NEET (Pre-Medical)

Conquer Batch-1, 2 & PKL | Minor Test-08

Time: 3:20 Hours Test Date: 19 November 2023 Maximum Marks: 720

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(English)
 TEST SYLLABUS

Conquer Batch-1, 2 & PKL | Minor Test-08 | 19 November 2023

Physics: - Thermal Physics.

Chemistry: - Redox Reactions, Nomenclature and

Classification and p-Block Elements
(Complete).

Biology: - Photosynthesis in Higher Plants, Respiration

in Plants & Locomotion and Movement,
Neural Control and Coordination.
 PART-A: PHYSICS R
6. What is the value of for diatomic gas
SECTION-A CP
1. If the molecular weight of two gases are (1) 3/4 (2) 3/5
M1 and M1, then at a temperature the (3) 2/7 (4) 5/7
ratio of root mean square velocity v1 and
v2 will be 7. At a given temperature, the pressure of
an ideal gas of density  is proportional
M1 M2
(1) (2) to
M2 M1
1 1
(1) (2)
M1 + M2 M1 − M2 2 
(3) (4)
M1 − M2 M1 + M2
(3) 2 (4) 
2. The temperature of an ideal gas is
8. At 27°C temperature, the kinetic energy
increased from 120 K to 480 K. If at 120
of an ideal gas is E 1 . If the temperature
K, the root mean square velocity of the
gas molecules is v, at 480 K it becomes is increased to 327°C, then kinetic energy
(1) 4v (2) 2v would be
(3) v/2 (4) v/4 1
(1) 2E 1 (2) E
2 1
3. Which of the following formulae is wrong
1
R R (3) 2E 1 (4) E1
(1) CV = (2) CP = 2
−1 −1
9. Two gases are at absolute temperatures
(3) Cp / Cv =  (4) CP − CV = 2R
300 K and 350 K respectively. Ratio of
4. For a gas if ratio of specific heats at average kinetic energy of their molecules
constant pressure and volume is  then is
value of degrees of freedom is (1) 7 : 6 (2) 6 : 7
(3) 36 : 49 (4) 49 : 36
3 − 1 2
(1) (2)
2 − 1 −1 10. The kinetic energy of one mole gas at
9 25 300K temperature, is E. At 400K
(3) (  − 1) (4) (  − 1)
2 2 temperature kinetic energy is E. The
value of E / E is
5. If a gas has n degrees of freedom ratio of
specific heats of gas is 4
(1) 1.33 (2)  
1+n 1 3
(1) (2) 1 +
2 n 16
(3) (4) 2
n 2 9
(3) 1 + (4) 1 +
2 n
11. If the ratio of specific heat of a gas at
constant pressure to that at constant
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NEET (Pre-Medical) | Conquer Batch-1, 2 & PKL | Minor Test-08 1

 volume is  , the change in internal 1
(3) (C + CV )(Ti − Tf ) (4) (CP − CV )(Ti − Tf )
energy of a mass of gas, when the 2 P
volume changes from V to 2V constant
16. In a cyclic process, the internal energy of
pressure p, is
the gas
(1) R / (  − 1) (2) pV
(1) Increases
(3) pV / (  − 1) (4) pV / (  − 1) (2) Decreases
(3) Remains constant
12. The isothermal Bulk modulus of an ideal
(4) Becomes zero
gas at pressure P is
(1) P (2) P 17. The efficiency of Carnot's engine
operating between reservoirs, maintained
(3) P / 2 (4) P / 
at temperatures 27o C and −123o C, is
13. 540 calories of heat convert 1 cubic
(1) 50% (2) 24%
centimeter of water at 100o C into 1671 (3) 0.75% (4) 0.4%
o
cubic centimeter of steam at 100 C at a
18. When an ideal diatomic gas is heated at
pressure of one atmosphere. Then the
constant pressure, the fraction of the
work done against the atmospheric
heat energy supplied which increases the
pressure is nearly
internal energy of the gas, is
(1) 540 cal (2) 40 cal
2 3
(3) Zero cal (4) 500 cal (1) (2)
5 5
14. The pressure and density of a diatomic 3 5
gas ( = 7 / 5) change adiabatically from (3) (4)
7 7
d' P'
(P, d) to (P', d'). If = 32 , then 19. The molar heat capacity in a process of a
d P
Q
should be diatomic gas if it does a work of when
4
(1) 1/128
a heat of Q is supplied to it is
(2) 32
2 5
(3) 128 (1) R (2) R
5 2
(4) None of the above
10 6
(3) R (4) R
15. One mole of helium is adiabatically 3 7
expanded from its initial state (P,
i
Vi , Ti )
20. An ideal gas of mass m in a state A goes
to its final state (Pf , Vf , Tf ) . The decrease to another state B via three different
in the internal energy associated with processes as shown in figure. If Q1 ,Q2
this expansion is equal to
and Q3 denote the heat absorbed by the
(1) CV (Ti − Tf ) (2) CP (Ti − Tf )
gas along the three paths, then

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NEET (Pre-Medical) | Conquer Batch-1, 2 & PKL | Minor Test-08 2

 (3) (4)

23. A thermodynamic system undergoes

(1) Q1  Q2  Q3 (2) Q1  Q2 = Q3
cyclic process ABCDA as shown in figure.
(3) Q1 = Q2  Q3 (4) Q1  Q2  Q3 The work done by the system is

21. Four curves A, B, C and D are drawn in

the adjoining figure for a given amount of
gas. The curves which represent
adiabatic and isothermal changes are

(1) P0 V0 (2) 2P0 V0

P0 V0
(3) (4) Zero
2
(1) C and D respectively
(2) D and C respectively 24. The P-V graph of an ideal gas cycle is
(3) A and B respectively shown here as below. The adiabatic
(4) B and A respectively process is described by

22. A cyclic process ABCD is shown in the

figure P-V diagram. Which of the
following curves represent the same
process

(1) AB and BC (2) AB and CD

(3) BC and DA (4) BC and CD

25. Two rods A and B are of equal lengths.

Their ends are kept between the same
temperature and their area of cross-
sections are A 1 and A2 and thermal

conductivities K 1 and K2 . The rate of

(1) (2) heat transmission in the two rods will be
equal, if
(1) K1A2 = K2A 1 (2) K1A 1 = K2A2

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NEET (Pre-Medical) | Conquer Batch-1, 2 & PKL | Minor Test-08 3

 (3) K1 = K2 (4) K 1A21 = K2 A 22 29. Two metal cubes A and B of same size
are arranged as shown in the figure. The
26. The temperature gradient in a rod of 0.5
extreme ends of the combination are
m long is 80o C / m . If the temperature of maintained at the indicated
hotter end of the rod is 30o C , then the temperatures. The arrangement is
temperature of the cooler end is thermally insulated. The coefficients of
thermal conductivity of A and B are
(1) 40o C (2) −10o C
300 W / m oC and 200 W / m oC ,
o o
(3) 10 C (4) 0 C
respectively. After steady state is
27. If two metallic plates of equal reached, the temperature of the
thicknesses and thermal conductivities interface will be
K 1 and K2 are put together face to face
and a common plate is constructed, then
the equivalent thermal conductivity of
this plate will be
(1) 45o C (2) 90o C
(3) 30o C (4) 60o C
K1K2 2K1K2
(1) (2) 30. Relation between emissivity e and
K 1 + K2 K 1 + K2
absorptive power a is (for black body)
(K21 + K22 )3/2 (K21 + K22 )3/2 1
(3) (4) (1) e = a (2) e =
K 1K2 2K 1K2 a

28. Two bars of thermal conductivities K and (3) e = a2 (4) a = e2

3K and lengths 1cm and 2cm 31. According to Wein's law

respectively have equal cross-sectional (1) m T = constant
area, they are joined lengths wise as
m
shown in the figure. If the temperature (2) = constant
T
at the ends of this composite bar is 0o C T
(3) = constant
2
and K / l respectively (see figure), then m
the temperature  of the interface is (4) T + m = constant

32. A black body at 200 K is found to exit

maximum energy at a wavelength of
14m . When its temperature is raised to
100 o 1000K, the wavelength at which
(1) 50o C (2) C
maximum energy is emitted is
3
(1) 14m (2) 70F
200 o
(3) 60o C (4) C (3) 2.8m (4) 2.8mm
3

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NEET (Pre-Medical) | Conquer Batch-1, 2 & PKL | Minor Test-08 4

33. If temperature of a black body increases second by the first sphere is greater
o o
from 7 C to 287 C , then the rate of than that radiated per second by the
energy radiation increases by second sphere
4
 287  37. Two rods (one semi-circular and other
(1)   (2) 16
 7  straight) of same material and of same
(3) 4 (4) 2 cross-sectional area are joined as shown
in the figure. The points A and B are
34. Two spherical black bodies of radii r1 and maintained at different temperature. The
r2 and with surface temperature T1 and ratio of the heat transferred through a
cross-section of a semi-circular rod to
T2 respectively radiate the same power. the heat transferred through a cross
Then the ratio of r1 and r2 will be section of the straight rod in a given time
2 4
is
T  T 
(1)  2  (2)  2 
 T1   T1 
2 4
T  T 
(3)  1  (4)  1 
 T2   T2 

35. If the temperature of a hot body is

(1) 2 :  (2) 1 : 2
increased by 50% then the increase in the
(3)  : 2 (4) 3 : 2
quantity of emitted heat radiation will be
(1) 125% (2) 200% 38. The figure shows a system of two
(3) 300% (4) 400% concentric spheres of radii r1 and r2 and
SECTION-B kept at temperatures T1 and T2,
36. Which of the following statements is respectively. The radial rate of flow of
true/correct heat in a substance between the two
(1) During clear nights, the temperature concentric spheres is proportional to
rises steadily upward near the
ground level
(2) Newton's law of cooling, an
approximate form of Stefan's law, is
valid only for natural convection
(3) The total energy emitted by a black r1 r2
(1) (2) (r2 − r1 )
body per unit time per unit area is (r1 − r2 )
proportional to the square of its
r 
temperature in the Kelvin scale (3) (r2 − r1 )(r1 r2 ) (4) In  2 
(4) Two spheres of the same material  r1 
have radii 1m and S1 and 39. The plots of intensity versus wavelength
temperatures 4000 K and 2000 K for three black bodies at temperatures
respectively. The energy radiated per

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NEET (Pre-Medical) | Conquer Batch-1, 2 & PKL | Minor Test-08 5

 T1, T2 and T3 respectively are as shown. Pt 4Pt
(3) (4)
Their temperature are such that 2M M

44. 22320 cal of heat is supplied to 100 g of

ice at 0°C. If the latent heat of fusion of
ice is 80 cal g–1 and latent heat of
vaporization of water is 540 cal g–1, the
final amount of water thus obtained
(1) T1 >T2 > T3 (2) T1 >T3 > T2 and its temperature respectively are
(3) T2 >T3 > T1 (4) T3 >T2 > T1 (1) 8 g, 100°C (2) 100 g, 90°C
(3) 92 g, 100°C (4) 8 g, 100°C
40. 1 g of ice and 1 g of steam are mixed
together. The amount of water in the 45. 2 g of ice is at – 10°C. Find the
mixture is amount of heat required to convert it
4 1 into water at 20°C.
(1) g (2) g
3 3 (1) 150 cal (2) 50 cal
(3) 2 g (4) zero (3) 110 cal (4) 210 cal

41. One kilogram of steam at 100°C can 46. Match column I and II and select the
melt how much ice at 0°C? correct option.
8 Column I Column II
(1) 8.0 kg (2) kg
54 (A) SI unit of thermal capacity (P) J kg–1
54 (B) SI unit of specific heat (Q) J K–1
(3) kg (4) 540 kg
8 (C) SI unit of latent heat (R) J kg–1 K–1
42. How many grams of ice at –14°C are (D) SI unit of internal energy (S) J
needed to cool 200 g of water from 12°C (1) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S
to 10°C? Take specific heat of ice = 0.5 (2) A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R
cal/g/°C and latent heat of ice = 80 (3) A-Q, B-R, C-P, D-S
cal/g. (4) A-P, B-R, C-Q, D-S
(1) 4 g (2) 8 g
(3) 2 g (4) 16 g 47. A steel scale measures the length of
a copper rod as l0 when both are at
43. A substance of mass M requires a power 20°C, which is the calibration
input of P to remain in the molten state
temperature for the scale. What is the
at its melting point. When the power
scale reading when both are at 40°C?
source is turned off, the sample
completely solidifies in time t. The  1 + 20S   1 + 20C 
(1)  (2) 
 1 + 20  I0  1 + 20  I0
latent heat of fusion of the substance  C   S 

is
1 + 20S 1 + 20S
(3) (4)
(1)
Pt
(2)
2Pt I0 ( 1 + 20C ) I0 ( 1 + 20S )
M M

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NEET (Pre-Medical) | Conquer Batch-1, 2 & PKL | Minor Test-08 6

48. In figure which strip brass or steel have PART-B: CHEMISTRY
higher coefficient of linear expansion? SECTION-A
51. The number of  bonds,  bonds and
lone pair of electrons in pyridine,
respectively are:
(1) 11, 2, 0 (2) 12, 3, 0
(1) Brass strip (3) 11, 3, 1 (4) 12, 2, 1
(2) Steel strip
(3) Both strips have same coefficient of 52. The correct IUPAC name of the following
linear expansions compound is:
(4) Cannot be decided from given data

49. Assertion : The coefficient of volume

expansion has dimension K–1.
(1) 6 bromo-2-chloro-4-methylhexan-4-
Reason : The coefficient of volume
ol
expansion is defined the change in
(2) 1-bromo-4-methyl-5-chlorohexan-3-
volume per unit volume per unit change
ol
in temperature.
(3) 6-bromo-4-methyl-2-chlorohexan-
(1) Both assertion and reason are true
4-ol
and reason is the correct
(4) 1-bromo-5-chloro-4-methylhexan-3-
explanation of assertion.
ol
(2) Both assertion and reason are true
but reason is not the correct 53. The correct structure of 2, 6-DimethyI-
explanation of assertion. dec-4-ene is
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.
(1) (2)
50. There is a rectangular metal plate in
which two cavities in the shape of
rectangle and circle are made, as shown (3) (4)
with dimensions. P and Q are the
centres of these cavities. On heating the
54. The IUPAC name of the compound is :
plate, which of the following quantities
increase?

(1) 5-formylhcx-2-en-3-one
(2) 5-mcthyl-4-oxohex-2-en-5-al
(1) r (2) a
(3) 3-keto-2-methylhex-5-enal
(3) R (4) All of these
(4) 3-keto-2-methylhex-4-enal

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NEET (Pre-Medical) | Conquer Batch-1, 2 & PKL | Minor Test-08 7

55. The pair of electron in the given
carbanion, CH3C  C , is present in which
– (2)
of the following orbitals ?
(1) 2p (2) sp3
(3) sp2 (4) sp (3)

56. Structure of the compound whose IUPAC

name is 3-ethyl-2-hydroxy-4-methyIhex-
3-en-5-ynoic acid is : (4)

(1) (2) 60. The correct IUPAC name of the

compound is
(3) (4)
(1) 4-Ethyl-3-propyl hex-1-ene
57. The structure of isobutyl group in an (2) 3-Ethyl-4-ethenyl heptane
organic compound is : (3) 3-Ethyl-4-propyl hex-1-ene
(1) (4) 3-(1-ethylpropyl) hex-1-ene

61. The correct order of increasing bond

(2) CH3 − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 −
length of C – H, C – O, C – C and C = C
is:
(3) (1) C − H  C = C  C − O  C − C
(2) C − C  C = C  C − O  C − H
(3) C − O  C − H  C − C  C = C
(4) (4) C − H  C − O  C − C  C = C

62. The first organic compound, synthesized

58. What is the hybridisation state of benzyl
in the laboratory, was
carbonium ion ? (1) alcohol (2) acetic acid
(3) urea (4) none of these
(1) sp 3
(2) sp2
63. When the hybridization state of carbon
(3) spd 2
(4) sp2d
atom changes from sp3 to sp2 and finally
59. Which nomenclature is not according to to sp, the angle between the hybridized
IUPAC system? orbitals
(1) (1) decreases gradually
(2) decreases considerably

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NEET (Pre-Medical) | Conquer Batch-1, 2 & PKL | Minor Test-08 8

 (3) is not affected (2) CCl2 = CCl2
(4) increases progressively. (3) CH2 = C = CH2
(4) CH2 = CH – CH = CH2
64. The IUPAC name of
69. Cyclic hydrocarbon 'A' has all the carbon
and hydrogen atoms in a single plane. All
the carbon carbon bonds have the same
(1) 4-Hydroxy-1-methylpentanal length, less than 1.54 Å, but more than
(2) 4-Hydroxy-2-methylpent-2-en-1-al 1.34 Å. The C—C—C bond angle will be
(3) 2-Hydroxy-4-methylpent-3-en-5-al (1) 109o28' (2) 100o
(4) 2-Hydroxy-3-methylpent-2-en-5-al (3) 180 o
(4) 120o

65. A straight chain hydrocarbon has the 70. When Cl2 gas reacts with hot and
molecular formula C8H10. The concentrated sodium hydroxide solution,
hybridization of the carbon atoms from the oxidation number of chlorine
one end of the chain to the other are changes from :
respectively sp3, sp2, sp2, sp3, sp2, sp2, sp (1) zero to +1 and zero to -5
and sp. The structural formula of the (2) zero to -1 and zero to +5
hydrocarbon would be : (3) zero to -1 and zero to +3
(1) CH3C  CCH2 – CH = CHCH = CH2 (4) zero to +1 and zero to -3
(2) CH3CH2 – CH = CHCH = CHC = CH
71. The following redox reaction is balanced
(3) CH3CH = CHCH2 – C  CCH = CH2
by which set of coefficients ?
(4) CH3CH = CHCH2 – CH = CH – C  CH
aZn + bNO3− + cH+ → dNH4+ + eH2O + fZn2+
66. The shortest C—C bond distance is
(1) a-1, b-1, c-10, d-1, e-3, f-1
found in
(2) a-2, b-2, c-10, d-2, e-3, f-2
(1) Diamond (2) Ethane
(3) a-4, b-2, c-10, d-1, e-3, f-4
(3) Benzene (4) Acetylene
(4) a-4, b-1, c-10, d-1, e-3, f-4
67. An organic compound X (molecular
72. In which of the following reactions, there
formula C6H7O2N) has six carbon atoms
is no change in valency ?
in a ring system, two double bonds and a
(1) 4KClO3 → 3KClO4 + KCl
nitro group as substituent, X is
(1) Homocyclic but not aromatic (2) SO2 + 2H2S → 2H2O + 3S
(2) Aromatic but not homocyclic (3) BaO2 + H2SO4 → BaSO4 + H2O2
(3) Homocyclic and aromatic
(4) 3BaO + O2 → 2BaO2
(4) Heterocyclic and aromatic

68. Which of the following possesses a sp- 73. Which substance serves as a reducing
carbon in its structure ? agent in the following reaction ?
(1) CH2 = CCl – CH = CH2 14H+ + Cr2O72− + 3Ni → 2Cr3+ + 7H2O + 3Ni2+

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NEET (Pre-Medical) | Conquer Batch-1, 2 & PKL | Minor Test-08 9

 (1) H2O (2) Ni
80. On balancing the given redox reaction,
(3) H+ (4) Cr2O72−
aCr2O27 − + bSO23− (aq) + cH+ (aq) →
74. The oxidation state of Cr in CrO6 is c
2aCr3+ (aq) + bSO24− (aq) +
H O(l)
(1) +4 (2) -6 2 2
(3) +12 (4) +6 the coefficients a, b and c are found to
be, respectively -
75. The oxidation states of sulphur in the
(1) 1, 3, 8 (2) 3, 8, 1
anions SO32− , S2O42− and S2O62− follow (3) 1, 8, 3 (4) 8, 1, 3
the order
81. Which of the Phosphorus oxoacid can
(1) S2O62−  S2O42−  SO32−
create silver mirror from AgNO3 solution?
2− 2− 2−
(2) S2O4  SO3  S2O6 (1) (HPO3)n (2) H4P2O5
2− 2− 2−
(3) H4P2O6 (4) H4P2O7
(3) SO3  S2O4  S2O6
82. Reaction of thionyl chloride with white
(4) S2O42−  S2O62−  SO32−
phosphorus forms a compound [A],
76. A compound contains atoms of three which on hydrolysis gives [B], a dibasic
elements A, B and C. If the oxidation acid. [A] and [B] are respectively
number of A is +2, B is +5, and that of C (1) P4O6 and H3PO3
is -2, the possible formula of the (2) PCl3 and H3PO3
compound is : (3) PCl5 and H3PO4
(1) A2(BC3)2 (2) A3(BC4)2 (4) POCl3 and H3PO4
(3) A3(B4C)2 (4) ABC2 83. "A" obtained by Ostwald's method
77. The oxidation number of phosphorus in involving air oxidation of NH3, upon
pyrophosphoric acid is further air oxidation produces "B". "B" on
(1) +3 (2) +1 hydration forms an oxoacid of Nitrogen
(3) +4 (4) +5 along with evolution of "A". The oxoacid
also produces "A" and gives positive
78. The oxidation number of chromium in brown ring test
potassium dichromate is (1) NO2, N2O5 (2) NO2, N2O4
(1) +6 (2) -5 (3) NO, NO2 (4) N2O3, NO2
(3) -2 (4) +2
84. Bond dissociation energy of E—H bond of
79. Phosphorus has the oxidation state of + the "H2E" hydrides of group 16 elements
3 in (given below), follows order.
(1) Phosphorous acid (A) O (B) S
(2) Orthophosphoric acid (C) Se (D) Te
(3) Hypophosphorous acid (1) A > B > C > D (2) A > B > D > C
(4) Metaphosphoric acid (3) B > A > C > D (4) D > C > B > A
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 Statement I: The decrease in first
85. Given below are two statements:
ionization enthalpy from B to Al is much
Statement I: Chlorine can easily combine
larger than that
with oxygen to from oxides: and the
from Al to Ga.
product has a tendency to explode.
Statement II: The d orbitals in Ga are
Statement II: Chemical reactivity of an
completely filled.
element can be determined by its
In the light of the above statements,
reaction with oxygen and halogens.
choose the most appropriate answer
In the light of the above statements,
from the options given below :
choose the correct answer from the
(1) Statement I is incorrect but
options given below.
statement II is correct.
(1) Both the statements I and II are true
(2) Both the statements I and II are
(2) Statement I is true but Statement II
correct
is false
(3) Statement I is correct but statement
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II
II is incorrect
is true
(4) Both the statements I and II are
(4) Both the Statements I and II are
incorrect
false
88. Boric acid in solid, whereas BF3 is gas at
SECTION-B
room temperature because of
86. Given below are two statements, one is
(1) Strong ionic bond in Boric acid
labelled as Assertion A and the other is
(2) Strong van der Waal's interaction in
labelled as Reason R.
Boric acid
Assertion A: Carbon forms two important
(3) Strong hydrogen bond in Boric acid
oxides –CO and CO2. CO is neutral
(4) Strong covalent bond in BF3
whereas CO2 is acidic in nature.
Reason R: CO2 can combine with water 89. The Lewis acid character of boron tri
in a limited way to form carbonic acid, halides follows the order :
while CO is sparingly soluble in water. (1) BBr3 > BI3 > BCI3 > BF3
In the light of the above statements, (2) BCl3 > BF3 > BBr3 > BI3
choose the most appropriate answer (3) BF3 > BCI3 > BBr3 > BI3
from the options given below : (4) BI3 > BBr3 > BCI3 > BF3
(1) Both A and R are correct but R is
90. The correct order of bond enthalpy (kJ
NOT the correct explanation of A.
mol-1) is
(2) Both A and R are correct and R is
(1) Si − Si  C − C  Sn − Sn  Ge − Ge
the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is not correct but R is correct. (2) Si − Si  C − C  Ge − Ge  Sn − Sn

(4) A is correct but R is not correct. (3) C − C  Si − Si  Sn − Sn  Ge − Ge

(4) C − C  Si − Si  Ge − Ge  Sn − Sn
87. Given below are two statements:

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91. Given below are the oxides: 96. Match List-I with List-II
Na2O, As2O3, N2O, NO and Cl2O7 List-I List-II
Number of amphoteric oxides is: (Si-Compounds) (Si-Polymeric / other
(1) 0 (2) 1 products)
(3) 2 (4) 3 A (CH )
3 4
Si I Chain silicone

92. Which one of the following elemental B (CH ) Si(OH)

3 3
II Dimeric silicone
forms is not present in the enamel of
the teeth?
C (CH )
3 2
Si(OH)2 III Silane

(1) Ca2+ D (CH )

3 3
Si(OH) IV 2D – Silicone
(2) P3+
Choose the correct answer from the
(3) F–
options given below :
(4) P5+
(1) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
93. PCl5 is well known. but NCl5 is not. (2) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
Because. (3) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
(1) nitrogen is less reactive than (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
phosphorous.
(2) nitrogen doesn't have d-orbitals in 97. The gas produced by treating an aqueous
its valence shell. solution of ammonium chloride with
(3) catenation tendency is weaker in sodium nitrite is
nitrogen than phosphorous. (1) NH3 (2) N2
(4) size of phosphorous is larger than (3) N2O (4) Cl2
nitrogen.
98. Nitrogen gas is obtained by thermal
94. The correct order of melting points of decomposition of
hydrides of group 16 elements is : (1) Ba(NO3)2 (2) Ba(N3)2
(1) H2S  H2Se  H2Te  H2O (3) NaNO2 (4) NaNO3

(2) H2O  H2S  H2Se  H2Te 99. Among the given oxides of nitrogen; N2O,
N2O3, N2O4 and N2O5, the number of
(3) H2S  H2Te  H2Se  H2O
compound/(s) having N—N bond is :
(4) H2Se  H2S  H2Te  H2O (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
95. Consider the following reaction :
A + alkali → B (Major Product) 100. The oxoacid of phosphorus that is easily
obtained from a reaction of alkali and
If B is an oxoacid of phosphorus with no
white phosphorus and has two P—H
P – H bond, then A is :
bonds, is :
(1) White P4
(1) Phosphonic acid
(2) Red P4
(2) Phosphinic acid
(3) P2O3 (3) Pyrophosphorus acid
(4) H3PO3 (4) Hypophosphoric acid

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 PART-C: BIOLOGY (BOTANY) 105. Identify P, Q and R in the given graph of
SECTION-A absorption spectra and select the
101. Both combustion and respiration are correct statement(s) regarding them.
similar in
(1) number of ATP molecules formed
(2) number of intermediates formed
(3) number of enzymes required
(4) evolution of carbon dioxide

102. Refer to the given reaction.

2H2O → 4H+ + O2 + 4e–
Where does this reaction take place in
(1) Sufficient photosynthesis occurs in
the chloroplasts of plants?
the mid region of the light spectrum
(1) Outer surface of thylakoid membrane
where R is active.
(2) Inner surface of thylakoid membrane
(2) P and Q absorb maximum light in red
(3) In the matrix (stroma)
and blue-violet wavelengths of light.
(4) Intermembrane space
(3) R is converted to vitamin A by
103. Match column I with column II and human beings.
select the correct option from the given (4) All of these.
codes.
106. Identify 'X', 'Y' and 'Z' in the given table.
Column I Column II
Stages of No. of ATP No. of
(Respiratory substrate) (RQ)
Respiratory produced by NADH/FADH2
A Carbohydrate (i) 4.0
process substrate produced
B Protein (ii) 0.9
phosphorylation
C Fat (iii) 0.7
(i) Glycolysis in 2 ‘X’
D Oxalic acid (iv) 1.0
cytoplasm
(1) A-(iv), B.-(ii), c-(iii), D-(i)
(ii) Formation of
(2) A-(iv), B-(ii), c-(i), D-(iii)
2 molecules
(3) A-(iii), B-(i), c-(iv), D-(ii)
of Acetyl- – ‘Y’
(4) A-(ii), B-(iv), c-(iii), D-(i)
CoA in
104. How many molecules of ATP and NADPH matrix of
will be consumed by a maize plant to mitochondria
produce 1 glucose molecule? (iii) Krebs' cycle Z 2FADH2, 6
(1) ATP: 18; NADPH: 12 NADH
(2) ATP: 3; NADPH: 18 (1) X - 2 NADH, Y - 2 NADH, Z - 4
(3) ATP: 30; NADPH: 12 (2) X - 2 FADH2, Y - 2 NADH, Z - 2
(4) ATP: 18; NADPH: 20 (3) X - 2 NADH, Y - 2 NADH, Z - 2
(4) X - 2 FADH2, Y – 2 NADH, Z - 4
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 (2) Chloroplasts of bundle sheath cells
107. Study the following statements regarding
are agranal.
chl a molecule. Select the incorrect
(3) Chloroplasts of mesophyll cells have
option.
a peripheral reticulum and starch
(i) Molecular formula of chl a is
grains.
C55H72O5N4Mg.
(4) Bundle sheath cells have primary
(ii) It is the primary photosynthetic
CO2 acceptor-PEP.
pigment.
(iii) In pure state, it is red in colour and 110. In Krebs' cycle, before combining with
thus it absorbs more blue oxaloacetate, pyruvate is changed into
wavelength of light than the red (1) acetyl CoA (2) citric acid
wavelength. (3) malic acid (4) succinic acid
(iv) It is soluble in water as well as
111. Which of the following is slowest
methyl alcohol.
enzyme with a turnover number of 3?
(1) (i) and (iii) (2) (iii) and (iv)
(1) Nitrogenase (2) RuBisCo
(3) (ii) and (iii) (4) (iv) only
(3) PEP carboxylase (4) Dinitrogenase
108. Rea the following statements and select
112. Read the following statements and
the correct option.
select the correct option.
Statement A: Succinyl CoA is acted upon
Statement A: Photorespiration interferes
by enzyme succinyl CoA synthetase
with the successful functioning of Calvin
thiokinase to form succinate.
cycle.
Statement B: Succinate undergoes
Statement B: Photorespiration leads to
dehydrogenation to form fumarate with
oxidation of ribulose-1,5 biphosphate
the help of enzyme succinate
which is an acceptor of CO2 in Calvin
dehydrogenase.
cycle.
(1) Statement A is correct but
(1) Both statements A and B are
statement B is incorrect.
correct.
(2) Statement A is incorrect but
(2) Statement A is incorrect but B is
statement B is correct.
correct.
(3) Both statements A and B are
(3) Statement A is correct but B is
correct.
incorrect.
(4) Both statements A and B are
(4) Both statements A and B are
incorrect.
incorrect.
109. Identify the true characteristic of Kranz
113. During preparatory phase of glycolysis,
anatomy in C4 plants.
fructose-1,6-bisphosphate splits up
(1) Mesophyll cells have large and
enzymatically to form one molecule each
agranal chloroplasts.
of

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 (1) 1,3-biphosphoglycerate and (3) Red algae
glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (4) Rhodopseudomonas
(2) phosphoglyceraldehyde and
118. Study the given table of differences
dihydroxyacetone 3-phosphate
between C3 and C4 plants.
(3) phosphoglyceraldehyde and 1,3-
C3 plants C4 plants
biphosphoglycerate
(i) Leaves possess Leaves do not
(4) 3-phosphoglycerate and
Kranz anatomy. posses Kranz
dihydroxyacetone 3-phosphate.
anatomy.
114. Glycolysis takes place in (ii) Ribulose PEP is the first
(1) eukaryotic cells biphosphate is the acceptor of CO2.
(2) prokaryotic cells first acceptor of
(3) muscle cells CO2.
(4) all of these (iii) CO2 compensation CO2 compensation
point point is 0-10 ppm.
115. Which of the following with respect to
is 25-100 pm.
early experiments of photosynthesis is
How many of the given differences are
wrongly matched?
correct?
(1) Joseph Priestley — Showed that
(1) 1 (2) 3
plants release O2
(3) 2 (4) None of these
(2) Jan Ingenhousz — Showed that
sunlight is essential for 119. Which of the following is not the pay off
photosynthesis phase of glycolysis?
(3) Julius von Sachs — Proved that (1) 1,3-biphosphoglycerate + ADP
starch is the first visible product of Phosphoglycerate kinase
3-
Mg2 +
photosynthesis
(4) T.W. Engelmann — Proposed phosphoglycerate + ATP
Enolase
chemiosmotic theory of ATP (2) 2 phosphoglycerate
Mg2 +
synthesis
phosphoenol pyruvate + H2O
116. Which of the following scientists is not (3) Dihydroxy acetone 3-phosphate
concerned with the discovery of Triosephosphate isomerase

glycolysis?
Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate
(1) Gustav Embeden (2) Otto Meyerhof
(4) Phosphoenol pyruvate + ADP
(3) J. Parnas (4) Peter Mitchell
Pyruvate kinase
Pyruvate + ATP
Mg 2 + , K+
117. Which organism possesses a single
photosystem with reaction centre similar
120. Select the incorrect pair.
to PS I?
(1) 2-carbon compound — Aspartic acid
(1) Blue green algae
(2) 3-carbon compound — PGA
(2) Cryptomonads
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 (3) 4-carbon compound — Malic acid (3) It produces six molecules of NADH,
(4) 5-carbon compound — RuBP and 2 molecules of FADH2 for every
two molecules of acetyl CoA
121. Match column I with column II and
oxidized by it.
select the correct option.
(4) It degrades a molecule of glucose
Column I Column II
into two molecules of an organic
A Oxygen evolving (i) Monomorphic
substance, pyruvate.
complex chloroplasts
B C3 plants (ii) High oxygen 124. Read the given statements and select
concentration the correct one.
C Photorespiration (iii) Kranz anatomy (1) PS I is involved in non cyclic
D C4 plants (iv) Photolysis of water photophosphorylation whereas PS II
(1) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i) is involved in both cyclic and non
(2) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i) cyclic hotophosphorylation.
(3) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii) (2) Grana lamellae membrane possess
(4) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii) PSI and PSII whereas the stroma
lamellae membrane possess PSI
122. Refer to the following table showing only.
differences between glycolysis and (3) PS I consists of oxygen evolving
Krebs' cycle. complex whereas PS II consists of
Glycolysis Krebs' cycle light harvesting complex.
A It occurs inside the It occurs inside (4) PS II has more of chlorophyll a
cytoplasm the mitochondria whereas PS I has more of
B It does not consume It consumes ATP chlorophyll b.
ATP molecules
125. F0 – F1 particles participates in the
C The net gain of energy The net gain of
synthesis of _________ and are present
is equal to 24 energy is equal to
in the _________ .
molecules of ATP 8 ATP molecules
(1) ADP, inner mitochondrial membrane
D Oxygen is not required Krebs' cycle uses
(2) ATR outer mitochondrial membrane
for glycolysis oxygen as
(3) ATP, inner mitochondrial membrane
terminal oxidant.
(4) ADP, matrix or inner chamber of
The incorrect differences are
mitochondrion
(1) A and B (2) B and C
(3) C and D (4) A and D 126. Identify the enzyme X in the given
reaction of carboxylation.
123. Which of the following is not true for
RuBP + CO2 ⎯⎯
→ 2-Carboxy 3-Keto 1,5-
X
Krebs' cycle?
(1) It is the second step in respiration. biphosphoribotol
(2) It occurs only in aerobic respiration. (1) Triosephosphate kinase
(2) RuBP carboxylase
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 (3) Phosphatase (4) activation of ATP synthase of F0 – F1
(4) Phosphoribulose kinase complex to produce ATP.

127. Production of one molecule of glucose in 132. What does P, Q R and S represent in the
Calvin cycle involves the expenditure of given figure of mitochondrial electron
(1) 18 ATP, 12 NADPH (2) 3 ATP, 2 NADPH transport chain?
(3) 12 ATP, 18 NADPH (4) 2 ATP, 3 NADPH

128. Compound that links glycolysis and

Krebs' cycle is
(1) oxaloacetate (2) pyruvate acid
(3) lactic acid (4) acetyl CoA.

129. Select the incorrect statement.

(1)  Ketoglutarate of Krebs' cycle
produces an important amino acid
called glutamate.
(2) Succinyl CoA takes part in synthesis
of pyrrole compounds of chlorophyll.
(3) Acetyl CoA takes part in synthesis of
phytochrome.
(4) Krebs' cycle forms GTP which is
component of signal transduction
system.

130. The minimum temperature at which

most plant start photosynthesis (i) is
but it can be as low as (ii) for lichens
and (iii) for some gymnosperms.
(1) (i) –5o – 0oC; (ii) –20oC; (iii) –40oC
(1) P-UQH2, Q-Cyt a-a3, R-FMN, S-Cyt b
(2) (i) 0o – 5oC; (ii) –20oC; (iii) –35oC
(2) P-Cyt b, Q-UQH2, R-FMN, S-Cyt a-a3
(3) (i) 5o – 10oC; (ii) –35oC; (iii) –20oC
(3) P-FMN, Q-UQH2, R-Cyt b, S-Cyt a-a3
(4) (i) 10o – 15oC; (ii) –10oC; (iii) –5oC
(4) P-UQH2, Q-Cyt b, R-FMN, S-cyt a-a3
131. Substrate level phosphorylation or ATP
133. The energy requirement of C4 plant is
synthesis is directly linked to
different from C3 plant for one molecule
(1) terminal oxidation of reduced
of CO2 fixation, as it require
coenzymes in respiration
(1) 2 more ATPs as compared to C 3
(2) the liberation of energy in chemical
plants
reactions of respiration
(2) 3 more ATPs as compared to C 3
(3) the process of photosynthesis
plants
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 (3) 2 more NADPH as compared to C3 (2) trapping light energy and also for
plants fixation of CO2
(4) 3 more NADPH as compared to C3 (3) for ATP and NADPH2 formation, but
plants. not for light trapping
(4) For light capturing and also for
134. Stepwise breakdown of a respiratory
NADPH2 and ATP formation
substrate such as carbohydrate to CO2
and H2O in the presence of oxygen is 137. Which of the following is a constituent of
referred to as aerobic respiration. It the ring structure of chlorophyll and also
involves following four stages. Arrange helps to maintain the ribosome
the given stages in correct sequence and structure?
select the correct option. (1) Iron (2) Calcium
(i) Krebs' cycle (3) Potassium (4) Magnesium
(ii) Glycolytic breakdown of glucose to
138. In the schematic diagram shown below,
pyruvic acid
which is plastocyanin?
(iii) Oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvic
acid to acetyl CoA
(iv) Terminal oxidation and
phosphorylation in respiratory chain
(1) (i) → (ii) → (iii) → (iv)
(2) (ii) → (iii) → (i) → (iv)
(1) (c) (2) (d)
(3) (iii) → (ii) → (iv) → (i)
(3) (a) (4) (b)
(4) (iv) → (iii) → (i) → (ii)
139. Light reactions or the Photochemical
135. Read the given statements and select
phase do not include
the correct one.
(1) light absorption
(1) The primary CO2 acceptor is 5-
(2) water splitting and oxygen release
carbon compound in C4 cycle.
(3) production of sugars
(2) Photorespiration in C3 plants starts
(4) the formation of high-energy
from phosphoglycerate.
chemical intermediates, ATP and
(3) Bundle sheath cells has PEP case
NADPH
enzyme for CO2 fixation in C4 cycle.
(4) In C4 plants, the initial carboxylation 140. _______ is the basic pathway that results
reaction occurs in mesophyll cells. in the formation of the sugars and is
common to the C3 and C4 plants.
SECTION-B (1) Photorespiration (2) TCA cycle
136. The membranous system of grana is (3) HMP shunt (4) Calvin cycle
responsible for
141. Manganese and chloride ions are
(1) trapping light energy, but not ATP
required for the
and NADPH2 formation
(1) photolysis of water
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 (2) transfer of electrons to NADP (3) PGA → DHAP
(3) transfer of charge of hydroxyl ion to (4) Fructose 1, 6 biphosphate → glucose
chlorophyll
(4) None of these 147. The movement of electrons as per Z
scheme in light reaction is
142. How many molecules of ATP are required
(1) from low to high energy level
in regeneration step of C3 cycle to
(2) uphill in redox potential scale
regenerate one mole of RuBP
(3) downhill in redox potential scale
(1) 1 (2) 2
(4) Both (2) and (3)
(3) 3 (4) 4
148. How many components listed below are
143. In chemiosmotic synthesis of ATP, H+
part of cyclic photophosphorylation
diffuses through ATP synthetase
P700, P680, NADP reductase, Hydrogen
(1) from the stroma into thylakoid
carrier, PS I, Water splitting complex, PS
lumen/space
II
(2) from thylakoid space into stroma
(1) Two
(3) from the cytoplasm into stroma
(2) Three
(4) from the periplasmic space to
(3) Five
stroma
(4) four
144. When RuBisCO acts as an oxygenase
149. Z scheme in thylakoid membrane of
then
plants is concerned with
(1) phosphoglycerate and
(1) reduction of NAD+
phosphoglycolate are produced
(2) reduction of CO2
(2) phosphoenol pyruvate is oxidised
(3) electron transfer
(3) net carbon fixation is enhanced
(4) All of these
(4) it must mean that the plant is
deprived of CO2 areas 150. Match column – I with Column – II and
select the correct option
145. In Calvin cycle, which stage requires
Column – I Column – II
ATP?
(a) OEC (i) Primary e- acceptor
(1) Carboxylation only
(b) NADP (ii) Photolysis of H2O
(2) Only regeneration
reductase
(3) Both carboxylation and reduction
(c) Succinyl (iii) Outer surface of
(4) Both reduction and regeneration
CoA thylakoid membrane
146. ATP as well as NADPH + H+ both are (d) Phaeophytin (iv) Chlorophyll synthesis
required during the conversion of ______ (1) (a)—(ii); (b)—(iii); (c)—(iv); (d)—(i)
in C3 cycle. (2) (a)—(ii); (b)—(iii); (c)—(i); (d)—(iv)
(1) RuBP + CO2 → 2 PGA (3) (a)—(iii); (b)—(i); (c)—(ii); (d)—(iv)
(2) PGA → PGAL (4) (a)—(i); (b)—(ii); (c)—(iii); (d)—(iv)

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 PART-D: BIOLOGY (ZOOLOGY) 156. The red and white muscle fibres can be
SECTION-A distinguished from each other on the
151. Identify the structures labelled as X, Y basis of all except
and Z in the given figure (1) Amount of myoglobin
(2) Dependence on aerobic process of
energy
(3) Amount of sarcoplasmic reticulum
Which of the above structure(s) mask(s) (4) Thickness and length of actin and
the myosin binding site on actin filament myosin filaments
during resting state?
(1) X only (2) Y and Z 157. The central part of thick filaments, not
(3) X and Z (4) Z only overlapped by thin filament at relaxed
state of muscle fibre is
152. Which of the following when binds to the (1) H-zone (2) I-band
myosin head results in its detachment (3) A-band (4) Sarcomere
from actin?
(1) Ca+2 (2) Mg+2 158. During the mechanism of muscle
(3) ATP (4) ADP contraction, following events occur.
A. Myosin head activated by ATP
153. Choose the odd one w.r.t. locomotion. hydrolysis binds to exposed active
(1) Hydra use tentacles for capturing sites to form cross bridge.
prey B. Pulling of actin filaments towards H-
(2) Use of hind limbs for search of food line leads to contraction.
in different fields C. Acetylcholine is released at
neuromuscular junction which
(3) Climbing a tree
generate action potential.
(4) Flying to escape from predators
D. Release of Ca+2 ions from SR, binds to
154. Pseudopodial movements are subunit troponin of actin filaments.
characteristic of all except Which of the following sequence of
(1) Leucocytes (2) Amoeba above events is correct?
(3) Macrophages (4) Ova (1) A, B, C, D (2) C, D, B, A
(3) C, D, A, B (4) C, B, D, A
155. Which is not correct about muscles?
159. In order to initiate muscle contraction,
(1) They are mesodermal in origin
Ca2+ ions binds to which of the following
(2) 40-50% of body weight is formed by
muscle protein?
them. (1) Tropomyosin (2) Actin
(3) They have properties like excitability (3) Troponin (4) Myosin
and contractibility
160. I-band lacks
(4) They are classified on the basis of
(1) Actin (2) Tropomyosin
reception of type of stimulus
(3) Myosin (4) Troponin

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161. Select the incorrect pair. (1) Ischium and pubis only
(1) Axial skeleton — 80 bones (2) Ilium and pubis only
(2) Skull region — 22 + 1 + 6 bones (3) Ilium, ischium and pubis
(3) Vertebrosternal ribs — 2 pairs (4) Pubis only
(4) Vertebrochondral ribs — 3 pairs
167. Which pair of ribs do not articulate
162. Which set of bones are single in human directly with the sternum but attach
body? with hyaline cartilage of other ribs?
(1) Nasal, coxal (1) 6th, 7th, 8th (2) 8th, 9th, 10th
(2) Mandible, hyoid (3) 7th, 8th, 9th (4) 10th, 11th, 12th
(3) Temporal, sternum
168. Nissl's granules exist in
(4) Frontal, maxilla
(1) Cell body and axon
163. Match the appropriate number of the (2) Axon and synaptic knob
bones associated with given structures (3) Cell body and dendrites
and choose the correct option. (4) Axon and dendrites
a. Bones in one limb (i) 12
169. After depolarisation, resting membrane
b. Thoracic vertebrae (ii) 2
potential is restored within fraction of
c. Hip girdle (iii) 30
second due to X and is maintained by Y
d. Lumbar vertebrae (iv) 5
(1) X: Efflux of Na+ Y: Influx of K+
(v) 3
(2) X: Influx of Na+ Y: Efflux of K+
(1) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iv) (3) X: Efflux of K +
Y: Na+-K+ pump
(2) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(v), d-(iv) (4) X: Influx of K+ Y: Na+-K+ pump
(3) a-(iv), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iii)
(4) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(i), d-(iv) 170. Na+-K+ pump transports which of the
following ions across plasma membrane
164. Which of the following option include the of neuron?
bones Whose number is not same in the (1) Outside: 3 Na+ ; Inside: 2 K+
body? (2) Outside: 2 Na+ ; Inside: 3 K+
(1) Humerus and femur (3) Outside: 3 K+ ; Inside: 2 Na+
(2) Metacarpals and metatarsals (4) Outside: 2 K+ ; Inside: 3 Na+
(3) Radius and tibia
(4) Carpals and tarsals 171. Which system provides an organised
network of point-to-point connections
165. Presence of a coxal bone formed by the for a quick coordination?
fusion of three smaller bones is a (1) Neural system
feature of (2) Endocrine system
(1) Pectoral girdle (2) Pelvic girdle (3) Feedback system
(3) Vertebral column (4) Tarsals (4) Neuroendocrine system
166. Acetabulum is bounded by

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172. Cell body with only one axon as a cell (1) Detect stimuli
process is found in (2) Receive stimuli
(1) Retina of eye (3) Transmit stimuli
(2) Embryonic stage (4) Generate stimuli
(3) Dorsal root ganglia of spinal nerve
178. Which of the following neural system is
(4) Cerebral cortex
the site of information processing and
173. Which area of cerebral cortex is control?
responsible for complex functions like (1) CNS (2) PNS
intersensory associations, memory and (3) ANS (4) SNS
communications?
179. Unipolar neurons have
(1) Sensory area (2) Motor area
(1) One axon and one dendrite
(3) Association area (4) Afferent area
(2) One cell body and One axon
174. Which of the following has a very (3) One axon and two dendrites
convoluted surface in order to provide (4) One axon and many dendrites
the additional space for many more
180. Neurons are excitable cells because their
neurons?
membranes are in a
(1) Pons (2) Olfactory lobes
(1) Depolarised state
(3) Cerebrum (4) Medulla
(2) Repolarised state
175. Voluntary muscular coordination is under (3) Polarised state
the control of (4) Hyperpolarised state
(1) Hypothalamus
181. In a nerve fibre, impulse generated is
(2) Cerebellum
always conducted towards nerve
(3) Cerebral hemisphere
terminals and current on surface of
(4) Medulla oblongata
nerve fibres always runs towards
176. Which of the following statement is (1) Synaptic vesicles (2) Synaptic Knob
correct w.r.t. resting axonal membrane? (3) Axon terminals (4) Cell body
(1) More permeable to sodium ions
182. Select the organism having simplest
(2) Impermeable to negatively charged
form of neural organization.
proteins present in the axoplasm
(1) Spongilla (2) Hydra
(3) Fluid outside the axon contains a
(3) Pheretima (4) Apis
low concentration of Na+
(4) Possesses a positive charge in its 183. All of the following structures are
inner surface while negative charge considered as part of forebrain except
on outer surface (1) Cerebrum
(2) Thalamus
177. All of the following functions can be
(3) Cerebral aqueduct
performed by neurons expect
(4) Hypothalamus
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 (2) 1 frontal, 1 parietal, 2 occipitals, 1
184. Cerebral cortex does not contain
temporal, 2 sphenoids and 1 ethmoid
(1) Motor areas
(3) 2 frontals, 1 parietal, 1 occipital, 2
(2) Association areas
temporals, 1 sphenoid and 1 ethmoid
(3) Sensory areas
(4) None of these
(4) Major coordinating centre for
sensory and motor signaling 190. Saltatory conduction occurs in
(1) Myelinated nerve fibres
185. Select the incorrect match from the
(2) Non-myelinated nerve-fibres
following.
(3) Both myelinated and non-myelin
(1) Hypothalamus — Controls body
nerve fibres
temperature
(4) Skeletal muscle fibres
(2) Limbic system — Expression of
emotional behaviour 191. In the given diagram, identify A, B and C.
(3) Cerebellum — Wraps around
thalamus
(4) Medulla oblongata — Regulates
cardiovascular reflexes

SECTION-B (1) A: Cerebellum, B: Medulla, C: Pons

186. Cori's cycle operates in (2) A: Cerebrum, B: Medulla, C: Pons
(1) Liver (3) A: Cerebrum, B: pons, C: Olfactory
(2) Liver and muscles lobe
(3) Nerve (4) A: Corpus callosum, B: Cerebrum, C:
(4) Muscles Medulla
187. The smooth sustained contraction of a 192. In man, the brain ventricles are
muscle due to fusion of many twitches is (1) 1 (2) 3
called (3) 4 (4) 5
(1) Tendon (2) Tetanus
(3) Twitch (4) Rigor mortis 193. Arbor vitae is composed of
(1) Grey matter
188. The function of skeleton in vertebrates (2) Neuroglea cells
is/are (3) White matter
(1) Support (2) Hearing (4) All of the above
(3) Sound production (4) All the above
194. Given below is a diagram of the bones of
189. The cranium is formed of 8 bones. They the left human hindlimb as seen from
are front. It has certain mistakes in labelling.
(1) 1 frontal, 2 parietals, 1 occipital, 2 Two of the wrongly labelled bones are
temporals, 1 sphenoid and 1 ethmoid

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 199. The human neural system comprises of
(1) PNS only (2) CNS only
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these

200. Recognise the figure and find out the

correct matching.

(1) Tibia and Tarsals

(2) Femur and Fibula
(3) Fibula and Phalanges
(4) Tarsals and Femur (1) 1 – autonomic neural system, 2 –
somatic neural system, 3 –
195. Which of the following represents the sympathetic neural system, 4 –
correct order of vertebral regions from parasympathetic neural system
superior to inferior? (2) 1 – cranial nerves, 2 – spinal nerves,
I. Sacrum II. Thoracic 3 – autonomic neural system, 4 –
III. Cervical IV. Lumber somatic neural system
V. Coccyx (3) 1 – brain, 2 – spinal cord, 3 –
(1) I – II - III – IV – V somatic neural system, 4 –
(2) II – IV – I – III – V autonomic neural system
(3) IV – I – II – V – I (4) 1 – spinal cord, 2 – brain, 3 –
(4) III – II – IV – I – V sympathetic neural system, 4 –
196. Which one is anatomically correct? parasympathetic neural system
(1) Collar bones — 3 pairs
(2) Salivary glands — 1 pair
(3) Cranial nerves — 10 pairs
(4) Foating ribs — 2 pairs

197. Glenoid cavity is associated with

(1) Scapula (2) Humerus
(3) Femur (4) Both (1) and (2)

198. Which of the following system provides

the fastest means of communication
within the body?
(1) Endocrine system
(2) Nervous system
(3) Circulatory system
(4) Digestive system

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