Professional Documents
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FINANCE
1.Liquidity
2.Activity
3.Debt
4.Profitability
Analyzing Liquidity
1. Liquidity refers to the solvency of the
firm's overall financial position, i.e. a
"liquid firm" is one that can easily meet its
short-term obligations as they come due.
2. A second meaning includes the concept of
converting an asset into cash with little or
no loss in value.
Three Important Liquidity Measures
(OPM) OPM =
Operating Profits (EBIT)
Sales
Net Profit Margin (NPM) Net Profit After Taxes
NPM=
Sales
Return on Total Assets Net Profit After Taxes
(ROA) ROA=
Total Assets
Return On Equity (ROE) ROE=
Net Profit After Taxes
Stockholders’ Equity
Earnings Per Share (EPS) Earnings Available for
Common Stockholder’s
EPS =
Number of Shares of Common
Price/Earnings (P/E) Ratio Stock Outstanding
Market Price Per Share of
Common Stock
P/E =
Earnings Per Share
Other ratios
• Gearing ratio = (fixed term loan+ debentures
sold) / Net asset
This ratio indicates commitment for repayment
of borrowed money, the higher ratio indicates
that the profit is likely to be diverted for
repaying the loans
Other ratios
•Output per employee = (value of sales)/
Number of employees
Example : 1
Liquidity ratio
Quick (Acid-Test) Ratio (QR)
Personnel 52,000 - 4
Purchase 65,000 - 2
Machine shop 1,25,000 6,20,000 8
Assembly shop 1,00,000 1,75,000 6
Example : 2
Above mentioned job is manufactured in a
machine shop for which direct material cost
is Rs. 25; direct labour cost is Rs. 18 and
direct expenses is Rs. 10 per unit. The
overhead should be absorbed on the basis of
direct material rate. Find the total cost of the
job.
Example : 2- solution
1. The problem is to be solved by apportion and absorption of
overhead costs
2. Eliminate the cost of personnel department by distributing the
overhead of personnel department proportionately to other
departments.
Basis of distribution= number of employees in a particular
department
i. Total number of employees from other than personnel = 2+8+6 = 16
ii. Towards purchase department = (2/16)*52,000 = 6,500
iii. Towards m/c shop = (8/16)*52,000 = 26,000
iv. Towards assembly shop = (6/16)*52,000 = 19,500
3. Total overhead purchase dept. =6,50,000+ 6,500
=71,500
Example : 2- solution
3. Apportioning of purchase overheads to production shops
Basis of distribution= direct material cost in a particular department
TOTAL DIRECT MATERIAL COST= 6,200,00 + 1,75,000=
7,95,000
i. Towards machine shop =
(71,500* 6,20,000) / 7,95,000= 55,761
i. Towards assembly shop =
(71,500*1,75,000) / 7,95,000= 15,738
4. Total overhead of machine shop =
m/c shop overhead +personnel portion + purchase portion =
1,25,000+26,000+55,761=2,06,761
Example : 2- solution
5. Total overhead of assembly shop =
assembly shop overhead +personnel portion + purchase portion =
1,000,00 + 19,500 + 15,738
= 1,35,238
6. Total overheads of production shops = overhead of machine shop
+ overhead of assembly shop= 2,06,761 + 1,35,238 = 3,42,000
7. Material recover rate (MRR) :
for processing every Rupee of material in machine shop the
overhead = machine shop overhead / direct material cost =
2,06,761 / 6,20,000 = 0.33, As the cost of direct material is Rs. 25 ,
MRR = 25+25*0.33 = 33.25
Example : 2- solution
8. Total cost of job which is manufactured in machine shop = 25
+ 8.25 + 18 + 10 = 61.25
Example : 3
The running cost of a machine is as follows:
Values are in Rs.
1. Tooling cost 35,000
2. Maintenance 18,000
3. Spare parts 23,000
4. Power cost 4.5 per hour
• The machine is depreciated at the rate of Rs. 6,000 every
year
• The expected run time is 313 days with two shifts of 8 hours
each day i.e. 16 hours per day
Example : 3
• Find out overhead recovery rate and total cost of a job
manufactured on this machine with the following additional
information:
Direct material cost : Rs. 180
Direct labour cost: Rs. 250
Direct expenses : Rs. 120
Machine usage time : 6.5 hours
Example : 3 - solution
1. Total working hours =
313*16=5,008 per year
2. Power cost per year =5,008*4.5=22,536
3. Total overhead for the machine = Tooling cost
35,000+Maintenance 18,000 +Spare parts 23,000 +
Depreciation 6,000 + Power cost 22,536 = 98,536
4. Machine hour rate = total overhead / number of working
hours = 98,536 / 5,008 =20.87 Rs. Per hour
5. Total cost = 180 + 250 + 120 + (6.5*20.87) = 685.67
Investment appraisal
1. It is way of analyzing the financial value of cost of
investment decisions.
2. This is not only technique to be used and there will be
always many factors that affect a decision
3. This helps in comparing investments and forcing you to
think about the cost of a particular decision
4. Investment appraisal is not a costing exercise
5. Example : the cost and returns associated with the
purchase of a new equipment
Techniques of Investment appraisal
1. Payback period :
i. It is the time that a project must run in order that the
cash generated will repay the initial investment.
ii. Payback is calculated on the basis of absolute values of
the expected income after tax.
iii. This is simple a technique and therefore widely used
iv. The early returns are generally preferred to the longer
ones
v. It does not recognize that that money devalues with
time
Example : 4
1. Investment = Rs. 1,00,000
2. Annual return = Rs. 20,000
3. Payback =
(1,00,000 / 20,000) = 5 years
Techniques of Investment appraisal
P = S / (1+i)n
Where
P = Present value
S = Sum in future
i = interest rate (also called discount rate)
n = number of years
Net present value
1. An investor get 8% interest per annum by investing money in
a building society . The investor is offered an alternative
investment by another company which will provide Rs.
3,88,000 at the end of each of three following years
2. In order to calculate the value of this second investment we
need to asses what it is worth today
Net present value
P = ((3,88,000) / 1.081) + ((3,88,000) / 1.082) +
((3,88,000) / 1.083)
= 3,59,259.3 + 3,32,647.5 + 3,08,006.9 = 9,99,913.6
value year
Rs. 600000 0
Rs. 6,00,000 – 10% =54,0000 1
Rs. 54,0000 – 10%=48,600 2
Production unit method
1. The depreciation charge is based on number
of units of work produced
2. D= (c-s)/N
D= depreciation charge, c= cost, s=scrap value,
N= estimated production units
3. Example
i. Cost : Rs. 13,00,000
ii. Scrap value : Rs. 50,000
iii. Estimate production : 2,50,000 units
iv. Depreciation charge = (13,00,000- 50,000)/ 2,50,000
= Rs. 5 per unit
Example : 6
• A transport vehicle was purchased at a cost of
Rs.18,50,000 . The useful life in terms of
number of kilometer is 4,50,000 and scrap
value is Rs. 50,000 . Calculate the
depreciation rate and find out deprecation for
1st and 2nd year and also calculate the book
value of vehicle if it has travelled 13,000 km in
1st year and 18,500 km in 2nd year
Example : 6 - Solution
1st year:
• Cost C=18,50,000 Rs.
• Working units N=4,50,000 km
• Scarp value s = 50,000 Rs.
1. Depreciation rate =
(18,50,000 - 50,000)/ 4,50,000 = 4 Rs./km.
2. Depreciation for 13,000 km. = 4* 13,000
= 52,000 Rs.
3. Book value = cost of asset – depreciation
=18,50,000 - 52,000 = 17,98,000 Rs.
Example : 6 - Solution
2nd year:
• Cost C=18,50,000 Rs.
• Working units N=4,50,000 km
• Scarp value s = 50,000 Rs.
1. Depreciation rate =
(18,50,000 - 50,000)/ 4,50,000 = 4 Rs./km.
2. Depreciation for 18,500 km. = 4* 18,500
= 74,000 Rs.
3. Book value
= cost of asset after 1 year – depreciation in 2nd year
=17,98,000 - 74,000 = 17,24,000 Rs.
Example : 7
The following data is given for a company
Department Direct No. Of Floor Dept
Material cost employees area m2 overhead
Rs. Rs.
M/c shop 5,00,000 14 500 90,000
Ass shop 2,50,000 20 1,000 74,000
Moulding 2,00,000 14 1,000 82,000
shop
Personnel 0 5 0 50,000
Purchase 0 6 0 70,000
Maintenance 0 3 0 30,000
Total 9,50,000 62 2,500 3,96,000
Example : 7
Apportion the overhead to 3 production
shops and calculate the cost of a job which is
manufactured a moulding shop where
material cost is Rs. 74 and labour cost is Rs. 50
Example : 7 - solution
1. The problem is to be solved by apportion and absorption of
overhead costs
2. Eliminate the cost of personnel department by distributing the
overhead of personnel department proportionately to other
departments.
Basis of distribution= number of employees in a particular
department
3. Machine shop
i. Total number of employees from other than personnel = 62-5= 57
ii. Towards m/c shop = (14/57)*50,000 = 12,280.7
iii. Updated overhead of m/c shop =90,000+12,280=
1,02,280.7
Example : 7 - solution
4. Assembly shop :
• personnel apportionment
= (20/57)*50,000 = 17,543
• Updated overhead of assembly shop
=74,000 + 17,543 = 91,543
5. Moulding shop :
• personnel apportionment
= (14/57)*50,000 = 12,280
• Updated overhead of moulding shop
=83,000 + 12,280 = 94,280
Example : 7 - solution
6. Purchase department:
• personnel apportionment
= (6/57)*50,000 = 5,263
• Updated overhead of Purchase department
=70,000 + 5,263 = 75,263
7. Maintenance department:
• personnel apportionment
= (3/57)*50,000 = 2,631
• Updated overhead of Purchase department
=30,000 + 2,631 = 32,631
1. Eliminate the cost of purchase department by distributing
the overhead of personnel department proportionately to
other departments.
Basis of distribution= cost of direct material in a particular
department
2. Machine shop
i. Total cost of material= 5,00,000 +2,50,000 +2,00,000 = 9,50,000
ii. Towards m/c shop = (14/57)*50,000 = 12,280.7
iii. Updated overhead of m/c shop =90,000+12,280=
1,02,280