th edition of the Cannes Film Festival concluded on • Purple cap - Mohammed Shami (28 wickets).
27th May 2023. • Orange cap - Shubman Gill (890 runs).
• Justine Triet’s Anatomy of a Fall won the Palme d'Or, • Emerging player of the season - Yashasvi Jaiswal.
which is the highest prize awarded at the Cannes Film • Catch of the Season - Rashid Khan.
Festival. • Most Valuable Player - Shubman Gill.
• French director Justine Triet is the third woman to win • Fairplay Award - Delhi Capitals.
the top prize at the Cannes Film Festival.
• Jane Campion won the Palme d’Or for The Piano 441. Whom among the following won the Monaco GP?
(1993) and Julia Ducournau won it for Titane (2021). A. Alex Carry
• This year, two Honorary Palme d'Or were awarded to B. Fernando Alonso
Michael Douglas and Harrison Ford. Ruben Ostlund served C. Lewis Hamilton
as jury president. D. Sergio Perez
• Jonathan Glazer’s The Zone of Interest won the Grand E. Max Verstappen
Prix award. Answer: E
• Japanese actor Koji Yakusho won the best actor • Max Verstappen won the Monaco GP, acing the
award for his role in Wim Wenders’s Perfect Days. challenging conditions as a rain shower hit the track in the
• Turkish actress Merve Dizdar won the Best Actress closing stages. With his title rival and teammate Sergio
prize for her role in Nuri Bilge Ceylan’s About Dry Grasses. Perez only managing to finish 16th, Verstappen has further
Other winners are given in the next table. extended his lead at the top of the standings.
• Best director - Tran Anh Hung for "The Pot-au-Feu" • Fernando Alonso held on to second place for Aston
• L’Oeil d’or (Golden Eye) award for best documentary - Martin.
Jointly won by Kaouther Ben Hania’s Four Daughters and • Verstappen's win, his fourth in six races this year,
The Mother of All Lies by Asmae El Moudir. moved him 39 points clear of team-mate Sergio Perez in
the championship.
440. Consider the following statement regarding Indian
Premier League (IPL) 2023. Which of the following 442. In May as per report South Korea successfully
statement is incorrect? launched a commercial-grade satellite for the first time.
1. , Chennai Super Kings won their 5th IPL title by defeating What is the name of the satellite?
defending champions Gujarat Titans by 5 wickets at the A. Danauri
Narendra Modi Stadium in Ahmedabad. B. Nuri
2. The 2023 Indian Premier League was the 16th edition of C. Kiroskar
the IPL. D. Fumi
3. The Player of the Match was given to Devon Conway E. Zalton
and Player of the Series was given to Shubman Gill. Answer: B
4. Purple cap was won by Gujarat Titan Rashid Khan. • South Korea successfully launched a commercial-
5. Orange cap was won by Gujarat Titan Shubman Gill. grade satellite for the first time as part of its growing
space development program, as rival North Korea is • GAINS 2023, a scheme for encouraging innovators
pushing to place its first military spy satellite into orbit. through an open innovation challenge, was launched by
• The two Koreas, technically in a state of war, have no the youngest officer of GRSE, G Surya Prakash, assistant
military reconnaissance satellites of their own and both are manager (finance), in the presence of the Minister of State
eager to possess them. for Electronics and IT and Skill Development and
• The South Korean launch will likely assist its efforts to Entrepreneurship, Rajeev Chandrasekhar, through the
develop a space-based surveillance system. virtual mode.
• The domestically built three-stage Nuri rocket lifted
off from a launch facility on a southern island with a 444. Consider the following statement regarding next-
payload of eight satellites, including a main commercial- generation of navigational satellite NVS-1. Which of the
grade satellite whose mission is to verify radar imaging following statement is incorrect?
technology and observe cosmic radiation in a near-Earth 1. NVS-1 weighs about 2,232 kilograms.
orbit. 2. It has been launched by GSLV F12 rocket from the 2nd
• The launch boosted South Korea’s hopes of catching launch pad at Sathish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota.
up with Asian neighbors such as China, Japan and India in 3. The satellite will be placed into a geosynchronous
a regional space race. transfer orbit.
• South Korea is expected to launch its first spy satellite 4. Only 1 and 2
later this year. It currently relies on U.S. spy satellites to 5. All of the above are correct
monitor North Korean facilities. Answer: E
• ISRO launched its next-generation of navigational
443. In May as per report __________ launched an satellite NVS-1 on 29 May 2023.
innovation nurturing scheme that would help generate a • NVS-1 weighs about 2,232 kilograms. It has been
large number of ideas in Ship Design and Construction. launched by GSLV F12 rocket from the 2nd launch pad at
A. Goa Shipyard Ltd Sathish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota.
B. Hindustan Shipyard Ltd • This is the 15th flight of the GSLV. This is the sixth
C. Hooghly Dock & Port Engineers Ltd operational flight of the GSLV with an indigenous cryogenic
D. Mazagaon Dock Shipbuilders Ltd stage.
E. Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers Ltd • NVS-1 is the first of the 2nd generation satellites for
Answer: E the Navigation with Indian constellation series.
• In a bid to address challenges in the ship design and • The satellite will be placed into a geosynchronous
construction industry, defence PSU Garden Reach transfer orbit.
Shipbuilders and Engineers Ltd. launched an innovation • It will carry an indigenously developed rubidium
nurturing scheme that would help generate a large atomic clock. This clock will be used for gps precise location
number of ideas. timing.
• The GRSE Accelerated Innovation Nurturing Scheme • It will also carry navigation payloads L1, L5 and S
2023 is a two-stage process to help generate a large bands.
number of ideas from which a few promising ones may be • It is for the first time that an indigenously developed
selected and nurtured. rubidium atomic clock will be used.
• Kolkata-based defence shipyard launched GAINS 2023 • The spacecraft comes under the Navigation with
to leverage the ecosystem that addresses present and Indian Constellation (NavIC) series.
emerging challenges in the ship design and construction • NavIC series aims to provide monitoring and
industry. navigational capability.
• Artificial intelligence, renewable energy, and energy • NavIC provides a standard position service for civilian
efficiency, as well as efficiency enhancement, are focus users and a restricted service for strategic users.
areas for GRSE and are the thematic areas of the "GAINS • NavIC is an Indian regional satellite navigation
2023' challenge. system, similar to GPS.
• It provides accurate and real-time navigation in India last year by three businessmen, with another retired NASA
and in an area extending to 1,500 km around the astronaut.
mainland.
• NavIC signals provide user position accurate to better 446. Recently in may _____________ launched three
than 20-metres. They provide timing accuracy of better astronauts on Shenzhou-16 to the Tiangong Space Station.
than 50 nanoseconds. A. China
• NavIC was earlier called the Indian Regional B. Japan
Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS). It is designed with a C. UAE
constellation of seven satellites. D. Iran
• NAVIC was approved in 2006 (at a cost of $174 E. Israel
million) and was expected to be completed by 2011, but Answer: A
only become operational in 2018. • On 30 May, three astronauts, including a civilian in
• NavIC, which consists of 7 satellites, covering the China, were launched on Shenzhou-16 to the Tiangong
whole of India's landmass and up to 1,500 km from its Space Station.
boundaries, is conceived with the aim of removing • The civilian, Professor Gui Haichao of Beihang
dependence on foreign satellite systems for navigation, University, has been sent to space for the first time.
particularly for "strategic sectors.". • China has sent astronauts to its now fully operational
space station as part of crew rotation.
445. In May as per report __________became the first • The spacecraft, Shenzhou-16, is carrying these
woman from Saudi Arabia to go to space. passengers.
A. Rayyanah Barnawi • The Shenzhou-16 crew was launched aboard a Long
B. Latifa Al-Abdulkarim March 2F rocket from the Jiuquan Satellite Launch Center
C. Ghaliyya Al Bogammiah in northwest China.
D. Laila Alfaddagh China has committed billions of dollars in its military-run
E. Hamida al-Attas space programme.
Answer: A
• Saudi Arabia’s first astronauts in decades rocketed June
toward the International Space Station on a chartered 447. Recently as per report Indian Institute of Technology
multimillion-dollar flight. (IIT) will open its first-ever overseas campus in
• SpaceX launched the ticket-holding crew, led by a ____________.
retired NASA astronaut now working for the company that A. Tanzania
arranged the trip from Kennedy Space Center. B. UAE
• Also on board: a U.S. businessman who now owns a C. Singapore
sports car racing team. The four should reach the space D. Australia
station in their capsule Monday morning; they’ll spend just E. Japan
over a week there before returning home with a Answer: A
splashdown off the Florida coast. • Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) will open its first-
• Sponsored by the Saudi Arabian government, ever overseas campus in Tanzania.
Rayyanah Barnawi, a stem cell researcher, became the first • IIT will open its first overseas campus with a batch of 50
woman from the kingdom to go to space. She was joined undergraduate students and 20 master's students in
by Ali al-Qarni, a fighter pilot with the Royal Saudi Air Tanzania in October 2023.
Force. They’re the first from their country to ride a rocket • The new IIT campus will be established at Zanzibar
since a Saudi prince launched aboard shuttle Discovery in under the IIT Madras.
1985. • Zanzibar will be one of three campuses of IIT which will
• It’s the second private flight to the space station be located outside of India. The other campuses will be set
organized by Houston-based Axiom Space. The first was up in Abu Dhabi and Kuala Lumpur.
• These campuses are designed to serve their respective • This will give an idea about the various regional
region. The campus at Zanzibar will serve the greater East requirements of the project, so that it can be implemented
African region. in a proper manner across the country.
• In the first year, the institution will offer data science • The cabinet also approved the second phase of City
and artificial intelligence courses. Investments to Innovate, Integrate and Sustain for
• The Zanzibar campus of IIT will have the same Integrated Urban Management.
international recognition that IIT Madras enjoys. • The program of the Ministry of Housing and Urban
• Students from Zanzibar will eventually have access to Development is being implemented in partnership with the
the same benefits which are enjoyed by students in Kreditanstalt für Wiederaufbau, a French development
Madras. agency, the European Union and the National Institute of
• The admission will have a three-way process that Urban Affairs.
includes an entrance exam, a one-month preparation • Government will create 700 lakh tonnes of grain
program, and an individual interview. storage capacity in the cooperative in four years from 2023
• The establishment of IIT in Zanzibar is a significant step to 2027.
towards strengthening the ties between India and Africa. • To ensure timely and uniform implementation of the
• IITs are known for their research and innovation. The IIT plan in a professional manner, the Ministry of Cooperation
campus in Tanzania will promote research and innovation would implement a pilot project in at least 10 selected
in the African continent. districts of different States.
• The committee will be chaired by the Union Cooperation
448. Recently as per report Government has approved one Minister.
lakh crore rupees for the world's largest grain storage • It focuses on integrated waste management at the
scheme in the cooperative sector. urban level, climate-oriented remediation actions at the
It will be implemented in convergence with which of the state level and institutional strengthening and knowledge
following ministry? dissemination at the national level.
A. Ministry of Agriculture
B. Ministry of Consumer Affairs 449. Which of the following State Tobacco Control Cell won
C. Ministry of Food grains and Public Distribution the WHO World No Tobacco Day 2023 Award?
D. Ministry of Food Processing Industries A. Jharkhand
E. All of the above B. Meghalaya
Answer: E C. Assam
• Government approved one lakh crore rupees for the D. Manipur
world's largest grain storage scheme in the cooperative E. Bihar
sector. Answer: B
• 31 May, the cabinet meeting has been given the • New rules for providing anti-tobacco warnings on OTT
approval to set up an inter-ministerial committee for the platforms notified by the Union Health Ministry.
“world's largest grain storage scheme in the cooperative • The notification states that it is mandatory to provide
sector.” anti-tobacco warning message on OTT platforms.
• It will be implemented in convergence with the Ministry • Highlights of the new rules issued by the Union Health
of Agriculture, Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Ministry of Ministry for anti-tobacco warnings on OTT platforms: -
Food grains and Public Distribution and Ministry of Food • Health spots, messages and disclaimers: Publishers of
Processing Industries. online curated content depicting tobacco products, or their
• To ensure that the scheme will be implemented in a consumption will be required to follow specific guidelines.
professional and time-bound manner, the Ministry of These include the display of an anti-tobacco health spot,
Cooperation will implement the project on a pilot basis in lasting at least thirty seconds at the beginning and middle
at least ten districts of different States and Union of the programme.
Territories. • Access to content: Health spots, messages and
disclaimers will be made available to the publisher of the
curated content online on the website "mohfw.gov.in" or tourists, and providing discounts to women travellers will
"ntcp.mohfw.gov.in". be part of this five-point program.
• Legibility and language: The anti-tobacco health • For the effective implementation of the policy, a task
warning message displayed as a static message must be force will also be formed under the chairmanship of the
legible and readable with black font on a white tourism minister.
background, and must include the warning "tobacco • In this policy, 10 women-owned tourism businesses like
causes cancer" or "tobacco kills". homestays, hotels, restaurants, and tour and travel
• Limitations on Display: The display or consumption of agencies will be registered with the Directorate of Tourism
tobacco products in online curated content is prohibited (DoT) in each taluka.
from including brands of cigarettes or other tobacco • Women entrepreneurs will be supported financially for
products or tobacco product placement of any kind. setting up businesses and they can repay the amount in
• If the publisher of online content does not follow the easy instalments.
new rules, strict action will be taken against him. • For the first five years, the Maharashtra government
• An inter-ministerial committee consisting of will also pay the annual insurance premiums of women
representatives of the Ministry of Health, the Ministry of travel operators registered with the DoT.
Information and Broadcasting and the Ministry of
Electronics and Information Technology will take suo motu 451. Consider the following statement regarding PM
or action on complaints received. SVANidhi Scheme. Which of the following statement is
• The Committee will identify the publisher of the online incorrect?
curated content, and issue a notice providing a reasonable A. PM SVANidhi Scheme launched on 01 June, 2020, aiming
opportunity to explain the failure. to restore Swarozgar, Svavlamban, Swabhimaan.
• Union Health Minister also presented the WHO World B. 2. PM SVANiDHI is a special micro-credit facility planto
No Tobacco Day 2023 Award to State Tobacco Control Cell provide affordable loan of up to Rs. 10,000 to more than 50
Meghalaya and Center for Multi-disciplinary Development lakh street vendors.
Research (CMDR), Dharwad. C. The scheme is a Central Sector Scheme fully funded by
Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
450. In June as per report __________ has approved the D. Small Industries Development Bankof India is the
implementation of the 'Gender Inclusive Tourism Policy technical partner for implementation of this scheme.
called 'Aai' under the 'Ajadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav'. E. All of the above are correct
A. Odisha Answer: E
B. Maharashtra • Shri Hardeep S. Puri, Minister for Housing and Urban
C. Rajasthan Affairs and Petroleum and Natural Gas complimented the
D. Bihar Prime Minster Street Vendor’s AtmaNirbhar Nidhi (PM
E. Tamil Nadu SVANidhi) Scheme on its successful completion of 3
Answer: B momentous years.
• The Maharashtra Cabinet has approved the • PM SVANidhi Scheme launched on 01 June, 2020,
implementation of the 'Gender Inclusive Tourism Policy aiming to restore Swarozgar, Svavlamban, Swabhimaan
called 'Aai' under the 'Ajadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav'. (Self Employment, Self-Sustenance, and Self-Confidence)
• The policy will be implemented through the Directorate within street vendors has become one of the fastest
of Tourism and Maharashtra Tourism Development growing micro-credit schemes of the Government of India
Corporation in association with the various schemes of all and has provided its citizens access to credit and linkages
concerned departments. to social security schemes.
• Under this policy, a five-point program will be • During the event, a booklet highlighting the noteworthy
implemented. achievements and initiatives implemented under the PM
• The promotion of women’s entrepreneurship, the SVANidhi scheme was released. The booklet provides
creation of infrastructure for women, prioritising the safety insights into the various initiatives and reforms undertaken
of women tourists, customising products for women
by the scheme to transform the lives of street vendors and Minister.
their families throughout the country. What is the acronymn of 'G' in GOBARdhan?
• Hardeep S. Puri launched a PM SVANidhi mobile app for A. Government
street vendors, to ease the loan application process and B. Gilt
provide various information to Street Vendors regarding C. Gross
the Scheme. Moreover, a facility for ‘Udyam’ registration D. Galvanizing
and obtaining ‘Udyam Assist’ certificate for Street Vendors E. Garsin
on PM SVANidhi portal was also launched with the help of Answer: D
Ministry of Small and Medium enterprises, MSME, to • A Unified Registration Portal for GOBARdhan launched
provide easy access to vendors for obtaining Udyam by Union Jal Shakti Minister.
Registration Certificate for promotion of their business. • It will act as a single repository for assessing investment
• Amongst the banks, State Bank of India, Bank of and participation in the biogas/CBG sector on a pan-India
Baroda, and Union Bank of India were felicitated for basis.
offering large number of loans to street vendors. Amongst • More importantly, it will streamline the process of
RRBs Andhra Pradesh Grameen Vikas Bank, and from State setting up biogas plants/CBG in India.
Cooperative banks Stree Nidhi Credit Cooperative • Any government, cooperative or private entity that
Federation Ltd. were felicitated. intends to set up a Biogas/CBG/Bio CNG plant in India can
• PM SVANidhi scheme has achieved significant obtain a registration number by enrolling in this integrated
milestones over the past three years. The scheme registration portal that has been launched.
facilitates working capital loans in three tranches to the • The registration number will enable them to get many
Street Vendors. It has been providing microcredits to more benefits and assistance from the Ministries and
than 36 lakh Street Vendors across India. Departments of the Government of India.
• As on June, 2023, 48.5 lakh loan applications have been • States have been advised to get their CBG/biogas plant
sanctioned, with over 46.4 lakh loans disbursed to street operators registered on the portal on priority basis for
vendors, amounting to a total of Rs. 5,795 crore. availing the existing and future assistance from the Central
• PM SVANiDHI is a special micro-credit facility planto Government.
provide affordable loan of up to Rs. 10,000 to more than 50 • Galvaniz4ing Organic Bio-Agro Resources Dhan
lakh street vendors. (Gobardhan) is a flagship comprehensive initiative of the
• The scheme is a Central Sector Schemee. fully funded by Government of India, which is based on a whole of
Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. government approach and aims to convert waste into
• The Scheme is available to all street vendors engaged in wealth towards promoting circular economy.
vending in urban areas as on or before March 24, 2020. • The Government of India intends to create a strong
• It was announced aims to enable street vendors to ecosystem for setting up Biogas/Compressed Biogas
resume their livelihoods,which have been hit hard due to (CBG)/Bio-Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) plants to
the national lockdown. promote sustainable economic growth and promote a
• Implementing agency: Small Industries Development circular economy.
Bankof India is the technical partner for implementation of • Gobardhan, the nodal division of the Department of
this scheme. It manages the credit guarantee to the Drinking Water and Sanitation, Ministry of Jal Shakti, has
lending institutions through Credit Guarantee Fund Trust developed this portal, which can be accessed at
for Micro and Small Enterprises. https://gobardhan.co.in.
• The Ministry has initiated ‘SVANidhi se Samriddhi’ in • Gobardhan aims to generate wealth and energy by
125 Urban Local Bodies, selected for saturation in the first converting cattle dung, agricultural residues and other
phase. In Phase 1, approximately 35 Lakh Street vendors organic waste into biogas, CBG and bio-fertilizers.
and their families were covered. • The initiative includes a whole gamut of schemes,
programmes, policies to promote the conversion of organic
452. In June as per report Unified Registration Portal for waste like animal dung, agro-residues etc. to
GOBARdhan has been launched by Union Jal Shakti Biogas/CBG/Bio-CNG.
Scheme (CSS) for Development of Infrastructure Facilities
453. Recently Centre has put a ban on ____________ fixed- for Districts and Subordinate Judiciary.
dose combinations (FDCs) medicines used to treat common • Under the Scheme, central assistance is given to the
ailments. State Government / UT Administrations for constructing
A. 14 court halls and residential units for Judicial Officers /
B. 12 Judges of District and Subordinate Courts.
C. 13 • The scheme was extended beyond 31 March 2021 and
D. 15 some new features were added like construction of
E. 18 Lawyers Hall, Toilet complexes and Digital computer rooms
Answer: A for the convenience of lawyers and litigants.
• Centre has put a ban on 14 fixed-dose combinations • Under the scheme, the funds sharing pattern between
(FDCs) medicines used to treat common ailments. centre and state for North Eastern and Himalayan States is
• These medicines were found to lack therapeutic 90:10, 100% in respect of Union Territories and 60:40 for
relevance. other states.
• The banned medicines are used for cough, fever and
infections. They are sold over the counter. 455. Consider the following statement regarding Pradhan
• An expert committee was formed to examine the Mantri Van Dhan Yojana. Which of the following
efficacy of these FDCs. The ban follows the statement is incorrect?
recommendations of this committee. A. Pradhan Mantri Van Dhan Yojana was launched by
• The banned FDCs come under 344 fixed-dose Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 14 April 2018.
combinations, which were prohibited for sale by the Union B. It was launched in the tribal-dominated Bijapur district
Health Ministry in 2016. of Chhattisgarh.
• Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) C. Under the scheme, around 140 Van Dhan Kendras have
defines FDCs as products containing one or more active been started in Chhattisgarh and more than 3000 in India.
ingredients used for a particular indication(s). D. TRIFED is responsible for the implementation of the Van
• Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) is Dhan Programme.
headquartered in New Delhi. It has six zonal offices. E. It is 100% funded by the Central Government with
TRIFED giving Rs 25 lakh to each Van Dhan Kendra cluster
454. Which of the following has created Nyaya Vikas Portal of 300 members.
to monitor implementation of Centrally Sponsored Answer: E
Schemes? • Pradhan Mantri Van Dhan Yojana was launched by
A. Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 14 April 2018 in the
B. Department of Social Services tribal-dominated Bijapur district of Chhattisgarh.
C. Department of Human Services • The aim of the scheme is to upgrade the status of tribal
D. Department of Justice people from mere gatherers of minor forest produce like
E. Department of Financial Services mahua, tamarind, chironji, etc, to entrepreneurs and help
Answer: D them learn the value addition to the forest produce.
• Nyaya Vikas Portal created by Department of Justice to • This initiative targets livelihood generation for tribals
monitor implementation of Centrally Sponsored Schemes. by harnessing wealth of forest.
• Nyaya Vikas Portal gives four efficient ways to login • It is a component of Mechanism for Marketing of Minor
into the portal- Central User login, State User login, Forest Produce (MFP) through Minimum Support Price
Surveyor User and Approver User login. (MSP) & Development of Value Chain for MFP scheme.
• It empowers stakeholders with seamless access to • Under the scheme, around 140 Van Dhan Kendras have
information related to funding, documentation, project been started in Chhattisgarh and more than 3000 in India.
monitoring and approval. • Through Van Dhan Kendras, the tribal people add value
• Nyaya Vikas Scheme: Since 1993-94, the Department of to the minor forest produce and as a result, their income
Justice has been implementing the Centrally Sponsored increased by 3-4 times.
• TRIFED is responsible for the implementation of the Van • Its main aim is to support indigenous research,
Dhan Programme. development and demonstration of the latest and
• It is 100% funded by the Central Government with emerging technologies in the power sector.
TRIFED giving Rs 15 lakh to each Van Dhan Kendra cluster • The mission will be funded by financial resources of the
of 300 members. Ministry of Power, Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
and various Central Public Sector Enterprises.
456. In June as per report Shiksha Mahakumbh has been • The additional funding for the mission will be mobilized
started in _____________. from the budgetary resources of the central government.
A. Indore • The mission will be initially launched for a period of five
B. Bhopal years from 2023-24 to 2027-28. It will follow the
C. Jaipur technology life cycle approach of Idea to Product.
D. Jalandhar • This mission will act as a catalyst for achieving goals
E. Jabalpur like Net Zero emissions and will promote initiatives like
Answer: D Make in India and Start-up India.
• The three-day Shiksha Mahakumbh started from in • This mission will also contribute towards achieving the
Jalandhar on 9 June. United Nation’s Sustainable Development Goals.
• A three-day national conference on recent advances in
school education began at Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar National 458. Recently seen in news Kheer Bhawani mela was
Institute of Technology, Jalandhar. celebrated in which of the following state/UT?
• This Shiksha Mahakumbh has been organized in A. Uttarakhand
collaboration with Sarvhitkari Shiksha Samiti, Punjab, NIT B. Jammu & Kashmir
Jalandhar and other premier educational institutions. C. Odisha
• Information and Broadcasting Minister Anurag Singh D. Laddakh
Thakur was the chief guest at the inaugural session of E. Tamil Nadu
Shiksha Mahakumbh. Answer: B
• In the conference, the implementation of the National • Kashmiri Pandits celebrated the annual Kheer Bhawani
Education Policy and the major challenges in implementing mela.
educational reforms will be discussed. • A convoy of pilgrims from the Kashmir Pandit
• Representatives of premier institutes of the country community reached the Kashmir Valley on May 26 to
including IIT, AIIM, IIM, IISER and NIT will attend Shiksha participate in the annual Kheer Bhawani fair in the Union
Mahakumbh. Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.
• The annual Kheer Bhawani Mela, celebrated on Zeisht
457. In June as per report Government launched Mission on Ashtami, was held on May 28.
Advanced and High-Impact Research (MAHIR) for a period • The Kheer Bhawani fair is organized annually in five
of____________. temples in the Kashmir Valley.
A. 2024-25 to 2027-28 • These are Ragya Bhagvati Temple at Tulmulla in
B. 2023-24 to 2025-26 Ganderbal, Ragya Bhagvati Temple at Manjgam in
C. 2023-24 to 2026-27 Kulgam, Tripurasundari Temple at Devsar in Kulgam,
D. 2024-25 to 2028-29 Ragani Bhagvati Temple at Logripora in Anantnag and
E. 2023-24 to 2027-28 Ragni Bhagvati Temple at Tikkar in Kupwara.
Answer: E
• Mission on Advanced and High-Impact Research 459. Tiffin Pe Charcha' campaign has been launched to
(MAHIR) has been launched by the government to identify enhance party's working style in which state?
emerging technologies in the power sector. A. Uttar Pradesh
• It has also been launched to indigenously develop B. Bihar
emerging technology and deploying them within and C. Gujarat
outside India. D. Himachal Pradesh
E. Madhya Pradesh • The Exhibition presents the birch-bark Gilgit
Answer: A manuscripts, Tattvartha Sutra, Ramayana, and Srimad
• 'Tiffin Pe Charcha' campaign launched to boost party's Bhagwad Gita, among others.
working style in UP. • The Gilgit Manuscripts were discovered in Naupur
• Uttar Pradesh Chief Minister Yogi Adityanath met with village (Gilgit region) in three phases, and were first
party members as part of BJP's 'Tiffin Pe Charcha' announced in 1931 by archaeologist Sir Aurel Stein.
campaign ahead of next year's parliamentary elections. • National Archives of India was set up on 11 March 1891
• The BJP has decided to use Narendra Modi's famous at Kolkata (Calcutta) as the Imperial Record Department.
'Chai Pe Charcha' sessions through which he connected • It is the nodal agency for the implementation of the
with voters ahead of the 2014 Lok Sabha elections. Public Records Act, 1993 and Public Record Rules, 1997.
• The 'Tiffin Pe Charcha' campaign, meaning "discussion
over a meal", has been launched to commemorate Prime 461. In June as per report FSSAI has awarded ‘Eat Right
Minister Narendra Modi's nine years in office. Station’ certification to ____________.
• 'Tiffin Pe Charcha' was organized with senior BJP A. Howrah Railway Station
workers in Gorakhpur. B. Patna Railway Station
• The meeting was very useful and positive, in which 328 C. Coimbotre Railway Station
office bearers participated. D. Gaya Railway Station
E. Guwahati Railway Station
460. Who among the following inaugurated the exhibition Answer: E
titled "Hamari Bhasha, Hamari Virasat" organised by the • Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI)
National Archives of India? has awarded the 'Eat Right Station' certification to the
A. G. Kishan Reddy Guwahati railway station in Assam for providing high-
B. Meenakashi Lekhi quality nutritious food to passengers.
C. Om Birla • The station has been able to meet the guidelines set by
D. Smriti Irani FSSAI and has become the first station on North Eastern
E. Nirmala Sitharaman Railway to get this status.
Answer: B • Railway stations that follow standard food storage and
• An exhibition titled "Hamari Bhasha, Hamari Virasat" hygiene are awarded 'Eat Right Station' certification by
organised by the National Archives of India. FSSAI.
• The exhibition was inaugurated by the Minister of State • The certification is part of the 'Eat Right India'
for Culture, Smt. Meenakashi Lekhi on 09 June 2023. movement and a massive effort by the FSSAI to transform
• The exhibition was organised to celebrate the 75th the country's food system to ensure safe, healthy and
International Archives Day (09 June 2023). sustainable food for all Indians.
• The exhibition is an attempt to commemorate the
heritage of India’s linguistic diversity as a Nation. 462. In June as per report _____________state government
• An estimated 788 languages are spoken in India alone, and Airports Authority of India have signed an MoU to
out of the 7,111 languages spoken globally. construct new Civil Enclaves at Darbhanga and Purnea
• Therefore, India is one of the four most linguistically Airport.
diversified countries in the world after Papua New Guinea, A. Madhya Pradesh
Indonesia, and Nigeria. B. Bihar
• The Gilgit Manuscripts are the oldest surviving C. Haryana
manuscript collection in India. They were written between D. Uttar Pradesh
the 5-6 centuries CE. E. Rajasthan
• Mrs. Meenakashi Lekhi said, “On the occasion of Answer: B
International Archives Day, the National Archives of India • An MoU has been signed between Bihar govt and
has made available these Gilgit Manuscripts. Airports Authority of India (AAI).
• Under the MoU, New civil enclaves will be built at • The India-EU Connectivity Partnership was launched
Darbhanga and Purnea airports in Bihar. during the meeting of the leaders of India and the
• The construction will be on 78 acres of land in European Union in May 2021.
Darbhanga and 52.18 acres in Purnea. • Meghalaya Chief Minister Conrad Sangma and Union
• Currently, air services are operational from the Minister of State for External Affairs Dr. Rajkumar Ranjan
temporary Civil Enclave at Darbhanga Airport. Singh will inaugurate the Conference.
• The proposal for the construction of a civil enclave at • Senior officials from the Government, European Union
Chunapur airbase in Purnia has been hanging in the Commission, North Eastern States, Nepal, Bhutan and
balance for the last several years. Bangladesh and the private sector are expected to
• The current airbase of the Indian Air Force at Chunapur participate in the conference.
was built in 1962, immediately after the India-China war.
• Under the Regional Connectivity Scheme (RCS)-Ude 464. Recently as per report Tele-Law program under the
Desh ka Aam Nagrik (UDAN) scheme, the AAI has planned Department of Justice, Ministry of Law and Justice has
to develop the civil enclave at Purnia for commencing achieved a new milestone as it has empowered _________
commercial flight operations. lakh beneficiaries across the country with pre-litigation
• Under the agreement, the Bihar government will advice.
provide free of cost undisputed land to AAI for both the A. 10 lakh
airports. B. 20 lakh
• This will give a boost to the construction of well- C. 30 lakh
equipped terminal buildings and passenger-centric D. 40 lakh
facilities at the airports of Darbhanga and Purnea. E. 50 lakh
• The construction of new Civil Enclave at Purnea Airport Answer: D
will also pave the way for starting air services there by • The Tele-Law program under the Department of Justice,
removing the existing hurdles. Ministry of Law and Justice has achieved a new milestone
as it has empowered 40 lakh beneficiaries across the
• Important Airports of Bihar - Jaiprakash Narayan
country with pre-litigation advice.
Airport is a domestic airport serving Patna, the capital city
of Bihar. • This program is a kind of e-interface mechanism
through which pre-litigation legal advice and consultation
• Gaya Airport is an international airport serving Gaya,
can be obtained.
Bihar.
• Under this, needy and poor people can get legal help
463. India-EU Connectivity Conference is being organized from lawyers through video conferencing and telephone
by the Ministry of External Affairs in ______________. facilities available in Common Service Centers located at
A. Assam Panchayat level.
B. Mizoram • This service was launched by the Union Ministry of Law
C. Nagaland and Justice in 2017.
D. Meghalaya • Now it can be availed directly through Tele Law Mobile
E. Manipur App.
Answer: D
• India-EU Connectivity Conference is being organized by 465. In June as per report Cabinet Committee on Economic
the Ministry of External Affairs, EU Delegation to India and Affairs (CCEA) has approved the continuation of
the Asian Confluence on June 1 and 2. “Exploration of Coal and Lignite scheme” till ___________.
• The two-day conclave is aimed at promoting A. 2024
investments in the North-eastern states of India and B. 2025
expanding connectivity to neighbouring countries like C. 2026
Nepal, Bhutan and Bangladesh. D. 2027
• The conference will focus on connectivity through three E. 2028
pillars: Digital, Energy and Transport. Answer: C
• The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) has • At the event, Dr. Mansukh Mandaviya released the 5th
approved the continuation of “Exploration of Coal and State Food Safety Index (SFSI).
Lignite scheme” till 2026. • Among the larger states, Kerala achieved top rank,
• The time period of the scheme has been extended from followed by Punjab and Tamil Nadu.
2021-22 to 2025-26 with an estimated expenditure of Rs • Among the smaller states, Goa achieved top rank,
2980 crore. followed by Manipur and Sikkim.
• Under this scheme, exploration for Coal and Lignite is • Among the union territories, Delhi and Chandigarh
conducted in two stages: achieved second and third rank, respectively.
• (i) Promotional (Regional) Exploration • Dr Mansukh Mandaviya announced that 100 Food
• (ii) Detailed Exploration in Non-Coal India Limited Streets would be set up across the country.
blocks • He also unveiled Rapid Food Testing Kit (RAFT) portal.
• Rs 1650 crore has been allocated for Promotional RAFT scheme was launched in 2019.
(Regional) Exploration while Rs.1330 crore has been • It was launched to encourage the adoption of advanced
allocated for Detailed Drilling in Non-CIL areas. technologies for food testing, screening, and surveillance
• Around 1300 sq. km area will be covered under purposes.
Regional exploration and 650 sq. km area will be covered • Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI)
under detailed exploration. annually releases the Food Safety Index. It is a dynamic
• The Geological reports prepared through these quantitative and qualitative benchmarking model.
explorations will be used for auctioning new coal blocks. • It was launched in 2018-19.
• The main goal of exploring coal and lignite resources is • This index is based on the performance of the State/ UT
to assess their presence, quantity, and quality within the on five significant parameters, namely, Human Resources
country. and Institutional Data, Compliance, Food Testing –
Infrastructure and Surveillance, Training & Capacity
466. Consider the following statement regarding State Building and Consumer Empowerment.
Food Safety Index 2022-23. Which of the following • World Food Safety Day is observed every year on 7th
statement is incorrect? June (facilitated by the WHO and FAO). It aims to raise
A. The Index is an annual assessment released by the Food awareness and encourage actions to prevent, detect, and
Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI). manage foodborne risks. It was 1st observed in 2019. The
B. Among the larger states, Kerala achieved top rank, theme this year is “Food standards save lives”.
followed by Punjab and Tamil Nadu. • FSSAI is an autonomous body established under the
C. Among the smaller states, Goa achieved top rank, Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Government of India.
followed by Manipur and Sikkim. • The FSSAI has been established under the Food Safety
D. J&K has got first position in UT category for 3rd time in a and Standards Act, 2006 which is a consolidating statute
row for 2021, 2022, and 2023. related to food safety and regulation in India.
E. It was the 4th edition of State Food Safety Index (SFSI). • Hence, FSSAI is a Statutory Body.
Answer: E • Union Health Minister honored the winners of the Eat
• The Department of Food and Drugs Administration J&K Right Challenge for Districts - Phase II. These districts
has got first position in UT category for 3rd time in a row showcased outstanding efforts in implementing plans to
for 2021, 2022, and 2023. improve the food environment and raise awareness about
• Food Safety Commissioner Shakeel-ul-Rehman received food safety.
the award from Mansukh Mandaviya, Union Minister of • Remarkably, most of the districts with exceptional
Health and Family Welfare. results were located in Tamil Nadu, Madhya Pradesh, West
• Jammu and Kashmir (J&K) also won 1st prize for having Bengal, Uttar Pradesh, and Maharashtra. Out of the 260
the maximum number of Eat Right Mela districts in India. participating districts, 31 successfully achieved a score of
• FSSAI organized an event on 07 June 2023, in honor of 75% or higher.
World Food Safety Day.
467. One of the most active Volcanoes, Kilauea, started growing micro-credit schemes of the Government of India
erupting from 7 June. It is located on which of the and has provided its citizens access to credit and linkages
following islands? to social security schemes.
A. Hawaii • During the event, a booklet highlighting the noteworthy
B. Greenland achievements and initiatives implemented under the PM
C. Honshu SVANidhi scheme was released. The booklet provides
D. Iceland insights into the various initiatives and reforms undertaken
E. Sumatra by the scheme to transform the lives of street vendors and
Answer: A their families throughout the country.
• Kilauea started erupting on 7 June after a three-month • Hardeep S. Puri launched a PM SVANidhi mobile app for
pause. It is one of the world’s most active Volcanoes. street vendors, to ease the loan application process and
• The eruption is occurring within the Halemaumau crater provide various information to Street Vendors regarding
in the summit caldera. the Scheme. Moreover, a facility for ‘Udyam’ registration
• The increase in earthquake activity and changes in the and obtaining ‘Udyam Assist’ certificate for Street Vendors
pattern of ground deformation at the summit indicates the on PM SVANidhi portal was also launched with the help of
movement of magma in the subsurface. Ministry of Small and Medium enterprises, MSME, to
• The eruption activity area is within the Hawaii provide easy access to vendors for obtaining Udyam
Volcanoes National Park, Hawaii Island. Registration Certificate for promotion of their business.
• Kilauea is second largest volcano of Hawaii. It erupted • Amongst the banks, State Bank of India, Bank of
from September 2021 until last December and again began Baroda, and Union Bank of India were felicitated for
erupting in January which lasted for 61 days. offering large number of loans to street vendors. Amongst
• In 2018, the Kilauea eruption destroyed more than 700 RRBs Andhra Pradesh Grameen Vikas Bank, and from State
homes. Cooperative banks Stree Nidhi Credit Cooperative
Federation Ltd. were felicitated.
468. Consider the following statement regarding PM • PM SVANidhi scheme has achieved significant
SVANidhi Scheme. Which of the following statement is milestones over the past three years. The scheme
incorrect? facilitates working capital loans in three tranches to the
A. PM SVANidhi Scheme launched on 01 June, 2020, aiming Street Vendors. It has been providing microcredits to more
to restore Swarozgar, Svavlamban, Swabhimaan. than 36 lakh Street Vendors across India.
B. 2. PM SVANiDHI is a special micro-credit facility planto • As on June, 2023, 48.5 lakh loan applications have been
provide affordable loan of up to Rs. 10,000 to more than 50 sanctioned, with over 46.4 lakh loans disbursed to street
lakh street vendors. vendors, amounting to a total of Rs. 5,795 crore.
C. The scheme is a Central Sector Scheme fully funded by • PM SVANiDHI is a special micro-credit facility planto
Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. provide affordable loan of up to Rs. 10,000 to more than 50
D. Small Industries Development Bankof India is the lakh street vendors.
technical partner for implementation of this scheme. • The scheme is a Central Sector Schemee. fully funded by
E. All of the above are correct Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
Answer: E • The Scheme is available to all street vendors engaged in
• Shri Hardeep S. Puri, Minister for Housing and Urban vending in urban areas as on or before March 24, 2020.
Affairs and Petroleum and Natural Gas complimented the • It was announced aims to enable street vendors to
Prime Minster Street Vendor’s AtmaNirbhar Nidhi (PM resume their livelihoods,which have been hit hard due to
SVANidhi) Scheme on its successful completion of 3 the national lockdown.
momentous years. • Implementing agency: Small Industries Development
• PM SVANidhi Scheme launched on 01 June, 2020, Bankof India is the technical partner for implementation of
aiming to restore Swarozgar, Svavlamban, Swabhimaan this scheme. It manages the credit guarantee to the
(Self Employment, Self-Sustenance, and Self-Confidence) lending institutions through Credit Guarantee Fund Trust
within street vendors has become one of the fastest for Micro and Small Enterprises.
• The Ministry has initiated ‘SVANidhi se Samriddhi’ in • UN report said, Global displacement levels reached a
125 Urban Local Bodies, selected for saturation in the first record 110 million.
phase. In Phase 1, approximately 35 Lakh Street vendors • The number of people forcibly displaced around the
and their families were covered. world has reached a record 110 million people, with
millions more fleeing their homes due to conflicts in
469. In June as per report _____________has announced to Ukraine and Sudan.
rejoin United Nations Educational Scientific and Cultural • UNHCR said in a report that 108.4 million people were
Organisation (UNESCO). displaced in the last year. The number was 19.1 million up
A. Saudi Arabia from 2021, making it to be the biggest increase since the
B. Russia records began in 1975
C. United States • Sudan's eight-week-old conflict has caused the number
D. Japan to rise to 110 million.
E. Iran • Around 467,000 people have fled Sudan since fighting
Answer: C broke out in mid-April, while more than 1.4 million have
• On 12 June, the United States announced to rejoin become internally displaced.
UNESCO and will pay more than $600 million back dues. • The report said that more than one in every 74 people is
• US has taken this decision after it felt that China is now displaced.
filling the gap left by the U.S. in UNESCO policy-making. • Nearly half of the total refugees and people in need of
• The U.S. government would pay its dues and $10 million international protection came from just three countries:
in bonus contributions this year. Syria, Ukraine and Afghanistan.
• This decision is a big financial boost for UNESCO. The US • Last year, around 339,000 refugees returned to 38
was the biggest funder of UNESCO. countries, while 5.7 million internally displaced people
• In 2017, the US left UNESCO citing anti-Israel bias and returned home.
management problems.
• In recent years, UNESCO has worked to address the 471. In June 2023, five new countries have been elected as
reasons the U.S. left and it has brought budget reforms. non-permanent members of the UN Security Council.
• In the budget, the Biden administration has already Which of the following is not among them?
requested $150 million to pay dues and arrears of UNESCO. A. Algeria
• Previously, the US pulled out of itself from UNESCO B. South Korea
under the Reagan administration in 1984. Later, the US C. Slovenia
rejoined UNESCO in 2003. D. Thailand
• UNESCO was founded in 1945. It has 193 member E. Guyana
states and 12 associate members. Its headquarters is Answer: D
located in Paris, France. • The UNGA elected five countries as non-permanent
• Audrey Azoulay is the Director-General of UNESCO. members to the United Nations Security Council (UNSC) for
two years.
470. According to UN report, Global displacement levels • These countries include Algeria, Guyana, Sierra Leone,
reached a record ______ due to conflicts in Ukraine and Slovenia and South Korea. Their term will begin on 1
Sudan. January 2024.
A. 88 million • The Security Council is responsible for the maintenance
B. 115 million of international peace and security.
C. 95 million • The 10 non-permanent members are elected by the
D. 110 million General Assembly.
E. 125 million • Algeria, Guyana, Sierra Leone and the Republic of Korea
have been elected unopposed.
Answer: D • Slovenia defeated Belarus for the Eastern Europe seat.
• The voting was conducted by secret ballot. A candidate A. 2024

must win a two-thirds majority to be elected. B. 2025
• Britain, China, France, Russia and the United States are C. 2026
five permanent members of the UNGA. They enjoy the D. 2027
right to veto on any resolution or decision. E. 2028
Answer: B
472. According to the International Labour Organisation • President Joe Biden signed a bill that will increase the
(ILO) 11th edition of ILO Monitor Global unemployment is debt ceiling of US.
likely to fall below the pre-pandemic levels to • The new law will suspend the debt limit until 2025 after
___________in 2023. the next presidential election and restricts government
A. 5.3% spending.
B. 2.5 % • The bill has been passed by the US Senate by a vote of
C. 4.5% 63 against 36.
D. 6.2% • The US Department of Revenue had warned that if this
E. 7.3% bill is not passed in time, the country will face a cash
Answer: A crunch to pay its bills.
• International Labour Organisation (ILO) released 11th • US debt is currently around $31.4 trillion. The raised
edition of ILO Monitor on the World of Work. debt limit will ensure that the government can borrow to
• As per the report, Global unemployment is likely to fall pay debts already incurred.
below the pre-pandemic levels to 5.3% or 191 million in • Joe Biden said we are cutting spending and reducing the
2023. deficit at the same time.
• The ILO report urged for global financial support for job • After this, the danger of the federal government being a
creation and social protection at this time. defaulter has been averted.
• The report also recommended policies such as wider
social security to ensure recovery and reconstruction. 474. According to the provisional national income data
• The report stressed on the critical importance of released by the National Statistical Office (NSO), India’s
creating fiscal space for social investments in low-income gross domestic product (GDP) growth accelerated to
countries. __________% in the January to March 2023 quarter.
• In 2023, low-income countries in the Arab and African A. 7.1 %
regions will not recover to the pre-Covid levels of B. 6.1 %
unemployment. C. 6.8 %
• In North Africa, the unemployment rate will remain at D. 7.9 %
11.2 per cent in 2023. The unemployment rate will remain E. 5.6 %
at 6.3 per cent for Sub-Saharan Africa and 9.3 per cent for Answer: B
the Arab states. • According to the provisional national income data
• Unemployment in Central and Western Asia will remain released by the National Statistical Office (NSO), India’s
at 7.8 per cent in 2023 as compared to 9.2 per cent in 2019. gross domestic product (GDP) growth accelerated to 6.1%
• Low-income countries are facing high levels of debt and in the January to March 2023 quarter.
rising costs of borrowing. It has obstructed their effort of • This has lifted the economy’s growth rate in 2022-23 to
promoting decent and productive employment. 7.2% from the 7% estimated earlier.
• Investment in people through jobs and social protection • The unexpected increase in GDP growth is due to better-
will help in reducing the gap between rich and poor than-expected performance in the last quarter of the fiscal.
nations and people. Services, exports, and agriculture sectors led the growth.
• Nominal GDP or GDP at Current Prices in the year 2022-
473. In June as per report President Joe Biden signed a bill 23 is estimated to attain a level of ₹272.41 lakh crore, as
that will increase the debt ceiling of US. against ₹234.71 lakh crore in 2021-22, showing a growth
The new law will suspend the debt limit until __________. rate of 16.1 percent.
• Real GDP or GDP at Constant (2011-12) Prices in the plan at the village-level collection centre and through
year 2022-23 is estimated to attain a level of ₹160.06 lakh Stellapps’ smartFarms app.
crore. • Rahul Mallick, CEO of mooPay.
• The growth in real GDP during 2022-23 is estimated at
7.2 per cent. 476. In May as per report ___________ partners with GeM
• Growth in the services sector was led by the portal to offer taxi services to govt offices, agencies, PSUs
construction, and trade, hotels, transport sectors. at fixed price.
• Exports of goods and services accounted for 23.5% of A. Ola
GDP, the highest since 2014-15. B. Uber
• GVA from the employment-intensive construction sector C. Rapido
grew 10% in 2022-23, from 14.8% in 2021-22. D. Go Taxi
• Inflation has shown a downward trend and CPI inflation E. Biko
will return to the Reserve Bank of India’s target of around Answer: B
4% in 2023-24. • Soon personnel from the government ministries,
departments, agencies and public sector units will be able
475. In May as per report ___________in partnership with to book taxis for official purposes from cab aggregator
IBISA Network, HDFC ERGO and Gramcover, has launched a Uber as the company has partnered with public
unique heat Index-based insurance plan for farmers. procurement portal GeM to provide the service.
A. Life Finance • It will be a kind of corporate service. At present, we
B. mooPay have started the service on a pilot basis and gradually it
C. Agri Venture will be available for all the government ministers,
D. Sara Finance departments, agencies and public sector units (PSUs).
E. Avanti Finance • The company would provide the service at a fixed price
Answer: B with zero cancellation charges and no surge pricing.
• Dairy technology provider Stellapps’ fintech arm • The company has registered at the portal of
mooPay, in partnership with IBISA Network, HDFC ERGO government e-marketplace (GeM), which was launched in
and Gramcover, has launched a unique heat Index-based 2016 by the commerce ministry for buying goods and
insurance plan for farmers. services by central ministries and departments with a view
• The cover provides financial compensation to farmers of to bringing transparency in government procurement.
mooMark, the dairy supply chain arm of Stellapps, to • Cab and taxi services are the second highest category of
offset income loss due to a fall in milk productivity during services at the GeM portal, which are in demand by the
heat waves in summer. government department and ministries.
• The cover guarantees insurance benefits for farmers if, • Among central government ministries, the power
over 60 days starting from May 1, temperatures exceed the ministry was the top buyer in 2022-23 from the platform.
specified limits for a predetermined number of days, with The ministry procured goods and services worth INR
region-specific parameters. 30,572.9 crore. It was followed by the defence ministry
• The claim settlement process is simple and hassle-free. (INR 28,741.2 crore), Ministry of Petroleum and Natural
The insurer takes the data of temperature trends for the Gas (INR 28,157.2 crore), steel ministry (INR 12,527.3
insured period from a pre-agreed public database and crore), and Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (INR
compensates the claimant as per the prescribed benefits 7,158.3 crore).
slab. Each insured cattle is eligible for a cover of a • South Korea's KONEPS is the largest such platform in
maximum of ₹2,000. Currently, the insurance cover extends the world. Currently, GeM stands at the third position after
to one cattle per household. Singapore's GeBIZ.
• In the first phase, mooMark is offering this insurance as
a part of its loyalty programme. This policy covers around 477. Recently Eight core industries output reached to a six-
7,000 farmers, in 5 districts, across 4 States for a total sum month low of ______ in April 2023.
assured of over ₹1.3 crore. Farmers are informed of this A. 3.5%
B. 3.6% • Similarly, FDI in automobile industry, construction
C. 7.6% (infrastructure) activities and metallurgical industries has
D. 7.7% also declined.
E. 8.9% • Sectors like services, trading, telecommunications,
Answer: A pharma and chemicals have recorded growth in FDI.
• Eight core industries output reached to a six-month low • Maharashtra received the highest FDI inflows of $14.8
of 3.5% in April 2023. billion during FY23.
• This was lower than the 9.5% growth recorded in April • FDI inflows in Karnataka declined to $10.42 billion in
2022 and 3.6% growth seen in March 2023. FY23 as against $22 billion in FY22. FDI in Gujarat and
• The overall core industries output for 2022-23 has been Rajasthan has increased.
revised from 7.6% earlier to 7.7% now.
• Four out of eight sectors have shown growth in April 479. According to the recent data Renewable energy will
2023. These sectors are coal, fertilisers, cement and steel. account for _____ of total energy generation in India in
• Four sectors have shown contraction. These are crude FY27.
oil, refinery products, natural gas and electricity. A. 27%
B. 30%
478. According to the Department for Promotion of C. 35%
Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) data_____________ D. 44%
was the top investor with $17.2 billion in FDI during FY23. E. 49%
A. Mauritius Answer: C
B. Singapore • Renewable energy will account for 35% of total energy
C. US generation in India in FY27.
D. UAE • Renewable energy sources are predicted to produce 710
E. France billion units in 2026-27.
Answer: B • Renewable energy is predicted to account for more than
• FDI equity inflows declined by 22% to $46 billion in one-third of total energy generation in the country by
FY23. Total FDI Inflows have fallen by 16% to $70.97 billion 2026-27, and around 44% by 2031-32.
in FY23. • Renewable energy sources are predicted to generate
• During March 2023 quarter, the overseas inflows have 710 billion units of electricity. It will account for 35% of
fallen by 40.55% to $9.28 billion. total energy generation in 2026-27.
• According to the Department for Promotion of Industry • This is predicted to rise to 44%, or 1,172 billion units, by
and Internal Trade (DPIIT) data, the decline in FDI into 2031-32.
India is brought by lower inflows in computer hardware • Solar energy is predicted to be the most significant
and software, and automobile industry. contributor, followed by hydro and wind energy.
• The FDI inflows were recorded at $58.77 billion during • Renewable energy generation stood at 203.55 billion
FY22. units in FY23. It increased from 170.91 billion units in FY22.
• Total FDI inflows include equity inflows, re-invested • It accounted for 12.53% percent of total energy
earnings and other capital. generated (1,624.47 billion units) in India.
• As per the data, Singapore was the top investor with • During the period, solar energy accounted for 6.28% of
$17.2 billion in FDI during FY23. total generation, while wind energy accounted for 4.42%.
• Singapore was followed by Mauritius ($6.13 billion), the • Rajasthan led the states in renewable energy
US ($6 billion), and the UAE ($3.35 billion). generation, with 41 billion units generated.
• The sector that attracted the highest inflows of $9.4 • Rajasthan was followed by Gujarat and Karnataka,
billion during the FY23 are computer software and each with 30 billion units.
hardware. • The overall renewable energy generation in Tamil Nadu
• However, FDI inflows to these sectors have declined as was 28 billion units.
compared to $14.5 billion in FY22.
• In FY23, Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra produced 16 billion units), followed by the northern region and western
billion and 17 billion units, respectively. Overall, the region.
southern region generated the most renewable energy (83
billion units), followed by the northern region and western 481. Recently as per RBI Consumer Confidence survey
region. Current Situation Index improved by 1.5 points from the
previous survey round to ____________.
480. Recently as per report Renewable energy sources are A. 77.9
predicted to produce _________ billion units in 2026-27. As B. 82.1
of June __________led the states in renewable energy C. 88.5
generation, with 41 billion units generated. D. 93.7
A. 680 billion units, Karnataka E. 116.3
B. 710 billion units, Rajasthan Answer: C
C. 580 billion units, Tamil Nadu • RBI surveys show easing of inflation perception and rise
D. 560 billion units, Gujarat in confidence among consumers.
E. 880 billion units, Odisha • The Consumer Confidence survey showed improvement
Answer: B in both the Future Expectations Index (FEI) and the Current
• More than one-third of total energy is likely to be Situation Index (CSI) from previous round.
produced from renewable sources by 2026-27. • They improved on the back of improved assessment for
• Renewable energy sources are predicted to produce 710 all the survey parameters, except essential spending.
billion units in 2026-27. • The Current Situation Index improved by 1.5 points from
• Renewable energy is predicted to account for more than the previous survey round to 88.5.
one-third of total energy generation in the country by • The Future Expectations Index improved marginally by
2026-27. It will be around 44% by 2031-32. 0.80 points to 116.3 in the latest survey round.
• Renewable energy sources are predicted to generate • Households’ Inflation Expectations Survey showed
710 billion units of electricity. It will account for 35% of easing of the median inflation perception by 10 bps to
total energy generation in 2026-27. 8.8%.
• This is predicted to rise to 44%, or 1,172 billion units, by • Among different respondent categories, inflation
2031-32. expectations of retired persons were the highest.
• Solar energy will be the most significant contributor, • Real gross fixed capital formation (GFCF) is likely to
followed by hydro and wind energy. increase to from 6.8% in FY24 to 7.4% in FY25.
• Renewable energy generation stood at 203.55 billion • Merchandise exports are likely to decrease 2.9% and
units in FY23. It increased from 170.91 billion units in FY22. imports by 4%, in US dollar terms, during FY24.
• It accounted for 12.53% percent of total energy • Exports are expected to increase 8.3% and imports 7.8%
generated (1,624.47 billion units) in India. in FY25, per the results of the 82nd Survey of Professional
• During the period, solar energy contribution was 6.28% Forecasters on Macroeconomic Indicators.
in total generation, while wind energy accounted for • Current account deficit (CAD) is projected at 1.5% of
4.42%. GDP in FY24 and 1.6% in FY25.
• Rajasthan led the states in renewable energy
generation, with 41 billion units generated. 482. In June as per report Global Alliance for Mass
• Rajasthan was followed by Gujarat and Karnataka, Entrepreneurship (GAME) has peartnered with
each with 30 billion units. ____________ to launch the NBFC Growth Acceleration
• The overall renewable energy generation in Tamil Nadu Program (NGAP).
was 28 billion units. A. SEBI
• In FY23, Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra produced 16 B. SIDBI
billion and 17 billion units, respectively. Overall, the C. RBI
southern region generated the most renewable energy (83 D. NABARD
E. ICAR
Answer: B • The committee has suggested that the Charter of

• Global Alliance for Mass Entrepreneurship (GAME) and Customer Rights should be made enforceable. Other
SIDBI have partnered to launch the NBFC Growth proposals of the committee are:
Acceleration Program (NGAP). • Consolidating customer service regulations for all
• The aim of the programme is to handhold smaller regulated entities
NBFCs that have at least 60% of their exposure to MSMEs. • Setting up a common complaint portal
• NGAP will build capacity of at least 100 smaller NBFCs • Strengthening banks’ grievance redressal mechanisms
with assets under management ranging from Rs 75 crore • Developing and publishing a ‘Customer Service and
to Rs 250 crore and mainly lending to micro and small Protection Index’
businesses in tier two and tier three cities. • Conducting periodic and regular thematic studies across
• NGAP will also provide NBFCs technology support to entities
help them develop their technology platform. • Keeping UPI transactions outside the stipulated limits
• The responsibility for executing the program lies with on debit savings account transactions
GAME. • Encouraging the use of digi-lockers
• GAME will carry out a pilot with 20 NBFCs to test and • Providing a dedicated telephone helpline number for
outline NGAP’s strategy before expanding it to other senior citizens and differently-abled customers
financial service players. • Standardisation of the ATM interface
• NGAP is likely to be rolled out in August 2023. • The committee said that RBI may also consider asking
• Global Alliance for Mass Entrepreneurship (GAME) is a the Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) to establish a fund.
mass entrepreneurship enablement platform. • This fund should be used to directly compensate banks’
• Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) is internal ombudsmen to avoid conflicts of interest.
regulated and supervised by the Reserve Bank of India. • RBI’s Committee for Review of Customer Service
• It was established in 1990. It is headquartered in Standards:
Lucknow, UP. • The formation of the committee was announced in April
• Sivasubramanian Ramann is Chairman and Managing 2022. It was set up in May 2022.
Director of SIDBI. • It was set up under the chairmanship of former RBI
deputy governor BP Kanungo.
483. In June as per report RBI’s Committee for Review of • It was set up to evaluate and review the quality of
Customer Service Standards has released its report. Who customer service and to suggest measures to improve the
was the head of the Committee? quality of customer service. It was also to examine
A. Shaktikant Das evolving needs and identify best practices.
B. Raghuram Rajan
C. BP Kanungo 484. Which of the following banks has entered into
D. Kris Gopalkrishnan partnership with credit card platform, Kiwi to launch the
E. Rajnish Kumar Credit on UPI app?
Answer: C A. HDFC Bank
• RBI’s Committee for Review of Customer Service B. Axis Bank
Standards has released its report. C. ICICI Bank
• The committee has proposed that Deposit Insurance D. Union Bank of India
and Credit Guarantee (DICGC) Scheme should be extended E. Indian Bank
to PPIs (prepaid payment instruments). Answer: B
• It has also proposed a centralised database of KYC • Axis Bank and credit card platform, Kiwi has entered
documents and a common portal for lodging and tracking into partnership.
complaints. • They have entered into partnership to launch the Credit
• The committee said RBI may examine whether DICGC on UPI app.
cover can be extended to bank PPIs and later to non-bank
PPIs.
• The aim of the app is to offer a one-stop solution for • It is open to all bank account holders in the age group of
RuPay credit card users. 18 to 40 years.
• Kiwi Credit Card UPI app users will get a digital RuPay
credit card instantly. 486. In June as per report India has asked for exemption for
• They can link the UPI and Rupay Card in the app to help MSMEs from Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism
them avail the Credit on UPI offers and cashback. (CBAM) of the European Union (EU). The transitional phase
• Axis Bank is a private bank. It is headquartered in for CBAM will start from __________________.
Mumbai, Maharashtra. A. 01 July 2023
• It was founded in 1993. Amitabh Chaudhry is its MD & B. 01 August 2023
CEO. C. 01 September 2023
D. 01 October 2023
485. In June as per report _____________has won the E. 01 November 2023
national award for Atal Pension Yojana (APY) enrolment. Answer: D
A. Chaitanya Godavari Gramin Bank • India has asked for exemption for MSMEs from Carbon
B. Andhra Pragathi Grameena Vikas Bank Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) of the European
C. Karnataka Vikas Grameena Bank Union (EU).
D. Chhattisgarh Rajya Gramin Bank • Under CBAM, import taxes will be imposed on certain
E. Maharashtra Gramin Bank identified carbon-intensive items like steel and aluminium
Answer: C when they will be imported to the bloc (EU).
• Karnataka Vikas Grameena Bank has won the national • Import levies will be applicable from 2026. In the
award for Atal Pension Yojana (APY) enrolment. starting, they will apply on cement, iron and steel,
• The bank has received the award from Pension Fund aluminium, fertilizers, electricity and hydrogen.
Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) for • The transitional phase for CBAM will start from 01
significant enrolment under APY. October 2023 and run until the end of 2025.
• Chairman of KVGB received the award from Secretary, • From 1 October, exporters of seven carbon-intensive
Department of Financial Services, Government of India and sectors to the European Union will report on the emissions
Deepak Mohanty, Chairman of PFRDA. embedded in the items subject to the mechanism (CBAM).
• Shreekant M Bhandiwad is the Chairman of Karnataka • During the CBAM’s transitional phase, traders will only
Vikas Grameena Bank (KVGB). report the greenhouse gas emissions embedded in their
• Under APY, KVGB enrolled 3,42,852 (cumulative) imports subject to the mechanism without paying any
accounts. financial adjustment.
• 76,569 accounts were enrolled by the bank during 2022-
23 against the target of 50,320. It achieved the target 487. In June as per report National Bank for Financing
ahead of the schedule. Infrastructure and Development (NaBFID) has raised
• PFRDA’s target was average 80 accounts per branch. __________ via maiden issuance of listed bonds of 10-year
The bank has achieved average 121 accounts per branch. duration.
• APY provides a safety net for informal sector workers A. ₹100 crore
for getting pre-defined pension after 60 years. B. ₹5,00 crore
• Karnataka Vikas Grameena Bank is an Indian Regional C. ₹1,000 crore
D. ₹5,000 crore
Rural Bank sponsored by Canara Bank. It is headquartered
in Dharwad, Karnataka. E. ₹10,000 crore
• Atal Pension Yojana: The subscribers of the scheme of Answer: E
• NaBFID has raised ₹10,000 crore.
this scheme will receive a minimum monthly pension
ranging from one thousand to five thousand after 60 years • It has raised ₹10,000 crore via maiden issuance of listed
bonds of 10-year duration at a coupon rate of 7.43%.
of age.
• The pension will depend on the contributions made by • NaBFID’s infrastructure bonds (unsecured non-
convertible debt securities) were oversubscribed.
the subscriber.
• This was the largest debt issuance by an All India Answer: A

Financial Institution (AIFI). • Millennia Credit Card has been introduced by HDFC
• NaBFID has received in-principle listing approvals from Bank.
BSE and NSE. • The card has contactless technology. This allows
• National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and customers to ‘Tap and Pay’ via POS machine.
Development (NaBFID) was established in 2021. It was set • The card also provides cashback and reward points on
up by an Act of the Parliament. Amazon, Flipkart, and other e-commerce platforms.
• It was set up to address the gaps in long-term non- • It also offers 1% cashback on offline purchases and
recourse finance for infrastructure development. smart EMI.
• Central Government holds entire shareholding of the • People can use HDFC Millennia Credit card for Amazon,
NaBFID. It has invested equity of ₹20,000 crore and Flipkart, BookMyShow, Cult.fit, and Myntra to earn 5%
provided a grant of ₹5,000 crore. cashback points.
• It offers a maximum reward of ₹1000 in every billing.
488. In June as per report ___________ has launched • The card is available to both self-employed and salaried
“ActivMoney” feature for savings account holders. persons. For this card, minimum age limit is fixed at 21 and
A. Union Bank of India maximum age is fixed at 40.
B. Bandhan Bank • People who earn ₹35,000 gross salary are eligible and
C. Kotak Mahindra Bank self-employed people with an annual income of ₹6 lakh or
D. State Bank of India above are eligible.
E. Punjab National Bank • HDFC Bank is India's largest private sector bank. It is
Answer: C India’s second largest lender after the State Bank of India.
• “ActivMoney” feature has been launched by Kotak • It is headquartered in Mumbai. It was founded in 1994.
Mahindra Bank for savings account holders. The CEO of HDFC Bank is Sashidhar Jagdishan.
• Under this, customers will get Fixed Deposit (FD) like
interest up to 7% on their savings account. 490. What is the target for Atal Pension Yojana (APY)
• They will be able to access their funds anytime without enrolments fixed by PFRDA for 2023-24?
any penalty on foreclosure. A. 1.13 crore
• Through ActivMoney, excess funds in the account that B. 1.34 crore
exceed a certain level are automatically transferred into an C. 1.50 crore
FD, allowing consumers to receive a higher interest rate on D. 1.77 crore
their savings. E. 1.99 crore
• Default minimum threshold is ₹25,000 for Answer: B
Savings/Salary/811 accounts and ₹50,000 for current • For 2023-24, PFRDA has decided a target of 1.34 crore
accounts. enrolments for Atal Pension Yojana (APY).
• Kotak Mahindra Bank was India’s 3rd largest private • In 2022-23, the enrolment of 1.2 crore was achieved.
sector bank in terms of assets and by market capitalisation This was against the target of 1.13 crore fixed for fiscal
as of November 2021. 2022-23.
• It was founded in 2003. It is headquartered in Mumbai. • Pension Fund Regulatory Development Authority
Uday Kotak is its MD & CEO. (PFRDA) has asked the banks to promote APY by activating
their all branches in urban areas.
489. In June as per report __________ has launched • Banks have been convinced to go for e-APY. E-APY
Millennia Credit Card to ‘Tap and Pay’ via POS machine. provides for digital onboarding to the scheme.
A. HDFC Bank • As of 01 June 2023, the number of subscribers to APY is
B. ICICI Bank 5.4 crore.
C. Axis Bank • APY is a pension scheme for informal sector and for
D. IDBI Bank people in 18-41 years age bracket.
E. Citi Bank
• Under this scheme, subscriber would get a lifelong second bi-monthly Monetary Policy Committee for this
minimum guaranteed pension of ₹1,000 to ₹5,000 per fiscal (2023-24). Which of the following statement is
month from the age of 60 years. The pension would incorrect?
depend on contributions of subscriber. A. RBI Monetary Policy Committee has decided to keep the
policy repo rate unchanged at 6.50 per cent.
491. RBI has recently allowed the insurance facility for B. The Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) rate will remain at
TReDS transactions. With this, insurance players will 6.25%.
become __________ participants on TReDS platforms. C. Marginal standing facility and the bank rates stand at
A. Third 6.75%.
B. Fourth D. RBI MPC has kept the GDP growth projection at 6.5
C. Fifth percent for 2023-24.
D. Sixth E. All of the above are correct
E. Seventh Answer: E
Answer: B • RBI Monetary Policy Committee has decided to keep
• RBI has permitted all factors to take part as financiers the policy repo rate unchanged at 6.50 per cent.
on TReDS platforms. • The Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) rate will remain at
• RBI has done this to increase the availability of 6.25% and the marginal standing facility and the bank
financiers on TReDS (Trade Receivables Discounting rates stand at 6.75%.
System). • According to RBI Governor Shaktikanta Das, the
• All entities that are allowed to undertake factoring central bank has kept stability as a priority. The
business under the Factoring Regulation Act, 2011 (FRA) fundamentals of the domestic economy are improving.
have now been permitted to take part as financiers on • RBI has maintained pause for second time in a row. It
TReDS platforms. has also kept repo rate unchanged in the previous
• TReDS transactions come under the ambit of factoring monetary policy review of April 2023.
business. • RBI Governor Shaktikanta Das said Consumer Price
• Presently only banks, NBFC-Factors and Other financial Inflation has moved to tolerance band during March-April
institutions can be financiers. 2023.
• The insurance facility for TReDS transactions has also • He said that the CPI headline inflation will remain at
been allowed by RBI to help financiers to hedge default 5.1% for 2023-24.
risk. • However, Headline Inflation is above the target of 4
• Now insurance players will become the fourth per cent and is expected to remain so during 2023-24.
participants on TReDS platforms, along with MSME sellers, • RBI MPC has kept the GDP growth projection at 6.5
buyers and financiers. percent for 2023-24. GDP growth is expected to be 8% in
• As of now, three entities operate the three TReDS Q1FY 24, 6.5% in Q2 FY24, 6% in Q3FY24, and 5.7% in Q4
platforms in the country. C2FO Factoring Solutions has FY24.
been given in-principle authorisation. • Now, banks can issue RuPay pre-paid Forex cards. It
• The three entities are A.TREDS (Invoicemart), will expand the scope of an e-rupee voucher.
Receivables Exchange of India (RXIL) and Mynd Solutions • According to RBI, around 50 per cent of the Rs 2000
(M1 exchange). denomination notes have been deposited or exchanged by
• Trade Receivables and Discounting System (TReDS) is an citizens.
electronic bill discounting platform regulated by RBI. It is • There were around total of 3.62 lakh crore 2 thousand
endorsed by the central government. notes in circulation. Out of which 1.8 lakh crore have been
• It is an electronic platform to help in deposited or exchanged by the customers.
financing/discounting of trade receivables of MSMEs • RBI governor said that under the pilot project Central
through multiple financiers. Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) testing will be done with 1
million customers by the end of June.
492. Consider the following statement regarding RBI
• RBI permitted non-bank Prepaid Payment Instrument forecast for the year 2023 is slightly better than the
(PPI) issuers to issue e-RUPI vouchers. previous estimate in January.
• Next meeting of MPC is scheduled for August 8-10, • The World Bank had said in January that global growth
2023. would be only 1.7% this year.
• Apart from this, due to Russia's attack on Ukraine,
493. Recently as per report SCORES platform of SEBI there is also a crisis of energy and food supply. The effects
disposed of 2,457 complaints in May against companies of the COVID-19 pandemic are also still present.
and market intermediaries. This platform was launched in • Despite this, the World Bank feels that in the year
___________. 2024, the global economy will be able to achieve a growth
A. June 2010 rate of 2.4%.
B. June 2011 • The World Bank has projected the Indian economy to
C. June 2012 grow at 6.3% this year, which is the highest among major
D. June 2013 countries.
E. June 2014 • India's growth rate in the year 2022 was 7.2%.
Answer: B • The World Bank has predicted a growth rate of 1.1% in
• SCORES platform of SEBI disposed of 2,457 complaints the year 2023 for the world's largest economy America.
in May against companies and market intermediaries.
• According to the data released by SEBI, the average 495. Recently Centre has put a ban on ____________ fixed-
resolution time for a complaint was 31 days. dose combinations (FDCs) medicines used to treat common
• In a notice, SEBI mentioned 12 entities. Complaints ailments.
have been pending against these entities for over three A. 14
months on SCORES as of May 2023. B. 12
• SCORES is a grievance redressal system. It was C. 13
launched in June 2011. D. 15
• It facilitates investors to lodge a complaint online with E. 18
SEBI and view status of the complaint. Answer: A
• Centre has put a ban on 14 fixed-dose combinations
494. In June as per report World Bank projected that the (FDCs) medicines used to treat common ailments.
international economy will grow by only __________ in • These medicines were found to lack therapeutic
2023, after expanding by 3.1% in 2022. relevance.
A. 5.2 % • The banned medicines are used for cough, fever and
B. 2.1 % infections. They are sold over the counter.
C. 3.6% • An expert committee was formed to examine the
D. 4.2% efficacy of these FDCs. The ban follows the
E. 7.2 % recommendations of this committee.
Answer: B • The banned FDCs come under 344 fixed-dose
• On 6 June, the World Bank (WB) stated that the global combinations, which were prohibited for sale by the Union
economy is in a precarious state and is heading towards a Health Ministry in 2016.
slowdown. • Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO)
• It is because sharp interest-rate increases has hit defines FDCs as products containing one or more active
activity and stirred the vulnerabilities in lower-income ingredients used for a particular indication(s).
countries. • Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO)
• In its latest outlook, the World Bank projects that the is headquartered in New Delhi. It has six zonal offices.
international economy will grow by only 2.1% in 2023,
after expanding by 3.1% in 2022. 496. In June as per report a massive railway accident
• According to the World Bank's 'Global Economic occurred in Balasore. Balasore is located in which state?
Prospects' report released on 6 June, the new growth A. West Bengal
B. Odisha • The election was held during the 19th session of the
C. Karnataka World Meteorological Congress organised in Geneva,
D. Tamil Nadu Switzerland from 22nd May to 2nd June.
E. Telangana • Dr Abdulla Al Mandous will succeed Prof Gerhard
Answer: B Adrian of the German Meteorological Service.
• On 2nd June 2023, 10-12 coaches of the Chennai-bound • Prof Gerhard Adrian served as WMO President since
Coromandel Express derailed and fell on an adjacent track June 2019.
at about 7 pm. • UAE will chair WMO’s upcoming 77th Executive Council
• The Bengaluru-Howrah Superfast Express coming on Session (EC-77) in Geneva from 5th to 6th June.
the adjacent track collided with Coromandel Express. A • Celeste Saulo of Argentina has become first woman
goods train was also involved in this massive accident. leader of WMO. She has been appointed as the first female
• More than 280 people have died and 900 were injured Secretary-General of the WMO.
in a massive train accident. • World Meteorological Organization (WMO) is a
• A massive rescue operation is underway at the specialized agency of United Nations. It is headquartered
accident site in Bahanaga Bazar near Balasore. in Geneva, Switzerland.
• The injured passengers are being treated at Balasore • It was formed in 1950. It is made up of 193 countries
Medical College and Hospital and other hospitals in nearby and territories.
areas.
• Railway Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw ordered a high- 498. In June as per report Edgars Rinkevics has been
level probe into the incident. elected as new president of _____________.
• The Indian Air Force (IAF) has also deployed Mi-17 A. Paraguy
helicopters for the evacuation of victims. B. Urugay
• India has one of the largest train networks in the C. Peru
world. India's worst train disaster occurred in 1981 in D. Estonia
Bihar. E. Latvia
Answer: E
497. In June as per report Dr Abdulla Al Mandous has been • Edgars Rinkevics has been elected as new president of
elected as the new President of the ___________. Latvia.
A. World Meteorological Organization (WMO) • Edgars Rinkevics will become the first openly gay
B. World Trade Organization (WTO) president in the Baltic nation.
C. International Monetary Fund (IMF) • Edgars Rinkevics will represent the European Union
D. Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries and NATO member nations at NATO’s upcoming summit,
(OPEC) which will be hosted by Lithuania in Vilnius on 11-12 July
E. United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural 2023.
Organization (UNESCO) • Edgars Rinkevics will serve a four-year term. Rinkevics
Answer: A is likely to be sworn in on July 8.
• UAE has won the Presidency of the World • Rinkevics received 52 votes from the 100-seat Saeima
Meteorological Organization. legislature. The Saeima is the Parliament of the Republic of
• A meteorologist of United Arab Emirates (UAE), Dr Latvia.
Abdulla Al Mandous, has been elected as the new • The incumbent President Egils Levits assumed office in
President of the World Meteorological Organization 2019.
(WMO). • It is a country in Northern Europe's Baltic region. Its
• Dr Abdulla Al Mandous has been elected for a four- currency is Euro. Its capital is Riga. Arturs Krisjanis Karins is
year term from 2023 to 2027. current Prime Minister.
• Dr Abdulla Al Mandous received 95 votes out of the
representatives from 193 member states and territories of 499. In June as per report ___________state government
WMO. launched 'Arunpol App'.
A. Andhra Pradesh • Karnataka Bank is a Scheduled Commercial Bank
B. Odisha based in Mangaluru, Karnataka.
C. Arunachal Pradesh • It is a private sector bank. It was founded in 1924. Its
D. Manipur tagline is “Your Family Bank Across India”.
E. Nagaland
Answer: C 501. In June as per report ________________has been
• ‘Arunpol App' of Arunachal Pradesh Police has been announced as the chair-elect of the Board of Governors of
launched by CM Pema Khandu. the International Air Transport Association (IATA).
• He also flagged off an APP awareness generation A. Pieter Elbers
vehicle from the Civil Secretariat, Itanagar. B. Alan King
• Through the Arunpol app, common people can lodge C. Marjan Rintel
complaints without coming to the police station. D. Camiel Eurlings
• People can also apply for other clearances from the E. Benjamin Smith
police through this app. Answer: A
• APP awareness generation vehicles will go to various • On June 11, Pieter Elbers, the CEO of IndiGo, has been
places and will try to know the issues of people. announced as the chair-elect of the Board of Governors of
• Chief Minister Pema Khandu also launched E-Vigilance the International Air Transport Association (IATA).
app for state government employees. • He will replace the current chairman of Yvonne Manzi
• This app will benefit state government employees by Makolo with effect from June 2024.
ensuring timely vigilance clearance. • Elbers will play a key role in further shaping the global
• The DARPG and Arunachal Pradesh government has aviation landscape, advocating for the interests of the
also released the first District Good Governance Index of industry and driving innovation and sustainability
Arunachal Pradesh on 8th June. initiatives.
• The index is based on the governance level in all 25 • Under his guideline, IndiGo has consistently
districts of Arunachal Pradesh. It is based on 136 data demonstrated its commitment to cost-effective fares, on-
points under 65 indicators spread across 8 sectors. time performances and courteous and hassle-free services
The rankings in the Index will bring healthy competition across its peerless network.
amongst districts to provide citizen-centric administration • International Air Transport Association (IATA) is a
and good governance. trade association of the world’s airlines.
• It is headquartered in Montreal, Canada. It was
500. In June as per report Srikrishnan Harihara Sarma has founded in 1945.
taken charge as MD and CEO of ___________________.
A. Union Bank of India 502. In June as per report __________ has been appointed
B. South India Bank as the new Director General of the Geological Survey of
C. Bandhan Bank India (GSI).
D. Karnataka Bank A. Janardan Prasad
E. Canara Bank B. V. Vidyavathi
Answer: D C. P. K. Srivastava
• Srikrishnan Harihara Sarma has taken charge as MD D. Sheel Vardhan Singh
and CEO of Karnataka Bank on June 9, 2023. E. Ravi Prakash
• Srikrishnan Harihara Sarma has been appointed for a Answer: A
period of three years. • Janardan Prasad has been appointed as the new
• On 26 May, the board of directors of the bank has Director General of the Geological Survey of India (GSI).
appointed him as an additional director to take up the role • He has taken charge on 1 June in the place of Dr. S.
of MD & CEO effective from the date of taking charge. Raju, who was holding the post since April 2022.
• He has earlier worked in key positions at HDFC Bank
Ltd, YES Bank Ltd and Jio Payments Bank Ltd.
• Janardan Prasad has done MSc in Geology from Patna • The Commission said that Section 124A has its
University and joined GSI, Gandhinagar, as a geologist in importance in combating anti-national and secessionist
1988. elements.
• He earlier served as the Additional Director General • The sedition law provisions were stayed by the
and Head of Department (ADG & HoD) for the southern Supreme Court on May 11, 2022. It had restrained the
region. Central government and state government from arresting
• He was also the chairman of the Technical-cum- Cost people under this law.
Committee (TCC), National Mineral Exploration Trust, New
Delhi. 504. World Milk Day is observed every year on 1st June to
• Geological Survey of India (GSI) was established in promote the consumption and benefits of milk around the
1851. world.
• It functions under the Ministry of Mines, Government India is the largest producer of milk in the world,
of India. Its headquarters is located in Kolkata. contributing __________% of global milk production.
A. 21 %
503. In June as per report Law Commission of India B. 24 %
recommended the retention of sedition law. Who has C. 26 %
headed the Law Commission? D. 22 %
A. Alok Kumar E. 23 %
B. Ritu Raj Awasthi Answer: B
C. Rajesh Bindal • World Milk Day, observed every year on 1st June, was
D. Ramesh Sinha created in the year 2001 by Food and Agriculture
E. Sandeep Mehta Organisation (FAO) of the United Nations (UN) to promote
Answer: B the consumption and benefits of milk around the world.
• The Law Commission of India suggested retaining the • According to worldmilkday.org, the theme of World
153-year-old colonial law on sedition. Milk Day 2023 is “Showcasing how dairy is reducing its
• It has suggested some amendments to Section 124A of environmental footprint, while also providing nutritious
the Indian Penal Code to bring more clarity on the foods and livelihoods.”
interpretation, understanding, and usage of the provision. • India has witnessed remarkable growth in the
• Law Commission in its report submitted to the production and consumption of milk and dairy products in
government raised concern about the misuse of Section the last nine years. Today, India is the largest producer of
124A. milk in the world, contributing 24% of global milk
• It suggested that model guidelines should be issued by production.
the central government to curb misuse. The milk production of India has registered over 61 per
• The Commission said sedition being a “colonial legacy” cent increase from 137.7 million tonnes in 2013-14 to
is not a valid ground for its repeal. 221.1 million tonnes in 2021-22. Moreover, the per-
• Law Commission headed by Justice Ritu Raj Awasthi capita availability of milk has increased from 303
said that Section 124A should be amended to align it with gram/day in 2013-14 to 444 gram/day in 2021-22, nearly
the Supreme Court’s 1962 verdict in the Kedar Nath Case. 1.5 times increase.
• In Kedar Nath Case, the Supreme Court upheld the
constitutional validity of the provision by restricting the 505. In June as per report Prime Minister Narendra Modi
law to those who incite violence. launched Amrit Dharohar’ and ‘MISHTI’ schemes on World
Environment Day 2023.
• At present, Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code,
which deals with sedition, has a punishment of a life What is the acronymn of letter 'M' in the ‘MISHTI’?
sentence along with a fine or imprisonment which may A. Magnetic
extend up to three years along with a fine. B. Microclimate
C. Meterology
• The law commission has recommended enhancing the
punishment to “seven years”. D. Marine
E. Mangrove A. Sagar Amrit
Answer: E B. Sagar Rakshak
• In a move to revive wetlands and mangroves across C. Sagar Manthan
the country, Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched two D. Sagar Samriddhi
schemes named Amrit Dharohar and MISHTI (Mangrove E. Sagar Patal
Initiative for Shoreline Habitats and Tangible Incomes). Answer: D
• India currently has 75 Ramsar sites that are wetlands • The Union Minister of Ports, Shipping, and
of international importance and designated under the Waterways recently launched an online dredging
Ramsar Convention on Wetlands. monitoring system called “Sagar Samriddhi”.
• In the last nine years, the number of wetlands and • It is an online dredging monitoring system.
Ramsar sites in India have increased almost three times. • The new system aims to tighten the monitoring
• Now India is home to the second largest network of regime for dredging contracts and also focus on
Ramsar sites in Asia. monetising dredged material.
• The launch of Amrit Dharohar Yojana on World • It is part of the government’s efforts to expedite the
Environment Day will ensure conservation of the existing ‘Waste to Wealth’ initiative.
Ramsar sites through public participation, and these • This system has been developed by National
Ramsar sites will become centres of eco-tourism and a Technology Centre for Ports, Waterways and Coasts
source of green jobs for thousands of people. (NTCPWC) the technological arm of MoPSW.
• MISHTI scheme will help in reviving and protecting • The new technology brings marked improvement
the mangrove ecosystem in the country. against the old system of the Draft and Loading Monitor
• Under the programme, approximately 540 sq km area (DLM) system.
across nine coastal States and four UTs will be covered in • All future monitoring at the major ports in the
five years (2023-2028). country will be done through the Sagar Samriddhi
• With this, the mangrove cover will be restored in nine monitoring system, which will help in project
states across the country and help in mitigating the threat implementation and cut costs.
to lives and livelihoods in coastal areas from rising sea • Dredging is the removal of sediments and debris from
levels and disasters like cyclones. the bottom of lakes, rivers, harbours, and other water
• The Centre covers 80% of the project cost, while state bodies.
governments contribute the remaining 20%. • It is a routine necessity in waterways around the
• India accounts for about 3% of South Asia’s world because sedimentation—the natural process of
mangroves. Apart from the Sundarbans in West Bengal, sand and silt washing downstream—gradually fills
the Andamans region, the Kachchh and Jamnagar areas in channels and harbours.
Gujarat have substantial mangrove cover.
• The main thrust of World Environment Day 2023 507. Recently Government has made it mandatory for OTT
celebration in India was on the Mission LiFE. platforms to display tobacco-linked health warnings
• PM Modi gave the concept of LiFE (Lifestyle for before and during the middle of the streamed content.
Environment) at the World Leaders' Summit in Glasgow at When is World No Tobacco Day observed?
COP26. A. 2nd June
• Under Mission LiFE, a list of 75 individual LiFE actions B. 31st May
has been identified across 7 themes. C. 5th June
• These themes are save water, save energy, reduce D. 8th June
waste, reduce e-waste, reduce single-use plastics, adopt E. 10th June
sustainable food systems, and adopt healthy lifestyles. Answer: B
• Government has made it mandatory for OTT
506. In June as per report Union Minister of Ports, platforms to display tobacco-linked health warnings
Shipping, and Waterways launched an online dredging before and during the middle of the streamed content.
monitoring system called ___________.
• Union Health Ministry made the announcement in a Cabinet has extended term of 22nd Law Commission till
notification on 31st May, which was observed as World August 2024.
No Tobacco Day. The regulation will come to force in • A uniform civil code mean a set of common personal
three months. laws for all citizens.
• Such health spots and tobacco-related warnings are • At present, personal laws for Hindus and Muslims are
already displayed by movie theatres during screenings. different.
• Theme for this year’s World No Tobacco Day — “we • The constitution has a provision for Uniform Civil
need food, no tobacco” — counters the argument that Code in Article 44 as a Directive Principle of State Policy.
tobacco control will lead to loss of livelihood for farmers.
• According to the notification, all publishers of online 509. Recently as per report 80 more castes in ______
curated content — other than news and current affairs states may be added to the Central List of Other
content — will have to display a health spot for a Backward Classes (OBCs).
minimum of 30 seconds in the beginning and middle of A. 5
the programmes. B. 4
• The platforms have also been asked to run an audio- C. 6
visual disclaimer of a minimum of 20 seconds on the ill- D. 7
effects of using tobacco, at the beginning and in the E. 8
middle of programmes. Answer: C
• The health spots and the disclaimers will have to be in • About 80 more castes in six states may be added to
the same language as that of the content. the Central List of Other Backward Classes (OBCs).
• National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC)
508. Who is the chairman of the 22nd Law Commission? chairperson Hansraj Gangaram Ahir said that NCBC is
A. Justice Venkata Ramana processing the approval for most of them.
B. Justice Patanjali Sastri • The addition of 16 communities to the Central list of
C. Justice Rituraj Awasthi OBCs in Himachal Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, Madhya
D. Justice Ranjan Gogoi Pradesh and Jammu and Kashmir has been facilitated by
E. Justice Kiran Rijuju the government.
Answer: C • More communities from six states are likely to be
• 22nd Law Commission seeks views from public and added to the Central list.
religious organisations on Uniform Civil Code. • These states are Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra
• 22nd Law Commission of India in a notice sought Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, and Haryana.
views on the Uniform Civil Code. • Telangana government has requested that the 40
• It stated that interested willing persons and communities should be added to the Central list.
organization must give their views within 30 days. • Andhra Pradesh has requested the addition of the
• The 21st Law Commission had examined the subject Turup Kapu community.
of UCC and collected views of all stakeholders through its • Himachal Pradesh has requested the addition of
appeal along with a questionnaire in 2016. Majhra community.
• The Law Commission had also released a consultation • Maharashtra government has requested the addition
paper titled "Reform of Family" in 2018. of Lodhi, Lingayat, Bhoyar Pawar, Jhandse communities in
• In this paper, Law commission said that formulation the State to the Central list of OBCs.
of UCC was "neither necesasry nor desirable at this • Punjab has asked for inclusion of the Yadav
stage". community. Haryana has asked for the addition of
• After more than three years, the 22nd Law Gosai/Gosain community.
Commission has again decided to seek fresh public views • Currently, more than 2,650 different communities are
on UCC. listed in the Central OBC list for all States and Union
• The 22nd law panel was constituted under the Territories.
chairmanship of Justice Rituraj Awasthi (retd). The Union
• They include the 16 communities that were added • Hence, higher education institutions which are less
since 2014. than 20 years old will now be eligible to apply for deemed
• Apart from OBC, since the last census in 2011, four university status, provided they fulfil the above criteria.
communities have been added to the Scheduled Caste list • A cluster of institutions managed by more than one
as main entries. sponsoring body or a society can also apply for deemed to
• As of March 2023, about 1,270 communities were be university status.
there in the SC list. • Deemed universities with minimum ‘A’ grade and
• Since 2011, five communities were added to the above or ranked from 1 to 100 in the universities category
Scheduled Tribes List as main entries. of NIRF rankings of the relevant year are eligible to set up
• As of March 2023, about 748 communities were there off-campus centres.
in the ST list. • Institutions declared as deemed to be university
under a distinct category can apply for off-campus after
510. In June as per report Union Education Minister has five years of their declaration if they are accredited with
released the UGC (Institutions Deemed to be Universities) an A grade or figured in the top 100 in the 'universities'
Regulations, 2023, which will replace the 2019 guidelines. category of NIRF.
As per new guidelines corpus fund for private institutions • Among other criteria that have been changed are the
has been increased from Rs 10 crore to Rs _______ crore. faculty strength has been increased from 100 to 150,
A. Rs 20 crore corpus fund for private institutions has been increased
B. Rs 30 crore from Rs 10 crore to Rs 25 crore, and creation of an
C. Rs 15 crore executive councils like central universities in these
D. Rs 25 crore universities as well.
E. Rs 10 crore • Deemed universities must register on Academic Bank
Answer: D of Credits (ABC).
• Union Education Minister has released the UGC • ABC is a virtual/digital storehouse that contains the
(Institutions Deemed to be Universities) Regulations, information of the credits earned by individual students
2023, which will replace the 2019 guidelines. throughout their learning journey.
• The revised guidelines have simplified the eligibility • The UGC was established as a statutory body in
criteria in order to establish more quality-focused deemed November 1956 by the UGC Act 1956.
universities. • It is set up by the Ministry of Education's Department
• The new rules are built on the principle of a "light but of Higher Education.
tight" regulatory framework envisioned in the National • A proposal to replace it with another new regulatory
Education Policy 2020. body called the Higher Education Commission of India
• Under the 2019 guidelines, the higher education (HECI) is under consideration by the Government of India.
institutions having existence for not less than 20 years
were eligible for applying for the status. 511. cently as per report PM Modi inaugurated the first-
• In the revised guidelines, it has been replaced with ever National Training Conclave in ___________.
multi-disciplinarity,NAAC grading,NIRF ranking and NBA A. Jaipur
grading. B. Bhopal
• It means any multi-disciplinary institution will be able C. Delhi
to apply for the deemed status if they have: D. Kanpur
• valid accreditation by NAAC with at least 3.01 E. Lucknow
cumulative grade point average (CGPA) for three Answer: C
consecutive cycles, • PM Modi inaugurated the first-ever National Training
• NBA accreditation for two-thirds of eligible Conclave at the International Exhibition and Convention
programmes for three consecutive cycles or Centre, Pragati Maidan, New Delhi.
• in the top 50 of any specific categories of NIRF for the
last three years continuously.
• The government has been a proponent of improving • In 10 states and Union territories, almost all in the
the governance process and policy implementation in the Southern and North-East region, women are the majority
country through capacity building of civil service. of the beneficiaries.
• As part of this vision, the National Programme for • Amongst the northern states, two ruled by the BJP
Civil Services Capacity Building (NPCSCB) – 'Mission i.e., Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh, have the largest
Karmayogi' – was launched to prepare a future-ready civil number of beneficiaries (men plus women) at 9.60 lakh
service with the right attitude, skills and knowledge. and 5.41 lakh street vendors, respectively.
• This conclave was yet another step in this direction. • All vendors who have been vending from or before
• The event was hosted by the Capacity Building (March 24, 2020) and with a certificate of vending can
Commission. avail the loan.
• The objective of the conclave was to foster
collaboration among civil services training institutes and 513. What is the current premium per family for the world
strengthen the training infrastructure for civil servants largest health assurance scheme, the Pradhan Mantri Jan
across the country. Arogya Yojana (AB PM-JAY)?
• Mission Karmayogi is a scheme that exhorts the civil A. ₹1,154 per year
servant to maintain a very high standard of conduct and B. ₹1,500 per year
behaviour so that he earns the trust of the people and is C. ₹1,200 per year
emulated by his peers and subordinates. D. ₹1,300 per year
E. ₹1,052 per year
512. According to government data __________of the Answer: E
beneficiaries of the government’s loan scheme for street • The National Health Authority (NHA) is planning to
vendors - PM SVANidhi (PM Street Vendors’ AtmaNirbhar revise the premium for the world largest health assurance
Nidhi) - are women. scheme, the Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB PM-
A. 34 % JAY).
B. 41 % • Ayushman Bharat, formally known as Pradhan Mantri
C. 57 % Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY), provides an annual health
D. 52 % cover of Rs 5 lakh per family to more than 10 crore poor
E. 48 % and vulnerable people (around 50 crore beneficiaries) for
Answer: B secondary and tertiary care hospitalisation.
• About 41% of the beneficiaries of the government’s • The marquee scheme provides a health coverage of
loan scheme for street vendors - PM SVANidhi (PM Street ₹5 lakh per beneficiary family per year. Currently, the
Vendors’ AtmaNirbhar Nidhi) - are women, but southern premium per family is ₹1,052 per year, which is shared
states fare much better than those in the north. between the Centre and state governments in a 60:40
• PM SVANidhi Scheme was launched in 2020 amid the ratio.
pandemic by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs • Since the inception of the scheme in 2018, the
(MoHUA), Government of India. premium has not been revised. In view of the high
• It is a micro-credit facility that provides street vendors inflation during the period, higher scheme utilization and
a collateral-free loan of Rs 10,000 with low rates of increased expenditure, states are asking NHA to upwardly
interest (below 12%) for a period of one year, aiding the revise the premium.
vendors at getting back on their feet financially. • AB PM-JAY has logged a 50 million hospital
• According to data from the Union Ministry of admissions so far, involving a financial commitment of
• Housing and Urban Affairs, of the total number of ₹61,501 crore.
beneficiaries (36.33 lakhs) of the scheme in the country, • The scheme is being implemented in all states and
21.31 lakh are men and 15.02 lakh are women. The Union territories except Delhi, Odisha and West Bengal.
scheme also includes 219 beneficiaries of the “others” Till date, 233 million beneficiaries have been verified and
gender category issued Ayushman cards for availing free treatment under
the scheme.
• More than 28,351 hospitals, including 12,824 private • It has ample space for future leaders as well.
ones, have been empaneled under the scheme with most
admissions taking place in corporate hospitals. 515. Recently as per report _________ districts out of the
total 766 districts in the country have declared themselves
514. In June as per report Union Culture Ministry manual-scavenging free.
announced that the Nehru Memorial Museum and Library A. 256
(NMML) would now be called the Prime Ministers’ B. 508
Museum and Library Society. C. 423
Prime Ministers’ Museum and Library Society is located in D. 689
_________. E. 578
A. Bengaluru Answer: B
B. Hyderabad • Recently, the Union Ministry of Social Justice and
C. Pune Empowerment has mentioned that in India, only 508
D. Delhi districts out of the total 766 districts in the country have
E. Lucknow declared themselves manual-scavenging free.
Answer: D • In April 2022, the Centre said that there have been no
• The Union Culture Ministry announced that the Nehru manual scavenging deathsin the country but 161 workers
Memorial Museum and Library (NMML) would now be died cleaning sewers and septic tanks in the last three
called the Prime Ministers’ Museum and Library Society. years.
• The name change came nearly a year after a • Tamil Nadu reported the highest number of such
Pradhanmantri Sangrahalaya (Prime Ministers’ Museum) deathsat 27 followed by 26 in Uttar Pradesh, according to
was inaugurated on the premises of the Teen Murti government data.
Bhavan, which also hosted the NMML. • The report highlighted that only 66% districts in
• The Nehru Memorial Museum and Library (NMML) country free of manual scavenging.
was established in the memory of Jawaharlal Nehru • Under the report the ministry has differentiated
(1889-1964). ‘manual scavenging’ from’ hazardous cleaning of sewers’.
• It was named after Nehru almost six decades ago, • Manual evacuation refers to the process of removing
after being turned into a memorial dedicated to him in human and animal waste from dry toilets and
1964 by then President S Radhakrishnan. transporting it for disposal.
• It has four major constituents, namely, a Memorial • Currently, engaging any person for the purpose of
Museum, a library on modern India, a Centre for hazardous cleaning of sewer pipes and sewerage tanks by
Contemporary Studies and the Nehru Planetarium. any person or agency is punishable by imprisonment for
• Built in 1929-30 as part of Edwin Lutyens’ imperial up to five years or a fine of up to Rs.5 lakh or both.
capital, Teen Murti House was then known as Flagstaff • However, the scheme for rehabilitation of manual
House. scavengers has now been merged with the NAMASTE
• It was the official residence of the Commander-in- scheme for 100% mechanisation of sewer work.
Chief of the British armed forces in India. • The FY 2023-24 Union Budget showed no allocation
• In August 1948, it became the official residence of for the rehabilitation scheme and rs 100 crore allocations
India’s first Prime Minister, Jawaharlal Nehru. for the NAMASTE scheme.
• Inaugurated by PM Modi in April 2022, the
Pradhanmantri Sangrahalaya is a tribute to every Prime 516. In June as per report Punjab Assembly passed the
Minister of India since Independence. Punjab University Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2023, which
• It is a narrative record of how each PM has would make the chief minister the chancellor of 12 state-
contributed to the development of our nation over the run universities, replacing the governor.
last 75 years. Punjab is the ____________ state to take this decision.
• It recognises contributions of all the 14 PMs so far, A. First
irrespective of ideology or tenure in office. B. Second
C. Third • The Non-Lapsable Central Pool of Resources (NLCPR)
D. Fourth Scheme was allocated Rs 1,233 crore under RE FY23.
E. Fifth • NLCPR is the major scheme to fill up the infrastructure
Answer: D gap in the northeastern region through sanctioning the
• Amid a conflict between the Punjab Chief Minister projects prioritised by the state governments.
Bhagwant Mann and Punjab Governor Banwari Lal • The other major programme, North Eastern Council,
Purohit, the Punjab Assembly under Chief Minister Mann was allocated Rs 666 crore in RE FY23.
saw history being made after the Punjab University Laws • The programme has representation from the eight
(Amendment) Bill 2023 was unanimously passed, thereby northeastern states, where they advise the central
vesting the powers of Vice Chancellors of state government regarding flood-control projects, inter-state
universities with the CM. transport and communications.
• The Punjab Police Amendment Bill was also passed. • The underutilization comes after a 113 % increase in
After the passage of both these bills, the Punjab allocation in the FY24 Union Budget.
government will not seek the permission from the • The finance ministry has budgeted Rs 5,892 crore for
Governor to appoint Vice Chancellors and Director FY24 for the region of the budgeted amount, Rs 4,093
General of Police (DGP) in the state. crore is to be spent on capital expenditure.
• The Punjab Assembly passing the Punjab University • It is nearly 15 times the money spent on capital
Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2023, would make the chief expenditure (Rs 336 crore) in FY23.
minister the chancellor of 12 state-run universities,
replacing the governor. 518. In June as per report ___________become the first
• Punjab is the fourth state to take this decision after State to have a welfare fund for Mahatma Gandhi Rural
West Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Kerala. Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) workers.
• The state government will not seek a panel from A. Odisha
UPSC and also will not send the panel approval to the B. Gujarat
Punjab Governor. C. Rajasthan
D. Kerala
517. According to the data released by the Controller E. Tamil Nadu
General of Accounts (CGA) shows _________ of funds Answer: D
allocated to the eight hilly states of the North-East (N-E) • Kerala is set to become the first State to have a
remained unutilised by the Ministry of Development of welfare fund for Mahatma Gandhi Rural Employment
the North-eastern region. Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) workers.
A. one-thirds • Chief Minister Pinarayi Vijayan will inaugurate the
B. two-thirds Employment Guarantee Workers’ Welfare Fund at a
C. two-fouth function to be held in.
D. one-fourth • The Ayyankali Urban Employment Guarantee Scheme
E. three-fourth workers will also be part of the welfare fund.
Answer: B • The Welfare fund, which will provide the workers with
• The data released by the Controller General of pension, medical assistance, educational assistance for
Accounts (CGA) shows two-thirds of funds allocated to the their children and other benefits, has been formed as per
eight hilly states of the North-East (N-E) remained the Kerala Employment Guarantee Workers’ Welfare
unutilised by the Ministry of Development of the North- Fund Act, 2021.
eastern region. • The first meeting of the welfare board was on March
• Only Rs 989 crore (35.9 %) was utilised by the Ministry 1 this year. The benefits will be for workers who
of Development of North Eastern Region out of the completed the age of 60 and paid contributions
revised budgetary allocation of Rs 2,754 crore for FY23. continuously.
• Utilisation of revenue and capital expenditure • For those who have paid the contributions for not
remained low at 32.4 % and 45.6 %. fewer than 10 years, their families will get the benefits in
case of beneficiary’s death. The workers who have • On (May 31), as the World Health Organization
completed the age of 60 will be entitled to pension, even (WHO) marked World No Tobacco Day, Sweden was
though they are allowed to work until the age of 75. reported to be close to becoming the first smoke-free
• The Ayyankali Urban Employment Guarantee Scheme, country in the European Union (EU) with only 5% people
the first urban employment guarantee scheme in the in the country smoking.
country, was implemented in the State in 2011. • The country had banned smoking in bars and
restaurants in 2005, and in the last few years had been on
519. Recently seen in news Mukhyamantri Sampoorna a rigorous policy implementations to curb smoking.
Pushti Yojana has been launched by which of the • Sweden had announced a complete ban on public
following state government? smoking in 2018, that included parks, train stations, bus
A. Odisha stations etc.
B. Karnataka
C. Uttar Pradesh 521. Recently seen in news Chollima-1 rocket is associated
D. Gujarat with which of the following country?
E. Rajasthan A. China
Answer: A B. Japan
• Mukhyamantri Sampoorna Pushti Yojana was C. UAE
launched on 21 June 2023 by the Odisha state D. North Korea
government to provide nutritious food to children aged 0 E. Russia
to 6 years, adolescent girls aged 15 to 19 years, pregnant Answer: D
women and lactating mothers in their state. • North Korea’s attempt to put its first spy satellite into
• The state government has also proposed a budget of space failed in a setback to leader Kim Jong Un’s push to
Rs 3354.40 crore for this scheme. To get the benefit of this boost his military capabilities as tensions with the United
scheme, online applications of eligible women and States and South Korea rise.
adolescent girls and children will be made. • After an unusually quick admission of failure, North
• The main purpose of starting Mukhyamantri Korea vowed to conduct a second launch after it learns
Sampoorna Pushti Yojana is that there are many families what went wrong. It suggests Kim remains determined to
in the state who are poor and from the lower class, whose expand his weapons arsenal and apply more pressure on
pregnant women, adolescent girls of 15 to 19 years, Washington and Seoul while diplomacy is stalled.
children of 0 to 6 years, and lactating women. • A satellite launch by North Korea is a violation of U.N.
Security Council resolutions that ban the country from
52O. Recently as per report ___________ is on track to conducting any launch based on ballistic technology.
become Europe’s first ‘smoke free’ country. • The newly developed Chollima-1 rocket was launched
A. Germany at the North’s Sohae Satellite Launching Ground in the
B. Norway northwest, carrying the Malligyong-1 satellite. The rocket
C. Estonia crashed off the Korean Peninsula’s western coast after it
D. Sweden lost thrust following the separation of its first and second
E. Ukraine stages.
Answer: D 522. Recently as per report which of the following

• Sweden, which has the lowest rate of smoking in the organisation will adopt a Bangkok Vision 2030?
Europe Union, is close to declaring itself ‘smoke free,’ as it A. SAARC
has less than 5% daily smokers in the population. B. ASEAN
• The term 'smoke-free' is defined by the Sweden C. G20
government when less 5% of the population in the D. BIMSTEC
country smokes. E. European Union
Answer: D • The overall goal is to achieve China’s first manned

• According to the Secretary (East) in the Ministry of landing on the moon by 2030 and carry out lunar scientific
External Affairs (MEA), The Bay of Bengal Initiative for exploration and related technological experiments.
Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation • China’s manned lunar mission came as the US space
(BIMSTEC) summit end of this year will adopt a Bangkok agency NASA aims to send a second manned mission to
Vision 2030. the moon by 2025 to explore the south pole for frozen
• Thailand presented “BIMSTEC Bangkok Vision 2030” water.
aiming to build a Prosperous, Resilient, and Open (PRO) • For its part, the Indian Space Research Organisation
BIMSTEC by 2030. (ISRO) has announced plans to launch its ambitious
• The Vision sets a clear direction and priorities as well Chandrayaan-3 mission aimed at demonstrating critical
as a goal for BIMSTEC collaboration to tackle challenges technologies to land the spacecraft on the south pole.
and seize opportunities for the coming decade. • China in the past successfully launched uncrewed
• The document aims to further promote BIMSTEC as a missions to the moon which included a rover. China has
region of peace, stability, and economic sustainability. also sent a rover to Mars.
• The goals found in the vision are also in line with the • In 2021, China and Russia announced plans to set up
United Nations’ Sustainable Development Goals and an International Lunar Research Station.
Thailand’s bio-circular-green economic model. • Russian space agency Roscosmos said in March 2021
• BIMSTEC is a regional organization that was that it has signed an agreement with China’s National
established on 06 June 1997 with the signing of the Space Administration to develop research facilities on the
Bangkok Declaration. surface of the moon, in orbit or both.
• Member countries:Bangladesh, India, Myanmar, Sri • China built its own space station after it was excluded
Lanka, Thailand, Bhutan and Nepal from the International Space Station (ISS).
• The Chairmanship of BIMSTEC rotates according to • China will be the only country to own a space station
the alphabetical order of the English names of the as the International Space Station (ISS) of Russia is a
Member States. collaborative project of several countries. The ISS station
• During the Third BIMSTEC Summit, the Secretariat is also set to be decommissioned by 2030.
was established in Dhaka, Bangladesh.
524. Recently as per report ____________became the first
523. Recently as per report China announced plans to Indian brand to have crossed the Rs 1 trillion mark.
send a manned mission to the moon by _________ for A. Tata Consultancy Services
lunar scientific exploration, amid its deepening space race B. Reliance Industries
with the West. C. Infosys
A. 2028 D. HDFC
B. 2030 E. Jio Technology
C. 2032 Answer: A
D. 2027 • According to global brand consultancy firm,
E. 2025 Interbrand overall value of the Indian Inc brand has
Answer: B grown remarkably, surpassing Rs 83,1005.7 crore ($100
• China announced plans to send a manned mission to billion).
the moon by 2030 for lunar scientific exploration, amid its • India's largest IT services firm Tata Consultancy
deepening space race with the West. Services (TCS) became the first Indian brand to have
• The announcement was made by Lin Xiqiang, Deputy crossed the Rs 1 trillion mark. It topped the list with a
Director of the China Manned Space Agency (CMSA), as brand value of Rs 10,9576 crore, up 153 per cent over the
China is preparing to send a third set of astronauts to its past decade.
space station. • According to the report, TCS is the most valued brand
amounting to a valuation of Rs 1,095,766 million followed
by Reliance Industries amounting to Rs 653,208 valuation.
• As per the report, the top three brands account for • It stood first in ‘Research Institutions’ category too,
46% of the total value of the top ten brands. for the third consecutive year.
• Miranda House, Delhi is ranked the best college for
525. Consider the following statement regarding National the seventh consecutive year.
Institutional Ranking Framework. Which of the following • Indian Institute of Management (IIM), Ahmedabad is
statement is incorrect? the top management institute for the fourth consecutive
A. It is the 7th edition of the report year.
B. NIRF was launched by the Ministry of Human Resource • National Institute of Pharmaceutical Education and
Development (MHRD now Ministry of Education) in 2015 Research (NIPER), Hyderabad is ranked number one (first
(first edition came in 2016). time) for pharmaceutical studies.
C. IT-Madras remained the best educational institution in • The AIIMS, Delhi is ranked the best medical college
overall rankings for the fifth consecutive term. (for the sixth consecutive year), and Saveetha Institute of
D. Miranda House, Delhi is ranked the best college for the Medical and Technical Sciences, Chennai is the top dental
seventh consecutive year. college.
E. Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bengaluru ranked as • AIIMS is ranked at sixth position in Overall category
the best university in the country for eight years in a row. thereby improving from its ninth position in 2022.
Answer: A • IIT-Kanpur topped the ‘Innovation’ category.
• The National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF)
announced the India Rankings 2023 (8th consecutive 526. According to the World Bank’s latest Migration and
edition) of higher education institutions in New Delhi. Development Brief, India is expected to post a growth of
• In all, 5,543 institutions offered themselves for just __________% in remittance inflows in 2023.
ranking under ‘overall’, category-specific and/or domain- A. 2.1 %
specific rankings for India Rankings 2023. B. 0.2 %
• The NIRF was launched by the Ministry of Human C. 1.5 %
Resource Development (MHRD now Ministry of D. 1.9 %
Education) in 2015 (first edition came in 2016). E. 3.1%
• This framework, which is the first-ever effort by the Answer: B
Government of India, outlines a methodology to rank HEIs • According to the World Bank’s latest Migration and
across the country. Development Brief, India is expected to post a growth of
• While participation in the NIRF was initially voluntary, just 0.2% in remittance inflows in 2023.
it became mandatory in 2018 for all government-run • It provides updates and analysis on global trends in
educational institutions. migration and remittances.
• Initially, NIRF ranked best institutions across 11 • It also focuses on increasing the volume of
categories - overall national ranking, universities, remittances as a percentage of GDP, reducing remittance
engineering, college, medical, management, pharmacy, costs, and reducing recruitment costs.
law, architecture, dental and research. • Almost 36% of India’s remittances are from the high-
• With the addition of 2 new categories (Innovation skilled and largely high-tech Indian migrants in three
and Agriculture & Allied Sectors), the existing portfolio of high-income destinations — US, United Kingdom, and
India Rankings has increased to 13 categories. Singapore.
• The IIT-Madras remained the best educational • The post-pandemic recovery led to a tight labour
institution in overall rankings for the fifth consecutive market in these regions, and wage hikes boosted
term. remittances.
• It has also been ranked the best engineering college • Remittance inflows from the GCC countries account
for the eighth consecutive year (from 2016 to 2023). for about 28% of India’s total remittance inflows.
• The Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bengaluru • In 2022, India posted more than 24% growth in its
ranked as the best university in the country for eight years inward remittances to reach $111 billion, higher than the
in a row. World Bank’s earlier estimate of $100 billion.
• India represented 63% of South Asia’s remittance compensate the RE for loss due to default up to a certain
flows. percentage of the loan portfolio.
• The top five recipient countries for remittances in • This includes other similar implicit guarantees linked
2022 were India ($111 billion), followed by Mexico ($61 to the performance of portfolios.
billion), China ($51 billion), Philippines ($38 billion), and • As a part of the monetary policy, RBI announced
Pakistan ($30 billion). allowing FLDG arrangements with the objective of
• RBI defines remittances as the transfer of money by maintaining a balance between innovation and prudent
an individual who is a resident of one country to an risk management.
individual or entity in another country. • The framework will facilitate orderly development of
• Remittances generally involve migrant workers who the digital lending ecosystem and enhance credit
send money back to their home countries to support their penetration.
families or for other purposes. • REs can accept DLG arrangements in the form of cash
• The RBI regulates remittance transactions and has deposits, fixed deposits with a lien marked in favour of
put in place guidelines and regulations to govern the the RE, and bank guarantees. They will be responsible for
process. NPA recognition of individual loan assets in the portfolio
and consequent provisioning, as per current norms
527. Recently RBI has permitted First Loss Default regardless of any DLG cover at the portfolio level.
Guarantee (FLDG) arrangements between two regulated • The amount of DLG invoked shall not be set off
entities (REs) or between a regulated entity and a Lending against the underlying individual loans.
Service Providers (LSPs) for digital lending. • The RE shall invoke DLG within a maximum overdue
As per guidelines REs shall ensure that total amount of period of 120 days, unless made good by the borrower
DLG cover on any outstanding portfolio which is specified before that.” DLG agreements will need to remain in force
upfront shall not exceed _______ per cent of the amount for as long as the longest tenor of the loan in the
of that loan portfolio. underlying portfolio.
A. 2
B. 5 528. Recently as per report incremental credit-deposit (C-
C. 7 D) ratio of scheduled banks’ declined to _________till
D. 8 June 2, 2023.
E. 10 A. 56.89
Answer: B B. 51.26
• The RBI has permitted First Loss Default Guarantee C. 55.78
(FLDG) arrangements between two regulated entities D. 52.45
(REs) or between a regulated entity and a Lending Service E. 50.24
Providers (LSPs) for digital lending. Answer: E
• Arrangements involving default loss guarantee (DLG) • The incremental credit-deposit (C-D) ratio of
will, hence, not be treated as ‘synthetic securitisation’ and scheduled banks’ declined in the financial year so far, as
will not attract the provisions of ‘loan participation’. The incremental deposit accumulation has been almost two
guidelines are effective immediately. times the credit disbursement.
• REs shall ensure that total amount of DLG cover on • The incremental C-D ratio since March-end till June 2,
any outstanding portfolio which is specified upfront shall 2023, declined to 50.24 per cent against 95.17 per cent in
not exceed 5 per cent of the amount of that loan portfolio, the year-ago period (March-end to June 3, 2022).
adding that even in the case of implicit guarantee • The C-D ratio conveys how much of each rupee of
arrangements, the DLG provider will not bear deposit is going towards credit markets.
performance risk of more than 5 per cent of the • A higher growth in this ratio suggests credit growth is
underlying portfolio. rising quickly, which could lead to excessive risks and
• The RBI has defined DLG as a contractual leveraging on the borrower’s side.
arrangement where the partner entity guarantees to
• This ratio serves as a useful measure to understand banks have raised in the form of deposits has been
the systemic risks in the economy. deployed as loans.
• Deposit accumulation of scheduled banks at
₹6,65,238 crore in the financial year so far was almost 2.5 530. In June as per report TPG India Investments II Inc sold
times the year ago period’s accumulation (of ₹2,63,819 its entire 2.65 per cent stake in Shriram Finance worth
crore) ____________.
• Credit disbursement by scheduled banks at ₹3,34,272 A. ₹1,466 crore
crore in the financial year so far was about 1.33 times the B. ₹1,390 crore
year-ago period. C. ₹1,578 crore
D. ₹1,236 crore
529. In June as per report _____________became India's E. ₹1,140 crore
second public sector bank to surpass Rs 1-trillion market Answer: B
cap with the stock hitting a fresh record high. • TPG India Investments II Inc sold its entire 2.65 per
A. Bank Of Baroda cent stake, or 99.2 lakh shares, in Shriram Finance via
B. Canara Bank multiple block deals on the BSE.
C. Punjab National Bank • As per the transaction price, the deal value stands at
D. IDBI Bank around ₹1,390 crore.
E. Kotak Mahindra Bank • US-based private equity firm, TPG, had first invested
Answer: A in the Shriram Group via Shriram Transport Finance 18
• Bank of Baroda became India's second public sector years ago.
bank to surpass Rs 1-trillion market cap with the stock • It was looking to exit the lending business of the
hitting a fresh record high. group following the three-way merger of Shriram City
• The stock scaled a record Rs 194 a share, up 3 percent Union Finance and Shriram Capital with Shriram
from its previous close. State Bank of India is the only Transport Finance in December 2022 to set up Shriram
Indian PSU lender which has crossed this milestone. Finance. However, TPG continues to hold stake in the
• The lender reported its highest quarterly net profit of group’s insurance business.
Rs 4,775 crore in March quarter. • Kotak Funds - India Midcap Fund, which bought the
• However, in overaall list of Indian companies by largest number of shares at 16.6 lakh shares, was the
market capitalisation, Reliance Industries Ltd iis still at single largest buyer.
number one sp[ot with a market cap of ₹17.29 lakh crore. • Other buyers included Nippon Mutual Fund, DSP
• Tata Consultancey Services or TCS is the second most Mutual Fund, Aditya Birla Sun Life Mutual Fund, East
valuable Indian company in terms of market Spring Investments, Morgan Stanley Asia Singapore,
capitalisation followed by HDFC Bank, ICICI Bank, Goldman Sachs Singapore PTE and Norges Bank on behalf
Hindustan Unilever Ltd, ITC and Infosys. of Government Pension Fund Global, among others, which
• In this list of most valuuable Indian companies by picked up stake through various schemes and funds.
market cap, State Bank of India (SBI) is positioned at
eighth spot while HDFC Ltd and Bharti Airtel is placed at 531. Which of the following is the only Indian carrier to
ninth and tenth spot respectively. feature in the list of World’s Top 20 Airlines for the second
• So, HDFC Bank is most valuable Indian bank in terms time in a row?
of market cap with a value of around ₹9 lakh crore while A. Air India
ICICI Bank is second most valuable Indian bank in terms of B. Indigo
market capitalisation with net worth of around ₹6.44 lakh C. Vistara
crore. SBI is third most valuable Indian listed bank with a D. Go First
market valuation of around ₹5.07 lakh crore. E. Akasa
• d’s disbursement (of ₹2,51,099 crore). Answer: C
• Vistara, a joint venture between Tata Sons and
• The CD ratio refers to the credit-deposit ratio in
Singapore Airlines, has been ranked 16th worldwide,
banking parlance. It tells us how much of the money
moving four places up from last year, at 2023 World • At $26.38 billion, the Tata Group (69) retained its
Airline Awards by Skytrax. position as the most valued brand in India, new rankings
• This makes Vistara the only Indian carrier to feature released by Brand Finance.
in the list of World’s Top 20 Airlines for the second time in • With a value growth of 10.3 per cent in 2023 as
a row compared to 2022, Tata Group became the only Indian
• Additionally, the airline also won several awards brand with a valuation of over $25 billion.
including 'Best Airline in India and South Asia' for the • Notably, Tata Group is the only Indian brand to
third consecutive year, ‘Best Airline Staff in India and feature in the top 100 of the Brand Finance Global 500
South Asia’ for the fifth time in a row, ‘Best Cabin Crew in 2023.
India and South Asia’ for the third consecutive year and • According to Brand Finance India 100 2023, Infosys
‘Best Business Class Airline in India and South Asia’ for the (150) retained the second spot in the rankings with a
second time. brand value of $13 billion. It was followed by the Life
• The award ceremony took place amidst the the Paris Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) (212) with a value of
Air Show 2023 at the Musée de l'air et de l'espace. $9.7 billion.
• Vistara also secured the eighth position, moving up by • Airtel (299) swapped positions with Reliance
one rank from last year, amongst the ‘Best Airlines in Asia Industries (RIL) (310) to emerge as the fourth most-valued
2023’. The airline ranked 19th amongst ‘World's Best brand at $7.5 billion in 2023 (it was fifth last year). RIL
Airline Cabin Crew 2023’ and 20th in the category of the was valued at $7.4 billion in 2023, down 14% versus last
‘World’s Best Inflight Entertainment 2023’. year.
• Star Alliance has won the title of World’s Best Airline • SBI (312) retained its sixth position on the list in 2023
Alliance at Skytrax World Airline Awards this year, also at $7.3 billion, while the Mahindra Group (319) leaped
known as the Oscars of the aviation industry. into the seventh slot on India’s most-valuable brand list,
• The Alliance’s famed Los Angeles lounge has also up 15% over last year at a brand value $7.1 billion.
maintained its position of World’s Best Airline Alliance • Wipro, HDFC Bank and HCL Tech completed the top 10
Lounge for the seventh year. Star Alliance CEO Theo list at $6.9 billion, $6.8 billion and $6.5 billion in brand
Panagiotoulias received the awards at a ceremony held at value for 2023.
the Paris Air Show. • Amazon has retaken top spot as the world’s most
• Singapore Airlines has been voted the World’s Best valuable brand despite its brand value falling 15% this
Airline at the 2023 World Airline Awards, the fifth time year from US$350.3 billion to US$299.3 billion.
that the airline has scooped the Airline of the Year title in • Apple (brand value down 16% to US$297.5 billion) has
the 23 year history of the awards. fallen to be the world’s second most valuable brand with
• The seven times winner of the prestigious Airline of its brand value falling from US$355.1 billion.
the Year award, Qatar Airways, was ranked No 2 in the • Mahindra group powers ahead as the fastest growing
world for 2023, with ANA All Nippon Airways in third brand amongst the top ten; Mahindra Auto among the
place, Emirates fourth, and Japan Airlines in fifth position, fastest growing auto brands globally; Tech Mahindra has
out of more than 325 airlines included in the survey biggest jump in global rankings.
results. • Luxury hotels giant Taj is India’s strongest brand
second year in running, with Brand Strength Index score
532. According to the new rankings released by Brand of 89.4 out of 100.
Finance ___________ has retained its title of India’s most • Raymond is fastest the growing brand, up 83.4%
valuable brand. • Persistent Systems jumps 25 places, the most by any
A. Tata Group Indian brand.
B. HCL Tech
C. Infosys 533. Recently as per report central government has fixed
D. Life Insurance Corporation of India the issue price __________ per gram of gold for the first
E. Mahindra Group tranche of the Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme 2023-24.
Answer: A A. ₹5,125per gram
B. ₹5,562 per gram A. NPCI
C. ₹5,789per gram B. RBI
D. ₹5,945 per gram C. SEBI
E. ₹5,926 per gram D. SIDBI
Answer: E E. NABARD
• The central government has fixed the issue price at Answer: B
₹5,926 per gram of gold for the first tranche of the • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is developing a
Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme 2023-24, which will open for lightweight and portable payment system designed to
subscription for five days from 19 June. operate during catastrophic events.
• The SGBs will be sold through Scheduled Commercial • The RBI has conceptualized this system which it is
banks (except Small Finance Banks, Payment Banks and calling a bunker which is an equivalent of digital
Regional Rural Banks), Stock Holding Corporation of India payments that can be operated from anywhere by a bare
Limited (SHCIL), Clearing Corporation of India Limited minimum staff in exigencies such as natural calamities or
(CCIL), designated post offices, and recognised stock war.
exchanges -- National Stock Exchange of India Limited and • It is expected to operate on minimalistic hardware
Bombay Stock Exchange Limited. and software and would be made active only on a need
• The Government of India in consultation with the basis.
Reserve Bank of India has decided to allow discount of • The infrastructure for this system will be independent
₹50 (Rupees Fifty only) per gram from the issue price to of the technologies that underlie the existing systems of
those investors who apply online and the payment is payments such as UPI, NEFT, and RTGS.
made through digital mode. • The system is expected to process transactions that
• For such investors the issue price of Gold Bond will be are critical to ensure the stability of the economy,
₹5,876 (Rupees Five Thousand Eight Hundred Seventy Six including government and market-related transactions.
only) per gram of gold. • The existing conventional payment systems such as
• The price of SGB will be fixed in Indian rupees on the RTGS, NEFT, and UPI are designed to handle large
basis of simple average of closing price of gold of 999 volumes of transactions while ensuring sustained
purity, published by the India Bullion and Jewellers availability.
Association Limited (IBJA) for the last three working days • The National Electronic Funds Transfer is an electronic
of the week preceding the subscription period. method of transferring money online.
• The tenor of the bond will be for a period of 8 years, • It enables transferring funds from the account
with an exit option after the 5th year to be exercised on maintained with any bank to any other bank branch,
the next interest payment dates. provided the transaction is attempted between the banks
• The minimum permissible investment is 01 gram of that participate in the NEFT payment system.
gold. The maximum limit of subscription is 4 kilograms for • The payments made via NEFT are processed and
individuals, 4 kg for HUF and 20 kg for trusts and similar settled half hourly batches and transactions can be
entities per fiscal (April-March). performed 24*7.
• The SGBs can be purchased by the following Resident • Minimum Transfer Value: Rs. 1, Maximum transfer
individuals, Hindu Undivided Families (HUFs), Trusts, value: No limit.
Universities, Charitable Institutions. • RTGS stands for Real-time Gross Settlement, which is
• Investors in SGBs are entitled to a fixed interest rate a payment mode where the money is transferred from
of 2.50 percent per annum, payable semi-annually on the one bank account to the other in real time, without any
nominal value. delay.
• It is mostly used for transactions of high value.
534. Recently in june as per report __________ has • When using the banking method, RTGS is the fastest
announced that it is developing a lightweight and possible way to transfer money.
portable payment system designed to operate during • Transactions made through RTGS are processed on a
catastrophic events. one-to-one basis and transactions can be performed 24*7.
• Minimum Transfer Value: 2 lakh, Maximum transfer RBI’s functioning through the fiscal year as well as the
value: No upper limit is there, but can vary between state of the economy
banks. • RBI's annual report shows a 47% increase in its total
income, which led to a higher dividend payment to the
535. In June as per report ___________ has launched the Centre and an increase in contingency requirements.
“e appeal” scheme, aimed at addressing the issue of • RBI’s total income in 2022-23 was ₹2.35 lakh crore,
pending appeals related to Tax Deducted at Source (TDS) which is 47% more than the ₹1.6 lakh crore number for
default and tax collection at source (TCS). 2021-22.
A. Narcotics Control Bureau • Between May 2022 and February 2023, RBI’s
B. Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) has administered a
C. Taxes Indian Banks' Association cumulative rake hike of 2.5 percentage points in the policy
D. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India rate.
E. Central Board of Direct Taxes • The report also shows that the ratio of non profitable
Answer: E assets (NPAs) to total loans continues to fall. Gross NPA
• The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) has recently as share of total advances has fallen from 15.5% in 2018-
launched the “e appeal” scheme, aimed at addressing the 19 to 5.8% in the quarter ending December 2022. While
issue of pending appeals related to Tax Deducted at public sector banks continue to have higher NPA ratios,
Source (TDS) default and tax collection at source (TCS). they have seen a large reduction in their NPA ratio.
• This new initiative is expected to streamline the • The annual report notes that loan moratorium
appeal process and expedite the resolution of such cases. programmes such as the Emergency Credit Line
• Under the “e appeal” scheme, the Joint Commissioner Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS) played an important role in
(Appeals) is entrusted with the responsibility of disposing preventing a proliferation of stress in the banking system
of appeals filed before them or allocated/transferred to during the pandemic.
them. • 2022-23 saw 13,530 cases of bank frauds involving an
• They hold the power to send show cause notices and amount of ₹30,252 crore.
initiate penalties in accordance with the relevant • These numbers were 9,097 and ₹59,819 crore in 2021-
provisions of the Act. 22. Frauds on advances, which includes wilful loan
• In order to ensure a seamless appeal process, defaults have fallen sharply in the last two years from
personal hearings for appeals will be conducted through ₹1.3 lakh crore to ₹28,792 crore in 2022-23. Close to 70%
video conferences. of the amount involved in total bank frauds were in public
• This approach not only saves time and resources but sector banks.
also enables effective communication between the parties • The private sector, however had a two-thirds share in
involved. It promotes convenience and efficiency in the the number of banking fraud cases.
appeal proceedings. • FDIs are at their lowest since 2019-20
• Total Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) fell to a three-
536. According to the Reserve Bank of India annual report year low of $46 billion in 2022-23 – 26% lower than the
for the year 2022-23, FDI in ____________sector remained previous fiscal year.
highest. • Specifically, FDI in the manufacturing sector
A. Manufacturing decreased by 30% to $11.3 billion in 2022-23 compared to
B. Financial Services the previous year.
C. Computer Services • However, it is worth noting that FDI in manufacturing
D. Retail & Wholesale Trade in 2022-23 still remains higher than the levels observed
E. Communication Services between 2018-19 and 2020-21.
Answer: A
• According to the RBI’s annual report for 2022-23, the
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) released its annual
general government deficit and debt have shown
report for the year 2022-23, providing information on the
improvement. The deficit decreased to 9.4% of GDP, down
from its peak level of 13.1% in 2020-21. Similarly, the debt
decreased to 86.5% of GDP from its peak level of 89.4% in A. $180 billion
2020-21. B. $168 billion
• India’s merchandise exports at USD 450.4 billion C. $170 billion
recorded a growth of 6.7%in FY23 as compared with D. $171 billion
44.6% in FY22. E. $175 billion
• India’s merchandise imports at USD 714.0 billion Answer: E
recorded a growth of 16.5% in FY23. • A continued shift in consumer behavior and the
• Petroleum, oil and lubricants (POL) imports evolution of the business ecosystem will underpin the
constituted the largest item in India’s import, accounting growth of India’s Internet economy, from approximately
for 29.3% of the overall imports in FY23. $175 billion of consumption in 2022 to $1 trillion by 2030,
• Gold imports at US$ 35.0 billion declined by 24.2 per according to a report by Google, Temasek, and Bain &
cent in 2022--23. Company.
• India is the largest importer of vegetable oil globally. • The report, ‘The e-Conomy of a Billion Connected
India’s import bill on vegetable oil rose to USD 20.8 billion Indians’, said the confluence of three crucial forces —
in 2022-23 from USD 19.0 billion in FY22. digital-seeking behaviors among Internet users in Tier 2+
locations, digitisation of large, traditional businesses
537. In June as per report Organization for Economic Co- along with a growing start-up ecosystem, and the success
operation and Development (OECD) has marginally raised of India’s homegrown digital public goods or ‘India Stack’
its 2023-24 (FY24) growth forecast for India to _________ — has positioned the Internet economy for acceleration.
per cent from 5.9 per cent estimated earlier. • Consequently, the contribution of the Internet
A. 6.0 % economy to India’s technology sector is set to expand,
B. 6.9 % from the present 48 per cent to 62 per cent in 2030, while
C. 7.1 % its share in India’s GDP will increase from 4-5 per cent to
D. 7.5 % nearly 12-13 per cent.
E. 6.5 %
Answer: A 539. In June as per report Ministry of Power has asked the
• The Organization for Economic Co-operation and Central Electricity Regulatory Authority (CERC) to initiate
Development (OECD) has marginally raised its 2023-24 the process of coupling multiple power exchanges.
(FY24) growth forecast for India to 6 per cent, from 5.9 At present India has __________ power exchanges.
per cent estimated earlier. A. 2
• Global GDP growth in 2023 is projected to be 2.7 per B. 3
cent, the lowest annual rate since the global financial C. 5
crisis, except for the 2020 pandemic period. D. 7
• OECD said 2022-23 (FY23) ended on a positive note E. 8
for India with 7.2 per cent growth, due to higher-than- Answer: B
expected agriculture output and strong government • The Ministry of Power has asked the Central
spending. Electricity Regulatory Authority (CERC) to initiate the
• The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and process of coupling multiple power exchanges.
Development is an intergovernmental organisation with • CERC - a key regulator of the power sector in India, is
38 Member countries, founded in 1961 to stimulate a statutory body functioning with quasi-judicial status
economic progress and world trade. under the Electricity Act 2003.
• Headquarters: Paris, France. • It was initially constituted in 1998 under the Ministry
of Power's Electricity Regulatory Commissions Act, 1998
538. According to a report by Google, Temasek, and Bain for -Rationalisation & regulation of electricity tariffs.
& Company India’s internet economy is expected to grow • At present India has three power exchanges - Indian
sixfold to $1 trillion by 2030 from ________ billion in Electricity Exchange (IEX), Power Exchange of India (PXIL)
2022.
and Hindustan Power Exchange (HPX) functioning with • The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
guidance from the CERC. revealed the proposed rates via a notification on the E-
• IEX is approved and regulated by the CERC and has Gazette website on June 14.
been operating since 2008 and is a publicly listed • The ministry has prepared the draft Motor Third Party
company with NSE and BSE since 2017. Premium and Liability Rules for FY2023-24 after
• It is India’s premier energy marketplace, providing a consultation with the Insurance Regulatory and
nationwide automated trading platform for the physical Development Authority of India (IRDAI). The government
delivery of electricity, renewables, and certificates. has not changed premium rates for third-party motor
• The IEX has the largest market share of 88% in total insurance for current fiscal year.
power trade at multiple exchanges in India. • According to the ministry’s draft notification, the base
• Power Exchange India Limited (PXIL) is India’s first premium rates for third-party insurance have been kept at
institutionally promoted Power Exchange that provides Rs 2,094 for private cars with an engine below 1,000 cc, Rs
innovative and credible solutions to transform the Indian 3,416 for cars between 1000-1500 cc, and Rs 7,897 for
Power Markets since 2008. cars with an engine more than 1500 cc.
• Hindustan Power Exchange (HPX) is the new age • The base premium rates for two-wheelers not
power exchange in the Indian Electricity Market that exceeding 75 cc have been proposed at Rs 538. At the
provides a comprehensive market platform for different same time, for two-wheelers up to 350 cc and above the
electricity products. base premium rates vary in the range of Rs 714 and Rs
• Market coupling is done to couple different markets 2,804.
operating in different geographies. • Meanwhile, the proposed rates for Goods Carrying
• After coupling of exchanges, the price discovery of Commercial Vehicles (other than 3-wheelers) not
energy at trading platforms would be uniform, exceeding 7500 kg is Rs 16,049, while the rates for
transparent and is expected to bring down power tariffs commercial vehicles carrying upto 40,000 kgs and above
significantly. lie in the range of Rs 27,186-Rs 44,242.
• Government has requested the CERC to initiate the • The base premium rates for private electric cars not
process of consultation and finalisation of coupling. exceeding 30 KW have been proposed at Rs 1,780. For
electric cars in the range of 30 KW-65KW, proposed rates
540. In June as per report government announced base are Rs 2,904. Owners of electric cars exceeding 65 KW will
premium rates for third-party motor insurance for have to pay Rs 6,712.
different categories of vehicles, including passenger cars, • The ministry has proposed a discount of 15 per cent
commercial vehicles, and two-wheelers, for 2023-24 fiscal for educational institution buses, 50 per cent for a private
year. car registered as vintage car, and 15 per cent discount for
According to the ministry’s draft notification, the base electric vehicles.
premium rates for third-party insurance have been kept at • MoRTH regulates the base premium rates for motor
_________for private cars with an engine below 1,000 cc. third party insurance from time to time in accordance
A. Rs 2,156 with section 147 of the Motor Vehicles (MV) Act, 1988.
B. Rs 2,256
C. Rs 2,056 541. In June as per report India’s Union government
D. Rs 2,094 announced the MSPs (minimum support prices) for
E. Rs 2,586 ________ crops in this year’s Kharif season.
Answer: D A. 15
• The Centre announced base premium rates for third- B. 17
party motor insurance for different categories of vehicles, C. 21
including passenger cars, commercial vehicles, and two- D. 16
wheelers, for 2023-24 fiscal year. E. 14
Answer: B
• India’s Union government announced the MSPs • The Director General of the India Meteorological
(minimum support prices) for 17 crops in this year’s Kharif Department (IMD), Mrutyunjay Mohapatra was elected
season. as one of the three vice-presidents of the World
• MSPs play a very significant role not just for India’s Meteorological Organisation.
farmers and the farm economy but also for India’s • Along with Mohapatra, the UN agency for climate
consumers and the kind of food prices they face. change, weather and water elected two other vice-
• Recently, the government announced that MSPs for presidents as well.
the Kharif season will go up by an average of 7%; the • The WMO appoints one President and three vice-
actual range varies between 5% to 10.5% depending on presidents, who preside over the Executive Council and
the crop. the World Meteorological Congress.
• As per analysts, this is the highest MSP increase in the • Director of meteorology of Cote d'Ivoire, Daouda
last 5 years and the second highest in the last decade. Konate was elected as the first vice-president and Eoin
• MSP is a form of market intervention (a policy Moran, director of Met Éireann, was elected the second
decision not enforceable by law) by the Government of vice-president.
India to insure agricultural producers against any sharp • Abdulla Al Mandous, the director of United Arab
fall in farm prices during bumper production years. Emirates National Center of Meteorology, was elected
• The expected margin to farmers over their cost of President of WMO for a four-year term at the WMO
production are estimated to be highest in case of bajra elections held in Geneva.
(82%) followed by tur (58%), soybean (52%) and urad • Mohapatra hails from Odisha and is often referred to
(51%). For rest of the crops, margin to farmers over their as the ‘cyclone man of India’. He has been heading the
cost of production is estimated to be at least 50%. IMD since 2019.
• As per Third Advance Estimates for 2022-23, total • Earlier, India’s Earth Sciences Secretary M
Foodgrain production in the country is estimated at Ravichandran was also elected as the vice-chair of the
record 330.5 million tonnes which is higher by14.9 million Antarctic Treaty Consultative Mechanism (ATCM), an
tonnes as compared to the previous year 2021-22. This is annual decision making mechanism that establishes
the highest increase in the last 5 year. limitations on commercial sealing and provides a
• MSP of common grade variety of paddy has been mechanism to deal with it in Antarctica.
increased by Rs 143 to Rs 2,183 per quintal for the 2023-
24 crop year, from Rs 2,040 in the previous year. Highest 543. In June as per report Union Cabinet recently
increase in MSP was in moong by 10.4 per cent at Rs approved the constitution of an Inter-Ministerial
8,558 per quintal for 2023-23 crop year, as against Rs Committee (IMC) under the chairmanship of
7,755 per quintal in the previous year. __________to facilitate the world’s largest grain storage
• Government announces MSPs for 22 mandated crops plan in the cooperative sector.
and fair and remunerative price (FRP) for sugarcane. A. Amit Shah
• The mandated crops are 14 crops of the kharif season, B. Rajnath Singh
6 rabi crops and two other commercial crops. C. Nitin Gadkari
D. Giriraj Singh
542. In June as per report ____________was elected as E. Om Birla
the vice-presidents of the World Meteorological Answer: A
Organisation. • The Union Cabinet recently approved the constitution
A. Sarojni Mishra of an Inter-Ministerial Committee (IMC) to facilitate the
B. Rajiv Dhar world’s largest grain storage plan in the cooperative
C. Sanjay Kapoor sector.
D. Hasmukh Adhia • The IMC is to be constituted under the Chairmanship
E. Mrutyunjay Mohapatra of Minister of Cooperation with the Minister of
Answer: E Agriculture (MoAFW); Minister of Consumer Affairs; and
Minister of Food Processing Industries, etc., as other Answer: C
members. • Sylvester daCunha, the creator of the iconic ‘Amul
• At the regional level, only a few southern states have Girl’ and ‘Utterly Butterly’ campaigns, passed away. Amul
the storage capacity of 90% and above. In northern states paid tribute to him through a creative caricature featuring
like UP and Bihar, it is below 50%. him and the Amul girl.
• Under the new plan, the Ministry of Cooperation aims • Jayen Mehta, Managing Director of Amul marketer
to set up a network of integrated grain storage facilities Gujarat Cooperative Milk Marketing Federation Ltd,
through Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) termed the passing of daCunha a big loss to the
across the country. advertising industry.
• A PACS is a basic unit and smallest co-operative credit • Sylvester daCunha, along with his wife Nisha,
institution in India that works on the grassroots level conceptualized the famous 'Utterly Butterly' campaign for
(gram panchayat and village level). Amul in 1966, which introduced the world to the
• There are more than 1,00,000 PACS spread across the endearing 'Amul Girl.' This campaign, with its witty and
country with a huge member base of more than 13 crore timely messages, became an instant hit and continues to
farmers. captivate audiences to this day.
• Spread over 1 acre of land, the integrated facility will
be built at a cost Rs 2.25 crore - Rs 51 lakh will come as 545. What was the profession of Sulochana Latkar, who
subsidy, while the remaining will come as margin money recently passed away?
or loan. A. Singer
• The integrated modular PACS will have a custom B. Social Worker
hiring centre, procurement centres, primary processing C. Politician
units for cleaning and winnowing, a storage shed and D. Actress
container storage and silos. E. Sports person
• Though the plan does not have a separate Budgetary Answer: D
allocation, it will be implemented by the convergence of 8 • Veteran Hindi and Marathi film actress Sulochana
schemes. These schemes are - Latkar passed away in June 2023.
• The MoAFW’s Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF), • Veteran Hindi and Marathi film actress Sulochana
Agricultural Marketing Infrastructure Scheme (AMI), Latkar, who gained recognition as the archetypal
Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture Bollywood mother in the 1960s and the 70s, passed away
(MIDH), and Sub Mission on Agricultural Mechanisation aged 94 after a prolonged illness.
(SMAM). • She acted in more than 300 Marathi and Hindi films
• Two schemes of the Ministry of Food Processing and played on-screen mother to legendary icons including
Industries: PM Formalisation of Micro Food Processing Sunil Dutt, Rajesh Khanna, Dev Anand, Shashi Kapoor and
Enterprises Scheme (PMFME), and PM Kisan Sampada Amitabh Bachchan
Yojana (PMKSY). • She is still remembered for playing Jijabai, mother of
• Two schemes of the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj in Maratha Tituka Melvava
Food and Public Distribution: allocation of food grains (1964).
under the National Food Security Act, and Procurement
operations at Minimum Support Price. 546. Who is the author of the book titled 'Droupadi
Murmu: From Tribal Hinterlands to Raisina Hill'?
544. What is the name of creator of iconic Amul girl who A. Sanjana Roy
passed away recently in June? B. Mehak Sharma
A. C J Yesudasan C. Sanjiv Puri
B. Narayan Debnath D. Ramesh Sharma
C. Sylvester daCunha E. Kasturi Ray
D. Pulak Gogoi Answer: E
E. Rasipuram Krishnaswamy Laxman
• Droupadi Murmu, the first tribal President of India, A. Tori Bowie

has served as a remarkable source of inspiration for B. Allan Wells
countless individuals. C. Eddie Tolan
• Her transformative journey from Uparbeda village in D. Jim Hines
Odisha to becoming the Constitutional head of state is a E. Jesse Owens
remarkable tale. Answer: D
• Kasturi Ray, an experienced journalist, endeavours to • Jim Hines, who became the first man to officially
illustrate the challenges Murmu encountered on her path break the 10-second barrier in 100-meter sprints, passed
to success in her book, Droupadi Murmu: From Tribal away at the age of 76.
Hinterlands to Raisina Hill. • He recorded a hand-time of 9.9 seconds in the US
• Ray writes about Murmu’s everyday struggle. Championship in 1968.
• Ray also mentions about how some felt that Murmu’s • The US athlete broke his record at Mexico City
Presidential candidature was motivated by politics. Olympics to win gold when he clocked 9.95 seconds in an
• The book, however, gets repetitive in parts. It also electronic timer.
seems to rather favourably interpret BJP’s decision to • He was also a member of the 4x100 meter relay race
select Murmu as the Presidential candidate. team that won gold at the Olympics. He held his record
for 15 years till 1983 when Calvin Smith recorded 9.93
547. In June as per report ___________ defeated Karolina seconds.
Muchova 6-2, 5-7, 6-4 to win her third French Open title • It was the longest record for 100-meter men's sprints
and become the first woman to successfully defend the since the International Amateur Athletic Foundation
Roland Garros title since 2007. began maintaining the track 110 years ago.
A. Iga Swiatek • Born in the state of Arkansas in 1946 and raised in
B. Aryna Sabalenka Oakland, California, Jim Hines loved baseball in his early
C. Elena Rybakina days.
D. Coco Gauff
E. Ons Jabeur 549. In June as per report Defence Ministry recently
Answer: A accorded its approval to procure __________ MQ-9B
• Iga Swiatek battled past Karolina Muchova of Czech Predator drones (SeaGuardian variant) from the US to
republic 6-2, 5-7, 6-4 to win her third French Open title crank up the surveillance apparatus of the armed forces.
and become the first woman to successfully defend the A. 15
Roland Garros title since 2007. B. 20
• The 22-year-old Swiatek is just the third woman in the C. 25
Open era to win each of her first four Grand Slam finals, D. 31
the Pole adding to her 2020 and 2022 titles in Paris and E. 35
last year’s US Open triumph. • The Defence Ministry recently accorded its approval
• Monica Seles and Naomi Osaka are the only other to procure 30 MQ-9B Predator drones (SeaGuardian
players to accomplish the feat. variant) from the US to crank up the surveillance
• Swiatek, the world number one from Poland, is also apparatus of the armed forces.
the youngest woman to claim back-to-back French Open • The MQ-9B drone is a variant of the MQ-9 "Reaper",
titles since Monica Seles in the early 1990s. an unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV) capable of remotely
• Justine Henin was the last woman to win successive controlled or autonomous flight operations.
Roland Garros crowns when she captured her third in a • These are high-altitude long-endurance drones armed
row and fourth in total 16 years ago. with strike missiles which can take out enemy targets
with high accuracy.
548. What is the name of the first sprinter who broke the • It was developed by General Atomics Aeronautical
10-second barrier for 100m, who passed away recently in Systems(GA-ASI), primarily for the United States Air Force
june 2023? (USAF).
• The MQ-9B has two variants — SkyGuardian and its C. Third

sibling SeaGuardian. D. Fourth
• The Indian Navy has been operating the MQ-9B Sea E. Fifth
Guardian since 2020. Answer: D
• It can carry up to 5,670 kg and has a fuel capacity of • Fourth National Water Awards presented by Vice
2,721 kg. President Jagdeep Dhankhar in New Delhi on June 17.
• The drone can operate at over 40,000 feet. • A total of 41 winners were announced by the Ministry
• The Predator also has a maximum endurance of 40 of Jal Shakti covering 11 categories including joint
hours, making it useful for long-hour surveillance. winners for the National Water Awards, 2022.
• It can support land, maritime surveillance, anti- • First prize in the best state category has been awarded
submarine warfare, anti-surface warfare, strike, to Madhya Pradesh. The second prize went to Odisha and
electronic warfare and expeditionary roles. third prize was jointly awarded to Bihar and Andhra
Pradesh.
550. What is the name of the first commercial space • The award in the best district category was given to
station that is to be launched in 2025 by SpaceX and space Ganjam district of Odisha. 2nd prize went to Namakkal
startup Vast Space? District, Tamil Nadu and 3rd prize was given to Adilabad
A. Fateh -1 District, Telangana.
B. Haven-1 • Jagannathapuram Gram Panchayat in Bhadradri
C. Glory-1 Kothagudem district of Telangana was awarded the Best
D. Sparkle-1 Gram Panchayat Award.
E. Gravity-1 • The 2nd prize went jointly to Kadavur Village
• Two years from now SpaceX and space startup Vast Panchayat, Karur district, Tamil Nadu and Manickal
Space will launch the first commercial space station, Village Panchayat, Thiruvananthapuram district, Kerala
Haven-1. while 3rd prize was given jointly to Kadegaon Village
• The station will be a modular, expandable outpost Panchayat, Jalna district, Maharashtra and Mawkyrdep
that will provide a variety of research, commercial, and Village Panchayat, Bhoi Rymbong Block, Ri Bhoi district,
tourism opportunities. Meghalaya.
• The launch of Haven-1 is a significant milestone in the • The Award for the Best Urban Local Body was
commercialization of space as it is a sign of the growing conferred on Chandigarh Municipal Corporation,
interest in space exploration and the potential of private Chandigarh, the 2nd prize went to Indore Municipal
companies to play a leading role in this field. Corporation, Madhya Pradesh while 3rd prize was given
• Haven-1 will be the first space station to be built and jointly to Surat Municipal Corporation, Gujarat and
operated entirely by a private company in 2025 and it will Malkapur Municipal Council, Maharashtra.
be designed to accommodate up to six crew members. • The Award for the Best Media was conferred on
There will be different modules for research, living Advance Water Digest Private Limited Gurugram,
quarters, and cargo. Haryana.
The station will be launched on a SpaceX Falcon 9 rocket • The Award for the Best Institution for Campus usage
and will initially orbit at an altitude of 250 miles above was conferred on Shri Mata Vaishno Devi Shrine Board,
Earth. And will be equipped with different propulsion Reasi, Jammu and Kashmir.
systems that will allow it to maneuver in orbit and to • The Award for the Best Industry was conferred on
adjust its altitude. Barauni Thermal Power Station, Begusarai, Bihar.
• The Award for the Best NGO was conferred on Arpan
551. Which edition of National Water Awards has been Seva Sansthan, Udaipur, Rajasthan.
presented by Vice President Jagdeep Dhankhar in New • The Award for the Best Water User Association was
Delhi on June 17? conferred on the Sanjeevani Piyat Sahkari Mandli Ltd,
A. First Narmada, Gujarat.
B. Second
• The Award for the Best Industry for CSR Activities was recommended either by the respective state police chief
conferred on HCL Technologies Ltd., Noida, Uttar Pradesh. or the district road safety committee.
• Each awardee was awarded a citation and a trophy as • Short-term measures costing more than Rs.10 lakhs
well as a cash prize. and up to Rs. 25 lakhs have been delegated to the
• As part of the ongoing nationwide campaign to realize concerned Regional Office.
the government's vision of a water-rich India, the award • Short-term measures to improve black spots include
focuses on encouraging the good work and efforts made providing pedestrian facilities such as zebra crossings,
by various individuals and organizations. crash barriers and guardrails, advance warning signs,
• It seeks to create awareness among people about the junction improvements, solar lights/blinkers, road signs
importance of water and motivate them to adopt best and implementing traffic control measures.
water use practices. • Ministry of Road Transport and Highways has
• The Vice President said that to revive the country's identified black spots based on different parameters.
ancient water harvesting systems like ponds, there is a • Improving safety on National Highways is one of the
need to adopt the mantra of three Rs- Reduce, Reuse, topmost priorities of NHAI.
Recycle. • Every year, around 1.5 lakh people died due to road
• About 56 thousand Amrit Sarovars have been built in accidents in India.
the country and almost the same number of Amrit • As per the annual report 'Road Accidents in India —
Sarovars are under construction. 2021', the maximum number of fatalities from road
• National Water Awards were launched in 2018 by the accidents occurs in Uttar Pradesh.
Department of Water Resources, RD & GR.”
• India is home to about 18% of the world’s population, 553. In June as per report Election Commission has
over 18% of the livestock, but have just 4% of the fresh released the draft delimitation papers for Assam.
water resources of the world. As per draft EC proposed to retain the number of
• The Vice President also launched an animated short Assembly seats in Assam at ________ and the Lok Sabha
film on ‘Piku’, the mascot of National Water Mission for constituencies at _________.
telecast on Doordarshan to spread the message of water A. 124, 12
conservation. The event started with the traditional ‘Jal B. 112, 19
Kalash’ ceremony. C. 126, 14
D. 118, 21
552. In June, to improve road safety on National E. 110, 18
Highways, NHAI issued guidelines to rectify accident- Answer: C
prone spots on the national highways by implementing • The Election Commission has released the draft
short-term measures. delimitation papers for Assam.
As per the annual report 'Road Accidents in India — 2021', • In December 2022, the Election Commission began the
the maximum number of fatalities from road accidents delimitation of Assembly and Parliamentary
occurs in __________. constituencies in Assam by using the Census data of 2001
A. Uttar Pradesh for the readjustment seats.
B. Bihar • It has proposed to retain the number of Assembly seats
C. Delhi in Assam at 126 and the Lok Sabha constituencies at 14.
D. Madhya Pradesh • It has also proposed that the assembly seats reserved
E. Maharashtra for Scheduled Castes be increased from 8 to 9 and
Answer: A Scheduled Tribe seats from 16 to 19.
• To improve road safety on National Highways, NHAI • The draft of delimitation further proposes to reserve
issued guidelines to rectify accident-prone spots on the two parliamentary seats for STs, and one parliamentary
national highways by implementing short-term measures. seat for SCs.
• As per the new guidelines, NHAI project directors have • According to the Election Commission, the word
been delegated the work to rectify accident-prone spots ‘delimitation’ is defined as “the act or process of fixing
limits/boundaries of territorial constituencies in a country B. UNDP
or a province having a legislative body”. C. UNICEF
D. WHO
554. In June as per report Drug Controller General of India E. WEF
recently approved GEMCOVAC-OM. It is India’s first Answer: B
indigenous ________ vaccine for the Omicron variant. • The United Nations Development Program (UNDP) and
A. DNA Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana-National Urban Livelihoods
B. mRNA Mission (DAY-NULM) have entered into a collaborative
C. tRNA partnership.
D. rRNA • Its aim is to empower women to make informed career
E. Vrna choices in the field of entrepreneurship.
Answer: B • The partnership will help aspiring women start and
• Drug Controller General of India approved GEMCOVAC- expand their ventures in the care economy, digital
OM under emergency use guidelines. economy, electric mobility, waste management, food
• GEMCOVAC-OM is India’s first indigenous mRNA packaging, and other sectors.
vaccine for the Omicron variant. • Covering eight cities in the initial phase, this three-year
• It is developed by Pune-based Gennova project will focus on encouraging entrepreneurship
Biopharmaceuticals Ltd. development and accelerating enterprise development,
• Last year, the company received approval for which can be extended beyond 2025.
GEMCOVAC-19, the country’s first m-RNA vaccine against • An important objective of DAY-NULM is to empower
COVID-19. urban communities.
• GEMCOVAC-OM and GEMCOVAC-19 are yet to be • Today, women account for only 15 percent of the total
commercially available. entrepreneurs in India.
• According to the Gennova officials, the vaccines were • UNDP will offer national-level capacity building
likely to be formally launched within next two to three support to DAY-NULM leveraging its experience in linking
weeks. over 2,00,000 women to better employment
• After the approval last year of its vaccine against the opportunities.
Wuhan strain, Gennova manufactured 70 million doses. • The collaboration will focus on knowledge creation
• Out of these, 12 million were approved by the Central and management, such as compiling a compendium of
Research Institute, Kasauli. best practices related to urban poverty to enhance the
• GEMCOVAC-OM is stable in 2-8 degree Celsius range. implementation of national level plans.
Therefore, it can be stored in ordinary refrigerators. • DAY-NULM aims to uplift the urban poor by enhancing
• It can be administered into the skin via a needle-free sustainable livelihood opportunities through skill
PharmaJet system. development.
• The vaccine has also been tested at the National • The scheme extends its coverage to all 4,041 statutory
Institute of Virology against the newest (Omicron cities and towns, thereby covering most of India's urban
subvariant), XBB 1.16, and it is found to be effective. population.
• GEMCOVAC-OM generated more neutralising
antibodies. Neutralising antibodies prevent the 556. Recently seen in news Shakti Yojana was launched by
coronavirus from proliferating within the body. which of the following state government?
A. Odisha
555. In June as per report ___________and Deendayal B. Karnataka
Antyodaya Yojana-National Urban Livelihoods Mission C. Tamil Nadu
(DAY-NULM) have entered into a collaborative D. Kerala
partnership to empower women to make informed career E. Telangana
choices in the field of entrepreneurship. Answer: B
A. UNEP
• Karnataka Chief Minister has recently launched the • He said that in the year 2021, the National Disaster
'Shakti Yojana'. Mitigation Fund was constituted under the Central
• The Shakti Scheme is a free travel scheme for women Government with Rs 16,700 crore and under SDMF Rs
in ordinary state-run buses from Vidhana Soudha in 32,000 crore has been kept for mitigation activities.
Bengaluru.
• The Shakti smart cards are provided under the Shakti 558. In June as per report President of India confered
Scheme to women. National Florence Nightingale Awards 2022 and 2023 to
• This can be availed by registering on the ‘Seva Sindhu’ _________ awardees at Rashtrapati Bhavan.
government portal. A. 21
• The Shakti Scheme is not applicable to those buses, B. 25
which travel outside the state. C. 28
• 50% of seats in some ordinary and express buses will D. 30
be reserved for men. E. 32
• The transgender community are also eligible for the Answer: D
Shakti Scheme. • President of India Smt. Droupadi Murmu conferred the
National Florence Nightingale Awards for the year 2022
557. In June as per report Union Home Minister and 2023 to the nursing professionals at the Rashtrapati
announced three major schemes worth ___________ Bhavan.
crores for disaster management in the country. • Thirty nursing professionals were awarded the
A. Rs 8000 Cr prestigious award for their dedication, duty and service to
B. Rs 5000 Cr the community.
C. Rs 3000 Cr • Among the conferred of the National Florence
D. Rs 6000 Cr Nightingale award Major General Smita Devrani,
E. Rs 7000 Cr Additional Director General of Military Nursing Service
Answer: A (MNS) and Brigadier Amita Devrani, Brigadier MNS in
• On 13 June, Union Home and Cooperation Minister Shri Southern Command headquarters were also awarded for
Amit Shah chaired the meeting of State and Union the years 2022 and 2023.
Territories Disaster Management Ministers at Vigyan • The National Florence Nightingale Award, instituted by
Bhawan in New Delhi. the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare in 1973, is given
• Three major disaster management plans worth over Rs to nurses and nursing professionals in recognition of their
8,000 crore were announced for the country. meritorious services to the society.
• 1. Expansion and modernization of fire services in • The award consists of a Cash Award of Rs. 50000/-, a
states at a cost of Rs 5,000 crore. certificate and a medal.
• 2. ₹2,500 crore project for the seven most populous • Florence Nightingale was a British nurse, statistician,
metros - Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata, Bengaluru, and social reformer who was the foundational
Hyderabad, Ahmedabad and Pune - to reduce the risk of philosopher of modern nursing.
flooding in cities • International Nurses Day, observed annually on May
• 3. ₹825 crore National Landslide Risk Mitigation 12, commemorates her birth and celebrates the important
Project in 17 States and Union Territories for landslide role of nurses in health care.
mitigation.
• He said that comparing the nine years from 2005-06 to 559. Recently as per report governement announced to
2013-14 and the nine years from 2014-15 to 2022-23, the develop human index of ________ vulnerable tribal
fund release to SDRF has almost tripled to Rs.1,04,704 groups.
crore. A. 100
• In addition, the amount of funds released to NDRF has B. 80
almost tripled from Rs 25,000 crore to Rs 77,000 crore. C. 75
D. 70
E. 68 • Eight escalators of 19.15 metres height are in the
Answer: C process of being installed and all of them will be at CSMIA
• Recently, the Union Minister for Tribal Affairs has Terminal 2 metro station.
announced that the government is going to ‘design a • Prior to this, the previous tallest escalator in India is at
survey’ that can gauge the Human Development Index Janakpuri West metro station, which is part of the Delhi
(HDI) specifically for 75 PVTG communities comprising Metro Rail network. The escalator in India’s capital is 15.6
about 28 lakh people of the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal metres tall.
Groups (PVTGs) living in over 22,000 villages across the • The world's highest escalators measure 69m each, and
country. are in 3 underground stations of the Saint Petersburg
• The HDI is a summary measure of human Metro in Russia.
development. • The title of the world's tallest escalator system goes to
• It measures the average achievement of a country in Hong Kong's Central Mid-level escalator. At 135m tall, it
three basic dimensions of human development i.e.: runs for over 800 metres and comprises 20 escalators and
• Long and healthy life (measured by life expectancy at three inclined travelators.
birth)
• Education (measured by mean years of schooling and 561. According to the government data _________state is
expected years of schooling) on the first position in surrendering passports in the last
• A decent standard of living (measured by GNI per 10 years.
capita in PPP terms in US$) A. Punjab
• As per Census 2011, there are a total of 75 PVTGs out B. Kerala
of 705 Scheduled Tribes, spread over 17 states and one C. Goa
Union Territory (UT). D. Madhya Pradesh
• The government is going to collect information about E. Andhra Pradesh
the changes in the lives of PVTGs and document it and Answer: C
make a database from it at the village-level. • In the last 10 years, 1.6 mn Indians renounced
• Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman had in this year’s citizenship and 70k gave up passports.
Budget speech announced a ₹15,000-crore expenditure • Between 2011 and 2022, around 70,000 Indian citizens
outlay for the Pradhan Mantri Primitive Vulnerable Tribal have surrendered their passports.
Groups (PM-PVTG) Development Mission, to be spent over • More than 90 per cent of these surrendered passports
the next three years. were from just eight states. These states are: Goa, Punjab,
• The programme envisions connecting all 22,544 PVTG Gujarat, Maharashtra, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Delhi, and
villages to basic government services like Chandigarh.
communications, electricity, public education, healthcare, • The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) informed that
water supply, and connectivity. more than 40 per cent of the total surrendered passports
(69,303) were from Goa. Goa is the top state in
560. Recently as per report India’s tallest escalator will be surrendering passports.
installed at ________. • Punjab is in the second spot on the list of the most
A. Airport Chennai International Airport passports surrendered.
B. Airport Kempegowda International Airport Bengaluru • Only 239 passports were surrendered in 2011 but the
C. Airport Rajiv Gandhi International Airport number increased to 11,492 in 2012 and 23,511 in 2013.
D. Indira Gandhi International Airport • More than 1.6 million Indians renounced their
E. Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj International Airport citizenship between 2011 and 2022.
Answer: E • As per the Indian Citizenship Act, 1955, Persons of
• India’s tallest escalator will be at Chhatrapati Shivaji Indian Origin are not allowed to have dual citizenship.
Maharaj International Airport (CSMIA) Terminal 2 metro • If an individual holding an Indian passport acquires a
station, which is part of the Colaba-Bandra-SEEPZ passport from another country, he/ she must surrender
underground metro link. their Indian passport.
• Part-VII of the Scheme provides financial assistance to

562. In June as per report Centre approved___________ States for setting up libraries with digital infrastructure at
crore to 16 states under 'Special Assistance to States for Panchayat and Ward level.
Capital Investment 2023-24' scheme. • According to a Bank of Baroda report, out of 25 states
A. Rs 66,415 crore as many as 14 states met less than 75% of the target in
B. Rs 46,415 crore FY2023.
C. Rs 56,415 crore • The Centre had met its target both in terms of actual
D. Rs 36,415 crore capex in various areas as well as the loans disbursed to
E. Rs 26,415 crore states that were to be used for capex.
Answer: C
• Centre approved Rs 56,415 crore to 16 states under 563. According to the Metabolic non-communicable
'Special Assistance to States for Capital Investment 2023- health report of India-the ICMR-INDIAB National Cross-
24' scheme. sectional Study, India has __________ million people with
• Centre has approved Rs 56,415 crore for capital diabetes.
investment. The scheme was announced in the Budget for A. 105 million
2023-24. B. 107 million
• These states include Arunachal Pradesh, Bihar, C. 108 million
Chhattisgarh, Goa, Gujarat, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, D. 109 million
Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Mizoram, Odisha, E. 101 million
Rajasthan, Sikkim, Tamil Nadu, Telangana, and West Answer: E
Bengal. • The new national estimates for non-communicable
• State governments are being provided special diseases (NCDs)- “Metabolic non-communicable health
assistance in the form of 50-year interest free loan up to report of India-the ICMR-INDIAB National Cross-sectional
an overall limit of Rs 1.3 lakh crore during the financial Study” was recently released.
year 2023-24. • The study was funded by the Indian Council of Medical
• The scheme has eight parts. Part-I is the largest with Research and Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
grant-like special capex facility. • It was cross-sectional, population-based survey of
• In part-I of the scheme, states are being allocated the adults above 20 years, across the country using a
funds in proportion to their share of central taxes as per stratified, multistage sampling design.
the award of the 15th Finance Commission. • The four major NCDs are cardiovascular diseases,
• Part-I being the largest with allocation of Rs. 1 lakh cancers, chronic respiratory diseases and diabetes.
crore and has been allocated amongst States in • They all share behavioural risk factors such as
proportion to their share of central taxes & duties as per unhealthy diet, lack of physical activity, and use of
the award of the 15th Finance Commission. tobacco and alcohol.
• For the Part–II, Rs. 3,000 crores have been set aside for • India is facing the dual problem of malnutrition and
providing incentives to States for scrapping of State obesity as there is availability of surplus food, but after
Government vehicles and ambulances, etc. being exposed to fast foods, lack of sleep, exercise and
• Part–III & IV of the scheme aim at providing incentives stress creates NCDs.
to States for reforms in Urban Planning and Urban • India has 101 million people with diabetes and 136
Finance. million people with prediabetes.
• Part-V of the scheme aims at increasing the housing • 315 million people had high blood pressure; 254
stock for the police personnel and their families within the million had generalised obesity, and 351 million had
police stations in urban areas. abdominal obesity.
• The purpose under the Part-VI of the scheme is to • 213 million people had hypercholesterolaemia and 185
promote national integration, Make in India and One million had high low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol.
District, One Product (ODOP) through construction of
Unity Mall in each State.
• Hypercholesterolaemia is situation where fat gets Answer: C

collected in arteries and puts individuals at greater risk of • On 20 June, Members of the United Nations have
heart attack and strokes. adopted the first treaty to protect marine life in the high
• Highest diabetes states: in Goa, Puducherry and seas.
Kerala. • Representatives of 193 member countries approved
• Lowest NCDs states: U.P., Mizoram, Meghalaya and the treaty without any objection.
Jharkhand. • The treaty comes at a critical time when the oceans
• The study is the first comprehensive epidemiological are facing threats on many fronts. The treaty is vital to
research paper which includes participants from 31 States address these threats.
and some Union Territories, with a large sample size of • The sea outside national boundaries are called the
1,13,043 individuals. high seas. It covers about half of the Earth's surface.
• The negotiations for a treaty to protect biodiversity
564. In June as per report ___________ country conferred have been ongoing for more than 20 years, but efforts to
the country’s highest state honour “Order of the Nile” reach an agreement have repeatedly stalled.
award to the Prime Minister of India. • The new treaty will be presented for signature on
A. Australia September 20 during the annual meeting of world leaders
B. Japan at the UN General Assembly.
C. Germany • It will come into effect after 60 countries have ratified
D. Suriname it.
E. Egypt • The new treaty is under the United Nations Convention
Answer: E on the Law of Sea, which came into effect in 1994.
• Recently, the Egyptian President conferred the • UN’s Global Biodiversity Framework agreed in
country’s highest state honour “Order of the Nile” award December 2022 in Montreal at the Convention on
to the Prime Minister of India. Biological Diversity. Here, countries pledged to protect
• It is Egypt’s highest state honour. 30% of ocean, land and coastal areas by 2030 (known as
• Instituted in 1915, the ‘Order of the Nile’ is conferred ‘30×30’).
upon Heads of state, Crown Princes, and Vice-Presidents
who offer Egypt or humanity invaluable services. 566. Recently as per report India has decided to join the
• The ‘Order of the Nile’ is a pure gold collar consisting Artemis Accords, which brings like-minded countries
of three-square gold units comprising Pharaonic symbols. together on civil space exploration.
• The first unit resembles the idea of protecting the state As per report NASA and ISRO have agreed to a joint
against evils, the second one resembles prosperity and mission to the International Space Station in
happiness brought by the Nile, and the third one refers to ___________.
wealth and endurance. A. 2024
• Those who receive the 'Order of the Nile' shall be B. 2025
saluted upon their death. C. 20262027
D. 2028
565. On 20 June, Members of the United Nations have Answer: A
adopted the first treaty to protect marine life in the high • As per White House announcement, India has decided
seas. to join the Artemis Accords, which brings like-minded
As per treaty UN High Seas Treaty will now protect countries together on civil space exploration.
__________ of the world's oceans by 2030. • Also, NASA and ISRO have agreed to a joint mission to
A. 10 % the International Space Station in 2024.
B. 20 % • The Artemis Accords are a set of guidelines and
C. 30 % principles for international cooperation in space
D. 40 % exploration to the Moon and Mars.
E. 50 %
• They were established in 2020 by the United States in • Under the agreement Germany’s ThyssenKrupp Marine
coordination with other nations and international Systems (TKMS) and MDL are expected to join hands for
partners. the $ 5.2 billion deal.
• Artemis program is NASA's initiative to return humans • TKMS would provide engineering and design of the
to the Moon. vessels while MDL will be responsible for local
• In this program, NASA aims to land the first woman construction and delivery if the deal is finalised. India is
and the first person of colour on the Earth's natural looking to order six diesel-electric submarines.
satellite. • India’s plan to procure six stealth conventional
• NASA and the ISRO are developing a strategic submarines at a cost of around Rs 43,000 crore figured in
framework for human spaceflight cooperation this year. the talks and Boris Pistorius showed Germany’s interest in
• US companies are partnering with India to build a the project.
semiconductor ecosystem that promotes supply chain
diversification. 568. Consider the following statement regarding World
• Micron Technology with support from the Indian Economic Forum’s Gender Gap Report, 2023. Which of the
National Semiconductor Mission announced an following statement is incorrect?
investment of more than USD 800 million. A. India is ranked 127 out of 146 countries in terms of
• The United States will announce its support for India gender parity.
becoming a member of the Mineral Security Partnership B. The report says that India had closed 64.3% of the
(MSP). overall gender gap.
• MSP is led by the US State Department and C. Iceland is the world’s most gender-equal country for
strengthens critical minerals supply chain. the 14th consecutive year.
• The two countries are working together on 5G and 6G D. Among neighbours country Pakistan is the only country
technologies and including Open Radio Access Network behind India in the list at 142 rank.
(RAN) E. All of the above are correct
• India’s 5G and 6G and the US Next G alliance will be Answer: E
leading a new public-private Cooperation forum as well. • India’s rank has improved by eight places from last
year as per the World Economic Forum’s Gender Gap
• The US will also be welcoming Indian participation in
the US rip and replace programme that removes Report, 2023.
telecommunications equipment made by untrusted • As per the Gender Gap Report 2023, India is ranked
vendors. 127 out of 146 countries in terms of gender parity.
• India was ranked at 135 in the 2022 edition of the
567. In June as per report Germany’s ThyssenKrupp report. India had improved by 1.4 percentage points since
Marine Systems (TKMS) signed agreement with Mazagon the last edition.
Dock Limited for the $ 5.2 billion deal for • As per the report, India had achieved parity in
____________for diesel-electric submarines. enrolment across all levels of education.
A. 5 • The report says that India had closed 64.3% of the
B. 6 overall gender gap.
C. 7 • However, it had achieved only 36.7 % parity in
D. 8 economic participation and opportunity.
E. 9 • Iceland is the world’s most gender-equal country for
Answer: B the 14th consecutive year. As per the report, it is the only
• India and Germany moved a step closer to building country that has closed over 90% of its gender gap.
submarines for the Indian Navy at Mumbai based • It is followed in the top 5 by Norway, Finland, New
Mazagon Dock Limited (MDL) with an initial agreement Zealand and Sweden.
signed on 7 June. • The report points out that women’s share in technical
roles and senior positions had declined slightly since the
last edition.
• The index ranked India's neighbours Pakistan at 142, • According to the global livability index 2023, Vienna
Bangladesh at 59, China at 107, Nepal at 116, Sri Lanka at has been named the world's "most livable city" for 2023.
115 and Bhutan at 103. • The Global livability index 2023 has been released by
• India has recorded 25.3% parity on political the Economist Intelligence Unit (EIU).
empowerment. Women are representing 15.1% of • It has ranked 173 cities around the world on different
parliamentarians. This is the highest for India since the factors including health care, education, stability,
first edition of the report in 2006. infrastructure and the environment.
• Since 2017, 18 out of 117 countries have attained more • In this ranking, Denmark's Copenhagen is in second
than 40% representation of women in local governance. place while Australia's Melbourne and Sydney are in third
• These countries include Bolivia (50.4%), India (44.4%) and fourth positions.
and France (42.3 %). • India’s five cities- Bengaluru, Ahmedabad, Chennai,
• As per the report, an improvement of 1.9 percentage New Delhi and Mumbai - are also on the list of most
points for India in sex ratio at birth had improved parity. livable cities.
• The skewed sex ratios at birth explain low overall • New Delhi and Mumbai secured141st position.
rankings on the Health and Survival sub-index for Chennai, Ahmedabad and B engaluru are ranked 144th,
Vietnam, Azerbaijan, India and China. 147th and 148th, respectively.
• Gender parity at birth stands at 92.7% for India. It • The average index score across 172 cities (eliminating
stands below 90% for Vietnam, China and Azerbaijan. Kyiv in Ukraine) has now reached 76.2 out of 100. It is the
• At the overall level, the Southern Asian region has highest in the last 15 years.
attained 63.4% gender parity. This is the second-lowest of • UK capital London and Sweden's capital Stockholm
the eight regions. Europe has the highest gender parity at have reached 46th and 43rd positions.
76.3%. • As per the report, the health care scores have
• Gender Gap Report: is published annually by World improved the most.
Economic Forum since 2006. • Canada has the highest number of livable cities in the
• It examines four overall areas of inequality between top 10. These cities are Calgary (7th), Vancouver (5th) and
men and women. Toronto (9th).
• These four areas are economic participation and • Damascus is the least livable city in the world. Kyiv is
opportunity; educational attainment; health and survival; also in the bottom 10.
and political empowerment.
570. In June as per report India and the United States
569. Consider the following statement regarding Global have decided to end _________ trade disputes at the
livability index 2023. Which of the following statement is World Trade Organisation (WTO).
incorrect? A. 5
A. Vienna has been named the world's "most livable city" B. 4
for 2023. C. 6
B. Global livability index 2023 has been released by the D. 8
Economist Intelligence Unit (EIU). E. 9
C. US has the highest number of livable cities in the top Answer: C
10. • India and the United States have decided to end six
D. India’s five cities- Bengaluru, Ahmedabad, Chennai, trade disputes at the World Trade Organisation (WTO).
New Delhi and Mumbai - are also on the list of most • India will do away with customs duties on 28 American
livable cities. products like almonds, walnuts, and apples.
E. Damascus is the least livable city in the world. • The six disputes include three initiated by India and
Answer: C three initiated by the US.
• Austria's capital Vienna is the most livable city in the • At WTO, the first step to resolving a dispute is bilateral
world: Global livability index 2023. consultation.
• If the both sides are not able to resolve a dispute by 572. RBI carried out a four-day variable rate repo (VRR)
bilateral consultation, any side can approach setting up of auction on 19 June 2023. The notified amount for auction
a dispute settlement panel. was ____________.
• The rulings of panel can be challenged at WTO's A. ₹50,000 crore
appellate body, which is current non-functional due to B. ₹60,000 crore
non-appointment of members. C. ₹65,000 crore
• The US is the India’s largest trading partner. In 2022- D. ₹70,000 crore
23, bilateral goods trade between two countries increased E. ₹75,000 crore
from $119.5 billion in 2021-22 to $128.8 billion. Answer: E
• RBI carried out a four-day variable rate repo (VRR)
571. Recently as per report Senate India will introduce a auction on 19 June 2023.
bill to add India to NATO Plus group. • RBI carried out VRR auction to inject liquidity into the
At present NATO Plus is a group of _________country. banking system.
A. 4 • Banks’ tried to draw funds aggregating ₹75,695 crore
B. 3 from the RBI at the auction. The notified amount for the
C. 5 auction was ₹75,000 crore.
D. 7 • They received funds aggregating ₹75,004 crore at the
E. 8 cut-off rate of 6.51%.
Answer: C • RBI last time carried out VRR auction on May 19. Banks
• Senate India Caucus will introduce a bill to add India to drew funds aggregating ₹46,790 crore from the RBI at the
NATO Plus group. cut-off rate of 6.51%. The notified amount was ₹50,000
• Senators Mark Warner and John Cornyn are planning crore.
to introduce a bill to upgrade India-US defence ties. • The liquidity in the market has come down from
• The bill aims to make India a part of the NATO Plus around ₹1.50-1.60 lakh crore to around ₹85,000 crore on
group. 17 June 2023.
• It will facilitate the transfer of topmost American • The liquidity has come down mainly due to advance
technology and defence equipment without any tax outflows of about ₹1.50-lakh crore.
bureaucratic interference. • RBI’s target is to bring call money rate to 6.50%. RBI
• At present, NATO Plus 5 is a group of US, NATO and will carry out Variable Rate Reverse Repo (VRRR) if call
five aligned nations: Australia, New Zealand, Japan, Israel money trades around 6.25%.
and South Korea. • RBI will carry out VRR if call money trades at around
• India’s External Affairs Minister, S. Jaishankar, 6.75%.
however, had already rejected the framework for India.
• Mark Warner, the co-chair of the India caucus, has said 573. According to recent report ________ percent increase
that Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s State visit to the US was registered in the gross collection of direct taxes in the
will convert India-America ties into a “full-fledged financial year 2023-24.
partnership”. A. 11.27%
• The US wants to add India to NATO Plus 5 because B. 12.73%
China posed a challenge to both India and the US in many C. 16.84%
ways. D. 17.28%
• North Atlantic Treaty Organizationis an E. 18.61%
intergovernmental political and military alliance of 31 Answer: B
North American and European countries. • An increase of 12.73% was registered in the gross
• It was constituted in 1949 with the North Atlantic collection of direct taxes in the financial year 2023-24.
Treaty, which regulates the functioning of NATO. • In the financial year 2023-24, the figures of direct tax
• Its headquarters is located in Brussels, Belgium. collection up to 17 June showed that the net collection has
been Rs 3,79,760 crore.
• It was Rs 3,41,568 crore in the same period of the • The aircraft will be delivered between 2030 and 2035.
previous financial year i.e. FY 2022-23, which shows an • IndiGo has so far ordered a total of 1,330 Airbus
increase of 11.18%. aircraft since its establishment. It has currently 310
• Net direct tax collection (up to June 17) of Rs 3,79,760 aircraft and it 60% domestic market share.
crore includes Corporation Tax (CIT) of Rs 1,56,949 crore • IndiGo CEO Pieter Elbers said that the airline will
and Personal Income Tax (PIT) of Rs 2,22,196 crore double its fleet size by 2030.
including Securities Transaction Tax (STT). • Indigo’s earlier order of 480 aircraft is expected to be
• The gross collection of direct taxes (before adjustment delivered by the end of 2030.
of refunds) in the financial year 2023-24 stood at Rs • The Indigo airline is operating more than 1,800 daily
4,19,338 crore as compared to Rs 3,71,982 crore in the flights connecting 78 domestic destinations.
corresponding period of the previous financial year. • Earlier, Air India had signed a deal with Airbus to buy
• This shows an increase of 12.73% over the collection in 250 aircraft. Air India is owned by Tata Group.
FY 2022-23.
• The gross collection of Rs 4,19,338 crore includes 575. Recently as per report India has become a power
Corporation Tax (CIT) of Rs 1,87,311 crore and Personal surplus nation in the last nine years. India’s energy
Income Tax (PIT) of Rs 2,31,391 crore including Securities shortage has come down from ______ in 2014 to around
Transaction Tax (STT). 0.2% in 2023.
• In the first quarter of the financial year 2023-24, till A. 3.8%
June 17, the advance tax collection was Rs 1,16,776 crore. B. 4.2%
• While the advance tax collection in the same period of C. 4.6%
the immediately preceding financial year i.e. 2022-23 was D. 5.2%
Rs 1,02,707 crore, which shows an increase of 13.70%. E. 5.9%
• Advance tax collection of Rs 1,16,776 crore till June 17 Answer: B
includes corporation tax (CIT) of Rs 92,784 crore and • India has become a power surplus nation in the last
personal income tax (PIT) of Rs 23,991 crore. nine years. It has also become a net exporter of electricity
• Refunds worth Rs 39,578 crore have also been issued in in the last nine years.
FY 2023-24 till June 17, which is 30.13% higher than • India’s energy shortage has come down from 4.2% in
refunds of Rs 30,414 crore issued during the same period 2014 to around 0.2% in 2023.
in the previous FY 2022-23. • Union Power and New and Renewable Energy Minister
R K Singh said that all villages and households have been
574. In June as per report IndiGo signed a $50bn deal for electrified in India.
how many aircraft with Airbus? • He also said that average hours of supply in rural areas
A. 450 has grown from 12.5 in 2014 to 20.53 in 2023.
B. 250 • The average hours of supply stands at 23.78 hours for
C. 300 urban areas.
D. 500 • Non-fossil installed power capacity has increased to
E. 470 43% now (2023).
Answer: D • Union Minister said that government has awarded
• IndiGo team led by promoter & MD Rahul Bhatia and 1,000 megawatt hour battery storage project.
the Airbus team led by CEO Guillaume Faury signed the • India has exported 2,410 million units to Bangladesh,
historic $50bn deal. Nepal and Bhutan in FY23.
• The order of 500 aircraft comprises a mix of A320 neo, • The minister said 185 gigawatts (GW) of power has
A321 neo, and A321 xlr aircraft. The engine selection for been added in the last nine years and country’s
this order will be done later. cumulative installed capacity has increased to 416 GW.
• IndiGo placed the largest order ever by an Indian • India’s total generation capacity is 416 gigawatts. The
airline at the Paris Air Show. IndiGo is the largest airline minister said the highest peak demand has been recorded
by market share in India. at 221 gigawatts.
576. In June as per report _______ announced the 577. In June as per report Piramal Enterprises sold its
expansion of its partnership with National Employment complete 8.34% stake in Shriram Finance in a deal of
Savings Trust (Nest) for UK’s largest workplace pension around ___________.
scheme, in an £840-million (around $1.1-billion) deal for A. ₹1,390 crore
an initial tenure of 10 years. B. ₹1,937 crore
A. Wipro C. ₹2,743 crore
B. Infosys D. ₹3,162 crore
C. IBM E. ₹4,824 crore
D. Tata Consultancy Services Answer: E
E. Reliance Industries • Piramal Enterprises sold its complete 8.34% stake in
Answer: D Shriram Finance in a deal of around ₹4,824 crore.
• IT services giant Tata Consultancy Services (TCS) • It sold its 3.12 crore shares of Shriram Finance via
announced the expansion of its partnership with National multiple block deals on the National Stock Exchange.
Employment Savings Trust (Nest), UK’s largest workplace • After the block deals, shares of Shriram Finance surged
pension scheme, in an £840-million (around $1.1-billion) 15%.
deal for an initial tenure of 10 years, wherein it will • GIC Singapore was the largest buyer picking up 91.2
digitally transform the firm’s administration services for lakh shares. It is the sovereign wealth fund of Singapore.
enhanced member experiences. • It was followed by Societe Generale ODI. Societe
• The maximum estimated value of the contract, if Generale ODI bought 30.4 lakh shares of Shriram Finance.
extended to the entirety of its 18-year tenure, will be £1.5 • Total 54 buyers took part in the block deals.
billion (around $1.9 billion). • Earlier, TPG India Investments sold its whole 2.65%
• This is TCS’s fourth large deal from the region in 2023, stake in Shriram Finance for ₹1,390 crore.
following the $723-million deal from insurer Phoenix • In January 2023, Apax Partners had sold its 2.95%
Group, the Marks & Spencer deal, and the 10-year stake for ₹1,300 crore via block deals.
contract with the Teacher’s Pension Scheme in England
and Wales, amidst a challenging macro environment in 578. In June as per report according to Hong Kong-based
the region. Airports Council International (ACI) research ___________
• Nest and TCS have worked closely since 2011 when the tops airfare spike in Asia-Pacific and West Asia.
digital auto-enrolment pension scheme was first A. UAE
launched. Nest currently has more than 12 million B. India
members and, by the end of the next decade, it expects to C. China
have around £100 billion assets under management. D. Australia
• As a part of this extended partnership, TCS will deploy E. Singapore
solutions from TCS BaNCS to deliver personalised, self- Answer: B
directed experiences to members. • India witnessed the highest increase in airfares among
• TCS is the largest provider of software and IT services the 10 top aviation markets in the Asia-Pacific and West
in the UK, and has a workforce spanning 30 locations Asia collectively across both domestic and international
around the country. flights Q4 2019 and Q4 2022 in nominal terms, according
• Overall, with this, TCS would have bagged around five to research by Hong Kong-based Airports Council
large deals in the first half of calendar year 2023 so far. International (ACI).
The Marks & Spencer deal, according to reports, is worth • India, where fares went up by 41 per cent, was
$1 billion. followed by the UAE (34 per cent), Singapore (30 (per
• In India, it had recently bagged an advanced purchase cent) and Australia (23 per cent).
order of Rs 15,000 crore, or $1.8 billion, in a consortium • The study, which was undertaken in collaboration with
from the government-run telco BSNL to expand its 4G Flare Aviation Consulting, examined around 36,000 routes
network pan India. in the top 10 aviation markets in Asia-Pacific and West
Asia. ACI serves as a representative of 132 airport E. TechnoRoll Solutions
members operating 632 airports across 47 countries in the Answer: E
region. • Four Indian entities, including Giftolexia Solutions and
• Airports Council International is an organization of Xacmaz Technology, have been named in the World
airport authorities aimed at unifying industry practices for Economic Forum's (WEF) annual list of 100 most
airport standards. Established in 1991, its headquarters promising technology pioneers.
are based in Montreal, Quebec, Canada, and its members • The list comprises companies making strides in
operate nearly 2000 airports. sustainability, advanced manufacturing, and inclusive
healthcare.
579. In June as per report Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has • The other two Indian startups on the list are
allowed Reliance Industries (RIL) to retain evolutionQ, offering quantum-safe cybersecurity
__________billion over and above the $3 billion it had products, and Next Big Innovation Labs, developing
raised in the financial year 2022-23 (FY23). customisable 3D bioprinters for organ bioengineering.
A. $5 billion • The report added that Giftolexia Solutions is
B. $3 billion developing a deep technology-enabled screening tool to
C. $7 billion identify dyslexia risk in schoolchildren through gaze
D. $1 billion pattern analysis. Xacmaz Technology is creating a
E. $2 billion platform that converts satellite data into climate
Answer: E intelligence for climate risk, ESG investing, and carbon
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has reportedly given markets.
the permission to Reliance Industries to retain $2 billion • The selected companies joined a prestigious group of
over and above the $3 billion it had raised in the financial alumni that includes well-known names such as Airbnb,
year 2022-23 (FY23). Google, Kickstarter, Mozilla, Spotify, TransferWise,
• The major driving factor behind RBI’s permission given Twitter, and Wikimedia.
to the conglomerate was that the amount retained was • Launched in 2000, the Technology Pioneers community
exceeding the limit mandated by Mint Road. is composed of early-stage companies from around the
• RIL was also planning for a foreign currency loan of up world that are involved in the design, development and
to $2 billion. deployment of new technologies and innovations and are
• This is not the first time RBI has given permission for poised to have a significant impact on business and
such an increase. Reliance itself has sought special society.
permission from the RBI before. • The World Economic Forum is an international non-
• As per RBI guidelines, External Commercial Borrowings governmental and lobbying organisation for
(ECB) cap individuals can be up to $70 million per fiscal, multinational companies based in Cologny, Canton of
beyond this limit, companies will have to seek permission Geneva, Switzerland. It was founded on 24 January 1971
from the central bank to raise further money abroad. by German engineer Klaus Schwab.
• The loan is a five-year ECB and is reportedly the largest
syndicated term loan by an Indian company in at least five 581. In June as per report Government announced that it
years. will extend extended cover under ECIB scheme with
enhanced cover of 90% to accounts with limits up
580. In June as per report four Indian entities has made its to__________.
entrant in the World Economic Forum's (WEF) annual list A. Rs. 10 crore
of 100 most promising technology pioneers. B. Rs. 20 crore
Which of the following is not among the list? C. Rs. 30 crore
A. Giftolexia Solutions D. Rs. 40 crore
B. Xacmaz Technology E. Rs. 50 crore
C. evolutionQ Answer: E
D. Next Big Innovation Labs
• Government will extend extended cover under ECIB • According to the Petroleum Planning and Analysis Cell
scheme with enhanced cover of 90% to accounts with (PPAC), India’s cumulative crude oil processing was 4.85
limits up to Rs. 50 crore. mb/d in FY22. This increased to 5.02 mb/d in FY23.
• Last year, cover under ECIB scheme was extended by • Production from the planned 1.2 mb/d Ratnagiri
ECGC Ltd. for the accounts with export credit working refinery is not expected to start production during the
capital limits up to Rs. 20 crore sanctioned by the banks IEA’s forecast period (2022-2028).
(excluding Traders and GJD Exporters) with enhanced • The expansion of Panipat refinery to 25 MTPA is likely
cover of 90%. to be completed by September 2024.
• Four banks have so far opted for enhanced cover under • The expansion of Gujarat refinery to 18 MTPA is likely
Export Credit Insurance for banks (ECIB). to be completed in 2023.
• The names of four banks are SBI, Central Bank of India • The expansion of Baruni refinery to nine MTPA are
(CBI), Bank of Maharashtra and Saraswat Bank. likely to be completed in 2023.
• The benefit of the enhanced cover will be extended to • Bharat Petroleum Corporation (BPCL) is expanding
the accounts with limits up to Rs. 50 crore for above four capacity at Bina (Madhya Pradesh) from 7.8 MTPA to 11
banks. MTPA.
• This is expected to benefit around 3,000 exporter- • Hindustan Petroleum Corporation (HPCL) is also
borrower accounts. expanding its refineries at Bhatinda and Vizag and the
• In July 2022, ECGC has introduced new scheme to Greenfield refinery at Barmer, which are likely to be
provide enhanced export credit risk insurance cover up to completed in FY24.
90% for small exporters. • Globally, over 6 mb/d of new crude distillation
• ECGC Ltd. was set up in 1957 under the Companies Act. capacity is likely to be added from 2022 to 2028.
It is headquartered in Mumbai, Maharashtra. • China is likely to be the single largest contributor to
• It was set up to promote exports from India through the six mb/d of new capacity. India and the Middle East
providing export credit insurance services to exporters are likely to be in 2nd place.
and banks. • International Energy Agency was founded in November
• It works under the administrative control of the 1974. It is headquartered in Paris, France. It has 31
Ministry of Commerce and Industry. member countries.
582. According to the latest refining capacity numbers by 583. In June as per report Department for Promotion of
the International Energy Agency, India’s refining capacity Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) has released a report
will increase from 5.2 million barrels per day (mb/d) in on foreign direct investment from differnet countries.
2022 to _________ in 2028. As per report ___________was the fourth largest investor
A. 6.2 mb/d in India in 2022-23.
B. 7.2 mb/d A. UAE
C. 8.2 mb/d B. Netherland
D. 9.2 mb/d C. Bangladesh
E. 10.2 mb/d D. Egypt
Answer: A E. Africa
• India’s refining capacity will increase from 5.2 million Answer: A
barrels per day (mb/d) in 2022 to 6.2 mb/d in 2028. • The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal
• This is according to the latest refining capacity Trade (DPIIT) has recently released a report on foreign
numbers by the International Energy Agency (IEA). direct investment from differnet countries.
• It is expected that India will add one mb/d of refining • The UAE was the fourth largest investor in India in
capacity in the next five years. 2022-23 as compared to the seventh largest in 2021-22.
• India is currently the world’s fourth largest crude oil • Singapore was the largest investor in India with $17.2
refiner. billion investment in FY23, followed by Mauritius ($6.1
billion) and the US ($6 billion).
• UAE's investments in India are mainly in sectors like were increasing shipments of iron and steel, aluminium,
services, sea transport, power and construction activities. and polymers,.
• UAE has committed to invest USD 75 billion in the • The UAE is the principal supplier of petroleum products
Indian infrastructure sector over a period of time. to India and is also a large consumer of refined petroleum
• India and the UAE have operationalised a products.
comprehensive free trade agreement which allows many • The two sides agreed to set up various committees and
goods from both countries to get zero-duty access to each technical councils to implement provisions of the CECA in
other's markets and easing norms for promoting areas such as trade in goods, customs facilitation, rules of
investments. origin, sanitary, phytosanitary, and technical barriers to
• India has attracted $15.6 billion worth of overseas trade issues, trade remedies, investment facilitation, and
inflows from the UAE. economic co-operation.
• The Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement • A new sub-committee for handling matters related to
aims to achieve $100 billion non-oil trade. trade in services would also be set up. Services trade data
• A new sub-committee will set up to handle issues will now be exchanged on a quarterly basis.
related to services trade.
585. In June as per report Pension Fund Regulatory and
584. In June as per report India and the UAE have set a Development Authority (PFRDA) will introduce a new
target of doubling non-oil bilateral trade to _______ feature in the Systematic Lumpsum Withdrawal plan
billion by 2030 from $48 billion at present. during the second half of 2023.
A. $500 billion As per plan National Pension Scheme (NPS) subscribers
B. $100 billion will be allowed to withdraw __________% of the
C. $300 billion accumulated corpus in a systematic manner post-
D. $400 billion retirement up to the age of 75.
E. $200 billion A. 10 %
Answer: B B. 20 %
• India and the UAE have set a target of doubling non-oil C. 60 %
bilateral trade to $100 billion by 2030 from $48 billion at D. 70 %
present. E. 50 %
• Goyal and the UAE’s Minister of State for Foreign Answer: C
Trade, Thani bin Ahmed Al Zeyoudi, took the decision to • In a bid to bring in more people-friendly initiatives, the
revise the target from the earlier goal of an overall Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority
bilateral trade of $100 billion by 2030 at the first meeting (PFRDA) intends to introduce a plan during the second
of the Joint Committee of the India-UAE Comprehensive half of this fiscal, to allow the subscribers of the National
Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA). Pension Scheme (NPS) to withdraw 60% of the
• On the proposed rupee-dirham trade, Goyal pointed accumulated corpus in a systematic manner instead of the
out that discussions were progressing at a fast pace. “The current system of a one-time withdrawal.
RBI and the Central Bank of the UAE have been in active • As per the proposal, NPS subscribers would be allowed
dialogue. The Finance Ministry is also supportive of the to systematically withdraw 60% of their corpus post-
issue. retirement up to the age of 75, instead of the current
• The UAE Minister pointed out that in the first 12 system of one-time withdrawal, while 40% has to be
months of the CEPA, bilateral non-oil trade reached $50.5 invested in annuity.
billion, which was 5.8 per cent higher than the • Currently, National Pension Scheme (NPS) subscribers
corresponding period a year earlier. after turning 60 years withdraw up to 60 per cent of the
• The CEPA was benefitting Indian exports from sectors retirement corpus as a lump sum while the remaining 40
such as textiles, agriculture products, footwear, per cent of the corpus mandatorily goes into buying an
automobiles,gems and jewellery, while UAE exporters annuity.
• The amount can be fixed by the subscriber any number hold operational risk capital at a minimum equal to the
of times and it can be withdrawn in lumpsum or in business indicator.
monthly, quarterly, half yearly or annually basis. It is • The risk-weighted assets for operational risk shall be
applicable to those in the age group of 60 to75. calculated by multiplying the operational risk capital by
12.5.
586. In June as per report Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has • Also, banks will have to annually disclose general
finalised directions for commercial banks to hold sufficient qualitative information on its operational risk framework,
regulatory capital against their exposures arising from historical losses and quarterly notify minimum required
operational risks. operational risk capital and business indicator and
As per guidelines which of the following are excluded subcomponents.
from the application of these norms for operational risk
capital? 587. In June as per report __________has been appointed
A. Local Area Banks, as the new chief of India's external intelligence agency
B. Payment Banks, RAW.
C. Regional Rural Banks A. Rameshwar Nath Kao
D. Small Finance Banks B. Ravi Sinha
E. All of the above C. Arun Kumar Sinha
Answer: E D. Anil Dhasmana
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has finalised directions E. Rajinder Khanna
for commercial banks to hold sufficient regulatory capital Answer: B
against their exposures arising from operational risks. • On 19 June, senior IPS officer Ravi Sinha has been
• The directions require all specified commercial banks, appointed as the new chief of India's external intelligence
excluding local area banks, payments banks, regional agency RAW.
rural banks, and small finance banks, to hold sufficient • Presently, Shri Sinha is working as Special Secretary,
regulatory capital against their operational risk Cabinet Secretariat.
exposures. • Sinha will succeed Samant Kumar Goel, who will
• Operational risk means the risk of loss resulting from complete his tenure on June 30, 2023.
inadequate or failed internal processes, people and • The Cabinet Appointments Committee has approved
systems or from external events. This definition includes the appointment of Sinha as Secretary, Research and
legal risk, but excludes strategic and reputational risk. Analysis Wing (RAW) for a tenure of two years.
• RBI's all existing approaches including basic indicator • Research and Analysis Wing (RAW) is India’s foreign
approach, the standardised approach, and advanced intelligence agency. It is headquartered in New Delhi. It
measurement approach for measuring minimum was founded in 1968.
operational risk capital requirements will be replaced by a
new standardised approach, in line with Basel III rules, 588. Recently as per report _________ has become
with coming into effect of these directions. America's first Muslim female federal judge.
• Banks will be bucketed in three segments based on A. Sujata Manohar
their business indicator component. B. Anjali Sharma
• The operational risk capital of banks' requirements C. Gyan Sudha Misra
shall be equal to business indicator, which may however D. Ruma Pal
require banks in buckets 2 and 3 to calculate their E. Nusrat Choudhury
operational risks using data fewer than five years of loss if Answer: E
the internal loss multiplier is greater than one and the • US Senate confirmed that Nusrat Choudhury is set to
supervisor believes that these losses are representative of become the judge of the District Court for the Eastern
the banks' operational risk exposure. District of New York.
• Banks in buckets 2 and 3 which do not meet the five • She will be the first Bangladeshi-American and female
years of high-quality loss data criteria will be required to Muslim federal judge in the United States.
• She received 50 vote in her favour while 49 votes were A. Sweden

casted against her. B. Estonia
• She is the legal director of the American Civil Liberties C. Latavia
Union (ACLU) of Illinois. D. Finland
• She was deputy director of the organization's racial E. Iceland
justice program from 2018 until 2020. Answer: D
• She was nominated by US President Joe Biden to the • Petteri Orpo has been elected as the Prime Minister of
federal bench in January 2022. Finland.
• She spent most of her professional career with the • Orpo is the leader of the conservative party in Finland.
national ACLU where she worked on racial justice and • Orpo will be leading a coalition government made up
national security issues. of four parties. The coalition includes the far-right Finns
Party.
589. In June as per report Swaminathan Janakiraman has • Orpo has been elected as the Prime Minister after
been selected for the post of Deputy Governor in the victory in the April elections.
Reserve Bank of India (RBI). • President Sauli Niinisto will formally appoint Orpo as
He was the Managing Director of which of the following the new prime minister. Orpo will succeed Sanna Marin.
bank? • Sanna Marin is the leader of the Social Democratic
A. Bank Of Baroda Party of Finland.
B. State Bank Of India • Social Democratic Party stood at third place in the
C. Punjab National Bank elections after Orpo's National Coalition Party (NCP) and
D. Canara Bank the Finns Party.
E. Central Bank Of India • Its capital is Helsinki, and its currency is Euro.
Answer: B
• Swaminathan Janakiraman has been appointed as RBI 591. In June as per report Alibaba announced __________
Deputy Governor. as its new chairman and CEO as part of a major change.
• State Bank of India Managing Director Swaminathan A. Eddie Wou
Janakiraman has been selected for the post of Deputy B. Daniel Zhang
Governor in the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). C. Ming Zhou
• The appointment of Swaminathan Janakiraman has D. Ksang Zhou
been approved by the Appointments Committee of the E. Joseph Tsai
Cabinet. Answer: E
• He will replace Deputy Governor M.K. Jain whose • Alibaba announced new chairman and CEO as part of a
tenure will end on 30 June. M.K Jain was appointed to this major change.
critical role in 2018. • Joseph Tsai, executive vice president and co-founder of
• His tenure will be of three years from the date of Alibaba (BABA), has been appointed as the chairman.
Joining or until further orders, whichever is earlier. • Joseph Tsai will succeed Daniel Zhang as chairman.
• Dr M.D. Patra, M.R. Rao and T. Rabi Shankar are the • The chairman of e-commerce unit Taobao and Tmall
other three deputy governors of RBI. Group, Eddie Wu will succeed Zhang as chief executive
• Out of the four deputy governors, two are traditionally officer of Alibaba.
selected from executive directors of RBI. One is nominated • In September, both the appointments will be effective
from among chairpersons of PSB and the other is an and Zhang will continue to serve as chairman and CEO of
economist. cloud unit of Alibaba.
• RBI can have a maximum of four deputy governors and • In March, the company was announced that they were
one governor. splitting into six separate units including cloud, e-
commerce, logistics, media and entertainment.
590. In June as per report Petteri Orpo has been elected as • Each unit is now overseen by its own CEO and board of
the Prime Minister of ___________. directors.
• Alibaba is China's largest e-commerce company, with prize for Chemistry, has passed away. He was just a
more than 900 million annually active users on its Taobao month short of turning 101.
and Tmall platforms. It was founded on 28 June 1999. • British-American scientist Stan Whittingham, who
shared the Nobel prize with Goodenough, was the first to
592. Recently new scheme of education and training for reveal that lithium can be stored within sheets of titanium
chartered accountancy course has been approved by the sulphide.
centre. It is likely to be launched from July 1 when ICAI • Goodenough perfected it with a cobalt-based cathode
will celebrate _______ anniversary of its foundation. to create a product that today touches nearly everyone’s
A. 25th life.
B. 50th • Goodenough also played a significant role in the
C. 75th development of Random Access Memory (RAM) for
D. 100th computers.
E. 125th • John Goodenough was born to American parents in
Answer: C Jena, Germany, per the Nobel Prize website. After
• New scheme of education and training for chartered studying mathematics at the Yale University, he served
accountancy course has been approved by the centre. the US Army during the Second World War as a
• The scheme is likely to be launched from July 1 when meteorologist.
ICAI will celebrate 75th anniversary of its foundation. • In 2008, Goodenough wrote his autobiography,
• President Droupadi Murmu will be the chief guest for Witness to Grace, which he called “my personal history”.
the CA foundation day event in New Delhi on 01 July. The book touches upon science and spirituality.
• Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI) is the
world’s largest accounting body (members and students 594. What is the name of the U.S. military analyst, who
put together). leaked Pentagon Papers exposing Vietnam War secrets
• The new curriculum has been approved by both the passed away in june 2023?
law ministry and corporate affairs ministry. A. Daniel Ellsberg
• ICAI has now proposed practical training of two years B. John McCorthy
for CA aspirants. Students currently go through a three C. William Sean
year practical training. D. Hary Tector
• Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI) was E. Curtis Cumpher
established on 01 July 1949 as a statutory body by the Answer: A
Chartered Accountants Act, 1949. • Daniel Ellsberg, who leaked Pentagon Papers exposing
• It regulates the Chartered Accountancy profession in Vietnam War secrets, dies at 92. Ellsberg, a former
India. It is headquartered in New Delhi. Aniket Sunil Talati government analyst and consultant, leaked the Pentagon
is its president. Papers in 1971, which exposed government doubts and
deceit regarding the Vietnam War.
593. In June as per report John Bannister Goodenough co- • His actions inspired acts of retaliation by President
inventor of Lithium-ion batteries passed away. Richard Nixon and contributed to Nixon’s resignation.
He won the 2019 Nobel prize in which of the field? • Ellsberg’s actions, which exposed the government’s
A. Peace deception and doubts regarding the Vietnam War, had
B. Literature far-reaching consequences and played a role in President
C. Economics Richard Nixon’s resignation.
D. Physics • Ellsberg revealed his terminal illness with pancreatic
E. Chemistry cancer in February.
Answer: E • Ellsberg took a secret action in 1971 to share
• John Bannister Goodenough, the American co-inventor important information with the media, hoping to help
of Lithium-ion batteries and a co-winner of 2019 Nobel bring an end to the Vietnam War more quickly.
• However, this made him a target of attacks by the • Olympian Bhavani Devi created history by winning a
Nixon White House, which tried to harm his reputation. bronze medal at the Asian Fencing Championships in
Wuxi, China.
595. United Nations observes World Day to Combat • On 19 June, Bhavani Devi defeated reigning world
Desertification and Drought ___________every year to champion Misaki Emura in the quarterfinals of the Asian
promote public awareness of the issue of Desertification Fencing Championships.
and Drought. • This is India's first medal in this competition.
A. 15th June • In the semi-finals of the women's sabre event, she lost
B. 18th June 14-15 to Uzbekistan's Zeynab Dayibekova.
C. 17th June • In the pre-quarterfinals, Bhavani pulled off an upset by
D. 14th June defeating third seed Ozaki Seri 15-11.
E. 11th June • The next challenge for Bhavani will be the World
Answer: C Championships to be held in Milan from July 22 to 30.
• Every year on June 17th, the World Day to Combat • Asian Fencing Championships is a fencing zonal
Desertification and Drought highlights methods to championship organized by the Asian Fencing
prevent desertification. It’s also a day to focus on finding Confederation for the Asia-Oceania region.
ways to recover from drought. • The first Asian Fencing Championships were held in
• Desertification is the process by which fertile land Tehran in 1973.
becomes desert. This is usually a result of drought,
• The tournament resumed in 1989 and has been held
deforestation, or inappropriate agriculture. annually since 2007. It provides points for the Fencing
• Theme (2023): “Her land Her rights.” World Cup.
• This theme emphasizes that investing in women’s
equal access to land and associated assets is a direct 597. Who among the followings have won the men's
investment in their future and the future of humanity. doubles title at the Indonesia Open?
• The Indian Council for Forestry Research and Education A. Srikanth Kidambi and Lakshya Sen
(ICFRE) introduced the National Working Plan Code-2023 B. Satwiksairaj Rankireddy and Chirag Shetty
(NWPC) coinciding with the 'World Day To Combat C. Prannoy H. S and Chirag Shetty
Desertification & Drought.' D. Chetan Anand and Lakshya Sen
• The NWPC will incorporate the India Forest E. None of the above
Management Standards (IFMS). Answer: B
• IFMS is a set of eight comprehensive guidelines and • The Indian duo of Satwiksairaj Rankireddy and Chirag
rules applicable to all states. Shetty creates history by winning the men's doubles title
• The NWPC will serve as a guiding principle for State at the Indonesia Open.
Forest Departments in preparation for the working plan • They have become the first doubles pair from India to
for different forest divisions in the country. win the Super 1000 event.
• They defeated Aaron Chia and Soh Wooi Yika of
596. In June as per report Olympian Bhavani Devi created Malaysia by 21-17, 21-18 to clinch the Indonesia Open
history by winning a bronze medal at the Asian Fencing Men's Double Title, in Jakarta.
Championships held in ___________. • This pair has also won the gold medal at the
A. Wuxi, China Birmingham Commonwealth Games and bronze at the
B. Tokyo, Japn world championships.
C. Belgrade, Serbia • It was also their first win over the Malaysian pair in
D. Paris, France the ninth meeting.
E. Dhaka, Bangladesh • Saina Nehwal (2010, 2012) and Kidambi Srikanth
Answer: A (2017) have won the tournament in singles events.
• The BWF (Badminton World Federation) World Tour is • In the 46th minute of the second half, Indian captain
divided into six levels — World Tour Finals, Super 1000, Sunil Chhetri scored a goal to put India ahead 1-0.
Super 750, Super 500, and Super 300 and Super 100. • Lallianzuala Chhangte scored the second goal in the
• V. Axelsen won the Men’s Singles title while Y.F. Chen 65th minute to give the country an unassailable 2-0 lead.
won the Women’s Single title at the Indonesia Open. • This is India's second title in the tournament, after
• S.H. Lee and H.N. Baek won the Women’s doubles title. their victory in the inaugural edition in 2018.
• North Korea won the second edition of tournament in
598. Which of the following team become the second 2019.
team to win the Premier League, FA Cup and Champions • This was Chhetri's 87th international goal in 137
League in the same season? matches.
A. Manchester United • Chhetri remains the third-highest goalscorer among
B. Manchester City active players in international football, behind only
C. Inter Milan Portuguese star Cristiano Ronaldo and Argentina's Lionel
D. Barcelona Messi.
E. Bayern Munich • It was the third edition of the Intercontinental Cup,
Answer: B which was held from 9 to 18 June 2023. Four countries
• Manchester City beat Inter Milan 1-0 in a tight had taken part in the tournament.
Champions League final to become European champions • It was launched in 2018 as a replacement for the Nehru
for the first time and secure the treble. Cup.
• They are the first English club to win the Premier
League, FA Cup and Champions League in the same 600. Recently as per report India finished their campaign
season since city rivals Manchester United in 1998-99. with _________ medals at the Special Olympics, which
• The club has risen to become the dominant force in the celebrates unity, diversity and special skills among people
English game under Mansour's stewardship, having won with intellectual disabilities.
seven Premier League titles in the past 12 years and five A. 202
of the last six. B. 212
• The UEFA Champions League is an annual club C. 196
association football competition organised by the Union D. 186
of European Football Associations and contested by top- E. 175
division European clubs. Answer: A
• India finished their campaign with 202 medals (76
599. On 18 June, Indian Men's Senior Football Team gold, 75 silver and 51 bronze) at the Special Olympics,
defeated ___________ 2-0 in the final at the Kalinga which celebrates unity, diversity and special skills among
Stadium in Bhubaneswar to won Intercontinental Cup people with intellectual disabilities.
football tournament. • The Special Olympics World Games 2023 came to an
A. Bangladesh end in Berlin following the closing ceremony which was
B. Pakistan held at the historical Brandenburg gate.
C. Vietnam • The mascot, this year, was named ‘Unity’, by special
D. Saudi Arabia athletes, to celebrate inclusivity and togetherness.
E. Lebanon • The motto for this year’s Special Olympics and World
Answer: E Games was “unbeatable together”.
• India has won the 2023 Intercontinental Cup football
tournament. 601. In June as per report ___________won 2023 NBA
• On 18 June, Indian Men's Senior Football Team championship by defeating Miami Heat.
defeated Lebanon 2-0 in the final at the Kalinga Stadium A. Brooklyn Nets
in Bhubaneswar. B. New York Knicks
C. Denver Nuggets
D. Toronto Raptors and rover (Pragyan) for their Chandrayaan-3 equivalents
E. Chicago Bulls as well.
Answer: C • Following Chandrayaan-2, where a last-minute glitch
• The Nuggets defeated the Miami Heat 94-89 — led to the failure of the lander's (Vikram) soft landing
winning the best-of-seven series in five games. attempt after a successful orbital insertion, another lunar
• Center Nikola Jokić led the team with 28 points and 16 mission (Chandrayaan-3) for demonstrating soft landing
rebounds and was named the most valuable player. was proposed.
• It's the franchise's first title in its 47-year history in th • Chandrayaan-3 ("mooncraft") is a planned 3rd lunar
• The National Basketball Association is a professional exploration mission by the ISRO to demonstrate end-to-
basketball league in North America composed of 30 end capability in -
teams. • Safe landing (through the lander Vikram - after Vikram
• It is one of the major professional sports leagues in the Sarabhai, the father of the Indian space programme) and
United States and Canada and is considered the premier • Roving (through the rover Pragyan) on the lunar
professional basketball league in the world. surface.
• Unlike Chandrayaan-2, it will not have an orbiter and
602. What is the name of the vessel that went missing in its propulsion module will behave like a communications
the area of the Titanic wreck in the North Atlantic? relay satellite.
A. Titan • Chandrayaan-3 interplanetary mission has three major
B. Euclodos modules: the Propulsion module, Lander module, and
C. Viper Rover.
D. Octopus • ISRO plans to launch the third moon mission in mid-
E. Shark July aboard the LVM3 (formerly GSLV Mk-III) rocket from
Answer: A Sriharikota.
• The Titan, the vessel that went missing in the area of • It has Spectro-polarimetry of Habitable Planet Earth
the Titanic wreck in the North Atlantic, is classified as a (SHAPE) payload to study the spectral and polarimetric
submersible, not a submarine. measurements of Earth from lunar orbit.
• It was designed to transport five people to depths of • It will have 4 payloads -
around 4,000m in order to reach the Titanic shipwreck, • Radio Anatomy of Moon Bound Hypersensitive
which lies approximately 370 miles south of ionosphere and Atmosphere (RAMBHA) to study the
Newfoundland, Canada. temporal evolution of electron density in the Lunar
• The primary difference between a submersible and a ionosphere.
submarine is that the former is launched from a mother • Chandra’s Surface Thermophysical Experiment
vessel, or home vessel. (ChaSTE) to measure the thermal conductivity and
• Submersibles are typically launched on a raft or temperature;
platform which is placed into water and ultimately • Instrument for Lunar Seismic Activity (ILSA) for
descends down via four electric thrusters which help it to measuring the seismicity around the landing site;
reach speeds of 3 knots. • Langmuir Probe (LP) to estimate the plasma density
and its variations.
603. What is the name of the rover for Chandrayaan-3?
• A propulsion module will carry the lander-rover
A. Vikram
configuration to a 100-km lunar orbit.
B. Aditya
• Once the ‘Vikram’ lander module makes it safely to the
C. Vayu
moon, it will deploy ‘Pragyan’.
D. Aakash
• Pragyan will carry out in-situ chemical analysis of the
E. Pragyan
lunar surface during the course of its mobility.
Answer: E
• The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) plans
to retain the names of the Chandrayaan-2 lander (Vikram)
• India's first moon mission, Chandrayaan-1, was A. On the occasion of MSME Day, the ‘CHAMPIONS 2.0
launched in October 2008 with the goal of studying the Portal’ has been launched by Union Minister Narayan
lunar surface and looking for evidence water. Rane.
B. It will help in providing support to Micro, Small, and
604. In June as per report ____________ government has Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) in a more inclusive and
signed MoU with Micron Technology for establishing a user-friendly manner.
semiconductor assembly and test facility. C. It will be available in 15 languages and will offers a
A. Punjab real-time feedback feature for users.
B. Tamil Nadu D. The ‘CHAMPIONS’ portal was launched on 1 June
C. Gujarat 2020 as an ICT-based system for grievance redressal and
D. Karnataka information dissemination to MSMEs.
E. Uttar Pradesh E. The acronym CHAMPIONS refers to “Creation and
Answer: C Harmonious Application of Modern Processes for
• US-based Micron Technology Inc signed a Increasing the Output and National Strength”.
Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with the Gujarat Answer: C
government to set up a Rs 22,540-crore semiconductor • Union Minister Narayan Rane has launched the
unit at Sanand near Ahmedabad. ‘CHAMPIONS 2.0 Portal’.
• This MoU is for establishing a semiconductor • On the occasion of MSME Day, the ‘CHAMPIONS 2.0
assembly and test facility at Sanand in the Ahmedabad Portal’ has been launched by Union Minister Narayan
district. Rane.
• It was signed at Gandhinagar in the presence of CM • It will help in providing support to Micro, Small, and
Bhupendra Patel and Union Electronics and IT Minister Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) in a more inclusive and
Ashwini Vaishnaw. user-friendly manner.
• Under the project, the Central Government will offer • It will be available in 11 languages and will offers a
50% fiscal support for the total project cost to Micron real-time feedback feature for users.
Technology. • The ‘CHAMPIONS’ portal was launched on 1 June
• The Gujarat government will provide incentives 2020 as an ICT-based system for grievance redressal and
representing 20% of the total project cost. information dissemination to MSMEs.
• The plant is expected to create five thousand direct • As of now, 5,365 grievances have been received
employment opportunities in Gujarat. through this portal out of which 5206 were resolved.
• Phase 1 of the plant will become operational by the • Union Minister Narayan Rane also launched a
end of 2024. Mobile App for Geo-tagging of Cluster Projects and
• Micron Technology is an American chipmaker firm. Technology Centers’.
• This is the second MoU being signed by the Gujarat • This app will capture coordinates and on-site images
government with a semiconductor manufacturer. In of organizational infrastructure and facilities.
September 2022, the state government had inked a • 'MSME Idea Hackathon 2.0' result was also declared
similar MoU with the Foxconn-Vedanta joint venture for and 'MSME Idea Hackathon 3.0' for women
setting up a Rs 1.54-lakh crore unit in Gujarat. Though entrepreneurs has been launched.
the company had selected Dholera SIR for the unit, the • It will encourage women innovators and women-
project is yet to take off as a formal approval is pending owned MSMEs to present ideas across various sectors.
from the Central government. • Ministry of MSME and SIDBI also signed a MoU to
• It is headquartered in Boise, Idaho, United States. Its create a portal for ‘PM VIshwakarma KAushal Samman’
CEO is Sanjay Mehrotra. (PMVIKAS).
• CHAMPIONS stands for Creation and Harmonious
605. Consider the following statement regarding Application of Modern Processes for Increasing the
‘CHAMPIONS 2.0 Portal’. Which of the following Output and National Strength.
statement is incorrect?
606. In June as per report _________edition of Swachh E. Sagar Samriddhi
Survekshan has been launched by the Ministry of Answer: B
Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA). • New CSR guidelin es 'Sagar Samajik Sahyog' have
A. 8th been launched by Shri Sarbananda Sonowal.
B. 7th • The new guidelines of Corporate Social Responsibility
C. 6th (CSR) by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping & Waterways
D. 5th empower ports to undertake CSR activities directly.
E. 4th • The new guidelines for CSR activities will enable
Answer: A ports to come up with projects and expedite projects for
• 8th edition of Swachh Survekshan begins. Swachh community welfare.
Survekshan 2023 – Mera Shehar, Meri Pehchan, world’s • The new CSR guidelines issued on June 27 will better
largest urban swachhata survey, has been launched by impact projects and programs relating to activities
the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA). specified in section 70 of the Major Port Authorities Act,
• Around 3,000 assessors will take part in the field for 2021.
assessment from 1 July 2023. • A Corporate Social Responsibility Committee will be
• The assessors will study the performances of 4500+ constituted in every major port for the purpose of
cities across 46 indicators. planning and implementing CSR projects.
• This year's assessment is set to engage 10 crore • The Deputy Director of the port concerned will be the
citizens. head of the committee, which will have two other
• Swachh Survekshan was started under the Ministry members.
of Housing and Urban Affairs in 2016. • Each Major Port shall prepare a CSR Plan for each
• Its main objective is to help cities in achieving the financial year and link its CSR to the business plan with
goal of sustainable sanitation and waste management in social and environmental concerns related to the port's
a fast-track competitive manner. business.
• Swachh Survekshan has created a healthy spirit of • The CSR budget will be mandatorily made as a
competitiveness among cities to improve sanitation. percentage of the net profit of the port through a board
• Swachh Survekshan 2023 will focus on different resolution.
parameters such as segregation door-to-door waste • A port with an annual net profit of Rs 100 crore or
collection, zero waste events, Divyang-friendly toilets, less can contribute an amount between 3% to 5% of the
improved plastic waste management, etc. profit to the CSR Fund.
• It will emphasise transforming ‘manholes’ into • Similarly, ports with an annual net profit between Rs
‘machine holes. The new indicator of Waste to Wonder 100 crore and Rs 500 crore can cap their CSR expenditure
Parks has been also inducted in the survey with a 2% between 2% to 3% of their net profit, which should be at
weightage. least Rs 3 crore.
• The first three-quarters of the assessment have • For ports whose annual net profit is more than Rs
already been completed successfully. It was started on 500 crore, the CSR spend can be between 0.5% to 2% of
24 May 2022, with telephonic feedback from citizens on its net profit.
various parameters of city cleanliness. • 20% of the CSR expenditure should be given to Sainik
Welfare Board, National Maritime Heritage Complex and
607. In June as per report new guidelines named ______ National Youth Development Fund at the district level.
of Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) by the Ministry • 78% of CSR spending goes to areas like drinking
of Ports, Shipping & Waterways empower ports to water, education, vocational training, skill development,
undertake CSR activities directly. etc.
A. Sagar Sarvekshan • An amount of 2% of the total CSR fund has been
B. Sagar Samajik Sahyog earmarked for monitoring the projects undertaken under
C. Sagar Manthan the CSR programs of the Ports.
D. Sagar Kailash
C. 345 rupees per quintal
608. Recently in june Food Corporation of India (FCI) D. 370 rupees per quintal
placed quantity restrictions and refused to permit States E. 325 rupees per quintal
to procure the two food grains through its OMSS, the Answer: A
states have been considering alternative methods of • Fair and remunerative price of 315 rupees per
obtaining wheat and rice. quintal has been approved by Union Cabinet for
Centre Revised the OMSS rule that maximum quantity sugarcane farmers for the season 2023-24.
allowed per bid for a buyer will now range from 10- to • It is the highest ever fair and remunerative price for
__________ metric tonnes. sugarcane farmers.
A. 200 metric tonnes • The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs, chaired
B. 500 metric tonnes by Prime Minister Narendra Modi approved a 10-rupee
C. 400 metric tonnes increase in fair and remunerative price (FRP) of
D. 800 metric tonnes sugarcane to ₹315 per quintal for the 2023-24 marketing
E. 100 metric tonnes season, starting October.
Answer: E • The FRP of sugarcane, which stood at ₹210 per
• After the Food Corporation of India (FCI) placed quintal in 2014-15 season, has now been increased to
quantity restrictions and refused to permit States to ₹315 per quintal for 2023-24 season.
procure the two food grains through its OMSS, the states • In May, the Commission for Agricultural Costs and
have been considering alternative methods of obtaining Prices (CACP) recommended the FRP for a basic recovery
wheat and rice. rate of 10.25%.
• Under the OMSS, the FCI from time to time sells • Also, at a time when the government is trying to
surplus food grains from the central pool, especially increase ethanol blending to 15% next season, farmers
wheat and rice in the open market to traders, bulk need to be encouraged so that they do not lower the
consumers, retail chains, etc., at pre-determined prices. sugarcane acreage.
• The FCI does this through e--auctions where open • Sugar output is estimated to have fallen in the
market bidders can buy specified quantities. current season (October--September) to 32.8 million
• The Centre decided to restrict the quantity that a tonne from 35.76 million tonne in 2021-22, as per the
single bidder can purchase in a single bid under the Indian Sugar Mills Association (ISMA).
OMSS.
• While the maximum quantity allowed earlier was 610.. In June as per report Union Cabinet approved
3,000 metric tonnes (MT) per bid for a buyer, it will now Ratification of the Headquarters Agreement (HQA)
range from 10--100 metric tonnes. between India and Coalition for Disaster Resilient
• The FCI claims that the quantities have been reduced Infrastructure (CDRI).
this time to accommodate more small and marginal Cabinet had approved the setting up of CDRI with a
buyers and to ensure wider reach of the scheme. financial support of ________ crore over a period of 5
• It is a statutory body set up in 1965 (under the Food years from 2019-20 to 2023-24.
Corporation Act, 1964) under the Ministry of Consumer A. Rs 540 crore
Affairs, Food and Public Distribution, Government of B. Rs 860 crore
India. C. Rs 510 crore
• It was set up against the backdrop of a major D. Rs 320 crore
shortage of grains, especially wheat, in the country. E. Rs 480 crore
Answer: E
609. Recently as per report fair and remunerative price • Union Cabinet approved Ratification of the
of _____________ for sugarcane farmers has been Headquarters Agreement (HQA) between India and
approved by Union Cabinet for the season 2023-24. Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI).
A. 315 rupees per quintal
B. 390 rupees per quintal
• The Government of India (Gol) and the Coalition for MuthamizhArignar Dr. Kalaignar pen monument in Bay
Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) had signed the of Bengal, off the Marina beach in Chennai, with 15
Headquarters Agreement (HQA) in August 2022. conditions.
• In 2019, Cabinet had approved the setting up of CDRI • The CRZ clearance was provided based on the
along with its supporting Secretariat in New Delhi. recommendations of the Expert Appraisal Committee
• It had also approved a financial support of Rs 480 (CRZ) and Tamil Nadu Coastal Zone Management
crore to CDRI over a period of 5 years from 2019-20 to Authority.
2023-24. • It has also noted that the Ministry may revoke or
• In 2022, Cabinet approved recognition of CDRI as an suspend the clearance if the implementation of the
International Organization. conditions were not found satisfactory.
• CDRI is part of India's attempts to obtain a global • The Pen Memorial pays tribute to M. Karunanidhi.
leadership role in climate change and disaster resilience • The idea of a monument on water derives from the
matters. metaphorical catamaran to which Karunanidhi
• The CDRI is a global partnership of National compared himself.
Governments, UN agencies and programmes, • The pen monument will be 30 meters high and it
multilateral development banks and financing would be spread over 8,551 sq.m.
mechanisms, academic and knowledge institutions. • This would include a pen pedestal, a lattice bridge
• Its main aim is to promote the resilience of above the beach and a land and pedestrian pathway
infrastructure systems to climate and disaster risks by above the sea.
ensuring sustainable development. • The 7-metre wide bridge would be 290-metre long
• CDRI was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi over the land and 360-metre long over the sea.
in September 2019 in New York. • Chennai-based Hubert Enviro Care Systems was the
• It is one of the key initiatives launched by the Indian infrastructure and environmental consultant for the
Government. CDRI is continuously expanding its project.
membership consistently. • The design of the monument is based on the Veena,
• After the launch of CDRI, Thirty-one Countries, six a traditional Carnatic musical instrument that is
International Organizations, and two private sector handmade in Tamil Nadu with extreme precision.
organizations have become members. • The Thumba is used to represent the pen pedestal,
• Economically advanced countries and developing the neck portion of the long bridges, the music hole a
countries which are vulnerable to climate change and pen statue, and the peg the tensile canopy seating on
disasters are becoming part of CDRI. the bridge.
611. Recently Union Ministry of Environment has given 612. Consider the following statement regarding
Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) clearance for the Tamil Grievance Redressal Assessment and Index (GRAI) 2022.
Nadu government’s proposal to construct the Which of the following statement is incorrect?
MuthamizhArignar Dr. Kalaignar pen monument in Bay A. Union Minister of Public Grievances, and Pensions,
of Bengal, off the Marina beach. launched the Grievance Redressal Assessment and Index
The pen monument will be __________ meters high. (GRAI) 2022.
A. 10m B. It was conceptualised and designed by the
B. 20m Department of Administrative Reforms and Public
C. 30m Grievances (DARPG), Govt. of India.
D. 40m C. Department of Finance tops the ranking, closely
E. 50m followed by UIDAI in Group A
Answer: C D.In Group B, Department of Financial Services (Pension
• The Union Ministry of Environment has given Coastal Reforms) grabs the No.1 rank followed by the
Regulation Zone (CRZ) clearance for the Tamil Nadu Department of Legal Affairs
government’s proposal to construct the E. Department of Land Resources and Department of
Pharmaceuticals secured First and Second positions • Out of the total 89 Ministries and Departments, 22
respectively in Group C. Ministries and Departments have resolved 100%
Answer: C grievance related to “Corruption”. And, for another 55
• Recently, the Union Minister of Public Grievances, Ministries and Departments, the redressal of
and Pensions, launched the Grievance Redressal “Corruption” related grievances ranged between 90 to
Assessment and Index (GRAI) 2022. 99.99%.
• Dr Jitendra Singh said that for the first time, the • About 19% of the resolved grievances have received
average disposal time of public grievances by Central feedback as ‘Excellent” and “Very Good” out of the total
Ministries & Departments has reduced to 16 days, as calls made by a dedicated call centre established by the
recorded in May 2023. DARPG, Govt. of India.
• Dr Jitendra Singh noted with satisfaction that there • Out of the total 89 Ministries and Departments, 26
has been a decline of almost 50% in the average disposal Ministries and Departments have resolved 100%
time for Central Ministries/Departments from 32 days in grievance categorised as “Urgent”. And, for another 29
2021 to 18 days in 2023. Ministries and Departments, the redressal for “Urgent”
• The Minister said the reforms have also positively grievances ranged between 90 to 99.99%.
impacted the disposal of State Public Grievances cases
on the CPGRAMS portal, crossing 50,000 cases per month 613. In June as per report Union Cabinet approved the
since September 2022. National Research Foundation (NRF) Bill 2023, which will
• The Minister also commended the DARPG for making establish NRF as an apex body to provide high-level
the CPGRAMS portal available in 22 scheduled languages strategic direction to scientific research in the country.
along with English so that the common man could avail As per the recommendations of the National Education
of its benefits. Policy (NEP), NRF will be established at a total estimated
• It was conceptualised and designed by the cost of __________ crore from 2023-28.
Department of Administrative Reforms and Public A. ₹10,000 crore
Grievances (DARPG), Govt. of India. B. ₹20,000 crore
• Eighty-nine Central Ministries and Departments C. ₹30,000 crore
were assessed and ranked based on a comprehensive D. ₹40,000 crore
index in the dimensions of (1) Efficiency, (2) Feedback, (3) E. ₹50,000 crore
Domain and (4) Organisational Commitment and Answer: E
corresponding 12 indicators. To compute the index, data • The Union Cabinet approved the National Research
between January and December 2022, was used from the Foundation (NRF) Bill 2023, which will establish NRF as
Centralised Public Grievance Redressal and Management an apex body to provide high-level strategic direction to
System (CPGRAMS). scientific research in the country.
• As part of GRAI, Ministries and Departments are • The Bill was necessary because current laws made it
grouped in three groups based on the number of hard for private research organisations to contribute to a
grievances registered in calendar year 2022 at CPGRAMS funding body such as the NRF.
viz., • It will pave the way to establish NRF that will seed,
• Department of Posts, Department of Financial grow and promote R&D and foster a culture of research
Services (Pension Reforms) and Department of Land and innovation throughout India’s universities, colleges,
Resources have topped the rankings in Group A, B and C research institutions and R&D laboratories.
respectively. • The proposed Bill also repeals the Science and
• Out of the total 12.87 lakh grievances received Engineering Research Board (SERB) established by
during 2022 at CPGRAMS, about 75% have been resolved Parliament in 2008 and subsumes it into the NRF.
within the prescribed timeline of 30 days by the • The SERB is the Department of Science and
Ministries and Departments with Ministry of Technology’s (DST) main funding body and is responsible
Parliamentary Affairs performing the best in this for funding S&T start-ups, setting up incubators and
indicator.
funding science-related projects in central and state • The Consumer Affairs Ministry has identified and
universities listed ten types of dark patterns (False urgency, Basket
• As per the recommendations of the National sneaking,Confirm shaming, Forced action, Nagging,
Education Policy (NEP), NRF will be established at a total Subscription traps, Bait & switch, Hidden costs, Disguised
estimated cost of ₹50,000 crore from 2023-28. ads, Interface Interference) used by e-commerce
• The government will contribute ₹10,000 crore over companies.
five years and close to ₹36,000 crore is expected to come • The Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public
from the private sector (as investments into research). Distribution has started classifying complaints received
• The DST would be an “administrative” department of on the National Consumer Helpline 1915 to compile
NRF that would be governed by a Governing Board. information on dark patterns.
• The Prime Minister will be the ex-officio President of • This can then be used by the Central Consumer
the Board and the Union Minister of Science & Protection Authority to initiate action under the
Technology and Union Minister of Education will be the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.
ex-officio Vice-Presidents. • The Consumer Affairs Ministry has identified and
• The Governing Board will also consist of eminent listed nine types of dark patterns used by e-commerce
researchers and professionals across disciplines. companies.
• NRF’s functioning will be governed by an Executive • The United States and the United Kingdom have
Council chaired by the Principal Scientific Adviser to the passed legislation to curb dark patterns.
Government of India. • In 2019, the UK had issued guidelines that was
enforceable under its Data Protection Act, 2018.
614. The Central government has recently set up a 17- • The act has prohibited companies from using
member task force to prepare guidelines to protect “nudges” to draw underage users into options that have
consumers against dark patterns. low privacy settings.
The Consumer Affairs Ministry has identified and listed
_________ types of dark patterns used by e-commerce 615. In June as per report India in partnership with
companies. ___________ launched the inaugural session of an
A. 8 innovation platform, ‘INDUS-X’.
B. 7 A. UK
C. 10 B. USA
D. 6 C. France
E. 5 D. Germany
Answer: C E. Australia
• The Central government has recently set up a 17- Answer: B
member task force to prepare guidelines to protect • On 21 June 2023, India US Defense Accelerated
consumers against dark patterns. Ecosystem (Indus-X) was launched at an event in
• The Central government has asked e-commerce Washington DC, United States.
companies to not use “dark patterns” on their platforms • The Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX) and US
which can deceive customers or manipulate their Department of Defence (DoD) co-organized the Indus-X
choices. event.
• The Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public • It was hosted by US-India Business Council (USIBC).
Distribution has started classifying complaints received • On June 20-21, 2023, Shri Anurag Bajpai, Joint
on the National Consumer Helpline 1915 to compile Secretary (Defence Industry Promotion), Ministry of
information on dark patterns. Defence, led the Indian delegation to the two-day Indus-
• This can then be used by the Central Consumer X event.
Protection Authority to initiate action under the • A reception for Indian and US government
Consumer Protection Act, 2019. representatives, defense startups, think-tanks,
incubators, investors, industries and other stakeholders • The goal is to increase the share of renewable
was organized on June 20, 2023. energy in installed capacity to 40 per cent of Senegal’s
• The event also featured a first-of-its-kind joint electricity mix by 2030.
display of innovative technologies by Indian and US • The EU unveiled a call to action on ‘Paris Aligned
startups. Carbon Markets’ to cover at least 60 per cent of global
• 15 Indian startups and 10 US startups showcased emissions with carbon pricing mechanisms and allocate a
their technology to Indian and US stakeholders across proportion of the revenues to climate finance.
multiple domains such as maritime, AI, autonomous • It was suggested that the long overdue $100 billion
systems and space. climate finance goal will be delivered in 2023, something
that was also alluded to at the Petersberg Climate
616. Recently as per report Summit for a New Global Dialogue.
Financing Pact was held in __________.
A. Gland 617. In June as per report __________ has been named
B. Paris by a prestigious philanthropic organisation to its annual
C. Rome “Great Immigrants” list.
D. Zurich A. Joe Biden
E. New York B. Narendra Modi
Answer: B C. Ajay Banga
• The Summit for a New Global Financing Pact D. Xi Jinping
concluded in Paris. E. Vladimir Putin
• It was hosted by France and was spearheaded by the Answer: C
President of France. • World Bank President Ajay Banga got a place in the
• It had several leaders from the developing world, as “Great Immigrants” list.
well as European heads of state. • Ajay Banga has been named by a prestigious
• It was announced that an additional lending philanthropic organisation to its annual “Great
capacity of $200 billion would be unlocked for emerging Immigrants” list.
economies. • This honour recognizes individuals who have made
• The World Bank announced disaster clauses for debt significant contributions to the United States and its
deals, which would suspend debt payments in the event democracy.
of extreme weather events. • He is the only Indian to find a place in this year’s list
• The World Bank also unveiled a ‘Private Sector of ‘Great Immigrants’ by the Carnegie Corporation of
Investment Lab’. New York.
• IMF announced that 100 billion in SDRs for • He is the first Indian-American to lead the World
vulnerable countries has been met. Bank.
• However, 20 billion worth of SDRs are yet to pass • Before the appointment to World Bank, he was the
through the US Congress. vice-chairman at General Atlantic.
• The US is the biggest quota holder of SDRs. • He is also co-founder of the Cyber Readiness Institute
• ‘Recycling’ of SDRs has been proposed to expand the and served as vice-chair of the Economic Club of New
amount of concessional finance to developing countries. York.
• It means ‘recycling’ SDRs from rich countries whose • Carnegie Corporation has honoured 35 individuals
central banks do not need the cushioning to poor from 33 countries this year.
countries who need them or MDBs who can channel • This year’s honorees include Ke Huy Quan, Pedro
them. Pascal, Ngozi Okonjo-Iweala, Ted Lieu, etc.
• A new 2.5 billion Euro JETP deal was announced for • The Great Immigrants initiative is a tribute to the
Senegal, with a consortium of countries comprising legacy of Andrew Carnegie. He was a Scottish immigrant
Germany, France, Canada, the European Union, and the in America.
United Kingdom.
618. In June as per report United Nations General • The UN chief said that due to the measures taken by
Assembly has adopted a resolution, introduced by the government of India for protecting children, it has
_________, to establish a memorial wall in honour of been removed from the annual report.
fallen peacekeepers. • He also said that India has to implement remaining
A. France measures such as training of armed and security forces
B. Germany on child protection and prohibition of the use of lethal
C. India and non-lethal force on children.
D. Japan • He also stressed on the full implementation of the
E. Australia Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act and
Answer: C the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act.
• The United Nations General Assembly has adopted a • India was included on the list due to allegations of
resolution, introduced by India, to establish a memorial recruitment of young boys by the armed groups in
wall in honour of fallen peacekeepers. Jammu and Kashmir and detainment of young boys by
• India’s Permanent Representative to the UN security groups.
Ambassador Ruchira Kamboj introduced the draft • A workshop was organized by the Government of
resolution titled ‘Memorial wall for fallen United Nations India in Jammu and Kashmir in November 2022 with the
peacekeepers’ on Wednesday in the UN General participation of the United Nations.
Assembly Hall and it was adopted by consensus. • According to the report, children continue to be
• India is currently the 3rd largest contributor of disproportionately affected by armed conflict.
uniformed personnel to UN Peacekeeping with more • 27,180 grave violations have been identified by
than 6,000 military and police personnel deployed to United Nations in 2022. These violations have affected
Abyei, the Central African Republic, Cyprus, the total18,890 children.
Democratic Republic of the Congo, Lebanon, the Middle • As per the report, Killing, maiming, recruitment,
East and Western Sahara. abduction, and detention of children are the most
• In 1988, UN peacekeepers were awarded the Nobel prevalent violations.
Peace Prize. • The highest numbers of violations were the killing
• India in collaboration with the UN launched UNITE (2,985) and maiming (5,655) of 8,631 children.
Aware Platform (a software programme for real-time
threat assessments to peacekeepers) 620. Recently as per report India’s Current Account
• India had proposed a four-point framework with a Deficit declined to 1.3 billion dollars __________% of
focus on technological availability and improvement and GDP in the January-March quarter of the last fiscal year
Consistent training and capacity building for securing the (FY23).
UN peacekeeper’s mission. A. 1.2 %
B. 2.2 %
619. In June as per report UN removed which country’s C. 1.5 %
name from its latest annual report on the impact of D. 0.2 %
armed conflict on children? E. 0.5 %
A. Russia Answer: E
B. Pakistan • India’s Current Account Deficit declined to 1.3 billion
C. India dollars (0.2% of GDP) in the January-March quarter of
D. Bangladesh the last fiscal year (FY23).
E. Sri Lanka • Moderation in the trade deficit and an increase in
Answer: C services exports caused the decline in Current Account
• UN has decided to remove India’s name from the list Deficit (CAD).
of countries with children in armed conflict. • A deficit of 2% of GDP was recorded in the current
• Since 2010, India was being included in the annual account balance for fiscal 2022-23.
report on the impact of armed conflict on children.
• The trade deficit widened to $265.3 billion in 2022- • The number of Unicorns in the ASK Private Wealth
23 from $189.5 billion a year ago. Hurun India Future Unicorn Index 2023 has decreased
• As per the data released by RBI, net services receipts marginally from 84 to 83.
increased on the back of an increase in net earnings from • The number of Gazelles in the ASK Private Wealth
computer services. Hurun India Future Unicorn Index 2023 is stable at 51.
• The decline in CAD in the January-March quarter of • The number of Cheetahs in the ASK Private Wealth
last fiscal was chiefly due to a moderation in the trade Hurun India Future Unicorn Index 2023 has increased
deficit from $71.3 billion in the preceding quarter to from 71 to 96.
$52.6 billion. • Only 3 Indian start-ups turned into Unicorns this year
• In the January-March period, private transfer against 24 last year. 8 Gazelles were demoted to
receipts increased to $28.6 billion. Cheetahs.
• Net Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) stood at USD 6.4 • E-commerce, fintech, and SAAS comprise 42% of the
billion in Q4 2022-23. It was higher than USD 2.0 billion Future Unicorn Index.
in Q3 2022-23. It was lower than a year ago (USD 13.8 • Hurun Research Institute has classified start-ups into
billion). three categories given below.
• Net Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) recorded an • Unicorns (valuation of $1 billion)
outflow of $1.7 billion. It was driven by equity segment. • Gazelles (valuation of $500 million and to become
• Net External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs) recorded Unicorn in three years)
an inflow of $1.7 billion during Q4. Net ECBs recorded an • Cheetahs (valuation of $250 million and to become
outflow of $2.5 billion during the Q3 of 2022-23. Unicorn in 5 years)
• Net invisible receipts were higher in 2022-23 because • The term ‘funding winter’ refers to the period when
of rise in net exports of services and net private transfer it is difficult for start-ups to get the funding.
receipts. • Funding winter is an extended period characterized
• Net FDI inflows stood at $28 billion in 2022-23. Net by decreased capital inflows towards startups.
FDI inflows in 2022-23 were lower than $38.6 billion in • Funding winter has been observed globally
2021-22. throughout 2022. It is likely to continue in 2023. The
• The fiscal year 2022-23 also saw decline of $9.1 years 2020 and 2021 were good years to get funds.
billion of the foreign exchange reserves (on a BoP basis).
622. Recently as per report implementation of new
621. Consider the following statement regarding ASK mechanism of Tax Collected at Source (TCS) on
Private Wealth Hurun India Future Unicorn Index 2023. Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS) beyond a certain
Which of the following statement is incorrect? threshold has been deferred from July 1 to ___________.
A. Funding winter has removed 19 start-ups from ASK A. 1st August 2023
Private Wealth Hurun India Future Unicorn Index 2023. B. 1st September 2023
B. The number of Unicorns in the ASK Private Wealth C. 1st October 2023
Hurun India Future Unicorn Index 2023 has decreased D. 1st November 2023
marginally from 84 to 83. E. 1st December 2023
C. The number of Gazelles in the ASK Private Wealth Answer: C
Hurun India Future Unicorn Index 2023 is stable at 51. • Finance Ministry has deferred the implementation of
D. Only 3 Indian start-ups turned into Unicorns this year new mechanism of Tax Collected at Source (TCS) on
against 24 last year. Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS) beyond a certain
E. All of the above are correct threshold from July 1 to October 1.
Answer: E • Finance Ministry has also announced that no TCS will
• Funding winter has removed 19 start-ups from ASK be applicable on international credit card spending
Private Wealth Hurun India Future Unicorn Index 2023. abroad.
• However, the funding to 230 start-ups making the • However the rate to be applicable from 01 October
index increased 6% to $18.8 billion as of end of May. will not be changed.
• Credit card spending above ₹7 lakh in foreign • The trading in GIFT Nifty F&O contracts will
currency domestically will attract TCS. commence on July 3 with trading time of 21 hours spread
• Transactions through international credit cards while between two sessions, the first session of nine hours
being overseas would not be counted as LRS. starting at 06.30 IST till 15.30 IST. After a break, the
• Government has postponed the implementation of second 12-hour session begins at 15.45 IST and will
its May 16 e-gazette notification. continue till 02.45 IST the next day.
• Till September 30, earlier rates (as before • Notably, in July 2022, the Prime Minister Narendra
amendment by the Finance Act 2023) will continue to Modi had inaugurated the NSE-SGX Connect set-up in
apply. collaboration between India’s National Stock Exchange
(NSE) and Singapore’s Singapore Exchange Limited (SGX)
623. Consider the following statement regarding GIFT and the first trade took place in July 29, 2022.
NIFTY. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
A. GIFT NIFTY started trading from GIFT City, a tax- 624. Recently in June as per report Reserve Bank of India
neutral international financial centre in Gujarat, India. has issued the Master Direction on Minimum Capital
B. GIFT NIFTY is the first cross-border initiative in Requirements for Operational Risk.
connecting India and Singapore capital markets. The Directions require _________to hold sufficient
C. It is a five-year contract between Singapore Exchange regulatory capital against their operational risk
(SGX) and National Stock Exchange International exposures.
Exchange (NSE IX). A. Scheduled Commercial Banks
D. The trading in GIFT Nifty F&O contracts will B. Local Area Banks
commence on July 3 with trading time of 21 hours spread C. Payments Banks
between two sessions. D. Regional Rural Banks
E. All of the above are correct E. Small Finance Banks
Answer: E Answer: A
• GIFT NIFTY started trading from GIFT City, a tax- • The Reserve Bank of India has issued the Master
neutral international financial centre in Gujarat, India. Direction on Minimum Capital Requirements for
• GIFT NIFTY is the first cross-border initiative in Operational Risk after appropriately considering the
connecting India and Singapore's capital markets. feedback received from stakeholders. The Directions
• It is known as GIFT NIFTY because the entire trading have been issued in exercise of the powers conferred by
volume and liquidity fully switched to GIFT IFSC. Section 35A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.
• It was previously traded on the Singapore • As part of convergence with Basel III standards, the
Exchange's (SGX) platform. Reserve Bank of India had issued a draft ‘Master
• It is the first cross-border initiative in connecting Direction on Minimum Capital Requirements for
India and Singapore’s capital markets. Operational Risk’ on December 15, 2021, for public
• It is a five-year contract between Singapore comments.
Exchange (SGX) and National Stock Exchange • The Directions require all specified Commercial
International Exchange (NSE IX). Banks (excluding Local Area Banks, Payments Banks,
• This is the first of its kind trading link, with trading Regional Rural Banks, and Small Finance Banks) to hold
and matching in India and clearing and settlement in sufficient regulatory capital against their operational risk
Singapore. exposures.
• The GIFT City is a central business region in • The effective date of implementation of these
Gandhinagar, Gujarat. Directions shall be communicated separately.
• It is India's first operational greenfield smart city and • “Operational risk” means the risk of loss resulting
international financial services centre. from inadequate or failed internal processes, people and
• Recent initiatives include India International Bullion systems or from external events. This definition includes
legal risk2, but excludes strategic and reputational risk.
Exchange (IIBX), The International Sustainability
Platform (ISX), etc.
625. Recently as per report what is the Priority Sector • UCBs would not be required to contribute to RIDF or
Lending (PSL) target to achieve by March 31, 2026? other eligible funds for shortfall in PSL target/ sub-
A. 65 % targets during Financial Year (FY) 2020-21 and FY 2021-
B. 75 % 22.
C. 85 % • UCBs shall contribute to RIDF and other eligible
D. 90 % funds against their shortfall in PSL target/ sub-targets
E. 100% vis-à-vis the prescribed targets with effect from March
Answer: B 31, 2023.
• The phase-in period for urban co-operative banks • Also, in case contribution has been made by any UCB
(UCBs) to meet priority sector lending (PSL) targets has towards the above PSL shortfall during the FY 2020-21
been increased until March 31, 2026. and/ or FY 2021-22, that contribution can be used to
• The Ministry of Cooperation in a statement said that offset any shortfall that may have occurred during FY
four important initiatives have been taken to strengthen 2022-23. Excess deposit, if any, after offsetting the PSL
1,514 Urban Co-operative Banks (UCBs) in the country. shortfall during FY 2022-23 will be refunded.
• The ministry has listed the four measures notified by • Incentives to UCBs meeting the PSL targets shall be
the RBI. announced separately.
• In order to expand their business, UCBs can now
open new branches up to 10 per cent (maximum 5 626. In June as per report Finance ministry allowed
branches) of the number of branches in the previous _________ state governments to borrow ₹66,000 cr
financial year without prior approval of RBI in their more based on power sector reforms undertaken in
approved area of operation. 2021-22, 2022-23.
• UCBs have to get the policy approved by their board A. 12
and comply with the Financially Sound and Well B. 6
Managed (FSWM) Norms. C. 8
• UCBs can also do One-Time Settlement at par with D. 7
commercial banks. E. 15
• The central bank has notified a framework Answer: A
governing this aspect for all regulated entities, including • West Bengal leads the race among 12 states in
UCBs. Now co-operative banks through board-approved getting approval for additional borrowing on account of
policies may provide process for technical write-off as reforms in power sector.
well as settlement with borrowers. • The Finance Ministry granted permission to borrow
• This has been done to ease the implementation over Rs 66,000 crore on account of power sector reforms.
challenges faced by the UCBs. • The initiative, announced by Union Finance Minister
• As announced in the Statement on Developmental Nirmala Sitharaman in Budget 2021-22, gives states an
and Regulatory Policies in order to address additional borrowing space of up to 0.5 per cent of the
implementational challenges faced by the UCBs and to gross state domestic product (GSDP) annually for four
make the transition non-disruptive, it has been decided years, from 2021-22 to 2024-25.
to extend the glide path for these PSL targets by an • This additional financial window is dependent on the
additional period of two years as under: implementation of specific reforms in the power sector
• All UCBs (excluding those under all-inclusive by the states.
directions), were advised to contribute to Rural • The primary objectives of the financial incentives for
Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) established with power sector reforms are to improve operational and
NABARD and other Funds with NABARD / NHB / SIDBI / economic efficiency within the sector and promote a
MUDRA Ltd., against their PSL shortfall vis-à-vis the sustained increase in paid electricity consumption.
prescribed target/ sub-targets, with effect from March • As per the data released by the finance ministry,
31, 2021. West Bengal has received borrowing permission worth
Rs 15,263 crore, followed by Rajasthan (Rs 11,308 crore),
Andhra Pradesh (Rs 9,574 crore), Kerala (Rs 8,323 crore) • To study and recommend national requirements and
and Tamil Nadu (Rs 7,054 crore) in the two fiscals. enable their inclusion in Indian and international
standardisation bodies;
627. Recently as per report Department of • To develop recommendations for Bharat 6G Vision
Telecommunications (DoT) announced an alliance Bharat implementation readiness in India;
6G Alliance (B6GA) to drive innovation in the next • A 6G network is defined as a cellular network that
generation wireless technology as the government aims operates in untapped radio frequencies and uses
for _______% of 6G patents by 2030. cognitive technologies like AI to enable high-speed, low-
A. 10 % latency communication at a pace multiple times faster
B. 20 % than fifth-generation networks.
C. 30 % • Telecom Technology Development Fund (TTDF)
D. 40 % scheme was launched by DoT in 2022.
E. 50 % • In March, the government had launched a vision
Answer: A document for 6G services in the country. The 6G vision
• The department of telecommunications announced document highlighted a roadmap to the launch of 6G
an alliance of industry leaders and academia to drive services, recommendations from task forces, financial
innovation in the next generation wireless technology as support required for projects and the opening of
the government aims for 10% of 6G patents by 2030. spectrum bands.
• The government is also eyeing to launch the 6G • The government also approved Rs 240.5 crore under
network by 2030. the Telecom Technology Development Fund for two 6G
• The 15-member Bharat 6G Alliance will be led by TCS projects–a 6G THz testbed with orbital angular
chief operating office N Ganapathy Subramaniam. momentum and multiplexing through a consortium of
• The Bharat 6G Alliance (B6GA) is a collaborative SAMEER, IIT Madras, IIT Guwahati and IIT Patna; and an
platform consisting of public and private companies, advance optical communication testbed with consortium
academia, research institutions, and standards members IIT Madras, IIT Delhi, Indraprastha Institute of
development organisations. Information Technology , Delhi.
• Global Alliance: B6GA will forge coalitions and • Further, under the Digital Communication Innovation
synergies with other 6G Global Alliances, fostering Square, a grant of Rs 48 crore will also be given to 66
international collaboration and knowledge exchange. startups and MSMEs.
• The Alliance will enable India to become a leading
global supplier of IP, products and solutions of affordable 628. According to the latest data from Vahan Dashboard
5G and 6G and other future telecom solutions. Four states in the country have breached the 10 per cent
• The aims and objectives of the B6GA include: mark in electric two-wheeler (e2W) penetration. Which
• To deploy 6G technologies to act as a powerful force of the following state is not among the list?
multiplier for India by 2030; A. Goa
• To support and energise Indian participation in B. Kerala
standard development organisations; C. Karnataka
• To build coalitions with similar 6G Global Alliances D. Maharashtra
and other global technology alliances and associations; E. Uttar Pradesh
• To address India’s priorities for contribution to 6G Answer: E
and other future technology-related global standards, • Four states in the country have breached the 10 per
deployments, products, operations and services cent mark in electric two-wheeler (e2W) penetration,
• To promote the ecosystem for research, design, according to the latest data from Vahan Dashboard.
prototyping, development, proof of concept testing, IPR • Goa leads the way with 17.20 per cent, albeit with
creation, field testing, security, certification and modest numbers, followed by Kerala (13.66 per cent) and
manufacturing of telecom products, end-to-end Karnataka (12.19 per cent). Maharashtra, with a
Solutions, Use-cases, Pilots, among other things.
penetration of 10.74 per cent, is by far the largest state manner in which such assurance need to be obtained
in the number of e2Ws sold. from time to time.
• Overall, India reached an e2W penetration of 5.63 • Also listed companies will now have to make
per cent as of May 31, up from 4.05 per cent in 2022, disclosures and obtain assurance as per ‘BRSR core’ for
with 392,681 e2Ws sold in the first five months of this their value chain, with effect from and in the manner to
year out of the total two-wheeler sales of 6.98 million. be specified by SEBI from time to time, according to
• In 2019, no state had more than 1 per cent latest LODR changes.
penetration. However, a state-wise breakup shows some • India’s top 1,000 listed companies by market
states vastly outperforming others and some others capitalisation have in respect of FY22-23 begun
showing swathes of low penetration, especially the disclosing/attaching a separate BRSR report in their
Northeast, whose combined penetration is 0.51 per cent. annual reports for that year.
• Vahan’ is the National vehicle registry, which intends • The 49 core indicators has been identified from BRSR
to collate all the information available with road to provide common ground for ranking and rating
transport authorities for easy access by both citizens and platforms to harmonise procedures, the inclusion of
regulators. value chain partners (both upstream and downstream)
• Vahan allows access to all details related to vehicles that will result in deeper penetration of NGRBC (National
such as registration number, chassis/engine number, Guidelines on Responsible Business Conduct) principles
body/fuel type, colour, manufacturer and model and outside of the top 1000 companies.
provides various online services to citizens.
630. In June as per report Capital market regulator SEBI
629. In June as per report SEBI has now taken the next has reduced the listing of shares in public issue from
step of mandating assurance of novel ESG reporting existing six days to ________ from the date of issue’s
framework Core Business Responsibility and closure.
Sustainability Reporting (BRSR). A. 1
This mandatory assurance will have to be done on ‘BRSR B. 2
Core’ (critical elements of BRSR) in respect of the top C. 3
_______ listed companies of the country by market D. 4
capitalisation. E. 5
A. 200 Answer: C
B. 500 • Capital market regulator SEBI has reduced the listing
C. 150 of shares in public issue from existing six days to three
D. 100 from the date of issue’s closure, and also tightened the
E. 300 disclosure norms for foreign portfolio investors (FPIs).
Answer: C • In a board meeting held the regulator said the
• After having introduced the concept of Core Business revised timeline will be made applicable in two phases —
Responsibility and Sustainability Reporting (BRSR), on voluntary basis till September 1 and mandatory from
market regulator SEBI has now taken the next step of December 1.
mandating assurance of this novel ESG reporting • Extensive stress testing has been done to ensure
framework. smooth transition to T+3. The shorter listing cycle is
• This mandatory assurance will have to be done on expected to benefit issuers in receiving funds and
‘BRSR Core’ (critical elements of BRSR) in respect of the allottees, their securities.
top 150 listed companies of the country by market • SEBI has mandated additional granular-level
capitalisation. disclosures regarding ownership, economic interest and
• SEBI has now brought changes to its listing control of FPIs holding over 50 per cent of their Indian
obligations and disclosure requirements (LODR) equity AUM in a single corporate group.
regulations to empower itself to specify the date this
mandatory assurance norm will come into effect and the
• Additional disclosure also applies to FPIs that DGCA. Air India, which is at number two, carried 9.4 per
individually, or along with their investor group hold over cent domestic traffic in May.
₹25,000 crore of equity AUM in the Indian markets. • With a market cap of $11.5 billion, IndiGo occupies
• The board also approved the amendments to allow the 10th rank in the league table. IndiGo — the
listed entities having outstanding listed non-convertible country’s largest airlines was ranked 13th at the
debentures (NCDs), as on December 31, 2023, to list their beginning of the year.
subsequent NCD issuances at the exchange. • Atlanta, Georgia-based Delta Air Lines occupies the
• This new requirement will come into effect from top rank in both market capitalisation and revenues,
January 1, 2024 and is expected to facilitate whereas the next two ranks in market capitalisation are
transparency in price discovery of non-convertible debt taken by Ryanair Holdings and Southwest Airlines Co as
securities and better disclosures. they command market capitalisation to the tune of a
• If an entity with listed debt securities has little over $20 billion.
outstanding unlisted NCDs as on December 31, the entity
will have the option to list them, but it would not be 632. Consider the following statement regarding THE
mandatory. Asian University Rankings 2023. Which of the following
• The board also approved the proposal for enabling statement is incorrect?
entities having listed debt securities to delist such A. IIT Madras (48th) has been ranked top in the Indian
securities if it gets approval from 100 per cent of the Institute in THE Asian University Rankings 2023.
debt security holders. B. JSS Academy of Higher Education and Research in
Mysuru has secured the second highest ranking of
631. In June as per report __________became the first educational institutions in India with the 68th ranking.
Indian airline whose market capitalisation touched the C. China's Tsinghua University retained the spot for the
Rs 1-lakh crore mark. fourth year in a row.
A. Air India D. Most universities are from Japan (117), followed by
B. Vistara China (95), India (75), Iran (65) and Turkey (61)
C. IndiGo E. All of the above are correct
D. Spice Jet Answer: A
E. Go Air • IISc Bangalore has been ranked top in the Indian
Answer: C Institute in THE Asian University Rankings 2023.
• The market capitalisation of InterGlobe Aviation, • In the Times Higher Education Asia University
which operates the country’s largest airline IndiGo, Rankings 2023, Indian Institute of Science, IISc Bangalore
topped the Rs. 1-trillion mark. has secured 48th rank.
• InterGlobe is the first domestic airline company to • It has emerged as the top institute in India but has
achieve this milestone. Shares of the company recorded fallen six positions compared to last year.
an all-time high of Rs. 2,634 in intra-day trade. • JSS Academy of Higher Education and Research in
• InterGlobe has been able to cement its number one Mysuru has secured the second highest ranking of
position amid the grounding of Go First. educational institutions in India with the 68th ranking.
• IndiGo expanded its fleet from a little over 100 • The rankings were released for 669 universities from
aircraft in 2016 to more than 300 now, according to data 31 regions between Turkey in the west and Japan in the
compiled from its investor presentations. The airline east.
plans to double its fleet size by 2030. • Overall, India has a total of 18 universities in the top
• The carrier had earlier this month placed an order for 200 of the Asia University Rankings. One Indian
500 A320 family aircraft, which will be delivered university is in the top 50, while four are in the top 100.
between 2030 and 2035. It is the world’s largest single • In first place, China's Tsinghua University retained
tranche aircraft order. the spot for the fourth year in a row.
• IndiGo is India’s largest airline. It carried 61.4 per • Chinese university, Peking University also retained
cent domestic traffic in May, as per the data of the the second spot for the fourth year in a row.
• National University of Singapore, University of Hong • The index has ranked 120 countries. Out of them,
Kong and Singapore's Nanyang Technological University 113 have made progress in the last decade.
ranked 3rd, 4th and 5th in the ranking, respectively. • 55 countries including India have made remarkable
• Most universities are from Japan (117), followed by progress by improving their score by more than 10
China (95), India (75), Iran (65) and Turkey (61). percentage points.
633. According to recently released World Economic 634. According to the 27th issue of Financial Stability
Forum Energy Transition Index India has been ranked Report by RBI gross non-performing assets (GNPA) ratio
___________. of Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs) has come down to
A. 40th a 10-year low of ____________% and the net non-
B. 67th performing assets (NNPA) ratio has declined to 1%.
C. 61st A. 5.1 %
D. 55th B. 3.9 %
E. 58th C. 4.1 %
Answer: B D. 5.4 %
• India ranked at 67th place on Energy Transition E. 4.9 %
Index. The World Economic Forum released Energy Answer: B
Transition Index on 28th June. • In March 2023, the gross non-performing assets
• Sweden is on the top of the Energy Transition Index (GNPA) ratio of Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs) has
2023. Denmark, Norway, Finland and Switzerland are in come down to a 10-year low of 3.9% and the net non-
the top five of the ranking. performing assets (NNPA) ratio has declined to 1%.
• France with 7th spot is the only G20 country in the • It is expected to fall further to 3.6% by March 2024.
top 10 of the ranking. • On 28 June 2023, RBI has released the 27th issue of
• Germany, US and UK are in 11th, 12th and 13th Financial Stability Report in which these things have
positions, respectively. come to the fore.
• World Economic Forum has released the report in • Gross and net NPAs have come down from 11.5%
collaboration with Accenture. and 6.1% in March 2018 to 3.9% and 1% in March 2023.
• The global energy transition has slowed down amid • SCBs has strengthened their capital base with a
the global energy crisis and geopolitical volatilities. historic high level of capital-to-risk-weighted assets ratio
• As per the report, India is the only major economy of 17.1% and common equity Tier 1 capital ratio of 13.9%
that has accelerated across equitable, secure and in March 2023, according to the report.
sustainable dimensions of the Energy Transition Index. • At the bank group level, the GNPA ratio of public
• India has successfully reduced the energy intensity of sector banks (PSBs) may increase from 5.2% in March
its economy and the carbon intensity of its energy mix 2023 to 6.1 % in March 2024.
despite continued economic growth. • The GNPA ratio of private sector banks may increase
• Universal access to electricity has been achieved in from 2.2% in March 2023 to 3.8% in March 2024.
India by replacing solid fuels with cleaner cooking • The GNPA ratio of foreign banks may increase from
options. 1.9% in March 2023 to 2.6% in March 2024.
• India’s performance has improved mainly due to the • The provisioning coverage ratio (PCR) increased to
deployment of renewable energy. 74.0%. The profit after tax of SCBs recorded a growth of
• The pace of thermal power plant expansion has 38.4% in 2022-23.
considerably slowed in India. • India’s credit-to-GDP gap remains negative since
• India emerged as one of the least affected countries March 2013 as per the FSR.
by the recent energy crisis mainly due to the low share of • The system-level capital to risk-weighted assets ratio
natural gas in power generation. (CRAR) in March 2024, under baseline, medium and
• Besides India, Singapore is the only country that has severe stress scenarios, is projected at 16.1%, 14.7% and
shown energy transition momentum. 13.3%, respectively.
• Stress tests are an assessment of the resilience of Who was the first RBI governor to be honoured with the
banks’ balance sheets to unforeseen shocks in the award?
macroeconomic environment. A. Raghuram Rajan
B. Manmohan Singh
635. According to RBI Financial Stability Report, gross C. Amitav Ghosh
NPA ratio of credit card receivables for public sector D. Bimal Jalan
banks increased to _______ as of March 2023. E. Urjit Patel
A. 12% Answer: A
B. 14% • The chief of the Reserve Bank of India, Shaktikanta
C. 16% Das was honoured with the title of ‘Governor of the Year’
D. 18% for 2023 by Central Banking in London.
E. 20% • Central Banking is an international economic
Answer: D research journal. The award recognised his role as the
• Gross NPA ratio of credit card receivables for public RBI chief in managing inflation and skilfully handling
sector banks increased from around 10% a year ago to India's banking system during crises like COVID pandemic
18% as of March 2023 according to RBI Financial Stability and global turmoils.
Report. • He was recommended for the award by the
• The gross NPA ratio for private banks was stable at publication in March 2023. He was awarded the title for
1.9%. The gross NPA ratio for foreign banks stood at his leadership of the central bank during global turmoil
1.8% against the year-ago period. and tough situations.
• The gross NPA ratio for commercial banks was • Shaktikanta Das held the position in December,
largely stable at 2.0%. 2018. Months before his appointment, India's major Non
• The report said there has been an overall Banking Financial Company (NBFC) went bankrupt,
improvement in asset quality in respect of personal triggering a liquidity crunch.
loans. • The NBFC fallout also revealed huge deficiencies in
• The report said the impairments in the credit card the business models of several mid-sized banks who were
receivables segment have increased marginally. heavily dependent on NBFCs. Afterwards, several other
• Credit card receivables formed a smaller part of PSU banks like Punjab and Maharashtra Co-operative Bank,
banks’ personal loans portfolio at 0.1%. also collapsed.
• Credit card receivables formed higher share of 10.1% • Moreover, he is the second Central Bank governor to
for private banks and 15.3% for foreign banks. be honoured with the award after Raghuram Rajan, who
• Credit card receivables formed 4.8% of commercial bagged the title in 2015.
banks’ personal loans portfolio as of March FY23.
• Impairments in education loans remained high at 637. As per BOB report __________ states have achieved
5.8%. less than 75% of capex targets in FY23.
• According to the RBI report, bank retail loans saw a A. 16
Combined Annual Growth Rate (CAGR) of 24.8% from B. 14
March 2021 to March 2023. C. 15
• Total Special Mention Accounts (SMA) Ratio falling D. 20
to 2.3% in March 2023 from 4.2% in March 2021. E. 11
• GNPA ratio of unsecured retail loans declined from Answer: B
3.2% in March 2021 to 2% in March 2023. • As per BOB report, 14 states have achieved less than
75% of capex targets in FY23.
636. In June as per report Reserve Bank of India, • Many states like Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, UP
Shaktikanta Das was honoured with the title of and Kerala have failed to meet the target of actual
‘Governor of the Year’ for 2023 by Central Banking in capital expenditure (capex) on various fronts.
London.
• Only four states-Karnataka, Sikkim, Arunachal • The Directions will also cover baseline security
Pradesh and Bihar have over achieved and crossed the measures for ensuring system resiliency as well as safe
100% mark. and secure digital payment transactions.
• Two others states Jharkhand and Madhya Pradesh • RBI has asked PSOs to effectively identify, monitor,
attain 98% mark. control and manage cyber and technology related risks
• Eleven states achieved 80% of capex targets in FY23. arising out of linkages of PSOs with unregulated entities
The other states have registered lower-than-average who are part of their digital payments ecosystem (like
achievement rates. payment gateways, third-party service providers,
• UP and Maharashtra had an outlay of Rs 2.19 lakh vendors, merchants, etc.).
crore which is 29.2% of the total capex of these 25 states. • PSOs shall ensure adherence to these Directions by
• Andhra Pradesh with 23% performed worst. Tripura, such unregulated entities as well, subject to mutual
Nagaland and Haryana had less than 50% achievement agreement.
rate. • An organizational policy in this respect, approved by
• Andhra Pradesh and Punjab were the only states the Board, shall be put in place.
which had exceeded their fiscal deficit target. • A payment system operator means a legal entity
• The states have to improve their record to push responsible for operating a payment system. The PSO
forward the investment cycle. provides services by operating on certain models. They
• In the last few years, the Capex of the government is largely outsource their payment and settlement-related
considered to be the prime driver of capex in the activities to various other entities. Examples of PSOs
economy. include Google Pay, Amazon Pay, NPCI, Paytm etc.
• PSOs in India include Clearing Corporation of India,
638. In June as per report Reserve Bank of India released National Payments Corporation of India, Cards Payment
draft directions on cyber resilience and digital payment Networks, Cross border Money Transfer, ATM networks,
security controls for payment system operators (PSOs). Prepaid Payment Instruments, White Label ATM
Which of the following is among the Non-banks payment Operators, Instant Money Transfer, and Trade
system operators (PSOs)? Receivables Discounting System, Bharat Bill Payment
A. Non-Banking Financial Companies System.
B. National Payments Corporation of India • The “Cyber Security Framework in Banks” circular
C. Cards Payment Networks from RBI sets the guidelines for Banks in India for
D. Clearing Corporation of India developing and implementing next-generation cyber
E. Scheduled Commercial Banks defence capabilities.
Answer: E • The framework would direct the execution of
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has released the progressively more robust security measures based on
draft Master Directions on Cyber Resilience and Digital the nature, scale and variety of bank digital product
Payment Security Controls for Payment System offerings.
Operators (PSOs). • The RBI cyber security framework addresses three
• To ensure that the authorised non-bank Payment core areas: Establish Cyber Security Baseline and
System Operators (PSOs) is resilient to traditional and Resilience, Operate Cyber Security Operations Centre (C-
emerging information systems and cyber security risks. SOC), Cyber Security Incident Reporting (CSIR).
• The draft covers governance mechanism for
identification, assessment, monitoring and management 639. Recently as per report Amazon has committed to
of Cybersecurity risks including information security risks invest an additional $__________ billion in India over the
and vulnerabilities, and specifies baseline security next seven years.
measures for ensuring safe and secure digital payment A. $15 billion
transactions. B. $18 billion
C. $17 billion
D. $12 billion
E. $10 billion • In September 2021, the Union Finance Ministry
Answer: A unveiled a four-year NMP worth an estimated Rs 6 lakh
• Amazon is upping its investment in India by crore with the aim to unlock value in brownfield projects
committing an additional $15 billion in the country over by engaging the private sector, transferring to them
the next 7 years. This will take Amazon's total India revenue rights and not ownership in the projects, and
investment across all businesses to $26 billion. using the funds so generated for infrastructure creation
• The announcement came as Amazon CEO Andy Jassy across the country.
met Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi in the US. • The sectors included for monetisation included
• According to the Amazon.in blog post, Amazon has roads, ports, airports, railways, warehousing, gas and
pledged to digitise 10 million small businesses, enable product pipeline, power generation and transmission,
$20 billion in exports, and create 2 million jobs in India mining, telecom, stadium, hospitality and housing.
by 2025. • During the first year, monetisation of public sector
• Currently, Amazon India has already digitised over brownfield assets unlocked a value of Rs 97,693 crore,
6.2 million small businesses, enabled over $7 billion in surpassing the target of Rs 88,000 crore.
exports, and created over 1.3 million direct and indirect • Further, in preparation for FY 2023-24, a panel
jobs. headed by the Cabinet secretary reaffirmed the target of
• Amazon has completed 10 years in India recently, Rs 1.79 trillion as originally set by the NITI Aayog.
which started with just 100 sellers. Today, it empowers • In FY23, the Ministry of Road Transport and
more than 12-lakh Indian businesses to sell crores of Highways — which had been leading in asset
products online and delivers across the country. monetisation during FY22 — could only achieve 49 per
cent of its target of Rs 17,384 crore.
640. In financial year 2023 government has monetised • For the current FY, the ministry has set a target of Rs
assets worth ___________against a target of Rs 1.62 44,000 crore — planned to be met through the accruals
trillion. from the toll-operate-transfer (TOT) model, two rounds
A. Rs 1.18 trillion of infrastructure investment trust (InvIT), and toll
B. Rs 1.27 trillion securitisation.
C. Rs 1.03 trillion • The Indian Railways fell short of its target —
D. Rs 1.32 trillion achieving a quarter of the set goal of Rs 7,750 crore. For
E. Rs 1.45 trillion the current FY, it has set its sights on asset monetisation
Answer: D amounting to Rs 30,000 crore.
• The Centre monetised assets worth Rs 1.32 trillion in
FY23, against a target of Rs 1.62 trillion, as key 641. Recently as per report India's gross domestic
ministries, such as railway, road transport, power, and product (GDP) has touched the $3.75 trillion-mark in
telecom failed to meet its targets. 2023 so far from around $2 trillion in __________.
• For 2023-24, a Cabinet secretary-headed panel A. 2016
earlier this month restated the Rs 1.79-trillion target as B. 2014
set by the NITI Aayog. C. 2018
• The ministries and departments that did not meet D. 2020
their targets in FY23 included — the Ministry of Civil E. 2017
Aviation, the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, and Answer: B
the Department of Food and Public Distribution. • India's gross domestic product (GDP) has touched
• In contrast, the ministries of coal, mines, petroleum the $3.75 trillion-mark in 2023 so far from around $2
and natural gas, and shipping successfully achieved their trillion in 2014.
targets during the 2022-23 period. • FM Sitharaman has called India a ‘bright spot’ in the
• The target was set as part of the government’s global economy, highlighting its position as the fifth
ambitious initiative, National Monetisation Pipeline largest economy in the world.
(NMP).
• At current prices, India's GDP ranks above the UK which has been included this year as well. HUL won this
($3,159 billion), France ($2,924 billion), Canada ($2,089 category for Ogilvy’s work on Bru.
billion), Russia ($1,840 billion), and Australia ($1,550 • Welspun won the best creative in the digital
billion) at current prices. category for its QuikDry Towel ad.
• Last year, India surpassed UK to become the fifth
largest economy and is now only behind US ($26,854 643. According to Reserve Bank of India (RBI) bulletin in
billion), China ($19,374 billion), Japan ($4,410 billion), June Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is expected to
and Germany ($4,309 billion) according to projections by account for ____________percent of retail digital
the International Monetary Fund (IMF). transactions volume in the next five years.
• Recent government data revealed that India's GDP A. 40 %
grew by 6.1 per cent in the fourth quarter of fiscal year B. 50 %
2022-23 beating Street estimates. C. 70 %
• For the entire fiscal 2022-23, the growth rate came D. 90 %
in at 7.2 per cent underscoring the country's economic E. 80 %
resilience amid geopolitical conflicts and global Answer: D
headwinds. • Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is expected to
• In its monetary policy committee (MPC) meeting account for 90 percent of retail digital transactions
outcome announced last week, the RBI projected India's volume in the next five years, the Reserve Bank of India
GDP growth at 6.5 per cent in the current fiscal. The (RBI) bulletin said on June 23.
central bank projected June quarter (Q1) growth at 8 per • The Bulletin, a monthly publication that offers
cent, Q2 at 6.5 per cent, Q3 at 6 per cent, and Q4 at 5.7 insights into the developments in domestic and global
per cent. economies, doesn’t represent the views of the central
bank.
642. According to the third edition of Kantar’s Creative • UPI transactions in May 2023 reached Rs 14.3 trillion
Effectiveness Awards ___________ is the most creative in terms of value and 9.41 billion in volume. The number
agency. increased by 2 percent in value from Rs 14.07 trillion in
A. gilvy April 2023 and 6 percent in volume from 8.89 billion in
B. Welspun April 2023.
C. Hindustan Unilever • But the average ticket size of transactions through
D. Burger King credit cards was recorded three times more than UPI
E. Godrej Consumer (Unified Payments Interface) in May 2023, according to
Answer: A the data in the latest monthly bulletin by the Reserve
• Ogilvy is the most creative agency and Hindustan Bank of India (RBI) on June 23.
Unilever the most creative corporate, according to the • The ticket size for credit cards was 4,968 and for UPI
third edition of Kantar’s Creative Effectiveness Awards it was 1,582.
for television and digital. • With the linking of RuPay credit cards to UPI, the
• Across TV, Kantar awarded standout performers for share of P2M (person-to-person) transactions in value
eight categories — food & beverage (in which Red Label terms is also anticipated to rise, owing to a higher
from HUL won the award), personal care (Mamaearth average ticket size of credit card purchases than UPI.
from Honasa Consumer), services (Burger King), home
care (HUL’s Surf Excel), short format or under 15 seconds 644. Recently as per Financial Stability Report (FSR) of
(Godrej Consumer Products for Kala Hit), and the two the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) __________for non
newly added categories — technology (Google) and OTC banking finance companies (NBFCs) is bigger risk to meet
(Iodex Ultragel from Haleon). minimum capital requirements.
• Kantar had introduced an ‘un-stereotype’ category A. Liquidity risk
last year to celebrate gender progressive advertising, B. Asset Quality
C. Capital Risk
D. Strategic Risk • The total net NPA ratio of NBFCs reduced further to
E. Operational Risk 1.3%, with capital position remaining robust, at CAR of
Answer: A 27.5% in March 2023, above the minimum requirement
• Liquidity risk for non banking finance companies of 15%.
(NBFCs) is bigger than asset quality or capital risk with as
many as 24 NBFCs likely to face negative cumulative 645. According to the latest Ericsson Mobility Report 5G
mismatch in liquidity over the next one year in the high- subscriptions in India to reach 700 million by end
risk scenarios. ___________.
• Comparitvely, only five NBFCs would fail to meet A. 2027
minimum capital requirements in a severe stress B. 2028
scenario, the half yearly Financial Stability Report (FSR) C. 2029
of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) said. D. 2030
• System level stress tests for assessing the resilience E. 2025
of the NBFC sector to credit risk shocks were conducted Answer: B
for a sample of 135 large NBFCs. • According to the latest Ericsson Mobility Report, 5G
• The tests were carried out under a baseline and two subscriptions reached around 10 million by the end of
stress scenarios, medium and high. 2022 and are estimated to account for about 57 per cent
• Under a baseline scenario projected for one year of mobile subscriptions in the country by the end of 2028,
ahead, based on assumptions of business continuing making it the fastest growing 5G region globally.
under usual conditions the gross non performing asset • The report also highlighted that smartphone
(GNPA) ratio is assessed at 4.1% up from 3.4% in March subscriptions in India as a percentage of total mobile
2023 with capital adequacy ratio (CAR) at 24.4% down subscriptions are expected to grow from 76 per cent in
slightly from 25% in March 2023. 2022 to 93 per cent in 2028.
• Under a medium risk shock of after applying 0.25 to • It added that 4G subscriptions are expected to
one standard deviation (SD) shocks to the decline from 820 million in 2022 to 500 million by 2028.
macroeconomic variables, the GNPA ratio increased to • By 2028, 5G is estimated to account for almost 80
5.5% and CAR fell by 60 basis points relative to the per cent of all fixed wireless access (FWA) connections.
baseline. One basis point is 0.01 percentage point. • The number of smartphone subscriptions is also
• Under the high-risk shock after applying 1.25 of two projected to grow at a compound annual growth rate
SDs, the capital adequacy ratio of the sector declined by (CAGR) of five per cent, reaching over 1.14 billion by
90 basis points relative to the baseline to 23.5%. 2028 in India from 840 million at the end of 2022.
• The number of NBFCs that would fail to meet the
minimum regulatory capital requirement of 15% 646. In June as per report __________ state have
increases from three under the baseline scenario to five breached the NITI Aayog’s target of 80 per cent electric
under medium and severe stress scenarios, respectively. penetration in the three-wheelers category by 2030.
• However, a larger number of NBFCs were exposed to A. Bihar and Jharkhand
liquidity risk which was assessed by capturing the impact B. Chhattisgarh and Assam
of a combination of assumed increase in cash outflows C. Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
and decrease in cash inflows. D. Telangana and Andhra Pradesh
• Overall NBFCs continued their robust growth in the E. Odisha and Gujarat
second half of the fiscal with personal loans rising by Answer: B
31.3%. • Chhattisgarh and Assam have already breached the
NITI Aayog’s target of 80 per cent electric penetration in
• The GNPA ratio of NBFCs continued to decline during
with industry and services each registering more than the three-wheelers category by 2030 and four others --
Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Bihar, and Uttarakhand are
two percentage points reduction.
within striking distance of it.
• Public sector NBFCs had low GNPA ratios (2.8%)
relative to their private counterparts (GNPA ratio 5.5%).
• A total of 227,453 electric three-wheelers (e3Ws) panchayats, and the private sector, will be able to earn
have been sold so far this year, an 77 per cent increase "green credit" for taking environmentally friendly
from 128,094 in the same period of last year. actions.
• Nine states are above the national average: • For the implementation of the Green Credit
Chhattisgarh (88.25 per cent), Assam (82.48 per cent), Programme, the government has identified 8 sectors to
Uttar Pradesh (79.50 per cent), Punjab (74.53 per cent), start with, which include increasing the green cover
Bihar (70.27 per cent), Uttarakhand (69.95 per cent), through tree plantation across the country, promoting
Rajasthan (58.48 per cent), Madhya Pradesh (55.16 per water conservation, water harvesting and water use
cent), and Jharkhand (52.61 per cent). efficiency/savings, including treatment and reuse of
• Of the five states with the highest electric wastewater, promoting natural and regenerative
penetration in three-wheelers, three are also among the agricultural practices and land restoration to improve
top five in terms of the total three-wheelers sold. With productivity, soil health and nutritional value of food
sales of 116,357 three-wheelers, Uttar Pradesh is the produced, waste management, reducing air pollution,
largest market with a share of 26 per cent of all three conservation and restoration of mangroves, sustainable
wheelers sold in the country. It is also the state with the building and infrastructure and more.
largest electric three-wheelers sales with 40 per cent of • The goal is to "incentivize voluntary environmental
all e3W sales. actions."
• Bihar, with 37,773, is the second largest in e3Ws, • The green credits will be tradable, and those who
followed by Maharashtra (32,625), Gujarat (31,738), and earn them will be able to sell them on proposed domestic
Assam (29,993). The top five account for 57 per cent of market platforms.
the country’s e3W sales. • The proposed ‘Green Credit Scheme’ allows agencies
• Vahan’ is the National vehicle registry, which intends (private companies, village forest communities) to
to collate all the information available with road identify land and begin growing plantations.
transport authorities for easy access by both citizens and • After three years, they would be eligible to be
regulators. considered as compensatory forest landif they met the
• Vahan allows access to all details related to vehicles Forest Department’s criteria.
such as registration number, chassis/engine number, • An industry needing forest land could then approach
body/fuel type, colour, manufacturer and model and the agency and pay it for parcels of such forested land,
provides various online services to citizens. and this would then be transferred to the Forest
Department and be recorded as forest land.
647. In June as per report Ministry of Environment, • If implemented, it allows the Forest Department to
Forest, and Climate Change (MoEFCC) notified the draft outsource one of its responsibilities of reforesting to non-
‘Green Credit Programme (GCP)’ implementation rules government agencies.
2023.
As per guidelines _______ will be able to earn "green 648. In June as per report TS Singh Deo has been
credit" for taking environmentally friendly actions. appointed as deputy Chief Minister of _________.
A. Industries A. Maharahstra
B. Farmers Producers Organisations B. Karnataka
C. Urban Local Bodies C. Odisha
D. Gram Panchayats D. Tamil Nadu
E. All of the above E. Chhattisgarh
Answer: E Answer: E
• The Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate • TS Singh Deo has been appointed as deputy Chief
Change (MoEFCC) notified the draft ‘Green Credit Minister of Chhattisgarh by Congress chief Mallikarjun
Programme (GCP)’ implementation rules 2023. Kharge.
• Individuals, industries, farmers producers
organisations (FPOs), urban local bodies (ULBs), gram
• TS Singh Deo is the first Deputy Chief Minister of passed away, In which of the following year did she won
Chhattisgarh. He is also the current titular Maharaja of her first oscar?
Surguja. A. 1963
• The appointment has been announced in a review B. 1969
meeting held to discuss the upcoming Chhattisgarh C. 1971
Assembly elections. D. 1986
• At present, 11 states have Deputy CMs. The Andhra E. 1975
Pradesh government has the highest number (Five) of Answer: B
Deputy CMs. • Glenda Jackson, the two-time Oscar winner who
• Uttar Pradesh has also two Deputy CMs — Keshab renounced a successful film and stage career in her 50s
Prasad Maurya and Brajesh Pathak. to become a member of the British Parliament, then
• The longest-serving Deputy Chief Minister of India is returned to the stage at 80 as the title character in “King
Sushil Kumar Modi. Lear,” died at her home in Blackheath, London. She was
• Deputy Chief Minister is not mentioned in the 87.
constitution. Deputy Chief Minister is appointed by ruling • She had won her first best-actress Oscar, for playing
party to maintain balance in the political situation. the wayward Gudrun Brangwen in Mr. Russell’s “Women
in Love” (1969), an adaptation of the D.H. Lawrence
649. Recently as per report Kyriakos Mitsotakis has won novel.
the parliamentary election of which of the following • Her second was for her portrayal of the cool divorcée
country? Vickie Allessio in “A Touch of Class” (1973).
A. Spain • Ms. Jackson pivoted to politics in 1992 and was
B. Namibia elected to Parliament representing the London
C. Turkey constituency of Hampstead and Highgate for the Labour
D. New Zealand Party.
E. Greece • After the party took control of government in 1997,
Answer: E she became a junior minister of transport, only to resign
• Greece’s conservative New Democracy party has the post two years later before a failed attempt to
won the parliamentary election. become mayor of London.
• This will give reformist Kyriakos Mitsotakis another
four-year term as the Prime Minister. 651. International Day of Parliamentarism is celebrated
• Centre-Right New Democracy party was ahead with annually on ___________.
40.5% of the vote. It was ahead with 158 seats in the A. 27th June
300-seat parliament. B. 30th June
• It was ahead of Syriza, which is a radical leftist party. C. 28th June
Syriza won the elections in 2015. It ran the country till D. 25th June
2019. E. 20th June
• On 25th May 2023, elections were held in Greece for Answer: B
the second time in five weeks. • International Day of Parliamentarism is celebrated
• No single party received an absolute majority in annually on 30 June.
Parliament in the first poll held on 21 May under a • On 30 June 1889, Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU)
different electoral system. was founded.
• Kyriakos Mitsotakis served as the prime minister of • The inaugural UN International Day of
Greece from July 2019 to May 2023. Parliamentarism was celebrated in 1899.
• Its capital is Athens, and the currency is the Euro. • International Day of Parliamentarism was officially
designated in 2018 by a United Nations General
650. Recently in june Glenda Jackson, the two-time Oscar Assembly Resolution.
winner who become a member of the British Parliament
• The theme for International Day of Parliamentarism • Bal Sahitya Puraskar 2023:
2023 is 'Parliaments for the Planet.' • Renowned children’s author Sudha Murty is Among
• Inter-Parliamentary Union is headquartered in the selected awardees.
Geneva, Switzerland. Its president is Duarte Pacheco. • She will be awarded for her collection of stories
titled ‘Grandparents’ Bag of Stories’ in English language.
652. What is the name of the nobel prize winner who • Suryanath Singh has been selected for the Hindi
was known as father of modern portfolio theory passed language category.
away in June 2023? • He will be awarded for his collection of short stories,
A. William F. Sharpe ‘Kotuk App’.
B. Merton H. Miller • About Yuva Puraskar:
C. Harry Markowitz • It is a literary honour that Sahitya Akademi annually
D. John McCarthy confers on young writers of outstanding works in one of
E. Headly Carter the 24 major Indian languages.
Answer: C • It was Instituted in 2011, and recognises young
• Harry Markowitz, a Nobel Prize-winning economist writers under 35, to encourage and promote young
who redefined money management by showing that writers.
diversification could reduce investment risk while • It comprises a cash prize of Rs. 50,000 and an
maximizing returns, has died. He was 95. engraved copper plaque.
• Markowitz was best known as the father of modern • Important Awardees of Yuva Puraskar 2023
portfolio theory, which he introduced in 1952 in an • Anirudh Kanisetti will be given the Yuva Puraskar for
article published by the Journal of Finance. ‘Lords Of The Deccan: Southern India From Chalukyas To
• He broke with traditional investment analysis by Cholas’ in English language.
focusing on combinations of assets, rather than • Atul Kumar Rai will receive the Yuva Puraskar in the
individual securities. Hindi language category for his novel ‘Chandpur ki
• The Operations Research Society of America honored Chanda’.
his contributions in these areas, as well as portfolio
theory, by presenting him with the 1989 John von 654. In June as per report ____________ won the Czech
Neumann Theory Prize. Ladies Open for her second title on the Ladies European
• In 1990 he shared the Nobel Prize in economics with Tour.
Merton H. Miller and William F. Sharpe for his ideas on A. Aditi Ashok
evaluating stock-market risk and reward and on valuing B. Deepika Kumari
corporate stocks and bonds. C. Diksha Dagar
D. Sanjana Sharma
653. Recently, Sahitya Akademi declared a list of Bal E. Suhani Tyagi
Sahitya Puraskar and winners of its Yuva Puraskar for Answer: C
2023. • Golf player Diksha Dagar, who represented India in
___________has been selected for the Hindi language the Tokyo Olympics 2022 along with Aditi Ashok,
category for his collection of short stories, ‘Kotuk App’. clinched the Czech Ladies Open.
A. Atul Kumar Rai • Diksha Dagar's victory at the Czech Ladies Open
B. Suryanath Singh marked her second victory on the Ladies European Tour.
C. Sanjana Sharma At the 2019 South African Women's Open in Cape Town,
D. Anirudh Kanisetti the golfer from Haryana earned her first LET title in just
E. Sudha Murty her fourth professional outing.
Answer: B • After Aditi Ashok, Diksha Dagar is the only other
• Recently, Sahitya Akademi declared a list of Bal Indian woman golfer to have won two or more LET titles.
Sahitya Puraskar and winners of its Yuva Puraskar for
She represented India at the Tokyo 2022 Olympics.
2023.
655. According to Stockholm International Peace B. The PGI for states/UTs was first released for the
Research Institute’s (SIPRI) annual assessment of the year 2017-18.
‘state of armaments, disarmament and international C. No states/UTs have attained the highest grade
security’, the global inventory of nuclear warheads has ‘Daksh’.
increased by ________ to 9,576 weapons over the past D. Only Punjab and Chandigarh have attained
year. Grade Prachesta -2 (score 641-700).
A. 78 E. The PGI 2.0 classified states/UTs into 8 grades.
B. 86 Answer: E
C. 91 • Ministry of Education released Performance
D. 56 Grading Index (PGI) 2.0 for 2021-22.
E. 64 • For 2021-22, Government has released
Answer: B Performance Grading Index (PGI) 2.0 for states and
• Global inventory of nuclear warheads has increased union territories.
over the past year. China, India and Pakistan are among • The Department of School Education and
nine countries that have nuclear weapons and have Literacy, Ministry of Education has created PGI for
added numbers to their respective arsenal. states and UTs.
• As on January 2023, the world has 9,576 weapons in • For a comprehensive analysis, this index assesses
military stockpiles for potential use. That is 86 more than the performance of the school education system at
the number in January 2022. Of this stockpile, an the state/UT level.
estimated 3,844 warheads were ‘deployed’ with missiles • The PGI for states/UTs was first released for the
and aircraft. year 2017-18.
• Around 2,000 of these ‘deployed’ weapons — nearly • The new PGI is more focused on qualitative
all of which belonged to Russia or the USA—were kept in assessment, digital initiatives and teacher
a state of high operational alert, meaning that they were education.
fitted to missiles or held at airbases hosting nuclear • It comprises 1,000 points across 73 indicators
bombers. grouped into two categories- Outcomes and
• These are the findings of Sweden-based think tank Governance management.
Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI) • These categories are further divided into six
which today released its annual assessment of ‘state of domains, namely learning outcomes (LO), access
armaments, disarmament and international security’. (A), infrastructure and facilities (IF), equity (E),
• The estimate of the size of China’s nuclear arsenal governance process (GP), and teachers education
increased from 350 warheads in January 2022 to 410 in and training (TE&T).
January 2023 and it is expected to keep growing • The PGI 2.0 classified states/UTs into ten grades.
• India was estimated to have a growing stockpile of The highest grade is 'Daksh' (Score of more than
about 164 nuclear weapons, up from 160 the previous 940 points).
year. • The lowest grade is Akanshi-3 which is for score
• According to SIPRI estimates, Pakistan possessed up to 460.
approximately 170 nuclear warheads as of January 2023 • The indicators of the Performance Grading Index
— up from 165 from the previous year. 2.0 have been aligned with the policy initiatives and
strategies introduced after the implementation of
July the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 for proper
656. Consider the following statement regarding tracking of the progress.
Performance Grading Index (PGI) 2.0 for 2021-22. • No states/UTs have attained the highest grade
Which of the following statement is incorrect? ‘Daksh’.
A. The Department of School Education and • Only Punjab and Chandigarh have attained
Literacy, Ministry of Education has created PGI for Grade Prachesta -2 (score 641-700).
states and UTs.
• Chandigarh received a score of 659.0 while • It was primarily used for khadaous (wooden
Punjab get a score of 647.4. sandals).
• Six states/UTs attained Grade Prachesta - 3 • Sambhal Horn Craft is made using raw material
(score 581-640) from dead animals.
• Three states namely Arunachal Pradesh,
Meghalaya and Mizoram got Grade Akanshi – 3 in 658. According to the ‘Plant Discoveries 2022’
the PGI 2.0. published by the Botanical Survey of India (BSI)
• 13 States/ UTs attained Akanshi- India added ________ animal species to its faunal
database.
657. In July as per report which state seven products A. 772
have received Geographical Indication tag from the B. 695
Geographical Indications Registry in Chennai? C. 664
A. Tamil Nadu D. 584
B. Karnataka E. 748
C. Maharashtra Answer: C
D. Uttar Pradesh • In 2022, India added 664 animal species to its
E. Odisha faunal database.
Answer: D • Union Minister for Environment, Forest and
• UP’s seven products have received Geographical Climate Change Bhupendra Yadav released the
Indication tag from the Geographical Indications details of new discoveries and new records in
Registry in Chennai. Kolkata.
• These products are ‘Amroha Dholak’, ‘Mahoba • India added 664 animal species to its faunal
Gaura Patthar Hastashlip’, ‘Mainpuri Tarkashi’, database, which includes 467 new animal species
‘Sambhal Horn Craft’, ‘Baghpat Home Furnishings’, and 197 new records.
‘Barabanki Handloom Product’ and ‘Kalpi • India has also added 339 new plant species
Handmade Paper’. which includes 186 taxa that are new to science and
• Amroha Dholak is made of woods such as 156 taxa as new distributional records from the
Mango, jackfruit and teakwood. country in the year 2022.
• This musical instrument is created by using wood • The discoveries details of animal species have
from mango and sheesham trees to carve the been compiled by the Zoological Survey of India
hollow blocks, which are later fitted with animal (ZSI) in the publication titled ‘Animal Discoveries -
skin, mostly goatskin. New Species and New Records 2023’.
• Baghpat is famous for its handloom home • Floral discoveries are in ‘Plant Discoveries 2022’
furnishing product. published by the Botanical Survey of India (BSI).
• Only cotton yarn is used in the handloom • Out of the total discovered species, there are
weaving process. Baghpat is known for weaving on three new species and one new record of mammals,
the frame loom instead of the pit loom. two new records of birds, 30 new species and two
• Historically, Kalpi has been a centre of new records of reptiles, six new species and one
handmade paper manufacturing. It was formally new record of amphibia and 28 new species and
introduced at Kalpi by Munnalal ‘Khaddari’, a eight new records of fishes.
Gandhian, in 1940s. • Out of total 664 animal species, 583 species are
• The Mahoba Gaura Patthar Hastashlip is a stone invertebrates while 81 species are vertebrates.
craft. It is made using white-coloured stone that is • The maximum number of new discoveries have
mainly found in this region. been recorded from Kerala with 14.6% of new
• Tarkashi is a famous art form from Mainpuri in species.
Uttar Pradesh. It is mainly brass wire inlay work on • Tamil Nadu (12.6%) and West Bengal (7.6%)
wood. came second and third, respectively.
• In 2022, the highest number of new discoveries approved the formation of India’s first domestically
has been recorded in the last 10 years. regulated carbon market through a gazette
notification.
659. Recently, the union Ministry of New and As per guidelines which of the following will act as
Renewable Energy (MNRE) has issued scheme the carbon market regulator?
guidelines for implementation of strategic A. National Steering Committee
interventions for green hydrogen transition (SIGHT) B. A Technical Committee,
programme. C. An Accredited Carbon Verification Agency
Which of the following will be the implementing D. Central Electricity Regulatory Commission
agency responsible for the scheme’s execution? E. All of the above
A. Power Grid Corporation of India Answer: E
B. Bureau of Energy Efficiency, India • On 30 June, the union government approved the
C. Rural Electrification Corporation Limited formation of India’s first domestically regulated
D. Solar Energy Corporation of India carbon market through a gazette notification.
E. Power Finance Corporation Ltd • The 'Carbon Credit Trading Plan 2023',
Answer: D announced for the first time under the Energy
• Recently, the union Ministry of New and Conservation Act, aims to set up a carbon credit
Renewable Energy (MNRE) has issued scheme trading market in the country.
guidelines for implementation of strategic • The Bureau of Energy Efficiency, a wholly owned
interventions for green hydrogen transition (SIGHT) subsidiary of the Ministry of Power has drafted the
programme. scheme.
• It is a sub component under the National Green • The scheme will include the formation of a
Hydrogen Mission. “National Steering Committee, a Technical
• Component 1 of SIGHT : It aims at providing Committee, an Accredited Carbon Verification
electrolyzer manufacturing incentives with a total Agency, and the Central Electricity Regulatory
outlay of INR 4440 crore for the period FY26 to Commission (CERC) as the carbon market regulator.
FY30. • The Grid Controller of India will act as the
• Component 2 of SIGHT: It focuses on green registry of the Indian carbon market.
hydrogen production with financial outlay of INR • The Steering Committee will be responsible for
13050 crore. laying down the rules, procedures, and guidelines
• The Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI) for the functioning of the carbon market.
would be the implementing agency responsible for • The technical committee will be responsible for
the scheme’s execution. compliance with the above rules and regulations.
• National Green Hydrogen Mission was launched • The Bureau has entrusted the existing power
in 2022, with the goal of making India energy exchanges for the carbon credit certificate trading.
independent and decarbonising major sectors of the • Any project or entity that saves on emissions can
economy. issue carbon credits against its savings. These will
• India’s Green Hydrogen production capacity is be usually energy efficiency, renewable energy, and
likely to reach at least 5 MMT per annum, with an sustainable agriculture projects.
associated renewable energy capacity addition of • These credits can be purchased by an entity that
about 125 GW. is a carbon emitter.
• The targets by 2030 are likely to bring in over Rs. • A carbon credit allows its owner to emit a
8 lakh crore investments. certain amount of carbon dioxide or other
• Nearly 50 MMT per annum of CO2 emissions are greenhouse gases.
expected to be averted by 2030. • One credit is equal to one tonne of carbon
dioxide or other greenhouse gases.
660. In July as per report the union government
• However, the notification did not specify the E. Jammu & Kashmir
activities that would be eligible under the Carbon Answer: E
Trading Scheme. • The Government launched India's first Tele-
MANAS chat-bot in the Union Territory of Jammu &
661. In July as per report an MoU was signed Kashmir, which will ensure round the clock services
between the Ministry of Education (MoE), Govt. of of health counsellors, clinical psychologists and
India, IIT Madras and which country for establishing consultants.
first ever IIT campus outside India? • The Centre had in Budget 2022 announced the
A. Singapore National Tele Mental Health Programme of India,
B. UAE Tele Mental Health Assistance and Networking
C. Tanzania Across States (Tele-MANAS).
D. Australia • Tele-MANAS is a two-tier system.
E. Japan • Tier 1 comprises State Tele MANAS cells, which
Answer: C includes trained counsellors and mental health
• MoU for the establishment of the IIT Madras specialists.
campus in Zanzibar- Tanzania was signed on 06 July • Tier 2 comprises specialists at District Mental
2023. Health Programme (DMHP)/Medical College
• The MoU was signed between the Ministry of resources for physical consultation and/or
Education (MoE), Govt. of India, IIT Madras and the eSanjeevani for audio visual consultation.
Ministry of Education and Vocational Training • The MoU inked between the J-K Health and
(MoEVT) Zanzibar- Tanzania. Medical Education Department and the Homi
• This is the first ever IIT campus to be established Bhabha Cancer Hospital and Research Centre will
outside India. provide significant technical support to improve
• Union Minister for Education Shri Dharmendra cancer care services in the UT and help us to
Pradhan said that National Education Policy 2020 is establish preventive oncology service, day care
paving the way for making knowledge a key centres and palliative care service at district
component of bilateral relations. hospitals.
• NEP 2020 recommends that “High performing • Another important MoU signed with NIMHANS
Indian universities will be encouraged to set up Bengaluru will improve mental health services,
campuses in other countries”. training and capacity building of medical officers
• IIT Madras will provide academic programs, and nursing staff.
curricula, student selection aspects and pedagogical • Lt Governor also rolled out and launched several
details. new initiatives to strengthen health system
• The government of Zanzibar-Tanzania will meet resilience including T3 - Test, Treat and Talk.
the capital and operating expenditure.
• IIT Madras degrees will be awarded to the 663. Recently as per report Centre has identified
students enrolled in this campus. ___________ critical minerals, including lithium,
cobalt, nickel, graphite, tin and copper, which are
662. In July as per report Government launched essential for the country’s economic development
India's first Tele-MANAS chat-bot in and national security.
__________which will ensure round the clock A. 27
services of health counsellors, clinical psychologists B. 30
and consultants. C. 31
A. Maharashtra D. 17
B. Karnataka E. 16
C. Uttar Pradesh Answer: B
D. Odisha
• In a strategic move, the Centre has identified 30 • In order to resemble vintage Steam locos,
critical minerals, including lithium, cobalt, nickel, Southern Railways will soon launch Steam heritage
graphite, tin and copper, which are essential for the special train for tourists. Railway Minister Ashwini
country’s economic development and national Vaishnaw inspected the special tourist train at M G
security. R Central Railway Station, Chennai.
• In a strategic move, the Centre has identified 30 • For the newly rolled out Steam heritage special
critical minerals, including lithium, cobalt, nickel, train, the Driving Trailer Cars of MEMU have been
graphite, tin and copper, which are essential for the modified to resemble vintage Steam locos and
country’s economic development and national attached to both ends of tourist train. The Steam
security. heritage special train is exquisitely designed
• In November 2022, the Ministry of Mines had coaches have been equipped with world class
constituted a seven-member Committee to identify facilities.
a list of minerals critical to our country and the • Other than this, Shri Jagannath Yatra, a Bharat
panel decided to have a ‘three-stage assessment’ to Gaurav Tourist Train, was launched from Delhi`s
arrive at a list of critical minerals. Safdarjung Railway Station by Union ministers
• The committee also called for a need for Dharmendra Pradhan and Ashwini Vaishnaw and G
establishing a National Institute or Centre of Kishan Reddy, earlier this year.
Excellence on critical minerals on the lines of • Railway Minister Ashwani Vaishnaw visited ICF
Australia’s CSIRO, which is one of the largest R&D in Chennai, where the manufacturing of the semi-
organisations in the world. high-speed trains are being done. During his visit,
• A wing in the Ministry of Mines can be the Railway Minister inspected and approved the
established as a Centre of Excellence for Critical new colour scheme of Vande Bharat train
Minerals. • The Indian Railways is expected to change the
• The Geological Survey of India, an attached colour of the Vande Bharat trains, whose
office of Ministry of Mines, has carried out a G3 manufacturing and makeover are currently going in
stage mineral exploration (fairly advanced) in Salal- Integral Coach Factory(ICF) in Chennai.
Haimna areas of Reasi district, Jammu & Kashmir, • The newly manufactured Vande Bharat trains
and estimated an inferred resource of 5.9 million will be getting a colour combination of saffron,
tonnes of lithium ore. white and black, after its makeover.
• The US has declared 50 minerals critical in light
of their role in national security or economic 665. Which article of the Indian constitution states
development. that the state shall endeavour to secure a Uniform
• The UK considers 18 minerals critical, the Civil Code for its citizens?
European Union has declared 34 minerals critical, A. Article 42
and Canada and Japan 31 each. Australia has 26 B. Article 40
critical minerals. C. Article 41
D. Article 44
664. Recently as per report in order to resemble E. Article 45
vintage Steam loco, _________ Railways will soon Answer: D
launch Steam heritage special train for tourists. • The Parliamentary Standing Committee on
A. Western Railways Personnel, Public Grievances, Law and Justice held a
B. Eastern Railways meeting under the chairmanship of Sushil Modi on
C. Central Railways the Uniform Civil Code (UCC). Seventeen members
D. Northern Railways participated in the Meeting.
E. Southern Railways • At present, the personal laws of various
Answer: E communities are governed by their religious
scriptures.
• The Uniform Civil Code provides uniformity in the • The scheme aims to expand and modernize Fire
laws of marriage, divorce, inheritance, adoption Services within National Disaster Response Fund
etc. for all religious communities. (NDRF).
• The Central government may introduce a bill on • In order to seek funds for the projects/proposals
implementing the UCC during the upcoming under the Scheme, the concerned State
monsoon session of Parliament. Governments are required to contribute 25% of the
• Uniform Civil Code refers to having a common total cost of such projects/proposals from their
set of laws governing personal matters such as budgetary resources.
marriage, divorce, inheritance, etc. for all citizens • The North-Eastern and Himalayan (NEH) States
irrespective of their religion. shall contribute 10% of the total cost of
• Article 44 of the Indian constitution states that projects/proposals from their budgetary resources.
the state shall endeavour to secure a Uniform Civil • The scheme has its origins in the
Code for its citizens recommendations of the Fifteenth Finance
• Hindus, Muslims, Christians, and Sikhs have their Commission.
own different personal laws. • It allows an allocation of 12.5% of each of the
• Uniform Civil Code main aim is to protect National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF) and State
vulnerable sections including women and religious Disaster Response Fund (SDRF) for the Funding
minorities. Window of Preparedness and Capacity Building.
• UCC is being opposed by some people because
they argue that UCC could undermine the cultural 667. In July as per report Union Cabinet approved
fabric of the country and will restrict religious the Digital Personal Data Protection Bill, 2022.
freedom. The Bill proposes to levy a penalty of up to _______
crore on entities for every instance of violation of
666. In July as per report Ministry of Home Affairs norms.
has launched a Scheme for Expansion and A. ₹100 crore
Modernization of Fire Services in the States with an B. ₹200 crore
outlay of ___________. C. ₹250 crore
A. Rs.1,000 Crore D. ₹300 crore
B. Rs.2,000 Crore E. ₹350 crore
C. Rs.3,000 Crore Answer: C
D. Rs.4,000 Crore • The Union Cabinet approved the Digital Personal
E. Rs.5,000 Crore Data Protection Bill, 2022 on 5 July.
Answer: E • The bill is likely to be introduced in the upcoming
• Ministry of Home Affairs has launched a Scheme Monsoon session, which is starting from 20 July.
for Expansion and Modernization of Fire Services in • Under this bill, there is a provision to form a
the States. Data Protection Board to monitor the provisions of
• The scheme has a total outlay of Rs.5,000 Crore. the Act.
Out of the total outlay, the government has kept an • The Bill proposes to levy a penalty of up to ₹250
amount of Rs. 500 crore for incentivizing the States crore on entities for every instance of violation of
on the basis of their legal and infrastructure-based norms.
reforms. • All online and offline data in India will come
• It was announced by Union Home Minister, Shri under its legal domain.
Amit Shah while chairing a meeting with Ministers • As per the bill, Personal data may only be
of Disaster Management of the States/Union processed with the explicit consent of the
Territories in New Delhi on 13th June, 2023. individual.
• However, there will be exceptions in cases where the Commission in writing of the reasons for not
the government requires access to data for reasons filing them online.
of national security and maintaining law and order. • They may continue to file their reports in hard
• The Data Protection Bill was first drafted in copy along with CD/pen drive in the prescribed
November 2022. format.
• The Supreme Court has considered privacy as a
fundamental right. 669. In July as per report International Monetary
• Ministry of Electronics and Information Fund (IMF) has agreed to provide ___________
Technology (MeitY) considered 21,666 suggestions billion to Pakistan in badly needed relief to help bail
for the draft of the Bill. out the impoverished country's ailing economy.
A. $1 billion
668. In July as per report Election Commission of B. $2 billion
India launched a portal for parties to file C. $3 billion
_________. D. $4 billion
A. Complaint E. $5 billion
B. Financial statements Answer: C
C. Candidate nominations • The International Monetary Fund (IMF) has
D. Symbols allocation reached a staff-level pact with Pakistan on a $3
E. All of the above billion stand-by arrangement, the lender said, a
Answer: B decision long awaited by the South Asian nation
• On 3 July, the portal was launched to allow which is teetering on the brink of default.
registered political parties to file their financial • The deal, subject to approval by the IMF board in
statements, including contribution reports, audited July, comes after an eight-month delay and offers
annual accounts, and poll expenditure statements. some respite to Pakistan, which is battling an acute
• The Commission has taken this step with two balance of payments crisis and falling foreign
objectives - to facilitate political parties to exchange reserves.
overcome difficulties in filing physical reports and • The International Monetary Fund is a major
to ensure timely filing of financial statements in a financial agency of the United Nations, and an
standardized format. international financial institution, headquartered in
• Online availability of data is expected to Washington, D.C., consisting of 190 countries.
increase the level of compliance and transparency.
• As per the Representation of the People Act, 670. According to a World Bank and WTO report,
1951, and the Transparency Guidelines issued by India’s share in global commercial services exports
the Commission, political parties are required to has increased from 2% in 2005 to ________% in
submit financial statements to the Election 2022.
Commission/Chief Electoral Officers of States/UTs. A. 2.1%
• The online portal also has a facility to send B. 4.9%
reminders as messages on the registered mobile C. 5.1%
numbers and registered emails of the authorized D. 3.9%
representatives of the political party to adhere to E. 4.4%
the deadline. Answer: E
• A comprehensive guide manual with graphical • According to a World Bank and WTO report,
representations and FAQs has also been sent to India’s share in global commercial services exports
political parties explaining the process of online has increased from 2% in 2005 to 4.4% in 2022.
modules and online report filing. • China and India have doubled their share of
global commercial services exports between 2005
• Political parties who do not wish to file their
financial reports through online mode shall inform to 2022.
• The report titled ‘Trade in services for • The Member States stressed the need for a joint
development’ states that India has become a and balanced approach to countering the
popular destination for medical travel. trafficking of illicit drugs.
• Around 3.5 million foreign patients came to • The Member States called for compliance with
India between 2009 to 2019. the Convention on the Prohibition of the
• Foreign patients from United Kingdom, the Development, Production, Stockpiling, and Use of
United States, Bangladesh, Nepal and Sri Lanka Chemical Weapons and on Their Destruction.
visited India in search of cost-effective and high • Member states agreed to declare 2024 as the
quality treatment. SCO Year of Environment.
• As per the report, in India, South Africa and • The presidency of the SCO is handed over to
Türkiye, jobs directly linked to cross-border services Kazakhstan.
exports are more than 10% of total services sector • The next meeting of the SCO Council of Heads of
jobs. State will be held in 2024 in Kazakhstan.
• The trade-in service has expanded mainly due to • One important achievement of the Summit is
China, Hong Kong, Singapore, and India. that Iran has become a member state of SCO. Now,
• According to the report, India and the the SCO has 9 member states.
Philippines will need to skill their workforce and • Nine SCO member states are China, India, Iran,
invest primarily in research and development to Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Pakistan, Russia, Tajikistan
grow their domestic service sectors. and Uzbekistan.
• In 2018, Services value-added accounted for over
51% of India's total exports. 672. Recently India virtually hosted the
• Global commercial services exports have almost ___________ Summit of the Shanghai Cooperation
tripled between 2005 and 2022. Organization on 4 July.
A. 21st
671. Recently in June Shanghai Cooperation B. 22nd
Organisation (SCO) Heads of State adopted New C. 23rd
Delhi Declaration. D. 24th
Where will the next meeting of the SCO Council of E. 25th
Heads of State be held in 2024? Answer: V
A. Kazakhstan • India virtually hosted the 23rd Summit of the
B. Kyrgyzstan Shanghai Cooperation Organization on 4 July.
C. Pakistan • Prime Minister Narendra Modi chaired the 23rd
D. Iran Summit of the SCO Council of Heads of State.
E. Russia • All SCO member states China, Russia,
Answer: A Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Pakistan, Tajikistan, and
• Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) Heads Uzbekistan were invited to participate in the
of State adopted New Delhi Declaration. summit.
• A virtual meeting of the Council of Heads of • Iran, Belarus and Mongolia were invited as
State of SCO was held on 04 July 2023. observers. As per SCO tradition, Turkmenistan was
• According to the New Delhi Declaration, the also invited as the guest chair.
Member States will develop common principles and • The heads of two SCO bodies, the Secretariat
approaches to form a unified list. and the SCO's Regional Anti-Terrorism Structure -
• This unified list will be of terrorist, separatist and the Rats, also participated in the summit.
extremist organizations whose activities are • The theme of India’s Chairmanship of SCO-
prohibited on the territories of the SCO Member SECURE is derived from the acronym given by the
States. Prime Minister at the 2018 SCO Qingadao Summit.
• ‘Secure’ means Security, Economic development, in Al Maryah Island, Abu Dhabi under the theme:
Connectivity, Unity, Respect for sovereignty and "Fostering Synergies – Uniting the Falcon and Tiger
territorial integrity, and Environmental protection. Economies".
• India has established new pillars of cooperation Which of the following organized the summit?
under its chairmanship by prioritizing startups and A. 5paisa
innovation, traditional medicine, digital inclusion, B. Nippon Life India AMC
youth empowerment, and shared Buddhist C. SBI Capital Markets Limited
heritage. D. HDFC AMC
• India has chaired a total of 134 meetings and E. Central Depository Services Limited
events, including 15 ministerial meetings. Answer: C
• The UAE-India Economic Summit was held on 3
673. In July as per report India & _____________ July at the ADGM Auditorium in Al Maryah Island,
signed MoU on Electoral Cooperation. Abu Dhabi.
A. Australia • It has been organized under the theme:
B. Japan "Fostering Synergies – Uniting the Falcon and Tiger
C. Singapore Economies".
D. Panama • It has been jointly hosted by SBI Capital Markets
E. Egypt Limited (SBICAPS) and Abu Dhabi Global Market
Answer: D (ADGM).
• The Election Commission of India and Electoral • It has brought industry leaders from India and
Tribunal (ET) of Panama signed a Memorandum of the UAE and marked the official opening of the
Understanding in Panama City to establish the SBICAPS ADGM Branch Office.
institutional framework for their ongoing • During the summit, many topics such as
cooperation in the field of election management startups, green energy, capital markets, and
and administration. stressed asset resolution have been discussed.
• ECI has been expanding its links and cooperation • The conference featured a series of panel
with foreign Election Management Bodies (EMBs) discussions addressing key topics in the new
through its ‘International Cooperation Programme’. economy.
Having signed MoUs with Mexico, Brazil and Chile • The sustainability and green energy panel
in the past years, this is the fourth MoU signed by discussed on financing options for sustainable
ECI with an EMB in the Latin Americas region, with projects, climate-conscious investments, regulatory
an overall 31 MoUs with EMBs and international aspects of sustainable finance, and the impact of
organisations across the world. carbon trading.
• The Election Commission of India and the • The UAE-India Economic Summit has not only
Electoral Tribunal of Panama are members of the strengthened ties between both countries but also
Association of World Election Bodies (A-WEB). open the way for investments and prosperity for
• The ECI delegation will be attending the 11th both countries.
Executive Board Meeting of A-WEB and an
International Conference at Cartagena, Colombia. 675. Recently HDFC Bank and Housing
• The Association of World Election Bodies (A- Development Finance Corporation merger becomes
WEB) is the largest association of Election effective from 1 July.
Management Bodies (EMBs) worldwide with 119 The merger of both entities will make it the
EMBs as Members & 20 Regional __________largest lender in the world by market
Associations/Organisations as Associate Members. capitalization.
A. First
674. Recently as per report UAE-India Economic B. Second
Summit was held on 3 July at the ADGM Auditorium C. Fourth
D. Third the following is matched incorrectly?
E. Fifth A. Public Provident Fund - 7.1 %
Answer: C B. Senior Citizens' Savings Scheme – 8.2 %
• HDFC Bank and Housing Development Finance C. Kisan Vikas Patra – 7.5 %
Corporation merger becomes effective from 1 July. D. Sukanya Samriddhi – 8 %
• HDFC Bank has announced the merger of E. National Savings Certificate – 7.7
Housing Development Finance Corporation Ltd. Answer: D
(HDFC) with itself. • The government has hiked the interest rates of
• From July 7, all commercial papers of HDFC Ltd small savings schemes by up to 30 bps for the July-
will be transferred in the name of HDFC Bank. September 2023 quarter.
• Housing Development Finance Corporation • The interest rate on the national savings
shareholders will get 42 new HDFC Bank shares for certificate has been hiked by 70 basis points (bps),
every 25 shares held by them. the highest for any instrument in this revision.
• The merger of both entities will make it the • The interest rates of schemes like the 1-and 2-
fourth-largest lender in the world by market year post office time deposit, 5-year recurring
capitalization. The market cap of the combined deposits have been hiked.
entity is estimated to be $172 billion. • As per the notification issued by the Union
• It will rank fourth in equity market Finance Ministry, the government has increased the
capitalisation, behind JPMorgan Chase & Co, interest rate for 1-year, 2-year, from 6.8 per cent,
Industrial and Commercial Bank of China., and Bank 6.9 per cent, in the last quarter to 6.9 per cent, 7.0
of America Corp, as per data compiled by per cent, respectively.
Bloomberg. • The interest rate on the Public Provident Fund
• The new HDFC Bank will have 120 million (PPF) has yet again been kept unchanged at 7.1 per
customers and more than 1,77,000 employees. It cent.
will increase its branch network to more than 8,300. • The interest rates for Post Office Recurring
• HDFC Bank will also leave behind State Bank of Deposit has been hiked to 6.5 per cent in the
India (market capitalisation of about $62 billion) September quarter.
and ICICI Bank (market capitalisation of about $79 • The interest rates for Senior Citizens' Savings
billion). Scheme, Monthly Income Scheme, National Savings
• The merger of both entities was announced on 4 Certificate, Kisan Vikas Patra (KVP), Sukanya
April 2022. Samriddhi Yojana have been kept at the same level.
• Now, HDFC Bank will be completely owned by • The government is also launching a one-time
public shareholders and existing shareholders of new small savings scheme — the Mahila Samman
HDFC Ltd will own a 41 per cent stake in the bank. Bachat Patra — from April 1.
• The merger would allow more credit to flow to • Mahila Samman Bachat Patra can now be
the economy. It will also allow for the underwriting opened in 12 public sector banks and four private
of larger-ticket loans. sector banks. The scheme was announced in the
• All employees of HDFC Ltd below the age of 60 Union Budget this year, and was only available
would become HDFC Bank employees. through post offices.
• Currently, HDFC Securities Ltd., HDB Financial • The small savings scheme, available up to March
Services Ltd., HDFC Asset Management Co. Ltd, 2025, offers deposit facility up to Rs 2 lakh in the
HDFC ERGO General Insurance Co. Ltd., and HDFC name of women or girls, for a tenor of 2 years at a
Capital Advisors Ltd are the subsidiaries of HDFC fixed interest rate of 7.5 per cent
Bank.
677. In July as per report RBI panel recommended
676. Consider the following match the coloumn in measures to internationalise rupee.
respect with small savings schemes for Q2. Which of Who chaired the Inter-departmental group of RBI
that recommended measures to internationalise E. Vivek Deep
rupee? Answer: B
A. R. Subramanian • A five-member working group has been
B. Rohit Jain constituted by the Indian Banks’ Association (IBA).
C. Radha Shyam Ratho • The group has been constituted for
D. Jayant Kumar Dash implementing the recommendations of the Reserve
E. Vivek Deep Bank of India’s committee on the “working of the
Answer: C Asset Reconstruction Companies (ARCs)”.
• RBI panel recommends measures to • The Group comprises Ajit Kumar, MD, and CEO,
internationalise rupee. of the Secondary Loan Market Association (SLMA),
• It recommended facilitating a Local Currency and Hari Hara Mishra, CEO, of the Association of
Settlement (LCS) framework for bilateral ARCs in India.
transactions in local currencies. • Other members are Mythili Balasubramanian,
• It also recommended encouraging opening of Executive Director, Edelweiss ARC, and senior
INR accounts for non-residents, both within and officials from the State Bank of India (Dharmendra
outside India. Pali) and ICICI Bank (Anupama Ranade).
• Inter-departmental group (IDG) of the Reserve • The group has been formed on the orders of RBI.
Bank of India was chaired by RBI Executive Director • The central bank desires that the IBA and SLMA,
Radha Shyam Ratho. in consultation with the lenders and ARCs, take
• It also recommended recalibrating the Foreign appropriate measures for early implementation of
Portfolio Investment (FPI) regime. the recommendations of the committee.
• It recommended the exporters should be • Committee’s recommendations aimed at
provided equitable incentives for INR trade enabling ARCs to fulfil the increasing financial
settlement. sector demand.
• IDG recommended allowing banking services in • The working group will undertake a thorough
INR outside India through foreign branches of review of the assignment agreements and trust
Indian banks. deed templates.
• Over the short-term, IDG recommended nine • This review will focus on the acquisition of
measures. stressed assets from lenders by ARCs and will
• IDG recommended facilitating the launch of BIS include necessary updates in line with evolving
Investment Pools (BISIP) in INR. changes and expectations within the ARC sector.
• It recommended inclusion of government • On April 28, 2021, under the chairmanship of
securities in global bond indices. Sudarshan Sen, former ED, RBI, RBI had set up a
• Over the medium-term horizon, IDG’s committee to undertake a comprehensive review of
recommendations include a review of taxes on the working of ARCs.
masala bonds and other measures. • On November 2, 2021, the report of the
committee was released.
678. In July as per report IBA has constituted a • The ARC framework is designed to allow
working group for implementing the originators to focus on their core function of lending
recommendations of RBI’s committee on working of by removing stressed financial assets.
the Asset Reconstruction Companies. This • According to the committee, ARCs act as primary
committee was set up under the chairmanship of agents for recovery on the acquisition of such
_______________. financial assets.
A. R. Subramanian
B. Sudarshan Sen 679. Consider the following statement regarding QS
C. Radha Shyam Ratho World University Rankings 2024. Which of the
D. Jayant Kumar Dash following statement is incorrect?
A. 45 educational institutions from India have found edition of the coveted Quacquarelli Symonds (QS)
place in the annual international university World University Ranking.
rankings done by Quacquarelli Symonds (QS).
B. Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Madras 680. Recently as per report growth in the Core
emerged as the best Indian institution by securing sector remains stable at ___________% in May.
149th rank. A. 2.1%
C. Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT) B. 25%
(United States), University of Cambridge and C. 3.5%
University of Oxford (United Kingdom) secured first, D. 4.3%
second and third positions in the ranking. E. 4.9%
D. National University of Singapore (NUS) became Answer: C
the first Asian university to break into the top 10, at • The pace of growth of eight key infrastructure
number eight. sectors remains 4.3% due decline in the production
E. Chandigarh University (CU) ranked first rank of crude oil, natural gas and electricity in May 2023.
among India’s private universities. • As per the data released by the government,
Answer: B during April-May of this fiscal, the output growth of
• Forty-five educational institutions from India these eight sectors has slowed down to 4.3%
have found place in the annual international against 14.3% of same period of last 2022.
university rankings done by Quacquarelli Symonds • Cement and steel production remained highest
(QS). robust. The output of crude oil has contracted by
• In the 20th anniversary edition of the rankings 1.9%.
for 2024, Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) • The coal output growth rate declined to 7.2% in
Bombay emerged as the best Indian institution by May as compared to last year.
securing 149th rank. • The rate of growth in the production of fertilizer,
• Last year, IIT Bombay was in 172nd position. steel and cement slowed down to 9.7%, 9.2% and
• Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT) 15.5%, respectively.
(United States), University of Cambridge and • Another separate data has been also released by
University of Oxford (United Kingdom) secured first, the Controller General of Accounts (CGA).
second and third positions in the ranking • It shows that the central government's fiscal
• Nine out of the top ten spots were taken by deficit stood at Rs 2.1 lakh crore (11.8% of the full-
universities from the US and Europe — the National year budget estimates) by May-end 2023.
University of Singapore (NUS) became the first • The government is aiming to bring down the
Asian university to break into the top 10, at number fiscal deficit during the current financial year to 5.9
eight. per cent of the gross domestic product (GDP).
• The ranking criteria comprise the following nine • The eight Core Industries in decreasing order of
indicators: Academic Reputation (30 per cent), their weightage: Refinery Products (28.04)>
Employer Reputation (15 per cent), Faculty Student Electricity (19.85)> Steel (17.92)> Coal (10.33)>
Ratio (10 per cent), Citations per Faculty (20 per Crude Oil (8.98)> Natural gas(6.88)> Cement (5.37)>
cent), International Faculty Ratio (5 per cent), Fertilizers (2.63).
International Student Ratio (5 per cent), • The Eight Core Industries comprise 40.27% of the
International Research Network (5 per cent), weight of items included in the Index of Industrial
Employment Outcomes (5 per cent) and Production (IIP).
Sustainability (5 per cent).
• Chandigarh University (CU) has achieved a 681. In July as per report Central Government
significant milestone by securing the first rank recently issued a notification to bring the Goods &
among India’s private universities in the latest Services Tax Network (GSTN) under the purview of
the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA).
Whom among the following is responsible for D. USD 841.2 billion
investigating the offences of money laundering E. USD 454.7 billion
under the PMLA? Answer: A
A. Department of Economic Affairs • According to the data released by the RBI on 30
B. Department of Revenue June, India's external debt rose marginally to USD
C. Department of Expenditure 624.7 billion at the end of March 2023, although the
D. Department of Investment and Public Asset debt-to-GDP ratio declined.
Management • External debt stood at US$ 619.1 billion at the
E. Department of Financial Services end of March 2022, which has increased further by
Answer: B US$ 5.6 billion by March 2023.
• The Central Government recently issued a • The ratio of external debt to GDP declined to
notification to bring the Goods & Services Tax 18.9 per cent at the end of March 2023 from 20 per
Network (GSTN) under the purview of the cent at the end of March 2022.
Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA). • The valuation gain stood at US$ 20.6 billion due
• It is an Act to prevent money laundering and to to appreciation of the US dollar against the Indian
provide for the confiscation of property derived rupee and major currencies such as yen, SDR and
from or involved in money laundering. euro.
• The Act was formulated for the following • The long-term debt (with an original maturity of
objectives: more than one year) was stood at US$496.3 billion
• Prevent money-laundering. at end-March 2023, a decline of US$ 1.1 billion
• Combat/prevent channelising of money into compared to end-March 2022.
illegal activities and economic crimes. • The share of short-term debt (with an original
• Provide for the confiscation of property derived maturity of up to one year) in total external debt
from, or involved/used in, money laundering. increased from 19.7% at end-March 2022 to 20.6%
• Provide for matters connected and incidental to at end-March 2023.
the acts of money laundering. • Similarly, the ratio of short-term debt (original
• The Enforcement Directorate (ED) in the maturity) to foreign exchange reserves increased
Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, is from 20% at end-March 2022 to 22.2% at end-
responsible for investigating the offences of money March 2023.
laundering under the PMLA. • Loans remained the largest component of
• India (FIU-IND), under the Department of external debt with a share of 32.5%, followed by
Revenue is the central national agency responsible currency and deposits (22.6%), trade loans and
for receiving, processing, analysing, and advances (19.9%) and debt securities.
disseminating information relating to suspect
financial transactions. 683. Recently as per report GST collections rose 12
• The scheduled offences are separately per cent to over Rs 1.61 lakh crore in June, 2023.
investigated by agencies mentioned under GST came into effect from July ___________.
respective acts, for example, the local police, CBI, A. 2016
customs departments, SEBI, or any other B. 2017
investigative agency, as the case may be. C. 2018
D. 2019
682. According to the data released by the RBI on E. 2015
30 June, India's external debt rose marginally to Answer: B
_________billion at the end of March 2023. • The Finance Ministry said that the GST
A. USD 624.7 billion collections rose 12 per cent to over Rs 1.61 lakh
B. USD 425.8 billion crore in June, 2023.
C. USD 784.6 billion
• The gross GST collection has crossed Rs 1.60 lakh • The scheme includes various schemes which can
crore mark for the fourth time since the roll-out of boost farmers’ income, strengthen natural or
the indirect tax regime six years ago on July 1, 2017. organic farming, rejuvenate soil productivity, and
• The revenues had touched a record high of Rs ensure food security.
1.87 lakh crore in April, 2023. • The Sulphur coated Urea (Urea Gold) is being
• Goods and Services Tax is a single indirect tax introduced in the country for the first time under
which has replaced multiple indirect taxes in India this scheme.
such as the excise duty, VAT, services tax, etc. • The scheme will not have a separate budget.
• GST is levied on the supply of goods and services • It will be financed by the savings of existing
in India. It came into effect from July 2017. fertiliser subsidy under schemes run by the
• The GST council has fitted over 1300 goods and Department of fertilisers.
500 services under four tax slabs of 5%, 12%, 18% • At present, the MRP of urea is Rs.242 per 45 kg
and 28% under GST. bag of urea (exclusive of charges towards neem
• 7% of goods and services fall under exempted coating and taxes as applicable), whereas the
GST Rate Slab i.e. 0% tax. actual cost of the bag comes around Rs. 2200.
• Some of these that are of regular consumption • By 2025-26, eight Nano urea plants with
include fresh fruits and vegetables, milk, butter production capacity of 44 Crore bottles equaling to
milk, curd, natural honey, flour, etc. 195 LMT of conventional urea will be
• It was introduced by the 101st Constitutional commissioned.
Amendment Act, 2016. • The outlay also provides for the setting up and
revival of 6 urea production units (at Chambal Ferti
684. Recently as per report Cabinet Committee on ltd. - Kota Rajasthan, Matix ltd. Panagarh West
Economic Affairs (CCEA) has recently approved the Bengal, Ramagundam-Telangana, Gorakhpur-UP,
PM-PRANAM scheme with a total outlay of Sindri-Jharkhand and Barauni-Bihar) to reduce the
____________. current import dependency for urea and make India
A. ₹3,60,128.7 crore self-sufficient in this aspect by 2025- 26.
B. ₹3,70,128.7 crore • The Cabinet approved ₹1,451.84 crore for
C. ₹3,80,128.7 crore Market Development Assistance (MDA) for
D. ₹3,90,128.7 crore promoting organic fertiliser from Gobardhan
E. ₹3,50,128.7 crore Plants.
Answer: B • Under the scheme, a subsidy of ₹1,500 per tonne
• The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs will be provided.
(CCEA) has recently approved the PM-PRANAM • This subsidy will be provided to support the
scheme with a total outlay of ₹3,70,128.7 crore for marketing of organic fertilisers produced as by-
three years ending March 2025. products from Biogas Plants/Compressed Biogas
• PM-PRANAM will promote use of nutrient- (CBG) Plants set up under umbrella GOBARdhan
based, biofertilizers for sustainable agriculture. initiative.
• The name of scheme stands for- PM Programme
for Restoration, Awareness, Generation, 685. In July as per report Capital market regulator
Nourishment and Amelioration of Mother Earth. SEBI has allowed asset management companies to
• The PM-PRANAM scheme will ty to conserve the become self-sponsored in case the existing sponsors
soil by promoting sustainable and balanced use of want to disassociate themselves from the business.
fertilizers. For becoming a self-sponsored AMC should have
• The Centre would incentivise those States which been in the financial services business for over
would adopt alternative fertilizers using the ___________ years and positive networth in all the
amount of subsidy that was saved by reducing the immediately preceding five years.
use of chemical fertilizers. A. 2 years
B. 3 years operationalised the ₹10,000-crore Urban
C. 4 years Infrastructure Development Fund (UIDF).
D. 5 years B. It is for creation of urban infrastructure in tier-2
E. 8 years and tier-3 cities.
Answer: D C. Interest rate on UIDF loans has been kept at bank
• Capital market regulator SEBI has allowed asset rate minus 1.5 percent i.e., 5.25 percent at present.
management companies to become self-sponsored D. The minimum size and maximum size of the
in case the existing sponsors want to disassociate project proposal shall be ₹10 crores (₹ 1 crore for
themselves from the business. northeast & hilly States) and ₹ 100 crore
• For becoming a self-sponsored AMC, it should respectively.
have been in the financial services business for over E. All of the above are correct.
five years and positive networth in all the Answer: D
immediately preceding five years. • The National Housing Bank (NHB) has
• Sponsor, proposing to disassociate, should have operationalised the ₹10,000-crore Urban
been associated with the mutual fund for at least Infrastructure Development Fund (UIDF) announced
five years. in this year’s Budget for creation of urban
• The regulator has also allowed private equity infrastructure in tier-2 and tier-3 cities.
(PE) funds to become sponsors of mutual funds. • The initial corpus for this fund — managed by
• Considering the evolution of the mutual fund NHB— is ₹10,000 crore. UIDF has been launched to
industry and significant shift in the nature of roles supplement efforts of the State governments by
and responsibilities of the AMCs in the last few providing stable and predictable source of finance
decades, most of the AMCs are well-prepared to for creation of urban infrastructure in tier-2 and
stand on their own and create trust among their tier-3 cities.
investors. • As many as 459 tier-2 cities with population of
• In view of the above, it has been decided to 50,000 to less than a lakh and 580 tier-3 cities with
allow a sponsor to voluntarily reduce its stake in an population of one lakh to less than a million as per
AMC. 2011 census are being covered under UDIF as of
• A self-sponsored AMC should have registered a now.
profit in each of the immediately preceding five • It maybe recalled that Union Finance Minister
years with average net annual profit of at least ₹10 Nirmala Sitharaman had in her budget speech this
crore. year announced setting up of the UIDF through use
• Any sponsor proposing to disassociate may of priority sector lending shortfall for creation of
undertake to reduce shareholding below 10 per urban infrastructure in tier 2 and tier 3 cities.
cent in five years in case of listed AMCs and in three • Interest rate on UIDF loans has been kept at
years in case of unlisted AMCs. bank rate minus 1.5 percent i.e., 5.25 percent at
• The PE companies should have a minimum of present.
five years experience and should have managed • The loan (principal) will be repayable in five
committed and drawn-down capital of over ₹5,000 equal annual instalments within seven years from
crore. The PE funds should have an initial the date of withdrawal, including a moratorium
shareholding of sponsor equivalent to capital period of two years while interest will be payable
contributed to an AMC to the extent of over ₹150 on quarterly basis.
crore which will be locked-in for five years. • Focus will be on basic services like sewerage and
solid waste management, water supply and
686. Consider the following statement regarding sanitation, construction and improvement of
Urban Infrastructure Development Fund (UIDF). drains/storm water drains, etc. and impact-
Which of the following statement is incorrect? oriented projects would be prioritised.
A. National Housing Bank (NHB) has
• The minimum size and maximum size of the • UPI transaction amount in June 2023 declined to
project proposal shall be ₹5 crores (₹ 1 crore for ₹14.75 lakh crore and 933 crore transactions were
northeast & hilly States) and ₹ 100 crore processes in the same month as per NPCI data.
respectively. • In May 2023, UPI transactions count had crossed
• Town planning schemes for greenfield the number of 900 crore per month.
development and parks with open gym not • In its annual report for 2022-23, RBI said UPI-led
involving major construction work. retail digital payments increased at a compounded
• The fund shall not be utilised for any type of annual growth rate (CAGR) of 50% in terms of
maintenance works or for volume between 2016-17 and 2021-22.
administrative/establishment expenses. • In the same report, RBI said UPI-led retail digital
• Further, housing, power and telecom, rolling payments grew at a CAGR of 27% in terms of value
stock like buses and trams, urban transport, health between 2016-17 and 2021-22.
and education institutions would remain out of the • According to a report by PwC India, UPI
purview of UIDF. transaction will cross 100 crore transactions per day
• Both new and ongoing projects are eligible to by FY27.
access UIDF and shall be aligned to the various
urban missions and programmes of Government of 688. How much was the centre’s fiscal deficit at the
India. end of May 2023?
• The normative allocation of first tranche of ₹ A. ₹1.1-lakh crore
10,000 crore under UIDF for 2023-24 has been B. ₹1.6-lakh crore
advised by NHB to States and UTs inviting project C. ₹1.9-lakh crore
proposals under the Fund. D. ₹2.1-lakh crore
• Allocation has been done based on the urban E. ₹2.7-lakh crore
population percentage in respective States/ UTs in Answer: D
the eligible towns/cities out of total population in • The centre’s fiscal deficit at the end of May 2023
eligible town/cities in the country. was 11.8% of budget estimates for FY24.
• Finance Department of States/ UTs have been • It was 12.3% of the FY23 budget estimate in the
designated as the nodal department for same period of the last year.
implementation of the fund while NHB is • According to the data of the Controller General
operationalising the fund through their regional of Accounts (CGA), the fiscal deficit was ₹2,10,287
offices spread across the country. crore (₹2.1-lakh crore) at end of May 2023.
• As per Union Budget, the government’s aim is to
687. In June 2023, Unified Payments Interface reduce the fiscal deficit during the FY24 to 5.9% of
(UPI) transactions declined __________. GDP. The deficit was 6.4% of the GDP in FY23.
A. 0.7% • In end of March 2024, the fiscal deficit is
B. 0.9% estimated at ₹17.86 lakh crore as per the Budget.
C. 1.2% • CGA released the revenue-expenditure data of
D. 1.6% the Union government for the first two months
E. 1.8% (April-May) of the FY24.
Answer: B • It said the net tax revenue was ₹2.78 lakh crore
• Unified Payments Interface (UPI) transactions or 11.9% of the Budget Estimate.
declined 0.9% in June 2023. • Government’s total expenditure was ₹6.25 lakh
• This is the first decline in transaction volume crore or 13.9% of the estimates in the Union Budget
since February 2023. for FY24.
• UPI transactions in June 2023 declined both in
terms of volumes and value of transactions. 689. In July as per report Insurance Regulatory and
Development Authority (IRDAI) has maintained the
status quo on obligatory cession of business for the and headquarters in Mumbai. It was incorporated
financial year 2023-24 at ________ per cent for f on 22 November 1972 under Companies Act, 1956.
General Insurance Corporation of India (GIC Re). Devesh Srivastava; (Chairman-and-Managing
A. 1 % Director).
B. 2 %
C. 3 % 690. In July as per report _____________has
D. 4 % relaunched its private banking business in India
E. 5 % almost eight years after it shut down the business
Answer: D in the country.
• The Insurance Regulatory and Development A. Citigroup
Authority (IRDAI) has maintained the status quo on B. Hong Kong and Shanghai Banking Corp Ltd
obligatory cession of business for the financial year C. JPMorgan Chase & Co
2023-24 at 4 per cent in favour of General Insurance D. Bank of America
Corporation of India (GIC Re). E. Berkshire Hathaway
• The government had notified the move recently Answer: B
saying that the entire Obligatory Cession is to be • Hong Kong and Shanghai Banking Corp Ltd
placed with GIC Re only. Obligatory cession refers to (HSBC) has relaunched its private banking business
the part of the business that general insurance in India almost eight years after it closed the
companies have to mandatorily cede to the division amid an investigation by India’s tax
national reinsurer GIC Re. department against individuals who had
• Understandably, private general insurers are unaccounted foreign currency accounts in the
against any obligatory cession to GIC Re as it bank’s Swiss branch.
doesn’t give them any freedom to place the • The private banking business serves high-net-
reinsurance business the way they like and with the worth (HNW) and ultra-high-net-worth (UHNW)
reinsurers they like. individuals and families with investable assets of
• The IRDAI had constituted a panel under more than $2 million.
Bhargava Dasgupta, MD of ICICI Lombard General • India surpassed the UK as the world's fifth
Insurance, to suggest measures to phase out largest economy in 2022 and is expected to
obligatory cession and the panel had suggested overtake Japan and Germany by 2027-28 according
phase-out the obligatory business along with the to the UN department of economic and social
right to first refusal by the GIC Re. affairs.
• Under the right to first refusal, GIC Re has the • The bank quoted a Knight Frank wealth report
first right to choose the reinsurance business from which said that the number of ultra high net worth
the general insurers and then it can be placed with individuals in India with more than $30 million to
other reinsurers. The obligatory cession was invest will increase 58% by 2027.
reduced from 5 per cent to 4 per cent in FY23. • The UK based lender will offer private banking
• The approximate size of the Indian reinsurance clients traditional lending and investment products
market is around Rs 70,000 crore in FY2022-23. and also give them access to structured products,
There are now over 10 foreign reinsurers who are alternative investments and direct equity execution
operating in India. platform.
• IRDAI had named LIC, GIC Re and New India • Last year HSBC had completed the acquisition of
Assurance as domestic systematically important L&T Mutual Fund for a total consideration of $425
insurers — which are considered as “too big or too million. Before its relaunch in India, the bank had
important to fail”. introduced private banking in Thailand in 2021, and
• General Insurance Corporation of India Limited, in Mexico, UAE, and Chengdu, Hangzhou and
abbreviated as GIC Re, is an Indian public sector Shenzhen in mainland China in 2022.
reinsurance company which has its registered office
• The Hongkong and Shanghai Banking A. 2024

Corporation Limited, commonly known as HSBC, is B. 2025
the Hong Kong-based Asia-Pacific subsidiary of the C. 2027
HSBC banking group, for which it was the parent D. 2031
entity until 1991. E. 2041
Answer: D
691. In July as per report IDFC First Bank’s board of • India’s middle class will increase from 432
directors approved the programme of million in 2021 to 715 million by 2031.
amalgamation of its parent IDFC Ltd with IDFC First • India’s middle class will increase to around 1.02
Bank. billion when India turns 100 in 2047.
Who is the current MD & CEO of IDFC First Bank? • These are the findings of a study by People
A. J. Venkatramu Research on India’s Consumer Economy (PRICE), an
B. Nageswara Rao independent think tank.
C. Amitabh Choudhary • The study is titled “The Rise of the Middle Class:
D. Padmaja Chunduru A Force to Reckon With”.
E. V. Vaidyanathan • It was released recently on July 5 by Amitabh
Answer: E Kant, G20 Sherpa and others.
• IDFC First Bank’s board of directors approved the • The report defines the middle class as those
programme of amalgamation of its parent IDFC Ltd having an annual average household income at
with IDFC First Bank. 2021 prices of ₹5 lakh to ₹30 lakh and per capita
• According to the approved scheme of per day income between ₹298 and ₹1,770.
amalgamation, the share exchange ratio will be 155 • The study notes that the structure of India’s
equity shares of face value of Rs 10 of IDFC First demographics will change from the present
Bank for every 100 equity shares of face value of Rs inverted pyramid to a diamond shape.
10 of IDFC Ltd. • In inverted pyramid, small rich class is on the
• IDFC Ltd’s shares have a market capitalisation of top. It is followed by a bigger middle class and a
Rs 17,455 crore. huge low-income class.
• IDFC First Bank has a market capitalization of Rs • In diamond shape, large number of poor will
54,311 crore. move into the middle class bracket.
• After the merger, the bank’s standalone book • The report notes the income demographics will
value per share would increase by 4.9%, as be changed.
calculated on audited financials as of March 31, • The percentage of people grouped as destitute
2023. will come down from 14% in 2020-21 to 5% of the
• IDFC First Bank is an Indian private-sector bank. population by 2030-31.
It was founded in 2015. It is headquartered in • Indian middle class increased from 14% in 2004-
Mumbai. V. Vaidyanathan is its MD & CEO. 05 to nearly 31% in 2020-21.
• Infrastructure Development Finance Company • It will increase to 47% in 2030-2031 and
Limited (IDFC) is a finance company under the comprise 61% by 2046-47.
Department of Financial Services, Government of • Middle class has largest concentration in
India. southern and central India.
• It was founded in 1997. It is headquartered in
Chennai, Tamil Nadu. 693. According to RBI’s Financial Stability Report,
the write-offs to gross non-performing assets
692. According to People Research on India’s (GNPAs) ratio of private sector banks stood at
Consumer Economy (PRICE), India’s middle class will __________% in FY23.
increase from 432 million in 2021 to 715 million by A. 42.3%
______. B. 47.9%
C. 41.4% • However, PSU firm New India remained the non-
D. 44.5% life segment market leader with a wide gap, and
E. 50.2% saw its GDPW gross at ₹10,000 crore in Q1 of this
Answer: B fiscal.
• Write-offs to gross non-performing assets ratio • The company’s GDPW grew 9 per cent at
of private sector banks was much higher than that ₹10,378 crore, compared to ₹9,550 crore in Q1 of
of public sector banks. FY23.
• According to RBI’s Financial Stability Report, the • ICICI Lombard General Insurance was the second
write-offs to gross non-performing assets (GNPAs) largest player after New India in Q1, and its GDPW
ratio of private sector banks stood at 47.9% in FY23. grew 19 per cent y-o-y at ₹6,387 crore (₹5,370
• The write-offs to gross non-performing assets crore).
(GNPAs) ratio of public sector banks was 22.2%. • Bajaj Allianz grabbed the Number two position
• The write-offs to GNPAs ratio of private sector among the private non-life players and its GDPW
banks in FY22 and FY21 was at 26.2% and 31%, saw an increase of 22 per cent at ₹3,789 crore
respectively. (₹3,100 crore). HDFC Ergo, the third big player in
• The write-offs to GNPAs ratio of public sector the private sector category, reported a 11 per cent
banks in FY22 and FY21 was at 17.7% and 17.3%, increase in its GDPW at ₹3,422 crore (₹3,073 crore).
respectively. • Star Health retained its top position in its health
• The write-offs to GNPAs ratio is the ratio of insurance sector, Care Health was the second big
write-off during a financial year to GNPA at the health player.
beginning of the year.
• In write-off, loans are transferred to the off- 695. Consider the following statement regarding
balance sheet records. Writing-off a loan does not World Investment Report 2023. Which of the
entail forgiving the debt. The borrower still owes following statement is incorrect?
money to the bank. A. The United Nations Conference on Trade and
Development (UNCTAD) released its World
694. According to data from the General Insurance Investment Report 2023.
Council gross direct premium underwritten for B. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in developing
general insurance companies grew 18 per cent y-o-y countries remained at $662 billion.
at __________ in quarter 1 of FY24. C. India stayed at eighth position in terms of FDI
A. ₹63,478 crore inflows.
B. ₹65,458 crore D. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) flows into India
C. ₹61,356 crore rose by 10 per cent to $56 billion in 2022.
D. ₹60,256 crore E. All of the above are correct.
E. ₹64,263 crore Answer: D
Answer: E • The United Nations Conference on Trade and
• Gross direct premium of 24 non-life insurance Development (UNCTAD) released its World
companies for the first quarter of FY24 grew 18 per Investment Report 2023.
cent y-o-y at ₹64,263 crore. • During 2022, Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in
• In Q1 of this fiscal, barring two PSU players — developing countries remained at $662 billion.
New India Assurance Co Ltd and United India • Among developing countries, 80% of FDI inflows
Insurance Co Ltd — most of the other non-life of the region went to China, Singapore, India and
players reported double-digit growth in their gross UAE.
director premium underwritten (GDPW). Navi • In 2022, FDI inflows to India rose by 10% ($49
General Insurance and Raheja QBE reported a billion) while China registered a 5% yearly growth.
decline in GDPW. • Developing countries including India attracted
FDI worth $544 billion in clean energy in 2022.
• FDI inflows to ASEAN member countries grown • Now, Maharashtra will have two deputy chief
by 41% to $222 billion. ministers. Devendra Fadnavis is the other deputy
• Overall global FDI has declined by 12% to $1.3 chief minister.
trillion in 2022. • Along with Ajit Pawar, eight other NCP Leaders
• The decline in global FDI is due to the lower also took oath as ministers.
volumes of financial flows and transactions in • Earlier, Ajit Pawar resigned as Leader of the
developed countries. Opposition after a meeting with NCP MLAs.
• According to the World Investment Report 2023, • Ajit Pawar claimed that most of the party MLAs
developing countries are facing a growing annual are with him.
investment deficit to achieve the Sustainable • NCP Chief Sharad Pawar said that party MLAs
Development Goals (SDGs) by 2030. will decide about any action against the rebel
• The gap in investment deficit has now increased leaders.
to $4 trillion per year. • Jitendra Awhad was appointed as the new
• Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) flows into India Leader of the Opposition in the state Assembly.
rose by 10 per cent to $49 billion in 2022, making it • Maharashtra now has a Shiv Sena-BJP-NCP
the third largest host country for announced alliance. Ajit Pawar also staked claim over the
greenfield projects and the second largest for party.
international project finance deals. • He said the party would contest the 2024 Lok
• Amid declining trends in global FDI, India stayed Sabha and Vidhan Sabha elections with the 'watch'
at eighth position in terms of FDI inflows. election symbol, forming a pre-poll coalition with
• Unctad said among the largest announced the BJP and its allies.
greenfield projects in India were the plans by • Nationalist Congress Party was formed on 10
Foxconn and Vedanta Resources to build one of the June 1999. It is a state party. Its election symbol is a
first chip factories in India for $19 billion and a $5 watch.
billion project to produce urea from green hydrogen
by a joint venture of TotalEnergies of France and 697. In July as per report __________became the
the Adani group. first openly gay head of state in the EU.
• United Nations Conference on Trade and A. Charles Michel
Development is a permanent inter-governmental B. Edgars Rinkevics
body established by the United Nations General C. Kaja Kallas
Assembly in 1964. D. Leo Varadkar
• Members: 195 countries, Headquarters: Geneva, E. Mette Frederiksen
Switzerland. Answer: B
• Latvia’s Edgars Rinkevics became the first openly
696. In July as per report __________took oath as gay head of state in the EU.
Maharashtra Deputy Chief Minister. • Rinkevics took oath as Latvia’s new President.
A. Jitendra Awhad Rinkevics is the longest-serving Foreign Minister of
B. Sharad Pawar Latvia.
C. Ajit Pawar • European Union never had a gay head of state
D. Aditya Thackrey before. It has had openly gay heads of governments
E. Ramesh Singhal before.
Answer: C • Although the position of Latvia’s president is
• Ajit Pawar takes oath as Maharashtra Deputy generally ceremonial, Latvia’s president can veto
Chief Minister. legislation and call referendums.
• On 2nd July 2023, the Nationalist Congress Party • Gay marriage is illegal in Latvia. Latvia's
(NCP) leader Ajit Pawar joined Eknath Shinde-led constitutional court recognised same-sex unions
Shiv Sena and the BJP government in Maharashtra. last year.
• Latvia currency is Euro. Its capital is Riga. • The theme emphasized on the economic growth
and financial stability brought by Chartered
698. In July as per report __________has appointed Accountants across the country.
Shri P. Vasudevan as Executive Director (ED) with • ICAI was formed on 1 July 1949 after the passing
effect from July 03, 2023. of the Chartered Accounts Act of 1949.
A. State Bank of India • The 6th Goods and Services Tax (GST) Day was
B. Bank of India observed on 1st July 2023. GST was first
C. Reserve Bank of India implemented in India on 1 July 2017.
D. Bank of Baroda • This year's GST Day theme is 'Celebrating
E. Canara Bank Simplification and Economic Growth'.
Answer: C
• P Vasudevan has been appointed as the 700. Nirmala Buch who passed away recently was
Executive Director (ED) of RBI. the first woman chief secretary of __________.
• He will look after the three departments A. Karnataka
including the currency management. B. Madhya Pradesh
• His appointment has become effective from 3 C. Gujarat
July. D. Bihar
• Before this appointment, he was the Chief E. Jharkhand
General Manager-in-charge of the Department of Answer: B
Payment and Settlement Systems. • Retired Indian Administrative Services (IAS)
• He has earlier served in banks and non-banking officer and Madhya Pradesh’s first woman chief
financial companies, payment and settlement secretary Nirmala Buch died of a prolonged age-
systems. related illness.
• Known for her image of a “strict administrator”
699. Chartered Accountants Day is celebrated every in bureaucratic circles, the 1960-batch IAS officer,
year on 1 July to mark the foundation of the Buch had served the Chief Secretary of Madhya
Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI). Pradesh from September 1991 to 1993.
ICAI was formed on _________. • She had also served as financial and education
A. 1 July 1947 secretary from 1975-1977. Before that, Buch had
B. 1 July 1948 served the Yojana Aayog (now NITI Ayog) and she
C. 1 July 1949 did a pioneering role in framing of ‘gramin vikas’
D. 1 July 1950 and ‘panchayati raj’ system in MP.
E. 1 July 1951
Answer: C 701. In July as per report Namboothiri passed away
• Chartered Accountants Day is celebrated every at the age of 97. He was related to which field?
year on 1 July to mark the foundation of the A. Acting
Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI). B. Painting
• It is celebrated to applaud the contribution of C. Mountaineer
Chartered Accountants in society. D. Athlete
• This year, the Institute of Chartered Accountants E. Singer
of India (ICAI) is celebrating its 75th foundation day. Answer: B
• President Droupadi Murmu inaugurated the • Renowned painter Namboothiri passed away at
75th Foundation Day celebrations of ICAI on 1 July the age of 97 years old.
2023. • On July 6, he passed away at a private hospital
• 'Empowering Financial Excellence' is the theme in Kottakkal in Malappuram district.
of Chartered Accountants Day 2023. • Noted litterateur Namboothiri, famous for his
line art and copper relief works, illustrated for
many leading Malayalam writers including D. 6th
Thakazhi Sivasankar Pillai, MT Vasudevan Nair, E. 5th
Urub and SK Pottakkad. Answer: B
• His works blended tradition with modernity, • India have lifted the SAFF Championships trophy
seamlessly blend the past and the present. for the ninth time, beating Kuwait 5-4 in the
• He was a chairman of the Kerala Lalithakala penalty shoot-out in the final after a 1-1 stalemate
Akademi. at the end of regulation time at Sree Kanteerava
• He was awarded the Raja Ravi Varma Award of Stadium in Bengaluru.
the Kerala Lalitha Kala Academy in 2003. • A thrilling penalty shootout saw the game go
• He was also awarded the Kerala State Film down the wire after Udanta Singh missed his kick.
Award for Best Art Director. Goalkeeper Gurpreet Singh again turned out as the
hero for the Indian side, saving the final kick from
702. In July as per report Neeraj Chopra won the the Kuwaiti captain.
Lausanne Diamond League title with a throw of • The Indian team made it to the final after
__________. beating Lebanon in a semi-final while Kuwait
A. 88.9m defeated Bangladesh 1-0 in the other last-four
B. 90.3m clash.
C. 86.7m • This was the second meeting of India and Kuwait
D. 87.6m in this tournament with the earlier Group stage
E. 85.4m meeting ending in a 1-1 draw.
Answer: D • With this win, Indian head coach Igor Stimac
• Javelin thrower Neeraj Chopra won the becomes the first foreign head coach to win back-
Lausanne Diamond League title. to-back SAFF Championship titles.
• Olympic champion Neeraj made a spectacular • Nepal wins the Fair Play Award for showing the
comeback after injury and clinched the title with a greatest spirit of the game.
throw of 87.6m. • Best goalkeeper of the competition: Anisur
• This year, he also won the Doha Diamond Rehman – Bangladesh.
League in May. • Golden Boot: Sunil Chhetri.
• Germany's Julian Weber finished second in the • Golden Ball: Sunil Chhetri.
competition with a javelin throw of 87.03m.
• Jakob Wadlich of the Czech Republic finished 704. In July as per report ___________won the
third with an 86.13-meter throw. Austrian Grand Prix.
• Now, Neeraj will compete in the Monaco and A. Max Verstappen
Zurich stages on July 21 and August 31 before the B. Charles Leclerc
Diamond League Grand Finale in Eugene, USA on C. Sergio Perez
September 16-17. D. Lewis Hamilton
• In the men's long jump, India's Murali E. Sebstian Vettel
Sreeshankar finished 5th with a jump of 7.88m, Answer: A
which he achieved in the third round. • Max Verstappen won the Austrian Grand Prix to
take another step towards a third successive world
703. India have lifted the SAFF Championships title.
trophy for the __________ time by beating Kuwait • Ferrari's Charles Leclerc finished second to split
5-4 in the penalty shoot-out in the final after a 1-1 the Red Bulls at their home circuit with Sergio Perez
stalemate at the end of regulation time. completing the podium at Spielberg.
A. 8th • This was double world champion Verstappen's
B. 9th seventh win out of nine this season and his fifth
C. 7th successive victory.
• Perez has won the other two races. in second. Mercedes’ Lewis Hamilton completed the
Silverstone podium.
705. In July as per report __________ has been • Verstappen’s first-ever British Grand Prix win
honoured with the Global Indian Icon of the Year drew Red Bull level with McLaren’s record run of 11
award at the annual UK-India Awards in Windsor, consecutive race victories in 1988.
south-eastern England.
Neeraj Chopra 707. In July as per report Minnu Mani became the
A. Virat Kohli first woman cricketer from ____________to play for
B. Mary Kom the India senior team.
C. Sunil Chettri A. Odisha
D. PV Sindhu B. Kerala
Answer: B C. Karnataka
• Sporting legend and India’s first-ever Olympic D. Tamil Nadu
medallist in women’s boxing, Mary Kom, has been E. Assam
honoured with the Global Indian Icon of the Year Answer: B
award at the annual UK-India Awards in Windsor, • Minnu Mani creates history as the first woman
south-eastern England. cricketer from Kerala to represent the Indian senior
• The 40-year-old former Rajya Sabha member team. Her debut performance includes a wicket in
spoke of her 20-year journey of hard work and the first over, impressing teammates and coaches
devoting her life to boxing as she accepted the alike.
award from Indian High Commissioner to the UK • As India and Bangladesh women’s cricket teams
Vikram Doraiswami. were preparing for the first T20I in Mirpur Sunday
• Filmmaker Shekhar Kapur, behind Oscar- noon, far away at Mananthavady in Kerala’s
nominated ‘Elizabeth: The Golden Age’ received a Wayanad district, the Mani household suddenly
Lifetime Achievement Award for his contribution to came alive.
the field of cinema across both nations at the • Nonetheless, Minnu finished with respectable
awards, organised by India Global Forum (IGF) as figures of 3-0-21-1, contributing to India's effort in
part of UK-India Week. restricting Bangladesh to 114/5. India later secured
• The Nehru Centre in London, the cultural wing of a comfortable seven-wicket victory, chasing down
the Indian High Commission, won the UK-India the target in just 16.2 overs.
Award for Significant Contribution to UK-India • Hailing from the Kurichiya tribe in Wayanad,
Relations. Minnu had previously made waves by being the
• UK-India Award for Business Promotion sole player from Kerala to participate in the
Organisation of the Year was conferred upon the Women's Premier League (WPL), where she was
Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce & bought by the Delhi Capitals for a staggering Rs 30
Industry (FICCI) UK. lakh.
706. Recently as per report _________won the 708. In July as per report ___________was named
British Grand Prix. the AIFF Men's Footballer of the Year for 2022-23.
A. Max Verstappen A. Sunil Chettri
B. Lando Norris B. Lallianzuala Chhangte
C. Lewis Hamilton C. Gurpreet Kaur
D. Oscar Piastri D. Sandesh Jhingan
E. Esteban Ocon E. Suresh Kumar
Answer: A Answer: B
• Max Verstappen reeled off his sixth straight win • Indian football team midfielder Lallianzuala
in British Grand Prix with Lando Norris for McLaren Chhangte was named the AIFF Men’s Footballer of
the Year for 2022-23 while Manisha Kalyan won her • Rs 2,725 crore of a contract signed by the
second consecutive Women’s Footballer of the Year Defence Ministry with Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders
award. Limited.
• The 26-year-old Lallianzuala Chhangte beat • The contract has been signed for Medium Refit
Nandhakumar Sekar and Naorem Mahesh Singh of with Life Certification (MRLC) of Submarine INS
East Bengal to win the award. Shankush.
• Lallianzuala Chhangte bagged the award on the • INS Shankush, a sub-surface warfare class
back of some stellar performances for the Indian submarine, will undergo a minor overhaul at
national team and Mumbai City FC, his club. Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited, Mumbai.
• Lallianzuala Chhangte became only the second • The submarine will be delivered in 2026 post
player from Mizoram, after Jeje Lalpekhlua (2016), MRLC as per the contract.
to win the AIFF Men's Player of the Year award. • After completion of MRLC, INS Shankush will be
• Meanwhile, Manisha Kalyan pipped Dalima combat-ready and will be inducted into the active
Chhibber and Ngangbam Sweety Devi to the AIFF fleet of the Indian Navy.
Women’s Player of the Year 2022-23 award. It was • This project is a significant step towards the
her second Player of the Honour in two seasons. growth of Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited.
• The 21-year-old Manisha Kalyan, who won the • The project will cover more than 30 micro, small,
2020-21 AIFF Women's Emerging Footballer of the and medium enterprise sectors.
Year, currently plays as a forward for Apollon, a • The project will be the proud flag bearer of
first division football club in Cyprus. Atmanirbhar Bharat in line with the Government's
• Manisha Kalyan became only the third Indian Make-in-India initiative.
female footballer to win the individual award two • INS Shankush belongs to Shishumar class of
or more times after Bala Devi (three) and Bembem submarines and has a speed of 22 knots.
Devi (two). • It is a Sub-Surface Killer (SSK) Class diesel-electric
• Among the other awardees, Akash Mishra was submarine.
named the AIFF Men's Emerging Player of the Year • These submarines are developed by the German
for the 2022-23 season. Shilji Shaji was conferred yard Howaldtswerke-Deutsche Werft (HDW).
the AIFF Men's Emerging Player of the Year award. • The first two of these vessels (INS Shishumar and
• Akash Mishra became only the third defender to Shankush) were built by HDW at Kiel, while the
receive this award after Sandesh Jhingan and remainder (Shalki and Shankul ) have been built at
Pritam Kotal. Mazagon Dock Limited (MDL) Mumbai.
• Meanwhile, the AIFF's Men's and Women’s
Coach of the Year awards went to Clifford Miranda 710. Recently as per report __________completed
and Priya Parathi Valappil, respectively. seven years of service in the Indian Air Force (IAF)
on July 1.
709. In July as per report Defence Ministry signed A. Chinook
mou with Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited for B. Sukhoi-30
Medium Refit with Life Certification (MRLC) of C. Rafale
Submarine INS Shankush worth amount D. Apache
__________. E. Tejas
A. Rs 3,789 crore Answer: E
B. Rs 2,458 crore • Indigenous Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) Tejas
C. Rs 2,781 crore completed seven years of service in the Indian Air
D. Rs 2,364 crore Force (IAF) on July 1.
E. Rs 2,725 crore • The Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) program was
started in the early 1980s, with the Government of
Answer: E
India (GoI) establishing the project in 1983 to
replace Mig-21 fighters. Answer: B
• The first prototype took its first flight in January • Odisha Television Limited (OTV) has introduced
2001 and the fighter was named the state's first artificial intelligence (AI) news
• After more than a decade of trials, the first jet anchor named Lisa.
was finally inducted by the IAF in 2016 in the No. 45 • The introduction of Lisa, the AI news anchor,
squadron 'Flying Daggers'. took place at a ceremony held in Bhubaneswar.
• In 2020, the No.18 squadron 'Flying Bullets' • The introduction of Lisa, the first AI anchor in
became the second squadron to start operating the Odisha's regional television broadcasting arena,
jet. signifies a new era in television journalism.
• The Tejas Mk-1 is light supersonic multirole jet. • Lisa currently presents news in Odia and English
• Designed by the Defence Research & on OTV's television and digital platforms. However,
Development Organisation (DRDO), the multi-role efforts are underway to enhance Lisa's proficiency
Tejas fighter can perform the roles of air defence, in Odia.
maritime reconnaissance and strike, switching • India’s first Humanoid Sana AI Anchor Robot was
between roles with the press of a button. launched by Aaj Tak news channel.
711. Recently as per report ___________has 713. In July as per report ________opposition parties
become the youngest commercial pilot in India. have formed INDIA to fight the Lok Sabha election.
A. Maitri Patel A. 22
B. Sanjana Verma B. 24
C. Sakshi Sinha C. 25
D. Palak Girdhar D. 26
E. Sakshi Kochhar E. 28
Answer: E Answer: D
• At 18, Sakshi Kochhar has become the youngest • 26 opposition parties have formed INDIA to fight the
commercial pilot in India. She achieved this Lok Sabha election.
milestone by surpassing Maitri Patel, who • INDIA is the short form for Indian National
previously held the record by obtaining her license Developmental Inclusive Alliance.
at the age of 19. • The Congress National President Mallikarjuna Kharge
• Hailing from Parwanoo (Himachal Pradesh), the made this announcement after the meeting of
pilot shares that she always wanted to get into a opposition parties in Bengaluru on 18 July 2023.
profession that was offbeat. She confesses to • He said that the INDIA alliance will take on NDA
initially wanting to be a choreographer. during the 2024 Lok Sabha election.
• Her first solo flight was on December 21, 2022, • He said that the next meeting will be held in Mumbai.
and this year, she received her commercial pilot In the Mumbai meeting, a decision will be taken to form
licence from the US on May 30, which is also her an 11 Member Coordination Committee. Under this
birthday. committee, the Lok Sabha election will be fought.
• A Convener will be elected among the 11 Committee
712. In July as per report ____________has members. A Secretariat will be established in Delhi.
introduced the state's first artificial intelligence (AI) • This was the second conclave of Opposition parties.
news anchor named Lisa. The first Opposition meeting was held in Patna on June
A. Karnataka 23. It was attended by the leaders of only 15 parties.
B. Odisha
C. Maharashtra 714. Consider the following statement regarding Mission
D. Tamil Nadu Vatsalya Scheme. Which of the following statement is
E. Uttar Pradesh correct?
A. Ministry of Women and Child Development is • This support helps them reintegrate into society and
implementing a Centrally Sponsored Scheme “Mission become self-dependent.
Vatsalya” erstwhile Child Protection Services (CPS) • Assistance may be extended from the age of 18 years
Scheme. up to 21 years, with the possibility of extension up to 23
B. The scheme was launched in 2021 by merging three years.
schemes for children in need of protection:- Juvenile
Justice Programme, Integrated Program and Child Home 715. Recently, the Ministry of Education (MoE) has
Support Scheme. released the Performance Grading Index for Districts
C. The scheme is available for girls up to 18 years of age (PGI-D) as a combined report for 2020-21 and 2021-22
and care centers for young women up to 23 years of age. which assesses the performance of school education
D. Only 2 and 3 system at the district level.
E. All of the above are correct As per report how many district has made into Ati-
Answer: E Uttam category for 2021-22?
• The Ministry of Women and Child Development is A. 54
implementing a Centrally Sponsored Scheme “Mission B. 51
Vatsalya” erstwhile Child Protection Services (CPS) C. 62
Scheme, since 2009-10 for the welfare and rehabilitation D. 64
of children. E. 71
• The objective of Mission Vatsalya is to secure a Answer: B
healthy and happy childhood for each and every child in • Recently, the Ministry of Education (MoE) has
India, ensure opportunities to enable them to discover released the Performance Grading Index for Districts
their full potential and assist them in flourishing in all (PGI-D) as a combined report for 2020-21 and 2021-22
respects, in a sustained manner, foster a sensitive, which assesses the performance of school education
supportive and synchronized ecosystem for development system at the district level.
of children. • The report has been divided into 10 grades under
• Prior to the year 2009, the Ministry of Women and which districts are categorised, with
Child Development implemented three schemes for • ‘Daksh’ being the highest grade (above 90%),
children in need of protection:- Juvenile Justice followed by Utkarsh (81%-90%); Ati-Uttam (71%-80%);
Programme, Integrated Program and Child Home • Uttam (61%-70%); Prachesta-1 (51%-60%); Prachesta-
Support Scheme. 2 (41%-50%); Prachesta-3 (31%-40%);
• In the year 2010, these were merged into the • Akanshi-1 (21% to 30%); and Akanshi-2 (11% to 20%).
'Integrated Child Protection Scheme'. • The lowest performance grade is Akanshi-3, for
• In the year 2017 it was renamed as "Child Protection districts that score less than 10%.
Service Scheme" and again in the year 2021 it was • Performance of States: While none of the districts
renamed as Mission Vatsalya. were able to earn the top two grades — Daksh and
• Child Welfare and Protection Committee (CW&PC) at Utkarsh.
village level will identify the children who are eligible for • About 121 districts were graded as Ati-Uttam for
support likely to be in difficult circumstances, orphans, 2020-21, though this number fell by more than half in
street children etc. These children will be facilitated 2021-22, with just 51 districts making the grade.
under the sponsorship component of Mission Vatsalya • Further attesting to the pandemic effect, while 2020-
Scheme. 21 had 86 districts under Prachesta-2 (sixth-highest
• Sponsorship facilities will be provided based on the grade), this number rose to 117 in 2021-22.
recommendation of the Child Welfare Committee (CWC) • Among districts graded as ‘Ati-Uttam’ for 2020-22
and approval from the Sponsorship and Foster Care were Krishna and Guntur in Andhra Pradesh;
Approval Committee (SFCAC). Chandigarh; Dadra Nagar Haveli; several districts in
• Financial support is provided to children leaving a Delhi, Karnataka, and Kerala; Jagatsinghpur, Cuttack,
Child Care Institution upon turning 18 years old. Bharat, Ganjam, Puri, and Khurdha in Odisha; Siddipet in
Telangana; Valsad, Junagadh and Sabar Kantha in D. 3rd
Gujarat, etc. E. 4th
• In 2021-22, Chandigarh retained its ‘Ati-Uttam Answer: B
status’, so did some districts in Delhi and Gujarat. • Shri Ashwini Vaishnav inaugurated the Curtain Raiser
• The report is expected to help State education of IMC-2023 on 12 July.
departments identify gaps at the district level and • The 7th edition of India Mobile Congress (IMC), Asia's
improve their performance in a decentralised manner. premier digital technology expo, will be held from
• There are indicator-wise PGI scores that show the October 27 to 29, 2023, at Pragati Maidan, New Delhi.
areas where a district needs to improve. • IMC will be organized jointly by the Department of
Telecommunications (DoT) and the Cellular Operators
716. Recently as per report ___________ to be honored Association of India (COAI).
with Lokmanya Tilak Award 2023. • The theme of IMC 2023 is 'Global Digital Innovation'.
A. Amit Shah • The IMC 2023 event will see approximately 100,000+
B. Narendra Modi participants, 5,000+ CXO-level delegations, 350+
C. Nirmala Sitharaman speakers and 400+ exhibitors.
D. Rajnath Singh • Since the inception of IMC in the year 2017, it has
E. Draupdi Murmu strengthened India's position.
Answer: B • It has also served as a premier platform for global
• PM Modi to be honored with Lokmanya Tilak Award thought leaders to design the next wave of digital
2023. innovation led by India.
• PM Modi has been selected as the 41st recipient of • The launch of 5G in India during the 2022 IMC by
this award in recognition of his exceptional leadership Prime Minister Modi received an overwhelming response
and his efforts to promote the spirit of patriotism among from the industry.
the citizens. • IMC 2023 will also expand to related technology
• On the occasion of 103rd death anniversary of sectors like Broadcast, Satcom, Manufacturing,
Lokmanya Tilak (1 August), the Tilak Smarak Mandir Semiconductors, etc. through partnerships with Alicina,
Trust (Hind Swaraj Sangh), will honor the Prime Minister IESA, ISPA, DFI, and many other associations.
with the award. • IMC 2023 also plans to engage major universities and
• Lokmanya Tilak National Award- Lokmanya Tilak was students and create a global buyer forum, apart from
a prominent figure in India's freedom struggle in the several B2G and B2B forums and industry round tables.
early 20th century.
• It was started in 1983. 718. Recently as per report Central government will
• The award comprises a cash prize of ₹1 lakh as well launch a unique initiative ' Nari adalat' setting up
as a memento. women-only courts at the village level.
• Indira Gandhi, Atal Bihari Vajpayee, Dr. Manmohan This initiative would be run by the Ministry of Women
Singh, Pranab Mukherjee, NR Narayana Murthy and and Child Development and the implementation process
Cyrus Poonawalla are some of the recipients of this will be done in collaboration with ___________.
award. 1. Ministry of Panchayati Raj
2. Ministry of Rural Development
717. In July as per report Shri Ashwini Vaishnav 3. Common Service Centers
inaugurated the Curtain Raiser of ________ edition of 4. Ministry of Education
India Mobile Congress (IMC), Asia's premier digital Chosse the correct option –
technology expo which will be held from October 27 to A. Only 1,2 and 4
29, 2023, at Pragati Maidan, New Delhi. B. Only 2,3 and 4
A. 6th C. Only 2 and 4
B. 7th D. Only 1,2 and 3
C. 9th E. All of the above
Answer: D A. Andhra Pradesh
• Central government will launch a unique initiative of B. Karnataka
setting up women-only courts at the village level. C. Odisha
• The Government will launch ‘Nari Adalat’ as an D. Kerala
alternate dispute resolution forum for resolving issues E. Tamil Nadu
related to domestic violence, property rights and the Answer: C
patriarchal system. • Odisha cabinet approved the inclusion of the Kui
• This initiative will be launched on a pilot basis in 50 language in the 8th schedule.
villages each in Assam and Jammu and Kashmir. It will • The cabinet led by Chief Minister Naveen Patnaik
be then extended to other parts of India over the next six recommended including the Kui language in the 8th
months. schedule of the Indian Constitution.
• Nari Adalat of each village would have 7-9 members. • The inclusion of the Kui language will help in its
Out of the total members, half would be elected preservation, promotion and propagation.
members of the gram panchayat and the rest members • The publication of content in the Kui language will
will be teachers, doctors and social workers nominated get momentum and create an ecosystem for its
by villagers. preservation and propagation.
• The Nari Adalat (Women’s court) will not only resolve • More than seven lakh Kui-speaking people will get
cases of individuals but also raise awareness about the benefit from the inclusion of the Kui language. The
social schemes of the government. Kandh tribe of Odisha will get several benefits with the
• It will raise awareness about the legal rights of inclusion of Kui.
women and resolve cases within its jurisdiction. • The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution consists of 22
• It will provide many services including counselling, languages.
evidence-based decision-making, pressure group tactics, • Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali were added to the
negotiation, mediation and reconciliation with mutual 8th schedule by the 92nd Amendment Act of 2003.
consent. • Initially, 14 languages were part of the Eighth
• The members of Nari Adalat will be known as Nyaya Schedule. The other languages were added through
Sakhis [legal friends]. The head of Nari Adalat will be different amendments.
known as Mukhya Nyaya Sakhi [chief legal friend].
• The tenure of Mukhya Nyaya Sakhi will be of six 720. In July as per report Ministry of Agriculture &
months. Farmers Welfare launched a new campaign for banks
• ‘Nari Adalat’ will not hold any legal status. Its main under Agriculture Infrastructure Fund titled BHARAT.
goal will be reconciliation and grievance redressal. What is the acronym of letter 'H' in BHARAT?
• This initiative would be run by the Ministry of Women A. Health
and Child Development under the Sambal sub-scheme of B. Heralding
Mission Shakti. C. Hedge
• This initiative is inspired by the Parivarik Mahila Lok D. Hazard
Adalats [People’s Court of Women], which was run by E. Hybrid
the National Commission for Women (NCW) till 2014-15. Answer: B
• The implementation process will be done in • Recently, Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare
collaboration with the Ministry of Panchayati Raj, the launched a new campaign for banks under Agriculture
Ministry of Rural Development and Common Service Infrastructure Fund titled BHARAT (Banks Heralding
Centers operated by the Ministry of Electronics and Accelerated Rural & Agriculture Transformation).
Information technology. • It is a one month-long Campaign (from 15th July 2023
to 15th August 2023)with a target of Rs 7200 crore.
719. In July as per report __________state cabinet • It aims to get active involvement and support of
approved the inclusion of the Kui language in the 8th members of commercial Banks in the public and private
schedule. sector, Regional Rural Banks, Small Finance Banks,
NBFCs and select cooperative Banks in promoting the 721. In July as per report Union Cabinet approved
Scheme of Agriculture Infrastructure Fund. amendments to the Mines and Minerals (Development
• Agriculture Infrastructure Fund is a Central Sector and Regulation) Act, 1957.
Scheme which was launched in 2020 As per recent rules now area to be mined will be brought
• The scheme shall provide a medium - long term debt down to ________ hectares, from 100 hectares.
financing facility for investment in viable projects for A. 80 hectares
post-harvest management Infrastructure and B. 90 hectares
community farming assets through interest subvention C. 50 hectares
and financial support. D. 60 hectares
• The duration of the Scheme shall be from FY2020 to E. 40 hectares
FY2032 (10 years). Answer: C
• All loans under this financing facility will have • Union Cabinet approved amendments to the Mines
interest subvention of 3% per annum up to a limit of Rs. and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957,
2 crores. This subvention will be available for a that will pave the way for commercial mining of six
maximum period of seven years. critical minerals — lithium, beryllium, niobium,
• Further, credit guarantee coverage will be available tantalum, titanium and zirconium — and deep-seated
for eligible borrowers from this financing facility under minerals like gold, silver and copper.
Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small • Currently, commercial mining of these critical
Enterprises (CGTMSE) scheme for a loan up to Rs. 2 minerals by private companies is prohibited. Only
crores. The fee for this coverage will be paid by the government agencies were allowed in exploration and
Government. mining operations.
• In case of FPOs the credit guarantee may be availed • In February this year, the Geological Survey of India
from the facility created under FPO promotion scheme of discovered a 5.9-million-tonne reserve of lithium in
Department of Agriculture, Cooperation & Farmers Jammu & Kashmir’s Reasi district.
Welfare (DACFW). • Those aware point out that the amendment to
• Moratorium for repayment under this financing MMDRA will lead to relaxation of area required to be
facility may vary subject to minimum of 6 months and mined for lithium. Area to be mined will be brought
maximum of 2 years. down to 50 hectares, from 100 hectares.
• Ministry Officials Shri Samuel Praveen Kumar, Joint • The Union Cabinet also cleared amendments to the
Secretary (AIF) highlighted the progress made since the Offshore Areas Mineral (Development and Regulation)
inception of this ambitious flagship Scheme. Act, 2002, which seek to allow commercial mining of
• In his welcome address, he complimented the Banks mineral resources in offshore areas.
for their active involvement and support to promote this • The two bills, along with the government last month
Scheme which has resulted in creation of more than 31, identifying 30 critical minerals that it considers essential
850 agri infra projects in the country with ₹24750 crore for economic development and national security, and
as loan amount under AIF with an outlay of ₹ 42,000 India joining the Minerals Security Partnership, a US-led
crores. alliance of 14 countries, are expected to ensure self-
• MoA&FW congratulated the top performing Banks in reliance and address vulnerability in the supply chain of
different categories, namely State Bank of India, Canara these critical minerals in India.
Bank, Punjab National Bank, HDFC, Kotak Mahindra
Bank, Madhya Pradesh Gramin Bank, Madhyanchal 722. In July as per report Union Home Minister Amit
Gramin Bank and Punjab Gramin Bank, for their Shah addressed the National Mega Conclave on Farmer
laudable effort in contributing to take this scheme Producer Organisations (FPO) in the cooperative sector.
forward and appealed to all the Banks to achieve targets Consider the following statement regarding Primary
considering the vast potential for agri infra projects in Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS). Which of the
our country. following statement is incorrect?
A. PACS are village level cooperative credit societies that • PACSs provide short-term, and medium-term
serve as the last link in a three-tier cooperative credit agricultural loans to the farmers for the various
structure. agricultural and farming activities.
B. It is headed by the Distric Cooperative Banks (SCB) at • The first PACS was formed in 1904.
the state level. • Currently, there are more than 1,00,000 PACS in the
C. PACSs provide short-term, and medium-term country with a huge member base of more than 13 crore
agricultural loans to the farmers for the various farmers. However, only 63,000 of them are functional.
agricultural and farming activities. • The Union Minister of Cooperation said that the
D. Government has announced to set up ten thousand government has announced to set up ten thousand
FPOs and the target is to achieve this by the year 2027. FPOs and the target is to achieve this by the year 2027.
E. Union Minister released an action plan for the • He said the Central government has allocated 6
formation of 1,100 new FPOs by Primary Agricultural thousand 900 crore rupees to achieve this goal.
Credit Societies (PACS). • Mr. Shah said that under the leadership of Prime
Answer: B Minister Narendra Modi, there has been an increase of
• Union Home Minister Amit Shah recently addressed 55 percent in Minimum Support Price of Paddy and 51
the National Mega Conclave on Farmer Producer percent in MSP of wheat in 10 years.
Organisations (FPO) in the cooperative sector. • He highlighted that the Modi government is the first
• At the gathering, he said that agriculture, animal government after independence which has fixed at least
husbandry and fisheries sectors are the backbone of the 50 percent more profit than the cost incurred by the
country’s economy and strengthening them will farmers.
strengthen the country’s economy.
• The three sectors together make up 18 per cent of 723. In July as per report Rajasthan Government has
India’s GDP, but are never discussed in the country. announced the minimum income guarantee to provide
• Unlike manufacturing, if agriculture, animal social security to citizens of the state.
husbandry and fisheries sectors are strengthened With this scheme, all families in the state will be able to
through cooperatives, then employment opportunities get employment guarantee of _______ days every year,
will increase along with the GDP, he said. and a minimum pension of rs 1,000 per month in case of
• On the occasion, the Union Minister also released an aged /disabled/single women.
action plan for the formation of 1,100 new FPOs by A. 125 days
Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS). B. 100 days
• He said a new hybrid model should be designed so C. 180 days
that a complete system for information exchange, profit D. 150 days
sharing and marketing based on the arrangement E. 75 days
between PACS and FPOs can be put in place. Answer: A
• PACS are village level cooperative credit societies • Recently, the Rajasthan Government has announced
that serve as the last link in a three-tier cooperative the minimum income guarantee to provide social
credit structure headed by the State Cooperative Banks security to citizens of the state.
(SCB) at the state level. • The new bill is part of government’s efforts to provide
• Credit from the SCBs is transferred to the District social security to citizens of the State.
Central Cooperative Banks (DCCBs), that operate at the • The Rajasthan government plans to bring a law that
district level. promises ‘guaranteed minimum income’ for the poor.
• The DCCBs work with PACS, which deal directly with • With this scheme, all families in the state will be able
farmers. to get employment guarantee of 125 days every year,
• Since these are cooperative bodies, individual farmers and a minimum pension of Rs.1,000 per month in case of
are members of the PACS, and office-bearers are elected aged /disabled/single women.
from within them. A village can have multiple PACS. • For this, an additional expenditure of Rs.2500 crore is
being proposed.
• The Rajasthan government provides social security that, the bill was referred to a joint committee of
pension to around 10 million beneficiaries at an annual parliament.
expenditure of Rs.9,000 crore. • The committee has held detailed discussions with all
• The central government provides Rs.300 crore the 19 ministries or departments along with the
annually for pension of up to Rs.300 per month to 1 legislative department and department of legal affairs.
million people in the state. It adopted its report in March this year, which was laid
before Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha that month.
724. In July as per report Union Cabinet approved • The Acts which are being amended include The Drugs
amendments to the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of and Cosmetics Act, 1940; Public Debt Act, 1944;
Provisions) Bill, 2023, which seeks to decriminalise minor Pharmacy Act, 1948; Cinematograph Act, 1952;
offences by amending 183 provisions in _________ Acts Copyright Act, 1957; Patents Act, 1970; Environment
with a view to promote ease of business. (Protection) Act, 1986; and Motor Vehicles Act, 1988.
A. 51 • The other laws include Trade Marks Act, 1999;
B. 42 Railways Act, 1989; Information Technology Act, 2000;
C. 44 Prevention of Money-laundering Act, 2002; Food Safety
D. 48 and Standards Act, 2006; Legal Metrology Act, 2009; and
E. 46 Factoring Regulation Act, 2011.
Answer: B
• Union Cabinet have approved amendments to the Jan 725. Consider the following statement regarding Global
Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2023, which Food Regulators Summit, 2023. Which of the following
seeks to decriminalise minor offences by amending 183 statement is incorrect?
provisions in 42 Acts with a view to promote ease of A. India will host Global Food Regulators Summit, 2023
business. in New Delhi.
• It proposes to amend 183 provisions across 42 Acts B. This summit will be organized by the Food Safety and
administered by 19 ministries. Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) under the aegis of
• For example, under the Agricultural Produce (Grading the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
and Marking) Act, 1937, counterfeiting grade C. For the first time, this summit is being held outside
designation marks is punishable with imprisonment of Rome, Italy.
up to three years and a fine of up to five thousand D. The common regulator platform ‘SaNGRAH’ (Safe
rupees. The Bill replaces this with a penalty of eight lakh food for Nations: Global food Regulatory Authorities
rupees. Handbook) will be also launched at the summit.
• The bill also proposed that the fines and penalties E. All of the above are correct
provided under various provisions should be increased Answer: E
by 10 per cent of the minimum amount of fine or penalty • India will host Global Food Regulators Summit, 2023
after the expiry of every three years after the bill turns in New Delhi.
into a law. • This summit will be organized by the Food Safety and
• The Bill also specifies the appellate mechanisms for Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) under the aegis of
any person aggrieved by the order passed by an the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
adjudicating officer. For instance, in the Environment • For the first time, this summit is being held outside
(Protection) Act, 1986, appeals may be filed with the Rome, Italy.
National Green Tribunal within 60 days of the order. • India is planning to launch ‘food-o-copoeia’ which is a
• The idea behind the bill is to enhance the ‘ease of collection of safety and quality regulations for each food
living’ and the ‘ease of doing business’ in India. category.
• The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill was • A Common Digital Dashboard will be also launched. It
introduced by Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush will act as a unified portal for food-related regulations
Goyal in the Lok Sabha on December 22 last year. After and norms.
• The common regulator platform ‘SaNGRAH’ (Safe
food for Nations: Global food Regulatory Authorities 727. In July as per report _____________ has formally
Handbook) will be also launched at the summit. agreed to become the first European country to join the
• It is a comprehensive database of Food Regulatory Comprehensive and Progressive Agreement for Trans-
Authorities from 76 countries. Pacific Partnership (CPTPP).
• The logo of the summit has been launched by Health A. Australia
Minister Mansukh Mandaviya. B. Japan
• The Global Food Regulators Summit, 2023 will be C. UK
organized on 20 and 21 July. D. New Zealand
• This event will give a platform for participants to E. France
deliberate on food safety and regulatory aspects. Answer: C
• It will also help in understanding compliance • The UK has formally agreed to become the first
requirements and best practices, experiences and European country to join a major Indo-Pacific trade bloc,
success stories will be exchanged during the summit. in what marks Britain’s biggest trade deal since Brexit –
• In this summit, Food regulators from more than 40 despite forecasts placing its value at just £1.8bn a year.
countries will participate along with representatives • It is a free trade agreement (FTA) between 11
from 30 International Organizations and 25 nations: Australia, Brunei, Canada, Chile, Japan,
International Research Institutes and universities. Malaysia, Mexico, New Zealand, Peru, Singapore and
• Many global organizations and institutes like World Vietnam.
Health Organization (WHO), CODEX, the Food and • While Britain already has trade agreements with all
Agriculture Organization (FAO), Federal Institute for Risk CPTPP members apart from Malaysia and Brunei,
Assessment (BfR) (Germany), etc. will participate in the officials said membership – expected to come into force
summit. in the second half of 2024 – will deepen existing
arrangements, with 99 per cent of current UK goods
726. In July as per report Virgin Atlantic has ended its exported to the bloc eligible for zero tariffs.
operations in ________. • It was signed in March 2018.
A. India • It succeeded the Trans-Pacific Partnership (TPP)after
B. Pakistan the United States withdrew from the TPP in 2017.
C. Afghanistan • All 11 countries of CPTPP are members of the Asia-
D. Ukraine Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC).
E. Russia • The rights and obligations under the CPTPP fall into
Answer: B two categories:
• Virgin Atlantic has ended its operations in Pakistan • Rules: for example, on how countries should make
with the last flight of the British carrier taking off from new food safety regulations or whether they can ban the
Islamabad to London's Heathrow Airport. transfer of data to other CPTPP member These are the
• The British airline began its operations at Islamabad same for all CPTPP parties (including any new members
airport in December 2020 with seven weekly flights. that may join).
• The airline initially operated four flights to • Market access: how far each CPTPP member will cut
Manchester and three to Heathrow Airport. its tariffs, open up its services markets, liberalise visa
• Later, the airline reduced its services to only three conditions for business travellers, and so on. Each
weekly flights to Heathrow Airport. Virgin Atlantic member has its own schedules of commitments. In some
provided the best air travel services to customers cases, the commitments are offered to all other
between Islamabad and London. members, while in others, they are restricted to specific
• Virgin Atlantic, a trading name of Virgin Atlantic negotiating partners.
Airways Limited and Virgin Atlantic International
Limited, is a British airline with its head office in
Crawley, England.
728. In July as per report which country has conferred a • He will be the Guest of Honour at the Bastille Day
transgender model Rikkie Valerie Kollé as to take part in Parade. The Indian tri-services are participating in the
72nd Miss Universe? Parade.
A. France • A 269-member contingent of the Indian Armed Forces
B. Netherland will march alongside their French counterparts.
C. Scotland • PM Modi will also meet with the Prime Minister of
D. Estonia France as well as the Presidents of the Senate and the
E. Spain National Assembly of France.
Answer: B • This year is being celebrated as the 25th anniversary
• Miss Universe Netherlands 2023 title has been for the of the India - France Strategic Partnership.
first time conferred upon a transgender model Rikkie • On the second leg of his visit, Prime Minister will
Valerie Kollé at the AFAS Theater in Leusden. reach Abu Dhabi on 15th July.
• Rikkie Valerie Kollé, a Dutch-Moluccan model lives in • Prime Minister’s visit to UAE will be an opportunity to
Breda. The 22 year old succeeded Ona Moody and will identify ways to enhance cooperation between both
now prepare to represent the Netherlands at the 72nd countries
Miss Universe (Miss Universe 2023) in El Salvador. • Bastille Day military parade is organized every year
• Further, Nathalie Mogbelzada, 26, from Amsterdam, on 14 July in Paris.
was named first runner-up while Habiba Mostafa and • It is also known as Fete Nationale Francaise. It mark
Lou Dirchs were awarded Miss Congeniality and Miss the beginning of the French Revolution.
Social Media • The first Bastille Day parade was organized in 1780.
• Reigning Miss Universe R'Bonney Gabriel of the USA
graced the historic event as a special guest. 730. In recent months, China gave $5 billion in loans to
• The new Miss Universe Netherlands made history as Pa In July as per report Russia refused to extend the
she became the first-ever transgender woman to win the agreement that has enabled Ukraine to export grain
national title. from its Black Sea ports for the past year, complaining
• She is also only the second transgender person to that promises to free up its own shipments of food and
have participated in the prestigious Miss Universe fertilisers had not been kept.
pageant. The trailblazer before her was Spain's Angela The 'Black Sea Initiative' deal was brokered by the U.N.
Ponce, who made history in 2018. and _______ in July 2022, aimed to alleviate a global
food crisis by allowing Ukrainian grain blocked by the
729. PM Modi will be the chief guest at the French Russia-Ukraine war to be exported safely.
Bastille Day Parade. A. Sweden
This year is being celebrated as the _________ B. France
anniversary of the India - France Strategic Partnership. C. Norway
A. 50th D. Germany
B. 75th E. Turkey
C. 25th Answer: E
D. 100th • Russia refused to extend the agreement that has
E. 20th enabled Ukraine to export grain from its Black Sea ports
Answer: C for the past year, complaining that promises to free up
• PM Modi will be the chief guest at the French Bastille its own shipments of food and fertilisers had not been
Day Parade. kept.
• Prime Minister Narendra Modi will be on a 3-day • Without Russia's participation, the 'Black Sea
official visit to France and UAE from 13th July. Initiative' ceases to function from July 18.
• In the first leg of his tour, Prime Minister Modi will • The deal, brokered by the U.N. and Turkey in July
reach Paris at the invitation of the President of France, 2022, aimed to alleviate a global food crisis by allowing
Emmanuel Macron.
Ukrainian grain blocked by the Russia-Ukraine war to be • Many issues will be discussed during this meeting
exported safely. including the India-Myanmar-Thailand trilateral
• Notably, Ukraine is one of the world’s biggest highway.
exporters of food grains, such as wheat and corn, and • It was established in 1997 with the signing of the
played a significant role in the UN’s food aid Bangkok Declaration
programmes. • The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral
• Therefore, when Russia invaded and blocked Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) is a
Ukrainian ports, prices of food grains soared across parts regional multilateral organisation.
of the world. • Around 22% of the world’s population lives in
• To convince Russia to agree to it, a three-year member countries of BIMSTEC. It has a combined GDP of
memorandum of understanding was also struck with the around $2.7 trillion.
United Nations under which U.N. officials agreed to help • Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri
Russia with its food and fertiliser exports. Lanka, and Thailand are members of BIMSTEC.
• The deal had been extended several times but was
due to expire on 17 July 2023. Banking & Economy News
• The UN-brokered deal allowed cargo ships from three 732. Consider the following statement regarding global
Ukrainian ports of Odesa, Chornomorsk and Pivdennyi Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI). Which of the
(Yuzhny) to pass through the 310 nautical miles long and following statement is incorrect?
three nautical miles wide Black Sea safe passage after A. United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and
being inspected for weapons. Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative
• Nearly 33 million metric tonnes of corn, wheat and (OPHI) released the latest update of the global
other grains have been exported by Ukraine under the Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI).
agreement. B. As per the report, a total of 415 million people in India
• Black Sea is an inland sea between Eastern Europe have come out of poverty between 2005-06 to 2019-21.
and Western Asia. C. The incidence of multidimensional poverty has fallen
• It is bound by Ukraine to the north and northwest, from 55.1 per cent to 16.4 per cent.
Russia and Georgia to the east, Turkey to the south, and D. 25 countries, including India, have successfully
Bulgaria and Romania to the west. decreased their MPI values by 50% in the last 15 years.
• kistan to help it unlock a bailout from the E. Around two-thirds of all poor people 850 million
International Monetary Fund to tackle a serious people live in middle-income countries.
economic crisis. Answer: E
• 415 million Indians came out of multidimensional
731. Recently as per report first-ever Foreign Ministers’ poverty in 15 years: UNDP
meeting of the BIMSTEC started in _________. • United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and
A. Serbia Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative
B. Paris (OPHI) released the latest update of the global
C. Tokyo Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI).
D. Brisbane • As per the report, a total of 415 million people in
E. Bangkok India have come out of poverty between 2005-06 to
Answer: E 2019-21.
• The first-ever Foreign Ministers’ meeting of the • The incidence of multidimensional poverty has fallen
BIMSTEC started in Bangkok, Thailand. from 55.1 per cent to 16.4 per cent. In India, more than
• India’s External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar attend 230 million people are still poor.
the meeting. • Among the three dimensions of the Multidimensional
• On 16th July, Jaishankar Co-chaired the 12th Mekong Poverty Index (MPI), the "standard of living" dimension
Ganga Cooperation (MGC) meeting in Bangkok. contributed 39.7 per cent, highest contribution to
poverty in India.
• Health deprivation contributed 32.2 per cent and E. Bihar registered the largest decline in number of poor.
education deprivation 28.2 per cent. Around 3.43 crore people came out of multidimensional
• Around 1.1 billion people, or about 18% of the world's poverty.
population are acutely multidimensionally poor. Answer: E
• 25 countries, including India, have successfully • NITI Aayog released a report titled ‘National
decreased their MPI values by 50% in the last 15 years. Multidimensional Poverty Index: A Progress Review
• Apart from India, a large number of people were 2023’.
lifted out of poverty in China (2010–14, 69 million) and • It has been released by Suman Bery, Vice-Chairman,
Indonesia (2012–17, 8 million). NITI Aayog.
• Sub-Saharan Africa has 534 million and South Asia • As per this report, 13.5 crore people moved out of
has 389 million poor people. multidimensional poverty between 2015-16 and 2019-
• Around two-thirds of all poor people (730 million 21.
people) live in middle-income countries. • This second edition of the National Multidimensional
• According to the MPI report, the poverty rate among Poverty Index (MPI) shows India's progress in reducing
children is 27.7 per cent, while among adults it is 13.4 multidimensional poverty between both the surveys,
per cent. NFHS-4 (2015-16) and NFHS-5 (2019-21).
• The MPI measures poverty across 10 indicators in • This report is based on the baseline report of India's
three dimensions- health, education, and standard of MPI launched in November 2021.
living. The MPI value ranges from 0 to 1, and higher • The National MPI tracks deprivations across
values imply higher poverty. dimensions of health, education, and standard of living
• In April, India surpassed China to become the world’s based on 12 SDG-aligned indicators.
most populous nation with 142.86 crore people, • Nutrition, child and adolescent mortality, maternal
according to UN data. "Notably, India saw a remarkable health, years of schooling, school attendance, cooking
reduction in poverty, with 415 million people exiting fuel, sanitation, drinking water, electricity, housing,
poverty within a span of just 15 years (2005/6–19/21). assets, and bank accounts are the 12 indicators of SDG.
• According to the report, people who are • As per the report, India’s multidimensionally poor
multidimensionally poor and deprived under the percentage has declined from 24.85% in 2015-16 to
nutrition indicator in India declined from 44.3% in 14.96% in 2019-2021.
2005/2006 to 11.8% in 2019/2021, and child mortality • Poverty declined in rural areas was faster as
fell from 4.5% to 1.5%. compared to urban areas.
• In rural areas, the share declined from 32.6% to
733. Consider the following statement regarding 19.3%, while urban areas reported a drop from 8.7% to
National Multidimensional Poverty Index. Which of the 5.3%. The decline was the sharpest in Bihar (from 51.9%
following statement is incorrect? to 33.8%), Madhya Pradesh (from 36.6% to 20.6%), and
A. NITI Aayog released a report titled ‘National UP (from 37.7% to 22.9%).
Multidimensional Poverty Index: A Progress Review • However, in absolute numbers Uttar Pradesh
2023’. registered the largest decline in number of poor. Around
B. As per this report, 13.5 crore people moved out of 3.43 crore people came out of multidimensional poverty.
multidimensional poverty between 2015-16 and 2019- • This report estimates poverty for 36 States and Union
21. Territories and 707 Administrative Districts.
C. This report is based on the baseline report of India's • The fastest reduction in the proportion of
MPI launched in November 2021. multidimensional poor has been registered in Uttar
D. The National MPI tracks deprivations across Pradesh, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, and
dimensions of health, education, and standard of living Rajasthan.
based on 12 SDG-aligned indicators. • The MPI value has nearly halved from 0.117 to 0.066
between 2015-16 and 2019-21. The intensity of poverty
has reduced from 47% to 44%.
• However, the availability of cooking fuel was the • Gujarat had topped the chart in the last two
biggest area of deprivation, with 43.9% population rankings.
being deprived on this front, followed by housing • The index released showed that Tamil Nadu with an
(41.4%). overall score of 80.89 topped the third edition of
• The most remarkable improvement was in sanitation, rankings while Maharashtra with a score of 78.20 was
which had 51.9% deprivation in 2015-16, but is down to second while Karnataka (76.36) was third.
30.1% as of 2019-21. • Gujarat with a score of 73.22 was fourth, followed by
• Government focus on improving access to sanitation, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, West Bengal and Kerala in that
nutrition, cooking fuel, financial inclusion, drinking order in the ranking of coastal states.
water, and electricity has led to significant • Among hilly/Himalayan states, Uttarakhand (59.13)
improvement. has ranked at the top position. It is followed by
• All 12 parameters of the MPI have shown Himachal Pradesh, Manipur, Tripura, Sikkim, Nagaland,
improvement. Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh and Mizoram in that
• The UNDP-OPHI index had already updated its order.
calculations for India based on the NFHS 2019-21 last • Haryana (63.65) topped the chart among the
year and had claimed that as many as 415 million landlocked regions. It was followed by Telangana, Uttar
Indians moved out of poverty in the 15-year period Pradesh, Punjab, Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.
between the NFHS of 2005-06 and the NFHS of 2019-21. • In the category of union territories/small states, Goa
• The data comes at a time when the country is (51.58) was ranked first. Jammu and Kashmir, Delhi,
witnessing a renewed debate on the quality of data and Andaman and Nicobar and Ladakh were ranked second,
statistics in the country. Amid the ongoing debate, the third, fourth and fifth, respectively.
Centre last week constituted a new internal oversight • The ranking is based on four main pillars: policy,
mechanism for official data, revamping a Standing business ecosystem, export ecosystem and export
Committee on Economic Statistics (SCES) set up in late performance.
2019. • The index is also aimed at promoting competition
• The statistics ministry said SCES will now be replaced among all states (coastal, landlocked, Himalayan and
by SCoS with Pronab Sen as its chairman, which would UTs) to bring about favourable policies, ease the
have a broader mandate to review the framework and regulatory framework, create necessary infrastructure
results of all surveys conducted under the aegis of the and assist in identifying strategic recommendations for
National Statistical Office. improving export competitiveness.
• Among export districts, Jamnagar in Gujarat topped
734. In July as per report _______________has pipped the chart. It was followed by Surat, Mumbai Suburban,
Maharashtra and Gujarat to emerge as the top state in Mumbai, Pune, Bharuch, Kanchipuram, Ahmedabad,
the Niti Aayog’s Export Preparedness Index 2022 which Gautam Budha Nagar and Bengaluru Urban.
assesses the readiness of the states in terms of their • While Jamnagar is the hub of petroleum, Surat is the
export potential and performance. main centre for gems and jewellery, Singh said adding if
A. Karnataka we take out these two sectors, Pune will be at the top.
B. Rajasthan • To promote exports, 674 districts have formed a
C. Madhya Pradesh District Export Promotion Committee, while 557 have
D. Tamil Nadu formulated a District Export Action Plan. “Gujarat has
E. Uttar Pradesh the highest number of districts, 8, in the top 25 export
Answer: D districts in the country.
• Tamil Nadu has pipped Maharashtra and Gujarat to
emerge as the top state in the Niti Aayog’s Export 735. According to RBI India's real GDP will needs to grow
Preparedness Index 2022 which assesses the readiness of at ___________% annually over the next 25 years to
the states in terms of their export potential and achieve the per capita income level to become a
performance. developed economy.
A. 7.2 % • Standing Committee on Economic Statistics (SCES) set
B. 6.5 % up in 2019 will be replaced by a Standing Committee on
C. 7.6 % Statistics (SCoS).
D. 8.1 % • Pronab Sen, India’s first chief statistician, has been
E. 8.6 % named as the chairman of the new committee.
Answer: C • SCES was responsible for reviewing economic
• The Reserve Bank in its monthly bulletin, said India's indicators related to the industrial sector, the services
real GDP will needs to grow at 7.6% annually over the sector, and the labour force statistics.
next 25 years to achieve the per capita income level to • The SCoS will have a broader mandate to review the
become a developed economy. framework and results of all surveys being conducted
• India's per capita income is currently estimated at under the National Statistical Office (NSO).
$2,500, while it must be more than $21,664 by 2047, as • SCoS jurisdiction will be beyond economic data and
per World Bank standards, to be classified as a high- advise the Ministry on technical aspects for all surveys.
income country. • This new panel will have 10 members and four non-
• It must be noted that as per World Bank official members who are eminent academics.
classification, a country with a per capita income of US$ • The Ministry of Statistics and Programme
13,205 or more in 2022-23 is classified as a high-income Implementation (MOSPI) issued notification regarding
country. this on 13 July.
• To achieve this target, the required real GDP • SCoS work includes the identification of data gaps
compounded annual growth rate (CAGR) for India works that need to be filled by official statistics.
out to be 7.6% during 2023-24 to 2047-48. The report • It has also been given authority to explore the use of
said to become an high-income country by 2047-48, administrative statistics to improve data outcomes.
India’s per capita GDP in nominal terms would have to • The MoSPI came into existence as an Independent
record a CAGR of 10.6% (9.1%). Ministry in 1999 after the merger of the Department of
• It may, however, be mentioned that the best India Statistics and the Department of Programme
achieved over a period of consecutive 25 years in the Implementation.
past is a CAGR of 8.1% during 1993-94 to 2017-18. • The Ministry has two wings, one relating to Statistics
and the other Programme Implementation.
736. Consider the following statement regarding • The Statistics Wing called the NSO consists of the
Standing Committee on Statistics (SCoS). Which of the Central Statistical Office (CSO), the Computer center and
following statement is incorrect? the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO).
A. Standing Committee on Economic Statistics (SCES) set • Besides these two wings, there is National Statistical
up in 2019 will be replaced by a Standing Committee on Commission (NSC was created through a resolution) and
Statistics (SCoS). one autonomous Institute - Indian Statistical Institute -
B. Pronab Sen, India’s first chief statistician, has been an institute of National importance.
named as the chairman of the new committee.
C. SCES was responsible for reviewing economic 737. In July as per report Foxconn has decided to pull out
indicators related to the industrial sector, the services of its joint venture with Vedanta to set up a $19.5 billion
sector, and the labour force statistics. chip manufacturing plant in India.
D. This new panel will have 10 members and four non- Foxconn is electronics manufacturing company of which
official members who are eminent academics. of the following country?
E. All of the above are correct A. Taiwan Germany
Answer: E B. UAE
• The government has established a new oversight C. Singapore
mechanism to review data of NSO. D. Malaysia
E. Taiwan
Answer: E • The merger continues to be delayed more than a year
• Taiwanese electronics manufacturer Foxconn has after its first announcement.
decided to pull out of its joint venture with Vedanta to • The consortium had initially said that it would set up
set up a $19.5 billion chip manufacturing plant in India. a $3 billion semiconductor fab in Karnataka.
• This comes after Foxconn announced its decision to • Singapore-based IGSS Venture’s proposal was not
withdraw from its joint venture with Vedanta. found to be up to the mark by the government’s
• Foxconn has not given any reason for its decision to advisory committee.
pull out.
• However, it is believed that ability of Vedanta, which 738. Recently as per report ____________ can now be
is reeling under a hea vy debt load, to pay for acquiring made a nominee for government saving schemes such as
the necessary technology for chip making played a key PPF, NSC and post offices savings.
role. A. Minor Student
• In September 2022, Vedanta and Foxconn had signed B. Senior Citizen
a memorandum of understanding with the Gujarat C. NRI
government to set up separate chip and display D. Business Entity
manufacturing plants in the state for an estimated $19.5 E. None of the above
billion. Answer: C
• Last month, the Vedanta-Foxconn joint venture had • A non-resident Indian (NRI) can now be made a
reapplied for the chip incentive scheme, this time for a nominee for government saving schemes such as PPF,
40 nanometre (nm) process. NSC and post offices savings, said the Finance Ministry in
• This was after its initial proposal to set up a 28 nm a notification.
chip production plant failed to sign up a technology • Besides, the government permitted applicants to
partner. make changes to their names or surnames.
• India has identified chip-making as a key priority for • These changes are part of list of amendments to the
future economic growth, hoping to capitalise on Government Savings Promotion General Rules, as
companies looking to diversify their operations from notified by the Finance Ministry.
China. • The rules cover various schemes provided under
• The demand for semiconductors in India will Government Savings Promotion Act, 1873 such as Public
reportedly reach around USD 100 billion by 2025, up Provident Fund (PPF), National Saving Certificate (NSC),
from the current demand of USD 24 billion. Sukanya Samriddhi, Senior Citizens Savings Scheme,
• In December 2021, the Central government had Mahila Samman Nidhi Post Office Time Deposits, Kisan
approved the comprehensive program for the Vikas Patra, and Post Office Monthly Income Scheme.
development of sustainable semiconductor and display • NRIs are not allowed to invest in small saving
ecosystem in the country. schemes. There were also issues related to their
• In September 2022, Union Cabinet recently approved nomination.
changes to the Rs 76,000-crore semiconductor • The new rule indicates that the money needs to
Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme. utilised in India.
• The government has also introduced the Chips to • Another amendment seeks to facilitate the account
Startup (C2S) programme aims to train 85,000 engineers holder to change name or surname. This will be allowed
(Bachelors, Masters and Research level combined) by the account office by following the “procedure laid
qualified in ESDM disciplines over a period of 5 years. down by Reserve Bank of India for change of name or
• ESDM – Electronic System Design and Manufacturing. surname in Bank Savings Account.”
• ISMC, backed by Abu Dhabi-based Next Orbit and • If one needs to make a change in the name or
Israel’s Tower Semiconductor, has asked the Centre not surname, he/she can request only after receiving the
to consider its proposal owing to a pending merger legal affidavit document to prove that the name has
between Intel and Tower Semiconductor. been changed legally. The name correction application
can be written just like an application for bank • Ramamurthy also explained the genesis of the new
statement or other formal letters to the bank. logo reflecting vibrance that we are focused on
• According to previous rules, an account opened as a spreading and the connection between colours used and
Single Account cannot be subsequently converted into a Pancha Bhuta, the Five elements of mother nature
Joint Account or vice versa. namely Akash (Space), Vayu (Air), Agni (Fire), Jal (water)
• Now a proviso has been added to allow for the and Prithvi (Earth).
conversion of a joint account into a single account on • The deep blue represents ocean and sky which is the
account of the death of an account holder. knowledge, integrity, and trustworthiness which BSE has
• An amendment has also been done related to built up over 149 years. The flame colour ranges from
accounts of minors. deep red to deep orange transforming itself into bright
• At present, an adult can open an account on behalf of yellow signifying the wonderful future that the
the minor by submitting proof of age of minor. There is employees together would create for BSE in the
a provision for submission of passport size photograph forthcoming years. The Diya is also a torch which BSE
of the account holder. The latest rule says that only the employees will carry to show light ahead for further
recent passport size photograph of the guardian needs development of capital markets.
to be submitted. • BSE was established in 1875 as ‘The Native Share &
• Norms related to payments on account of death of a Stock Brokers' Association’ under a banyan tree in
depositor have also been changed. If the total amount is Mumbai’s Dalal Street.
up to ₹5 lakh and and there is no nominee and the • In 2017, BSE became the first listed stock exchange of
probate of his will or letters of administration of estate India. It provides a market for trading in equity,
or a succession certificate or legal heir certificate is not currencies, debt instruments, derivatives, mutual funds.
produced within six months from the date, then the • Sundararaman Ramamurthy, MD & CEO, BSE.
rightful claimant will be required to fill Form11.
• If the amount is more than ₹5 lakh, the payment will 740. In July as per report RBI has released draft circular
be made on the basis of will or letter of succession along on Credit Card Network Portability.
with other documents. Which of the following is not a card network in india?
A. Mastercard
739. In July as per report BSE launched a new logo on its B. Visa
__________ foundation day. C. NPCI- Rupay
A. 100th D. Diners Club
B. 149th E. All of the above are card network in india
C. 150th Answer: E
D. 155th • RBI has proposed rules that could possibly restrict
E. 160th card issuers from engaging in exclusive arrangements
Answer: B with card networks like Mastercard, Visa or RuPay.
• As part of BSE's 149th foundation day celebrations on • The central bank also proposed that rules would
Monday, the exchange unveiled its new logo, which apply to both banks and non-banking finance companies
signifies prosperity, vibrance, growth and new that issue credit, debit or prepaid cards.
beginnings, besides emphasising continued trust and • As per RBI draft circular, the current arrangements
enhanced responsibility. between card networks and card issuers do not provide
• The foundation day celebrations were held at BSE customers with sufficient choices. A customer is bound
International Convention Hall, which began with a to use the network provided by the card issuers.
traditional bell ringing ceremony. • The circular has mandated card issuers to offer cards
• The new logo was launched by S S Mundra, Chairman on more than one card network and provide customers
of BSE, in the presence of Board and committee with an option to choose between card networks at the
members of BSE and ICCL. time of issuance and also later.
• The proposed rules by RBI will increase customer • India is now the top emerging market for investment,
choice and promote competition among card network according to 85 sovereign wealth funds and 57 central
companies. banks.
• Starting from 1 October 2023, RBI wants the bank to • India has now overtaken China as the most attractive
offer card on multiple networks and give customers the emerging market for investment in emerging market
option to choose their preferred network. debt.
• There are five card networks in India: Mastercard, • Other global rating agencies like S&P Global and
Visa, NPCI- Rupay, American Express, Diners Club. Morgan Stanley have also predicted that India is on
course to become the third-largest economy by 2030.
741. As per Investment Bank Goldman Sachs, India will
become world’s second-largest economy by _________ 742. Recently as per UN report __________ billion
crossing Germany, Japan and USA. people didn't have constant access to food in 2022.
A. 2050 A. 1.2 billion
B. 2060 B. 2.4 billion
C. 2040 C. 2.9 billion
D. 2075 D. 3.3 billion
E. 2035 E. 3.5 billion
Answer: D Answer: B
• India is set to become the world’s second largest • The UN delivered grim news on global food security
economy by 2075. 2.4 billion people didn't have constant access to food
• As per Investment Bank Goldman Sachs, India will last year, as many as 783 million faced hunger, and 148
become world’s second-largest economy by 2075 million children suffered from stunted growth.
crossing Germany, Japan and USA. • Five UN agencies said in the 2023 State of Food
• With a population of 140 crores, India's GDP is Security and Nutrition report that while global hunger
estimated to grow to $52.5 trillion, which is higher than numbers stalled between 2021 and 2022 many places
the US GDP estimate. are facing deepening food crises.
• The report projected India’s GDP at $52.5 trillion by • They pointed to Western Asia, the Caribbean, and
2075, behind China’s $57 trillion but ahead of the US’ Africa where 20 per cent of the continent's population is
$51.5 trillion. experiencing hunger, more than twice the global
• Currently, India is the world’s fifth-largest economy, average.
behind Germany, Japan, China and the US. According to • Recovery from the global pandemic has been uneven,
the Economic Survey tabled in Parliament in January this and the war in Ukraine has affected the nutritious food
year, the Indian economy was projected to reach the and healthy diets.
$3.5 trillion mark by the end of March. • According to the report, people's access to healthy
• In report, India's progress is forecasted due to a diets has deteriorated across the world.
growing population, innovation and technology, high • More than 3.1 billion people 42 per cent of the global
capital investment and increasing productivity of population were unable to afford a healthy diet in 2021,
workers. an increase of 134 million people compared to 2019.
• This is the right time for the private sector to increase • According to the latest research between 691 million
the capacity of services and manufacturing by bringing and 783 million people were chronically undernourished
in a large labor force and creating more jobs. in 2022, an average of 735 million which is 122 million
• Increasing labor force participation, a huge talent more people than in 2019 before the Covid pandemic
pool, and a working-age population are some of the began.
factors that will make India the second-largest economy • UN projections for 2030 indicate that 600 million
in the world by 2075. people will still be suffering from chronic
undernourishment in 2030, far from the UN
development goal of achieving "Zero Hunger" by that years after the commercial operational date (COD),
date. provided that the GST compensation cess is extended
beyond FY27.
743. Recently as per report incremental credit-deposit • The government on a mission mode is fast tracking
(C/D) ratio of all scheduled banks decreased to utilisation of coal and has targeted to achieve 100
_________ in Q1 of FY24. million tonnes (mt) of coal gasification by 2030.
A. 59.7% • Under the comprehensive scheme to promote coal
B. 60.7% and lignite-based gasification projects for the public and
C. 61.7% private sector companies, the selection of entities will be
D. 62.7% carried out through a competitive and transparent
E. 63.7% bidding process.
Answer: E • Besides, the government is considering providing
• The incremental C/D ratio of all scheduled banks budgetary support to eligible PSUs and private sector,
decreased to 63.7% in Q1 of FY24. enabling them to undertake coal gasification projects.
• The incremental credit-deposit (C/D) ratio was • In first segment, the government will provide support
100.32% in the year-ago quarter. to PSUs. The second segment encompasses both the
• Banks’ credit in Q1 of FY24 grew by ₹7,16,738 crore private sector and PSUs, with a budget allocation
and their deposits grew by ₹11,25,043 crore as per RBI’s granted to each project
latest “Scheduled Banks’ Statement of Position in India”. • The third segment involves the provision of
• The credit to deposit (C/D) ratio reflects how much of budgetary support for demonstration projects utilising
each rupee of deposit raised by a bank is allocated to the indigenous technology and/ or small-scale product-
credit markets. based gasification plants.
• A CD ratio of 63.7% means that for every 100 fresh • In October 2022, for setting up four large scale coal-
deposits raised by banks, they have extended 63.70 in to-chemical projects through surface coal gasification
new credit and the remaining 36.30 have gone into route, Coal India signed three separate MoUs, one each,
investments. with Bharat Heavy Electricals (BHEL), Indian Oil
Corporation and GAIL (India). In addition, NLC India is
744. Recently as per report Coal Ministry has set a target signing MoU with BHEL.
of _________ million tonnes of coal gasification by • To come up at an aggregated estimated cost of
2030. ₹35,000 crore, the proposed surface coal gasification
A. 200 million tonnes (SCG) projects are planned to be set up in West Bengal,
B. 100 million tonnes Odisha, Chattisgarh, Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu.
C. 300 million tonnes
D. 400 million tonnes 745. Recently as per report special squads have been
E. 500 million tonnes formed to take stringent action against pharmaceutical
Answer: B companies manufacturing spurious drugs.
• The Coal Ministry said that it is considering a _________will be made compulsory for the MSME
proposal which aims to reimburse the GST compensation pharma sector in a phased manner that will help in
cess on coal utilised for gasification projects by quality assurance.
companies. A. Schedule K
• Ministry is also mulling a comprehensive scheme to B. Schedule M
promote coal/ lignite gasification projects for both C. Schedule P
public sector undertakings (PSUs) and the private sector D. Schedule R
with an outlay of ₹6,000 crore. E. Schedule S
• The Ministry is considering an incentive to reimburse Answer: B
the goods and services tax (GST) compensation cess on
coal utilised in gasification projects for a period of 10
• Special squads have been formed to take stringent • A 28% GST rate has been levied on full value of
action against pharmaceutical companies gaming , horse racing, and casinos which comes as a
manufacturing spurious drugs. drawback to online gaming companies.
• Chemicals and Fertilizers Minister Dr. Mansukh • According to online gaming companies, 28% GST will
Mandaviya said the regulatory authorities have begun not only hamper online gaming platforms' capacity to
the inspection and audit of plants. develop new games and technologies but will also
• He said that 137 firms were inspected. Action has undermine their competitiveness in the market.
been taken against 105 firms. • The council announced that the GST on restaurants
• Production has been stopped at 31 firms. inside Cineplex to attract 5% GST against 18% earlier.
Cancellation and Suspension of Products have been • Before the change, movie tickets below Rs 100 were
issued against 50 firms. taxed at 12%, while those above the threshold attracted
• Schedule M will be made compulsory for the MSME 18% GST.
pharma sector in a phased manner. This will help in • The entire supply (tickets + eatables) should be
quality assurance. treated as composite supply and taxed as per the
• He directed the Drugs Controller General of India applicable rate of the principal supply, which in this case
(DCGI) to take action against all pharmaceutical is cinema ticket.
manufacturing companies making spurious drugs. • The GST Council also decided on the definition of
• Schedule M comes under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act utility vehicles and tightening of norms for registration.
1940. It deals with good manufacturing practices for • A clarity on taxation of Multi Utility Vehicles (MUV)
pharma manufacturing units. was provided. The Council has agreed to the
recommendation to levy a 22% compensation cess for
746. Consider the following statement regarding 50th MUV, but Sedan has not been included in the list.
meeting of GST Council. Which of the following • The Council has recommended the Rules governing
statement is incorrect? appointment and conditions of President and Members
A. The Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council, in its 50th of the proposed GST Appellate Tribunal for enabling
meeting, decided to levy a uniform 28% tax on full face smooth constitution and functioning of GST Appellate
value for online gaming, casinos and horse-racing. Tribunal. The Council also recommended that provisions
B. The council announced that the GST on restaurants of Finance Act, 2023 pertaining to GST Appellate
inside Cineplex to attract 5% GST against 18% earlier. Tribunal may be notified by the Centre with effect from
C. The Council also recommended setting up of August 1, 2023, so that the same can be brought into
mechanism for appellate tribunals from August 1, 2023. operation at the earliest.
D. It has been decided to include Bandhan Bank and ICBC • Further the council has recommended the Chief
bank in the list of specified banks for which IGST Secretary of Maharashtra to be nominated as one of the
exemption is available on imports of gold, silver or members of the Search cum selection committee as per
platinum. Section 110(4)(b)(iii) of CGST Act 2017.
E. The council decided to exempt GST on satellite launch • The council decided to exempt GST on satellite launch
services supplied by ISRO, Antrix Corporation Limited services supplied by ISRO, Antrix Corporation Limited
and New Space India Limited (NSIL). and New Space India Limited (NSIL) may be extended to
Answer: D such services supplied by organisations in private sector
• The Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council, in its 50th also to encourage start ups.
meeting, decided to levy a uniform 28% tax on full face • The council said, it has been decided to include RBL
value for online gaming, casinos and horse-racing, while Bank and ICBC bank in the list of specified banks for
reducing the rate for uncooked/ unfried snack pellets, which IGST exemption is available on imports of gold,
cancer medicine and imitation zari thread. silver or platinum and update the list of banks /entities
• The GST council agreed that there should be no eligible for such IGST exemption as per Annexure 4B
distinction between 'game of skill and game of chance.' (HBP) of Foreign Trade Policy 2023.
• The council decided to exempt IGST on Dinutuximab will be used to train 250,000 employees over the next
(Quarziba) medicine when imported for personal use. one year.
• Finance Minister releases a Special Cover and • Wipro ai360, fueled by this new investment, will help
customized myStamp on the occasion of 50th GST unleash a new era of value, productivity, and
council meeting. commercial opportunities through the application of AI
• Nirmala Sitharaman released a short film titled 'GST and generative AI.
Council - 50 steps towards a journey' on the occasion of • The development comes after its rival Tata
50th meeting of GST Council in New Delhi.The film Consultancy Services announced plans to train 25,000
depicts the journey of the GST Council and has been engineers and get them certified on Microsoft’s Azure
made in Hindi, English and 11 regional languages. Open AI.
• Mechanical toys attract a 12 per cent GST, and the • Additionally, the company will launch a GenAI Seed
tax on electronics toys is 18 per cent. Accelerator program, which will provide select GenAI-
• It is an indirect tax (not directly paid by customers to focused startups with the training needed to become
the government), that came into effect from 1 July 2017 enterprise ready.
through the implementation of the 101st Amendment to • Founder: M.H. Hasham Premji, CEO: Thierry
the Constitution of India by the Indian government. Delaporte , Headquarters: Bengaluru.
• Types of GST: State Goods and Services Tax (SGST),
Central Goods and Services Tax (CGST) and the 748. Recently as of July India’s direct tax collection
Integrated Goods and Services Tax (IGST, on exports and soared 16 per cent to touch Rs. 4.75 trillion this finacial
imports). year.
• Article 279A of the Indian Constitution gives power to The government has set a target of collecting over
the President of India to constitute a joint forum of the _________lakh crore through direct taxes.
Centre and States called the GST Council, consisting of A. ₹16.23 lakh crore
the - B. ₹14.25 lakh crore
• Union Finance Minister - Chairperson C. ₹18.23 lakh crore
• The Union Minister of State, in-charge of Revenue of D. ₹15.26 lakh crore
finance - Member E. ₹12.43 lakh crore
• The Minister in-charge of finance or taxation or any Answer: C
other Minister nominated by each State Government - • India’s direct tax collection soared 16 per cent to
Members. touch Rs. 4.75 trillion this finacial year, showing
continuity in revenue growth despite external
747. In July as per report _________ announced that it headwinds.
will invest $1 billion in artificial intelligence (AI) over the • The collection has gathered pace over past months,
next three years to help the company advance its with net direct tax collection, net of refunds, growing
foundation in AI, data and analytics capabilities. 15.87 per cent to Rs. 4.75 trillion by July 9.
A. TCS • On a gross basis, collection from direct taxes, which
B. Wipro includes income and corporation taxes, grew 14.65 per
C. HCL cent to Rs. 5.17 trillion.
D. Infosys • The provisional figure is 26.05 per cent of the total
E. Accenture Budget Estimates of direct taxes for the current financial
Answer: B year 2024.
• IT services firm Wipro Ltd will invest $1 billion in • The central government expects to collect Rs. 18.2
artificial intelligence (AI) over the next three year to help trillion this financial year, which is 10.5 per cent more
the company advance its foundation in AI, data and than what was collected in FY23.
analytics capabilities. • Government collected ₹16.61 lakh crore mopped up
• Furthermore, the company has launched an AI-first last fiscal.
innovation ecosystem service called Wipro ai360 which
749. In July as per report NongHyup Bank which has • According to the latest shareholding pattern of the
been included in the Second Schedule to the Reserve merged HDFC Bank disclosed, foreign portfolio investors
Bank of India Act, 1934 is a commercial bank of which of have a 53.93% stake.
the following country? • The Government of Singapore owns a 2.67% stake
A. UAE while Invesco Markets Fund owns 1.21%. Mutual funds’
B. Japan cumulative holdings in the bank are at 19.16%, while
C. China insurance companies own 8.71%. Retail investors hold
D. South Korea 12.81%.
E. Singapore • HDFC Bank’s market value of $154 billion is nearly
Answer: D double that of rival ICICI Bank’s $82 billion and State
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has released a Bank of India’s $64 billion.
notification addressing all banks regarding the inclusion • ICICI Bank is ranked 16th and SBI is at the 22nd spot
of “NongHyup Bank” in the Second Schedule of the RBI in the list of the world’s most valuable banks.
Act, 1934. • In terms of market value on BSE, HDFC Bank remains
• This notification informs banks about the recent the third-largest Indian company behind only Reliance
addition of NongHyup Bank to the regulated list. Industries (Rs 18.6 lakh crore) and TCS (Rs 12.9 lakh
• NongHyup Bank (formerly National Agricultural crore).
Cooperative Federation) is a commercial bank in Seoul, • ICICI Bank is at the fourth spot in India and 19th slot
South Korea. in the list of world's top lenders with a market cap of $82
billion or Rs 6.68 lakh crore.
750. In July as per report Shares of HDFC Bank rose 2.1
per cent valuing the lender at Rs 12.66 trillion, or $154.2 751. In July as per report Maharashtra government has
billion, making it the _________ most valuable lender approved the Adani group’s proposal to rehabilitate
globally. residents of Mumbai’s 590-acre Dharavi locality, home
A. 5th to over 900,000 Indians, almost eight months after the
B. 7th conglomerate won a tender to develop India’s largest
C. 9th slum.
D. 3rd Adani Properties Pvt. Ltd has won the Asia biggest slum
E. 1st redevelopment project - Dharavi redevelopment with a
Answer: B bid of ____________ crore.
• Shares of HDFC Bank rose 2.1 per cent to settle at Rs A. 4,789crore
1,679, valuing the lender at Rs 12.66 trillion, or $154.2 B. 5,069 crore
billion, making it the seventh’s most valuable lender C. 7,654 crore
globally. D. 6,215 crore
• On July 12, the last trading day for HDFC shares, E. 3,456 crore
HDFC Bank was valued at Rs 9.2 trillion ($112 billion) Answer: B
and its global mcap ranking stood at 13. • The Maharashtra government has approved the
• The league table of the world’s most valuable banks Adani group’s proposal to rehabilitate residents of
is topped by two US banks—JP Morgan Chase ($438 Mumbai’s 590-acre Dharavi locality, home to over
billion) and Bank of America ($232 billion). 900,000 Indians, almost eight months after the
• China’s Industrial and Commercial Bank of China conglomerate won a tender to develop India’s largest
(ICBC) and Agricultural Bank of China occupy third and slum.
the fourth place. At present, Wells Fargo and HSBC are • As an equity partner of the project, spread over
slightly ahead of HDFC Bank. 240.35 hectares, the state government has allocated
• As the merged entity, HDFC Bank has more m-cap ₹100 crore from its kitty, while Adani group will spend
muscle than global investment firms Morgan Stanley ₹400 crore as the project’s chief partner.
($143 bn) and Goldman Sachs ($108 bn).
• Maharashtra cabinet awarded the DRP bid to Adani • Musk said that he would launch TruthGPT or a
Properties in December 2022. Despite a pending case in maximum truth-seeking AI.
the Bombay high court on the project, the cabinet • Elon Musk was the co-founder of OpenAI. He stepped
decided to go ahead. down from the company board in 2018.
• Bids for the DRP were opened in November, and
Adani Properties with a bid of ₹5,069 crore, was 753. In July as per report The Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
declared the winner. The DLF group, another and the Central Bank of ____________ signed two MoUs
frontrunner, had submitted a bid of ₹2,025 crore. for establishing a framework to promote the use of local
Significantly, no other company was eligible for the final currencies for cross-border transactions; and
bid. cooperation for interlinking their payment and
• According to the government order, the SPV of Adani messaging systems.
will now have to pay 25% of ready reckoner price (as on A. France
the last day of bid submission) as premium of land to B. UAE
DRP or Slum Rehabilitation Authority. C. Egypt
• Dharavi’s history dates back to the 1700s when it was D. Nepal
an uninhabitable marsh at the edge of the island city E. Japan
and the Bombay gazetteer mentions six great koliwadas Answer: B
of Dharavi. • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the Central Bank
• The redevelopment of Dharavi is an ambitious project of UAE (CBUAE) signed two MoUs in Abu Dhabi for
for the state government, which will take about 15 years establishing a framework to promote the use of local
to complete. The Shinde-Fadnavis government wants to currencies for cross-border transactions; and
kickstart the project so that work on it can commence cooperation for interlinking their payment and
before the 2024 general election. messaging systems.
• The two MoUs are aimed at facilitating seamless
752. In July as per report ___________ has become the cross border transactions and payments, and foster
first Central Public Sector Enterprise In July as per report greater economic cooperation between the two
_____________ has launched a new artificial intelligence countries.
company, xAI. • The MoU on establishing a framework for the use of
A. Gautam Adani local currencies for transactions between India and UAE,
B. Jack Ma aims to put in place a Local Currency Settlement System
C. Jeff Bezos (LCSS) to promote the use of the Indian rupee/ INR and
D. Barren Waffet the UAE Dirham/ AED bilaterally.
E. Elon Musk • The MoU covers all current account transactions and
Answer: E permitted capital account transactions. Creation of the
• Elon Musk launched his new artificial intelligence LCSS would enable exporters and importers to invoice
company, xAI. and pay in their respective domestic currencies, which in
• Elon Musk, CEO of Tesla and SpaceX, and owner of turn would enable the development of an INR-AED
Twitter, launched a new artificial intelligence company, foreign exchange market.
xAI. • Under the MOU on ‘Payments and Messaging
• Alumni of DeepMind, OpenAI, Google Research, Systems’, the two central banks agreed to cooperate on
Microsoft Research, Twitter and Tesla are members of (a) linking their Fast Payment Systems (FPSs) – Unified
xAI. Payments Interface (UPI) of India with Instant Payment
• xAI has been launched to compete with companies Platform (IPP) of UAE; (b) linking the respective Card
like OpenAI, Google and Anthropic. Switches (RuPay switch and UAESWITCH); and (c)
• Musk has repeatedly expressed concern about AI's exploring the linking of payments messaging systems --
potential for "the destruction of civilization". Structured Financial Messaging System (SFMS) of India
with the messaging system in the UAE.
• The MoUs were signed by RBI Governor Shaktikanta Appointment News
Das and the CBUAE Governor Khaled Mohamed Balama. 755. In July as per report Supreme Court has quashed the
The MoUs were exchanged between the two Governors, Union government’s decision to extend the tenure of
in the presence of Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi Enforcement Directorate (ED) chief __________ for the
and President of the UAE Sheikh Mohamed Bin Zayed Al third time.
Nahyan. A. Arun Kumar Sinha
B. Rajiv Mahirshi
754. As per a report by World Health Organization and C. Sanjay Kumar Mishra
UNICEF, India has surpassed the pre-pandemic record of D. Shantanu Gupta
childhood immunization coverage. E. Amit Kumar Goyal
DPT3 (diphtheria, pertussis and tetanus) coverage stood Answer: C
at _________% in 2022. • Supreme Court quashed the Union government’s
A. 94 % decision to extend the tenure of Enforcement Directorate
B. 90 % (ED) chief Sanjay Kumar Mishra for the third time.
C. 93 % • Supreme Court termed the order “illegal” but allowed
D. 88 % Sanjay Mishra to continue in office until 31 July.
E. 96 % • A bench of Justices BR Gavai, Vikram Nath and Sanjay
Answer: C Karol said the extension of tenure is contrary to a 2021
• As per a report by World Health Organization and judgment by a division bench of the Supreme Court.
UNICEF, India has surpassed the pre-pandemic record of • In this judgement, Supreme Court had barred further
childhood immunization coverage. extensions beyond November 2021. So, the extensions
• DPT3 (diphtheria, pertussis and tetanus) coverage given after the verdict is invalid.
stood at 93% in 2022. It surpassed the pre-pandemic • Sanjay Mishra was first appointed the ED director in
record of 91% in 2019 and 85% in 2021. 2018 for two years. After that his tenure was extended
• The WHO and UNICEF released estimates for national for one year in 2020.
immunization coverage for 2022 on 18 July. • In 2021, the SC Bench of Justices B R Gavai and L
• DPT3 coverage in WHO South-East Asia Region Nageswara Rao upheld the Centre’s order extending the
reached to the 91%. tenure of Mishra beyond two years.
• The number of zero-dose children, those that have • However, the Bench said that extension of officers
not received even the first dose of DPT vaccine, halved to who attained the age of retirement should be done only
2.3 million in 2022 in South-East Asia. in rare and exceptional cases.
• The number of children, who had received at least • Section 25(d) of the Central Vigilance Commission
one dose of the DPT vaccine but did not complete three Act, 2003, lays down the minimum tenure of the
doses, has reduced from 1.3 million in 2021 to 650,000 in Enforcement Director.
2022.
• As per the report, the South Asia region had the best 756. In July as per report ___________were appointed
immunization recoveries among all the WHO regions. by the President as Supreme Court judges.
• Indonesia reported a DPT3 coverage of 85% in 2022 1. Chief Justice Ujjal Bhuyan
while it was 98% in Bangladesh. 2. Chief Justice S Venkatanarayana Bhatti
• Global immunization services have covered four 3. Chief Justice Arun Sinha
million more children in 2022 as compared to the 4. Chief Justice Mukund Sharma
previous year. Choose the correct option –
• Out of the total 73 countries that recorded a A. Only 1,2 and 4
substantial decline in immunization coverage during the B. Only 2 and 4
pandemic, 15 have recovered to pre-pandemic levels and C. Only 1 and 3
24 are on the route to recovery. D. Only 2,3 and 4
E. Only 1 and 2
Answer: E • The institute is offering two full-time academic
• On July 12, Telangana Chief Justice Ujjal Bhuyan and programs and the applications for admission are already
Kerala Chief Justice S Venkatanarayana Bhatti were open.
appointed by the President as Supreme Court judges. • Aghalayam is the first woman to be an IIT director.
• The appointments came within a week of the • In 1995, Aghalayam obtained her BTech degree in
Supreme Court Collegium, led by Chief Justice of India DY Chemical Engineering from IIT Madras.
Chandrachud, recommending their names to the • Since 2010, Aghalayam has been associated with IIT
government. Madras, where she currently holds the position of
• With the two new appointments, the judicial strength Professor in the Chemical Engineering department.
of the apex court has gone up to 32, leaving only one • Recently, she received recognition as one of the 75
vacancy vacant. Women in STEM from the Principal Scientific Advisor's
• Justice Bhuyan had been serving as the Chief Justice office.
of Telangana since June 28 last year.
• Justice Bhatti was appointed to Kerala High Court in 758. Recently as per report Mark Rutte announced that
March 2019. He was serving there as the Chief Justice he will leave politics after the upcoming general
from June 1, 2023. election. He was the longest serving Prime Minister of
• The Acting Chief Justice is to be appointed by the which of the following country?
President under Article 126 of the Constitution. A. Sweden
• The Supreme Court, consisting of the Chief Justice of B. Netherlands
India and up to 33 fellow judges, has extensive powers in C. Norway
terms of original, appellate, and advisory jurisdiction. D. Spain
• Supreme Court judges retire at the age of 65. E. Switzerland
• The Supreme Court of India came into existence on 28 Answer: B
January 1950. • Dutch Prime Minister Mark Rutte announced he was
quitting politics after nearly 13 years in power, in a
757. Recently as per report ___________ to become first shock end to his time as the longest-serving leader in the
woman director of IIT as she has been appointed as the history of the Netherlands.
director-in-charge of the IIT Zanzibar campus. • Nicknamed "Teflon Mark" for surviving scandals that
A. Preeti Jaisawal hit his four governments, the centre-right leader said he
B. Sanjana Mishra would stand down after elections sparked by the
C. Sonal Mangalwani collapse of his latest coalition over a row about
D. Preeti Aghalayam migration.
E. Rajshree • The second longest-serving leader in the European
Answer: D Union, the 56-year-old Mr. Rutte said that he had
• The Zanzibar campus of the Indian Institute of "mixed feelings" about bowing out but that it "feels
Technology (IIT) which is set to become the first offshore good to pass the baton".
campus of the prestigious institution will also be the first • Capital: Amsterdam.
IIT campus to be led by a woman director.
• With the first academic session scheduled to begin in 759. Nelson Mandela International Day is observed on
October, Preeti Aghalayam has been appointed as the ___________ in commemoration of the birthday of
director-in-charge of the IIT Zanzibar campus. Preeti Nelson Mandela.
Aghalayam is an alumnus of IIT Madras where she A. 15th July
completed her BTech in Chemical Engineering. B. 18th July
• India and Tanzania recently inked a Memorandum of C. 23rd July
Understanding (MoU) which facilitated IIT Madras to D. 13th July
launch its first international campus in Tanzania's E. 17th July
Zanzibar. Answer: B
• Nelson Mandela International Day is observed each A. Abhishek Choudhary
year on July 18 in commemoration of the birthday of B. Mithun Kumar
Nelson Mandela. C. Parth Salunkhe
• United Nations officially declared Nelson Mandela D. Mukesh Kumar
International Day in November 2009, and it was first E. Deepika Kumari
celebrated on 18 July 2010. Answer: C
• This year’s theme for Nelson Mandela International • Parth Salunkhe becomes the first Indian to win Youth
Day is "The Legacy Lives on Through You: Climate, Food, World Championship in recurve category.
and Solidarity." • He defeated Song In Jun of Korea by 7-3 in the finals.
• The theme calls for the public to take steps to address • India also won a bronze medal in the Under-21
key global issues like food insecurity and climate change. women's recurve individual section. Bhaja Kaur defeated
Su Hsin-Yu of Chinese Taipei.
760. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural • The 24-member Indian contingent won 11 medals.
Development (NABARD) celebrated its __________ • India finished the tournament with six gold, one silver
Foundation Day on 12th July. and four bronze medals, highest in terms of total
A. 42nd number of medals.
B. 50th • Of the 11 medals, India won six in the U21 category.
C. 40th • India finished second in terms of ranking. Korea
D. 45th remains in first spot with six gold and four silver medals.
E. 48th
Answer: A 762. In July as per report India secured the first position
• National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development in the medal tally at the 34th International Biology
(NABARD) celebrated its 42nd Foundation Day on July Olympiad which was held at ___________.
12. A. France
• Established on July 12, 1982, NABARD serves as the B. Serbia
apex financial institution dedicated to fostering the C. Bangladesh
growth of agriculture and rural development by D. Sri Lanka
facilitating credit flow and implementing various E. UAE
supportive initiatives. Answer: E
• On this occasion, Amit Shah distributed Micro-ATMs • India secured the first position in the medal tally at
and Rupay Kisan Card to the dairy farmers of milk the 34th International Biology Olympiad, UAE.
societies of Banaskantha and Panchmahal District • The 34th International Biology Olympiad was
Central Co-operative Banks and expected that other organized from 3-11 July 2023 in UAE.
DCCBs should take proactive steps in providing such • India topped the medal tally with four Gold at the
cards to their members through PACS. 34th International Biology Olympiad (IBO) 2023.
• DescriptionNational Bank for Agriculture and Rural • For the first time that India has topped the medals
Development is an apex regulatory body for overall tally in IBO.
regulation of regional rural banks and apex cooperative • Dhruv Advani, Ishan Pednekar, Megh Chhabda and
banks in India. Rohit Panda have won the Gold medals at the IBO 2023.
• Founded: 12 July 1982, Headquarters: Mumbai, Shri • Prof. Madan M. Chaturvedi (Former Senior Professor,
Shaji K V Delhi University) and Dr Anupama Ronad accompanied
• Chairman National Bank for Agriculture and Rural the team.
Development, Mumbai. • 293 students from 76 countries took part in the IBO
2023. Singapore was the only country to win four gold
761. In July as per report ____________becomes the first medals.
Indian to win Youth World Championship in recurve • Total 29 gold medals were awarded at the 34th
category. International Biology Olympiad (IBO) 2023.
• Earlier, India has topped the medals tally in • However, he is the first Indian opener to Make a
Astronomy & Astrophysics (2008, 2009, 2010, 2011, 2015 century in his first Test away from home.
and 2021), Physics (in 2018) and Junior Science (in 2014, • Shikhar Dhawan and Prithvi Shaw made their maiden
2019, 2021, and 2022). Test centuries against Australia and West Indies at
Mohali and Rajkot respectively.
763. In July as per report Grand Cross of the Legion of • Jaiswal is only the fifth Indian to score a century on
Honour, the highest honours of ________country has Test debut overseas.
been awarded to Prime Minister Narendra Modi. • In 1959, the first player to do so was Abbas Ali Baig
A. Egypt against England.
B. Suriname • The others are Surinder Amarnath at Auckland in
C. France 1976, Pravin Amre against South Africa at Durban in
D. Japan 1992, Sourav Ganguly against England at Lord's in 1996,
E. Nepal and Virender Sehwag against South Africa at
Answer: C Bloemfontein in 2001.
• On July 14, the Grand Cross of the Legion of Honour, • At the age of 21 years and 196 days, Jaiswal became
the highest of France’s civilian and military honours, has the fourth youngest Indian after Prithvi Shaw, Abbas Ali
been awarded to Prime Minister Narendra Modi. Baig, and Gundappa Vishwanath to score a century on
• President Emmanuel Macron presented the award to his Test debut.
PM Modi at the Élysée Palace in Paris. • Before Jaiswal, the last Indian to score a century on
• With this, PM Modi has become the first Indian PM to debut was Shreyas Iyer against New Zealand in 2021.
receive this honor.
• The Legion of Honor, founded by Napoleon 765. Recently as per report stand-alone brand value of
Bonaparte, consists of five degrees. the Indian Premier League (IPL) stood at $3.2 billion in
• The Grand Cross's ribbon is red, and the badge 2023.
features a five-armed Maltese asterisk on an oak and As per report eight out of 10 IPL teams’ brand value
laurel wreath. have crossed $100 million. Which of the following two
• In the past, selected prominent leaders and eminent are not in the list of $100 million club?
personalities have received the Grand Cross of the A. Gujarat Titans and Lucknow Super Giants
Legion of Honour from across the world. B. Lucknow Super Giants and Rajasthan Royals
• These include former South African President Nelson C. Lucknow Super Giants and Punjab Kings
Mandela, King Charles-then Prince of Wales, former D. Punjab Kings and Rajasthan Royals
German Chancellor Angela Merkel, and former UN E. Gujarat Titan and Sunrisers Hyderabad
Secretary-General Boutros Boutros-Ghali, among others. Answer: C
• The standalone brand value of the Indian Premier
764. In July as per report ___________made history by League (IPL) is pegged at US$3.2 billion in 2023, up by 80
becoming the first Indian opener to score a Test century per cent from $1.8 billion in 2022 as per estimates of
on debut overseas. Houlihan Lokey, Inc. (NYSE: HLI), a global investment
A. Rituraj Gaikwad bank.
B. Ishan Kishan • The business enterprise value of the IPL is estimated
C. Shubhman Gill at $15.4 billion, up 80 per cent from $8.5 billion in 2022
D. Shreyas Iyer on the back of the latest media rights deal with
E. Yashasvi Jaiswal Viacom18 and Disney Star.
Answer: E • According to the report, the T20 league’s media
• Yashasvi Jaiswal made history by becoming the first rights have grown “at a phenomenal” CAGR of 18 per
Indian opener to score a Test century on debut overseas. cent from 2008 to 2023. “When the IPL’s broadcasting
• Jaiswal became the 17th Indian, and the third fee is compared with other professional leagues in the
designated opener to score a century on Test debut. world on a per-match basis, the IPL fares well above the
likes of the National Basketball Association (NBA), the • As per the agreement, Navantia would carry out the
English Premier League (EPL), and the Bundesliga and is design of P75(I) submarines based on its S80 class of
second only to the National Football League (NFL). submarines, the first of which was launched in 2021 and
• The report ranks Chennai Super Kings as the most is undergoing sea trials prior to its delivery to Spanish
valuable franchise at $212 million, growing 45 per cent Navy at the end of 2023.
y-o-y. CSK is ranked No. 1 in both brand ranking and • Under this, the Indian Navy will procure six advanced
business enterprise value ranking. conventional submarines processed through the
• Royal Challengers Bangalore ranks second in terms of Strategic Partnership (SP) model.
brand value at $195 million and saw the highest • These will be diesel-electric submarines, having
incremental brand value rise in percentage terms (y-o-y advanced Air-independent propulsion (AIP) systems.
103 per cent). • Project 75I requires an Indian bidder to tie up with a
• Mumbai Indians is ranked third with a 2023 brand foreign collaborator and build six conventional
value of $190 million, up 34.8 per cent. KKR is ranked submarines equipped with AIP systems.
fourth ($$181 million) and Delhi Capitals was ranked • The first submarine must have a minimum of 45%
fifth with a brand value of $133 million. indigenisation, with the indigenous content going up to
• With the exception of the Punjab Kings and the 60% in the sixth.
Lucknow Super Giants, all IPL teams have a brand value • Conventional or Diesel-electric submarine: They need
of over $100 million. atmospheric oxygen to run the diesel generator which in
turn charges the batteries.
766. In July as per report Spanish submarine • Nuclear Submarine: It is a submarine powered by a
manufacturer Navantia and India’s Larsen and Toubro nuclear reactor, but not necessarily nuclear-armed. They
(L&T) recently concluded a Teaming Agreement, to have considerable performance advantages over
jointly bid for __________. conventional submarines.
A. Project 15B • S N Subrahmanyan, CEO & MD, L&T.
B. Project 18
C. Project 75 Alpha 767. In July as per report Defence Acquisition Council
D. Project-75I approved the acquisition of 26 Rafale fighter aircraft
E. Project-76 class and three new submarines for the Indian Navy.
Answer: D Three additional _________ class diesel-electric
• Spanish submarine manufacturer Navantia and submarines will procured from France under Buy (Indian)
India’s Larsen and Toubro (L&T) recently concluded a category, which will be constructed by Mazagon Dock
Teaming Agreement, to jointly bid for theProject-75I. Shipbuilders Limited (MDL).
• Project 75 (I) requires the Indian bidder to tie up with A. Kalvari class
a foreign collaborator (FC) and execute the program for B. Talwar class
delivery of six conventional submarines equipped with C. River class
Air-Independent Propulsion (AIP), while achieving D. Scorpene class
targetted Indigenous Content. E. Shivalik class
• Expected to be valued at over Euro 4.8 billion, the Answer: D
project is the India‘s largest defence acquisition project. • Defence Acquisition Council approved the proposal of
• This would also be followed by a 30-year lifecycle buying 26 Rafale fighter aircraft for Indian Navy.
sustenance contract of similar value. P75(I) would be the • The Defence Acquisition Council approved the
first program to be processed under the ambitious acquisition of 26 Rafale fighter aircraft and three new
Strategic Partnership (SP) model of acquisition of the submarines for the Indian Navy.
Ministry of Defence. L&T and Navantia signed an MoU • These 26 Rafale fighter aircraft comprise 22 single-
for the program on 11 April 2023 at Madrid, which has seated Rafale marine aircraft and four twin-seater
now culminated in this TA. trainer versions.
• Three additional Scorpene class diesel-electric • India and France will also cooperate on the
submarines will be also procured from France under Buy motorization of heavy-lift helicopters under the IMRH
(Indian) category, which will be constructed by Mazagon programme.
Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL). • To enable progress on the IMRH programme, HAL
• It will have high indigenous content, and will help in and Safran Helicopter Engine will sign a shareholders’
improving the operational preparedness of the Indian Agreement.
Navy. • Both also announced cooperation on small and
• This deal is likely to be signed during ongoing PM advanced modular reactors.
Narendra Modi’s visit to France. These deals will be of • India and France also agreed to support the adoption
around Rs 90,000 crore. of a road map for joint actions in the Indo-Pacific and
• Rafale fighter aircraft for Indian Navy will be the finalization of the joint Earth observation satellite.
deployed on the INS Vikrant and INS Vikramaditya. • Recently, HAL and General Electric signed a MoU to
• In recent years, it will be the second fighter jet manufacture the F-414 engine for the indigenous Light
purchase from the French aerospace major Dassault Combat Aircraft MK2.
Aviation.
• At present, IAF is operating 36 Rafale jets procured 769. Consider the following statement regarding
under a €7.87 bn deal signed in April 2016. Chandrayaan 3. Which of the following statement is
• These proposals have been approved in a meeting incorrect?
attended by Defence Minister Rajanth Singh, Chief of A. Indian Space Research Organisation launched its third
Defence Staff Gen Anil Chauhan and the three service lunar mission - Chandrayaan 3 on-board the heavy lift
chiefs and senior officials. LVM3-M4 rocket in Sriharikota.
B. The Chandrayaan-3 has been built for Rs 615 crore.
768. In July as per report Prime Minister Narendra Modi C. The rocket will eject the Chandrayaan-3 spacecraft at
and French President Emmanuel Macron addressed a an altitude of about 179 km.
joint press conference at the Elysee Palace in Paris. D. India is aiming to become the fourth country to land
Both countries announced that they will co-develop the an unmanned spacecraft on the surface of the moon.
combat aircraft engine and also the engine for the E. The Chandrayaan-3 mission will explore the North
Indian multi-role helicopter (IMRH). Pole region of the moon.
It will be developed by Safran Helicopter Engine and Answer: E
__________. • The Indian Space Research Organisation launched its
A. Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd. third lunar mission - Chandrayaan 3 on-board the heavy
B. Bharat Electronics Ltd. lift LVM3-M4 rocket in Sriharikota on July 14.
C. Bharat Dynamics Ltd. • The Vikram lander of the mission is planned to soft
D. Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders. land on the surface of the South Pole region of the Moon
E. Cochin Shipyard Ltd. on August 23.
Answer: A • A successful mission would see India enter an elite
• Prime Minister Narendra Modi and French President club of nations achieving such a feat. These nations are:
Emmanuel Macron addressed a joint press conference at the United States, China and the former Soviet Union
the Elysee Palace in Paris. • The Chandrayaan-3 is India’s third lunar mission.
• Both countries announced that they will extend their • It consists of an indigenous lander module (LM),
defence cooperation in advanced aeronautical propulsion module (PM), and a rover.
technologies. • The Chandrayaan-3 mission spacecraft will have
• They will co-develop the combat aircraft engine and three modules —Propulsion, lander, and rover.
also the engine for the Indian multi-role helicopter • The propulsion module is the one that will take the
(IMRH). lander and the rover to the moon.
• The lander module contains the rover. After the • After Tamil Nadu-born Mayilsamy Annadurai and M
touchdown, the lander will remain stationary at the Vanitha helmed Chandrayaan 1 and 2, Villupuram native
landing site, while the rover will explore the moon. P Veeramuthuvel will be overseeing the third mission
• The Chandrayaan-3 carries six payloads that would that would be fired towards the moon onboard the
help ISRO understand the lunar soil and also get the blue heavy launch vehicle, LVM3-M4.
planet’s photographs from the lunar orbit. • The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO),
• Radio Anatomy of Moon Bound Hypersensitive under its chairmanship of the soft-spoken S Somanath,
ionosphere and Atmosphere (RAMBHA) will measure the aims to enter an elite league of nations that have
near-surface plasma density and its changes with time. mastered the art of soft landing on the lunar surface,
• Instrument for Lunar Seismic Activity (ILSA) will with a similar attempt made in 2008 not fetching the
measure seismicity around the landing site and desired results.
delineate the structure of the lunar crust and mantle. • Veeramuthuvel, aged about 46 years, is currently
• Laser-Induced Breakdown Spectroscope (LIBS) will project director of Chandrayaan-3 mission under the
determine the elemental composition of lunar soil and leadership of Somanath.
rocks around the landing site. • He succeeds Vanitha who was the project director of
• Alpha Particle X-Ray Spectrometer (APXS) will derive Chandrayaan-2 mission under the leadership of then
the chemical composition and infer the mineralogical ISRO Chief K Sivan.
composition of the moon’s surface. • Vanitha also became the first woman project director
• Spectro-polarimetry of HAbitable Planet Earth in ISRO's history.
(SHAPE) will study the spectro-polarimetric signatures of Mayilsamy Annadurai was hailed as the 'Moon Man of
the earth in the near-infrared wavelength range. India' after he helmed the maiden Chandrayaan mission
• This could be used in the search for life on exo- in 2008.
planets beyond the solar system.
• Lunar lander Vikram will click photos of the rover 770. Recently as per report Supreme Court issued new
Pragyaan as it studies the seismic activity on the moon guidelines on designating lawyers as ‘Senior Advocates’.
by dropping some instruments. The new guidelines titled ‘Guidelines for Designation of
• Using laser beams, it would try to melt a piece of the Senior Advocates by the Supreme Court of India, 2023’
lunar surface -- the regolith -- to study the gases emitted will replace the earlier guidelines issued in 2018.
during the process. As per the new guidelines, a candidate must be at least
• Chandrayaan-1 was launched by ISRO in October, __________ years of age to apply for the post of 'Senior
2008. Advocate'.
• The ISRO lost communication with Chandrayaan-1 on A. 40
August 29, 2009, almost a year after it was launched. B. 45
• Chandrayaan-3 will cover a distance of 3.84 lakh km. C. 50
It will reach to the moon after travelling for 42 days. D. 55
• The Vikram lander of the mission is expected to soft- E. 60
land on the surface of the South Pole region of the Moon Answer: B
on around August 23 or August 24. • Supreme Court issued new guidelines on designating
• The Chandrayaan-3 mission will explore the South lawyers as ‘Senior Advocates’.
Pole region of the moon. • The new guidelines titled ‘Guidelines for Designation
• The Chandrayaan-3 has been built for Rs 615 crore. of Senior Advocates by the Supreme Court of India, 2023’
• The rocket will eject the Chandrayaan-3 spacecraft at will replace the earlier guidelines issued in 2018.
an altitude of about 179 km. • The fresh guidelines have been issued by the court
• The spacecraft would orbit the earth about 5-6 times following the judgment delivered by a three-judge bench
in an elliptical cycle. headed by Justice SK Kaul in a case seeking amendment
• India is aiming to become the fourth country to land of the 'Senior Advocate' designation guidelines.
an unmanned spacecraft on the surface of the moon.
• As per the new guidelines, a candidate must be at • Odisha cabinet approved Rs. 5700 crore for the
least 45 years of age to apply for the post of 'Senior implementation of a State sector scheme ‘Interest
Advocate'. This age limit can be relaxed in some cases. Subsidy-Subvention’ scheme.
• He has qualified for a place in the Guinness World • Under the scheme, farmers would get interest-free
Records. crop loans of up to Rs. 1 lakh.
• Anshuman Jhingran is an open sea swimmer. He is • A 2% interest rate would be charged for crop loans
from Navi Mumbai. He is the 114th person to cross the above Rs.1 lakh to Rs.3 lakh.
North Channel since 1947. • These interest rates would apply retrospectively from
• The age limit can be relaxed by the Committee for April 1, 2022.
Designation of Senior Advocates or if the name has been • Earlier, farmers were being provided interest-free
recommended by the Chief Justice of India or a Supreme crop loans up to a limit of Rs.50000 under KALIA
Court judge. (Krushak Assistance for Livelihood and Income
• All matters relating to the designation of Senior Augmentation).
Advocates in the Supreme Court of India will be dealt • Cabinet’s approval of Rs. 5700 crore is a step towards
with by a Permanent Committee to be known as the providing interest subsidy or subvention to the
"Committee for Designation of Senior Advocates”. cooperative banks and Primary Agricultural Cooperative
• As per the new guidelines, the conditions on which Societies (PACS).
Advocates will be eligible for designation as Senior • The interest subsidy subvention to the cooperative
Advocates are: banks or PACS will remain in force for 5 years (2023-24
• Experience of ten years' standing as an Advocate or to 2027-28).
ten years' combined standing as an Advocate and as a • As of now, the Cooperatives provide about 55% of the
District and Sessions Judge or as a Judicial Member of total crop loans in Odisha as against the national
any Tribunal in India. average of 17%.
• The practice of the candidate should be mainly before • Odisha cabinet has also given approval to making of
the Supreme Court. buildings for the Vana Surakshya Samitis (VSS).
• Attainment of the age of 45 years. • Government will construct 10,000 buildings across
• The new guidelines have also revised the point the State for the VSS in a phased manner during the four
system for evaluating candidates. years from 2023-24 to 2026-27.
• An Applicant will get a maximum of 20 points and 10
points for 10 years of practice and 1 point each for every 772. Consider the following statement regarding PM-
additional year of practice. KISAN scheme. Which of the following statement is
• The applications will be invited once a year and the incorrect?
committee will meet twice a year. A. It was launched on 24 February 2019.
B. It is being implemented by the Ministry of Agriculture
771. Recently seen in news KALIA (Krushak Assistance for and Farmers Welfare.
Livelihood and Income Augmentation) scheme is C. The PM-KISAN scheme provides eligible farmer
associated with which of the following state? families with a financial benefit of Rs. 6,000 each year,
A. Odisha payable in three equal installments of Rs. 2,000.
B. Tamil Nadu D. Shri Modi released an amount of about 17,000 crore
C. Karnataka rupees in the form of 14th installment of PM-KISAN to
D. Telangana more than 8.5 crores beneficiaries through Direct Benefit
E. Kerala Transfer.
Answer: A E. All of the above are correct
• Odisha cabinet has approved launch of interest-free Answer: E
crop loan up to Rs. 1 lakh. • Prime Minister Narendra Modi released the 14th
installment of the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi
(PM-Kisan) scheme worth over Rs 17,000 crore to more
than 8.5 crores farmers on July 27, 2023, during his 774. In July as per report National Geoscience Awards-
Rajasthan visit. 2022 has been presented by President Draupadi Murmu
• Eligible farmers will receive Rs 2,000 installment to how many geoscientists?
under the scheme, as the 14th instalment under the A. 18
scheme. B. 16
• The Prime Minister will also dedicate 1.25 lakh PM C. 20
Kisan Samriddhi Kendras (PMKSKs) to the country, which D. 22
is a big move for farmers. PMKSKs are being created to E. 24
offer a one-stop shop for all of the needs of farmers. Answer: D
• eKYC is mandatory for PM-KISAN Registered Farmers. • On 24 July, National Geoscience Awards-2022 was
OTP Based eKYC is available on PMKISAN Portal or the presented by President Draupadi Murmu in New Delhi.
nearest Common Service Centre (CSC) may be contacted • The award was given to 22 geoscientists including
for Biometric based eKYC. two women.
• PM-KISAN scheme was launched on 24 February • The Ministry of Mines has instituted the National
2019. It was announced during the interim budget of Geology Awards.
2019. • The award is given with the objective of honoring
• It is being implemented by the Ministry of Agriculture individuals and teams for exceptional achievements and
and Farmers Welfare. outstanding contributions in various fields of Geology.
• The PM-KISAN scheme provides eligible farmer • 22 Geologists including working professionals and
families with a financial benefit of Rs. 6,000 each year, academicians from across the country were honored
payable in three equal installments of Rs. 2,000. under three categories.
• It includes one National Geology Award for Lifetime
773. In July as per report Chief Minister Arvind Kejriwal Achievement, one National Young Geologist Award, and
inaugurated Delhi’s first RO ‘water ATM’ in __________. eight National Geology Awards (3 Team Awards + 3
A. Begumpur Joint Awards + 2 individual Awards= 20 awardees) in
B. Shahbad Daulatpur different fields of Geology.
C. Roshanpura • The National Geosciences Award for Lifetime
D. Puth Khurd Achievement was presented to Dr. Om Narayan
E. Mayapuri Bhargava, who is known for his work in the Himalayas
Answer: E over the last four decades.
• Chief Minister Arvind Kejriwal inaugurated Delhi’s • The National Young Geoscientist Award was
first RO ‘water ATM’ in Mayapuri Phase 2. presented to Dr. Amiya Kumar Samal, who is an
• It will provide drinking water treated with the reverse assistant professor at Banaras Hindu University.
osmosis (RO) process. • The field of geology is very broad and includes the
• Delhi government is planning to establish four such study of natural disasters like landslides, earthquakes,
water ATMs as part of a pilot project. Later, a network floods, and tsunamis.
of 500 water ATMs will be created across the city. • These subjects are called public good geosciences
• The Water ATM card will be issued by the Delhi Jal because they are useful in protecting a large number of
Board. A cardholder can draw up to 20 liters of water people.
daily from these ATMs free of cost. • The NGA was instituted in 1966.
• Water drawn after the daily quota will be charged at • The award is a symbol of respect and appreciation for
the rate of ₹1.60 per 20 liters. exceptional people and organizations who have
• It is a step toward providing clean and pure water to demonstrated excellence, dedication, and innovation in
every citizen of Delhi at their doorstep. the field of geosciences.
• Now residents of areas without piped water will no • These awards are given in the fields of Mineral
longer have to depend on water tankers. Exploration and Exploration, Basic Geology, Applied
Geology and Mining, Mineral Refining, and Sustainable • Rajasthan Legislative Assembly has passed the
Mineral Development. Rajasthan Dead Body Respect Bill, 2023 to prevent
protests with dead bodies.
775. In July as per report Biological Diversity • The bill seeks to penalize such acts that can attract
(Amendment) Bill, 2021 has been passed by Lok Sabha. It imprisonment for up to five years.
will amend the Biological Diversity Act __________. • The bill aims to make protests with dead bodies a
A. Biological Diversity Act, 2006 punishable offense and ensure the dignity of the body of
B. Biological Diversity Act, 2004 the deceased.
C. Biological Diversity Act, 2000 • Now, anyone found protesting with a dead body on
D. Biological Diversity Act, 2002 the road, outside police stations, or in any other public
E. Biological Diversity Act, 2008 place can be punished with a jail term of six months to
Answer: D five years, along with a fine.
• Lok Sabha passed Biological Diversity Amendment • Apart from prohibiting the use of a person's remains
Bill. for protests, the Bill seeks to ensure that every dead
• The Biological Diversity (Amendment) Bill, 2021 has person has the right to the last rites.
been passed by Lok Sabha. • This makes the family liable to perform the last rites
• It will amend the Biological Diversity Act, 2002. of the deceased member as soon as possible.
• The Biological Diversity Act of 2002 is being amended • If the family refuses to do so despite an order from an
to promote research and cultivation of medicinal plants. executive magistrate or local police officer, the last rites
• The Bill will exempt users of codified traditional will be performed by a public authority.
knowledge and AYUSH practitioners from sharing • The Bill also provides for the maintenance and
benefits with local communities. security of data on unclaimed dead bodies.
• The modifications would exempt AYUSH • The bill has been brought in view of the rise in
manufacturing companies from needing approvals from incidents where families protest with the body of the
the NBA. deceased for "unreasonable demands".
• The Bill has decriminalized a range of offences under • Between 2014 and 2018, there were 82 such incidents
the Act and replaced them with monetary penalties. where the family protested by sitting with the dead
• The bill has been drafted after receiving complaints body, leading to 30 police cases.
from traditional Indian medicine practitioners, the seed • The number of such incidents increased to 306
sector, and industry and researchers. between 2019 and 2023, where 91 police cases were
• They claimed that the current Biological Diversity Act registered.
put a heavy compliance burden and makes research and
investments difficult. 777. In July as per report Centre has withdrawn the
• It was first introduced in the Lok Sabha on December allocation of __________ lakh houses from 23 states and
16, 2021. UTs which failed to sanction the houses by June 30 under
• A Joint Parliamentary Committee was also formed in the PMAY-G, and given these to Uttar Pradesh as
December 2021 to analyse the Amendment Bill. additional allocation.
A. 1.48 lakh houses
776. In July as per report __________state government B. 1.54 lakh houses
has passed Honour of Dead Body Bill, 2023 to prevent C. 1.44 lakh houses
protests with dead bodies. D. 1.56 lakh houses
A. Uttar Pradesh E. 1.66 lakh houses
B. Karnataka Answer: C
C. Gujarat • The Centre has withdrawn the allocation of 1.44 lakh
D. Maharashtra houses from about two dozen states and UTs which
E. Rajasthan failed to sanction the houses by June 30 under the
Answer: E PMAY-G, and given these to UP as additional allocation.
• Under the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana-Gramin doing permissible work of at least __________ days in a
(PMAY-G), the Union Ministry of Rural Development financial year.
(MoRD) aims to construct 2.95 crore houses by March A. 75
2024. B. 100
• To address the gaps in the rural housing program and C. 125
in view of the Government's commitment to providing D. 150
“Housing for All’’ by 2022, the ndira Awas Yojana has E. 175
been restructured into PMAY-G w.e.f. 1st April 2016. Answer: C
• According to data available, of the Centre’s allocation • Rajasthan Government has presented the Rajasthan
of 2.93 crore houses till July 17 2023, 2.90 crore have Minimum Guaranteed Income Bill, 2023 in Assembly.
been sanctioned, of which 2.31 crore have been • The Bill covers three areas: Right to Minimum
completed. Guaranteed Income, Right to Guaranteed Employment
• The minimum size of the house has been increased to and Right to Guaranteed Social Security Pension.
25 sq.mt (from 20 sq.mt) with a hygienic cooking space. • The bill is part of the initiative started by the state
• The unit assistance has been increased government to provide relief to citizens from inflation.
• From Rs 70,000 to Rs 1.20 lakh in plain (to be shared • For the first time, the Urban Employment Guarantee
in the ratio 60:40 between Central and State Scheme in a state will get legislative backing.
Government) and • The Government will provide a minimum guaranteed
• From Rs 75,000 to Rs 1.30 lakh for North Eastern and income to eligible persons by providing them
the Himalayan States (90:10). employment in urban areas through the Indira Gandhi
• The Centre has set a target of constructing 2.95 crore Urban Employment Guarantee Scheme (IGUEGS) and in
houses by March 2024. rural areas through the Chief Minister Rural Employment
• Of the 2.95 crore houses, Guarantee Scheme (CMREGS).
• 2.04 crore were to be allocated to states based on the • Every adult person residing in the rural areas of the
Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) data, State shall have a right to get guaranteed employment
• While the remaining 91 lakh houses were allocated for doing permissible work of at least additional 25 days
based on a survey, Awas+, which was conducted in a financial year on completion of the maximum days
between June 2018 and March 2019 across the country. of the MNREGA scheme.
• However, these states and UTs (Gujarat, Tripura, • As per the bill, every adult person living in urban
Odisha, Sikkim, Meghalaya, Andaman and Nicobar areas will have a right to get guaranteed employment
Islands, MP, Kerala, etc) together failed to sanction a for doing permissible work of at least 125 days in a
total of 1,44,220 houses within the deadline of June 30. financial year.
• On the other hand, UP, which was initially allocated • The Right to Guaranteed Social Security Pension will
34.72 lakh houses, had sought the Centre’s approval for make a person falling in the category of old
additional houses. age/specially abled/widow/single woman eligible for
• Of the initial allocation, UP has completed pension.
construction of 29.82 lakh houses while the remaining • This is the first time that social security pensions will
are under construction. become a legal guarantee.
• Now, it has been allocated the additional 1,44,220 • As per the legislation, the Pension will be increased at
houses withdrawn from the other states and UTs. the rate of 15% per annum.
• The aged, disabled, widows, and single women will
778. In July as per report Rajasthan Government has get a minimum pension of Rs 1,000 per month.
presented the Rajasthan Minimum Guaranteed Income
Bill, 2023 in Assembly. 779. According to recent government data India’s share
As per the bill, every adult person living in urban areas in the world food grains market, based on the exported
will have a right to get guaranteed employment for values in 2022, was ________%.
A. 6.69 %
B. 7.79 % International & Report News
C. 8.64 % 780. According to the latest report by UN Women and
D. 5.12 % the United Nations Development Programme only
E. 9.45 % __________% of women worldwide live in countries that
Answer: B have managed to achieve both high female
• India’s share in the world food grains market, based empowerment and gender equality.
on the exported values in 2022, was 7.79%. A. 1 %
• India’s exports of foodgrains have registered a steady B. 3 %
growth in last few years which is reflected in the C. 9 %
increase in India’s share in world foodgrain exports from D. 7 %
3.38% in 2010 to 7.79% in 2022 as per UN COMTRADE E. 5 %
statistics. Answer: A
• The Government has taken several steps at State/ • According to a new report by the United Nations, only
District levels to promote exports of agriculture 1% of women worldwide live in countries that have
products, including foodgrains. State-specific Action managed to achieve both high female empowerment
Plans have been prepared and State Level Monitoring and gender equality.
Committees (SLMCs), Nodal Agencies for agricultural • The report, released at the Women Deliver
exports and Cluster Level Committees have been formed conference held in Kigali, Rwanda on July 18, 2023,
in a number of States. Country and product-specific states that leadership roles and decision-making roles
action plans have also been formulated to promote are still mostly held by men and unavailable to women.
exports. • This is the first-of-its-kind report that presents a
• The Agricultural & Processed Food Products Export comprehensive analysis of progress made in the human
Development Authority (APEDA), a statutory body under development of women and girls.
the administrative control of Department of Commerce, • This report has been jointly produced by two UN
has been providing financial assistance to the exporters agencies - UN Women and the United Nations
of agricultural and processed food products, including Development Programme.
foodgrains. • The bodies collected data from 114 countries and
• Further, Export Promotion Forums (EPFs) for Rice and analyzed them on the basis of twin indices of the
Nutri-Cereals have been set up under the aegis of Women Empowerment Index (WEI) and the Global
APEDA. Gender Parity Index (GGPI).
• Farmer Producer Organizations (FPO) have been • On average, women are able to achieve only 60% of
established for the purpose of leveraging collective their full potential.
economies of scale in the production and marketing of • They are 28% less achievers than men in key human
agriculture and related products. development dimensions as measured by the GGPI.
• The government has formed State Level Monitoring • They found that none of the 114 countries analyzed
Committees, Nodal Agencies for agricultural exports, had achieved full women's empowerment or full gender
and Cluster Level Committees. equality.
• India mainly exported agriculture products to the • More than 90% of the global population of women
USA, China, Bangladesh, UAE, Vietnam, etc. live in countries with low or moderate levels of women's
• Marine Products, Rice, Sugar, Rice –basmati, Spices, empowerment and low or moderate performance in
etc. were the top agricultural products exported from achieving gender equality.
India. • The report identified areas where comprehensive
• Details of top 10 agriculture commodities exported policy action is needed- including Health policies,
from the country and top 10 importing countries of Equality in education, Work-life balance and support for
India’s agriculture products, during the last five years, families, Women’s equal participation, and Violence
are given in the table below: against women.
Banking & Economy News • The second G20 Commemorative Postage stamp
781. Recently as per report to mark India’s G20 demonstrates togetherness and the collective will of G20
presidency, government will issue two commemorative members to achieve inclusive, ambitious, decisive and
coins of ___________denominations. action-oriented outcomes under India’s Presidency. The
A. ₹25 and ₹50 ‘seven hands’ also signify seven continents, reflecting
B. ₹50 and ₹75 the values of unity and inclusivity as symbolized by
C. ₹75 and ₹100 India’s G20 theme of ‘Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam’.
D. ₹100 and ₹200
E. ₹200 and ₹500 782. In July as per report interest rate on deposits under
Answer: C the EPF scheme has been increased to 8.15% for FY 2022-
• Two commemorative coins will be issued by the 23. Last year, the interest rate for EPF accounts was
government to mark India’s G20 presidency. ______.
• India is holding the G20 presidency from December 1, A. 8.10%
2022 to November 30, 2023. B. 8.05%
• The coins of ₹100 and ₹75 denominations will be C. 8%
coined at the mint. D. 7.95%
• Commemorative coins are considered legal tender. E. 7.90%
They are not released for general circulation. They can Answer: A
be sourced from the specified agencies. • The government has increased the interest rate on
• Dimensions of both the coins will be similar. They will deposits under the Employees Provident Fund (EPF)
be circular in shape with outside diameter of 44 scheme to 8.15%.
millimeters. • The increased interest rate is for the financial year
• Their metal composition will be a quaternary alloy 2022-23.
with silver(50 %), copper(40 %), nickel(05 %) and zinc(05 • The Ministry of Labour and Employment has
%). conveyed to EPFO the approval of the Central
• The face of both coins will have the lion capital of government to credit interest at the rate of 8.15% per
Ashoka Pillar in the centre with the ‘Satyamev Jayate’ annum.
inscribed below. • Last year, the interest rate for EPF accounts was
• On the reverse face, both coins will have the design of 8.10%.
the logo of India’s G20 presidency in the centre. • Employees' Provident Fund Organization (EPFO) runs
• ‘Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam’ will be written in the Employees Provident Fund (EPF) scheme.
Devnagari script on the upper periphery of the coin. • EPF scheme was launched in India in 1952. It is a
• “ONE EARTH • ONE FAMILY • ONE FUTURE” in English retirement benefit scheme in which a certain amount is
will be written on lower periphery of coins. contributed by both the employer and employee every
• The theme of India’s G20 Presidency is “Vasudhaiva month.
Kutumbakam” or “One Earth · One Family · One Future”.
It is drawn from Maha Upanishad. 783. Recently as per report Banks wrote off bad loans
• The two Postage Stamps of denomination ₹20 each, worth over __________lakh crore during 2022-23.
celebrate India’s ongoing G20 Presidency, which would A. Rs 4.10 lakh crore
culminate with the G20 Leaders’ Summit. B. Rs 2.80 lakh crore
• The first G20 Commemorative Stamp, rendered in C. Rs 3.20 lakh crore
gold colour, represents India's diversity, inclusiveness D. Rs 5.45 lakh crore
and rich cultural heritage. It takes inspiration from the E. Rs 2.09 lakh crore
lotus, the national flower of India, as represented in Answer: E
India’s G20 Presidency Logo with the seven petals of the • Banks wrote off bad loans worth over Rs 2.09 lakh
stamp symbolizing the coming together of seven crore (around US $ 25.50 billion) during 2022-23.
continents.
• In the last five years, the total loan write-off by the • As per SBI’s economic research report ‘Ecowrap’,
banking sector reached Rs 10.57 lakh crore (around $ India is likely to be 3rd largest economy in 2027 (or
129 billion). FY28).
• This loan write-off by banks has decreased the gross • This projection is based on actual GDP data as on
non-performing assets (GNPA). March 2023.
• Gross NPAs of banks has fallen from Rs 10.21 lakh • This is an upward movement of seven places since
crore in FY2018 to Rs 5.55 lakh crore by March 2023. 2014 when India was ranked 10th.
• As per the RBI data, Banks total written off Rs • Maharashtra and Uttar Pradesh will break the $500-
15,31,453 crore (US $ 187 billion) since FY2012-13. billion mark in 2027 (or FY28). UP will be the Indian
• In the last three years, banks have recovered only Rs ‘Land of Midnight Sun’.
109,186 crore from Rs 586,891 crore loans written off. • As per the report, India will surpass both Japan and
• The total defaulted loans (including write-offs but Germany in 2027 at the current growth rate.
excluding loans recovered from write-offs in three years) • The reports has been put together by SBI’s Economic
reached Rs 10.32 lakh crore. Research Department (ERD).
• Banks have reduced their NPA by writing off • India is likely to add $0.75 trillion in every 2 years.
defaulted loans. India is likely to touch $20 trillion by 2047.
• When a loan is written off by a bank, it gets out from • India’s global share in GDP will reach beyond 4% by
the asset book of the bank. 2027.
• Economic Research Department highlighted India
784. Which symbol on the number panel of a banknote is needs to grow at a CAGR (compounded annual growth
an identifier that it is a replaced/reprinted banknote? rate) of 8.4% till 2027.
A. Equal (=)
B. And (&) 786. In July as per report International Monetary Fund
C. Hashtag (#) (IMF) has raised India's FY24 GDP growth forecast by
D. Plus (+) ________ basis points to 6.1%.
E. Star (*) A. 10 basis points
Answer: E B. 30 basis points
• RBI has clarified that a banknote with a Star (*) C. 20 basis points
symbol is exactly the same as any other legal banknote. D. 80 basis points
• Only difference is that a Star (*) is added between the E. 40 basis points
prefix and the serial number. Answer: C
• RBI said this Star (*) symbol on the number panel of a • India's FY24 GDP growth forecast has been raised by
banknote is an identifier that it is a replaced/reprinted IMF by 20 basis points to 6.1%.
banknote. • International Monetary Fund (IMF) has also revised
• RBI said such banknote are used as replacement for the upward growth forecast for the global economy by
defectively printed banknotes in a packet of 100 pieces 20 basis points for 2023 to 3%.
of serially numbered banknotes. • IMF raised India's FY24 GDP growth forecast citing its
stronger-than-expected growth momentum in the March
785. As per SBI’s economic research report ‘Ecowrap’, quarter of FY23.
India is likely to be 3rd largest economy in ______. • India’s economic growth increased by 6.1% in the
A. 2024 March quarter of FY23.
B. 2025 • Last month, Organization for Economic Co-operation
C. 2026 and Development (OECD) revised upward its forecast to
D. 2027 6% for FY24.
E. 2028 • RBI expects the Indian economy to expand at 6.5% in
Answer: D FY24.
• IMF has forecasted an inflation of 4.9% for FY24.
• IMF also revised upward its growth forecasts for the between FY19 and FY22. In May 2023, UPI transactions
US by 20 basis points and for the UK by 70 basis points. had crossed the benchmark of 900 crore per month, with
• IMF said world trade growth will decline from 5.2% in a record high of 941 crore transactions worth ₹14.89
2022 to 2% in 2023. It will then rise to 3.7% in 2024. It lakh crore being processed.
will remain below the 2000-19 average of 4.9%.
• Deloitte India has forecasted India’s GDP is likely to 788. In July as per report Centre has exempted Regional
grow 6-6.3% in FY24. Rural Banks (RRBs) from the purview of merger control
regime of Competition Commission of India (CCI) for a
787. Reserve Bank of India’s Digital Payments Index, a period of ________.
measure of the extent of digitisation of payments across A. One year
the country, rose to __________in March 2023 from B. Two years
377.46 in September 2022. C. Three years
A. 388.45 D. Four years
B. 374.56 E. Five years
C. 395.57 Answer: E
D. 392.36 • Centre has exempted Regional Rural Banks (RRBs)
E. 398.74 from the purview of merger control regime of
Answer: C Competition Commission of India (CCI).
• The Reserve Bank of India’s Digital Payments Index, a • Corporate Affairs Ministry (MCA) said that the
measure of the extent of digitisation of payments across exemption from prior scrutiny and approval of CCI would
the country, rose to 395.57 in March 2023 from 377.46 in be available for five years.
September 2022 and 349.30 in March 2022. • This step will lead to the merger of RRBs without the
• “The RBI-DPI index has increased across all prior scrutiny and approval of CCI.
parameters driven by significant growth in payment • As per the order of MCA, RRBs are exempted from the
infrastructure and payment performance across the application provisions of section 5 and 6 of the
country over the period. Competition Act, 2002 for five years.
• The RBI introduced the composite Digital Payments • Sections 5 and 6 apply to the combination of
Index (RBI-DPI) in January 2021 with March 2018 as the enterprises.
base, to capture digitisation of payments. The index has • As of 2021, there are about 43 RRBs in India. They are
since been steadily rising, crossing the 300-point mark in regulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
September 2021. • Centre had earlier given similar merger control
• The RBI-DPI comprises five parameters to measure regime exemption for smooth consolidation among
the deepening and penetration of digital payments over public sector banks.
different time periods. Of these parameters, payment • In 2020, ten PSU banks were merged into four. The
enablers account for 25 per cent of the index, payment overall number of PSBs was reduced to 12 banks.
infrastructure – demand-side factors for 10 per cent, • Presently, centre has 50% stake in each RRB. Sponsor
payment infrastructure – supply-side factors for 15 per Bank has 35%. Remaining 15% lies with the State
cent, payment performance for 45 per cent, whereas government.
consumer centricity holds five per cent weightage. • Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) are government owned
• As per the Economic Survey 2022-23, India has the scheduled commercial banks of India.
highest fintech adoption rate of 87 per cent among the • Five RRBs were set up in 1975 on the
public compared to the global average of 64 per cent. recommendations of the Narsimhan Committee on Rural
Further, India has gained the third place in digital Credit. Prathama Bank was first RRB.
payments, coming only after US and China.
• It also said that UPI (Unified Payments Interface) 789. In July as per report ____________signed MoU with
transactions, have on average, grown 121 per cent in BITS Pilani PIEDS Finxcelerator for collaboration in
terms of value and 115 per cent in terms of volume supporting and facilitating FinTech and TechFin entities.
A. RBI Technology (“DST”), Government of India and
B. SEBI Government of state of Uttar Pradesh
C. SIDBI
D. NABARD 790. In July as per report Power Finance Corporation Ltd
E. IFSCA (PFC) and ________ have signed agreements with major
Answer: E clean energy companies for providing a total of Rs 5 lakh
• International Financial Services Centers Authority crore funds to their projects.
(IFSCA) and PIEDS BITS Pilani, have signed a MoU at BITS A. NTPC Limited
Pilani PIEDS Finxcelerator, Pilani Campus in Rajasthan B. Solar Energy Corporation of India
• This MoU aims to put in place a framework for C. REC Ltd
cooperation and understanding between IFSCA and BITS D. Power Grid Corporation of India
Pilani PIEDS Finxcelerator to collaborate in supporting E. Oil and Natural Gas Corporation
and facilitating FinTech and TechFin entities. Answer: C
• The IFSCA is responsible for development and • State-owned non-banking financing companies
regulation of international financial services, including Power Finance Corporation Ltd (PFC) and REC Ltd have
that of insurance sector, in the IFSC, which is treated as a signed agreements with major clean energy companies
separate international financial jurisdiction, distinct for providing a total of Rs 5 lakh crore funds to their
from rest of India. projects.
• IFSCA aims to develop a strong global connect and • PFC signed pacts worth Rs 2.37 lakh crore with 20
focus on the needs of the Indian economy as well as to companies in the clean energy space.
serve as an international financial platform at regional/ • REC, on the other hand, tied up for Rs 2.75 lakh crore
global level. on the sidelines of the G20 Clean Energy Ministerial
• The Pilani Innovation and Entrepreneurship conference.
Development Society (PIEDS) TBI BITS Pilani, Pilani • The memoranda of understanding (MoU) were signed
Campus is a non-profit society, its initiatives are spread for solar, wind, green hydrogen, battery storage, and
across incubation, acceleration, seed funding, and electric vehicle companies as well as the manufacturers
innovation. PIEDS has supported more than 170 of green energy equipment, among others, in the clean
startups, incubated 132 startups, and funded 62 energy space.
startups. • The companies include Adani, Greenko, ReNew,
• This MoU will enable cooperation and collaboration ACME, Continuum, Avaada, JBM Auto, Megha
on diverse initiatives regarding FinTech. FinTechs Engineering & Infrastructure Limited, Rajasthan
registered with BITS Pilani PIEDS may be facilitated to Renewable Energy among others.
access IFSCA's Regulatory and Innovation Sandbox and • ACME Group signed for Rs 4,000 crore loan REC for its
apply to the IFSCA (FinTech Incentive) Scheme, 2022. Green Hydrogen and Green Ammonia project in Oman. It
• International Financial Services Centers Authority also signed a pact for over Rs 21,000 crore of loans for
(IFSCA) and IIML-EIC, have also signed a MoU at IIM setting up a 380-MW round-the-clock renewable power
(Indian Institute of Management) Lucknow EIC, Noida phase 1 of Odisha, phase 1 of Tamil Nadu Green
campus in Uttar Pradesh. Ammonia projects and 600 MWh of pumped hydro
• This MoU aims to put in place a framework for Project.
cooperation and understanding between IFSCA and • Avaada has signed the MoU with an investment
IIML- EIC to collaborate in supporting and facilitating amount of Rs 20,000 crore to fund its projects over five
FinTech and TechFin entities. years, while ReNew has signed MoU worth Rs 64,000
• The IIML -EIC IIML EIC is promoted by Indian Institute crore with both the lenders for its green energy projects.
of Management Lucknow and supported by National
Science & Technology Entrepreneurship Development 791. In July as per report Reserve Bank of India had
Board (“NSTEDB”), Department of Science and released a Draft Circular - Arrangements with Card
Networks for issue of Debit, Credit and Prepaid Cards.
As per draft all the credit card, debit card, and prepaid • Asian Development Bank (ADB) has kept India
card customers in India can port their networks and economic growth forecast at 6.4% for this fiscal year.
choose from the range of service providers. The • Indian economy grew 7.2% in 2022-23. ADB said India
arrangement shall be effective from ___________. is expected to grow by 6.4% in FY2024.
A. 1st August 2023 • In an update to Asian Development Outlook (ADO),
B. 1st October 2023 ADB cut down its inflation projection for this fiscal year
C. 1st September 2023 (FY24) at 4.9%.
D. 1st November 2023 • It said core inflation will be stubbornly high. Core
E. 1st December 2023 inflation excludes food and fuel.
Answer: B • In this fiscal year, consumption demand in India will
• All the credit card, debit card, and prepaid card recover with rise in both rural and urban demand.
customers in India can port their networks and choose Investment growth will remain robust.
from the range of service providers. The arrangement • However, the global economic slowdown has stopped
shall be effective from October 1. merchandise trade. This will affect growth.
• Reserve Bank of India had released a Draft Circular - • ADB has kept inflation for developing economies in
Arrangements with Card Networks for issue of Debit, Asia this year at 3.6% and 3.4% in 2024.
Credit and Prepaid Cards, and asked for the feedback • It said developing economies in Asia and Pacific will
from stakeholders. grow at 4.8% in 2023.
• RBI had mentioned that on a review, it is observed • The growth forecast for 2024 is marginally revised
that arrangements existing between card networks and down from a 4.8% estimate in April.
card issuers (banks and non-banks) are not conducive to • China’s economy will grow at 5% in 2023. This has
the availability of choice for customers. remained unchanged from the April forecast.
• From 1 October, you can port your card network from
MasterCard to RuPay to Visa or any other network just 793. In July as per report ______________ has achieved
as you can port your mobile networks. high score of 71 in an ESG assessment carried out by
• RBI has mentioned that the card issuers shall provide CareEdge Research.
an option to their eligible customers to choose any one A. A U Small Finance Bank
among the multiple card networks. This option may be B. Jana Small Finance Bank
exercised by customers either at the time of issue or at C. Equitas Small Finance Bank
any subsequent time. D. Suryodaya Small Finance Bank
• In the current scenario, the authorised card networks E. ESAF Small Finance Bank
tie up with banks/non-banks for the issuance of debit, Answer: E
prepaid and credit cards. • ESAF Small Finance Bank has achieved high score of
• The choice of affiliated network for a card is decided 71 in an Environmental, social, and corporate
by the card issuer. This choice is also linked to the governance (ESG) assessment.
arrangements that the card issuers have with the card • The bank surpassed the industry average of 59.8. The
network. assessment was carried out by CareEdge Research.
• For the environmental pillar, the bank achieved a
792. Recently as per report Asian Development Bank score of 62%.
(ADB) has kept India economic growth forecast at • This demonstrates the banks’ commitment to green
________% for this fiscal year FY2024. finance and environment conscious operations.
A. 6.8 % • In terms of the social pillar, the bank has scored 68%.
B. 6.4 % It demonstrated health labour management practices.
C. 6.1 % • The banks’ corporate social responsibility
D. 6.9 % contribution exceeded the government-mandated
E. 6.6 % requirement.
Answer: B
• For the governance pillar, the bank achieved a score
of 76% due to its board governance and disclosure 795. In July as per report Securities and Exchange Board
practices. of India (Sebi) has permitted mutual funds to introduce
six new categories under the ESG (environmental, social,
794. Consider the following statement regarding Henley and governance) scheme.
Passport Index 2023. Which of the following statement is Which of the following is not among the new 6
incorrect? categories Under ESG?
A. India’s rank has gone up from 87 to 80 in the Henley A. Exclusions
Passport Index 2023. B. Integration
B. Singapore has overtaken Japan to claim the most C. Best-in-Class and Positive Screening
powerful passport in the world. D. Impact Investing
C. Iraq passport is ranked 103rd with a visa-free score of E. Environment Screening
27, the worst passport in the world. Answer: E
D. India share its 80th spot along with Senegal and • The Securities and Exchange Board of India (Sebi)
Togo. allowed mutual funds to introduce six new categories
E. All of the above are correct under ESG (environmental, social and governance)
Answer: C scheme.
• India has been ranked 80th in the Henley Passport • According to the capital markets regulator, the
Index 2023, released on July 18, 2023. mutual funds will also have to put in place a disclosure
• India’s rank has gone up from 87 to 80 in the Henley framework.
Passport Index 2023. • The new categories are -- exclusions, integration,
• India has made progress, climbing to the 80th spot best-in-class and positive screening, impact investing
along with Senegal and Togo. and sustainable objectives, Transition or transition
• Indians can travel to 57 destinations without a visa. related investments.
India was ranked 87th on the Passport Index in the 2022 • Currently, mutual funds can launch only one ESG
ranking. scheme under the thematic category of equity schemes.
• Singapore has overtaken Japan to claim the most • These measures will facilitate green financing with a
powerful passport in the world. thrust on enhanced disclosures and mitigation of
• Singapore allows passport holders visa-free entry to greenwashing.
192 out of 227 destinations in the world. • With regards to disclosure requirements for ESG
• The second spot is shared by Germany, Italy, and schemes, Sebi said mutual funds will have to clearly
Spain, and the third spot is shared by Austria and disclose the name of the ESG strategy in the name of the
Finland. concerned ESG fund.
• Afghanistan's passport is ranked 103rd with a visa- • ESG aims to encourage sustainable and ethical
free score of 27, the worst passport in the world. business practices, including climate change, pollution,
• Iraq ranked 102nd with a visa-free score of 29, human rights, corporate governance, and more. SEBI
second-worst passport in the world. issued a guidance note in 2012, urging companies listed
• The global passport rankings for 2023 were on Indian Stock Exchanges to disclose their ESG
conducted on the basis of data provided by the performance in annual reports.
International Air Transport Authority (IATA). • With effect from the financial year 2022-2023, filing
• IATA ranks the world's passports by the number of of Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report
destinations their holders can access without prior visas. (BRSR) has been made mandatory for the top 1000 listed
• Henley Passport Index was launched in 2006. The companies by SEBI.
index covers 199 passports and 227 travel destinations. • Sebi has mandated ESG schemes to invest at least
• International Air Transport Association (IATA) is a 65% of assets under management (AUM) in listed
trade association of the world's airlines founded in 1945. entities, where assurance on the BRSR (Business
• Headquarters: Montreal, Canada
Responsibility and Sustainability Reporting) Core is E. $18.20billion
undertaken.
• The balance AUM of the scheme can be invested in Answer: C
companies having BRSR disclosures. This requirement • India’s outward Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)
will be applicable from October 1, 2024. nosedived to $11.12 billion in January-June (H1 2023)
• In case there is a change in ERP, the reason for such from $23.57 billion in the same period last year,
change will also be disclosed in the next monthly indicative of the slowdown in the global economy,
portfolio statements of ESG schemes. according to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) data.
• In order to enhance transparency on votes cast by • The outward FDI expressed as the total financial
ESG schemes, the AMCs will have to categorically commitment, has three components, namely equity,
disclose whether the resolution has or has not been loan and guarantees. The sharp contraction in the
supported due to any environmental, social or commitments (outward FDI) was prominent in the April-
governance reasons. The enhanced voting disclosures June 2023 period.
will be applicable from April 1, 2024, onwards. • A foreign direct investment (FDI) refers to purchase of
an asset in another country, such that it gives direct
796. In July as per report American social media control to the purchaser over the asset.
platform Twitter has launched a new logo. The new logo
is a white ____ on a black background. 798. Recently as per report ___________will evaluate
A. W UPI for integrating the unified payment interface with
B. Y cross-border remittances using the global postal
C. X network.
D. T A. International Bank for Economic Co-operation
E. Z B. New Development Bank
Answer: C C. World Bank
• American social media platform Twitter has launched D. European Investment Bank
a new logo. E. Universal Postal Union
• It has dropped the blue bird from its website. Answer: E
Twitter’s site showed its new logo, a white X on a black • The Universal Postal Union will evaluate UPI for
background. integrating the unified payment interface with cross-
• The new logo was unveiled by Twitter owner Elon border remittances using the global postal network, an
Musk and its Chief Executive Officer Linda Yaccarino. official release said recently.
• Last year, Elon Musk bought the social media • It is a United Nations specialized agency and the
platform Twitter for 44 billion dollars. postal sector's primary forum for international
• Twitter is an American communications company cooperation.
headquartered in San Francisco, California, USA. • It was established by the Treaty of Bern of 1874.
• It was founded in March 2006 by Jack Dorsey, Noah • UPU is the second oldest international organization
Glass, Biz Stone and Evan Williams. The company went worldwide. Headquarters: Bern, Switzerland
public in November 2013. • Any member country of the United Nations may
become a member of the UPU.
797. According to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) data • Any non-member country of the United Nations may
India’s outward Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) become a UPU member, provided that its request is
nosedived to _________billion in January-June (H1 2023) approved by at least two-thirds of the member countries
from $23.57 billion in the same period last year. of the UPU.
A. $14.56 billion • The UPU now has 192 member countries.
B. $12.35 billion
C. $11.12 billion
D. $17.56 billion
799. Recently as per report Adani Group is building the E. Nazma Deo
world's largest hybrid renewable energy park in Answer: D
___________. • In a historic move, Chairman, Rajya Sabha, Shri
A. Jaisalmer Jagdeep Dhankhar has nominated four women
B. Paradip Parliamentarians to the panel of Vice-Chairpersons.
C. Pune • It is also noteworthy that all women members
D. Mundra nominated to the panel are first term Parliamentarians
E. Khavda and Smt. S. Phangnon Konyak is the first ever woman
Answer: E from Nagaland to be elected as a member of the Rajya
• The Adani Group is building the world's largest hybrid Sabha.
renewable energy park right in the middle of a desert, in • The panel reconstituted before the Monsoon Session
Khavda, Gujarat. contains a total of eight names, out of which half are
• The announcement was made by the founder and women.
chairman of the group, Gautam Adani while addressing • This is the first time in the history of the Upper House
shareholders at Adani Enterprises’ annual general that equal representation has been given to women
meeting. members in the panel of Vice-Chairpersons.
• Spread over 72,000 acres, the park will produce 20 • In another notable development, the Rajya Sabha
GW of green energy, once operational. The project will Chair has become fully digital. The Rajya Sabha Chair
be developed by Adani Green Energy Limited (AGEL), the will be using electronic tablets for matters related to the
renewable energy arm of the diversified Adani portfolio. conduct of business in the House, attendance in the
• Earlier during FY 022-23, the group operationalized House, details of Members speaking and other relevant
2.14 GW solar-wind hybrid plants in Rajasthan, India’s information.
first and world’s largest solar-wind hybrid cluster. • The following are the details of the women Members
• The hybrid cluster consists of four plants having a nominated to the panel of Vice-Chairpersons.
capacity of 390 MW, 600 MW, 450 MW and 700 MW • Smt. P.T. Usha: She is a Padma Shri awardee and a
respectively. All three of these hybrid energy generation renowned athlete. She was nominated to Rajya Sabha in
assets are located in Jaisalmer, Rajasthan. July, 2022.
• Adani said Adani Ports and Special Economic Zone • Smt. S. Phangnon Konyak: She belongs to the
(APSEZ) will commission India’s largest transshipment Bharatiya Janata Party. She is the first woman to be
hub in Vizhinjam, Kerala, in the next 12-24 months. elected as Member of Rajya Sabha from Nagaland in
• The port, a transshipment deepwater multipurpose April, 2022 and the second woman from the State to be
seaport, is being constructed at an estimated cost of Rs elected to either House of the Parliament or the State
7,700 crore. APSEZ will also commission a port in Assembly.
Colombo. • Dr. Fauzia Khan: She belongs to the Nationalist
• Separately, APSEZ — aiming to become the world’s Congress Party. She was elected to the Rajya Sabha in
largest port operator — intends to boost cargo volumes April, 2020.
at its ports to 1 billion tonne a year by 2030. The firm • Smt. Sulata Deo: She belongs to Biju Janata Dal. She
intends to develop the industrial hinterland across some was elected to Rajya Sabha in July, 2022.
of its ports by working closely with state governments. • Apart from the aforementioned women members,
Shri V Vijayasai Reddy, Shri Ghanshyam Tiwari, Dr. L.
800. In July as per report ___________ becomes the first Hanumanthaiah and Shri Sukhendu Sekhar Ray have
ever woman from Nagaland nominated to the panel of also been nominated to the panel of Vice-Chairpersons.
Rajya Sabha Vice-Chairpersons.
A. PT Usha 801. Recently an advisory committee under _________
B. Fauzia Khan has been constituted to relook at the delisting
C. Sulata Deo regulations by SEBI.
D. S Phangnon Konyak A. Ashwani Kumar
B. Keki Mistry
C. Amit Agarwal 803. In July as per report ____________ has been
D. Hasmukh Adhia elected as the new chair of the Intergovernmental Panel
E. Rajat Verma on Climate Change (IPCC) in Nairobi, Kenya.
Answer: B A. Chris Jammison
• Regulations for delisting of shares are being reviewed B. Patrick James
by SEBI. C. James Ferguson
• SEBI is reviewing regulations by considering a fixed D. Jean-Pascal van Ypersele
price option. E. Debra Roberts
• It is also reviewing trading plans for insiders and Answer: C
considering introducing a mechanism of instantaneous • James Ferguson ‘Jim’ Skea of the United Kingdom has
settlement in exchanges. been elected as the new chair of the Intergovernmental
• Presently, 90% stake by the parent or promoter is the Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) in Nairobi, Kenya.
threshold for delisting. Price discovery is through a • He defeated his nearest rival Thelma Krug of Brazil by
reverse book-building process. 90-69.
• An advisory committee under Keki Mistry has been • South African Debra Roberts and Belgian Jean-Pascal
constituted to relook at the delisting regulations. van Ypersele were the other candidates in the race.
• The delisting regulations is likely to be ready by the • The election for the chair was held at the
end of the year. headquarters of the United Nations Environment
• Having a fixed price for delisting of the shares is one Programme in Nairobi.
of the options being discussed. • The elections for the IPCC Bureau and Co-Chairs of the
• With introduction of instantaneous settlement in IPCC Working Groups will take place from 26-28 July.
exchanges, pay in and payout of shares and funds can • James Skea is a Professor of Sustainable Energy at
take place in real time through UPI. Imperial College in London.
• IPCC Bureau will have 34 members including the
802. In July as per report Nivruti Rai has been appointed chair. The Seventh Assessment Report of IPCC is
as the new MD and CEO of __________. expected to be completed in five to seven years.
A. NFRA • 12 members will be also elected as the members of
B. Invest India the Task Force Bureau on National Greenhouse Gas
C. IFSC Inventories.
D. Microsoft • Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change is a UN
E. Apple body for assessing the science related to climate change.
Answer: B • The World Meteorological Organization (WMO) and
• Former Intel India country head Nivruti Rai has been the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
appointed as MD and CEO of Invest India. established the IPCC in 1988.
• She has taken over the charge from Manmeet K • It informs governments about the state of climate
Nanda, who had taken the charge as MD in March. change.
• She was working as Intel India country head for the • Its headquarters is located in Geneva, Switzerland.
last seven years.
• Rajesh Kumar Singh, Secretary, DPIIT, chairs the 804. In July as per report Rakesh Pal has been appointed
board of Invest India. as the ___________ Director General of the Indian Coast
• Invest India is the National Investment Promotion Guard (ICG).
and Facilitation Agency. A. 27th
• It helps investors who looked for investment B. 25th
opportunities and options in India. C. 23rd
• It was set up as a non-profit venture under the aegis D. 28th
of the Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion. E. 30th
Answer: B Days & Obituary News
• Rakesh Pal has been appointed as the 25th Director 806. Every year on _________ Income Tax Day is
General of the Indian Coast Guard (ICG). celebrated to spread awareness around the importance
• He joined Indian Coast Guard in 1989 and is an of taxes and encourage more and more people to pay
alumnus of the Indian Naval Academy. taxes for the development of the nation.
• He has received professional expertise in gunnery and A. 21st July
weapon systems from the Indian Naval School B. 23rd July
Dronacharya, Kochi. C. 25th July
• In 34 years career, he held several positions including D. 24th July
Commander Coast Guard Region (North West), E. 27th July
Additional Director General Coast Guard, etc. Answer: D
• He was given the additional charge of Director • Every year on 24 July, Income Tax Day is celebrated.
General Coast Guard in February 2023. • It is celebrated to spread awareness around the
• He was awarded with Tatrakshak Medal in 2013 and importance of taxes and encourage more and more
President Tatrakshak Medal in 2018. people to pay taxes for the development of the nation.
• It is headquartered in New Delhi. • On the occasion of the 164th Income Tax Day
celebrations, Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman
805. In July as per report ___________became the first attended the celebration on July 24 in New Delhi.
woman MP from Nagaland to preside over Rajya Sabha. • On 24 July 1860, Sir James Wilson introduced income
A. Hekani Jakhalu tax in India to compensate the British government for
B. Eastrine Kire the losses incurred at the time of the First War of
C. Sulata Deo Independence in 1857.
D. S Phangnon Konyak • In 2010, Income Tax Department decided to mark 24
E. Fauzia Khan July as Income Tax Day.
Answer: D • Income Tax Department works under Department of
• On 25 July, BJP’s S Phangnon Konyak became the first Revenue of the Ministry of Finance. It is headed by
woman MP from Nagaland to preside over Rajya Sabha. Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT). Income tax is a
• On 17 July, She became the first woman member to direct tax.
be appointed to the panel of Vice-Chairpersons of Rajya • This year, the Income Tax Department surpassed its
Sabha. previous year's target of filing 3 crore ITRs just a few
• In April 2022, she became the first woman to be days before the deadline.
elected to the Rajya Sabha from Nagaland. • Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) is a statutory
• She also became the second woman from the body under the Central Revenue Act, 1963. It is the
northeastern state to be elected to either the House of administrative body of the Income Tax department.
Parliament or the State Legislative Assembly. • CBDT is headed by Chairman and comprises six
• Three other women members- PT Usha, Fauzia Khan members. Its headquarters are in New Delhi. Current
(NCP), and Sulata Deo (BJD) have been also appointed to Chairman: Nitin Gupta.
the panel of Vice-Chairpersons.
• Notably, all the women nominated to the panel are 807. Oommen Chandy who passed away was the former
first-time parliamentarians. Chief Minister of which of the following state?
• This is the first time in the history of the Upper House A. Assam
that equal representation has been given to women B. Manipur
members in the panel of Vice chairpersons. C. Haryana
• The other panel members are V Vijayasai Reddy, D. Kerala
Ghanshyam Tiwari, L Hanumanthaiah, and Sukhendu E. Karnataka
Sekhar Ray. Answer: D
• Former Kerala Chief Minister Oommen Chandy A. Joe Root
passed away at the age of 79. B. Rohit Sharma
• Oommen Chandy was the Chief Minister of Kerala C. Kane Williamson
twice, from 2004 to 2006 and from 2011–16. D. Steven Smith
• The veteran leader began his tenure as an MLA by E. Virat Kohli
winning the 1970 state assembly elections at the age of Answer: E
27. • Virat Kohli becomes the first batter to score a century
• Later, he won 11 consecutive elections. He in his 500th international match.
represented the Puthupally assembly constituency and • Virat Kohli scored his 15th overseas Test hundred and
was the longest-serving MLA in the state assembly. his 76th international century in his 500th international
• He is the only Indian Chief Minister to receive an match against West Indies.
award for public service from the United Nations. • Virat Kohli scored a century in 180 balls in the 2nd
• He was a senior leader of the Indian National Test in Port of Spain.
Congress party. • He also becomes the 10th cricketer to play 500
• In 2018, he was appointed as the General Secretary international matches.
of the All-India Congress Committee in charge of the • Kohli is the fourth Indian to play 500 international
crucial state of Andhra Pradesh. matches after Sachin Tendulkar, Rahul Dravid and MS
Dhoni.
808. Recently passed away Dr Mangala Narlikar was • Kohli has represented India in 274 ODIs and 115 T20Is
renowned ________. and 111 Tests.
A. Mathematician • Sachin Tendulkar has appeared in 664 International
B. Actress matches, the highest number.
C. Writer • Virat Kohli equals Sir Don Bradman's record of most
D. Social Worker test centuries after smashing his 29th ton.
E. Painter • Bradman had scored 29 centuries in 52 tests while
Answer: A Kohli achieved this milestone in the 111th test match.
• Mathematician and scientist Dr Mangala Narlikar
passed away at her residence at the age of 80 years. 810. In July as per report ____________ has become
• She was suffering from cancer for the past few India's 83rd chess Grandmaster.
months. A. Aditya S Samant
• She worked as an associate researcher in the B. Shobhit Kapsime
Mathematics School of the Institute of Fundamental C. Harshit Raja
Research between 1964 to 1966. D. Pranav Anand
• She also taught mathematics at Cambridge E. V Prraneeth
University in England. Answer: A
• She married mathematician and astronaut Dr • Aditya S Samant is a 17-year-old chess prodigy from
Narlikar in 1965. Maharashtra.
• She has authored several books in English and • Before becoming India’s 83rd chess Grandmaster, he
Marathi. held the title of International Master.
• A Cosmic Adventure, An easy Access to Basic • In the BielChess MTO 2023 tournament, he faced
Mathematics (book for school students), Ganit Gappa fellow Indian player Aryan Chopra in the ninth round.
(Part 1, 2), Easy access to mathematics (book for school • To become a Grandmaster (GM), a player is required
students), are some famous book of her. to secure three GM norms.
• The player is also required to cross the live rating of
809. In July as per report ______________becomes the 2,500 Elo points to become a GM.
first batter to score a century in his 500th international • Aditya S Samant secured his first GM norm at the Abu
match. Dhabi Masters in August 2022.
• He earned his 2nd GM norm at the 3rd El Llobregat • Indian badminton player Satwiksairaj Rankireddy
Open in December 2022. sets a new record for the fastest badminton smash at a
• V Prraneeth of Telangana had in May become India's speed of 565 km/h.
82nd Grandmaster. • He achieved this feat in the ongoing Korea Open
• The Elo rating system is used to calculate the relative 2023.
skill levels of players in chess. • He broke the earlier record of smash at a speed of
493 km/h by Malaysian shuttler Tan Boon Heong.
811. In July as per report _______ won the men’s • Indian men's doubles team of Satwiksairaj and Chirag
doubles title at the Korea Open super 500. Shetty defeated Supak Jomkoh/Kittinupong Kedren of
A. Satwiksairaj Rankireddy and Srikanth Kidambi Thailand by 21-16, 21-14.
B. Lakshya Sen and Chirag Shetty • They have entered into the pre-quarterfinals with this
C. Satwiksairaj Rankireddy and Chirag Shetty win.
D. Srikanth Kidambi and Lakshya Sen • Backcourt, Rally, Smash, Shuttlecock, Fault, and Drive
E. Srikanth Kidambi and Chirag Shetty are some important terms related to Badminton.
Answer: C
• Indian shuttlers Satwiksairaj Rankireddy and Chirag 813. In July as per report Indian Naval Ship Kirpan has
Shetty wins the men’s doubles title at the Korea Open. been decommssioned and has been handed to
• They defeated Fajar Alfian and Muhamad Rian __________ at the strategic military port of Cam Ranh
Ardianto in the final by 17-21, 21-13, 21-14. Bay.
• Anders Antonsen clinched men’s singles title after A. Singapore
defeating Loh Kean Yew of Singapore. B. Vietnam
• In Women’s singles, Se-young triumphed over C. Malaysia
Taiwan’s Tai Tzu Ying by 21-9, 21-15. D. UAE
• Satwik and Chirag had also won the Swiss Open, E. Mauritius
Asian Championships and Indonesia Open this year. Answer: B
• The Indian pair had a 2-2 head-to-head count against • Indian Naval Ship Kirpan has been handed over to
Alfian and Ardianto but they had defeated the Vietnam People’s Navy (VPN) at the strategic military
Indonesian pair on the last two occasions. port of Cam Ranh Bay.
• Earlier, Satwik and Chirag had won multiple titles • Cam Ranh Bay is a deep-water bay located in Khánh
including Commonwealth Games gold, Thomas Cup, Hòa Province, Vietnam, on the South China Sea.
bronze medal in World Championships and wins in Super • INS Kirpan is an indigenously-built in-service missile
300 (Syed Modi and Swiss Open). Corvette.
• The BWF World Tour is divided into six levels- World • It is a Khukri class missile corvette commissioned into
Tour Finals, four Super 1000, six Super 750, seven Super the Navy on January 12, 1991.
500, and 11 Super 300. • It has a displacing capacity of close to 1,400 tonnes.
• It is capable of a speed of more than 25 knots.
812. In July as per report Indian badminton player • The Khukri class are equipped with Diesel Engines
Satwiksairaj Rankireddy sets a new record for the fastest assembled in India.
badminton smash at a speed of __________ km/h. • Manned by about 12 officers and 100 sailors, Kirpan
A. 442 km/h is 90 metres long and 10.45 metres in width with a
B. 565 km/h maximum displacement of 1,450 tons.
C. 540 km/h
D. 520 km/h 814. Recently seen in news Typhoon Doksuri was named
E. 556 km/h by which of the following country?
Answer: B A. Pakistan
B. Bangladesh
C. South Korea
D. India • In 1973, the Government of India launched Project
E. China Tiger, an ambitious, holistic conservation project, aimed
Answer: C at safeguarding the nation's tiger population and
• Typhoon Doksuri moves towards China after causing preserving biodiversity.
damage in the Philippines. • Over the past fifty years, Project Tiger has achieved
• Typhoon Doksuri caused widespread destruction in commendable success, making significant strides in tiger
the northern Philippines on 26 July 2023 and left tens of conservation.
thousands displaced. • Initially covering nine tiger reserves spanning 18,278
• Typhoon Doxuri was named Super Typhoon Ege in the km2, the project has flourished into a remarkable
Philippines. accomplishment with 53 reserves spread across 75,796
• It is the third typhoon of the 2023 Pacific typhoon km2, effectively covering 2.3% of India's total land area.
season. • India currently harbors almost 75% of the world’s
• It started as a low pressure area in the Philippines. It wild tiger population.
started far off the coast of Mindanao. Mindanao is the • The first phase of tiger conservation in the 1970s
second-largest island in the Philippines. focused on enacting the Wildlife Protection Act and
• It intensified into a typhoon prior to reaching close to establishing protected areas for tigers and tropical
the Babuyan Islands, an archipelago in the Philippines. forests. However, the 1980s saw a decline due to
• The name Doksuri was submitted by South Korea and extensive poaching. In response, the government
means “eagle” in Korean. initiated the second phase in 2005, adopting a
landscape-level approach, community involvement &
815. Consider the following statement regarding India’s support, implementing strict law enforcement, and using
tiger population. Which of the following statement is modern technology for scientific monitoring to ensure
incorrect? tiger conservation.
A. India’s tiger population increased to 3,682 in 2022, up • On April 9, 2022, during the celebration of 50 years
from 2,967 in 2018. of the Project Tiger at Mysusru , Hon’ble Prime Minister
B. In 2022, the maximum number of tigers, 785, were Shri Narendra Modi declared the minimum tiger
reported to be in Madhya Pradesh, followed by population of 3167, which is the population estimate
Karnataka (563), Uttarakhand (560), and Maharashtra from the camera-trapped area.
(444). • Now, further analysis of data, done by the Wildlife
C. India’s tigers are largely concentrated in 53 dedicated Institute of India, from both camera-trapped and non-
tiger reserves spread across 75,796 square km, spanning camera-trapped tiger presence areas, the upper limit of
about 2.7% of India’s total land area. the tiger population is estimated to be 3925 and the
D. The tiger abundance within the Tiger Reserve is average number is 3682 tigers, reflecting a
highest in Corbett (260), followed by Bandipur (150), commendable annual growth rate of 6.1% per annum.
Nagarhole (141), Bandhavgarh (135), Dudhwa (135). • Central India and the Shivalik Hills and Gangetic
E. All of the above are correct Plains witnessed a notable increases in tiger population,
Answer: C particularly in the states of Madhya Pradesh,
• On the occasion of the Global Tiger Day celebrated at Uttarakhand, and Maharashtra.
the Corbett Tiger Reserve, 29 July 2023, a detailed report • However, certain regions, such as the Western Ghats,
was released by Union MoS Shri Ashwini Kumar experienced localized declines, necessitating targeted
Choubey. monitoring and conservation efforts.
• Tiger population increased to 3,682 in 2022, up from • Some states, including Mizoram, Nagaland,
2,967 in 2018. Jharkhand, Goa, Chhattisgarh, and Arunachal Pradesh,
• This is an upward revision from April this year, when have reported disquieting trends with small tiger
a minimum of 3,167 animals were estimated by the populations.
Wildlife Institute of India (WII), which coordinates the
quadrennial tiger census.
• The largest tiger population of 785 is in Madhya • Without restriction, but subject to the guidance of
Pradesh, followed by Karnataka (563) & Uttarakhand parents or guardians for children below 12 years of age
(560), and Maharashtra (444). (‘UA’)
• The tiger abundance within the Tiger Reserve is • Only to adults (‘A’)
highest in Corbett (260), followed by Bandipur (150), • Only to members of any profession or class of persons
Nagarhole (141), Bandhavgarh (135), Dudhwa (135), (‘S’)
Mudumalai(114), Kanha (105), Kaziranga (104), • The Bill substitutes the UA category with the
Sundarbans (100), Tadoba (97), Sathyamangalam (85), following three categories to also indicate age-
and Pench-MP (77). appropriateness: UA 7+, UA 13+, and UA 16+.
• Various tiger reserves have shown remarkable • Films with an 'A' or 'S' certificate will require a
growth, while others face challenges. Approximately separate certificate for exhibition on television, or any
35% of the tiger reserves urgently require enhanced other media prescribed by the Central Government.
protection measures, habitat restoration, ungulate • The Bill prohibited unauthorized recording and
augmentation, and subsequent tiger reintroduction. unauthorized exhibition of films.
• Eighteen tiger reserves have less than 10 big cats left. • According to the bill, the attempt of unauthorized
• Apart from the All India Tiger Estimation 2022 report, recording will also be an offence.
a report on the reserves and management effectiveness • Under the Copyright Act, 1957, Certain exemptions
and evaluation report were also released. Six tiger will also apply to the above offenses.
reserves in the country — Kali, Melghat, Pilibhit, Tadoba • The 1957 Act allows limited use of copyrighted
Andhari, Navegaon and Periyar — were given CAT content without the owner’s authorization in specified
awards. cases such as private or personal use, reporting of
current affairs, and review or critique of that work.
816. Consider the following statement regarding • The offenses will be punishable with imprisonment
Cinematograph (Amendment) Bill, 2023. Which of the between three months and three years, and a fine
following statement is incorrect? between three lakh rupees and 5% of the audited gross
A. The Bill will amend the Cinematograph Act, 1952. production cost.
B. The Bill substitutes the UA category with the
following three categories to also indicate age- 817. In July as per report the government has taken up
appropriateness: UA 7+, UA 13+, and UA 16+. the highway construction target for FY24 to ________km
C. Films with an 'A' or 'S' certificate will require a from 12,500 km earlier.
separate certificate for exhibition on television, or any A. 13,200 km
other media prescribed by the Central Government. B. 13,400 km
D. Only 1 and 2 C. 13,600 km
E. All of the above are correct D. 12,800 km
Answer: E E. 13,800 km
• Cinematograph (Amendment) Bill, 2023 passed by Answer: E
Rajya Sabha on 27 July. • The government has increased the highway-building
• The Bill will amend the Cinematograph Act, 1952. target for the current year as it looks to fast-track
• The Cinematograph (Amendment) Bill, 2023 was infrastructure development in the runup to state and
introduced in Rajya Sabha on July 20, 2023. general elections.
• The Act constitutes a Board of Film Certification to • Highway development is thought to have an
certify films for exhibition. immediate and positive connect with voters.
• The Bill has a provision to add certain additional • According to officials in the ministry of road transport
certificate categories based on age. and highways, the government has taken up the
• Under the Act, the film may be certified for the highway construction target for FY24 to 13,800 km from
exhibition: 12,500 km earlier.
• Without restriction (‘U’)
• Construction agencies have been told to push the 819. In July as per report Prime Minister Narendra Modi
pace of road building and achieve a target of over 40 km inaugurated the international exhibition-cum-
of highways per day in the remaining nine months of the convention Centre (IECC) complex named _________at
year, so that the revised overall target is achieved Pragati Maidan in New Delhi.
without fail. A. Hindustan Mansion
• The pace of construction of highways has gone up B. Bharat Manor
from 11.6 km a day in 2014 to around 30 km a day now. C. Bharat Mandapam
• Highway construction reached its peak in covid year D. India Ranch
2020-21 when the pace touched 37 km per day with E. Bharat Auditorium
13,327 km of highways built. Answer: C
• Prime Minister Narendra Modi dedicated nation the
818. Recently, Lok Sabha has passed the Jan Vishwas international exhibition-cum-convention centre (IECC)
(Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2023. complex at Pragati Maidan in New Delhi and urged the
The Bill proposes to amend 183 provisions to be nation to move ahead with the principle of ‘Think Big,
decriminalized in __________ Central Acts administered Dream Big, Act Big’.
by 19 Ministries/Departments. • The complex has been named Bharat Mandapam.
A. 45 • The IECC complex is India’s largest MICE (meetings,
B. 40 incentives, conferences, and exhibitions) destination and
C. 41 features state-of-the-art facilities, including a
D. 42 convention centre, exhibition halls, and an
E. 43 amphitheatre.
Answer: D • The term ‘Bharat Mandapam’ is derived from Lord
• Recently, the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Basaveshwara’s concept of ‘Anubhav Mantapa,’ which
Bill, 2023 was passed in Lok Sabha during the monsoon was a significant institution in the 12th century.
session and aims at giving a boost to Ease of Living and Anubhav Mantapa is considered one of the earliest
Ease of Doing Business. parliaments in human history, where poets and socio-
• The Bill proposes to amend 183 provisions in 42 spiritual reformers known as Sharanas discussed and
Central Acts administered by 19 deliberated on various reforms.
Ministries/Departments, covering various domains such • Developed as a national project at a cost of about Rs
as environment, agriculture, media, industry, trade, 2,700 crore, the new convention complex will help
information technology, copyright, motor vehicles, showcase and promote India as a global business
cinematography, food safety, etc. destination.
• The Bill seeks to remove imprisonment clauses and/or • Its multi-purpose hall and plenary hall have a
fines in some provisions and convert them into penalties combined capacity of seven thousand people, which is
in some others. larger than the seating capacity of the famous Sydney
• The Bill provides for a periodic revision of fines and Opera House in Australia.
penalties every three years, with an increase of 10% of
the minimum amount for various offences in the 820. According to a report of the Ministry of Health and
specified Acts. Family Welfare projected population of India, as on July
• For effective implementation of the above, the bill 1, 2023, was _________ crore.
proposes measures such as (a) pragmatic revision of A. 142 crore
fines and penalties commensurate to the offence B. 138 crore
committed; (b) establishment of Adjudicating Officers; C. 140 crore
(c) establishment of Appellate Authorities; and (d) D. 141 crore
Periodic increase in quantum of fine and penalties. E. 139 crore
Answer: E
• The home ministry informed Lok Sabha that India’s • Highlights the state of elementary education in rural
projected population on July 1, 2023, as per a health and India in 2023.
family welfare ministry report, was around 139 crore. • Focuses on the prevalence of smartphone usage
• The projected population of India as on July 1, 2023, among students.
as per the report of the technical group on population • The survey was conducted by the Development
projections published by the National Commission on Intelligence Unit (DIU).
Population, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, is • DIU is a collaboration between NGO Transform Rural
139,23,29,000. India and Sambodhi Research and Communications.
• This is not only lower than the projected count of • 49.3% have access to smartphones. 76.7% of parents
142.9 crore on July 1, 2023, as per the UN’s ‘World indicated that their children primarily use smartphones
Population Prospects 2022’ but also short of 142.6 crore for playing video games, indicating a preference for
projection for China on the same day. entertainment over educational activities.
• One of the key highlights of the World Population • Additionally, 56.6% of students use smartphones to
Prospects 2022 was its projection that the population of download and watch movies, while 47.3% use them to
India, the world’s second most populous country, would download and listen to music.
match that of China in April 2023 and overtake it by July • In contrast, only 34% of students use smartphones for
1, 2023. study-related downloads, and a mere 18% access online
• Incidentally, while the last population census in China learning via tutorials.
was conducted in 2020, India has not undertaken the • Smartphone access varies across different class
decennial census exercise since 2011, with Covid having levels. Students in higher classes (Class VIII and above)
delayed the demographic exercise that was scheduled to have greater access to smartphones (58.32%), while
be held in 2021. even younger students (Classes I–III) show considerable
• The UN, therefore, had to rely on information about access (42.1%).
levels and trends in fertility, mortality and international • This indicates that smartphone usage for
migration obtained from other vital records, surveys and entertainment is prevalent across age groups,
administrative data to estimate and project the size of potentially impacting their educational engagement.
the Indian and Chinese populations for subsequent years • 78% of parents aspire for their children to attain
after their last censuses. graduation-level education or above, however, there is a
gap in parental engagement.
821. Recently, the Ministry of Education has released the • Only 40% of parents have daily conversations with
State of Elementary Education in Rural India – 2023 their children about their school learning, while 32%
report, highlighting the Prevalence of Smartphone engage in such conversations a few days a week.
Usage among students. • For girls, 36.8% of parents mentioned that the need
As per report __________ % of students in rural areas to contribute to family earnings led to their daughters
have access to smartphones. dropping out.
A. 58.5 % • The findings emphasize the need for targeted efforts
B. 44.8 % to enhance the educational environment at home and
C. 42.6 % promote a balanced use of smartphones for both
D. 49.3 % entertainment and learning purposes.
E. 71.4 %
Answer: D 822. According to the recent NITI Aayog report titled
• Recently, the Ministry of Education has released the “National Multidimensional Poverty Index: A progress
State of Elementary Education in Rural India – 2023 review 2023” over 50% households in _________ Indian
report, highlighting the Prevalence of Smartphone States have inadequate housing.
Usage among students. A. 10
• Released by the Ministry of Education. B. 12
C. 14
D. 15 B. $8 trillion
E. 18 C. $4 trillion
Answer: B D. $2 trillion
• In 12 States, a majority of households are still E. $3 trillion
deprived of housing. Answer: E
• This includes big States such as Uttar Pradesh, • To address urgent global challenges and Sustainable
Madhya Pradesh, and Jharkhand. This is according to Development Goals (SDGs), the G20 Independent Expert
the recent NITI Aayog report titled “National Group on MDB Reforms has estimated an additional
Multidimensional Poverty Index: A progress review spending requirement of $3 trillion per year by 2030,
2023.” about 0.4 trillion of which could be channelised through
• According to the report, a household is considered multilateral development banks.
deprived of housing if it “has inadequate housing: the • On March 28, G20 India Presidency set up the expert
floor is made of natural materials, or the roof or wall are group co-convened by 15th Finance Commission
made of rudimentary materials.” chairman Singh and former US Treasury secretary
• The report shows that Manipur had the highest Lawrence Summers.
proportion of households deprived of housing (75.5 per • The Group’s first report was deliberated at the third
cent) in 2019-21. Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors (FMCBG)
• Other States with a high percentage of housing meeting at Gandhinagar.
deprivation include Arunachal Pradesh, Assam and • Of the $3 trillion annual requirement, two-thirds
Tripura. could come from domestic resource mobilization while
• On the other hand, Chandigarh, Delhi and Andhra the remaining $1 trillion in additional external financing.
Pradesh fared highly in this index with the households • Of the $1 trillion in external financing, more than half
having adequate housing. could come from private financing, and the rest from
• With regard to the total Indian population, 41.37 per official financing including MDBs.
cent were deprived of housing in 2019-21, against 45.65 • It is expected that the increase in official financing
per cent in 2015-16. should be split between concessional and non-
• When it comes to assets, Indian households appear concessional funds.
well placed; only 10.16 per cent of households were • On the concessional side, the Group recommended
deprived. There was an improvement of 3.81 per cent that donors re-orient aid programmes towards
from 2015-16. In terms of bank accounts, Indian multilateral channels to enhance coherence and
households are strongly placed with only 3.69 per cent leverage.
of households being deprived in 2019-21, compared to • On non-concessional finance, the Group suggested
9.66 per cent in the previous survey year. full implementation of the Capital Adequacy Framework
• An analysis of the report found that Meghalaya (CAF) recommendations on balance sheet optimisation
(37.03 per cent), Nagaland (29.53 per cent), and Bihar and innovative capital. This could underpin $80 billion in
(20.25 per cent) were the states with the highest new lending but still leave MDBs $120 billion short of
percentage of households deprived of assets. the $300 billion lending target.
• The MPI report, which is based on National Family • Key recommendations:-
Health Survey-5 (2019-21) and shows the progress from • Extra spending needs at $3 trillion/year by 2030 for
NFHS-4 (2015-16), also found that nearly 13.5 crore global challenges and SDGs
people were lifted out of poverty in this five-year period. • $2 trillion could come from domestic sources and Rs 1
trillion from external financing
823. Recently as per report G20 Independent Expert • More than half of $1 trillion external financing could
Group on MDB Reforms has estimated an additional be from private sector
spending requirement of _____________ trillion per year • MDBs should expand lending to $90 billion/year for
by 2030. concessional loans and $300 billion in non-concessional
A. $5 trillion
• General capital of MDBs should be increased to • Saudi Arabia is teaming up with a Dutch greenhouse
address their funding gap to create “a synthetic climate” to make the desert
bloom.
824. In July as per report ___________has released • It’s carving out an area the size of some 15 soccer
Global Education Monitoring (GEM) Report 2023 that fields to form a horticulture oasis on the outskirts of
warned against the negative impacts of excessive screen Neom, an entirely new city being built on the Red Sea
time on children’s well-being and academic coast that extends out into the desert.
performance. • Food security is a priority for the planners of Neom,
A. UNDP Crown Prince Mohammed bin Salman’s $500 billion
B. WHO showpiece project to turn an expanse of desert the size
C. IMF of Belgium into a high-tech region that may eventually
D. UNESCO host millions of people.
E. ADB • Among the more recent deals, Saudi Arabia’s
Answer: D sovereign wealth fund signed a pact with US-based
• Recently, the UNESCO (United Nations Educational, AeroFarms to establish a company in Riyadh to build and
Scientific and Cultural Organization) has released the operate indoor vertical farms in the kingdom and the
Global Education Monitoring Report 2023, titled wider region.
‘Technology in Education: A Tool on Whose Terms’ • In Neom, Saudi Arabia is seeking out the expertise of
endorsed ban on smartphones in schools where specialists from the Netherlands, which has become the
technology integration does not improve learning. world’s second-largest agricultural exporter after the US
• The report highlighted that “mere proximity to a despite being one of Europe’s smallest nations.
mobile device was found to distract students and to • The project will expand significantly after the two
have a negative impact on learning in 14 countries, yet pilot greenhouses are ready, Motamayor said in a
less than one in four have banned smartphone use in separate interview in the Dutch capital. Construction
schools. started earlier in 2023 and the plan is for the test
• It cited a study of young people between the age 2 facilities to be completed by next year.
and 17 years which showed that higher screen time was
associated with poorer well-being; less curiosity, self- 826. In July as per report ____________ has been ranked
control and emotional stability; higher anxiety; and on the top in the list of 2023 CRISIL’s Greenwich market
depression diagnoses. share Leaders in Large Corporate Banking.
• The United Nations Educational, Scientific and A. HDFC Bank
Cultural Organization is a specialized agency of the B. SBI
United Nations aimed at promoting world peace and C. ICICI Bank
security through international cooperation in education, D. PNB
arts, sciences and culture. E. Axis Bank
• Headquarters: Paris, France, Founded: 16 November Answer: A
1945, Audrey Azoulay (Director-General). • HDFC Bank has been ranked on the top in the list of
2023 CRISIL’s Greenwich market share Leaders in Large
825. In July as per report Saudi Arabia has teamed up Corporate Banking.
with _________ to create“a synthetic climate” to make • It has surpassed State Bank of India (SBI). For middle
the desert bloom on the outskirts of Neom. market corporates, it again topped the list of 2023
A. India Leaders among local banks.
B. Netherland • HDFC Bank joined ICICI Bank as the year’s joint
C. Germany Greenwich Quality Leaders.
D. France • From 2021 to 2022, the share of Indian corporates
E. Iceland who are working with one of the largest Indian private
Answer: B
sector banks for overall corporate banking services to be made in 10 working days on request from CDMDF.
increased from 33% to 38%. The half-yearly contributions will start this December.
• The share of corporates working with minimum one • CDMDF will be launched as a close ended scheme
large foreign bank increased from 18% to 21% from 2021 with an initial tenure of 15 years from the date of the
to 2022. initial closing after contribution from all AMCs.
• However, the share of Indian corporates working • The specified debt schemes have to make incremental
with minimum one of the country’s smaller private contribution as their AUM increases, every six months to
sector banks declined from 21% to 18% during 2021 to ensure 25 bps of scheme asset is invested in units of
2022. CDMDF.
• Industry revenue pools across banking increased by • However, if debt AUM decreases there shall be no
16% overall year on year. return or redemption from CDMDF.
• In case of delay in contribution, AMCs have to pay
827. In July as per report in a bid to develop the interest of 15 per annum for delayed period. Such
corporate debt market and instill confidence among interest shall be credited to the fund of CDMDF.
investors, market regulator SEBI has put in place a • The securities purchased by CDMDF would be from
framework for rolling out the Corporate Debt Market secondary market, having investment grade credit
Development Fund (CDMDF). rating and residual maturity not exceeding five years on
CDMDF will be launched as a close ended scheme with the date of purchase.
an initial tenure of ________ years from the date of the • CDMDF will not buy any unlisted or below investment
initial closing after contribution from all AMCs. grade or defaulted debt securities or securities with
A. 10 years possibility of default or adverse credit news or views.
B. 15 years • The sellers of debt securities will be paid 90 per cent
C. 20 years of the consideration in cash and 10 per cent in terms of
D. 25 years units of CDMDF. Such units paid as consideration will
E. 30 years bear the risk of first loss and can be redeemed during the
Answer: B tenure of scheme.
• In a bid to develop the corporate debt market and • Corporate Debt Market Development Fund is a
instill confidence among investors, market regulator backstop facility for specified debt funds during market
SEBI has put in place a framework for rolling out the dislocations.
Corporate Debt Market Development Fund (CDMDF) • The fund is intended to provide liquidity support in
under which mutual funds will have to contribute 25 the event of a financial crisis.
basis points (bps) of the specified debt asset under • It will be in the form of an alternative investment
management to the fund. fund (AIF), meant to instil confidence among the
• The initial contribution of mutual funds to CDMDF participants in the Corporate Bond Market during times
will be based on AUM of the specified MF schemes as of of stress
last December-end. • The fund has Rs 33,000-crore backstop facility for
• The specified schemes include debt-oriented funds Mutual Funds.
excluding overnight and gilt funds. • Of the Rs 33,000 crore, Rs 30,000 crore will come
• The CDMDF will purchase investment grade from the government, while the balance Rs 3,000 crore
corporate bonds from fund houses in distress to help will be contributed by the Asset Management
them meet redemption requests. Companies.
• Government notified the Guarantee Scheme for
Corporate Debt which includes the Framework for 828. Recently as per report India’s general government
Corporate Debt Market Development Fund. debt moderated to ___________% of the Gross Domestic
• AMFI will calculate and inform on the contribution to Product (GDP) in 2022-23 from 83.3% in 2021-22.
be made by each MF scheme. The initial contribution has A. 85.6%
B. 80.9%
C. 82.5% • The tax revenue for the April-June 2023 period was Rs
D. 95.6% 4,33,620 or 18.6 per cent of the budget estimates. Last
E. 88.4% year, it was 26.1 per cent of the budget estimates.
Answer: B • The government has released Rs 3.09 lakh crore in
• India’s general government debt moderated to 80.9% tax devolution to states till July.
of the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in 2022-23 from • Of the total expenditure, Rs 7.72 lakh crore was done
83.3% in 2021-22. on the revenue account and Rs 2.78 lakh crore on the
• The general government debt, which comprises the capital account.
debts of the centre and states, had soared to 87.8% in • The government is aiming to bring down the fiscal
FY21, the highest in at least four decades, as deficit to 5.9 per cent of the gross domestic product
government expenditure rose during the Covid-19 (GDP) in 2023-24.
pandemic, amid revenue slump. • A fiscal deficit is the difference between the
• The Centre’s fiscal deficit which hit 9.2% of GDP in government's expenditure and revenue. It was 6.4 per
FY21, the highest in the last four decades, was brought cent of the GDP in 2022-
down to 6.7% in FY22 and further to 6.4% in FY23. • 23.
• Gross domestic product is a monetary measure of the
market value of all the final goods and services produced 830. Consider the following statement regarding Jio
in a specific time period by a country or countries. Financial Services Ltd. (JFSL). Which of the following
• The difference between total revenue and total statement is incorrect?
expenditure of the government is termed as fiscal A. JFSL, the demerged financial services unit of Reliance
deficit. Industries, was valued at over $20 billion.
B. This valuation will put JFSL as India's 32nd most
829. Recently as per report In the first quarter of the valuable company by market capitalization.
current financial year 2023-24, the central government’s C. It is now the fifth-largest financier in terms of capital
fiscal deficit has reached __________ per cent or Rs 4.5 D. It becomes third most valued NBFC behind Bajaj
lakh crore. Finance and Bajaj Finserv
A. 22.5% E. All of the above are correct
B. 23.6% Answer: E
C. 25.3% • Jio Financial Services Limited (JFSL), the demerged
D. 21.4% financial services unit of Reliance Industries, was valued
E. 20.5% at over USD 20 billion, ahead of Adani group firms, Coal
Answer: C India and Indian Oil.
• In the first quarter of the current financial year 2023- • Reliance, India's most valuable company, will now
24, the central government’s fiscal deficit has reached trade on exchanges without its financial services unit.
25.3 per cent or Rs 4.5 lakh crore. • This valuation will put JFSL as India's 32nd most
• The fiscal deficit in the corresponding period of the valuable company by market capitalization ahead of the
last year was 21.2 per cent of the budget estimates. likes of Adani Ports, Adani Green, Tata Steel, Coal India,
• The Fiscal deficit for April-June 2023 has increased HDFC Life, IOC, and Bajaj Auto.
due to a rise in capital expenditure and accelerated tax • Reliance announced the demerger of its financial
devolution to states. services undertaking into RSIL (Reliance Strategic
• According to the controller general of accounts (CGA) Investments Ltd), which was renamed as JFSL (Jio
data, the total non-tax revenue for the first three Financial Services Ltd).
months of 2023 was Rs 1,54,968 crore or 51.4 per cent of • Reliance is the largest private player in the refining,
the budget estimates. petrochemical, E&P, digital and organised retail sectors
• Dividends and profits made up 105 per cent of the in India. While its refining complex in Jamnagar is the
non-tax revenue. largest in the world and among the most complex, it is
also among the largest integrated petrochemical • It will acquire stressed assets of about 2 lakh crores in
producers globally. multiple phases within the regulations of RBI under the
• The spinoff, which will create the fifth-largest 15:85 structure (acquisition of 15 % in Cash and 85 % in
financier in terms of capital and compete directly with Security Receipts).
the likes of Paytm and Bajaj Finance, will complement
Reliance's consumer businesses, which include India's 832. According to SBI’s Economic Research Department
largest wireless operator with about 428 million users, a (ERD) Per capita women deposits increased by_________
top retail chain with over 17,000 stores. in the last five years from ₹37,885 in FY19 to ₹42,503 in
• It became third most valued NBFC behind Bajaj twins. FY23.
A. ₹4,756
831. Consider the following statement regarding B. ₹4,213
National Asset Reconstruction Company. Which of the C. ₹4,456
following statement is incorrect? D. ₹4,618
A. NARCL has been incorporated under the Companies E. ₹4,987
Act. Answer: D
B. It has been set up by banks to aggregate and • Per capita women deposits increased by ₹4,618 in the
consolidate stressed assets for their subsequent last five years from ₹37,885 in FY19 to ₹42,503 in FY23,
resolution. according to SBI’s Economic Research Department (ERD).
C. Public Sector Banks will maintain 49% ownership in • The maximum increase of ₹9,758 has been registered
NARCL. in the urban areas, where per capita woman deposits
D. India Debt Resolution Company Ltd. (IDRCL) manages moved up from ₹51,980 to ₹61,738, per ERD’s “Ecowrap”
the assets acquired by NARCL and makes efforts to report,which is based on RBI data.
improve the value of bad assets for selling. • Per capita women deposits continues to be highest in
E. NARCL is capitalized through a combination of equity metropolitan areas at ₹83,434 in FY23, up ₹886 vis-a-vis
and debt from various Banks and has a finite life of 5 ₹84,320 in FY19.
years. • Per capita women deposits in semi-urban and rural
Answer: C areas stood at ₹29,563 (₹25,942 in FY19) and ₹18,563
• The government has finally renewed its federal (₹15,976), respectively.
guarantee to the National Asset Reconstruction • According to RBI’s latest report ‘Deposits with
Company (NARCL), making it easier for the entity to Scheduled Commercial Banks – March 2023 (BSR 2)’ the
acquire bad loans from lenders. overall deposits of Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs)
• NARCL has been incorporated under the Companies increased by 10.2 per cent, incremental deposits of ₹17.6
Act. lakh crore.
• It has been set up by banks to aggregate and • Share of women borrowers in household credit to
consolidate stressed assets for their subsequent individuals rose further to 22.9 per cent of outstanding
resolution. credit in FY23 from 18.3 per cent in FY15.
• Public Sector Banks will maintain 51% ownership in • Further, the share of women borrowers in household
NARCL. credit to individuals increased to 24.9 per cent of
• NARCL is capitalized through a combination of equity incremental credit in FY23 from 8.9 per cent in FY15.
and debt from various Banks and has a finite life of 5 • The ERD assessed that Regional Rural Banks (RRBs)
years. continue to be the major contributors in increased
• India Debt Resolution Company Ltd. (IDRCL) manages women deposits share. Women deposits account for 50
the assets acquired by NARCL and makes efforts to per cent share in incremental deposits in RRBs during
improve the value of bad assets for selling. FY19 and FY23.
• Government will provide a guarantee for Rs 30,600 • Among all bank groups, the share of Women Deposits
cores for funding the NARCL (i.e., for the purchase of bad to total Deposits was the highest in the case RRBs at 34
assets). per cent (up from 27 per cent in FY19).
• The share of Women deposits to total deposits in the 834. According to the latest government report the
case of private sector banks and small finance banks output of the country’s eight core industries hit a five-
rose to 18 per cent (from 13 per cent in FY19) and 27 per month high at _________ per cent in June 2023.
cent (20 per cent), respectively. The share of Women A. 7.1
deposits to total deposits in the case of public sector B. 7.6
banks was at 23 per cent (21 per cent). C. 8.2
• Age-wise distribution of total deposits given by RBI D. 9.1
shows that customers in the age-group of 40-60 years E. 8.9
account for 37 per cent (or ₹34.7 lakh crore) of the Answer: C
deposits by individuals (excluding Hindu Undivided • Aided by a robust performance in Coal, Cement and
Family/HUF) of ₹94.7 lakh crore. Steel sectors, the output of the country’s eight core
• Meanwhile, total deposits by senior citizens (age 60 industries hit a five-month high at 8.2 per cent in June
and above) amounted to ₹36.2 lakh crore which 2023.
represents 38 per cent of the individuals’ deposits and • The latest print was higher than the 5 per cent
19.6 per cent of the overall deposits during the year. growth (revised upwards from 4.3 per cent estimated
• Within this, women account for 39 per cent (or ₹37 earlier) seen in May 2023, but lower than the 13.1 per
lakh crore) of the individual deposits. cent growth recorded in June last year.
• Nine states — Goa, Karnataka, Haryana, Kerala, • Except for Crude Oil (which contracted marginally at
Uttarakhand, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, and 0.6 per cent), all seven other core industries recorded
Maharashtra — saw more than ₹10,000 increase in per positive growth in June 2023. The other seven industries
capita women deposits in the five year period. are Coal, Natural Gas, refinery products, fertilisers, steel,
cement and electricity.
833. Recently as per report _______ announced to sell • For the month under review (June 2023), the steel
their cumulative stake of just over 30% in Canbank sector recorded an output growth of 21.9 per cent (3.3
Computer Services to Canara Bank. per cent). While the coal sector in June 2023 saw an
A. Bank of Baroda output growth of 9.8 per cent (32.1 per cent), cement
B. DBS Bank output grew 9.4 per cent (19.7 per cent). Electricity
C. Karur Vysya Bank generation grew 3.3 per cent (16.5 per cent) and
D. Only A and B fertiliser output grew 3.4 per cent (8.2 per cent).
E. All of the above • The eight core industries comprise 40.27 per cent of
Answer: E the weight of items included in the Index of Industrial
• Bank of Baroda, DBS Bank and Karur Vysya Bank are Production (IIP).
likely to sell their cumulative stake of just over 30% in
Canbank Computer Services to Canara Bank, its majority 835. Recently as per report Financial Stability Board
owner. (FSB) come out with a 9-point recommendation for
• This will make Canbank Computer, a software- regulating crypto assets.
enabled services and ATM management company, a The framework is based on the principle of
fully owned subsidiary of Canara Bank. _____________.
• Canara, which now holds a 69.14% stake in the A. Society faces a short-run tradeoff between inflation
subsidiary, has initiated this exercise as it plans to and unemployment
convert the unit into a credit card company. B. The cost of something is what you give up getting it
• Bank of Baroda owns 18.52% in the computer C. safety, liquidity, diversity, stability and profitability
services company while DBS and Karur Vysya hold 6.17% D. Rational people think at the margin Crypto
each. E. same activity, same risk, same regulation
Answer: E
• The Financial Stability Board (FSB) has come out with RBI and Chairman-SEBI. Regular interaction with FSB
a 9--point list of recommendations for regulating crypto takes place through periodic conference calls and
assets. meetings. Information is exchanged with FSB member
• It has recommended that crypto -asset issuers and jurisdictions frequently as per international
service providers have a comprehensive governance requirements.
framework with clear and direct lines of responsibility • It is headquartered in Basel, Switzerland.
and accountability for all functions and activities.
• G20 countries had tasked the FSB to suggest a 836. Recently as per report ____________ becomes first
regulatory framework. firm to receive the eligibility certificate under the Rs.
• Now, this report will be part of a synthesis paper to 25,938-crore production-linked incentive scheme for
be taken up during the G20 leadership summit under automobiles (auto PLI).
India’s presidency scheduled to take place in September. A. Hero MotoCorp
• The recommendations are contained in the paper B. Tata Motors
titled ‘‘FSB global regulatory framework for crypto C. Hyundai India
asset activities’’. D. Maruti Suzuki
• This “framework is based on the principle of ‘same E. Mahindra & Mahindra
activity, same risk, same regulation’ and provides a Answer: E
strong basis for ensuring that crypto -asset activities and • Automaker Mahindra & Mahindra Ltd. has become
so- called stablecoins are subject to consistent and the first company to receive the eligibility certificate
comprehensive regulation, commensurate to the risks under the production-linked incentive scheme for
they pose. automobiles (Auto PLI).
• Recommendation 1: Regulatory powers and tools • Therefore, the company can now receive subsidies
• Recommendation 2: General regulatory framework from the government under the Rs 25,938 crore scheme.
• Recommendation 3: Cross-border cooperation, • The certificate for M&M was awarded by the
coordination and information sharing Automotive Research Association of India, which is a
• Recommendation 4: Governance testing agency under the Heavy Industries ministry.
• Recommendation 5: Risk management • ARAI awarded the certificate to Mahindra Last Mile
• Recommendation 6: Data collection, recording and Mobility Ltd., for their flagship EV three-wheeler.
reporting • The formal SOP for application to Automotive PLI
• Recommendation 7: Disclosures scheme was launched by MHI on 27 April 2023
• Recommendation 8: Addressing financial stability facilitating a systematic smooth application process
risks arising from interconnections and replete with necessary formats to be uploaded by the
interdependencies eligible applicants (Champion OEMs + Component
• Recommendation 9: Comprehensive regulation of Champions) through the MHI portal.
crypto-asset service providers with multiple functions • With this, Mahindra Last Mile Mobility becomes the
• The Financial Stability Board is an international body first recipient to meet the criteria for the Automotive PLI
that monitors and makes recommendations about the certificate from ARAI for their commitment to
global financial system. It was established after the G20 indigenisation of advanced automotive technology
London summit in April 2009 as a successor to the products, thereby bolstering the domestic production
Financial Stability Forum with a broadened mandate to ecosystem under the aegis of “Make in Bharat Abhiyan”.
promote financial stability.
• It comprises several central banks, ministries of 837. Recently in July the Supreme Court allowed
finance, and supervisory and regulatory authorities from ____________to continue as the Enforcement
25 jurisdictions, as well as 10 international organizations Directorate (ED) director until September 15.
and six Regional Consultative Groups (RCGs). A. Ravi Sinha
• India as a member of the FSB has three seats in its B. Arun Kumar Sinha
Plenary represented by Secretary (EA), Deputy Governor- C. Pankaj Gupta
D. Sanjay Kumar Mishra Trafficking of persons is a serious crime and a violation
E. Ashish Sharma of human rights. Thousands of men, women and children
Answer: D get trafficked every year.
• On 27 July, the Supreme Court allowed Sanjay Kumar
Mishra to continue as the Enforcement Directorate (ED) 839. Recently as per report ________won the Hungarian
director until September 15. Grand Prix.
• The permission has been given keeping in mind the A. Sergio Perez
"larger public interest" in view of the ongoing review of B. Charles Lecrec
India by the Financial Action Task Force (FATF). C. Sebestian Vettel
• Earlier on 11 July, Supreme Court quashed the Union D. Lewis Hamilton
government’s decision to extend the tenure of E. Max Verstappen
Enforcement Directorate (ED) chief Sanjay Kumar Mishra Answer: E
for the third time. • Formula One champion Max Verstappen won the
• The Supreme Court termed the order as "illegal" but Hungarian Grand Prix and win his seventh straight race
allowed Sanjay Mishra to continue in office till July 31. of a crushingly dominant season.
• The court said that "no further extension will be • It was Red Bull’s 12th straight win, including the final
granted to Mishra" and directed that he would “cease to race of 2022, broke mclaren’s record for consecutive
be Director of ED with effect from the midnight of 15-16 team wins set in 1988.
September 2023". • Verstappen’s career win total now stands at 44 — the
• The Center had requested the court to extend his same number as Hamilton’s car.
term till October 15, 2023, citing the FATF review.
• Sanjay Mishra was first appointed the ED director in 840. What was the name of the oldest surviving first-
2018 for two years. class cricketer in the world who passed away in July
2023?
838. World Day Against Trafficking in Persons is A. Rod Marsh
celebrated every year on the ________ to raise B. Vasu Parpanje
awareness about human trafficking. C. Yashpal Sharma
A. 25th July D. Avi Barot
B. 28th July E. Rustom Cooper
C. 29th July Answer: E
D. 30th July • Rustom Cooper, the former Indian cricketer, has died
E. 31st July at the age of 100 years and 229 days. He was the oldest
Answer: D living first-class cricketer at the time of his death.
• World Day Against Trafficking in Persons is • Before his death, Cooper was the only living Indian to
celebrated every year on the 30th of July to raise have played in the Pentangulars, the pre-Independence
awareness about human trafficking. league that hosted teams formed on community lines,
• The theme of this year’s World Day Against and the Ranji Trophy.
Trafficking in Persons is “Reach every victim of • He played for the Parsees (1941-42 to 1944-45),
trafficking, leave no one behind”. Bombay (1943-44 to 1944-45) and Middlesex (1949-
• The campaign for World Day Against Trafficking in 1951).
Persons 2023 aims to raise awareness of disturbing
trends identified by the UNODC Global Report on 841. Consider the following statement regrding Asian
Trafficking in Persons. Athletics Championships 2023. Which of the following
• The United Nations General Assembly designated July statement is incorrect?
30 as World Day Against Trafficking in Persons in 2013. A. The Indian contingent won a total of 27 medals,
• Global crises, conflicts, and climate emergencies are comprising six gold, 12 silver and nine bronze, to finish
increasing the risks of human trafficking. third in the overall rankings behind China and Japan.
B. It was held in Bangkok, Thailand. establishment of the Asian Athletics Association
C. Jyothi Yarraji was the star of the show for India, as (established in 1973).
she clinched two medals - gold in women’s 100m hurdles • The 25th Asian Athletics Championships 2023 logo
and silver in women’s 200m finals. indicates the athletes participating in the games, skills,
D. 2023 Asian Athletics Championships which began in teamwork of athletes, showcase of athleticism,
Thailand recently have chosen revered Hindu god dedication, and sportsmanship.
Hanuman as the official mascot for the 2023 year’s • A total of nine countries (Japan; Hong Kong;
event. Singapore; China; Indonesia; the Republic of Korea;
E. All of the above are correct Malaysia; and Philippines) participate in the Asian event
Answer: E including India.
• At the 25th Asian Athletics Championship 2023, this
concluded on July 16 in Bangkok, Thailand. The Indian 842. In July as per report ____________ defeated Novak
contingent won a total of 27 medals, comprising six Djokovic in a thrilling five-set final to win his first
gold, 12 silver and nine bronze, to finish third in the Wimbledon title.
overall rankings behind China and Japan. A. Carlos Alcaraz
• India made history at the 25th Asian Athletics B. Daniil Medvedev
Championship 2023, which concluded on July 16 in C. Casper Rudd
Bangkok, Thailand. The Indian contingent won a total of D. Stefanos Tsitsipas
27 medals, comprising six gold, 12 silver and nine E. Andrey Rublev
bronze, to finish third in the overall rankings behind Answer: A
China and Japan.
• This is India's best performance ever at the 843. In July as per report __________ won the European
continental level. The previous best was in 2017 at Under-21 Championship for the first time in almost 40
Bhubaneswar, where India won nine gold, six silver and years as they beat Spain in a dramatic final in Georgia.
12 bronze. A. Germany
• Jyothi Yarraji was the star of the show for India, as B. France
she clinched two medals - gold in women’s 100m hurdles C. Brazil
and silver in women’s 200m finals. D. Netherland
• Indian women’s shot putters also contributed two E. England
medals to India’s tally, with Abha Khatua (18.06m) and Answer: E
Manpreet Kaur (17.00m) winning the silver and bronze, • England won the under-21 European Championship
respectively. for the first time since 1984 as Curtis Jones' goal beat
• In the 800m, Indian runners bagged silver medals in Spain 1-0 in final.
both the men’s and women’s categories. In the men’s • In a dramatic finale in Batumi, Spain captain Abel
race, Krishan Kumar clocked a season’s best 1:45.88 to Ruiz had a 99th-minute penalty saved by Manchester
finish behind Qatar’s Abubaker Haydar Abdalla City goalkeeper James Trafford to preserve England's
(1:45.53). record of not conceding a goal all tournament.
• The Asian Athletics Championships was held after a • The Three Lions are also reigning European
gap of four years after the 2021 edition in Hangzhou, the champions at under-19 level and won the under-17 and
People's Republic of China was cancelled due to COVID- under-20 World Cups back in 2017.
19. The previous edition, Doha 2019, saw India finish • 2023 UEFA European Under-21 Championship Best
with 16 medals - two gold, seven silver and seven player: Anthony Gordon
bronze. • 2023 UEFA European Under-21 Championship edition:
• The 2023 Asian Athletics Championships which began 24th
in Thailand recently have chosen revered Hindu god
Hanuman as the official mascot for the 2023 year’s
event. The event was held on the 50th anniversary of the
844. In July as per report a book titled "Memories Never used to support the satellite imagery requirements of
Die" has been released by Union Minister Amit Shah. various agencies within the Government of Singapore.
This book is a tribute to the life and legacy of ________. • The satellite carries a Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR)
A. Atal Bihari Vajpayee payload developed by Israel Aerospace Industries. The
B. Narendra Modi payload allows DS-SAR to provide for all-weather day-
C. Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam and-night coverage and it is capable of imaging at 1-
D. Sushma Swaraj metre resolution.
E. Lal Bahadur Shastri • The co-passenger satellites are 1. VELOX-AM,a 23 kg
Answer: C technology demonstration microsatellite, 2. ARCADE
• A book titled "Memories Never Die" has been Atmospheric Coupling and Dynamics Explorer (ARCADE),
released by Union Minister Amit Shah. an experimental satellite, 3. SCOOB-II, a 3U nanosatellite
• Amit Shah released the book during his two-day visit flying a technology demonstrator payload, 4. Nullon by
to Ramanathapuram in Tamil Nadu. nuspace, an advanced 3U nanosatellite enabling
• This book is a tribute to the life and legacy of the late seamless Internet of Things connectivity in both urban
former President Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam. and remote locations, 5. Galassia-2, a 3U nanosatellite
• Dr. APJM Nasima Maraikayar and scientist Dr. Y. S. that would be orbiting at low earth orbit and 6. ORB-12
Rajan have co-authored this book. STRIDER, a satellite developed under an international
• Shri Shah said that the dream of space science shown collaboration
by Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam seems to be coming true. • This mission is the 58th flight of PSLV and using the
17th vehicle with Core Alone Configuration.
845. In July as per report ISRO successfully launched its
proven PSLV rocket carrying __________ Singaporean August
satellites from Satish Dhawan Space Centre in 846. In August as per report Kerala Assembly has passed
Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh and placed them into Near- a resolution urging the Centre to rename the state as
equatorial Orbit (NEO). “Keralam” in the Constitution and all office records.
A. 5 The Constitution of India gives the parliament power to
B. 6 alter the name of a state under __________.
C. 7 A. Article 2
D. 8 B. Article 3
E. 9 C. Article 4
Answer: C D. Article 5
• ISRO successfully launched its proven PSLV rocket E. Article 6
carrying seven Singaporean satellites from Satish Answer: B
Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh • The Kerala Assembly has passed a resolution urging
and placed them into intended orbits. the Centre to rename the state as “Keralam” in the
• Around 23 minutes after lift-off, the primary satellite Constitution and all office records.
got separated and it was followed by six other co- • The Parliament has the power to change the name of
passenger satellites, which were deployed into the a state.
intended orbits sequentially. • The Constitution of India gives the parliament power
• The primary payload being carried by ISRO’s trusted to alter the name of a state under Article 3.
workhorse Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle is the DS-SAR • Article 3 of the Constitution explicitly lays down a
Radar Imaging Earth Observation satellite, which has procedure to alter the area, boundaries, or name of a
been developed under a partnership between DSTA state.
(representing the Government of Singapore) and ST • The process of renaming of a state can be initiated by
Engineering, Singapore. either the Parliament or the state assembly.
• The 360-kg satellite, upon deployment at an altitude • The state legislature sends a proposal in the form of a
of 535 km into a Near-equatorial Orbit (NEO), would be resolution to the Central government.
• In Parliament, the bill cannot be presented without a • The Commission was set under Article 340 to examine
recommendation from the President. the issues of the sub-categorization of Other Backward
• The bill is sent to the President for approval. After the Classes.
said bill gets approved, it becomes a law and the name • The main objectives of the Rohini Commission are
of the state stands modified. given below:
• About ‘Keralam’, scholars believe it could have • It was given the task to study the various entries in
originated from ‘Cheram’. the Central List of OBCs.
• Scholars observed that the word ‘keram’ is the • It was given the task to work on mechanisms, criteria,
Canarese (Kannada) form of cheram. norms and parameters in a scientific manner for sub-
• They described Keralam as Cheram — the region categorisation within Other Backward Classes.
between Gokarnam and Kanyakumari. • To recommend correction of any repetitions,
• The merger and integration of princely states was a ambiguities, inconsistencies and errors of spelling or
major step towards the formation of the state of Kerala transcription, examining the extent of inequitable
after Independence. distribution of benefits of reservation among the OBCs.
• On 1 July, 1949, the two states of Travancore and • The sub-categorisation of OBCs means creating sub-
Kochi were integrated, heralding the birth of the categories within the larger group of OBCs for
Travancore-Cochin State. reservation.
• When it was decided to reorganise states on a • OBCs are being currently given 27% reservation in
linguistic basis, the State Reorganisation Commission of jobs and education under the central government.
the Union Government recommended creation of the
state of Kerala. 848. In August as per report Rajya Sabha passed the
• The Commission under Syed Fazl Ali recommended Mediation Bill 2021.
the inclusion of the district of Malabar and the taluk of According to the Bill mediation process must be
Kasargod to the Malayalam-speaking people’s state. completed within ________ days.
• The state of Kerala came into being on November 1, A. 100 days
1956. In Malayalam, the state was referred to as B. 120 days
Keralam, while in English it was Kerala. C. 110 days
D. 200 days
847. In August as per report Rohini Commission E. 180 days
submitted its report to President. It was constituted for Answer: E
_____________. • On 1 August, Rajya Sabha passed the Mediation Bill
A. Examining the sub-categorisation of EWS 2021.
B. Examining the sub-categorisation of OBCs • According to the Bill, a person could try to settle civil
C. Examining the sub-categorisation of SC or commercial disputes through arbitration before
D. Examining the sub-categorisation of STs approaching any court or tribunal.
E. Examining the sub-categorisation of Minorities • A party may withdraw from the mediation after two
Answer: B mediation sessions.
• Rohini Commission constituted for examining the • The mediation process must be completed within 180
sub-categorisation of OBCs submits its report to days, which can be extended by the parties for another
President. 180 days.
• The Rohini Commission for examining sub- • The Bill has a provision for the establishment of the
categorisation in Other Backward Classes was set up in Mediation Council of India. This will be a neutral third
October 2017. It was headed by Justice G Rohini. party.
• The commission submitted its report to President • Its functions will include registering mediators and
Droupadi Murmu after 13 extensions on 31 July 2023. recognizing mediator service providers and mediator
institutions.
• The Bill makes the process a time-bound mechanism • Union Cabinet approved three bills including the bill
which saves time and money for the parties. to amend IIM Act to include National Institute of
• The Bill makes pre-litigation mediation voluntary Industrial Engineering (NITIE) Mumbai as the 21st Indian
rather than mandatory. Institute of Management (IIM).
• It will be India's 21st IIM and the second in
849. Consider the following statement regarding Indian Maharashtra, the other one being in Nagpur.
Institute of Management (Amendment) Bill 2023. Which
of the following statement is incorrect? 850. In August as per report India’s first Indigenously
A. The Bill proposes to appoint the President of India as developed, Affordable, lightweight, Ultrafast, High Field
the ‘Visitor’ of every IIM through a new section, (10 A), (1.5 Tesla), Next Generation Magnetic Resonance
in the principal Act. Imaging (MRI) Scanner has been launched.
B. The amendment says 20 IIMs across the country will Which of the following has developed a complete
be ‘institutions of national importance’. (compact), lightweight, next-generation MRI scanner to
C. Director of the Institute shall be appointed out of the address the unmet need of the country?
panel of names recommended by a search-cum-selection A. Maxlife Diagnostics & Research Center
committee to be constituted by the Board. B. Apollo Diagnostics
D. The Bill seeks to amend the Indian Institutes of C. VoxelGrids Innovations Pvt Ltd
Management Act, 2017. D. Super Advance Physiotherapy And Slimming
E. National Institute of Industrial Engineering (NITIE) E. G S Neuroscience Clinic and Research Centre Pvt. Ltd.
Mumbai will be the 22nd Indian Institute of Answer: C
Management (IIM). • India’s first Indigenously developed MRI Scanner has
Answer: E been launched by Union Minister Jitendra Singh in New
• The Indian Institutes of Management (Amendment) Delhi.
Bill, 2023, introduced in Lok Sabha, aims to change the • On 1 August, India’s first Indigenously developed,
law governing the administration of Indian Institutes of Affordable, lightweight, Ultrafast, High Field (1.5 Tesla),
Management (IIMs). Next Generation Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
• The Bill proposes giving the government an expanded Scanner has been launched.
role in the appointment and removal of IIM Directors • It will also reduce the capital investment in
and initiating inquiries. purchasing MRI scanners from the international market
• The 2017 Act granted the IIMs greater autonomy by to a great extent, due to which a lot of foreign exchange
declaring them “institutions of national importance.” will also be saved.
• The current IIM Act allows the institutes to be run by • VoxelGrids Innovations Pvt Ltd under National
their board of governors, which has the power to make Biopharma Mission has developed a complete
policy decisions related to administration and (compact), lightweight, next-generation MRI scanner to
functioning. address the unmet need of the country.
• The new Bill seeks to appoint the President of India as • Out of the Rs 17 crore spent to develop the world-
the “Visitor” to the IIMs, giving the President powers to class MRI, Rs 12 crore was provided by the Department
conduct audits, order inquiries, and appoint or remove of Biotechnology (DBT) through the Biotechnology
chairpersons and directors of the IIMs. Industry Research Assistance Council (BIRAC).
• The Bill seeks to take away the power of appointment • 70% of the world's population does not have access
of the Chairperson from the Board, and to instead make to the diagnostic method of Magnetic Resonance
the Chairperson a nominee of the President. Imaging (MRI).
• Currently, the chairperson is appointed by the Board. • Access to MRI scanners is typically less than 3 times
• IIM-Calcutta was the first Indian Institute of that of other imaging modalities such as computed
Management, established in 1961. Currently, there are tomography (CT), X-ray, and ultrasound.
20 IIMs in the country. • This is because of its extremely high capital cost
which is a problem in developing countries like India.
• The National Biopharma Mission (NBM), of the • NHA is the apex body responsible for implementing
Department of Biotechnology (DBT), was implemented Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana.
by BIRAC. • In its audit report on Performance Audit of AB-
• It is playing a pivotal role in accelerating India’s PMJAY, the CAG has revealed that nearly 7.5 lakh
technological and product development capabilities in beneficiaries were linked with a single cell phone
vaccines, and biotherapeutics including biosimilars, number — 9999999999.
medical devices, and diagnostics. • The report stated that 7.87 crore beneficiary
households were registered, constituting 73% of the
851. Recently as per report Comptroller and Auditor targeted households of 10.74 crore (November 2022).
General of India (CAG) has highlighted irregularities in • Later, the government increased the target to 12
registration and validation of beneficiaries under the crore.
Ayushman Bharat- Pradhan Mantri Jan Aarogya Yojana
(PMJAY). 852. In August as per report Central Bureau of
In its audit report on Performance Audit of AB-PMJAY, Investigation (CBI) Academy becomes the _______
tabled in Lok Sabha, the CAG said that overall member of the Interpol Global Academy Network.
_________beneficiaries were linked with a single mobile A. 7th
number in the Beneficiary Identification System (BIS) of B. 8th
the scheme. C. 9th
A. 2.5 lakh D. 10th
B. 3.5 lakh E. 11th
C. 7.5 lakh Answer: D
D. 5.5 lakh • The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) Academy
E. 4.5 lakh becomes the 10th member of the Interpol Global
Answer: C Academy Network.
• The Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) • It will help in the development and delivery of joint
has highlighted irregularities in registration and training programmes and research projects.
validation of beneficiaries under the Ayushman Bharat- • The CBI Academy is located in Ghaziabad. It is a
Pradhan Mantri Jan Aarogya Yojana (PMJAY). premier training institution in the fields of crime
• In its audit report on Performance Audit of AB- investigation, prosecution and vigilance functioning.
PMJAY, tabled in Lok Sabha, the CAG said that overall, • DIG (Training) Mohit Gupta of the CBI Academy
7,49,820 beneficiaries were linked with a single mobile signed a letter of acceptance with his counterpart in a
number in the Beneficiary Identification System (BIS) of virtual ceremony.
the scheme. • The letter of acceptance has been signed after
• Launched in September 2018, the scheme aimed to detailed deliberations with Interpol in consultation with
offer secondary and tertiary care services to the the Union Home Ministry, External Affairs Ministry and
vulnerable population in the society. the Department of Personnel and Training.
• It was launched as a second component of the • Interpol Global Academy Network's aim is to support
‘Ayushman Bharat’ scheme. Interpol in leading a global approach to Law
• This scheme aimed to offer medical coverage of Rs. 5 Enforcement Training. It was launched in 2019.
lakh per family per year for secondary and tertiary care • CBI is the nodal body for all matters related to
hospitalisation to poor and vulnerable families. Interpol. It conducts several international training
• The scheme is targeted to cover 10.74 crore families programmes through its academy.
(deprived rural families and identified occupational • Previously, CBI has conducted several training
category of urban worker’s families) programs with foreign agencies like US Homeland,
• The beneficiaries are identified by latest Socio- French Embassy, FBI, NCCU UK, NCA UK, etc.
Economic Caste Census (SECC) data.
853. Rajya Sabha had approved the National Nursing • As per the bill, state governments shall constitute
and Midwifery Commission Bill 2023 on 08 August 2023. State Dental Councils within one year of the enactment
According to the bill, the central government will of the Act.
constitute a National Dental Commission. National • Union Health and Family Welfare Minister Dr
Dental Commission will consist of __________ members. Mansukh Mandaviya said the number of MBBS seats in
A. 20 the country has crossed 1,07,000 mark, which were
B. 30 54,000 seats before 2014.
C. 25 • He said the medical colleges have also increased from
D. 33 350 to 704.
E. 42
Answer: D 854. In August as per report Union Housing and Urban
• Parliament passed National Nursing and Midwifery Affairs Ministry has set a target of disbursing
Commission Bill 2023 and National Dental Commission ___________ lakh new loans to street vendors in less
Bill 2023. than six months till December 2023.
• Rajya Sabha had approved the National Nursing and A. 65 lakh
Midwifery Commission Bill 2023 on 08 August 2023. It B. 60 lakh
was already passed by Lok Sabha. C. 69 lakh
• It provides for the maintenance of standards of D. 63 lakh
education and services by nursing and midwifery E. 61 lakh
professionals. Answer: D
• It provides for the constitution of the National • The Union Housing and Urban Affairs Ministry has set
Nursing and Midwifery Commission. a target of disbursing 63 lakh new loans to street
• National Nursing and Midwifery Commission will vendors in less than six months till December 2023.
consist of 29 members. • Since the launch of the scheme, 50 lakh loans to 39
• Every state government, according to the Bill, shall lakh beneficiaries have been disbursed.
establish a State Nursing and Midwifery Commission if • The Pradhan Mantri Street Vendors Atmanirbhar
no such commission exists under state law. Nidhi (PM SVANidhi) was launched in 2020. Under this
• The central government will set up the Nursing and scheme, a small capital of Rs 10000 is provided to street
Midwifery Advisory Council. vendors.
• The Chairperson of the National Commission will be • It was launched during the Covid Pandemic to provide
the Chairperson of the Council. support to street vendors with small working capital
• The Lok Sabha had already passed the National loans of Rs 10,000 each.
Dental Commission Bill, 2023. • At the time of the launch of the scheme, the target
• It is intended to regulate the profession of dentistry was set to cover 50 lakh people.
in the country. It is also intended to provide quality and • As per the new target, 60,99,000 first-term loans will
affordable dental education. be granted in big states, 34,990 loans will be granted in
• It repeals the Dentists Act, 1948. It constitutes the small states and UTs and 166200 loans will be disbursed
National Dental Commission and the Dental Advisory in Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand and the
Council. Northeast.
• It also constitutes three autonomous Boards for • Union Minister Manoj Joshi said that the target for
regulating dental education and standards of dentistry. second-term loans is 22.63 lakh beneficiaries, which is up
• According to the bill, the central government will to Rs 20,000 loan per person. It will be given to those
constitute a National Dental Commission. who have paid off the first loans.
• National Dental Commission will consist of 33 • 2.93 lakh is the target for the third-term loans. Under
members. It will be chaired by an eminent and this, Rs 50,000 will be given to those who have paid the
experienced dentist. second-term loans.
• In April 2022, the Cabinet extended the scheme’s Answer: B
lending period until December 2024. • Karnataka chief minister Siddaramaiah launched the
‘Gruha Jyoti’ scheme at Kalaburagi.
855. Recently seen in news Indira Gandhi Smartphone • The scheme that provides free electricity of up to 200
Yojna is associated with which of the following state? units to each household every month was implemented
A. Uttar Pradesh from August 1 and registered people who use less than
B. Karnataka 200 units of electricity will not have to pay any electricity
C. Madhya Pradesh bill in upcoming months.
D. Rajasthan • The Gruha Jyoti Yojana is launched in Kalaburagi,
E. Bihar which will provide free electricity facility up to 200 units
Answer: D per month to all eligible household consumers of the
• The Rajasthan Government is set to launch the Indira country.
Gandhi Smartphone Yojna today. Under this scheme free • All the residential households of Karnataka whose
smartphones will be given to women of Chiranjeevi monthly electricity usage is less than the average
families. monthly consumption for the previous financial year +
• This scheme for free smartphones was announced by 10% are eligible to avail this scheme.
Chief Minister Ashok Gehlot last year. • It also applies for tenants in the state and even those
• The initiative is now coming into effect. Under this who are living on rental houses can register for free
scheme, more than one crore women related to electricity of 200 units.
Chiranjeevi families across the state will be given • However, if the monthly electricity consumption is
smartphones. more than 200 units, the household is supposed to pay
• The initial phase of the scheme will see the the bill for entire electricity consumed.
distribution of free smartphones to 40 thousand women.
• In the first phase, eligibility criteria encompass single 857. In August as per report Parliament passed the
women, widowed women from Chiranjeevi families, girl Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation)
students in grades 9-12 studying in government schools, Amendment Bill, 2023.
and those pursuing education in government ITIs and This bill will allow the private sector to mine ________
polytechnics, along with Sanskrit colleges. atomic minerals.
• Additionally, women who head families and have A. 5
successfully completed 100 working days under B. 6
MNREGA (Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment C. 8
Guarantee Act) and 50 working days within the Indira D. 9
Gandhi Urban Employment Scheme will also qualify for E. 7
the smartphones. Answer: B
• To be eligible for the scheme, the applicant must be a • Parliament passed the Mines and Minerals
resident of Rajasthan. She must have a Jan Aadhaar card (Development and Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2023.
and should be associated with a Chiranjeevi family. • This bill will allow the private sector to mine six out of
Finally, the annual income of the family should not be 12 atomic minerals, including lithium, and deep-seated
more than Rs. 2.5 lakhs. minerals such as gold and silver.
• The bill was passed by the Upper House of Parliament
856. Recently seen in news ‘Gruha Jyoti’ scheme is by voice vote. It was approved by Lok Sabha last month.
associated with which of the folloiwng state? • The bill amended The Mines and Minerals
A. Uttar Pradesh (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957.
B. Karnataka • Previously, state-owned entities only had the
C. Madhya Pradesh exclusive right to mine and explore all 12 atomic
D. Rajasthan minerals.
E. Bihar
• Now, the mining of lithium, beryllium, niobium, B. 2015
titanium, tantalum and zirconium has been opened for C. 2016
private companies. D. 2017
• The Bill also proposes exploration licenses only for E. 2018
deep and critical minerals. The licence will be given Answer: B
through auction. • The Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)
• As per the bill, the mineral sector required many recently presented its Compliance Audit report (for the
reforms for increasing exploration and mining of critical year ended March 2021) to assess the implementation of
minerals essential for economic development and the Ujwal DISCOM Assurance Yojana (UDAY) scheme.
national security. • According to the CAG, the main objective of the
• As per the bill, now companies will be allowed to financial and operational turnaround of the
suggest areas where they want to explore minerals. Maharashtra State Electricity Distribution Company
• It is a deviation from the traditional process where (MSEDCL) was not achieved in spite of implementing the
blocks or mines were allocated by the government for UDAY scheme.
auction. • In 2015, the Government of India (Ministry of Power)
• Gold, silver, copper, zinc, lead, nickel, cobalt, launched UDAY Scheme to aid operational and financial
platinum group of minerals and diamonds are deep- turnaround of Power Distribution Companies (DISCOMs)
seated minerals. owned by any state.
• Another major amendment passed by the Parliament • UDAY is basically a debt restructuring plan for
is to empower the Central Government to exclusively DISCOMs (to improve their operational efficiency) and
auction mining lease and composite licence for certain was kept optional for states.
critical minerals viz. molybdenum, rhenium, tungsten, • Joining states to undertake 75% debts of their
cadmium, indium, gallium, graphite, vanadium, respective DISCOMs, while the remaining 25% debts will
tellurium, selenium, nickel, cobalt, tin, platinum group of be issued to DISCOMs in the form of bonds.
elements, minerals of “rare earth” group (not containing • These states will receive additional priority funding
Uranium and Thorium); fertilizer minerals such as under numerous schemes such as Deen Dayal
potash, glauconite and phosphate (without uranium) Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojana (DDUGJY) and Integrated
and minerals being removed from the list of atomic Power Development Scheme (IPDS).
minerals. • This scheme was established with a vision to provide
• Even though 100% foreign direct investment (FDI) is affordable and accessible 24×7 power to all.
allowed in mining and exploration sector through • It also aims to provide a solution for revenue-side
automatic route, currently there is no significant FDI efficiency and cost-side efficiency and envisages reform
received in these sectors. measures in the following sectors - generation,
• The Bill introduces provisions for grant of a new transmission, distribution, coal and energy efficiency.
mineral concession, namely, Exploration Licence (EL), in • Initially, the scheme was targeted for four years until
the Act. 2019, providing a revival package for electricity
distribution companies.
858. In August as per report Comptroller and Auditor • However, after understanding the impact and
General of India (CAG) presented its Compliance Audit prospect of this scheme, the government launched
report (for the year ended March 2021) to assess the ‘UDAY 2.0’ under the Union Budget 2020-21.
implementation of the Ujwal DISCOM Assurance Yojana • Key Objectives of the UDAY Scheme: Reduce the
(UDAY) scheme. aggregate technical & commercial (AT&C) loss (from
Government of India (Ministry of Power) launched UDAY ~22% to 15%) by 2018-19.
Scheme to aid operational and financial turnaround of • Improve operational efficiency via ensuring
Power Distribution Companies (DISCOMs) owned by any compulsory smart metering, upgrading transformers
state in which of the following year? and meters.
A. 2014
• Adopt energy efficiency measures such as initiate collaboration and increased spending by the industry on
promotion of energy-efficient LED bulbs, etc. R&D.
• It will have a governing board consisting of 15 to 25
859. The Anusandhan National Research Foundation Bill, eminent researchers and professionals headed by the
2023 was recently introduced in the Lok Sabha. prime minister, who will be the ex-officio president.
The bill seeks to set up a _______crore fund, with a • The education minister and the science and
sizeable contribution from the private sector, to "seed, technology Minister will be the vice presidents of the
grow and promote" research and development (R&D) NRF.
and foster a culture of research and innovation • The Department of Science and Technology (DST) will
throughout India's universities, colleges, research be the administrative department of NRF,
institutions, and R&D laboratories. • The proposed foundation will also have an executive
A. Rs 40,000-crore council under the principal scientific adviser.
B. Rs 30,000-crore
C. Rs 20,000-crore 860. In August as per report National Health Authority
D. Rs 50,000-crore (NHA) announced extension of its Digital Health
E. Rs 10,000-crore Incentives Scheme (DHIS) under the Ayushman Bharat
Answer: D Digital Mission (ABDM) till _________.
• The Anusandhan National Research Foundation Bill, A. 1st October, 2023.
2023 was recently introduced in the Lok Sabha. B. 1st Novembe , 2023.
• It will be an apex body to provide high-level strategic C. 1st January, 2023.
direction of scientific research in the country as per D. 31st March, 2023.
recommendations of the National Education Policy E. 31st December, 2023.
(NEP). Answer: E
• It seeks to set up a Rs 50,000-crore fund, with a • The National Health Authority (NHA) announced
sizeable contribution from the private sector, to "seed, extension of its Digital Health Incentives Scheme (DHIS)
grow and promote" research and development (R&D) under the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) till
and foster a culture of research and innovation December 31, 2023.
throughout India's universities, colleges, research • The DHIS was launched with effect from 1st January,
institutions, and R&D laboratories. 2023 as part of the ABDM.
• Anusandhan National Research Foundation Fund: For • The scheme aims to give a further boost to digital
the financing of activities under the Act. health transactions in the country under the ABDM.
• Innovation Fund: For supporting outstanding • The incentives under this scheme would be provided
creativity in the areas supported by the foundation to hospitals and diagnostic labs and also to the providers
• Science and Engineering Research Fund: For the of digital health solutions such as Hospital/ Health
continuation of the projects and programmes initiated Management Information System (HMIS) and
under the Science and Engineering Research Board Act, Laboratory Management Information System (LMIS).
2008. • Under the DHIS, the eligible health facilities and
• One or more special-purpose funds for any specific digital solutions companies shall be able to earn
project or research. financial incentives of up to Rs. 4 crores based on the
• NRF will forge collaborations among the industry, number of digital health records they create and link to
academia, and government departments and research ABHA (Ayushman Bharat Health Account).
institutions and create an interface mechanism for the • National Health Authority (NHA) is the apex body
participation and contribution of industries and state responsible for implementing AB PM-JAY.
governments in addition to the scientific and line • It has been entrusted with the role of designing
ministries. strategy, building technological infrastructure and
• It will focus on creating a policy framework and implementation of “National Digital Health Mission '' to
putting in place regulatory processes that can encourage create a National Digital Health Eco-system.
• NHA is governed by a Governing Board chaired by the • Kickstarted in 2015, the sixth assessment cycle, the
Union Minister for Health and Family Welfare. most recent one, was concluded in March this year with
• It is headed by a Chief Executive Officer (CEO), an the release of the synthesis report — a relatively non-
officer of the rank of Secretary to the Government of technical summary of the previous report that came out
India, who manages its affairs. during the cycle.
861. Recently as per report 59th Session of 862. BRICS, which includes Brazil, Russia, India, China
Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change was held in and South Africa, is one of the world’s most important
__________. economic blocs, representing more than one quarter of
A. Paris, France global GDP, and _______ per cent of the global
B. Seoul, South Korea population.
C. Brisbane, Australia A. 42
D. Nairobi, Kenya B. 44
E. Tokyo, Japan C. 46
Answer: D D. 48
• The Intergovernmental Panel On Climate Change E. 50
(IPCC) On July 28 Concluded Its Elections, Marking The Answer: A
Beginning Of The 7th Assessment Cycle. • India is unlikely to create major hurdles in the
• The Elections Commenced On July 25, During The expansion of the five-member BRICS being championed
IPCC’s 59th Session Held In Nairobi, Kenya. by China, Russia and South Africa, and may only insist
• The Body Elected James Skea, Professor Of that the new members support UN Security Council
Sustainable Energy At Imperial College, London, As The (UNSC) reforms, and loosely meet certain qualification
New IPCC Chair. criteria for emerging economies.
• Moreover, It Elected Three New Vice-chairs, Other • Both Brazil and India, however, are on the same page
New Members Of The IPCC Bureau And 12 New on other criteria of inclusion for a new member,
Members Of The Task Force Bureau On National including a minimum level of GDP to establish it is an
Greenhouse Gas Inventories (TFI). emerging economy, and a minimum amount of trade
• Established In 1988 By The World Meteorological with bloc members.
Organisation (WMO) And The UN Environment • BRICS, which includes Brazil, Russia, India, China and
Programme (UNEP), The IPCC Produces Comprehensive South Africa, is one of the world’s most important
Assessment Reports (ARs) That Are Considered The Most economic blocs, representing more than one quarter of
Authoritative Source Of Scientific Knowledge On Climate global GDP, and 42 per cent of the global population.
Change. • At the forthcoming BRICS Summit to be held in
• So Far, It Has Released Six ARs, The Final Synthesis Johannesburg from August 22-24, likely to be attended
Report Of The Sixth AR Came Out In March 2023, And by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, the BRICS leaders
With The Latest Elections, The Body Has Initiated A New may give the green signal for inducting new members,
Cycle Of Producing The Next AR. while the actual membership could take place up to a
• With The Conclusion Of Fresh Elections, The IPCC year later.
Began Its 7th Assessment Cycle Last Week, Which Like Its • New Delhi is set to give its consent for inclusion of
Predecessors Would Come To An End In The Next 5 To 7 three-five new members, including Saudi Arabia,
Years. Indonesia (which may require internal clearance from
• As A Next Step Of The New Cycle, The IPCC Chair And the 10-member ASEAN), and Argentina. Of the 22
The Bureau Members Will Select Authors Or Experts, countries that have applied for membership, the other
Who Are Nominated By Governments And Various Other front-runners are Egypt and the UAE.
Organisations, Including International And • BRICS is a grouping of the world economies of Brazil,
Intergovernmental, For The Upcoming Reports. Russia, India, China and South Africa formed by the 2010
addition of South Africa to the predecessor BRIC.
C. It is notified as an Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) in
863. In August as per report Central government tabled the form of a Trust under Securities and Exchange Board
the Digital Personal Data Protection Bill, 2023 in of India (SEBI) (AIF) Regulations.
Parliament. D. The fund has Rs 33,000-crore backstop facility for
It proposed a penalty of _________ crores on persons Mutual Funds.
and companies that fail to prevent data breaches. E. All of the above are correct
A. ₹200 crores Answer: E
B. ₹300 crores • The Union Minister of Finance and Corporate Affairs
C. ₹500 crores has recently inaugurated the Corporate Debt Market
D. ₹400 crores Development Fund (CDMDF) and AMC Repo Clearing
E. ₹250 crores Limited (ARCL).
Answer: E • Corporate Debt Market Development Fund is a
• Central government tabled the Digital Personal Data backstop facility for specified debt funds during market
Protection Bill, 2023 in Parliament. dislocations.
• This bill lays out the procedures for the collection and • The fund is intended to provide liquidity support in
use of personal data of India’s citizens by the the event of a financial crisis.
government and corporations. • It will be in the form of an alternative investment
• This bill was presented by Union Minister Ashwini fund (AIF), meant to instil confidence among the
Vaishnaw in Lok Sabha on 3rd August. participants in the Corporate Bond Market during times
• The Opposition sought the bill should be sent to the of stress
standing committee for scrutiny. • The fund has Rs 33,000-crore backstop facility for
• As per the government, this bill protects the rights of Mutual Funds.
all citizens and allows the innovation economy to • Of the Rs 33,000 crore, Rs 30,000 crore will come
expand. from the government, while the balance Rs 3,000 crore
• The Bill seeks to govern and safeguard the use of will be contributed by the Asset Management
personal data. It sets out the rights and duties of users Companies.
and the obligations of businesses. • Contributions to the fund can be done by the
• The proposed law will apply to the processing of specified debt-oriented mutual fund schemes and asset
digital personal data within India and data processing management companies of mutual funds.
outside the country. • This fund is guaranteed by the National Credit
• The bill also proposed to set up a board that will deal Guarantee Trust Company (NCGTC) and the backstop
with the matters related to the violations of data facility will be managed by SBI Mutual Fund.
breaches. • Specified debt-oriented mutual fund schemes here
• This bill is based on six principles of the data are ‘open-ended debt oriented mutual fund schemes,
economy. It proposed a penalty of ₹250 crores on excluding the overnight funds and gilt funds and
persons and companies that fail to prevent data including conservative hybrid fund’.
breaches. • These specified debt-oriented schemes will invest 25
basis points (0.25 per cent) of their asset under
864. Consider the following statement regarding management (AUM) in CDMDF units and will increase
Corporate Debt Market Development Fund (CDMDF). their contribution when their AUM increases and review
Which of the following statement is incorrect? it every six months.
A. Corporate Debt Market Development Fund (CDMDF) • However, there will be no redemption from CDMDF in
is established by SEBI. case their AUM reduces.
B. It is a facility for purchase of investment-grade • The AMCs are also required to make a contribution of
corporate debt securities. 2 per cent of their specified debt-oriented schemes’ AUM
as a one-time contribution.
• The initial contribution for this purpose will be based 865. Recently as per report ____________ is the highest
on the AUM as of December 31, 2022, in the specified paid corporate chief executive officer (CEO) among non-
schemes of the mutual funds. promoters in India Inc.
• The AMC Repo Clearing Limited (ARCL) is an A. Mukesh Ambani
institution that has been set up with the purpose of B. Sanjeev Mehta
clearing and settlement of corporate bond repo C. Rajesh Gopinathan
transactions. D. Ratan Tata
• The market for repo in government securities is one E. N Chandrasekaran
of the most liquid markets in the country. Answer: E
• Lack of a Central counterparty is the reason for repo • Tata Sons Chairman N Chandrasekaran received a
in corporate bonds to take off. remuneration of Rs 113 crore during the financial year
• It is a type of Limited Purpose Clearing Corporation 2022-23 (FY23), making him probably the highest paid
(LPCC) that functions to deepen corporate bond markets. corporate chief executive officer (CEO) among non-
• It will be developed as an active repo market, which promoters in India Inc.
will improve liquidity in the corporate bond market. • Chandrasekaran received Rs 11.52 crore as salary and
• It will widen and deepen the corporate bond repo Rs 100 crore as commission during the fiscal, according
market. to Tata Sons documents.
• It will allow market makers to access cost-effective • Total revenue of Tata Sons, the unlisted holding
funding for their inventory. company of major Tata group companies, on a
• It will allow markets to holders of bonds to meet their standalone basis rose to Rs 35,058 crore in FY23.
short-term liquidity needs without having to liquidate • Tata Trusts, headed by Ratan Tata, holds 66 per cent
their assets. stake in Tata Sons, while Pallonji Mistry group has 18.4
• Short-term surpluses can be deployed by the entities per cent holding. Chandrasekaran got a five-year
in a safe and efficient manner. extension for his term as Chairman of Tata Sons in 2022.
• It offers clearing and settlement services to all trades • Among other India Inc CEOs, Infosys’ Salil Parekh saw
enlisted on National Stock Exchange (NSE) and Bombay a fall of 21 per cent in his yearly remuneration for FY23,
Stock Exchange (BSE). according to the company’s annual report. Parekh
• It is a collaboration of industry, regulator and the received a salary of Rs 56.44 crore as against Rs 71.02
Government towards building market institutions where crore in FY22.
both issuers and investors in the debt market are • Rajesh Gopinathan, the former CEO and Managing
benefitted. Director (MD) of TCS, got a total pay of Rs 29.16 crore in
• The LPCC, triparty repo services and the central FY 2023, a 13.17 per cent increase over FY 2022.
counterparty services of ARCL in the bond market will • Sanjeev Mehta, who was the MD of Hindustan
offer better efficiency in collateral and settlement for its Unilever Ltd, the leading FMCG firm in the country,
members. received an annual salary of Rs 22.36 crore for FY23,
• Tri-party repo is a type of Repo contract where a third with a marginal rise from Rs 22.07 crore the previous
entity (apart from the borrower and lender), called a tri- year.
party agent, acts as an intermediary between the two • Mukesh Ambani, Chairman and MD of Reliance
parties. Industries Ltd (RIL), has opted not to take a salary or
• It facilitates services like collateral selection, payment profit-based commission during the five-year period
and settlement, custody and management during the from April 19, 2024 till April 18, 2029.
life of the transaction.
• The release added that on the day of the launch, the 866. In August as per report market regulator has
total traded value reported was Rs 480 crore. reduced the timeline for listing of securities after the
closure of public issue to three days, from the current six
working days.
The new listing timeframe will be voluntary for all public • In a bid to bring social-media influencers under the
issues opening on or after September 1 and mandatory ambit of its guidelines, the Advertising Standards
for all the issues which come after ____________. Council of India (ASCI) has decided to broaden the
A. 1st October 2023 definition of celebrities. Influencers with a fan following
B. 1st November 2023 of 5 lakh users or more will now be considered
C. 1st December 2023 celebrities.
D. 1st January 2024 • Influencers having over 5 lakh followers or earning
E. 1st April 2024 more than Rs 40 lakh per year will now be classified as
Answer: C 'celebrities' appearing in ads.
• Capital markets regulator Securities and Exchange • The Advertising Standards Council of India (ASCI), a
Board of India (SEBI) on August 9 halved the timeline for self-regulatory body of the advertising industry,
listing of shares on stock exchanges after the closure of broadened the definition of who is a celebrity and needs
Initial Public Offerings (IPOs) to three days from six days to comply with its code.
at present. • Celebrities are required to adhere to requirements by
• The new listing timeframe will be voluntary for all doing due diligence before signing up to endorse a brand
public issues opening on or after September 1 and and also produce evidence of the same when called upon
mandatory for all the issues which come after December by Asci and not peddle prohibited items.
1. • The Advertising Standards Council of India is a
• According to the regulator, the reduction in timelines voluntary self-regulatory organization of the advertising
for listing and trading of shares will benefit both issuers industry in India. Established in 1985, ASCI is registered
and investors. Issuers will have faster access to the as a non-profit company under section 25 of the
capital raised thereby enhancing the ease of doing Company Act.
business and the investors will have the opportunity for • Manisha Kapoor, CEO & Secretary General, ASCI.
having early credit and liquidity for their investment.
• SEBI had also deferred the proposal to regulate the 868. In August as per report Finance Ministry upgraded
total expense ratio charged by mutual fund houses at its two oil sector companies, Oil India and ONGC Videsh, to
June meeting, which was widely anticipated to be Maharatna and Navratna categories of central public
overhauled. sector enterprises (CPSEs), respectively.
• The Securities and Exchange Board of India is the As of now how many Maharatna and Navratna
regulatory body for securities and commodity market in companies are there in india?
India under the ownership of Ministry of Finance within A. 12th and 14th
the Government of India. Headquarters: Mumbai, B. 13th and 15th
Madhabi Puri Buch (Chairperson). C. 12th and 15th
D. 13th and 14th
867. In August in a bid to bring social-media influencers E. 13th and 16th
under the ambit of its guidelines, the Advertising Answer: D
Standards Council of India (ASCI) has decided to broaden • The Finance Ministry upgraded two oil sector
the definition of celebrities. companies, Oil India and ONGC Videsh, to Maharatna
Influencers with a fan following of _________ lakh users and Navratna categories of central public sector
or more will now be considered celebrities. enterprises (CPSEs), respectively.
A. 1 lakh users • The new status will help the companies take decisions
B. 2 lakh users on large investments on their own, both within India and
C. 3 lakh users abroad.
D. 4 lakh users • Oil India was earlier a Navratna company, while
E. 5 lakh users ONGC Videsh was a Miniratna CPSE.
Answer: E • Public Enterprises Department (DPE) under the
Finance Ministry said: The finance minister approved
upgradation of Oil India Ltd (OIL) to Maharatna CPSE. India or abroad within an investment ceiling of Rs 1,000
OIL will be the 13th Maharatna amongst the CPSEs. crore.
• OIL is an Oil Ministry CPSE with annual turnover of Rs
41,039 crores and net profit of Rs 9,854 crores for the 869. In August as per report __________has launched
fiscal year 2022-23. EXIM Current Account specially curated for customers
• OIL is a fully integrated exploration and production involved in the import and export business.
company in the upstream sector, with its origins dating A. Axis Bank
back to 1889 — the year of oil discovery in India. The B. RBL Bank
state-owned enterprise is under the administrative C. Yes Bank
control of the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas D. Bandhan Bank
and is the second largest national oil and gas company E. South Indian Bank
in India. Answer: E
• Oil India Private Limited was incorporated on • South Indian Bank (SIB) has launched SIB EXIM
February 18, 1959, to expand and develop the newly Current Account specially curated for customers involved
discovered oilfields of Naharkatiya and Moran in the in the import and export business.
north-eastern region of India. • The current account is available in two variants SIB
• In 1961, it became a joint venture company of EXIM Silver and SIB EXIM Gold with the required
Government of India and Burmah Oil Company Limited, Quarterly Forex Throughput (QFT) of $15,000 and
UK. In 1981, OIL became a wholly owned Government of $50,000 respectively.
India enterprise.
• The Maharatna scheme was introduced for CPSEs, 870. Recently as per report E-way bill generation
with effect from May 19, 2010, in order to empower increased to _______ in July 2023.
them to expand operations and emerge as global giants. A. 8.18 crore
Some of the important CPSEs are BHEL, Indian Oil, B. 8.44 crore
ONGC, Indian Oil, BPCL, HPCL and SAILs. C. 8.82 crore
• CPSEs fulfilling the following criteria may be D. 8.61 crore
considered for Maharatna status: Holding Navratna E. 8.79 crore
status; listed on the Indian stock exchange, with a Answer: E
minimum prescribed public shareholding under SEBI • E-way bill generation increased to 8.79 crore in July
regulations; an average annual net profit exceeding Rs 2023 from 8.61 crore in June 2023.
2,500 crore during the last three years; and significant • This will possibly have a positive impact on GST
global presence or international operations. collection.
• The finance minister has approved the upgradation of • E-way bill generation crossed an all-time high of 9
ONGC Videsh Ltd (OVL) to Navratna CPSE. OVL will be crore in March. This led to GST collection in April at
14th Navratna amongst the CPSEs.” It is an Oil Ministry ₹1.87 lakh crore.
CPSE with annual turnover of Rs 11,676 crore and net • In April, the e-way bill generation came down to 8.44
profit of Rs 1,700 crore for FY 2022-23. crore. GST collection in May was ₹1.57 lakh crore.
• A Navratna CPSE can incur capital expenditure, • In May, e-way bill generation increased to 8.82 crore.
without any monetary ceiling, on the purchase of new GST collection in June was over ₹1.61 lakh crore.
items or for replacement. It can enter into technology • There is no direct correlation between e-way bill
joint ventures or strategic alliances. It can obtain, generation and GST collection.
through purchase or other arrangements, technology • There is evidence showing higher generation of e-
and knowhow. way bills would lead to higher collection.
• It can raise debt from the domestic capital markets • E-way bill is an electronic document. It is generated
and international market, subject to the approval of on a portal.
RBI/Department of Economic Affairs. It can establish • It shows the movement of goods. It shows whether
financial joint ventures and wholly owned subsidiaries in tax has been paid.
• According to the Rule 138 of the CGST Rules, 2017, • State-run insurance companies, including LIC have
every registered person who causes the movement of been excluded from the adoption of the new accounting
goods of consignment value of over ₹50,000 is required rules for now.
to generate an e-way bill. • The move is aimed at bringing Indian accounting
practices closer to global standards.
871. Recently as per report amount ___________worth • IRDAI has identified 15 companies that have foreign
NPAs were written off by Scheduled commercial banks equity partners and strategic collaborations for the
(SCBs) between FY15 and FY23. purpose.
A. ₹12.42 lakh crore • Some of these companies are ICICI Prudential Life,
B. ₹13.56 lakh crore ICICI Lombard General, TATA AIG General, Niva Bupa
C. ₹14.56 lakh crore Health, HDFC Life, and HDFC Ergo General.
D. ₹15.40 lakh crore • Over 140 countries have adopted IFRS 17, effective
E. ₹16.20 lakh crore January 2023. IND-AS 117 is designed in coordination
Answer: C with IFRS-17.
• ₹14-lakh crore worth NPAs were written off by • The new accounting standard will replace Ind AS 104,
Scheduled commercial banks (SCBs) between FY15 and Insurance Contracts.
FY23.
• Out of these, nearly half (₹7,40,968 crore/ ₹7.40 lakh 873. According to a report from S&P global Funds for
crore) were related to large industries and services. India’s corporate debt issuers could almost triple relative
• In the written-off loans, total recovery was just over to nominal GDP by _________.
₹2 lakh crore. A. 2027
• As of date, the list of SCBs include 12 public sector B. 2028
banks (PSBs), 22 private banks, 12 small finance banks, C. 2029
four payment banks (which act as agents in loan D. 2030
business), 43 regional rural banks, and 45 foreign banks. E. 2025
• Write-off does not lead to a waiver of the borrower’s Answer: D
liability to repay. Write-off does not benefit the • S&P Global, a NYSE-listed data, research and
borrower. analytics firms, sees India growing at an average 6.7 per
• SCBs have recovered an aggregate amount of cent for the next eight years, catapulting GDP to $6.7
₹2,04,668 crore in written-off loans, including corporate trillion in fiscal 2030-31 from $3.4 trillion in 2022-23. It
loans, since April 2014 and up to March 2023. also sees per capita GDP rising to about $4,500.
• Gross NPAs of PSBs declined to ₹4.28-lakh crore as of • Funds for India’s corporate debt issuers could almost
March 31, 2023, from ₹8.96 lakh crore as of March 31, triple relative to nominal GDP by 2030, according to a
2018. report from S&P global.
• This would be possible if India is included in the key
872. In August as per report IRDAI has asked top 15 global government bond debt indexes and this increases
insurance companies to adopt the new IND-AS foreign participation in India’s government bond market
accounting framework from _________________. from 0.9% to 10%, as per the report.
A. 01 March 2024 • The report is titled “Look Forward: India’s moment”.
B. 01 April 2024 • According to the market estimates, inclusion in key
C. 01 May 2024 bond indexes could initially cause inflow of $20 billion-
D. 01 June 2024 $40 billion.
E. 01 July 2024 • This could increase to over $180 billion over in next
Answer: B decade.
• IRDAI has asked top 15 insurance companies to adopt • As of end 2022, foreign investors collectively held less
the new IND-AS accounting framework from 01 April than 1% of outstanding Indian government bonds.
2024 (FY25).
• According to the same report, the share of global • Prosus N.V., or Prosus, is a global investment group
venture capital flow into Indian start-ups may double by that invests and operates across sectors and markets
2030. with long-term growth potential. It is among the largest
• S&P global sees considerable momentum for start-up technology investors in the world.
investments in newer verticals like electric vehicles (EV),
space technology, artificial intelligence, and drones in 875. In August as per report which of the following has
next two years. upgraded the Indian market rating to ‘overweight’?
• As per the report, venture capitalists will likely A. Crisil
contribute to significant share of the expected B. Icra
investments of $ 266 billion in the EV industry in this C. Morgan Stanley
decade. D. Care Ltd.
• India emerged as the fourth most popular destination E. India Ratings
for start-ups in the world in 2022 according to S&P Answer: C
Global Market Intelligence. • The brokerage firm Morgan Stanley upgraded India's
• India had more than 92,000 start-ups recognised by markets to the ‘Overweight’ rating from ‘equal weight’.
the Department for Promotion of Industry and Industrial • Morgan Stanley believes that India's reform and
Trade (DPIIT) as of February 28, 2023. macro-stability support a strong capex and profit
• According to the report, young Indian start-ups may outlook.
face fewer challenges raising money amid the global VC • The overweight rating of Morgan Stanley means that
slowdown. the Indian economy will perform better in the future.
• The Indian market was upgraded to equal weight
874. In August as per report Prosus said its fintech arm from underweight on March 31 2023.
PayU is selling a part of its business to Israel’s Rapyd for • Morgan Stanley said that the Indian economy is on
an all cash deal of _________ million to focus on the track to achieve GDP growth of 6.2 per cent.
Indian market. • India has become the most-preferred market among
A. $710 million emerging markets due to foreign inflows, macro stability
B. $650 million and a positive earnings outlook.
C. $610 million • Morgan Stanley predicts that the BSE benchmark
D. $630 million index, Sensex, will reach 68500 points by December.
E. $690 million • Morgan Stanley has down downgraded China’s
Answer: C rating due to the economic slowdown. China’s rating has
• Netherlands-based investment firm Prosus said its been cut down to ‘equal weight’.
fintech arm PayU is selling a part of its business to • United States has also lost its status AAA rating.
Israel’s Rapyd for an all cash deal of $610 million to
focus on the Indian market. 876. According to latest report Public sector banks (PSBs)
• As part of the deal, Rapyd, a fintech-as-a-service have registered a profit of _________ for the first
provider, will acquire PayU’s Global Payments quarter ended June 2023.
Organisation (GPO). A. Rs 34,774 crore
• PayU’s Global Payments Organisation, which forms B. Rs 42,879 crore
part of the transaction, operates in more than 30 C. Rs 38,456 crore
countries across Asia, Latin America, Europe and Africa, D. Rs 32,125 crore
and contributes to about a third of PayU’s overall E. Rs 39,568 crore
revenue. Answer: A
• Prosus’s payments and fintech segment posted a • Public sector banks (PSBs) have once again posted
consolidated revenue growth of 52 per cent to $903 stellar performance by registering more than double
million in FY23. profit of Rs 34,774 crore for the first quarter ended June
2023.
• During the April-June period of the previous fiscal, all 877. In August as per report ____________announced
12 state-owned banks had recorded a total profit of Rs the launch of India's first 5G wireless Wi-Fi service
15,306 crore, according to quarterly numbers published designed to provide internet to areas without fibre-
by public sector lenders. based internet connections.
• The high-interest regime helped banks to earn a good A. Reliance Jio
net interest margin (NIM) during the quarter. Most B. BSNL
banks had recorded NIM of over 3 per cent. C. Bharti Airtel
• Pune-based Bank of Maharashtra posted the highest D. Vodafone Idea
NIM of 3.86 per cent, followed by Central Bank at 3.62 E. None of the above
per cent and Indian Bank at 3.61 per cent during the Answer: C
quarter. • Bharti Airtel announced the launch of Airtel Xstream
• During the first quarter, four lenders logged a profit AirFiber, India's first 5G wireless Wi-Fi service designed
of over 100 per cent. The highest percentage growth was to provide internet to areas without fibre-based internet
recorded by Punjab National Bank, which earned a profit connections. This new offering will provide fixed wireless
of Rs 1,255 crore against Rs 308 crore in the same access (FWA) to homes lacking fixed line internet.
quarter of the previous year, a growth of 307 per cent. • According to Airtel's data, only 34 million homes in
• It was followed by the State Bank of India (SBI), India have optical fibre connections, highlighting a large
which recorded a 178 per cent bottom line growth at Rs number of customers struggling for fibre access.
16,884 crore and the Bank of India with a 176 per cent • Xstream AirFiber, a plug-and-play device with in-built
surge, earned Rs 1,551 crore profit. Wi-Fi 6 technology, aims to address this gap by offering
• SBI's highest-ever quarterly profit of Rs 16,884 crore wide indoor coverage and the capacity to
is about 50 per cent of the total profit earned by PSBs. simultaneously connect up to 64 devices.
During FY23 too, SBI's contribution was about 50 per • Initially, the service will be available for 5G
cent, when the cumulative profit of these banks was Rs consumers in Delhi and Mumbai. In light of the growing
1.05 lakh crore. need for home Wi-Fi over the past 3-4 years, Airtel
• Another five PSBs posted growth between 50 and 100 Xstream AirFiber is expected to address last mile
per cent. This pack was led by Bank of Maharashtra, connectivity issues across rural and urban India,
which clocked a 95 per cent rise in net profit at Rs 882 especially in 'Fibre dark' pockets.
crore. It was followed by Bank of Baroda recording a Airtel intends to launch the service in multiple cities and
growth of 88 per cent to Rs 4,070 crore and UCO Bank by scale up nationally in a phased manner. The company
81 per cent to Rs 581 crore. further announced that all Xstream AirFiber devices will
• The only bank out of 12 booked decline in net profit is be manufactured in India.
Delhi-based Punjab & Sind Bank with a 25 per cent drop
at Rs 153 crore at the end of June 2023. 878. Recently as per report ___________ tops the list of
• Several measures taken by the government have States with highest GST collections at ₹1.09-lakh crore in
helped in the revival of PSBs. As a result of 4R's strategy the first four months of the current fiscal.
of recognition, resolution, recapitalisation and reforms, A. Maharashtra
non-performing assets of banks have come down to a B. Karnataka
10-year low at 3.9 per cent of total advances. C. Gujarat
• As part of the strategy, the government infused an D. Tamil Nadu
unprecedented Rs 3,10,997 crore to recapitalise PSBs E. Uttar Pradesh
during the last five financial years -- from 2016-17 to Answer: A
2020-21. The recapitalisation programme provided • Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka and Uttar Pradesh
much-needed support to the PSBs and prevented the topped the list of States with the highest growth rate in
possibility of any default on their part. Goods and Services Tax (GST) collections in the first four
months of the current fiscal compared to the same
period last year.
• Within the sample States, Madhya Pradesh clocked • The target is to complete all these steps by the next
21 per cent y-o-y growth in GST collections during April- month-end to ensure implementation from October 1,
July. Madhya Pradesh is an agrarian economy with 35 2023.
per cent share of gross value added (GVA) coming from
agriculture and allied sectors. 880. Recently as per report Indian Banking Association
• It was followed by Karnataka (20 per cent) and Uttar (IBA) gave its nod to the industry's demand for five days
Pradesh (19 per cent). India’s first and second largest of banking.
economies- Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu - pencilled a The banks will work from Monday to Friday, but their
growth rate of 18 per cent. daily working hours will be extended by _______
• The gross total GST collection of all States and Union minutes.
Territories (UTs) combined grew by 15 per cent year-on- A. 30 minutes
year to ₹5.10-lakh crore in April-July of the current fiscal B. 20 minutes
as compared to ₹4.42-lakh crore in the same period of C. 1 Hour
2022-23, reflecting stronger consumption across States. D. 45 minutes
• A comparison of GST collections in value terms E. 35 minutes
throws a different picture altogether. Maharashtra tops Answer: D
the list of States with highest GST collections at ₹1.09- • In a meeting held last month, the Indian Banking
lakh crore followed by Karnataka (₹47,608 crore), Association (IBA) gave its nod to the industry's demand
Gujarat (₹41,428 crore). Tamil Nadu and Uttar Pradesh for five days of banking.
collected ₹40,135 crore and ₹34,694 crore respectively. • The proposal has now been sent to the finance
ministry for its final approval.
879. In August as per report Union Cabinet cleared a bill • Under the industry's long-standing demand, if
to amend laws to bring clarity related to the uniform approved by the ministry, all Saturdays will be declared
_______ per cent GST at full face value for online as a bank holiday. Currently, the banks are closed on the
gaming, casinos and horse racing. second and fourth Saturdays of each month.
A. 5 % • Until 2015, however, the banks were operational six
B. 28% days a week, including all Saturdays.
C. 20% • The banks will work from Monday to Friday, but their
D. 18 % daily working hours will be extended by 45 minutes.
E. 12 % • After the finance ministry's nod, the proposal will be
Answer: B taken to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for approval.
• Union Cabinet cleared a bill to amend laws to bring • With over 70 per cent of daily cash related
clarity related to the uniform 28 per cent GST at full face transaction taking place, the industry is of the view that
value for online gaming, casinos and horse racing. the need for six-day banking on select weeks isn’t very
• The statutes to be amended through the latest bill compelling.
include CGST, IGST and UT GST laws. • More than 80 per cent of banking transactions,
• The bill is expected to be introduced during the including account opening are being done digitally.
remaining days of the monsoon session of Parliament. Except for taking some sign offs on certain agreements
The GST Council, in its meeting on July 11, recommended which would require the signature customers, there isn’t
taxing casino, horse racing and online gaming at the much need to walk into branches these days.
uniform rate of 28 per cent. • At present bank branches function on the first, third
• Once the Centre amends the CGST, IGST and UT GST and fifth Saturdays of a month. The second and fourth
laws, then the states and two Union territories with Saturdays are holidays.
Assemblies will be required to bring similar changes in
SGST Acts. After the legislative changes, detailed rule 881. According to the S&P Global, a research and
will be announced. analytics firm, expects India to grow 6.7% per year in
next ___________ years.
A. 3 years • The cost for taking the infrastructure to the home will
B. 8 years be borne by the government.
C. 6 years • The rural entrepreneur will only need to be involved
D. 5 years in maintenance and operations of home connections,
E. 2 years including addressing consumer complaints related to
Answer: B fiber cuts, etc.
• S&P Global, a research and analytics firm, expects • Bharat Net is the world's largest optical fiber-based
India to grow 6.7% per year in next eight years -- FY24 to rural broadband connectivity project.
FY31 – taking the size of GDP to $6.7 trillion from $3.4 • It is executed by Bharat Broadband Network Limited
trillion in FY23. (BBNL), a special purpose organisation under the
• It said the per capita GDP will rise to about $4,500. Department of Telecommunications, Ministry of
• India needs to follow its own unique path due to Communications.
structural differences with East Asian nations, it • It is an ambitious rural internet access programme -
commented in an article. Capital accumulation and an initiative by the Union government under its Digital
digital infrastructure will be growth drivers. India
• Capital accumulation will be the dominant driver of • The government intends to provide a minimum of 100
growth. Investment as a proportion of GDP reached a Mbps bandwidth at each Gram Panchayat so that
10-year high of 34 per cent in fiscal 2022-23. S&P Global everyone, especially those in rural India, can access e-
expects the Indian private sector to gradually increase services offered by various Central and State
investments given healthy corporate balance sheets. Government agencies.
• The Indian consumer market will more than double • This covers services such as e-governance, e-learning,
by 2031, surging to $5.2 trillion from $2.3 trillion in 2022, e-banking, e-commerce, and e-health.
according to S&P Global Market Intelligence’s Global • As part of BharatNet project, the Centre will also
Consumer Markets Service. provide last mile connectivity through Wi-Fi and other
means and is setting up Wi-Fi hotspots in all gram
882. In August as per report Union Cabinet has approved panchayats.
an outlay of _______ for BharatNet, the government’s • In the Union Budget 2022-23, the Government
project for last-mile connectivity across 6.4 lakh villages extended the project deadline to 2025.
in the country.
A. Rs 1.42 lakh crore 883. In August as per report the central government has
B. Rs 1.39 lakh crore imposed restrictions on the import of which of the
C. Rs 1.20 lakh crore following?
D. Rs 1.45 lakh crore A. Laptop
E. Rs 1.48 lakh crore B. Tablet
Answer: B C. All-in-one personal computer
• The Union Cabinet has approved an outlay of Rs 1.39 D. Only 2 and 3
lakh crore for BharatNet, the government’s project for E. All of the above
last-mile connectivity across 6.4 lakh villages in the Answer: E
country. • Central government has imposed restrictions on the
• With this upgrade, the government is looking to import of laptops, tablets, all-in-one personal computers
speed up its process in connecting all the remaining and ultra-small form factor computers and servers.
villages over the next 2.5 years. • The restrictions have been imposed on 03 August
• The Government, under the PPP model, will involve 2023 with immediate effect.
village level entrepreneurs or Udyamis to take the fiber • The import of these items would now be allowed
connections to the homes on a 50:50 revenue-sharing against a valid licence for restricted imports.
basis.
• However, the import of one laptop, tablet and all-in- • The last date for submission of claims is October 31,
one personal computer has been exempted from the 2023.
import licensing requirement. • The Finance Minister had announced the scheme,
• One laptop, tablet and all-in-one personal computer termed ‘Vivad se Vishwas II — (Contractual Disputes)’
purchased from e-commerce portals, through post or Union Budget 2023-24.
courier, has also been exempted from the import • The Department of Expenditure had indicated the
licensing requirement. guidelines for its operation in an earlier order issued in
• Exemption from import licencing requirement has May 2023.
been given for upto 20 items per consignment for • he Vivad Se Vishwas II (Contractual Disputes) scheme
Research and Development, Testing, Repair, and return. is aimed at clearing the backlog of litigation, freeing
• The exemption is also available where the item is an lock-up funds, and improving the ease of doing business.
essential part of a Capital Good, like a machine • Under the scheme, contractors would be offered
embedded with a computer. settlement amounts depending on the status of a
• According to the Directorate General of Foreign Trade dispute.
(DGFT) notification, Import of Laptops, Tablets, All-in- • The scheme will apply to all domestic contractual
one Personal Computers, and Ultra small form factor disputes where one of the parties is either the
Computers and Servers falling under HSN 8741 shall be Government of India or an organisation working under
‘Restricted’. its control.
• The notification stated, “Their import would be • Apart from Ministries and Government departments,
allowed against a valid Licence for Restricted Imports.” the scheme would apply to autonomous bodies, public
• The restrictions will also be there on microcomputers, sector banks and enterprises and all organisations, like
large or mainframe computers, and certain data metro rail corporations, where the Government of India
processing machines. has a 50 per cent stake.
• These curbs are not applicable to imports under • Under the scheme, it would be mandatory for
baggage rules. This indicates travellers can bring one of Government departments to accept the settlement
these products back with them from overseas without where the claim amount is 500 crore or less.
penalties. • To be eligible for settlement under the scheme, the
• These steps are expected to reduce imports from ministry has laid out two conditions —
countries like China. • For Arbitral award passed on or before January 31,
• Electronics imports form 7% to 10% of India's total 2023- the settlement amount offered is up to 65 per cent
merchandise imports. of the net amount awarded.
• For Court award passed on or before April 30, 2023-
884. In order to settle the pending contractual disputes The settlement amount offered to the contractor will be
of government and government undertakings, the up to 85 per cent of the net amount awarded/ upheld by
finance ministry has launched the ‘Vivad se Vishwas II – the court.
(Contractual Disputes)’ scheme. • Government e-Marketplace (GeM) has developed a
The last date for submission of claims is ___________. dedicated web-page for implementation of this scheme.
A. 31th November 2023 • Eligible claims shall be processed only through GeM.
B. 31st October 2023
C. 31st December 2023 885. Recently as per report Core industries output in
D. 31st March 2024 June 2023 reached a 5-month high level at 8.2%. Which
E. 31st December 2024 of the following core industries has recorded negative
Answer: B growth?
• In order to settle the pending contractual disputes of A. Coal
government and government undertakings, the finance B. Natural gas
ministry has launched the ‘Vivad se Vishwas II – C. Refinery products
(Contractual Disputes)’ scheme. D. Steel
E. Crude oil • It is for the fifth time, gross GST collection has crossed
Answer: E ₹1.60 lakh crore mark.
• Core industries output in June 2023 reached a 5- • In June, GST collection was ₹1,61,497 crore.
month high level at 8.2%.
• This was higher than the 5% growth recorded in core 887. Recently UPI transactions in July 2023 have grown
industries output in May 2023. ______ to ₹15-lakh crore.
• However, this was lower than the 13.1% growth A. 42%
recorded in core industries output in June 2022. B. 43%
• Seven out of eight core industries recorded positive C. 44%
growth. D. 45%
• These seven core industries are coal, natural gas, E. 46%
refinery products, fertilisers, steel, cement and Answer: C
electricity. • UPI transactions in July 2023 have grown 44% to ₹15-
• Only the crude oil sector recorded negative growth. It lakh crore.
contracted marginally at 0.6%. • UPI transactions in July 2023 reached to record high
• Core industries output grew 7.6% in fiscal 2022-23. level both in terms of volume and value.
• Both Steel and Cement sectors performed well in June • The value of total UPI transactions reached ₹15.34-
2023. lakh crore. It has grown 4% m-o-m and 44% y-o-y.
The IIP growth was 13.1% in June 2022. Provisional y-o-y • The number of transactions in July 2023 reached a
growth rate for overall index for June 2023 is 8.2%. record high level of 996 crore.
• The number was higher by 6.6% from the previous
886. Recently Gross GST collection rose 11 per cent to month and 58% compared to July 2022, according to
over ₹1.65 lakh crore in July, crossing the ₹1.6 lakh crore National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) data.
mark for the ________ time since the rollout of the • The number of monthly transactions reached beyond
indirect tax regime. the 900-crore in May 2023.
A. 4th • The growth in the volume of UPI transactions has
B. 5th been above 50% y-o-y.
C. 6th • According to the RBI’s annual report for 2022-23, UPI-
D. 7th led retail digital payments have shown a growth at a
E. 2nd CAGR of 50% in volume and 27% in value between FY17
Answer: B and FY22.
• Gross GST collection rose 11 per cent to over ₹1.65 • As per a report by PwC India, UPI transactions are
lakh crore in July, crossing the ₹1.6 lakh crore mark for likely to breach 100 crore transactions per day by FY27.
the fifth time since the rollout of the indirect tax regime. • Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is a system that
• Gross Goods and Services Tax (GST) revenue collected powers multiple bank accounts into a single mobile
last month was ₹1,65,105 crore of which CGST was application.
₹29,773 crore, SGST ₹37,623 crore, IGST ₹85,930 crore • It is developed by the National Payments Corporation
(including ₹41,239 crore collected on import of goods) of India. It was introduced in April 2016.
and cess was ₹11,779 crore (including ₹840 crore
collected on import of goods). 888. What is the name of the Cabinet Secretary who has
• Revenues for the month were 11 per cent higher than been granted another one-year extension beyond
the GST revenues in the same month last year. August 30, 2023?
• During the month, revenues from domestic A. Tarun Bajaj
transactions (including import of services) were 15 per B. Arun Kumar Sinha
cent higher than revenues from these sources during the C. Rajiv Gauba
same month last year. D. Ravi Sinha
E. Anirudh Jaiswal
Answer: C 890. What is the name of the former Telecom Secretary
• On 3 August, the Appointments Committee of the and Central Vigilance Commissioner (CVC) who was
Cabinet has approved Rajiv Gauba's extension as known as architect of India’s IT sector who passed away
Cabinet Secretary for a further period of one year in August?
beyond August 30, 2023. A. Ravi Sinha
• Shri Gauba has been given an extension for the third B. Anirudh Jaiswal
time in this post. C. N Vittal
• The Appointments Committee has extended the D. R Prashad
appointment of Mr. Gauba in relaxation of AIS (DCRB) E. Arun Sinha
Rules, 1958 and Rule 56(d) of the Fundamental Rules. Answer: C
• He is a 1982-batch IAS officer of the Jharkhand cadre. • With the passing of N Vittal, 85, former Telecom
He has earlier served as Union Home Secretary. Secretary and Central Vigilance Commissioner (CVC), the
• Prior to him, BD Pandey was the longest-serving country has lost the person who had sown the seeds for
Cabinet Secretary from 2 November 1972 to 31 March the growth of the information technology sector four
1977. decades ago.
• In 2019, Gauba was appointed as Cabinet Secretary • The country is enjoying the fruits of his long-term
for a period of two years. He got an extension twice, first vision, with the IT industry worth nearly $250 billion or
in 2021 and then in August 2022. nearly 9.5 per cent of the country’s GDP, and providing
• Cabinet Secretary is the Government of India’s top- employment to around 6 million.
most executive official and senior-most civil servant. • The Padma Bhushan awardee and IAS officer of the
• Cabinet Secretary is the ex-officio head of the Civil Gujarat cadre, 1960 batch, passed away in Chennai. His
Services Board, Indian Administrative Service (IAS), and experience of more than 40 years covered a wide
all civil services under the rules of business of the spectrum with focus on industrial administration, science
government. and technology and security.
• As Secretary of the Department of Electronics (1990-
889. In August as per report ___________has been 1996), he initiated policies for boosting software, setting
appointed by Tesla as its Chief Financial Officer (CFO). up software technology parks and strategic alliance with
A. Ravi Gupta the industry. This eventually led to the formation of the
B. Sourabh Verma Software Technology Parks of India (STPI).
C. Vaibhav Taneja • As Chairman of the Telecom Commission, he also
D. Sanjana Gupta initiated the process of liberalisation in the telecom
E. Riddhima Verma sector and played a major role in getting the National
Answer: C Telecom Policy 1994 approved.
• Vaibhav Taneja has been appointed by Tesla as its • In a preface of his book, Corruption in India - The
Chief Financial Officer (CFO). Roadblock to National Prosperity, he says, “Corruption is
• Indian-origin Vaibhav Taneja will take the CFO anti-national, anti-economic development and anti-
position in addition to his present duties as the Chief poor.
Accounting Officer.
• Tesla plans to make India its next key source of a new 891. Every year, World Breastfeeding Week is observed
supplier ecosystem. from the 1st to the 7th of August.
• Tesla’s previous finance chief Zachary Kirkhorn What is the theme of World Breastfeeding Week 2023?
declared his decision to step down. A. Enabling Breastfeeding: Talk to me! Breastfeeding - a
Tesla is an American multinational automotive and 3D Experience
clean energy company. It is headquartered in Austin, B. Enabling Breastfeeding: Let's make breastfeeding
Texas, US. Elon Musk is its CEO. and work, work
C. Enabling Breastfeeding: Making a difference for
working parents
D. Breastfeeding Support: Close to the Mother first Managing Director (MD) and Chief Executive Officer
E. Breastfeeding and Work: Let's make it work (CEO) of Karnataka Bank on July 14 2009.
Answer: C • Initially appointed for a period of three years, Bhat
• Every year, World Breastfeeding Week is observed got two extensions up to July 13, 2018. However, he
from the 1st to the 7th of August. voluntarily opted to relinquish his post of MD and CEO in
• It is celebrated to promote the benefits of April 2017. Following this, Mahabaleshwara MS was
breastfeeding for both mother and the baby. appointed MD and CEO.
• The theme of World Breastfeeding Week 2023 is • He was appointed by RBI as Non-executive Chairman
"Enabling Breastfeeding: Making a difference for of the Bank in April 2017 as 10th Chairman of the Bank
working parents." and retired on November 13, 2021. He served Karnataka
• In 1992, the World Breastfeeding Week was first Bank for a record number of over 48 years from April
started. 1973 to November 2021.
• In 2018, a resolution of the World Health Assembly
endorsed World Breastfeeding Week as an important Sports & Awards & Books
breastfeeding promotion strategy. 893. In August as per report ___________has become
• Breast milk contains colostrum. Colostrum protects the first Indian to win an individual World Title at Word
the newborn and children from sickness. It imparts them Archery Championships.
with immunity. A. Deepika Kumari
• Breastfeeding helps in the sensory and cognitive B. Parneet Kaur
development of infants. It reduces breast and ovarian C. Jyothi Surekha Vennam
cancer risks in mothers. D. Sanjana Gupta
E. Aditi Swami
892. In August as per report P Jayarama Bhat who Answer: E
passed away was the former chairman of which of the • Aditi Swami has become the first Indian to win an
following bank? individual World Title at Word Archery Championships.
A. RBL Bank • Aditi Swami won the Title at the World Archery
B. Axis Bank Championships final in Berlin.
C. YES Bank • Aditi became the senior world champion when she
D. HDFC Bank defeated Andrea Becerra of Mexico.
E. Karnataka Bank • With this win, she became the first Indian world
Answer: E champion in an individual event at the Senior World
• P Jayarama Bhat (72), former Chairman of Karnataka Championships.
Bank Ltd, passed away in Mangaluru. • India's Ojas Deotale defeated Lukasz Przybylski of
• Born on November 14, 1951, Polali Jayarama Bhat Poland in a final to become the new world champion in
did his MSc in Chemistry (with first rank) from the Men’s individual compound event.
University of Mysore in 1972. • On 04 August 2023, Aditi Swami, Parneet Kaur and
• He joined the services of Karnataka Bank as a Jyothi Surekha Vennam won India’s first-ever gold at
Probationary Officer in January 1973 after briefly serving World Archery Championships by winning the compound
as a lecturer for three months. women’s team final.
• Since 1976, Bhat headed leading branches of the • India came up in first place in among the highest
bank till his promotion to Chief Accountant at the head medal winners at the 2023 World Archery
office in 1993. He became the Assistant General Championships. It won 3 gold medals and 1 bronze
Manager in 1994, Deputy General Manager in 1996, and medal.
General Manager in 1998. • South Korea came in second place with a total of
• In 2005, Jayarama Bhat was promoted as Chief three medals. Host Germany came in third place with 2
General Manager of the bank. He was appointed as the medals.
• World Archery Championships are a series of total of 603 students have attended the YUVIKA
competitions in Archery. They are organised by the program spread over 3 years – 2019, 2022 and 2023.
World Archery Federation. • Setting up of Indian National Space Promotion and
• The 2023 World Archery Championships was Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe) and enhancing the role
organized from 31 July to 6 August 2023 in Berlin, New Space India Limited (NSIL) are the two major thrust
Germany. areas in the Reform.
• The establishment of IN-SPACe was announced in
894. Recently as per government report India is the June 2020 by Government of India, as an autonomous
____________ amongst spacefaring nations having end- agency under Department of Space, to create eco-
to-end capabilities in space research and development. system of industry, academia and start-ups and to
A. Second attract major share in the global space economy, by
B. Third authorizing and regulating activities of NGEs in space
C. Fourth sector through detailed guidelines and procedures. IN-
D. Fifth SPACe Headquarters at Ahmedabad was inaugurated by
E. Sixth the Hon’ble Prime Minister in June 2022.
Answer: D • First private launchpad & mission control center
• Union Minister of State (Independent Charge) Science established by M/s Agnikul Cosmos Pvt. Ltd., Chennai in
& Technology; MoS PMO, Personnel, Public Grievances, ISRO campus at SDSC, SHAR on 25th November 2022.
Pensions, Atomic Energy and Space, Dr Jitendra Singh • GSLV-F12/NVS-01 mission was successfully
said, India is the fifth amongst spacefaring nations accomplished on 29th May, 2023. GSLV deployed the
having end-to-end capabilities in space research and NVS-01 navigation satellite, the first of the second-
development, including the capability to launch from our generation satellites envisaged for the Navigation with
own land and operate programs of earth observation, Indian Constellation (NavIC) service,into a
satellite communication, meteorology, space science & Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit.
navigation and ground infrastructure. • LVM3-M4 successfully launched the Chandrayaan-3
• The Minister also listed out significant progress made Spacecraft on 14th July, 2023. Lunar orbit insertion
by ISRO during the last five years. Some of the major activities are in progress and Moon landing is scheduled
achievements are listed below: on 23rd August, 2023.
• 27 satellites and 22 Launch Vehicle missions have
been successfully accomplished during the period (July 895. Recently as per report oceans have reached their
2018 – July 2023), besides the successful Pad Abort Test hottest-ever recorded temperature of ______ degrees
(PAT) to qualify the Crew Escape System (CES) in July Celsius because they absorbed warmth from climate
2018 and the Reusable Launch Vehicle autonomous change.
landing mission in April 2023. A. 16.96
• In June 2018, India announced a capacity building B. 17.96
training programme UNNATI (UNispace Nanosatellite C. 18.96
Assembly & Training by ISRO) on Nanosatellites D. 19.96
development through a combination of theoretical E. 20.96
coursework and hands-on training on Assembly, Answer: E
Integration and Testing (AIT). A total of 90 participants • The temperature of the world’s oceans has been
from 45 countries benefitted from the program across recorded at 20.96 degrees Celsius.
three batches. (Two in 2019 and 1 in 2022). • The oceans have reached their hottest-ever recorded
• In 2019, ISRO launched an annual special programme temperature because they absorbed warmth from
called "Young Scientist Programme" or the "YUva climate change.
VIgyani KAryakram" (YUVIKA), in line with the • As per the EU’s climate change service, the average
Government's vision "Jai Vigyan, Jai Anusandhan”. A daily global sea surface temperature has broken a 2016
record because it reached 20.96 degrees Celsius.
• The temperature record has been broken this year • It is a commercial arm under Department of Space
after a series of marine heatwaves this year in the UK, (DoS), Government of India.
the North Atlantic, the Mediterranean and the Gulf of • It was incorporated in March 2019 and was set up to
Mexico. take high technology space-related activities in India.
• Oceans are a key climate regulator. They absorb heat • Under the new space policy reforms announced by
and drive weather patterns. the Government of India in June 2020, NSIL is to
• Due to hotter oceans and heat waves, marine species undertake operational satellite missions on a “demand-
like fish and whales are disturbed because they move in driven” model.
search of cooler waters. As a result, the food chain is
disturbed. 897. Recently seen in news Luna-25 mission is associated
with which of the following country?
896. In August as per report NewSpace India Limited A. Australia
collaborated with ________ to help the direct-to-home B. Japan
(DTH) service provider start beaming of television C. Russia
channels from commercially-dedicated Gsat-24 satellite. D. UAE
A. Reliance Ltd E. Saudi Arabia
B. Adani Green Answer: C
C. Infosys • Russia will launch its first moon lander Luna-25 on 11
D. Tata Play August.
E. Wipro • The Luna-25 mission will take off from the Vostochny
Answer: D Cosmodrome, which is a Russian spaceport.
• NewSpace India Limited (NSIL), a Central Public • It is part of an international race to explore the
Sector Enterprise (CPSE) under the Department of Space Moon's South Pole. It is a region believed to contain
(DOS), collaborated with Tata Play and launched GSAT- significant amounts of ice that could potentially support
24 satellite in June 2022. human habitation in the future.
• Tata Play commenced the use of this satellite, now in • This launch has been planned just four weeks after
its orbital position, starting August 7, 2023. India sent its Chandrayaan-3 lunar lander into space.
• The inauguration ceremony was held at Tata Play’s • Despite the close timing, the Russian space agency
Broadcast Centre in New Delhi. Roscosmos has assured that there will be no interference
• Currently Tata Play has 600 channels. With the between the two missions as they have different landing
inclusion of ISRO satellite, it would be able to transmit zones planned.
900 channels benefitting the general public. • The Luna-25 spacecraft is weighing 1.8 tonnes and
• It is the culmination of Prime Minister Narendra carries 31 kg of scientific equipment.
Modi’s vision of privatisation and establishment of NSIL, • It will spend five to seven days in lunar orbit before
which for the first time launched a demand based landing at one of three possible landing sites near the
satellite in collaboration with Tata Play. South Pole.
• Gsat-24, a 24-Ku band communication satellite • Its primary task will be to collect rock samples from
weighing 4,180 kg, was launched from Kourou, French depths of up to 15 cm to test for the presence of frozen
Guiana on June 22, 2022 after the satellite components water.
were sent to the spaceport using C-17 Globemaster • The launch of Luna-25 is an important milestone for
aircraft. Russia, which has restarted its lunar exploration
• It is configured on ISRO's proven I-3k Bus with a program after a gap of nearly 50 years.
mission life of 15 years.
• NewSpace India Limited (NSIL) NewSpace India 898. In July as per report ________opposition parties
Limited headquartered in Bengaluru is a Central Public have formed INDIA to fight the Lok Sabha election.
Sector Enterprise (CPSE). A. 22
B. 24
C. 25 • They celebrate the festival of Teej during Shravanam
D. 26 (in the month of august). In this festival young
E. 28 unmarried Banjara girls pray for a good groom.
Answer: D • Fire dance and Chari are the traditional dance forms
• 26 opposition parties have formed INDIA to fight the of the banjara people.
Lok Sabha election.
• INDIA is the short form for Indian National 900. Consider the following statement regarding Mission
Developmental Inclusive Alliance. Vatsalya Scheme. Which of the following statement is
• The Congress National President Mallikarjuna Kharge correct?
made this announcement after the meeting of A. Ministry of Women and Child Development is
opposition parties in Bengaluru on 18 July 2023. implementing a Centrally Sponsored Scheme “Mission
• He said that the INDIA alliance will take on NDA Vatsalya” erstwhile Child Protection Services (CPS)
during the 2024 Lok Sabha election. Scheme.
• He said that the next meeting will be held in Mumbai. B. The scheme was launched in 2021 by merging three
In the Mumbai meeting, a decision will be taken to form schemes for children in need of protection:- Juvenile
an 11 Member Coordination Committee. Under this Justice Programme, Integrated Program and Child Home
committee, the Lok Sabha election will be fought. Support Scheme.
• A Convener will be elected among the 11 Committee C. The scheme is available for girls up to 18 years of age
members. A Secretariat will be established in Delhi. and care centers for young women up to 23 years of age.
• This was the second conclave of Opposition parties. D. Only 2 and 3
The first Opposition meeting was held in Patna on June E. All of the above are correct
23. It was attended by the leaders of only 15 parties. Answer: E
• The Ministry of Women and Child Development is
899. Recently as per report a Guinness world record was implementing a Centrally Sponsored Scheme “Mission
created for the ‘largest display of Lambani items’ at Vatsalya” erstwhile Child Protection Services (CPS)
_________. Scheme, since 2009-10 for the welfare and rehabilitation
A. Ahemdabad of children.
B. Surat • The objective of Mission Vatsalya is to secure a
C. Hampi healthy and happy childhood for each and every child in
D. Lucknow India, ensure opportunities to enable them to discover
E. Guwahati their full potential and assist them in flourishing in all
Answer: C respects, in a sustained manner, foster a sensitive,
• As part of the third G20 culture working group (CWG) supportive and synchronized ecosystem for development
meeting in Hampi, a Guinness world record was created of children.
for the ‘largest display of Lambani items. • Prior to the year 2009, the Ministry of Women and
• Over 450 women artisans and cultural practitioners Child Development implemented three schemes for
from Lambani community inhabiting Karnataka came children in need of protection:- Juvenile Justice
together to create embroidered patches with Sandur Programme, Integrated Program and Child Home
Lambani embroidery, creating 1,755 patchwork pieces. Support Scheme.
• The Lambani embroidery is an intricate form of • In the year 2010, these were merged into the
textile embellishment characterised by colourful threads, 'Integrated Child Protection Scheme'.
mirror-work and stitch patterns practised in several • In the year 2017 it was renamed as "Child Protection
villages of Karnataka such as Sandur, Keri Tanda, Service Scheme" and again in the year 2021 it was
Mariyammanahalli, Kadirampur, Sitaram Tanda, Bijapur renamed as Mission Vatsalya.
and Kamalapur. • Child Welfare and Protection Committee (CW&PC) at
village level will identify the children who are eligible for
support likely to be in difficult circumstances, orphans,
street children etc. These children will be facilitated • The state government has been distributing sets of
under the sponsorship component of Mission Vatsalya kitchen equipment, comprising all required utensils, to
Scheme. schools.
• Sponsorship facilities will be provided based on the • So far, 52,000 schools have received the sets. Schools
recommendation of the Child Welfare Committee (CWC) were previously required to purchase their own utensils.
and approval from the Sponsorship and Foster Care
Approval Committee (SFCAC). 902. Recently, the Ministry of Education (MoE) has
• Financial support is provided to children leaving a released the Performance Grading Index for Districts
Child Care Institution upon turning 18 years old. (PGI-D) as a combined report for 2020-21 and 2021-22
• This support helps them reintegrate into society and which assesses the performance of school education
become self-dependent. system at the district level.
• Assistance may be extended from the age of 18 years As per report how many district has made into Ati-
up to 21 years, with the possibility of extension up to 23 Uttam category for 2021-22?
years. A. 54
B. 51
901. In July as per report which of the following state C. 62
government has introduced e-Shikshakosh app to mark D. 64
the attendance of students and teachers? E. 71
A. Bihar Answer: B
B. Jharkhand • Recently, the Ministry of Education (MoE) has
C. West Bengal released the Performance Grading Index for Districts
D. Karnataka (PGI-D) as a combined report for 2020-21 and 2021-22
E. Uttar Pradesh which assesses the performance of school education
Answer: A system at the district level.
• Recently, the reforms were introduced by the Bihar • The report has been divided into 10 grades under
Education Department regarding a new app to mark the which districts are categorised, with
attendance of students and teachers; using Google • ‘Daksh’ being the highest grade (above 90%),
Sheets to record the number of students present for followed by Utkarsh (81%-90%); Ati-Uttam (71%-80%);
midday meals; directing employees at the Patna • Uttam (61%-70%); Prachesta-1 (51%-60%); Prachesta-
headquarters not to wear jeans and T-shirts; and 2 (41%-50%); Prachesta-3 (31%-40%);
conducting multiple inspections at schools. • Akanshi-1 (21% to 30%); and Akanshi-2 (11% to 20%).
• While previously, the number of students present at • The lowest performance grade is Akanshi-3, for
midday meals was to be recorded via daily phone calls to districts that score less than 10%.
block headquarters, teachers must now enter the • Performance of States: While none of the districts
numbers in Google Sheets besides confirming it over the were able to earn the top two grades — Daksh and
phone. Utkarsh.
• Midday meal ration allocation is calculated on the • About 121 districts were graded as Ati-Uttam for
basis of the number of students present. 2020-21, though this number fell by more than half in
• The department has introduced the e-Shikshakosh 2021-22, with just 51 districts making the grade.
app through which the attendance of teachers and • Further attesting to the pandemic effect, while 2020-
students can be marked. 21 had 86 districts under Prachesta-2 (sixth-highest
• The system of physical attendance will continue as grade), this number rose to 117 in 2021-22.
usual and the numbers are expected to match with the • Among districts graded as ‘Ati-Uttam’ for 2020-22
attendance marked on the app. were Krishna and Guntur in Andhra Pradesh;
• This is aimed at addressing complaints regarding the Chandigarh; Dadra Nagar Haveli; several districts in
fudging of teachers’ and students’ attendance. Delhi, Karnataka, and Kerala; Jagatsinghpur, Cuttack,
Bharat, Ganjam, Puri, and Khurdha in Odisha; Siddipet in
Telangana; Valsad, Junagadh and Sabar Kantha in centers and Kanha Gaushala housed about 140,000 and
Gujarat, etc. 86,000 cows, respectively.
• In 2021-22, Chandigarh retained its ‘Ati-Uttam
status’, so did some districts in Delhi and Gujarat. 904. In July as per report ____________state
• The report is expected to help State education government has launched Mobile-Dost-App in sync with
departments identify gaps at the district level and the vision of Apka-Mobile-Hamara-Daftar to digitally
improve their performance in a decentralised manner. empowered state.
• There are indicator-wise PGI scores that show the A. Bihar
areas where a district needs to improve. B. Jharkhand
C. Uttar Pradesh
903. Recently as per report ___________ state D. Karnataka
government is planning to set up micro diaries of Indian E. Jammu and Kashmir
cow breeds. Answer: E
A. Madhya Praesh • Mobile-Dost-App has been launched in Jammu and
B. Kerala Kashmir.
C. Tamil Nadu • Mobile-Dost-App has been launched in sync with the
D. Uttar Pradesh vision of Apka-Mobile-Hamara-Daftar.
E. Karnataka • Apka-Mobile-Hamara-Daftar is a pioneering initiative
Answer: D for the mobile-based delivery of citizen-centric services
• Uttar Pradesh government is planning to set up micro in the Jammu and Kashmir.
diaries of Indian cow breeds. • The App signifies a step toward a digitally
• The micro dairies will be set up to promote empowered Jammu & Kashmir.
indigenous industries, crops, and livestock. • With the launch of this App, the administration aims
• The aim of the scheme is to increase milk production to enhance accessibility and convenience.
and preserve indigenous cow breeds such as Sahiwal, • The Mobile-Dost-App aims at empowering the people
Tharparkar, and Gir and raise the income of of J & K by providing a platform to access all the
economically weak cattle herders. Government to Citizen Services (G2C) directly from their
• Under the Nand Baba Milk Mission, Rs. 40,000 will be mobiles.
provided for the purchase of indigenous cow breeds. The
Nand Baba Milk Mission has the aim of augmenting 905. Recently seen in news Numaligarh Refinery which
dairy production. has been upgraded from ‘Schedule B’ to ‘Schedule A’
• This subsidy is applicable on the purchase of a category enterprise by the government is located in
maximum of two indigenous cow breeds per cattle which of the following state?
owner. A. Karnataka
• The financial help will cover the cost of B. Uttar Pradesh
transportation of cattle, transit insurance, and animal C. Assam
insurance. D. West Bengal
• In addition, the government will give incentives to E. Jharkhand
indigenous cow rearers under the Mukhyamantri Answer: C
Pragatisheel Pashupalak Protsahan Yojana, subject to a • Numaligarh Refinery in Assam has been upgraded
maximum of two cows of the indigenous breed. from ‘Schedule B’ to ‘Schedule A’ category enterprise by
• The government has spent a total of about Rs 1,700 the government.
crore to provide shelter to over 11 lakh stray cattle, • The upgradation Numaligarh Refinery has been
mostly cows. notified by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.
• Over 900,000 cows were kept in about 6,000 • The upgradation of Numaligarh Refinery will make it
temporary cow shelters in UP, while 280 cow protection eligible for achieving the status of Navratna.
• It will allow Numaligarh Refinery to undertake more of notified calamities like cyclone, drought, earthquake,
complex projects. fire, flood, tsunami, hailstorm, landslide, avalanche,
• Now, Numaligarh Refinery can take more speedy cloud burst, pest attack and frost & cold wave.
decisions in creating joint ventures, Strategic • Allocation of SDRF funds to the States is based on
partnerships and special-purpose vehicles multiple factors like past expenditure, area, population,
• A Navratna company has the autonomy to invest up and disaster risk index.
to Rs 1000 crore without approval from the central • Based on the 15th Finance Commission
government. recommendations, the Central Government has
• Numaligarh Refinery is one of the top 20CPSE in India allocated Rs. 1,28,122.40 crore for SDRF for years 2021-
both in terms of sales revenue and profitability. 22 to 2025-26. Out of this amount, the Central
• Numaligarh Refinery is the largest refinery in Government’s share is Rs.98,080.80 crore. The Central
northeast India and has a capacity of 3 million metric Government had already released Rs. 34,140.00 crore
tonnes per annum. before the current release.
• It is currently implementing projects of investments
of Rs 35000 crores in the region. 907. In July as per report Union Home Minister Amit
Shah addressed the National Mega Conclave on Farmer
906. In July as per report the Department of Expenditure, Producer Organisations (FPO) in the cooperative sector.
Ministry of Finance released an amount of Rs. 7,532 Consider the following statement regarding Primary
crores to __________ State Governments for the Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS). Which of the
respective State Disaster Response Funds (SDRF). following statement is incorrect?
A. 18 A. PACS are village level cooperative credit societies that
B. 16 serve as the last link in a three-tier cooperative credit
C. 14 structure.
D. 22 B. It is headed by the Distric Cooperative Banks (SCB) at
E. 26 the state level.
Answer: D C. PACSs provide short-term, and medium-term
• Recently, the Department of Expenditure, Ministry of agricultural loans to the farmers for the various
Finance released an amount of Rs. 7,532 crores to 22 agricultural and farming activities.
State Governments for the respective State Disaster D. Government has announced to set up ten thousand
Response Funds (SDRF). FPOs and the target is to achieve this by the year 2027.
• It has been constituted in each State under Section 48 E. Union Minister released an action plan for the
(1) (a) of the Disaster Management Act, 2005. formation of 1,100 new FPOs by Primary Agricultural
• The fund is the primary fund available with State Credit Societies (PACS).
Governments for responses to notified disasters. Answer: B
• The Central Government contributes 75% to the SDRF • Union Home Minister Amit Shah recently addressed
in general States and 90% in North-East and Himalayan the National Mega Conclave on Farmer Producer
States. Organisations (FPO) in the cooperative sector.
• The annual Central contribution is released in two • At the gathering, he said that agriculture, animal
equal installments as per the recommendation of the husbandry and fisheries sectors are the backbone of the
Finance Commission. country’s economy and strengthening them will
• As per the guidelines, the funds are released on strengthen the country’s economy.
receipt of Utilisation Certificate of the amount released • The three sectors together make up 18 per cent of
in the earlier instalment and receipt of a report from the India’s GDP, but are never discussed in the country.
State Government on the activities undertaken from • Unlike manufacturing, if agriculture, animal
SDRF. husbandry and fisheries sectors are strengthened
• The fund is to be used only for meeting the through cooperatives, then employment opportunities
expenditure for providing immediate relief to the victims will increase along with the GDP, he said.
• On the occasion, the Union Minister also released an Answer: E
action plan for the formation of 1,100 new FPOs by • The new Integrated Terminal Building of Port Blair
Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS). Veer Savarkar International Airport will be inaugurated
• He said a new hybrid model should be designed so by PM Modi through video conferencing.
that a complete system for information exchange, profit • The new building has been constructed at a cost of Rs
sharing and marketing based on the arrangement 710 crore. This airport will play a major role in increasing
between PACS and FPOs can be put in place. connectivity to Andaman and Nicobar.
• PACS are village level cooperative credit societies • The new terminal building of the airport has been
that serve as the last link in a three-tier cooperative constructed in an area of 40 thousand 8 hundred square
credit structure headed by the State Cooperative Banks meters. Every year 50 thousand passengers will be able
(SCB) at the state level. to travel from here.
• Credit from the SCBs is transferred to the District • An apron has been constructed at the airport at a
Central Cooperative Banks (DCCBs), that operate at the cost of Rs 80 crore which is suitable for two aircraft of
district level. Boeing 767-400 and Airbus 321 type.
• The DCCBs work with PACS, which deal directly with • With its construction, the airport will be able to park
farmers. 10 aircraft at a time.
• Since these are cooperative bodies, individual farmers • The shape of this airport is based on the structure
are members of the PACS, and office-bearers are elected representing the sea and the island.
from within them. A village can have multiple PACS. • The new airport terminal building has many facilities
• PACSs provide short-term, and medium-term that will reduce power consumption.
agricultural loans to the farmers for the various • Along with this, arrangements have also been made
agricultural and farming activities. to get maximum natural sunlight so that the use of
• The first PACS was formed in 1904. artificial lighting system in the building is reduced.
• Currently, there are more than 1,00,000 PACS in the • Apart from this, L.E.D. Lighting has also been used. To
country with a huge member base of more than 13 crore save water, an underground arrangement has been
farmers. However, only 63,000 of them are functional. made to store rain water here.
• The Union Minister of Cooperation said that the • A plant has also been installed to clean the dirty
government has announced to set up ten thousand water and use it again.
FPOs and the target is to achieve this by the year 2027.
• He said the Central government has allocated 6 909. In July as per report _____________ state
thousand 900 crore rupees to achieve this goal. government launched the 'Gajah Kotha' campaign to
• Mr. Shah said that under the leadership of Prime reduce the increasing number of human-elephant
Minister Narendra Modi, there has been an increase of conflicts (HEC).
55 percent in Minimum Support Price of Paddy and 51 A. Manipur
percent in MSP of wheat in 10 years. B. West Bengal
• He highlighted that the Modi government is the first C. Meghalaya
government after independence which has fixed at least D. Nagaland
50 percent more profit than the cost incurred by the E. Assam
farmers. Answer: E
• Assam government launched the 'Gajah Kotha'
908. Recently seen in news Veer Savarkar International campaign.
Airport is located in __________. • To reduce the increasing number of human-elephant
A. Lakshdweep conflicts (HEC), the 'Gajah Kotha' campaign has been
B. Sikkim launched by the Assam government.
C. Ladakh • This initiative will target human-elephant conflict
D. Jammu & Kashmir villages in Assam and educate people about elephant
E. Andaman and Nicobar
behaviour and ecology and cultural connection of the (Protection) Act, 1986, appeals may be filed with the
region. National Green Tribunal within 60 days of the order.
• Aaranyak and the British Asian Trust in association • The idea behind the bill is to enhance the ‘ease of
with the Assam Forest Department will implement this living’ and the ‘ease of doing business’ in India.
initiative. • The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill was
• With the help of Scientists, artists, educators and introduced by Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush
conservationists insightful and engaging awareness Goyal in the Lok Sabha on December 22 last year. After
materials for the exhibition will be created. that, the bill was referred to a joint committee of
• So far, around 1200 HEC-affected people in eastern parliament.
Assam have been reached out to through ‘Gajah Kotha’ • The committee has held detailed discussions with all
campaigns. the 19 ministries or departments along with the
• Aaranyak collaborated with other local organizations legislative department and department of legal affairs.
to mobilize community members. It adopted its report in March this year, which was laid
before Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha that month.
910. In July as per report Union Cabinet approved • The Acts which are being amended include The Drugs
amendments to the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of and Cosmetics Act, 1940; Public Debt Act, 1944;
Provisions) Bill, 2023, which seeks to decriminalise minor Pharmacy Act, 1948; Cinematograph Act, 1952;
offences by amending 183 provisions in _________ Acts Copyright Act, 1957; Patents Act, 1970; Environment
with a view to promote ease of business. (Protection) Act, 1986; and Motor Vehicles Act, 1988.
A. 51 • The other laws include Trade Marks Act, 1999;
B. 42 Railways Act, 1989; Information Technology Act, 2000;
C. 44 Prevention of Money-laundering Act, 2002; Food Safety
D. 48 and Standards Act, 2006; Legal Metrology Act, 2009; and
E. 46 Factoring Regulation Act, 2011.
Answer: B
• Union Cabinet have approved amendments to the Jan 911. Consider the following statement regarding Global
Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2023, which Food Regulators Summit, 2023. Which of the following
seeks to decriminalise minor offences by amending 183 statement is incorrect?
provisions in 42 Acts with a view to promote ease of A. India will host Global Food Regulators Summit, 2023
business. in New Delhi.
• It proposes to amend 183 provisions across 42 Acts B. This summit will be organized by the Food Safety and
administered by 19 ministries. Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) under the aegis of
• For example, under the Agricultural Produce (Grading the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
and Marking) Act, 1937, counterfeiting grade C. For the first time, this summit is being held outside
designation marks is punishable with imprisonment of Rome, Italy.
up to three years and a fine of up to five thousand D. The common regulator platform ‘SaNGRAH’ (Safe
rupees. The Bill replaces this with a penalty of eight lakh food for Nations: Global food Regulatory Authorities
rupees. Handbook) will be also launched at the summit.
• The bill also proposed that the fines and penalties E. All of the above are correct
provided under various provisions should be increased Answer: E
by 10 per cent of the minimum amount of fine or penalty • India will host Global Food Regulators Summit, 2023
after the expiry of every three years after the bill turns in New Delhi.
into a law. • This summit will be organized by the Food Safety and
• The Bill also specifies the appellate mechanisms for Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) under the aegis of
any person aggrieved by the order passed by an the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
adjudicating officer. For instance, in the Environment • For the first time, this summit is being held outside
Rome, Italy.
• India is planning to launch ‘food-o-copoeia’ which is a provided the best air travel services to customers
collection of safety and quality regulations for each food between Islamabad and London.
category. • Virgin Atlantic, a trading name of Virgin Atlantic
• A Common Digital Dashboard will be also launched. It Airways Limited and Virgin Atlantic International
will act as a unified portal for food-related regulations Limited, is a British airline with its head office in
and norms. Crawley, England.
• The common regulator platform ‘SaNGRAH’ (Safe
food for Nations: Global food Regulatory Authorities 913. In July as per report the Union Minister of State for
Handbook) will be also launched at the summit. Skill Development and Entrepreneurship flagged off the
• It is a comprehensive database of Food Regulatory first batch of Namda Art products for export to the
Authorities from 76 countries. United Kingdom (UK).
• The logo of the summit has been launched by Health Namda Art is related to which of the following state?
Minister Mansukh Mandaviya. A. Manipur
• The Global Food Regulators Summit, 2023 will be B. Assam
organized on 20 and 21 July. C. Jammu and Kashmir
• This event will give a platform for participants to D. Bihar
deliberate on food safety and regulatory aspects. E. Jharkhand
• It will also help in understanding compliance Answer: C
requirements and best practices, experiences and • Recently, the Union Minister of State for Skill
success stories will be exchanged during the summit. Development and Entrepreneurship flagged off the first
• In this summit, Food regulators from more than 40 batch of Namda Art products for export to the United
countries will participate along with representatives Kingdom (UK).
from 30 International Organizations and 25 • The Namda craft of Kashmir is being successfully
International Research Institutes and universities. revived under a Skill India’s Pilot Project as part of the
• Many global organizations and institutes like World Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY), with
Health Organization (WHO), CODEX, the Food and nearly 2,200 candidates from across six districts of the
Agriculture Organization (FAO), Federal Institute for Risk state, receiving training in the dying art form.
Assessment (BfR) (Germany), etc. will participate in the • The project sets a great example of the public-private
summit. partnership (PPP) model in the field of skill development,
as it is being implemented in collaboration with local
912. In July as per report Virgin Atlantic has ended its industry partners.
operations in ________. • The project has successfully trained individuals across
A. India six districts of Kashmir, namely Srinagar, Baramulla,
B. Pakistan Ganderbal, Bandipora, Budgam, and Anantnag.
C. Afghanistan • It is said to have begun in the 16th century when
D. Ukraine Mughal Emperor Akbar wanted to get a covering for his
E. Russia horses to protect them from the cold.
Answer: B • It was introduced by a Sufi saint named Shah-e-
• Virgin Atlantic has ended its operations in Pakistan Hamdan to Kashmiris.
with the last flight of the British carrier taking off from • Namda is a type of traditional Kashmiri felted carpet
Islamabad to London's Heathrow Airport. that is created using sheep wool and has colourful hand
• The British airline began its operations at Islamabad embroidery.
airport in December 2020 with seven weekly flights. • The distinct feature of this Kashmiri craft is that wool
• The airline initially operated four flights to is felted and not woven.
Manchester and three to Heathrow Airport.
• Later, the airline reduced its services to only three 914. Recently as per report ___________will open a
weekly flights to Heathrow Airport. Virgin Atlantic campus in Abu Dhabi, UAE.
A. IIT Kanpur • In the first leg of his tour, Prime Minister Modi will
B. IIT Madras reach Paris at the invitation of the President of France,
C. IIT Ropar Emmanuel Macron.
D. IIT Delhi • He will be the Guest of Honour at the Bastille Day
E. IIT Bombay Parade. The Indian tri-services are participating in the
Answer: D Parade.
• The Indian Institute of Technology, Delhi will open a • A 269-member contingent of the Indian Armed Forces
campus in Abu Dhabi. will march alongside their French counterparts.
• An MoU has been signed between the Ministry of • PM Modi will also meet with the Prime Minister of
Education and the Abu Dhabi Department of Education France as well as the Presidents of the Senate and the
and Knowledge. National Assembly of France.
• It will be the IIT’s second international campus. • This year is being celebrated as the 25th anniversary
Earlier, IIT Madras has signed MoU to set up a campus in of the India - France Strategic Partnership.
Zanzibar. • On the second leg of his visit, Prime Minister will
• The IIT-Delhi campus in UAE will strengthen the reach Abu Dhabi on 15th July.
partnership between India and UAE. • Prime Minister’s visit to UAE will be an opportunity to
• IIT-Delhi is very soon planning to launch Short courses identify ways to enhance cooperation between both
and executive programmes for the industry. countries
• IIT Delhi campus in Abu Dhabi will launch courses in • Bastille Day military parade is organized every year
different areas such as Energy and Sustainability, on 14 July in Paris.
Artificial Intelligence, Computer Science and Engineering • It is also known as Fete Nationale Francaise. It mark
and Healthcare. the beginning of the French Revolution.
• The decision to set up an international IIT campus in • The first Bastille Day parade was organized in 1780.
the UAE was announced in August 2022.
• IIT Delhi campus in Abu Dhabi will support the 916. Recently seen in news Chashma-V nuclear power
academic, research and innovation ecosystem through plant is located in which of the following country?
collaboration with different universities around the A. Pakistan
world. B. Russia
• IIT Delhi campus in Abu Dhabi will launch its C. Ukraine
academic programmes of Bachelor, Master and PhD in D. UAE
2024. E. Saudi Arabia
Answer: A
915. PM Modi will be the chief guest at the French • Pakistan’s Prime Minister Shehbaz Sharif launched
Bastille Day Parade. the construction of a 1,200-megawatt Chinese-designed
This year is being celebrated as the _________ nuclear energy project, which will be built at a cost of
anniversary of the India - France Strategic Partnership. $3.5 billion as part of the government efforts to
A. 50th generate more clean energy in the Islamic nation.
B. 75th • The ceremony marking the start of the project comes
C. 25th less than a month after Pakistan signed an agreement
D. 100th with China’s National Nuclear Corporation Overseas in
E. 20th the capital, Islamabad, to construct a Hualong One
Answer: C reactor — a third-generation nuclear reactor and is
• PM Modi will be the chief guest at the French Bastille considered safer because of the latest security features.
Day Parade. • The nuclear power plant known as Chashma-5 will be
• Prime Minister Narendra Modi will be on a 3-day constructed at a site along the left embankment of the
official visit to France and UAE from 13th July. fast-flowing Indus River in Mianwali, a district in the
eastern Punjab province.
• The site is already home to four Chinese-supplied of specific threats; carry out harmonized controls at their
nuclear power plants that were built in recent decades. external borders, based on clearly defined criteria.
• Pakistan got its first nuclear power plant from
Canada and currently generates only 8% of its electricity 918. Consider the following statement regarding
from nuclear power plants. It plans to increase that National Multidimensional Poverty Index. Which of the
figure to 20% by 2030. following statement is incorrect?
A. NITI Aayog released a report titled ‘National
917. In July as per report India has became the Multidimensional Poverty Index: A Progress Review
___________ country with the highest rejection rate for 2023’.
the Schengen Visa last year. B. As per this report, 13.5 crore people moved out of
A. 3rd multidimensional poverty between 2015-16 and 2019-
B. 2nd 21.
C. 4th C. This report is based on the baseline report of India's
D. 1st MPI launched in November 2021.
E. 5th D. The National MPI tracks deprivations across
Answer: B dimensions of health, education, and standard of living
• In 2022, Indians reportedly spent over Rs 87 crores based on 12 SDG-aligned indicators.
trying to get a Schengen Visa for their Europe trips. E. Bihar registered the largest decline in number of poor.
However, as per new data released, India become the Around 3.43 crore people came out of multidimensional
second country with the highest rejection rate for the poverty.
Schengen Visa last year. Answer: E
• However, on the list of most rejections, Algeria has • NITI Aayog released a report titled ‘National
secured the top position, which a rejection rate of 45.8 Multidimensional Poverty Index: A Progress Review
percent. 2023’.
• It is an official document mandatory for some non- • It has been released by Suman Bery, Vice-Chairman,
Europeans to travel to all the 27 countries which are part NITI Aayog.
of the Schengen area. • As per this report, 13.5 crore people moved out of
• Once granted, this visa allows the traveller to cross multidimensional poverty between 2015-16 and 2019-
the borders of the other member-states without going 21.
through identity checks at the border. • This second edition of the National Multidimensional
• This type of visa is issued by one of the Schengen Poverty Index (MPI) shows India's progress in reducing
States and allows you to visit any of the Schengen multidimensional poverty between both the surveys,
countries for a duration of up to 90 days in total within NFHS-4 (2015-16) and NFHS-5 (2019-21).
180 days. • This report is based on the baseline report of India's
• The Schengen Area, or Schengen Countries Zone, is a MPI launched in November 2021.
group of 27 European nations that have abolished their • The National MPI tracks deprivations across
internal borders, for the free and unrestricted movement dimensions of health, education, and standard of living
of people. based on 12 SDG-aligned indicators.
• Members of this area include: 23 of the 27 EU • Nutrition, child and adolescent mortality, maternal
member states (except for Bulgaria, Cyprus, Ireland and health, years of schooling, school attendance, cooking
Romania) and all members of the European Free Trade fuel, sanitation, drinking water, electricity, housing,
Association (Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway and assets, and bank accounts are the 12 indicators of SDG.
Switzerland). • As per the report, India’s multidimensionally poor
• Switzerland, Iceland, and Norway are not in the EU percentage has declined from 24.85% in 2015-16 to
but are inside of the Schengen Area. 14.96% in 2019-2021.
• Being part of this area means that countries: do not • Poverty declined in rural areas was faster as
carry out checks at their internal borders, except in cases compared to urban areas.
• In rural areas, the share declined from 32.6% to
19.3%, while urban areas reported a drop from 8.7% to 919. In July as per report ____________has signed an
5.3%. The decline was the sharpest in Bihar (from 51.9% agreement with Abu Dhabi Gas Liquefaction Company
to 33.8%), Madhya Pradesh (from 36.6% to 20.6%), and Ltd (ADNOC LNG) for long term supplies of liquified
UP (from 37.7% to 22.9%). natural gas (LNG).
• However, in absolute numbers Uttar Pradesh A. NTPC Limited
registered the largest decline in number of poor. Around B. Bharat Petroleum Corporation
3.43 crore people came out of multidimensional poverty. C. Oil & Natural Gas Corporation
• This report estimates poverty for 36 States and Union D. Hindustan Petroleum Corporation
Territories and 707 Administrative Districts. E. Indian Oil Corporation
• The fastest reduction in the proportion of Answer: E
multidimensional poor has been registered in Uttar • State-run Indian Oil Corporation Ltd (IOCL) has signed
Pradesh, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, and an agreement with Abu Dhabi Gas Liquefaction
Rajasthan. Company Ltd (ADNOC LNG) for long term supplies of
• The MPI value has nearly halved from 0.117 to 0.066 liquified natural gas (LNG).
between 2015-16 and 2019-21. The intensity of poverty • The companies have executed a head of agreement
has reduced from 47% to 44%. (HoA) to establish a long term LNG sale and purchase
• However, the availability of cooking fuel was the agreement (SPA), said people in the know of the
biggest area of deprivation, with 43.9% population developments.
being deprived on this front, followed by housing • Under this long-term contract, ADNOC LNG would be
(41.4%). supplying LNG to Indian Oil starting from 2026 for next
• The most remarkable improvement was in sanitation, 14 years, till 2039 for an annual volume up to 1.2 million
which had 51.9% deprivation in 2015-16, but is down to metric tonnes per annum (MMTPA).
30.1% as of 2019-21. • In another development, IndianOil and TotalEnergies
• Government focus on improving access to sanitation, Gas and Power Ltd are set to execute a HoA to establish
nutrition, cooking fuel, financial inclusion, drinking a long term LNG sale and purchase agreement (SPA).
water, and electricity has led to significant • Under this long-term contract valid for 10 years
improvement. starting 2026, TotalEnergies would supply annually upto
• All 12 parameters of the MPI have shown 0.8 MMT LNG to IndianOil. This would be the first Long
improvement. Term LNG contract for TotalEnergies in India.
• The UNDP-OPHI index had already updated its • Gazprom Marketing and Trading Singapore (GMTS),
calculations for India based on the NFHS 2019-21 last earlier a subsidiary of Russian gas giant Gazprom, had
year and had claimed that as many as 415 million agreed to supply GAIL (India) Ltd 2.5 million tonnes of
Indians moved out of poverty in the 15-year period LNG every year for 20 years starting 2018-19. The supply
between the NFHS of 2005-06 and the NFHS of 2019-21. began in June 2018 but remained disrupted for a year
• The data comes at a time when the country is after the Russian invasion of Ukraine.
witnessing a renewed debate on the quality of data and • This forced the Indian state-run company to buy
statistics in the country. Amid the ongoing debate, the expensive spot cargoes, prompting the government to
Centre last week constituted a new internal oversight look for newer LNG sources.
mechanism for official data, revamping a Standing
Committee on Economic Statistics (SCES) set up in late 920. Consider the following statement regarding
2019. Standing Committee on Statistics (SCoS). Which of the
• The statistics ministry said SCES will now be replaced following statement is incorrect?
by SCoS with Pronab Sen as its chairman, which would A. Standing Committee on Economic Statistics (SCES) set
have a broader mandate to review the framework and up in 2019 will be replaced by a Standing Committee on
results of all surveys conducted under the aegis of the Statistics (SCoS).
National Statistical Office.
B. Pronab Sen, India’s first chief statistician, has been 921. In July as per report ___________ bank has
named as the chairman of the new committee. inaugurated its IFSC Banking Unit (IBU) in the
C. SCES was responsible for reviewing economic International Financial Services Centre at GIFT SEZ area
indicators related to the industrial sector, the services in Gandhinagar on 12 July.
sector, and the labour force statistics. A. ICICI Bank
D. This new panel will have 10 members and four non- B. Bandhan Bank
official members who are eminent academics. C. Bank of India
E. All of the above are correct D. HDFC Bank
Answer: E E. Central Bank of India
• The government has established a new oversight Answer: C
mechanism to review data of NSO. • On 12 July, the Bank of India inaugurated its IFSC
• Standing Committee on Economic Statistics (SCES) set Banking Unit (IBU) in the International Financial Services
up in 2019 will be replaced by a Standing Committee on Centre at GIFT SEZ area in Gandhinagar.
Statistics (SCoS). • BOI has targeted to achieve $1 billion in business by
• Pronab Sen, India’s first chief statistician, has been March 2024 and $4 billion in the subsequent three years.
named as the chairman of the new committee. • The IBU will provide services such as External
• SCES was responsible for reviewing economic Commercial Borrowings (ECB), trade finance facilities,
indicators related to the industrial sector, the services foreign currency loans, syndication loans, and foreign
sector, and the labour force statistics. currency deposit accounts-current to various customers
• The SCoS will have a broader mandate to review the permitted as per IFSCA guidelines.
framework and results of all surveys being conducted • BOI’s overseas branches contribute to nearly 15 per
under the National Statistical Office (NSO). cent of global deposits and 16 per cent of global
• SCoS jurisdiction will be beyond economic data and advances book.
advise the Ministry on technical aspects for all surveys. • Bank of India has a presence in 15 foreign countries
• This new panel will have 10 members and four non- through 21 overseas branches, 4 overseas subsidiaries,
official members who are eminent academics. one joint venture, and one representative office.
• The Ministry of Statistics and Programme • In addition, BoI also inaugurated the NRI Help Center
Implementation (MOSPI) issued notification regarding (NRI HC) located in the premises of the Centralized
this on 13 July. Foreign Exchange Back Office (FEBO) in the domestic
• SCoS work includes the identification of data gaps sector of GIFT City.
that need to be filled by official statistics.
• It has also been given authority to explore the use of 922. Recently as per report ____________ can now be
administrative statistics to improve data outcomes. made a nominee for government saving schemes such as
• The MoSPI came into existence as an Independent PPF, NSC and post offices savings.
Ministry in 1999 after the merger of the Department of A. Minor Student
Statistics and the Department of Programme B. Senior Citizen
Implementation. C. NRI
• The Ministry has two wings, one relating to Statistics D. Business Entity
and the other Programme Implementation. E. None of the above
• The Statistics Wing called the NSO consists of the Answer: C
Central Statistical Office (CSO), the Computer center and • A non-resident Indian (NRI) can now be made a
the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO). nominee for government saving schemes such as PPF,
• Besides these two wings, there is National Statistical NSC and post offices savings, said the Finance Ministry in
Commission (NSC was created through a resolution) and a notification.
one autonomous Institute - Indian Statistical Institute - • Besides, the government permitted applicants to
an institute of National importance. make changes to their names or surnames.
• These changes are part of list of amendments to the • If the amount is more than ₹5 lakh, the payment will
Government Savings Promotion General Rules, as be made on the basis of will or letter of succession along
notified by the Finance Ministry. with other documents.
• The rules cover various schemes provided under
Government Savings Promotion Act, 1873 such as Public 923. In July as per report State Bank of India reportedly
Provident Fund (PPF), National Saving Certificate (NSC), raised funds worth _________ crore through the issue of
Sukanya Samriddhi, Senior Citizens Savings Scheme, Additional Tier – 1, or perpetual, bonds at a coupon of
Mahila Samman Nidhi Post Office Time Deposits, Kisan 8.10%.
Vikas Patra, and Post Office Monthly Income Scheme. A. Rs 2,568 crore
• NRIs are not allowed to invest in small saving B. Rs 2,648 crore
schemes. There were also issues related to their C. Rs 7,458 crore
nomination. D. Rs 3,101 crore
• The new rule indicates that the money needs to E. Rs 1,487 crore
utilised in India. Answer: D
• Another amendment seeks to facilitate the account • State Bank of India raised Rs 3,101 crore of funds via
holder to change name or surname. This will be allowed additional tier-1, or perpetual, bonds at a coupon of
by the account office by following the “procedure laid 8.10%.
down by Reserve Bank of India for change of name or • The AT-1 bonds include a call option after 10 years.
surname in Bank Savings Account.” The issue size of the sale was Rs 3,000 crore. The
• If one needs to make a change in the name or additional subscription option was Rs 7,000 crore.
surname, he/she can request only after receiving the • Perpetual bonds, which include AT-1 bonds, are
legal affidavit document to prove that the name has considered riskier than other debt instruments, as they
been changed legally. The name correction application can be written down before equity, leading to losses for
can be written just like an application for bank investors.
statement or other formal letters to the bank. • Investors in YES Bank’s AT-1 bonds suffered such
• According to previous rules, an account opened as a losses in 2020, while more recently, at a global level,
Single Account cannot be subsequently converted into a perpetual bonds were written off following Credit
Joint Account or vice versa. Suisse’s bailout.
• Now a proviso has been added to allow for the • Given government ownership of SBI and its status as
conversion of a joint account into a single account on the largest bank in the country, the lender’s bonds
account of the death of an account holder. generally bear the lowest coupon rates in the sector.
• An amendment has also been done related to • The bond sale marks the first AT-1 issuance by any
accounts of minors. Indian bank after the Credit Suisse crisis in March.
• At present, an adult can open an account on behalf of • In June, SBI’s board approved the raising of Rs 50,000
the minor by submitting proof of age of minor. There is crore via bonds in the current financial year.
a provision for submission of passport size photograph
of the account holder. The latest rule says that only the 924. In July as per report _____________has become the
recent passport size photograph of the guardian needs first to link the digital rupee with the UPI QR code.
to be submitted. A. Axis Bank
• Norms related to payments on account of death of a B. Bank Of Baroda
depositor have also been changed. If the total amount is C. HDFC Bank
up to ₹5 lakh and and there is no nominee and the D. ICICI Bank
probate of his will or letters of administration of estate E. State Bank of India
or a succession certificate or legal heir certificate is not Answer: C
produced within six months from the date, then the • HDFC Bank has become the first to link the digital
rightful claimant will be required to fill Form11. rupee with the UPI QR code.
• HDFC Bank has launched a UPI QR code interoperable • Other issues related to the fiscal health of states such
with India’s central bank digital currency (CBDC). as contingent liabilities/guarantees, etc.
• Thus, it has become the first commercial bank in India • The meeting also reviewed administration of the
to do so. consolidated sinking fund and guarantee redemption
• RBI Deputy Governor T Rabi Sankar announced that fund, matters related to state government guarantees
interoperability will be implemented in July. and short-term financial accommodation to states from
• With the interoperable UPI QR code, HDFC Bank the RBI.
merchants who have been onboarded on its CBDC • State government borrowing has grown
platform can accept payments from their customers in exponentially, with state bond issuance so far in this
the form of Digital Rupee currency. financial year surpassing the previous year's volume by
• HDFC Bank has signed up 1,70,000 merchants and more than ₹60,000 crore.
over 1 lakh customers in pilot programmes using the • The conference also focused on the importance of
digital rupee allocating increased funds for sectors like education,
• The payments in digital rupee are currently being health, infrastructure, green energy projects.
facilitated by HDFC Bank in Delhi, Mumbai, Chandigarh,
Bengaluru, Bhubaneswar, Ahmedabad, Guwahati, and 926. In July as per report RBI has released draft circular
Gangtok, among other cities. on Credit Card Network Portability.
• On November 1, 2022, RBI started a pilot on CBDC in Which of the following is not a card network in india?
the wholesale segment. A. Mastercard
• With the help of UPI QR Code interoperable with B. Visa
Digital Rupee, consumers can transact money available C. NPCI- Rupay
in their CBDC wallet across UPI QR code. D. Diners Club
• The consumers will not need to scan different QR E. All of the above are card network in india
codes at the same merchant. Answer: E
• RBI has proposed rules that could possibly restrict
925. Recently in July 33rd Conference of State Finance card issuers from engaging in exclusive arrangements
Secretaries was conducted in __________. with card networks like Mastercard, Visa or RuPay.
A. New Delhi • The central bank also proposed that rules would
B. Bengaluru apply to both banks and non-banking finance companies
C. Mumbai that issue credit, debit or prepaid cards.
D. Chennai • As per RBI draft circular, the current arrangements
E. Noida between card networks and card issuers do not provide
Answer: C customers with sufficient choices. A customer is bound
• On 6 July, 33rd Conference of State Finance to use the network provided by the card issuers.
Secretaries conducted in Mumbai. • The circular has mandated card issuers to offer cards
• RBI governor inaugurated the conference which was on more than one card network and provide customers
attended by the Finance secretaries from 23 states and 1 with an option to choose between card networks at the
UT. time of issuance and also later.
• RBI governor Shaktikanta Das emphasized on the • The proposed rules by RBI will increase customer
importance of debt sustainability of state governments choice and promote competition among card network
and reviewed their market borrowings. companies.
• The conference, inaugurated by the Governor of the • Starting from 1 October 2023, RBI wants the bank to
Reserve Bank of India (RBI), focused on the theme of offer card on multiple networks and give customers the
‘Debt Sustainability: States’ Perspective.’ option to choose their preferred network.
• As per RBI release, the states need to focus on • There are five card networks in India: Mastercard,
• Fiscal consolidation Visa, NPCI- Rupay, American Express, Diners Club.
• Improving quality of expenditure
927. According to a UN report, Global public debt Answer: E
reached a record of _______ trillion in 2022. • Exports of goods from India declined 22.02% (year-
A. $70 trillion on-year) to $32.97 billion in June 2023.
B. $87 trillion • Exports of goods from India declined for 5th
C. $92 trillion consecutive month in June 2023.
D. $64 trillion • Imports of goods declined 17.49% to $53.09 billion in
E. $96 trillion June 2023. Trade deficit during the June 2023 declined to
Answer: C $20.13 billion.
• According to a UN report, Global public debt reached • Sectors like gems & jewellery, petroleum products,
a record of $92 trillion in 2022. engineering goods and chemicals contributed to the
• In the last two decades, Domestic and external debt decline in exports.
has increased more than five times. • Slowdown in major economies is also the reason for
• The report has been released in the G20 finance decline in exports.
ministers and central bank governors' meeting. • Items like petroleum products, coal & coke, chemicals
• Around 30% of the global public debt is owned by and pearls, precious & semi-precious stones caused
developing countries. 70% of the debt of developing decline in imports.
countries is owned by China, India and Brazil. • During April-June 2023, exports recorded a 15.13%
• 59 developing countries have a debt-to-GDP ratio of decline to $102.67 billion.
more than 60%. • Imports declined 12.67% to $160.27 billion during
• As per the report, Debt is translating into a April-June 2023.
substantial burden for developing countries due to • During April-June 2023, the trade deficit stood at
financing, rising borrowing costs, currency devaluations $57.60 billion. It was 7.95% lower than the trade deficit
and sluggish growth. during April-June 2022.
• The international financial system has made access to • In April-June 2023, India’s top five export markets
financing for developing countries inadequate and were the US (1st), the UAE (2nd), the Netherlands (3rd),
costly. China (4th) and the UK (5th).
• Net interest debt payments exceed 10% of revenue • China (1st), Russia (2nd), the US (3rd), the UAE (4th)
for 50 emerging economies around the world. and Saudi Arab (5th) were top five import sources of
• In Africa, the amount spent on interest payments is India.
higher than spending on either education or health.
• Private creditors represent 62% of developing 929. In July as per report Razorpay has announced the
countries total external public debt. launch of its first international payment gateway in
• Latin America has the highest ratio of private ________ with Curlec, now known as ‘Curlec by
creditors holding external government debt for any Razorpay’.
region at 74%. A. Malaysia
• A Group of 20 major economies and official creditors B. Singapore
adopted the debt treatment framework in October 2020. C. Australia
D. Japan
928. Recently Exports of goods from India declined E. Bangladesh
22.02% (year-on-year) to ___________ billion in June Answer: A
2023. • Razorpay has announced the launch of its first
A. $38.56 billion international payment gateway for the Malaysian
B. $36.42 billion market with Curlec, now known as ‘Curlec by Razorpay’.
C. $33.41 billion • In February 2022, Razorpay had acquired a majority
D. $40.21 billion stake in Kuala Lumpur-based fintech Curlec at a
E. $32.97 billion valuation of $20 million with an aim to fuel its global
expansion plans. The balance stake acquisition was to be B. 1st Ausgust 2023
completed in 2023. C. 1st December 2023
• The company currently works with over 700 D. 1st January 2024
Malaysian businesses, including Tune Protect, CTOS, E. 1st April 2024
Courts, Mary Kay and The National Kidney Foundation. Answer: A
• he new Curlec payment gateway will serve more than • Government issued draft notification to make it
5,000 businesses with a target of RM10 billion ($2 mandatory to have air conditioning system in the cabin
billion) in annualized gross transaction value (GTV) by of trucks to be manufactured from January 01, 2025.
2025. • Road Transport and Highways Minister Nitin Gadkari
• Curlec co-founder and CEO Zac Liew said that truck drivers play an important role in ensuring
Razorpay Software Private Limited Founders: Harshil road safety.
Mathur, Shashank Kumar, CEO: Harshil Mathur. • The decision to make the air conditioning system
mandatory will prove to be historic in the direction of
930. In July as per report ___________has unveiled a improving the working conditions of truck drivers.
new personalised AI-based note-taking app called • It will be mandatory to install air conditioning
NotebookLM to help people learn faster. systems in the cabin of motor vehicles belonging to the
A. Microsoft N-2 and N-3 categories.
B. Samsung • Motor vehicles of the N-2 category are considered
C. Google better for carrying 3.5 tonnes and N-3 vehicles for
D. Apple carrying 12 tonnes of goods.
E. Meta • All the stakeholders have been requested to give
Answer: C their comments/suggestions regarding the notification
• Google has unveiled a new personalised AI-based within thirty days.
note-taking app called NotebookLM to help people learn • The performance test of the cabin equipped with an
faster. air conditioning system shall be as per IS 14618:2022 as
• The new app was first announced at the Google I/O amended from time to time.
event in May this year under the name Project Tailwind
and is currently an experimental product from Google 932. Which of the following has been recently exempted
Labs. by GST Council from GST?
• The new AI is only available for Google Docs at the 1. Cancer-fighting drugs
moment, but the search giant promises to add new 2. Medicines for rare diseases
formats soon. NotebookLM is also only available to 3. Food products for special medical purposes
users in the US by signing up to a Google Labs waiting Select the correct answer from the given option-
list. A. 1 and 2 only
• Google wrote, “NotebookLM is an experimental B. 2 and 3 only
product designed to use the power and promise of C. 1 and 3 only
language models paired with your existing content to D. All of the above
gain critical insights, faster. E. None of the above
• With NotebookLM, Google aims to solve, or at least Answer: D
mitigate, the biggest problem associated with artificial • GST Council has exempted cancer-fighting drugs,
intelligence systems such as ChatGPT and Bard. medicines for rare diseases and food products for special
medical purposes from GST.
931. In July as per report government has issued draft • Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman announced this
notification to make it mandatory to have air after chairing the 50th GST Council meeting in New Delhi
conditioning system in the cabin of trucks to be on 11 July 2023.
manufactured from __________. • GST rates on uncooked, unfried extruded snack
A. 1st January 2025 pallets have been cut from 18% to 5%.
• GST rates on fish-soluble paste have also been cut analytics, and AI; design and consulting; cybersecurity;
from 18% to 5%. as well as engineering will be leveraged to develop new
• Rates on imitation zari threads have been cut from solutions and embed AI into all processes and practices.
12% to 5%.
• 28% tax will be levied on online gaming, horse racing, 934. In July as per report NongHyup Bank which has
and casinos. been included in the Second Schedule to the Reserve
• GST Council has exempted GST on satellite launch Bank of India Act, 1934 is a commercial bank of which of
services by private operators. the following country?
• Government also lowered the service tax levied on A. UAE
food and beverages consumed in cinema halls to 5 per B. Japan
cent. C. China
• National Policy for Rare Diseases 2021 aims to lower D. South Korea
the high cost of treatment for rare diseases with E. Singapore
increased focus on indigenous research. Answer: D
• It offers financial support for one-time treatment of • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has released a
up to Rs. 20 lakhs, introduces a crowd funding notification addressing all banks regarding the inclusion
mechanism, creates a registry of rare diseases and of “NongHyup Bank” in the Second Schedule of the RBI
provides for early detection. Act, 1934.
• This notification informs banks about the recent
933. In July as per report __________has announced the addition of NongHyup Bank to the regulated list.
launch of ai360, a comprehensive, AI-first innovation • NongHyup Bank (formerly National Agricultural
ecosystem that builds on investments in artificial Cooperative Federation) is a commercial bank in Seoul,
intelligence (AI) with the goal of integrating AI into South Korea.
every platform, tool, and solution used internally and
offered to clients. 935. In July as per report ____________ has been
A. Infosys appointed lead insurer for f West Bengal by the
B. Wipro Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of
C. TCS India (IRDAI).
D. HCL A. Bajaj Allianz Life Insurance
E. Reliance Industries B. Cholamandalam MS Insurance
Answer: B C. Bharti AXA General Insurance
• IT major Wipro has announced the launch of Wipro D. Max Life Insurance
ai360, a comprehensive, AI-first innovation ecosystem E. Reliance General Insurance
that builds on Wipro’s investments in artificial Answer: B
intelligence (AI) with the goal of integrating AI into • Non-life insurer Cholamandalam MS Insurance has
every platform, tool, and solution used internally and been appointed lead insurer for f West Bengal by the
offered to clients. Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of
• The company also committed to a $1 billion India (IRDAI).
investment in advancing AI capabilities over the next • In this role, it will focus on various aspects of health
three years. Wipro ai360, fueled by this new investment, protection, coverage against natural calamities,
will help unleash a new era of value, productivity, and increasing employment opportunities for locals, and
commercial opportunities through the application of AI protecting MSME businesses through comprehensive
and generative AI. insurance offerings.
• Wipro ai360 will bring together the 30,000 Wipro • A joint venture of the Murugappa Group and Mitsui
experts in data analytics and AI with Wipro’s technology Sumitomo Insurance Company Ltd, Japan, Chola MS
and advisory ecosystem from four global business lines. Insurance has opened a 10,000 sq ft state headquarters
Capabilities across cloud and partnerships; data, in Kolkata, which will serve as a hub, offering
comprehensive insurance products and services to all Answer: E
subdivisions in West Bengal. • Elon Musk launched his new artificial intelligence
• Headquarters: Chennai, Tamil Nadu, India. company, xAI.
• Elon Musk, CEO of Tesla and SpaceX, and owner of
936. Recently as per report Public sector banks (PSBs) Twitter, launched a new artificial intelligence company,
are expected to step up one-time settlement (OTS) in xAI.
written-off loans as the Finance Ministry and the • Alumni of DeepMind, OpenAI, Google Research,
Reserve Bank of India have emphasised on the Microsoft Research, Twitter and Tesla are members of
importance of improving recovery from these accounts. xAI.
Recently Finance Ministry has set target of making • xAI has been launched to compete with companies
about _______ per cent recovery from written-off loan like OpenAI, Google and Anthropic.
accounts. • Musk has repeatedly expressed concern about AI's
A. 20 % potential for "the destruction of civilization".
B. 30 % • Musk said that he would launch TruthGPT or a
C. 40 % maximum truth-seeking AI.
D. 50 % • Elon Musk was the co-founder of OpenAI. He stepped
E. 60 % down from the company board in 2018.
Answer: C
• Public sector banks (PSBs) are expected to step up 938. In July as per report _______launched new digital
one-time settlement (OTS) in written-off loans as the client platform to meet clients’ growing global needs to
Finance Ministry and the Reserve Bank of India have deliver a single entry point digital platform.
emphasised on the importance of improving recovery A. HSBC India
from these accounts. B. Citi Commercial Bank
• Since legal action can be drawn out, the state-owned C. Deutsche Bank
lenders are seen actively pursuing OTS to meet the D. Barclays Bank
Finance Ministry-set target of making about 40 per cent E. DBS Bank
recovery from written-off loan accounts. Answer: B
• PSBs could recover only 14 per cent (or ₹1.03-lakh • Citi has announced the launch of a new platform,
crore) from written-off loans aggregating ₹7.34-lakh CitiDirect Commercial Banking, specifically to address
crore in the last five years ended March 2022. the needs of Citi Commercial Bank (CCB) clients.
• Banks can initiate legal recovery proceedings against • This is part of Citi’s strategic investment plan to meet
delinquent borrowers via four channels – the National these clients’ growing global needs to deliver a single
Company Law Tribunal, the Debt Recovery Tribunal, entry point digital platform.
SARFAESI (Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial • CitiDirect Commercial Banking combines Citi’s global
Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest) Act, 2002, products and services into a single digital platform,
and Lok Adalats. providing clients with a 360-degree consolidated view of
• In May 2023, the Finance Ministry had asked state- the Citi banking relationship across Cash, loans, trade,
owned lenders to increase recovery from written-off FX, Servicing and Onboarding.
accounts to about 40 per cent. • The platform is live in the U.S., and CCB plans to pilot
it in the second half of 2023 across Hong Kong, India,
937. In July as per report _____________ has launched a Singapore and the U.K.
new artificial intelligence company, xAI.
A. Gautam Adani 939. In July as per report Homegrown data centre
B. Jack Ma company CtrlS is to set up a hyperscale data centre in
C. Jeff Bezos __________.
D. Barren Waffet A. UAE
E. Elon Musk B. Thailand
C. Japan doses, has reduced from 1.3 million in 2021 to 650,000 in
D. Nepal 2022.
E. Bangladesh • As per the report, the South Asia region had the best
Answer: B immunization recoveries among all the WHO regions.
• Homegrown data centre company CtrlS is to set up a • Indonesia reported a DPT3 coverage of 85% in 2022
hyperscale data centre in Thailand. The 150-MW facility while it was 98% in Bangladesh.
will come up in Chonburi Province in Thailand.
• The Hyderabad-based company has signed a • Global immunization services have covered four
memorandum of agreement with the public agency million more children in 2022 as compared to the
EECO (Eastern Economic Corridor Office) to lease a 10- previous year.
acre land parcel for 50 years, • Out of the total 73 countries that recorded a
• CtrlS’ datacentre site at EEC offers proximity to substantial decline in immunization coverage during the
submarine cable landing stations for AAG (Asia-America pandemic, 15 have recovered to pre-pandemic levels and
Gateway) and ADC (Asia Direct Cable) systems, making 24 are on the route to recovery.
it a point of connection equipped with submarine and
terrestrial cable networks, to connect to other data 941. Recently as per report Mark Rutte announced that
centres and industrial estates. he will leave politics after the upcoming general
• The 16-year-old data centre company operates 10 election. He was the longest serving Prime Minister of
data centres across five key markets and will open six which of the following country?
more by the end of 2024. A. Sweden
B. Netherlands
940. As per a report by World Health Organization and C. Norway
UNICEF, India has surpassed the pre-pandemic record of D. Spain
childhood immunization coverage. E. Switzerland
DPT3 (diphtheria, pertussis and tetanus) coverage stood Answer: B
at _________% in 2022. • Dutch Prime Minister Mark Rutte announced he was
A. 94 % quitting politics after nearly 13 years in power, in a
B. 90 % shock end to his time as the longest-serving leader in the
C. 93 % history of the Netherlands.
D. 88 % • Nicknamed "Teflon Mark" for surviving scandals that
E. 96 % hit his four governments, the centre-right leader said he
Answer: C would stand down after elections sparked by the
• As per a report by World Health Organization and collapse of his latest coalition over a row about
UNICEF, India has surpassed the pre-pandemic record of migration.
childhood immunization coverage. • The second longest-serving leader in the European
• DPT3 (diphtheria, pertussis and tetanus) coverage Union, the 56-year-old Mr. Rutte said that he had
stood at 93% in 2022. It surpassed the pre-pandemic "mixed feelings" about bowing out but that it "feels
record of 91% in 2019 and 85% in 2021. good to pass the baton".
• The WHO and UNICEF released estimates for national • Capital: Amsterdam.
immunization coverage for 2022 on 18 July.
• DPT3 coverage in WHO South-East Asia Region 942. In July as per report ____________has taken charge
reached to the 91%. of SBI Capital Markets Limited (SBICAPS) with effect
• The number of zero-dose children, those that have from July 14.
not received even the first dose of DPT vaccine, halved to A. Rahul Tripathi
2.3 million in 2022 in South-East Asia. B. Abhishek Choudhary
• The number of children, who had received at least C. Arun Kumar Gupta
one dose of the DPT vaccine but did not complete three D. Rajay Kumar Sinha
E. Vinay Goel • Jaiswal became the 17th Indian, and the third
Answer: D designated opener to score a century on Test debut.
• Rajay Kumar Sinha has taken charge of SBI Capital • However, he is the first Indian opener to Make a
Markets Limited (SBICAPS) with effect from July 14. century in his first Test away from home.
• Prior to this, he was in charge of Treasury operations • Shikhar Dhawan and Prithvi Shaw made their maiden
at State Bank of India (SBI), managing investment Test centuries against Australia and West Indies at
portfolio, money market, equity, private equity & forex Mohali and Rajkot respectively.
operations of the bank. • Jaiswal is only the fifth Indian to score a century on
• SBICAPS is the wholly owned investment banking arm Test debut overseas.
of SBI. • In 1959, the first player to do so was Abbas Ali Baig
• Sinha, who joined SBI in 1991 as a Probationary against England.
Officer, has replaced Amitava Chatterjee, who has • The others are Surinder Amarnath at Auckland in
moved to SBI, Corporate Centre, as Deputy Managing 1976, Pravin Amre against South Africa at Durban in
Director, in charge of Commercial Clients Group. 1992, Sourav Ganguly against England at Lord's in 1996,
and Virender Sehwag against South Africa at
943. World Youth Skills Day is celebrated every year on Bloemfontein in 2001.
_________. • At the age of 21 years and 196 days, Jaiswal became
A. 10th July the fourth youngest Indian after Prithvi Shaw, Abbas Ali
B. 15th July Baig, and Gundappa Vishwanath to score a century on
C. 12th July his Test debut.
D. 18th July • Before Jaiswal, the last Indian to score a century on
E. 13th July debut was Shreyas Iyer against New Zealand in 2021.
Answer: B
• World Youth Skills Day is celebrated every year on 15 945. Recently as per report Australia’s Victoria State will
July. not host the _______ Commonwealth Games due to
• The theme for World Youth Skills Day 2023 is Skilling projected exceeding expenditures.
teachers, trainers and youth for a transformative future. A. 2024
• The theme highlights the essential role that teachers, B. 2026
trainers and other educators play in providing skills to C. 2028
youth. D. 2032
• In 2014, the United Nations General Assembly E. 2030
declared 15 July as World Youth Skills Day. Answer: B
• It is observed to highlight the importance of • Australia’s Victoria State will not host the 2026
equipping young people with skills for employment, Commonwealth Games.
decent work and entrepreneurship. • It will not host the games due to projected exceeding
expenditures.
944. In July as per report ___________made history by • According to Victoria State Premier Dan Andrews, the
becoming the first Indian opener to score a Test century cost of the Games was going more than twice the
on debut overseas. estimated economic benefit the Games would bring to
A. Rituraj Gaikwad the state.
B. Ishan Kishan • According to Andrews, the cost of the Games could be
C. Shubhman Gill more than 7 billion Australian dollars from a budgeted
D. Shreyas Iyer 2.6 billion Australian dollars.
E. Yashasvi Jaiswal • The 2026 Games were set to take place in the
Answer: E Victorian cities of Geelong, Bendigo, Ballarat, Gippsland,
• Yashasvi Jaiswal made history by becoming the first and Shepparton from March 17 to March 29.
Indian opener to score a Test century on debut overseas.
• Commonwealth Games take place every four years. (L&T) recently concluded a Teaming Agreement, to
Australia hosted the Games in 2018 at the Gold Coast. jointly bid for __________.
• The 2022 Commonwealth Games took place in A. Project 15B
Birmingham, England between 28 July and 8 August B. Project 18
2022. C. Project 75 Alpha
• Victoria is a state in southeast Australia. Its capital is D. Project-75I
Melbourne. E. Project-76 class
Answer: D
946. Recently in July as per report PV Sindhu slipped five • Spanish submarine manufacturer Navantia and
places to world number _________ in the latest BWF India’s Larsen and Toubro (L&T) recently concluded a
world rankings which is lowest in over a decade. Teaming Agreement, to jointly bid for theProject-75I.
A. 15 • Project 75 (I) requires the Indian bidder to tie up with
B. 21 a foreign collaborator (FC) and execute the program for
C. 17 delivery of six conventional submarines equipped with
D. 20 Air-Independent Propulsion (AIP), while achieving
E. 23 targetted Indigenous Content.
Answer: C • Expected to be valued at over Euro 4.8 billion, the
• As per the latest BWF world rankings released, project is the India‘s largest defence acquisition project.
double Olympic medallist PV Sindhu slipped five places • This would also be followed by a 30-year lifecycle
to world number 17. sustenance contract of similar value. P75(I) would be the
• The last time she was ranked 17th was in January, first program to be processed under the ambitious
2013. She has been inside the top 10 since 2016, having Strategic Partnership (SP) model of acquisition of the
reached a career-best world number 2 in April, 2016. Ministry of Defence. L&T and Navantia signed an MoU
• A former world number 2 Sindhu, who had suffered a for the program on 11 April 2023 at Madrid, which has
stress fracture on her ankle during her title-winning run now culminated in this TA.
at the 2022 Commonwealth Games, currently has 49,480 • As per the agreement, Navantia would carry out the
points from 14 tournaments. design of P75(I) submarines based on its S80 class of
• HS Prannoy also slipped a place to world number 10, submarines, the first of which was launched in 2021 and
while Lakshya Sen and Kidambi Srikanth were static at is undergoing sea trials prior to its delivery to Spanish
12th and 20th spots respectively. Navy at the end of 2023.
• Saina Nehwal slumped five places to world number • Under this, the Indian Navy will procure six advanced
36. conventional submarines processed through the
• Men's doubles pair of Satwiksairaj Rankireddy and Strategic Partnership (SP) model.
Chirag Shetty remain India's best-placed shuttlers at • These will be diesel-electric submarines, having
world number 3. advanced Air-independent propulsion (AIP) systems.
• Among others, Treesa Jolly and Gayatri Gopichand • Project 75I requires an Indian bidder to tie up with a
also lost a spot to be at the 19th position in women's foreign collaborator and build six conventional
doubles, while there was no Indian in the top 25 in submarines equipped with AIP systems.
mixed doubles. • The first submarine must have a minimum of 45%
• The Badminton World Federation is the international indigenisation, with the indigenous content going up to
governing body for the sport of badminton recognised 60% in the sixth.
by the International Olympic Committee. Headquarters: • Conventional or Diesel-electric submarine: They need
Federal Territory of Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia. atmospheric oxygen to run the diesel generator which in
turn charges the batteries.
Days & Obituary News • Nuclear Submarine: It is a submarine powered by a
947. In July as per report Spanish submarine nuclear reactor, but not necessarily nuclear-armed. They
manufacturer Navantia and India’s Larsen and Toubro
have considerable performance advantages over 949. In July as per report Prime Minister Narendra Modi
conventional submarines. and French President Emmanuel Macron addressed a
• S N Subrahmanyan, CEO & MD, L&T. joint press conference at the Elysee Palace in Paris.
Both countries announced that they will co-develop the
948. In July as per report Defence Acquisition Council combat aircraft engine and also the engine for the
approved the acquisition of 26 Rafale fighter aircraft Indian multi-role helicopter (IMRH).
and three new submarines for the Indian Navy. It will be developed by Safran Helicopter Engine and
Three additional _________ class diesel-electric __________.
submarines will procured from France under Buy (Indian) A. Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd.
category, which will be constructed by Mazagon Dock B. Bharat Electronics Ltd.
Shipbuilders Limited (MDL). C. Bharat Dynamics Ltd.
A. Kalvari class D. Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders.
B. Talwar class E. Cochin Shipyard Ltd.
C. River class Answer: A
D. Scorpene class • Prime Minister Narendra Modi and French President
E. Shivalik class Emmanuel Macron addressed a joint press conference at
Answer: D the Elysee Palace in Paris.
• Defence Acquisition Council approved the proposal of • Both countries announced that they will extend their
buying 26 Rafale fighter aircraft for Indian Navy. defence cooperation in advanced aeronautical
• The Defence Acquisition Council approved the technologies.
acquisition of 26 Rafale fighter aircraft and three new • They will co-develop the combat aircraft engine and
submarines for the Indian Navy. also the engine for the Indian multi-role helicopter
• These 26 Rafale fighter aircraft comprise 22 single- (IMRH).
seated Rafale marine aircraft and four twin-seater • India and France will also cooperate on the
trainer versions. motorization of heavy-lift helicopters under the IMRH
• Three additional Scorpene class diesel-electric programme.
submarines will be also procured from France under Buy • To enable progress on the IMRH programme, HAL
(Indian) category, which will be constructed by Mazagon and Safran Helicopter Engine will sign a shareholders’
Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL). Agreement.
• It will have high indigenous content, and will help in • Both also announced cooperation on small and
improving the operational preparedness of the Indian advanced modular reactors.
Navy. • India and France also agreed to support the adoption
• This deal is likely to be signed during ongoing PM of a road map for joint actions in the Indo-Pacific and
Narendra Modi’s visit to France. These deals will be of the finalization of the joint Earth observation satellite.
around Rs 90,000 crore. • Recently, HAL and General Electric signed a MoU to
• Rafale fighter aircraft for Indian Navy will be manufacture the F-414 engine for the indigenous Light
deployed on the INS Vikrant and INS Vikramaditya. Combat Aircraft MK2.
• In recent years, it will be the second fighter jet
purchase from the French aerospace major Dassault 950. Recently as per report _________ has collaborated
Aviation. with Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) to is jointly
• At present, IAF is operating 36 Rafale jets procured develop a nuclear-powered engine.
under a €7.87 bn deal signed in April 2016. A. HAL
• These proposals have been approved in a meeting B. BEML
attended by Defence Minister Rajanth Singh, Chief of C. DRDO
Defence Staff Gen Anil Chauhan and the three service D. ISRO
chiefs and senior officials. E. Agnikul Cosmos
Answer: D Answer: E
• India’s space agency, ISRO, is jointly developing a • The National Curriculum Framework for School
nuclear-powered engine along with Bhabha Atomic Education was released by Union Education Minister
Research Center (BARC), it is reliably learnt. Dharmendra Pradhan on 23 August 2023.
• Chemical engines, such as those that power the • National Curriculum Framework for School Education
thrusters in satellites, are fine up to a point, but if you is an important step towards the implementation of the
want to send a spacecraft deep into space, such as into National Education Policy - 2020.
interplanetary missions, they will not do — neither can • The board examinations will be conducted twice a
they carry that much fuel nor can they be solar powered year. The students would have the option to retain the
because sunlight will not reach a solar panel at such long best score.
distances. • The aim of this step is to reduce the high-pressure
• Hence, nuclear-powered engines. environment often associated with single annual exams.
• ISRO-BARC are developing what are called Radio • The National Curriculum Framework for School
thermoelectric generators (RTGs). The work has already Education addresses the entire educational journey from
begun and has been identified as a major task that has foundational to secondary stages.
to be completed soon. • It covers all the four stages of schooling. It is
• The nuclear engines are not to be thought of as organised into five parts.
nuclear fission reactors that generate electricity. The • Mr Pradhan said the efforts are on to make new
RTGs use radioactive materials, such as Plutonium-238 textbooks available from next academic year.
or Strontium-90, which release heat as they decay. • The Minister said the textbooks for classes 3 to 12 will
• Essentially, the engine contains two parts — the be aligned with 21st-Century requirements.
radioisotope heater unit (RHU) which generates heat — • The National Curriculum Framework for School
and the RTG, which converts the heat into electricity. Education expects all students to be proficient in at least
• The Indian Space Research Organisation, commonly three languages, at least two of which are native to
referred to as ISRO, is the national space agency of India.
India. • According to the framework, class 9 and 10 students
• Headquarters: Bengaluru, Founded: 15 August 1969 will learn three languages. Out of these, two will be
• Founder: Vikram Sarabhai, S. Somanath native languages to India.
(Chairperson). • According to the framework, class 11 and 12 students
will learn two languages. Out of these, one will be of
951. Consider the following statement regarding Indian origin.
National Curriculum Framework. Which of the following • As of now, class 9 and 10 students study two
statement is incorrect? languages and class 11 and 12 students study one
A. The board examinations will be conducted twice a language.
year. • The NCF increases number of mandatory subjects for
B. The National Curriculum Framework for School Classes 9 and 10 to seven and for Classes 11 and 12 to
Education expects all students to be proficient in at least six.
three languages, at least two of which are native to • Optional subjects have been categorized in three
India. parts in the NCF.
C. The NCF has been drafted by the national steering • The first optional group includes art education (both
committee headed by former Chairman of the Indian visual and performing arts), physical education and
Space Research Organisation (ISRO) K. Kasturirangan. vocational education.
D. The NCF increases number of mandatory subjects for • The 2nd group includes Social Science, the
Classes 9 and 10 to seven and for Classes 11 and 12 to Humanities, and interdisciplinary areas.
six. • The 3rd group includes Science, Mathematics, and
E. All of the above are correct computational thinking
• For Classes 6 to 8: The NCF states that:
• 20% content would be from the local level for the • With the 24x7 availability of services on a single
Social Science curriculum, integrated portal as well as the 'Mobile Dost' app, the
• 30% content would be from the regional level, use of technology has ushered in a new era of digital
• 30% would be from the national level, and governance in Jammu and Kashmir.
• 20% content would be global. • The services have also been linked to the Rapid
• The National Education Policy 2020 (NEP 2020) aims Assessment System (RAS) for citizen feedback and over
to devise 4 NCFs, for which a comprehensive strategy 52 lakh SMS have been sent so far with an approval
has been worked out jointly by the Ministry of Education rating of 86%.
(MoE) and NCERT. • 300 online services have been linked with an auto
• The National Steering Committee under the appeal system, wherein appeals are forwarded to
chairmanship of (former ISRO chief) K. Kasturirangan appellate authorities in case of non-delivery of service
was set up by the MoE to undertake and develop NCFs. within the time limit defined under the Public Service
• These 4 NCFs are - Guarantee Act (PSGA).
• National Curriculum Framework for Early Childhood
Care and Education (NCFECCE) 953. In August as per report Dr Jitendra Singh unveils
• National Curriculum Framework for School Education new variety "Lotus" flower named ‘Namoh 108’, that
(NCFSE) has 108 petals.
• National Curriculum Framework for Teacher The flower has been developed by ____________.
Education (NCFTE) A. ICAR-Indian Agricultural Research Institute
• National Curriculum Framework for Adult Education B. National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing
(NCFAE) Federation of India Limited
C. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
952. In August as per report _____________ has become D. Central Research Institute for Dryland Agriculture
the second state amongst States and UTs in the number E. National Botanical Research Institute
of online services provided to the citizens with the Answer: E
announcement of 913 citizen-centric online services on • Union Minister of State (Independent Charge) Science
the e-UNNAT portal. & Technology; MoS PMO, Personnel, Public Grievances,
A. Karnataka Pensions, Atomic Energy and Space, Dr Jitendra Singh
B. Uttar Pradesh unveiled the new variety "Lotus" flower developed by
C. Haryana Lucknow Institute CSIR-NBRI (National Botanical
D. Punjab Research Institute) that has 108 petals.
E. Jammu and Kashmir • The lotus named ‘NBRI Namoh 108’ is developed by
Answer: E the CSIR-National Botanical Research Institute (NBRI), a
• Jammu and Kashmir has become the second state premier plant-based, multidisciplinary, state-of-the-art
amongst States and UTs in the number of online services National R&D center based in Lucknow.
provided to the citizens with the announcement of 913 • The Namoh 108 lotus variety flowers from March to
citizen-centric online services on the e-UNNAT portal. December and is rich in nutrients. This is the first lotus
• This is an important milestone in line with the resolve variety whose genome is completely sequenced for its
of the J&K Administration to provide ease, convenience, characteristics.
and accessibility of services to the common man. • Dr Jitendra Singh also released apparel made from
• Jammu and Kashmir has overtaken Kerala by lotus fibre and perfume ‘Frotus’, extracted from lotus
providing 911 online services and is second in the flowers and developed by the NBRI under the Lotus
country after Madhya Pradesh. Research Programme in collaboration with FFDC,
• It is noteworthy that under the 'Digital Jammu and Kannauj.
Kashmir Programme' launched in mission mode last • Dr Jitendra Singh said it is a grand gift to the
year, the number of online services has rapidly increased relentless zeal and innate beauty of Shri Narendra Modi,
from 35 services to 913 services in 2021.
coming as it does in the tenth year of his tenure as the A. 52 %
Prime Minister. B. 56 %
• Dr Jitendra Singh said this project is being undertaken C. 58 %
in Mission mode like the other priority schemes, - the D. 55 %
National Honey and Bee Mission (NHBM), National E. 61%
Bamboo Mission (NBM), National Food Security Mission Answer: B
(NFSM), National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF), • The total number of Jan Dhan accounts crossed the
National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA), 50 crore mark.
Gokul Mission, Blue Revolution, Mission Shakti - an • Out of the total 50 crore accounts, 56 per cent of
integrated women empowerment programme and the accounts belong to women and 67 per cent of accounts
National Mission on Interdisciplinary Cyber-Physical have been opened in Rural and Semi-urban areas.
Systems (NM-ICPS) etc. • The total deposits in these accounts are above Rs
• The Minister also released the new variety of Aloe 2.03 lakh crore.
vera named ‘NBRI-Nihar’, a clonal selection having • Around 34 crore RuPay cards have been issued with
approximately 2.5 times high gel yield in comparison to these accounts free of cost.
Aloe vera. • The average balance in Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan
• As per the field observations, 'NBRI-Nihar' is found Yojana (PMJDY) accounts is Rs 4,076.
least affected against bacterial and fungal diseases. Two • More than 5.5 crore of these accounts received Direct
herbal products namely ‘Herbal Cold Drops’ for curing Benefit Transfer (DBT).
common cough and cold & Herbal Anti Dandruff Hair Oil, • Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana was launched on
made by Marc Laboratories, were also launched by the 28th August 2014.
Minister. • It was launched to provide universal access to
• Dr Jitendra Singh also launched a Database of 500 banking facilities to people.
Raw Drug Repositories of the Institute developed as per • It is also known as National Mission for Financial
Indian Pharmacopoeia Standards and released a book Inclusion.
on roses in CSIR-NBRI Garden, comprising the details of • Under this scheme, Rupay Debit card and Accident
elite varieties conserved at the Botanic Garden. Insurance Cover of Rs.1 lakh (enhanced to Rs2 lakhs to
• On the occasion, an MoU was signed between CSIR- new PMJDY accounts opened after 28.8.2018) is
NBRI & M/s Nucleome Informatics, Hyderabad for provided to account holders.
collaborative research on Cotton. • An overdraft facility of up to Rs 10,000 is provided to
• The CSIR-NBRI digital Herbarium, a National eligible account holders.
Repository of flora specimens of India, was also
launched to easily disseminate information among the 955. In August as per report India's first 3D-printed post
public and a book on ‘Plant Resources of Uttar Pradesh office building was inaugurated by Union Minister
and a Check List’ and ‘e-flora of Uttar Pradesh’ were also Ashwini Vaishnav in Bengaluru, Karnataka.
released. The e-flora and book provide a list and Which of the following designed and constructed the
information of more than 5,000 plants of Uttar Pradesh. 1,000 sq ft Halasuru Post Office within a time frame of
• Originally established as the National Botanic 43 days?
Gardens (NBG) by the State Government of Uttar A. NCC Ltd
Pradesh (U.P.). B. Jaiprakash Associates Ltd
• Taken over by CSIR in 1953. Renamed the National C. Hindustan Construction Co Ltd
Botanical Research Institute (NBRI) in 1978. D. Reliance Infrastructure Ltd
E. Larsen & Toubro Ltd
954. In August as per report total number of Jan Dhan Answer: E
accounts crossed the 50 crore mark. Out of the total 50 • On 18 August, India's first 3D-printed post office
crore accounts _________ per cent of accounts belong to building inaugurated by Union Minister Ashwini
women. Vaishnav in Bengaluru, Karnataka.
• L&T Construction completed the post office structure • The Licensee should submit an initial Bank Guarantee
at Cambridge Layout, Halasuru using 3D concrete of five crore rupees for the first two quarters from any
printing technology. Scheduled Bank to the Ministry.
• Using this innovative technology, L&T Construction • The DTH operation in India is governed by the policy
designed and constructed the 1,000 sq ft Halasuru Post guidelines for obtaining the license for providing DTH
Office within a time frame of 43 days. broadcasting services.
• Technology approval to Larsen & Toubro Limited • These guidelines prescribe a License Fee, which is a
(L&T) for 3D concrete printing of structures was given by non-tax cost imposed on a service provider in exchange
Building Materials and Technology Promotion Council for permission of carrying out a licenced activity.
along with IIT-Madras.
• 3-D printed buildings are less expensive and also 957. Recently as per report Government is planning to
reduce the wastage of building materials. It is launch 'Mera Bill Mera Adhikar' GST reward scheme in
environmentally friendly. ___________ states.
• This building accelerates the pace of construction A. 7
with unique design possibilities. B. 6
• Nearly two years ago, Nirmala Sitharaman C. 5
inaugurated India's first 3D-printed house, built by D. 8
Tvista Manufacturing Solutions, at the IIT Madras E. 4
campus. Answer: B
• In December 2022, the Indian Army also inaugurated • Government is planning to launch 'Mera Bill Mera
its first two-storey 3D-printed housing unit for soldiers in Adhikar' GST reward scheme in 6 states from September
Ahmedabad Cantt. 1.
• The government will launch the 'Mera Bill Mera
956. Which of the following has released Adhikar' invoice incentive scheme.
recommendations on “License Fee and Policy Matters of • Under this scheme, a cash prize from Rs 10,000 to Rs
DTH Services”? 1 crore will be provided to six states and Union
A. Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited Territories.
B. Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Limited • It will be launched in the states of Assam, Gujarat
C. Prasar Bharati and Haryana; and the UTs of Puducherry, Daman & Diu
D. Telecom Regulatory Authority of India and Dadra & Nagar Haveli.
E. All of the above • Under the Invoice incentive scheme, Cash prizes will
Answer: D be given on uploading GST invoices.
• TRAI released recommendations on “License Fee and • All invoices issued by Goods and Services Tax (GST)
Policy Matters of DTH Services”. registered suppliers to consumers will be eligible for the
• The Information and Broadcasting Ministry should 'Mera Bill Mera Adhikar' scheme.
provide a reliable method for the deduction verification • The minimum purchase value for the invoice to be
procedure through a single window site, according to considered for the lucky draw is Rs 200.
TRAI's recommendation. • The 'Mera Bill Mera Adhikar' mobile app will be also
• It also stated that DTH Licensee should pay an annual launched on both IOS and Android platforms.
license fee equivalent to 3 per cent of Adjusted Gross • The seller's GSTIN, invoice number, amount paid, and
Revenue. tax amount should all be included on the invoice that is
• In the next three years, License Fee for DTH Licensees uploaded to the app.
should be brought down to zero.
• After the end of the financial year 2026-2027, DTH 958. In August as per report the cabinet gave approval
Licensees should not be charged any License Fee. for the continuation of the North East Special
Infrastructure Development Scheme (NESIDS) with an
approved outlay of ________ crore.
A. Rs. 7139.50 crore E. 1st Janaury , 2024
B. Rs. 6139.50 crore Answer: C
C. Rs. 5139.50 crore • The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways has
D. Rs. 8139.50 crore rolled out an indigenous star-rating system for crash
E. Rs. 4139.50 crore testing cars.
Answer: D • Under the new system, vehicles will be assigned
• Recently, the cabinet gave approval for the between one to five stars indicating their safety in a
continuation of the North East Special Infrastructure collision.
Development Scheme (NESIDS) with an approved outlay • Called the Bharat New Car Assessment Programme
of Rs. 8139.50 crore. (NCAP), the rating system will be voluntary and will
• It was approved by the Government of India as a come into effect from October 1, 2023.
Central Sector Scheme in 2017. • It is a testing protocol, wherein automobiles in India
• Under the scheme guidelines of NESIDS, 100% of the shall be accorded Star Ratings based upon their
central funding is provided to the State Governments of performance in crash tests.
North Eastern Region. • Under the Bharat NCAP, cars voluntarily nominated
• The funding is provided for projects of physical by automobile manufacturers will be crash tested as per
infrastructure relating to water supply, power, and protocols laid down in the soon-to-be-published
connectivity, enhancing tourism, and Social Automotive Industry Standard 197.
infrastructure relating to primary and secondary sectors • The testing protocols adopted by the Bharat NCAP
of education and health. are modelled on the Global NCAP.
• It was approved by the Government of India as a • While India has mandatory crash test norms for cars,
Central Sector Scheme in 2017. the Bharat NCAP rating will be of superior standard and
• Under the scheme guidelines of NESIDS, 100% of the will be aligned with global crash-test protocols.
central funding is provided to the State Governments of • Unlike in other countries where the NCAP are carried
North Eastern Region. out by non-government entities, there will be a Bharat
• The funding is provided for projects of physical NCAP Authority in India.
infrastructure relating to water supply, power, and • The programme is applicable to passenger vehicles
connectivity, enhancing tourism, and Social with not more than eight seats in addition to the driver’s
infrastructure relating to primary and secondary sectors seat with gross vehicle weight not exceeding 3,500 kgs.
of education and health. • Only the base model of a particular variant will be
• The objective of scheme is to supplement the efforts tested.
of the different Central Ministries & Departments for • Cars will be assigned a rating between one star to
uncovered development/welfare activities. five stars after being evaluated on three parameters:
• These schemes help in gap-filling support to the eight • adult occupant protection,
North Eastern States as per their felt needs by taking up • child occupant protection, and
projects. • safety assist technologies present in the car.
• The first two parameters will be calculated with the
959. In August as per report Ministry of Road Transport help of three different kinds of tests:
and Highways has rolled out an indigenous star-rating • A frontal offset test where a vehicle is driven at 64
system for crash testing cars. kmph and with 40% overlap into a deformable barrier
Called the Bharat New Car Assessment Programme which represents the oncoming vehicle,
(NCAP), the rating system will be voluntary and will • This replicates a crash between two cars of the same
come into effect from __________. weight.
A. 1st November , 2023 • The side impact test at 50 kmph, and
B. 1st September , 2023 • The pole-side impact test (where a car is crashed into
C. 1st October, 2023 a rigid pole sideways) at 29 kmph.
D. 1st December , 2023
• Original equipment manufacturers (OEMs) across the D. Mizoram
country have already sent in 30 models for crash testing. E. Assam
Answer: D
960. Recently seen in news Bhagwan Birsa Munda • The National Health Authority (NHA) had announced
Jodaraste Scheme is associated with which of the 100 Microsites project for accelerated adoption of
following state? Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) across the
A. Bihar country.
B. Uttar Pradesh • Mizoram becomes the first state in India to
C. Karnataka operationalize an ABDM Microsite in its capital city
D. Jharkhand Aizawl. Under this, all healthcare facilities including the
E. Maharashtra private clinics, small hospitals and labs in the region
Answer: E shall be made ABDM-enabled and will offer digital
• Maharashtra government has decided to implement health services to the patients.
the Bhagwan Birsa Munda Jodaraste Scheme. • The ABDM Microsites are defined geographical
• The state cabinet has decided to implement the regions where focused outreach efforts would be made
Bhagwan Birsa Munda Jodaraste Scheme to connect all to onboard small and medium scale private healthcare
tribal villages in 17 state districts with main roads. providers.
• The project will be implemented at Rs 5,000 crore and • NHA had previously overseen Microsites pilots in
nearly 6,838 km of roads will be constructed as part of Mumbai, Ahmedabad and Surat. The learnings and
the scheme. experiences from these pilots have been incorporated in
• Under this scheme, all the tribal padas will be the overall structure of 100 Microsites project under
connected by perennial roads. ABDM.
• The Tribal Development Department will form a • Besides Mizoram, other states including Andhra
separate committee for these roads. Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra
• These roads will be built by Public Works and Chhattisgarh have also made significant progress
Department. regarding implementation of ABDM Microsites. More
• The construction of roads will remove the difficulty in such microsites are expected to be operational in the
providing basic facilities to tribal people. next few weeks.
• In another decision, the Maharashtra cabinet also • Types of facilities to be covered under a Microsite:
decided to repeal the 45-year-old Maharashtra Casinos • Private facilities such as standalone clinics,
(Control and Tax) Act, 1976, polyclinics, nursing homes, small hospitals (preferably
• The Maharashtra government will also give special <10 beds), labs, pharmacies, and any other healthcare
rations during the upcoming Ganeshotsav and Diwali facilities wherein health records are generated.
festivals under the Antyodaya food scheme. • Health Facilities and Health Professionals from all the
• This special ration will comprise one kg each of systems of medicine.
semolina, chana dal, sugar, and one litre of cooking oil. • Categories of a Microsite: Any State/UT can choose
• The Maharashtra government has also decided to to implement any of the following categories of
increase the stipend amount for government Industrial Microsites as per the regional priorities.
Training Institutes (ITI) trainees from 40 rupees to 500 • Category A Microsite: A microsite which consists of at
rupees. least 1000 facilities, inclusive of all types of health
facilities, as mentioned above
961. Recently as per report _____________became the • Category B Microsite: A microsite that consists of at
first state in India to operationalize an Ayushman Bharat least 500 facilities but less than 1000 facilities, inclusive
Digital Mission (ABDM) Microsite. of all types of health facilities, as mentioned above.
A. Manipur • These Microsites would be majorly implemented by
B. Punjab State Mission Directors of ABDM, while the financial
C. Haryana
resources and overall guidance would be provided by pollution in Non-Attainment ) in the National Clean Air
NHA. Programme for the purpose of pollution control.
• An interfacing agency under this program will have
an on-ground team to reach out to the healthcare 963. In August as per report ___________ has become
providers in the area. India's first carbon-negative garrison with the
commissioning of a 5-megawatt (MW) solar power
962. In August as per report ____________has topped plant.
Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan ranking 2023 by securing 187 A. College Of Military Engineering, Dapodi
out of 200 points. B. Army War college, Mhow
A. Surat C. Air Defence College, Gopalpur
B. Gurugram D. Armed Forces Medical College Pune
C. Indore E. College of Military Engineering, Pune
D. Dehradun Answer: E
E. Bhopal • Pune-based College of Military Engineering (CME)
Answer: C announced that it has become India’s first carbon-
• Indore has topped Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan ranking negative garrison with the commissioning of a 5-
2023 by securing 187 out of 200 points. megawatt (MW) solar power plant.
• Indore has topped in the ‘over 10-lakh population • The new solar plant will enhance the total solar
category’. Indore AQI was 84 (Satisfactory). power capacity of CME to 7 MW.
• Agra and Thane are in second and third position with • The College of Military Engineering started the
186 and 185.2 points, respectively. journey to become carbon-negative in 2021 with the
• Gwalior was in 43rd position in the 10-lakh category establishment of a 2-megawatt solar power plant that
by securing 117 points. efficiently fulfilled their energy demands.
• Bhopal came fifth with 181 points and Jabalpur • In its second phase, the recent 5 MW solar power
seventh with 172 points. plant's commissioning stands as a pivotal moment in
• In the Survey, three of the first five awards have been realising the objectives outlined in the ‘National Solar
secured by Madhya Pradesh for cities with a population Mission’ initiated by the Central government.
of more than 10 lakhs. Indore stood first, Agra second, • The term ‘carbon negative’ signifies an entity's
Thane third, Srinagar fourth and Bhopal 5th. capacity to emit fewer carbon dioxide and carbon
• In the cities with 3 lakh-10 lakh, Ujjain (182 points) dioxide equivalent (CO2e) greenhouse gases than it
and Sagar (170.7 points) are at 5th and 9th positions. removes.
• The ranking of cities was not based on the • The CME was established in 1948 and it trains officers
measurement of air quality parameters but on the of all ranks from the Indian Army, Navy and Air Force.
actions taken by the cities to improve air quality in • Globally, the military sector is responsible for about
different domains. 5.5 percent of all greenhouse gas emissions, according to
• The self-assessment reports were based on the action the 2022 Conflict and Environment Observatory report.
taken on different parameters including solid waste
management, road dust management, management of 964. In August as per report PM Modi took part in the
construction and demolition waste, control of vehicular BRICS Business Forum Leaders’ Dialogue in
emissions, etc. Johannesburg on 22 August 2023.
• CPCB evaluated the self-assessment reports and What is the theme of the 15th BRICS Summit?
supporting documents uploaded by 131 cities and gave A. Broad Vision, Shared Prosperity
the highest score to Indore. B. BRICS and Africa: Partnership for Mutually
• National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) was Accelerated Growth, Sustainable Development and
implemented in non-attainment cities. Inclusive Multilateralism.
• Self-assessment is also done by the cities on the C. BRICS Partnership for Global Stability, Security and
online portal “PRAN” (Portal for Regulation of Air Prosperity
D. BRICS and Africa: Partnership for Development, • On August 18, US President Joe Biden welcomed
Integration and Industrialization South Korean President Yoon Suk Yeol and Japanese
E. BRICS: Stronger Partnership for a Brighter Future Prime Minister Fumio Kishida for a summit at the Camp
Answer: B David presidential retreat in Maryland.
• PM Modi took part in the BRICS Business Forum • Details about the new “duty to consult” commitment
Leaders’ Dialogue in Johannesburg on 22 August 2023. emerged at the summit.
• He addressed the BRICS Business Forum Leaders' • The move is one of several joint efforts the leaders
Dialogue in Johannesburg, South Africa. announced during the day-long summit.
• While addressing the BRICS Business Forum Leaders' • The three countries are looking to strengthen security
Dialogue, he said that despite economic turmoil in the and economic ties amid continuing nuclear threats from
global economy, India remains the fastest-growing North Korea and growing concerns about Chinese
major economy in the world. provocations in the Pacific.
• He said that India will soon become a five trillion • The "duty to consult" pledge is intended to
dollar economy. acknowledge that the three countries share a
• PM Modi reached South Africa on 22 August to "fundamentally interrelated security environment" and
attend the 15th BRICS Summit. that a threat to any one country is a threat to all.
• He was received by Deputy President of South Africa • Under the pledge, the three countries agree to
Paul Mashatile. consult, share information and align their messaging
• The theme of the BRICS Summit is BRICS and Africa: with each other in the event of a threat or crisis.
Partnership for Mutually Accelerated Growth, • The United States has more than 80,000 troops
Sustainable Development and Inclusive Multilateralism. between the two countries.
• PM Modi will also take part in BRICS-Africa Outreach • This is the first summit that Biden held at Camp David
and BRICS Plus Dialogue event. during his presidency.
• From South Africa, PM Modi will go to the Greek
capital Athens. He will go to Athens at the invitation of 966. According to the latest data from the World
Prime Minister of Greece Kyriakos Mitsotakis. This will Resources Institute's Aqueduct Water Risk Atlas,
be his first visit to Athens. __________ trillion in GDP (31% of global GDP) will be
• BRICS include Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South exposed to high water stress by 2050.
Africa. BRICS represent over 42% of the global A. $50 trillion
population, 23% of world GDP, and 18% of global trade. B. $60 trillion
C. $80 trillion
965. In August as per report United States, Japan, and D. $90 trillion
__________signed a new security pledge, in which the E. $70 trillion
three countries committed to consult each other in the Answer: E
event of a security crisis or threat in the Pacific region. • According to the latest data from the World
A. India Resources Institute's Aqueduct Water Risk Atlas, the
B. Australia global community is confronting an unparalleled water
C. France emergency, with 25 nations, equivalent to a quarter of
D. Bangladesh the world's population, currently grappling with
E. South Korea exceptionally elevated levels of annual water stress.
Answer: E • A quarter of the world population living in twenty-
• Ahead of the Camp David summit, the US, Japan, and five countries uses 80% of their available water each
South Korea agreed on a new security pledge. year and experiences extreme water stress.
• The United States, Japan, and South Korea signed a • Bahrain, Cyprus, Kuwait, Lebanon and Oman are the
new security pledge, in which the three countries five countries with the most severe water shortages.
committed to consult each other in the event of a Bangladesh stays in the 56th position on the list.
security crisis or threat in the Pacific region.
• On a global scale, approximately 4 billion individuals, A. Canada
constituting half of the world's population, encounter B. New York
water stress for at least one month annually. C. California
• This figure might escalate to nearly 60% by the year D. Australia
2050. E. San Francisco
• $70 trillion in GDP (31% of global GDP) will be Answer: E
exposed to high water stress by 2050, up from $15 • San Francisco has launched an autonomous shuttle
trillion (24% of global GDP) in 2010. service -- less than a week after California regulators
• Just 4 countries-India, Mexico, Egypt, and Turkey-will approved the expansion of robotaxis despite traffic and
account for over half of the exposed GDP in 2050, as per safety concerns.
the report, which is released every four years. • The free shuttle will run daily in a fixed route called
• The report revealed that 25 nations, comprising a the Loop around Treasure Island, the site of a former US
quarter of the world's population, undergo exceedingly Navy base in the middle of San Francisco Bay. The Loop
severe water stress annually. Among them, Bahrain, makes seven stops, connecting residential
Cyprus, Kuwait, Lebanon, and Oman encounter the neighborhoods with stores and community centers.
greatest impact. These regions could be vulnerable to About 2,000 people live on the island.
water scarcity even during a brief period of drought. • The all-electric vehicle, which doesn’t have a driver’s
• By 2050, an additional 1 billion people are expected seat or steering wheel, is staffed with an attendant who
to live with extremely high water stress, even if the can drive the bus with a handheld controller if necessary.
world limits global temperature rise to 1.3 degrees C to • The shuttles are operated by Beep, an Orlando,
2.4 degrees C (2.3 degrees F to 4.3 degrees F) by 2100. Florida-based company that has run similar pilot
programs in more than a dozen U.S. communities,
967. In August as per report ____________ discovered a including service at the Miami Zoo, Mayo Clinic and
demon particle that could lead to the making of Yellowstone National Park.
superconductors that can operate in room temperature. • The boxy shuttle, which can sit up to 10 passengers,
A. USA will operate 9 a.m. to 6 p.m. every day and circle the
B. Japan Loop every 20 minutes. The city has two shuttles — one
C. France can charge while the other ferries passengers.
D. Italy • Superconductors are certain metals or alloys that can
E. Germany conduct electricity without resistance, but for that to
Answer: A happen, the temperature needs to be below 100 degrees
• Researchers at the University of Illinois recently Fahrenheit. Superconductors are used in operations such
discovered a demon particle that could lead to the as levitating trains and highly accurate magnetic
making of superconductors that can operate in room resonance imaging (MRI) machines.
temperature
• Scientists recently discovered a 'demon particle' that 969. In August as per report India and the __________
could lead to superconductors that conduct electricity at countries agreed to review their free trade pact for
room temperature. goods by 2025.
• The demon particle was first predicted by theoretical A. ASEAN
physicist David Pines in 1956. B. BRICS
• Pines theorised that electrons passing through a solid C. SCO
would exhibit unique behaviours and that these D. EU
behaviours could lead to the formation of a new type of E. BIMSTEC
particle that he called a "demon particle." Answer: A
• India and the ASEAN countries agreed to review their
968. In August as per report _________ has launched an free trade pact for goods by 2025.
autonomous driverless bus service.
• A Joint Committee of the ASEAN-India Trade in Goods • The borrowers should be provided an option to switch
Agreement (AITIGA) created a roadmap for the review of over to a fixed rate according to the board-approved
the pact and to finalize the terms of reference for the policy of regulated entities.
fresh negotiations. • The number of times a borrower will be allowed to
• The AITIGA review will now take place at the India- switch during the tenor of the loan should be specified in
ASEAN Leaders’ Summit scheduled in early September. the policy.
• The review of the AITIGA was a demand from Indian • As per the RBI definition, personal loans are the loans
businesses for a very long time. given to individuals and consist of consumer credit,
• The review of AITIGA will enhance and diversify trade education loan, loans given for the creation or
while addressing the current issues in bilateral trade. enhancement of immovable assets (such as housing
• ASEAN-India Trade in Goods Agreement was signed loans), and loans given for investment in financial assets
and entered into force on January 1, 2010. (shares and debentures).
• ASEAN and India signed the ASEAN-India Trade in • A floating interest rate is an interest rate that
Goods (TIG) Agreement in 2009. changes periodically.
• India and ASEAN are also working on increasing • The rate of interest moves up and down, or "floats,"
private-sector engagement. reflecting economic or financial market conditions.
• A floating interest rate can also be referred to as an
970. In August as per report RBI has asked the banks to adjustable or variable interest rate because it can vary
provide borrowers the option to switch from floating to over the term of a debt obligation.
fixed interest rate. • A floating interest rate uses a reference rate as the
RBI said the banks and other lenders shall implement base.
personal loan instructions by _________. • In order to arrive at the floating rate, a spread (or
A. 31st August, 2023 margin) is added to the reference rate.
B. 31st November, 2023 • Floating Interest Rate = Base Rate + Spread
C. 31st March, 2024 • Floating interest rates can be modified quarterly,
D. 31st October, 2023 half-yearly or annually.
E. 31st December, 2023
Answer: E 971. According to a study by the Reserve Bank of India
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) asked all regulated (RBI), 5 states accounted for more than half of the total
entities (REs), including banks and NBFCs, to give bank-assisted investment proposals made during the
personal loan borrowers an option to switch over from a year 2022-23.
floating rate to a fixed rate regime at the time of As per report ____________attracted the highest
resetting interest rates. number of proposals for new investments and the
• In a circular on ‘Reset of floating interest rate on project cost stood at Rs 43,180 crore.
equated monthly instalments (EMI) based personal A. Maharashtra
loans the central bank said the borrowers will also be B. Uttar Pradesh
given the choice to opt for enhancement in EMI or C. Gujarat
elongation of the tenor. D. Karnataka
• RBI said the banks and other lenders shall implement E. Tamil Nadu
personal loan instructions by 31 December, 2023. Answer: B
• They will have to implement personal loan • According to a study by the Reserve Bank of India
instructions for both existing as well as new loans by (RBI), 5 states accounted for more than half of the total
December 31, 2023. bank-assisted investment proposals made during the
• Personal loans will have both categories of fixed and year 2022-23, mirroring the skewed pattern of
floating interest rates. industrialization in the country.
• The RBI study gives an indication of how attractive
states are among investors.
• Reserve Bank of India (RBI) found that the 5 states • The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE)
accounted for 57.2 per cent of the total investment notified the green hydrogen standard for India, outlining
proposals in the year (or Rs 2,01,700 crore in total the emission thresholds for production of hydrogen that
project cost), higher than 43.2 per cent share during can be classified as ‘green’.
2021-22. • The notification specifies that a detailed
• Uttar Pradesh attracted the highest number of methodology for measurement, reporting, monitoring,
proposals for new investments and the project cost on-site verification and certification of green hydrogen
stood at Rs 43,180 crore. Gujarat followed suit with Rs and its derivatives will be specified by the MNRE.
37,317 crore. Odisha was at No. 3 with Rs 11,810 crore. • Green hydrogen is the name given to hydrogen gas
• The study by the central bank ascribed the new that has been produced using renewable energy, such as
investments in these states to a slew of factors that wind or solar power, which create no GHG emissions.
include their inclination towards improving the ease of • India became one of the few countries to have a
doing business, large and growing markets and their definition for green hydrogen.
strategic location, thereby attracting investors towards • The ministry has decided to define green hydrogen as
them. having a well-to-gate emission of not more than two kg
• Kerala, Goa and Assam have fared poorly in the carbon dioxide (CO2) equivalent per kg hydrogen (H2).
bank-assisted investment proposals. • The well-to-gate emission includes water treatment,
• Maharashtra and Karnataka were placed at No.4 and electrolysis, gas purification,drying and compression of
5 with investments of Rs 7,900 crore and Rs 7,300 crore. hydrogen. The scope of the definition encompasses both
• Overall investment plans: It shot up by 79.50% with a electrolysis-based and biomass-based hydrogen
record capital outlay of Rs 352,624 crore - the highest production methods.
since 2014-15. • The notification specifies that the Bureau of Energy
• As many as 547 projects got assistance from banks Efficiency (BEE) under the Ministry of Power will be the
and financial institutions during 2022-23 with a record nodal authority for accreditation of agencies.
high total project cost of Rs 2,66,547 crore as compared • These agencies will take care of the monitoring,
to 401 projects with a total project cost of Rs 1,41,976 verification and certification for green hydrogen
crore during 2021-22. production projects.
• Investment in green field (new) projects accounted • The government launched the National Green
for the largest share of 93.1% in the total cost of projects Hydrogen Mission (Jan, 2023) with an aim to produce 5
financed by banks and FIs during 2022-23, in line with million metric tonne (MMT) green hydrogen per annum
the trend seen in the past. with an associated renewable energy capacity of about
125 giga watt (GW) by 2030.
972. In August as per report Ministry of New and • The mission has an outlay of Rs 19,744 crore up to
Renewable Energy (MNRE) notified the green hydrogen 2029-30.
standard for India, outlining the emission thresholds for • The Strategic Interventions for Green Hydrogen
production of hydrogen that can be classified as ‘green’. Transition (SIGHT) programme is a major financial
As per report _____________ will be the nodal authority measure under the mission with an outlay of Rs 17,490
for accreditation of agencies for the monitoring, crore.
verification and certification for green hydrogen • The programme proposes two distinct financial
production projects. incentive mechanisms to support domestic production of
A. Rural Electrification Corporation Limited electrolysers and production of green hydrogen.
B. Energy Efficiency Services Limited • These incentives are aimed at enabling rapid scale-
C. Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency up, technology development and cost reduction.
D. Solar Energy Corporation of India • The definition of green hydrogen brings a lot of
E. Bureau of Energy Efficiency clarity to the mission of making India a global green
Answer: E hydrogen hub.
973. In August as per report __________has unveiled • Lenders: Banks, NBFCs, or other financial institutions
the Open Credit Enablement Network (OCEN) 4.0 with capital and access to core banking networks willing
protocol to enable lending on the cash flow bases to to offer credit lines to borrowers.
micro, small and medium enterprises (MSMEs). • Loan Service Providers (LSPs): Any digital platform
A. Reserve Bank Innovation Hub such as a web or mobile app that has an existing pool of
B. Indian Financial Technology and Allied Services customers interested in availing credit facilities.
C. Reserve Bank Information Technology Private Limited • Technology Service Providers (TSPs) – Fintech
D. Securities and Exchange Board of India organisations that bring borrowers, lenders, and
E. Indian Software Products Industry Round Table platforms onboard onto the OCEN protocol. Embedded
Answer: E Finance providers are an example of TSPs.
• Software Industry think tank, Indian Software • The OCEN protocol has been built on seven critical
Products Industry Round Table (iSPIRT) has reportedly principles acronymed as MODEALS ( Minimalism,
unveiled the Open Credit Enablement Network (OCEN) Openness, Diversity, Embeddability, Agnosticism,
4.0 protocol to enable lending on the cash flow bases to Layered Innovation, Security)
micro, small and medium enterprises (MSMEs). • The OCEN protocol uses 3 fundamental layers of
• OCEN will have two features, registry and product IndiaStack to ensure safe and secure processing of loans.
network that will help to unlock lending on cash-flow These are,
bases to match scale, complexity and needs. • Aadhaar card – to verify borrower’s identity
• OCEN is a framework of application programming • Account Aggregators – (for Data Authorisation)
interfaces (APIs) that facilitates interaction between • UPI (for Processing Payments).
loan agents, lenders, collection and disbursement • There are three layers to India Stack — digital
partners, derived data providers and account identification, payments, and data storage and
aggregators. Until now, OCEN was available only on the validation.
Centre’s e-marketplace GeM SAHAY and other pilots • OCEN was launched at the Global FinTech Festival in
across the country. 2020.
• According to the report, the credit gap for MSMEs is
USD 17-24 trillion and less than 11 per cent of MSMEs 974. In August as per report Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
have access to formal credit. OCEN is meant to solve recently launched a Centralised Web Portal, UDGAM for
these problems by creating a short-tenor framework and the public to search for their unclaimed deposits across
small ticket loans, allowing remote lenders to operate in multiple banks at one place.
distant geographies and providing consented access to UDGAM stands for ____________.
alternate sources of data. A. Unclaimed Deposits – Gateway to Asset information
• Furthermore, the report suggests OCEN 4.0's wave B. Unclaimed Drawing – Gateway to Access information
one partners are loan agents Spice Money, Indifi and C. Unclaimed Deposits – Globalizationto Access
Finagg. While its lenders include ICICI Bank, Kotak Bank, information
Union Bank and Axis Bank. D. Unclaimed Deposits – Gateway to Access Investment
• Disseminare and Finarkein Analytics, among others, E. Unclaimed Deposits – Gateway to Access information
count as technology service providers. Answer: E
• OCEN has been used so far to give short-tenor loans • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently launched a
ranging from Rs 168 to Rs 8 lakh. Centralised Web Portal, UDGAM (Unclaimed Deposits –
• As defined, OCEN is a framework of APIs developed Gateway to Access inforMation), for the public to search
over an agreed-upon framework between three four for their unclaimed deposits across multiple banks at
players - one place.
• Borrowers: Individuals or MSMEs looking to source • It has been developed by RBI for use by members of
credit lines for various reasons. public to facilitate and make it easier for them to search
their unclaimed deposits across multiple banks at one
place.
• Reserve Bank Information Technology Pvt Ltd (ReBIT), health insurance products to non-resident Indians (NRIs)
Indian Financial Technology & Allied Services (IFTAS), under the brand name HDFC Life International.
and participating banks have collaborated on • The products offered by HDFC Life International
developing the portal. includes “US Dollar Global Education Plan”, which is
• The portal will enable users to either claim the designed to help parents build a dollar-denominated
deposit amount or make their deposit accounts corpus to meet future expenses for their child’s overseas
operative at their respective banks. education. Meanwhile, HDFC AMC International
• Customers can register on the 'Udgam' platform proposed to launch six funds, which would feed into
using their mobile number. different HDFC MF schemes covering strategies on equity
• Once registered, they can search for unclaimed and hybrids.
deposits under their name and provide additional inputs • HDFC AMC International (IFSC) will also provide
such as PAN, voter ID, driving licence and passport portfolio management services to eligible global
number. institutional investors.
• Customers can then retrieve their deposits by • In India, life insurance penetration is just 3.2% of
completing a KYC process with their branch. GDP, compared to the global average of 7%.
• In case the deposit-holder has passed away, their • Similarly, the penetration of mutual funds in India is
nominee will be required to submit documents. 17% of GDP, while the world average is 80% of GDP.
• To begin with, users would be able to access the
details of their unclaimed deposits in respect of seven 976. In August as per report CAMSfinserv has onboarded
banks currently available on the portal. all ____________ Asset Management Companies
• The search facility for remaining banks on the portal serviced by CAMS as financial information providers on
would be made available in a phased manner by the AA platform, making it the first in the industry to
October 15, 2023 provide access to mutual fund data.
• According to RBI, "Unclaimed Deposits" refers to A. 15
funds held in savings or current accounts that have B. 17
remained inactive for duration of 10 years, or in the case C. 19
of fixed deposits (FDs), have not been withdrawn within D. 21
10 years from the maturity date. E. 12
Answer: B
975. In August as per report ____________announced • CAMSfinserv, one of the first RBI licensed Account
the launch of its mutual fund and life insurance services Aggregators (AA) in India, has onboarded all 17 Asset
from Gujarat's GIFT City. Management Companies serviced by CAMS as financial
A. State Bank Of India information providers on the AA platform, making it the
B. Indian Bank first in the industry to provide access to mutual fund
C. Canara Bank data.
D. HDFC Bank • Customers will be able to access and share both their
E. Axis Bank mutual fund holdings and bank account transactions
Answer: D from a single and secure platform, track their
• The HDFC Bank Group announced the launch of its investments, identify areas where they can save and
mutual fund and life insurance services from Gujarat’s make better financial decisions.
GIFT City. • CAMSfinserv is leading Account Aggregator with 54
• While HDFC International Life and Re has been set up entities including banks, MFs, insurers, depositories and
by HDFC Life, HDFC AMC International (IFSC) has been GSTN live on its platform as Financial Information
set up by HDFC Asset Management Company. Providers.
• According to a joint statement issued by HDFC AMC • An Account Aggregator is a non-banking financial
and HDFC Life, the newly-launched HDFC International company engaged in the business of providing, under a
Life and Re branch will offer dollar-denominated life and
contract, the service of retrieving or collecting financial A. Rs 251 billion
information pertaining to its customer. B. Rs 351billion
C. Rs 236 billion
977. According to the third edition of the India D. Rs 296 billion
Retirement Index Study (IRIS) India’s retirement index E. Rs 245 billion
has increased to _________ from 44 witnessed across Answer: C
the past two editions. • The liquidity of the banking system in India fell into
A. 41 deficit for the first time in FY24.
B. 47 • As per RBI data, banking system liquidity stood at Rs
C. 37 236 billion ($2.84 billion) as of August 21.
D. 26 • The liquidity fell into deficit after RBI’s temporary
E. 12 liquidity withdrawal move and tax outflows.
Answer: B • The liquidity surplus had hit a high of 2.8 trillion
• Urban India’s retirement index has increased to 47 rupees at the start of August 2023.
from 44 witnessed across the past two editions. • However, liquidity has been declining especially after
• According to the third edition of the India Retirement RBI asked banks to hold an incremental cash reserve
Index Study (IRIS), over two-thirds of millennials feel ratio (CRR) of 10% on increase in deposits between May
secure with their current savings/investments for 19 and July 28.
retirement. • This has led to withdrawal of over one trillion rupees.
• Max Life Insurance in partnership with KANTAR
(world's leading marketing data and analytics company) 979. In August as per report government has imposed a
has conducted the IRIS 3.0. ___________ percent export duty on onions December
• It assesses urban India’s readiness to live a healthy, 31, 2023.
peaceful, and financially secure retired life. A. 20%
• Millennials, who were polled for the first time in IRIS B. 40%
3.0, outperformed others in terms of retirement C. 10%
readiness. D. 25%
• The retirement index consists of three sub-indices- E. 35%
health, finance, and emotion. Answer: B
• The health awareness has moved up by 3 points from • The government on imposed an export duty of 40%
41 in IRIS 2.0 to 44 in IRIS 3.0. on onions with immediate effect to check price rise and
• According to the IRIS 3.0 study, about 1 in 3 urban improve supplies in the domestic market.
Indians are worried about their savings depleting within • This export duty is valid till December 31, 2023.
five years of retired life. • As per the data by the consumer affairs ministry, the
• 2 out of 5 individuals have not begun investing for all-India average retail price of onion was ruling at Rs
retirement yet. 30.72.
• The IRIS 3.0 study finds out that 64% of urban Indians • Rating agency Crisil in its report on August 4, had
are familiar with National Pension System (NPS). Only warned that onion could be next tomato and the retail
16% invest by making contributions. price might touch Rs 60/70 per kg by month-end.
• According to IRIS 3.0, urban Indian women are now • The onion prices continue to rise this month and
at par with men in retirement readiness. experts were saying that prices are likely to rise more in
• Notably, 52 per cent of women consider retirement September.
planning the foremost financial priority, closely followed • India's annual retail inflation rose sharply to a 15-
by 48 per cent of men who share the same view. month high of 7.44% in July from 4.87% the previous
month, fuelled by a sharp jump in vegetable and cereal
978. As per RBI data, banking system liquidity stood at prices.
__________ as of August 21.
• The figures breached the upper end of the RBI's A. Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of
inflation band of 2%-6% for the first time in five months. India
B. Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal
980. In August as per report Central Board of Direct Trade
Taxes (CBDT) has notified a reduction in the valuation of C. Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce &
rent-free accommodation to staff provided by Industry
employers. D. Bureau of Indian Standards
The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) has notified E. National Association of Software Services Companies
amendments to the Income Tax Rules which will come Answer: E
into effect from _____________. • With an aim to connect future-ready digital talent
A. 1st October, 2023 with the industry, National Association of Software
B. 1st September, 2023 Services Companies (Nasscom) launched the Talent
C. 1st November, 2023 Connect portal. This portal will bridge the gap between
D. 1st December, 2023 recruiters and digitally skilled and certified candidates.
E. 1st January, 2024 • The portal, which has been in work for the last one-
Answer: B and-a-half year already has 100,000 candidates and has
• The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) has notified seen corporates such as Tata Consultancy Services (TCS),
a reduction in the valuation of rent-free accommodation Tech Mahindra and Salesforce recruiting from it.
to staff provided by employers. • The platform, for the first time, is also making an
• The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) has notified attempt to bridge the gap of skill-based talent to
amendments to the Income Tax Rules which will come employers, rather than the current practice of academic
into effect from September 1. focused talent base.
• As per the notification, where unfurnished • The portal focuses on two segments of skilling—core
accommodation is provided to employees other than the IT skills and emerging tech skills. Core IT skills cater to
central or state government employees and such work profiles such as customer care executives, help
accommodation is owned by the employer then the desk roles, data entry etc.
valuation shall be: • The emerging tech skills focus on the latest full stack
• (i) 10 per cent of salary (reduced from 15 per cent) in tech capabilities, programming skills like Java, Python
cities having population exceeding 40 lakh as per 2011 etc, data scientists and cyber security expertise.
census (earlier, 25 lakh as per 2001 census) • Almost 80 per cent of the learner base on the portal is
• (ii) 7.5 per cent of salary (reduced from 10 per cent) in coming from tier 2 & 3 cities.
cities having population exceeding 15 lakh but not • The portal works in tandem with Nasscom’s training
exceeding 40 lakh as per 2011 census (earlier, 10 lakhs ecosystem which includes the government skilling
but not exceeding 25 lakhs as per 2001 census). schemes, the Future Skill Portal which is also part of the
• Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) is a statutory Talent Connect brings with it an ecosystem of 200
authority functioning under the Central Board of partners, as well as contributions from tech players like
Revenue Act, 1963. Salesforce, Google etc.
• The CBDT is a part of the Department of Revenue in • The National Association of Software and Service
the Ministry of Finance. Companies is an Indian non-governmental trade
• The CBDT is headed by Chairman and also comprises association and advocacy group that primarily serves
of six members, all of whom are ex-officio Special the Indian technology industry. Founded in 1988.
Secretary to the Government of India. Debjani Ghosh - President of NASSCOM.
981. In August as per report __________ launched the 982. In August as per report Insurance Regulatory and
Talent Connect portal that will bridge the gap between Development Authority of India (IRDAI) has chosen to
recruiters and digitally skilled and certified candidates. lower the minimum capital requirement for Foreign
Reinsurance Business (FRBs) to __________ crore from E. Aksa Air
Rs 100 crore. Answer: A
A. Rs 80 crore • Air India has become the first major airline to set up a
B. Rs 75 crore leasing unit at IFSC Gift City in Gujarat.
C. Rs 60 crore • The airline’s six A350s, which are slated to be
D. Rs 50 crore inducted into the Tata-owned airline’s fleet, will come
E. Rs 25 crore through the said leasing firm AI Fleet Services IFSC
Answer: D Limited under a financial lease.
• The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority • The estimated project cost is ₹7,253 crore.
of India (IRDAI) has chosen to lower the minimum • According to the Ministry of Corporate Affairs data,
capital requirement for Foreign Reinsurance Business Vinod Hejmadi, who is also the CFO of Air India, Kalpana
(FRBs) to Rs 50 crore from Rs 100 crore. Rao, also the Company Secretary of Air India, and Abhijit
• This amendment is among other revisions in the Menon are part of its top management.
reinsurance segment aimed at positioning India as a • Both Hejmadi and Menon will be Directors at the said
global insurance hub. entity. The entity has an authorised capital of ₹50 crore
• During its 123rd Authority meeting, the insurance and a paid-up capital of ₹30 crore.
regulator sanctioned a series of amendments to the • Air India has placed an order for the procurement of
Reinsurance Regulations to harmonise and streamline 470 aircraft from Airbus and Boeing through leasing and
the existing regulations applicable to Indian insurers, financing.
Indian reinsurers, Foreign Reinsurance Branches (FRBs), • Out of these 470 aircraft, the near-term delivery of six
and International Financial Services Centre Insurance Airbus A350 aircraft (long-range, wide-body. twin-
Offices (IIOs). engine jet airliner) is planned to be financed through the
• Alongside lowering the capital requirement, IRDAI proposed entity.
has also restructured the order of preference to four • Air India’s order includes both wide-body as well as
categories from the existing six levels. According to the narrow-body aircraft. Its order comprises 34 A350-1000s,
new system, Category 1 will encompass Indian six A350-900s, 20 Boeing 787 Dreamliners, and 10
Reinsurers, including the sole company GIC Re Boeing 777X widebody aircraft, as well as 140 Airbus
• Category 2 will comprise International Financial A320neos, 70 Airbus A321neos, and 190 Boeing 737
Services Centre Insurance Offices IIOs (which invest 100 MAX narrow-body aircraft.
per cent of retained premiums emanating from insurers
in India in the DTA) and FRBs. 984. What is the shareholding percentage of Bank of
• Category 3 will consist of ‘Other IIOs’, and Category 4 Baroda in Nainital Bank?
will include other Indian Insurers (only in respect of per- A. 56.98
risk facultative placements in the insurance segment for B. 98.57
which the Insurer is registered to transact business) and C. 84.56
cross-border reinsurers (CBRs). D. 78.96
• The regulatory framework for IIOs is assured to align E. 53.69
with International Financial Services Centres Authority Answer: B
(IFSCA) regulations to eliminate dual compliance. • State-owned Bank of Baroda (BoB) planned to sell its
majority stake in Nainital Bank.
983. In August as per report _________ has become the • The board of directors of the bank has approved
first major airline to set up a leasing unit at IFSC Gift City divestment of its majority shareholding in Nainital Bank
in Gujarat. Limited (NBL).
A. Air India • BoB currently holds 98.57 per cent of the total equity
B. IndiGo share capital of NBL.
C. Spice Jet
D. Go First
• The Mumbai-based BoB had taken over Nainital Bank • The requirement of a sponsor for an IDF-NBFC has
in 1973 on the directions of the Reserve Bank of India now been withdrawn and shareholders of IDF-NBFCs
(RBI). shall be subjected to scrutiny as applicable to other
• The Nainital Bank Limited is a scheduled commercial NBFCs, including NBFC-IFCs.
bank founded in 1922. The bank is a subsidiary of Bank • Under the earlier arrangement, IDF-NBFCs were
of Baroda which is under the ownership of Ministry of required to enter into a tripartite agreement with the
Finance of the Government of India. Nikhil Mohan (MD concessionaire and the project authority for investments
& CEO). in the Public Private Partnership (PPP) infrastructure
projects having a project authority.
985. In August as per report Reserve Bank of India has • The requirement of the tripartite agreement has now
released detailed guidelines for the Infrastructure Debt been made optional.
Fund-NBFCs. Which of the following statement is • IDF-NBFC shall raise funds through issue of either
incorrect? rupee or dollar denominated bonds of minimum five-
A. The NBFC shall have a minimum NOF of Rs 300 crore. year maturity.
B. The NBFC shall have CRAR of 12 percent with earning • The entities can raise funds through shorter tenor
profits for the last three years. bonds and commercial papers (CPs) from the domestic
C. NBFC should have been in existence for at least 5 market to the extent of up to 10 per cent of their total
years with net NPAs shall be less than 3 per cent of the outstanding borrowings with a view to facilitate better
net advances. asset-liability management (ALM).
D. Under the earlier guidelines, an IDF-NBFC was • They can also raise funds through loan route under
required to be sponsored by a bank or an NBFC- external commercial borrowings (ECBs).
Infrastructure Finance Company (NBFC-IFC). • However, such borrowings shall be subject to
E. IDF-NBFC shall raise funds through issue of either minimum tenor of five years and the ECB loans should
rupee or dollar denominated bonds of minimum five- not be sourced from foreign branches of Indian banks.
year maturity.
Answer: B 986. In August as per report Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
• Reserve Bank of India has released detailed has issued comprehensive guidelines regarding penal
guidelines for the Infrastructure Debt Fund-NBFCs. charges in loan accounts in an effort to promote
• Reiterating the key changes announced at the time of fairness, transparency, and accountability in the lending
MPC meet, the central bank prescribed conditions under practices of financial institutions.
which all NBFCs shall be eligible to sponsor IDF-MFs with These guidelines are applicable to __________.
prior approval. A. Small Finance Banks
• The NBFC shall have a minimum NOF of Rs 300 crore B. Local Area Banks
and CRAR of 15 percent with earning profits for the last C. Regional Rural Banks
three years and its performance shall be satisfactory. D. Non-Banking Financial Companies
• As per the central bank, the NBFC should have been E. All of the above
in existence for at least 5 years with net NPAs shall be Answer: E
less than 3 per cent of the net advances. • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has issued
• Also, after the investment in the IDF-MF, the CRAR of comprehensive guidelines regarding penal charges in
the NBFC shall not be less than the regulatory minimum loan accounts in an effort to promote fairness,
prescribed for it. transparency, and accountability in the lending practices
• As prescribed, the NBFC shall continue to maintain of financial institutions.
the required level of NOF after accounting for • These guidelines are applicable to all commercial
investment in the proposed IDF-MF. banks, including Small Finance Banks, Local Area Banks,
• Under the earlier guidelines, an IDF-NBFC was and Regional Rural Banks, as well as Primary (Urban)
required to be sponsored by a bank or an NBFC- Co-operative Banks, Non-Banking Financial Companies
Infrastructure Finance Company (NBFC-IFC). (NBFCs), and All India Financial Institutions.
• The RBI's move comes as part of its ongoing efforts to • To mark the 200th birth anniversary of Arya Samaj
ensure that borrowers are treated fairly and to address founder Dayanand Saraswati this year, the government
customer grievances arising from divergent practices in has formed a high-level committee headed by Prime
the imposition of penal charges. Minister Narendra Modi.
• Under the new guidelines, financial institutions are • The panel has ministers Amit Shah, Smriti Irani, G
required to adhere to the key principles. Kishan Reddy and Anurag Thakur as ex-officio members,
• The guidelines emphasize that any penalty imposed besides leader of Opposition Mallikarjun Kharge.
for non-compliance with material terms and conditions • Governors and Chief Ministers of Gujarat, Punjab,
of a loan contract shall be treated as 'penal charges' Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu, Haryana, Bihar,
rather than 'penal interest.' Uttarakhand, West Bengal and Assam, where the
• This means that penal charges should not be added celebrations are likely to be held, have been included in
to the rate of interest charged on the advances, and no the committee.
further interest should be computed on such charges. • In February this year, PM Modi inaugurated the year-
• The quantum of penal charges should be reasonable long celebrations commemorating the 200th birth
and commensurate with the level of non-compliance. anniversary of Dayanand Saraswati in Delhi.
These charges should be clearly disclosed to customers in • Swami Dayanand Saraswati was a philosopher, social
the loan agreement in terms and conditions, and the Key leader and founder of the Arya Samaj, a reform
Fact Statement (KFS). movement of Vedic dharma.
• Additionally, they should be prominently displayed on • He established the Arya Samaj on April 7, 1875, in
the financial institution's website under the section Bombay -- with 10 principles that are beautifully based
dedicated to interest rates and service charges. purely on God, soul and nature.
• The guidelines ensure fairness by mandating that • He was the first to give the call for Swaraj as "India
penal charges for loans sanctioned to individual for Indian" in 1876.
borrowers (for purposes other than business) should not • The Dayanand Anglo Vedic schools came into
be higher than those applicable to non-individual existence in 1886 to realize the vision of Swami
borrowers facing similar non-compliance. Dayanand Saraswati.
• These instructions will come into effect from January • The first DAV School was established in Lahore with
1, 2024. Financial institutions are expected to revise Mahatma Hansarjas the headmaster.
their policy frameworks accordingly and ensure the
implementation of the new guidelines for all fresh loans 988. In August as per report Srettha Thavisin has been
availed or renewed from the effective date. elected as the new prime minister of which of the
• Existing loans will transition to the new penal charges following country?
regime on the next review or renewal date, or within six A. Thailand
months of the effective date of these instructions, B. Cambodia
whichever is earlier. C. Laos
D. Myanmar
987. In August as per report to mark the 200th birth E. Malaysia
anniversary of Arya Samaj founder Dayanand Saraswati Answer: A
this year, the government has formed a high-level • Srettha Thavisin has been elected as the new prime
committee headed by ____________. minister of Thailand.
A. Amit Shah • Srettha Thavisin has been elected after months of
B. Nitin Gadkari political deadlock.
C. Rajnath Singh • After a deadlock, Thailand has been administered by
D. Piyush Goyal a caretaker government since March.
E. Narendra Modi • In May, the election was won by the Move Forward
Answer: E party led by liberal Pita Limjaroenrat.
• However, Pita Limjaroenrat fell 51 votes short of the D. Writer
majority needed from Thailand’s bicameral National E. Film-Director
Assembly. Answer: A
• Srettha Thavisin belongs to the Pheu Thai Party. He • India’s most distinguished statistician Calyampudi
required 375 votes to become premier. He won 482 Radhakrishna Rao passed away at the age of 102.
votes. • He was awarded the 2023 International Prize in
• Its capital is Bangkok. Baht is its currency. It is a Statistics.
unitary parliamentary semi-democratic constitutional • He is known for the Cramer-Rao Lower Bound and the
monarchy. Rao-Blackwell Theorem and many other results.
• He served as the Director of the Indian Statistical
989. In August as per report Central Vigilance Institute and worked as Professor in many institutions.
Commission has reconstituted Advisory Board on • He was awarded Padma Bhushan in 1968 and Padma
Banking and Financial Frauds (ABBFF). Who will chair Vibhushan in 2001.
the reconstituted ABBFF? • Rao received the SS Bhatnagar Prize in 1963 and was
A. Rajnikant Mishra elected as a “fellow of the Royal Society” in 1967.
B. Suresh N Patel
C. Ravikant Singh 991. What is the name of the Wagner Chief, who died in
D. Nandan Nilekani a plane crash in Russia?
E. Partha Pratim Sengupta A. Dmitri Utkin
Answer: B B. Yevgeny Prigozhin
• The Advisory Board on Banking and Financial Frauds C. Andrei Troshev
(ABBFF) has been reconstituted by the Central Vigilance D. Sergei Shoigu
Commission (CVC). E. Brendi Yegolkov
• Suresh N Patel, former Central Vigilance Answer: B
Commissioner, will chair the reconstituted ABBFF. • Yevgeny Prigozhin was the leader of the Wagner
• In addition to the Chairman, ABBFF have four mercenary group that led a brief armed rebellion against
members. The term of Chairman/Members will be for the Russian military.
two years with effect from August 21. • Prigozhin was among 10 passengers on board the
• The four members of ABBFF are Ravikant, Rajnikant plane that crashed in the northern region of Moscow on
Mishra, David Rasquinha and Partha Pratim Sengupta. 23 August.
• ABBFF carries out the first level examination of bank • A plane flying from Moscow to St. Petersburg crashed
frauds before recommendations or references are made in the Tver region, killing all passengers, including the 3
to investigation by agencies like Central Bureau of pilots.
Investigation (CBI). • According to reports, Dmitri Utkin, the commander of
• All PSBs, public sector insurance companies, and the mercenary group Wagner and one of the founders of
public sector financial institutions are now required to the group, was also killed in the incident.
refer all matters of frauds involving ₹3 crore and above • Reasons ranging from technical problems to
to the ABBFF for advice. explosions in the aircraft are being expressed.
• The ABBFF will be headquartered in New Delhi. It will • Just 2 months earlier, Yevgeny Prigozhin had led a
have to ordinarily, within a month of receipt of the brief rebellion against the Russian army.
initial reference, tender the advice. • It was considered the biggest challenge against the
regime since President Vladimir Putin came to power.
990. In August as per report CR Rao passed away at the
age of 102. He was a renowned____________. 992. What is the name of the Indian athlete who has
A. Statistician been banned for four years by NADA for failing an out-
B. Actor of-competition doping test?
C. Doctor A. Priya Chouhan
B. Sahilee Singh • He was the son of a former Foreign Minister,
C. Hima Das Shintaro Abe, and grandson of a former Prime Minister,
D. Abinash Sable Nobusuke Kishi, who had been the first Japanese PM to
E. Dutee Chand visit India
Answer: E • The Importance of Shinzo Abe, edited by former
• Top Indian athlete Dutee Chand, the current national journalists and public policy analyst Sanjaya Baru, is a
100m record holder, has been banned by the National fitting homage to the memory of the former Japanese
Anti-Doping Agency for four years. prime minister.
• She has been banned by NADA for failing an out-of- • Sanjaya Baru has done signal service in bringing
competition doping test for Selective Androgen Receptor together experts from India and Japan to discuss Shinzo
Modulator (SARM) in December last year. Abe’s path-breaking contribution to global geopolitics
• The ban will be effective from January 3 this year, and architecting the important Indo-Japan relations
which is the date of issue of the letter by NADA. within the ambit of the concept of Indo-Pacific.
• On December 5, 2022, all his results from the date of • The 16 essays by people who knew Abe or his work
sample collection will be considered disqualified and will well makes for insightful and absorbing reading to
result in forfeiture of medals, points, and prizes. celebrate the statesman as much as the geopolitical
• The presence of a Banned Substance in an Athlete's strategist. They give a sense of the void Abe has left
Sample or the use or attempted use of a Banned behind.
Substance by an Athlete is an Anti-Doping Rule Violation • The book is divided into three neatly divided sections.
in accordance with Article 2.1 and Article 2.2 of the While the first examines the domestic politics of Abe, the
NADA ADR. second is devoted to an examination of his impact on
• However, NADA has given Dutee an opportunity to India-Japan relations. The third examines in detail Abe’s
provide an explanation of the presence of the substance conceptualisation of the Indo-Pacific and the Quad.
in her sample in the form of written submissions,
statements, and supporting evidence relating to AAF. 994. In August as per report __________ won the FIDE
• Dutee is an Asian Games medallist, having won silver World Cup.
medals in the 100m and 200m women's events in the A. Magnus Carlsen
2018 edition of the event. B. R Praggnanandhaa
• She also won a bronze medal at the Asian C. D Gukesh
Championships in 2013, 2017 and 2019. D. Fabiano Caruna
• In 2019, she became the first Indian woman sprinter E. Nijjat Abbasov
to win a gold medal in the 100m event at the Answer: A
Universiade. • Magnus Carlsen won the FIDE World Cup for the first
time. He defeated India’s Praggnanandhaa in the final.
993. Who is the author of the book titled 'The • After the first two classical games ended in draws,
Importance of Shinzo Abe: India, Japan and the Indo- Carlsen clinched the first tie-break. The second tie-break
Pacific?’ ended in a draw.
A. Sanjana Gupta • R Praggnanandhaa became the youngest player to
B. Sandeep Sahu reach the chess World Cup final.
C. S Jaishankar • He became the third youngest player after the
D. Sanjaya Baru legendary Bobby Fischer and Carlsen to qualify for the
E. Amitav Ghosh Candidates tournament.
Answer: D • Fabiano Caruana and Nijat Abasov finished the
• Shinzo Abe Prime Minister of Japan from 2006-07 and tournament in third and fourth spots, respectively.
2012-2020, was assassinated in July last year in the • The winner get a cash prize of Rs 90,93,551 ($110k)
western Japanese city of Nara while giving a campaign and the runner-up get around Rs 66,13,444 ($80k).
speech for the ruling Liberal Democratic Party.
• In the Women's finals, Aleksandra Goryachkina won • Spain's national football team is also known as La
the title by defeating Nurgyul Salimova. Roja.
• Russian Goryachkina, playing as a neutral, had been • The 2023 FIFA Women's World Cup was the 9th
a runner up in 2021. edition of the FIFA Women's World Cup.
• FIDE World Cup 2023 was held at Baku, Azerbaijan • It took place from 20 July to 20 August 2023. It was
from 29 Jul – 25 August. jointly hosted by Australia and New Zealand.
• It was the first FIFA Women's World Cup to have
995. In August as per report __________ became the more than one host nation.
first Indian after Vishwanthan Anand to reach the • Following in the footsteps of Germany, USA, Norway,
semifinals of the FIDE World Cup. and Japan, Spain has now become the fifth country and
A. R Praggnanandhaa the third European nation to claim victory in the
B. D Gukesh Women's World Cup since its inception in 1991.
C. Arjun Eglaisi • Sweden defeated co-hosts Australia 2-0 in Brisbane
D. Nihil Sarin to take third place at the FIFA Women's World Cup 2023.
E. Leon Modenka • Spain's Salma Paralluelo and Aitana Bonmati picked
Answer: A up Young Player of the Tournament and Golden Ball,
• R Praggnanandhaa reach in semifinals of the FIDE respectively.
World Cup. • Japan's Miyazawa Hinata picked up the Golden Boot
• R Praggnanandhaa becomes the first Indian after award with a total of five goals.
Vishwanthan Anand to reach the semifinals of the FIDE • England's Earps was awarded the Golden Glove
World Cup. following her incredible campaign, including key saves in
• He drew the match against his higher-ranked the final against Spain.
opponent Fabiano Caruana.
• Out of four Indians, who had made it to the 997. In August as per report the Indian Navy’s INS Vagir
quarterfinals, Praggnanandhaa only reached the semi- a Scorpene-class submarine, has been deployed to
final. ___________ for the first time on an extended-range
• Magnus Carlsen defeated Nijat Abasov in another mission.
semi-final match. A. Maldives
• FIDE World Cup is taking place in Baku, Azerbaijan B. Japan
from 30 July to 24 August 2023. C. Australia
D. UAE
996. In August as per report Spain defetaed _________ E. Saudi Arabia
by 1-0 to become the world champion in FIFA Women Answer: C
World Cup in Sydney. • For the first time, the Indian Navy’s INS Vagir, a
A. Australia Scorpene-class submarine, has been deployed to
B. Germany Australia on an extended-range mission.
C. England • INS Vagir will participate in various exercises with the
D. Brazil Royal Australian Navy (RAN) units on the West Coast of
E. Argentina Australia. On the country’s East coast, INS Sahyadri and
Answer: C INS Kolkata and other aircraft are involved in Exercise
• Spain has won over England by 1-0 to become the Malabar-23, which began August 11 and will go on till
world champion in FIFA Women World Cup in Sydney. August 21.
• Captain Olga Carmona's strike in the 29th minute • This is the first time that the Royal Australian Navy is
proved decisive. hosting the exercise. It first participated in the exercise
• Spain's national football team became only the in 2020, during the thick of the military standoff
second country, after Germany, to win both the Men’s between India and China in eastern Ladakh.
and Women’s World Cups.
• AUSINDEX—a separate exercise between India and Chandrayaan-3 Lander and Mission Operations Complex
Australia will be held between 22 and 24 August. (MOX) at ISRO Telemetry, Tracking, and Command
• It is a Kalvari-class submarine, which includes vessels, Network (ISTRAC), Bengaluru.
such as the INS Kalvari, INS Khanderi, INS Karanj, INS • Chandrayaan-3 is a follow-on mission to
Vela and INS Vagsheer. Chandrayaan-2.
• It is the fifth Scorpène-class submarine. • It was launched on 14 July 2023 from Satish Dhawa n
• This class of submarines have Diesel Electric Space Centre’s Second Launch Pad in Sriharikota, Andhra
transmission systems. Pradesh.
• These are primarily attack submarines or ‘hunter- • Chandrayaan-3 landed on the lunar surface at around
killer’ types which means they are designed to target 6:04 pm on 23 August 2023. It has a mission life of one
and sink adversary naval vessels. lunar day (14 Earth Days).
• It is built under Project-75 by the Mazgaon Docks Ltd, • The mission objectives of Chandrayaan-3 are: To
under technology transfer from the Naval Group of demonstrate a Safe and Soft Landing on the Lunar
France Surface.
• INS Vagir is capable of undertaking diverse missions • To demonstrate Rover roving on the moon.
including anti-surface warfare, anti-submarine warfare, • To conduct in-situ scientific experiments.
intelligence gathering, mine laying and surveillance • Lunar Polar Exploration Mission (LUPEX) is a joint
missions. mission of the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency
• It has advanced stealth features and is also equipped (JAXA) and the Indian Space Research Organisation
with both long-range guided torpedoes and anti-ship (ISRO).
missiles. • JAXA is developing a rover while a lander is being
developed by ISRO.
998. In August as per report India has become the first • The rover will carry not only the instruments of ISRO
nation to land on the South Pole of the Moon. What is and JAXA but also the instruments of US space agency
the name of the India’s Next Moon mission which is to NASA and the European Space Agency (ESA).
launched in 2025 with the help of Japan? • The main aim of LUPEX mission is to explore the lunar
A. SLIM polar region's suitability for establishing a base on the
B. BERESHEET Moon for sustainable activities.
C. Chandrayaan 4 • It will also collect information about the availability
D. LUPEX of lunar water-ice resources and demonstrate lunar
E. DRACO surface exploration technologies.
Answer: D • Ahmedabad-based Physical Research Laboratory
• India has become the first nation to land on the South (PRL) has proposed many instruments for the LUPEX
Pole of the Moon. mission to carry out measurements on the surface and
• The Vikram lander touched down perfectly near the subsurface near the polar region.
lunar South Pole. • Permittivity and Thermo-physical investigation for
• ISRO Chairman S Somnath thanked everyone for their Moon's Aquatic Scout (PRATHIMA) instrument will be
support. part of this mission.
• The Project Director of the Chandrayaan 3 mission P
Veeramuthuvel said that India had demonstrated its 999. Consider the following statement regarding INS
capabilities of soft landing on the Moon. Vindhyagiri. Which of the following statement is
• The Mission Director M Sreekanth also thanked the incorrect?
whole team of ISRO. 1. President Droupadi Murmu launched INS Vindhyagiri,
• India has become 4th country after USSR, U.S. and the last in the series of three Project 17A (Alpha)
China to make a soft landing on the lunar surface. frigates.
• After the soft landing, the ISRO command centre 2. It was built by the Indian Navy at Kolkata-based
established the communication link between the Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE).
3. Project 17A Frigates are the follow-on class of the indigenous firms, including Micro, Small, and Medium
Project 17 (Shivalik Class) Frigates Enterprises MSMEs.
4. Only 1 and 2
5. All of the above are correct 1000. What was the name of the Russian spacecraft that
Answer: E crashed into the moon and Russia’s Moon mission
• President Droupadi Murmu launched the advanced failed?
stealth frigate ‘Vindhyagiri’ for the Indian Navy in A. Explorer 1
Kolkata. B. Soyuz-2
• The ship was built by Garden Reach Shipbuilders and C. Spektr-R
Engineers Ltd’s (GRSE) facility at Kolkata. D. Sputnik 1
• Stealth frigate Vindhyagiri is the sixth vessel rolled E. Luna-25
out as part of the Project 17A Frigate. Answer: E
• The five other ships – INS Nilgiri, Udaygiri, Himgiri, • Luna-25 spacecraft of Russia crashed into the moon
Taragiri, and Dunagiri – were launched between 2019 and Russia’s Moon mission failed.
and 2022. • The Luna-25 spacecraft suffered an accident shortly
• The P17A ships are guided missile frigates. after completing a vital manoeuvre in preparation for
• They are 149 metres long, with a displacement of landing.
approximately 6,670 tonnes and a speed of 28 knots. • The Russian space agency Roscosmos said on August
• These ships are capable of neutralising threats in all 19, it was planned to issue an impulse to form its pre-
three dimensions of air, surface and sub-surface. landing elliptical orbit.
• Project 17 Alpha frigates (P-17A) were launched by • It said the communication with the Luna-25
the Indian Navy in 2019. spacecraft was interrupted.
• Project 17A Frigates are the follow-on class of the • Roscosmos said the measures taken on August 19
Project 17 (Shivalik Class) Frigates, with improved and 20 to search for the device and get in contact with it
stealth features, advanced weapons and sensors and did not give any results.
platform management systems. • A specially formed interdepartmental commission
• The project was launched by the defence forces of will deal with the issues of clarifying the reasons for the
India to construct a series of stealth guided-missile loss.
frigates. • It was to land near the lunar South Pole at the crater
• These frigates are currently being constructed by two Boguslawsky. It was a Russian lunar lander mission by
companies - Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders (MDL) and Roscosmos.
Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers (GRSE). • It lifted off on 10 August 2023 atop a Soyuz-2.1b
• Under Project 17A program, a total of four ships by rocket from the Vostochny Cosmodrome.
MDL and three ships by GRSE are under construction.
• The project's first five ships have been launched by
MDL and GRSE, between 2019-2022.
• The first stealth ship launched under Project 17A was
the Nilgiri, which was launched in 2019.
• Udaygiri, the second ship, was launched in May 2022.
• Project 17A ships have been designed in-house by
Indian Navy’s Warship Design Bureau WDB.
• Aligning with country's resolute commitment to
Aatma Nirbharta, a substantial 75% of the orders for
equipment and systems of Project 17A ships are from

Best 1000 Current Affairs Questions For Ibps RRB Mains

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Best 1000 Current Affairs Questions for IBPS RRB Mains 2023

April • The Competition Act, 2002 was amended by the

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Answer: C • This round of UDAN focuses on Category-2 (20-80

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• Messi is the 1st athlete who has won individual and

• The Investment Facilitation Cell (Invest India) and the E. 57 %

• The ‘Hinditar Bhashi Hindi Lekhak Puraskar’ was Answer: B

• The discussions encompassed various areas of ________ million in 2022.

• In 1946, RBI demonetized 1000- and 10000-rupee D. Rs 1,04,649 crore

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• The Union ministry of education and national

• Motilal Oswal, who has a buy rating on Varun Appointment News

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Answer: B • The committee has suggested that the Charter of

• This was the largest debt issuance by an All India Answer: A

Answer: D 522. Recently as per report which of the following

Answer: D • The overall goal is to achieve China’s first manned

• Droupadi Murmu, the first tribal President of India, A. Tori Bowie

• The MQ-9B has two variants — SkyGuardian and its C. Third

• Part-VII of the Scheme provides financial assistance to

• Hypercholesterolaemia is situation where fat gets Answer: C

• She received 50 vote in her favour while 49 votes were A. Sweden

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