DOST

UNDERGRADUATE
SCHOLARSHIP
EXAM MODULE

Prepared by
DOST SurSur Scholars Organization
 ENGLISH
Parts of Speech in English
The parts of speech are the building blocks of grammar. They categorize words based
on their function in a sentence. Here are the eight main parts of speech:
1. Noun – Names a person, place, thing, or idea.
• Example: Dog, city, happiness
• Usage: The dog ran across the park.
2. Pronoun – Replaces a noun to avoid repetition.
• Example: He, she, they, it
• Usage: Sarah loves books. She reads every night.
3. Verb – Expresses an action or a state of being.
• Example: Run, eat, is, have
• Usage: He runs every morning.
4. Adjective – Describes or modifies a noun or pronoun.
• Example: Beautiful, fast, happy
• Usage: She wore a beautiful dress.
5. Adverb – Modifies a verb, adjective, or another adverb. It tells how, when,
where, or to what extent.
• Example: Quickly, very, yesterday
• Usage: He ran quickly to catch the bus.
6. Preposition – Shows the relationship between a noun (or pronoun) and
another word in the sentence.
• Example: In, on, at, under, from, to, by
• Usage: The book is on the table.
7. Conjunction – Connects words, phrases, or clauses.
• Example: And, but, because, or
• Usage: She wanted to go out, but it was raining.
8. Interjection – Expresses sudden emotion or exclamation.
• Example: Wow!, Oh!, Oops!
• Usage: "Wow! That was amazing!"

What is Preposition?
A preposition is a word that shows the relationship between a noun or pronoun and
other words in a sentence. It often tells us about place, time, direction, manner, cause,
or possession.
“IN”
The preposition "in" is used to show place, time, or condition. Here are the uses of this
preposition:
1. To Show Place (Inside Something). Use "in" when something is inside a space
(room, building, city, country, etc.).
Examples: She is in the room. I live in New York. The cat is in the box.
2. To show time (Longer Periods). Use "in" for months, years, centuries, and long
periods.
Examples: My birthday is in July. He was born in 2000. We will travel in the
summer.
“AT”
The preposition "at" is used to indicate specific points in place, time, or situations.
Here’s when to use it:
1. To show a specific place (Point or Location). Use "at" when referring to a
particular point or exact location (not inside or within something).
Examples: She is at the bus stop. He is at home. He lives at 13 Long Street.
I’m visiting my grandmother at the hospital.
2. To show a specific time. Use "at" for exact times, holidays, or specific moments.
Examples: The train arrives at 5 PM. We eat dinner at noon. He called me at
midnight.
3. To Show an Event or Situation. Use "at" when referring to events or social
gatherings.
Examples: They are at a wedding. I met her at a party. He spoke at the
conference.
“ON”
The preposition "on" is used to indicate position, time, subjects, and specific
conditions.
1. To Show Position (Resting or Attached to a Surface). Use "on" when something
is physically touching or attached to a surface.
Examples: The book is on the table. There is a stain on your shirt. The painting
is on the wall.
2. To show Time (Specific Days & Dates). Use "on" for days of the week, specific
dates, and special days.
Examples: We have a meeting on Monday. She was born on July 4th. They got
married on Christmas Eve.
3. To Indicate a Topic or Subject. Use "on" when referring to topics, subjects, or
media.
Examples: I read a book on history. She gave a speech on climate change.
There is a documentary on Netflix.
“TO”
The preposition "to" is used to indicate direction, movement, limits, purpose,
relationships, and time.
1. To Show Direction or Movement. Use "to" when something or someone is moving
toward a place, person, or thing.
Examples: We are going to the park. She walked to the store. He handed the
book to me.
2. To Indicate a Limit or Endpoint. Use "to" when something reaches a certain limit
or boundary.
Examples: The temperature dropped to 5°C. The meeting lasted from 2 PM to
4 PM. His patience was pushed to the limit.
3. To Show Purpose or Reason. Use "to" when describing the purpose of an action
(similar to "in order to").
Examples: She studies hard to pass the exam. He left early to catch the bus. I
am going to buy some groceries.
4. To Indicate a Relationship or Connection. Use "to" when talking about
connections between things or people.
Examples: She is married to John. This song is dedicated to my mother. His
reaction was surprising to me.
5. To Express Time or a Range. Use "to" when referring to time spans or schedules.
Examples: It’s five minutes to midnight. The office is open from Monday to
Friday.
6. To Indicate Possession or Belonging. Use "to" when something belongs to
someone or is related to them.
Examples: This book belongs to me. That advice was useful to him.
7. To Show a Comparison or Preference. Use "to" when comparing two things.
Examples: I prefer coffee to tea. This movie is similar to the one we watched
last week.
 “FROM”
The preposition "from" is used to indicate origin, source, time, cause, distance,
difference, and exclusion.
1. To Show Origin or Source. Use "from" when indicating where something or
someone comes from.
Examples: She is from Japan. I received a letter from my friend. This product is
made from recycled materials.
2. To Indicate a Starting Point (Time or Place). Use "from" when describing where
something begins.
Examples: The store is open from 9 AM to 5 PM. They walked from the school
to the park. He has been working from home this week.
3. To Express Cause or Reason. Use "from" when explaining what caused
something.
Examples: She is tired from working all day. He suffers from allergies. The
damage resulted from the heavy rain.
4. To Indicate Distance. Use "from" when measuring distance between two points.
Examples: The hotel is 5 miles from the airport. We live far from the city. The
store is just a few steps from here.
5. To Indicate Exclusion or Prevention. Use "from" when referring to someone or
something being excluded or prevented from something.
Examples: He was banned from entering the club. Keep the baby away from
the fire. She refrained from making any comments.
✓ CONCLUSION: "To" indicates the direction of movement towards a destination or
end point, while "from" indicates the starting point or origin of movement.
“FOR”
The word "for" is a preposition used to indicate purpose, duration, benefit, or direction.
Here are its common uses: When to Use "For"
1. To Show Purpose or Reason (Why something is done)
Example: This gift is for you. Example: I bought a cake for the party.
2. To Indicate Duration (How long something happens)
Example: We waited for two hours. Example: She lived in London for five years.
3. To Indicate Benefit or Advantage (Who benefits from something)
Example: Exercising is good for your health. Example: This job is perfect for
me.
4. To Show a Favor or Support
Examples: I am happy for you.
: He voted for the new president.
5. To Express a Destination or Goal
Examples: They left for Paris this morning.
: I am heading for the airport.
6. To Show an Exchange or Replacement
Examples: I paid $20 for this book.
: She exchanged her dress for a larger size.
✓ Common Mistakes
Wrong: I waited since two hours. Wrong: This medicine is good to your health.
Correct: I waited for two hours. Correct: This medicine is good for your health.
“WITH”
The word "with" is a preposition that is used to show a relationship between things or
people. It has different uses depending on the context. When to Use "With"
1. To Show Connection or Association. Used to indicate that something is together
or related to something else.
Examples: She went to the mall with her friends.
: I enjoy coffee with sugar.
2. To Indicate a Tool or Instrument. Used to describe how something is done.
Examples: He wrote the letter with a pen.
: She fixed the machine with a screwdriver.
3. To Describe an Attribute or Characteristic. Used to describe how someone or
something appears.
Examples: The girl with curly hair is my sister.
: He spoke with confidence.
4. To Show Manner or Emotion. Used to describe the way someone does something.
Examples: She looked at him with anger.
: They listened with interest.
5. To Indicate Support or Agreement. Used when expressing being on someone's
side.
Examples: I agree with you.
: Are you with us or against us?
✓ Common Mistakes:
Wrong: I will go in my friend. Wrong: He cut the paper by a scissor.
Correct: I will go with my friend. Correct: He cut the paper with a scissor.
✓ CONCLUSION: Key Difference in Meaning
"With" = Togetherness, method, possession
"For" = Purpose, benefit, duration

What is a Verb?
A verb is a word that expresses an action, a state of being, or an occurrence. It is an
essential part of a sentence because it tells what the subject is doing or what is
happening.
“IS”
The word "is" is a form of the verb "to be" and is used in the present tense with singular
subjects.
1. With Singular Subjects. Use "is" when talking about one person, thing, or place
(he, she, it, or a singular noun).
Examples: She is my sister. The car is new.
2. In Questions. When forming a question, "is" usually comes before the subject.
Examples: Is she your teacher? Is the weather nice today?
3. In Negative Sentences. To make a sentence negative, add "not" after "is."
Examples: He is not at home. The food is not ready yet.
 “AM”
The word "am" is a form of the verb "to be." Specifically, "am" is the first-person
singular present tense of "be." When to Use "Am":
1. With the pronoun "I". "Am" is only used with "I" (first-person singular).
Example: I am happy.
2. To describe a state or condition. Used to express feelings, identity, or
characteristics.
Example: I am tired.
3. To indicate actions in the present continuous tense. Used with "-ing" verbs to
show an action happening now.
Example: I am studying for my exam.
Incorrect Uses of "Am". Never use "am" without "I."
Wrong: Am going to the store.
Correct: I am going to the store.
✓ CONCLUSION: "Am" is used when referring to the subject "I" (first person
singular), while "is" is used with third-person singular subjects like "he," "she," or
"it"; essentially, "am" is for yourself, and "is" is for someone or something else.
“HAS”
The word "has" is the present tense form of the verb "to have" and is used with singular
subjects. It shows possession, experience, or necessity.
1. With Singular Subjects. Use "has" with he, she, it, or singular nouns.
Examples: She has a new book. The dog has a collar. My brother has a car.
2. In Present Perfect Tense. Use "has" with past participles to show actions that
happened at an unspecified time before now.
Examples: She has finished her homework. He has traveled to Japan.
3. In Negative Sentences. To make a sentence negative, use "has not" (hasn't).
Examples: He has not called today. She hasn't seen the movie.
“HAVE”
The word "have" is a verb that can be used in different ways. It is the base form of the
verb and is used with plural subjects or the pronouns "I," "you," "we," and "they." When
to Use "Have":
1. To Show Possession. Used to indicate ownership or things someone has.
Example: I have a new phone.
Example: They have three dogs.
2. To Talk About Experiences. Used to describe something someone has done.
Example: I have visited Japan before. Example: We have seen that movie.
3. To Form the Present Perfect Tense. Used with the past participle of a verb to talk
about actions that happened at an unspecified time.
Example: They have eaten lunch.
4. To Express Obligation (in Some Cases). Used in the phrase "have to" to mean
"must."
Examples: I have to wake up early.
: They have to finish their homework.
5. As an Auxiliary (Helping) Verb Used to help form different verb tenses.
Examples: I have been working all day.
: They have gone to the store.
✓ Common Mistakes
Wrong: He have a car. Wrong: She have gone home.
Correct: He has a car. Correct: She has gone home
✓ CONCLUSION: "Has" and "have" are both forms of the verb "to have," but "has"
is used with singular third-person subjects like "he," "she," and "it," while "have" is
used with all other subjects like "I," "you," "we," and "they".

“APOSTROPHE (‘)”
You use an apostrophe (') to show ownership or possession in the following ways:
1. Singular Nouns (Add 's). For singular nouns, add 's to show ownership.
Examples: The dog’s leash (the leash belongs to one dog) My brother’s car (the
car belongs to one brother) The teacher’s book (the book belongs to one teacher)
2. Plural Nouns Ending in "s" (Add '). For plural nouns that already end in "s", just
add an apostrophe (') after the "s".
Examples: The dogs’ leashes (the leashes belong to multiple dogs).
: The teachers’ lounge (the lounge belongs to multiple teachers).
 : My parents’ house (the house belongs to both parents).
3. Plural Nouns NOT Ending in "s" (Add 's). For irregular plural nouns (that don’t
end in "s"), add 's like a singular noun.
Examples: The children’s toys (the toys belong to multiple children).
: The men’s bathroom (the bathroom for multiple men).
: The women’s club (the club for multiple women)
4. Names Ending in "s". For singular names ending in "s", both 's and just ' are
acceptable (depends on style rules).
Examples: James’s book (or James’ book); Chris’s car (or Chris’ car)

TENSES
1. PRESENT PERFECT TENSE
The present perfect tense is used to describe actions or events that happened at an
unspecified time in the past but are still relevant to the present or continue up to now.
It is formed using "have" or "has" + past participle of the verb.
Structure:
Singular: He/She/It has + past participle
Plural & I/You: I/You/We/They have + past participle
The present perfect tense is used to describe actions or events that started in the
past but are still relevant in the present or have just been completed. It is formed using
"has" or "have" + past participle (e.g., I have eaten, She has finished). When to Use
It:
A. To talk about actions that started in the past and continue in the
present
She has lived in New York for five years. (She still lives there.) I have worked here
since 2010. (I still work here.)
B. To talk about experiences (without mentioning when they happened)
I have traveled to Japan. (At some point in my life, but no specific time.) She has never
tried sushi.
C. To describe recent actions with a present effect
I have lost my keys. (I still don’t have them.) She has just finished her homework.
 D. To talk about multiple actions that happened over time until now
He has written three books. We have watched this movie many times.
2. PRESENT SIMPLE TENSE
The present simple tense is used for actions that are regular, general, or always true.
It follows the basic structure:
Singular (he, she, it): Uses the base verb + s/es
Plural & I/You/We/They: Uses the base verb
When to Use the Present Simple Tense
[Subject] + [Base Verb] (+ s/es for he, she, it)
Example: I work. / She works. Example: They play. / He plays.
When to Use It:
A. For general facts and universal truths
The sun rises in the east. Water boils at 100°C.
B. For habits and routines (things we do regularly)
I go to the gym every day. She always drinks coffee in the morning.
C. For schedules and timetables (fixed future events)
The train leaves at 8 AM. School starts in September.
D. For permanent situations or long-term states
He works in a bank. They live in London.
E. For instructions and directions
You turn left at the next street. Boil the water, then add the pasta.
F. For emotions, feelings, and opinions (with state verbs like love, hate,
believe, need, want, know, etc.)
I love chocolate. She doesn’t believe in ghosts.
✓ Do NOT use the present simple for actions happening right now → Use present
continuous instead (I am eating instead of I eat).
3. PRESENT CONTINUOUS TENSE
The present continuous tense is used for actions that are happening right now or
around the present time. The structure is:
 [Subject] + [am/is/are] + [verb + ing]
I am studying. She is working. They are playing.
When to Use It:
A. For actions happening right now (at the moment of speaking)
I am talking to you right now. She is cooking dinner. They are watching TV.
B. For temporary actions (not permanent, but happening around now)
I am staying at my friend’s house this week. She is working on a big project these
days. He is learning Spanish.
C. For future plans or arrangements (when the time is decided)
We are meeting them at 7 PM. She is flying to Paris next week. They are getting
married in June.
D. For changing situations or trends
The climate is getting warmer. More people are using electric cars. Technology is
advancing rapidly.
Important Notes:

Do NOT use the present continuous with stative verbs (e.g., know, love, hate,
want, need, believe, understand). Use present simple instead.

I am knowing the answer. → I know the answer.

She is wanting coffee. → She wants coffee.

4. FUTURE SIMPLE TENSE
The future simple tense is used to talk about things that will happen in the future. The
structure is:
[Subject] + will + [base verb]
I will call you later. She will help us. They will arrive at 8 PM.
When to Use It:
A. For decisions made at the moment of speaking
It’s cold! I will close the window. I forgot my wallet! Don’t worry, I will pay for you.
B. For predictions about the future
It will rain tomorrow. People will travel to Mars one day. You will love this movie!
 C. For promises, offers, or refusals
I will help you with your homework. (promise) She will call you later. (promise) I will
not tell anyone your secret. (promise)
D. For future facts or things that will definitely happen
The sun will rise at 6 AM tomorrow. You will turn 18 next year. Christmas will be on a
Wednesday in 2025.
5. FUTURE PERFECT TENSE
The future perfect tense is used to describe an action that will be completed before a
specific point in the future. Structure:
Subject + will have + past participle (verb in third form)
When to Use Future Perfect Tense:
A. To show that an action will be finished before a certain time in the
future
Example: By next year, she will have graduated from college. (She will finish her
studies before next year.)
B. To describe an action that will be completed before another future
action
Example: I will have finished my work before you arrive. (My work will be done before
you get here.)
C. To indicate a duration of an action that continues up to a point in the
future
Example: By 2026, they will have lived in this city for ten years. (They will complete
ten years of living there by that time.)
Examples:
She will have written the report by tomorrow. By the time we reach the station, the
train will have left. They will have completed the project before the deadline.

Synonyms with Slight Differences

PROHIBIT: Means to officially not allow something (usually by law or rule).
Example: The school prohibits smoking inside the campus.
PREVENT: Means to stop something from happening before it occurs.
 Example: Wearing a seatbelt helps prevent injuries in an accident.
AVOID: Means to stay away from something or not let it happen (by choice).
Example: I avoid eating junk food to stay healthy.
FORBID: Means to strongly tell someone not to do something (often used by people
in authority).
Example: My parents forbid me from staying out late.
✓ Key Differences:
"Prohibit" → Official rule or law stopping something.
"Prevent" → Taking action to stop something from happening.
"Avoid" → Making a personal choice to stay away from something.
"Forbid" → Strongly telling someone not to do something.

ARRESTED: When the police take someone into custody.

Example: The police arrested him for theft. (Use arrested when someone is
officially taken by authorities.)
CHARGED: When someone is officially accused of a crime in court.
Example: He was charged with fraud. (Use charged when legal action is being
taken against someone.)
ACCUSED: When someone is said to have done something wrong, but it's not proven
yet.
Example: She was accused of lying to the police. (Use accused when someone
is blamed but not officially charged.)
BLAMED: When someone is held responsible for something, but not necessarily
legally.
Example: He blamed his friend for the accident. (Use blamed in general
situations, not just legal ones.)
✓ CONCLUSION:
Arrested → Taken by police
Charged → Legal case filed
Accused → Said to be guilty
Blamed → Held responsible (not necessarily legal).
NOTE: A short piece of writing to remember something or give information.
Examples: She left a note on the fridge reminding me to buy milk.
: I took notes during the lecture to review later.
RECIPE: A set of instructions for preparing food or drinks.
Examples: This is my grandmother’s secret recipe for chocolate cake.
: The cookbook has an easy recipe for homemade pasta.
PRESCRIPTION: A written order from a doctor for medicine.
Examples: The doctor gave me a prescription for antibiotics.
: You need a prescription to buy this medication at the pharmacy.
RECEIPT: A piece of paper that shows proof of payment.
Examples: Keep the receipt in case you need to return the shoes.
: I asked for a receipt after paying for my groceries.

DO YOU DO
"Do you do" is not used for future plans. It is used for routines or habits, like "What do
you do on weekends?"
ARE YOU DOING
"Are you doing" is the present continuous tense, which is commonly used to talk about
definite future plans.
Example: "What are you doing next weekend?" (This implies the speaker
expects you to have plans already.)
WILL YOU DO
"Will you do" is the simple future tense, used when asking about future actions that
are not planned yet.
Example: "What will you do next weekend?" (This suggests that the person
hasn’t decided yet and you are asking about their possible future actions.)
DID YOU DO
"Did you do" is in the past tense, so it would only work if asking about last weekend.
Example: "What did you do last weekend?"
Didn’t have (Past Simple Tense). Past Simple is used for things that happened and
are finished.
Example: I didn't have enough time to finish my homework.
Don’t have (Present Simple). Present Simple, which is used for general habits (e.g.,
"I don’t have breakfast on weekdays").
Example: I don’t have to worry about everything.
Hadn’t (Past Perfect). Past perfect is used when one past event happened before
another past event.
Example: I hadn’t seen her in years before we met again.
Haven’t (Present Perfect). Present perfect is sometimes used for events that
happened at an unspecified time in the past.
Example: I haven’t seen that movie yet.
“Is" (Present tense, singular). Used with singular subjects in the present tense.
Example: She is happy today.
"Was" (Past tense, singular). Used with singular subjects in the past tense.
Example: He was late for school yesterday.
"Were" (Past tense, plural). Used with plural subjects in the past tense.
Example: They were at the park last evening.
Also used for singular subjects with "you" and "I" in hypothetical or unreal situations.
Example: If I were a bird, I would fly. If I were you, I would follow my dreams.
“Has been” (Present perfect, singular). Used with singular subjects to show an
action that started in the past and continues in the present.
Example: She has been working here for five years. He has been sick since Monday.
The weather has been very cold lately.

Types of Language

• Literal Language
Definition: Words used in their exact, actual meaning without exaggeration or hidden
meaning.
Example: "The sky is blue." (This statement describes reality as it is.)
• Figurative Language
Definition: Words used in a way that is not meant to be taken literally, often using
comparisons or creative expressions.
Example: "The sky was a canvas of dreams." (A metaphor comparing the sky to a
painting.)
• Practical Language
Definition: Language used for clear, direct, and functional communication, often for
instructions or daily tasks.
Example: "Turn off the lights before leaving the room." (Straightforward instruction
with no extra meaning.)
• Sarcastic Language
Definition: Words used to mock or say the opposite of what is meant, often in a
humorous or cutting way.
Example: (After someone spills a drink) "Wow, great job! You should be a waiter."
(The speaker doesn't actually mean it's a great job.)
14 Figurative Language Techniques
• Simile – A comparison using "like" or "as."
Example: "Her eyes sparkled like diamonds."
• Metaphor – A direct comparison without "like" or "as."
Example: "Time is a thief."
• Personification – Giving human traits to non-human things.
Example: "The trees danced in the wind."
• Hyperbole – Extreme exaggeration.
Example: "I'm so hungry I could eat a horse."
• Alliteration – The repetition of consonant sounds at the beginning of words.
Example: "She sells seashells by the seashore."
• Assonance – The repetition of vowel sounds in nearby words.
Example: "The rain in Spain stays mainly in the plain."
• Onomatopoeia – Words that imitate sounds.
Example: "The clock ticked and tocked."
• Oxymoron – Two opposite words used together.
Example: "Deafening silence."
• Irony – A contrast between expectation and reality.
Example: "A traffic officer gets a parking ticket."
• Idiom – A phrase with a figurative meaning different from its literal one.
Example: "Hit the sack" (meaning "go to sleep").
• Symbolism – Using an object, person, or event to represent something deeper.
Example: "A red rose symbolizes love."
• Pun – A play on words for a humorous effect.
Example: "I used to be a baker, but I couldn’t make enough dough."
• Synecdoche – Using a part of something to refer to the whole (or vice versa).
Example: "All hands on deck!" (Hands refer to the whole crew.)
• Euphemism – A polite or indirect way of saying something unpleasant.
Example: "He passed away" instead of "He died."
 ASSESSMENT
I. Instructions: Identify the correct answer in each question.
A. Identify the part of speech of the underlined word.
1. The bright sun shone over the hills.
2. He quickly ran to the store.
3. They bought a new car.
4. Wow! That was an amazing performance.
5. I need to study for the exam.
B. Choose the correct answer.
1. Which of the following is a conjunction?
a. Happy
b. But
c. Running
d. Slowly
2. "She gave the book to him." What part of speech is "him"?
a. Pronoun
b. Noun
c. Adverb
d. Preposition
3. Which of the following is a verb?
a. Beautiful
b. Jump
c. Quickly
d. And
4. Identify the noun in the sentence: "The dog barked loudly."
a. Dog
b. Barked
c. Loudly
d. The
5. Choose the correct pronoun: "___ am going to the market."
a. Me
b. I
c. My
d. Mine
II. Instructions: Identify the correct verb tense or fill in the blanks with the correct
verb form.
A. Identify the verb tense in each sentence.
1. She eats breakfast every morning.
2. They were playing basketball when it rained.
3. I have finished my homework.
4. By next year, he will have graduated from college.
5. We are watching a movie right now.
B. Fill in the blanks with the correct verb form.
1. By the time we arrive, she ___ (finish) her meal.
2. I ___ (study) when my friend called.
3. She ___ (go) to the market yesterday.
4. He ___ (be) a teacher for five years now.
5. The sun ___ (rise) in the east.
III. Instructions: Choose the correct preposition or identify the preposition in
each sentence.
A. Choose the correct preposition.
1. She is sitting ___ the table.
2. The book is ___ the bag.
3. We walked ___ the park.
4. The plane flew ___ the clouds.
5. The ball rolled ___ the table.
B. Identify the preposition in the sentence.
1. The cat jumped onto the chair.
2. I will see you at 5 PM.
3. He went to the store.
4. The keys are inside the drawer.
5. She walked beside her friend.
IV. Instructions: Identify the figure of speech used in each sentence or choose
the correct answer.
A. Identify the figure of speech.
1. "Her smile is as bright as the sun."
2. "The wind whispered through the trees."
3. "I have a ton of homework."
4. "The classroom was a zoo."
5. "Peter Piper picked a peck of pickled peppers."
B. Choose the correct figure of speech.
1. "Boom! The car crashed into the wall."
a. Simile
b. Metaphor
c. Onomatopoeia
d. Oxymoron
2. "She’s an angel in disguise."
a. Hyperbole
b. Metaphor
c. Simile
d. Personification
3. "The fire station burned down." (Unexpected situation)
a. Symbolism
b. Hyperbole
c. Irony
d. Idiom
4. "He has a heart of stone."
a. Simile
b. Metaphor
c. Personification
d. Alliteration
5. "The stars winked at me from the sky."
a. Simile
b. Metaphor
c. Hyperbole
d. Personification
V. Instructions: Identify the type of language used in each sentence or choose
the correct answer.
A. Identify the type of language.
1. "The sun rises in the east."
2. "He kicked the bucket."
3. "Please submit your report before 5 PM."
4. "Oh great, another rainy day!"
5. "The dove represents peace."
B. Choose the correct type of language.
1. "I feel like I’ve been hit by a truck after that workout."
a. Literal
b. Figurative
c. Practical
d. Sarcastic
2. "Go straight, then turn left at the second street."
a. Literal
b. Figurative
c. Practical
d. Sarcastic
3. "Wow, thanks for making me wait two hours!"
a. Literal
b. Figurative
c. Practical
d. Sarcastic
4. "Her voice was music to my ears."
a. Literal
b. Figurative
c. Practical
d. Sarcastic
5. "The teacher explained the rules clearly."
a. Figurative
b. Literal
c. Practical
d. Sarcastic
ANSWER KEY
I. A. Identify the part of speech of the underlined word.
1. Adjective
2. Adverb
3. Adjective
4. Interjection
5. Verb
B. Choose the correct answer.
6. b) But
7. a) Pronoun
8. b) Jump
9. a) Dog
10. b) I
________________________________________
II. A. Identify the verb tense in each sentence.
1. Present simple
2. Past continuous
3. Present perfect
4. Future perfect
5. Present continuous
B. Fill in the blanks with the correct verb form.
6. will have finished
7. was studying
8. went
9. has been
10. rises
________________________________________
III. A. Choose the correct preposition.
1. on
2. inside
3. through
4. above
5. off
B. Identify the preposition in the sentence.
6. onto
7. at
8. to
9. inside
10. beside
_____________________________________
IV. A. Identify the figure of speech.
1. Simile
2. Personification
3. Hyperbole
4. Metaphor
5. Alliteration
B. Choose the correct figure of speech.
6. c) Onomatopoeia
7. b) Metaphor
8. c) Irony
9. b) Metaphor
10. d) Personification
________________________________________
V. A. Identify the type of language.
1. Literal
2. Figurative
3. Practical
4. Sarcastic
5. Figurative
B. Choose the correct type of language.
6. b) Figurative
7. c) Practical
8. d) Sarcastic
9. b) Figurative
10. c) Practical
 MECHANICAL AND TECHNICAL REASONING
A mechanical and technical reasoning test is designed to assess your knowledge of
mechanical principles and your ability to apply them in solving various mechanical
problems.
GEARS AND PULLEYS
Gears
Gears are typically represented as wheels or cylinders with teeth (cogs) along their
outer edges. They serve three primary purposes:

1. Changing the direction of motion

2. Altering speed or force
3. Transmitting force

Key Rules for Gears

When solving gear-related questions, consider these fundamental rules:
• Meshed Gears (Physically Connected):
- Adjacent gears will rotate in opposite directions.
- In systems with an odd number of gears, the first and last gear will rotate in the
same direction.
- In systems with an even number of gears, the first and last gear will rotate in
opposite directions.

• Unmeshed Gears (Connected by a Chain or Belt):

- Gears connected by a straight belt will rotate in the same direction.
- Gears connected by a crossed belt will rotate in opposite directions.
Force and Speed Trade-off:
- More teeth = Slower speed, but greater force
- Fewer teeth = Faster speed, but less force
Gear Ratio Formula:
N1/N2 = V2/V1
N = Number of teeth on gears 1 and 2
V = Rotation velocities of gears 1 and 2

Gears & Belts

When gears are linked by a belt or chain (instead of meshing directly):

- A straight belt results in both gears rotating in the same direction.
- A crossed belt results in the gears rotating in opposite directions.
In this setup, the gear's rotational speed depends on its size rather than the number
of teeth:
- Larger wheels rotate slower.
- Smaller wheels rotate faster.
The speed ratio is directly proportional to the ratio of wheel diameters (or radii) and
inversely proportional to their velocities.

External Cogwheels
When an internal cogwheel (e.g., light blue) is connected to an external cogwheel
(e.g., grey), both wheels will rotate in the same direction. However, the relationship
between wheel size and velocity remains the same as with standard cogwheels.
 Rack & Pinion

A rack and pinion system converts rotational motion into linear motion.
- The rack moves in the same direction as the wheel's movement at the meshing
point.
- For example, if the gear turns clockwise, the rack will move leftward if the gear
teeth are engaged in that direction.
In General:

Pulleys
Pulley systems involve one or more wheels controlled by a cord, rope, or belt. They
are commonly used to lift heavy objects by altering the direction of the applied force.

• Types of Pulleys
1. Fixed Pulley
- In a fixed pulley, the pulley itself remains stationary while the load moves.
- This type does not reduce the effort required to lift the load; it only changes the
direction of the applied force.
2. Movable Pulley
- In a movable pulley, the pulley moves along with the load.
- This setup reduces the required lifting force by half.
- However, achieving this benefit requires double the rope length**. For example, to
lift a load 1 meter high, you’ll need 2 meters of rope.
3. Combined Pulley (Block and Tackle System)
- A combined pulley system integrates fixed and movable pulleys.
- This setup maximizes mechanical advantage, significantly reducing the effort
required to lift heavy objects.

Area
Rectangle
A = lw
L = Length
W = Width

Circle
Area = πr2

Triangle
Area = ½bh
B = Base
H = Height
Volume
Cuboid
V=bxhxw

Cylinder
V = πr2 x h

Gear Ratio
N1/N2 = V2/V1 or N1 x V1 = N2 x V2
N1 = Number of teeth on wheel 1
N2 = Number of teeth on wheel 2
V1 = Velocity of wheel 1
V2 = Velocity of wheel 2

So if N1 = 8, N2 = 5. The gear ratio (1-2) will be = N1/N2 = V2/V1 = 8/5.

Ideal Gas Law

PV = nRT
P = Pressure
V = Volume
n = number of gas particles (amount of gas)
R = Gas constant (just a number)
T = Temperature
It should be noted that it is not as important to remember the formula exactly as
it is important to know what it must hold. If a certain part of the equation
changes, some other part must also change to maintain the equality (for
instance, if the volume decreases, pressure must increase).
Electricity
Ohm’s law states that the current passing through a conductor between two points is
directly proportional to the potential difference across them.
I = V/R, or V = IR, or R = V/I
V = the potential difference measured across the conductor, in volts
R = the resistance of the conductor, in ohms
I = the current, in amperes
Another major part of a mechanical reasoning test will be questions concerning
electrical concepts. These questions will come in the form of electrical circuit diagrams.
Electrical circuits can be connected in two different ways: in series and in parallel.
Examples of both types of circuits can be found below:
In Series
Components in series are connected along a single path so that the same current
flows through all of them. In addition, the sum of the voltages each component
develops is the total voltage produced in the system. Thus, it can be deduced
according to Ohm's law that the total resistance of the system would be:
𝑅1 + 𝑅2 + ⋯ + 𝑅𝑛 = 𝑅τ
In a series circuit, a failure in any single component can potentially break the entire
circuit as it breaks the flow of the electrical current.
In Parallel
Components in parallel are connected so that the same voltage is applied to each one.
In a parallel circuit, the voltage across each of the components is identical, and the
total current is the sum of the currents flowing through each of the components. Since
the voltage of each component is identical but the currents add up, we again use
Ohm’s law to deduce that the value of total resistance is:
1/𝑅1 + 1/𝑅2 + ⋯ + 1/𝑅𝑛 = 1/𝑅τ
In a parallel circuit it is possible for only one component to function when all others fail;
thus, the circuit will still function.
 Mechanical – Technical Reasoning Pre-Test Questions

1.

If the objects presented above are not in motion, which represents an unlikely
situation?
a. Situation A
b. Situation B
c. Both are equally likely
d. Both are equally unlikely
Answer and explanation:

The answer is B. Because gravity always pulls objects downward, the ball at the
end of the rope would be drawn straight down toward the ground. Hence, in the
absence of some other force, such as a magnetic force, it is unlikely the ball would
be suspended as presented in Situation B.

2.

Assuming both balls are free-falling from the same height, which ball will reach
the ground first?
a. Ball A
b. Ball B
c. Both will reach the ground at the same time
d. It is impossible to tell
Answer and explanation:
The answer is C. Regardless of their size, all free-falling objects on Earth accelerate
downwards at the same rate.
 3.
Which of the pulleys will complete the
most revolutions per minute?

a. Pulley A
b. Pulley B
c. Pulley C
d. The pulleys will make an equal
number of revolutions per minute.

Answer and explanation:

The answer is A. Notice that pulley A is the smallest of the three pulleys in the series.
Because of its relative size, it has a shorter distance to travel to complete one
revolution than do the larger pulleys. Thus, it can make more revolutions in the same
amount of time. Another way to phrase this question would be to ask which pulley is
moving fastest, in which case the same answer and supporting thought process is
used.

4.
If Pulley A is turning clockwise, Pulley B is
turning

a. Clockwise
b. Counterclockwise

Answer and explanation:

The answer is B. Whenever there is a twist in the belt between two pulleys, the pulleys
rotate in opposite directions.
 5.
If gear A turns in the direction indicated by
the arrow, which way will gear C turn?

a. Clockwise
b. Counterclockwise
c. Same direction as gear A
d. Opposite direction as gear B

Answer and explanation:

The answer is B. Notice that gear A is moving in a clockwise direction. Given the
direction of rotation for gear A, we can see that the right side of the gear “tooth” on
gear A is applying force to left side of the tooth on gear C. This force pushes gear C
to the right, resulting in a counterclockwise rotation.

6.
Which way is the wagon accelerating? (If
either, encircle C)

a. A
b. B

Answer and explanation:

The correct answer is A. The pendulum is moving backwards; therefore, the car is
accelerating in the opposite direction. That happens when an object is in an
accelerating system, in the same way you feel yourself pulled backwards when the car
is speeding up or forwards when it is breaking.
 7.
Which pendulum will swing faster? (If
either, encircle C)

a. A
b. B

Answer and explanation:

The correct answer is A. Pendulum A has a shorter string; therefore, it will swing
faster. Intuitively, the shorter pendulum has less distance to travel in every circle and
therefore, will move faster. The mass of the bob is irrelevant, since the pendulum is
affected by gravity, which applies the same acceleration on each body, regardless of
its mass. Both bobs accelerate the same; therefore, their mass does not affect the
pendulum’s movement.

8.
In which direction does the grey wheel
turn? (If either, encircle C)

a. A
b. B

Answer and explanation:

The correct answer is A. When contact is made between the rack and the cogwheels,
a conversion from a linear velocity to an angular velocity occurs. The location of the
point of contact is critical.
The point of contact between the red cogwheel and the rack is in the lower part of the
red cogwheel, a position in which the counterclockwise angular velocity induces a
linear velocity to the right.

The point of contact between the grey cogwheel and the rack is in the upper part of
the grey cogwheel, a position in which the linear velocity to the right induces an angular
velocity in a clockwise direction. The process can be exemplified by the blue arrows,
which show where each part of the wheel is moving under the rotation conditions.

9.
\\\which direction should the acrobat
In
move his body to balance the seesaw? (If
either, encircle C)

a. A
b. B

1.

Answer and explanation:

The correct answer is B.

A seesaw is an example of a first-class leverm where the fulcrum is between the effort
and load. For the seesaw to be balanced, the torque applied by the acrobat is constant,
the only way to increase the input torque is by increasing the distance from the fulcrum.

Moving in direction B will shift the acrobat’s center of gravity farther from the fulcrum,
resulting in greater torque, thereby balancing the seesaw.
 10.

Who will need to apply more force to lift the weight?

a. A b. B c. Either of the two

Answer and explanation:
The correct answer is C.
The figure in B has a wheel to reel in the rope. However, this wheel does nothing to
divide the force and only changes the pulling from a linear motion in A to a circular
motion in B.
Remember the physical principle: In a pulley system, the wheels that reduce applied
force are supporting wheels, not wheels that only change the motion’s direction.
11.

Which ball will reach the floor first?

 a. A b. B c. Either of the two

Answer and explanation:

The correct answer is C.

Gravity is applied onto both balls equally, and the vertical distance they ought to pass
is identical. The time needed for both balls to hit the ground is identical, regardless of
the horizontal component. Therefore, it can be deduced that both balls will hit the
ground at the same time.

12. Which of the three following diagrams is correct?

Answer and explanation:

The correct answer is A.
The bending of the partition is caused by pressure difference on both its sides. That
pressure difference is determined by the level of water in each container.
The pressure is determined by the height of water on the container. The higher the
water, the greater the water pressure.
In A, the partition bends to the right, suggesting the pressure is greater on the left side.
That is consisted with the high-water level on the left side.
In B, the partition is flat, suggesting there is no pressure difference between its two
sides, despite the different water levels. Therefore, this answer is false.
In C, the partition bends to the left, suggesting the pressure is greater on the right side.
That contradicts the higher water level on the left side. Therefore, this answer is also
false.
 13.

The person on the left is lower than the person on the right. What can the person
on the right do in order to make the seesaw more level?

a. Slide forward
b. Sit up straight
c. Slide backward
d. Lean forward
Answer and explanation:
The answer is C.
Because the load is nearly balanced, shifting the weight of the person on the right
further away from the fulcrum will accomplish the additional work needed to balance
the beam.
14.

Which of the two levers require less force (in the direction indicated by the
arrow) to lift the box?

a. Lever A
b. Lever B
c. Both require an equal amount of force.
d. Cannot be determined.
Answer and explanation:
The answer is A.
This example is similar to the previous example with one exception: the lever is not
the same length on both sides of the fulcrum. Whenever force is applied to a point
more distant from the fulcrum, less force is needed to accomplish the same amount of
work. Both levers must accomplish the same amount of work (i.e., move a 50 pound
load); however, Lever A will do so more easily because there is more distance from
the point of force to the fulcrum on Lever A than on Lever B.

15.

Of the two situations depicted above,

a. only A is physically possible.

b. only B is physically possible
c. both A and B are physically possible.
d. it is impossible to tell which of the two is possible.
Answer and explanation:
The answer is B.
In Situation B, the length of the lever on both sides of the fulcrum is equal, as is the
weight supported on each side. This represents a “balanced” situation. It is physically
impossible for the lever to remain balanced in Situation A because there is more weight
on the right side. Even if the weights of the load were equal, the lever would still not
balance because the right side of the lever is longer than the left side. The shorter the
side of the lever, the less work it can do to balance the effect of a longer opposite side.
Thus, it would be unable to counter the force of gravity pulling the weight of the load
on the longer side downward.
 16.

If Balls A and B above are the same size and weight, which will roll faster?

a. Ball A
b. Ball B
c. Neither will roll
d. They will roll at the same speed
Answer and explanation:
The answer is A.
Because the balls are the same size, only the steepness of the incline influences how
fast they will roll. As stated in the key facts above, the steeper the incline, the more
easily an object will move downward. Hence, Ball A is able to roll faster than Ball B.

17.

Assuming the boxes are of equal weight and made of the same material, which
box will more easily slide down its ramp?

a. Box A
b. Box B
c. They will slide down with equal ease
d. Cannot be determined
Answer and explanation:
The answer is B.
Because the boxes weigh the same and are on the same degree of incline, the only
factor to consider is the surface-to-surface contact area (friction), as indicated by the
dotted lines. Friction hinders the movement of an object. Thus, the box with less friction
will slide down the ramp more easily. Considering only the amount of contact (since
the boxes are made of the same material), Box B has less surface-to-surface contact
with the ramp when compared to Box A and the ramp. Thus, it will move down the
ramp more easily.
18.

Assuming the hammers are swung with equal force, which wedge will more
easily split the board?

a. Wedge A
b. Wedge B
c. Neither wedge will split the board
d. The wedges will split the board with equal ease
Answer and explanation:
The answer is A.
The farther the wedge can be driven into the board, the greater its ability to split the
board. Wedge A can be driven into the board farther than Wedge B because it has a
narrower angle that encounters less resistance from the board. As stated in the key
facts, more force would be required to split the board with Wedge B because it meets
more resistance at the point where it makes contact with the board, due to the wider
angle of the wedge.
 19.

Assuming the standard threading of the nut and bolt match, what will happen if
the bolt is inserted into the end of the nut and turned in the direction indicated
by the arrows?

a. It will thread into the nut.

b. It will not thread into the nut.
c. It will become cross-threaded in the nut.
d. It is impossible to tell.
Answer and explanation:
The answer is B.
A bolt with standard threading will be drawn into a matching nut when turned to the
right (clockwise), but will be pushed apart when turned to the left (counterclockwise).
The arrows indicate that the bolt will be turned counterclockwise (left). Hence, if
inserted into the end of the nut and turned, it would simply spin around and around
without ever threading into the nut.
20. Which figure on the right contains the target figure?
Answer and explanation:
The answer is A.
This example illustrates important characteristics of the hidden figure type of question.
In the correct choice A, the spatial orientation of the target figure has changed; it has
been rotated 90 degrees. It is also “hidden” within an assortment of other similar
shapes. Finally, the target figure has been divided in two by another line.

21. Which figure could be assembled using each of the provided pieces?

Answer and explanation:

The answer is A.
This example illustrates important characteristics of the spatial views type of question.
The provided pieces are combined with other elements (i.e., the other end and two
missing sides) to form a 3-dimensional object. As shown in this example, the 3-
dimensional object can be oriented in space in many ways.
 22.

Assuming all of the blocks are the same size, what is the total number of blocks
in this figure?

a. 12
b. 13
c. 14
d. 15

23.

How many blocks have direct contact with block Z?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
Answer and explanation:
The answer to question 22 is B.
Notice that since the question stated that all of the blocks are the same size, block X
must be resting on another block for support. Though the supporting block is hidden
from view, the image nevertheless provides clues that it is present. The blank space
to the left of block Z is another clue that indicates that no block is located in the corner
formed by blocks Y and Z. Without that blank space, you would not know whether
another box was hidden from view.
The answer to question 23 is B. The blocks above and to the right of block Z are the
only blocks in direct contact with it.
24. Which figure could be assembled from the cutout on the left?

Note: The shading shown is on both sides.

Answer and explanation:

The answer is B. There are several clues that you can use to reach this conclusion,
one of which is described below.
Whether you mentally fold up or down to assemble the 3-dimensional object, the roof
panel and connecting wall panel are always opposite of each other; that is, when one
is shaded, the other is unshaded. Thus, it is not
possible to have a shaded wall and shaded roof
panel (or an unshaded wall and unshaded roof
panel) on the same side of the 3- dimensional
object. This eliminates options A, C, and D.
 25.

In the circuit shown, how many switches need to be closed to light up one bulb
in the circuit?

a. None
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4
Answer and explanation:
Answer is B.
The circuit consists of four parallel branches, each containing a light bulb and a switch.
Since the branches are independent, closing any one switch will complete the circuit
in that branch, allowing current to flow and light up the corresponding bulb. Therefore,
only one switch needs to be closed to light up one bulb.
26.

A force of 5KG compresses the springs in series of 10cm. What will be the total
distance that the springs in parallel are compressed?
 a. 2.5 cm
b. 5 cm
c. 7.5 cm
d. 10 cm
e. 15 cm
Answers and explanation:
The correct answer is A.
When springs are in series, the total compression is higher because the force is
distributed equally among them, leading to a total compression of 10 cm for the given
5 kg force. However, when the same force is applied to springs in parallel, the load is
shared between them, effectively increasing the stiffness and reducing the
compression. Since the effective spring constant doubles in parallel, the total
compression is halved compared to the series configuration. Therefore, the springs in
parallel will be compressed by 2.5 cm, making the correct answer 2.5 cms.
Xparallel = X series/N
N = the number of springs in parallel
10 / 4 = 2.5 cm

27. If gear X turns clockwise at a constant speed of 10 rpm. How does gear Y turn?

a. Anti c/w 10 rpm

b. c/w 10 rpm
c. c/w 5 rpm
d. anti c/w 5 rpm
e. c/w 20 rpm
Answer and explanation:
Answer is B.
When two gears mesh, they rotate in opposite directions. If gear X turns clockwise
(c/w) at 10 rpm, gear Y, which is indirectly meshed with gear X with 3 more other
gears, will turn in the same direction, clockwise (c/w). The speed at which gear Y turns
depends on the gear ratio between the two gears. If both gears have the same number
of teeth, they will rotate at the same speed. Therefore, gear Y will turn clockwise at 10
rpm. The correct answer is B.
28. If bar Y moves left at a constant speed. How does bar X move?

a. Left, faster
b. Left, same
c. Left, slower
d. Right, same
e. Right, slower
Answer and explanation:
Answer is B.
The movement of bar X depends on the mechanical linkage between bar X and bar Y.
If bar Y moves to the left at a constant speed, and assuming a direct and proportional
linkage, bar X will also move in the same direction. Since the gears of are of the same
size and number of teeth then the speed of the movement of both bars are equal.
29. If a drive wheel X rotates clockwise at a speed of 10 rpm. How does the wheel
Y turn?

a. anti c/w faster

b. c/w slower
c. c/w faster
d. anti c/w slower
e. anti c/w same
Answer and explanation:
Answer is C.
When two wheels are connected by a belt or chain, their rotational directions depend
on the configuration. If drive wheel X rotates clockwise (c/w) at 10 rpm, wheel Y,
connected directly by a belt or chain without crossing, will also rotate clockwise. The
speed of wheel Y relative to wheel X depends on their diameters. If wheel Y is smaller,
it will rotate faster than wheel X. Therefore, wheel Y will turn c/w faster.
30. If drive wheel X rotates clockwise at a speed of 10 rpm. How does wheel Y
turn?

a. anti c/w faster

b. c/w slower
c. c/w faster
d. anti c/w slower
e. c/w same
Answer and explanation:
Answer is E.
When two wheels are connected by a belt or chain, their rotational directions depend
on the configuration. If drive wheel X rotates clockwise (c/w) at 10 rpm, wheel Y,
connected by two more belt or chain with crossing, it will also rotate clockwise. The
speed of wheel Y relative to wheel X depends on their diameters. If wheel Y is larger,
it will rotate slower than wheel X. Therefore, since wheel Y and wheel X are the same
diameter, wheel Y will have the same turn rate as to wheel X.
 ASSESSMENT
1. How many revolutions per second is C turning?

a. 5
b. 10
c. 20
d. 40
2. Which magnets will repel each other?

a. None of them
b. All of them
c. Pairs B and C
d. Pairs A and D
3. How much force is required to lift the weight?
 a. 60kg
b. 120 kg
c. 180 kg
d. 240 kg
4. What force needs to be applied to the lever to lift the weight?

a. 34.3kg
b. 35.3kg
c. 36.3kg
d. 37.3kg
5. If a force applied to Spring A causes it to compress by 24cm, how far would the
same force cause Spring B to be compressed?

a. 12cm
b. 24cm
c. 36cm
d. 48cm
6. What force is required to lift the weight using the pulley?
 a. 9kg
b. 18kg
c. 27kg
d. 36kg
7. If Gear A has 22 teeth and Gear B has 12 teeth, how many revolutions will Gear B
have done if Gear A has done one full revolution?

a. 1.53
b. 1.63
c. 1.73
d. 1.83
8. Momentum is the product of which two properties?
a. Acceleration and Mass
b. Velocity and Mass
c. Force and Mass
d. Acceleration and Force
9. Which energy process best describes the sun?
a. Nuclear fusion
b. Nuclear fission
c. Nuclear electromagnetic spectrum
d. Nuclear radioactive decay
10. If the current in a wire is 14 amperes, how much charge flows through it in 3
seconds?
a. 21
b. 30
c. 36
d. 42
ANSWER KEY
1. B
If a cog with 5 teeth can do a full 40 revolutions in a second, a cog with four times as
many teeth with take 4 times as long to do a full revolution. This means, it will do 4
times fewer revolutions. So the correct answer is 10.
2. A & D
Opposite poles on magnets attract, the matching poles repel. So the correct answer
is A and D.
3. A
There are two sections of rope that are supporting the weight, meaning that we can
divide the force needed to lift the weight between them 120/2 = 60kg.
4. A
The formula to calculate the force required to lift a weight using a lever is:
w x d1 = f x d2
w = weight
d1 = distance from fulcrum to weight
f = force needed to lift the weight
d2 = distance from the fulcrum to the point where force is applied
If we plug what we can see from the diagram into the formula we are left with the
following equation:
16 x 30 = ? x 14
480 = ? x 14
480 / 14 = 34.3
5. A
Springs in parallel divide the force between them. If the same force is applied to Spring
B, the force would be halved as there are 2 springs, so the amount of compression
would be halved.
24cm / 2 springs = 12cm.
6. B
To calculate the force needed to lift the weight, we need to identify how many of the
sections of rope are load-bearing. Here 2 sections are supporting the weight, meaning
we divide the total weight by 2.
36/2 = 18kg.
7. D
Gear A has 1.83 times as many teeth as gear B. This means that when A completes
1 full rotation, B will have rotated 1.83 times more. 22/12 = 1.83.
8. B
Momentum is the same thing as the force an object could have on other objects. For
example, a cricket ball thrown quickly has a low mass with a high velocity and a rolling
bowling ball has a high mass and low velocity.
9. A
10. D
A column is the basic unit of electric charge, equal to the amount of charge transferred
in one second by a steady current. As we are measuring electric charge from 3
seconds we must multiply the amperes by 3, so 14 x 3 = 42.
 VERBAL AND NON-VERBAL REASONING
VERBAL REASONING SAMPLE QUESTIONS
1. copper : metal -
(1) engine : car (3) pen : pencil
(2) furniture : wood (4) pepper : spice

✓ The relationship between the words in bold type: copper is a type of metal.
✓ Response (4) has the same relationship: pepper is a type of spice.
✓ The other responses are incorrect: an engine is one of the parts of a car. Furniture
may be made of wood. A pen and a pencil are both writing instruments.
2. baker : eating -
(1) surgeon : anesthesia (3) gardener : planting
(2) author : reading (4) policeman : enforcement

✓ The relationship between the words in bold type: the product of a baker's work
(baked goods) is intended for eating.
✓ Response (2) has the same relationship: the product of an author's work (a book)
is intended for reading.
✓ The other responses are incorrect: before a surgeon begins his work (operating),
anesthesia is administered. Part of a gardener's work is planting. The work of a
policeman is law enforcement.
3. granary : wheat -
(1) lake : water (3) gallery : works of art
(2) wine press : grapes (4) archive : documents

✓ The relationship between the words in bold type: a granary is a place for storing
wheat.
✓ Response (4) has the same relationship: an archive is a place for storing
documents.
✓ The other responses are incorrect: a lake is a large pool of water; a wine press is
a place where grapes are pressed (for the preparation of wine); a gallery is a place
for displaying works of art.
Note: In this analogy, defining the relationship in too general a way – for example, "a
granary is a place that contains wheat" – will not help you determine the correct answer
because this relationship is found in some of the other responses: "a lake is a place
that contains water" and "a gallery is a place that contains works of art." To solve the
analogy, a more precise definition of the relationship between the words in bold type
is required.
 4. modest : arrogance -
(1) attractive : repulsion (3) scatterbrained : concentration
(2) indifferent : apathy (4) envious : jealousy

✓ The relationship between the words in bold type: a modest individual is

characterized by a trait that is the opposite of arrogance.
✓ Response (3) contains the same relationship: a scatterbrained individual is
characterized by a lack of concentration.
✓ The other responses are incorrect: attractive describes something that is
appealing, thus arousing in an individual an emotion that is the opposite of
repulsion. Indifferent describes an individual characterized by apathy. Envious
describes an individual characterized by jealousy (of another individual).
5. Charles Leadbeater: "The personal computer I am using to write this essay is
composed of approximately the same amount of plastic, gold, silicon, copper,
and other metals as the computer I used five years ago. Both pieces of
equipment are fairly similar in weight and shape, but my present computer is
twenty times more powerful than my previous computer. This difference is due
to human intelligence, which rearranges the available materials in order to
obtain more from them. This is the story of the economic growth that has
occurred in the modern era."
According to Leadbeater, what is "the story of the economic growth that has
occurred in the modern era"?
(1) Man's wiser use of available resources makes it possible to obtain more
from them.
(2) The constant development of new technologies makes it possible to produce
a greater variety of materials.
(3) The personal computer which man developed makes it possible to do
calculations faster and more powerfully than ever before.
(4) The improvement in human intelligence in the modern era has led to
accelerated economic growth.
✓ Leadbeater is using the changes that have taken place in the personal computer
as an example of the factors leading to economic growth in the modern era.
According to him, the computer he is using today is better than the computer he
used in the past even though the materials that make up the two computers are
more or less the same. The improvement is due entirely to man, who has found
new ways to obtain more from the same materials.
Response (1) is the correct answer because it presents a general statement in this
spirit: The materials that make up the computer are an example of available resources,
and the computer's improved power is an example of man's wise use of these
resources to obtain more from them.
Response (2) is incorrect. It implies that the production of an ever-increasing variety
of materials is what propels economic growth, whereas Leadbeater stresses that there
has been no change in the variety of materials at man's disposal, and argues that it is
human intelligence that propels economic growth.
Response (3) is incorrect. Although Leadbeater refers to the improvement that has
taken place in personal computers, he uses it only as an example of economic growth
in the modern era.
Response (4) is incorrect. Leadbeater does not claim that man's intelligence has
increased in the modern era, but rather that the economic growth in the modern era
has resulted from this intelligence.
6. Fetal cells in the early stages of pregnancy are pluripotent cells, that is, they
have the ability to develop into every type of adult body cell. As a pregnancy
progresses, each cell undergoes differentiation into a specific type of tissue,
and finally, specializes for performing a specific function. Researchers today
are trying to develop a technology whereby adult cells will revert to their
pluripotent state, making it possible to determine what type of tissue they will
become. In the future, this technology may make it possible to cure disease by
replacing diseased tissue with these cells.
Which of the following statements cannot be inferred from the above text?
(1) The technology that researchers wish to develop will make it possible to
transform specialized cells into pluripotent cells.
(2) Adult body cells are not pluripotent cells.
(3) Pluripotent cells are unique in that they have the potential to revert to their
original state.
(4) The therapeutic potential of pluripotent cells lies in the fact that they can
specialize to perform any function.
✓ This question presents four statements regarding pluripotent cells, three of which
can be inferred from the above text, and one that cannot. Read the question
carefully. The correct answer is the statement that cannot be inferred from the text.
Keep this in mind when choosing your response.
Response (1) can be inferred from the text. The fourth line states that "researchers
today are trying to develop a technology whereby adult cells will revert to their
pluripotent state." According to the third line, adult cells are cells that have specialized
to perform a specific function.
Response (2) can be inferred from the text. The first four lines state that pluripotent
cells are cells that have not yet differentiated to perform a specific function and that
adult cells have already specialized to perform a specific function. Therefore, adult
cells are not pluripotent cells.
Response (3) is the correct response because it cannot be inferred from the text. It
is not stated anywhere in the text that pluripotent cells can revert to their original state.
On the contrary, a cell's pluripotent state is its original state.
Response (4) can be inferred from the text. The first two lines state that pluripotent
cells have the ability to develop into every type of adult body cell. We can infer from
this that in the future they may be able to replace any tissue in the adult body, including
diseased tissue, and – as the last sentence suggests – therein lies their therapeutic
potential.
7. Following an internet advertising campaign for the beverage Trix, the director
of the advertising agency that launched the campaign conducted a survey and
found that Trix's sales were higher than those of the competing beverage,
Platon. He concluded from this that internet advertising is more effective than
advertising by means of other communications media.
Which of the following does not weaken his conclusion?
(1) The price of Trix was reduced during the course of the internet advertising
campaign.
(2) Trix's sales were higher than Platon's sales even before the start of the
internet advertising campaign.
(3) A widespread television advertising campaign conducted a year earlier did
not result in an increase in Trix's sales.
(4) During the advertising campaign for Trix, Platon was not advertised at all.
✓ The director of the advertising agency found a difference between the sales figures
of Trix and those of Platon, and explained this difference by the fact that Trix was
advertised on the internet. He thus arrived at the general conclusion that internet
advertising is more effective than other forms of advertising. His conclusion is
based on several assumptions. If one of these assumptions turns out to be
incorrect, it weakens his conclusion. Moreover, if there is another logical
explanation for the director's finding, it too weakens his conclusion.
Response (1) weakens the director's conclusion because it offers an alternative
explanation for the finding. It was not the internet advertising campaign that was
responsible for the difference in the sales of the two beverages, but a reduction in the
price of Trix.
Response (2) weakens the director's conclusion because it undermines one of his
basic assumptions – that Trix's sales increased. The assumption in this response is
refuted because Trix's sales were higher even before the advertising campaign.
Response (3) is the correct response because it is consistent with the director's
conclusion. If, in the past, a television advertising campaign was conducted and it did
not lead to an increase in sales, and now an internet advertising campaign was
conducted and it was effective, it definitely supports rather than weakens the
conclusion that internet advertising is more effective than other forms of advertising.
Response (4) weakens the director's conclusion. Because Platon was not
advertised at all, we cannot infer anything about the difference between internet
advertising and other forms of advertising, and so, the director's conclusion is less
valid. This statement can also provide an alternative explanation for the finding,
namely, that any advertising is better than no advertising. In other words, it was not
the internet that helped Trix's sales, but the fact that it was advertised at all.
8. A particular supermarket chain is offering the following two deals only: Any
customer who buys at least two kilograms of oranges will receive a juicer, and
any customer who buys at least two kilograms of apples will receive a salad
bowl. These deals are conditional upon making a purchase of over 250 shekels.
Which of the following is not possible with regard to this particular supermarket
chain?
(1) A customer bought three kilograms of oranges and did not receive a salad
bowl.
(2) A customer bought items totaling 300 shekels, including one kilogram of
apples, and received a juicer.
(3) A customer bought items totaling 300 shekels, including two kilograms of
apples and one kilogram of oranges, and received a juicer.
(4) A customer bought items totaling 150 shekels, and received neither a juicer
nor a salad bowl.
✓ To determine whether a situation is possible or not, check whether it is consistent
with the information provided.
The situation described in response (1) is possible. According to the information
provided, a person who buys 3 kilograms of oranges receives a juicer and not a salad
bowl. Therefore, this response does not contradict the information provided.
The situation described in response (2) is possible. The customer bought many
items, and although it is not stated explicitly, it is possible that these included two
kilograms of oranges. Therefore, it is possible that the customer received a juicer.
The situation described in response (3) is not possible, and it is therefore the
correct response. According to the information provided, only someone who buys at
least two kilograms of oranges receives a juicer, and in this case it is stated explicitly
that the customer bought only one kilogram of oranges.
The situation described in response (4) is possible. Since the customer did not
make the minimum purchase required in order to be eligible for the deal, he is not
entitled to receive either a juicer or a salad bowl, even if he did buy oranges or apples,
which is not known.
9. After Shulie and her friend watched a televised announcement by one of the
government ministers, Shulie said: "It is as if he is saying, 'I'll break the barrel
and keep its wine.'"
Which of the following is most likely to be the announcement to which Shulie
was referring?
(1) Minister of Education: "The education budget will be cut, but the level of
education will not be affected."
(2) Minister of Transport: "I will speed up the laying of the railway track despite
technical problems."
(3) Minister of the Treasury: "Taxes will not be reduced next year, despite the
government's promise."
(4) Minister of Defense: "In spite of what military commentators say, the
professionalism of army officers has actually increased."
Since it is impossible to break a wine barrel and keep its contents, Shulie is using the
saying to indicate that the two things announced by the Minister cannot be
accomplished if attempted at the same time. In her opinion, one negates the other.
Shulie's saying fits the Minister of Education's announcement in response (1):
According to Shulie, if the education budget is cut, the level of education cannot remain
the same. She is comparing the budget cut to breaking a wine barrel, and maintaining
the level of education to keeping the wine.
The saying does not fit the other announcements. In response (2), laying the railway
track and technical problems are not mutually exclusive. The saying also does not fit
response (3) which refers to a promise that will not be kept, or response (4), which
refers to a disagreement between the Minister of Defense and military commentators.
None of these responses contains two components that have the same relationship
as the components in the saying.
10. This year tourists visited Rome than last year; however, to be the biggest
tourist destination in Italy. Travel agents explain that the number of tourists to
Italy has relative to previous years, have chosen to visit Rome.
(1) more / for the first time in many years it does not appear / increased / and it
seems that most
(2) fewer / as in the past, it appears / increased / and it seems that only a small
proportion
(3) fewer / for the first time in several years it appears / in fact decreased but it
seems that most
(4) more / this year as well, it appears / in fact decreased / but it seems that a
large proportion
✓ This question consists of two sentences. The first sentence presents information,
and the second sentence is the explanation provided by travel agents for this
information.
Response (1) is incorrect because it has no logical consistency. According to the
information provided, Rome is no longer Italy's biggest tourist destination, and yet the
explanation stresses Rome's popularity among tourists.
Response (2) also has no logical consistency. According to the information
provided, the number of tourists to Rome decreased, but it nonetheless remains Italy's
biggest tourist destination. Travel agents explain this by the fact that the number of
tourists to Italy has increased, while the proportion of those visiting Rome has
decreased, but this is not a logical explanation of the fact that Rome still remains the
biggest tourist destination.
Response (3) is the correct response. The reason Rome became Italy's biggest
tourist destination despite the decrease in the number of tourists who visit Italy is that
most tourists to Italy chose to visit Rome.
Response (4) has no logical consistency already in the first sentence. The word
"however" should be followed by contrasting information, but there is no contrast
between the fact that the number of tourists to Rome has increased and the fact that
this year too, Rome it is Italy's biggest tourist destination.
11. Ted Rosen explained in an interview that his new book describes actual
historical events from the days of the establishment of the State, he does not
regarded as a history book. He even states explicitly that he objective facts in
the book: "In writing this book, I felt bound," he said.
(1) although / intend it to be / never claimed to present / only by my
experiences and thoughts
 (2) since / object to it being / spared no effort to present / only by my personal
impressions
(3) although / intend it to be / spared no effort to present / by facts alone
(4) since / intend it to be / never claimed to present / by facts alone
✓ This question contains two sentences. From the beginning of the second sentence
"He even states explicitly," it is clear that his objective is to emphasize and clarify
what was stated in the first sentence.
Response (1) is the correct response. The first sentence states that Rosen did not
intend his book to be regarded as a history book, and the second sentence, that he
felt bound only by his own point of view. The two sentences are logically consistent.
In response (2) the second sentence is illogical. Rosen states explicitly that he
tried to present only objective information, but he is quoted as saying that he felt bound
only by his personal impressions.
Response (3) is not logically consistent, either. Not only does the second sentence
not clarify the first sentence, but it even contradicts it. According to the first sentence,
Rosen did not intend his book to be regarded as a history book, but according to the
second sentence, he felt bound by the facts alone, as is customary when writing
history.
In response (4) each of the two sentences is illogical. The fact that Rosen
describes historical events in his book is not a logical reason for him not wanting the
book to be regarded as a history book. In the second sentence, Rosen states explicitly
that he never claimed to present objective information, but he explains this with an
argument that then makes an opposite claim – that he was bound by facts alone.
NON-VERBAL REASONING SAMPLE QUESTIONS

1.

ANSWER: D

2.

ANSWER: A
3.

ANSWER: E

4.

ANSWER: C

5.

ANSWER: A
6.

ANSWER: N

7.

ANSWER: D
8.

ANSWER: A

9.

ANSWER: D
10.

ANSWER: C
 VERBAL AND NON-VERBAL ASSESSMENT
VERBAL REASONING
Verbal Reasoning tests your ability to understand, analyze and interpret information.
It also measures your ability to extract meaning from complex information and to think
logically and analytically.
1. SARAH:TBSBT::PALMA:__________
a. NBQJBO c. QBMNB
b. RIFJMBO d. SBSSZ
2. BIG:ENORMOUS::SMALL:__________
a. MINISCULE c. MACROSCOPIC
b. VOLUMINOUS d. PARASITIC
3. GALILEO GALILEI:TELESCOPE::BENJAMIN FRANKLIN:__________
a. ELECTRICITY c. TELEGRAPH WIRE
b. STEAM ENGINE d. MOTION PICTURE CAMERA
4. ALBERT EINSTEIN:LAW OF GRAVITY:: ALEXANDER FLEMING:__________
a. PENICILLIN c. TELEPHONE
b. BMONOGRAPH d. SONOGRAM
5. BAT:BALL::BOW:__________
a. ARROW c.STRING
b. TIE d.BONE
6. HIDE:CONCEAL::STOP:__________
a. PAUSE c. HALT
b. REFLECT d. PONDER
7. BOWED STRINGS:VIOLIN::WOODWIND:_________
a. GUITAR c. PIANO
b. FLUTE d. HORN
8. WHALE:POD::KITTEN:__________
a. PACK c. LITTER
b. HERD d. PRIDE
9. SPONGE:POROUS::SKUNK:__________
a. SHINY c. NOCTURNAL
b. CARNIVOROUS d. SMELLY
10. DO:DID::COST:__________
a. COSTED c. COASTED
b. COAST d. COST
11. LIFEBELT : SEA :: AIR :__________
a. PILOT c. BALOON
b. STRAP d. PARACHUTE
12.ANTERIOR : POSTERIOR :: FRONT : _____________
a. SIDE c. HEAD
b. HIND d. MIDSECTION
13. GEO : EARTH :: FERRO : _____________
a. AIR c. IRON
b. FIRE d. SAND
14. NEWTON : CALCULUS :: COPERNICUS : _____________
a. ASTROLOGY c. ARCHAEOLOGY
b. METEOROLOGY d. ASTRONOMY
15. HAMMER : CARPENTER :: _____________
a. ANCHOR : SAILOR c. BLUEPRINT : ARCHITECT
b. BRUSH : PAINTER d. SHAVES : BARBER
16. AFFECTION : INFATUATION :: _____________
a. LENIENT : FORGIVE c. TIMIDITY : COWARDICE
b. LARGE : GIGANTIC d. FRANKNESS : CANDOR
17. Arrange the following words in a meaningful order.
1. Death 2. Marriage 3. Education 4. Birth 5. Funeral
a. 5, 1, 2, 3, 4 c. 4, 3, 2, 5, 1
b. 4, 2, 3, 1, 5 d. 4, 3, 2, 1, 5
18. Arrange the following words in a meaningful order.
1. Word 2. Paragraph 3. Sentence 4. Letters 5. Phrase
a. 4, 1, 5, 3, 2 c. 4, 2, 5, 1, 3
b. 4, 1, 3, 5, 2 d. 4, 5, 1, 3, 2

19. Statements: Some actors are singers. All the singers are dancers.
Conclusions: (1) Some actors are dancers. (2) No singer is actor.
a. Only (1) conclusion follows c. Either (1) or (2)
b. Only (2) conclusion follows d. Neither (1) or (2)

20. Statements: All the harmoniums are flutes.

Conclusions: (1) All the flutes are instruments. (2) All the harmoniums are flutes.
a. Only (1) conclusion follows c. Either (1) or (2)
b. Only (2) conclusion follows d. Neither (1) or (2)

21. Statements: No door is dog. All the dogs are cats.

Conclusions: No door is cat. Some cats are dogs.
No cat is door. All the cats are dogs.
a. Only (1) and (4) c. Only (3) and (4)
b. Only (1) and (3) d. Only (3)
22. Statements:
• Importance of Yoga and exercise is being realized by all sections of the society.
• There is an increasing awareness about health in the society particularly among
middle ages group of people.
a. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
b. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.
c. Both the statements I and II are independent causes.
d. Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
e. Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.
23. Statements:
• Many people in the area are reported to be suffering from Malaria.
• Private Medical Practitioners in the area have decided to close their clinics for few
days.
 a. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
b. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.
c. Both the statements I and II are independent causes.
d. Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
e. Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.
24. MALARIA : MOSQUITO :: ? : ?
a. POISON : DEATH c. RAT : PLAGUE
b. CHOLERA : WATER d. MEDICINE : DISEASE
25. ABC : ZYX :: CBA : ?
a. XYZ c. YZX
b. BCA d. ZXY
26. Choose the word which is different from the rest.
a. Chicken c. Eagle
b. Swan d. Crocodile
27. Choose the word which is different from the rest.
a. Dagger c. Hammer
b. Knife d. Sword
28. Choose the word which is different from the rest.
a. Cherry c. Apple
b. Strawberry d. Orange
29. Five girls are sitting on a bench to be photographed. Seema is to the left of Rani
and to the right of Ben. Mary is to the right of Rani. Reeta is between Rani and Mary.
Who is sitting to the right of Reeta?
a. Ben c. Mary
b. Rani d. Seema
30. A man walks 5 km toward south and then turns to the right. After walking 3 km he
turns to the left and walks 5 km. Now in which direction is he from the starting place?
a. East c. North-East
b. West d. South-West
NON-VERBAL REASONING
In this test you will be performing tasks that will measure your abilities to: visualize and
transform images in your mind; recreate visual experiences and reasoning about
shape, measurement, depiction and navigation; and mentally rotate and manipulate
two and three-dimensional spaces.
1.

2.
3.

4.

5.
6.

7.

8.
9.

10.

11.
12.

13.

14.
15.

16.

17.
18.

19.

20.
ANSWER KEY
Verbal Reasoning

1. C 11. D 21. D
2. A 12. B 22. B
3. A 13. C 23. D
4. A 14. D 24. B
5. A 15. B 25. A
6. C 16. C 26. D
7. B 17. D 27. C
8. C 18. A 28. D
9. D 19. A 29. C
10. D 20. B 30. D

Non-Verbal Reasoning

1. B 11. B
2. A 12. C
3. E 13. C
4. D 14. D
5. E 15. E
6. A 16. C
7. C 17. B
8. C 18. B
9. B 19. B
10. A 20. A
 PHYSICS
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
1. A student walks 13 meters North, 5 meters East, 7 meters North, and 3 meters
West to attend their Physics class. What is the total displacement and its direction?
a. a. 20m, NE c. 21m, NE
b. b. 20m, NW d. 21m, NW

Given:
13 meters North (+y)
5 meters East (+x)
7 meters North (+y)
3 meters West (-x)

What is the total displacement and its

direction?

ANSWER: A
2. The world land speed record of 763.0 mi/h was set on October 15, 1997 by Andy
Green in the jet-engine car Thrust SSC. Express this speed in meters per second.
a. 317.92 m/s c. 341.02 m/s
b. 20461.12 m/s d. 21422.26 m/s

ANSWER: C

3. A motorcyclist heading east through a small town accelerates at a constant 4.0 m/s2
after he leaves the city limits. At time t = 0 he is 5.0 m east of the city-limits signpost
while he moves east at 15 m/s. Find his position from city-limits signpost and velocity
at t = 2.0 s.
a. 43m, 21.5m/s c. 35m, 21.5m/s
b. 35m, 23m/s d. 43m, 23m/s

ANSWER: D
 4. A motorist traveling at a constant 15 m/s passes a school crossing violating the
school speed limit. Just as the motorist passes the school crossing sign, a police officer
on a motorcycle stopped there starts in pursuit with a constant acceleration 3.0 m/s2.
How much time elapses before the officer passes the motorist?
a. 9s c. 11s
b. 10s d. 12s

Given:
vo = 15m/s
a = 3.0m/s²
t=?

at t seconds, the motorist and police

officer will meet each other therefore,
their distance from the sign will be
equal.

ANSWER: B

5. A coin is dropped from the tower and falls freely from rest. What are its position and
velocity after 3.0 s?
a. 44.145m, 29.43m/s c. 44.145m, 28.43m/s
b. 40.215m, 29.43m/s d. 40.215m, 28.43m/s
ANSWER: A

6. You throw a ball vertically upward from the roof of a tall building. The ball leaves
your hand at a point even with the roof railing with an upward speed of 15.0 m/s; the
ball is then in free fall. On its way back down, it just misses the railing. Find the ball’s
position from the origin 4.00s after leaving your hand.
a. 17.48m c. 29.95m
b. 18.48m d. 28.95m
ANSWER: B

7. A motorcycle stunt rider rides off the edge of a cliff. Just at the edge his velocity is
horizontal, with a magnitude of 9.0 m/s. Find the motorcycle’s distance from the edge
of the cliff 0.50 s after it leaves the edge of the cliff.

a. 4.5m c. 4.7m
b. 4.6m d. 4.8m

ANSWER: C
8. A batter hits a baseball so that it leaves the bat at speed v0 = 37.0 m/s at an angle
α = 60°. Find the velocity of the ball at t = 2.00 s.
a. vx= 18.5m/s, vy= 12.42 m/s c. vx= -18.5m/s, vy= 12.42m/s
b. vx= 18.5m/s, vy= -12.42m/s d. vx= -18.5m/s, vy= -12.42m/s

ANSWER: A

9. Passengers on a carnival ride move at constant speed in a horizontal circle of radius

5.0 m, making a complete circle in 4.0 s. What is their acceleration?
a. 12.54 m/s² c. 12.32 m/s²
b. 10.54 m/s² d. 10.32 m/s²

ANSWER: C
10. A segment of steel rod has a length of 60m when the temperature is 0°C. What
will be its new length when the temperature increases to 50°C? α=12x10-6 (C°)-1
a. 60.036 m c. 60.360 m
b. 60.004 m d. 63.600 m
ANSWER: A

11. A metal bar measures 10cm at 50°F. What would be its new length at 32°F if
α=1.5x10-6 (C°)-1?
a. 999.9 mm c. 0.000099 km
b. 0.00999 m d. 9.99 in

ANSWER: C
12. The diamond is the strongest mineral ever recorded that can break glass. What
will be its speed of light when its index of refraction is 2.417?
a. 1.32x10^8 m/s c. 1.46x10^8 m/s
b. 1.12x10^8 m/s d. 1.24x10^8 m/s

ANSWER: D

13. A 4cm tall light bulb is placed at a distance of 50cm from a concave mirror having
a focal length of 15cm. Determine the image distance.
a. 22.80cm c. 21.43cm
b. 23.45cm d. 20.84cm

ANSWER: C
14. A 5cm tall hoop is placed at a distance of 36cm from a convex mirror having a
focal length of -12cm. Determine the image size.
a. 1.25 c. 1.42
b. 1.02 d. 1.32

ANSWER: A
15. Which of the following best explains the phenomenon of red and orange sunsets?
a. Increased atmospheric scattering of shorter wavelengths due to the increased
path length of sunlight through the atmosphere at sunset.
b. The Sun's actual temperature decreases as it approaches the horizon, emitting
more red and orange light.
c. The Earth's shadow begins to obscure the Sun, filtering out most of the visible
spectrum except for the longer, redder wavelengths.
d. The angle of incidence of sunlight on the Earth's surface changes at sunset,
causing a shift in the perceived color of the Sun.

ANSWER: A
16. Which of the following best describes the difference between concave and convex
lenses?
a. Concave lenses are thicker in the middle and converge light rays, while convex
lenses are thinner in the middle and diverge light rays.
b. Concave lenses are thinner in the middle and diverge light rays, while convex
lenses are thicker in the middle and converge light rays.
c. Both types of lenses converge light rays, but concave lenses have a shorter
focal length.
d. Both types of lenses diverge light rays, but convex lenses have a longer focal
length.

ANSWER: B
17. All of the following are crucial considerations for storing temperature-sensitive
chemicals, EXCEPT:
a. Maintaining consistent temperature within the storage area is solely dependent
on the type of refrigeration unit used.
b. Monitoring temperature fluctuations within the storage area is essential to
ensure product stability and prevent degradation.
c. Implementing temperature alarms and regular monitoring procedures can help
prevent costly losses due to temperature excursions.
d. The specific temperature range required for storage may vary significantly
depending on the chemical's properties and intended use.
ANSWER: A
18. Which of the following best explains why driving at high speeds and then braking
suddenly significantly increases the risk of accidents compared to driving at moderate
speeds?
a. Increased kinetic energy at higher speeds requires a much greater force to
decelerate, potentially overwhelming the braking system and leading to loss of
control.
b. Higher speeds increase the likelihood of tire blowouts, making it impossible to
control the vehicle during an emergency braking situation.
c. The driver's reaction time is significantly slower at higher speeds, reducing the
available time to react to unforeseen hazards.
d. High speeds increase the severity of any impact that does occur, leading to
more significant damage to the vehicle and potentially more severe injuries to
occupants.
ANSWER: A

19. If a car's shock absorbers are failing or worn out, how would a human body most
likely react during a bumpy road drive?
a. Experience significantly increased vertical motion, feeling more jolts and
bouncing.
b. Feel a smoother ride due to reduced friction between the tires and the road.
c. Experience less body roll and improved handling in corners.
d. Feel no noticeable difference in ride comfort.
ANSWER: A

20. You need more power to start a bike from rest primarily because:
a. The initial acceleration phase demands the highest power output to rapidly
increase the bike's kinetic energy.
b. Overcoming the combined inertia of the bike and rider requires a significant
initial force, which translates to a high power demand.
c. Friction and air resistance, while present, are relatively minor factors compared
to the energy required to overcome inertia and accelerate the combined mass
of the bike and rider.
d. The human body is most efficient at exerting force at moderate speeds, making
it inherently more difficult to generate the necessary power to initiate motion
from a standstill.
ANSWER: B
ANSWER: A

ANSWER: B
23. A ball drops from a height h. What more do we need to calculate initial potential
energy?
a. Elasticity of the ball
b. Horizontal displacement
c. Final velocity
d. Mass
ANSWER: D
24. Which of the following is not an example of potential energy?
a. An incredibly compressed spring
b. An apple dangling off a branch
c. A candy bar
d. A running woman
ANSWER: D
25. What is the resistance in a circuit with a voltage of 50V and a current of 8A?
a. 42Ω
b. 58Ω
c. 0.16Ω
d. 6.25Ω

ANSWER: D

26. An electrical circuit has a total of 3.22Ω resistance and 8V. What is the current?
a. 11.22A
b. 2.48A
c. 0.403A
d. 0.089A

ANSWER: B
27. An electrical circuit has a current of 8A and 32Ω of resistance. What is the voltage?
a. 40V
b. 0.25V
c. 4V
d. 256V

ANSWER: D
28. A circuit has a current, I, a voltage, V, and a resistance, R. If the voltage remains
constant, but the current is doubled (2I), what must the new resistance be?
a. 2R
b. 1/2R
c. 4R
d. 1/4R

ANSWER: B

29. If the mass is 5kg and A = 50∘, what is the tension, T? Assume no frictional forces.
g = 10 m/s2
a. 56.1N
b. 64.7N
c. 41.8N
d. 38.3N

Since there is no friction between the mass and slope, there are only two relevant
forces acting on the mass: gravity and tension. Furthermore, since the block is not in
motion, we know that these forces are equal to each other. Therefore:
T = Fg
Substituting in an expression for the force of gravity, we get:
T = mgsin(θ)
We know all of these values, allowing us to solve for the tension:
T = (5kg)(10m/s2)sin(50∘)
T=38.3N

ANSWER: D

30. What is the tension force on a wire holding a 10kg ball 20ft above the ground, if
the ball is not moving at that height? g = 9.8 m/s2
a. 49N
b. 0N
c. 6N
d. 98N

Since the gravitational force must be cancelled by the tension force, as the ball is
experiencing no acceleration, and no other forces are being applied to it:
Fgrav = Ftension = mg
Fgrav = 10kg∗9.8m/s2 = 98N = Ftension

ANSWER: D
 BIOLOGY
The Classical Cell Theory states:
• All living things are composed of cells.
• The cell is the basic unit of structure and function in living organisms.
• All cells come from pre-existing cells.
The Modern Cell Theory expands on the Classical Cell Theory by including principles
such as energy flow occurring within cells and genetic material being passed from one
generation to the next.
Ribosomes translate mRNA into proteins.
• Lysosomes (A): Break down waste.
• Mitochondria (C): Produce ATP.
• Golgi bodies (D): Modify and package proteins.
Ribosomes can be free-floating in the cytoplasm or attached to the rough endoplasmic
reticulum (RER), which helps in processing and transporting proteins.
Platelets (thrombocytes) form clots at injury sites.
• Red blood cells & Erythrocytes: Carry oxygen.
• White blood cells: Fight infection.
• The blood clotting process involves a cascade of reactions, including the
activation of clotting factors and the conversion of fibrinogen into fibrin to
stabilize the clot.
Both Plants and Animal cell have mitochondria, but:
• Chloroplasts: Only in plant cells.
• Central vacuole: Large in plants, absent in animals.
• Centriole: Found mainly in animals.
The endosymbiotic theory suggests that mitochondria and chloroplasts evolved from
free-living prokaryotic cells that were engulfed by a host cell.

MEIOSIS is a special type of cell division that produces gametes (sperm & egg cells)
in sexually reproducing organisms.
• It reduces the chromosome number by half (from diploid 2n to haploid n) so that
when fertilization occurs, the chromosome number remains stable.
• Occurs in:
- Animals: Testes (sperm), Ovaries (egg)
- Plants: Anthers (pollen), Ovules (egg)
 Example:
Humans have 46 chromosomes (diploid). After meiosis, sperm and egg cells each
have 23 chromosomes (haploid).

MITOSIS is the process of cell division that results in two identical daughter cells from
a single parent cell. It is a type of asexual cell division that produces two identical
diploid cells (2n→2n).
Why is mitosis important? It allows growth, tissue repair, and asexual reproduction
in organisms.
Stages of Mitosis:

1. Prophase - is the first phase of mitosis.

What actually happens:
• The nuclear membrane starts to break down.
• The nucleolus disappears.
• Chromatin condenses into visible chromosomes.
• Spindle fibers start to form.

2. Metaphase - is the second phase of mitosis.

What actually happens:
• Chromosomes line up at the equatorial plate (center of the cell).
• Spindle fibers attach to the centromeres of the chromosomes.
The movement of centrioles to opposite poles happens during prophase, not
metaphase.
3. Anaphase - is the third phase of mitosis.
What actually happens:
• The spindle fibers shorten, pulling sister chromatids apart.
• The chromatids move toward opposite poles.
• Each chromatid is now considered an individual chromosome.

4. Telophase - is the final phase of mitosis.

What actually happens:
• The nuclear envelope reforms (not break down).
 • The chromosomes decondense back into chromatin.
• The nucleolus reappears.

How do molecules enter cells?

- Molecules enter cells through passive or active transport.
Types of Transport:
Passive transport - Diffusion and facilitated diffusion (no energy required).
Examples of passive transport:
• Oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange in the lungs.
• Water movement through osmosis.
Active transport - Requires ATP to move substances against a concentration
gradient.
Examples of active transport:
• Sodium-potassium pump in nerve cells.
• Uptake of nutrients in intestinal cells.

Common Chromosomal Disorders:

• Down Syndrome: Caused by an extra chromosome 21 (trisomy 21).
• Turner Syndrome: Affects females who have only one X chromosome.
• Klinefelter Syndrome: Males with an extra X chromosome (XXY).
• Correct Answer: C. 46 (23 pairs)
• Explanation: Humans typically have 46 chromosomes in somatic cells,
organized into 23 pairs.
During meiosis, gametes (sperm and egg cells) receive 23 chromosomes each,
ensuring that when fertilization occurs, the zygote has the correct total of 46
chromosomes.

Cell Anemia – is a recessive genetic disorder affecting red blood cells.

How is it inherited? - A person must inherit two copies of the sickle cell allele to have
the disease.
What are the effects of sickle cell disease?
• Misshapen red blood cells leading to blockages in blood vessels.
 • Reduced oxygen transport in the body.
• Increased risk of stroke and organ damage.
Carriers have one copy of the sickle cell allele but do not express the disease unless
they inherit two copies.

Cell Differentiation - The process by which cells develop specialized structures and
functions to perform distinct roles within an organism.
Why is cell differentiation important?
• Allows multicellular organisms to develop diverse cell types.
• Enables specialization, increasing efficiency in biological functions.
• Supports tissue and organ development in complex organisms.
Stages of differentiation:
• Totipotent cells: Can become any cell type, including extraembryonic tissues
(e.g., zygote).
• Pluripotent cells: Can develop into any cell type except extraembryonic tissues
(e.g., embryonic stem cells).
• Multipotent cells: Can differentiate into a limited range of related cell types (e.g.,
blood stem cells).
• Unipotent cells: Can only produce one type of cell (e.g., muscle stem cells).
Examples of differentiated cells and their functions:
• Muscle cells: Contract for movement.
• Neurons: Transmit electrical signals.
• Red blood cells: Carry oxygen using hemoglobin.
• Epithelial cells: Form protective barriers in tissues.

Sexual reproduction is a broad term that includes:

• Meiosis (which makes gametes with half the chromosome number)
• Fertilization (which restores the diploid chromosome number)
Sexual reproduction itself is NOT a cell division process. Instead, it involves meiosis
and fertilization, but it is not the mechanism that directly reduces chromosome number.

Example:

• A dog reproducing sexually will undergo meiosis to form sperm & egg, and then
fertilization occurs to form a new individual.
Fertilization is the process where a haploid sperm (n) fuses with a haploid egg (n) to
create a diploid zygote (2n).
• Fertilization does not divide cells; it actually restores the full chromosome
number instead of reducing it.

Example:

• Before fertilization → sperm(n = 23) + egg(n = 23)

• After fertilization → zygote (2n = 46)

Hormones involved in the menstrual cycle:

• FSH (Follicle - Stimulating Hormone): Stimulates follicle growth in ovaries.
• LH (Luteinizing Hormone): Triggers ovulation.
• Estrogen: Thickens the uterine lining.
• Progesterone: Maintains the uterine lining for potential pregnancy.
Phases of the menstrual cycle:
• Follicular phase: Follicle development (FSH rise).
• Ovulation: Egg release (LH surge).
• Luteal phase: Uterine lining thickening (progesterone increase).
• Menstruation: Shedding of the uterine lining if no fertilization occurs.

Laws of Mendelian Inheritance:

Key principles:
• Law of Segregation: Each parent passes one allele per gene.
• Law of Independent Assortment: Traits are inherited independently of each
other.
Example: Hitchhiker’s thumb follows a simple dominant-recessive inheritance pattern.
How are dominant and recessive traits inherited? A dominant trait only needs one
allele to be expressed, whereas a recessive trait requires two copies.
Other examples of Mendelian traits:
• Widow’s peak.
• Freckles.
• Attached vs. free earlobes.
 - Hitchhiker’s thumb is a single-gene trait that follows Mendelian patterns. The
dominant allele determines whether a person has this trait, meaning that an
individual only needs one dominant allele to express it.
How are dominant traits inherited?
• If one parent has a dominant allele, the child has a high chance of inheriting the
trait.
• Only one dominant allele is needed for freckles to appear.
• Genotypic ratios for freckles:
• Homozygous dominant (FF) → 100% freckles.
• Heterozygous (Ff) → 75% chance of freckles.
• Homozygous recessive (ff) → No freckles.

Cellular Respiration - A metabolic process that converts glucose into ATP. It occurs
in the mitochondria of eukaryotic cells, and it has a chemical equation:
C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂ → 6CO₂ + 6H₂O + ATP
Breaking it down:
• Carbon dioxide (CO₂) → Released as waste through breathing.
• Water (H₂O) → Produced from oxygen and hydrogen ions.
• ATP (Adenosine Triphosphate) → The main energy molecule used by cells.
• Oxygen (O₂) is NOT a product of cellular respiration—it is a reactant. It is
needed for respiration but is NOT produced by it.
• NADPH is used in photosynthesis, NOT in cellular respiration.
• G3P (Glyceraldehyde-3-Phosphate) is an intermediate of glycolysis, NOT a
final product of cellular respiration.
• NADP+ is used in photosynthesis, NOT cellular respiration.
• ADP is a low-energy molecule that gets converted into ATP, but it's NOT a final
product of respiration.
• Glucose is broken down, NOT formed in respiration.
Steps in the Nitrogen Cycle:
1. Nitrogen Fixation: Conversion of atmospheric nitrogen (N₂) into ammonia (NH₃)
by nitrogen-fixing bacteria (e.g., Rhizobium).
2. Nitrification: Conversion of ammonia into nitrites (by Nitrosomonas bacteria)
and then into nitrates (by Nitrobacter bacteria).
3. Assimilation: Plants absorb nitrates from the soil and incorporate them into
organic molecules.
 4. Ammonification: Decomposers break down dead organisms and release
ammonia back into the soil.
5. Denitrification: Conversion of nitrates back into nitrogen gas (N₂) by denitrifying
bacteria (e.g., Pseudomonas), releasing it into the atmosphere.

Types of Carbohydrates:
• Monosaccharides: Simple sugars (glucose, fructose)
• Disaccharides: Two sugar units (sucrose, lactose)
• Polysaccharides: Complex sugars (starch, cellulose, glycogen)
• Carbohydrates in nucleic acids
• Ribose (RNA) and deoxyribose (DNA) are important sugar components

Functions of proteins:
• Structural support (collagen, keratin)
• Enzymatic activity (catalyze reactions)
• Immune defense (antibodies)
• Hormonal signaling (insulin, growth hormones)
Amino acids and protein structure:
• Proteins are composed of amino acids.
• Peptide bonds link amino acids.
• Examples of protein-based enzymes:
• Amylase (digestion of starch).
• DNA polymerase (DNA replication).
 ASSESSMENT
1. Which of the following is NOT a statement of the Classical Cell Theory?
a. All cells come from pre-existing cells.
b. Cells are the basic structural and functional units of living things.
c. All cells are identical.
d. All living things are made up of cells.
2. Which of the following structures is/are responsible for the synthesis of proteins in
the cell?
a. Lysosomes c. Mitochondria
b. Ribosomes d. Golgi Bodies
3. A woman with homozygous dominant brown eyes is married to a man with
heterozygous dominant brown eyes. Assuming that the alleles for brown eyes are
dominant over the alleles for blue eyes, what is the predicted genotypic ratio of their
offspring (F1 generation)?
a. 1:0 c. 3:1
b. 1:2:1 d. 1:1
4. If John accidentally cuts his finger with a cutter while working with a piece of
cardboard for his project, which of the following will help prevent and stop the
bleeding?
a. Red blood cells c. Erythrocytes
b. Platelets d. White blood cells
5. A reflex action is an involuntary response to a stimulus. Which of the following shows
the correct neural pathway for a reflex action?
a. stimulus → receptor → sensory neuron → motor neuron → effector →
response
b. stimulus → receptor → motor neuron → sensory neuron → effector →
response
c. stimulus → effector → motor neuron → sensory neuron → receptor →
response
d. stimulus → effector → sensory neuron → motor neuron → receptor →
response
6. Which structure is common to plant and animal cells?
a. Chloroplast c. Mitochondrion
b. Central Vacuole d. Centriole
7. Which of the following shows an example of species extinction by anthropogenic
causes?
a. Approximately 4,000 years ago, woolly mammoths (Mammuthus primigenius)
became extinct due to habitat loss caused by climate change.
b. Tasmanian tigers (Thylacinus cynocephalus) were driven to extinction in 1936,
primarily due to habitat destruction caused by European colonizers, who
introduced competing species and engaged in extensive hunting.
c. Researchers believed that the extinction of Golden toads (Incilius periglenes)
was driven by the spread of the deadly amphibian chytrid fungus.
d. Dire wolves (Aenocyon dirus) struggled to compete with gray wolves (Canis
lupus) for food, as gray wolves are more adaptable and capable of surviving on
a broader range of food sources. This competition, along with other factors,
contributed to their extinction.
8. A process that produces cells with half the chromosome number of the parent cell.
a. Meiosis c. Sexual Reproduction
b. Fertilization d. Mitosis
9. How many chromosomes does a human somatic cell contain?
a. 4 (2 pairs) c. 46 (23 pairs)
b. 24 (12 pairs) d. 92 (46 pairs)
10. In what stage of the nitrogen cycle is ammonia converted into nitrate by bacteria
present in the soil?
a. Ammonification c. Assimilation
b. Denitrification d. Nitrification
11. This process refers to the fusion of a haploid sperm from the father with a haploid
egg from the mother.
a. Asexual Reproduction c. Parthenogenesis
b. Sexual Reproduction d. Fertilization
12. Which of the following occurs during the process of mitosis?
a. It involves sex cells or gametes.
b. Genetic recombination takes place.
c. It produces haploid daughter cells.
d. None of the above.
13. Which of the following is governed by the Laws of Mendelian Inheritance?
a. Pink color in snapdragons c. Calico cats
b. Hitchhiker’s thumb d. Human blood type
 14. What phase of mitosis are we referring to when the sister chromatids align at the
metaphase/equatorial plate and the spindle microtubules are already attached to the
kinetochores of the chromosomes?
a. Metaphase c. Prophase
b. Telophase d. Anaphase
15. Camels possess numerous adaptive traits that enable them to thrive in desert
environments. Which of the following is NOT true regarding the adaptations of
camels?
a. They have large flat feet that allow them to spread their weight on the sand
and avoid sinking.
b. Camels have thick skin for moisture retention.
c. Camels have large humps that store water in times of food scarcity.
d. Camels have the ability to open and close their nostrils to prevent sand from
entering.
16. Cellular respiration is a metabolic pathway that produces ATP by breaking down
glucose molecules. Determine which of the following are the products of cellular
respiration:
a. oxygen, ATP, NADPH c. oxygen and glucose
b. G3P, NADP+, ADP d. carbon dioxide, water, and ATP
17. The phospholipid bilayer of a cell membrane is impermeable to large molecules
such as glucose and charged inorganic ions such as sodium ions. However, these
molecules are essential to several cellular processes. How do these molecules enter
the cell?
a. Glucose enters the cell through active transport while sodium ions enter the
cell through facilitated diffusion.
b. Glucose enters the cell through active transport while sodium ions enter the
cell through passive transport.
c. Glucose enters the cell through facilitated diffusion while sodium ions enter
the cell through active transport.
d. Both molecules cannot enter the cell.
18. Below is a pedigree chart showing the inheritance of sickle cell anemia through a
family’s generation.
Having sickle cell anemia is an autosomal recessive trait.
Based on the pedigree, which of the following is true?
a. If individuals II-4 and II-5 will have a fourth child, there will be a 50% chance it
will acquire sickle cell anemia.
b. Individual II-3 is a non-carrier, unaffected male.
c. Individual I-1 is a carrier of sickle cell anemia.
d. If individual III-3 married a female with sickle cell anemia, only female offspring
will acquire the disease.
19. Below are the different stages of mitosis. Which of the following events correctly
matches the stages of mitosis?
a. Prophase: the cell's nuclear membrane remains while the nucleolus starts to
disappear
b. Metaphase: centrioles start to move toward the opposite poles of the cell
c. Anaphase: the spindle fibers start to shorten and will pull the sister chromatids
away from each other
d. Telophase: the nuclear envelope breaks down
20. Which among the chemical equations below represents the process of cellular
respiration?
a. C6H12O6 + 6 O2 → 6 CO2 + 6 H2O + ATP
b. 6 CO2 + 6 H2O → C6H12O6 + 6 O2
c. C2H5OH + 3 O2 → 2 CO2 + 3 H2O
d. C6H12O6 → 2 C2H5OH + 2 CO2
21. Photosynthesis occurs in which of the following organisms:
a. A. Cyanobacteria c. Plants
b. B. Algae d. All of the above
22. Which cellular structure is a result of apical modification?
a. Ribosomes c. Desmosomes
b. Tight Junctions d. Microvilli
23. A eukaryotic DNA from one cell measures nearly two meters long if taken and
stretched out from the cell. With this length, how does the long dna molecule fit inside
the nucleus of every cell?
a. It is tightly coiled around histones. c. It forms a superhelix structure.
b. It undergoes supercoiling. d. All of the above.
24. Which of the following BEST shows an example of simple diffusion?
a. Water molecules moving into a plant cell after rain
b. Red food coloring moving through the water until it becomes pink
 c. Water molecules leaving the cells of a freshwater fish when placed in a
saltwater tank
d. Ice melts at room temperature
25. Aside from the presence of membrane-bound organelles, eukaryotes are distinct
from prokaryotes due to their ________?
a. Ability to perform protein synthesis
b. Mode of reproduction
c. Presence of DNA
d. Ability to undergo cell division
26. Statement 1: Stamen is known to be the male fertilizing organ of a flower that
consists of an anther and filament.
Statement 2: The pistil is the female fertilizing organ of a flower that consists of an
ovary, anther, stigma, and style.
a. First statement is true while the second statement is false.
b. First statement is false while the second statement is true.
c. Both statements are true.
d. Both statements are false.
27. In isotonic solution, a red blood cell remains in the same size and shape. Why is
this so?
a. The concentration of solutes inside and outside of the cell is the same.
b. Water molecules are more concentrated outside of the cell.
c. There is no movement of water in and out of the cell.
d. This is because of the presence of cell wall.
28. Statement 1: The outermost covering of the leaf is called the epidermis which
consists of guard cells, with a pores called stomata which facilitates gas exchange.
Statement 2: The lower epidermis is generally made up of more stomata compared
to the upper epidermis.
a. First statement is true while the second statement is false.
b. First statement is false while the second statement is true.
c. Both statements are true.
d. Both statements are false.
29. Using a compound microscope, you were able to observe cells undergoing mitotic
cell division. If the cells are from an onion root, which of the following processes could
you observe?
 a. The replication of centrioles.
b. The formation of a cell plate between two new cells.
c. The pinching-in of the cell membrane to form two nuclei.
d. The pairing of homologous chromosomes.
30. Which structure prevents the plant cell from bursting when placed in a hypotonic
solution?
a. Central vacuole c. Cell wall
b. Cell membrane d. Plant cytoskeleton
31. Why is a cell membrane selectively permeable?
a. To control the flow of substances in and out of the cell.
b. To provide the structural integrity of the cell.
c. To maintain the shape of the cell.
d. To allow the entry of all substances inside the cell.
32. Which of the following statements about carbohydrates is incorrect?
a. It is not a constituent of nucleic acids.
b. It is an energy source; the hydrolysis of these compounds releases energy
during oxidation.
c. It serves as a storage compound in the form of glycogen.
d. It serves as a structural component in cell membranes.
33. Several hormones play a role in regulating the menstrual cycle. Which of the
following does NOT show the correct hormone-function relationship involving the
menstrual cycle?
a. Progesterone prepares the endometrium for pregnancy.
b. Estrogen triggers the release of LH which causes ovulation.
c. FSH stimulates the thickening of the lining of the uterus.
d. LH triggers the release of an egg from the ovary.
34. Which of the following are not proteins?
a. Enzymes c. Antibodies
b. Hormones d. None of the above
35. All are proper ways of using a compound microscope, except?
a. Use the fine adjustment knob to move the stage quickly and bring the object in
focus.
b. Place the slide on the stage and secure it with the stage clips.
c. To acquire the greatest amount of light, adjust the iris diaphragm and light
intensity.
 d. Do not touch the glass part of the lenses with your fingers, instead use special
lens paper.
36. Which of the following statements on active transport is incorrect?
a. It is highly selective.
b. It transports molecules against their concentration gradient.
c. It requires ATP.
d. An example of active transport is facilitated diffusion.
37. Which of the following statements regarding prokaryotes and eukaryotes is true?
a. All prokaryotes are unicellular, while all eukaryotes are multicellular.
b. Some prokaryotes are multicellular, while some eukaryotes are unicellular.
c. Some prokaryotes are unicellular, while all eukaryotes are multicellular.
d. All prokaryotes are unicellular, while some eukaryotes are unicellular.
38. It refers to the process where specialized structures are acquired by cells after?
cell division to benefit the cell.
a. Cell Transformation c. Cell Alteration
b. Cell Modification d. Cell Mutation
39. It is a network of tubular and vesicular structures that is responsible for the
detoxification of drugs in liver cells.
a. Peroxisomes c. Rough ER
b. Lysosomes d. Smooth ER
40. Below is a pedigree chart showing the inheritance of face freckles through a
family’s generation. Having freckles is an autosomal dominant trait.

If individual II-3 marries a female that is heterozygous dominant for face freckles, what
is the probability that the child will have face freckles?
a. 100% c. 50%
b. 75% d. 25%
ANSWER KEY

1. C 21. D
2. B 22. D
3. D 23. A
4. B 24. B
5. A 25. B
6. C 26. A
7. B 27. A
8. A 28. C
9. C 29. B
10. D 30. C
11. D 31. A
12. D 32. A
13. B 33. C
14. A 34. D
15. C 35. A
16. D 36. D
17. C 37. D
18. C 38. B
19. C 39. D
20. A 40. B
 EARTH SCIENCE
Weathering is the breaking down or dissolving of rocks and minerals on Earth's
surface. Once a rock has been broken down, a process called erosion transports the
bits of rock and minerals away. Water, acids, salt, plants, animals, and changes in
temperature are all agents of weathering and erosion.
Weathering is often divided into the processes of mechanical weathering and chemical
weathering.
Types of Weathering
• Mechanical Weathering - also called physical weathering and disaggregation,
causes rocks to crumble. Water, in either liquid or solid form, is often a key
agent of mechanical weathering.
• Chemical Weathering - changes the molecular structure of rocks and soil. For
instance, carbon dioxide from the air or soil sometimes combines with water in
a process called carbonation. This produces a weak acid, called carbonic acid,
that can dissolve rock.
Three Main Rock Types
1. Sedimentary Rocks
These rocks form from the accumulation and compaction of sediments.
• Shale – Formed from fine-grained clay or silt and breaks easily. It is a
sedimentary rock.
• Limestone – Composed mainly of calcium carbonate (CaCO₃), often from
marine organisms and dissolves in acidic water. It is a sedimentary rock.
2. Metamorphic Rocks
These rocks form when pre-existing rocks are subjected to heat and pressure.
• Marble – Formed from the metamorphism of limestone. It is a metamorphic
rock.
• Quartzite – Formed from the metamorphism of sandstone. It is a metamorphic
rock
3. Igneous Rocks
These rocks form from the cooling and solidification of magma or lava.
• Igneous Rocks – This is a general category that includes rocks like granite
(intrusive) and basalt (extrusive).
 ASSESSMENT
1. Of the following, the rock that is most resistant to both chemical and mechanical
weathering is:
a. Shale c. Marble
b. Limestone d. Quartzite
2. Which of the following energy sources does NOT originally come from the Sun?
a. Wind c. Geothermal
b. Ocean and Thermal energy conversion d. Hydroelectric
3. A volcano which is composed of lava flows and pyroclastic material and which is
steep-sided and very tall is known as:
a. Syncline c. Anticline
b. Composite cone d. None
4. The solidified lava of a volcano belongs to which rock family?
a. Igneous c. Sedimentary
b. Metamorphic d. Fossilized
5. In geological studies, a dome shaped intrusion is called a:
a. Volcanic neck c. Nuee ardente
b. Laccolith d. Caldera
6. Iceland has a great deal of volcanic activity. The reason for this is:
a. it was formed above a mid-ocean rift.
b. it is part of the "Ring of Fire".
c. two tectonic plates are rubbing against each other under Iceland
d. the American plate is diving
7. The tanning rays of the sun are called:
a. infrared rays c. ultraviolet rays
b. visible light d. gamma rays
8. While many different gases are found in the atmosphere, a number do NOT
contribute significantly to solar heating of the atmosphere. Which TWO of the
following gases do NOT absorb much heat?
a. carbon dioxide and nitrogen c. water vapor and carbon dioxide
b. nitrogen and oxygen d. oxygen and water vapor
9. Global climate change is being attributed to the atmospheric increase in what two
gases produced by human activities?
a. ozone and carbon monoxide c. nitrous oxide and sulfur dioxide
b. ozone and methane d. methane and carbon dioxide
10. In geological studies, all the following are TRUE of P waves except that they:
a. are body waves c. can pass through liquids
b. travel like sound waves d. are slower than S waves
11. In geological studies, arkose contains which of the following minerals which gives
it a reddish color?
a. Orthoclase c. Aragonite
b. Calcite d. Quartz
12. Which of the following pairs contains one igneous and one sedimentary rock?
a. shale and marble c. granite and limestone
b. sandstone and quartzite d. obsidian and gneiss
13. Igneous rocks that form from magma are known as:
a. Minerals c. Intrusive rocks
b. Granite d.Gneiss
14. Which of the following is the name of the partly melted rock layer on which the
plates move?
a. Lithosphere c. Hydrosphere
b. Asthenosphere d. Outer core
15. What is the name given to a region where one plate of the earth's crust is sliding
under another?
a. Induction zone c. Subduction zone
b. Abduction zone d. Fun zone
16. The name of a rapid rise of coastal water that accompanies the arrival of a
cyclone is called:
a. Hurricane c. Tidal wave
b. Storm surge d. Cyclonistat
17. Certain substances are classified as water pollutants, others as air pollutants and
still others as land pollutants. Which of the following pollutes all three parts of our
environment?
a. Fluorocarbons c. Acid rain
b. Smog d. Ozone
18. Of the following four geologic periods, which is the oldest?
a. Devonian c. Permian
b. Silurian d.Jurassic
19. During which period, in the earth's history, did MOST dinosaurs become extinct?
a. Carboniferous c. Quaternary
b. Cretaceous d.Triassic
20. The deep, least productive part of a lake is called the:
a. Littoral zone c. Photic zone
b. Profundal zone d. Limnetic zone
21. Which of the following does NOT affect sea level change?
a. Antarctic ice sheet c. Arctic sea ice
b. Small glaciers and ice caps d. Greenland ice sheet
22. Brass gets discolored in air because of the presence of which of the following
gases in air?
a. Oxygen c. Carbon monoxide
b. Hydrogen sulfide d. Nitrogen
23. Which of the following is a nonmetal that remains liquid at room temperature?
a. Phosphorous c. Chlorine
b. Bromine d. Helium
24. The highest elevation on this topographic map can be no more than about:
a. 25 meters
b. 34 meters
c. 45 meters
d. 49 meters
25. A day on Saturn takes about 10 Earth hours. Which fact would best explain this
short day?
a. Saturn is less dense than Earth.
b. Saturn is much farther from the Sun than Earth.
c. Saturn rotates more rapidly than Earth.
d. Saturn’s orbit has greater eccentricity than Earth’s.
26. In an area where a river has cut deep into Earth, there are several layers of very
different rock exposed. The oldest rock layer is most likely to be the layer that is
a. Below the other layers c. The richest in fossils
b. The thickest layer d. Igneous intrusive rock
27. A student models an impact crater on the Moon by dropping a marble from a
known height onto a pan of smooth flour. Before reaching any conclusions about the
results of this simple experiment, the student repeats the activity several times so
that
a. differences produced by standard variability in conditions become clear.
b. she can produce as large a crater as possible before measuring a diameter
c. her ability to simulate a meteor impact becomes more realistic with practice.
d. she can illustrate a perfectly circular crater for her write-up of the experiment
28. Which of the following statements best describes how the planets of the solar
system formed?
a. They are condensed rings of matter thrown off by the young Sun.
b. They are the remains of an exploded star once paired with the Sun.
c. The Sun captured them from smaller, older nearby stars.
d. They formed from a nebular cloud of dust and gas.
29. Evidence suggests that Earth is about 4.6 billion years old, even though no
Earth rocks have been found that can be dated at more than 4 billion years old. This
discrepancy is most likely caused by Earth’s original crust being
a. difficult to date so precisely c. blasted away during Earth’s formation
b. subject to extensive erosion d. destroyed by solar radiation
30. Although many ancient civilizations designated certain patterns of stars as
constellations, they never included planets in their constellations. What feature of
planets, as opposed to stars, explains this?
a. They look bigger than stars.
b. They are more difficult to see than stars.
c. There are not enough of them to form a constellation.
d. They do not maintain fixed positions relative to other planets or stars.
31. At which location would earthquakes be
least likely to occur?
a. 1 c. 3
b. 2 d. 4

32. Which of these statements is best

illustrated by this diagram?
a. Animals under water eat plants.
b. Land animals exhale oxygen into water.
c. Water-dwelling animals breathe carbon dioxide.
d. Plants can take in carbon dioxide from air or water.

33. What causes the wind deflection from the north and south poles?
a. the rotation of Earth on its axis
b. the oblate shape of Earth
c. the tilt of Earth’s axis relative to its orbital plane
d. the difference in total land mass of the two hemispheres

34. The Moon is very hot on the side facing the Sun and very cold on the dark side.
This extreme temperature difference is primarily due to the Moon’s
a. Mineral composition c. Reflective rocks
b. Thin atmosphere d. Lack of volcanic activity
35. Which of these could increase average global temperatures?
a. increased use of fossil fuels
b. increased ocean algal blooms
c. decreased carbon dioxide emissions
d. increased numbers of animal species
36. The clouds that surround Venus are so thick that the planet absorbs less sunlight
than the Earth. Nevertheless, Venus has a surface temperature of more than 400 °C.
Which of this best explains this high surface temperature?
a. The bright surfaces of the clouds reflect sunlight back on the planet.
b. The strong winds in the atmosphere produce friction.
c. The thick clouds in the atmosphere prevent heat from escaping.
d. The sulfuric acid in the clouds releases heat energy.
37. Which diagram best models the movement of coastal air during the afternoon?

d.

38. The primitive atmosphere of Earth was deficient in free oxygen. What process
was primarily responsible for the development of the present percentage of free
oxygen in the Earth’s atmosphere?
a. Outgassing c. Volcanic eruptions
b. Photosynthesis d. Oxidation of iron-based mineral
39. Earth’s atmosphere is divided into layers that are based upon their:
a. Water content c. Gas content
b. Relative humidity d. Temperature gradient
40. Carbon in the atmosphere is most often found as which of the following
compounds?
a. Stratospheric ozone c. Carbon monoxide
b. Fossil fuel d. Carbon dioxide
ANSWER KEY

1. D 21. C
2. C 22. B
3. B 23. B
4. A 24. B
5. B 25. C
6. B 26. A
7. C 27. A
8. B 28. D
9. D 29. B
10. D 30. D
11. A 31. A
12. C 32. D
13. C 33. A
14. B 34. B
15. C 35. A
16. B 36. C
17. C 37. D
18. B 38. B
19. B 39. D
20. B 40. D
 CHEMISTRY

1. There are three (3) fundamental particles that make up an atom. What are these
particles and their corresponding charges?
a. Electron (-), Neutron (+), Proton (no charge)
b. Electron (+), Neutron (no charge), Proton (-)
c. Electron (-), Neutron (no charge), Proton (+)
d. Electron (no charge), Neutron (+), Proton (-)

ANSWER: C

Atomic No. = No. of Protons = No. of Electrons

Atomic Mass = No. of Protons + No. of Neutrons

2. Which of the following statements is true about ionic compounds?
a. Ionic compounds are made up of both cations and anions.
b. Ionic compounds are made up of non-metallic elements.
c. Ionic compounds are made up of anions of non-metallic elements.
d. Ionic compounds are made up of cations of metallic elements

ANSWER: A

3. Which of the following statements is not true about atomic structure?

a. Most of the mass of an atom is concentrated in the nucleus.
b. An atom can gain or lose electrons without changing its charge.
c. Atoms are made up of mostly empty space.
d. All atoms that have the same atomic number are atoms of the same
element.

ANSWER: B
4. When does an atom become positively charged?
a. If it loses protons
b. If it gains protons
c. If it loses electrons
d. If it gains electrons

ANSWER: C

Explanation: An atom becomes an ion (a) if it gains one or more electron (s)
or (b) if it loses one or more electron (s). When it gains electron (s), it becomes
negatively charged and is called an anion. When it loses electron (s), it
becomes positively charged and is called a cation.

5. How would you classify a homogeneous liquid that cannot be separated into its
components by distillation but can be decomposed by electrolysis?
a. Mixture
b. Compound
c. Substance
e. Solution

ANSWER: B
6. Which among the following is the best way to separate a mixture of salt, water
and ethanol?
a. Sublimation, evaporation
b. Filtration, distillation
c. Sublimation, filtration
d. Distillation, evaporation

ANSWER: D

1. Ethanol is distilled by
heating to create vapor.

2. Vapor is cooled to collect it

back as ethanol liquid

3. After distilling off the

ethanol, you can use
evaporation to remove the
water, leaving behind the salt.

4. When water evaporates, it

leaves the salt crystals
behind.
7. Which of the following is a compound?
a. table salt
b. sea water
c. diamond
d. bronze

ANSWER: A

Explanation:
▪ TABLE SALT: Sodium chloride (NaCl) or table salt consists of
chemically bonded Na and Cl
▪ SEA WATER: mixture of water and various dissolved salts and
other substances, not a single compound.
▪ DIAMOND: consists only of carbon atoms, thus it is classified
as an element rather than a compound.
▪ BRONZE: primarily made of copper and tin, which is also
considered a mixture rather than a compound.

8. Which of the following is an element?

a. alloy
b. bronze
c. quicksilver
d. milk

ANSWER: A

9. What are isotopes?

a. Atoms that have the same number of neutrons but different atomic
numbers.
b. Atoms that have the same atomic number but different number of
neutrons.
c. Atoms that have the same number of protons and electrons.
d. Atoms that have the same number of protons but different number of
electrons.
 ANSWER: B

10. What does the mass number represent?

a. Number of protons
b. Number of electrons
c. Number of neutrons
d. Number of protons and neutrons

ANSWER: D

11. The empirical formula is CH2O. Its molar mass is 180.18 g/mol. What is its
molecular formula?
a. C2H4O2
b. C4H8O4
c. C6H12O6
d. C8H16O8

ANSWER: C

Explanation:
o Molecular formulas tell you how many atoms of each element are in
a compound. (Ex. P4O10)
o Empirical formulas tell you the simplest or most reduced ratio of
elements in a compound. (P2O5)
 o If a compound’s molecular formula cannot be reduced any more,
then the empirical formula is the same as the molecular formula.
(Ex. H2O)

12. Which of the following equations represent a combustion type of reaction?

a. CaO + H2O → Ca(OH)2
b. 2 CH4 + 4 O2 → 2 CO2 + 4 H2O
c. 2 N2 + 3 H2 → 2 NH3
d. Mg(OH)2 + H2SO4 → MgSO4 + 2 H2O

ANSWER: B

13. Balancing a chemical equation should satisfy which of the following laws in
chemistry?
a. Law of Multiple Proportions
b. Law of Conservation of Mass
c. Law of Definite Proportions
d. Law of Conservation of Momentum

ANSWER: B

Explanation:
o The LAW OF MULTIPLE PROPORTIONS deals with the ratios in
which elements combine to form different compounds.
o The LAW OF CONSERVATION OF MASS states that mass cannot
be created or destroyed in a chemical reaction. Therefore, when
 balancing a chemical equation, the number of atoms of each element
must be the same on both sides of the equation to ensure that mass
is conserved.
o THE LAW OF DEFINITE PROPORTIONS states that a chemical
compound always contains its component elements in fixed ratio by
mass.
o THE LAW OF CONSERVATION OF MOMENTUM states that the
total momentum of a closed system remains constant if no external
forces act on it.

14. How many orbitals are there for p orbitals?

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

ANSWER: B

The number of orbitals for each type of

subshell is as follows:
s = Orbitals: 1 orbital
p= Orbitals: 3 orbitals
d = Orbitals: 5 orbitals
f = Orbitals: 7 orbitals

15. How many orbitals are there for s orbitals?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

ANSWER: A
 The number of orbitals for each type of subshell
is as follows:
s = Orbitals: 1 orbital
p = Orbitals: 3 orbitals
d = Orbitals: 5 orbitals
f = Orbitals: 7 orbitals

16. Which of the following states that an atom should have 8 electrons in its valence
shell to achieve a stable state?
a. Thomson’s rule
b. Rutherford’s rule
c. Octet rule
d. Chargaff’s rule

ANSWER: C
17. What is the molecular shape of CO2?
a. Bent
b. Linear
c. Octahedral
d. Tetrahedral

ANSWER: B

• Carbon dioxide (CO₂) has a

linear molecular shape
because it consists of a
central carbon atom bonded
to two oxygen atoms with
double bonds.
• The arrangement of the
electron pairs around the
carbon atom leads to a
bond angle of 180 degrees,
resulting in a straight-line
configuration.
18. The aluminum ion is Al3+ while the sulfate ion is SO42. Given the following ions,
what is the correct formula for aluminum sulfate?
a. Al3SO42-
b. Al3(SO4)2
c. Al2(SO4)3
d. Al2SO12

ANSWER: C

To determine the correct formula for aluminum sulfate, we need to

balance the charges of the aluminum ions and sulfate ions.
Step 1: Identify the Charges
The aluminum ion (Al³⁺) has a charge of +3.
The sulfate ion (SO₄²⁻) has a charge of -2.
Step 2: Balancing the Charges
To create a neutral compound, we need to balance the total positive and
negative charges.
If we use 2 aluminum ions (2 × +3 = +6), we will need 3 sulfate ions (3 ×
-2 = -6) to balance the charge.
Step 3: Writing the Formula
The formula for aluminum sulfate can be written as:
Al2(SO4)3
19. What is the chemical name of the chemical formula Na2SO3?
a. Sodium sulfide
b. Sodium sulfite
c. Sodium triosulfide
d. Sodium sulfate

ANSWER: B

20. What is the chemical name (aqueous form) of the chemical formula HCl?
a. Hydrogen chloride
b. Hydrochloric acid
c. Hydrogen chlorite
d. Hydrochlorite

ANSWER: B

Explanation:
o HYDROGEN CHLORIDE: This is the name of the gas form of HCl
when it is not dissolved in water.
o HYDROCHLORIC ACID: This is the correct name for HCl when it is
in aqueous solution.
o HYDROGEN CHLORITE: This refers to a different compound
(HClO₂) and is not applicable here.
o HYDROCHLORITE: This term is not commonly used and does not
refer to any known compound related to HCl.
 MATH
I. ALGEBRA
Exponential Expressions
1. Evaluate the given expression and determine the answer as a proper fraction:
(−2)4
(32 + 22 )2

16 16 16 16
A. B. − C. D. −
81 81 169 169

Solution:
(−2)4 (−2)(−2)(−2)(−2) 16 16 16
2 2 2
= 2
= 2= =
(3 + 2 ) (9 + 4) 13 (13)(13) 169

2. Simplify the expression and determine the answer with only positive exponents:
(2𝑤 4 𝑣 −5 )−2

2𝑣10 𝑣10 𝑣10 4𝑣10

A. 𝑤8 B. 4𝑤8 C. 2𝑤8 D. 𝑤8

Solution:
1 1 1 𝑣 10
(2𝑤 4 𝑣 −5 )−2 = (2)−2 (𝑤 4(−2) )(𝑣 −5(−2) ) = ((2)2) (𝑤 −8 )(𝑣 10 ) = ( ) ( 8 ) (𝑣 10 ) =
4 𝑤 4𝑤 8

Properties of Exponents:
\ 1 1
(𝑎𝑚 )(𝑎𝑛 ) = 𝑎𝑚+𝑛 𝑎−𝑛 = 𝑎𝑛 = ( )𝑛 𝑎0 = 1 ; 𝑎 ≠ 0 (𝑎𝑚 )𝑛 = 𝑎𝑚𝑛
𝑎

𝑎𝑚 𝑎 𝑎𝑚
= 𝑎𝑚−𝑛 ( )𝑚 = 𝑚 (𝑎𝑏)𝑚 = (𝑎𝑚 )(𝑏 𝑚 ) |𝑎|2 = 𝑎2
𝑎𝑛 𝑏 𝑏

-𝑎2 = −(𝑎)(𝑎) (−𝑎)2 = (−𝑎)(−𝑎) 𝑎𝑏 = 𝑎𝑐 ; 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑒 𝑏 = 𝑐

Exponential Equations
3. Solve for x by the given equation:
51−𝑥 = 25
A. -1 B. 6 C. -4 D. 2

Solution: Check:
51−𝑥 = 25 51−𝑥 = 25

51−𝑥 = 52 51−(−1) = 25
1-x = 2 52 = 25
1-2 = x 5(5) = 25
-1 = x 25 = 25

4. Solve for x by the given equation:

2
8𝑥 = 83𝑥+10
A. 2 B. 5 C. -2 D. Both B & C

Solution:
2
8𝑥 = 83𝑥+10
𝑥 2 = 3𝑥 + 10
𝑥 2 − 3𝑥 − 10 = 0 𝑥 2 − 3𝑥 − 10 = 0
(𝑥 − 5)(𝑥 + 2) = 0 𝑀𝑢𝑙𝑡𝑖𝑝𝑙𝑒𝑠 𝑜𝑓 − 10 = 2(−5)
𝑥 = 5 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑥 = −2 𝑊ℎ𝑒𝑛 𝑎𝑑𝑑𝑒𝑑 2 + (−5) = −3
Logarithmic Functions
5. Find the logarithm of 32 to the base 4
1 3 5 7
A. 2 B.2 C.2 D.2

Solution:
𝑦 = 𝑏 𝑥 -------------------- > log𝑏 𝑦 = 𝑥

𝑥 = 𝑏 𝑦 -------------------- > log𝑏 𝑥 = 𝑦

log4 32 = 𝑦

4𝑦 = 32
(22 )𝑦 = 25
22𝑦 = 25
2𝑦 = 5
5
𝑦=
2

6. If log𝑎 (𝑚) = 𝑛 , generate 𝑎𝑛−1 and express it in terms of a and m.

𝑚 𝑎 1
A. 𝑚𝑎 B. C. 𝑚 D. (𝑚𝑎)−1
𝑎

Solution:
log𝑎 𝑚 = 𝑛

𝑚 = 𝑎𝑛

𝑎𝑛 𝑚
𝑎𝑛−1 = =
𝑎1 𝑎
 Logarithm properties:
𝑢
log 𝑤 (𝑢) = 𝑦 → 𝑤 𝑦 = 𝑢 log 𝑤 ( ) = log 𝑤 (𝑢) − log 𝑤 (𝑣)
𝑣
𝑤 log𝑤(𝑢) = 𝑢
1
log 𝑤 (𝑢𝑣 ) = 𝑣 log 𝑤 (𝑢) log 𝑤 (𝑢𝑣) = log 𝑤 (𝑢) + log 𝑤 (𝑣) log 𝑒 (𝑐) =
log𝑐 (𝑒)

log10 (𝑢) ln(𝑢) 1

log 𝑤 (𝑢) = = log 𝑤 (𝑤) = 1 log 𝑐 (𝑒) =
log10(𝑤) ln(𝑤) log𝑒(𝑐)

1
log 𝑤 ( ) = log 1 (𝑢) = − log 𝑤 (𝑢) log 𝑅 (1) = 0
𝑢 𝑤

Note: Logarithm's argument must be greater than 0, while its base must be greater than 1,
and both argument and base must be |R. log 𝑥>1 (𝑥 > 0) .

Radicals
7. Evaluate the given radical:
3
√−64
A. 4 B. -4 C. -4i D. Undefined
Solution:
3 3 3 3
√−64 = √(−1)(64) = √(−1) 𝑥 √(64) = (−1)(4) = −4

8. Multiply the radical expression:

(2√𝑥 + 1)(3 − 4√𝑥)

A. 2√𝑥 − 8𝑥 − 3 B. 2√𝑥 + 8𝑥 + 3 C. 2√𝑥 + 8𝑥 − 3 D. 2√𝑥 − 8𝑥 + 3

Solution:

(2√𝑥 + 1)(3 − 4√𝑥) = (2√𝑥)(3) + (2√𝑥)(−4√𝑥) + 1(3) + 1(−4√𝑥)

= 6√𝑥 − 8(√𝑥)2 + 3 − 4√𝑥

= 2√𝑥 − 8𝑥 + 3

Radical properties:
𝑐
𝑐 √𝑎 𝑐 𝑎
√𝑎𝑏 = ( 𝑐√𝑎)𝑏 𝑐 = √ 𝑤ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒 𝑏 ≠ 0
𝑏
( √𝑎)𝑏 = 𝑎
√𝑏 𝑏

𝑐 𝑐 𝑐 𝑏 𝑐 𝑚
√𝑎 𝑥 √𝑏 = √𝑎𝑏 √ √𝑎 = 𝑏𝑐√𝑎 √𝑎𝑚 = |𝑎|, 𝑚 = 𝑒𝑣𝑒𝑛
𝑛
√𝑎 𝑥 √𝑎 = (√𝑎)2 = 𝑎 √𝑎𝑛 = 𝑎 , 𝑛 = 𝑜𝑑𝑑
9. Rationalize and simplify the denominator then assume that x is positive:
10
5√𝑥
2√𝑥 3√𝑥 4√𝑥 5√𝑥
A. B. − C. D.−
𝑥 𝑥 𝑥 𝑥

Solution:

10 2 2 √𝑥 2√𝑥 2√𝑥
= =( )( )= =
5√𝑥 √𝑥 √𝑥 √𝑥 (√𝑥)2 𝑥

10. Rationalize and simplify the denominator then assume that both x and y are
positive:
4
√𝑥 + 2√𝑦
4√𝑥−8√𝑦 4√𝑥+8√𝑦 4√𝑥−8√𝑦 4√𝑥+8√𝑦
A. B. C. D.
𝑥+4𝑦 𝑥−4𝑦 𝑥−4𝑦 𝑥+4𝑦

Solution:
(𝑎2 − 𝑏2 ) = (𝑎 + 𝑏)(𝑎 − 𝑏)

4 4 √𝑥 − 2√𝑦 4√𝑥 − 8√𝑦 4√𝑥 − 8√𝑦

= 𝑥 = =
√𝑥 + 2√𝑦 √𝑥 + 2√𝑦 √𝑥 − 2√𝑦 (√𝑥)2 − (2√𝑦)2 𝑥 − 4𝑦

Polynomial Operations
11. Multiply the polynomials and combine similar terms:
(𝑎 + 𝑏)(𝑎2 − 𝑎𝑏 + 𝑏2 )
A. a3 + b3 B. a3 + 3ab – b3 C. a3 - 3ab + b3 D. a3 - b3
Solution:
(𝑎 + 𝑏)(𝑎2 − 𝑎𝑏 + 𝑏2 ) = 𝑎3 − 𝑎2 𝑏 + 𝑎𝑏2 + 𝑎2 𝑏 − 𝑎𝑏2 + 𝑏3 = 𝑎3 + 𝑏3

12. Use the polynomial long division to divide the expression:

2𝑥 2 − 3𝑥 + 8
𝑥+4
11 52 2 4
A. 52𝑥 − 4 + 𝑥+2 B. 2𝑥 − 11 + 𝑥+4 C.4𝑥 − 11 + 𝑥+52 D. 11𝑥 − 2 + 𝑥+52

Solution:
2𝑥 − 11

𝑥 + 4√2𝑥 2 − 3𝑥 + 8
−(2𝑥 2 + 8𝑥)____
−11𝑥 + 8
−(−11𝑥 − 44)
52

52
Answer: 2𝑥 − 11 + 𝑥+4
 II. GEOMETRY AND TRIGONOMETRY
Angles
13. By using the diagram, find the angle measure that most closely resembles the
angle 𝜃.

𝜋 3𝜋 7𝜋
A. B. C. 𝜋 D.
3 4 6

Solution:
𝜋
= 90°
2
𝜋
4

𝜃
0
𝜋 = 180°
2𝜋 = 360°

3𝜋
= 270°
2

𝜋 𝜋 3𝜋
𝜃= + =
2 4 4
14. Using the diagram, determine the vertical angle 𝜃.

3𝜋 11𝜋 7𝜋 13𝜋
A. B. C. D.
4 36 9 15

Solution:
3𝜃 − 60° = 2𝜃 − 5°
3𝜃 − 2𝜃 = 60° − 5°
𝜃 = 55°
𝜋
𝜃 = 55° 𝑥 180°
11𝜋
𝜃= 36

Triangles and Trigonometric Ratios

3 3𝜋
15. Given cos(𝜃) = , where < 𝜃 < 2𝜋 , find csc(𝜃).
4 2

4√7 7√4 7√4 4√7

A. B. C. − D. −
7 4 4 7

Solution:
𝜋
= 90°
2

𝜃
0°
𝜋 = 180°
2𝜋 = 360°

3𝜋
= 270°
2
 A=3
𝜃

H=4 O=? H 2 = A2 + O 2
42 = 32 + O2

𝑂 = √42 − 32 = √16 − 9 = √7
𝐴 3
cos(360 − 𝜃 ) = cos(𝜃 ) = =
𝐻 4

𝑂 √7
sin(𝜃 ) = − = −
𝐻 4
1 1 4 √7 4√7
csc(𝜃 ) = = = − 𝑥 = −
sin (𝜃) √7 √7 √7 7
(− 4 )

16. Determine which expression is equivalent to the given one:

sec(𝑥 ) − cos (𝑥)
A. cos(𝑥 ) − sec(𝑥 ) B. tan(𝑥 ) sin (𝑥) C. csc(𝑥 ) − cot (𝑥) D.sin(𝑥 ) csc (𝑥)
Solution:
1
sec(𝑥 ) =
cos (𝑥)
𝑠𝑖𝑛2 (𝑥 ) + 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2(𝑥 ) = 1
𝑠𝑖𝑛2 (𝑥 ) = 1 − 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2(𝑥 )
1 cos (𝑥)
sec(𝑥 ) − cos(𝑥 ) = −
cos(𝑥 ) 1
1 − 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 (𝑥 ) 𝑠𝑖𝑛2 (𝑥 ) sin(𝑥 ) sin (𝑥)
sec(𝑥 ) − cos(𝑥 ) = = = ( )
cos(𝑥 ) cos(𝑥 ) cos(𝑥 ) 1
sec(𝑥 ) − cos(𝑥 ) = tan (𝑥)sin (𝑥)
 𝐵𝑎𝑠𝑖𝑐 𝑇𝑟𝑖𝑔𝑜𝑛𝑜𝑚𝑒𝑡𝑟𝑖𝑐 𝐼𝑑𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑖𝑡𝑖𝑒𝑠

𝑄𝑢𝑜𝑡𝑖𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝐼𝑑𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑖𝑡𝑖𝑒𝑠 𝑅𝑒𝑐𝑖𝑝𝑟𝑜𝑐𝑎𝑙 𝐼𝑑𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑖𝑡𝑖𝑒𝑠 𝑃𝑦𝑡ℎ𝑎𝑔𝑜𝑟𝑒𝑎𝑛 𝐼𝑑𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑖𝑡𝑖𝑒𝑠

sin (𝑥) 1 𝑠𝑖𝑛2 (𝑥) + 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 (𝑥) = 1
tan(𝑥) = sin(𝑥) =
cos (𝑥) csc (𝑥)
𝑡𝑎𝑛2 (𝑥) + 1 = 𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 (𝑥)
cos (𝑥) 1
cot(𝑥) = cos(𝑥) = 𝑐𝑜𝑡 2 (𝑥) + 1 = 𝑐𝑠𝑐 2 (𝑥)
sin (𝑥) sec (𝑥)
1
tan(𝑥) =
cot (𝑥) 𝑐𝑠𝑐 2 (𝑥) + 𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 (𝑥)
= (cot(𝑥) + tan(𝑥))2

Polygons
17. Using the diagram showing two congruent squares (Not to scale), find 𝜃.

65°

A. 125° B. 130° C. 135° D. 140°

Solution:
𝐵 = 180° − 2(65°) = 50°
𝐵 𝜃 = 360° − 2(90°) − 50° = 130°

65° 65°
18. Using the diagram below (Not to scale), find 𝜃.

A. 50° B. 40° C. 30° D. 20°

Solution:

𝐵 = 180° − 40° = 140°

Sum = 180°(𝑠 − 2)
Sum = 180°(5 − 2) = 540°
140° + 90° + 140° + 150° + 𝜃 = 540°
520° + 𝜃 = 540°
𝜃 = 540° − 520°
𝜃 = 20°
Area, Volume
19. Find the area of the shaded region of the diagram.

4√65 21 2𝜋 6
A. 𝑚2 B. ( 4 + 𝜋) 𝑚2 C. ( 3 + 4) 𝑚2 D. (5𝜋 − 5) 𝑚2
65
Solution:

𝜋(1.5𝑚)2 𝜋 1
𝐴= + (2𝑚)(3𝑚) − 2[ (0.5𝑚)2 ] − 2[ (1.5𝑚)(0.5𝑚)]
2 4 2
9𝜋 𝜋 3
𝐴=( + 6 − − ) 𝑚2
8 8 4
9𝜋 − 𝜋 6(4) − 3
𝐴=( + ) 𝑚2
8 4
21
𝐴=(𝜋+ ) 𝑚2
4

20. Determine the volume of the figure on the right of the image, which is sliced
through the yellow sphere’s diameter’ leaving the red sphere intact. The radius of the
red and yellow spheres on the left of the image are 3𝑚 and 5𝑚 respectively.

21𝜋 50𝜋 49𝜋 98𝜋

A. 𝑚3 B. 𝑚3 C. 𝑚3 D. 𝑚3
3 3 3 3

Solution:

5m
3m
 4
𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒 = (𝜋)(𝑟 3)
3
Volume = V5 – V3
4 4
Volume = 3 (𝜋)(53 ) − (𝜋)(33 )
3
500
Volume = (𝜋) − 36𝜋
3
392
Volume = (𝜋)
3

𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒 392 98
= (𝜋 ) = (𝜋)
4 3(4) 3

Unit Circle
5𝜋
21. What point, or coordinate corresponds to an angle of 𝑟𝑎𝑑 on the unit circle?
2

A. (-1, -1) B. (0,1) C. (0,0) D. (1,1)

Solution:
5𝜋 𝜋
= 2𝜋 +
2 2
𝜋 180°
𝑥 = 90°
2 𝜋
(cos(90°) , sin(90°)) = (0,1)

22. Which of the following points is not on the unit circle?

√2 √2 1 √3 √3 √2
A. (− , ) B.(− 2 , − ) C. (1,0) D. ( 2 , )
2 2 2 2
Solution:
To determine, the sum of the squares of each component ≠1
2 2 2
√2 √2 1 2 √3
A. (− 2 ) + (2 ) =1 B. (− 2 ) + (− 2 ) =1

2 2
√3 √2 5
C. (1)2 + (0)2 = 1 D. ( 2 ) + ( 2 ) = 4

𝑈𝑛𝑖𝑡 𝐶𝑖𝑟𝑐𝑙𝑒

Conic Section
23. Determine the equation of the circle given its center at (2,3) and a point on the
circle at coordinates (5,4).
A. 2𝑥2 + 3𝑦 = 102 C. 2𝑥2 + 3𝑦 = 10
B. (𝑥+2)2 + (𝑦−3)2 = 102 D. (𝑥−2)2 + (𝑦−3)2 = 10
Solution:
(𝑥 − ℎ)2 + (𝑦 − 𝑘)2 = 𝑟 2
ℎ=2, 𝑘 =3

𝑟 = √(𝑥2 − 𝑥1 )2 + (𝑦2 − 𝑦1 )2

𝑟 = √(5 − 2)2 + (4 − 3)2

𝑟 = √9 + 1 = √10
(𝑥 − ℎ)2 + (𝑦 − 𝑘)2 = 𝑟 2
(𝑥 − 2)2 + (𝑦 − 3)2 = 10

24. Determine the coordinates of the vertex of the given equation of the conic
section:
y = −2𝑥2 + 8𝑥 – 5
A. (1,2) B. (2,3) C. (3,4) D. (4,5)

Solution:
(𝑥 − ℎ)2 = 4𝑎(𝑦 − 𝑘)
2𝑥 2 − 8𝑥 = −𝑦 − 5
1 1
(2𝑥 2 − 8𝑥) = (−𝑦 − 5)
2 2
𝑦 5
𝑥 2 − 4𝑥 = − −
2 2
𝑦 5
𝑥 2 − 4𝑥 + 4 = − − + 4
2 2
𝑦 3
(𝑥 − 2)2 = − +
2 2
1
(𝑥 − 2)2 = − (𝑦 − 3)
2
𝑉(2,3)
III. SET AND PROBABILITY
Sets and Venn Diagram
25 In a class of 60 students, 45 like science and 30 like math. How many students
only likes science?
A. 30 B. 15 C. 25 D. 40
Solution:

S n M

S + n = 45
M + n = 30
S + n + M = 60

S + (n + M) = 60
S + 30 = 60
S = 30

Progression / Sequence
27. Which term of the arithmetic progression 3,8,13,18… is 78?
A. 4𝑡ℎ B. 8𝑡ℎ C. 12𝑡ℎ D. 16𝑡ℎ
Solution:
Formula: 𝑎n = 𝑎1 +(𝑛−1) d
78 = 3 + (n – 1) (5)
78 − 3
𝑛−1=
5
𝑛 − 1 = 15
𝑛 = 16
Combination
28 Out of a group of 5 people, a pair needs to be formed. Find the number of
possible combinations.
A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20
Solution:

n=5
r=2
5! 5(4)(3)(2)(1) 5(4)
= = = 10
2!(5−2)! 2(1) 𝑥 3(2)(1) 2

Permutation
29. There are 5 students in a table. Two of these students are Romina and Daniela,
who don’t get along very well. In how many ways can the teacher arrange the students
in a row, so that Romina and Daniela are not together?
A. 100 B. 25 C. 72 D. 31
Solution:

𝐴𝑙𝑙 𝑡𝑜𝑔𝑒𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑟 − (𝑅𝑜𝑚𝑎𝑛𝑖𝑎 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐷𝑎𝑛𝑖𝑒𝑙𝑎 𝑏𝑒𝑠𝑖𝑑𝑒 𝑒𝑎𝑐ℎ 𝑜𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑟)

5! − 4! 2! = 120 − 48 = 72

Probability
30. A card is drawn from a deck of 52 cards. What is the probability that it is a face
card?
1 2 3
A. 11 B. 12 C. 13 D.
4
14

Solution:
4 pcs of Jack, 4pcs of Queen, 4 pcs of King
52 cards all in all
4+4+4 12 3
𝑃𝑓 = = =
52 52 13
IV. STATISTICS
For the remaining items (31-35), refer to the data set below:
14 36 40 14 21

Central Modes of Tendency

31. Determine the Mean, Median, and Mode of the data set.
Mean Median Mode
A. 26 22 15
B. 25 21 14
C. 24 20 13
D. 23 19 12
14 + 36 + 40 + 14 + 21
𝑀𝑒𝑎𝑛 = = 25
5
𝑅𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑟𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝑖𝑛 𝑜𝑟𝑑𝑒𝑟
14 14 21 36 40
𝑀𝑒𝑑𝑖𝑎𝑛 𝑖𝑠 𝑙𝑜𝑐𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑑 𝑖𝑛 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑚𝑖𝑑𝑑𝑙𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑎𝑟𝑟𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑒𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡
𝑀𝑒𝑑𝑖𝑎𝑛 = 21
𝑀𝑜𝑑𝑒 𝑖𝑠 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑡ℎ𝑎𝑡 𝑜𝑐𝑐𝑢𝑟𝑠 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑚𝑜𝑠𝑡
𝑀𝑜𝑑𝑒 = 14

Range
32. Determine the Range of the data set.
A. 15 B. 26 C. 37 D. 48
Solution:
𝑅𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑒 = ℎ𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑒𝑠𝑡 − 𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑠𝑡
𝑅𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑒 = 40 − 14 = 26
Variance
33. Determine the Population Variance of the data set.
A. 149 B. 150 C. 151 D. 152
Solution:

Standard Deviation
34. Determine the Standard Deviation of the data set.

A. √152 B. √149 C. √150 D. √151

Solution:

𝑆𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑑𝑎𝑟𝑑 𝑑𝑒𝑣𝑖𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 = √𝑉𝑎𝑟𝑖𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 = √151

Coefficient of Variation
35. Determine the Coefficient of Variation of the data set.
√151 √152 √149 √150
A. B. C. D.
25 25 25 25

Solution:

𝑆𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑑𝑎𝑟𝑑 𝐷𝑒𝑣𝑖𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 √151

𝐶𝑜𝑒𝑓𝑓𝑒𝑐𝑖𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑉𝑎𝑟𝑖𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 = =
𝑀𝑒𝑎𝑛 25
CALCULUS
3
36. Find the third derivative of the function 𝑓 (𝑥 ) = 𝑥 4 − 𝑠𝑖𝑛2 (𝑥)
2

A. f’’’(x) = 36x + 4sin(2x)

B. f’’’(x) = 24x + 2sin(2x)
C. f’’’(x) = 36x + 3sin(2x)
D. f’’’(x) = 18x + 4sin(2x)
Solution:
3 4
𝑓 (𝑥 ) = 𝑥 − 𝑠𝑖𝑛2 (𝑥)
2
3
𝑓′(𝑥 ) = (4)𝑥 4−1 − 2𝑠𝑖𝑛(𝑥)cos (𝑥)
2

2𝑠𝑖𝑛(𝑥 ) cos(𝑥 ) = 𝑠𝑖𝑛(2𝑥)

𝑓′(𝑥 ) = 6𝑥 3 − 𝑠𝑖𝑛(2𝑥)
𝑓 ′′(𝑥) = 6(3)𝑥 3−1 − 2𝑐𝑜𝑠(2𝑥 )
𝑓 ′′(𝑥) = 18𝑥 2 − 2𝑐𝑜𝑠(2𝑥 )
𝑓 ′′′ (𝑥 ) = 18(2)𝑥 2−1 − 2(− sin(2𝑥 ))(2)
𝑓 ′′′ (𝑥 ) = 36𝑥 + 4sin (2𝑥)

sin (5𝑥)
37. Evaluate the limit: lim
𝑥→0 3𝑥

3 5 5 1
A. 5 B. 3 C. 1 3 D. 3

Solution:
sin (𝜃)
lim =1
𝑥→0 𝜃
sin (5𝑥) sin (5𝑥) 5𝑥 5 sin (5𝑥) 5 5
lim = lim 𝑥 = ( ) lim = ( ) (1) =
𝑥→0 3𝑥 𝑥→0 3𝑥 5𝑥 3 𝑥→0 5𝑥 3 3
 𝑑
38. Find the derivative: (𝑥 3 𝑒 𝑥 )
𝑑𝑥
𝑑
A. 𝑑𝑥 (2𝑥 3 𝑒 𝑥 ) = 𝑥 2 𝑒 𝑥 + 3𝑥 3 𝑒 𝑥
𝑑
B. 𝑑𝑥 (𝑥 3 𝑒 𝑥 ) = 𝑥 3 𝑒 𝑥 + 3𝑥 2 𝑒 𝑥
𝑑
C. 𝑑𝑥 (𝑥 3 𝑒 𝑥 ) = 𝑥𝑒 𝑥 + 3𝑥 2 𝑒 𝑥
𝑑
D. 𝑑𝑥 (𝑥 3 ) = 𝑥 3 𝑒 𝑥 + 3𝑥𝑒 𝑥

Solution:
Product Rule
𝑑 3 𝑥
(𝑥 𝑒 ) = 𝑥 3 𝑒 𝑥 + 𝑒 𝑥 (3𝑥 2 )
𝑑𝑥
𝑑 3 𝑥
(𝑥 𝑒 ) = 𝑥 3 𝑒 𝑥 + 3𝑥 2 𝑒 𝑥
𝑑𝑥

39. Find the integral of ∫(3𝑥 2 − 4𝑥 + 5)𝑑𝑥

A. ∫(3𝑥 2 − 2𝑥 + 5)𝑑𝑥 = 𝑥 3 − 𝑥 2 + 5𝑥 + 𝐶
B. ∫(3𝑥 2 − 4𝑥 + 5)𝑑𝑥 = 𝑥 3 − 𝑥 2 + 5𝑥 + 𝐶
C. ∫(3𝑥 2 − 2𝑥 + 5)𝑑𝑥 = 𝑥 3 − 2𝑥 2 + 5𝑥 + 𝐶

D. ∫(3𝑥 2 − 4𝑥 + 5)𝑑𝑥 = 𝑥 3 − 2𝑥 2 + 5𝑥 + 𝐶
Solution:
𝑥 2+1 𝑥 1+1
∫(3𝑥 2 − 4𝑥 + 5)𝑑𝑥 = 3 ( 2+1 ) − 4 ( 1+1 ) + 5𝑥 + 𝐶

2
𝑥3 𝑥2
( )
∫ 3𝑥 − 4𝑥 + 5 𝑑𝑥 = 3 ( ) − 4 ( ) + 5𝑥 + 𝐶
3 2

∫(3𝑥 2 − 4𝑥 + 5)𝑑𝑥 = 𝑥 3 − 2𝑥 2 + 5𝑥 + 𝐶
40. Find the integral of ∫ 𝑠𝑖𝑛3 (𝑥 )𝑑𝑥
𝑐𝑜𝑠 3 (𝑥)
A. − sin(𝑥 ) + +𝐶
3

𝑐𝑜𝑠3 (𝑥)
B. − cos(𝑥 ) + +𝐶
3

𝑐𝑜𝑠3 (𝑥)
C. − sin(𝑥 ) + +𝐶
2

𝑐𝑜𝑠3 (𝑥)
D. − cos(𝑥 ) + +𝐶
2

Solution:

∫ 𝑠𝑖𝑛3 (𝑥 )𝑑𝑥 = ∫ 𝑠𝑖𝑛(𝑥 )𝑠𝑖𝑛2 (𝑥)𝑑𝑥 = ∫ 𝑠𝑖𝑛(𝑥 )(1 − 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2(𝑥))𝑑𝑥

𝐿𝑒𝑡 𝑢 = cos(x)
𝑑𝑢 = −sin(x)dx
−𝑑𝑢 = sin(x)dx

∫ 𝑠𝑖𝑛3 (𝑥 )𝑑𝑥 = ∫ 𝑠𝑖𝑛(𝑥 )(1 − 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2(𝑥))𝑑𝑥 = ∫ 𝑠𝑖𝑛(𝑥 )(1−𝑢2 )𝑑𝑥

𝑢2+1
∫ 𝑠𝑖𝑛3 (𝑥 )𝑑𝑥 = ∫(1−𝑢2 )(−𝑑𝑢) = − (𝑢 − )+𝐶
2+1

𝑢3
∫ 𝑠𝑖𝑛3 (𝑥 )𝑑𝑥 = −𝑢 + +𝐶
3

3(
𝑐𝑜𝑠 3 (𝑥)
∫ 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑥 )𝑑𝑥 = −cos (𝑥) + +𝐶
3
ANSWER KEY