SCIENC

E
Exam Strategy Review (ESR)
2nd Mock Test Evaluation
 EARTH
SCIENCE
Exam Strategy Review (ESR)
2nd Mock Test Evaluation
1. Weathering is the process that
changes solid rock into sediments. With
weathering, rock is disintegrated. It
breaks into pieces. However, rocks on the
moon are not being weathered. Which of
the following is the reason for this?

A. There is no atmosphere on the moon. 

B. There is no water on the moon.
C. There is no volcano on the moon.
D. The gravity on the moon is very small.
underground spaces large enough for a
human to enter. Caves can be formed
through either physical or chemical
weathering. Which of the following can
form a cave or cavern?

A. dissolution of limestone
B. erosion from water
C. volcanic activity such as lava flow
D. All of the above can form a cave.
3. The color of the soil tells us about the
various chemical processes acting on it.
One of the processes includes the
chemistry of oxidation-reduction actions
upon the various minerals of soil. A
common soil color that could be seen in
warm, temperate, and moist climates is
red-orange. Which among the following
contribute for this color?
A. Iron
B. Silicon
C. Aluminum
inside or outside the earth causes the
formation of igneous rocks. These rocks are
characterized by the presence of large or
small crystals, depending on the rate of
cooling of the rocks. Granite is an intrusive
igneous rock that cooled beneath the earth’s
crust, and has large crystals. What is the
most probable reason for this?

A. Extreme pressures at the bottom create larger crystals.

B. Gravity causes the heavier crystals to collect at the bottom of
intrusive igneous rocks.
C. Hotter temperatures act as a catalyst to increase the rate of
crystal formation in intrusive igneous rocks.
D. Hotter temperatures beneath the earth’s crust decrease the
5. A mid-ocean ridge is an underwater
mountain system that consists of various
mountain ranges, typically having a valley
known as a rift running along its spine,
formed by divergent plate tectonics. One of
the famous mid-ocean ridges is the Mid-
Atlantic Ridge slicing through the center of
Iceland. Which of the following causes this
formation?
A.volcanic eruptions
B. under ocean currents
C. tectonic plates moving away from each other
D. tectonic plates moving toward each other
9. The diagram below
shows the geological
ranges and relative
abundances (width of the
shaded area) for the major
groups of animals. Based on
the diagram, in which era
were the jellyfish and
starfish most abundant?
A. Cretaceous
B. Cenozoic
C. Mesozoic
D. Paleozoic
12. The weather bulletin
in a certain country
shows the following
temperature:

What unit of
temperature is being
used in this country?
Mon Tue Wed Thu Fri
A.Kelvin
B. Celsius
22 19 18 21 17
C. Fahrenheit
D. Rankine
15. An equatorial bulge is a bulge which a
planet may have around its equator,
distorting it into an oblate spheroid. The
Earth has an equatorial bulge of 42.72 km due
to its rotation, that is,the Earth’s diameter
measured across the equatorial plane is 42.72
km more than that measured between the
poles.Which is responsible for bulging
equator and flattened poles of the Earth?
A.revolution of the Earth around the sun
B. rotation of the Earth about its axis
C. tilting of the Earth’s axis
D. gravitational attraction of the moon
16. Which of the
following statements
are false based on the
diagram below?

A.C is the youngest

structure.
B. B is formed after A.
C. E is the oldest
structure.
D. A and D were once
horizontal.
17. When a continental plate
collides with an oceanic plate, the
continental crust is forced to move
over the oceanic crust. What is the
primary reason that continental
crust stays on top of the oceanic
crust?

A.The continental crust is less dense.

B. The continental crust deforms less easily.
C. The continental crust contains more minerals.
Earth, as viewed from
space above Earth’s
North Pole. The Moon is
shown at eight positions Moon’s orbit
in its orbit. Spring tides
occur when there are
significant increases in
water level of the oceans North
Pole

due to gravitational pull.

At which two positions of
the Moon will spring
tides occur?

A. 1 and 5
B. 2 and 6
1. In which set are the rock drawings labeled with the correct rock types?

A.

B.

C.
20. Scientists believe that a large
asteroid struck the Earth
approximately 65 million years ago.
It is often theorized that this event
contributed to the
A. end of the last ice age.
B. breaking up of the supercontinent
Pangaea.
C. evolution of the first birds.
D. extinction of the dinosaurs.
21. The cross
section below shows
rock layers A, B, C,
D, and fault F.
Which sequence
places the rock
layers and fault in
order from oldest to
youngest?
A. F A B C D
B. D C B A F
C. A B C D F
22. The diagram below
shows the relative positions
of the Sun, the Moon, and
Earth when an eclipse is
observed from Earth.
Positions A and B are
locations on Earth’s surface.
Which of the following is
correct based on the given
diagram?
A.A lunar eclipse is observed from
position A.
B.A lunar eclipse is observed from
position B.
C.A solar eclipse is observed from
position A.
23. Which of the following soil
types is best suited for water well?
A. sand
B. loam
C. silt
D. clay
24. Which of the following
statements is true regarding
climate and weather?
A. Weather is the condition of the
atmosphere for extended periods of
time.
B. Weather is the condition of the
atmosphere for a relatively short
interval.
C. Climate is the synonym of weather.
D. All of the statements are correct.
25. If a river is flowing toward the
hanging wall, how would the river
change during a normal fault
movement?
A. The river would possibly be dammed
up, until it finds a new pathway.
B. A waterfall would possibly be formed.
C. The river would change course.
D. The river would likely follow the fault.
26. The diagram
below represents
the movement of
coastal air during
daytime.
This air movement is
produced because
A. the land heats up more
rapidly than the sea.
B. the sea heats up more rapidly
than the land.
C. the ocean current is stronger
during the day.
D.the high tide and low tide
27. Global climate change can be
attributed to the increase in what
two gases produced by human
activities?
A. nitrous oxide and sulfur dioxide
B. methane and carbon dioxide
C. ozone and carbon dioxide
D. ozone and methane
28. What measurement is used to
quantify the destruction caused by
an earthquake?
A. the Richter scale
B. the modified Mercalli scale
C. the moment magnitude scale
D. the moment destruction scale
29. Which one of these is not true?
A. All planets revolve in the same
direction.
B. All planets rotate in the same
direction.
C. The orbits of the planets are all
ellipses.
D. The orbits of the planets are nearly in
the same plane.
 BIOLOGY
Exam Extensive Review (EER)
2nd Mock Test Evaluation
Adhesion refers to the attractive forces
between the water molecules and the walls of
the xylem vessels, while cohesion refers to
the attractive forces among water molecules.
Suppose an air bubble is present in a xylem
vessel, the conduction of water will be unable
to proceed. What is the reason behind this
phenomenon?
A. The air bubble interrupts the cohesive forces among the water
molecules. It cuts the continuous stream of water, making it
unable to continually flow.
B. The air bubble interrupts the adhesive forces between the walls
of the xylem vessels and the water molecules.
C. The air bubble is less dense than water, therefore impeding the
continuous flow of water.
7.A woman is a carrier of a sex-linked
trait marries a normal man. What is
the probability that their first-born
son would have the disease?
A.100%
B. 50%
C. 25%
D. cannot be determined
diagram below.
If the motor neuron
was blocked, what
would happen?
A. The finger would be able to feel
the sensation but would not be able
to move.
B. The finger would not be able to
feel the sensation but would be
able to move.
C. The finger would be able to feel
the sensation and would be able to
move.
D.The finger would not be able to
30.Flowers are the reproductive organs
of angiosperms. These organs have
various parts that fall under three
groups: (1) male parts, (2) female parts
and (3) accessory parts.
Depending on the present structures, a flower may
be categorized as complete, incomplete, perfect or
imperfect. Which of the following lists of parts
describes a perfect flower but not a complete
flower?

A.Pistil, stamen and accessory parts

B. Pistil and accessory parts only
C. Stamen and accessory parts only
31.How come a person with type B blood
cannot donate to a person with type A
blood?
A. The recipient has antibodies against B
blood, which has B-antigens, resulting in
clotting up the donated blood.
B. The recipient has B surface antigens that
can be recognized by antibodies of the donor,
resulting in rejection of the donated blood.
C. Both A and B are true.
D. None of the above statements are true.
32.To produce an offspring, one sperm
cell and one egg cell have to join
together. They merge together to make
one cell called zygote. Only one sperm
cell can enter the egg cell because ______.
A. the egg cell hardens the outer membrane
B. the sperm cells fight off one another
C. the other sperm cells are not volatile
enough
D. the size of the egg cell is only enough for
one sperm cell
33. While strolling in a wild-life conservation zone,
Yancy encountered a rabid dog. Her ‘fight’ or
‘flight’ system was triggered. Which among the
following can be observed in her body?

I – Increased heartbeat
II – Increased salivation
III – Increased urine formation
IV – Relaxed Bronchi

A. I only
B. I and III
C. II and III
D.I and IV
34.Suppose two hypothetical organisms
with blue eyes have an offspring with red
eyes. Assuming that this trait obeys the
Mendelian laws of inheritance, which
among the following statements is TRUE?
A. Red eye color is the dominant trait.
B. The red-eyed offspring has a homozygous
dominant genotype.
C. The parents both have a heterozygous
genotype.
D. The red-eyed offspring has a heterozygous
genotype.
35.A scientist performed an experiment
where he knocked out the genes of a
mouse cell responsible for producing the
Golgi complex. Which of the following
could be a consequence of the
experiment to mice lacking the gene?
A. Mice would grow to be fat, and obese, since there would be no
regulation of lipid synthesis.
B. Mice would develop uncontrolled mutations over the course of
its life, since production of proteins has been hampered.
C. Mice won’t grow or develop into adults, and will live for only a
few days or weeks, since proteins won’t be processed properly and
they wouldn’t know where to go after they’re synthesized.
D. The mice will be lethargic since they won’t be able to process
absorbed nutrients to transform them into energy in the form of
38.The circulatory system has three main
components: (1) the pumping organ – the
heart, (2) the circulating medium – the
blood and (3) the passageways of blood –
the blood vessels. Furthermore, there are
three types of blood vessels: capillaries,
arteries and veins. Capillaries are the
site of gas exchange between the blood
and the bodily tissues. Arteries carry
blood away from the heart while veins
carry blood towards the heart. Apart
from these differences in function, these
three types of blood vessels all have
Arteries have much thicker walls than veins.
What is the significance of the thicker walls
for arteries?
A.Arteries normally carry oxygenated blood – which
require flowing through thicker vessels in order to
preserve the oxygen content.
B. Arteries receive greater blood pressure than the
veins. The greater blood pressure would threaten
destroying thin-walled blood vessels, warranting
thicker walls for arteries.
C. Veins have valves that prevent back-flow of
blood. The valves are designed to work in thin
walled vessels.
D. Veins normally carry deoxygenated blood –
39. Which of the following processes is/are
involved in interphase of the cell cycle?

I. Telophase
II. Protein synthesis
III. Transcription
IV. Breaking apart of sister chromatids
V. Formation of Okazaki fragments in DNA

A. II and V
B. II only
C. III, IV, and V
D. II, III, and V
40. The small intestine is a long tube loosely
coiled in the abdomen. It is around five
meters long, making it the longest section of
the digestive tract. Why is the small intestine
that long?
A.To digest the food for a longer period of time
B. To absorb more water and salt from the food
that has not been digested well
C. To have more surface area for the absorption of
nutrients from the food into the bloodstream
D. The length of the small intestine does not
matter.
41. Professor Geller wanted to demonstrate
the role of osmosis in plant cells. He placed
the cells in a solution that is hypertonic to the
cells. The solution contains red microscopic
dye particles. Which of the following could be
a possible result of Professor Geller’s
demonstration?
A. Plant cells decrease in size (flaccid), and the solution
will have a lighter color.
B. Plant cells increase in size (turgid), and the solution will
remain the same color.
C. Plant cells maintain their size, and the solution will
become darker.
D.Plant cells will burst, causing the solution to reduce its
42. Which of the following statements is/are
false regarding DNA synthesis?
A. The formation of a new strand by DNA
polymerases ALWAYS proceeds from a 5’ to 3’
direction.
B. Okazaki segments cannot be synthesized
continuously.
C. Only DNA polymerase III attaches at the 3’ end of
the template strand.
D. As the replication fork splits, both DNA strands
show opposite directions of replication by DNA
polymerases.
CHEMISTRY
Exam Strategy Review (ESR)
2nd Mock Test Evaluation
10. What is the sum of the
coefficients when the following
equation is balanced using the
smallest possible whole numbers?
C2H2 + O2= CO2 + H2O
A.5
B. 7
C. 11
D. 13
11.The Law of Conservation of Mass
established in 1789 by French chemist
Antoine Lavoisier states that mass is
neither created nor destroyed during the
course of chemical reactions. How does
the Law of Conservation of Mass apply to
a burning paper?
A. The mass of the paper before the reaction equals the mass of
the paper after the reaction.
B. The mass of the paper and the ashes equals the mass of the
oxygen and the gas given off during the time the paper burned.
C. The mass of the paper and the oxygen that allowed it to burn
equals the mass of the ashes and the gas given off during burning.
D. The mass of the paper equals the mass of the ashes and oxygen
1. If and are atoms of two different elements, which diagram represents a physical change, only?

A.

B.

C.

D.
14.The following are
the electron
configurations of four
elements. Which is
false based on the
I. 1s22s22p5
given configurations?
II. 1s22s22p2
III. [Ar]4s23d5
A.I and II belong to the same
period. IV. [Ar]4s23d104p5
B. I and IV belong to the
same group.
C. II and III are metals.
36.Which of the following
is correctly paired?

A. vinegar - element
B. paint - solution
C. air - compound
D. 18 K gold - mixture
37.What is the limiting reagent for the
following chemical reaction if 24 grams
of hydrogen and 48 grams of oxygen
react to form water?
2H2 + O2->2H2O

A. Hydrogen
B. Oxygen
C. Water
D. This reaction has no limiting reagent.
44. As an acidic solution is
titrated with drops of base, the pH
value of the solution will _____.

A. increase
B. decrease
C. remain the same
D. approach zero
45. What percent of a parent
isotopes remains after 2 half-
lives?

A. 50%
B. 25%
C. 6.25%
D. 2%
44. As an acidic solution is
titrated with drops of base,
the pH value of the solution
will _____.
A. increase
B. decrease
C. remain the same
D. approach zero
1. What mass, in g, of hydrogen gas is formed when 3.0 mol of aluminum react with excess hydrochloric acid
according to the following equation?

2Al(s) + 6HCl(aq) 2AlCl3(aq) + 3H2(g)

A. 3.0
B. 4.5
C. 6.0
D. 9.0
46. What occurs when an atom
gains an electron?
A. The atom’s radius decreases and the atom
becomes a negative ion.
B. The atom’s radius decreases and the atom
becomes a positive ion.
C. The atom’s radius increases and the atom
becomes a negative ion.
D. The atom’s radius increases and the atom
becomes a positive ion.
47. Molality, m, is defined as
number of moles of solute per
kg of solvent. If 230 g of
ethanol (C2H5OH) is added to
500 g of water, what is the
molality of the solution?
A. 0.46 m
B. 1 m
C. 2.17 m
D. 10 m
gas at 206°C, a
sample of a
substance is
allowed to cool for
16 minutes. This
process is
represented by the
cooling curve below.
What is the melting point of
this substance?
A.206°C
B. 150°C
49. The relative molecular mass of
a gas is 56 and its empirical
formula is CH2. What is the
molecular formula of the gas?
[The atomic masses, in g, are
approximately 12 for C and 1 for
H.]
A. CH2
B. C2H4
C. C3H6
 PHYSICS
Exam Strategy Review (ESR)
2nd Mock Test Evaluation
51. A man walks 15 m north,
14 m east, 6 m west, and
finally 9 m south. How far is
the man from his starting
point?
A. 5 m
B. 8 m
C. 9 m
D. 10 m
air at an angle. Neglecting air
resistance, what is the stone’s
velocity upon reaching its
maximum height?
A. zero
B. equal to the horizontal component of its
initial velocity
C. equal to the vertical component of its
initial velocity
D. equal to the acceleration due to gravity
velocity of the car per second.
Which one of the following
does not describe the motion
of the car?
A. constant acceleration then constant
velocity
B. increasing speed then zero
acceleration
C. 2 m/s2 acceleration then zero
acceleration
54 The table below
shows the velocity of
the car per second.
Which one of the
following does not Velocity
Time (s)
describe the motion of (m/s)
the car? 0
1
0
2
A.constant acceleration 2 4
then constant velocity 3 6
B. increasing speed then 4 8
zero acceleration 5 8
C. 2 m/s2 acceleration 6 8
then zero acceleration
D. increasing acceleration
uniformly accelerated
rectilinear motion are:
 

A ball is dropped from

the top of a building.
Neglecting air
resistance, it takes
4.0 seconds to reach
the ground. How high
is the building?
A. 56.5 m
B. 67.2 m
C. 78.4 m
56. A thunder is heard after 3
seconds a lightning flash. How far is
the lightning flash? Take the speed
of sound to be 340 m/s.
A. 11.3 m
B. 680 m
C. 1.02 km
D. 1.5 km
the density of substance to the
density of water. Suppose the
specific gravity of liquid X is 1.2.
Which of the following will not float
in liquid X?
A. Water
B. A 1000-cm3 object whose mass is 750
g
C. A solid object whose specific gravity is
0.9
D. A liquid whose specific gravity is 1.3
force and the lever arm. In
symbols,
Refer to the diagram below.
Two masses, 8 kg and 10 kg,
are hung at both ends of a 90-
cm stick. The stick has
markings every 10 cm. If the 𝜏 =𝐹 𝐼 ×𝑙
 

mass of the stick is

negligible, where should
the stick be suspended by
means of a cord to remain
the stick horizontal
A.A
B. B
C. C
Torque
• Torque is the product of distance and force.
long slide that is inclined 30.0 with
the horizontal. What is the potential
energy of the child with respect to
the ground when he reaches the top
of the slide?
A. 225 J
B. 450 J
C. 2.2 kJ
D. 4.4 kJ
shows two identical
bulbs are connected
in series to a
battery.
How can you make
bulb 1 glow
brighter?
A. omit CD and replace with EF
B. connect point E to B and
point F to C
C. connect point E to A and
point F to B
D.connect point E to B and
61. Find the total
current flowing
through the circuit.
A. 4.50 A
B. 3.37 A
C. 1.34 A
D. 1.27 A