16/06/2022 CODE-A

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

FINAL TEST SERIES for NEET-2022

MM : 720 Test - 4 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Mins.

Topics covered :
Physics : Thermodynamics, Kinetic Theory, Oscillations and Waves
Chemistry : The p-Block Elements (Group-13 & 14), Organic Chemistry-(Some Basic Principles and
Techniques), Hydrocarbons, Environmental Chemistry
Botany : Cell Cycle and Cell Division, Transport in Plants, Mineral Nutrition
Zoology : Body Fluids and Circulation, Excretory Products and their Elimination, Locomotion and
Movement

Instructions :
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :

SECTION - A (1) T1 > T2

1. The density (ρ) versus pressure (P) graphs of a (2) T1 < T2
given mass of an ideal gas is shown in figure at (3) T1 = T2
two different temperatures T1 and T2. The relation (4) Nothing can be predicted
between T1 and T2 may be 2. An insulated box containing a diatomic gas of
molar mass M is moving with speed v. The box is
suddenly stopped. The resulting change in
temperature is
Mv 2 Mv 2
(1) (2)
5R 3R
Mv 2 2Mv 2
(3) (4)
R 5R

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Test-4 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2022

3. Sound waves of wavelength  travelling in a 8. An ideal monatomic gas is supplied 80 joule heat
medium with speed v m/s enter into another at constant pressure. The increase in internal
energy of gas, will be
v
medium where its speed is m/s . The (1) 58 J (2) 48 J
3
(3) 44 J (4) 32 J
wavelength of the sound in the second medium
9. A progressive wave of frequency 240 Hz, moves
will be
with a velocity of 40 m/s in a medium. The phase
  difference between two particles separated by a
(1) (2) distance 2 cm at any time t will be
2 3
 6
3 (1) rad (2) rad
(3) 3 (4) 25 25
2
12  9
4. In an adiabatic expansion, a gas does 25 J of (3) rad (4) rad
25 25
work while in another adiabatic compression
100 J of work is done on the gas. The change in 10. An ideal diatomic gas undergoes a
thermodynamic process as shown in P-V
internal energy in two processes are respectively
diagram. The heat absorbed during process a to
(1) 25 J and –100 J (2) –100 J and –25 J b is
(3) –25 J and 100 J (4) 25 J and 100 J
5. One mole of an ideal gas at temperature T1
P 
expands according to law   = constant. The
V 
work done in expansion when final temperature
becomes T2 is
(1) 12 P0V0 (2) 45 P0V0
R
(1) R(T2 – T1) (2) (T2  T1 ) (3) 57 P0V0 (4) 47 P0V0
2
11. If an open organ pipe of length L and another
R closed organ pipe of same length produce x
(3) (T2  T1 ) (4) Zero
4 beats/second when vibrated together, each in
their fundamental modes, then speed of sound is
6. Speed of sound wave in a fluid is (neglect end correction)
(1) Directly proportional to square of bulk 3Lx
modulus of medium (1) 2Lx (2)
2
(2) Inversely proportional to square of density of 5Lx
medium (3) 4Lx (4)
2
(3) Directly proportional to square root of product 12. An ideal monatomic gas undergoes a cyclic
of bulk modulus and density of medium process ABCA as shown in the figure. The ratio
of heat absorbed during AB to the work done on
(4) Inversely proportional to square root of
the gas during BC is
density of medium
7. Two waves represented by equations
 
y1 = asin(t – kx) and y 2  a sin  t  kx  
 2
respectively are superimposed. The initial phase
of the resultant wave at x = 0 will be (symbols
have their usual meanings)
5 5
  (1) (2)
(1)  (2) 2ln 2 3
2 4
  5 5
(3) (4) (3) (4)
3 6 4ln 2 6

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Final Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-4 (Code-A)

13. The equation of a standing wave produced on a 17. One mole of an ideal gas having initial volume V,
string fixed at both ends is pressure 2P and temperature T undergoes a
y = 0.4 sin 0.314x cos 600t cyclic process ABCDA as shown in figure. The
work done in complete cycle is
(where x is in cm and t is in s)
The smallest possible length of the string for this
will be
(1) 20 cm (2) 40 cm
(3) 10 cm (4) 5 cm
14. The graph plotted between restoring force and
displacement from mean position of particle 1
executing S.H.M is (1) Zero (2) RT ln 2
2
3
(3) RT ln 2 (4) RT ln 2
2
(1) (2) 18. The mean free path of a gaseous molecule of
diameter d at temperature T and pressure P is
equal to
KBP K BT
(1) (2)
2d T 2
d 2P
K BT K BT
(3) (4)
(3) (4) 2
2 d P 2d 2 P
19. A simple pendulum of length 2 m, swings with an
amplitude of 0.1 m. The acceleration of the bob
15. Two waves with same amplitude and wavelength
at its extreme position will be approximately
travel in opposite directions with equal speed in a
(g = 10 m/s2)
medium. When the waves are superimposed the
phenomenon observed is (1) 1 m/s2 (2) 1.5 m/s2
(1) Stationary waves (3) 0.5 m/s2 (4) 0.1 m/s2

(2) Harmonic travelling waves 20. A Carnot engine works between 27°C and 527°C.
If it does 250 J of work per cycle, then the heat
(3) Beats
rejected to the sink per cycle is
(4) Polarisation
(1) 100 J (2) 150 J
16. One mole of an ideal gas undergoes a process, (3) 200 J (4) 250 J
P0
P 2
, here P0 and V0 are constants. 21. Two strings A and B are fixed at both ends.
V0  String A has twice the length, twice the diameter,
1  
V  twice the tension and twice the density than
string B. The overtone of A that will be in unison
Change in temperature of the gas when volume
with fundamental frequency of B is
is changed from V = V0 to V = 2V0 is
(1) 4th (2) 3rd
–2P0V0
(1) (3) 1st (4) 2nd
5R
22. Two waves represent by the equations y1 = 2a
11P0V0 sin(t – kx) and y2 = 3a cos(t – kx) superposed
(2)
10R each other to give a resultant wave. Amplitude of
–5P0V0 the resultant wave will be
(3)
4R (1) 5a (2) 29a
(4) P0V0 (3) 13 a (4) a

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Test-4 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2022

23. The equation of a travelling wave on a string 27. A given length of a sonometer wire is in
moving in positive x-direction is given by resonance with tuning fork. If length of wire is
y = Asin(t – kx). It is reflected from a rigid reduced by 5%, the wire vibrating with the fork
boundary at x = 0. The equation of reflected produce 4 beats per second. The frequency of
wave is yr = the tuning fork will be
(1) –Asin(t – kx) (1) 76 Hz (2) 95 Hz
(2) –Asin(t + kx) (3) 56 Hz (4) 80 Hz
(3) Asin(t – kx) 28. A simple harmonic oscillator has time period of
(4) Acos(t + kx) 4 s. The change in phase of the oscillator, 1 s
after leaving the positive extreme position is (in
24. A gas is heated through 1°C in a closed vessel. If
radian)
the pressure is increased by 0.5%. The initial
temperature of the gas is  
(1) (2)
2 3
(1) 250°C (2) –23°C
(3) –73°C (4) 200°C 3 
(3) (4)
25. The first overtone of an open organ pipe has 2 6
frequency f. The second overtone of a closed 29. The equation of stationary wave is
organ pipe of the same length will have  x 
y  10 cos   sin(100  t ) (where x is in cm
frequency (neglect end corrections)  10 
5f 3f and t is in s). The wave is formed on a string of
(1) (2)
2 2 length 40 cm. An antinode will be located at (from
the following options)
5f 3f
(3) (4)
4 4 (1) x = 15 cm (2) x = 25 cm
26. A cyclic process ABCD is shown in the P-V (3) x = 20 cm (4) x = 12.5 cm
diagram. Which of the following curves represent 30. The root mean square speed of oxygen
the same process? (Processes BC and DA are molecules at a certain absolute temperature is v.
isothermal). If the temperature is doubled, and oxygen gas
dissociates into atomic oxygen, then the new
r.m.s. speed will be
(1) 2v (2) v 2
(3) v (4) 2 2 v

31. An SHM is represented by an equation

y = Asint + Asin(t + 120°) + Asin(t – 60°).
Maximum displacement from mean position will
be
(1) (2)
(1) A (2) 2A
(3) 3A (4) 3A
32. A simple pendulum has time period T1. The point
of suspension is now moved upward according to
equation y = At, where A = 2 m/s. If new time
period is T2 then the ratio of T 21 and T 22 is
(3) (4)
(1) 2 : 3 (2) 5 : 6
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 3 : 2

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Final Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-4 (Code-A)

33. A body is executing S.H.M with amplitude A and 38. The relation between internal energy U, pressure
angular frequency . The root mean square P and volume V of a gas in an adiabatic process
speed of the body for one complete oscillation is U = a + bPV where a and b are positive
constants.
will be (position of the particle at t = 0 is mean
position) The value of ratio of molar specific heats () is
a b 1
A A (1) (2)
(1) (2) b b
2 2
a 1 b
A A (3) (4)
(3) (4) a a
2 2
39. A mass, when suspended from a vertical spring,
34. The displacement from mean position of a elongates the spring by a length 3.6 m in
particle executing SHM is given by equilibrium. The mass is given a small vertical
  impulse. The time period of resulting oscillations
y  5 sin  4t   cm. If T is time period and is (g = 10 m/s2)
 3
mass of the particle is 2 g, then KE of particle at (1) 2s (2) s
T (3) 1.2s (4) 3.8s
t is
4 40. A plane progressive simple harmonic wave is
(1) 4 × 10 J –3
(2) 5 × 10 J –5 moving along positive x-direction with speed
–3
v = 20 m/s. If amplitude of medium particles is
(3) 3 × 10 J (4) 3 × 10–5 J
10 cm and time period of oscillation of medium
35. A wave travelling along the x-axis is described by particle is 2 s, then equation of the plane
the equation y(x, t) = 0.1sin(Px – Qt). If the progressive wave may be (at t = 0, x = 0,
wavelength and time period of wave are 0.06 m y = 5 cm)
and 1 s, respectively, then value of P and Q in [x is in m and t is in s]
appropriate unit will be  x 
(1) y  10  10 2 sin   t   m
100  100   20 3 
(1) P  2 , Q  (2) P  , Q  2
3 3  x 
(2) y  10  10 2 sin   t  m
50  50   20 6
(3) P  , Q  (4) P  ,Q  
3 3   x t  
(3) y  10  10 2 sin    m
 10 2 3 
SECTION - B
  x t  
(4) y  10  10 2 sin    m
 10 2 6 
36. For a particle executing SHM with a frequency
80 Hz, the frequency of oscillation of its kinetic 41. The maximum temperature of the n moles of the
gas, attained if the pressure of ideal gas varies
energy is
according to the law, P = P0 – aV2, where P0 and
(1) 20 Hz (2) 120 Hz a are constants, is
(3) 40 Hz (4) 160 Hz 1/2
3P0  P0 
(1) Tmax 
37. One solid sphere, having mass 1 kg and nR  3a 
diameter 0.3 m is suspended from a wire. If the 1/3
3P0  P0 
twisting couple per unit twist for the wire is (2) Tmax 
nR  3a 
6 × 10–3 Nm/rad, then time period of torsional
1/2
pendulum will be 2P0  P0 
(3) Tmax 
(1) 0.7 s (2) 7.7 s 3nR  3a 
1/2
(3) 77 s (4) 0.07 s P0  P0 
(4) Tmax 
3nR  3a 

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Test-4 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2022

42. A cylindrical body of relative density , length L 45. One mole of an ideal gas at initial temperature of
and area of cross-section A floats vertically in T K does 6R joule of work adiabatically. The ratio
water. If it is slightly displaced downwards and of specific heats Cp and Cv for the gas is 5/3. The
released, the frequency of resulting SHM will be final temperature of the gas is
(g = acceleration due to gravity) (1) (T + 2.4) K
1 g (2) (T – 2.4) K
(1)
4 L (3) (T + 4) K
1 g (4) (T – 4) K
(2)
 L 46. In a damped oscillation, the amplitude of
rd
oscillation becomes   of its initial value (A0)
1 g 2
(3)
2  L 3
at the end of 50 oscillations. When the oscillator
1 g complete 100 oscillations. The amplitude will be
(4)
 L
A0 A0
43. In a system of two blocks connected through an (1) (2)
9 4
ideal spring as shown in figure, the time period of
oscillations is (k is force constant of spring) 4 A0 A0
(3) (4)
9 3
47. H2 gas kept in vessel at 27°C is heated so that
root mean square speed of its molecules
increases by 41.4%. The final temperature of the
m1 gas is
(1) 2
k (1) 54°C

m2 (2) 127°C
(2) 2
k (3) 227°C
(4) 327°C
m1m2
(3) 2
( m1  m2 )k 48. A soldier fires a bullet towards a hill hears the
first echo after 4 s. He moves a distance 100 m
m2 towards the hill and fires a bullet and hears the
(4) 2
( m1  m2 )k echo after 3.5 s. The velocity of sound in air is
44. The mass m, as shown in figure, oscillates (1) 330 m/s (2) 300 m/s
simple harmonically with amplitude A. The (3) 400 m/s (4) 360 m/s
amplitude of point P is (symbols have their usual 49. A refrigerator, whose coefficient of performance
meanings) is 4, extracts heat from the water inside it at the
rate of 200 J/cycle. The amount of the heat
released in the room per cycle is
(1) 250 J (2) 400 J
(3) 680 J (4) 180 J
50. In an isothermal expansion at temperature T, the
work done in expanding a gas from volume 2V to
5V is W. The work done in expanding the same
A 2A gas from 10V to 25V at same temperature T will
(1) (2) be
2 3
(1) 5W (2) 10W
A 3A
(3) (4) (3) 3W (4) W
3 4

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Final Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-4 (Code-A)

CHEMISTRY
SECTION - A 58. Photochemical smog does not contain
(1) Ozone (2) Glycerol
51. Hyperconjugation is not possible in
(3) Formaldehyde (4) Nitric oxide
(1) (2) 59. Rate of hydrogenation of which of the following
alkene will be minimum?

(3) (4) (1)

(2)
52. Highest boiling point is observed for
(3)
(1) 2-Methylbutane
(4)
(2) Pentane
(3) Hexane 60. C2H5CN and C2H5NC are

(4) 2, 2 - Dimethylpropane (1) Metamers

53. The correct statement among the following is (2) Functional isomers
(1) Sn2+ is a reducing agent (3) Position isomers
(2) Pb2+ is a reducing agent (4) Chain isomers
(3) Pb4+ is a reducing agent 61. Which of the following is not aromatic in nature?
4+
(4) Sn is a reducing agent
(1) (2)
54. Which of following hydrocarbon cannot be
prepared by Wurtz reaction?
(1) CH4 (2) C2H4 (3) (4)
(3) C2H6 (4) C2H2
62. Producer gas is a mixture of
(1) CO + H2 (2) CO + N2
55. (3) CO2 + H2 (4) CO2 + N2
63. Hybridisation of Al in the complex formed by the
hydrolysis of AlCl3 in acidified aqueous solution is
(1) sp2 (2) sp3
Which nitrogen in Lysergic acid diethylamide
(LSD) is most basic? (3) dsp2 (4) sp3d2
(1) 1 (2) 2 64. Decreasing order of -I effect of the given groups
(3) 3 (4) All are equally basic is

Na/liquid NH i. –CN
56. CH3  C  C  CH3 
3
 P
(Major ii. –NO2
product) iii. –NH2
The major product P is iv. –F
(1) But-1-ene (2) Butane (1) iii > ii > i > iv (2) ii > iii > iv > i
(3) Cis-but-2-ene (4) Trans-but-2-ene (3) iii > ii > iv > i (4) ii > i > iv > iii
57. Minimum atomic radii among the following is of 65. In Kjeldahl’s method, nitrogen is liberated as
(1) Al (2) Ga (1) N2(g) (2) NO(g)
(3) ln (4) Tl (3) N2O(g) (4) NH3(g)

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Test-4 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2022

66. In which of the following compounds, 71. Which of the following compound does not exhibit
tautomerism is favourable and enol form is most geometrical isomerism?
stable? (1) CH3CH = CHCH3

(2)
(1) (2)

(3) PhCH = CHPh

(4) CH3CH = CH2
(3) (4) 72. The number of structural isomers for the
compound with molecular formula C4H6 is
67. Chloroform (B.P. 334 K) and aniline (B.P. 457 K)
are easily separated by the technique of (1) 3 (2) 7

(1) Crystallisation (2) Distillation (3) 5 (4) 9

73. The order of stability of the following carbocations
(3) Sublimation (4) Chromatography
is
68. Which of the following on hydrolysis followed by
condensation polymerisation yields straight chain (I)
polymers? (II)
(1) MeSiCl3 (2) Me2SiCl2
(3) Me3SiCl (4) Me4Si (III)
69. In Carius method of estimation of halogen, 0.5 g
(1) (III) > (II) > (I) (2) (II) > (III) > (I)
of an organic compound gave 0.47 g of AgBr.
(3) (I) > (II) > (III) (4) (III) > (I) > (II)
Percentage of bromine in compound is (molar
Hg2 
mass of AgBr = 188 g) 74. Ph  C  C  H 
dil. H SO
 A Major  .
2 4
(1) 20% (2) 40%
The major product A is
(3) 50% (4) 80%
70. The correct structure of pyrosilicate among the
(1) (2) PhCH2CHO
following is

(3) (4) PhCH2CH2OH

(1)

HBr (excess) HO
75. H  C  C  CH3 
 A 
2

B

The compound B is
(2)
(1) A diol (2) An aldehyde
(3) A ketone (4) An alkyl halide
76. IUPAC name of the compound

(3) is

(1) 4-Oxo-5-methylhexanoic acid

(2) 2-Methyl-3-oxohexanoic acid
(4)
(3) 1-Hydroxy-2-methylhexane-1,3-dione
(4) 5-Methyl-4-oxohexanoic acid

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Final Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-4 (Code-A)

77. The correct order of back-bonding in boron

trihalide is
(1) Bl3 > BBr3 > BCl3
85. .
(2) BCl3 > BBr3 > BI3
(3) BCl3 > BI3 > BBr3 The major product A is
(4) BI3 < BCl3 < BBr3
78. Which of the following is least reactive towards
electrophilic attack?
(1) (2)

(1) (2)

(3) (4)
(3) (4)
79. The number of 3c – 2e– bond(s) present in
diborane is
(1) 2 (2) 4 SECTION - B
(3) 1 (4) 3
86. Number of vinylic hydrogen atoms in
80. The product obtained at cathode when sodium
acetate undergoes Kolbe’s electrolysis is CH3 – CH = CH2 is

(1) CO2 (2) H2 (1) 3 (2) 2

(3) 4 (4) 1
(3) CH4 (4) C2H6
81. The product P is the following reaction is 87. The sum of  and  bonds in is
(CH COO) Mn
C2H6  O2 
3

2
P (1) 12 (2) 15
(3) 18 (4) 14
(1) CH3CH2OH (2) CH3CHO
88. The product(s) obtained upon reductive
(3) C2H4 (4) CH3COOH
ozonolysis of 2-methylpropene is
82. The total number of conformation possible for (1) CH3CH(CH3)CHO
ethane by rotation around C–C bond is
(2) CH3CH2CHO + HCHO
(1) 2 (3) CH3COCH2CHO
(2)  (4) (CH3)2C = O + HCHO
(3) 4 89. The product B in the following reaction sequence
(4) 9 is
C H OH
83. CH3MgBr 
2 5
 (A).
The product (A) is
(1) CH4 (2) C2H6
(3) CH3 – O – C2H5 (4) C3H8
(1) (2)
84. Which of the following will not act as an
electrophile?

(1) B2H6 (2) NO2
(3) (4)

(3) SO3 (4) NH4

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Test-4 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2022
2 3
90. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas? (1) sp, sp , sp
(1) CO2 (2) O3 (2) sp3, sp2, sp2
(3) CH4 (4) O2 (3) sp2, sp3, sp2
91. The violet coloured compound formed when (4) sp, sp, sp3
sulphur containing sodium fusion extract is V O
97. n-Heptane 
2 3  P(major)
treated with sodium nitroprusside is 773 K
10-20 atm
(1) [Fe(CN)5NOS]4–
The major product P is
(2) [Fe(CN)5NO]2–
(1) Toluene
(3) [Fe(CN)3NOS]2–
(2) Anisole
(4) [Fe(CN)5SCN]4–
(3) Neopentane
92. Which is the correct order of ionic character?
(4) Benzene
(1) PbF2 < PbI2 < PbBr2 < PbCl2
98. The product obtained upon reaction of methane
(2) PbF2 < PbCl2 < PbBr2 < PbI2
with steam at 1273 K in presence of nickel is
(3) PbF2 > PbCl2 > PbBr2 > PbI2
(1) CO
(4) PbF2 > PbBr2 > PbCl2 > PbI2
(2) HCHO
93. The pair of amphoteric oxide among the following
(3) CH3OH
is
(4) HCOOH
(1) CO2 and SiO2
99. Match chemicals given in list I with the harmful
(2) SnO and PbO
effects they can cause when exceeds tolerable
(3) CO and GeO limit in drinking water in list II.
(4) GeO2 and GeO
List I List II
94. The incorrect statement among the following is
a. Nitrates (i) Blue baby
(1) GeO2 is weakly acidic than SiO2
syndrome
(2) [SiF6]2–, [GeCl6]2–, [Sn(OH)6]2– exist where
the central atom is sp3d2 hybridized b. Sulphates (ii) Mottling of teeth

(3) SnO2 is amphoteric c. Lead (iii) Laxative effect

(4) GeCl2 is more stable than GeCl4 d. Fluorides (iv) Damage kidney
95. Statement I: Silica gel and alumina are used as and liver
adsorbent for adsorption chromatography.
Select the option with correct code.
Statement II: Paper chromatography is a type of
(1) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
partition chromatography.
(2) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
In the light of above statements, select the
correct option. (3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)

(1) Statement I is true but statement II is false (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)

(2) Statement I is false but statement II is true 100. In the borax-bead test for transition metal
compounds, the unique colour of fused bead is
(3) Both statements I and II are true
due to the formation of
(4) Both statements I and II are false
(1) Glass-like metal metaborate bead
5 4 3 2 1
96 In the hydrocarbon CH3 — CH  CH — C  CH , (2) Opaque metal hexaborate bead
the hybridisation state of carbon 2, 3 and 5 are (3) Boron anhydride
respectively (4) Glass-like metal orthoborate bead

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Final Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-4 (Code-A)

BOTANY
SECTION - A 105. Refer the given figure w.r.t. schematic
presentation of cell cycle.
101. Read the following statements stating them true
(T) or false (F) and select the correct option.
A. Growth is a continuous process which occurs
throughout the life of cell.
B. Duplication of cell organelles occurs during
specific stage of cell cycle.
C. Yeast cell divides once in 24 hours.
D. G1 phase is the interval between the M and S
phase of cell cycle.
A B C D
(1) T T F F
Which one of the following is incorrectly
(2) F T T F
matched w.r.t. stage(s) of cell cycle?
(3) T T F T (1) P – Duplication of Golgi body.
(4) F F T T (2) X – All the chromosomes align themselves
102. Select the events which occur twice during at equator.
meiosis. (3) Y – Reappearance of ER, nucleolus in
a. Nuclear division daughter cells.
b. Division of cytoplasm (4) B – Achieved by formation of furrow in plant
c. DNA replication cell.
d. Bivalent formation 106. If the female gamete of a plant species has four
e. Equational division chromosomes, then its parental cell had
(1) a and b only
(1) 16 chromosomes during anaphase-I
(2) a, b and e
(2) 4 bivalents aligned on the equatorial plate
(3) b and d only
during metaphase-I
(4) c, d and e
(3) 16 tetrads during pachytene
103. Which of the given events occur during S-phase
of cell cycle? (4) 16 chromosomes during G2 stage

A. Replication of DNA 107. What will be the amount of DNA in S-phase

B. Duplication of semi-autonomous cell of cell cycle if the cell has 10 pg DNA after
organelles meiosis-II?
C. Synthesis of tubulin proteins (1) 10 pg (2) 20 pg
D. Duplication of centrioles in the cytoplasm of (3) 40 pg (4) 5 pg
higher plant cells.
108. Arrange the given stages of karyokinesis in the
(1) A and D only (2) B and C only
correct sequence of their occurrence.
(3) A, C and D only (4) Only A
a. Telophase b. Metaphase
104. Chromosomes are thickest and shortest in which
of the given stage of karyokinesis? c. Prophase d. Anaphase

(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase (1) a  b  c  d (2) c  b  d  a

(3) Anaphase (4) Telophase (3) b  c  a  d (4) d  c  b  a

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Test-4 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2022

109. Interphase 116. All of the given increase water absorption, except
(1) Is also called resting phase of cell cycle (1) Amount of available water is more in soil
(2) Is a sub-stage of karyokinesis (2) Aerated soil
(3) Covers approximately 50% duration of the (3) Water logged soil
cell cycle (4) Temperature of soil is 30°C
(4) Is the phase of actual cell division 117. The immediate cause of opening or closure of
110. In which of the given stage of mitosis, the stomata is
metacentric chromosomes clearly appear as
(1) Change in turgidity of guard cells
V-shaped?
(2) Differential wall thickening of guard cells
(1) Prophase (2) Anaphase
(3) Orientation of microfibrils in the cell wall of
(3) Metaphase (4) Telophase
guard cells
111. Select the mismatched pair.
(4) Distribution of stomata on leaf surface
(1) Guttation – Root pressure
118. In a plasmolysed cell, the space between cell wall
(2) Transpiration – Evaporative loss of and shrunken protoplasts is occupied by
water
(1) Hypertonic solution (2) Pure water
(3) Imbibition – Requires energy
(3) Isotonic solution (4) Hypotonic solution
(4) Plasmolysis – Due to exosmosis
119. The process of withdrawal of protoplast of a plant
112. When only one type of solute molecules enter the
cell from its wall due to excessive loss of water
cell with the help of carrier protein, the process is
from cell due to osmotic action is called
called
(1) Plasmolysis
(1) Symport (2) Uniport
(2) Guttation
(3) Co-transport (4) Antiport
(3) Imbibition
113. Active transport is different from facilitated
transport as the former (4) Translocation
(1) Requires special membrane proteins 120. Diffusion
(2) Requires ATP energy (1) Is a fast process than active transport
(3) Respond to protein inhibitors (2) Is the only means of long distance water
(4) Transport saturates transport in plants

114. Study the diagram given below and select the (3) Of one substance is independent of another
correct statement. substance
(4) Is dependent on a living system
121. Solute potential for a solution is
(1) Always negative (2) Always positive
(3) Zero (4) Equal to unity
(1) All of the cells (A, B and C) are in equilibrium 122. The correct pathway of water movement in the
(2) There is a flow of water from cell-A to cell-B root is

(3) There is no net movement of water between (1) Epidermis  Pericycle  Cortex  Xylem 
cell-A to cell-C Endodermis
(4) There is a flow of water from cell-C and cell-B (2) Cortex Pericycle Epidermis Xylem
115. Apoplast pathway of water movement Endodermis
(1) Consists of non-living parts of plant body (3) Epidermis Cortex Endodermis
(2) Experiences high resistance than symplast Pericycle Xylem

(3) Is slightly slower than symplast (4) Pericycle Xylem Epidermis Cortex
(4) Is directly affected by metabolic state of root Endodermis

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Final Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-4 (Code-A)

123. Which of the given events or processes is not 128. During biological N2 fixation, division and growth
accomplished by mitosis? of which of the given root cells lead to formation
(1) Replacement of old dead and worn out cells of root nodules?
by new cells (1) Epidermal cells only
(2) Growth in multicellular organisms
(2) Cortical and pith cells
(3) Introduction of variations
(3) Endodermal and pith cells
(4) Maintenance of chromosome number in
daughter cells (4) Cortical and pericycle cells
124. Which of the given event(s) is/are true for 129. How many elements given in the box do not
anaphase II? become toxic in slight excess?
a. There is no splitting of centromere
Fe, S, Mn, Cl, Zn, P, Cu, Mg, B, Ca
b. Separation of homologous chromosomes
c. Splitting of centromere (1) 5 (2) 4

d. Separation of chromatids (3) 6 (4) 3

(1) a and b (2) b and c 130. Manganese plays a major role in
(3) a and c (4) c and d (1) Functioning of cell membrane and pollen
125. Consider the following statements: germination
A. Diakinesis represents transition to mitotic (2) Activating enzymes involved in nitrogen
metaphase metabolism only
B. In oocytes of some vertebrates, diplotene can
(3) Splitting of water to liberate oxygen during
last for months or years.
photosynthesis
C. During leptotene, condensation and coiling of
chromatin fibres begins (4) Formation of chlorophyll and other pigments
D. Condensation of chromosomes continues 131. The nitrates present in the soil is reduced to
throughout leptotene gaseous nitrogen by the action of
The correct statements are (1) Nitrobacter (2) Thiobacillus
(1) Only A, B and C (2) Only B, C and D (3) Nitrosomonas (4) Nitrococcus
(3) Only C and D (4) A, B, C and D
132. During N2 cycle, which of the given bacteria
126. Which of the following is not a significance of performs nitrification?
hydroponics?
(1) Pseudomonas (2) Rhizobium
(1) It can regulate the pH at optimum for a
particular crop. (3) Nitrococcus (4) Frankia
(2) Useful in areas having thin, infertile and dry 133. Sulphur in plant is a constituent of all, except
soil. (1) Thiamine (2) Coenzyme A
(3) It increases the possibility of algal
(3) Auxin (4) Biotin
contamination and reaction of roots to
sunlight. 134. Deficiency of which of the given set of elements
(4) Employed as a technique for commercial in plants cause delay flowering?
production of seedless cucumber, lettuce, (1) P, K and Mg (2) P, Fe and Ca
etc. (3) Mg, Mn and Ca (4) N, S and Mo
127. Select the microorganism from the following
135. Which macronutrient is essential for binding of
which is not capable of fixation of atmospheric N2
ribosome subunits during protein synthesis?
but is involved in nitrogen metabolism.
(1) Nitrosomonas (2) Anabaena (1) Potassium (2) Calcium
(3) Rhizobium (4) Azotobacter (3) Magnesium (4) Molybdenum

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Test-4 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2022

SECTION - B 141. Choose the odd one w.r.t. chief sinks of minerals
in plants.
136. Crossing over is mainly responsible for
(1) Apical meristems (2) Developing flowers
(1) Establishment of synaptonemal complex (3) Senescing leaves (4) Storage organs
(2) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex 142. Phloem sap consists of all, except
(3) Recombination of genetic material (1) Water
(4) Coiling of chromatin fibres (2) Non-reducing sugars
(3) Starch and cellulose
137. Arrange the following events of meiosis in their
(4) Amino acids
appropriate sequence of occurrence and choose
143. All of the given are external factors affecting
the correct option. transpiration, except
a. Chromosomal synapsis (1) Light (2) Structure of leaf
b. Dissolution of synaptonemal complex (3) Temperature (4) Wind
c. Alignment of univalents at equator 144. The rate of transpiration decreases or stops when
(1) Relative humidity is low
d. Terminalisation of chiasmata
(2) Water vapours accumulate above transpiring
(1) a  b  d  c (2) a  d  b  c leaves
(3) b  a  c  d (4) c  b  a  d (3) Availability of soil water is sufficient
138. Prophase of mitosis is similar to prophase I of (4) Plant absorbs blue and red light
meiosis in/as 145. Which of the following expression is true for a
fully turgid cell?
a. Being short and without substages. (1) DPD = OP (2) OP – TP = 0
b. Being the phase where splitting of (3) DPD = TP (4) w = s
centromere takes place. 146. All of the given processes occur in response to
c. Both lack crossing over. water stress in plant, except
d. Nucleolus and nuclear membrane disappear (1) Wilting
at the end of both the phases. (2) Closure of stomata
(3) Reduced metabolic rate
(1) Only d is true
(4) Increase surface area of leaves
(2) Only c and d are true 147. Nitrogenase enzyme
(3) Only a and d are true (1) Is Cu-Fe protein
(4) b, c and d are true (2) Is only found in prokaryotes
139. Kinetochores are (3) Catalyse the conversion of nitrate to nitrogen
(4) Can work only in aerobic condition
(1) Terminal ends of chromosomes
148. Transpiration occurs through all of the given,
(2) Present around primary constriction and help except
in formation of bivalent (1) Hydathodes (2) Stomata
(3) Present near nuclear envelope and take part (3) Lenticel (4) Epidermal cell
in spindle formation 149. Reductive amination
(4) Present around centromere and provide a (1) Involves transfer of amino group of one
site for attachment to the spindle fibers amino acid to keto group of keto acid
(2) Is represented by the formation of
140. Select the correct sequence of events takes - ketoglutaric acid from glutamic acid
place during mitotic anaphase.
(3) Requires a reduced coenzyme to form
A – Chromatids separate glutamic acid
B – Centromeres split (4) Requires enzyme aminotransferase for its
activity
C – Chromatids move to opposite poles
150. Mark the odd one w.r.t. mode of nutrition.
(1) B  A  C (2) C  B  A (1) Anabaena (2) Rhizobium
(3) A  B  C (4) A  C  B (3) Frankia (4) Azotobacter

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Final Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-4 (Code-A)

ZOOLOGY
SECTION - A 158. Identify the outermost protective layer of the
151. Destruction of RBCs will not occur when blood human kidney from the given options, which
from individual with ______ blood group is attaches kidney with abdominal wall.
transfused to individual with blood group ‘O’ (1) Renal capsule
positive. (2) Renal calyx
Select the correct option which fills the blank (3) Renal fascia
correctly.
(4) Adipose capsule
(1) A+ (2) B–
159. Cardiac disorder which is characterised by
(3) AB– (4) O–
sudden damage to heart muscles due to
152. In humans, deoxygenated blood is transported by inadequate blood supply is
all of the following blood vessels except
(1) Heart attack
(1) Renal vein (2) Pulmonary artery
(2) Heart failure
(3) Pulmonary vein (4) Hepatic vein
(3) Cardiac arrest
153. In each cardiac cycle of an healthy adult human,
duration between ‘dub’ and ‘lub’ sound is (4) Atherosclerosis

(1) 0.5 second (2) 0.3 second 160. Read the following statements.
(3) 0.1 second (4) 0.8 second Statement A : A portal vein does not carry blood
directly to the heart but forms a network of
154. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. animals and
their excretory structures. capillaries in another or intermediate organ
before reaching the heart.
(1) Balanoglossus – Proboscis gland
Statement B : Two portal systems are present in
(2) Labeo – Kidneys
humans.
(3) Scorpion – Book lungs
Select the correct option.
(4) Prawn – Green glands
(1) Both statements A and B are correct.
155. Elimination of urea in urine is mainly the result of
a process known as (2) Only statement A is correct.

(1) Tubular secretion (3) Only statement B is correct.

(2) Ultrafiltration (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect.
(3) Active absorption 161. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t.
(4) Selective reabsorption electrocardiogram.

156. Our lungs remove _______ amount of CO2 per (1) P-wave represents depolarisation of atria.
minute. (2) Ventricular systole begins shortly after Q
Select the correct option to fill in the blank wave.
(1) 18 L (2) 12.5 mL (3) T-wave represents the return of ventricles
from excited to normal state.
(3) 1.5 L (4) 200 mL
157. Select the incorrect match. (4) The end of T-wave marks the end of atrial
systole.
(1) Fall in RBC count – Erythrocytopenia
in blood 162. The site of ADH activity in a nephron includes
(2) Rise in WBC count – Leucocytosis (1) Proximal convoluted tubule
(3) Increase in number – Thrombocytopenia (2) Loop of Henle
of platelets (3) Distal convoluted tubule
(4) Fall in WBC count – Leucopenia (4) Collecting duct

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Test-4 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2022

163. Choose the correct statement w.r.t. micturition 168. What would be the immediate result, if the
reflex. chordae tendineae of mitral valves are cut?
(1) It is initiated by stretch receptors of ureters. (1) Opening and closing of valves remains
(2) Sympathetic supply causes relaxation of unaffected
internal urethral sphincter. (2) Decrease in the flow of blood in pulmonary
(3) Parasympathetic supply causes relaxation of artery
urinary bladder muscles. (3) Decrease in the flow of blood in aorta
(4) CNS passes on motor messages to initiate (4) Increase in flow of blood in pulmonary veins
relaxation of urethral sphincters. 169. During muscle contraction
164. Match the following columns I and II w.r.t. (1) Chemical energy is changed into mechanical
excretory products and their composition. Choose energy
the correct answer. (2) Mechanical energy is changed into chemical
Column-I Column-II energy
(3) Temperature of muscle decreases
a. Sweat (i) Vitamins and drugs
(4) Hydrolysis of ATP does not occur
b. Bile (ii) Urea and lactic acid
170. All of the following can increase the rate of heart
c. Sebum (iii) CO2 and water beat, the strength of ventricular contraction and
thereby the cardiac output, except
d. Expired air (iv) Sterols and waxes
(1) Sympathetic stimulation
a b c d
(2) Increase adrenaline in blood
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) Parasympathetic stimulation
(2) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(4) Increase in nor-adrenaline in blood
(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
171. Bone not associated with appendicular skeleton
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
of man is
165. Parameters given below that remains unchanged (1) Fibula (2) Patella
during strenuous exercise is
(3) Incus (4) Femur
(1) Stroke volume
172. Inflammation of joints due to accumulation of uric
(2) Cardiac output acid crystals results in
(3) Sequence of events in cardiac cycle (1) Osteoporosis
(4) Duration of cardiac cycle (2) Gout
166. How many double circulations are approximately (3) Tetany
completed by an adult human heart per minute?
(4) Tetanus
(1) 8
173. Feature or property not true for muscle fibres
(2) 72 associated with alimentary canal is
(3) 36 (1) Excitability (2) Contractility
(4) 16 (3) Elasticity (4) Branching
167. Juxtamedullary nephrons 174. Which among the following contains ATP binding
(1) Are smaller in size than cortical nephrons site?
(2) Are greater in number than cortical nephrons (1) Myosin
(3) Regulate plasma volume when water supply (2) Actin
is less than normal (3) Troponin
(4) Lack glomerulus but have long loop of Henle (4) Tropomyosin

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Final Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-4 (Code-A)

175. Select the incorrect match among the (3) Centrum of adjacent vertebrae
movements shown by the following. (4) Femur and tibia
(1) Leucocytes – Amoeboid 181. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t number of
movement vertebrae in vertebral column of an adult human.

(2) Euglena – Flagellar movement (1) Cervical – 7 (2) Thoracic – 12

(3) Lumbar – 5 (4) Sacral – 5
(3) Jaw – Muscular
movement 182. Artificial pacemaker is required in
(1) Angina pectoris
(4) Ovum – Ciliary movement
(2) Atherosclerosis
176. Read the statements given below and select the
(3) Irregularity in heart rhythm
correct option.
(4) Heart attack
a. The number of wrist bones of each limb is
183. Choose the incorrect statement.
equal to the number of cranial bones.
(1) The descending limb of loop of Henle is
b. In humans, 14 facial bones are present.
completely impermeable to electrolytes but
c. There is one extra phalanx in each lower limb almost permeable to water.
than the upper limb.
(2) Secretion of H+ and absorption of HCO3 is
(1) a and b are correct while c is incorrect
mainly responsible for acid-base balance by
(2) b and c are correct while a is incorrect
the renal tubules.
(3) a and c are correct while b is incorrect
(3) In spite of presence of ADH, maximum
(4) a, b and c are correct reabsorption of water occurs in PCT.
177. Choose the correct match. (4) Potassium ions are reabsorbed as well as
(1) Vertebrochondral ribs – 7th pair of ribs secreted in PCT.
184. Which of the following substances present in
(2) Coxal bone – Scapula
glomerular filtrate are absorbed mainly by
(3) Flat bones – Ribs passive transport?
(4) Cranial bone – Zygomatic (1) Glucose (2) Amino acids
+
178. During the contraction of biceps, which one of the (3) Na (4) Nitrogenous wastes
following does not occur? 185. Which of the following is the correct explanation
(1) The length of anisotropic band decreases of the labelled parts?

(2) The length of Hensen’s zone decreases

(3) The length of isotropic band reduces
(4) The distance between two successive ‘Z’
lines decreases
179. Activity that does not require skeletal function for
the movement is
(1) Finding reproductive mate
(2) Searching and building of shelter
(1) A – Formed by fusion of collecting ducts
(3) Passage of food through intestine
(2) B – Contains loop of Henle and collecting
(4) Chewing of foods ducts
180. Synovial joints are not present between (3) C – Consists of collagen fibres; forms a layer
(1) Carpal and metacarpal of thumb around the kidney and protects it
(2) Atlas and axis (4) D – Extension of cortex into medulla

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Test-4 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2022

SECTION - B 191. Complete the analogy w.r.t. presence of

circulatory system.
186. Arrange the events which occur during muscle
contraction. Open type of circulation : Pinctada : Closed type
of circulation : _______
a. Action potential causes the release of Ca2+
ions into the sarcoplasm. (1) Periplaneta (2) Nereis

b. Activated myosin head binds to the exposed (3) Balanoglossus (4) Locusta
active sites on actin to form cross bridge. 192. A patch of nodal tissue is present in the A
c. A neural signal at neuromuscular junction corner of the B called the sino-atrial node.
causes the release of ACh which generates
action potential. Choose the option which fills the blanks A and B
correctly.
d. Increase in Ca2+ levels leads to the binding of
calcium with TPC on actin filaments thereby A B
unmasking active sites for myosin on actin.
(1) Left upper Left atrium
Choose the correct option.
(2) Left lower Right atrium
(1) a  c  b  d
(3) Right upper Right atrium
(2) a  c  d  b
(3) c  a  d  b (4) Right lower Left atrium

(4) c  d  a  b 193. If repeated checks of blood pressure of an

individual shows value 140/90 mm Hg or more, it
187. Cavity known as acetabulum is bound by
indicates that the individual is suffering from
(1) Pubis and illum only
(1) Hypertension
(2) Ileum and scapula
(2) Hyperglycemia
(3) Ileum and ischium
(3) Hypercalcemia
(4) Pubis, ilium and ischium
(4) Uremia
188. During relaxed state of a muscle fibre associated
194. Maximum reabsorption of electrolytes from
with skeleton, the central part of thick filaments,
nephric filtrate occurs in the region lined by the
not overlapped by thin filaments is called
(1) Brush bordered columnar epithelium
(1) A-band (2) Sarcomere
(2) Brush bordered cuboidal epithelium
(3) ‘H’ zone (4) Isotropic band
(3) Ciliated cuboidal epithelium
189. Red muscle fibres differ from white muscle fibres
(4) Simple squamous epithelium
due to
195. Match the items in columns A, B and C with
(1) Presence of myofibrils
respect to animals, their taxonomic categories
(2) Presence of large quantity of myoglobin and nitrogenous waste products excreted by
(3) Absence of mitochondria them. Choose the correct match.
(4) Presence of large amount of sarcoplasmic Column A Column B Column C
reticulum.
(1) Land snail Phylum- Urea
190. Each organised skeletal muscle in our body is Mollusca
made up of a number of muscle bundles, all held
(2) Planaria Phylum- Urea
together by a common collagenous connective
Aschelminthes
tissue sheath called
(3) Prawn Phylum Ammonia
(1) Fascia
Arthropoda
(2) Sarcolemma
(4) Rana Phylum- Urea
(3) Perimysium Amphibia
(4) Endomysium

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Final Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-4 (Code-A)

196. Fats are absorbed into lacteals which are present 199. How many of the following structures given in the
in the box below are considered mainly as excretory
(1) Gastric rugae structures in animals?

(2) Intestinal microvilli Malpighian tubules, Coxal glands, Trachea,

(3) Intestinal villi Antennal glands, Kidneys, Book lungs

(4) Crypts of Lieberkuhn (1) 6 (2) 4

197. Select the correct statement. (3) 5 (4) 3
(1) Vasopressin helps in water elimination 200. Assertion (A): SAN is called the pacemaker of
making the urine hypotonic the heart.
(2) Protein rich fluid is filtered from blood plasma Reason (R): SAN generates the maximum
into the Bowman’s capsule number of action potentials, and is responsible
(3) Most of the amino acids are actively for initiating and maintaining the rhythmic
reabsorbed in the PCT contractile activity of the heart.
(4) Ascending limb of Henle’s loop plays no role In the light of above statements, choose the
in counter current mechanism. correct answer from the options given below.
198. Kidneys are reddish brown, bean shaped (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
structures situated between the levels of correct explanation of (A)
(1) Last thoracic and last lumbar vertebra (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
(2) Last thoracic and first lumbar vertebra correct explanation of (A)

(3) First thoracic to third lumbar vertebra (3) (A) is true, (R) is false

(4) Last thoracic to third lumbar vertebra (4) (A) is false, (R) is true



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 16/06/2022 CODE-A

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

FINAL TEST SERIES for NEET-2022

MM : 720 Test - 4 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Mins.

Answers

1. (2) 41. (3) 81. (4) 121. (1) 161. (4)

2. (1) 42. (3) 82. (2) 122. (3) 162. (3)
3. (2) 43. (3) 83. (1) 123. (3) 163. (4)
4. (3) 44. (2) 84. (4) 124. (4) 164. (3)
5. (2) 45. (4) 85. (4) 125. (2) 165. (3)
6. (4) 46. (3) 86. (1) 126. (3) 166. (2)
7. (2) 47. (4) 87. (4) 127. (1) 167. (3)
8. (2) 48. (3) 88. (4) 128. (4) 168. (3)
9. (2) 49. (1) 89. (2) 129. (2) 169. (1)
10. (3) 50. (4) 90. (4) 130. (3) 170. (3)
11. (3) 51. (2) 91. (1) 131. (2) 171. (3)
12. (3) 52. (3) 92. (3) 132. (3) 172. (2)
13. (3) 53. (1) 93. (2) 133. (3) 173. (4)
14. (2) 54. (1) 94. (4) 134. (4) 174. (1)
15. (1) 55. (2) 95. (3) 135. (3) 175. (4)
16. (2) 56. (4) 96. (1) 136. (3) 176. (1)
17. (3) 57. (2) 97. (1) 137. (1) 177. (3)
18. (4) 58. (2) 98. (1) 138. (1) 178. (1)
19. (3) 59. (3) 99. (2) 139. (4) 179. (3)
20. (2) 60. (2) 100. (1) 140. (1) 180. (3)
21. (2) 61. (4) 101. (3) 141. (3) 181. (4)
22. (3) 62. (2) 102. (1) 142. (3) 182. (3)
23. (2) 63. (4) 103. (4) 143. (2) 183. (1)
24. (3) 64. (4) 104. (2) 144. (2) 184. (4)
25. (3) 65. (4) 105. (4) 145. (2) 185. (2)
26. (2) 66. (2) 106. (2) 146. (4) 186. (3)
27. (1) 67. (2) 107. (3) 147. (2) 187. (4)
28. (1) 68. (2) 108. (2) 148. (1) 188. (3)
29. (3) 69. (2) 109. (1) 149. (3) 189. (2)
30. (1) 70. (2) 110. (2) 150. (1) 190. (1)
31. (1) 71. (4) 111. (3) 151. (4) 191. (2)
32. (3) 72. (4) 112. (2) 152. (3) 192. (3)
33. (3) 73. (4) 113. (2) 153. (1) 193. (1)
34. (4) 74. (3) 114. (3) 154. (3) 194. (2)
35. (2) 75. (3) 115. (1) 155. (2) 195. (3)
36. (4) 76. (2) 116. (3) 156. (4) 196. (3)
37. (2) 77. (2) 117. (1) 157. (3) 197. (3)
38. (2) 78. (3) 118. (1) 158. (3) 198. (4)
39. (3) 79. (1) 119. (1) 159. (1) 199. (2)
40. (2) 80. (2) 120. (3) 160. (1) 200. (1)

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 16/06/2022 CODE-A

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

FINAL TEST SERIES for NEET-2022

MM : 720 Test - 4 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Mins.

Hints and Solutions

PHYSICS

SECTION - A 4. Answer (3)

1. Answer (2) In adiabatic process, Q = 0
m  For expansion, Q = U + W
PV  RT
M 0 = U + 25
 m  RT U = –25 J
P  
V  M
For adiabatic compression, 
PM
or     Q = U  + W 
RT
For a given density, 0 = U  – 100
P2 > P1 U  = 100 J
So T2 > T1 5. Answer (2)
2. Answer (1)
W   PdV
As box is suddenly stopped
Kinetic energy of ordered motion is converted into P
Given K
internal energy. V
1 5  v2
Mv 2   2 RT 
2  
W  v 1
KVdV

Mv 2 K 2
T   v 2  v12 
5R 2
3. Answer (2) 1
 P2V2  PV
1 1
Frequency remains unchanged 2
v1 v 2 1
So,   nR(T2  T1 )
1  2 2
v v 1
   1 R(T2  T1 )
 3 2 2

 R
2  W  (T2  T1 )
3 2

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Final Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

6. Answer (4) 13. Answer (3)

B 2 2
v    20 cm
 k 0.314
Smallest length,
1
v and v  B


7. Answer (2)
For equal amplitude,
    14. Answer (2)
R    
 2  4 a = –  2x
8. Answer (2) F = – m2x
Q = nCPT F–x
80 = nCPT 15. Answer (1)
C  80 80 When two waves having same amplitude and
 U  nCv T  n  P  T    48 J
    5 wavelength moving in opposite direction are
3 superposed to each other then stationary wave
 
will be produced.
9. Answer (2)
16. Answer (2)
 = k x
P0
2 At V = V0, P 
  2  102 2

 P0 
(V )
=×T PV  2  0 PV
 T1    0 0 [n = 1]
1 nR R 2R
  
f 4P0
and at V = 2V0, P 
40  1  5
 
240  6   4P0 
(2V )
2 6 PV  5  0 8P V
   2  10 2  rad  TF    0 0
1 25 nR R 5R
6 8 1 P V 11P0V0
 T  TF  Ti     0 0 
10. Answer (3) 5 2 R 10R
U = 45P0V0 ; W = 12P0V0 17. Answer (3)
 Q = 57P0V0
11. Answer (3)
x = n1 – n 2
v v
 x
2L 4L
v = 4Lx
12. Answer (3) From A to B
5 5nRT0 P = Constant
QAB  nCP T  n R(2T0  T0 ) 
2 2 W1 = 2P [VB – VA]
Work done on the gas  2nRT nRT 
= 2PVB – 2PVA  2P  –
WBC = nR2T0 ln2  2P 2P 
QAB 5 = RT
 
WBC 4ln2 From B to C
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Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Final Test Series for NEET-2022

T = Constant 23. Answer (2)

P1 After reflection wave travels in negative direction.
W  nRT loge Due to reflection from rigid boundary, a phase
P2
difference of  is introduced.
2P So,
W2  R 2T ln
P
yr = Asin(t + kx + ) = –Asin(t + kx)
W2 = 2RT ln 2
24. Answer (3)
From C to D
V = Constant
P = Constant
 P T
W3 = P [VD – VC]
dP dT
= PVD – PVC 
P T
= R [T – 2T]
0.5 1
W3 = – RT 
100 T
From D to A
T = Constant T = 200 K
P t = – 73°C
W4  RT ln 25. Answer (3)
2P
W4 = – RT ln 2 2v v
f  
Total work done W = W1 + W2 + W3 + W4 2l l
W = RT ln 2 5v
f1 
18. Answer (4) 4l
Mean free path,
5f
1 1 f1 
  4
2d 2 nv  P 
2d 2  26. Answer (2)

 K BT  AB Constant P, increasing V; increasing T
K BT BC Constant T, increasing V; decreasing P
 
2 d 2P CD Constant V, decreasing P; decreasing T
19. Answer (3) DA Constant T, decreasing V; increasing P
g 10 Also BC is at a higher temperature than AD.
2 A  A   0.1  0.5 m/s2
l 2 27. Answer (1)
20. Answer (2) v
f1 
Q2 T2 Q2 T 2l
   2
Q1 T1 Q2  W T1 v
f2 
Q2 300  l 
  Q2  150 J 2 l  
Q2  250 800  20 
21. Answer (2) 20  v 
f2   
nfa = fb 19  2 l 
n 2T 1 T f2 20
 1 1
2(2 l ) 8 2l  f1 19
 n = 4  3rd overtone f2  f1 1

22. Answer (3) f1 19

Anet  A12  A22  2 A1A2 cos  4 1


f1 19
4a 2  9a 2  2  3a  2a  cos90
f1  76 Hz
 13 a

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Final Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

28. Answer (1) 34. Answer (4)

 = t   
v  5cos  4t    4 ;  = 4, T 
2 T  3 2
   
T 4 T  
at t   20cos T  
 4  3
 
2
 
29. Answer (3) v  20cos     10 3 cm/s
2 3
2 
k     20 cm 1 1
 10 K.E. = mv 2   2  103  (0.1 3)2  3  105 J
2 2

x = 0 is antinode  2nd antinode at  10 cm , 3rd 35. Answer (2)
2
antinode, will be at x = = 20 cm  = 0.06 m
30. Answer (1) T=1s
2
3RT 
Initial r.m.s. speed v  T
M
 = 2rad/s  Q = 2 rad/s
On heating, temperature becomes 2T and mass
M 2
 k
2 
3R  2T 2 100
v   2v k 
M 0.06 100
2 100  –1 100  –1
k m P m
31. Answer (1) 3 3
SECTION - B
36. Answer (4)
Frequency of oscillation of kinetic energy is twice
the frequency of S.H.M.
37. Answer (2)

32. Answer (3) I 2MR 2

T  2  2
y = 2t C 5C
d 2y T = 7.7 s
a= =0
dt 2 38. Answer (2)
U = a + bPV
l l
T1  2 , T2  2 U = a + bRT
g g
dU
Cv   bR
T12 1 dT
 
T22 1 CP = Cv + R = (b + 1) R
33. Answer (3) CP b  1
 
v = A costt CV b

 v dt
2 39. Answer (3)
Vrms 
m x
 dt  mg  kx  
K g
T
m
 ( A)
2
cos2 t dt T  2
0 A k
 T

2
 dt  2
3.6
 1.2 s
0 10

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Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Final Test Series for NEET-2022

40. Answer (2) 45. Answer (4)

2 W = 6R joule, n = 1 mole

T Work done in adiabatic process
   rad/s nR T1  T2 
W 
 1
  1
k  m
v 20 R T  T2 
6R 
y = A sin (kx – t + ) 5
1
5 × 10–2 = 10 × 10–2 sin() 3
4 = T – T2

 T2 = (T – 4) K
6
46. Answer (3)
 x 
y  10  10 2 sin   t   
bt
 20 6 A  A0 e 2m

41. Answer (3) rd

We know for ideal gas, 2
In every 50 oscillations, amplitude becomes  
PV = nRT 3
of starting value.
(P0  aV 2 )V  nRT
 At end of 100 oscillations,
nRdT
2 2
(P0  3aV )  2
dV A    A0
3
dT
For maxima and minima condition, 0 4 A0
dV A1 
1/2 9
2 P 
P0  3aV and V   0  47. Answer (4)
 3a 
 Vrms  T
For maximum temperature,
1/2 
 aP0   P0   Vrms  T
P0  3a   3a  2P0  P0 
1/2
Tmax   
nR 3nR  3a  
Vrms – Vrms

T – T
42. Answer (3) Vrms T
Frest = x Ag T
keff = Ag  0.414  –1
300
1 keff  T = 300 × 2 = 600 K = 327°C
f 
2 m 48. Answer (3)
1 g 2x
f  4
2 L v
43. Answer (3) x = 2v ...(i)
 2( x  100)
T  2  3.5
k v
m1 m2 v 7
 x  100  ... (ii)
m1  m2 4
44. Answer (2) 7v
100  2v 
K1x1 = K2x2; K1= K and K2 = 2K 4
x 1 + x2 = A v
100 
On solving 4
3 x1 2A v  400 m/s
 A  x1 
2 3

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Final Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

49. Answer (1) 50. Answer (4)

Q2 V2
 W = nRT ln
W V1
5
200 W  nRT ln  
W   50 J / cycle 2
4
 25 V 
Q1 = W + Q2 = 250 J/cycle W   nRT ln   W
 10 V 

CHEMISTRY
SECTION - A
Non-aromatic as delocalization of 
51. Answer (2)
electrons does not occurs.
In , double bond at bridgehead carbon is
62. Answer (2)
highly unstable, therefore will not undergo Producer gas is a mixture of CO + N2.
hyperconjugation.
63. Answer (4)
52. Answer (3)
Aluminium chloride in aqueous acidified solution
Boiling point increases with increase in molecular
mass. For molecules with same molecular mass, forms [Al(H2O)6]3+ in which hybridisation of Al is
more branching decreases the boiling point. sp3d2.
53. Answer (1) 64. Answer (4)
Tin forms compound in both oxidation states and
compound in + 4 oxidation state are stable.
54. Answer (1)
CH4 can’t be prepared by Wurtz reaction. 65. Answer (4)
55. Answer (2) In Kjeldahl’s method nitrogen evolves as NH3.
N(2) is most basic as its lone pair is not 66. Answer (2)
delocalized.
Aromaticity favours enol character in phenol.
56. Answer (4)
Hydrogenation of alkynes give selectively trans 67. Answer (2)
alkene with Na/liquid NH3. Chloroform and aniline has sufficient difference in
57. Answer (2) boiling point and therefore can be separated by
distillation.
Atomic radii order: Ga < Al < In < Tl
58. Answer (2) 68. Answer (2)
Components of photochemical smog are: Ozone,
nitric oxide, acrolein, formaldehyde and PAN.
59. Answer (3)
Rate of hydrogenation decreases with increasing
substitution in the alkene.
60. Answer (2)
–CN and – NC act as different functional groups, 69. Answer (2)
therefore RCN and RNC are functional isomers. Molar mass of AgBr = 188 g
61. Answer (4)
80
Mass of Br in 0.47 g AgBr   0.47 = 0.2 g
188
0.2
 % of Br   100  40%
Aromatic because of benzene ring. 0.5

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Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Final Test Series for NEET-2022

70. Answer (2) 78. Answer (3)

In pyrosilicates, one oxygen atom is shared –NO2 is electron withdrawing group and decreases
between two SiO4– 4 tetrahedron. reactivity towards electrophilic attack.
71. Answer (4) 79. Answer (1)
Geometrical isomerism is shown by alkenes of
types XYC = CXZ and XYC = CZW Structure of Diborane
72. Answer (4)
Degree of unsaturation = 2
C 4H 6
Alkynes
CH  C – CH2 – CH3
H3C – C C – CH3 Two 3c-2e– bonds are present
Alkenes 80. Answer (2)
H2C = CH – CH = CH2
H2C = C = CH – CH3 2CH3 COO – Na   2H2 O 
Electrolysis
 C2H6  2CO2  H2  2NaOH
 
Anode Cathode

81. Answer (4)

(CH COO) Mn
2CH3 CH3  3O2 
3

2
2CH3 COOH  2H2O
73. Answer (4)
82. Answer (2)
Stability of carbocation.
Alkanes can have infinite number of conformations
by rotation around C–C single bond.
83. Answer (1)

74. Answer (3) Grignard reagent consists of R  MgBr

 

 

84. Answer (4)

75. Answer (3)

NH4 cannot accept electrons.

85. Answer (4)

76. Answer (2)

Acid group is given higher priority, keto group is a SECTION - B
substituent here.
86. Answer (1)
sp2 hybridized carbon in C = C is vinylic

77. Answer (2)

Hence, 3 vinylic H.
BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3 > Bl3 : order of backbonding.

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Final Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

87. Answer (4) 94. Answer (4)

Ge4+ is more stable than Ge2+.
95. Answer (3)
Adsorption chromatography is based upon
differential adsorption of various components of
mixture on a suitable adsorbent such as silica gel
or alumina.
 bonds = 4
 bond = 10 96. Answer (1)
5 4 3 2 1
88. Answer (4) CH3 — CH  CH — C  CH
sp3 sp2 sp2 sp sp
97. Answer (1)

89. Answer (2)

98. Answer (1)

Ni, 
CH4 + H2O  CO + 3H2
90. Answer (4) 99. Answer (2)
Green house gases : CO2, CH4, O3, etc.
Chemicals Effects
91. Answer (1)
Nitrates Blue baby
S2   [Fe(CN)5 NO]2  [Fe(CN)5 NOS]4 
syndrome
From sodium
Violet Fluorides Mottling of teeth
extract
92. Answer (3) Sulphates Laxative effect
Larger is the size of anion, more is the covalent Lead Damage kidney
character. and liver
93. Answer (2) 100. Answer (1)
SnO and PbO reacts with both acid and alkali. The unique colour of fused bead is due to the
Hence amphoteric in nature. formation of glass-like metal metaborates.

BOTANY
SECTION - A 103. Answer (4)
101. Answer (3)  In S-phase, centriole duplicates in cytoplasm
 Yeast cell divides once in 90 minutes. of animal cells.

 A typical human cell divides approximately   Centrioles are absent in plant cell.
every 24 hours.   DNA replication occurs in S-phase.
102. Answer (1)   In G2 phase of cell cycle, semi-autonomous
Nuclear division and cytokinesis occur twice cell organelles duplicates and tubulin proteins
during the process of meiosis. are synthesized.

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Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Final Test Series for NEET-2022

104. Answer (2) 113. Answer (2)

Chromosomes are thickest and shortest during Facilitated transport does not require ATP energy.
metaphase. 114. Answer (3)
105. Answer (4)  w of cells A, B and C are –5 bar, –2 bar
In the given figure: and –5 bar respectively.
P  G2 phase  Cell B has comparatively greater w than cells
A and C.
X  Metaphase
 Cells A and C have equal w. Therefore, these
Y  Telophase
cells show a reversible flow of water in
B  Cytokinesis between. Hence, there is no net flow of water
Cytokinesis is achieved by formation of furrow in between cell A and cell C.
animal cells. 115. Answer (1)
106. Answer (2) Symplastic pathway of water movement is slightly
Since, n = 4 (given) slower.
Apoplastic pathway does not get affected by
 2n = 8
metabolic state of roots.
Therefore, the cell has 4 bivalents on equatorial
116. Answer (3)
plate during metaphase-I
In the soil, if all air spaces are filled with water, this
Bivalent is the complex formed by a pair of
condition is known as water logging of soil. It
synapsed homologous chromosomes.
inhibits water absorption.
107. Answer (3) 117. Answer (1)
Orientation of microfibrils only aid to the opening
of stomata. The immediate cause of opening or
closure of stomata is change in turgidity of guard
cells.
118. Answer (1)
108. Answer (2)
The space between cell wall and shrunken
Sequence of cell cycle stages of karyokinesis is: protoplasts is occupied by hypertonic solution in a
Prophase  Metaphase  Anaphase  plasmolysed cell.
Telophase 119. Answer (1)
109. Answer (1) Plasmolysis is withdrawal of protoplast of a plant
Interphase is also called resting phase of cell cell from its wall due to excessive loss of water
cycle. from cell due to osmotic action.
110. Answer (2) 120. Answer (3)
Anaphase is the best stage to study shapes of Diffusion is a slow process and is not dependent
chromosomes. on living system.

Metacentric chromosome appears V-shaped 121. Answer (1)

during anaphase. Solute potential for a solution is always negative.
111. Answer (3) 122. Answer (3)
Imbibition is a special type of diffusion. It does not The correct pathway of water absorption in root is
require energy. Epidermis Cortex Endodermis Pericycle
112. Answer (2) Xylem
The process is called uniport when only one type 123. Answer (3)
of solute molecule enters the cell with the help of Meiosis brings new combination and genetic
carrier protein. variations.

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Final Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

124. Answer (4) SECTION - B

In anaphase I, there is no splitting of centromere. 136. Answer (3)
Separation of homologous chromosomes occur in
Crossing over is mainly responsible for
anaphase I.
recombination of genetic material which produces
In anaphase II, splitting of centromere and hence variations in meiosis.
separation of chromatids occur.
137. Answer (1)
125. Answer (2)
Correct sequence of phases of prophase-I are:
Diakinesis represents transition to metaphase-I Leptotene  Zygotene  Pachytene  Diplotene
126. Answer (3)  Diakinesis
Hydroponics controls or minimises the risk of algal • Chromosomal synapsis – Zygotene
contamination. • Dissolution of synaptonemal – Diplotene
127. Answer (1) complex
Nitrosomonas is a chemoautotrophic, nitrifying • Terminalisation of chiasmata – Diakinesis
bacteria but it is not capable of biological nitrogen
• Alignment of univalents – Metaphase II
fixation.
at equator
128. Answer (4)
138. Answer (1)
Division and growth of cortical and pericycle cells
lead to nodule formation. Cells at the end of prophase and prophase I do
not have nucleolus and nuclear membrane.
129. Answer (2)
Prophase is short and without substages. Both
S, Mg, Ca and P are macronutrients. They don’t
prophase and prophase-I lack splitting of
become toxic in slight excess.
centromere. Prophase I includes the phenomenon
130. Answer (3) of crossing over.
Manganese plays a major role in the splitting of 139. Answer (4)
water to liberate oxygen, during photosynthesis.
Terminal ends of chromosomes are called
131. Answer (2) telomeres. Centrioles take part in formation of
The nitrates present in the soil is reduced to spindle apparatus. Kinetochores are present
gaseous nitrogen by the activity of microbes around centromere and provide a site for
Thiobacillus and Pseudomonas. attachment to spindle fibres.
132. Answer (3) 140. Answer (1)
Nitrification is carried by Nitrococcus. During mitotic anaphase the centromere splits,
Denitrification of nitrate present in the soil is chromatids separate and move to the opposite
reduced to nitrogen by the process of poles.
denitrification carried out by Pseudomonas and 141. Answer (3)
Thiobacillus. The chief sinks for the mineral elements are
133. Answer (3) growing regions of plants such as the apical and
Sulphur is the main constituent of several lateral meristem, young leaves, developing
coenzyme, thiamine, biotin, coenzyme A. flowers, fruits, seeds and the storage organ.
134. Answer (4) 142. Answer (3)
Some elements like N, S and Mo delay flowering Starch and cellulose are complex carbohydrates
if their concentration in plants is low. formed at sink.
135. Answer (3) 143. Answer (2)
Magnesium is required for binding of ribosome Structure of leaf is a plant factor affecting rate of
subunits during protein synthesis. transpiration.

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Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Final Test Series for NEET-2022

144. Answer (2) to ammonia. Nitrogenase enzyme is sensitive to

When water vapours accumulate above molecular oxygen.
transpiring leaves, the rate of transpiration 148. Answer (1)
decreases. Guttation occurs only through water pores
145. Answer (2) (hydathodes)
DPD for a fully turgid cell is zero. For a fully turgid 149. Answer (3)
cell, OP and TP are equal. Reductive amination involves the formation of
Therefore, DPD = OP – TP glutamic acid when ammonium ion directly
or, DPD = 0 combines with -ketoglutaric acid. A reduced
coenzyme (NADPH) is required for the process to
146. Answer (4)
occur.
In response to water stress, surface of leaves get
  KGA  NH4  NADPH 
Glutamate
Glutamate  H2O  NADP
reduced to prevent loss of water. dehydrogenase

147. Answer (2) 150. Answer (1)

Nitrogenase enzyme is a Mo-Fe protein and Anabaena is an autotroph. Rest of others are
catalyses the conversion of atmospheric nitrogen heterotrophs.

ZOOLOGY
SECTION - A 159. Answer (1)
151. Answer (4) Congestion of the lungs is one of the main
Antigens ‘A’, ‘B’ and Rh are absent on the surface symptoms of the heart failure.
of RBCs in individual with O –ve blood group. 160. Answer (1)
152. Answer (3) Hypophyseal and hepatic portal system are
Pulmonary veins transport oxygenated blood from present in humans.
lungs to the left atrium. 161. Answer (4)
153. Answer (1) The end of T-wave marks the end of ventricular
Duration between ‘lub’ and ‘dub’ sound is equal to systole.
the duration of ventricular systole and duration 162. Answer (3)
between ‘dub’ and lub sound is equal to the ADH increases water reabsorption by acting on
duration of ventricular diastole. DCT and CD but CD is not a part of nephron.
154. Answer (3) 163. Answer (4)
In scorpion, coxal gland is excretory organ Micturition is initiated by the stretch receptors in
whereas book lungs are respiratory organ. the urinary bladder. Sympathetic supply causes
155. Answer (2) the constriction of internal urethral sphincter and
relaxation of urinary bladder muscles.
Selective reabsorption of urea occurs in CD.
Parasympathetic supply causes contraction of
156. Answer (4) urinary bladder muscles and relaxation of internal
200 mL/min of CO2 is lost by our lungs. urethral sphincter.
157. Answer (3) 164. Answer (3)
Fall in number of platelets is called Bile – Bile pigments, cholesterol, degraded steroid
thrombocytopenia. hormones, vitamins and drugs.
158. Answer (3) Sweat – NaCl, urea, glucose, lactic acid, etc.
Renal fascia is the outermost fibrous protective Sebum – Sterols, hydrocarbons and waxes
cover of the kidney. Expired air – CO2 and water

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Final Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

165. Answer (3) 178. Answer (1)

Stroke volume and cardiac output increases while A-band does not change in dimension during
duration of cardiac cycle decreases during muscle contraction.
strenuous exercise. 179. Answer (3)
166. Answer (2) Involuntary muscles are present in hollow organs
Every cardiac cycle involves a systemic and such as intestine.
pulmonary circuit. 180. Answer (3)
167. Answer (3) Cartilaginous joints are present between adjacent
vertebrae in vertebral column.
JG nephrons are less in number but longer in size
181. Answer (4)
than cortical nephrons.
An adult human has 1 sacrum after fusion of 5
168. Answer (3)
sacral vertebrae.
Mitral valve will evert out into atrium during
182. Answer (3)
ventricular systole.
Acute chest pain arising due to ischemia is called
169. Answer (1) angina.
ATP is hydrolysed releasing energy. 183. Answer (1)
170. Answer (3) The descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable
Parasympathetic stimulation occurs during rest to water and almost impermeable to electrolytes.
and digest conditions. 184. Answer (4)
171. Answer (3) Nitrogenous wastes in glomerular filtrate are
Incus is an ear ossicle which is associated with absorbed by passive transport.
axial skeleton. 185. Answer (2)
172. Answer (2) A – Renal column of Bertini
Low blood Ca2+ levels results in tetany. B – Medullary pyramid
173. Answer (4) C – Cortex
Branched appearance is a feature of cardiac
D – Calyx
muscle fibres.
SECTION - B
174. Answer (1)
186. Answer (3)
TpC is calcium binding subunit on troponin.
187. Answer (4)
Ileum is a part of small intestine.
188. Answer (3)
The portion of myofibril between two successive
175. Answer (4) ‘Z’ lines is considered as the functional unit of
Ovum is a non-motile structure. Passage of ova contraction. It is called sarcomere.
through the female reproductive tract is facilitated 189. Answer (2)
by ciliary movement. Sarcoplasmic reticulum is very well developed in
176. Answer (1) white muscle fibres. Myofibrils are present in all
Facial bones –14 in number types of muscle fibres.
Wrist bones (each limb) – 8 in number 190. Answer (1)
Cranial bones – 8 in number Perimysium is the covering of a single bundle of
Phalanges (each upper and lower limb) – 14 in muscle fibre bundles.
number
191. Answer (2)
177. Answer (3)
Nereis has closed type of circulation and is placed
8th, 9th and 10th pair of ribs are vertebrochondral
in phylum Annelida.
ribs in man.

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Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Final Test Series for NEET-2022

192. Answer (3) 196. Answer (3)

Nodal tissue present in right upper corner of right Lacteals are present in intestinal villi.
atrium is called SA node whereas that present in
197. Answer (3)
left lower corner of right atrium is called AV node.
Vasopressin makes urine hypertonic. Protein-free
193. Answer (1)
fluid is filtered from blood plasma. Descending
Blood pressure higher than 140/90 mm Hg on
limb of Henle’s loop concentrates the filtrate.
repeated checks in an individual represents
hypertension. 198. Answer (4)
Increase in blood glucose level is hyperglycemia; Kidneys are bean shaped structures situated
increase in blood Ca+2 is hypercalcemia and between the levels of T12 to L3.
increase in urea in blood is called uremia. 199. Answer (2)
194. Answer (2)
Trachea in insects and book lungs in scorpion are
Microvilli help to increase the surface area for considered as respiratory structures.
reabsorption.
200. Answer (1)
195. Answer (3)
SAN generates maximum number of action
Rana is placed in class Amphibia of phylum
potentials i.e., 70-75 min–1, therefore, it is called
Chordata. Land snail excretes uric acid. Planaria
is ammonotelic placed in phylum Platyhelminthes. the pacemaker of the heart.

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