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Valuation of Bond and Stock: Financial Management
Valuation of Bond and Stock: Financial Management
Financial Management
Professor Banikanta Mishra, XIMB, XUB, India
What is a Bond*?
A commitment by a borrower/issuer
on pre-specified dates
Maturity Date
t=0 t=1 t=2 t=3 … t=T
Coupon C1 C2 C3 … CT
Face-Value FV
FV & C
specified
C C C … C
FV
t=0 t = 1Q t = 2Q
Interest Interest
Set Payment
Date Interest
Reset
Interest
Payment
Interest
Reset
Interest
Paid
3-m LIBOR =5.0% $2,600
Interest
Paid
3-m LIBOR = 5.8% $3,000
[*bp = one-hundredth of 1% = 0.01%]
$1,000 Face-Value,
PV =
C x PVIFAR,T C C C … C
+
FV
(1 R )T FV
PV =
+
1,000
(1 10%)5 1,000
R P0 P0
Coupon 110
Face Val 1000
07/24/21 Professor Banikanta Mishra 13
ERR: Buy at t=0, Sell at t=1
t=0 t=1
Buy the Bond Sell the Bond
Cash Outflow Cash Inflow
P0 P1
+C
P1 + C
P1 C P0 C P1 P0
ERR
P0 P
0 P0
Current Yield Capital Gains Yield
CuY CGY
10.60% -0.60%
Current Yield Capital Gains Yield
As expected, ERR = RRR = 10% CuY CGY
P0 C C + P2
Find the R for which
C C P2
P0 (1 =R ) +
(1 R ) 2
1,000 1,037.91
110
Approx Yield 5 9.9896%
1,000 2 x 1037.91
3
07/24/21 Professor Banikanta Mishra 19
YTM: Another Example
IBM KG 5.700% coupon bond maturing in Sep 2017
was selling on 9/21/07 for 100.723% of Face Value.
What is its YTM?
We can take its FV to be $100. N = 2017 – 2007 = 10.
-100.723 PV; 5.70 PMT; 10 N; 100 FV; CPT I/Y 5.6036
So, its YTM = 5.6036% = EAR
What are YTM and EAR if its coupon is semiannual?
-100.723 PV; 2.85 PMT; 20 N; 100 FV; CPT I/Y 2.8023
YTM = 2 x 2.8023% = 5.6046%
EAR = (1 + 2.8023%)2 – 1 = 5.6831%
07/24/21 Professor Banikanta Mishra 20
RRR or Cost of Debt
R= RF + Risk Premium
Dividends D1 D2 ... DT
D1 D2 DT
PV = (1 R ) + (1 R ) 2 + … + (1 R ) T
D1
T
1 g
or Po 1
R g 1 R
10.00 11 .00
P0 P1
15% 10% 15% 10%
200.00 220.00
220.00 200.00
Growth 10% g
200.00
(*Average of dividend growth-rates from –2 to –1 and –1 to 0 =10% = g)
10.00 10.00
P0 50.00 P1 50.00
20% 0% 20% 0%
D1
In this mod el , P0
R
(*Average of dividend growth-rates from –2 to –1 and –1 to 0 = 0% = g)
DT DT
P0 P1
(1 R ) T (1 R ) T 1
P1 220
If Expected P1 = 220, then P0 = 200.00
1 R 1 10%
*No Dividend expected till T; Dividend from T+1 onwards
DT is the value at T of all expected future dividends to be paid from T+1 onwards
07/24/21 Professor Banikanta Mishra 28
Dividend-Yield and Capital-Gains Yield
D1
P0
Rg
D1
R g
P0
DY CGY
5% 10%
Dividend Yield Capital Gains Yield
As expected, ERR = RRR = 15% DY CGY
P0 D1 D2 + P2
Find the R for which
D1 D 2 P2
P0 (1 =R ) (1+ R ) 2
For our Stock, find R __
10.00 11 242.00
200.00 (1 =R ) (1+
R )2
BY T&E, get R = 15% => ERR = IRR = 15% (As expected, ERR = RRR)
07/24/21 Professor Banikanta Mishra 32
g > 0: Constant Growth Model
CGY = (PT – PT-1 )/ PT-1 = g => Prices and dividends grow at the same rate
Part of the return (ERR) comes from Dividend-Yield and part from CGY
(In our example, DY = 5% and CGY = 10%)
In this model, R > CGY = g, since R = g + DY
We know that,
D1
P0
Rg
D
R 1 g
P0
DY = Dividend Yield,
CGY = Capital Gains Yield DY CGY
R = CGY
R= 8% 8% 8% 8%
(=CGY+ DY)
PV= 48.02 20.00 16.00 12.80 10.24 Expected to fall by 20% per year
4
@R
10 1 1 20 %
= 10%
10% (20%) 1 10%
Expected to stabilize at $10 for ever
It is valued as a level-perpetuity,
with the RRR
lower than that of the RRR for equity
(but, of course, higher than RRR of debt)
Moreover,
RRR for a Cumulative Preferred would be
lower than that for a Non-Cumulative one