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Today’s Meny
f : A → B
f : A → B
• f is a function from A to B,
• f maps A to B.
• A is the domain of f and B is the codomain of f.
• f(a) = b, if b is the unique element of B assigned by the function f to
the element a of A.
•b is the image of a
•a is a preimage of b.
•range of f
•image, of f
•is the set of all images of elements of A.
f : A → B
• f(a) = b,
if b is the unique element of B assigned by the function f to the element a of A.
•b is the image of a
•a is a preimage of b.
f : A → B
•range of f
•image, of f
•is the set of all images of elements of A.
Codomain vs range
Amjad
A
Majid
A-
B+
Sajid
B
Rashid B-
C
Shahid
D
Real Valued Function
( f1+f2)(x) = f1(x)+f2(x)
Amjad
A
Majid
A-
B+
Sajid
B
Rashid B-
C
Shahid
D
Example:
• Determine whether the function f (x) = x2 from the set of integers to the set
of integers is one-to-one.
Example:
•Function
•Arrow from all elements of domain
•Exactly one arrow
•Types
•One-to-one : At most one arrow on element of codomain if any
•On-to: Arrow on all elements of codomain
•Bijection: One arrow on all elements of codomain.
Prove type of function
•Suppose that f : A → B
•To show that f is injective Show that if f (x) = f (y) for arbitrary x, y ∈ A, then x = y.
•To show that f is not injective Find particular elements x, y ∈ A such that x ≠ y and f (x)
= f (y).
•To show that f is surjective Consider an arbitrary element y ∈ B and find an element x ∈
A such that f (x) = y.
•To show that f is not surjective Find a particular y ∈ B such that f (x) ≠ y for all x ∈ A.
Prove that f(x) = x+1 is injective
•f:ZZ
•If there exists some a and b where a!=b but f(a) = f(b)
then the function is not injective.