Final Coaching Criminalistic 2017

FINAL COACHING
CRIMINALISTIC
POLICE PHOTOGRAPHY
1. Miss Lily Cruz was on to a special photography using a film that was sensitive to UV radiation and primary colors. Miss Lily Cruz was using what type
of film?
A. Panchromatic film
B. Blue sensitive film
C. Ultra violet film
D. orthochromatic film
w e r : A
A n s
2. Anna use film that is sensitive to all
colors, except red. Anna was using what
type of film?
A. Orthochromatic film
B. Panchromatic film
C. Chromatic film
D. Apochromatic film
w e r : A
A n s
3. Types of film (black & white)
according to Color or Spectral sensitivity
that is sensitive to UV and blue color
only.
C. Infra-red films
D. Monochromatic
w e r : D
A n s
4. Sensitive to UV, blue, green, red
or all colors or infra-red rays.
C. Infra-red films
D. Monochromatic
w e r : C
A n s
Types of film (black & white) according to Color
or Spectral sensitivity:
Monochromatic (blue sensitivity) – sensitive to UV

and blue color only.
Orthochromatic film – sensitive to UV to blue and
green light.
Panchromatic – sensitive to UV, blue, green, red or
all colors, it has a widest range of spectral
sensitivity.
Infra-red films – sensitive to UV, blue, green, red
or all colors or infra-red rays.
5. The photographer in crime scene investigation
has to get as many photographs as he can. The first
shot that he should make just after reaching the
crime scene is the house where the crime of murder
was committed to one of its ten rooms. In getting
the façade of the house, what lens should he utilize?
A. telephoto lens
B. macro lens
C. normal lens
D. wide angel lens
w e r : D
A n s
6. PO3 Revon with his team conducted a
thorough stakeout of a certain building in
Quirante II. In order to document all the
movements of their subjects, they have apply
the principles of photography with the aid of
what particular lens mechanism?
A. wide angle lens
B. zoom lens
C. telephoto lens
D. fish eye lens
w e r : C
A n s
7. A lens with variable focal length that
can be quickly adjusted to varying
subject or image size.
A. Focusing Lens
B. Normal Lens
C. Wide lens
D. Zoom lens
w e r : D
A ns
8. A lens with a focal length of less than
the diagonal of its negative material.
A. telephoto lens
B. long lens
C. normal lens
D. wide angle lens
w e r : D
A n s
9. If a camera lens has a fixed focal
length of 50mm. such lens is
classified:
A. Focusing Lens
B. Normal Lens
C. Wide lens
D. Zoom lens
w e r : B
A n s
10. A type of a lens that would make an
object to be exaggeratedly closes to the
photographer and is ideal in stake out
surveillance photography.
A. Short Focus Lens
B. Telephoto Lens
C. Normal Focus Lens
D. Wide Angle Lens
w e r : B
A n s
LENS CHARACTERISTICS
Focal Length – it is the distance

measured from the optical center of the
lens to the film plane when the lens is
focused at infinity position. According
to focal length, lenses may be
classified as:
Wide Angle lens – a lens with a focal length of less than
the diagonal of the negative material. Equal or Less than
35mm.
Normal lens – a lens with a focal length of approximately

equal or more but not more than twice of the negative
material. 35mm to 70mm.
Long or Telephoto lens – a lens with a focal length of

more than twice the diagonal of the negative material.
From 70mm up.
Zoom lens – a lens with variable focal length that can be

quickly adjusted to varying subject or image size.
11. A black and white films posses several
characteristics such as speed, spectral
and granularity. The speed will be
referring to the sensitivity of the film to
light, granularity is the graininess and
the spectral is the sensitivity to:
A. spectrum
B. wavelength
C. electromagnetic energy r: B D. all
of these An s w e
“WAVELENGHT”- is the distance measured
from the crest (highest point) to the wave of the
next succeeding crest while Frequency is the
number of waves passing in a given point in one
second. The product of two is the speed of travel.
Wavelength is measured by the angstrom unit or in
terms of milli-microns (English system of
measure) or nanometer (Metric system of measure)
which is equivalent to one over one millionth of a
millimeter.
12. Are light having wave lengths
30 to 400?
A. Ultraviolet light
B. Visible light
C. X-ray
D. Infrared light
w e r : A
A n s
13. Are light having wave lengths
700 to 1000 ?
B. Visible light
C. X-ray
D. Infrared light
w e r : D
A n s
14. Are light having wave lengths .01
to 30?
B. Visible light
C. X-ray
D. Infrared light
w e r : C
A ns
CHARACTERISTICS OF LIGHT
Electromagnetic Spectrum – refers to the entire range
of frequencies or wavelengths of electromagnetic
waves
1. Cosmic Rays
2. Gamma Rays
3. X-Rays .01 to 30 nanometer
4. Ultraviolet (UV) 30 to 400 millimicrons
5. Visible Light 400 to 700 nanometer
6. Infrared (IR) 700 to 1000 millimicrons
7. Hertzian Waves (Radio Waves)
15. In the modernization of the photography,
DSLR camera almost dominated the market
because of its great features that are very
useful in commercial photo shoots. What do
DSLR means?
A. Double system reflex camera
n s
B. Dual Single reflex camera
A w
C. Digital System reflex camera
e r : D
D. Digital Single reflex camera
16. Fish –eye lens is a special type of
camera having a view angle of:
A. 60 degrees
B. 180 degrees
C. 90 degrees
D. 360 degrees
w e r : B
A n s
17. Similarity of a camera to human
eye, eyeball is equivalent to what?
A. Camera Body
B. Shutter
C. Aperture
D. Diaphragm Answe r : A
18. Similarity of a camera to human eye,
Iris is equivalent to what?
A. Camera Body
B. Shutter
C. Aperture
D. Diaphragm
n s w e r: D
A
19. Similarity of a camera to human
eye, Pupil is equivalent to what?
A. Camera Body
B. Shutter
C. Aperture
D. Diaphragm nswe r : C
A
Similarity of a camera to human
eye
Eyeball- Camera Body
Eyelid- Shutter
Lens-Camera Lens
Iris- Diaphragm
Pupil- Aperture
Retina- Film/Film Holder
20. A part of a camera used in
focusing the light from the subject
A. view finder
B. lens
C. shutter
w e r : B
D. light tight box
A n s
21. This part of a camera is used to
allow light to enter through the lens
for a predetermined time interval.
A. shutter
B. holder of sensitized material
C. view finder
w e r : A
A n s
D. lens
22. In photography, what determines
how effectively a moving object can be
stopped, that is, how sharply it can be
reproduced without blurring, or
streaking in the final image?
A. Focus
B. Shutter speed nswe r : B
A
C. Aperture
D. Lens
23. It is a means of determining the field
of view of the camera or the extent of the
coverage of the lens.
A. Focus
B. Viewfinder
C. Aperture
w e r : B
D. Lens A n s
24. Located at the opposite side of the
lens?
A. Focus
B. Holder of sensitized material
C. Aperture
w e r : B
D. Lens A ns
Essential parts of the Camera
1. Body or Light Tight Box – suggest an

enclosure or devoid of light. Opens and
closes on a predetermined time during
exposure and allows only the light coming
from the lens to reach the film.
2. Lens - The function of the lens is to focus the
light coming from the subject. It is chiefly
responsible for the sharpness of the image
formed through which light passes during
exposure.
3. Shutter – is used to allow light to enter through
the lens and reach the film for a pre-determined
intervals of time, which light is again blocked off
from the film.
4. Holder of sensitized material – located at the
opposite side of the lens. Its function is to hold
firmly the sensitized material in its place during
exposure to prevent the formation of a multiple or
blurred image of the subject.
5. Viewfinder – it is a means of determining the
field of view of the camera or the extent of the
coverage of the lens.
25. What will be the lighting condition if you are
going to take a photograph using a film speed of
ISO 200 and a shutter speed of 1/250 with an
aperture of f8?
A. bright
B. hazy
C. dull
w e r : B
ns
D. open light
A
26. It is a lighting condition where object
in open space cost a deep and uniform or
distinct shadow.
A. Bright sunlight
B. Hazy sunlight
C. Dull sunlight
w e r : A
D. Cloudy dull Ans
Sources of light
Natural – sunlight, moonlight, lightning & etc.
Artificial – a) continuous radiant – fluorescent &
candle b) Short radiation – flash units
1. Photo floods – an electric lamp using an
excess voltage for sustained illumination. (1930 –
panchromatic film)
- inserted in a metal reflector, fit with standard
socket & operate in ordinary house current and has a
life of 3 hours.
2. Flash bulb
3. Electronic flash
Sunlight
Color of Day light:
Factors affecting the color of daylight:
1. Atmospheric vapor – tends to color the daylight orange.
2. Atmospheric dust filters – the sun rays and scatters rays of

the shorter wavelengths more than those of longer
wavelengths. (Blueness of the sky due to scattering effect of
the blue light)
3. Part of the light reaching the subject does not come directly
from the sun but reflected.
(affected by the color of the reflector.)
Daylight Classification According to Intensity:
Bright sunlight – objects in open space cast a deep &
uniform or distinct shadow. Objects in open space appear
glossy & the colors are saturated.
a) direct sunlight } coming from the sky
which serves as a reflector.
b) Reflected light }
Hazy sunlight – cast a transparent shadow.
Dull sunlight – no longer cast shadow.
a) cloudy bright – about really to rain
b) cloudy dull
27. Objects that allow sufficient visible light
to pass through them that the object on the
other side may be clearly seen.
A. Transparent
B. Translucent
C. Opaque
D. Filter
w e r : A
A ns
28. Allow light to pass through but not
visible. Objects are not clearly visible.
A. Transparent
B. Translucent
C. Opaque
D. Filter
w e r : B
A ns
29. Is a homogeneous medium which absorbs
and transmits differentially light rays passing
through it?
A. Transparent
B. Translucent
C. Opaque
D. Filter
w e r : D
A ns
30. Types of materials does not allow light to
pass through its medium?
A. Transparent
B. Translucent
C. Opaque
D. Filter
w e r : C
A ns
Types of materials:
Transparent – allows light to pass through its
medium, objects on the
opposite side is clearly visible.
Translucent – allow light to pass through but not
visible. Objects are not clearly
visible.
Opaque – does not allow light to pass through its
medium.
31. What emulsion speed indicator is
express in an arithmetic form?
A. ISO
B. DIN
C. ASA
D. GNP
n s w e r: C
A
32. What emulsion speed indicator is
express in an logarithmic form?
A. ISO
B. DIN
C. ASA
D. GNP
w e r: B
A n s
EMULSION SPEED
The extent to which an emulsion is sensitive to light is

referred to as its emulsion speed. Two general types of
speed ratings are:
ASA (American Standards Association) rating – This is

expressed in arithmetical value system. The speed in
numbers is directly proportional to the sensitivity of the
material. A film with an arithmetical value of 400 is four
times as fast as one with a speed of 100.
Example: ASA 400
DIN (Deutche Industri Normen) rating – This is
expressed in logarithmic value system. In this
system an increase of 3 degrees double the
sensitivity of the film.
Example: 27º DIN
ISO (International Standards Organization) rating

– Combination of ASA and DIN
Example : ISO 400 / 27º
Major Classifications of Film speed by average ASA &
DIN ratings are:
Slow films – about 32 ASA (16/10 DIN), which require a
high light level;
Medium films – about 125 ASA (22/10 DIN), which are
used in average or normal light situations, such as outdoors
on a sunny day. (The most common).
Fast films – about 400 ASA (27/10 DIN) which are needed
when the light level is low – very cloudy, rainy day, or
indoors under available light.
- or when fast shutter speed is required to stop action.
Extra-fast films – About 800 ASA (30/10 DIN) which are
used only when the other types of film are too slow – under
the dimmest light conditions or when the fastest possible
33. Lens that is characterized by a
thicker center and thinner sides.
A. concave lens
B. convex lens
C. negative lens
D. positive lens
n s w e r: B
A
34. Lens that is characterized by a
thinner center and thicker sides.
A. concave lens
B. convex lens
C. negative lens
D. positive lens
s w e r :A
A n
35. TYPES OF PHOTOGRAPHIC
PAPERS; According to Chemical
Contents, except one?
A. Chloride Papers
B. Bromide Papers
w
C. Chloro-BromidenPaperse r : D
A s
D. Surface Papers
PAPERS; best for enlargement
printing?
A. Chloride Papers
B. Bromide Papers
C. Chloro-Bromide Papers
D. Surface Papers
w e r : A
A n s
PAPERS use for either enlargement or
contact printing?
A. Chloride Papers
B. Bromide Papers
C. Chloro-Bromide Papers
D. Surface Papers
w e r : C
A n s
According to Chemical Contents
a) Chloride Papers – best for enlargement printing
b) Bromide Papers – great for contact printing
c) Chloro-Bromide Papers – either enlargement or
contact printing
2. According to Contrast - *#0, #1, #2, #3, #4, #5*
(#2 – for normal contrast negatives, 4-5
over exposed. 0-1 under exposed
3. According to Physical Characteristics
• weight – single or double
• surface – glossy, semi-matte, matte
• color – white or cream
38. The bending of light around an object
gives rise to the phenomenon called
A. Attraction
B. Diffraction
C. Light Curve
D. Light fingerprint
w e r : B
A n s
39. The rebounding or the deflection of
light as it hits the surface.
A. Reflection
B. Diffraction
C. Refraction
n s w e r: A
A
40. Bending of light when passing from
one medium to another?
A. Reflection
B. Diffraction
C. Refraction
n s w e r: C
A
41. Bending of lights when it strikes the
sharp edge of an opaque object. ( light does
not pass through)
A. Reflection
B. Diffraction
C. Refraction
w e r : B
A n
D. Light fingerprint s
Manners of Bending of light:
Reflection – the rebounding or the deflection of light as it hits
the surface.
a) Regular reflection
b) Irregular reflection
Refraction – bending of light when passing from one
medium to another
Diffraction – bending of lights when it strikes the sharp edge
of an opaque object. ( light does not pass through)
- occurs when light passes through a narrow slit.
If there were no diffraction, the image of the slit would be
geometrically similar to the slit itself.
ex. Double Diffraction
42. Is a layer of hard gelatin that insulates the
emulsion against scratches?
A. Top Coat
B. Emulsion layer
C. Subbing layer
D. Support
w e r : A
A ns
43. Provides a strong but flexible plastic
(cellulose acetate) base for all the other
component layers of the film.
A. Top Coat
B. Emulsion layer
C. Subbing layer
w e r : D
D. Support A n s
44. Special glue like gelatin, adheres
the emulsion to its support below.
A. Top Coat
B. Emulsion layer
C. Subbing layer
D. Support
w e r : C
A ns
45. Where the image forms, consists of
gelatin containing light-sensitive crystals
of silver halides.
A. Top Coat
B. Emulsion layer
C. Subbing layer
w e r : B
D. Support A n s
Six (6) layers of black & white film
Top Coat – is a layer of hard gelatin that insulates

the emulsion against scratches.
Emulsion layer – where the image forms, consists
of gelatin containing light-sensitive crystals of
silver halides.
Subbing layer – special glue like gelatin, adheres
the emulsion to its support below.
Support – provides a strong but flexible plastic
(cellulose acetate) base for all the other component
layers of the film.
Second Adhesive layer – bonds the support
to the anti-halation backing below.
Anti-halation Backing – contains dye that
prevents light from reflecting off the support
of the camera itself and back onto the
emulsion, which reflections could create
halos around bright areas of the images.
46. A large camera that is mostly used
in studios for portrait pictures.
A. View Camera
B. Graphic Camera
C. Twin lens reflex camera
D. Single lens reflex camera
w e r : A
A n s
47. A kind of camera where in the
photographer looks through the lens that
actually takes the picture by means of a
mirror.
A. View Camera
B. Graphic Camera
w e r : D
A
C. Twin lens reflexn s
camera
48. Is also a view camera, but it is smaller
and designed to be folded up when not in
used.
A. View Camera
B. Graphic Camera
w e r : B
A n s
49. This camera is useful in police work particularly in
traffic accident photography, color or black & white film
can be used.
A. View Camera
B. Graphic Camera
w e r : C
A ns
TYPES OF CAMERA
View Camera – a large camera that is mostly used in
studios for portrait pictures.
Graphic Camera – is also a view camera, but it is
smaller and designed to be folded up when not in used.
Twin lens reflex camera – a roll film camera that uses
two lenses: viewing lens, taking lens
This camera is useful in police work particularly in
traffic accident photography, color or black & white film
can be used.
Single lens reflex camera –
 a kind of camera where in the
photographer looks through the lens that
actually takes the picture by means of a mirror.
 when taking picture, the mirror moves
up out of the way just a fraction of a second
before the shutter opens.
Miniature 35 mm cameras
50. The speed or light gathering power of the lens
equal to the ratio of the focal length to the diameter of
it’s lens pupil or the relative brightness of the image
produced by the lens as compared with the brightness
of the subject?
A. Depth of Field
B. Depth of Focus
C. Hyper Focal Distance
w e r : D
A
D. Relative Aperture ns
51. The maximum permissible distance within
which the film may be placed without exceeding
the circle of confusion in order to produce the
image sharp.
A. Depth of Field
B. Depth of Focus
C. Hyper Focal Distance
D. Relative Aperture
w e r : B
A n s
Depth of Field – The distance between the
nearest and the farthest object in apparent
sharp focus when the lens is focused at a given
point.
Hyper Focal Distance- The nearest distance

at which the lens is focused at a particular F#
to give maximum depth of field.
52. A general label referring to a particular
distortion.
A. Distortion
B. Parallax Error
C. Filter Factor
D. Flash Synchronization
w e r : A
A ns
53. The displacement of an image point when
viewed at a different points of angle.
A. Distortion
B. Parallax Error
C. Filter Factor
D. Flash Synchronization
w e r : B
A ns
Filter Factor-The ratio of the time of exposure
with and without the filter for the same effective
exposure.
Flash Synchronization- The mechanical or

electrical adjustments to make the shutter open
and the flash lamp reach the peak of it’s flash at
the same time.
54. A disc form image of a point in the object
the allowable circle of confusion is usually
1/1000 of the focal length of the lens in inches.
A. Circle of Confusion
B. Angle of View
C. Focal Length
e
D. Resolving Power of the Lens
w r : A
A ns
55. Theview of the subject subtended by two
lines emerging from the corners of the film,
extending to the center of the lens.
A. Circle of Confusion
B. Angle of View
C. Focal Length
w e r : B
s Lens
D. Resolving PowerAofnthe
Focal Length-The distance measured
from the center of the lens to the film
plane when the lens is set or focused in
infinity position.
Resolving Power of the Lens- The

maximum angle of resolution.
56. A medium or system which converge or
diverge the light passing through it to form
images
A. Negative Lens
B. Positive Lens
C. Focus
w e r : D
D. Lens A n s
57. The means by which the object
distance is estimated or calculated to form
the image sharp.
A. Negative Lens
B. Positive Lens
C. Focus
w e r : C
D. Lens
A ns
58. Form an image virtual on the same
side or source of light?
A. Negative Lens
B. Positive Lens
C. Focus
w e r : A
D. Lens A n s
59. Forms the real image on the
opposite side of the lens or the
source of light.
A. Negative Lens
B. Positive Lens
C. Focus
D. Lens w e r : B
A ns
Positive Lens- A converging lens which is
characterized by the fact that it is thicker at the
center than the edges and therefore has a positive
focal length. Forms the real image on the opposite
side of the lens or the source of light.
Negative Lens- A diverging lens which is always

thinner at the center than the edge. Form an image
virtual on the same side or source of light.
60. Types of filter that used to change the
response of the film so that all colors are
recorded at approximately the relative
brightness values seen by the eye?
A. Correction Filter
B. Contrast Filters
C. Haze Filter
D. Neutral Density filter
w e r : A
A ns
61. Used for reducing the amount of light
transmitted without changing the color
value.
B. Contrast Filters
C. Haze Filter
w e r : D
A n s
62. Used to change the relative brightness values so
that two colors which would otherwise be recorded as
nearly the same will have decidedly different
brightness in the picture.
B. Contrast Filters
C. Haze Filter
w e r : B
A n s
Haze Filter - used to illuminate or
reduce the effect of serial haze
Polarizing filter – used to reduce or

eliminate reflections on highly
reflective surfaces.
63. Refers to the brilliance with which light is
reflected by an object without tone difference
between photographic images, the shape of the
object obviously could not be discerned.
A. Tone
B. Shape
C. Shadow
w e r : A
A ns
D. Light Meter Acceptor
64. The eye of the camera metering system
A. Tone
B. Shape
C. Shadow
D. Light Meter Acceptor
w e r : D
A ns
Shadow- The absence or reduction of
light in a given space; caused by an
opaque item blocking light rays.
Shape- Relates the general form,

configuration, or outline of an individual
object.
65. The process of microfilming
A. Microphotography
B. Photomicrography
C. Macrophotography
D. Photomacrography
w e r : A
A ns
66. Uses the microscope to act as the lens
A. Microphotography
B. Photomicrography
C. Macrophotography
D. Photomacrography
w e r : B
A ns
Photomacrography – it uses macro lens or
close-up attachments
Macrophotography – can be interchanged

with the term Photomacrography
67. The appearance of the original will come out
and such result is known as the?
A. Film
B. Negative
C. Photograph
D. Picture
w e r : C
A ns
68. When photographing the corpse in the scene, several pictures of
the conditions at the time of discovery including the environment
of the corpse must be taken from various photographic directions in
order to:
A. Show whether there is any evidence of struggle and
try to show what happen inside prior to the crime
B. Show when photographing the general conditions
as being deformed as a whole, photograph the damage
parts and consider the range partly clearly
C. Take close-up shots on the damaged area in two
angles from distance of 8 to 10 feet
D. Photographs general view of the building, look into
windows, and pathway
w e r : B
A ns
69. In outdoor photography, there will some
instance that the presence of light is too much
that produces a dilemma to the photographer.
What do you think is the best way to do?
A. find another subject
B. use a much smaller lens opening
C. use a flash unit
w e r : C
position A ns
D. move the subject into a well lighted
70. Carlo S. Bart was taking up a snap shot and
expecting it to sharp but an alteration happened
to the expected image because it was seen in two
view points. What is that phenomenon?
A. out of focus
B. underexposure
C. parallax
w e r : C
D. split image
A ns
71. These are the components of a
black and white film, except one….
A. Emulsion
B. Gelatin
C. Anti halation backing
D. Base w e r : B
A ns
72. What photo paper is ideal to be
used in a normal exposed film?
A. # 1
B. # 3
C. # 2
D. # 4
s w e r :C
A n
73. Otherwise known as the
coherent light.
A. Infrared light
B. Laser light
C. Visible light
D. Ultraviolet lightw e r : B
A ns
74. When was the birth year of
photography?
A. 1939
B. 1839
C. 1793
D. 1893
w e r : B
A ns
75. The first step undertaken in the
chemical processing of an exposed
sensitized material is
A. development
B. stabilization
C. stop bath
D. fixation we r : A
A n s
76. The art or process of photographing or
recording unseen objects by means of infrared
film and light is
A. infrared photography B.
ultraviolet photography
C. commercial photography D.
outdoor photography
w e r : A
A ns
77. The art or process of photographing unseen
objects by the use of ultraviolet light and filters.
A. infrared photography B.
gamma ray photography
C. ultraviolet photography D.
none of the above
w e r : C
A ns
78. Converging lenses are the following,
except—
A. double convex
B. plain convex
C. concave convex
D. double concave
w e r : D
A ns
79. Elements of photography
A. all of the following
B. chemical process
C. sensitized material D.
camera
E. light
s w e r :A
A n
80. The recommended size of a
photographic evidence is —
A. 5x7 inches B.
2x2 square meter
C. 4x8 inches D.
passport size
w e r : A
A n s
PERSONAL IDENTIFICATION
1. He is the first Filipino who topped the 1st

examination on fingerprint on fingerprint
by Captain Thomas Dugon of New York
Police Department?
A. Atty. Augustin Patricio
w e r : A
A ns
B. Atty. Allan Patricion
C. Atty. James Paulo Santos
D. Atty. Jose Generoso
2. The lone Filipino member of the FBI
who gave the first examination on
fingerprint in the Philippines?
A. Flaviano Guerrero
B. Guerrero Santos
C. Mr. George Madrigal
w e r : A
D. Mr. Paulo deA ns
Jesus
3. In reporting a missing person, which among
the following is the most vital information
necessary to locate the said person?
A. Clinical or medical history of the
person
B. Persona! traits and habits
C. Mental attitude and condition at the
w e r : D
A ns
time of the disappearance
D. Physical description
4. In determining the identity of an
unknown dead body found in a river,
wherein no identifying papers are to be
found, and the body is badly mutilated and
swollen, which among the following moans
of identification is least dependable?
A. Fingerprints w e r : D
B. Tatoo markings n s
A on the body
C. Scars of the body
D. Measurement of the body
5. The examination of lips prints which may
serve as to identify an individualized
persons?
A. Cheiloscopy
B. Lipscopy
C. Lips Analysis
w e r : A
D. Lipsology Ans
6. A bone condition in which the finger
joints cannot be bent?
A. Anklosis
B. Bone fractured
C. Finger Injuries
w e r : A
ns
D. All of the above
A
7. The location or finding of a previously filed duplicate
record card of the subject is known as?
A. Card Identification
B. Card Analysis
C. Catch or Ident
D. Catch or Card
w e r : C
A ns
8. Refers to the fact that the identification
has been made?
A. Made
B. Make
C. Model
D. Form
n s w e r: B
A
9. A condition consist of a
congenital absence of epidermal
ridges?
A. Hypoplasia
B. Staple D
s w e r :
A n
C. Ridge counter
D. Ridge Aplasia
10. A small pointed instrument used for
counting ridges?
A. Hypoplasia
B. Staple
C. Ridge counter
D. Ridge Aplasia
n s w e r: C
A
Ridge counting and Ridge tracing
Ridge Counting – It refers to the process of counting

the intervening ridges that touch or cross an imaginary
lien drawn between the core and the delta.
Take Note - It applies only to loops.
Ridge Tracing – Is the process of tracing the ridges

that emanate from the lower side of the left delta
towards the right delta to see where it flows in relation
to the right delta.
11. Excess of very small
creases?
A. Hypoplasia
B. Staple
w e r : A
A n s
C. Ridge counter
D. Ridge Aplasia
Creases – Are thin, usually
straight narrow white lines
running transversely or formed
side to side, across the print,
causing the puckering of the
ridges.
12. It is single recurving ridge at the
center of the pattern area?
A. Hypoplasia
B. Staple
C. Ridge counter
w e r : B
D. Ridge Aplasia A n s
13. It is obtained by counting the ridges of the
first loop appearing on the fingerprint card
(beginning with the right thumb), exclusive of
the little fingers which are never considered for
the ____ as they are reserved for the final.
A. primary
B. key
w e r : B
C. final A ns
D. major
14. In tracing a suspected person at large in a
criminal case, the least vital among the
following would be...
A. His appearance and how he dresses
B. Known associates and companions
C. His occupation or means of
livelihood
w e r : D
ns
D. Where the suspect hang's out
A
15. On one occasion, a certain burglary happened on the store
of a Korean Entrepreneur. On the scene of the crime, laying
the dead body of the owner stained by his own blood and the
presence of several evidences found including the fingerprints
of the three unidentified persons. If you are one of those three
persons whose fingerprints are found on the scene of the
crime. What will be your relation to the crime?
A. you are the burglar
B. you are the killer
w e r : C
D. you are the suspect A ns
C. you came from the scene of the crime
16. To help identify a subject who is an
alien, the most vital information to be
obtained at the Bureau of Immigration and
Deportation is...
A. Educational attainment of the
alien
w
B. Residence of the aliene r : D
C. Occupation A n s
of the. alien
D. Port of entry of the alien
17. All areas of friction skin are totally
individual. When sufficient detail is present, it
can be individualized. In other words, when
someone is identified as the donor of a print, it
establishes that person as the only person in the
world who could have that print.
A. Infallible
w e r : B
B. Unique
C. Permanent A ns
D. Classifiable
18. Fingerprints pattern in which the
downward slant or ridges from the little
finger toward the thumb.
A. Ulnar loop
B. Arch
C. Radial loop
w e r : C
D. Whorl Ans
Pattern Interpretation
Arches – 5%
 T-40%
 P-60%
Loops – 60%
 U-94%
 R-6%
Whorls – 35%
 P-71%
 C-13%
 D-13%
 X-3%
19. A ridge which forks out into two
ridges.
A. Delta
B. Core
C. Bifurcation
D. Pores
n s w er: C
A
Core – It is a point on a ridge
formation usually located at the
center or heart of a pattern.
Delta or Triradial Point – It a point
on the first ridge formation at or
directly in front or near the center of
the divergence of the type lines.
20. It is the lower or the inner layer of
the skin that must not be destructed for
it could possibly create a permanent
injury that may result to the lost of the
ridges
A. Dermis
w e r : A
B. Epidermis Ans
C. furrows
D. Delta
What are the two main layers of the Skin?
Outer scarf or Epidermis
Inner Scarf or Dermis
Take Note:
Stratum Malpighi or the layer of the Malpighi – the
ridges are formed into patterns by virtue of the fact
that the epidermis is penetrated and molded by the
dermal papillae
-Damage to the epidermis alone does not result to
permanent ridge destruction, whereas damage to the
dermis will result to permanent ridge destruction
21. Refers to the study of sweat gland
openings found on papillary ridges as a
means of identification.
A. Poroscopy
B. Podoscopy
C. Edeoscopy
w e r : A
D. DactyloscopyA n s
Allied Sciences of Fingerprints
Dactyloscopy – identification of persons

through examination and comparison of fingerprint.
Taken from Greek words: Dactylos – a finger and
skopien – to examine
Poroscopy – Science of palm print identification.

Chiroscopy – Science of palm print identification.
Podoscopy – Science of foot print identification.
22. What is that canal like structure
found between the ridges?
A. Dermis
B. Epidermis
C. furrows
D. Delta
n s w er: C
A
23. A fingerprint pattern in which the ridges
form a sequence of spirals around core
axes.
A. Whorl
B. Double loop
C. Central pocket loop D.
Accidental we r : A
A n s
24. PINS BATO is examining a fingerprint
pattern having a 2 delta and a core with few
spiral formations at the center but no
recurving ridge is cut. What type of pattern
INS Rob is examining?
A. W B. X
C. C we r
D.: C
D
A n s
25. On the inside part of a pattern, there are so many
ridges present that would help the investigators in
identifying a certain pattern especially in dealing with
a loop pattern. One of these characteristic is
sometimes known as the railway tie.
A. ridge hook
B. ridge ending
C. appendage
w e r : D
D. bridge
A ns
Ridge Hook – It is a ridge that divides to form
two ridges which are shorter in length than the
main ridge.
Ridge Bridge – This is a connecting ridge
between two ridges.
Ridge Ending - It is a termination or ending of
ridge or ridges.
Appendage – A short ridge at the top or summit
of a recurve usually at right angle.
Recurving ridge – is a ridge that curves back in the
direction in which it started.
Converging Ridges – Two or more lines forming an
angle, a ridge whose closed end is angular and serves
as a point of convergence.
Diverging ridges – Two ridges running side by side
and suddenly separating, one ridge going one way
and the other ridge, another way.
Bifurcating ridges – A single ridge which splits into
two ridges forming a “Y” shape formation or
structure.
26. Before the arrival of the DNA test, personal
identification through fingerprints is most widely used
around the country and around the world in positively
identifying person especially if the subject is beyond
recognition. The reason behind this lies on the
principle that:
A. Its pattern reveals racial origin
w e r : D
B. They are available in most places
A ns
C. It can be lifted at the crime scene
D. No two persons have identical
fingerprints
27. Which among the following is not
considered as a basic fingerprint pattern?
A. Loop
B. Whorl
C. Arch
D. Accidental
w e r : D
A n s
28. Fingerprints left at the crime scene
which may be an Impression or Imprint.
A. Latent print B.
Loop
C. Pattern D.
Arch
w e r : A
A ns
29. Points often missed in rolling
impression.
A. Bifurcation
B. Delta
C. Core
D. Ridge
w e r : B
A ns
30. Which part of the human body has
no papillary ridges.
A. Soles of the foot B.
Finger
C. Palm
D. Elbow
n s w e r: D
A
31. A single ridge that bifurcates and
meets again to form a single ridge is
called:
A. Enclosure ridge
B. Short ridges
C. Dot ridges
w e r : A D.
Resembling a loopA n s
32. Mr. Trillianes applies for a job, and as a
requirement he was advised to present his NBI
Clearance. On the way to the office of the NBI, he was
apprehensive that he will not be accommodated by the
personnel because of his two excess fingers in his
right hand. The appearance of his extra fingers is
anatomically known as…
A. Polydactylism
w e r : A
C. Excess Finger A ns
B. Extra ordinary fingers
D. Deformities
33. A Geologist in New Mexico who adopted the
first individual use of fingerprint on August 8,
1882 by using his own thumb prints as
protection to prevent tampering with the pay
order he issued.
A. Alberto Reyes
B. Samuel Clemens
w e r : C
C. Gilbert Thompson
A
D. Henry De Forest
ns
34. English engraver, an author of natural and more
acceptable evidence of an appreciation of fingerprints is
his personal mark? The engraving demonstrate
familiarity with the construction of the skin patterns
including the details of branching and interruption of the
skin ridges?
A. Thomas Bewick
B. Thomas Taylor
C. Herman Welcker
D. Eugene Francois Vidocq
w e r : A
A ns
35. Argentine Police official began the first fingerprint
files based on Galton patterns. He developed his own
system of classifying prints which was officially
adopted in Argentina.
A. Gilbert Thompson
B. Sir Francis Galton
C. Juan Vucetich
w e r : C
ns
D. Sir Edward Richard Henry
A
36. Introduced the method of identifying
criminals through a memory (photographic eye)
A. Thomas Bewick
B. Thomas Taylor
C. Herman Welcker
w e r : D
A ns
37. Introduce a new system of palmistry. He
cited that the marks of the palms of the hands
can possibly be used in identifying criminals?
A. Thomas Bewick
B. Thomas Taylor
C. Herman Welcker
w
D. Eugene Francois Vidocqe r : B
A ns
38. In 1956, took his own palm and 41 years
later took another print of the same hand and
found out that prints do not changes?
A. Thomas Bewick
B. Thomas Taylor
C. Herman Welcker
e
w r : C
A ns
39. He was the Chief Magistrate of the Hooghly
District in India, first used fingerprints on
contracts with the natives. He is also known as
father of Chiroscopy.
A. JCA Mayer
B. John Evangelist Purkinje
C. Herman Welcker
w e r : D
A ns
D. Sir William James Herschel
40. Is the person who discover the two main
layer of the friction skin (Epidermis and Dermis)
and to whom one of the thin layer of the friction
skin was named.
A. Herman Welcker
B. Marcelo Malpighe
C. Nehemiah Grews
w e r : B
A
D. Dr. Henry Faulds ns
41. Under the management of Lt. Darby
during the American occupation in the
Philippines, a modern and complete
fingerprint file has been established for the
Philippine commonwealth. In 1937, the first
Filipino fingerprint technician employed by
the Phil. Constabulary was er: A
A. Mr. GenerosoA n s
Reyes
w
B. Mr. Amado Delos Santos
C. Mr. Calixto Solis
42. The notorious gangster and a police
character, who attempted to erase his
fingerprints by burning them with acid but
as time went by the ridges were again
restored to their “natural” feature.
A. Al Capone
B. OJ Simpson nswe r : C
A
C. John Dellinger
D. Billy the Kid
43. Developed the American Classification
System in New York , the first systematic use of
fingerprinting for criminal record purposes in
the United States?
A. Capt. James H. Parke
B. Sgt. John Kenneth Ferrier
C. Dr. Henry Faulds
w e r : A
A
D. Mary K. Holland ns
44. The first American female instructor in
Dactyloscopy?
C. Dr. Henry Faulds
D. Mary K. Holland
n s w e r: D
A
45. The first fingerprint instructor at
the St. Louis Police Department in
Missouri?
C. Dr. Henry Faulds w e r : B
A n s
D. Mary K. Holland
46. He published the practical of fingerprints to
identify criminals and propagated the
PRINCIPLE OF INFALLIBILITY?
C. Dr. Henry Faulds
D. Mary K. Holland
w e r : C
A ns
47. The first city adopted the use of
fingerprint?
A. The City of Missouri
B. HONGKONG
C. FRANCE
D. UNITED KINGDOM : A
n s w e r
A
48. The three basic types of ridge characteristics are:
A. Enclosure, long ridges and up thrusts
B. Criss-cross,ing ridges, incipient ridges and
spurs
C. Ridge endings, dots and bifurcations
D. Type lines, converging ridges and
recurving ridges
w e r : C
A ns
49. It is triangular shaped and formed by
the bifurcation of a ridge at the outer
portion of the pattern.
A. Latent prints B.
Core
C. Ridge
D. Delta we r : D
A n s
50. What pattern bears a downward slant of
ridge from the thumb toward the little
finger.
A. Tented Arch B.
Ulnar loop
C. Radial loop D.
Loop we r : B
A n s
51. Is the basic principle involve in personal
Identification which states that the greater the
number of similarity or difference the greater
the probability for the identity or non identity to
be conclusive.
A. Law of individuality
w e r B
B. Law of multiplicity of evidence
:
A
D. Law of constancy
ns
C. Law of infallibility
52. A type of fingerprint pattern in which the
slope or downward flow of the innermost
sufficient recurve is towards the thumb of
radius bone of the hand of origin.
A. ulnar loop
B. tented arch
C. accidental whorl
w e r : D
D. radial loop
A ns
53. A system of identification which was
used earlier than the fingerprint system,
made by measuring various bony structure
of human body developed by Alphonse
Bertillion.
A. Portrait Parle
B. Tattoo w e r : C
C. Anthropometry A n s
D. Photography
54. What type of a pattern consisting of two or
more deltas, one or more ridge forming a
complete circuitry and when an imaginary line is
drawn from left delta to right delta it touches or
cross the circuiting ridge/s considered as the
most common type of whorl.
A. Plain Whorl
w e r : A
A
C. Double Loop Whorl
ns
B. Central Pocket Loop Whorl
D. Accidental Whorl
55. Fingerprints help to positively identify
people because of the principle that:
A. its pattern reveals racial origin
B. they are available in most places
C. no two persons have identical
fingerprints
D. it can be lifted at the crime scene
w e r : C
A ns
56. If the same digits of both hands are missing
the impressions are held to be .
A. Plain whorl on meeting
B. Dependents on ridges tracing
C. Loops
D. dependents on the classification of
the print of the finger
w e r : A
A ns
57. On the night of August 2, 2010, a certain burglary
happened on the store of a Japanese Merchant. On the scene of
the crime, laying the dead body of the victim stained by his
own blood and the presence of several evidences found
including the fingerprints of the three unidentified persons. If
you are one of those three persons whose fingerprints were
found on the scene of the crime. What will be basis of the
investigators in case they will hold you as one of the
w e r : A
responsible regarding the commission of the crime?
A
B. principle of permanencyns
A. the principle of individuality
C. principle of infallibility
D. all of these
What are the basic principles of Fingerprint
Science? (3 dogmatic Principles)
Principle of Individuality (Variation) – There are no

two fingerprints that are exactly alike unless taken
from the same finger.
Principle of Permanency
(Constancy/Perennial/Immutable) – The
configuration and details of individual ridges remain
constant and unchanging till after the final
decomposition of the body.
Principle of Infallibility – That fingerprint
is a reliable means of personal
identification and all courts accept and
adopt fingerprint as a means of personal
identification.
58. Symbolized by letter W in the
fingerprint classification. It is a fingerprint
pattern which there are two deltas and in
which at least one ridge makes a turn
through one complete circuit.
A. Plain whorl
B. Central pocket loopw e r
whorl : A
C. Accidental Aloop n s D. Ulnar
loop
59. The greater the number of points of
similarities and dissimilarities of two persons
compared, the greater the probability for the
conclusion to be correct is found in the
A. Law of Multiplicity of Evidence in
Identification
B. Identification by Comparison and
w e r : A
Exclusion
A ns
C. Law of Super Imposition
D. All of these
60. Knowledge of fingerprint’s unique nature doesn’t
appear to have surfaced the European countries until a
lecture given by a British doctor who was a fellow of
the royal society. Who is that person that published the
treatise entitled “De Extremo Tactos Organo”?
A. Nehemia Grew
B. Johannes Purkinje
C. Francis Galton
w e r : D
D. Marcelo Malphigi
A ns
61. A fingerprint pattern with a single loop
but has two deltas.
A. Accidental loop
B. Whorl
C. Double loop
D. Central pocket loop
w e r : D
A ns
62. An anthropologist who published a study of
fingerprint science that included the system of
classification to facilitate the collected
fingerprints.
A. Nehemia Grew
B. Johannes Purkinje
C. Francis Galton
w e r : C
D. Marcelo Malphigi
A ns
63. A distinct fingerprint pattern with two
separate loops, with its respective shoulder
and deltas.
A. Double loop B.
Central pocket loop
C. Accidental loop D.
Whorl we r : A
A n s
64. Fingerprint pattern in which two or
different type of pattern are represented.
A. Accidental loop B.
Double loop
C. Central pocket loop D.
Whorl
w e r : A
A ns
65. The easiest means of discovering latent
fingerprint, is to view the area:
A. Obliquely
B. About half an inch distance
C. Directly
D. About one inch distance
w e r : A
A ns
66. Impressions which are taken
simultaneously on the fingerprint card are
referred to as:
A. Rolled Impressions
B. Plain impressions
C. Fragmentary impressions
w
D. Visible impressions e r : B
An s
67. In taking fingerprints _______are rolled
away from the body of the subject.
A. All fingers
B. All fingers except the thumbs
C. Both thumbs
D. Both little fingers
w e r : B
A ns
68. Failure to clean the slab after using it
produces:
A. Impression of false markings
B. Accentuation of patterns
C. Pattern reversals
D. Difficulty in photographing
w e r : A
A ns
69. If the same digits of both hands are
missing, the impression are held to be:
A. Plain whorl meeting B.
Arches
C. Loops
D. Dependent on ridge tracings
w e r : A
A ns
70. Usually occupational damage to ridge
formation is;
A. Temporary
B. Lasting
C. Permanent
D. Stable
w e r : A
A ns
71. The illegitimate mother of the two murdered
children whom she was accused because of the latent
prints that has been found on the scene of the crime.
Who is that person, in which without his participation
the case will not be solve?
A. Francisca Rojas
B. Francis Galton
C. Juan Vucetich
w e r : C
D. Edward Henry
A ns
72. Fingerprint Identification is now one of the most
indispensable tools of investigation because of its use
in identifying the perpetrators. Classifying the
person’s fingerprints is a work of the art of:
A. Edward
B. Galton
C. Richard
D. Henry
w e r : D
A ns
73. There are number of criminals who tried to
deface their fingerprint just to evade in their
crimes. Some burn it with the use of acid hoping
their prints will be erased. Who is that person
famously known as Philips?
A. Dellinger
B. Roscoe
w e r : D
C. Scarface
D. Pitt A ns
74. Patterns posses all the characteristics needed
on the investigation that may be bring light on a
certain case. What kind of sweat gland that can
be found on the palms and soles?
A. Sebaceous gland
B. Eccrine gland
C. Apocrine gland
w e r : B
D. All of the above
A ns
be found on the pubic, mammary and anal
areas?
A. Sebaceous gland
B. Eccrine gland
w e r : D
C. Epecrine gland A ns
D. Apocrine gland
be found on the forehead, chest, back and
abdomen?
A. Sebaceous gland
B. Eccrine gland
w e r : A
C. Epecrine gland
D. Apocrine gland A ns
77. Which of the following ridge characteristics will
be highly prioritized as delta?
A. A short ridge over an island at its
divergence point.
B. A bifurcation leading towards the outside
direction of the pattern farther with the core
C. A ridge ending that have reached the very
shoulder of the ridges
w e r : A
D. None of these
A ns
The rule in DELTA location is:
A dot can be a delta when there is no other alternative.
Rules in Delta location when there is a choice between

two or more Delta
 The delta may be located at a bifurcation which does

open towards the core.
 When there is a choice between a bifurcation and
another type of delta, equally close to the point of
divergence, the bifurcation is selected.
When there is a series of bifurcation opening towards the
core at the point of divergence of two type lines, the
bifurcation nearest to the core is chosen as the delta.
The delta may not be located in the middle of the ridge
running between the type lines toward the cores but at the
nearer end only. The location of the delta depends entirely
upon the point of origin of the ridge between the type lines
toward the core.
If the ridge enters the pattern area from the point below the
divergent type lines. The delta must be located at the end
nearer (inner terminus) to the core
78. A delta may be any of the following,
EXCEPT?
A. bifurcation opening towards the delta
B. dot or fragment as thick as the other
ridges
C. a point on the first recurving ridge located
nearest to the center and in front of the
divergence of the type lines
w e r : A
ns
D. a meeting of two ridges
A
79. In the classification line, the order should be
A. primary, secondary, subsecondary, final, key,
major
B. major, key, primary, secondary,
subsecondary final
C. key, major, primary, secondary,
subsecondary, final
w e r : C
D. primary, secondary, subsecondary, major,
key, final
A ns
80. A pattern possessing most of the
elemental characteristics of a whorl but
became so special because of its unique
combination of two distinct loops. The
statement is referring to what type of
pattern?
A. W w e r : D
B. X A n s
C. C
D. D
81. A part of the whorl or loop in which
appear the cores, deltas and ridges.
A. type line
B. bifurcation
C. pattern area
D. furrow
w e r : C
A ns
Type Lines and Pattern Area
Type line – basic boundaries of most

fingerprints.
Pattern area – The part of the
fingerprint which lies within the area
surrounded by the type lines.
82. How many standard fingerprint patterns
are there?
A. Three
B. Eight
C. Two
D. Nine
w e r : B
A ns
FINGERPRINT PATTERNS
Radial Loop - “R” - derived its name from the radius

bone of the forearm; it is one type of fingerprint
patterns in which the ridges run its direction to the
radius bone or to the thumb.
Ulnar Loop is one type of fingerprint pattern in which

the ridges flow toward the ulnar bone or little finger.
Ulnar loop therefore derived its name from the ulna
bone of the forearm, or little finger. Its symbol is
letter “U” in classification purposes.
Take Note - A pattern to be a loop must have the following
four (4) essential requisites:
 It must have a core
 It must have a delta
 An imaginary line must pass between the core and
the delta
 It must have a ridge count of a minimum of at least
one (1)
Plain Whorl - Symbolized by letter “W” in the
classification. It is a fingerprint pattern which there are two (2)
deltas and in which at least one (1) ridge makes a turn through
one complete circuit, an imaginary line drawn between the two
(2) deltas must touch or cross at least one (1) of the circuiting
whorl ridges within the pattern area.
Central Pocket Loop Whorl - Symbolized by letter “C “ in the
classification. It is a fingerprint pattern which for the most part of a
loop, but which has a small whorl inside the loop ridges, sometimes
called a composite pattern, which means that it is made up of two (2)
patterns in one, a whorl inside a loop.
It has two (2) deltas, one of which appears as the edge of the
pattern area, as in plain loop. And one shows inside the pattern area just
below the counterpart ridges.
Double Loop Whorl - Symbolized by letter “D” in the classification.

A double loop whorl is a pattern consisting of two (2) separate and
distinct loop formations. One of the loops surrounds or overlaps the
other, also called COMPOSITE PATTERN, like the central pocket loop
whorl. It arises from the fact that these patterns are a composite or
combination of two 2) patterns in one, with two cores and two deltas.
Accidental Whorl - Symbolized by letter “X” in the classification.
It is a pattern which is a combination of two or more different
types of pattern except in the PLAIN ARCH. It is a pattern which
is a combination of two or more different types of pattern except in
the PLAIN ARCH. It can be a combination of a loop and a whorl,
a loop and a central pocket loop whorl, or any combination of two
or more different loops and whorl type patterns.
Plain Arch - Symbolized by letter “A” in the classification. It is a

fingerprint pattern in which the ridges enter on one side of the
pattern and flow towards the other side with a rise at the center
with not more than one of the four (4) essential requisites for loop
pattern and with no recurving ridge, no angular formation and no
upward thrust.
Take Note - It enters to the left and flows towards the right.
Tented Arches - Symbolized by letter “T” in the classification. It

is a variety of arch family, but their ridge formations are not simple
as those of the plain arch, also considered TRANSITIONAL
PATTERN between a plain arch and a loop. Generally speaking,
TENTED ARCHES are formed in any of these three (3) way
formations, to wit:
 One or several ridges in the center of the form an up thrust.
 The ridge or ridges in the center formed a well defined angle.
 The pattern may have two or three or four essential requisites of
a loop pattern.
Take Note - An up thrust must have an ending ridge.
83. In taking fingerprints the absolute
control of the subject's hand is:
A. Necessary B.
Optional
C. Unnecessary D.
Excessive
s w e r :A
A n
84. Study of the characteristics formed by
the sides of papillary ridges as means of
identification.
A. Edgeoscopy
B. Podoscopy
C. Poroscopy
D. Chiroscopy we r : A
A n s
85. Which among the following is considered as
a basic type of ridge characteristics?
A. Ridge endings
B. Dots
C. Bifurcation
D. All of the foregoing
w e r : D
A ns
86. The fingerprint classification which is used
in the United States.
A. Henry System
B. Batley System
C. Bertillion System
D. Gatton System
w e r : A
A ns
87. First chief of the Identification Bureau
in Paris who was known for his
anthropometric measurement.
A. Alphonse Bertillon
B. Sir Edward Richard Henry
C. Samuel Clemens
D. Gilbert Thompson wer: A
A n s
88. An American who first utilized
fingerprint classification to prevent forgery
in New Mexico.
A. Sir Francis Galton
B. Sir Edward Richard Henry
C. Samuel Clemens
D. Gilbert Thompsonwer: D
A n s
89. Regarded as the "Father of
Fingerprints".
A. Sir Edward Richard Henry
B. Sir Francis Galton
C. Alphonse Bertillon
D. Gilbert Thompson
w e r : A
A ns
90. A German criminologist who
discovered that fingerprinting for
Identification purpose were already used in
the Far East during the Tand dynasty from
618 to 906 A.D.
A. Henry Faulds
B. Dr. Nehemiah Greu w e r : C
C. Robert HeindleA n s
D. Alphonse Bertillon
91. It is a fingerprint pattern in which the
ridge or downward slant from the little
finger toward the radius bone or the thumb.
A. Loop
B. Radial loop
C. Ulnar loop
D. Tented arch we r : B
A n s
92. The scientific examination of the
soles of the foot?
A.Podoscopy
B. Chiroscopy
C.Poroscopy
D. Flouroscopy er: A
A n s w
93. What are the little openings on the skin
from where sweat is excreted?
A.ridges
B. pores
C.whorl
D. loops
w e r : B
A ns
94. When a ridge bifurcates, sending two
ridges across the imaginary line, how is it
counted?
A. two
B. one
C. three
D. six w e r : A
An s
95. A part of the whorl or loop in
which appear the cores, deltas and
ridges.
A. type line
B. bifurcation
C. pattern area
w e r : C
D. furrow A n s
96. How many standard fingerprint patterns
are there?
A. Three
B. Eight
C. Two
D. Nine
w e r : B
A ns
97. A pattern type that has ridges that enter
on one Side of the pattern and flow towards
the other side with a rise in the center?
A.vaulted arch loop
B. tented arch
C. loop
D. plain arch we r : D
A n s
98. If the number of interesting lines had
been three then this would have been?
A. Inner tracing
B. Outer tracing
C. Ring inner tracing
D. Meet tracing
w e r : A
A ns
99. In Dactyloscopy, if we say a person
with polydactyl hand he has?
A. Extra hand
B. Extra finger
C. Extra Nails
D. Extra Hair
w e r : B
A ns
100. In ridge tracing, the reference is on
A. upper side or point of the extreme right
delta
B. lower side or point of the extreme left
delta
C. upper side or point of the moderate left
delta
w e r : B
right delta
A ns
D. upper side or point of the moderate
101. If an appendage is present between the
shoulders of a loop (innermost recurve), the one
being considered for purposes of locating the
core is
A. next loop outside with no appendage at
right angle
B. next loop inside
w e r : A
appendage A ns
C. the same loop even with an
D. next loop outside with appendage at

right angle
The rules in CORE location are:
 The core is placed upon or within the

innermost sufficient recurve.
 When the innermost sufficient recurve
contains ending ridges or rod rising as high as
the shoulder of the loop further from the
delta. The exemption to this rule is when
both shoulders are equidistant to the center of
the sufficient recurve.
 When the innermost sufficient recurve contains an uneven
number of rods rising as high as the shoulders, the core is
placed upon the end of the center rod whether it touches the
looping ridge or not.
 When the innermost sufficient recurve contains an even
number of rods rising as high as the shoulders, the core is
placed upon the end of the further one of the two center
rods, the two rods being treated as though they were
connected by a recurving ridge.
Take Note - Always base on the entrance of the pattern in the

fingerprint.
102. In taking the fingerprint, it is a must to
instruct the subject to:
A. Stiffen the fingers
B. Relax the fingers
C. Wash both hands before taking
the prints
D. Exert pressure onw e
the r : B
inking
process A n s
Take Note:
Rolled Impression – the subject must

be relaxed
Plain Impression – the subject may
not be relaxed
103. AFIS means what?
A. Automated Fingerprint Identification System
B. Automatic Fingerprint Identification System
C. Automated Fingerprint Identifying System
D. Automated Fingerprint Identification Symbol
w e r : A
A ns
104. Refers to as fingerprint pattern wherein the
ridge flow from one side to the other without
recurving , and ridges rising in the center.
A. Plain arch
B. Plain whorl
C. Tented arch
D. Plain loop
w e r : C
A ns
105. A 32 over 32 would indicate all _________
patterns in primary classification.
A. whorl
B. loop
C. tented arch
D. radial
w e r : A
A ns
106. What do you call the separating or
spreading apart of two ridges that were
previously running side by side?
A. Disjunction
B. convergence
C. Divergence
D. looping or recurring ridge
w e r : C
A ns
107. What king of ridge resembles a dot,
fragment or period?
A. Ridges
B. pores
C. whorl
D. alcohol
w e r : A
A ns
108. What is the scientific name of finger
print identification?
A. Dactyloscopy
B. poroscopy
C. fluoroscopy
D. palmistry
w e r : A
A ns
109. It refers to the operation of having
successfully made identification by finding
a duplicate record on file.
A. Catch
B. Ident
C. Hit
D. A and or B we r : D
A n s
110. Which of these represents the ridge count
of the right first loop appearing in a set of prints,
beginning with the thumb of the right hand but
excluding the little finger?
A. Primary
B. Final
C. Major
w e r : D
D. Key
A ns
111. A forensic chemist is tasked to examine the
chemical nature and composition of the
following except one:
A. fingerprint
B. explosives
C. blood
D. body fluids
w e r : A
A ns
112. It means the fingerprint cards are
grouped according to the classification
formula and the classification of the
extension used in the bureau.
A. Filing
B. Pockets
w
C. Classification formula e r : A
D. None of theseA
n s
113. A Dogmatic Principle which postulates that
the fingerprint cannot be forged.
A. Principle of individuality
B. Principle of constancy/ permanency
C. Principle of infallibility
D. All of these
w e r : C
A ns
114. It is the identifying and distinguishing of
fingerprint pattern according to their design and
formation.
A. Fingerprint analysis
B. Dactylography
C. Dactyloscopy
D. Personal Identification
w e r : A
A ns
115. It is a pattern which is a combination of two or
more different types of pattern except in the plain
arch. It can be a combination of a loop and a whorl, a
loop and a central pocket loop whorl, or any
combination of two or more different loops and whorl
type patterns.
A. Double Loop
B. Central Pocket Loop
w e r : C
C. Accidental Loop
A
D. Composite Pattern
ns
116. What type of pattern posses an angle,
an up thrust, or two of the three basic
characteristics of a loop?
A. tented arch
B. plain arch w e r : A
C. double loop A
n s
D. central pocket loop
117. The following are the requirements of a
pattern before it can be considered as a loop,
except -
A. None of these
B. It must have a core
C. It must have a delta
D. It must have a recurving ridge that
w e r : A
ns
passes between the core and the delta
A
118. The outer portion of the skin where the
ridges can be found is
A. dermis
B. epidermis
C. skin pores D.
friction skin
w e r : B
A ns
119. What is that single recurving ridge
enclosing one or more rods or bars?
A. Staple
B. Recurving ridge
C. Envelope
D. Staple
w e r : C
A ns
120. Which of these refers to that point at which
the recurving ridge definitely turns or curves?
A.Sufficient
B.Shoulder
C.Creases
D.Up thrust
w e r : B
A ns
121. The two principal bones of the
forearm are known as the radius and the
ulna. The principal bone on the thumb side
is
A. ulna
B. radius
C. tibia w e r : B
D. fibula A n s
122. The fingers being rolled from side to
side in order to obtain all available ridge
details is called
A. ink impressions
B. fingerprint impressions
C. rolled impressions
D. all of the above we r : C
A n s
123. If both hands are amputated or missing
at birth, the ____should be taken
A. skin prints
B. photograph
C. pores prints
D. footprints
w e r : D
A ns
124. When it has been impossible to obtain
suitable inked impressions, the last resort is
A. just forget it
B. forensic microscopy
C. resort to other means of identification
D. photography
w e r : D
A ns
125. Ridge counting is common in—
A. whorls
B. arches
C. accidental loop
D. loops
w e r : D
A ns
126. The infallible means of identification
A. anthropometry
B. DNA
C. fingerprint
D. photography
w e r : C
A ns
127. The father of fingerprints as a
means of identificati6n
A. Malphigi B.
Purkengi
C. Edward Richard Henry D.
Dalton
w e r :C
A n s
128. The configuration and details of individual
ridges remains the same and unchanging till
after the final decomposition of the body. This
principle in fingerprint identification is referred
to as -
A. Constancy
B. Individuality
w e r : D
C. Permanency
D. A and C A ns
129. These are little pockets underneath the
skin where oils or sweats are carried by
small holes to the surface of the skin.
A. Pores
B. Holes
C. Ducts
D. Dermis we r : C
A n s
130. It means designating by symbol the
type of patterns which each finger and
thumb bears and recording for each
respective finger and thumb.
A. Recording
B. Interpretation
C. Blocking w e r : C
D. ClassificationA n s
131. The innermost ridges run parallel and
surrounded to the pattern area are known as
_______.
A. type lines
B. criss-crossing ridges
C. long ridges
D. ridgeology
w e r : A
A ns
132. What fingers are rolled towards the body in
taking a rolled impression?
A. both little finger
B. both thumb finger
C. all finger except thumb
D. both index finger
w e r : B
A ns
133. Located along the undersides of the fingers,
palms, toes, and soles appear corrugated skin
structure known to the biologist as
A. friction skin
B. handprints
C. fingerprints
D. volar skin
w e r : D
A ns
134. Located along the undersides of the fingers,
palms, toes, and soles appear corrugated skin
structure known to the fingerprint examiner as
A. friction skin
B. handprints
C. fingerprints
D. volar skin
w e r : A
A ns
135. Who used surgery to destroy his friction
ridges and was known as the Man without
fingerprint.
A. Robert James Pitts
B. Roscoe Pitts
C. John Dillenger
D. John Augustus
w e r : A
A ns
136. Ridge forms in the person’s fingers and feet
during its infants stage which usually starts:
A. 3rd to 4th months of the fetus life
B. 4th to 5th months of the fetus life
C. 5th to 6th months of the fetus life
D. 5th to 6th months after birth
w e r : A
A ns
137. What is the rule when there is a choice between a
bifurcation and other type of delta found in the
fingerprint?
A. Bifurcation is selected
B. the other type of delta is selected
C. Bifurcation is disregarded
D. the one towards the core is selected
w e r : A
A ns
138. It is placed just to the left of the primary in the
classification formula. Where whorls appear in the
thumbs following the whorl tracings subsecondary
classification.
A. subsecondary
B. major division
C. key
D. final
w e r : B
A ns
139. All but one, are the elements of a whorl pattern?
A. Usually possessing a circular formation at
the center
B. Several patterns may be present
C. It may bear 2 or more deltas
D. none of these
w e r : D
A ns
140. These kind of ridge characteristic is
sometimes being misinterpreted as a
bifurcation because of its close
resemblance to it. This ridge is known as:
A. trifurcation
B. enclosure
C. island w e r : B
A
D. converging ridgen s
141. The right and left little fingers are used
exclusively for the Final Classification.
However, they are also considered in what
classification?
A. Primary
B. Sub-secondary
C. Secondary
w e r : A
D. Final
A ns
FORENSIC BALLISTICS
1. He invented a submachine gun in the 1950’s
which was used by the Israeli Army during its Sinai
campaign in 1956.
A. Alexander John Forsyth
B. Uziel Gal
w e r : B
C. Arthur Lucas A ns
D. John C. Garand
.
Alexander John Forsyth – Father of the
percussion ignition.
John C. Garand – Designed and invented the
semi-automatic US Riffle, Cal. .30 MI
Arthur Lucas- He published an article entitled
“The Examination of Firearms and Projectiles
in Forensic Cases”
2. Chemical rearrangement of molecules into gas
instead of solids to cause the high explosives to
exert full power of shock. The speed varies in
different explosive but in some it is as high as
7000 yards in a second. This refers to
A. Energy
B. Gas
w e r : C
C. Detonation
D. Gun powder A ns
3. During the past year many crimes of violence have been
committed in the city with imported starter’s pistols, which
have been converted into dangerous weapons. Concerning this
situation, it would be most correct to state that generally.
A. The conversions consisted of a replacement of
the original solid cylinder with a cylinder
B. The conversions were not performed by licensed
gunsmiths and gun dealers.
w e r : B
C. The retail sale of these weapons at a very low price
A ns
is made possible because of a low import duty.
D. These weapons have a manufacturer’s serial
number and may be easily traced.
4. The study of the effect of the impact
of a projectile on the target.
A. Terminal Ballistics
B. Internal Ballistics
C. External Ballistics
D. Forensic Ballistics
w e r : A
A ns
INTERIOR BALLISTICS
It is the study of motion of projectiles within the gun
barrel. The time during which the projectile is influenced by
Interior Ballistics is very short. From the release of the firing
pin to the moment the sound of the shot can be heard as it
leaves the muzzle occupies only about 0.01 seconds, in a
modern rifle.
EXTERIOR BALLISTICS
Exterior Ballistics deals with the motion of projectiles
from the time they leave the muzzle of the firearm to the time
they hit the target. The flight of most bullet or projectile does
not exceed 30 seconds at maximum range, which for almost
any firearms is obtained at an elevation of about 33.
TERMINAL BALLISTICS
It is the study dealing with the effect of the
impact of the bullet on the target. Penetration of the
bullet is of prime interest. Penetration is important
also in determining safety requirements for target
backstops. They are important to both sportsman and
military.
FORENSIC BALLISTICS
It is the study of Firearm Investigation and
Identification of firearms by means of ammunition
fired through them. This is the real branch of the
science which the police use as their guide
in field investigations.
5. What would be the best firearm to be
used to subdue a felon with murderous
frenzy?
A. Cal. 45 Pistol
B. M1Cal.30Garand
C. M16 Rifle
we
D. Magnum .357 Revolverr : A
A n s
6. Which of the following is the main purpose of
having metallic jacket on bullets?
A. To prevent bullet damage while
inside the weapon
B. To control ex7pansion once the bullet
hits the target
C. To keep the bullet intact when it hits
w e r : A
the target
A
D. All these apply
ns
7. This valuable instrument is specially designed to
permit the firearms examiner to determine the
similarity and dissimilarity between two fired bullets
or two fired shells, by simultaneously observing
their magnified image in a single microscopic field.
A. Magnetic field device B. Compound
microscope
C. Bullet comparison microscope
w e r : C
D. Photographic
ns
microscope
A
8. A field of forensic ballistics that includes the expert
examination of firearms, bullets and shells that would
determine whether or not a particular bullet is fired
from a particular firearm, and whether or not a
particular shell is loaded and ejected from the same
firearm; it is conducted in a forensic laboratory.
A. field investigation
B. technical examination
w e r : B
C. legal proceedings
D. none of the above A ns
Field Investigations - conducted by the first officers
on the case in the field when they investigate a case or
cases wherein firearms have been used. This is a
routine job of the investigating officers, and this
involves recognition, collection, marking,
preservation, and transmittal of ballistics exhibits like
fired bullets, fired shells, firearms and allied matters.
Legal proceedings - Court Trials - wherein the
ballistics report of the firearm examiner and
the ballistics exhibits are presented during the trial of
the case in a court of justice.
9. The unstable rotating motion of
the bullet is called
A. Trajectory
B. Yaw
C. Velocity
D. Gyroscopic action
w e r : B
A ns
Velocity - speed per unit of time ex. M16 -
3,300 ft/sec.
Energy - fatal equivalent of a bullet.
Yaw - the unstable rotating motion of a bullet.
Gyroscopic action - refers to the stillness of its
rotating motion and attained its highest
momentum or stability in flight and penetrating
power.
Bullet Trajectory - This is the bullet's path as it
travels down range. It is parabolic in shape and
because the line of the bore is below the line of
sight at the muzzle and angled upward, the
bullet's path crosses the line of sight at two
locations.
10. It is an early muzzle-loaded firearm used in
the 15th to 17th centuries. Like its successor, the
musket, it is a smoothbore firearm, but it is
lighter and easier to carry. It is a forerunner of
the rifle and other long-arm firearms.
A. arquebus
B. musket
w e r : A
C. blunderbuss
D. rifle
A ns
Blunderbuss- is a muzzle-loading
firearm with a short, large caliber barrel,
which is flared at the muzzle and
frequently throughout the entire bore, and
used with shot and other projectiles of
relevant quantity and/or caliber
Rifle – long rifle bored firearm
designed to hit targets at a greater or
longer distance, with spiral grooves to
fire only a single shot.
Musket – long smooth bored firearm
that is designed to prepare a single shot.
10. PINS Jack Uy was task to examine whether
the questioned bullet was fired from the
suspected firearm and prepare her deductions for
court testimony. The situation was part of what
branch of ballistics?
A. firearms Identification
B. technical examination
w e r : D
C. legal proceeding
A ns
D. forensic ballistics
11. Technically speaking, the term ammunition refers
to a group of cartridges or to a single unit or single
cartridge.
A. the entire primer assembly consisting of
primer cup, priming mixture, and the anvil
B. a complete unfired unit consisting of a
bullet, cartridge case, gunpowder and primer
w e r : B
C. an entire cartridge case, including extracting
A ns
groove, shell head, and the crimp
D. the bullet consisting of the nose, the
body and the base
12. He is known as the Father of Ballistics.
A. Hans Gross
B. Charles Waite
C. Albert Osborne
D. Calvin Goddard
w e r : D
A ns
13. A fired bullet with six lands and grooves
twisted to the right is fired from the barrel of a
firearm with identical class characteristics as
that of:
A. Browning
B. Colt
C. Smith and Wesson
w e r : A
D. Steyr
A ns
14. He gave his name to a whole class of
firearms; he is also the manufacturer of the
Pocket Pistol.
A. John M. Browning
B. Samuel Colt
C. Col. Calvin H. Goddard
D. Henry Derringer
w e r : D
A ns
15. Consist of a wooden box, 12 “x”12”x 96,
with a hinged to cover and with one end open.
This long box is filled with ordinary cotton
and separated into sections by cardboard
petitions use in ballistics.
A. Firing point box B. Bullet
recovery box
w e r : B
these A ns
C. Slug collection box D. All of
16. A shaving marks on a bullet is due to:
A. Oversized barrel
B. Poor alignment of the cylinder to the bore
of the barrel
C. Oily barrel
D. Delayed combustion
w e r : B
A ns
17. How is the serial number of a firearm or
engine number of vehicle restored?
A. By polishing stamped serial number
B. By cleaning obliterated surface
C. By removing the zone of strain
D. By applying etching reagent
w e r : D
A ns
18. In gunshot wounds, when there is evident burning
of tissues and blackening of the skin, it may be
ascertained that it is a near contact fire meaning that
the distance of the body to the gun is approximately.
A. 6 inches
B. 18 inches
C. 12 inches
D. 24 inches
w e r : A
A ns
19. The importance of individual marks left on a
bullet by a gun barrel is that it is useful in directly
identifying the:
A. Bullet which caused the fatal wound
B. Person who fired the particular firearm
C. Gun from which a bullet was fired
D. Possible direction of shot
w e r : C
A ns
20. What makes firearms identification possible?
A. the comprehensive technical, scientific, and legal
training of the ballistician
B. the transfer of individual characteristics from a
firearm to the ammunition components passing
through it
C. the availability of state of the art forensic ballistics
equipment and examination devices
e r : B
D. the collection of firearms related evidence such as
w
A ns
fired bullets, fired cartridge cases, wadding of
shotguns, and testimony of witnesses
21. Pistol is significantly distinguished
from revolver by its –
A. Barrel
B. Hammer
C. Frame
D. Slide assembly
w e r : D
A ns
22. What is the best way of picking a suspected
firearm at the crime scene?
A. Picking it through the handle
B. Picking it through the barrel
C. Inserting a handkerchief or string
straw at the trigger guard
D. Inserting a rod at the barrel
w e r : C
A ns
23. What makes a bullet spin? Without spin, a bullet
would not stay pointed forward in flight, but would
tumble over and over. The spinning motion increases
the accuracy of a bullet.
A. Bore B. Gunpowder
C. Rifling
D. Shell
w e r : C
A ns
Rifling refers to spiral grooves that have been formed
into the barrel of a firearm. It is the means by which a
firearm imparts a spin to a projectile to gyroscopically
stabilize it to improve accuracy. Most rifling is created
by either cutting with a machine tool, pressed by a tool
called a "button" or forged into the barrel over a
"mandrel"
24. It is the rearward movement of the firearm
after explosion.
A. velocity of the bullet
B. recoil of the firearm
C. rotation of the bullet
D. inside the barrel energy generated
w e r : B
A ns
Recoil Operated – Pertains to automatic and
semi-automatic arms, a weapon in which the
barrel and breechblock are locked together at the
instant firing. As the bullet leaves the barrel, the
rearward thrust of the powder gases starts the
locked barrel and bolt to the rear.
25. Which of the following refers to the
accumulation of gunpowder residue or dirt
in the interior surface of gun barrel caused
by solid products when a cartridge is fired?
A. corrosion
B. erosion
C. fouling w e r : C
D. stinking A n s
Erosion – the mechanical wear and tear of
the inner surface of the gun barrel due to
mechanical abrasion of sliding friction.
Corrosion – the mechanical wear and tear
of the inside of the gun barrel due to rust
formation or chemical action of the by
products of combustion after firing.
26. The following are the advantages of using
cartridges, except
A. greatly speeded the loading of weapons
B. avoided waste of powder from spillage
C. soldiers carry with them a bag of powder
and the ball bullets to battles every time
D. provided a uniform charge from shot to
shot
w e r : C
A ns
27. To determine whether or not a particular gun has
been fired, a bullet requires a comparison with one
that has been test fired from the suspect weapon. His
expertise established the comparison microscope as
the indispensable tool of the modern firearm examiner,
he was:
A. Daniel B. Wesson
B. Calvin H Goddard
w e r : B
C. Albert Osborn
A
D. Oliver Winchester
ns
Oliver F. Winchester –
one of the earliest rifles and
pistol makers.
Daniel B. Wesson – An associate
or partners of Smith in revolver
making.
28. Center fire cartridges were invented on 1858
that have been used until the modern days. But
only one name marked its rapid development.
The statement is referring to what cartridge?
A. paper cartridge
B. browning cartridge
C. self exploding cartridge
w e r : D
D. morse cartridge
A ns
29. What should be the classification of a shell
when the diameter of the rim is larger than the
diameter of the shell’s body?
A. Bottleneck type
B. Rimless case
C. Rebated type
D. Rimmed case
w e r : D
A ns
30. The Morse cartridge in 1858 marked
the beginning of the rapid development of
the
A. pin-fire cartridge
B. center-fire cartridge
C. rimfire cartridge
D. none of these we r : B
A n s
Pin – Fire – the pin extends radically through the head of
the cartridge case into the primer.
Rim – fire – the priming mixture is placed in the cavity
formed in the rim of the head of the cartridge case. The
flame produced is in direct communication with the
powder charge. Used in the caliber’s .22, .25 and .45
Derringer pistols.
Center – fire – the primer cup is forced into the middle
portion of the head of the cartridge case and the priming
mixture is exploded by the impact of the firing pin. The
flame is communicated to the power charge through the
vents leading into the powder charge.
Rimmed type – the rim of the cartridge case is
greater than the diameter of the body of the cartridge
case is greater than the diameter of the body of
the cartridge case. Example: Cal. .38 and Cal. .22.
Semi – rimmed type – of the cartridge case is slightly
greater than the diameter of the body of the cartridge
case. Example: Cal. .38 auto, pistol, .32 and .25.
Rimless type – the rim of the cartridge case is equal
to the diameter of the body of the cartridge case.
Example: Cal. .45 Auto Pistol .30 Carbine .223.
Rim-fire cartridges may be identified by the smooth base of
the cartridge case, which may or may not have a head stamps
are merely letters or design found on the base of the cases that
identifies the manufacturer. These rim-fire cartridges are
generally found in caliber .22s. They can be fired in either
caliber .22 pistols, caliber 22. revolvers and caliber .22 rifles.
Rim-fire cartridges can be further classified into:
a. rimmed type – used in revolvers .38 and

.357
b. semi-rimmed – used in super .380
c. rimless - .45 pistols, Thompson, grease gun,
submachine guns
31. It refers to one complete unfired unit consisting of
a bullet, primer, cartridge case, and gunpowder
A. projectile
B. cartridge
C. firearm
D. slug
w e r : B
A ns
Bullet – the projectile propelled through the barrel of a
firearm by means of the expansive force of gases coming from
burning gunpowder.
Cartridge Case – the tubular metallic container for the

gunpowder. Sometimes called shell or casing.
Gunpowder – the powder charge which, when ignite by the

primer flash, is converted to heated gas under high pressure
and propels the bullet or shots charge through the barrel and to
the target. Sometimes called propellant or powder charge.
Primer – the metal cup containing the highly sensitive

priming mixture of chemical compounds which when hit or
struck by the firing pin would ignite. Such action is called
percussion.
32. Characteristics which are determinable only
after the manufacture of the firearm.
A. class characteristics
B. forensic characteristics
C. rifling characteristics
D. Individual characteristics
w e r : D
A ns
Class characteristics - Are those that are
determinable even before the manufacture of the
firearm. It is categorized into caliber or gauge number
of lands and grooves, width of land and grooves, twist
of rifling, pitch of rifling and depth of grooves.
33. The greatest distance a projectile can travel when
fired at the optimum angle of elevation of the barrel.
A. maximum range
B. maximum effective range
C. minimum range
D. minimum effective range
w e r : A
A ns
34. It is the distance at which the gunner has the
control of shot where the bullet travel straight.
A. Maximum Range
B. Maximum Effective Range
C. Accurate Range
D. Effective Range
w e r : C
A ns
Range – the straight distance between muzzle and
target.
Extreme range – the greatest distance the bullet will
travel the cartridge is fired.
Effective range – the maximum distance at which a
bullet may reasonable be expected to travel
accurately and shoot a particular types of live target.
Accurate Range – the distance with in which the
shooter has control of his shots.
35. The term ballistics was actually derived from the
Greek word “ballein or ballo”, which means
A. to kick
B. to punch
C. to throw
D. to explode
w e r : C
A ns
The word “ Ballistics” originated from
the Greek word “Ballein” which means
“to throw” and from the Roman word
Ballista which is machine used to hurl
a stone.
36. In the story of crime, with the use of firearm, the
energy coming from the muzzle point is called?
A. Armor-piercing
B. Velocity
C. Lead bullet
D. Muzzle energy
w e r : D
A ns
37. What type of a firearm propels a projectile
with more than one inch diameter?
A. Small Arms
B. Artillery
C. Mortar
D. Cannon
w e r : B
A ns
Artillery – Those types of firearm that propel
projectiles more than one inch a diameter
Small Arms - Propel Projectiles less than 1 inch in
diameter can be operated by one man.
Example: Machine guns, shoulder arms and hand
arms
Shoulder Arms – Fired at the shoulders
Hand Arms - using one hand or both
38. Which refers to the size of the bullet
grouping on the target?
A. Penetration
B. Terminal penetration
C. Terminal ballistics D.
D. Terminal accuracy
w e r : D
A ns
Terminal accuracy - size of the bullet grouping
on the target.
Terminal energy - energy of the projectile when
it strikes the target. Also known as striking
energy.
Terminal penetration - depth of entry of the
bullet in the target.
Terminal velocity - speed of the bullet upon
striking the target.
39. It is the sound created at the muzzle end
of the gun barrel after explosion.
A. muzzle energy
B. range
C. trajectory
D. muzzle blast
w e r : D
A ns
40. What occurs when a cartridge fails to
explode on time or delayed in firing?
A. Knocking Power
B. Hang fire
C. Recoil
D. None of these
w e r : B
A ns
41. This is the actual curved path of the bullet
during its flight from the gun muzzle and target.
A. Air Resistance
B. Velocity
C. Trajectory
D. Pull of Gravity
w e r : C
A ns
42. Is the rate of speed of the bullet per unit of
time, expressed in ft/sec?
A. Muzzle Energy
B. Muzzle Blast
C. Velocity
D. Trajectory
w e r : C
A ns
43. This refers to the deflection of the bullet
from its normal path after striking a
resistant surface.
A. Misfire
B. Mushroom
C. Ricochet
D. Key hole shot we r : C
A n s
Key-hole Shot – the tumbling of the bullet in its
flight and hitting the target sideways as a result
of not spinning on its axis.
Misfire- means the total failure of the cartridge
to discharge.
Ricochet- the deflection of the bullet from its
normal path after striking a resistant surface.
Hang fire- occurs when the cartridge failed to
explode on time or a delay in firing.
Hang fire- occurs when the cartridge failed to

44. A hand gun in which a rotating cylinder
successively places cartridge into position for
firing is known as?
A. Pistol
B. Revolver
C. Rifle
D. Machinegun
w e r : B
A ns
45. A type of a bullet designed to be fired at
night which emits a bright flame at its base and
usually colored red-tip.
A. armor piercing
B. tracer bullet
C. incendiary bullet
D. explosive
w e r : B
A ns
Ball Bullets – have a soft cores and are used against
personnel.
Armor Piercing Bullet – have hardened steel cores
and are fired against vehicles, weapons and armored
targets in general.
Tracer Bullets – contains compound usually similar
to barium nitrates which is set on fire when the bullet
is projected. The flash of this smoke from this
burning permits the flight of the bullet to be seen .
Incendiary Bullets – contains a mixture such as
phosphorous or other materials, that can be set on fire
by impact. They are used against target that will burn
readily such as aircraft.
Explosives Bullets – contains a high charge of high
explosive and because of their small size it is difficult
to make a fuse tat will work reliably in small arms
ammunition. For this reason the use of high explosive
bullets is usually limited to 20mm and above.
46. What initiates the combustion of the
gunpowder in a shell?
A. Bullet
B. Trigger
C. Primer
D. Flash Hole
w e r : C
A ns
47. A type of primer with two vents or flash
holes.
A. Bordan primer
B. Berdan Primer
C. Battery Primer
D. Boxer Primer
w e r : B
A ns
Boxer primer (one flash hole) –
favorite in U.S. invented by Col.
Edward Munier Boxer in 1869.
Berdan (European Type) – two
flash holes or vents invented by
Hiram Berdan of New York in
1850’s.
48. What is refers to the metal cup containing
the highly sensitive priming mixture of chemical
compound which when hit by the firing pin
would ignite?
A. Bullet
B. primer
C. Cartridge
w e r : B
D. case
A ns
49. The term muzzle velocity refers most accurately to
the
A. Acceleration of the projectile in flig B. Rate
of expansion of the grooves in the muzzle
C. Average speed of the bullet in flight D. Speed
at which the bullet leaves the muzzle
w e r : D
A ns
50. It is termed as the stability of the bullet in flight
particularly in the parabola, which was credited to the
construction of the rifling.
A. velocity
B. stability in flight
C. gyroscopic action
D. parabolic like flight
w e r : C
A ns
51. The very first self-exploding cartridges were
invented on 1836 and it was called as the pin-
fire cartridge which came into realization
through the invention of:
A. Le Faucheux
B. Hiram Maxi
C. Flobert
w e r : A
ns
D. Alexander John Forsyth
A
52. When a shot is fired on an automatic pistol
by a criminal, the fired shell-
A. Remains within the chamber
B. In most cases will be found at the
scene of firing
C. Is rarely found at the crime scene
w e r B
D. Is usually disposed by the perpetrator
:
A ns
53. The rearward movement termed as recoil of
the firearm is a natural phenomenon because of
the expansion and explosion which was put into
used by ____ to create a fully automatic
mechanism of the firearm.
A. John M. Browning
B. Tyler Henry
w e r : C
C. Hiram Maxim
D. Horace Smith
A ns
54. He patented the very first practical revolver
in which the cylinder will rotate if the hammer is
cocked known as the single action mechanism.
The statement is referring to Samuel Colt but
that mechanism was put into used because of the
percussion system by:
A. Samuel Colt
w e r : D
B. Hiram Maxim
C. Flobert
A ns
D. Alexander John Forsyth
55. Smokeless powders were first invented by
Pual Vieille making its way to become the very
first satisfactory smokeless powder. It was first
release in what place:
A. Italy
B. France
C. England
w e r : B
D. Rome
A ns
56. Handguns that can be fired several times by
means of cartridge stored in the handle are
called.
A. Pistols
B. Revolver
C. Self-loading pistol
D. Automatic Weapon
w e r : A
A ns
57. Which of the following test is used to
determine whether a person fired a gun?
A. Luminescence
B. Duquinois Levine test
C. Takayama’s test
D. Paraffin test
w e r : D
A ns
58. The part of the mechanism of a firearm
that withdraws the shell or cartridge from
the chamber.
A.Extractor
B.Ejector
C.Striker
D.Trigger we r : B
A n s
59. SMITH & WESSON type of firearm has a
class characteristics of:
A. 4 Rifling, RHT, Width of Grooves are

equals width of Lands
B. 5 Rifling, RHT, Width of Grooves are
equals width of Lands
w e r : B
grooves
A ns
C. 6 Rifling, RHT, Narrow Lands and broad
D. 7 Rifling, RHT, Narrow Lands and broad

grooves
TYPES OF RIFLINGS
A. Steyr Type = 4 Rifling, RHT, width of grooves are equals
width of lands
B. Army type = 4 Rifling, RHT, narrow lands and broad
grooves.
C. Smith and Wesson Type = 5 Rifling, RHT, width of
grooves are equals width of Lands
D. Browning Type = 6 Rifling, RHT, narrow Lands and
broad grooves
E. Colt type = 6 Rifling, LHT, narrow lands and broad
grooves.
F. Webley type = 7 Rifling, RHT, narrow lands and broad
grooves.
60. Are marks caused by the lands while the
bullet is NOT on turning motion. It happens
because the rifling did not yet get the bullet.
A land marks
B. skid marks
C. slippage marks
w e r : B
D. shaving marks
A ns
MARKS ON BULLET
A. Land Marks – caused by lands in the barrel
B. Groove marks – caused by grooves in the barrel
C. Skid marks – caused by lands while bullet is not
in motion
D. Slippage marks – caused by rifling in a worn
out, oversize or oily barrel. This may cause key
hole shot.
E. Shaving marks – this is done with the bullet
when the chamber and the barrel are not
aligned.
61. What instrument is used in measuring
the pitch of rifling of a firearm?
A. Caliper
B. Tortion Balance
C. Helixometer
D. Chronograph
w e r : C
A ns
Chronograph – determines the speed of bullet
or the muzzle velocity of the bullet
Caliper – determines the diameter of bullet and

length of barrel
62. According to the diameter of the base or rim
of the cartridge case, which is common to
revolver and shot gun cartridges?
A. diameter is greater than the body
B. diameter of rim is equal to the body
C. made of brass case
D. presence of extracting grooves
w e r : A
A ns
63. What is the principal ingredient of
single-based propellants for modern small
arms?
A. Centralite
B. Nitrocellulose
C. Nitroglycerine
D. Nitro-guanidine we r : C
A n s
Note: Nitroglycerine was discovered by
Professor Sobrero in Turin in 1846
Main composition was 58% Nitroglycerine,
37% Guncotton and 3% mineral jelly
64. Talking about ammunition, which of these
refers to the initiator of the combustion of
propellant?
A. Crimp
B. Rim
C. Percussion
D. Shell
w e r : C
A ns
65. What prevents the pellets fired from
shotguns to immediately separate upon leaving
the barrel?
A.Choke
B.Muzzle
C.Rifling
D.Yoke
w e r : A
A ns
66. What firearm is loaded by manual
manipulation of the breechblock is usually
capable of single-shot firing?
A. Bolt-action type
B. Lever-action type
C. Repeating firearms
D. Slide-action type
w e r : A
A ns
TYPES OF FIREARMS: According to
Mechanical Construction
Single Shot F.A. – type of firearms designed to fire only

one shot for every loading.
Example: Pistols, Rifles, Shotgun – single shot
Repeating Arms - Fire several shots in one loading.
Example: Automatic Pistols, Revolvers, Rifles, and
Shotguns
Bolt Action Type - Reloading is done by manipulation of
the bolt.
Example: Rifles, shotguns, machine guns
Automatic Loading Type - After the first shot
is fired, automatic loading or feeding of the
chamber takes place.
Example: Rifles, Shotguns
Slide Action Type (Trombone) - Loading takes
place by back and forth manipulation of the
under forearm of the gun.
Example: Rifles, Shotguns
Lever Type (Break Type) - Loading takes
place by lever action of the firearm.
Example Rifles, Shotguns
67. A shooting incident was happened wherein five
people were found dead on the scene of the crime.
During the incident, it was found out that the firearm
involve uses a pistol size ammunition but having
contains a shoulder stock because it was fired in a
distance. The scene was filled by cartridge cases but
there was only one empty magazine recovered. If you
w e r : B
are the investigator, what type of firearm was used?
A. machine gun
B. sub machine gun A ns
C. automatic firearm
D. none of these
68. Pistols were slowly developed throughout the time
form simple to a more sophisticated firearm.
According to history, it was believed the word pistol
was taken from the Italian word Pistoia which literally
means:
A. small gun
B. coin
C. city
w e r : C
D. hand gun
A ns
69. Is that part of a firearm which houses all the
other parts.
A. Housing
B. frame
C. casing
D. Chamber
w e r : B
A ns
70. What type of a firearm is
commonly used by cavalry?
A. Carbine
B. Pistol
C. Revolver
D. Rifle A
s w e r :
A n
71. Where fingerprint of a gun is found
A. Barrel
B. Trigger
C. Bullet
D. Frame
w e r : A
A n s
72. How many bullets
(standard) are to be used in fire
testing?
A. 3 bullet
B. 4 bullet r : A
A n s w e
C. 5 bullet
D. 2 bullet
73. In bullet examination under the microscope.
What side of the plane the bullet is place?
A. Right Side
B. Left side
C. JUXTAPOSITION
D. None of these
w e r : C
A n s
74. In bullet recovery box, recover the
bullet in _________ for comparisons.
A. Perfect conditions
B. Seamless conditions
C. unified conditions
D. None of these
s w e r: A
An
75. What is the duplicate of the barrel?
A. Bullet
B. Barrel
C. Frame
D. Trigger
w e r : A
A n s
76. What firearm was fired when there was
no extractor and ejector?
A. Pistol
B. Revolver
C. Rifle
D. Machinegun
w e r : B
A n s
77. The lowest and highest
caliber of a firearm.
A. Cal. 22 and Cal.50
B. Cal. 22 and Cal. 48
C. Cal. 20 and Cal. 45 r : A
A n s w e
D. Cal. 21 and Cal. 50
78. Weapons of mass destruction (WMD)
A. Carbine
B. Pistol
C. Revolver
D. Nuclear weapon
w e r : D
A ns
79. The length of a Shotgun Cartridge Case?
A. 2.75 INCHES
B. 2. 74 INCHES
C. 2.5 INCHES
D. 2.8 INCHES
w e r : A
A n s
80. FEAR OF A FIREARM
A. ANUPTAPHOBIA
B. PHILOPHOBIA
C. KOPOPHOBIA
D. HOPLOPHOBIA
w e r : D
An s
81. HE INVENTED THE
REVOLVER
A.SAMUEL COLT
B.JOSEPH MARSTON
C.Calvin Goddard
D. JOHN FORSYTH
w e r : A
A n s
82. FATHER OF MODERN SHOTGUN
A.SAMUEL COLT
B.JOSEPH MARSTON
C.Calvin Goddard
D. JOHN FORSYTH
w e r : B
A n s
83. The inventor of gunpowder is credited
to:
A. James Forsythe
B. Philip O. Gravelle
C. Van Amberg
D. Berthold Schwartz
w e r : D
A n s
84. In the campaigns against the fanatical natives of
the north-west frontier ofIndia at the close of the
last century of English Army, they invented a kind
of bullet which were called DUM-DUM or
otherwise called expanding bullets, they are:
A. boat tail bullet

B. incendiary bullet
w e r : C
C.
D. n s
soft point and hollow point bullet
A
sharp pointed military bullet
85. These bullets when fired emit bright red
flame from their base, thereby showing the
gunner the path as well as the striking point
of the bullet.
A. jacketed bullet
B. armored piercing
C. semi-wed cutter bullet
w e r : D
D. tracer bullet
A n s
86. The caliber of the firearms can be
determined by the bore diameter
measured from:
A. Rifling
B. Two opposite grooves
C. Two opposite lands
w e r : C
A
D. Lands and groovesn s
87. The breech end of the chamber of the
firearm is sealed by a SOLID FLAT
BLOCK OF METAL AGAINST
WHICH THE BARREL comes into
position when the weapon is closed for
firing, which is termed as:
A. Extractor
w e r : D
B. Breech face An s
C. Head space
D. Breechblock
88. The inventor of gunpowder is credited to
A. James Forsythe
B. Philip O. Gravelle
C. Van Amberg
D. Berthold Schwartz
w e r : D
A n s
89. The equipment in Forensic Ballistics that
MEASURES THE PITCH OF RIFLING
is :
A. Chronograph
B. Helixometer
C. Micrometer
w e r : B
D. heliometer
A n s
EQUIPMENT USED IN BALLISTICS LABORATORY
1. Vernier Calipers – determines the diameter of bullet and
length of barrel.
2. Chronograph – determines the speed of bullet or the
muzzle velocity of the bullet.
3. Onoscope – used in examining the interior surface of
gun barrel.
4. Taper Gauge – used in determining the bore diameter.
5. Analytical balance – determines the weight of bullets,
shots/pellets, caliber and make of firearm.
6. Bullet Recovery Box – for test firing
7. Comparison Microscope – used to determine the
similarity and dissimilarity two fired bullets or
cartridges.
8. Stereocope Microscope – used in preliminary
examination of fired bullets and fired shells.
9. Comparison Projector CP 6 – almost the same with
Comparison microscope BUT this equipment has
magnified image that appears on a large screen and
can be observed in a comfortable viewing distance.
10. Measuring Projector MP 6 – determines the width of
lands, width of grooves, diameter and twist of a fired
bullet.
90. In the United States, crimes are
committed by juveniles using home-
made weapons generally referred to as:
A. Freakish device
B. Zip guns
C. Matchlock
w e r : B
D. Flare guns
A n s
91. The color of the point of Tracer Bullet
is:
A. Red
B. Blue
C. Black
D. Red and Blue
w e r : A
A n s
Armor – Piercing Bullet has
BLACK color on its point.
92. Class characteristics are
determinable even ______ the
manufacture of firearm:
A. during
B. after
w e r : C
C. before A n s
D. Before and after
93.The caliber is determined with the aid of
A. combined microscope
B. micrometer
C. macrometer
D. Caliper
w e r : D
A n s
94. An investigator who recovered a fired bullet from
the crime scene will request the ballistician to
determine:
A. owner of the firearm

B. model of the firearm
C.
r : C
caliber and type of the firearm used
w e
D. manufacture
A n s
95. The marks left on a bullet by a gun barrel are
different from those left by any other gun
barrel. This fact is most useful in directly
identifying the:
A. person who fired the particular gun

B. direction from which a shot was fired
w e r : C
C.
D. A n s
gun from which a bullet was fired
bullet which caused a fatal wound
96.Cannelures are valuable in firearm
identification because they help the expert
determine the:
A. weapon fired a particular bullet
B. type of gun that fired a particular bullet
C. manufacturer of a weapon
D. manufacturer of the bullet
w e r : D
A n s
97.A home made gun in the Philippines is
usually does not contain serial nos. except
to some. Home made guns in the country is
referred to as _____.
A. Zip guns
B. Davao guns
w e r : A
C. Sarao guns
A n s
D. Made in the Philippines
98. The bullet weight of Cal .45
is _____.
A. 300 grains
B. 230 grains
C. 320 grains
w e r : B
D. 200 grainsA n s
99. Pistols with the same number of barrel grooves can
be differentiated by the direction of the twist of the
rifling which may either be to the left or to the right.
Of the foregoing statement, the one which can most
accurately be inferred is that:
A. Most pistols have the same number of grooves.
B. Same pistols have rifling twisted either left and right.
C. The direction of the twist in any pistol can be either
left or right.
w e r : B
D. All of the above A n s
100. The secret of good SHOOTING
FORM is:
A. proper sight alignment

B. a relaxed and natural position
C. firing slowly and carefully
w e r : B
A ns
D. speed at which the bullet leaves the
revolver
101. The term muzzle velocity refers most
accurately to the:
A. acceleration of the projectile in flight
B. average speed of the bullet in flight
C. rate of expansion of the grooves in the
muzzle
e r : D
D. speed at which the bullet leaves the barrel
w
A n s
102. Rifling in the bore of small arms is
designed to :
A. To increase the speed of the bullet

B. To decrease the amount of recoil
C. To mark the bullet for purposes of
identification
w e r : A
and in the air A n s
D. To prevent the bullet from turning andover
103. The caliber of the gun is determined in:
A. Its barrel length

B. The circumference of its barrel
C. The size of the ammunition used
D. The diameter of bore, measured from two
opposite lands.
w e r : D
A n s
104. The maximum distance from the
muzzle at which a firearm discharge will
usually produce detectable powder
pattern on a target is about:
A. 6 to 10 inches
B. 6 to 10 feet
w e r : A
C. 6 to 10 yards A n s
D. 6 to 10 meters
105. Of the following, the most accurate statement
concerning the identification of an unknown
firearm by means of ballistics is that:
A. Most pistols which have left lead have at least
eight lands.
B. The width of the grooves in pistol can be
determined by the angle of lead.
e r : C
C. Pistols with the same number of lands can be
w
A n s
differentiated by the direction of the lead.
D. The angle lead is the angle which the land from
the width of the groove.
106. Paraffin test is used to :
A. detect whether a witness is telling the

truth.
B. discover whether the deceased person
was poisoned.
C. estimate the approximate time of
death of the deceased
w e r : D
A n s
D. determine whether a suspect has fired
a gun recently
107. The term double action with reference to
revolver means most nearly that:
A. the revolver has both safety and

automatic firing action.
B. pressure upon the trigger both cocks and releases
the hammer.
C. the revolver can fire with or without
w e r : B
automatic shell ejection.
A n s
D. the shell of a fired shot is ejected and fresh
cartridge is pushed from the magazine at
the same time.
108. The pitch of rifling of a Pistol or Rifle
barrels is called _____.
A. land
B. groove
C. lead
w e r D
D. one complete turn of bullet inside the
:
barrel
A n s
109.Identifying markings or
imprint are NOT left on a shell
by the :
A. Firing pin
B. ejector
w e r : D
C. extractor An s
D. hammer
110. A revolver to be tested and used in
evidence should be picked up by:
A. inserting a pencil or ballpen in the

barrel.
B. placing a piece of wire or string
through the trigger guard.
w e
C. grasping the handle with the r : B
handkerchief. A n s
D. grasping the barrel with clean cloth.
111. The part of a .45 caliber automatic
pistol found at the scene of the crime is
normally marked for identification in
the:
A. upper receiver
B. handle
w e r : D
C. slide An s
D. barrel
112. When a shot is fired from an
automatic pistol, the ____:
A. empty shell remain within the chamber.

B. empty shell in most cases is found at the
scene
w e r : B
C. empty shell is rarely found at the crime
scene.
A n s
D. empty shell is usually disposed by the
perpetrator.
113. Bullet length of Cal .45 is
_____
A. .662 inches
B. .46 inches
C. .62 inches
D. .36 inches
s w e r :A
A n
LENGTH OF BULLET
Cal .22 = .36 in
Cal .25 = .46 in
Cal .32 Short Colt = .48 in
Cal .32 Long Colt = .62 in
Cal .32 Auto Colt Pistol = .46 in
Cal .380 = .46 in
Cal .45 = .662 in
114. A policeman arriving at the scene
of a crime found a revolver, in reference
to this, he should be most careful:
A. to see that it is not loaded

B. to put on the safety lock
w e r : C
A n s
C. not to handle it unnecessarily
D. to mark it readily on the barrel
115. The term “MAGNUM”
originated in :
A. United States
B. France
w e r : C
C. England A n s
D. Italy
Magnum .44 – was known to be the most
powerful handgun in the world.
Magnum .50 – NOW, the most powerful
handgun in the world manufactured in
Israel.
116. The mechanical wear and tear
of the bore of an arm due to sliding
friction when the bullet passes
through is:
A. Ejector
B. Single action
w e r : C
C. Erosion An s
D. Potassium Nitrate
117. Weapon in which pressure upon
the trigger releases the hammer that
must be manually cocked is called:
A. Automatic
B. Repeating arms
e r : C
C. Single actionAnsw
D. Ejector
118. Weapon in which pressure
upon the trigger both cocks and
releases the hammer:
A. single action
B. trigger w e r : D
A n s
C. hammer
D. double action
119. The only sure method of
determining the velocity of bullet is
by the use of :
A. Micrometer
B. Taper Gauge nsw e r : D
A
C. Caliber
D. Chronograph
120. A type of bullet that contains a
mixture, such as PHOSPHORUS or
other material, that CAN SET FIRE
upon impact is called:
A. boat tail bullet

w e r : C
B. tracer bullet
A n s
C. incendiary bullet
D. ball type
121. A short barrel rifle, with its
barrel not longer than 22 inches.
A. Gatling guns
B. Pistolized shotgun
e r : C
C. carbine Answ
D. muskets
122. A 5.59 mm is equivalent to:
A. .22 caliber
B. .32 caliber
C. .30 caliber
D. .25 caliber
w e r : A
A n s
EQUIVALENT:
Cal .45 = 11mm
Cal .38 = 9 mm
Cal .32 = 7.65 mm
Cal .30 = 7.63 mm
Cal .25 = 6.35 mm
123. Armalite business was formed
by:
A. Charles Dorcester
B. George Sullivan
C. A and B
w e r : C
AB
D. Neither A and n s
INVENTORS AND MANUFACTURERS
 Henry Derringer – pocket pistol
 John Garrand – invented the Garrand Rifle – the first
self-loading rifle which was developed in 1931.
 R-J Gatling – invented Machine gun
 John Thompson – Designed the Thompson Machine
Gun in 1920
 Fedor Tokarev – designed the service pistol of Soviet
Forces.
 Carl Walter – designed a small caliber automatic pistol
in 1866.
 Oliver Winchester – led the Winchester Company
124. It is considered the most
powerful handgun in the
world?
A. magnum .357
B. magnum .44 swer: C
A n
C. magnum .50
D. magnum .41
125. A type of cartridge according to location of primer
where pin extends radially through the bead of the
cartridge case into the primer. This is now obsolete.
A. Pin-fire
B. Rim-fire
C. Center-fire
D. Percussion
w e r : A
Rim-fire = priming mixture is placed in the cavity formed in the rim of
the head of the cartridge case.
A n s
Center-fire = the center cup is forced into the middle portion of the head
of the cartridge case.
QUESTIONED DOCUMENT
1. Mr. ARNOLD was attempting to forge a signature
of his immediate superior, because of the lack of
preparation, an interruption in a stroke was observe
which was caused by removing the writing instrument
e r : C
from the paper. This observation is described as:
w
A. Pen emphasis A ns
B. Pen pressure
C. Pen lifts
D. Pen scope
PEN EMPHASIS - The act of intermittently forcing
the pen against the paper surfaces. When the pen-
point has flexibility, this emphasis produces shading,
but with more rigid writing points heavy point
emphasis can occur in writing w/out any evidence of
shading; the act intermittently forcing the pen against
the paper with increase pressure
PEN PRESSURE - the average force with which the
pen contacts the paper. Pen pressure as opposed to
pen emphasis deals with the usual of average force
involved in the writing rather than the period
increases.
2. There is freehand invitation and is considered
as the most skilful class of forgery
A.simulated or copied forgery
B.simple forgery
C.traced forgery
D.carbon tracing
w e r : A
A ns
3. Condensed and compact set of authentic
specimen which is adequate and proper, should
contain a cross section of the material from
known sources.
A. disguised document
B. questioned document
C. standard document
D. requested document
w e r : C
A n s
4. Specimens of hand writing or of
typescript which is of known origin.
A.Letters
B.Samples
C.Exemplars
D.Documents
w e r : C
A ns
5. Angelo writes his new script for it is needed
in their presentation as part of their economic
subject. There is defect on the later paragraph
upon his writing. He goes back over the
defective portion of the stroke of his writing.
The statement is referring to?
A. Retracing
w e r : B
B. Retouching
C. Restoring A ns
D. Outlining
6. In the course of your examination, you encountered
a very important document to a particular case,
however said document allegedly contain erasures
done mechanical abrasion which resulted in the
translucency of the document. Under the situation
what best method can be employed to detect such
erasure?
A. oblique light
w e r : A
B. transmitted light
C. ordinary light A ns
D. infrared viewer
7. Any written instrument by which a right
or obligation is established.
A. Certificate
B. Subpoena
C. Warrant
D. Document
w e r : D
A ns
8. A document which is being questioned
because of its origin, its contents or the
circumstances or the stories of its
production.
A. disputed document
B. standard document
C. requested document wer: D
A n
D. questioned document
s
9. An applicant for a job had tried to manipulate his
document (Birth Certificate) so that he would fit to the
age qualification. It found out that the document
contains some discrepancies in a form of addition and
deletion of letters and figures in the document. Which
document would this fall?
A. inserted document
B. altered document
w e r : B
C. disputed document
A
D. obliterated document
ns
10. The art of beautiful writing is known as
A. Drafting
B. Calligraphy
C. Art appreciation
D. Gothic
w e r : B
A ns
11. Jean is a good writer in town. Many of her books
were successfully published and were being loved by
her fans because of the trade mark of Inday Witty’s
penmanship. If you are going to examine the
handwriting of Inday Witty, what will the right term
for Inday Witty’s trade mark of penmanship?
A. Writing Maturity
B. Personal Legibility
w e r : D
C. Writing skill
A ns
D. Individual Characteristic
12. SPO4 Co N Ordio Jr. is investigating a fraudulent
handwriting having clear cut strokes and an evident
lack of freedom. This is an indication that:
A. the writer is using his fingers in writing
B. the has intentionally slowing his writing
speed to disguise it
C. the writer has a very fine handwriting
D. all of these
w e r : A
A ns
13. Mr. Sorbetero was attempting to forge a
signature of his immediate superior, because of
the lack of preparation, an interruption in a
stroke was observe which was caused by
removing the writing instrument from the paper.
This observation is described as:
A. Pen emphasis
w e r : C
B. Pen pressure
C. Pen lifts A ns
D. Pen scope
14. One in which the facts appearing
therein may not be true, and are contested
either in whole or part with respect to its
authenticity, identity, or origin.
A.Questioned document
B.Illegal document
C.Falsified document wer: A
D.Disputed facts A n s
QUESTIONED. Any material which some issue has been raised
or which is under scrutiny.
QUESTIONED DOCUMENT. One in which the facts appearing
therein may not be true, and are contested either in whole or part
with respect to its authenticity, identity, or origin. It may be a deed,
contract, will, election ballots, marriage contract,
check, visas, application form, check writer, certificates, etc.
DISPUTED DOCUMENT. A term suggesting that there is an
argument or controversy over the document, and strictly speaking
this is true meaning. In this text, as well as through prior usage,
however, “disputed document” and “questioned document” are
used interchangeably to signify a document that is under special
scrutiny
STANDARD a.k.a. STANDARD DOCUMENT - Are condensed and
compact set of authentic specimens which, if adequate and proper,
should contain a cross section of the material from a known source.
"Standard" in questioned documents investigation, we mean
those things whose origins are known and can be proven and which
can be legally used as examples to compare with other matters in
question. Usually a standard consist of the known handwriting of a
person such case, "standard" has the same meaning as is understood
by the word "specimen" of handwriting.
EXEMPLAR. A term used by some document examiners and
attorneys to characterize known material. Standard is the older term.
HOLOGRAPHIC DOCUMENT. Any document
completely written and signed by one person; also
known as a holograph. In a number of jurisdictions
a holographic will can be probated without anyone
having witnessed its execution.
REFERENCE COLLECTION. Material
compiled and organized by the document examiner
to assist him in answering special questions.
Reference collections of typewriting, check writing
specimens, inks, pens, pencils, and papers are
frequently maintained.
15. A term used by some document
examiners and attorneys to characterize
known material.
A. Basis
B. Exemplar
C. Xerox copies
D. Reproduced we r : B
A n s
EXEMPLAR. A term used by some
document examiners and attorneys to
characterize known material. Standard is
the older term
16. When a document is issued and
notarized by a notary public or competent
public official with solemnities required by
law, it is called
A. Official document
B. Public document
C. Commercial document w e r : B
D. Private Document A n s
KINDS OF DOCUMENT:
PUBLIC DOCUMENT - notarized by a notary public or competent

public official with solemnities required by law.(Cacnio vs. Baens, 5
Phil. 742)
OFFICIAL DOCUMENT - issued by the government or its agents or
its officers having the authority to do so and the offices, which in
accordance with their creation, they are authorized to issue and be issued
in the performance of their duties.
PRIVATE DOCUMENT -executed by a private person without the
intervention of a notary public or of any person legally authorized, by
which documents, some disposition or agreement is proved, evidenced
or set forth (US vs Orera, 11 Phil. 596).
COMMERCIAL DOCUMENT - executed in accordance with the
Code of Commerce or any Mercantile Law, containing disposition of
commercial rights or obligations.
17. What is known as the blotting out or
shearing over the writing to make the
original invisible to as an addition?
A.Obliteration
B.Obscuration
C.Forged
D.None of these we r : A
A n s
OBLITERATION - the blotting out or
shearing over the writing to make the original
invisible to as an addition.
18. In legal language, it refers to the
document examiner's conclusion. In Court,
he may not only express it but
demonstrates the reasons for arriving at his
conclusion.
A.Remarks
B.Testimony w e r : C
C.Opinion A n s
D.Reasoning
OPINION. In legal language, it refers to the
document Examiner's conclusion. Actually in Court,
he not only expresses an opinion but demonstrates the
reasons for arriving at his opinion. Throughout this
text, opinion and conclusion are used synonymously.
19. In this kind of document examination, the
document is viewed with the source of illumination
behind it and the light passing through the paper.
Documents are subjected to this type of examination to
determine the presence of erasures, matching
of serrations and some other types of alterations.
A.Microscopic examination
B.Ultra violet examination
w e r : D
C.Photographic examination
A ns
D.Transmitted light examination
TECHNIQUES IN THE EXAMINATION OF QUESTIONED
DOCUMENTS
MICROSCOPIC EXAMINATION - Any examination or study which
is made with the microscope in order to discover minute physical details.
Stereoscopic examination with low and high power objectives is used to
detect retouching, patching and unnatural pen-lift in signature analysis.
With proper angle and intensity or illumination, it aids in
the decipherment of erasures, some minute manipulations not perfectly
pictured to the unaided eye and the sequence of entries done by different
writing instruments.
TRANSMITTED LIGHT EXAMINATION – In this examination, the
document is viewed with the source of illumination behind it and the
light passing through the paper. Documents are subjected to this type of
examination to determine the presence of erasures, matching
of serrations and some other types of alterations.
OBLIQUE LIGHT EXAMINATION - An
examination with the illumination so controlled that it
grazes or strikes the surface of the document from one
side at a very low angle. Decipherment of faded
handwriting, determination of outlines in traced
forgery, embossed impressions, etc. are subjected to
this type of examination.
PHOTOGRAPHIC EXAMINATION - This type of

examination is very essential in every document
examination. Actual observations are recorded in the
photographs.
ULTRA-VIOLET EXAMINATION - Ultraviolet
radiation is invisible and occurs in the wave lengths
just below the visible blue-violet end of the spectrum
(rainbow). These visible rays react on some
substances so that visible light is reflected, a
phenomenon known as FLOURESCENCE. This type
of examination is done in a darkroom after the lamp
has been warmed up in order to give a maximum
output of the ultra-violet light. Exposure to the ultra-
violet light should be to the minimum duration in
order to avoid fading of some writing ink and
typewriter ribbon.
INFRARED EXAMINATION - This
examination of documents employs
invisible radiation beyond the red portion of
the visible spectrum (rainbow) which is
usually recorded on a specially sensitized
photographic emulsion.
20. It is the result of a very complicated series of
facts, being used as whole, combination of
certain forms of visible mental and muscular
habits acquired by long, continued painstaking
effort. Some defined it as “visible speech.”
A. Typewriting
B. Money Bills
w e r : C
C. Handwriting
D. All of these A ns
21. The following are characteristics of
forgery except one:
A. Presence of Natural Variation
B. Multiple Pen Lifts
C. Show bad quality of ink lines
D. Patchwork Appearance
w e r : A
A ns
22. Any stroke which goes back over
another writing stroke.
A. natural variation
B. rhythm
C. retracing
D. shading
w e r : C
A ns
RHYTHM – The element of the writing
movement which is marked by regular or
periodic recurrences. It may be classed as
smooth, intermittent, or jerky in its quality;
the flourishing succession of motion which
are recorded in a written record.
Periodicity, alternation of movement.
23. Standards which are prepared upon the
request of the investigator and for the
purpose of comparison with the questioned
document.
A. relative standards
B. collected standards
C. extended standards wer: D
A n
D. requested standards
s
24. The name of a person written by
him/her in a document as a sign of
acknowledgement.
A. Opinion
B. Document
C. Signature
D. Handwriting we r : C
A n s
25. A kind of document which is executed
by a private person without the intervention
of a notary public, or of competent public
official, by which some disposition of
agreement is proved.
A. commercial document
B. official document wer: D
C. public documentA n s
D. private document
26. An instrument that can be legally
used in comparison with a questioned
document, its origin is known and can
be proven.
A. simulated document
B. forged document
w e r : C
A n
C. standard document s
D. compared document
27. The process of making out what
is illegible or what has been effaced.
A. Comparison
B. Collation
C. Obliteration
D. Deciphermentnswe r : D
A
28. A document which contains some
changes either as an addition or
deletion.
A.inserted document
B.altered document
C.disputed document
w e r : B
A n s
D.obliterated document
29. A kind of erasure by using a rubber
eraser, sharp knife, razor blade or picking
instrument.
A. mechanical erasure
B. electronic erasure
C. magnetic erasure
D. chemical erasure we r : A
A n s
30. It is the periodic increase in pressure,
characterized by widening of the ink stroke.
A. Shading
B. pen lift
C. pen emphasis
D. pen pressure
w e r : D
A ns
31. A kind of document executed by a person in
authority and by private parties but notarised by
competent officials.
A. private document
B. commercial document
C. public document
D. official document
w e r : C
A ns
32. The patched traced by the pen on
the paper
A. signature' B.
line
C. shadow D.
stroke
s w e r:D
A n
33. If the document being questioned
involves the handwriting, the possible
issue is—
A. forgery
B. fake
C. simulated
D. original we r : A
A n s
34.As a rule, it is easier to determine whether or not a
signature is forgery, but it is very difficult on the other
hand to established who committed the forgery
because:
A. the forger might be a left handed
B. imitation is one of the most effective
means to disguise one’s handwriting
C. it might be a traced forgery
w e r : D
ns
D. there is no sufficient standard available
A
35. Contemporary handwriting standards
means that the age of the standards should be
within?
A. 8 years from the date of the
question document
B. 10 years prior to the date of the
questioned document
w e r : C
questioned document A ns
C. 5 years prior to the date of the
D. 15 years prior to the date of the

questioned document
36. Handwriting analysis is an art, and the study
of hand writing based on two fundamental
strokes, the curve and the straight strokes is
referred to by experts as;
A. graphometry
B. grapology
C. grapoanalysis
w e r : C
D. grap analysis
A ns
37. In the history of questioned document
examination, who was the British examiner of
questioned document who said that an intelligent
police investigator can detect almost 75% of all
forgeries by careful inspection of a document with
simple magnifiers and measuring tools was;
A. Alphonse Bertillion
B. Detective Allan
:
Perkinson
w e r C
D. Richard Henry A ns
C. Dr. Wilson Harrison
38. Specimen of a person’s handwriting or hand
printing executed from day to day in the normal
course of business, personal or social activity.
A. Physical evidence
B. information
C. requested standard
w e r : D
D. collected standard
A ns
39. To be able to make a positive identification
of a person, document examiner must be able to
observe the –
A. Characteristics of his handwriting
B. Writing position of the writer
C. Manner on how the writer moves the
pain
w e r : D
his handwriting A ns
D. Distinguishing individual features of
40. A Special form of penlift distinguishable in
that its perceptible gap appears in the writing—
A. hiatus B.
hesitation
C. base line D.
blunt
w e r : A
A ns
41. Majuscule is referring to—
A. small letter
B. capital letter
C. spaced letter
D. macro letter
w e r : B
A ns
MAJUSCULE - a capital letter.
MINUSCULE - a small letter.
42. The art of determining character,
disposition and attitude from the study of
handwriting extravagant graphological
claims have no scientific basis.—
A. Graphology
B. Graphometry
C. Handwriting D.
w e r : A
Signature
A ns
GRAPHOANALYSIS - the study of handwriting
based on the two fundamental strokes, the curve and
the straight strokes.
GRAPHOMETRY - analysis by comparison and

measurement.
GRAPHOLOGY - the art of determining character

disposition and amplitude of a person from the study
of handwriting. It also means the scientific study and
analysis of handwriting, especially with reference to
forgeries and questioned documents.
43. There are persons who lack the ability
to differentiate forms, sizes, letter,
configuration, design and angles.—
A. Form Blindness
B. Astigmatism
C. Nearsightedness D.
Farsightedness w e r : A
An s
44. What is the modern term of a
handwriting specimen obtained personally
from a known source that can be used by
the examiner as the basis for his ID or non-
ID of the writings found in a QD?
A. Handwriting standards
B. Samples w e r : C
A n
C. Collected standard
s
D. Exemplar
TYPES OF HANDWRITING "STANDARDS"
Collected Standards are KNOWN (genuine) handwriting of an
individual such as signature and endorsements on canceled
checks, legal papers letters, commercial, official, public and
private document and other handwriting such as letters,
memoranda, etc. Written in the course of daily life, both business
and socials.
Request standards are signature or other handwritings (or hand
printings) written by an individual upon request for the purpose of
comparison with other handwriting or for specimen purposes.
Post Litem Motan Exemplars - writings produced by the subject
after evidential writings have come into dispute and solely for the
purpose of establishing his contentions
45. What should be used to make the examiner
discover or see minute physical details of the
writings in a document which would not be
possible by merely using a naked eye?
A. Transmitted light examination
B. Infra-red light examination
C. Microscopic examination
w e r : C
ns
D. Ultra-violet light examination
A
46. Obliterations may be detected using this method
A. using infrared photography so that the
original writing lying beneath is revealed
B. remove the obliterating material
chemically or by some other means leaving
the original writing untouched
C. studying the impression from the original
writing or typewriting
: D
that has not been
w e r
destroyed by the obliterating
D. all of these A ns action
47. It is the identifying of similarities and
dissimilarities, determination of likelihood of
occurrence, and weighing down of the significance of
each factor.
A. Analysis
B. Comparison
C. Evaluation
D. All of these
w e r : C
A ns
Analysis (Recognition) - properties or characteristics,
observed or measured.
Comparison - Properties or characteristics of the unknown
determined thought analysis are now compared with the
familiar or recorded properties of known items.
Evaluation- Similarities or dissimilarities in properties or
characteristics will each have a certain value for identification,
determined by its likelihood of occurrence. The weight or
significance of each must therefore be considered.
48. These are standards given or made at the request
of an investigator for the sole purpose of making a
comparative examination with the questioned writing.
A. procured standard
B. collected standard
C. requested standard
D. all of these
w e r : C
A ns
49. Which of the following is not true about the
main points of arrangement examination?
A. relation of the capital letters in
disregard of the small letters
B. the size of the margins to the right,
left, top and bottom
w e r A
C. the alignment of the letters to the
:
baseline
A ns
D. arrangement of headings
50. Which of the following is true about the
individual characteristics?
A. it could be seen in the terminal shadings
B. on the ratio of all letters
C. always on the usual habitual and
systematic form of slants
D. all of these
w e r : A
A ns
51. In this class of questioned documents, papers,
inks, watermarks and the continuity of all the writing
in the document is being considered and scrutinized.
A. documents attacked on the question of

their age and date
B. documents attacked on the question of
materials in their production
w e r : C
disputed A ns
C. holograph documents questioned or
D. documents containing alleged fraudulent

alterations
52. Which of the following are not included in the
negative direction in preserving the evidentiary value
of the document?
A. it should not be wet even with special
permission
B. it should not be folded in any manner
C. it should not be touched by any sharp
instrument
w e r : A
ns
D. it should not be underscored with a pencil
A
53. You were writing a holographic document
for your last will. All the letters are in majuscule
making it to be more clear and concise. What
form was described in the statement?
A. handwriting
B. script writing
C. cursive writing
w e r : D
D. block style
A ns
KINDS OF WRITINGS:
Cursive – connected; writing in which one
letter is joined to the next.
Script – separated or printed writing.
BLOCK – all CAPITAL LETTERS
54. Most reliable methods for determining
whether or not the document is as old as it
purports to be and its presence also is one of the
most important features in the comparison of
paper—
A. Water marks
B. Trade marks
w e r : A
C. Balance mark
D. forged mark A ns
55. The beginning and ending strokes of letters,
both small and capital, in which the pen touched
the paper without hesitation, beard, hitch or
knob.
A. Blunt
B. Base Line
C. Buckle Knot
w e r : A
D. Hiatus
A ns
56. All handwriting contains or exhibits certain
identifying properties of elements that are being
use by the examiners to identify the author.
These elements are also labeled as:
A. Individual characteristics
B. Class characteristics
C. characteristics
w e r : C
D. none of these
A ns
57. One the points that should be considered in
QD examination is the familiarization of the
shape and design of individual letters of the
source which was referred to as the:
A. characteristics
B. form
C . individual characteristics
w e r : B
D. rhythm
A ns
58. The author of a typewritten document can be
identified through
A. his peculiar style of indention, grammar
composition, and paragraphing
B. individual characteristics of the
typewriter machine
C. design and style of the typewriter’s
w e r : A
character
A ns
D. brand and model of the typewriter
59. These are flourish strokes which are added
usually to the capital letters to give more
attractive form to the eyes of the reader which
also became one of the individual
characteristics.
A. beard
B. buckle knot
w e r : A
C. Garland
D. spur A ns
60. In order to attain sound conclusions regarding the
certain questioned document, the QD examiner should
collect all the desired standards from the person
suspected or alleged to have committed a certain act.
How many exemplars should at least be collected if
the issue is about signatures.
A. 10
B. 11
w e r : A
C. 7
D. 25 A ns
61. Which of the following refers to the irregular
thickening of ink which is found when writing
slows down or stop while the pen take a stock of
the position?
A. shading
B. hesitation
C. pressure
w e r : B
D. knob
A ns
62. Carlos Barbz had interrupted his writing
stroke when he unintentionally removed the pen
from the paper. The act of Carlos is referring to
what?
A. terminal stroke
B. pen lift
C. hiatus
w e r : B
D. pen interruption
A ns
63. A fraudulent signature whereby, there are no
apparent attempt at simulation or imitation, or
the person (suspect) merely signs the name in
his name and or used another signature and
possess the document before the fraud is
discovered.
A. Fraudulent Forgery
w e r : B
B. Spurious Forgery
A
C. Simulated Forgery
ns
D. Traced Forgery
64. As a QD examiner, you are examining an alleged
fraudulent handwriting and found out that those
deviations are very usual between the repeated strokes
of the handwriting specimen. What will be your
conclusion on the specimen?
A. forged, because those deviations is already a
sign of fraud
w e r : B
B. genuine, because those deviations are
A ns
considered as natural deviations
C. forged, because there are no two persons
having handwriting
D. genuine, because perhaps two persons may
have same handwriting
65. Handwriting characteristics derived from the
system of handwriting that a person learns in
school.
A. class characteristics B.
personal signature
C. strokes in handwriting D.
handwriting style
w e r : A
A ns
66. Specimen of handwriting secured by
dictating the text of a questioned document or
other writing materials to a subject—
A. dictated standard B.
specimen handwriting
C. forced signature
D. none of them
w e r : A
A ns
67. Signatures actually produced by the cooperation of
two hands and two minds. A seriously ill testator
sometimes asks someone for assistance in affixing his
signatures. Generally then, abnormality, clumsiness,
disconnections, uneven alignment, and illegibility are
indications of genuiness and the opposite conditions
are evidence of lack of genuiness—
A. Guided hand signatures
w e r : A B. forged
signature
A
C. consented signature
ns
D. none of them
68. The term applies to the irregular thickening
which is found when the writing slows down or
stops while a penman takes stock" of the
position—
A. hesitation B.
hiatus
C. penlift
w e r : A
D. buckle knot
A ns
69. Retouching of a writing as an attempt to
improve the imitation—
A. Patching B.
Buckle knot
C. Drawing D.
none of them
w e r : A
A ns
70. Characterized by smoothness of writing,
regularity of curves and shading. Writer is
unconscious of the actual act of writing but
concentrated instead on what is being written.
A. good line quality B.
simulated writing
C. forged writing
w e r : A
D. poor line quality
A ns
71. A signature in a check is suspected to have been forged.
The signatory does not remember categorically whether he
had issued the check. The signature was compared with a
genuine signature but both were in the same in size and shape.
What will be your conclusion about the signature?
A. genuine; the signatory only forgot the issuance of
the check
B. genuine; both signatures are exactly the same in
size and shape
w e r : D
issuance of the check A ns
C. forgery; the signatory just want to deny the
D. forgery; no signature is exactly the same in all

aspects when compared
72. Writing in which are for most part joined
together.
A. Natural writing
B. Cursive writing
C. Disguised writing
D. System of writing
w e r : B
A ns
73. A preliminary embellished initial
common to capital letters.
A. Embellishment
B. Buckle knot
C. Beard
D. Diacritic
w e r : C
A ns
74. Any stroke which goes back over
another writing stroke.
A. natural variation
B. rhythm
C. retracing
D. shading
w e r : C
A ns
75. Minute curve which occurs at the end of
terminal strokes.
A. Hook
B. Spur
C. Loop
D. Staff
w e r : A
A ns
LOOP - A oblong curve such as found on
the small letter "f", "g", "l" and letters
stroke "f" has two. A loop may be blind or
open. A blind loop is usually the result of
the ink having filled the open space.
76. An imaginary line upon which the
writing rests.
A. Line quality
B. Foot
C. Baseline
D. Hitch
w e r : C
A ns
77. Majority of questioned document cases
are concerned with _________?
A. Documents Age
B. Disproving Alibis
C. Proving Authorship
D. Counterfeiting
w e r : C
A ns
78. Which among the following is an
indication of genuineness of handwriting?
A. Continuity
B. Skillful writing
C. Smoothness
D. Tremor
w e r : A
A ns
79. The introductory backward stroke added to
the start of many capital letters' and which can
also be seen occasionally in introductory strokes
of small letters.
A. Embellishment
B. Buckle knot
C. Beard
w e r : D
D. Hitch
A ns
80. Document which is completely written
and signed by one person.
A. Genuine document B.
Holographic document
C. Disputed document D.
Authentic document
w e r : B
A ns
81. Balance quality of movement of the
harmonious recurrence of stress of Impulse.
A. Line quality
B. Baseline
C. Rhythm
D. Writing pressure
w e r : C
A ns
82. Signatures used to acknowledge
delivery purchase of goods and mail.
A. Complete
B. Cursory
C. Formal
D. Careless scribble
w e r : D
A ns
83. Additional unnecessary stroke for
ornamental purposes.
A. Embellishment B.
Diacritic
C. Hump
D. Knot
w e r : A
A ns
84. A process by which a canal like outline is
produced on a fraudulent document underneath
the genuine and tracing it with the use of a
pointed Instrument.
A. Carbon process B.
Projection process
C. Indention process
w e r : C
ns
D. Transmitted light process
A
85. The most reliable criterion In judging
the authenticity of paper money.
A. Quality or sharpness of the
engraving
B. Color of the seal
C. Wet strength of the paper
D. Watermarks we r : A
A n s
86. Developed the system of handwriting
classification utilized by most police
departments.
A. Lee and Abbey
B. Levino
C. Rolando Wilson
D. Landsteiner
w e r : A
A ns
87. A coin given the appearance of a legal
tender but made inferior or superior
Intrinsic value to that of the genuine coin.
A. Priceless coin
B. False coin
C. Mutilated coin D.
All of the above we r : B
A n s
88. An identifying typewriter characteristic
which can be eliminated by cleaning the
machine or replacing the ribbon.
A. Transitory defect B.
Permanent defect
C. Alignment defect D.
Defect w e r : A
An s
89. An act of diminishing the metal value
of a genuine coin.
A. False coin
B. Priceless coin
C. Counterfeit coin D.
Mutilation of coins
w e r : D
A ns
90. A defect in typewriters due to the wear
and tear of the type block in which some
letters lean to the left or right of their
correct slant.
A. Off its feet
B. Twisted letter
C. Clogged type w e
face r : B D.
Rebound A n s
91. A person conducting the forensic ballistics
examination is firearm examiner while in
dactyloscopy is fingerprint examiner, and on
disputed documents is;.
A. standard examiner
B. document examiner
C. documentary examiner
w e r : B
D. Forensic examiner
A
E. disputed examiner
ns
92. In all court proceedings, expert
witnesses are presented by legal counsel
and allowed by the court to testify upon
establishing its?
A. oath taking
B. qualification
C. testimony w e r : B
D. explanation A n s
E. citation
93. It is an act deliberately done by any
individual person in order to imitate or
falsify a document under fraudulent and
deception.
A. robbery
B. theft
C. forgery w e r : C
D. estafa A n s
E. usurpation
94. It is a product of skilled forger by
executing forgery of copying signatures by
used of memory and likewise most difficult
to detect by the examiner to identify its
authenticity or falsity.
A. simple forgery
B. simulated forgery wer: B
C. traced forgeryA n s
D. falsified forgery
E. genuine forgery
SIMULATED OR FREEHAND IMITATION
FORGERY – executed purely by simulation rather than by
tracing the outline of a genuine signature can be referred as
freehand imitation or simulated forgery. Or it refers to the
free-hand drawing in imitation of model signature.
TRACED FORGERY (TRACED SIGNATURE)
DIRECT TRACING - tracing is made by transmitted light.

INDIRECT TRACING - forger uses a carbon paper and
place document on which he will trace the forged
signature under the document bearing the model
signature with a carbon paper between the two.
The types of Traced Signatures are:
 CARBON PROCESS
 INDENTATION PROCESS
 TRANSMITTED LIGHT PROCESS
SPURIOUS SIGNATURE (SIMPLE FORGERY) - Forger

does not try to copy a model but writes something resembling
what we ordinarily call a signature. For this, he uses a false
(spurious) name and makes a rapid stroke, disturbing his usual
writing by adopting a camouflage called disguise.
95. When a forger follows by copying on
top of the signature using another piece of
paper in order to obtain writing imitation
from an authentic signature.
A. simple forgery
B. simulated forgery
C. traced forgery w e r : C
A
D. falsified forgeryn s
E. genuine forgery
96. If falsified signatures are produced without
resemblance or pictorial similarity from the
standard specimens shall be considered as;
A. simple forgery
B. simulated forgery
C. traced forgery
D. falsified forgery
w e r : A
E. genuine forgery
A ns
97. A statement in court or testimony of witness that
derives from skill, knowledge, experience and training
and may be accepted as opinion evidence under rules
of exception.
A. star witness
B. eye witness
C. expert witness
D. ordinary witness
w e r : C
ns
E. circumstantial witness
A
98. The crime of forgery, falsification, and other
fraudulent or similar acts is considered and
punishable under the law is;
A. crime against person
B. crime against property
C. crime against public moral D.
crimes against chastity
w e r : E
ns
E. crime against public interest
A
99. The enlarged photographic production for
comparative identity and clarity of specimens
involved in determining handwriting
characteristics during examination is known;
A. chart
B. photographs
C. pictorials
w e r : A
D. photos
A
E. none of the above
ns
100. It is the year that typewriter was
invented in England.
A. 1914
B. 1814
C. 1714
D. 16 14
E. 1841 we r : C
A n s
101. A machine for writing by printing
impressions being operated in keyboard
system.
A. typewriter
B. check writer
C. adding machine
D. none of the above wer: A
A
E. all of the above n s
102. It is an individual person who
invented the typewriter.
A. Fax Talbot
B. Remington
C. Daguerre
D. Henry Mill
E. Eastman Kodak swer: D
An
103. It is known as the first writing paper ever
produced during ancient times in order to
document records.
A. papyrus
B. crip paper
C. Egyptian paper
D. Indian paper
w e r : A
E. soil paper
A ns
104. Mr. Wisnton Garcia was assisted by Mr.
Manolo Lopez to write his signature in the
Meralco Stockholderss meeting. How this
handwriting execution is considered?
A. disputed handwriting
B. guided writing
C. free-hand writing
w e r : B
A ns
D. usual handwriting
E. accidental handwriting
105. An individual person who wish to hide
his handwriting identity and use for
anonymity, the writing execution is
considered as;.
A. disguised writing
B. guided writing
C. free-hand writing wer: A
A n
D. usual handwriting
s
E. accidental handwriting
106. A fluid or viscous marking
material used for writing or printing.
A. Pen
B. Ink
C. Coal
D. Chalk
n s w e r: B
A
107. Questioned document examination is
known by many names except one:
A. Forensic document examination
B. Document classification
C. Handwriting examination
D. Handwriting analysis
w e r : B
A ns
108. Which of the following is the primary
determinant of writing speed?
A. Indicates speed writing
B. Natural writing
C. Rhythm
D. The written strokes
w e r : D
A ns
109. A genuine signature used to prepare an
imitated or traced forgery is known as
A. Evidential Signature
B. Forged Signature
C. Model signature
D. Repeated Signature
w e r : C
A ns
SIGNIFICANT TERMS
CROSS MARK. Historically, many who could not write
signed with a cross mark or crude X. This authenticating mark
is still used today by illiterates, and if properly witnessed, it
can legally stand for a signature. Ballot marks are also
referred to as cross marks because of the common practice of
marking with an X.
EVIDENTIAL SIGNATURE - Is not simply a signature - it

is a signature, signed at a particular time and place, under
particular conditions, while the signer was at particular age, in
a particular physical and mental condition, using particular
implements, and with a particular reason and purpose for
recording his name.
FRAUDULENT SIGNATURE. A forged signature. It
involves the writing of a name as a signature by someone
other than the person himself, without his permission, often
with some degree of imitation.
FREEHAND SIGNATURE. A fraudulent signature that was
executed purely by simulation rather than by tracing the
outline of a genuine signature.
GUIDED SIGNATURE. A signature that is executed while
the writer’s hand or arm is steadied in any way. Under the
law of most jurisdictions such a signature authenticates a legal
document provided it is shown that the writer requested the
assistance. Guided signatures are most commonly written
during a serious illness or on a deathbed.
IMITATED SIGNATURE. Synonymous with
freehand forgery.
MODEL SIGNATURE. A genuine signature that
has been used to prepare an imitated or traced
forgery.
THEORY OF COMPARISON - The act of setting
two or more signature in an inverted position to
weigh their identifying significance, the reason
being that those we fail to see under normal
comparison may readily be seen under this
theory.
110. A person who can write either with
his left or right hand is called–
A. Ambidextrous
B. Analogous
C. Bicephalous
D. Dextrous or Dexterous
n s w e r: A
A
111. The name of a person written by
him/her in a document as a sign of
acknowledgement.
A. Opinion
B. Document
C. Signature
D. Handwriting we r : C
A n s
112. There are only three prominent letters
in the alphabet that bears this kind of
characteristics.
A. pen jump
B. retrace
C. diacritics
D. all of them we r : C
A n s
113. A document becomes questioned
documents when _____ or alterations, this
usually affect the original meaning of a
document.
A. Forge
B. Fraudulent
C. Changes w e r : C
D. Signature A n s
114. If ballpoint was patented by John
Loud who patented the first practical
fountain pen containing its own ink
reservoir?
A. William Mitchel
B. Lewis Waterman
C. Swamp Reed w e r : B
A n
D. Dr. WlsonHarison
s
115. Legally speaking, what is the
description of the act of passing, delivering,
or giving a counterfeit coin to another
person?
A. Counterfeiting
B. Falsification
C. Reproduction w e r : D
D. Uttering A n s
FORGERY, COUNTERFEITING AND FALSIFICATION
COUNTERFEITING - It is the crime of making, circulating
or uttering false coins and banknotes. Literally, it means to
make a copy of; or imitate; to make a spurious semblance of,
as money or stamps, with the intent to deceive or defraud.
Counterfeiting is something made to imitate the real thing
used for gain.
FALSIFICATION – The act/process of making the content/s
of a document not the intended content.
FORGERY – The act of falsely making or materially altering,
with intent to defraud, any writing which if genuine, might be
of legal efficacy or the foundation of a legal liability.
116. Questioned document examination
often involves comparing questioned
handwriting with known handwriting to
determine?
A. authentic document
B. the falsification committed
C. the writer's identity w e r : D
A n
D. any sign of forgery
s
117. Refers to the usual or normal
deviations found in a repeated
specimen of individual’s handwriting.
A. Natural variation
B. Transitory change
C. Permanent damage
w e r : A
A n
D. Temporary defects
TRANSITORY DEFECT - Any identifying
typewriter characteristics which can be eliminated by
cleaning the machine or replacing the ribbon is
described as a transitory defects. Clogged type is the
most common defects in this class.
PERMANENT DEFECT - Any identifying

characteristics of a type-writer which cannot be
corrected by simply cleaning the type
face or replacing the ribbon is
classified as a permanent defect.
118. Two handwritings cannot be deemed to
be the writing of the same person unless:
A. they were written by one person
B. embody no basic differences
C. involves combination of
agreements
D. all of these we r : B
A n s
119. Typescript with ten (10) letters to
the inch
A. Pica B.
Elite
C. IBM D.
Computer
s w e r:A
A n
120. Typescript with twelve (12) letters to
the inch
A. Elite B.
Pica
C. IBM D.
computer
w e r : A
A ns
TYPES OF TYPEWRITERS
CONVENTIONAL TYPEWRITERS USING

TYPE BARS
Pica Type - 10 letter/inch
Elite Type - 12 Letters/inch
6 Letters/inch
Teletype Machine
14-16 letter/inch - specials typewriters
121. Also called block lettering or
roman capitals
A.print writing
B.block writing
C.forged writing
D.none of them
s w e r :A
A n
122. A partial overwriting of a
signature. It should be treated with
extreme suspicion for being forged.
A. retouching
B.forged writing
C.stimulated writing
w e r : A
D.none of them Ans
123. The flexible split rib of a fountain pen
enable the width of a line to be controlled
by variation in pressure
A. shading
B. patching
C. penlift
D. retouching we r : A
A n s
124. In typewriting examination, a typewritten note
cannot be proven to have been typed from a particular
typewriter thru comparison of the class and individual
characteristics of the typewriter. The most famous case
of handwriting identification in the U.S.A.
A. Hiss case
B. Miranda case
C. Escobido case
w e r : A
D. none of them
A ns
125. It is the result of an attempt to transfer
to a fraudulent document an exact facsimile
of a genuine writing by some tracing
process. It is easiest to detect as it is NOT
WRITING but SLOW DRAWING.
A. traced forgery
B. drawing w e r : A
A
C. stimulated forgeryn s
D. All of them
125. Erasure by means of some hard
abrasive substance like rubber eraser
A. abrasive erasure B.
chemical erasure
C. electrical erasure D. none
of them
w e r : A
A ns
126. Erasure made with chemical
bleaching solutions
A. chemical erasure B.
liquid erasure
C. fluid erasure D.
none of them
n s w e r: A
A
127. Contemporary handwriting standards
means that the age of the standards should be
within
A. 5 years prior to the date of the
questioned document
B. 8 years prior to the date of the
questioned document
w e r : A
questioned document A ns
C. 10 prior to the date of the
D. 12 prior to the date of the

questioned document
128. A fully rounded oval and circular form
in a letter complete in an "O" or modified
in "BDPR" is a
A. plate B.
oval
C. bowl
D. round w e r : C
An s
129. The horizontal and looped strokes
that are used to complete such letters
"A", "E", "H", "F", "R"
A. buckle knot B.
tying knot
C. bended knot
w e r : A
A
D. circling knot n s
130. The lower portion of letters such as g,
p, q, y
A. decline B.
base
C. descender D.
lower
w e r : C
A ns
131. The beginning and the ending stroke
of letters both small and capital in which
the pen touched the paper without
hesitation.
A. cursive
B. penlift
C. dactyl. w e r : D
D. blunt A n s
132. Extra deposit of ink in the initial and
terminal strokes due to the slow
withdrawal of the pen from the paper.
A. hiatus
B. knob
C. ending stoke D.
patching we r : B
A n s
133. The rounded, outer of the top of the
bend creek or curved in small letters such
as h, k, m, n.
A. hump
B. cliff
C. base D.
ascend we r : A
A n s
134. Small letters are called
A. minute letters
B. microscopic
C. amoebic letter D.
minuscule
w e r : D
A ns
135. Connecting strokes between letters
A. ligatures
B. Penlift
C. injunct D.
conjunct
w e r : A
A ns
136. A holographic document is one being
A. typewritten
B. handwritten
C. handprinting
D. stencil written
w e r : B
A ns
137. When police are dealing with
documents, the most frequent problem they
face are those concerning
A. Authorship
B. content
C. circumstances
D. origin we r : A
A n s
138. What is the indelible ink whose
marking substance consists of a mixture of
a graphite and aniline ink?
A. copy pencil
B. copier
C. tencil
d. charged seals we r : B
A n s
139. What is that which is widens the ink
stroke due to added pressure on a flexible
pen point?
A. retracing
B. lifting
C. shading
D. tracing we r : C
A n s
140. The act of retouching or going back
over a defective portion of a writing stroke.
A. Pressuring
B. Shading
C. Retracing
D. patching
w e r : D
A ns
141. What kind of stroke goes back
another writing stroke?
A. retracing
B. shaded
C. patching
D. retouching
n s w er: A
A
142. The act of making it appear that
persons have participated in any proceeding
or act when in fact they have not
participated in any document.
A. Estafa
B. Forgery
w e r
C. Falsification of document : C
D. All
of the foregoing A n s
143. A person who alters by any means, the
letters, figures, words or signs contained in
any bank or treasury note is liable for:
A. Estafa
B. Forgery
C. Falsification of document
D. All of the foregoingwer: B
A n s
144. It refers to the assessment or altered,
forged or suspected papers to determine if
they are genuine or otherwise.
A. Estafa
B. Falsification of document
C. Forgery
D. Questioned document we r : D
examination
A n s
145. Iodine fumes is useful in questioned
document examination J because:
A. It can be used to develop secret
writings
B. It can be used to determine
whether erasures have been made
w
C. It can determine the e r
kind : D
of ink
used in writing A n s
D. Both A and B
146. Which among the foregoing may be
utilized as a means to carry out mechanical
erasures?
A. Rubber eraser B.
Blade
C. Sharp knife D.
All of the above
w e r : D
A n s
147. An erasure with the use of ink
eradicators.
A. Mechanical erasure
B. Electronic erasure
C. Chemical erasure D. All
of the foregoing
w e r : C
A ns
148. To obtain conviction for the charge of
possession of false bank or treasury notes
this is an essential requisite.
A. Intention to use it
B. Intention to keep it
C. Intention to surrender it to
authorities w e r : A
D. Intention to A
n s
display it.
149. A city mayor executed a document in
his legal capacity at a local executive, that
document is classified as:
A. Public document B.
Private document
C. Official document D.
Commercial document
w e r : C
A ns
150. A document notarized by a notary
public or any competent authority is legally
classified as:
A. Public document B.
Private document
C. Official document D.
Commercial document wer: A
A n s
151. The appearance of paper when viewed
by transmitted light, which discloses the
formation and texture of the sheet.
A. Lock-through of paper B.
Cross marks
C. Watermarks
D. Sidelight marks wer: A
A n s
152. It refers to any abnormality or
maladjustment in the typewriter which is
reflected In its product.
A. Defect
B. Misalignment
C. Mai alignment D.
Alteration we r : A
A n s
153. Any characteristic of handwriting
which is sufficiently well fixed- and unique
to serve as a fundamental point in the
identification of the writer.
A. Copy book form B.
System of writing
C. Line quality w e r : D
n s
A habits
D. Significant writing
TYPES OF SIGNATURES
FORMAL (a.k.a. CONVENTIONAL or
COPYBOOK FORM) - complete correct signature
for an important document such as will.
INFORMAL (CURSORY) - usually for routine

documents and personal correspondence.
1. Personalized
2. Semi-personalized
CARELESS SCRIBBLE - for the mail carrier,

delivery boy or the autograph collector.
154. Refers to any specimen of writing
executed normally without any attempt to
change or control its identifying habits and
its usual quality of execution.
A. Natural writing
B. Cursive writing
C. Disguised writing wer: A
A
D. System of writingn s
155. Pedro in trying to fake his own
signature to hide his identity is using:
A. Natural writing B.
Cursive writing
C. Disguised writing
D. System of writing
w e r : C
A ns
LEGAL MEDICINE
1. Pedro A. Laskado suffered from external hemorrhage
of its left ear after Jose T. Angaon hit him at the back
with a baseball bat after the latter defamed him infront
of their classmates. What particular injury is greatly
described?
w e r : C
A. Coup in jury
A
B. Contre coup injury ns
C. Locus Minoris Resistencia
D. Extensive injury
Coup injury - injury found at site of
the application of force
Contre Coup - injury found opposite
the site of the application of force.
Coup Contre Coup - injury found at
the site and also opposite the
application of force
Locus minoris resistancia - injury found
both at the site or opposite the site of the
application of the force but in some areas
offering least resistance to the force
applied.
Extensive Injury - injury involving a
greater area beyond the site of the
application of force.
2. Police Investigator found on a crime scene dried
liquid purporting to be saliva. They have a suspect by
a name of James McKay, an American boyfriend of
the victim. What the police should do so that the saliva
can be used in the process of investigation?
A. secretor test
B. microscopic test for saliva analysis
w e r : D
C. test the saliva if it is really of the suspect
the suspect A ns
D. DNA analysis to determine if the saliva is of
3. Mr. Madrigal was abandoned by the
family, unvisited and let alone to die. This
is the best example of what type of clinical
death?
A. Sociological death
B. Psychic death
C. Biologic death w e r : A
A n
D. Physiologic death
s
4. In the strict sense of the word, Forensic
Medicine means
A. application of medicine to legal cases
B.application of medical science to elucidate
legal problems
C.knowledge of law in relation to practice
of medicine
w e r : B
D. none of the above
E. all of the aboveA ns
5. If you are an investigator, how would you know that
the crime of homicide was committed during night
time?
A. if the body was discovered at night time
B. if the victim is a prostitute

C. if the victim was wearing her lingerie D.
all of these
w e r : C
A ns
6. The following officials of the Philippine
Government are authorized to conduct
death investigation, except -
A.Public Prosecutor
B.Judges of the regional trial court
C.Director PNP
D.SOCO team we r : B
A n s
7. The following statements are important in death
determination. Which is not valid?
A.Civil personality of a natural person is
extinguished by death
B.Civil property of a person is transmitted to the
heirs, if not, to the government
C.The death of the partner is one of the causes of
w e r :
dissolution of partnership agreement
B
by death A ns
D.The criminal liability of a person is extinguished
8. The following are kinds of death, which
one is not?
A.Somatic or Clinical Death
B.State of Suspended Animation
C.Cellular or Molecular Death
D.Regulated Death
w e r : D
A ns
The following officials of the government
are authorized to make death
investigation:
 Medico-legal officers of law

enforcement
 Medical staff of accredited hospital
 Health officers in remote or rural areas
9. Mr. Xanzo was caught stealing the personal
belongings of Mr. Zanny particularly a pale of paint.
When Mr. Xanzo fled together with the stolen item, he
did not noticed that there was a hole in the pale that
cause a continues dropping of the paint. These drops
of paint are example of physical evidence which can
be considered as…
A. Corpus Delicti Evidence
w e r : C
B. Associative evidence
C. Tracing evidence A ns
D. None of these
10. It is the recognition of an individual as
determine, by characteristics which
distinguish that individual from all others.
A. Recognition
B. Identification
C. Investigation
D. Interpretation w e r : B
An s
11. Of the following kinds of death, which
one is relevant to Organ Transportation?
A.Somatic or clinical Death
B.State of Suspended Animation
C.Molecular Death
D.Cellular Death
w e r : A
A ns
DEATH
defined as the absence of life in a living matter. In
this state the organism returns to a stable equilibrium both
physical and chemical.
Kinds of death
Somatic/Clinical Death - it is the complete, continuous
and persistent cessation of respiration, circulation and
almost all brain functions of an organism.
Types of clinical death:
 Sociologic death
 Psychic death
 Biologic death
 Physiologic death
Molecular Death – is the cessation of life of the
individual cells in the body which occurs one at a
time after somatic death. The life of the individual
cells may last for 6 hours.
Apparent Death – It is the temporary state of

cessation of the vital activities of the body. This
condition is not actually death although classifies
under the kinds of death because the person is still
alive although it seems that there are no signs of life.
12. Distinctions between ante-mortem from
post-mortem clot are the following. Which one
is not valid?
A.Ante-mortem clot is firm in consistency
B.Clot is homogenous in construction so it
cannot be stripped into layers
C.Clot with varied colors
w e r : C
A ns
D.Surface of the blood vessels are raw after
the clots are removed
13. Comprehensive study of dead body,
performed by a trained Physician, to
determine the cause of death:
A. Autopsy
B. Biophsis
C. Dissection
D. Physicians
w e r : A
A n s
Post-Mortem Examination – Refers to an
external examination of a dead body without
incision being made, although blood and other
body fluids maybe collected for examination.
Autopsy – Indicates that, in addition to an

external examination the body is opened and an
internal examination is conducted.
KINDS OF AUTOPSIES
A.) Hospital on Non-Official Autopsy

- This is an autopsy done on a human body with
the consent of the deceased person relatives.
B.) Medico-legal or Official Autopsy

- This is an examination performed on the dead
body. To determine the cause, manner ( mode ) and time of
death. Recovering, Identifying , and Preserving evidentiary
material. then Providing inter petition and correlation of facts
and circumstances related of death.
14. Articles and materials found in
the crime scene:
A. Physical evidence
B. Associative evidence
C. Evidence
D. Tracing evidencew e r : A
A ns
15. Circumscribed extravation of blood or
subcutaneous tissue or underneath the
mucous membrane.
A. Contusion
B. Petechia
C. Abrasion
D. All of them we r : A
A n s
16. One is a condition that can approximate
the time of death.
A.Cadaver
B.Magnus test
C.Rigor mortis
D.None of these
w e r : C
A ns
17. A wound that is produced as a result of
a sharp edged instrument under an eminent
danger and act of restoring of one’s safety.
A. incised wound
B. lacerated wound
C. defense wound
we
D. justifying circumstance r : C
A n s
18. It is a branch of medicine that deals
with application of medical knowledge for
the purpose of law and administration of
justice.
A. Legal Medicine
B. Forensic
w
C. Medical Jurisprudencee r : A
D. none of theseA
n s
Legal medicine
- branch of medicine that is applied to law
and justice whether to elucidate legal
problems or not.
Medical jurisprudence
denotes knowledge of law for medical
application.
Juris – a Greek word which means law.

Prudentia – a Greek word which means
knowledge
19. A Leon Es a soldier who disappeared in the
battle zone and considered as Missing In Action
is presumed dead after:
A. 7 years
B. 10 years
C. 4 years
D. 9 years
w e r : C
A ns
20. Accident classified according to
severity are-
A. Death, property damage
B. Fatal, non-fatal, property damage
C. Physical injuries and death

D. Slight, less serious,w e r :
serious B
physical injuries A n s
21. A condition of exposure to cold
temperature of certain parts of the body
which produces mechanical disruption of
cell structure characterized by cold
stiffening and diminished body.
A. immersion foot
B. trench foot w e r : C
C. frostbite A n s
D. gangrene
22. It is any unusual pattern of sexual
behavior including habitual, preference and
completing need for sexual gratification by
any means except sexual intercourse which
results to bodily excitement
A. Virginity
B. Sexual intercourse wer: D
C. Prostitution A n s
D. Sexual deviation
23. An open wound produced by a sharp-
pointed instrument and is characterized by
a small opening of the wound.
A. Gunshot wound
B. Stab wound
C. Shrapnel wound
D. Punctured wound wer: D
A n s
24. A physical injury wherein the offended
victim is incapacitated for work or requires
medical assistance for 10 days or more but not
more than 30 days.
A. Slight physical injury
B. Mutilation
C. Serious physical injury
w e r : D
ns
D. less serious physical injury
A
25. Fixed discoloration of the blood clothed
inside the blood vessels or has diffused to
different parts of the body.
A. hypostatic lividity
B. diffusion lividity
C. hyper lividity
D. rigor mortis we r : B
A n s
Hypostatic lividity- inside blood vessels
Diffusion lividity - outside the blood
vessels in the tissue of the body
26. A condition of women who have had
one or more sexual experience but not had
conceived a child.
A. virgo-intacts
B. demi-virginity
C. moral virginity
D. physical virginity wer: A
A n s
Kinds of Virginity
Moral Virginity – state of not knowing the

nature of sexual life and not having experienced
sexual relation.
Physical Virginity – condition whereby a

woman is conscious of the nature of sexual life
but has not experienced sexual intercourse.
True Physical Virginity – a condition wherein
the hymen is intact with the edges distinct and
regular and the opening small to barely admit
the tip of the smallest finger of the examiner
even if thighs are separated.
False Physical Virginity – condition wherein

the hymen is unruptured but the orifice is wide
and elastic to admit two or more fingers of the
examiner with a lesser degree of resistance.
Demi-Virginity – refer to a condition of a
woman who permits any form of sexual liberties
as long as they abstain from rupturing the hymen
by sexual act.
“Virgo Intacta” – refer to a truly virgin woman;

that there are no structural changes in her organ
to infer previous sexual intercourse and that she
is virtuous woman.
27. A condition of exposure to cold
temperature of certain parts of the body
which produces mechanical disruption of
cell structure characterized by cold
stiffening and diminished body.
A. immersion foot
B. trench foot w e r : C
C. Frostbite A n s
D. Gangrene
28. A displacement of the articular surface
of the bone without external wounds.
A. Hematoma
B. Fracture
C. Sprain
D. Dislocation
w e r : D
A ns
29. A wound produced by a blunt
instrument such as club and stone.
A. incised wound
B. hack wound
C. lacerated wound
D. punctured wound
w e r : C
A ns
Blunt instrument
 Lacerated wound (putok)
 Contusion (pasa)
 Hematoma (bukol)
Sharp edged
 Incised wound (hiwa)
Sharp pointed
 Punctured wound (tusok)
Sharp edged and sharp pointed
 Stab wound (sak-sak)
Atmospheric Pressure
 Barotraumas
Extreme temperature
Heat:
 Burns
 Scalds
Cold:
 Frostbite
 Trench foot
 Immersion foot
30. A wound which if inflicted in the body
so serious that it will endanger one’s life.
A. mortal wound
B. trauma
C. coup injury
D. superficial wound
w e r : A
A ns
PHYSICAL INJURIES
specific impairment of the body structure or function
caused by an outside force or physical agents which is the
application of the stimulus to the body producing damage.
According to severity:
Mortal wound
when inflicted to the body immediately followed by death.
Non-mortal wound
- when inflicted to the body do not immediately
followed by death.
31. A discoloration of the body after death when
the blood tends to pool in the blood vessels of
the most dependent portions of the body and
starts 20 to 30 minutes after death and is
completed by 12 hours.
A. livor mortis
B. primary flaccidity
w e r : A
C. maceration
D. rigor mortis A ns
Algor mortis/Cooling of the body – the
gradual lowering of the body temperature
after death.
Post – mortem caloricity – an event after
death in which the body temperature tend
to rise up due to the early putrefactive
process.
Rigor mortis/post mortem rigidity – the rigidity of
the whole body due to muscle contraction after death.
Cadaveric spasm/spontaneous rigidity – it is the
instant stiffening of a certain group of muscles which
occurs immediately at the moment of death due to the
injury of the central nervous system.
Livor mortis/post mortem lividity - the
discoloration of the body after death when blood tends
to pool in the blood vessels of the most dependent
portions of the body.
32. The most serious burn involving skin,
nerves, muscles and bones, causing death due to
loss of fluids and electrolytes in the body and
massive infection.
A. First Degree Burn
B. Second Degree Burn
C. Third Degree Burn
w e r : C
D. Sunburn
A ns
33. The cause of death of a person who
immediately died because of lack of oxygen for
around 3 to five minutes.
A. Stroke
B. Asphyxia
C. Stupor
D. Exhaustion
w e r : B
A ns
34. The Geneticist from Great Britain who
pioneered DNE testing and fingerprinting.
A. Alec Jeffries
B. Lowell C. Van Berkom
C. William Reynolds
D. Henry Van Dyke
w e r : A
A ns
35. DNA stands for
A. Deonatural Acid
B. Deoxyribonucleic Acid
C. Denaturalized Acid
D. Deoxy Nucleic Acid
w e r : B
A ns
36. The approximate time for the
completion of one case for DNA
Testing.
A. minimum of eight weeks
B. minimum of six weeks
C. minimum of four weeksr: C
A
D. minimum of twon s w
weeks
e
37. The complete, continuous, persistent
cessation of respiration, circulation and
almost all brain function of an organism.
A. Apparent death
B. Molecular death
C. Cellular Death
D. Somatic death we r : D
A n s
38. The circulating tissue of the body.
A. Blood
B. Cells
C. Muscles
D. Liver
w e r : A
A ns
39. The test to determine whether blood is
of human origin or not.
A. Blood typing
B. Precipitin Test
C. Confirmatory Test
D. Preliminary Test
w e r : B
A ns
40. The study and identification of
body fluids.
A. Pharmacology
B. Serology
C. Posology
D. Immunology nswe r : B
A
41. The test used to determine the presence
of blood in stained material.
A. Florence Test
B. Barberio’s Test
C. Takayama Test
D. Phenolphtalein Test
w e r : C
A ns
42. After cessation of the vital function of
the body there is still animal life among
individual cells.
A. Somatic death
B. Molecular death
C. Apparent death
D. State of suspended w e r : B
animation
A n s
43. A molecular death is a kind of death where:
A. there is loss of life of the individual
cells of the body
B. it occurs immediately after death
C. it usually pronounced by the
physician and other members of the family
D. there is transient loss of vital
w e r : A
functions of the body
A ns
44. Deals with poison, their origin, physical
and chemical properties, effects, treatment
and methods of detection usually on sudden
and unexplained deaths:
A. Chemistry
B. Forensic Chemistry
C. Toxicology w e r : C
A n s
D. Poisonous Investigation
45. If the powder has produced gray or
yellow marks in a gunshot wound, it
indicates?
A. The individual died after the
shooting
B. The individual was dead before
the shooting w e r : B
n s
A himself
C. The person shot
D. The person was shot 36 meters
away from the shooter
46. If the soil found on suspect’s clothing is
consistent with soil found at the crime scene,
this would indicate that:
A. the suspect was in the area at the same
time
B. the suspect has committed the crime
C. the suspect was in the area at the time
w e r : C
of the crime
A ns
D. the suspect is guilty of the crime
47. Is the stiffening of certain group of
muscles occurring at the moment of death,
usually associated with violent death due to
extreme nervous tension, or even fatigue?
A. Heat Stiffening
B. Cadaveric Spasm
C. Rigor Mortis w e r : B
A
D. Cold Stiffening
n s
48. It is a branch of medicine which deals
with the application of medical knowledge
to the purposes of law and in the
administration of justice
A. Legal Medicine
B. Medical Pharmaceutical
w
C. Medical Jurisprudence e r : A
n s
A Practice
D. Law on Medical
49. It is a physical injury wherein the
victim is ill-treat or incapacitated for work
or require medical attendance for a period
of one to nine days.
A. Slight physical injury
B. Serious physical injury
C. Less serious physical w e r :
injury A
D. None of theseA n s
Mutilation - intentional act of lapping or
cutting of any part of the living body
Serious Physical Injury - injury that will
incapacitate the subject for more than 90 days
Less Serious Physical Injury - Injury that will
require medical attendance for 10 days or more
but not more than 30 days
Slight Physical Injury & Maltreatment -
Injury that will incapacitate subject and require
medical attendance from 1 to 9 days
50. Legal medicine is that branch of
medicine which deals with the application
of medical knowledge to the purpose of
_____.
A. Law and administration of justice
B. Determination of cause of death
w
C. Identifying the victim e r : A
D. None of theseA n s
51. Stab wound is produced by:
A. Sharp-pointed instrument
B. Sharp-edged and sharp- pointed
instrument
C. Sharp-edged instrument
D. Blunt instrument
w e r : B
A ns
52. State of consciousness with
insensibility of the pupil and conjunctive
inability to swallow, resulting from arrest
of the function of the brain called:
A. Asphyxia
B. Coma
C. Exhaustion w e r : B
D. Hemorrhage A n s
53. Their presence in the cadaver would
indicate that death has occurred not more
than 24 hours hence are useful to
approximate the time of death.
A. Flies
B. Bees
C. Earthworms w e r : A
D. Butterflies A n s
54. What substance is capable of producing
noxious effect or destroy life once introduce into
the body, absorbed through the blood stream and
acts chemically?
A. Protein
B. Poisons
C. Enzymes
w e r : B
D. none of these
A ns
55. When collecting evidence like hairs, an
investigator should:
A. enclose some of his/her hair with the
evidence as a reference
B. indicate where each hair was found
C. ignore hair not found in the same
room as the victim
w e r : B
A
D. none of the abovens
56. The investigator who collects physical evidence
should take it to the laboratory by him self whenever
possible, otherwise, he should obtain a receipt from
each person to whom he gives or receives evidence.
This statement is best applicable to
A. chain of custody of evidence.
B. cardinal rules in criminal investigation.
w e r : A
C. three tools in criminal investigation
ns
D. to establish the belt of the accused .
A
57. Which among the foregoing specimen
is not usually used in DNA typing?
A. Hair
B. Bones
C. Blood
D. Semen
w e r : B
A ns
58. A physician collaborated to publish a
Treatise on Medical Jurisprudence.
A. Issac Ray
B. Atty. Francis Wharton and Dr.
Moreton Stille,
C. Both A & B
D. None of we r : B
A n s
59. Published A Treatise on Medical
Jurisprudence of Insanity.
A. Issac Ray
B. Atty. Francis Wharton and Dr. Moreton
Stille,
C. Both A & B
D. None of these
w e r : A
A ns
60. Medical Department of Harvard University
appointed _______as the Professor of
Midwifery.
A. Andrew Duncan, Jr.,
B. Alfred Taylor
C. Dr. T.R. Beck
D. Dr. Walter Channing
w e r : D
A ns
61. The first book on legal medicine was written in
English by ________ and was entitled Elements of
Medical Jurisprudence.
A. Fortunato Fedele
B. Paolo Zacchia
C. Samuel Farr
D. Andrew Duncan
w e r : C
A ns
62. A papal physician published the huge
Questiones Medicina-Legales.
A. Fortunato Fedele
B. Paolo Zacchia
C. Samuel Farr
D. Andrew Duncan
w e r : B
A ns
63. Made its appearance, included within its
provisions a precept that indicated that a medical
expert would not be used to proper or greatest
advantage if he were to be simply regarded as ordinary
witness but he must assist the judiciary by impartial
interpretation and opinion based on his specialized
knowledge.
A. Hippocrates
w e r : C
B. Alexander the great
C. Justinian Code A ns
D. Emperor Charles V
64. Is the study of the uniqueness of
dentition better known as the study of
teeth?
A. Forensic entomology
B. Forensic Meteorology
C. Forensic Geology
we
D. Forensic Odontology r : D
A n s
65. Deals with trace evidence in the form of
soils, minerals and petroleums
C. Forensic Geology
D. Forensic Odontology
w e r : C
A ns
66. Is a site specific analysis of past
weather conditions for a point of loss
C. Forensic Geology
w e r : B
A ns
67. Deals with the examination of insects in, on,
and around human remains to assist in
determination of time or location of death. It is
also possible to determine if the body was
moved after death.
w e r : A
C. Forensic Geology
A ns
68. Builder of the first pyramid, he was
considered as the first or earliest recorded
medico-legal expert.
A. Antistius
B. Paulus Zacchus
C. Imhotep
D. San Juan de Bautistawe r : C
A n s
Imhotep – the chief physician of the Egypt on
King Zoser’s regime and builder of the first
pyramid.
Antistius – The first police surgeon and perform

an autopsy on the body of Julius Ceaser.
Paulus Zacchias – the father of Forensic

Medicine.
69. Regarded as the Father of Forensic
Medicine;
A. Antistius
B. Paulus Zacchias
C. Imhotep
D. San Juan de Bautista
w e r : B
A ns
70. First chief medicc legal officer of the
Philippine Commonwealth.
A. Dr. Sixto delos Angeles B.
Dr. Gregorio T. Lantin
C. Dr. Pedro Solis
D. Dr. Enrique V. delos Santos
w e r : B
A ns
71. Earliest known forensic pathologist or police
surgeon, who performed the autopsy of Julius
Caesar, reporting that out of the 23 stab wounds,
only one penetrated the chest cavity between the
first and second rib which was Caesar's
proximate cause of death.
A. Antistius
w e r : A
B. Paulus Zacchias
C. Imhotep A ns
D. San Juan de Bautista
72. Color of blood when exposed to the
atmosphere.
A. Red
B. Reddish-brown
C. Clay
D. Black
w e r : B
A ns
73. It has for its characteristics as, bright
scarlet in color, with high oxygen content
and leaves the blood vessel with pressure.
A. Arterial blood
B. Menstrual blood
C. Venous blood
D. Human blood we r : A
A n s
74. Dark red in color, with low oxygen content
and usually does not spill far from the wound.
A. Arterial blood
B. Menstrual blood
C. Venous blood
D. Human blood
w e r : C
A ns
75. This blood contains a high number of
deodorleins bacillus, it does not clot and
has acidic reactions.
A. Arterial blood
B. Menstrual blood
C. Venous blood
D. Human blood we r : B
A n s
76. The growth and development of micro-
organism in the location of the injury or
wound.
A. Infection
B. Hemorrhage
C. Shock
D. Hematoma w e r : A
An s
77. Wound produced to man's instinctive
reaction of self-preservation to repel attacks or
an aggressor.
A. Defense wound
B. Patterned wound
C. Self-inflicted wound
D. Mutilated wound
w e r : A
A ns
78. A wound which resembles the
shape or object of the instrument which
caused it.
A. Defense wound
B. Patterned wound
C. Self-inflicted wound D.
Mutilated wound we r : B
A n s
79. Pulverization of the body into ashes
with the use of intense heat.
A. Exhumation
B. Charring
C. Cremation
D. Pounding
w e r : C
A ns
80. Prescribed depth of a grave under P.D. 856,
Section 19 of the .Code of Sanitation.
A. At least ½ meters deep
B. At least 1 and ½ meters deep
C. At least 1 meters deep
D. At least 2 meters deep
w e r : B
A ns
81. It is a painful contraction of the skeletal
muscles usually seen among manual workers in
hot environment whose bodily fluids have been
depleted of sodium chloride not replaced by
heavy loses of sweat.
A. Sensible heat
B. Heat cramp
w e r : B
C. Specific heat
A
D. Heat temperature
ns
82. It is mostly associated with violent death due
to extreme nervous tension and injury to the
central nervous system, the statement is referring
to the spontaneous rigor what if all the muscles
of the body totally stiffed due to death?
A. cadaveric spasm
B. cold stiffening
w e r : D
C. heat stiffening
D. rigor mortis A ns
83. It is an increase of temperature due to
fast, early putrefactive and chemical
changes in the body, which occur 1-3 hours
after death.
A. Post- mortem caloricity
B. Post- mortem rigidity
C. Instantaneous rigor wer: A
D. Putrefaction A n s
84. A person who died of a communicable
disease must be buried within,...
A. 6 hours after death, unless the local
health officer permits otherwise
B. 12 hours after death, unless the
health officer permits extension
C.
r : B
24 hours after death, unless
w e the
A ns
heath officer allows extension
D. 48 hours after death
85. How many minutes is necessary persistent
cessation in respiration, circulation and brain
function is sufficient to declare a person
clinically dead?
A. 10-15 minutes
B. 30-45 minutes
C. 15-30 minutes
w e r : A
D. 45-60 minutes
A ns
86. A muscular change characterized by the
softness of the muscles and in which it no
longer responds to mechanical or electrical
stimulus due to the dissolution of proteins.
A. Stage of primary flaccidity
B. Stage of secondary flaccidity
C. Rigor mortis w e r : B
D. Livor mortis A
n s
87. Bleeding usually in the cavity or organs
in the body.
A. Internal hemorrhage
B. Hematoma
C. Contusion
D. Internal wound
w e r : A
A ns
88. A nervous disease marked by seizures
with convulsion and loss of consciousness.
A. Epilepsy
B. Apoplexy
C. Catalepsy
D. Uremia
w e r : A
A ns
89. This is an interlacing discoloration
commonly purplish brown that forms a
network on the large part of the cadaver
such as the chest and abdomen.
A. putrefaction
B. marbolization
C. livor mortis w e r : B
D. SaponificationA n s
Putrefaction
the process of dissolution of the tissues by
the digestive action of the of its enzymes and bacteria
that results to softening liquefaction of the tissues and
usually accompanied by a foul smelling odor.
Saponification
- also termed as adipocere formation.
- the formation of a soft friable and brownish
white greasy substance in a soft fatty tissues of the
body after death.
90. What would be the presumption if fleas were
still alive on the clothing of a dead person that
allegedly drowned?
A. fleas could not survived for more
than 24 hour on the water
B. fleas would indicate that person was
drowned
w e r : C
A ns
C. indicates that the person was in the
water for not more than 24 hours
D. fleas indicates that early stage of
putrefaction
91. In a tropical country, if the blood is found to be
soft with the abdomen distended with gases without
the presence of rigor mortis, it may have been dead for
about
A. 24 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 36 hours
D. 48 hours
w e r : A
A ns
92. This is the second stage of death
investigation that involves thorough and
meticulous examination of the cadaver?
A. Autopsy
B. Post-mortem Investigation
C. Exhumation
D. Crime scene investigation
w e r : A
A ns
93. A condition characterized by hardening of
the muscles due to solidification of fats, muscles
and fluids due to exposure to ice or snow.
A. Cold stiffening
B. rigor mortis
C. Heath stiffening
D. algor mortis
w e r : A
A ns
94. It is the system used in the Philippines at
present which is handled by a medico-legal
officer who is a registered physician duly
qualified to practice medicine in the Philippines.
A. Medical Jurisprudence
B. Medico- Legal System
C. Medical Evidence
w e r : B
D. Physical Evidence
A ns
95. As the first responder upon closely examining the cadaver,
you noticed that there were no open wounds present on the
body of the victim but both hands and feet were tied because
of the abrasions and then some strands of hair could be found
on his shirt. What will be your presumption?
A. the victim was poisoned and thrown to the river
making some of the evidence to perish
B. the victim was vigorously tortured before he was
thrown to the river
w e r : C
A ns
C. the victim was forcibly drowned to death
D. the victim was threatened then jump to the river
96. A break or solution in the continuity of
bone refers to…
A. Fracture
B. Wound
C. Dislocation
D. contusion
w e r : A
A ns
97. Refers to the accumulation in the blood
ordinarily eliminated in the urine; specifically a
toxic condition seen in urinary suppression,
marked by nausea, vertigo, vomiting, coma and
convulsion.
A. Epilepsy
B. Apoplexy
w e r : D
C. Catalepsy
D. Uremia
A ns
98. A nervous disease marked by seizures
with convulsion and loss of consciousness.
A. Epilepsy
B. Apoplexy
C. Catalepsy
D. Uremia
w e r : A
A ns
99. Period of time wherein human
bones will not exhibit changes.
A. 10 years
B. 20 years
C. 30 years
D. 40 years
s w e r :B
A n
100. It is the formation of a soft, friable and
brownish white greasy substance In the soft
fatty tissue after death.
A. Saponification
B. Rigor mortis
C. Mummification
D. Maceration w e r : C
An s
101. A discoloration of the body after death
when the blood tends to pool in the blood
vessels of the most dependent portions of
the body and starts 20 to 30 minutes after
death and is completed by 12 hours.
A. Rigor mortis
B. Primary flaccidity wer: B
C. Maceration A n s
D. Livor mortis
102. A wound which inflicted in the body
which is so serious that it will endanger
one's life.
A. Non-mortal wound
B. Mortal wound
C. Trauma
D. Coup injury w e r : B
An s
103. A physical injury which is found
at the site and also the opposite site of
the application of force.
A. Extensive Injury
B. Coup Injury
C. Contra coup Injury
w e r : D
D. Coup and contreA n s
coup injury
104. A physical injury found at the site
of the application of force.
A. Extensive injury
B. Coup injury
C. Contre coup injury
D. Coup and contre coup Injury
w e r : B
A ns
105. When the person was stabbed by an
ice pick, what wound would be exhibited?
A. Punctured wound
B. Hack wound
C. Lacerated wound
D. Incised wound
w e r : A
A ns
106. In crimes which took place twenty
years ago, what sample should bo obtained
for DNA testing?
A. Fingernails
B. Hair
C. Skeleton
D. Teeth w e r : C
An s
107. Children conceived by prostitutes are
called
A. manceres
B. adulterous
C. illegitimate
D. incestuous
w e r : A
A ns
108. How many hours does the stomach
completely digest a medium meal?
A. 2-3 hours
B. 3-4 hours
C. 5-6 hours
D. 1 hour
w e r : B
A ns
109. A supercooled liquid which possess
high viscosity and rigidity.
A. dry ice
B. cartridge case
C. gel
D. glass
w e r : D
A ns
110. It is the major component of a glass.
A. Lime
B. Soda
C. Silica
D. Gel
w e r : C
A ns
111. The color of blood in post mortem
Lividity?
A. Blue
B. Violet
C. Pink
D. Bright red
w e r : B
A ns
112. The following are valid classifications
of wound, except:
A. Abrasions
B. Contusions
C. Hematoma
D. Gun Shot Wound
w e r : D
A ns
113. All of the following are accurate tests
for the presence of alcohol in the human
body except one:
A. Saliva test
B. Harger Breath Test
C. Fecal test
D. Blood test w e r : C
An s
114. A person allowed who gives his/her
opinion or conclusion on a given scientific
evidence is considered
A. interrogator
B. expert witness
C. prosecutor
D. judge we r : B
A n s
115. Is the distance of recognition in broad
daylight of a person who is almost a
stranger.
A. 100 yards
B. 16-17 yards
C. 25 yards
D. 10-13 yards we r : A
A n s
116. State of not knowing sex life and have
not experienced sexual intercourse:
A. Physical virginity
B. Demi-virginity
C. Moral virginity
D. Virgo-intacta
w e r : C
A ns
117. This is a characteristic that shows the
manner of walking of an individual.
A. Mannerism
B. Gait
C. Complexion
D. Cerebral Gait
w e r : B
A ns
118. Which of the following personal
identification is not easy to change?
A. Hair
B. Speech
C. Dress
D. Personal Pharapernalia
w e r : B
A ns
119. Who qualifies a forensic chemist as
expert?
A. defence lawyer
B. judge
C. prosecutor
D. the chemist himself/herself
w e r : B
A ns
120. It is a type of burn caused by the
application of heat or hot object.
A. Radiation burn
B. Friction burn
C. Thermal burn
D. Electrical burn
w e r : C
A ns
121. A type of burn produced as a result of
the body coming into contact with a
moving object.
A. Thermal burn
B. Friction burn
C. Radiation burn
D. Electrical burn w e r : B
An s
122. The wound wherein the instrument
pierces a solid organ or tissue?
A. Deep wound
B. Penetrating wound
C. Perforating wound
D. Superficial wound
w e r : B
A ns
123. This will always be applied to children
below the of age puberty.
A. physical virginity
B. demi- virginity
C. moral virginity
D. virgo-intacta
w e r : C
A ns
124. Which of the following is not included
in the evidences to determine drunkenness?
A. lack of orientation
B. untidy clothing
C. blood shoot eyes
D. euphoria
w e r : D
A ns
125. An open wound produced by a sharp-
pointed instrument and is characterized by
a small opening of the wound.
A. Gunshot woun B. Stab
wound
C. Shrapnel wound
D. Punctured wound we r : D
A n s
126. A condition characterized by
hardening of the muscle and coagulation of
muscles and due to exposure to burn and
hot spot.
A. Cold stiffening
B. rigor mortis
C. Heat stiffening w e r : C
D. algor mortis A n s
127. This muscular change upon death lasts
about 20 to 30 minutes . and is characterized by
the relaxation of the muscles and loss of
their natural tone.
A. Stage of primary flaccidity
B. Post mortem rigidity
C. Cadaveric spasm
w e r : A
D. Secondary flaccidity
A ns
128. In cases of suicide, what would be the
noticeable muscular change.
A. Cold stiffening
B. Heat stiffening
C. Instantaneous rigor
D. Putrefaction
w e r : C
A ns
129. Approximate average amount of
semen per ejaculation under normal
conditions.
A. 2 to 2.5 cubic centimeters
B. 2.5 to 5 cubic centimeters
C. 5 to 10 cubic centimeters
we
D. 10 to 15 cubic centimetersr : B
A n s
130. A powerful tool in identification which
points to the source of biological evidence
by matching it with samples from the
victim suspects and their relatives.
A. DNA profiling
B. Serology
C. Instrumentation w e r : A
D. Forensics A n s
131. It is the dissolution of the tissues by
the digestive action of its bacteria and
enzyme.
A. Primary flaccidity
B. Post mortem rigidity
C. Cadaveric spasm
D. Putrefaction we r : D
A n s
132. Conclusive evidence that the subject
person is a female.
A. Possession of vagina
B. Possession of ovaries
C. Possession of estrogen
D. Possession of progesterone
w e r : B
A ns
133. Conclusive evidence that a person is a
male.
A. Presence of testis
B. Presence of androsterone
C. Possession of penis
D. Possession of testosterone
w e r : A
A ns
134. It is a death that occurs due to illness
of the body.
A. Natural death
B. Molecular death
C. Somatic death
D. Apparent death
w e r : A
A ns
135. Refers to the action of a bacteria to a
dead body.
A. Cold stiffening
B. Putrefaction
C. Heat stiffening
D. algor mortis
w e r : C
A ns
136. Failure of adequate heat elimination
related to the breakdown of sweating
mechanism.
A. Heat cramp
B. Heat exhaustion
C. Heat stroke
D. Burning we r : B
A n s
137. It is a painful contraction of the
skeletal muscles usually seen among
manual workers in hot environment whose
bodily fluids have been depleted:ofBsodium
w e r
chloride not replacedAnbys heavy loses of
sweat.
A. Sensible heat
B. Heat cramp
C. Specific heat
D. Heat temperature
138. Most noticeable sign of death,
A. Cessation of respiration
B. Progressive fall of body temperature
C. Insensibility of body and loss of
power to move
D. Cessation of heart action and
circulation we r : D
A n s
Signs of death
Cessation of the respiration –the stoppage
of the respiratory activities.
Cessation of heart action and circulation
– the continuous and persistent stoppage of
the heart beating and pulse rate.
139. It applies to disease or trauma kills,
wherein there is no chance for complication
or sequelae to develop.
A. Proximate cause of death or
secondary cause of death
B. Immediate or primary cause of death
w
C. Cardio-respiratory arreste r : B
D. Nocturnal death A n s
140. Average time of decomposition for
tropical countries such as the Philippines.
A. 12 to 24 hours
B. 24 to 48 hours
C. 36 to 48 hours
D. 48 to 72 hours
w e r : B
A ns
141. An injury or disease which survived for a
prolonged interval which allowed the
development of serious sequelae which
becomes the cause of death. It is usually
common to cases involving stab wounds.
A. Proximate cause of death or
secondary cause of death
w e r : A
A ns
B. Immediate or primary cause of death
C. Cardiorespiratory arrest
D. Nocturnal death
142. After death, the metabolic process
inside the body ceases, heat is no longer
produced and the body slowly loses its
temperature.
A. Algor mortis
B. Rigor mortis
C. Cadaveric spasm w e r : A
A n
D. Suspended animation
s
143. Transient loss of consciousness with
temporary cessation of the vital functions
of the body.
A. Death
B. Coma
C. Suspended animation
D. Rigor mortis we r : C
A n s
144. Rigor mortis is very important in
determining the approximate time of death
for it starts at about 2 to 6 hrs and
completes at ______?
A. 36 hrs
B. 24 hrs
C. 12 hrs
w e r : C
D. 48 hrs A n s
145. In forensic examination, a tip of the
hair is examined to determine if it was
_______.
A. Bend
B. Folded
C. Stretched
D. Cut we r : D
A n s
POLYGRAPH
1. A person, by reason of his special technical training
or experience, can be permitted to express his opinion
about scientific issues involved in a lawsuit. Legally
speaking, what is the best description of this person?
A. Document examiner
B. Handwriting expert
C. Expert witness
D. Forensic scientist
What is Polygraphy? It is the scientific method
of detecting deception with the use of a
polygraph instrument. This is the new name of
LIE DETECTION.
What is a Polygraph? It is a scientific

diagnostic instrument used to record
physiological changes in the blood pressure,
pulse rate, respiration and skin resistance of an
examinee under controlled condition.
What is Lie Detector? It is the popular but
misleading name of the Polygraph. In Greek,
Polygraph means “many writings” and the instrument
was so named because it make various ink recordings
of a person’s body functions.
What is the other name of the Polygraph? It is also

called “Truth Verifier” since statistics show that is the
vast majority of the instances the instrument verifies
an innocent person’s truthfulness.
2. The examiner will conduct post interrogation if he
is fully convinced on the guilt of the subject based on
the chart taken. On the other hand, when will the
examiner conduct chart probing to the subject during
the test?
A. Every after taking of each chart
B. Only after the first test was completed
C. Only if there are deviations from norm on
the chart taken
D. When there are specific responses on the
chart without chart markings
3. It is a kind of lie to mislead justice,
A. Benign lie
B. White lie
C. Malicious lie
D. A and or B
White Lie or Benign Lie - the kind of lies used to
protect or maintain the harmony of friendship or any
relationship.
Pathological Lie - this is a lie made by persons who
cannot distinguish right from wrong.
Red Lie - this involves political interests and
motives because this is a part of communist
propaganda strategy. This is prevalent in
communist countries or communist infested nation.
Lies of means of propaganda-brain-washing and
blackmail via espionage and treason.
Black Lie - a lie accompanies
pretensions and hypocrisies, intriguing to
cause dishonor or discredit ones good
image.
Malicious or Judicial Lie - this is very
pure and unjustifiable kind of lie that is
intended purely to mislead or obstruct
justice.
4. One who loves to lie and is excited
by the challenge of not being detected
is known as -
A. Panic Liar
B. Occupational Liar
C. Psychopathic Liar
D. Tournament Liar
Panic Liars - one who lies in order to avoid
the consequences of a confession, He/She is
afraid of embarrassment to love ones and it is a
serious blow to his / her ego, He/She believes
that confession will just male the matter worst.
Occupational Liars - Is someone laid for spare
years, this person is a practical liar and lies
when it has a higher “pay off” than telling the
truth.
Tournament Liars - Loves to lie and is excited by the
challenge of not being detected, this person views an
interview as another contest and wants to win, this
person realizes that he or she will probably be
convicted bur will not give anyone the satisfaction of
hearing him or her confesses, he wants that people
will believe that the law is punishing an innocent
person.
Psychopathic Liars - the most difficult type, this
person has no conscience. He shows no regret for
dishonestly and no manifestation of guilt,
Ethnological Liars - is one who is taught not to
be a squealer, *squealer – to cry or to shrill
voice, used by underworld gang in order for
their member not to reveal any secret of their
organization.
Pathological Liars - A person who cannot
distinguish right from wrong (his mind is sick.),
Is an insane person.
Black Liars - A person who always pretends,
(What he thinks of himself, what kind of person
he is, and what he is.)
5. He is considered as the first inventor of
American Polygraph Machine. He also
developed broad board lie detector which
was polygraphic, apparatus in portable
form.
A. Cesar Lombroso
B. John Larson
C. William Marston
D. Leonard Keeler
CESAR LOMBROSO – 1895
Employed the first scientific instrument to
detect deception. This instrument known as
HYDORSPHYGMOGRAPH, measured
changes in pulse and blood pressure when
suspects were questioned about their
involvement in or knowledge of a specific
response.
WILLIAM MARSTON – 1915
He dealt with the sphygmomanometer
which was used to obtain periodic
discontinuous blood pressure readings during
the course of an examination;
He also experienced with and helped to develop
the pneumograph, which records breathing
patterns, and the galvanometer, which registers
changes in skin resistance
LEONARD KEELER –1926
Continued research and development of the
polygraph. In 1949, he invented the Keeler
Polygraph with components that simultaneously
recorded changes in blood pressure, pulse and
respiration, as well as the newly developed
galvanic skin reflex.
6. The two divisions of criminal
interrogation and lie detection are -
A. Physiological and Emotional
B. Psychological and Emotional
C. Psychological and Physiological
D. Psychological and Physical
7. The psychology of a lying person states
that a lying person fears detection thus
causing -
A. Emotional changes in his heart
B. Physiological changes to take
place in his body
C. Mental and emotional changes in
his body
D. Psychological changes in his
central nervous system
8. Which of the following is designed to get
the standard tracing of the subject?
A. General Question Test
B. Number Test
C. Spot Responder
D. silent Answer Test
9. Which among the following is among the
three major sections of the polygraph machine?
A. Spygmograph
B. Pump bulb assembly
C. Pneumograph
D. Dermatogram
10. The investigator should avoid asking
witnesses long complicated questions because
this will;
a. give the witness a chance to
formulate answers
b. enable him to ascertain the purpose
of the interview
c. render difficulty in obtaining the
facts for conviction
d. embarrass him and cause him to
answer things he does not know
11. How can the investigator detect
discrepancies in information provided by a
witness?
A. by the physical and emotional mannerism
B. by comparing the given information with
known facts
C. by open and direct confrontation
D. by observing signs of nervousness,
sweating and evasion
12. It usually sets the tone and creates
the atmosphere during the interrogation.
A. interrogator's behavior B.
questioning style of the interviewer
C. type of crime Involved D.
subject's personal history
13. The value of identification by an eyewitness
depends on which of the following:
A. All of these
B. Ability of eyewitness to observe and
remember distinct appearances
C. Observe the lapse of time between use
criminal event and the identification
D. Observe prevailing condition of visibility
and observation
14. Which of the following is not a barrier
to polygraph examination?
A. None of these
B. Persons under the influence of
intoxicating liquor.
C. Narcotics related cases.
D. Pathological liar
E. Various heart and other organic
troubles.
15. An examination wherein an informal
interview of the subject is undertaken between
20 to 30 minutes.
A. Post test interrogation B.
Actual interrogation
C. Pre test interview
D. Lie detection test
Initial Interview with the investigator handling the
case or person requesting it. The group involve in
this stage are the Victim / Complaint, Suspects,
Witnesses.
Sworn statement of the suspect / witnesses/ victim/

complainant, Incident or spot report, B.I. of the suspect,
witnesses, and victim / complainants, rough sketch or
pictures of the crime scene and other facts such as Specific
article and exact amount of money stolen.
Peculiar aspect of the offense or any strange set.
Exact time the offense was committed.
Known facts about the suspect’s action or
movement.
Facts indicating any connection between the
suspects, victim and witnesses.
Exact type of weapon, tool or firearms used.
Result of laboratory test.
Unpublished facts of the offense known only by the
victim, suspects and the investigator.
PRE-TEST INTERVIEW with the subject - The
primary purpose of the pre-test interview of to
prepare or condition the subject for the test.
THE EXAMINATION/INSTRUMENTAL TEST –
The conduct of Instrumentation and Actual Test.
POST–TEST INTERVIEW/ INTERROGATION -
This includes all consideration that bears on the
examination. This is done just after the instrument is
turned off. If the Polygraph test result indicates
deception, the examiner will then proceed to conduct
short interrogation. The purpose of which is to obtain
confession. However, if the Polygraph indicates that
the subject is innocent; the examiner will just release
the subject cordially and thanks him/ her for his/her
cooperation
16. Which among the following is not a
required qualification for a polygraph e
examiner?
A. Criminology graduate
B. Technical know how
C. Honesty D.
Integrity" and morals
17. Which among the foregoing is not part in the
conduct of a polygraph examination?
A. Pre-test interview
B. Post-test interview
C. Instrumental test
D. Psychological test
18. These are questions regarding wrongdoings,
unrelated but is of similar and less serious nature
to the investigation, and to which the subject
will lie or if he does not really lie he will think
about it at the time it is asked or be unsure of the
complete truthfulness of his answer.
A. Irrelevant questions
B. Relevant questions
C. Control questions
D. Guilt complex questions
Irrelevant questions (unleaded/immaterial
questions) – these are questions which have no
bearing to the case under investigation.
Relevant questions (leaded/material questions) –

these are questions pertaining to the issue under
investigation. It is equally important to limit the
number of relevant questions to avoid discomfort to
the subject. Relevant questions must be very specific
to obtain an accurate result.
Control questions – These are questions unrelated
to the matter under investigation but are of similar
nature although less serious as compared to those
relevant questions under investigation. The use of
control question is considered by many
polygraphists to be the most reliable and effective
questioning technique. These are usually asked if
there is doubt in the interpretation of the subject’s
response to relevant and irrelevant questions.
19. There are several test techniques commonly
used in polygraph examination, the use of which
will depend on the nature of the case under
investigation or at the discretion of the examiner.
What test technique is being used when the so-
called S-K-Y questions were asked during the
test?
A.Backster zone comparison test
B. General question test
C. Silent answer test
D. Stimulation test
20. A regular skip beat on the chart tracings of the
subject which are evenly spaced interval usually
signify a type of heart defect, serious or not. If the skip
beat on the chart of the subject occurs intermittently
after a primary relevant question was asked during the
test, it may indicate;
A. Deception criteria in itself
B. Subject norm on a particular test
C. A form of physiological relief on the
question asked
D. Cuff discomfort due to physical pain
21. Which among the following is not
included in recording the psycho-
physiological response of the subject.
A. Use of water therapy
B. PSE/ Psychological Stress Evaluator
C. WAT/ Word Association Test
D. Polygraph machine
22. A person who is capable of detecting
deception with the use of instrumentation
or mechanical device.
A. interrogator B.
Medico-legal officer
C. detective
D. Polygraph examiner
23. Which among the following statement
is not among the limitations of the Polygraph?
A. It is only as accurate as the examiner is
competent
B. It is admissible as evidence
C. It is an aid and not a substitute for
investigation
D. It is a scientific diagnostic
instrument which records responses.
24. An invaluable aid in investigation, it
refers to the Instrumentation In the
detection of crime or scientific police
method.
A. Photography B.
Lie detection
C. Chemistry
D. Medicine
25. Questions in connection to the matter
under investigation.
A. Relevant
B. Control
C. Supplementary D.
Irrelevant
26. Refers to query having no bearing or
weight to the case under investigation. .
A. Relevant B.
Control
C. Supplementary D.
Irrelevant
General Question Test – most commonly
applied.
Peak-of-Tension Test – usually used as
supplementary test.
27. A test usually administered as part
of the standard test to draw a better
conclusion.
A. Relevant
B. Control
C. Supplementary D.
Irrelevant
28. This measures, detects and graphically
displays voice modulation.
A. Word association test
B. Psychological stress evaluator
C. Truth serum
D. Water therapy
29. This stage, the rights of the subject are
explained. His consent are obtained a well as
personal data and the determination whether
the subject is mentally, physically and
psychologically prepared to undergo into
account.
A. Initial interview
B. Pre-test interview
C. Actual test
D. Post test interview
30. Under backster zone comparison test
technique, color zones are applied in identifying
so many questions used during the test. If the
color zone for irrelevant question is yellow, what
then is the color zone for strong relevant
questions?
A. Red
B. Black
C. Green
D. Orange
31. What test is given if a subject of
interrogation is not yet informed of the details of
the offense for which he is being interrogated by
the investigation, or by other persons or from
other sources like the print media?
A. Peak of Tension test B. Control
test
C. IQ Test
D. Guilt Complex Test
32. The use of “truth serums” such as sodium
penthothal or phenobarbi in the questioning of
suspects is called:
A. Narcoanalysis
B. Sugar and vinegar
C. The detector test
D. Word association method
33. This is a question designed to design and
evaluate the presence of outside issued which
may suppose responses to relevant questions.
A. Symptomatic
B. Knowledge question
C. Primary control
D. Evidence – connecting
34. Refers to a person who is capable of
detecting deception or verifying the truth
statements.
A. Polygrapher
B. Polygraph examiner
C. Polygraph expert
D. Examiner
35. This refers to the actual questioning phase of
the polygraph examination.
A. Pre test
B. Preliminary Interview
C. Test Execution
D. Post test
36. What component of the polygraph records
the blood pressure and the pulse rate of a
subject?
A. Pneumograph
B. Galvanograph
C. Kymograph
D. Cardiosphygmograph
37. What is the symbol used to indicate
start of the polygraph test marked in the
chart?
A. X
B. Y
C. W
D. XX
38. Which of the following causes physiological
changes in the body of the subject?
A. Peak of tension test
B. the fear of retaliation
C. Irrelevant question
D. Relevant question
39. In polygraph test, after the subject affirms
that he is involved in a crime the examiner
should report it to the?
A. Investigator
B. Object relative
C. Prosecutor
D. Judge
40. A component of the polygraph instrument
which is a motor that drives or pulls the chart
paper under the recording pen simultaneously at
the rate of 6 or 12 inches per minute.
A. Cardiosphygmograph
B. Pneumograph
C. Galvanograph
D. Kymograph
41. The following are specific rules to be followed in
the formulation of the questions in a polygraph test
except one.
A.Questions must be clear and phrased in a
language the subject can easily understand.
B.Questions must be answerable by yes or no.
C.Questions must be as short as possible.
D.Questions must all be in the form of accusations
42. To find out the truth is an essential
requirement for the administration of Justice.
Which of the following is the commonly used
method of deception detection?
A.Lie detection method
B.Hypnotism
C.Use of drugs
D.Confession
43. In “ polygraph examination”, the term “
examination” means a detection of
A. Forgery
B. Emotion
C. the mind
D. deception
44. What test is given if a subject of
interrogation is not yet informed of the details of
the offense for which he is being interrogated by
the investigation, or by other persons or from
other sources like the print media?
A.Peak of Tension test
B.Control test
C.IQ Test
D.Guilt Complex Test
45. In this examination stimulus and non-
stimulus words are read to the subject who
in turn is instructed to answer as quickly as
possible.
A. Word association test B.
Truth serum
C. Psychological stress evaluator D.
Water therapy
46. A test conducted wherein the subject is
instructed not to produce verbal response.
A. Peak of tension
B. Narrative
C. Silent answer
D. None of the above
47. Using the psychological stress
evaluator, a lying subject or when a person
is under stress, the frequencies...
A. Tends to disappear B.
Increases
C. Rises
D. Stops
48. This test is not concerned with the
answer whether it be yes or no, what is
relevant is the time of response in relation
to delay the answer.
A. Word association test B.
Truth serum
C. Psychological stress evaluator D.
Water therapy
49. A test undertaken when the subject is
not aware of the details of the offense for
which he is under scrutiny.
A. Quilt complex
B. Peak of tension
C. Silent answer
D. Narrative
PEAK-OF-TENSION TEST (PTT)
The subject may be given this test if he is not yet

informed of the details of the offense for which he is
being interrogated by the investigation, or by other
persons or from other sources like the print media.
This valid test is only made possibly when there is no
widespread publicity about a crime where intimate
details as to the methods of commission or certain
facts of the case is known from the victim and
investigator.
Examples of Peak-of-Tension Test:
Do you know whether the stolen watch

from Allan is a Seiko? (This is an
introductory phrase plus padding question)
Is it an Omega? (Padding)
Is it a Rolex? (Padding)
Is it Timex? (Relevant question)
Is it Alba quartz? (Padding)
Is it a Citizen? (Padding)
GUILT COMPLEX TEST (GCT)
This test is applied when the response to relevant

and control questions are similar in degree and in
consistency and in a way that the examiner cannot
determine whether the subject is telling the truth or
not. The subject is asked questions aside from the
irrelevant, relevant and control questions, a new series
of relevant questions dealing with a real incident and
that which the subject could not have committed.
SILENT ANSWER TEST (SAT)
This test is conducted in the same manner

as when relevant and control questions are asked
but the subject is instructed to answer the
questions silently, to himself, without making
any verbal response causes distortion in the
tracing such as sniff or clearing the throat.
50. A lie detector test would be most useful
A. Purposely to connect subject for the
crime committed
B. To substantiate a case for which no adequate
direct evidence is established
C. When some direct evidence are available
against the suspect but not enough to establish
the case completely
D. When there is no evidence against the
suspect
51. Any deviation from norm without markings
on the chart requires an explanation. This is the
cardinal rule in chart interpretation. What then
is the keynote to accurate chart interpretation?
A. Good question formulation
B. Good chart marking
C. Good pre-test interview
D. Good chart-proving
52. Is Carla, the rape victim, your
girlfriend? This is a/an
A. Relevant Questions
B. Irrelevant Questions
C. Control Questions
D. Conclusive Questions
53. Did you rape Maria last night?” is an
example of what question?
A. Irrelevant Question
B. Control Question
C. Relevant Question
D. None of these
54. Were you in the place of the Mr. Aquino on
the night of October 18, 2017?” is an example of
what question?
A. Relevant question
B. Irrelevant question
C. Weak relevant question
D. Strong relevant question
55. Is the gun found at the crime scene
yours? What kind of question is this?
A. Relevant
B. Irrelevant
C. Control
D. Conclusive
56. This component records the changes of
breathing of the subject
A. Cardiosphygmograph
B. Pnuemograph
C. Kymograph
D. Galvanograph
57. When response and control questions are
consistently similar this is administered.
A. Quilt complex B.
Peak of tension
C. Silent answer D.
Narrative
58. The primary purpose of pre-test
interview.
A. Prepare subject for polygraph test
B. Obtain confession
C. Make the subject calm
D. Explain the polygraph test procedures
59. An inhibition o' a previous activity of
an effector organ or organism as a result, of
stimulation.
A. Response
B. Detection
C. Deception
D. Reaction
60. Part of the galvanograph attached to the left
fingers of the subject.
A. Finger electrode plate B.
Rubber convoluted tube
C. Diacritic notch
D. Keymograph
61. This test uses hyoscine hydrobromide drug
administered hypedermically which produces a
state of delirium.
A. Hypnotism
B. Narco-synthesis
C. Narco-analysis D.
Administration of truth serum
62. It records the subject's skin resistance to
a small amount of electricity.
A. Cardisphygmograph B.
Galvanograph
C. Sphygmomanometer D.
Pneumograph
63. It is based on the maxim "in vino
veritas", meaning in Wine there is truth.
A. Hypnotism
B. Narco-analysis
C. Intoxication with the use of alcoholic
beverage
D. Administration of truth serum
64. Chart tracing of subject when
irrelevant questions were answered.
A. Reaction
B. Specific response
C. Normal response
D. Positive response
65. Cold damp perspiration is a
manifestation of shock, fear and anxiety.
Perspiration means?
A. Breathing
B. Pulse beat
C. Sweating
D. Heart rate
66. These are questions pertaining to the
issue under investigation.
67. The primary objective of post test
interview.
A. To thank the subject
B. To obtain confession
C. To make the subject calm
D. To explain polygraph test
procedures
68. These are questions that don't have any
bearing to the case.
69. Did you hide Senator Trillianes in your
beach result? Is an example of
interrogation in lie detection which is:
A. Control question B.
Relevant question
C. Irrelevant question D.
Leading question
70. Developed the systolic blood pressure
method for detecting deception.
A. William Marston
B. John Larson
C. Harold Burtt
D. Leonarde Keeler
71. Ho noted that respiratory and systolic blood
pressure changes were signs of deception.
A. William Marston
B. Leonard Keeler
C. Harold Burtt
D. John Larson
72. Italian scientist who used
hydrosphygmograph procedure for accused
persons.
A. Angelo Mosso B.
Lombroso
C. Veraguth
D. Vlttorio Benussl
73. Pioneer who first used the term
psychogalvanic skin reflex.
A. Angelo Mosso
B. Lombroso
C. Veraguth
D. Vittorio Benussi
74. Who first incorporated the
galvanograph with measurement,
respiration component and blood pressure.
A. Harold Burtt
B. Leonardo Keeler
C. Hans Gross
D. John Larson
75. In “polygraph examination”, the
term “examination” means a detection
of
A. forgery
B. emotion
C. the mind
D. deception
76. A list of stimulus and non-stimulus
words are read to the subject who is
instructed to answer as quickly as possible.
A. Word association test
B. Psychological stress evaluator
C. Card test
D. Hypnosis
77. In this examination, psychiatric
sodium penthotal is administered.
A. Hypnotism
B. Narco-analysls
C. Intoxication with the use of alcoholic
beverage
D. Administration of truth serum
78. Devised an Instrument capable of
continuously recording pulse rate,
respiration and blood pressure.
A. William Marston B.
John Larson
C. Angelo Mosso D.
Sticker
79. Psychological response to any demand.
A. Reaction
B. Pressure
C. Stress
D. All of the above
80. It refers to an emotional response to a
specific danger, which appears to go
beyond a person’s defensive power.
A. fear
B. stimuli
C. response
D. reaction
81. A subject must have at least how
many hours of sleep considered fit for
polygraph examination.
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
82. A question known to the subject and is
answerable by YES.
A. Relevant question
B. General question
C. Irrelevant question D.
Immaterial question
83. An act of discovery, indicative of the fact
that something is hidden or obscure.
A. Fear
B. Detection
C. Deception
D. Reaction
84. If polygraph tracing of a subject
indicates that he is truthful, the examiners
finding should be-
A. conclusive
B. Inconclusive
C. negative
D. Positive
85. Which of the following polygraph channels
records the blood pressure changes and pulses
rate of the examinee?
A. Cardiograph channel
B. Pneumograph channel
C. Galvanograph channel
D. Kymograph channel
86. These are questions unrelated to the
matter under investigation but are of similar
nature.
87. If polygraph tracing of a subject
indicates that he is truthful, the examiners
finding should be:
A. Conclusive
B. Inconclusive
C. Negative
D. Positive
88. Before the actual test conducted, the subject
must refrain from consuming alcoholic
beverages for at least _______ hours?
A. 6 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 5 hours
D. 20 hours
89. In a polygraph test, what test technique does
the examiner used if he utilized padding
questions?
A. Peak of tension test
B. Stimulation test
C. General question test
D. Zone comparison test
90. Is the force or motion reaching the
organism from the environment and excites
the receptors.
A. Stimulus
B. Reaction
C. Response
D. Emotion

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FINAL COACHING

Monochromatic (blue sensitivity) – sensitive to UV

Focal Length – it is the distance

Normal lens – a lens with a focal length of approximately

Long or Telephoto lens – a lens with a focal length of

Zoom lens – a lens with variable focal length that can be

1. Body or Light Tight Box – suggest an

2. Atmospheric dust filters – the sun rays and scatters rays of

The extent to which an emulsion is sensitive to light is

ASA (American Standards Association) rating – This is

ISO (International Standards Organization) rating

Top Coat – is a layer of hard gelatin that insulates

Hyper Focal Distance- The nearest distance

Flash Synchronization- The mechanical or

Resolving Power of the Lens- The

Negative Lens- A diverging lens which is always

Polarizing filter – used to reduce or

Shape- Relates the general form,

Macrophotography – can be interchanged

1. He is the first Filipino who topped the 1st

Ridge Counting – It refers to the process of counting

Ridge Tracing – Is the process of tracing the ridges

Dactyloscopy – identification of persons

Poroscopy – Science of palm print identification.

Principle of Individuality (Variation) – There are no

A dot can be a delta when there is no other alternative.

Rules in Delta location when there is a choice between

 The delta may be located at a bifurcation which does

Type line – basic boundaries of most

Radial Loop - “R” - derived its name from the radius

Ulnar Loop is one type of fingerprint pattern in which

Double Loop Whorl - Symbolized by letter “D” in the classification.

Plain Arch - Symbolized by letter “A” in the classification. It is a

Tented Arches - Symbolized by letter “T” in the classification. It

D. next loop outside with appendage at

 The core is placed upon or within the

Take Note - Always base on the entrance of the pattern in the

Rolled Impression – the subject must

a. rimmed type – used in revolvers .38 and

Cartridge Case – the tubular metallic container for the

Gunpowder – the powder charge which, when ignite by the

Primer – the metal cup containing the highly sensitive

Hang fire- occurs when the cartridge failed to

A. 4 Rifling, RHT, Width of Grooves are

D. 7 Rifling, RHT, Narrow Lands and broad

Caliper – determines the diameter of bullet and

Single Shot F.A. – type of firearms designed to fire only

A. boat tail bullet

A. owner of the firearm

A. person who fired the particular gun

A. proper sight alignment

A. To increase the speed of the bullet

A. Its barrel length

A. detect whether a witness is telling the

A. the revolver has both safety and

A. inserting a pencil or ballpen in the

A. empty shell remain within the chamber.

A. to see that it is not loaded

A. boat tail bullet

PUBLIC DOCUMENT - notarized by a notary public or competent

PHOTOGRAPHIC EXAMINATION - This type of

D. 15 years prior to the date of the

GRAPHOMETRY - analysis by comparison and

GRAPHOLOGY - the art of determining character