All India Test Series [20.03.

2024]
04. Figure shows a planet in an elliptical orbit around
the Sun S. Where is the kinetic energy of the
SECTION - A planet is maximum at ?
01. A projectile is fired vertically upwards from the
surface of the earth with a velocity kve’ where ve
is the escape velocity and k < 1. If R is the radius
of the earth, then find maximum distance from
centre of earth is (neglect air resistance) :

1  k2 R (1) P1 (2) P2
(1) (2)
R 1  k2
(3) P3 (4) P4.
R 05. If we increase the temperature of the system,
(3) R (1 – k)2 (4) .
1  k2 then which of the following will increase ?
02. If three uniform spheres, each having mass M
and radius R, are kept in such a way that each L
touches the other two, the magnitude of the
gravitational force on any sphere due to the other a
two is :
(1) only L D
GM2 2GM2
(1) (2) (2) L, a and b b
4R 2 R2
(3) L, a, b and D
2GM2 3GM2 (4) L, a and b will increase while D will decrease
(3) (4) .
4R 2 4R 2
06. The given diagram shows four processes, i.e.
03. A uniform ring of mass m and radius r is placed isochoric, isobaric, isothermal and adiabatic. The
directly above a uniform sphere of mass M and correct assignment of the processes, in the same
of equal radius. The centre of the ring is direrctly order is given by
above the centre of the sphere at a distance r 3
as shown in the figure. The gravitational force
exerted by the sphere on the ring will be :

GMm GMm fig

(1) (2)
8r 2 4r 2 (1) d a b c (2) a d b c

GMm GMm (3) d a c b (4) a d c b

(3) 3 (4) .
8r2 8r 3 3

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 All India Test Series [20.03.2024]
07. An ideal monoatomic gas at 300 K expands Does the electronscope acquire a charge ?
adiabatically to twice its volume. What is the
(1) Yes, it acquires a positive charge

final temperature ? 4  1.59
1/3
 (2) Yes, it acquires a negative charge
(1) 189 K (2) 289 K (3) No, it does not acqure a charge
(3) 89 K (4) 213 K (4) Its acquiring the charge depends on the work
08. If some amount of ice is mixed with hot water at function of the metal
100 C in such a way that heat released by ice 12. A particle of mass 4m at rest decay into two
when melts completely is greater than the heat particles of masses m and 3m having nonzero
absorbed by hot water to come at 00 C , then at velocities. The ratio of the de Broglie wavelengths
of the particles 1 and 2 is
steady state
(1) The mixture have ice only and temperature (1) 1 / 2 (2) 1 / 4
is 00 C (3) 2 (4) 1
(2) the mixture is having water and temperature 13. A nucleus A, with a finite de – Broglie wavelength
A, undergoes spntaneous fission into two nuclei
lower than 10 C0
B and C of equal mass. B flies in the same
(3) The mixture has ice and water and directions as that of A, while C files in the opposite
temperature is 00 C direction with a velocity equal to half of that of
B. The de – Broglie wavelength B and C of B
(4) The mixture has ice and water and and C respectively
temperature is greater than 00 C
A
(1) 2 A ,  A (2) , A
09. Temperature of body drops from 500 C to 400 C 2
in 5 min and to 300 C in next 10 min.
A
Temperature of the body after another 10 min, is (3)  A ,2 A (4)  A ,
2
(1) 24.30 C (2) 26.7 C
14. The angular momentum of an electron in the
(3) 27.10 C (4) 27.90 C
3h
hydrogen atom is . Here h is Planck’s
10. A cylindrical rod with one end in a steam 2
chamber and the other end of ice results in constant. The kinetic energy of this electron is
melting of 0.1 g of ice per second. If the rod is (1) 4.53 eV (2) 1.51 eV
replaced by another with half the length and
(3) 3.4 eV (4) 6.8 eV
double the radius of the first and if the thermal
conductivity of material of second rod is 1/4 that 15. The ratio of maximum wavelength of the Lyman
series in hydrogen spectrum to maximum
of first, the rate at which ice melts in g/s will be wavelength in Paschen series is
(1) 0.4 (2) 0.05 3 6
(1) (2)
(3) 0.2 (4) 0.1 105 15

11. A beam of ultraviolet light is incident on the metal 52 7

(3) (4)
ball of an electroscope that is initially uncharged. 7 108

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 All India Test Series [20.03.2024]
16. Whenever a photon is emitted by hydrogen atom 19. If an atom of 235
92 U , after absorbing a slow
in Balmer series, it is followed by another photon
neutron, undergoes fission to form an atom of
in Lyman series. What wavelength does this latter
140 94
photon corresponds to ? 54 Xe and an atom of 38 Sr , the other particles
(1) 103 nm (2) 122 nm produced are :
(1) one proton and two neutrons
(3) 91.3 nm (4) It can have any value
(2) three neutrons
17. In hydrogen like atom, if the electron transists
(3) two neutrons
from lower energy state to higher energy state
then which of the following statement is correct? (4) one proton and one neutron.

(1) KE of electron and PE of atom both increase 20. On bombardment of U235 by slow neutrons, 200
MeV energy is released. If the power output of
(2) KE of electron and PE of atom both decrease atomic reactor is 1.6 MW, then the rate of fission
(3) KE increases while PE decreases will be :
(4) KE decreases while PE increases (1) 5 × 1016 per second
18. Match the following columns. (2) 10 × 1016 per second
Column I Column II (3) 15 × 1016 per second
(A) Radius of orbit is (p) is propotional to Z (4) 20 × 1016 per second.
related with atomic
21. Consider the nuclear fission reaction W  X +
number (Z) Y. What is the Q – value (energy released) of the
(B) Current associated (q) is inversely reaction ?
due to orbital motion propotion to Z
electron with atomic
number (Z)
(C) Magnetic field at centre (r) is proportional to
due to orbital motion of Z2
electron related with (Z)
(D) Velcity of an electron (s)is propotional to
related with atomic Z3
number (Z)
(1) A  q,B  r, C  s, D  p
(1) E1N1  (E2N2  E3N3 )
(2) A  r,B  q, C  s, D  p

(3) A  r,B  p, C  s, D  q (2) (E2N2  E3N3  E1N1 )

(4) None of these (3) E2N2  E1N1  E3N3

(4) E1N1  E3N3  E2N2 .

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 All India Test Series [20.03.2024]
22. Match the following two columns.
Column I Column II
(a) The energy of air (p) 0.02 eV
molecular at room
temperature
(b) Binding energy of heavy (q) 2 eV
nuclei per nucleon (1) (2)
(c) X-ray photon energy (r) 10 keV
(d) Photon energy of visibe light (s) 7 MeV
(1) (a)  p (b)  s (c)  r (d)  q (3) (4) None of these
(2) (a)  p (b)  s (c)  r (d)  s
25. Select the incorrect statement
(3) (a)  q (b)  s (c)  r (d)  q
(1) Diffusion current in the diode is due to
(4) None difference in concentration of charge carriers and
from p-side to n-side of the crystal
23. If each diode in figure has forward bias resistance
(2) Drift current is due to movement of bond
of 25  and infinite resistance is reverse bias, electrons into conduction band, in depeletion
what will be the values of the currents I1, I2, I3 region. It is from n-side to p-side of the crystal
and I4?
(3) PN-junction is a non-ohmic resistance.
(4) Zener diode is used in forward biased
26. Select the correct option
(1) In forwar bias, the current is due to majority
carriers and mA order, while in reverse bias the
current is due to minority carriers and of A order
(2) Zener diode is highy doped diode and always
uses in reverse bias. Zener diode is used for voltage
stabilization.
(3) PN-junction is a non-ohmic resistance
(1) I1  50mA (2) I2  I4  25mA
(4) All of the above
(3) I3  0 (4) All of the above 27. The anode voltage of a photocell is kept fixed. The
24. Draw the output signals C 1 in the given wavelength  of the light falling on the cathode is
combination of gates. gradually changed. The plate current I of photocell
varies as follows :

(1) (2)

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 All India Test Series [20.03.2024]

(1) Fringes will not be formed

(2) The positions of minimum intensity will not
(3) (4)
be completely dark
(3) Bright fringe will not be formed at the centre
28. When ray light chages a medium which of the of the screen
following does not change? (4) Distance between two consecutive bright
(1) Wavelength (2) Speed fringes will not be equal to the distance two
consecutive dark fringes
(3) Frequency (4) Amplitude
34. Marks the correct option
29. The dimensions of dispersive power is :
(1) In an interferecne pattern, the minima are
(1) M L T 
0 1 0
(2) M L T 
0 0 0
usually almost perfectly dark while in a
diffraction pattern they are not so
(3) M LT  (4) ML T 
1 2
0 2
(2) In an interference pattern, all the maxima
are of same intensity but not so in the
30. A thin glass (  1.5) lens has power –5D in air. diffraction pattern
Its power in a medium having RI 1.6 will be : (3) In interference fringes are usually
equispaced but diffraction fringes are never
5 5
(1) D (2)  D equally spaced
8 8
(4) All of the above
25 25
(3)  D (4) D 35. Statement I In single slit diffraction, if slit is
8 8
made narrower, central maximum becomes wider.
31. A ray of light is incident at small angle i on the
surface of prism of small angle A and emerges Statement II Presence of light in shadow is due
normally form the opposite surface. If the to diffraction.
refractive index of the material of the prism is
 the angle of incidence is nearly equal to (1) If both assertion and reason are true and
reason is the correct explanation of assertion
A A (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
(1) (2) reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
 2

(3) A (4) A /2 (3) If assertion is true but reason is false

(4) If both assertion and reason are false
32. A glass slab of thickness 4 cm contains the same
number of waves as 5 cm of water when both are
traversed by the same monochromatic light.If the
refractive index of water is 4/3, what is the 36. The following figure represents a wavefrong AB
refractive index of glass ? which passes from air to another transparent
(1) 5/3 (2) 5/4 medium and produces a new wavefront CD after
refraction. The refractive index of the medium is
(3) 16/15 (4) 3/2.
(PQ is the boundary between air and the medium)
33. In a young’s double slit experiment, if the slits
are of unequal width,

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 All India Test Series [20.03.2024]
B 40. Two particels are in SHM with same amplitude
and frequency along the same straight line from
Air same mean position. They cross one another
without collision, when going in opposite
 direction, each time their displaccement is
P A  D Q

3/5th of their amplitude from equilibrium
 Medium
position. The phase difference between them is

 3 4
 sin37  , sin53  
0 0

C  5 5

cos 1 cos 4 (1) 740 (2) 1200

(1) cos  (2) cos 
4 1
(3) 900 (4) 1060
sin 1 sin 2 41. Two blocks each having a mass of 3.2 kg are
(3) sin  (4) sin  connected by a wire CD and the system is
4 3
suspended from the ceiling by another wire AB.
37. A hollow metal sphere, filled with water, having The linear mass density of the wire AB is 10 g/m
a small hole at bottom is hung by a long thread. and that of CD is 8g/m. Find the speed of
If it is allowed to oscillate, then time period transverse wave pulse produced in AB.

(1) remains constant A

(2) increases continuously B
(3) decreases continuously
C
(4) first increases then deceases and returns to D
orginal value
38. A highly rigid cubical block A of mass m and sides (1) 80m/s (2) 63.24 m/s
 is placed on another cube B of same dimension (3) 50m/s (4) None.
and rigidity  . A small horizontal force F is 42. The diplacement-time graphs for two sound waves A
applied on A and removed. IF lower end of B with and B are shown in the figure, then the ratio of their
ground and upper end of B with block A are rigidly intensities IA / IB is equal to
held, then its period of oscillation is
2
m m A
(1) p (2) 2
  1
B
m 2 m 0
(3) 2 (4)
  
C
–1
39. Damping force decreases amplitude of oscillation
(1) linearly (2) quadratically –2

(3) simple harmonically (4) expoentially (1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 16 (3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 1

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 All India Test Series [20.03.2024]
43. Two forks A and B when sounded together (1) becomes concave towards A Frame
produce 4 beat/s. The fork A is in unison with
(2) becomes convex towards A A
30 cm length of a sonometer wire and B is in
unison with 25 cm length of the same wire at the (3) either (1) or (2) depending B
same tension. Calculate the frequency of the Thread
forks. on the size A with respect to B

(1) fA  20Hz, fB  16Hz (4) remains in the initial position

48. When equal volumes of two substance are mixed,
(2) fA  20Hz, fB  24Hz
the specific gravity of the mixture is 4. When
(3) fA  24Hz, fB  28Hz equal weights of the same substance are mixed,
the specific gravity of the mixture is 3. The
(4) None specific gravities of the two substances could be
44. An organ pipe closed at one end has fundamental (1) 6 and 2 (2) 3 and 4
frequency of 1400 Hz. The number of overtones
a normal person can hear is : (3) 2.5 and 3.5 (4) 5 and 3

(1) 6 (2) 7 49. Three holes A,B and C are made at depths 1m,
2m and 5 m as shown. Total height of liquid in
(3) 13 (4) 14. the container is 8m. Let v is the speed with which
45. Amplitude of pressure variation for propagation liquid comes out of the hole and R the range on
of sound in a medium is 22 Pa at a frequency of ground. Match the following two columns.
1400 Hz. Find the displacement amplitude. Speed
of sound is 340 m/s and bulk modulus of medium
is B = 3.4 × 105 Pa :
A
(1) A  3.5  104 m (2) A  2.5 104 cm B

(3) A  2.5  103 m (4) A  2.5  102 m . C

46. A capillary tube is dipped in a liquid. Let

pressures at points A,B and C be PA , PB and PC
respectively then Column I Column II
B (1) v is maximum for (A) hole A
(1) PA  PB  PC
A (2) v is minimum for (B) hole B
C
(2) PA  PB  PC (3) R is maximum for (C) hole C
(3) PA  PC  PB (4) R is minimum for (D) will depends on
density of liquid
(4) PA  PC  PB
(1) 1  C,2  A, 3  C, 4  A
47. A thread is tied slightly loose to a wire frame as
in figure and the frame is dipped into a soap (2) 1  A,2  D, 3  C, 4  C
solution and taken out . The fram e is
completely covered with the film. When the (3) 1  A,2  D, 3  C, 4  B
portion A is punctured with a pin, the thread
(4) None of these

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 All India Test Series [20.03.2024]
50 Young’s moduli of two wires A and B are in the 55. Two moles of NH3 when put into a previously
ratio 7 : 4 Wire A is 2 m long and has radius R. evacuated vessel (one litre). Partially dissociated
Wire B is 1.5 m long and has radius 2 mm. If the into N2 and H2.If at equilibrium one mole of NH3
two wires stretch by the same length for a given is present, the equilibrium constant is
load, then the value of R is close to
(1) 3/4 mol2 litre–2 (2) 27/64 mol2 litre–2
(1) 1.3 mm (2) 1.5 mm
(3) 27/32 mol2 litre–2 (4) 27/16 mol2 litre–2
(3) 1.9 mm (4) 1.7 mm
56. 
A  B  C  D . If initially the conc. of A and
B are both equal but at equilibrium conc. of D
SECTION - A will be twice of that of A then what will be the
51. What is the change in internal energy when a equilibrium constant of reaction
gas contracts from 377 mL to 177 mL under a
constant pressure of 1520 torr, while at the same 4 9
(1) (2)
time being cooled by removing 124 J heat : 9 4
(1) 40.52 J (2) – 83.48 J 1
(3) (4) 4
(3) – 248 J (4) None of these 9
52. One mole of ice is converted into water at 273 57. Which reaction is not effected by change in
K. The entropies of H2O(s) and H2O(l) are 38.20 pressure
and 60.01 J mol –1 K–1 respectively. The enthalpy
change for the conversion is : 
(1) 2C  O2  2CO
(1) 59.54 J mol–1 (2) 5954 J mol–1

(2) N 2  3H 2  2NH 3
(3) 595.4 J mol–1 (4) 320.6 J mol–1
53. A person requires 2870 kcal of energy to lead 
(3) H 2  I 2  2HI
normal daily life. If heat of combustion of cane
sugar is – 1349 kcal. Then his daily consumption 
(4) PCl5  PCl3  Cl2
of sugar is :
58. Assertion : Solubility of AgCN in acidic solution
(1) 728 g (2) 0.728 g
is greater than that in pure water.
(3) 342 g (4) 0.342 g
Reason : Solubility equilibria of AgCN in acidic
54. Based on the values of B.E. given, f H of solution is shifted in forward direction due to
formation of HCN
N2H4(g) is :
(1) If both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
Given : N – N = 159 kJ mol–1; H – H = 436 kJ correct explanation of (A)
mol–1;
(2) If both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not
N  N  941 kJ mol–1; N – H =398 kJ mol–1 the correct explanation of (A)
(1) 711 kJ mol–1 (2) – 98 kJmol–1 (3) If (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(3) 62 kJ mol–1 (4) – 711 kJ mol–1 (4) (A) and (R) both are wrong

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 All India Test Series [20.03.2024]
59. 40 mL of 0.1 M ammonia solution is mixed with 66. Crystal field stabilization energy for high spin
20 mL of 0.1 M HCl. What is the pH of the d4 octahedral complex is
mixture . (pKb of ammonia solution is 4.74)
(1) 1.8  0 (2) 1.6 0  P
(1) 4.74 (2) 2.26
(3) 9.26 (4) 5.00 (3) 1.2 0 (4) 0.6 0
60. The solubility product of As2O3 is 10.8 × 10–9. 67. Both geometrical and optical isomerism are
It is 50% dissociated in saturated solution. The shown by
solubility of salt is
(1) [Co (en )2Cl 2 ] (2) [Co (NH 3 )5 Cl ]2 
(1) 10–2 (2) 2 × 10-2
(3) 5 × 10–3 (4) 5.4 ×10–9 (3) [Co(NH 3 )4 Cl 2 ] (4) [Cr (ox )3 ]3 
61. A monobasic weak acid solution has molarity 68. Which of the following species represents the
of 0.005 and pH of 5. What is the percentage example of dsp2 – hybridisation ?
ionisation in this solution
(1) 0.25 (2) 0.5 (1) [Fe (CN )6 ]3  (2) [Ni (CN )4 ]2

(3) 2.0 (4) 0.2 (3) [ Ag (CN )2 ] (4) [Co (CN )6 ]3 

62. Identify the process in which change in the
69. The complex showing a spin – only magnetic
oxidation state is five
moment of 2.82 BM is
(1) Cr2O 72  2Cr 3  (2) MnO 4  Mn 2
(1) Ni (CO )4 (2) [Ni (Cl )4 ]2 
(3) CrO 42  Cr 3  (4) C2O42  2CO2
(3) Ni (PPh 3 )4 (4) [Ni (CN )4 ]2
63. The compound that cannot act both as oxidising
and reducing agent is 70. The anion of acetyl acetone (acac) forms
Co(acac)3 chelate with Co3+. The rings of the
(1) H2SO3 (2) H3PO4
chelate are
(3) HNO2 (4) H2O2
(1) Five membered (2) Four membered
64. Which of the following complex is paramagnetic,
(3) Six membered (4) Three membered
inner orbital complex and coloured ?
71. Assertion : [M(AA)3 ]n± is optically inactive.
(1) [Ni (NH 3 )6 ]2 (2) [Co(H 2O )6 ]2
Reason : Plane of symmetry is not present but
centre of symmetry is present .
(3) [Ti (H 2O )6 ]3  (4) [Co (NH 3 )6 ]3 
(1) If both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
65. The pair in which both species have same correct explanation of (A)
magnetic moment is
(2) If both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not
(1) [Cr (H 2O )6 ]2  , [Co(Cl )4 ]2  the correct explanation of (A)
(2) [Cr (H 2O )6 ]2  , [Fe (H 2O )6 ]2  (3) If (A) is correct but (R) is wrong

(3) [Mn (H 2O )6 ]2  ,[Cr (H 2O )6 ]2  (4) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct

(4) [Co (Cl )4 ]2  ,[Fe (H 2O )6 ]2 

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 All India Test Series [20.03.2024]
72. The correct formula of diammine dichlorodicyano 77. Compounds A and C in the following reaction
chromate (III) is are CH 3CHO 
(i )CH 3 MgBr H 2SO4 , 
( A )  B 
Hydroboration
C
(ii )H 2O (ii )oxidation

(1) [CrCl 2 (CN )2 (NH 3 )2 ]3 (1) identical (2) positional isomers

(2) [CrCl 2 (CN )2 (NH 3 )2 ]3 (3) functional isomers (4) optical isomers
I 2  NaOH H 2SO4 /HgSO4
78. CH 3COCH 3   X 
Ag
Y  Z
(3) [CrCl 2 (CN )2 (NH 3 )2 ] Heat Heat Heat

compound ‘Z’ is
(4) [CrCl 2 (CN )2 (NH 3 )2 ]
(1) HCHO (2) CH3CHO
73. CH 3CHBrCH 3 
alc .KOH
X 
HBr
Peroxide
Y 
CH 3ONa
Z; (3) CH2 = CH2 (4) CH3COOH
‘Z’ is 
79. CH 3Br 
Mg /ether
 X 
(i )CO2
(ii )water
Y 
CH 3OH , H
Z
(1) CH 3CH (OH )CH 3 (2) CH 3CH 2OCH 2CH 3
compound ‘Z’ is
(3) CH 3CH 2CH 2  OH (4) CH 3CH 2CH 2OCH 3
(1) CH3COOCH3 (2) CH3COOH
74. In the following sequence of reactions, (3) CH3CH2COCH3 (4) CH3CH2CH2CH3

( i )N a O H
80. Assertion : In the presence of alkaline KMnO4
 
O le u m
 P    Q
f u s io n
( ii ) H  4 – methylacetophenone is oxidised to benzoic
acid .
the compound Q formed will be Reason : Keto group is oxidised to – COOH group
(1) aniline (2) Phenol (1) If both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
(3) benzaldehyde correct explanation of (A)
(4) benzene sulphonic acid (2) If both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A)
75. Which of the following are the products shown
by the reaction of methoxyethane with HI (3) If (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(1) C2H5I + CH3OH (2) CH3I + H2O (4) (A) and (R) both are wrong
(3) C2H5OH + H2O (4) C2H5OH + CH3I 81. Which of the following compound will not
undergo azo coupling reaction with benzene
76. Which of the following alcohols gives the best
diazonium chloride
yield of dialkyl ether on being heated with a trace
of sulphuric acid (1) Aniline (2) Phenol
(1) 2 – pentanol (3) Anisole (4) Nitrobenzene
(2) 2 – methyl – 2 – butanol
Br2 /KOH
(3) 2 – propanol 82. 
PCl5
 P 
2NH 3
 Q   Q ; ‘Q’ is
(4) 1 – pentanol
(1) Aniline (2) Pnenol
(3) Benzene
(4) Benzenediazonium chloride
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 All India Test Series [20.03.2024]
83. The end product z of the reaction 89. Consider the following compound

Ethyla min e 

HNO2
 X 
PCl5
Y 
KCN
Z; z (I) C6H5COCl

is
(II)
(1) Propanenitrile (2) triethylamine
(3) diethylamine (4) Propylamine
(III)
84. Proteins are condensation polymers of

(1)   amino acids (2)   amino acids (IV)

(3)   hydroxy acids (4)   hydroxy acids the correct decreasing order of their reactivity
85. The conversion of maltose into glucose is possible towards hydrolysis is
by the enzyme (1) II > IV > III > I (2) II > IV > I > III
(1) zymase (2) lactase (3) IV > II > I > III (4) I > II > III > IV
(3) maltase (4) diastase 90. An organic amino compound reacts with
aqueous nitrous acid at low temperature to
produce an oily nitrosoamine. The compound
is

86. phenol (i )NaOH
(ii )CO2 /140C
 A 
H /H 2O
B 
Ac 2O
C (1) CH3NH2 (2) CH3CH2NH2
the end product C is (3) (CH3CH2)3N
(1) Salicyladehyde (2) Salicylic acid (4) CH3CH2 – NHCH2CH3
(3) Phenyl acetate (4) aspirin 91. Which of the following statements is not correct
87. The major product formed when 3, 3 – dimethyl (1) La(OH)3 is less basic than Lu(OH)3
butan – 2 – ol is heated with conc. sulphuric (2) In lanthanide series ionic radius of Ln3+
acid is
ion decreases
(1) 3, 3 – dimethyl – 1 – butene
(3) La is actually an element of transition
(2) 2, 3 – dimethyl – 2 – butene series rather lanthanide
(3) 2, 3 – dimethyl – 1 – butene (4) Atomic radius of Zr and Hf are same because
(4) None of these of Lanthanide contraction.
88. The enol – form of acetone after treatment with 92. The reason for greater range of oxidation states
D2O/OD– gives in actinoids is attributed to
(1) the radioactive nature of actinoids
(1) (2) (2) actinoid contraction
(3) 5f, 6d and 7s levels having comparable
energies
(3) (4)
(4) 4f and 5d levels being close in energies

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 All India Test Series [20.03.2024]
93. When 1 mole of CrCl 3.6 H2O is treated with 99. 1 mole each of CO(g), H2O(g), H2(g) and CO2(g)
excess of AgNO3, 3 moles of AgCl are obtained. are place in 1 L flask at 25°C. When following
The formula of the complex is equilibrium is setup
(1) [CrCl3(H2O)3 ].3H2O (2) [CrCl2(H2O)4 ]Cl.2H2O 
CO (g )  H 2O (g )  CO2 (g )  H 2 (g )
(3) [CrCl (H 2O )5 ]Cl 2 .H 2O (4) [Cr (H 2O )6 ]Cl 3 Kp = 9. Hence CO2 present at equilibrium is
94. Which of the following compounds exhibits (1) 0.5 mol (2) 1.5 mol
linkage isomerism ?
(3) 0.25 mol (4) 3.0 mol
(1) [Co(en )3 ]Cl 3 (2) [Co(NH3 )6 ][Cr (en )3 ] 100. The value of n in the reaction

(3) [Co(en )2 NO2Cl ]Br (4) [Co(NH 3 )5 Cl ]Br2 Cr2O72  14H   nFe 2  2Cr 3  nFe 3  7H 2O
will be
95. In which of the following octahedral complexes
of Co (atomic number =27), will have highest (1) 2 (2) 3
magnitude of  0 (3) 6 (4) 7

(1) [Co(CN )6 ]3 (2) [Co(C2O 4 )3 ]3 

(3) [Co (H 2O )6 ]3  (4) [Co (NH 3 )6 ]3  SECTION - A

101. Which of the following is a dominant trait
96. The entropy change involved in the isothermal
reversible expansion of 2 moles of an ideal gas choosen by Mendal for a Pea plant ?
from a volume of 10 dm3 to volume of 100 dm3 (1) Green pod (2) Green seed
at 27° C is (3) Yellow pod (4) Constricted pod
102. Among the seven character of pea as studied
(1) 38.3 J mol 1K 1 (2) 35.8 J mol 1K 1
by Mendal, the number of trait related to flower
(3) 32.3J mol 1K 1 (4) 42.3 J mol 1K 1 pod and seed respectively are :
(1) 2, 2, 1 (2) 3, 2, 2,
97. A gas is cooled and loses 50 J of heat. The gas (3) 2, 2, 2 (4) 1, 2, 2
contracts as it cools and work done on the 103. Both the phenotypic and genotypic ratio is 1 :
system equal to 20 J is exchanged with the
2 : 1 in the F2 generation of :
surrounding. Hence E is
(1) Incomplete dominance
(1) 70 J (2) – 30 J (2) Codominance
(3) 30 J (4) – 70 J (3) Dominance
98. If x mole of lead acetate and 0.1 mole of actic (4) Both (1) and (2)
acid in 1L solution make a solution of pH = 5.04. 104. An example of incomplete dominance is the
Then, find the value of x, If pKa of CH3COOH flower colour inheritance in
is 4.74 (1) Mirabilis Jalapa (4 O’clock flower)
(1) 0.2 mol (2) 0.05 mol (2) Antirrhinum majus (Dog flower or snapdragon
(3) Hibiscus
(3) 0.1 mol (4) 0.02 mol
(4) Both (1) and (2)

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 All India Test Series [20.03.2024]
105. How many types of the genotype and phenotypes 114. How many nucleosome are approximately
respectively are possible in the ABO-blood present in a human somatic cell made of
groups system in human beings : 6.6  109 bp ?
(1) 4, 6 (2) 6, 4 (1) 3.3  109 (2) 6.6  107
(3) 3, 2 (4) 2, 3 (3) 6.6  10 5 (4) 3.3  107
106. A total of 512 seeds are collected from the cross 115. In an analysis of nucleotide composition of DNA,
AaBb×AaBb. Find the n umber of plants which of the following would be found ?
produced with the first dominant and second (1) A = G and T = C (2) A + C = G + T
recessive trait : (3) A = C (4) G + C = T + A
(1) 35 (2) 350 116. The number of nucleotide present in the DNA
(3) 96 (4) 285 wrapped around a histone octamer in a
107. The cross over frequencies between the genes nucleosome is :
A and B; A and C; B and C is 8%, 17%, 25% (1) 400 (2) 200
respectively. What is the possible sequence of (3) 250 (4) 800
genes on chromosomes ? 117. If a hybrid DNA molecule labelled with N15 is
(1) ABC or CBA (2) BAC allowed to replicate twice in a medium containing
(3) ACB (4) BAC or CAB N14 the percentage of hybrid DNA will be :
108. A couple heterozygous for sickle cell anemia, (1) 50% (2) 12.5%
expects a baby. What are the chances of their, (3) 25% (4) 75%
having a complete normal baby. 118. The model for semi-conservative DNA replication
(1) 25% (2) 75% was initially put forward by
(3) 50% (4) 65% (1) Messelson and Stahl
109. A lady with Down’s syndrome marries a normal (2) Watson and Crick
man what are the chances of having affected (3) Wilkins and Franklin
babies ? (4) Nirenberg and Matthew
(1) 50% (2) 25% 119. Messelson and Stahl proved the
(3) 75% (4) 80 semiconservative DNA replication by using :
110. How many unique gametes could be produced (1) Radioactive nitrogen
through the independent assortment by an (2) Heavy isotope of nitrogen
individual with the genotype AaBBCcDdee ? (3) Radioactive carbon
(1) 8 (2) 4 (4) Heavy isotope of carbon
(3) 2 (4) 16 120. Splicing means
111. A distance between the genes and percentage (1) Removal of introns (2) Joining of exons
of recombination shows : (3) Removal of exons (4) Both (1) and (2)
(1) A direct relationship 121. Transcription initiation with correct promoter
(2) An inverse relationship binding requires _____ factor :
(3) A parallel relationship (1) sigma  (2) rho 
(4) No relationship (3) alpha  (4) omega 
112. How many type of gametes can be formed from 122. Some exceptions to the rule of universality of
the genotype AaBbCc when the last two genes codons have been found in :
are completely, linked ? (1) Mitochondrial codons
(1) 3 (2) 2 (2) Codon of some protozoans
(3) 6 (4) 4 (3) Most eukaryotes
113. Which of the following is found in a DNA ? (4) Both (1) and (2)
(1) dATP 123. The metabolism of lactose in E.Coli requires-
(2) GMP (1)  -galactosidase (2) transacetylase
(3) dUMP (3) Permease (4) All of these
(4) Deoxyribonucleoside monophosphate 124. Ecologically, the most important factor is :
(1) Rainfall (2) Temperature
(3) Light (4) Humidity
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 All India Test Series [20.03.2024]
125. Humus is : range of -
(1) Dark coloured amorphous substance (1) 0.1 to 0.2 (2) 0.1 to 1.15
(2) Slightly alkaline (3) 0.6 to 0.8 (4) 0.6 to 1.2
(3) Non-Colloidal substance and act as reservoir 135. In some cereals like rice and wheat, pollen grains
of nutrients lose viability within ______ but in members of
Rosaceae, Leguminosae and Solanaceae, Pollen
(4) Related with all of the above
viability is maintained for _____
126. Which of the following is a xerophytic adaptation.
(1) months, years
(1) Absence of CAM
(2) years, months
(2) Presence of thin cuticle (3) months, 30 minutes
(3) Sunken stomata present (4) 30 minutes, months
(4) Absence of C3 cycle
127. Mutualism and proto cooperation can be
represented as _____ whereas predation and 136. What is the ploidy level of the cells of the
parasitism can be represented as nucellus, megaspore mother cell, megaspore and
(1) +/– ; –/– (2) +/+ ; +/– female gametophyte in an angiospermic ovule
(3) +/+ ; –/– (4) +/0 ; –/0 respectively
128. Formation of tropical forests needs mean annual (1) n, 2n, n, 2n (2) n, n, 2n, 2n
temperature and mean annual precipitation as: (3) 2n, 2n, n, n (4) 2n, n, 2n, n
(1) 18-25°C and 150-400 cm 137. How many of the following statements are correct
(2) 5-15°C and 50-100 cm I. In a normal flower which opens and exposes
(3) 30-50°C and 100-150 cm anthers and stigma, complete autogamy is
(4) 5-15°C and 100-200 cm rather rare.
129. Under unf avour able condit ions many II. Viola, Oxalis and Commelina produce both
zooplankton species in lakes and ponds enter cleistogamous as well as chasmogamous
(1) Diapause (2) Hibernation flowers
(3) Aestivation (4) None of these III. Cleistogamous flowers produce assured seed
130. Which one of the following terms encompasses set even in the absence of pollination.
all the other ? IV. Xenogamy does not produce any variation
(1) Herbivores (2) Heterotrophs in the progenies after fertilization.
(3) Carnivores (4) Primary consumer (1) two (2) three
131. The annual net primary productivity of whole (3) one (4) four
biosphere is approximately ____x____ billion 138. In Zea mays, 20 chromosomes are present inthe
tons. The NPP of ocean is ____y____ billion tons cell of shoot apex, the number of chromosomes
whereas that of terrestrial is ____z____ billion in pollen grain, nucellus polar nuclei and
tons. aleurone layer cells will be respectively -
x, y and z respectively are - (1) 10, 30, 10, 20 (2) 20, 10, 10, 30
(1) 170, 115, 55 (2) 130, 50, 80 (3) 30, 10, 20, 20 (4) 10, 20, 10, 30
(3) 170, 155, 15 (4) 170, 55, 115 139. In chlorophyll-a of Ps-II has an absorption
132. Which of the following is the reservior for maxima at _____ whereas the chlorophyll a of
nitrogen in the nitrogen cycle ? Ps-I has an absorption maxima at _____.
(1) Atmosphere (1) 680 nm, 790 nm (2) 680 nm, 700 nm
(2) Sedimentary bedrock (3) 700 nm, 680 nm (4) 790 nm, 680 nm
(3) Soil 140. To synthesize one molecule of glucose the
(4) Fossilised plant and animal remains requirements of CO2 : ATP : NADPH  H in C3
133. India with only ____ world’s land area posses___ and C 4 plants are :
species diversity of the world C3 plant C4
(1) 2.4%, 8.2% (2) 8.1%, 2.4% (1) 6 : 30 : 12 6 : 18 : 12
(3) 4.8%, 16.2% (4) 16.2%, 8.1% (2) 1 : 5 : 2 1 : 3 : 2
134. In species area relationship among very large (3) 6 : 18 : 12 6 : 30 : 12
areas like entire continents, z value lies in the (4) 1 : 3 : 2 1 : 5 : 3
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 All India Test Series [20.03.2024]
141. Identify A, B, C and D in the given table 143. How many of the following statement are
incorrect ?
Characters C3 plant C4 plant I. During non-cyclic flow (z-scheme) both ATP
and NADH  H are synthesized in higher
CO2 fixation in high light A High plants
intensity II. During non-cyclic electron transport only
Photorespiration at low B Negligible Ps-I is functional
light intensity
III. Stroma lamella membrane lack Ps-II as well
Photorespiration at high High C as NADP  reductase
light intensity
IV. During cyclic electron tranport chain only
Photorespiration of CO2 Negligible D
concentration is high ATP is synthesized but not NADPH  H
V. Cyclic photophosphorylation occurs when
only light of wavelength beyond 680 nm are
A B C D
available for excitation.
(1) Low High Negligible High (1) five (2) four
(2) High High Negligible Negligible (3) three (4) two
(3) Negligible Negligible High High 144. Which option correctly defines the property of
(4) Low Negligible Negligible Negligible
vegetative and generative cell of a pollen grain?
142. Identify A, B, C and D in the match and slack
pathway shown below and select the correct option
Vegetative cell Generative cell

(1) Small Big

(2) Scanty food matter Abundant food

matter
(3) Large with irregular Spindle shaped
shaped nucleus cell
(4) Floats in the cytoplasm Floats in the
of generative cell cytoplasm of
vegetative cell

145. Find the incorrect one -

(1) Commensalism - Sea anemone & clown fish
(2) Mutualism - Mycorrhizae
(3) Coevolution - Fig and wasp
(4) Commensalism - Epiphytic orchid on mango
tree
146. Identify A, B, C and D in the diagram given below

A B C D
(1) CO2 Regeneration C3 C4
of RuBP acid acid
(2) HCO3 Regeneration C4 C4
of PEP acid acid
(3) CO2 Regeneration C4 C3
of RuBP acid acid
(4) HCO3 Regeneration C4 C3
of PEP acid acid

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 All India Test Series [20.03.2024]
A C B D
(1) Thylakoid Catalytic CF0 Facilitated 149. Match the column :
unit for diffusion Column I Column II
ATP channel
formation A. Ochre (i) UAG
(2) Thylakoid CF1 Cytochrome CF0
membrane B6F
B. Initiator (ii) UAA
C. Amber (iii) AUG
(3) Single Cytochrome CF0 CF1
membrane B6F D. Opal (iv) UGA
bound
structure A B C D
(4) Thylakoid CF0 Cytochrome CF1 (1) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
membrane B6F
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
147. Identify X, Y and Z in the given diagrammatic
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
representation of organismic response.
150. Choose the incorrect match with respect to
human genome project :
(1) Expressed sequence tags  Identifying all
the genes that are expressed as RNA
(2) Sequence Annotation  Sequencing both
coding and non-coding sequences then
assigning different regions with functions
(3) YAC and BAC  Clonning vectors
(4) Human chromosome number 22  The last
chromosome to be sequenced
X Y Z
(1) Conformers Regulators Partial ZOOLOGY
regulators SECTION - A
151. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
(2) Regulators Partial Conformers
regulator (1) Microbes are diverse
(2) Microbes can be grown on nutritive media
(3) Regulator Conformers Partial (3) Microbes are found at very specific location
regulators (4) Cultures are useful in studies on micro –
(4) Conformers Partial Regulator organisms
regulators 152. ______ Produced by bacterium streptococcus and
modified by genetic engineering is used as a clot
buster for removing clots from the blood vessels
148. What is represented by S, C, A and Z in the of patients who have undergone myocardial
equation of typical species area relationship infarction leading to heart attack.
graph [ S  CA Z ] (1) Lipase
(2) Streptokinase
(3) Cyclosporin A
S C A Z
(4) Antibiotic streptomycin
(1) Species Slope of Area Y-
153. Which one of the following statement regarding
richness line explored intercept
BOD is true ?
(2) Species Regression Area Y- (1) The greater the BOD of waste water, more
richness coefficient explored intercept is its polluting potential
(2) The lesser the BOD of waste water, more
(3) Species Y- Area Regression
richness intercept explored coefficient is its polluting potential
(3) The greater the BOD of waste water, less
(4) Species Y- Regression Area is its polluting potential
richness intercept coefficient explored
(4) None of the above

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 All India Test Series [20.03.2024]
154. When a natural Predator (living organism) is (3) Uracil, Cytosine – Pyrimidines
applied on the other pathogen organisms to (4) Guanine, adenine – Purines
control them, this process is called as 161. Which of the following statement is incorrect
(1) Genetic Engineering regarding secondary metabolites ?
(2) Artificial Control (1) Some secondary metabolites have ecological
(3) Confusion technique importance
(4) Biological control (2) Plant tissues produce secondary metabolites
155. Biofertilisers are organisms that enrich the (3) Abrin and ricin are secondary metabolites
nutrient quality of the soil. Which of the following used as a drugs
can be used as biofertilisers ? (4) Secondary metabolites have restricted
(1) Nitrogen fixing bacteria distribution in the plant kingdom
(2) Nitrogen fixing cyanobacteria 162. Which of the following is not an attribute of
(3) Mycorrhizae enzymes ?
(4) All of these (1) They are proteinaceous in nature
156. Microbes are used in (2) They are substrate specific in nature
(i) secondary treatment of sewage (3) They speed up rate of biochemical reaction
(ii) Primary treatment of sewage (4) They are used up in the reaction
(iii) Anaerobic sludge digester 163. Which of the following statements about
(iv) Production of bioactive molecules enzymes is incorrect ?
(1) (i), (iii), (iv) (1) Enzymes are highly specific
(2) (ii), (iii), (iv) (2) Most enzymes are proteins but some are
(3) (iii) and (iv) lipids
(4) All of the above (3) Enzymes require optimum pH for maximum
157. Match column I with column – II and choose activity
the correct option. (4) Enzymes are denatured at high temperature
Column – I Column – II but in certain exceptional organisms,they are
A. Statins I. yeast effective even at 80° –90°C.
B. Ethanol II. Blood – cholesterol 164. Which of the following statements does not hold
lowering agent true for the hormones ?
C. Dung III. Insect – resistant (1) They are used again and again like catalysts
plant (2) They are secreted directly into the blood
D. Bt – cotton IV. Biogas (3) They act on target organs away from the
(1) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III source glands
(2) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II (4) They are produced in very minute quantities
(3) A – IV, B – II, C – I, D – III and are biologically very active.
(4) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV 165. Gigantism and dwarfism are the disease related
158. Which of the following shows Zwitter ionic form to
(1) Thyroid stimulating hormone of thyroid
(2) Luteinising hormone of pituitary gland
(1) (2) (3) Growth hormone of adenohypophysis
(4) Prolactin hormone of mammary gland.
166. Which of the following sets of vertebrate
hormones are all produced in the anterior
(3) (4) None of these pituitary gland ?
(1) Estrogen, Progesterone, Testosterone
159. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
(2) Prolactin, Growth hormone, FSH
(1) Oils have lower melting temperature
(3) Somatostatin, Vasopressin, Insulin
(2) Lipid molecules are soluble in water.
(4) Oxytocin, Prolactin, Adrenocorticotropin
(3) Long chain molecules of fatty acids are
167. A pregnant female deliver a baby who suffers
formed by polymerization of 2 carbon compounds
from stunted growth, mental retardation/low
(4) In lipid, R group may be – CH3 group, C2H5
intelligence quotient and abnormal skin. This
group or high number of – CH2 group (1 to 19
is the result of
carbon)
(1) Cancer of thyroid gland
160. Which of the following pairs of nitrogenous bases
(2) Low secretion of growth hormone
of nucleic acids, is wrongly matched with the
(3) over secretion of pars distalis
category mentioned against it ?
(4) Deficiency of iodine in diet
(1) Adenine, thymine – Purines
168. Match the column I with column II and choose
(2) Thymine, Uracil – Pyrimidines
the correct option

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 All India Test Series [20.03.2024]
Column – I Column – II Column – I Column – II
A. Corpus Luteum I. Insulin A. Pseudocoelomates I. Hydra, Adamsia
B. Pituitary II. Progesterone B. Diploblastic II. Ctenophora,
C. Pancreas III. Growth hormones Aurelia
D. Adrenal Medulla IV. Adrenaline C. Cellular level of III. Ascaris,
(1) A – II, B – III, C – I, D – IV organization wuchereria
(2) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I D. Radial symmetry IV. sycon, spongilla
(3) A – III, B – II, C – IV, D – I (1) A – III, B – I, C – IV, D – II
(4) A – III, B – II, C – I, D – IV (2) A – I, B – II, C – IV, D – III
169. Which of the following statement about the (3) A – II, B – I, C – III, D – IV
hormone action in humans is correct ? (4) A – III, B – II, C – IV, D – I
(1) Secretion of thymosin is stimulated with 175. Muscle tissue cells are contractile, which means
ageing they
(2) Binding of a hormone to its receptor leads (1) help in the movement of involuntary organs
to the formation of a hormone – receptor complex only
(3) FSH stimulates the secretion of estrogen and (2) Are responsible for the production and
progesterone secretion of enzymes
(4) Glucagon is secreted by  – cells of islets (3) are specialised in contraction and relaxation
(4) All of the above
of langerhans and stimulates glycogenolysis
176. In a mammalian kidneys, Bowman’s capsules
170. Which of the following statements is correct
regarding a myelinated nerve fibre ? occur in (i ) while loop of Henle are situated
(i) It is always associated with an axon
(ii) It allows rapid conduction of nerve impulses in (ii )
(iii) It allows slow conduction of nerve impulses (1) (i) – pelvis (ii) – Medulla
(iv) It has nodes of Ranvier (2) (i) – cortex (ii) – Pelvis
(1) only (i) and (iii) (2) only (i), (ii) and (iii) (3) (i) – Medulla (ii) – Cortex
(3) only (i), (ii) and (iv) (4) (i) – cortex (ii) – Medulla
(4) only (i), (iii) and (iv) 177. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) in a healthy
171. Electrical current can flow directly from one individual is approximately
neuron into other across the synapses. Which (1) 120 ml/minute, i.e., 180 litres per day
of the following statements is/are correct ? (2) 125 ml/minute, i.e., 180 litres per day
(1) Impulse transmission across an electrical (3) 100 ml/minute, i.e., 120 litres per day
synapse is always faster than chemical synapse (4) 130 ml/minute, i.e.,120 litres per day
(2) Chemical synapse is faster from electrical 178. “X” causes reabsorption of “Y” and water from
synapse the distal parts of the tubule. This also leads
(3) Electrical synapse are rare in our system to an increase in “Z” and golmerular filtration
(4) Both (1) and (3) rate (GFR). Identify X, Y and Z
172. The _____ neuron receives signal from a sensory (1) X : aldosterone, Y : Na+, Z : Blood pressure
organ and transmits the impulse via a dorsal (2) X : ADH, Y : Na+, Z : Blood pressure
nerve root into the ______. The _____ neuron then (3) X : Aldosterone, Y : K+, Z : ionic concentration
carries signals from CNS to the _____ (4) X : ADH, Y : K+, Z : Blood pressure
(1) Afferent, CNS, efferent, effector 179. Striated muscles are associated with the skeletal
(2) Efferent, PNS, afferent, effector muscles which of the following statement
(3) efferent, PNS, afferent, receptor matches with it ?
(4) affarent, CNS, efferent, receptor (1) They are primarily involved in locomotory
173. A student was given a specimen to identify on action and change of Postures
the basis of characteristics given below (2) Present in alimentary canal, reproductive
(i) They are metamerically segmented tract
(ii) They have closed circulatory system (3) Their activities are under control of nervous
(iii) They have circular and longitudinal muscles system
for locomotion. (4) Both (1) and (3)
Identify the specimen 180. A cup shaped cavity for articulation of femur
(1) Prawn (2) Pheretima head is
(3) Ctenoplana (4) Wuchereria (1) Glenoid cavity
174. Match the features given in Column I with their (2) Acetabulum
examples given in Column – II and choose the (3) Sigmoid notch
correct match from the option given below. (4) Obturator foramen

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 All India Test Series [20.03.2024]
181. The joint between (i ) and (ii ) forms ball and
socket joint 186. Read the following statement :
(1) (i) – ulna, (ii) – radius A patients is obtained from
“A drug used for
(2) (i) – Ulna, (ii) – Scapula
(3) (i) – Humerus, (ii) – Scapula a species of the organism B .”Identify A & B
(4) (i) – Humerus, (ii) – ulna
A B
182. Assertion : The phase of muscle contraction
1. Swine flue Monascus
occurs when Myosin binds with actin and
2. Heart Penicillium
releases actin.
3. Organ transplant Trichoderma
Reason : Muscle contraction is initiated by a
4. AIDS Pseudomonas
signal sent by the peripheral nervous system
187. Which of the following statements is/are correct
via motor neuron.
(1) Plants having mycorrhizal associations show
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but
functions like tolerance to drought, salinity and
Reason is not the correct explanation of
resistant to root – borne pathogens
Assertion
(2) In paddy fields, cyanobacteria serve as an
(2) Assertion is correct but Reason is not correct
important biofertiliser
(3) Assertion is not correct but Reason is correct
(3) The important examples of cyanobacteria as
biofertil isers are Anabaena, Nostoc and
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and
Oscillatoria
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(4) All of these
183. Assertion : Hemodialysis can save and prolong
188. Match the following columns.
the life of uremic patients.
Column I Column – II
Reason : Waste products like urea can be
A. Lady bird (I) Methanobacterium
removed from the blood by the process of
B. Mycorrhiza (II) Trichoderma
hemodialysis .
C. Biological control (III) Aphids
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but
D. Biogas (IV) Glomus
Reason is not the correct explanation of
A B C D
Assertion
(1) II IV III I
(2) Assertion is correct but Reason is not correct
(2) III IV II I
(3) Assertion is not correct but Reason is correct
(3) IV I II III
(4) III II I IV
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and
189. Which of the following set is correctly matched
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
to the category mentioned against them ?
184. Assertion : Animals belonging to phylum
(1) Thy midine, uridine, cytidil ic aci d –
chordate are fundamentally characterized by
Nucleosides
presence of notochord
(2) Cellulose, inulin, glycogen – Polysaccharides
Reason : They possess a postanal tail.
(3) Lysine, glycine, thiamine – Amino acids
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but
(4) Arachidonic acid, acetic acid, Palmitic acid
Reason is not the correct explanation of
– Fatty acids
Assertion
190. The given diagrammatic representation shows
(2) Assertion is correct but Reason is not correct
one of the categories of small molecular weight
(3) Assertion is not correct but Reason is correct
organic compounds in the living tissues. Identify
the category shown and one blank component
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and
marked as ‘X’ in it
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
185. Assertion : Arthritis or inflammation of a joint
makes the joint painful.
Reason : Some toxic substances are deposited
at the joint.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but
Reason is not the correct explanation of Category Component (x)
Assertion (1) Amino acid NH2
(2) Assertion is correct but Reason is not correct (2) Cholesterol Guanine
(3) Assertion is not correct but Reason is correct (3) Nucleotide Adenine
(4) Nucleoside Uracil
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

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 All India Test Series [20.03.2024]
191. The pairing of A = T and G  C is the universal
phenomenon of DNA. From this we can deduce
all the following except
(1) A + T = G + C
(2) Ratio of A : T is one
(3) Guanosine equals cytosine
(4) Nitrogenous bases in the two strands are
complementary
192. “When glucose is degraded to lactic acid in
skeletal muscles energy is liberated”.
Which of the following conclusion is correctly
associated with the above statement ?
(1) It is an anabolic pathway which releases
energy
(2) It is a catabolic pathway which releases
energy
(3) The energy, Liber ated during this
degradation, is trapped and stored in the form
of chemical bonds (ADP)
(4) None of the above
193. Some glands produce hormones that stimulate
other endocrine glands. Which of the following
hormones specifically acts to trigger secretion
of hormones by another endocrine glands ?
(1) Thyroxine (2) progesterone
(3) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
(4) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
194. Which of t he fol lowing is correct for
thyrocalcitonin ?
(1) Produced by thyroid and increases Ca2+ in
ECF.
(2) Produced by Parathyroid and decreases Ca2+
in ECF.
(3) Produced by thyroid and regulates the blood
calcium levels
(4) Produced by Parathyroid and increases Ca2+
in ECF
195. Hormones involved in carbohydrate metabolism
are
(1) Insulin, glucagon, epinephrine, and
glucocorticoids
(2) Insulin, glucagon, epinephrine and
calcitonin
(3) Insulin, glucagon, cortisol and melatonin
(4) Insulin, glucagon, norepinephrine and
melatonin
196. Which of the following group of functions was
regulated by part of hindbrain ?
(1) Sexual behaviour, body temperature,
drinking
(2) Gast ric secretion, Respirati on,
Cardiovascular reflexes
(3) Memory and communication, Respiration,
Cardiovascular reflexes
(4) Gastric secretion, body temperature,
Memory and communication
197. During the transmission of nerve impulse
through a nerve fibre, the potential on the inner
side of the plasma membrane has which type
of electric charge ?
(1) First positive, then negative and again back
to positive
(2) First negative, then positive and again back
to negative
(3) First negative, then positive and continue
to be positive
(4) First positive, then negative and continue
to be negative
198. Which of the following statements is incorrect
(1) Animals that belong to phylum porifera are
exclusively marine
(2) Millipedes have two pairs of appendages in
each segment of the body
(3) Prawn has two pairs of antennae
(4) Nematocysts are characteristics feature of
phylum Cnidaria
199. Choose the correctly matched pair
(1) Inner lining of salivary ducts – ciliated
epithelium
(2) inner surface of bronchioles – squamous
epithelium
(3) Moist surface fo buccal cavity – Glandular
epithelium
(4) Tubular parts of nephrons – cuboidal
epithelium
200. Almost all the aquatic animals excrete ammonia
as the nitrogenous waste product. Which of the
following statement is not in agreement with this
situation ?
(1) Ammonia is released from the body is a
gaseous state
(2) Ammonia is easily soluble in water
(3) Ammonia gets converted into a less toxic form
called urea
(4) Ammonia is highly toxic and needs to be
eliminated as and when formed
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