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(3) both spheres will cool at the same rate for
all values of T
SECTION - A (4) both spheres will cool at the same rate only
for small values of T
01. A brass rod and lead rod each 80 cm long at
0oC are clamped together at one end with their 05. If the pressure of an ideal gas contained in a
free ends coinciding. If the system is placed in closed vessel increased by 0.5%, the incease in
a steam bath then the separation of free ends temperature is 2 K. The initial temperature of
of the rods is : the gas is :-
(1) 27oC (2) 127oC
(Brass  18  106 /o C and Lead  28  106 /o C) (3) 300 C
o
(4) 400oC
(1) 0.2 mm (2) 0.8 mm 06. Heat is supplied to a diatomic gas at constant
(3) 1.4 mm (4) 1.6 mm
pressure. The ratio of Q : U : W is :-
02. A person weighing 50 kg takes in 1500 k Cal (1) 5 : 3 : 2 (2) 5 : 2 : 3
dietper day. If this energy were to be used in (3) 7 : 5 : 2 (4) 7 : 2 : 5
heating the body of person without any losses,
then the rise in his temperature is 07. p-V curve of a diatomic gas is shown in the
(specific heat of human body = 0.83 cal g-1C-1)? figure. Find the total heat given to the gas in
(1) 30o C (2) 48oC the process A  B  C .
(3) 40.16oC (4) 36.14oC
03. Three rods of the same dimension have thermal
conductivities 3K, 2K and K. They are arranged
as shown in figure. Given below, with their ends
at 100oC, 50oC and 20oC. The temperature of
their junction is :-

1
(1) P0 V0  2P0 In 2 (2) P0 V0  P0 V0 In 2
2
5
(3) P0 V0  2P0 V0 In 2 (4) 3P V  2P V In 2
2 0 0 0 0

(1) 60oC (2) 70oC 08. If WABC is the work done in process A  B  C
(3) 50oC (4) 35oC and WDEF is work done in process D-E-F. as
shown in figure :-
04. A solid sphere and a hollow sphere of same
mat erial and si ze are heated to same
temperature and allowed to cool in the same
surroundings. If the tempeature difference
between each sphere and its surroundings is
T, then:
(1) the hollow sphere will cool at a faster rate
for all values of T
(2) the solid sphere will cool at a faster rate
for all values of T

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3A 5A
(1) |WDEF |>|WABC| (2) |WDEF|<|WABC| (1) (2)
2 2
(3) WDEF = WABC (4) WDEF = -WABC
7A A
09. Assertion : Total energy of a particle performing (3) (4)
SHM remains constant 2 2

Reason : Potential energy of particle performing 13. Statement I : When two bodies at different
SHM, at mean position is always zero. temperature are mixed in a calorimeter then for
some time temperature of mixture becomes
(1) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct. undefined
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A). Statement II : In this process internal energy
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not of each body remains conserved.
the correct explanation of (A).
(1) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is True.
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(2) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is False.
10. The co-efficient of volume expansion of glycerine (3) Statement 1 is False, Statement 2 is True.
is 49  105 /o C , then what will be fractional (4) Statement 1 is False, Statement 2 is False.
change in its density (approx) for 30oC rise in 14. Molecular hydrogen at one atmosphere and
temperature. helium at two atmospheres occupy volume V
(1) 1.5  10 2 (2) 2.5  102 each at the same temeprature. The rms velocity
of hydrogen molecules is x times rms velocity
(3) 2.0  102 (4) 2.8  102
of helium molecules. What is the value of x ?
11. A source of heat supplies heat at a constant rate (1) 1 (2) 2
to a solid cube. The inverse of slope of portion (3) 2 (4) 3
CD of the graph gives :-
15. Temperature of black body is 3000K. When black
body gets cooled down then change in
wavelength is   9 micron corresponding to
maximum energy density. Now temperature of
block body is :–
(1) 300 K (2) 2700 K
(3) 270 K (4) 1800 K
16. The p-V diagram of 2 gm of helium gas for a
(1) Latent heat of fusion certain process A  B is shown in the figure.
(2) Latent heatof vaporisation What is the change in internal energy to the gas
(3) Thermal capacity of liquid during the process A  B ?
(4) Thermal capacity of vapour
12. A particle starts performing SHM from mean
position. Amplitude of SHM is A. Find distance
5T
covered by particle in between t  0 to t  .
12
T is time period of SHM

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(1) 4P0 V0 (2) 2.25 P0 V0 22. Water rises in a capillary as shown. The correct
graph of pressure (p) vs height (y) above point
(3) 4.5 P0 V0 (4) 6P0 V0 O along the axis of capillary is
17. In a P-V diagram for an ideal gas (where P is
along the y-axis and V is along the x-axis), the
value of the ratio; slope of the adiabatic curve/
slope of the isothermal curve at any point will
be : (where symbols have their usual meanings)
(1) 1 (2) Cp / C v

(3) 2 (4) C v / Cp

18. Statement I : A black body doesn’t reflect any

radiation
Statement II : A block body doesn’t emit any
radiation (1) (2)
(1) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is True.
(2) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is False.
(3) Statement 1 is False, Statement 2 is True.
(4) Statement 1 is False, Statement 2 is False.
19. The lengths of two metallic rods at temepratures (3) (4)
 are LA and LB and their linear coefficient of
expansion are  A and B respectively. If the
23. The amplitude of a particle executing SHM is
difference in their length is to remain constant 4 cm. At the mean position the speed of the
at any temperature, then particle is 16 cm/sec. The distance of the particle
(1) L A /L B   A / B (2) L A /L B  B /  A from the mean position at which the speed of
the paticle becomes 8 3cm /s , will be
(3)  A  B (4)  A B  1
(1) 2 3cm (2) 3 cm
20. The mean kinetic energy of a gas at 300 K is
100 J. The mean energy of the gas at 450 K (3) 1 cm (4) 2 cm
is equal to :- 24. A body of mass 1 kg is executing simple
(1) 100 J (2) 3000 J harmonic motion. Its displacement y (cm) at t
(3) 450 J (4) 150 J
seconds is given by y = 6 sin(100t +  / 4 ). Its
21. One kg of a diatomic gas is at a pressure of maximum kinetic energy is
8  104 N /m2 . The densi ty of the gas is (1) 6 J (2) 18 J
(3) 24 J (4) 36 J
4 kg / m3 . What is the energy if the gas due to 25. A mass m is suspended from a weightless spring
its thermal motion :- and it has time-period ‘T’. The spring is now
(1) 3  104 J (2) 5  104 J divided into four equal parts and the same mass
is suspended from one of these parts. The time
(3) 6  104 J (4) 7  104 J period now will be :-
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(1) T (2) T/2 30. Two identical but separate strings, with the same
(3) 2T (4) T/4 tension, carry sinusoidal waves with the same
26. a simple pendulum suspended from the roof of frequency. Wave A has a amplitude that is twice
a lift oscillates with frequency  when the lift that of wave B and transmits energy at rate that
is at rest. If the lift falls freely under gravity, is ______ that of wave B.
its frequency of oscillation becomes :- (1) half (2) twice
(1) zero (2)  (3) one-fourth (4) four times
(3) 2 (4) infinite 31. The frequency of man’s voice is 300 Hz and its
wavelength is 1 meter. If the wavelength of a
27. The displacement of a particle in SHM varies child’s voice is 1.5m, then the frequency of the
according to the relation x  4(cos t  sin t) . child’s voice is :-
The amplitude of the particle is :- (1) 200 Hz (2) 150 Hz
(1) -4 (2) 4 (3) 400 Hz (4) 450 Hz
(3) 4 2 (4) 8 32. The equation of a plane progressive wave is :

28. The particle executing simple harmonic motion  x 

y  0.02sin 8 t 
has a kinetic energy K 0 cos2 t . The maximum  20 
When it is reflected at a rarer medium, its
value of the potential energy and the total energy
amplitude become 75% of its previous velue. The
are respectively :-
equation of the reflected wave is :
(1) K 0 and K 0 (2) 0 and 2K 0
 x 
(1) y  0.02sin 8 t 
K0  20 
(3) and K 0 (4) K 0 and 2K 0
2
 x 
(2) y  0.02sin 8 t  
29. A transverse wave is travelling along a stretched  20
string to left. The figure shown represents the
shape of the string (snapshot) at a given instant.  x 
(3) y  0.015sin 8 t 
At this instant  20 

 x 
(4) y  0.015sin 8 t 
 20 
33. A tuning fork of frequency 500 Hz is sounded
on a resonance tube. The first and second
resonance are obtained at 17 cm and 52 cm.
The velocity of sound is :-
(1) 170 m/sec (2) 350 m/sec
(1) the particles at A, B and H have downward (3) 520 m/sec (4) 850 m/sec
velocity 34. The first resonance length of a resonance tube
(2) the particles at D, E and F have downward
is 17 cm and the second resonance length is
velocity
(3) the particles at C, E and G have zero 53 cm. The third resonance length of the tube
velocity will be :-
(4) the particles at A and F have maximum (1) 85 cm (2) 87 cm
velocity (3) 88 cm (4) 89 cm

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35. Two water droplets merge with each other to form
5 5
a large droplet. In this process (1) (2)
3 3
(1) energy is liberated
2 4
(2) energy is absorbed 5 5
(3)   (4)  
(3) energy is neither liberated nor absorbed 3 3

(4) some mass is converted into energy 39. 250 litre of an ideal gas is heated at constant
pressure from 27 o C such that its volume
becomes 500 litre. The final temperature is :

36. 5 gm of steam at 100oC is passed into 6 gm of (1) 54oC (2) 300oC

ice at 0oC. If the latent heats of steam and ice (3) 327oC (4) 600oC
in cal per gm are 540 and 80 respectively, then
the final mass of water in the mixture will be 40. A monatomic gas at a pressure P, having a
volume V expands isothermally to volume 4V
(1) 9 gm (2) 8 gm and then adiabatically to volume 32V. The final
(3) 11 gm (4) 10 gm
 5
37. Acceleration A and time period T of a body in pressure of the gas is :    
 3
S.H.M. is given by a curve shown below. Then
corresponding graph, between kinetic energy (1) 64P (2) 32P
(K.E) and time t is correctly represented by P P
(3) (4)
64 128
41. An object A of mass 3 kg is immersed in a liquid
as shown in the figure. R.D. of object is 0.75,
then tension in string will be :(density of water
= 1000kg/m3)

Water
A
(1) (2)

(1) 40 N (2) 10 N
(3) (4) (3) 30 N (4) zero
42. Temperature of a piece of iron is 27oC and it
38. Two spheres A and B having radii of 3 cm and is radiating energy at the rate of Q kWm-2. If
5 cm respectively are coated with caron black its temperature is raised to 151oC, the rate of
on their outer surface. The wavelengths of radiation of energy will become approximately:-
radiations corresponding to maximum intensity
of emission are 300 nm and 500 nm respectively. (1) 2Q kWm2 (2) 4Q kWm2
The respective powers radiated by them are in
(3) 6Q kWm2 (4) 8Q kWm2
the ratio of :-
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43. The thermodynamic variables of a jar filled with
gas A are P, V and T and another jar B filled
with another gas are 2P, V/4 and 2T, where the
symbols have their usual meaning. The ratio of
the number of molecules of jar A to those of jar
B is :
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 1
44. A cyclic process for 1 mole of an ideal gas is
shown in figure in the V-T, diagram. The work
done in AB, BC and CA respectively.

1
k1  1 1 
(1)  k2 (2)   
2  2k1 k 2 

1
1 1 2 1 
(3) 2k  k (4)   
1 2  k1 k 2 

46. A wire of length L and radius r is rigidly fixed

at one end. On stretching the other end of the
wire with a force F, the increase in its length
is l . If another wire of same material but of
length 2L and radius 2r is stretched with a force
of 2F, the increase in its length will be
 V1  (1) l (2) 2l
(1) 0,RT2 In   ,R(T1  T2 )
 V2  l l
(3) (4)
2 4
V1 47. A metallic block weights 15 N in air. It weights
(2) R (T1  T2 ),0, RT1 In
V2 12 N when immersed in water and 13 N when
immersed in another liquid. What is the specific
V  gravity of the liquid ?
(3) 0, RT2 In  2  ,R(T1  T2 )
V (1) 1/3 (2) 2/3
 1 
(3) 12/13 (4) 13/15
V 
(4) 0, RT2 In  2  ,R(T2  T1 ) 48. Two identical rods with different thermal
V
 1  conductivities K1 and K2 are first placed along
length and then along area, then the ratio of
45. The total spring constant of the system as shown
effective thermal conductivity in both cases :-
in the figure will be :

4K1K 2 K1
(1) 2 (2)
(K1  K 2 ) K2

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K1  K 2
(3) (4) None of these
K1  K 2

49. A tuning fork gives 4 beats with 50 cm length (R) (S)

of a sonometer wire. If the length of the wire
is shortened by 1 cm, the number of beats is
still the same. The frequency of the fork is :-
(1) 404 Hz (2) 400 Hz
(3) 396 Hz (4) 384 Hz
52.
50. A light rod of length 4 m is suspended from two
wires as shown in figure. One of them is made
of steel and other of copper of cross – sectional
area 102 m 2 and 4  102 m 2 . A weight W is
suspended from the rod at a distance x as shown.
Find distance x if equal stress is experienced
by both the wires Ysteel = 2 × 1011 N/m2 and
Ycopper = 1.1 × 1011 N/m2
53.
(1) S > R > Q > P (2) P > Q > R > S
(3) Q > P > R > S (4) P > Q > S > R
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : The I UPAC name of
HC  C  CH 2  CH  CH 2 is pent – 4 – en – 1 – yne
Statement – II : If there is a choice, a triple bond
is always given a lower locant than a double bond
In the light of the above stabements, choose the
correct option from the following :
(1) Both statement I and statement II are true
(2) Both statement I and statement II are false
(3) Statement I is true but satement II is false
(4) Statement I is false but statement II is true
Consider the followign statements :
 
(I) CH 3O C H 2 is more stable than CH 3 C H 2 .
 
(II) Me 2 C H is more stable than CH 3CH 2 C H 2

(III ) CH 2  CH  C H 2 is more stable t han


(1) 2 m (2) 3.5 m CH 3CH 2 C H 2

 
(3) 3.2 m (4) 4 m (IV) CH 2  CH is more stable than CH 3 C H 2 .
Of these statements :
(1) I and II are correct
SECTION - A (2) III and IV are correct
51. Given the stability order the following : (3) I, II and III are correct
(4) II, III and IV are correct
54. The decreasing order of electron density on the
ring is

(P) (Q)

(x) (y)

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(III) CH 3CH 2COOH

(1) I > II > III (2) II > I > III
(3) III > II > I (4) I > III > II
(z) (w) 59. Which of t he fol lowing cannot exhibit
hyperconjugation ?

(1) x > w > y > z (2) z > y > w > x (1) CH 3 C H 2 (2)
(3) x > z > y > w (4) y > z > w > x 
55. The strongest base is (3) CH 3CH  CH 2 (4) (CH 3 )3 C  C H 2
60. Select the most stable carbocation among the
following
(1) (2)

(1) (2)
(3) (4) CH 3  NH  CH 3

56. Arrange the following, carbocations in order of

stability. (3) (4)

61. Which of the following hydrocarbons are not

saturated hydrocarbons ?
(i) (ii) (i) Alkanes (ii) Alkenes
(iii) Alkynes (iv) Cycloalkanes
(1) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i) and (iv) (4) (iv) only
62. Which of the following is not an alicyclic
compound ?
(iii) (iv)

(1) (2)
(1) i > ii > iii > iv (2) i > ii > iv > iii
(3) ii > i > iv > iii (4) ii > i > iii > iv
57. Most acidic compound of the following is (3) (4)

(1) CH3OH (2) 63. A compound C6H12 which is an optically active

hydrocarbon gives optically inactive compound
C6H14 on catalytic hydrogenation. The compound
(3) (4) is

(1)
58. Order of Ka of following acids is
(I) HC  C  CH 2  COOH
(II) CH 2  CHCH 2COOH (2)

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(2) Product – I and II contains the same number
of sp3 and sp2 carbon atoms
(3)
(3) The yield of the product I and II is same
(4) CH 3CH  CHCH 2CH 3 (4) Reaction obeys Sayteff rule
64. In the preparation of alkanes from hydrogenation 69. In the reaction, possible products are
of alkenes and alkynes, finely divided catalysts
are used. Which of the following statement(s)
is/are correct regarding these catalysts ?
(i) Platinum and palladium catalyze the reaction
at ordinary temperature
(ii) Nickel catalyzes the reaction at relatively (1) (2)
higher temperature and pressure
(iii) Platinum and palladium catalyze the reaction
at higher temperature.
(3) (4) All of these
(1) (i) and (iii) (2) (i) and (ii)
(3) (ii) and (iii) (4) (i) only 70. The catal yst required for the
65. Which of the following will form cyclohexane on reaction HC  CN  dil .H 2SO 4  CH 3CHO
Catalyst

reaction with two moles of Na in ether ?

is
(1) CH3 – CH2 – Br
(1) HgSO4 (2) Pd
(3) Pt (4) AlCl3
(2)

(3) Br – CH2 – CH2 – CH2– CH2 – CH2– CH2 – Cl 71. (A) (B) ; (A)

and (B) are :

(4)
(1) chain isomers
66. True statement about Kolbe’s electrolytic (2) functional isomers
synthesis is (3) metamers
(1) H2 is liberated at node (4) functional isomers
(2) CO2 is liberated at cathode 72. How many enolizable hydrogens are there in the
(3) pH of reaction mixture decreases as it goes following compounds ?
on
(4) Saturated hydrocarbons are produced
67. Aqueous solution of potassium propanoate is
electrolysed. Major organic product is
(1) n – Butane (2) C2H5COOC2H5
(3) CH3 – CH3 (4) CH2 = CH2 (1) 2 (2) 4
(3) 5 (4) 7
68. (Product) (I) + 73. Total number of stereoisomer for 2, 3 –
dichlorobutane are :
Product (II) (1) 3 (2) 4
Which is not true regarding the products ? (3) 5 (4) 6
(1) Product – I and II position isomers

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74. How many stereocentres are there in the 79. The relationship between Gibbs free energy in
following structure ? a reaction and the corresponding equilibrium
constant, Kc is
(1) G  RT ln K c (2) G  RT ln K c
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) G   RT ln K c (4) G   RT ln K c
(3) 3 (4) 4
80. For the reaction :
75. A liquid is in equilibrium with its vapour at its
boiling point. The molecules in the two phases 
N 2 (g )  O2 (g )  2NO (g ), H  21.5 cal. At
have equal equilibrium. what are the favourable conditions
(1) Potential energy (2) Kinetic energy for greater yield of NO ?
(3) van der Waals forces (1) High pressure and high temperature
(4) Vibrational energy (2) High temperature and excess of N2 and O2
76. Which of the following is not the characteristic (3) Adding of NO and high temperature
of chemical equilibrium ? (4) Low pressure and low temperature
(1) At equilibrium, the concentration of each of 81. The conjugate acid of NH 2 is
the reactants and the products becomes
constant (1) NH 4 (2) NH 3
(2) At equilibrium, the rate of forward reaction
becomes equal to the rate of backward reaction, (3) NH 2OH (4) N 2 H 4
and hence, the equilibrium is dynamic in nature 82. Which of the following species is an acid and
(3) A chemical equilibrium can be established also a conjugate base of another acid ?
only if none of the products is allowed to escape (1) HSO 4 (2) H 2SO 4
out or separate out as a solid
(4) Chemical equilibrium for the reversible (3) OH  (4) H 3O 
reaction, N 2  3H 2   2NH 3 can be attained 83. When NH 4Cl is added to NH 4OH solution, the
from forward direction only. dissociation of ammonium hydroxide is reduced.
77. For a reversible reaction, if the concentration It is due to
of reactant is doubled, the equilibrium constant (1) Common ion effect (2) Hydrolysis
will be (3) Oxidation (4) Reduction
(1) One – fourth (2) Halved 84. Ostwald’s dilution law is applicable to
(3) Doubled (4) Same (1) Weak electrolytes only
78. Phosphorus pentachloride dissociates as follows, (2) Strong electrolytes only
in a closed re action vessel (3) Non – electrolytes

PCl5 (g )  PCl 3 (g )  Cl2 (g ) . If total pressure at (4) Strong as well as weak electrolytes
equilibrium of the reaction mixture is P and 85. The dissociation constant of monobasic acids A,
degree of dissociation of PCl 5 is x, partial B, C and D are 6 × 10–4, 5 × 10–5, 3.6 ×10–6
pressure of PCl3 will be and 7 × 10–10, respectively. pH values of their
0.1 molar aqueous solution are in the order
 x   2x  (1) A > B > C > D (2) A < B < C < D
(1)  P (2)  P
 x  1 1  x  (3) A = B = C = D (4) A > B < C > D

 x   x 
(3)  P (4)  P
 x 1 1  x 
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93. K sp at 25°C of AgCl, AgCl, AgBr and Agl are,
86. The first and second dissociation constant of respectively, 3  1010 ,7.7  10 13 and 1.5  1016 .
an acid H 2A ar e 1.0  105 and The solubility of these salts in decreasing order is
(1) AgCl > AgBr > Agl (2) Agl > AgBr > AgCl
5.0  1010 respecti vely. The ov er all
dissociation constant of the acid will be (3) AgBr  AgCl  AgI (4) AgBr  Agl  AgCI
(1) 0.2  105 (2) 5.0  105 94. What will be the solubility of silver chloride in a
0.10 M NaCl solution having
(3) 5.0  1015 (4) 5.0  1015 Ksp = 1.2 ×10–10 ?
87. 50 litres of 0.1 M HCl are mixture with 50
(1) 0.1 M (2) 1.2  106 M
litres of 0.2 M NaOH. The pH of the resulting
solution is (3) 1.2  109 M (4) 1.2  1010 M
(1) 12.70 (2) 12.34 95. IUPAC name of t he compound is
(3) 8.7 (4) 4.2 O
88. 0.2 molar aqueous solutoin of Ba(OH)2 is ||
CH 3CH 2  CH  CH  C  H
found to be 90% ionized at 298 K. The pH
(1) pent – 2 – en – 1 – al
of the solution is
(2) But – 2 – en – 1 – al
(1) 10.56 (2) 12.56
(3) pent – 3 – en – 4 – al
(3) 13.56 (4) 9.56
(4) pent – 3 – en – 5 – al
89. If pKb for fluoride ion at 25°C is 10.83, the
ionization constant of hydrofluoric acid in 96. The correct decreasing order of priority for
waer at this temperature is functional groups of organic compounds in IUPAC
system of nomenclature is
(1) 1.74  105 (2) 3.52  103
(1) CONH 2 , CHO , SO3 H , COOH
(3) 6.75  104 (4) 5.38  10 2
(2) COOH , SO 3 H , CONH 2  CHO
90. An acidic buffer solution can be preparted by
mixing the solutions of (3) SO3 H , COOH , CONH 2 , CHO
(1) Sodium acetate and acetic acid (4) CHO , COOH , SO3 H , CONH 2
(2) Ammonium chloride & ammonium hydroxide 97. IUPAC name of the compound is
(3) Sulphuric acid and sodium hydroxide
(4) Sodium chloride and sodium hydroxide
91. For preparing a buffer solution of pH 6 by
mixing sodium acetate and acetic acid, the
ratio of the concentration of salt and acid (1) 1, 3 – dimenthylcyclothexene
should be (K a  10 5 ) (2) 1, 5 – dimethylcyclohexene
(1) 1 : 10 (2) 10 : 1 (3) 1, 3 – dimethylbenzene
(3) 100 : 1 (4) 1 : 100 (4) 1, 5 – dimethylbenzene
92. For a sparingly soluble salt A p B q , the 98. The IUPAC name of compound is
relationship of its solubility products (L) with
its solubility (s) is
(1) L  s p  q . p p .q q (2) L  s p  q . p q .q p
(1) Benzyl alcohol (2) Methyl phenol
(3) L  s pq . p p .q q (4) L  s pq .( p.q )p  q (3) Phenylmethanol (4) Methyl phenyl alcohol
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99. What is the pH of 1.0  108 M solution of HCl 104. Match List – I with List – II
? (log 1.1 = 0.0414)
(1) 8.8 (2) 6.96
List - I List - II
(3) 7.96 (4) 6.0414
100. What is  % of 0.08 solution of hypochlorous A. Middle lamella I. Storage

acid HOCl ? ( K   2.5  10 5 )

B. Mitochondria II. Cementing material
(1) 0.8 % (2) 2.5 %
(3) 1.76 % (4) 1.25 % C. Vacuoles III. Photosynthesis

D. Grana IV. Respiration

SECTION - A
Choose the correct answer from the options given
101. Assertion (A) : The ribosomes of the chloroplast below
are larger than the cytoplasmic ribosomes.
(1) A – III, B – I, C – II, D – IV
Reason (R) : Ribosomes are composed of
ribonucleic acid and proteins and are not (2) A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I
surrounded by any membrane (3) A – II, B – IV, C – I, D – III
(1) Both A and R are true, but R is not the (4) A – II, B – I, C – III, D – IV
correct explanation of A
(2) A is true, but R is false 105. Match List – I with List – II
(3) A is false, but R is true
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct List - I List - II
explanation of A.
A. Centriole I. Synthesis of lipids
102. Statement – I : The axoneme usually has nine
pairs or doublets of radially arranged peripheral Respository of genetic
B. SER II.
microtubules and a pair of centrally located information
microtubules C. Chromosomes III.
Site of aerobic
Statement – II : The quasi – fluid nature of lipid respiration
in cell membrane enables horizontal movement Formation of spindle
D. Mitochondria IV.
of proteins within the overall bilayer. apparatus
(1) Both statements I and II incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct, but statement II is Choose the correct answer from the options given
incorrect below
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II (1) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III
is correct
(2) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I
(4) Both Statement I and II are correct
103. Which of the following statements are incrrect (3) A – III, B – II, C – I, D – IV
I. The mitochondria divide by fragmentation (4) A – III, B – II, C – IV, D – I
II. Endoplasmic reticulum serves as an 106. Statement I : 4 Mitotic division is required for
intracellular transport system. a celll to form 64 cells.
III. Golgi apparatus is responsible for the
Statement II : Meiosis – I is reduction division
formation of glycolipids and glycoproteins
whereas meiosis – II is equational division.
IV. Thylakoids are disc – shaped sacs in Golgi
apparatus. (1) Both statements I and II incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct, but statement II is
V. Fluid mosaic model of cell membrane was
incorrect
proposed by Schleiden and Schwann.
Choose the incorrect from the options given (3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II
below is correct
(1) I, II and V (2) I and V (4) Both Statement I and II are correct
(3) II, III and IV (4) I, IV and V

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107. Identify the correct statements. 110. Match List – I with List – II
I. Anaphase of mitosis contains half number of
chromatids of metapase in a chromosome List - I List - II
II. ER and Golgi complexes begin to disappear Recombination
at early prophase A. Leptotene I.
nodules
III. At metaphase of mitosis, chromosomes are Terminalisation
composed of two sister chromatids B. Diplotene II.
of chiasmata
IV. Recombination nodules is seen at zygotene. C. Zygotene III.
Compaction of
Chromosomes
Choose the correct answer from the options given
Chiasmata
below D. Diakinesis IV.
formation
(1) I and II (2) II and III
Synaptonemal
E Pachytene V.
(3) I and III (4) I and IV complex
108. Match List – I with List – II
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below
List - I List - II (1) A– (IV), B – (V), C – (III), D – (II), E – (I)
A. G0 - phase I. Actual cell division (2) A– (III), B – (IV), C – (V), D – (II), E – (I)
(3) A– (IV), B – (III), C – (II), D – (I), E – (V)
B. M-phase II. Quiescent stage (4) A– (II), B – (V), C – (I), D – (III), E – (IV)

RNA and protein

111. Assertion (A) : Rice plants show better crop yield
C. G1-phase III. and productivity than Sorghum.
synthesis
Preparation for DNA Reason (R) : C4 plants contain bundle sheath
D. S-phase IV.
replication cells aside from mesophyll cells to provide spatial
arrangements for CO2 – fixation and calvin cycle.
E. G2-phase V. DNA synthesis
(1) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
Choose the correct answer from the options given correct explanation of A
below (2) A is true, but R is false
(1) A – (II), B – (IV), C – (III), D – (I), E –(V) (3) A is false, but R is true
(2) A – (II), B – (I), C – (IV), D – (V), E –(III) (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(3) A – (I), B – (II), C – (III), D – (IV), E –(V) explanation of A.
(4) A – (IV), B – (V), C – (III), D – (II), E –(I) 112. Assertion (A) : No NADPH, only ATP in produced
during cyclic photophosphorylation.
109. Match List – I with List – II. Reason (R) : Stroma lamellae lack PS – II as well
as NADP reductase enzyme.
List - I List - II (1) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
I. Chromosomes align at centre correct explanation of A
A. Prophase
II. Nuclear envelope and (2) A is true, but R is false
B. Anaphase nucleolus reform (3) A is false, but R is true
III. Nucleolus and nuclear (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
C. Metaphase membrane disintegrate explanation of A.
IV. Sister chromatids move to 113. Statement I PS – II is the first photosystem to
D. Telophase opposite poles
function during the light reaction (non cyclic)
Choose the correct answer from the options given Statement II Antennae contain chlorophyll a
below (1) Both statements I and II incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct, but statement II is
(1) A – (II), B – (I), C – (III), D – (IV) incorrect
(2) A – (I), B – (II), C – (III), D – (IV) (3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II
(3) A – (III), B – (IV), C – (I), D – (II) is correct
(4) Both Statement I and II are correct
(4) A – (III), B – (IV), C – (II), D – (I)
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114. Match List – I with List – II (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.

List - I List - II 117. Assertion (A) : Aerobic respriation takes place

in mitochondria.
A. PEPcase I. C4 cycle Reason (R) : Aerobic respiration leads to a
complete oxdiation of organic substance in the
B. Malic acid II. 4 - C compound presence of oxygen and releases CO2 and water.

Hatch and Slack Oxygenase and

(1) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
C. III. correct explanation of A
Pathway carboxylase
(2) A is true, but R is false
D. RuBisCO IV. Mesophyll cell
(3) A is false, but R is true
Choose the correct answer from the options given (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
below explanation of A.

(1) A – IV, B – II, C – I, D – III 118. Statement I During the conversion of PEP, one
ATP is utllised to form pyruvic acid
(2) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV
Statement II ATP is synthesised in the step of
(3) A – IV, B – III, C – I, D – III substrate lvel phosphorylation.
(4) A – IV, B – I, C – III, D – II (1) Both statements I and II incorrect
115. Match List – I with List – II. (2) Statement I is correct, but statement II is
incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II
List - I List - II is correct
A. Light reactions I. Pigments (4) Both Statement I and II are correct
119. Assertion (A) : Ethephon is the most widely used
B. Dark reactions II. Stroma compound as a source of ethylene.

Paper
Reason (R) : Ethephon hastens fruit ripening
C. III. Thylakoid in tomatoes and apples and accelerates
chromatography
abscission in flowers and fruits.
D. Chl a IV. Antennae
(1) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
correct explanation of A
E Chl b V. Reaction centre
(2) A is true, but R is false
(3) A is false, but R is true
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
(1) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – V, E – I
120. Assertion (A) : The tips of coleoptiles of oat
(2) A – III, B – II, C – I, D – V, E –IV seedling shows bending towards light.
(3) A – III, B – V, C – I, D – IV, E – II Reason (R) : The tips of coleoptiles contain a
(4) A – II, B – III, C – I, D – IV, E – V high concentration of auxin.

116. Assertion (A) : Glycolysis occurs in the (1) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
cytoplasm of the cell. correct explanation of A

Reason (R) : During glycolysis, glucose of pyruvic (2) A is true, but R is false
acid (3) A is false, but R is true
(1) Both A and R are true, but R is not the (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
correct explanation of A explanation of A.
(2) A is true, but R is false
(3) A is false, but R is true

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121. Match List – I with List – II 124. Cells that have membrane bound nucleus are
called
List - I List - II (1) eukaryotic cells (2) Prokaryotic cells
A. IAA I. Stress hormone (3) differentiated cells (4) specialised cells
B. Zeatin II. Natural auxin 125. Aleuroplasts in a cell store
C. ABA III. Synthetic auxin (1) stach (2) oil
D. NAA IV. Cytokinin (3) protein (4) nutrients
126. Peroxisomes are invovled in the synthesis of
Choose the correct answer from the options given (1) glucose (2) fatty acids
below (3) glycine and serine (4) nucleotides
(1) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II 127. Which of the following is not a function vacuole
(2) A – III, B – I, C – IV, D – II in plant cell ?
(3) A – II, B – IV, C – I, D – III (1) storage (2) waste disposal
(4) A – II, B – IV, C – III, D – I (3) cell elongation and protection
122. Match List – I with List – II (4) Production of hydrogen peroxide
128. Genetic recombination is due to
List - I List - II
(1) fertilisation and meiosis
Apical hook
A. Ethylene I. (2) mitosis and meiosis
formation
Delay leaf (3) fertilisation and mitosis
B. Auxin II.
senescence (4) None of the above
Flowering in 129. Which of the following is the correct sequence
C. Abscisic acid III.
pineapple of meiosis prophase – I ?
Regulate (1) Leptot ene  Pachytene  Zygotene
D. Cytokinin IV.
dormancy
 Diplotene  Diakinesis
Choose the correct answer from the options given (2) Leptotene  Zygotene  Diplotene 
below Pachytene  Diakinesis
(1) A – IV, B – II, C – III, D – I
(3) Leptotene  Zygotene  Pachytene
(2) A – I, B – III, C – IV, D – II
 Diplotene  Diakinesis
(3) A – III, B – I, C – II, D – IV
(4) None of the above
(4) A – I, B – IV, C – III, D – II
130. Which one of the following states fulfils the
123. Match List – I with List – II
Mendel’s law of indepenent assortment and
segregation ?
List - I List - II
(1) Anapahse – II (2) Anaphase – I
Bre aks bud
A. Kine ti n I.
dormancy (3) Metaphase – I (4) Telophase – I
Adventi ti ous 131. During meiosis – I, the number of chromosomes
B. Ethylene II.
shoot formation is
Haste ns (1) halved (2) tripled
C. 2, 4 - D III.
maturi ty period (3) doubled (4) quadripled
132. During meiosis – I, in which stage synapsis takes
D. GA IV. Weed killer place ?
(1) Pachytene (2) Zygotene
(3) Diplotene (4) Leptotene
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below 133. How much oxygen is formed from 264 g of CO2
and 216 g of H2O ?
(1) A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I
(1) 96 g (2) 216 g
(2) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III
(3) 264 g (4) 192 g
(3) A – I, B – IV, C – III, D – II
(4) A – IV, B – II, C – III, D – I
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134. The diagram represents the Calvin cycle ? S T U
(1) 2 4 6
(2) 2 6 4
(3) 3 4 6
(4) 3 6 4
140. Match the following columns.
Column – I Column – II
At which state is CO2 incorporated ?
(Respiratory (RQ)
(1) B (2) A
substrate)
(3) C (4) D
A. Oxalic acid 1. 4
135. Which one is correct for C4 plants ?
B. Carbohydrate 2. 1
(1) PEPcase C4 – cycle
C. Protein 3. 0.9
RuBisCO C3 – cycle
Codes
(2) PEPCase Calvin cycle
A B C A B C
RuBisCO C4 – cycle
(1) 1 2 3 (2) 3 2 1
(3) RuBisCO C4 – cycle
(3) 2 1 3 (4) 1 3 2
PEPCase C3 – cycle
141. Glycerol is a product of fat breakdown. It
(4) RuBisCO C2 – cycle sometimes enters the respiratory pathway after
PEPCase C3 – cycle being converted to
(1) fatty acids (2) PEP
(3) PGAL (4) None of these
136. Kreb’s cycle is found in
142. Growth at cellular level refers to the increase
(1) photosynthesis in
(2) anaerobic respriation (1) cell wall (2) cell membrane
(3) aerobic respiration (3) the amount of protoplasm
(4) photorespiration (4) All of the above
137. Activity of succinic dehydrogenase involves the 143. The factors essential for plant growth is/are
following in TCA cycle.
(1) H2O (2) O2
(1) NAD (2) FAD
(3) nutrients (4) All of these
(3) GAP (4) ATP
144. The exponential growth can be expressed as
138. During one Kreb’s cycle, number of CO 2
molecules released is W1  W0e rt , where e denotes
(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) growth rate (2) time of growth
(3) 3 (4) 4 (3) base of natural logarithm
139. The diagram shows some of the reactions (4) final size
following glycolysis during aerobic respiration. 145. Cytokinins
How many carbon atoms are in each of the (1) promote abscission
substances S, T and U ?
(2) influence water movement
(3) help retain chlorophyll
(4) inhibit protoplasmic streaming
146. Which of the following phytohormones promotes
male flowering ?
(1) Auxin (2) Gibberellin
(3) Cytokinin (4) Abscisic acid
147. A chromosome with the centromere at one end
is
(1) Acentric (2) Metacentric
(3) Submetacentric (4) Telocentric

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148. Chromosomes with secondary constriction (2) Na  from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid
which are assocated with organisation of nucleoli (3) K  from extracellular fluid to intracelluar fluid
(1) Centromere (4) Na  from intracellular fluid to extracellular
(2) Satellite chromosomes fluid
(3) Homologous chromosomes 156. The nerve centres which control the body
(4) None of these temperature and the urge for eating are
149. Peptide linkages are formed by joining together contained in :
(1) Amino acids (2) Proteins (1) Cerebellum (2) Thalamus
(3) Purine bases (4) Pyrimidine bases (3) Hypothalamus (4) Pons
150. Total number of amino acids that participate in 157. A person entering an empty room suddenly finds
protein synthesis : a snake right in front on opening the door.
(1) 19 (2) 18 Which one of the following is likely to happen
in his neuro-hormonal control system ?
(3) 21 (4) 20 (1) Hypothalam us act ivates the
parasympathetic division of brain
ZOOLOGY (2) Sympathetic nervous system is activated
SECTION - A releasing epinephrine and norepinephrine from
151. Which one of the following statements is correct adrenal cortex
(1) Neither hormones control neural activity nor (3) Sympathetic nervous system is activated
the neuron control endocrine activity releasing epinephrine and norepinephrine from
(2) Endocrine glands regulate neural activity. adrenal medulla
but not vice versa (4) Neurotransmitters diffuse rapidly across the
(3) Neurons regulate endocrine activity, but not cleft and transmit a nerve impulse
vice versa 158. A diagram showing axon terminal and synapse
(4) Endocrine glands regulate neural actitivity, is given below. Identify correctly at least two of
and nervous system regulates endocrine glands A–D
152. Which one of the following does not act as
neurotransmitter ?
(1) Norepinephrine (2) cortisone
(3) Acetylcholine (4) Epinephrine
153. During the transmission of neve impulse
through a nerve fiber, the potential on the inner
side of the plasma membrane has which type
of electric charge ?
(1) First positive, then negative and continue
to be negative (1) C–Neurotransmitter
(2) First negative, then positive and continue D– Ca 
to be positive
(2) A–Receptor
(3) First positive, then negative and again back
C–Synaptic vesicles
to positive
(4) First negative, then positive and again back (3) B–Synaptic connection
to negative D– K 
154. Which one of the following pairs of structures (4) A–Neurotransmitter
distinguishes a nerve cell from other types of B–Synaptic cleft
cell ? 159. How do parasympatic neural signals affect the
(1) Vacuoles and fibres working of the heart ?
(2) Flagellum and medullay sheath (1) Reduce both heart rate and cardiac output
(3) Nucleus and mitochondria (2) Heart rate is inceased without affecting the
(4) Perikaryon and dendrites cardiac output
155. During the propagation of a nerve impulse, the (3) Both heart rate and cardiac output increase
action potential results from the movement of : (4) Heart rate decreases but cardiac output
(1) K  from interacellular fluid to extracellular
increases
fluid
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160. Injury localized to the hypothalamus would (2) Hypersecretion of adrenal gland
most likely disrupt : (3) Hyposecretion of thyroid gland
(1) short-term memory (4) Hypersecretion of thyroid gland
(2) co-ordination during locomotion 167. Name a peptide hormone which acts mainly on
(3) executive functions, such as decision hepatocytes, adipocytes and enhances cellular
making glucose uptake and utilization.
(4) regulation of body temperature (1) Secretin (2) Gastrin
161. Which of the following regions of the brain is (3) Insulin (4) Glucagon
incorrectly paired with its function 168. Osteoporosis, an age–related disease of skeletan
(1) Cerebellum-language comprehension system, may occur due to :
(2) Corpus callosum-communication between (1) Decreased level of estrogen
the left and right cerebral cortices (2) Accumulation of uric acid leading to
(3) Cerebruum-calculation and contemplation inflammation of joints.
(4) Medulla oblongata-homeostatic control (3) Immune disorder affecting neuromuscular
162. Myeline sheath is produced by junction leading to fatigue.
(1) Astrocytes and Schwann cells (4) High concentration of Ca  and Na 
(2) Oligodendrocytes and Osteoclasts 169. The posterior pituitary gland is not a ‘true’
(3) Osteoclasts and Astrocytes endocrine gland because :
(4) Schwann cells and Oligodendrocytes (1) It is under the regulation of hypothalamus
163. Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are present (2) It secretes enzymes
on : (3) It is provided with a duct
(1) Pre-synaptic membrane (4) It only stores and releases hormones
(2) Tips of axons 170. A decrease in blood pressure / volume will not
(3) Post-synaptic membrane cause the release of :
(4) Membrane of synaptic vesicles (1) Atrial natriuretic factor
164. Which of the following structures or regions is (2) Aldosterone
incorrectly paired with its function ? (3) ADH
(1) Medulla oblongata : control respiration (4) Renin
and cardiovascular 171. A temporary endocrine gland in the human body is
reflexes (1) Corpus cardiacum
(2) Limbic system : consists of fibres (2) Corpus luteum
tracts that interconnect (3) Corpus allatum
different region of (4) Pineal gland
brain; controls 172. GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone, needed in
movement reproduction, acts on :
(3) Hypothalamus : Production of releasing (1) anterior pituitary gland and stimulates
hormones & regulation secretion of LH and FSH
of temperature (2) posterior pituitary gland and stimulates
hunger and thirst secretion of oxytocin and FSH.
(4) Corpus callosum : Band of fibers (3) posterior pituitary gland and stimulates
connecting left and secretion of LH and relaxin
right cerebral (4) anterior pituitary gland and stimulates
hemispheres secretion of LH and oxytocin
165. Which of the following pairs of hormones are 173. Hypersection of Growth Hormone in adults does
not antagonistic (having opposite effects) to each not cause further increase in height, because :
other ? (1) Epiphyseal plates close after adolescence.
(1) Parathormone – Calcitonin (2) Bones loose their sensitivity to Growth
(2) Insulin – Glucagon Hormone in adults
(3) Aldosterone – Atrial Natriuretic (3) Muscle fibres do not grow in size after birth
factor (4) Growth Hormone becomes inactive in adults
(4) Relaxin – Inhibin 174. Which of the following is an anmino acids
166. Graves’ disease is caused due to : derived hormone ?
(1) Hyposecretion of adrenal gland (1) Epinephrine (2) Ecdysone
(3) Estradiol (4) Estriol
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175. Match the following columns and select the (4) 3-chambered heart with Reptilia
correct option :- one incompletely divided
Column-I Column-II ventricle
(a) Pituitary hormone (i) Steriod 181. Which one of the following characteristics is not
(b) Epinephrine (ii) Neuropeptides shared by birds and mammals ?
(c) Endorphins (iii) Peptides, proteins (1) Ossified endoskeleton
(d) Cortisol (iv) Biogenic amines (2) Breathing using lungs
(1) (a)–(iv), (b)–(i), (c)–(ii), (d)–(iii) (3) Viviparity
(2) (a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(ii), d–(i) (4) Warm blooded nature
(3) (a)–(iv), (b)–(iii), (c)–(i), (d)–(ii) 182. Followingg are the statements with reference
(4) (a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(i), (d)–(ii) to ‘lipids’.
176. A marine cartilaginous fish that can produce (a) Lipids having only single bonds are called
electric current is : unsaturated fatty acids
(1) Pristis (2) Torpedo (b) Lecithin is a phospholipids
(3) Trygon (4) Scoliodon (c) Trihydroxy propane is glycerol
177. Which of the following animals is not viviparous (d) Palmitic acid has 20 carbon atom including
(1) Elephant (2) Platypus carboxyl carbon
(3) Whale (4) Flying fox (Bat) (e) Arachidonic acid has 16 carbon atoms.
178. Which of the following represents the correct Choose the correct answer from the options
combination without any exception ? given below
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (c) and (d) only
(3) (b) and (c) only (4) (b) and (e) only
183. If the head of cockroach is removed, it may live
for few days because
(1) the head holds a 1/3 rd of a nervous system
while the rest is situated along the dorsal part
of its body
(2) the supra-oesophageal ganglia of the
cockroach are situated in ventral part of system
(3) The cockroach does not have nervous system
(4) The head holds a small proportion of a
nervous system while the rest is situated along
the ventral part of its body.
184. In cockroach, identify the parts of the foregut
in correct sequence :
(1) Mouth  Oesophagus  Pharynx  Crop
 Gizzard
(2) Mouth  Crop  Phar ynx 
179. A jawless fish, which lays eggs in fresh water Oesophagus  Gizzard
(3) Mouth  Gizzard  Crop  Pharynx 
whose ammocoetes leavae after metamorphosis
Oesophagus
returns to the ocean in
(4) Mouth  Pharynx  Oesophagus  Crop
(1) Petromyzan (2) Eptatretus  Gizzard
(3) Myxine (4) Neomyxine 185. Which of the following chracteristics is incorrect
180. Which of the following characteristic features with respect to cockroach ?
always holds true for the corresponding group (1) A ring of gastric caeca is present at the
of animals ? junction of midgut and hind gut.
(1) Cartilaginous Chondrichthyes (2) Hypopharynx lies within the cavity enclosed
(2) Viviparous Mammalia by the mouth parts
(3) In females, 7th–9th sterna together from a
(3) Possess a mount Chordata
genital pouch.
with an upper and a
(4) 10th abdominal segment in both sexes,
lower jaw
bears a pair of anal cerci.

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 Rank AIIMS _ Test
Booster 10.05.2019
[15.03.2024]
(1) Shark (2) Frog
(3) Lizard (4) Whale
186. Frogs differ from the humans in possessing : 193. Body having meshwork of cells, internal cavities
(1) Thyroid as well as parathyroid lines with food filtering flagellated cells and
(2) Paired cerebral hemispheres indirect developement are the characteristics
(3) Hepatic portal system of phylum :
(4) Nucleated red blood cells (1) Protozoa (2) Coelenterata
187. Select the correct route for the passage of (3) Porifera (4) Mollusca
sperms in male frog : 194. Identify the basic amino acid from the following
(1) Test es  Vasa efferentia  Kidney (1) Valine (2) Tyrosine
 Sem inal vesicle  Uri nogenita l duct (3) Gluatamic Acid (4) Lysine
 Cloaca 195. Which of the following is the most abundant
(2) Tests  Vasa efferentia  Bidder’s canal protein in the animals ?
 Ureter  Cloaca (1) Insulin (2) Haemoglobin
(3) Testes  Vasa efferentia  Kidney  (3) Collagen (4) Lectin
Bidder’s canal  Urinogenital duct  Cloaca 196. Identify the substance having glycosidic bond
(4) Testes  Bidder’s canal  Kidney  Vasa and peptide bond, respectively in their structure
efferentia  Urinogenital duct  Cloaca (1) Inulin, Insulin (2) Chitin, Cholesterol
188. Frog’s heart when taken out of the body (3) Glycerol, trypsin (4) Cellulose, lecithin
continuous to beat for sometimes. 197. Identify the statement which is incorrect
Select the best option from the following statements (1) Sulphur is an integral part of cysteine
(a) Frog is a poikilotherm (2) Glycine is an example of lipids
(b) Forg does not have any coronary circulation (3) Lecithin contains phosphorus atom in its
(c) Heart is “Myogenic” in nature structure
(d) Heart is autoexcitable (4) Tyrosine possesses aromatic ring in its structure
Option 198. Which of the following are not secondary
(1) Only d (2) a and b metabolites in plants ?
(3) c and d (4) Only c (1) Morphine, codeine
189. The active form of Entamoeba histolytica feeds (2) Amino acids, glucose
upon : (4) Vinblastin, curcumin
(1) mucosa and submucosa of colon only (4) Rubber, gums
(2) food in intestine 199. Match List - I with List - II
(3) blood only List - I List - II
(4) erythrocytes; mucosa & submucosa of colon (a) Protein (i) C=C double bonds
190. Which of the following endoparasites of humans (b) Unsaturated (ii) Phosphodiester
does show viviparity ? fatty acid bonds
(1) Enterobius vermicularis (c) Nucleic acid (iii) Glycosidic bonds
(2) Trichinells spiralis (d) Polysaccharide (iv) Peptide bonds
(3) Ascaris lumbricoides Choose the correct answer from the option given
(4) Ancylostoma duodenale below
191. Metagenesis refers to : (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) Presence of a segmented body and (1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
parthenogenetic mode of reproduction (2) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(2) Presence of different morphic forms (3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(3) Alternation of generation between asexual (4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
and sexual phases of an organism 200. Identify the incorrect pair
(4) Occurrence of a drastic change in form (1) Alkaloids – Codeine
during post-embryonic development (2) Toxin – Abrin
192. Which one of the following animals has two (3) Lectins – Concanavalin A
separate circulatory pathways ? (4) Drugs – Ricin

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